TEST BANK for Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants 6th Edition by Leighann Remmert, Sorrentino

Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants 6th Edition Sorrentino Test Bank Chapter 01: Introduction to Health Care Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An acute illness is a. a sudden illness from which the person is expected to recover. b. an on-going illness for which there is no known cure. c. an illness that is slow or gradual in onset. d. an illness for which there is no reasonable expectation of recovery.

ANS: A

REF: p. 002

2. An on-going illness that is slow or gradual in onset and for which there is no known cure is a. an acute illness. b. a chronic illness. c. a terminal illness. d. a physical illness.

ANS: B

REF: p. 002

3. Functional nursing is a. a nursing care pattern focusing on tasks and jobs. b. a nursing care pattern in which an RN is responsible for the person’s total care. c. a team of nursing staff led by an RN who delegates care to other nurses. d. moving services from departments to the bedside.

ANS: A

REF: p. 005

4. An RN is responsible for the person’s total care. This is called a. team nursing. b. primary nursing. c. functional nursing. d. patient-focused care.

ANS: B

REF: p. 005

5. Persons living in long-term care centers are called a. patients. b. clients. c. residents. d. individuals.

ANS: C

REF: p. 002

6. Persons receiving care in hospitals are called a. patients. b. clients. c. residents. d. individuals.

ANS: A

REF: p. 002

7. Which health team member is responsible for the entire nursing staff? a. Nurse manager b. Charge nurse c. Staff nurse d. Director of nursing ANS: D

REF: p. 004

8. An assisted living residence (ALR) a. provides three meals a day and 24-hour supervision. b. is for persons with terminal illnesses. c. provides complex, on-going rehabilitation. d. is for persons with chronic mental illness.

ANS: A

REF: p. 003

9. Assisted living residences (ALRs) provide the following except a. housing. b. personal care. c. complex medical care. d. social activities.

ANS: C

REF: p. 002

10. Which of these individuals perform delegated nursing tasks under the supervision of a

licensed nurse? a. Nurse practitioners b. Social workers c. Nursing assistants d. Medical technologists ANS: C

REF: p. 005

11. The nursing team involves the following except a. physicians. b. RNs. c. LPNs. d. nursing assistants.

ANS: A

REF: p. 005

12. Which person leads the health team? a. An RN b. An LPN/LVN c. A nurse manager d. A nursing assistant ANS: A

REF: p. 005

13. LPNs/LVNs may be supervised by all of the following except a. RN. b. nursing assistant.

c. licensed doctor. d. licensed dentist.

ANS: B

REF: p. 005

14. Which health team member assesses, makes nursing diagnoses, plans, implements, and

evaluates nursing care? a. RN b. LPN c. Nursing assistant d. Case manager ANS: A

REF: p. 005

15. As a nursing assistant, you are part of a. the interdisciplinary health care team. b. the board of trustees. c. the case management team. d. the prospective payment system.

ANS: A

REF: p. 004

16. Which term describes when services are moved from departments to the patient’s bedside? a. Case management b. Patient-focused care c. Primary nursing d. Team nursing ANS: B 17.

REF: p.N 00U5

Nursing education staff a. manages physicians. b. supervises dietitians. c. trains nursing assistants. d. oversees social workers.

ANS: C

REF: p. 005

18. Dementia care units are a. open units. b. closed units. c. hospice units. d. managed care units.

ANS: B

REF: p. 003

19. A hospice is a. a skilled nursing facility. b. a home health care agency. c. a health care program for persons who present dangers to themselves or others. d. an agency or program for persons who are dying.

ANS: D

REF: p. 003

20. A federal health insurance program for persons 65 years of age and older is a. Private insurance. b. Group insurance. c. an HMO. d. Medicare.

ANS: D

REF: p. 006

21. Medicaid is a. a preferred provider organization. b. a health care payment program jointly funded by the federal government and the

states. c. a private insurance plan bought by individuals. d. a federal health insurance program for persons 65 years of age or older.

ANS: B

REF: p. 006

22. The goal of the health team is to a. provide quality care. b. carry out the doctor’s orders. c. develop care plans for patients and residents. d. follow agency policies and procedures.

ANS: A

REF: p. 004

23. Generally, persons needing complete care in long-term care centers a. know who and where they are, the year, and time of day.

N R I G B.C M

b. can meet their needs. c. are very disabled, confused, or disoriented. d. can say what they need and want.

ANS: C

REF: p. 002

24. Short-term nursing center residents a. have birth defects. b. have childhood injuries or diseases. c. are recovering from fractures, acute illness or surgery, and other injuries. d. are dying.

ANS: C

REF: p. 002

25. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act requires that a. people over 65 years of age have Medicare. b. mentally ill patients are institutionalized. c. nurses care for all patients equally. d. all Americans have health insurance.

ANS: D

REF: p. 006

26. An illness from which the person will not likely recover is a. an acute illness. b. a terminal illness.

c. a hospice illness. d. respite care.

ANS: B

REF: p. 002

27. During the survey process your role is to a. protect the person’s rights. b. discourage the family members from speaking to a surveyor. c. hide in the supply room so that the surveyors can speak only to nurses. d. guess at any answer you do not know.

ANS: A

REF: p. 007

28. A survey is performed to determine if a. nurses are delegating properly. b. nursing assistants are focusing on PRIDE. c. patients are recovering from illness. d. standards are being met.

ANS: D

REF: p. 007

29. You are responsible for the care you give. To provide quality care a. follow agency policy only when completing a task you have not done before. b. refuse to mop the floor that is wet since it is not your normal routine. c. reprimand a person who is disrespectful to you so that he/she will not be able to

get away with it. d. maintain good work ethics.

ANS: D

REF: p.N 00U7

Chapter 02: The Person’s Rights Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A resident’s son is visiting. Which will not protect the person’s privacy? a. Allowing the person and her son to visit without interrupting b. Asking the person’s son to leave while you give care c. Exposing the person’s body in front of her son d. Allowing the person’s son to read her e-mail to her in private ANS: C

REF: p. 011

2. Residents of long-term care centers are informed of their rights a. orally and in writing. b. after they are admitted to the nursing center. c. by the doctor. d. only if the resident asks to receive information.

ANS: A

REF: p. 010

3. Which is not a patient right? The right to a. a clean and safe setting. b. privacy. c. be involved in care. d. information about other patients.

ANS: D

REF: p. 011

4. Which statement is correct? a. Restraints are used to discipline a person. b. Restraints are used if you feel they are needed. c. Restraints are used for staff convenience. d. Restraint use requires a doctor’s order.

ANS: D

REF: p. 013

5. Restraints are ordered by the a. nurse. b. interdisciplinary health care team. c. doctor. d. the person’s legal representative.

ANS: C

REF: p. 013

6. Residents of nursing centers can work for the following reasons except a. for care, care items, and privileges. b. if the person wants to. c. for activity reasons. d. for rehabilitation reasons.

ANS: A

REF: p. 013

7. Someone who supports or promotes the needs and interests of another person in the long-term

care setting is known as a/an a. representative. b. ombudsman. c. surveyor. d. director of nursing.

ANS: B

REF: p. 010

8. You have an important role in meeting standards and in the survey process. A surveyor may

ask you a. if you arrived to work on time today. b. how you provide needed transportation. c. whether or not you are married. d. where you went to school.

ANS: B

REF: p. 015

9. If a resident refuses his or her morning treatment, the center must a. respect his or her wish and ask no further questions. b. threaten to call his or her family member. c. remove all privileges for the day until the resident takes the medication. d. find out the reason for the refusal and offer other treatment options.

ANS: D

REF: p. 012

10. A patient’s family member asks you for the laboratory results of their mother. You N otRmSen IN G B.CutMloud. a. show them the results but nU tionTthem oO b. refer them to the doctor. c. report their request to the nurse. d. make a photocopy of the laboratory results for the family member.

ANS: C

REF: p. 012

11. Resident rights are a major part of a. Medicare and Medicaid. b. health maintenance organizations. c. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987. d. The Older Americans Act. ANS: C

REF: p. 010

12. You protect a resident’s privacy during a bath by a. opening window shades so that the person can see outside. b. opening the door to the person’s room. c. closing the privacy curtain. d. avoiding draping the person to prevent chilling.

ANS: C

REF: p. 012

13. An example of a resident’s right is a. right to a job.

b. right to information. c. right to select his or her roommate. d. right to elope.

ANS: B

REF: p. 012

14. An example of involuntary seclusion is a. having the person sleep in his or her room at night. b. forcing the person to remain in his or her room during breakfast. c. allowing the person to talk in the courtyard area during daylight hours. d. permitting the person to remain in his or her room while it is being cleaned.

ANS: B

REF: p. 013

TRUE/FALSE 1. You are responsible for protecting the resident’s rights.

ANS: T

REF: p. 010

2. The resident can visit with family and friends in private.

ANS: T

REF: p. 011

3. A resident wants a bath in the evening, not in the morning. The person has the right to make

this choice.

ANS: T

REF: p.N 01U6R

4. A student wants to observe a treatment. The person’s consent is not needed because the

observer is a student.

ANS: F

REF: p. 012

5. Restraints may be used for disciplining a person who has been using the call light excessively.

ANS: F

REF: p. 013

6. Every person has the right to refuse treatment regardless of what the doctor suggests.

ANS: T

REF: p. 012

7. It is a resident’s right to have his or her privacy and confidentiality maintained of written

communications only.

ANS: F

REF: p. 010

8. It is a resident’s right to be seen by the facility’s main doctor even if the resident prefers

someone else.

ANS: T

REF: p. 011

Chapter 03: The Nursing Assistant Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. OBRA requires training and a competency evaluation for nursing assistants working in a. hospital acute-care units. b. nursing centers. c. hospices. d. doctors’ offices.

ANS: B

REF: p. 019

2. How many hours of instruction does OBRA require? a. 16 b. 32 c. At least 48 d. At least 75 ANS: D

REF: p. 019

3. The competency evaluation required by OBRA involves a a. written test only. b. skills test only. c. written test and a skills test. d. licensing examination.

ANS: C

REF: p. 019

4. How many testing attempts does OBRA allow? a. 1 b. At least 2 c. At least 3 d. At least 4 ANS: C

REF: p. 019

5. The nursing assistant registry includes information about a. prior education. b. children. c. marriages. d. findings of abuse, neglect, or dishonest use of property.

ANS: D 6.

REF: p. 019

A new competency evaluation is required for persons who have not worked as a nursing assistant for 24 months. were found guilty of abuse or neglect. were convicted of a crime. did not have good performance evaluations.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

REF: p. 020

7. As a nursing assistant, you can a. report changes in the person’s condition to the nurse. b. give drugs and insert tubes into body openings. c. take verbal or phone orders from doctors. d. discuss the person’s diagnosis with the family.

ANS: A

REF: p. 021

8. A nurse asks you to perform a task that is beyond the legal limits of your role. Which is

correct? a. Perform the task so that you do not lose your job. b. Firmly refuse and explain why. c. Ignore the request. d. Think about it for a few days.

ANS: B

REF: p. 027

9. Which tells you what the agency expects you to do? a. Your job description b. The state nurse practice act c. OBRA d. Code of ethics ANS: A

REF: p. 022

10. A nurse can delegate a. responsibilities. b. accountability. c. the Five Rights of Delegation. d. nursing tasks.

ANS: D

REF: p. 025

11. Which nursing team members cannot delegate? a. RNs b. LPNs c. LVNs d. Nursing assistants ANS: D

REF: p. 025

12. Before a nurse delegates a task to you, the nurse must know the following except a. Is the task included in your job description? b. Do you want to perform the task? c. Do you have the necessary training to perform the task? d. Do you have the experience to perform the task safely?

ANS: B 13.

REF: p. 025

Does a nurse have to delegate a task to you? a. Yes, if the task is in your job description. b. Yes, if the nurse teaches you how to perform the task.

c. No. The nurse makes delegation decisions that are best for the person. d. No. The nurse performs the task unless he or she is busy.

ANS: C

REF: p. 025

14. The Five Rights of Delegation involve a. the right task, the right circumstances, the right person, the right directions and

communication, and the right supervision. b. the right law, the right job description, the right policies and procedures, the right

training, and the right communication and supervision. c. the right task, the right job description, the right person, the right training, and the

right supervision. d. the right job description, the right task, the right person, the right directions and

communication, and the right supervision.

ANS: A

REF: p. 027

15. You can refuse to do a delegated task if a. you are too busy. b. you do not like the task. c. it is the end of your shift and you are ready to go home. d. the task is not in your job description.

ANS: D

REF: p. 027

Chapter 04: Ethics and Laws Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The willful infliction of injury that results in physical harm is known as a. assault. b. defamation. c. battery. d. abuse.

ANS: D

REF: p. 030

2. Touching a person’s body without his or her consent is a. assault. b. battery. c. invasion of privacy. d. libel.

ANS: B

REF: p. 030

3. Intentionally attempting or threatening to touch a person’s body without the person’s consent

is a. assault. b. battery. c. invasion of privacy. d. defamation.

ANS: A

REF: p. 030

4. Knowledge of what is right conduct and wrong conduct is a. ethics. b. torts. c. civil law. d. public law.

ANS: A

REF: p. 031

5. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1987 (OBRA) requires a. nurses to utilize good work ethics. b. investigation results be reported within 15 days of the incident. c. claims of abuse to be thoroughly investigated. d. the matter be reported to the doctor immediately.

ANS: C

REF: p. 038

6. You give incorrect information on a job application. This is a. libel. b. slander. c. defamation. d. fraud.

ANS: D

REF: p. 033

7. Unlawful restraint or restriction of a person’s movement is a. malpractice. b. invasion of privacy. c. negligence. d. false imprisonment.

ANS: D

REF: p. 033

8. An ethical person a. does not cause a person harm. b. is biased. c. is prejudiced. d. does not have opinions or facts.

ANS: A

REF: p. 031

9. An act or behavior that meets your needs, not the needs of the patient or resident, is a. a crime. b. assault. c. a boundary violation. d. defamation.

ANS: C

REF: p. 031

10. You tell your patient what a great time you had on your date last night. This is a. invasion of privacy. b. boundary crossing. c. slander. d. emotional abuse.

ANS: B

REF: p. 032

11. Protecting the right to privacy involves the following except a. keeping information about the person confidential. b. exposing only the body part involved in care or the procedure. c. allowing visitors to remain in the room when care is given. d. screening the person when giving care.

ANS: C

REF: p. 033

12. A nursing assistant pinches and pushes a patient. This is a. negligence. b. malpractice. c. neglect. d. physical abuse.

ANS: D

REF: p. 037

13. A resident’s call light goes unanswered. His son finds the person lying on sheets soaked with

urine. This is

a. b. c. d.

neglect. emotional abuse. physical abuse. malpractice.

ANS: A

REF: p. 036

14. A resident did not get to the bathroom in time. She urinated and had a bowel movement in her

clothing. To prevent an accident in the dining room, the nurse makes the person stay in her room. This is a. malpractice. b. involuntary seclusion. c. neglect. d. physical abuse.

ANS: B

REF: p. 037

15. You see a nursing assistant hitting a patient. What should you do? a. Talk to the patient. b. Call the police. c. Tell the nurse. d. Mind your own business.

ANS: C

REF: p. 038

16. You are walking by a patient room. You hear a nurse shouting at a patient. This is a. battery. b. a tort. c. verbal abuse. d. neglect.

ANS: C

REF: p. 037

17. You suspect that a nursing center resident is being abused. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Call the police. c. Talk to the family. d. Mind your own business.

ANS: A

REF: p. 038

18. The process by which a person receives and understands information about a treatment or

procedure and is able to decide if she or he will receive it is a. negligence. b. boundary crossing. c. deceit. d. informed consent.

ANS: D

REF: p. 035

19. To prevent defamation never a. cause a patient physical harm. b. make false statements about anyone.

c. report abuse or neglect. d. tell the truth.

ANS: B

REF: p. 034

20. Child abuse occurs in children a. under 18 years of age. b. only between ages 6 and 15. c. who no longer live with their parents. d. ages 19 to 24.

ANS: A

REF: p. 038

TRUE/FALSE 1. Intimate partner violence is physical, sexual, or psychological harm by a current or former

partner or spouse.

ANS: T

REF: p. 038

2. Elder abuse is any knowing, intentional, or negligent act by a caregiver or any other person to

an older adult.

ANS: T

REF: p. 036

3. Wrongful use of electronic communications can result in jail time.

ANS: T

REF: p.N 03U4

Chapter 05: Student and Work Ethics Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Work ethics means a. trusting others with personal information. b. being polite and considerate. c. behavior in the workplace. d. right and wrong conduct.

ANS: C

REF: p. 042

2. You say things that offend, trouble, torment, or worry another person. This is a. gossip. b. defamation. c. being rude. d. harassment.

ANS: D

REF: p. 042

3. Which will not promote physical and mental health? a. Good nutrition b. Having your eyes checked c. Taking drugs as a doctor prescribes d. Getting 5 hours of sleep daily ANS: D

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 043

4. Good personal hygiene involves a. bathing daily. b. using perfume to cover up any body odors. c. showering three times per week. d. brushing teeth daily.

ANS: A

REF: p. 043

5. To look professional at work a. follow the agency’s dress code. b. wear your favorite clothes. c. keep your nails polished. d. wear shoes that are in style.

ANS: A

REF: p. 044

6. Uniforms, stockings and socks, and shoes must be a. clean. b. in style. c. white. d. provided by the agency.

ANS: A

REF: p. 044

7. Under-garments must a. be simple and attractive. b. be clean and fit properly. c. give needed support. d. be in style.

ANS: B

REF: p. 044

8. You have a tattoo. You should a. have it removed. b. wear uniforms that allow it to be seen. c. cover it. d. show it to patients and residents.

ANS: C

REF: p. 044

9. Large rings are dangerous because a. patients and residents can pull them off. b. they can scratch patients and residents. c. they can fall off and become lost. d. they can damage care equipment.

ANS: B

REF: p. 044

10. You should wear a wristwatch that a. is digital. b. has a second hand. c. has a stopwatch. d. has an alarm.

ANS: B

REF: p. 044

11. Nail polish a. must be a light shade. b. must be in good repair. c. must be a dark shade. d. is not worn.

ANS: D

REF: p. 044

12. Perfumes, colognes, and after-shave lotions a. should not be worn. b. must be a light fragrance. c. must be approved by the agency. d. should prevent body odors.

ANS: A

REF: p. 044

13. Being dependable means the following except a. reporting to work on time. b. being eager to learn. c. performing delegated tasks.

d. keeping promises.

ANS: B

REF: p. 044

14. Being honest means the following except a. reporting accurately care given. b. reporting errors. c. reporting observations. d. reporting gossip.

ANS: D

REF: p. 043

15. Having concern for a person is a. caring. b. empathy. c. enthusiasm. d. respect.

ANS: A

REF: p. 043

16. Treating a person with dignity at all times is a. consideration. b. empathy. c. respectfulness. d. cheerfulness.

ANS: C

REF: p. 043

17. Understanding your feelings,NsU treRnS gtI hsN ,G anT dB w. eaCkO neM sses is a. consideration. b. trustworthiness. c. conscientiousness. d. self-awareness.

ANS: D

REF: p. 043

18. You have multiple earring piercings. You should a. wear only one set of earrings. b. plug the holes. c. wear as many earrings as needed. d. limit earrings to the lower ear lobe.

ANS: A

REF: p. 044

19. Necklaces and earrings are dangerous because a. patients and residents can pull them off. b. they can scratch patients and residents. c. they provide a place for microbes to grow and multiply. d. they can damage care equipment.

ANS: A

REF: p. 044

20. An example of a statement that displays a bad attitude is

a. the nursing assistant who says “I can’t, I’m too busy.” b. the nursing assistant who asks “Would you be able to assist me with a bath within

the next 30 minutes?” c. the RN who states “I really appreciate your help today.” d. the nursing assistant who states “I’m sorry. I can’t help you right now, but I can in

20 minutes when I finish this bath.”

ANS: A

REF: p. 045

21. You see two health team members talking quietly to each other. You tell your co-workers

what you overheard. This is a. eavesdropping. b. gossip. c. an invasion of privacy. d. defamation.

ANS: B

REF: p. 046

22. When you eavesdrop, you a. invade the person’s privacy. b. commit fraud. c. promote confidentiality. d. gossip.

ANS: A

REF: p. 046

23. A good example of keeping personal matters out of the workplace is a. carrying a personal pager. b. asking a co-worker for lunch money. c. using the agency’s computer to check your personal e-mail. d. making a doctor’s appointment for your day off.

ANS: D

REF: p. 046

24. A person who helps cover an employee on break is the a. patient. b. patient’s family. c. dietitian. d. unit staff member.

ANS: D

REF: p. 047

25. The action that protects patients, residents, and you from harm is a. following your job description and agency policies and procedures. b. following the other nursing assistant’s instructions. c. telling the nurse when you make a mistake once you have gone home for the day. d. making excuses or blaming others for your actions.

ANS: A

REF: p. 047

26. You have planned your work. Your next step is to a. discuss priorities with the nurse. b. list care that needs to be done without using a schedule or time frame.

c. gather needed supplies once you go into the person’s room to complete the task. d. look like you are staying busy so others will not ask for help.

ANS: A

REF: p. 047

27. The following can help reduce stress: a. Do one thing at a time. b. Eat a favorite meal regardless of nutritional value. c. Sleep 5 hours a night. d. Exercise minimally.

ANS: A

REF: p. 048

28. When resigning from a job, you should a. give your reason for leaving. b. give a 5-day notice. c. tell the employer you would have been able to work at the agency if things had

changed. d. make a list of the things you do not like about your job and the agency.

ANS: A

REF: p. 049

29. If you do this, you could lose your job: a. Show respect to patients, families, and visitors. b. Keep perfect attendance. c. Abandon patients. d. Use alcohol at home.

ANS: C

REF: p.N 05U0

30. Childcare emergencies are a. your responsibility. b. the agency’s responsibility. c. your co-workers’ responsibility. d. part of your benefits package.

ANS: A

REF: p. 045

31. You are the carpool driver today. You need to get gas. What should you do? a. Leave earlier than usual. b. Get gas after you pick everyone up. c. Get gas after work. d. Ask everyone to help pay for the gas.

ANS: A

REF: p. 045

32. You are ill and cannot work as scheduled. What should you do? a. Find someone to work for you. b. Follow the agency’s attendance policy. c. Call your supervisor after your shift starts. d. Go to bed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 045

33. You need to arrive for work a. before your shift starts. b. when your shift starts. c. within 5 minutes of your shift’s starting time. d. within 10 minutes of your shift’s starting time.

ANS: A

REF: p. 045

34. You are scheduled to work from 3:00 PM to 11:30 PM. Which is correct? a. You must stay the entire time. b. You can leave at 11:25 PM. c. You can leave when your work is done. d. You do not have to work overtime.

ANS: A

REF: p. 045

35. A patient did not get her meal served on time. While displaying a good attitude, how should

you respond to the nurse? a. “It’s not my fault. I was helping Jody with a patient.” b. “I’m sorry. Can you help me plan better?” c. “That’s not my resident.” d. “I work harder than anyone else.”

ANS: B

REF: p. 046

36. You see two health team members talking about what they saw a resident’s family member do

at a restaurant last night. ThisNis R I G B.C M U S N T O a. gossip. b. eavesdropping. c. harassment. d. defamation.

ANS: A

REF: p. 046

37. During lunch, your co-workers are talking about other staff members. What should you do? a. Excuse yourself and leave the table. b. Sit there without saying anything. c. Tell the nurse what happened. d. Share the comments with staff members who were not there.

ANS: A

REF: p. 046

38. You can share information about a patient or resident with a. the family. b. housekeeping staff. c. the nurse supervising your work. d. visitors.

ANS: C

REF: p. 046

39. You need to talk to the nurse about a patient or resident. Where should you do this? a. In the person’s room

b. In the hallway c. In private d. Over the intercom system ANS: C

REF: p. 046

40. The best way to look professional at work is to a. ask your friends to help you shop for uniforms. b. wear your favorite clothes to work. c. check yourself in the mirror before leaving for work. d. follow the agency’s dress code.

ANS: D

REF: p. 044

41. Professional speech and language include the following except a. using slang. b. speaking softly and gently. c. speaking clearly. d. controlling the loudness of your voice.

ANS: A

REF: p. 046

42. Which is not a courtesy? a. Saying “please” and “thank you” b. Holding doors open for others c. Helping others when asked to do so d. Calling a resident “Grandpa” ANS: D

REF: p.N 04U6

43. You need to call your children. When should you make the call? a. After finishing assigned tasks b. When patients or residents are napping c. During meal or break times d. When the nurse is talking to the doctor ANS: C

REF: p. 046

44. Which of the following is good work ethics? a. Using phones on the nursing unit to make personal calls b. Selling your handmade crafts at work c. Having your son meet you for lunch d. Bringing your child to work with you ANS: C

REF: p. 046

45. Your break time is 15 minutes long. How long can you take? a. 10 minutes b. 15 minutes c. 20 minutes d. As long as you need ANS: B

REF: p. 047

46. Before leaving the unit for a break, you need to a. use the restroom. b. tell the nurse. c. turn off the computer. d. turn off your pager.

ANS: B

REF: p. 047

47. You have planned your work. Which is not a good part of your plan? a. Discussing priorities with the nurse b. Listing tasks that need to be done on a schedule c. Assisting a person with a shower whenever it is good for your schedule d. Staying focused and asking others if they need help ANS: C

REF: p. 047

48. Stress is a. anything that is not pleasant. b. the response or change in the body caused by any emotional, physical, social, or

economic factor. c. anxiety, fear, anger, dread, and depression. d. the factor that causes illness.

ANS: B

REF: p. 048

49. Which statement about stress is incorrect? a. Stress is normal. b. Stress occurs with everything you do. c. Stress affects the whole person. d. Stress only occurs from unpleasant events.

ANS: D

REF: p. 048

50. Which will not help reduce or cope with stress? a. Getting regular exercise b. Setting priorities c. Skipping meals d. Getting enough rest ANS: C

REF: p. 048

51. Your work is causing you stress. What should you do? a. Stay home from work. b. Talk to your co-workers. c. Tell your patients about the problem. d. Talk to the nurse.

ANS: D

REF: p. 048

52. Which statement about harassment is incorrect? a. Harassment is always sexual. b. Harassment can involve words, gestures, or touch.

c. Harassment can involve jokes and pictures. d. Victims of sexual harassment can be men or women.

ANS: A

REF: p. 049

53. You decide to resign from your job. Which is good practice? a. Do not show up for work. b. Give a 2-week notice. c. Hire someone to take your place. d. Give a 1-day notice.

ANS: B

REF: p. 049

54. You could lose your job for the following reasons except a. poor attendance. b. leaving the job during your shift. c. using alcohol at work. d. being harassed.

ANS: D

REF: p. 049

55. You could lose your job for the following reasons except a. refusing to accept a delegated task that is not in your job description. b. neglecting a patient or resident. c. violating any agency policy. d. giving false information on your job application.

ANS: A

REF: p. 050

56. You could lose your job for the following reasons except a. using offensive speech and language. b. destroying a patient’s or resident’s property. c. having a weapon in the workplace. d. working when scheduled.

ANS: D

REF: p. 050

TRUE/FALSE 1. Stress in your personal life affects your work and the care you give.

ANS: T

REF: p. 048

2. Spending time with those who make you laugh can help you reduce and cope with stress.

ANS: T

REF: p. 048

3. Stress can cause life-threatening problems.

ANS: T

REF: p. 048

Chapter 06: Health Team Communications Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The health team exchanges information. They send and receive messages. This is a. gossip. b. communication. c. reporting. d. resolving conflict.

ANS: B

REF: p. 053

2. Communication is a. the verbal account of care and observations. b. the written account of care and observations. c. the exchange of information. d. the medical record.

ANS: C

REF: p. 053

3. Which has the same meaning for everyone? a. Hot b. Warm c. Elevated temperature d. Temperature of 99°F ANS: D

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 053

4. Which does not promote communication? a. Being brief and concise b. Giving information in the order the events occurred c. Presenting facts d. Talking about two subjects at once ANS: D

REF: p. 053

5. Agencies have policies about medical records. Policies address the following except a. medical terms. b. abbreviations. c. signing entries. d. correcting errors.

ANS: A

REF: p. 053

6. Which statement about medical records is incorrect? a. They include the person’s identifying information. b. They are legal documents. c. They are used to communicate information about a person. d. All agency staff can access them.

ANS: D

REF: p. 053

7. An electronic health record is a. used in addition to a paper chart. b. an electronic version of a person’s medical record. c. only accessible by physicians. d. used only by nurses.

ANS: B

REF: p. 053

8. This section has the person’s identifying information. It is used to complete forms that require

the same information. a. The admission information b. The progress notes c. The activities of daily living flow sheet d. The Kardex ANS: A

REF: p. 053

9. You are working in a nursing center. Where would you record information about a person’s

weight, vital signs, and elimination? a. The admission sheet b. The progress notes c. Flow sheets and graphic sheets d. The Kardex ANS: C

REF: p. 053

10. The health history is a. approved by the patient. b. ordered by the physician. c. used to summarize care. d. completed by the nurse.

ANS: D

REF: p. 053

11. The method nurses use to plan and deliver nursing care is the a. nursing process. b. nursing care plan. c. nursing diagnosis. d. nursing intervention.

ANS: A

REF: p. 054

12. Collecting information about a person is a. assessment. b. gossip. c. implementation. d. evaluation.

ANS: A

REF: p. 054

13. An action is taken by the nursing team. Care is given in this step. This action is a. a nursing diagnosis.

b. a nursing intervention. c. an evaluation. d. the nursing process.

ANS: B

REF: p. 056

14. You use your senses to a. collect information about the person. b. record. c. report. d. determine the symptoms a client is having.

ANS: A

REF: p. 054

15. Which is the first step of the nursing process? a. Nursing diagnosis b. Planning c. Assessment d. Evaluation ANS: C

REF: p. 054

16. Information that you can see, hear, feel, or smell is a. assessment. b. observation. c. objective data. d. subjective data.

ANS: C

REF: p.N 05U4

17. Which is a sign? a. Dizziness b. Nausea c. Urine color yellow d. Headache ANS: C 18.

REF: p. 054

Which is a symptom?

Noisy respirations Pulse rate of 78 Cough Nausea

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

REF: p. 054

19. Symptoms are a. objective data. b. subjective data. c. seen, felt, touched, or heard. d. observed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 054

20. Which is required by CMS for nursing center residents? a. The Kardex b. The Minimum Data Set (MDS) c. Daily charting on the progress notes d. E-mail and electronic messages ANS: B

REF: p. 054

21. The RN uses assessment information to a. make medical diagnoses. b. make nursing diagnoses. c. change the care plan. d. implement the care plan.

ANS: B

REF: p. 056

22. The planning step of the nursing process involves the following except a. making nursing diagnoses. b. setting priorities. c. setting goals. d. identifying nursing interventions.

ANS: A

REF: p. 056

23. The nursing care plan contains the following except a. the doctor’s orders. b. nursing diagnoses. c. goals for care. d. measures for each goal.

ANS: A

REF: p. 056

24. A nursing intervention a. is the second step of the nursing process. b. allows social workers to contact patients. c. helps the patient reach a goal. d. includes the nursing assistant’s tasks.

ANS: C

REF: p. 056

25. Care is given during the a. assessment step of the nursing process. b. planning step of the nursing process. c. implementation step of the nursing process. d. evaluation step of the nursing process.

ANS: C

REF: p. 057

26. Which step in the nursing process involves measuring if the goals set in the planning step

were met? a. Assessment b. Planning

c. Implementation d. Evaluation ANS: D

REF: p. 057

27. Which statement about the nursing process is correct? a. The process is on-going. b. The steps can be completed in any order. c. It requires a doctor’s order. d. You are responsible for it.

ANS: A

REF: p. 054

28. The nurse communicates delegated tasks to you by using a. the nursing process. b. an assignment sheet. c. the Minimum Data Set (MDS). d. Resident Assessment Protocols (RAPs).

ANS: B

REF: p. 057

29. Which statement is correct? a. Nursing assistants do not have a role in the nursing process. b. Nursing process steps can be done in any order. c. The nursing process is the same as the care planning process. d. The nursing process deals with the person’s nursing needs.

ANS: D

REF: p. 054

30. You are reporting to the nurse. You should do the following except a. be prompt, thorough, and accurate. b. give report before leaving the unit. c. report what co-workers did. d. give the person’s name and room and bed number.

ANS: C

REF: p. 059

31. When should you report changes in the person’s condition? a. At once b. At the end of your shift c. Before you take your lunch break d. During the end-of-shift report ANS: A

REF: p. 059

32. Anyone who reads your charting should know the following except a. what you observed. b. what your co-workers did. c. what you did. d. the person’s response.

ANS: B

REF: p. 060

33. The agency allows you to record on charts. Which is incorrect? a. Ink is used, not pencil. b. Only agency-approved abbreviations are used. c. Errors are erased. d. All entries are signed with your name and title.

ANS: C

REF: p. 060

34. When recording, you should do the following except a. write neatly. b. use correct spelling, grammar, and punctuation. c. skip lines. d. record only what you did yourself.

ANS: C

REF: p. 060

35. Which statement about charting is incorrect? a. You can chart a procedure before completing it. b. You should use the person’s exact words whenever possible. c. You need to avoid terms with more than one meaning. d. You need to record facts.

ANS: A

REF: p. 060

36. You are charting changes in a person’s condition. You also need to chart the following except a. that you informed the nurse of the changes. b. what you told the nurse about the changes. c. the time you reported the changes to the nurse.

N R utItN G hanges B.CO M d. when you called the doctorUaboS he cT .

ANS: D

REF: p. 060

37. Which statement about electronic charting is incorrect? a. Log in using a co-worker’s password. b. Check the time your entry was made. c. Check for accuracy. d. Save your entry.

ANS: A

REF: p. 062

38. The standard clock time is 11:42 AM. In 24-hour clock time this is a. 11:42. b. 1142. c. 2342. d. 11:42 AM. ANS: B

REF: p. 058

39. The standard clock time is 7:29 PM. In 24-hour clock time this is a. 7:29 PM. b. 729. c. 0729. d. 1929.

ANS: D

REF: p. 058

40. A suffix is a. placed at the beginning of a word. b. the main part of the word. c. placed at the end of a word. d. a shortened form of a word or phrase.

ANS: C

REF: p. 062

41. Which term means located at or toward the front of the body or body part? a. Anterior b. Distal c. Medial d. Posterior ANS: A

REF: p. 065

42. Dys means a. without, not, lack of. b. slow. c. bad, difficult, abnormal. d. inner, inside.

ANS: C

REF: p. 063

43. Olig means a. half. b. without, not, lack of. c. small, scant. d. many, much.

ANS: C

REF: p. 063

44. Tachy means a. bad, difficult, abnormal. b. normal, good, well, healthy. c. slow. d. fast.

ANS: D

REF: p. 063

45. Arth(o) means a. rib. b. joint. c. bone. d. head.

ANS: B 46. Cyan(o) means a. heart.

REF: p. 063

b. skin. c. sugar. d. blue.

ANS: D

REF: p. 063

47. Derma means a. water. b. stone. c. tongue. d. skin.

ANS: D

REF: p. 064

48. Gluc(o) means a. intestine. b. water. c. sweetness. d. stone.

ANS: C 49.

REF: p. 064

Oste(o) means a. spinal cord. b. joint. c. bone. d. nerve.

ANS: C

REF: p.N 06U4

50. Stomat(o) means a. stomach. b. mouth. c. opening. d. narrow, constriction.

ANS: B

REF: p. 064

51. Vas(o) means a. artery. b. vein. c. blood vessel. d. dilate.

ANS: C

REF: p. 064

52. The suffix -algia means a. condition. b. pain. c. enlargement. d. disease.

ANS: B

REF: p. 064

53. The suffix -phagia means a. the study of. b. destruction of. c. disease. d. swallowing.

ANS: D

REF: p. 064

54. The suffix -stomy means a. removal of. b. cutting into. c. stomach. d. creation of an opening.

ANS: D

REF: p. 064

55. The suffix -plegia means a. paralysis. b. swallowing. c. speaking. d. sagging.

ANS: A

REF: p. 064

56. Lateral means a. toward the front. b. toward the back. c. away from mid-line. d. near mid-line.

ANS: C

REF: p. 065

57. You have access to the agency’s computer system. Which is correct? a. You can open another person’s e-mail. b. You can use the computer to send personal e-mail. c. You can use the computer to send confidential information to the nurse. d. You can log off after making an entry.

ANS: D

REF: p. 062

58. Which statement about computer use in health care agencies is correct? a. You should use the computer to send information that requires immediate

reporting. b. You should use the computer to send jokes and other entertaining material. c. You should enter information carefully and review your entry before saving. d. You should use the computer to post your opinions and messages on the Internet.

ANS: C

REF: p. 062

59. You should answer a phone by the a. second ring. b. fourth ring.

c. sixth ring. d. eighth ring.

ANS: B

REF: p. 063

60. After taking a message, you should a. repeat the message and phone number back to the caller. b. put the caller “on hold.” c. transfer the caller. d. lay the phone down.

ANS: A 61.

REF: p. 063

Before putting a caller “on hold” you should find out if the call is about an emergency. thank the person for calling. take a message. ask how long the caller can wait.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A 62.

REF: p. 063

When filling out a survey a. guess at your answers. b. be honest. c. finish it as quickly as possible. d. ask your supervisor to help you.

ANS: B

REF: p. 066

63. To show the nurse you are accountable, you should a. lie to the nurse if you weren’t able to complete a task. b. complete your charting while on break. c. report when you complete a task. d. not call out sick.

ANS: C

REF: p. 066

TRUE/FALSE 1. The nursing process is on-going. However, the steps (assessment, nursing diagnosis, planning,

implementation, and evaluation) stay the same.

ANS: T

REF: p. 054

Chapter 07: Understanding the Person Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A concept that considers the whole person is a. religion. b. culture. c. optimal level of function. d. holism.

ANS: D 2.

REF: p. 068

Verbal communication uses a. written or spoken words. b. body language. c. needs. d. culture.

ANS: A

REF: p. 068

3. Which statement is correct? a. Calling a resident by his or her first name shows respect. b. Calling a resident “sweetheart” promotes the person’s dignity. c. Calling patients and residents by their titles (Mr., Miss., Mrs., Ms., or Dr.)

promotes dignity and shows respect.

NrUanRdSpaI”NsG d. Calling a male resident “G hoT wB s. reC spO ecMt and caring.

ANS: C

REF: p. 069

4. Experiencing one’s potential is called a. esteem. b. self-esteem. c. self-actualization. d. holism.

ANS: C

REF: p. 069

5. Messages sent through facial expressions, gestures, posture, and body movements is called a. body language. b. clarifying. c. focusing. d. holism.

ANS: A

REF: p. 068

6. Which statement about the whole person is incorrect? a. The whole person has physical, social, psychological, and spiritual parts. b. The parts can be separated. c. Each part relates to the others. d. Each part depends on the others.

ANS: B

REF: p. 068

7. According to Maslow, which basic needs must be met first? a. Physical needs b. Safety and security needs c. Love and belonging needs d. Self-esteem and self-actualization needs ANS: A

REF: p. 069

8. Which is not a physical need? a. Oxygen b. Food c. Water d. Protection from harm ANS: D

REF: p. 069

9. You can help a patient or resident feel safe and secure by a. explaining what you will do. b. keeping the person in his or her room. c. asking direct questions. d. asking visitors to leave the room.

ANS: A

REF: p. 069

10. A person’s cultural beliefs and practices are a. included in the person’s cN are n.NGTB.COM URpla SI b. ordered by the doctor. c. not allowed in hospitals and nursing centers. d. determined by the health care team.

ANS: A

REF: p. 070

11. A nursing center resident wants to attend religious services in the center’s chapel. What

should you do? a. Assist the person to the chapel. b. Report the request to the nurse. c. Check the person’s care plan. d. Ask why the person wants to attend.

ANS: A

REF: p. 070

12. A person’s cultural beliefs and practices are different from yours. What should you do? a. Judge the person by your standards. b. Ask to care for other patients or residents. c. Accept and respect the person’s culture. d. Tell the person what you believe.

ANS: C

REF: p. 070

13. A person’s religion is different from yours. What should you do?

a. b. c. d.

Judge the person by your standards.

Ask to care for other patients or residents.

Not force your ideas on the person.

Tell the person what you believe.

ANS: C

REF: p. 070

14. Any lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function is a. an illness. b. a physical need. c. a medical problem. d. a disability.

ANS: D

REF: p. 075

15. Which is a common emotion caused by fear, pain, and dying? a. Anger b. Demanding behavior c. Self-centered behavior d. Withdrawal ANS: A

REF: p. 076

16. A resident stays in her room most of the time. The person likes being alone and does not

attend social events. How would you describe the person’s behavior? a. The person is demanding. b. The person is self-centered. c. The person is angry. d. The person is withdrawn.

ANS: D

REF: p. 076

17. A patient tends to pinch and kick the staff. The person is showing a. angry behavior. b. aggressive behavior. c. inappropriate sexual behavior. d. self-centered behavior.

ANS: B

REF: p. 076

18. A resident wants his meals served before anyone else. The person calls for the nursing

assistants when he sees them helping others. The person’s behavior is best described as a. demanding. b. self-centered. c. aggressive. d. angry.

ANS: B

REF: p. 076

19. A patient tends to shout and raise her voice when she wants something. The person does not

answer your questions and is not cooperative. The person’s behavior is a. angry. b. demanding.

c. self-centered. d. withdrawn.

ANS: A

REF: p. 076

20. A resident pinches and scratches when it is time for his or her shower. Do the following

except a. report the person’s behavior to the nurse. b. protect yourself from the pinching and scratching. c. stay calm. d. argue with the person and assure him or her you are doing what is best for him or her.

ANS: D

REF: p. 077

21. A person is angry and demanding. It is important to always a. treat the person with respect and dignity. b. ignore the person’s behavior. c. keep the person waiting. d. ask the nurse to talk to the person.

ANS: A

REF: p. 077

22. Effective communication involves the following except a. giving facts and being specific. b. respecting the person’s rights. c. respecting the person’s religion and culture. d. using big medical terms eN venRthoI ughGtheBp. erC sonMdoes not know them.

U S N T

ANS: D

O

REF: p. 074

23. You ask a patient a question. Which is correct? a. Give the person time to understand what you asked. b. Expect an answer right away. c. Ask the question in another way. d. Write the question on white paper.

ANS: A

REF: p. 074

24. You want to make sure that a person understands what you said. Which is correct? a. Assume that the person understands. b. Assume that the person is confused and disoriented. c. Respect the person’s culture and religion. d. Ask questions to see if the person understands.

ANS: D

REF: p. 074

25. A patient asks the same question many times. Which is correct? a. You need to be patient. b. Say that you already answered the question. c. Tell the person that you are answering again. d. Report the person’s behavior to the nurse.

ANS: A

REF: p. 071

26. For effective verbal communication, do the following except a. shout so the person can hear you. b. ask one question at a time. c. speak clearly and slowly. d. repeat information as needed.

ANS: A

REF: p. 071

27. For effective verbal communication, do the following except a. wait for an answer after asking a question. b. face the person. c. whisper to protect the person’s privacy. d. control the tone of your voice.

ANS: C

REF: p. 071

28. A resident is comatose. Before performing care a. tell the person your name. b. consult with the family. c. call the physician. d. ask another nursing assistant for help.

ANS: A

REF: p. 075

29. Which conveys comfort, caring, and reassurance? a. Body language b. Gestures c. Posture d. Touch ANS: D

REF: p. 075

30. Slumped posture means the person is a. sleepy. b. unwell. c. hungry. d. happy.

ANS: B

REF: p. 073

31. Which statement about body language is incorrect? a. You send messages with your body language. b. Patients and residents send messages through body language. c. Body language is easy to control. d. Body language involves body movements, eye contact, and facial expressions.

ANS: C

REF: p. 073

32. Which statement about body language is correct? a. Your appearance sends messages. b. Facial expressions mean the same thing in all cultures.

c. Maintaining eye contact is important in all cultures. d. It is always important to control your body language.

ANS: A

REF: p. 073

33. A person turns his eyes away from you. His face is flushed. These facial expressions most

likely mean that the person is a. afraid. b. angry. c. surprised. d. embarrassed.

ANS: D

REF: p. 073

34. A resident’s bowel movement has a strong odor. You should a. tell the person that the bowel movement smells. b. ask the person what he ate. c. control your body language. d. avoid eye contact with the person.

ANS: C

REF: p. 073

35. Listening involves a. observing the person’s nonverbal communication. b. using communication boards. c. leaning back with your arms crossed. d. using communication barriers.

ANS: A

REF: p.N 07U3

36. Which shows that you are listening to a person? a. Leaning away from the person b. Sitting with your arms crossed c. Having good eye contact with the person d. Changing the subject ANS: C

REF: p. 073

37. Which communication technique may give “yes” or “no” answers? a. Body language b. Direct questions c. Silence d. Open-ended questions ANS: B

REF: p. 074

38. Which is a direct question? a. “What do you want for lunch?” b. “Why don’t you want to eat?” c. “Tell me that again, please.” d. “Tell me about family.”

ANS: A

REF: p. 074

39. Which communication technique allows a person to choose what to talk about? a. Touch b. Direct questions c. Open-ended questions d. Clarifying ANS: C

REF: p. 074

40. You want to make sure that you understand a message. Which communication technique

should you use? a. Touch b. Clarifying c. Direct questions d. Silence ANS: B

REF: p. 074

41. A resident wants his or her meatloaf prepared a certain way. To clarify what the person is

saying, you say a. “Can you tell me that again?” b. “Do you want more pepper in it?” c. “Why do you want it made that way?” d. “Let’s talk about the meatloaf on your plate.”

ANS: A

REF: p. 074

42. A resident is very upset about his or her lunch. Which communication technique can help the

person gain control? a. Paraphrasing b. Silence c. Clarifying d. Direct question ANS: B

N R I G B.C M U S N T O

REF: p. 074

43. When someone changes the subject, it usually means that the person is a. angry. b. embarrassed. c. bored. d. uncomfortable with the topic.

ANS: D

REF: p. 074

44. Which is not a pat answer? a. “Everything will be just fine.” b. “Don’t worry.” c. “Can you tell me what’s wrong?” d. “I’ll take care of it.”

ANS: C

REF: p. 075

45. Which shows a lack of interest and caring?

a. b. c. d.

Silence and touch Open-ended questions Clarifying Not listening

ANS: D

REF: p. 075

46. Disabilities are acquired a. at birth. b. in childhood. c. in old age. d. any time.

ANS: D

REF: p. 075

47. A person is in a wheelchair. When communicating with the person you should a. lean on the wheelchair. b. pat the person on the head. c. sit or squat to talk to the person. d. look over the person’s head.

ANS: C

REF: p. 075

48. When speaking to a person with a disability, do the following except a. protect the person’s privacy. b. use the person’s first name. c. allow the person time to answer you. d. maintain eye contact.

ANS: B

REF: p. 075

49. A person is in a coma. This means that the person a. is confused and disoriented. b. has lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function. c. cannot hear. d. cannot respond to others.

ANS: D

REF: p. 075

50. When caring for a person who is comatose, do the following except a. knock before entering the person’s room. b. tell the person your name, the time, and the place every time you enter the room. c. explain what you are going to do. d. leave the room quietly without telling the person.

ANS: D

REF: p. 075

51. Family and friends a. affect the person’s quality of life. b. visit in the afternoon and evening. c. use effective communication techniques. d. need a doctor’s order to visit.

ANS: A

REF: p. 076

52. You think that a visitor is tiring a patient. What should you do? a. Ask the visitor to leave. b. Report your observations to the nurse. c. Allow them privacy. d. Ask the visitor to help you give care.

ANS: B

REF: p. 076

53. Family and visitors a. share the person’s cultural and religious beliefs. b. are treated with respect. c. help with the person’s care. d. are always helpful and comforting.

ANS: B

REF: p. 076

54. You are going to help a resident with a shower. To meet the person’s safety and security

needs, you a. tell the resident that taking a shower is required. b. encourage the resident to take a shower. c. offer to allow the resident to shower with his roommate. d. tell the resident that he or she will not be allowed to attend breakfast without having taken a shower.

ANS: B

REF: p. 069

N R I G B.C M

55. Family and friends usually helpUmeSet tN he pTerson’sO a. physical needs. b. love and belonging needs. c. self-acutalization needs. d. holism needs.

ANS: B

REF: p. 076

56. A common response to illness and disability is a. demanding behavior. b. anger. c. self-centered behavior. d. withdrawal.

ANS: B

REF: p. 076

TRUE/FALSE 1. Inappropriate sexual behavior is always on purpose.

ANS: F

REF: p. 076

2. You should always assume that a person who is comatose can hear and understand you.

ANS: T

REF: p. 075

Chapter 08: Body Structure and Function Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The basic unit of body structure is the a. cell. b. nucleus. c. organ. d. system.

ANS: A

REF: p. 079

2. Which part of the cell directs the cell’s activities? a. Cell membrane b. Cytoplasm c. Protoplasm d. Nucleus ANS: D

REF: p. 080

3. Where is the nucleus located? a. Outside the cell b. In the center of the cell c. Inside the genes d. Inside the chromosomes ANS: B

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 080

4. How many chromosomes are in each cell? a. 15 b. 23 c. 46 d. 92 ANS: C

REF: p. 080

5. The process of cell division is called a. protoplasm. b. chromosomes. c. nucleosis. d. mitosis.

ANS: D

REF: p. 080

6. Groups of cells with similar functions combine to form a. tissues. b. organs. c. chromosomes. d. genes.

ANS: A

REF: p. 080

7. Which allows the body to move by stretching and contracting? a. Epithelial tissue b. Connective tissue c. Muscle tissue d. Nerve tissue ANS: C

REF: p. 080

8. Groups of tissues with the same function form a. systems. b. organs. c. mitosis. d. chromosomes.

ANS: B

REF: p. 081

9. Systems are a. groups of organs that work together to perform special functions. b. tissues that cover internal and external body surfaces. c. tissues that receive and carry impulses to the brain and body parts. d. connective tissue that anchors, connects, and supports the body.

ANS: A

REF: p. 081

10. Which is the outer layer of the skin? a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Epithelium d. Nerves ANS: B

REF: p. 081

11. What gives skin its color? a. Genes b. Chromosomes c. Pigment d. Epidermis ANS: C

REF: p. 081

12. Where are blood vessels, nerves, sweat and oil glands, and hair roots found? a. The dermis b. The epidermis c. The integument d. The epithelium ANS: A

REF: p. 081

13. Which help the body regulate temperature? a. Muscles b. Hair and nails c. The sweat glands

d. The oil glands ANS: C

REF: p. 081

14. Which is not a function of the skin? a. It allows bacteria and other substances to enter the body. b. It prevents excess amounts of water from leaving the body. c. It protects organs from injury. d. It helps regulate body temperature.

ANS: A

REF: p. 081

15. The musculo-skeletal system does the following except a. provides the framework for the body. b. allows the body to move. c. protects the body. d. helps regulate body temperature.

ANS: D

REF: p. 082

16. Which bones bear the body’s weight? a. Long bones b. Short bones c. Flat bones d. Irregular bones ANS: A

REF: p. 082

17. Blood cells are formed in the a. cartilage. b. tendons. c. bone marrow. d. periosteum.

ANS: C

REF: p. 082

18. The point at which two or more bones meet is a. a joint. b. cartilage. c. a muscle. d. a tendon.

ANS: A

REF: p. 082

19. Bones are held together at a joint by a. cartilage. b. tendons. c. ligaments. d. periosteum.

ANS: C

REF: p. 082

20. The hips and shoulders are

a. b. c. d.

ball-and-socket joints. hinge joints. pivot joints. ligament joints.

ANS: A

REF: p. 082

21. Which are voluntary muscles? a. Stomach muscles b. Arm and leg muscles c. Heart muscle d. Intestinal muscles ANS: B

REF: p. 083

22. Muscles are connected to bones by a. ligaments. b. cartilage. c. tendons. d. joints.

ANS: C

REF: p. 083

23. The connective tissue at the end of long bones is a. ligament. b. cartilage. c. tendon. d. joint.

ANS: B

REF: p. 082

24. This is the largest part of the brain. It is the center of thought and intelligence. a. Cerebrum b. Cerebellum c. Midbrain d. Brainstem ANS: A

REF: p. 084

25. Which part of the brain regulates and coordinates body movements? a. The cerebral cortex b. The cerebrum c. The cerebellum d. The brainstem ANS: C

REF: p. 085

26. The brainstem contains the following structures except a. the midbrain. b. the pons. c. the medulla. d. the cerebral cortex.

ANS: D

REF: p. 085

27. Swallowing, coughing, and vomiting are controlled by the a. midbrain. b. pons. c. medulla. d. cerebral cortex.

ANS: C

REF: p. 085

28. Pathways that conduct messages to and from the brain are contained in the a. brainstem. b. pons. c. spinal cord. d. meninges.

ANS: C

REF: p. 085

29. The cerebrospinal fluid a. protects the brain and spinal cord. b. conducts messages to and from the brain. c. controls thought and intelligence. d. controls movement and balance.

ANS: A

REF: p. 085

30. The peripheral nervous system consists of a. the spinal cord. b. cranial nerves and spinal nerves. c. the cerebrum, cerebellum, and brainstem. d. the right and left hemispheres.

ANS: B

REF: p. 085

31. The sympathetic nervous system a. sends messages to and from the brain. b. controls thought and intelligence. c. speeds up body functions. d. slows down body functions.

ANS: C

REF: p. 085

32. The white of the eye is the a. sclera. b. pupil. c. cornea. d. iris.

ANS: A

REF: p. 086

33. The opening in the middle of the iris is the a. sclera. b. pupil.

c. cornea. d. iris.

ANS: B

REF: p. 086

34. Nerve fibers of the optic nerve are found in the a. sclera. b. cornea. c. iris. d. retina.

ANS: D

REF: p. 086

35. Light enters the eye through the a. sclera. b. cornea. c. iris. d. retina.

ANS: B

REF: p. 086

36. The ear functions in hearing and a. balance. b. touch. c. hammering. d. sensation.

ANS: A

REF: p. 086

37. The waxy substance secreted by glands in the auditory canal is called a. malleus. b. cerumen. c. incus. d. cochlea.

ANS: B

REF: p. 086

38. The tympanic membrane also is called the a. eardrum. b. hammer. c. anvil. d. stirrup.

ANS: A

REF: p. 086

39. The circulatory system does the following except a. carries food and oxygen to the cells. b. removes waste products from the cells. c. produces cells that defend the body from microbes that cause disease. d. brings oxygen into the body.

ANS: D

REF: p. 087

40. The part of the blood that is mostly water is a. red blood cells. b. white blood cells. c. hemoglobin. d. plasma.

ANS: D

REF: p. 087

41. This substance gives red blood cells their color. a. Oxygen b. Carbon dioxide c. Hemoglobin d. Plasma ANS: C

REF: p. 087

42. Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets are formed by a. the heart. b. the bone marrow. c. the valves. d. hemoglobin.

ANS: B

REF: p. 087

43. White blood cells a. are needed for clotting. b. carry oxygen and carbon dioxide. c. protect the body against iN nfecRtionI. d. produce heat.

ANS: C

G B.C M U S N T O

REF: p. 087

44. Which is the muscular part of the heart? a. The pericardium b. The myocardium c. The endocardium d. The ventricles ANS: B

REF: p. 087

45. Which heart chamber receives blood from body tissues? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle ANS: A

REF: p. 087

46. Which heart chamber pumps blood to all parts of the body? a. Right atrium b. Left atrium c. Right ventricle d. Left ventricle

ANS: D

REF: p. 087

47. Which is the working phase of the heart? a. Bicuspid valve b. Tricuspid valve c. Systole d. Diastole ANS: C

REF: p. 088

48. Which vessels carry blood away from the heart? a. Arteries b. Capillaries c. Veins d. Venules ANS: A

REF: p. 088

49. Which is the largest artery? a. Aorta b. Carotid artery c. Radial artery d. Brachial artery ANS: A

REF: p. 088

50. Which vessels return blood to the heart? a. Arteries b. Veins c. Capillaries d. Venules ANS: B

REF: p. 088

51. Which carries blood from the legs and trunk to the heart? a. Inferior vena cava b. Superior vena cava c. Aorta d. Veins ANS: A

REF: p. 088

52. The process of supplying the cells with oxygen and removing carbon dioxide from them is a. respiration. b. inhalation. c. expiration. d. circulation.

ANS: A 53. Inspiration involves a. breathing in.

REF: p. 089

b. breathing out. c. breathing in and out. d. exhaling.

ANS: A

REF: p. 089

54. Another name for the trachea is the a. nose. b. mouth. c. windpipe. d. alveoli.

ANS: C

REF: p. 090

55. Oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged a. during inspiration and expiration. b. during inhalation and exhalation. c. between the alveoli and capillaries. d. at the pharynx and larynx.

ANS: C

REF: p. 090

56. Which separates the lungs from the abdominal cavity? a. The pharynx b. The larynx c. The bronchus d. The diaphragm ANS: D

REF: p.N 09U0

57. Each lung is covered by a two-layered sac called the a. bronchus. b. bronchiole. c. alveoli. d. pleura.

ANS: D

REF: p. 090

58. The process of physically and chemically breaking down food so it can be absorbed by the

cells is called a. peristalsis. b. digestion. c. metabolism. d. mitosis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 090

59. The digestive system a. removes waste products from the blood. b. removes solid wastes from the body. c. maintains the body’s water balance. d. protects the body against disease.

ANS: B

REF: p. 090

60. Which is not a part of the digestive system? a. The tongue b. The gallbladder c. The pancreas d. The bladder ANS: D

REF: p. 090

61. Digestion begins in the a. mouth. b. stomach. c. pharynx. d. small intestine.

ANS: A

REF: p. 090

62. What is the function of saliva? a. It allows sweet, sour, bitter, and salty to be sensed. b. It aids in swallowing and peristalsis. c. It cuts, chops, and grinds food for digestion and swallowing. d. It moistens food particles to ease swallowing and begin digestion.

ANS: D

REF: p. 090

63. During swallowing, the tongue pushes food into the a. stomach. b. esophagus. c. pharynx. d. pancreas.

ANS: C

REF: p. 090

64. Food is moved down the esophagus by a. peristalsis. b. gravity. c. digestion. d. the blood.

ANS: A

REF: p. 090

65. What is the stomach’s function in digestion? a. It cuts, chops, and grinds food. b. It pushes food through the GI tract. c. It produces bile to aid digestion. d. It stirs and churns food to break it down into small particles.

ANS: D

REF: p. 090

66. Chyme is produced in the a. stomach. b. small intestine.

c. pancreas. d. large intestine.

ANS: A

REF: p. 090

67. Which is not a part of the small intestine? a. Duodenum b. Pancreas c. Jejunum d. Ileum ANS: B

REF: p. 090

68. Bile is stored in the a. stomach. b. liver. c. gallbladder. d. pancreas.

ANS: C

REF: p. 090

69. Chyme moves through the small intestine by a. peristalsis. b. gravity. c. digestion. d. the blood.

ANS: A

REF: p. 090

70. Most food absorption occurs in the a. stomach. b. small intestine. c. liver. d. large intestine.

ANS: B

REF: p. 090

71. The large intestine also is called the a. colon. b. rectum. c. anus. d. villi.

ANS: A

REF: p. 090

72. After water is absorbed from chyme, the remaining semisolid material is called a. chyme. b. feces. c. mucus. d. a bowel movement.

ANS: B

REF: p. 090

73. The waste products of digestion pass out of the body through the a. colon. b. large intestine. c. rectum. d. anus.

ANS: D

REF: p. 090

74. The urinary system a. rids the body of solid wastes. b. rids the body of carbon dioxide. c. produces sweat. d. removes waste products from the blood.

ANS: D

REF: p. 091

75. The urinary system involves the following except the a. kidneys. b. bladder. c. urethra. d. vagina.

ANS: D

REF: p. 091

76. Urine is formed in the a. bladder. b. nephrons. c. penis. d. urethra.

ANS: B

REF: p. 091

77. Urine is stored in the a. ureters. b. bladder. c. penis. d. urethra.

ANS: B

REF: p. 091

78. The opening at the end of the urethra is the a. penis. b. bladder. c. meatus. d. vagina.

ANS: C

REF: p. 091

79. Sperm cells are produced in the a. testes. b. ovaries. c. scrotum. d. prostate gland.

ANS: A

REF: p. 092

80. The male hormone is a. testosterone. b. estrogen. c. progesterone. d. vas deferens.

ANS: A

REF: p. 092

81. Semen leaves the body through the a. testes. b. urethra. c. prostate gland. d. vagina.

ANS: B

REF: p. 092

82. The female gonads are called a. testes. b. ovaries. c. testicles. d. fallopian tubes.

ANS: B

REF: p. 092

83. Female sex cells are called a. estrogen. b. progesterone. c. ova. d. labia.

ANS: C

REF: p. 092

84. The process of releasing a female sex cell is called a. ovulation. b. menstruation. c. fertilization. d. lactation.

ANS: A 85.

REF: p. 092

The female sex glands secrete a. estrogen and progesterone. b. testosterone. c. menstruation. d. the endometrium.

ANS: A

REF: p. 092

86. Where does a fertilized sex cell grow during pregnancy? a. The fallopian tube

b. The uterus c. The vagina d. The ovary ANS: B

REF: p. 092

87. External genitalia in the female are called the a. breasts. b. mammary glands. c. vulva. d. labia.

ANS: C

REF: p. 093

88. Menstruation normally occurs a. after intercourse. b. every day. c. about every week. d. about every 28 days.

ANS: D

REF: p. 093

89. During fertilization a. the endometrium is discharged from the body. b. a sex cell is released. c. erectile tissue becomes hard. d. a male sex cell and a female sex cell unite.

ANS: D

REF: p.N 09U3

90. The master gland of the body is the a. thyroid gland. b. adrenal medulla. c. pituitary gland. d. pancreas.

ANS: C

REF: p. 094

91. Growth hormone is secreted by the a. thyroid gland. b. adrenal glands. c. parathyroid glands. d. pituitary gland.

ANS: D

REF: p. 094

92. Too little thyroid hormone results in the following except a. weight gain. b. slowed movements. c. slowed body processes. d. too much sugar in the blood.

ANS: D

REF: p. 094

93. The adrenal glands are located a. in the neck. b. behind the eyes. c. next to the thyroid glands. d. on top of each kidney.

ANS: D

REF: p. 094

94. The adrenal medulla secretes a. parathormone. b. epinephrine and norepinephrine. c. insulin. d. adrenocorticotropic hormone.

ANS: B

REF: p. 094

95. The pancreas secretes a. parathormone. b. epinephrine and norepinephrine. c. insulin. d. adrenocorticotropic hormone.

ANS: C

REF: p. 094

96. Which hormone regulates the amount of sugar in the blood? a. The glucocorticoids b. Estrogen c. Thyroid hormone d. Insulin ANS: D

REF: p. 094

97. The immune system functions to a. regulate body activities. b. protect the body against disease and infection. c. regulate water and sodium balance. d. eliminate waste.

ANS: B

REF: p. 095

98. A person has protection against a disease or condition. This is called a. an antibody. b. an antigen. c. immunity. d. hormones.

ANS: C

REF: p. 095

99. A substance that can cause an immune response is a. an antibody. b. an antigen. c. immunity.

d. hormones.

ANS: B

REF: p. 095

100. Which produces antibodies? a. Red blood cells b. Hormones c. Insulin d. Lymphocytes ANS: D

REF: p. 095

101. Lymph is formed in the a. bone. b. muscle. c. tissues. d. brain.

ANS: C

REF: p. 088

102. The purpose of the lymphatic system is to a. defend the body against infection. b. prevent someone from bleeding to death. c. provide oxygen to the tissues. d. circulate blood to the areas of the body.

ANS: A

REF: p. 088

Chapter 09: The Older Person Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Geriatrics is a. the study of the aging process. b. age-related far-sightedness. c. the care of aging people. d. the physical changes that occur with aging.

ANS: C

REF: p. 098

2. Gerontology is a. the study of the aging process. b. age-related far-sightedness. c. the care of aging people. d. the physical changes that occur with aging.

ANS: A

REF: p. 098

3. Persons 65 years of age and older are considered to be experiencing a. young adulthood. b. middle adulthood. c. late adulthood. d. very late adulthood.

ANS: C

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 098

4. Aging is considered to be a. normal. b. preventable. c. a disease. d. a disability.

ANS: A

REF: p. 098

5. Which statement about aging is incorrect? a. Changes occur throughout life. b. Most changes are rapid. c. Changes occur in body structure and function. d. Psychological and social changes occur.

ANS: B

REF: p. 098

6. Development relates to a. involuntary muscle movements. b. a skill that must be completed. c. changes in mental, emotional, and social function. d. physical changes that are measured and that occur in a steady and orderly manner.

ANS: C

REF: p. 098

7. Growth is a. the development of social and physical skills. b. a skill that must be completed. c. changes in mental, emotional, and social function. d. the physical changes that are measured and that occur in a steady and orderly

manner.

ANS: D

REF: p. 098

8. A skill that must be completed during a stage of development is a. a physical skill. b. a developmental task. c. a psychological function. d. an age-related skill.

ANS: B

REF: p. 098

9. Which is not a developmental task of late adulthood? a. Adjusting to aging parents b. Adjusting to retirement and reduced income c. Coping with a partner’s death d. Preparing for one’s own death ANS: A

REF: p. 099

10. Which is a developmental task of late adulthood? a. Selecting a partner b. Developing leisure-time activities c. Adjusting to decreased strength and loss of health d. Adjusting to aging parents ANS: C

REF: p. 099

11. Which statement about retirement is incorrect? a. Some retired people do volunteer work or have part-time jobs. b. Retired persons have fewer expenses. c. Retirement is a reward for a life-time of work. d. Some people retire because of poor health or disability.

ANS: B

REF: p. 100

12. Older people may be lonely because a. they are separated from family and friends. b. they live with adult children. c. they live in nursing centers. d. they have contact with people their own age.

ANS: A

REF: p. 100

13. Mr. and Mrs. Young were married for 60 years. Mrs. Young just died. Which is incorrect? a. Mr. Young may develop health problems. b. Mr. Young’s grief may be very great.

c. Mr. Young’s grief is less if he prepared for his wife’s death. d. Mr. Young may lose the will to live.

ANS: C

REF: p. 100

14. Which statement about aging is incorrect? a. Body processes slow down. b. Energy level decreases. c. Changes are always noted when they occur. d. The changes occur over many years.

ANS: C

REF: p. 100

15. Children as caregivers a. increases dignity and self-respect in the older parent. b. increases privacy of the parent. c. is where the child provides care for their parent. d. decreases security in most older persons.

ANS: C

REF: p. 100

16. With aging, normal changes occur in body function and structure. Which is correct? a. The changes increase the risk for illness, injury, and disability. b. The changes occur suddenly in most people. c. Changes always decrease the person’s quality of life. d. Age-related changes cause older persons to feel useless and unhappy.

ANS: A

REF: p. 098

17. Which statement about changes in the skin is incorrect? a. The skin thins and sags. b. Folds, lines, and wrinkles appear. c. The skin is easily injured. d. Oil and sweat secretions increase.

ANS: D 18.

REF: p. 101

Because older people tend to have dry skin a. mild soaps or soap substitutes are used. b. lotions are not used. c. tub baths are taken daily. d. only showers are taken.

ANS: A

REF: p. 101

19. Which statement about an older person’s feet is incorrect? a. Nails become thick and tough. b. Feet usually have poor circulation. c. A nick or cut can lead to serious infection. d. Heating pads should be used to provide warmth to the feet.

ANS: D

REF: p. 101

20. The risk of skin breakdown, skin tears, and pressure injuries a. increases with age. b. decreases with age. c. is the same for all age-groups. d. decreases with dry skin.

ANS: A

REF: p. 101

21. In older persons, bones become a. stronger. b. brittle. c. shorter. d. larger.

ANS: B

REF: p. 102

22. Musculo-skeletal changes result in the following except a. loss of height. b. loss of strength. c. decreased mobility. d. less joint pain and stiffness.

ANS: D

REF: p. 102

23. Which does not help prevent bone loss and loss of muscle strength? a. Activity b. Exercise c. A balanced diet d. Bedrest ANS: D

REF: p. 102

24. The older person’s ability to sense pain is a. increased. b. decreased. c. the same as that of a younger adult. d. the same as that of a young child.

ANS: B

REF: p. 101

25. Which is not a cause of poor circulation in older persons? a. Weakened heart muscle b. Narrowed arteries c. Decreased amounts of blood d. Arteries are less elastic ANS: C

REF: p. 102

26. Which statement about changes in the respiratory system is incorrect? a. Respiratory muscles weaken. b. Lung tissue is more elastic. c. Coughing may be more difficult. d. Respiratory infections and diseases can threaten the person’s life.

ANS: B

REF: p. 102

27. Respiratory system changes occur with aging. Which is not helpful? a. Deep breathing b. Turning c. Re-positioning d. Rest as much as possible ANS: D

REF: p. 102

28. Older persons usually have difficulty digesting a. cooked vegetables. b. fried and fatty foods. c. whole-grain cereals. d. soft bulk foods.

ANS: B

REF: p. 102

29. Because of changes in the urinary system, older persons a. have fewer urinary tract infections. b. have less urine. c. urinate more often. d. need less fluids.

ANS: C

REF: p. 102

30. Men may have difficulty urinating because the a. kidneys atrophy. b. bladder increases in size. c. prostate gland enlarges. d. urethra loses tone.

ANS: C

REF: p. 102

31. The need to urinate at night is reduced if the person a. drinks only water. b. drinks most fluids before 1700. c. urinates before going to bed. d. chooses what beverages to drink.

ANS: B

REF: p. 102

32. In men, the amount of this sex hormone decreases with aging. a. Testosterone b. Insulin c. Estrogen d. Progesterone ANS: A

REF: p. 103

33. In men, the following occur with aging except a. an erection takes longer.

b. the phase between erection and orgasm is longer. c. orgasm is longer and more forceful. d. erections are lost quickly.

ANS: C

REF: p. 103

34. In women, the following occur with aging except a. the uterus, vagina, and genitalia shrink. b. vaginal walls become fatty. c. vaginal dryness occurs. d. intercourse may be painful.

ANS: B

REF: p. 103

35. Menopause is a. when menstruation stops. b. erectile dysfunction. c. impotence. d. loss of interest in sexual activity.

ANS: A

REF: p. 103

36. Which is a housing option for older persons who cannot care for themselves? a. Hospice b. Assisted living residences c. Board and care homes d. Nursing centers ANS: D

REF: p.N 10U3

37. Persons needing nursing center care often suffer many losses. Which is not a common loss? a. Loss of identity b. Loss of possessions c. Loss of independence d. Loss of children ANS: D

REF: p. 103

38. Sexuality is a. the physical activities involving reproductive organs. b. the physical, emotional, social, cultural, and spiritual factors that affect feelings

and attitudes about sex. c. who a person is attracted to. d. preferred sexual practices.

ANS: B

REF: p. 103

39. Which statement about sexuality and older persons is incorrect? a. Reproductive organs change with aging. b. Weakness and pain may decrease frequency of sexual activity. c. Older persons need frequent intercourse. d. Older persons need sex, love, and affection.

ANS: C

REF: p. 103

40. Which statement about sexuality and older persons is incorrect? a. Sexual needs and desires are lost. b. Sexual activity may decrease. c. Some persons lose sexual partners through death and divorce. d. Chronic illness can affect sexuality.

ANS: A

REF: p. 103

41. A resident at Spruce Harbor Nursing Center is holding hands with his wife and stroking her

leg. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Explain that such behaviors are not allowed. c. Allow them privacy. d. Check the person’s care plan.

ANS: C

REF: p. 104

42. A female resident likes to apply make-up every day. She also likes to shave her legs and

underarms. What should you do? a. Check her care plan. b. Tell her that shaving is unsafe for her. c. Assist her with grooming activities as needed. d. Ask her why such measures are important to her.

ANS: C

REF: p. 104

N R I G B.C M

43. The following measures promoU te sS exuN alityTexceptO a. providing privacy. b. knocking before you enter a room. c. letting the person choose what to wear. d. discouraging masturbation.

ANS: D

REF: p. 104

TRUE/FALSE 1. When circulatory changes are severe, the person often experiences fatigue.

ANS: T

REF: p. 102

Chapter 10: Safety Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Coma is a. a state of being unaware of one’s surroundings and being unable to react or

respond to people, places, or things. b. the loss of cognitive and social function caused by changes in the brain. c. losing memory and the ability to think and reason. d. paralysis.

ANS: A

REF: p. 107

2. Suffocation is a. the loss of memory and thinking and reasoning abilities. b. a sudden event in which people are killed and injured. c. when breathing stops from lack of oxygen. d. when electrical current passes through the body.

ANS: C

REF: p. 107

3. Where will you find safety measures needed by the person? a. The safety data sheet (SDS) b. The person’s care plan c. The Kardex d. The medical record ANS: B REF: p. 108 4.

Accident risk factors include the following except a. coma, confusion and disorientation, and aging. b. impaired vision, hearing, and smell. c. suffocation, electrical shock, and disasters. d. impaired touch, impaired mobility, and drugs.

ANS: C

REF: p. 108

5. To make sure you give the right care to the right person a. follow the person’s care plan. b. identify the person before giving care. c. check the label on the person’s clothing. d. check the SDS. ANS: B

REF: p. 109

6. To identify a patient or resident a. call the person by name. b. use the SDS. c. use the identification (ID) bracelet. d. use the person’s clothing.

ANS: C

REF: p. 109

7. To identify a person, do the following: a. Call the person by name. b. Use your assignment sheet. c. Check the care plan. d. Use at least two identifiers.

ANS: D

REF: p. 109

8. A nursing center resident does not wear an ID bracelet. Before giving care, how should you

identify the person? a. Ask the person. b. Follow center policy and the care plan. c. Check the person’s photo ID. d. Ask a co-worker what to do.

ANS: B

REF: p. 110

9. Which is not a common cause of burns in nursing centers? a. Charcoal grills b. Spilled hot liquids c. Very hot water d. Electrical devices ANS: A

REF: p. 110

ntin urns rrC ect?

10. Which statement about preveN RgSbI GisTcBo. U N OM a. Turn on hot water first, then cold water. b. Check water temperature after a person gets into the tub. c. To keep patients and residents warm, use heating pads and electric blankets. d. Do not allow smoking where oxygen is used.

ANS: D

REF: p. 110

11. Poisoning in adults may be from a. confusion or poor vision. b. age and impaired hearing. c. coma or dementia. d. medications or impaired mobility.

ANS: A

REF: p. 110

12. To prevent a person from suffocating, do the following except a. make sure the person’s dentures are in place. b. position the person in bed properly. c. report swallowing problems to the nurse. d. give the person fluids when he or she has a feeding tube.

ANS: D

REF: p. 111

13. A patient asks you to cut his or her meat. To prevent suffocation, do the following:

a. b. c. d.

Chop up the meat.

Cut the meat into bite-size pieces.

Make the person a sandwich.

Take the meat from the person.

ANS: B

REF: p. 111

14. Which will not prevent suffocation? a. Using bed rails correctly b. Leaving a person unattended in the bathtub c. Reporting loose teeth d. Positioning the person in bed properly ANS: B

REF: p. 111

15. A person is choking. If the obstruction is not removed a. stroke will occur. b. shock will occur. c. seizures will occur. d. death will occur.

ANS: D

REF: p. 111

16. What is the most common cause of choking? a. Loose dentures b. The tongue falling to the back of the throat c. A large, poorly chewed piece of meat d. Drinking alcohol ANS: C

REF: p. 111

17. A patient is choking. The person is conscious and can cough. Which action is needed? a. Perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation. b. Perform abdominal thrusts. c. Encourage the person to cough forcefully. d. Place the person in the recovery position.

ANS: C

REF: p. 111

18. A resident is choking. The person is clutching at the throat. The person cannot speak or

breathe. Which action is needed? a. Perform cardiopulmonary resuscitation. b. Perform abdominal thrusts. c. Encourage the person to cough forcefully. d. Give back blows.

ANS: B

REF: p. 111

19. Abdominal thrusts are not used for a. very obese persons. b. very tall persons. c. persons with heart disease. d. older persons.

ANS: A

REF: p. 112

20. Which is safe? a. A three-pronged plug b. A frayed cord c. Cracked or chipped items d. An overloaded electrical outlet ANS: A

REF: p. 114

21. A disaster is a a. preventable event. b. rare occurrence. c. sudden catastrophic event. d. something that occurs in countries other than America.

ANS: C

REF: p. 115

22. A surveyor may ask you about fire safety. What may the surveyor ask you? a. What time you clocked in. b. Which transfer technique you used on residents. c. How long you have been working at the agency. d. Where to find fire alarms and extinguishers.

ANS: D

REF: p. 116

23. You see a stranger in the agency. You should a. leave the building at onceN . b. tell another nursing assistant. c. notify the nurse at once. d. ask the stranger to leave.

ANS: C

REF: p. 116

24. Workplace hazards include the a. timeclock. b. meal trays. c. gait belt. d. latex gloves.

ANS: D

REF: p. 115

25. A stretcher is used to a. help patients ambulate. b. transport persons who cannot use wheelchairs. c. bathe patients. d. assist patients with toileting.

ANS: B

REF: p. 114

26. A warning label on a hazardous substance container is damaged. What should you do? a. Try to read the label.

b. Take the container to the nurse. c. Pour the substance into a different container. d. Apply a new warning label.

ANS: B

REF: p. 115

27. You spilled a hazardous substance. Before cleaning up the spill, you should a. check the safety data sheet (SDS). b. put on a gown, gloves, mask, and boots. c. call the fire department. d. wash your hands.

ANS: A

REF: p. 115

28. A family member begins smoking in a resident’s room. You should a. ask the family member to leave. b. call the physician. c. inform the visitor that he or she cannot smoke in the building. d. ask the family member if you can have a cigarette.

ANS: C

REF: p. 116

29. You find a fire in a person’s room. What should you do first? a. Move the person to a safe area. b. Sound the nearest fire alarm. c. Close doors and windows. d. Get the nearest fire extinguisher.

ANS: A

REF: p.N 11U6

30. When there is a fire, do the following except a. move persons in immediate danger to a safe place. b. use the elevator. c. sound the nearest alarm. d. close doors and windows to confine the fire.

ANS: B

REF: p. 116

31. Before using a fire extinguisher, you must first a. remove the safety pin. b. direct the hose at the fire. c. push down on the top handle. d. pull the fire alarm.

ANS: D

REF: p. 117

32. What does “EC” stand for when referring to bariatric equipment? a. Extra careful b. Expanded capacity c. Exceptionally clean d. Easily closed ANS: B

REF: p. 114

33. Natural disasters include the following except a. tornadoes. b. hurricanes. c. blizzards. d. explosions.

ANS: D

REF: p. 115

34. A flood warning was issued for your area. You are at work. What should you do? a. Get home as soon as possible. b. Discharge patients or residents who can go home. c. Follow the agency’s disaster plan. d. Find another agency for patients or residents.

ANS: C

REF: p. 115

35. A person is agitated. Do the following except a. stand away from the person and near the door. b. keep your hands free. c. talk to the person in a calm manner. d. stay with the person until the nurse arrives.

ANS: D

REF: p. 118

36. Which is not a role of risk management? a. Giving baths and taking vital signs b. Identifying and controlling safety hazards N R I G B.C M c. Dealing with patient and reU sideS nt aN busT e and wO orkplace violence d. Dealing with accidents and fire prevention ANS: A

REF: p. 119

37. You are injured while transferring a patient to a wheelchair. Which is correct? a. This is workplace violence. b. You need to complete an incident report. c. This is malpractice. d. This is patient abuse.

ANS: B

REF: p. 120

38. A resident received a new bracelet for her birthday. It needs to go into the person’s valuables

envelope. What should you do? a. State that it is a bracelet. b. Describe it as a gold bracelet. c. Describe it as a yellow, 7-inch long bracelet that is 1/2-inch wide with no stones. d. Just put in the envelope.

ANS: C

REF: p. 119

39. You break a person’s eyeglasses. Which is correct? a. They should have been in the valuables envelope. b. You need to complete an incident report.

c. The person needs to be more careful. d. You can buy new ones with the person’s money.

ANS: B

REF: p. 120

40. A person has a yellow wristband on. You know this is an alert for a. allergy. b. fall risk. c. do not resuscitate. d. nothing by mouth (NPO).

ANS: B

REF: p. 119

TRUE/FALSE 1. You should never self-administer abdominal thrusts.

ANS: F

REF: p. 112

Chapter 11: Preventing Falls Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Falls are the main cause of injuries in a. older adults. b. school-age children. c. adolescents. d. toddlers.

ANS: A

REF: p. 122

2. The following increase a person’s risk for falls except a. a history of falls. b. wearing eyeglasses c. muscle weakness. d. foot problems.

ANS: B

REF: p. 123

3. A person has balance problems. The person a. is at risk for falls. b. is taking medications. c. will have memory problems. d. has impaired hearing.

ANS: A

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 123

4. Which will not help prevent falls? a. Using night-lights b. Using throw rugs c. Wiping up spills d. Keeping stairs and floors free of clutter ANS: B

REF: p. 124

5. To help prevent a person from falling, the person a. has long shoelaces. b. wears non-skid footwear. c. wears shoes without shoelaces. d. wears loose clothing.

ANS: B

REF: p. 124

6. Call lights can help prevent falls. Which is incorrect? a. The call light must be within the person’s reach. b. The person is asked to use the call light whenever help is needed. c. Call lights are answered promptly. d. Call lights are taken away from those who use them too often.

ANS: D

REF: p. 124

7. A person has a chair alarm. Which is correct? a. It serves the same purpose as a call light. b. Alarms are used only at night. c. You need to respond to the alarm at once. d. Bed rails must be up.

ANS: C 8.

REF: p. 125

Which statement about preventing falls is incorrect? a. Meeting elimination needs can help prevent falls. b. Bed, wheelchair, and stretcher wheels are locked for transfers. c. Safety checks are made of patient and resident rooms after visitors leave. d. For safety, push wheelchairs through doorways.

ANS: D

REF: p. 124

9. Bed rails are used a. for all patients and residents. b. according to the person’s care plan. c. at night. d. whenever the person is in bed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 126

10. A serious risk from bed rail use is a. contractures. b. coma. c. entrapment. d. confusion.

ANS: C

REF: p. 126

11. Bed rails can be used a. for persons who try to get out of bed without help. b. when a person is at high risk for falling. c. if they are needed to treat a person’s medical condition. d. if the person’s family requests them.

ANS: C

REF: p. 126

12. You raise the bed to give care. Bed rails are a. removed according to the care plan. b. lowered according to the care plan. c. raised according to the care plan. d. put on according to the care plan.

ANS: C

REF: p. 126

13. A resident does not use bed rails. To give care, you need to raise the bed. Which is correct? a. Ask a co-worker to help you. b. Tell the person to be very careful when the bed is raised. c. Keep the bed in the low position.

d. Get the person up in the chair.

ANS: A

REF: p. 126

14. Patients and residents who use bed rails a. must be checked often. b. can be left alone. c. need restraints. d. need hand rails and grab bars.

ANS: A

REF: p. 126

15. What is the purpose of hand rails? a. They prevent a person from falling out of bed. b. They give support when walking. c. They provide support when sitting down or getting up from the toilet. d. They are used to propel a wheelchair.

ANS: B

REF: p. 126

16. What is the purpose of grab bars? a. They prevent a person from falling out of bed. b. They give support when walking. c. They provide support when sitting down or getting up from a toilet. d. They are used to propel a wheelchair.

ANS: C

REF: p. 126

17. Bed wheels are locked a. whenever a patient or a resident requests them to be. b. when moving the bed. c. only when the bed is in the high position. d. at all times except when moving the bed.

ANS: D

REF: p. 127

18. A patient has an abdominal wound. Before using a transfer belt to transfer the person, you

need to a. ask the person if it is OK. b. change the person’s abdominal wound dressing. c. add extra dressings to the abdominal wound dressing. d. check with the nurse and the care plan.

ANS: D

REF: p. 128

19. To use a transfer belt correctly, you need to follow a. the care plan. b. the manufacturer’s instructions. c. the doctor’s orders. d. the person’s preferences.

ANS: B

REF: p. 128

20. You need to transfer a patient using a transfer belt. Which is correct? a. The excess strap is left dangling. b. The belt is applied over clothing. c. The belt is applied over the breasts. d. The buckle is positioned over the person’s spine.

ANS: B

REF: p. 129

21. A transfer belt is snug but not too tight if a. the person tells you so. b. you can slide an open, flat hand under the belt. c. it causes only mild discomfort. d. the belt buckle is off center.

ANS: B

REF: p. 129

22. You are assisting a resident to the bathroom. The person starts to fall. What should you do? a. Call for the nurse. b. Try to prevent the fall. c. Ease the person to the floor. d. Have the person use the commode instead.

ANS: C

REF: p. 130

23. After a person falls, you need to a. provide a walking aid. b. stay with the person and call for the nurse. c. complete an incident repoNrt aR nd cIall G the B fa. mC ily.M d. call the doctor.

ANS: B 24.

U S N T

O

REF: p. 130

After a person falls, you need to a. complete an incident report. b. check the person for injuries. c. call the doctor. d. keep the person in bed.

ANS: A

REF: p. 130

25. A confused person tries to move about after a fall. Which action is incorrect? a. Stay calm and protect the person from injury. b. Talk to the person in a calm, soothing voice. c. Call for help. d. Use force to hold the person down.

ANS: D

REF: p. 130

26. All health team members must help prevent falls. Which is incorrect? a. Good communication promotes the person’s right to safety and security. b. When assisting with the transfer of a co-worker’s patient, ask the patient what to

do. c. Hurrying is never an acceptable excuse for causing harm.

d. Safety and security are basic needs.

ANS: B

REF: p. 131

TRUE/FALSE 1. Bed rails cannot be used unless needed to treat a person’s medical symptoms.

ANS: T

REF: p. 126

2. Bed rails are considered restraints if the person cannot lower them without help.

ANS: T

REF: p. 126

Chapter 12: Restraint Alternatives and Restraints Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which statement about the use of restraints is incorrect? a. Any health team member can order his or her use. b. They may be used only for the immediate physical safety of the person or others. c. They may only be used when less restrictive measures fail to protect the person or others. d. They must be discontinued at the earliest possible time.

ANS: A

REF: p. 133

2. Restraints are used a. to discipline a person. b. for staff convenience. c. to control or prevent a behavior. d. to protect persons from harming themselves or others.

ANS: D

REF: p. 133

3. Restraints are used a. when the nurse thinks they are needed. b. when the health team thinks they are needed. c. when less restrictive measures fail to protect the person.

N R I G B.C M U S N T O d. to prevent falls.

ANS: C

REF: p. 133

4. Which statement about restraints is incorrect? a. Restraints can cause death. b. Restraints can cause falls. c. Every agency has policies and procedures about restraint use. d. Restraints are used for staff convenience.

ANS: D

REF: p. 134

5. A patient scratches and picks at his skin. You would expect the nurse to a. find out the reason for the behavior. b. order mitt restraints for the person. c. order wrist restraints for the person. d. ask the doctor to order an ointment.

ANS: A

REF: p. 134

6. Which statement about restraint alternatives is correct? a. They require a doctor’s order. b. They are part of the person’s care plan. c. The least restrictive method is required.

d. They are chemical restraints.

ANS: B

REF: p. 134

7. Restraints are used to a. punish a person. b. control a behavior. c. treat medical symptoms. d. help the staff.

ANS: C

REF: p. 133

8. Which statement about physical restraints is incorrect? a. They are attached to the person’s body. b. They are next to the person’s body. c. The person can easily remove them. d. They limit movement or normal access to one’s body.

ANS: C

REF: p. 133

9. A resident’s sheets are tucked in very tight. The person cannot get out of bed and it is hard for the person to move in bed. Which is correct? a. The tight sheets are restraint alternatives. b. The tight sheets are restraints. c. The person needs to have the bed rails up. d. The tight sheets prevent agitation and restlessness.

ANS: B

REFN : pR . 13I 6

U S

10. A drug makes a person sleepy and unable to function. The drug is a. used to treat medical symptoms. b. a chemical restraint. c. a restraint alternative. d. part of the person’s care plan.

ANS: B

REF: p. 136

11. A restraint is ordered. Which is the least likely to cause injuries? a. Following the manufacturer’s instructions b. Trying to get free from the restraint c. Keeping the restraint on the entire shift d. Using whatever restraint is available ANS: A

REF: p. 137

12. Which statement about restraints is incorrect? a. Restraints can cause embarrassment, depression, and anger. b. The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS) has rules for using restraints. c. Restraints affect a person’s dignity and self-esteem. d. Restraints decrease confusion and agitation.

ANS: D

REF: p. 137

13. Restraints are ordered by the a. nurse. b. health team. c. doctor. d. the person’s legal representative.

ANS: C

REF: p. 137

14. Restraints can be ordered a. after less restrictive measures fail to protect the person. b. when the family requests them. c. to control or prevent a behavior. d. when the least restrictive method is available.

ANS: A 15.

REF: p. 137

Unnecessary restraint is a. false imprisonment. b. malpractice. c. negligence. d. involuntary seclusion.

ANS: A

REF: p. 137

16. A resident has wrist restraints. You need to check the person at least every a. 5 minutes. b. 10 minutes. c. 15 minutes. d. 20 minutes.

ANS: C

REF: p. 137

17. Restraints are removed and basic needs met at least every a. 15 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. hour. d. 2 hours.

ANS: D

REF: p. 137

18. Wrist restraints are applied so that they are a. loose enough for the person to get free of them. b. snug. c. tight. d. the least restrictive.

ANS: B 19.

REF: p. 138

Which is not a restraint alternative? a. Answering call lights promptly

b. Meeting food, fluid, and elimination needs c. Giving back massages d. Loud music, television, or radio ANS: D

REF: p. 134

20. Which is not a restraint alternative? a. Providing a fast paced and exciting setting b. Practicing measures to prevent falls c. Spending time with the person d. Letting the person wander in a safe area ANS: A

REF: p. 134

21. Which is a restraint alternative? a. Staff assignments are changed daily. b. Floor cushions are placed next to beds. c. Lights are always bright in rooms and hallways. d. The person is kept in his or her room as much as possible.

ANS: B

REF: p. 134

22. Certain patients and residents tend to wander. Who needs to know who they are? a. The nursing team involved in their care b. The health team c. The nursing assistants d. The entire staff ANS: D

N R I G TB.COM

S N REF: Up. 134

23. Which is a restraint? a. A rocking chair b. A reclining chair c. A chair with an attached tray table d. A low bed ANS: C

REF: p. 136

24. Which is not a restraint alternative? a. Keeping the call light within the person’s reach b. Making the person take an afternoon nap c. Explaining all procedures and care measures d. Padding walls and the corners of furniture ANS: B

REF: p. 134

25. Which statement about restraints is incorrect? a. Any member of the health team can order a restraint to protect the person. b. Unnecessary restraint is false imprisonment. c. Informed consent is required before a restraint is applied. d. The manufacturer’s instructions are followed.

ANS: A

REF: p. 137

26. A restraint is ordered for a patient. What restraint should you use? a. The least restrictive device b. The one noted on the person’s care plan c. Mitt or wrist restraints d. A vest or jacket restraint ANS: B

REF: p. 137

27. Restraints that are too big or too loose could cause a. anger and mistrust. b. strangulation. c. confusion. d. nerve injuries.

ANS: B

REF: p. 138

28. A nurse tells you to use towels and tape to restrain a person. What should you do? a. Refuse and explain why. b. Use towels and tape with the manufacturer’s instructions. c. Ignore the nurse’s instructions. d. Follow the nurse’s instructions.

ANS: A

REF: p. 138

29. Before applying a restraint, the person must be a. sitting. b. lying down. c. in good alignment. d. resting quietly.

ANS: C

REF: p. 138

30. Restraint straps are secured a. to the bed rails. b. within the person’s reach. c. to the movable part of the bed frame. d. to the foot-board or head-board.

ANS: C

REF: p. 138

31. A patient has a wrist restraint. Which of the following is especially important to report to the nurse? a. Why the restraint was applied b. The person’s temperature c. The person’s respiratory rate d. If you could not feel a pulse in the restrained extremity ANS: D

REF: p. 139

32. For vest restraint, the “V” neck is worn

a. b. c. d.

in the back. in front. on the right side. on the left side.

ANS: B

REF: p. 138

33. Jacket restraints a. are applied with the opening in back. b. can be worn backward. c. cross in back. d. open at the side.

ANS: A

REF: p. 138

34. Restraints are buckled or tied a. using the least restrictive method. b. with tape or rope. c. within the person’s reach. d. according to agency policy and the manufacturer’s instructions.

ANS: D

REF: p. 138

35. Bed rail covers and gap protectors a. are restraints. b. protect the person from entrapment. c. are never used with restraints. d. protect the person fromNwUaR ndSeI rinNgG .

ANS: B

REF: p. 139

36. Which statement about restraints is incorrect? a. A person restrained in the supine position is at great risk for aspiration. b. Bed rails are raised when using vest, jacket, or belt restraints. c. A back cushion is used if the person is restrained in a chair. d. The call light is kept within the person’s reach.

ANS: C

REF: p. 139

37. A resident keeps trying to pull out her feeding tube. Which restraint is the least restrictive and appropriate for this resident? a. Wrist restraints b. Jacket restraint c. Vest restraint d. Belt restraint ANS: A 38. Mitt restraints prevent a. finger use. b. hand movements. c. wrist movements.

REF: p. 142

d. arm movements.

ANS: A

REF: p. 142

39. Vest and jacket restraints are applied to the a. chest. b. waist. c. limbs. d. hands.

ANS: A

REF: p. 143

40. Which allows the person to turn from side to side or sit up in bed? a. Vest restraint b. Jacket restraint c. Roll belt restraint d. Full-body restraint ANS: C

REF: p. 143

41. Before applying a restraint, do the following except a. do not inform the person what you are going to do. b. have the nurse show you how to safely apply the restraint. c. find out what type and size to use. d. find out when to apply and release the restraint.

ANS: A

REF: p. 145

N R I G B.C M

Sneed N to T checkOthe person’s 42. A person has a vest restraint.UYou a. pulse. b. breathing. c. skin color. d. skin temperature.

ANS: B

REF: p. 143

43. A person has a restraint. Skin care is given at least every a. 15 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. hour. d. 2 hours.

ANS: D

REF: p. 137

44. A person has a restraint. The person is re-positioned at least every a. 15 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. hour. d. 2 hours.

ANS: D

REF: p. 137

45. Freedom from restraint a. is a nursing center policy. b. applies only to confused and disoriented persons. c. is every person’s right. d. requires informed consent.

ANS: C

REF: p. 147

46. A person is restrained. Which promotes the person’s independence? a. Checking on the person every hour b. Doing as much as possible for the person c. Removing the restraint every 4 hours d. Making sure the call light and other needed items are within reach ANS: D

REF: p. 147

TRUE/FALSE 1. Informed consent is needed for restraint use.

ANS: T

REF: p. 137

2. Never use force to apply a restraint.

ANS: T

REF: p. 144

Chapter 13: Preventing Infection Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Asepsis means a. clean technique. b. the process of destroying pathogens. c. an infection acquired after admission to a health care agency. d. being free of disease-producing microbes.

ANS: D

REF: p. 149

2. Clean technique is the same as a. sterile technique. b. surgical asepsis. c. medical asepsis. d. normal flora.

ANS: C

REF: p. 149

3. The process of becoming unclean is a. asepsis. b. contamination. c. sterilization. d. disinfection.

ANS: B

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 149

4. A diseased caused by pathogens that spread easily is a. a communicable disease. b. an infection. c. a healthcare-associated infection. d. immunity.

ANS: A

REF: p. 159

5. Certain practices remove or destroy pathogens. They also prevent them from spreading from

one person or place to another person or place. These practices are called a. Standard Precautions. b. Transmission-Based Precautions. c. medical asepsis. d. sterile technique.

ANS: C

REF: p. 152

6. A microbe usually does not cause an infection. The microbe is a. a non-pathogen. b. a pathogen. c. normal flora. d. a spore.

ANS: A

REF: p. 150

7. A microbe that is harmful and can cause an infection is a. a non-pathogen. b. a pathogen. c. normal flora. d. a germicide.

ANS: B

REF: p. 150

8. A carrier is a. the environment in which microbes live and grow. b. someone or something that is a reservoir for microbes but does not have the signs

and symptoms of infection. c. the location where microbes usually live and grow. d. a preparation given to produce immunity against a contagious disease.

ANS: B

REF: p. 151

9. Sterile means a. the absence of all microbes. b. a work area free of non-pathogens. c. the process of destroying all microbes. d. the practices that keep equipment and supplies free of all microbes.

ANS: A

REF: p. 152

lU seR enSoInly mO icM roscope is 10. A small living plant or animaN Gwit Bh .a C N T a. immunity. b. a microbe. c. a carrier. d. biohazardous waste.

ANS: B

REF: p. 150

11. Microbes are found a. in blood, body fluids, excretions, and secretions. b. in the air and in water. c. in the respiratory tract and digestive system. d. everywhere.

ANS: D

REF: p. 150

12. A local infection occurs in a. the person’s neighborhood. b. a body part. c. the whole body. d. a portal of entry.

ANS: B

REF: p. 150

13. An infection involving the whole body is

a. b. c. d.

a local infection. a systemic infection. a contagious disease. a nosocomial infection.

ANS: B

REF: p. 150

14. Signs and symptoms of infection include the following except a. fever. b. redness and swelling of a body part. c. increased pulse and respiratory rates. d. stiff and cold joints.

ANS: D

REF: p. 150

15. Signs and symptoms of infection include the following except a. constipation. b. diarrhea. c. nausea. d. vomiting.

ANS: A 16.

REF: p. 150

Infection begins with a a. source or pathogen. b. reservoir or host. c. portal of exit or portal of entry. d. susceptible host.

ANS: A

REF: p. 151

17. A carrier a. has immunity. b. has the signs and symptoms of an infection. c. is a susceptible host. d. can pass pathogens to others.

ANS: D

REF: p. 151

18. A susceptible host is a. a place where the microbe grows and multiplies. b. an animal or insect. c. a portal of exit. d. a carrier.

ANS: A

REF: p. 151

19. Portals of exit are a. personal care items. b. eating and drinking utensils. c. the same as portals of entry. d. blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions.

ANS: C

REF: p. 151

20. Healthcare-associated infections can be spread by the following except a. care equipment and supplies. b. poor hand-washing. c. poor wiping after bowel movements. d. sterile technique.

ANS: D

REF: p. 152

21. Healthcare-associated infections are prevented by the following except a. medical asepsis. b. The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. c. Standard Precautions. d. contamination precautions.

ANS: D

REF: p. 152

22. Who can develop healthcare-associated infections? a. The nursing team b. Doctors c. Residents and patients d. The health team ANS: C

REF: p. 152

23. Which is the easiest and most important way to prevent infections from spreading? a. Standard Precautions b. Practicing hand hygiene c. Transmission-Based Precautions d. The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard ANS: B

REF: p. 153

24. Hand hygiene is practiced in the following situations except a. when gloves are on. b. after elimination. c. after contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, or excretions. d. before eating.

ANS: A

REF: p. 154

25. When washing your hands, you should stand so that a. your uniform touches the sink. b. your hands touch the sink. c. your body touches the sink. d. you are away from the sink and not touching any part of it.

ANS: D

REF: p. 154

26. When washing your hands, your hands and forearms are kept a. above your elbows. b. lower than your elbows.

c. even with your elbows. d. close to your body.

ANS: B

REF: p. 154

27. When washing your hands, you clean your fingernails by the following except a. running water under them. b. rubbing the fingertips against your palms. c. using a nail file. d. using an orange stick.

ANS: A

REF: p. 154

28. When drying your hands, start at the a. fingertips and work up to your forearms. b. elbows and work down to your fingers. c. forearms and work down to your fingers. d. wrists and work down to the fingertips.

ANS: A

REF: p. 154

29. You are going to decontaminate your hands with an alcohol-based rub. Which is incorrect? a. Wash your hands before applying the hand rub. b. After applying the product to the palm of one hand, rub your hands together. c. Cover all surfaces of your hands and fingers. d. Rub your hands together until they are dry.

ANS: A

REF: p. 154

30. To turn off the faucets after washing your hands, use a. your clean hands. b. the paper towel used for drying your hands. c. a clean paper towel for each faucet. d. the same paper towel for each faucet.

ANS: C

REF: p. 154

31. The purpose of cleaning is to a. destroy all pathogens and non-pathogens. b. reduce the number of microbes present. c. make disposable items re-usable. d. produce a sterile field.

ANS: B

REF: p. 157

32. Disinfection destroys a. non-pathogens. b. pathogens. c. all microbes. d. bacteria.

ANS: B

REF: p. 157

33. Disinfectants used to clean surfaces and other re-usable items are known as a. chemical disinfectants. b. sterilizing agents. c. germicides. d. aseptic measures.

ANS: A

REF: p. 157

34. When using chemical disinfectants, you need to wear a. personal protective equipment. b. a gown, mask, and disposable gloves. c. utility gloves. d. sterile gloves.

ANS: C

REF: p. 157

35. Before handling a disinfectant, you need to check a. the person’s care plan. b. your assignment sheet. c. the amount remaining. d. the safety data sheet (SDS).

ANS: D

REF: p. 157

36. To control the spread of microbes, do the following except a. practice hand hygiene. b. clean tubs, showers, and shower chairs after each use. c. shake linens and equipmeNnt tR o reI movGe dB us. t.C M d. clean from the cleanest areU a to S the N dirtT iest.

ANS: C

O

REF: p. 158

37. Which statement about controlling the transmission of microbes is incorrect? a. You need to assist patients and residents with hand-washing before and after

eating. b. You need to assist patients and residents with hand-washing after elimination. c. You can borrow a patient’s or resident’s equipment to use for another person. d. Items on the floor are considered contaminated.

ANS: C

REF: p. 158

38. When cleaning, you need to clean a. toward your body. b. away from your body. c. from the dirtiest area to the cleanest. d. as fast as possible.

ANS: B

REF: p. 158

39. Which will not control portals of entry? a. Providing good skin care b. Providing good oral hygiene c. Keeping linens dry and wrinkle-free

d. Wiping from the rectum to the urethra ANS: D

REF: p. 158

40. Clean gloves have contact with clean sheets. Which statement is true? a. The gloves and the sheets are still clean. b. The gloves are contaminated, but the sheets are clean. c. The gloves and the sheets are contaminated. d. The gloves are clean, but the sheets are contaminated.

ANS: A

REF: p. 159

41. Standard Precautions apply to a. all persons. b. nursing center residents. c. the health team. d. persons with infections.

ANS: A

REF: p. 159

42. The nurse asks you to perform three tasks for a resident. Contact with blood and body fluids is

likely. How many pairs of gloves do you need? a. 1 pair b. At least 2 pairs c. At least 3 pairs d. No gloves ANS: C

REF: p. 159

43. Your gloves are contaminated. You need to touch a clean surface. You should a. remove the gloves and decontaminate your hands. b. wash your gloved hands. c. complete necessary care and remove the gloves. d. ask the nurse what to do.

ANS: A

REF: p. 159

44. Which statement about gowns is incorrect? a. Gowns are worn when splashes or sprays of blood, body fluids, secretions, or

excretions are likely. b. Gowns protect the skin and clothing. c. A wet gown is contaminated. d. Gowns are cleaned for re-use.

ANS: D

REF: p. 159

45. Which statement about masks is correct? a. Masks are worn for all tasks. b. Practice hand hygiene after putting on a mask. c. The ties or elastic bands are contaminated. d. A wet or moist mask is contaminated.

ANS: D

REF: p. 162

46.

Goggles and face shields a. are worn for all tasks. b. protect your mouth, eyes, and nose. c. are worn only when blood is present. d. are cleaned for re-use.

ANS: B

REF: p. 162

47. Contact precautions always require the use of a. gloves. b. masks. c. gowns. d. eye protection.

ANS: A

REF: p. 163

48. You are delegated tasks that involve Transmission-Based Precautions. The nurse needs to tell

you a. b. c. d.

when to wash your hands. how to respect the person’s rights. what personal protective equipment to use. to keep the call light within reach.

ANS: C 49.

REF: p. 162

Gloves are easier to put on a. at the start of your shift. b. when your hands are wet. c. when your hands are dry. d. if you have lotion on your hands.

ANS: C

REF: p. 163

50. You tear a glove while performing a task. You should a. complete the task before removing the gloves. b. remove the gloves, practice hand hygiene, and put on a new pair. c. remove the glove and put on a new one. d. ask the nurse what to do.

ANS: B

REF: p. 163

51. You are removing a mask. Which part is contaminated? a. The upper ties b. The lower ties c. The front d. The entire mask ANS: C

REF: p. 165

52. Which parts of a gown are contaminated? a. The neck ties and cuffs b. The front and sleeves

c. The inside and the waist strings d. The inside and the neck ties ANS: B

REF: p. 165

53. A wet gown is considered to be a. clean. b. sterile. c. safe. d. contaminated.

ANS: D

REF: p. 162

54. Contaminated items are placed in a. melt-away bags. b. leak-proof plastic bags with the BIOHAZARD symbol. c. trash containers. d. the toilet.

ANS: B

REF: p. 168

55. Double-bagging is needed when a. droplet or contact precautions are used. b. the outside of the bag is soiled. c. the inside of the bag is soiled. d. Transmission-Based Precautions are ordered.

ANS: B

REF: p. 169

56. Persons needing Transmission-Based Precautions often experience a. loss of self-esteem. b. self-actualization. c. love and belonging. d. safety.

ANS: A

REF: p. 169

57. A person with dementia requires isolation precautions. You need to put on a mask. To prevent

fear and agitation, you should a. let the person see your face before putting on the mask. b. enter the room with the mask on. c. put the mask on, and then tell the person your name. d. wash your face before putting on the mask.

ANS: A

REF: p. 169

58. The Bloodborne Pathogen Standard is a regulation of a. Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA). b. the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC). c. Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA). d. the MSDS. ANS: C

REF: p. 170

59. Bloodborne pathogens exit the body through the a. blood. b. respiratory system. c. urinary tract. d. reproductive system.

ANS: A

REF: p. 170

60. Other potentially infectious materials (OPIM) are a. contaminated with blood or a body fluid that may contain blood. b. spread by airborne droplets. c. spread by coughing, sneezing, and talking. d. living or dead persons who have a bloodborne pathogen.

ANS: A

REF: p. 170

61. A person has protection against a certain disease. The person has a. personal protective equipment. b. a vaccine. c. immunity. d. a germicide.

ANS: C

REF: p. 170

62. Which statement about the hepatitis B vaccination is incorrect? a. The agency makes the hepatitis B vaccination available to you within 10 working

days of being hired. b. You can refuse to have the hepatitis B vaccination. c. If you refuse the hepatitis B vaccination, you can request it at a later date. d. You pay for the hepatitis B vaccination.

ANS: D

REF: p. 170

63. You drop a water glass. Which action is correct? a. Pick up the broken glass with gloved hands. b. Discard the broken glass into a puncture-resistant container. c. Discard the broken glass into a leak-proof plastic bag with the BIOHAZARD

symbol. d. Call the maintenance department.

ANS: B

REF: p. 170

64. What should you use to pick up broken glass? a. Gloved hands b. A brush and dustpan c. A puncture-resistant container d. A leak-proof plastic bag ANS: B

REF: p. 170

65. Your work surface becomes contaminated with blood. When should you decontaminate the

area?

a. b. c. d.

Before you leave the room When you have time At the end of your shift At once

ANS: D

REF: p. 170

66. A person’s linens are soiled with urine and feces. What should you do with the linens? a. Take them to the dirty utility room. b. Put them with other laundry. c. Place them in a leak-proof plastic bag. d. Wash the laundry.

ANS: C

REF: p. 170

67. You pierce your finger on a chipped water glass. This is a. negligence. b. an exposure incident. c. a source individual. d. carelessness.

ANS: B

REF: p. 171

68. A drug that kills microbes that cause infections is a. a germicide. b. an antibiotic. c. a disinfectant. d. a chemical.

ANS: B

REF: p. 149

69. Items are sterilized in a. an autoclave. b. a reservoir. c. a germicide. d. normal flora.

ANS: A

REF: p. 157

70. A person develops an infection after being admitted to a health care agency. The person has a. a healthcare-associated infection. b. normal flora. c. immunity. d. a contagious disease.

ANS: A

REF: p. 149

71. A vaccine is a. given to produce immunity. b. used to disinfect supplies and equipment. c. a microbe that causes infection. d. normal flora.

ANS: A

REF: p. 170

TRUE/FALSE 1. Older persons may not show the usual signs and symptoms of infection.

ANS: T

REF: p. 151

Chapter 14: Body Mechanics Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Base of support is a. the way the head, trunk, arms, and legs are aligned with one another. b. posture. c. the area on which on object rests. d. ergonomics.

ANS: C

REF: p. 174

2. Body alignment is a. the way the head, trunk, arms, and legs are aligned with one another. b. the same as body mechanics. c. the base of support. d. ergonomics.

ANS: A

REF: p. 174

3. Using the body in an efficient and careful way is a. body mechanics. b. base of support. c. ergonomics. d. posture.

ANS: A

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 174

4. The science of designing a job to fit the worker is a. body mechanics. b. ergonomics. c. job science. d. posture science.

ANS: B

REF: p. 176

5. The back-lying position is a. the supine position. b. Fowler’s position. c. Sims’ position. d. the prone position.

ANS: A

REF: p. 180

6. A patient has the head of her bed elevated 60 degrees. This position is a. the supine position. b. Fowler’s position. c. Sims’ position. d. the prone position.

ANS: B

REF: p. 178

7. The side-lying position is a. the supine position. b. Fowler’s position. c. Sims’ position. d. the lateral position.

ANS: D

REF: p. 181

8. A patient is lying on her left side. Her upper leg is sharply flexed. Her lower arm is behind

her. This position is a. the supine position. b. Fowler’s position. c. Sims’ position. d. the prone position.

ANS: C

REF: p. 181

9. The dorsal recumbent position is also called a. the supine position. b. Fowler’s position. c. Sims’ position. d. the prone position.

ANS: A

REF: p. 180

10. Good body mechanics involves the following except a. good posture and balance. b. using muscles in your shoulders, upper arms, thighs, and hips for work. c. using the muscles in your back and lower arms to lift heavy objects. d. a wide base of support.

ANS: C

REF: p. 175

11. Good body alignment is needed a. when standing. b. when sitting. c. when lying down. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

REF: p. 174

12. You need a wide base of support a. for lifting and moving. b. for balance. c. to prevent friction and shearing. d. when bending from the waist.

ANS: B

REF: p. 174

13. You need to lift a heavy object. You should a. bend your knees and squat. b. bend from your waist.

c. hold the item away from you. d. lift the object above your chest.

ANS: A

REF: p. 174

14. When giving bedside care, the bed is a. at its highest horizontal level. b. at its lowest horizontal level. c. raised to a comfortable level. d. in Fowler’s position.

ANS: C

REF: p. 177

15. You can push, pull, slide, or lift an object. Which is correct? a. Pushing is easier than pulling. b. Pulling is easier than pushing. c. Sliding is always safest. d. Lifting is safer than sliding.

ANS: A

REF: p. 175

16. To use good body mechanics, do the following except a. avoid sudden or jerky movements. b. avoid twisting your body. c. bend at the waist. d. face the direction of your work.

ANS: C

REF: p. 175

17. Which statement about work-related musculo-skeletal disorders (MSDs) is incorrect? a. They can develop slowly over time. b. They can occur from one event. c. The nervous system is never involved. d. The arms and back are often affected.

ANS: C

REF: p. 176

18. Which is not a risk factor for musculo-skeletal disorders (MSDs)? a. Sudden motions b. Repeating action c. Awkward postures d. A wide base of support ANS: D

REF: p. 176

19. The amount of effort needed to perform a task is a. ergonomics. b. force. c. MSD. d. posture.

ANS: B

REF: p. 176

20. Which is not a cause of back disorders? a. Reaching while lifting b. Staying in one position too long c. Bending or twisting while lifting d. Facing the direction of your work ANS: D

REF: p. 177

21. After making a bed, you feel pain in your lower back. When should you report this? a. As soon as possible b. Before you take your break c. Only if the pain gets worse d. When you report off duty ANS: A

REF: p. 176

22. To protect yourself from injury it is best to a. work alone. b. lift with forceful movements. c. bend while lifting. d. avoid twisting.

ANS: D

REF: p. 176

23. Regular position changes a. help prevent pressure injuries and contractures. b. protect you from injury and falls. c. cause discomfort and restN lessR nesI s. G B.C M d. are not done unless orderedUbyS theN docT tor.

ANS: A

O

REF: p. 178

24. To safely position a person, you should a. work with sudden, forceful movements. b. keep the bed in the lowest horizontal position. c. bend from the waist. d. use pillows as directed for support and alignment.

ANS: D

REF: p. 178

25. A resident is in bed. How often is the person re-positioned? a. At least every hour b. At least every 2 hours c. At least every 4 hours d. At least every shift ANS: B

REF: p. 178

26. To avoid causing pain when positioning a person, you must a. move the person quickly. b. use an assist device for moving all persons. c. allow the person time to tell you if movement is painful. d. raise the head of the bed slightly before moving the person.

ANS: C

REF: p. 178

27. Before re-positioning a person, you need the following information from the nurse and the

care plan except a. position limits ordered by the doctor. b. how often to turn and re-position the person. c. when to wash your hands. d. what skin care measures and exercises to perform.

ANS: C

REF: p. 178

28. Before re-positioning a person, you need the following information from the nurse and the

care plan except a. where to place pillows. b. what positioning devices to use. c. when to change or straighten linens. d. what observations to report and record.

ANS: C

REF: p. 178

29. The nurse asks you to position a patient in the lateral position. This position is a. a side-lying position. b. a sitting position. c. the back-lying position. d. the dorsal recumbent position.

ANS: A

REF: p. 181

30. In the prone position, small pillows are placed a. under the head and neck, under the upper thigh, and against the back. b. under the head, abdomen, and lower legs. c. under the head and shoulders, arms and hands, and lower back. d. where the person prefers.

ANS: B

REF: p. 180

31. A person in the prone position lies on his or her a. back. b. abdomen. c. right side. d. left side.

ANS: B

REF: p. 180

32. Which is a semi-sitting position? a. Fowler’s position b. The supine position c. The dorsal recumbent position d. Sims’ position ANS: A

REF: p. 178

33. A person is positioned in Sims’ position. For good alignment a. the bed is flat. b. the head of the bed is raised 30 degrees. c. the head of the bed is raised 60 degrees. d. the head of the bed is raised and the foot of the bed is lowered.

ANS: A

REF: p. 181

34. To sit in a chair, a person must be able to a. stay awake. b. hold the upper body and head erect. c. support the feet. d. sit without pillows.

ANS: B

REF: p. 182

35. A resident is positioned in a chair. Which will not provide good alignment? a. The person holds the upper body and head erect. b. The person’s back and buttocks are against the back of the chair. c. The person’s feet are flat on the floor. d. The backs of the person’s knees are against the edge of the seat.

ANS: D

REF: p. 182

36. A patient needs a postural support when sitting in a chair. The postural support a. is a restraint. b. is used under paralyzed arms. c. helps keep the person in gNoodRaliI gnmGentB . .C M d. is used for wheelchair and U bedS tranN sferT s.

ANS: C

O

REF: p. 182

37. Which will not increase your risk for injury? a. Poor physical condition b. Poor posture c. Reaching over bed rails d. Working with smooth, even movements ANS: D

REF: p. 175

TRUE/FALSE 1. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) requires employers to make

reasonable attempts to prevent or reduce hazards.

ANS: T

REF: p. 176

Chapter 15: Moving the Person Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. How a person re-positions in a bed is a. bed mobility. b. logroll. c. ergonomics. d. body mechanics.

ANS: A

REF: p. 185

2. Two surfaces rub together. This is a. friction. b. shearing. c. ergonomics. d. pressure.

ANS: A

REF: p. 187

3. A person is turned as a unit, in alignment, with one motion. This is a. body mechanics. b. logrolling. c. ergonomics. d. safety.

ANS: B

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 196

4. When a resident slides down in bed, the person’s skin sticks to the bed while her muscles

move down. This is a. shearing. b. friction. c. ergonomics. d. logrolling.

ANS: A

REF: p. 187

5. When turning, re-positioning, or transferring a person, you must a. use a transfer belt. b. use a lift sheet. c. use a mechanical lift. d. use your body correctly.

ANS: D

REF: p. 185

6. Older persons have fragile bones and joints. To prevent injury when moving these persons, do

the following except a. always have help. b. move the person carefully. c. keep the person in good alignment.

d. move the person as quickly as possible.

ANS: D

REF: p. 185

7. Your patient has dementia. You need to explain what you are going to do before starting a

procedure. Which is incorrect? a. Face the person. b. Speak slowly and clearly. c. Give all directions as quickly as possible. d. Divert the person’s attention.

ANS: C

REF: p. 186

8. To promote mental comfort when handling, moving, and transferring a person, do the

following except a. explain what you are going to do. b. do not allow the person to help. c. screen the person for privacy. d. keep the person in alignment.

ANS: B

REF: p. 185

9. To prevent work-related injuries, Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

recommends a. working alone whenever possible. b. holding the person under the arms during transfers. c. eliminating manual lifting when possible. d. scheduling harder tasks laNte iR n thI e shG ift. B.C M

U S N T

ANS: C

O

REF: p. 186

10. For safe patient and resident handling, moving, and transfers, the nurse and health team

determine the following except a. the person’s functional status. b. what procedure to use. c. the equipment needed. d. if family is available to help.

ANS: D

REF: p. 188

11. A patient with dementia does not understand what you are doing. The person resists your

efforts to move him up in bed. Which action is not helpful? a. Getting a co-worker to help you b. Proceeding quickly and firmly c. Using a calm, pleasant voice d. Diverting the person’s attention ANS: B

REF: p. 186

12. Before moving a person in bed, you need the following information from the nurse and the

care plan except a. how to use body mechanics. b. what procedure to use.

c. what equipment to use. d. what devices to use.

ANS: A

REF: p. 188

13. Good planning before moving or lifting a person in bed involves the following except a. deciding how you will move the person. b. asking a co-worker to help you. c. planning how to protect drainage tubes. d. doing necessary recording before you complete the task.

ANS: D

REF: p. 189

14. Friction and shearing can lead to a. back injuries. b. poor posture and body mechanics. c. infection and pressure injuries. d. difficulty breathing.

ANS: C

REF: p. 187

15. You can reduce friction and shearing by a. using a friction-reducing device. b. using a transfer belt. c. positioning the person in Fowler’s position. d. sliding the person.

ANS: A

REF: p. 187

16. You need to move a resident up in bed. To reduce bending and reaching a. raise the bed rails. b. use a transfer belt. c. raise the bed for body mechanics. d. lock the bed wheels.

ANS: C

REF: p. 186

17. You need which information from the nurse before moving a patient except a. patient’s age. b. patient’s height and weight. c. patient’s physical abilities. d. patient’s ability to follow directions.

ANS: A

REF: p. 186

18. A resident is 80 years old. The person weighs 195 pounds and is weak. How many workers

are needed to move the person up in bed? a. Just 1 b. At least 2 and a friction-reducing device c. At least 3 and a mechanical lift d. At least 4 ANS: B

REF: p. 188

19. Before moving a person up in bed, you need to a. put non-skid footwear on the person. b. lock the bed wheels. c. apply a transfer belt. d. raise the head of the bed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 189

20. Before moving, positioning, or transferring a person, you always need to a. explain to the person what you are going to do. b. apply a transfer belt. c. ask a co-worker to help you. d. move the person to the middle of the bed.

ANS: A

REF: p. 189

21. Some waterproof pads are used as assist devices. For a safe lift, the incontinence product must a. be strong enough to support the person’s weight. b. extend from the person’s shoulders to above the knees. c. be 2 feet wide. d. be a disposable, single-use under-pad.

ANS: A

REF: p. 190

22. A resident is recovering from spinal surgery. You need to move the person to the side of the

bed. Which procedure is the best to use? a. Moving the person in segments N R I G B.C M U S N T O b. Using an assist device c. Logrolling d. Moving the person with the assist of a co-worker ANS: B

REF: p. 190

23. A resident is 90 years old. The person has arthritis. You need to move the person to the side of

the bed. Which method is best? a. A mechanical lift b. Moving the person in segments c. The method the person wants to use d. The method you are most comfortable with ANS: A

REF: p. 192

24. After moving a person to the side of the bed, how should you position the pillow? a. Under the head only b. Under the back c. Under the head and shoulders d. Under the shoulders only ANS: C

REF: p. 192

25. A person has arthritis in the spine. You need to turn the person onto her right side. Which

procedure is used?

a. b. c. d.

Moving the person in segments The method the person likes Logrolling Using a mechanical lift

ANS: C

REF: p. 196

26. Before logrolling a patient, which information do you need from the nurse? a. What information to report to the physician. b. When to report observations. c. When to toilet the patient. d. How long the patient has been a resident.

ANS: B

REF: p. 196

27. When logrolling a person, the person is a. moved in segments. b. moved with the spine straight. c. turned using a transfer belt. d. turned away from you.

ANS: B

REF: p. 196

28. When logrolling a patient away from you, you a. shift your weight from your rear leg to your front leg. b. pull the person toward you gently. c. place a pillow under the knees. d. stand with the feet splayed.

I G B.C M

N R U S N T

ANS: A 29.

O

REF: p. 196

To dangle means to a. hang in the air. b. sit on the side of the bed. c. use a mechanical lift. d. be transferred to a stretcher.

ANS: B

REF: p. 197

30. The nurse asks you to dangle a resident. Before you do so, you need the following information

except a. which side is strong and which side is weak. b. how long the person needs to dangle. c. how to use good body mechanics. d. what exercises the person needs to perform while dangling.

ANS: C

REF: p. 197

31. You assist a patient to dangle. Once you get the person to the edge of the mattress, what

should you do? a. Report to the nurse that you have the person dangling. b. Explain to the person that you will return in 10 minutes to check on them. c. Stay with the person and provide support at all times.

d. Have the person move the legs back and forth and in circles.

ANS: C

REF: p. 198

32. Which device is used to re-position a patient in a chair or wheelchair? a. Gel cushion b. Pillow c. Transfer belt d. Gait belt ANS: C

REF: p. 200

33. You need to re-position a person in the chair. Which is correct? a. Position the chair as the person prefers, and lock the wheels according to the care

plan. b. Pull the person up from behind. c. Ask a co-worker what to do. d. Ask the person what to do.

ANS: A

REF: p. 200

34. A resident has slid down in the wheelchair. The person can follow directions and assist with

re-positioning. Which action is unsafe? a. You lock the wheelchair wheels. b. You position the person’s feet flat on the floor. c. You apply a transfer belt. d. You pull the person from behind the wheelchair.

ANS: D

REF: p.N 20U0

35. A patient has slid down in the wheelchair. The person cannot assist with re-positioning. To

safely re-position the person a. a mechanical lift is used. b. 1 worker is needed. c. 2 workers and an assist device are needed. d. at least 3 workers are needed.

ANS: A

REF: p. 200

TRUE/FALSE 1. When using an assist device to move a person to the side of the bed, you need at least 1

co-worker to help you.

ANS: T

REF: p. 198

2. To move the person in segments, move the person away from you.

ANS: F

REF: p. 192

3. If dizziness or fainting occurs while a patient is dangling, you should lay the person down.

ANS: T

REF: p. 197

Chapter 16: Transferring the Person Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The nurse asks you to transfer a resident to a wheelchair. Before transferring the person, the

nurse and care plan tell you the following except a. what procedure to use. b. areas of weakness. c. the amount of help the person needs. d. how to protect the person’s privacy.

ANS: D

REF: p. 204

2. For a bed to wheelchair transfer, the person needs to wear a. slippers. b. socks. c. panty hose. d. non-skid footwear.

ANS: D

REF: p. 206

3. To prevent falls during transfers, wheelchair, bed, shower chair, and stretcher wheels must a. be fully inflated. b. be locked. c. not squeak. d. be clean.

ANS: B

REF: p. 205

4. A resident has weakness on her left side. You are transferring her from the bed to the

wheelchair. Where should you position the wheelchair? a. Near the head of the bed on her left side b. Near the head of the bed on her right side c. At the foot of the bed d. At the head of the bed ANS: B

REF: p. 206

5. A stand-pivot transfer is used if a. the person requests it. b. the person is not able to assist. c. a mechanical lift is not available. d. the person is strong enough, cooperative, and can assist.

ANS: D

REF: p. 205

6. When transferring a person a. the person’s strong side moves first. b. the person’s weak side moves first. c. the side closest to you moves first.

d. the person’s right side moves first.

ANS: A

REF: p. 206

7. A transfer belt is not needed to transfer a resident from the bed to a chair. For the transfer,

how should you hold onto the person? a. Have the person put her arms around your waist. b. Have the person put her arms around your neck. c. Place your hands under the person’s arms and around the person’s shoulder blades. d. Hold the person’s weak arm while she supports herself with her strong arm.

ANS: C

REF: p. 207

8. You are going to transfer a resident from the wheelchair back to bed. Where should you

position the wheelchair? a. So the person’s strong side is near the bed b. So the person’s weak side is near the bed c. Where it was when the person was transferred from the bed to the wheelchair d. Wherever the person prefers ANS: A

REF: p. 210

9. A mechanical lift is used to transfer a patient to the wheelchair. Before using the lift, you need

to a. b. c. d.

clean it. read the manufacturer’s instructions. apply a transfer belt. apply an assist device.

ANS: B

REF: p. 213

10. A person is heavier than the weight limit of the mechanical lift. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Use the lift. c. Get another co-worker to help. d. Allow personal choice. Ask the person what to do.

ANS: A

REF: p. 213

11. You are using a mechanical lift to transfer a person. Which is incorrect? a. Explain the procedure before you begin. b. Show the person how the lift works. c. Ask a co-worker to help you. d. Lower the bed to the lowest horizontal position.

ANS: D

REF: p. 214

12. How many staff members are needed to safely transfer a person using a mechanical lift? a. Just 1 b. At least 2 c. At least 3 d. At least 4

ANS: B

REF: p. 214

13. The nursing center has a new mechanical lift. Which statement is correct? a. If you used the old model, you know how to use the new one. b. All mechanical lifts are the same. c. You need to be trained in its use. d. The new one is safer to use.

ANS: C

REF: p. 214

14. You are going to transfer a patient from the wheelchair to the toilet. Which statement is

incorrect? a. The person needs help removing clothing. b. The person uses the grab bars by the toilet for support. c. The wheelchair is positioned in front of the toilet. d. The wheelchair brakes are locked.

ANS: C

REF: p. 212

15. After transferring a person to the toilet, you should a. close the bathroom door and stay near the bathroom. b. close the bathroom door and leave the room. c. always stay in the bathroom with the person. d. leave the room.

ANS: A

REF: p. 212

16. After the person finishes eliminating, you need to N R SI NGTB.C OM a. help with wiping, perineal U care, flushing, and hand-washing as needed. b. position the wheelchair in front of the toilet. c. ask what the person observed about the urine and/or bowel movement. d. flush the toilet and practice hand hygiene.

ANS: A

REF: p. 212

17. Persons who need help moving and transferring may feel embarrassed. Which action does not

promote pride and independence? a. Focus on the person’s abilities. b. Encourage the person. c. Do as much as possible for the person. d. Tell the person when you notice even small improvement.

ANS: C

REF: p. 213

18. Which type of mechanical lift sling is used for persons with extra-large thighs? a. Toileting sling b. Bathing sling c. Extended length sling d. Amputee sling ANS: C

REF: p. 213

Chapter 17: Comfort Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Comfort is a. being warm and dry. b. a state of well-being. c. having enough blankets for warmth. d. having enough light to prevent eyestrain.

ANS: B

REF: p. 221

2. Full visual privacy means that a. the privacy curtain is drawn. b. windows and shades are adjusted. c. the person is completely free from public view while in bed. d. the room door is closed.

ANS: C

REF: p. 220

3. The person’s area of the room, or unit, is considered a. public space. b. working space. c. private. d. home-like.

ANS: C

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 221

4. In nursing centers, which room temperature is required by the Centers for Medicare &

Medicaid Services? a. 60°F to 66°F b. 68°F to 74°F c. 71°F to 81°F d. 82°F to 86°F ANS: C

REF: p. 222

5. A patient complains of drafts. To prevent drafts, you can do the following except a. make sure the person wears enough clothing. b. always keep the person covered with a bath blanket. c. offer the person a lap robe when he or she is sitting in a chair. d. keep the person away from drafty areas.

ANS: B

REF: p. 222

6. A resident is incontinent. He cannot control his bowel movements. To prevent odors, do the

following: a. Check the person often. b. Change the person’s clothing every 2 hours. c. Dispose of soiled clothing and linens at the end of your shift.

d. Remind the person to use the bathroom.

ANS: A

REF: p. 222

7. Which does not prevent odors? a. Changing soiled linen and clothing promptly b. Cleaning and disinfecting urinals and bedpans promptly c. Disposing of incontinence and ostomy products once every shift d. Providing good hygiene ANS: C

REF: p. 222

8. You just finished a cigarette. Before going to a patient or resident, you must a. leave your smoking materials at the nurses’ station. b. practice hand-washing. c. change your uniform. d. put on clean gloves.

ANS: B

REF: p. 222

9. You can reduce hospital and nursing center noise by doing the following except a. handling equipment carefully. b. answering phones, call lights, and intercoms promptly. c. reporting equipment with squeaky wheels. d. providing drapes and carpets that absorb noise.

ANS: D

REF: p. 222

10. A resident has dementia. TheNpU erR soSnIbN ecG oT mB es.vC erO yM upset whenever the phone rings. Why

might the person react this way? a. The phone ringing is too loud. b. The person wants to answer the phone. c. The person wants more attention from staff. d. The person does not understand what the sound means.

ANS: D

REF: p. 223

11. Lighting in patient and resident rooms is adjusted to meet a. your needs. b. the person’s needs. c. the nurse’s needs. d. the needs of the health team.

ANS: B

REF: p. 223

12. To reduce bending and stretching when giving care a. beds are in the lowest horizontal position. b. beds are raised horizontally. c. beds are kept in the flat position. d. the head of the bed is raised 60 degrees.

ANS: B

REF: p. 223

13. A patient has a manually operated bed. Which statement is incorrect? a. Hand cranks are at the head of the bed. b. The cranks are pulled up for use. c. When not in use, the cranks are kept in the “down” position. d. Cranks in the “up” position are a safety hazard.

ANS: A

REF: p. 223

14. Which bed position means the head of the bed is raised 30 degrees? a. The flat position b. Trendelenburg’s position c. The highest horizontal position d. Semi-Fowler’s position ANS: D

REF: p. 224

15. Which bed position requires a doctor’s order? a. The flat position b. Fowler’s position c. Semi-Fowler’s position d. Trendelenburg’s position ANS: D

REF: p. 224

16. Bariatric beds have a weight capacity from a. 100 to 195 pound. b. 200 to 275 pounds. c. 300 to 450 pounds. d. 500 to 1000 pounds.

ANS: D

REF: p. 226

17. Bed rails are used a. whenever you think they are needed. b. as the nurse and the care plan direct. c. whenever the bed is raised. d. for all patients and residents, to prevent falls.

ANS: B

REF: p. 224

18. Persons at risk for entrapment within the hospital bed system include the following except a. persons who are older. b. persons with poor muscle control. c. persons who are ambulatory, alert, and oriented. d. persons who are restrained.

ANS: C

REF: p. 224

19. You find a person entangled in hospital bed rails. What should you do? a. Check the person’s vital signs. b. Try to release the person and call for the nurse at once. c. Ask the person what happened. d. Get a co-worker to help you remove the bed rails.

ANS: B

REF: p. 224

20. Which statement about over-bed tables is incorrect? a. They can be raised or lowered. b. They can be used as a work area. c. You can place urinals and bedpans on them. d. They are used for meals.

ANS: C

REF: p. 227

21. Where are bedpans and urinals stored? a. In bedside stands b. In over-bed tables c. In closets d. Under the bed ANS: A

REF: p. 227

22. A resident brought a chair from home. The chair is unsafe if a. it has armrests. b. it is comfortable for the person. c. it tips during transfers. d. the person can get in and out of it easily.

ANS: C

REF: p. 227

23. You are going to help a resident get dressed. Which provides full visual privacy from the

person’s roommate? a. Closing window shades b. Pulling the privacy curtain around the person’s bed c. Closing the person’s room door d. Holding a bath blanket around the person ANS: B

REF: p. 227

24. Which statement about call lights is correct? a. Keep the call light within the person’s reach. b. Place the call light on the person’s weak side. c. Remind the person to use the call light only for emergencies. d. Answer call lights when you have time.

ANS: A

REF: p. 228

25. When using an intercom system, you must be careful to protect the person’s right to a. personal choice. b. refuse treatment. c. informed consent. d. confidentiality.

ANS: D

REF: p. 228

26. A patient’s left side is paralyzed. Where should you place the call light?

a. b. c. d.

On the person’s left side On the person’s right side Wherever you can attach it To the person’s pillow

ANS: B

REF: p. 229

27. A resident’s bathroom call light is on. When should you respond? a. At once b. When the nurse tells you to c. When you are near the room d. After you finish other care ANS: A

REF: p. 229

28. Which is not a safety feature of patient and resident bathrooms? a. Towel racks b. Grab bars c. Raised toilet seats d. The call light ANS: A

REF: p. 229

29. Which statement about the nursing center resident’s closet is incorrect? a. The center must provide each person with closet space. b. The person must have free access to the closet and its contents. c. Two residents can share the same closet space if it is large. d. Closet space includes sheN lvesRanI d a cGlothBe. sC rackM .

U S N T

ANS: C

O

REF: p. 229

30. You are straightening a person’s unit. Which is correct? a. Rearrange the room. b. Discard papers, flowers, food, and other clutter. c. Empty the wastebasket at least once a day. d. Make a closed bed.

ANS: C

REF: p. 221

31. To maintain the person’s unit, do the following except a. place the over-bed table and bedside stand within the person’s reach. b. provide the person with enough tissues and toilet paper. c. use a room deodorizer every 4 hours. d. straighten bed linens and towels as often as needed.

ANS: C

REF: p. 221

32. A clean, dry, wrinkle-free bed does the following except a. increases the person’s comfort. b. prevents incontinence. c. helps prevent skin breakdown. d. helps prevent pressure injuries.

ANS: B

REF: p. 230

33. Linens are changed a. when wet, soiled, or damp. b. when loose or wrinkled. c. every shift. d. at bedtime.

ANS: A

REF: p. 230

34. When changing linens, you must follow a. the safety data sheet (SDS). b. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. c. Standard Precautions and sterile technique. d. OBRA and OSHA standards.

ANS: B

REF: p. 230

35. A nursing center resident is out of bed all day. What kind of bed should you make? a. Closed bed b. Open bed c. Occupied bed d. Surgical bed ANS: A

REF: p. 230

36. A nursing center resident needed hospital care. The person will return to the nursing center by

ambulance. What kind of bed should you make?

N R I G B.C M U S N T O a. Closed bed b. Open bed c. Occupied bed d. Surgical bed ANS: D

REF: p. 230

37. When removing used linens from a bed a. Use forceps. b. Place on a clean surface. c. Remove used linens 1 piece at a time. d. Wear 2 pair of gloves.

ANS: C 38.

REF: p. 231

Clean linens are placed on a clean surface. on the floor. on top of used linens. under used linens.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

REF: p. 231

39. In nursing centers, linens are changed a. on bath or shower day.

b. on the weekend. c. every day. d. every shift.

ANS: A

REF: p. 231

40. A drawsheet is placed a. on the mattress pad. b. over the blanket. c. over the bottom sheet. d. on the pillow.

ANS: C

REF: p. 232

41. When removing used linens you must wear a. gloves. b. a gown. c. a face mask. d. eye protection.

ANS: A

REF: p. 231

42. A waterproof drawsheet is used. It must be placed a. at the foot of the bed. b. in the middle of the mattress. c. over the patient. d. at the head of the bed.

ANS: B

REF: p.N 23U2

43. Which can be used as an assist device to move and transfer persons in bed? a. Mattress pad b. Bottom sheet c. Pillow d. Drawsheet ANS: D

REF: p. 232

44. You are going to make a bed. For body mechanics, the bed is a. in Fowler’s position. b. raised. c. locked into position. d. moved so you can reach it with ease.

ANS: B

REF: p. 223

45. When making a patient’s bed you should place the open end of the pillowcase facing a. toward the bottom of the bed. b. toward the top of the bed. c. toward the window. d. away from the door.

ANS: D

REF: p. 234

46. Linens are straightened and tightened a. daily. b. after the bath or shower. c. at bedtime. d. whenever needed.

ANS: D

REF: p. 232

47. Wet, damp, or soiled linens are changed a. right away. b. after meals. c. after the shower or bath. d. each shift.

ANS: A

REF: p. 231

48. A resident has a closed bed. How can you make an open bed for the person? a. Remove the linens. b. Make a cuff with the top sheet, blanket, and bedspread. c. Fan-fold back the top linens. d. Fan-fold top linens to the side of the bed.

ANS: C

REF: p. 230

49. The bottom sheet is placed on the bed correctly if a. the hem-stitching is down. b. the hem-stitching is up. c. the top edge is even with the top of the mattress. d. it completely covers the plastic drawsheet.

ANS: A

REF: p. 234

50. After making a bed, do the following: a. Raise the bed. b. Place the call light within the person’s reach. c. Ask the nurse to check your work. d. Fold back top linens.

ANS: B

REF: p. 234

51. A resident does not use bed rails. You need to make an occupied bed. For the person’s safety

you should a. raise the bed rails. b. keep the bed in the low position. c. ask a co-worker to help you. d. make an open bed instead.

ANS: C

REF: p. 236

52. A resident brought a pillow from home. Which statement is correct? a. He needs to bring a pillowcase, too. b. He must use a pillow provided by the nursing center.

c. Handle the pillow with care and respect. d. The pillow must have a safety check by the maintenance department.

ANS: C

REF: p. 245

53. You are making a surgical bed for a patient returning from surgery. Which is correct? a. A complete linen change is needed. b. Leave the bed in the lowest position. c. Leave both bed rails up. d. Attach the call light to the bed.

ANS: A

REF: p. 239

54. Which statement about pain is incorrect? a. Pain is subjective. You must rely on what the person says. b. The nurse uses the nursing process to relieve pain. c. Response to pain is influenced by the person’s culture. d. You can see pain.

ANS: D

REF: p. 240

55. Which statement about pain is correct? a. The meaning of pain is the same for everyone. b. Pain seems worse when the person is tired. c. You can see and feel another person’s pain. d. Sore and aching mean the same thing to everyone.

ANS: B 56.

REF: p. 241

Anxiety tends to a. relieve pain. b. increase pain. c. promote sleep. d. lessen fear and worry.

ANS: B

REF: p. 241

57. Which statement about pain is incorrect? a. Some people ignore pain to meet personal and family duties. b. Family and friends can help the person deal with pain. c. Sometimes pain brings pleasure. d. The ability to feel pain increases with aging.

ANS: D

REF: p. 242

58. A resident has dementia. The person cannot explain when there is pain or where the pain is.

Which is correct? a. The person’s family will tell you when the person has pain. b. Behavior changes may signal pain. c. Pain will cause the person to scream. d. Pain is not a concern. Persons with dementia cannot feel pain.

ANS: B

REF: p. 241

59. Sleep is needed for the following except a. lowering stress and tension. b. tissue healing and repair. c. regaining energy and mental alertness. d. promoting muscle activity.

ANS: D

REF: p. 244

60. Insomnia is a. the day-night cycle. b. a state of unconsciousness. c. a chronic condition in which the person cannot sleep or stay asleep all night. d. to ache, hurt, be sore, or have pain.

ANS: C

REF: p. 245

61. Insomnia includes the following except a. sleepwalking. b. being unable to fall asleep. c. being unable to stay asleep. d. waking early and being unable to fall back asleep.

ANS: A

REF: p. 245

62. Which statement about sleep deprivation is correct? a. The person needs a sleeping pill. b. The amount and quality of sleep are decreased.

N R wIalN G bout B.C M c. The person leaves the bed aUnd S ks aT duO ring sleep. d. The person wakes up very early.

ANS: B

REF: p. 245

63. You find a person sleepwalking. You should do the following except a. turn on the lights. b. protect the person from injury. c. guide the person back to bed. d. gently wake the person.

ANS: A

REF: p. 245

64. A person with dementia is awake and walking around at 1:00 AM. Which approach may be

helpful? a. Take the person to his room and close the door. b. Restrain the person in a chair. c. Let the person wander in a safe supervised area. d. Give the person a snack of toast and coffee.

ANS: C

REF: p. 244

65. The following measures promote sleep except a. providing a comfortable room temperature. b. following bedtime rituals.

c. providing clean, dry, wrinkle-free linens. d. providing coffee or wine at bedtime.

ANS: D

REF: p. 244

66. A back massage should last a. 3 to 5 minutes. b. 5 to 10 minutes. c. 10 to 15 minutes. d. No longer than 20 minutes.

ANS: A

REF: p. 244

67. When giving a back massage, do the following except a. use firm stokes. b. keep your hands in contact with the person’s skin. c. massage reddened areas. d. knead the person’s skin.

ANS: C

REF: p. 242

68. A patient has heart disease. Before giving the person a back massage, you need to a. check the person’s pulse. b. check with the nurse and the person’s care plan. c. warm some lotion. d. ask what position the person prefers.

ANS: B

REF: p. 242

69. A resident is 85 years old. You are going to give the person a back massage. Which position

will probably be most comfortable for the person? a. The supine position b. Fowler’s position c. A side-lying position d. Sims’ position ANS: C

REF: p. 243

70. When giving a back massage, you start at the a. lower back. b. mid back. c. shoulders. d. upper arms.

ANS: A

REF: p. 242

71. When applying lotion to bony areas, you use a. circular motions. b. rubbing motions. c. long, firm strokes. d. short, firm strokes.

ANS: A

REF: p. 243

TRUE/FALSE 1. Entrapment within the hospital bed system is a risk. Serious injury and death have occurred

from head, neck, and chest entrapment.

ANS: T

REF: p. 224

Chapter 18: Hygiene Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Cleansing the genital and anal areas is known as a. incontinent care. b. perineal care. c. personal hygiene. d. genital and anal care.

ANS: B

REF: p. 247

2. Hygiene measures are given a. only in the morning. b. only in the evening before bedtime. c. both in the morning and evening. d. whenever they are needed.

ANS: D

REF: p. 262

3. Hygiene measures do the following except a. prevent infection. b. prevent body and breath odors. c. promote relaxation. d. decrease circulation.

ANS: D

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 247

4. Which affects hygiene choices? a. The person’s care plan b. The person’s culture c. The person’s family d. The skin care products available ANS: B

REF: p. 247

5. To meet a person’s hygiene needs, you should a. follow the person’s care plan. b. review the person’s medical record. c. ask the person what to do. d. check the person’s ID bracelet.

ANS: A

REF: p. 247

6. Morning care usually involves the following except a. assisting with elimination. b. assisting with oral hygiene and face and hand-washing. c. cleaning incontinent persons and changing wet or soiled linen. d. giving back massages.

ANS: D

REF: p. 249

7. Morning care generally involves the following except a. oral hygiene, bathing, back massage, and perineal care. b. assisting with elimination. c. hair care, shaving, and dressing. d. helping the person change to sleepwear.

ANS: D

REF: p. 249

8. Afternoon care generally involves the following except a. assisting with activity. b. cleaning incontinent persons and changing wet or soiled linens. c. giving back massages. d. straightening beds and units.

ANS: C

REF: p. 249

9. Evening care generally involves the following except a. assisting with elimination. b. assisting with hygiene. c. giving back massages. d. assisting with activity.

ANS: D

REF: p. 249

10. Oral hygiene does the following except a. increases comfort. b. promotes the buildup of plaque and tartar.

N R I G B.C M

O c. makes food taste better. U S N T d. reduces the risk for cavities and periodontal disease.

ANS: B

REF: p. 249

11. A patient receiving oxygen therapy needs frequent oral hygiene because a. dry mouth is common from oxygen. b. a bad taste in the mouth occurs from oxygen. c. plaque buildup occurs from oxygen therapy. d. tartar and gum disease are common from oxygen.

ANS: A

REF: p. 252

12. If flossing is done once a day, the best time to floss is a. before breakfast. b. after breakfast. c. at bedtime. d. before bathing.

ANS: C

REF: p. 250

13. A resident wants to brush his teeth before lunch. What should you do? a. Help the person as needed. b. Tell the person that oral hygiene is done after meals. c. Ask the nurse if the person can have oral hygiene at this time.

d. Check the person’s medical record.

ANS: A

REF: p. 250

14. A resident has the following oral hygiene equipment. Which should you report to the nurse? a. Toothpaste b. Dental floss c. Hard-bristled toothbrush d. Mouthwash ANS: C

REF: p. 250

15. When giving oral hygiene, you need to wear a. gloves. b. a gown. c. a mask. d. a face shield.

ANS: A

REF: p. 249

16. A patient needs oral hygiene. The nurse and care plan tell you the following except a. the type of oral hygiene to give. b. if flossing is needed. c. how much help the person needs. d. how to give oral hygiene.

ANS: D

REF: p. 249

IN 17. You need to brush a person’sNtU eeR thS .W heGnTbB ru. shC inOgMthe person’s teeth you position the person a. in a sitting position. b. in a prone position. c. in a supine position. d. in a reverse Trendelenburg’s position.

ANS: A

REF: p. 250

18. When brushing the chewing surfaces of the teeth, you need to a. use sponge swabs. b. brush firmly, getting all signs of plaque off the teeth. c. brush the teeth gently. d. avoid using the brush; rather rinse with water.

ANS: C

REF: p. 250

19. You finish brushing a resident’s teeth. What should you do next? a. Let the person rinse with water. b. Brush the person’s tongue. c. Floss the person’s teeth. d. Let the person use mouthwash.

ANS: B

REF: p. 250

20. To floss teeth, the floss is moved

a. b. c. d.

left to right. right to left. up and down. side to side.

ANS: C

REF: p. 250

21. A patient is unconscious. To give the person mouth care, you need to use a. a toothbrush. b. mouthwash. c. sponge swabs. d. a denture brush.

ANS: C

REF: p. 252

22. You need to give a person oral hygiene. Because the person is unconscious, she is at risk for a. periodontal disease. b. plaque. c. tartar. d. aspiration.

ANS: D

REF: p. 252

23. A patient is unconscious. How should you position the person for oral hygiene? a. In Fowler’s position b. In the supine position c. In a side-lying position d. In the prone position ANS: C

REF: p. 252

24. A patient is unconscious. To keep the person’s mouth open during oral hygiene, you need to

use a. b. c. d.

sponge swabs. a plastic tongue depressor. your fingers. an orange stick.

ANS: B

REF: p. 252

25. A patient is unconscious. You need to assume that the person can a. hear you. b. see you. c. respond to you. d. smell.

ANS: A

REF: p. 252

26. A patient is unconscious. The person needs mouth care a. at least every 2 hours. b. during AM and PM care. c. before and after meals. d. daily.

ANS: A

REF: p. 252

27. An artificial tooth or a set of artificial teeth is a. tartar. b. plaque. c. a denture. d. dental floss.

ANS: C

REF: p. 254

28. A resident has a lower denture. To clean the denture, which is correct? a. Clean it over the kidney basin. b. Clean it over a basin of water lined with a towel. c. Use very hot water. d. Use toothpaste and a toothbrush.

ANS: B

REF: p. 254

29. A resident does not wear her lower denture for sleep. What should you do with the lower

denture? a. Store it in the denture cup filled with hot water. b. Store it in the denture cup filled with cool water or a denture soaking solution. c. Wrap it in a paper towel and place it in the top drawer of her bedside stand. d. Wrap it in a napkin and set it on the over-bed table within her reach.

ANS: B

REF: p. 254

30. You need to remove a resideN ntU ’sR loS wI erNdG enTtB ur. e.C WOhM at should you use? a. Gauze squares b. A washcloth c. An orange stick d. A padded tongue blade ANS: A

REF: p. 255

31. A resident uses a cleaning agent for his denture. When using the cleaning agent, you should a. use hot water. b. use cool water. c. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. d. ask the person what to do.

ANS: C

REF: p. 254

32. Bathing does the following except a. exercises body parts. b. decreases circulation. c. relaxes the person. d. refreshes the person.

ANS: B

REF: p. 256

33. Bath water temperature is measured to

a. b. c. d.

see how much water is in the tub or basin. protect the person from burns. record it in the person’s medical record. prevent skin breakdown.

ANS: B

REF: p. 258

34. You need to bathe a person with dementia. Which is incorrect? a. Increase the room temperature before starting the bath. b. Avoid telling the person what you are going to do. c. Let the person help as much as possible. d. Handle the person gently.

ANS: B

REF: p. 257

35. Bar soap is used for a resident’s bath. Between latherings, soap is a. left in the basin. b. placed on a paper towel. c. placed in a soap dish. d. kept in your hand.

ANS: C

REF: p. 256

36. Powder is applied a. in a thin, even layer. b. in a thick layer. c. under the arms. d. by sprinkling it on.

ANS: A

REF: p. 258

37. Water temperature for a complete bed bath is usually between a. 105°F and 109°F. b. 110°F and 115°F. c. 110°F and 120°F. d. 115°F and 120°F. ANS: B

REF: p. 259

38. You are going to assist a resident with a bath. Before doing so, you need the following

information except a. the type of bath to give. b. what skin care products to use. c. the person’s activity and position limits. d. how to apply lotion and powder.

ANS: D

REF: p. 257

39. You are bathing a resident. You note a reddened area on the person’s left shoulder. What

should you do? a. Massage the area during the back massage. b. Report the observation to the nurse. c. Apply powder to the site.

d. Rub the area.

ANS: B

REF: p. 257

40. You note the following while bathing a resident. You need to report the following except a. a rash on the person’s lower back. b. swollen feet and ankles. c. a bruise on the person’s right thigh. d. areas of intact skin.

ANS: D

REF: p. 257

41. When giving a complete bed bath, you start with the person’s a. face. b. arms. c. chest. d. perineum.

ANS: A

REF: p. 259

42. When giving a complete bed bath, you need to use a. towelettes. b. swabs. c. a sponge. d. several washcloths.

ANS: D

REF: p. 259

43. You will use soap for a patieN ntU ’sR bS atI h.N SG oaT pB is.nC otOuM sed to wash a. around the eyes. b. the underarms. c. the chest, abdomen, and back. d. the perineal area.

ANS: A

REF: p. 259

44. When drying a person, you should a. rub vigorously. b. pat dry. c. use long, firm strokes. d. use circular motions.

ANS: B

REF: p. 256

45. You are bathing a patient. You are ready to wash the person’s arms, chest, and abdomen.

Which do you wash first? a. The far arm b. The near arm c. The chest d. The abdomen ANS: A

REF: p. 260

46. When giving baths, which measures protect the person and yourself from infection? a. OSHA guidelines b. Isolation precautions c. Wearing gowns, gloves, and goggles d. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard ANS: D

REF: p. 258

47. The partial bath involves washing the a. face, hands, underarms, feet, and perineal area. b. face, hands, underarms, back, buttocks, and perineal area. c. face, hands, underarms, feet, buttocks, and perineal area. d. face, hands, underarms, and feet.

ANS: B

REF: p. 262

48. A resident is set up to give herself a partial bath. Before leaving the room, you must make

sure that a. the person’s wheelchair wheels are locked. b. the person’s call light is within reach. c. the person can reach all body parts. d. the person is wearing her eyeglasses and hearing aid.

ANS: B

REF: p. 263

49. A tub bath lasts no longer than a. 10 minutes. b. 15 minutes. c. 20 minutes. d. 30 minutes.

ANS: C

REF: p. 263

50. Patients and residents who take tub baths and showers are at risk for a. infection. b. burns and falls. c. dementia. d. chills and skin breakdown.

ANS: B

REF: p. 265

51. A shower room has two stalls. To protect the person’s privacy, do the following: a. Close doors and the privacy curtain. b. Cover the person with a bath blanket. c. Have the person wear a robe. d. Wait until both stalls are free.

ANS: A

REF: p. 265

52. Water temperature for a tub bath is usually a. 110°F to 115°F. b. 110°F to 120°F. c. 105°F.

d. 105°F to 109°F. ANS: C

REF: p. 265

53. A resident is done taking a tub bath. When should you assist the person out of the tub? a. Before draining the tub b. While the tub drains c. After the tub drains d. Whenever the person is ready to get out ANS: C

REF: p. 266

54. To prevent the spread of infection when the person takes a shower, do the following: a. Have the person wear non-skid footwear. b. Clean and disinfect the shower before and after use. c. Wear gloves. d. Wear a gown, mask, and gloves.

ANS: B

REF: p. 265

55. When should the patient remove clothing and footwear when showering? a. Once the shower is finished b. Just before getting into the shower c. After getting into the shower d. While in bed ANS: B

REF: p. 265

56. You are adjusting the water fN orUaRpS atI ieN ntG ’sTsB ho. wC erO .M Which is correct? a. Cold water is turned on first. b. Hot water is turned on first. c. Water pressure is turned on first. d. Water pressure is turned on last.

ANS: A

REF: p. 263

57. When adjusting water temperature, water is directed a. toward the person. b. away from the person. c. toward you. d. away from you.

ANS: B

REF: p. 263

58. Which statement about showers and tub baths is incorrect? a. The person is covered for warmth and privacy. b. Bath oils make tub and shower surfaces slippery. c. You must stay within hearing distance if the person can be left alone. d. You can leave weak or unsteady persons alone as long as you stay within hearing

distance.

ANS: D

REF: p. 263

59. Perineal care does the following except a. prevent infection. b. prevent odors. c. promote comfort. d. prevent burns.

ANS: D

REF: p. 266

60. When giving perineal care, you start at the a. anus. b. urethra. c. penis. d. labia.

ANS: B

REF: p. 266

61. Water temperature for perineal care is usually a. 110°F to 115°F. b. 110°F to 120°F. c. 105°F. d. 105°F to 109°F. ANS: D

REF: p. 267

62. When giving perineal care a. upward strokes are used (rectal area to urethra). b. a clean part of the washcloth is used for each stroke. c. the rectal area is washed N firstR . I G B.C M d. bath oil is used.

ANS: B

U S N T

O

REF: p. 269

63. A male resident is not circumcised. When giving perineal care, you need to a. retract the foreskin. b. separate the labia. c. start at the rectum. d. use firm, upward strokes.

ANS: A

REF: p. 270

64. To clean the tip of the penis, you use a. firm, upward strokes. b. firm, downward strokes. c. circular motions. d. short strokes.

ANS: C

REF: p. 270

65. A male resident is not circumcised. After cleaning his penis, you should a. release the labia. b. return the foreskin to its natural position. c. lower his legs. d. clean the rectal area.

ANS: B

REF: p. 270

66. Encouraging the patient to do their own self-care promotes a. happiness. b. relaxation. c. anxiety. d. independence.

ANS: D

REF: p. 271

TRUE/FALSE 1. When a person is unconscious, dentures are not worn.

ANS: T

REF: p. 252

2. The person’s choice of bath time is respected whenever possible.

ANS: T

REF: p. 256

3. Bathing procedures can threaten persons with dementia.

ANS: T

REF: p. 257

4. You are giving a complete bed bath. Bath water is changed before giving perineal care.

ANS: T

REF: p.N 260

U

Chapter 19: Grooming Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Excessive body hair is a. alopecia. b. dandruff. c. pediculosis. d. hirsutism.

ANS: D

REF: p. 274

2. Hair loss is a. alopecia. b. dandruff. c. pediculosis. d. hirsutism.

ANS: A

REF: p. 274

3. Infestation with winged insects is a. dandruff. b. pediculosis. c. corporis. d. nits.

ANS: B

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 274

4. Pediculosis capitis is an infestation with lice on the a. scalp. b. body. c. pubic hair. d. buttocks.

ANS: A

REF: p. 274

5. Scabies is a skin disease caused by a female mite. Which is incorrect? a. Scabies is highly contagious. b. The person has a rash and intense itching. c. Special creams are ordered to kill the mites. d. Clothing and linens are burned to kill the mites.

ANS: D

REF: p. 274

6. The excessive amount of dry, white flakes from the scalp is a. alopecia. b. dandruff. c. pediculosis. d. hirsutism.

ANS: B

REF: p. 274

7. Grooming measures do the following except a. prevent infection. b. promote comfort. c. affect self-esteem needs. d. promote safety.

ANS: D

REF: p. 273

8. Who chooses how a person’s hair is styled? a. The nurse b. The health team c. The person d. The family ANS: C

REF: p. 275

9. Brushing and combing hair are done a. during early morning care and morning care. b. during morning care, afternoon care, and when the person requests it. c. during afternoon care and before bedtime. d. during early morning care, morning care, afternoon care, and whenever needed.

ANS: D

REF: p. 275

10. Which prevents long hair from matting and tangling? a. Daily brushing and combing b. Daily shampooing c. Hair conditioner d. Cutting hair ANS: A

REF: p. 275

11. When brushing hair that is not matted or tangled, you start at the a. scalp. b. forehead. c. back of the head. d. hair ends.

ANS: A

REF: p. 276

12. A person’s hair is matted and tangled. What should you do? a. Braid the person’s hair. b. Cut the person’s hair. c. Comb or brush through to the hair ends. d. Shampoo the person’s hair.

ANS: C

REF: p. 276

13. A person has curly hair. What should you use for hair care? a. A hand-held nozzle b. A brush with sharp bristles c. A comb with sharp teeth

d. The products described in the care plan ANS: D

REF: p. 275

14. A patient has small braids. Which is incorrect? a. The person’s consent is needed to undo the braids. b. The braids are removed for shampooing. c. Small braids are a common practice in some cultural groups. d. The person decides how her hair is styled.

ANS: B

REF: p. 275

15. A resident needs her hair brushed. You just changed her pillowcase. What should you do? a. Ask her to wait until she is in the bathroom. b. Place a towel across her pillow. c. Change the pillowcase again. d. Comb her hair instead of brushing it.

ANS: B

REF: p. 275

16. You assist a person with hair care. You need to report the following except a. coarse or curly hair. b. scalp sores. c. patches of hair loss. d. very oily hair.

ANS: A

REF: p. 275

17. A resident’s hairbrush has veN ryUsR haSrpIbNrG istT leB s..YCoO uM are concerned that it could injure the

person’s scalp. What should you do? a. Ask the person’s family to buy a different hairbrush. b. Throw the hairbrush away and use a comb. c. Tell the nurse about your concerns. d. Ask the person if you should continue to use the hairbrush.

ANS: C

REF: p. 275

18. To give hair care, you begin by parting the hair into a. 2 sections. b. 3 sections. c. 4 sections. d. 5 sections.

ANS: A

REF: p. 276

19. A resident gets her hair done in the beauty shop. During her shower, her hair is protected with

a a. b. c. d.

towel. bath blanket. shower cap. hand-held nozzle.

ANS: C

REF: p. 277

20. A resident has limited range-of-motion in his neck. The person is not shampooed a. during a shower or tub bath. b. at the sink or on a stretcher. c. during a tub bath. d. in bed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 278

21. When shampooing a person in bed, you need a. a shampoo tray and basin. b. a hand-held nozzle. c. a stretcher. d. a hair dryer.

ANS: A

REF: p. 277

22. The shampoo method used depends on the following except a. the person’s condition. b. safety factors. c. how much time you have. d. personal choice.

ANS: C

REF: p. 277

23. Before shampooing a patient’s hair, you should a. pat the hair dry with a clean towel. b. place a shower cap on the patient’s head.

N R I G B.C M O

U S N T c. trim the hair. d. remove snarls and tangles from the hair.

ANS: D

24.

REF: p. 278

To prevent shampoo from getting into the person’s eyes the person is shampooed at the sink or on a stretcher. a hand-held nozzle is used. the hair is rinsed thoroughly. the person holds a washcloth over the eyes.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D

REF: p. 278

25. A patient has scalp sores. When shampooing the person’s hair, which of the following should

be done? a. Use a hand-held nozzle b. Wear gloves c. Shampoo the person at the sink d. Use a medicated shampoo and conditioner ANS: B

REF: p. 278

26. A resident has dementia. To shave the person’s face, you need to use a. a razor blade. b. a safety razor.

c. an electric shaver. d. a blade shaver.

ANS: C

REF: p. 280

27. When shaving legs, you start at the a. knee. b. thigh. c. ankle. d. calf.

ANS: C

REF: p. 279

28. When shaving the face and underarms a. shave in the direction of hair growth. b. shave in the direction opposite hair growth. c. shave from left to right. d. shave from right to left.

ANS: A

REF: p. 279

29. A center’s electric shaver is used to shave several men. The shaver is cleaned a. daily. b. every shift. c. after every use. d. after all the men are shaved.

ANS: C

REF: p. 279

30. A patient receives anticoagulant drugs. To shave the person’s face, you need to use a. a razor blade. b. an electric shaver. c. a safety razor. d. a blade shaver.

ANS: B

REF: p. 280

31. Disposable shavers are discarded a. into the wastebasket. b. into a sharps container. c. with used linen. d. after 3 uses.

ANS: B

REF: p. 280

32. Which are risks when using a safety razor? a. Nicks and cuts b. Irritated skin and rashes c. Sores d. Pediculosis corporis ANS: A

REF: p. 280

33. When shaving a person, you must follow a. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. b. surgical asepsis. c. OBRA regulations. d. accrediting agency standards.

ANS: A

REF: p. 280

34. Before shaving a man’s face with a safety razor, you need to do the following except a. put on gloves. b. apply a wet washcloth to his face. c. apply shaving cream. d. dry the face thoroughly.

ANS: D

REF: p. 280

35. When using a safety razor to shave the face, you shave a. against hair growth. b. in the direction of hair growth. c. left to right strokes. d. right to left strokes.

ANS: B

REF: p. 281

36. You nick a person’s face. What should you do? a. Apply direct pressure to the bleeding site. b. Call for the nurse. c. Apply a Band-Aid. d. Wait for the bleeding to stop.

ANS: A

REF: p. 281

37. Beards and mustaches need a. daily washing and combing. b. care after meals. c. care at bedtime. d. weekly shampooing.

ANS: A

REF: p. 281

38. A resident has a beard. His beard is trimmed a. daily. b. weekly. c. when the nurse thinks it is too long. d. only with his consent.

ANS: D

REF: p. 281

39. Long or broken nails are dangerous because they a. can scratch the skin. b. cause infection. c. cause blisters. d. lead to gangrene.

ANS: A

REF: p. 282

40. Nail care helps prevent the following except a. hangnails. b. ingrown nails. c. nails torn away from the skin. d. poor circulation.

ANS: D

REF: p. 282

41. Dirty feet, socks, or stockings can harbor microbes and cause a. foot odors. b. blisters. c. foot injuries. d. gangrene.

ANS: A

REF: p. 282

42. When giving nail care, use the following except a. nail clippers. b. scissors. c. emery board. d. orangewood stick or nail file.

ANS: B

REF: p. 282

43. Fingernails are a. cut with a scissors. b. clipped in a rounded shape. c. clipped straight across. d. always clipped by an RN. ANS: C

REF: p. 282

44. Nursing assistants do not a. clip fingernails. b. file fingernails. c. cut toenails if a person has diabetes. d. push back cuticles.

ANS: C

REF: p. 282

45. When giving nail and foot care, the feet usually soak for a. 5 to 10 minutes. b. 10 to 15 minutes. c. 15 to 20 minutes. d. 20 to 25 minutes.

ANS: C

REF: p. 282

46. When giving nail and foot care, the nurse and care plan tell you the following except a. what water temperature to use.

b. how long to soak the feet and fingernails. c. what observations to report and record. d. how to assist the podiatrist.

ANS: D

REF: p. 282

47. Nails are shaped with a. scissors. b. nail clippers. c. an emery board or nail file. d. an orangewood stick or nail clipper.

ANS: C

REF: p. 283

48. When giving foot care, which of the following should be done? a. Support the person’s foot and ankle. b. Soak the feet for 30 minutes. c. Use a scissors. d. Position the person in the supine position.

ANS: A

REF: p. 282

49. You are assisting a person to dress. Which is correct? a. The person chooses what to wear. b. You decide what the person should wear. c. The nurse tells you what the person should wear. d. The family decides what the person should wear.

ANS: A

REF: p.N 28U4

50. You are assisting a person to dress. Which is incorrect? a. Provide for privacy. b. Do as much for the person as possible. c. Make sure garments are the right size. d. Support the arm or leg when removing or putting on a garment.

ANS: B 51.

REF: p. 284

When removing clothing, which is correct? a. It is removed from the strong side first. b. It is removed from the weak side first. c. Pullover garments are removed first. d. Garments that open in the front are removed first.

ANS: A

REF: p. 284

52. When putting on clothing, clothing is put on a. the strong side first. b. the weak side first. c. in the order the person prefers. d. in the order directed by the nurse.

ANS: B

REF: p. 284

53. A resident with dementia is having problems dressing. Which measure will not help? a. Let the person dress himself or herself to the extent possible. b. Let the person choose what to wear from 2 or 3 outfits. c. Stack clothes in the order they will be put on. d. Be firm and try to complete the process quickly.

ANS: D

REF: p. 284

54. A person has an IV. When changing the person’s gown, you first a. remove the gown from the arm with the IV. b. remove the gown from the arm with no IV. c. remove the IV. d. ask the person what he or she wants to wear.

ANS: B

REF: p. 290

55. When changing the gown of a person with an IV, you keep the IV bag a. hanging on the IV pole. b. below the person. c. above the person. d. on the bed.

ANS: C

REF: p. 290

56. A person has an IV. When putting the clean gown on, you first put the clean gown a. on the arm with the IV. b. on the arm without the IV. c. over the person’s head. d. so the ties are in the front.

ANS: A

REF: p. 290

Chapter 20: Urinary Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Abnormally large amounts of urine is called a. polyuria. b. oliguria. c. nocturia. d. dysuria.

ANS: A

REF: p. 295

2. Dysuria means a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. painful or difficult urination.

ANS: D

REF: p. 295

3. Nocturia means a. painful or difficult urination. b. frequent urination at night. c. the production of abnormally large amounts of urine. d. voiding or urination.

ANS: B

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 295

4. Hematuria means a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. scant amount of urine. d. difficult or painful urination.

ANS: B

REF: p. 295

5. A resident has control of her bladder. The person could not get to the bathroom in time

because her call light was not answered promptly. The person was incontinent of urine. This is a. mixed incontinence. b. over-flow incontinence. c. functional incontinence. d. stress incontinence.

ANS: C

REF: p. 302

6. Small amounts of urine leak from a bladder that is always full. This is a. functional incontinence. b. mixed incontinence. c. over-flow incontinence. d. stress incontinence.

ANS: C

REF: p. 302

7. The loss of urine at predictable intervals when the bladder is full is a. over-flow incontinence. b. stress incontinence. c. reflex incontinence. d. urinary incontinence.

ANS: C

REF: p. 302

8. Urine leaks during exercise and certain movements that cause pressure on the bladder. This is a. over-flow incontinence. b. reflex incontinence. c. urge incontinence. d. stress incontinence.

ANS: D

REF: p. 302

9. The loss of urine in response to a sudden, urgent need to void is a. over-flow incontinence. b. urge incontinence. c. reflex incontinence. d. stress incontinence.

ANS: B

REF: p. 302

10. The involuntary loss or leakage of urine is a. urinary urgency. b. urinary frequency. c. urinary incontinence. d. urge incontinence.

ANS: C

REF: p. 302

11. Oliguria is a. a scant amount of urine. b. the production of abnormally large amounts of urine. c. the need to void at once. d. voiding at frequent intervals.

ANS: A

REF: p. 295

12. Urination is a. the production of abnormally large amounts of urine. b. the process of emptying urine from the bladder. c. the need to void at once. d. voiding at frequent intervals.

ANS: B

REF: p. 294

13. The urinary system removes a. solid wastes.

b. carbon dioxide. c. sweat. d. waste products from the blood.

ANS: D

REF: p. 294

14. The healthy adult produces about a. 1500 mL of urine each shift. b. 1500 mL of urine a day. c. 1000 mL of urine each shift. d. 1000 mL of urine a day.

ANS: B

REF: p. 294

15. People usually urinate at the following times except a. at bedtime. b. after sleep. c. before meals. d. during sleep.

ANS: D

REF: p. 294

16. You are assisting with urinary elimination needs. Which is incorrect? a. Practice medical asepsis. b. Practice surgical asepsis. c. Follow Standard Precautions. d. Follow the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard.

ANS: B

REF: p.N 29U4

17. You are assisting with urinary elimination needs. Which is incorrect? a. Provide for privacy. b. Follow the person’s care plan and voiding routines and habits. c. Place the call light and toilet tissue within reach. d. Stay with the person until the person is finished voiding.

ANS: D

REF: p. 294

18. After voiding, the person is a. assisted with hand-washing. b. transferred back to bed. c. given fluids. d. screened with the privacy curtain.

ANS: A

REF: p. 294

19. Normal urine has a a. faint odor. b. strong odor. c. sweet odor. d. ammonia odor.

ANS: A

REF: p. 295

20. Which of the following should you report to the nurse? a. Pale yellow urine b. Straw-colored urine c. Red-colored urine d. Amber-colored urine ANS: C

REF: p. 295

21. Which do men use to void? a. Bedpans b. Fracture pans c. Urinals d. Commodes ANS: C

REF: p. 298

22. You assist a patient onto the bedpan. How should you position the person? a. In a sitting position b. On the person’s left side c. On the person’s right side d. Supine ANS: A

REF: p. 297

23. A patient finished using the bedpan. The person cannot clean her genital area. Which action is

incorrect? a. Wear gloves. b. Wipe the area from the anus to the urethra. c. Use fresh tissue for each wipe. d. Provide perineal care if necessary.

ANS: B

REF: p. 297

24. A fracture pan is used for the following reasons except a. the person is in traction. b. the person has limited back motion. c. the person had hip replacement surgery. d. the person is incontinent.

ANS: D

REF: p. 295

25. A man is going to use the urinal. What should he do with the urinal when he is done? a. Place it on the bedside stand. b. Place it on the over-bed table. c. Hang it on the bed rail. d. Lay it on the bed.

ANS: C

REF: p. 298

26. A filled urinal presents safety hazards because a. it is easily spilled. b. it is a source of odors.

c. it is an unpleasant sight. d. it needs to be emptied.

ANS: A

REF: p. 299

27. After a person uses the commode, the container is a. thoroughly cleaned and disinfected. b. discarded and replaced with a new one. c. hung on the bed rail. d. placed in the bedside stand.

ANS: A

REF: p. 301

28. Which statement about using the commode is incorrect? a. Wheels are locked after the commode is positioned over the toilet. b. Commodes are always used in the bathroom. c. The person needs to wear non-skid footwear. d. The person is assisted with hand-washing after using the commode.

ANS: B

REF: p. 300

29. Which statement about incontinence is incorrect? a. It is a cause of falls. b. Infection can occur. c. Skin breakdown can occur. d. It is a matter of personal choice.

ANS: D

REF: p. 302

30. Which statement about incontinence is incorrect? a. It affects the person emotionally. b. A catheter is needed. c. Good skin care is needed. d. Dry garments and linens are needed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 302

31. To properly use incontinence products, which of the following should be done? a. Follow OBRA guidelines and the care plan. b. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions and agency procedures. c. Ask the person what to do. d. Provide perineal care.

ANS: B

REF: p. 304

32. A resident has incontinence. Dry garments and linens are provided a. every shift. b. every day. c. in the morning and at bedtime. d. whenever needed.

ANS: D

REF: p. 302

33. A resident has incontinence. You must a. answer the person’s call light promptly. b. place toilet tissue within the person’s reach. c. teach the person pelvic muscle exercises. d. choose incontinence products for the person.

ANS: A

REF: p. 303

34. A resident had 4 incontinent episodes this morning. You are becoming short-tempered and

impatient. What should you do? a. Remind the person to use the bedpan. b. Ask the person to use the bathroom every hour. c. Tell the person that other residents need your help. d. Talk to the nurse.

ANS: D

REF: p. 302

35. Complications from incontinence include the following except a. dementia. b. falls. c. pressure injuries. d. infections.

ANS: A

REF: p. 303

36. A resident with dementia urinates in plants and the trash can. You can do the following except a. follow the person’s bathroom routine as closely as possible. b. observe for signs that theNperR sonI neeG ds tB o. voCid. M

O c. insert an indwelling catheteU r. S N T d. tell the nurse when the person is incontinent.

ANS: C

REF: p. 303

37. When removing a patient’s soiled brief, remove the brief a. on the right side. b. on the left side. c. from front to back. d. from back to front.

ANS: C

REF: p. 305

38. Prompted voiding means the patient needs to a. void at schedule times. b. resist the strong urge to urinate. c. ignore voiding habits. d. clamp the catheter.

ANS: A

REF: p. 307

39. The goal of bladder training is to a. remove the catheter. b. treat incontinence. c. gain control of urination.

d. prevent infection.

ANS: C

REF: p. 307

40. A resident has a catheter. A bladder training program is part of the person’s care plan. The

training program involves a. having the person use the toilet at scheduled times. b. giving the person 15 to 20 minutes to start voiding. c. clamping the catheter for a certain period of time, then unclamping it to let urine drain. d. removing the catheter every 3 to 4 hours.

ANS: C

REF: p. 307

Chapter 21: Urinary Catheters Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A catheter is a. a tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body opening. b. an artificial way to remove waste and excess fluid from the body. c. a small bedpan with a thin rim. d. a container used to measure urine.

ANS: A

REF: p. 309

2. Catheters are used for the following purposes except a. promoting comfort for persons who are dying. b. protecting wounds and pressure injuries from urine. c. monitoring hourly urinary output measurements. d. treating the cause of incontinence.

ANS: D

REF: p. 310

3. A patient has a catheter. The drainage bag must be kept a. above the level of the bladder. b. below the level of the bladder. c. at the level of the bladder. d. at the person’s right side.

ANS: B

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 311

4. A patient has a catheter. When the person is in bed, you attach the drainage bag to a. an IV bag. b. the bed frame. c. the bed rail. d. the back of a chair.

ANS: B

REF: p. 311

5. A patient has a catheter. Which prevents urine from flowing freely? a. Coiling the drainage tubing on the bed b. Making sure the person does not lay on the tubing c. Keeping the tubing free of kinks d. Raising the drainage bag above the bladder ANS: D

REF: p. 311

6. A female resident has a catheter. To prevent excess catheter movement, you need to secure it

to a. b. c. d.

the bed. her abdomen. her inner thigh. an IV pole.

ANS: C

REF: p. 311

7. A resident has a catheter. Catheter care is given a. according to the care plan. b. daily. c. twice a day. d. every shift.

ANS: A

REF: p. 312

8. You are assigned to two residents with catheters. When emptying their drainage bags, which

action is correct? a. Use the same measuring container for both residents. b. Use a different measuring container for each person. c. Use the measuring container in the dirty utility room. d. Use whatever is handy.

ANS: B

REF: p. 318

9. To secure a catheter on a female a. tie it to the gown strings. b. secure it to the blanket with a safety pin. c. loop the tubing around the ankle. d. secure it to the bottom linens with a bed sheet clamp.

ANS: D

REF: p. 311

inar age e emptied 10. Unless directed otherwise, urN Ry SdrIain G Bba.gCs ar M U N T O a. every morning. b. at bedtime. c. at the end of every shift. d. at the start of every shift.

ANS: C

REF: p. 311

11. Persons with catheters need perineal care a. daily. b. as directed by the care plan. c. at bedtime. d. when their drainage bags are emptied.

ANS: B

REF: p. 311

12. A patient has a catheter. Before cleaning the person’s catheter, you need to a. give perineal care. b. empty the drainage bag. c. change the standard drainage bag to a leg bag. d. disconnect the catheter from the drainage bag.

ANS: A

REF: p. 313

13. When giving catheter care, hold the catheter near the

a. b. c. d.

vagina. genitals. meatus. perineum.

ANS: C

REF: p. 313

14. You are giving catheter care. Which action is correct? a. Clean downward, away from the meatus. b. Clean toward the meatus. c. Clean using up and down strokes. d. Clean from right to left.

ANS: A

REF: p. 313

15. A resident has an indwelling catheter. Which is incorrect? a. A closed drainage system is used. b. The drainage bag touches the floor. c. When the person walks, the drainage bag is held lower than the bladder. d. Drainage tubing is attached to the catheter.

ANS: B

REF: p. 311

16. A person’s catheter is accidentally disconnected from the drainage tubing. What should you

do? a. b. c. d.

Reconnect the ends after wiping them with antiseptic wipes.

Put the ends down. Call for the nurse.

Get a new drainage bag.

Change the drainage system.

ANS: A

REF: p. 314

17. A resident has a catheter. When the person is in bed, drainage tubing is secured to the a. inner thigh. b. bed frame. c. mattress. d. bottom linens.

ANS: D

REF: p. 311

18. You are emptying a urinary drainage bag. The drain a. can touch the measuring container. b. is cleaned with antiseptic wipes. c. must not touch any surface. d. is kept clamped.

ANS: C

REF: p. 311

19. You are going to apply a condom catheter. Which action is incorrect? a. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. Wash the penis with soap and water. c. Apply elastic tape in a spiral around the penis. d. Leave a 2-inch space between the penis and the end of the catheter.

ANS: D

REF: p. 317

20. You are going to apply a condom catheter. The catheter is a. rolled onto the penis. b. applied in a spiral fashion around the penis. c. inserted into the urethra. d. secured with adhesive tape.

ANS: A

REF: p. 317

21. To apply a condom catheter, do the following except a. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. wash the penis with soap and water. c. use elastic tape. d. apply tape completely around the penis.

ANS: D

REF: p. 317

Chapter 22: Bowel Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Fecal incontinence is the a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and accumulation of feces in the rectum. d. inability to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus.

ANS: D

REF: p. 324

2. Constipation is a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and accumulation of feces in the rectum. d. inability to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus.

ANS: A

REF: p. 323

3. Defecation is a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and accumulation of feces in the rectum. d. the process of excreting feces from the rectum through the anus.

ANS: D

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 321

4. Fecal impaction is a. passage of a hard, dry stool. b. frequent passage of liquid stools. c. prolonged retention and buildup of feces in the rectum. d. inability to control the passage of feces and gas through the anus.

ANS: C

REF: p. 323

5. An enema is a. the excessive loss of water from tissues. b. the introduction of fluid into the rectum and lower colon. c. gas or air in the stomach or intestines. d. a cone-shaped, solid drug inserted into a body opening.

ANS: B

REF: p. 325

6. Flatulence is a. the excessive formation of gas or air in the stomach and intestines. b. gas or air passed through the anus. c. a black, tarry stool. d. excreted feces.

ANS: A

REF: p. 324

7. Flatus is a. the excessive formation of gas in the stomach and intestines. b. gas or air passed through the anus. c. a black, tarry stool. d. excreted feces.

ANS: B

REF: p. 324

8. A colostomy is a surgically created opening between the a. small intestine and anus. b. colon and the body’s surface. c. ileum and stomach. d. rectum and abdominal wall.

ANS: B

REF: p. 327

9. Which statement about normal bowel elimination is incorrect? a. A bowel movement is needed every day. b. Stools are normally brown. c. Stools are normally soft, formed, moist, and shaped like the rectum. d. Stools have a normal odor.

ANS: A

REF: p. 321

10. Which statement about bowel elimination is correct? a. Low-fiber foods provide needed bulk to prevent constipation. b. Exercise decreases peristalsis. I G B.C M

N R

c. Changes in the gastro-intesU tinaS l traN ct fT rom agiO ng cause feces to pass through the

intestines at a faster rate. d. Lack of privacy can prevent a bowel movement despite having the urge.

ANS: D

REF: p. 322

11. Which foods leave a residue needed for normal bowel elimination? a. Milk and milk products b. Chocolate and other sweets c. Fruits and vegetables d. Fried foods ANS: C

REF: p. 322

12. Gas-forming foods aid defecation because they a. form chyme. b. stimulate peristalsis. c. absorb fluid. d. are easy to chew and digest.

ANS: B

REF: p. 322

13. To promote normal bowel elimination, how many glasses of water does a person need daily? a. 2 to 4 b. 4 to 6

c. 6 to 8 d. 8 to 10 ANS: C

REF: p. 322

14. Which fluids increase peristalsis? a. Cold fluids b. Warm fluids c. Alcoholic beverages d. Thick beverages ANS: B

REF: p. 322

15. You are assisting a resident with elimination. Which action is incorrect? a. Close doors, the privacy curtain, and window coverings. b. Follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. c. Place the call light and toilet tissue within reach. d. Stand next to the person until the person is finished.

ANS: D

REF: p. 322

16. What is the usual position for defecation? a. Sitting or squatting b. Sims’ c. Semi-Fowler’s d. Left side-lying ANS: A

REF: p. 322

17. A resident has finished defecating. Do the following except a. assist with perineal care as needed. b. dispose of stools promptly. c. assist the person with hand-washing. d. give the person a suppository.

ANS: D

REF: p. 322

18. If a person is constipated, you would expect the person’s stools to be a. hard and dry. b. liquid. c. soft and formed. d. putty-like.

ANS: A

REF: p. 323

19. If a person is constipated, you would expect the person’s stools to be a. large or marble-sized. b. liquid. c. soft and shaped like the rectum. d. black and tarry.

ANS: A

REF: p. 323

20. A resident is complaining of constipation. Which measure will not relieve constipation? a. Increasing the person’s fluid intake b. Encouraging the person to walk more c. Following the urge to have a BM d. Providing a low-fiber diet ANS: D

REF: p. 323

21. Which can occur if constipation is not relieved? a. Fecal impaction b. Enema c. Diarrhea d. Suppository ANS: A

REF: p. 323

22. Which is a sign of fecal impaction? a. The frequent passage of liquid stools b. Marble-sized stools c. Liquid feces seeping from the anus d. Passage of large stools ANS: C

REF: p. 323

23. Which is not a symptom of fecal impaction? a. Abdominal discomfort b. Rectal pain c. Nausea d. Joint pain ANS: D

REF: p. 323

24. A resident complains of diarrhea. The person needs assistance with ambulation. When the

person’s call light is on, you need to a. answer promptly. b. go to the person as soon as you finish assisting another resident. c. ask a co-worker to help you. d. tell the nurse.

ANS: A

REF: p. 323

25. A resident has diarrhea. To prevent odors and the spread of microbes, you need to do the

following except a. practice Standard Precautions. b. follow the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. c. dispose of stools promptly. d. have the person use the commode.

ANS: D

REF: p. 323

26. A person has diarrhea. Liquid feces and frequent wiping can lead to a. dehydration. b. skin breakdown.

c. oliguria. d. death.

ANS: B

REF: p. 323

27. Clostridium difficile (C. difficile) is a microbe that a. causes constipation and fecal impaction. b. causes diarrhea and intestinal infection. c. is found mainly in water. d. is airborne.

ANS: B

REF: p. 323

28. A person has fecal incontinence. The following measures are part of the care plan. Which

should you question? a. Assist with elimination after meals. b. Assist with elimination every 2 to 3 hours. c. Give good skin care. d. Assist with hand-washing once per shift.

ANS: D

REF: p. 324

29. Which is not a cause of fecal incontinence? a. Nervous system diseases b. A high-fiber diet c. Dementia d. Unanswered call lights ANS: B

REF: p.N 32U4

30. Which does not cause flatulence? a. Constipation b. Medications c. Bowel surgery d. Sleep ANS: D

REF: p. 324

31. Which position often produces flatus? a. Fowler’s b. Semi-Fowler’s c. Right side-lying d. Left side-lying ANS: D

REF: p. 324

32. A patient complains of flatulence. The following measures are part of the person’s care plan.

Which should you question? a. When the person is in bed, encourage the right side-lying position. b. Have the person move about when in bed. c. Encourage walking. d. Encourage exercise.

ANS: A

REF: p. 324

33. Bowel training helps prevent the following except a. fecal impaction. b. constipation. c. diarrhea. d. fecal incontinence.

ANS: C

REF: p. 324

34. A bowel training program is developed for a resident. The person usually has a bowel

movement after breakfast. When should you assist the person with elimination? a. After lunch b. Before lunch c. After breakfast d. Before breakfast ANS: C

REF: p. 324

35. The nurse gives a patient a suppository. When should you expect the person to have a bowel

movement? a. Right away b. In 10 minutes c. In 15 minutes d. In 30 minutes ANS: D

REF: p. 324

N R I G B.C M

Os except 36. Enemas are given to relieve theUfolS lowN ingT problem a. constipation. b. diarrhea. c. fecal impaction. d. flatulence.

ANS: B

REF: p. 325

37. You know that enemas a. are given before certain surgeries and diagnostic procedures. b. are not given before surgery. c. are not given to older persons. d. are only given to relieve constipation and fecal impaction.

ANS: A

REF: p. 325

38. The doctor orders a saline enema. What is added to water to prepare the enema solution? a. Mineral oil b. A drug c. Castile soap d. Salt ANS: D

REF: p. 325

39. Giving an enema is delegated to you. Because of the end-of-shift report, the nurse will not be

available to supervise you. What should you do? a. Ask a co-worker to help you. b. Give the enema if it is in your job description. c. Give the enema because it was part of your education and training. d. Give the enema when the nurse is available to supervise you.

ANS: D

REF: p. 325

40. What is the preferred position for giving an enema? a. Sims’ or left side-lying position b. Fowler’s or semi-Fowler’s position c. Prone or supine position d. Supine or right side-lying position ANS: A

REF: p. 325

41. How much volume is a soapsuds enema solution? a. 100 to 120 mL b. 200 to 300 mL c. 500 to 750 mL d. 500 to 1000 mL ANS: D

REF: p. 325

42. To prevent cramping when administering an enema a. use the correct water temperature. b. give the solution quickly. c. use cold water. d. position the patient in the prone position.

ANS: A

REF: p. 325

43. How far is the enema tube usually inserted into the adult rectum? a. 1 to 3 inches b. 2 to 4 inches c. 4 to 5 inches d. 5 to 6 inches ANS: B

REF: p. 325

44. Agency policy may allow repeating enemas a. 2 or 3 times. b. 5 to 6 times. c. 8 to 10 times. d. every 5 minutes.

ANS: A

REF: p. 325

45. A cleansing enema takes effect a. right away. b. in 5 to 10 minutes. c. in 10 to 20 minutes.

d. in 30 minutes.

ANS: C

REF: p. 325

46. Small-volume enemas a. promote flatus. b. cure diarrhea. c. irritate and distend the rectum. d. cause vomiting.

ANS: C

REF: p. 325

47. You are giving a cleansing enema. During the procedure, the person complains of pain. What

should you do? a. Stop insertion of the enema tip. b. Remove the tubing. c. Insert the tubing farther. d. Call for the nurse.

ANS: A

REF: p. 325

48. Before disposing of the enema results, which of the following should you do? a. Let the person observe the results. b. Ask the nurse to observe the results. c. Provide perineal care. d. Disinfect the bedpan or commode.

ANS: B

REF: p. 326

49. Which statement about small-volume enemas is incorrect? a. The solution is usually given at room temperature. b. It usually takes 5 to 10 minutes for the enema to take effect. c. Pressure is released on the bottle during administration. d. Staying in the Sims’ position helps to retain the enema.

ANS: C

REF: p. 325

50. Oil-retention enemas are retained for at least a. 15 minutes. b. 30 minutes. c. 1 hour. d. 3 hours.

ANS: B

REF: p. 327

51. After giving an oil-retention enema, the person is left in the a. Fowler’s or semi-Fowler’s position. b. Sims’ or left side-lying position. c. prone or supine position. d. supine or right side-lying position.

ANS: B

REF: p. 327

52. Which statement about colostomies is incorrect? a. The person wears a pouch to collect feces and flatus. b. Stool consistency depends on the colostomy site. c. The more colon remaining, the more liquid the stool. d. Good skin care is necessary because feces irritate the skin.

ANS: C

REF: p. 327

53. A person has an ileostomy. Which statement is incorrect? a. Water is absorbed before feces are expelled into the pouch. b. The entire colon was removed. c. Stools are liquid. d. Liquid stools drain constantly from the ileostomy.

ANS: A

REF: p. 327

54. To empty an ostomy pouch a. the belt is removed. b. the pouch is removed. c. the drain at the top is opened. d. the drain at the bottom is opened.

ANS: D

REF: p. 329

55. A person has an ostomy pouch. The pouch is bulging from flatus. What should you do? a. Call for the nurse. b. Make a hole in the pouch for the escape of gas. c. Open the pouch. d. Change the pouch.

ANS: C

REF: p. 329

56. Ostomy pouches are usually changed a. every day and when they leak. b. every time feces are present. c. every 2 to 7 days and when they leak. d. at least once a month.

ANS: C

REF: p. 329

57. Which will not prevent ostomy pouch odors? a. Eating cucumbers and radishes b. Good hygiene c. Emptying the pouch d. Putting deodorants into the pouch ANS: A

REF: p. 329

58. When is the best time to change an ostomy pouch? a. Before breakfast b. After breakfast c. After the evening meal d. Before bedtime

ANS: A

REF: p. 329

59. You just applied a new ostomy pouch. When can the person shower or bathe? a. Right away b. In 1 to 2 hours c. In 8 hours d. The next day ANS: B

REF: p. 329

TRUE/FALSE 1. Ostomy pouches are disposed of by flushing them down the toilet.

ANS: F

REF: p. 329

Chapter 23: Nutrition Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Anorexia is the a. loss of appetite. b. breathing of fluid, food, vomitus, or an object into the lungs. c. backward flow of food from the stomach to the mouth. d. swelling of body tissues with water.

ANS: A

REF: p. 335

2. Aspiration is a. loss of appetite. b. breathing fluid, food, vomitus, or an object into the lungs. c. the backward flow of food from the stomach to the mouth. d. the swelling of body tissues with water.

ANS: B

REF: p. 339

3. A calorie is a. how a serving fits into the daily diet. b. a substance that is ingested, digested, absorbed, and used by the body. c. a container used to measure fluid. d. the fuel or energy value of food.

ANS: D

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 332

4. Gavage is a. difficulty swallowing. b. the process of giving a tube feeding. c. the swelling of body tissues with water. d. the backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth.

ANS: B

REF: p. 345

5. Dysphagia is a. difficulty swallowing. b. a decrease in the amount of water in body tissues. c. the swelling of body tissues with water. d. the backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth.

ANS: A

REF: p. 339

6. Regurgitation is a. difficulty swallowing. b. a decrease in the amount of water in body tissues. c. the swelling of body tissues with water. d. the backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth.

ANS: D

REF: p. 346

7. Nutrition is a. the amount of energy produced when the body burns food. b. how a serving fits into the daily diet. c. a substance that is ingested, digested, absorbed, and used by the body. d. the processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of foods and

fluids by the body.

ANS: D

REF: p. 332

8. How many calories does 1 gram of fat provide? a. 1 b. 4 c. 9 d. 15 ANS: C

REF: p. 332

9. How many calories does 1 gram of protein provide? a. 1 b. 4 c. 9 d. 15 ANS: B

REF: p. 332

10. How many calories does 1 gram of carbohydrate provide? a. 1 b. 4 c. 9 d. 15 ANS: B

REF: p. 332

11. The MyPlate food guidance system encourages a. healthy eating from 5 food groups. b. the same amount and kinds of food for all persons over 2 years of age. c. 1 hour of vigorous physical activity at least 4 days each week. d. a diet high in fat, sodium, and sugar.

ANS: A

REF: p. 332

12. Which of the following should be remembered when selecting foods from the protein foods

group? a. Choose lean or low-fat meat and poultry. b. Processed meats are low in sodium. c. Liver and other organ meats are low in cholesterol. d. Egg yolks are low in cholesterol.

ANS: A

REF: p. 334

13. Fruits may reduce the risk for which diseases or illnesses? a. Gastric reflux

b. Heart disease c. Blindness d. Eating disorders ANS: B

REF: p. 333

14. Which nutrient is needed for tissue growth and repair? a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Vitamins ANS: A

REF: p. 334

15. Which nutrient provides energy and fiber? a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Vitamins ANS: B

REF: p. 334

16. These vitamins are not stored. They must be ingested daily a. Vitamins A and D. b. Vitamins D and E. c. Vitamins E and K. d. Vitamin C and the B complex vitamins.

ANS: D

REF: p.N 33U4

17. Minerals are needed a. for tissue growth and repair. b. to add flavor to food. c. to provide fiber for bowel elimination. d. for bone and tooth formation.

ANS: D

REF: p. 334

18. Which statement about eating and nutrition is incorrect? a. Food practices are affected by culture and religion. b. Unpleasant sights, thoughts, and smells affect appetite. c. Appetite usually increases during illness and recovery from injury. d. Changes from aging affect appetite and the foods eaten.

ANS: C

REF: p. 335

19. Which is not an OBRA requirement for foods served in nursing centers? a. Each person’s nutritional and dietary needs are met. b. The person’s diet is well-balanced. c. Each person is served at least 3 meals. A bedtime snack is offered. d. Food is prepared and seasoned for each person’s individual tastes.

ANS: D

REF: p. 335

20. A resident gets the house diet. Which is correct? a. The person has no dietary limits or restrictions. b. The person eats whatever is served. c. The person has no choice in the food served. d. The person takes part in a social dining program.

ANS: A

REF: p. 336

21. Persons with difficulty swallowing may require a. diabetic meal planning. b. a dysphagia diet. c. a sodium-controlled diet. d. a house diet.

ANS: B

REF: p. 339

22. Which foods are not allowed on a clear liquid diet? a. Custard, eggnog, and plain ice cream b. Water, tea, and coffee c. Clear fruit juices and fat-free clear broth d. Hard candy and popsicles ANS: A

REF: p. 336

23. A person is on a full-liquid diet. Foods on this diet are a. semi-solid. b. easily chewed. c. liquid at room temperature. d. low in roughage.

ANS: C

REF: p. 336

24. A person is on a mechanical soft diet. The person can have the following except a. mild cheeses. b. strained fruit juices. c. raw vegetables. d. pudding and plain cake.

ANS: C

REF: p. 336

25. A high-fiber diet is ordered for a. constipation and GI disorders. b. diarrhea. c. anemia. d. liver and kidney disorders.

ANS: A

REF: p. 336

26. A person is on a bland diet. Which is incorrect? a. Foods are low in roughage. b. Foods are served at moderate temperatures. c. Foods contain strong spices for taste.

d. Fried foods are not allowed.

ANS: C

REF: p. 337

27. A person is on a high-calorie diet. Which is correct? a. This is a high-protein diet. b. There are dietary increases in all foods. c. The person eats only snacks. d. Calorie intake is increased to 2500 a day.

ANS: B

REF: p. 337

28. High-iron diets are ordered a. when there is blood loss. b. for gallbladder disease. c. for weight reduction. d. for heart disease.

ANS: A

REF: p. 337

29. A person is on a low-cholesterol diet. Which food is allowed? a. Cheddar cheese b. Skim milk c. Creamed soup d. Fried chicken ANS: B

REF: p. 337

30. Diabetes meal planning invoN lvU es a. consistency of when food is eaten. b. a low-salt diet. c. changes in food thickness. d. a high-iron diet.

ANS: A

REF: p. 338

31. A person has diabetes. All food served is not eaten. What should you do? a. Provide a between-meal snack. b. Tell the nurse. c. Leave the tray. Perhaps the person will eat later. d. Give insulin.

ANS: B

REF: p. 338

32. Diabetes meal planning involves having the person a. eat only carbohydrates. b. eat only protein. c. avoid fats. d. eat the same amount of carbohydrates, proteins, and fat each day.

ANS: D

REF: p. 338

33. A patient has dysphagia. The person is at risk for

a. b. c. d.

aspiration. regurgitation. edema. dehydration.

ANS: A

REF: p. 339

34. The doctor ordered a dysphagia diet for a patient. The person’s food is pureed. Which is

correct? a. The person drinks his food from a cup. b. The person’s food is thick like mashed potatoes. c. The person needs to eat with a spoon. d. The person’s food is served in a bowl.

ANS: B

REF: p. 339

35. Which is not a sign or symptom of dysphagia? a. Choking b. Coughing c. Excessive drooling d. Constipation ANS: D

REF: p. 339

36. Which is not a sign or symptom of dysphagia? a. Excessive drooling b. Pocketing of food c. Increased appetite d. Hoarseness after eating ANS: C

REF: p. 339

37. A resident is on aspiration precautions. The person eats in bed. To provide for safety during

meals, you should position the person in the a. upright position. b. Sims’ position. c. lateral position. d. prone position.

ANS: A

REF: p. 339

38. A resident is on aspiration precautions. You position the person in an upright position after

eating. How long should the person remain in this position? a. 15 minutes b. At least 30 minutes c. 45 minutes d. At least 1 hour ANS: D

REF: p. 339

39. A resident is on aspiration precautions. When the person is done eating, you need to check his

mouth for a. pocketing.

b. the need for oral hygiene. c. food stains. d. gum disease.

ANS: A

REF: p. 339

40. A resident is on aspiration precautions. Where will you find instructions about special feeding

needs? a. Ask the person b. The person’s care plan c. The person’s chart d. On the person’s meal tray ANS: B

REF: p. 346

41. Impaired cognitive function may affect the patient’s ability to a. taste food. b. smell food. c. use eating utensils. d. digest food.

ANS: C

REF: p. 335

42. A sodium-controlled diet restricts daily intake of sodium to a. 1500 mg. b. 2000 mg. c. 2500 mg. d. 3000 mg.

ANS: A

REF: p. 338

43. A patient is NPO. This means that the person a. cannot eat or drink anything. b. has dysphagia. c. needs a feeding tube. d. can have fluids every 6 to 8 hours.

ANS: A

REF: p. 346

44. Before meals you should assist the patient with a. a bed bath. b. calling family. c. a patient assessment. d. elimination needs.

ANS: D

REF: p. 341

45. A patient will sit in the bedside chair for lunch. After preparing the person for lunch, which of

the following should be done? a. Lock the bed wheels. b. Place the call light within the person’s reach. c. Lock the chair wheels. d. Offer the person the bedpan.

ANS: B

REF: p. 342

46. Four residents sit at a dining room table for meals. Food is served as in a restaurant. Residents

can feed themselves. This is a. social dining. b. family dining. c. assistive dining. d. low-stimulation dining.

ANS: A

REF: p. 341

47. Before serving meal trays you need the following information from the nurse and the care

plan except a. how to provide for the person’s comfort. b. what assistive devices the person uses. c. how much help the person needs. d. if the person’s intake is measured.

ANS: A

REF: p. 340

48. You did not serve a resident’s meal tray promptly. What should you do? a. Check the food temperature. b. Give the tray to the nurse. c. Serve the tray as soon as possible. d. Throw the meal away.

ANS: A

REF: p. 342

49. You are feeding a patient. You need to serve a. foods as directed on the dietary card. b. foods in the order you would eat them. c. foods in the order the person prefers. d. hot foods first and cold foods last.

ANS: C

REF: p. 343

50. You are feeding a patient. You need to serve foods with a a. fork. b. teaspoon. c. knife. d. straw.

ANS: B

REF: p. 343

51. A resident is visually impaired. Do the following except a. describe the food on the tray. b. use the numbers on a clock to identify the location of foods. c. allow the person to smell the food. d. feed the person.

ANS: D

REF: p. 343

52. You are going to feed a resident. You need to do the following except a. sit so that you face the person. b. say a prayer with the person. c. check the meal against the dietary card. d. engage the person in pleasant conversation.

ANS: B

REF: p. 343

53. Between-meal snacks are served a. 2 hours after main meals. b. when the snacks arrive on the nursing unit. c. only between breakfast and lunch. d. at bedtime.

ANS: B

REF: p. 345

54. Calorie counts are ordered for a resident. What should you do? a. Record the number of calories ingested. b. Note what the person ate and how much. c. Measure the number of calories ingested. d. Ask the person to record intake and output.

ANS: B

REF: p. 339

55. To measure food intake, you need to understand a. English. b. multiplication. c. Spanish. d. percents.

ANS: D

REF: p. 339

56. A patient did not eat all of their meal. Which question should you ask? a. “How much do you weigh?” b. “What is your age?” c. “Was something wrong with your food?” d. “Would you like to eat two dinners instead?”

ANS: C

REF: p. 340

57. Enteral nutrition is a. an opening in the stomach. b. fluid administered through a needle inserted into a vein. c. giving nutrients into the gastro-intestinal tract through a feeding tube. d. a tube inserted through the nose into the stomach.

ANS: C

REF: p. 345

58. Which statement about low-simulation dining is correct? a. Distractions are prevented. b. The patient decides where they should sit. c. Food is served buffet style. d. No dessert is served.

ANS: A

REF: p. 341

59. A gastrostomy tube is a. an opening in the stomach. b. an opening into the middle part of the small intestine. c. a tube inserted through a surgically created opening in the stomach. d. a tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach.

ANS: C

REF: p. 345

60. A naso-gastric tube is a. an opening in the stomach. b. an opening into the middle part of the small intestine. c. a feeding tube inserted through the nose and into the small intestine. d. a feeding tube inserted through the nose and into the stomach.

ANS: D

REF: p. 345

61. Which is a risk of receiving enteral nutrition? a. Confusion b. Delayed stomach emptying c. Weight gain d. Low back pain ANS: B

REF: p. 346

62. Persons receiving tube feedings are at risk for aspiration. You need to report the following to

the nurse at once except a. complaints of nausea. b. coughing. c. fever. d. pulse rate of 72.

ANS: D

REF: p. 346

63. Which health team member checks tube placement before a tube feeding is given? a. A nurse b. A physical therapist c. A dietitian d. A nursing assistant ANS: A

REF: p. 346

64. After a tube feeding, the person is positioned in semi-Fowler’s position for a. 15 minutes. b. about 30 minutes. c. 45 minutes. d. 1 to 2 hours.

ANS: D

REF: p. 346

65. Persons with feeding tubes need frequent

a. b. c. d.

perineal care. catheter care. oral hygiene. oral fluids.

ANS: C

REF: p. 346

66. A person has a nasogastric tube. To prevent the tube from irritating the nose, the tube is

secured to the a. nose. b. face. c. mouth. d. ear.

ANS: A

REF: p. 346

67. Intravenous (IV) therapy is a. giving nutrients through the gastro-intestinal system. b. a tube feeding. c. giving fluids through a needle or catheter inserted into a vein. d. the many processes involved in the ingestion, digestion, absorption, and use of

food and fluids by the body.

ANS: C

REF: p. 346

68. Before meals, you should help the patient with a. hair combing. b. showering. c. dressing. d. oral hygiene.

ANS: D

REF: p. 340

69. Which patient device should be in place before meals? a. Pacemaker b. Dentures c. Walker d. Wheelchair ANS: B

REF: p. 341

70. What information do you need before serving a patient’s meal tray? a. The patient’s food allergies (if any) b. The patient’s gender c. The patient’s level of hunger d. The patient’s age ANS: A

REF: p. 342

71. A patient with dementia should be offered a. a limited number of food choices. b. three large meals a day. c. to listen to music while eating.

d. only thickened liquids.

ANS: A

REF: p. 343

TRUE/FALSE 1. Medications can cause appetite loss, confusion, nausea, constipation, impaired taste or

changes in GI function.

ANS: T

REF: p. 335

2. Calorie needs are decreased in old age.

ANS: F

REF: p. 335

3. After assisting the patient who dines in his or her room with feeding, you should complete a

safety check of the room.

ANS: T

REF: p. 342

Chapter 24: Fluid Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dehydration is a. difficulty swallowing. b. a decrease in the amount of water in body tissues. c. the swelling of body tissues with water. d. the backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth.

ANS: B

REF: p. 349

2. Edema is a. difficulty swallowing. b. a decrease in the amount of water in body tissues. c. the swelling of body tissues with water. d. the backward flow of food from the stomach into the mouth.

ANS: C

REF: p. 349

3. Flow rate is a. the IV pump’s alarm. b. the amount of fluid lost. c. the number of drops per minute. d. a measuring container for fluid.

ANS: C

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 356

4. A graduate is a. the IV pump’s pole. b. the IV fluid bag. c. amount of fluid taken in. d. a measuring container for fluid.

ANS: D

REF: p. 351

5. To maintain normal fluid balance, an adult needs to ingest a. 1000 to 1500 mL of fluid a day. b. 1500 to 2000 mL of fluid a day. c. 2000 to 2500 mL of fluid a day. d. 2500 to 3000 mL of fluid a day.

ANS: C

REF: p. 349

6. The doctor ordered “encourage fluids” for a patient. Which action is incorrect? a. Record the person’s intake. b. Place an NPO sign above the person’s bed. c. Offer a variety of fluids. d. Keep fluids within the person’s reach.

ANS: B

REF: p. 350

7. IV therapy is a. the number of milliliters per hour. b. having an adequate amount of water in body tissues. c. a type of special diet. d. giving fluids through a catheter.

ANS: D

REF: p. 355

8. Which will not prevent the spread of infection when providing drinking water? a. Empty the mug into the bathroom sink. b. Do not touch the straw of the mug. c. Do not let the ice scoop touch the mug. d. Use the same mug every day for as long as the patient is on the unit.

ANS: D

REF: p. 354

9. When do patients and residents need fresh drinking water? a. Every day b. Every 8 hours c. Every shift and whenever the pitcher is empty d. With each meal and at bedtime ANS: C

REF: p. 354

10. A person has an IV. Which statement is correct? a. You can start the IV. b. You can regulate the flow rate.

NURSINGTB.COM c. You decide what amount to give. d. You are never responsible for starting or maintaining IV therapy.

ANS: D

REF: p. 356

11. To check the IV flow rate when an IV pump is not being used, do the following: a. Count the number of drops in 30 seconds and multiply by 2 b. Count the number of drops in 1 minute c. Check how much fluid remains in the IV bag d. Note if the rate seems too fast or too slow ANS: B

REF: p. 356

12. You note bleeding from an IV insertion site. Which action is correct? a. Tell the nurse at once. b. Apply a dressing over the needle or catheter. c. Clamp the IV tubing. d. Discontinue the IV. ANS: A

REF: p. 356

13. The alarm is sounding on an IV infusion pump. Which action is correct? a. Tell the nurse at once. b. Turn off the pump. c. Change the controls on the pump.

d. Unplug the pump.

ANS: A

REF: p. 356

14. Intake and output are totaled a. every 2 hours. b. every 4 hours. c. at the end of the shift. d. at least once during an 8-hour shift.

ANS: C

REF: p. 351

15. A patient’s coffee cup holds 250 mL. The person did not drink all the coffee. You measure

that 75 mL of coffee remain. How much did the person drink? a. 100 mL b. 200 mL c. 175 mL d. 125 mL ANS: C

REF: p. 352

TRUE/FALSE 1. The amount of fluid taken in (intake) and the amount of fluid lost (output) should be equal to

maintain fluid balance.

ANS: T

REF: p. 349

NURSINGTB.COM

2. Intake is the amount of fluid taken in and output is the amount of fluid lost.

ANS: T

REF: p. 349

3. The nurse asks you to check an IV flow rate. You need to tell the nurse at once if no fluid is

dripping or if the rate is too fast or too slow.

ANS: T

REF: p. 356

Chapter 25: Measurements Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The amount of force exerted against the walls of an artery by the blood is the a. blood pressure. b. pulse deficit. c. diastolic pressure. d. systolic pressure.

ANS: A

REF: p. 373

2. The amount of heat in the body that is a balance between the amount of heat produced and the

amount lost by the body is a. Fahrenheit. b. centigrade. c. Celsius. d. body temperature.

ANS: D

REF: p. 360

3. The pressure in the arteries when the heart is at rest is the a. blood pressure. b. pulse deficit. c. diastolic pressure. d. systolic pressure.

ANS: C REF: p. 373 4. When a person’s blood pressure measurements remain above a systolic pressure of XXX mm

Hg or a diastolic pressure of 90 mm Hg they are known to have a. hypertension. b. hypotension. c. bradycardia. d. tachycardia.

ANS: A

REF: p. 373

5. A systolic blood pressure below 90 mm Hg and a diastolic pressure below 60 mm Hg is a. hypertension. b. hypotension. c. bradycardia. d. tachycardia.

ANS: B

REF: p. 373

6. The beat of the heart felt at an artery as a wave of blood passes through the artery is the a. pulse. b. pulse deficit. c. pulse rate.

d. heartbeat.

ANS: A

REF: p. 368

7. The number of pulses felt in 1 minute is the a. pulse. b. pulse deficit. c. pulse rate. d. heartbeat.

ANS: C

REF: p. 369

8. Breathing air into (inhalation) and out of (exhalation) the lungs is a. breathing. b. respiration. c. respiratory rate. d. basic need.

ANS: B

REF: p. 372

9. The pressure in the arteries when the heart contracts is a. blood pressure. b. pulse deficit. c. diastolic pressure. d. systolic pressure.

ANS: D

REF: p. 373

10. Temperature, pulse, respiratiN onU s,RaS ndIbNloGoT dB pr. esCsuOrM e are a. basic needs. b. vital signs. c. measurements. d. observations.

ANS: B

REF: p. 360

11. Vital signs do the following except a. show changes in the person’s condition. b. signal life-threatening events. c. diagnose illness. d. tell about responses to treatment.

ANS: C

REF: p. 360

12. Unless otherwise ordered, vital signs are taken with the person a. sitting or standing. b. sitting or lying down. c. lying down only. d. sitting only.

ANS: B

REF: p. 360

13. Vital signs are immediately reported to the nurse at the following times except

a. b. c. d.

if they are within the normal range. if there is a change from a previous measurement. if they are above the normal range. if they are below the normal range.

ANS: A

REF: p. 360

14. Body temperature is usually the lowest a. in the morning. b. in the afternoon. c. in the evening. d. at bedtime.

ANS: A

REF: p. 360

15. Body temperature is measured at the following sites except a. the mouth. b. the axilla. c. the rectum. d. behind the knee.

ANS: D

REF: p. 360

16. Body temperature is measured at the following sites except a. the mouth. b. the tympanic membrane. c. under the breasts. d. the temporal artery.

ANS: C

REF: p. 360

17. A resident needs rehabilitation after hip replacement surgery. You take the person’s

temperature orally. Which measurement is not within normal range? a. 98.1°F b. 99.8°F c. 98.2°F d. 98.0°F ANS: B

REF: p. 361

18. Taking temperatures is delegated to you. The nurse and care plan tell you the following except a. what thermometer to use. b. what site to use. c. the normal range for the site used. d. when to take temperatures.

ANS: C

REF: p. 362

19. A glass thermometer for rectal temperatures has a a. bulb tip. b. long tip. c. pear-shaped tip. d. slender tip.

ANS: A

REF: p. 365

20. A rectal thermometer is color-coded in a. blue. b. red. c. green. d. yellow.

ANS: B

REF: p. 365

21. You are taking an oral temperature with a glass thermometer. How long do you leave the

thermometer in place? a. 1 minute b. 2 minutes c. 2 to 3 minutes d. 5 to 10 minutes ANS: C

REF: p. 365

22. A mercury-glass thermometer breaks. Which action is incorrect? a. Tell the nurse at once. b. Follow agency procedures. c. Do not touch the mercury. d. Call the doctor.

ANS: D

REF: p. 367

23. Every other long line of a FaN hrU enRhS eiI t tN heG rm teO r iM s ToBm.eC a. an even number. b. an odd number. c. a consecutive number. d. a fraction.

ANS: A

REF: p. 366

24. Each short line of a Fahrenheit thermometer means a. 0.1 of a degree. b. 0.2 of a degree. c. 0.5 of a degree. d. 1 degree.

ANS: B

REF: p. 366

25. Each long line of a centigrade thermometer means a. 1 degree. b. 2 degrees. c. 0.1 of a degree. d. 0.5 of a degree.

ANS: A

REF: p. 366

26. Each short line of a centigrade thermometer means

a. b. c. d.

0.1 of a degree.

0.2 of a degree.

0.5 of a degree.

1 degree.

ANS: A

REF: p. 366

27. To read a glass thermometer, you need to hold it a. at the tip. b. with tissues. c. with gloved hands. d. at the stem.

ANS: D

REF: p. 366

28. To rinse a glass thermometer, you need to use a. warm water. b. hot water. c. cold water. d. a disinfectant solution.

ANS: C

REF: p. 365

29. A person has a naso-gastric tube. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the a. oral site. b. rectal site. c. axillary site. d. tympanic membrane site.

ANS: A REF: p. 361 30. A person is receiving oxygen. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the a. oral site. b. rectal site. c. temporal artery site. d. tympanic membrane site.

ANS: A

REF: p. 361

31. A person is unconscious. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the a. oral site. b. rectal site. c. axillary site. d. tympanic membrane site.

ANS: A

REF: p. 361

32. A person has diarrhea. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the a. oral site. b. rectal site. c. temporal artery site. d. tympanic membrane site.

ANS: B

REF: p. 361

33. A person has heart disease. When measuring temperature, you cannot use the a. oral site. b. rectal site. c. axillary site. d. tympanic membrane site.

ANS: B

REF: p. 361

34. Which site is used when other sites cannot be used? a. Oral site b. Axillary site c. Rectal site d. Tympanic membrane site ANS: B

REF: p. 361

35. A resident smokes. The person just had a cigarette. How long do you need to wait before

taking the person’s temperature orally? a. 5 to 10 minutes b. 10 to 15 minutes c. 15 to 20 minutes d. You do not need to wait.

ANS: C

REF: p. 363

36. To take a rectal temperature, how is the person positioned?

NUR I G B.C M a. Lying down S N T O b. In semi-Fowler’s position c. In Sims’ position d. In the prone position ANS: C

REF: p. 364

37. Before inserting a rectal thermometer, do the following: a. Clean it with hot water. b. Lubricate the bulb end. c. Place it in a probe cover. d. Clean it with a disinfectant.

ANS: B

REF: p. 362

38. The covered probe of the tympanic membrane thermometer is inserted a. into the mouth. b. into the rectum. c. under the arm. d. into the ear.

ANS: D

REF: p. 362

39. To measure a temporal artery temperature, which of the following should be done? a. Insert the device gently into the ear.

b. Place the device in the center of the forehead. c. Place the device behind the knee. d. Gently insert the device between the toes.

ANS: B

REF: p. 362

40. A person has dementia. Which step should you take when measuring vital signs? a. Solicit 2 team members to help you. b. Use an oral thermometer only. c. Take the temperature and blood pressure immediately. d. Take the respirations and pulse at one time.

ANS: D

REF: p. 360

41. Which is the most common site for taking a pulse? a. The radial site b. The apical site c. The carotid site d. The brachial site ANS: A

REF: p. 368

42. The apical pulse is found a. on the thumb side of the wrist. b. just below the right nipple. c. just below the left nipple. d. at the inner aspect of the elbow.

ANS: C

REF: p.N 37U0

43. Which pulse site requires the use of a stethoscope? a. The radial site b. The carotid site c. The brachial site d. The apical site ANS: D

REF: p. 370

44. Which instrument is used to listen to sounds produced by the body? a. Thermometer b. Sphygmomanometer c. Stethoscope d. Cuff ANS: C

REF: p. 369

45. What should you use to wipe the ear-pieces and diaphragm of the stethoscope before and after

use? a. Soap and water b. Cold water c. Hot water d. Antiseptic wipes

ANS: D

REF: p. 369

46. Before placing the stethoscope on the person, you need to warm the diaphragm a. in warm water. b. in hot water. c. in your hand. d. under the person’s arm.

ANS: C

REF: p. 369

47. For an adult, which pulse rate is reported to the nurse at once? a. 50 b. 62 c. 75 d. 98 ANS: A

REF: p. 369

48. For an adult, which pulse rate is reported to the nurse at once? a. 66 b. 74 c. 88 d. 104 ANS: D

REF: p. 369

49. You are taking a resident’s pulse. The beats are not spaced evenly. When reporting to the

nurse, how would you describe the person’s pulse?

N R I G B.C M a. Weak and feeble U S N T O b. Strong and full c. Irregular d. Thready and bounding ANS: C

REF: p. 370

50. A radial pulse is usually counted for a. 15 seconds. b. 30 seconds. c. 45 seconds. d. 60 seconds.

ANS: B

REF: p. 370

51. When taking a radial pulse, you need to use a. your thumb. b. your first 2 or 3 fingertips. c. your ring and little fingertips. d. a stethoscope.

ANS: B

REF: p. 370

52. An apical pulse is counted for a. 15 seconds.

b. 30 seconds. c. 45 seconds. d. 1 minute.

ANS: D

REF: p. 370

53. When taking an apical pulse, you need to use a. your thumb. b. the middle 3 fingers. c. your ring and little fingers. d. a stethoscope.

ANS: D

REF: p. 370

54. You are taking an apical pulse. Which statement is correct? a. The lub sound is counted as one beat. b. The dub sound is counted as one beat. c. The lub-dub is counted as one beat. d. The pulse deficit is counted.

ANS: C

REF: p. 370

55. Respirations usually are counted a. right after taking the temperature. b. right after taking the pulse. c. right before measuring blood pressure. d. right after measuring blood pressure.

ANS: B

REF: p.N 37U2

56. The healthy adult has a. 10 to 14 respirations per minute. b. 12 to 18 respirations per minute. c. 12 to 20 respirations per minute. d. 15 to 30 respirations per minute.

ANS: C

REF: p. 372

57. You are counting a patient’s respirations. Which is incorrect? a. You need to tell the person what you are doing. b. Each rise and fall of the chest is counted as 1 respiration. c. Both sides of the person’s chest should rise and fall equally. d. Respirations are usually counted for 30 seconds.

ANS: A

REF: p. 372

58. The period of heart muscle contraction is a. bradycardia. b. tachycardia. c. systole. d. diastole.

ANS: C

REF: p. 373

59. Which of the following is used to measure blood pressure manually? a. Thermometer b. Sphygmomanometer and stethoscope c. Your first 2 or 3 fingertips d. Cuff ANS: B

REF: p. 374

60. You measured a resident’s blood pressure. His systolic pressure is 144 mm Hg. His diastolic

pressure is 78 mm Hg. How do you record these measurements? a. 78 mm Hg/144 mm Hg b. 78/144 mm Hg c. 144 mm Hg/78 mm Hg d. 144/78 mm Hg ANS: D

REF: p. 373

61. Which systolic pressure should you report at once? a. 168 b. 120 c. 116 d. 118 ANS: A

REF: p. 373

62. Which diastolic pressure should you report at once? a. 50 b. 62 c. 74 d. 80 ANS: A

REF: p. 373

63. The blood pressure cuff is applied over the a. brachial artery. b. radial artery. c. carotid artery. d. apical pulse.

ANS: A

REF: p. 374

64. A patient has a cast on his left wrist. Which statement is correct? a. Blood pressure is measured on the left arm. b. Blood pressure is measured on the right arm. c. The person decides what arm to use. d. You use the arm that is easiest to reach.

ANS: B

REF: p. 375

65. A patient has an IV in her left arm. Which is correct? a. Blood pressure is measured on the right arm. b. Blood pressure is measured on the left arm.

c. The patient decides what arm to use. d. You use the arm that is easiest to reach.

ANS: A

REF: p. 375

66. A resident just finished his daily exercise program. You need to measure the person’s blood

pressure. How long does he need to rest before the measurement? a. 5 minutes b. 5 to 10 minutes c. 10 to 20 minutes d. 20 to 30 minutes ANS: C

REF: p. 375

67. The blood pressure cuff is applied a. over clothing. b. to the bare arm. c. over the radial artery. d. under the brachial artery.

ANS: B

REF: p. 375

68. The diastolic pressure is the a. first sound you hear. b. second sound you hear. c. third sound you hear. d. last sound you hear.

ANS: D

REF: p.N 37U5

69. You cannot hear a person’s blood pressure. What should you do? a. Take it again. b. Get a different stethoscope. c. Tell the nurse at once. d. Record the previous measurement.

ANS: C

REF: p. 375

70. You are measuring blood pressure. How far should you inflate the cuff beyond the point

where you last felt the person’s pulse? a. 10 mm Hg b. 20 mm Hg c. 30 mm Hg d. 40 mm Hg ANS: C

REF: p. 377

71. Acute pain a. is felt suddenly. b. is felt in a body part that is no longer there. c. is felt at the site of tissue damage and in nearby areas. d. is constant or occurs on and off.

ANS: A

REF: p. 378

72. Chronic pain lasts a. 7 days. b. 30 days. c. until tissues heal. d. long after healing occurs.

ANS: D

REF: p. 378

73. Phantom pain is a. felt suddenly. b. felt in a body part that is no longer there. c. felt at the site of tissue damage and in nearby areas. d. discomfort.

ANS: B 74.

REF: p. 378

Radiating pain is a. felt suddenly. b. felt in a body part that is no longer there. c. felt at the site of tissue damage and in nearby areas. d. constant or occurs on and off.

ANS: C

REF: p. 378

75. A resident complains of pain. Which will not help you collect information about the person’s

pain? a. Ask the person to point to the area of pain. b. Ask to see the pain. c. Ask the person when the pain started. d. Ask the person to describe the pain.

ANS: B

REF: p. 378

76. A patient complains of pain. Which will not help you collect information about the person’s

pain? a. Ask if the pain is mild, moderate, or severe. b. Ask the person what factors cause the pain. c. Check the person’s vital signs. d. Give the person drugs to relieve the pain.

ANS: D

REF: p. 378

77. Which statement about pain is correct? a. The meaning of pain is the same for everyone. b. You can see and feel another person’s pain. c. Sore and aching mean the same thing to everyone. d. If the person complains of pain the person has pain.

ANS: D

REF: p. 378

78. You are going to measure a resident’s height. Which of the following information do you

need from the nurse and the care plan? a. How to measure height b. What the person’s height should be c. What scale to use d. If the person should wear shoes ANS: C

REF: p. 379

79. To balance a scale, you must move the weights to a. 0. b. 10. c. 50. d. 100.

ANS: A

REF: p. 379

80. Before you weigh a person, you need to have the person a. drink a glass of water. b. void. c. have a bowel movement. d. put on a robe and shoes.

ANS: B

REF: p. 379

81. Which is not a guideline for measuring weight and height? a. No footwear is worn. b. The person voids after being weighed. B.C M

N R I G

c. The person is weighed at thU e saSmeNtimT e of dayO. d. The same scale is used for daily, weekly, and monthly weights.

ANS: B

REF: p. 379

Chapter 26: Collecting Specimens Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A ketone is a. a tube used to drain or inject fluid through a body opening. b. an artificial way to remove waste and excess fluid from the body. c. sugar in the urine. d. a substance that appears in the urine from the rapid breakdown of fat for energy.

ANS: D

REF: p. 389

2. Glucosuria means a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. difficult or painful urination.

ANS: A

REF: p. 389

3. Hematuria means a. sugar in the urine. b. blood in the urine. c. a scant amount of urine. d. difficult or painful urination.

ANS: B

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 389

4. Bloody sputum is a. ketone. b. hemoptysis. c. saliva. d. hematuria.

ANS: B

REF: p. 392

5. Mucus from the respiratory system that is expelled through the mouth is known as a. spit. b. saliva. c. sputum. d. ketone.

ANS: C

REF: p. 392

6. Which statement about collecting specimens is incorrect? a. The doctor orders what specimen to collect. b. All specimens sent to the laboratory require requisition slips. c. Use a clean container for each specimen. d. Label the container in the clean utility room.

ANS: D

REF: p. 385

7. Which statement about collecting urine specimens is incorrect? a. Label the container with the requested information. b. Touch only the inside of the container and lid. c. Collect the specimen at the time specified. d. Ask the person to put toilet tissue in the toilet or wastebasket.

ANS: B

REF: p. 385

8. The nurse asks you to collect a random urine specimen. Which is correct? a. It is collected any time during a 24-hour period. b. The perineal area is cleaned before collecting the specimen. c. The first voiding is discarded. d. The person voids twice.

ANS: A

REF: p. 385

9. The nurse asks you to collect a midstream specimen. Which is correct? a. No special measures are needed. b. The perineal area is cleaned before collecting the specimen. c. The first voiding is discarded. d. The person voids twice.

ANS: B

REF: p. 387

10. When collecting a midstream urine specimen from a woman, which action is incorrect? a. Sterile gloves are used. b. The urethral area is cleaned from front to back.

N R I coll GTect B.C M c. Keep the labia separated unUtil ySou N 30 tO o 60 mL. d. Keep the labia separated until the person finishes voiding.

ANS: D

REF: p. 388

11. The doctor orders testing for glucosuria and ketones. When are these tests usually done? a. During morning and bedtime care b. After meals c. 30 minutes before each meal and at bedtime d. Every time the person urinates ANS: C

REF: p. 389

12. Which measures if urine is acidic or alkaline? a. Testing for pH b. Testing for glucose c. Testing for ketones d. Testing for acetone ANS: A

REF: p. 389

13. Sometimes blood in the urine is unseen. Blood that is unseen is a. hematuria. b. occult. c. reagent.

d. random.

ANS: B

REF: p. 389

14. You are using reagent strips to test urine. Do the following except a. follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. c. compare the tested strip to the color chart on the bottle. d. dip the strip into the specimen for 60 seconds.

ANS: D

REF: p. 389

15. When testing urine is delegated to you, you need the following information from the nurse

and the care plan except a. what test is needed. b. how to follow Standard Precautions. c. what equipment to use. d. when to test the urine.

ANS: B

REF: p. 389

16. You are collecting a stool specimen. Which is correct? a. Transfer the expelled stool to the specimen container. b. Have the person defecate into the specimen container. c. Use a tongue blade to transfer about 2 tablespoons of stool to the specimen

container. d. Ask the person to have a bowel movement at the time specified.

ANS: C

REF: p.N 39U1

17. The nurse asks you to collect a stool specimen. Which is incorrect? a. Explain what the person needs to do. b. Explain what you will do. c. Ask if the person understands what to do. d. Stay with the person until the person has a bowel movement.

ANS: D

REF: p. 391

18. When collecting a sputum specimen, the person coughs up sputum from the a. mouth. b. throat. c. upper airway. d. bronchi and trachea.

ANS: D 19.

REF: p. 392

Sputum specimen collection is easier upon awakening in the morning. after a meal. after activity. before a meal.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

REF: p. 392

20. Oral care before collecting a sputum specimen involves a. rinsing with water. b. brushing teeth. c. using mouthwash. d. flossing.

ANS: A

REF: p. 392

21. Privacy is important when collecting a sputum specimen. Which is not a reason for privacy? a. The person has the right to privacy. b. A sterile specimen container is used. c. Sputum is unpleasant to look at. d. Expectorating sounds can disturb others.

ANS: B

REF: p. 392

22. When collecting sputum specimens, report and record the following except a. the time the specimen was collected. b. the amount collected. c. sputum color. d. sounds the person made when obtaining the specimen.

ANS: D

REF: p. 392

23. What part of the specimen container can you touch? a. Any part b. The inside of the container and lid G B.C M N R I O c. The outside of the containeU r anS d liN d T d. Only the outside of the container ANS: C

REF: p. 393

24. After collecting a sputum specimen, the container is a. washed and dried. b. placed in a plastic bag. c. labeled. d. weighed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 393

TRUE/FALSE 1. A stool specimen must not be contaminated with urine.

ANS: T

REF: p. 390

2. When collecting specimens, you are responsible for correctly identifying the person.

ANS: T

REF: p. 385

3. Blood glucose testing is used for patients with diabetes to help regulate drugs and diet.

ANS: T

REF: p. 394

Chapter 27: Exercise and Activity Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Abduction is a. moving a body part away from the mid-line of the body. b. moving a body part toward the mid-line of the body. c. straightening a body part. d. bending a body part.

ANS: A

REF: p. 399

2. Adduction is a. moving a body part away from the mid-line of the body. b. moving a body part toward the mid-line of the body. c. straightening a body part. d. bending a body part.

ANS: B

REF: p. 399

3. Atrophy is a. a decrease in size or wasting away of tissue. b. the lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle. c. the loss of muscle strength as a result of inactivity. d. a drop in blood pressure when the person stands.

ANS: A

N RSINGTB.COM

U REF: p. 397

4. A contracture is a. a decrease in size or wasting away of tissue. b. the lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle. c. the loss of muscle strength as a result of inactivity. d. a drop in blood pressure when the person stands.

ANS: B

REF: p. 397

5. Dorsiflexion is a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part. c. bending the toes and foot up at the ankle. d. moving the foot down at the ankle.

ANS: C

REF: p. 399

6. Extension is a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part. c. bending the toes and foot up at the ankle. d. rotating the foot in a circular motion.

ANS: B

REF: p. 399

7. External rotation is a. turning the joint outward. b. turning the joint inward. c. turning the joint downward. d. turning the joint upward.

ANS: A

REF: p. 399

8. Flexion is a. moving a body part away from the mid-line of the body. b. moving a body part toward the mid-line of the body. c. straightening a body part. d. bending a body part.

ANS: D

REF: p. 399

9. Bending the foot down at the ankle is a. pronation. b. plantar flexion. c. supination. d. dorsiflexion.

ANS: B

REF: p. 399

10. Footdrop is a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part.

N c. a toe-up motion of the foot at the ankle. d. the foot falling down at the ankle.

ANS: D

REF: p. 398

11. Hyperextension is a. bending a body part. b. straightening a body part. c. excessively straightening a body part. d. briefly losing consciousness.

ANS: C

REF: p. 399

12. Internal rotation is turning the joint a. outward. b. inward. c. downward. d. upward.

ANS: B

REF: p. 399

13. Orthostatic hypotension is a. a decrease in size or wasting away of tissue. b. the lack of joint mobility caused by abnormal shortening of a muscle. c. the loss of muscle strength as a result of inactivity.

d. an abnormally low blood pressure when the person suddenly stands.

ANS: D

REF: p. 397

14. Another name for permanent plantar flexion is a. footdrop. b. postural hypotension. c. fainting. d. orthosis.

ANS: A

REF: p. 398

15. Pronation is turning the joint a. outward. b. inward. c. downward. d. upward.

ANS: C

REF: p. 399

16. Rotation is a. turning the joint outward. b. turning the joint inward. c. turning the joint downward. d. turning the joint in any direction.

ANS: D

REF: p. 399

17. Supination is turning the joinN t a. outward. b. inward. c. downward. d. upward.

ANS: D

REF: p. 399

18. The act of walking is a. trochanter. b. ambulation. c. orthosis. d. range of motion.

ANS: B

REF: p. 404

19. Bedrest is ordered for the following reasons except a. to promote hypotension. b. to reduce physical activity. c. to promote healing. d. to reduce pain.

ANS: A

REF: p. 397

20. The doctor ordered strict bedrest for a resident. Which is correct?

a. b. c. d.

The person can perform some activities of daily living.

Everything is done for the person.

The person can use the bedside commode.

The person can use the bathroom.

ANS: B

REF: p. 397

21. The doctor ordered bedrest for a resident. Which is correct? a. The person can perform some activities of daily living. b. Everything is done for the person. c. The person can use the bedside commode. d. The person can use the bathroom.

ANS: A

REF: p. 397

22. Bedrest places the person at risk for the following except a. contractures. b. muscle atrophy. c. blood clots. d. pronation.

ANS: D

REF: p. 397

23. Which will not prevent complications from bedrest? a. Postural hypotension b. Frequent position changes c. Good alignment d. Range-of-motion exercises I G B.C M

N R U S N T

ANS: A

O

REF: p. 397

24. A resident is on bedrest with bathroom privileges. When the person moves from a lying to

sitting or standing position, he is at risk for the following except a. contractures. b. dizziness. c. orthostatic hypotension. d. fainting.

ANS: A

REF: p. 397

25. Orthostatic hypotension is prevented by a. measuring blood pressure. b. counting the pulse and respirations. c. slowly changing positions. d. preventing contractures.

ANS: C

REF: p. 397

26. The following are signs and symptoms of orthostatic hypotension except a. dizziness and weakness. b. pressure injuries. c. a drop in blood pressure. d. spots before the eyes.

ANS: B

REF: p. 397

27. The following are signs and symptoms of postural hypotension except a. dizziness and weakness. b. a drop in blood pressure. c. contractures. d. fainting.

ANS: C

REF: p. 397

28. Which device keeps the elbows, wrists, thumbs, fingers, ankles or knees in a normal position? a. Bed cradle b. Rubber ball c. Foot-board d. Splint ANS: D

REF: p. 398

29. The doctor ordered a foot-board for a resident. The foot-board prevents a. plantar flexion. b. the hips and legs from external rotation. c. contractures of the thumb, fingers, and wrist. d. the mattress from sagging.

ANS: A

REF: p. 398

30. The doctor ordered trochanter rolls for a patient. Trochanter rolls prevent a. plantar flexion. b. the hips and legs from external rotation. c. contractures of the thumb, fingers, and wrist. d. the mattress from sagging.

ANS: B

REF: p. 398

31. A hip abduction wedge is placed a. under the person from the hip to the knee. b. under the mattress. c. between the person’s legs. d. at the foot of the mattress.

ANS: C

REF: p. 398

32. The doctor ordered a bed cradle for a resident. The bed cradle a. keeps the mattress from sagging. b. is a more comfortable bed. c. keeps the hips abducted. d. keeps top linens off the feet and toes.

ANS: D

REF: p. 398

33. Hand grips prevent contractures of the a. thumb, fingers, and wrist.

b. hands and forearm. c. elbow. d. fingers and elbow.

ANS: A

REF: p. 398

34. Passive range-of-motion exercises are done a. by the person. b. by a health team member. c. by the person with your help. d. with a trapeze.

ANS: B

REF: p. 399

35. Active-assistive range-of-motion exercises are done a. by the person. b. by a health team member. c. by the person with your help. d. with a trapeze.

ANS: C

REF: p. 399

36. Active range-of-motion exercises are done a. by the person. b. by a health team member. c. by the person with your help. d. with a trapeze.

ANS: A

REF: p.N 39U9

37. You are delegated range-of-motion exercises. Which is incorrect? a. Exercise the joints the nurse advises. b. Support the part being exercised. c. Move the joint slowly, smoothly, and gently. d. Force each joint through its full range of motion.

ANS: D

REF: p. 400

38. You can perform range-of-motion exercises to the neck only if a. there is a doctor’s order. b. the resident asks you to. c. you are supervised by a physical therapist. d. allowed by your agency and the nurse instructs you to do so.

ANS: D

REF: p. 400

39. When delegated range-of-motion (ROM) exercises, you need the following information from

the nurse and the care plan except a. the kind of ROM ordered. b. which joints to exercise. c. how to use body mechanics. d. how many times to repeat each exercise.

ANS: C

REF: p. 400

40. Which exercise is not done to the shoulder? a. Flexion b. Extension c. Supination d. Hyperextension ANS: C

REF: p. 401

41. Which exercises are done to the elbow? a. Pronation and supination b. Flexion and extension c. Abduction and adduction d. Internal and external rotation ANS: B

REF: p. 401

42. Which exercises are done to the forearm? a. Pronation and supination b. Flexion and extension c. Abduction and adduction d. Internal and external rotation ANS: A

REF: p. 401

43. Which exercises are not done to the wrist? a. Flexion and extension b. Radial flexion and ulnar flexion c. Hyperextension d. Abduction and adduction ANS: D

REF: p. 401

44. Which exercises are not done to the hip? a. Flexion and extension b. Hyperextension and opposition c. Abduction and adduction d. Internal and external rotation ANS: B

REF: p. 402

45. Which exercises are done to the knee? a. Flexion and extension b. Abduction and adduction c. Internal and external rotation d. Radial and ulnar flexion ANS: A

REF: p. 402

46. Which exercises are done to the ankle? a. Dorsiflexion and plantar flexion b. Abduction and adduction

c. Internal and external rotation d. Radial and ulnar flexion ANS: A

REF: p. 402

47. How do you flex the toes? a. Pull them together b. Spread them apart c. Curl them d. Straighten them ANS: C

REF: p. 402

48. You are performing passive range-of-motion exercises. Which action will not promote

comfort? a. Exposing only the part being exercised b. Supporting the part being exercised c. Providing for privacy d. Moving the joint quickly and forcefully ANS: D

REF: p. 399

49. A resident is unsteady. When assisting the person with ambulation, you need to apply a a. gait belt. b. walking aid. c. supportive device. d. brace.

ANS: A 50.

REF: p.N 40U5

How far should you walk a person? a. As far as the person can tolerate b. As far as directed by the nurse and the care plan c. Down the hall and back to the room d. As far as the person chooses ANS: B

REF: p. 405

51. When ambulating, a person needs to wear a. slippers. b. non-skid shoes. c. whatever the person chooses. d. athletic shoes.

ANS: B

REF: p. 406

52. When helping a person walk, you walk a. in front of the person. b. in back of the person. c. to the side and slightly behind the person. d. where the person chooses.

ANS: C

REF: p. 406

53. A patient uses crutches. You do the following except a. teach the person how to use them. b. check the crutch tips to see if they are worn down or wet. c. make sure the bolts are tight. d. have the person wear street shoes with non-skid soles.

ANS: A

REF: p. 408

54. Which statement about canes is incorrect? a. The cane is held on the weak side. b. The cane tip is about 6 to 10 inches to the side of the foot. c. The grip is level with the hip. d. The cane is moved forward first.

ANS: A

REF: p. 404

55. A person uses a wheeled walker. Which is correct? a. The walker is held on the strong side. b. The person moves the feet first. c. The walker is moved first. d. The walker is moved about 8 to 12 inches in front of the person.

ANS: C

REF: p. 407

56. Which walking aids allow attachments? a. Canes b. Crutches c. Walkers d. Braces ANS: C

REF: p. 405

57. Which walking aid provides support for weak body parts? a. Canes b. Crutches c. Walkers d. Braces ANS: D

REF: p. 408

58. A person wears a brace. You must a. check the brace tips to make sure they are not wet or torn. b. keep the skin under the brace clean and dry. c. make sure the person wears loose clothing. d. make sure the brace is held on the strong side.

ANS: B

REF: p. 408

59. The patient’s activity limits and allowed activities are detailed a. in the nurse manager’s office. b. in the dining room. c. on the physical therapy bulletin board.

d. on the assignment sheet.

ANS: D

REF: p. 396

60. Which will not promote activity, exercise, and well-being? a. Encouraging the person to be as active as possible b. Focusing on the person’s disabilities c. Telling the person when you notice he or she is making progress d. Telling the person you are proud of what he or she did ANS: B

REF: p. 409

Chapter 28: Wound Care Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A break in the skin or mucous membrane is a. a pressure injury. b. trauma. c. a wound. d. a prominence.

ANS: C

REF: p. 411

2. A resident has an open wound on the lower left leg. It is caused by poor arterial blood flow.

This wound is a. a pressure injury. b. a stasis ulcer. c. a venous ulcer. d. an arterial ulcer.

ANS: D

REF: p. 413

3. Common causes of wounds include the following except a. surgery. b. trauma. c. increased blood flow through arteries or veins. d. nerve damage.

ANS: C REF: p. 411 4. Open wounds on the lower legs or feet caused by decreased blood flow through the arteries or

veins are a. pressure injuries. b. decubitus ulcers. c. diabetic ulcers. d. circulatory ulcers.

ANS: D

REF: p. 413

5. A condition in which there is death of tissue is a. trauma. b. gangrene. c. a constriction. d. an embolus.

ANS: B

REF: p. 413

6. A resident has a rip in the skin. The epidermis is separated from underlying tissue. This is a. a pressure injury. b. a diabetic wound. c. a skin tear.

d. a decubitus ulcer.

ANS: C

REF: p. 412

7. A resident has an open wound on the right lower leg. The person has poor blood return

through her veins. Her wound is a. an arterial ulcer. b. a stasis ulcer. c. a pressure injury. d. a skin tear.

ANS: B

REF: p. 413

8. An accident or violent act that injures the skin, mucous membranes, bones, and organs is a. shock. b. a wound. c. trauma. d. inflammation.

ANS: C

REF: p. 411

9. Common causes of wounds include the following except a. surgery. b. decreased calcium levels. c. trauma. d. unrelieved pressure.

ANS: B

REF: p. 411

10. A person has a wound. Which is a major threat? a. Incontinence b. Infection c. Edema d. Confusion ANS: B

REF: p. 411

11. Skin tears are caused by the following except a. friction and shearing. b. falls. c. long fingernails. d. incontinence and moisture on the skin.

ANS: D

REF: p. 412

12. Which statement about skin tears is incorrect? a. Holding a person’s arm or leg too tight can cause a skin tear. b. Skin tears are painful. c. Infection can develop in a skin tear. d. Skin tears usually occur over a bony area.

ANS: D

REF: p. 412

13. To prevent skin tears, which of the following should be done? a. Follow the person’s care plan. b. Wear gloves. c. Position the person supine. d. Follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard.

ANS: A

REF: p. 412

14. You are helping a resident dress. Which action can cause skin tears? a. Wearing shoes while awake b. Wearing soft clothing c. Donning a hat d. Pulling buttons across fragile skin ANS: D

REF: p. 412

15. A patient is in bed. The person needs re-positioning. Which measure will not help prevent

skin tears? a. Using full bed rails without pads at all times b. Using methods that prevent friction and shearing c. Using an assist device to move the person d. Using pillows to support the arms and legs ANS: A

REF: p. 412

16. To prevent skin tears, which of the following should you do? a. Keep your fingernails short and smoothly filed. b. Wear simple earrings. c. Wear gloves. d. Practice hand hygiene before and after giving care.

ANS: A

REF: p. 412

17. Circulatory ulcers often occur a. on the arms and hands. b. on the buttocks. c. on the legs and feet. d. where skin is in contact with skin.

ANS: C

REF: p. 413

18. Which will not help prevent circulatory ulcers? a. Providing good skin care b. Keeping linens clean and dry c. Scrubbing the skin during bathing d. Making sure shoes fit well ANS: C

REF: p. 413

19. A patient has a venous ulcer. The person needs re-positioning at least a. every hour. b. every 2 hours. c. every 4 hours.

d. every shift.

ANS: B

REF: p. 413

20. A patient has a venous ulcer. You are helping the person dress. The person can wear the

following except a. baggy pants. b. elastic garters to hold socks in place. c. shoes. d. a sweatshirt.

ANS: B

REF: p. 413

21. A patient has a venous ulcer. Your care should include a. keeping the person’s linens dry and wrinkle-free. b. massaging pressure points and reddened areas. c. rubbing the person’s skin after bathing. d. keeping the person’s heels on the bed.

ANS: A

REF: p. 413

22. A resident has an arterial ulcer. Which measure is incorrect? a. Remind the person not to sit with crossed legs. b. Avoid injury to the legs and feet. c. Keep the person’s feet clean and dry. d. Massage reddened areas.

ANS: D

REF: p. 413

23. A resident has an arterial ulcer. Which will not promote healing? a. The person is re-positioned according to the care plan. b. Pressure points are massaged. c. Injury to the area is avoided. d. Pillows are used to alleviate pressure.

ANS: B

REF: p. 413

24. An open wound on the foot caused by complications from diabetes is a. a nerve ulcer. b. a diabetic foot ulcer. c. a circulatory ulcer. d. a blood vessel ulcer.

ANS: B 25.

REF: p. 413

Which statement about diabetic foot ulcers is correct? a. They are affected by the nerves and blood vessels. b. Only the nerves are affected. c. Only the blood vessels are affected. d. They are easy to heal.

ANS: A

REF: p. 413

26. A thrombus is a. a blood clot. b. an infected wound. c. a pressure point. d. a circulatory ulcer.

ANS: A

REF: p. 415

27. Elastic stocking also are called a. anti-embolism stockings. b. support hose. c. elastics bandages. d. Montgomery bandages.

ANS: A

REF: p. 415

28. Which statement about elastic stockings is incorrect? a. They are applied before the person gets out of bed. b. They are applied so the opening in the toe area is over the top of the toes. c. The person sits up in the chair while the stockings are off. d. Twists, creases, or wrinkles can cause discomfort.

ANS: C

REF: p. 415

29. Elastic bandages are applied to a. the hands. b. the feet. c. the arms and legs. d. the abdomen.

ANS: C

REF: p. 417

30. When applying elastic bandages, which is incorrect? a. Position the person in good alignment. b. Face the person during the procedure. c. Start at the top (proximal) part of the extremity. d. Expose fingers or toes if possible.

ANS: C

REF: p. 417

31. After applying an elastic bandage, how often do you need to check the color and temperature

of the extremity? a. Every 15 minutes b. Every hour c. Every 2 hours d. Every 3 hours ANS: B

REF: p. 417

32. After applying an elastic bandage to a patient’s right leg, the person complains of pain and

tingling in her right foot. What should you do? a. Remove the bandage and tell the nurse at once. b. Remove the bandage and re-apply it in 10 minutes.

c. Tell the person you will check the bandage in 15 minutes. d. Ask the nurse to bring the person a pain pill.

ANS: A

REF: p. 417

33. Which is not a purpose of wound dressings? a. Protect the wound. b. Absorb drainage. c. Remove dead tissue. d. Prevent moisture.

ANS: D

REF: p. 418

34. Which is not a purpose of wound dressings? a. Prevent microbes from entering the wound. b. Promote comfort. c. Promote arterial and venous circulation. d. Cover unsightly wounds.

ANS: C

REF: p. 418

35. A dressing is dislodged and loose. What can happen? a. Microbes can enter the wound. b. Wound edges can separate. c. Pressure injuries can develop. d. The wound can become larger.

ANS: A

REF: p. 418

36. A dressing is loose. What can happen? a. Skin tears can occur. b. Wound edges can separate. c. Drainage can escape. d. Pressure injuries can develop.

ANS: C

REF: p. 418

37. Which type of tape allows movement of a body part? a. Adhesive tape b. Paper tape c. Plastic tape d. Elastic tape ANS: D

REF: p. 418

38. You are securing a dressing with tape. Where do you apply the tape? a. Around the entire body part b. To the top and bottom of the dressing c. To the top, middle, and bottom of the dressing d. To the middle of the dressing ANS: C

REF: p. 418

39. A person needs frequent dressing changes. You would expect the nurse to secure the dressings

with a. paper tape. b. elastic tape. c. a binder. d. montgomery ties.

ANS: D

REF: p. 419

40. When Montgomery ties are used, a. ties are undone for the dressing change. b. ties are undone each time the person uses the bathroom. c. adhesive strips are removed for the dressing change. d. adhesive strips are changed daily.

ANS: A

REF: p. 419

41. The nurse asks you to apply a dry, non-sterile dressing. Which action is incorrect? a. Touching only the outer edges of the dressing b. Removing tape by pulling it away from the wound c. Removing dressings so the person sees the unsoiled side d. Removing the old dressing gently ANS: B

REF: p. 419

42. The nurse asks you to apply a dry, non-sterile dressing. The dressing change causes pain and

discomfort. What should you do? a. Ask the person to take slow, deep breaths.

N heRdSres IN G B.C M b. Distract the person during tU singTchangeO. c. Ask the nurse when a pain-relief drug was given. Wait 30 minutes to begin. d. Tell the person that the procedure will not hurt.

ANS: C

REF: p. 419

43. Which sign or symptom regarding a dressing change should be reported to the nurse? a. The skin is clean and dry. b. The type of dressing used. c. Area around the wound is warm to touch. d. The patient tolerated the dressing change well.

ANS: C

REF: p. 419

44. The nurse asks you to apply a dry, non-sterile dressing. You remove the old dressing. After

you observe the wound and wound drainage, what should you do? a. Remove your gloves, put them into the plastic bag, and decontaminate your hands. b. Put on clean gloves and open the new dressing. c. Remove your gloves and put on sterile gloves. d. Open the new dressings.

ANS: A

REF: p. 421

45. Binders are applied to the following areas except a. the arms and legs.

b. the abdomen. c. the chest. d. the perineal area.

ANS: A

REF: p. 421

46. Binders do the following except a. prevent infection. b. hold dressings in place. c. prevent injury. d. support wounds.

ANS: A

REF: p. 421

47. Safety pins are used to secure a binder. Pins should point a. toward the wound. b. away from the wound. c. toward the waist. d. away from the waist.

ANS: B

REF: p. 422

48. A binder is loose and out of position. What should you do? a. Change the dressing. b. Re-apply the binder. c. Apply a new binder. d. Secure it with tape.

ANS: B

REF: p.N 42U2

49. A binder is moist. What should you do? a. Call for the nurse. b. Re-apply the binder. c. Change the binder. d. Let it dry.

ANS: C

REF: p. 422

50. A hot compress is a. wrapping a body part with a wet or dry application. b. immersing the body part in water. c. a dry application. d. a soft pad applied over a body area.

ANS: D

REF: p. 423

51. Constrict means to a. expand or open wider. b. narrow. c. reduce blood flow. d. increase blood flow.

ANS: B

REF: p. 423

52. Dilate means to a. expand or open wider. b. narrow. c. reduce blood flow. d. increase blood flow.

ANS: A

REF: p. 423

53. A hot pack involves a. wrapping a body part. b. immersing the body part in water. c. a dry application. d. a soft pad applied to a body area.

ANS: A

REF: p. 423

54. Heat applications do the following except a. promote healing. b. relax muscles. c. prevent infection. d. reduce tissue swelling.

ANS: C

REF: p. 423

55. Cold applications do the following except a. reduce pain. b. prevent swelling. c. increase circulation. d. decrease bleeding.

ANS: C

REF: p. 424

56. Heat applications a. reduce bleeding. b. decrease blood flow. c. promote healing. d. numb the skin.

ANS: C

REF: p. 423

57. When blood vessels dilate, blood flow a. increases. b. decreases. c. stops. d. changes direction.

ANS: A

REF: p. 423

58. When blood vessels constrict, blood flow a. increases. b. decreases. c. stops.

d. changes direction.

ANS: B

REF: p. 423

59. When heat is applied, the skin is a. pale and cool. b. bluish in color. c. red and warm. d. blistered.

ANS: C

REF: p. 423

60. When heat is applied too long, blood vessels a. dilate. b. constrict. c. collapse. d. become less elastic.

ANS: B

REF: p. 423

61. When heat is applied too long, blood flow a. increases. b. decreases. c. changes direction. d. stops.

ANS: B

REF: p. 423

62. When heat is applied, older pN erU soRnS sI arN eG atT riB sk.fC orOM a. burns. b. skin tears. c. pressure injuries. d. cyanosis.

ANS: A

REF: p. 422

63. A person has a joint replacement. Which is correct? a. No heat applications are allowed. b. Heat applications are allowed except over the area of implant. c. Heat applications are allowed over the area of implant. d. No cold applications are allowed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 423

64. Which is a dry heat application? a. Hot compress b. Hot soak c. Sitz bath d. Aquathermia pad ANS: D

REF: p. 423

65. Which statement about moist heat applications is incorrect?

a. b. c. d.

Water is in contact with the skin.

Moist heat has faster effects than dry heat.

Moist heat penetrates deeper than dry heat does.

Moist heat applications have higher temperatures than dry heat applications.

ANS: D

REF: p. 423

66. Heat and cold applications are applied for no longer than a. 5 to 10 minutes. b. 10 to 15 minutes. c. 15 to 20 minutes. d. 20 to 25 minutes.

ANS: C

REF: p. 424

67. Before applying moist heat or cold applications, which of the following should you do? a. Measure the temperature. b. Measure water depth. c. Measure and record the amount of water as intake. d. Show the person how to change the temperature.

ANS: A

REF: p. 424

68. Before applying dry heat or cold applications, which of the following should you do? a. Measure water temperature. b. Cover the application before applying it. c. Show the person how to change the temperature. d. Set a timer.

ANS: B

REF: p. 424

69. Which of the following is an electrical device? a. Aquathermia pad b. Sitz bath c. Commercial heat or cold pack d. Ice collar ANS: A

REF: p. 423

70. When applying heat or cold applications, which is incorrect? a. Know how to use the equipment. b. Expose only the application site. c. Place the call light within the person’s reach. d. Let the person choose the application site.

ANS: D

REF: p. 424

71. Which will not promote safety when applying a heat or cold application? a. Follow agency policies for safe temperature ranges. b. Cover dry heat or cold applications before applying them. c. Observe the skin every 15 minutes for signs of complications. d. Place the call light within the person’s reach.

ANS: C

REF: p. 425

72. Which is a safety measure for applying an aquathermia pad? a. Follow electrical safety precautions. b. Place the heating unit on the person’s bed. c. Secure the pad in place with pins. d. Place the pad under the body part.

ANS: A

REF: p. 425

73. A cool application is a. 93°F to 98°F. b. 80°F to 93°F. c. 65°F to 79°F. d. 50°F to 65°F. ANS: C

REF: p. 425

74. A warm application is a. 106°F to 115°F. b. 98°F to 106°F. c. 93°F to 98°F. d. 80°F to 93°F. ANS: C

REF: p. 425

75. After applying a hot compress, how often should you check the application site? a. Every 5 minutes b. Every 10 minutes c. Every 15 minutes d. Every 20 minutes ANS: A

REF: p. 425

76. The nurse delegates a hot soak to you. To protect the person from burns, you need to a. put the soak in a cover. b. measure water temperature. c. set the temperature with a key. d. use warm water.

ANS: B 77.

REF: p. 424

A sitz bath involves a. a hand and wrist. b. a foot and ankle. c. a knee and hip. d. the perineal and rectal areas.

ANS: D

REF: p. 423

78. During a sitz bath, you need to carefully observe the person for a. nausea and vomiting. b. appetite changes.

c. cyanosis at the application site. d. weakness and faintness.

ANS: D

REF: p. 425

79. The nurse asks you to apply a commercial hot pack. How should you warm the pack? a. Put it in boiling water. b. Heat it in a microwave oven. c. Strike, knead, or squeeze the package. d. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions.

ANS: D

REF: p. 425

80. An aquathermia pad is not placed under a body part because a. heat cannot escape. b. the hoses can cause discomfort. c. it is difficult to observe the application site. d. the body part must be kept in good alignment.

ANS: A

REF: p. 425

81. Which complications can occur from applications that are very cold? a. Blisters and burns b. Fever c. Confusion d. Nausea and vomiting ANS: A

REF: p. 424

82. Which is a moist, cold application? a. Ice collar b. Ice glove c. Ice bag d. Cold compress ANS: D

REF: p. 424

83. You applied a cold compress. How often should you check the application site? a. Every 5 minutes b. Every 10 minutes c. Every 15 minutes d. Every 20 minutes ANS: A

REF: p. 424

Chapter 29: Pressure Injuries Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Pressure injuries usually occur a. on the arms and legs. b. on the hands and feet. c. on the buttocks. d. over bony prominences.

ANS: D

REF: p. 429

2. Common causes of pressure injuries include the following except a. pressure. b. friction. c. shearing. d. burns.

ANS: D

REF: p. 431

3. Which person has the least risk for a pressure injury? a. The person who has urinary incontinence b. The person who has fecal incontinence c. The person who has shortness of breath d. The person who has circulatory problems ANS: C

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 431

4. Which of the following occurs when the skin is dragged across a surface? a. Skin tear b. Friction c. Pressure d. Shearing ANS: B

REF: p. 431

5. Early signs of pressure injuries include the following except a. reddened skin. b. tingling in the area. c. pain or burning in the area. d. cracked and peeling skin.

ANS: D

REF: p. 432

6. A female resident is obese. She is at risk for pressure injuries in the following areas except a. between abdominal folds. b. under her breasts. c. between her legs and buttocks. d. on her forehead and chin.

ANS: D

REF: p. 436

7. Persons at risk for pressure injuries are re-positioned at least every a. hour. b. 1 to 2 hours. c. 3 to 4 hours. d. shift.

ANS: B

REF: p. 436

8. The recommended position for preventing and treating pressure injuries is the a. supine position. b. prone position. c. Fowler’s position. d. 30-degree lateral position.

ANS: D

REF: p. 436

9. To prevent pressure injuries, which of the following should be done? a. Keep the person’s skin clean and dry. b. Massage pressure points. c. Use soap to clean the skin. d. Scrub and rub the skin during bathing.

ANS: A

REF: p. 437

10. To prevent pressure injuries, which of the following should be done? a. Provide clean linens every day. b. Change linens whenever they are wet or soiled.

N RSINGTB.C OM c. Change linens whenever thU ey are wrinkled. d. Provide clean linens every shift.

ANS: B

REF: p. 437

11. Pressure injuries can occur where skin has contact with skin. What can you use to prevent

such contact? a. Pillows b. Bed cradle c. Egg crate-like mattress d. Flotation pad ANS: A

REF: p. 437

12. A resident has dry skin. What should you do? a. Use soap during the person’s bath. b. Apply moisturizer as directed by the nurse. c. Apply cornstarch to dry areas. d. Apply powder to dry areas.

ANS: B

REF: p. 437

13. To prevent pressure injuries, persons sitting in chairs need to shift their positions every a. 5 minutes. b. 10 minutes.

c. 15 minutes. d. 20 minutes.

ANS: C

REF: p. 436

14. An area where the bone sticks out or projects from the flat surface of the body is known as a. a bony prominence. b. a heel elevator. c. eschar. d. slough.

ANS: A

REF: p. 430

15. These devices are made of foam padding, and fit the shape of heels and elbows. a. Heel and foot elevators b. Heel and elbow protectors c. Gel-filled cushion d. Trochanter rolls ANS: B

REF: p. 438

16. If a pressure injury is over a bony prominence, the person is at risk for a. diabetes. b. fractured bones. c. osteomyelitis. d. bruising.

ANS: C

REF: p. 439

17. Which stage of pressure injury involves partial-thickness skin loss? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 ANS: B

REF: p. 432

TRUE/FALSE 1. A person should be positioned on top of a medical device.

ANS: F

REF: p. 436

Chapter 30: Oxygen Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The lack of or absence of breathing is a. apnea. b. Kussmaul respirations. c. bradypnea. d. hypoxia.

ANS: A

REF: p. 442

2. Respirations are fewer than 12 per minute. This is a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. orthopnea. d. tachypnea.

ANS: B

REF: p. 442

3. Respirations gradually increase in rate and depth and then become shallow and slow.

Breathing may stop for 10 to 20 seconds. This is a. orthopneic respirations. b. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. c. Kussmaul respirations. d. hypoventilation.

ANS: B

REF: p. 442

4. Difficult, labored, or painful breathing is a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. dyspnea. d. orthopnea.

ANS: C

REF: p. 442

5. Respirations are rapid and deeper than normal. This is a. bradypnea. b. tachypnea. c. hypoventilation. d. hyperventilation.

ANS: D

REF: p. 442

6. Respirations are slow, shallow, and sometimes irregular. This is a. bradypnea. b. tachypnea. c. hypoventilation. d. hyperventilation.

ANS: C

REF: p. 442

7. Hypoxia means a. respiratory depression. b. cells do not have enough oxygen. c. breathing stops. d. slow and weak respirations.

ANS: B

REF: p. 441

8. Respirations that are very deep and rapid are a. orthopneic respirations. b. Cheyne-Stokes respirations. c. Kussmaul respirations. d. hypoventilation.

ANS: C

REF: p. 442

9. A person can breathe deeply and comfortably only when sitting. This is a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. dyspnea. d. orthopnea.

ANS: D

REF: p. 442

10. Sitting up and leaning over a table to breathe is a. Fowler’s position. b. semi-Fowler’s position. c. orthopneic position. d. hypoxic position.

ANS: C

REF: p. 444

11. The amount of hemoglobin containing oxygen is a. hypoxia. b. hypoxemia. c. oxygen concentration. d. alveolar-capillary exchange.

ANS: C

REF: p. 441

12. Respirations are more than 20 per minute. This is a. apnea. b. bradypnea. c. dyspnea. d. tachypnea.

ANS: D

REF: p. 442

13. Early signs of hypoxia are a. cyanosis, dyspnea, and increased pulse rate.

b. sitting and leaning forward to breathe. c. restlessness, dizziness, and disorientation. d. nausea and vomiting.

ANS: C

REF: p. 442

14. Which statement about hypoxia is incorrect? a. The brain is very sensitive to low levels of oxygen. b. Hypoxia is life-threatening. c. Anything affecting respiratory function can cause hypoxia. d. Hyperventilation is needed.

ANS: D

REF: p. 442

15. The following are reported to the nurse except a. respirations that are quiet, effortless, and regular. b. behavior and personality changes. c. increased rate and depth of respirations. d. cyanosis.

ANS: A

REF: p. 442

16. Cyanosis can be observed in the following except a. skin. b. lips and mucous membranes. c. nail beds. d. eyes.

ANS: D

REF: p.N 44U2

17. You find a person leaning forward over a table to breathe. What should you do? a. Place a pillow on the table. b. Remind the person to sit straight. c. Give oxygen. d. Provide a postural support.

ANS: A

REF: p. 444

18. To prevent respiratory complications, a person is re-positioned at least every a. hour. b. 2 hours. c. 4 hours. d. shift.

ANS: B

REF: p. 444

19. Which removes mucus? a. Coughing b. Deep breathing c. Incentive spirometry d. Surgery ANS: A

REF: p. 445

20. A resident is on bedrest. The person will require a. deep-breathing and coughing exercises. b. the orthopneic position. c. pulse oximetry. d. oxygen therapy.

ANS: A

REF: p. 445

21. Deep-breathing and coughing exercises are usually done a. every hour. b. every 2 hours. c. every 4 hours. d. every 1 to 2 hours while awake.

ANS: D

REF: p. 445

22. You are assisting a patient with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. For these exercises,

the person can be positioned in the following ways except a. Fowler’s position. b. semi-Fowler’s position. c. sitting on the side of the bed. d. orthopneic position.

ANS: D

REF: p. 445

23. You are assisting a patient with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. The person needs to

inhale a. through pursed lips. b. through the mouth. c. through the nose. d. through a mouthpiece.

ANS: C

REF: p. 446

24. You are assisting a patient with deep-breathing and coughing exercises. The person needs to

exhale a. through pursed lips. b. through the mouth. c. through the nose. d. through a mouthpiece.

ANS: A

REF: p. 446

25. A patient is recovering from abdominal surgery. You are assisting the person with

deep-breathing and coughing exercises. Which will promote the person’s comfort during coughing? a. Placing a pillow on the table b. Holding a pillow over the person’s incision c. Positioning the person supine d. Having the person take shallow breaths ANS: B

REF: p. 446

26. You are not responsible for oxygen therapy because a. oxygen is a fire hazard. b. nursing assistants do not give drugs. c. a doctor’s order is needed. d. it is not part of your training.

ANS: B

REF: p. 447

27. Which health team member decides how much oxygen to give? a. The person b. The doctor c. The nurse d. The respiratory therapist ANS: B

REF: p. 447

28. Which health team member decides which oxygen device to use? a. The person b. The doctor c. The nurse d. The respiratory therapist ANS: B

REF: p. 447

29. Pulse oximetry is ordered. Which is not a sensor site? a. Chest b. Finger c. Nose d. Earlobe ANS: A

REF: p. 443

30. Which is an abnormal oximetry value? a. 93% b. 95% c. 97% d. 99% ANS: A

REF: p. 443

31. Which oxygen sources are used for persons who walk or use wheelchairs? a. Wall outlet or oxygen tank b. Oxygen tank or oxygen concentrator c. Oxygen concentrator or liquid oxygen unit d. Small oxygen tank or portable liquid oxygen unit ANS: D

REF: p. 447

32. What is a danger of liquid oxygen systems? a. Liquid oxygen can freeze the skin. b. Liquid oxygen can burn the skin. c. Liquid oxygen can cause orthopnea.

d. Liquid oxygen can cause hypoxia.

ANS: A

REF: p. 448

33. An oxygen administration device has two prongs that insert into the nostrils. This device is a a. nasal cannula. b. simple face mask. c. nasal mask. d. oxygen flow mask.

ANS: A

REF: p. 448

34. Which oxygen administration device allows the person to talk and eat? a. Nasal cannula b. Simple face mask c. Nasal mask d. Oxygen flow mask ANS: A

REF: p. 448

35. The amount of oxygen given is a. the flow rate. b. oxygen percent. c. oxygen concentration. d. oxygen administration.

ANS: A

REF: p. 448

36. Which health team membersN seUt R anSdIadj usT t tB he.oCxO ygMen flow rate?

NG a. The doctor and nurse b. The doctor and respiratory therapist c. The nurse and respiratory therapist d. The nurse and nursing assistant ANS: C

REF: p. 448

37. A resident receives oxygen at 2 L/min. You note that the flow rate is at 4 L/min. What should

you do? a. Do nothing. The flow rate is within normal range. b. Adjust the flow rate. c. Tell the nurse. d. Ask how the person feels.

ANS: C

REF: p. 448

38. You assist the nurse with oxygen therapy. Which task can you perform? a. Adjust the flow rate. b. Remove the administration device. c. Shut off the oxygen flow rate. d. Check for signs of irritation from the administration device.

ANS: D

REF: p. 449

39. A person is receiving oxygen therapy. The humidifier is not bubbling. What should you do? a. Add more water to the humidifier. b. Adjust the flow rate. c. Shut off the oxygen. d. Tell the nurse.

ANS: D

REF: p. 449

40. A person is receiving oxygen therapy. Connecting tubing must be a. snug. b. free of kinks. c. lubricated. d. out of the person’s reach.

ANS: B

REF: p. 449

TRUE/FALSE 1. Smoking is allowed near oxygen tanks as long as the person smoking is not on oxygen.

ANS: F

REF: p. 449

Chapter 31: Rehabilitation Needs Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A disability is a. an artificial replacement for a missing body part. b. a chronic illness or disease. c. any lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function. d. a temporary state of impairment.

ANS: C

REF: p. 451

2. A prosthesis is a. an artificial replacement for a missing body part. b. a chronic illness or disease. c. any lost, absent, or impaired physical or mental function. d. a temporary state of impairment.

ANS: A

REF: p. 453

3. Rehabilitation is a. the process of restoring the person to his or her highest possible level of function. b. adjusting to a disability. c. care that helps persons regain health, strength, and independence. d. the process of assisting the person to maintain or regain health.

ANS: A

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 451

4. Restorative nursing care is a. the process of restoring the person to his or her highest possible level of function. b. using the nursing process to help the person adjust to a disability. c. care that helps persons regain health, strength, and independence. d. the process of assisting the person to maintain or regain health.

ANS: C

REF: p. 452

5. The following are common causes of disabilities except a. disease. b. choking. c. surgery. d. injury.

ANS: B

REF: p. 451

6. Which statement about disabilities is incorrect? a. Losses can be short term or long term. b. Disabilities can affect eating and dressing. c. Only one function is lost. d. The degree of disability affects how much function is possible.

ANS: C

REF: p. 451

7. Which is not a focus of rehabilitation? a. Improving the person’s ability to function b. Promoting the best possible quality of life for the person c. Preventing further decline in function d. Stressing the degree of disability and the functions lost ANS: D

REF: p. 451

8. Restorative nursing care does the following except a. focus on the whole person. b. provide all ADLs for the person. c. prevent unnecessary decline in function. d. help the person maintain the highest level of function.

ANS: B

REF: p. 452

9. Restorative nursing may involve measures that promote the following except a. self-care. b. elimination. c. communication. d. bedrest.

ANS: D

REF: p. 452

10. Which statement is correct? a. Rehabilitation begins after restorative nursing care. b. Restorative nursing care begins after rehabilitation.

N abil RSitati INonGaTnd B.C M c. Some people need both rehU restO orative care. d. The person returns home after completing a rehabilitation program.

ANS: C

REF: p. 452

11. Which statement about restorative aides is correct? a. They do not require any special training. b. They are nursing assistants with training in restorative nursing and rehabilitation

skills. c. Those with excellent work ethics are promoted to nursing assistants. d. They have had some nursing education.

ANS: B

REF: p. 452

12. A disability affects a. the person physically. b. the person psychologically. c. the person socially. d. the whole person.

ANS: D

REF: p. 452

13. What is stressed during rehabilitation? a. The person’s disabilities b. The person’s abilities

c. The person’s weaknesses d. The person’s attitude ANS: B

REF: p. 451

14. Rehabilitation often takes longer for a. teenagers. b. young adults. c. middle-aged adults. d. older persons.

ANS: D

REF: p. 452

15. Rehabilitation starts when the person a. seeks health care. b. seeks hospital care. c. is in an assisted living residence. d. is admitted to a nursing center.

ANS: A

REF: p. 452

16. Activities of daily living refer to a. the activities needed to live and work in one’s own home. b. the self-help skills learned in therapy. c. the activities usually done during a normal day in a person’s life. d. exercises practiced to regain strength and mobility.

ANS: C

REF: p. 452

17. The following prevent contractures and pressure injuries except a. rest and immobility. b. turning and re-positioning. c. range-of-motion exercises. d. good alignment.

ANS: A

REF: p. 452

18. What is the goal of bowel training? a. Perineal care b. Self-care c. Catheter care d. Regular elimination ANS: D

REF: p. 452

19. A resident’s right wrist is affected by a disability. You would expect the person to need a. a prosthesis. b. assistive devices. c. a wheelchair. d. a cast.

ANS: B

REF: p. 452

20. A resident who uses a wheelchair is encouraged to learn wheelchair a. maintenance. b. dimensions. c. sturdiness. d. transfers.

ANS: D

REF: p. 453

21. Dysphagia means a. painful breathing. b. difficulty speaking. c. difficulty swallowing. d. paralysis.

ANS: C

REF: p. 453

22. A patient has aphasia following a stroke. Which of the following are helpful? a. Speech therapy and a dysphagia diet b. Physical therapy and braces c. Speech therapy and communication devices d. Occupational therapy and a transfer board ANS: C

REF: p. 453

23. During rehabilitation, persons need to be reminded of their a. disabilities. b. progress. c. strengths and weaknesses.

N d. limits.

ANS: B REF: p. 454 24. Which person is the least likely to have a successful rehabilitation program? a. The person who tries to do what the physical therapist suggests b. The person who works hard to make slow, steady progress c. The person who is not happy but goes to physical therapy willingly d. The person who tries to go beyond his limits and tells the staff what to do ANS: D

REF: p. 454

25. Persons with disabilities often feel the following except a. unwhole. b. unclean. c. useful. d. unattractive.

ANS: C 26.

REF: p. 454

Which statement about the rehabilitation team is incorrect? a. The team usually meets without the person and family. b. The team meets regularly to discuss the person’s progress. c. Nursing assistants are part of the rehabilitation team. d. The person is part of the rehabilitation team.

ANS: A

REF: p. 455

27. When assisting with rehabilitation, which of the following should you do? a. Follow the service plan. b. Follow the care plan. c. Carry out the doctor’s orders. d. Ask the person what to do.

ANS: B

REF: p. 455

28. A resident had both legs amputated. The person’s care plan includes the following measures.

Which should you question? a. Turn and re-position as directed. b. Perform measures to prevent pressure injuries. c. Keep the person in good alignment at all times. d. Perform all ADLs for the person.

ANS: D

REF: p. 455

29. When assisting with rehabilitation, you must always a. do what the person wants. b. protect the person’s rights. c. apply assistive devices. d. show pity and sympathy.

ANS: B

REF: p. 455

30. A patient takes a long time gN etU tinRgSdI reN ssG edT. B W. hC atO shMould you do? a. Give the person time to complete the task. b. Ask if you can help the person. c. Report the problem to the nurse. d. Time the person. Encourage the person to beat that time.

ANS: A

REF: p. 455

31. You are feeling frustrated because a resident’s progress is slow. You feel like the person is not

trying. What should you do? a. Tell the person how you feel. b. Ask a co-worker to care for the person. c. Discuss your feelings with the nurse. d. Ask the person’s family what to do.

ANS: C

REF: p. 455

32. To better guide and direct a person, which of the following should you do? a. Practice what the person has to do. b. Apply assistive devices. c. Give support and reassurance. d. Review the person’s medical record.

ANS: A

REF: p. 456

33. A patient is learning to use an eating device. Where should the person practice using the

device? a. In the dining room b. In the lounge area c. In the TV room d. In private ANS: D

REF: p. 455

34. Why is privacy important during rehabilitation? a. It protects the person’s dignity and promotes self-respect. b. It is required by the Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA). c. It is a matter of personal choice. d. It prevents abuse and mistreatment.

ANS: A

REF: p. 455

35. Which does not promote quality of life during rehabilitation and restorative care? a. Providing a safe setting b. Choosing activities for the person c. Providing support and reassurance d. Learning to deal with your frustrations ANS: B

REF: p. 455

36. A resident is making slow progress in therapy. You see another nursing assistant laughing at

the person. What should you do? a. Tell the nurse. b. Talk to your co-worker. c. Ask if you can join in the fun. d. Ignore the situation.

ANS: A

REF: p. 455

TRUE/FALSE 1. A person with a disability needs to adjust physically, psychologically, socially, and

economically.

ANS: T

REF: p. 452

2. The goal for a prosthesis is to be like the missing body part in function and appearance.

ANS: T

REF: p. 453

Chapter 32: Hearing, Speech, and Vision Problems Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The total or partial loss of the ability to use or understand language is a. dysphagia. b. paralysis. c. aphasia. d. dementia.

ANS: C

REF: p. 461

2. Another term for expressive aphasia is a. Broca’s aphasia. b. mixed aphasia. c. Wernicke’s aphasia. d. global aphasia.

ANS: A

REF: p. 461

3. Expressive aphasia relates to problems with a. thinking and reasoning. b. understanding language. c. sending out thoughts. d. using the muscles needed for speech.

ANS: C

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 461

4. Receptive aphasia relates to problems with a. sending out thoughts. b. thinking and reasoning. c. understanding language. d. using the muscles needed for speech.

ANS: C

REF: p. 461

5. Not being able to hear normal range of sounds associated with normal hearing is a. deafness. b. hearing loss. c. hearing aphasia. d. lip reading.

ANS: B

REF: p. 459

6. The most severe form of hearing loss is a. deafness. b. hearing impairment. c. hearing assistance. d. lip reading.

ANS: A

REF: p. 459

7. During conversations, a resident leans forward toward you. The person’s answers seem

inappropriate. The person is showing signs of a. hearing loss. b. suspicious and paranoid behavior. c. dementia. d. confusion.

ANS: A

REF: p. 459

8. A patient has a hearing loss. To communicate with the person, do the following except a. gain the person’s attention by approaching the person from behind. b. face the person when speaking. c. speak in a normal tone of voice. d. stand or sit on the side of the better ear.

ANS: A

REF: p. 460

9. A patient has a hearing loss. To communicate with the person, do the following except a. state the topic of conversation first. b. use simple words and short sentences. c. shout when talking to the person. d. keep conversations and discussions short.

ANS: C

REF: p. 460

10. A resident wears a hearing aid. Which is incorrect? a. The hearing aid corrects the person’s hearing problem.

N R I G B.C M

O b. Hearing aids are costly. U S N T c. The hearing aid is turned off at night. d. When not in use, the hearing aid is turned off.

ANS: A

REF: p. 460

11. A resident thinks her hearing aid is not working. What should you do first? a. Ask her simple questions. If she answers correctly, the hearing aid is working. b. Tell the nurse. c. Check to see if the hearing aid is on. d. Put it in your ear to see if it is working.

ANS: C

REF: p. 461

12. Which statement about vision loss is incorrect? a. Vision problems range from mild loss to complete blindness. b. Blindness is the absence of sight. c. Vision loss is gradual or sudden. d. Both eyes are always affected.

ANS: D

REF: p. 462

13. A resident has glaucoma. What do you know about the person’s sight? a. The person has eye pain. b. Peripheral (side) vision is lost.

c. The person is blind in the affected eye. d. The person’s vision is cloudy.

ANS: B

REF: p. 463

14. A resident has glaucoma. Which is correct? a. Glaucoma causes damage to the optic nerve. b. Surgery can correct prior damage. c. The person cannot develop other eye disorders. d. A lens implant will correct the problem.

ANS: A

REF: p. 463

15. A resident has a cataract in his left eye. The only treatment is a. an artificial eye. b. drug therapy. c. surgery. d. corrective lenses.

ANS: C

REF: p. 462

16. Age-related macular degeneration (AMD) is a. damage to the optic nerve. b. a disease that blurs central vision. c. a clouding of the lens. d. a painful eye infection.

ANS: B

REF: p. 462

17. A resident has age-related macular degeneration (AMD). Which is correct? a. The disease causes a blind spot in what the person sees to the side. b. There is no treatment for AMD. c. The disease blurs central vision. d. Central vision is needed for driving.

ANS: C

REF: p. 462

18. Braille is a. a touch reading and writing system that uses raised dots. b. a dog guide. c. a hearing assistance dog. d. a method of writing for persons who have aphasia.

ANS: A

REF: p. 465

19. Which statement about blindness is incorrect? a. Vision loss is sudden or gradual in onset. b. The legally blind person has no vision. c. Many blind persons learn to read braille. d. A long cane with a red tip is used by a blind person.

ANS: B

REF: p. 463

20. A resident is blind. To gain the person’s attention, which action is correct? a. Approach the person from behind. b. Lightly touch the person’s arm. c. Pet the person’s guide dog. d. Identify yourself by name and title when you enter the person’s room.

ANS: D

REF: p. 464

21. A resident is blind. When assisting with the person’s care needs, do the following except a. provide lighting as the person prefers. b. ask how much the person can see. c. adjust blinds and shades to prevent glares. d. keep the room door partly open.

ANS: D

REF: p. 464

22. A resident is blind. Which measure is unsafe for the person? a. Keeping hallways and walkways free of equipment and clutter b. Keeping the person’s call light within reach c. Rearranging the person’s furniture and equipment d. Letting the person perform self-care as able ANS: C

REF: p. 464

23. A patient is blind. You are assisting the person with ambulation. Which action is unsafe? a. Telling the person when you are coming to a curb or steps b. Telling the person when to step up or down c. Having the person walk sN lighR tly I behG ind B yo.uC M d. Walking at a slower than nU ormS al pN ace T ANS: D

O

REF: p. 464

24. A patient wears eyeglasses. You need to clean them a. daily and when needed. b. every shift. c. with water and tissues. d. with a special cleaning solution.

ANS: A

REF: p. 466

25. A patient is not wearing his eyeglasses. Where should you store them? a. At the nurses’ station b. In the top drawer of the bedside stand c. In the person’s closet d. In the person’s trunk ANS: B

REF: p. 466

26. A resident has eyeglass lenses. To properly care for them, which of the following should you

do? a. Follow the manufacturer’s instructions. b. Clean them with water and tissues. c. Label them with the person’s name and room number.

d. Remove the batteries before storing them.

ANS: A

REF: p. 466

TRUE/FALSE 1. Diabetic retinopathy is a complication of diabetes.

ANS: T

REF: p. 462

2. Long canes with a red tip and dog guides are used worldwide by persons who are blind.

ANS: T

REF: p. 463

3. Disposable contact lenses are discarded daily, weekly, or monthly.

ANS: T

REF: p. 467

Chapter 33: Common Health Problems Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Tumors that do not spread to other body parts and usually do not grow back when removed

are a. b. c. d.

cancer. malignant. metastasis. benign.

ANS: D

REF: p. 470

2. A person has a malignant tumor. The person has a. cancer. b. metastasis. c. a tumor that grows slowly. d. death of tissue.

ANS: A

REF: p. 470

3. A malignant tumor a. grows slowly and in a localized area. b. spreads to other parts of the body. c. invades and destroys nearby tissue. d. is not cancer.

ANS: C

REF: p. 470

4. Metastasis is a. a benign tumor. b. cancer. c. a malignant tumor. d. the spread of cancer to other body parts.

ANS: D

REF: p. 470

5. A tumor is a. a lump in a body part. b. a new growth of abnormal cells. c. cancer. d. stomatitis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 470

6. Stomatitis is inflammation of the a. bladder. b. nose. c. mouth. d. anus.

ANS: C

REF: p. 471

7. Cancer occurs in a. all age-groups. b. children. c. young and middle-aged adults. d. older persons.

ANS: A

REF: p. 470

8. Which factor does not increase the risk of cancer? a. Tobacco use b. A family history of certain types of cancer c. A healthy diet d. Female hormones ANS: C

REF: p. 470

9. Signs and symptoms of cancer include the following except a. a thickening or lump in a body part. b. stiff and swollen joints. c. changes in a mole. d. changes in bowel or bladder habits.

ANS: B

REF: p. 471

10. A person has cancer. Surgery is done to a. remove the tumor. b. shrink the tumor. c. destroy cancer cells in the area. d. kill cells that break off of the tumor.

ANS: A

REF: p. 471

11. Which is not a side effect of radiation therapy? a. Weight gain b. Nausea c. Skin changes d. Fatigue ANS: A

REF: p. 471

12. Persons receiving chemotherapy are at risk for the following except a. stomatitis. b. nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. c. hair loss. d. hot flashes and blood clots.

ANS: D

REF: p. 471

13. A patient has cancer. The person’s care plan is likely to include the following except a. measures for pain relief or control.

b. rest and exercise. c. prevention of skin breakdown. d. cast care and measures to prevent incontinence.

ANS: D

REF: p. 471

14. A patient has cancer. You find the person crying in his room. What should you do? a. Close the door after leaving the room. He needs to cry in private. b. Use touch and listening to show that you care. c. Tell the nurse at once. d. Tell his spiritual advisor what you observed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 471

15. Arthritis means a. the surgical replacement of a joint. b. inflammation of joints. c. a disease in which bones become porous and brittle. d. the repair of a fracture.

ANS: B

REF: p. 471

16. The removal of all or part of an extremity is a. excision. b. incision. c. ectomy. d. amputation.

ANS: D

REF: p.N 47U6

17. Arthroplasty is a. the surgical replacement of a joint. b. inflammation of a joint. c. a disease in which bones become porous and brittle. d. the repair of a fracture.

ANS: A

REF: p. 472

18. Which statement about osteoarthritis is incorrect? a. It occurs with aging. b. Pain occurs with weight-bearing and joint motion. c. Being underweight is a common cause. d. Weight-bearing joints are commonly affected.

ANS: C

REF: p. 471

19. Which is not a care technique used in a patient who has undergone joint replacement surgery? a. Cast care b. Deep-breathing exercises c. Fall prevention measures d. Increased foods and fluids ANS: A

REF: p. 472

20. A resident has osteoarthritis. The person is most likely to have joint stiffness with a. rest and lack of motion. b. exercise. c. weight-bearing. d. joint motion.

ANS: A

REF: p. 471

21. A resident has osteoarthritis. The person is over-weight. Why is weight loss important for the

person? a. It will improve the person’s mental well-being. b. Weight loss reduces stress on weight-bearing joints. c. The person is too old to be over-weight. d. It will be easier to lift and move the person.

ANS: B

REF: p. 472

22. Which statement about rheumatoid arthritis is incorrect? a. It attacks the lining of the joint. b. Joints on both sides of the body are affected. c. Wrist and finger joints are commonly affected. d. The disease is more common in men than in women.

ANS: D

REF: p. 471

23. A patient has rheumatoid arthritis. The following can relieve pain and inflammation except a. drugs. b. heat or cold applications. c. a cast or traction. d. rest balanced with exercise.

ANS: C

REF: p. 471

24. A patient has rheumatoid arthritis. The person has consented to joint replacement surgery. The

damaged joint will be replaced with a a. nail or pin. b. metal plate. c. screw. d. prosthesis.

ANS: D

REF: p. 472

25. Which statement about osteoporosis is incorrect? a. All ethnic groups are at risk. b. Older people are at risk. c. Female risk increases from lack of estrogen. d. It is caused by high calcium in the diet.

ANS: D

REF: p. 476

26. Which are not risk factors for osteoporosis? a. Increasing age

b. Being obese c. Family history d. Tobacco use ANS: B

REF: p. 476

27. Which is not a sign or symptom of osteoporosis? a. Joint stiffness b. Back pain c. Loss of height d. Stooped posture ANS: A

REF: p. 476

28. Major risks of osteoporosis are a. fractures. b. burns. c. infections. d. constipation and fecal impaction.

ANS: A

REF: p. 476

29. A resident has osteoporosis. The person’s care plan includes the following. Which should you

question? a. Demonstrate use of walking aids. b. Encourage good posture. c. Assist with weight-bearing exercises as directed. d. Promote bedrest. Turn anN d reR -poI sitioG n gB en. tlC y. M

U S N T

ANS: D

O

REF: p. 476

30. A fracture is a a. broken bone. b. broken joint. c. broken hip. d. cast or traction.

ANS: A

REF: p. 473

31. A person has a fracture. The bone is broken but the skin is intact. The person has a(n) a. closed fracture. b. compound fracture. c. open fracture. d. spiral fracture.

ANS: A

REF: p. 473

32. A person has a fracture. The bone has come through the skin. The person has a a. closed fracture. b. simple fracture. c. compound fracture. d. hip fracture.

ANS: C

REF: p. 473

33. A compound fracture also is called a(n) a. closed fracture. b. simple fracture. c. open fracture. d. hip fracture.

ANS: C

REF: p. 473

34. A patient has a fractured wrist. The doctor has scheduled open reduction. This means that a. traction is used to bring the bone ends into alignment. b. a cast is used to bring the bone ends into alignment. c. the doctor will move the bone ends back into alignment. d. the doctor will move the bones back into alignment during surgery.

ANS: D

REF: p. 473

35. After reduction, the fractured part is a. exercised as directed. b. immobilized with a cast, traction, or other device. c. abducted. d. externally rotated.

ANS: B

REF: p. 473

36. A patient has a plaster of Paris cast. The cast dries in a. 2 to 3 hours. b. 4 to 8 hours. c. 12 to 24 hours. d. 24 to 48 hours.

ANS: D

REF: p. 473

37. You are assisting the nurse with cast care. Which is incorrect? a. Cover the cast for the person’s warmth. b. Use your palms to lift a wet casted extremity. c. Get help to re-position the person. d. Elevate the casted part on pillows.

ANS: A

REF: p. 474

38. You are assisting the nurse with cast care. Which is incorrect? a. Support the entire cast with pillows. b. Wash and dry the cast when soiling occurs. c. Do not let the person insert things into the cast. d. Position the person as directed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 474

39. A resident has a cast on her right arm. You note that her fingers are pale and that she cannot

move them. What should you do? a. Remove the cast.

b. Tell the nurse at once. c. Elevate her arm on pillows. d. Assist with range-of-motion exercises.

ANS: B

REF: p. 474

40. Traction is used to immobilize a fracture. This is done by a. applying a steady pull in two directions. b. inserting wires and pins. c. inserting a prosthesis. d. applying elastic bandages.

ANS: A

REF: p. 473

41. A patient is in traction. Which is incorrect? a. Keep the weights off the floor. b. Provide a fracture pan for elimination. c. Remove weights for complaints of pain or numbness. d. Put bottom linens on the bed from the top down.

ANS: C

REF: p. 475

42. A resident fell in the shower and fractured his right hip. The person returned to the nursing

center after surgery to repair the hip. He is at risk for which of the following post-operative complications? a. Depression, skin tears, and burns b. Pressure injuries, constipation, and confusion c. Incontinence, hair loss, aN nd sR tomI atitiG s B.C M d. Diarrhea, bleeding, and infU ectioSn N ANS: B

T

O

REF: p. 475

43. A resident has a fractured right hip. You must use devices to prevent a. abduction. b. pneumonia. c. external rotation of the hip. d. aspiration.

ANS: C

REF: p. 475

44. A resident’s left leg was amputated. The person complains of pain in the left leg. This is a. chronic pain. b. radiating pain. c. sympathy pain. d. phantom limb pain.

ANS: D

REF: p. 476

45. Tissues die and become black, cold, and shriveled. This is a. cancer. b. gangrene. c. arthritis. d. metastasis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 476

46. Paralysis on one side of the body is a. uniplegia. b. biplegia. c. paraplegia. d. hemiplegia.

ANS: D

REF: p. 477

47. Paraplegia is paralysis a. in the arms. b. in the legs and trunk. c. in the arms and legs. d. from the neck down.

ANS: B

REF: p. 479

48. Quadriplegia is paralysis a. in the arms. b. in the legs. c. from the waist down. d. in the arms, legs, and trunk.

ANS: D

REF: p. 479

49. Another term for quadriplegia is a. paraplegia. b. tetraplegia. c. biplegia. d. uniplegia.

ANS: B

REF: p. 479

50. Stroke is a. a disease that affects the arteries that supply blood to the brain. b. a slow, progressive disorder in which there is degeneration of part of the brain. c. a disease in which the myelin covering the brain and spinal cord is destroyed. d. an injury to the scalp, skull, and brain tissue.

ANS: A

REF: p. 477

51. Stroke occurs when which one of the following happens? a. Hypertension or diabetes b. Infection or accidental injury c. Bleeding in the brain or a blood clot d. Aging or poor nutrition ANS: C 52.

REF: p. 477

Warning signs of stroke include the following except a. sudden, severe chest pain and shortness of breath.

b. sudden numbness or weakness on one side of the body. c. sudden confusion, trouble speaking or understanding. d. sudden, severe headache.

ANS: A

REF: p. 477

53. Warning signs of stroke last a few minutes. This is called a. an early warning. b. a transient ischemic attack. c. a cerebrovascular accident. d. a brain attack.

ANS: B

REF: p. 477

54. Effects from stroke often include the following except a. loss of face, hand, arm, leg, or body control. b. dysphagia and aphasia. c. urinary incontinence and impaired memory. d. tremors and stiff muscles.

ANS: D

REF: p. 477

55. Care of a person after a stroke often includes the following except a. ostomy care. b. a bowel or bladder training program. c. elastic stockings to prevent blood clots. d. measures to prevent pressure injuries.

ANS: A

REF: p.N 47U7

56. Which is a common effect of stroke? a. Hemiplegia b. Quadriplegia c. Mask-like expression d. Sclerosis ANS: A

REF: p. 477

57. A patient had a stroke. When does rehabilitation begin? a. When the person leaves the hospital b. When the person enters a rehabilitation center c. A few days after the person returns to the nursing center d. At once ANS: D

REF: p. 477

58. Which statement about Parkinson’s disease is incorrect? a. It is progressive with no cure. b. Persons over age 50 years are at risk. c. Signs and symptoms become worse over time. d. Expressive-receptive aphasia is common.

ANS: D

REF: p. 478

59. The following are common with Parkinson’s disease except a. hemiplegia or quadriplegia. b. tremors and stiff muscles. c. slow movement and mask-like expression. d. stooped posture and impaired balance.

ANS: A

REF: p. 478

60. Persons with Parkinson’s disease often have speech problems. Which is common? a. Receptive aphasia b. Slow monotone speech c. Loud speech d. Swearing ANS: B

REF: p. 478

61. The person with Parkinson’s disease needs protection from a. falls. b. burns. c. poisoning. d. cold, damp weather.

ANS: A

REF: p. 478

62. Symptoms of multiple sclerosis usually begin a. between the ages of 20 and 40 years. b. after age 50 years. c. after age 65 years. d. between the ages of 50 and 65 years.

ANS: A

REF: p. 478

63. Which statement about multiple sclerosis (MS) is incorrect? a. The person may have remissions. b. Women and whites are at greatest risk. c. Blurred or double vision often occurs. d. Severe disability or death is common early after onset.

ANS: D

REF: p. 478

64. A resident has MS. The person’s care plan includes the following. Which should you

question? a. Measures to promote bowel and bladder elimination b. Turning, re-positioning, and deep breathing and coughing c. Performing all activities of daily living (ADLs) for the person d. Skin care and range-of-motion exercises ANS: C

REF: p. 478

65. A resident has amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Which is correct? a. ALS attacks the nerve cells that control voluntary muscles. b. ALS affects more women than men.

c. It usually strikes between 60 and 80 years of age. d. It usually affects the mind, intelligence, and memory.

ANS: A

REF: p. 479

66. A resident has ALS. The person’s care plan includes the following. Which should you

question? a. Range-of-motion exercises b. Bedrest with commode privileges c. Referral to speech therapy d. Assist with feeding, as needed ANS: B

REF: p. 479

67. Which statement about traumatic brain injuries is incorrect? a. Spinal cord injuries are likely. b. Sensory problems may result. c. Rehabilitation will return the person to normal. d. Personality changes and speech problems may result.

ANS: C

REF: p. 479

68. Which statement about spinal cord injuries is incorrect? a. Permanent damage can occur. b. Paraplegia or quadriplegia can result. c. Rehabilitation is necessary. d. Thoracic injuries occur at the neck.

ANS: D

REF: p.N 47U9

69. Which of these blood pressure measurements indicate hypertension? a. 120/70 mm Hg and 140/86 mm Hg b. 138/68 mm Hg and 118/80 mm Hg c. 110/89 mm Hg and 110/60 mm Hg d. 148/90 mm Hg and 160/100 mm Hg ANS: D

REF: p. 480

70. All of the following life-style changes can lower blood pressure except a. decreasing weight and stress level. b. smoking. c. limiting salt intake. d. increasing exercise.

ANS: B

REF: p. 480

71. Hypertension can lead to the following except a. stroke and heart attack. b. Parkinson’s disease and multiple sclerosis. c. heart failure and kidney failure. d. blindness.

ANS: B

REF: p. 480

72. What are the major complications of coronary artery disease? a. Hypertension, angina, and high blood pressure b. Angina, myocardial infarction, irregular heartbeats, and sudden death c. Angina, myocardial infarction, hypertension, and chronic obstructive pulmonary

disease (COPD) d. Heart failure, myocardial infarction, and atherosclerosis ANS: B

REF: p. 480

73. With coronary artery disease, the coronary arteries are a. hardened and narrow. b. enlarged and less elastic. c. infected. d. opened or bypassed.

ANS: A

REF: p. 480

74. The following are risk factors for coronary artery disease. Which cannot be changed? a. Lack of exercise and being over-weight b. Smoking and high blood cholesterol c. Diabetes and hypertension d. Age, gender, and family history ANS: D

REF: p. 480

75. Angina is a. muscle pain. b. aches and pains. c. heart pain. d. chest pain.

ANS: D 76.

REF: p. 481

The pain felt when angina occurs is caused by the heart not being strong enough to pump. the body responding to an overstretched muscle. the heart needing more oxygen. blood flow increasing to the heart muscle.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

REF: p. 481

77. Which is not a sign or symptom of angina? a. Pain in the jaw, neck, and down one or both arms b. Pallor, feeling faint, and perspiring c. Dyspnea d. Aphasia and dysphagia ANS: D

REF: p. 481

78. Angina is usually relieved by a. food and fluids. b. fresh air.

c. rest and nitroglycerin. d. surgery.

ANS: C

REF: p. 481

79. Chest pain not relieved by rest and nitroglycerin may signal a. hypertension. b. stroke. c. heart failure. d. heart attack.

ANS: D

REF: p. 481

80. Which statement about myocardial infarction (MI) is incorrect? a. Tissue death occurs from a sudden lack of blood supply to the heart muscle. b. The entire heart muscle dies. c. The person is having a heart attack. d. Cardiac arrest is a risk.

ANS: B

REF: p. 482

81. After an MI the person needs a. oxygen therapy. b. surgery. c. cardiac rehabilitation. d. dialysis.

ANS: C

REF: p. 482

82. Heart failure means that the heart a. has stopped beating. b. is damaged. c. cannot pump blood normally. d. is old and weak.

ANS: C

REF: p. 482

83. Signs and symptoms of heart failure include the following except a. no pulse, no respirations, and no blood pressure. b. dyspnea, sputum, cough, and gurgling sounds in the lungs. c. confusion, dizziness, and fainting. d. pallor and nocturia.

ANS: A

REF: p. 482

84. The right side of the heart cannot pump blood normally. Signs and symptoms include a. no pulse, no respirations, and no blood pressure. b. swollen feet and ankles. c. thoracic injuries. d. phantom pain.

ANS: B

REF: p. 482

85. A person has heart failure. The person’s diet is likely to be a. sodium-controlled. b. high protein. c. high carbohydrate. d. high fat.

ANS: A

REF: p. 482

86. Which position is usually preferred by persons with heart failure? a. Supine b. Prone c. Side-lying d. Semi-Fowler’s ANS: D

REF: p. 482

87. Which is a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? a. Tuberculosis b. Pneumonia c. Emphysema d. Asthma ANS: C

REF: p. 482

88. COPD interferes with a. inhalation. b. exhalation. c. O2 and CO2 exchange in N the R lungIs. G d. blood flow to the lungs.

ANS: C

B.C M U S N T O

REF: p. 482

89. What is the major cause of chronic bronchitis? a. Smoking b. Infection c. Air pollution d. Family history ANS: A

REF: p. 482

90. A person has chronic bronchitis. Treatment involves the following except a. oxygen therapy. b. breathing exercises. c. prompt treatment of respiratory tract infections. d. parenteral nutrition.

ANS: D

REF: p. 482

91. What is the most common cause of emphysema? a. Smoking b. Infection c. Air pollution d. Family history

ANS: A

REF: p. 483

92. A resident has emphysema. You expect the following signs and symptoms except a. productive cough, possibly with pus. b. difficulty breathing. c. fatigue. d. chills and fever.

ANS: D

REF: p. 483

93. Which statement about asthma is incorrect? a. Air passages narrow. b. Wheezing and cough are common. c. Smoking and second-hand smoke are triggers. d. The person has fever, pain, and chills.

ANS: D

REF: p. 483

94. Which statement about pneumonia is incorrect? a. It is an inflammation and infection of lung tissue. b. Affected tissues fill with fluid. c. Oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange is not affected. d. The person has fever, chills, painful cough, and chest pain on breathing.

ANS: C

REF: p. 483

95. Tuberculosis (TB) is spread by a. direct contact. b. blood and body fluids. c. indirect contact. d. airborne droplets.

ANS: D

REF: p. 484

96. Which statement about TB is incorrect? a. Persons having frequent, close contact with the infected individual are at risk. b. Symptoms occur 6 weeks after being infected. c. It is treated with TB drugs. d. Chest x-ray and TB testing detect TB. ANS: B

REF: p. 484

97. Food and fluids expelled from the stomach through the mouth is a. jaundice. b. vomitus. c. diverticulitis. d. gastric reflux.

ANS: B

REF: p. 484

98. Another word for vomitus is a. jaundice.

b. sputum. c. emesis. d. diverticulitis.

ANS: C

REF: p. 484

99. A resident is vomiting. Do the following except a. follow Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. b. offer the person a carbonated beverage. c. prevent aspiration by turning the person’s head to the side. d. observe vomitus for color, odor, and undigested food.

ANS: B

REF: p. 484

100. A person vomited. Which will promote comfort? a. Oral hygiene b. Turning and re-positioning c. Semi-Fowler’s position d. Assisting with elimination ANS: A

REF: p. 484

101. A pouch that bulges outward through a weak spot in the colon is called a a. colon pouch. b. colostomy. c. diverticulum. d. hernia.

ANS: C

REF: p.N 48U4

102. Hepatitis is a. a stomach disorder. b. inflammation of the gallbladder. c. inflammation of the liver. d. a bacterial infection.

ANS: C

REF: p. 485

103. Hepatitis A is spread by a. airborne droplets. b. blood. c. the fecal-oral route. d. direct contact.

ANS: C

REF: p. 485

104. Hepatitis B, C, and D are spread by a. airborne droplets. b. contaminated blood. c. the fecal-oral route. d. contaminated drinking water.

ANS: B

REF: p. 485

105. Hepatitis vaccines a. protect only health care workers. b. decrease liver inflammation. c. kill hepatitis germs. d. protect against hepatitis.

ANS: D

REF: p. 485

106. Which is not a sign of hepatitis? a. Dark urine b. Light, clay-colored stools c. Jaundice d. Sputum containing pus ANS: D

REF: p. 485

107. Jaundice means a. blood in the stool. b. yellowish color of the skin or whites of the eyes. c. inflammation of the liver. d. light colored stools.

ANS: B

REF: p. 485

108. Hepatitis C is particularly dangerous for the following reasons except a. the infected person may not have symptoms. b. signs and symptoms of liver disease and damage may not appear for many years.

N mp RS Is G B.C M c. infected persons without syU tomN caT n spreadOthe virus to others. d. contaminated water can affect many people.

ANS: D

REF: p. 485

109. Which statement about urinary tract infections (UTIs) is incorrect? a. Microbes can enter the urinary system through the urethra. b. UTIs are common healthcare-associated infections. c. Poor fluid intake is a common cause. d. Catheters help prevent UTIs. ANS: D

REF: p. 486

110. Cystitis means a. an inflammation of the kidney pelvis. b. kidney stones. c. a bladder infection. d. pus in the urine.

ANS: C

REF: p. 486

111. A person with cystitis may have the following signs and symptoms except a. urinary frequency and urgency. b. blood or pus in the urine. c. foul-smelling urine.

d. changes in skin color and dry, itchy skin.

ANS: D

REF: p. 486

112. Cystitis is usually treated with a. intravenous therapy. b. antibiotics and fluids. c. fluids and drugs for pain relief. d. dietary changes.

ANS: B

REF: p. 486

113. Pyelonephritis means a. an inflammation of the kidney pelvis. b. kidney stones. c. a bladder infection. d. pus in the urine.

ANS: A

REF: p. 486

114. Pyelonephritis signs and symptoms include the following except a. high fever. b. enlarged liver. c. nausea and vomiting. d. shaking and chills.

ANS: B

REF: p. 486

115. Renal calculi means a. an inflammation of the kidney pelvis. b. kidney stones. c. a bladder infection. d. pus in the urine.

ANS: B

REF: p. 487

116. The person with renal calculi is encouraged to drink fluids. The person needs to drink a. 1000 to 2000 mL per day. b. 2000 to 3000 mL per day. c. 3000 to 4000 mL per day. d. 4000 to 5000 mL per day.

ANS: B

REF: p. 487

117. A person has renal calculi. Which measure is needed? a. Urine output is measured. b. Urine pH is measured. c. All urine is strained. d. Urine is tested for occult blood.

ANS: C

REF: p. 487

118. Which statement about renal failure is incorrect?

a. b. c. d.

The person is very ill.

Heart failure and hypertension can result.

The body retains fluids.

Waste products are removed from the blood.

ANS: D

REF: p. 488

119. Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) is another term for a. frequent urination. b. difficulty voiding. c. enlarged prostate. d. bladder infection.

ANS: C

REF: p. 487

120. Which statement about sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) is incorrect? a. Signs and symptoms occur only in the genital area. b. Some people do not have signs and symptoms. c. Condoms help prevent the spread of STDs. d. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard must be followed.

ANS: A

REF: p. 488

121. In diabetes, the body cannot produce or properly use a. estrogen. b. testosterone. c. insulin. d. protein and carbohydrateN s.

ANS: C

REF: p. 488

122. Which type of diabetes occurs most often in children? a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Gestational d. Situational ANS: A

REF: p. 488

123. American Indians are at higher risk for which type of diabetes? a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Gestational d. Situational ANS: B

REF: p. 488

124. When does gestational diabetes develop? a. After surgery b. During puberty c. During pregnancy d. After menopause

ANS: C

REF: p. 488

125. Type 1 diabetes is treated with a. daily insulin, healthy eating, and exercise. b. estrogen therapy, healthy eating, and exercise. c. testosterone therapy, healthy eating, and exercise. d. healthy eating and exercise.

ANS: A

REF: p. 489

126. A resident has diabetes. Which will increase the person’s blood sugar level? a. Too much diabetic medication b. Omitting a meal c. Too little exercise d. Vomiting ANS: C

REF: p. 489

127. A resident has diabetes. The person’s care plan includes measures to prevent hyperglycemia.

Which will decrease the person’s blood sugar level? a. Not enough diabetic medication b. Eating too much food c. Increasing the person’s exercise d. Emotional stress ANS: C

REF: p. 489

128. Which system defends against threats inside and outside the body?

N R I G B.C M U S N T O a. The respiratory system b. The immune system c. The gastro-intestinal system d. The urinary system ANS: B

REF: p. 489

129. The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is spread by a. saliva, tears, and sweat. b. blood, semen, vaginal secretions, and breast milk. c. coughing and sneezing. d. casual contact and insects.

ANS: B

REF: p. 490

130. HIV is spread in the following ways except a. having unprotected sex. b. sharing needles and syringes. c. breast-feeding. d. sneezing, coughing, and saliva.

ANS: D

REF: p. 490

131. HIV causes a. acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).

b. hepatitis A. c. hepatitis B. d. tuberculosis.

ANS: A

REF: p. 490

132. A person infected with HIV is symptom free. Which is correct? a. The person can spread it to others. b. The person cannot infect others until symptoms are present. c. Symptoms appear after others are infected. d. The person does not show symptoms until other diseases develop.

ANS: A

REF: p. 490

133. To protect yourself and others from HIV, you must follow Standard Precautions and the

Bloodborne Pathogen Standard a. when caring for persons at risk. b. when caring for persons diagnosed with HIV or AIDS. c. when caring for persons diagnosed with HIV. d. at all times.

ANS: D

REF: p. 490

TRUE/FALSE 1. The person with pre-hypertension will likely develop hypertension in the future.

ANS: T

REF: p.N 480

U

2. A patient has TB. Standard Precautions and Airborne Precautions are needed.

ANS: T

REF: p. 484

3. An enlarged prostate can cause urinary problems in men.

ANS: T

REF: p. 487

4. The immune system can cause diseases by attacking the body’s own normal cells, tissues, or

organs.

ANS: T

REF: p. 489

5. Persons who have had chicken pox are at risk for having shingles.

ANS: T

REF: p. 490

Chapter 34: Mental Health Disorders Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Anxiety is a. a vague, uneasy feeling in response to stress. b. a false belief. c. feelings and emotions. d. a persistent thought or idea.

ANS: A

REF: p. 495

2. The need to repeat an act over and over again is a. an obsession. b. paranoia. c. a phobia. d. a compulsion.

ANS: D

REF: p. 496

3. Which are used to block unpleasant or threatening feelings? a. Withdrawal syndrome b. Delusions of grandeur c. Delusions of persecution d. Defense mechanisms ANS: D

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 495

4. A delusion is a. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. b. a false belief. c. a persistent thought or idea. d. an intense and sudden feeling of fear, anxiety, terror, or dread.

ANS: B

REF: p. 497

5. A delusion of grandeur is a. a false belief that one is being mistreated, abused, or harassed. b. an exaggerated belief about one’s importance, wealth, power, or talents. c. an intense and sudden feeling of fear, anxiety, terror, or dread. d. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real.

ANS: B 6.

REF: p. 497

A hallucination is a. a false belief. b. an exaggerated belief. c. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. d. a persistent thought or idea.

ANS: C

REF: p. 497

7. An obsession is a. the uncontrolled performance of an act. b. a false belief. c. a mental illness. d. a frequent, upsetting thought, idea, or image.

ANS: D

REF: p. 496

8. Panic is a. a persistent thought or idea. b. false beliefs and suspicion about a person or situation. c. an intense and sudden feeling of fear, anxiety, terror, or dread. d. not being able to correctly view or interpret reality.

ANS: C

REF: p. 496

9. Paranoia is a. a persistent thought or idea. b. delusions and suspicions about a person or situation. c. fear, panic, or dread. d. not being able to correctly view or interpret reality.

ANS: B

REF: p. 498

10. Phobia is a. a false belief. b. an intense fear. c. a persistent thought or idea. d. fear, panic, or dread.

ANS: B

REF: p. 496

11. Stress is a. a mental illness or mental disorder. b. the response or change in the body caused by any emotional, physical, social, or

economic factor. c. a state of severe mental impairment. d. not being able to view or interpret reality correctly.

ANS: B

REF: p. 495

12. A person is able to cope with and adjust to every-day stresses in ways accepted by society.

The person a. is mentally healthy. b. has a mental illness. c. has an emotional illness. d. has a psychiatric disorder.

ANS: A

REF: p. 495

13. A person’s ability to cope and adjust to stress is disturbed. Behavior and function are

impaired. Which is correct?

a. b. c. d.

The person has a mental illness.

The person has false beliefs.

The person has severe mood swings.

The person has paranoia.

ANS: A

REF: p. 495

14. Mental relates to a. stress. b. the mind. c. knowledge. d. personality.

ANS: B

REF: p. 495

15. Which is not a cause of mental health disorders? a. Inability to cope or adjust to stress b. Chemical imbalances c. Genetics d. Schizophrenia and anxiety ANS: D

REF: p. 495

16. Which statement about anxiety is correct? a. Mentally healthy people are free of anxiety. b. It usually occurs when needs are met. c. The person senses real or imagined danger or harm. d. The person always knowN s theRsoI urceGor B ca. usCe oM f the anxiety.

U S N T

ANS: C

O

REF: p. 495

17. Signs and symptoms of anxiety include the following except a. urinary frequency and urgency. b. a “lump” in the throat or “butterflies” in the stomach. c. low pulse, respirations, and blood pressure. d. dry mouth, sweating, and poor attention span.

ANS: C

REF: p. 495

18. Which statement about defense mechanisms is incorrect? a. They are unconscious reactions. b. Some use of defense mechanisms is normal. c. They block unpleasant feelings. d. They reflect the highest level of anxiety.

ANS: D

REF: p. 495

19. You are unhappy with your supervisor. You call in sick because of a headache. Which defense

mechanism are you using? a. Denial b. Conversion c. Substitution d. Reaction formation

ANS: B

REF: p. 495

20. A new resident waits at the front door for her daughter to take her home. Which defense

mechanism is she using? a. Denial b. Conversion c. Regression d. Repression ANS: A

REF: p. 495

21. A person’s eyeglasses break. Your supervisor blames you. At home, you scold your family for

not helping with dinner. Which defense mechanisms are you using? a. Conversion b. Displacement c. Projection d. Reaction formation ANS: B

REF: p. 495

22. You forgot to assist a resident with ambulation. You blame the nurse for not reminding you.

Which defense mechanism are you using? a. Projection b. Identification c. Rationalization d. Substitution ANS: C

REF: p.N 49U5

23. A person has agoraphobia. This means that the person has an intense fear of a. being in pain or seeing others in pain. b. the slightest uncleanliness. c. being in an open, crowded, or public space. d. being trapped in an enclosed or narrow space.

ANS: C

REF: p. 496

24. Fear of the slightest uncleanliness is a. aquaphobia. b. mysophobia. c. claustrophobia. d. nyctophobia.

ANS: B

REF: p. 496

25. A resident washes her hands over and over many times during the day. This behavior is a a. hallucination. b. defense mechanism. c. phobia. d. compulsion.

ANS: D

REF: p. 496

26. Post-traumatic stress syndrome occurs a. after a terrifying event. b. after taking illegal drugs. c. in persons with mental illness. d. in persons with dementia.

ANS: A

REF: p. 496

27. A person relives a traumatic event during the day and in nightmares during sleep. These are a. hallucinations. b. delusions. c. day and night terrors. d. flashbacks.

ANS: D

REF: p. 496

28. Schizophrenia involves the following except a. obsessive-compulsive behaviors and severe mood swings. b. psychosis and thought disorders. c. delusions and hallucinations. d. delusions of grandeur and delusions of persecution.

ANS: A

REF: p. 497

29. The following are common in persons with schizophrenia except a. poor communication. b. withdrawal socially. c. sitting for hours without moving, speaking, or responding. d. violent acts.

ANS: D

REF: p. 497

30. To regress means to a. be very sad and withdrawn. b. move back to an earlier time or condition. c. have violent behaviors. d. lack interest in others.

ANS: B

REF: p. 497

31. The person with bipolar disorder a. has severe extremes in mood, energy, and function. b. abuses others. c. has poor judgment and is hostile. d. cannot interpret reality correctly.

ANS: A

REF: p. 497

32. The following may occur in the manic phase of bipolar disorder except a. feeling “wired.” b. extreme irritability. c. little sleep.

d. feelings of worthlessness and helplessness.

ANS: D

REF: p. 497

33. A person has depression. Which is incorrect? a. Suicide is a risk. b. Violent behaviors are common. c. The person is extremely sad. d. Body functions are depressed.

ANS: B

REF: p. 498

34. Which statement about depression in older persons is incorrect? a. Depression is uncommon in older persons. b. Depression in older persons is often overlooked. c. Older persons with depression are often thought to have a cognitive disorder. d. Depression in older persons is often untreated.

ANS: A

REF: p. 498

35. The person with an antisocial personality disorder a. alternates between depression and paranoia. b. is suicidal. c. is very sad. d. lacks responsibility and is hostile.

ANS: D

REF: p. 498

36. The person with a borderlineNpU erR soS nI aliN ty a. alternates between mania and depression. b. has intense bouts of rage, depression, and panic. c. lacks morals and ethics. d. hallucinates and is delusional.

ANS: B

REF: p. 498

37. Which statement about substance abuse is incorrect? a. It occurs when over-use of a substance leads to health issues or social problems. b. An influencing factor includes genetics. c. The exact cause is unknown. d. Only illegal drugs and alcohol are abused.

ANS: D

REF: p. 499

38. Which statement about alcoholism is incorrect? a. Alcoholism is a chronic disease. b. The person has a strong need to drink. c. The person cannot stop drinking once drinking has begun. d. There is no treatment.

ANS: D

REF: p. 500

39. Drugs that stimulate the brain are

a. b. c. d.

opiates. depressants. stimulants. hallucinogens.

ANS: C

REF: p. 499

40. A person has a drug addiction. Which is correct? a. The person has a chronic brain disease. b. The person can stop taking the drug without treatment. c. Higher doses of the drug are not needed for the same effects. d. The person takes the drug to treat medical symptoms only.

ANS: A

REF: p. 500

41. If a person mentions or talks about suicide, do the following except a. take the person seriously. b. tell the person not to talk that way. c. call for the nurse at once. d. stay with the person.

ANS: B

REF: p. 501

42. Exposure to suicidal behaviors within one’s family, one’s peer group, or media reports of

suicide is known as a. suicide contagion. b. tolerance. c. suicide. d. impulsiveness.

ANS: A

REF: p. 501

TRUE/FALSE 1. Complications of substance abuse include stroke, cancer, and depression.

ANS: T

REF: p. 499

2. Doctors prescribe legal drugs.

ANS: T

REF: p. 499

3. Drug addiction is a strong urge or craving to use the substance.

ANS: T

REF: p. 500

4. Bulimia involves eating large amounts of food.

ANS: T

REF: p. 501

5. The person with panic disorder believes he or she is dying.

ANS: T

REF: p. 496

Chapter 35: Confusion and Dementia Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dementia is a. a false belief. b. the loss of cognitive function that interferes with routine personal, social, and

occupational activities. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a state of temporary but acute mental confusion.

ANS: B

REF: p. 506

2. Delirium is a. a false belief. b. the loss of cognitive function caused by changes in the brain. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a state of sudden, severe confusion and rapid changes in brain function.

ANS: D

REF: p. 505

3. A delusion is a. a false belief. b. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a state of temporary but aN cuUteRm taG l cToB nf. usC ioOnM .

SeInN ANS: A 4.

REF: p. 508

A hallucination is a. a false belief. b. seeing, hearing, smelling, or feeling something that is not real. c. a false disorder of the mind. d. a state of temporary but acute mental confusion.

ANS: B

REF: p. 508

5. Elopement is a. when signs, symptoms, and behaviors of Alzheimer’s disease (AD) increase during

hours of darkness. b. the loss of cognitive function that interferes with routine personal, social, and

occupational activities. c. when a person leaves the agency without staff knowledge. d. when two people get married.

ANS: C

REF: p. 504

6. Sundowning is a. when signs, symptoms, and behaviors of Alzheimer’s disease (AD) increase during

hours of darkness.

b. the loss of cognitive and social function caused by changes in the brain. c. a false dementia. d. a state of temporary but acute mental confusion.

ANS: A

REF: p. 508

7. Which statement is incorrect? a. Changes in the brain and nervous system occur with aging. b. Certain diseases affect the brain. c. Changes in the brain can affect cognitive function. d. Quality of life is not affected by changes in cognitive function.

ANS: D

REF: p. 504

8. Cognitive function involves the following except a. memory and thinking. b. reasoning and understanding. c. judgment and behavior. d. the senses and mobility.

ANS: D

REF: p. 504

9. Confusion can occur in older persons because a. blood flow to the brain is reduced. b. physical disabilities occur. c. infection is a risk. d. drugs cause side effects.

ANS: A

REF: p.N 50U5

10. Which statement about confusion care measures is incorrect? a. Break tasks into small steps. b. Use a loud voice to communicate. c. Discuss current events. d. Maintain the day-night cycle.

ANS: B

REF: p. 505

11. A resident is confused. The person’s care plan includes the following measures. Which should

you question? a. Give the date and time as needed. b. Face the person. Speak clearly. c. State your name, and show your nametag. d. Give detailed and thorough directions and answers to questions.

ANS: D

REF: p. 505

12. A resident is confused. When communicating with the person, which is incorrect? a. Avoid touch. b. Ask clear and simple questions. c. Give the person time to respond. d. Explain what you are going to do and why.

ANS: A

REF: p. 505

13. A resident is confused. Which is incorrect? a. Remove the person’s eyeglasses and hearing aid to prevent loss or breakage. b. Remind the person of special days and events. c. Provide newspapers and magazines. d. Discuss current events with the person.

ANS: A

REF: p. 505

14. A resident is confused. The person usually naps after lunch. Which action is correct? a. Prevent the person from taking a nap. b. Help the person change into sleepwear. c. Follow the person’s routine. d. Use music and other activities to distract the person.

ANS: C

REF: p. 505

15. Which statement about dementia is incorrect? a. Most older people show signs and symptoms of dementia. b. For correct treatment, the cause must be found. c. Some dementias can be treated and reversed. d. Permanent dementias result from changes in the brain.

ANS: A

REF: p. 506

16. Which is not an early warning sign of dementia? a. Recent memory loss b. Problems with language c. Hallucinations d. Misplacing things and putting things in unusual places ANS: C

REF: p. 506

17. Which is not an early warning sign of dementia? a. Getting lost in familiar places b. Not recognizing self or family members c. Personality changes d. Poor or decreased judgment ANS: B

REF: p. 506

18. Which is the most common type of permanent dementia? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Cerebrovascular disease c. Alzheimer’s disease (AD) d. Multi-infarct dementia ANS: C

REF: p. 506

19. Which statement about mild Alzheimer’s disease is incorrect? a. The person repeats questions. b. The person has trouble paying bills.

c. The person wanders and gets lost. d. The person has problems recognizing family and friends.

ANS: D

REF: p. 507

20. Which statement about delirium is incorrect? a. It is common in older people with acute illnesses. b. Onset is gradual. c. It is an emergency. d. The cause must be found and treated.

ANS: B

REF: p. 505

21. Signs and symptoms of delirium include the following except a. agitation and confusion. b. sadness and withdrawal. c. changes in sensation and awareness. d. euphoria and irritability.

ANS: B

REF: p. 505

22. Which statement about Alzheimer’s disease (AD) is incorrect? a. Sudden in onset, the disease progresses quickly over several months. b. Nerve cells controlling intellectual and social function are damaged. c. The person has behavior, mood, and personality changes. d. Memory and mental abilities steadily decline.

ANS: A

REF: p. 506

23. At what age does AD usually occur? a. Between ages 30 and 40 years b. Between ages 40 and 50 years c. After age 60 years d. Around age 80 years ANS: C

REF: p. 506

24. In Alzheimer’s disease what is an abnormal structure that causes damage? a. Neurons b. Nerve fibers c. Brain cells d. Tangles ANS: D

REF: p. 506

25. What is the classic sign of AD? a. Problems finding or speaking the right word b. Gradual loss of short-term memory c. Poor judgment d. Forgetting how to use simple, every-day things ANS: B

REF: p. 507

26. Which is a functional change found in Alzheimer’s patients? a. Excessive crying b. Obsessive behaviors c. Improved communication d. Rummaging and hiding things ANS: D

REF: p. 507

27. A resident is in the last stage of AD. The person’s care plan includes the following. Which

should you question? a. Prevent infection b. Providing all activities of daily living (ADLs) c. Incontinence care d. Aspiration precautions ANS: B

REF: p. 507

28. Which statement about wandering is incorrect? a. There is always a cause. b. The person may be looking for someone or something. c. Drug side effects are possible causes. d. Pain, restlessness, and anxiety are possible causes.

ANS: A

REF: p. 509

29. A resident has AD. The person tends to wander. Her care plan includes the following. Which

should you question? a. Make sure the person’s ID let iG s onB . .C N brRaceI

M

O U. S N T b. Keep door alarms turned on c. Ask the person to only wander in safe areas. d. Let the person wander in an enclosed garden.

ANS: C

REF: p. 509

30. A resident has AD and is seeing “kitty cats” in the closet. The resident is experiencing a. delusion. b. repetitive behavior. c. paranoia. d. hallucination.

ANS: D

REF: p. 508

31. A resident has AD. The person thinks the food contains poison. This is called a. a hallucination. b. a delusion. c. a catastrophic reaction. d. sundowning.

ANS: B

REF: p. 508

32. Catastrophic reactions usually occur from a. elimination needs. b. hunger.

c. too many stimuli. d. lack of sleep.

ANS: C

REF: p. 508

33. A resident has AD. Sometimes the person is agitated and combative. The person is pacing and

trying to hit others. Which is the most likely cause of the resident’s behavior? a. Drug interactions b. Brain injury c. Repeating familiar words d. Being overly sensitive ANS: A

REF: p. 509

34. A patient has AD. The person often screams a word in a foreign language. You know that

screaming is a. the person’s way of communicating. b. an aggressive behavior. c. an agitated behavior. d. a restless behavior.

ANS: A

REF: p. 511

35. A patient has AD. The person often screams a word in a foreign language. Possible causes of

screaming include the following except a. fatigue. b. hearing or vision problems. c. pain, discomfort, or fear. d. depression and aging.

ANS: D

REF: p. 511

36. Persons with AD may have abnormal sexual behaviors. The behaviors are abnormal because a. persons with AD do not have sexual needs. b. of how and when they occur. c. they are at high risk for STDs. d. persons with AD cannot perform sexually.

ANS: B

REF: p. 510

37. A resident has AD. She is trying to rub her perineum through her clothes. Which is incorrect? a. She needs to be told this is inappropriate behavior. b. She may be wet or soiled from urine or feces. c. She may have a urinary system infection. d. She may have pain or discomfort in her urinary or reproductive system.

ANS: A

REF: p. 510

38. A resident has AD. His wife visits daily. They like to touch, hold hands, and kiss. Which

action is correct? a. Discouraging such contact b. Providing privacy c. Allowing only supervised visits

d. Trying to distract them ANS: B

REF: p. 510

39. A person has AD. Sometimes the person has repetitive behaviors. This means that the person a. repeats the same motion or word over and over again. b. does things that are harmful. c. repeats things the person said and did during childhood. d. does everything twice.

ANS: A

REF: p. 510

40. A resident has AD. The person keeps saying, “I want to go home.” “I want to go home.” “I

want to go home.” What is this an example of? a. Sundowning b. Screaming c. Inappropriate behavior d. Repetitive behavior ANS: D

REF: p. 510

41. While caring for a person with AD, you find yourself becoming frustrated and short-tempered.

Which is incorrect? a. The person did not choose to have AD or its signs and symptoms. b. The person deserves to be treated with dignity and respect. c. The person is responsible for agitated, aggressive, and wandering behaviors. d. The person has the same rights as other residents.

ANS: C

REF: p.N 51U2

42. You care for several persons with AD. Why must you report behavior changes to the nurse? a. Persons with AD cannot report such changes. b. Such changes may signal other illnesses or injuries. c. Persons with AD depend on others for care. d. It is your responsibility to report signs and symptoms.

ANS: B

REF: p. 512

43. Family members of an Alzheimer’s patient often feel a. calm. b. cheated. c. hopeless. d. disengaged.

ANS: C

REF: p. 512

44. A resident has AD. The person’s communication is impaired. When talking to the person, do

the following except a. use a calm, gentle voice. b. speak slowly, using simple words and sentences. c. give the person time to respond. d. explain why the person’s answer is wrong.

ANS: D

REF: p. 511

45. A patient has AD. The person is trying to tell you something. What should you do? a. Ask the person simple questions. b. Let the person speak. Do not interrupt or rush the person. c. Offer words and ideas to help the person communicate. d. Tell the person you understand.

ANS: B

REF: p. 511

46. A patient has AD. You are helping her dress. You should a. decide what she will wear. b. let her choose from a dress, pant suit, sweat suit, or a skirt and blouse. c. let her choose between 2 shirts. d. explain why she needs to wear under-garments.

ANS: C

REF: p. 515

47. Which factor is responsible for the patient’s Alzheimer’s disease? a. The patient b. The family c. The disease d. The agency ANS: C

REF: p. 512

48. To protect persons with AD, do the following except a. keep utility room doors unlocked. G B.C M N RSIN T O b. keep electrical equipment oU ut of reach. c. store personal care items in a safe place. d. place safety plugs in electrical outlets.

ANS: A

REF: p. 513

49. A nursing center has a secured unit for persons with AD. Which is correct? a. The Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (OBRA) considers secured units to be

physical restraints. b. A family’s request is needed to place a person on a secured unit. c. The person remains on the secured unit until death. d. Only persons with aggressive behaviors are allowed on a secured unit.

ANS: A

REF: p. 512

50. A person has AD. The person’s daughter has three children in high school and college. The

daughter is likely to find herself in a. Generation X. b. the Baby Boom generation. c. Generation Y. d. the sandwich generation.

ANS: D

REF: p. 516

51. A person has AD. Which can offer the person’s daughter support and encouragement?

a. b. c. d.

The sandwich generation OBRA An AD support group The American Dementia Association

ANS: C

REF: p. 516

52. Validation therapy is based on the following principle except a. all behavior has meaning. b. attempts are not made to bring the person back to reality. c. caregivers are not involved in this therapy. d. a person’s mind may return to the past.

ANS: C

REF: p. 517

53. Some nursing centers have special care units for persons with AD and other dementias. Which

is incorrect? a. Entrances and exits are always locked. b. The person has a safe setting to move about. c. Aggressive persons need a secured unit. d. OBRA regulations do not apply to special care units.

ANS: D

REF: p. 512

54. A resident has AD. She tends to wander and is sometimes combative. Her son asks you to

restrain her. Which is incorrect? a. Restraints require a doctor’s order. b. Restraints are used if the family requests them.

N edRaSnd INdem GTented B.CbOehaviors M c. Restraints can make confusU worse. d. All persons have the right to be free from restraints.

ANS: B

REF: p. 514

TRUE/FALSE 1. A person with AD may react to a caregiver or family member by screaming.

ANS: T

REF: p. 511

2. Proper use of validation therapy requires special training.

ANS: T

REF: p. 517

3. All persons with AD and other dementias deserve quality care.

ANS: T

REF: p. 512

Chapter 36: Emergency Care Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A life-threatening sensitivity to an antigen is a. a seizure. b. respiratory arrest. c. anaphylaxis. d. cardiac arrest.

ANS: C

REF: p. 529

2. What happens with sudden cardiac arrest? a. There are violent and sudden contractions or tremors of muscles. b. The heart stops suddenly and without warning. c. Organs and tissues do not get enough blood. d. There is excessive blood loss in a short time.

ANS: B

REF: p. 521

3. Another term for convulsion is a. shock. b. stroke. c. seizure. d. fainting.

ANS: C

N RSING TB.COM

U REF: p. 529

4. Emergency care given to an ill or injured person before medical help arrives is a. first aid. b. Basic Life Support. c. Chain of Survival. d. cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).

ANS: A

REF: p. 520

5. Fainting is a. when the heart stops without warning. b. the sudden loss of consciousness from an inadequate blood supply to the brain. c. the excessive loss of blood in a short time. d. a condition that results when tissues do not get enough blood.

ANS: B

REF: p. 528

6. Hemorrhage is a. when the heart stops without warning. b. the sudden loss of consciousness from an inadequate blood supply to the brain. c. the excessive loss of blood in a short time. d. a condition that results when organs and tissues do not get enough blood.

ANS: C

REF: p. 527

7. Breathing stops but heart action continues for several minutes. This is a. stroke. b. respiratory arrest. c. cardiac arrest. d. shock.

ANS: B

REF: p. 521

8. A seizure is a. violent and sudden contractions or tremors of muscle groups. b. the excessive loss of blood in a short time. c. the sudden loss of consciousness. d. the same as a stroke.

ANS: A

REF: p. 529

9. Shock results when a. the heart and breathing stop without warning. b. breathing stops but heart action continues for several minutes. c. muscles groups contract violently. d. organs and tissues do not get enough blood.

ANS: D

REF: p. 528

10. Emergencies occur a. in hospital emergency rooms. b. in nursing centers. c. in medical centers. d. anywhere.

ANS: D

REF: p. 519

11. The goals of first aid are to a. prevent death and prevent injuries from becoming worse. b. maintain an open airway and give rescue breathing. c. activate the Emergency Medical Services (EMS) system and keep the person

warm. d. provide early CPR and early defibrillation.

ANS: A

REF: p. 520

12. The EMS system is activated by a. dialing 911. b. calling the victim’s family member. c. giving rescue breathing. d. starting CPR. ANS: A

REF: p. 520

13. In hospitals, the goal of the Rapid Response Team (RRT) is to a. perform CPR. b. call 911.

c. prevent death. d. start rescue breathing.

ANS: C

REF: p. 520

14. You have activated the EMS system. When should you hang up the phone? a. After telling what happened b. After giving your location c. After telling how many people need help d. After the operator hangs up ANS: D

REF: p. 520

15. You find a victim lying on his right side. The person is breathing and has a pulse. However,

he is bleeding from his right leg. You should do the following except a. cover him with something warm. b. give him fluids. c. do not remove clothes unless necessary. d. try to keep bystanders away.

ANS: B

REF: p. 520

16. Chain of Survival actions are taken for the following except a. heart attack. b. stroke. c. choking. d. fainting.

ANS: D

REF: p.N 52U1

17. Chain of Survival actions for adults are a. early abdominal thrusts, early CPR, early defibrillation, and early access to

emergency cardiovascular care. b. early first aid, early abdominal thrusts, early CPR, and early defibrillation. c. immediate CPR, rapid defibrillation, advanced care, and advanced post–cardiac arrest care. d. early CPR and early transport to a hospital emergency room.

ANS: C

REF: p. 521

18. A person is in sudden cardiac arrest. Which statement is incorrect? a. Brain and organ damage will occur within minutes. b. Unless breathing and circulation are restored, permanent brain damage occurs. c. Unless normal heart rhythm is restored, the person will die. d. Abdominal thrusts are needed.

ANS: D

REF: p. 521

19. Which is not a major sign of sudden cardiac arrest? a. No response b. No breathing c. No pulse d. Low blood pressure

ANS: D

REF: p. 521

20. A person is in respiratory arrest. What will happen if breathing is not restored? a. Cardiac arrest will occur. b. The person will have a seizure. c. The person will have a stroke. d. The person will go into shock.

ANS: A 21.

REF: p. 521

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) a. supports breathing and circulation. b. prevents ventricular fibrillation. c. controls bleeding and prevents shock. d. prevents injuries from becoming worse.

ANS: A

REF: p. 521

22. What are the basic parts of CPR? a. Circulation, pulse, blood pressure, and respiration b. Chest compressions, airway, breathing, and defibrillation c. Temperature, pulse, circulation, and respiration d. Compressions, early automated external defibrillator (AED), and early advanced

care ANS: B

REF: p. 521

23. What is a common cause of aN irU wR aySoIbN stG ruT ctB io. nC duOriM ng cardiac arrest? a. The tongue falling toward the back of the throat b. Loose dentures c. Poorly chewed meat d. Shock ANS: A

REF: p. 523

24. What is used to open the airway during cardiac arrest? a. Defibrillation b. The head tilt-chin lift method c. The tongue-jaw lift maneuver d. The finger sweep maneuver ANS: B

REF: p. 523

25. A person is in cardiac arrest. After receiving no response from the person, which of the

following should you do? a. Give 2 rescue breaths. b. Check for a pulse. c. Check for breathing. d. Position the person supine.

ANS: C

REF: p. 522

26. When the heart and breathing stop, the person is a. clinically dead. b. injured. c. under stress. d. sleeping.

ANS: A

REF: p. 521

27. You need to give mouth-to-mouth breathing. Which is incorrect? a. Contact with blood, body fluids, secretions, and excretions is likely. b. Pinch the person’s nostrils shut. c. Place your mouth tightly over the person’s mouth. d. Remove your mouth from the person’s mouth after giving 2 rescue breaths.

ANS: D

REF: p. 523

28. Which type of rescue breathing is used whenever possible? a. Mouth-to-mouth b. Mouth-to-nose c. Mouth-to-barrier device d. The type the rescuer is most comfortable using ANS: C

REF: p. 524

29. You need to start CPR. Which is correct? a. 1 rescue breath is given after every 5 chest compressions b. 1 rescue breath is given after every 10 chest compressions c. 2 rescue breaths are given after every 15 chest compressions N R I GT0B.C M d. 2 rescue breaths are given aUfterSeveNry 3 chestOcompressions ANS: D

REF: p. 523

30. Before starting chest compressions, you need to check for a pulse. Which pulse site should

you use? a. The radial pulse b. The apical pulse c. The carotid pulse d. The femoral pulse ANS: C

REF: p. 522

31. For effective chest compressions, the person must be positioned a. in the recovery position on the floor. b. in Fowler’s position. c. in the supine position on a hard, flat surface. d. in the semi-Fowler’s position on a firm mattress.

ANS: C

REF: p. 522

32. To give effective chest compressions to an adult, which of the following should you do? a. Give abdominal thrusts above the navel. b. Depress the sternum at least 2 inches. c. Depress the lower end of the sternum about 1 inch.

d. Make a fist with one hand.

ANS: B

REF: p. 523

33. How many chest compressions are given to adults in 1 minute? a. 5 to 10 b. 15 to 25 c. 80 to 95 d. 100 to 120 ANS: D

REF: p. 523

34. You should start CPR only if the person a. has had a heart attack. b. is not responding, is not breathing, and has no pulse. c. consents. d. has a chance of recovery.

ANS: B

REF: p. 525

35. You are performing 2-rescuer CPR. How many compressions are given per minute? a. 5 to 10 b. 15 to 25 c. 80 to 95 d. 100 to 120 ANS: D

REF: p. 525

36. After starting CPR, a person N isUbR reS atI hiN ngGaT nB d. haC sO aM pulse, but is not responding. What should

you do? a. Continue CPR until medical help arrives. b. Continue rescue breathing. c. Position the person in the recovery position. d. Measure the person’s blood pressure.

ANS: C

REF: p. 527

37. A defibrillator is a. used to deliver a shock to the heart when a person is in ventricular fibrillation. b. used to give rescue breathing. c. a device used for CPR and only available in hospitals. d. used to start ventricular fibrillation.

ANS: A

REF: p. 524

38. The recovery position is a. the prone position. b. the supine position. c. Fowler’s position. d. a side-lying position.

ANS: D

REF: p. 527

39. What is the purpose of the recovery position? a. It helps the person wake up. b. It keeps the airway open. c. It prevents pressure injuries. d. It promotes good alignment.

ANS: B

REF: p. 527

40. You are controlling a patient’s external bleeding. When should you perform hand hygiene? a. As soon as possible b. After the ambulance arrives c. Once the patient regains consciousness d. After the patient’s family is notified ANS: A

REF: p. 528

41. A person has external bleeding. What should you do? a. Release pressure on the bleeding site after 5 minutes b. Start CPR. c. Apply pressure over the bleeding site. d. Apply pressure below the bleeding site.

ANS: C

REF: p. 528

42. To control external bleeding, do the following except a. remove any object that may have pierced the person. b. bind the wound when bleeding stops. c. place a sterile dressing or clean material over the wound.

Nr the RSble INedi GT B.C M d. apply pressure directly oveU ng site. O ANS: A

REF: p. 528

43. Which is not a sign or symptom of anaphylaxis? a. Pale skin b. Dyspnea c. High blood pressure d. Weak pulse ANS: C

REF: p. 529

44. The person in shock has the following except a. dizziness. b. rapid, weak pulse. c. feeling cold. d. feeling of doom.

ANS: C

REF: p. 529

45. A person is in shock. Do the following except a. keep the person lying down. b. keep the airway open. c. activate EMS. d. give the person fluids.

ANS: D

REF: p. 527

46. Seizures are caused by a. shock. b. an abnormality in the brain. c. cardiac arrest. d. uncontrolled bleeding.

ANS: B

REF: p. 529

47. During a partial seizure a. the person loses consciousness. b. all muscles contract at once. c. a body part may jerk. d. incontinence occurs.

ANS: C

REF: p. 529

48. Which statement about generalized tonic-clonic seizures is incorrect? a. The body is rigid because all muscles contract at once. b. Jerking and twitching movements occur. c. Incontinence may occur. d. First aid can stop the seizure.

ANS: D

REF: p. 529

49. A person is having a seizure. Which is incorrect? a. Protect the person’s headN . b. Position the person supine. c. Loosen tight clothing and jewelry. d. Move furniture, equipment, and sharp objects away from the person.

ANS: B

REF: p. 529

50. A person is having a seizure. Which is correct? a. Restrain the person’s movements. b. Offer fluids. c. Put your fingers between the person’s teeth. d. Stay with the person.

ANS: D

REF: p. 529

51. A person fainted. Which measure is correct? a. Have the person squat down. b. Raise the person’s legs. c. Start CPR. d. Give rescue breaths.

ANS: B

REF: p. 528

52. A person fainted. Do the following except a. loosen tight clothing.

b. raise the persons legs. c. have the person walk around to stimulate circulation. d. after recovery from fainting, assist the person to a sitting position.

ANS: C

REF: p. 528

53. Basic emergency care for a stroke includes the following except a. removing clothing. b. activating EMS. c. loosening tight clothing. d. keeping the person lying down.

ANS: A

REF: p. 529

TRUE/FALSE 1. Never practice CPR on another person.

ANS: T

REF: p. 525

2. Defibrillation as soon as possible after onset of ventricular fibrillation increases the person’s

chance of survival.

ANS: T

REF: p. 524

3. The recovery position is not used for persons with neck injuries.

ANS: T

REF: p.N 52U7

4. Burns to the eyes and face are more serious than burns to the arm or leg.

ANS: T

REF: p. 530

5. The person has the right to refuse care during an emergency.

ANS: T

REF: p. 531

Chapter 37: End-of-Life Care Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. An advance directive is a. the care plan. b. an order not to resuscitate the person. c. a document stating a person’s wishes about health care when that person cannot

make such decisions. d. also known as the “Do Not Resuscitate” order.

ANS: C

REF: p. 537

2. Post-mortem means a. a diagnosis of death. b. after death. c. before death. d. the stiffness of skeletal muscles that occurs after death.

ANS: B

REF: p. 533

3. Reincarnation is the belief that a. the spirit or soul is reborn in another human body or in another form of life. b. the person is punished for sins and misdeeds in the afterlife. c. the body keeps its physical form in the afterlife. d. life after death is free of sN uU ffeRriS nI gN anG dT haBrd.sC hiO p.M ANS: A

REF: p. 534

4. Rigor mortis is a. a diagnosis of death. b. after death. c. before death. d. the stiffness or rigidity of skeletal muscles that occurs after death.

ANS: D

REF: p. 534

5. A person has a terminal illness. This means that a. the person will recover. b. the person will not likely recover. c. there is an end to the illness. d. the illness ends with a cure.

ANS: B

REF: p. 534

6. The examination of the body after death is a. rigor mortis. b. autopsy. c. reincarnation. d. resuscitation.

ANS: B

REF: p. 538

7. Your feelings about death a. affect the care you give. b. are shared with the dying person. c. do not matter while at work. d. are shared with the nurse.

ANS: A

REF: p. 533

8. Which statement concerning attitudes about death is incorrect? a. They are influenced by culture and religion. b. They are influenced by age. c. They stay the same throughout adulthood. d. They change as circumstances change.

ANS: C

REF: p. 534

9. Which age-group does not understand the nature of death? a. Infants and toddlers b. Children between the ages of 6 and 11 years c. Adults d. Older persons ANS: A

REF: p. 535

10. Which age-group views death as temporary? a. Infants and toddlers b. Children between the ages of 2 and 6 years c. Children between the ages of 6 and 11 years d. Teenagers ANS: B

REF: p. 535

11. Children between the ages of 6 and 11 years a. fully understand death. b. learn that death is final. c. fear pain and suffering. d. see death as reunion with those who have died.

ANS: B

REF: p. 535

12. Why do dying adults often resent a terminal illness that results in death? a. It invades privacy. b. It causes pain and suffering. c. It causes loneliness and separation from loved ones. d. It affects plans, hopes, and dreams.

ANS: D

REF: p. 534

13. Adults and older persons usually fear dying a. alone.

b. at home. c. in a hospital. d. in a nursing center.

ANS: A

REF: p. 534

14. According to Dr. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, the five stages of dying are a. denial, pain, sadness, bargaining, and acceptance. b. denial, pain, acceptance, hospice, and death. c. denial, anger, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. d. denial, anger, sadness, hospice, and acceptance.

ANS: C

REF: p. 535

15. A person was told that she has cancer and that it cannot be treated. The person insists that the

reports are wrong. What stage of dying is the person in? a. Denial b. Anger c. Bargaining d. Depression ANS: A

REF: p. 535

16. A person is terminally ill. Her pain is severe. She blames the staff for her pain. She complains

about having to wait for pain-relief drugs. She also says that the staff is rough when they turn and re-position her. What stage of dying is she in? a. Denial b. Anger c. Bargaining d. Depression ANS: B

REF: p. 535

17. A person is terminally ill. He is very quiet. You often find him reading his Bible. One day he

says, “I just want to see my grandson graduate from high school.” What stage of dying is the person in? a. Denial b. Bargaining c. Depression d. Acceptance ANS: B

REF: p. 535

18. A person is terminally ill. He often talks about not being able to see his grandchildren grow

up. He talks about never being a great-grandfather. What stage of dying is he in? a. Denial b. Bargaining c. Depression d. Acceptance ANS: C

REF: p. 535

19. A person is terminally ill. She has given pieces of jewelry to each child. She also has selected

songs for her funeral. What stage of dying is she in? a. Denial b. Bargaining c. Depression d. Acceptance ANS: D

REF: p. 535

20. A patient is terminally ill. The person’s pastor comes for a visit. What should you do? a. Tell them that you need to give care in 10 minutes. b. Respect the person as a whole. c. Ask if you can pray with them. d. Ask what they believe about the afterlife.

ANS: B

REF: p. 534

21. A resident is terminally ill. The person’s care plan includes the following. Which should you

question? a. Explain what you are doing to the person or in the room. b. Provide good eye care. c. Keep the room dark. d. Avoid bright lights and glares.

ANS: C

REF: p. 536

22. A resident is dying. When communicating with the person, which is incorrect? a. Speak loudly. b. Assume that the person can hear. c. Ask “yes” or “no” questions. d. Offer words of comfort.

ANS: A

REF: p. 536

23. A resident is dying. The person’s care plan includes the following. Which should you

question? a. Provide oral hygiene frequently. b. Remove the blanket or bedspread. c. Change linens and gown as needed. d. Maintain semi-Fowler’s position.

ANS: D

REF: p. 536

24. A resident is dying. The person is incontinent of urine and feces. The person needs a. a catheter and enemas. b. perineal care as needed. c. catheter care. d. bladder and bowel training.

ANS: B

REF: p. 536

25. A patient is dying. Which will not promote the person’s comfort? a. Re-position the person every shift.

b. Provide skin care and personal hygiene. c. Give back massages. d. Position the person in good alignment.

ANS: A

REF: p. 536

26. A patient is dying. The person has trouble breathing. Which position will the person most

likely prefer? a. Prone b. Supine c. Dorsal recumbent d. Side-lying ANS: D

REF: p. 536

27. A patient is dying. The following measures promote comfort except a. frequent position changes. b. good body alignment. c. supportive devices. d. friction and shearing.

ANS: D

REF: p. 536

28. A patient is dying. The person’s room is arranged a. as the person and family wish. b. to give efficient care. c. to provide privacy. d. so the person is near the bathroom.

B.C M

N R I G U S N T

ANS: A

O

REF: p. 536

29. A patient is dying. The person and his family have the right to a. privacy. b. 3 meals a day. c. hospice care. d. home care.

ANS: A

REF: p. 537

30. Hospice care focuses on a. cure. b. life-saving measures. c. pain relief and comfort. d. advance directives.

ANS: C

REF: p. 534

31. Which is an advance directive? a. A doctor’s order b. Post-mortem care c. A living will d. A Dying Person’s Bill of Rights

ANS: C

REF: p. 537

32. A dying person gave “durable power of attorney for health care” to his daughter. This means

that the person’s daughter a. will inherit his money. b. can make his health care decisions when he cannot. c. can start measures that prolong his life. d. can remove measures that prolong his life.

ANS: B

REF: p. 537

33. A resident is dying. The doctor wrote a “Do Not Resuscitate” order. You do not agree with the

order. Which is correct? a. You can start CPR if necessary. b. You do not have to follow the order. c. You must respect the person’s wishes. d. You do not have to care for the person.

ANS: C

REF: p. 537

34. Which does not promote quality of life? a. Providing privacy when the dying person is visiting with family and friends b. Keeping the person’s final moments confidential c. Protecting the person’s property before and after death d. Exposing the body after death ANS: D

REF: p. 540

N R I

35. Which does not promote qualitU y ofSlifeN? a. Being forced to have treatment b. Being involved in treatment and care c. Being free from restraints d. Having a clean and neat room ANS: A

REF: p. 540

36. Signs that death is near include the following except a. body temperature rises. b. the pulse is fast and weak. c. blood pressure falls. d. pain increases.

ANS: D

REF: p. 537

37. Signs that death is near include the following except a. loss of muscle tone. b. peaceful facial expression. c. shallow respirations. d. gastro-intestinal functions increase.

ANS: D

REF: p. 537

38. Signs of death include the following except

a. b. c. d.

the pupils constrict. no pulse. no respirations. no blood pressure.

ANS: A

REF: p. 537

39. Post-mortem care is done to a. prevent rigor mortis. b. maintain a good appearance of the body. c. prevent the skin from changing color. d. clean the body.

ANS: B

REF: p. 538

40. Before rigor mortis sets in, the body is a. cleaned and dressed. b. taken to the funeral home. c. positioned in normal alignment. d. placed in a body bag or on a shroud.

ANS: C

REF: p. 538

41. Which health team member pronounces the person dead? a. A doctor b. An RN c. An RN or LPN/LVN d. The health team memberN witR h thI e peG rsonBa.t C the M time of death

U S N T

ANS: A

O

REF: p. 537

42. You are assisting with post-mortem care. The body produces sounds during turning and

re-positioning. Which is correct? a. The person is still alive. b. CPR must be started. c. The sounds are normal and expected. d. The sounds are signs of rigor mortis.

ANS: C

REF: p. 538

43. You are assisting with post-mortem care. You must follow a. medical asepsis and surgical asepsis. b. sterile technique and isolation precautions. c. Standard Precautions and the Bloodborne Pathogen Standard. d. the care plan.

ANS: C

REF: p. 538

44. You are assisting with post-mortem care. Dentures are not inserted. What should you do with

them? a. Put them in the personal belongings envelope for the family. b. Ask what the family wants you to do with them. c. Put them in a denture container labeled with the person’s name.

d. Put them in the body bag.

ANS: C

REF: p. 538

45. A patient has died. An autopsy will be done. Post-mortem care is not done. a. True b. False ANS: A

REF: p. 538

TRUE/FALSE 1. The dying person’s family goes through stages like the dying person.

ANS: T

REF: p. 537

2. The right to privacy and the right to be treated with dignity and respect do not apply after

death.

ANS: F

REF: p. 540

3. As death nears, hearing is one of the first functions lost.

ANS: F

REF: p. 536

Chapter 38: Getting a Job Sorrentino: Mosby’s Essentials for Nursing Assistants, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Unjust treatment based on age, race, sex, and other personal qualities is a. reasonable accommodation. b. ethics. c. discrimination. d. laws.

ANS: C

REF: p. 548

2. An agency’s official form listing questions that require factual answers is a a. job interview. b. reasonable accommodation. c. disability notice. d. job application.

ANS: D

REF: p. 543

3. When an employer asks a job applicant questions about his or her education and career, this is

called a job a. disability. b. application. c. description. d. interview.

ANS: D

REF: p. 546

4. To assist or change a position or workplace to allow an employee to do his or her job despite

having a disability is a. reasonable accommodation. b. a disability act. c. job discrimination. d. disability notice.

ANS: A

REF: p. 548

5. Newspaper ads, the Internet, and job fairs are examples of a. sources of jobs. b. job descriptions. c. employee ethics. d. application guidelines.

ANS: A

REF: p. 542

6. To prove NATCEP completion, an agency will accept a a. certificate of course completion. b. job application. c. job reference.

d. letter of endorsement.

ANS: A

REF: p. 543

7. According to OBRA, nursing centers cannot hire persons convicted of a. car theft. b. abuse. c. misappropriating funds. d. traffic violations.

ANS: B

REF: p. 543

8. When requesting a job application, you should also ask for the agency’s a. employee handbook. b. employee directory. c. nursing assistant job description. d. shift schedule.

ANS: C

REF: p. 543

9. An interview that requires use of a computer is a(n) a. in-person interview. b. video interview. c. phone interview. d. open-ended interview.

ANS: B

REF: p. 546

10. Physically gauging the time nNeU edRedSI toN coGm oM a job interview is a TmBu.teCtO a. physical run. b. dry run. c. preparation run. d. interview run.

ANS: B

REF: p. 546

11. Interviews typically last a. 1 to 2 hours. b. 45 to 50 minutes. c. 30 to 40 minutes. d. 15 to 20 minutes.

ANS: D

REF: p. 548

12. After the interview, a thank-you letter should be sent a. after 2 weeks. b. within a month. c. 24 hours after the interview. d. when it is convenient.

ANS: C

REF: p. 549

13. When you accept a job offer, request all information

a. b. c. d.

be photocopied. in writing. be notarized. after your first day.

ANS: B

REF: p. 549

TRUE/FALSE 1. A job offer typically depends on passing a drug test.

ANS: T

REF: p. 549

2. You have the right to protection against discrimination when applying for a job.

ANS: T

REF: p. 548