TEST BANK for Organizational Behavior 15th Edition by Robbins and Judge. (All 10 Chapters)

Chapter 1 What Is Organizational Behavior?

MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

Successful managers and entrepreneurs recognize that: a. technical knowledge is all that is needed for success. b. interpersonal skills are not important. c. technical skills are necessary, but insufficient, for succeeding in management. d. an understanding of human behavior does not impact effectiveness (c; Challenging; pp. 2-3) What Managers Do

2.

Which one of the following is not considered an organization? a. church b. university c. a military unit d. all 45-year-old adults in a community (d; Easy; p. 4) 3.

A(n) is a consciously coordinated social unit, composed of two or more people, that functions on a relatively continuous basis to achieve a common goal or set of goals. a. organization b. unit c. team d. ethnic group (a; Moderate; p. 4) 4.

The four management functions include all of the following except: a. controlling. b. planning. c. staffing. d. organizing. (c; Moderate; p. 4) includes defining an organization’s goals and establishing an overall strategy for achieving these goals and developing a comprehensive hierarchy of plans to integrate and coordinate activities. a. Controlling b. Planning c. Leading d. Coordinating (b; Moderate; p. 4) 5.

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6.

The determination of how tasks are to be grouped is part of which management function? a. planning b. leading c. controlling d. organizing (d; Easy; p. 4)

7.

The organizing function includes a determination of which of the following? a. what tasks are to be done b. who is to do these tasks c. who reports to whom d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 4) Every organization contains people, and it is management’s job to direct and coordinate these people.

This is the function. a. planning b. leading c. controlling d. organizing (b; Moderate; p.4) 8.

9.

According to Henry Mintzberg, the ten managerial roles can be grouped into three categories. Which of the following is not one of these groups? a. concern with the interpersonal relationships b. the transfer of information c. decision making d. liaison roles (d; Challenging; Exh. 1-1; p. 6. ) An example of Mintzberg’s interpersonal management role is: a. spokesperson. b. leader. c. negotiator. d. monitor. (b; Moderate; Exh. 1-1; p. 6) 10.

11.

When a manager searches the organization and its environment for opportunities and initiates projects to bring about change, the manager is acting in which role? a. negotiator b. entrepreneur c. disturbance handler d. resource allocator (b; Challenging; Exh. 1-1; p. 6)

12.

Which of the following is not an essential management skill identified by Robert Katz?

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a. technical b. computer c. human d. conceptual (b; Moderate; p. 5) 13.

When managers have the mental ability to analyze and diagnose complex situations, they possess: a. technical skills. b. computer skills. c. human skills. d. conceptual skills. (d; Challenging; pp. 6-7 )

14.

Which one of the following would not be considered a human skill? a. completing accounting reports b. communicating c. resolving conflicts d. working as part of a team (a; Moderate; pp 5-6) 15.

According to Luthans and his associates, which of the following is not considered a part of traditional management? a. interacting with outsiders b. decision making c. controlling d. planning (a; Moderate; p. 7) Which of Luthan’s managerial activities involves socializing, politicking, and interacting with outsiders? a. traditional management b. communication c. human resource management d. networking (d; Challenging; p. 7 ) 16.

17.

According to Luthans, successful managers spent more of their time on activity. a. traditional management b. human resource management c. networking d. communicating (c; Challenging; p. 8)

18.

than on any other

A common thread running through the functions, roles, skills, and activities approaches to management recognizes the importance of: 3

a. managing technology. b. managing people. c. politicking. d. being efficient. (b; Moderate; p. 8) Enter Organizational Behavior 19.

Organizational behavior is all of the following except: a. a field of study. b. an applied field. c. an intuitive analysis of human behavior. d. studying what people do in an organization. (c; Moderate; p. 8) 20.

is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward improving an organization’s effectiveness. a. Organizational development b. Management c. Organizational behavior d. People management (c; Easy; p. 8) 21.

Which of the following is not a core topic of organizational behavior? a. motivation b. attitude development c. conflict d. computers (d; Easy; p. 8 )

22.

According to the text, the best approach for obtaining knowledge about human behavior is a. the common sense approach. b. an observational approach. c. a systematic approach. d. a theoretical approach. (c; Easy; p. 10)

23.

A major theme in your textbook is that behavior is not: a. caused. b. random. c. consistent. d. predictable. (b; Easy; p. 9)

24.

If we know how a person perceives a situation and what is important to him/her, then behavior is generally a. predictable.

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b. predetermined. c. uncontrollable. d. controllable. (a; Moderate; p. 9) 25.

Fundamental consistencies allow a. observation b. systematizing c. research d. predictability (d; Moderate; pp. 9-10)

of behavior.

26.

Behavior is generally and the predictions. a. predetermined; observation b. predictable; systematic study c. controllable; theoretical application d. uncontrollable; systematic study (b; Moderate; p. 10)

of behavior is a means to making reasonably accurate

27.

includes analyzing relationships, determining causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific evidence. a. Organizational behavior b. The observational approach to understanding organizational behavior c. A theoretical approach to organizational behavior d. A systematic study of organizational behavior (d; Moderate; p. 10) 28.

In the study of OB, intuition is replaced by: a. systematic study. b. generalization. c. listening. d. prediction. (a; Easy; p. 10) Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field

29.

Organizational behavior is built upon contributions from all of the following disciplines except: a. humanities. b. psychology. c. anthropology. d. political science. (a; Moderate; p. 11)

30.

The science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals is: a. psychiatry. b. psychology.

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c. sociology. d. political science. (b; Moderate; p. 12) 31.

Which behavioral science discipline has made the most significant contribution to understanding individual behavior? a. sociology b. social psychology c. psychology d. anthropology (c; Moderate; p. 12) 32.

The OB topic of motivation has been most influenced by which behavioral science discipline? a. psychology b. social psychology c. sociology d. political science (a; Moderate; p. 12) 33.

The most significant contribution to OB in the area of formal organization theory and structure has been made by: a. psychology. b. sociology. c. anthropology. d. political science. (b; Moderate; p. 12) 34.

studies people in relation to their fellow human beings. a. Psychology b. Sociology c. Anthropology d. Political science (b; Moderate; p. 12) 35.

The science that focuses on the influence of people on one another is: a. psychology. b. anthropology. c. political science. d. social psychology. (d; Moderate; p. 12)

36.

One of the major areas receiving considerable investigation from social psychologists has been: a. change. b. motivation. c. job satisfaction. d. job stress.

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(a; Challenging; p. 12 ) The OB subject of ―organizational culture‖ has been most influenced by which behavioral science discipline? a. anthropology b. psychology c. social psychology d. political science (a; Moderate; p. 12) 37.

38.

has helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, and behavior between people in different countries. a. Anthropology b. Psychology c. Social psychology d. Political science (a; Challenging; p. 12) 39.

Topics of study in political science include all of the following except: a. structuring of conflict. b. the social system in which individuals fill their roles. c. allocation of power. d. how people manipulate power for individual self interest. (b; Challenging; p. 12) There are Few Absolutes in OB Which of the following is the best description of OB’s current state? a. It is based on universal truths. b. It is based on contingencies. c. There is little disagreement among OB researchers and scholars. d. Cause-effect principles have been isolated which tend to apply to all situations. (b; Moderate; p. 13)

40.

Challenges and Opportunities for OB 41.

Whereas focuses on differences between people from different countries, addresses differences among people within given countries. a. workforce diversity; globalization b. globalization; workforce diversity c. culture; diversity d. culturization; workforce diversity (b; Challenging; pp. 14-15) 42. means that organizations are becoming more heterogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity. a. Globalization b. Workforce diversity c. Affirmative action d. Organizational culture 7

(b; Easy; p. 15) 43.

The assumption is being replaced by one that recognizes and values a. melting pot; differences b. melting pot; similarities c. diversity; differences d. heterogeneous; similarities (a; Moderate; p. 15)

.

44.

Which of the following is not true? a. Currently, 46 percent of the U.S. labor force are women. b. Minorities and immigrants make up 23 percent of the workforce. c. The male Caucasian working full time to support a non-employed wife and school-aged children is a minority. d. The proportion of minorities and women is shrinking. (d; Challenging; p. 15)

45.

The implications of workforce diversity include all of the following except: a. managers have to shift their philosophy from treating everyone alike to recognizing differences. b. diversity training should be provided. c. revamping benefit programs is needed to accommodate the different needs of different employees. d. the same perceptions are used in decision making. (d; Challenging; p. 15) 46.

is a philosophy of management that is driven by the constant attainment of customer satisfaction through the continuous improvement of all organizational processes. a. MBO b. Quality management c. Reengineering d. Organizational behavior (b; Easy; p. 16) 47.

Quality management requires a. very little b. occasional c. extensive d. no (c; Moderate; p. 16)

employee involvement.

48.

asks managers to reconsider how work would be done and their organization structured if they were starting over. a. Process reengineering b. MBO c. TQM d. Diversity training (a; Easy; p. 16) 8

49.

Predictions suggest there will be a labor shortage for at least another: a. 1-2 years. b. 4-5 years. c. 10-15 years. d. 20-25 years. (c; Moderate; p.17) 50.

The U.S. labor shortage is a function of: a. birth rates and labor participation rates. b. birth rates and mobility. c. brain drain. d. poor wages and benefits. (a; Moderate; p. 17) 51.

Many employees have been led to retire early as a result of: a. expanded Social Security benefits. b. a healthy stock market. c. improved pension plans. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 17) 52.

The majority of employees today in developed countries work in: a. manufacturing jobs. b. service jobs. c. MNCs. d. government agencies. (b; Moderate; p. 18)

53.

When managers put employees in charge of what they do, they are a. reengineering b. empowering c. diversifying d. dehiring (b; Moderate; p. 19)

the employees.

54.

interrupted occasionally by short

Managing today can be described as long periods of ongoing periods of . a. change; stability b. stability; change c. flexibility; rigidity d. rigidity; flexibility (a; Moderate; p. 19)

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Which of the following has not contributed to blurring the lines between employees’ work life and personal life? a. the creation of global organizations b. communications technology allowing employees to work any time and from any place c. organizations asking employees to put in longer hours d. fewer dual-income couples (d; Easy; p. 20) 55.

56.

Situations where an individual is required to define right and wrong conduct are termed: a. diversity issues. b. human resource problems. c. ethical dilemmas. d. loyalty oaths. (c; Easy; p. 21) Coming Attractions: Developing an OB Model 57.

A model is a(an): a. abstraction of reality. b. response that is affected by an independent variable. c. independent variable. d. real-world scenario. (a; Easy; p. 22) 58.

Primary dependent variables in OB include: a. productivity. b. absenteeism. c. job satisfaction. d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 23)

59.

is achievement of goals. a. Efficiency b. Effectiveness c. Productivity d. Motivation (b; Easy; p. 23)

60.

Which of the following is an example of being an efficient company or employee? a. operating a hospital at the lowest possible cost but still yielding a high profit b. being the most pleasant real estate broker in the southeast c. as a telemarketer, making the required number of calls at the end of the day d. a sales person who acquires the most clients of anyone in the company (a; Challenging; p. 23) 61.

Sears trained employees to improve the employee-customer interaction to ultimately: a. generate additional revenue.

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b. decrease returns. c. improve repeat customer business. d. none of the above (a; Moderate; p. 23) is discretionary behavior that is not part of an employee’s formal job requirement, but that promotes the effective functioning of the organization. a. Productivity b. Motivation c. Organizational citizenship d. Organizational behavior (c; Moderate; p. 25) 62.

63.

Individual-level independent variables include: a. technology. b. organizational culture. c. perception. d. human resource policy. (c; Moderate; pp. 25-26)

64.

is the voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organization. a. Absenteeism b. Turnover c. Downsizing d. Exit (b; Easy; p. 24) TRUE/FALSE 65.

The single biggest reason for the failure of managers is poor interpersonal skills.

(True; Easy; p. 3) 66.

While managers must be technically competent, technical knowledge is not enough for success.

(True; Moderate; p. 3) What Managers Do 67.

Managers get things done through other people.

(True; Easy; p. 4) 68.

The term organization, as used in your textbook, is meant to include business firms but exclude government agencies.

(False; Easy; p. 4) 69.

Managers may be referred to as administrators in not-for-profit organizations.

(True; Moderate; p. 4) 70.

Henri Fayol listed five management functions: planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling.

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(True; Moderate; p. 4) Modern theorists have condensed Fayol’s five management functions down to four: planning, organizing, commanding, and controlling.

(False; Moderate; p. 4) 71.

72.

The controlling function includes the determination of what tasks are to be done.

(False; Moderate; p. 4) 73.

Monitoring, comparing, and potential correcting is what is meant by the controlling process.

(True; Moderate; p. 4) 74.

Mintzberg concluded that managers perform ten different highly-interrelated roles, or sets of behaviors, attributable to their jobs.

(True; Challenging; p. 5) 75.

The role of spokesperson is an example of an informational role.

(True; Easy; p. 5) 76.

As resource allocators, managers are responsible for allocating human, physical, and monetary resources.

(True; Moderate; Exh. 1-1; p. 6) When managersinitiate andoversee new projects that will improve their organization’s performance, they are acting in the capacity of an entrepreneur, an example of an informational role.

(False; Moderate; Exh. 1-1; p. 6) 77.

78.

Robert Katz has identified three essential management skills: technical, human, and conceptual.

(True; Moderate; pp. 5-6) 79.

According to Katz, human skills encompass the ability to apply specialized knowledge or expertise.

(False; Moderate; pp. 5-6) The ability to analyze and diagnose complex situations is referred to as an individual’s conceptual skills.

(True; Easy; pp. 6-7) 80.

According to Luthans and his associates, those managers who are most ―successful‖ will spend more time networking than those managers who are considered most ―effective.‖ (True; Challenging; Exh. 1-2; p. 7) 81.

82.

Research conducted by Luthans supports the theory that promotions are based on performance.

(False; Moderate; p. 7) Luthans’ research indicates that among effective managers, communication made the largest relative contribution and networking the least.

(True; Challenging; Exh. 1-2; pp. 7-8) 83.

84.

Managers need to develop their people skills if they are going to be effective and successful.

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(True; Moderate; p. 8) Enter Organizational Behavior 85.

Organizational behavior is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations, for the purpose of applying such knowledge toward improving an organization’s effectiveness.

(True; Moderate; p. 8) 86.

Organizational behavior is concerned with the study of what people do in an organization and how that behavior affects the performance of the organization.

(True; Moderate; p. 8) 87.

Behavior is generally predictable, and the systematic study of behavior is a means to making reasonably accurate predictions.

(True; Moderate; p. 10) 88.

Many people’s views on human behavior are based on intuition.

(True; Easy; pp. 9-10) 89.

It is the consistencies in behavior that make prediction possible.

(True; Moderate; p. 9) 90.

Regardless of appearances, people usually intend their behavior to be rational.

(True; Moderate; p. 9) 91.

Anything you learn in an unsystematic way is incorrect.

(False; Moderate; p. 10) 92.

Intuition is gut feelings about ―why I do what I do.‖ (True; Easy; p. 10) Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field 93.

OB is an applied behavioral science that is built upon contributions from a number of behavioral disciplines.

(True; Easy; p. 11) 94.

Learning, perception, and personality have been OB topics whose contributions have generally come from psychology.

(True; Moderate; Exh. 1-3; p. 11) 95.

What psychology is to the individual, sociology is to the group.

(True; Moderate; p. 12) 96.

Social psychology is an area within psychology, blending concepts from both psychology and political science.

(False; Moderate; p.12)

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97.

Anthropology has helped us understand differences in values and attitudes between people in different countries.

(True; Moderate; p. 12) 98.

Conflict and power have been major topics of concern to political scientists.

(True; Easy; Exh. 1-3; p. 12) There are Few Absolutes in OB 99.

There are many simple and universal principles that explain organizational behavior.

(False; Easy; p. 13) 100.

OB researchers cannot offers reasonably accurate explanations of human behavior since people act very differently in the same situation.

(False; Moderate; p. 13) Challenges and Opportunities for OB 101.

As the world has become a global village, managers have to become capable of working with people from different cultures.

(True; Moderate; p. 14) 102.

Workforce diversity means that organizations are becoming more homogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity.

(False; Moderate; p. 15) 103.

People must set aside their cultural values when they come to work.

(False; Moderate; p. 15) 104.

46 percent of the U.S. labor force are women.

(True; Challenging; p. 15) 105.

Diversity, if positively managed, can increase creativity and innovation in organizations.

(True; Easy; p. 15) 106.

A philosophy of management that is driven by the constant attainment of customer satisfaction through the continuous improvement of all organizational processes is termed ―reengineering.‖ (False; Moderate; p. 16) 107.

Quality management has an intense focus on the customer and a goal of employee empowerment.

(True; Easy; p. 16) 108.

Putting employees in charge of what they do is termed ―reengineering.‖ (False; Easy; p. 16) Process reengineering asks, ―How would we do things around here if we were starting over from scratch?‖ (True; Easy; p. 16) 109.

110.

In tight labor markets, those managers who don’t understand human behavior risk having no one to manage.

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(True; Moderate; p. 17) 111.

An employee who is empowered is given greater opportunity to determine how she does her job.

(True; Moderate; p. 19) 112.

There’s a blurring between the roles of managers and workers.

(True; Moderate; p. 20) 113.

Managing today is described as long periods of ongoing change, interrupted occasionally by short periods of stability.

(True; Moderate; p. 21) Today’s managers and employees must learn to cope with temporariness – learning to live with flexibility, spontaneity, and unpredictability.

(True; Moderate; p. 19) 114.

115.

OB has little to offer in stimulating employee creativity and tolerance for change.

(False; Challenging; p. 20) 116.

Your firm is experiencing lower than normal profits. You realize that you should write off some questionable accounts, but your supervisor suggests that you wait until next year. This is a modern example of an ethical dilemma.

(True; Easy; p. 21) Coming Attractions: Developing an OB Model 117.

There are three levels of analysis in OB, and, as we move from the individual level to the group level to the organization systems level, we add systematically to our understanding of behavior in organizations.

(True; Challenging; p.22) 118.

The key factors you want to explain or predict in a model are termed independent variables.

(False; Moderate; p. 23) 119.

Typical dependent variables in organizational behavior are productivity, absenteeism, and job satisfaction.

(True; Moderate; p. 23) 120.

Organizational behavior models generally assume job satisfaction to be an independent variable.

(False; Moderate; p. 23) 121.

An organization is productive if it achieves its goals and does so by transferring inputs to outputs at the lowest cost.

(True; Moderate; p. 23) 122.

The annual cost of absenteeism in the U.S. is estimated at over $40 billion.

(True; Challenging; p. 24) 123.

A conservative estimate of the cost of recruiting, selecting, and training an employee is about 15

$25,000.

(False; Challenging; p. 24) 124.

Reasonable levels of employee-initiated turnover facilitate organizational flexibility and employee independence.

(True; Challenging; p. 24) 125.

The difference between the amount of rewards workers receive and the amount they believe they should receive is termed job satisfaction.

(True; Moderate; p. 25) 126.

Job satisfaction represents an attitude rather than a behavior.

(True; Moderate; p. 25) 127.

Independent group level variables studied in organizational behavior include perception, learning, and motivation.

(False; Moderate; p. 25) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of What Managers Do Joseph Wood is a manager at the XYZ Company. He performs all the management functions as condensed from Henri Fayol’s work.

When Mr. Wood estimates an overall strategy for achieving his department’s goals, he is performing the function. a. planning b. organizing c. leading d. controlling (a; Moderate; p. 4) 128.

129.

When Mr. Wood determines what tasks are to be performed by his employees and how they are to be grouped, he is performing the function. a. planning b. organizing c. leading d. controlling (b; Moderate; p. 4) 130.

When Mr. Wood motivates his employees and attempts to resolve conflicts among department members, he is performing the function. a. planning b. organizing c. leading

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d. controlling (c; Moderate; p. 4) 131.

When Mr. Wood compares projected sales to actual sales in his department, he is performing the function. a. planning b. organizing c. leading d. controlling (d; Moderate; p. 4) Application of Contributing Disciplines to the OB Field You are bringing together faculty from different behavioral disciplines to author a new textbook in organizational behavior. You have faculty from the fields of psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, and political science.

132.

You should expect that the facultymember from intergroup behavior. a. sociology b. psychology c. social psychology d. anthropology (a; Challenging; p. 12)

will probably contribute informationabout

133.

Information on which of the following would probably not be a contribution from the faculty member from political science? a. conflict b. power c. organizational change d. intraorganizational politics (c; Challenging; p. 12)

134.

To whom would you expect to address issues of communication? a. the psychologist b. the anthropologist c. the political scientist d. the social psychologist (d; Challenging; p. 12) 135.

You would expect the faculty member from and motivation. a. sociology b. psychology c. anthropology d. political science (b; Moderate; p. 12)

to furnish information aboutpersonality, learning,

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Application of Quality Management You are an employee of Acme, Inc. who has just been approached by your manager with a new philosophy that management wishes to institute. Your manager is stressing that he wants your involvement and that the emphasis is going to be on the customer and continual improvement.

136.

You would probably believe that management is trying to implement: a. quality management. b. MBO. c. process reengineering. d. organizational behavior. (a; Moderate; p. 16) 137.

As part of the program, you should expect to see all of the following except: a. improvement in quality. b. empowerment of employees. c. emphasis on individual achievement. d. accurate measurement. (c; Moderate; p. 16) 138.

You should expect your job to change in which of the following ways? a. more imposed rules from management b. more measurement of performance variables c. more free time d. less real employee power (b; Moderate; p. 16) Application of Developing an OB Model Allison and Gail both are studying for a final exam. Both students have a goal of making a grade of 91 or better. Gail studied 6 hours and made a grade of 92. Allison studied for 9 hours and also made a grade of 92.

139.

Which of the students was effective? a. only Gail b. only Allison c. neither Gail nor Allison d. both Gail and Allison (d; Moderate; p. 23) 140.

Which of the following statements is true? a. Gail is more efficient than Allison. b. Allison is more efficient than Gail. c. Gail is more effective than Allison. d. Allison is more effective than Gail. (a; Moderate; p. 23) 141.

Which of the students was more productive?

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a. Gail b. Allison c. Neither Gail nor Allison was productive. d. It is impossible to tell from the information given. (a; Moderate; p. 23) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 142.

Discuss the four management functions described by your text.

(Page 4) The four management functions as condensed from Henri Fayol are planning, organizing, leading, and controlling. The planning function encompasses defining an organization’s goals, establishing an overall strategy for achieving those goals, and developing a comprehensive hierarchy of plans to integrate and coordinate activities. Organizing includes the determination of what tasks are to be done, who is to do them, how the tasks are to be grouped, who reports to whom, and where decisions are to be made. The leading function involves motivating employees, directing activities of others, selecting the most effective communication channels, and resolving conflicts among members.

Controlling involves monitoring, comparing, and potential correcting to get the organization back on track.

143.

Why is it important to replace intuition with systematic study in our attempts to understand behavior within organizations?

(Pages 8-10) It is important to replace intuition with systematic study in our attempts to understand behavior within organizations to help uncover important facts and relationships. This will provide a base from which more accurate predictions of behavior can be made. That is, we can improve our predictive ability by replacing intuitive opinions with a more systematic approach. Systematic study looks at relationships, attempting to attribute causes and effects, and basing conclusions on scientific evidence. This helps to explain and predict behavior.

144.

How have the fields of psychology and sociology contributed to our understanding of organizational behavior?

(Page 12) Psychology seeks to measure, explain, and change the behavior of humans. Contributions have been made by learning theorists, personality theorists, counseling psychologists, and industrial and organizational psychologists. Contributions have been made in learning, perception, personality, emotions, training, leadership effectiveness, motivation, job satisfaction, decision-makingprocesses, performance appraisals, attitude measurement, employee selection techniques, work design, and job stress. Sociology studies people in relation to their fellow human beings. The greatest contributions by sociologists have been in the study of group behavior in organizations, group dynamics, design of work teams, organizational culture, formal organization theory, organizational structure, organizational technology, communications, power, and conflict.

145.

How does globalization affect a manager’s people skills?

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(Page 14) Globalization affects a manager’s people skills in at least two ways. First, managers are increasingly likely to find themselves in a foreign assignment. Once there, it will be necessary to manage a work force that is likely to be very different in needs, aspirations, and attitudes from the ones managed back home. Second, managers are going to find themselves working with bosses, peers, and other employees who were born and raised in different cultures. To work effectively with these people, managers will need to understand their culture, how it has shaped them, and how to adapt the management style to their differences.

146.

Explain the term ―workforce diversity.‖ (Page 15) Workforce diversity means that organizations are becoming more heterogeneous in terms of gender, race, and ethnicity. It also includes the physically disabled, gays and lesbians, and the elderly.

147.

What is the difference between effectiveness and efficiency?

(Page 25) Productivity implies a concern for both effectiveness and efficiency. A business firm is effective when it attains its sales or market share goals, but its productivity also depends on achieving those goals efficiently. Popular measures of organizational efficiency include return on investment, profit per dollar of sales, and output per hour.

148.

Discuss the U.S. labor shortage.

(Page 17) The U.S. labor shortage is a function of two factors – birth rates and labor participation rates. The problem becomes severe around 2006, when the major exodus of Boomers from the workplace begins. New entrants to the workforce from foreign countries will not do much to correct the supply shortage. While women provided a new supply of talented and skilled workers, this source has now been tapped. The combination of the smaller Gen-X population, the already high participation rate of women in the work force, and early retirements will lead to a significantly smaller future labor pool from which employers can hire.

MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 149.

Briefly discuss three of the challenges facing contemporary managers.

(Pages 14-16) Three challenges that managers are facing today are globalization, managing workforce diversity, and improving quality and productivity. Organizations are no longer constrained by national borders.

Globalization affects a manager’s people skills in at least two ways. First, you are likely to find yourself in a foreign assignment managing people from different cultures. Second, you are likely to work with bosses, peers, and other employees who were born and raised in different cultures. One of the biggest challenges is adapting to people who are different. This is workforce diversity. Whereas globalization focuses on differences between people from different countries, workforce diversity

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addresses differences among people within given countries. More managers are having to improve their organization’s productivity and the quality of the products and services they offer. Toward quality and productivity, they are implementing programs such as quality management ad process reengineering – programs that require extensive employee involvement.

150.

Explain quality management and process reengineering.

(Pages 16-17) Quality management and process reengineering help improve quality and productivity in organizations. Quality management is driven by the constant attainment of customer satisfaction through the continuous improvement of all organizational processes. It has implications for OB because it requires employees to rethink what they do and become more involved in workplace decisions. Process reengineering asks managers to reconsider how work would be done and their organization structured if they were starting over.

151.

What independent and dependent variables are usually identified for construction of an OB model?

(Pages 23-26) Dependent variables are the key factors that you want to explain or predict and that are affected by some other factor. Scholars have historically emphasized productivity, absenteeism, turnover, and job satisfaction. Today, organizational citizenship has been added to this list. The independent variables are divided into individual-level, group-level, and organization systems level variables. The individual-level variables include biographical characteristics, ability, values, attitudes, personality, emotions, perception, individual decision making, learning, and motivation. Group-level variables include communication, leadership, power, and politics. Organization systems level variables include structure, work processes, human resource policies, and practices.

COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS Discuss Mintzberg’s ten different roles. Group them as being primarily concerned with interpersonal relationships, the transfer of information, and decision making.

(Exh. 1-1; Pages 4-5) 152.

Mintzberg identified ten managerial roles. The interpersonal roles include figurehead, leadership, and liaison roles. Performing ceremonial and symbolic duties is the figurehead role. The leadership role includes hiring, training, motivating, and disciplining employees. The liaison role involves contacting outsiders who provide the manager with information. The information roles include monitor, disseminator, and spokesperson. Collecting information from organizations and institutions outside their own is the monitor role. The disseminator role involves acting as a conduit to transmit information to organizational members. The spokesperson role occurs when managers represent their organization to outsiders. Decisional roles include entrepreneur, disturbance handler, resource allocator, and negotiator. In the entrepreneur role, managers initiate and oversee new projects that will improve their organization’s performance. As disturbance handlers, managers take corrective action in response to unforeseen problems. As resource allocators, managers are responsible for allocating human, physical, and monetary resources. Managers perform a negotiator role, in which they discuss issues and bargain with other units to gain advantages for their own unit.

153.

Organizational behavior is an applied behavioral science built upon contributions from a number of 21

different disciplines. What are these disciplines and what are the contributions of each discipline?

Be complete in your response and include five different behavioral science disciplines.

(Exh. 1-3; Pages 11-12) Organizational behavior has been built upon the contributions of psychology, sociology, social psychology, anthropology, and political science. Psychology has contributed to learning, perception, personality, emotions, training, leadership effectiveness, needs and motivational forces, job satisfaction, decision-making processes, performance appraisals, attitude measurement, employee selection techniques, work design, and job stress. Sociology has contributed through the study of formal and complex organizations – including group dynamics, design of work teams, organizational culture, formal organization theory and structure, organizational technology, communications, power, and conflict. Social psychology has contributed in the areas of measuring, understanding, and changing attitudes; communication patterns; building trust; the ways in which group activities can satisfy needs; and group decision-making processes. Anthropology has contributed to an understanding of organizational culture, organizational environments, and differences between national cultures. Political science has contributed to an understanding of structuring of conflict, allocation of power, and how people manipulate power for individual self-interest.

154.

How have the roles of managers and workers been blurred?

(Pages 20-21) The roles of managers and workers have been blurred as the relationship between the two has been reshaped. Managers are being called coaches, advisers, sponsors, or facilitators in some organizations. Employees are now called associates. Decision making is being pushed down to the operating level, where workers are being given the freedom to make choices about schedules and procedures and to solve work-related problems. Managers are going considerably further by allowing employees full control of their work. More self-managed teams are being used where workers operate largely without bosses and managers are empowering employees.

155.

What is an ethical dilemma? How are organizations responding to these dilemmas?

(Pages 21-22) An ethical dilemma is a situation in which employees are required to define right and wrong conduct.

Dilemmas include whether to blow the whistle, whether they should follow orders with which they don’t personally agree, whether they should give an inflated performance evaluation to an employee whom they like, knowing that such an evaluation could save that employee’s job, or whether they should allow themselves to play politics in the organization if it will help their career advancement.

These ethical dilemmas result from the blurring of the line differentiating right from wrong.

Managers and their organizations are responding to this problem from a number of directions. They are writing and distributing codes of ethics to guide employees through ethical dilemmas. They are offering seminars, workshops, and training programs to try to improve ethical behaviors. They are also using in-house advisors to provide assistance and they are creating protection mechanisms for employees who reveal internal unethical practices.

156.

Define turnover. Why is it of concern to organizations?

22

(Page 24) Turnover is the voluntary and involuntary permanent withdrawal from an organization. A high turnover rate results in increased recruiting, selection, and training costs – which are quite significant.

A high rate of turnover can also disrupt the efficient running of an organization when knowledgeable and experienced personnel leave and replacements must be found and prepared to assume positions of responsibility. However, reasonable levels of employee-initiated turnover facilitate organization flexibility and employee independence, and they can lessen the need for management-initiated layoffs. Unfortunately, turnover often involves the loss of people the organization doesn’t want to lose.

23

Chapter 2 Foundations of Individual Behavior MULTIPLE CHOICE Biographical Characteristics 1.

The biographical characteristic that will grow in importance during the next decade is: a. sex. b. marital status. c. age. d. length of service. (c; Moderate; p. 37)

2.

All of the following are examples of biographical characteristics except: a. sexual orientation. b. age. c. sex. d. marital status. (a; Moderate; p. 37)

3.

The age of a worker seems to have a direct relationship to: a. productivity. b. turnover. c. absenteeism. d. vacation taken. (b; Challenging; p. 38)

4.

Which of the following statements is not true? a. In general, older employees have lower rates of avoidable absence than do younger employees. b. Older employees have higher rates of unavoidable absence than younger workers probably due to their poorer health. c. The older you get, the more likely you are to quit your job. d. Older workers are perceived as lacking flexibility. (c; Moderate, p. 38)

5.

Which of the following is true concerning the relationship between age and job satisfaction? a. Most studies found a negative association between age and satisfaction. b. There is a U-shaped relationship. c. Satisfaction decreases among professionals as they age. d. Satisfaction increases among nonprofessionals during middle age. (b; Challenging; p. 39)

6.

Studies have found that all of the following are true except: a. women are more willing to conform to authority than men. b. men are more aggressive than women. c. women tend to be more productive at work than men. d. men are more likely to have expectations of success. (c; Moderate; p. 39) 24

7.

In comparing men and women in the workplace, it was found that: a. men are more productive. b. women are more productive. c. women have more absences. d. men are more prone to resign. (c; Moderate; p. 39)

8.

According to your text, a likely explanation for the higher absentee rate for women is that: a. women tend to have more illnesses that keep them from work than do men. b. traditionally, women have had the responsibility of caring for home and family. c. women tend to be less satisfied with their jobs than men and are consequently absent more often. d. women generally have jobs for which a temporary replacement can be hired so absences are more permissible. (b; Challenging; p. 39)

9.

All of the following are true about married employees except: a. they are more productive than single employees. b. they have fewer absences than single employees. c. they undergo less turnover than single employees. d. they are more satisfied with their jobs than single employees. (a; Moderate; pp. 39-40)

10.

Which of the following statements concerning tenure is not true? a. The most recent evidence demonstrates a positive relationship between seniority and job productivity. b. Tenure does not appear to be a good predictor of employee productivity. c. Tenure is a potent variable in explaining turnover. d. Tenure and satisfaction are positively related. (b; Moderate; p. 40) 11.

Studies indicate that employees with more tenure: a. are generally less satisfied than newer employees. b. are generally less productive than newer employees. c. are generally absent less than newer employees. d. are generally absent more than newer employees. (c; Moderate; p. 40) Ability As used in the text, the term ―ability:‖ a. refers to an individual’s willingness to perform the various tasks in a job. b. is a current assessment of what one can do. c. is made up of only intellectual skills. d. is made up of people skills. (b; Moderate; p. 40) 12.

13.

Which one of the following is the best synonym for ―ability?‖ 25

a. motivation b. capacity c. experience d. intellect (b; Moderate; p. 40) 14.

Which of the following is not a dimension of intellectual ability as discussed in your text? a. number aptitude b. perceptual speed c. spatial visualization d. dynamic strength (d; Moderate; Exh. 2-1; p. 41) 15.

Tests that measure specific dimensions of intelligence have been found to be strong predictors of: a. job satisfaction. b. turnover. c. job performance. d. ability to work with others. (c; Moderate; p. 41) 16.

A major problem resulting from the use of ability tests for selection and promotion of personnel is: a. the low reliability of the tests. b. the tests fail to take into account the personality of the individual. c. the adverse impact the tests have on racial and ethnic groups. d. some individuals with high intelligence are poor test takers. (c; Moderate; p. 41) 17.

Recent evidence suggests that intelligence can be better understood by breaking it down into four sub-parts. Which one of the following is not one of those sub-parts? a. cognitive b. social c. emotional d. physical strength (d; Moderate; pp. 41-42) 18.

encompasses the aptitudes that have long been tapped by traditional intelligence tests. a. Cognitive intelligence b. Social intelligence c. Emotional intelligence d. Physical strength (a; Easy; p. 42) intelligence is a person’s ability to relate effectively to others. a. Cognitive b. Social c. Emotional d. Cultural (b; Easy; p. 42)

19.

26

20.

intelligence is awareness of cross-cultural differences and the ability to successfully function in cross-cultural situations. a. Cognitive b. Social c. Emotional d. Cultural (d; Easy; p. 42) 21.

intelligence is the ability to identify, understand, and manage emotions. a. Cognitive b. Social c. Emotional d. Cultural (c; Easy; p. 42) Multiple intelligences may help explain why so-called ―smart people‖ don’t: a. necessarily adapt well to everyday life. b. work well with others. c. succeed when placed in leadership roles. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 42) 22.

23.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of physical ability? a. stamina b. strength c. looks d. dexterity (c; Moderate; p. 42) 24.

Research indicates that there are nine basic abilities involved in the performance of physical tests.

Which of the following is not a correct description of the ability listed? a. dynamic strength–ability to exert muscular force repeatedly b. dynamic flexibility–ability to move the trunk and back muscles as far as possible c. balance–ability to maintain equilibrium despite forces pulling off balance d. stamina–ability to continue maximum effort requiring prolonged effort over time (b; Challenging; Exh. 2-2; p. 42) Learning According to a psychologist’s definition, a. ability to perform well on exams b. change in attitude c. change in behavior d. a high IQ score (c; Easy; p. 43)

25.

26.

indicates that learning has taken place.

Any relatively permanent change in behavior that occurs as a result of experience is termed: a. learning. b. classical conditioning.

27

c. operant conditioning. d. social learning theory. (a; Moderate; p. 43) 27.

All of the following are true about learning except: a. it involves change. b. the change can be permanent or temporary. c. it requires a change in actions of behavior. d. it requires some form of experience. (b; Moderate; p. 44) 28.

Experience may be acquired: a. directly through observation or practice. b. directly through reading. c. but is not necessary for learning. d. but is meaningless. (a; Moderate; p. 44) 29.

The classical conditioning theory of learning grew out of: a. experiments performed by Ivan Pavlov. b. the need for better managers. c. experiments performed by B. F. Skinner. d. advances in technology. (a; Moderate; p. 44) In Pavlov’s experiment, the meat was: a. an unconditioned stimulus. b. an unconditioned response. c. a conditioned stimulus. d. a conditioned response. (a; Easy; p. 44)

30.

31.

Which of the following is not a conditioned response? a. wincing when you stub your toe b. driving on the right side of the road c. feeling hunger around noon time d. looking for shelter when the sky turns gray (a; Moderate; p. 44)

In Pavlov’s experiment, the bell was: a. an unconditioned stimulus. b. an unconditioned response. c. a conditioned stimulus. d. a conditioned response. (c; Easy; p. 44) 33.

Which of the following is not true of classical conditioning? a. Classical conditioning is passive. b. Classical conditioning can explain simple reflexive behaviors. c. Learning a conditioned response involves building up an association between a conditioned 32.

28

stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus. d. The neutral stimulus takes on the properties of the conditioned stimulus. (d; Moderate; pp. 44-45) 34.

A smell that brings back memories of a certain time and place is an example of: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. sensory conditioning. d. association conditioning. (a; Easy; p. 44) 35.

Most behavior of individuals in organizations is: a elicited. b. emitted. c. reflexive. d. uncontrollable. (b; Moderate; p. 45) 36.

Operant conditioning argues that: a. behavior is reflexive. b. behavior is unlearned. c. behavior is a function of its consequences. d. the tendency to repeat a behavior is very strong. (c; Moderate; p. 45) 37.

Reinforcement is the major tenet of: a. Pavlov. b. Fayol. c. Skinner. d. Deming. (c; Challenging; p. 46) 38.

What did for classical conditioning, a. Pavlov; Skinner b. Herzberg; Deming c. Fayol; Mintzberg d. McGregor; Maslow (a; Challenging; p. 46)

39.

did for operant conditioning.

Your boss does not follow through on his/her promise to pay you double for overtime hours worked.

When asked again to work overtime, you decline. This is an application of a. employer/employee relations. b. operant conditioning. c. lack of commitment.

29

d. social learning. (b; Moderate; p. 46) 40.

According to operant conditioning, if a behavior fails to be positively reinforced, the probability that behavior will be repeated: a. increases. b. declines. c. remains unchanged. d. is not impacted. (b; Moderate; p. 46) 41.

The view that we can learn both through observation and direct experience is called: a. situational learning theory. b. classical learning. c. social learning theory. d. hands-on learning experience. (c; Easy; p. 46)

42.

Social learning theory is an extension of: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. shaping. d. extinction. (b; Challenging; p. 46) 43.

Four processes have been found to determine the influence that a model will have on an individual.

Which of the following is not one of the processes? a. shaping processes b. attentional processes c. motor reproduction processes d. reinforcement processes (a; Challenging; pp. 46-47) Using processes in creating employee training programs recognizes that models’ influence will depend on how well the individual remembers the model’s action after the model is no longer readily available. a. attentional b. retention c. motor reproduction d. reinforcement (b; Moderate; pp. 46-47) 44.

45.

The learning concept of reinforcing closer and closer approximations to the desired new behavior is called: a. modeling. b. shaping. c. classical conditioning. d. social learning.

30

(b; Easy; p. 47) 46.

Individual-difference factors found to significantly influence learning and training actions include all of the following except: a. ability. b. motivational level. c. personality. d. age. (d; Moderate; p. 47) 47.

All of the following are ways in which to shape learning except: a. positive reinforcement. b. punishment. c. extinction. d. manipulation. (d; Moderate; pp. 47-48)

48.

When a response is followed by the termination or withdrawal of something unpleasant, it is called: a. negative reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. manipulation. d. elimination. (a; Easy; p. 47)

49.

Suspending an employee who shows up for work drunk is an example of: a. extinction. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. poor planning. (c; Moderate; p. 48) 50.

An example of is when an employee receives a one-week suspension from work and is fined $200 for stealing company property. a. penalization b. punishment c. extinction d. negative reinforcement (b; Easy; p. 48)

51.

Eliminating any reinforcement that is maintaining an unwanted behavior is called: a. extinction. b. punishment. c. negative reinforcement. d. positive reinforcement. (a; Easy; p. 48)

31

52.

All of the following are true about both positive and negative reinforcement except: a. both positive and negative reinforcement result in learning. b. both positive and negative reinforcement strengthen a response and increase the probability of repetition. c. both positive and negative reinforcement tend to weaken behavior and decrease its subsequent frequency. d. both positive and negative reinforcement are effective shaping tools. (c; Challenging; pp. 48-49) 53.

In a case where an employee is frequently late for work and every time he/she is not tardy the manager compliments him/her for being on time, the manager is using: a. continuous schedule reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. an intermittent schedule of reinforcement. d. a repetitious schedule of reinforcement. (a; Moderate; p. 49) 54.

According to research, the extinction than does the a. varied; repetitious b. repetitious; intermittent c. intermittent; continuous d. continuous; varied (c; Moderate; p. 49)

form of reinforcement tends to promote more resistance to form.

55.

In a reinforcement schedule, after a constant number of responses are given, a reward is initiated. a. variable-ratio b. fixed-ratio c. variable-interval d. fixed-interval (b; Moderate; pp. 49-50) 56.

In general, reinforcement schedules tend to lead to higher performance than reinforcement schedules. a. variable; fixed b. fixed; intermittent c. fixed; variable d. variable; occasional (a; Moderate; pp. 49-50) 57.

A series of randomly timed, unannounced visits to a company office by the corporate audit staff is an example of: a. surprise tactic. b. variable-interval reinforcement schedule. c. continuous reinforcement schedule. d. fixed reinforcement schedule. (b; Moderate; p. 50)

32

58.

The now-classic study at Emery Air Freight illustrates the use of: a. classical conditioning. b. self-management. c. reengineering. d. behavior modification. (d; Moderate; p. 51) 59.

The application of reinforcement concepts to individuals in the work setting is referred to as: a. classical conditioning. b. self-management. c. reengineering. d. OB Mod. (d; Moderate; p. 51) 60.

Which of the following is not one of the steps of the problem-solving model followed by the typical OB Mod program? a. identifying critical behaviors b. avoiding evaluation and performance c. developing baseline data d. developing and implementing an intervention strategy (b; Challenging; p. 52) 61.

Examples of how managers can use learning theory include all the following except: a. using lotteries to reduce absenteeism. b. disciplining employees. c. developing training programs. d. using radio advertisements for recruiting. (d; Moderate; pp. 53-54) 62.

Which of the following does not describe the effect of discipline on employees? a. It tells employees what not to do. b. It tells employees what to do in the future. c. It produces fast results in the short run. d. It leads to employee frustration, fear of the manager, and increases in absenteeism and turnover. (b; Moderate; p. 53)

63.

Learning techniques that allow individuals to manage their own behavior so that less external management control is necessary are termed: a. self-management. b. MBO. c. reengineering. d. mentor programs. (a; Easy; p. 54)

33

TRUE/FALSE Biographical Characteristics 64.

Biographical data is easier to acquire than information on employee motivation levels.

(True; Easy; p. 37) 65.

Personal characteristics that are objective and easily obtained from personnel records (such as age, sex, and marital status) are termed biographical characteristics.

(True; Easy; p. 37) 66.

The relationship between age and job performance is likely to be an issue of increasing importance during the next decade.

(True; Moderate; p. 38) 67.

Recent American legislation makes it easier for a company to enforce mandatory retirement.

(False; Moderate; p. 38) 68.

Age and turnover rates are directly related.

(False; Moderate; p. 38) 69.

Age and avoidable absences are positively related.

(False; Moderate; p. 38) 70.

Productivity declines with age.

(False; Challenging; p. 38) 71.

Age and job satisfaction are related for professional workers.

(True; Challenging; p. 39) 72.

It is best to assume that there are not significant differences as to job productivity between males and females.

(True; Easy; p. 39) 73.

Men have a higher rate of absenteeism than women.

(False; Easy; p. 39) 74.

Working mothers are more likely to prefer part-time work, flexible work schedules, and telecommuting.

(True; Easy; p. 39) 75.

Women have higher absenteeism rates than men do.

(True; Easy; p. 39) 76.

Married employees tend to be more satisfied with their jobs than single employees.

(True; Easy; pp. 39-40) 77.

Married employees tend to have higher turnover rates than single employees.

(False; Moderate; pp. 39-40)

34

78.

People who have been on a job longer are more productive than those with less seniority.

(True; Moderate; p. 40) 79.

Seniority is negatively related to absenteeism.

(True; Moderate; p. 40) 80.

Seniority is negatively related to turnover and is one of the single best predictors of turnover.

(True; Challenging; p. 40) 81.

Tenure and satisfaction are negatively related.

(False; Moderate; p. 40) Ability 82.

Everyone has strengths and weaknesses in terms of ability that make them relatively superior or inferior to others in performing certain tasks or activities.

(True; Moderate; p. 40) 83.

Ability is the assessment of what one will do.

(False; Easy; p. 40) An individual’s overall abilities are essentially made up of two sets of factors: intellectual and physical abilities.

(True; Moderate; p. 40) 84.

85.

It is now illegal for employers to use IQ tests for employment selection.

(False; Moderate; p. 40) 86.

A high IQ is a prerequisite for all jobs.

(False; Easy; p. 41) 87.

Tests that measure specific dimensions of intelligence have been found to be strong predictors of future job performance.

(True; Moderate; p. 41) 88.

Mental ability tests used for selection, promotion, training, and similar personnel decisions may have a negative impact on racial and ethnic groups.

(True; Challenging; p. 41) 89.

Stamina, dexterity, and strength are dimensions of intellectual ability.

(False; Easy; Exh. 2-2; p. 42) 90.

Emotional intelligence is the ability to identify, understand, and manage emotions.

(True; Moderate; p. 42) 91.

The multiple intelligence line of inquiry holds little promise.

(False; Easy; p. 42)

35

92.

Employee performance is enhanced when there is a high ability-job fit.

(True; Easy; p. 42) 93.

Individuals who have a high score on one dimension of physical ability will almost always score high on the other dimensions.

(False; Moderate; p. 42) Learning 94.

Learning consists of any relatively permanent change in behavior that occurs as a result of experience.

(True; Easy; p. 43) 95.

One can easily observe others learning.

(False; Easy; p. 43) 96.

Classical conditioning grew out of the work of B.F. Skinner.

(False; Moderate; p. 44) 97.

Pavlov taught dogs to salivate in response to the ringing of a bell.

(True; Easy; p. 44) 98.

The meat in Pavlov’s experiment was an unconditioned stimulus.

(True; Moderate; p. 44) 99.

Learning a conditioned response involves building up an association between a conditioned stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus.

(True; Challenging; p. 44) 100.

Operant conditioning can be used to explain why Christmas carols often bring back pleasant memories of childhood.

(False; Challenging; p. 44) 101.

Classical conditioning is passive.

(True; Moderate; p. 45) 102.

Classical conditioning can explain simple reflexive behaviors.

(True; Moderate; p. 45) 103.

What Pavlov did for operant conditioning, Skinner did for classical conditioning.

(False; Challenging; p. 46) 104.

Operant behavior means voluntary or learned behavior in contrast to reflexive or unlearned behavior.

(True; Challenging; p. 45) 105.

According to operant conditioning, behavior is assumed to be determined from without.

(True; Moderate; p. 46) 106.

Your supervisor has explained that he will positively reward those who take extra effort to see that 36

their jobs are done well. You should suspect he has read the work of B.F. Skinner.

(True; Easy; p. 46) 107.

Rewards are most effective if they are delayed following the desired response.

(False; Moderate; p. 46) 108.

Learning through observation and direct experience has been called classical conditioning.

(False; Easy; p. 46) 109.

The old adage ―you can’t teach an old dog new tricks‖ is definitely true.

(False; Easy; p. 47) 110.

Older workers are not as capable of learning as other employee groups.

(False; Moderate; p. 47) 111.

One method of shaping behavior is called positive reinforcement and refers to a response being followed with something pleasant.

(True; Moderate; p. 47) 112.

Eliminating any reinforcement that is maintaining a behavior is called punishment.

(False; Moderate; pp. 47-48) 113.

Both positive and negative reinforcement result in learning.

(True; Easy; p. 48) 114.

Both punishment and extinction weaken behavior and tend to decrease its subsequent frequency.

(True; Challenging; p. 48) 115.

Some type of reinforcement is necessary to produce a change in behavior.

(True; Easy; p. 49) 116.

A continuous reinforcement schedule reinforces the desired behavior each and every time it is demonstrated.

(True; Easy; p. 49) 117.

A piece-rate incentive plan is an example of a variable-ratio schedule of reinforcement.

(False; Moderate; p. 49) 118.

Salespeople on commission are examples of individuals on a variable-ratio schedule.

(True; Moderate; p. 50) 119.

Evidence indicates that the variable form of reinforcement leads to early satiation.

(False; Challenging; p. 50) 120.

In the typical OB Mod program, everything an employee does on his or her job is equally important in terms of performance outcomes.

(False; Moderate; p. 51)

121.

The first step in OB Mod is to identify critical behaviors impacting the employee’s performance.

37

(True; Moderate; p. 52) 122.

Organizations with paid sick leave programs experience approximately one-half the absenteeism of organizations without such programs.

(False; Moderate; p. 53) 123.

Discipline is very effective in producing long-term change in employee behavior.

(False; Moderate; p. 53) 124.

Discipline tends to be popular because of its ability to produce fast results in the short run.

(True; Easy; p. 53) 125.

Organizations can use social-learning theory to design training programs.

(True; Easy; pp. 53-54) 126.

Self-management requires an individual to deliberately manipulate stimuli, internal processes, and responses to achieve personal behavioral outcomes.

(True; Moderate; p. 54) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Biographical Characteristics Your division is made up of four people with very different biological characteristics. Gina is 27 years old, single and female. She has been with the company only six months. Robert is 33 years old and married and has been with the firm since he graduated from college. Jonathan is 63 years old and a widower. Jonathan has been with the company for thirty years. Sally is a single mother with four children who has been working here for five years.

127.

You would expect that the lowest rate of avoidable absence will be: a. Robert’s. b. Sally’s. c. Gina’s. d. Jonathan’s. (d; Moderate; pp. 37-40)

128.

You would expect schedule. a. Jonathan b. Sally c. Gina d. Robert (b; Moderate; pp. 37-40) 129.

to be the first employee to choose telecommuting or a flexible work

You would expect Robert, because he is coworkers.

, will be more satisfied with his job than his

38

a. married b. middle aged c. college educated d. a father (a; Challenging; pp. 37-40) 130.

You would believe that a. Gina b. Robert c. Jonathan d. Sally (c; Moderate; pp. 37-40)

is the least likely to quit his or her job.

Application of Ability-Job Fit Martin has just been appointed as Director of Career Services for a small community college. He has decided to consider the particular dimensions of intellectual ability that each student has to try to place him or her in an appropriate position.

131.

Gary is a marketing major and has decided that he wants to be a Market Researcher. The ability that he will need most is: a. number aptitude. b. perceptual speed. c. inductive reasoning. d. deductive reasoning. (c; Challenging; Exh. 2-1; pp. 42-43) 132.

Martha is interested in a career in interior decorating. The intellectual ability that she will need most is: a. number aptitude. b. perceptual speed. c. spatial visualization. d. deductive reasoning. (c; Moderate; Exh. 2-1; pp. 42-43)

133.

You have just met Ted. Ted has returned to college after a successful career as a fire investigator.

Ted probably has the intellectual ability that is termed: a. number aptitude. b. perceptual speed. c. inductive reasoning. d. deductive reasoning. (b; Challenging; Exh. 2-1; pp. 42-43) 134.

Martin’s own supervisor cannot seem to make a choice when two different suggestions are offered by her employees. Martin suspects that his supervisor is not strong in the ability termed: a. number aptitude.

39

b. perceptual speed. c. inductive reasoning. d. deductive reasoning. (d; Challenging; Exh. 2-1; pp. 42-43) Application of Learning Theory—Shaping Behavior You are the first-line supervisor for a group of employees who make green widgets. Their job is not terribly interesting or challenging and you have noticed that they are frequently tardy returning from their breaks.

You have studied the concept of shaping behavior and decide that you will try to apply it to this situation.

135.

You praise Allen for returning on time from break. This is an example of: a. negative reinforcement. b. positive reinforcement. c. extinction. d. social learning. (b; Moderate; pp. 47-49) 136.

You want Allison to take an accounting course so that she can help with the bookkeeping. Allison does not want to go to night school to take the course and has been resisting. You know that her least favorite duty is preparing payroll. You tell her that she will be doing payroll until she takes the accounting course. This is an example of: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. extinction. (b; Challenging; pp. 47-49) Sam is late coming back to work again and you reduce his pay by a half hour’s wages. This is an example of: a. positive reinforcement. b. negative reinforcement. c. punishment. d. extinction. (c; Moderate; pp. 47-49) 137.

Application of Different Schedules of Reinforcement You have decided to experiment with the relationship between reinforcement schedules and maintaining desired employee behavior. You are interested in observing the differences between continuous and intermittent reinforcement and between the various types of intermittent reinforcement schedules.

138.

Veronica is paid $10.00 per dozen widgets that she produces. This is an example of: a. intermittent, fixed-interval reinforcement. b. continuous reinforcement. c. intermittent, variable-interval reinforcement. d. negative reinforcement. (a; Moderate; pp. 49-50) 40

139.

Gerald is a staff accountant who is visited several times a year by the corporate auditor. These visits are unannounced. This is an example of: a. intermittent, fixed-interval reinforcement. b. continuous reinforcement. c. intermittent, variable-interval reinforcement. d. negative reinforcement. (c; Moderate; pp. 49-50) John’s attendance has historically been unreliable and you have decided to use reinforcement to compliment him when his attendance record shows improvement. The most effective schedule of reinforcement will probably be: a. variable-interval intermittent. b. fixed-interval intermittent. c. continuous. d. punishment-based. (a; Challenging; pp. 49-50) 140.

141.

You know that the reinforcement schedule that your firm chooses for compensation will have an impact on the behavior of the employees. Which of the following is not true based on available research? a. Continuous reinforcement schedules can lead to early satiation. b. Continuous reinforcement schedules are appropriate for newly emitted, unstable, or lowfrequency responses. c. Variable schedules do not clearly link performance and rewards. d. Fixed schedules tend to lead to higher performance than variable schedules. (d; Challenging; pp. 49-50) Application of Behavior Modification Your manager has read about the now-classic study of Emery’s use of OB Mod. He was impressed by the savings to the company of $2 million over a three-year period. He has announced that he is implementing an OB Mod program.

142.

You can expect to see the application of a. reinforcement concepts to individuals b. open book management c. additional stock option plans d. a cafeteria benefit plan (a; Challenging; p. 51)

in the work setting.

143.

The first step that your manager is likely to take is: a. identifying behavioral consequences. b. identifying critical behaviors. c. evaluating performance improvement. d. developing baseline data. (b; Challenging; pp.51-52) 41

144.

In the first step of the OB Mod program, your manager will most likely be attempting to identify those five to ten percent of behaviors that may account for up to percent of each employee’s performance. a. 20-25 b. 40-50 c. 60-70 d. 70-80 (d; Challenging; pp. 51-52) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 145.

Briefly discuss whether women perform as well in the workplace as men.

(Page 39) There is no evidence indicating that an employee’s gender affects job productivity.

146.

Why is the relationship between age and job performance likely to be an issue of increasing importance during the next decade?

(Pages 37-38) First, there is a widespread belief that job performance declines with increasing age. Regardlessof whether it’s true or not, a lot of people believe it and act on it. Second is the reality that the workforce is aging. Workers age 55 and older are currently the fastest-growing sector of the labor force. The third reason is U.S. legislation that, for all intents and purposes, outlaws mandatory retirement.

147.

What is the relationship between job satisfaction and the following biological characteristics: age, gender, marital status, and tenure?

(Pages 37-40) The evidence is mixed with regard to the relationship between age and job satisfaction. Most studies indicate a positive association between age and satisfaction, at least up to age 60. Others studies, however, have found a U-shaped relationship. Satisfaction tends to continually increase among professionals as they age, whereas it fails among nonprofessionals during middle age and then rises again in the later years. There is no evidence indicating that an employee’s gender affects job satisfaction. Married people are more satisfied with their jobs than are their unmarried coworkers.

Causation is not clear, however. It may very well be that conscientious and satisfied employees are more likely to be married. The evidence indicates that tenure and satisfaction are positively related.

When age and tenure are treated separately, tenure appears to be a more consistent and stable predictor of job satisfaction than is chronological age.

148.

What are the four sub-parts of intelligence?

(Pages 40-42) The four parts of intelligence are cognitive, social, emotional, and cultural. Cognitive intelligence encompasses the aptitudes that have long been tapped by traditional intelligence tests. Social intelligence is a person’s ability to relate effectively to others. Emotional intelligence is the ability to

42

identify, understand, and manage emotions. And cultural intelligence is awareness of cross-cultural differences and the ability to successfully function in cross-cultural situations.

149.

What prediction can you make when the ability-job fit is poor?

(Page 43) If employees lack the required abilities, they are likely to fail in their job performance. Abilities significantly above those required can also reduce the employee’s job satisfaction when the employee’s desire to use his or her abilities is particularly strong and is frustrated by the limitations of the job.

150.

How can managers shape employee behavior?

(Pages 47-48) Managers can shape employee behavior by systematically reinforcing each successive step that moves the individual closer to the desired response. Managers can mold individuals by guiding their learning in graduated steps. Reinforcement increases as responses more closely approximate the desired behavior. Managers may use positive reinforcement, negative reinforcement, punishment, and extinction.

151.

Give an example of a fixed-ratio schedule for paying employees and an example of a variable-ratio schedule for payment.

(Page 50) A fixed-ratio schedule rewards are initiated after a fixed or constant number of responses. For example, a worker is rewarded with a piece rate system paying $10 for every 12 widgets produced.

Each dozen earns the worker another $10. A variable-ratio schedule provides variable reward relative to the behavior of the individual. For example, a car salesman on commission is on a variable-ratio schedule. Each potential customer does not necessarily result in a sale – and ultimately a commission.

152.

How might a lottery be used to reduce absenteeism?

(Page 53) A lottery could be used to reduce absenteeism. Every month that an employee has perfect attendance at work could result in their inclusion in a monetary lottery at the end of the year. If the employee had perfect attendance, at the end of the year, they could have twelve chances to win the lottery.

Another employee who used sick days each month would have no chance. This could also operate on a monthly basis.

MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 153.

What is the relationship between age and productivity, turnover and satisfaction?

(Pages 37-39) The older you get, the less likely you are to quit your job. Older workers are less likely to resign than are younger workers because their long tenure tends to provide them with higher wage rates, longer paid vacations, and more attractive pension benefits. In general, older employees have lower rates of

43

avoidable absence than do younger employees. However, they have higher rates of unavoidable absence, probably due to the poorer heath associated with aging and the longer recovery that older workers need when injured. The demands of most jobs, even those with heavy manual labor requirements, are not extreme enough for any declines in physical skills due to age to have an impact on productivity; or if there is some decay due to age, it is offset by gains due to experience. The evidence is mixed when examining the relationship between age and job satisfaction. Most studies indicate a positive association between age and satisfaction, at least up to age 60. Other studies, however, have found a U-shaped relationship. Satisfaction tends to continually increase among professionals as they age, whereas it falls among nonprofessionals during middle age and then rises again in the later years.

154.

What is ability? What are the two sets of factors comprising ability?

(Pages 40-43) Ability refers to an individual’s capacity to perform the various tasks in a job. It is a current assessment of what one can do. An individual’s overall abilities are essentially made up of two sets of factors: intellectual and physical abilities. Intellectual abilities are those needed to perform mental activities. Physical abilities are important for successfully performing less-skilled and morestandardized jobs.

155.

Identify the five steps of a typical OB Mod program.

(Page 52) The typical OB Mod program follows a five-step problem-solving model: identifying critical behaviors, developing baseline data, identifying behavioral consequences, developing and implementing an intervention strategy, and evaluating performance improvement. The first step is to identify the critical behaviors that make a significant impact on the employee’s job performance. The second step requires the manager to develop some baseline performance data. This is obtained by determining the number of times the identified behavior is occurring under present conditions. The third step is to perform a functional analysis to identify the behavioral contingencies or consequences of performance. This tells the manager the antecedent cues that emit the behavior and the consequences that are currently maintaining it. In the fourth step, the manager develops and implements an intervention strategy to strengthen desirable performance behaviors and weaken undesirable behaviors. The final step is to evaluate performance improvement.

COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 156.

Discuss classical conditioning, operant conditioning, and social learning.

(Pages 44-47) Classical conditioning was researched by Pavlov. Learning a conditioned response involves building up an association between a conditioned stimulus and an unconditioned stimulus. When the stimuli, one compelling and the other one neutral, are paired, the neutral one becomes a conditioned stimulus and, hence, takes on the properties of the unconditioned stimulus. Operant conditioning according to Skinner, argues that behavior is a function of its consequences. People learn to behave to get something they want or to avoid something they don’t want. Operant behavior means voluntary or

44

learned behavior in contrast to reflexive or unlearned behavior. The tendency to repeat such behavior is influenced by the reinforcement or lack of reinforcement brought about by the consequences of the behavior. Reinforcement, therefore, strengthens a behavior and increases the likelihood that it will be repeated. Social learning is the view that we can learn through both observation and direct experience. While social learning theory is an extension of operant conditioning – that is, it assumes that behavior is a function of consequences – it also acknowledges the existence of observational learning and the importance of perception to learning. People respond to how they perceive and define consequences, not to the objective consequences themselves.

157.

Discuss the four processes management should include when creating employee training programs.

(Pages 52-54) The likelihood that training programs will be successful can be improved with the inclusion of attentional, retention, motor reproduction, and reinforcement processes. People learn from a model only when they recognize and pay attention to its critical features. We tend to be most influenced by models that are attractive, repeatedly available, important to us, or similar to us in our estimation. A model’s influence will depend on how well the individual remembers the model’s action after the model is no longer readily available. After a person has seen a new behavior by observing the model, the watching must be converted to doing. This motor reproduction process demonstrates that the individuals can perform the modeled activities. Individuals will be motivated to exhibit the modeled behavior if positive incentives or rewards are provided. Behaviors that are positively reinforced will be given more attention, learned better, and performed more often.

45

Chapter 3 Values, Attitudes, and Job Satisfaction MULTIPLE CHOICE Values represent basic convictions that ―a specific mode of conduct or end state of existence is personally or socially preferable to an opposite mode of conduct.‖ a. Values b. Attitudes c. Convictions d. Preferences (a; Moderate; p. 63) 1.

2.

The content attribute states a value is: a. complete. b. important. c. a basic conviction. d. related to behavior. (b; Moderate; p. 63) When we rank an individual’s values in terms of his/her a. intensity b. content c. context d. social acceptance (a; Moderate; p. 63)

3.

, we obtain the person’s value system.

4.

Values are best described as: a. flexible. b. synonymous with attitudes. c. consistent among occupational groups. d. fairly stable over time. (d; Moderate; p. 64)

5.

Rokeach studied instrumental values and: a. terminal values. b. attitudes. c. ethical decision making. d. speed of decision making. (a; Moderate; p. 64) 6.

Rokeach found that the instrumental value of ambitious (hardworking and aspiring) people was related to the terminal value of: a. a comfortable life. b. freedom. c. happiness. d. self-respect.

46

(a; Challenging; Exh. 3-1; p. 65) 7.

According to Rokeach, a. instrumental b. aesthetic c. theoretical d. terminal (d; Moderate; p. 64)

values refer to desirable end-states of existence.

8.

Which of the following was ranked as the highest terminal value by executives? a. family security b. self-respect c. equality d. freedom (b; Challenging; Exh. 3-2; p. 65) 9.

Frederick and Weber compiled a list of values that are held by different organizational groups.

Which of the following groups ranked ―honest‖ as the highest instrumental value? a. union members and activists b. executives and union members c. executives and activists d. existentials (c; Challenging; Exh. 3-2; p. 65) 10.

Which category of dominant work values is likely to characterize a 60-year-old employee? a. pragmatism b. egalitarianism c. existentialism d. Protestant work ethic (c; Challenging; Exh. 3-3; p. 65) 11.

At which age is an employee most likely to be characterized by values that place high loyalty on career? a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60 (b; Challenging; p. 66) 12.

Those individuals whose lives have been shaped by globalization, MTV, AIDS, and computers; who value flexibility, life options and the achievement of job satisfaction, are referred to as the: a. Veterans. b. Boomers. c. Nexters. d. Xers. (d; Easy; p. 66)

13.

Throughout the mid-1970s, the managerial ranks were dominated by Veterans, whose loyalties were 47

to their employer. When faced with ethical dilemmas, their decisions were made in terms of: a. what was best for their organization. b. what was best for their family. c. what was best for society. d. what was best for them on an individual basis. (a; Moderate; p. 68) 14.

tended to be loyal to their employer. a. Veterans. b. Boomers. c. Nexters. d. Xers. (a; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; p. 66)

15.

entered the work force from the mid-1960s through the mid-1980s. a. Veterans. b. Boomers. c. Nexters. d. Xers. (c; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; p. 66) 16.

The most recent entrants to the workforce are: a. Veterans. b. Boomers. c. Nexters. d. Xers. (c; Moderate; p. 67) 17.

The loyalty of a. Veterans. b. Boomers. c. Nexters. d. Xers. (b; Moderate; p. 68)

is to their careers.

18.

A comprehensive analysis of cultural diversity has been done by: a. Maslow. b. Hofstede. c. McGregor. d. Follett. (b; Moderate; p. 68) Which of the following is not one of Hofstede’s five dimensions of national culture? a. power distance b. language proficiency c. quantity of life vs. quality of life d. long-term orientation (b; Challenging; pp. 68-69)

19.

48

20.

The measure of the extent to which people in a country accept the fact that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally is called: a. institutional distribution theory. b. collectivism. c. power distance. d. quantity of life. (c; Moderate; p. 68) 21.

Cultures that emphasize of others. a. quantity of life b. quality of life c. power distance d. collectivism (b; Challenging; p. 68)

value relationships and show sensitivity and concern for the welfare

22.

Capitalism, which values aggressiveness and acquisition of material goods, is consistent with Hofstede’s characteristics. a. collectivism b. quality of life c. quantity of life d. hierarchical (c; Challenging; p. 68) If Hofstede’s study on national culture were to be updated, which of the following would most likely be true? a. China would now rank low on power distance. b. Mexico would have a stronger emphasis on collectivism. c. The United States would have a higher power distance. d. The United States would have shifted from an emphasis on quantity of life to an emphasis on quality of life. (d; Challenging; p. 68) 23.

24.

is the equivalent of low individualism. a. Collectivism b. Power distance c. Long-term orientation d. Uncertainty avoidance (a; Easy; p. 69)

25.

is the degree to which people in a country prefer structured over unstructured situations. a. Collectivism b. Power distance c. Long-term orientation d. Uncertainty avoidance (d; Easy; p. 69) 26.

Which of the following is not one of the cultural dimensions identified by the GLOBE team? a. assertiveness b. future orientation 49

c. humane orientation d. societal institutions (d; Moderate; pp. 69-70) 27.

Which of the following cultural dimensions was identified by GLOBE, but not Hofstede? a. uncertainty avoidance b. power distance c. performance orientation d. individualism/collectivism (c; Moderate; pp 69-70) 28.

According to the GLOBE team, encompasses the extent to which members of a society take pride in membership in small groups. a. in-group collectivism b. individualism/collectivism c. performance orientation d. human orientation (a; Challenging; p. 69) Attitudes 29.

In contrasting values and attitudes, which one of the following is true? a. They come from different sources. b. There is no significant correlation between the two. c. Attitudes are more stable than values. d. Values are more stable than attitudes. (d; Challenging; p. 71) The belief that ―discrimination is wrong‖ is a value statement. Such an opinion is the component of an attitude. a. cognitive b. affective c. reactive d. behavioral (a; Challenging; p. 71) 30.

31.

The component is the emotional or feeling segment of an attitude. a. affective b. cognitive c. behavioral d. evaluative (a; Moderate; p. 71)

32.

The component of an attitude refers to an intention to behave in a certain way toward someone or something. a. affective b. cognitive 50

c. behavioral d. evaluative (c; Moderate; p. 71) 33.

Which one of the following is not an attitude? a. job productivity b. job satisfaction c. job involvement d. organizational commitment (a; Easy; p. 71) 34.

The degree to which a person identifies with his or her job, actively participates in it, and considers his or her performance important to self-worth is: a. job satisfaction. b. job involvement. c. job stability. d. organizational commitment. (b; Moderate; p. 72) refers to an individual’s general attitude toward his or her job. a. Job satisfaction b. Job involvement c. Job stability d. Organizational commitment (a; Moderate; p. 72)

35.

Job involvement is best defined as a worker’s: a. general attitude toward his or her job. b. loyalty to the organization. c. identification with the job. d. need to participate in organizational social activities. (c; Moderate; p. 72)

36.

If an employee’s attitude is negative toward her job, she does not have: a. organizational commitment. b. values. c. job satisfaction. d. job involvement. (c; Moderate; p. 72) 37.

38.

Organizational commitment is: a. an attitude. b. negatively related to turnover. c. negatively related to absenteeism. d. all of the above 51

(d; Easy; p. 72) 39.

The best predictor of turnover is: a. job satisfaction. b. personality. c. organizational commitment. d. values. (c; Challenging; p. 72) The text suggested that in today’s workplace, organizational commitment may be replaced with: a. family commitment. b. occupational commitment. c. boss commitment. d. department commitment. (b; Moderate; p. 72) 40.

41.

If attitudes and behavior are inconsistent, individuals will most likely: a. change their behavior. b. change their attitudes. c. change either their attitudes and/or behavior. d. do nothing. (c; Easy; p. 73) 42.

Any incompatibility between two or more attitudes or between behavior and attitudes is termed: a. self-perception. b. cognitive dissonance. c. self-fulfilling prophecy. d. rational decision making. (b; Easy; p. 73)

43.

The theory of cognitive dissonance was proposed by: a. Abraham Maslow. b. Leon Festinger. c. G. G. Shaw. d. John Holland. (b; Moderate; p. 74)

44.

Festinger would propose that the desire to reduce dissonance would be determined by: a. the importance of the elements creating the dissonance. b. the degree of influence the individual believes he or she has over the elements. c. the rewards that may be involved in dissonance. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 74) 45.

Which of the following is not a moderating variable? a. the importance of the attitude b. fundamental values c. its specificity d. its accessibility (b; Challenging; p. 76) 52

46.

The A-B relationship is likely to be much stronger if: a. an attitude refers to something with which the individual has direct personal experience. b. the attitude is not considered important. c. the attitude is not specific. d. the attitude is not easily remembered. (a; Moderate; p. 75) 47.

is the theory that attitudes are used, after the fact, to make sense out of action that has already occurred. a. Cognitive dissonance b. Escalation of commitment c. Self perception d. Lag delay (c; Challenging; p. 76) 48.

In , employers elicit responses from employees through questionnaires about how they feel about their jobs, work groups, supervisors, and/or the organization. a. realistic job previews b. attitude surveys c. employee audits d. job descriptions (b; Easy; p. 76) 49.

Which of the following is not true concerning diversity programs? a. They almost all include a self-evaluation phase. b. Participants take part in group discussions with representatives from diverse groups. c. People confront their ethnic stereotypes. d. Only large U.S. employers sponsor diversity training. (d; Moderate; p. 78) Job Satisfaction 50.

Job satisfaction is best described as: a. behavior. b. a value. c. an attitude. d. causing high performance. (c; Moderate; p. 78)

51.

The best measure of job satisfaction is: a. the job involvement scale. b. the commitment scale. c. the summation of job facets. d. a one-question global rating. (d; Challenging; p. 78)

53

52.

Independent studies conducted among U.S. workers over the past 30 years generally indicate that: a. workers are satisfied with their jobs. b. these results are generally applicable to other developed countries. c. more people report that they are satisfied than not. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 79)

53.

Which of the following is true about the relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism? a. There is a consistent positive relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism. b. There is a consistent negative relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism. c. No relationship can be established between satisfaction and absenteeism. d. Liberal sick leave policies reduce absence among satisfied employees. (b; Moderate; p. 80) Factors other than satisfaction that impact one’s decision to leave a current job include all of the following except: a. labor market conditions. b. length of tenure with the organization. c. expectations about alternative job opportunities. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 80) 54.

55.

Satisfaction is to turnover. a. positively related b. unrelated c. negatively related d. equal in number (c; Moderate; p. 81) 56.

There has been a marked decline in job satisfaction since: a. the early 1990s. b. the Industrial Revolution. c. the 1950s. d. the late 1930s. (a; Easy; p. 70) 57.

Which of the following statements is true? a. Happy workers are productive workers. b. There is a high positive correlation between happiness and productivity. c. Productive workers are likely to be happy workers. d. Satisfaction leads to productivity. (c; Moderate; p. 80) 58.

An important moderator of the satisfaction-turnover relationship is: a. the employee’s level of performance. b. the organization’s culture. c. management. d. happiness in general. (a; Challenging; p. 81) 54

59.

Attending union meetings as a response to dissatisfaction would be what type of response? a. exit b. voice c. loyalty d. neglect (b; Moderate; p. 82) Quietly continuing to do your work, even though you’re dissatisfied, is what type of response to dissatisfaction? a. exit b. voice c. loyalty d. neglect (c; Moderate; p. 82) 60.

61.

Maria is dissatisfied with the way that her manager treats her. She has quit her job and found a new position with another firm. She has expressed her dissatisfaction through: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect. (a; Easy; p. 82) 62.

Steve is unhappy with his job. He takes every possible vacation and sick day and sometimes shows up for work late. He is expressing his dissatisfaction by: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect. (d; Moderate; p. 82) 63.

Not trying very hard as a response to dissatisfaction would be what type of response? a. exit b. voice c. loyalty d. neglect (d; Moderate; p. 82)

64.

Henry is dissatisfied with his job but believes that his supervisor is a good man who will do the right thing. Henry has decided that if he just waits, conditions will improve. Henry’s approach to this problem is termed: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect. (c; Moderate; p. 82)

55

65.

Early studies of organizational citizenship behavior (OCB) assumed that it was closely linked with satisfaction. More recent evidence suggests that satisfaction influences OCB, but through perceptions of: a. fairness. b. consistency. c. productivity. d. leadership ability. (a; Challenging; p. 83) 66.

Which of the following statements is not true? a. Satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction and loyalty. b. Dissatisfied customers can increase an employee’s job dissatisfaction. c. In service organizations, customer retention and defection are highly dependent on how front-line employees deal with customers. d. Satisfied employees are more prone to turnover. (d; Easy; p. 83) TRUE/FALSE Values 67.

Personality has both content and intensity attributes.

(False; Moderate; p. 63) 68.

The content attribute of a value says that a mode of conduct is important.

(True; Easy; p. 63) When we rank an individual’s values in terms of his/her intensity, we obtain that person’s value system.

(True; Moderate; p. 63) 69.

70.

Most values that people hold about work are acquired on the job.

(False; Moderate; p. 63) 71.

Values tend to be stable and enduring.

(True; Easy; p. 64) 72.

Values generally influence attitudes and behavior.

(True; Moderate; p. 64) 73.

Instrumental values are preferable modes of behavior, or means of achieving one’s terminal values.

(True; Moderate; p. 64) 74.

Milton Rokeach developed a survey that assesses terminal and instrumental values.

(True; Challenging; p. 64) 75.

RVS values vary among groups.

(True; Easy; p. 64)

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76.

Boomers place a great deal of emphasis on achievement and material success.

(True; Moderate, p. 66) 77.

Veterans tended to be less loyal to their employer.

(False; Moderate; p. 66) 78.

The lives of Xers have been shaped by globalization, MTV, AIDS, and computers.

(True; Moderate; p. 66) 79.

Nexters seem to be on a never-ending search for the ideal job.

(True; Moderate; p. 67) 80.

Managers consistently report that the action of their bosses is of little importance in influencing ethical and unethical behavior in their organizations.

(False; Moderate; p. 67) 81.

The loyalty of Boomers is to their careers.

(True; Moderate; p. 68) 82.

Victor Vroom has done a comprehensive analysis of national culture.

(False; Challenging; p. 68) 83.

Collectivism refers to a national culture attribute describing a loosely knit social framework in which people tend to their own interests and those of their immediate family.

(False; Moderate; p. 68) 84.

Organizations in a society high in uncertainty avoidance are likely to have more formal rules.

(True; Challenging; p. 69) 85.

It is consistent for a country with a democratic government to rank below average on power distance.

(True; Moderate; p. 69) 86.

U.S. culture ranked above average on power distance according to Hofstede.

(False; Moderate; p. 69) 87.

The GLOBE team identified 62 dimensions on which national cultures differ.

(False; Easy; p. 69) 88.

GLOBE’s future orientation is essentially equivalent to Hofstede’s long-term/short-term orientation.

(True; Moderate; p. 70) 89.

The GLOBE dimensions have replaced Hofstede’s dimensions.

(False; Easy; pp. 70-71) Attitudes 90.

The word ―attitude‖ describes a tendency to feel and behave in a particular way toward some object.

(True; Easy; p. 71)

57

91.

Attitudes and values are synonymous terms.

(False; Easy; p. 71) 92.

There are three components of an attitude: cognition, affect, and behavior.

(True; Challenging; p. 71) 93.

Attitudes are more stable than values.

(False; Easy; p. 71) 94.

In organizations, attitudes are important because they affect job behavior.

(True; Moderate; p. 71) 95.

A person with a high level of job satisfaction holds positive attitudes toward the job.

(True; Easy; p. 72) 96.

Job involvement refers to an individual’s general attitude toward his or her job.

(False; Moderate; p. 72) 97.

High levels of job involvement have been found to be related to higher absences.

(False; Moderate; p. 72) 98.

Organizational commitment is a better indicator of turnover than job satisfaction.

(True; Moderate; p. 72) 99.

Organizational commitment is a more global response to the organization than is job satisfaction.

(True; Challenging; p. 72) 100.

Organizational commitment is probably less important in predictingjob satisfaction today than it was a generation ago.

(True; Moderate; pp. 72-73) 101.

Research has concluded that people seek consistency among their attitudes but not between their attitudes and behavior.

(False; Moderate; p. 73) If there is an inconsistency between an individual’s attitude on a specific issue and his or her behavior, there are only two courses of action available–alter the attitude or alter the behavior.

(False; Challenging; p. 73) 103.

Cognitive dissonance explains the linkage between attitudes and behavior.

(True; Easy; p. 73) 102.

104.

The theory of cognitive dissonance seeks to explain the linkage between values and attitudes.

(False; Moderate; p. 74) 105.

Festinger argued that individuals will seek a stable state where there is a minimum of dissonance.

(True; Easy; p. 74) 106.

The desire to reduce dissonance is determined by importance, choice, and reward factors.

(False; Challenging; p. 74) 58

107.

If the elements creating dissonance are relatively unimportant, the pressure to correct this imbalance will be low.

(True; Easy; p. 74) 108.

If individuals perceive the dissonance to be an uncontrollable result, they are less likely to be receptive to attitude change.

(True, Challenging; p. 74) 109.

Rewards can offset dissonance.

(True; Moderate; p. 74) 110.

The more specific the attitude and the more specific the behavior, the stronger the link between the two.

(True; Moderate; p. 75) 111.

Self-perception theory uses attitudes after the fact to make sense out of an action that has already occurred.

(True; Moderate; p. 76) 112.

Attitude surveys can alert management to potential problems.

(True; Moderate; p. 76) 113.

Results from attitude surveys seldom surprise management.

(False; Easy; p. 76) 114.

The majority of large U.S. employers and a substantial proportion of medium-sized and smaller ones sponsor some sort of diversity training.

(True; Easy; p. 78) Job Satisfaction 115.

In measuring job satisfaction, the two most widely used measuring approaches are a single global rating and a summation score made up of a number of job facets.

(True; Moderate; p. 78)

116.

Single global measures of job satisfaction are as valid as summation scores made up of a number of job facets.

(True; Challenging; p. 78) 117.

Studies conducted among U.S. workers over the past 30 years generally indicate that the majority of workers are satisfied with their jobs.

(True; Moderate; p. 79) 118.

At the individual level, satisfaction generally leads to productivity.

(False; Moderate; p. 80) 119.

The propensity to quit a job tends to be inversely related to job satisfaction.

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(True; Moderate; p. 81) 120.

Actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions is expressing dissatisfaction through loyalty.

(False; Moderate; p. 82) 121.

Voice is an active and constructive response to dissatisfaction.

(True; Moderate; p. 82) 122.

Loyalty is a passive and constructive response to dissatisfaction.

(True; Moderate; p. 82) 123.

Neglect is an active and destructive response to dissatisfaction in which an employee waits for conditions to improve.

(False; Moderate; p. 82) 124.

An increase in absenteeism is an example of dissatisfaction expressed through neglect.

(True; Moderate; p. 82) 125.

The evidence indicates that satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction and loyalty.

(True; Moderate; p. 83) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Contemporary Work Cohorts You have just been promoted to manage a sales group. Your group is made up of ten people who range in age from 27 to 62. You have read that there are certain dominant work values for each age group and think that this may help you understand your group.

126.

You can expect that your younger employees, the Nexters, will seek: a. financial success. b. long-term loyalty to the organization. c. loyalty to self. d. loyalty to career. (a; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; pp. 66-67) 127.

Those employees labeled are in search of balance in their lives – trading off salary increases for increased leisure time. a. Veterans b. Boomers c. Xers d. Nexters (c; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; pp. 66-67) 128.

You can anticipate that your employees labeled justify their means. a. Veterans b. Boomers

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are pragmatists who believe that ends can

c. Xers d. Nexters (b; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; pp. 66-67) 129.

Most of the employees who entered the work force in the 50s and early 60s are called: a. Veterans b. Boomers c. Xers d. Nexters (a; Moderate; Exh. 3-3; pp. 66-67) Applications of Hofstede’s Framework Suppose that you are a Human Resource Manager for Prentice Corporation who is in charge of developing a training program for managers coming to the United States from your Prentice subsidiaries around the world.

You have decided to use the Hofstede Framework for discussing cultural differences that they might expect to find. Use your knowledge of the work of Hofstede to answer the following questions.

130.

Your Indonesian managers will need to be especially aware of the difference that exists between their country and the United States in the degree of of the two cultures. a. quantity of life vs. quality of life b. individualism c. power distance d. uncertainty avoidance (c; Challenging; pp. 68-69) If Hofstede’s work were to be updated, Americans would probably rank more like people from on quantity of life. a. the Netherlands b. Germany c. Japan d. China (a; Challenging; pp. 68-69) 131.

You will need to include each of the following as elements of Hofstede’s framework except: a. power distance. b. uncertainty avoidance. c. parochialism. d. individualism vs. collectivism. (c; Moderate; pp. 68-69) 132.

133.

Which of the following countries ranks high in long-term orientation? a. United States b. France c. Russia d. China (d; Moderate; pp. 68-69) 61

Application of Cognitive Dissonance Theory Mrs. Jonas believes strongly that everyone has an obligation to protect the environment. Mrs. Jonas works for a hog farm in North Carolina and she has just discovered that hog waste is being released into the river.

134.

Mrs. Jonas is experiencing: a. cognitive dissonance. b. an attack of conscience. c. peer pressure. d. evaluative attitude. (a; Challenging; pp. 73-75) 135.

Mrs. Jonas comes to you for an explanation of why she is so uncomfortable. You might refer her to the theories of: a. Max Weber. b. Robert House. c. Abraham Maslow. d. Leon Festinger. (d; Challenging; pp. 73-75) 136.

Mrs. Jonas can be expected to relieve the discomfort she is experiencing by: a. deciding this issue is unimportant. b. rationalizing that the good to society is more than offset by the small amount of pollution. c. attempting to stop the pollution. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; pp. 73-75) Application of How Employees Can Express Dissatisfaction Employees at Acme Express are dissatisfied with working conditions, salary, and the general attitude of management. Mark, Susan, and Toni are good friends who work at Acme, yet each seems to be reacting differently to the problems at work.

Toni has decided that she’ll just get a new job and get away from the problem. Toni is dealing with her dissatisfaction through: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect. (a; Moderate; p. 82) 137.

138.

Susan has composed a list of concerns along with her suggestions for improving conditions. Susan is dealing with her dissatisfaction through: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect.

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(b; Moderate; p. 82) 139.

Mark believes that his manager is a good person and will work things out if Mark just gives him time to do so. Mark is dealing with his dissatisfaction through: a. exit. b. voice. c. loyalty. d. neglect. (c; Challenging; p. 82) Application of Job Satisfaction Your supervisor is trying to assess the degree to which those working for her are satisfied with their jobs.

You are trying to gather information from your peers that might help her in her aim to improve job satisfaction.

You should advise her that a single global rating question such as ―Are you satisfied with your job?‖ will be as good an indicator as a more sophisticated questionnaire.

(True; Moderate; pp. 78-83) 140.

141.

You should advise your supervisor that there is renewed support for the satisfaction-performance relationship at the organizational level.

(True; Challenging; pp. 78-83) 142.

She will find that turnover and absenteeism are both negatively related to satisfaction, but the correlation is stronger for absenteeism than for turnover.

(False; Challenging; pp. 78-83) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 143.

Discuss the three components of an attitude.

(Page 71) The three components of an attitude are cognition, affect, and behavior. The cognitive component is a value statement. Affect is the emotional or feeling segment of an attitude. ―The behavioral component of an attitude refers to an intention to behave in a certain way toward someone or something.

144.

Most of the research in OB has been concerned with three attitudes: job satisfaction, job involvement, and organizational commitment. Explain the difference between these attitudes.

(Pages 72-73) Job satisfaction refers to an individual’s general attitude toward his or her job. A person with a high level of job satisfaction holds positive attitudes toward the job, while a person who is dissatisfied with his or her job holds negative attitudes about the job. Job involvement measures the degree to which a person identifies psychologically with his or her job and considers his or her perceived performance level important to self-worth. Employees with a high level of job involvement strongly identify with and really care about the kind of work they do. Organizational commitment is defined

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as a state in which an employee identifies with a particular organization and its goals, and wishes to maintain membership in the organization. So high job involvement means identifying with one’s employing organization.

145.

Define and discuss the theory of cognitive dissonance.

(Pages 73-75) Cognitive dissonance was proposed in the late 1950s by Leon Festinger. This theory sought to explain the linkage between attitudes and behavior. Dissonance means an inconsistency. Cognitive dissonance refers to any incompatibility that an individual might perceive between the two or more of his or her attitudes, or between his or her behavior and attitudes. Individuals will seek a stable state where there is a minimum of dissonance.

146.

Explain self-perception theory.

(Page 76) Self-perception argues that attitudes are used, after the fact, to make sense out of an action that has already occurred rather than as devices that precede and guide action. And contrary to cognitive dissonance theory, attitudes are just casual verbal statements. When people are asked about their attitudes, and they don’t have strong convictions or feelings, self-perception theory says they tend to create plausible answers.

147.

Explain the relationship between satisfaction and productivity at the individual and the organizational levels.

(Page 80) At the individual level, productivity is likely to lead to satisfaction (rather than the reverse). At the organizational level, research finds that organizations with more satisfied employees tend to be more effective than organizations with less satisfied employees. While we might not be able to say that a happy worker is more productive, it might be true that happy organizations are more productive.

MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 148.

Discuss the Rokeach Value Survey. Include definitions and discussion of terminal values and instrumental values.

(Exh. 3-1; Pages 64-65) Milton Rokeach created the Rokeach Value Survey (RVS). The RVS consists of two sets of values, with each set containing 18 individual value items. One set, called terminal values, refers to desirable end-states of existence. These are goals that a person would like to achieve during his or her lifetime.

The other set, called instrumental values, refers to preferable modes of behavior, or means of achieving the terminal values. People in the same occupations or categories tend to hold similar values.

149.

Compare Hofstede’s cultural dimensions with the GLOBE framework.

(Pages 68-71) Geert Hofstede’s framework analyzes variations among cultures. He found that managers and

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employees vary on five value dimensions of national culture. They are power distance, individualism/collectivism, quantity of life/quality of life, uncertainty avoidance, and longterm/short-term orientation. Power distance is the degree to which people in a country accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. Individualism is the degree to which people in a county prefer to act as individuals rather than as members of groups. Collectivism is the equivalent of low individualism. Quantity of life is the degree to which values like assertiveness, the acquisition of money and material goods, and competition prevail. Quality of life is the degree to which people value relationships, and show sensitivity and concern for the welfare of others. The degree to which people in a country prefer structured over unstructured situations is uncertainty avoidance. People in cultures with long-term orientations look to the future and value thrift and persistence. A short-term orientation values the past and present, and emphasizes respect for tradition and fulfilling social obligations.

The Global Leadership and Organizational Behavior Effectiveness (GLOBE) research program identified nine dimensions on which national cultures differ. Assertiveness is essentially equivalent to Hofstede’s quantity-of-life dimensions. Future orientation is equivalent to Hofstede’s longterm/short term orientation. Gender differentiation is the extent to which a society maximizes gender role differences. Uncertainty avoidance, power distance, and individualism/collectivism were also identified by Hofstede. In-group collectivism encompasses the extent to which members of a society take pride in membership in small groups. Performance orientation is the degree to which a society encourages and rewards group members for performance improvement and excellence. Humane orientation is defined as the degree to which a society encourages and rewards individuals for being fair, altruistic, generous, caring, and kind to others. This is close to Hofstede’s quality-of-life dimension.

150.

Discuss how job satisfaction can impact employee productivity, absenteeism and turnover.

(Pages 80-81) At the individual level, the evidence suggests that productivity is likely to lead to satisfaction. There is a consistent negative relationship between satisfaction and absenteeism, but the correlation is moderate. Satisfaction is also negatively related to turnover, but the correlation is stronger than what was found for absenteeism. An important moderator of the satisfaction-turnover relationship is the employee’s level of performance.

151.

List and explain the four ways employees can express job dissatisfaction.

(Page 82) Employees can express dissatisfaction by using exit, voice, loyalty, and neglect. Behaviordirected toward leaving the organization is defined as exit behavior. Voice involves actively and constructively attempting to improve conditions, including suggesting improvements, discussing problems with superiors, and some forms of union activity. Loyalty involves passively but optimistically waiting for conditions to improve. Neglect is passively allowing conditions to worsen, including chronic absenteeism or lateness, reduced effort, and increased error rate.

COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 152.

Discuss the importance of values.

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(Page 64) Values are important to the study of organizational behavior because they lay the foundation for the understanding of attitudes and motivation and because they influence our perceptions. Individuals enter an organization with preconceived notions of what ―ought‖ and what ―ought not‖ to be. These notions are not value free. They contain interpretations of right and wrong. Values cloud objectivity and rationality. Values generally influence attitudes and behavior.

153.

Discuss the five value dimensions of national culture described by Hofstede. Explain where the United States ranks on each of the five dimensions.

(Pages 68-69) Geert Hofstede’s framework analyzes variations among cultures. He found that managers and employees vary on five value dimensions of national culture. They are power distance, individualism/collectivism, quantity of life/quality of life, uncertainty avoidance, and longterm/short-term orientation. Power distance is the degree to which people in a country accept that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally. Individualism is the degree to which people in a county prefer to act as individuals rather than as members of groups.

Collectivism is the equivalent of low individualism. Quantity of life is the degree to which values like assertiveness, the acquisition of money and material goods, and competition prevail. Quality of life is the degree to which people value relationships, and show sensitivity and concern for the welfare of others. The degree to which people in a country prefer structured over unstructured situations is uncertainty avoidance. People in cultures with long-term orientations look to the future and value thrift and persistence. A short-term orientation values the past and present, and emphasizes respect for tradition and fulfilling social obligations.

The United States scored low on power distance and uncertainty avoidance. The U.S. also ranks low in long-term orientation. The U.S. is ranked highest on individualism.

154.

Discuss cognitive dissonance theory and three ways in which individuals might alleviate dissonance.

(Pages 73-75) Cognitive dissonance seeks to explain the linkage between attitudes and behavior. Dissonance means an inconsistency. Cognitive dissonance refers to any incompatibility that an individual might perceive between two or more of his or her attitudes, or between his or her behavior and attitudes.

Individuals will seek a stable state where there is a minimum of dissonance. Individuals may change their behavior, reduce dissonance by concluding that the dissonant behavior is not so important after all, or change their attitude.

155.

Discuss whether employee satisfaction is related to positive customer outcomes.

(Page 83) The evidence indicates that satisfied employees increase customer satisfaction and loyalty. In service organizations, customer retention and defection are highly dependent on how front-line employees deal with customers. Satisfied employees are more likely to be friendly, upbeat, and responsive – which customers appreciate. And because satisfied employees are less prone to turnover, customers are more likely to encounter familiar faces and receive experienced service. These qualities build customer satisfaction and loyalty. Dissatisfied customers can increase an employee’s job 66

dissatisfaction. Employees who have regular contact with customers report that rude, thoughtless, or unreasonably demanding customers adversely effect the employees’ job satisfaction.

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Chapter 4 Personality and Emotions MULTIPLE CHOICE Personality 1.

Personality is: a. always stable. b. a part of a person. c. an aggregate whole. d. comprised of traits that cannot be measured. (c; Easy; p. 93) An individual’s personality is determined by: a. heredity. b. environment. c. situational factors. d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 94)

2.

3.

Which of the following is a personality determinant? a. heredity b. environment c. both a and b d. neither a nor b (c; Easy; pp. 94-95)

4.

Which of the following personality shaping forces is not environmental? a. parents’ height b. experience c. Protestant ethic d. culture (a; Moderate; p. 95) 5.

Factors that are considered environmental influences on our personality include all the following except: a. birth order. b. heredity. c. culture. d. family norms. (b; Moderate; p. 95) 6.

If personality characteristics were completely dictated by birth and no amount of experience could alter them. a. job satisfaction b. heredity c. environment d. situation (b; Moderate; p. 95)

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, they would be fixed at

―Bob is easy-going at home, but at work he becomes very tense and anxious.‖ This statement attributes Bob’s personality more to which of the following? a. heredity b. environment c. situation d. locus of control (c; Moderate; p. 95) 7.

All of the following are listed as part of the ―Sixteen Primary Traits‖ except: a. communicative. b. practical. c. trusting. d. submissive. (a; Challenging; Exh. 4-2; p. 97)

8.

9.

According to the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator, a. INTJs b. ESTJs c. ENTPs d. MBTIs (c; Moderate; p. 96)

are conceptualizers.

10.

The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator examines all of the following except: a. extroverted/introverted. b. sensing/intuitive. c. perceiving/judging. d. intelligent/challenged. (d; Easy; p. 96) 11.

Choose the word that best describes an ESTJ. a. quiet b. domineering c. reserved d. organizer (d; Challenging; p. 96)

12.

A personality attribute that has potential for predicting behavior in organizations is: a. Machiavellianism. b. type A personality. c. locus of control. d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 97)

13.

Which of the following is not included in the Big Five model? a. agreeableness b. conscientiousness c. gregariousness d. emotional stability (c; Easy; p. 97)

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Which dimension of the Big Five model refers to an individual’s propensity to defer to others? a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. emotional stability d. openness to experience (b; Moderate; p. 97) 14.

15.

Which dimension of the Big Five model is a measure of reliability? a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. emotional stability d. openness to experience (c; Moderate; p. 97)

16.

People who consistently believe they control their own destinies have a: a. high extroversion. b. high internal locus of control. c. Type A personality. d. high propensity for risk-taking. (b; Easy; p. 97)

17.

Individuals who rate high in externality (external locus of control): a. are less satisfied with their jobs. b. have lower absenteeism rates. c. are less alienated from the work setting. d. are more involved on their jobs. (a; Challenging; p. 97) 18.

All of the following are characteristic traits of people with a high external locus of control with the exception of which of the following? a. They are less satisfied with their jobs. b. They have higher absenteeism rates. c. They are less alienated from the work setting. d. They are less involved on their jobs. (c; Moderate; p. 98) 19.

People with an internal locus of control tend to: a. quit their jobs more often than those with an external locus of control. b. quit their jobs less often than those with an external locus of control. c. perform better on their jobs. d. start their own businesses. (c; Moderate; p. 98) 20.

A person who believes that ends can justify means can be said to have the characteristic of: a. authoritarianism. b. Machiavellianism. c. external locus of control. d. risk-taking. (b; Easy; p. 99)

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21.

An individual high in Machiavellianism is best described as: a. maintaining emotional distance, being highly authoritative, believing in swift discipline. b. being impulsive, emotionally involved, and having strong ethical beliefs. c. being pragmatic, maintaining emotional distance, and believing ends can justify means. d. tending to make a poor manager. (c; Moderate; p. 99)

22.

High Machs: a. manipulate more. b. are persuaded less. c. win more. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 99)

23.

is the degree to which people like or dislike themselves. a. Self-esteem b. Authoritarianism c. Locus of control d. Machiavellianism (a; Moderate; p. 100)

24.

People high in the trait self-esteem: a. are less likely to take unpopular stands than low SEs. b. tend to be more satisfied with their jobs than low SEs. c. tend to be less satisfied with their jobs than low SEs. d. tend to be more concerned with pleasing others than low SEs. (b; Challenging; p. 100)

25.

High SEs: a. believe they possess more of the ability they need in order to succeed in work. b. will take more risks in job selection. c. are less susceptible to external influences than low SEs. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 100) 26.

How would you describe an individual who is capable of presenting striking contradictions between who they are in public and who they are privately? a. low self-esteem b. high self-esteem c. low self-monitoring d. high self-monitoring (d; Moderate; p. 100) 27.

Low self-monitors: a. have a low behavioral consistency between who they are and what they do. b. can disguise themselves well. c. tend to pay less attention to the behavior of others than high self-monitors. d. tend to be more mobile in their careers. (c; Challenging; p. 100)

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28.

Which of the following has the highest risk-taking propensity? a. an accountant performing auditing activities b. a stock trader in a brokerage firm c. a computer technologist d. a marketing representative (b; Moderate; pp. 100-101) 29.

An individual who is aggressively involved in a chronic incessant struggle to achieve more and more in less and less time is a(n): a. Type A. b. Type B. c. Type AB. d. extrovert. (a; Easy; p. 101) 30.

Which of the following is true of the Type A personality? a. The Type A is more successful than the Type B. b. Type A’s can play for fun and relaxation, rather than to exhibit superiority. c. Type A’s are obsessed with numbers and measure their success in terms of how much of everything they acquire. d. Type A’s feel no need to discuss their achievements. (c; Moderate; p. 101) 31.

All of the following are characteristics of Type A personality except which of the following? a. They operate under moderate to high levels of stress. b. They are faster workers. c. They feel impatient with the rate at which most events take place. d. They feel no need to display or discuss either their achievement or accomplishments unless such exposure is demanded by the situation. (d; Moderate; p. 101) 32.

A Type A personality would be most likely to: a. be easy going. b. enjoy leisure and quiet time. c. eat his meals quickly. d. concentrate on only one task at a time. (c; Easy; p. 101)

33.

Which of the following is not a characteristic of the Type B personality? a. never suffers from a sense of time urgency with its accompanying impatience b. plays for fun and relaxation c. strives to think or do two or more things at once d. can relax without guilt (c; Moderate; p. 101 )

34.

Which of the following is a true statement? a. We would expect to find more Type A’s in a capitalistic country. b. It is estimated that about 25% of the North American population is Type A. c. There are common personality types for a given country. d. We should expect that most North Americans would have an external locus of control.

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(a; Challenging; pp. 101-102) 35.

demonstrate their competitiveness by working long hours and not infrequently, making poor decisions because they make them too fast. a. High SEs b. Type As c. Type Bs d. Self-monitors (b; Easy; pp. 101-102) 36.

What percentage of North Americans are Type A personality? a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75% (c; Challenging; p. 102)

Holland’s theory of personality-job fit argues that job satisfaction is highest and turnover lowest where: a. personality and occupation are in agreement. b. an individual is highly motivated. c. salary is high. d. employees have an education. (a; Easy; p. 103) 37.

38.

People in believe that life is essentially preordained. a. America b. Canada c. Middle Eastern countries d. Brazil (c; Moderate; p. 102) 39.

Which one of the following statements is true about the six personality types developed in Holland’s personality-job fit theory? a. People basically have similar personalities. b. Diagonally opposite types are most alike. c. Satisfaction is high when one’s personality type is congruent with his or her work environment. d. Organizations can teach a person to have the proper personality type. (c; Moderate; pp. 103-104) The ―realistic‖ personality from Holland’s typology of personality and congruent occupations would be well suited for which of the following jobs? a. painter b. accountant c. mechanic d. lawyer (c; Challenging; Exh. 4-3; p. 104) 40.

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The ―enterprising‖ personality from Holland’s typology of personality and congruent occupations would exhibit which of the following personality characteristics? a. imaginative, disorderly, idealistic b. shy, genuine, persistent c. sociable, friendly, cooperative d. self-confident, ambitious, energetic (d; Moderate; Exh. 4-3; p. 104) 41.

42.

developed a Vocational Preference Inventory questionnaire that contains 160 occupational titles. a. Maslow b. Holland c. Hofstede d. Herzberg (b; Easy; p. 103) 43.

Since the rise of scientific management, organizations have been specifically designed with the objective of trying to control emotions. This is known as: a. the affective component of emotions. b. the myth of rationality. c. cognitive dissonance. d. emotional negation. (b; Moderate; p. 105) 44.

is (are) less intense feelings which lack a contextual stimulus. a. Internal stimuli b. Affect c. Emotions d. Moods (d; Moderate; p. 106) 45.

theory suggested people in job environments congruent with their personality types should be more satisfied and are less likely to voluntarily resign than should people in incongruent jobs. a. Holland’s person-job fit b. Nunnally’s Big Five c. Hofstede’s d. The GLOBE team’s (a; Easy; p. 1-4) 46.

is (are) reactions to an object, not a trait. They are object-specific. a. Internal stimuli b. Affect c. Emotions d. Moods (c; Moderate; p. 106)

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47.

Which of the following is not true concerning emotions? a. Some emotions can reduce employee performance. b. Employees bring an emotional component with them to work every day. c. The role of emotions does not have to be studied in organizational behavior. d. In the past, emotions were rarely viewed as being constructive. (c; Moderate; pp. 105-106) 48.

If an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions, is being expended. a. emotional labor b. negative synergy c. dissonance d. emotional intelligence (a; Easy; p. 106) 49.

is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience. a. Affect b. Emotions c. Moods d. Emotional labor (a; Easy; p. 106) 50.

Which of the following is not true with respect to the role that emotions play in the workplace? a. Ability to effectively manage emotions may be critical to success in leadership positions. b. Emotions can hinder performance. c. Emotions can enhance performance. d. Emotional labor recognizes that feelings should be stifled because they are not part of a job’s required behavior. (d; Challenging; p. 106) 51.

Emotions that are organizationally required and considered appropriate in a given job are termed: a. felt emotions. b. displayed emotions. c. conditional emotions. d. exposed emotions. (b; Moderate; p. 106) are an individual’s actual emotions. a. Felt emotions b. Displayed emotions c. Conditional emotions d. Exposed emotions (a; Moderate; p. 106)

52.

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53.

are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. a. Felt emotions b. Displayed emotions c. Conditional emotions d. Exposed emotions (b; Moderate; p. 106) 54.

is when an employee expresses organizationally desired emotions during interpersonal transactions. a. Felt emotions b. Displayed emotions c. Conditional emotions d. Exposed emotions (d; Moderate; pp. 106-107) 55.

Which of the following is not one of the six universal emotions? a. anger b. fear c. hate d. sadness (c; Moderate; p. 107)

56.

People who have a lack of emotion suffer from: a. self-awareness. b. alexithymia. c. felt emotions. d. displayed emotions. (b; Moderate; p. 109) 57.

Which of the following statements is not true about the difference between men and women when it comes to emotional reactions and ability to read others? a. Women show greater emotional expression. b. Men express emotions more intensely. c. Men express anger more frequently. d. Women are better at reading nonverbal cues. (b; Moderate; pp. 109-110) 58.

Which of the following is not true concerning cultural influences impacting emotions? a. Cultural factors influence what is or isn’t considered as emotionally appropriate. b. What’s acceptable in one culture may seem unusual or even dysfunctional in another. c. All cultures agree on the interpretation they give to emotions. d. There tends to be high agreement on what emotions mean within cultures. (c; Moderate; pp.110-111)

59.

Which of the following is not a dimension of emotional intelligence? a. self-awareness b. self-management c. self-motivation d. self-evaluation (d; Moderate; p. 111)

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60.

refers to an assortment of noncognitive skills, capabilities, and competencies that influence a person’s ability to succeed in coping with environmental demands and pressures. a. Emotional intelligence b. IQ c. Learned intelligence d. Aptitude (a; Easy; p. 111) 61.

Leaving early, sabotage, gossiping, and verbal abuse are examples of: a. involuntary actions that violate norms. b. employee deviance. c. emotional labor. d. emotional quotient factors. (b; Moderate; p. 113) TRUE/FALSE Personality 62.

All our behavior is somewhat shaped by our personalities.

(True; Easy; p. 94) 63.

Personality is the sum total of the way in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others.

(True; Easy; p. 94) 64.

Personality looks at the parts of the person rather than the aggregate whole.

(False; Easy; p. 94) An adult’s personality is now generally considered to be made up of both hereditary and environmental factors, moderated by situational conditions.

(True; Moderate; pp. 94-95) 65.

66.

Researchers have found that genetics accounts for about 50 percent of the personality differences and more than 30 percent of the variation in occupational and leisure interests in studies of identical twins.

(True; Challenging; p. 94) 67.

If personality characteristics were completely dictated by heredity, they would be fixed at birth and no amount of experience could alter them.

(True; Moderate; p. 95) 68.

A trait can be described as a characteristic or behavior that is consistently exhibited in a large number of situations.

(True; Moderate; p. 96) 69.

Myers-Briggs Type Indicator is a 100-question personality test that types four characteristics into sixteen personality types.

(True; Easy; p. 96)

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70.

Certain situations are more relevant than others in influencing personality.

True; Moderate; p. 95) 71.

A recent study of contemporary businesspeople who created supersuccessful firms found that all of these individuals were NTs. (True; Challenging; pp. 96-97) 72.

INTJs are visionaries.

(True; Moderate; p. 96) 73.

ESTJs are organizers.

(True; Moderate; p. 96) 74.

The ENTP type is a conceptualizer.

(True; Moderate; p. 96) 75.

If you were looking for an employee who was an organizer, you would probably choose one whose type is INTJ. (False; Challenging; p. 96) 76.

A substantial body of research supports the MBTI as a valid measure of personality.

(False; Easy; p. 97) 77.

An impressive body of research supports that five basic personality dimensions underlie all others.

(True; Moderate; p. 97) The Big Five Model factor termed ―extroversion‖ is probably a good predictor of job performance in most professions.

(False; Challenging; p. 97) 78.

79.

Conscientiousness refers to an individual’s propensity to defer to others.

(False; Moderate; p. 97) 80.

Individuals with an internal locus of control believe that they are masters of their own fate.

(True; Easy; p. 98) 81.

Individuals who rate high in external locus of control are more satisfied with their jobs and have lower absenteeism rates.

(False; Moderate; pp. 98-99) 82.

Individuals who have an internal locus of control tend to have lower absence rates.

(True; Challenging; p. 99) 83.

Overall evidence is that employees with an internal locus of control tend to perform better on their jobs.

(True; Challenging; p. 99) 84.

Externals should do well in jobs that are well structured and routine and in which success depends heavily on complying with the direction of others.

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(True; Challenging; p. 99) 85.

An individual low in Machiavellianism is pragmatic and believes that ends can justify means.

(False; Moderate; p. 99) 86.

Janet keeps emotional distance from her coworkers and believes that the ends can justify the means. Janet would rate high in Machiavellianism.

(True; Moderate; pp. 99-100) 87.

Self-esteem is directly related to expectations for success.

(True; Moderate; p. 100) 88.

Individuals with high SE are more likely to choose unconventional jobs.

(True; Challenging; p. 100) 89.

In managerial positions, low SEs will tend to be concerned with pleasing others.

(True; Moderate; p. 100) 90.

Low SEs tend to be more satisfied with their jobs than high SEs. (False; Moderate; p. 100) Self-monitoring refers to an individual’s ability to adjust his or her behavior to external, situational factors.

(True; Easy; p. 100) 91.

92.

Self-monitoring is the trait that considers the degree to which a person likes or dislikes himself.

(False; Easy; p. 100) 93.

Low self-monitors show high behavioral consistency.

(True; Moderate; p. 100) 94.

Low risk-takers make more rapid decisions.

(False; Moderate; pp. 100-101) 95.

The evidence demonstrates that decision accuracy is the same for high and low risktaking managers.

(True; Moderate; p. 101) 96.

Individuals with Type A personalities exhibit those characteristics highly prized by the North American culture.

(True; Moderate; p. 101) 97.

Zack is always moving and is impatient. He prefers work to leisure and seems obsessed with numbers. Zack is probably a Type B. (False; Easy; p. 101) 98.

Type A personalities are never concerned with time.

(False; Easy; p. 101)

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99.

Type B personalities feel no need to display or discuss their achievements unless such exposure is demanded by the situation.

(True; Moderate; p. 101) 100.

Type B’s tend to operate under more stress than Type A’s.

(False; Easy; p. 101) 101 Type As tend to be creative.

(False; Challenging; p. 102) 102.

The five personality factors identified in the Big Five Model appear in almost all crosscultural studies.

(True; Challenging; p. 102) 103.

Each country has a common personality type.

(False; Moderate; p. 102) 104.

It is estimated that about 50 percent of the North American population is Type A. (True, Moderate, p. 102) Individuals with Holland’s ―investigative‖ personality are well suited for careers as small business managers.

(False; Challenging; Exh. 4-3; p. 104) 105.

Holland’s ―conventional‖ personality, placed in the position of a cost accountant, is likely to be dissatisfied and quit.

(False; Moderate; Exh. 4-3; p. 104) 106.

107.

Moods are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something.

(False; Moderate; p. 106) 108.

The concept of emotional labor originally developed in relation to service jobs.

(True; Challenging; p. 106) 109.

Displayed emotions are innate.

(False; Moderate; p. 106) 110.

Felt emotions are an individual’s actual emotions.

(True; Easy; p. 106) 111.

Research has identified six universal emotions: anger, fear, sadness, happiness, disgust, and surprise.

(True; Challenging; pp. 107-108) 112.

People who suffer from alexithymia are well suited for managerial positions.

(False; Moderate; p. 109) 113.

Evidence confirms there is no real difference between men and women when it comes to emotional reactions and ability to read others.

(False; Easy; pp. 109-110)

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114.

There tends to be high agreement on what emotions mean within cultures, but not between.

(True; Moderate; p. 111) 115.

People who are good at reading others’ emotions may be more effective in their jobs.

(True; Easy; p. 111) 116.

Actions called ―employee deviance‖ are voluntary actions.

(True; Challenging; p. 113) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator You are assembling a team to work on a long-term project which requires creativity, stamina, and farsightedness. The only piece of information available to you is the Myers-Briggs Type of each of the applicants. Use your knowledge of the four basic characteristics of each person to choose people for the following situations.

117.

You need to choose a lead person for the team. This person must have great vision and must have an original mind with great drive. You will probably pick: a. ENTP. b. INTJ. c. ENFP. d. ISFP. (b; Challenging; pp. 96-97) 118.

You are looking for an organizer, a person on whom you can depend to be practical and realistic. You will probably pick: a. ESTJ. b. ENTP. c. ISFP. d. INTJ. (a; Challenging; pp. 96-97) 119.

You need a person who is innovative, individualistic, versatile, and attracted to entrepreneurial ideas. You will probably choose: a. INTJ. b. ISFP. c. ENTP. d. ESFJ. (c; Challenging; pp. 96-97) Application of the Big Five Model You are the manager of a small boutique. You have decided to apply the Big Five Model in order to understand your employees and their work habits because it is generally supported by an impressive body of research. You want to use the five dimensions of personality to match individuals with jobs to which they are well-suited.

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120.

Michelle Jackson, one of your newest employees, is an extrovert. Which of the following statements is not true? a. You should expect Michelle to perform well as a salesperson. b. Michelle will probably have a large number of relationships. c. Michelle will be friendly and outgoing. d. Michelle will be quite comfortable with solitude. (d; Moderate; p. 97) 121.

You know that your customers are demanding and sometimes difficult. personality dimension taps a person’s ability to withstand stress? a. extroversion b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. emotional stability (d; Moderate; p. 97)

Which

122.

Jane Simpson rates low on conscientiousness. You should expect that she: a. will be easily distracted. b. will find comfort in the familiar. c. will be nervous, depressed, and insecure. d. will be comfortable with solitude. (a; Challenging; p. 97) 123.

Which of the five factors of personality will probably be most important in predicting organizational citizenship behavior (OCB)? a. extroversion b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. emotional stability (c; Challenging; p. 98) Application of Major Personality Attributes Influencing OB Mary Wood is a new manager. She recognizes that personality attributes can help to explain and predict employee behavior.

Mary’s employee, Bob, has a low absenteeism rate. He takes responsibility for his health and has good health habits. He is likely to have: a. an internal locus of control. b. an external locus of control. c. a high Mach score. d. a high emotional stability level. (b; Moderate; pp. 98-101) 124.

125.

Mary has an opening for a position requiring a lot of face to face interaction with others.

She should identify the employee with for a good fit. a. a high Mach score b. a low Mach score c. an internal locus of control d. an external locus of control (a; Challenging; pp. 98-101)

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126.

Another position requires an employee who can take unpopular stands. identify the employee with for a good fit. a. a high SE b. a low SE c. an internal locus of control d. an external locus of control (a, Challenging; pp. 98-101)

She should

Application of Person-Job Fit Theory You have decided to use Holland’s Typology of Personality and Congruent Occupations to help your friends who are college seniors understand for which jobs they would be well-suited.

Monica is shy, stable and persistent. Neil is ambitious and energetic and likes to dominate conversations. Jessica is idealistic and impractical but very imaginative. Walter is efficient and practical, but he lacks imagination and tends to be inflexible.

Monica is majoring in interior design. Her personality type is ―realistic‖ according to Holland’s Typology. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Monica’s personality type is well-suited to her major. b. Monica is better suited to be a bank teller. c. Someone with an ―artistic‖ personality type would be better suited to a major in interior design. d. Interior design is a congruent occupation with a ―social‖ personality type. (c; Challenging; Exh. 4-3; pp. 103-104) 127.

128.

Which of your friends is best suited to being an accountant? a. Walter b. Neil c. Jessica d. Monica (a; Moderate; Exh. 4-3; pp. 103-104)

129.

Which of your friends is most likely to find a successful career as a writer? a. Walter b. Neil c. Jessica d. Monica (c; Moderate; Exh. 4-3; pp. 103-104) 130.

Who might be well-suited to being a lawyer? a. Walter b. Neil c. Jessica d. Monica (b; Moderate; Exh. 4-3; pp. 103-104)

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SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 131.

List and describe the three determinants of personality.

(Pages 94-95) Personality is determined by heredity, environment, and the situation. Heredity refers to those factors that were determined at conception. The heredity approach argues that the ultimate explanation of an individual’s personality is the molecular structure of the genes, located in the chromosomes. Among the factors that exert pressures on our personality formation are the culture in which we are raised; our early conditioning; the norms among our family, friends, and social groups; and other influences that we experience.

These environmental factors play a substantial role in shaping our personalities. The situation influences the effects of heredity and environment on personality. An individual’s personality, although generally stable and consistent, does change in different situations. The different demands of different situations call forth different aspects of one’s personality.

132.

Identify the five key traits in the Big Five personality model.

(Page 97) The five key traits in the Big Five personality model are extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience. Extroversion captures one’s comfort level with relationships. Agreeableness refers to an individual’s propensity to defer to others. Conscientiousness is a measure of reliability. Emotional stability taps a person’s ability to withstand stress. Openness to experience addresses one’s range of interests and fascination with novelty.

133.

What is locus of control? What is the difference between an internal and external locus of control?

(Pages 97-98) A person’s perception of the source of his or her fate is termed locus of control. Those who believe that they control their destinies have been labeled internals. Those who see their lives as being controlled by outside forces have been called externals.

134.

Describe the Type A personality and its relationship to success.

(Pages 101-102) The Type A personality is always moving, walking, and eating rapidly; feels impatient with the rate at which most events take place; strives to think or do two or more things at once; cannot cope with leisure time; and is obsessed with numbers, measuring their success in terms of how many or how much of everything they acquire. Despite the Type A’s hard work, the Type B’s are the ones who appear to make it to the top.

135.

What is the ―myth of rationality?‖ (Page 105) The myth of rationality is one possible explanation for little attention paid to emotions in the field of OB. Emotions such as frustration, fear, anger, love, hate, and joy were the antithesis of rationality. Researchers and managers tried to create organizations that were

84

emotion-free. We learned, however, that this was not possible since emotions are an inseparable part of everyday life.

136.

What is the difference between felt emotions and displayed emotions?

(Pages 106-107) You can better understand emotions if you separate them into felt versus displayed. Felt emotions are an individual’s actual emotions. In contrast, displayed emotions are those that are organizationally-required and considered appropriate in a given job. The key point here is that felt and displayed emotions are often different.

MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 137.

Discuss the ―Big Five‖ model of personality.

(Page 97) The five-factor model of personality is typically called the ―Big Five.‖ In addition to providing a unifying personality framework, research on the Big Five also has found important relationships between these personality dimensions and job performance. The five key traits in the Big Five personality model are extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, emotional stability, and openness to experience. Extroversion captures one’s comfort level with relationships. Agreeableness refers to an individual’s propensity to defer to others. Conscientiousness is a measure of reliability. Emotional stability taps a person’s ability to withstand stress. Openness to experience addresses one’s range of interests and fascination with novelty.

138.

Explain the differences among the following terms: affect, emotions, and moods.

(Page 106) Affect is a generic term that covers a broad range of feelings that people experience. It’s an umbrella concept that encompasses both emotions and moods. Emotions are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. Finally, moods are feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and which lack a contextual stimulus.

139.

Can people be emotionless?

(Page 109) Some people have severe difficulty in expressing their emotions and understanding the emotions of others. Psychologists call this alexithymia (which is Greek for lack of emotion). People who suffer from alexithymia rarely cry and are often seen by others as bland and cold. Their own feelings make them uncomfortable, and they’re not able to discriminate among their different emotions. Additionally, they’re often at a complete loss to understand what others around them feel.

140.

What is emotional intelligence? What are the five dimensions of emotional intelligence?

(Page 109) Emotional intelligence refers to an assortment of noncognitive skills, capabilities, and competencies that influence a person’s ability to succeed in coping with environmental demands and pressure. It’s composed of five dimensions. Self-awareness is being aware of what you’re feeling. Self-management is the ability to manage one’s own emotions

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and impulses. Self-motivation is the ability to persist in the face of setbacks and failures.

Empathy is the ability to sense how others are feeling. Social skills is the ability to handle the emotions of others.

COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 141.

What is the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI) and how might it be used by managers?

(Pages 96-97) One of the most widely used personality frameworks is called the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator (MBTI). It is essentially a 100-question personality test that asks people how they usually feel or act in particular situations. On the basis of the answers individuals give to the test, they are classified as extroverted or introverted (E or I), sensing or intuitive (S or N), thinking or feeling (T or F), and perceiving or judging (P or J). These classifications are then combined into sixteen personality types.

142.

Discuss Holland’s personality-job fit theory and its importance.

(Pages 103-105) John Holland’s personality-job fit theory is based on the notion of fit between an individual’s personality characteristics and his or her occupational environment. Holland presents six personality types and proposes that satisfaction and the propensity to leave a job depend on the degree to which individuals successfully match their personalities to an occupational environment. Each one of the six personality types has a congruent occupational environment. The theory argues that satisfaction is highest and turnover lowest when personality and occupation are in agreement.

143.

Discuss whether there are gender differences regarding emotions.

(Pages 109-110) The evidence confirms differences between men and women when it comes to emotional reactions and ability to read others. In contrasting the genders, women show greater emotional expression than men; they experience emotions more intensely; and they display more frequent expressions of both positive and negative emotions, except anger.

In contrast to men, women also report more comfort in expressing emotions. Finally, women are better at reading nonverbal and paralinguistic cues than are men. These differences may be explained by the way men and women have been socialized, that women may have more innate ability to read others and present their emotions than do men, and women may have a greater need for social approval, and thus a higher propensity to show positive emotions.

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Chapter 5 Perception and Individual Decision Making MULTIPLE CHOICE What Is Perception and Why Is It Important?

1.

A process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment is called: a. interpretation. b. environmental analysis. c. perception. d. outlook. (c; Easy; p. 123) Factors Influencing Perception 2.

What one perceives objective reality. a. is always the same as b. can be substantially different from c. should be the same as d. is considered (b; Easy; p. 123)

3.

Which one of the following is not a factor that influences perception? a. target b. society c. perceiver d. situation (b; Easy; p. 124) 4.

If two people see the same thing at the same time yet interpret it differently, the factors that operate to shape their dissimilar perceptions reside in: a. the perceiver. b. the target being perceived. c. the timing. d. the context of the situation in which the perception is made. (a; Challenging; p. 124) 5.

Personal characteristics of the individual perceiver include all of the following except: a. his/her attitudes. b. personality. c. expectations. d. location. (d; Moderate; Exh. 5-1; p. 124)

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The focus of a person’s attention appears to be influenced by: a. interests. b. past experiences. c. expectations. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 124)

6.

7.

Which of the following is not true about our perceptions of a target? a. Objects that are close together will be perceived together rather than separately. b. Persons that are similar to each other tend to be grouped together. c. Targets are usually looked at in isolation. d. Motion, sounds, size, and other attributes of a target shape the way we see it. (c; Moderate; p. 124) 8.

The time at which an object or event is seen is an example of a perceptual process. a. perceiver b. target c. context of the situation d. reality (c; Moderate; pp. 124-125)

factor influencing the

Person Perception: Making Judgments About Others 9.

The theory that has been proposed to develop explanations to explain that we judge people differently depending on what meaning we assign to their behavior is: a. behavioral theory. b. judgmental theory. c. equity theory. d. attribution theory. (d; Moderate; p. 125) 10.

The most relevant application of perception concepts to OB is: a. person perception. b. context perception. c. situation perception. d. reality perception. (a; Challenging; p. 125) 11.

When individuals observe behavior, they attempt to determine whether it is internally or externally caused. This is the: a. fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. attribution theory. d. selective behavior theory. (c; Moderate; p. 125)

12.

The determination of whether an individual’s behavior is externally or internally caused depends on 88

all of the following factors except: a. distinctiveness. b. consensus. c. consistency. d. perception. (d; Moderate; p. 125) 13.

Internally caused behaviors are: a. those that are believed to be under the personal control of the individual. b. resulting from personality traits. c. resulting from outside causes. d. forced upon a person by the situation. (a; Easy; p. 125) 14.

Which of the following is not true about attribution theory? a. It tries to attribute causes to specific behaviors. b. The cause of behavior may be internal. c. The cause of behavior may be external. d. Behavior can be attributed to one’s heredity. (d; Moderate; p. 125)

15.

Which of the following is an example of externally caused behavior? a. An employee is late because he was partying late and then overslept. b. An employee is late because of a major accident that tied up traffic. c. An employee was fired because he did not possess the necessary skills. d. An employee was promoted because he was intelligent. (b; Challenging; p. 125)

16.

Whether an individual displays different behaviors in different situations is referred to as: a. continuity. b. integrity. c. distinctiveness. d. flexibility. (c; Moderate; p. 125) 17.

If everyone who is faced with a similar situation responds in the same way, attribution theory states that the behavior shows: a. consensus. b. similarity. c. reliability. d. consistency. (a; Moderate; p. 125)

18.

Janice is late for work each day by about ten minutes. This behavior exhibits: a. consensus.

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b. similarity. c. reliability. d. consistency. (d; Moderate; pp. 125-126) 19.

The more consistent a behavior, the more the observer is inclined to: a. depend on the behavior. b. attribute it to internal causes. c. attribute it to consensus. d. attribute it to external causes. (b; Moderate; pp. 125-126) 20.

If a person responds the same way over time, attribution theory states that the behavior shows: a. distinctiveness. b. consensus. c. consistency. d. continuity. (c; Moderate; pp. 125-126) 21.

The tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal factors when making judgments about the behavior of others is termed: a. fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. selective perception. d. consistency. (a; Moderate; p. 126) 22.

Your boss never gives you the benefit of the doubt. When you were late this morning, he assumed that you had overslept. He never considered that there might have been a delay on the freeway. He is guilty of: a. self-serving bias. b. selective perception. c. fundamental attribution error. d. inconsistency. (c; Moderate; p. 126) 23.

The tendency of an individual to attribute his own successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors is: a. fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. consistency. d. selective perception. (b; Moderate; p. 126)

24.

Jane is difficult to work with. Whenever she is successful she takes full credit for what has happened, but whenever she is unsuccessful she attributes her failure to bad luck or to one of her fellow employees. She is guilty of: 90

a. fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. consensus. d. distinctiveness. (b; Moderate; p. 126) 25.

When investors bragged about their investing expertise during the stock market rally between 1996 and early 2000, then blamed analysts, brokers, and the Federal Reserve when the market imploded in 2000, they were guilty of: a. fundamental attribution error. b. self-serving bias. c. consensus. d. distinctiveness. (b; Moderate; p. 126) 26.

Shortcuts in judging others include all of the following except: a. stereotyping. b. halo effect. c. projection. d. self-serving bias. (d; Easy; p. 127) 27.

Because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we see, we engage in: a. selective perception. b. memorization. c. mental desensitization. d. periodic listening. (a; Easy; p. 127) allows us to ―speed-read‖ others, but not without the risk of drawing an inaccurate picture. a. Selective perception b. Memorization c. Mental desensitization d. Periodic listening (a; Moderate; p. 127)

28.

29.

When we draw a general impression about an individual based on a single characteristic such as intelligence, sociability, or appearance: a. we have misjudged the person. b. personal bias is in effect. c. we are prejudiced. d. the halo effect is operating. (d; Moderate; p. 128)

30.

The halo effect causes one trait to be extended into a(n): a. overall evaluation. b. stereotype. c. unsatisfied need.

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d. self-serving bias. (a; Moderate; p. 127) 31.

One of the shortcuts used to judge others involves evaluating a person based on how he/she compares to other individuals on the same characteristic. This shortcut is known as: a. selective perception. b. contrast effects. c. halo effect. d. prejudice. (b; Moderate; p. 128) is the tendency to attribute one’s own characteristics to other people. a. Stereotyping b. Interpretation c. Selection d. Projection (d; Easy; p. 128)

32.

33.

People who engage in tend to perceive others according to what they themselves are like, rather than according to what the person being observed is really like. a. projection b. a contrast effect c. halo effect d. stereotyping (a; Challenging; p. 128) 34.

Among people who engage in projection, their perception of others is influenced: a. more by what the observer is like than by what the person being observed is like. b. more by the situation than by what the person being observed is like. c. by the environment. d. more by dominant attributes of the person than by the general character of the person. (a; Moderate; p. 128) 35.

When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he/she belongs, we are using the shortcut called: a. grouping. b. stereotyping. c. categorizing. d. assimilating. (b; Easy; pp. 128-129)

36.

When F. Scott Fitzgerald said, ―The very rich are different from you and me‖ and Hemingway replied, ―Yes, they have more money,‖ Hemingway refused to engage in what shortcut to judge others? a. projection b. contrast effect 92

c. halo effect d. stereotyping (d; Challenging; pp. 128-129) 37.

Which of the following is not an example of stereotyping? a. Men aren’t interested in child care. b. Older workers can’t learn new skills. c. This applicant was good at her last job, so she will be good at this one. d. Women won’t relocate for a promotion. (c; Easy; pp. 128-129) 38.

When one person inaccurately perceives a second person and the resulting expectations cause the second person to behave in ways consistent with the original perception, has occurred. a. stereotyping b. a self-fulfilling prophecy c. a self-serving bias d. the fundamental attribution error (b; Moderate; p. 130) 39.

One organizational area where there are important consequences of judging people is: a. the employment interview b. marketing c. accounting d. operations (a; Easy; p. 129) 40.

Interviewers make perceptual judgments that: a. usually agree with other interviewers. b. are often inaccurate. c. are exceptionally accurate. d. are not quickly entrenched. (b; Moderate; p. 129)

41.

Which of the following is not true concerning interviewers? a. Their perceptual judgments are often inaccurate. b. Agreement among interviewers is often poor. c. Different interviewers see the same things in the same candidate. d. Interviewers generally draw early impressions that become very quickly entrenched. (c; Challenging; p. 129)

Most interviewers’ decisions change very little after the first a. 1-2 b. 4-5 c. 30-40 d. 50-60 (b; Moderate; p. 129) 42.

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minutes of the interview.

43.

Another name for self-fulfilling prophecy is: a. Pygmalion effect. b. projection. c. self-selecting bias. d. negative reinforcement. (a; Moderate; p. 130) According to , people’s expectations determine their behavior. a. Pygmalion effect b. projection c. self-selecting bias d. negative reinforcement (a; Moderate; p. 130)

44.

45.

Which of the following is not descriptive of performance evaluation? a. It is closely tied to an employee’s future. b. It is dependent on the perceptual process. c. It is best to use subjective measures which are less judgmental. d. Subjective measures are easier to implement by providing managers greater discretion. (c; Moderate; p. 130) An assessment of an individual’s effort is a judgment susceptible to a. consistent objective measures b. perceptual distortions c. few biases d. consistency across all raters (b; Challenging; p. 130)

46.

.

The Link Between Perception and Individual Decision Making 47.

How individuals in organizations make decisions, and the quality of their final choice is largely influenced by their: a. personality. b. perceptions. c. experience. d. job satisfaction. (b; Challenging; p. 131)

48.

make decisions in organizations. a. Top managers b. Middle and lower level managers c. Non-managerial managers d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 131)

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49.

A discrepancy between some desired state and the actual condition is defined as a(n): a. decision. b. criterion. c. attribution. d. problem. (d; Moderate; p. 131) How Should Decisions Be Made?

50.

The optimizing decision-maker is: a. rational. b. creative. c. satisfying. d. innovative. (a; Moderate; p. 131)

51.

Decision making is initiated by: a. a problem. b. a solution. c. conflict. d. perceptual distortion. (a; Moderate; p. 132) 52.

Rationality assumes: a. high intelligence. b. consistency. c. maturity. d. unlimited choices. (b; Moderate; p. 132) 53.

Which is not one of the steps in the rational decision-making model? a. defining the problem b. identifying the decision criteria c. rating the alternatives d. computing the decisions that satisfice (d; Moderate; p. 132)

54.

In the following steps in decision making, which would come first? a. Generate alternatives. b. Identify criteria. c. Make a choice. d. Implement the decision. (b; Easy; p. 132) 55.

The factors that an individual views as important in a decision are considered in which step in the 95

optimizing model? a. decision criteria b. developing alternatives c. evaluation of alternatives d. problem definition (a; Moderate; p. 132) 56.

Which of the following is not an assumption of the rational decision-making model? a. problem clarity b. preferences change slowly c. no time or cost constraints d. maximum payoff (b; Moderate; pp. 132-133) 57.

is the ability to combine ideas in a unique way or to make unusual associations between ideas. a. Creativity b. Talent c. Decision making d. Lateral thinking (a; Moderate; p. 133) Creativity’s most obvious value in decision making is in: a. identifying the problem. b. computing the optimal decision. c. allocating weights to the alternatives. d. helping identify all viable alternatives. (d; Moderate; p. 133)

58.

59.

Why is creativity important to decision making? a. It allows the decision-maker to more fully appraise the problem. b. It allows the decision-maker to see problems others cannot see. c. It helps the decision-maker identify all viable alternatives. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 133)

60.

Each of the following is part of the three-component model of creativity except: a. expertise. b. creative thinking skills. c. intuitive decision making. d. intrinsic task motivation. (c; Challenging; pp. 133-134) 61.

The segment of the three-component model of creativity that is the foundation for all creative work is: a. expertise. b. creative thinking skills. c. intuitive decision making. d. intrinsic task motivation. (a; Challenging; p. 133) 96

62.

Thesegment of the three-component model of creativity that encompassespersonalitycharacteristics associated with creativity is: a. expertise. b. creative thinking skills. c. intuitive decision making. d. intrinsic task motivation. (b; Challenging; pp. 133-134) 63.

is the motivational component in the three-component model of creativity that turns creative potential into actual creative ideas. a. Expertise b. Creative thinking skills c. Intuitive decision making d. Intrinsic task motivation (d; Challenging; p. 134) How Are Decisions Actually Made In Organizations?

64.

Looking for a solution that is satisfactory and sufficient is called: a. suboptimizing. b. seeking an implicit favorite. c. simplifying. d. satisficing. (d; Moderate; p. 135) 65.

Decision makers operate within the confines of i.e., they construct simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity. a. optimal decision making b. intuitive decision making c. bounded rationality d. synectics (c; Moderate; p. 135) 66.

The satisficing decision maker is best characterized as: a. seeking a ―good enough‖ solution. b. following bounded rationality. c. a decision confirmation process. d. a search for consistency. (a; Moderate; p. 135) 67. is an unconscious process created out of distilled experience. a. Intuitive decision making b. Bounded rationality c. Optimizing decision making d. Satisficing (a; Moderate; p. 136) 68.

Research on what game has provided an excellent example of how intuition works? a. soccer 97

b. chess c. cricket d. backgammon (b; Challenging; pp. 136-137) 69.

Which of the following conditions would probably not lead to intuitive decision making? a. Time is limited and there is pressure to come up with the right decision. b. Facts don’t clearly point the way to go. c. A high level of certainty exists. d. ―Facts‖ are limited. (c; Moderate; p. 137) 70.

If a decision maker faces a conflict between selecting a problem that is important to the organization and one that is important to a decision maker: a. organizational interest is top priority. b. self-interest tends to win out. c. neither wins. d. the winner is unpredictable. (b; Challenging; p. 137) 71.

Which of the following is not a bias in decision making? a. representative heuristic b. availability heuristic c. escalation of commitment d. an heuristical fallacy (d; Easy; p. 139)

72.

Judgmental shortcuts in decision making are termed: a. optimalities. b. escalations. c. satisficing. d. heuristics. (d; Moderate; p. 139)

73.

is the tendency for people to base their judgments on readily available information. a. Representative heuristic b. Availability heuristic c. Escalation of commitment d. An heuristical fallacy (b; Challenging; p. 139) 74.

The tendency to assess the likelihood of an occurrence by trying to match it with a preexisting category is: a. representative heuristic. b. availability heuristic. c. escalation of commitment. d. an heuristical fallacy. (a; Challenging; p. 139)

98

75.

An increased commitment to a previous decision in spite of negative information is termed: a. escalation of commitment. b. optimizing decision making. c. satisficing decision making. d. reengineering. (a; Moderate; p. 139) 76.

When inner-city African-American boys overestimate the likelihood of their playing in the NBA because they have heard about a boy from their neighborhood ten years ago who played professional basketball, they are suffering from a(n) heuristic. a. availability b. escalation c. representative d. optimizing (c; Moderate; p. 139) 77.

People differ along two dimensions in their approaches to decision making. These two dimensions are: a. way of thinking/tolerance for ambiguity. b. consideration/structure. c. commitment/intuitive thinking. d. rationality/concern for people. (a; Moderate; p. 140) 78.

People with the run. a. directive b. analytic c. conceptual d. behavioral (a; Moderate; p. 140)

style of decision making tend to make decisions fast and focus on the short

79.

People with the style of decision making tend to be very broad in their outlook and consider many alternatives. a. directive b. analytic c. conceptual d. behavioral (c; Moderate; p. 140) 80.

People with the style of decision making are careful decision-makers with the ability to adapt to or cope with novel situations. a. directive b. analytic c. conceptual d. behavioral (b; Moderate; p. 140) 81.

Which of the following is not one of the four styles of decision making?

99

a. directive b. analytic c. satisficing d. conceptual (c; Challenging; Exh. 5-5; pp. 140-141) 82.

Business students, lower level managers, and top executives tend to score highest in the of decision making. a. analytic b. directive c. conceptual d. behavioral (a; Moderate; p. 141)

style

83.

Which of the following is not an organizational constraint on decision making? a. performance evaluation b. reward system c. personality d. formal regulations (c; Easy; p. 142) A culture’s time orientation can be expected to influence decision making. In Egypt, decisions will be made: a. quickly. b. at a moderate pace. c. slowly. d. at various rates. (c; Moderate; p. 143) 84.

85.

In the U.S., it is important that decisions appear to be made: a. slowly. b. only at senior levels. c. intuitively. d. rationally. (d; Moderate; p. 143)

86.

Which of the following is not listed in your text as a criterion for making ethical choices? a. utilitarianism b. justice c. rights d. satisficing (d; Moderate; pp. 143-144) 87.

Decisions made so as to provide the greatest good for the greatest number are based on: a. utilitarianism. b. justice. c. rights. d. profit.

100

(a; Moderate; pp. 143-144) TRUE/FALSE What Is Perception and Why Is It Important?

88.

Perception refers to the way we organize and interpret the world around us.

(True; Easy; p. 123) 89.

The reality of a situation is what is behaviorally important.

(False; Moderate; p. 124) Factors Influencing Perception 90.

When an individual looks at a target and attempts to interpret what he or she sees, that interpretation is heavily influenced by personal characteristics of the individual perceiver.

(True; Easy; p. 124) 91.

Personal characteristics affecting perception include the time at which an object or event is seen.

(False; Moderate; p. 124) 92.

An individual’s expectations have little effect on perception.

(False; Easy; p. 124) 93.

Individuals can be involved in the same situation but perceive that situation very differently.

(True; Easy; p. 124) 94.

Expectations can distort your perceptions in that you will see what you expect to see.

(True; Easy; p. 124) 95.

The relationship of a target to its background influences our perception.

(True; Easy; pp. 124-125) 96.

Elements in the surrounding environment are ignored in our perceptions.

(False; Moderate; pp. 124-125) 97.

Attribution theory looks at the internal or external causes of behavior.

(True; Moderate; p. 125) 98.

Internally caused behaviors are those that are believed to be under the personal control of the individual.

(True; Easy; p. 125) 99.

Giving an attribution an external causation means you assume that the individual is responsible for his or her own behavior.

(False; Moderate; p. 125) 100.

In attribution theory, ―distinctiveness‖ refers to whether an individual displays different behaviors in

101

different situations.

(True; Moderate; p. 125) In attribution theory, ―consensus‖ refers to whether an individual displays different behaviors in different situations.

(False; Moderate; p. 125) 101.

102.

The more consistent the behavior, the more the observer is inclined to attribute it to internal causes.

(True; Moderate; pp. 125-126) 103.

Thetendency for individuals to attribute their successes to internal factors while putting the blame for failures on external factors is called the fundamental attribution error.

(False; Moderate; p. 126) 104.

The self-serving bias explains why a sales manager is prone to attribute the poor performance of her sales agents to laziness rather than to the innovative product line introduced by a competitor.

(False; Challenging; p. 126) 105.

The self-serving bias suggests that feedback provided to employees in performance reviews is very likely to be distorted by recipients.

(True; Moderate; p. 126) 106.

Projection is the idea that people selectively interpret what they see based on their interests, background, experience, and attitudes.

(False; Moderate; pp. 127-128) 107.

Selective perception allows us to ―speed read‖ others.

(True; Moderate; p. 127) 108.

The halo effect occurs because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we see.

(False; Moderate; p. 128) 109.

When managers see people as more homogeneous than they really are, managers are probably engaging in projection.

(True; Moderate; p. 128) 110.

When you are judging someone based upon your perception of a group to which he belongs, you are guilty of projection.

(False; Easy; p. 128) An individual’s place in the interview schedule may affect the interviewer’s evaluation of the applicant. This example illustrates the halo effect.

(False; Moderate; p. 129) 111.

112.

Interviewers can make perceptual judgments that are often inaccurate during an employment interview.

(True; Easy; p. 129) 113.

Negative information exposed early in an interview tends to be more heavily weighted than if the 102

same information were conveyed later.

(True; Moderate; p. 129) If you expect to see that older workers can’t learn a new job skill, you will probably perceive that, whether it is accurate or not.

(True; Moderate; p. 130) 114.

115.

Another name for the self-serving bias is the Pygmalion effect.

(False; Challenging; p. 130) 116.

Brenda has been told that her students have been selected for her class because they are the most intelligent in their grade. She finds that they consistently perform above average work. This may be an example of a self-fulfilling prophecy.

(True; Moderate; p. 130) 117.

The judgment of the evaluator plays an important role in subjective criteria used to do performance evaluations.

(True; Moderate; p. 130) A primary influence on the future of an employee in an organization is ―employee effort‖ – which is subject to perceptual distortion.

(True; Moderate; p. 130) 118.

The Link Between Perception and Individual Decision Making 119.

Making decisions is not the sole province of managers.

(True; Easy; p. 131) 120.

Decision making occurs as a reaction to a problem.

(True; Moderate; p. 131) 121.

Awareness that a problem exists and that a decision needs to be made is a perceptual issue.

(True; Moderate; p. 131) 122.

One person’s problem is another person’s satisfactory state of affairs.

(True; Easy; p. 131) 123.

To optimize a certain outcome, the rational decision-making process is used.

(True; Moderate; p. 131) 124.

If a decision maker chooses not to identify some factor as a decision criterion in step two of the decision making process, it becomes irrelevant to the process.

(True; Challenging; p. 132) 125.

Rationality assumes that the options and alternatives can be ranked according to their importance.

(True; Moderate; pp. 132-133) 126.

The rational decision-making model assumes rationality and that the alternative that yields the lowest perceived value will be chosen.

103

(False; Moderate; p. 133) 127.

The rational decision-making model assumes the problem is clear and unambiguous.

(True; Moderate; pp. 132-133) 128.

Creativity’s value in helping decision makers is in helping decision makers analyze alternatives.

(False; Challenging; p. 133) 129.

People do not differ in their inherent creativity.

(False; Moderate; p. 133) 130.

Most decisions in the real world follow the rational model.

(False; Moderate; p. 133) 131.

The four-component model of creativity incorporates expertise, task motivation, creativity skills, and pragmatism.

(False; Easy; pp. 133-134) 132.

Expertise is the foundation for all creative work.

(True; Challenging; p. 133) 133.

The bounded rationality model assumes that the decision maker will simplify the problem.

(True; Moderate; p. 135) 134.

The bounded rationality model ignores rationality.

(False; Moderate; p. 135) 135.

A satisficing solution is both satisfactory and sufficient.

(True; Easy; p. 135) 136.

Intuitive decision making is a conscious process created out of experience.

(False; Challenging; p. 136) 137.

Intuitive decision analysis must operate independently of rational analysis.

(False; Moderate; p. 136) 138.

Rational decision making is considered more socially desirable than intuitive decision making.

(True; Moderate; p. 137) 139.

All rational decision makers can be expected to identify and select the same problems to solve.

(False; Challenging; p. 137) 140.

Availability heuristic is the tendency for people to base judgments on information that is readily available to them.

(True; Moderate; p. 138) Jackson continues to put money into car repair even though he knows the car is a ―lemon.‖ This is an example of the availability heuristic.

(False; Moderate; p. 138) 141.

104

142.

It has been well documented that individuals escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure.

(True; Moderate; pp. 138-139) 143.

Decision makers with the analytic style make decisions fast and focus on the short run.

(False; Challenging; p. 140) 144.

Directive style decision makers tend to focus on the long run.

(False; Moderate; p. 140) 145.

The basic foundation of the model of decision making style is that people differ along two dimensions: their way of thinking and their tolerance for errors.

(False; Moderate; p. 140) 146.

Utilitarianism dominates business decision making.

(True; Easy; pp. 143-144) 147.

A focus on utilitarianism as an ethical decision criterion promotes efficiency and productivity as well as a focus on the rights of individuals.

(False; Easy; pp. 143-144) 148.

The justice criterion for decision making requires that individuals impose and enforce rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs.

(True; Moderate; p. 144) 149.

Ethical standards are less ambiguous in Asia than in the United States.

(False; Challenging; p. 145)

SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Attribution Theory You are on a team with two individuals who are difficult. The work has been divided among the three of you and each time your team meets, Janet and Jim disagree about the progress of the team project. Janet is convinced that Jim’s lack of progress is because he is inherently lazy and not because of some overwhelming problem with the project itself. The truth seems to be that Janet is not doing her part of the work.

150.

You might attempt to understand Janet and Jim by using theory. a. social relevance b. attribution c. optimizing d. satisficing (b; Easy; pp. 125-126)

105

151.

Janet seems to be guilty of: a. proximity bias. b. ethnocentrism. c. the fundamental attribution error. d. self-serving bias. (c; Moderate; pp. 125-126) 152.

Janet may be attributing to Jim some of her own characteristics. She might be guilty of: a. projection. b. the halo effect. c. contrast effect. d. stereotyping. (a; Moderate; pp. 125-126) Application of Shortcuts in Judging Others The students in your class are presenting their oral presentations in front of the entire class. You have heard that there are several frequently used shortcuts to judging others and are wondering if any of these are being used by your teacher.

153.

Jennifer has already presented two excellent reports. The report she has just presented is clearly not as good as the first two reports, yet she is given the same high grade as before. a. The contrast effect is distorting the teacher’s perception. b. The halo effect is operating. c. The teacher has stereotyped Jennifer. d. The teacher is projecting that Jennifer is an ―A‖ student. (b; Moderate; pp. 127-129)

154.

Allison has just presented her paper and has done a really good job. You are afraid to go next because the may operate and you will be perceived less favorably than if your presentation is on another day. a. stereotyping effect b. halo effect c. contrast effect d. projection effect (c; Moderate; pp. 127-129) 155.

You have heard that the teacher believes that men perform better in oral presentations than women.

This is an example of: a. halo effect. b. contrast effect. c. projection. d. stereotyping. (d; Moderate; pp. 127-129) 106

Application of Rational Problem-Solving Sarah is responsible for purchasing a new computer system for her department. Given the significant financial investment, Sarah has decided to use the rational decision-making model.

The first step of occurred when Sarah’s manager informed her that the old computer system was not able to accommodate the expected customer load. a. identifying decision criteria b. defining the problem c. rating each alternative on each criterion d. computing the optimal decision (a; Moderate; pp. 131-133) 156.

157.

The third step of the rational decision-making model requires Sarah to: a. identify the decision criteria. b. weight the decision criteria. c. generate possible alternatives. d. compute the optimal decision. (b; Moderate; pp. 131-133) 158.

When Sarah evaluates each alternative against the weighted criteria and selects the alternative with the highest total score, she is: a. identifying decision criteria. b. defining the problem. c. rating each alternative on each criterion. d. computing the optimal decision. (d; Moderate; pp. 131-133)

Application of Improving Creativity Susan is involved in making a very important decision for her university. The university is searching for a new president and Susan is a member of the committee. She wants to make certain that all information is considered and the best candidate is chosen.

159.

Susan wants the committee to produce novel and useful ideas and has decided she should stimulate: a. consensus. b. creativity. c. diversity. d. clarity. (b; Moderate; pp. 133-134) 160.

Creativity will probably be most important in: a. helping identify all viable alternatives. b. selecting the best alternative. c. allocating weights to criteria.

107

d. evaluating the alternatives. (a; Challenging; pp. 133-134) 161.

If Susan decides to use the three-component model of creativity, she will focus on foundation of creative work. a. creative thinking skills b. intrinsic task motivation c. expertise d. external motivators (c; Challenging; pp. 133-134)

as the

Application of How Are Decisions Actually Made You are part of making a decision about the appropriateness of discontinuing research on a new drug. This new drug would save lives, but it is uncertain whether you can develop it within a reasonable time frame and at a reasonable cost. Your firm has already spent a small fortune on this drug. You have gathered so much information in preparation to making the decision that you are unable to sort the good information from the superfluous.

162.

Your experience tells you that this project has merit. You decide to use continue the project. a. compulsive b. intuitive c. rational d. satisficing (b; Moderate; pp. 135-139)

decision making and

163.

You decide to rely on judgmental shortcuts in order to make the decision in a timely manner. These shortcuts are termed: a. heuristics. b. optimal solutions. c. lateral approaches. d. fundamental attribution errors. (a; Moderate; pp. 135-139) 164.

You decide to spend more money on the project because you believe you might be viewed as responsible if the project failed. You are guilty of: a. availability heuristic. b. representative heuristic. c. escalation of commitment. d. satisficing. (c; Moderate; pp. 135-139) Application of Ethical Decision Making

108

You are the manager of a development group in a large computer software company. You have decided that it is important for your group to understand the many ways that ethical decisions can be made and you are designing a training program on the subject of ethics.

165.

You will probablyteach the business decision making. a. utilitarian b. justice c. rights d. privilege (a; Challenging; pp. 143-144)

criterion since it is the decision criterion that currently dominates

166.

You decide to teach the group about the importance of making decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges. You are planning to focus on: a. utilitarian. b. justice. c. rights. d. privilege. (c; Moderate; pp. 143-144) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 167.

Contrast the fundamental attribution error and the self-serving bias.

(Page 126) When we make judgments about the behavior of other people, we have a tendency to underestimate the influence of external factors and overestimate the influence of internal or personal factors. This is called the fundamental attribution error. There is also a tendency for individuals to attribute their own successes to internal factors such as ability or effort while putting the blame for failure on external factors such as bad luck or unproductive coworkers. This is called the self-serving bias.

168.

Discuss some of the errors in perceptual judgment made by interviewers.

(Pages 129-130) Interviewers make perceptual judgments that are often inaccurate. In addition, agreement among interviewers is often poor; that is, different interviewers see different things in the same candidate and thus arrive at different conclusions about the applicant. Interviewers generally draw early impressions that become very quickly entrenched. If negative information is exposed early in the interview, it tends to be more heavily weighted than if that same information comes out later. Studies indicate that most interviewers’ decisions change very little after the first four or five minutes of the interview. As a result, information elicited early in the interview carries greater weight than does information elicited later, and a ―good applicant‖ is probably characterized more by the absence of unfavorable characteristics than by the presence of favorable characteristics. Perceptual factors influence who is hired and eventually the quality of an organization’s labor force.

169.

What is the self-fulfilling prophecy?

(Page 130) The self-fulfilling prophecy is also called the pygmalion effect. It characterizes the fact that people’s

109

expectations determine their behavior. In other words, if a manager expects big things from his people, they’re not likely to let him down. Similarly, if a manager expects people to perform minimally, they’ll tend to behave so as to meet those low expectations. The result then is that the expectations become reality.

170.

What assumptions are made by the rational decision-making model?

(Pages 132-133) There are six assumptions of the rational decision-making model: a. The problem is clear and unambiguous. The decision maker is assumed to have complete information regarding the decision situation. b. It is assumed the decision maker can identify all the relevant criteria and can list all the viable alternatives. Furthermore, the decision maker is aware of all the possible consequences of each alternative. c. Rationality assumes that the criteria and alternatives can be ranked and weighted to reflect their importance. d. It is assumed that the specific decision criteria are constant and that the weights assigned to them are stable over time. e. Therational decision maker can obtain full information about criteria and alternatives becauseitis assumed that there are no time or cost constraints. f. The rational decision maker will choose the alternative that yields the highest perceived value.

171.

How is bounded rationality related to decision making?

(Pages 135-136) Since the capacity of the human mind for formulating and solving complex problems is far too small to meet the requirements for full rationality, individuals operate within the confines of bounded rationality. They construct simplified models that extract the essential features from problems without capturing all their complexity. Individuals can then behave rationally within the limits of the simple model. Once the limited set of alternatives is identified, the decision maker will begin reviewing it. But the review will not be comprehensive. Instead, the decision maker will begin with alternatives that differ only in a relatively small degree from the choice currently in effect. Following along familiar and well-worn paths, the decision maker proceeds to review alternatives only until he or she identifies an alternative that is ―good enough.‖ The first alternative that meets the ―good enough‖ criterion ends the search. So the final solution represents a satisficing choice rather than an optimum one.

172.

Define the term ―heuristic‖ and explain two common categories of heuristics.

(Page 139) Heuristics are judgmental shortcuts in decision making. The two common categories are availability and representativeness. The availability heuristic is the tendency for people to base their judgments on information that is readily available to them. The representative heuristic is the tendency to assess the likelihood of an occurrence by trying to match it with a preexisting category.

173.

Define the term escalation of commitment.

(Pages 139-140) A bias that creeps into decisions is a tendency to escalate commitment when a decision stream 110

represents a series of decisions. Escalation of commitment refers to staying with a decision even when there is clear evidence that it is wrong. Individuals escalate commitment to a failing course of action when they view themselves as responsible for the failure.

MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 174.

Discuss five shortcuts used in judging others.

(Pages 127-129) Because it is impossible for us to assimilate everything we see, only certain stimuli can be taken in.

Since we cannot observe everything going on about us, we engage in selective perception. This allows us to ―speed-read‖ others. When we draw a general impression about an individual on the basis of a single characteristic, a halo effect is operating. The contrast effect occurs when we don’t evaluate a person in isolation. Our reaction to one person is influenced by other persons we have recently encountered. The tendency to attribute one’s own characteristics to other people is projection. This occurs when we perceive others according to what we ourselves are like rather than according to what the person being observed is really like. When we judge someone on the basis of our perception of the group to which he or she belongs, we are using the shortcut called stereotyping.

175.

Outline the six steps in the rational decision-making model.

(Page 132) The rational decision-making model begins by defining the problem. Once a decision maker has defined the problem, he or she needs to identify the decision criteria that will be important in solving the problem. That is, the decision maker determines what is relevant in making the decision. The third step requires the decision maker to weight the previously identified criteria in order to give them the correct priority in the decision. The fourth step requires the decision maker to generate possible alternatives that could succeed in resolving the problem. Once the alternatives have been generated, the decision maker must critically analyze and evaluate each one. This is done by rating each alternative on each criterion. The final step requires computing the optimal decision. This is done by evaluating each alternative against the weighted criteria and selecting the alternative with the highest total score.

176.

Discuss three different criteria for ethical decision making.

(Pages 143-145) There are three different criteria in making ethical choices. The first is the utilitarian criterion, in which decisions are made solely on the basis of their outcomes or consequences. The goal of utilitarianism is to provide the greatest good for the greatest number. This is the view that tends to dominate business decision making. Another criterion is to focus on rights. This calls on individuals to make decisions consistent with fundamental liberties and privileges as set forth in documents like the Bill of Rights. An emphasis on rights in decision making means respecting and protecting the basic rights of individuals. A third criterion is to focus on justice. This requires individuals to impose and enforce rules fairly and impartially so there is an equitable distribution of benefits and costs.

COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS

111

177.

What factors reside in the perceiver, the target being perceived, or in the context of the situation that operate to shape and sometimes distort perception?

(Exh 5-1; Pages 124-125) A number of factors operate to shape and sometimes distort perception. These factors can reside in the perceiver, in the object or target being perceived, or in the context of the situation in which the perception is made. When an individual looks at a target and attempts to interpret what he or she sees, that interpretation is heavily influenced by personal characteristics of the individual perceiver.

Personal characteristics affecting perception include his or her attitudes, personality, motives, interests, past experiences, and expectations. Characteristics of the target being observed can affect what is perceived. The relationship of a target to its background influences perception, as doesour tendency to group close things and similar things together. The context in which we see objects or events is also important. The time at which an object or event is seen can influence attention, as can location, light, heat, or any number of other factors.

178.

Discuss the three-component model of creativity.

(Pages 133-134) The three-component model of creativity proposes that individual creativity essentially requires expertise, creative-thinking skills, and intrinsic task motivation. Expertise is the foundation for all creative work. The potential for creativity is enhanced when individuals have abilities, knowledge, proficiencies, and similar expertise in their field of endeavor. The second component is creativethinking skills. This encompasses personality characteristics associated with creativity, the ability to use analogies, as well as the talent to see the familiar in a different light. The final component is intrinsic task motivation. This is the desire to work on something because it is interesting, involving, exciting, satisfying, or personally challenging. This motivational component is what turns creativity potential into actual creative ideas. It determines the extent to which individuals fully engage their expertise and creative skills.

179.

Discuss some of the ways in which the organization constrains decision makers.

(Pages 141-143) The organization itself constrains decision makers. Managers are strongly influenced in their decision making by the criteria by which they are evaluated. The organization’s reward system influences decision makers by suggesting to them what choices are preferable in terms of personal payoff. Rules, policies, procedures, and other formalized regulations standardize behavior of organizational members. By programming decisions, organizations are able to get individuals to achieve high levels of performance without paying for the years of experience that would be necessary in the absence of regulations. Organizations impose deadlines on decisions. These conditions create time pressures on decision makers and often make it difficult, if not impossible, to gather all the information they might like to have before making a final choice. Decisions have a context. Decisions made in the past are ghosts which continually haunt current choices. Choices made today, therefore, are largely a result of choices made over the years.

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Chapter 6 Basic Motivation Concepts MULTIPLE CHOICE Defining Motivation 1.

Motivation is: a. a component of ability. b. situational. c. a personal trait. d. a constant intensity for each individual. (b; Moderate; p. 155)

2.

Motivation is best defined as: a. high performance. b. efficient behavior. c. processes that account for an individual’s intensity, direction, and persistence toward attaining a goal. d. being told to exert high levels of effort. (c; Easy; p. 155)

3.

The three key elements in the definition of motivation do not include: a. drive. b. intensity. c. direction. d. persistence. (a; Moderate; p. 155) Early Theories of Motivation The drive to become what one is capable of becoming is which level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs? a. social b. self-actualization c. physiological d. esteem (b; Easy; p. 156)

4.

The most well-known theory of motivation is Abraham Maslow’s: a. Theories X and Y b. Hierarchy of Needs c. Two-factor Theory d. Motivator-Hygiene Theory (b; Easy; p. 156)

5.

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Maslow’s hierarchy has five levels of needs. Which of the following is not one of those levels? a. safety needs b. social needs c. motivational needs d. self-actualization needs (c; Moderate; p. 156)

6.

Which of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs deals with satisfying one’s need for hunger, thirst, and sex? a. safety b. physiological c. social d. esteem (b; Moderate; p. 156)

7.

Self-respect, autonomy, and achievement are examples of Maslow’s: a. physiological factors. b. social factors. c. internal esteem factors. d. external esteem factors. (c; Moderate; p. 156)

8.

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs are arranged in which of the following orders? a. physiological, esteem, safety, social, and self-actualization b. physiological, safety, social, esteem, and self-actualization c. safety, physiological, esteem, social, and self-actualization d. physiological, social, safety, esteem, and self-actualization (b; Easy; p. 156)

9.

Growth and achieving one’s potential are examples of Maslow’s: a. self-actualization factors. b. physiological factors. c. social factors. d. esteem factors. (a; Moderate; p. 156)

10.

11.

According to Maslow, when does a need stop motivating? a. when it is substantially satisfied b. it never stops motivating c. when one returns to a lower level need d. when one chooses to move to a higher level need (a; Moderate; pp. 156-157) Which one of the following statements about Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory is not true? a. The five levels of needs are arranged in hierarchical order. b. Physiological needs are the lowest level. c. The lower order need must be fully satisfied before the next higher need becomes potent. d. The need hierarchy concept has not been well supported by research. (c; Challenging; pp. 156-157) 13.

The primary organizational factor that satisfies people’s physiological needs is:

12.

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a. relationships with co-workers. b. recognition. c. pay. d. challenging job assignments. (c; Moderate; p. 157) 14.

Which of the following were considered higher-order needs by Maslow? a. physiological, safety, social b. safety, social, esteem c. esteem, self-actualization d. social, esteem, self-actualization (d; Moderate; p. 157) 15.

There is little evidence: a. that need structures are organized along Maslow’s proposed dimensions. b. that unsatisfied needs motivate. c. that a satisfied need activates movement to a new need level. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 157) 16.

Douglas McGregor proposed: a. the Hierarchy of Needs Theory. b. Theories X and Y. c. the Two-Factor Theory. d. ERG Theory. (b; Moderate; p. 157) 17.

A Theory X manager would view employees as: a. seeking responsibility. b. needing to be coerced to achieve goals. c. viewing work as a normal daily activity. d. exercising self control. (b; Easy; p. 157) 18.

Which one of the following statements best describes a manager who follows Theory X assumptions? a. He lets employees choose their own goals. b. He allows employees to use discretion. c. He imposes strict controls. d. He makes extensive use of delegating authority. (c; Moderate; p. 157) 19.

All of the following are assumptions of a Theory X manager concerning employees except: a. avoids responsibilities. b. dislikes work. c. seeks formal direction. d. exercises self direction. (d; Moderate; p. 157) 20.

A Theory Y manager would assume that employees would: a. dislike work.

116

b. need to be controlled. c. avoid responsibility. d. exercise self direction. (d; Easy; p. 157) 21.

A Theory X manager would assume that employees would: a. like work. b. seek responsibility. c. need to be controlled. d. exercise self direction. (c; Easy; p. 157) 22.

Theory X assumptions relate to: a. Maslow’s lower level needs. b. Maslow’s higher level needs. c. both levels of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. d. neither level of Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. (a; Moderate; p. 158) 23.

Who proposed a two-factor theory? a. Maslow b. McClelland c. Herzberg d. Alderfer (c; Challenging; p. 159) 24.

The two-factor theory is also referred to as: a. Theories X and Y. b. Motivator-Hygiene Theory. c. Hierarchy of Needs Theory. d. Satisfaction/Dissatisfaction Theory. (b; Moderate; p. 159) 25.

Two-factor theory suggests that extrinsic factors such as a. advancement b. working conditions c. achievement d. recognition (b; Moderate; p. 160) 26.

cause dissatisfaction.

Which of the following is not true about the two-factor theory? a. Working conditions are characterized as hygiene factors. b. Intrinsic factors are motivators. c. A job becomes satisfying when the dissatisfying characteristics are removed. d. Responsibility is a satisfier. (c; Moderate; pp. 159-160) 27.

Which one of the following would Herzberg classify as a hygiene factor? a. responsibility b. growth 117

c. company policy d. achievement (c; Moderate; p. 160) 28.

Which one of the following would be considered a motivator in the two-factor theory? a. salary b. supervision c. working conditions d. recognition (d; Moderate; p. 160)

29.

The hygiene factors make up the continuum that ranges from: a. no dissatisfaction to dissatisfaction. b. no dissatisfaction to satisfaction. c. satisfaction to no satisfaction. d. satisfaction to dissatisfaction. (a; Challenging; Exh. 6-3; p. 160)

30.

Which of the following is a criticism of the two-factor theory? a. No overall measure of satisfaction is utilized. b. The research methodology does not examine productivity. c. The theory is inconsistent with previous research. d. all of the above (d; Easy; pp. 160-161) 31.

The popularity over the past 30 years of vertically expanding jobs to allow workers greater responsibility in planning and controlling their work can probably be largely attributed to the theory developed by: a. McGregor. b. Vroom. c. Herzberg. d. Maslow. (c; Challenging; p. 161) Contemporary Theories of Motivation 32.

developed the ERG theory. a. McClelland b. Maslow c. Alderfer d. Ouchi (c; Challenging; p. 161)

33.

substitutes three core needs for Maslow’s five needs. a. ERG theory b. Equity theory c. McClelland’s theory of needs 118

d. Expectancy theory (a; Moderate; p. 161) Hunger, thirst, sex, pay, and physical work environment are examples of Alderfer’s: a. existence needs. b. safety needs. c. growth needs. d. physiological needs. (a; Moderate; p. 161)

34.

35.

Desires for relationships with those who are significant to us, such as family members, supervisors, and friends, are examples of Alderfer’s: a. existence needs. b. relatedness needs. c. growth needs. d. esteem needs. (b; Moderate; p. 161) Our intrinsic desire for personal development is included in Alderfer’s: a. existence needs. b. relatedness needs. c. growth needs. d. esteem needs. (c; Moderate; p. 161) 36.

Alderfer’s needs include the intrinsic component from Maslow’s esteem category and the characteristics included under self-actualization. a. existence b. relatedness c. growth d. physiological (c; Moderate; p. 161) 37.

38.

Which one of the following is not characteristic of ERG theory? a. It proposes three levels of needs: existence, relatedness, and growth. b. More than one level of needs may serve as motivators at the same time. c. It involves a frustration-regression process. d. The existence needs must be satisfied before the relatedness needs become important. (d; Moderate; p. 161)

39.

theory is more consistent with our knowledge of individual differences than other theories. a. ERG b. Maslow’s c. Two-factor d. McClelland’s 119

(a; Challenging; p. 162) McClelland’s theory of needs includes all of the following except: a. need for achievement. b. need for existence. c. need for power. d. need for affiliation. (b; Moderate; p. 162) 40.

McClelland’s need for affiliation is: a. the drive to excel, to strive to succeed. b. the need to make others behave in a new way. c. the desire for friendly and close interpersonal relationships. d. the same as Maslow’s physiological need. (c; Moderate; p. 162)

41.

Which of the following needs is included in McClelland’s theory of needs? a. control b. power c. politics d. success (b; Easy; p. 162)

42.

43.

Who proposed that there are three major relevant motives, or needs, in workplace situations: achievement, affiliation, and power? a. McClelland b. Alderfer c. Herzberg d. Maslow (a; Moderate; p. 162) 44.

According to McClelland, the need for would not have behaved otherwise. a. power b. achievement c. affiliation d. effectiveness (a; Moderate; p. 162)

is the need to make others behave in a way that they

45.

Individuals who have a desire to excel and to succeed are high in: a. nPow. b. nAch. c. nMot. d. nAff. (b; Moderate; p. 162) 120

McClelland’s need for achievement best approximates Maslow’s need for: a. esteem. b. self-actualization. c. love. d. success. (b; Challenging; p. 163) 46.

A desire for being productive and reaching desirable goals is an example of McClelland’s: a. need for achievement. b. need for affiliation. c. need for power. d. need for esteem. (a; Easy; p. 163)

47.

The desire for positive relationships with others is an example of McClelland’s: a. need for achievement. b. need for affiliation. c. need for power. d. need for esteem. (b; Easy; p. 163) 48.

The desire for influence and control over others is an example of McClelland’s: a. need for achievement. b. need for affiliation. c. need for power. d. need for esteem. (c; Easy; p. 163)

49.

50.

Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer all of the following except: a. job situations with personal responsibility. b. a high degree of risk. c. overcoming obstacles. d. feedback. (b; Moderate; p. 163) 51.

The identified by McClelland has received the least attention from researchers. a. need for achievement b. need for affiliation c. need for power d. need for esteem (b; Challenging; p. 163) 52.

How does most research determine if someone is a high achiever? a. polygraph b. projective test c. personal interview d. Myers-Briggs (b; Moderate; p. 163)

121

53.

A high motive may be a requirement for managerial effectiveness. a. need for achievement b. need for affiliation c. need for power d. need for esteem (c; Challenging; p. 164) 54.

The issue of whether intrinsic and extrinsic motivators are independent is considered in which theory? a. expectancy b. reinforcement c. equity d. cognitive evaluation (d; Moderate; p. 164) 55.

Which of the following is true about cognitive evaluation theory? a. If cognitive evaluation theory is correct, it would make sense to make an individual’s pay noncontingent on performance. b. Employees are motivated by a hierarchy of needs. c. This theory was developed by McClelland. d. Needs are separated into higher-order and lower-order categories. (a; Challenging; pp. 164-165)

56.

proposed that intentions to work toward a goal are a major source of work motivation. a. Maslow b. Herzberg c. McClelland d. Edwin Locke (d; Easy; p. 166)

57.

According to the goal-setting theory of motivation, goals should be: a. extremely difficult. b. easy. c. difficult but attainable. d. just a bit beyond his or her potential. (c; Moderate; p. 166) 58.

All of the following are important issues relating to goal-setting theory with the exception of: a. goal difficulty. b. goal specificity. c. equity among co-workers. d. feedback. (c; Moderate; p. 166) 59.

Which of the following is inconsistent with goal-setting theory? a. Specificity increases motivation. b. Goals that are certain to be accomplished increase motivation. c. Challenging goals or difficult goals can increase performance. d. If employees participate in setting goals, chances for acceptance are increased.

122

(b; Challenging; p. 167) 60.

In addition to feedback, what are two of the other factors that have been found to influence the goalsperformance relationship? a. goal commitment and task difficulty b. self-efficacy and task subjectivity c. goal commitment and self-efficacy d. task subjectivity and task difficulty (c; Challenging; p. 167) 61.

Your personal evaluation of your ability to perform is termed: a. goal setting. b. equity. c. self-efficacy. d. distributive justice. (c; Easy; p. 167) 62.

Goal-setting theory is well adapted to countries like: a. Canada. b. Chile. c. Portugal. d. Spain. (a; Challenging; p. 167) 63.

Reinforcement theory views behavior as: a. a cognitive process. b. environmentally caused. c. the inner state of the individual. d. a function of one’s power need. (b; Challenging; pp. 167-168) 64.

Which theory is, strictly speaking, not a theory of motivation since it does not concern itself with what initiates behavior? a. equity theory b. expectancy theory c. ERG theory d. reinforcement theory (d; Moderate; p. 168)

The work equivalent of the athlete’s being ―in the zone‖ is called: a. concentration. b. flow. c. hype. d. zoned out. (b; Moderate; p. 168) 65.

66.

Which of the following is not a component of Thomas’ intrinsic motivation model?

123

a. choice b. competence c. confidence d. progress (c; Moderate; p. 169) Thomas’ four intrinsic motivation components link with the concept of: a. flow. b. hype. c. zones. d. motivation. (a; Moderate; p. 170)

67.

68.

In equity theory, individuals assess the: a. cost-benefit ratio. b. efficiency-effectiveness trade-off. c. quantity-quality trade-off. d. outcome-input ratio. (d; Moderate; p. 170) 69.

When individuals compare their outcomes and inputs against those of others, the applicable theory is called: a. equity theory. b. expectancy theory. c. needs hierarchy theory. d. ERG theory. (a; Easy; p. 170) 70.

When people perceive an imbalance in their outcome-input ratio relative to others: a. an illegal situation is assumed. b. they expect to be promoted. c. equity tension is created. d. turnover is inevitable. (c; Challenging; p. 171) 71.

Each of the following is a comparison an employee can use in equity theory except: a. self-inside. b. self-goal. c. other-outside. d. self-outside. (b; Moderate; p. 171)

72.

Which of the following is not true about referent comparisons in equity theory? a. Both men and women prefer same-sex comparisons. b. Employees in sex-segregated jobs use more cross-sex comparisons. c. Employees with long tenure rely more heavily on co-workers for comparisons. d. Upper-level employees make more other-outside comparisons. (b; Challenging; p. 171)

124

73.

Which of the following is not a predictable choice when employees perceive an inequity? a. change their inputs b. change their outcomes c. choose a different referent d. acquire more tenure (d; Moderate; p. 171) 74.

If a salaried employee is overpaid, equity theory would predict that: a. quantity will decrease. b. quality will decrease. c. quantity and/or quality will increase. d. there will be no effect. (c; Challenging; p. 172) 75.

If a piece-rate employee is overpaid, equity theory would predict that: a. quality will increase. b. quantity will increase. c. quality will decrease. d. there will be no effect. (a; Challenging; p. 172) 76.

Equity theory focused on: a. interpersonal justice. b. distributive justice. c. equity. d. procedural justice. (b; Challenging; p. 172) There are several types of justice. Which one is the term for ―fairness of the process?‖ a. interpersonal justice b. distributive justice c. equity d. procedural justice (d; Moderate; p. 172) 77.

78.

Jessica believes that she got an appropriate salary increase this year but she does not believe that the company’s methods for determining salary increases are fair. She believes that there is a problem with the firm’s: a. interpersonal justice. b. distributive justice. c. equity. d. procedural justice. (d; Challenging; p. 172) 79.

Equity theory historically focused on

justice.

125

a. procedural b. distributive c. interpersonal d. interactive (b; Moderate; p. 173) 80.

justice is perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals. a. Interactive b. Interpersonal c. Procedural d. Distributive (d; Easy; p. 172) What was the first model which attempted to measure the strength of one’s expectations and predict motivation? a. expectancy theory b. equity theory c. goal setting theory d. ERG theory (a; Challenging; p. 173) 81.

82.

Expectancy theory was developed by: a. McClelland. b. Maslow. c. House. d. Vroom. (d; Moderate; p. 173) 83.

The degree to which an individual believes that performing at a particular level will generate a desired outcome is defined by expectancy theory as: a. performance-reward relationship. b. effort-performance relationship. c. rewards-personal goals relationship. d. effort-satisfaction relationship. (a; Moderate; p. 173)

84.

Which of the following is not one of the relationships proposed in expectancy theory? a. performance-reward relationship. b. effort-performance relationship. c. rewards-personal goals relationship. d. effort-satisfaction relationship. (d; Moderate; p. 173) 85.

In expectancy theory, the probability perceived by the individual that exerting a given amount of effort will lead to performance is the relationship. a. rewards-personal goals b. performance-reward 126

c. effort-performance d. rewards-effort (c; Moderate; p. 173) According to expectancy theory, the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual’s personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the individual is the relationship. a. performance-reward. b. effort-performance. c. rewards-personal goals. d. effort-satisfaction. (a; Moderate; p. 173) 86.

The theory that asserts that motivation depends upon an employee’s goals, and the belief that productive behavior will get these goals accomplished, is called: a. Herzberg’s dual-factor theory. b. McClelland’s three needs theory. c. Vroom’s expectancy theory. d. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. (c; Challenging; p. 173) 87.

88.

Which of the following concepts is inconsistent with the expectancy theory of motivation? a. Self-interest is pursued. b. Performance and rewards are related. c. Attractive rewards will motivate. d. One’s inputs and outputs are compared to another’s. (d; Challenging; p. 173) Caveat Emptor: Motivation Theories are Culture Bound 89.

Most current motivation theories were developed in the United States by Americans and have a strong emphasis on: a. individualism and quantity of life. b. teamwork and quality of life. c. teamwork and quantity of life. d. risk minimization and consensus. (a; Challenging; p. 177) 90.

A motivation concept that clearly has an American bias is the: a. power need. b. affiliation need. c. achievement need. d. social need. (c; Moderate; p. 178) 91.

The desire for seems important to almost all workers across cultures. a. interesting work b. higher pay c. more flexibility d. telecommuting options 127

(a; Moderate; p. 178) A theory based on ―needs‖ is the premise for theories by all of the following except: a. McClelland. b. Alderfer. c. McGregor. d. Maslow. (c; Challenging; p. 177) 92.

TRUE/FALSE Defining Motivation 93.

Motivation is a personality trait.

(False; Moderate; p. 156) 94.

Motivation is the result of the interaction of the individual and the situation.

(True; Easy; p. 156) Leadership is the processes that account for an individual’s intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal.

(False; Moderate; p. 156) 95.

96.

High intensity is unlikely to lead to favorable job-performance outcomes unless the effort is channeled in a direction that benefits the organization.

(True; Moderate; pp. 156-157) Early Theories of Motivation 97.

The early theories of motivation are widely used by practitioners to explain employee motivation.

(True; Moderate; p. 156) 98.

According to Maslow, a need that is essentially satisfied no longer motivates.

(True; Moderate; p. 156) 99.

Esteem is considered a lower order need.

(False; Moderate; p. 157) 100.

Higher-order needs are satisfied internally, whereas lower-order needs are predominantly satisfied externally.

(True; Challenging; p. 157) 101.

Research actively validates Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory.

(False; Easy; p. 157) 102.

Theory X assumptions hold a basically negative view of human beings.

(True; Moderate; p. 157)

128

103.

McGregor referred to the positive assumptions of human beings as Theory Y. (True; Moderate; p. 157) 104.

People are inherently lazy.

(False; Easy; p. 158) 105.

Maslow proposed a two-factor theory, suggesting that intrinsic job factors motivate, whereas extrinsic factors only maintain and placate employees.

(False; Moderate; p. 159) 106.

According to Herzberg, the opposite of ―satisfaction‖ is ―dissatisfaction.‖ (False; Moderate; p. 160) 107.

According to Herzberg, some factors lead to satisfaction, but if you remove the factors you create dissatisfaction.

(False; Moderate; p. 160) 108.

According to Herzberg, pay is a motivation factor.

(False; Moderate; p. 160) 109.

Hygiene factors usually lead to job satisfaction when present in a job.

(False; Moderate; p. 160) 110.

The popularity of vertically expanding jobs to allow workers greater responsibility in planning and controlling their work can probably be attributed largely to Maslow’s findings.

(False; Challenging; p. 161) Contemporary Theories of Motivation 111.

The contemporary theories of motivation are generally more valid than the early theories of motivation.

(True; Moderate; p. 161) 112.

The core needs in ERG theory are reconcilable with Maslow’s five need categories.

(True; Moderate; p. 161) According to Alderfer, once an employee’s existence needs are substantially satisfied, the employee moves on to his or her relatedness needs.

(False; Moderate; p. 161) 113.

114.

According to Alderfer, existence needs include the items Maslow considered to be physiological and safety needs.

(True; Moderate; p. 161) 115.

McClelland’s theory of needs contains a frustration-regression dimension.

(False; Moderate; p. 162) 116.

A drive to succeed would be described by McClelland as a need for achievement.

(True; Moderate; p. 162) 129

117.

High achievers attempt the most difficult goals because once achieved, they gain more recognition.

(False; Challenging; p. 163) 118.

The needs for affiliation and power tend to be closely related to managerial success.

(True; Moderate; p. 163) 119.

The evidence indicates that high achievers make good managers.

(False; Challenging; p. 164) 120.

Evidence indicates that the best managers are high in nPow and low in nAff. (True; Challenging; p. 164) 121.

The achievement need can be stimulated through training.

(True; Moderate; p. 164) 122.

When extrinsic rewards are given to someone for performing an interesting task, it causes intrinsic interest in the task itself to decline.

(True; Challenging; p. 164) 123.

Cognitive evaluation theory is concerned with whether individuals perceive that rewards are distributed fairly.

(False; Moderate; p. 164) 124.

According to the cognitive evaluation theory, pay should not be directly related to job performance.

(True; Challenging; p. 165) 125.

Evidence gathered about the cognitive evaluation theory leads us to believe that extrinsic and intrinsic rewards are interdependent.

(True; Challenging; p. 165) 126.

The cognitive evaluation theory may have limited applicability to work organizations because most low-level jobs are not inherently satisfying enough to foster high intrinsic interest.

(True; Challenging; p. 165) 127.

According to goal-setting theory, a generalized goal will produce a higher level of output than a specific goal.

(False; Moderate; p. 166) 128.

Self-generated feedback has been shown to be a more powerful motivator than externally generated feedback.

(True; Moderate; pp. 166-167) 129.

Participatively set goals increase acceptance and elicit superior performance.

(False; Easy; p. 167) 130.

Self-efficacy refers to an individual’s belief that he or she is capable of performing a task.

(True; Moderate; p. 167)

130

131.

The basic logic underlying goal-setting theory and reinforcement theory are at odds.

(True; Challenging; p. 167) The statement that ―behavior is a function of its consequences‖ is consistent with reinforcement theory.

(True; Moderate; p. 168) 132.

133.

According to reinforcement theory, behavior is environmentally determined.

(True; Moderate; p. 168) Motivation researchers call the state of absolute concentration equivalent to an athlete’s being ―in the zone‖ flow.

(True, Moderate, p. 168) 134.

135.

Flow is often reported by people when engaged in leisure activities.

(False; Challenging; p. 169) 136.

Flow is more likely to be experienced at work than at home.

(True; Challenging; p. 168) 137.

Equity theory proposed that equity tension is the negative tension state which provides the motivation to do something to correct it.

(True; Moderate; p. 171) 138.

In equity theory, if perceived outcomes and inputs are not balanced, an individual will make certain adjustments to correct imbalance.

(True; Moderate; p. 171) 139.

Research shows that in equity theory men prefer same-sex comparisons but women do not.

(False; Challenging; p. 171) 140.

If you pay an individual an hourly rate, according to the equity theory, overpaying this individual will result in more output.

(True; Moderate; p. 172) 141.

Underpayment and overpayment, according to equity theory, tend to produce similar reactions to correct the inequities.

(False; Moderate; p. 172) 142.

It is possible for an employee to perceive injustice even if the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals is perceived as fair.

(True; Moderate; p. 172) 143.

Distributive justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards.

(False; Moderate; p. 172) 144.

Procedural justice refers to the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards.

(True; Moderate; p. 172) 131

In expectancy theory, the strength of a person’s motivation to perform depends in part on how strongly he believes he can achieve what he attempts.

(True; Moderate; p. 173) 145.

146.

The expectancy theory is a contingency model.

(True; Easy; p. 174) Integrating Contemporary Theories of Motivation 147.

Expectancy theory predicts that an employee will exert only a low level of effort if she perceives a strong relationship between effort and performance, performance and rewards, and rewards and satisfaction of personal goals.

(False; Challenging; p. 176) Reinforcement theory recognizes that the organization’s rewards reinforce the individual’s performance.

(True; Easy; p. 177) 148.

Caveat Emptor: Motivation Theories are Culture Bound 149.

Maslow’s hierarchy works equally well for all cultures.

(False; Moderate; p. 178) According to Maslow’s hierarchy, a country high in uncertainty avoidance would have securityneeds near the top of the need hierarchy.

(True; Moderate; p. 178) 150.

151.

The desire for interesting work seems important to almost all workers, regardless of their culture.

(True; Easy; p. 178) 152.

Studies suggest there is some universality to the importance of intrinsic factors in two-factor theory.

(True; Challenging; p. 178) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Maslow’s Hierarchy Your department is made up of people who are very different in their lifestyles and their stages of life. Mary is a 23-year-old single parent who is working for minimum wage. Jonathan is 60 years old, extremely wealthy and works because he enjoys it. Jane is single, 45 years old and has few interests outside of the office. You have decided to attempt to apply Maslow’s hierarchy of needs to motivate each of these individuals.

153.

You would expect that Mary is trying to satisfy her needs. a. social b. esteem c. physiological d. self-actualization

132

(c; Easy; pp. 156-157) 154.

You would expect that Jane is trying to satisfy her a. social b. esteem c. physiological d. self-actualization (a; Moderate; pp. 156-157)

needs.

155.

Which of the following do you think would motivate Mary the most? a. more vacation time b. more responsibility c. greater discretion over her job d. more money (d; Moderate; pp. 156-157) Application of Maslow’s Hierarchy You are interested in applying Maslow’s hierarchy in your workplace. You are interested in how the various employee needs are met by the organization because you believe your organization can motivate employees by analyzing where they are on Maslow’s hierarchy.

156.

Some of the employees’ safety needs are met by providing them with insurance.

(True; Moderate; pp. 156-157) 157.

Self-actualization needs can be met by giving employees a place to take their breaks together.

(False; Moderate; pp. 156-157) 158.

The organization will find the employees’ self-actualization needs the easiest to satisfy.

(False; Easy; pp. 156-157)

Application of McGregor’s Theory X and Theory Y You are a new employee with Acme, Inc. Your supervisor has explained your job to you and has indicated that you will have a great deal of control over your job once you become proficient at it. He compliments your history of accepting responsibility and suggests that you are to feel free to offer constructive criticism about the way that your job is structured.

159.

Your supervisor seems to possess a. Theory X b. Theory Y c. Theory Z d. to be lazy (b; Easy; p. 157) 160.

assumptions.

Your supervisor would be expected to assume each of the following except: 133

a. employees view work as natural. b. the average person will seek responsibility. c. workers place security above all other factors. d. the ability to make innovative decisions is not necessarily the sole province of managers. (c; Moderate; p. 157) 161.

As a Theory Y manager, your supervisor can be expected to do all of the following except: a. assume that you will be internally motivated. b. assume that you want to do your job. c. allow you freedom to do your job as you believe it should be done. d. monitor your work closely for signs that you are derelict. (d; Moderate; p. 157) Application of Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory Your fellow employees have a terrible work situation. They work in an old, unattractive building with an antiquated heating system. The work itself is tedious and the supervisor is rarely available. You have decided to try to apply Herzberg’s two-factor theory to the situation.

162.

You decide that your first job should be to remove the dissatisfiers. Which of the following are hygiene factors? a. working conditions b. intrinsic rewards c. recognition d. advancement (a; Moderate; pp. 159-161) 163.

Which of the following statements would be true? a. When the dissatisfiers are removed, employees will be satisfied. b. The relationship with the supervisor is a motivation factor. c. Dissatisfaction and satisfaction are not opposites. d. Lack of recognition is a dissatisfier. (c; Challenging; pp. 159-161) 164.

What would Herzberg believe would motivate the employees? a. improvement in working conditions b. fixing the heating system c. receiving recognition for a job well done d. having the supervisor ―hang around‖ more (c; Moderate; pp. 159-161) Application of Equity Theory You graduated from college two years ago and began working at Hampstead Electronics. You have received good performance evaluations and a raise. You just found out that a recent college graduate with no experience has been hired at a higher salary than you are now making.

165.

You will probably use the theory in evaluating how you regard this situation. a. equity b. expectancy 134

c. goal setting d. reinforcement (a; Moderate; pp. 170-172) 166.

Your referent comparison for equity theory is termed: a. self-inside. b. self-outside. c. other-inside. d. other-outside. (c; Challenging; pp. 170-172) 167.

You can be predicted to: a. work harder. b. call in sick. c. acknowledge that the new person hired is worth more. d. not work so hard. (d; Moderate; pp. 170-172) Application of McClelland’s Theory of Needs You manage a department of three employees. You have identified that Joe scores high in the need for achievement, Mary scores high in the need for power, and Jim scores high in the need for affiliation. Sarah scored high in both the need for power and the need for affiliation.

168.

Which employee would be best suited to a challenging new assignment where they would receive rapid feedback? a. Joe b. Mary c. Jim d. Sarah (a; Challenging; pp. 162-163) 169.

Which employee would be best suited as a mentor to new employees with a chance to develop friendships? a. Joe b. Mary c. Jim d. Sarah (c; Challenging; pp. 162-163) 170.

Which employee would be most comfortable being in charge while you are on vacation? a. Joe b. Mary c. Jim d. Sarah (b; Challenging; pp. 162-163) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS

135

171.

What assumptions are held by a Theory Y manager?

(Page 157) The Theory Y manager assumes employees can view work as being as natural as rest or play; people will exercise self-direction and self-control if they are committed to the objectives; the average person can learn to accept, even seek, responsibility; and the ability to make innovative decisions is widely dispersed throughout the population and is not necessarily the sole province of those in management positions.

172.

List and explain the three groups of core needs in ERG Theory.

(Page 161) Alderfer argues that there are three groups of core needs – existence, relatedness, and growth. The existence group is concerned with providing our basic material existence requirements. The second group of needs are those of relatedness – the desire we have for maintaining important interpersonal relationships. Growth needs reflect an intrinsic desire for personal development.

173.

Discuss McClelland’s Theory of Needs.

(Pages 162-163) McClelland’s theory of needs focuses on three needs: achievement, power, and affiliation. The need for achievement is the drive to excel, to achieve in relation to a set of standards and to strive to succeed. The need for power is the need to make others behave in a way that they would not have behaved otherwise. The need for affiliation is the desire for friendly and close interpersonal relationships.

174.

Explain cognitive evaluation theory.

(Pages 164-165) Cognitive evaluation theory proposes that the introduction of extrinsic rewards, such as pay, for work effort that had been previously intrinsically rewarding due to the pleasure associated with the content of the work itself would tend to decrease the overall level of motivation.

175.

What is self-efficacy?

(Page 167) Self-efficacy refers to an individual’s belief that he or she is capable of performing a task. The higher your self-efficacy, the more confidence you have in your ability to succeed in a task.

176.

What is flow?

(Pages 168-169) Athletes commonly refer to it as being ―in the zone.‖ It can also occur at work. Motivation researchers call this state of absolute concentration flow. The activity people are pursuing when they achieve the timelessness feeling of flow comes from the process of the activity itself rather than trying to reach a goal. So when a person experiences flow, he or she is completely intrinsically motivated. The flow experience is rarely reported by people when they’re doing leisure activities

136

such as watching television or relaxing. It is more likely to be experienced at work than at home.

177.

Discuss distributive justice and procedural justice. Discuss how managers can use this information.

(Page 172) Historically, equity theory focused on distributive justice or the perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals. But equity should also consider procedural justice – the perceived fairness of the process used to determine the distribution of rewards. The evidence indicates that distributive justice has a greater influence on employee satisfaction than procedural justice, while procedural justice tends to affect an employee’s organizational commitment, trust in his or her boss, and intention to quit. As a result, managers should consider openly sharing information on how allocation decisions are made, following consistent and unbiased procedures, and engaging in similar practices to increase the perception of procedural justice. By increasing the perception of procedural fairness, employees are likely to view their bosses and the organization as positive even if they’re dissatisfied with pay, promotions, and other personal outcomes.

178.

What are the three relationships in Vroom’s expectancy theory?

(Page 173) Expectancy theory argues that the strength of a tendency to act in a certain way depends on the strength of an expectation that the act will be followed by a given outcome and on the attractiveness of that outcome to the individual. The theory focuses on three relationships. The effort-performance relationship is the probability perceived by the individual that exerting a given amount of effort will lead to performance. The performance-reward relationship is the degree to which the individual believes that performing at a particular level will lead to the attainment of a desired outcome. The rewards-personal goals relationship is the degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual’s personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the individual.

MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 179.

Describe Maslow’s hierarchy of needs.

(Page 156) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs hypothesized that within every human being there exists a hierarchy of five needs. The physiological needs include hunger, thirst, shelter, sex, and other bodily needs.

Safety includes security and protection from physical and emotional harm. Social includes affection, belongingness, acceptance, and friendship. Esteem includes internal esteem factors such as selfrespect, autonomy, and achievement; and external esteem factors such as status, recognition, and attention. Self-actualization is the drive to become what one is capable of becoming; includes growth, achieving one’s potential, and self-fulfillment. As each of these needs becomes substantially satisfied, the next need becomes dominant. So if you want to motivate someone, according to Maslow, you need to understand what level of the hierarchy that person is currently on and focus on satisfying those needs at or above that level.

137

According to Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory, how might a manager promote job satisfaction among employees?

(Pages 159-160) 180.

According to Herzberg, the factors leading to job satisfaction are separate and distinct from those that lead to job dissatisfaction. Therefore, managers who seek to eliminate factors that can create job dissatisfaction may bring about peace but not necessarily result in motivation, conditions surrounding the job such as quality of supervision, pay, company policies, physical working conditions, relations with others, and job security were characterized by Herzberg as hygiene factors. When they are adequate, people will not be dissatisfied; neither will they be satisfied. If we want to motivate people on their jobs, Herzberg suggested emphasizing factors associated with the work itself or to outcomes directly derived from it, such as promotional opportunities, opportunities for personal growth, recognition, responsibility, and achievement. These are the characteristics that people find intrinsically rewarding.

181.

What predictions can be made based on the relationship between the achievement need and job performance?

(Pages 163-164) Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer job situations with personal responsibility, feedback, and an intermediate degree of risk. When these characteristics are prevalent, high achievers will be strongly motivated. The evidence consistently demonstrates, for instance, that high achievers are successful in entrepreneurial activities such as running their own businesses and managing a selfcontained unit within a large organization. A high need to achieve does not necessarily lead to being a good manager, especially in large organizations. People with a high achievement need are interested in how well they do personally and not in influencing others to do well. Employees have been successfully trained to stimulate their achievement need. So if a job calls for a high achiever, management can select a person with a high need for achievement or develop its own candidate through achievement training.

COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 182.

How does ERG theory differ from Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

(Pages 161-162) Maslow’s hierarchy of needs hypothesized that within every human being there exists a hierarchy of five needs. The physiological needs include hunger, thirst, shelter, sex, and other bodily needs.

Safety includes security and protection from physical and emotional harm. Social includes affection, belongingness, acceptance, and friendship. Esteem includes internal esteem factors such as selfrespect, autonomy, and achievement; and external esteem factors such as status, recognition, and attention. Self-actualization is the drive to become what one is capable of becoming; includes growth, achieving one’s potential, and self-fulfillment. As each of these needs becomes substantially satisfied, the next need becomes dominant. So if you want to motivate someone, according to Maslow, you need to understand what level of the hierarchy that person is currently on and focus on satisfying those needs at or above that level.

138

Alderfer argues that there are three groups of core needs – existence, relatedness, and growth. The existence group is concerned with providing our basic material existence requirements. They include the items that Maslow considered to be physiological and safety needs. The second group of needs are those of relatedness – the desire we have for maintaining important interpersonal relationships.

These social and status desires require interaction with others if they are to be satisfied, and they align with Maslow’s social need and the external component of Maslow’s esteem classification.

Growth needs reflect an intrinsic desire for personal development. These include the intrinsic component from Maslow’s esteemcategoryand the characteristics included underself-actualization.

In addition, the ERG theory demonstrates that more than one need may be operative at the same time and if the gratification of a higher-level need is stifled, the desire to satisfy a lower-level need increases. ERG theory contains a frustration-regression dimension. ERG theory is also more consistent with our knowledge of individual differences among people. Overall, ERG theory represents a more valid version of the need hierarchy.

183.

Discuss goal-setting theory and its implications for managers.

(Pages 166-167) Edwin Locke proposed that intentions to work toward a goal are a major source of work motivation.

Goals tell an employee what needs to be done and how much effort will need to be expended. The evidence strongly supports the value of goals. Specific goals increase performance; that difficult goals, when accepted, result in higher performance than do easy goals; and that feedback leads to higher performance than does nonfeedback.

Specific hard goals produce a higher level of output than does the generalized goal of ―do your best.‖ The specificity of the goal itself acts as an internal stimulus. The more difficult the goals, the higher the level of performance. However, it’s logical to assume that easier goals are more likely to be accepted. But once an employee accepts a hard task, he or she will exert a high level of effort until it is achieved, lowered, or abandoned. People will do better when they get feedback on how well they are progressing toward their goals because feedback helps to identify discrepancies between what they have done and what they want to do; that is, feedback acts to guide behavior. Goal-setting theory presupposes that an individual is committed to the goals, that is, is determined not to lower or abandon the goal when the goal is made public, when the individual has an internal locus of control, and when the goal is self-set rather than assigned. Goal-setting has also been found to be culture bound. It is well adapted to countries like the United States and Canada.

184.

Discuss equity theory. Include the concepts of equity tension, referent comparisons, and how employees might reduce perceived inequity.

(Pages 171-172) According to equity theory, employees make comparisons of their job inputs and outcomes relative to those of others. We perceive what we get from a job situation in relation to what we put into it, and then we compare out outcome-input ratio with the outcome-input ratio of relevant others. If we perceive our ratio to be equal to that of the relevant others with whom we compare ourselves, a state of equity is said to exist. We perceive our situation as fair – that justice prevails. When we see ourselves as under-rewarded, the tension creates anger; when over-rewarded, the tension creates guilt.

This negative state provides the motivation to do something to correct it. The referent that an employee selects adds to the complexity of equity theory. The four referent comparisons that an employee can use are the self-inside, the self-outside, the other-inside, and the other-outside. When 139

employees perceive an inequity, they can be predicted to make one of six choices. They may change their inputs. They may change their outcomes. They may distort perceptions of self. They may distort perceptions of others. They may choose a different referent, or they may leave the field.

140

Chapter 7 Motivation: From Concept to Applications MULTIPLE CHOICE Management by Objectives 1.

MBO emphasizes converting overall organizational objectives into: a. capital gains. b. specific objectives for organizational units and individual members. c. operational units. d. terms that the individual worker can understand and accept. (b; Easy; p. 190)

2.

MBO emphasizes participatively set goals that are: a. tangible. b. verifiable. c. measurable. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 190) 3.

For the individual employee, MBO provides: a. specific personal performance objectives. b. increased monetary compensation. c. communication between co-workers. d. a means to an end. (a; Moderate; p. 190) Since MBO works in an organization from the ―top down‖ as well as from the ―bottom up,‖ if all individuals achieve their goals: a. employees are more likely to be compensated for their efforts. b. their unit’s goals will be attained and the organization’s overall objectives become a reality. c. the individuals are less likely to be recognized for their work. d. the organization’s objectives will suffer. (b; Moderate; p. 190) 4.

5.

Which of the following is an example of an MBO objective? a. Decrease payroll costs by 6%. b. Increase quality significantly. c. Process orders quickly. d. Improve customer service. (a; Moderate; p. 190)

6.

All of the following are ingredients common to MBO programs except: a. an explicit time period. b. participative decision making. c. consistent monetary rewards. d. performance feedback. (c; Easy; p. 190) 141

7.

Feedback in an MBO program, ideally, is supplemented by: a. weekly meetings. b. periodic managerial evaluations. c. monthly progress reports by the employee. d. open book management. (b; Moderate; p. 190)

8.

MBO objectives are: a. set unilaterally by the boss. b. set by the boss and assigned to subordinates to be carried out. c. set jointly by superior and subordinate. d. performed by the subordinate and evaluated exclusively by the superior. (c; Easy; p. 190)

9. A goal of ―do your best:‖ a. is better than an easy goal. b. is better than a hard goal. c. is inappropriate goal setting. d. enables the employee to perform their best. (c, Moderate, p. 191) 10.

According to the goal-setting theory, the goals that result in a high level of individual performance are: a. specific hard goals. b. specific easy goals. c. no goals at all. d. general easy goals that give the employee freedom. (a; Easy; p. 191) 11.

One major difference between the goal-setting theory and MBO is that the goal-setting theory: a. demonstrates that assigning goals to subordinates frequently works as well as participative goalsetting. b. advocates participative goal-setting. c. requires feedback on performance. d. does not use objectives. (a; Challenging; p. 191) 12.

The only possible disagreement between MBO and goal-setting theory relates to the issue of: a. feedback. b. goals. c. objectives. d. participation. (d; Challenging; p. 191)

Employee Recognition Programs 142

13.

Which of the following is true about employee recognition programs? a. The best ones recognize individual accomplishments only. b. The best ones recognize group accomplishments only. c. The best ones recognize individual and group accomplishments. d. The best ones use single sources. (c; Challenging; p. 192) 14.

Laura may only make minimum wage, but her supervisor regularly compliments her and she hasbeen chosen employee of the month twice this year. This is a good example of the power of: a. recognition. b. participation. c. goal setting. d. pay. (a; Moderate; p. 192) 15.

Which of the following is not true regarding recognition? a. Rewarding a behavior with recognition immediately following that behavior is likely to encourage its repetition. b. Recognition can take many forms. c. To enhance group cohesiveness and motivation, you can celebrate team successes. d. Good work should only be recognized in private. (d; Moderate; p. 193) 16.

Researchers found that employees considered the most powerful workplace motivator to be: a. recognition. b. money. c. opportunity for advancement. d. autonomy. (a; Moderate; p. 193) 17.

Which of the following is a form of recognition? a. personal congratulations b. a handwritten note c. public notice d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 193) 18.

The have been especially effective at making suggestion systems work. a. Americans b. Japanese c. Portuguese d. Canadians (b; Moderate; p. 193)

19.

One of the most well-known and widely used recognition devices is: a. bonuses.

143

b. suggestion systems. c. brainstorming. d. company t-shirts. (b; Moderate; p. 193) 20.

The laws of require companies to have elected representatives from their employee groups as members of their board of directors. a. New Zealand b. Brazil c. Denmark d. Great Britain (c; Challenging; p. 193) 21.

Which of the following countries does not have a law requiring companies to have elected representatives from their employee groups as members of their board of directors? a. Germany b. Austria c. Brazil d. Sweden (c; Challenging; p. 103) 22.

Employee involvement encompasses such popular ideas as: a. employee ownership. b. workplace democracy. c. empowerment. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 194) What Is Employee Involvement?

23.

A participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization’s success is: a. MBO. b. employee involvement. c. reengineering. d. OB Mod. (b; Moderate; p. 194) 24.

Participation: a. is synonymous with employee involvement. b. is a more limited term than employee involvement. c. is the larger framework of which employee involvement is a subset. d. and employee stock ownership plans are synonymous. (b; Challenging; p. 195)

25.

Which of the following is not an example of employee involvement? a. variable-pay programs b. participative management 144

c. quality circles d. employee stock ownership plans (a; Moderate; p. 195) 26.

The distinct characteristic common to all participative management programs is the use of: a. joint decision making. b. increased compensation. c. flexible benefits. d. all of the above (a; Moderate; p. 195) 27.

Participative management: a. is a panacea for poor morale. b. is a panacea for low productivity. c. is not appropriate for every organization. d. does not require trust. (c; Challenging; p. 195) 28.

Participative management is a method of management in which: a. subordinates make corporate decisions and management helps carry out those decisions. b. all upper management participate in the organization’s strategic planning. c. subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors. d. low-level workers meet occasionally with the CEO to discuss problems within their department. (c; Moderate; p. 195) 29.

Management would want to share its power with subordinates because it may increase commitment to decisions and can result in better decisions. a. coercive b. referent c. communication d. decision-making (d; Moderate; p. 195) 30.

Research studies conducted on the participation-performance relationship show that the use of participation: a. enhances job satisfaction. b. increases motivation. c. has only a modest influence on employee productivity. d. greatly influences employee attitudes. (c; Moderate; p. 195)

31.

Almost every country in Western Europe has some type of legislation requiring companies to practice: a. representative participation. b. MBO. 145

c. OB Mod. d. quality circles. (a; Easy; p. 195) has been called ―the most widely legislated form of employee involvement around the world.‖ a. Representative participation b. MBO c. OB Mod d. Quality circles (a; Moderate; p. 195) 32.

33.

The goal of representative participation is: a. for workers to own the firms where they work. b. to help workers’ self-esteem. c. to provide greater distinction between workers and management. d. to redistribute power within the organization. (d; Moderate; p. 195) are employees who sit on a company’s board of directors and represent the interests of the firm’s employees. a. Board representatives b. Works councils c. Quality circles d. Union representatives (a; Moderate; p. 196) 34.

35.

link employees with management. a. Board representatives b. Works councils c. Quality circles d. Union representatives (b; Moderate; p. 196) 36.

Overall, the greatest value of representative participation is: a. increased motivation. b. increased satisfaction. c. symbolic. d. all of the above (c; Moderate; p. 196)

37.

Work groups of employees and supervisors who meet regularly to discuss their quality problems and recommend solutions is a form of participative management called: a. department teams. b. cooperative groups.

146

c. evaluation teams. d. quality circles. (d; Moderate; p. 196) 38.

Quality circles were originally begun in a. Japan; Europe b. the U.S.; Europe c. the U.S.; Japan d. Japan; the U.S. (c; Moderate; p. 196)

and exported to

in the 1950s.

39.

Quality circles meet regularly to: a. discuss their quality problems. b. investigate causes of the problems. c. recommend solutions. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 196) 40.

One author suggested that the flop.‖ a. MBO program b. reengineering program c. ESOP d. quality circle (d; Moderate; p. 196)

was the management fad of the 1980s, but they’ve ―become a

41.

A company-established benefit plan in which employees acquire stock as part of their benefits is a(n): a. MBO program. b. reengineering program. c. ESOP. d. quality circle. (c; Moderate; p. 197) 42.

Research on employee stock ownership programs indicates that they: a. increase employee satisfaction. b. reduce salaries. c. reduce stress. d. increase productivity. (a; Moderate; p. 197)

43.

Participative management is compatible with all of the following except: a. ERG theory. b. Theory X. c. efforts to stimulate the achievement need. d. MBO. 147

(b; Moderate; p. 198) 44.

Theory X is consistent with: a. the autocratic style of managing people. b. participative management. c. ERG theory. d. the cognitive evaluation theory. (a; Challenging; p. 198) 45.

Which of the following is true? a. Theory Y aligns with the autocratic management style. b. Employee involvement programs provide intrinsic motivation. c. Theory Y aligns with the autocratic management style. d. Employee involvement is incompatible with ERG theory. (b; Moderate; p. 198) Variable-Pay Programs

46.

Which of the following are all forms of variable-pay programs? a. piece-rate, wage incentive plans, gainsharing b. profit-sharing, lump-sum bonuses, extended vacations c. wage incentive plans, flextime, piece-rate d. retirement benefits, extended vacations, wage incentive plans (a; Easy; p. 199) 47.

One advantage of variable pay plans to management is that they turn a. fixed costs; variable costs b. high productivity; low productivity c. slow employees; high performers d. high costs; lower costs (a; Challenging; p. 199) 48.

into

The most widely used variable-pay programs include all of the following except: a. piece-rate wages. b. bonuses. c. gainsharing. d. hourly wages. (d; Moderate; p. 199)

49.

An employee who is paid according to a piece-rate plan. a. performs community services b. is paid $2 for each unit produced c. is paid time and a half for overtime d. is on commission (b; Moderate; p. 200) 148

.

50.

Organization-wide programs that distribute compensation based on some established formula designed around a company’s profitability are termed: a. profit-sharing plans. b. gainsharing. c. variable pay. d. ESOPs. (a; Moderate; p. 200) 51.

is an incentive plan where improvements in group productivity determine the total amount of money that is allocated. a. ESOP b. Gainsharing c. Variable pay d. Scanlon plan (b; Moderate; p. 200) 52.

Which of the following is true about organizations with profit-sharing plans? a. They have more predictable salaries. b. Recession doesn’t affect pay in these organizations. c. They have higher levels of profitability. d. They have more grievances. (c; Moderate; p. 200) 53.

Variable pay compensation is probably most compatible with: a. Theory Y. b. expectancy theory. c. MBO. d. participative management. (b; Moderate; p. 201) 54.

If rewards are allocated completely on nonperformance factors, such as seniority or job title, then employees are likely to: a. complain to management. b. quit their jobs. c. reduce their effort. d. absent themselves from work. (c; Moderate; p. 199)

55.

One advantage of variable-pay programs is that they: a. are easy to administer. b. are a form of flexible benefits. c. avoid the fixed expense of permanent salary increases. d. decrease total employee compensation. (c; Moderate; p. 199)

149

56.

The new trend in variable-pay programs is: a. larger incentives. b. including upper management. c. piece-rate plans. d. including nonmanagerial employees. (d; Challenging; p. 200) Gainsharing’s popularity seems to be narrowly focused among: a. large, unionized manufacturing companies. b. large service organizations. c. small, non-unionized manufacturing companies. d. small, privately-held companies. (a; Challenging; p. 200) 57.

58.

Many reasons are given for not adopting the pay-for-performance concept. Of the following, which is not one of those reasons? a. It is difficult to determine what should constitute performance. b. Employees’ pay does not have to stay in step with inflation. c. There is an historical attachment to cost-of-living raises. d. It is difficult to determine how to measure performance. (b; Challenging; p. 201) Skill-Based Pay Plans 59.

When pay levels are based on how many skills employees have or how many jobs they can do, is being used. a. a variable pay plan b. flexible pay c. competency-based pay d. gainsharing (c; Moderate; p. 202) 60.

Skill-based pay: a. is an alternative to job-based pay. b. is called competency-based pay. c. is called knowledge-based pay. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; pp. 202-203)

From management’s point of view, the appeal of skill-based plans is their: a. flexibility. b. low cost. c. motivation. d. ease of administration. (a; Moderate; pp.202-203)

61.

62.

Which of the following is not a downside of skill-based pay?

150

a. People can ―top out.‖ b. Skills can become obsolete. c. Ambitious people can confront minimal advancement opportunities. d. People are paid for acquiring skills for which there is no immediate need. (c; Moderate; p. 203) 63.

Skill-based pay plans are compatible with all of the following except: a. ERG theory. b. the achievement need. c. reinforcement theory. d. motivating professionals. (d; Challenging; p. 203) 64.

Paying people to expand their skill levels is consistent with the a. affiliation b. achievement c. social d. security (b; Moderate; p. 203)

need.

65.

Companies that pay employees for learning extra skills reported higher: a. operating costs. b. employee performance. c. turnover. d. absenteeism. (b; Challenging; p. 204) Flexible Benefits 66.

If employees are allowed to pick and choose from among a menu of benefit options, they are said to have: a inconsistent needs. b. benefit menu options. c. flexible benefits. d. participative management. (c; Easy; p. 204)

67.

The average organization provides fringe benefits worth approximately employee’s salary. a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 40 (d; Challenging; p. 204) 68.

Options in the flexible benefit programs might include: 151

percent of an

a. extended disability. b. college tuition reimbursement programs. c. extended vacation time. d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 204) 69.

In the future, we can expect the percentage of large and medium-sized companies offering flexible benefit plans to increase to reflect: a. the expanding diversity among employees. b. growing entitlement. c. greater competition for employees. d. greater desire to give employees more. (a; Challenging; p. 205) 70.

A major drawback of flexible benefit programs is: a. the organization’s costs are generally higher. b. employees can purchase fewer total benefits. c. reduced flexibility. d. these plans are only available to larger companies. (b; Moderate; p. 205) Special Issues in Motivation 71.

Professionals are typically motivated by: a. money. b. time off. c. job challenge. d. promotions. (c; Challenging; p. 206) 72.

Which of the following is not true about motivating professionals? a. They are motivated by money. b. They are motivated by challenging jobs. c. They are loyal to their profession rather than their employer. d. Their commitment to their profession means they rarely define their workweek in terms of 8 to 5 and five days a week. (a; Moderate; p. 206)

73.

To motivate professionals, you should do all of the following except: a. provide them with ongoing challenging projects. b. give them autonomy. c. reward them with higher salaries. d. allow them to structure their work in ways that they find productive. (c; Moderate; p. 206) 74.

What motivates contingent workers? a. opportunity for permanent status b. training opportunities 152

c. freedom d. all of the above (d; Moderate; pp. 206-207) 75.

The opportunity for training will motivate: a. professionals. b. contingent workers. c. a and b d. none of the above (c; Moderate; pp. 206-207)

76.

In order to maximize the motivation of a diverse workforce, the key word will be: a. fairness. b. flexibility. c. status. d. money. (b; Moderate; p. 207)

77.

Motivation of people holding jobs with highly repetitive tasks can be made easier by: a. increasing pay. b. increasing autonomy. c. careful selection. d. ESOPs. (c; Moderate; p. 208) 78.

Low-skilled service workers can best be motivated by: a. more interesting jobs. b. flexible scheduling. c. raising pay. d. stock options. (c; Moderate; p. 208) TRUE/FALSE Management By Objectives 79.

Installing a variable-pay program can make goal-setting theory operational.

(False; Challenging; p. 190) 80.

In MBO, goals are unilaterally set by the employee and communicated to the boss.

(False; Easy; p. 190) 81.

In MBO, goals are established for departments and units rather than for individual employees.

(False; Moderate; p. 190) 82.

The four ingredients common to MBO programs are goal specificity, participative decision making, an implicit time period, and performance feedback.

(False; Challenging; p. 190)

153

83.

MBO seeks to give continuous feedback on progress toward goals.

(True; Moderate; p. 190) 84.

In MBO, goals should be tangible and measurable.

(True; Moderate; p. 190) 85.

MBO relies on participatively set goals.

(True; Easy; p. 190) 86.

MBO directly advocates specific goals and feedback.

(True; Moderate; p. 191) 87.

MBO would be most effective when the goals are easily reached by the employees.

(False; Moderate; p. 191) 88.

There are almost no documented cases where MBO has been implemented but failed to meet management’s expectations.

(False; Easy; p. 191) Employee Recognition Programs 89.

The best employee recognition programs are those that recognize just individual accomplishments.

(False; Challenging; p. 193) 90.

Consistent with reinforcement theory, rewarding a behavior with recognition immediately following that behavior is likely to encourage its repetition.

(True; Moderate; p. 193) One of the most expensive recognition programs is that which recognizes an employee’s superior performance.

(False; Easy; p. 193) 91.

92.

One of the most well-known and widely used recognition devices is the use of suggestion systems.

(True; Moderate; p. 193)

Employee Involvement Programs 93.

The laws of the United States require companies to have elected representatives from their employee groups as members of their board of directors.

(False; Moderate; p. 193) 94.

Employee involvement is a participation process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization’s success.

(True; Moderate; p. 194) 95.

Employee participation and employee involvement are synonymous.

154

(False; Challenging; pp. 194-195) 96.

Participative management implies joint decision making and equal decision-makingroles.

(False; Moderate; p. 195) 97.

It is generally agreed among OB scholars that participative management should be treated as an ethical imperative.

(False; Challenging; p. 195) 98.

Participation typically has only a modest influence on variables such as employee productivity, motivations, and job satisfaction.

(True; Easy; p. 195) 99.

If one is interested in changing employee attitudes or in improving organizational performance, representative participation would be a good choice.

(False; Challenging; p. 195) 100.

The two most common forms that representative participation takes are works councils and board representatives.

(True; Challenging; p. 196) 101.

Participative management has had a profound influence on employee productivity and motivation.

(False; Moderate; p. 196) Board representatives are employees who sit on a company’s board of directors and represent the interests of the firm’s employees.

(True; Moderate; p. 196) 102.

103.

Quality circles originated in the United States.

(True; Moderate; p. 196) 104.

Quality circles have the authority to find problems, assess alternative actions, and implement a solution.

(False; Challenging; p. 196) 105.

Quality circles have been a big success in businesses using them.

(False; Moderate; p. 196) 106.

The lack of planning and top management commitment often contributed to quality circle failures.

(True; Challenging; p. 197) 107.

ESOPs are company-established benefit plans in which employees acquire stock as part of their benefits.

(True; Moderate; p. 197) 108.

Research on ESOPs indicates they increase employee satisfaction.

(True; Challenging; p. 197) 109.

Theory X is consistent with participative management.

(False; Easy; p. 198) 155

110.

Theory X aligns with autocratic management while Theory Y aligns with participative management.

(True; Moderate; p. 198) 111.

Employee involvement programs could provide employees with intrinsic motivation by increasing opportunities for growth and responsibility.

(True; Challenging; p. 198) 112.

Employee involvement is compatible with ERG Theory and efforts to achieve the affiliation need.

(False; Challenging; p. 198) 113.

While American employees readily accepted employee involvement programs, managers in India who tried to empower their employees were rated low by those employees and the use of empowerment also negatively affected employee satisfaction.

(True; Moderate; p. 198) 114.

In recent years, many organizations have dropped their quality circles and replaced them with more comprehensive team-based structures.

(True; Moderate; p. 198) Variable-Pay Programs 115.

Both piece-rate and gainsharing plans are examples of variable-pay compensation.

(True; Easy; p. 199) 116.

Variable-pay compensation pays people for the time they spend on the job and seniority.

(False; Easy; p. 199) 117.

Piece-rate plans, wage incentives, profit sharing, bonuses, and gainsharing are all forms of flexible benefits.

(False; Moderate; p. 200) 118.

Piece-rate wages have been around for nearly a century.

(True; Moderate; p. 200)

119.

People who sell peanuts at ball parks, keeping $.75 for every bag of peanuts they sell, are being paid piece-rate wages.

(True; Moderate; p. 200) 120.

Variable-pay programs turn part of an organization’s fixed labor costs into a variable cost.

(True; Easy; p. 200) 121.

Employee compensation will decline if performance declines in variable-pay programs.

(True; Moderate; p. 200) 122.

Piece-rate plans are based on group productivity.

(False; Moderate; p. 200)

156

123.

Profit sharing may be paid by direct cash outlay or as stock options.

(True; Challenging; p. 201) 124.

Gainsharing and profit sharing are the same thing.

(False; Easy; p. 200) An employee in a gainsharing plan can receive incentive awards even if the organization isn’t profitable.

(True; Moderate; p. 200) 125.

126.

Studies generally support the fact that organizations with profit sharing plans have higher levels of profitability than those without.

(True; Moderate; p. 200) 127.

An American Management Association study of companies who used gainsharing found that grievances, absences, and lost-time accidents decreased.

(True; Moderate; p. 200) 128.

Variable pay is probably most compatible with two-factor theory predictions.

(False; Moderate; p. 201) 129.

One study of 400 manufacturing firms found that those companies with wage incentive plans achieved 43 to 64 percent greater productivity than those without such plans.

(True; Moderate; p. 201) 130.

The cost-of-living raise is rapidly replacing the variable-pay concept.

(False; Moderate; p. 201) 131.

Group and organization-wide incentives reinforce personal goals.

(False; Moderate; p. 201) Gainsharing’s popularity seems to be narrowly focused among large, unionized manufacturing companies.

(True; Challenging; p. 201) 132.

133.

Pay for performance means the employees have to share in the risks as well as the rewards of their employer’s business.

(True; Moderate; p. 201) Skill-Based Pay Plans 134.

Skill-based pay encourages employees to concentrate on one or two highly desirable skills.

(False; Moderate; p. 202) From management’s perspective, the greatest appeal of skill-based pay plans is decreased payroll costs.

(False; Challenging; p. 202) 135.

136.

Skill-based pay plans encourage people to specialize.

157

(False; Moderate; p. 202) 137.

The increased use of skills as a basis for pay seems to work well for corporations facing domestic competition, but is not so effective for firms facing foreign competition.

(False; Moderate; p. 204) Flexible Benefits 138.

Traditional benefit packages were designed for the typical employee of the 1950s; fewer than 10% of employees now fit that stereotype, requiring an updated look at these benefits.

(True; Moderate; p. 204) 139.

Flexible spending plans allow employees to set aside up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for particular services.

(True; Moderate; p. 204) Special Issues in Motivation 140.

Professionals are largely motivated by the extrinsic, rather than the intrinsic, rewards of their jobs.

(False; Moderate; p. 206) 141.

The loyalty of professionals is more often to their profession than to their employer.

(True; Moderate; p. 206) 142.

Promotions typically motivate professionals.

(False; Moderate; p. 206) 143.

The terms ―temporary workers‖ and ―contingent employees‖ are synonymous.

(True; Moderate; p. 206) 144.

Permanent status is a motivating force for most temporary workers.

(True; Moderate; p. 207) 145.

Turnover rates of 200 percent are not uncommon for fast food restaurants like McDonald’s.

(True; Challenging; p. 208) 146.

Because people vary in their tolerance for ambiguity, careful selection of individuals who are asked to do highly repetitive tasks can cut down on turnover.

(True; Moderate; p. 208) 147.

High pay will usually lead to highly motivated workers in low-skilled, highly repetitious jobs.

(False; Moderate; p. 208) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Management by Objectives

158

You have just been hired by Computers-R-Us to institute a management by objectives program. The sales people have asked you to explain the program to them and to help them understand how it will affect them.

148.

You want to make sure that they understand the ingredients common to MBO programs. Which of the following is not one of those ingredients? a. Goals should be general enough to allow creativity. b. Decision making will be participative. c. Time periods will be explicit. d. Feedback will be given on each employee’s performance. (a; Moderate; pp. 190-191) 149.

Which of the following is an example of an MBO objective? a. Telephone orders should be processed promptly. b. All customers should be treated well. c. Computer sales should be increased by six percent. d. Employees should reduce absenteeism. (c; Challenging; pp. 190-191) 150.

The objectives for each individual will be set: a. unilaterally by the supervisor. b. by the employee. c. by a committee of peers. d. by the employee and his superior. (d; Moderate; pp. 190-191) Application of Employee Recognition Programs You have read about the merits of employee recognition programs. While you have no significant budget, you are willing to implement a program in your department.

151.

Consistent with reinforcement theory, the recognition: a. must immediately follow the behavior to encourage repetition. b. must be expensive. c. must come at some time during the same year as the behavior. d. none of the above (a; Moderate; pp. 192-193) 152.

Which of the following might be the most successful? a. suggestions programs b. handwritten notes c. bonuses d. plaques (a; Moderate; pp. 192-193) Application of Employee Involvement Programs 159

Your supervisor has heard that employee involvement is important and you have been instructed to research various methods of employee involvement. You are supposed to help assist in the analysis of the probable effects of each of the programs being considered.

153.

If participative management is used, you would predict that: a. it would be time consuming. b. commitment to decisions would increase. c. it will provide intrinsic rewards for employees. d. all of the above (d; Easy; pp. 195-197) 154.

You have decided to let employees select a small group to represent them and work with management. This is termed: a. representative participation. b. an ESOP. c. quality circles. d. participative management. (a; Moderate; pp. 195-197) 155.

A group of employees will meet regularly to discuss problems and recommend action. This group is a(n): a. ESOP. b. works council. c. MBO cluster. d. quality circle. (d; Moderate; pp. 195-197) Application of Skill-Based Pay Plans Amalgamated Industries manufactures parts for furniture. Management has decided to change the method of payment to a skill-based plan. You are interested in increasing your current compensation and see this as an opportunity.

156.

You should expect to earn more if you: a. volunteer for overtime. b. increase your production. c. cross train in other jobs. d. become a specialist. (c; Moderate; pp. 202-203) The appeal from management’s perspective is: a. protection of territory. b. flexibility. c. elimination of workers. d. decreased payroll costs. (b; Challenging; pp. 202-203) 157.

158.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of skill-based pay plans? a. Employees are less motivated.

160

b. Employees are more specialized. c. Employees tend not to work as hard as before. d. Employers may pay for skills that they aren’t using. (d; Moderate; pp. 202-203) Application of Flexible Benefits Your workforce is diverse in terms of their needs for benefits. Jim is married with two children and his wife is at home full time. Janet is single and supports her widowed mother. Bob is married and his wife has a high-paying job. You decide that you want to devise a benefits program which is tailored to their individual needs.

159.

The best choice available is probably: a. traditional benefit programs. b. a flexible benefit program. c. letting them purchase their own benefits. d. an ESOP. (b; Easy; pp. 204-205) The major drawback from the employee’s standpoint will probably be: a. reduced flexibility. b. loss of benefits. c. costs of individual benefits may go up, so fewer total benefits can be purchased. d. fewer benefits to choose from. (c; Easy; pp. 204-205) 160.

161.

You should expect that the flexible benefits program will be all of the following except: a. less expensive. b. consistent with expectancy theory. c. more responsive to individual needs. d. motivational. (a; Moderate; pp. 204-205) Application of Special Issues in Motivation Allied Health Professionals employs many individuals and has discovered that not all of their employees are motivated by the same things. They have decided to develop different plans for the different segments of their workforce. The segments that they have decided to concentrate on are health care professionals, contingent or temporary workers, and nighttime janitorial staff.

162.

The physicians on your staff will probably be motivated by: a. ongoing opportunities for education and training. b. autonomy. c. recognition. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; pp. 206-208) 163.

Contingency workers will probably be motivated by:

161

a. opportunities for training. b. getting a permanent position. c. freedom to choose to remain temporary or to get a permanent position. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; pp. 206-208) 164.

The nighttime janitorial staff are generally low skilled and would probably be motivated by: a. traditional approaches for motivation. b. flexible work schedules. c. hiring teenagers and retirees. d. nontraditional approaches to create a close and family-like work environment. (d; Moderate; pp. 206-208) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 165.

What are the four ingredients common to MBO programs?

(Pages 190-191) The four ingredients common to MBO programs are goal specificity, participative decision making, an explicit time period, and performance feedback. The objectives in MBO should be concise statements of expected accomplishments. The objectives in MBO are not unilaterally set by the boss and then assigned to employees. MBO replaces imposed goals with participatively determined goals.

Each objective has a specific time period in which it is to be completed. The final ingredient is feedback on performance. MBO seeks to give continuous feedback on progress toward goals.

166.

How can an employer link employee recognition programs with reinforcement theory?

(Page 193) Consistent with reinforcement theory, rewarding a behavior with recognition immediately following that behavior is likely to encourage its repetition. Since most organizations are under severe cost pressures, recognition programs are particularly attractive.

167.

What is participative management? Give some examples of its use in organizations.

(Page 195) All participative management programs use joint decision making. Subordinates share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors. Western Europe uses representative participation. Quality circles and employee stock ownership plans have also become more popular in the U.S. 168.

Why would management want to share its decision-making power with subordinates?

(Page 195) As jobs have become more complex, managers often don’t know everything their employees do.

Thus, participation allows those who know the most to contribute. The result can be better decisions.

The interdependence in tasks that employees often do today also requires consultation with people in other departments and work units. This increases the need for teams, committees, and group

162

meetings to resolve issues that affect them jointly. Participation additionally increases commitment to decisions. People are less likely to undermine a decision at the time of its implementation if they shared in making that decision. Finally, participation provides intrinsic rewards for employees. It can make their jobs more interesting and meaningful.

169.

What is a quality circle?

(Page 196) A quality circle is a work group of eight to ten employees and supervisors who have a shared area of responsibility. They meet regularly to discuss their quality problems, investigate causes of the problems, recommend solutions, and take corrective actions. Part of the quality circle concept includes teachingparticipating employees group communication skills, variousqualitystrategies, and measurement and problem analysis techniques.

170.

What are skill-based pay plans?

(Pages 202-203) Skill-based pay is an alternative to job-based pay. Rather than having an individual’s job title define his or her pay category, skill-based pay sets pay levels on the basis of how many skills employees have or how many jobs they can do. It is also called competency-based or knowledge-based pay.

171.

How are flexible benefits linked with expectancy theory?

(Page 205) Giving all employees the same benefits assumes all employees have the same needs. Yet this assumption is false. Thus, flexible benefits turn the benefits’ expenditure into a motivator.

Consistent with expectancy theory’s thesis that organizational rewards should be linked to each individual employee’s goals, flexible benefits individualize rewards by allowing each employee to choose the compensation package that best satisfies his or her current needs. The fact that flexible benefits can turn the traditional homogeneous benefit program into a motivator was demonstrated at one company when 80 percent of the organization’s employees changed their fixed benefit packages when a flexible plan was put into effect.

172.

What motivates professionals?

(Page 206) Professionals have a strong and long-term commitment to their field of expertise. Their loyalty is more often to their profession than to their employer. To keep current in their field, they need to regularly update their knowledge, and their commitment to their profession means they rarely define their workweek in terms of 8 to 5 and five days a week. Money and promotions typically are low on their priority list. Job challenge tends to be ranked high. Their chief reward in their job is the work itself. Professionals also value support. They want others to think what they’re working on is important. And professionals place a high level of importance on having skill-development opportunities. Provide them with ongoing challenging projects. Give them autonomy to follow their interests and allow them to structure their work in ways that they find productive. Reward them with educational opportunities that allow them to keep current in their field. Also reward them with recognition and ask questions and engage in other actions that demonstrate to them you’re sincerely interested in what they are doing.

163

MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 173.

Discuss Management by Objectives. What are the characteristics of MBO goals?

(Pages 190-191) Management by Objectives emphasizes participatively set goals that are tangible, verifiable, and measurable. The four ingredients common to MBO programs are goal specificity, participative decision making, an explicit time period, and performance feedback. The objectives in MBO should be concise statements of expected accomplishments. The objectives in MBO are not unilaterally set by the boss and then assigned to employees. MBO replaces imposed goals with participatively determined goals. Each objective has a specific time period in which it is to be completed. The final ingredient is feedback on performance. MBO seeks to give continuous feedback on progress toward goals.

174.

What is employee involvement? Give three examples.

(Pages 194-197) Employee involvement is defined as a participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization’s success. The underlying logic is that by involving workers in those decisions that affect them and by increasing their autonomy and control over their work lives, employees will become more motivated, more committed to the organization, more productive, and more satisfied with their jobs. Examples of employee involvement include participative management, representative participation, quality circles, and employee stock ownership plans. Participative management programs use joint decision making.

Subordinates actually share a significant degree of decision-making power with their immediate superiors. Representative participation refers to worker representation by a small group of employees who actually participate on the board. The goal is to redistribute power within an organization, putting labor on a more equal footing with the interests of management and stockholders. A quality circle is a group of eight to ten employees and supervisors who have a shared area of responsibility.

They meet regularly to discuss their quality problems, investigate causes of the problems, recommend solutions, and take corrective action. Employee stock ownership plans (ESOPs) are companyestablished benefit plans in which employees acquire stock as part of their benefits.

175.

Discuss flexible benefit programs. What are the advantages and disadvantages to both employees and employers?

(Pages 204-205) Flexible benefit programs allow employees to pick benefits that most meet their needs. The idea is to allow each employee to choose a benefit package that is individually tailored to his or her own need and situation. It replaces the traditional ―one-benefit-plan-for-all‖ programs that dominated organizations for more than 50 years. For employees, flexibility is attractive because they can tailor their benefits and levels of coverage to their own needs. The major drawback, from the employee’s standpoint, is that the costs of optional benefits often go up, so fewer total benefits can be purchased.

From the organization’s standpoint, the good news is that flexible benefits often produce savings.

Many organizations use the introduction of flexible benefits to raise deductibles and premiums.

Moreover, once in place, costly increases in things like health insurance premiums often have to be substantially absorbed by the employee. The bad news for the organization is that these plans are more cumbersome for management to oversee and administering the programs is often expensive.

164

COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 176.

List and describe different variable-pay programs. Be sure to include piece-rate plans, profit-sharing plans, and gainsharing.

(Pages 199-201) Piece-rate plans, wage incentives, profit sharing, bonuses, and gainsharing are all forms of variablepay programs. In piece-rate pay plans, workers are paid a fixed sum for each unit of production completed. When an employee gets no base salary and is paid only for what he or she produces, this is a pure piece-rate plan. Bonuses can be paid exclusively to executives or to all employees. Many companies now routinely reward production employees with bonuses in the thousands of dollars when company profits improve. Profit-sharing plans are organization wide programs that distribute compensation based on some established formula designed around a company’s profitably.

Gainsharing is a formula-based group incentive plan. Improvements in group productivity determine the total amount of money that is to be allocated. By focusing on productivity gains rather than profits, gainsharing rewards specific behaviors that are less influenced by external factors.

Employees in a gainshairing plan can receive incentive awards even when the organization isn’t profitable.

177.

How might a manager motivate professional workers, contingent workers, low-skilled service workers, and people doing highly repetitive tasks?

(Pages 206-208) Professionals have a strong and long-term commitment to their field of expertise. Their loyalty is more often to their profession than to their employer. To keep current in their field, they need to regularly update their knowledge, and their commitment to their profession means they rarely define their workweek in terms of 8 to 5 and five days a week. Money and promotions typically are low on their priority list. Job challenge tends to be ranked high. Their chief reward in their job is the work itself. Professionals also value support. They want others to think what they’re working on is important. And professionals place a high level of importance on having skill-development opportunities.

The following should be considered in motivating professionals: • Provide them with ongoing challenging projects.

• Give them autonomy to follow their interests and allow them to structure their work in ways that they find productive.

• Reward them with educational opportunities that allow them to keep current in their field.

• Reward them with recognition.

• Ask questions and engage in other actions that demonstrate to them you’re sincerely interested in what they are doing.

165

Chapter 8 Foundations of Group Behavior MULTIPLE CHOICE Defining and Classifying Groups 1.

Which one of the following characteristics is not part of a definition of a group? a. interdependent b. two or more members c. organizationally assigned goals d. interacting (c; Challenging; p. 219) groups are defined by the organization’s structure. a. Informal b. Formal c. Friendship d. Interest (b; Moderate; p. 219)

2.

3.

Informal groups: a. appear in response to the need for social contact. b. are detrimental in the workplace. c. should be formed outside of working hours. d. are defined by the organization structure. (a; Moderate; p. 219)

4.

Which of the following is not a sub-classification of groups? a. command b. task c. work d. friendship (c; Moderate; p. 219)

5.

Three employees from different departments who regularly eat lunch together are an exampleof a(an) group. a. formal b. informal c. command d. task (b; Easy; p. 219)

6.

Which of the following statements is true? a. All task groups are also command groups. b. All command groups are also task groups. c. All task groups are also friendship groups. d. All command groups are also informal groups. (b; Moderate; p. 220) 167

7.

The group type that is determined by the organization chart is: a. the friendship group. b. the interest group. c. the reference group. d. the command group. (d; Moderate; p. 219)

8.

Which one of the following groups is organizationally determined? a. friendship b. task c. interest d. Volvo owners (b; Moderate; p. 220) 9.

The group type that is not limited to its immediate hierarchical superior but can cross command relationships is the: a. task group. b. command group. c. interest group. d. friendship group. (a; Moderate; p. 220) 10.

Command groups are also: a. informal groups. b. task groups. c. friendship groups. d. interest groups. (b; Easy; p. 220)

11.

Social alliances based on support for Notre Dame football is an example of a a. formal b. command c. friendship d. task (c; Easy; p. 220)

12.

Employees who band together to seek improved working conditions form a(n) a. social b. support c. interest d. work (c; Moderate; p. 220)

13.

Which of the following statements most accurately describes interest groups? a. They are longer lasting than command groups. b. They rarely satisfy the needs of members. c. They are formed because of some common interest. d. They are not found in manufacturing organizations. (c; Moderate; p. 220) 168

group.

group.

14.

Which of the following is not a reason people join groups? a. security b. status c. equity d. power (c; Moderate; Exh. 8-1, p. 221) Stages of Group Development

15.

The stages of group development are: a. idea generation, implementation, termination. b. introduction, high productivity, decline. c. initiation, evolution, maturation, decline. d. forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning. (d; Moderate; Exh. 8-2, p. 221)

16.

Which is not one of the stages in the five-stage group-development model? a. forming b. worming c. storming d. norming (b; Easy; Exh. 8-2; p.221)

17.

The stage in group development which is characterized by uncertainty is: a. norming. b. storming. c. forming. d. performing. (c; Easy; p. 220)

18.

Which is the stage of group development characterized by close relationships and cohesiveness? a. bonding b. norming c. performing d. storming (b; Moderate; p. 221)

19.

In the second stage of group development: a. close relationships are developed. b. the group demonstrates cohesiveness. c. intragroup conflict often occurs. d. the job task is performed. (c; Challenging; p. 221)

20.

After which stage of a group’s development is there a relatively clear hierarchy of leadership within the group?

169

a. norming b. storming c. forming d. performing (b; Moderate; p. 221) After which stage of a group’s development has the group formed a common set of expectations of member behaviors? a. norming b. storming c. forming d. performing (a; Easy; p. 221) 21.

22.

When the group energy is focused on the task at hand, the group has moved to the: a. performing stage. b. norming stage. c. storming stage. d. adjourning stage. (a; Moderate; p. 221)

23.

Temporary groups with deadlines follow the a. sociometry b. five-stage group development c. punctuated equilibrium d. cluster variance (c; Moderate; p. 222)

model.

24.

According to the punctuated equilibrium model, all of the following are true about groups except: a. the first meeting sets the group’s direction. b. a transition takes place at the end of the first phase which occurs exactly when the group has used up one third of its allotted time. c. the first phase of group activity is one of inertia. d. the group’s last meeting is characterized by markedly accelerated activity. (b; Challenging; p. 222) 25.

According to the punctuated equilibrium model, groups tend to experience between the first meeting and the official deadline. a. inertia b. stagnation c. reinforcement of the initial fixed course d. ―mid-life crisis‖ (d; Moderate; p. 223)

about halfway

Toward Explaining Work Group Behavior 26.

All of the following are reasons some groups are more successful than others except: 170

a. age of group members. b. size of the group. c. level of conflict. d. internal pressures for conformity. (a; Moderate; p. 223) External Conditions Imposed on the Group 27.

Which of the following is not an external condition imposed on the group? a. group composition b. authority structures c. formal regulations d. performance evaluation system (a; Moderate; p. 224) Which of the following defines ―authority structure?‖ a. who reports to whom b. who makes decisions c. what decisions individuals or groups are empowered to make d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 224)

28.

29.

The more formal regulations that the organization imposes on its employees: a. the more dissatisfied the employees will be. b. the more productive the work group members will be. c. the more the behavior of the work group members will be consistent and predictable. d. the less productive the work group members will be. (c; Moderate; p. 224) Which external condition imposed on the group outlines the organization’s goals and the means for attaining these goals? a. organization’s overall strategy b. authority structure c. formal regulations d. performance evaluation system (a; Moderate; p. 224) 30.

31.

Which external condition imposed on the group determines the kinds of people that will be in its work groups? a. selection process b. authority structure c. performance evaluation system d. formal regulations (a; Moderate; p. 224) 32.

The unwritten law that defines for employees standards of acceptable and unacceptable behavior is the: a. organizational culture. b. employee handbook.

171

c. feedback employees receive from their superiors. d. informal discussion among co-workers. (a; Easy; p. 225) Group Member Resources 33.

Which of the following is not true concerning knowledge, skills, and abilities of group members? a. Part of a group’s performance can be predicted by addressing the knowledge, skills, and abilities of its individual members. b. A group’s performance is not merely the summation of its individual members’ abilities. c. Interpersonal skills consistently emerge as important for high work group performance. d. Group members do not need conflict management skills. (d; Challenging; p. 225)

34.

Which one of the following personality traits tends to be positively related to group productivity? a. dominance b. authoritarianism c. sociability d. unconventionality (c; Moderate; p. 226)

35.

Which of the following is not negatively related to group productivity? a. flexibility b. authoritarianism c. dominance d. unconventionality (a; Moderate; p. 226)

36.

Which of the following personality traits is generally negatively related to group productivity? a. initiative b. unconventionality c. sociability d. openness (b; Moderate; p. 226) Group Structure

37.

Formal leadership, roles, group norms, group status, and group size are examples of group: a. structural variables. b. role definitions. c. status symbols. d. perceptions of reality. (a; Moderate; p. 226)

38.

Which of the following is not true regarding formal leadership? a. The formal leader can play an important role in the group’s success. b. The formal leader is typically identified by titles such as manager, supervisor, foreman, and project leader. c. Formal leadership does not shape the behavior of members.

172

d. Almost every work group has a formal leader. (c; Moderate; p. 226) 39.

A is a set of expected behavior patterns associated with a particular position in a social unit. a. role b. norm c. stereotype d. status hierarchy (a; Easy; p. 226) 40.

Certain attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role are the: a. role expectations. b. role identity. c. role perception. d. psychological contract. (b; Easy; p. 227)

41.

Which of the following is true of role identity? a. The attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role create the role perception. b. People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation requires change. c. People do not have the ability to shift roles rapidly. d. Everyone is required to play one specific role in every situation. (b; Moderate; p. 227)

42.

How others believe you should act in a given situation is a: a. norm. b. stereotype. c. role expectation. d. role perception. (c; Easy; p. 227)

43.

The defines mutual expectations along with behavioral expectations that go with every role. a. group norm b. role expectation c. role stereotype d. psychological contract (d; Moderate; p. 227)

44.

When an individual finds that compliance with one role requirement may make more difficult the compliance with another, the result is: a. role conflict. b. role expectation. c. role perception.

173

d. role identity. (a; Moderate; p. 228) Zimbardo’s simulated prison experiment is most important because it demonstrates: a. the importance of status. b. the impact of cohesiveness. c. that individuals can rapidly assimilate new roles very different from their inherent personalities. d. flaws in the Hawthorne studies. (c; Moderate; p. 228)

45.

Zimbardo’s simulated prison experiment involving ―normal‖ students at Stanford University illustrated: a. group conformity. b. a conflict of interest. c. individual communication. d. the sudden adaptation of new roles. (d; Challenging; p. 228) 46.

Acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by the group’s members are: a. norms. b. rules. c. sanctions. d. opinions. (a; Easy; p. 229) 47.

48.

Which is not a common class of norms appearing in most work groups? a. performance norms b. appearance c. termination d. arrangement (c; Easy; p. 229) 49.

One example of work group norms deals with performance-related processes. performance norms include all of the following except: a. appropriate dress. b. how hard the employee should work. c. appropriate levels of tardiness. d. level of output. (a; Challenging; p. 229)

Examples of

50.

Norms that dictate with whom group members eat lunch, friendships on and off the job, and social games are norms dealing with: a. appearance factors. b. social arrangements. c. ethical issues. d. group activity.

174

(b; Moderate; pp. 229-230) 51.

Norms that dictate assignment of difficult jobs and allocation of new tools and equipment are norms dealing with: a. corporate objectives. b. financial standards. c. allocation of resources. d. informal arrangements. (c; Easy; p. 230) 52.

norms include things like appropriate dress, when to look busy, and loyalty to the organization. a. Performance b. Appearance c. Social arrangement d. Allocation of resources (b; Easy; p. 229) 53.

norms include how to get the job done and the level of output. a. Performance b. Appearance c. Social arrangement d. Allocation of resources (a; Easy; p. 229)

54.

norms include with whom members eat lunch and friendships on and off the job. a. Performance b. Appearance c. Social arrangement d. Allocation of resources (c; Easy; p. 229) 55.

groups are characterized as ones where a person is aware of the others. The person defines himself or herself as a member, or would like to be a member. a. Reference b. Status c. Role d. Normative (a; Moderate; p. 229)

56.

The major contribution of the Asch study was to demonstrate the impact of: a. group pressures for conformity. b. seating arrangements. c. the Hawthorne effect. d. status on group performance. (a; Moderate; p. 230)

175

57.

Antisocial actions by organizational members that intentionally violate established norms and that result in negative consequences for the organization, its members, or both are referred to as: a. ethical dilemmas. b. deviant workplace behavior. c. norms. d. antisocial behavior. (b; Moderate; p. 231) 58.

is a socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others. a. Position b. Promotion c. Status d. Role (c; Easy; p. 232)

59.

Which of the following is not true? a. Status has been shown to have some interesting effects on the power of norms and the pressures to conform. b. High status members of groups are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members. c. Low status members of groups are given more freedom to deviate from norms than are other group members. d. High status people are better able to resist conformity pressures than their lower status peers. (c; Moderate; p. 232)

60.

Which of the following is not true about status equity? a. The trappings that go with formal positions are important elements in maintaining equity. b. Status incongruence is the perceived inequity between an individual's ranking and the status accoutrements that person is given by the organization. c. Groups generally agree within themselves on status criteria. d. It is unimportant for group members to believe that the status hierarchy is equitable, only that they understand it. (d; Challenging; p. 233) 61.

Your group is engaged in problem solving and your goal is fact-finding. Which size group should be most effective? a. 3 b. 6 c. 7 d. 12 (d; Challenging; p. 234) 62.

If your group must take action, which size should be most effective? a. 7 b. 5 c. 10 d. 12 (a; Challenging; p. 234) 63.

In comparing the results of individual and group performance on a rope-pulling task, Ringelmann 176

concluded that: a. the larger the group, the greater the individual productivity. b. increases in group size are inversely related to individual performance. c. total productivity tends to decline in large groups. d. group size is not a determinant of individual productivity. (b; Challenging; pp. 234-235) 64.

According to your text, the group size that exercises the best elements of both small and large groups is: a. 3 to 4 members. b. 4 to 5 members. c. 5 to 7 members. d. 7 to 9 members. (c; Moderate; p. 234) 65.

Research on group demography demonstrates that a. similar member attributes; performance. b. dissimilar member attributes; performance. c. similar member attributes; turnover. d. dissimilar member attributes; turnover. (d; Challenging; p. 236)

are positively related to

When predicting turnover in a work group made up of nine females and one male, we’d predict that: a. the male would be most inclined to leave the group. b. a female would be more inclined to leave the group than the male. c. there is no indication as to who would leave the group. d. the individual who had been in the group the longest would be most inclined to leave the group. (a; Moderate; p. 237)

66.

67.

The degree to which group members are attracted to one another is called: a. cohesiveness. b. integration. c. sociability. d. reliability. (a; Easy; p. 237)

68.

Group cohesiveness is increased with each of the following except: a. when the group is heterogeneous. b. when members spend time together. c. when external threats exist. d. when the group is physically isolated. (a; Moderate; pp. 237-238) 69.

If cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low: a. internal conflict will be high.

177

b. internal conflict will be low. c. productivity will be high. d. productivity will be low. (d; Challenging; p. 237) Group Processes 70.

is an action of two or more substances that results in an effect that is different from the individual summation of the substances. a. Brainstorming b. Power diffusion c. Synergy d. Effectiveness (c; Easy; p. 238) 71.

Which of the following is an example of negative synergy? a. research teams working together, making use of diverse member skills b. social loafing c. process gain d. 2 + 2 = 5 (b; Moderate; p. 238) 72.

refers to the tendency for performance to improve or decline in response to the presence of others. a. Social loafing effect b. Synergy c. Social facilitation effect d. Negative synergy (c; Moderate; pp. 238-239) Group Tasks 73.

A group characterized by poor communication, weak leadership, and high levels of conflict will: a. be low performing. b. be high performing. c. disband due to inability to perform. d. still be effective if the tasks are simple and require little interdependence among group members. (d; Challenging; p. 239) Group Decision Making 74.

Group decisions are generally preferable to individual decisions when a. acceptance of solution b. speed c. efficiency d. clear responsibility (a; Moderate; p. 240) 75.

Which is not a weakness of group decision making?

178

is sought.

a. It is time consuming. b. There is increased diversity of views. c. It suffers from ambiguous responsibility. d. It can be dominated by one or a few members. (b; Easy; p. 240) 76.

Individual decisions are generally preferable to group decisions when a. speed b. diversity of perspectives c. acceptance of solution d. a higher quality decision (a; Challenging; p. 240)

is sought.

77.

Groupthink results in: a. higher quality decisions. b. more risky decisions. c. less critical analysis. d. unpopular decision choices. (c; Moderate; pp. 241-242) 78.

is a phenomenon in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views. a. Group conformity b. Groupshift c. Groupthink d. Compromise (c; Easy; p. 242) 79.

Groupshift most often means decisions: a. are made by groups rather than individuals. b. contain greater risk. c. are made more quickly. d. prove less effective. (b; Challenging; p. 242)

80.

All of the following are explanations for the phenomenon of groupshift except: a. discussion creates familiarization among members. b. most first-world societies value risk. c. the group leader usually gets the credit or blame for the group action. d. the group diffuses responsibility. (c; Challenging; p. 243)

81.

Which one of the following is likely to generate the least innovative alternatives? a. face-to-face interacting groups b. brainstorming c. Delphi technique 179

d. nominal group technique (a; Moderate; p. 243) 82.

Brainstorming is: a. used to build group cohesiveness. b. a technique that tends to restrict independent thinking. c. a process for generating ideas. d. used mainly when group members cannot agree on a solution. (c; Moderate; p. 244) 83.

The technique most restricts discussion or interpersonal communication during the decisionmaking process. a. interacting b. nominal group c. brainstorm d. electronic meeting (b; Moderate; pp. 244-245) 84.

Which of the following is not considered an advantage of electronic meetings? a. honesty b. speed c. receiving credit for the best ideas d. anonymity (c; Moderate; p. 245)

85.

Which type of decision-making group is most committed to the group solution? a. interacting b. brainstorming c. nominal d. electronic (a; Challenging; p. 245) TRUE/FALSE Defining and Classifying Groups 86.

A group must have at least two members and one or more objectives.

(True; Moderate; p. 219) 87.

Members in a group are interdependent.

(True; Easy; p. 219) 88.

The tasks in groups within an organization must be directed toward organizational goals.

(False; Moderate; p. 219) 89.

Command and task groups are dictated by the formal organization whereas interest and friendship groups are not.

(True; Moderate; p. 220)

180

90.

All task groups are also command groups.

(False; Moderate; p. 220) 91.

While command groups are determined by the organization chart, task, interest, and friendship groups develop because of the necessity to satisfy one’s work and social needs.

(False; Moderate; p. 220) 92.

The types of interactions among individuals, even though informal, deeply affect their behavior and performance.

(True; Moderate; p. 220) 93.

There is no single reason why individuals join groups.

(True; Easy; p. 220) 94.

Different groups provide different benefits to their members.

(True; Easy; p. 220) Stages of Group Development 95.

Temporary groups with task specific deadlines follow the five-stage model of group development.

(False; Moderate; Exh. 8-2; p. 221) 96.

Most conflicts are resolved by the completion of the first stage in a group’s development.

(False; Moderate; p. 220) 97.

The norming stage of group development is characterized by camaraderie.

(True; Moderate; p. 221) 98.

For permanent work groups, performance is the last stage in their development.

(True; Challenging; p. 221) 99.

Under some conditions, high levels of conflict are conducive to high group performance.

(True; Moderate; p. 222) 100.

The stages of group development must occur sequentially and will never occur simultaneously.

(False; Moderate; p. 222) 101.

The five-stage model of group development ignores organizational context.

(True; Challenging; p. 222) In the punctuated equilibrium model, the group’s direction is reexamined frequently in the first half of the group’s life and is likely to be altered.

(False; Challenging; p. 222) 102.

103.

The punctuated equilibrium model characterizes groups as exhibiting long periods of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes triggered primarily by members’ awareness of time and deadlines.

(True; Challenging; p. 223)

181

External Conditions Imposed on the Group 104.

An organization’s strategy will influence the power of various work groups.

(True; Moderate; p. 224) 105.

An organization’s authority structure defines a work group’s formal leader.

(True; Moderate; p. 224) 106.

The more formal regulations that the organization imposes on all its employees, the more the behavior of work groups will be inconsistent and unpredictable.

(False; Moderate; p. 224) 107.

The criteria that an organization uses in its selection process will determine the kinds of people who will be in the organization’s work groups.

(True; Easy; p. 224) 108.

After a few months, most employees understand their organization’s culture.

(True; Easy; p. 225) A work group often forms a subculture within the organization’s overall culture, but members of work groups have to accept the standards implied in the organization's dominant culture to remain in good standing.

(True; Moderate; p. 225) 109.

110.

The physical work setting creates both barriers and opportunities for work group interaction.

(True; Moderate; p. 225) Group Member Resources 111.

Research demonstrates that group performance is the summation of the individual members’ abilities.

(False; Moderate; p. 225) 112.

Sociability has been found to be a personality characteristic that is a good predictor of group behavior.

(True; Moderate; p. 226)

Group Structure 113.

Work groups have a structure that shapes the behavior of members and makes it possible to explain and predict a large portion of individual behavior within the group as well as the performance of the group itself.

(True; Moderate; p. 226) 114.

Almost every work group has a formal leader.

(True; Moderate; p. 226) 115.

All group members can be said to be actors, each playing a role.

(True; Moderate; p. 226) 182

116.

We all are required to play one role and our behavior varies with that role.

(True; Easy; p. 227) 117.

One’s view of how one is supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception.

(True; Easy; p. 227) 118.

Role identity is created by certain attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with that role.

(True; Moderate; p. 227) 119.

The psychological contract defines behavioral expectations that go with every role.

(True; Easy; p. 227) 120.

When an individual is confronted by divergent role expectations, the result is role conflict.

(True; Easy; p. 228) Asch’s simulated prison experiment demonstrated that people with no prior personality pathology or training in their roles could execute extreme forms of behavior consistent with the roles they were playing.

(False; Moderate; p. 228) 121.

122.

Only some groups have established norms.

(False; Easy; p. 229) 123.

Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances.

(True; Easy; p. 229) 124.

Performance norms include things like appropriate dress and when to look busy.

(False; Moderate; p. 229) 125.

The most common class of norms are social arrangement norms.

(False; Challenging; p. 229) If group acceptance were not important to you, the need to conform to the group’s norms would decrease.

(True; Moderate; p. 230) 127.

Solomon Asch’s study was very important in demonstrating the concept of group conformity on individual behavior.

(True; Challenging; p. 230) 126.

128.

Asch’s study suggested that we desire to be one of the group and avoid being visibly different.

(True; Moderate; p. 230) 129.

Evidence indicates that Asch’s findings about group conformity are culture bound.

(True; Moderate; p. 231) 130.

Deviant workplace behavior covers a wide range of antisocial actions by organizational members that intentionally violate established norms and that result in negative consequences for the organization, its members, or both.

183

(True; Moderate; p. 231) 131.

High status members of groups are given less freedom to deviate from norms than other group members.

(False; Moderate; p. 232) 132.

When an employee believes there is an inequity between the perceived ranking of an individual and the status amenities he or she receives from the organization, this is known as status congruence.

(False; Moderate; p. 233) 133.

Cultures differ on the criteria that define status.

(True; Easy; p. 234) 134.

While group performance increases with group size, the addition of new members to the group has diminishing returns on productivity.

(True; Challenging; p. 234) 135.

Research on group size concludes that groups with an even number of members tend to be preferred over those with an odd number.

(False; Challenging; p. 234) 136.

Research on group composition concludes that homogeneous groups are more effective than heterogeneous groups.

(False; Moderate; p. 235) 137.

Research on group composition concludes that composition may be an important predictor of turnover.

(True; Moderate; p. 237) 138.

Group demography is the degree to which members of a group share a common demographic attribute.

(True; Easy; p. 236) 139.

Conformity is the degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group.

(False; Moderate; p. 237) 140.

If performance-related norms are high, less cohesive groups are more productive.

(False; Challenging; p. 237) 141.

Physically isolating a group will make it more cohesive.

(True; Moderate; pp. 237-238) Group Processes 142.

No matter how well designed a group is, it cannot create outputs greater than the sum of its inputs.

(False; Moderate; p. 238) 143.

Social loafing is a case of negative synergy.

184

(True; Easy; p. 238) 144.

The social facilitation effect refers to the tendency for performance to improve or decline in response to the presence of others.

(True; Moderate; p. 238) 145.

The size-performance relationship is moderated by the group’s task requirements.

(True; Moderate; p. 239) 146.

Effective communication and minimal levels of conflict should be more relevant to group performance when tasks are interdependent.

(True; Challenging; p. 239) 147.

Group decisions generate higher quality decisions than individual decisions.

(True; Easy; p. 240) 148.

Group decisions are more likely to be accepted than individual decisions.

(True; Easy; p. 240) 149.

Individual decisions are more time consuming than group decisions.

(False; Moderate; p. 240) 150.

If a low-to-medium ability person dominates the group, the group’s overall effectiveness will suffer.

(True; Moderate; p. 240) 151.

Group decisions tend to be more creative than individual decisions.

(True; Easy; p. 240) 152.

Groupthink improves group performance.

(False; Moderate; p. 242) 153.

Groups usually make more risky decisions than do individuals.

(True; Challenging; p. 243) 154.

The Challenger space shuttle disaster was an example of groupshift.

(False; Moderate; p. 242) 155.

Brainstorming is likely to generate more creative alternatives than use of face-to-face interacting groups.

(True; Moderate; p. 244) 156.

The chief advantage of the nominal group technique is that it permits the group to meet formally but does not restrict independent thinking, as does the interacting group.

(True; Challenging; p. 245) 157.

One of the advantages of the electronic meeting is that ideas are processed fast.

(True; Moderate; p. 245) 158.

The primary contingency variable moderating the relationship between group processes and 185

performance is the group’s cohesiveness.

(False; Challenging; p. 247) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Stages of Group Development Astro Inc. is reorganizing and your new work group begins working together on Monday morning. Your college course in organizational behavior contained information about the stages of group development and your supervisor has asked your advice about the predictable stages of group development.

159.

You should warn your supervisor that in the first stage of group development, the team members will probably: a. be uncertain. b. be their most productive. c. be a stage of conflict. d. focus their group energy on performing the task at hand. (a; Moderate; pp. 220-222) 160.

You are predicting that the most productive stage will be: a. forming. b. storming. c. norming. d. performing. (d; Moderate; pp. 220-222) 161.

The final stage for this permanent work group should be: a. storming. b. norming. c. performing. d. adjourning. (c; Challenging; pp. 220-222) Application of Roles Several years ago you began a small retail store to sell computer parts. The store grew and the business expanded to offer computer repair and custom computer programming. You have noticed that people have definite expectations about what their appropriate role within the expanding company should be.

162.

You can help them understand their roles and the role of other people by explaining some common facts about roles. All of the following are true except: a. each person will be expected to play a number of diverse roles. b. most people have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation and its demands require major changes. c. role perception is how other people believe they are expected to act in their given role. d. it may be helpful for them to view role expectations through the perspective of a psychological contract. (c; Challenging; pp. 226-228)

186

163.

John is expected to help customers in the retail store as well as perform computer repair work. He feels that every time he gets started on a repair, he is interrupted and doesn’t know whether to finish his repair or wait on the customer. John suffers from: a. role conflict. b. role expectations. c. role perception. d. role identity. (a; Moderate; pp. 226-228) 164.

To clear up confusion, you have decided that you must come to an unwritten agreement with each employee about your mutual expectations. You are developing a(n): a. role playing document. b. role expectation contract. c. psychological contract. d. employment contract. (c; Moderate; pp. 226-228) Application of Size Joe is restructuring departments and is creating teams to increase the effectiveness of his departments. He recognizes that the size of groups impacts their overall behavior.

165.

Joe has learned in an OB course that: a. small groups are good for gaining diverse input. b. large groups are better at taking action. c. social loafing is the tendency for individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than when working individually. d. the sense of team spirit spurs individual effort and enhances the group’s overall productivity in all groups. (c; Moderate; pp. 234-235)

166.

Given what Joe knows about groups, what is a good group size for a group that must take action? a. 2 b. 7 c. 4 d. 6 (b; Moderate; pp. 234-235) 167.

Joe is forming a fact-finding group. What is a good group size to gain diverse input? a. 2 b. 5 c. 6 d. 13 (d; Moderate; pp. 234-235) Application of Group Decision Making

187

Your organization is considering the use of team decision making. You have read extensively the literature on decision making and are trying to inform your manager about the advantages and disadvantages of group decision making.

168.

You should expect to find that: a. group decision making will be faster. b. group discussions will be shared equally. c. there will be increased acceptance of the decision. d. group decision making will not be viewed as legitimate. (c; Moderate; pp. 240-243) 169.

You should expect a weakness of group decision making to be: a. less complete knowledge. b. more time will be used to make the decision. c. employees will be less accepting of the group decision. d. the decision will probably be a lower quality decision. (b; Moderate; pp. 240-243) 170.

You have observed that the group tends to come to consensus very quickly and you know that the group is very cohesive. You conclude that they may be suffering from: a. inefficiency syndrome. b. groupshift. c. disintegrating norms. d. groupthink. (d; Moderate; pp. 240-243) Application of Group Decision-Making Techniques You decide that the decision as to which new product to produce has got to have widespread acceptance and needs to be the highest quality decision possible. Having read the literature on decision making, you decide that this decision needs to be made by a group of your best managers.

171.

Your managers are located in Taiwan, India, Brazil, and the United States. Which group decisionmaking technique seems most reasonable for your situation? a. interacting groups b. brainstorming c. nominal group d. electronic meeting (d; Moderate; pp. 243-245) 172.

You have decided to use the electronic meeting technique. Which of the following is not true about this type of meeting? a. Participants type their responses onto a computer screen. b. You can expect participants to be honest. c. Participants will be anonymous. d. Group cohesiveness will be high. (d; Moderate; pp 243-245) 173.

You have decided to use the electronic meeting technique. Which of the following is true about this 188

method? a. This method is good for building group cohesiveness. b. This method is good for processing ideas fast. c. This method is good for establishing responsibility. d. This method is an inexpensive means for generating a large number of ideas. (b; Challenging; pp. 243-245) Application of Exhibit 8-10 Evaluating Group Effectiveness Jacob is the manager of a work group and has not been able to assess the group’s effectiveness. The vice president has told Jacob that there are many different effectiveness criteria and that his problem may be that he has not decided what he wishes to consider in analyzing the group effectiveness. Jacob has discovered that an appropriate choice of the type of group used may also be an important part of group effectiveness.

If commitment to solution is Jacob’s effectiveness criteria, the most effective. a. interacting b. brainstorming c. nominal d. electronic (a; Moderate; Ex 8-10; p. 246) 174.

type of group should be the

175.

Developing group cohesiveness is an important effectiveness criteria for the group. Jacob would want to avoid the type of group. a. interacting b. brainstorming c. nominal d. electronic (d; Challenging; Ex 8-10; p. 246)

176.

Interpersonal conflict would be a big problem if it should develop in the work group. Jacob should probably avoid the type of group. a. interacting b. brainstorming c. nominal d. electronic (a; Challenging: Ex 8-10; p. 246) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 177.

List and briefly describe the stages in the five-stage model of group development.

(Pages 220-222) The five-stage group development model characterizes groups as proceeding through five distinct stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Forming is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership. Members are testing the waters to determine what types of behavior are acceptable. The storming stage is one of intragroup

189

conflict. Members accept the existence of the group, but there is resistance to the constraints that the group imposes on individuality. There is conflict over who will control the group. The third stage is one in which close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness. There is now a strong sense of group identify and camaraderie. This norming stage is complete when the group structure solidifies and the group has assimilated a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior. The fourth stage is performing. The structure at this point is fully functional and accepted. Group energy has moved from getting to know and understand each other to performing the task at hand. In the adjourning stage, the group prepares for its disbandment. High task performance is no longer the group’s top priority. Instead, attention is directed toward wrapping up activities.

178.

What is the punctuated equilibrium model?

(Pages 222-223) The punctuated equilibrium model is an alternative model for temporary groups with deadlines. They don’t follow the five-stage group development model. They have their own unique sequencing of actions. Their first meeting sets the group’s direction. This first phase of group activity is one of inertia. A transition takes place at the end of this phase, which occurs exactly when the group has used up half its allotted time. A transition initiates major changes. A second phase of inertia follows the transition and the group’s last meeting is characterized by markedly accelerated activity.

179.

Explain the psychological contract.

(Page 237) The psychological contract is the unwritten agreement that exists between employees and their employer. This sets out mutual expectations – what management expects from workers, and vice versa. Management is expected to treat employees justly, provide acceptable working conditions, clearly communicate what is a fair day’s work, and give feedback on how well the employee is doing.

Employees are expected to respond by demonstrating a good attitude, following directions, and showing loyalty to the organization.

180.

What are norms?

(Page 229) Norms are acceptable standards of behavior that are shared by the group’s members. Norms tell members what they ought and ought not to do under certain circumstances. From an individual’s standpoint, they tell what is expected of you in certain situations. When agreed to and accepted by the group, norms act as a means of influencing the behavior of group members with a minimum of external controls. Norms differ among groups, communities, and societies, but they all have them.

181.

How does group size affect a group’s behavior?

(Pages 234-235) The evidence indicates that smaller groups are faster at completing tasks than are larger ones.

However, if the group is engaged in problem solving, large groups consistently get better marks than their smaller counterparts. Large groups – with a dozen or more members – are good for gaining diverse input. So if the goal of the group is fact finding, larger groups should be more effective.

Smaller groups are better at doing something productive with that input. Groups of approximately seven members tend to be more effective for taking action. Social loafing is the tendency for 190

individuals to expend less effort when working collectively than when working individually. Groups with an odd number of members tend to be preferable to those with an even number, and groups made up of five or seven members do a pretty good job of exercising the best elements of both small and large groups.

182.

What is cohesiveness?

(Page 237) Cohesiveness is the degree to which members are attracted to each other and are motivated to stay in the group. Groups differ in their cohesiveness.

183.

What is the relationship between cohesiveness and productivity?

(Page 237) The relationship of cohesiveness and productivity depends on the performance-related norms established by the group. If performance-related norms are high, a cohesive group will be more productive than will a less cohesive group. But if cohesiveness is high and performance norms are low, productivity will be low. If cohesiveness is low and performance norms are high, productivity increases but less than in the high cohesiveness – high norms situation. When cohesiveness and performance-related norms are both low, productivity will tend to fall into the low-to-moderate range.

184.

Explain groupthink and groupshift.

(Pages 241-243) Groupthink is related to norms. It describes situations in which group pressures for conformity deter the group from critically appraising unusual, minority, or unpopular views. Groupthink is a disease that attacks many groups and can dramatically hinder their performance. Groupshift indicates that in discussing a given set of alternatives and arriving at a solution, group members tend to exaggerate the initial positions that they hold. In some situations, caution dominates, and there is a conservative shift. More often, however, the evidence indicates that groups tend toward a risky shift.

MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 185.

Differentiate between formal and informal groups.

(Page 219) Formal groups are those defined by the organization’s structure, with designated work assignments establishing tasks. In formal groups, the behaviors that one should engage in are stipulated by and directed toward organizational goals. Informal groups are alliances that are neither formally structured nor organizationally determined. These groups are natural formations in the work environment that appear in response to the need for social contact.

186.

Differentiate the terms role identity, role perception, and role expectation.

(Page 237) There are certain attitudes and actual behaviors consistent with a role, and they create the role identity. People have the ability to shift roles rapidly when they recognize that the situation andits demands clearly required major changes. One’s view of how one is supposed to act in a given situation is a role perception. Based on an interpretation of how we believe we are supposed to

191

behave, we engage in certain types of behavior. Role expectations are defined as how others believe you should act in a given situation. How you behave is determined to a large extent by the role defined in the context in which you are acting.

187.

What are four common classes of norms?

(Pages 229-230) The most common class of norms is performance norms. Work groups typically provide their members with explicit cues on how hard they should work, how to get the job done, their level of output, appropriate levels of tardiness, and the like. Appearance norms include things like appropriate dress, loyalty to the work group or organization, when to look busy, and when it’s acceptable to goof off. Social arrangement norms come from informal work groups and primarily regulate social interactions within the group. With whom group members eat lunch, friendship on and off the job, social games, and the like are influenced by these norms. Allocation of resources norms can originate in the group or in the organization and cover things like pay, assignment of difficult jobs, and allocation of new tools and equipment.

188.

Discuss strengths and weaknesses of group decision making.

(Page 240) Groups generate more complete information and knowledge. Groups bring more input into the decision process. They offer increased diversity of views. This opens up the opportunity for more approaches and alternatives to be considered. Groups will almost always outperform even the best individual. Groups generate higher quality decisions. Finally, groups lead to increased acceptance of a solution. Members who participated in making a decision are likely to enthusiastically support the decision and encourage others to accept it.

Groups also have drawbacks. They are time consuming. They take more time to reach a solution than would be the case if an individual were making the decision alone. There are conformity pressures in groups. The desire by group members to be accepted and considered an asset to the group can result in squashing any overt disagreement. Group discussion can be dominated by one or a few members. If this dominant coalition is composed of low- and moderate-ability members, the group’s overall effectiveness will suffer. Finally, group decisions suffer from ambiguous responsibility. In an individual decision, it’s clear who is accountable for the final outcome. In a group decision, the responsibility of any single member is watered down.

COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 189.

Compare and contrast the five-stage model for group development with the punctuated equilibrium model.

(Pages 220-223) The five-stage group development model characterizes groups as proceeding through five distinct stages: forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning. Forming is characterized by a great deal of uncertainty about the group’s purpose, structure, and leadership. Members are testing the waters to determine what types of behavior are acceptable. The storming stage is one of intragroup conflict. Members accept the existence of the group, but there is resistance to the constraints that the group imposes on individuality. There is conflict over who will control the group. The third stage is

192

one in which close relationships develop and the group demonstrates cohesiveness. There is now a strong sense of group identify and camaraderie. This norming stage is complete when the group structure solidifies and the group has assimilated a common set of expectations of what defines correct member behavior. The fourth stage is performing. The structure at this point is fully functional and accepted. Group energy has moved from getting to know and understand each other to performing the task at hand. In the adjourning stage, the group prepares for its disbandment. High task performance is no longer the group’s top priority. Instead, attention is directed toward wrapping up activities.

The punctuated equilibrium model is an alternative model for temporary groups with deadlines. They don’t follow the five-stage group development model. They have their own unique sequencing of actions. Their first meeting sets the group’s direction. This first phase of group activity is one of inertia. A transition takes place at the end of this phase, which occurs exactly when the group has used up half its allotted time. A transition initiates major changes. A second phase of inertia follows the transition and the group’s last meeting is characterized by markedly accelerated activity.

The punctuated equilibrium model characterizes groups as exhibiting long period of inertia interspersed with brief revolutionary changes triggered primarily by their members’ awareness of time and deadlines. Keep in mind, however, that this model doesn’t apply to all groups. It’s essentially limited to temporary task groups who are working under a time-constrained completion deadline.

190.

Discuss external conditions imposed on the group.

(Pages 224-225) External conditions include the organization’s overall strategy, its authority structures, formal regulations, resources, employee selection process, performance evaluation and reward systems, culture, and physical work setting. An organization’s overall strategy outlines the organization’s goals and the means for attaining these goals. Organizations have authority structures that define who reports to whom, who makes decisions, and what decisions individuals or groups are empowered to make.

This structure typically determines where a given work group is placed in the organization’s hierarchy, the formal leader of the group, and formal relationships between groups. Organizations create rules, procedures, policies, job descriptions, and other forms of formal regulations to standardize employee behavior. The presence or absence of resources such as money, time, raw materials, and equipment – which are allocated to the group by the organization – have a large bearing on the group’s behavior. The criteria that an organization uses in its selection process will determine the kinds of people that will be in its work groups. Since work groups are part of the larger organizational system, group members’ behavior will be influenced by how the organization evaluates performance and what behaviors are rewarded. Every organization has an unwritten culture that defines standards of acceptable and unacceptable behavior for employees. Members of work groups have to accept the standards implied in the organization’s dominant culture if they are to remain in good standing. The physical work setting that is imposed on the group by external parties has an important bearing on work group behavior. These create both barriers and opportunities for work group interaction.

193

Chapter 9 Understanding Work Teams MULTIPLE CHOICE Why Have Work Teams Become So Popular?

1.

Evidence suggests that teams typically outperform individuals when the tasks being done: a. require multiple skills. b. require judgment. c. require experience. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 258)

2.

Which of the following helps explain the current popularity of teams? a. Teams are easier to manage. b. Teams are a way to better utilize employee talents. c. Teams are less expensive. d. Teams promote social loafing. (b; Moderate; pp. 258-259)

3.

Which of the following does not explain the current popularity of teams? a. Teams outperform individuals when the tasks require multiple skills. b. Teams enable organizations to better utilize employee talents. c. Teams are a means to increase employee motivation. d. Teams do not require employee participation in operating decisions. (d; Moderate; pp. 258-259) Teams vs. Groups: What’s the Difference?

4.

What is a work group? a. a group whose individual efforts result in a performance that is greater than the sum of those individual inputs b. a group that interacts primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each member perform within his or her area of responsibility c. a group of 10 to 15 people who take on responsibilities of their former supervisors d. a group made up of members from across departmental lines (b; Challenging; p. 259)

5.

A work team has one important aspect not found in a work group. This is: a. energy. b. enthusiasm. c. synergy. d. objectives. (c; Moderate; p. 259)

195

6.

is an attribute of work teams which results in a level of performance that is greater than the sum of the individual inputs. a. Synergy b. Enthusiasm c. Energy d. Initiative (a; Moderate; p. 259) Types of Teams 7.

Which is not one of the most common types of teams? a. problem-solving b. problem identification c. self-managed d. virtual (b; Easy; p. 259) 8.

Teams of employees who meet to discuss ways to improve quality, efficiency, and the work environment are called: a. self-managed teams. b. unions. c. problem-solving teams. d. cross-functional teams. (c; Easy; p. 259) 9.

You are a member of a work team whose goal is to improve the efficiency of the production process. Your team is best described as: a. cross-functional. b. problem-solving. c. self-managed. d. goal oriented. (b; Moderate; p. 259) 10.

An early application of problem-solving teams was: a. performance teams. b. linking teams. c. self-directed work teams. d. quality circles. (d; Moderate; p. 259) were widely used in the 1980’s. They were work teams of 8 to 10 employees and supervisors who had a shared area of responsibility and met regularly to discuss their quality problems, investigate causes of the problems, recommend solutions, and take corrective actions. a. Quality circles b. Action groups c. Reengineering squads d. Self-managed teams (a; Moderate; p. 259) 11.

196

12.

teams go farther than problem-solving teams in getting employees involved in work-related decisions and processes. a. Problem identification b. Self-managed c. Virtual d. Performance (b; Moderate; p. 259) 13.

Self-managed work teams generally: a. take on the responsibilities of their former supervisors. b. meet weekly to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency, and the work environment. c. are from different work areas, but about the same hierarchical level, and work together to accomplish tasks. d. are made up of people from different levels of the organization. (a; Challenging; p. 259) 14.

Self-managed teams typically have a. 2-3 b. 6-7 c. 8-9 d. 10-15 (d; Moderate; p. 259)

members.

15.

Self-managed teams typically perform which of the following responsibilities? a. planning and scheduling b. assigning tasks to members c. taking action on problems d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 259) 16.

Overall, about a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75% (b; Challenging; p. 260)

of U.S. employers now use self-managed work teams.

As a result of using self-managed teams, a factory at Eaton Corporation’s Aeroquip Global Hose Division was able to improve response time to customer concerns by: a. 50% b. 25% c. 75% d. 99% (d; Moderate; p. 260) 17.

18.

The research on the effectiveness of self-managed work teams suggests that: a. individuals have lower levels of job satisfaction. b. individuals overwhelmingly prefer to work on self-managed work teams. c. productivity is lower for self-managed work teams. d. absenteeism and turnover rates are higher on self-managed work teams.

197

(d; Challenging; p. 260) 19.

teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. a. Problem-solving b. Self-managed c. Cross-functional d. Multifaceted (c; Easy; p. 260) 20.

A is a temporary cross-functional team. a. quality circle b. group c. task force d. TQM group (c; Moderate; p. 261) 21.

is (are) composed of members from across departmental lines and is(are) an example of cross-functional teams. a. Committees b. Virtual teams c. A TQM group d. Self-managed work teams (a; Challenging; p. 261) 22.

The Speed Team that generated recommendations on how to speed up projects was a crossfunctional team used by: a. IBM. b. Ford. c. Harley-Davidson. d. Jaguar. (c; Challenging; p. 261) 23.

teams are an effective way to allow people from diverse areas within an organization to exchange information, develop new ideas and solve problems, and coordinate complex projects. a. Self-managed b. Problem-solving c. Cross-functional d. Multifaceted (c; Moderate; p. 261) 24.

teams allow people to collaborate online. a. Self-managed b. Cross-functional c. Problem-solving d. Virtual (d; Easy; p. 261)

198

25.

While most types of teams do their work face-to-face, a. virtual b. telecommuting c. outsourced d. functional (a; Moderate; p. 261)

teams use computer technology.

26.

Which is not one of the three primary factors that differentiate virtual teams from face-to-face teams? a. the absence of nonverbal and paraverbal cues b. limited social context c. increased social rapport d. the ability to overcome time and space constraints (c; Moderate; p. 261) 27.

Which of the following is not true about virtual teams? a. There is an absence of paraverbal cues. b. Members report greater satisfaction with the group process. c. There is limited social context. d. They are more task oriented. (b; Moderate; p. 261) Beware! Teams Aren’t Always the Answer

28.

Which of the following is true of teamwork as compared to individual work? a. Teams have increased communication demands. b. Teams have conflicts to be managed. c. Teams have meetings to be run. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 263) 29.

The key components making up effective teams can be subsumed into four categories. Which of the following is not one of those four categories? a. work design b. goals c. contextual influences d. process variables (b; Challenging; p. 263) 30.

The context category of the team effectiveness model includes: a. autonomy. b. ability. c. adequate resources. d. conflict. (c; Challenging; Ex 9-3; p. 264)

199

31. Effective teams require which of the following skills? a. problem-solving skills b. technical expertise c. interpersonal skills d. all of the above (d; Easy; p. 264) 32.

Team members with good listening, feedback, and conflict resolution skills possess: a. technical expertise. b. problem-solving skills. c. decision-making skills. d. interpersonal skills. (d; Easy; p. 264) One stream of research has identified potential team roles the people prefer to play. The ―creator‖ role is one who: a. champions ideas. b. initiates creative ideas. c. provides structure. d. coordinates and integrates. (b; Challenging; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 33.

Of the nine key roles on teams, the ―promoter‖ is the group member most likely to: a. initiate creative ideas. b. champion ideas after they are initiated. c. provide structure. d. fight external battles. (b; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266)

34.

35.

Which of the following is not one of the nine potential team roles identified for successful teams? a. organizer b. resource allocator c. controller d. maintainer (b; Easy; Exh. 9-4; p. 266) 36.

You find that in a team situation you prefer to be the one who examines for details and is concerned with enforcing rules and regulations. Your role is called the: a. maintainer. b. linker. c. controller. d. promoter. (c; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 37.

Which team role provides structure? a. assessor b. organizer c. maintainer d. controller (b; Challenging; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 200

People who hold strong convictions about the way things should be done and fight the team’s battles with outsiders while supporting internal team members are: a. controllers. b. producers. c. maintainers. d. assessors. (c; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 38.

39.

The most effective teams tend to have a. 3 to 5 b. 5 to 7 c. less than 10 d. more than 12 (c; Challenging; p. 265)

members.

40.

There are four contextual factors that appear to be most significantly related to team performance.

Which of the following is not one of those three factors? a. adequate resources b. effective communication c. effective leadership d. a performance evaluation and reward system that reflects team contributions. (b; Challenging; p. 266) 41.

Which of the following statements is true concerning the climate of trust? a. Interpersonal trust among team members inhibits cooperation. b. Interpersonal trust among team members reduces the need to monitor each other’s behavior. c. Interpersonal trust among team members bonds members around the belief that others will take advantage of them if given the opportunity. d. Interpersonal trust among team members increases members’ aversion to risk. (b; Challenging; p. 267)

42.

Process variables include all of the following except: a. climate of trust. b. member commitment to a common purpose. c. team efficacy. d. minimizing social loafing. (a; Moderate; p. 268)

43. Successful teams translate their a. roles b. common purpose c. norms d. skills (b; Moderate; p. 268) 44.

into specific, measurable, and realistic performance goals.

Effective teams have confidence in themselves and believe they can succeed. This is termed: a. social facilitation. b. goal congruence. c. social loafing. d. team efficacy.

201

(d; Challenging; p. 268) 45.

What can management do to increase team efficacy? a. Provide measurable goals. b. Help the team achieve small successes. c. Limit time spent in training. d. Ensure team goals are challenging. (b; Moderate; p. 268)

46.

Which type of conflict is almost always dysfunctional? a. task conflict b. efficacy conflict c. relationship conflict d. resource conflict (c; Moderate; pp. 268-269)

47. Coasting on the group effort is termed: a. inconsistency. b. incompetence. c. social loafing. d. cross-functional help. (c; Easy; p. 269) 48.

Your company is considering implementing work teams in your Mexico facility. You should find this relatively easy because those employees will have strong values. a. social b. collectivist c. creative d. individualistic (b; Moderate; p. 269) 49.

Which of the following is not one of the options suggested that managers have for trying to turn individuals into team players? a. selection b. goals c. training d. rewards (b; Moderate; pp. 270-271) When hiring job candidates who don’t have team skills, which of the following is an option for managers? a. The candidates can undergo training to make them into team players. b. The individual can be transferred to another unit within the organization without teams. c. The candidate should not be hired. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 270) 50.

202

51.

Exercises which help individuals become team players would include workshops in: a. negotiation. b. labor law. c. sexual harassment. d. power distance. (a; Moderate; p. 270) Contemporary Issues In Managing Teams 52.

The essence of quality management is process improvement, and improvement. a. negotiation b. employee involvement c. an outside consultant d. diversity (b; Moderate; p. 271) 53.

is the linchpin of process

The strongest case for diversity on work teams is when these teams are engaged in a. problem-solving and decision-making b. manufacturing c. labor relations d. communication (a; Moderate; p. 272)

54.

Studies show that members of cohesive teams have: a. lower satisfaction. b. higher attrition. c. lower absenteeism. d. greater diversity. (c; Challenging; p. 272)

55.

is detrimental to group cohesiveness. a. Diversity b. Education c. Teamwork d. Trust (a; Moderate; p. 272)

56.

All of the following are advantages of diversity except: a. increased flexibility. b. increased creativity. c. multiple perspectives. d. increased cohesiveness. (d; Challenging; Exh. 9-5; p. 272)

57.

teams are particularly prone to suffer from groupthink. a. Diverse b. Mature c. Newly-formed d. Total quality management 203

tasks.

(b; Moderate; p. 273) 58.

Your work team has been together for quite a long time and you feel that they have become less efficient than they once were. In order to reinvigorate the team you might: a. suggest that some team members retire. b. disband the team. c. offer refresher or advanced training. d. offer individual incentives. (c; Challenging; p. 273) 59.

Which is not a suggestion for reinvigorating mature teams? a. Prepare members to deal with the problems of maturity. b. Get younger members. c. Offer refresher training. d. Offer advanced training. (b; Challenging; p. 273) 60.

Common characteristics of effective teams include all of the following except: a. the work that members do provides freedom and autonomy. b. the work that members do utilizes different skills and talents. c. the work that members do has substantial impact on others. d. the work that members do is routine to enable efficiency. (d; Moderate; p. 274) 61.

Teams require individuals with high scores on the personality characteristics of all the following except: a. introversion. b. agreeableness. c. conscientiousness. d. emotional stability. (a; Moderate; p. 276) TRUE/FALSE 62.

Teams typically outperform individuals when the tasks being done require multiple skills, judgment, and experience.

(True; Easy; p. 257) 63.

Teams tend to be less flexible and less responsive to changing events than traditional departments.

(False; Moderate; p. 257) 64.

Teams are an effective means for management to democratize their organizations.

(True; Moderate; pp. 257-258) Teams vs. Groups–What’s the Difference?

65.

A work group is a group that interacts primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each member perform within his or her area of responsibility.

(True; Easy; p. 258) 204

66.

A work group creates positive synergy.

(False; Moderate; p. 258) 67.

A work team generates positive synergy while a work group does not.

(True; Challenging; p. 258) 68.

Work groups engage in collective work that requires joint effort.

(False; Challenging; p. 258) 69.

The extensive use of teams creates the potential for an organization to generate greater outputs with no increase in inputs.

(True; Easy; p. 258) 70.

Merely calling a group a team doesn’t automatically increase its performance.

(True; Moderate; p. 258) Types of Teams 71.

The four most common forms of teams are: problem-solving, self-managed, cross-functional, and virtual.

(True; Moderate; p. 259) 72.

Problem-solving teams generally consist of 3 to 5 hourly employees from the same department.

(False; Challenging; p. 259) 73.

Virtual teams were known as quality circles in the 1980s.

(False; Moderate; p. 259) 74.

You are a member of a team of eight individuals from the same department who meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency, and the work environment.

You are a member of a self-managed work team.

(False; Moderate; p. 259) 75.

Quality circles were an application of problem-solving teams.

(True; Easy; p. 259) 76.

A self-managed work team takes on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors.

(True; Moderate; p. 259) 77.

Supervisory positions take on decreased importance for a self-managed work team.

(True; Moderate; pp. 259-260) 78.

As a result of self-managed teams, supervisory positions may be eliminated.

(True; Challenging; p. 260) 79.

Individuals on self-managed work teams report higher levels of job satisfaction.

(True; Moderate; p. 260) 80.

Individuals on self-managed work teams have lower absenteeism rates than employees in traditional work structures.

205

(False; Challenging; p. 260) 81.

Turnover rates are lower for self-managed work teams than for employees working in traditional work structures.

(False; Moderate; p. 260) 82.

Self-managed teams have flourished in Mexico due to that culture’s low tolerance for ambiguity.

(False; Moderate; p. 260) 83.

Cross-functional teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task.

(True; Easy; p. 261) 84.

A task force is a temporary cross-functional team.

(True; Moderate; p. 261) 85.

The popularity of cross-discipline work teams was explored in the late 1930s.

(False; Moderate; p. 261) 86.

Harley-Davidson and IBM have successfully used cross-functional teams to coordinate complex projects.

(True; Easy; p. 261) 87.

One advantage of cross-functional teams is that they are easy to manage.

(False; Moderate; p. 261) 88.

Electronic teams use computer technology to tie together physically dispersed members in order to achieve a common goal.

(False; Moderate; p. 261) 89.

Virtual teams can accomplish all the things that other teams do.

(True; Challenging; p. 261) 90.

Virtual teams report less satisfaction with the group interaction process than do face-to-face teams.

(True; Moderate; p. 261) 91.

Verifone found that virtual teams provide strong recruiting inducements.

(True; Challenging; p. 261) Beware! Teams Aren’t Always the Answer 92.

Teamwork takes more time and often more resources than individual work.

(True; Moderate; p. 262) 93.

Teams make sense when there is interdependence between tasks.

(True; Moderate; p. 262) 94.

The key components making up effective teams can be grouped into four categories: design, team composition, cohesion factors, and perceptual influences.

206

work

(False; Challenging; p. 263) To perform effectively, a team requires three different types of skills – technical expertise, problem-solving and decision-making skills, and interpersonal skills.

(True; Moderate; p. 264) 95.

96.

On a team, the role of the ―creator‖ describes the person who analyzes decision options.

(False; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) The role of the ―linker‖ describes the person within the work team who coordinates and integrates the work of team members.

(True; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 97.

98.

Your analytical skills are very good and you enjoy the role of integrating creative ideas for your group. You will find that you are most effective in the role of the ―promoter.‖ (False; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 99.

Susan is well organized and enjoys providing structure for the group. Her role within the work team may be described as the ―maintainer.‖ (False; Moderate; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 100.

The most effective teams have fewer than four members.

(False; Moderate; p. 265) 101.

The purpose of the work team can be described as its vision and this purpose is broader than specific goals.

(True; Easy; p. 268) 102.

Given the option, many employees will select themselves out of team participation.

(True; Challenging; p. 266) 103.

When selecting team members, individual preferences should be considered as well as abilities, personalities, and skills.

(True; Moderate; p. 266) 104.

Teams must receive the necessary support from management and the larger organization if they are going to succeed in achieving their goals.

(True; Moderate; p. 267) ―Social loafing‖ is possible within a team because it is not possible to identify individual contributions.

(True; Easy; p. 269) 105.

Turning Individuals Into Team Players 106.

Teams fit well with countries that score high on collectivism.

(True; Easy; p. 269) 107.

Canadians would have more difficulty using work teams than the Japanese.

(True; Easy; p. 269) 207

Communication and the ability to sublimate one’s personal goals are important for individuals who are members of work teams.

(True; Easy; p. 269) 108.

109.

Work teams may be difficult for American workers because they grow up learning the importance of individualism.

(True; Easy; p. 269) 110.

Introducing work teams into new organizations will generally be more difficult than introducing them into more mature organizations.

(False; Moderate; p. 269) 111.

A large proportion of people raised on the importance of individual accomplishment can be trained to become team players.

(True; Moderate; p. 270) 112.

Intrinsic rewards may be higher for individuals in work teams than for those who work alone.

(True; Moderate; p. 271) 113.

Competitive reward structures reinforce the importance of collaboration in work teams.

(False; Moderate; p. 271) Contemporary Issues In Managing Teams 114.

One of the central characteristics of quality management is the use of teams.

(True; Easy; p. 271) 115.

Diversity typically provides fresh perspectives on issues but makes it more difficult to unify the team and reach agreements.

(True; Moderate; p. 272) 116.

Work force diversity makes work teams easier to manage.

(False; Easy; p. 272) 117.

Studies show us that members of cohesive teams have greater satisfaction, lower absenteeism, and lower attrition.

(True; Moderate; p. 272) 118.

Diversity may be detrimental to group cohesiveness.

(True; Moderate; p. 272) 119.

The positive value from diversity on a team diminishes over time.

(True; Moderate; p. 272) 120.

Mature teams are particularly prone to suffer from groupthink.

(True; Moderate; p. 273)

208

SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of Types of Teams Recognizing that teams can do a variety of things, Joan has decided to use a number of teams in her divisions.

121.

Joan has created a team of seven employees from the accounts payable department who meet for three hours a week to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency, and the work environment.

This is an example of a team. a. problem-solving b. self-managed c. cross-functional d. virtual (a; Challenging; pp. 259-261) 122.

Joan has decided to create a team of eleven employees from accounts receivable, give them the responsibility of their former supervisor (including scheduling of work and evaluating each other’s performance), and eliminate the former supervisor’s position. This is an example of a team. a. problem-solving b. self-managed c. cross-functional d. virtual (b; Challenging; pp. 259-261) 123.

To better accomplish specific tasks, Joan is using task forces comprised of employees from different work areas. These are considered temporary teams. a. problem-solving b. self-managed c. cross-functional d. virtual (c; Challenging; pp. 259-261) 124.

Since Joan’s employees are located in Europe, Asia, and North America, she has decided to use computer technology to tie her employees together in order to achieve a common goal. This is an example of a team. a. problem-solving b. self-managed c. cross-functional d. virtual (d; Challenging; pp. 259-261) Application of Key Roles on Teams You have been assigned to a problem-solving team. You have never met any of the team members before but you have been given their resumes and it is your job to match the team members to the various roles that are needed for successful completion of your project. You have gathered the following information about the members of your team: Iris is a recent college graduate with a degree in mathematics. She is new to the company and seems eager to please but inexperienced. James has been with the company for 209

15 years and has had experience in several areas within the company. He has a reputation for being well organized and is a strong defender of the company and its policies. He always follows through and is able to coordinate the work of others. Betty is highly motivated and intelligent. She has several advanced degrees and is able to view situations from differing viewpoints. She is regarded as a good listener and as being able to coordinate and integrate. You have decided that you are willing to take on any group role that is handed to you but are more comfortable with implementation of ideas than with initiating them.

125.

The role which might best suit Iris is that of: a. creator. b. assessor. c. linker. d. maintainer. (b; Challenging; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 126.

James is best suited to which role? a. producer b. maintainer c. linker d. He is well suited to all of the above. (d; Challenging; Ex 9-4; p. 266) 127.

The person best suited for the role of adviser is probably: a. Betty. b. James. c. Iris. d. you. (a; Challenging; Ex 9-4; p. 266) Application of Diversity on Teams Suppose that you have been working for several years as a member of a team that is very diverse. You have team members from several ethnic backgrounds, of varying ages and from vastly different educational backgrounds. The manager of your team has been promoted and you have just been introduced to your new manager, Ms. Yuko. Ms. Yuko has been hired because it is believed that her extensive experience in the industry will be an asset to your team. Ms. Yuko has asked for your advice and help in understanding the problems associated with managing a diverse team.

128.

You should remind her that studies show: a. the positive contribution that diversity makes to decision-making teams generally declines over time. b. diverse groups are generally less creative. c. communication should be easier because the group is diverse. d. the group may be less open to new ideas because of its diversity. (a; Moderate; pp. 272-273)

129.

Ms. Yuko should expect the team to excel in because of its diversity. a. its ability to communicate b. its problem-solving and decision-making tasks c. its technical skills d. its ability to reach an agreement 210

(b; Moderate; pp. 272-273) 130.

Ms. Yuko should expect that the use of teams will: a. produce greater employee satisfaction. b. result in lower absenteeism. c. result in lower attrition. d. all of the above (d; Challenging; pp. 272-273) Application of Mature Teams The team of people with whom you work have been together for many years and you notice that they don’t always turn out the high-quality work that they did several years ago. You have decided to try to find out what the problem is and help the team work together like they did in the good old days.

131.

You have discovered that your team is: a. mature. b. lazy. c. diverse. d. lacking trust. (a; Easy; p. 273) You have decided that your work team meets the criteria for a ―mature‖ team. You know that mature teams are particularly prone to suffer from: a. lack of skills. b. groupthink. c. lack of cohesiveness. d. complexity. (b; Moderate; p. 273) 132.

133 Which of the following is not a suggestion for reinvigorating mature teams? a. Prepare members to deal with the problems of maturity. b. Encourage teams to view their development as complete and focus on other issues. c. Offer refresher training. d. Offer advanced training. (b; Moderate; p. 273) Application of Diversity in Teams You have decided that you must diversify your work team. You have heard that diversity promotes creativity and increases problem-solving skills.

134.

You should realize that diversity also may cause ambiguity and confusion in a work team.

(True; Moderate; pp. 272-273) 135.

You should expect that the diversified team will have reduced openness to new ideas.

(False; Moderate; pp. 272-273) 136.

You should expect that cohesiveness will be higher on your new diverse team.

(False; Moderate; pp. 272-273) 211

SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 137.

Why have teams become so popular?

(Page 257) Teams typically outperform individuals when the tasks being done require multiple skills, judgment, and experience. As organizations have restructured themselves to compete more effectively and efficiently, they have turned to teams as a way to better utilize employee talents.

Management has found that teams are more flexible and responsive to changing events than are traditional departments or other forms of permanent groupings. Teams have the capacity to quickly assemble, deploy, refocus, and disband. Teams facilitate employee participation in operating decisions. Teams, then, are an effective means for management to democratize their organizations and increase employee motivation.

138.

Discuss the difference between a work group and a work team.

(Page 258) A work group is a group that interacts primarily to share information and to make decisions to help each member performs within his or her area of responsibility. There is no positive synergy that would create an overall level of performance that is greater than the sum of the inputs. A work team generates positive synergy through coordinated effort. Their individual efforts result in a level of performance that is greater than the sum of those individual inputs.

139.

Discuss self-managed work teams.

(Pages 259-260) Self-managed work teams are groups of employees (typically 10 to 15 in number) who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. Typically, this includes planning and scheduling of work, assigning tasks to members, collective control over the pace of work, making operating decisions, taking action on problems, and working with suppliers and customers. Fully self-managed work teams even select their own members and have the members evaluate each other’s performance. As a result, supervisory positions take on decreased importance and may even be eliminated.

140.

What is a cross-functional team?

(Pages 260-261) Cross-functional teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. This is an effective means for allowing people from diverse areas within an organization to exchange information, develop new ideas and solve problems, and coordinate complex projects.

141.

What is a virtual team?

(Page 261) Virtual teams use computer technology to tie together physically dispersed members in order to achieve a common goal. They allow people to collaborate online using communication links like wide-area networks, video conferencing, or e-mail, whether they’re only a room away or continents apart. Virtual teams can do all things that other teams do – share information, make decisions, complete tasks.

212

142.

What are the factors that make a virtual team different from a face-to-face team?

(Pages 260-261) The three primary factors that differentiate virtual teams from face-to-face teams are the absence of paraverbal and nonverbal cues, limited social context, and the ability to overcome time and space constraints.

143.

What is team efficacy?

(Page 268) Effective teams have confidence in themselves. They believe they can succeed. This is called team efficacy. Teams that have been successful raise their beliefs about future success, which in turn, motivates them to work harder.

144.

Discuss strategies an organization might use to turn individuals into team players.

(Pages 270-271) Managers have several options to turn individuals into team players. When hiring team members, in addition to the technical skills required to fill the job, care should be taken to ensure that candidates can fulfill their team roles as well as technical requirements. A large proportion of people raised on the importance of individual accomplishment can be trained to become team players. Training specialists conduct exercises that allow employees to experience the satisfaction that teamwork can provide. The reward system needs to be reworked to encourage cooperative efforts rather than competitive ones. Promotions, pay raises, and other forms of recognition should be given to individuals for how effective they are as a collaborative team member.

145.

Why are teams an essential part of quality management?

(Page 271) The essence of quality management is process improvement, and employee involvement is the linchpin of process improvement. In other words, quality management requires management to give employees the encouragement to share ideas and act on what they suggest. Teams provide the natural vehicle for employees to share ideas and to implement improvements.

MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 146.

Teams can be classified based on their objective. Discuss the four most common forms of work teams: problem-solving teams, self-managed teams, cross-functional teams, and virtual teams.

(Pages 259-261) Teams can do a variety of things. They can make products, provide services, negotiate deals, coordinate projects, offer advice, and make decisions. The four most common types of team are problem-solving teams, self-managed teams, cross-functional teams, and virtual teams.

On problem-solving teams, members share ideas or offer suggestions on how work processes and methods can be improved. They meet for a few hours each week to discuss ways of improving quality, efficiency, and the work environment. Rarely, however, are these teams given the authority to unilaterally implement any of their suggested actions.

213

Self- managed work teams are groups of employees (typically 10 to 15 in number) who perform highly related or interdependent jobs and take on many of the responsibilities of their former supervisors. Typically, this includes planning and scheduling of work, assigning tasks to members, collective control over the pace of work, making operating decisions, taking action on problems, and working with suppliers and customers. Fully self-managed work teams even select their own members and have the members evaluate each other’s performance. As a result, supervisory positions take on decreased importance and may even be eliminated.

Cross-functional teams are made up of employees from about the same hierarchical level, but from different work areas, who come together to accomplish a task. This is an effective means for allowing people from diverse areas within an organization to exchange information, develop new ideas and solve problems, and coordinate complex projects.

Virtual teams use computer technology to tie together physically dispersed members in order to achieve a common goal. They allow people to collaborate online using communication links like wide-area networks, video conferencing, or e-mail, whether they’re only a room away or continents apart. Virtual teams can do all things that other teams do – share information, make decisions, complete tasks.

147.

The team effectiveness model identifies four categories of key components making up effective teams. What are these four categories? Give examples of each category.

(Pages 263-269) The key components making up effective teams can be subsumed into four general categories.

The first category is work design. Work design characteristics enhance motivation and increase team effectiveness. These characteristics motivate because they increase members’ sense of responsibility and ownership over the work and because they make the work more interesting to perform. The second relates to the team’s composition. To perform effectively, a team requires three different types of skills – technical expertise, problem-solving and decision-making skills, and interpersonal skills. No team can achieve its performance potential without developing all three types of skills. Third is the resources and contextual influences that make teams effective.

The four contextual factors that appear to be most significantly related to team performance are the presence of adequate resources, effective leadership, a climate of trust, and a performance evaluation and reward system that reflects team contributions. Finally, process variables reflect the things that go on in the team that influence effectiveness. These include member commitment to a common purpose, establishment of specific team goals, team efficacy, a managed level of conflict, and minimizing social loafing.

148.

Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of diversity on teams.

(Exh. 9-5, Page 272) The strongest case for diversity on work teams is when these teams are engaged in problem solving and decision making. Heterogeneous teams bring multiple perspectives to the discussion, thus increasing the likelihood that the team will identify creative or unique solutions.

Additionally, the lack of a common perspective usually means diverse teams spend more time discussing issues, which decreases the changes that a weak alternative will be chosen. However, this positive contribution that diversity makes to decision-making teams undoubtedly declines over time. Diverse groups have more difficulty working together and solving problems, but this dissipates with time. Expect the value-added component of diverse teams to increase as members become more familiar with each other and the team becomes more cohesive. Diversity is 214

detrimental to group cohesiveness. If the norms of the team are supportive of diversity, then a team can maximize the value of heterogeneity while, at the same time, achieving the benefits of high cohesiveness. This makes a strong case for team members to participate in diversity training.

COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 149.

What are some of the cautions to be aware of when using teams?

(Pages 262-263) Teams have increased communication demands, conflicts to be managed, and meetings to be run.

It has been suggested that three tests be applied to see if a team fits the situation. First, can the work be done better by more than one person? A good indicator is the complexity of the work and the need for different perspectives. Simple tasks that don’t require diverse input are probably better left to individuals. Second, does the work create a common purpose or set of goals for the people in the group that is more than the aggregate of individual goals? The final test to assess whether teams fit the situation is: Are the members of the group interdependent? Teams make sense where there is interdependence between tasks; where the success of the whole depends on the success of each one and the success of each one depends on the success of the others.

150.

What are some of the problems that might be encountered by mature teams? What can be done to reinvigorate a mature team?

(Page 273) Effective teams can become stagnant. Initial enthusiasm can give way to apathy. Time can diminish the positive value from diverse perspectives as cohesiveness increases. Familiarity breeds apathy. Success can lead to complacency. And maturity brings less openness to novel ideas and innovation. Mature teams are particularly prone to suffer from groupthink. Mature teams’ early successes are often due to having taken on easy tasks. ―But as time passes, the easy problems become solved and the team has to begin to confront more difficult issues. Internal team processes no longer work smoothly. Communication bogs down. Conflicts increase because problems are less likely to have obvious solutions. And team performance can drop dramatically.

Four suggestions to reinvigorate mature teams are: prepare members to deal with the problems of maturity, offer refresher training, offer advanced training, and encourage teams to treat their development as a constant learning experience.

215

Chapter 10 Communication MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

Research indicates that poor interpersonal conflict. a. motivation b. leadership c. training d. communication (d; Moderate; p. 283) 2.

Individuals spend nearly a. 30 b. 50 c. 70 d. 90 (c; Moderate; p. 283)

is probably the most frequently cited source of

percent of their waking hours communicating.

3.

must include both the transference and the understanding of meaning. a. Motivation b. Leadership c. Training d. Communication (d; Moderate; p. 284) Functions of Communication 4.

Formal guidelines and authority hierarchies are examples of which function of communication? a. control b. interaction c. organization d. information (a; Moderate; p. 284) 5.

Communication serves all of the following functions within a group or organization except: a. motivation. b. time management. c. emotional expression. d. control. (b; Moderate; p. 284) 6.

When employees are required to follow their job description or to comply with company policies, communication is performing a function. a. control b. motivation c. emotional expression d. information

216

(a; Moderate; p. 284) 7.

Clarification to employees about what is to be done, how well they are doing, and what can be done to improve performance if it is subpar are examples of which function of communication? a. information b. control c. motivation d. emotional expression (c; Moderate; p. 284) 8.

The function of communication that facilitates decision making is: a. emotional expression. b. information. c. control. d. motivation. (b; Moderate; p. 284) The Communication Process 9.

The step(s) between a source and a receiver that result in the transference and understanding of meaning is: a. the communication process. b. understanding. c. feedback. d. encoding. (a; Moderate; p. 284) 10.

Which of the following occurs before the others? a. transmitting b. decoding c. encoding d. understanding (c; Moderate; Ex 10-1; p. 285)

11.

What is the final link in the communication process? a. decode b. feedback c. channel d. encode (b; Moderate; Ex 10-1; p. 285)

12.

The initiates a message by encoding a thought. a. channel b. source c. receiver d. feedback (b; Easy; p. 285)

217

13.

As depicted in the communication process model, the source initiates a message by: a. making contact with the receiver. b. choosing a channel of communication. c. encoding a thought. d. giving feedback to the sender. (c; Easy; p. 285) 14.

The actual physical product means by which a source expresses information is the: a. channel. b. message. c. jargon. d. medium. (b; Moderate; p. 285) 15.

The medium through which communication travels is called a: a. receiver. b. message. c. feedback mechanism. d. channel. (d; Moderate; p. 285)

16.

Formal channels traditionally follow the a. grapevine b. authority chain c. informal channels d. nonverbal messages (b; Moderate; p. 285)

within the organization.

17.

is the check on how successful we have been in transferring our messages as originally intended. a. Decode b. Feedback c. Channel d. Encode (b; Easy; p. 285) 18.

John writes a memo to his employees. Putting his thoughts onto paper is an example of: a. encoding. b. decoding. c. feedback. d. channeling. (a; Moderate; p. 285) Translating a sender’s communication message describes: a. the message. b. decoding. c. the channel. d. feedback. (b; Moderate; p. 285) 19.

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Direction of Communication 20.

The communication that is used by group leaders and managers to assign goals, point out problems that need attention, and provide job instructions is: a. downward communication. b. lateral communication. c. informal communication. d. directional communication. (a; Challenging; p. 285) 21.

Which of the following is an example of downward communication flow? a. suggestion boxes b. envelope attitude surveys c. feedback on job performance d. identifying with and discussing problems with the boss (c; Moderate; p. 285) 22.

All of the following are examples of downward communication flows except: a. managers assigning goals. b. informing employees of procedures. c. pointing out problems that need attention. d. conducting employee attitude surveys. (d; Challenging; p. 285) 23.

Most formal directives issued by managers to subordinates would follow which communication direction? a. upward b. downward c. lateral d. across (b; Easy; p. 285) 24.

Suggestion boxes, employee attitude surveys, and grievance procedures are examples of: a. organizational structure. b. horizontal communication. c. managerial communication. d. upward communication. (d; Moderate; p. 286) 25.

Communication that takes place among members of the same work group is: a. vertical communication. b. downward communication. c. occupational communication. d. lateral communication. (d; Easy; p. 286)

219

26.

Which of the following is not an example of upward communication? a. performance reports prepared by lower management for top management b. informing employees of policies c. suggestion boxes d. grievance procedures (b; Moderate; p. 286) 27.

When can lateral communications create dysfunctional conflict? a. when the formal vertical channels are breached b. when members go above or around their superiors to get things done c. when bosses find out that actions have been taken or decisions made without their knowledge d. all of the above (d; Challenging; p. 286) Interpersonal Communications 28.

Which is not one of the three basic methods by which group members transfer meaning between and among each other? a. oral b. written c. grapevine d. nonverbal (c; Moderate; p. 286) The game ―telephone‖ demonstrates the major disadvantage of oral communication when the message has to be passed through a number of people. This is: a. static on the line. b. potential distortion. c. nonverbal cues. d. language barriers. (b; Moderate; pp. 286-287) 29.

30.

The terms asymmetric digital subscriber line, dark fiber, and dynamic host configuration protocol are examples of: a. technobabble. b. the dot.com bubble. c. architecture. d. acronyms. (a; Easy; p. 287) 31.

Memos, letters, e-mail, fax transmissions, and organizational periodicals represent: a. informal organizational communication channels. b. formal organizational communication channels. c. written communication. d. technological communication. (c; Moderate; p. 287)

220

32.

A sender may choose to use written communication since: a. they’re tangible and verifiable. b. both the sender and receiver have a record of the communication. c. the message can be stored for an indefinite period of time. d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 287) 33.

Which of the following is not a drawback of written messages? a. They’re time consuming. b. They are more likely to be well thought-out, logical, and clear. c. There is a lack of feedback. d. There is no assurance the communication has been received. (b; Moderate; pp. 287-288) Organizational Communication

34.

Messages conveyed through body movements and facial expressions are: a. body language. b. kinesics. c. rumors. d. paralinguistics. (a; Moderate; p. 288) 35.

Facial expressions, physical distance, and looking at your watch are all examples of: a. kinesics. b. nonverbal communication. c. informal networks. d. verbal communication. (b; Moderate; p. 288) 36.

All of the following are examples of nonverbal communication except: a. intonations or emphasis given to words. b. evaluation of a competitor’s intentions. c. physical distance between the message sender and receiver. d. facial expressions. (b; Moderate; p. 288)

37.

Computer-aided communication includes all of the following except: a. intranet links. b. telephone calls. c. videoconferencing. d. e-mail. (b; Moderate; p. 292)

38.

Which of the following is not a benefit of e-mail as a communications tool? a. E-mail messages can be quickly written, edited, and stored. b. E-mail messages can be distributed to one person or thousands with a click of a mouse. c. They lack emotional content. d. They can be read at the recipient’s convenience.

221

(c; Challenging; p. 293) 39.

are private, organization-wide information networks that look and act like a web site but to which only people in an organization have access. a. Intranets b. Extranets c. Videoconferences d. Teleconferences (a; Moderate; p. 293) 40.

Which of the following statements is not characteristic of nonverbal communication? a. It includes meanings transmitted through facial expressions. b. It is insignificant and should be ignored in the process of explaining and predicting behavior. c. It does not make use of oral processes, speech, or formal language. d. Less is known about it than is known about verbal communication. (b; Moderate; p. 288) Organizational Communication

41.

define the channels by which information flows. a. Communication networks b. Vertical channels c. Horizontal channels d. Wheels (a; Easy; p. 290) 42.

In a formal organization, a(n) relations with no deviations: a. vertical b. directional c. chain d. all-channel (c; Moderate; p. 290)

network would be found in direct-line authority

43.

An example of a(n) communication network is when a checkout clerk reports to a department manager, who in turn reports to a store manager, who reports to a regional manager. a. lateral b. all-channel c. ―Y‖ d. chain (d; Moderate; p. 290) 44.

When all communication is channeled through the supervisor, a network exists. a. directional b. circle c. lateral d. wheel

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communication

(d; Moderate; p. 290) 45.

The communication network is best illustrated by an unstructured committee. a. wheel b. all-channel c. interpersonal d. circle (b; Moderate; p. 290) 46.

In terms of facilitating the emergence of a leader, the most effective communication network is: a. chain. b. ―Y.‖ c. wheel. d. circle. (c; Moderate; p. 290) 47.

Which of the following is not a formal small-group network? a. chain b. wheel c. spoke d. all-channel (c; Easy; p. 290) 48.

In one study of the grapevine, it was found that only percent of the executives acted as liaison individuals; that is, passed the information on to more than one other person. a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25 (a; Challenging; p. 291) 49.

The network is best if you are concerned with high member satisfaction. a. chain b. circle c. wheel d. all-channel (d; Moderate; p. 290)

50.

The network is best if accuracy is important. a. chain b. circle c. wheel d. all-channel (a; Moderate; p. 290)

223

51.

The informal communication network is called the: a. gossip monger. b. grapevine. c. chain. d. all-network. (b; Easy; p. 290) 52.

The grapevine is: a. controlled by management. b. perceived by most employees as being more reliable than formal communication issued by top management. c. used to serve the self-interests of management. d. usually inaccurate. (b; Moderate; p. 291) 53.

Grapevine studies have shown that accurate. a. 50 b. 75 c. 60 d. 65 (b; Moderate; p. 291)

percent of the information transmitted is

54.

Rumors would most likely flourish in situations where there is: a. planned and well-communicated change. b. anxiety. c. an unimportant issue. d. open communication. (b; Moderate; p. 292)

55.

Which element does not have to be present in order for a rumor to emerge? a. anxiety b. importance c. competition d. ambiguity (c; Moderate; p. 292)

56.

With regard to the grapevine, a manager should try to: a. ignore it. b. destroy it. c. understand its importance to the communication network. d. force people to use formal communication channels. (c; Moderate; p. 292) 57.

There is a rumor in your organization that layoffs are inevitable. Which of the following is not suggested by your text as a way to reduce the negative consequences of rumors? a. Explain decisions that may appear inconsistent or secretive. b. Emphasize the downside, as well as the upside, of current decisions and future plans. c. Ignore the rumor. d. Openly discuss worst case possibilities.

224

(c; Moderate; Exh. 10-5; p. 292) Choice of Communication Channel 58.

When Neal Patterson, CEO of Lerner Corporation sent his seething e-mail to 400 managers, he erred by selecting: a. the wrong channel for his message. b. the wrong message. c. the wrong distribution channel. d. the wrong language. (a; Moderate; pp. 295-296) 59.

All of the following are true regarding face-to-face communication except: a. it scores highest in terms of channel richness. b. it provides for a maximum amount of information to be transmitted. c. feedback is delayed. d. it offers multiple information cues. (c; Moderate; p. 295)

60.

The amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode is: a. feedback. b. filtering. c. perception. d. channel richness. (d; Easy; p. 295) Barriers to Effective Communication 61.

Filtering, selective perception, defensiveness, and language are all: a. potential barriers to effective communication. b. communication techniques. c. necessary for effective communication. d. none of the above (a; Easy; p. 297) 62.

When a person manipulates information so that it will be seen more favorably by the receiver, he is: a. using selective perception. b. filtering information. c. communicating favorably. d. using vertical communication. (b; Moderate; p. 297) 63.

Which of the following is not a barrier to effective communication? a. filtering b. channel richness c. selective perception d. language (b; Moderate; p2 97)

225

64.

Jake tells his boss only what he believes the boss wants to hear. He is engaging in: a. filtering. b. selective perception. c. jargon. d. feedback. (a; Moderate; p. 297) 65.

Receivers in communication selectively see and hear based on their needs, motivations, experience, background, and other personal characteristics. This is called: a. language. b. filtering. c. selective perception. d. emotions. (c; Moderate; p. 297) 66.

An interviewer who was expecting a female applicant to put her family ahead of her career is using: a. prejudice. b. selective perception. c. nonverbal communication. d. filtering. (b; Challenging; p. 297) 67.

occurs when the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity. a. Selective processing b. Information overload c. Filtering d. Effective communication (b; Moderate; p. 297) 68.

Variables cited by your text that influence the language a person uses include all of the following except: a. age. b. religion. c. education. d. cultural background. (b; Moderate; pp. 297-298) 69.

Specialists develop their own technical language, or their group. a. norms b. subculture c. emoticons d. jargon (d; Easy; p. 298)

226

, to aid communication within

70.

is the tension and anxiety about oral communication, written, or both. a. Noncommunication b. Communication apprehension c. Communication breakdown d. Communication absence (b; Moderate; p. 299)

71.

All of the following are true concerning oral-communication apprehensives except: a. they prefer to talk on the phone rather than engage in face-to-face conversation. b. they distort the communication demands of their jobs. c. they limit their oral communication and then tend to rationalize their behavior. d. they rely on memos or letters to convey information better taken care of through oral communication. (a; Moderate; p. 299) Current Issues in Communication Tannen’s research indicates that men use talk to a. emphasize status; create connections. b. build relationships; get promotions. c. establish blame; emphasize status. d. create networks; emphasize separateness. (a; Challenging; p. 299)

72.

, while women use it to

73.

Which of the following is true regarding the difference between genders when they communicate? a. Women apologize less. b. Women cast themselves in a superior light. c. Women avoid directness and prefer subtlety. d. Women tend to be more boastful. (c; Moderate; pp. 299-300) 74.

Which of the following is an example of silence as communication? a. gaps b. hesitation c. pauses d. all of the above (d; Moderate; p. 300) 75.

Which of the following is not a problem related to language difficulties in cross-cultural communications? a. barriers caused by tone difference b. barriers caused by word connotations c. barriers caused by semantics d. barriers caused by political correctness (d; Challenging; pp. 302-303)

227

76.

cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues when communicating with others. a. High-context b. Low-context c. High-content d. Low-content (a; Moderate; pp. 303-304) 77.

Low-context cultures, like that of a. China b. Saudi Arabia c. Vietnam d. Germany (d; Challenging; p. 304)

, rely essentially on words to convey meaning.

78.

Low-context cultures value: a. status. b. directness. c. subtle cues. d. trust. (b; Moderate; p. 304) 79.

In dealing with cross-cultural communication, a manager might practice putting herself in the place of the employee, a method termed: a. sympathy. b. empathy. c. symbolic interaction. d. semantics. (b; Easy; p. 305) 80.

Which of the following is not a recommendation for reducing misperceptions when communicating with people from a different culture? a. Assume differences until similarity is proven. b. Emphasize interpretation and evaluation rather than descriptions. c. Practice empathy. d. Treat your interpretations as a working hypothesis. (b; Moderate; pp. 304-305) TRUE/FALSE 81.

No group can exist without communication.

(True; Moderate; p. 283) 82.

Poor communication is probably the most frequently cited source of interpersonal conflict.

(True; Easy; p. 283) 83.

Communication must include either the transference or the understanding of meaning.

(False; Moderate; p. 284)

228

Functions of Communication 84.

Informal communication can also control behavior.

(True; Moderate; p. 284) 85.

Communication provides a release for the emotional expression of feelings and for fulfillment of social needs.

(True; Moderate; p. 284) 86.

Of all the functions served by communication, providing information is the most important.

(False; Challenging; p. 284) The Communication Process 87.

In the communication process, decoding should precede encoding.

(False; Moderate; Ex 10-1; p. 285) 88.

Reading is a form of communication.

(True; Moderate; p. 285) 89.

Formal channels traditionally follow the authority chain within the organization.

(True; Easy; p. 285) 90.

The encoder is the object to whom the message is directed.

(False; Moderate; p. 285) 91.

Messages travel through media called channels.

(True; Easy; p. 285) 92.

When two people are talking, the words are the message.

(True; Moderate; p. 285) 93.

Feedback determines whether understanding has been achieved.

(True; Moderate; p. 285) Direction of Communication 94.

Communication can flow vertically or laterally.

(True; Easy; p. 285) 95.

Downward communication must be oral or face-to-face contact.

(False; Easy; p. 285) 96.

When feedback is being given to high-level individuals in an organization, upward communication is taking place.

(True; Easy; p. 286) 97.

Lateral communications break the chain of command in an organization.

(True; Moderate; p. 286)

229

98.

Lateral communication can create dysfunctional conflicts.

(True; Moderate; p. 286) Interpersonal Communication 99.

The chief means of conveying messages is oral communication.

(True; Easy; p. 286) 100.

The advantages of oral communication are speed and feedback.

(True; Moderate; p. 286) 101.

Oral communications are more likely to be well thought-out, logical, and clear.

(False; Moderate; p. 287) 102.

Written communication has a built-in feedback mechanism.

(False; Moderate; p. 288) 103.

Examples of nonverbal communication include messages transmitted by facial expressions and body movements.

(True; Moderate; p. 288) 104.

Body language conveys the relative perceived status between a sender and receiver.

(True; Easy; p. 288) 105.

Body language tends to make verbal communication much less complicated.

(False; Easy; p. 288) 106.

Facial expression can indicate something quite different from the verbal message being sent.

(True; Easy; p. 288) 107.

The way individuals space themselves in terms of physical distance has meaning.

(True, Moderate, p. 288) 108.

A recent study found that the average U.S. employee receives 31 e-mail messages a day.

(True, Easy, p. 293) 109.

A benefit of e-mail as a communications tool is information overload.

(False; Moderate; p. 293) 110.

Organizations are creating intranet links that connect international employees with selected suppliers, customers, and strategic partners.

(False; Moderate; p. 293) Organizational Communication 111.

Three common small-group networks are chain, wheel, and global.

(False; Moderate; Ex 10-3; p. 290) 112.

The all-channel network rigidly follows the formal chain of command.

230

(False; Easy; p. 290) 113.

The grapevine is a type of formal communication.

(False; Moderate; p. 290) 114.

The grapevine is perceived by most employees as being more believable and reliable than formal communiqués issued by management.

(True; Challenging; p. 291) 115.

Rumors flourish in ambiguous situations.

(True; Moderate; p. 291) 116.

Evidence indicates that about 90 percent of the information on the grapevine is accurate.

(False; Challenging; p. 291) 117.

Electronic mail is the ideal means to convey messages that might evoke emotional responses.

(False; Moderate; p. 293) 118.

Organizational boundaries become less relevant as a result of electronic communications.

(True; Moderate; p. 293) Choice of Communication Channel 119.

Face-to-face communication scores highest in terms of channel richness.

(True; Easy; Ex 10-7; p. 295) 120.

Managers can communicate nonroutine messages efficiently through channels that are lower in richness.

(False; Moderate; p. 296) Barriers to Effective Communication 121.

Filtering is most likely to occur in organizations in which there is emphasis on status differences and among employees with strong career mobility aspirations.

(True; Challenging; p. 297) 122.

Selective perception refers to a sender manipulating information so that it will be seen more favorably by the receiver.

(False; Moderate; p. 297) 123.

Filtering, selective perception, defensiveness, and language are all potential barriers to effective communication.

(True; Moderate; p. 297) 124.

When the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity, the result is selective perception.

(False; Moderate; p. 297)

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125.

When people feel threatened, they become defensive and create a barrier to effective communication.

(True; Moderate; p. 297) 126.

A receiver who is experiencing depression may interpret a message differently from one who is experiencing jubilation.

(True; Easy; p. 297) 127.

Jargon is synonymous with ―buzzwords.‖ (True; Easy; p. 298) 128.

It is estimated that anywhere from five to twenty percent of the population suffers from communication apprehension.

(True; Moderate; pp. 298-299) 129.

People who suffer from communication apprehension experience undue tension and anxiety in oral communication, written communication, or both.

(True; Challenging; p. 298) Current Issues in Communication 130.

Tannen has found that gender often creates oral communication barriers.

(True; Moderate; p. 299) 131.

Tannen found that women use talk to emphasize status whereas men use it to create connection.

(False; Moderate; p. 299) 132.

Men use a communication style that allows others to save face by avoiding directness and preferring subtlety.

(False; Moderate; p. 299) 133.

Women view telling a problem as a means to promote closeness.

(True; Moderate; p. 299) 134.

Men are more direct than women in conversation.

(True; Easy; p. 300) 135.

There are several links between silence and work-related behavior.

(True, Easy, p. 300) When we eliminate words from usage because they’re politically incorrect, we reduce our option for conveying messages in the clearest and most accurate form.

(True; Easy; p. 301) 136.

137.

Cross-cultural communications may have a barrier caused by tone differences.

(True; Moderate; p. 303) 138.

Low-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues when communicating with others.

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(False; Moderate; p. 304) 139.

In high-context cultures, enforceable contracts tend to be in writing and precisely worded.

(False; Challenging; p. 304) SCENARIO-BASED QUESTIONS Application of the Communication Process Mary telephones her employee, Joe, to let him know that today’s meeting has been moved to one o’clock.

140.

In the communication process, Mary is: a. the source. b. the receiver. c. the message. d. the channel. (a; Moderate; pp. 284-285) 141.

The telephone is the: a. source. b. sender. c. medium. d. message. (c; Moderate; pp. 284-285) Joe misses the one o’clock meeting since he misunderstood which meeting Mary was referring to. This misunderstanding occurred as a lack of: a. encoding. b. decoding. c. channels. d. feedback. (d; Moderate; pp. 284-285) 142.

Application of Barriers to Effective Communication Zeus Industries sells satellite television systems. The senior management feels that barriers are hindering communication. Frequently, senior managers feel that their employees are telling them only what they want senior managers to hear. Some middle managers are unable to deal with the vast amount of information in this fast-changing industry. The industry has the additional problem of communicating with users of satellite systems who do not understand the specialized technical language of the industry.

143.

When subordinates manipulate information so that it will be seen more favorably by their managers, occurs. a. filtering b. sabotage c. feedback d. overload

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(a; Moderate; p. 297) 144.

When the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity, the result is: a. filtering. b. feedback. c. information overload. d. defensiveness. (c; Moderate; p. 297) 145.

is likely to occur in organizations in which there is emphasis on status differences. a. Selective perception b. Information overload c. Defensiveness d. Filtering (d; Challenging; p. 297) 146.

The specialized technical language used in an industry is termed: a. communicado. b. jargon. c. dogma. d. slang. (b; Easy; p. 297) Application of Gender Differences in Communication You are presenting a training seminar on the differences in the ways that men and women communicate in a business environment. You stage the following scenario for your participants: Mary:

Ralph: Mary: Ralph: Mary:

―I have been thinking all day about which one of the employees should be promoted to manager. Ralph, I’d like to get your impression and opinion of the three possible candidates.‖ ―Hire Jackson.‖ ―Well...I’d really like to discuss this so that we can both be comfortable with this decision.‖ ―You asked my opinion. I said that we should hire Jackson. What’s wrong with you, can’t you make a decision?‖ ―I’m sorry, maybe we can talk later.‖

147.

Which of the following is a point that you should make sure that your participants understand? a. Mary is being indecisive. b. Mary is using the discussion to try to make a connection with Ralph so that their working relationship will be better. c. Mary is using talk to emphasize her status. d. Ralph is attempting to gain support from Mary through discussion. (b; Challenging; pp. 299-300) 148.

Which of the following statements is false? a. When men hear a problem, they offer solutions. b. Men see apologies as a weakness.

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c. Women typically use apologies to put men in an uncomfortable position. d. Men use talk to emphasize their status. (c; Challenging; pp. 299-300) 149.

The women in the group need to understand how men see their use of language. Which of the following statements is false? a. Men complain that women talk on and on about a problem without solving it. b. Men believe that apologies show weakness. c. Men use conversations to preserve independence, not build relationships. d. Men are less direct in conversations than women. (d; Moderate; pp. 299-300) Application of Cultural Context Brenda is a recruiter for a global corporation with subsidiaries all over the world. She needs to convey information to future employees that will help them understand the importance of communicating across cultures.

150.

Brenda explains to future employees that heavily on nonverbal cues. a. low-content b. high-content c. low-context d. high-context (d; Moderate; p. 308)

cultures, like China and Vietnam, rely

151.

Oral agreements imply strong commitments in cultures. a. low-content b. high-content c. low-context d. high-context (d; Moderate; p. 308) 152.

Which of the following is a good tip to employees who must deal with different cultures? a. Assume differences until similarities are proven. b. Emphasize evaluation rather than description. c. Practice sympathy. d. Act immediately so you’ll be viewed as decisive. (a; Moderate; p. 308) SHORT DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 153.

What are the four functions of communication?

(Page 284) Communication serves four major functions within a group or organization: control, motivation, emotional expression, and information. Communication acts to control member behavior in several ways. Communication fosters motivation by clarifying to employees what is to be done, how well they are doing, and what can be done to improve performance if it’s subpar. For many employees, their work group is a primary source

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for social interaction. Finally, communication facilitates decision making by providing information.

154.

What are the steps in the communication process model?

(Ex 10-1, Pages 284-285) The seven parts of the communication process are the source, encoding, the message, the channel, decoding, the receiver, and feedback. The source initiates a message by encoding a thought. The message is the actual physical product from the source encoding. The channel is the medium through which the message travels. The receiver is the object to whom the message is directed. The symbols must be translated into a form that can be understood by the receiver. This is the decoding. The final link is a feedback loop.

155.

What are the communication flows?

(Pages 285-286) Communication can flow vertically or laterally. The vertical dimension can be further divided into downward and upward directions.

156.

What is communication apprehension?

(Pages 298-299) Communication apprehension is a major barrier to effective communication. People who suffer from communication apprehension experience undue tension and anxiety in oral communication, written communication, or both.

157.

Explain the concept of nonverbal communication.

(Pages 288-289) Nonverbal communication includes body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, facial expressions, and the physical distance between the sender and receiver.

158.

What is the grapevine?

(Pages 290-292) The informal communication system is the grapevine. While it is informal, it doesn’t mean that it is not an important source of information. A survey found that 75 percent of employees hear about matters first through rumors on the grapevine.

159.

What is channel richness?

(Page 295) Channels differ in their capacity to convey information. Some are rich in that they have the ability to handle multiple cues simultaneously, facilitate rapid feedback, and be very personal. Face-to-face conversation scores highest in terms of channel richness.

MEDIUM LENGTH DISCUSSION QUESTIONS 160.

What are the three basic methods of interpersonal communication?

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(Pages 286-289) The three basic methods of interpersonal communication are oral, written, and nonverbal communication. The chief means of conveying messages is oral communication.

Speeches, formal one-on-one and group discussions, and the informal rumor mill or grapevine are popular forms of oral communication. Written communications include memos, letters, electronic mail, fax transmissions, organizational periodicals, notices placed on bulletin boards, or any other device that is transmitted via written words or symbols. Nonverbal communications includes body movements, the intonations or emphasis we give to words, facial expressions, and the physical distance between the sender and receiver.

161.

List and explain four barriers to effective communication.

(Pages 296-297) Filtering refers to a sender’s purposely manipulating information so it will be seen more favorably by the receiver. Selective perception occurs when receivers process communication selectively to see and hear based on their needs, motivations, experience, background, and other personal characteristics. When the information we have to work with exceeds our processing capacity, the result is information overload. How the receiver feels at the time of receipt of a communication message will influence how he or she interprets it. Words mean different things to different people. Age, education, and cultural background are three of the most obvious variables that influence the language a person uses and the definitions he or she gives to words.

162.

Discuss the three common small group networks (wheel, chain, and all-channel).

Evaluate each on their effectiveness.

(Exhibit 10-3, Page 290) The chain rigidly follows the formal chain of command. This network approximates the communication channels you might find in a rigid three-level organization. The wheel relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for all the group’s communication. It stimulates the communication network you would find on a team with a strong leader.

The all-channel network is most often characterized in practice by self-managed teams, in which all group members are free to contribute and no one person takes on a leadership role. The structure of the wheel facilitates the emergence of a leader. The all-channel network is best if you are concerned with having high member satisfaction. The chain is best if accuracy is most important. No single network will be best for all occasions.

163.

What are the benefits and drawbacks of e-mail?

(Pages 292-293) E-mail messages can be quickly written, edited, and stored. They can be distributed to one person or thousands with a click of a mouse. They can be read, in their entirety, at the convenience of the recipient. And the cost of sending formal e-mail messages to employees is a fraction of what it would cost to print, duplicate, and distribute a comparable letter or brochure.

Information overload is a drawback. It’s not unusual for employees to get a hundred or more e-mails a day. Reading, absorbing, and responding to such an inflow can literally

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consume an employee’s entire day. In essence, e-mail’s ease of use has become its biggest negative. Employees are finding it increasingly difficult to distinguish important e-mails from junk mail and irrelevant messages. Another drawback of e-mails is that they lack emotional content. The nonverbal cues don’t come across in e-mail. They can be cold and impersonal. As such, it’s not the ideal means to convey information like layoffs, plant closings, or other messages that might evoke emotional responses and require empathy or social support.

164.

How can gender create oral communication barriers?

(Pages 299-300) Men use talk to emphasize status, while women use it to create connection.

Communication is a continual balancing act, juggling the conflicting needs for intimacy and independence. Intimacy emphasizes closeness and commonalities. Independence emphasizes separateness and differences. Women speak and hear a language of connection and intimacy; men speak and hear a language of status, power, and independence. So, for many men, conversations are primarily a means to preserve independence and maintain status in a hierarchical social order. For women, conversations are negotiations for closeness in which people try to seek and give confirmation and support. Men are also more direct than women in conversation.

Women tend to be less boastful than men. Finally, men often criticize women for seeming to apologize all the time since they see the phrase ―I’m sorry‖ as a weakness.

They interpret the phrase to mean the woman is accepting blame.

COMPREHENSIVE ESSAYS 165.

Discuss the communication process. explain the seven parts of this model.

(Exhibit 10-1, Pages 284-285)

Include the communication process model and

Before communication can take place, a purpose, expressed as a message to be conveyed, is needed. It passes between a source (the sender) and a receiver. The message is encoded (converted to a symbolic form) and passed by way of some medium (channel) to the receiver, who retranslates (decodes) the message initiated by the sender. The result is a transference of meaning from one person to another.

The seven parts of the communication process are the source, encoding, the message, the channel, decoding, the receiver, and feedback. The source initiates a message by encoding a thought. The message is the actual physical product from the source encoding. The channel is the medium through which the message travels. The receiver is the object to whom the message is directed. The symbols must be translated into a form that can be understood by the receiver. This is the decoding. The final link is a feedback loop.

166.

Discuss specific problems related to cross-cultural communication. barriers and cultural context.

(Pages 302-304)

Include cultural

There are four specific problems related to language difficulties in cross-cultural communications. First, there are barriers caused by semantics. Second, there are barriers

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caused by word connotations. Third are barriers caused by tone differences.

Fourth, there are barriers caused by differences among perceptions.

Cultures tend to differ in the importance to which context influences the meaning that individuals take from what is actually said or written versus who the other person is. High-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues when communicating with others. What is not said may be more significant than what is said. A person’s official status, place in society, and reputation carry considerable weight in communications. People in low-context cultures rely essentially on words to convey meaning. Body language or formal titles are secondary to spoken and written words.

167.

Discuss four ways to reduce misinterpretations when communicating with people from a different culture.

(Pages 304-305) The following four rules can be helpful when communicating with people from different cultures.

1. Assume differences until similarity is proven. You are less likely to make an error if you assume others are different from you rather than assuming similarity until differences are proven.

2. Emphasize description rather than interpretation or evaluation. Delay judgment until you’ve had sufficient time to observe and interpret the situations from the differing perspectives of all the cultures involved.

3. Practice empathy. Before sending a message, put yourself in the recipient’s shoes.

4. Treat your interpretations as a working hypothesis. Recognize that you need further testing of your hypothesis. Carefully assess the feedback provided by recipients to see if it confirms your hypothesis.

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