TEST BANK For Principles of Athletic Training A Guide to Evidence-Based Clinical Practice, 18th Edit

Test Bank For Principles of Athletic Training A Guide to Evidence-Based Clinical Practice, 18th Edition by William Prentice Chapter 1-29 Answers are at the End of Each Chapter Chapter 1

Student name:__________ 1) What establishment during the nineteenth century assisted in making athletic training as it is

known today?

A) Intercollegiate and interscholastic athletics B) World War I C) Title IX D) Olympics E) Cramer products

2) Which physician authored the first major text on athletic training titled The Trainer’s Bible?

A) Cramer B) Gardner C) Arnheim D) Bilik E) Prentice

3) What is the title of the monthly member magazine of the National Athletic Trainers’

Association?

A) NATA News B) Athletic Training Education Journal C) Journal of Sports Medicine D) Training and Conditioning E) Journal of Athletic Training

4) Which of the following organizations is “dedicated to transforming lives and revolutionizing

the health and fitness industry”?

A) American Physical Therapy Association, Sports Physical Therapy Section B) National Academy of Sports Medicine C) National Strength and Conditioning Association D) International Federation of Sports Medicine E) American College of Sports Medicine

5) What organization has the position that all secondary schools should provide the services of a

full-time, on-site, certified athletic trainers to student-athletes?

A) The National Athletic Trainers Association B) American College of Sports Medicine C) American Physical Therapy Association D) NCAA E) American Academy of Pediatrics

6) Which organization adopted a policy that “called for certified athletic trainers to be employed

in all secondary-school athletic programs”?

A) American Medical Association B) National Collegiate Athletic Association Committee on Competitive Safeguards and Medical Aspects of Sports C) American Orthopedic Society for Sports Medicine D) National High School Association E) American Academy of Pediatrics, Sports Committee

7) What employment setting allows the athletic trainer to address appropriate workplace

ergonomic techniques to reduce or minimize the possible risks for injury?

A) military/law enforcement B) industrial/occupational C) colleges/universities D) clinics/hospitals E) performing arts/professional sports

8) Of all the professional behaviors that an athletic trainer should possess, which would best

describe the ability to adapt to the constant state of high emotional arousal and anxiety during the working day?

A) Communication B) Ethical Practice C) Empathy D) Stamina and Ability to Adapt E) Sense of Humor

9) Which of the following statements is an inaccurate ethical principle based on the NATA’s

code of ethics?

A) Members shall respect the rights, welfare, and dignity of all individuals.

B) Members shall accept responsibility for the exercise of sound judgment.

C) Members shall comply with the laws and regulations governing the practice of athletic training, National Athletic Trainers Association, NATA membership standards, and the NATA Code of Ethics.

D) Members shall maintain and promote high standards in their provision of services.

E) Members shall not engage in conduct that could be construed as a conflict of interest, reflects negatively on the athletic training profession, or jeopardizes a patient’s health and well-being.

10) Who determines the competencies that should be taught in entry-level education programs

that are accredited by the CAATE? A) The Professional Education Committee B) The Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Education (CAATE) C) The Board of Certification D) The National Athletic Trainers Association E) The Education Council

11) What would be considered an unessential duty of the team physician?

A) diagnosing and treating injuries and other illnesses B) advising an athlete about health matters C) serving as an advisor to the athletic trainer D) deciding when, on medical grounds, athletes should be disqualified from participation E) serving as the medical director for an accredited athletic training program

12) Coaching is an area of specialization that is under the sports medicine “umbrella.” What

medical role can this area serve?

A) The coach is directly responsible for preventing injuries.

B) The coach is directly responsible for providing acute care such as CPR. C) The coach is directly responsible for acting as a First Responder.

D) The coach is directly responsible for determining return to play.

E) The coach is directly responsible for monitoring inclement weather.

13) What state has no regulation in regard to athletic trainers?

A) Colorado B) Iowa C) California D) New York E) Florida

14) What is the name of the organization whose purpose is to provide a certification program for

entry-level athletic trainers and recertification standards for certified athletic trainers?

A) BOC B) NATA C) CAATE D) CHEA E) CAAHEP

15) When an athletic trainer treats a patient using evidence they received from the current best

available evidence in professional literature it is called A) evidence-based practice.

B) PICO. C) systematic reviews.

D) PEDro scale.

E) PROMs.

16) Which of the following types of research would be considered the most rigorous?

A) anecdotal B) clinical practice guidelines C) case studies D) cohort studies E) randomized controlled trials

17) Which of the following represents what the “C” stands for in the acronym PICO? A) cause B) comparison C) care D) clinical E) critical

18) Which database currently holds the most comprehensive collection of systematic reviews for

athletic trainers?

A) Scientific American Medicine B) ACP Journal Club C) The Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews D) Physiotherapy Evidence Database E) New Castle

19) Which of the following personal qualities are important for a good athletic trainer?

A) empathy B) intellectual curiosity C) discipline D) sense of humor E) assertiveness F) aggressiveness

20) Please identify which patient-related outcome measures are specifically used for pain.

A) Lower Extremity Functional Scale B) Neck Disability Index C) Upper Extremity Functional Index D) Numeric Pain Rating Scale E) Disablement in the Physically Active Scale F) Patient-Specific Functional Scale G) Short-form McGill Pain Questionnaire

Answer Key Test name: chapter 1 1) A

Athletic training as we know it came into existence during the late nineteenth century with the firm establishment of intercollegiate and interscholastic athletes in the United States.

2) D

Dr. S. E. Bilik, a physician who wrote the first major text in 1917 on athletic training and the care of athletic injuries called The Trainer’s Bible, was a major influence in developing the athletic trainer as a specialist in preventing and managing athletic injuries.

3) A

NATA News is a monthly magazine published for members of the National Athletic Trainers’ Association.

4) B

The National Academy of Sports Medicine is dedicated to transforming lives and revolutionizing the health and fitness industry through its unwavering commitment to deliver innovative education, solutions, and tools that produce remarkable results.

5) A

The medical delivery system for injured student-athletes needs a coordinator within the local school community who will facilitate the prevention, recognition, treatment, and reconditioning of sports-related injuries. Therefore, it is the position of the National Athletic Trainers’ Association that all secondary schools should provide the services of full-time, on-site, certified athletic trainer (ATC) to student-athletes.

6) A

The American Medical Association has “called for certified athletic trainers to be employed in all secondary-school athletic programs be used as part of a high school’s medical team.”

7) B

The athletic trainer working in an industrial or occupational setting must have a sound understanding of the principles and concepts of workplace ergonomics, including inspecting, measuring, and observing dimensions of the work space, as well as specific tasks that are performed at the work station.

8) D

Athletic training requires abundant energy, vitality, and physical/emotional stability. Every day brings new challenges and problems that must be solved. The athletic trainer must be able to adapt to new situations with ease.

9) B

In 2005, the NATA revised code of ethics. “Members shall accept responsibility for the exercise of sound judgment” was removed.

10) [A, B]

The Professional Education Committee determines the competencies that should be taught in entry-level education programs that are accredited by the CAATE. 11) E

In reference to Focus Box 1-6, serving as the medical director for an accredited athletic training program is not a listed duty for the team physician or a requirement for a CAATE-accredited athletic training program.

12) A

The coach is directly responsible for preventing injuries by seeing that athletes have undergone a preventive injury conditioning program. They must also ensure that sports equipment, especially protective equipment, is of the highest quality and is properly fitted.

13) C

As of 2023, California is the only state with no regulation for athletic trainers.

14) A

The Board of Certification’s purpose is to provide a certification program for entry-level athletic trainers and recertification standards for certified athletic trainers.

15) A

Evidence-based practice is making decisions about the clinical care of individual patients based on the current best available evidence in the professional literature.

16) E

Among the different types of research, randomized controlled trials (meta-analyses and systematic reviews) are the most rigorous.

17) B

C stands for Comparison. When developing a PICO, a comparison of the alternatives that might be used in the intervention should be completed.

18) C

The Cochrane Database of Systematic Reviews currently contains the largest database and is recommended that athletic trainers begin their search of systematic reviews here.

19) [A, B, D]

Empathy, intellectual curiosity, and a sense of humor are essential qualities for a good athletic trainer.

20) [D, G]

The Numeric Pain Rating Scale & the Short-form McGill Pain Questionnaire are both outcome measures used for pain.

Student name:__________ 21) How does a clearly written mission statement influence the outcome of the strategic planning

process when establishing a system for athletic training health care?

A) It helps involve all personnel within the healthcare program.

B) It establishes why a healthcare program is needed.

C) It focuses the direction of the healthcare program.

D) It creates the goals of the healthcare program.

E) It takes a critical look at the strength and weaknesses of the healthcare program.

22) What is the athletic training program’s primary purpose when performing a SWOT analysis?

A) to discover overspending on supplies B) to discover weaknesses of staff skills and treatment protocols C) to discover the potential of creating a brand-new athletic training program D) to discover the program’s overall value of return based on patient treatments E) to discover the program’s overall strengths, weaknesses, opportunities for growth, and

threats to productivity

23) What is the primary purpose of creating a program policy and procedure manual for an

athletic training program?

A) to establish the daily order of operations of all staff members B) to identify basic rules and principles used to control and expedite decision making C) to define the scope of practice within the athletic training program and profession D) to decide the extent to which patients will be served E) to assign proper personnel coverage for the clinic population or specific sports

24) Within the scope of an athletic training program, what should be considered when offering

medical services to members in the community?

A) legality and the institution’s insurance program B) age, gender, and ethnicity of the patient C) proof of insurance for the patient D) conflict of interest to local rehabilitation facilities E) size and limitation of space within own facility

25) When deciding how to provide medical coverage for multiple athletic teams, what should the

athletic trainer put into consideration when making the decision as to which team should receive on-site coverage?

A) provide for only in-season sports B) base it on distance to the athletic training room facility C) provide for athletic teams that have potential of play-off contention D) base it on potential risk and number of athletes involved E) base it on number of injuries sustained during the last year

26) Of the following examples, which of the following would contribute to practicing unhealthy

habits in an athletic setting?

A) avoid drinking from a common water dispenser B) be sure to change socks after any physical activity C) share sideline towels D) avoid contact with teammates who have a contagious disease or infection E) shower after practice

27) When developing a risk management plan, what would be considered a non-relevant issue to

address?

A) fire safety B) emergency action plans C) security issues D) electrical and equipment safety E) OSHA rules and regulations

28) How often should electrical equipment be reevaluated, or calibrated?

A) every year B) every two years C) every three years D) every time an accredited program goes up for re-accreditation E) upon the individual manufacturer’s recommendation

29) If an athletic trainer were to open a privately owned clinic, what would be an essential factor

to consider when choosing a good location?

A) Will doctors refer patients to this clinic?

B) Is there a public billboard near for advertising?

C) Will a local hospital help with your patient overflow?

D) Is there a physical therapy business that would refer clients?

E) Would an area doctor be willing to contract to hire you as a physician extender?

30) Athletic trainers are becoming more diversified with job placement. What other athletic

training duty involves providing intensive outpatient therapy for individuals injured on the job with the goal of regaining functionality and returning to work in a full duty capacity?

A) ergonomic assessments B) work hardening/conditioning programs C) wellness centers D) community outreach and marketing E) corporate fitness programs

31) What is a disadvantage of using electronic medical records?

A) Portability of documents allows access to multiple healthcare providers.

B) Cost factors are absorbed by the physician.

C) Errors are increased due to open access within an office.

D) Cyber-security issues threaten patient privacy.

E) They contradict the effectiveness of electronic health records.

32) What is the full meaning of the HIPAA abbreviation?

A) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act B) Health Insurance Process and Application Act C) Health Is Private and Accessible Act D) Having Insurance Prevents Actual Access E) Health Insurance Portability and Application Act

33) What is the Tanner Stage of maturity when a male has present: pubic hair becomes darker

and coarser, begins to curl, and spreads over the pubic region?

A) Stage 1 B) Stage 2 C) Stage 3 D) Stage 4 E) Stage 5

34) Who is the best suggested medical professional that should perform a clinical examination of

heart and lung sounds on a patient during a preparticipation examination?

A) student athletic trainer B) certified athletic trainer C) physician’s assistant D) nurse E) physician

35) What muscle is being assessed during the orthopedic screening if the patient is instructed to

shrug the shoulders against the examiner’s resistance?

A) shoulder motion B) deltoid strength C) trapezius strength D) acromioclavicular joint stability E) bicep strength

36) Doing a toe stand and heel walk will assist in determining ROM to what structure A) gastrocnemius.

B) deltoid.

C) trapezius.

D) cervical spine.

E) hamstring muscles.

37) Please check all of the following conditions that would recommend disqualification from a

contact or collision sport.

A) absence of one kidney B) atlantoaxial instability C) inguinal hernia D) absence of an ovary E) carditis F) enlarged liver G) asthma H) sickle cell I) mild hypertension J) enlarged spleen K) absence of a testicle

38) How many elements does the American Heart Association suggest are a part of the

cardiovascular screen?

A) 5 elements B) 10 Elements C) 14 elements D) 19 elements E) 22 elements

39) What system was developed to track football injuries through a Web-based system that tracks

medical information and analyzes injury trends?

A) National Safety Council B) Annual Survey of Football Injury Research C) National Center for Catastrophic Sports Injury Research D) NCAA Injury Surveillance System E) National Electronic Injury Surveillance System

40) What are useful steps to promote good health among athletes?

A) practice good foot hygiene B) sleep a maximum of six hours a night C) shower prior to practice D) dry thoroughly and cool off before departing from the gymnasium E) avoid contact with teammates who have a contagious disease or infection F) understand the role coaches play in maintaining a healthy lifestyle and the prevention

of injuries

41) Which of the following would assist in proper cleanliness and sanitation in the athletic

training clinic?

A) No food should be allowed in the clinic B) No cleated shoes should be permitted.

C) Game equipment should be allowed in the facility, however, must remain on the floor.

D) Athletes should make it a habit to shower after treatments E) Roughhousing and profanity should not be allowed.

42) A patient states that they have a headache following a header in soccer. Where would this go

in the SOAP note?

A) subjective B) objective C) assessment D) plan E) it should go in none of these sections.

43) A patient is given a goal of running one mile in 2 weeks. Where would this go in the SOAP

note?

A) B) C) D) E)

subjective objective assessment plan it should go in none of these sections.

44) During an evaluation of a patient's knee you realize they are lacking 15 degrees of knee

flexion. Where would this go in the SOAP note?

A) subjective B) objective C) assessment D) plan E) it should go in none of these sections.

45) The Athletic Trainer believes that the athlete has a torn ACL based on the results of the

Lachman’s test. Where would this go in the SOAP note?

A) subjective B) objective C) assessment D) plan E) it should go in none of these sections.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 2 21) C

A clearly written mission statement will help focus the direction of the program and should be an outcome of the strategic planning process.

22) E

A SWOT analysis looks at Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities, and Threats underlying planning. It is a useful and effective technique in strategic planning for existing athletic health care program.

23) B

Policies are clear and accurate written statements that identify basic rules and principles used to control and expedite decision making. Procedures describe the process by which something is done.

24) A

When making the decision to allow outside group(s) or people in the community be served by the athletic training staff, legality and the institution’s insurance program must be taken into consideration when making this decision.

25) D

The athletic trainer in this difficult situation must make some decisions about where the greatest need for coverage is, based on the potential risk of a particular sport and the number of athletes involved.

26) C

To promote good health among athletes, the athletic trainer should encourage sound health habits, such as avoid using a common towel.

27) E

Addressing OSHA rules and regulations would be more appropriately discussed in the athletic training policy and procedure manual.

28) A

Electrical equipment should be reevaluated on a yearly basis and should conform to National Electrical Code guidelines. A clinic that is not in compliance with this code has no legal protection in a lawsuit.

29) A

It is essential to build a patient base. Location is a key, but knowing an area physician would refer patients to you would help.

30) B

Athletic trainers may supervise or participate in work hardening or conditioning programs that address these needs. This can also include functional capacity evaluations to determine skill deficits as measured against physical job requirements.

31) D

The downside is that the improved portability and accessibility creates security issues that potentially threaten patient privacy. Electronic medical records improve overall efficiency, reduce errors, and reduce costs.

32) A

The abbreviation for HIPAA is Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act. 33) C

The Tanner approach evaluates pubic hair and genitalia development in boys and pubic hair and breast development in girls. Stage 1 indicates that puberty is not evident, and stage 5 indicates full development.

34) E

A physician should be the individual responsible for checking an athlete’s heart and lung sounds.

35) C

Performing a shoulder shrug against resistance is the manual muscle test for the trapezius.

36) A

Figure 2-8 identifies that a toe stand and heel walk will determine gastrocnemius ROM. 37) [C, D, G, H, I, K] 38) C

The 14-element cardiovascular screening checklist for congenital and genetic heart disease in young athletes is recommended by the American Heart Association.

39) D

The NCAA Injury Surveillance System (ISS) was established in 1982 primarily for the purpose of studying the incidence of football injuries. In Fall 2004, the ISS fully converted to a Web-based data-collection system that tracks medical information and analyzes injury trends.

40) [A, D, E]

There are many recommended actions that promote good health among athletes. The athletic trainer should encourage sound health habits and can disseminate this information to coaches and athletes.

41) [A, B, E]

The athletic training clinic should be used only for the prevention and care of sports injuries.

Unless definite rules are established and practiced, cleanliness and sanitation become an impossible chore.

42) A

The subjective portion of the SOAP note refers to what the patient tells the athletic trainer about the injury relative to the history or what he or she felt.

43) D

The plan for treatment indicates how the injury will be managed and includes short- and longterm goals for rehabilitation.

44) B

The objective portion documents information that the athletic trainer gathers during the evaluation, such as range of motion, strength levels, patterns of pain, and so forth.

45) C

The assessment records the athletic trainer’s professional opinion about the injury based on the information obtained during the subjective and objective portions.

Student name:__________ 46) An athletic trainer decides to suture an athlete’s head wound which is against the state

practice act. What type of legal concern is this?

A) act of omission B) act of commission C) misfeasance D) duty of care E) liability

47) Which of the following legal terms is synonymous with malfeasance?

A) act of omission B) act of commission C) tort D) negligence E) liability

48) An athletic trainer is performing ultrasound on a patient and accidentally burns the patient by

failing to moving the ultrasound head. What type of legal concern is this?

A) misfeasance B) act of omission C) act of commission D) sovereign immunity E) good Samaritan law

49) Please check all of the following things that an athletic trainer can do in order to reduce the

risk of litigation.

A) create an emergency action plan that will be reviewed every 3–5 years B) keep factually accurate and timely records that at minimum document the patient’s injury C) follow the express orders of a physician at all times only when the injury is severe D) permit an injured player to participate once they look better E) use common sense when making a decision about a patient’s health and safety F) document efforts to create a safe training environment G) work to establish good working relationships with the athletes, parents, patients, clients, and coworkers H) obtain written consent from the team doctor to treat minors I) be aware of the limitations of their personal liability insurance J) only use modalities that state law permits

50) What is the full meaning for the NOCSAE abbreviation?

A) National Operating Commission on Safety of Athletic Equipment B) National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment C) National Organization on Safety of Athletic Equipment D) Newly Organized Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment E) Nations Operating Commission on Safety of Athletic Equipment

51) What was developed to eliminate some of the worst practices of insurance companies and to

put the consumer back in charge of their healthcare?

A) Affordable Care Act B) Managed Care C) Professional Liability insurance D) HMO E) PPO

52) What type of insurance should an athletic trainer possess in order to cover the act of

negligence in a civil case?

A) catastrophic insurance B) accident insurance C) professional liability insurance D) general health insurance E) Health Maintenance Organization Insurance

53) Which of the following is an incorrect statement about catastrophic insurance?

A) The medical plan benefits the NCAA offers to athletes who require a lifetime of

extensive medical care because of a permanent disability.

B) Errors and omissions liability insurance evolved to offset the shotgun approach of lawsuits and to cover what is not covered by a general liability policy.

C) The National Federation of State High School Associations (NFSHSA) offers a plan that provides for costs in excess of $10,000 not covered by other insurance benefits.

D) The existence of these plans eliminates the need for the professional to carry personal liability insurance.

E) Costs for catastrophic insurance are based on the number of sports and the number of hazardous sports offered by the institution.

54) Which third-party payer usually involves a major hospital or hospital chain and its

physicians?

A) HMO B) PPO C) PHO D) Medicare E) Indemnity plans

55) Which third-party payer is a combination of the HMO and PPO plans, yet allows members to

go outside the HMO to obtain services?

A) PPO B) POS C) EPO D) PHO E) TPA

56) Which third-party payer would provide financial medical assistance to an athlete who comes

from a low-income family?

A) HMO B) Medicare C) Indemnity plan D) Worker compensation E) Medicaid

57) When were athletic trainers able to bill third-party payers for services rendered?

A) 1990s B) 1995 C) 1996 D) early 2000s E) Athletic trainers have always been able to bill.

58) What needs to be stressed to parents if the host institution offers a secondary insurance policy

for athletes?

A) Save all receipts so they can be filed with the individual’s tax records.

B) Submit all bills to the primary insurance company before submitting the remainder to the host institution.

C) All insurance filing will be taken care of by the host institution.

D) Pay all bills up front; the host institution will reimburse the family.

E) Keep all the bills until the end, then collectively file them together.

59) What action by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) in 2005 created a job

loss for athletic trainers working in clinics and hospitals or as physician extenders?

A) Individual state licensure acts were revoked; Board of Certification was the only honoring professional credentialing body.

B) Insurance billing codes for athletic training rehabilitation services were deleted.

C) A mandate was set forth that only outcomes research practices/treatments could be eligible for reimbursement.

D) Athletic trainers were no longer recognized as a qualified professional to provide therapy incident to a physician’s service.

E) Reimbursement could only be offered if the patient had primary insurance coverage.

60) What type of code identifies specific medical procedures used in treating a patient?

A) HCFA-1500 B) HCFA-1450 C) UB-92 D) ICD-9-CM E) CPT

61) Please check all of the items that an Athletic Trainer can bill for based on procedure codes.

A) aquatic therapeutic exercise B) ultrasound C) suturing D) prosthetic training E) nutritional consultation F) counseling G) massage H) spinal manipulations I) dry needling

62) What does the Sports Medicine Licensure Clarity Act protect?

A) The act protects the athlete’s ability to choose a healthcare provider.

B) The act protects the right to practice athletic training.

C) Ensuring that athletic trainers and other sports medicine professionals are properly

covered by malpractice insurance while traveling.

D) Insuring that athletic trainers can bill for service.

E) HIPPA and FERPA must be protected for all athletes.

63) Any healthcare provider who uses standard electronic transactions, such as electronic claims,

eligibility verifications, claims status inquiries, and claim attachments is required to have one of these.

A) licensure B) certification C) NPI number D) CPT code E) billing code

64) When submitting documentation for billing, what needs to be included? Please check all that

apply A) B) C) D) E) F)

an impression or diagnosis monthly progress notes patient updated medical history form copies of weekly treatment records copies of their physical diagnostic test results

65) You are hosting a flag football tournament and your coach comes to you asking what type of

insurance coverage you need to cover the students at this event. What would be the most appropriate insurance?

A) catastrophic insurance B) accident insurance C) professional liability insurance D) workers compensation E) capitation

66) Which of the following legal terms is synonymous with nonfeasance?

A) act of omission B) act of commission C) tort D) negligence E) liability

67) In order to prove negligence, the complaint must establish which of the following things?

A) A duty of care existed between the person injured and the person responsible for that

injury.

B) The defendant breached this duty by conduct that fell short of the standard of care.

C) The defendant caused the injury to occur.

D) Personal, property or punitive damages resulted.

E) The injured person was not following directions.

F) The injured person did not report the incident to the athletic trainer.

G) The defendant documented the incident.

H) The defendant followed the emergency action plan.

68) You have an athlete who fractured their arm while playing basketball. Their insurance has

paid most of the bill; however, they still have an out of pocket expense of $1000.00. What type of policy might your institution have to pay this bill?

A) accident insurance B) secondary insurance C) catastrophic insurance D) professional liability insurance E) general health insurance

Answer Key Test name: chapter 3 46) B

When an individual commits an act that is not legally his to perform, it is an act of commission.

47) B

Malfeasance can also be referred to as act of commission.

48) A

When an individual improperly does something he or she has the legal right to perform, it is labeled as misfeasance.

49) [E, F, G, I, J] 50) B

NOCSAE is the abbreviation for National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment.

51) A

The Affordable Care Act included comprehensive health insurance reforms designed to eliminate some of the worst practices of insurance companies and to essentially put consumers back in charge of their health care.

52) C

Professional liability insurance typically covers negligence in a civil case.

53) D

Even when working in a program that has good liability coverage, each person within that program who works directly with students must have his or her own personal liability insurance.

54) C

Physician Hospital Organizations (PHO) also contract directly with employers to provide services and/or contracts with a managed care organization.

55) B

The Point of Service plans allows flexibility only with certain conditions and under special circumstances.

56) E

Medicaid is funded by both the federal government and individual states, with the state responsible for handling the administration of the program; therefore, benefits vary by state.

57) E

Athletic trainers have always been able to bill third-party payers for services rendered. The 1990s and early 2000s saw a significant increase in reimbursement.

58) B

Schools with secondary policies should stress that the parents must submit all bills to their insurance company before they submit the remainder to the school.

59) D

The CMS ruling stated that they would “no longer pay for therapy ‘incident to’ a physician’s services unless the provider is a physical therapist, occupational therapist, or speech/language pathologist.”

60) E

Current Procedure Terminology Code (CPT) was first developed by the American Medical Association in 1966. Annual publications designate changes corresponding to significant updates in medical technology and practice.

61) [A, B, D, G] 62) C

The Sports Medicine Licensure Clarity Act was passed in 2017 and the NATAPAC was directly responsible for that passage.

63) C

As of 2007, any healthcare provider who uses standard electronic transactions, such as electronic claims, eligibility verifications, claims status inquiries, and claim attachments is required to have an NPI number.

64) [A, C, F] 65) B

It covers accidents on school grounds while the student is in attendance or accidents that occur in the workplace; however, the coverage is limited and often does not cover surgery or lengthy rehabilitations.

66) A

Nonfeasance can also be referred to as act of omission.

67) [A, B, C, D]

Focus Box 3-1 identifies what an athletic trainer can do to avoid claims of negligence.

68) B

Most institutions offer some type of secondary insurance coverage, which pays the remaining medical bills once the personal insurance company has made its payment. It will cover many additional charges such as deductibles, copays, or coverage limits the primary insurer does not pay for.

Student name:__________ 69) Which of the following is a common role that the athletic trainer has to fulfill when

employed in the secondary school setting?

A) physical therapist B) substitute teacher C) emergency medical technician D) strength and conditioning coach E) school nurse

70) What principle of conditioning addresses an individual’s specific adaptation to imposed

demands?

A) intensity B) safety C) overload D) individuality E) specificity

71) Which of the following principles of conditioning allows the program designer to address

group needs, rather than individual needs?

A) overload B) minimize stress C) specificity D) progression E) consistency

72) What type of activity involves continuous movement using hopping, skipping, and bounding

activities with several different footwork drills?

A) dynamic warm-up B) warm-up C) cool down D) stretching E) cardiorespiratory endurance

73) What four components coordinate together to transport oxygen throughout the body?

A) heart, brain, lungs, aorta B) heart, lungs, blood vessels, blood C) heart, lungs, veins, arteries D) brain, heart, veins, arteries E) heart, blood vessels, blood, brain

74) The volume of blood being pumped out with each beat is called A) stroke volume.

B) submaximal heart rate.

C) aerobic capacity.

D) cardiac output.

E) maximum aerobic capacity.

75) How is the heart able to adapt to increased demands during exercise?

A) It decreases the volume of blood being pumped out with each beat.

B) The heart’s rate will plateau at a given level within 15–20 minutes.

C) With high-intensity demands, heart rate and oxygen consumption are inversely

related.

D) Cardiac output increases as aerobic capacity increases.

E) The stroke volume will increase as the heart rate increases at a given exercise load.

76) What is known as the “ultimate usable form of energy for muscular activity”?

A) O2 B) glucose C) ATP D) ADP E) fat

77) Check only the steps that contribute to the energy system of anaerobic metabolism.

A) The body turns to stored glycogen as an energy source.

B) A by-product, glucose, seeps out of the muscle cells into the blood to be used

elsewhere.

C) ATP is rapidly metabolized to meet energy needs.

D) Lactate is broken down to supply glucose, which is then metabolized within the muscle cells to generate ATP for muscle contractions without the need for oxygen.

E) During sudden outbursts of activity in intensive, short-time exercise, ATP is stored to meet energy needs.

78) What is broken down to supply glucose?

A) lactate B) ATP C) glycogen D) lactate E) carbohydrates

79) Which of the following activities is an example of interval training?

A) swimming 25 laps for time B) sprinting the straight-aways and jogging the curves of a track C) running from home plate to second base 15 times D) cariocas on a football field for 15 minutes E) dribbling a soccer field corner-to-corner

80) What term is best identified with enlargement of a muscle caused by an increase in the size

of its cells?

A) muscular strength B) power C) muscular endurance D) hypertrophy E) atrophy

81) Will a muscle hypertrophy if myofilaments also increase in both size and number?

A) Yes, this supports the theory that the number of muscle fibers increases because fibers

split in response to training.

B) No, this contradicts the theory that myofilament increase only occurs in males.

C) Yes, this supports the theory that more blood is required to supply the muscle, thus, also increasing the number of capillaries.

D) No, this contradicts the theory that the number of fibers is genetically determined and does not increase with training.

E) Yes, this supports the theory that individual muscle fibers themselves increase in cross-sectional diameter.

82) Select the correct explanation of the length-tension relation in muscle based on the figure.

A) Point A is the interaction where the crossbridges between the actin and myosin

myofilaments within the sarcomere are at their maximum.

B) Point B is the interaction where the crossbridges between the actin and myosin myofilaments within the sarcomere are at their maximum.

C) Point C is the interaction where the crossbridges between the actin and myosin myofilaments within the sarcomere are at their maximum.

D) Points A and C have the greatest amount of tension.

E) Points B and C have the greatest amount of tension.

83) What determines the tension that can be generated when referring to muscular strength?

A) muscle diameter B) muscle hypertrophy C) muscle length D) muscle size E) muscle endurance

84) How does an isometric muscular contraction occur?

A) The muscle shortens in length as the contraction is developed to overcome or move

some resistance.

B) The muscle contracts to increase tension but there is no change in the length of the muscle.

C) The muscle contracts to increase tension with a change in the length of the muscle.

D) The muscle contracts while being elongated but does not change in length.

E) The muscle shortens in length, and then elongates.

85) Which of the following techniques of resistance training help an individual gain strength,

neuromuscular control, power, and muscle endurance?

A) functional strength training B) interval training C) isometric exercise D) progressive resistance exercise E) core stability training

86) What type of exercise is demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

isometric exercise progressive resistance exercise isokinetic exercise plyometric exercise core stability exercise

87) What type of exercise is demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

isometric exercise progressive resistance exercise isokinetic exercise plyometric exercise core stability exercise

88) Check only the exercises that can be categorized as a functional exercise.

A) front lunge balance to one-arm press B) prone cobra C) stability ball push-ups D) tandem stance on Dyna disc with trunk rotation E) stability ball diagonal rotations with weighted ball F) clean and jerk G) side-lying isolated abdominal

89) Shortening and lengthening a muscle through a complete range of motion for which of the

following types of exercise?

A) eccentric exercise B) concentric exercise C) isometric exercise D) isotonic exercise E) isokinetic exercise

90) What type of exercise is demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

isometric exercise progressive resistance exercise isokinetic exercise plyometric exercise core stability exercise

91) If you were to combine all of these activities into a series of stations that would be repeated

three times, what would it be called?

A) B) C) D) E)

circuit training calisthenic strengthening exercises progressive resistive exercises isotonic strengthening plyometric exercises

92) Which of the following factors could limit flexibility?

A) bony structure B) gender C) excessive fat D) hypermobility E) muscles and their tendons F) connective tissue G) skin H) height I) genetics J) length of the limb

93) What type of stretching is demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

static stretching ballistic stretching dynamic stretching proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching myofascial stretching

94) What type of stretching is demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

static stretching ballistic stretching dynamic stretching proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching myofascial stretching

95) What type of stretching is demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

static stretching ballistic stretching dynamic stretching proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation stretching myofascial stretching

96) What instrument/machine is most commonly used to measure joint angles and range of

motion at a joint?

A) tape measure B) goniometer C) dynamometer D) skin caliper E) cybex

97) A patient has a rating of perceived exertion of 19. What would be their verbal rating?

A) fairly light B) very, very hard C) hard D) very, very light E) somewhat hard

98) What plateaus at 40% of the maximum heart rate?

A) stroke volume B) aerobic capacity C) cardiac output D) submaximal heart rate E) anaerobic capacity

99) Which of the following is an example of high-intensity interval training?

A) a soccer player running sprints B) a basketball player shooting 5 balls in 1 minute C) a cross-country runner completing 3 miles in 30 minutes D) a volleyball player completing 10 serves in 2 minutes E) a gymnast stretching before competition

100)

What causes a reflex relaxation of the muscle in response to stretch?

A) muscle spindle B) golgi tendon organ C) alpha motor neurons D) type Ia nerve from muscle spindle E) substantia gelatinosa

Answer Key Test name: chapter 4 69) D

In the majority of secondary school settings, a strength and conditioning coach is not available; the responsibility for ensuring that the athlete gets fit lies with the athletic trainer and the team coaches.

70) C

Logan and Wallis identified the SAID principle, which directly relates to the principle of overload. SAID – specific adaptation to imposed demands.

71) E

The other principles of conditioning are based on the individual’s needs or physical abilities.

Consistency is having a regularly scheduled basis for strength and conditioning to be effective.

72) A

A dynamic warm-up involves continuous movement using hopping, skipping, and bounding activities with several different footwork drills and patterns.

73) B

Basically, transport of oxygen throughout the body involves the coordinated function of four components: the heart, the lungs, the blood vessels, and the blood.

74) A

Stroke volume is the volume of blood being pumped out with each beat.

75) D

During exercise, cardiac output increases to approximately four times that experienced during rest in the normal individual and may increase as much as six times in the elite endurance athlete.

76) C

Energy is produced from the breakdown of nutrient foodstuffs. This energy is used to produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

77) [A, C]

Lactic acid is the by-product that seeps out of the muscle cells into the blood. Glycogen is broken down to supply glucose. And, during sudden bursts of activity that intense, ATP is metabolized to meet energy needs.

78) C

Glycogen is broken down to supply glucose, which is then metabolized within the muscle cells to generate ATP for muscle contractions without the need for oxygen.

79) B

“Fartlek” training is a type of interval training that puts surges into a running workout, varying the length of the surges according to individual purposes.

80) D

Hypertrophy is the enlargement of a muscle caused by an increase in the size of its cells in response to training.

81) E

A third theory to explain muscle hypertrophy is that muscle fibers are composed primarily of small protein filaments, called myofilaments, which are contractile elements in muscle.

82) B

The length of a muscle determines the tension that can be generated. By varying the length of a muscle, different tensions may be produced.

83) C

The length of the muscle determines the tension that can be generated. In addition to the position of attachment of the muscle, tendon on the arm can affect the ability of that muscle to generate force.

84) B

An isometric contraction does not have a change in muscle length even though the muscle contracts.

85) E

The concept of core stability training is essential. A core stabilization training program is designed to address the muscles in the lumbar spine, the abdomen, and around the hip and pelvis.

These muscles are collectively referred to as the core.

86) A

An isometric exercise involves a muscle contraction in which the length of the muscle remains constant while tension develops toward a maximal force against an immovable resistance.

87) E

A core stabilization training program is designed to help an individual gain strength, neuromuscular control, power, and muscle endurance of the muscles in the lumbar spine, abdomen, and around the hip and pelvis.

88) [A, D, E]

Functional strengthening exercises use simultaneous movement (concentric, eccentric, and isometric contractions) in three planes on both stable and unstable surfaces.

89) D

In an isotonic exercise, the muscle shortens and lengthens through a complete range of motion.

90) D

Plyometric exercise is a technique that includes specific exercises that encompass a rapid stretch of a muscle eccentrically, followed immediately by a rapid concentric contraction of that muscle for the purpose of facilitating and developing a forceful explosive movement over a short period of time.

91) A

Circuit training consists of exercise stations that consist of various combinations of weight training, flexibility, calisthenics, and aerobic exercises.

92) [A, C, E, F, G] 93) A

Static stretching is a technique widely used and effective technique of stretching involving passively stretching a given antagonist muscle by placing it in a maximal position of stretch and holding it there for an extended time.

94) C

Dynamic stretching is controlled stretches recommended prior to beginning an activity.

95) E

Myofascial stretching stretches tight fascia and can be done manually or using a firm foam roller.

96) B

A goniometer is the simplest and most widely used instrument to measure joint angles and range of motion.

97) B

The rating of perceived exertion chart (Table 4-2) identified 19 as a very, very hard rating.

98) A

Figure 4-4 identifies that stroke volume plateaus at 40% of the maximal heart rate 99) A

Figure 4-7 identifies an example of %HRR of a soccer player running sprints.

100)

B Figure 4-23 identifies how the stretch reflex occurs.

Student name:__________ 101)

Please select only the major class of nutrients by clicking the appropriate box.

A) carbohydrates B) sugars C) starches D) fiber E) fats F) proteins G) amino Acids H) vitamins I) antioxidents J) minerals K) water L) electrolytes

102)

Which of the following nutritional energy sources is needed for growth, maintenance, and repair of all body tissues?

A) carbohydrates B) fats C) proteins D) vitamins E) water

103)

What vitamin when taken in excess can cause kidney stones and diarrhea?

A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) vitamin E D) vitamin K E) vitamin C

104)

What vitamin when taken in excess can cause headaches, nausea, loss of hair, dry skin, and diarrhea?

A) vitamin A B) vitamin D C) vitamin E D) vitamin K E) vitamin C

105) 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Which of the following vitamin(s) should not be taken on a daily basis?

Vitamin A Vitamin D Thiamin Vitamin C Riboflavin A) I1 B) I1 & II C) II & IV D) III &V5 E) III, IV &V5

106)

Which of the following mineral deficiencies will produce skin problems and growth problems?

A) calcium B) iron C) iodine D) zinc E) copper

107)

Which of the following mineral supplements will assist in preventing osteoporosis?

A) calcium B) iron C) protein D) creatine E) herbal

108)

A patient is suffering from the following symptoms: depression, fever, vomiting, paranoid psychosis, and significant weight loss. What is the suspected supplement being ingested?

A) ginseng B) echinacea C) ephedrine D) glucose E) iron

109)

Which of the following nutritional supplements has an integral role in energy metabolism and is synthesized by the kidneys, liver, and pancreas?

A) calcium supplements B) iron supplements C) creatine supplements D) herbal supplements E) glucose supplements

110)

What is an advantage to utilizing ultrasound to measure the tissue thickness of muscle and intra-abdominal depth?

A) Ultrasound is cheaper than skin calipers.

B) Ultrasound is the gold standard.

C) Ultrasound does a better job of measuring superficial fat.

D) Ultrasound has the best results on individuals with a low BMI. E) Ultrasound can get at locations where calipers cannot be applied.

111)

In order to maximize glycogen resynthesis when is it recommended that a person ingests dietary carbohydrates and protein following activity?

A) within the first 24 hours B) within the first 12 hours C) within the first 6 hours D) within the first 3 hours E) immediately after exercise

112)

What type of vegetarian dietary pattern consumes dairy products and eggs in the diet along with plant foods; meat, fish, and poultry are excluded?

A) vegetarianism B) vegan C) lactovegetarian D) lacto-ovo-vegetarian E) semivegetarian

113)

When designing the pregame, or prevent meal, what should be excluded as a consideration?

A) eating preferences of the individual athlete B) ease of digestibility of the food C) increasing coffee and tea consumption D) consumption three to four hours prior to event/game E) achieve largest possible storage of carbohydrates

114)

Please check all of the following food items that would be ideal for an afternoon pregame meal.

A) coke B) steak C) green beans D) steamed vegetables E) sour cream F) baked potato G) fried fish H) lowfat-milk

115)

Which of the following items that you consume has the highest amount of calories per gram?

A) carbohydrates B) protein C) fat D) alcohol E) water

116)

For an athlete competing in endurance events, what nutritional practice can maximize the amount of glycogen that can be stored?

A) fat loading B) low-carbohydrate consumption C) liquid food supplementation D) muscle glycogen restoration E) glycogen supercompensation

117)

Please check all of the areas where you should check body composition utilizing skin calipers.

A) the thigh B) the shoulder C) the triceps D) the biceps E) the abdomen F) the suprailiac G) the hamstring H) the calf I) the chest J) the neck

118)

Which assessment method provides one of the most accurate measurements of body composition?

A) Scale measurement B) Skinfold measurement C) Hydrostatic measurement D) Bioelectrical impedance measurement E) Body Mass Index measurement

119)

Which of the following is a misrepresentation of caloric value?

A) Alcohol = 7 calories / gram B) Carbohydrate = 4 calories / gram C) Fat = 9 calories / gram D) Protein = 4 calories / gram E) Sugar = 7 calories / gram

120)

What is the correct technique for measuring basal metabolic rate (BMR)?

A) Fasting for 12 hours, awakening in a quiet, warm environment, and measuring O2 uptake using indirect calorimetry.

B) Exhaling completely before being immersed in an underwater tank while holding the breath.

C) Measuring 3–5 sites on the body using a Skinfold caliper.

D) Securely holding a bioelectrical unit with both hands until the measurement is read.

E) Obtaining height and weight and plugging those values into a formula.

121)

What are the recommended values for gaining one pound of muscle and for losing one pound of fat?

A) 1,500 calories to gain one pound of muscle; 2,500 calories to lose one pound of fat B) 2,000 calories to gain one pound of muscle; 3,000 calories to lose one pound of fat C) 2,500 calories to gain one pound of muscle; 3,500 calories to lose one pound of fat D) 3,000 calories to gain one pound of muscle; 4,000 calories to lose one pound of fat E) 3,500 calories to gain one pound of muscle; 4,500 calories to lose one pound of fat

122)

Which eating disorder has a distorted body image and concern of weight gain, but is set apart by the lack of self-starvation practices?

A) Bulimia Nervosa B) Anorexia Nervosa C) Female Athlete Triad Syndrome D) Binge-eating-purging cycle E) Anorexia Athletica

123)

Please check all of the foods that have a glycemic index greater than 70.

A) sweet potato B) bagel C) nuts D) white bread E) raisins F) popcorn G) corn flakes H) yogurt I) watermelon J) whole grain cereal K) ice cream

124)

Please check the nutritional deficiencies that could occur due to a gluten-free diet.

A) vitamin C B) vitamin B6 C) vitamin D D) dietary fiber E) sodium F) zinc

Answer Key Test name: chapter 5 101) 102)

[A, E, F, H, J, K] C Proteins make up the major structural component of the body and are needed for growth, maintenance, and repair of all body tissues.

103)

E An excess of vitamin C consumption can cause kidney stones and diarrhea.

104)

A An excess of vitamin A consumption can cause headaches, nausea, loss of hair, dry skin, and diarrhea.

105)

B Vitamin A and Vitamin D are fat-soluble; therefore, do not need to be taken on a daily basis.

106)

D A deficiency in zinc can cause all of the following: skin problems, delayed development, and growth problems.

107)

A Calcium is the most abundant mineral in the body and is essential for bones and teeth. Because osteoporosis is a decrease in bone density, increasing calcium intake can help.

108)

C Ephedrine is a stimulant that has been used as an ingredient in diet pills. The FDA banned the use of ephedrine as a dietary supplement. Ephedrine is also known to produce tachycardia, depression, fever, vomiting, and significant weight loss.

109)

C Creatine is a naturally occurring organic compound synthesized by the kidneys, liver, and pancreas.

110)

E An advantage of ultrasound compared with skinfold measurement is the possibility to measure obese subjects and to reach anatomical locations where calipers cannot be applied.

111)

E

It is recommended that to maximize glycogen resynthesis, both dietary carbohydrates and protein should be ingested immediately following exercise.

112)

D The practice of lactovegetarianism could compromise the ability to obtain sufficient levels of iron.

113)

C Liquid consumed should be easily absorbed and low in fat content and should not act as a laxative. Water intake should be increased, particularly if the temperature is high.

114) 115)

[C, D, F, H] C Fat has the highest amount of calories, which is 9 per gram.

116)

E Glycogen supercompensation is a high-carbohydrate diet that restores glycogen levels in muscle and the liver on the basis that stored glycogen in the muscles directly affects the endurance of that muscle.

117) 118)

[A, C, E, F, I] C Hydrostatic measurement, if done properly, is very accurate.

119)

E Sugar is a carbohydrate, thus equaling 4 calories / gram.

120)

A Basal metabolic rate is the rate at which calories are spent for sustaining the body’s vital functions such as respiration, heartbeat, circulation, and maintenance of body temperature during a 24-hour period.

121)

C To gain one pound of muscle, an excess of approximately 2,500 calories is needed; to lose one pound of fat, approximately 3,500 calories in excess of intake must be expended in activities.

122)

E Anorexia athletics is a condition specific to athletes that is characterized by several of the features common to anorexia nervosa, but without self-starvation practices.

123)

[D, F, G, I]

124)

[B, D]

Student name:__________ 125)

How can this statement about heat stress be corrected?

While heat-related illnesses most often occur in hot, humid, sunny conditions, it is impossible for individuals training in cold environments to be susceptible to heat stress.

A) This statement is correct.

B) Heat-related illnessesalways occur in hot, humid, sunny conditions.

C) Cold environments are susceptible to heat stress if the sweating mechanism is inhibited due to protective equipment.

D) Heat stress is not preventable no matter the environment; it is related to the level of physical activity.

E) Cold-related heat problems occur because of failure to acclimatize.

126)

What is not a way heat can be gained or lost through the body?

A) radiant heat exchange B) conductive heat exchange C) metabolic heat production D) microwave heat exchange E) evaporative heat loss

127)

Is heredity considered a factor when trying to determine an individual’s sweat rate?

A) yes, along with race and gender B) no, but height and weight, along with hydration status are C) yes, along with cardiac output and color of clothing D) no, but acclimatization and fitness level are E) yes, along with intensity, duration of activity, and environmental conditions

128)

How does a high humidity level alter the sweat evaporation process making an individual susceptible to a heat illness?

A) The extra moisture in the air that is absorbed by the body overloads the body’s evaporation process.

B) Sweat is not able to evaporate because of the excessive moisture in the air, not allowing heat to be dissipated from the body.

C) The absorbed moisture in the air increases the amount of sweat lost, dehydrating the body.

D) The combination of moisture in the air and sweat causes excessive sodium levels, shutting down the evaporation process.

E) Environmental moisture, combined with the body’s sweat loss, blocks the sweat glands, disabling the ability for moisture to exit the body.

What is an INCORRECT statement from the “NATA recommendations for preventing heat illness”?

A) Ensure that appropriate medical care is available.

B) Educate athletes to balance fluid intake with sweat and urine losses to maintain adequate hydration.

C) Encourage athletes to sleep six to eight hours per night in a cool environment.

D) Minimize the amount of equipment and clothing worn in hot humid conditions.

E) Extend warm-up time and minimize practice periods in hot humid conditions.

129)

130)

Why would an athletic trainer advise an athlete to consume a little more than a 2-liter soda bottle full of water?

A) Soda is a stimulant that will help provide energy throughout the day.

B) Two-and-a-half liters of fluid is the equivalent of twenty glasses of water a day.

C) An active athlete would need to consume that much to replace the sweat-loss rate after exercising for an hour.

D) It is easier to relate consumption size to something common so the athlete will understand daily fluid intake.

E) That is how much fluid needs to be replaced for every pound lost due to sweat-rate loss.

131)

In preventing heat illnesses, what statements should be endorsed?

A) When body weight drops by 1–2%, mild dehydration has already occurred.

B) A 14% carbohydrate solution appears to be optimal when trying to replace fluids.

C) An athlete should consume 17–20 ounces of water or a sport drink four to five hours before exercise.

D) Urine should appear clear in color, indicating low levels of ketosis.

E) Progressive heat exposure should occur over a five- to six-day period.

132)

Which of the following statements about the universal wet bulb globe temperature is incorrect?

A) WBGT = [0.1 × DBT] + [0.7 × WBT] + [GT × 0.2] B) DBT = dry bulb temperature C) GT = measurement of the sun's radiation D) WBGT = [0.1 × DBT] + [0.7 × WBT] E) WBT = wet bulb temperature

133)

What is normal rectal temperature?

A) 96.8°F B) 97.6°F C) 98.6°F D) 99.6°F E) 101.2°F

134)

What are the correct steps to be taken when measuring rectal temperature?

A) Place the athlete's stomach down with both legs spread apart.

B) If using a flexible digital thermometer, tape can be used to secure it in place.

C) Spread the buttocks and gently insert the thermometer 8 to 10 inches into the rectum.

D) Leave the thermometer in place for 3 minutes.

E) Cover the tip of the glass thermometer or a flexible digital thermometer with lubricating or petroleum jelly.

F) Do not hold a glass thermometer while obtaining the temperature to avoid altering the patient’s temperature.

135)

What heat illnesses is a syndrome that is characterized by sudden catabolic destruction and degeneration of skeletal muscle?

A) exertional hyponatremia B) malignant hyperthermia C) exertional heatstroke D) acute exertional rhabdomyolysis E) exertional heat exhaustion

136)

137)

Please check all of the following signs and symptoms of hyponatremia A) progressively worsening headache B) cold hands and feet C) swelling in the hands and feet D) nausea E) vomiting F) diarrhea G) agitation H) high blood sodium I) hyperactive J) apathy K) excessive thirst

What common structural damage of the body connects malignant hyperthermia and acute exertional rhabdomyolysis?

A) thermoregulatory breakdown B) muscle breakdown C) body cramping D) brain shutdown E) circulatory shutdown

138)

What does this apparatus measure?

A) It is a lightning detector to detect lightning and the level of activity of the storm and

its approximate distance.

B) It is a thermometer to measure rectal temperature.

C) It is a temperature gun to determine ambient temperature.

D) It is a digital psychrometer used to determine wet-bulb globe temperature heat index.

E) It is a sling psychrometer used to determine wet-bulb temperature.

139)

An individual is running outside and wind is at 30 mph. What temperature would be considered imminent for an onset of frostbite to occur within 30 minutes?

A) 10°F B) 5°F C) 0°F D) −5°F E) −10°F

140)

A track athlete will be traveling to Alaska for two weeks for training. What advice would you give this athlete regarding their training regimen?

A) Always wear heavy clothing while out in the cold.

B) Sweating does not occur in cold climates; therefore, train longer and harder.

C) Wear several heavy layers once the temperature reaches below 50°F. D) The body loses most of its heat through evaporation; therefore, wear clothing that collects sweat and heat.

E) Wear lightweight insulated clothing that prevents dampness and allows a chilling factor after activity.

141)

A soccer game is about to start when a bolt of lightning lights the sky. Thirty seconds passes before a sound is heard. Using the flash-to-bang theory approximately how many miles away is the storm?

A) 3 miles B) 4 miles C) 5 miles D) 6 miles E) 7 miles

142)

What organ can rupture with a sickle cell trait reaction when at high altitudes?

A) liver B) lungs C) gallbladder D) spleen E) kidney

143)

In order to minimize jet lag for an athletic team having to travel from New York to Europe, what option would be the best advice?

A) drink lots of caffeine B) stay awake as long as possible in order to rest during the flight C) eat the heaviest meal for dinner D) train late in the day E) consume plenty of fluids

144)

What statement regarding synthetic turf versus natural surfaces is correct?

A) According to the literature, synthetic surfaces are cooler in ambient temperatures than natural surfaces.

B) According to the literature, natural surfaces are more likely to cause injury than synthetic surfaces.

C) According to the literature, turf toe injuries are prevalent.

D) According to the literature, synthetic surfaces produce less friction, thus decreasing injuries to natural surfaces.

E) According to the literature, natural surfaces have a lower concussion rate to synthetic surfaces.

145)

Please check all of the following methods that would be useful in preventing a heat injury (Focus 6-6).

A) Acclimatize the individual to the heat within the first 24 hours B) If an individual suffers from pallor or is cyanotic in appearance, they should stop activity C) Have the individual wear long stockings and long sleeves D) Avoid excessive padding and taping E) Avoid placing athletes near brick walls F) Measure temperature and humidity on the practice or playing field G) Identify individuals that are susceptible to heat illness H) Have all athletes take salt tablets I) Weigh all athletes after the final training session of the day J) If an athlete suffers from diarrhea and nausea, they should practice until, they begin vomiting

146)

Please check all of the following items that should be included in an Emergency Action Plan pertaining to lightning safety. (Focus Box 6-7) A) Avoid standing near metal bleachers B) If shelter cannot be found have individuals stand under umbrellas C) Allow 20 minutes to pass after the last sound of thunder before resuming play D) If the thunder and lightning can be seen and the flash to bang is 30 or less, you should seek shelter E) If you feel your hair start to stand on end and skin tingle, you should lie flat on the ground F) Seek shelter in a building if lightning has been spotted G) If no shelter is available, an equipment shed would be a good alternative H) If no shelter is available, seeking shelter under a tree would be a good alternative I) Individuals should avoid standing water at all times J) A lightning detector could be used to detect a lightning storm within 5 miles and would assist in providing information in regards to a storm

147)

Which of the following statements are correct for recommendations for fluid replacement?

A) A 6% carbohydrate solution appears to be optimal, greater than 8% slows gastric emptying.

B) A cool, flavored beverage with a small amount of caffeine will assist in boosting energy levels.

C) Adding at least one gram of sodium to one liter of fluid is acceptable to stimulate thirst and increase fluid intake.

D) To ensure proper hydration, one should consume 17–20 oz of water or a sport drink 2–3 hours before exercise and then 7–10 oz 10–20 minutes before exercise.

E) During exercise, consumption of fluids should be at the rate of 10–20 ounces for every hour.

148)

Death from heatstroke increases at what ratio as body weight increases?

A) 1:1 B) 2:1 C) 3:1 D) 4:1 E) 5:1

149)

What is the recommended water replacement per hour for heat category 3 with a WBGT °F of 85-87.9, No limit, Easy work level?

A) ½ quart B) ¾ quart C) 1 quart D) ½ gallon E) 1 gallon

150)

What physiological event occurs with exercise-associated muscle cramps?

A) Muscle spindle activity increases while Golgi tendon organ activity decreases.

B) Muscle spindle activity decreases while Golgi tendon organ activity increases.

C) A reflex relaxation or cramp of a muscle occurs.

D) More commonly associated with stabilizing, low-demand muscles.

E) Electroyte levels are eliminated, therefore cellular water is depleted.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 6 125)

C Heat-related illnesses in cold environments can also occur if an individual becomes dehydrated.

126)

D The fifth way that heat can be lost or gained through the body is convection heat exchange.

127)

E Sweat rates can vary considerably from one athlete to another and are determined by a number of factors, Focus Box 6-1.

128)

B The air must be relatively free of water for evaporation to occur. Heat loss through evaporation is severely impaired when the relative humidity reaches 65% and virtually stops when the humidity reaches 75%.

129)

E Warm-up time should be minimized in hot humid conditions, Focus Box 6-2.

130)

D The average adult doing minimal physical activity requires a minimum of 2.5 liters of water or about ten glasses of water a day.

131)

A Even mild hydration can impair cardiovascular and thermoregulatory response, can reduce the capacity for exercise, and have a negative effect on performance.

132)

D The correct formula for WBGT index if only a wet bulb and dry bulb temperature are taken: WBGT = [0.3 × DBT] + [0.7 ×WBT].

133)

D Normal rectal temperature is 99.6°F (37.5°C) and temperature associated with heat stroke is ≥ 105°F. This mode of temperature measurement is necessary when needing to differentiate between heat exhaustion and heat stroke.

134)

[B, D, E]

The athlete, while prone, should flex up one leg for easier access and the thermometer should only be inserted 3 to 4 inches. Additionally, a glass thermometer needs to be held onto while obtaining a temperature.

135)

D Acute exertional rhabdomyolysis is also accompanied by leakage of myoglobin (muscle protein) and muscle enzymes into the vascular system. It can occur in healthy individuals during intense exercise in extremely hot and humid environmental conditions.

136) 137)

[A, C, D, E, G, J] B Malignant hyperthermia is characterized by muscle breakdown where these by-products may damage the kidneys and cause acute renal failure. Acute exertional rhabdomyolysis is degeneration of skeletal muscle and leakage of myoglobin into the vascular system that result in renal failure.

138)

D This is a portable digital psychrometer used to determine the WBGT heat index.

139)

B Utilize the provided figure.

140)

E Runners who wish to continue outdoor work in cold weather should use lightweight insulated clothing that permits the free passage of sweat and body heat that would otherwise accumulate on the skin or the clothing, and provides a chilling factor when activity ceases. If breathing cold air seems distressful, should use ski goggles and a ski face mask or should cover the mouth and nose with a free-hanging cloth.

141)

D Flash-to-bang is the number of seconds from lightning flash until the sound of thunder is divided by five to determine the distance from the lightning strike.

142)

D Sickle cell trait reaction can cause an enlarged spleen, which, in some cases, has been known to rupture at high altitudes.

143)

E Minimizing the effects of jet lag can occur by drinking plenty of fluids to avoid dehydration, which occurs because of dry, high-altitude, low-humidity cabin air.

144)

C From an injury perspective, turf toe and abrasions are more prevalent with the use of synthetic surface.

145) 146) 147)

[B, D, E, F, G] [A, D, F, I] [A, D] Caffeine is a diuretic. Exercising for at least 50 minutes necessitates the need for carbohydrate and electrolyte fluid replacement, lastly, consumption of fluids is 7–10 oz every 10–20 minutes during exercise. Adding 0.3–0.7 grams of sodium per liter of fluid is acceptable.

148)

D Death from heatstroke increases at a ratio of approximately four to one as body weight increases.

149)

B Based on the Universal WBGT Index Fluid Replacement Recommendations for heat category 3 with a WBGT °F of 85–87.9, no limit for work/rest period, and easy work level, water replacement should be ¾ quart per hour.

150)

A Muscle fatigue alters neuromuscular control by increasing muscle spindle activity while decreasing Golgi tendon organ activity, thereby facilitating a reflex contraction or camp of the muscle.

Student name:__________ 151)

Who is held liable if an injury occurs as the result of an individual using a piece of equipment that is determined to be defective?

A) the equipment manager B) the athletic trainer C) the athletic director D) the manufacturer E) the athlete

152)

If assistant coach were to add hardware to a piece of equipment that is not part of the standard equipment, who is held liable?

A) the equipment manager B) the assistant coach C) the athletic director D) the manufacturer E) the athletic trainer

153)

What is the governing body that established voluntary test standards to reduce head injuries?

A) NCAA B) NFSHSC C) NOCSAE D) OSHA E) NATA

154)

155)

How often should NOCSAE-approved helmets be recertified/reconditioned?

A) every 5 years B) every 4 years C) every 3 years D) every 2 years E) every year

When fitting an athlete for protective headgear, what is a common guideline to follow for most helmets?

A) Chin strap should be adjusted so that it gently contacts the chin when the mouth is closed.

B) The back of the helmet should match the length of the player’s hair.

C) The helmet should not move, or translate on the head if twisted or shaken.

D) It should contain the NOCSAE certification sticker on the outside of the helmet.

E) The more expensive, the more effective in preventing a head injury.

156)

When properly fitting an ice hockey helmet, what is a correct procedure?

A) Helmet should be loosely fitted around the ears.

B) Helmet should be three fingers width above the eyebrows.

C) Bottom of full cage face mask should rest gently on the chin.

D) Chin strap should be adjusted so that it gently contacts the chin when the mouth is closed.

E) Helmet should slightly touch the forehead, top, back, and sides of the head.

157)

What sport has headgear that is a headband with a piece of foam in the front that is about 1 ½–2 inches wide?

A) wrestling B) volleyball C) karate D) soccer E) field hockey

158)

What is an associated danger when a mouthpiece is cut down and only covers the front teeth?

A) knocking out the front two teeth B) it falling on the ground C) a penalty timeout D) nullification of the warranty E) an obstructed airway

What phrase best completes this statement, “Eye protection must be worn by all athletes who play sports __________?

A) …and wear glasses B) …that use fast-moving projectiles C) …and wear contacts D) …that use sticks E) …that involve high speeds

159)

160)

What is the suspensory ligament that can be stretched and cause premature sagging of the female breast if proper support equipment is not used?

A) Cowper’s B) Hooper’s C) Cooper’s D) Pectoral E) Mammary

161)

What are the two key measurements that should be accounted for when fitting shoes?

A) toe to end of shoe; full length of foot B) heel to metatarsophalangeal joint; heel to end of the longest toe C) heel to metatarsophalangeal joint; heel to end of the first toe D) width of metatarsophalangeal arch; length of longitudinal arch E) full length of foot; heel to first crease of the shoe

162)

Please check all of the boxes where the statement regarding shoes is correct.

A) A tennis shoe should have no heel flare.

B) The flexibility in a running shoe should be at the ball of the foot.

C) An aerobic shoe should be flared for stability.

D) A sole or last of a tennis shoe should be made out of rubber.

E) The upper of a running shoe should be made out of leather with nylon.

F) The tread of a tennis shoe should be flattened.

G) There should be very little heel flare in an aerobic shoe.

H) Running shoes tread should have deep grooves for grip.

I) The heel and sole should be well padded in a tennis shoe similar to a running shoe.

J) The upper of an aerobic shoe should only be made of leather.

K) The tread of an aerobic shoe should be flat or pivot dot.

L) The sole of a tennis shoe should be firm.

163)

What statement regarding ankle braces is correct?

A) Ankle braces have a significant effect on performance.

B) Research studies have proven that ankle braces are always more effective in preventing ankle injuries than ankle taping.

C) Research studies have proven that ankle taping is always more effective in preventing ankle injuries than ankle braces.

D) When compared to ankle taping, ankle braces have been proven to loosen more than ankle taping during physical activity.

E) Ankle braces probably have little to no effect on performance; any change is due to the athlete’s perception of support and comfort.

164)

What sport is wearing this piece of equipment a necessity in order to prevent injury?

A) B) C) D) E)

football soccer lacrosse track baseball

165)

A patient would wear this brace when they have suffered from what pathology?

A) B) C) D) E)

Lateral collateral ligament sprain Patellofemoral conditions Anterior cruciate ligament sprain Anterior-talofibular ligament sprain Quadricep muscle strain

166)

What sport would wear this piece of equipment a necessity in order to prevent injury?

A) B) C) D) E)

football baseball lacrosse field Hockey softball

167)

Which of the following materials would be best suited to construct a wedge insert to place in a patient’s shoe?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

168)

What picture illustrates cast padding?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

169)

170)

What related injuries can be prevented when using a properly fitted mouthguard?

A) a laceration to the lip B) a laceration to the tongue C) a laceration to the cheek D) dental injuries E) throat injuries

A downhill skier is complaining about the glare on the snow. What color of tinted contact lens could be worn to reduce the glare?

A) red B) blue C) yellow D) green E) pink

171)

Please check all of the face protection pieces that are utilized in soccer A) face guard B) throat protection C) mouth guards D) ear guards E) eye protection devices

172)

What material combination for socks is less bulky and dries faster?

A) cotton & polyester B) polyester & wool C) cotton & wool D) polyester & silk E) cotton & silk

173)

Hydrophilic contact lenses are also known as __________ A) hard contacts.

B) bifocal contacts.

C) trifocal contacts.

D) monofocal contacts.

E) soft contacts.

174)

What type of knee brace is this? (Figure 7-29 b)

A) B) C) D)

neoprene prophylactic functional rehabilitation

Answer Key Test name: chapter 7 151)

D The manufacturer is held liable if the piece of equipment is determined to be defective or inadequate for its intended purpose.

152)

B The individual who modified the piece of equipment is liable; liability on part of the manufacturer is voided.

153)

C The National Operating Committee on Standards for Athletic Equipment (NOCSAE) has established minimum safety requirements for many sports that use equipment to protect the head.

154)

D A guideline for the reconditioning/recertifying helmets is every two years using a certified NOCSAE-approved vendor if no warranty exists or after the warranty expires.

155)

C Guidelines discussed in the textbook for football, cycling, and ice hockey helmet fitting all inference that the helmet should not be loose or move around when the athlete moves the head.

156)

D For hockey helmet fitting, the chin strap should be adjusted so that it gently contacts the chin when the mouth is closed, unlike the football chin strap that should assist in keeping the helmet from moving up and down or side to side.

157)

D To date, there is only one study that demonstrates that this headgear is effective in reducing the incidence of concussion or other head injuries, but a more recent systematic review demonstrated low evidence for reducing risks.

158)

E A cut-down mouth guard can potentially become dislodged and lead to an obstructed airway.

159)

B

Eye protection must be worn by all athletes who play sports that use fast-moving projectiles. It is essential that athletes take special precautions to protect their eyes, with such as handball or racquetball.

160)

C Most sport bras are now designed to minimize excessive vertical and horizontal movements of the breasts that may stretch Cooper’s ligament causing premature sagging.

161)

C Two measurements must be considered when fitting shoes: 2. the distance from the heel to the metatarsophalangeal joint and 3. the distance from the heel to the end of the longest toe.

162) 163)

[A, B, F, G, H, K, L] E Ankle braces probably have little to no effect on performance, but are effective in preventing acute ankle sprains in most sports.

164)

B Shin guards should be worn in soccer in order to prevent injuries to the shin or the lateral or medial tibia.

165)

B Neoprene sleeves may be used to provide some support for patellofemoral conditions.

166)

C Protective gloves are essential in preventing injuries in sports like lacrosse and ice hockey.

167)

B Orthopedic felt is most often used as support and protection for a variety of foot conditions, see figures 7-33 and 7-34.

168)

D Cast padding is a cotton-like material that is rolled as a barrier between the patient’s skin and the casting material, see figures 7-35 and 7-36.

169) 170)

[A, C, D] B Blue lenses can be used to assist in reducing the glare from the snow.

171)

[C, E]

172)

A Cotton and polyester combination is less bulky and dries faster as opposed to socks made solely from cotton.

173)

E Athletes currently prefer the soft, hydrophilic lenses to the hard type.

174)

B

Student name:__________ 175)

What muscle strain is being addressed in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

hip adductor strain hip abductor strain hip flexor strain gluteus maximus muscle strain tensor fascia latae muscle strain

176)

When performing a hip spica wrapping technique, what is the most appropriate supply to use?

A) ½-inch adhesive tape B) 3-inch double-length elastic bandage C) 3-inch elastic bandage D) 6-inch elastic bandage E) 6-inch double-length elastic bandage

177)

When performing a shoulder spica, what statement is true?

A) The bandage should be anchored around the upper arm on the unaffected side and then should be carried around the back.

B) The bandage should be anchored around the upper arm on the unaffected side and then should be carried around the front.

C) The bandage should be anchored around the upper arm on the affected side and then should be carried around the back.

D) The bandage should be anchored around the upper arm on the affected side and then should be carried around the front.

E) The bandage should be anchored around the chest and then wrapped around the affected arm.

178)

What is the purpose of the wrapping technique in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

to minimally protect the ankle from injury to prevent severe ankle injuries to secure a dressing in place to hold a protective pad in place to hold a compressive pad in place

179)

The technique demonstrated in this diagram would be the most appropriate for which of the following injuries?

A) B) C) D) E)

injury to the middle deltoid rotator cuff injury shoulder dislocation sprain of the acromioclavicular joint injury to the coracobrachialis

180)

Select only the applicable steps to be performed when applying a medial collateral ligament of the knee tape job.

A) Apply anchor strips above and below the knee by lightly encircling the thigh and lower leg.

B) Apply a longitudinal strip laterally that runs the length to each anchor strip.

C) Apply a longitudinal strip medially that runs the length to each anchor strip.

D) Apply multiple, overlapping spiral strips that cross the knee joint.

E) Reverse the application of the spiral strips between superior and inferior.

F) Leave the patella exposed, free of tape.

G) Conclude the tape job with a patella-locking strip.

181)

What would be the most appropriate width of tape when taping a ballerina for a flexor hallicus longus muscle injury?

A) ½-inch tape B) ¼-inch tape C) 1 ½-inch tape D) 2-inch tape E) 3-inch tape

182)

What rule for tape application is correct?

A) do not overlap tape B) use continuous taping strips with non-elastic tape C) tape all joints in full extension D) allow tape to fit the natural contour of the skin E) apply tape directly to the skin after applying a hot pack

183)

What is being addressed in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

the longitudinal arch stabilization of the forefoot fallen medial transverse arch plantar fascia tear foot supination

184)

What is being addressed in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

185)

extensor hallucis tendon strain stabilization of the hindfoot navicular fracture plantar fascia strain achilles tendinopathy

When performing a simple arch support taping technique, which statement is true?

A) Begin at the navicular and pull tape medial to lateral applying 4–5 overlapping strips toward the toes B) Begin at the navicular and pull tape lateral to medial applying 4–5 overlapping strips toward the toes C) Begin just above the metatarsal arch and pull tape medial to lateral applying 4–5 overlapping strips toward the heel D) Begin just above the metatarsal arch and pull tape lateral to medial applying 4–5 overlapping strips toward the heel E) Begin at the navicular and continually pull tape in a circular motion around the entire foot applying 4–5 overlapping strips toward the toes

186)

When applying tape for a knee hyperextension, the overlapping, multiple strips are layered in what format?

A) spica B) X strips C) longitudinal strips D) horizontal strips E) checkrein strips

187)

What toe injury is being addressed in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

hammer, or clawed toes hallux valgus sprained Great Toe fractured Toe turf toe

188)

What is the purpose of using prewrap under adhesive tape?

A) to decrease chaffing to the underlying skin B) increases the tensile strength of adhesive tape C) to act as a barrier in cases of sensitive skin D) to extend the effectiveness of the adhesive tape application in controlling motion longer E) to eliminate the need to use skin lubricant

189)

Click on the video for performing a closed basket weave (Gibney) technique to the ankle.

At the ending of the video, what is the next step in the procedure?

A) B) C) D) E)

190)

191)

arch supports alternating series using Gibney strips closing strips figure-eight strips heel locks

What is the proper patient positioning for taping the Achilles tendon?

A) prone with foot slightly dorsiflexed B) prone with foot slightly plantarflexed C) prone with foot in neutral D) supine with foot fully plantarflexed E) supine with foot fully dorsiflexed

When taping for a medial collateral ligament knee sprain, how can it be ensured that the knee stays in a slightly flexed position?

A) have the patient seated with leg hanging off edge of table B) have the patient prone C) have the patient standing using a heel lift D) have the patient place the heel of the injured leg on top of the uninjured foot E) have the patient perform a ¼ squat

192)

Which of the following is INCORRECTLY listed as a component of patellar orientation?

A) lift B) AP orientation C) glide D) tilt E) rotation

193)

What taping technique is being used in this video to tape for a sprained thumb?

A) B) C) D) E)

194)

195)

figure-eight checkrein heel-lock spica fan

Where was the Kinesio taping technique developed?

A) China B) England C) Australia D) United States E) Japan

When taping for a bruised hand and using padding, what step should be performed to ensure the padding stays in place?

A) repetitive encircling strips through the hand B) X strips from the wrist to the metacarpals C) 1/2 inch tape strips laced through the webbing of the fingers that run to the wrist anchor strip D) checkrein strips E) spica strips

196)

What taping technique can be used to help provide additional protection for a sprained thumb?

A) orthoplast splint B) figure-eight strip(s) C) spica strip(s) D) horizontal strips over the thumb E) checkrein strip(s)

197)

What is the premise of using Kinesio taping?

A) It is therapeutic, activating neurological and circulatory systems with movement.

B) It is structurally supporting.

C) It is more economical than using traditional adhesive tapes.

D) It is less giving with greater tensile strength than traditional adhesive tapes.

E) It is more clinically evidence-based than traditional adhesive tapes.

198)

When taping for plantar fasciitis using Kinesio taping techniques, how does the application of the longitudinal strips differ from the application of the traditional adhesive tapes?

A) Application of the longitudinal strips runs transverse, rather than the length of the foot.

B) Application of the longitudinal strips is identical to the application of the traditional adhesive tapes.

C) Application of the longitudinal strips do not overlap, or criss-cross.

D) Application of the longitudinal strips borders only the outer perimeter of the foot.

E) Application of the longitudinal strips creates a basket-weave with the transverse strips.

199)

When taping for a low back strain using Kinesio taping techniques, what position should the patient be in when applying the three strips?

A) standing upright B) bent forward C) lateral bend to affected side D) prone on a table E) supine on a table

200)

Select only the CORRECT statements about the use of Kinesio tape.

A) Muscle is usually placed in a shortened state in preparation for application of the Kinesio tape.

B) Kinesio tape has been supported in evidence-based research to change strength gains following application with healthy subject following a treatment.

C) Kinesio tape is latex-free and 100% cotton fabric with body heat.

D) There are no physical or chemical differences among the colors of Kinesio tape.

201)

What pathology of the shoulder is being addressed in the figure?

A) B) C) D) E)

202)

acromioclavicular separation bicipital tendon impingement shoulder instability shoulder impingement deltoid strain

For an Achilles tendon taping, when wrapping the cut ends of the split longitudinal strip, where should these ends be placed?

A) at the base of the foot B) on both the medial and lateral aspect of the ankle C) above the level of the strain D) on top of the site of the strain E) below the level of the strain

203)

What is the purpose of the open basket weave taping?

A) It can be used for larger legs.

B) It is an alternate technique for an uninjured ankle.

C) It can be used for a combination of toe and ankle injury.

D) It can be used to control swelling.

E) It is an alternate technique for a syndesmotic ankle sprain.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 8 175)

C The video demonstrates a procedure used to support a hip flexor strain by helping lift the leg.

176)

E One 6-inch double-length elastic bandage and a roll of 1 ½-inch adhesive tape are used when performing a hip spica wrapping technique.

177)

C When performing a shoulder spica, the bandage should be anchored around the upper arm on the affected side, and then carried around the back of the body.

178)

A The cloth ankle wrap is an inexpensive and expedient means of minimally protecting ankles from injury.

179)

C The sling and swathe combination is designed to stabilize the arm securely in cases of shoulder dislocation or fracture.

180)

[A, D, E, F] Basing these steps on Figure 8-3, they are applicable when addressing a medial, or lateral, collateral ligament sprain.

181)

A Fingers and toes usually require ½-inch or 1-inch tape; however, ½-inch tape would be the most appropriate based on the contours of the foot of a ballerina.

182)

D Allowing tape to fit the natural contour of the skin is appropriate.

183)

A The X arch taping method is used to provide support to the longitudinal arch of the foot.

184)

D The LowDye Technique can be used for taping a plantar fascia strain, foot pronation, flattened medial longitudinal arch, arch strains, and plantar fasciitis.

185)

D When performing a simple arch support, it should begin just above the metatarsal arch, then pulling the arch up by going lateral to medial with the tape strip applying 4–5 overlapping strips toward the heel.

186)

B These four to five strips should form an X pattern with the center covering the popliteal space.

187)

C The greatest support is given to the joint by a half-figure-eight taping, also known as a spica technique.

188)

D Using prewrap under adhesive tape in cases of sensitive skin. Where maximum support is desired, it is ideal to tape directly over skin.

189)

E After completing the conventional basket weave (using the Gibney strips), apply two or three heel locks to ensure maximum stability.

190)

B The patient kneels or lies face down with the affected foot hanging relaxed over the edge of the table.

191)

C The patient stands on a 3-foot table with the injured knee held in a moderately relaxed position by a 1-inch heel lift.

192)

A “Lift” is a technique used to correct a patellar tilt.

193)

D After applying the anchor strips, three overlapping spica strips are applied around the metacarpophalangeal joint of the thumb.

194)

E It was developed in Japan and widely used in Europe and Asia.

195)

C

The laced strips that run through the webbing of the fingers help ensure the pad does not slip out and assists with the basic figure-eight wrap through the hand.

196)

E Adding a checkrein strip(s) is applied by asking the patient to spread the injured fingers widely, but within a range that is free of pain. Then using a ½ inch adhesive tape apply around the middle phalanx of the injured and adjacent finger, then press the middle of the tape together and add a lock strip around the center that was pressed together.

197)

A While adhesive tape is structurally supportive, Kinesio tape is said to be therapeutic, activating neurological and circulatory systems with movement.

198)

C Four pieces of 1-inch tape are extended over the bottom of the foot to the metatarsal heads while extending toes to stretch the plantar fascia.

199)

B The patient is standing but bent forward to stretch the back muscles. The basic principle of Kinesio taping is to apply the tape from one end of a muscle to the other, with very little to no stretch on the tape from origin to insertion for muscle support and from insertion to origin during rehabilitation.

200)

[C, D]

Muscle is usually placed on a gentle functional stretch with application of the tape at approximately 10% of its resting static length.

201)

C The placement of these particular Kinesio tape strips assists in providing stability to the shoulder.

202)

C Caution is warranted to be sure to keep the wrapped ends of the split longitudinal strip above the level of the strain.

203)

A The open basket weave, a modification of the closed basket weave (Gibney technique), is used with acute ankle injuries and is designed to control swelling without restricting circulation.

Student name:__________ 204)

For the following muscular injuries, which one is characterized by an extremely painful involuntary muscle contraction that occurs more often in the calf, abdomen, or hamstrings?

A) muscle strain B) exercise-associated muscle cramps C) muscle guarding D) muscle spasms E) exercise-induced muscle soreness

205)

For the following muscular injuries, which one is characterized by a reflex reaction caused by trauma of the musculoskeletal system?

A) muscle strain B) exercise-associated muscle cramps C) muscle guarding D) muscle spasms E) exercise-induced muscle soreness

206)

What structure is the most commonly overused problem associated with activity?

A) muscles B) ligament C) bursa D) fascia E) tendon

207)

What is the name of a calcium formation in a large muscle due to repeated blows over the same area?

A) osteochondritis dissecans B) contusion C) stress fracture D) myositis ossificans E) myositis

208)

What are the most significant risk factors for developing osteoarthritis?

A) previous injury and biomechanics B) history of arthritis and gender C) body joint and diet D) nutrition and vitamins E) age and genetics

209)

What is classified as an example of an irregularly shaped bone?

A) scapulae B) rib C) vertebrae D) ulna E) Fibula

210)

What type of fracture occurs when an athlete is hit on one side of the head and a fracture occurs on the side opposite of the point where the trauma was initiated?

A) blowout B) serrated C) depressed D) contrecoup E) stress

211)

What is neuropraxia?

A) interruption in conduction of the impulse down the nerve fiber B) numbness, prickling, or tingling of the nerve fiber C) diminished sense of feeling of the nerve fiber D) swelling of the nerve fiber E) separation of the nerve fiber

212)

A patient is complaining of a diminished sense of feeling since sustaining an injury to the hand. When writing a SOAP note, what medical term would be used to describe this symptom?

A) hyperesthesia B) paresthesia C) hypoesthesia D) referred pain E) neuritis

213)

A cross-country runner is in the early stages of a stress fracture. How would the athlete describe the pain?

A) There is pain when active but not at rest.

B) There is pain when active and when at rest.

C) There is pain only at night.

D) There is pain only in the morning.

E) There is pain when at rest but not when active.

When a patient experiences pain at rest and can elicit a “jump sign” when pressure is applied directly on a specific point of skeletal muscle and/or fascia it could be identified as what?

A) active trigger point B) fasciitis C) referred pain D) myofascial trigger point E) trigger point

214)

215)

Before reducing a joint dislocation, what should be assessed first?

A) patient responsiveness and pain level B) sensory, motor, and vascular status C) pupillary response and skin temperature D) pulse, vital signs, and reflex E) fractures and subluxation

216)

What bone is most likely to sustain a depressed fracture?

A) femur B) lunate C) calcaneus D) parietal E) metacarpal

217)

What injuries are classified as repetitive stress and microtrauma?

A) a fractured femur B) achilles tendinopathy C) osgood-Schlatter disease D) shin splints E) brachial plexus stretch F) contracoup fracture G) patellar chondromalacia H) communicated fracture of the clavicle

218)

The chronic degeneration of a tendon without inflammation is referred to as A) tendonitis.

B) tendinosis.

C) tendinopathy.

D) crepitus.

E) tenosynovitis.

219)

What is a bluish-purple discoloration of the skin?

A) erythema B) hematoma C) hemorrhaging D) ecchymosis E) cyanosis

220)

What statement is true about a synovial joint?

A) They all contain disks, or meniscus.

B) The synovial membrane produces synovial fluid.

C) Synovial joints are only in the lower extremity.

D) Synovial joints are only in the upper extremity.

E) They all contain extra- and intracapsular ligaments.

221)

What is the purpose of a bursa?

A) to provide a cushion and reduce friction between moving structures.

B) to lubricate joints and tendons C) to pad the ends of bones and protect cartilage D) to increase range of motions in joints E) to add fluid to joints for motion

Answer Key Test name: chapter 9 204)

B Exercise-associate muscle cramps thought to occur most often in those muscle groups that are overloaded and fatigued during high-demand activities due to altered neuromuscular control rather than due to fluid and/or electrolyte imbalance as previously hypothesized.

205)

D Muscle spasm is an involuntary muscle contraction that results in increased tension and shortening of that muscle or a group of muscles which interferes with voluntary movement. Two types of muscular spasms are clonic and tonic.

206)

E Of all the overuse problems associated with activity, chronic overuse injuries involving a tendon are the most common representing approximately over 50% of all sports injuries.

207)

D If the same area, or muscle, is bruised over and over again, a small calcium deposit may begin to accumulate in the injured area.

208)

E Age and genetics are considered to be the most significant risk factors for developing osteoarthritis.

209)

C Examples of irregularly shaped bones are in the vertebral column and the skull.

210)

D Contrecoup fractures occur on the side opposite to the point at which the trauma is initiated.

211)

A Neuropraxia is an interruption in conduction of the impulse down the axon due to demyelination.

It is the mildest form of nerve injury.

212)

C Hypoesthesia is a sensory response that has results in a diminished sense of feeling.

213)

A

In the early stages of a stress fracture, the athlete complains of pain when active but not at rest; however, in the later stage, pain is constant and becomes more intense at night.

214)

A An active trigger point is tender to palpation with a referred pain pattern that is similar to the patient’s pain complaint.

215)

B Dislocations should only be reduced after a thorough assessment of sensory, motor, and vascular status. X-rays should be obtained following to rule out fractures or other problems.

216)

D Depressed fractures occur most often in flat bones such as those found in the skull.

217) 218)

[B, C, D, G] B The term -osis means there is chronic degeneration without inflammation where there is a breakdown of tissue organization with collagen fibers becoming disorganized, an increase in the number of sensory nerves and vascularity, and an increased number of leukocytes and inflammatory chemical mediators.

219)

D Minor bleeding often causes ecchymosis, a bluish-purple discoloration of the skin that persists for several days.

220)

B Synovial joints contain an inner lining of a thin synovial membrane that is highly vascularized and innervated.

221)

A Bursae are saclike structures with an outer fibrous layer of thin connective tissue lined by synovial membrane that contains a small amount of fluid that is similar to synovial fluid. They provide cushion and reduce friction between these moving structures.

Student name:__________ 222)

What time period accurately portrays the typical duration of the fibroblastic tissue repair phase?

A) from time of injury to 4 days B) from 4 days to 3 weeks C) from 4 days to 6 weeks D) from 4 weeks to 2 years E) from 6 weeks to 2 years

223)

The terms rubor, dolor, and calor are often associated with what phase of tissue healing?

A) maturation-remodeling phase of healing B) inflammatory response phase of healing C) fibroblastic repair phase of healing D) formation of a clot E) cartilage healing

224)

What is classified as a chemical mediator that is released from the mast cell and causes vasodilation and increased cell permeability?

A) cytokines B) leukotrienes C) prothrombin D) histamine E) fibrinogen

225)

What statement regarding collagen in the body is true?

A) Type III collagen is found in the humerus.

B) Type II collagen is found at the end of the femur.

C) TypeI1 collagen is found in the intervertebral discs.

D) Type II collagen is found in the sciatic nerve.

E) Type III collagen is found in the Achilles tendon.

226)

Please check all factors that impede healing.

A) Air temperature B) Keloids C) Nutrition D) Sport that the individual participates in E) Edema F) Stitches G) Hypertrophy H) Muscle spasm I) Infection J) Dehydration

227)

What statement regarding soft tissue is correct?

A) Epithelial tissue consists of muscle and fat.

B) Connective tissue consists of skin.

C) Muscle consists of smooth, cardiac, or skeletal.

D) Nervous tissue consists only in the brain.

E) Certain bones can be classified as soft tissue.

228)

You are working with an individual who has had an anterior cruciate ligament surgical reconstruction. Which true statement would you use to educate the patient on ligament healing?

A) Immobilized ligaments are weaker than those that are exercised.

B) Tensile strength of ligaments is increased in individuals who are immobilized.

C) The insertion of the ligament to the bone is stronger in individuals who are immobilized.

D) Surgically repaired ligaments are weaker than unrepaired ligaments.

E) With an intraarticular ligament tear, the synovial fluid assists in forming a fibrin clot.

229)

Select the correct roles nutrients have in the human body.

A) Nutrients store water for the body.

B) Nutrients assist in the regulation of body processes.

C) Nutrients are important in the role of tissue repair.

D) Nutrients trigger cell growth.

E) Nutrients are an efficient source of energy for the body.

230)

What is an INAPPROPIATE method to modify soft-tissue healing?

A) NSAIDs B) therapeutic massage C) cold and heat application D) full participation with physical activities E) therapeutic rehabilitation exercises

231)

How could soft tissue interfere with the healing process of an acute fracture?

A) It can increase the risk of infection.

B) It can position itself between the severed ends of the bone and prevent proper union.

C) It can hasten an adequate blood supply to the fracture area.

D) It can permit motion between the bone parts.

E) It can cause bone degeneration.

232)

What are the correct terms that would best complete this statement?

If __________ activity is greater than the __________ activity, the bone becomes increasingly susceptible to stress fractures.

A) osteoblastic; osteoclastic B) positive; negative C) kinetic; potential D) osteoclastic; osteoblastic E) potential; kinetic

233)

What type of pain is INCORRECTLY listed as a type of referred pain?

A) chronic pain B) trigger point pain C) myofascial pain D) sclerotomic pain E) dermatomic pain

234)

What statement is INCORRECT about nociceptors and neural transmission?

A) First-order neurons are Aα, Aβ, Aδ, and C fibers.

B) Aα and Aβ are large-diameter afferents.

C) Aδ and C fibers are small-diameter afferents.

D) Aδ and C fibers transmit pain and temperature.

E) Second-order efferent fibers carry sensory messages from the dorsal horn to the brain.

235)

What are the following: norepinephrine, substance P, serotonin, enkephalin, β-endorphin?

A) neurons B) nociceptors C) neurotransmitters D) inhibitors E) receptors

236)

When applying the gate control theory of pain control, which afferent fibers are trying to overrides, or inhibits, the “pain information”?

A) Aα fibers B) Aβ fibers C) Aδ fibers D) C fibers E) serotonin

237)

When applying the central biasing model of pain control, what statement is CORRECT? A) Aδ and C fibers are trying to override the second-order level neurons to block pain.

B) Aα and Aβ fibers become efferent fibers and to assist with inhibiting the pain information to reach the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

C) Noxious stimulation of nociceptors stimulates the release of opiate-like chemicals to block the pain.

D) Previous experiences influence the perception of pain along efferent descending pathways causing neurotransmitters to be released to block pain.

E) Second-order afferent fibers block off the pathways of the Aα and Aβ fibers before reaching the second-order afferent neurons.

When applying the β-endorphin model of pain control, at what level of the central nervous system are β-endorphins released?

A) first-order neurons B) second-order neurons C) dorsal horn of spinal cord D) substantia gelatinosa E) hypothalamus

238)

239)

What pain scale would be the most appropriate to use in a high school athletic training room?

A) McGill Pain Questionnaire B) Activity Pain Indicators Profile C) Numeric Rating Scale D) Pain Charts E) Visual Analogue Scale

240)

Based on the figure, what is occurring during this process of the inflammatory response phase?

A) B) C) D) E)

241)

Epithelium is regenerating.

Granulation of tissue is forming.

Blood is leaking into deeper tissues.

Leukocytes are cleaning the wound.

Clot formation is finalizing.

Select ONLY the correct elements that make up the extracellular matrix.

A) glycosaminoglycans B) capillaries C) ground substance D) lymphocytes E) macrophages F) collagen

Answer Key Test name: chapter 10 222)

C The fibroblastic repair phase lasts approximately 4 days to 6 weeks.

223)

B Rubor (redness), dolor (tenderness and pain), and calor (increased temperature) are all terms associated with inflammation, which is a component of the inflammatory response phase.

224)

D Histamine is a chemical mediator released from the injured mast cells, causing vasodilation and increased cell permeability, owing to a swelling of endothelial cells and then separation between the cells.

225)

B Type II collagen can be found in hyaline cartilage and vertebral discs.

226) 227)

[B, C, E, H, I] C Muscle consists of smooth, cardiac, or skeletal and is a soft tissue.

228)

A Several studies have shown that actively exercised ligaments are stronger than those that are immobilized.

229) 230)

[B, C, E] D The other listed methods are appropriate to implement when trying to modify soft-tissue healing for a full return to activity.

231)

B Soft tissue such as muscle, connective tissue, or other soft tissue immediately adjacent to the fracture can prevent proper bone union, often necessitating surgical intervention.

232)

D Constant tension caused by axial compression or stress by muscular activity can result in an increase in bone resorption and, subsequently, a microfracture.

233)

A

Symptoms and signs vary according to the nerve fibers affected. Response may be motor, sensory, or both.

234)

E Second-order afferent fibers carry sensory message from the dorsal horn to the brain and are categorized as nociceptive specific.

235)

C Neurotransmitters are chemicals that assist in allowing information to pass between neurons. The substance must be released from one neuron terminal, enter the synaptic cleft, and attach to a receptor site on the next neuron.

236)

B Sensory information coming from Aβ fibers overrides or inhibits the pain information carried along... Aδ and C fibers, thus inhibiting or effectively “closing the gate.”

237)

D Information, or recall of previous experiences, emotional influences, sensory perception, and other factors could influence the transmission of the pain messages and thus the perception of pain.

238)

E The opiate-like chemical called β-endorphin is released from the hypothalamus.

239)

C The numeric rating scale is the most common acute pain profile used in sports medicine. Patient is asked to verbally rate pain on a scale from 1 to 10 before and after treatment.

240)

D A blood clot is forming, and leukocytes are cleaning the wound. Macrophages, fibroblasts, and neutrophils phagocytize most of the foreign debris toward the end of the inflammatory phase, helping set the stage for the fibroblastic phase.

241)

[A, C, F] Collagen, elastin, ground substance, proteoglycans, and glycosaminoglycans make up the extracellular matrix.

Student name:__________ 242)

Check all the emotional responses that are reactions to injury and reactions to early rehabilitation.

A) anger B) reinjury anxiety C) anxiety D) apprehension E) bitterness F) fear of reinjury G) confusion H) confidence I) depression J) disappointment K) dispiritedness L) devastation M) fear N) frustration O) enthusiasm P) re-injury anxiety Q) anticipation R) listless S) sadness T) anticipation U) excitement V) encouragement

243)

Check all the emotional responses that are often fall under reactions to rehabilitation.

A) anger B) reinjury anxiety C) anxiety D) apprehension E) bitterness F) fear of reinjury G) confusion H) confidence I) depression J) disappointment K) dispiritedness L) devastation M) fear N) frustration O) enthusiasm P) helplessness Q) anticipation R) relief S) sadness T) resentment U) excitement V) shock W) encouragement

244)

245)

Check all the emotional responses that fall under reactions to return-to-participation.

A) anger B) reinjury anxiety C) anxiety D) apprehension E) bitterness F) fear of reinjury G) confusion H) confidence I) depression J) disappointment K) dispiritedness L) devastation M) fear N) frustration O) enthusiasm P) helplessness Q) anticipation R) relief S) sadness T) resentment U) excitement V) shock W) encouragement

An athlete has suffered a season-ending knee injury. Which of the following would be an appropriate method for dealing with the athlete’s need for social support?

A) allow the athlete to stay at home as opposed to attending practice B) have the athlete concentrate on studies since the likelihood of returning this season is minimal C) have the athlete talk to an athlete who has suffered a similar injury D) have the athlete attend other sporting event to not think of his/her sport E) allow the athlete to wait until after the season is beginning to start rehabilitation in order to attend all of the team’s practices

246)

Which of the following statements is untrue regarding stress?

A) Stress may be triggered by physical stressors.

B) Stress may be triggered by social stressors.

C) Negative stress can enhance growth and development.

D) Stress can be associated with intense pleasure.

E) Eustress is stress that is beneficial.

247)

Which of the following would be considered a sign or symptom of staleness?

A) constantly being tired B) an increase in performance level C) depressed heart rate D) paranoid about being late to practice E) head colds or allergic reactions

248)

Which of the following questions would be difficult to be a plausible cause for the patient’s reaction to the injury?

A) How long is the recovery?

B) Does the patient fear that a pending surgery will be more painful?

C) What are the patient’s attitudes toward rehabilitation?

D) Does the coach-athlete relationship contain confidence, trust, and optimism?

E) What is the possibility of reinjury?

249)

Which of the following would be an inappropriate component when establishing addressing psychological factors in the rehabilitation process?

A) competitive confidence B) a sense of cooperation C) exercise rehabilitation as an educational process D) rapport E) allow independence in progressions

250)

A patient is having nightmares and is having trouble sleeping. Upon further investigation you discover that they were in an emotionally and physically abusive relationship. What do you think they could be suffering from?

A) Schizoid Personality Disorder B) Social Anxiety Disorder C) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder D) Post-traumatic Stress Disorder E) Phobia

251)

What action could be considered detrimental in helping a patient regain competitive confidence and return to activity?

A) allow patient to perform necessary skills away from the team B) teach the patient the technique of systematic desensitization C) allow the patient to begin sport-specific activities with the team D) engage in highly controlled, small-group practices E) establish progressive, attainable goals

252)

Of the following mental training techniques, which one utilizes the practice of focusing on the undesired thoughts and terminating them with the trigger of a loud noise?

A) thought stopping B) refuting irrational thoughts C) imagery D) meditation E) progressive relaxation

253)

Knowing an athlete’s name and talking to them about school work are both examples of which of the following support roles?

A) being a good listener B) finding out what the problem is C) being aware of body language D) projecting a caring image E) management of the stress of an injury

254)

Which of the following examples of rehabilitation goals would be difficult to measure?

A) achieve 100° of knee flexion B) perform a voluntary biceps muscle contraction C) be able to walk without an ankle brace D) complete a 20” incline walk on the treadmill E) throw 15 pitches at distance of 10 yards

255)

What mental training technique involves tensing and releasing the muscles?

A) thought stopping B) refuting irrational thoughts C) imagery D) meditation E) jacobson’s progressive relaxation

256)

When coping with pain, what technique involves positive imagination?

A) tension reduction B) imagery C) attention diversion D) altering the pain sensation E) meditation

257)

If a coach reported to the athletic trainer that he has noticed one of his athletes reacting impulsively and sharing inappropriate thoughts and feelings without the realization of it being wrong, what is the suspected disorder?

A) phobias B) unipolar depression C) post-traumatic disorder D) panic attacks E) obsessive-compulsive disorder

258)

Please check all of the reasons that a patient should be referred for psychological concerns.

A) history of mental health issues B) constantly late C) forgetfulness D) outward signs of suicide E) posing a threat or danger to others F) not having many friends G) eating disorder H) concussion I) increased amount of playing time J) ADHD K) wanting to do things independently L) hanging out with different friends

259)

260)

Please check all of the symptoms of sudden exercise abstinence syndrome.

A) chest pain B) shoulder pain C) sleep issues D) emotional instability E) rashes F) disturbed appetite G) low back pain H) headaches I) increased sweating J) blurred vision

According to the biosocial model, cultural beliefs would be identified in which of the following categories?

A) biological B) physical C) psychological D) social E) biophysical

261)

Please identify which of the following items contributed to the increased anxiety and depression during the COVID-19 pandemic.

A) fear of personal infection B) constant misinformation on social media C) knowing you could go to any medical facility and get appropriate coverage D) social distancing, isolation, and quarantine E) the low spreads of the virus F) the slow evolving science G) the lack of media coverage

262)

A patient is terrified to speak in public and is fearful of participating in group conversations. They may suffer from: A) social anxiety disorder B) obsessive-compulsive disorder C) post-traumatic stress disorder D) schizophrenia E) depression

263)

What model incorporates individual’s sociodemographic factors, environmental factors, and personality traits as mediating elements for the stress response?

A) Athlete Prevention and Injury Response Model B) Social Response Model C) Physiological Response Model D) Psychology and Injury Response Model E) Biosocial Model

Answer Key Test name: chapter 11 242) 243) 244) 245)

[A, C, D, E, G, I, J, K, L, M, N] [I, N, O, S, U] [B, C, D, F, H, I, N, Q, W] C The loss of social support can be lessened by the organization of a support group or by mentoring of athletes who have had similar injuries and completed similar rehabilitations.

246)

C Positive stress can enhance growth and development.

247)

E Head colds and allergic reactions are considered signs and symptoms of staleness.

248)

D The concern of confidence, trust, and optimism is between the patient and doctor.

249)

E In the component of educating the injured patient about the rehabilitation process, one of the key points is to monitor the athlete regularly, combined with describing an overall rehabilitative plan, including progressive steps or phases within the plan.

250)

D PTSD may occur in individuals who suffer a psychologically traumatic event, such as a personal assault or abuse and may reexperience this event through nightmares or an exaggerated startle response.

251)

C The athletic trainer needs to allow the patient to regain full performance by progressing in small increments, not by allowing the patient to be thrown into team practices.

252)

A Thought stopping is a technique used for cognitive restructuring to help the athlete overcome worries and doubts.

253)

D It is important for the athletic trainer to consider the patient as an individual instead of the injury.

254)

C Being able to walk without an ankle brace has no measurable, objective value, nor is it specific as to when the goal can be reached.

255)

E Jacobson’s progressive relaxation involves muscles from head to toe by forcefully tightening and bringing the muscle into tension, followed by full relaxation.

256)

D Imagination is one of the most powerful forces available to human beings. Through imagination, the patient can alter pain sensation to another sensation by visualizing the injured part as relaxed and comfortable instead of painful.

257)

E Obsessive-compulsive disorder is characterized of emotional and behavioral symptoms. These behaviors interfere with normal daily functioning.

258) 259) 260)

[A, D, E, G, H, J] [A, C, D, F, I] D Social factors involve influences of significant others or groups, cultural beliefs, expectations, or situations.

261)

[A, B, D] Focus Box 11-6 identified the Factors that contributed to increased anxiety and depression during the COVID-19 pandemic.

262)

A Individuals with social anxiety typically avoid situations where they will be exposed to the scrutiny of someone else, such as speaking in public, meeting new people, or participating in group conversations.

263)

B

Student name:__________ 264)

Which of the following steps is not one of the more important matters to address when developing an Emergency Action Plan (EAP)?

A) Determining the number of personnel who will be on the field during practices and competitions.

B) Making sure means of communication are readily accessible.

C) Establishing specific procedures and policies for removal of protective equipment.

D) Assigning someone to contact the parents of an injured patient.

E) Informing and annually practicing the emergency plan so that all individuals involved know their responsibilities.

265)

Please click the appropriate information that would be included in a general Emergency Action Plan (EAP).

A) Sports medicine staff names B) Roles of first responders C) Directions to team physician’s office D) Venue directions / locations E) CPR / first aid instructions F) Football secretary’s office phone number G) Emergency equipment available H) Sports medicine staff phone numbers I) Emergency personnel J) Directions to activate emergency medical system K) Location of emergency communications (phones) L) Athletes’ parents’ phone numbers M) Individual athlete’s medications N) Individual athlete’s allergies O) Total number of athletes at the venue P) Team physician’s office number

266)

If EMS is called to the scene of an athletic injury, who should have the final say on how the patient should be transported?

A) athletic trainer (AT) B) physician C) emergency medical technician (EMT) D) coach E) anesthesia care team (ACT)

267)

When dealing with an athlete who is a minor, which of the following types of consent would be a liability?

A) written consent obtained before emergency B) verbal consent C) implied consent D) inferred consent E) written consent obtained during an emergency

268)

Which of the following actions would be considered an act of negligence when dealing with an unconscious patient?

A) If the patient is prone and breathing, the patient should be provided life support only after emergency medical personnel arrive.

B) If the patient is supine and not breathing, ABCs should be established immediately.

C) If a patient is wearing protective equipment, rescuers should immediately remove it to expose the airway.

D) If the patient is supine and breathing, monitor closely until the patient regains consciousness.

E) If the patient is prone and not breathing, the patient should be log-rolled.

269)

What is the purpose of the primary survey?

A) to determine how many emergency personnel are needed to handle the situation B) to determine the existence of potentially life-threatening situations C) to determine the need to obtain consent to treat D) to determine the need to gather splinting equipment E) to determine how the patient will be transported off the field/court

270)

When performing the primary survey, which of the following would be assessed during the secondary survey?

A) shock B) airway obstruction C) profuse bleeding D) no breathing E) compound fracture

271)

Please click the conditions that apply to a functional sign that could be present when evaluating an unconscious patient.

When evaluating the unconscious patient: You find that the injury was sudden, or sudden onset A) fainting B) concussion C) grand mal epilepsy D) brain compression & injury E) heatstroke F) diabetic coma G) shock H) hives

272)

Please click the conditions that apply to a functional sign that could be present when evaluating an unconscious patient.

When evaluating the unconscious patient, you find a - Fast and weak pulse A) fainting B) concussion C) grand mal epilepsy D) brain compression & injury E) heatstroke F) diabetic coma G) shock H) hives I) asthma J) heat cramp

273)

Please click the conditions that apply to a functional sign that could be present when evaluating an unconscious patient.

When evaluating the patient, you find: - Shallow respiration A) fainting B) concussion C) grand mal epilepsy D) brain compression & injury E) heatstroke F) diabetic coma G) shock

274)

Please click the conditions that apply to a functional sign that could be present when evaluating an unconscious patient.

When evaluating the unconscious patient, you find: - Equal and dilated pupils A) fainting B) concussion C) grand mal epilepsy D) brain compression & injury E) heatstroke F) diabetic coma G) shock

275)

Please click the conditions that apply to a functional sign that could be present when evaluating an unconscious patient.

When evaluating the unconscious patient, you find: - Vomiting A) fainting B) concussion C) grand mal epilepsy D) brain compression & injury E) heatstroke F) diabetic coma G) shock

276)

When giving cardiopulmonary resuscitation to a child, after establishing unresponsiveness and calling 911, what should be the next step?

A) get the AED B) compress chest about 2 inches C) perform 30 compressions D) perform mouth-to-mouth breathing after opening the airway E) perform bag-valve-mask respirations

277)

When trying to establish circulation by performing compressions in an unconscious adult athlete, a healthcare provider should re-check the pulse ever __________ when performing CPR. A) 35 seconds B) 15 seconds C) 10 seconds D) 20 seconds E) 25 seconds

278)

During a primary survey, if the response illustrated in the picture were to occur, what would be the next step?

A) B) C) D) E)

begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) initiate rescue breathing tilt the head to open the airway call EMS / 911 re-tap the victim to confirm unresponsiveness

279)

What is the purpose of performing the maneuver that is illustrated in the picture?

A) B) C) D) E)

to open the esophagus to release constriction of arterial flow to the brain to raise the tongue away from the back of the throat to push the tongue on the bottom of the mouth to open the airway through the nostrils

280)

When establishing breathing, if it is confirmed that there is no visual rise and fall of the chest and the airway has been opened properly, what is the next step?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

281)

The use of the apparatus illustrated in this picture can provide about the same amount of oxygen that a person normally breathing would intake. What is that percentage value?

A) B) C) D) E)

7 percent 16 percent 21 percent 45 percent 90 percent

282)

In the following illustration, what is the correct numerical value assigned to the correct action?

A) B) C) D) E)

15–20 chest compressions for every cycle two breaths provided after 100 chest compressions five cycles of chest compressions to breaths within a minute period one breath for every cycle 100–120 chest compressions per minute

283)

If a conscious victim with an obstructed airway eventually becomes unresponsive and the victim has been helped to the ground, which of the following pictures shows the action that should be the athletic trainer’s immediate next step?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

284)

After watching the video, what do you suspect is wrong with the victim?

A) B) C) D) E)

The victim is gasping for air.

The victim is coughing.

The victim is having a petit mal seizure.

The victim has an obstructed airway.

The victim is about to fall unconscious.

285)

Please identify each of the correct locations on the victim’s chest to place Automated External Defibrillator (AED) pads.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

286)

Which of the following types of shock is caused by the general dilation of blood vessels within the cardiovascular system?

A) hypovolemic shock B) neurogenic shock C) cardiogenic shock D) septic shock E) metabolic shock

287)

Which of the following types of shock refers to an extreme loss of body fluid?

A) Hypovolemic shock B) Neurogenic shock C) Cardiogenic shock D) Septic shock E) Metabolic shock

288)

Which of the following is the correct pulse rate per minute for adults at rest?

A) 60–100 beats B) 50–70 beats C) 100–120 beats D) 80–120 beats E) 120–140 beats

289)

According to the American Heart Association, with which of the following values will an individual be considered prehypertensive?

A) systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg; diastolic blood pressure 80–89 mm Hg B) systolic blood pressure 140–159 mm Hg; diastolic blood pressure less than 80 mm Hg C) systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg; diastolic blood pressure less than 80 mm Hg D) systolic blood pressure 120–139 mm Hg; diastolic blood pressure 80-89 mm Hg E) systolic blood pressure 160 mm Hg or higher; diastolic blood pressure 100 mm Hg or higher

290)

291)

__________ usually occurs from a bacterial.

A) Septic shock B) Anaphylactic shock C) Metabolic shock D) Psychogenic shock

A patient presents with a constricted pupil. Which of the following would most likely be the source of the problem?

A) heatstroke B) shock C) hemorrhage D) ingesting central nervous system depressant drug E) brain injury

292)

Please identify which of the following are vital signs.

A) movement B) pupils C) reflex D) pulse E) rigidity F) severe bleeding G) temperature H) respiration I) deformity J) swallowing

293)

A patient has been thrown from a bull during a rodeo in which a fractured pelvis is suspected. Which of the following emergency splinting techniques would be the most appropriate?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

294)

A patient is suffering from a fracture and dislocation of the ankle. Which of the following emergency splinting techniques would be the most appropriate?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

295)

Identify an accurate statement about protecting a damaged tissue from further injury.

A) Subjecting an injured part to external stresses can interfere with the essential biological processes in the acute inflammatory stage of the healing process.

B) Most experts recommend aggressive ambulation and extensive periods of rest after trauma.

C) Experts recommend long periods of protection (crutches, braces, etc.) following acute soft tissue injury, which includes rest and immobilization.

D) Once a tissue is injured, it takes a long time for the healing process to begin.

E) Protection is the key element for preventing chronic inflammation.

296)

Which of the following statements is true about an air splint?

A) It provides moderate pressure to an injured body part and affords a clear view of the site for X-ray examination.

B) It is made with a thin sheet of soft, pliable aluminum covered by padding.

C) It consists of styrofoam chips contained inside an airtight cloth sleeve that is pliable.

D) It is most useful for injuries that are angulated and must be splinted in the position in which they were found.

297)

Of the pieces of the equipment that could be used to remove the football helmet face mask fastener, which one has been shown to be faster and produce less torque on the helmet?

A) trainers angel B) scissors C) FM extractor D) screwdriver (electric) E) anvil pruner

298)

A patient states that her lower leg hurts. Please identify which of the following questions would be appropriate in taking a history for a musculoskeletal injury.

A) What were you doing prior to getting hurt?

B) What did you eat for breakfast?

C) Did you hear any noises when the injury occurred?

D) Have you ever hurt this leg before?

E) Were you wearing socks?

F) What type of pain are you experiencing?

G) Do you suffer from high blood pressure?

H) Did you notice any swelling, discoloration, or deformity after the injury?

I) How often do you buy new shoes?

J) Are your socks the correct size?

299)

Which of the following is a type of stretcher that has detachable hinges at each end and thus can be split into two halves?

A) scoop stretcher B) stokes stretcher C) litter D) vacuum mattress E) half/short board

300)

The technique demonstrated in the video should be utilized during which of the following situations?

A) B) C) D) E)

when the patient has a fracture of the lower leg when the patient needs CPR to remove the patient’s mouthpiece when the patient has a shoulder dislocation when the patient has a brachial plexus injury

301)

If it is suspected that a patient has a spinal cord injury, which of the following techniques would be utilized?

A) B) C) D) E)

302)

If a patient suffers from a calf cramp while performing pool rehabilitation, which of the following techniques would be most appropriate to rescue the patient from the water if the patient is close to the edge of the pool?

A) B) C) D) E)

303)

If a patient has become distressed while in the pool when performing a rehabilitation protocol, and the athletic trainer is also in the pool, which of the following techniques would be the most appropriate to perform?

A) B) C) D)

304)

What is the ambulatory technique demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

manual conveyance ambulatory aid stretcher carry tripod method four point gait

305)

When performing the technique demonstrated in the video, what is the approximate angle the patient’s elbow should be flexed?

A) B) C) D) E)

10 degrees 20 degrees 30 degrees 40 degrees 50 degrees

306)

When performing the technique demonstrated in the video, where should the crutch tips be located in relationship to the outer margin and tip of the shoe, respectively?

A) B) C) D) E)

6 inches; 2 inches 2 inches; 6 inches 2 inches; 2 inches 6 inches; 6 inches 5 inches; 5 inches

307)

If a patient has a grade 2 lateral ankle sprain, which of the following ambulatory techniques would be best if the patient is to be completely non-weight bearing?

A) four-point crutch gait B) tripod method C) cane on the affected side D) cane on the unaffected side E) crutch on the unaffected side

308)

If a patient is partial weight bearing, which of the following ambulatory techniques would be most appropriate?

A) crutch on the affected side B) crutch on the unaffected side C) cane on the affected side D) cane on the unaffected side E) crutch or cane on the unaffected side

309)

What artery is the practitioner utilizing in the picture to take the patient’s pulse?

A) B) C) D) E)

310)

brachial artery femoral Artery ulnar Artery carotid Artery radial Artery

Upon taking a patient’s temperature, you note that it is 98.2 degrees Fahrenheit. How would you classify this patient?

A) normal B) in the beginning stages of hyperthermia C) heat Cramps D) heat Exhaustion E) heat Stroke

311)

In the diagram, where is the practitioner checking for a pulse?

A) B) C) D) E)

312)

brachial artery carotid artery radial arter ulnar artery femoral artery

What is this position called?

A) B) C) D) E)

recovery position rescue position resuscitation position resting position ready position

313)

What artery is being compressed in the diagram?

A) B) C) D) E)

314)

brachial artery carotid artery radial artery ulnar artery femoral artery

How do you measure to find the appropriate length for this airway adjunct device?

A) Measure the length from the patient’s jaw to their nose.

B) Measure the length from the patient’s nose to their chin.

C) Measure the length from the patient’s tongue.

D) Measure the length from the patient’s corner of the mouth to the same side earlobe.

E) Measure the length from the patient’s corner of the mouth to the opposite side

earlobe.

315)

What is this airway adjunct device in the figure?

A) B) C) D) E)

OPA NPA suction device supraglottic airway King-Devick device

Answer Key Test name: chapter 12 264)

D It is necessary to carry contact information for all athletes, coaches, and other personnel at all times when traveling. For minors, consent forms for medical treatment should also be available when traveling.

265) 266)

[A, B, D, G, H, I, J, K] C If the rescue squad is called and responds, the emergency medical technicians (EMTs) should have the final say on how the patient is to be transported in accordance with their established protocols, while the athletic trainer assumes an assistive role.

267)

D An attempt must be made to notify the minor’s parent for verbal consent if written consent was not previously obtained. Implied consent takes precedence when acting on behalf of the patient to save the patient’s life.

268)

A When the condition presents that the patient is prone and breathing, the patient should be monitored closely until consciousness is regained; then the patient should be carefully logrolled onto a spine board because CPR could be necessary at any time.

269)

B The primary survey, which is done initially, includes identifying problems with level of consciousness, airway, breathing, circulation, severe bleeding, and shock. This takes precedence over all other aspects of victim assessment and should be used to correct life-threatening situations.

270)

E The other life-threatening condition considered is having no circulation.

271) 272) 273) 274) 275) 276)

[A, B, C, E] [A, C, E, F, G] [A, B, G] [A, C, G] [B, E, G] A

After establishing unresponsiveness and calling 911, an athletic trainer should get the AED/defibrillator or send a second rescuer to get one.

277)

C When trying to establish circulation by performing compressions in an unconscious adult athlete, a healthcare provider should re-check for a pulse at the carotid artery every 2 minutes.

278)

D If the victim is unresponsive, the emergency medical system (EMS) should be activated immediately by specifically directing someone to dial 911.

279)

C The tongue is the most common cause of airway obstruction; the forward lift of the jaw raises the tongue away from the back of the throat, thus clearing the airway.

280)

B Perform the head tilt-chin lift technique (if no neck injury) and give two slow, full breaths at a rate of one breath per second.

281)

C During rescue breathing, the victim receives only about 16 percent oxygen, but a bag/valve mask provides about 21 percent oxygen. Giving supplemental oxygen can provide the victim with a significantly higher oxygen concentration.

282)

E For one rescuer, compression must be given at the rate of 100–120 compressions per minute, maintaining a ratio of 30 chest compression to two full breaths (30:2) for all victims, from infants to adults.

283)

E If a conscious victim with an obstructed airway eventually becomes unresponsive and has been helped to the ground, the next step is to perform 30 chest compressions before opening the airway and looking for an object in the mouth.

284)

D The athletic trainer is performing abdominal thrusts because the victim is conscious and choking with an obstructed airway.

285)

A

To use an Automated External Defibrillator (AED), the rescuer simply applies the two electrodes to the right apex and the left base of the chest.

286)

B Neurogenic shock is caused by the general dilation of blood vessels within the cardiovascular system. When it occurs, the typical 6 liters of blood can no longer fill the system.

287)

E Metabolic shock happens when a severe illness, such as diabetes, goes untreated. Another cause is an extreme loss of body fluid (e.g., through urination, vomiting, or diarrhea).

288)

A Normal pulse rate per minute for an adult ranges between 60 and 100 beats.

289)

D The American Heart Association's recommended blood pressure for prehypertension is systolic blood pressure 120–139 mm Hg; diastolic blood pressure 80–89 mm Hg. 290)

A Septic shock occurs from a severe, usually bacterial, infection. Toxins liberated from the bacteria cause small blood vessels in the body to dilate.

291)

D A constricted pupil may indicate the patient is using a central nervous system depressant drug.

292)

[A, B, D, G, H] When evaluating the seriously ill or injured patient, the athletic trainer or physician must be aware of nine response areas: level of consciousness, pulse, respiration, blood pressure, temperature, skin color, pupils, movement, and abnormal nerve response. The three primary vital signs are pulse, respiration, and blood pressure.

293)

E Injuries involving a possible spine or pelvic fracture are best splinted and the patient moved using a spine board.

294)

D The rapid-form immobilizer is utilized for injuries that are angulated and must be splinted in the position in which they are found.

295)

A

Subjecting an injured part to additional unnecessary external stresses and strains may cause additional bleeding and further damage that can interfere with the essential biological processes in the acute inflammatory stage of the healing process. Thus, short periods of protection (crutches, braces, etc.) which includes rest and immobilization are recommended immediately following acute soft tissue injury.

296)

A Air splint provides support and moderate pressure to the body part and affords a clear view of the site for X-ray examination. An air splint is a clear plastic splint that is inflated with air around the affected part and can be used for extremity splinting, but its use requires some special training.

297)

D The electrical screwdriver has shown to be faster and produce less torque on the helmet than tools that cut through the fasteners as long as the screws are not rusted.

298) 299)

[A, C, D, F, H] A A scoop stretcher has detachable hinges at each end and thus can be split into two halves. Each half of the stretcher is placed on either side of the supine athlete.

300)

B A patient must be log rolled onto his or her back when they are not breathing or require CPR. 301)

C Pool spine boarding is the technique for putting a patient with a suspected spinal injury on a spine board and removing him or her from the pool.

302)

D When dealing with a patient who has sustained what appears to be a minor injury in the pool, and if the patient is close to the edge of the pool, the athletic trainer can reach out to the swimmer with the rescue tube while standing on the pool deck.

303)

D When dealing with a distressed or severely injured, patient the rescue tube-in water rescue can be utilized.

304)

A Manual conveyance is the method for transporting a mildly injured patient.

305)

C

When fitting crutches, the elbow should be flexed approximately 30 degrees.

306)

A Crutch tips should be placed 6 inches from the outer margin of the shoe and 2 inches from the front of the shoe.

307) 308) 309)

B E E The pulse is taken from the radial artery on the thumb side of the wrist.

310)

A Normal body temperature for a patient is 98.2/98.6 degrees Fahrenheit.

311)

B The carotid artery is where you check for a pulse on a neck.

312)

A The recovery position is utilized when a patient is breathing on their own waiting for further assistance.

313)

E The femoral artery is the most common site for compression of pressure points on the lower extremity.

314)

D The size of the OPA (oropharyngeal airway) can be estimated by measuring the distance from the corner of the mouth to the same side earlobe.

315)

C A suction device can be used if there is some substance in the mouth or throat that appears to be obstructing the airway and that cannot be cleared by using a finger sweep.

Student name:__________ 316)

What is the horizontal plane in this diagram that divides the body into upper and lower parts?

A) B) C) D) E)

coronal plane frontal plane sagittal plane transverse plane diagonal plane

317)

What range of motion is being demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

318)

supination pronation flexion extension inversion

What range of motions are being demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

eversion pronation flexion extension inversion

319)

According to the standard orthopedic definitions for positions and deviations, which of the following is being demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

320)

eversion pronation valgus supination varus

If an athlete complains of burning pain, what structure may have been injured?

A) muscle B) nerve C) bone D) vascular system E) joint

321)

What term describes the sensation of “pins and needles”?

A) Paresthesia B) Dysesthesia C) Anesthesia D) Hyperesthesia E) Paralysed

322)

Which of the following is a contractile tissue?

A) joint capsule B) nerve C) ligaments D) muscle tendons E) bones

323)

Which of the following endpoints would be categorized as abnormal?

A) soft tissue approximation B) loose C) capsular feel D) bone to bone E) muscular

324)

If an individual has a meniscus tear, which of the following endpoints would be experienced?

A) bone to bone B) loose C) spasm D) empty feel E) springy block

325)

What is the normal range of motion for the action demonstrated in the video? {MISSING IMAGE} A) 120–125 degrees B) 10–15 degrees C) 40–45 degrees D) 140–145 degrees E) 70–75 degrees

326)

What is the normal range of motion for the action demonstrated in the video? {MISSING IMAGE} A) 120–125 degrees B) 10–15 degrees C) 40–45 degrees D) 140–145 degrees E) 70–75 degrees

327)

In a neurologic examination that requires the individual to touch the finger to the nose, what is being assessed?

A) cerebral function B) cranial nerve function C) cerebellar function D) sensory testing E) reflex testing

328)

What is the main purpose of maintaining progress evaluations when an off-the-field evaluation has already been completed?

A) It allows another staff athletic trainer to verify if the off-the-field assessment is correct.

B) It provides a team physician with an opportunity to re-evaluate a patient.

C) It allows the patient the ability to monitor rehabilitation progression in order to approximate return to daily activities.

D) It gives the athletic trainer the ability to focus specifically on the injury as it appears today compared with yesterday.

E) It allows the ability to maintain medical records in order to remain compliant with HIPAA standards.

329)

Which of the following questions would be inapplicable for the athletic trainer to investigate when completing a progress evaluation?

A) Does the pt. have a different level of pn?

B) Does the pt. remember the MOI? C) Does the pt. have ↑ swelling?

D) Does the pt. still have PT over injured site?

E) Does the pt. have a ≥ MMT grade?

330)

Which of the following measurements would fall out of the category of anthropometric measurements?

A) body height B) body weight C) skin-fold D) craniometry E) bone density

331)

Please click ONLY the boxes that correspond to correctly matched pairs according to the standard abbreviations and symbols used in medical documentation.

Abbreviation / Symbol Meaning A) ↑ Increase B) Δ Therefore C) ADL Abnormal discrepancy, leg-length D) BID, bid Bilateral in direction E) CC Chief complaint; chronic complainer F) Dx Diagnosis G) E Ear H) FWB Full weight bearing I) H/O Health of J) LAT Latissimus dorsi K) MMT Manual muscle testing L) NKDA No known drug allergies M) ORIF Operative reduction / internal fixation N) Pt. / pt. Physical therapy O) RTP Return to play P) Y/O Years old

332)

Which of the following imaging techniques illustrated in the pictures would be the most efficient to discover if there is a nerve root compression at the L4 level?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

333)

Which of the following imaging techniques illustrated in the pictures would be the most efficient to discover if there is a loose body within a joint?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

334)

Which of the following imaging techniques illustrated in the pictures would be the most efficient to discover if there is a nerve root compression at the L4 level?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

335)

Which of the following diagnostic tests would be best suited to discover if there are any abnormality in brain waves?

A) electrocardiography B) electroencephalography C) electromyography D) nerve conduction velocity E) computed tomography

336)

Identify a true statement about contractile tissues.

A) A lesion of these tissues elicits pain on active and passive movement in the same direction.

B) These tissues include bones, ligaments, joint capsules, fascia, bursae, nerve roots, and dura mater.

C) These tissues are capable of lengthening and shortening.

D) The specific location of a lesion of these tissues within the musculotendinous unit can easily be identified by an isometric contraction.

E) A sprain of these tissues results in pain whenever that ligament is stretched, through either active contraction or passive stretching.

337)

Which of the following is a function of the accessory nerve?

A) inferior and lateral movement of eye B) motor nerve of facial expression C) hearing and equilibrium D) innervation of sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles E) regulation of pulmonary, cardiovascular, and gastrointestinal functions

338)

Which of the following statements is true of superficial reflexes?

A) They are caused by stimulation of the stretch reflex and result in an involuntary contraction of a muscle when its tendon is stretched.

B) They are elicited by stimulation of the skin at specific sites.

C) They are elicited at the tendons of the biceps, brachioradialis, extensor digitorum, triceps, adductor, patella, Achilles, and hamstring.

D) Their presence indicates a lesion in the descending upper motor neuron, including the spinal cord.

E) They can be exemplified by Babinski’s sign, in which stroking of the lateral plantar surface produces extension and splaying of the toes.

339)

Which of the following best defines accessory motions?

A) the extent to which a patient performs a squat maneuver while extending the arms above his or her head B) the level to which a patient squats on one leg and returns to a standing position C) the manner in which one articulating joint surface moves relative to another D) the extent to which a patient can maintain a neutral alignment of limb segments while performing a dynamic movement E) the manner in which malalignments and asymmetries are tested by viewing the body compared with a grid or plumb line

340)

In the context of anthropometric measurements, craniometry refers to A) skin-fold measurements to determine body composition.

B) measurement of the bones of the skull.

C) limb girth measurements taken during a rehabilitation program.

D) measurements of weight.

E) measurements taken to determine changes in limb volume.

341)

In the context of diagnostic testing, which of the following best defines specificity?

A) the extent to which different examiners obtain the same result on the same patient B) the ability of a diagnostic test to rule in a condition or injury C) the assessment of global movement quality to identify risk and athletic performance ability D) the ability to bridge the gap between preparticipation exams and performance testing E) the ability to measure the dimensions of the skeletal system

342)

Which of the following diagnostic tests would be best suited to discover if there are any abnormality in brain waves?

A) electrocardiography B) electroencephalography C) electromyography D) nerve conduction velocity E) computed tomography

343)

Identify the first step in an ergonomic risk assessment.

A) to identify the compensation patterns exhibited when performing the overhead squat and the single leg squat B) to identify individuals at high risk for anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) injury C) to identify whether or not an injury truly exists D) to identify fractures and dislocations or any bone abnormality E) to identify the jobs most in need of attention

344)

What piece of equipment is used to assess lung function by measuring the volume of air that can be exhaled by a patient immediately following a deep inhalation?

A) spirometer B) peak flow meter C) refractometer D) synovial fluid analysis E) pulse oximetry

345)

Please check all of the values that are representative of normal urinalysis values.

A) Output: 1,000 ml B) Color: Dark yellow C) Osmolality: 600 mosm / kg water D) pH: 2.5 E) Uric acid: 1.7 g / 24hr F) Urea: 23 g / 24hr

346)

Which of the following scores identifies moderate clinical reliability?

A) 0.50/0.75 B) 0.75/1.0 C) 0.0/0.5 D) 0.25/0.5 E) 1.0/1.25

347)

Please check all of the exercises that are identified as part of a functional movement screen.

A) mini-squat B) flexion stability test C) hurdle step D) side lunge E) shoulder mobility F) rotary instability G) passive knee flexion H) trunk stability push-up

348)

Please check all of the muscles that could be tight if a person compensates by pronating or externally rotating when performing a single leg squat.

A) soleus B) gluteus medius C) piriformis D) peroneals E) hip adductors F) biceps femoris G) IT band H) gluteus maximus

349)

To deviate toward or draw toward the midline of the body is the definition for which of the following terms?

A) Abduction B) Adduction C) Inversion D) Pronation E) Eversion

350)

Hip flexion is aligned with which myotome?

A) L1 B) L2 C) L3 D) L4 E) L5

351)

Elbow flexion/wrist extension is aligned with which myotome?

A) C5 B) C6 C) C7 D) C8 E) T1

352)

A patient comes with orders that say Touch toe weight bearing. What does that stand for?

A) tippy toe weight bearing B) touch toe weight bearing C) touch toe within boundaries D) tip top weight bearing E) touch toe with boundaries

353)

Where does atrial contraction occur?

A) B) C) D) E)

354)

P wave Q wave QRS wave S wave T wave

Where does ventrical depolarization occur?

A) B) C) D) E)

P wave Q wave QRS wave S wave T wave

Answer Key Test name: chapter 13 316)

D The transverse plane runs horizontally and divides the body into upper and lower parts.

317)

A Supination is referred to turning the palm upward.

318)

[A, E] Inversion is referred to as turning inward and eversion is referred to as turning out.

319)

C Valgus is referred to as deviation of a part or portion of the extremity distal to a joint away from the midline of the body.

320)

B Nerve pain is often described as burning.

321)

A Paresthesia can be described as the sensation of “pins and needles.”

322)

D Muscles and their tendons are categorized as contractile tissue.

323)

B A loose feel occurs in extreme hypermobility.

324)

E A springy block is a rebound at the endpoint often associated with a meniscus tear.

325)

B Normal hip extension is 10 degrees.

326)

B Normal hip extension is 10 degrees.

327)

C Touching your finger to your nose is checking cerebellar function.

328)

D The progress evaluation should be based on the athletic trainer’s knowledge of exactly what is occurring during the healing process at any given time.

329)

B Asking the patient (pt.) if the mechanism of injury (MOI) is remembered should have been asked during the initial off-the-field evaluation process. Pn=pain; ↑=increased; PT=point tender; ≥=greater than or equal to; MMT=manual muscle testing.

330)

E Bone density is a measurement of bone mineral density, unlike anthropometric measurements that measure the human body, such as osteometry and craniometry.

331) 332)

[A, E, F, H, K, L, O, P] D A myelogram is an image created by using a contrast medium to assist the physician in detecting conditions such as tumors, nerve root compression, and disk disease as well as other diseases within the spinal cord.

333)

A An arthrogram is an image of a joint via X-ray after injection of an opaque dye, air, or a combination of air and opaque dye into the joint space to show the disruption of soft tissue and loose bodies in the joint.

334)

D A myelogram is an image created by using a contrast medium to assist the physician in detecting conditions such as tumors, nerve root compression, and disk disease as well as other diseases within the spinal cord.

335)

B An electroencephalogram (EEG) records electrical potentials produced in the brain and is used to detect changes or abnormalities in brain wave patterns.

336) 337) 338) 339) 340) 341) 342)

C D B C B B B

An electroencephalogram (EEG) records electrical potentials produced in the brain and is used to detect changes or abnormalities in brain wave patterns.

343) 344)

E A A spirometer is a piece of equipment used to assess lung function by measuring the volume of air that can be exhaled by a patient immediately following a deep inhalation.

345) 346)

[A, C, F] A Moderate clinical reliability is identified with a score of 0.5-0.75.

347) 348)

[C, E, F, H] [A, C, D, F] The muscles that could be tight if a person compensates by pronating or externally rotating when performing a single leg squat are: soleus, lateral gastrocnemius, biceps femoris, peroneals, piriformis.

349)

B Adduction is to deviate toward or draw toward the midline of the body.

350)

B Hip flexion is aligned with L2.

351)

C Elbow flexion/wrist extension is the myotome for C7 352)

B TTWB is the abbreviation for Touch toe weight bearing 353)

A The P wave is responsible for atrial contraction.

354)

C The QRS wave is responsible for ventrical depolarization.

Student name:__________ 355)

Which of the following statements about pathogens is incorrect?

A) A pathogen causes the immune system to mount a defensive mechanism or disrupts a vital body process.

B) When a microorganism is transmitted from an animal host to a human host, it becomes a harmful pathogen.

C) Transmission of an infectious disease does not have to have direct human contact.

D) When a pathogen enters the new host, it may not actually cause an infection.

E) Once the final stage of recovery has occurred, the body has built a permanent immunity to that pathogen.

356)

What is the role of the T-cell in the immune system?

A) T-cells activate macrophages to assist in the immune response.

B) T-cells are transformed into specialized cells capable of producing antibodies.

C) T-cells are a complex cellular defense that assist in the destruction of antigens.

D) T-cells neutralize antigens by lysis and phagocytosis.

E) T-cells prevent antigens from adhering to host cells.

357)

If a disease outbreak of a regular number of cases occurred often in the southeast region of the United States, what would it be classified as?

A) sporadic outbreak B) endemic outbreak C) epidemic outbreak D) pandemic outbreak E) erratic outbreak

358)

Which of the following actions is the single most important practice for preventing the spread of infectious diseases?

A) practicing abstinence B) wearing latex gloves C) vaccinations D) handwashing E) sneezing / coughing into the sleeve

359)

When educating secondary school athletes, what environment poses the greatest risk of acquiring HBV or HIV? A) off-the-field activities B) locker rooms C) on-the-field exposure D) cafeteria E) bathrooms

360)

Which of the following questions should be excluded when identifying increased risk behaviors that may lead to HIV infection?

A) Have you had more than one sex partner since your last HIV test?

B) Have you been diagnosed with or treated for hepatitis or tuberculosis (TB)?

C) Have you exchanged sex for drugs or money?

D) Have you traveled outside of the US where there is high risk of food, water, and crop contamination?

E) Have you had sex–anal or vaginal–with an HIV-positive partner?

361)

Contaminated laundry should be washed in hot water at what ideal temperature value and period of time?

A) 65º C / 149 º F for 15 minutes B) 68 º C / 154 º F for 20 minutes C) 71 º C / 159.8 º F for 25 minutes D) 74 º C / 165.2 º F for 30 minutes E) 77 º C / 170.6 º F for 25 minutes

362)

What governing agency established standards to protect the health care provider and the patient against bloodborne pathogens?

A) CDC B) NATA C) FDA D) NCAA E) OSHA

363)

In the following picture, what is another PPE that the athletic trainer could use while taking care of the injury?

A) B) C) D) E)

364)

another layer of gloves antibacterial handwash gown eye shield sterile gauze

In watching the video, why does the athletic trainer remove the gloves inside out?

A) B) C) D)

to prevent the patient from having to see blood to create a disposable trash bag for the used gauze to keep any blood that was on the glove from dripping on the table to keep the athletic training student from having to touch bodily fluid as he/she disposes of the used materials E) to prevent bodily fluid exposure to the tending athletic trainer

365)

What right does an individual have after having been exposed to a bodily fluid?

A) the right to contact a lawyer B) the right of claiming Family Medical Leave Act C) the right of a confidential medical evaluation D) the right to leave work for a non-disclosed period E) the right to report the person whose bodily fluid was contaminated

366)

During which stage of an infectious disease does the pathogenic agent continue to multiply and the host becomes capable of transferring pathogens to a new host?

A) acute B) prodromal C) incubation D) decline E) recovery

367)

368)

Which of the following cells are a part of the innate immune response?

A) CD4+ T cells B) plasma cells C) B cells D) dendritic cells E) CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

Which of the following occurs after activated B cells become plasma cells during the immune system's response to invading pathogens?

A) Macrophages and dendritic cells engulf the pathogens.

B) T cells become either CD4+ T helper cells or CD8+ cytotoxic T cells.

C) Antibodies bind specific regions on pathogens.

D) B cells activate CD4+ cells.

E) Macrophages and dendritic cells present antigen on the surface.

369)

Which of the following are the most common bloodborne pathogens?

A) viruses B) bacteria C) parasites D) fungi E) prions

370)

The replication of HIV occurs in A) CD8+ T cells.

B) CD4+ T cells.

C) macrophages.

D) leukocytes.

E) phagocytes.

371)

Where should a health care professional grasp a protective glove when removing it after use?

A) B) C) D) E)

between the little finger and the ring finger at the wrist at the center of the palm at the tip of any knuckle between the thumb and index finger

372)

Choose ONLY the signs/symptoms that are shared with both HBV and HCV. A) jaundice B) dark urine C) fever D) weakness E) abdominal pain F) nausea G) muscle and joint pain H) headache

373)

What human physiological response is illustrated?

A) B) C) D) E)

the reproducing virus in the human body the attack of the HIV in the human body the immune system response in the human body the attack of the HBV virus in the human body the attack of the HCV virus in the human body

374)

An athlete comes to you with fever, cough, shortness of breath, and fatigue. What should you have them get tested for?

A) COVID-19 B) HPV C) HIV D) Hepatitis B E) Hepatitis C

375)

If a patient has a positive COVID-19 test, how long is it recommended that they stay isolated for?

A) 2 days B) 3 days C) 4 days D) 5 days E) 6 days

Answer Key Test name: chapter 14 355)

E Following the recovery stage, subsequent exposure to that pathogen may not result in infection since the body has built up immunity. It must be stressed that immunity is not necessarily permanent.

356)

C An immune response requires T-cells and B-cells to defend the body against specific antigens.

357)

B An endemic disease outbreak is when regular cases are often occurring in a region.

358)

D Handwashing is the single most important practice for preventing the spread of infectious diseases.

359)

A Off-the-field activities may include unsafe sexual practices and sharing of needles, particularly in the use of steroids.

360)

D Traveling outside of the US where there is high risk of food and water contamination is more related to Hepatitis A. 361)

C Contaminated laundry should be washed in hot water, 71 º C / 159.8 º F for 25 minutes while using a detergent that deactivates the virus.

362)

E In 1991, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration established standards for an employer to follow that govern occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

363)

D The nature of this injury, a subungual hematoma or collection of blood under the nail bed, could shoot out of the puncture / release site.

364)

E

Removing the gloves inside out assists the athletic trainer in the prevention of touching the contaminated exterior of the gloves.

365)

C Documentation of the exposure route, identification of the source individual, a blood test, counseling, and an evaluation of reported illnesses are also afforded to the athletic trainer.

366)

B During the prodromal stage of an infectious disease, the pathogenic agent continues to multiply and the host is capable of transferring pathogens to a new host. A person should be isolated during this stage to prevent transmission to others.

367)

D Innate immune cells, such as macrophages and dendritic cells (DCs), engulf any invading pathogen and digest it into small protein fragments, known as antigens. Other cells of the innate immune response, such as neutrophils, first recognize the invasion of pathogens. These cells can remove the infectious agent through the release of antimicrobial molecules. B cells and T cells are part of the adaptive immune response. After antigen recognition B cells differentiate into a more mature type of B cells, called plasma cells.

368)

C During the immune system's response to invading pathogens, T helper cells help activate B cells.

The activated B cells then divide and become plasma cells, which produce antibodies. These antibodies bind specific regions on pathogens. This prevents the pathogen from infecting more host cells or marks the pathogen to be destroyed by immune cells, such as macrophages.

369)

A The most common bloodborne pathogens are viruses, but there are several bacterial blood-borne pathogens as well.

370)

B HIV can only enter three types of immune cells: macrophages, dendritic cells, and CD4+ T cells.

HIV replication only occurs in CD4+ T cells. These cells die once HIV replicates. HIV can be passed to CD4+ T cells via macrophages and dendritic cells but does not affect their function.

371)

B

The following are the steps that need to be followed by a healthcare professional when removing protective gloves after use: 2. One gloved hand should be grasped at the wrist with the opposite hand, and the glove on it should be peeled off.

3. The removed glove should be balled up and held in the opposite gloved hand.

4. The second glove should then be peeled off, trapping the first glove inside.

372) 373)

[A, B, E, F] C Once a pathogen breaches mechanical defenses, such as skin and mucous membranes, the immune system mounts a cellular response to combat the invading pathogen.

374)

A The symptoms of Covid-19 may include fever or chills, cough, shortness of breath or difficulty breathing, fatigue, muscle or body aches, headache, new loss of taste or smell, sore throat, congestion or runny nose, nausea or vomiting, and diarrhea.

375)

D It is recommended that a person isolates for at least 5 days if they have a positive result.

Student name:__________ 376)

Please check all of the modalities that are classified as electrical energy modalities: A) contrast bath B) electrical stimulating current generators C) iontophoresis D) shortwave diathermy E) interferential currents F) ultrasound G) hivamat

377)

The technique viewed in the video is classified in which of the following groups?

A) B) C) D) E)

electromagnetic modalities acoustic modalities mechanical modalities vibration modalities ultraviolet modalities

378)

What method of thermal energy transfer is being demonstrated in the diagram?

A) B) C) D) E)

conduction convection radiation ultraviolet conversion

379)

What method(s) of thermal energy transfer is being demonstrated in the diagram?

A) B) C) D) E)

380)

381)

conduction convection conduction and convection conversion and conduction conversion

What condition was extracorporeal shock wave therapy used for?

A) muscle atrophy B) kidney stone fragmentation C) tennis elbow D) plantar fasciitis E) non-union fractures

Hydrocollator packs contain silicate gel in a cotton pad, which is immersed in thermostatically controlled hot water at a temperature of __________.

A) 140/150 degrees Fahrenheit B) 150/160 degrees Fahrenheit C) 160/170 degrees Fahrenheit D) 170/180 degrees Fahrenheit E) 180/190 degrees Fahrenheit

382)

Which of the following is the appropriate temperature for this modality?

A) B) C) D) E)

383)

110/114 degrees Fahrenheit 116/120 degrees Fahrenheit 126/130 degrees Fahrenheit 131/135 degrees Fahrenheit 137/140 degrees Fahrenheit

Which of the following statements is correct in regards to the application of cold?

A) When cold is applied to the skin for more than 20 minutes, vasoconstriction occurs.

B) When cold is applied to the skin for less than 20 minutes, vasodilation occurs.

C) When cold is applied to the skin for less than 20 minutes, the hunting response occurs.

D) When cold is applied to the skin for more than 20 to 30 minutes, an intermittent period of vasodilation occurs.

E) When cold is applied to the skin, the hunting response always occurs.

384)

Which of the following variables is controversial in regards to their physiological response to cryotherapy?

A) muscle guarding B) edema C) metabolic rate D) pain perception E) collagen elasticity

385)

Which of the following statements is correct regarding this modality?

A) B) C) D) E)

386)

The spray should be held at a 90 degree angle.

The spray should only be 2/3 inches from the injured muscle.

The spray should be perpendicular.

The patient should do active stretching while the spray is being applied.

The spray should cover the skin area 1/2 times.

Which of the following would be an inappropriate exercise to perform during cryokinetics for a lateral ankle sprain?

A) toe raises B) walking C) towel scrunches D) theraband exercises E) passive stretching

387)

Which of the following electrical stimulation treatment protocols requires the current intensity to be extremely high while approaching a noxious level?

A) gate control B) descending pathway pain control C) opiate pain control theory D) muscle contraction E) muscle pumping

388)

389)

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT about iontophoresis?

A) Positive ions are transported into the tissue from the negative pole.

B) Negative ions are transported into the tissue from the positive pole.

C) An active pad is unnecessary.

D) A dispersive pad does not need to be applied to a patient.

E) Treatment time is standard for all medications.

Which of the following is considered an inappropriate indication for utilizing interferential current?

A) pain B) muscle re-education C) neuritis D) restricted mobility E) joint pain with swelling

390)

Identify the correct pad placement to administer interferential currents on the back.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

391)

392)

Which of the following statements about diathermy is INCORRECT? A) Diathermy is a more shallow, penetrating type of thermotherapy than infrared modalities.

B) The extent of muscle heating depends on the thickness of the muscle.

C) Shortwave diathermy heats deeper tissues by introducing a low-frequency electrical current.

D) A type of shortwave diathermy bypasses the patient as part of the circuit in order to heat the body.

E) Pulse diathermy increases the likelihood of any significant tissue temperature increase and reduces the patient’s perception of heat.

When performing a shortwave diathermy treatment, what dosage level desires the effects of mild heat sensation for 20 to 30 minutes daily for two weeks?

A) lowest dose (I1) B) low dose (II) C) medium dose III D) heavy dose (IV) E) intense dose (V5)

393)

What condition would be treated using the heavy dose (IV) protocol for shortwave diathermy?

A) acute ACL sprain B) subacute low back strain C) six-week post-injury of a grade 2 ulnar collateral ligament tear of the wrist D) four-month patellar tendinitis E) chronic trochanteric bursitis

394)

Please check all of the therapeutic reasons that this technique can be utilized.

A) improve blood flow B) increase edema C) reduce swelling D) elongate muscles E) reduce pain F) treat scar tissue in connective tissue G) reduce hematoma H) decrease nerve conduction velocity

395)

What characteristic of ultrasound separates it from infrared modalities?

A) Ultrasound does more than heat body tissue.

B) Ultrasound will not cause thermal burns.

C) Ultrasound has a shorter time period.

D) Ultrasound requires an athletic trainer to administer the treatment.

E) Ultrasound uses acoustic energy.

396)

What is it when performing a non-thermal ultrasound treatment, which results in an increased flow in the fluid around vibrating bubbles?

A) resonance B) cavitation C) microstreaming D) piezoelectricity E) attenuation

397)

If a patient reported to the athletic training clinic for pre-practice treatment with a chronic history of patellar tendinitis, what would be the optimal treatment protocol?

A) paraffin bath dip and wrap method for 8 minutes to warm the patellar tendon B) electrical stimulation muscle strengthening protocol to address the chronic patellar tendinitis C) ice bag for 15 minutes to address the pain D) warm whirlpool and thermokinetics for 20 minutes to prepare the patellar tendon for physical activity 2 E) thermal ultrasound at 3 MHz for about 5 minutes, 1.0 W/cm ti meter square

When providing a non-thermal ultrasound treatment over an acute injury to 1st metatarsal phalangeal joint in which the patient has Raynaud’s phenomena, what would be the best application technique to use?

A) underwater application in warm water to avoid the adverse reaction B) direct contact using a large transducer-sized head because of the keratine layer on the plantar surface of the foot C) gel pad application over the joint area, being sure to coat both sides with ultrasound gel D) combination of electrical stimulation and ultrasound to modulate the acute pain E) underwater application in cold water to address the swelling

398)

399)

When treating a small localized area, what would be the best way to move the transducer head?

A) non-overlapping circular patterns B) stroking pattern C) gel pad technique using circular patterns D) overlapping circular patterns E) allow it to stay in one place

400)

What is the type of the modality illustrated in the picture?

A) B) C) D) E)

401)

interferential current unit LASER therapy unit ultrasound and electrical stimulation combination unit low-intensity stimulator unit electrical stimulating unit

Which of the following statements is correct in regards to differences between phonophoresis and iontophoresis?

A) Iontophoresis has the capability of greater penetration.

B) Phonophoresis has a greater chance of producing a chemical burn.

C) Iontophoresis has a greater advantage because it allows the medicine to bypass the gastrointestinal system.

D) Phonophoresis involves driving whole molecules across the skin into the tissues.

E) Iontophoresis is more economical.

402)

What is being performed in the following illustration?

A) B) C) D) E)

manual cervical traction mechanical scapular traction positional cervical traction inverted cervical manual cervical traction with joint mobilization

403)

In the following illustration, what is a drawback to this particular modality?

A) B) C) D) E)

It is quite expensive.

It is difficult to operate.

It must be continually rechilled.

It is cumbersome to transport.

It cannot be operated by the patient.

404)

Which of the following illustrations represents the type of massage technique that is used in conjunction with cupping to bring about a varied stimulation of the sensory nerves over heavy muscle areas?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

405)

Which of the following illustrations represents the type of massage technique that is used to stretch the underlying tissue and increase circulation around the joint?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

406)

What massage guideline for an effective massage would be neglected if an athletic trainer performed an effleurage massage on an athlete’s calf on the same leg that is being treated for a cut on the thigh that may be infected?

A) making the patient comfortable B) developing a confident, gentle approach when massaging C) ensuring proper lymphatic and venous drainage D) stroking toward the heart whenever possible E) knowing when not to use massage

407)

What is the difference between Chinese acupuncture and dry needling?

A) There is no difference.

B) Dry needling focuses on treating pain associated with myofascial trigger points, while Chinese acupuncture treats muscular condition and non-muscular conditions.

C) Chinese acupuncture focuses on treating pain associated with myofascial trigger points, while dry needling treats muscular condition and non-muscular conditions.

D) Chinese acupuncture is a type of massage, while dry needling is not.

E) Dry needling is primarily used to improve range of motion and disability, while Chinese acupuncture is used to increase ROM through joint mobilizations.

408)

What is the minimal amount of time that ThermaCare® Heatwraps provide heat?

A) 30 minutes B) 1 hour C) 4 hours D) 8 hours E) 24 hours

409)

Electrical, electromagnetic, and sound energy treatments have different physical mechanisms of action. However, which of the following is a common aspect that they share?

A) All of them rely on convection.

B) All of them compress tissues.

C) All of them heat tissues.

D) All of them produce vasoconstriction.

E) All of them rely on the piezoelectric effect.

410)

Which of the following types of energy is transferred when cryotherapy techniques are employed for treatment?

A) electrical energy B) electromagnetic energy C) sound energy D) mechanical energy E) thermal energy

411)

Which of the following variables will have a decreased physiological response to thermotherapy?

A) edema B) collagen elasticity C) blood flow D) metabolic rate E) joint stiffness

412)

Which of the following is a limitation of hydrocollator packs?

A) They usually do not significantly heat deeper tissues.

B) Their use does not result in general relaxation.

C) They aggravate muscle spasms.

D) Their use leads to an increase in pain perception.

E) They contain toxic substances, which cause allergic reactions in some patients.

413)

Which of the following is the reason for cold water immersion techniques increasing the likelihood of swelling?

A) The extremities are in a gravity-dependent position during therapy.

B) The buoyancy of water causes the limbs to move.

C) These techniques depend on extreme temperatures.

D) These techniques require a lot of fluid movement.

E) The permeability of skin allows water to seep into the body.

414)

Which of the following frequencies of electrical stimulation does tetany occur at in muscles?

A) approximately 10 pulses per second B) approximately 20 pulses per second C) approximately 30 pulses per second D) approximately 40 pulses per second E) approximately 50 pulses per second

415)

Which of the following is the single most common problem associated with iontophoresis?

A) vasoconstriction of arterioles B) temporary immobilization C) chemical burn D) increased blood pressure E) stagnation of blood circulation

416)

Which of the following is a nonthermal effect of therapeutic ultrasound that can alter cell membrane structure and function?

A) microstreaming B) cavitation C) agitation D) resistance E) overcooling

417)

The proposed frequency resonance hypothesis relates to: A) the production of oscillation voltage in therapeutic ultrasound by the expansion and contraction of crystals.

B) the absorption and subsequent scattering of ultrasound by subcutaneous fat.

C) the absorption of the mechanical energy of ultrasound by proteins and protein complexes.

D) the increase in the frequency of ultrasound waves as they penetrate deeper tissues.

E) the nonuniform distribution of ultrasound energy.

418)

Which of the following categories of massage strokes includes cupping, hacking, and pinching movements?

A) friction B) effleurage C) petrissage D) tapotement E) vibration

419)

What type of therapy is depicted in this Figure? (insert Figure 15-43b) A) vibration B) cupping C) percussive massage D) intermittent pneumatic compression E) extracorporeal shock wave therapy

420)

What elements does this device combine to give a therapeutic effect? (insert figure 15-

40) A) B) C) D) E)

421)

422)

massage and vibration traction and massage traction and vibration massage and cryotherapy massage and thermotherapy

What does this picture depict? (insert figure 15-28) A) inverted traction B) positional traction C) intermittent compression D) mechanical traction E) cervical Traction

How much are you heating the tissue temperature per minute at 3 MHz at an intensity of 2.0 W/cm2?

A) .4 degrees Celsius B) .9 degrees Celsius C) 1.4 degrees Celsius D) 2.0 degrees Celsius E) 3.0 degrees Celsius

Answer Key Test name: chapter 15 376) 377)

[B, C, E] C Massage is classified as mechanical modality.

378)

A Conduction is heating through direct contact with a hot medium. This occurs when heat is transferred from a warmer object to cooler object.

379)

C A whirlpool bath provides therapy through conduction and convection.

380)

B ESWT was first utilized in the 1980s for kidney stone fragmentation; however, in the 1990s, it began to be used on conditions such as tennis elbow, plantar fasciitis, and non-union fractures.

381)

C Hydrocollator packs should be stored in the unit at 160-170 degrees Fahrenheit.

382)

C A paraffin bath should be maintained at a temperature of 126-130 degrees Fahrenheit.

383)

D When cold is applied to the skin for more than 20 to 30 minutes, an intermittent period of vasodilation occurs.

384)

B There is controversy if cryotherapy will increase or decrease edema.

385)

E You should spray the area in order to cover the skin area 1/2 times.

386)

E All exercises in cryokinetics should be active, that is, performed totally by the patient.

387)

B Current intensity should be very high approaching a noxious level in descending pain control.

388)

D A dispersive pad is always applied to a patient, with a disposable patch the dispersive pad is the alternate pad.

389)

B Interferential current should not be utilized to perform muscle re-education on a patient.

390) 391)

A C Shortwave diathermy heats deeper tissues by introducing a high-frequency electrical current.

392)

B Thelow dose (II) treatment is usually barely felt and addresses the subacute stage, trying to resolve the inflammatory process.

393)

E The heavy dose (IV) treatment involves vigorous heating that causes a sensation that is well tolerated with the consideration that the depth of induction technique can be as much as two inches (5 cm).

394) 395)

[A, C, E, F] E The other characteristics can also be shared with the varying infrared modalities, whether they are used for cryotherapy or thermotherapy.

396)

B Cavitation is the formation of gas-filled bubbles that expand and compress because of ultrasonically induced pressure changes in tissue fluids.

397)

E The use of thermal ultrasound is the best option considering the superficial location, chronic stage, and demand of the body part being addressed, the patellar tendinitis.

398)

C Gel pad application is to be used if the treatment area cannot be immersed in water. Because of the acute stage of the injury and Raynaud’s phenomena, the patient cannot use the underwater application.

399)

D Using overlapping circular patterns is more ideal when treating a highly localized area.

400)

C The picture identifies a of combination ultrasound and electrical stimulator unit.

401)

D Iontophoresis uses an electrical current to transport ions into the tissues.

402)

A Manual traction is infinitely more adaptable and offers greater flexibility than mechanical traction.

403)

C The Cryo-Cuff in the picture does not have a pump that allows the water to be pumped in and out of the cuff surrounding the knee, nor within the cooler itself.

404)

D Hacking is similar to cupping except that the hands are rotated externally and the ulnar, or little finger, border of the hand is the striking surface.

405)

B Friction massage is initiated by bracing with the heels of the hands and then moving the fingers in a circular motion to develop friction.

406)

E Never give a massage if the patient may have a local or general infection. To do so may encourage the infection to spread or may aggravate the condition.

407)

B Dry needling focuses on treating pain associated with myofascial trigger points while Chinese acupuncture treats muscular and non-muscular conditions.

408)

C Each wrap contains small discs containing iron, charcoal, table salt, and water that heat up when exposed to oxygen in the air providing at least 8 hours of continuous, low-level heat.

409) 410) 411) 412) 413) 414) 415)

C E E A A E C

416) 417) 418) 419)

A C D A Vibration therapy has been used to enhance muscle function, somatosensory function, balance, bone health, cartilage health, flexibility, and patient report outcomes.

420)

A Percussive massage treatment combines elements of both massage and vibration therapies.

421)

A Being in the 90/90 position is an example of positional traction.

422)

C Ultrasound heats at a rate of 1.4 degrees Celsius per minute at 2.0 W/cm2.

Student name:__________ 423)

What statement is true to the role of an athletic trainer for rehabilitation in an athletic environment?

A) Athletic trainers are restricted from taking part in the return-to-play decisions regarding their athletes.

B) Athletic trainers most often assume the primary responsibility for design, implementation, and supervision of rehabilitation programs.

C) Athletic trainers should follow a cookbook approach to rehabilitation, with specific protocols that can be followed like a recipe.

D) Athletic trainers ensure that the approach to rehabilitation in an athletic environment is the same as most other rehabilitation settings.

E) Athletic trainers ensure that their athletes regain balance and postural control before they attempt to minimize swelling.

424)

When does the process of rehabilitation begin with an injury?

A) It begins when the patient is emotionally ready to begin.

B) It begins after the patient has been referred by a physician.

C) It begins immediately following the acute injury.

D) It begins once insurance has been cleared.

E) It begins once swelling is controlled.

425)

What would be an INAPPROPRIATE component when designing a rehabilitation program?

A) reestablishment of neuromuscular control B) maintenance of BMI value C) restoration or increase of muscular strength D) establishment or enhancement of core stability E) minimization of swelling

426)

When designing rehabilitation programs, what should an athletic trainer do in order for the program to be effective?

A) The athletic trainer should use pre-designed programs.

B) The athletic trainer should design the program specific to the injury.

C) The athletic trainer should create a program that will abbreviate the return to activity.

D) The athletic trainer should keep in mind the reimbursement values for various exercises and apparati.

E) The athletic trainer should remember that every program should be designed according to the individual patient.

427)

What statement is true to the negative effects of injury immobilization and sudden physical inactivity?

A) The resting heart rate decreases approximately one-half beat per minute each day of immobilization.

B) Bones become stronger as immobilization eliminates stress on them.

C) Joint immobilization causes a loss of normal compression, which leads to degeneration of the joint.

D) The stroke volume, maximum oxygen uptake, and vital capacity increase concurrently with the increase in heart rate.

E) Motor nerves become more efficient in recruiting and stimulating individual muscle fibers within a given motor unit.

428)

Loss of articular cartilage in immobilized joints can be retarded through the use of what actions?

A) isometric contraction to prevent motor neuron discharge B) braces to immobilize joint ligaments in shortened positions C) compression exercises intended to decrease lubrication within joints D) electrical muscle stimulation and continuous passive motion E) high-frequency, short duration endurance exercises

429)

One of the negative physiological effects of immobilization on the human body is the increase in __________.

A) neuron discharge B) heart rate C) oxygen uptake D) stroke volume E) joint lubrication

430)

In order to progress in rehabilitation, what first aid management must be implemented?

A) swelling control B) range of motion C) splinting and/or bracing D) pain reduction E) weight-bearing

431)

In the primary treatment of an acute injury, cryotherapy is used to: A) reduce the contractile function of muscles.

B) reduce the ability to detect movement.

C) encourage the production of synovial fluid at the injured sites.

D) extend the maturation-remodeling phase of healing.

E) reduce the likelihood of swelling.

432)

Which of the components of the rehabilitation program involves isokinetic exercises?

A) reestablishing neuromuscular control B) restoring muscular strength, endurance, and power C) establishing/enhancing core stability D) incorporating functional progression E) restoring range of motion

433)

Which of the components of the rehabilitation program involves the complex integration of muscular forces, neurological sensory information received from the mechanoreceptors, and biomechanical information?

A) maintaining cardiorespiratory fitness B) restoring range of motion C) reestablishing neuromuscular control D) regaining postural stability and balance E) establishing/enhancing core stability

434)

If persistent pain made strengthening and flexibility exercises difficult for the patient, what could the athletic trainer introduce to help control pain?

A) range of motion B) NSAIDs C) therapeutic modalities D) counseling E) cortisone injection

435)

What statement is true of Golgi tendon organs?

A) They are activated by light touch.

B) They are sensitive to changes in the length of muscles.

C) They are classified as joint mechanoreceptors.

D) They are sensitive to extreme thermal or chemical energy.

E) They are sensitive to changes in muscle tension.

436)

What statement is true in the context of improving the range of motion following an injury?

A) Mobilization techniques should be used whenever there are tight articular structures.

B) Rehabilitation programs should always focus more on passive physiological movements than accessory motions.

C) Accessory movements are voluntary, and physiological movements normally accompany them.

D) Accessory component motions need to be restricted for normal physiological cardinal plane movements to occur.

E) Restricted physiological movement is corrected through joint mobilization.

437)

What statement is true regarding progressive resistance exercises?

A) They are primarily used to restrict accessory motion.

B) They require special equipment known as isokinetic machines.

C) They use isotonic contractions, in which force is generated while the muscle is changing in length.

D) They are most useful when the use of free weights will make injuries worse.

E) They are the least commonly used strengthening technique in a reconditioning program.

438)

Which major component of a rehabilitation program is shown in the video?

A) reestablishing neuromuscular control B) establishing/enhancing core stability C) restoring muscular strength, endurance, and power D) restoring range of motion E) regaining postural stability and balance F) maintaining cardiorespiratory fitness G) incorporating functional progression

439)

Which major component of a rehabilitation program is shown in the video?

A) reestablishing neuromuscular control B) establishing/enhancing core stability C) restoring muscular strength, endurance, and power D) restoring range of motion E) regaining postural stability and balance F) maintaining cardiorespiratory fitness G) incorporating functional progression

440)

Which major component of a rehabilitation program is shown in the video?

A) reestablishing neuromuscular control B) establishing/enhancing core stability C) restoring muscular strength, endurance, and power D) restoring range of motion E) regaining postural stability and balance F) maintaining cardiorespiratory fitness G) incorporating functional progression

441)

Which major component of a rehabilitation program is shown in the video?

A) reestablishing neuromuscular control B) establishing/enhancing core stability C) restoring muscular strength, endurance, and power D) restoring range of motion E) regaining postural stability and balance F) maintaining cardiorespiratory fitness G) incorporating functional progression

442)

Which major component of a rehabilitation program is shown in the video?

A) reestablishing neuromuscular control B) establishing/enhancing core stability C) restoring muscular strength, endurance, and power D) restoring range of motion E) regaining postural stability and balance F) maintaining cardiorespiratory fitness G) incorporating functional progression

443)

Which major component of a rehabilitation program is shown in the video?

A) reestablishing neuromuscular control B) establishing/enhancing core stability C) restoring range of motion D) regaining postural stability and balance E) maintaining cardiorespiratory fitness F) restoring muscular strength, endurance, and power G) incorporating functional progression

444)

Which major component of a rehabilitation program is shown in the video?

A) reestablishing neuromuscular control B) establishing/enhancing core stability C) restoring muscular strength, endurance, and power D) restoring range of motion E) regaining postural stability and balance F) maintaining cardiorespiratory fitness G) incorporating functional progression

445)

When reestablishing neuromuscular control, four elements are critical. What action demonstrated in the videos would be unable to address the four elements of neuromuscular control?

A) B) C) D) E)

446)

What component of the rehabilitation program involves a series of activities that increase in demand and skill?

A) incorporating functional progression B) reestablishing neuromuscular control C) restoring muscular strength, endurance, power D) establishing/Enhancing core stability E) regaining postural stability and balance

447)

What is the tissue healing phase based on the demonstrated exercise in the video?

A) inflammatory phase B) fibroblastic phase C) remodeling phase

448)

What is the tissue healing phase based on the demonstrated exercise in the video?

A) inflammatory phase B) fibroblastic phase C) remodeling phase

449)

Which major component of a rehabilitation program is shown in the photo?

A) reestablishing neuromuscular control B) establishing/enhancing core stability C) restoring muscular strength, endurance, and power D) restoring range of motion E) regaining postural stability and balance F) maintaining cardiorespiratory fitness G) incorporating functional progression

450)

Which major component of a rehabilitation program is shown in the photo?

A) reestablishing neuromuscular control B) establishing/enhancing core stability C) restoring muscular strength, endurance, and power D) restoring range of motion E) regaining postural stability and balance F) maintaining cardiorespiratory fitness G) incorporating functional progression

451)

Identify the exercise in the following video as open kinetic chain or closed kinetic chain.

A) open kinetic chain B) closed kinetic chain

452)

Identify the exercise in the following video as open kinetic chain or closed kinetic chain.

A) Open kinetic chain B) Closed kinetic chain

453)

Identify the exercise in the following video as open kinetic chain or closed kinetic chain.

A) open kinetic chain B) closed kinetic chain

454)

Identify the exercise in the following video as open kinetic chain or closed kinetic chain.

A) open kinetic chain B) closed kinetic chain

455)

Identify the exercise in the following video as open kinetic chain or closed kinetic chain.

A) open kinetic chain B) closed kinetic chain

456)

A track athlete has been diagnosed with a tibial stress fracture. It has been decided to implement aquatic therapy. What activity would be INAPPROPRIATE to perform?

A) B) C) D) E)

457)

What statement CORRECTLY states the basic principles for using PNF techniques?

A) Visual cues should be implemented when performing PNF techniques.

B) Rotational movement is a component of PNF patterns.

C) Giving a quick stretch causes a reflex relaxation of that muscle.

D) When learning the patterns, the patient should avoid looking at the moving limb for biofeedback.

E) Pressing the joint together causes decreased stability.

458)

The technique demonstrated in this video should be utilized for what condition? problems?

A) B) C) D) E)

459)

supraspinatus muscle strain anterior deltoid strain rotator cuff strain a labrum tear rhomboid muscle strain

This video demonstrates a technique that would be utilized for what patient situations?

A) B) C) D) E)

a patient that is progressively trying to regain strength through a range of motion a patient that is focusing on coordination of the agonist and antagonist muscles a patient that is trying to develop strength at a specific point in the range of movement a patient that has maximum strength and is working on coordination a patient that is trying to be functionally tested for return to play

460)

How is the hold-relax stretching technique demonstrated in this video different from the contract-relax technique?

A) B) C) D) E)

The hold-relax uses an isokinetic contraction.

The hold-relax uses an isometric contraction.

The contract-relax uses an isometric contraction.

The contract-relax uses an isotonic contraction.

The contract-relax uses an isokinetic contraction.

461)

What techniques does the PNF rhythmic stabilization exercise demonstrated in the video use?

A) B) C) D) E)

isometric contraction of the agonist and isotonic contraction of the antagonist isotonic contraction of the agonist and isotonic contraction of the antagonist isometric contraction of the agonist and isometric contraction of the antagonist isokinetic contraction of the agonist and isometric contraction of the antagonist isometric contraction of the agonist and isokinetic contraction of the antagonist

462)

What PNF patterns is being demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

upper extremity D1 pattern moving into flexion upper extremity D1 pattern moving into extension upper extremity D2 pattern moving into flexion upper extremity D2 pattern moving into extension upper extremity D1 & D2 pattern moving into flexion

463)

In the following videos, the ankle is isolated to demonstrate PNF patterns. What videos, demonstrate D1 moving into flexion?

A) B) C) D) E)

464)

What approach can the athletic trainer provide to ensure the patient’s adherence to the rehabilitation program?

A) allow the patient to take time off at his/her discretion B) be creative and allow patient to assist in designing rehabilitation program C) ask that family and friends not join the patient while doing rehabilitation D) encourage the patient that pain will be experienced E) express from the start that sticking to the full program is very difficult

465)

What statement from a patient’s progress note would disqualify a patient to be released back to activity?

A) Patient reports pain scale of 0 out of 10 when performing all rehabilitation exercises.

B) Patient’s knee range of motion is bilaterally equal.

C) Patient reports of hesitance when not wearing prophylactic brace.

D) Patient reports that the athletic team is going full contact the week of release.

E) Patient’s girth measurement to the unaffected limb is ≤.25cm in comparison.

466)

What scenario would be a contraindication for an athletic trainer to perform a joint mobilization technique?

A) a golfer who has wrist pain after playing 18 holes B) a swimmer who’s trapezius is in spasm C) a javelin thrower who has multidirectional instability D) a volleyball player who has had a capsular shrinkage E) a football player who has had ligamentous reconstruction

467)

Who categorized mobilization techniques into five grades?

A) Prentice B) Maitland C) Arnheim D) Thomas E) Mulligan

468)

What grade of motion takes a patient’s joint past the point of limitation?

A) Grade 1 B) Grade 2 C) Grade 3 D) Grade 4 E) Grade 5

469)

The technique demonstrated in the video can be classified as what technique?

A) B) C) D) E)

joint mobilization mulligan mobilizations with movement mulligan sustained natural apophyseal glides myofascial release positional release

470)

What is another term for myofascial release?

A) tight fascia B) joint mobilization C) soft tissue mobilization D) manipulation E) positional release

471)

Which of the following videos demonstrates a myofascial release of the subscapularis? (all videos no audio) A) B) C) D) Insert video of subscapularis release from soft tissue mobilization folder E)

472)

Which of the following videos demonstrates a myofascial release of the pectoralis major? (all videos no audio) A) B) C) D) Insert video of subscapularis release from soft tissue mobilization folder E)

473)

In order to perform the strain/counterstrain technique, what should be performed?

A) Actively place the muscles in a position of greatest comfort.

B) Actively place the joint in neutral.

C) Actively place the muscles in a position of discomfort.

D) Passively place the muscles in a position of greatest comfort.

E) Passively place the muscles in a position of discomfort.

474)

What muscle is the athletic trainer addressing while performing a positional release?

A) B) C) D) E)

475)

What muscle is the athletic trainer addressing while performing a positional release?

A) B) C) D) E)

476)

tensor fascia late hamstrings trapezius quadriceps hip adductors

What muscle is the athletic trainer addressing while performing a positional release?

A) B) C) D) E)

477)

tensor fascia late hamstrings trapezius quadriceps hip adductors

upper trapezius scalenes trapezius levator scapula rhomboids

What soft tissue mobilization technique uses hand-held stainless steel instruments designed to scan and treat injured tissue using specific strokes?

A) Strain/Counterstrain B) Graston Technique® C) Active Release Technique D) Dry Needling E) Biofeedback

478)

What treatment technique is designed to identify and correct asymmetrical postural patterns?

A) Structural integration B) Rolfing C) Muscle Energy Technique D) Postural restoration E) Active Release Therapy

479)

What is the purpose of using biofeedback?

A) to allow the athletic trainer to measure muscle strength B) to focus on the patient’s ability to increase involuntary muscle strength C) to provide to the physician measurable outcomes for return to activity D) to measure muscle lengths E) to help a patient develop greater voluntary muscular control

Answer Key Test name: chapter 16 423)

B Athletic trainers most often assume the primary responsibility for design, implementation, and supervision of rehabilitation programs. Athletic trainers have many tools at their disposal that can facilitate the rehabilitative process.

424)

C Initial first aid and management techniques can have a substantial impact on the course and ultimate outcome of the rehabilitative process.

425)

B Where maintaining body mass index may be important to some physically active patients, it is not a key component when designing a rehabilitation program.

426)

E A cook-book approach is strongly discouraged; whereas, the athletic trainer must develop a broad theoretical knowledge base from which he or she can select and apply specific rehabilitation techniques to each athlete.

427)

C The immobilization of joints causes a loss of normal compression, which in turn leads to a decrease in lubrication within the joint, causing degeneration. This degeneration occurs because the articular cartilage is deprived of its normal nutrition.

428)

D Loss of articular cartilage in immobilized joints can be retarded through the use of electrical muscle stimulation and continuous passive motion. The immobilization of joints causes a loss of normal compression, which in turn leads to a decrease in lubrication within the joint, causing degeneration.

429)

B Like other structures, the cardiorespiratory system is adversely affected by immobilization. The resting heart rate increases approximately one-half beat per minute each day of immobilization.

The stroke volume, maximum oxygen uptake, and vital capacity decrease concurrently with the increase in heart rate.

430)

A

The injured area cannot return to normal until all the swelling is gone. If the swelling can be controlled initially in the acute stage of injury, the time required for rehabilitation is likely to be significantly reduced.

431)

E In the primary treatment of an acute injury, cryotherapy is used during the early portion of the acute inflammatory and fibroblastic phases to reduce the likelihood of swelling.

432)

B If isokinetic exercise is used, it is most often incorporated during the later phases where the patient is able to work through a full, pain-free range of motion. This type of exercise uses a fixed speed with accommodating resistance to provide maximal resistance throughout the range of motion.

433)

D Achieving postural stability involves positioning the body’s center of gravity within the base of support. The ability to balance and maintain postural stability is essential to a patient who is acquiring or reacquiring complex motor skills.

434)

C Making use of appropriate therapeutic modalities, including various techniques of cryotherapy, thermotherapy, and electrical stimulation currents will help modulate pain throughout the rehabilitation process.

435)

E Golgi tendon organs, found at the musculotendinous juncture, are sensitive to changes in muscle tension; whereas, a muscle spindles that are located in the muscle are sensitive to changes in the length of that muscle. Free nerve endings are sensitive to extreme mechanical, thermal, or chemical energy.

436)

A Mobilization techniques should be used whenever there are tight articular structures. Stretching exercises should be used whenever there is musculotendinous resistance to stretch.

437)

C Progressive resistance exercises are the most commonly used strengthening technique in a reconditioning program.

438) 439) 440)

B C A

441) 442) 443) 444) 445)

C D G E C The four elements that are critical are dynamic stability; conscious and unconscious functional motor patterns; proprioceptive and kinesthetic awareness; and preparatory and reactive muscle characteristics.

446)

A With the focus being on a safe return to activity, necessary skills for successful participation in a given activity are broken down into component parts, and the patient gradually reacquires those skills within the limitations of his or her individual progress.

447) 448) 449) 450) 451) 452) 453) 454) 455) 456)

B A E C A A B B A E The two leg frontal plane hops would be partial weight bearing and thus inappropriate for an individual suffering from a stress fracture.

457)

B Rotational movement is a critical component in all the PNF patterns.

458)

C Internal and external rotation would work on improving the rotator cuff muscles.

459)

A Rhythmic initiation helps patients with limited movement progressively regain strength through the range of motion.

460)

B The hold-relax technique is similar to the contract-relax except that an isometric contraction is used.

461)

C Rhythmic stabilization uses an isometric contraction of the agonists, followed by an isometric contraction of the antagonists.

462)

A The video demonstrates upper extremity D1 pattern moving into flexion.

463)

A The video accurately demonstrates the D1 PNF ankle pattern moving into flexion.

464)

B Creativity in designing and varying the exercise routine will help keep the patient interested and motivated.

465)

D The sport-specific demand at the time of the patient’s release will involve full-contact, thus putting the patient at a greater risk of reinjury because of the demand of the activity.

466)

C Anyone who is suffering from joint instability should not have mobilizations performed on them.

467)

B In Maitland’s system, grades I1 and II are used primarily to reat pin, and grades III and IV are used to treat stiffness.

468)

E Grade 5 mobilizations are a manipulation where force is performed past the joint’s point of limitation.

469)

B The technique demonstrated is mobilization with manipulation for plantarflexion loss.

470)

C Myofascial release has also been referred to as soft-tissue mobilizations.

471)

D The video accurately demonstrated a subscapularis myofascial release.

472)

C The video accurately demonstrated a pectoralis major myofascial release.

473)

D Strain/counterstrain is a passive technique that places the body in a position of greatest comfort, thereby relieving the pain.

474)

D The video demonstrates a positional release of the quadriceps.

475)

E The video demonstrates a positional release of the hip adductors.

476)

D The video demonstrates a positional release of the levator scapula.

477)

B Graston Technique® is an advanced method of instrument-assisted soft tissue mobilization that uses six different sized instruments with specific strokes along with a comprehensive treatment approach.

478)

D Postural restoration treatment focuses on asymmetrical patterns and multiple joint muscles in combination with diaphragmatic breathing.

479)

E Biofeedback is an instrument that accurately measures, processes, and feeds back reinforcing information to the patient via auditory or visual signals. Thus, providing immediate feedback to the patient on how effectively the muscle can contract or relax.

Student name:__________ 480)

What is the method by which drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated or excreted by the body?

A) pharmacology B) drug C) pharmacokinetics D) bioavailability E) potency

481)

If a patient is suffering from asthma, what is the ideal method to administer a daily medication?

A) inhalation B) intranasal C) intradermal D) intraspinal E) sublingual

482)

What is the most common method of administering medicine?

A) intraspinally B) rectally C) intravenously D) orally E) sublingually

483)

What method of drug administration is given via an injection and is rapidly spread throughout the body?

A) intravaginal B) rectal C) intradermal D) sublingual E) intravenous

484)

Alcohol is an example of what external administration method for medications?

A) inunctions B) solutions C) ointments D) pastes E) plasters

485)

How often a pain reliever is taken is dependent upon what?

A) metabolism B) potency C) bioavailability D) steady-state E) half-life

486)

What statements are correct in regard to agencies and regulations that govern the provision of pharmaceutical care?

A) The Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act of 1938 regulates the quality, strength, and labeling of prescription and non-prescription drugs.

B) The Federal Anti-Tampering Act of 1983 mandates tamper-resistant packaging on all prescription drugs.

C) The Federal Controlled Substances Act of 1970 separates prescription from nonprescription drugs.

D) The Durham-Humphrey Amendment of 1951 mandates repackaging of medications.

E) The Anti-Drug Abuse Act of 1988 regulates anabolic steroids as controlled substances.

F) Health Insurance Portability-Accountability Act of 1996 provides national standards to protect the privacy of personal health information.

487)

What statement goes against the general guidelines for administering medications?

A) Make sure the patient reads the label information prior to taking the medication.

B) Make sure the patient knows the dosage schedule for the medications he or she is taking.

C) The containers do not need to be childproof if the patient is over 18 years of age.

D) Provide both verbal and written instructions for the use of medications.

E) Advise patients not to share medications with other people.

488)

What items should an athletic trainer record on a medication administration log?

A) patient date of birth B) patient name C) lot number D) date of administration E) date illness began F) complaint of symptoms G) active ingredients in medication

489)

An athlete claims ibuprofen is needed prior to each practice in order to complete the whole practice. The athlete had been taking ibuprofen for a lateral ankle sprain that occurred a month earlier; however, the physician has instructed the athlete to cease taking medications due to lack of swelling and pain. What term would best describe the athlete’s general response produced by the ibuprofen?

A) tolerance B) habituation C) stimulation D) idiosyncrasy E) side effect

490)

If a person has a headache and takes acetaminophen and the headache dissipates, what term would best describe the body’s response produced by taking the drug?

A) paradoxical reaction B) side effect C) specific effect D) heartburn E) cumulative effect

491)

What is classified solely as a disinfectant?

A) alcohol B) phenol C) hydrogen peroxide D) chlorine E) betadine

492)

What antibiotic is most often used for streptococcal infection and mycoplasma pneumoniae?

A) bacitracin B) tetracycline C) erythromycin D) sulfonamides E) quinolones

493)

Why would a patient take an antipruritic drug?

A) to decrease body temperature B) to relieve a muscle spasm C) to relieve itching D) to control appetite E) to relieve congestion

494)

What would be classified as a narcotic analgesic drug?

A) aspirin B) codeine C) antimedics D) histamine-2 blockers E) antihistamines

495)

What value would be considered the maximum daily dose for ibuprofen?

A) 4000 mg B) 3200 mg C) 2000 mg D) 1000 mg E) 500 mg

496)

What statement is a contraindication regarding prolonged use of cortisone?

A) It can cause bone thinning.

B) It can cause menstrual irregularities.

C) It can cause glaucoma.

D) It can hasten wound healing.

E) It can cause headaches.

497)

If a patient is suffering from flatulence, what should be taken?

A) cathartics B) histamine 2 blockers C) carminatives D) antimetics E) antacids

498)

What type of drugs can decrease an athlete’s ability to sweat, therefore predisposing them to a heat illness?

A) antihistamines B) cough medicine C) anti-inflammatory D) antibiotics E) anticoagulants

499)

What is the medicinal use of the apparatus illustrated in the picture?

A) B) C) D) E)

It is a metered-dose inhaler used to treat asthma.

It is a proton pump inhibitor used to treat GERD. It is a glucose blood meter used in the maintenance of diabetes.

It is an epinephrine pen used to treat anaphylaxis.

It is a syringe injector used to administer vitamin B12.

500)

If a SOAP note history reported that a patient was currently taking Coumadin, what is its significance?

A) There is no significance, nor contraindications for this type of medication.

B) This medication is an anticoagulant that slows clotting time of blood.

C) This is an antihistamine and may cause drowsiness.

D) This is an ergogenic aid and should be reported as an NCAA infraction.

E) This is an over-the-counter acetylsalicylic acid that should not be combined with acetaminophen.

501)

Why would diuretics increase the rate of heat illness?

A) They decrease the peripheral mechanism of sweating.

B) They are vasoconstrictors.

C) They prevent volume expansion and limit cutaneous vasodilation.

D) They affect hypothalamic heat control and have anticholinergic activity.

E) They both affect cold and hold temperature regulation.

502)

Please check all of the indicators that would help in identifying an individual who is abusing a substance.

A) sudden weight gain B) increased socialization C) improved productivity D) financial issues E) sudden personality change F) lying, cheating, stealing G) change in peer groups H) improvement in family relationships

503)

Please check all of the drugs that are considered opioids.

A) heroin B) oxyContin C) fentanyl D) narcan E) CBD

504)

Within the two major categories of stimulants, which is legal to obtain, or with a prescription, and commonly used for asthmatics?

A) ephedrine B) B2 agonists C) cocaine D) methamphetamines E) codeine

505)

What ergogenic aid increases blood volume and the number of blood cells?

A) human growth hormones B) androstenedione C) diuretics D) blood doping E) beta blockers

506)

Please check all that apply as they relate to the long-term effects of cocaine use: A) bronchitis B) increase in appetite C) convulsions D) impotence E) paranoia F) bi-polar disorder

507)

What recreational drug should be EXCLUDED as one of the most abused?

A) nicotine B) alcohol C) amphetamines D) cocaine E) marijuana

508)

What organization was given full authority to develop programs, policies, and procedures for Olympic, Pan American, and Paralympic sports in the United States?

A) The National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) B) The National Federation of State High School Associations (NFHS) C) The U.S. Anti-Doping Agency (USADA) D) The U.S. Olympic Committee (USOC) E) The Food and Drug Administration (FDA)

509)

If a suspected drug overdose has occurred, which would be an essential professional contact be immediately notified?

A) athletic support staff B) team psychologist / School counselor C) campus police D) team physician E) poison control center

510)

In the process of drug-testing for the NCAA or USOC, what is the purpose of taking two specimens (A and B), or urine samples?

A) The second specimen is what is sent to the laboratory to be tested for traces of drugs.

B) The second specimen is held in case the specimen A tests positive.

C) The second specimen is used to do a urinalysis for quality and ownership of the urine samples provided.

D) The second specimen is used in case the first sample’s quality is compromised.

E) The second specimen is collected so randomization may occur between the samples when being tested.

511)

What drug can increase the rate of heat illness?

A) tetracyclines B) macrolides C) carminatives D) corticosteroids E) diuretics

512)

What statement is true about disinfectants?

A) They are substances that kill or inhibit the growth of microorganisms.

B) They are substances made from the alkaloid of opium.

C) They are stored throughout the body and in the brain tissues for weeks and even months.

D) They tend to make arterial walls more permeable to fatty substances.

E) They suppress the formation of prothrombin in the liver.

513)

What does the medication Coumadin do?

A) It is used to treat exercise-induced bronchospasm.

B) It is used to slow clotting time in certain vascular disorders.

C) It is used to increase the production of fluid in the respiratory system.

D) It is used to control diarrhea.

E) It is used to treat anaphylaxis resulting from insect stings.

514)

What statement is true about dry powder inhalers?

A) They require hand-lung coordination.

B) They can be used with a spacer that keeps medication from escaping into the air.

C) They convert the medication into a fine powder because of the pressure within the canister.

D) They require an individual to place the lips on their mouthpiece and inhale rapidly.

E) They convert medication into a mist.

515)

What type of inhaler is being demonstrated in the figure?

A) B) C) D) E)

metered-dose inhaler nebulizer spacer dry powder inhaler mist inhaler

516)

What substance is approved by the U.S. Olympic Committee (USOC) to be used by asthmatics who develop exercise-induced bronchospasms?

A) nonselective nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs B) selective B2 agonists C) histamine-2 blockers D) topical nasal decongestants E) proton pump inhibitors

517)

What ergogenic aid is produced by the somatotropic cells of the anterior region of the pituitary gland, from which it is released into the circulatory system?

A) human growth hormone B) androstenedione C) amphetamines D) human chorionic gonadotropin E) tetrahydrogestrinone

518)

What ergogenic aid is used in humans to produce transient increases in testosterone in males and particularly in females primarily for the purpose of enhancing athletic performance?

A) human growth hormone (HGH) B) androstenedione C) caffeine D) tetrahydrogestrinone (THG) E) amphetamine

519)

What statement is true about smokeless tobacco?

A) It can cause oral and throat cancer.

B) It is a less addictive habit than smoking.

C) It increases total response time among athletes and nonathletes.

D) Historically, its use can be attributed primarily to asthmatic athletes.

E) Its user is exposed to the tar and carbon monoxide associated with a burning cigarette.

520)

What is the name of the act that provides legal protection to the team physician and athletic trainers who provide healthcare for athletes when traveling to other states?

A) The Healthcare Portability Act B) Safe Travel Act C) Sports Medicine Clarity Act D) Healthcare for All Act E) Medical Travel Act

521)

Who can never dispense or administer any type of medication to a patient?

A) athletic trainer B) unlicensed student C) physical therapist D) school nurse E) parent

522)

523)

Why should a written formulary be executed before traveling out of state?

A) It creates a modified prescription for on-the-go administration.

B) It allows the athletic trainer to travel across state lines with prescriptive medications.

C) It is list of all medications and their use signed by a team physician.

D) It permits the athletic trainer to dispense any form of medication as needed.

E) It allows both the athletic trainer and physician to share medications within the athletic team.

Coffee, a one cup measurement, contains 100 mg of caffeine. A 5 Hour Energy (2oz) contains how many times of that amount?

A) It is equal, 100 mg.

B) It is 50% less, 50 mg.

C) It is two times, 200 mg.

D) It is one-and-a-half times, 250 mg.

E) It is three times, 300 mg.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 17 480)

C Pharmacokinetics is the method by which drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated or excreted by the body.

481)

A Inhalation is a means of bringing medication or substances to the respiratory tract. This method is most often used in sports to relieve the athlete of the symptoms of respiratory illnesses such as asthma.

482)

D Oral administration of medicine is the most common method of drug administration.

483)

E Intravenous is an injection given into the vein when an immediate reaction to the medication is desired.

484)

B Solutions can be administered externally and examples include antiseptics, disinfectants, vasoconstrictors, and liquid rubefacients (alcohol, turpentine).

485)

E The half-life is critical in determining how often and in what dosage a drug must be administered to achieve and maintain therapeutic levels of concentration.

486) 487)

[A, E, F] C All containers need to be childproof no matter what the age of the patient.

488) 489)

[B, C, D, F] B Habituation is an individual’s development of a psychological need for a specific medication.

490)

C Specific effect is an action usually produced by a drug in a select tissue or organ system.

491)

A

Alcohol is one of the most widely used skin disinfectants.

492)

C Macrolides, such as erythromycin and azithromycin, are most often used for streptococcal infection and mycoplasma pneumoniae.

493)

C Antipruritics relieve itching.

494)

B Codeine resembles morphine in its action but is less potent. It is classified as a narcotic analgesic.

495)

B 3200 mg is the maximum daily dose of ibuprofen that an individual should ingest.

496)

D Prolonged use of corticosteroids can produce dermatological problems. An example is delayed wound healing.

497)

C Carminatives are drugs that give relief from flatulence.

498)

A Antihistamines can decrease the peripheral mechanisms of sweating that impair the body’s ability to dissipate heat and thus predispose the athlete to heat-related illness.

499)

D An EpiPen can be used to treat severe allergic reactions.

500)

B The most common anticoagulants used by physicians are heparin and coumarin.

501)

C Diurectics, such as furosemide and bumetanide, can prevent volume expansion and limit cutaneous vasodilation.

502) 503) 504)

[D, E, F, G] [A, B, C] B

B2 agonists are prescription-level drugs used to treat and/or manage asthma.

505)

D Blood reinjection, aka blood doping, blood packing, blood boosting, is the removal of 900 milliliters of blood, storing it, and reinfusing it after six weeks.

506) 507)

[A, C, D, E] C Although amphetamines are an abused drug that overlaps with those thought to enhance performance, it does not fit within the list of recreational drugs.

508)

C The United States Anti-Doping Agency (USADA) was given full authority to execute a comprehensive national anti-doping program encompassing testing, adjudication, education, and research and to develop programs, policies, and procedures for Olympic, Pan American, and Paralympic sports in the United States.

509)

E Each state has at least one. The experts at the poison control center will provide instructions for immediate care of the individual until the rescue squad arrives.

510)

B The second specimen (B) is used only when a reconfirmation is needed for a positive test of specimen A. 511)

E Diuretics can increase the rate of heat illness. They can prevent volume expansion and limit cutaneous vasodilation.

512)

A Disinfectants are substances that combat microorganisms but should be applied only to nonliving objects.

513)

B Coumadin is used to slow clotting time in certain vascular disorders. It acts by suppressing the formation of prothrombin in the liver.

514)

D

Dry powder inhalers are not pressurized but rather release medication when the patient rapidly inhales. This type of inhaler requires the individual to place the lips on the mouthpiece and inhale more rapidly than with a traditional metered-dose inhaler and tend to be easier to use than a metered-dose inhaler.

515)

A A metered-dose inhaler is commonly used by patients who have asthma. A metered-dose inhaler includes a pressurized canister with measured doses of medication inside.

516)

B The U.S. Olympic Committee (USOC) has approved some substances to be used by asthmatics who develop exercise-induced bronchospasms. These substances are selective B2 agonists, consisting of albuterol (Proventil), salmeterol (Serevent), and formoterol (Foradil).

517)

A Human growth hormone (HGH) is produced by the somatotropic cells of the anterior region of the pituitary gland, from which it is released into the circulatory system. The amount released varies with age and the developmental periods of a person’s life.

518)

B Androstenedione is a relatively weak androgen that is produced primarily in the testes and in lower amounts by the adrenal cortex and ovaries and is classified as a dietary supplement. It has been used in humans to produce transient increases in testosterone in males and particularly in females primarily for the purpose of enhancing athletic performance.

519)

A Smokeless tobacco causes bad breath, stained teeth, tooth sensitivity to heat and cold, cavities, gum recession, tooth bone loss, leukoplakia, and oral and throat cancer.

520)

C The Sports Medicine Clarity Act was passed to provide legal protection to the team physician and athletic trainers who provide healthcare for their athletes when traveling to other states.

521)

B Unlicensed students may never dispense or administer any type of medication to a patient.

522)

C Prior to travel, the athletic trainer should prepare a written formulary, which is a list that is signed by the team physician that has all the medication names, indications for use, and dose instructions along with the contact information for the team physician.

523)

C 5 Hour Energy (2oz) contains 200 mg of caffeine. The consumption of a one cup measurement of 5 Hour Energy would equal 800 mg.

Student name:__________ 524)

What action is permitted by the metatarsophalangeal joints?

A) 360 degree rotation of the phalanges B) hinge action of the phalanges C) eversion of the calcaneus D) inversion of the calcaneus E) pronation of the subtalar joint

525)

What structure in the foot functions to assist in reducing pressure in weight bearing?

A) talus B) calcaneus C) sesamoid D) navicular E) tubercle

526)

What structure in the foot is the main weight-bearing support during walking and running?

A) calcaneus B) medial longitudinal arch C) tarsal bones D) ligaments of the foot E) first metatarsal joint

527)

Why is full dorsiflexion the most stable position of the talocrural joint?

A) because the talus is broader anteriorly than posteriorly B) because the subtalar joint limits dorsiflexion C) because the talus is narrower anteriorly than posteriorly D) because the calcaneus is wider posteriorly E) because the calcaneus is narrower posteriorly

528)

What is its average range of motion for dorsiflexion at the talocrural joint?

A) 10 degrees B) 20 degrees C) 30 degrees D) 40 degrees E) 50 degrees

529)

What structure supports the foot against downward forces?

A) cuboid bone B) navicular tubercle C) plantar fascia D) achilles tendon E) distal phalanx

530)

What ligament connects the shafts of the metatarsals?

A) interphalangeal ligaments B) metatarsophalangeal ligaments C) plantar ligaments D) interosseous ligaments E) dorsal ligaments

531)

What joint consists of the calcaneocuboid and the talonavicular joints?

A) subtalar joint B) midtarsal joint C) tarsometatarsal joint D) intermetatarsal joint E) metatarsophalangeal joint

532)

Which articulation of the foot is known as Lisfranc’s joint?

A) interphalangeal joints B) metatarsophalangeal joints C) intermetatarsal joints D) tarsometatarsal joints E) midtarsal joints

533)

What movement occurs at the subtalar joint?

A) inversion and eversion B) dorsiflexion, plantarflexion, inversion, and eversion C) pronation and supination D) pronation, supination, dorsiflexion, and plantarflexion E) inversion, eversion, pronation, and supination

534)

What motion would be unlikely to occur at the subtalar joint?

A) inversion B) pronation C) dorsiflexion D) eversion E) supination

535)

What statement is TRUE regarding gait?

A) There is no non-weight-bearing period or phase with a walking gait.

B) At midstance and terminal stance, the body is supported by both limbs at initial contact of a walking gait.

C) In running, the stance phase accounts for one-quarter of the gait cycle.

D) In running, there is a time when neither foot is in contact with the ground and no time when both feet contact the ground simultaneously.

E) In the running gait, initial contact of the foot usually occurs on the medial aspect of the calcaneus.

536)

What is a compensating action at the subtalar joint when structural or functional deformities exist in the foot or leg?

A) Excessive pronation during the stance phase will cause the midtarsal joint to remain unlocked, resulting in an excessively loose foot.

B) At heel strike in prolonged or excessive supination, the midtarsal joint will lock, causing the foot to remain excessively loose.

C) Excessive supination limits tibial external rotation.

D) Prolonged pronation will not allow the foot to resupinate in time to provide a rigid lever for heel strike.

E) In the pronated position, the peroneus longus tendon loses its ability to stabilize the first ray, making it hypomobile.

537)

The body is supported by a single limb in which period of the stance phase of a normal gait cycle?

A) initial contact B) loading response C) terminal stance D) initial stance E) terminal swing

538)

What would be considered an ideal shoe for the pronated foot?

A) less flexible with good rearfoot control B) more flexible with a medial wedge C) less flexible with a lateral wedge D) more flexible with good rearfoot control E) less flexible with a wider toebox

539)

In the history section of a foot assessment, what would be considered an INAPPROPRIATE question to ask the patient?

A) Is this the first time this condition has occurred?

B) Was the mechanism of injury a sudden strain, twist, or blow to the foot?

C) Is there muscle weakness?

D) Do you have a dorsalis pedal pulse?<br type="_moz"> E) Can you point to an exact site of pain?

540)

In the observation section of a foot assessment, what would be considered an inappropriate action to perform?

A) assessing foot alignment B) assessing if the foot changes color when weight bearing and non-weight bearing C) assessing the patient’s pain level D) assessing an antalgic gait E) assessing for deformity, swelling, or discoloration

541)

What position should the foot/ankle be in when observing for structural deformities?

A) extreme dorsiflexion B) extreme plantarflexion C) relaxed D) neutral E) subtalar neutral

542)

What would be unable to be discovered during the palpation section of a foot assessment?

A) pulse B) ligamentous integrity C) swelling D) pain E) deformities

543)

What injury to the tarsal region commonly occurs from landing after a jump or due to a fall from a height?

A) fracture of the talus B) fracture of the calcaneus C) cuboid subluxation D) tarsometatarsal dislocation E) retrocalcaneal bursitis

544)

Of the injuries that can be sustained in the tarsal region of the foot, what has an etiology of a severe inversion and dorsiflexion force, or medially from an inversion and plantar flexion force with external rotation of the tibia on the talus?

A) fractured talus B) fractured calcaneus C) calcaneal stress fracture D) sever’s disease E) heel contusion

545)

If a patient is suffering from metatarsalgia, what would be a symptom?

A) pain in the ball of the foot B) pain radiating down the foot C) pain in the5thFifth metatarsal D) pain in the medial arch of the foot E) pain at the heel of the foot

546)

What is the most common location for a metatarsal stress fracture?

A) shaft of the1stfirst metatarsal B) shaft of the2ndSecond metatarsal C) shaft of the3rdThird metatarsal D) shaft of the4thFourth metatarsal E) shaft of the5thFifth metatarsal

547)

What is the cause of a turf toe injury?

A) hyperflexion of the great toe B) hyperextension of the great toe C) fracture of the great toe D) dislocation of the great toe E) subluxation of the great toe

548)

What injury causes pain at the posterior heel below the attachment of the Achilles tendon insertion?

A) Sever's disease B) Cuboid subluxation C) Lisfranc injury D) Retrocalcaneal bursitis E) Jones fracture

549)

What is often a complication of retrocalcaneal bursitis?

A) neuroma B) metatarsalgia C) apophysitis D) exostoses E) apophysis

550)

What is a sign or symptom of pes planus?

A) forefoot valgus B) heavy callus development on the ball of the foot C) heavy callus development of the heel of the foot D) hammer toes E) bulging of the navicular bone

551)

A patient is suffering from plantar fasciitis. What modality would best assist a patient who is in the repair or remodeling tissue healing phase?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

552)

Please identify the area of the foot where a Jones fracture would most likely occur.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

553)

What condition is illustrated in this figure?

A) B) C) D) E)

sesamoiditis pes cavus pes planus metatarsalgia hallux valgus deformity

554)

This type of pad (see below) can be used to treat all of the following problems except for which condition?

A) B) C) D) E)

heel contusion retrocalcaneal bursitis hallux valgus deformity a blister Morton’s neuroma

555)

Where does a callus typically develop on a person who is suffering from metatarsalgia?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

556)

The technique demonstrated in the video would be utilized for what problem?

A) B) C) D) E)

tarsal tunnel syndrome cuboid subluxation lisfranc injury pes planus morton’s toe

557)

What test would identify if a person is suffering from tarsal tunnel syndrome?

A) B) C) D) E)

558)

The exercise demonstrated in this video would be best suited for a person suffering from what foot condition?

A) B) C) D) E)

pes planus foot Morton’s toe longitudinal arch strain pes cavus foot Jones fracture

559)

What demonstrated massage technique would be best for a patient suffering from plantar fasciitis?

A) B) C) D) E)

560)

This special test will help identify a patient who is suffering from what condition?

A) B) C) D) E)

Morton’s neuroma sprained toe turf toe hallux rigidus hammer toe

561)

What is a painful condition caused by the proliferation of bony spurs on the dorsal aspect of the first metatarsophalangeal joint?

A) hallux rigidus B) subungual hematoma C) mallet toe D) Morton's neuroma E) Jones fracture

562)

What would cause a subungual hematoma?

A) kicking an object B) running sprints C) jumping D) skipping E) hopping

563)

What joint mobilization techniques decrease hypomobility of the metatarsals?

A) anterior and posterior calcaneocuboid glides B) anterior and posterior cuboid metatarsal glides C) anterior and posterior tarsometatarsal glides D) anterior and posterior talonavicular glides E) anterior and posterior metatarsophalangeal glides

564)

The video is demonstrating anterior/posterior talonavicular glides. Why would this joint mobilization be used?

A) B) C) D) E)

increase flexion increase extension increase abduction and adduction increase general mobility increase mobility of the5thFifth metatarsal

565)

What component of rehabilitation is demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

566)

What component of rehabilitation is demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

567)

flexibility muscular strength neuromuscular control functional general body conditioning

What component of rehabilitation is demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

568)

flexibility muscular strength neuromuscular control functional general body conditioning

flexibility muscular strength neuromuscular control functional general body conditioning

Please check all of the activities that are classified as functional activities of the foot.

A) hopping B) carioca C) towel gathering D) ankle circumduction E) BAPS board exercises F) cutting G) jogging H) stretching the soleus

569)

Select only the body parts that make up the passive subsystem of the foot core system.

A) muscles B) ligaments plus bony congruency of the joints C) sensory receptors D) plantar fascia E) joint capsules

570)

Select only the tarsal bones that articulate with at least five or more bones.

A) calcaneus B) navicular C) cuboid D) talus E) medial cuneiform

571)

What is condition UNRELATED to a contributing cause for tarsal tunnel syndrome?

A) tenosynovitis B) previous fractures C) excessive pronation D) acute trauma E) excessive supination

572)

What foot injury has a high nonunion rate?

A) Morton’s neuroma B) Jones fracture C) Morton’s toe D) Lisfranc fracture E) Cuboid subluxation syndrome

573)

What pathology would benefit from using a night splint?

A) plantar fasciitis B) sesmoiditis C) pes cavus D) tarsal tunnel syndrome

Answer Key Test name: chapter 18 524)

B The metatarsophalangeal joints permit hinge action of the phalanges. This action is similar to the action between the hand and the fingers.

525)

C Two sesamoid bones are located beneath the 1stfirst MTP joint to increase the mechanical advantage of the flexor tendons of the great toe and to act as sliding pulleys for tendons.

526)

E First metatarsal joint is the largest and strongest joint which acts with the other phalangeal joints in a hinge action.

527)

A Plantar flexion relies most heavily on the ligaments for stability because the narrower posterior portion of the talus does not provide adequate surface area and contour for bony congruency.

Dorsiflexion is the most stable position of the talocrural joint primarily due to the bony congruency between the talus and the mortise.

528)

A The average range of motion is 10 degrees for dorsiflexion and 23 degrees in for plantar flexion.

Because the talus fits principally into the space formed by the malleoli, lateral movement is restricted by the stabilizing ligaments of the ankle.

529)

C Along with ligaments, the plantar fascia supports the foot against downward forces. The plantar fascia is a thick, white band of fibrous tissue originating from the medial tuberosity of the calcaneus and ending at the proximal heads of the metatarsals.

530)

D Shafts of the metatarsals are connected by interosseous ligaments. The bases are connected by plantar and dorsal ligaments, and the heads are attached by transverse metatarsal ligaments.

531)

B The midtarsal joint, also referred to as Chopart’s joint, consists of two distinct joints: the calcaneocuboid and the talonavicular joint. The midtarsal joint depends mainly on ligamentous and muscular tension to maintain position and integrity.

532)

D Dorsal displacement of the proximal end of the metatarsals defines a Lisfranc injury.

533)

E Inversion and eversion refer to a movement of the calcaneus, and pronation and supination refer to multiplanar movements that occur during weight bearing.

534)

C The subtalar joint is the articulation between the talus and the calcaneus in which inversion, eversion, pronation, and supination are normal movements that occur.

535)

D In the running gait, there is a period after toe-off in which neither foot is in contact with the ground; in running, stance phase accounts for only one-third of the gait cycle.

536)

A Excessive pronation during the stance phase will cause this compensatory subtalar joint motion; as more motion occurs, the first metatarsal and first cuneiform will become more mobile.

537)

C At midstance and terminal stance in the stance phase of a normal gait cycle, the body is supported by a single limb. It needs the support of both the legs in the early portion of the loading response period and at initial contact.

538)

A Pronation is a problem of hypermobility. Those who do pronate need stability and firmness to reduce this excess movement.

539)

D Asking the patient if he/she has dorsalis pedal pulse would be better achieved during the “palpation” of the assessment.

540)

C Assessing the patient’s pain level, although can be an objective measurement, should be asked during the history or subjective section of the assessment.

541)

E The position at which the talus is equally prominent on both sides is considered a neutral subtalar position in which the subtalar joint is neither pronated nor supinated.

542)

B

Ligamentous integrity is part of the special tests section of a foot assessment where stress is applied to the structure.

543)

B A fracture of the calcaneus most often occurs from landing after a jump or fall from a height.

Avulsion fractures can also occur anteriorly at the attachment of the calcaneonavicular ligament to the sustentaculum tali or posteriorly at the attachment of the talocalcaneal ligament.

544)

A This particular mechanism, or etiology, can result in a fracture to the dome of the talus.

545)

A A person suffering from metatarsalgia will have pain in the ball of the foot. This is often a complication of a Lisfranc injury.

546)

B The most common metatarsal stress fracture in the foot involves the shaft of the second metatarsal and is often referred to as a march fracture.

547)

B Hyperextension of the great toe results in a sprain of the metatarsophalangeal joint.

548)

A In Sever's disease, pain occurs at the posterior heel below the attachment of the Achilles tendon insertion of a child or adolescent athlete. Pain occurs during vigorous activity and does not continue at rest.

549)

D Exostoses is a benign bony outgrowth that protrudes from the surface of a bone and is usually capped by cartilage. Because of the ongoing inflammation of the retrocalcaneal bursa, it is sometimes referred to as a pump bump.

550)

E

Bulging of the navicular bone is a sign that a person may be suffering from pes planus.

551)

E Ultrasound is used to increase blood flow in the repair and remodeling tissue healing phase.

552)

D A Jones fracture is located just proximal to the base of 5thFifth metatarsal styloid.

553)

E Hallux valgus deformity is a bunion that occurs at the head of the first metatarsal.

554)

E Morton’s neuroma is treated by a teardrop pad not a doughnut pad.

555)

B Calluses develop over the heads of the metatarsals.

556)

B Dramatic treatment results may be obtained by manipulating to restore the cuboid to its natural position.

557)

A Tinel's sign will be positive in cases of tarsal tunnel syndrome.

558)

D

Individuals who suffer from pes cavus may receive relief by stretching the Achilles tendon.

559)

E Cross friction massage can be utilized in the repair and remodeling tissue healing phase of a person suffering from plantar fasciitis.

560)

A Morton’s neuroma can be exacerbated by squeezing the metatarsal heads together.

561)

A Hallux rigidus is a painful condition caused by the proliferation of bony spurs on the dorsal aspect of the first metatarsophalangeal joint.

562)

A Kicking an object can cause a subungual hematoma located under the nail bed.

563)

C Anterior and posterior tarsometatarsal glides decrease hypomobility of the metatarsals. They are some of the many manual joint mobilization techniques that are useful in maintaining or normalizing joint motions.

564)

C Anterior/posterior talonavicular glides are used for increasing adduction and abduction.

565)

B Gathering towel exercises can be done in order to work on strengthening the foot.

566)

B Gripping and spreading the toes can be done in order to work on strengthening the foot.

567)

C Walking on balance shoes can be done in order to work on regaining neuromuscular control of the foot.

568) 569)

[A, B, F, G] [B, D] Muscles are the active subsystem and the neural subsystem is comprised of both subsystems.

570)

[B, C] The calcaneus articulates with two bones: talus and cuboid. The talus articulates with four bones: tibia, fibula, navicular, and calcaneus. The medial cuneiform articulates with only the intermediate cuneiform, first metatarsal, and the navicular.

571)

E Any condition that compromises the structures within the tunnel can cause tarsal tunnel syndrome, including tenosynovitis, previous fractures, excessive pronation, and any acute trauma.

572)

B Healing of a Jones fracture is slow and frustrating for the patient. This injury has a high nonunion rate, and the course of healing is unpredictable.

573)

A The use of a night splint to maintain a position of static stretch has also been recommended.

However, night splints tend to be cumbersome and are often not well tolerated during sleep.

Student name:__________ 574)

Why is the lower third of this bone the most common site for fractures of the leg?

A) It does not have any muscular coverage and is vulnerable to outside trauma.

B) It is the most pronounced change in structure, producing an anatomical weakness.

C) It is common insertion point for the lower leg muscles predisposing it to stress

fractures.

D) It is a common point of origin for the lower leg muscles predisposing it to stress fractures.

E) It is where the interosseous membrane is the weakest.

575)

What is the name of the joint that is formed with the inferior portions of the tibia and fibula?

A) ginglymus B) synovium C) syndesmotic D) diarthrodial E) interosseous

576)

What are the movements that occur at the talocrural joint?

A) inversion and eversion B) flexion and extension C) supination and pronation D) accessory motions E) plantar flexion and dorsiflexion

577)

Which ligament is the primary resistance to foot eversion?

A) deltoid ligament B) calcaneofibular ligament C) lateral collateral ligament D) syndesmosis E) anterior tibiofibular ligament

578)

What is the primary function of the calcaneofibular ligament?

A) restrains the anterior displacement of the talus B) restrains inversion of calcaneus C) restrains the posterior displacement of the talus D) prevents abduction and eversion of ankle and subtalar joint E) prevents eversion, pronation, and anterior displacement of the talus

579)

What structures help prevent medial or lateral displacement of the talus?

A) ligaments B) tarsals C) tendons D) malleoli E) capsules

580)

Please check all of the muscles that invert the foot.

A) peroneus tertius B) tibialis anterior C) soleus D) tibialis posterior E) flexor hallicus longus F) gastrocnemius G) extensor digitorum longus

581)

In order to prevent injury to the Achilles complex, it is recommended to stretch with both the knee extended and with it flexed 15-30 degrees. Why? A) The knee needs to be extended and bent to allow the superficial and deep aspect of the Achilles tendon to be stretched.

B) The knee needs to be extended and bent to allow the superficial and deep compartments of the lower leg to be stretched.

C) The knee needs to be extended and bent to allow both static and dynamic stretching of the involved muscle groups.

D) The knee needs to be extended and bent to allow full dorsiflexion at the ankle.

E) The knee needs to be extended and bent to allow stretching of both the gastrocnemius and the soleus.

582)

From the following, which one would be considered an INCORRECT approach in the prevention of ankle sprains?

A) stretching of the tibialis anterior muscle B) strengthening key muscles C) wearing proper footwear D) taping when appropriate E) obtaining proprioceptive training

583)

What would be considered a key element to address with patients who have chronic ankle instabilities?

A) orthotics B) prophylactic bracing C) neuromuscular control D) increasing range of motion E) introduction of therapeutic modalities

584)

In the history section of an ankle assessment, what would be considered an INAPPROPRIATE question to ask the patient?

A) Have you ever hurt your ankle before?

B) How disabling was the injury?

C) Do you think your age contributes to your chronic ankle sprains?

D) What first aid and therapy, if any, were given for this, or previous injuries?

E) Was there immediate swelling, or was it gradual, or none at all?

585)

In the observation section of an ankle assessment, what would be considered an INAPPROPRIATE action to perform?

A) assessing foot alignment B) assessing the width of the hips C) assessing if there is crepitus or abnormal sounds in the ankle joint D) assessing if patient is in obvious pain E) assessing for deformity, swelling, or discoloration

586)

If weight-bearing for the patient were tolerable, what would be an INAPPROPRIATE patient observation for structural deformities of the ankle / lower leg?

A) supine B) prone C) running D) standing E) walking

587)

What would be unable to be discovered during the palpation section of an ankle assessment?

A) retinaculum tear B) pain C) muscle soreness D) fractures E) structural deformities

588)

What special test video would be wrong for assessing the lower leg?

A) B) C) D) E)

589)

What is known as a bimalleolar fracture?

A) posey fracture B) masionneuve fracture C) ottawa fracture D) potts fracture E) avulsion fracture

590)

Please check all of the statements that appropriately apply to the Ottawa ankle rules when determining the need of a radiograph.

A) inability to bear weight (4 steps taken independently, even if limping) at time of injury and time of evaluation B) tenderness over superior or anterior pole of either malleolus C) inability to bear weight for 4 steps (2 on each foot) at the time of injury and time of evaluation D) tenderness along the base of the1stFirst metatarsal or navicular bone E) tenderness over the inferior or posterior pole of either malleolus, including the distal 6 cm

591)

Of the varying ankle sprains that can occur, which one has an etiology of moderate force on the ankle while it is in a position of inversion, plantar flexion, and/or adduction?

A) grade 1 ligament sprain B) grade 2 ligament sprain C) grade 3 ligament sprain D) eversion ankle sprain E) syndesmosis (high ankle) sprain

592)

Of the varying ankle sprains that can occur, which one has an etiology of increased external rotation or forced dorsiflexion?

A) grade 1 ligament sprain B) grade 2 ligament sprain C) grade 3 ligament sprain D) eversion ankle sprain E) syndesmosis (high ankle) sprain

593)

Avulsion fractures are common in which of the following?

A) grade 2 inversion ankle sprain B) grade 2 eversion ankle sprain C) grade 3 inversion ankle sprain D) grade 3 eversion ankle sprain E) grade 2 & 3 inversion or eversion ankle sprains

594)

A person is suffering from a grade 2 lateral ankle sprain. When should the activity demonstrated in the video begin?

A) B) C) D) E)

595)

immediately following the injury during the remodeling tissue healing phase during the repair tissue healing phase it should be done when determining return to play it should begin in the acute injury tissue healing phase

What video demonstrates a method to strengthen the peroneal muscles?

A) B) C) D) E)

596)

This stretching technique would be best if a person is suffering from what?

A) B) C) D) E)

597)

Achilles tendon strain Achilles tendinosis Achilles tendon rupture peroneal tendon subluxation peroneal tendinitis

The technique demonstrated in the video is used to diagnose what?

A) B) C) D) E)

anterior tibialis tendinitis Achilles tendon rupture compartment syndrome fracture of the fibula syndesmotic sprain

598)

The technique demonstrated in the video can best be used to manage what condition?

What?

A) B) C) D) E)

599)

peroneal tendon subluxation/dislocation anterior tibialis tendonitis leg cramps compartment syndrome medial tibial stress syndrome

If a person is suffering from posterior tibialis tendinitis, where would it be point tender?

A) the calcaneus B) the dorsum of the foot C) the base of the fifth metatarsal D) behind the medial malleolus E) at the navicular

600)

What is the main purpose of the pad in this picture?

A) B) C) D) E)

provide support to the lateral ankle create a focal compression provide stability for a bone fracture prevent syndesmotic ankle sprains provide support to the medial ankle

601)

What video demonstrates a special test to determine if there is a suspect fracture of the lower leg?

A) B) C) D) E)

602)

A patient is suffering from medial tibial stress syndrome, complaining of pain before and after activity, but it does not affect performance. What grade of pain would the patient be assigned?

A) grade 1 B) grade 2 C) grade 3 D) grade 4 E) Grade 5

603)

What diagnostic technique would be the MOST APPROPRIATE for diagnosis of a tibial stress fracture?

A) MRI B) pet scan C) echocardiogram D) bone scan E) sonogram

604)

What exercise technique would be MOST APPROPRIATE for a patient in the acute phase of medial tibial stress syndrome?

A) B) C) D) E)

605)

The BAPS board exercises demonstrated in the video would be classified as what?

A) B) C) D) E)

joint mobilization flexibility neuromuscular control strengthening functional

606)

The activity demonstrated in this video would be MOST APPROPRIATE to functionally test who?

A) B) C) D) E)

a hockey player who suffered a shin contusion a sprinter who suffered a stress fracture a wide receiver who suffered a lateral ankle sprain a baseball catcher who suffered from acute compartment syndrome a volleyball player who suffered from a calf cramp

607)

Please match the name of the special test with the video.

A) Thompson test B) ankle anterior drawer test C) Homan’s sign D) ankle Tinel’s sign E) talar tilt test F) lower leg compression test G) ankle medial subtalar glide test H) percussion test

608)

Please match the name of the special test with the video.

A) Thompson test B) ankle anterior drawer test C) Homan’s sign D) ankle Tinel’s sign E) talar tilt test F) lower leg compression test G) ankle medial subtalar glide test H) percussion test

609)

Please match the name of the special test with the video.

A) Thompson test B) ankle anterior drawer test C) Homan’s sign D) ankle Tinel’s sign E) talar tilt test F) lower leg compression test G) ankle medial subtalar glide test H) percussion test

610)

Please match the name of the special test with the video.

A) Thompson test B) ankle anterior drawer test C) Homan’s sign D) ankle Tinel’s sign E) talar tilt test F) lower leg compression test G) ankle medial subtalar glide test H) percussion test

611)

Please match the name of the special test with the video.

A) Thompson test B) ankle anterior drawer test C) Homan’s sign D) ankle Tinel’s sign E) talar tilt test F) lower leg compression test G) ankle medial subtalar glide test H) percussion test

612)

Please match the name of the special test with the video.

A) Thompson test B) ankle anterior drawer test C) Homan’s sign D) ankle Tinel’s sign E) talar tilt test F) lower leg compression test G) ankle medial subtalar glide test H) percussion test

613)

Please match the name of the special test with the video.

A) Thompson test B) ankle anterior drawer test C) Homan’s sign D) ankle Tinel’s sign E) talar tilt test F) lower leg compression test G) ankle medial subtalar glide test H) percussion test

614)

Please match the name of the special test with the video.

A) Thompson test B) ankle anterior drawer test C) Homan’s sign D) ankle Tinel’s sign E) talar tilt test F) lower leg compression test G) ankle medial subtalar glide test H) percussion test

615)

Please match the name of the isometric strengthening technique with the video.

A) B) C) D)

616)

ankle isometric dorsiflexion ankle isometric eversion ankle isometric inversion ankle isometric plantar flexion

Please match the name of the isometric strengthening technique with the video.

A) B) C) D)

ankle isometric dorsiflexion ankle isometric eversion ankle isometric inversion ankle isometric plantar flexion

617)

Please match the name of the isometric strengthening technique with the video.

A) B) C) D)

ankle isometric dorsiflexion ankle isometric eversion ankle isometric inversion ankle isometric plantar flexion

618)

What forms a link between the lower leg and the foot?

A) the malleolus B) the tibia C) the talus D) the calcaneus E) the fibula

619)

What refers to the talocrural joint formed by the tibia, fibula, and talus?

A) extensor retinacula B) medial condyle C) intercondylar eminence D) medial malleolus E) ankle mortise

620)

What is the main function of the fibula?

A) to provide for the attachment of muscles B) to form a link between the lower leg and the foot C) to serve as the principal weight-bearing bone of the leg D) to extend greater joint stability to the medial aspect of the ankle than to the lateral aspect E) to form the heel and attach to the Achilles tendon

621)

What statement is true about the special tests that to assess injury to the ankle ligaments?

A) They are used as a last resort when there are no visible signs of an injury.

B) They require the use of a tuning fork to determine whether there is a rupture of the Achilles tendon.

C) Their diagnostic accuracy is higher at five days following injury than at two days.

D) They are most diagnostically accurate when performed after joint effusion has occurred.

E) They require suspected fractures to be tested by squeezing the calf muscle while the leg is extended.

622)

What statement is true of ankle injuries?

A) The grade 2 ligament sprain is the most common type of sprain.

B) Females are at a higher risk of suffering from ankle sprain than males.

C) Generalized joint laxity and anatomical foot type are risk factors for ankle sprains.

D) Patients who have suffered a previous sprain to the ankle have an increased risk of reinjury if a brace is worn.

E) Limb dominance is the number one predictor of sustaining a recurrent ankle injury.

623)

What statement is true of a grade 2 ligament sprain?

A) It causes a subluxation of the ankle.

B) It has a high incidence among active individuals.

C) It is the most common type of sprain.

D) It is characterized by complete impairment of weight-bearing ability.

E) It provides a negative talar tilt test.

624)

What statement is true of a syndesmotic sprain?

A) It is the most common type of sprain.

B) It delays the return to functional activities for a shorter period of time than inversion sprains.

C) Its treatment requires a shorter period of immobilization than the treatment for medial sprains.

D) It is the easiest type of sprain to treat.

E) It is characterized by a loss of function in the ankle region.

625)

What statement is true of posterior tibialis tendinitis?

A) It is characterized by a numb sensation in the area of the medial malleolus.

B) It is managed using a weight-bearing cast on the leg.

C) It is a problem that affects individuals if they have a pes cavus.

D) It is a common overuse condition among runners with pronated feet.

E) It is most likely to affect individuals who run downhill for an extended period of time.

626)

What is a symptom of a shin contusion?

A) A hematoma forms rapidly and tends to exhibit a jelly-like consistency.

B) The area of the medial malleolus begins to swell.

C) A point tenderness is felt over the anterior tibialis tendon.

D) The lateral aspect of the ankle shows ecchymoses, edema, and tenderness.

E) Toe raising becomes impossible.

627)

What would disqualify a patient from return to normal activity?

A) full ankle range of motion B) ability to run, cut, and jump C) minimal pain during motion D) no present swelling E) normal strength

628)

A poorly cared for shin contusion could lead to what other condition?

A) osteochondritis.

B) osteomyelitis.

C) osteopenia.

D) osteoporosis.

E) osteoarthritis.

629)

What glide directions help increase dorsiflexion?

A) anterior and posterior B) anterior and lateral C) posterior and medial D) posterior and lateral E) anterior and medial

Answer Key Test name: chapter 19 574)

B The tibia is triangularly shaped in its upper two-thirds but is rounded and more constricted in the lower third.

575)

C The inferior tibiofibular joint is a fibrous articulation, called the syndesmosis, the site of a highankle sprain.

576)

E The talocrural joint, or ankle mortise, allows plantar flexion and dorsiflexion.

577)

A The deltoid ligament is comprised of four ligaments that create a triangular ligament group and along with the spring ligament helps to maintain the inner longitudinal arch.

578)

B The calcaneofibular ligament is usually involved with a grade 2 inversion ankle sprain.

579)

D Even though the talus is anatomically designed to contribute ankle stability, the malleoli prevent medial or lateral displacement.

580) 581)

[B, D, E] E The superficial posterior compartment of the lower leg is comprised of the gastrocnemius and soleus muscle. Both have varying origin sites that require an extended (gastrocnemius) and bent (soleus) position of the knee.

582)

A Stretching of the Achilles tendon is a key step in the prevention of ankle sprains so that full ankle dorsiflexion can be achieved.

583)

C Individuals with chronic ankle instability must develop neuromuscular control at the ankle joint.

584)

C

Age would only be an appropriate question when identifying demographics of the patient and growth plate disorders.

585)

B A more appropriate physical assessment would be to perform a postural assessment looking for deviations.

586)

C The other listed patient positions are appropriate since the patient is weight-bearing tolerable, but if a fracture is suspected running would not be correct.

587)

A A retinaculum tear is difficult to palpate for and is usually discovered during the special tests section, or during a manual muscle test.

588)

E Although the ankle is part of the lower leg, the talar tilt test is for integrity of the capsule and ligamentous structures involved with the ankle.

589)

D An inversion fracture of sufficient magnitude could cause both an avulsion fracture of the lateral malleolus and a fracture of the medial malleolus.

590) 591)

[A, C, E] B A grade 2 ankle sprain has a high incidence among active individuals and causes a great deal of disability with many days of lost time.

592)

E A syndesmotic ankle sprain often occurs in conjunction with a severe sprain of the medial and lateral ligament complexes.

593)

E Avulsion fractures are common in grade 2 and grade 3 eversion or inversion ankle sprains.

594)

C Toe raises should begin during Phase 2 or the repair tissue healing phase.

595)

C The peroneal muscles perform eversion at the ankle.

596)

A Stretching and strengthening the Achilles complex should begin as soon as possible with an Achilles tendon strain.

597)

B The Thompson test is used to determine if an individual has suffered a rupture of the Achilles tendon.

598)

A A conservative approach when dealing with a peroneal tendon subluxation/dislocation is compression with a pad cut in a horseshoe-shaped pattern that surrounds the lateral malleolus.

599)

D Point tenderness and edema will be located directly behind the medial malleolus.

600)

B A horseshoe-shaped pad placed around the malleolus provides excellent focal compression when held in place by an elastic wrap.

601)

E A lower leg compression test can be used to determine if a patient is suffering from a fracture in their lower leg. Pain will be noted over the fracture site.

602)

B Grade 2 pain is classified as pain occurring before and after activity but not affecting performance.

603)

A A bone scan will accurately assess the presence of a stress fracture.

604)

E Static stretch of the Achilles tendon and anterior part of the lower leg are appropriate for medial tibial stress syndrome in the acute phase.

605)

C The BAPS board is a method of increasing neuromuscular control or balance.

606)

C The speed ladder in-and-out drill closely mimics the activities that a wide receiver would perform during competition. The drill also places stress on the lateral structures of the ankle.

607) 608) 609) 610) 611) 612) 613) 614) 615) 616) 617) 618)

A G C D F E B H C B D C The talus, the second largest tarsal, rests on the calcaneus and receives the articulating surfaces of the lateral and medial malleoli. The talus forms a link between the lower leg and the foot, or tarsus.

619)

E Ankle mortise is the talocrural joint formed by the tibia, fibula, and talus. The ankle movements that occur at the talocrural joint are plantar flexion and dorsiflexion.

620)

A The main function of the fibula is to provide for the attachment of muscles. The fibula is long and slender and is located along the lateral aspect of the tibia.

621)

C Special tests to assess injury to the ankle ligaments, performed soon after injury and before joint effusion has accumulated, may have better diagnostic accuracy than tests performed after effusion has occurred. However, the diagnostic accuracy of special tests is higher at five days following injury than at two days.

622)

B It appears that females are at a higher risk for suffering an ankle sprain than males. A history of ankle sprain is the number one predictor of sustaining a recurrent ankle injury.

623)

B A grade 2 ankle sprain has a high incidence among active individuals and causes a great deal of disability with many days of lost time.

624)

E

A syndesmotic ankle sprain often occurs in conjunction with a severe sprain of the medial and lateral ligament complexes. It is characterized by a loss of function in the ankle region.

625)

D Posterior tibialis tendinitis is a common overuse condition among runners with hypermobility or pronated feet. It is a repetitive microtrauma occurring during pronation in movements such as jumping, running, and cutting.

626)

A A patient complains of intense pain when the shin is contused. A hematoma forms rapidly and tends to exhibit a jelly-like consistency.

627)

C For release to return to normal activity, the patient should have: full motion, strength; ability to run, cut, and jump; and pain-free motion with no swelling.

628)

B An inappropriately managed injury to the periosteum may develop into osteomyelitis, a serious condition that results in the destruction and deterioration of bone.

629)

A Anterior tibial glides and posterior tibial glides increase dorsiflexion.

Student name:__________ 630)

What statement about the knee and related structures is INCORRECT? A) The patella is the largest sesamoid bone in the human body.

B) The knee joint consists of four articulations between the femur and the tibia, the femur and the patella, the femur and the fibula, and the tibia and the fibula.

C) The articular surface of the medial condyle is shorter from front to back than the surface of the lateral condyle.

D) The medial meniscus is C-shaped, whereas the lateral meniscus is more O-shaped.

E) The anterior cruciate ligament comprises three twisted bands: the anteromedial, intermediate, and posterolateral bands.

631)

What statement of the patella is INCORRECT? A) The patella is the largest sesamoid bone in the human body.

B) The lateral aspect of the patella is wider than the medial aspect.

C) Tracking within this groove depends on the pull of the quadriceps muscle and patellar tendon.

D) The patella articulates between the concavity provided by the tibial plateaus.

E) The patella is located in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle and is divided into three medial facets and is a lateral facet.

632)

What is a characteristic of the medial meniscus?

A) It is a round, fibrous cord that is about the size of a pencil.

B) It is a horseshoe-shaped fat pad.

C) It is attached to the lateral articular facet on the superior aspect of the tibia.

D) It is attached to fibers of the semimembraneous muscle posteriorly.

E) It is an O-shaped fibrocartilage.

633)

The major purpose of the medial collateral ligament is what?

A) to prevent hyperextension of the knee B) to limit anterior translation of the tibia in non-weight bearing C) to prevent the knee from valgus and external rotating forces D) to work in conjunction with the thigh muscles to stabilize the knee joint E) to attach the medial meniscus to the femur and to allow the tibia to move on the meniscus inferiorly

634)

What is a primary function of a bursa?

A) to supply blood to the knee B) to maintain spacing between the femoral condyles and tibial plateau C) to act as a separator between the patellar tendon and the joint capsule D) to reduce the friction between anatomical structures E) to produce external tibial rotation as the knee moves into extension

635)

In the context of bony palpation, what structure is palpated on the lateral aspect of the knee?

A) inferior patellar border B) intercondylar fossa C) tibial tuberosity D) head of the fibula E) adductor tubercle

636)

At what degree of knee flexion are the menisci the most helpful in stabilizing the knee?

A) 15° B) 35° C) 90° D) 125° E) 180°

637)

What structure within the knee attaches to the superior fibers of the semimembranosus muscle?

A) the posterior cruciate ligament B) the lateral meniscus C) the anterior cruciate ligament D) the medial meniscus E) pes anserine

638)

The anterior cruciate ligament prevents the femur from moving posteriorly during weight bearing. What is its role in non-weight bearing?

A) limits anterior translation of the tibia B) limits posterior translation of the tibia C) limits anterior translation of the femur D) limits the tibia against excessive external rotation E) limits the tibia against excessive internal rotation

639)

Why are the cruciate ligaments “extrasynovial”?

A) The synovial membrane lines the inner surface of the joint capsule.

B) The cruciate ligaments consist of two or more multidirectional fibrous bands.

C) The synovial membrane passes in front of the cruciate ligaments.

D) The collateral ligaments are intrasynovial.

E) The synovium attaches to only the collateral ligaments.

Why does the femur internally rotate with extension of the knee during the “screw-home” mechanism when weight bearing?

A) It occurs because the lateral femoral condyle is larger than the medial condyle.

B) It occurs because the medial femoral condyle is larger than the lateral condyle.

C) It occurs to unlock the knee.

D) It occurs to lock the knee.

E) It occurs to allow the anterior cruciate ligament to loosen.

640)

641)

642)

Where does the patella lie on the femur when the knee is in full extension?

A) The patella lies slightly medial and proximal to the trochlea.

B) The patella lies slightly distal to the intercondylar eminence and proximal to the tibial tuberosity.

C) The patella lies slightly lateral and distal to the trochlea.

D) The patella lies slightly medial and superior to the femoral groove.

E) The patella lies slightly lateral and proximal to the trochlea.

In the history section of a knee assessment, what would be considered an INAPPROPRIATE question to ask the patient?

A) What were you doing when the knee was hurt?

B) Do you take vitamins?

C) What is your major complaint?

D) Was the pain in your knee from side-to-side?

E) What position was your body when it was injured?

643)

In the observation section of a knee assessment, what would be considered an INAPPROPRIATE action to perform?

A) assessing leg alignment B) assessing the gait pattern C) assessing if the patient can do a half-squat to extension D) assessing a sacral shift E) assessing the way the patellar sit

644)

What would be difficult to confirm discovered during the palpation section of a knee assessment?

A) bursitis B) tendinosis C) joint effusion D) muscle soreness E) ligament sprain

645)

646)

What does a ballotable patella indicate?

A) intracapsular swelling B) displaced fracture C) bursitis D) tendinitis E) extracapsular swelling

According to the different knee stability tests, a positive Apley’s grinding test indicates a tear of what structure?

A) meniscus B) posterior cruciate ligament C) patella tendon D) anterior cruciate ligament E) lateral collateral ligament

647)

What test is similar to the flexion-rotation drawer test but is done in a side-lying position?

A) the posterior drawer test B) the jerk test C) the Thessaly test D) Godfrey’s test E) Losee’s test

648)

What is an advantage of the Lachman drawer test?

A) It tests the knee at a comfortable 90-degree position.

B) It reduces the restriction created by the hamstring muscles.

C) It can be performed easily on very large patients.

D) It is performed when a patient is in a comfortable, side-lying position.

E) It helps in determining a torn meniscus easily.

649)

What is true of the external rotation recurvatum test?

A) An athletic trainer uses one hand to press against the head of the fibula and the other to grasp a patient’s ankle.

B) An athletic trainer places one hand on the foot and one hand over the top of the knee, fingers touching the medial joint line.

C) An athletic trainer grasps the great toe of a patient and lifts his or her leg off a table.

D) A clinician stands in front of and supports a patient by holding his or her outstretched hands.

E) An athletic trainer stands facing the anterior aspect of a patient’s leg, with both hands encircling the upper portion of the leg immediately below the knee joint.

650)

In the context of special tests for assessment of knee joint instability, the patient stands flatfooted on the floor in __________.

A) the Thessaly test B) McMurray’s meniscal test C) the Apley compression test D) the pivot-shift test E) the Lachman drawer test

651)

Why are there several alternate methods to perform the Lachman drawer test?

A) because many different physicians have found more valid methods B) because the alternate methods involve testing for rotator instabilities C) because many different athletic trainers have found more valid methods D) because the female population within the profession created alternate methods E) because larger patients are difficult to assess using the original Lachman drawer test

652)

A patient presents with an increased Q angle, pain on the lateral facet of the patella, tightness in the hamstrings, patella alta, and a tight iliotibial band. What is the patient’s assessment?

A) patellar subluxation B) chondromalacia patella C) patellofemoral stress syndrome D) patellofemoral arthralgia E) hemarthrosis

653)

What is the normal Q angle for both male and female patients?

A) 15 degrees male, 15 degrees female B) 15 degrees male, 10 degrees female C) 10 degrees male, 10 degrees female D) 10 degrees male, 15 degrees female E) 20 degrees male, 15 degrees female

654)

What is the name of the special test being performed?

A) apprehension test B) varus stress test at 0° C) valgus stress test at 0° D) Slocum test E) Apley’s Grind test

655)

If this test elicits pain in the patient, what could be a potential problem?

A) B) C) D) E)

anterior cruciate ligament sprain posterior cruciate ligament sprain meniscus tear medial collateral ligament sprain lateral collateral ligament sprain

656)

It is suspected that an athlete has a torn posterior cruciate ligament. What special test would be performed in order to confirm this problem?

A) B) C) D) E)

657)

What is the name of this special test?

A) B) C) D) E)

658)

Clarke’s Grind patella apprehension Apley’s compression patella compression Lachman’s test

The special test performed in the video is performed for what structure?

A) B) C) D) E)

lateral collateral ligament medial collateral ligament medial collateral ligament, posterior capsule, and cruciate ligaments lateral collateral ligaments, posterior capsule, and cruciate ligaments cruciate ligaments, and posterior capsule

659)

What would be the most appropriate special test used to determine if a person is suffering from a posterior cruciate ligament sprain?

A) B) C) D) E)

660)

If the verbal cue “soft knees” were used, what should that mean to the patient?

A) hip flexion to aid in impact absorption B) try not to make a sound when landing C) landing on forefoot D) landing with knee in flexion E) rolling into heel contact

661)

What type of brace is used to protect grade 1 or 2 sprains of the ACL? A) prophylactic B) hinge brace C) functional brace D) post-operative brace E) rehabilitation brace

662)

When the anterior cruciate ligament is torn, what signs and symptoms could the patient experience?

A) a snapping sound, immediate, pain, and rapid swelling at the joint line B) a pop followed by immediate disability, and rapid swelling at the joint line C) a snapping sound, delayed pain, and rapid swelling at the joint line D) a popping sound, delayed, pain, and no swelling at the joint line E) a snapping sound, delayed pain, and no swelling at the joint line

663)

The video demonstrates the mechanism of injury for what injury?

A) B) C) D) E)

medial collateral ligament anterior cruciate ligament posterior cruciate ligament lateral collateral ligament plica

664)

In the context of a knee plica, the characteristics of locking and snapping could be misinterpreted as what injury?

A) meniscal tear B) patella subluxation C) patella femoral stress syndrome D) patellar tendonitis E) joint contusion

665)

The video demonstrates the mechanism of injury for what injury?

A) B) C) D) E)

666)

medial collateral ligament patella tendon lateral collateral ligament posterior cruciate ligament plica

The video demonstrates the mechanism of injury for what injury?

A) B) C) D) E)

medial collateral ligament patella tendon lateral collateral ligament posterior cruciate ligament plica

667)

Why should this rehabilitative exercise be performed following an anterior cruciate ligament repair? Do you have access/ability to put in the patellar mobilization video from the library? It is missing.

A) to mobilize the patella B) to mobilize the fibula C) to mobilize the femur D) to mobilize the lateral meniscus E) to mobilize the medial meniscus

668)

Which brace would be the most appropriate to wear for an athlete recovering from a grade 3 medial collateral ligament tear?

A)

B)

C)

D)

669)

If a patient is found to have loose bodies within the knee, what would be the appropriate management?

A) surgical removal B) immobilization C) rest and anti-inflammatory agents D) RICE E) rest and the application of heat

670)

A patient complains of diffuse pain along the joint line after a direct force to the knee.

The pain is localized with immediate joint effusion and pain with weight bearing when standing or walking. What is most likely the problem?

A) joint contusion B) osteochondritis dissecans C) osteochondral knee fracture D) knee plica E) patellar fracture

671)

What condition may cause an increase in a patient’s Q angle?

A) genu valgum B) genu varum C) genu recurvatum D) shallow femoral grooves E) externally rotated fibulas

672)

An injury to the intrapatella fat pad can occur when the pad becomes wedged between what structures?

A) tibia and fibula B) femur and tibia C) patella and femur D) tibia and patella E) patella and fibula

673)

What are related pathologies for “Runner’s Knee”?

A) jumper’s knee B) iliotibial band syndrome C) chondromalacia D) patellar subluxation E) pes anserine tendinitis F) cyclist’s knee

674)

In the context of jumper's knee, when chronic inflammation develops in the patellar tendon at the superior patellar pole, it is usually referred to as__________.

A) patellar tendinitis B) quadriceps tendinitis C) pes anserinus tendinitis D) an apophysitis E) an eccentric contraction

675)

In the context of jumper's knee, the shock-absorbing function that the quadriceps provide upon landing from a jump is known as__________.

A) an isometric contraction B) straight instability C) rotatory instability D) translation E) an eccentric contraction

676)

Please check all of the factors that may contribute to patellofemoral stress syndrome.

A) tightness in the gastrocnemius B) decreased Q angle C) supination of the foot D) tightness of the iliotibial band E) patella baja F) weak hip adductors G) vastus medialis oblique insufficiency

677)

What would be the most appropriate special test used to determine if a person is suffering from a posterior cruciate ligament sprain?

A) B) C) D) E)

678)

Please identify the correct location of a baker’s cyst.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

679)

In the context of knee joint rehabilitation, what is an example of a closed kinetic chain activity?

A) walking B) rock climbing C) terminal knee extensions D) running E) jumping

680)

In the context of knee joint rehabilitation, when regaining neuromuscular control of joint motion after injury, what can be used to improve proprioception and balance?

A) the Genucom B) DynaDisc C) an orthotic device D) cryotherapy E) a soft posterior splint

681)

When performing a pivot-shift test, a jerk test, and an Apley’s compression test, what are the involved structures?

A) ACL and LCL B) PCL and MM C) ACL, PCL, MM D) MCL, LCL, MM E) ACL, PCL, MCL

682)

What does this apparatus measure?

A) B) C) D) E)

quad strength displacement of the knee joint effusion proprioception ability of the knee nerve conduction

683)

What is being measured in this illustration?

A) B) C) D) E)

684)

the girth of the femur the length of the femur the diameter of the patella the A angle the Q angle

When bracing a Grade 3 medial collateral ligament sprain, conservative initial treatment would involve setting a hinge brace to allow what degrees of motion?

A) 30 to 90 degrees B) 0 to 90 degrees C) 90 to 120 degrees D) 0 to 30 degrees E) 0 to 45 degrees

685)

A sustained noncontact anterolateral rotary instability injury is caused by what motion?

A) deceleration with a valgus stress and rotation B) acceleration with a valgus stress and rotation C) deceleration with a varus stress and rotation D) acceleration with a varus stress and rotation E) acceleration with a valgus stress and no rotation

686)

Please check all of the therapeutic exercises that would be appropriate for a person who is in the acute injury phase of surgical repair of an anterior cruciate ligament.

A) Insert quad sets video with no audio (strengthening hip and thigh folder) B) Insert hamstring curls on NK video with no audio (strengthening hip and thigh folder) C) Insert video hip flexor strengthening with no audio (strengthening hip and thigh folder) D) Insert straight leg lift adduction video with no audio from strengthening hip and thigh folder E) Insert machine squat video with no audio from strengthening hip and thigh folder F) Insert posterior tibial glides distal with no audio from joint mobilizations folder G) Insert patellar glides video with no audio from joint mobilizations folder

687)

What structure following a surgical repair requires no postoperative bracing?

A) anterior cruciate repair B) posterior cruciate repair C) partial meniscectomy D) meniscal repair E) osteochondral fracture repair

688)

What condition is present in the figure?

A) Osgood Schlatter’s disease B) Larsen-Johansson disease C) jumper’s knee D) cyclist’s knee E) patellar femoral syndrome

689)

What condition is present in the figure?

A) B) C) D) E)

patellar femoral syndrome patellar dislocation chondromalacia patella osteochondritis dissecans patellar fracture

690)

For what condition would this brace be used?

A) B) C) D) E)

691)

dislocated patella runner’s knee anterior cruciate ligament sprain lateral collateral ligament sprain quadriceps tendon rupture

What muscle group should have particularly good flexibility for return to activity when completing a management plan for patellofemoral pain?

A) adductors B) triceps surae C) abductors D) external rotators E) hamstrings

Answer Key Test name: chapter 20 630)

C The articular surface of the medial condyle is longer from front to back than the surface of the lateral condyle. This characteristic assists with rotation in the “screw home” mechanism.

631)

D The patella articulates between the concavity provided by the femoral condyles.

632)

D The medial meniscus is a C-shaped fibrocartilage, the circumference of which is attached firmly to the medial articular facet of the tibia and to the joint capsule by the coronary ligaments.

Posteriorly, it is also attached to fibers of the semimembraneous muscle.

633)

C The major purpose of the medial collateral ligament is to prevent the knee from valgus and external rotating forces. It was thought to be the principal stabilizer of the knee in a valgus position when combined with rotation.

634)

D The function of a bursa is to reduce the friction between anatomical structures. Bursae are found between muscle and bone, tendon and bone, tendon and ligament, and so forth.

635)

D In the context of bony palpation, the head of the fibula is palpated in the lateral aspect by an athletic trainer. The bony structures of the knee are palpated for pain and deformities that might indicate a fracture or dislocation.

636)

C The menisci help stabilize the knee, especially the medial meniscus, when the knee is flexed at 90°.

637)

D The medial meniscus attaches posteriorly to the fibers of the semimembranosus muscle and is also attached firmly to the medial articular facet of the tibia and to the joint capsule by the coronary ligaments.

638)

A

In general, the anterior cruciate ligament prevents the femur from moving posteriorly during weight bearing and limits anterior translation of the tibia in non-weight bearing.

639)

C The synovial membrane lines the inner surface of the joint capsule, except posteriorly where it passes in front of the cruciates, thus making them extrasynovial.

640)

B The medial femoral condyle has a greater surface area of contact; therefore, when weight bearing, the femur must internally rotate to achieve full extension.

641)

E During full extension, the patella lies slightly lateral and proximal to the femoral groove or trochlea.

642)

B Where medications may be applicable to a specific pathology, asking this specific question is not relevant for a knee assessment.

643)

D Assessing a sacral shift could be applicable to knee anomalies, but would be best evaluated during the palpation section and followed up within the special test section.

644)

E Integrity of a ligament needs to be assessed by performing a ligamentous and/or special test for the involved ligament(s).

645)

A Intracapsular swelling may also be referred to as a joint effusion, in which a ballotable patella, or floating patella, is a positive indicator.

646)

A According to the different knee stability tests, a positive Apley’s grinding test indicates a torn meniscus.

647)

E Losee’s test is similar to the flexion-rotation drawer test, but it is done in a side-lying position. It begins at 45 degrees of flexion with external tibial rotation and the tibia subluxated anteriorly. As the knee is extended, the tibia reduces to about 20 degrees.

648)

B

A reason for the increased popularity of the Lachman drawer test is that it reduces the restriction created by the hamstring muscles unlike the anterior drawer test. Contraction of the hamstring causes a secondary knee-stabilizing force that tends to mask the real extent of injury.

649)

C When performing the external rotation recurvatum test, an athletic trainer grasps the great toe and lifts the leg off the table. If the tibia externally rotates and slides posteriorly, there may be injury to the posterior cruciate ligament and posterolateral corner of the joint capsule, creating posterolateral instability.

650)

A In the context of special tests for assessment of knee joint instability, the patient stands flatfooted on the floor in the Thessaly test. The clinician stands in front of and supports the patient by holding his or her outstretched hands.

651)

E One problem that exists with the Lachman test is that if the patient is very large, or if the athletic trainer has small hands, it is difficult to perform this test efficiently.

652)

C The patient’s symptoms are indicative of patellofemoral stress syndrome.

653) 654)

D C The valgus stress test at 0° is performed to see if there is a medial collateral ligament tear along with posteromedial capsule, and the cruciates.

655)

E The test being performed is the varus stress test. It is performed to reveal laxity of the lateral collateral ligament.

656)

C Godfrey posterior sag test will allow the tibia to sag posteriorly when compared with the opposite extremity if the posterior cruciate ligament is damaged.

657)

B The patellar apprehension test is when the patient expresses a sudden apprehension at the point at which the patella begins to dislocate.

658)

B

In 30 degrees of flexion, the medial collateral ligament is isolated to test for laxity.

659)

A Godfrey’s posterior sag test can be utilized to tell if a person has damage to the posterior cruciate ligament.

660)

D “Soft knees” is landing with knees in flexion.

661)

C These types of braces are custom molded and designed to control rotational stress or tibial translation.

662)

B When an anterior cruciate ligament is torn, the patient will more than likely experience all of these signs and symptoms.

663)

B ACL ligament sprains occur when the tibia is externally rotated and the knee is in a valgus position. The single plane injury occurs when the lower leg is rotated while the foot is fixed.

664)

A The characteristics of locking and snapping may be misinterpreted as a torn meniscus.

665)

A Most knee sprains affect the MCL from either a direct blow from the lateral side in a medial direction or from lateral tibial rotation.

666)

C LCL ligament sprains occur by a varus force often with the tibia internally rotated.

667)

A If patellar mobilization is not addressed, it could cause restriction of movement with the patella and tibia.

668)

A A hinged brace allows limited immobilization during the conservative treatment period.

669)

A

Osteochondritis dissecans in teenager and adult may warrant surgery, such as multiple drilling in the area to stimulate healing, pinning of loose fragments, bone grafting, and/or removal of the loose bodies.

670)

C Osteochondral knee fractures demonstrate all of the above-mentioned signs and symptoms.

671)

A An individual who has genu valgum may have an increase in the Q angle.

672)

D The infrapatella fat pad may become wedged between the tibia and the patella.

673)

B Runner’s knee is a general expression for many repetitive and overuse conditions. Two conditions that are prevalent among joggers, distance runners, and some cyclists are iliotibial band friction syndrome and pes anserinus tendinitis or bursitis.

674)

B In the context of jumper's knee, when chronic inflammation develops in the patellar tendon at the superior patellar pole, it is usually referred to as quadriceps tendinitis. It usually develops in athletes from mechanical overloading of the tendon with activities that require rapid acceleration-deceleration such as in repetitive jumping and landing.

675)

E In the context of jumper's knee, the shock-absorbing function that the quadriceps provide upon landing from a jump is known as an eccentric contraction.

676) 677)

[A, D, F, G] A Godfrey’s posterior sag test can be utilized to tell if a person has damage to the posterior cruciate ligament.

678) 679)

D C Minisquats, step-ups onto a box, leg presses on a machine, and the use of stationary bicycles, stair-climbing machines, terminal knee extensions, and exercise tubing attached to a wall are examples of closed kinetic chain activities. These activities are more functional and eliminate many of the stress and shearing forces associated with an open-lever system.

680)

B

The BAPS board, bosu balance trainer rocker board, tremor box, mini-tramp, and DynaDisc can all be used to improve proprioception and balance, as can the balance shoes. It is essential to challenge the patient with exercises designed to improve neuromuscular control in the injured knee.

681)

A Both the pivot-shift and jerk tests are performed to check the integrity of the anterior cruciate ligament. A medial meniscal tear can be found by externally rotating the foot while performing an Apley’s compression test.

682)

B The KT-2000 arthrometer (in image), the GNRM arthrometer, the DYNEELAS arthrometer, the Stryker knee laxity tester, and the Genucom are testing devices that test for knee laxity.

683)

E The Q angle is created when lines are drawn from the middle of the patella to the anterosuperior spine of the ilium and from the tubercle of the tibia through the center of the patella.

684)

A Limited range of motion is necessary to allow healing and to prevent further damage to the ligament.

685)

C When a person decelerates and rotates, along with an applied varus stress, a rotary instability injury is likely to occur.

686) 687)

[A, D, G] C With a partial meniscectomy, only part of the meniscus is removed, rather than repaired and left intact, therefore, limiting the need for immobilization and allowing partial to full weight bearing on crutches as quickly as can be tolerated for about 2 weeks.

688)

A Osgood Schlatter’s disease most often represents an avulsion fracture of the tibial tubercle. A bony callus will form and the tibial tuberosity will enlarge.

689)

C Chondromalacia is a softening and deterioration of the articular cartilage on the back of the patella. Degeneration and fissures of the articular cartilage are present. Normally, the cartilage is very smooth.

690)

A Following immobilization for a patellar dislocation, the patient should wear a horseshoe-shaped felt pad that is held in place or a commercial brace (DJO Global brace).

691)

E The patient should have good hamstring flexibility to allow the functional knee to go into full extension.

Student name:__________ 692)

What muscles originate from the medial and lateral linea aspera of the femur?

A) sartorius and gracilis B) biceps femoris and rectus femoris C) vastus medialis and vastus lateralis D) semitendinosus and semimembranosus E) popliteus and plantaris

693)

What is the largest nerve in the body?

A) femoral nerve B) brachial plexus C) sacral plexus D) greater sciatic nerve E) common peroneal nerve

694)

Which of the following is a quadriceps muscle that crosses the hip joint?

A) vastus lateralis B) rectus femoris C) vastus intermedius D) biceps femoris E) adductor brevis

695)

Which of the following muscles in the thigh is not biarticular?

A) long head of the biceps femoris B) short head of the biceps femoris C) semimembranosus D) rectus femoris E) sartorius

696)

What is the significance of the femur’s cylindrical shaft that bows forward and outward?

A) It accommodates the stresses placed on the femur during bending of the hip and knee

and during weight bearing.

B) It accommodates the large muscle mass of the hamstring and quadriceps muscle groups.

C) It provides leverage to the longest bone of the body during gait patterns.

D) It provides a common insertion point for the pes anserinus muscle group.

E) It provides a common fascial attachment for the quadriceps muscle group.

697)

What action does the highlighted muscle perform?

A) B) C) D)

Adduction of the thigh and flexes and medially rotates the leg at the knee joint.

Adduction of the thigh and outwardly rotates the thigh.

Externally rotates the femur and unlocks the knee for flexion to occur.

Flexes the thigh at the hip joint, abducts and outwardly rotates the thigh at the hip joint.

E) Extends the knee and assists with inwardly rotating the thigh at the hip joint.

698)

Which of the following muscles is a part of the anatomical region of the inner thigh referred to as the groin?

A) gracilis B) tensor C) gluteus D) vastus lateralis E) iliopsoas

699)

Please identify the muscles that make up the tendinous insertion of the pes anserinus muscle group.

A) sartorius B) gracilis C) vastus medialis D) adductor magnus E) adductor longus F) semitendinosus G) semimembranosus

700)

In the history section of a thigh assessment, what would be considered an inappropriate question to ask the patient?

A) was the onset sudden or slow?

B) is the pain related to risk?

C) have you ever had a low-back injury?

D) how was the thigh injured?

E) has this injury occurred before?

701)

Which of the following would be an inappropriate body structure to palpate during the palpation section of the thigh?

A) ilium B) pes anserinus tendon C) pectineus D) greater trochanter E) anterior superior iliac spine

702)

What suspected condition would be present that would discourage the patient performance of an isometric resistance to the thigh muscle groups?

A) muscle strain B) ligamentous sprain C) bursitis D) fracture E) tendinitis

703)

When managing a quadriceps contusion, what position should the leg be in when providing cryotherapy treatment?

A) full extension to patient comfort level B) slightly flexed C) flexed to 90 degrees D) fully flexed to patient comfort level E) prone position slight extension

704)

What is the most common location for a quadriceps muscle strain?

A) the muscle belly B) the muscle origin C) the muscle tendon D) the musculotendinous junction E) the fascial attachment

705)

In managing a quadriceps grade 2 strain, what exercises should be avoided until later phases of the rehabilitation?

A) weight-bearing B) isometrics C) active range of motion D) passive stretching E) cryokinetics

706)

Which of the following modalities could lead to the development of myositis ossifications if used in treatment during the initial stages of a quadriceps contusion?

A) cryotherapy B) heat therapy C) aspiration of a hematoma D) isometric stretching E) eccentric strength training

707)

Which of the following causal theories of muscle strains is inappropriate based on the actions of the hamstring muscle group?

A) when an individual has 65 percent strength ratio of the hamstring muscle group to the quadriceps muscle group B) when an individual suddenly changes direction or starts too slowly C) when an individual has a quick change of the hamstring muscle from the role of knee stabilization to that of extending the hip when running D) when an individual is experiencing muscle fatigue or has a faulty posture E) when an individual contracts the hamstring and quadriceps muscle groups at the same time

708)

What condition would create a higher incidence of reinjury hamstring muscle strain?

A) psychosocial issues B) limited range of motion C) excessive fibrous scar tissue D) overstretching E) unhealthy inflammation phase

709)

For fractures that occur across the epiphysis of the femur among adolescents, what condition is likely to develop?

A) slipped epiphysis B) joint contracture C) myositis ossificans D) osteoporosis E) avascular necrosis

710)

Which of the following symptoms would indicate a grade 2 hamstring strain?

A) a palpable gap in the muscle B) a sudden snap or tear of the muscle C) a palpable mass in the muscle D) severe edema of the muscle E) major hemorrhage in the muscle

711)

If a patient were suffering from a femoral stress fracture, how would the gait pattern be altered?

A) The patient would not be weight-bearing on the affected leg.

B) The patient would use an abduction lurch-type movement.

C) The patient would use an adduction lurch-type movement.

D) The patient would avoid hip extension.

E) The patient would heel placement.

712)

What injury can develop from repeated contusions to the anterior thigh region?

A) quad strain B) hamstring strain C) thigh contusion D) myositis ossificans E) myositis dissecans

713)

For the highlighted muscle in the image, what range of motion would be limited if the muscle were strained?

A) B) C) D) E)

714)

hip extension hip external rotation knee flexion lying prone knee flexion seated lumbar extension

In the prevention of injuries to the thigh, hip, groin, and pelvic region, which video would be an inappropriate exercise to perform?

A) B) C) D) E)

715)

What movement is present at the sacroiliac junction?

A) a small backward-forward movement B) a small anterior-posterior tilt C) a small lateral shift D) a small axial rotation E) it is an innominate bone.

716)

Where does the spherical head of the femur fit?

A) within the joint capsule B) in the acetabulum C) in the hip girdle D) in the obturator foramen E) in the ischium

717)

Which of the following structures lines the acetabular socket?

A) obturator membrane B) synovial membrane C) interosseous membrane D) serous membrane E) cutaneous membrane

718)

What is known as the strongest ligament of the body?

A) the Y ligament of Deuce B) the X ligament of Bigelow C) the ischiofemoral ligament D) the Y ligament of Bigelow E) the V ligament of the acetabulum

719)

Which of the following is an anterior hip muscle?

A) iliacus B) piriformis C) gluteus minimus D) gemellus superior E) quadratus femoris

720)

What nerve branches to supply the thigh and lower leg?

A) greater sciatic nerve B) popliteal nerve C) femoral nerve D) posterior tibial nerve E) common peroneal nerve

721)

Which of the following directions is an inappropriate action performed by the pelvis?

A) anterior tilt B) lateral tilt C) rotation D) posterior tilt E) extension

722)

Which of the following muscles performs anterior tilting of the pelvis in the sagittal plane?

A) hip abductors B) gluteus maximus C) rectus abdominis D) iliopsoas E) pectineus

723)

Which of the following structures serves as the attachment site for abdominal muscles?

A) greater trochanter B) iliac crest C) femoral neck D) symphysis pubis E) lateral epicondyle

724)

Please draw a line in the correct location that separates the false and true pelvic areas.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

725)

Which of the following tests can be used to assess hip flexor tightness?

A) the flexion internal rotation test B) the scour test C) the Thomas test D) the Trendelenburg's test E) the resisted hip abduction test

726)

Which of the following positions should a patient be in when undergoing Nobel's test?

A) lying down in supine position B) lying down with one leg raised C) standing, with both feet on the ground D) standing, with one foot on the ground E) lying down in prone position

727)

Which of the following information would an athletic trainer gather while preparing the history section of the assessment of a potential hip, groin, or pelvis injury?

A) recent sexual activity of the patient B) abnormal movements during ambulation C) tilt of the pelvis D) leg-length discrepancy E) types of pain experienced

728)

In the observation section of a hip, groin, and pelvis assessment, what would be difficult to observe without performing a special test?

A) symmetrical view of the hips B) anterior or posterior tilted pelvis C) patellar alignments D) tight musculature E) even height of the posterior superior iliac spines

729)

Which of the following structures would be unable to be discovered during the palpation section of a hip, groin, and pelvis assessment if there were no swelling?

A) trochanteric bursa B) pubic symphysis C) piriformis D) tensor fasciae latae E) posterior inferior iliac spine

730)

Which of the following tests can be used to determine the presence of gluteal tendinopathies?

A) the resisted hip abduction test B) the Trendelenburg test C) the scour test D) the flexion internal rotation test E) the patellar-pubic percussion test

731)

In order to accurately measure anatomical leg-length discrepancy, the measurements should occur between which of the following anatomical structures?

A) posterior superior iliac spine to the lateral malleoli B) posterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleoli C) anterior superior iliac spine to the medial malleoli D) anterior to the lateral malleoli E) the umbilicus to the lateral malleoli

732)

Based on this picture, what is most likely wrong with this person?

A) B) C) D) E)

Femoral retroversion Femoral anteversion Pathological sacroiliac joint dysfunction Leg-length discrepancy Tightness of the rectus femoris

733)

Which of the following videos demonstrates a test to check for a pathological condition of the sacroiliac joint?

A) B) C) D) E)

734)

Which of the following videos demonstrates Ober’s test?

A) B) C) D) E)

735)

Which muscle is weak if this special test has a positive finding?

A) B) C) D) E)

736)

gluteus maximus gluteus medius rectus femoris piriformis quadratus femoris

A track athlete complains of pain in the lateral hip with pain radiating down to the knee causing a limp. What is the condition?

A) groin strain B) trochanteric bursitis C) sprain of the hip joint D) avascular necrosis E) slipped capital femoral epiphysis

737)

Which of the following is a likely complication of a posterior hip dislocation?

A) palsy of the sciatic nerve B) fracture of the femur C) ill shaped head of the femur D) slippage of the capital femoral epiphysis E) fracture of the ischial tuberosity

738)

Which of the following conditions results from the temporary or permanent loss of blood supply to the proximal femur?

A) quadriceps contusion B) subungual hematoma C) avascular necrosis D) myositis ossificans E) trochanteric bursitis

739)

740)

Which of the following hip problems occurs in male children ages 4 to 10?

A) slipped capital femoral epiphysis B) avascular necrosis C) Legg-Calve-Perthes disease D) osteitis pubis E) snapping hip

What condition occurs in boys who are characteristically tall and thin, or obese and between the ages of 10 and 17?

A) slipped capital femoral epiphysis B) avascular necrosis C) Legg-Calve-Perthes disease D) osteitis pubis E) snapping hip

741)

A bone scan should be utilized to diagnose which of the following problems?

A) stress fracture B) osteitis pubis C) athletic pubalgia D) apophysitis E) Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease

742)

A distance runner complains of pain that increases as the amount of time increases. Pain is reported when performing the three activities in the videos. What possible condition could the athlete have?

A) B) C) D) E)

hip pointer osteitis pubis athletic pubalgia apophysitis Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

743)

A patient is point tender at the pubic tubercle and complains of pain when performing the activities demonstrated in the videos. What could be wrong with the patient?

A) B) C) D) E)

744)

hip pointer osteitis pubis athletic pubalgia apophysitis Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

Which of the following is usually the first type of exercise imparted in strength rehabilitation programs?

A) an isometric exercise B) an isotonic progressive-resistive exercise C) an isokinetic exercise D) an active isotonic contraction E) an active isokinetic contraction

745)

The technique demonstrated in this video will increase which of the following motions?

A) B) C) D) E)

746)

What muscle would a patient be strengthening if this exercise was performed?

A) B) C) D) E)

747)

hip flexion hip extension hip internal rotation hip external rotation hip abduction

superior gemellu gluteus medius tensor fascia latae psoas major iliacus

Please match the exercise with its appropriate name.

A) prone hip extension B) stability ball hip up C) prone cobra D) stability ball hip extension E) side-lying hip abdominal lift F) human arrow G) lunges weight resisted

748)

Please match the exercise with its appropriate name.

A) prone hip extension B) stability ball hip up C) prone cobra D) stability ball hip extension E) side-lying hip abdominal lift F) human arrow G) lunges weight resisted

749)

Please match the exercise with its appropriate name.

A) prone hip extension B) stability ball hip up C) prone cobra D) stability ball hip extension E) side-lying hip abdominal lift F) human arrow G) lunges weight resisted

750)

Please match the exercise with its appropriate name.

A) prone hip extension B) stability ball hip up C) prone cobra D) stability ball hip extension E) side-lying hip abdominal lift F) human arrow G) lunges weight resisted

751)

Please match the exercise with its appropriate name.

A) prone hip extension B) stability ball hip up C) prone cobra D) stability ball hip extension E) side-lying hip abdominal lift F) human arrow G) lunges weight resisted

752)

Please match the exercise with its appropriate name.

A) prone hip extension B) stability ball hip up C) prone cobra D) stability ball hip extension E) side-lying hip abdominal lift F) human arrow G) lunges weight resisted

753)

Please match the exercise with its appropriate name.

A) prone hip extension B) stability ball hip up C) prone cobra D) stability ball hip extension E) side-lying hip abdominal lift F) human arrow G) lunges weight resisted

754)

Please check all of the muscles that are stimulated by the obturator nerve.

A) sartorius B) popliteus C) adductor magnus D) biceps femoris E) vastus lateralis F) gracilis G) vastus intermedius H) pectineus I) semimembranosus J) adductor longus

755)

Please check all of the muscles that laterally rotate the thigh.

A) iliacus B) psoas major C) superior gemellus D) gluteus medius E) gluteus maximus F) piriformis G) obturator internus H) tensor fasciae latae

756)

What is this special test checking for?

A) B) C) D) E)

757)

tight hamstring muscles tight iliotibial band tight rectus femoris tight gastrocnemius tights hip flexor

What special test measures for femoral retroversion and femoral anteversion version?

A) Craig’s test B) apparent leg length discrepancy C) Patrick Faber D) Thomas test E) Thompson test

758)

Which of the following sign or symptom would the patient report during the appropriate healing of a quadriceps contusion?

A) pain B) burning C) muscle weakness D) swelling E) decrease muscle function

759)

In the history section of a hip, groin, and pelvis assessment, what would be considered an inappropriate question to ask the patient?

A) Are you sexually active?

B) Do you think you may be pregnant?

C) What is your age?

D) Does the pain radiate?

E) Are you taking contraceptives?

760)

Internal hip rotation in excess of what degree is characteristic of femoral anteversion?

A) 15 degrees B) 20 degrees C) 25 degrees D) 30 degrees E) 35 degrees

761)

What is the most common mechanism of injury for a hip dislocation?

A) the femoral shaft adducts and flexes B) the femoral shaft abducts and flexes C) the femoral shaft adducts and extends D) the femoral shaft abducts and extends E) the femoral shaft is internally rotated and extended

762)

Please check all of the special tests that are utilized to check for a tight iliotibial band.

A) Renne’s B) Thomas C) Ober D) Kendall E) Trendelenburg F) Noble G) Craig's H) Ely

763)

Please identify which of the following muscles do not insert on some portion of the greater trochanter.

A) Tensor fascia latae B) Gluteus maximus C) Gluteus medius D) Superior gemellus E) Obturator internus F) Iliacus G) Psoas major

764)

What muscles are in the anterior compartment of the leg? Please check all that apply.

A) sartorius.

B) popliteus.

C) semimembranosus.

D) semitendinosus.

E) rectus femoris.

F) vastus lateralis.

G) gracilis.

H) pectineus.

I) vastus intermedius.

765)

What muscles are in the posterior compartment of the leg? Please check all that apply.

A) sartorius.

B) popliteus.

C) semimembranosus.

D) semitendinosus.

E) rectus femoris.

F) vastus lateralis.

G) gracilis.

H) pectineus.

I) vastus intermedius.

J) biceps femoris.

766)

What muscle originates at the iliac crest?

A) psoas major B) psoas minor C) iliacus D) gluteus maximus E) piriformis

767)

What muscle inserts at the greater trochanter of the femur?

A) tensor fasciae latae B) gluteus maximus C) obturator externus D) rectus femoris E) superior gemellus

768)

What special test is demonstrated in this diagram?

A) B) C) D) E)

Ober Renee Thomas Nobel Piriformis

Answer Key Test name: chapter 21 692)

C The vastus medialis and vastus lateralis muscles originate from the lateral and medial linea aspera of the femur.

693)

D Among nerves that emerge from the sacral plexus are the tibial and common peroneal nerves, which in the thigh form the largest nerve in the body, the greater sciatic nerve.

694)

B The rectus femoris is the only quadriceps muscle that crosses the hip joint. It not only extends the knee but also flexes the hip.

695)

B The hamstrings all cross the knee joint posteriorly, and all except the short head of the biceps cross the hip joint.

696)

A The cylindrical shaft is bowed forward and outward to accommodate the stresses placed on it during bending of the hip and knee and during weight bearing.

697)

D The sartorius also inwardly rotates the flexed knee.

698)

A The medial thigh muscles include the gracilis, sartorius, pectineus, and three adductor muscles and make up a part of the anatomical region referred to as the groin. The gracilis muscle is attached superiorly to the body of the inferior ramus of the pubis and inferiorly to the medial aspect of the proximal tibia.

699) 700)

[A, B, F] C Where a low-back injury could cause referred pain, it would not directly influence an injury sustained to the thigh region.

701)

A

Although some thigh muscles do attach in the pelvic region, it would be difficult to palpate the ilium; in addition, it is part of the pelvic region.

702)

D If a fracture is suspected, these other tests should not be performed, passive knee flexion and active movement of the knee from flexion to extension.

703)

D The knee should be immediately placed in flexion with an ice pack and compression wrap to stretch the muscle and avoid shortening.

704)

D Most strains occur at the musculotendinous junctions with the rectus femoris involvement being the most disabling of the quadriceps muscle group.

705)

D Passive stretching exercises are not recommended until later phases because a passive stretch might have been the cause of the strain. Rehabilitation may take up to 14 / 21 days.

706)

B Heat, massage, and ultrasound should be avoided in the initial stages of quadriceps contusions to prevent the possibility of myositis ossificans. Cold packs combined with gentle stretching may be the preferred treatment.

707)

A In most individuals, the hamstring muscle group should have a strength of 60 percent to 70 percent of that of the quadriceps group.

708)

C The higher the incidence of strains at a particular muscle site, the greater the amount of scar tissue and the greater the likelihood of further injury will be.

709)

E Due to a limited blood supply in the region of the femoral head, there is a high incidence of avascular necrosis, which is an important consideration until the patient becomes skeletally mature and collateral blood supply has been well established.

710)

B

A grade 2 hamstring strain represents a partial tearing of muscle fibers, identified by a sudden snap or tear of the muscle accompanied by severe pain and a loss of function during knee flexion. Fewer than 70 percent of fibers are torn in a grade 2 hamstring tear.

711)

B The patient would walk with an antalgic gait using an abduction lurch-type movement with a possible Trendelenburg's sign.

712)

D Myositis ossificans is likely to develop in the anterior thigh following repeated contusions to the thigh, or to an untreated thigh contusion.

713)

C If the rectus femoris is involved, knee flexion range of motion lying prone (hip in extended position) will be severely limited and painful.

714)

B Although this video illustrates a stretching mechanism, it is addressing the lumbar and lower back region.

715)

A A small backward-forward movement is present at the sacroiliac junction.

716)

B The articulating, spherical head of the femur fits into a deep socket in the innominate bone called the acetabulum, which is padded at its center by a mass of fatty tissue, ligaments, and capsule.

717)

B Except for the ligamentum teres, which lies outside the synovial cavity, the synovial membrane lines the acetabular socket. This membrane is a vascular tissue enclosing the hip joint in a tubular sleeve, with the upper portion surrounding the acetabulum.

718)

D The iliofemoral ligament (Y ligament of Bigelow) is the strongest ligament of the body and prevents hyperextension, controls external rotation and adduction of the thigh, and limits the pelvis during any backward rolling of the femoral head during weight bearing.

719)

A The iliacus and psoas muscles are the anterior hip muscles. The triangular iliacus is contained within the iliac fossa within the abdomen.

720)

C The femoral nerve, a major nerve emerging from the lumbar plexus, later divides into many branches to supply the thigh and lower leg.

721)

E The joint that connects the lower extremity to the pelvic girdle moves in three directions, anteroposterior tilting, lateral tilting, and rotation.

722)

D The iliopsoas muscle and other hip flexors, as well as extensors of the lumbar spine, perform anterior tilting in the sagittal plane. These muscles also facilitate lumbar lordosis.

723)

B The iliac crest serves as the attachment site for the abdominal muscles. The ilium serves as the attachment for the gluteals.

724) 725)

A C The Kendall test and the Thomas test can be used to assess hip flexor tightness. Contractures of the hip flexors are major causes of lordosis and susceptibility to groin pain and discomfort.

726)

A While undergoing Nobel's test, the patient lies supine, the knee flexed to 90 degrees, and pressure is applied to the lateral femoral epicondyle while the knee is gradually extended. A positive response occurs when severe pain is felt at the lateral femoral epicondyle with the knee at 30 degrees of flexion.

727)

E While preparing the history section of the assessment of a potential hip, groin, or pelvis injury, an athletic trainer should inquire about the types of pain the patient experiences. This will help in pinpointing the exact source of origin of the pain.

728)

D Assessing tight musculature would require range of motion, which is an appropriate action during the observation section of an assessment.

729)

A The deep trochanteric bursa is located between the articular capsule and the iliopsoas muscle on the anterior aspect of the joint.

730)

B

The Trendelenburg test can be used by an athletic trainer to determine the presence of gluteal tendinopathies. This test is conducted by asking the patient to stand while lifting the foot that lies on the side which is unaffected by the injury.

731)

C Anatomical leg length discrepancy is measured from the ASIS to the medial malleoli.

732)

A With retroversion of the hip, the feet toe out.

733)

A The Patrick, or FABER special test, detects pathological conditions of the hip and sacroiliac joint.

734)

D The Ober’s test is performed to test for tightness of the tensor fasciae latae and the iliotibial band.

735)

B If the Trendelenburg test is positive, this can indicate weakness in the hip abductors, particularly the gluteus medius.

736)

B The symptoms that the athlete presents with are those of trochanteric bursitis.

737)

A A posterior hip dislocation can cause palsy of the sciatic nerve.

738)

C Avascular necrosis results from the temporary or permanent loss of the blood supply to the proximal femur. Without blood, the bone tissue dies and causes degeneration and deformity of the joint surface.

739)

C Legg-Calve-Perthes disease most likely occurs in male children ages 4/10.

740)

A Slipped capital femoral epiphysis occurs in boys between the ages of 10 and 17 who are characteristically tall and thin or obese.

741)

A

A bone scan will pick up early osteoclastic activity.

742)

B Osteitis pubis is characterized by pain in the groin region and repetitive stresses to the pubic region such as running, doing sit-ups, and doing squats.

743)

C Athletic pubalgia is characterized by point tenderness at the pubic tubercle, and pain occurs with resisted hip flexion, resisted hip abduction, and abdominal crunches.

744)

A A typical progression for regaining strength following injury begins with isometric exercise until the muscle can be fully contracted, followed by active isotonic contraction, then isotonic progressive-resistive exercise, and finally isokinetic exercise. Proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation strengthening techniques that use both knee and hip patterns are also effective functional strengthening techniques.

745)

B Anterior femoral glide will assist in increasing hip extension.

746)

A The superior gemellus rotates the thigh laterally or causes external rotation.

747) 748) 749) 750) 751) 752) 753) 754) 755) 756)

C F A E D B G [C, F, H, J] [C, F, G] C Ely’s test is for tightness of the rectus femoris.

757)

A Craig’s test is used to measure femoral retroversion and femoral anteversion version.

758)

B Burning is an appropriate symptom related to vascular or nerve complications.

759)

E The ingestion of contraceptives would not be a relevant question to ask during the history-taking section of the hip, groin, and pelvis assessment.

760)

E Internal hip rotation in excess of 35 degrees is characteristic of femoral anteversion.

761)

A Most hips dislocate posterior and to the acetabulum with the femoral shaft adducted and flexed.

762) 763) 764)

[A, C, F] [A, B, F] [A, E, F, I] The anterior compartment consists of the sartorius, rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius.

765)

[B, C, D, J] The posterior compartment consists of the biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus, and popliteus.

766)

C The Iliacus originates at the iliac crest 767)

E The superior gemellus inserts at the greater trochanter of the femur 768)

B The special test when you stand on one leg and then squat is the Renee test.

Student name:__________ 769)

Identify the bone that supports the anterior portion of the shoulder, keeping it free from the thoracic cage.

A) the clavicle B) the sternum C) the scapula D) the humerus E) the calcaneus

770)

Which of the following statements is true of the clavicle?

A) It lacks muscle or fat protection.

B) It is the only shoulder bone that does not join the acromion process of the scapula.

C) It serves mainly as an articulating surface for the head of the humerus.

D) It serves as a site of attachment for the ribs via the costal cartilage.

E) It connects the anterior portion of the shoulder to the thoracic cage.

771)

Which of the following statements is true of the glenohumeral joint?

A) It is extremely weak because it is surrounded by a tight, unsupported capsule.

B) It is not a true joint and is stabilized by the scapula.

C) It is an ellipsoidal joint that is the only direct connection between the upper extremity and the trunk.

D) It is a gliding articulation of the lateral end of the clavicle with the acromion process.

E) It is an enarthrodial joint in which the round head of the humerus articulates with the shallow glenoid cavity of the scapula.

772)

Which of the following bones of the shoulder complex provides the only axial skeleton attachment for the entire upper extremity?

A) the sternum B) the clavicle C) the scapula D) the humerus E) the calcaneus

773)

Which of the following statements is true of the sternum?

A) It serves as a site of attachment for the ribs via the costal cartilage.

B) It serves mainly as an articulating surface for the head of the humerus.

C) It supports the anterior portion of the shoulder, keeping it free from the thoracic cage.

D) It extends from the sternum to the tip of the shoulder, where it joins the acromion process of the scapula.

E) It serves as a site of attachment for all of the muscles that move the shoulder complex.

774)

Which of the following is a flat, triangular bone that serves mainly as an articulating surface for the head of the humerus?

A) the scapula B) the clavicle C) the sternum D) the humerus E) the talus

775)

Which of the following statements is true of the scapula?

A) It provides for the only axial skeleton attachment for the entire upper extremity.

B) It supports the anterior portion of the shoulder, keeping it free from the thoracic cage.

C) It serves as a site of attachment for many of the muscles that move the shoulder complex.

D) It provides an attachment for the clavicle at the sternoclavicular joint.

E) It serves as a site of attachment for the ribs via the costal cartilage.

776)

At what location of the clavicle is it more susceptible to fracture?

A) lateral end, acromioclavicular joint B) medial end, sternoclavicular joint C) lateral one-third, flattened shape D) middle one-third, point which clavicle changes shape E) medial one-third, circular or bowed-shape

777)

What structural support attaches on the anatomical neck of the humerus?

A) articular capsule of the glenohumeral joint B) rotator cuff C) glenoid labrum D) latissimus dorsi muscle E) coracoacromial ligament

778)

Identify the test for supraspinatus muscle strength that has a patient bring his or her arm into 90 degrees of forward flexion and 30 degrees of horizontal abduction.

A) The drop arm test B) The empty can test C) The Hawkins-Kennedy test D) The clunk test E) The sulcus test

779)

780)

Which of the following statements is true of the drop arm test?

A) It is designed to determine tears of the rotator cuff, primarily of the supraspinatus muscle.

B) It requires a patient to bring his or her arm into 90 degrees of forward flexion and 30 degrees of horizontal abduction.

C) It is designed to test for glenohumeral instability.

D) It is designed to determine whether there is any displacement of the acromion process and the distal head of the clavicle.

E) It requires the forced flexion of the humerus in the overhead position.

Of the special tests for the articulations of the shoulder girdle, which one involves stress load applied and translation of the humerus is assessed in both an anterior and posterior direction?

A) Glenohumeral Translation Test B) Anterior and Posterior Drawer Test C) Sternoclavicualr Joint Instability Test D) Clunk Test E) Apprehension Test

781)

Which of the following is a step that an athletic trainer would take while performing the sulcus test on an athlete?

A) The athletic trainer should grasp the elbow of the athlete and apply traction in an inferior direction.

B) The athletic trainer should place one hand over the athlete's shoulder to stabilize the scapula.

C) The athletic trainer should grasp the humeral head of the athlete between his or her thumb and index finger.

D) The athletic trainer should apply downward pressure over the distal forearm of the athlete.

E) The athletic trainer should take the patient's radial pulse while his or her elbow is flexed to 90 degrees.

782)

Of the special tests for the articulations of the shoulder girdle, which one involves passively abducting and externally rotating the arm with an anterior force applied to the humeral head?

A) Load and Shift Test B) Anterior Drawer Test C) Sternoclavicualr Joint Instability Test D) Clunk Test E) Crank Test

783)

Which of the following is a test for biceps tendon irritation that is performed with a patient in a seated position with the hands clasped behind the head?

A) Roo's test B) Neer's test C) Yergason's test D) Ludington's test E) Speed's test

784)

In the history section of a shoulder assessment, what would be considered an inappropriate question to ask the patient?

A) What is your professional occupation?

B) Is there a weakness or a sense of fatigue with the arm?

C) Have you ever had this injury before?

D) Do you think this is related to a possible heart attack?

E) Is there a distortion in temperature such as a cold or warm feeling?

785)

In the observation section of a shoulder assessment, what would be difficult to observe without performing a special test?

A) symmetrical height of the acromion B) laxity of the joint capsule C) kyphosis, lordosis, or scoliosis D) sprengel’s deformity E) winged scapula

786)

Which of the following structures would be unable to be palpated?

A) subscapular fossa B) bicipital groove C) scapula spine D) serratus anterior E) rotator cuff tendons

787)

In the following video, what special test is being performed for the shoulder?

A) Neer’s Impingement Test B) C) D) E)

Speed’s Test Sulcus Test Acromioclavicular Joint Instability Test O’Brien’s Test

788)

Which of the following videos is an inappropriate special test to perform if shoulder impingement is suspected?

A) B) C) D) E)

789)

In the prevention of a shoulder injury, what could be done to prevent athletes from falling with an outstretched arm?

A) Add a cowboy collar for a football player.

B) Fit a figure-eight brace for a volleyball player.

C) Teach the soccer player to fall backwards.

D) Instruct a baseball player to make a fist when sliding.

E) Demonstrate a shoulder front roll for a ballerina.

790)

791)

What ligament along with the acromion forms the coracoacromial arch?

A) anterior sternoclavicular ligament B) coracoacromial ligament C) coracoclavicular ligament D) superior glenohumeral ligament E) middle glenohumeral ligament

What is an incorrect statement about the muscles that produce movement of the scapula on the thorax to help maintain the position of the glenoid relative to the humerus?

A) The serratus anterior abducts and downwardly rotates the scapula.

B) The middle trapezius adducts the scapula.

C) The lower trapezius adducts and depresses the scapula.

D) The upper trapezius elevates the scapula.

E) The levator scapula elevates the scapula.

792)

What is the CORRECT title of the highlighted peripheral nerve?

A) B) C) D) E)

pectoral nerve dorsal scapular nerve axillary nerve radial nerve suprascapular nerve

793)

What is the CORRECT title of the highlighted peripheral nerve?

A) B) C) D) E)

pectoral nerve posterior scapular nerve axillary nerve radial nerve suprascapular nerve

794)

What is the CORRECT title of the highlighted peripheral nerve?

A) B) C) D) E)

pectoral nerve (medial and lateral) dorsal scapular nerve (posterior) axillary nerve musculocutaneous nerve suprascapular nerve

795)

What is the CORRECT title of the highlighted peripheral nerve?

A) B) C) D) E)

pectoral nerve dorsal scapular nerve axillary nerve musculocutaneous nerve suprascapular nerve

796)

What is the CORRECT title of the highlighted peripheral nerve?

A) B) C) D) E)

797)

pectoral nerve dorsal scapular nerve axillary nerve musculocutaneous nerve suprascapular nerve

Select only the muscles that are being stretched in this video.

A) pectoralis major B) supraspinatus C) teres major D) anterior deltoid E) latissimus dorsi F) infraspinatus G) teres minor H) posterior deltoid I) deltoid (middle) J) subscapularis K) coracobrachialis

798)

Select only the muscles that are being stretched in this video.

A) pectoralis major B) supraspinatus C) teres major D) anterior deltoid E) latissimus dorsi F) infraspinatus G) teres minor H) posterior deltoid I) deltoid J) subscapularis K) coracobrachialis

799)

Select only the muscles that are being stretched in this video.

A) pectoralis major B) supraspinatus C) teres major D) anterior deltoid E) latissimus dorsi F) infraspinatus G) teres minor H) posterior deltoid I) deltoid J) subscapularis K) coracobrachialis

800)

Which of the following injuries is managed with the use of immobilization with a figureeight brace?

A) a scapular fracture B) a clavicular fracture C) a humeral fracture D) a sternoclavicular sprain E) an acromioclavicular sprain

801)

What additional structure could be compromised with a fracture of the humerus?

A) rotator cuff B) median nerve C) radial nerve D) clavicle bone E) brachial plexus

802)

Which of the following injuries has an etiology of indirect force transmitted through the humerus of the shoulder joint by direct violence such as a blow that strikes a poorly padded clavicle?

A) scapular fracture B) clavicular fracture C) humeral fracture D) sternoclavicular sprain E) acromioclavicular sprain

803)

If a patient exhibits posterior separation of the clavicle with complete disruption of the acromioclavicular ligament, what grade sprain was sustained?

A) grade 2 B) grade 3 C) grade 4 D) grade 5 E) grade 6

804)

Which of the following statements is true of a Bankart lesion?

A) It is an anterior defect on the labrum.

B) It is a defect found on the posterior lateral aspect of the humeral head.

C) It is caused by the compression of the cancellous bone of the head of the humerus against the anterior glenoid rim.

D) It is caused by an injury to the superior aspect of the labrum.

E) It is created by a divot in the humeral head.

805)

What type of shoulder condition affects the attachment of the long head of the biceps to the superior labrum?

A) a Bankart lesion B) a SLAP lesion C) a Hill-Sachs lesion D) a rotator cuff tear E) a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion

806)

The acronym GIRD stands for which of the following?

A) Glenoid internal retract downward B) Getting internal restricts dips C) Glenohumeral in restrictive devices D) Glenohumeral internal rotation deficit E) Glenoid internally rotates downward

807)

If a patient were suffering from thoracic outlet syndrome, which of the following symptoms is not inapplicable?

A) pain B) paresthesia C) muscles hypertrophy D) radial nerve palsy E) a sensation of cold

808)

Upon viewing an MRI it is noted that the patient has an anterior defect on the labrum.

What is this defect called?

A) a Bankart lesion B) a SLAP lesion C) a Hill-Sachs lesion D) a rotator cuff tear E) a reverse Hill-Sachs lesion

809)

What muscle or muscle group is responsible for decelerating the humerus in the deceleration phase of throwing?

A) internal rotators of the rotator cuff B) external rotators of the rotator cuff C) rhomboids D) shoulder flexors E) shoulder extensors

810)

During what phase of throwing are both shoulders adducted, externally rotated and horizontally abducted?

A) windup B) cocking C) acceleration D) deceleration E) follow-through

811)

What is the clinical premise for completing a Subjective Shoulder Scale Assessment?

A) to establish patient quality of dermatomes B) to establish patient range of motion C) to establish patient efficiency of myotomes D) to establish patient pain and function E) to establish patient mental and emotional status

812)

What direction is the acromion process forced with an acromioclavicular joint sprain?

A) upward and anterior B) downward, backward, and inward C) upward, backward, and outward D) downward, forward, and inward E) downward and posterior

813)

Please check all of the therapeutic exercises that would be appropriate for a person who is in the repair phase of an anterior glenohumeral dislocation.

A) B) C) D) E) F) G)

814)

Which of the following activities would be the best strengthening exercise to perform for an individual who is suffering from posterior instability?

A) B) C) D) E)

815)

Which of the following therapeutic exercises could be used if a patient was diagnosed with a shoulder impingement?

A) B) C) D) E)

816)

What joint mobilization technique would be the most appropriate for a person suffering from shoulder impingement?

A) B) C) D) E)

817)

Which of the following activities/exercises should be avoided for a person who is suffering from frozen shoulder?

A) B) C) D) E)

818)

If a patient is suffering from bicipital tenosynovitis, which of the following stretching activities would be the best for them to perform?

A) B) C) D) E)

819)

A baseball pitcher suffered an anterior shoulder subluxation last season and is returning as the starting pitcher this season. During what phase of throwing would concerned be the greatest of a re-injury?

A) windup B) cocking C) acceleration D) deceleration E) follow-through

820)

A patient has been instructed by the attending physician to wear a sling. Which of the following exercises would be appropriate for the patient to perform?

A) B) C) D) E)

821)

What is the name of the exercise for the shoulder being performed in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

shoulder sawing bent over rows Codman’s pendulum T-bar exercises shoulder shifts

822)

The exercise being performed in the video is good for increasing what motion(s) of the glenohumeral joint?

A) B) C) D) E)

shoulder flexion shoulder extension and abduction shoulder flexion and abduction shoulder adduction and flexion shoulder extension and adduction

823)

The exercise being performed in the video is best for strengthening which of the following shoulder complex structures?

A) B) C) D) E)

shoulder flexors shoulder extensors scapular stabilizers shoulder internal rotators shoulder external rotators

824)

The exercise being performed in the video is best for strengthening which of the following shoulder girdle muscles?

A) B) C) D) E)

biceps triceps pectoralis major pectoralis major and triceps pectoralis major and biceps

825)

Which of the following videos demonstrates a functional activity for the shoulder that should be mastered by a soccer midfielder before they return to play?

A) B) C) D) E)

826)

Which shoulder joint movement is described as a downward movement of the humerus toward the midline of the body in the plane of the scapula?

A) abduction B) adduction C) internal rotation D) external rotation E) extension

827)

What special test is being demonstrate in this picture?

A) B) C) D) E)

sulcus test load and shift sternoclavicular compression test clunk test O’Brien

828)

What does this special test check for?

A) B) C) D) E)

829)

shoulder impingement subscapularis tear bicep tendon tear bicep tendon impingement AC joint injury

What muscle would be torn in this diagram?

A) B) C) D) E)

biceps Brachii triceps subscapularis coracobrachialis anterior Deltoid

Answer Key Test name: chapter 22 769)

A The clavicle is a slender bone approximately 6 inches long. It supports the anterior portion of the shoulder, keeping it free from the thoracic cage.

770)

A The clavicle lies superficially with no muscle or fat protection. The clavicle supports the anterior portion of the shoulder, keeping it free from the thoracic cage.

771)

E The glenohumeral joint is an enarthrodial joint in which the round head of the humerus articulates with the shallow glenoid cavity of the scapula. It is also known as the shoulder joint.

772)

A The sternum, also referred to as the breastbone, is divided into three parts: the manubrium, the body, and the xiphoid process. It provides an attachment for the clavicle at the sternoclavicular joint, which is the only axial skeleton attachment for the entire upper extremity.

773)

A The sternum serves as a site of attachment for the ribs via the costal cartilage. It is also referred to as the breastbone.

774)

A The scapula is a flat, triangular bone that serves mainly as an articulating surface for the head of the humerus. It is located on the dorsal aspect of the thorax and has three prominent projections: the spine, the acromion, and the coracoid process.

775)

C The scapula serves as a site of attachment for many of the muscles that move the shoulder complex. The scapula is a flat, triangular bone that serves mainly as an articulating surface for the head of the humerus.

776)

D The point at which the clavicle changes shape and contour presents a structural weakness, and the largest number of fractures to the bone occur at this point.

777)

A

Circumscribing the humeral head is a slight groove called the anatomical neck, which is the attachment for the articular capsule of the glenohumeral joint.

778)

B The empty can test for supraspinatus muscle strength has a patient bring his or her arm into 90 degrees of forward flexion and 30 degrees of horizontal abduction. In this position, the arm is internally rotated as far as possible, thumb pointing downward.

779)

A The drop arm test is designed to determine tears of the rotator cuff, primarily of the supraspinatus muscle. The patient abducts the arm as far as possible and then slowly lowers it to 90 degrees.

780)

A The Glenohumeral Translation Test, or Load and Shift Test, will assess the amount of translation but also provide an idea of adequacy of the glenoid lip.

781)

A In the sulcus test, an athletic trainer should grasp the elbow of the athlete and apply traction in an inferior direction. With excessive inferior translation, a depression occurs just below the acromion.

782)

D The Clunk Test involves the patient being supine so that a force may be applied to experience a “clunk” which would be indicative of a tear in the glenoid labrum.

783)

D Ludington's test is performed with a patient in a seated position with the hands clasped behind the head. The biceps muscles are alternately contracted and relaxed.

784)

D Where a question of general medical conditions is important, the manner of the question is leading and a premature subject matter to address with an initial assessment.

785)

B It would be difficult to assess laxity of the joint capsule without performing a ligamentous/capsular stress test at the glenohumeral joint.

786)

A

The subscapular fossa cannot be palpated because it is an underlying structure to the subscapularis and other superficial muscles that lie on the anterior chest wall.

787)

E O’Brien’s Test, or Active Compression Test, will present with pain when the humerus is internally rotated but decreases in external rotation.

788)

C Speed’s test is for biceps tendon irritation and may indicate a tear of the transverse ligament and cause subluxation of the tendon.

789)

E Performing a shoulder roll is a safer way to absorb the shock of the fall. It should not be instructed to catch oneself with an outstretched arm.

790)

B The coracoacromial ligament connects the coracoid to the acromion and along with acromion forms the coracoacromial arch.

791)

A The serratus anterior abducts and upwardly rotates the scapula.

792) 793) 794) 795) 796) 797) 798) 799) 800)

D B A C E [A, C, E, K] [C, E, H] [B, F, G, H] B A clavicular fracture can be stabilized by applying a sling and swathe bandage and by treating the patient for possible shock.

801)

C The radial nerve encircles the humeral shaft and could be severed by jagged bone edges resulting in radial nerve paralysis, causing wrist drop and the inability to perform forearm supination.

802)

D

Depending on the direction of force, the medial end of the clavicle can be displaced upward and forward, slightly anteriorly.

803)

C A grade 4 acromioclavicular ligament sprain is characterized by posterior separation of the clavicle with complete disruption of the acromioclavicular ligament.

804)

A A detached labrum and capsule can produce a permanent anterior defect on the labrum called a Bankart lesion. A moderately frequent occurrence resulting from instability in primary and recurrent dislocations would be a bony Bankart lesion.

805)

B A SLAP lesion can affects the attachment of the long head of the biceps to the superior labrum.

806)

D GIRD is often seen in swimmers and throwers and stands for glenohumeral internal rotation deficit.

807)

C A person who has thoracic outlet syndrome would suffer from muscle atrophy, not muscle hypertrophy.

808)

A A Bankart lesion is usually slow, and the detached labrum and capsule can produce a permanent anterior defect on the labrum.

809)

B The external rotators of the rotator cuff contract eccentrically during the deceleration phase to decelerate the humerus.

810)

A During the windup phase of throwing both shoulders are adducted, externally rotated and horizontally abducted.

811)

D This assessment is both patient-and physician-derived and used for outcomes assessment in patients with shoulder instability, rotator cuff disease, and glenohumeral arthritis.

812)

B

The acromion process is forced downward, backward and inward with an acromioclavicular joint sprain.

813) 814)

[A, B, E, F] B An individual who is suffering from posterior instability should focus on strengthening the external rotators of the shoulder.

815)

C This is the only activity demonstrated that was not over head.

816)

C Posterior and inferior glenohumeral joint mobilizations should be done to reduce tightness in the posterior and inferior joint capsule when a person is suffering from shoulder impingement.

817)

E A person who is suffering from a frozen shoulder should focus on relieving the pain through the use of modalities, stretching tight muscles and increasing range of motion using joint mobilizations.

818)

B The video demonstrates an appropriate stretch of the biceps brachii which needs to be stretched when a person is suffering from bicipital tenosynovitis.

819)

C This is the phase when maximum external rotation occurs.

820)

A Isometric exercises can be utilized to maintain strength when immobilization is necessary.

821)

C Codman’s pendulums are being demonstrated and may begin immediately after injury to work on range of motion.

822)

C Shoulder flexion and abduction can be increased by performing wall climbs or rope-and-pulley exercises.

823)

C Y, W, T exercises on a physioball are best for strengthening scapular stabilizers.

824)

D A bench press is done to strengthen the pectoralis major and triceps.

825)

B The video demonstrates a soccer throw, which is a functional activity that a soccer midfielder would use.

826)

B Shoulder adduction is moving the humerus toward the midline of the body in the scapular plane.

827)

A The sulcus test is used to check for multidirectional instability.

828)

B The lift off test is positive if a patient is unable to lift the hand posteriorly off the back. This is positive for a subscapularis tear.

829)

A The biceps brachii is torn in this diagram.

Student name:__________ 830)

Which of the following articulations is unable to assist in elbow function?

A) humeroulnar joint B) humeroradial joint C) radiocarpal joint D) proximal radioulnar joint E) distal radioulnar joint

831)

What structure(s) reinforce the elbow capsule?

A) brachialis muscle B) ulnar and radial collateral ligaments C) triceps brachii muscle D) anconeus muscle E) annular ligament

832)

The bicipital bursa cushions the bicep tendon when the forearm is A) pronated.

B) supinated.

C) flexed.

D) extended.

E) externally rotated.

833)

In which of the following movements is the highlighted structure in the given figure of major importance?

A) B) C) D) E)

forceful extension-pronation movement forceful extension-supination movement forceful extension movement forceful flexion-supination movement forceful flexion-pronation movement

834)

A military officer has come into the clinic in which you are employed and is looking to return to active duty following an elbow injury. Please check all of the exercises that would be appropriately classified as functional activities for this person.

A) B) C) D) E)

835)

In the history section of an elbow assessment, what would be considered an inappropriate question to ask the patient?

A) Is the pain contributed to a sudden injury or overuse?

B) Is there any movement that makes the pain better or worse?

C) Do you have any cuts on your arm?

D) Is there a feeling of locking or catching?

E) What is your dominant arm/hand?

836)

During the assessment of an elbow, which of the following would be considered unobservable?

A) Is an isosceles triangle formed posteriorly?

B) Has the carrying angle of the elbow joint abnormally increased?

C) What is the range of motion of the elbow?

D) Has the carrying angle of the elbow joint abnormally decreased?

E) Is the patient double-jointed? Is the length of the patient’s arms from the elbows to the fingers uneven?

837)

Which of the following body structures is a medial soft tissue that should be palpated in order to assess an elbow injury?

A) the pronator teres B) the radial collateral ligament C) the annular ligament D) the triceps E) the ulnar nerve

838)

The elbow-extension test requires patients to: A) flex their shoulders to 90 degrees and then fully extend and lock both elbows.

B) extend an elbow and pinch it with the fingers of the other hand.

C) extend their arms while an athletic trainer resists forearm pronation.

D) extend their arms while an athletic trainer rotates their forearm.

E) flex their shoulders and then pinch their thumbs and index fingers together.

839)

In the following video, what structure of the elbow is being assessed?

A) B) C) D) E)

840)

In the following video, what structure of the elbow is being assessed?

A) B) C) D) E)

841)

radial nerve ulnar nerve median nerve radial collateral ligament ulnar collateral ligament

radial nerve ulnar nerve median nerve medial collateral ligament ulnar collateral ligament

Which of the following conditions would be incorrect if a patient complained of pain along the medial aspect of the elbow?

A) ulnar collateral ligament sprain B) ulnar nerve entrapment C) golfer’s elbow D) Little League elbow E) tennis elbow

842)

A middle school tennis player comes to you complaining of sudden pain and locking in the elbow joint. They also have swelling, pain, and crepitation. What could be wrong with this athlete?

A) elbow osteochondritis dissecans B) medial epicondylitis C) Little League elbow D) cubital tunnel syndrome E) Volkmann’s contracture

843)

Which of the following is another name for elbow osteochondritis dissecans?

A) Little League elbow B) Golfer's elbow C) Tennis elbow D) Panner’s disease E) throwers elbow

844)

Which of the following incorrectly describes Little League elbow?

A) An accelerated apophyseal growth region plus a delay in the medial epicondylar growth plate.

B) An avulsion of the lateral epicondyle C) Osteochondrosis of the humeral capitulum D) A nonunion stress fracture of the olecranon epiphysis E) A traction apophysitis with a possible fragmentation of the medial epicondylar apophysis

845)

Which of the following is incorrectly listed as a factor that can lead to cubital tunnel syndrome?

A) traction injury from a valgus force B) irregularities within the tunnel C) subluxation of the ulnar nerve because of a lax ligament D) progressive compression of the ligament on the nerve E) fracture of the olecranon

846)

Which of the following statements is true of ulnar collateral ligament injury?

A) It mostly occurs during actions such as a forehand stroke in tennis.

B) It is mostly accompanied by severe swelling and can even lead to malignant formations.

C) It invariably leads to the rupture of the ligament.

D) It is usually managed by the application of a cold compress for one hour.

E) It is invariably accompanied by point tenderness in the myotendinous junction.

847)

Which of the following statements is true of olecranon bursitis?

A) It can be managed by applying a cold compress for at least 15 minutes.

B) It is relieved by a program of conservative treatment primarily involving compression.

C) It invariably leads to serious health consequences such as the development of malignant tumors.

D) Cryotherapy is mostly unsuccessful in relieving or managing chronic olecranon bursitis.

E) It is invariably accompanied by extreme pain and heat.

848)

In the following image of the elbow, which of the following injuries has been sustained?

A) B) C) D) E)

849)

elbow subluxation elbow fracture posterior elbow dislocation anterior elbow dislocation radial/ulnar dislocation

If a patient suffers an elbow dislocation, what nerve(s) can be compromised?

A) median B) ulnar C) musculocutaneous D) median and ulnar E) median, ulnar, and musculocutaneous

850)

A softball catcher complains of loss of motor function of her fingers and sensory loss in her forearm. Her fingers are also beginning to form a contracture. She had an elbow dislocation 3 weeks ago. What is probably wrong with this athlete?

A) brachial plexus injury B) Volkmann’s contracture C) carpal tunnel syndrome D) olecranon fracture E) rupture of the extensor muscles of the wrist

851)

What condition is illustrated in the following image of the elbow?

A) B) C) D) E)

852)

olecranon contusion capsular tear olecranon bursitis ligament sprain infection

Please check all of the injuries that can be caused by falling on an outstretch hand.

A) cubital tunnel syndrome B) medial epicondylitis C) fracture of the elbow D) dislocation of the elbow E) Volkmann’s contracture F) pronator teres syndrome G) olecranon bursitis

853)

Please check all of the therapeutic exercises that should be done in the acute injury phase of a posterior elbow dislocation.

A) B) C) D) E) F) G)

854)

Please check all the characteristics of this exercise used to regain elbow extension following an injury.

A) B) C) D) E)

855)

It involves low force.

It is of relatively long duration.

It fully extends the elbow.

It forces the joint.

It is done quickly.

The humeroradial inferior glide is utilized to increase which of the following?

A) elbow flexion B) elbow extension C) elbow pronation D) elbow flexion and extension E) elbow flexion, extension, and pronation

856)

What is the primary muscle of the elbow that is being concentrically strengthened in this video?

A) B) C) D) E)

biceps brachii triceps brachii brachioradialis brachialis coracobrachialis

857)

In the context of the rehabilitation of the elbow, the initial stage of strength exercises should include A) pronation and supination exercises.

B) manual resistance exercises.

C) isokinetic exercises.

D) subpainful submaximal isometric exercises.

E) neutral foot strike exercises.

858)

Which of the following would be an inappropriate body structure to palpate during the palpation section of the elbow?

A) anconeus muscle B) annular ligament C) wrist flexor muscle mass D) joint capsule E) radial head

859)

What artery does the subclavian become?

A) deep brachial B) ulnar recurrent C) brachial D) ulnar E) axillary

860)

Please check all of the muscles that are innervated by the radial nerve.

A) brachialis B) brachioradialis C) triceps brachii D) pronator teres E) flexor carpi ulnaris F) supinator

861)

Please check all of the statements that are TRUE regarding the one-arm hop test.

A) There is a 3-minute break between the testing for each upper extremity.

B) From a push-up position you hop with 1 arm onto a 10.2 cm step and back on to the floor.

C) You perform 2 up-down repetitions.

D) You check both the dominant and non-dominant side.

E) You time how long it takes you to perfom the up-downs.

F) The one-arm hop test may be useful as a basis for comparing performance of an injured contralateral upper extremity.

G) Perform 5 up down repetitions.

H) From a standing position you drop down and do a push up.

862)

Please check all of the types of sports where medial epicondylitis is common: A) Javelin throw B) Baseball C) Swimming D) Golf E) Judo F) Lacrosse

863)

Please select the factors that most commonly lead to cubital tunnel syndrome.

A) traction injury from a valgus torque B) subluxation of the radial nerve because of a lax ligament C) irregularities within the tunnel D) traction injury from a varus force E) excessive hyperextension of the elbow F) subluxation of the ulnar nerve because of a lax ligament G) progressive compression of the ligament on the nerve H) olecranon bursitis

864)

What artery is involved in a Volkmann’s contracture?

A) radial B) ulnar C) brachial D) axillary E) subclavian

865)

The pinch grip test is checks for A) entrapment of the anterior interosseous.

B) pronator teres deficiency.

C) entrapment of the ulnar nerve.

D) ulnar collateral ligament tear.

E) entrapment of radial nerve.

866)

What condition is noted in this picture?

A) FOOSH B) Volkmann’s contracture C) Bishop’s finger D) dislocated fingers E) fractured forearm

867)

Cozen test can be utilized to check for what problem?

A) medial epicondylitis B) lateral epicondylitis C) bursitis D) lateral collateral ligament tear E) fractured olecranon

Answer Key Test name: chapter 23 830)

C The radiocarpal joint does not have an influence with the elbow functioning.

831)

B The capsule of the elbow, both anteriorly and posteriorly, is relatively thin and is covered by the brachialis muscle in front and the triceps brachii behind. The capsule is reinforced by the ulnar and radial collateral ligaments.

832)

A The bicipital bursa lies in the anterior aspect of the bicipital tuberosity and cushions the biceps tendon when the forearm is pronated.

833)

D The ulnar collateral ligament is of major importance in activities that produce forceful flexionsupination movements. This ligament plays a key role in maintaining elbow stability against valgus torque.

834) 835)

[A, B, D] C Observation of the integrity of the skin and other signs is more appropriate for the observation section of the assessment.

836)

E The length of both the arms is immaterial to elbow assessment. The carrying angle, the range of motion, and the formation of an isosceles triangle when the elbow is bent to a 45-degree angle and observed from the rear are all points of observation during the assessment of an elbow.

837)

E The ulnar nerve is a medial soft tissue that should be palpated in order to assess an elbow injury.

The radial collateral and annular ligaments are laterally placed soft tissues. Triceps are posteriorly located soft tissues, and the pronator teres is an anteriorly placed soft tissue.

838)

A

The elbow-extension test requires patients to flex their shoulders to 90 degrees and then fully extend and lock both elbows. The injured and uninjured sides are compared and those with equal extension are recorded as full extension. In a positive test, the patient is unable to fully straighten the elbow.

839)

D A varus stress test checks for sprain or instability of the lateral, or radial collateral ligament.

840)

B Tinel’s sign is designed to determine ulnar nerve compromise.

841)

E Tennis elbow is associated with pain along the lateral aspect of the elbow.

842)

A All of these are signs and symptoms of elbow osteochondritis dissecans.

843)

D Elbow osteochondritis dissecans is referred to as Panner’s disease in children under age 10 years.

844)

B Little League elbow is described by an avulsion of the medial epicondyle.

845)

E A fracture of the olecranon is not a factor that can lead to cubital tunnel syndrome.

846)

A The ulnar collateral ligament is mostly injured as a result of repetitive valgus loading on the elbow. This occurs during actions such as a forehand stroke in tennis.

847)

B Olecranon bursitis occurs when the olecranon bursa of the elbow is inflamed and produces severe swelling, pain, and tenderness. A program of conservative treatment primarily involving compression relieves chronic olecranon bursitis. Follow-up management of olecranon bursitis may include cryotherapy, ultrasound, and rehabilitative exercises.

848)

C The figure demonstrates a posterior elbow dislocation.

849)

D

Injury to the median and ulnar nerve often occurs in an elbow dislocation.

850)

B The signs and symptoms are consistent with a Volkmann’s contracture.

851)

C The inflamed bursa produces pain, severe swelling, and point tenderness and will sometimes appear spontaneously and without usual pain and heat.

852) 853) 854)

[C, D] [C, D] [A, B, C] The exercise must avoid forcing the joint, so it is done slowly with low force to fully extend the elbow and maintain that position.

855)

D Humeroradial inferior glides are used to increase flexion and extension of the elbow and increase the joint space.

856)

A The video demonstrates the biceps brachii being strengthened by performing a barbell curl.

857)

D In the context of the rehabilitation of the elbow, the initial stage of strengthening exercises should include subpainful submaximal isometric exercises. After the elbow has regained some range of motion, the first consideration should be restoration of normal range of movement.

858)

D The joint capsule itself is not palpable, however, the surrounding ligaments are.

859)

E The subclavian artery becomes an axillary artery and then the brachial artery whose branches supply the elbow.

860) 861) 862) 863) 864)

[B, C, F] [B, D, E, F] [A, B, D] [A, C, F, G] C

Volkmann’s contracture is a type of forearm ischemic contracture resulting from a brachial artery injury.

865)

A An inability to touch the thumb and index finger indicates entrapment of the anterior interosseous nerve between the two heads of the pronator muscle.

866)

B A Volkmann’s contracture has the wrist flexed and involvement of the muscles in the forearm that flex and extend the fingers.

867)

A Cozen test is used to check for medical epicondylitis.

Student name:__________ 868)

869)

Which of the following statements is true of the middle radioulnar joint?

A) It is an enarthrodial joint that is covered by a thin, fibrous capsule.

B) It is a pivot joint that moves in a ring formed by the ulna and the annular ligament.

C) It is held together by an oblique ligamentous cord and the interosseous membrane.

D) It is a pivot joint formed by the articulation of the head of the ulna with a small notch on the radius.

E) It is held securely by the anterior and posterior radioulnar ligaments.

Which of the following cords is a small band of ligamentous fibers that are attached to the lateral side of the ulna and pass downward and laterally to the radius?

A) the oblique cord B) the posterior cord C) the medial cord D) the lateral cord E) the thoracodorsal cord

870)

Which of the following nerves controls the majority of extensor muscles?

A) the median nerve B) the axillary nerve C) the ulnar nerve D) the radial nerve E) the subscapular nerve

871)

Which of the following nerves enters the palm of the hand through the carpal tunnel and supplies three of the four thenar muscles?

A) the median nerve B) the radial nerve C) the ulnar nerve D) the thoracodorsal nerve E) the subclavian nerve

872)

Which of the following nerves supplies most of the flexor muscles of the forearm with the exception of the flexor carpi ulnaris and half of the flexor digitorum profundus?

A) the radial nerve B) the median nerve C) the subclavian nerve D) the ulnar nerve E) the thoracodorsal nerve

873)

Which of the following statements is true of the superior radioulnar joint?

A) It is a false joint that is enclosed in a thin, fibrous capsule.

B) It is held securely by the posterior and anterior radioulnar ligaments.

C) It is a gliding articulation that is separated by a fibrocartilaginous disk.

D) It is a pivot joint that moves in a ring formed by the ulna and the annular ligament.

E) It is held together by an oblique ligamentous cord and the interosseous membrane.

874)

What joint classification is the first carpometacarpal joint?

A) the saddle joint B) the arthrodial joint C) the ellipsoid joint D) the hinge joint E) the flail joint

875)

Which of the following is a thenar muscle that pulls the thumb in front of the palm to meet the little finger?

A) the adductor pollicis B) the opponens pollicis C) the palmar interossei D) the dorsal interossei E) the palmaris brevis

876)

How many articulations does the forearm have?

A) one, the middle radioulnar joint between the shafts of the ulna and radius B) two, the middle radioulnar joint and distal radioulnar joint.

C) three, the middle radioulnar joint, distal and superior radioulnar joint D) four, the middle radioulnar joint, distal and superior radioulnar joint, and humeroulnar joint E) five, the middle radioulnar joint, distal and superior radioulnar joint, humeroulnar joint, and humeroradial joint

877)

Which of the following is a test for carpal tunnel syndrome?

A) Speed's test B) Yergason's test C) Ludington's test D) Neer's test E) Phalen's test

878)

Which of the following tests is used to determine the function of the radial and ulnar arteries supplying the hand?

A) Speed's test B) Yergason's test C) Allen's test D) Phalen's test E) Neer's test

879)

What other injury can the forearm sustain that is much less common than in the lower leg?

A) high ligament sprain B) stress fracture C) trigger points D) chronic exertional compartment syndrome E) muscular strains

880)

881)

Which of the following deformities is caused by a palsy of the radial nerve?

A) Benediction deformity B) Bishop's deformity C) claw hand deformity D) ape hand deformity E) drop wrist deformity

Which of the following conditions will occur when a person consistently performs wrist flexion activities?

A) tendinitis of the flexor digitorum profundus B) tendinitis of the abductor pollicis brevis C) tendinitis of the flexor carpi ulnaris D) tendinitis of the palmaris longus E) tendinitis of the flexor figitorum superficialis

882)

If a patient is suffering from the problem noted in the figure of the hand, which nerve would be damaged?

A) B) C) D) E)

the ulnar nerve the radial nerve the median nerve the axillary nerve the musculocutaneous nerve

883)

What etiology is accurate to the cause of carpal tunnel syndrome?

A) repetitive wrist flexion B) repetitive wrist extension C) repetitive radial deviation D) repetitive ulnar deviation E) repetitive supination

884)

Hoffman’s disease is another name for which of the following?

A) Kienbock’s disease B) deQuervain’s disease C) wrist ganglion D) mallet finger E) triangular fibrocartilage complex injury

885)

What carpal bone is the most likely to dislocate?

A) scaphoid B) lunate C) hamate D) trapezium E) pisiform

886)

What is the most commonly fractured carpal bone?

A) scaphoid B) lunate C) hamate D) trapezium E) pisiform

887)

What motion would cause pain and be indicative of a scaphoid fracture?

A) Downward pressure on the thumb B) Upward pressure on the thumb C) Radial flexion D) Upward pressure on the thumb and radial flexion E) Downward pressure on the thumb and radial flexion

888)

Mallet finger is an injury to which of the following structures?

A) extensor tendon avulsion B) flexor tendon avulsion C) extensor tendon strain D) flexor tendon strain E) subluxation of the flexor tendon

889)

If a person presents with a boutonniere deformity, what was the mechanism of injury?

A) DIP is forced into extension and the PIP is forced into flexion B) DIP and PIP are forced into extension C) DIP and PIP are forced into flexion D) DIP is forced into flexion and the PIP is forced into extension E) DIP has no injury and the PIP is forced into flexion

890)

The figure of the wrist, hand, and fingers demonstrates which of the following conditions?

A) B) C) D) E)

boutonniere deformity mallet finger Dupuytren’s contracture trigger finger Gamekeeper's thumb

If a patient complains of pain and swelling over the 5th metacarpal, what type of fracture may have occurred?

A) Bennett’s fracture B) distal phalangeal fracture C) middle phalangeal fracture D) proximal phalangeal fracture E) boxer’s fracture

891)

892)

The diagram represents a taping technique for the wrist, hand, and fingers that could be used for which of the following problems?

A) B) C) D) E)

tenosynovitis wrist sprain nerve compression nerve entrapment carpal tunnel

893)

If a patient is suffering from the problem noted in the figure of the hand, which nerves would be damaged?

A) B) C) D) E)

894)

ulnar nerve and radial nerve radial nerve and median nerve median nerve and ulnar nerve ulnar nerve and musculocutaneous nerve musculocutaneous nerve and median nerve

A tennis player has severe pain near the base of her fourth and fifth metacarpals after accidentally hitting her racket on the court after diving for a ball. What could possibly be the problem?

A) a scaphoid fracture B) a lunate dislocation C) a hamate fracture D) carpal tunnel E) nerve entrapment

895)

Select the symptoms that are related to the injury of the forearm, wrist, hand, and fingers.

Forearm Contusion A) pain B) ecchymosis C) hematoma D) swelling E) muscular weakness F) tenderness G) disability H) crepitus I) deformity J) hot to touch

896)

Select the symptoms that are related to the injury of the forearm, wrist, hand, and fingers.

Forearm Splints A) pain B) ecchymosis C) hematoma D) swelling E) muscular weakness F) tenderness G) disability H) crepitus I) deformity

897)

Select the symptoms that are related to the injury of the forearm, wrist, hand, and fingers.

Forearm Fractures A) pain B) ecchymosis C) hematoma D) swelling E) muscular weakness F) tenderness G) disability H) crepitus I) deformity

898)

Select the symptoms that are related to the injury of the forearm, wrist, hand, and fingers.

Colles’ Fracture A) pain B) ecchymosis C) hematoma D) swelling E) muscular weakness F) tenderness G) disability H) crepitus I) deformity

899)

If a patient complains of pain and swelling over the thumb, what type of fracture may have occurred?

A) Bennett’s fracture B) distal phalangeal fracture C) middle phalangeal fracture D) proximal phalangeal fracture E) boxer’s fracture

900)

The video demonstrates radiocarpal joint anterior glides. These are used to increase what motion?

A) B) C) D) E)

wrist flexion wrist extension wrist flexion and extension radial deviation ulnar deviation

901)

The video demonstrates exercises that should be used to accomplish which of the following?

A) B) C) D) E)

902)

increase range of motion increase grip strength regain opposition regain wrist strength return to activity

What group of muscles is being stretched in this video?

A) B) C) D) E)

pronators supinators pronators and supinators wrist flexors wrist extensors

903)

The video demonstrates an exercise that would be useful for a person suffering from which of the following problems?

A) B) C) D) E)

carpal tunnel syndrome triangular fibrocartilage complex a wrist sprain radial nerve entrapment lunate dislocation

904)

The video demonstrates concentric and eccentric strengthening for which of the following muscles?

A) B) C) D) E)

flexor carpi ulnaris flexor pollicus longus flexor carpi radialis extensor digiti minimi pronator teres

905)

Which of the following would be an inappropriate body structure to palpate during the palpation section of the forearm?

A) olecranon process B) lumbrical muscles C) extensor retinaculum D) pronator quadrates muscle E) radial artery

906)

Where is the triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) located in the wrist and hand?

A) It is interposed between the head of the ulna and the triquetral bone.

B) It is the opening of the carpal tunnel that allows structures to pass through to the hand.

C) It is interposed between the trapezoid and the scaphoid bones of the carpal region.

D) It is the tunnel under the extensor retinaculum that allows structures to pass through to the hand. th E) It is interposed between the5 Fifth metacarpal phalangeal base and the pisiform bone.

907)

The radiocarpal joint is a condyloid joint. What does this mean?

A) A condyloid joint is an articulation between two irregular-shaped bones.

B) A condyloid joint is an articulation that allows movement around two axis.

C) A condyloid joint is an articulation that allows gliding.

D) A condyloid joint is an articulation that allows movements except axial rotation.

E) A condyloid joint is an articulation that is connected by fibrous tissue.

908)

What joint classification is the first carpometacarpal joint?

A) saddle joint B) arthrodial joint C) ellipsoid joint D) hinge joint E) flail joint

909)

What nerve can become compressed in the carpal tunnel?

A) radial nerve B) median nerve C) ulnar nerve D) musculocutaneous nerve E) posterior antebrachial cutaneous nerve

910)

Please check all of the mechanisms of injury that can cause a triangular fibrocartilage complex (TFCC) injury.

A) violent twist or torque of the wrist B) hyperflexion of the wrist C) falling on an outstretched hand D) repetitive ulnar deviation E) repetitive radial deviation F) crushing of the wrist by a helmet, ball, etc

911)

What will be a sign or symptom of tenosynovitis as compared to tendinitis?

A) pain with passive stretching B) isometric exercises produce pain C) isometric exercises produce weakness D) isometric exercises produce pain and weakness E) tenderness and pain over the tendon

912)

If a patient is suffering from Bishop’s hand, what nerve has been damaged?

A) ulnar nerve B) radial nerve C) median nerve D) axillary nerve E) musculocutaneous nerve

913)

What problem or condition is noted in this figure of the wrist, hand, and finger?

A) B) C) D) E)

914)

a hamate fracture a wrist ganglion a dislocated lunate triangular fibrocartilage complex injury Colle’s fracture

A rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus is also referred to as which of the following?

A) boutinniere deformity B) mallet finger C) jersey finger D) trigger finger E) Gamekeeper's thumb

915)

Select only the appropriate steps that may be taken when releasing blood from beneath a fingernail.

A) First, coat the injured finger with antifungal cream once the hole is created.

B) Provide open wound follow-up care.

C) Use a high-temperature cautery while using moderate pressure to melt through the nail to the site of the bleeding.

D) Use a needle that has been sanitized by a burning flame.

E) First, coat the injured finger with antibiotic cream once the hole is created.

F) Use a small gauge drill to penetrate the injured nail, using a rotary action.

916)

What rehabilitation technique is the patient doing in the two figures to address the median and radial nerve?

A) B) C) D) E)

917)

levator scapulae static stretches active release therapy neural tension / flossing stretches positional release therapy sternocleidomastoid dynamic stretches

What is the only clinical prediction rule used for the hand?

A) deQuervains for tenosynovitis B) scapholunate dislocation C) triangular fibrocartilage complex injury D) carpal tunnel syndrome E) hook of the hamate fracture

918)

The insertion of the palmaris longus is at the A) palmar aponeurosis B) base of the5stfifth metatacarpal C) base of the 1st metacarpal D) pisiform E) dorsal surface of the thumb

919)

What muscle flexes the wrist and the phalanges?

A) flexor carpi ulnaris B) palmaris longus C) flexor digitorum superficialis D) pronator quadratus E) flexor carpi radialis

920)

What is the special test to check for deQuervain’s syndrome?

A) Finkelstein’s B) Valgus stress test C) Varus Stress test D) Phalen’s test E) Tinel’s sign

921)

What anatomical structure is located in this area?

A) B) C) D) E)

the hook of the hamate the schapoid the lunate the trapezoid the radius

Answer Key Test name: chapter 24 868)

C The middle radioulnar joint is held together by an oblique ligamentous cord and the interosseous membrane. The oblique cord is a small band of ligamentous fibers that are attached to the lateral side of the ulna and pass downward and laterally to the radius.

869)

A The oblique cord is a small band of ligamentous fibers that are attached to the lateral side of the ulna and pass downward and laterally to the radius. The middle radioulnar joint, which is the junction between the shafts of the ulna and the radius, is held together by an oblique ligamentous cord and the interosseous membrane.

870)

D The majority of the extensor muscles are controlled by the radial nerve. Except for the flexor carpi ulnaris and half of the flexor digitorum profundus, most of the flexor muscles of the forearm are supplied by the median nerve.

871)

A The median nerve enters the palm of the hand through the carpal tunnel. The median nerve supplies three of the four thenar muscles, and the radial two lumbricals and the ulnar nerve supply the rest of the instrinsic muscles of the hand.

872)

B The median nerve supplies most of the flexor muscles of the forearm with the exception of the flexor carpi ulnaris and half of the flexor digitorum profundus. The major blood supply to the forearm stems from the brachial artery.

873)

D The forearm has three articulations: the superior, middle, and distal radioulnar joints.

874)

A The thumb varies slightly at its carpometacarpal joint and is classified as a saddle joint that allows rotation on its long axis in addition to the other metacarpophalangeal movements.

875)

B The opponens pollicis is a thenar muscle that pulls the thumb in front of the palm to meet the little finger. Three thenar muscles act on the thumb.

876)

C The forearm has three articulations: the superior, middle, and distal radioulnar joints.

877)

E Phalen's test is used to diagnose carpal tunnel syndrome. In Phalen’s test, the patient is instructed to flex both wrists as far as possible and press them together. This position is held for approximately 1 minute.

878)

C Allen’s test is used to determine the function of the radial and ulnar arteries supplying the hand.

The patient is instructed to squeeze the hand tightly into a fist and then open it fully three or four times. While the patient is holding the last fist, the athletic trainer places firm pressure over each artery. The patient is then instructed to open the hand. The palm should now be blanched. One of the arteries is then released; if normal, the hand will instantly become red. The same process is repeated with the other artery. The hand is next evaluated for sensation alterations, especially in cases of suspected tunnel impingements. Nerve involvements will be further evaluated when active and resistive movements are initiated.

879)

D The forearm can also sustain an acute or chronic exertional compartment syndrome, although this condition is much less common than in the lower leg.

880)

E A palsy of the radial nerve produces a drop wrist deformity, which is caused by paralysis of the extensor muscles such that the wrist and fingers cannot be extended. Palsy of the median nerve can cause an ape hand, in which the thumb is pulled backward in line with the other fingers by the extensor muscles.

881)

C A person who performs repetitive wrist flexion activities will most likely suffer from tendinitis of the flexor carpi ulnaris or the flexor carpi radialis.

882)

C Palsy of the median nerve can result in ape hand.

883)

A Repetitive wrist flexion can cause carpal tunnel syndrome.

884)

B Hoffman’s disease is another name for deQuervain’s disease.

885)

B A dislocation of the lunate is considered the most common dislocation of a carpal bone.

886)

A A fracture of the scaphoid is considered the most common fracture of a carpal bone.

887)

D Upward pressure exerted on the thumb and radial flexion are indicative of a scaphoid fracture.

888)

A Mallet finger is an avulsion of the extensor tendon from its insertion along with a piece of bone.

889)

A Boutonniere deformity occurs when the DIP is forced into extension and the PIP is forced into flexion.

890)

C Dupuytren’s contracture is a flexor deformity of the ring finger and its cause is unknown.

891)

E A Boxer’s fracture occurs in the fifth metacarpal.

892)

B A wrist sprain can benefit by taping the injury.

893)

C Claw hand results from compression of the median and ulnar nerves.

894)

C Based on the location of the pain and the mechanism of injury, it is likely that they have suffered a fracture of the hamate.

895) 896) 897) 898) 899)

[A, B, C, D, F] [A, E, F] [A, B, D, E, F, G, H, I] [A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I] A A Bennett’s fracture occurs in the first metacarpal just distal to the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb as the result of an axial and abduction force to the thumb.

900)

B

Radiocarpal joint anterior glides increase wrist extension.

901)

B Regaining grip strength is done by the activities demonstrated in the video.

902)

E Wrist extensors are being stretched in this video.

903)

C Wrist rolls will strengthen both the flexors and extensors of the wrist.

904)

C Radial deviation is being demonstrated and can be caused by the flexor carpi radialis.

905)

B The lumbricals are intrinsic muscles located in the hand.

906)

A The concave surfaces of the lower ends of the radius and the ulna articulate with the convex surfaces of the first row of carpal bones, with the exception of the pisiform, which articulates with the TFCC interposed between the head of the ulna and the triquetral bone.

907)

D The radiocarpal joint is a condyloid joint and permits flexion, extension, abduction, and circumduction.

908)

A The thumb varies slightly at its carpometacarpal joint and is classified as a saddle joint that allows rotation on its long axis in addition to the other metacarpophalangeal movements.

909)

B The transverse carpal ligament serves as the roof of the carpal tunnel, in which the median nerve is often compressed.

910) 911)

[A, C] E A major complaint of a person who is suffering from tenosynovitis is tenderness and pain over the tendon. This will not be a sign or symptom that a person suffering from tendinitis will have.

912)

A

Damage to the ulnar nerve can result in Bishop's or Benediction deformity.

913)

B The figure demonstrated a wrist ganglion.

914)

C A rupture of the flexor digitorum profundus is often referred to as Jersey finger.

915) 916)

[B, C, E, F] C If a patient is experiencing neural signs, such as tingling, numbness, or pain, stretching to relieve neural tension in the median and radial nerves reduces those symptoms.

917)

D Carpal tunnel syndrome is the one established clinical prediction rule that identifies patients who likely have CTS based on specific patient characteristics.

918) 919) 920) 921)

A C A A

Student name:__________ 922)

What characteristic is wrong about the atlas vertebra?

A) It sits below the axis vertebra.

B) It has no body or spinous process.

C) Its lateral masses are connected to the anterior and posterior arches.

D) Its arches create a large enough opening to allow the medulla of the spinal cord to pass through.

E) Its upper surfaces articulate with the occipital condyles.

923)

What section of the spine is known as false vertebrae?

A) ribs 9-12 B) sacrum and coccyx C) L1-L5 D) the atlas and axis E) scapulae

924)

The sacroiliac is the junction formed by the sacrum and the __________.

A) ilium B) iliacus C) iliac D) intervertebral E) inferior

925)

What is the correct numerical order for the three different divisions of the movable vertebrae, respectively – cervical, thoracic, lumbar?

A) 2, 12, 4 B) 4, 10, 5 C) 6, 11, 6 D) 7, 12, 5 E) 8, 12, 4

926)

What structure formed by the ilia anteriorly meeting and has an interarticular disk with a synovium and is lubricated by synovial fluid?

A) The iliopsoas B) The annulus fibrosus C) The coccyx D) The pubis symphysis E) The nucleus pulposus

927)

What statement is true of the movements of the lumbar region of the vertebral column?

A) It allows limited rotation.

B) It restricts flexion but allows ample rotation.

C) It hardly allows any extension.

D) It allows ample lateral flexion.

E) It allows ample rotation but restricts extension.

928)

A major ligament that joins the various vertebral structures is the __________.

A) Coccygeal B) Sacrospinous C) Sacrotuberous D) Interspinous E) Plantaris

929)

What structure contains the longissimus column of muscles?

A) the erector spinae B) the semispinalis capitis C) the splenius cervicis D) the splenius capitus E) the gluteus maximus

930)

What percentage value of flexion occurs at the lumbosacral junction (L5-S1)?

A) 5% B) 10% C) 15% D) 20% E) 75%

931)

How many pairs of the spinal nerves extend from the sides of the spinal cord?

A) 24 pairs B) 28 pairs C) 29 pairs D) 31 pairs E) 33 pairs

932)

What statement about spinal nerves and the peripheral branches is wrong?

A) The sacral plexus is comprised of L4 – S4.

B) A dermatome is the area of cutaneous sensory distribution.

C) A myotome is a muscle innvervated by a single specific spinal nerve.

D) The brachial plexus is comprised of C7 – T1.

E) A plexus is a network of nerves.

933)

In the history section of a spine assessment, what would be considered an INAPPROPRIATE question to ask the patient?

A) Did you hit someone with, or land directly on, the top of your head?

B) How do you prefer to sit?

C) Do you have radicular paraesthesia down the extremities?

D) Is there any pain in your buttocks or the back of the legs?

E) Do you have a low level of pain?

934)

In the observation section of the assessment of the spine, what is considered an appropriate action to perform?

A) The entire body should be observed only from the lateral angle.

B) Special attention should be paid to the low back, pelvis, and hips.

C) Use of a posture screen should be avoided.

D) Special devices should be used even by trained observers with good background in postural observation.

E) All postural asymmetries should be considered.

935)

What would be an INAPPROPRIATE body structure to palpate during the palpation section of the cervical spine?

A) space between the lumbar spinous processes B) facet joints C) abdominal musculature D) sacrum E) anterior superior iliac spines

936)

Bakody's sign is associated with what special test?

A) Spurling's test.

B) Gaenslen's test.

C) Patrick test.

D) Shoulder abduction test.

E) Bowstring test.

937)

In the video, what would be indicative if the special test for the cervical spine resulted in a positive finding?

A) intrathecal pressure B) cervical vertebral artery is being partially occluded because of some abnormal

compression C) trauma to the brachial plexus D) impingement of a nerve root E) nerve root compression or herniated disk

938)

In the video, what is the purpose of the special test for the lumbar spine?

A) B) C) D) E)

to observe symmetry of lumbar movement to increase the pain (to painful side) or indicate presence of a herniated disk to reproduce pain with possible indication of spondylolysis to observe synced motion of the PSISs on each side to detect an increase in nerve root tension, or neural tension

939)

If the special test of the spine demonstrated in the video is positive, what could possibly be wrong with the patient?

A) B) C) D) E)

940)

herniated disc hypomobile vertebral segment L4 nerve root irritation posteriorly rotated SI joint hypermobile vertebral segment

What is the name of the special test of the spine being performed in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

press up test spring test posterior rotation stress test SI compression test slump test

941)

What special test associate with the spine is demonstrated in the figure?

A) B) C) D) E)

942)

sacral compression sacral distraction anterior/posterior rotation FABER test milgram test

What video demonstrates the piriformis muscle test?

A) B) C) D) E)

943)

What video demonstrates a special test where pain may be provoked in the contralateral PSIS area, indicating an SI problem?

A) B) C) D) E)

944)

Select the structure(s) of the spine that is/are being assessed in the lumbar spine special test video.

A) nerve root B) disk involvement C) intrathecal pressure D) sciatic nerve E) sacroiliac joint F) spinal column/vertebrae G) patient malingering H) lumbar pathology

945)

Select the structure(s) of the spine that is/are being assessed in the lumbar spine special test video.

A) nerve root B) disk involvement C) intrathecal pressure D) sciatic nerve E) sacroiliac joint F) spinal column/vertebrae G) patient malingering H) lumbar pathology

946)

Select the structure(s) of the spine that is/are being assessed in the lumbar spine special test video.

A) nerve root B) disk involvement C) intrathecal pressure D) sciatic nerve E) sacroiliac joint F) spinal column/vertebrae G) patient malingering H) lumbar pathology

947)

Select the involved structure(s) of the spine that is/are being assessed in the lumbar spine special test video.

A) nerve root B) disk involvement C) intrathecal pressure D) sciatic nerve E) sacroiliac joint F) spinal column/vertebrae G) patient malingering H) lumbar pathology

948)

Select the structure(s) of the spine that is/are being assessed in the lumbar spine special test video.

A) nerve root B) disk involvement C) intrathecal pressure D) sciatic nerve E) sacroiliac joint F) spinal column/vertebrae G) patient malingering H) lumbar pathology

949)

Select the structure(s) of the spine that is/are being assessed in the lumbar spine special test video.

A) nerve root B) disk involvement C) intrathecal pressure D) sciatic nerve E) sacroiliac joint F) spinal column/vertebrae G) patient malingering H) lumbar pathology

950)

Please check all of the special tests that can be performed to check for SI joint dysfunction in a patient.

A) stork test B) SI joint compression C) pelvic tilt D) iliotibial band stretch test E) SI joint distraction F) bowstring test G) straight leg raising 30–60 degrees H) FABER/Patrick test I) straight leg raising 70–90 degrees

951)

Please check all of the special tests demonstrated in the figures that can be performed to check for a herniated disc in a patient.

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

F)

G)

952)

What are the anatomical malalignments of the spine and other involved structures in this figure?

A) kyphotic position that causes compensatory position of the head and neck B) an abnormal curvature in one direction and a compensatory secondary curve in the

opposite direction C) increase in both the anterior tilt of the pelvis and in hip flexion D) posterior shift of the thoracic segment and anterior shifting of the entire pelvis E) increased thoracic curve and protracted scapulae producing a rounded shoulder appearance

953)

In an occupational educational program for the prevention of spine injuries, what would be one of the most important factors to address?

A) proper body mechanics B) maintenance of a strength program C) daily stretching D) regulation of health diet E) minimizing stressor

954)

In the context of cervical disk injuries, what action is most likely to facilitate a stable, safe, and pain-free cervical posture during strenuous activity?

A) asking the patient to perform isotonic exercises B) administering cryotherapy C) asking the patient to perform range of motion (ROM) exercises D) asking the patient to perform isometric exercises E) instructing the patient on the importance of maintaining a neutral spine

955)

What would differentiate a cervical dislocation from a cervical fracture?

A) a cervical fracture would have a significant amount of pain, while the cervical dislocation would not.

B) a cervical dislocation would have a significant amount of pain, while the cervical fracture would not.

C) a cervical dislocation would involve the neck to be tilted toward the dislocated side with extreme muscle tightness, while the cervical fracture would not.

D) a cervical fracture would involve the neck to be tilted toward the dislocated side with extreme muscle tightness, while the cervical dislocation would not.

E) numbness would occur in a cervical fracture, whereas it would not occur in a cervical dislocation.

956)

A football player complains of tenderness to the transverse and spinous processes of the neck that appeared the day following a game. What could be wrong with this player?

A) cervical dislocation B) cervical sprain C) acute torticollis D) nerve root injury E) cervical spine stenosis

957)

What is caused by an injury to one side of the spinal cord that results in loss of motor function, touch, vibration, and position sense on one side of the body?

A) central cord lesion B) anterior cord lesion C) posterior cord lesion D) brown-sequard lesion E) central cord syndrome

958)

What is caused by hemorrhage or ischemia in the central portion of the cord and results in complete quadriplegia with nonspecific sensory loss in sexual as well as bowel-bladder dysfunction?

A) central cord lesion B) anterior cord lesion C) posterior cord lesion D) brown-sequard lesion E) central cord syndrome

959)

Brachial plexus neuropraxia occurs when the neck is __________.

A) forced laterally to the opposite side while the shoulder is depressed B) flexed while the shoulder is depressed C) extended while the shoulder is depressed D) forced laterally to the opposite side while the shoulder is elevated E) flexed while the shoulder is elevated

960)

If at the end of a physically active day a young patient complains of a backache and tight hamstrings and he has a noticeable kyphosis of the thoracic spine and lumbar lordosis, what is the suspect condition?

A) low back muscle strain B) lumbar vertebrae fracture C) lumbar vertebrae dislocation D) scheuermann’s disease E) lumbar contusion

961)

Hyperflexion of the trunk or falling from a height and landing on the feet or buttocks could cause what?

A) hairline fracture B) compression fracture C) lower lumbar dislocation D) fracture of the transverse process E) fracture of the spinous process

962)

Pain in the low back that is created in active extension and passive flexion is indicative of what?

A) myofascial pain syndrome B) back contusion C) sciatica D) low back muscle strain E) lumbar vertebrae dislocation

963)

When addressing myofascial pain syndrome, the piriformis is an important muscle to address because of its close proximity to what nerve?

A) sciatic nerve B) femoral nerve C) tibial nerve D) superficial peroneal nerve E) deep peroneal nerve

964)

Spondylolisthesis most likely occurs at what vertebral segment?

A) L2-L3 B) L3-L4 C) L4-L5 D) L5-S1 E) S1-S2

965)

Spondylolisthesis is considered to be a complication of what?

A) herniated disc B) spondylolysis C) sacroiliac joint dysfunction D) lumbosacral strain E) coccyx injury

966)

If a person has pain that increases after activity and is hesitant to perform forward bending, what could be wrong?

A) spondylolysis B) spondylolisthesis C) herniated disc D) either spondylolysis or spondylolisthesis E) spondylolysis, spondylolisthesis, or a herniated disc

967)

A track athlete suffers from pain running up and down hills and notices that the pain radiates into the anterior thigh. Based on the signs and symptoms, he is most likely suffering from what?

A) sacroiliac sprain B) coccyx injury C) herniated disc D) spondylolysis E) spondylolisthesis

968)

969)

What statement is true of back pain?

A) Adolescents have a 70%–80% incidence of back pain before the age of 20 years.

B) People aged between 20 and 30 years are more prone to developing chronic low back pain than others.

C) Males are more likely to suffer from low back pain than females.

D) Recurrent low back pain is caused exclusively by nerve root compression.

E) Recurrent low back pain is rare, following an episode of low back pain.

An athlete who has previously suffered from brachial plexus neuropraxia and wishes to return to full activity must definitely have a negative __________.

A) Spurling's test.

B) Patrick test.

C) Gillet test.

D) Slump test.

E) Bowstring test.

970)

In the video, what back muscle is being addressed with the myofascial release technique?

A) B) C) D) E)

quadratus lumborum piriformis spine extensors tensor fascia latae hamstring muscles

971)

The back stretch demonstrated in the video would be most effective for a person who is suffering from what?

A) B) C) D) E)

back contusion sciatica herniated lumbar disk spondylolysis spondylolisthesis

972)

If a patient complains of morning pain when doing the activity in the video, what could be wrong?

A) B) C) D) E)

spondylolysis spondylolisthesis SI joint dysfunction herniated disc sciatica

973)

The techniques demonstrated in this video can be used when a patient suffers from what spine injury?

A) B) C) D) E)

decreased neck flexion decreased neck extension decreased neck rotation pain and stiffness general decreased range of motion

974)

What muscle of the spine is being stretched in this video?

A) B) C) D) E)

975)

scalenes trapezius sternocleidomastoid splenius capitis cervicis interspinales

What is the name of the lateral neck stretching technique demonstrated in the video?

A) B) C) D) E)

Billig procedure McKenzie procedure Maitland procedure Paris procedure Saal procedure

976)

In the context of the treatment for a small protrusion of the nucleus pulposus, how often is traction usually applied to a patient?

A) once a day for a week B) twice a day for a week C) daily, five times per week, for two weeks D) twice a day for two weeks E) three times a day until pain is relieved

977)

What is the main goal of the joint mobilization for the spine that is performed in this video?

A) B) C) D) E)

to increase space between transverse processes to decrease space of the intervetebral foramen to reduce pain and guarding around the sacroiliac joint to increase mobility of the individual vertebrae to correct a postural asymmetry

978)

Select the muscle(s) that is being stretched in the video.

A) B) C) D) E) F)

979)

the back extensors the neural tissues of the upper spine the hip adductors the hamstring muscles the hip flexors the trunk extensors

Select the structure(s) that is being stretched in the video.

A) B) C) D) E) F)

the back extensors the neural tissues of the upper spine the hip adductors the hamstring muscles the hip flexors the trunk extensors

980)

What factors should be considered in a rehabilitation program for a patient suffering from low back pain?

A) workplace environment B) eating habits C) any previous thoracic injury that may have been sustained D) any previous cervical injury that may have been sustained E) any previous sacral injury that may have been sustained

981)

An abdominal brace or "drawing in" maneuver similar to a posterior tilt of the pelvis, which flattens the lumbar curve, is caused by a simultaneous co-contraction of the transversus abdominus and __________ muscles.

A) longissimus B) spinalis C) cervicis D) multifidus E) iliocostalis

982)

A person is suffering from a lumbosacral strain and needs to perform various rehabilitation exercises. Please identify which phase of healing is appropriate for the rehabilitative exercise indicated.

A) the acute injury tissue healing phase B) the repair tissue healing phase C) the remodeling tissue healing phase

983)

A person is suffering from a lumbosacral strain and needs to perform various rehabilitation exercises. Please identify which phase of tissue healing is appropriate for the demonstrated rehabilitative exercise.

A) the acute injury phase B) the repair phase C) the remodeling phase

984)

A person is suffering from a lumbosacral strain and needs to perform various rehabilitation exercises. Please identify which phase of tissue healing is appropriate for the demonstrated rehabilitative exercise.

A) the acute injury phase B) the repair phase C) the remodeling phase

985)

A person is suffering from a lumbosacral strain and needs to perform various rehabilitation exercises. Please identify which phase of tissue healing is appropriate for the demonstrated rehabilitative exercise.

A) the acute injury phase B) the repair phase C) the remodeling phase

986)

A person is suffering from a lumbosacral strain and needs to perform various rehabilitation exercises. Please identify which phase of tissue healing is appropriate for the demonstrated rehabilitative exercise.

A) the acute phase B) the repair phase C) the remodeling phase

987)

Please check all of the muscles that are innervated by the ulnar nerve.

A) flexor digiti minimi B) pronator teres C) flexor pollicis longus D) biceps brachii E) abductor digiti minimi F) coracobrachialis

988)

Please check all actions that could cause back anomalies.

A) excessive length of the transverse process of the first lumbar vertebrae B) incomplete closure of the neural arch C) nonconformities of the transverse arch D) atypical lumbosacral angles E) complete closures of the vertebral laminae

989)

Please check all of the muscles that are innervated by the femoral nerve.

A) psoas major B) adductor brevis C) sartorius D) gracilis E) vastus lateralis F) biceps femoris

990)

In the observation section of a spine assessment, what would be considered a wrong action to perform?

A) Does the patient have PEARL pupils?

B) Is the patient willing to move the head and neck freely?

C) Does the midline of the posterior spine create a symmetrical division?

D) Is one shoulder lower than the other?

E) Patient’s head carry?

991)

What should be ruled out before performing any special tests of the cervical spine?

A) prior injury to the injured body part B) prior injury to a related body part C) direct trauma to either the vertebrae or spinal cord D) radicular pain into the distal extremities E) missing dermatomal sensations

992)

At what level of the vertebral column is a cervical fracture most likely to occur?

A) C6 B) C4 C) C5 D) C4 or C5 E) C4, C5, or C6

993)

For what pathology would the FADDIR test be used?

A) SI joint irritation B) lumbar strain C) SI joint dysfunction D) nerve root irritation E) piriformis injury

Answer Key Test name: chapter 25 922)

A The atlas, named for its function of supporting the head, is the first cervical vertebra and sits on the axis, or C2.

923)

B The spine, or vertebral columns, is composed of 39 individual bones, in which 24 are movable, or true, and nine are classified as immovable, or false.

924)

A The sacrum articulates with the ilium to form the sacroiliac joint.

925)

D The first division comprises the seven cervical vertebrae; the second, the twelve thoracic vertebrae; and the third, the five lumbar vertebrae.

926)

D The ilia meet anteriorly to form the pubis symphysis which has an interarticular disk with a synovium and is lubricated by synovial fluid. The sacrum articulates with the ilia to form two sacroiliac joints posteriorly.

927)

A The lumbar region of the vertebral column allows limited rotation. It also allows flexion, extension, and limited lateral flexion.

928)

D A major ligament that joins the various vertebral structures is the interspinous ligament. Other such ligaments are the anterior longitudinal, the posterior longitudinal, the supraspinous, and the ligamentum flavum, which are important stablizers of the spine.

929)

A The erector spinae are a group of paired muscles that consist of three columns, or bands. These bands are the iliocostalis, the longissimus, and the spinalis.

930)

E Seventy-five percent of flexion occurs at the lumbosacral junction (L5-S1), whereas 15 percent to 20 percent occurs between L4 and L5.

931)

D Thirty-one pairs of the spinal nerves consist of eight cervical, twelve thoracic, five lumbar, five sacral, and one coccygeal.

932)

D The brachial plexus is comprised of spinal nerve roots C5 – T1.

933)

C Using medical terms like “radicular paraesthesia” is inappropriate and could be difficult for the patient to understand when trying to create a patient history of an initial assessment.

934)

B In the observation section of the assessment of the spine, special attention should be paid to the low back, pelvis, and hips. The entire body should be observed from all angles. To ensure accuracy of observation, a plumb line or posture screen may be used.

935)

E Palpation the anterior superior iliac spines (ASIS) is not necessary for the cervical spine, but it is used as an alignment landmark when performing a postural assessment of the anterior body.

936)

D A positive shoulder abduction test used to assess the cervical spine is known as Bakody's sign. In this test, the patient abducts the shoulder by placing the hand on top of the head.

937)

B When performing the vertebral artery test, if the patient becomes dizzy or experiences nystagmus it is considered a positive finding and should be referred to a physician.

938)

A When performing a lumbar lateral rotation, the pelvis should not move during the rotation and there should be symmetry in the movement of the lumbar spine.

939)

C The reverse straight leg raise test can be performed to check for a L4 nerve root irritation.

940)

B The spring test is when a downward pressure is applied through the spinous process of each vertabra to assess anterior/posterior motion.

941)

A

The figure demonstrates sacral compression, which is indicative of a sacral joint irritation or sprain.

942)

E The piriformis muscle test is demonstrated in the video.

943)

D The iliotibial band stretch test can provoke pain in the contralateral PSIS area, indicating an SI problem.

944) 945) 946) 947) 948) 949) 950) 951) 952)

[A, B, H] [B, C] [G] [A, D] [E] [A, B] [B, E, H, I] [B, C, E] D The image illustrates a swayback posture with a decrease in lordosis in the lumbar spine and an increase in kyphosis in the thoracic spine.

953)

A Addressing and being conscience of proper body mechanics will prove to be a significant reducer of occupational injuries to the spine.

954)

E Cervical disk injuries can be managed by instructing the patient on the importance of maintaining a neutral spine. Initial treatment involves rest and immobilization of the neck to decrease discomfort.

955)

C The most easily discernible difference between a cervical dislocation and a cervical fracture is that in a cervical dislocation, the neck would be tilted toward the dislocated side along with extreme muscle tightness.

956)

B A cervical sprain may not display pain initially but always appears the day after trauma.

Tenderness will be over the transverse and spinous process.

957)

D

A brown-sequard lesion is caused by an injury to one side of the spinal cord that results in loss of motor function, touch, vibration, and position sense on one side of the body.

958)

E Central cord syndrome is caused by hemorrhage or ischemia in the central portion of the cord and results in complete quadriplegia with nonspecific sensory loss in sexual as well as bowelbladder dysfunction.

959)

A The mechanism of injury for a brachial plexus neurapraxia is forced laterally to the opposite side while the shoulder is depressed.

960)

D The signs and symptoms of Scheuermann’s disease are noticeable kyphosis of the thoracic spine, lumbar lordosis, and back pain at the end of a physical day.

961)

B Hyperflexion of the trunk or falling from a height and landing on your feet or buttocks could cause a compression fracture.

962)

D Pain in the low back that is created in active extension and passive flexion is indicative of a low back muscle strain.

963)

A The sciatic nerve either pierces or runs above or below the piriformis. A trigger point could negatively affect the sciatic nerve.

964)

C Spondylolisthesis most likely occurs at L4-L5 and is often referred to as a step deformity.

965)

B Spondylolisthesis is considered to be a complication of spondylolysis.

966)

D A person suffering from spondylolysis or spondylolisthesis may have pain that increases after activity and often they are hesitant to perform forward bending.

967)

A

The athlete will have pain running up and down hills and pain often radiates into their anterior thigh with a sacrioiliac sprain.

968)

A Adolescents have a 70%–80% incidence of back pain before the age of 20 years.Following an episode of low back pain, it is likely that a patient will have further recurrent episodes of pain.Females are more likely to suffer from low back pain than males.

969)

A An athlete who has previously suffered from brachial plexus neuropraxia and wishes to return to full activity must have a negative Spurling's test. The athlete should also have full cervical and shoulder range of motion (ROM) and the strength to be able to return to play, since there can be associated shoulder weakness due to the nerve irritation.

970)

A The video demonstrate the quadratus lumborum being released, which originates on the twelfth rib and the transverse processes of L1 through L4.

971)

B Stretching the piriformis can assist in relieving pain caused by sciatica.

972)

D A herniated disc will cause pain when side bending and the patient's pain will be worse in the morning.

973)

D Cervical side bending mobilizations treat pain and stiffness where there is some resistance to side bending.

974)

C The sternocleidomastoid is being stretched in this video.

975)

A The video demonstrates the lateral neck flexors being stretched.

976)

C Traction is usually applied daily (five times per week) for two weeks.

977)

A

Lumbar lateral distractions are done in order to reduce pain associated with some compression of a spinal nerve. This can be done by increasing the space between the transverse processes.

978) 979) 980)

A B A The workplace environment of patients suffering from low back pain is to be considered in a rehabilitation program. Other factors that are to be considered in rehabilitation are any previous lumbar injury that the patient may have sustained, psychosocial issues, fitness level, and training goals.

981)

D An abdominal brace or "drawing in" maneuver similar to a posterior tilt of the pelvis, which flattens the lumbar curve, is caused by a simultaneous co-contraction of the transversus abdominus and multifidus muscles. This is done to maintain a "corset" control of the lumbar spine.

982) 983) 984) 985) 986) 987) 988) 989) 990)

B B B A C [B, C, D, F] [B, D] [B, D, F] A Assessing papillary response to light is part of a special test section of a head and/or neck injury assessment.

991)

C Special tests for the cervical spine should not be done until trauma to either the vertebrae or the spinal cord has been ruled out.

992)

E Cervical factures are most common in C4, C5, or C6.

993)

B The FADDIR test is utilized to check for a lumbar strain.

Student name:__________ 994)

What is the most important consideration in reducing injuries to the head and surrounding area?

A) standardizing the design and quality of all helmets B) putting warning labels on all protective equipment for this area of the body C) eliminating protective headgear to reduce the athlete’s want to make contact with this part of the body D) educating in proper techniques and the dangers associated with brain injuries E) limiting contact sports to post-adolescent sporting activities

995)

Please check all the sports that are identified with a high risk for head injuries.

A) soccer B) cycling C) martial arts D) basketball E) ice hockey F) equestrian G) softball H) skiing I) gymnastics

996)

The skull is composed of how many bones?

A) 20 B) 22 C) 24 D) 26 E) 28

997)

What part of the brain coordinates all voluntary muscle activities and interprets sensory impulses in addition to controlling higher mental functions?

A) cerebrum B) cerebellum C) thalamus D) hypothalamus E) hippocampus

998)

What structure of the meningeal membranes helps contain the spinal fluid?

A) Subdural space B) Pia mater C) Arachnoid space D) Dura mater E) Subarachnoid space

999)

What testing should be included in an on-the-field neurological exam for head injury?

A) meningeal testing B) cerebellar testing C) spinal testing D) brain stem testing E) medulla oblongata testing

1000) If a patient is unconscious after sustaining a head injury, what is the best method of

removal from the playing arena?

A) spine board B) EMS C) ambulatory aid method D) manual conveyance method E) stair chair

1001) In the Balance Error Scoring System (BESS), what is the angle of hip flexion at which

the patient must maintain the contralateral limb during the single-leg stance?

A) 10 to 20 degrees B) 20 to 30 degrees C) 30 to 40 degrees D) 40 to 50 degrees E) 50 to 60 degrees

1002) What question can be asked during the history section of a head assessment to determine

antegrade amnesia?

A) Can you remember walking off the field?

B) Can you remember the score or who we played last week?

C) Can you tell me what happened to you?

D) Does your head hurt?

E) Can you move your hands and feet?

1003) In the observation section of a head assessment, what would be considered an incorrect

action to perform A) Is the patient able to determine who the opponent is?

B) Does the patient have delayed motor responses?

C) Do the patient’s eyes track smoothly?

D) Does the patient elicit a normal emotional response?

E) Is the patient’s scalp swollen or bleeding?

1004) In the case of a suspected head injury, an on-the-field neurological exam should be

performed. Which of the six major areas of the exam is missing from this list?

Cerebral testing Motor testing Cranial nerve testing Reflex testing Cerebellar testing A) oculomotor testing B) manual muscle testing C) balance testing D) sensory testing E) dermatomal testing

1005) What is an INCORRECT process to perform for a head assessment when testing the

function of the eyes?

A) checking for equal pupil sizes B) testing for blurred vision C) smooth tracking of the eyes D) reaction to light variance E) reaction to fluorescent strip

1006) What is one of the domains of the Vestibular/Ocular Motor Screening (VOMS)

assessment?

A) angle of divergence of vision B) horizontal and vertical saccades C) width of the field of vision D) blurriness of sight E) rate of dilation of pupils

1007) What is being performed for a head assessment in the following figures?

A) B) C) D) E)

balance error scoring system (BESS) Romberg test cranial nerve testing motor testing strength testing

1008) What is the most serious problem associated with skull fractures?

A) rupture of the orbital floor due to blood accumulation B) leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the ear, or Battle’s sign C) skull deformity D) severe headache and nausea E) intracranial bleeding

1009) On what account(s) have classification systems for grades of concussions been updated

and modified?

A) Updates and modifications are because of the increase of severity typically associated with sports-related concussions.

B) Updates and modifications are because loss of consciousness occurs in less than 10 percent of all concussions.

C) Updates and modifications are because amnesia is found in less than 30 percent of all concussions.

D) Updates and modifications are because the loss of unconsciousness occurs in less than 10 percent of all concussions.

E) Updates and modifications are because the Glasgow Coma Scale is outdated and not relevant to the signs and symptoms of a concussion.

1010) After sustaining a cerebral injury, what must the athlete be free of before returning to

competition?

A) tinnitus B) nystagmus C) all symptoms D) headache E) photophobia

1011) What are approved actions for home instructions for a concussion?

A) wake every three hours B) go to sleep C) use ibuprofen for headaches D) use acetaminophen for headaches E) eat a carbohydrate-rich diet F) eat a protein-rich diet G) check pupillary response with flashlight H) stay in bed I) drive a vehicle

1012) Since 2009, all 50 states passed some form of concussion legislation that minimally

stated what?

A) The athlete is allowed to return to play on the day of the injury.

B) The athlete is not allowed to return to play on the day of the injury.

C) The athlete is allowed to return to play later on the day of the injury, if asymptomatic.

D) The athlete is allowed to remain in the game if only one concussion symptom is present.

E) The athlete may return to play/practice with a nurse's medical clearance.

1013) Once a patient has sustained an initial cerebral concussion, how much greater is the

likelihood of her incurring a second one compared to an individual who has never sustained a concussion?

A) 1–2 times greater B) 2–3 times greater C) 3–6 times greater D) 6–9 times greater E) 9–12 times greater

1014) What is a marker for allowing a patient to progress with exercise testing following a

concussion?

A) heart rate B) pupillary control C) balance D) proprioception E) blood pressure

1015) What complication associated with skull fractures requires immediate hospitalization?

A) rupture of the orbital floor due to blood accumulation B) leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the ear, or Battle’s sign C) skull deformity D) severe headache and nausea E) intracranial bleeding from embedded bone fragments in the brain

1016) What are common signs and symptoms of an epidural hematoma?

A) weakness on both sides of the body B) loss of consciousness C) one pupil dilated D) sleepiness E) high blood pressure F) paralysis on opposite side of brain injury

1017) What signs and symptoms may be present with persistent symptoms after a concussion?

A) depression B) hyposensitivity to light C) anxiety D) lack of taste E) giddiness F) visual acuity

1018) What specific head injury is managed as a life-threatening emergency that must be

addressed within approximately five minutes by dramatic lifesaving measures performed in an emergency care facility?

A) cerebral concussion B) malignant brain edema syndrome C) second-impact syndrome D) scalp injury E) skull fracture

1019) With a scalp injury, what would warrant the need for a physician referral?

A) if the wound will not quit bleeding after 10 minutes B) if the wound has impacted dirt within it C) if the wound cannot be located on the scalp D) if the wound is more than ½ inch (1.25 cm) in length and 1/8 inch (0.3 cm) in depth E) if the wound is not closable with steri-strips or butterfly closures

1020) What is a self-reported symptom scale used as a tool for a clinical evaluation of a

concussion?

A) Hopkins Verbal Learning Test B) Sport Concussion Assessment Tool-6 (SCAT6) C) Graded Symptom Checklist (GSC) D) Automated Neuropsychological Assessments Metrics E) Romberg Test

1021) What is the purpose of the Sport Concussion Office Assessment Tool (SCOAT6)?

A) It is designed for patients who work in a factory.

B) It is designed for patients who work in a corporate setting.

C) It is to be used 36 hours following the injury.

D) It is to be used in a quiet, distraction-free setting.

E) It is to be used with adolescents.

1022) What specific facial injury presents with a locked-open position of the jaw, with jaw

movement being almost impossible?

A) mandibular fracture B) mandibular dislocation C) temporomandibular joint dysfunction D) maxillary fracture E) maxillary dislocation

1023) What structure is most likely to be involved in a "Lefort fracture"?

A) the chin B) the ridge of an eyebrow C) the lateral wall of an eye socket D) the mandible E) the lateral wall of the nasal cavity

1024) What is a sign of facial laceration?

A) abrupt increase in the secretion of sweat B) discrepancy in the zygomatic complex C) obvious tearing of the dermis D) swelling of the front of the face E) inflammation of the synovial capsule

1025) What structure is most often the source of hemorrhages of the nose?

A) the cribriform plate of the ethmoid B) the horizontal plate of the palatine bone C) the posterior portion of the superior concha D) the highly vascular anterior aspect of the nasal septum E) the termination of the nasolacrimal duct

1026) What is the least amount of time it takes for a septal hematoma to show up after a nasal

injury?

A) 5–10 hours B) 6–12 hours C) 8–16 hours D) 10–20 hours E) 24–72 hours

1027) What statements is correct regarding a tooth fracture?

A) An uncomplicated crown fracture requires immediate treatment by a dentist.

B) A complicated crown fracture requires immediate treatment by a dentist.

C) If a root fracture occurs, an athlete should not continue to play the game.

D) Fractured teeth always occur with a concussion.

E) An athlete can continue to play with a type of tooth fracture as long as there are no

other signs of a bone fracture or concussion.

1028) If a patient has a luxation of the tooth, what does this mean?

A) The tooth has been knock out of their mouth.

B) The tooth has been fractured.

C) The tooth is not fractured, but is very loose and has moved either forward or

backward.

D) The tooth is slightly loose.

E) The tooth is fractured and the piece that remains in the mouth is very loose.

1029) What method would be INCORRECT in trying to stop an epistaxis?

A) a piece of rolled gauze placed between the upper lip and gum B) a cold compress placed over the nose C) place pressure over the affected nostril D) tilting the head slightly back with a cold compress over the nose E) place gauze that contains tannic acid in the nostril

1030) A LeFort fracture can involve several bones, in particular, the __________.

A) maxilla B) mandible C) frontal bone D) temporal bone

1031) A patient reports after a plane trip to Hawaii complaining of nausea, vomiting, dizziness,

and extreme pain in the ear. What could be a plausible clinical diagnosis?

A) otitis externa B) otitis media C) rupture of the tympanic membrane D) pinna E) impacted cerumen

1032) What condition is present in this figure?

A) B) C) D) E)

auricular hematoma otitis externa otitis media pinna impacted cerumen

1033) What sports in collegiate and secondary schools have the highest incidences of eye

injuries?

A) women’s softball and volleyball B) women’s field hockey and basketball C) men’s football and baseball D) men’s basketball and track and field E) men’s wrestling and women’s softball

1034) What best describes a hyphema?

A) an eye infection B) a retinal detachment C) pink eye D) collection of blood within the anterior chamber E) infected eyelash follicle

1035) If a patient has swelling of the whole eyelid with itching or burning, what condition may

be present?

A) stye B) acute conjunctivitis C) rupture of the globe of the eye D) corneal abrasion E) hyphema

1036) If a patient cannot breathe and is expiring frothy blood after getting hit in the throat with

a baseball, what would most likely be the sustained injury?

A) a fracture of throat cartilage B) a fractured clavicle C) solar plexus injury D) a fracture of a rib E) a rupture of their vocal chords

1037) What bacteria causes blepharitis?

A) clostridium B) staphylococcus C) streptococcus D) enterococcus E) campylobacter

1038) If a patient is able to read line four on the shown figure, what does this result mean?

A) The patient is able to stand 20 feet away and read what a person with 20/20 vision

could read at 50 feet away.

B) The patient is able to stand 50 feet away and read what a person with 20/20 vision could read at 20 feet away.

C) The patient is able to see 50% of what a person with 20/20 vision could see.

D) The patient is able to see 30% of what a person with 20/20 vision could see.

E) The patient is four times more likely to have vision problems.

1039) Please check what could cause an epistaxis.

A) direct blow B) high humidity C) food D) allergies E) rubbing against an opposing player F) a foreign body lodged in the nose G) a sinus infection

1040) Upon reading a patient’s chart, it is reported the patient is experiencing diplopia. What

does this mean?

A) The patient is seeing flashes of light.

B) The patient is hearing high-pitched noises.

C) The patient is seeing double.

D) The patient has watery eyes.

E) The patient is having trouble hearing.

1041) What is non-related symptom for a maxillary fracture?

A) epistaxis B) malocclusion C) diplopia D) auras E) numbness in the lip

1042) Select all the sports with reported high risks of head injury.

A) boxing B) tennis C) volleyball D) gymnastics E) ice hockey F) swimming G) basketball H) cycling I) water skiing

1043) What does the King-Devick test measure?

A) the patient’s ability to rapidly respond to cognitive questions B) the patient’s ability to rapidly react to verbal commands C) the patient’s ability to rapidly perform physical agility skills D) the patient’s ability to rapidly perform concussion sideline testing E) the patient’s ability to rapidly move the eyes while reading

1044) Select all of the types of errors that are marked for a maximum error score of 10 when

using the BESS Test.

A) hands lifted off iliac crest B) hands lifted off waistline C) opening of one eye D) opening of eyes E) moving hip into > 50 degrees abduction F) moving hip into > 30 degrees abduction G) remaining out of testing position >3 seconds H) remaining out of testing position >5 seconds I) lifting forefoot or heel J) lifting toe or rocking back on heel

1045) What is malignant brain edema syndrome?

A) It occurs in the geriatric population from hyperemia.

B) It occurs in middle-aged adults due to an intracranial clot.

C) It occurs in the young population due to vascular engorgement with little or no injury

to the brain.

D) It occurs in the pre-pubescent population due to repetitive concussions.

E) It occurs in babies due to shaken baby syndrome.

1046) What factor predisposes the temporomandibular joint to instability?

A) repetitive motions B) extreme mobility C) epistaxis D) Bell’s palsy E) apnea

Answer Key Test name: chapter 26 994)

D The single most important consideration in reducing injuries to this region involves educating the athlete in 2. proper techniques for initiating contact, 3. the danger of concussive brain injury and the second impact syndrome, and 4. the danger of concussive brain injury and second-impact syndrome.

995) 996)

[A, B, C, E, F, H, I] B The skull is composed of twenty-two bones.

997)

A The cerebrum, also known as the cortex, coordinates all voluntary muscle activities and interprets sensory impulses in addition to controlling higher mental functions. It is the largest part of the brain and is divided into two hemispheres separated by a deep longitudinal fissure.

998)

E The space between the arachnoid and the pia mater, the membrane that helps contain the spinal fluid, is called the subarachnoid space.

999)

B On-the-field neurological exam for head injury consists of six major areas: cerebral testing, which assesses cognitive function; cranial nerve testing; cerebellar testing, which assesses coordination and motor function; sensory testing; reflex testing; and motor testing. Athletic trainers should administer this exam in all cases of head injuries.

1000) A

A patient who has been unconscious should be removed from the field on a spine board.

1001) B

In the Balance Error Scoring System (BESS), patients are asked to maintain the contralateral limb in 20 to 30 degrees of hip flexion and 40 to 50 degrees of knee flexion during the single-leg stance. The patient is also asked to stand quietly and as motionless as possible in the stance position, keeping the hands on the iliac crest and eyes closed.

1002) A

Antegrade amnesia refers to a loss of memory that happened after the traumatic event. A question of this nature will determine whether there is antegrade amnesia.

1003) C

Observing the patient’s eyes tracking ability would be more appropriate to perform during the special tests section of the head assessment.

1004) D

Sensory testing involves the assessment of the dermatomes.

1005) E

A fluorescent strip is used to detect a corneal abrasion and/or laceration.

1006) B

The Vestibular/Ocular Motor Screening (VOMS) assessment includes 5 domains: 5. smooth pursuit, 6. horizontal and vertical saccades, 7. near point of convergence (NPC) distance, 8. horizontal vestibular ocular reflex (VOR), and 9. visual motion sensitivity (VMS). This screening tool has been developed to identify concussed athletes by assessing eye movements. A saccade is the quick, simultaneous movement of both eyes between two or more phases of fixation in the same direction.

1007) A

The BESS involves three different stances (double, single, and tandem) that are completed twice, once while on a firm surface and once while on a 10-cm thick piece of medium-density foam for a total of six trials.

1008) E

A possible complication of a skull fracture could be from intracranial bleeding, bone fragments embedded in the brain, and/or infection.

1009) D

Several of the more recent classification systems account for other parameters (other than just amnesia and unconsciousness) such as concentration deficits, attention span difficulties, and balance and coordination problems rather than focusing on loss of consciousness and posttraumatic amnesia.

1010) C

Postconcussive may be present intermittingly, or never present after a cerebral injury is sustained. Even after postconcussive symptoms have disappeared and the patient has returned to play, there is still a danger of recurrent concussion that can produce cumulative traumatic injury to the brain.

1011) [B, D, E]

Home instructions for concussion allow for sleep, consumption of acetaminophen for headaches, rest, use an ice pack on head/neck for comfort, and eat a carbohydrate-rich diet.

1012) B

The athlete is not allowed to return to play on the day of the injury even after becoming symptom-free, in addition to must be immediately removed from even, and can only return to play with written physician clearance.

1013) C

Once a patient has sustained an initial cerebral concussion, his or her chances of incurring a second one are three to six times greater than for a patient who has never sustained a concussion.

1014) A

In general, the protocol for exercise tolerance allows for individuals to be progressively exerted until the point their symptoms are mildly exacerbated, and the heart rate at that point is used as a marker and can be reassessed over time to evaluate exercise tolerance.

1015) E

A possible complication of a skull fracture from intracranial bleeding could be bone fragments embedded in the brain, and infection.

1016) [B, C, D]

In most cases with an epidural hematoma, initially, there is a loss of consciousness, gradually symptoms will worsen such as severe head pains, dizziness, nausea, sleepiness, and dilation of one pupil that is usually on the same side as the injury.

1017) [A, C, E]

Other may include persistent headache, emotional/sleep/visual disturbances, impaired memory, lack of concentration, sadness and irritability, balance problems, nausea and vomiting, and fatigue. The related symptoms can begin immediately or within several days following the initial trauma and may last for weeks or even months before resolving.

1018) C

Second-impact syndrome is a life-threatening emergency that must be addressed within approximately 5 minutes by dramatic lifesaving measures performed in an emergency care facility.

1019) D

Wounds more than 1.25 cm in length and 0.3 cm in depth should be referred to a physician for treatment.

1020) C

The Graded Symptom Checklist (GSC) is a self-report symptom scale that the patient completes selecting any of the symptoms and recording the time of when they are present.

1021) D

The Sport Concussion Office Assessment Tool (SCOAT6) should be used following the on-thefield Sport Concussion Assessment Tool (SCAT6) in an off-field or office-based site where it is quiet, distraction-free.

1022) B

An overriding malocclusion of the teeth will also be present with a mandibular dislocation.

1023) E

A "Lefort fracture" involves the lateral wall of the nasal cavity. This type of fracture is usually only seen when severe trauma is applied to the maxilla, such as in a motor vehicle accident.

1024) C

Patients who have suffered facial lacerations feel pain, and there is substantial bleeding and obvious tearing of the epidermis, the dermis, and often the subcutaneous layer of skin. Patients should be referred to a physician for definitive care, such as suturing.

1025) D

Hemorrhages of the nose arise most often from the highly vascular anterior aspect of the nasal septum. In most situations, the nosebleed presents only a minor problem and stops spontaneously after a short period of time.

1026) E

A septal hematoma is a serious complication that occurs secondary to nasal or facial trauma and, although rare will not show up for at least 24–72 hrs after the nasal injury. The two most common symptoms are persistent low-grade pain in the septal area and persistent nasal congestion, usually more on one side than the other.

1027) E

A patient may continue to play but should seek immediate dental attention following a root fracture. If they suffer from a complicated or uncomplicated crown fracture, they can play and should seek dental attention within 24/48 hours.

1028) C

In a tooth luxation, the tooth is not fractured but is very loose and has moved either forward or backward.

1029) D

Tilting the head back will cause blood to run down the patient’s throat and could cause nausea.

1030) A

A LeFort fracture can involve several bones, in particular, the maxilla.

1031) C

Individuals traveling on an airplane and who exhibit nausea, vomiting, dizziness, and extreme pain in their ear often suffer from a ruptured tympanic membrane.

1032) A

The figure shows auricular hematoma or cauliflower ear.

1033) B

Women’s field hockey and basketball and men’s basketball and wrestling have the highest eye injury rates.

1034) D

A blunt blow to the anterior aspect of the eye can produce a hyphema, which is a collection of blood within the anterior chamber of the eye.

1035) B

The above mentioned are the signs and symptoms of acute conjunctivitis or pink eye.

1036) A

Fractures of the throat cartilage are rare, but it is possible and may be indicated by an inability to breathe and by expiring frothy blood.

1037) B

Staphylococcal bacteria is often the cause of stye and blepharitis. Blepharitis is a low-grade infection of the eyelid margins near the base of the lashes.

1038) A

If a person has 20/50 vision, it means that at 20 feet from the chart that person can read letters that a person with 20/20 vision could read from 50 feet away.

1039) [A, B, D, F, G] 1040) C

If a patient is suffering from diplopia, they are seeing double.

1041) D

Auras, which involve the visual sensation of fire or glow, are not a symptom associated with a maxillary fracture.

1042) [A, D, E, G, H] 1043) E

The King-Devick is a measure of saccadic (quick) eye movement, attention, and processing speed. It is a 2-minute, sideline assessment of rapid number naming that requires one to read a series of variably spaced single-digit numbers on 3 test cards as quickly as possible.

1044) [A, D, F, H, I] 1045) C

This condition could be resultant due to an intracranial clot, but in children there is diffuse brain swelling resulting from hyperemia or vascular engorgement with little or no injury to the brain.

1046) B

The TMJ has a high degree of mobility and because of this the stability of the joint is compromised. In addition, the bony configuration of the joint does not limit its mobility, so the muscles and ligaments provide the primary stability.

Student name:__________ 1047) What is/are the purpose(s) of the external and internal intercostal muscles located in the

thoracic and abdominal region of the body?

A) They provide lubrication to allow the lungs to slide along the thoracic cage with expiration and inspiration of the lungs.

B) The external intercostal muscles depress the rib cage; the internal intercostal muscles elevate the diaphragm.

C) The external intercostal muscles elevate the rib cage; the internal intercostal muscles depress the diaphragm.

D) The external intercostal muscles elevate the diaphragm; the intercostal muscles muscles depress the rib cage.

E) The external intercostal muscles assist with expiration; the internal intercostal muscles assist with inspiration.

1048) What is a large, dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the

abdominal cavity?

A) the masseter B) the buccinator C) the diaphragm D) the spinalis E) the thymus

1049) What statement about the heart is wrong?

A) Contraction of the chambers is referred to as diastole, and relaxation as systole.

B) The heart muscle consists of four chambers.

C) Deoxygenated blood returns from all parts of the body through the venous system.

D) The right ventricle pumps the blood through the pulmonary valve to the pulmonary

artery and into the lungs.

E) Blood is ejected past the aortic valve into the aorta, which supplies the entire body through the arterial system.

1050) Please check all the organs and/or muscles that lie completely within the thoracic ribs.

A) liver B) kidneys C) lungs D) heart E) internal intercostal muscles F) spleen G) serratus anterior H) small intestines I) pancreas J) gallbladder K) appendix

1051) Which figure below correctly shows the four sites used for auscultation of heart sounds?

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

1052) Which is the deepest of the abdominal muscles?

A) the rectus abdominis B) the quadratus lumborum C) the external obliques D) the internal obliques E) the transversus abdominis

1053) What statement is true of the kidneys?

A) The right kidney sits lower than the left kidney to allow space for the heart.

B) The lowermost surfaces of the kidneys are connected to the diaphragm by strong,

ligamentous fibers.

C) The right kidney is higher than the left because of the pressure of the diaphragm.

D) The kidneys lie anterior to the abdominal cavity.

E) The primary function of the kidneys is to filter metabolic wastes and drugs from the blood.

1054) What organ secretes bile?

A) the stomach B) the heart C) the pancreas D) the liver E) the spleen

1055) What organ produces insulin and glucagon?

A) liver B) gallbladder C) pancreas D) stomach E) adrenal glands

1056) What statement is true of the gallbladder?

A) It produces antibodies and lymphocytes for immunological function.

B) It detoxifies harmful chemicals and processes nutrients.

C) It produces insulin and glucagon.

D) It serves as a reservoir of red blood cells.

E) It serves as a storage reservoir for bile secreted from the liver.

1057) What statement is true of the spleen?

A) It serves as a storage reservoir for bile.

B) It regulates the number of red blood cells circulating in the human body.

C) It is the smallest lymphatic organ in the body.

D) It produces insulin and glucagon.

E) It absorbs and stores excess glucose and detoxifies harmful chemicals.

1058) Why are traumatic injuries to female reproductive organs rare?

A) The female reproductive organs lie deeper in the abdominal viscera than male

reproductive organs.

B) The female reproductive organs are located internally, as opposed to the male genitalia.

C) Female athletics usually do not involve full-contact activities.

D) The female reproductive organs are protected by the pelvis.

E) Female athletics usually do not involve high-collision activities.

1059) What step is the most appropriate for minimizing injuries to the thorax and abdominal

region?

A) B) C) D) E)

athletes should eat meals an hour before activity. athletes should urinate immediately before stepping onto the field. athletes should wear shoulder pads that lie just above the sternum. athletes should wear rib protectors that cover half of the thoracic cage. athletes should consume large amounts of fluids before activity.

1060) In the history section of a thorax and abdomen assessment after a patient was injured,

what would be considered an INAPPROPRIATE question to ask the patient?

A) What position were you in when hit?

B) Have you had any muscle spasms?

C) How long has it been since you have eaten?

D) Was the bladder full or empty?

E) Do you use laxatives?

1061) In the history section of a thorax and abdomen assessment after a patient was injured,

what would be considered an inappropriate action to perform?

A) palpating the quadrants B) noticing the rate of breaths C) observing if the patient is holding the chest wall D) watching for red, frothy sputum E) noting the position of the patient

1062) What would be a wrong body structure to attempt to palpate during the palpation section

of the thorax and abdomen assessment?

A) rib cage B) liver C) kidneys D) ureters E) testicles

1063) What sign may also accompany intraabdominal bleeding?

A) nausea B) shock C) rebound tenderness D) fever E) murmured auscultation

1064) What injury sustained in the region of the thorax and abdomen has an etiology of a direct

blow to the anterolateral aspect of the thorax or indirect mechanism from a sudden twist or a fall on some object that compresses the rib cage?

A) sternum fracture B) rib contusion C) rib fracture D) costochondral separation and/or dislocation E) muscle contusion

1065) What injury sustained in the region of the thorax and abdomen could be managed with

rest and support and treated symptomatically with an X-ray to rule out any complications?

A) muscle contusion B) sternum fracture C) rib fracture D) rib contusion E) breast strain

1066) What injury commonly occurs in automobile accidents and results from a high-impact

injury to the chest?

A) costochondral separation B) sternal fracture C) costochondral dislocation D) rib fracture E) rib contusion

1067) Violent up and down and lateral movements of the breasts can result in stretching to

which of the following structures?

A) Cooper’s ligament B) mammary glands C) mammary ligament D) nipples E) suspensor ligament

1068) What is the most common type of cancer in women?

A) uterine B) breast C) ovarian D) lung E) bladder

1069) When a patient is hyperventilating, what should immediately be done?

A) attempt to decrease the rate of carbon dioxide loss B) attempt to decrease the rate of oxygen loss C) attempt to increase the rate of carbon dioxide loss D) attempt to increase the rate of respiration E) have the patient breath in and out through their mouth

1070) What is the most common cause of sudden death syndrome in athletes under the age of

35?

A) B) C) D) E)

Congenital cardiovascular abnormality Heat illness Lung disorders Cancer Stroke

1071) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a condition that is categorized by what?

A) a disorder of the mitral valve B) the SA node firing improperly C) the AV node firing improperly D) thickened cardiac muscle E) atherosclerosis

1072) How does commotio cordis occur?

A) damage to the mitral valve B) drug allergy C) blunt impact to the chest D) dehydration E) an asthma attack

1073) What statement is true of athletic heart syndrome?

A) It results in a decrease of maximal stroke volume and cardiac output.

B) It is characterized by a decrease in resting heart rate.

C) It is most likely to occur in athletes who train for lesser than one hour a day.

D) It most often requires corrective surgery as a treatment.

E) It occurs more often in women than in men.

1074) The figure demonstrates what lung injury?

A) B) C) D) E)

pneumothorax tension pneumothorax hemothorax traumatic asphyxia hyperventilation

1075) Why are adolescents at great risk for a commotio cordis injury?

A) Their body structure is smaller.

B) Their body structure is weaker.

C) Their body structure breaks easier.

D) Their body structure is more pliable.

E) Their body structure is more vascular.

Answer Key Test name: chapter 27 1047) D

The external intercostal muscles elevate the diaphragm during inspiration, whereas the internal intercostals muscles depress the rib cage to assist with expiration.

1048) C

The diaphragm is a large, dome-shaped muscle that separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity. When the diaphragm relaxes, it allows a decrease in thoracic volume.

1049) A

Contraction of the chambers is referred to as systole, and relaxation as diastole.

1050) [A, C, D, E, F, J] 1051) B 1052) E

The transversus abdominis is the deepest of the abdominal muscles. All the abdominal muscles work together in performing defecation, urination, and forced expiration.

1053) E

The primary function of the kidneys is to filter metabolic wastes, ions, and drugs from the blood and expel them from the body via urination. The uppermost surfaces of the kidneys are connected to the diaphragm by strong, ligamentous fibers.

1054) D

The liver secretes bile, which is essential in neutralizing and diluting stomach acid and for digesting fat in the small intestine during the digestive process. The liver is the largest internal organ of the body.

1055) C

The pancreas produces insulin and glucagon, which are hormones that control the amount of glucose and amino acids in the blood. It is located between the small intestine and the spleen.

1056) E

The gallbladder serves as a storage reservoir for bile secreted from the liver. It is a pear-shaped, saclike structure located on the inferior surface of the liver.

1057) B

The spleen’s main functions are to regulate the number of red blood cells circulating in the human body, to serve as a reservoir of red blood cells, to destroy ineffective red cells, to produce antibodies for immunological function, and to produce lymphocytes. It is the largest lymphatic organ in the body.

1058) D

Traumatic injuries to the female reproductive organs are rare because they are well protected by the pelvis.

1059) B

Meals should be eaten at least three to four hours before activity to allow foods to clear the stomach, and emptying the bladder before activity.

1060) E

Asking if the patient uses laxatives may be more appropriate if the patient did not know the mechanism of injury and was complaining of a general medical condition.

1061) A

While watching the patient’s facial expressions and rigidity of the abdominal wall is part of the assessment, it is more appropriate to perform during the palpation, or special tests section, of the assessment.

1062) D

The ureters, small tubes that extend inferiorly from the kidney to the urinary bladder and store urine, are not palpable.

1063) C

The athletic trainer can produce rebound tenderness by pressing firmly on the abdomen and then quickly releasing pressure, which causes intense pain.

1064) D

A costochondral separation or dislocation has a higher incidence than do fractures.

1065) C

If a rib fracture is suspected, an X-ray should be taken. Management for the injury itself is treated according to the symptoms presented, along with support, rest, and a possible rib brace on an as-needed basis.

1066) B

A fracture of the sternum results from a high-impact blow to the chest. They are most likely to occur in automobile accidents than in athletics.

1067) A

Cooper’s ligament can be damaged by uncontrolled movement of the breast over a period of time, which can lead to premature ptosis of the breasts.

1068) B

Breast cancer is the most common type of cancer in women and is the second leading cause of death by cancer in women.

1069) A

The immediate treatment of hyperventilation is to decrease the rate of carbon dioxide loss.

1070) A

In individuals 35 years and younger, the most common cause of exercise-induced sudden death is some congenital cardiovascular abnormality.

1071) D

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is a condition in which there is thickened cardiac muscle.

1072) C

Commotio cordis is cardiac arrest that occurs due to blunt impact to the chest.

1073) B

Individuals who have athletic heart syndrome have bradycardia or a decreased heart rate and longer diastolic filling time. Athletic heart syndrome is essentially asymptomatic and requires no treatment.

1074) C

A hemothorax is the presence of blood within the pleural cavity.

1075) D

Adolescents are at greater risk due to the pliability of the rib / chest cage when an object strikes them in the chest.

Student name:__________ 1076) What structure is wrong as a layer of the epidermis?

A) Stratum corneum B) Stratum granulosum C) Stratum spinosum D) Stratum basale E) Stratum cellulosum

1077) What is the purpose of the stratum corneum layer within the epidermis?

A) It acts as a permeability barrier allowing only small molecules to diffuse into the

lower regions of the epidermis.

B) It is a barrier that protects against shearing forces.

C) It is a permeable layer that allows moisture and heat to escape.

D) It houses the pigment melanin which blocks harmful solar radiation.

E) It is part of the lymphatic system by collecting and presenting bacterial proteins.

1078) What causes "goosebumps" or “standing-on-end” effect of bodily hair?

A) The eccrine glands contract by stimuli such as cold or fear.

B) The apocrine glands contract by stimuli such as cold or fear.

C) The sebaceous glands contract by stimuli such as cold or fear.

D) The arrectores pilorum contract by stimuli such as cold or fear.

E) The dermal papilla contract by stimuli such as cold or fear.

1079) What is contained within the subcutis layer of the skin?

A) sebum B) fatty tissue C) sweat pores D) sebaceous glands E) sensory nerve endings

1080) The skin lesion called café´ au lait spots may be indicative of what disorder?

A) neurofibromatosis B) epithelial inclusion cyst C) jaundice D) cellulitis E) hyperkeratosis

1081) What skin trauma condition has an etiology of improperly fitting shoes and may have the

presence of hammertoes?

A) clavus mollis B) clavus durus C) xerotic skin D) bulla E) hyperkeratosis

1082) What skin trauma condition has signs and symptoms relative to a separation of the keratin

from the granular layer of the epidermis, causing an oozing wound that develops into lesions that crust and crack?

A) xerotic skin B) hyperhidrosis C) chafing D) hyperkeratosis E) bulla

1083) What skin trauma conditions would be managed with bathing in tepid water and

showering once a day; using moisturizing soaps and emollients; referral to physician for topical corticosteroids?

A) chafing B) clavus mollis C) hyperkeratosis D) ingrown toenail E) xerotic skin

1084) When managing hyperkeratosis of the feet and/or hands, what should be avoided?

A) pumice stone B) emollients C) lactic acid D) salicylic acid E) donut pads

1085) What is a common wound cleansing technique involving direct contact of a gauze with

tissues to remove debris and bacteria?

A) whirlpool baths and soaks B) irrigation C) showering D) scrubbing and swabbing E) detoxification

1086) In the context of common wound cleansing techniques, identify a true statement about

whirlpool baths and soaks.

A) It increases the risk of cross-contamination and maceration of tissues.

B) It is ineffective in lowering bacterial counts.

C) It has been shown to be effective in the removal of foreign bodies.

D) It is the preferred cleansing technique for open traumatic wounds.

E) It refers to the controlled flow of a solution across the wound bed and periwound tissues.

1087) What should an athletic trainer do when providing initial care to an athlete suffering from

a laceration that involves tissue approximation of superficial- to partial-thickness wound?

A) Close the wound with dermal adhesives or wound closure strips.

B) Dress the wound with a non-occlusive dressing or occlusive dressing based on the amount of exudate.

C) Cover the wound with alcohol-soaked gauze and immediately refer to a physician for further cleansing.

D) Cleanse the wound with mild soap and apply hydrogen peroxide solution over the area.

E) Apply antibiotic ointment and place occlusive dressing over the antibiotic.

1088) What is the most appropriate cleansing agent for all traumatic wounds?

A) tap water B) povidone-iodine C) normal saline D) hydrogen peroxide E) isopropyl alcohol

1089) What debridement techniques refer to the softening and digesting of necrotic tissue by the

body’s mechanisms in a moist wound environment created under occlusive dressings?

A) wet-to-moist debridement B) irrigation C) conservative sharp debridement D) scrubbing E) autolytic debridement

1090) In the context of primary wound dressings, what is a type of occlusive dressing indicated

for wounds that produce minimal levels of exudate such as superficial-thickness abrasions?

A) adhesive strips and patches B) woven and nonwoven gauze C) films and hydrogels D) foams and hydrocolloids E) hydrocolloids and dermal adhesives

1091) What statement is true about occlusive dressings?

A) They are semipermeable and create a moist wound environment.

B) They include impregnated sterile gauze, adhesive strips, and wound closure strips.

C) They are less effective in healing wounds in comparison with non-occlusive

dressings.

D) They lack barrier properties to microorganisms.

E) They are associated with increased levels of pain, when compared with non-occlusive dressings.

1092) In the context of primary wound dressings, what non-occlusive dressing can be used with

infected wounds and may be more cost-effective than other dressings based on the frequent dressing changes that are required?

A) impregnated sterile gauze B) non-adherent pads C) adhesive strips and patches D) woven and nonwoven gauze E) wound closure strips

1093) In the context of occlusive dressings, identify a true statement about hydrogels.

A) They are constructed with a high water content and can donate moisture to the

wound.

B) They are ineffective in managing partial-thickness wounds with moderate exudate amounts.

C) They are designed for partial- to full-thickness wounds with heavy exudate.

D) They interact with exudate to produce a gel that conforms to the wound contours.

E) They trap moisture underneath the dressing and are non-absorbent.

1094) What is a reasonable amount of time that can lapse for the application of sutures to put in

a wound?

A) 1 hour B) 6 hours C) 9 hours D) 18 hours E) 24 hours

1095) What would be a wrong statement for the use of an occlusive dressing in the management

of a wound?

A) Perceived pain from exposed nerve endings is lowered.

B) Scab formation is accelerated.

C) It is cost and time effective.

D) It provides barrier against bacteria.

E) It makes wound care easier.

1096) What bacterial infection has an etiology of being caused by a group A beta-hemolytic

streptococci, S. aureus, or a combination of the two?

A) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus B) Staphylococcus C) furuncle D) carbuncle E) impetigo contagiosa

1097) What bacterial infection has signs and symptoms of a broad range dependent on the part

of the body that is infected, but results in redness, swelling, and tenderness at the site of infection?

A) folliculitis B) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus C) carbuncle D) furuncle E) impetigo contagiosa

1098) What skin trauma condition would be managed with the intermittent application of moist

heat, antibiotic medication applied locally, as well as systematically, depending on the scope of the condition?

A) folliculitis B) furuncle C) impetigo contagiosa D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus E) carbuncle

1099) Hidradenitis suppurativa can be described as a condition that affects what?

A) large sweat glands B) hair follicles C) central nervous system D) toe nails E) tear ducts

1100) A patient discloses having taken the medications Retin-A and clindamycin. What is the

patient’s skin condition?

A) tetanus infection B) paronychia C) acne vulgaris D) folliculitis E) carbuncle

1101) A soccer player splits open the forehead and needs five sutures. A few days later, the

athlete complains of stiffness in the neck and is running a low-grade fever. What could be wrong with the patient?

A) paronychia B) tetanus infection C) carbuncle D) folliculitis E) carcinoma

1102) A patient presents with the skin condition demonstrated in the figure. It seems to be

following an area that is consistent with dermatome T6. What could be wrong with this patient?

A) B) C) D) E)

herpes simplex labialis herpes simplex gladiatorum herpes zoster verruca virus molluscum contagiosum

1103) If a sunscreen has an SPF of 20, what statement is correct?

A) The person should apply the sunscreen every 20 minutes.

B) The person will receive 20% less sun than a person who is not wearing sunscreen.

C) The person will be 20% less likely to receive a sunburn.

D) It would require 20 times longer to sustain the same amount of UV radiation with the

sunscreen than without.

E) It would require that a person applies the product 20 times in a day to avoid full UV radiation.

1104) A freshman volleyball player presents with a skin condition demonstrated in the figure.

What is present?

A) B) C) D) E)

contact dermatitis scabies hives measles mumps

1105) What insects can cause Lyme disease?

A) spiders B) fleas C) mosquitos D) ticks E) bees

1106) A patient presents with pain in the abdomen and back. The patient also reports of a

headache, anxiety, increased blood pressure, and difficulty breathing. The patient remembers being “bit by a bug,” but is unable to identify the insect. Based on the signs and symptoms, what could have bitten the patient?

A) mosquito B) tick C) brown recluse spider D) wasp E) yellow jacket

1107) What characteristic of a mole would be considered wrong when trying to diagnose a

melanoma?

A) asymmetry B) diameter C) bleeding D) color E) border

1108) You notice that a patient is constantly scratching the head. Upon further investigation,

you see the sores demonstrated in this figure. What could be wrong with this patient?

A) B) C) D) E)

scabies pediculosis tick bites spider bite pityriasis rosea

1109) A patient has yellowish-white scales on the elbows, knees, and around the umbilicus.

What skin condition is present?

A) psoriasis B) skin cancer C) pityriasis rosea D) malignant melanoma E) pernio

1110) Select only the skin disorders that could be contagious via skin or surface contact.

A) café au lait spots B) tinea pedis C) folliculitis D) impetigo E) furuncle F) paronychia G) candidiasis H) herpes simplex I) verucca plantaris J) molloscum contagiosum K) urticaria

1111) What condition presents with transient and peripheral vasoconstriction of digital arteries

in response to cold temperatures?

A) skin cancer B) psoriasis C) pityriasis rosea D) herpes Zoster E) Raynaud’s phenomenon

1112) What medications should a person with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome avoid taking?

A) anticoagulants B) steroids C) beta-blockers D) stimulants E) antihistamines

1113) What condition is present in the figure?

A) B) C) D) E)

brown recluse spider bite mosquito sting dermatitis tick rash from Lyme disease pediculosis pustule scabies irritation

Answer Key Test name: chapter 28 1076) E

The epidermis is the outermost layer of the skin and itself is composed of several layers, which does not include the stratum cellulosum.

1077) A

This action of the stratum corneum protects against environmental irritants, toxins, and pathogens.

1078) D

This involuntary contraction pulls the hair into a vertical position, thus increasing the insulating effect of hair and protects the body from cold.

1079) B

Subcutaneous fat has a role in temperature regulation/insulation and energy storage, and it increases the mobility of the skin over the underlying tissues.

1080) A

Where the café au lait spots are not harmful, the presence of the spots may be a sign of the genetic disorder of the nervous system that primarily affects the development and growth of nerve cell tissues.

1081) B

Clavus durus, or hard corns, is the most serious type of corn and can share the same mechanism of injury as calluses.

1082) C

Chafing of the skin can stem from friction or from rubbing the skin unduly and cause maceration of the skin in a climate of heat and moisture.

1083) E

Xerotic, or dry skin, will appear dry with variable redness and scaling, occurring first on the shins, forearms, backs of the hands, and face with possible itching, cracking, and fissures.

1084) A

Using pumice stone or emery files should be discouraged since their use results in frictional forces that stimulate the skin to produce additional callus.

1085) D

Scrubbing and swabbing involves direct contact of a soft brush or gauze with tissues to remove debris and bacteria. The brush or gauze is moistened with a cleansing solution and wiped across the tissues.

1086) A

Whirlpool baths and soaks are the immersion of the body part and wound into a tub or container of a cleansing solution to hydrate and loosen contaminants and necrotic tissue from the wound bed. Whirlpool baths and soaks increase the risk of cross-contamination and maceration of the tissues.

1087) B

With tissue approximation of superficial- to partial-thickness wound, an athletic trainer should dress the wound with a non-occlusive dressing or occlusive dressing based on amount of exudate. Tissue approximation and closure will depend on wound length, width, depth, and location.

1088) C

Normal saline is the most appropriate cleansing solution for all traumatic wounds. Tap water can also be used for traumatic wounds, except those that have bone or tendon exposed.

1089) E

Autolytic debridement is the softening and digesting of necrotic tissue by the body’s mechanisms in a moist wound environment created under occlusive dressings.This technique is painless and occurs over several days, but should not be used with infected wounds.

1090) C

As primary dressings, films and hydrogels are indicated for wounds that produce minimal levels of exudate such as superficial-thickness abrasions. Films trap moisture underneath the dressing and are non-absorbent.

1091) A

Occlusive dressings are semipermeable or impermeable, create a moist wound environment, and provide a barrier to microorganisms. Non-occlusive dressings possess high permeability, allow desiccation of the wound bed, and lack barrier properties to microorganisms.

1092) D

As primary dressings, woven and nonwoven gauze can be used with infected wounds and may be more cost-effective than other dressings based on the frequent dressing changes that are required.

Woven, nonwoven, and impregnated gauze are indicated for puncture wounds with cavities to eliminate dead space and promote healing from the base upward.

1093) A

Hydrogels are constructed with a high water content and can donate moisture to the wound.

Partial-thickness wounds with moderate exudate amounts can be managed with hydrogels and hydrocolloids.

1094) D

Sutures no longer have a “golden period” for wound closure, but a reasonable time period could be 18 hours following injury dependent on the type of wound.

1095) B

Scab formation is minimized with the use of any type of occlusive dressing, such as semipermeable films, hydrogels, and hydrocolloids.

1096) E

Impetigo contagiosa is spread rapidly when infected patients are in close contact with one another, such as during the activity of wrestling.

1097) B

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, or MRSA, may also not present with any symptoms.

1098) A

Management for folliculitis is similar to the treatment for impetigo. The moist heat helps increase circulation.

1099) A

Hidradenitis suppurativa is a chronic inflammatory condition of the apocrine glands or large sweat glands commonly found in the axilla, scrotum, labia majora, and nipples.

1100) C

Retin-A and clindamycin are useful in treating moderate acne or acne vulgaris.

1101) B

The first sign of tetanus infection is stiffness of the jaw and muscles of the neck and fever can become markedly elevated.

1102) C

Herpes Zoster, or shingles, appears in a specific pattern on the body in an area that is innervated by a specific nerve root.

1103) D

A SPF of 20 means that it would require 20 times longer to sustain the same amount of UV radiation with the sunscreen than without.

1104) A

A contact dermatitis is categorized by skin that reacts with redness, swelling, and the formation of vesicles that ooze fluid and form a crust.

1105) D

Ticks can cause Lyme disease, which is a serious illness with significant morbidity and mortality.

1106) C

A patient will present with the above-mentioned symptoms if they are bitten by a brown recluse spider.

1107) C

Melanomas may show ABCDE characteristics that include asymmetry, border, color, diameter, and evolving.

1108) B

Pediculosis, or lice, is located near a hair shaft and causes an itching dermatitis, which provokes scratching and pustules.

1109) A

Psoriasis is a common chronic disease of the skin that causes itching and the patient may have yellowish-white scales on their elbows, knees, and around their umbilicus. An example of this skin condition is demonstrated in this figure.

1110) [B, D, E, H, I, J] 1111) E

Blood flow to the skin is restricted as a thermoregulatory mechanism to sustain the core body temperature and prevent loss of body heat. With Raynaud’s phenomenon, there can be primary and secondary, where both cause decreased blood flow to the skin or alter normal vessel reactivity to cold temperatures.

1112) A

Vascular Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is a more severe form of the disorder that can cause dissection or rupture of the blood vessels or hollow organs particularly of the intestines and uterus.

1113) C

Lyme disease acquired from a tick bite present with erythema chronicum migrants, an enlarging annular red ring with or without a central red papule.

Student name:__________ 1114) The immune response in which lymphocytes (T cells) are produced by the thymus in

response to the antigen exposure is known as __________.

A) an inoculation B) a cell-mediated response C) a nonspecific immune response D) a specific response E) a humoral immune response

1115) In the context of the immune system, what term refers to an invading agent?

A) an antibody B) Staphylococcus C) an antigen D) influenza E) lymphocyte

1116) In the context of the management of an acute asthmatic attack, what would be a wrong

action to perform?

A) removing the patient from the environmental area B) administering personalized medication prescribed by a physician C) encouraging the patient to drink water D) letting the patient perform controlled breathing along with relaxation exercises E) massaging the patient’s hands and feet while the patient is in a supine position

1117) Exercise-induced asthma is also referred to as __________.

A) exercise-induced bronchospasm B) exercise-induced bronchitis C) exercise-induced pharyngitis D) acute bronchitis E) seasonal atopic pollinosis

1118) What is a hereditary disease where there is degeneration of skeletal muscle with an

associated loss in strength and muscle tissue is gradually replaced by adipose and fibrous connective tissue?

A) myasthenia gravis B) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C) multiple sclerosis D) hemophilia E) duchenne muscular dystrophy

1119) What disorder is an autoimmune disease inflammatory of the central nervous system that

causes permanent damage to the myelin sheath?

A) myasthenia gravis B) cystic fibrosis C) multiple sclerosis D) lymphangitis E) duchenne muscular dystrophy

1120) What is a nervous system disorder characterized by a high fever, stiff neck, intense

headache, and sensitivity to light and sound, progressing to vomiting, convulsions, and coma?

A) meningitis B) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C) anemia D) multiple sclerosis E) reflex sympathetic dystrophy

1121) If some individuals who have the sickle-cell trait may never be symptomatic, how does

exposure to high altitudes warrant health risks to that individual?

A) The cell shape, an oval, limits the ability to transport oxygen.

B) High altitude triggers a decrease in ambient oxygen.

C) Life span of a sickle cell is extended and fatigues easier.

D) The hypertrophic size of the cell allows too much passage through the blood vessels.

E) The unique cell shape inhibits clogging.

1122) Footstrike hemolysis is also known as __________.

A) runner's anemia B) sickle-cell anemia C) iron-deficiency anemia D) lymphangitis E) hemophilia

1123) If diabetes is not treated adequately, or too little insulin is produced, a loss of sodium,

potassium, and ketone bodies through excessive urination is likely to lead to __________.

A) hypoglycemia B) ketoacidosis C) hypothyroidism D) hyperthyroidism E) seizures

1124) A patient who presents with dry mouth, increased thirst, frequent urination, hunger after

eating, fatigue, and unexplained weight loss could be suffering from what?

A) insulin shock B) diabetic coma C) hyperthyroidism D) hypothyroidism E) diabetes mellitus

1125) How long would a petit mal seizure episode last?

A) 5/15 seconds B) 30 seconds to 1 minute C) 1/2 minutes D) 3/4 minutes E) 5 or more minutes

1126) What is the most common type of cancer in males?

A) lung B) colon/rectal C) prostate D) urinary E) lymphoma

1127) What symptom is wrong as a warning sign of cancer?

A) a change in bowel and bladder habits B) a nagging cough or hoarseness C) an obvious change in a wart D) an unusual discharge or bleeding E) an increase in appetite

1128) What sexually transmitted disease results in pelvic inflammatory disease and is an

important cause of infertility and ectopic pregnancy?

A) syphilis B) gonorrhea C) chlamydia trachomatis D) genital herpes E) trichomoniasis

1129) What STD has no cure?

A) chlamydia trachomatis B) condyloma acuminate C) trichomoniasis D) genital herpes E) genital candidiasis

1130) What STD will insidiously be present even though the outward signs are no longer

present?

A) chlamydia trachomatis B) condyloma acuminate C) trichomoniasis D) gonorrhea E) genital candidiasis

1131) Penicillin is the most effective current drug used to treat all stages of what STD? A) gonorrhea B) trichomoniasis C) syphilis D) genital herpes E) venereal warts

1132) Primary amenorrhea is defined as __________.

A) a painful menstrual cycle B) the absence of a menstrual cycle C) infrequent menstrual cycle D) clots present during the menstrual cycle E) an extremely heavy menstrual cycle

1133) Endometriosis is defined as __________.

A) a painful menstruation B) an infrequent menstrual cycle C) the condition in which uterine cells grow outside the uterus D) clots present during menstrual cycle E) the rupture of the fallopian tube

1134) If a female patient is having pain during sexual intercourse, abnormal bleeding, and

painful menstrual cycles, what could the patient be experiencing?

A) dysmenorrhea B) amenorrhea C) ruptured ovary D) ovarian cyst E) ruptured fallopian tube

1135) What is the recommended daily allowance of calcium for adolescent females?

A) 600/800 IU/day B) 1200 mg/day C) 200/400 IU/day D) 800 mg/day E) 100/200 IU/day

1136) What is a contraindication to exercise during pregnancy?

A) intrauterine growth B) pregnancy-induced hypotension C) post-term rupture of membranes D) a high fever E) cervical insufficiency or cerclage

1137) In the context of contraception and reproduction, an intrauterine device made of copper

lasts for __________.

A) 3 to 4 years B) 3 weeks C) 10 weeks D) a week E) 10 to 12 years

1138) Use of oral contraceptive pills related to physical performance should be __________.

A) under the express direction of a physician B) avoided by healthy women C) accompanied by the insertion of an intrauterine device D) accompanied by the insertion of the NuvaRing E) accompanied by a transdermal birth-control patch

1139) If a patient presents with fruity smelling breath, which condition is present?

A) insulin shock B) diabetic ketoacidosis C) thyroid gland disorder D) diabetes mellitus E) hemophilia

1140) Please check all of the symptoms that are most commonly associated with the flu.

A) fever B) loss of appetite C) enlarged spleen D) cough E) headache F) skin rash G) malaise H) sore throat

1141) What condition is present in the figure?

A) B) C) D) E)

chicken pox mumps measles rubella mononucleosis

1142) Acute, seasonal allergic condition that results from airborne pollens, dust, dander, or

mold is referred to as __________.

A) sinusitis B) pollinosis C) pharyngitis D) asthma E) acute bronchitis

1143) Please check all of the signs and symptoms of asthma.

A) flared nostrils B) vomiting C) hypoventilation D) expansion of the rib spaces as the patient inhales E) minimal coughing F) excessive throat clearing G) redness H) wheezing

1144) What is a wrong warning sign of cancer?

A) a change in bowel or bladder habits B) a nagging cough or hoarseness C) obvious change in a wart D) unusual discharge or bleeding E) sensitivity to light

1145) What is the danger of sickle cell anemia?

A) the sickle cell shape inhibits the ability for oxygen to be stored.

B) sickling of the cell can result in malaria.

C) a sickled cell has a shorter life span causing severe anemia.

D) sickle cells create the sickle cell trait.

E) it can result in decreased iron.

1146) Complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS) was formally known as __________.

A) causalgia B) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis C) multiple sclerosis D) myasthenia gravis E) reflex sympathetic dystrophy

1147) Management of what condition may require hospitalization, supplemental oxygen, and

medication using a combination of antivirals and anti-inflammatories?

A) exercise-induced bronchospasm B) acute rhinosinusitis C) pharyngitis D) respiratory syncytial virus infection E) acute bronchitis

Answer Key Test name: chapter 29 1114) B

An immune that responds by disposing of the antigen and preventing damage may be cellmediated.

1115) C

Immunity means being protected from a disease by having been previously exposed to an invading agent, called an antigen.

1116) E

Massaging the patient's hands and feet while in a supine position is not an appropriate action to perform while managing an acute asthmatic attack. Removing the patient from the environment that has triggered the attack, administering personalized medication prescribed by a physician, encouraging the patient to drink water, and letting the patient perform controlled breathing along with relaxation exercises are all actions that one is required to take while managing an acute asthmatic attack.

1117) A

Exercise-induced asthma (EIA) is also referred to as exercise-induced bronchospasm (EIB). It can be stimulated by exercise in some individuals, whereas in others, it may be provoked during moderate exercise.

1118) E

Onset for Duchenne muscular dystrophy has an onset during early childhood, between the ages of two and ten years that may appear as the child learns to walk.

1119) C

Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune inflammatory disease of the central nervous system that causes deterioration and permanent damage to the myelin sheath that surrounds a nerve cell axon.

1120) A

Meningitis is an inflammation of the meninges, or membranes, that surround the spinal cord and brain that is caused by infection.

1121) B

This characteristic crisis can also cause the patient to experience a headache and convulsions.

1122) A

Footstrike hemolysis is also known as runner's anemia. It is the second most prevalent cause of iron deficiency in athletes and is due to the impact of the foot as it strikes the surface. This impact force destroys normal erythrocytes within the vascular system.

1123) B

If diabetes is not treated adequately, or too little insulin is produced, a loss of sodium, potassium, and ketone bodies through excessive urination is likely to lead to ketoacidosis. This can be lifethreatening and can lead to coma.

1124) C

A patient suffering from hyperthyroidism may present with increased metabolism, rapid fatigue during exercise, weight loss, and hyperthermia during exercise.

1125) A

Petit mal seizures are extremely brief and can last 5-15 seconds.

1126) C

Prostate cancer is the highest rate of incidence in males.

1127) E

An increase in appetite is not a warning sign of cancer.

1128) C

Chlamydia trachomatis results in pelvic inflammatory disease and is an important cause of infertility and ectopic pregnancy.

1129) D

Genital herpes currently has no cure, but symptoms can be treated with acyclovir.

1130) D

Despite being treated, gonorrhea will be present even though the outward signs are no longer present.

1131) C

Penicillin is currently the appropriate antibiotic for all stages of syphilis.

1132) B

Amenorrhea is the absence or suppression of menstruation.

1133) C

Endometriosis is uterine cells growing outside of the uterus.

1134) D

The above accurately describes the signs and symptoms of an ovarian cyst.

1135) B

Calcium nutrition is needed for female bone health and the recommended daily allowance for adolescent females is 1,200 mg/day.

1136) E

Cervix insufficiency or cerclage (a procedure in which the cervical opening is closed with stitches to prevent or delay preterm birth) is a contraindication for performing exercise during pregnancy.

1137) E

An intrauterine device made of copper lasts for 10 to 12 years. However, another type that releases the hormone progestin lasts for 3 years.

1138) A

Use of oral contraceptive pills related to physical performance should be under the express direction of a physician. Under physician care, they have been prescribed to delay menstruation during competition. However, oral contraceptive use is acceptable for females with no medical problems who have coitus at least twice a week.

1139) B

Fruity smelling breath, nausea, vomiting, thirst, flushed skin, and mental confusion are all signs and symptoms of a diabetic ketoacidosis.

1140) [A, D, E, G] 1141) A

The rash first appears as individual red crops or spots, each of which progressively evolves through stages of macules, papules, vesicles, and crusts over a period of 2 to 3 days. The rash begins on the back and chest.

1142) B

Pollinosis, or hay fever, is an acute seasonal allergic condition that results from airborne pollens, dust, dander, or mold.

1143) [A, B, F, H] 1144) E

Specific signs of cancer can vary tremendously, depending on the type of cancer, and warrant immediate attention by a physician.

1145) C

The short life of the sickle cell can produce severe anemia in individuals with acute sickle cell anemia. The cell’s distorted shape inhibits its passage through the small blood vessels and can cause clustering of the cells and, consequently, clogging of the blood vessels and thus ischemia.

1146) E

CRPS was previously called RSD or causalgia. It is an abnormal and excessive response of the sympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system that occurs following injury.

1147) D

Most patients will recover within 2 weeks; however, in severe cases, both infants and adults may require these treatment methods.