TEST BANK for Mosby’s Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage 5th Edition by Sandy Fritz

Mosby’s Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage 5th Edition Fritz Test Bank Chapter 01: The Body as a Whole Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Moving substances into or out of a cell using energy is a. active transport. b. passive transport. c. osmosis. d. diffusion.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 12

2. Which of the following is the compound that stores energy? a. Deoxyribonucleic acid b. Adenosine triphosphate c. Ribonucleic acid d. Water ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 8

3. What is the chemical process in the body that joins simple compounds to form more complex

compounds, such as carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids? a. Catabolism b. Metabolism c. Anabolism d. Meiosis ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 8

4. What is the study of the structures of the body and the relationship of its parts? a. Physiology b. Pathology c. Kinesiology d. Anatomy ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 4

5. The part of epithelial cells exposed to the atmosphere or a passageway in the body is what

surface? a. Apical b. Outer c. Superficial d. Basal ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 14

6. What is the smallest particle of an element that retains and exhibits the properties of that

element? a. Proton b. Atom

c. Neutron d. Electron ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 7

7. A decrease in the size of a body part or organ caused by a decrease in the size of the cells is a. hypertrophy. b. trophy. c. atrophy. d. hypotrophy.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 14

8. The part of the tissue that faces the inside of the body is what type of surface? a. Apical b. Outer c. Inner d. Basal ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 14

9. Which of the following is the structure that attaches epithelial tissues to the underlying

connective tissues? a. Basement membrane b. Tissue matrix c. Connective sheath d. Cell membrane ANS: A

DIF:

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10. Sugars, starches, and cellulose composed of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen are categorized as a. proteins. b. carbohydrates. c. lipids. d. amino acids.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 9

11. What type of fibers are found in the heart? a. Collagenous b. Reticular c. Cardiac muscle d. Smooth muscle ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 18

12. What chemical process in the body releases energy as complex compounds are broken down

into simpler ones? a. Anabolism b. Metabolism c. Digestion d. Catabolism

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 8

13. The basic structural unit of a living organism is the a. cell. b. atom. c. molecule. d. organelle.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 13

14. A protein substance composed of small fibrils that combine to create the connective tissue of

fasciae, tendons, and ligaments is a. smooth muscle. b. collagen. c. elastin. d. phospholipid bilayer.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 1

15. Which of the following can withstand the most tension force because it has a high degree of

tensile strength? a. Collagen b. Elastin c. Reticular fibers d. Cardiac muscle fibers ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 15

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16. What constitutes approximately one fourth of the protein in the body? a. Blood b. Nerves c. Collagen d. Amino acids ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 15

17. Strength with little capacity for stretch describes what type of fibers? a. Reticular b. Elastin c. Smooth muscle d. Collagenous ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 15

18. Supporting and holding together the body and its parts body describes what type of tissue? a. Connective b. Epithelial c. Muscle d. Nervous ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 15

19. The fluid inside the cell membrane is known as

a. b. c. d.

cytoskeleton. cytosol. endoplasmic reticulum. microvilli.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 13

20. What is the material enclosed by the cell membrane? a. Cytoplasm b. Collagen c. Inorganic compounds d. Matrix ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 13

21. What is the framework of proteins inside the cell that provides flexibility and strength? a. Cytosol b. Cytoskeleton c. Cytoplasm d. Cell membrane ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 13

22. The movement of ions and molecules from an area of higher concentration to that of lower

concentration is a. passive transport. b. active transport. c. conductivity. d. permeability.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 12

23. What is the genetic material of the cell that carries the chemical “blueprint” of the body? a. RNA b. Nucleolus c. Lysosome d. DNA ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 1

24. What type of fiber returns to its original length after being stretched? a. Elastic b. Reticular c. Nerve d. Collagenous ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 15

25. What substance contains only a single kind of atom? a. Compound b. Element c. Protein d. Carbohydrate

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 7

26. The process of bringing particles inside the cell by engulfing them and forming vesicles is a. exocytosis. b. carrier-mediated transport. c. endocytosis. d. cellular respiration.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 12

27. A network of tubular intracellular membranes that is connected to the nuclear membrane is a. mitochondria. b. ribosome. c. lysosome. d. endoplasmic reticulum.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 13

28. What is the term for the capacity to work? a. Energy b. ATP c. Transport d. Elasticity ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 8

29. Covering and lining the surface of the body and body cavities, and forming glands, describes

what type of tissue? a. Connective b. Epithelial c. Muscle d. Nervous ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 14

30. The type of tissue that is usually found in areas that move substances into and out of the body

during secretion, absorption, and excretion is a. nervous b. muscular c. epithelial d. connective ANS: C

DIF: 1

tissue.

REF: p. 14

31. What is the term for the movement of substances out of a cell? a. Endocytosis b. Phagocytosis c. Endometriosis d. Exocytosis ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 12

32. The study of body structures visible to the naked eye is what type of anatomy? a. Gross b. Systemic c. Surface d. Regional ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 4

33. What is the term for the relatively constant state of the internal environment of the body that is

maintained by adaptive responses? a. Negative feedback b. Homeostasis c. Positive feedback d. Control ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 5

34. Which of the following bonds occurs between positively and negatively charged atoms? a. Covalent b. Polar covalent c. Ionic d. Hydrogen ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 8

35. An increase in the size of a cell that results in an increase in the size of a body part or organ is a. atrophy. b. swelling. c. hypertonicity. d. hypertrophy.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 14

36. What is the quality of not permitting entry of certain substances? a. Impermeable b. Semipermeable c. Resistant d. Solid ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 12

37. Which of the following are chemical structures that do not have carbon and hydrogen atoms

as the primary structure? a. Organic compounds b. Inorganic compounds c. Ions d. Molecules ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 9

38. What is the period during which a cell grows and carries on its internal activities? a. Anaphase b. Metaphase

c. Interphase d. Prophase ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 14

39. Carriers that transport substances into or out of a cell using energy are known as a. compounds. b. carrier cells. c. high-energy bonds. d. pumps.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 12

40. Fats and oils are also known as a. lipids. b. proteins. c. starches. d. fibers.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 11

41. What is the cell organelle that is part of the intracellular digestive system? a. Endoplasmic reticulum b. Lysosome c. Golgi apparatus d. Nucleus ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 13

42. Which of the following is the basic substance between the cells of a tissue? a. Matrix b. Ground substance c. Insulation d. Plasma ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 14

43. Which of the following is composed of an amorphous ground substance consisting of

molecules that expand when water molecules and electrolytes bind to them? a. Gelatin b. Matrix c. Inorganic compound d. Elements ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 2

44. What is the type of cell division in which each daughter cell receives half the normal number

of chromosomes, forming two reproductive cells? a. Anaphase b. Interphase c. Meiosis d. Mitosis

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 14

45. What is the thin sheetlike layer of tissue that covers a cell (or an organ, or some other

structure), lines a tube or cavity, or divides or separates one part from another? a. Adipose b. Muscle tissue c. Nerve tissue d. Membrane ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 14

46. The chemical process in the body that converts food and oxygen into energy to support

growth, distribution of nutrients, and elimination of waste is known as a. metabolism. b. reproduction. c. absorption. d. hydration.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 8

47. Molecules synthesized or broken down inside the body by chemical reactions are known as a. transport ions. b. ground substance. c. metabolites. d. matrix.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 8

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48. What are the small projections of the cell membrane that increase the surface area of the cell? a. Golgi apparatus b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Flagellum d. Microvilli ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 13

49. “Rod- or oval-shaped cell organelles” describes which of the following? a. Mitochondria b. Endoplasmic reticulum c. Nucleolus d. Golgi apparatus ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 2

50. The type of cell division in which the cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two identical

daughter cells is a. meiosis. b. mitosis. c. catabolism. d. anabolism.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 2

51. The genetic material in the cell is which molecule? a. Collagen b. Elastin c. DNA d. Matrix ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 9

52. The essential elements and molecules obtained from the diet that are required by the body for

normal body function are a. enzymes. b. metabolites. c. ATP. d. nutrients.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 9

53. What are the basic cellular components that perform specific functions within the cell? a. Organelles b. Golgi apparatus c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Phagocytes ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 11

54. Substances that have carbon and hydrogen as part of their basic structure are a. inorganic compounds. b. organic compounds. c. ground substance. d. connective tissue.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 9

55. The term for diffusion of water in a solution from a region of lower concentration to a region

of higher concentration across the semipermeable membrane of a cell is a. edema. b. hypertrophy. c. osmosis. d. metabolism.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 12

56. What is the transportation of a substance across the cell membrane without the use of energy? a. Osmosis b. Active transport c. Diffusion d. Passive transport ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 12

57. Endocytosis followed by digestion of the vesicle contents by enzymes present in the

cytoplasm is a. phagocytosis.

b. metabolism. c. homeostasis. d. exocytosis.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 16

58. What is the cell membrane that is made up of lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins? a. Basal membrane b. Phospholipid bilayer c. Epithelial membrane d. Ground substance ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 11

59. The study of the processes and functions of the body involved in supporting life is known as a. anatomy. b. pathology. c. physiology. d. kinesiology.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 4

60. What are substances formed from amino acids? a. Lipids b. Fats c. Carbohydrates d. Proteins ANS: D

DIF:

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61. The study of the structures of a particular area of the body is what type of anatomy? a. Regional b. Gross c. Superficial d. Surface ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 4

62. Occurring in networks and supporting small structures such as capillaries, nerve fibers, and

the basement membrane are which type of fibers? a. Collagenous b. Reticular c. Elastin d. Tensile ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 15

63. The transfer of genetic information is performed by a. collagen. b. DNA. c. RNA. d. matrix.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 9

64. The large cross-striated cells that are connected to the skeleton are which type of muscle

fiber? a. Smooth b. Cardiac c. Visceral d. Skeletal ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 18

65. Regulating blood flow through the cardiovascular system, propelling food through the gut,

and squeezing secretions from glands describes which type of muscle fibers? a. Smooth b. Cardiac c. Skeletal d. Visceral ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 18

66. The study of internal organs and structures as they can be recognized and related to external

features is what type of anatomy? a. Superficial b. Surface c. Regional d. Gross ANS: B

DIF:

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67. The study of the structure of a particular body system is what type of anatomy? a. Superficial b. Regional c. Systemic d. Surface ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 4

68. A group of similar cells combined to perform a common function is known as which of the

following? a. Organ b. System c. Organism d. Tissue ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 14

69. The field of anatomy includes which of the following types of subdivisions? a. Developmental, organizational, gross, and physiologic b. Organizational, gross, regional, systemic, and pathologic c. Developmental, gross, surface, and pathologic d. Developmental, gross, regional, systemic, and surface ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 4

70. The study of physiology can be divided into what three approaches? a. Gross, surface, and pathologic b. Developmental, regional, and pathophysiologic c. Developmental, organizational, and pathophysiologic d. Organizational, pathophysiologic, and systemic ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 4

71. Mitochondria and lysosomes are examples of a. molecules. b. organelles. c. proteins. d. elements.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: pp. 11-13

72. Covering and protecting the surface of the body and its parts is a function of which type of

tissue? a. Connective b. Collagenous c. Epithelial d. Cartilaginous ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 14

73. The chemical process that joins simple compounds to form complex compounds of

carbohydrates, lipids, proteTinEsS , aTnB dA nuc idE sR is.COM NKleSicEaLcL a. anabolism. b. physiology. c. catabolism. d. active transport.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 8

74. Active transport is the movement of substances into or out of a cell using a. gravity. b. osmosis. c. energy. d. meiosis.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 12

75. Skin cancer that originates in the tissue surface that faces the inside of the body means it

originates in the a. basement membrane. b. apical surface. c. basal surface. d. matrix material.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 14

76. The chemical process in the body that releases energy as complex compounds are broken

down is a. active transport. b. anabolism. c. phagocytosis. d. catabolism.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 8

77. If yin corresponds to the structure of the lungs, what does yang correspond to? a. Air passageways within the lung itself b. Coverings of the lungs c. Swallowing food d. The breathing process ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 18

78. How internal organs and structures can be recognized and related to external features on the

outside of the body is what type of anatomy? a. Systemic b. Surface c. Regional d. Gross ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 4

79. What is the movement of ions and molecules from an area of higher concentration to that of a

lower concentration? a. Diffusion b. Mitosis c. Meiosis d. Osmosis ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 12

80. Skeletal muscle fibers can be described by which of the following? a. Small connective cells b. Cross-striated c. Involuntary d. Having limited blood flow ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 18

81. The chemical composition of lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins are described chemically as a. having the same amount of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen. b. some having nucleic acids and others not. c. some incorporating ATP into their structures and others not. d. having different amounts of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.

ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 11

82. Which one of the following fibers is found in connective tissue? a. Reticular

b. Cardiac c. Skeletal d. Smooth ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 15

83. What is the most abundant type of tissue in the body? a. Muscle b. Nervous c. Connective d. Epithelial ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 15

84. Engulfing particles located outside the cell membrane by forming vesicles and bringing it into

the cell but not digesting the vesicle is a. phagocytosis. b. endocytosis. c. osmosis. d. diffusion.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 12

85. The movement of substances out of a cell is a. exocytosis. b. endocytosis. c. osmosis. d. phagocytosis.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 12

86. The movement of substances from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower

concentration is a. diffusion. b. endocytosis. c. exocytosis. d. active transport.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 12

87. The human body’s adaptability in maintaining a relatively constant internal environment even

though the outside temperature is freezing is an example of a. meiosis. b. metabolism. c. anabolism. d. homeostasis.

ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 5

88. A massage practitioner is effective with palpation and observation skills. During assessment,

he identified asymmetry in the shoulders and hips. In which of the following has he invested the effort to become proficient? a. Pathophysiology

b. Developmental anatomy c. Characteristics of life d. Gross and surface anatomy ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 4

89. The influence of massage on neurochemicals and their effects describes how massage

interacts with a. systemic anatomy. b. yin and yang. c. physiology. d. organizational structure.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 4

90. Which of the following is an accurate statement of how the study of chemistry relates to

massage? a. Current research is attempting to identify the mechanism of massage effect, and body chemistry is being investigated as a possibility. b. The building blocks at the cellular level influence the visceral anatomy, which in turn influences palpation assessment during massage application. c. Gross anatomy and pathophysiology are both representatives of the nucleic acids and the phospholipid membrane. d. Elements, including atoms and molecules, are the basis of the law of five-element theory in Chinese medicine.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 5

91. During massage application, kneading the tissue increases its pliability. The best description

of this benefit is the a. piezoelectric property of nervous tissue. b. interrelationship of prana with qi. c. thixotropic nature of ground substance. d. the activation of mast cells.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 15

92. The study of bones is best described as a. body divided into its systems. b. body structures visible to the naked eye. c. cellular physiology. d. processes and functions of the body.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 18|p. 19

93. What does physiology explain? a. Functions of the body that support life b. Wholeness of the structure of the body c. How the body is laid out like a map d. How the different parts of the body connect to each other ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 4

94. Yin and yang combine to form a whole unit and describe a. the physiology of thinking. b. how solid organs form. c. the relationship of opposites. d. physiology in terms of Western science.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 5

95. Which of the following is a characteristic of life? a. Movement b. Growth c. Excretion d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 6

96. Metabolism occurs in which body organization level? a. System b. Organelle c. Chemical d. Tissue ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 8

97. The organ level of organization would explain the structure and function of the a. body. b. cardiac cell. c. lungs. d. epithelial tissues.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 18

98. The matrix of connective tissue includes a. alignment of the cells. b. the basement membrane. c. shapeless ground substance. d. smooth muscle fibers.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 15

99. Blood and bone are both types of which of the following structures? a. Adipose tissue b. Connective tissue c. Cartilage d. Membranes ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 15

100. The main characteristic of muscle tissue is what ability? a. Coordinates and regulates body activity b. Performs more complex body functions c. Functions in the body without any attachment to connective tissue d. Provides movement by shortening

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 18

101. Considering the body as a whole integrated unit with each and every part influencing the rest,

which of the following statements is the most accurate? a. Medications functioning at a chemical level would be isolated to organelle production of magnesium and therefore would have fewer side effects than catabolism. b. Energy is the capacity to do work, and work is a movement or change in the physical structure of matter. An example of kinetic energy is when a massage using a method that glides along the skin is given. c. If connective tissue is the support structure of the body, then it would be best studied at a cellular level with a microscope and isolated to individual cellular function. d. Based on the overview of the body as a whole, only those massage applications that affect the muscle tissue provide benefits.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 8

102. A practicing massage therapist is asked to justify how massage to the surface of the body can

influence cellular function. Which of the following would be the most accurate response? a. Massage directly affects the function of the cell when pressure is applied to the tissues. The response is isolated to mechanical force deformation of the cell wall. b. Massage can move fluid in the body, which then stimulates cellular division and DNA mutation, with the resulting changes in organ function. c. Massage indirectly influences homeostatic function of the body at an organism level, supporting efficient physiologic function.

EhRi. d. Massage indirectly inflT ueEnSceTsBmAeN taK boSlE isL mL ,w chCpOroMduces phagocytes, in turn building strength in the cellular wall.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 6

103. The scientific method is very similar to a. critical thinking. b. physical assessment. c. biomechanics. d. kinesiology.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 3

104. What is the proper sequence used during the Clinical Reasoning process? a. Investigate the problem. Gather assessment information and factual data. Create a

list of possible causes and solutions. Ask questions about (analyze) each of the possible causes and potential solutions. Inquire about the values, beliefs, and feelings of the people involved. Develop a plan. Implement the plan. Evaluate and adjust the plan. b. Create a list of possible causes and solutions. Ask questions about (analyze) each of the possible causes and potential solutions. Investigate the problem. Gather assessment information and factual data. Inquire about the values, beliefs, and feelings of the people involved. Develop a plan. Implement the plan. Evaluate and adjust the plan.

c. Investigate the problem. Develop a plan. Implement the plan. Gather assessment

information and factual data. Create a list of possible causes and solutions. Ask questions about (analyze) each of the possible causes and potential solutions.

Inquire about the values, beliefs, and feelings of the people involved. Evaluate and adjust the plan. d. Develop a plan. Implement the plan. Evaluate and adjust the plan. Investigate the problem. Gather assessment information and factual data. Create a list of possible causes and solutions. Ask questions about (analyze) each of the possible causes and potential solutions. Inquire about the values, beliefs, and feelings of the people involved.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 3

Chapter 02: Mechanisms of Health and Disease Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A(n)

would have a specific beginning with signs and symptoms that develop quickly. a. acute disease b. chronic disease c. long-term illness d. short-term illness ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 30

2. Sudden onset, usually temporary, and easily localized describes what type of pain experience? a. Visceral b. Acute c. Somatic d. Chronic ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 40|p. 41

3. What is the term for movement toward a center or point of reference? a. Efferent b. Centrifugal c. Afferent d. Circular ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 27|p. 28

4. What is abnormal or undifferentiated cells that fail to mature into specialized cell types? a. Hypoplasia b. Hyperplasia c. Dysplasia d. Anaplasia ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 33

5. What is the term that usually describes a noncancerous tumor that is contained and does not

spread? a. Benign b. Neoplasm c. Anaplasia d. Neoplasia ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 33

6. What is the internal, periodic timing component of an organism also known as? a. Circadian rhythm b. Biologic rhythm c. Biologic oscillator

d. Seasonal rhythm ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 29

7. The term for malignant, nonencapsulated cells that invade surrounding tissue is a. dosha. b. fistula. c. cancer. d. sinus.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 33

8. Pain sensation that continues or recurs over a prolonged time, usually for more than 6 months

is a. b. c. d.

acute. bright. somatic. chronic.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 41

9. The term for a disease with a vague onset that develops slowly and lasts for a long time,

sometimes for life, is a. chronic disease. b. acute disease. c. short-term illness. d. long-term disability.

ANS: A

DIF:

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10. What is the labeling of signs and symptoms by a licensed medical professional? a. Prognosis b. Diagnosis c. Assessment d. Prescription ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 30

11. An abnormality in functions of the body, especially when the abnormality threatens

well-being, is a a. problem. b. condition. c. disease. d. syndrome.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 30

12. An Ayurvedic concept that describes chemical processes in the body is a. reiki. b. chakra. c. mudra. d. dosha.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 26

13. What is movement away from a center or point of reference? a. Efferent b. Afferent c. Origin d. Contraction ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 28

14. Coordination or synchronization to an internal or external rhythm is known as a. movement. b. entrainment. c. alignment. d. attunement.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 29

15. The study of the factors involved in the development of disease, including the nature of the

disease and susceptibility, is a. genealogy. b. pathology. c. etiology. d. pathophysiology.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 30

16. An abnormal connection occurring between two surfaces via a tract that is open at both ends

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is a a. b. c. d.

sinus. tunnel. gateway. fistula.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 39

17. A self-regulating control system in the body that receives information, integrates that

information, and provides a response to maintain homeostasis is a a. feedback loop. b. stress response. c. reflex. d. reaction.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 27

18. Which of the following is the term for the body mobilizing different defense mechanisms

when threatened by actual or perceived harmful stimuli? a. Entrainment b. Adaptation c. Negative feedback loop d. Positive feedback loop ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 25|p. 30

19. The condition of homeostasis resulting in a state of physical, emotional, social, and spiritual

well-being is a. disease. b. remission. c. health. d. balance.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 25

20. The relatively constant state of the internal environment of the body that is maintained by

adaptive responses is known as a. hypertonicity. b. metabolism. c. conductivity. d. homeostasis.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 25

21. What is an uncontrolled increase in the number of cells of a body part? a. Hyperplasia b. Anemia c. Hypoplasia d. Ischemia ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 32

22. What is an increased sensiT tivEitSyTtoBpAaN inK?SELLER.COM a. Analgesia b. Hyperalgesia c. Hypoalgesia d. Hyperanalgesia ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 38

23. The protective response of the tissues to irritation or injury that has the four primary signs of

redness, heat, swelling, and pain is a. injury. b. anemia. c. inflammation. d. edema.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 34

24. A chronic condition without active disease present or that persists even with treatment is

considered what type of pain experience? a. Somatic b. Visceral c. Incorrigible d. Intractable ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 41

25. In Ayurveda, what physiologic function blends the water and earth elements? a. Kapha dosha b. Pitta dosha c. Vata dosha d. Chakra dosha ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 27

26. What is any abnormal growth of new tissue? a. Contusion b. Neoplasm c. Sinus d. Fistula ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 31

27. Organisms that cause disease only when the immunity is low in a host are what type of

pathogens? a. Invasive b. Intravenous c. Opportunistic d. Offensive ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 31

28. What is development of a disease? a. Pathology b. Etiology c. Physiology d. Pathogenesis ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 30

29. Which of the following is the term for an unpleasant, subjective sensation? a. Pain b. Signs c. Symptoms d. Syndrome ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 40

30. What is the ability of an infectious agent to cause disease? a. Pathology b. Pathogenicity c. Pathophysiology d. Pharmacology ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 31

31. What is the study of disease as observed in the structure and function of the body? a. Physiology b. Anatomy c. Pathology

d. Pathogenicity ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 30

32. When a sensation is experienced in a missing extremity after it has been amputated, it is

referred to as what type of pain? a. Invisible b. Somatic c. Visceral d. Phantom ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 42

33. In Ayurveda, what is a physiologic function that combines fire and water? a. Pitta dosha b. Kapha dosha c. Vata dosha d. Chakra dosha ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 26

34. Being felt in a surface area far from the stimulated organ describes a. regional b. referred c. visceral d. somatic ANS: B

DIF: 1

pain.

REF: p. 42

35. What is a reversal of signs and symptoms in chronic disease that can be temporary or

permanent? a. Acute phase b. Regeneration c. Remission d. Reduction ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 31

36. What are the objective changes that someone other than the client or patient can observe and

measure? a. Symptoms b. Assessments c. Evaluations d. Signs ANS: D

DIF: 1

37. Organisms that cause disease are a. pathogens. b. opportunistic. c. benign. d. idiopathic.

REF: p. 30

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 28

38. Stimulation of receptors in the skin or stimulation of receptors in skeletal muscles, joints,

tendons, and fasciae can result in what type of pain sensation? a. Visceral b. Somatic c. Referred d. Diffused ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 41

39. Any external or internal stimulus that requires a change or response to prevent an imbalance

in the internal environment of the body, mind, or emotions is referred to as a. pressure. b. strain. c. stress. d. tension.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 25

40. Groups of signs and symptoms that identify a pathologic condition, especially when they have

a common cause, are considered a. communicable. b. congenital. c. syndromes. d. subacute.

ANS: C

DIF:

EF p.R31.COM T1ESTBANKSRE L:LE

41. What are the subjective changes noticed or felt only by the client or patient? a. Signs b. Assessments c. Somatic pain d. Symptoms ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 30

42. What is the term for a group of different signs and symptoms that identify a pathologic

condition, especially when they have a common cause? a. Syndrome b. Disease c. Disorder d. Malady ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 31

43. In Ayurveda, what is the physiologic function formed from ether and air? a. Pitta dosha b. Vata dosha c. Kapha dosha d. Chakra dosha ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 26

44. If organisms have the quality that enables them to cause disease they are called a. strong. b. potent. c. virulent. d. communicable.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 31

45. Stimulation of receptors or an abnormal condition in the internal organs can result in what

type of pain? a. Somatic b. Superficial c. Deep d. Visceral ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 41

46. A person is expected to recover from a car accident, he is in an induced coma to give his

surgical wounds time to heal by keeping him still during recovery. If this coma is considered a yin state, what would be a yang state in his healing process? a. Natural sleep b. A “natural” coma, as opposed to this induced one c. Natural methods of relaxation and meditation d. Physical therapy ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 26

47.4 In Ayurveda, what does the Kapha dosha do?

7 a. Blends the water and earth elements . b. Divides the cells c. Combines fire and water d. Represents transformation ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 26

48. An accurate feedback loop is described by which of the following? a. A signal traveling toward a particular point of reference is an efferent signal. b. Positive feedback reverses the original stimulus and thus stabilizes physiologic

function to help maintain a constant environment. c. The pain-spasm-pain cycle is a negative feedback loop. d. The mechanism that keeps contractions occurring during labor and delivery is an example of positive feedback.

ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 27

49. What is a biologic rhythm that repeats itself every 90 minutes to every few hours? a. Circadian b. Ultradian c. Seasonal d. Entrainment ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 29

50. What is the term for a disease that can be transmitted from one person to another? a. Communicable b. Acute c. Subacute d. Chronic ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 31

51. What is the study of the frequency, transmission, occurrence, and distribution of disease in

human beings? a. Etiology b. Epidemiology c. Pathology d. Diagnosis ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 30

52. What is the term for the group of objective and subjective changes that occur in a pathologic

condition? a. Syndrome b. Sign c. Symptom d. Biochemical lesion ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 30

53. A disease that seems to hav ceNrnKibSlE eL caLuE seRt. haCt O anMyone can identify is considered TeEnSoTdBisA a. etiologic. b. opportunistic. c. idiopathic. d. virulent.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 30

54. The explanation of how a disease progresses, as well as its probable outcome, is a. diagnosis. b. remission. c. prognosis. d. pathogenicity.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 30

55. The term for disease caused by pathogens is a. virulent. b. infectious. c. viral. d. opportunistic.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 31

56. Pathogenic plantlike organisms that lack chlorophyll are a. viruses.

b. flukes. c. fungi. d. bacteria.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 33

57. Hyperplasia is the term for which of the following? a. Abnormal tissue growth from uncontrolled cell division b. A union of cells c. Atrophy of muscle tissue d. A benign tumor of adipose tissue ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 31

58. Eli’s lab test results show that there is evidence of anaplasia in some of his cells. From this,

his doctor accurately knows which of the following? a. Eli does not have cancer. b. At least some of Eli’s cells are reproducing abnormal and undifferentiated cells that fail to mature into specialized types. c. Eli has an encapsulated tumor that may interfere with function by blocking functional tissue or pressing on pain-sensitive structures. d. Eli’s cells contain chemicals that affect genetic activity to speed recovery from an infection or injury.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 33

59. What are key signs in the inflammatory response? a. Heat and redness b. Swelling c. Pain d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 35

60. Jaheem has an infection with inflammation. All of the following should occur except a. changes in blood circulation. b. reduced vessel wall permeability. c. white blood cell response. d. release of histamine mediators.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 35

61. Stacey cuts her finger while slicing an apple and experiences an intense but short-lived, sharp,

local superficial pain. What type of pain is this? a. Chronic b. Somatic c. Deep d. Visceral ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 41

62. Anton’s gallstones have him doubled over. He is experiencing which of the following types of

intense pain?

a. b. c. d.

Acute somatic Visceral Referred Intractable chronic

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 41

63. Jillian has pain on the right side of her neck. If this is referred visceral pain, she may need to

be referred for diagnosis to rule out dysfunction in her a. lungs or diaphragm. b. stomach or gallbladder. c. kidneys or heart. d. liver or gallbladder.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 42

64. When is phantom pain felt? a. In response to pain from an organ b. During the pain-spasm-pain cycle c. Frequently after an amputation d. During a chronic inflammatory disease ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 42

65. Biofeedback relieves pain when a. a needle is inserted along specific body meridians. b. pressure is applied along certain body meridians. c. an individual focuses oT nEaSexTeBrcAisNeKtrS aiE niLnL g.ER.COM d. the individual learns to inhibit the impulses ascending the pain pathways.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 46

66. Tony reaches his pain threshold when a. he begins to experience enough relief that he can carry on a conversation in a

normal tone of voice. b. his nociceptors first begin to fire. c. he has reached his limit of tolerance. d. communication with his pain receptors is successfully interrupted by chemical or

alternative pain management techniques.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 43

67. Joey schedules a massage for his lower back because he knows that massage can do which of

the following to help relieve his pain? a. Stimulate sensory receptors other than nociceptors b. Inhibit release of histamine c. Help local blood vessels to constrict d. Decrease the conduction of nerve impulses into the brain ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 46

68. In order, what is the sequence of stages in the general adaptation syndrome? a. General adaptation; fight-or-flight; resistance reaction

b. Fight-or-flight; general adaptation; exhaustion reaction c. Resistance reaction; fight-or-flight; exhaustion reaction; recovery and general

adaptation d. Fight-or-flight; resistance reaction; exhaustion reaction ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 49

69. During her massage, Luisa’s body is able to entrain. This means that her body a. is able to achieve a state of increased physical fitness. b. is able to let go of all forms of stress. c. synchronizes biologic rhythms. d. allows itself to be in a state of controlled exhaustion.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 29

70. Research has validated that massage is effective as part of the treatment process for many

different health-related conditions. Which of the following explains why? a. Massage supports homeostatic processes. b. Massage generates a positive feedback loop. c. The Ayurvedic chakras are inhibited during massage. d. The unified methods of yin yang and Pitta, Kapha, and Vata doshas suppress entrainment.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 52

71. One of the principles of massage, especially for relaxation, is focused rhythmic application in

a quiet environment with soothing music. What physical phenomenon is involved? a. Conditioning b. Entrainment c. Conductivity d. Assessment ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 29

72. Friction is used on an area of fibrotic scar tissue because friction causes what physiologic

mechanism for change in the tissue? a. Conductivity b. Extensibility c. Hyperplasia d. Inflammation ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 37

73. Which of the following methods easily combines with massage and further supports pain

management by interacting with the brain through the sense of smell? a. Placebo method b. Acupuncture c. Aromatherapy d. Hypnosis ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 46

74. If the massage professional is part of a multidisciplinary team for pain management, which of

the following creates the most need to alter the massage approach? a. Application of heat b. Music therapy c. Biofeedback d. Medication ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 46

75. In a multidisciplinary approach to pain management, which of the following most directly

addresses the mind? a. Surgical techniques b. Hypnosis c. Acupressure d. Hydrotherapy ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 46

76. A massage therapist notices during assessment that a client’s muscles are tense and an eye

muscle is twitching. Based on these observations, which of the following is likely increased? a. Epinephrine b. Digestive secretions c. Peristalsis d. Heart rate and muscle relaxation ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 50|p. 52

77. A client has had to attend tT oEbS otT hB aA deNaK thSaE ndLL aE wR ed.dC inO gMin the immediate family. Which of

the following is the appropriate massage application? a. Increase adaptive strain through general massage. b. Increase sympathetic responses through energy-based methods. c. Decrease adaptive strain through general massage. d. Decrease the autoimmune response by using energy-based methods.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 52

78. A massage therapist has been in practice for 25 years. She became a massage therapist in her

mid-20s and is now just over 50 years of age. During this time she has had two babies, a serious health event, a major surgery, and she is concerned about being happy, productive, and secure in her outcome for the rest of her life. What is being described? a. The general adaptation syndrome b. Risk factors of the stress response c. Various stages of the life cycle d. Adaptation to immune suppression ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 53

79. The various cultural healing arts presented in this text can be described as a. being ineffective because they cannot explain homeostasis. b. dealing only with the parts of the body, not the whole person. c. using their own terminology to describe homeostasis. d. keeping the elements of nature separate from the body.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 26

80. The parts of a feedback loop can be described as a. the major cause of disease. b. contributing to maintaining homeostasis. c. a disruption of the body’s self-regulation. d. having a sensor, a control center, and an effector.

ANS: D 81.

DIF: 1

REF: p. 27

The synchronization of biologic rhythms includes that it promotes homeostasis and supports a healthy body. requires sympathetic activities to predominate. is unaffected by external components, such as sunlight or weather. is very difficult for the body to accomplish.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 29

82. Which of the following is a description of what massage and other forms of bodywork and

movement therapies can do for the body? a. Cause pathogenesis, which will reverse the development of disease b. Support maintenance and return to a healthy state c. Support the various pathologies in the body d. Have no effect on the abnormal functions of disease states ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 25

83. A feature of the inflammatT orEySreTsB poAnN seKiS sE thL atLitEiR s .COM a. a major cause of disease in the body. b. a combination of processes that attempt to minimize tissue injury. c. always separate from immune reactions. d. identified by the three primary signs of heat, exudation, and cell regeneration.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 34

84. The definition of risk factors is that they are a. the major causes of disease. b. unaffected by changes in lifestyle or activities. c. influences that can put a person at risk for developing disease. d. all environmental.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 31

85. Pain is a complex, private, abstract experience that also has what characteristic? a. Usually very easy to describe b. Without any psychological or social aspects c. Rarely causes a person to seek medical help d. Not easy to define and measure ANS: D

DIF: 1

86. What is hypersensitivity to pain?

REF: p. 40

a. b. c. d.

Hyperalgesia Intractable Analgesia Voluntary splinting

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 40

87. The appropriate action for the massage professional to take for a client who has referred pain

is to a. use deeper pressure on the corresponding area. b. refer the client to a physician for a diagnosis. c. disrupt signals from the brain by using shaking techniques. d. initiate a reflex contraction.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 42

88. An accurate portrayal of people who experience excessive or ongoing stress is that they a. should not have bodywork while under the stress. b. will not have panic or anxiety attacks. c. can have a decrease in immune function. d. are always receiving too much exposure to stimuli.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 51

89. A massage practitioner is feeling the stress of time management and balance between career

and family focus. Which of the following care plans would be the most productive? a. Reducing risk factors specifically related to intractable pain b. Reducing adaptive capT acEitS yT byBA inN crK eaSsE inL gL thEeRp. otC enOtiMal for the inflammatory response to influence anaplasia c. Combining stress management methods to support sleep d. Differentiating between biologic rhythms at work and home, and then using etiology to reduce stress ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 48

90. Which of the following is not an inflammatory mediator? a. Histamines b. Bradykinin c. Anaplasia d. Arachidonic acid ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 35

91. Based on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs as a model for a psychological life cycle, which of the

following describes the social stage? a. Concerned about survival b. Developing family and friends c. Status within the social structure d. Achieving our life purpose ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 54

92. Which of the following stages best describes a 10-year-old child?

a. b. c. d.

Conception Birth Growth Social

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 54

93. A client just got married and is planning a family. What emotional stage best describes this

activity? a. Physiological b. Security c. Social d. Self-actualization ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 54

94. The expected outcome in a client who has a disease is the a. prognosis. b. pathogenicity. c. etiology. d. epidemiology.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 31

Chapter 03: Terminology: Scientific, Medical, Social, and Cultural Communication Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Standing upright with the feet slightly apart, arms hanging at the sides, and palms facing

forward with thumbs outward describes what position? a. Starting b. Anatomic c. Pathologic d. Physiologic ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 65

2. What is the term for the lateral movement away from the midline of the trunk? a. Adduction b. Circumduction c. Abduction d. Proximal ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 71

3. The practice of inserting needles at specific points on meridians to regulate or alter body

function is a. acupuncture. b. acupressure. c. reiki. d. shiatsu.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 59

4. The study of mechanical principles, movements, and actions applied to living bodies is known

as a. b. c. d.

kinesiology. biomechanics. anatomy. physiology.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 70

5. The process of keeping a written record of a client or patient is a. filing. b. note taking. c. charting. d. assessment.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 92

6. The letter added between two roots or a root and a suffix to make pronunciation of the word

easier is what type of vowel? a. Conjunctive

b. Connective c. Uniting d. Combining ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 59

7. Downward or inferior movement is a. elevation. b. depression. c. flexion. d. extension.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 77

8. The movement of a limb away from the midline of the body is a. extension. b. flexion. c. abduction. d. adduction.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 71

9. The movement of a limb through the transverse plane toward and across the midline of the

body is a. lateral rotation. b. medial rotation. c. horizontal abduction. d. horizontal adduction.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 73

10. The movement of the ankle resulting in the top of the foot moving toward the anterior tibia is a. dorsiflexion. b. plantar flexion. c. eversion. d. inversion.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 77

11. Motion is defined as a change in position with respect to a. an ending point. b. a starting point. c. the posterior aspect of the body. d. the top of the head.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 70

12. What is the term for upward or superior movement? a. Rotation b. Depression c. Elevation d. Circumduction

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 77

13. The movement of the sole of the foot outward, as in away from the midline, is a. inversion. b. medial rotation. c. lateral rotation. d. eversion.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 77

14. Movement that increases the angle between two bones, usually moving the body part back

toward the anatomic position, is a. extension. b. flexion. c. supination. d. pronation.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 71

15. The rotary movement around the longitudinal axis of a bone away from the midline of the

body is a. lateral rotation. b. inversion. c. extension. d. medial rotation.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 71

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

16. The term for a movement that decreases the angle between two bones is a. extension. b. contraction. c. flexion. d. rotation.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 71

17. What plane divides the body into anterior and posterior? a. Anterior b. Posterior c. Sagittal d. Frontal ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 71

18. The movement of the humerus in the horizontal plane away from the midline of the body is a. horizontal abduction. b. horizontal adduction. c. supination. d. lateral rotation.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 73

19. The term for the movement of the humerus around a longitudinal axis in the transverse plane

toward the midline of the body is a. horizontal abduction. b. horizontal adduction. c. pronation. d. medial rotation.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 76

20. Movement that increases the angle between two bones is a. abduction. b. adduction. c. extension. d. flexion.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 71

21. Movement of the sole of the foot inward toward the midline is a. inversion. b. eversion. c. medial rotation. d. lateral rotation.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 77

22. A branch of mechanics that involves the time, space, and mass aspects of a moving system is a. kinematics. b. pathology. c. kinesiology. d. biomechanics.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 70

23. The study of movement that combines the fields of anatomy, physiology, physics, and

geometry and relates them to human movement is a. kinematics. b. kinesiology. c. pathophysiology. d. physical therapy.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 70

24. What forces cause movement in a system? a. Biomechanics b. Kinematics c. Kinetics d. Physics ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 70

25. Movement of the head or trunk laterally away from the midline is a. medial flexion. b. horizontal abduction.

c. horizontal adduction. d. lateral flexion.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 71

26. Lying horizontally on the right or left side is a. lateral recumbent. b. supine. c. prone. d. medial recumbent.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 68

27. What is the branch of physics that deals with the study of forces and the motion produced by

their actions? a. Kinematics b. Mechanics c. Physics d. Pathophysiology ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 59

28. Movement of the thumb across the palmar aspect to make contact with the fingers is a. abduction. b. adduction. c. opposition. d. extension.

ANS: C

DIF:

T1ESTBANKSRE L:LE EF p.R7.

2 COM

29. Movement of the ankle that results in the foot and toes moving away from the anterior tibia is a. dorsiflexion. b. inversion. c. eversion. d. plantar flexion.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 77

30. Internal rotary movement of the radius on the ulna resulting in the hand moving from the

palm-up to the palm-down position is a. pronation. b. supination. c. medial rotation. d. lateral rotation.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 77

31. What is the term for lying horizontally with the face down? a. Supine b. Prone c. Lateral recumbency d. Horizontal pronation

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 68

32. What is the term for forward movement while remaining in a horizontal plane? a. Retraction b. Elevation c. Protraction d. Depression ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 77

33. A word element added to the beginning of a root to change the meaning of the word is a a. suffix. b. root. c. base. d. prefix.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 61

34. Backward movement in a horizontal plane is a. retraction. b. protraction. c. extension. d. elevation.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 77

35. Partial turning or pivoting in an arc around a central axis is a. horizontal adduction. b. rotation. c. circumduction. d. flexion.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 76

36. The Asian concept that the natural climate changes of heat, cold, wind, dampness, dryness,

and summer heat may induce disease under certain conditions is called the six a. deadly powers. b. harmful climates. c. pernicious influences. d. insidious influences.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 89

37. The four parts of the written account of record keeping are referred to by what acronym? a. POAS b. SOAP c. SAOP d. OPAS ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 93

38. External rotary movement of the radius on the ulna resulting in the hand moving from the

palm-down to the palm-up position is

a. b. c. d.

pronation. medial rotation. supination. lateral rotation.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 77

39. What is the term for lying horizontal with the face up? a. Prone b. Lateral recumbent c. Inversion d. Supine ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 68

40. According to the ancient Chinese medical system, what is the concept that refers to the life

force? a. Qi b. Wa c. Cha d. Ti ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 90

41. What word element contains the basic meaning of the word? a. Prefix b. Root c. Suffix d. Center ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 61

42. What word element is added to the end of a root to change the meaning of the word? a. Prefix b. Ending c. Suffix d. Modifier ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 61

43. The prefix, root, and suffix are word a. elements. b. parts. c. segments. d. particles.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 61

44. What are the Asian terms used to describe the dynamic balance between opposing forces? a. Zheng xie b. Jing luo c. Yin and yang d. Liu qi and liu fu

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 59|p. 82

45. A definition of a prefix is that it is a. placed at the beginning of a word to change the meaning of the word. b. added to the end of a word to change the word’s meaning. c. the starting point when interpreting scientific terms. d. placed between two words to join them.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 61

46. If “encephal(o)” means “brain,” then “encephalopathy” means a. path of brain waves. b. psychiatric disorder. c. brain disease. d. brain development.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 62

47. Information from a client’s history-taking interview is an example of what type of data? a. Analysis b. Objective c. Subjective d. Examination ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 93

48. To provide clarity and completeness, a client’s chart is divided into four parts, which are a. physical state, emotionT alEsS taT teB , aAsN seKssSmEeL ntL , aEnRd.pC laO nnMing. b. subjective, neurologic, musculoskeletal, and psychological data. c. subjective data, objective data, assessment/analysis, and planning guidelines. d. questioning, listening, examining/charting, and planning.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 93

49. Which of the following describes acupuncture? a. Needles are inserted at specific points on meridians to affect energy flow in the

body. b. The flow of qi and xue are manipulated. c. It is a branch of Chinese medicine. d. All of the above describe acupuncture.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 59|p. 82

50. The urinary bladder is located in which of the following anatomic abdominal regions? a. Right iliac b. Left iliac c. Epigastric d. Hypogastric ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 69

51. Which of the following is the definition of kinematics?

a. The study of simple movement b. A branch of mechanics that involves the time, space, and mass aspects of a moving

system c. The sum total of those forces causing movement in a system d. Any branch of physics dealing with the study of forces and the motion produced

by their actions ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 70

52. Spreading the fingers wide apart is which of the following actions? a. Abducting b. Adducting c. Flexing d. Supinating ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 71

53. A characteristic of qi is that it a. is also known as yin. b. is also known as xue. c. refers to the blood, body fluids, and nourishing essences. d. refers to the life force.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 90

54. The pelvic cavity contains which of the following organs? a. Thymus gland b. A portion of the large iT ntEesStiTnB e ANKSELLER.COM c. The spleen and pancreas d. Lungs ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 68

55. Which of the following is a yin meridian? a. Stomach b. Large intestine c. Circulation d. Gallbladder ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 88

56. Ted is asked to stand in the anatomic position. This means that his a. palms will face the sides of the body, thumbs outward. b. arms will be held straight out to the sides, palms facing upward and thumbs facing

backward. c. thumbs will be outward, palms facing forward. d. palms will be flat against his hips, thumbs forward.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 65

57. Rachel lies in a supine position on the table. This means that her body is horizontal and a. she is on either her right or her left side. b. she is turned to either her left or her right.

c. her face is up. d. her face is down.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 68

58. The plane that divides the body horizontally into superior and inferior sections is the a. b. c. d.

plane. transverse frontal sagittal median

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 71

59. The midsagittal plane divides the body into parts that are a. equal left and right. b. superior and inferior. c. anterior and posterior. d. unequal right and left.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 71

60. An inaccurate statement about kinesiology is that it a. is the study of movement. b. uses principles of biomechanics, anatomy, and neuromuscular physiology. c. focuses only on dynamic systems associated with activity, as opposed to static

systems. d. looks not only at causaT l fEoS rcT esB, A tim e,SaE ndLm s. asC peOcM ts of a moving system but it NK LaEsR

also looks at the space involved.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 70

61. Lying flat on her back, arms and legs out, Jane brings her knees together and then bends them,

bringing them up to her chest. What two types of movement of the hip are involved in this exercise? a. Medial rotation and flexion b. Circumduction and lateral flexion c. Lateral rotation and plantar flexion d. Adduction and flexion ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 71

62. Turning the palm upward is what movement? a. Supination b. Pronation c. Inversion d. Eversion ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 77

63. The biceps brachii muscles are categorized as somatic because they are a. under voluntary control. b. found along the central axis of the body.

c. related to the main part of the body. d. part of the limb but not part of the appendicular structural plan.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 66

64. In traditional Chinese medicine, distortions in health that result when functions or systems are

imbalanced is called a. jing luo. b. disharmony. c. pernicious influences. d. cun.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 89

65. Point phenomena in ancient and Western scientific systems have many commonalities,

including that they are a. located in a palpable depression and are associated with neurovascular formation. b. located on the surface of alpha and delta fiber afferent fast-transmitting receptors sensitive to sharply pointed stimuli or heat. c. deep to the alpha and delta fibers, with intramuscularly placed, C-afferent slow-transmitting fibers, which are sensitive to chemicals. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 83

66. The large intestine meridian begins a. at the medial aspect of the great toe and finishes on the axillary line in the sixth

intercostal space. b. at the root of the fingernail of the first finger and ends at the side of the nostril. c. on the thorax lateral to the nipple and terminates at the root of the nail of the

middle finger. d. on the great toe and terminates on the costal margin vertically below the nipple.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 88

67. In Chinese medicine theory, what is cun? a. A method that uses suction to increase blood flow to an area b. Distortion in health that results when either balance or optimum function is

depleted c. The yin essence of life that nurtures growth, reproduction, and development d. A measuring technique that uses a relative standard, such as the length of the

second phalange of the second finger ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 89

68. According to the five elements identified in Chinese medicine theory, what is the emotion of

shock or overjoy associated with? a. Metal b. Earth c. Fire d. Water

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 91

69. Evidence of how nerve patterns connect internal organs with the surface is seen in which of

the following phenomena? a. Pain sensations felt on the skin may be referred by internal organs. b. Muscular splinting may be noted over an area of internal disturbance. c. Stimuli cause shifts in endogenous chemicals, which can affect organ function. d. All of the above are correct responses.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 91

70. Which of the following does not use science studies relevant to clinical reasoning? a. Regional anatomy for assessment b. Understanding the stress response for analysis c. Resolution of ethical dilemmas d. Effective charting ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 60|p. 61|p. 92|p. 93

71. During a massage session, if a client cannot lie prone so that her back can be massaged, then

which of the following would be an alternative position? a. Anatomic b. Functional c. Supine d. Lateral recumbent ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 68

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

72. Flexion and extension are movements in what plane? a. Sagittal b. Transverse c. Frontal d. Coronal ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 71

73. When reviewing a chart for a client who has been referred for massage to increase range of

motion, where does the client experience restriction if the chart reads “right lateral flexion of the cervical area”? a. Low back b. Thorax c. Neck d. Arm ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 67

74. Points in Eastern bodywork methods can be correlated to which of the following structures? a. Blood vessel b. Musculotendinous junction c. Lymphatic vessel d. Neurovascular formations ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 83

75. How could yang meridians on the arm be described in terms of Western terminology? a. The nerve tracts on the dorsal aspect of the arm b. Arteries on the anterior aspect of the arm c. Motor points on the medial aspect of the arm d. Trigger points on the proximal aspect of the arm ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 68|p. 88

76. Prior to coming for a massage treatment, the client received acupuncture on his bladder

meridian. The acupuncturist requested the treatment area be avoided. Massage application should be avoided on the client’s a. posterior arms. b. back. c. anterior legs. d. abdomen.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 88

77. A client has trigger point activity in the vastus lateralis, fibularis longus, and tensor fasciae

latae. If the massage therapist wanted to correlate this pattern to a meridian dysfunction, the most accurate statement is that the client a. has dysfunction in the earth element. b. may also have a headache and an earache. c. has increased yang in the large intestine meridian. d. may also be experiencing a sore throat and a cough.

ANS: B

DIF:

EF p.R88.COM T3ESTBANKSRE L:LE

78. During palpation assessment, the massage therapist identifies distinct areas of hot and cold on

the client’s body. The client also indicates that she is cold especially when she is tired. These findings correlate to which of the following traditional Chinese medicine terms? a. Jin ye b. Wu xing c. Qigong d. Han re ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 89

79. Chinese medicine thinks in terms of organ systems. Which of the following Western science

principles also considers sensation of the skin in relation to organ function? a. Myofascia b. Visceral referred pain c. Gate control theory d. Neurovascular plexuses ANS: B

DIF: 2

80. Abbreviations are used to a. combine word elements. b. save time and space when writing. c. clarify the meaning of a word.

REF: p. 90

d. define the meaning of a word.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 63

81. Charting is a written record of a. professional interactions. b. only the medically-related treatments used. c. physical assessment and diagnosis. d. subjective data from the professional’s point of view.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 92

82. A care or treatment plan is a a. step done before data analysis. b. list of the logical causes and effects of the interventions. c. list of the decisions made and the implementation structure. d. replacement for the clinical reasoning model.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 93|p. 94

83. The posterior surface of the trunk is divided into what regions? a. Thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic cavities b. Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral regions coccyx c. Upper right, upper left, lower right, and lower left quadrants d. Hypochondriac, epigastric, umbilical, and iliac regions ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 67

SsTaBt A Rs.fCacOinMg forward, is in what position?

84. A person standing upright,TaE rm siN deKs,SaE ndLL paElm a. Lateral recumbent b. Supine c. Prone d. Anatomic ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 65

85. Directional terms of body position include which of the following? a. Pronation, supination, and eversion b. Ipsilateral, superficial, and plantar c. Tao, yin, and yang d. Kinetics, kinematics, and kinesiology ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 69

86. The majority of acupuncture points have been associated with which of the following? a. Motor points and trigger points b. Melzack and Wall’s theory of acupuncture c. Ancient practitioners of point mapping d. Reflexology and polarity points ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 83

87. Nerve reflexes of internal organs can show up as referred pain patterns and as

a. b. c. d.

pain sensations. muscular splinting. disruptions in the autonomic nervous system. all of the above.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 91

88. All ancient indigenous healing traditions have a similar philosophy as well as a. common healing methods. b. differing terminologies. c. terms that describe polar relationships. d. common terminology.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 82

89. The categories of QOL (quality of life) have been described and presented in a language that

can be used to clearly communicate with clients, peers, and others. These categories are called by the World Health Organization (WHO). a. domains b. nomenclatures c. language d. documentation ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 78

90. Where is pain classified in WHO QOL domains? a. Physical b. Psychological c. Level of independence d. Environment ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 78

91. A client is having difficulty finding reliable transportation to massage appointments. How

would this be classified by the WHO QOL domains? a. Physical b. Psychological c. Level of independence d. Environment ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 78

92. An individual’s perceptions of his position in life in the context of the culture and value

systems in which he lives and in relation to his goals, expectations, standards, and concerns is called a. quality of life. b. life cycle. c. Maslow’s stages. d. ethics.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 78

93. The science that deals with matter and energy, and their interactions, is

a. b. c. d.

physics. chemistry. biology. geoscience.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 60

94. A massage therapist has performed a comprehensive assessment process, completed some

additional research, and consulted with experts. Now the massage therapist is revising the treatment plan of the client. Which of the following best describes this process? a. Clinical reasoning b. Critical thinking c. Scientific method d. Needs assessment ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 92

95. The importance of standardized terminology for massage is a. cross-discipline communication. b. ability to provide assessment. c. internal method of thinking. d. nonverbal communication.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 61

96. A massage therapist is changing jobs and will begin working in a long-term care facility

providing massage for residents. Which of the following would be important for documentation requiremenT tsEinST thB isAeN nvKirSoE nm LeLnEt?R.COM a. Ability to read research b. Proficiency in medical terminology c. Continuing education course for arthritis d. Review of the aging process ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 61

97. A massage therapist is having difficulty describing the location of a bruise in the client’s

chart. Which of the following would help? a. Treatment planning b. Surface anatomy terminology c. Quality-of-life terminology d. Abbreviations ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 65

Chapter 04: Nervous System Basics and the Central Nervous System Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The neurotransmitter that stimulates the parasympathetic nervous system and the skeletal

muscles, and is involved in memory, is a. serotonin. b. acetylcholine. c. dopamine. d. epinephrine.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 111

2. The tracts that carry sensory information to the brain are a. descending b. distal c. proximal d. ascending ANS: D

DIF: 1

tracts.

REF: p. 125

3. A single elongated projection that transmits impulses away from the nerve cell body is the a. axon. b. cilia. c. flagellum. d. synapse.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 104

4. What is the largest and most complex part of the nervous system? a. Peripheral nerve b. Brain c. Neuron d. Spinal cord ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 115

5. The primitive portion of the brain that contains centers for vital functions and reflex actions

such as vomiting, coughing, sneezing, posture, and basic movement patterns, is the a. pons. b. cerebellum. c. brainstem. d. diencephalon.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 122

6. The neurotransmitters involved in sleep, mood, and pleasure are a. endorphins. b. hormones. c. tropics.

d. catecholamines.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 111

7. The brain and spinal cord and their coverings are what part of the nervous system? a. Central b. Peripheral c. Autonomic d. Somatic ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 103

8. The second largest part of the brain is the a. cerebrum. b. cerebellum. c. diencephalon. d. brainstem.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 122

9. What is the clear, colorless liquid that flows throughout the brain and around the spinal cord,

cushioning and protecting these structures and maintaining proper pH balance? a. Plasma b. Mucus c. Cerebrospinal fluid d. Lymphatic fluid ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 123

10. The part of the brain that receives, interprets, and associates incoming information with past

memories and then transmits the appropriate motor response is the a. cerebellum. b. diencephalon. c. pons. d. cerebrum.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 115

11. Branches from an axon that allow communication among neurons are a. collaterals. b. syntaxes. c. synapses. d. microvilli.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 104

12. What is the term for the branching projections that carry signals to the nerve cell body? a. Axons b. Dendrites c. Microvilli d. Neuroflagella ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 104

13. The tracts that carry sensory information from the brain to the spinal cord are a. ascending b. neural c. descending d. peripheral ANS: C

DIF: 1

tracts.

REF: p. 125

14. Which of the following roots carries sensory information into the spinal cord? a. Ventral b. Anterior c. Superficial d. Dorsal ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 124

15. The catecholamine found in the brain and autonomic system that is involved in

emotions/moods, in regulating motor control, and in the executive functioning of the brain is a. dopamine. b. serotonin. c. epinephrine. d. acetylcholine.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 111

16. A catecholamine released by the nervous system and involved in fight-or-flight responses

(such as dilation of blood vTeE ssS elTs B toAtN heKsSkE elL etL alEmRu.scCleOsM ) is a. serotonin. b. epinephrine. c. dopamine. d. acetylcholine.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 111

17. What is the term for a continuous seizure? a. Spasm b. Contracture c. Epilepticus d. Hypertonicity ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 130

18. What type of chronic tremor does not proceed from any other pathologic condition? a. Episodic b. Crucial c. Vital d. Essential ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 130

19. Unmyelinated nervous tissue found in the central nervous system is a. gray matter.

b. white matter. c. neurolemma. d. ganglia.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 101

20. What is the paralysis of a single limb or a single group of muscles called? a. Analgesia b. Monoplegia c. Paraplegia d. Quadriplegia ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 129

21. The part of the brain associated with emotional responses, including fear, rage, and pleasure,

is the a. basal ganglia. b. cerebellum. c. limbic system. d. reticular activating system.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 117

22. The term for the outer cell membrane of a Schwann cell that is essential in the regeneration of

injured axons is a. neuroglia. b. arachnoid mater. c. dura mater. d. neurolemma.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 106

23. What are the specialized connective tissue cells that support, protect, and hold neurons

together? a. Neuroglia b. Neurolemma c. Pia mater d. Epineurium ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 105

24. What are the cells that conduct impulses? a. Meninges b. Neurons c. Ventricles d. Schwann cells ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 104

25. Chemical compounds that generate action potentials when released in the synapses from

presynaptic cells are a. hormones. b. catecholamines.

c. neurotransmitters. d. endorphins.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 109

26. What is the catecholamine primarily involved in emotional responses? a. Phosphorus b. Calcium c. Acetylcholine d. Norepinephrine ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 111

27. What is paralysis of the lower portion of the body and both legs? a. Paraplegia b. Quadriplegia c. Monoplegia d. Motoplegia ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 129

28. What is paralysis or loss of movement of all four limbs called? a. Paraplegia b. Quadriplegia c. Monoplegia d. Analgesia ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 128

29. What is a specialized cell that forms myelin? a. Ependymal cell b. Astrocyte c. Schwann cell d. Microglia ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 106

30. What portion of the central nervous system exits the skull into the vertebral column? a. Limbic system b. Autonomic nervous system c. Brainstem d. Spinal cord ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 124

31. What are the spaces between neurons or between a neuron and an effector organ? a. Synapses b. Meninges c. Neuroglia d. Neurotransmitters ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 109

32. A neurotransmitter that works primarily as an inhibitor in the central nervous system and is

synthesized into melatonin is a. adrenaline. b. serotonin. c. acetylcholine. d. calcium.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 111

33. What are collections of nerve fibers in the brain and spinal cord with a common function? a. Collaterals b. Ganglia c. Coordinates d. Tracts ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 125

34. What are myelinated nerve fibers, particularly those found in brain and spinal tissue? a. Gray matter b. White matter c. Dorsal horns d. Ventral horns ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 102

35. Dendrites are characterized as a. tracts that carry sensory information to the brain. b. branching projections fT roEmStThB eA neNrvKeScE elL lL boEdR y. thCaO t cMarry signals to the cell body. c. elongated projections from the nerve cell body that transmit impulses away from

the cell body. d. responsible for the formation of the myelin along neurons.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 104

36. The portion of the brain that is a relay station from the sense organs to the cerebrum for all

sensory input except smell is the a. cerebellum. b. thalamus. c. brainstem. d. medulla oblongata.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 121

37. What is the white, fatty insulating substance that surrounds some axons? a. Neurolemma b. Myelin c. Neuroglia d. Synapse ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 106

38. Supports, protects, and holds neurons together and maintain homeostasis in the nervous

system

a. b. c. d.

Dorsal roots Ventral roots Neuroglia Schwann cells

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 105

39. The part of the brain that wakes up a person and keeps him or her awake is the a. thalamus. b. midbrain. c. reticular activating system. d. vestibular apparatus.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 122

40. The structure that acts as a check-and-balance system and that provides continual blood flow

to the brain is the a. limbic system. b. vestibular apparatus. c. cerebral aqueduct. d. circle of Willis.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 124

41. A progressive disease in which motor neurons are deteriorating, resulting in atrophy of

voluntary muscles is a. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. b. epilepticus. c. quadriplegia. d. paraplegia.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 130

42. Which of the following is the period during which a neuron will not respond to any stimuli? a. Polarity transmission b. Relative synapses c. Absolute refractory period d. Saltatory conduction ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 108

43. Jeri is working to lengthen an athlete’s muscles during massage. She knows that a muscle is

less likely to spasm and more easily restored to a resting length if she uses gentle applications of lengthening and avoids too strong a stimulus, which would generate contraction. Jeri is using which of the following to her advantage? a. Saltatory conduction b. Refractory period c. Action potential d. Reverse polarity ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 108

44. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the nervous system?

a. The myelin sheath prevents ion movement from occurring at the nodes of Ranvier. b. Neurotransmitters are actually chemicals that are released from small vesicles at

the end of the axon of the presynaptic neuron. c. Catecholamines affect sleep, motor function, and mood, whereas epinephrine

functions elsewhere in the body, not just in the brain. d. Behavior is directly affected by neurotransmitters released at the synaptic junction.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 108|p. 109

45. Which of the following is gray matter? a. Cerebrum b. Pia mater c. Cerebral cortex d. Brainstem ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 115

46. Which of the following people is making use of the integrative or associative functions of the

cortex to alter the state of consciousness through entrainment? a. Ella, who is knitting b. Jack, who is playing his guitar c. Lora, who is practicing yoga d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 120

47. Long-term memory deficits are a result of damage to which lobe? a. Occipital b. Parietal c. Temporal d. Limbic ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 119

48. Sensory and motor area representation in the brain is the largest for which of the following? a. Feet, genitalia, and tongue b. Face, lips, and fingers c. Legs, feet, and hands d. Abdomen and back ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 119

49. The feel-good neurotransmitters in the hypothalamus can be generated through the use of

which of the following? a. Extremes of eating, sex, and gambling b. Exercise, pain, thrill seeking, and crisis creating c. Massage, exercise, and substance abuse d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 121

50. Margie has been sent to apply massage and joint movement therapy for a patient who has

lower motor neuron difficulties with muscle atrophy and low reflexes. Massage therapy may do which of the following for this patient? a. Replace the mechanical pumping action of normal muscle contraction b. Help with blood and lymph movement c. Keep the soft tissue pliable to lessen contractures d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 127

51. Tia is working with a patient in a rehabilitation center, helping to relieve discomfort caused by

the functioning portions of the body working extra hard to compensate for nonfunctioning areas. A consideration Tia needs to be aware of is that a. care should be taken with soft tissue methods in the nonfunctioning areas because bruising may occur with massage. b. care should be taken to increase the pressure over vulnerable vessels, which need the additional pressure to support them. c. exaggerated or increased symptoms frequently occur as signs of the beginning of recovery and are to be expected; they are no cause for alarm. d. the patient will be able to give her accurate feedback about pressure applied to the nonfunctioning areas.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 128

52. The definition of chorea is that it is a. a chronic tremor that does not result from any pathologic condition. b. a result of the deterioration of neurons that release dopamine in the brain, thus

slowing or stopping itsTreElS eaT seB. ANKSELLER.COM c. the degeneration of neurons in the basal ganglia, causing dancelike movements. d. also called Lou Gehrig’s disease.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 130

53. When performing the muscle energy methods of contraction and lengthening, waiting 60

seconds after the client has pushed against resistance before lengthening the muscle will be ineffective because of a. the all-or-none principle. b. the refractory period. c. saltatory conduction. d. depolarization.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 108

54. A client reports that she had areas that were red and itchy after the massage. Which of the

following substances would be a likely cause, and why would massage affect it? a. Substance P, which is released during massage b. Dopamine, because kneading stimulated mast cells to release it c. Histamine, because massage can stimulate mast cells d. Serotonin, because massage encourages central nervous system inhibition ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 111

55. A client is being treated for an eating disorder. The massage therapist believes massage will

help reduce the binge eating because massage a. can stimulate the body to release chemicals similar to those released when consuming food. b. can inhibit the central nervous system refractory period. c. is a sensory pleasure method and increases levels of substance P. d. triggers the synaptic response to eliminate neurotransmitters.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 121

56. A client reports after his first massage that he almost felt like he was floating. He sometimes

feels like that during meditative prayer. Massage has this effect due to stimulation of the a. oligodendrocytes. b. white matter in the brain. c. cerebral cortex and reticular activation system. d. release of substance P and epinephrine.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 117

57. A client is describing the best massage she ever had. She can remember it in detail. It was just

before her wedding, and it made her feel less anxious. The most likely reason why she remembers this particular massage so well is because the massage a. stimulated impulses to travel up the ascending tracts in the spinal cord. b. was given during an emotional state. c. caused breathing entrainment. d. stimulated the reticular activating system.

ANS: B

DIF:

EF p.R1.

20COM T3ESTBANKSRE L:LE

58. Therapeutic massage has a high degree of compliance in the medical setting. This means that

people tend to follow through with massage when they might not with diet, exercise, or physical therapy. This is most likely because massage a. stimulates the midbrain. b. stimulates the hypothalamus. c. inhibits the pons. d. inhibits the cerebellum.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 121

59. For which of the following is restorative sleep most necessary? a. Fractured leg b. Stomach ulcer c. An upper respiratory infection d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 122

60. Based on the underlying physiologic mechanisms, which of the following clients would

benefit the most from rhythmic rocking? a. A client who has scar tissue that is binding b. An athlete who has just competed in an event c. An athlete who is going to be competing in the next 4 hours

d. A client with inner ear dysfunction ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 123

61. A client has an upper motor neuron injury that has resulted in paralysis. Which of the

following might a massage therapist encounter when working with this client? a. Involuntary movement of the legs during the massage b. Significant fluid congesting in the lower limbs c. Flaccid muscles and atrophy d. Seizure and monoplegia ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 127

62. Which of the following pathologic conditions receive the least benefit from therapeutic

massage? a. Stroke b. Alzheimer’s disease c. Essential tremor d. Depression ANS: C 63.

DIF: 3

REF: p. 128|p. 130|p. 131

What are neurons and neuroglia? a. Fatty insulators of the nerves b. Two types of cells found in the central nervous system c. Two functional units of the nervous system d. Small gaps between the segments of the myelin sheath ANS: B

DIF:

T1ESTBANKSRE L:LE EF p.R1.

04C |pO . 1M05

64. The resting membrane potential describes the neuron’s membrane as a. having a hyperpolarized segment. b. negatively charged outside and positively charged inside. c. positively charged outside and negatively charged inside. d. being unable to conduct a nerve impulse.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 107

65. Neurotransmitters are chemical compounds that a. are found at the end of an axon in the presynaptic neurons. b. make up the myelin sheath around neurons in the central nervous system. c. have no effect on body activities and senses. d. are responsible for creating cerebrospinal fluid.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 109

66. In what part of the nervous system is behavior affected by the type and amount of

neurotransmitters released? a. Synaptic junction b. Ventricles of the brain c. Subarachnoid space d. Oligodendrocytes

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 110

67. The brain is composed of more than what percentage of water? a. 25 b. 50 c. 70 d. 85 ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 115

68. What is the largest portion of the brain? a. Hypothalamus b. Brainstem c. Corpus callosum d. Cerebrum ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 115

69. Which portion of the brain links the nervous and endocrine systems? a. Hypothalamus b. Brainstem c. Corpus callosum d. Cerebellum ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 121

70. What is the function of the pineal body? a. Maintaining the internal biologic clock b. Controlling all sensory input except that of smell c. Controlling reflex actions such as sneezing, coughing, vomiting, and balance d. Rousing the body from sleep and maintaining consciousness ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 121

71. Ventricles in the brain are characterized as a. being filled with neuroglia and nerve cells. b. being filled with cerebrospinal fluid. c. separating the meninges from the brain. d. lining the cranial bones.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 123

72. What is a function of the spinal cord? a. Protection of the meninges b. Conduction of signals for vision and hearing c. Conduction of nerve impulses to and from the brain d. Interpretation of incoming sensory information ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 124

73. A client has had depression and now has Parkinson’s disease. Which of the following is most

accurate about these diseases? a. They are genetic seizure disorders based on disruption in the vestibular apparatus.

b. The neurotransmitter dopamine is a common element in both conditions. c. Spinal cord injury and aneurysm risk are increased. d. Reticular activating system deregulation is increased.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 111

74. Which of the following conditions are related? a. Stroke and transient ischemic attack b. Concussion and amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c. Quadriplegia and essential tremor d. Aneurysm and cerebral palsy ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 128

75. Which of the following is incorrect concerning a transient ischemic attack (TIA)? a. A TIA is a pre-stroke condition that mimics a stroke. b. TIA resolves in less than 24 hours. c. If a TIA deficit lasts longer than 24 hours, there is little chance of recovery. d. If a TIA deficit lasts longer than 24 hours and then clears completely, the condition

is called a reversible neurologic deficit.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 128

76. Another term for cerebrovascular accident (CVA) is a. stroke. b. thrombosis. c. arteriosclerosis. d. hemiparesis.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 128

77. An aneurysm is a a. tumor. b. concussion. c. weakening and bulging of any artery. d. transient headache and neck stiffness.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 128

78. A concussion is brain trauma caused by a(n) a. blow to the head or intense shaking of the head. b. infection of the ventricles. c. leak of cerebral spinal fluid. d. tumor.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 128

79. Massage for a client with cerebral palsy is most effective for a. the accompanying dementia. b. the accompanying seizures. c. reversing arterial damage and supporting the return to motor function. d. managing secondary muscle tension resulting from the alteration of posture.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 129

80. Which of the following is not a sign or symptom of tumor-caused brain compression? a. The loss of sensory or motor function, mainly on one side of the body b. Personality or behavior changes c. Headaches d. Connective tissue changes in the muscles and joints ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 129

81. A variety of degenerative brain diseases are referred to as a. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis. b. dementia. c. schizophrenia. d. depression.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 129

82. Which of the following conditions is most specifically related to the neurotransmitter

dopamine? a. Depression b. Parkinson’s disease c. Chorea d. Seizures ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 130

83. Massage therapy has the most potential for immediate benefits for which of the following

conditions? a. Encephalitis b. Meningitis c. Headaches d. Spinal cord injury ANS: C

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

DIF: 2

REF: p. 129|p. 131

Chapter 05: Peripheral Nervous System Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following link sensory receptors with the central nervous system? a. Afferent nerves b. Efferent nerves c. Somatic effectors d. Motor impulses ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 138

2. Nerves that connect the central nervous system to the glands, heart, and smooth muscles are

part of what aspect of the nervous system? a. Central b. Autonomic c. Enteric d. Somatic ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 150

3. The 12 pairs of nerves that originate from the olfactory bulbs, thalamus, visual cortex, and

brainstem are what type of nerves? a. Cerebral b. Craniosacral c. Cranial d. Cervical ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 137

4. What is the term for a cutaneous section supplied by a single spinal nerve? a. Myotome b. Peyer patch c. Integument d. Dermatome ANS: D

DIF: 1

5. Motor nerves are also called a. efferent b. afferent c. locomotor d. sensory ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 142

nerves.

REF: p. 137

6. What type of sensory receptors detect itch and tickle sensations? a. Golgi tendon organs b. Free nerve endings c. Lamellated (Pacinian) corpuscles

d. Hair root plexuses ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 146

7. What structures detect changes in pressure, movement, temperature, or other mechanical

changes? a. Thermoreceptors b. Kinesthetic receptors c. Mechanoreceptors d. Reflexive receptors ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 145

8. Nerves that contain sensory and motor fibers are called a. dual b. afferent c. efferent d. mixed ANS: D

DIF: 1

nerves.

REF: p. 137

9. Which of the following results from inflammation of the seventh cranial nerve? a. Myasthenia gravis b. Bell’s palsy c. Parkinson’s disease d. Multiple sclerosis ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 162

10. What is the term for the skeletal muscle or group of skeletal muscles that receives motor

axons from a particular spinal nerve? a. Dermatome b. Myotome c. Trigger point d. Motor point ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 142

11. Which of the following is characterized as being a bundle of axons, dendrites, or both? a. Meninges b. Tissue c. Nerve d. Muscle ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 137

12. Sensory receptors that detect harmful or intense stimuli are a. proprioceptors. b. free nerve endings. c. mechanical receptors. d. nociceptors.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 146

13. Energy conservation and restoration is associated with what part of the nervous system? a. Parasympathetic b. Sympathetic c. Somatic d. Central ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 152

14. Which of the following is the peripheral nervous system comprised of? a. Ascending and descending tracts b. Afferent and efferent divisions c. Meninges and ventricles d. Thalamus and hypothalamus ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 137

15. What is a network of intertwining nerves that innervates a particular region of the body? a. Tract b. Ganglia c. Plexus d. Reflex arc ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 138

16. Which of the following is a viral infection affecting the nerves that control skeletal muscle

movement? a. Herpes zoster b. Mononucleosis c. Multiple sclerosis d. Polio ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 163

17. Sensory receptors that provide the body with information about position, movement, muscle

tension, joint activity, and equilibrium are a. proprioceptors. b. chemoreceptors. c. thermoreceptors. d. nociceptors.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 145

18. What is an automatic, involuntary reaction to a stimulus? a. Pattern b. Reflex c. Arc d. Equilibrium ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 143

19. Keeping the body in balance with its external environment by transmitting impulses between

the brain and the skeletal muscles and skin is a function of which nervous system?

a. b. c. d.

Autonomic Parasympathetic Somatic Sympathetic

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 137

20. The 31 pairs emerging from the vertebral column are what type of nerves? a. Cranial b. Cervical c. Lumbosacral d. Spinal ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 138

21. Fight-or-flight responses are associated with what system? a. Sympathetic nervous b. Parasympathetic nervous c. Limbic d. Reticular activating ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 152

22. Which of the following structures detect changes in temperature? a. Proprioceptors b. Thermoreceptors c. Chemoreceptors d. Nociceptors ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 146

23. Whiplash injury often causes impingement on what plexus? a. Sacral b. Lumbar c. Brachial d. Cervical ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 162

24. General, full-body massage has been shown to stimulate vagal function. The client who would

benefit the most from this is one with a. digestive disturbances. b. minor facial paralysis. c. gait dysfunction. d. generalized edema.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 140

25. A client has been diagnosed with brachial plexus impingement. If the source of the pressure

on the nerve is muscular, where would the massage be applied? a. Low back b. Forearm c. Neck

d. Buttocks ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 140

26. Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by compression of which of the following nerves? a. Median b. Long thoracic c. Musculocutaneous d. Obturator ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 162

27. While working with a college basketball player, a massage therapist notices that painless

inhibitory pressure at the attachments of the muscles in the legs has the most success in relaxing the muscles. What is the massage therapist doing that is effective for this particular client? a. Inhibiting spindle cells b. Stimulating free nerve endings c. Stimulating thermal receptors d. Inhibiting Golgi tendon organs ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 147|p. 148

28. A client has a muscle in the shoulder that is assessed as long and weak. To help the muscle

contract more effectively, the massage therapist should stimulate which of the following reflexes? a. Visceral b. Bulbous c. Stretch d. Patellar ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 147

29. While performing muscle testing assessment, a massage therapist identifies the following

pattern: right shoulder flexors and left hip flexors are inhibited and strength testing indicates that muscles are weak. This situation is most likely caused by the client a. drinking too little water. b. tripping and falling. c. having the flu. d. sleeping on an uncomfortable bed.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 148|p. 149

30. Because of contralateral reflex arcs and the kinetic chain, a client complaining of pain in the

right pectoralis muscle may also feel tenderness in which of the following areas? a. Left adductors b. Right hamstrings c. Left quadriceps d. Right quadriceps ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 148

31. Because of contralateral reflex arcs and the kinetic chain, a client complaining of pain in the

left calf muscles may also feel tenderness in which of the following areas? a. Right quadriceps b. Right hamstrings c. Left quadriceps d. Left hamstrings ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 148

32. A client complains of severe pain in the left buttock. The pain is extremely intense, and the

client flinches even with palpation. If incorporating kinetic chain relationships the best possible massage solution would be for the massage therapist to do which of the following? a. Leave the area alone but massage as close to the area as possible without causing the client pain. b. Use deep compression directly over the area, followed by shaking and tapotement. c. Do a general massage, paying extra attention to the right shoulder and avoiding the painful area. d. Do a general massage, paying extra attention to the left shoulder while applying compression to the painful area.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 149

33. A massage practitioner is upset because he rushed to the office late. His first client is upset

that she is late because she was stuck in traffic. Which of the following would most likely be a challenge for the massage therapist during the client’s massage session? a. Preventing overactivation of the relaxation response in the client b. Generating enough energy to perform the treatment SiT KiSllEbL c. Reducing sympathetic T doEm naBnA ceNw eL diE ffR ic. ulC t OM d. Applying enough pressure to increase dopamine and norepinephrine levels ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 152

34. The massage style that would most likely support parasympathetic dominance is if the client

is a. b. c. d.

seated and receives compression and range of motion. prone and supine and receives deep, slow pressure and rhythmic rocking. prone and lying on the side and receives muscle energy methods and stretching. prone and supine and receives compression, tapotement, shaking, and myofascial release.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 150

35. If a massage therapist is explaining the chakra system to a client, what comparison to Western

anatomy and physiology could she make? a. Ganglia of the parasympathetic nervous system b. Motor nerve function c. Beta-adrenergic blocker d. Proprioceptors, especially Golgi tendons ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 154

36. If a massage therapist is explaining the location of back (shu) points, which is the appropriate

Western terminology to use? a. Vestibular system b. Vagus nerve distribution c. Sympathetic chain ganglia d. Oculopelvic reflexes ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 154

37. A massage practitioner is concerned that a football player’s hamstrings are going to cramp if

she uses postisometric relaxation. To inhibit the hamstrings so that they can be lengthened, the massage therapist would have the client a. isometrically contract the hamstrings. b. roll his eyes in large, slow circles. c. resist against pressure. d. hold his breath and then exhale in a quick burst.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 159

38. Which two soft tissue structures are responsible for an impingement of the lumbar plexus? a. Quadratus lumborum and the psoas muscles b. Erector spinae group and the deep lateral rotators c. Piriformis and shortened ligaments around the sacroiliac joint d. Latissimus dorsi and transverse abdominis ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 162

39. Massage could possibly heT lpEaScTliB enAt N coKm aiM n in the shoulders, chest, arm, wrist, SpElaLinLinEgRo.fCpO

or hand from nerve a. entrapment; brachial b. compression; lumbar c. entrapment; cervical d. compression; cervical ANS: A

DIF: 2

on the

plexus.

REF: p. 162

40. A description of a motor nerve is that it a. may be sensory or mixed. b. provides action. c. enters the olfactory bulbs, thalamus, or brainstem. d. is known as a vestibulocochlear nerve.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 137

41. Cranial nerves are identified a. by Roman numerals according to their order from front to back. b. by names that refer to their function or distribution. c. as 12 pairs of sensory and/or motor nerves. d. All of the above are correct.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

42. Spinal nerves can be described as

REF: p. 139

a. b. c. d.

emerging from the brain. separating into sensory and motor fibers. containing sensory and motor fibers in the same nerve. transporting information within the various parts of the brain.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 139

43. A nerve plexus is a a. small group of nerves that form an intersecting network. b. group of nerves that innervate the same organs. c. pathologic condition that might need medical treatment. d. major cause of loss of sensation in the body.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 139

44. What are the sections of skin supplied by a single spinal nerve called? a. Thoracolumbar segments b. Dermatomes c. Reflex mechanisms d. Craniosacral segments ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 142

45. Myotomes are skeletal muscles or groups of muscles that a. are regulated by involuntary actions. b. are complex, dysfunctional reflex patterns. c. receive motor axons from a single spinal nerve. d. conduct sensory informTaE tion piL naLl E coRr. d.COM STiBntAoNthKeSsE ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 142

46. Proprioceptors are mechanical receptors that function to a. detect temperature, itch, and tickle sensations. b. cause conditioned reflexes. c. recognize heavy and continuous touch and pressure sensations. d. provide the body with information about position and movement.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 145

47. Which of the following are most often stimulated movement methods? a. Radial, cutaneous, and lateral reflexes b. Tactile disks, bulbous (Ruffini) corpuscle, and Meissner corpuscles c. Stretch, tendon, flexor, and crossed extensor reflexes d. Ipsilateral reflex arcs ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 147

48. A feature of the stretch reflex is that it is a. a protective contraction. b. the slow stretching or lengthening of a muscle. c. a voluntary action that takes place when muscles are tired. d. an activity to be initiated regularly during bodywork.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 147

49. As a result of the contralateral reflex, the body will a. decrease its tension and restore muscle relaxation. b. restore or maintain balance. c. be unable to work in coordinated actions. d. easily fall asleep.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 148

50. The function of the sympathetic nervous system is to a. decrease cerebral activity. b. maintain normal body reactions. c. decrease actions, whereas the parasympathetic tends to stimulate. d. stimulate energy expenditure activities, especially during emergency responses.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 152

51. The function of the parasympathetic nervous system is to a. rest and restore after emergency responses. b. increase metabolism, breathe faster, and raise blood pressure. c. protect the body from dangerous situations. d. increase heart rate and anxiety levels.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 152

52. A feature of the chakras, or Eastern energy systems, is that they a. have no connection to the nervous system. b. occupy the same areas as the parasympathetic ganglia. c. are known as adrenergic systems. d. block receptor sites for neurotransmitters and hormones.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 154

53. Increased heart rate, rapid breathing, and dilated pupils are examples of which of the

following? a. Sympathetic stimulation b. Parasympathetic stimulation c. Both sympathetic and parasympathetic responses d. Inhibition of both sympathetic and parasympathetic responses ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 155

54. What sense is the most primitive and not easily described? a. Hearing b. Vision/sight c. Taste d. Smell ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 159

55. Which of the following conditions are caused by a virus? a. Bell’s palsy, polio, and herpes

b. Herpes, impingement, and neuropathy c. Vertigo, headache, and polio d. Myasthenia gravis, disk herniation, and demyelination disease ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 162|p. 163

56. What cranial nerves innervate the muscles of chewing? a. Olfactory b. Trigeminal c. Facial d. Vagus ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 139

57. The vagus nerves are cranial nerves number a. I. b. V. c. VII. d. X. ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 140

58. Which of the following tastes can be detected by the tongue without the sense of smell

involved? a. Sweet b. Sour c. Salty d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 159

59. Which of the following adjunct modalities makes use of the connection between scents and

the limbic system? a. Reflexology b. Aromatherapy c. Polarity d. Cryotherapy ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 159

60. Which of the following medication types would lower blood pressure? a. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors b. Epinephrine-adrenaline inhalers c. Alpha-adrenergic blockers d. Parasympathetic blockers ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 161

61. Low back discomfort marked by a beltlike distribution of pain and pain in the lower abdomen,

genitals, thigh, and medial lower leg could be caused by impingement of which plexus? a. Sacral b. Lumbar c. Cervical

d. Brachial ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 162

62. If the sternocleidomastoid muscle was the cause of entrapment, which of the following

plexuses would be most affected? a. Sacral b. Lumbar c. Cervical d. Brachial ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 162

63. What condition, commonly occurring in areas where the spine moves the most, results in

radiating nerve pain associated with protective and stabilizing muscle spasm? a. Guillain-Barré syndrome b. Demyelination disease c. Nerve root compression d. Bell’s palsy ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 163

64. What is the name for muscle spasm and pain that occurs with lumbar disc disorders? a. Polyneuritis b. Guarding c. Paralysis d. Vertigo ANS: B

DIF:

T2ESTBANKSRE L:LE EF p.R1.

63COM

65. Which of the following is a result of inflammation or injury to cranial nerve VII? a. Guillain-Barré syndrome b. Demyelination disease c. Nerve root compression d. Bell’s palsy ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 162

66. Which of the following is caused by a viral infection? a. Shingles b. Myasthenia gravis c. Multiple sclerosis d. Ketoacidosis ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 163

67. What condition occurs when myelin around the axons is attacked and replaced with hardened

areas? a. Trigeminal neuralgia b. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis c. Multiple sclerosis d. Tic douloureux

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 163

68. Which of the following conditions is related to disturbances in the inner ear balance

mechanism? a. Bell’s palsy b. Neuropathy c. Vertigo d. Neuralgia ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 165

69. Which of the following is an important component of an overall care program for any chronic

disease? a. Application of deep tissue techniques b. Stress management c. Administration of anti-viral medications d. Reflex inhibition ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 164

Chapter 06: Endocrine System Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following are male sex hormones? a. Androgens b. Oxytocin c. Growth hormone d. Adrenaline ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 181

2. Which of the following is a glucocorticoid? a. Insulin b. Cortisol c. Adrenaline d. Triglycerides ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 179

3. A ductless gland secretes which of the following directly into the bloodstream? a. Mucus b. Sweat c. Hormones d. Milk ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 170

4. Which of the following hormones work like morphine to alter pain perception? a. Adrenaline b. Catecholamines c. Neurotransmitters d. Endorphins ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 183

5. Secreting substances onto the body’s surface describes what type of gland? a. Endocrine b. Exocrine c. Pituitary d. Adrenal ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 170

6. The amount of time required for half of a hormone to be eliminated from the bloodstream is

called its a. partial-life. b. half-life. c. halfway point. d. still point.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 174

7. What is the excessive release of a hormone? a. Hyposecretion b. Atrophy c. Hypersecretion d. Prosecretion ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 184

8. What is the insufficient release of a hormone? a. Hypersecretion b. Hypertonicity c. Hypotonicity d. Hyposecretion ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 184

9. Most hormones are controlled through which of the following mechanisms? a. Positive feedback system b. Negative feedback system c. Peripheral feedback loop d. Central reflex arc ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 170

10. Hormones that affect other endocrine glands are called a. metabolic b. tropic c. negative d. anabolic ANS: B

DIF: 1

hormones.

REF: p. 171

11. Endocrine functions are usually regulated by a. negative feedback systems. b. reflex arcs. c. somatic nerves. d. crossed extensor reflexes.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 170

12. Which of the following most accurately portrays the endocrine and nervous systems? a. Neurotransmitters travel long distances in the body before reaching target cells. b. Hormones are found in the bloodstream and act quickly on adjacent cells. c. The endocrine system acts slowly and helps to sustain a response. d. The nervous system acts quickly while using hormones to respond quickly.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 170

13. A client has experienced the following changes in her life: divorce, her only child is in the

military, and the death of her mother. She is feeling emotionally flat except when she receives her weekly massage. Which of the following would be an appropriate suggestion to support the same connected feelings experienced during the massage? a. Getting more aerobic exercise to reduce the need for insulin b. Increasing sleep to prevent neuropathy c. Bonding with a pet to support stress management d. Taking a nutritional supplement to decrease the risk of an insulin reaction ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 176

14. Massage might be successful in helping a client with tissue repair because it increases a. sympathetic dominance. b. the chances of a restful sleep pattern, necessary for growth hormone to be

effective. c. secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone. d. the action of prolactin.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 180

15. A female client has been diagnosed with a minor thyroid deficiency and her physician is

waiting to see if the endocrine function will normalize. Which of the following methods may be helpful for this client? a. Exposure to daylight b. Exposure to cold hydrotherapy c. Deep friction d. Percussion ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 186

16. A massage student is recently divorced with no children. Her 17-year-old cat just died. She

finds herself feeling very connected with some of the practice clients in the school, one elderly female in particular. Which of the following hormones is involved in the bonding response? a. Thyroid b. Prolactin c. Luteinizing hormone d. Oxytocin ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 178

17. A new client has thin hair; slightly bulging eyes; and warm, sweaty palms. This cluster of

symptoms has prompted the massage therapist to refer the client to the physician for a diagnosis. What the client has are symptoms of which of the following conditions? a. Diabetes mellitus b. Hypothyroidism c. Hyperthyroidism d. Diabetes insipidus ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 186

18. A client has type 1 diabetes. Which of the following should the massage therapist assess?

a. b. c. d.

Bloating Tissue changes in the feet Bulging of the eyes Edema of the extremities

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 188

19. A client has been waiting for more than 6 months to find out when the company he works for

will close. He will lose his current job but has a slight possibility of moving with the company to a different state. Massage may help this person by reducing a. neuropathy. b. parasympathetic dominance. c. cortisol levels. d. the exhaustion phase of the general adaptation syndrome.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 179

20. The pineal gland is involved in sleep cycles. The location of the associated chakra is the a. root. b. brow. c. solar plexus. d. heart.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 182

21. A massage therapist has been getting less restorative sleep. He goes to bed and gets up at the

same time, so that does not seem to be the issue. Lately he has been reading in bed and falling asleep with the light on. ThTeEliSgT htBcA ouNldKS beEtL heLcEaR us.eCoO f tMhe problem because it a. reduces serotonin secretion from the thalamus. b. stimulates melatonin production from the pancreas. c. increases blood levels of erythropoietin. d. interferes with melatonin function.

ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 182

22. Which of the following correlations in Western medical terms is similar to the chakra system? a. Nerve plexuses and endocrine gland functions b. The pathology of the endocrine system c. Brain and spinal cord d. Sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve pathways ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 173

23. With what chakra is the pituitary gland associated? a. Throat b. Crown c. Solar plexus d. Root ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 176

24. Hormones exert their effects on which of the following? a. Hypersecreting organs

b. Nervous system correlations c. Target organs and cells d. Prostaglandins ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 174

25. The causes of hypersecretion include which of the following? a. A link in the body-mind and nerve-endocrine functions b. Antibodies binding to hormone receptors c. Abnormal metabolic responses to hormone-receptor complexes d. Autoimmunity and failure of the feedback mechanism of secretion ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 184

26. A characteristic of the hypothalamus is that it a. links the body-mind and nerve-endocrine functions. b. is controlled mainly by the pituitary. c. primarily controls calcium levels in the blood. d. is stimulated by the growth hormone.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 171

27. From where do most tropic hormones originate? a. Hypothalamus b. Pituitary c. Sella turcica d. Pancreas ANS: B

DIF:

T1ESTBANKSRE L:LE EF p.R1.

71COM

28. The anterior lobe of the pituitary secretes which of the following? a. One hormone and four neurotransmitters b. Somatostatin c. Seven major hormones d. No hormones; it only stores them ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 176

29. A characterization of hyperthyroidism is that it is a. most commonly caused by poor nutrition. b. most commonly caused by autoimmune dysfunction. c. a rare endocrine disorder. d. rarely accompanied by a goiter.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 185

30. What hormones are secreted by the pancreas? a. Glucagon, insulin, somatostatin, and amylin b. Glucose and ketones c. Islets of Langerhans d. Insulin, prolactin, oxytocin, and luteinizing hormone ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 179

31. The adrenal glands perform which of the following functions? a. Secretion of hormones that support parasympathetic activity b. Prevention of a recurrence of the excessive alarm response c. Secretion of epinephrine and norepinephrine d. Inhibition of the sympathetic nervous system ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 179

32. If a person’s activities are 25% sympathetic, 25% parasympathetic, and 50% a combination of

both, the person is most likely in which of the following states? a. Not dealing well with lifestyle demands b. Having a healthy, well balanced lifestyle c. Not getting enough activity d. Likely to suffer from catecholamine damage ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 180

33. Cortisol is used in the body to a. prepare the body to deal with stress. b. speed the healing of wounds. c. increase cartilage and bone formation. d. increase the inflammatory response.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 179

34. Maintaining healthy, functioning adrenal glands seems to a. induce Cushing’s syndrome in women.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. prevent diabetes mellitus. c. support a successful aging process. d. speed up the aging process.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 179|p. 180

35. A characteristic of the pineal gland is that it a. causes allergic and immune responses. b. releases androgens. c. is involved in the metabolism of most body cells. d. is involved with regulating body rhythm patterns.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 182

36. Prostaglandins are tissue hormones that work a. in the areas where they are released. b. to remove dead cells from the tissues. c. like morphine to suppress pain. d. in the gastrointestinal tract when food is present to aid digestion.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 183

37. Which of the following are necessary for lactation? a. Adrenaline and ACTH b. Luteinizing and follicle-stimulating hormones

c. Prolactin and oxytocin d. Anti-diuretic and thyroid-stimulating hormones ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 177

38. Which of the following decreases blood glucose levels? a. Insulin b. Parathormone c. Glucagon d. Oxytocin ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 179

39. What two hormones function to conserve body water? a. Insulin and glucagon b. ADH and aldosterone c. ACTH and cortisol d. Adrenaline and parathormone ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 178|p. 180

40. Which of the following is not a cause of endocrine disorders? a. Change in hormone receptors on target cells b. Certain cancers and tumors c. Increased exercise d. Target cells abnormal metabolic responses ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 184

41. Synthetic corticosteroids and steroids reduce capillary dilation and permeability to decrease

the effects of a. inflammation. b. blood pressure. c. diabetes mellitus. d. Cushing’s disease.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 184

42. Massage is contraindicated over areas of a. adipose tissue. b. steroid injections. c. constipation. d. scar tissue.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 185

43. Which of the following conditions is treated with growth hormone? a. Cushing’s disease b. Diabetes insipidus c. Acromegaly d. Dwarfism ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 185

44. Which of the following conditions could be mistaken for anxiety? a. Hypothyroidism b. Cushing’s disease c. Hyperthyroidism d. Diabetic neuropathy ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 185

45. Hyperparathyroidism includes all the following symptoms except a. hypoglycemia. b. muscle twitches. c. mild skeletal pain. d. osteoporosis.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 187

46. A client is taking a medication that influences insulin levels. Which of the following

endocrine glands is most likely dysfunctional? a. Pineal b. Pancreas c. Parathyroids d. Thyroid ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 179

47. Which of the following adrenal conditions most likely has depression as a symptom? a. Acromegaly b. Hyperthyroidism c. Diabetic neuropathy d. Addison’s disease ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 189

48. A client indicates that he feels fatigued after a long plane flight overseas. Which hormone is

most likely to be involved? a. Growth hormone b. Aldosterone c. Melatonin d. Luteinizing hormone ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 190

49. Which of the following massage therapy outcomes is most helpful for those with endocrine

disorders? a. Stress management b. Scar tissue management c. Fluid movement d. Connective tissue pliability ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 180|p. 188|p. 189

50. The main purpose of the hypothalamus as a neuroendocrine organ is

a. b. c. d.

homeostasis. hypersection. hyposecretion. the stress response.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 171

51. Tropic hormones from the pituitary gland are secreted because of releasing or inhibiting

hormones from the a. thymus. b. thyroid. c. hypothalamus. d. pineal.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 171

52. During stress, the hypothalamus translates nerve impulses into hormone secretions through

the a. b. c. d.

pituitary gland. tissue hormones. prostaglandins. thyroid.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 171

53. Which of the following secretes tissue hormones? a. Skin b. Bladder c. Bone d. Heart ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 172

54. Which of the following secretes tissue hormones? a. Pancreas b. Gallbladder c. Adipose tissue d. Bladder ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 172

55. When a series of glands signal each other in a sequence, it is called a. an axis. b. a tropic. c. autosecretion. d. consolidation.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 172

56. The hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis controls the a. chakra system. b. general adaptation syndrome. c. pain modulation system.

d. autoimmune system.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 173

57. The communication network between the nervous system and the endocrine system is now

considered the a. neuroendocrine system. b. reflex response. c. positive feedback loop system. d. general adaptation response.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 173

Chapter 07: Skeletal System Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The limbs and their attachments make up which part of the skeleton? a. Appendicular b. Axial c. Peripheral d. Central ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

2. Which of the following is another term for a joint? a. Appendage b. Articulation c. Axis d. Arc ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 195

3. The head, vertebral column, ribs, and sternum make up which part of the skeleton? a. Appendicular b. Central c. Axial d. Collateral ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

4. What type of bone protects spongy bone and provides the firm framework of the body? a. Smooth b. Cancellous c. Sesamoid d. Compact ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 195

5. What is the rounded projection at the end of a bone called? a. Condyle b. Fossa c. Foramen d. Spine ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

6. The bony support structure found inside the human body is known as which of the following? a. Ectoskeleton b. Endoskeleton c. Trabeculae d. Foramen ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 195

7. What is the thin membrane of connective tissue that lines the marrow cavity of a bone called? a. Epiosteum b. Subosteum c. Endosteum d. Periosteum ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 197

8. What is a bony projection above a condyle called? a. Trochanter b. Fossa c. Suture d. Epicondyle ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

9. Which of the following is a smooth, flat surface on a bone? a. Facet b. Process c. Fossa d. Condyle ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

10. What are the areas of the skull of an infant in which the bone formation is incomplete? a. Processes b. Fontanels c. Symphysis d. Gomphosis ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

11. What is the term for an opening in a bone? a. Condyle b. Epicondyle c. Foramen d. Trochanter ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 200

12. A depression in the surface or at the end of a bone is which of the following? a. Process b. Fontanel c. Tubercle d. Fossa ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

13. What is an exaggeration of the thoracic curve? a. Hyperkyphosis b. Scoliosis c. Hyperlordosis

d. Trichinosis ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 211

14. What is an exaggeration of the normal lumbar curve? a. Hyperkyphosis b. Hyperlordosis c. Scoliosis d. Gibbus ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 226

15. The bone disorder in which a lack of calcium and other minerals and a decrease in bone

protein leave the bones brittle, fragile, and more likely to break is a. osteomyelitis. b. osteoarthritis. c. osteoporosis. d. osteomegaly.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 227

16. The term for any normal prominent bony growth that projects out from the bone is a. epicondyle. b. foramen. c. trochanter. d. process.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

17. The thin membrane of connective tissue that covers bones except at articulations is a. periosteum. b. endosteum. c. septum. d. neurilemma.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 197

18. The quality of bones that allows them to deform slightly and vibrate when electric currents

pass through is a. elasticity. b. piezoelectricity. c. extensibility. d. contractility.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 196

19. What is the term for a lateral curvature of the spine? a. Lordosis b. Kyphosis c. Scoliosis d. Gomphosis ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 211

20. Round bones that are often embedded in tendons and joint capsules are known as a. phalanges. b. irregular bones. c. trabeculae. d. sesamoid bones.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 199

21. What is the lighter-weight portion of bone made up of trabeculae? a. Spongy bone b. Haversian canals c. Endosteum d. Compact bone ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 197

22. What is the term for an irregular meshing of small, bony plates that makes up spongy bone? a. Trochanter b. Trabeculae c. Epicondyle d. Reticulum ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 197

23. What is one of two large bony processes found only on the femur? a. Epicondyle b. Femoral process c. Trochanter d. Tubercle ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

24. What is a small, rounded process on a bone? a. Condyle b. Epicondyle c. Trochanter d. Tubercle ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

25. The term for a large, rounded protuberance on a bone is a. tuberosity. b. trochanter. c. condyle. d. epicondyle.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

26. Which of the following is how knowledge of bony landmarks is incorporated into massage

assessment? a. Palpation of muscle attachments b. Strength testing

c. Firing pattern assessment d. Joint end feel ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 200

27. A marathon runner has been diagnosed with patella tracking problems. Where is she

experiencing pain? a. Elbow b. Skin c. Heel d. Knee ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 218

28. A massage practitioner is assessing a client for the position of the pelvis. Which of the

following would be the landmarks he is comparing? a. Medial condyles b. Intertrochanteric crests c. Anterior superior iliac spines d. Medial and lateral malleoli ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 218

29. Light, general massage for relaxation over the sternum and ribs is the best treatment plan for

which of the following pathologic conditions? a. Spina bifida surgery b. Lordosis c. Radiation treatment forTbEreSaT stBcA anNcK erSELLER.COM d. Osteochondritis dissecans ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 224|p. 227

30. General, full-body massage with myofascial release, trigger point application, and tissue

stretching on the concavity is the best treatment plan for which of the following skeletal conditions? a. Paget disease b. Scoliosis c. Whiplash d. Osteogenesis imperfecta ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 226

31. Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system? a. Stores lipids for use as energy b. Stores and releases minerals c. Produces blood cells d. Stores iron and detoxifies blood ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 196

32. What are the two kinds of marrow in bones? a. Piezoelectric and quartz, which provide both support and pliability b. Red, which manufactures blood cells, and yellow, which is mainly fat

c. White and red, which manufacture white and red blood cells d. Black and blue, which are responsible for the coloration of bruises ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 197

33. What bony landmarks are most often seen at or around the joints? a. Notches, grooves, and sinuses b. Fissures, canals, and foramina c. Condyles, heads, and facets d. Notches, foramina, and condyles ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201

34. Which of the following does the axial skeleton include? a. Humerus, radius, and ulna b. Metatarsals, metacarpals, and the six bones in the ear c. Atlas, axis, and sternum d. Sternum, femur, and fibula ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 201|p. 210

35. Which of the following describes the framework of the head? a. Eight cranial bones and fourteen facial bones b. Four cranial bones and eight facial bones c. Twelve cranial bones and twenty facial bones d. Eight cranial bones and eight facial bones ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 204

36. A characteristic of the hyoid is that it is a a. small, oblong bone that forms the bottom edge of the jaw. b. U-shaped bone attached to the tongue. c. suture at the apex of the skull. d. small bone within a tendon or joint capsule.

ANS: B 37.

DIF: 1

REF: p. 204

A characteristic of the intervertebral disks is that they can usually be felt just under the skin of the back. are linked together by the lamina of the pedicles. provide flexibility and act as shock absorbers. have a joint surface called an articular facet.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 207

38. Where is the xiphoid process located? a. Anterior end of each of the true ribs b. Superior edge of the sternum c. Posterior surface of the sternum d. Inferior end of the sternum ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 211

39. The clavicle is long and flat and it a. is the only part of the appendicular skeleton to articulate with the axial skeleton. b. has two bends, which give it an S shape. c. articulates with the sternum and the scapula. d. All of the above are correct.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 212

40. On which of the following bones are lateral and medial epicondyles, and greater and lesser

tubercles located? a. Radius b. Humerus c. Ulna d. Metacarpals ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 214

41. The pelvic girdle is composed of which of the following? a. Sacrum, ilium, and coccyx b. Ilium, pubis, and coccyx c. Ilium, ischium, pubis, and sacrum d. Acetabulum, sacroiliac, and coccyx ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 218

42. What part of the femur fits into the acetabulum? a. Head b. Greater trochanter c. Linea aspera d. Shaft ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 220

43. What kind of bone is the patella? a. Long b. Short c. Sesamoid d. Cube-shaped ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 220

44. A characteristic of the fibula is that it a. articulates with the knee. b. is a weight-bearing structure. c. forms the medial malleolus at its distal end. d. articulates only at the ankle.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 220

45. A characteristic of the talus is that it is the a. largest bone in the foot. b. major weight-bearing bone during upright motions. c. only foot bone that does not articulate with the tarsals.

d. point of insertion for many muscles.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 222

46. In what part of the bone does growth in length occur? a. Periosteum b. Epiphyseal plate c. Endosteum d. Marrow cavity ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 199

47. What is the final stage of healing from a fracture? a. Ossification b. Hematoma formation c. Remodeling d. Callus formation ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 225

48. The cheek bones are which of the following bones? a. Zygomatic b. Maxilla c. Occipital d. Lacrimal ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 206

49. What foramen does the spiT naElScoTrB dA goNK thS roEuL ghL?ER.COM a. Jugular b. Lacerum c. Ovale d. Magnum ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 205

50. If vertebral arches do not fuse during fetal development, which of the following will be the

result? a. Spina bifida b. Osteogenesis imperfecta c. Cleft palate d. Ischemic necrosis ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 226

51. Irritation from the patellar tendon pulling on the tibial tuberosity during rapid growth or

overuse of the quadriceps femoris describes which of the following diseases? a. Scheuermann’s b. Legg-Calvé-Perthes c. Osgood-Schlatter d. Paget’s ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: pp. 226-227

52. What type of fracture is most common in children? a. Spiral b. Greenstick c. Stress d. Compound ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 224

53. Which of the following conditions is not due to a developmental problem before birth? a. Spina bifida b. Rickets c. Cleft palate d. Clubfoot ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 226|p. 228

54. Which of the following conditions is related to deficiencies in nutritional intake, absorption,

or assimilation of protein and minerals, cigarette smoking, and inactivity? a. Osteonecrosis b. Osteoporosis c. Osteochondritis dissecans d. Osteomyelitis ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 227

55. When radiation is used to treat a bone disorder or is given as part of the treatment of a

malignancy, bone may a. undergo normal periods of calcium loss followed by periods of excessive new cell growth. b. become brittle and fragile because of the changes in its structure. c. degenerate and become necrotic at the head of the femur, followed by recalcification. d. develop fibrous tissue and cysts, making the bones weak and prone to fracture.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 227

56. Tissue death due to an interrupted blood supply, infection, malignancy, or trauma is a. necrosis. b. scurvy. c. osteoporosis. d. fracture.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 228

57. The disorder most often seen in young boys that occurs when the vascular supply to the head

of the femur is compromised, resulting in developmental deformity, is called a. osteomyelitis. b. shin splints. c. osteonecrosis d. Scheuermann’s disease.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 228

58. What type of fracture occurs when a fragment of bone tears away from the main mass of a

bone? a. Compound b. Simple c. Avulsion d. Greenstick ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 224

59. Which of the following is the type of fracture caused by repeated mechanical strain? a. Compression b. Greenstick c. Stress d. Spiral ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 224

60. If a client falls and hits her head, which type of injury would she most likely have? a. Depressed fracture b. Comminuted fracture c. Necrosis d. Osteoporosis ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 224

61. A deep, sharp, and bruised sensation felt at the arch and at the attachment at the heel is a

symptom of a. osteomyelitis. b. necrosis. c. osteochondritis dissecans. d. plantar fasciitis.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 226

62. Which massage outcome is most beneficial for a client with a fracture that is one week old? a. Pain management b. Scar tissue management c. Reduced anxiety d. Improved mobility ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 226

Chapter 08: Joints Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Literally meaning “inflammation of the joint,” which of the following is the most common

type of joint disorder? a. Arthritis b. Osteoporosis c. Epicondylitis d. Lordosis ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 279

2. Injury to a ligament or tendon involving the tearing off of its attachment is a(n) a. contusion. b. avulsion. c. hematoma. d. microabrasion.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 240

3. What is a slightly movable joint that connects bone to bone with fibrocartilage or hyaline

growth cartilage? a. Diarthrosis b. Syndesmosis c. Amphiarthrosis d. Gomphosis ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 248

4. Structure and shape of a joint, joint capsule, ligaments, and surrounding musculotendinous

and bony structures all determine what type of range of motion? a. Physiologic b. Pathologic c. Anatomic d. Biomechanical ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 250

5. What is the movement of the bone surface in the joint capsule, including roll, spin, and slide? a. Biomechanics b. Joint play c. Anatomic range of motion d. Arthrokinematics ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 250

6. Which of the following is the connection between two or more bones that allows movement in

the body? a. Articulation

b. Subluxation c. Kyphosis d. Hinge ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 235

7. Which of the following joints allows movement in many directions around a central point? a. Hinge b. Ball-and-socket c. Saddle d. Suture ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 257

8. What is the term for a flat sac of synovial membrane that helps ease movement over and

around the joints? a. Tendon b. Ligament c. Bursa d. Capsule ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 239

9. Hyaline, fibrous, and elastic are all types of a. tendons. b. periosteum. c. endosteum. d. cartilage.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 239

10. The positioning of joints in such a way that motion at one of the joints is accompanied by

motion at an adjacent joint is what type of chain? a. Closed kinematic b. Biomechanic c. Open kinematic d. Closed-packed ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 257

11. The only position of a synovial joint in which the surfaces fit precisely together and maximum

contact between the opposing surfaces occurs is in which of the following? a. Closed kinematic chain b. Closed-packed position c. Loose-packed position d. Open kinematic chain ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 251

12. Which of the following is a protein in the form of small fibrils that combine to create the

connective tissue of fasciae, tendons, and ligaments? a. Reticular fibers b. Hyaline

c. Collagen d. Muscle fibers ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 238

13. Movement in two directions, but with one motion predominating, is performed by what type

of joint? a. Diarthrotic b. Hinge c. Saddle d. Condyloid ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 257

14. What is the term for a freely movable synovial joint? a. Diarthrosis b. Synarthrosis c. Syndesmosis d. Gomphosis ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 248

15. Which of the following types of connective tissue fiber has elastic properties and allows

flexibility of connective tissue structures? a. Collagen b. Meniscus c. Elastin d. Reticular ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 238

16. Which of the following is a connective tissue that permits little motion in joints and structures,

is found in places such as the intervertebral disks, and forms the ears? a. Hyaline cartilage b. Elastic cartilage c. Periocartilage d. Fibrocartilage ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 239

17. An articulation in which fibrous tissue connects bone directly to bone is what type of joint? a. Fibrous b. Saddle c. Diarthrotic d. Hinge ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 247

18. What are cystic, round, usually nontender swellings located along tendon sheaths or joint

capsules? a. Synovium b. Bursa c. Ganglia

d. Gout ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 283

19. What is the term for an angular deformity of a collapsed vertebra? a. Kyphosis b. Gout c. Scoliosis d. Gibbus ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 282

20. Which of the following joints allows only a sliding motion in various planes? a. Gliding b. Saddle c. Vertebral d. Synovial ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 257

21. Which of the following joints allows flexion and extension in one direction, changing the

angle of the bones at the joint? a. Ball-and-socket b. Hinge c. Gliding d. Saddle ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 257

22. The thin covering of articular connective tissue on the ends of the bones in freely movable

joints in the adult skeleton is what type of cartilage? a. Fibrous b. Elastic c. Hyaline d. Gliding ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 239

23. A range of motion of a joint greater than what would be permitted normally by the structure

and results in instability is a. hypomobility. b. paramobility. c. submobility. d. hypermobility.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 251

24. What is the range of motion of a joint less than what would be permitted normally by the

structure? a. Hypomobility b. Lordosis c. Hypermobility d. Contracture

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 251

25. Which of the following stabilize joints? a. Ligaments b. Joint capsule c. Tendons d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 239

26. Involuntary movement that occurs between articular surfaces, separate from the range of

motion of a joint produced by muscles, is joint a. stability. b. extensibility. c. play. d. movement.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 250

27. Which of the following describes a synovial joint in which the joint capsule is the most lax? a. Closed-packed position b. Open kinematic chain c. Closed kinematic chain d. Loose-packed position ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 251

28. What is the term for a laterT alEtS iltToBf A thNeKspSinEeL?LER.COM a. Extension b. List c. Contraction d. Flexion ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 282

29. In which of the following are the ends of the limbs or parts of the body free to move without

causing motion at another joint? a. Closed kinematic chain b. Loose-packed position c. Open kinematic chain d. Closed-packed position ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 257

30. The movement of bones by the action of muscles is a. arthrokinematics. b. biomechanics. c. kinesiology. d. osteokinematics.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 250

31. When connective tissue is permanently deformed and is unable to return to its original state,

what range is it said to be in? a. Plastic b. Elastic c. Abnormal d. Distortional ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 240

32. If the motion of a joint either fails its normal range or exceeds its normal limits of motion,

what type of range of motion is the joint in? a. Physiologic b. Pathologic c. Anatomic d. Biomechanical ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 251

33. The nervous system, using information provided by joint sensory receptors, sets what type of

joint range of motion? a. Pathologic b. Anatomic c. Physiologic d. Biomechanical ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: pp. 250-251

34. A bony projection from onT eE boSnTeBthAaN t fKitS sE inL toLaE“R ri. ngC”OfM ormed by another bone and ligament

structure to allow rotation around its own axis describes what type of joint? a. Ball-and-socket b. Gliding c. Saddle d. Pivot ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 254

35. What is another name for adduction of the spine? a. Lateral flexion b. Extension rotation c. Medial extension d. Abduction rotation ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 252

36. The tearing or disruption of connective tissue fibers that takes place when they exceed the

limits of the plastic range is a. bruise. b. rupture. c. avulsion. d. contusion.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 240

37. Convex in one plane and concave in the other, with the surfaces fitting together, describes

what type of joint? a. Condyloid b. Symphysis c. Saddle d. Hinge ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 257

38. A synarthrotic joint in which two bony components are united by a thin layer of dense fibrous

tissue is what type of joint? a. Hinge b. Symphysis c. Pivot d. Suture ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 247

39. Two bony components that are joined directly by fibrocartilage in the form of a disk or plate

is called a a. symphysis. b. saddle joint. c. pivot joint. d. synchondrosis.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 248

40. What is a limited-movemeT ntE , nSoTnB syAnN ovKiaSl EjoLinLt?ER.COM a. Diarthrosis b. Synarthrosis c. Symphysis d. Synchondrosis ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 247

41. A joint in which the material used for connecting the two components is hyaline cartilage is

called a a. symphysis. b. diarthrosis. c. synchondrosis. d. syndesmosis.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 248

42. A fibrous joint in which two bony components are joined directly by a ligament, cord, or

aponeurotic membrane is a a. symphysis. b. diarthrosis. c. synchondrosis. d. syndesmosis.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 247

43. The thick, colorless, lubricating fluid secreted by the joint cavity membrane is a. synovial fluid. b. plasma. c. collagen. d. lymph.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 248

44. Which of the following joints is freely movable and allows motion in one or more planes of

action? a. Symphysis b. Synovial c. Suture d. Gomphosis ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 248

45. The combination of resistance offered by a fluid to a change of form and the ability of

material to return to its original state after deformation is a. piezoelectricity. b. elasticity. c. viscoelasticity. d. extensibility.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 240

46. Which of the following is opaque, flexible, and elastic? a. Fibrocartilage b. Hyaline cartilage c. Yellow fibrous cartilage d. Yellow elastic cartilage ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 239

47. Which of the following is mostly likely when connective tissue massage fails to increase

pliability of the tissue? a. Vitamin E deficiency b. Dehydration c. Lack of muscle strength d. Ineffective lymphatic drainage techniques ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 240

48. It would be the most difficult to achieve changes in joint function in a client who is a a. construction worker with a hypomobile left elbow. b. middle-aged cyclist with scar tissue shortening from a broken ankle. c. tennis player with tennis elbow. d. factory worker with laxity in the sacroiliac joint.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 240

49. A college football player has had multiple medial collateral ligament sprains in his left lower

limb. Although there is no injury now, it continues to bother him. Which of the following treatment plans would be the most appropriate for the massage therapist to perform? a. Friction on the medial side of the knee to create mild inflammation b. Trigger point methods in the foot and stretching c. Compression and myofascial release at the medial malleolus d. Shaking and rocking of the knee, with friction at the patella tendon ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 242

50. The connective tissue surrounding a client’s ankle is short and binding. The client wears high

heel shoes to work every day and complains of limited range of motion and slight knee pain.

The most appropriate treatment plan for the massage therapist to perform would be to a. begin with deep friction to the ankle with myofascial stretching. b. begin with deep friction to the knee area with myofascial stretching. c. do a general, full-body massage with muscle energy techniques to the calves followed by myofascial stretching to the area. d. do myofascial stretching to the ankle followed by a general, full-body massage with muscle energy techniques last on the calves.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 276

51. Which of the following mechanical force produced stress has the potential for the most

serious joint injury? a. Compression b. Shear c. Bend d. Torsion ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 247

52. The massage practitioner wants to evaluate the arthrokinematics of the radiocarpal joint. He

would do this by assessing a. joint play of the wrist. b. range of motion of the knee. c. joint play of the ankle. d. closed-packed position of the wrist.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 263

53. During standing assessment, it appears that a client has a bilateral anterior tilt of the pelvis.

This is resulting in compression of the sacroiliac joint and low back aching. Upon observing and palpating the client, it is most likely that the massage practitioner will find the client has a. buttocks that are prominent with lordosis. b. rotated left with scoliosis. c. one hip higher than the other. d. externally rotated hips.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 282

54. Which of the following is an immune-related type of inflammatory joint disease? a. Contusion

b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Ganglion d. Osteoarthritis ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 280

55. Which of the following is actually three joints in one? a. Shoulder b. Elbow c. Hip d. Knee ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 267

56. Which of the following pairs of joints has the most dissimilar design? a. Knee and elbow b. Tarsals and carpals c. Metatarsophalangeal and knee d. Pubis symphysis and radiocarpal ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 257|p. 267

57. A client has sprained the coracoclavicular ligament. The injury is located in the a. shoulder. b. ribs. c. neck. d. sternum.

ANS: A

DIF:

T2ESTBANKSRE L:LE EF p.R2.

61COM

58. Which of the following massage techniques would best address osteoarthritis of the knee? a. Mild traction of the joint followed by a cold compress b. Compression of the joint followed by a hot compress c. Passive joint movement to the area, with stretching exercises that cause slight

inflammation and pain to the area d. Deep friction to the surrounding muscles of the affected knee ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 280

59. A 48-year-old female was a cheerleader in high school and college, and severely sprained her

knee at least four times. Which of the following pathologies would she be the most prone to develop from these injuries? a. Ganglion b. Infectious arthritis c. Adhesive capsulitis d. Degenerative joint disease ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 279

60. A massage therapist has developed bursitis in the shoulder from repetitive overuse due to poor

body mechanics. In addition to correcting her body mechanics and receiving proper medical and massage treatments, which of the following can she also easily do for herself to alleviate the bursitis?

a. b. c. d.

Perform myofascial release.

Use deep transverse friction on the area.

Apply ice on the area.

Start lifting weights.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 278|p. 279

61. Most joints function in the body to provide a. protection. b. information about equilibrium. c. mobility and stability. d. information about the external environment.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 237

62. A characteristic of ligaments, tendons, menisci, and sesamoid bones is that they are all a. connective tissue structures found in or around joints. b. made of elastin. c. made of piezoelectric collagen. d. forms of bursa.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 237

63. What is an example of a synarthrotic fibrous joint? a. Symphysis pubis b. Scapulothoracic junction c. Sagittal suture d. Sacroiliac joint ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 247

64. In a synovial joint, what position bring bone ends together? a. Least packed b. Most packed c. Closed-packed d. Loose-packed ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 251

65. The range-of-motion limits set by the joint sensory receptors are considered a. opposition. b. anatomic range. c. osteokinematic. d. physiologic.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 250|p. 251

66. The movement of a joint toward the midline of the trunk is a. horizontal abduction. b. adduction. c. horizontal adduction. d. opposition.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 252

67. Internal rotation is known as what other type of rotation? a. Medial b. Lateral c. Upward d. Downward ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 252

68. A kinematic chain describes the association between joints as they a. compensate as a result of an injury. b. provide the involuntary movement in a joint. c. operate in relation to each other. d. move in ball-and-socket joints.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 257

69. The acromioclavicular joint is formed between the clavicle and the a. manubrium. b. mandible. c. costal bone. d. scapula.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 260

70. What kind of joint is the glenohumeral joint? a. Ball-and-socket b. Hinge c. Synovial gliding d. Fibrocartilaginous ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 260

71. The radioulnar joint provides which of the following movements? a. Flexion and extension b. Pronation and supination c. Elevation and depression d. Medial and lateral rotation ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 262

72. What joints connect the pelvic and shoulder girdle to the trunk? a. Lumbar and sacral b. Pubofemoral and ischiofemoral c. Sacroiliac and sternoclavicular d. Acetabulum and femur ANS: C

DIF: 1

73. What bones articulate at the knee? a. Patella, tibia, and femur b. Patella, fibula, and femur

REF: p. 260|p. 264

c. Fibula, tibia, and femur d. Tibia, patella, and fibula ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 267

74. The anatomical name of the ankle joint is a. talocrural. b. talocalcaneal. c. medial collateral. d. tarsometatarsal.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 269

75. The costospinal joints allow a gliding motion between the a. adjacent vertebrae. b. ribs and sternum. c. coracoid process and ribs. d. rib and an adjoining vertebra.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 274

76. Which of the following joints is most likely to first develop osteoarthritis? a. Wrist b. Hip c. Shoulder d. Elbow ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 279

77. Repetitive extension of the wrist or pronation and supination of the forearm can result in

which of the following? a. Lateral epicondylitis b. Adhesive capsulitis c. Medial meniscus strain d. Gouty arthritis ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 279

78. Louise is 64 years old and has had scoliosis most of her life. Which of the following is the

most appropriate massage treatment application for Louise’s scoliosis? a. Aggressive elimination of any associated muscle spasms b. Focus on pain relief methods that will help the body manage the dysfunctional pattern c. Loosen associated muscles so that affected vertebrae will come out of rotation d. Avoid massaging any of the affected muscles ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 282

79. A characteristic of adhesive capsulitis is that it a. occurs bilaterally in the body. b. most often affects persons who are in their twenties. c. restricts movement of the shoulder. d. lasts for only a few weeks.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 282

80. Which of the following is an inflammatory joint disease that could be caused by a bacterium? a. Infectious arthritis b. Gout c. Ankylosis spondylitis d. Ganglion ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 280

81. Which of the following disorders is a regional contraindication for massage? a. Flare-up stage of rheumatoid arthritis b. Hip affected by osteoarthritis c. Great toe swollen with gout d. Shoulder affected by adhesive capsulitis ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 280

82. When massaging a client who has paralysis, what should be the treatment goal? a. Restore normal muscle function. b. Increase range of motion of affected joints. c. Maintain pliability of connective tissues. d. Stimulate sensory feedback mechanisms.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 282

83. What is the most mobile joint in the body? a. Radiocarpal b. Glenohumeral c. Radiohumeral d. Tibiofemoral ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 260

84. The glenohumeral joint is most easily palpated when the arm is slowly moved in a. circumduction. b. active extension. c. horizontal abduction. d. medial rotation.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 262

85. Constant static stress on the joints results in which of the following joint conditions? a. Repetitive overuse b. Kyphosis c. Immune-related arthritis d. Gout ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 278

86. Joint injuries usually are classified as dislocations and a. wear and tear.

b. sprains. c. instability. d. inflammation.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 280

87. The wrenching of a joint with rupture or tearing of the ligaments and/or joint capsule is a a. fracture. b. separation. c. strain. d. sprain.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 280

88. Extensive injury to joint structures including full ligament tears, the inability to bear weight,

and loss of normal ROM (range of motion) is considered what degree of injury? a. Zero b. First c. Second d. Third ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 281

89. The detrimental effects of immobilization include all of the following except a. development of fibrofatty connective tissue within the joint space. b. adhesions between the folds of the synovium. c. increased tissue pliability and scar tissue. d. atrophy of cartilage and reS giT onBaAl N osKteSoE poLros TE LEisR. .COM ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 281

90. Which of the following conditions is a type of arthritis? a. Ganglia b. Scoliosis c. Gout d. Gibbus ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 280

91. Which of the following conditions involves fibrosis in the glenohumeral joint? a. Adhesive capsulitis b. Lateral epicondylitis c. Medial epicondylosis d. Spondylolisthesis ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 282

92. Which of the following conditions is most indicated for massage therapy? a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Spondylolisthesis c. Lordosis d. Spondylitis

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 283

93. A posterior or posterolateral protrusion of the nucleus pulposus through a tear in the annulus

fibrosus, placing pressure on nerves describes a. a herniated disk. b. scoliosis. c. rheumatoid arthritis. d. spondylosis.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 282

Chapter 09: Muscles Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What are the connections of skeletal muscles to bones? a. Attachments b. Articulations c. Motor points d. Proprioceptors ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 289

2. What is the term for a muscle that primarily causes joint motion through a specified plane of

motion? a. Antagonist b. Agonist c. Fixator d. Synergist ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 299

3. The term for a muscle cell either contracting to its full ability or not contracting at all is a. threshold response. b. all-or-none response. c. cross-bridge formation. d. fiber recruitment.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 294

4. What type of muscle is usually located on the opposite side of a joint from the agonist and has

an opposing action? a. Prime mover b. Synergist c. Antagonist d. Fixator ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 299

5. What is a broad, flat sheet of fibrous connective tissue? a. Fascia b. Aponeurosis c. Subcutaneous membrane d. Basal membrane ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 303

6. A muscle developing tension as it shortens to provide enough force to overcome resistance is

known as what type of action? a. Isotonic b. Isometric

c. Eccentric d. Concentric ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 293

7. The ability of a muscle to shorten forcibly with adequate stimulation is a. elasticity. b. contractility. c. extensibility. d. flexibility.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 292

8. Which of the following primarily affects young males? a. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy b. Fascioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy c. Dupuytren’s contracture d. Volkmann’s contracture ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 468

9. What is another word for a bruise? a. Strain b. Contusion c. Contracture d. Evulsion ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 467

10. What is the term for the painful muscle spasms or involuntary twitches that involve the whole

muscle? a. Hysteresis b. Contractures c. Cramps d. Strain ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 466

11. The slow movement of viscoelastic materials back to their original state and tissue structure

after release of a deforming force is a. contractility. b. elasticity. c. reforming. d. creep.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 306

12. What is the term for a coarse sheet of fibrous connective tissue that binds muscles into

functional groups and forms partitions between muscle groups? a. Deep fascia b. Aponeurosis c. Epimysium d. Perimysium

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 303

13. Movement in or of an object is the result of the application of what type of force? a. Isometric b. Dynamic c. Eccentric d. Static ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 290

14. A muscle lengthening while under tension because its contractile force is not enough to

overcome resistance is known as what type of action? a. Concentric b. Isometric c. Eccentric d. Isotonic ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 293

15. The ability of a muscle to recoil and resume its original resting length after being stretched is a. flexibility. b. contractility. c. extensibility. d. elasticity.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 292

16. What is the ability of a muT scEleStT oB reAceNivKeSaEnL dL reE spRo. ndCO toMa stimulus? a. Excitability b. Contractility c. Extensibility d. Elasticity ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 292

17. What is the ability of a muscle to be stretched or extended? a. Excitability b. Extensibility c. Contractility d. Responsivity ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 292

18. What is the subcutaneous tissue that connects the skin to the muscles? a. Collagen b. Elastin c. Fascia d. Cartilage ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 288

19. The term for a muscle surrounding a joint or body part that contracts to stabilize the area,

enabling another limb or body segment to exert force and move is a. prime mover. b. agonist. c. antagonist. d. fixator.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 299

20. Symptoms of widespread pain or aching, persistent fatigue, generalized morning stiffness, and

multiple tender points describe which of the following? a. Fibromyalgia b. Muscular dystrophy c. Anterior compartment syndrome d. Myositis ossificans ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 466

21. What term is used to describe a muscle with decreased or absent tone? a. Myopathic b. Flaccid c. Spastic d. Strain ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 467

22. Which of the following is associated with motor neuron disorders? a. Strain b. Torticollis c. Flaccid muscle d. Whiplash ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 467

23. What is the distal attachment of a muscle? a. Origin b. Motor point c. Tender point d. Insertion ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 289

24. Tension developing within a muscle while its length stays the same because its contractile

force equals resistance describes what type of action? a. Isometric b. Isotonic c. Eccentric d. Concentric ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 293

25. Tension developing in the muscle while it shortens or lengthens describes what type of

action?

a. b. c. d.

Isometric Isotonic Eccentric Concentric

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 293

26. The point at which all motor units of a muscle have been recruited and the muscle is unable to

increase in strength is known as a. threshold stimulus. b. all-or-none response. c. maximal stimulus. d. maximum motor recruitment.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 297

27. What is a motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it controls? a. Motor unit b. Trigger point c. Neuromuscular synapse d. Tender point ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 296

28. The location where the motor neuron enters the muscle and where a visible contraction can be

elicited with a minimum amount of stimulation is what type of point? a. Trigger b. Tender c. Acupressure d. Motor ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 295

29. The part of the muscle that attaches closest to the midline of the body, and the least movable

part of a muscle, is its a. origin. b. insertion. c. belly. d. tendon.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 289

30. What is the term for the extra amount of oxygen that must be taken in to convert lactic acid to

glucose or glycogen? a. Oxygenation b. Oxygen debt c. Asphyxiation d. Hyperventilation ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 297

31. What is the term for stimulation of an antagonist muscle to prevent action in the prime mover? a. Gate control theory

b. Reciprocal inhibition c. Reflex arc d. Cross extensor reflex ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 302

32. The term for muscle contraction in which the attachment that normally stays fixed moves and

the attachment that usually moves stays fixed is a. reciprocal inhibition. b. reciprocal innervation. c. isotonic contraction. d. reverse action.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 289

33. What is the term for power applied to an object in such a way that it does not produce

movement? a. Static force b. Dynamic force c. Isometric contraction d. Isotonic contraction ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 290

34. The term for a muscle that aids or assists the action of the agonist but is not primarily

responsible for the action is a. antagonist. b. synergist. c. fixator. d. prime mover.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 299

35. Which of the following terms is used to describe a muscle with excessive tone? a. Flaccid b. Extensible c. Spastic d. Flexible ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 467

36. The minimal amount of tautness in a muscle is resting a. tone. b. treppe. c. excitability. d. contractility.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

37. What attaches muscle to bone? a. Joint capsule b. Bursa c. Tendon

REF: p. 296

d. Ligament ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 303

38. The first observable muscle contraction occurs at the a. maximum stimulus. b. all-or-none response. c. threshold stimulus. d. resting tone.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 297

39. What is the state of tension in resting muscles? a. Stress b. Innervation c. Excitability d. Tone ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 296

40. What is the term for a hyperirritable area within a taut band of skeletal muscle located in the

muscular tissue and/or its associated fascia? a. Motor point b. Trigger point c. Acupressure point d. Tender point ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 296

41. Which of the following properties of connective tissue is being affected with myofascial

massage application? a. Thixotropy b. Contractility c. Resiliency d. Continuity ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 306

42. During massage, the massage practitioner is addressing the fascia at the base of the skull, and

the client indicates that she can feel a pull in her lower back. What is the underlying principle for this response? a. Hysteresis b. Tensegrity c. All-or-none d. Stretch reflex ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 306

43. A massage therapist has determined that trapezius, deltoid, pectoralis minor, and latissimus

dorsi are involved with the hypomobility of the shoulder. All these muscles are involved because they are part of a a. tendon reflex. b. pennate muscle design.

c. myotatic unit. d. closed kinetic chain.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 300

44. What type of reflex is not involved in various muscle energy methods used by massage

therapists? a. Oculopelvic b. Tendon c. Stretch d. Vagal ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 301|p. 302

45. A client is complaining of a tension headache at the base of his skull and over his eyebrows.

Which of the following muscle pairs is likely responsible? a. Risorius and mentalis b. Platysma and buccinator c. Digastric and infraspinatus d. Occipital and frontalis ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 315

46. A client is complaining of pain in the rhomboid region and under the scapula. A cause could

be trigger points in which of the following muscles? a. Scalenus posterior b. Posterior serratus inferior c. Rectus capitis posterioT rm EaSjor TBANKSELLER.COM d. Transversus thoracis ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 340

47. Pain in the area of the sacroiliac joint could be due to pain in which of the following muscles? a. Semispinalis thoracis b. Multifidus c. Pectineus d. Fibularis brevis ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 349

48. If the gluteus medius is inhibited and long, which of the following muscles would be

correspondingly short? a. Adductor magnus b. Abductor hallucis c. Popliteus d. Pronator quadratus ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 392

49. The tibialis anterior is distal to which of the following muscles? a. Vastus lateralis b. Fibularis longus c. Extensor hallucis brevis

d. Soleus ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 310|p. 311

50. If a client has pain and weakness in the calf, which of the following muscles may be able to

perform some actions of the gastrocnemius? a. Rectus femoris b. Semimembranosus c. Vastus medialis d. Piriformis ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 408

51. The most common action of a muscle during eccentric function is to a. stabilize the joint above the moving joint. b. assist concentric movement of the agonist. c. restrain and control concentric movement of its antagonist. d. perform concentric deceleration of the fixators.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 293

52. When a muscle transforms chemical energy into mechanical energy, it a. loses strength. b. incurs damage. c. can exert force. d. can relax.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 290

53. What type of muscle tissue provides the movements necessary for survival? a. Skeletal b. Cardiac c. Smooth d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 291

54. Which functional characteristic of muscle allows it to be stretched? a. Extensibility b. Excitability c. Contractility d. Elasticity ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 292

55. What is it called when a muscle cell contracts? a. Contractility b. All-or-none response c. Cross-bridging d. Muscle hypertrophy ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 292

56. What is the term for a group of muscle fibers that receive nerve stimulation from one neuron? a. Myofibril b. Motor unit c. Trigger point d. Motor point ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 296

57. What slightly contracted state of a muscle keeps it ready to respond? a. Treppe b. Maximum stimulus c. Tone d. Flaccidity ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 296

58. Glucose is converted to lactic acid due to which event? a. Heat buildup b. Oxygen debt c. Recruitment d. Dehydration ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 297

59. The term for connective tissue that binds muscle fibers together is a. endomysium. b. fascicle. c. perimysium. d. deep fascia.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 303

60. The attachment of a muscle that is the most movable is the a. insertion. b. origin. c. ligament. d. belly.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 289

61. Which of the following is a characteristic of pennate muscle? a. Begins with a broad origin and converges to a smaller tendon b. Located around external body openings c. Shaped like a feather d. Rounded in the middle with an expanded belly ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 301

62. What muscle has the opposite action of the prime mover? a. Agonist b. Antagonist c. Synergist d. Fixator

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 299

63. Proprioceptors in and around the muscles and joints provide information on which of the

following? a. Tension in the tendons b. Sudden and prolonged stretch to the muscle c. Pressure, acceleration, and deceleration of joint movement d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 301

64. What does the stretch reflex cause to happen? a. Yawning and stretching during fatigue b. Muscle relaxation c. Muscle shortening for protection d. Loss of tone in a muscle ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 301

65. What reflexes explain why tension patterns are seldom one-sided? a. Stretch and tendon b. Tendon and flexor c. Flexor and crossed extensor d. Tendon and postisometric ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 302

66. Which is an action of the eT xtEeS nsT orBdAigNiK toS ruEmLbLreEvRis.? COM a. Extension of toes 2 through 4 at the metatarsophalangeal and interphalangeal joints b. Flexion of fingers 2 through 4 at the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal

joints c. Flexion of toes 2 through 4 at the metatarsophalangeal and interphalangeal joints d. Extension of fingers 2 through 4 at the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal

joints ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 414

67. If a muscle crosses the metatarsophalangeal and/or interphalangeal joints on the plantar side

of the foot, it will most likely have what action on the toes? a. Abduction b. Extension c. Flexion d. Adduction ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 406

68. What action does the quadratus plantae have on toes 2 through 5? a. Abduction b. Adduction c. Extension d. Flexion

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 417

69. Which of the following is an action of the interossei plantares? a. Extension of fingers 3 through 5 at the metacarpophalangeal joint b. Flexion of toes 3 through 5 at the metatarsophalangeal joint c. Flexion of fingers 3 through 5 at the metacarpophalangeal joint d. Extension of toes 3 through 5 at the metatarsophalangeal joint ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 420

70. What are the attachments of the lumbricales pedis? a. Distal tendons of the extensor digitorum longus to the distal tendons of the flexor

digitorum longus b. Distal tendons of the flexor digitorum longus to the distal tendons of the extensor

digitorum longus c. Calcaneus to the distal tendon of the flexor digitorum longus muscle d. Calcaneus to the distal tendon of the extensor digitorum longus muscle ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 417

71. What are the attachments of the flexor hallucis brevis? a. Distal two thirds of the posterior fibula to the plantar surface of toe 1 b. Cuboid and the lateral cuneiform to toes 2 through 5 c. Tuberosity of the calcaneus to toe 1 d. Cuboid and the lateral cuneiform to toe 1 ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 418

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

72. What are the attachments of the adductor hallucis? a. Tuberosity of the calcaneus to toe 1 b. Metatarsals to toe 1 c. Metatarsals to toe 5 d. Tuberosity of the calcaneus to toe 1 ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 419

73. Which of the following is an action of the temporalis on the mandible at the TMJ? a. Protraction b. Depression c. Contralateral deviation d. Elevation ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 327

74. Which is an action of the lateral pterygoid on the mandible at the TMJ? a. Retraction b. Protraction c. Depression d. Elevation ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 327

75. Which of the following is an action of the orbicularis oris?

a. b. c. d.

Constricts the nostril Opens the mouth Draws the angle of the mouth laterally Protracts the lips

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 320

76. What are the attachments of the masseter? a. Sphenoid bone to the internal surface of the mandible b. Sphenoid bone to the mandible and the temporomandibular joint c. Inferior margins of both the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic arch of the

temporal bone to the angle, ramus, and coronoid process of the mandible d. Temporal fossa to the coronoid process and ramus of the mandible ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 326

77. What are the attachments of the medial pterygoid? a. Sphenoid bone to the mandible and the temporomandibular joint b. Temporal fossa to the coronoid process and ramus of the mandible c. Sphenoid bone to the internal surface of the mandible d. Inferior margins of both the zygomatic bone and the zygomatic arch of the

temporal bone to the angle, ramus, and coronoid process of the mandible ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 328

78. Which of the following muscles attach to the ear? a. Auricularis anterior b. Auricularis superior c. Auricularis posterior d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 318

79. In Latin, what does the word buccinator mean? a. Chef b. To whistle c. Trumpeter d. Musician ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 324

80. Which of the following is an action of the trapezius? a. Flexion of the neck at the spinal joints b. Flexion of the arm at the shoulder joint c. Ipsilateral rotation of the neck at the spinal joints d. Lateral flexion of the neck at the spinal joints ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 424

81. Which of the following is an action of the sternocleidomastoid? a. Ipsilateral rotation of the neck at the spinal joints b. Flexion of the neck at the spinal joints c. Depression of the scapula at the scapulocostal joint

d. Extension of the neck at the spinal joints ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 331

82. Which of the following is an action of the geniohyoid? a. Depression of the thyroid cartilage b. Elevation of the thyroid cartilage c. Depression of the hyoid bone d. Elevation of the hyoid bone ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 333

83. Which of the following is an action of the scalene anterior? a. Elevation of the scapula at the scapulocostal joint b. Elevation of the third rib at the sternocostal and costovertebral joints c. Flexion of the neck at the spinal joints d. Extension of the neck at the spinal joints ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 339

84. What are the attachments of the trapezius? a. Occiput, nuchal ligament, and spinous process of C7–T12 to the lateral clavicle,

acromion process, and spine of the scapula b. Occiput, nuchal ligament, and spinous process of C7–T12 to the mastoid process

of the temporal bone and the occipital bone c. Nuchal ligament and spinous process of C7–T4 to the mastoid process of the

temporal bone and the occipital bone d. Occiput, nuchal ligameTnE t, S anTdBsA piN noKuSsEpL roL ceEsR s o.fCCO1M –L5 to the lateral clavicle,

acromion process, and spine of the scapula

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 424

85. What are the attachments of the sternohyoid? a. Thyroid cartilage to the hyoid b. Sternum to the thyroid cartilage c. Scapula to the clavicle and the hyoid bone d. Manubrium to the hyoid ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 334

86. What are the attachments of the sternocleidomastoid? a. Manubrium of the sternum and the medial clavicle to the inferior nuchal line of the

occipital bone b. First rib and the medial clavicle to the mastoid process of the temporal bone c. Manubrium of the sternum and the medial clavicle to the transverse process of the

atlas (C1) d. Manubrium of the sternum and the medial clavicle to the mastoid process of the

temporal bone ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 331

87. The anterior neck attaching inferiorly on the hyoid bone describes the location of the a. scalenes.

b. infrahyoids. c. erector spinae. d. suprahyoids.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: pp. 334-336

88. Which of the following is an action of the latissimus dorsi? a. Anterior tilt of the pelvis at the lumbosacral joint b. Flexion of the arm at the shoulder joint c. Flexion of the forearm at the elbow joint d. Posterior tilt of the pelvis at the lumbosacral joint ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 436

89. Which of the following is an action of the erector spinae group? a. Extension of the trunk, neck, and head at the spinal joints b. Extension of the arm at the shoulder joint c. Contralateral rotation of the trunk, neck, and head at the spinal joints d. Flexion of the trunk, neck, and head at the spinal joints ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: pp. 344-346

90. What are the attachments of the latissimus dorsi? a. Nuchal ligament and the spinous process of C7–T12, posterior sacrum and

posterior iliac crest to the medial lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus b. Spinous process of T7–L5, posterior sacrum and posterior iliac crest to the medial

lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus c. Spinous process of T7–TLE5S , pToB stA erNioKr S ilE iaL cL crE esRt . toCtO heMlateral lip of the bicipital

groove of the humerus

d. Transverse process of T7–L5, posterior sacrum and posterior iliac crest to the

medial aspect of the bicipital groove of the humerus ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 436

91. What are the attachments of the rhomboids? a. Transverse process of C7–T5 to the medial border of the scapula from the root of

the spine of the scapula to the inferior angle of the scapula b. Spinous process of T7–L5, posterior sacrum and posterior iliac crest to the medial

lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus c. Spinous process of C7–T5 to the medial border of the scapula from the root of the

spine of the scapula to the superior angle of the scapula d. Spinous process of T2–T5 to the medial border of the scapula and to the inferior

angle of the scapula ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: pp. 425-426

92. What are the attachments of the pectoralis minor? a. Ribs 5 through 7 to the coracoid process of the scapula b. Medial clavicle, sternum, and the costal cartilages of ribs 1 through 7 to the lateral

lip of the bicipital groove of the humerus c. Ribs 3 through 5 to the coracoid process of the scapula d. Acromion process of the scapula to ribs 3 through 5

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 427

93. Which of the following is an action of the pronator teres? a. Flexion of the arm at the shoulder joint b. Supination of the forearm at the radioulnar joints c. Extension of the forearm at the elbow joint d. Pronation of the forearm at the radioulnar joints ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 443

94. Which of the following is an action of the flexor carpi radialis? a. Flexion of the arm at the shoulder joint b. Supination of the forearm at the radioulnar joints c. Radial deviation (abduction) of the hand at the wrist joint d. Ulnar deviation (adduction) of the hand at the wrist joint ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 447

95. Which of the following is an action of the extensor indicis? a. Extension of the large toe at the metacarpophalangeal and proximal and distal

interphalangeal joints b. Extension of finger 5 at the metacarpophalangeal and proximal and distal

interphalangeal joints c. Extension of finger 2 at the metacarpophalangeal and proximal and distal

interphalangeal joints d. Ulnar deviation (adduction) of the hand at the wrist joint ANS: C

DIF:

T1ESTBANKSRE L:LE EF p.R4.

56COM

96. The actions of the extensor carpi radialis brevis on the hand at the wrist joint include a. flexion and ulnar deviation (adduction). b. extension and radial deviation (abduction). c. flexion and radial deviation (abduction). d. extension and ulnar deviation (adduction).

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 447

97. What are the attachments of the extensor digitorum? a. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus (via the common extensor tendon) to the

phalanges of fingers 2 through 5 b. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus (via the common extensor tendon) to the

phalanges of fingers 1 through 5 c. Medial epicondyle of the humerus (via the common flexor tendon) to the

phalanges of fingers 2 through 5 d. Posterior radius and ulna to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus (via the common

extensor tendon) to the phalanges of fingers 2 through 5 ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 452

98. What are the attachments of the brachioradialis? a. Medial epicondyle of the humerus (via the common flexor tendon) to the radial

hand on the anterior side

b. Lateral supracondylar ridge of the humerus to the styloid process of the radius c. Medial supracondylar ridge of the humerus to the styloid process of the ulna d. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus to the styloid process of the radius ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 442

99. What are the attachments of the anconeus? a. Medial condyle of the femur to the proximal posterior fibula b. Lateral sacrum to the greater trochanter of the femur c. Medial epicondyle of the humerus to the posterior talus d. Lateral epicondyle of the humerus to the posterior ulna ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 445

100. Which muscles attach to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus via a common tendon? a. Flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor digitorum profundus b. Brachioradialis and extensor carpi radialis longus c. Extensor carpi ulnaris and flexor carpi ulnaris d. Extensor digitorum and extensor digiti minimi ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 452|p. 453

101. The palmaris longus arises proximally from the medial epicondyle of the humerus as a part of

what structure? a. Common extensor tendon b. Bicipital aponeurosis c. Common flexor tendon d. Palmar aponeurosis ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 447

102. Between the two heads of the pronator teres runs what nerve? a. Median b. Radial c. Musculocutaneous d. Axillary ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 443

103. Which of the following is an action of the abductor pollicis brevis at the carpometacarpal

joint? a. Lateral rotation of the thumb b. Flexion of finger 2 c. Abduction of the thumb d. Medial rotation of the thumb ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 458

104. Which of the following is an action of the opponens pollicis on the thumb at the

carpometacarpal joint? a. Abduction b. Extension c. Lateral rotation

d. Opposition of the thumb ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 458

105. All of the hypothenar muscles move a. the thumb. b. finger 2. c. fingers 3 through 4. d. finger 5.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 460|p. 461

106. What are the attachments of the abductor pollicis brevis? a. Extensor retinaculum and the carpals to the metacarpal of the thumb b. Flexor retinaculum and the carpals to the distal phalanx of the thumb c. Flexor retinaculum and the carpals to the proximal phalanx of the thumb d. Extensor retinaculum and the carpals to the proximal phalanx of the thumb ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 458

107. Which of the following muscles attaches to the thumb? a. Lumbricalis manus b. Palmar interossei c. Dorsal interossei manus d. Adductor pollicis ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 462

BA 108. What are the three intrinsicThEaS ndTm usNclKeS s oEfLthLeEthRe.nC arOeM minence? a. Abductor digiti minimi pedis, flexor digiti minimi pedis, and opponens digiti minimi b. Abductor pollicis brevis, flexor pollicis brevis, and opponens pollicis c. Abductor digiti minimi manus, flexor digiti minimi manus, and opponens digiti

minimi d. Adductor pollicis, lumbricalis manus, and dorsal interossei manus ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 458|p. 559

109. Which of the following is an action of the psoas major? a. Flexion of the trunk at the spinal joints b. Abduction of the thigh at the hip joint c. Ipsilateral rotation of the trunk at the spinal joints d. Medial rotation of the thigh at the hip joint ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 365

110. Which of the following is an action of the gluteus medius? a. Flexion of the trunk at the spinal joints b. Abduction of the thigh at the hip joint c. Flexion of the leg at the knee joint d. Extension of the trunk at the sacroiliac joint ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 378

111. Which of the following are actions of the gluteus maximus? a. Extension and flexion of the thigh at the hip joint b. Extension and lateral rotation of the thigh at the hip joint c. Lateral rotation and medial rotation of the thigh at the hip joint d. Flexion and extension of the leg at the knee joint ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 377

112. Which of the following muscles cause medial rotation of the thigh at the hip joint? a. Psoas major and iliacus b. Gluteus maximus and quadratus femoris c. Gluteus medius and gluteus minimus d. Superior gemellus and inferior gemellus ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 378

113. What are the attachments of the psoas major? a. Posteromedial lumbar spine to the greater trochanter of the femur b. Anterolateral lumbar spine to the lesser trochanter of the femur c. Posterolateral lumbar spine to the lesser trochanter of the femur d. Anterolateral lumbar spine to the greater trochanter of the femur ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 365

114. What are the attachments of the gluteus medius? a. External ilium to the greater trochanter of the femur b. Internal ilium to the midshaft of the femur TESTBANKSELLER.COM c. External ilium to the lesser trochanter of the femur d. Internal ilium to the linea aspera of the femur ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 378

115. What are the attachments of the obturator externus? a. External surface of the pelvic bone surrounding the obturator foramen to the

greater trochanter of the femur b. Internal surface of the pelvic bone surrounding the obturator foramen to the greater trochanter of the femur c. Anterior sacrum to the lesser trochanter of the femur d. External surface of the pelvic bone surrounding the obturator foramen to the trochanteric fossa of the femur ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 381

116. Which of the following muscles attaches to the iliotibial band? a. Piriformis b. Gluteus medius c. Gluteus maximus d. Obturator internus ANS: C

DIF: 3

117. What does the word piriformis mean?

REF: p. 381

a. b. c. d.

Thigh Pear shaped Apple shaped Pelvis

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 380

118. What nerve gets compressed by the piriformis muscle in piriformis syndrome? a. Sciatic b. Obturator c. Lumbosacral d. Femoral ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 380

119. Which of the following is an action of the adductor brevis? a. Adduction of the thigh at the hip joint b. Abduction of the arm at the shoulder joint c. Abduction of the thigh at the hip joint d. Adduction of the arm at the shoulder joint ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 391

120. Which of the following is an action of the semitendinosus? a. Dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle joint b. Extension of the forearm at the elbow joint c. Anterior tilt of the pelvis at the hip joint d. Posterior tilt of the pelvTiE s aStTthBeAhN ipKjS oiE ntLLER.COM ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 385

121. What are the attachments of the sartorius? a. Anterior inferior iliac spine to the iliotibial band b. Anterior inferior iliac spine to the pes anserine tendon c. Anterior superior iliac spine to the pes anserine tendon d. Anterior superior iliac spine to the iliotibial band ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 394

122. What are the attachments of the rectus femoris? a. Pubic bone to the distal one third of the shaft of the tibia b. Anterior superior iliac spine to the tibial tuberosity c. Anterior inferior iliac spine to the tibial tuberosity d. Ischium to the middle one third of the shaft of the tibia ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 395

123. What are the attachments of the adductors of the thigh group? a. Pubis to the medial shaft of the femur b. Ilium and ischium to the medial shaft of the femur and the pes anserine tendon (at

the proximal anteromedial tibia) c. Pubis and ischial tuberosity to the posterior shaft and linea aspera of the femur and the pes anserine tendon (at the proximal anteromedial tibia)

d. Anterior superior iliac spine to the linea aspera of the femur and the tibial

tuberosity ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: pp. 391-393

124. Which of the following muscles attaches to the head of the fibula? a. Semimembranous b. Biceps femoris c. Semitendinous d. Rectus femoris ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 386

125. What does sartorius mean? a. Tailor b. Comb c. Graceful d. Long ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 394

126. What muscle has the most prominent tendon in the groin region? a. Gracilis b. Pectineus c. Adductor longus d. Adductor brevis ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 392

127. Which of the following is an action of the tibialis anterior? a. Dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle joint b. Plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint c. Eversion of the foot at the tarsal joints d. Flexion of the leg at the knee joint ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 401

128. Which of the following is an action of the extensor digitorum longus? a. Flexion of the leg at the knee joint b. Flexion of toes 2 through 5 at the metatarsophalangeal and interphalangeal joints c. Extension of toes 2 through 5 at the metatarsophalangeal and interphalangeal joints d. Plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 402

129. Which of the following is an action of the gastrocnemius? a. Eversion of the foot at the tarsal joints b. Extension of the leg at the knee joint c. Plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint d. Dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle joint ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 411

130. Which of the following are actions of the fibularis brevis? a. Plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint and inversion of the foot at the tarsal

joints b. Dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle joint and eversion of the foot at the tarsal

joints c. Dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle joint and inversion of the foot at the tarsal

joints d. Plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint and eversion of the foot at the tarsal

joints ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 405

131. What are the attachments of the tibialis anterior? a. Proximal anterior fibula to the dorsal surface of toes 2 through 5 b. Proximal anterior tibia to the medial foot c. Middle anterior fibula to the dorsal surface of the big toe (toe 1) d. Distal anterior fibula to the fifth metatarsal ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 401

132. What are the attachments of the fibularis longus? a. Proximal anterior tibia to the medial foot b. Distal lateral fibula to the lateral foot c. Proximal lateral fibula to the medial foot d. Distal anterior fibula to the fifth metatarsal ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 405

133. Which of the following muscles attaches to the proximal lateral fibula? a. Tibialis anterior b. Fibularis brevis c. Tibialis posterior d. Fibularis longus ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 405

134. Which of the following muscles attach to the calcaneus? a. Plantaris b. Gastrocnemius c. Soleus d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: pp. 410-411

135. Which of the following muscles attach to the Achilles tendon? a. Tibialis posterior and gastrocnemius b. Soleus and fibularis longus c. Gastrocnemius and soleus d. Tibialis anterior and fibularis longus ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: pp. 410-411

136. To address the myofascial component of the body, how should massage be applied?

a. b. c. d.

Rapidly and with short strokes Slowly and with sustained drag Using strong percussive movements Using light gliding strokes

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 306

137. Which of the following pairs of muscles have opposing actions on the foot at the ankle joint? a. Fibularis longus and tibialis anterior b. Fibularis longus and fibularis brevis c. Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus d. Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 401|p. 405

138. What muscles attach to the tibia via the pes anserinus tendon? a. Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus b. Adductor magnus, semitendinosus, vastus medialis c. Rectus femoris, semimembranosus, adductor longus d. Semitendinosus, sartorius, gracilis ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 385|p. 393|p. 394

139. What action do rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, and vastus intermedius all

have in common? a. Extension of the leg at the knee joint b. Flexion of the thigh at the hip joint c. Flexion of the leg at thT eE knSeT eB joA inNt KSELLER.COM d. Extension of the thigh at the hip joint ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: pp. 395-398

140. Which of the following muscles is often involved in adhesive capsulitis? a. Supraspinatus b. Subscapularis c. Deltoid d. Pectoralis major ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 431

141. What muscle is the prime mover for arm abduction at the shoulder joint? a. Pectoralis major b. Coracobrachialis c. Supraspinatus d. Deltoid ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 434

142. Which of the following is a rotator cuff muscle? a. Teres major b. Deltoid c. Teres minor d. Latissimus dorsi

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 431

143. What are the actions of the entire pectoralis major on the arm at the shoulder joint? a. Adduction and medial rotation b. Flexion and lateral rotation c. Horizontal abduction and medial rotation d. Extension and horizontal adduction ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 435

144. Which of the following perform flexion of the forearm at the elbow joint? a. Biceps brachii b. Brachialis c. Brachioradialis d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 441|p. 442

145. What muscle is the strongest extensor of the forearm at the elbow joint? a. Biceps brachii b. Triceps brachii c. Anconeus d. Pronator teres ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 444

146. Which of the following can both abduct and flex the shoulder? a. Teres major b. Deltoid c. Teres minor d. Latissimus dorsi ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 434

147. The erector spinae group functions as the strongest trunk a. lateral flexors. b. extensors. c. flexors. d. rotators.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 344

148. The diaphragm functions in inspiration by

cavity. a. lifting the ribs to increase b. depressing the clavicles to decrease c. pushing the abdomen out to decrease d. pulling its central tendon downward to increase ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 360

149. Which of the following is the strongest lateral flexor of the spine?

the volume of the thoracic

a. b. c. d.

Quadratus lumborum Rectus abdominus Erector spinae Serratus anterior

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 364

150. Which of the following are the prime movers for rotation of the trunk? a. Quadratus lumborum and psoas major b. Internal and external abdominal obliques c. Transversospinalis group d. Piriformis and obturator internus ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 368|p. 369

151. Because of postural reflexes, neck pain and stiffness can be relieved by applying massage to

what other areas of the lower body? a. Low back and psoas major b. Midback, upper trapezius, c. Abdomen and pectoralis major d. Shoulder and deltoid ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 302

152. The pigment that stores oxygen with muscles cells is a. myoglobin. b. sarcomere. c. sarcoplasm. d. myosin.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 294

153. Which of the following is a group of disorders characterized by skeletal muscle atrophy with

no nervous system malfunction? a. Muscular dystrophies b. Myasthenia gravis c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis d. Dupuytren’s contracture ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 468

154. The term for how skeletal muscle tissue shortens on a microscopic level is a. sliding filament mechanism. b. all-or-none principle. c. threshold stimulus. d. recruitment.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 294

155. Whiplash can occur while driving if the person is hit from the a. rear. b. front. c. side.

d. All of the above are correct.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 467

156. A spasm or shortening of one of the sternocleidomastoid muscles can result in a. whiplash. b. torticollis. c. anterior compartment syndrome. d. Dupuytren’s contracture.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 467

157. Which of the following conditions involves overstretching or tearing of muscle fibers and

associated connective tissue? a. Carpal tunnel syndrome b. Strain c. Myalgia d. Myositis ossificans ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 467

158. In which of the following conditions is direct work over the area of injury contraindicated

regionally until all signs of inflammation have dissipated? a. Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy b. Myositis ossificans c. Contusion d. Fibromyalgia ANS: C

DIF:

T2ESTBANKSRE L:LE EF p.R4.

67COM

159. A muscle that is named for its location is a. temporalis. b. quadriceps. c. triceps. d. deltoid.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 327

160. Which of the following conditions is caused by a parasite? a. Dupuytren’s contracture b. Trichinosis c. Myositis ossificans d. Anterior compartment syndrome ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 468

161. Congenital, acute, or chronic spasm or shortening of one of the sternocleidomastoid muscles

is called a. contracture. b. cramps. c. fibromyalgia. d. torticollis.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 467

162. Which of the following conditions could be caused by an auto accident? a. Dupuytren’s contracture b. Whiplash c. Myositis ossificans d. Torticollis ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 467

163. Chronic shortening of a muscle, especially the connective tissue component, is a. contracture. b. fibromyalgia. c. strain. d. spasticity.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 466

164. A client ran a half marathon two days prior the massage session. He complains of a tight

feeling in the leg and pain, numbness, and tingling. The tissue in the area feels taut. Which of the following conditions is the client most likely experiencing? a. Hysteresis b. Acquired metabolic myopathy c. Myositis ossificans d. Anterior compartment syndrome ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 467

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

165. What is the term for muscle pain? a. Contracture b. Myalgia c. Torticollis d. Spasm ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 466

166. Nutritional and vitamin deficiency, especially protein deficiency and lack of vitamins C, D,

and E, may lead to a. contracture. b. anterior compartment syndrome. c. metabolic myopathy. d. fibromyalgia.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 468

167. A muscle that is named for its shape is a. gastrocnemius. b. rhomboid. c. erector spinae. d. tensor fasciae latae.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 425

168. A muscle that is named for its function is a. tensor fasciae latae. b. soleus. c. brachial radialis. d. scalene.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 379

169. The correct procedure for palpation of the vastus medialis is to place the hand a. just above the knee joint and instruct the client to flex the knee. b. just about the knee joint and instruct the client to extend the knee. c. mid calf with moderate pressure and instruct the client to flex the knee. d. on the anterior superior iliac spine and instruct the client to extend the knee.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 397

170. To palpate the proximal attachment of the rectus abdominis, place the hand a. beside the xiphoid process and instruct the client to curl forward as if doing a

sit-up. b. on the iliac crest and instruct the client to pull the abdomen in. c. just above the iliac crest and instruct the client to bring the elbow to the opposite

knee. d. on the umbilicus and instruct the client to arch the lower back.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 469

171. To palpate the rhomboid muscles, place the hand a. on the lateral side of thT eE leS g TanBdAdNoK rsS ifE leL xL thE eR an.kCleO. M b. on the side of the face with deep pressure and instruct the client to clench the teeth. c. medial to the scapula with medium pressure and instruct the client to squeeze the

shoulder blades together. d. between the scapula and instruct the client to move the arms over the head.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 425

Chapter 10: Biomechanics Basics Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The ability to control equilibrium is a. balance. b. stability. c. steadiness. d. focus.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 478

2. What is the term for an imaginary midpoint or center of the weight of a body or object, where

the body or object could balance on a point? a. Fulcrum of equality b. Center of gravity c. Lever of mass d. Equilibrium ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 479

3. What is the force applied to overcome resistance? a. Work b. Load c. Effort d. Drive ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 476

4. Any push or pull on an object in an attempt to affect motion or shape is known as a. mass. b. load. c. weight. d. force.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 475

5. The heel of one foot striking the floor and continuing until the same heel strikes the floor

again describes what cycle? a. Bearing b. Gait c. Step d. Walking ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 485

6. What is the reluctance of matter to change its state of motion? a. Force b. Load c. Inertia

d. Mass ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 476

7. What is the term for the study of movement that combines the fields of anatomy, physiology,

physics, and geometry and relates them to human movement? a. Physiopathology b. Pathology c. Biometrics d. Kinesiology ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 474

8. What is the term for an integrated functional unit made up of the myofascial, articular, and

nervous systems? a. Kinetic chain b. Kinesiology c. Muscle firing pattern d. Motor unit ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 482|p. 483

9. What is the term for a solid mass, such as a crowbar or a person’s arm, that rotates around a

fixed point called a fulcrum? a. Pole b. Lever c. Rotator d. Pin ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 476

10. The term for moving from one place to another, or walking, is a. movement. b. kinesiology. c. locomotion. d. gait cycle.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 485

11. The posterior movement of the upper pelvis involves what type of rotation? a. Anterior b. Medial c. Lateral d. Posterior ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 533

12. What is the term for the amount of force on a specific area? a. Pressure b. Mass c. Gravity d. Energy

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 476

13. What is the direction of force called? a. Route b. Vector c. Bearing d. Way ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 475

14. After Norris completed a postural assessment on Martin, the following areas of convexity

were found: lumbar and upper anterior thorax. Which of the following massage treatment plans would be most appropriate for Norris to follow in order to give Martin the most relief? a. Trigger point and stretch on the rhomboids, with myofascial stretching on the lumbar dorsal fascia b. Muscle energy methods, trigger points, myofascial release on the pectoralis major and minor, and stretch c. Strengthening the midposterior thorax and core muscles before addressing the trigger point activity at the attachments of the hamstrings, calves, and scalenes d. Applying bend and shear forces in the belly of the long muscles and then lengthening the convexity ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 550

15. Which of the following statements is the most helpful to remember when applying massage to

normalize postural deviations that have a muscular origin? a. Lengthen the convexity and strengthen the concavity. b. Stretch what is weak anTdEtS onTeBwAhN atKiS sE shL orLt.ER.COM c. Lengthen what is short and strengthen what is long. d. What is short is weak; what is long is strong.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 552

16. Why is standing on one leg and then the other a good assessment procedure for the gait cycle? a. During walking, there are times when the body is balanced on one foot. b. The oculopelvic and withdrawal reflexes are best assessed when standing on one

foot. c. The open kinetic chain function of the lower limb is part of standing on one foot. d. Center of gravity remains static when shifting to one foot.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 497

17. If the kinetic chain adaptation process is used and a person has pain in the left lower lumbar

area, where would the next compensation segment be when moving toward the head? a. Right quadriceps b. Left biceps c. Right anterior thorax d. Right temporalis ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 483

18. If a client has Achilles tendinitis, which of the following would be the overactive synergist?

a. b. c. d.

Erector spinae Psoas Tensor fasciae latae Gastrocnemius

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 502

19. A client continues to complain about excessive fatigue after walking. She feels as if her arms

and legs are heavy. Which of the following assessment procedures may identify the areas of muscle imbalance? a. Edema test b. Pulse assessment c. Kinetic chain assessment d. Q angle ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 504|p. 509

20. During assessment, the following muscles were inhibited: rhomboids, lower trapezius, and

serratus anterior. These muscles were short: upper trapezius, subscapularis, and pectoralis major. This pattern of muscle imbalance is best described as what type of syndrome? a. Lower crossed b. Upper crossed c. Firing pattern d. Inertia pattern ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 550

21. A client has the following:TnE euSrT otB raA nsNmKiS tteErLflL ucEtuRa. tiC onOsM , altered muscle firing patterns, gait

reflex, and kinetic chain disturbance. What general category of dysfunction does this client display? a. Myofascial b. Joint c. Lymphatic d. Neuromuscular ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 551

22. The general goal of massage, regardless of whether the dysfunction is neuromuscular,

myofascial, or joint related, is to a. alter all compensation patterns and increase adaptive strain. b. generate self-regulating mechanisms of the body. c. increase autonomic and vagal tone. d. decrease stimulation and arousal.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 553

23. The clinical reasoning process for typical patterns of dysfunction and compensation of the

body is shown by considering a. the antagonist pattern if an area is hypomobile. b. joint capsular dysfunction if pain occurs on passive movement. c. muscle and fascial involvement if pain occurs with active movement. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 504

24. A client has not been to the doctor for a definitive diagnosis of a low back condition. In which

of the following is it necessary for the massage therapist to refer the client to a physician for diagnosis? a. Stage one dysfunction b. Lower crossed syndrome c. Optimum motor function d. Upper crossed syndrome ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 552

25. While assessing a client, a massage therapist identifies a functionally short leg with a slight

anterior rotation of the pelvis, and the client has no symptoms. What has this assessment identified? a. Functional stress b. Lower crossed syndrome c. Resourceful compensation d. Gait dysfunction ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 500

26. Visual assessment identifies bilateral scapular elevation. Which of the following muscles are

shortened to cause this? a. Serratus posterior b. Levator scapulae c. Subscapularis d. Posterior deltoid ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 550

27. Bill sits at a computer all day. Tasha, a massage therapist, has assessed that Bill has short

pectoralis minor muscles. What other muscles would Tasha find as being short and as part of Bill’s upper crossed syndrome? a. Upper trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and latissimus dorsi b. Pectoralis major, subscapularis, and rhomboids c. Teres minor, serratus anterior, and posterior deltoid d. Gluteus maximus, psoas, and lower trapezius ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 550

28. In correct trunk flexion testing, the client should do which of the following? a. Use erector spinae and semispinalis to achieve the movement. b. Be able to achieve 0 to 50 degrees of flexion with knees bent. c. Use the hands to lift the head in order to achieve the movement. d. Be able to achieve 0 to 25 degrees of flexion with slight resistance.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 510

29. In the trunk extension test, the client should be able to do which of the following? a. Achieve 0 to 25 degrees of extension in the lumbar spine. b. Achieve 0 to 25 degrees of extension in the thoracic spine.

c. Use the abdominal muscles to achieve the movement. d. Recruit splenius capitis and cervicis to achieve the movement.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 510

30. While testing capital extension, the client should move her head a. in a nodding motion. b. toward the chest and hold. c. from 0 to 45 degrees range of motion. d. backwards to a face-up position.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 512

31. In correct trunk rotation assessment, the client should a. have the scapulae touching the table. b. not use abdominal muscles at all to perform the movement. c. only use deep back muscles to perform the movement. d. be able to achieve a range of motion of 0 to 45 degrees.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 511

32. Which of the following is an accurate portrayal of the performance of cervical extension

assessment? a. Only the head should be moving. b. The client moves both the head and neck. c. The client should achieve 0 to 25 degrees range of motion. d. It requires resistance.

ANS: B

DIF:

T2ESTBANKSRE L:LE EF p.R5.

13COM

33. To test capital flexion, the client should not have a. cervical disk problems. b. lumbar disk problems. c. thoracic disk problems. d. weak flexors of the neck.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 512

34. An accurate portrayal of the performance of cervical flexion assessment is that the client a. moves the head only; the neck remains still. b. lifts the head off the table and tucks the chin. c. should be able to achieve 50 degrees range of motion. d. thrusts the chin upward then performs head movement.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 512

35. A client has only 20 degrees of cervical rotation to the right. Which of the following muscles

is likely short? a. Quadratus lumborum b. Semispinalis capitis c. Sternocleidomastoid d. Serratus anterior

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 513

36. To perform cervical extension, the client uses the a. sternocleidomastoid. b. anterior scalenes. c. splenius capitis. d. multifidus.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 513

37. During adduction on the shoulder joint, the shoulder girdle does which of the following? a. Protracts b. Retracts c. Rotates downward d. Rotates upward ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 514

38. A client is unable to turn her palm up. Which of the following muscle tests would be

appropriate? a. Shoulder internal rotation/elbow flexion b. Forearm supination/foot pronation c. Forearm supination and pronation d. Wrist flexion/finger adduction ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 527

39. If the intrinsic muscles of the hand are to be assessed, which of the following assessments is

appropriate? a. Wrist flexion b. Finger flexion c. Finger adduction d. Thumb supination ANS: C

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

DIF: 2

REF: p. 530

40. If the pelvis is tilted to the left, this indicates movement in what plane? a. Sagittal b. Frontal c. Transverse d. Horizontal ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 533

41. A client has a bilateral anterior rotation of the pelvis. Which of the following is also likely to

be occurring? a. Internal rotation of the hip b. Flexion of the lumbar spine c. Extension of the lumbar spine d. Extension of the ankle ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 534

42. In correct anatomic position, the anterior superior iliac spine is a. posterior to the pubic symphysis. b. anterior to the pubic symphysis. c. rotated 5 degrees to the pubic symphysis in the vertical plane. d. in the same vertical plane as the pubic symphysis.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 534

43. Contraction of skeletal muscles with a system of levers and pulleys results in which of the

following? a. Normal human movement b. Muscle damage c. Robot-like motion d. Fast-twitch fibers contracting more rapidly ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 474

44. When tension develops in a muscle but no appreciable change occurs, it is an a. isotonic contraction. b. isometric action c. eccentric action. d. antagonist pattern.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 483

45. The term for muscle lengthening while controlling movement is a. Concentric b. Electric c. Eccentric d. Isometric ANS: C 46.

DIF: 1

REF: p. 483

The center of gravity in the human body can be characterized as staying the same unless the individual gains or loses weight. the same for all humans of the same height. unaffected by movement. depends on body position and changes with every movement.

a. b. c. d.

ANS: D 47.

DIF: 1

REF: p. 479

When standing and walking, where is the center of gravity? a. Constantly moving between the knees and the shoulders b. Approximately 3 inches above the navel c. At approximately the upper sacrum anterior to the second sacral vertebra d. At the pivot point of movement for the head ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 497

48. The efforts applied by muscles during their actions are explained as a. first b. second c. third

-class of levers.

d. All of the above are correct.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 478

49. The dysfunctional patterns of movement can best be characterized as a. out of the scope of massage therapists. b. connected to the principles of gait. c. having nothing to do with locomotion. d. unconnected to reflex patterns.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 500

50. When walking, the eyes stay level while the head remains upright due to a. bipedal locomotion. b. multilimb trajectories. c. reflex patterns and righting reflexes. d. stage 3 connective tissue changes in the musculoskeletal system.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 497

51. During the normal gait cycle, when does the stance phase take place? a. During cadence b. After heel-off c. After toe-off d. During about 60% of the cycle ANS: D 52.

DIF: 1

REF: p. 497

During gait, if the person hTaE s bSoTthBfAeeNtKoS nE thL eL flE ooRr.atCtO heMsame time a. no movement will take place, and walking will stop completely. b. that is a normal part of gait called double stance. c. the person is in mid swing. d. it is a sign that there is dysfunction in the hip and/or knee joints.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 497

53. Functional blocks are reversible limitations of range of motion that occur because of a. changes in connective tissue following muscle spasm. b. connective tissue becoming stretched and not stabilizing the muscles. c. regional postural muscular imbalance. d. nonoptimum motor idiosyncrasy.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 551

54. Assessment is the gathering of information from a. passive movements and observation. b. observation and palpation. c. client history and muscle testing. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 504|p. 552

55. If the body has adapted to repetitive use or some sort of trauma, it is

a. b. c. d.

in some cases a resourceful compensation that shouldn’t be eliminated. a major reason for intervention. usually caused by connective tissue shortening. because of a lack of knowledge.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 500

56. A characteristic of movement assessments that work with jointed areas is that they a. are beyond the scope of massage therapy students. b. are a form of functional assessment that can provide much information. c. ignore body-wide stabilization patterns. d. do not address any soft tissue or muscle dysfunction.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 504

57. A characteristic of stabilization of the body while assessing movement in a joint is that it a. defeats the purpose of the assessment. b. causes a decrease in motion, even if done properly. c. is essential to accurately assess movement patterns. d. is ineffective if the client is prone.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 504

58. Which of the following is a contributing factor to functional block development? a. Holding a weight that is too heavy for too long b. Long-term immobility c. Repetitive power lifting during work d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 552

59. Which of the following may help alleviate functional block? a. Percussion and vibration techniques b. Repeated range of motion and traction c. Avoiding performing stretches d. Deep friction ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 552

60. The elbow is considered a stable joint with firm osseous support and is composed of three

articulations: the humeroulnar joint, the humeroradial joint, and the a. radioulnar b. glenohumeral c. facet d. metacarpophalangeal ANS: A

DIF: 1

joint.

REF: p. 523

61. External rotary movement of the radius on the ulna that results in the hand moving from the

palm-down to the palm-up position is called a. flexion. b. extension. c. pronation.

d. supination.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 524

62. All the wrist flexors generally have their proximal attachments on the anteromedial aspect of

the proximal forearm and medial epicondyle of the a. humerus. b. ulna. c. radius. d. fibula.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 524

63. Movement of the thumb side of the hand toward the lateral aspect or radial side of the forearm

is a. b. c. d.

flexion. extension. abduction. opposition.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 524

64. The knee acts as part of a closed kinematic chain with the lumbar spine, hip, and a. elbow. b. ankle. c. pubis. d. wrist.

ANS: B

DIF:

T1ESTBANKSRE L:LE EF p.R5.

39COM

65. The normal range of motion of the knee in flexion includes a. 30 degrees of internal tibial rotation. b. 80 to 100 degrees of flexion. c. 5 to 10 degrees of hyperextension. d. 45 degrees of external tibial rotation.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 539

66. The muscles that flex and medially rotate the knee are the hamstrings, sartorius, gracilis,

gastrocnemius, and a. vastus intermedialis. b. supinator. c. soleus. d. popliteus.

ANS: D 67. The

DIF: 1

REF: p. 541

layers of the intrinsic muscles of the foot are involved with dorsiflexion and plantar flexion of the toe. a. two b. six c. four d. three

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 543

Chapter 11: Integumentary, Cardiovascular, Lymphatic, and Immune Systems Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the term for dilation of a blood vessel wall caused by weakness or damage to its

structure? a. Aneurysm b. Hernia c. Stroke d. Bulging disk ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 586

2. What is the term for any substance that causes the body to produce antibodies? a. Antibiotic b. Antigen c. Tumor d. Epithelial ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 596

3. What is the large artery that carries oxygen and nutrients out of the heart? a. Vena cava b. Atrium c. Aorta d. Aneurysm ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 570

4. The type of sweat gland that discharges a thicker and more odoriferous form of sweat is which

of the following? a. Eccrine b. Sebaceous c. Endocrine d. Apocrine ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 560

5. What is the term for hair loss or baldness on parts or all of the body? a. Alopecia b. Analgesia c. Anaplasia d. Neoplasia ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 567

6. Which of the following is an irregular heart beat? a. Arrhythmia b. Anemia c. Atherosclerosis

d. Aneurysm ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 582

7. Chronic inflammation of the sebaceous glands and hair follicles caused by interactions

between bacteria, sebum, and sex hormones describes a. cystitis. b. bursitis. c. acne. d. rosacea.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 562

8. Which of the following is a specific protein that destroys or suppresses antigens? a. Thrombocyte b. Cytokine c. Leukocyte d. Antibody ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 596

9. Which of the following is the smallest? a. Venules b. Arteries c. Capillaries d. Veins ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 569

10. Which of the following causes arteries to lose their elasticity? a. Arteriosclerosis b. Angina pectoris c. Arrhythmia d. Allergy ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 584

11. Which of the following transports oxygenated blood from the heart to the body or

deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs? a. Arteriole b. Artery c. Vein d. Venule ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 569

12. Which of the following is when fatty plaque is deposited in medium and large arteries? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Arteriosclerosis c. Atherosclerosis d. Osteoporosis ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 584

13. The two superior chambers of the heart are the a. ventricles. b. atria. c. valves. d. septums.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 569

14. Liquid connective tissue that is made of formed cellular elements and plasma describes a. phagocytes. b. leukocytes. c. blood. d. hemoglobin.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 581

15. Force exerted on the walls of the vessels due to the pumping action of the heart is a. blood pressure. b. pulse. c. beat. d. cardiac cycle.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 577

16. The synchronized sequence of events that takes place during one full heartbeat is known as

which of the following cycles? a. Gait b. Cardiac c. Pulmonary d. Circadian ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 570

17. What is the amount of blood pumped by the left ventricle in 1 minute? a. Blood pressure b. Pulse rate c. Pulmonary pressure d. Cardiac output ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 571

18. A yellow pigment found in the dermis that provides a natural yellow tint to the skin of some

individuals is a. carotene. b. keratin. c. acetylcholine. d. vitamin K. ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 561

19. The sticky substance that protects the ear from the entry of foreign material and repels insects

is

a. b. c. d.

serotonin. cerumen. eccrine. plasma.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 561

20. Which of the following are modified apocrine sweat glands? a. Endocrine b. Mucous c. Mammary d. Ceruminous ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 561

21. A painful, conical thickening of skin caused by continued pressure and friction on normally

thin skin is a. a corn. b. a callus. c. dermatitis. d. a wart.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 565

22. What veins return deoxygenated blood from the heart to the right atrium? a. Cerebral b. Coronary c. Pulmonary d. Brachial ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 570

23. The term for an area of thickened, hardened skin that develops in an area of friction or region

of recurrent pressure is a. blister. b. bunion. c. callus. d. corn.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 565

24. In which of the following does the exchange of gases, nutrients, and waste products occur

between the blood and cells? a. Artery b. Arteriole c. Venule d. Capillary ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 569

25. Supplying oxygenated blood to the heart muscle itself is the function of what arteries? a. Coronary b. Brachiocephalic

c. Carotid d. Jugular ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 570

26. What is the general term for acute or chronic skin inflammation characterized by redness,

eruptions, edema, scaling, and itching? a. Dermabrasion b. Dermatitis c. Cellulitis d. Impetigo ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 567

27. What is the term for the deep layer of skin that contains collagen and elastin fibers? a. Epidermis b. Basal membrane c. Melatonin d. Dermis ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 559

28. Watery sweat is released by what type of sweat gland? a. Eccrine b. Apocrine c. Sebaceous d. Cerumen ANS: A

DIF:

T1ESTBANKSRE L:LE EF p.R5.

60COM

29. What is the term for the accumulation of abnormal amounts of fluid in tissue spaces? a. Pressure b. Edema c. Irritation d. Engorgement ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 594

30. What is the term for the superficial layer of skin that is composed of sublayers called strata? a. Basal membrane b. Fascia c. Epidermis d. Subcutaneous ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 559

31. Another term for red blood cells is a. erythrocytes. b. phagocytes. c. lymphocytes. d. thrombocytes.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 581

32. What is the term for the number of cardiac cycles performed in 1 minute? a. Heart rate b. Blood pressure c. Respiratory rate d. Cardiac output ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 570

33. Which of the following is caused by blood turbulence as heart valves close? a. Cardiac output b. Heart sounds c. Heart rate d. Blood pressure ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 571

34. The actual pump of the cardiovascular system is the a. myocardium. b. pericardium. c. aorta. d. superior vena cava.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 568

35. What keeps blood flowing in the correct direction through the heart? a. Septums b. Atria c. Valves d. Ventricles ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 569

36. A bluish tint to the skin is called a. cyanosis. b. hemorrhage. c. ischemia. d. shock.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 561

37. What is the oxygen-carrying red molecule in the blood? a. Lymphocyte b. Hemoglobin c. Erythrocyte d. Phagocyte ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 581

38. A virus that causes painful blisters and small ulcers in and around the mouth and on the

genital area is known as a. measles. b. impetigo.

c. herpes simplex. d. molluscum contagiosum.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 564

39. What is the term for an increase in systolic and diastolic pressures? a. Hypotension b. Hyperthyroidism c. Hypothyroidism d. Hypertension ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 578

40. What is the term for the decrease in systolic and diastolic pressures? a. Hypotension b. Hypertension c. Hypotonicity d. Hypoextension ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 578

41. What is the term for resistance to disease provided by the body? a. Antigens b. Immunity c. Androgens d. Antibiotics ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 596

42. The skin and its appendages constitute which of the following? a. Dermis b. Dermatomes c. Integument d. Epidermis ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 558

43. A sequence of events that involves chemical and cellular activation that destroys pathogens

and aids in repairing tissues is which of the following? a. Healing cycle b. Regeneration c. Reconstruction d. Inflammatory response ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 600

44. What is a temporary deficiency or decreased supply of blood to a tissue? a. Ischemia b. Anemia c. Hyperemia d. Hypoxemia ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 584

45. What is the fibrous protein produced in the epidermis that protects the skin and makes it

waterproof? a. Dermis b. Keratin c. Elastin d. Collagen ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 559

46. White blood cells that protect the body from pathogens and remove dead cells and substances

are called a. erythrocytes. b. lymphocytes. c. thrombocytes. d. melanocytes.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 581|p. 682

47. What is the term for what the interstitial fluid becomes as it is transported away from cells and

before it rejoins the bloodstream? a. Hemoglobin b. Erythrocytes c. Plasma d. Lymph ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 591

48.4 Small, round structures distributed along the network of lymph vessels that provide a filtering 8 system are lymph . a. nodes. b. nodules. c. lobes. d. ducts.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 593

49. What is the pigment that colors skin and works as a natural sunscreen for protection from

ultraviolet rays? a. Serotonin b. Melanin c. Carotene d. Catecholamines ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 559

50. Which of the following are pathogens? a. Parasites b. Bacteria c. Fungi d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 597

51. Also known as a nevus, what is the benign, pigmented skin growth formed from melanocytes? a. Carbuncle b. Callus c. Cyst d. Mole ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 565

52. What type of infection occurs when normal defenses are so weak that disease occurs from

organisms that are not usually a problem? a. Opportunistic b. Autoimmune c. Fungal d. Systemic ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 598

53. What is a common, chronic, non contagious skin disease characterized by reddened skin

covered by dry, silvery scales? a. Edema b. Impetigo c. Psoriasis d. Herpes simplex ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 567

54. What is the name of the larTgE eS arT teB ryAtN haKt ScaErL rieLsEbR lo. odCO aw May from the heart to the lungs? a. Aorta b. Pulmonary vein c. Coronary artery d. Pulmonary trunk ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 570

55. Bringing oxygenated blood to the left atrium from the lungs is the function of what veins? a. Pulmonary b. Cardiac c. Coronary d. Aortic ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 570

56. The double membranous, serous sac surrounding the heart is called the a. epicardium. b. pericardium. c. endocardium. d. myocardium.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 568

57. What is the name for the thick straw-colored fluid that makes up about 55% of the blood? a. Interstitial fluid

b. Lymph c. Plasma d. Hemoglobin ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 581

58. What are the oil glands found in the skin called? a. Ceruminous b. Eccrine c. Apocrine d. Sebaceous ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 560

59. The oily substance secreted by sebaceous glands that prevents dehydration, softens skin and

hair, and slows the growth of bacteria is a. sebum. b. cerumen. c. serotonin. d. sweat.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 560

60. Ways of dealing with human fluids and waste products to prevent the spread of bacterial and

viral infections are known as a. immunity. b. standard control. c. disease precautions. d. standard precautions.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 562

61. The tissue that consists of loose connective tissue, and contains fat or adipose tissue is known

as a. b. c. d.

the epidermis. the dermis. superficial fascia. deep fascia.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 559

62. A slow-growing, benign tumor of an oil gland is a(n) a. lipoma. b. angioma. c. seborrheic keratosis. d. sebaceous cyst.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 566

63. The sudoriferous glands in the skin are also known as what type of glands? a. Sweat b. Mucous c. Lymph

d. Oil ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 560

64. Also referred to as a neoplasm, what is the term for a growth of new tissues that can be either

benign or malignant? a. Cyst b. Tumor c. Aneurysm d. Ganglion ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 565

65. What is the term for a round, open sore of the skin or mucous membrane? a. Avulsion b. Contusion c. Ulcer d. Pustule ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 565

66. A large vessel that returns deoxygenated blood to the right atrium of the heart is the a. aorta. b. coronary artery. c. cardiac artery. d. vena cava.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 570

67. Seventy-five percent of the blood in the body is in the a. veins. b. arteries. c. arterioles. d. capillaries.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 573

68. What are the two inferior chambers of the heart? a. Atria b. Ventricles c. Bicuspids d. Vena cava ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 569

69. What are the smallest veins? a. Capillaries b. Arterioles c. Venae cavae d. Venules ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 573

70. Which of the following would indicate a need to refer a client to his or her physician for liver

dysfunction diagnosis? a. A change in a mole b. A yellow skin coloration c. Increased ecthyma d. Appearance of vitiligo ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 561

71. Which of the following poses the greatest contagious risk to the massage therapist? a. Scabies b. Urticaria c. Psoriasis d. Seborrheic keratosis ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 565

72. A client has a tendency for urticaria that is increased with stress. Which aspect of the

following treatment plan is inappropriate? a. Gather facts about the condition. b. Develop a stress management program that includes massage. c. Choose methods that increase histamine response. d. Decide which methods to use based on time and application efficiency.

ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 567

73. Which of the following massage applications does not improve arterial circulation as

efficiently as the others? a. Compressing proximal to distal b. Gliding proximal to distal c. Kneading capillary beds d. Gliding distal to proximal ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 573

74. Which of the following cardiovascular pathologies would involve the least amount of massage

alteration? a. Congestive heart failure b. Shock c. Raynaud’s disease d. Hypertension ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 579|p. 583|p. 586

75. Which of the following massage approaches to support lymphatic fluid movement is related to

lymph plexus location? a. Compression on the sinuses b. Compression on the bottom of the foot c. Kneading of the superficial fascia d. Skin drag ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 590

76. Which of the following is contraindicated for lymphatic drain unless supervised by the

medical team? a. Hodgkin’s disease b. Delayed onset muscle soreness c. Raynaud’s disease d. Bradycardia ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 596

77. If a client is under a great deal of stress, to which of the following would the client be most

susceptible? a. Opportunistic infection b. Vitiligo c. Angioma d. Acquired immunity ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 598

78. If a client has been diagnosed with a hyperactive immune response, it means that the client a. is immune suppressed. b. may be prone to allergy. c. has a clotting disorder. d. has a contagious infection.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 602

79. A client has a cold and athlete’s foot. This means that the client has what two types of

infection? a. Viral and bacterial b. Tick and mite c. Bacterial and fungal d. Viral and fungal ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 565|p. 600

80. How does receiving massage help maintain the immune system? a. Any modality that normalizes autonomic nervous functions supports immunity. b. There is an increase in adaptive demand from massage methods. c. It increases sympathetic dominance to support restorative function. d. It inhibits the movement of blood and lymph thereby increasing immune function.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 604

81. Massage therapists may be able to increase arterial blood flow by applying compression

against which of the following? a. Plexuses in the feet b. Nerve trunks c. The arteries in the legs and arms d. The abdominal aorta ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 573

82. Touch-deprived individuals are prone to inappropriate forms of sensory stimulation or abusive

or addictive behavior because the body is attempting to a. stimulate the production of the neuroendocrine chemicals that the body needs. b. inhibit the generation of nerve impulses from pain receptors. c. replace skin receptors as the only link to the outside environment. d. readjust the flow of blood to various parts of the body to manage stress.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 558

83. Which of the following is a function of the integumentary system? a. Produces vitamin D when exposed to the sun b. Prevents entry of chemicals into the body c. Senses stimuli from the outside environment d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 558

84. A characteristic about the amount of blood in the skin is that it a. is about 15% of the body’s total volume. b. increases during sympathetic activation. c. decreases during sympathetic activation. d. is unused by increased muscular contractions.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 561

85. Which of the following describes what occurs with blood flow and the heart? a. The pericardium contracts to pump blood. b. Four sets of valves keeT pE thSeTbB loA odNfKloSwEinLgLiE nR th.eCriO ghMt direction. c. The aorta returns oxygen-rich blood back from the lungs to the heart. d. The coronary vessels return oxygen-rich blood back from the lungs to the heart.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 569

86. A characteristic of the vascular system is that the a. arteries transport blood to the heart from the body and the lungs. b. arterioles are the largest of the arteries. c. venules directly connect the cardiovascular and lymphatic systems. d. capillaries connect the arterioles and the venules.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 571

87. Massage approaches may encourage venous return flow when a. strokes are performed over the veins of the limbs toward the heart. b. the client is encouraged to perform slow, deep breathing. c. positioning the client with the limbs above heart level. d. All of the above are correct.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 576

88. What is the fluid that drains from the around cells and is collected and moved through

capillaries and vessels before it is returned to the blood? a. Interstitial b. Lymph

c. Ground substance d. Cytoplasm ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 590

89. Which of the following accurately characterizes lymphatic drainage? a. Lymph capillaries are found only in the eyes, brain, and spinal cord. b. There are no major lymph plexuses on the soles of the feet or palms of the hand. c. It does not take much pressure to move interstitial fluid into lymph collectors. d. Soft tissue methods should not mimic compressive forces of movement.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 594

90. Which of the following accurately characterizes the flow of lymph? a. The right lymphatic duct drains the entire right side and lower left side of the body. b. The left lymphatic duct drains the entire left side and lower right side of the body. c. It travels in more than one direction. d. It travels through the thymus before returning to the blood.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 594

91. Lymph nodes do which of the following? a. Signal a disease process in the body b. Prevent white blood cell production c. Cluster at the joint to prevent lymph movement during joint actions d. Prevent bacteria and viruses from entering the bloodstream ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 593

92. What is a major function of the thymus gland? a. Program lymphocytes to become T cells b. Program erythrocytes to become B cells c. Filter red blood cells, dead cells, and foreign particles from the blood d. Act as a blood reservoir ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 593

93. What ability of the body is the key to immunity? a. Destruction of any cell or substance that is not part of the body b. Ability to distinguish between self and nonself c. Protection from lymphocytes and macrophages d. Ability to filter waste products out of the blood ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 596

94. Nonspecific immunity includes which of the following responses? a. Fever and an inflammatory response b. Acidity of skin and mucus c. Release of proteins such as interferon d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 600

95. A description of lymphocytes includes that they are a. antigens. b. disease-causing microorganisms. c. part of specific immunity. d. destroyers of natural killer cells.

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 600

96. Pathogens can spread through all of the following except a. environmental contact. b. opportunistic invasion. c. person-to-person contact. d. standard precautions.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: pp. 598-600

97. The definition of congestive heart failure is a. that the heart is a slowly failing pump. b. a blood clot that usually occurs in the lower limbs. c. a decrease in the normal number of red blood cells. d. chest pain due to decreased oxygen supply to the heart.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 583

98. The disorder that results in blood leaking backwards into the left atrium is a. atherosclerosis. b. mitral valve prolapse. c. myocardial infarction. d. occlusion.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 583

99. The disorder characterized by a missing vital clotting factor is a. hemophilia. b. thrombocytopenia. c. ischemia. d. anemia.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 589

100. What is another term for a heart attack? a. Angina pectoris b. Raynaud’s disease c. Myocardial infarction d. Thrombophlebitis ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 583

101. Low blood volume can result in what type of shock? a. Septic b. Cardiogenic c. Anaphylactic d. Hypovolemic

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 586

102. Which of the following is an autoimmune disease? a. Tenosynovitis b. Raynaud’s disease c. Addison’s disease d. Thrombophlebitis ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 605

103. Which of the following conditions is contagious? a. Polycythemia b. Impetigo c. Urticaria d. Phlebitis ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 562

104. Which of the following conditions is caused by a Staphylococcus infection? a. Boils b. Fibrocystic disease c. Seborrheic keratosis d. Arteriosclerosis ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 562

105. Which of the following conditions is an autoimmune disorder of the connective tissue

characterized by the inflamTmEaS tiT onBaAnN dK ovSeErpLroLdEuR ct. ioC nOoM f collagen? a. Raynaud’s disease b. Lymphoma c. Scleroderma d. Endarteritis obliterans ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 567

106. Which of the following conditions is a type of cancer? a. Aneurysm b. Hepatitis c. Candidiasis d. Hodgkin’s disease ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 596

107. Which of the following conditions is a benign tumor composed of blood or lymph vessels? a. Hemophilia b. Lipoma c. Angioma d. Alopecia ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 566

108. Which of the following conditions presents only local (regional) contraindications for

massage therapy? a. Herpes simplex b. Leukemia c. Hypertension d. Pericarditis ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 564

109. A decrease in the normal number of red blood cells, amount of hemoglobin, or iron in the

blood is called a. aneurysm. b. anemia. c. arrhythmia. d. arteriosclerosis.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 581

110. Which of the following conditions is typically treated with a diuretic to eliminate excess fluid

and reduce blood pressure? a. Congestive heart failure b. Infectious mononucleosis c. Hepatitis C d. Decubitus ulcer ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 583

111. Which of the following coT ndEitS ioTnB s iAs NcaKuS seEdLbL y Ea Rpar asO itM e? .C a. Vitiligo b. Measles c. Scabies d. Impetigo ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 565

112. Which of the following is a cardiovascular condition a client could have? a. Mitral valve dysfunction b. Infectious mononucleosis c. Neurotrophic ulcer d. Molluscum contagiosum ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: pp. 582-583

113. A chronic skin problem in which the small blood vessels of the forehead, cheeks, and nose

become dilated is called a. lymphedema. b. psoriasis. c. ischemia. d. rosacea.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 567

114. Which of the following is a blood disorder a client might have?

a. b. c. d.

Vasculitis Thrombocytopenia Endocarditis Atherosclerosis

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 590

115. An infection of the CD4 T cells that creates a defect in the immune system is caused by what

type of virus? a. Hepatitis E b. Molluscum contagiosum c. Human immunodeficiency d. Rubella ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 602

116. Mammograms and fine needle biopsies can be used to diagnose what condition? a. Scleroderma b. Urticaria c. Basal cell carcinoma d. Breast cancer ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 566

117. Which of the following conditions could be caused by a massage lubricant? a. Dermatitis b. Psoriasis c. Embolus d. Myocarditis ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 567

118. The term for the passage of blood outside of the cardiovascular system is a. ischemia. b. myocardial infarction. c. hemorrhage. d. hemophilia.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 587

119. When the blood supply to vital organs becomes inadequate, causing diminished function, the

result is a. shock. b. tachycardia. c. sickle cell anemia. d. occlusion.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 586

120. Which of the following is not a disorder of the skin? a. Eczema b. Warts c. Angina pectoris

d. Chicken pox ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 583

121. The condition in which cells have been destroyed or inflamed because of heat, chemicals,

radiation, or electricity is a. burn. b. infection. c. alopecia. d. ulcer.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 567

122. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause visible scars? a. Seborrheic dermatitis b. Herpes simplex c. Varicose veins d. Second-degree burn ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 567

123. Which of the following conditions is genetic? a. Temporal arteritis b. Sickle cell disease c. Hepatitis d. Rheumatic heart disease ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 588

124. Which of the following conditions is aggravated by cold and often occurs in individuals with

connective tissue or other systemic disorders? a. Raynaud’s disease b. Sickle cell disease c. Tachycardia d. Lymphedema ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 586

125. An increase in tissue fluid caused by inflammation or obstruction by scar tissue, parasites, or

trauma is called a. vitiligo. b. polycythemia. c. lymphedema. d. deep vein thrombosis.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 594

126. Which of the following occurs due to the body not being able to distinguish self from nonself? a. Bacterial infections b. Autoimmune disease c. Acquired immunodeficiency syndrome d. Fibrocystic disease

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 604

127. Recognizing differences in texture, shape, resistance, and tension are determined by a. sensory receptors in the skin. b. the autonomic nervous system. c. the history-taking process. d. neurochemicals in the gut.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 558

128. Which of the following develops first during fetal development? a. Hearing b. Vision c. Touch d. Taste ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 558

129. An important factor in immunity that relates to the mind-body connection is a. creating antigens to fight antibodies. b. determining self and nonself for the immune response. c. sanitation and hygiene to increase innate immunity. d. a nonharmful balance of microorganisms.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 596

130. During times of stress and depression, the number of T cells is lower. This has which of the

following effects? a. Increases the production of antibodies to suppress tumor development b. Increases macrophage activity and decreases tendency to infection c. Indicates that meditation and other forms of stress management methods have failed d. Weakens the immune system and increases susceptibility to physical illness ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 602

131. The concept of teamwork and balance in maintaining health and well-being is most reflected

in the integrated function of the a. integumentary b. gastrointestinal c. immune d. cardiovascular ANS: C

DIF: 2

system.

REF: p. 602

Chapter 12: Respiratory, Digestive, Urinary, and Reproductive Systems Fritz: Mosby's Essential Sciences for Therapeutic Massage, 5th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following are parts of the digestive tract? a. Jejunum b. Colon c. Cecum d. All of the above ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 624|p. 625

2. What is the term for movement of food molecules from the digestive tract to the

cardiovascular or lymphatic system? a. Metabolism b. Absorption c. Diffusion d. Osmosis ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 627

3. Energy expenditure of the body under normal, relaxed activities is called what type of

metabolic rate? a. Decreased b. Normal c. Basal d. Resting ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 631

4. What is the term for a complex set of behaviors that lead to overbreathing without a

pathologic condition present? a. Hypoxia b. Hyperventilation c. External respiration d. Breathing pattern disorder ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 620

5. What is the dome-shaped sheet of muscle that separates the lungs and thoracic cavity from the

abdominal cavity? a. Diaphragm b. Internal intercostal c. Rectus abdominis d. Pyramidalis ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 614

6. The mechanical and chemical breakdown of food from its complex form into simple

molecules is called

a. b. c. d.

absorption. digestion. metabolism. anabolism.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 621

7. What is the term for the removal and release of solid waste products from food that cannot be

digested or absorbed? a. Micturition b. Elimination c. Eradication d. Urination ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 621

8. Which of the following is the term for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between

the lungs and the bloodstream? a. Internal respiration b. Hypoventilation c. External respiration d. Hyperventilation ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 612

9. What is the period of fetal growth from conception until birth? a. First trimester b. Phase 1 c. Ovulation d. Gestation ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 645

10. What is abnormally deep or rapid breathing in excess of physical demands? a. Hyperventilation b. Hypoventilation c. Apnea d. Rales ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 617

11. What is the term for taking food into the mouth? a. Digestion b. Ingestion c. Mastication d. Peristalsis ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 627

12. What is the exchange of gases between the tissues and blood? a. External respiration b. Hyperventilation c. Internal respiration

d. Hypoventilation ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 612

13. The inability to control urination or defecation, most often because of weak pelvic floor

muscles or nerve damage, is a. colostomy. b. colitis. c. micturition. d. incontinence.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 641

14. The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and alveoli are part of what tract? a. Lower respiratory b. Upper respiratory c. Upper gastrointestinal d. Lower gastrointestinal ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 612

15. The primary organs of respiration include which of the following? a. Pulmonary lobes b. Lungs c. Alveoli d. Bronchi ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 614

16. What is the clinical term for urination? a. Bowel movement b. Peristalsis c. Micturition d. Ingestion ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 635

17. What is the use of food for the growth and maintenance of the body? a. Ingestion b. Digestion c. Egestion d. Nutrition ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 625

18. The serous membrane that lines the abdominal cavity to prevent friction as organs move is the a. peritoneum. b. periosteum. c. pericardium. d. perineurium.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 623

19. What is the term for the rhythmic contraction of smooth muscles that propel products of

digestion along the tract from the esophagus to the anus? a. Gestation b. Peristalsis c. Digestion d. Micturition ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 625

20. The movement of air in and out of the lungs, the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide

between the lungs and blood, and the exchange between blood and body tissues are all part of what process? a. Digestion b. Egestion c. Respiration d. Peristalsis ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 612

21. What are the four groups of air-filled spaces that open into the internal nose? a. Sinuses b. Alveoli c. Cranial cavities d. Vestibules ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 612

22. The upper region of the torTso thT atBcA onNtaKinSsEtL heLlE unRg. s,ChO eaMrt, and great vessels is the ES a. diaphragm. b. thorax. c. pericardium. d. mediastinum.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 612

23. The nasal cavity, all of its structures, and the pharynx are part of what tract? a. Lower reproductive b. Upper gastrointestinal c. Upper respiratory d. Lower urinary ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 612

24. Which of the following is the most likely cause of laryngitis? a. Lymphatic stagnation b. Spicy food c. Depleted cortisol d. Tobacco smoke ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 614

25. A massage therapist identifies tightness in the upper thorax region of a client who has asthma.

Which of the following would be the most appropriate treatment plan?

a. Address the area of spinal nerves T1–T11 and phrenic nerves C3–C5. b. Position the client with the head below the thorax and apply lymphatic drainage

and percussive methods with tapotement. c. Use myofascial release and friction of the attachments of the plantar fascia and

posterior serratus inferior. d. Use techniques to shift oculopelvic and gate reflexes to normal function.

ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 615

26. A massage therapist is supporting a breathing retraining program for a client with anxiety.

Which of the following could be a goal of the massage treatment plan? a. Changing internal respiration b. Loosening the pharynx and larynx c. Increasing thorax mobility d. Decreasing lung volumes ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 621

27. Which of the following conditions is considered to have a functional rather than a pathogenic

cause? a. Croup b. Tuberculosis c. Pneumonia d. Breathing pattern disorder ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 620

28. If a client is prone to overrT eaEcS tioTnBtA oN stK reS ssE fuLl L evEeR nt.s,CwOhMich of the following would be

appropriate for inclusion into a general massage treatment plan? a. Assessment of mental dysfunction b. Normalization of breathing function c. Support for decreased peristalsis d. Ongoing myofascial release of the upper thorax ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 621

29. Which of the following structures is most influenced by mechanical massage application? a. Liver b. Pancreas c. Colon d. Gallbladder ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 635

30. Which of the following physiologic influences of massage most benefits digestion? a. Reduction of nerve entrapment b. Parasympathetic inhibition c. Stimulation of vagal function d. Arterial stimulation ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 634

31. If a client complains about lower right quadrant pain and nausea, what is the appropriate

action for the massage therapist to take? a. Massage to increase circulation to the lower limbs b. Immediate referral to the emergency health care provider for assessment of appendicitis c. Palpation assessment of the lower right quadrant and treatment with reflexology d. Discontinue the massage and ask the client to come back when he is feeling better.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 632

32. Which of the following is intracellular fluid? a. Plasma b. Water inside cells c. Lymph d. Joint lubricant ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 636

33. A client runs every morning as part of her fitness program but does not drink enough fluids.

What should the massage therapist be concerned about with this client? a. Cardiac arrhythmia b. Incontinence c. Dehydration d. Diarrhea ANS: C

DIF: 3

REF: p. 639

34. Which of the following reqTuE irS esTtB heAm t cEaL utL ioEnRw.hC enOaMpplying massage methods that NoKsS

specifically target fluid movement in the body? a. Vaginitis b. Kidney disease c. Cystic fibrosis d. Bartholin’s cyst ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 639

35. Which of the following massage benefits most supports reproductive system health? a. Increased stress management b. Decreased circulation to the genitals c. Decreased hormonal influence, especially androgen activity d. Increased smooth muscle function and contractile capacity ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 649|p. 651

36. During therapeutic massage, a male client often gets an erection, especially if he has fallen

asleep. Which of the following is the most logical explanation for this response? a. Massage stimulates sexual response. b. Erection is a parasympathetic response. c. The client is responding to erotic touch. d. The client has circulation dysfunction.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 643

37. A client is in her second trimester. Which of the following is not related to increased

progesterone? a. Itching b. Constipation c. Heartburn d. Vaginal discharge ANS: D

DIF: 3

REF: p. 646|p. 647

38. A client is in her third trimester. The massage therapist notices that there is a significant

increase in edema in the legs. What is the most appropriate action for the massage therapist to take? a. Perform lymphatic drain to manage discomfort. b. Refer the client immediately to her physician. c. Encourage the client to increase her fluid intake. d. Perform deep gliding on the client’s legs to encourage blood and lymph flow.

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 649

39. Which of the following are part of the lower respiratory tract? a. Pharynx, larynx, and trachea b. Nasal cavity and pharynx c. Nasal cavity, larynx, and lungs d. Trachea, bronchi, and alveoli ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 612

40. What are the venous areas T inEtS heTnBoAseNtK haStEafLfeLcE tm ovCeO mM ents during sleep?

R. a. Turbinates b. External nares c. Septa d. Swell bodies ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 613

41. The process of inhalation includes the a. diaphragm contracting, which enlarges the chest cavity. b. intercostals and diaphragm relaxing to allow air to flow into the lungs. c. alveoli creating a vacuum force that actively pulls air into the lungs. d. alveoli contracting to enlarge the chest cavity.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 615

42. Where are the major organs of digestion located in the body? a. Peritoneum b. Abdominal cavity c. Mesentery d. Greater omentum ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 623

43. Which of the following is not a portion of the large intestine? a. Cecum

b. Hepatic flexure c. Appendix d. Liver ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 625

44. Which of the following is a function of the colon? a. Break down of carbohydrates b. Absorption of water and sodium c. Production of protein digesting enzymes d. Absorption of fiber ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 625

45. The kidneys are located on the posterior abdominal wall at what spinal level? a. T4–T8 b. T8–T11 c. T11–L3 d. L3–L5 ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 636

46. What two narrow tubes extend from the kidneys to the bladder? a. Nephrons b. Urethras c. Detrusors d. Ureters ANS: D

DIF:

T1ESTBANKSRE L:LE EF p.R6.

36COM

47. What is the definition of micturition? a. Inflammation of the kidneys b. Urination c. Swallowing d. A hormone for red blood cell production ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 635

48. Follicle-stimulating hormones and luteinizing hormones are found in a. both men and women. b. men only. c. women only. d. both sexes before puberty.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 642

49. In men, what is the gland surrounding the urethra that produces an alkaline fluid? a. Prostate gland b. Seminal vesicle c. Bladder d. Bartholin gland ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 642

50.

Which of the following is a description of the uterus?

Flexible, fibromuscular tube about 3.5 inches long Hollow, muscular organ shaped like a pear Funnel-shaped tube about 4 inches long Solid gland that produces the hormones estrogen and progesterone

a. b. c. d.

ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 643

51. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin that may become toxic if taken over the

recommended amount? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin C c. Thiamine d. Folate ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 630

52. Which of the following groupings of vitamins and minerals support bone health the most

specifically? a. Vitamin A, vitamin D, and calcium b. Vitamin A, vitamin E, and sodium c. Zinc, vitamin B6, and vitamin B1 d. Potassium, sodium, and vitamin B12 ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 630

53. Which of the following supTpEoS rtsTnBeA rvNoK usSsEyL steLmER fu. ncCtio n the most?

OM a. Riboflavin b. Niacin c. Thiamine d. Biotin ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 630

54. Which of the following is important in managing free radical damage? a. Amylase b. Vitamin E c. Chloride d. Pantothenic acid ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 630

55. A person whose diet does not include eggs or dairy products would possibly need to take

supplements of which of the following? a. Vitamin C b. Folate c. Vitamin B12 d. Potassium ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 630

56. Which of the following foods contains the broadest spectrum of nutrients?

a. b. c. d.

Eggs Green leafy vegetables Cheese Bananas

ANS: B

DIF: 3

REF: p. 630

57. Which of the following is characterized by abdominal pain, alternating constipation and

diarrhea and gas, and can, in some cases, be alleviated by a diet high in fiber? a. Irritable bowel syndrome b. Peptic ulcer disease c. Gastroesophageal reflux d. Cystic fibrosis ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 633

58. What performs the actual filtering of blood inside the kidneys? a. Hilus b. Nephron c. Pelvis d. Adrenals ANS: B

DIF: 1

REF: p. 636

59. Water content makes up, on the average, how much of adult body weight? a. 20% b. 60% c. 75% d. 90% ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 636

60. The body will gain weight when energy input a. exceeds energy output. b. is less than energy output. c. equals energy output. d. remains constant.

ANS: A

DIF: 1

REF: p. 631

61. Ninety percent of lung cancer cases are caused by a. asbestos. b. air pollution. c. chemicals in ground water. d. tobacco smoke.

ANS: D

DIF: 1

REF: p. 619

62. What is the first part of the small intestine? a. Jejunum b. Cecum c. Duodenum d. Ileum

ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 624

63. Which of the following does the body prefer to use to make ATP? a. Glucose b. Amino acids c. Lipids d. Vitamins ANS: A

DIF: 3

REF: p. 629

64. What is the most common cause of kidney stone formation? a. Family history b. Dietary imbalances c. Dehydration d. Urinary tract infection ANS: C

DIF: 1

REF: p. 641

65. During the history taking process, a client indicates that she has asthma. Which body system

is affected? a. Digestive b. Urinary c. Respiratory d. Reproductive ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 615|p. 617

66. Which of the following coT ndEitS ioTnB s iAs NoK fteSnEcL auLsE edRo.rCagOgMravated by cigarette smoking? a. Emphysema b. Croup c. Cirrhosis d. Pancreatitis ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 618

67. A genetic disorder that causes abnormally thick and sticky mucus to be produced throughout

the body is a. diverticular disease. b. Crohn’s disease. c. tuberculosis. d. cystic fibrosis.

ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 619

68. An inflammation of the pleural membrane, usually the result of a lung infection such as

pneumonia, is a. pharyngitis. b. pleuritis. c. sinusitis. d. cervicitis.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 619

69. The definition of breathing pattern disorder is a a. sudden involuntary contraction of the inspiratory muscles. b. common viral infection of the entire body, resulting in fever, muscle aches and

weakness, backache, and cough. c. complex set of behaviors that leads to overbreathing in the absence of a pathologic

condition. d. condition where the person stops breathing for a period of 10 seconds or more while sleeping, at least a few times per hour.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 620

70. Which of the following is not related to the respiratory system? a. Choking b. Pneumonia c. Asthma d. Glomerulonephritis ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 641

71. Which of the following conditions would respond to an antibiotic medication? a. Cystitis b. Preeclampsia c. Endometriosis d. Influenza ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 640

72.7 Which of the following conditions poses a contagious risk to the massage therapist?

2 a. Endometriosis . b. Pneumonia c. Cystitis d. Appendicitis ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 618

73. Which of the following conditions is spread through bacterial-infected droplets released

through coughing? a. Cystic fibrosis b. Tuberculosis c. Cirrhosis d. Pancreatitis ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 619

74. Which of the following conditions have symptoms that include abdominal pain, alternating

constipation and diarrhea, nausea, and gas? a. Diverticulitis b. Pyelonephritis c. Prostatitis d. Bartholin’s cyst ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 633

75. Which of the following conditions affects only males? a. Benign prostatic hypertrophy b. Intestinal polyps c. Hyperemesis gravidarum d. Endometriosis ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 652

76. Which of the following is a urinary system disorder? a. Bartholin’s cyst b. Renal failure c. Reflux esophagitis d. Hepatitis ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 641

77. The condition of dilated varicose veins of the anus is a. dysentery. b. hernia. c. hemorrhoids. d. incontinence.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 631

78. Which of the following conditions is considered an autoimmune condition? a. Kidney stones b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Crohn’s disease d. Diverticular disease ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 633

79. Which of the following is a liver pathology? a. Appendicitis b. Constipation c. Cirrhosis d. Diverticulosis ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 633

80. Primary treatment for which condition consists of a high-fiber diet, increased intake of fluids,

and a bulk-forming laxative? a. Diverticulosis b. Peptic ulcer c. Reflux esophagitis d. Chlamydia ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 633

81. Which of the following conditions is treated with an antibiotic? a. Pulmonary edema b. Hyperemesis gravidarum

c. Herpes simplex d. Gonorrhea ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 652

82. Which of the following conditions is not related to pregnancy? a. Miscarriage b. Toxemia c. Dysmenorrhea d. Hyperemesis gravidarum ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 651

83. Which of the following conditions is an infection of the intestinal tract? a. Glomerulonephritis b. Cystic fibrosis c. Malabsorption d. Gastroenteritis ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 631

84. Screening for blood in the stool and sigmoidoscopy is a diagnostic procedure for a. cystic fibrosis. b. colon cancer. c. cholecystitis. d. croup.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 635

85. A common cause of respiratory failure that is treated with bronchodilators and oxygen therapy

is a. b. c. d.

lung cancer. emphysema. pulmonary edema. tuberculosis.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 620

86. A condition caused by a virus that causes painful blisters and small ulcers in and around the

mouth and the genital area is a. herpes simplex. b. syphilis. c. gonorrhea. d. chlamydia.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 653

87. A characteristic of fibroids is that they are a. glands located on each side of the vaginal opening. b. intrauterine devices for birth control. c. the most common disorder of the uterus. d. the most common malignancy in males.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 652

88. What type of miscarriage occurs when a pregnant woman’s cervix still is closed, but she has

cramps, bleeding, or staining? a. Missed b. Inevitable c. Incomplete d. Threatened ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 650

89. In older males who have prostate problems, problems urinating are most commonly caused by a. a spinal cord lesion. b. weak pelvic floor muscles. c. an obstruction. d. allergic reactions to medications.

ANS: C

DIF: 2

REF: p. 652

90. A symptom that may indicate kidney problems is a. itchy skin. b. chronic gastritis. c. heartburn. d. distended, tender, and bruised abdomen.

ANS: A

DIF: 2

REF: p. 641

91. Which of the following statements is accurate to maintain optimal body weight? a. Food is a source of energy for the body. b. Energy input should equal its output. c. Food intake should be less than calories burned. d. Energy based on calories should exceed metabolic rate.

ANS: B

DIF: 2

REF: p. 631

92. Which of the following functions of the urinary system would most interact with the normal

function of the cardiovascular system? a. Conservation of water b. Maintenance of the normal concentration of electrolyte c. Regulation of the acid-base balance d. Regulation of blood pressure ANS: D

DIF: 2

REF: p. 636