TEST BANK for Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy 6th Edition by Robert Bauman

Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy 6th Edition Bauman Test Bank

Contents CHAPTER 1 A Brief History of Microbiology CHAPTER 2 The Chemistry of Microbiology CHAPTER 3 Cell Structure and Function CHAPTER 4

Microscopy, Staining, and Classification

CHAPTER 5

Microbial Metabolism

CHAPTER 6

Microbial Nutrition and Growth

CHAPTER 7

Microbial Genetics

CHAPTER 8

Recombinant DNA Technology

CHAPTER 9

Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment

CHAPTER 10 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs CHAPTER 11 Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes CHAPTER 12 Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes CHAPTER 13 Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions CHAPTER 14 Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology CHAPTER 15 Innate Immunity CHAPTER 16 Adaptive Immunity CHAPTER 17 Immunization and Immune Testing CHAPTER 18 Immune Disorders CHAPTER 19 Pathogenic Gram-Positive Bacteria CHAPTER 20 Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci and Bacilli CHAPTER 21 Rickettsias, Chlamydias, Spirochetes and Vibrios CHAPTER 22 Pathogenic Fungi CHAPTER 23 Parasitic Protozoa, Helminths, and Arthropod Vectors CHAPTER 24 Pathogenic DNA Viruses CHAPTER 25 Pathogenic RNA Viruses CHAPTER 26 Applied and Industrial Microbiology CHAPTER 27 Microbial Ecology and Microbiomes

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Preface

The Test Bank consists of approximately 1800 multiple-choice, matching, true/false, fill- in-the-blank, short-answer, and essay questions. The questions are ranked using Bloom’s Taxonomy. The main text Learning Outcomes and the section upon which the question is based are also provided. The complete Mastering Test Bank is also tagged to Microbiology in Nursing and Allied Health (MINAH) Outcomes and the Pearson Global Science Learning Outcomes.

Below is a list of additional print and media resources available to you as an adopter of Microbiology. Contact your local Pearson representative if you would like to order any additional supplements. To locate the representative nearest you, visit https://www.pearson.com/us/contact-us/find-your-rep.html.

Using Mastering Microbiology with Your Textbook Ask your Pearson representative for a demonstration of Mastering Microbiology or take a tour (www.masteringmicrobiology.com).

1. Assign and assess with Mastering Microbiology. Mastering Microbiology will help you maximize class time with customizable, easy-to-assign, and automatically graded assessments. Many assessments have built-in feedback to help guide your students to the correct answer. You can then easily export grades to a course management system or spreadsheet. Mastering Microbiology includes the following powerful online tools: •

NEW Concept Maps give students the opportunity to construct their knowledge using a list of key terms as higher level Bloom's activities in a scaffolded, drag and drop format.

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NEW Solve the Problem activities provide a basic framework for more ambitious in-class group work.

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NEW Before You Begin questions test students’ foundational knowledge relevant to the appropriate book chapter.

NEW Micro Check questions challenge students to use newly acquired

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knowledge as they proceed through the chapters.

Video Tutors, narrated by the author, walk students through key concepts in the book.

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MicroLab Practicals give students extra practice in observing and analyzing important procedures and test results.

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MicroCareers Coaching Activities help students learn to think like a microbiologist by investigating emerging diseases from different career perspectives.

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MicroLab Tutors introduce students to a technique’s background, purpose, and clinical applications before walking through the procedure itself.

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Lab Technique Videos demonstrate specific lab techniques in 3–5 minutes.

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Disease in Depth coaching activities, corresponding to the feature in the book, encourage students to employ investigative skills using epidemiological and clinical field work to understand each featured disease.

PREFACE

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Disease at a Glance coaching activities require students to recognize and sort diseases by different categories (transmission type, pathogenesis, signs and symptoms, associated organisms, and treatment).

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Dynamic Study Modules boost knowledge acquisition and retention, fostering more effective study and class time and helping students to come to class better prepared and ready for higher levels of learning.

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Learning Catalytics provides meaningful question types and facilitate classroom discussions and activities, supporting active learning in every classroom.

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Clinical Case Study activities help students connect microbiological theory to real-world disease diagnosis and treatment.

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Pre-lecture reading quizzes encourage your students to read the textbook before coming to class.

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Post-lecture quizzes check students’ understanding.

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MicroFlix™ and BioFlix™ quizzes and activities provide students practice with 3-D movie-quality animations.

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Microbiology Animation quizzes help students master the toughest topics in microbiology.

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Pre-lab quizzes help to better prepare students for lab sessions.

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Post-lab quizzes check that lab objectives were met.

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Get Ready for Microbiology quizzes enable your students to come to your course prepared.

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Test Bank items test every chapter section.

A list of Concept Maps topics follows, organized by chapter:

Chapter 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18

Concept Map Title What Microbiologists Study Nucleic Acids Bacterial Cell Wall Gram Stain Aerobic Respiration Culture Media Point Mutations Recombinant DNA Technology Moist Heat Applications to Control Microorganisms Antimicrobial Resistance Archaeal Extremophiles Eukaryotic Microorganisms Replication of Animal Viruses Disease Transmission Phagocytosis Antibodies Vaccines Immediate Hypersensitivity PREFACE v

19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27

Tuberculosis Bacterial Meningitis Syphilis Systemic Mycoses Intestinal Protozoan Parasites Herpes Simplex Virus Viral Hepatitis Microbial Roles in Food Production Microbial Ecology and Biogeochemical Cycles

A list of Interactive Microbiology topics follows: Interactive Microbiology Title Biofilms and Quorum Sensing Operons Complement Antimicrobial Resistance – Mechanisms Antimicrobial Resistance – Selection Aerobic Respiration in Prokaryotes The Human Microbiome A list of video tutor topics follows, organized by chapter: Chapter 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 19 19 vi

PREFACE

Video Tutor Title The Scientific Method The Structure of Nucleotides Bacterial Cell Walls The Light Microscope Electron Transport Chains Bacterial Growth Media Initiation of Translation Action of Restriction Enzymes Principles of Autoclaving Actions of Some Drugs That Inhibit Prokaryotic Protein Synthesis Arrangements of Prokaryotic Cells Principles of Sexual Reproduction in Fungi The Lytic Cycle of Viral Replication Some Virulence Factors Inflammation Clonal Deletion ELISA Hemolytic Disease of the Newborn Necrotizing Fascitis Listeriosis, Tuberculosis

20 21 22 23 23 24 25 25

Bacterial urinary Tract Infections Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Candidiasis Giardiasis Malaria Warts (Papillomas) Hemorrhagic Fevers (Ebola) Influenza

A list of MicroFlix and BioFlix topics follows, organized by chapter: Chapter

MicroFlix Title

5 7 16

Metabolism DNA Replication Immunology

Chapter 3 7 12 12

BioFlix Title Tour of an Animal Cell Protein Synthesis Mitosis Meiosis

A list of Microbiology Animation topics follows, organized by chapter: Chapter 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 5 5

Microbiology Animation Title Active Transport: Overview Active Transport: Types Flagella: Arrangement Flagella: Movement Flagella: Structure Membrane Permeability Membrane Structure Motility: Overview Passive Transport: Principles of Diffusion Passive Transport: Special Types of Diffusion Flagella: Spirochetes Dichotomous Keys: Overview Dichotomous Keys: Practice Dichotomous Keys: Sample with Flowchart Electron Microscopy Light Microscopy Microscopy and Staining: Overview Staining Electron Transport Chain: Factors Affecting ATP Yield Electron Transport Chain: Overview PREFACE vii

5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 viii

PREFACE

Electron Transport Chain: The Process Enzymes: Competitive Inhibition Enzymes: Overview Enzymes: Steps in a Reaction Enzymes: Competitive Inhibition Enzyme-Substrate Interaction: Non-Competitive Inhibition Fermentation Glycolysis: Overview Glycolysis: Steps Krebs Cycle: Overview Krebs Cycle: Steps Metabolism: Overview Metabolism: The Big Picture Oxidation-Reduction Reactions Photosynthesis: Comparing Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes Photosynthesis: Light Independent Reaction Photosynthesis: Cyclic Photophosphorylation Photosynthesis: Noncyclic Photophosphorylation Photosynthesis: Overview Bacterial Growth Curve Bacterial Growth: Overview Bacterial Growth: Binary Fission Conjugation: Chromosome Mapping Conjugation: F Factor Conjugation: Hfr Conjugation Conjugation: Overview DNA Replication: Forming the Replication Fork DNA Replication: Overview DNA Replication: Replication Proteins DNA Replication: Synthesis Horizontal Gene Transfer: Overview Mutagens Mutations: Repair Mutations: Types Operons: Induction Operons: Overview Operons: Repression Transcription: Overview Transcription: The Process Transduction: Generalized Transduction Transduction: Specialized Transduction Transformation Translation: Overview

7 7 7 7 7 8 8 8 8 10 10 10 11 11 13 13 13 13 13 13 13 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 14 15 15 15 15 15 15 15 15 16 16

Translation: The Genetic Code Translation: The Process Transposons: Complex Transposons Transposons: Insertion Sequences Transposons: Overview PCR: Components PCR: The Process Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR): Overview Recombinant DNA Technology Antibiotic Resistance: Forms of Resistance Antibiotic Resistance: Origins of Resistance Chemotherapeutic Agents: Modes of Action Bacterial Growth: Overview Photosynthesis: Comparing Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes Prions: Characteristics Prions: Diseases Prions: Overview Viral Replication: Animal Viruses Viral Replication: Overview Viral Replication: Temperate Bacteriophages Viral Replication: Virulent Bacteriophages Epidemiology: Occurrence of Diseases Epidemiology: Overview Epidemiology: Transmission of Disease Nosocomial Infections: Overview Nosocomial Infections: Prevention Phagocytosis: Microbes that Evade It Virulence Factors: Endotoxins Virulence Factors: Enteric Pathogens Virulence Factors: Exotoxins Virulence Factors: Hiding from Host Defenses Virulence Factors: Inactivating Host Defenses Virulence Factors: Penetrating Host Tissues Complement System: Activation Complement System: Overview Complement System: Results Host Defenses: Overview Inflammation: Overview Inflammation: Steps Phagocytosis: Mechanism Phagocytosis: Overview Antigen Processing and Presentation: MHC Antigen Processing and Presentation: Overview PREFACE

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Antigen Processing and Presentation: Steps Cell-Mediated Immunity: Cytotoxic T Cells Cell-Mediated Immunity: Helper T Cells Cell-Mediated Immunity: Overview Host Defenses: The Big Picture Humoral Immunity: Antibody Function Humoral Immunity: Clonal Selection and Expansion Humoral Immunity: Overview Humoral Immunity: Primary Immune Response Humoral Immunity: Secondary Immune Response Vaccines: Function Vaccines: Types Virulence Factors: Enteric Pathogens 2. Encourage your students to use the Study Area in Mastering Microbiology.

They will find extensive self-study tools there, including: •

Three-Step Chapter Guide takes students through these simple steps: Take a Pre-Test, Learn & Practice, and Test Yourself.

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Chapter Tests help students assess prior knowledge and/or preconceptions of topics relevant to the chapter at hand before students read the chapter.

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Practice Quizzes—multiple choice, fill-in-the-blank, and true/false—help students master chapter topics.

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Concept Maps help students practice building maps to organize concepts in a meaningful, visual way.

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MicroFlix 3-D movie-quality animations illustrate the three tough topics of metabolism, DNA replication, and immunology.

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BioFlix 3-D movie-quality animations explain basic topics in general biology.

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Microbiology Animations with Quizzes help students master the toughest topics in microbiology via interactive, animated tutorials.

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Microbiology Videos feature live-action videos of microorganisms, illustrating microbial structures and motility.

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Flashcards help students review key terms and concepts from the text.

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Glossary allows students to check the definition of bolded terms in the book.

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Careers provides useful information about working in a microbiology-related field; basic research, applied research, and health professions are covered.

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Scientific American Quizzes help students check their understanding of articles in the current issues of Microbiology magazine by Scientific American.

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Pearson eText provides the complete text of Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, Sixth Edition, in online electronic format.

Other Instructor Media Resources Instructor Resource Download x

PREFACE

0-135-21066-6/ 978-0-135-21066-6 The Instructor Resource area in Mastering Microbiology (Instructor access) offers a wealth of instructor media resources, including presentation art, lecture outlines, test items, and answer keys—all in one convenient location. These resources help instructors prepare for class—and create dynamic lectures—in half the time! These include: •

All figures from the book with and without labels in both JPEG and PowerPoint® formats, the latter including the Label Edit feature

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Select “process” figures from the book with the Step Edit feature in PowerPoint® format

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All tables from the book

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MicroLab Tutors, Lab Technique Videos, MicroFlix™ and BioFlix™ Animations, Microbiology Animations, and Microbiology Videos

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PowerPoint® lecture outlines, including figures and tables from the book and links to the animations

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Active Lecture Clicker Questions

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Quiz Show Clicker Questions

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The Test Bank as editable Microsoft® Word files

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The Test Bank in TestGen® format

Updates to the Sixth Edition •

NEW Micro in the Clinic case studies at the beginning of each chapter with critical thinking questions, follow-up discussion, and further questions at the end of the chapter.

PREFACE

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NEW Before You Begin questions at the beginning of each chapter for students to assess whether they are ready for the chapter material.

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NEW Micro Check questions throughout each chapter to prompt students to review their understanding of the material they just read.

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Disease in Depth spreads feature important and representative diseases for each body system, extending the visual impact of the art program as well as the highly-praised Disease at a Glance features. Each of these six visual spreads contains info-graphics, providing in-depth coverage of the selected disease, and referencing Dr. Bauman’s Video Tutors, prompting further exploration and critical thinking. New Mastering Microbiology® assignable Disease in Depth coaching activities encourage students to apply and test their understanding of key concepts.

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Numbered Learning Outcomes in the textbook are used to tag Test Bank questions and all Mastering assets. In addition to being tagged to Learning Outcomes, all Mastering assessments are tagged to the Global Science Learning Outcomes and Bloom’s Taxonomy. The complete Mastering Test Bank is also tagged to Microbiology in Nursing and Allied Health (MINAH) recommended outcomes.

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The immunology chapters (Chapters 15–18), which have been and continue to be reviewed in-depth by immunology specialists, reflect the most current understanding of this rapidly evolving field.

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NEW micrographs and photos enhance student understanding of the text and boxed features.

The following section provides a detailed outline of this edition’s chapter-by-chapter revisions.

THROUGHOUT THE DISEASE CHAPTERS (19–25) •

Updated disease diagnoses, treatments, and incidence and prevalence data.

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Updated immunization recommendations and suggested treatments for all diseases.

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Expanded coverage of virulence factors.

Chapter 1 A Brief History of Microbiology

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NEW Before You Begin, two questions at the beginning of the chapter.

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Micro in the Clinic case study “Too Much Cake or Something Worse” with critical thinking and follow-up questions

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NEW Solve the Problem feature “Smallpox: To Be or Not to Be?” posing questions for class discussion.

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Thirteen new Micro Check questions throughout the chapter.

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Expanded discussion of the contributions of researchers in Robert Koch’s lab, including Fanny Hesse.

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The contribution of Lady Mary Wortly Montagu to the development of vaccines has been added, along with her portrait.

PREFACE

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Eight new photos (1.2, 1.3, 1.11, 1.15, 1.16, 1.17, 1.20, 1.22)

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Two figures revised for better pedagogy, clarity, and accuracy (1.10, 1.21)

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Updated map showing countries having transmission of variant CreutzfeldtJakob disease (vJCD)

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Simplified the language and sentence structure

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Added discussion of the contribution of Fanny Hesse to the success of Koch’s laboratory with her introduction of agar

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Increased coverage of Florence Nightingale and her accomplishments

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Added the work of Lady Mary Worley Montague to the discussion of the development of vaccination

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Introduced the success of gene therapy to treat several inherited immune deficiencies

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Added to list of current problems in microbiology: Ebola control and the problems associated with emerging diseases

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Added a Tell Me Why concerning the accomplishments of Nightingale leading to consideration of her as “Mother” of Medical Microbiology

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Added a critical thinking question concerning the “fatherhood” of microbiology (Leeuwenhoek vs. Pasteur)

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Deleted Learning Outcome 1.21 concerning fastest-growing fields within microbiology; this topic is better covered by an instructor in class rather than in a textbook

Chapter 2 The Chemistry of Microbiology • • • • • • •

NEW Before You Begin, two questions at the beginning of the chapter NEW Micro in the Clinic case study “Can Spicy Food Cause Ulcers” with critical thinking and follow-up questions and answers.

NEW Twenty-four Micro Check questions throughout the chapter.

Representation of ether bond in Table 2.3 clarified for better pedagogy Clarified that most organisms code for 21 amino acids, though 20 are more common New Learning Outcome regarding electron shells and valence electrons.

Added Learning Outcomes 2.3 regarding the chemistry of carbohydrates and Learning Outcome 2.25 regarding the general structure of amino acids

Chapter 3 Cell Structure and Function • • •

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NEW Before You Begin, four questions at the beginning of the chapter NEW Micro in the Clinic case study “Kidney Infection Leading to Mental Confusion?” with critical thinking and follow-up questions and answers.

NEW Thirty-three Micro Check questions throughout the chapter. Revised and enhanced artwork in eleven figures for enhanced pedagogy (3.2, 3.3, 3.15, 3.16, 3.21, 3.22, 3.23, 3.32, 3.33, 3.37, 3.39).

Enhanced discussion of chemistry and function of lipids in archaeal cytoplasmic membranes Clarified that endotoxin refers to lipopolysaccharide (LPS), which contains the toxic molecule lipid A PREFACE

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Recognized Lynn Margulis as a proponent of the theory of endosymbiosis Added Clinical Case Study: The Big Game about strep throat

PREFACE

Chapter 4 Microscopy, Staining, and Classification •

NEW Before You Begin, three questions

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NEW Micro in the Clinic case study “End of the Camping Trip?” with critical thinking and follow-up questions and answers.

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NEW Sixteen Micro Check questions throughout the chapter. Five other

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new/upgraded photos (4.10c, 4.11c, 4.12, 4.18, 4.24).

Revised and enhanced artwork in Figure 4.4 for enhanced pedagogy Expanded discussion of resolution; immersion oil; the appearance of scanning electron, scanning tunneling, and atomic force micrographs; mordants; definitions of microbial species and serotypes; and the role of George Fox in the discovery of the archaea and three domains of life Added contribution of Rebecca Lancefield to serological identification of streptococci Added discussion of matrix-assisted laser desorption/ionization time-of-flight (MALDI/TOF) mass spectrometry as a method of identification of microbial species and diagnoses At request of reviewers and instructors, reduced complexity and chapter length by removing detailed figures for dark field, phase, and scanning electron microscopy

Chapter 5 Microbial Metabolism •

NEW Before You Begin, three questions

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NEW Micro in the Clinic case study “Scraped Knee and Loss of a Leg?” with critical thinking and follow-up questions and answers.

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NEW Sixteen Micro Check questions throughout the chapter

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Updated artwork of Biosynthesis of a fat, a lipid figure.

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One new photo (5.23b) Revised fifteen figures for greater clarity and better pedagogy (5.3, 5.6, 5.9, 5.10, 5.11, 5.12, 5.14, 5.15, 5.17, 5.18, 5.21, 5.22, 5.25, 5.31, Concept map) Revised textual explanation of glycolysis to make it more clear and pedagogically efficient Fully adopted current name citric acid cycle instead of eponymous Krebs cycle

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Chapter 6 Microbial Nutrition and Growth •

NEW Before You Begin, four questions

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NEW Micro in the Clinic case study “Just A Sore Throat and Cough” case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions

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NEW Twelve Micro Check questions throughout the chapter.

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NEW Solve The Problem “The Microbes Ate My Homework”

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New Emerging Disease Case Study: Vibrio vulnificus Infection

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New figure depicting quorum sensing (Fig. 6.7)

PREFACE

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Chapter 7 Microbial Genetics •

NEW Before you Begin five questions

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NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

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Upgraded twenty-two figures for greater clarity, accuracy, ease of reading, and better pedagogy (7.1, 7.5, 7.6, 7.8, 7.9, 7.10, 7.11, 7.12, 7.13, 7.15, 7.16, 7.17, 7.18, 7.19, 7.20, 7.21, 7.25, 7.26, 7.27, 7.28, 7.29, 7.33)

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One new figure concerning termination of translation (7.20)

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Added new Learning Outcome (7.7) concerning the concept that nucleotide base complementarity ensures precise and accurate DNA replication

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Added critical thinking question to Figure 7.13 concerning central dogma of genetics

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Noted some contributions of Esther Lederberg to microbial genetics (development of replica plating and the discovery of the F plasmid)

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Clarified the structure of eukaryotic chromosomes

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Added term constitutive genes to contrast with operon genes

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Moved Beneficial Microbes: Life in a Hot Tub (Taq polymerase) to chapter 8 where its direct application for PCR is more apparent

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Moved Emerging Disease Case Study: Vibrio vulnificus Infection to chapter 6: the microbe’s use of quorum sensing increases its virulence

Chapter 8 Recombinant DNA Technology

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NEW Before you Begin, four questions

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NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

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Two figures revised for improved pedagogy (Figures 8.7, 8.8)

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One new figure illustrating a form of CRISPR (8.4)

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Modified Table 8.1 to more accurately depict restriction sites

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Added seven NEW Learning Outcomes concerning CRISPR, uses of synthetic nucleic acids, PCR, fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH), functional genomics, Sanger sequencing, and next generation sequencing

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Deleted figures for Southern blots and Sanger automated DNA sequencing as these techniques are more historical than current

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Enhanced or added discussion of restriction enzymes HaeIII and MspI; CRISPR-Cas; real-time PCR (RT-PCR); Sanger sequencing methods; next generation DNA sequencing (NGS), including pyrosequencing and fluorescent methods; functional genomics; microbiomes; transcriptomics, metabolomics, biomedical animal models; heat shocking for the uptake of DNA; and successful gene therapies

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Moved Beneficial Microbes: Life in a Hot Tub (Taq polymerase) from Chapter 7 to Chapter 8 where its direct application for PCR is more apparent

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Fully adopted current name recombinant DNA technology instead of sometimes controversial or problematic genetic engineering

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Added two end of chapter questions over CRISPR

PREFACE

Chapter 9 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment • • • • •

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NEW Before you Begin, four questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

One figure revised for better accuracy, currency and pedagogy (Figure 9.11) Two new photos (9.4, 9.11) New Solve the Problem: How Clean is Too Clean problem-based learning investigation concerning the potential overuse of household and industrial disinfectants Revised definition of heavy-metal ions Updated techniques for deactivation of prions, coverage of thimerosal in vaccines, and activity of AOAC International in developing disinfection standards

Chapter 10 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs •

NEW Before you Begin, four questions

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NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

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Updated and revised tables of antimicrobials to include all new antimicrobials mentioned in disease chapters, including antibacterial capreomycin, anthelmintic bithionol, anti-influenzavirus peramivir; updated sources of drugs, modes of action, clinical considerations, and methods of resistance

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Eight revised figures for greater clarity, accuracy, ease of reading, and better pedagogy (10.2, 10.3, 10.4, 10.5, 10.6, 10.7, 10.16; map of worldwide, community-associated MRSA

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One new figure showing Therapeutic index (10.15)

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Two new photos (10.10, 10.14)

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Added discussion of: 1) drugs that inhibit protein synthesis by interfering with the charging of tRNA molecules, the new antibiotic teixobactin, 2) the importance of persister cells for antimicrobial resistance, 3) the CDC’s threat levels for microbial drug resistance

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Enhanced and clarified discussion of therapeutic index, therapeutic window, and adverse effects of gramicidin

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Added Learning Outcome over persister cells

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Increased discussion of women’s contributions to development of antimicrobial drugs: developing the first effective antiviral agent (acyclovir), the first anti-HIV agent (azidothymidine), and an antifungal agent (nystatin); elucidation of the 3-D structure of penicillin, which allowed the synthesis of synthetic penicillins; and as leaders of medical organizations, director-general of WHO and director of the CDC

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Removed amantadine as a treatment for influenza A

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Added new Learning Outcome on action of mupirocin, which interferes with charging of tRNAIle

PREFACE

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Chapter 11 Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes • • • • • •

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NEW Before you Begin, four questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

Two new photos (Figures 11.14b, 11.18) Three revised figures better pedagogy (Figures 11.6, 11.10, 11.24) Added four Tell Me Why critical thinking questions to text Clarified binary fission of cocci to form tetrads; clarified taxonomic groupings among the bacteria, expanded on the properties mycoplasmas use to protect themselves from osmosis; distinguished between true reproductive spores and endospores; expanded coverage of acid-fast staining and acid-fast bacilli (AFBs); expanded on the zetaproteobacteria New Learning Outcomes concerning: classes of proteobacteria, the use of Agrobacterium in genetic modification of plants New end-of-chapter Short Answer Question concerning the special features of snapping division

Chapter 12 Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes • • • • • •

NEW Before you Begin, five questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

Eight new photos (12.7, 12.13, 12.16b, 12.20b, 12.21a(2), 12.25, Emerging Disease Case Study: Chronic Aspergillosis) Four revised figures for better pedagogy (Figures 12.1, 12.2, 12.8, 12.18) Updated, revised, or clarified discussion of cytokinesis; asexual spores of fungi; truffles; expanded discussion and location of algal flagella New Learning Outcomes concerning fungal nutrition, fungal morphology,

Chapter 13 Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions • • •

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NEW Before you Begin, five questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

New Solve the Problem: Microengineer a Better Mosquito? problembased learning exercise concerning using genetically engineered Wolbachia bacteria to reduce mosquito populations Updated viral nomenclature to correspond to changes approved by the International Committee on Taxonomy of Viruses (ICTV) (2016) Six new photos (13.3b, 13.5a, 13.7b, Beneficial Microbes: Prescription Viruses?,13.19, 13.21) Upgraded three figures for better pedagogy and currency (13.22, 13.23, 13.24) Added discussion of the work of Esther Lederberg in the discovery of lambda phage and lysogeny Revised discussion of prions; expanded discussion of bacteriophages for treatment of human diseases and synthesis strategies of animal viruses

xviii PREFACE

Chapter 14 Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology • • •

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NEW Before you Begin, three questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

New Solve the Problem: Microbes in the Produce Aisle problem-based learning exercise concerning epidemiological case study concerning Legionella outbreak Epidemiology charts, tables, graphs, and maps updated Updated list of nationally notifiable infectious conditions (changed AIDS to HIV Stage III; added cancer, carbapenems-resistant infections of Enterobacteriaceae; Zika virus disease and infections; changed SARS to Severe acute respiratory syndrome-associated coronavirus disease) Changed four figures for better pedagogy, timeliness, or clarity (14.7, 14.14, 14.16, 14.18) One new photo (14.12) Changed the term normal microbiota to resident microbiome (resident microbiota) to reflect current vocabulary and reflect the fact that microbiota normal for one person may be different in another New question for Clinical Case Study: A Deadly Carrier concerning control of an epidemic when antimicrobial drugs are unavailable Clarified and expanded discussion of parenteral infections and the list of arthropod vectors for microbial diseases

Chapter 15 Innate Immunity • •

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NEW Before you Begin, three questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

Added new Tell Me Why critical thinking questions to The Body’s First Line of Defense concerning lysozyme Expanded coverage of the action of antimicrobial peptides (defensins), probiotics, defensive action of resident microbiome, phagocytosis, Clarified the processes involved in the first line of defense Added nature and action of dermicidins, fatty acids, and mucins Modified one figure for enhanced clarity and better pedagogy (15.8)

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Three new photos [15.5 (2), 15.10]

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Chapter 16 Adaptive Immunity •

NEW Before you Begin, three questions

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NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

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Five revised figures for greater accuracy and pedagogical efficiency (16.3, 16.4, 16.7, 16.9, 16.12, 16.14)

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One new photo (16.5)

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Revised and added to Learning Outcomes (16.27), concerning the events in antibody immune responses

PREFACE

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New table (16.1) summarizing differences between innate and adaptive immunity

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Revised and clarified terminology for CD8+ and CD4+ cells, genetic basis for creation of BCR and TCR diversity, binding capability of MHC

Chapter 17 Immunization and Immune Testing • • •

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NEW Before you Begin, four questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

New Solve the Problem: Rights versus Responsibilities problem-based learning exercise concerning balancing the benefits of immunization versus the rights of families to direct their own health care Added a Tell Me Why critical thinking question to text Updated to newly revised CDC 2018 vaccination schedule for children, adolescents, and adults Updated table of vaccine preventable diseases in the United States Three revised figures for better pedagogy (17.1, 17.2, 7.3) Two new photos (17.10, 17.11b) Updated, clarified and in some cases increased coverage of safety and efficacy of immunizations, treatment with passive immunotherapy using monoclonal antibodies, determination of blood type by agglutination, use of indirect fluorescent immunoassays, antibody sandwich ELISA, and immunochromatographic assays Standardized usage of immunization versus vaccination, which specifically describes immunization against smallpox Reworded labeled antibody tests as labeled immunoassays

Chapter 18 AIDS and Other Immune Disorders • • • •

NEW Before you Begin, three questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

Three revised figures for better pedagogy, accuracy, and clarity (18.1, 18.5, 18.6) Updated and clarified the role of IgE, basophils, and mast cells in type I hypersensitivity

Chapter 19 Pathogenic Gram Positive Bacteria • • • • •

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NEW Before you Begin, five questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

Updated diagnoses, incidence data, treatments, and prevention, particularly for necrotizing fasciitis, streptococcal pneumonia, tetanus, tuberculosis Seven new photos [(19.2, 19.7, 19.11, 19.18, 19.19, 19.21, Microbe at a Glance: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Disease in Depth: Necrotizing Fasciitis (1)] Six revisions to figures for consistency, currency, accuracy, and better pedagogy (19.5, 19.13, Disease in Depth: Tuberculosis (2), Listeriosis (2)

PREFACE

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Added discussion of cellulitis, HA-MRSA, CA-MRSA, use of term GAS for group A Streptococcus (S. pyogenes), red squirrels as host for Mycobacterium leprae Updated and clarified discussion of erysipelas, rheumatic fever, puerperal fever, necrotizing fasciitis (it is polymicrobial rather than monomicrobial), Lancefield classification of Enterococcus, atypical (walking) pneumonia Updated immunization schedule for diphtheria Enhanced Concept Mapping to include new treatment regimen for tuberculosis New Clinical Case Study over MRSA cellulitis

Chapter 20 Pathogenic Gram-Negactive Cocci and Bacilli • • • • • •

•

•

NEW Before you Begin, three questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

New Learning Outcome regarding antibody immune responses Updated all diagnoses, treatments, and incidence data Twelve new photos [20.2, 20.4a, 20.7b, 20.12, Disease in Depth: Urinary Tract Infections (2), 20.13, 20.20, 20.21, 20.25, 20.28, 20.29] Fourteen revised figures for better pedagogy (20.3, 20.7a, 20.8, 20.9, 20.10, Disease in Depth: Urinary Tract Infections (3); 20.15, 20.16, 20.17, 20.22, 20.23, 20.25) Added discussion of strains of E. coli, carbapenem-resistant enterobacteriaceae (CREs); Margaret Pittman’s role in elucidating the strains of H. influenzae; emergence of extremely drug resistant (XDR) Salmonella typhi in Pakistan in 2018 Updated and clarified discussion of breakdown of maltose by Neisseria

Chapter 21 Rickettsias, Chlamydias, Spirochetes, and Vibrios • • • • •

•

NEW Before you Begin, three questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

Updated all diagnoses, treatments, and incidence data Four new photos [21.5, 21.9(a-c)] Eight revised figures for better pedagogy (21.1, 21.2, Disease in Depth: Rocky Mountain spotted Fever (1), 21.3, Microbe at a Glance: Treponema, 21.8, 21.12, 21.13) Added discussion of potential vaccine against Chlamydia trachomatis, manifestations of Chlamydia trachomatis, a new vaccine against Lyme disease

Chapter 22 Pathogenic Fungi • • •

NEW Before you Begin, four questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

Seven new Learning Outcomes concerning mycoses of opportunistic fungi, Pneumocystis pneumonia, candidiasis, aspergillosis, microsporidia, and microsporidiosis PREFACE

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• •

Updated all diagnoses, treatments, and incidence data, particularly histoplasmosis, blastomycosis, and coccidioidomycosis Updated name of Penicillium marneffei to Talaromyces marneffei (renamed in 2015) Modified six Questions for Review at the end of the chapter (MC: 4, 13; MTF: 3, 10; FIB: 7; SA: 4) Modified Concept Mapping for the up to date treatment for aspergillosis (vericonazole) Four new photos for enhanced pedagogy (22.4b, 22.9, 22.11, 22.20) Modified five figures for enhanced pedagogy and lucidity (22.2, 22.3, 22.5, 22.7, Disease in Depth: Candidiasis) One new figure concerning microsporidial life cycle (22.14) Updated and enhanced discussion of potential vaccines against fungi

•

Added discussion of emerging pathogens—microsporidia

• • • • •

Chapter 23 Rickettsias, Chlamydias, Spirochetes, and Vibrios • • • • •

• •

NEW Before you Begin, three questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

Updated all diagnoses, incidence data, and treatments, particularly giardiasis, schistosomiasis, and babesiosis Ten new, more engaging photos (23.2, 23.6, 23.8, Disease in depth: Giardiasis (1), 23.10, 23.12, 23.15, 23.18b, 23.19b and c, Fourteen revised, updated, enhanced, and pedagogically more effective figures [23.1, 23.3, 23.5, 23.6, Disease in Depth: Giardiasis (3), Disease in Depth: Malaria (4), 23.9, 23.14, Emerging Disease Case Study: Babesiosis)] Clarified features of the life cycles of trypanosomes, nematodes Redrew Concept mapping to more accurately reflect parasitic protozoa

Chapter 24 Pathogenic DNA Viruses • • • • •

•

xxii PREFACE

NEW Before you Begin, four questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

Updated all diagnoses, incidence data, and treatments, adenoviral diseases, hepatitis B, and newly-approved treatment for smallpox Three new photos (24.3, 24.7, 24.15) Eight revised, updated, enhanced, and pedagogically more effective figures [Microbe at a Glance: Orthopoxvirus variola (Smallpox Virus (1), 24.12, Disease in Depth: Papillomas (2)], 24.16, Microbe at a Glance: Adenovirus, 24.18, 24.20, 24.21) Updated and enhanced discussion of adenoviral diseases, the role of papillomaviruses in the development of oral and throat cancers, and sign of erythema infectiosum

Chapter 25 Pathogenic RNA Viruses • • • • •

•

NEW Before You Begin, three questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

Updated all diagnoses, incidence data, and treatments, adenoviral diseases, hepatitis B, and newly-approved treatment for smallpox Three new photos (24.3, 24.7, 24.15) Eight revised, updated, enhanced, and pedagogically more effective figures [Microbe at a Glance: Orthopoxvirus variola (Smallpox Virus (1), 24.12, Disease in Depth: Papillomas (2)], 24.16, Microbe at a Glance: Adenovirus, 24.18, 24.20, 24.21 Updated and enhanced discussion of adenoviral diseases, the role of papillomaviruses in the development of oral and throat cancers, and sign of erythema infectiosum

Chapter 26 Applied and Industrial Microbiology • • • • • •

•

NEW Before you Begin, three questions Split the chapter into two so as give more attention to applied microbiology NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

One new photo (26.14) Five figures revised, updated, or enhanced for better pedagogy (26.1, Emerging Disease: Primary Amebic Meningoencephalitis, 26.6, 26.8, 26.9, 26.10 Revised and enhanced discussion of pickling, “live” yogurt, rennin, cheese making, butanol as an alternative fuel, seaweed as biosensors, drinking water treatment, wastewater treatment Added four fill-in-the-blank questions and two new Visualize It! questions to the Questions for Review at the end of chapter

Chapter 27 Microbial Ecology and Microbiomes • • •

• • • • •

NEW Before You Begin, three questions NEW Micro in the Clinic case study with critical thinking and follow-up questions.

New Solve the Problem: Fecal Microbiome Transfer: Medicine of Magic? problem-based learning exercise on ecology of human microbiome and the use of fecal transplantation to treat chronic gastrointestinal diseases Four figures revised, updated, or enhanced for better pedagogy (27.1, 27.4, 27.5, 27.6) One other new photo (27.7) New Clinical Case Study: Bioterrorism in the Mail concerning anthrax Added coverage of the World Microbiome Project One new Multiple Choice question, one new Modified True/False question, one new Fill in the Blanks question, and three new Critical Thinking questions added to the end of chapter Questions for Review

PREFACE

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Send Us Your Feedback We hope that you find the Instructor’s Manual useful, and we welcome your comments and feedback! Please write to us at the following address: Robert W. Bauman c/o Applied Sciences, Pearson Education 50 California Street San Francisco, CA 94111

xxiv PREFACE

Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 1 A Brief History of Microbiology 1.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to A) use a magnifying glass.

B) develop a taxonomic system.

C) view microorganisms and record these observations.

D) disprove spontaneous generation.

E) propose the germ theory of disease.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.1 2) The microbes commonly known as motile.

A) archaea B) bacteria C) fungi D) protozoa E) viruses Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3

are single-celled eukaryotes that are generally

3) Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE? A) The group includes seaweeds and kelps.

B) They are photosynthetic organisms.

C) They provide most of the oxygen on Earth.

D) They are important in the degradation of dead plants and animals.

E) They are a source of food for aquatic and marine animals.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3

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4) Louis Pasteur demonstrated that fermentation of sugar to produce alcohol is caused by A) aerobes.

B) facultative anaerobes.

C) obligate parasites.

D) archaea.

E) prokaryotes.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.6 5) Which of the following scientists provided evidence in favor of the concept of spontaneous generation?

A) Pasteur B) Needham C) Redi D) Buchner E) Spallanzani Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9 6) Pasteur's experiments on fermentation laid the foundation for A) industrial microbiology.

B) epidemiology.

C) immunology.

D) abiogenesis.

E) antisepsis.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.11 7) Which of the following statements about fungi is FALSE? A) Fungi are eukaryotes.

B) Molds are multicellular.

C) Fungi have a cell wall.

D) Fungi are photosynthetic.

E) Yeasts are unicellular.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3

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8) Which of the following contributed to the successful application of Koch's postulates?

A) The development of the compound microscope.

B) The theory of abiogenesis.

C) The ability to record the appearance of bacteria photographically.

D) The development of simple bacterial staining techniques.

E) The development of techniques for sterile transfer of bacteria.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.14 9) Which of the following individuals pioneered the use of chemicals to reduce the incidence of infections during surgery?

A) Nightingale B) Snow C) Ehrlich D) Lister E) Semmelweis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 10) The technique developed by Hans Christian Gram is important for bacterial A) etiology.

B) identification.

C) classification.

D) isolation.

E) epidemiology.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.15 11) The use of chemical agents to harm or kill microbes is A) immunology.

B) chemotherapy.

C) epidemiology.

D) serology.

E) biotechnology.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18

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12) Parasitic worms, even meters-long tapeworms, are studied in microbiology because A) they are parasites.

B) diagnosis usually involves microscopic examination of patient samples.

C) the Gram stain can be used to identify them.

D) Leeuwenhoek first discovered them.

E) no one else wants to study them.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 13) Which of the following areas of investigation is considered a major driver of modern microbiology?

A) microbial classification B) industrial microbiology C) the etiology of infectious disease D) genetics E) food preparation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 14) Work by laid the foundations of immunology with the development of vaccines.

A) Redi and Spallanzani B) Koch and Pasteur C) Jenner and Pasteur D) Lister and Semmelweis E) Pauling and Woese Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.17 15) According to Kluyver and van Niel, which of the following are TRUE of basic biochemical reactions?

A) They are shared by all living things.

B) There are an unlimited number of them.

C) They primarily involve the transfer of electrons and ions.

D) Basic biochemical reactions shared by all living things primarily involve transfer of electrons and hydrogen ions.

E) They primarily involve transfers of chemical groups.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Semmelweis advocated handwashing as a method of preventing which of the following diseases?

A) cholera B) puerperal fever C) smallpox D) anthrax E) syphilis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 17) Paul Ehrlich used chemotherapy to treat A) cholera.

B) cancer.

C) anthrax.

D) smallpox.

E) syphilis.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18 18) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of viruses?

A) They are visible with a light microscope.

B) They are acellular.

C) They are composed of genetic material and protein.

D) They are typically smaller than prokaryotic cells.

E) They are obligatory parasites.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 19) The first true vaccine protected against disease caused by a(n) A) bacterial B) protozoal C) fungal D) viral E) archaeal Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.17

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_ pathogen.

20) All of the following individuals were involved in improving public health in the 19th century EXCEPT A) Snow.

B) Spallanzani.

C) Nightingale.

D) Semmelweis.

E) Lister.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 21) The microorganisms Antoni van Leeuwenhoek called "animalcules" we would recognize as A) bacteria.

B) algae.

C) protozoa.

D) fungus.

E) both bacteria and protozoa.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.2 22) Inserting a gene from the hepatitis B virus into yeast so that the yeast produces a viral protein is an example of A) etiology.

B) genetic engineering.

C) immunology.

D) microbial genetics.

E) gene therapy.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 23) Which of the following was NOT an aspect of Pasteur's experiments to disprove spontaneous generation?

A) The necks of the flasks he used were bent into an S-shape.

B) He boiled the infusions to kill any microbes present.

C) The flasks were incubated for very long periods of time.

D) The flasks were free of microbes until they were opened.

E) The flasks he used were sealed with corks.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Which of the following was a crucial difference between the work of John T. Needham and Louis Pasteur on the question of spontaneous generation?

A) Whether or not the infusions were boiled.

B) Whether or not the flasks were sealed.

C) Whether meat or infusions were used.

D) The length of time the flasks were boiled.

E) The method of sealing the flasks.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9 25) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of protozoa?

A) Most exhibit asexual reproduction.

B) They are single-celled organisms.

C) They are eukaryotic organisms.

D) They are all photosynthetic.

E) They frequently possess cilia or flagella.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 26) Who formulated the hypothesis that certain chemicals could kill microbes without harming humans was the foundation for chemotherapy?

A) Ehrlich B) Koch C) Gram D) Lister E) Pasteur Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18 27) The work of Eduard Buchner and the discovery of enzymes laid the foundations for the field of A) biochemistry.

B) epidemiology.

C) immunology.

D) mycology.

E) genetics.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) What is the correct order for the application of Koch's postulates?

I. Inoculate suspect agent into test subject and observe that subject develops disease of interest.

II. Isolate and culture suspect agent in the laboratory.

III. Find suspect agent is every case of disease of interest but not in healthy hosts.

IV. Recover and isolate suspect agent from test subject.

A) III, I, IV, II B) IV, I, III, II C) I, II, III, IV D) III, II, I, IV E) IV, I, II, III Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.14 29) John Snow's research during a cholera outbreak in London laid the foundation for which of the following branches of microbiology?

A) infection control only B) epidemiology only C) immunology only D) both infection control and epidemiology E) infection control, epidemiology, and immunology Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 30) Robert Koch was involved in research on all of the following topics EXCEPT A) the cause of anthrax.

B) the cause of fermentation.

C) development of a method to determine the cause of an infectious disease.

D) the cause of tuberculosis.

E) techniques for isolating microbes in the laboratory.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13

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31) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing?

A) protozoa; multicellular B) fungi; cell walls C) algae; aquatic and marine habitats D) prokaryotes; no nuclei E) viruses; acellular parasites Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 32) What was the first disease shown to be bacterial in origin?

A) yellow fever B) cholera C) anthrax D) malaria E) tuberculosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13 33) The work of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all contributed to controlling infectious disease by A) developing techniques for isolating pathogens.

B) developing methods for reducing healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).

C) identifying the sources of infectious agents.

D) determining the taxonomic relationships among microbes.

E) developing vaccines.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 34) Who discovered penicillin?

A) Fleming B) Ehrlich C) Kitasato D) Pasteur E) Domagk Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18

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35) The principle of disinfection to reduce HAIs (healthcare-associated infections) among patients was initially introduced by A) L. Pasteur and R. Koch.

B) I. Semmelweis and J. Lister.

C) P. Ehrlich and A. Fleming.

D) J. Snow and R. Koch.

E) E. Jenner and L. Pasteur.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 36) Microorganisms characterized by the absence of a nucleus are called A) fungi.

B) pathogens.

C) eukaryotes.

D) prokaryotes.

E) viruses.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.5 37) The term that literally means "against putrefaction" is A) antisepsis.

B) prokaryote.

C) chemotherapy.

D) recombinant technology.

E) nosocomial.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 38) The experiments conducted by John T. Needham using infusions were interpreted as supporting the theory of A) antisepsis.

B) bioremediation.

C) spontaneous generation.

D) etiology.

E) chemotherapy.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.6

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39) An explanation of observations and data supported by the experimental results of many scientists for many years is A) a theory.

B) a hypothesis.

C) scientific method.

D) popular opinion.

E) a control group.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.10 40) The first school of nursing was founded by A) Robert Koch.

B) Joseph Lister.

C) Florence Nightingale.

D) Ignaz Semmelweis.

E) John Snow.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 41) The term for the use of microorganisms to restore damaged environments is A) epidemiology.

B) bioremediation.

C) chemotherapy.

D) serology.

E) ecology.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.20 42) The term refers to the study of the blood components that fight infection.

A) antisepsis B) chemotherapy C) etiology D) serology E) bioremediation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.20

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43) The work of demonstrated the role of microbes in the cycling of sulfur in the environment.

A) Sergei Winogradski B) Paul Ehrlich C) Eduard Buchner D) Martinus Beijerinck E) Albert Kluyver Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.20 1.2 True/False Questions 1) Protozoa are also called prokaryotes.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 2) Single-celled organisms known as diatoms have glasslike walls and are a type of algae.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4 3) Bioremediation is the study of how diseases emerge and how to prevent them.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 4) Louis Pasteur is considered the Father of Microbiology because of the many carefully conducted experiments and observations he made with microbes.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.11 5) Gene therapy is a modern approach to preventing infectious disease.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.20

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6) Koch's postulates can be used to determine the causes of infectious diseases.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.14 7) Joseph Lister reduced the incidence of wound infections in health care settings by using chlorinated lime water.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 8) Robert Koch sought a "magic bullet" for the treatment of disease caused by bacteria.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.13 9) Fermentation can occur in the absence of living cells.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12 10) Lazzaro Spallanzani was the first scientist to provide evidence disproving the spontaneous generation of microorganisms.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9 1.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The amateur scientist (Koch/Leeuwenhoek/Pasteur) made his own microscopes and first reported the existence of microbes.

Answer: Leeuwenhoek Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.1 2) A cell that contains a nucleus is called a(n) (prokaryotic/archaeal/eukaryotic) cell.

Answer: eukaryotic Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.5 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) A(n) (photosynthetic/algae/prokaryotic) organism makes its own food using light energy.

Answer: photosynthetic Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 4) Microbes that cause infectious diseases are called (pathogens/germs/viruses).

Answer: pathogens Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 5) Multicellular eukaryotes that derive nutrients from organisms, and have a cell wall are (algae/fungi/protozoa).

Answer: fungi Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.3 6) A scientist conducts experiments to test a(n) (observation/hypothesis/theory).

Answer: hypothesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.10 7) The work of (Needham/Redi/Spallanzani) using infusions in sealed vials provided strong evidence that spontaneous generation does not occur.

Answer: Spallanzani Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9 8) Work by (Ehrlich/Koch/Pasteur) contributed to the foundation of immunology, the study of the body's defenses against disease.

Answer: Pasteur Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.17 9) A (colony/habitat/biofilm) is a mixed population of microbes growing together on surfaces.

Answer: biofilm Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.20

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10) Experiments conducted by (Needham/Redi/Spallanzani) provided support for the theory of spontaneous generation.

Answer: Needham Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.8 11) Ignaz Semmelweis demonstrated the importance of (antisepsis/vaccination/hand-washing) as a means of preventing disease transmission.

Answer: hand-washing Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.16 12) An important tool for identification of bacteria was developed by (H. C. Gram/R. Koch/S. Winogradski).

Answer: H. C. Gram Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.15 13) The use of chemicals to treat diseases, such as bacterial infections, is called (gene therapy/chemotherapy/bioremediation).

Answer: chemotherapy Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.18 14) The work of Oswald Avery, George Beadle, Edward Tatum and many others into the role of DNA laid the foundations of (microbial genetics/microbiology/recombinant DNA technology).

Answer: microbial genetics Bloom's Taxonomy: Comprehension Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.19 15) The microbes known as archaea are (fungi/prokaryotes/protozoa).

Answer: prokaryotes Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.5

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1.4 Essay Questions 1) You are a young scientist who has just learned about one of the hot topics in microbiology, biofilms. One aspect of the interest in biofilms is that the microbes living within biofilms appear to behave and function differently from their counterparts not living in a biofilm. Devise a way to explore the idea. (Do not focus on the technical details of how this might be accomplished.)

Answer: Many answers are possible. A good answer should have a clear statement of hypothesis and an experimental design that reflects the hypothesis and will provide interpretable quantitative results. An excellent answer may include projections of possible outcomes and/or alternative hypotheses.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.9, 1.19 2) Biotechnology can be said to have ancient roots. Explain.

Answer: Biotechnology is the use of microbes to yield beneficial products. Humans have used microbes to their benefit for millennia in producing beer and wine, which were often safer to drink than the available water, and in preserving foods. Examples of the latter include the production of wine, which essentially preserved fruit juices, and of cheese and yogurt, which extended the storage life of milk products. Soy sauce and other fermented sauces were also preserved by fermentation and were later shown to enhance the flavors of certain foods.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.11 3) Use the basic steps of the scientific method to describe Pasteur's experiments to investigate spontaneous generation.

Answer: The observation that life seemed to appear from non-life led some scientists to believe in the theory of spontaneous generation. However, Pasteur among others believed in biogenesis: that life must come from life. The question Pasteur hoped to answer was "Where do microbes come from?" (step 1). Pasteur's hypothesis (step 2) was that the "parents" of microbes were present in the air on dust particles. In his experiments (step 3), he used swan-necked flasks, which were designed to prevent microbes from entering the sterile broth inside them. He observed that the broth remained sterile in the control flask even though air could move into and out of the flask. The experimental flasks were also swan-necked, but they were tilted to allow the dust that had settled to enter the flask. The control flasks stayed sterile, and the experimental flasks became cloudy. These observations led Pasteur to accept his hypothesis (step 4). He concluded that the microbes came from the dust and that spontaneous generation was therefore not a valid theory.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Golden Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.10

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4) Explain how the discipline of biochemistry grew out of the science of microbiology.

Answer: Some of the first experiments in biochemistry are attributed to Louis Pasteur in his research on the causes of fermentation. His research was extended by Eduard Buchner, who showed that enzymes produced by microbial cells are responsible for the phenomenon of fermentation. Later, in the early 20th century, Kluyver and van Niel advocated the use of microbes in research on basic biochemical reactions, which they maintained are common to all living things. Further advances in biochemistry were made as microbiologists such as Beadle and Tatum and Avery and his colleagues explored the nature of the genetic material and its function using microorganisms as model systems.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: The Modern Age of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.12, 1.19 5) Compare and contrast the three types of eukaryotic microbes.

Answer: The three types of eukaryotic microbes are fungi, protozoa, and algae. Because they are all composed of eukaryotic cells, they have basic similarities in cellular structure, including the presence of a nucleus. However, these types of microbes differ in many ways as well. In terms of their nutrition, fungi and protozoa obtain their food from other organisms, whereas algae can make their own food through photosynthesis (a few protozoa also carry out photosynthesis). Fungi are also the major decomposers, recycling the remains of plants and animals. Algae and fungi can be multicellular organisms, but protozoa are found only as singlecelled organisms. Protozoa are unique among the three in that they are animal-like in their characteristics, including movement, and lack a cell wall. Algae are most like plants and are found in primarily water-based environments.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: The Early Years of Microbiology Learning Outcome: 1.4

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 2 The Chemistry of Microbiology 2.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following does not contribute significantly to the mass of an atom?

A) electron B) neutron C) element D) proton E) isotope Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.2 2) Matter composed of a single type of atom is known as a(n) A) element.

B) mineral.

C) molecule.

D) compound.

E) electron.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.1 3) A stable atom has in its valence shell.

A) 4 electrons B) 2 neutrons C) 8 electrons D) 8 protons E) 10 electrons Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.5

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4) Which parts of the atoms interact in a chemical reaction?

A) protons B) neutrons C) ions D) electrons E) isotopes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.5 5)

The atomic number of this atom (Figure 2.1) is A) 4.

B) 6.

C) 10.

D) 12.

E) cannot be determined from the available information Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.3 6) The valence of an atom represents its A) ability to interact with other atoms.

B) electronegativity.

C) atomic mass.

D) ability to attract electrons.

E) isotopic state.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.6 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

7) The type(s) of bond produced when atoms share electrons equally is/are A) a nonpolar covalent bond.

B) a hydrogen bond.

C) an ionic bond.

D) a polar covalent bond.

E) both polar covalent and ionic bonds.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.8 8) The type(s) of bond produced when atoms with somewhat different electronegativities share electrons is/are A) a nonpolar covalent bond.

B) a polar covalent bond.

C) an ionic bond.

D) a hydrogen bond.

E) both nonpolar covalent and ionic bonds.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.8 9) The carbon atoms in organic compounds typically form A) nonpolar covalent bonds B) polar covalent bonds C) ionic bonds D) hydrogen bonds E) either ionic or hydrogen bonds Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.8, 2.9 10) Unstable isotopes can be useful A) catalysts.

B) in medical diagnosis.

C) in vitamins.

D) in the formation of hydrogen bonds.

E) as buffers.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.4

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with other atoms.

11) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing?

A) electrolytes; ions B) synthesis; endothermic C) hydrolysis; hydrogen bonds D) catabolism; exothermic E) dehydration; anabolism Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.17 12) A phosphate is moved from one molecule to another. This is an example of a/an reaction.

A) anabolic B) catabolic C) endothermic D) exchange E) exothermic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.18 13) Which of the following is a property of water?

A) It has a high capacity for heat.

B) It is not a common reactant in metabolic reactions.

C) It is not a good solvent.

D) It is liquid in a very narrow temperature range.

E) It is a nonpolar molecule.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.19 14) An acid dissociates in water to release A) hydrogen ion(s).

B) cation(s).

C) hydroxyl group(s).

D) anion(s).

E) both anions and hydrogen ions.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.20

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15) The reverse of a dehydration synthesis reaction is a(n) A) anabolic B) exchange C) hydrolytic D) endothermic E) metabolic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.17

reaction.

16) Amino acids can combine with either hydroxyl or hydrogen ions. As a result, they can function as A) transfer groups.

B) buffers.

C) solvents.

D) cations.

E) salts.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.20 17) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of saturated fats?

A) They are usually solid at room temperature.

B) They contain at least one double bond.

C) They are found in animals.

D) Their fatty acids pack tightly together.

E) They are a form of stored energy.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.23 18) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of phospholipids?

A) They are found in cellular membranes.

B) They can form micelles and bilayers.

C) They contain fatty acids that associate with water.

D) They contain a hydrophilic phosphate "head".

E) They contain two fatty acids and a phosphate functional group.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22

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19) Organisms use carbohydrates in all of the following ways EXCEPT A) as a component of cell walls.

B) as a long-term energy source.

C) as a short-term energy source.

D) to keep membranes flexible at low temperatures.

E) as a building block of DNA and RNA molecules.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.24 20) Fats, proteins, and complex carbohydrates are all synthesized by A) hydrolytic reactions.

B) dehydration synthesis.

C) exchange reactions.

D) hydrogen bonding.

E) catabolic reactions.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.15, 2.26 21) Which of the following is an example of a polysaccharide?

A) glycogen B) glucose C) fructose D) deoxyribose E) sucrose Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.24 22) Which of the following statements about proteins is FALSE? A) They are composed of amino acids.

B) They have multiple levels of structural organization.

C) They can be hydrophobic, hydrophilic, or both.

D) Their primary function is energy storage.

E) They are formed by dehydration synthesis reactions.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26

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23) All of the following are components of an amino acid EXCEPT a(n) A) carboxyl group.

B) pentose group.

C) amino group.

D) α-carbon.

E) R group.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26 24) Which of the following is found in nucleic acids?

A) amines B) carboxylic acid C) purines D) glycerol E) R group Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 25) Hydrogen bonds are found in all of the following EXCEPT A) between phosphates in ATP. B) in α-helices.

C) between water molecules.

D) in the DNA double helix between nucleotides.

E) between the R groups of amino acids in proteins.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.27 26) Tertiary and quaternary structure of proteins involves A) hydrogen B) ionic C) polar covalent D) nonpolar covalent E) ionic, hydrogen, polar, and nonpolar covalent Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26

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bonds.

27) Which of the following are examples of pyrimidines?

A) uracil and adenine B) cytosine and guanine C) thymine and adenine D) thymine and guanine E) cytosine and thymine Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 28) All of the following bases are found in RNA molecules EXCEPT A) adenine.

B) thymine.

C) uracil.

D) cytosine.

E) guanine.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.28 29) The double-strands of DNA result from the formation of A) covalent bonds B) peptide bonds C) ionic bonds D) hydrogen bonds E) α−1,4 bonds Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.28

between the bases.

30) Which of the following would NOT normally be found as a component of a cell's nucleic acids?

A) adenine deoxyribonucleotides B) thymine deoxyribonucleotides C) uracil deoxyribonucleotides D) cytosine ribonucleotides E) adenine ribonucleotides Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.28

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31) All of the following are associated with ATP molecules EXCEPT A) a long-term energy supply.

B) high-energy bonds.

C) a recyclable energy supply.

D) formation of coenzymes.

E) three phosphate groups.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.29 32) Which of the following statements concerning nucleic acids is CORRECT? A) Nucleic acid strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between adjacent carbohydrates.

B) Cellular DNA is double stranded.

C) All viruses have DNA genomes.

D) The nucleic acid polymer is composed of peptide bonds.

E) There are three naturally occurring purines in nucleic acids.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.28 33) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing?

A) primary structure; amino acid sequence B) secondary structure; disulfide bridges C) tertiary structure; covalent bonds D) quaternary structure; two or more polypeptides E) secondary structure; β-pleated sheets Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26 34) Proteins contain both acidic and basic R groups and can, therefore, function as A) energy storage macromolecules.

B) structural macromolecules.

C) buffers.

D) catalysts.

E) genetic material.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.16, 2.25

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35) A(n) is a compound that dissolves into anions and cations in water.

A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) waxes D) peptidoglycan E) sterols Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Water Molds Learning Outcome: 2.20 36) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is resistant to drying due to the presence of wall.

A) carbohydrates B) proteins C) waxes D) peptidoglycan E) sterols Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22

in its cell

37) A(n) is an arrangement of atoms found in a variety of macromolecules and serves as their primary reactive end.

A) buffer B) isotope C) salt D) stereoisomer E) functional group Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.21 38) Decomposition reactions are commonly A) endothermic B) exchange C) exothermic D) anabolic E) dehydration Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.17

reactions.

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39) Lipids found in the cytoplasmic membranes of all eukaryotic cells are A) polyunsaturated fats.

B) phospholipids.

C) steroids.

D) waxes.

E) triglycerides.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22 40) A protein is a of amino acids.

A) monomer B) polymer C) bilayer D) solution E) decomposition product Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26 41) DNA is composed of repeating units of sugars, phosphates, and nucleic acids. This is an example of a A) polymer.

B) monomer.

C) salt.

D) micelle.

E) lipid.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.28 42) An unbranched polymer composed of simple sugars is A) cellulose.

B) triglyceride.

C) starch.

D) glycoprotein.

E) glycogen.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.24

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43) Anna is conducting an experiment using a pH indicator that is red at low pH, green at neutral pH and purple at high pH. She starts with a green solution. When she adds compound X to her solution it turns purple. Then she adds compound Z to the solution and it turns green. She adds more Z, the solution remains green. These observations suggest X is and Z is .

A) a base; a buffer B) an acid; a base C) a base; a strong acid D) an acid; a buffer E) a buffer; a base Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.20 44) One of the products of a reaction occurring in a cell is water. What type of reaction is likely to be involved?

A) a decomposition reaction B) a hydrolysis reaction C) an exchange reaction D) a synthesis reaction E) The answer cannot be determined from the available information.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.14 45) Which of the following is an organic compound?

A) C6H12O6 B) CO2 C) O2 D) NaCl E) H2O Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.9

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46) Which of the following is found in RNA but not DNA? A) adenine B) cytosine C) deoxyribose D) phosphate E) ribose Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 2.2 True/False Questions 1) The smallest chemical units of matter are elements.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.1 2) Matter composed of a single type of atom is an element.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Molecules Learning Outcome: 2.3 3) A molecule composed of carbon and hydrogen is a compound.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.7 4) All electron shells of atoms hold eight electrons each.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.5 5) Hydrogen bonds are stronger then covalent bonds.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.13

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6) An organic molecule with the chemical formula C4H5O1N3 is probably a pyrimidine.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 7) Denaturation of a protein is always permanent.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26 8) The long-term chemical energy storage molecules in plants are steroids.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22 9) Dehydration synthesis is a common feature of polymer production in cells.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26 10) Salts are produced from exchange reactions in which acids and bases neutralize each other.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.20 2.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Radioactive iodine is sometimes used to treat thyroid cancer. This is an example of the use of (isotopes/elements/radiation) in medical treatment.

Answer: isotopes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.4 2) A(n) (nonpolar/polar/ionic/hydrogen) bond is one in which electrons are shared equally between atoms.

Answer: nonpolar Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.8

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3) Cell markers composed of both carbohydrate and lipid molecules are known as (glycoproteins/glycolipids/glycogen).

Answer: glycolipids Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.24 4) An atom or molecule becomes a(n) (anion/ion/cation) when it loses an electron to a more electronegative molecule.

Answer: cation Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.11 5) A chemical reaction in which a water molecule is a reactant is known as a (dehydration/hydrolysis) reaction.

Answer: hydrolysis Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.17 6) When a base dissolves in water it releases a(n) (anion/cation/hydrogen ion).

Answer: cation Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.20 7) The folding of a polypeptide into a three-dimensional shape is its (secondary/tertiary/quaternary) structure.

Answer: tertiary Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26 8) The DNA double helix is held together by (covalent/ionic/hydrogen) bonds.

Answer: hydrogen Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.13

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9)

Figure 2.2 depicts the (primary/secondary/tertiary) structure of a protein.

Answer: primary Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.26 10) A(n) (catalyst/enzyme/intermediate) is any molecule that speeds up a chemical reaction.

Answer: catalyst Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.25 11) The monomer of a nucleic acid is called a (nucleoside/nucleotide/base).

Answer: nucleotide Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.28 12) A nitrogenous base composed of two rings is a (purine/pyrimidine/ribose).

Answer: purine Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.27 13) Jim adds an acid to a solution, but finds the pH has not changed afterward. This suggests the solution contains a(n) (anion/buffer/salt).

Answer: buffer Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.20

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14) Steroids are (branched/multi-ringed/unbranched) hydrocarbons.

Answer: multi-ringed Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22 15) The (atoms/isotopes/stereoisomers) of an element vary in the number of neutrons in the nucleus.

Answer: isotopes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Atoms Learning Outcome: 2.4 2.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast synthesis reactions with decomposition reactions.

Answer: Synthesis and decomposition reactions are often the reverse of each other. Synthesis reactions consume energy (are endothermic), whereas decomposition reactions release energy (are exothermic). Synthesis reactions often release water molecules in a process called dehydration synthesis, whereas decomposition reactions often consume water molecules in a process called hydrolysis. Finally, decomposition reactions break large macromolecules into their component monomers, which can then be used in synthesis reactions to build new macromolecules for use by the cell, whereas synthesis reactions utilize component monomers to build larger molecules.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Chemical Reactions Learning Outcome: 2.17 2) Discuss the importance of hydrogen bonds in the chemistry of the cell.

Answer: The chemistry of the cell would basically be impossible without hydrogen bonds.

Water, which is required by all cellular reactions, would not have its unique properties of cohesiveness and polarity without hydrogen bonds. Hydrogen bonds hold the double helix of DNA together and contribute to the overall shape of protein molecules. However, unlike covalent bonds, hydrogen bonds are low energy bonds, so they can easily and temporarily be broken, a characteristic that is important at certain points in the cell's life cycle, such as during DNA replication.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Chemical Bonds Learning Outcome: 2.13

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3) Max is exploring the properties of various compounds. Some of his explorations involve the use of a pH indicator that is red at low pH, yellow-green at neutral pH and blue to purple at high pH. He sets up several tubes containing water and the pH indicator and then begins to add some of the compounds he is characterizing in various combinations. His results are shown on the following table.

Compound None 1 × L 1 × M 2 × M 5 × M Color

Green Red

Green Blue

1×N

1×L+1 1×L+ 1×L+ ×M+1× 1×M 5×M N

Purple Green Red

Green

Green

What can Max conclude about his compounds based on these results? Describe the likely events in terms of hydrogen and hydroxyl ions.

Answer: Max's results are consistent with L being an acid and M being a weak base.

Compound N appears to be a buffer. The green color of the indicator is seen when the concentrations of hydroxyl and hydrogen ions are equal. The red color of the solution indicates the concentration of hydrogen ions is greater than the hydroxyl ion concentration. The data does not provide information for calculating the concentrations. Blue and purple indicator colors show the hydroxyl ion concentrations exceed the hydrogen ion concentrations. The results with the mixes of L and M suggest that L dissolves to release five times more hydrogen ions than the concentration of hydroxyl ions produced by the ionization of M. Compound N accepts or releases ions with changing hydrogen ion concentrations to maintain equal concentrations of cations and anions.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Water, Acids, Bases, and Salts Learning Outcome: 2.20 4) Describe the chemical properties of phospholipids that account for their behavior in water.

Answer: Phospholipids have polar phosphate "heads" and nonpolar fatty acid "tails," which interact in different ways with water molecules. The phospholipid heads are attracted to polar water molecules, but the nonpolar tails of the phospholipid are repelled by water. As the tails are driven away from the water molecules, they congregate together, either in the interior of a ball of lipid (called a micelle) or within the interior of a double layer of phospholipids (called a bilayer). This leaves the phosphate heads "outside," where they can easily interact with the water molecules.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.22

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5)

Consider the structure of thymine, shown on the left in Figure 2.3 above, and compare to the structure of pyrimidine X on the right. What would be the impact if X is incorporated into the structure of a DNA strand in place of thymine?

Answer: Where thymine has a nonpolar group, pyrimidine X has a polar functional group. If incorporated into a DNA strand pyrimidine X would not form the proper hydrogen bonds with either A or G, resulting in mismatches between DNA strands or, more seriously, disruption of the DNA strand. This type of alteration can lead to mutations in the DNA. Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Organic Macromolecules Learning Outcome: 2.28

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 3 Cell Structure and Function 3.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Using a microscope, you observe an amoeba moving toward a food source. This is an example of A) reproduction.

B) cellular structure.

C) metabolism.

D) growth.

E) responsiveness.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Processes of Life Learning Outcome: 3.1 2) Which of the following is NOT a component of bacterial flagella?

A) flagellin B) basal body C) tubulin D) filament E) hook Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.5 3) Which of the following statements concerning the characteristics of life is FALSE? A) Reproduction is defined as an increase in the size of an organism.

B) Viruses have some, but not all, of the characteristics of living things.

C) Organisms may not exhibit all of the characteristics of life at all times.

D) Reproduction can occur asexually or sexually in living things.

E) Living things store metabolic energy in the form of chemicals such as ATP. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Processes of Life Learning Outcome: 3.1

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4) Protein synthesis occurs on/in the A) nucleus.

B) ribosome.

C) inclusion.

D) cytoskeleton.

E) periplasmic space.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.21 5) Which of the following bacterial cell structures plays an important role in the creation of biofilms?

A) glycocalyces B) flagella C) fimbriae D) pili E) both fimbriae and glycocalyces Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3, 3.7 6) Which of the following organisms is a prokaryote?

A) algae B) archaea C) fungus D) protozoa E) both archaea and protozoa Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: An Overview Learning Outcome: 3.2 7) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of all living things?

A) metabolism B) motility C) growth D) reproduction E) responsiveness Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Processes of Life Learning Outcome: 3.1

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8) Some bacteria have a water-soluble outer slime layer composed of A) carbohydrate.

B) lipid.

C) peptidoglycan.

D) protein.

E) carbohydrate, protein, or both.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3 9) Which of the following statements concerning conjugation pili is FALSE? A) Pili are longer than fimbriae and flagella.

B) Pili facilitate the transfer of DNA among bacterial cells.

C) Pili are a special type of fimbria.

D) Not all bacteria have pili.

E) A bacterial cell will usually have only one or two pili.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.7 10) Which of the following may be a component of bacterial cell walls?

A) carrageenan B) lipoteichoic acids C) mycolic acid D) tubulin E) both lipoteichoic and mycolic acids Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.11 11) Bacterial cell walls that are resistant to drying contain A) carbohydrates.

B) amino acids.

C) lipopolysaccharide.

D) tubulin.

E) waxes.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.11

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12) Lipid A is a component of A) lipopolysaccharides.

B) plant cell walls.

C) cytoplasmic membranes.

D) mycolic acid.

E) bacterial glycocalyces.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.12 13) Bacteria of the genus Mycoplasma lack cell walls. What sort of environment do they require for survival?

A) low temperature B) hypotonic C) isotonic D) hypertonic E) a biofilm Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.17 14) Lipid-soluble molecules would be expected to cross the cytoplasmic membrane by which of the following processes?

A) osmosis B) facilitated diffusion C) diffusion D) active transport E) group translocation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 15) ATP is expended in which of the following processes?

A) facilitated diffusion B) diffusion C) group translocation D) active transport E) both active transport and group translocation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16

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16) Which of the following statements concerning osmosis is FALSE? A) Osmosis requires a selectively permeable membrane.

B) During osmosis, water crosses to the side of the membrane with a lower solute concentration.

C) Cells placed in hypotonic solutions will gain water.

D) Crenation results when blood cells are placed in a hypertonic solution.

E) Osmosis stops when the system reaches equilibrium.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.17 17) Endospores survive a variety of harsh conditions in part because of the presence of A) mycolic acid.

B) lipopolysaccharide.

C) hopanoids.

D) dipicolinic acid.

E) glycoproteins.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.20 18) Bacterial are sites of metabolite storage.

A) nucleoids B) vacuoles C) inclusions D) pili E) periplasm Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.19 19) Which of the following is NOT a function of the bacterial cytoskeleton?

A) constriction of a dividing cell B) directing deposition of NAM & NAG molecules C) localizing ribosomes in the cytoplasm D) determining the location of the DNA E) a form of motility Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.21

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20)

The cells illustrated in Figure 3.1 are in a(n) A) hypotonic B) hypertonic C) isotonic D) fluid mosaic E) passive Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.17

environment.

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21) Which of the following is CORRECT about bacterial ribosomes?

A) They have two subunits and contain three RNA molecules.

B) They are a single complex without subunits, and contain three RNA molecules.

C) They have three subunits each containing an RNA molecule.

D) They have two subunits, the smaller one composed of protein only, and the larger one composed of RNA only.

E) They are a single complex containing one large RNA molecules and several proteins.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.21 22) An external structure unique to the archaea is a(an) A) cilium B) flagellum C) fimbria D) hamus E) pilus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: External Structures of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.26 23) The glycocalyx of a eukaryotic cell performs all of the following functions EXCEPT A) protection against dehydration.

B) anchoring cells to each other.

C) cellular recognition and communication.

D) transfer of genetic material between cells.

E) strengthening the cell surface.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: External Structure of Eukaryotic Cells Learning Outcome: 3.30 24) Which of the following is classified as a nonmembranous organelle of eukaryotic cells?

A) endoplasmic reticulum B) Golgi body C) mitochondrion D) centriole E) peroxisome Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39

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25) Which of the following is part of the structure of the mitochondria of a eukaryotic cell?

A) cilia B) cristae C) thylakoids D) inclusions E) nucleolus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.43 26) Which of the following statements about the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) is CORRECT? A) The rough ER is the site of lipid synthesis.

B) The smooth ER has ribosomes associated with it.

C) The ER is a lipid storage organelle.

D) The ER is a transport system within the cytoplasm.

E) The smooth ER is a site of ATP synthesis.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 27) Short, hair-like structures used only by eukaryotic cells for movement are called A) pili.

B) flagella.

C) fimbriae.

D) pseudopodia.

E) cilia.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.37 28) Chloroplasts differ from mitochondria in that the former have A) DNA. B) two lipid bilayers.

C) 70S ribosomes.

D) thylakoids.

E) cristae.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.43

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29) Which of the following is paired INCORRECTLY? A) plants; cellulose cell wall B) algae; chitin C) bacteria; peptidoglycan cell wall D) fungi; polysaccharide cell wall E) archaea; protein cell wall Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31 30) Which of the following eukaryotic processes involve pseudopodia?

A) endocytosis B) exocytosis C) amoeboid action D) both amoeboid action and endocytosis E) both endocytosis and exocytosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.33 31) Which of the following is NOT a function of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton?

A) anchors organelles B) gives shape to the cell C) packages cellular secretions D) performs endocytosis E) aids in contraction of the cell Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39 32) The accumulation of glucose 6-phosphate inside a bacterial cell via phosphorylation of glucose is an example of A) facilitated diffusion.

B) group translocation.

C) osmosis.

D) plasmolysis.

E) diffusion.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16

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33) The flagella of are not hollow, not enclosed in cytoplasmic membrane, and are powered by ATP A) archaea B) bacteria C) eukaryotes D) both archaea and bacteria E) both archaea and eukaryotes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.24 34) Which of the following processes requires a carrier protein?

A) exocytosis only B) facilitated diffusion only C) active transport only D) endocytosis only E) both facilitated diffusion and active transport Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.32 35) Which of the following chemical substances contributes to the unique characteristics of acid-fast bacteria?

A) N-acetylglucosamine B) peptidoglycan C) lipoteichoic acid D) endotoxin E) mycolic acid Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.11 36) The cytoplasmic membranes of contain unbranched phospholipids and proteins.

A) archaeal cells B) bacterial cells C) eukaryotic cells D) both bacterial and eukaryotic cells E) archaeal, bacterial, and eukaryotic cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31

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37) Membrane rafts are found in the cytoplasmic membranes of A) archaea only.

B) bacteria only.

C) eukaryotes only.

D) both archaea and bacteria.

E) both archaea and eukaryotes.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31 38) Endocytosis and exocytosis are means of transport used by A) bacteria.

B) eukaryotes.

C) archaea.

D) all prokaryotes.

E) nothing; no cells use both processes.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.32 39) Some use group translocation as a means of transport.

A) eukaryotes B) bacteria C) archaea D) protozoa E) eukaryotes and prokaryotes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 40) Cholesterols are typically found in cytoplasmic membranes.

A) eukaryotic B) bacterial C) archaeal D) prokaryotic E) both eukaryotic and prokaryotic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31

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41) The cell walls of some are composed of minerals such as calcium carbonate.

A) archaea B) bacteria C) algae D) fungi E) bacteria and fungi Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31 42) The cell walls of eukaryotes are usually composed of A) peptidoglycan B) polysaccharides C) teichoic acid D) mycolic acid E) minerals Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31 43) Some members of the have fimbriae.

A) archaea B) bacteria C) eukaryotes D) archaea and bacteria E) bacteria and eukaryotes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: External Structures of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.25 44) Some may have pili.

A) eukaryotes B) archaea C) bacteria D) prokaryotes E) eukaryotes and bacteria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: External Structures of Eukaryotic Cells Learning Outcome: 3.7, 3.30

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45) Which of the following never have cell walls?

A) algae B) animal cells C) archaea D) bacteria E) fungi Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.31 46) Which of the following may have cell walls containing teichoic acids?

A) Gram-negative bacteria only B) Gram-positive bacteria only C) archaea D) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria E) all prokaryotes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.11, 3.27

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47)

What is the function of the cellular structure indicated by "c" in Figure 3.2?

A) provide shape only B) attach to surfaces only C) protect from dehydration only D) attach to surfaces and protect from dehydration E) serve as carbohydrate storage Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3 48) Which of the following have a periplasmic space?

A) Gram-negative bacteria only B) Gram-positive bacteria only C) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria D) archaea E) eukaryotes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Eukaryotic Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.12

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49) Which of the following prokaryotic cells contain an outer membrane?

A) Gram-negative bacteria only B) Gram-positive bacteria only C) both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria D) archaea E) all prokaryotes Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.12

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50)

What is the function of the cellular structure indicated by "n" in Figure 3.3?

A) ATP synthesis B) protein synthesis C) synthesis of lipids D) packaging of materials for export E) cell movement and mitosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42

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3.2 True/False Questions 1) Small hydrophobic molecules cross cytoplasmic membranes by simple diffusion.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 2) Peroxisomes contain enzymes used to digest nutrients that have been brought into the cell through phagocytosis.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 3) Bacterial protein synthesis can begin before the reading of the gene is complete.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: An Overview Learning Outcome: 3.2 4) Archaeal cell walls are composed of unbranched phospholipids.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Archaeal Cell Walls and Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.27

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5)

The processes illustrated in Figure 3.4 do not require energy input.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 6) Eukaryotic ribosomes are composed of 50S and 30S subunits.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39 7) Lysosomes result from the endocytosis of food particles by eukaryotic cells.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 8) The presence of a glycocalyx contributes to bacteria's ability to cause disease.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.3

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9) Chromatin is composed of DNA and special packaging proteins called hopanoids.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 10)

The short structures on the surface of the cell in Figure 3.5 are pili.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.7 3.3 Short Answer Questions 1) In a(n) (hypertonic/isotonic/hypotonic) solution, an animal cell can gain so much water that it may burst.

Answer: hypotonic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 2) The presence of a cell (slime layer/wall/membrane) enables bacterial and plant cells to resist the effects of hypotonic solutions.

Answer: wall Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 3) A higher concentration of solutes corresponds to a (higher/lower) concentration of water in a given solution.

Answer: lower Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.17 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) A(n) (symport/antiport/uniport) is a carrier protein that transports two substances in the same direction across a membrane.

Answer: symport Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 5) Bacterial chemotactic receptors control the duration of (pauses/runs/tumbles) of flagella.

Answer: runs Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.5 6) The reserve deposits of starch or other compounds found in many prokaryotic cells are called (vacuoles/inclusions/nucleoids).

Answer: inclusions Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.19 7) A dormant, resistant stage produced by some bacteria is a(n) (endospore/spore/vegetative cell).

Answer: endospore Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Cytoplasm of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 3.20 8) Fragments of (LPS/NAM/NAG) released from Gram-negative bacteria into the bloodstream produce fever and shock.

Answer: LPS Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacterial Cell Walls Learning Outcome: 3.12 9) The rough endoplasmic reticulum is the site of (protein/lipid/carbohydrate) synthesis.

Answer: proteins Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.39 10) Fibrous structures with three "arms" some archaea use for attachment to surfaces are (fimbriae/hami/pili).

Answer: hami Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: External Structures of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.26 20 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

11) A (capsule/slime layer/matrix) is a type of glycocalyx that is firmly attached to the cell.

Answer: capsule Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: External Structures of Bacterial Cells Learning Outcome: 3.4 12) Golgi bodies are examples of a (membranous/non-membranous/cellular) organelle.

Answer: membranous Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 13) The semiliquid matrix of the nucleus is called the (cytoplasm/nucleoid/nucleoplasm).

Answer: nucleoplasm Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 14) A structural molecule found in eukaryotic cytoskeletons, but NOT flagella, cilia, and centrioles is (actin/flagellin/tubulin).

Answer: tubulin Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.41

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15)

The process illustrated in Figure 3.6 occurs in (eukaryotic/bacterial/archaeal) cells.

Answer: bacterial Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.16 3.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast the characteristics of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.

Answer: Prokaryotic cells have a nucleoid, a region within the cytoplasm where the DNA is found, but this region is not surrounded by a membrane. Eukaryotic cells, however, have a true nucleus that is surrounded by a nuclear membrane. Additionally, eukaryotic cells have a variety of membranous compartments known as organelles within the cell, whereas prokaryotes do not have membranous organelles. Prokaryotic cells tend to be smaller and less structurally complex in general than eukaryotic cells. Even though the two types of cells may have various structures in common, such as cell walls and flagella, these structures can vary widely in their molecular composition.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Prokaryotic and Eukaryotic Cells: An Overview Learning Outcome: 3.2

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2) Compare and contrast archaea and bacteria, with particular attention to the features that lead to their placement in separate taxa.

Answer: Bacterial cell walls are composed of peptidoglycan, whereas archaeal cell walls are composed of a variety of carbohydrate forms but never peptidoglycan. The flagella of the two groups of prokaryotes have several differences, including size, manner of assembly, and function. Although both have fimbriae, archaea have a distinctive attachment structure called a hamus that is somewhat like a barbed grappling hook. Bacterial cytoplasmic membranes may contain hopanoids, archaeal cytoplasmic membranes do not. The ribosomes of archaea and bacteria are of similar size, but some ribosomal components of archaea are more like those of eukaryotic ribosomes than those of bacteria. RNA metabolism in the two prokaryotic groups differs, and the archaeal genetic code is more like that of eukaryotes than that of bacteria.

Archaeal phospholipids are different from bacterial and eukaryotic phospholipids in that the glycerol is a stereoisomer, the linkages are ether instead of ester between hydrocarbon chains and glycerol, the hydrocarbon chains are isoprene chains rather than fatty acids, which are branched rather than linear, as the fatty acids are.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Cytoplasm of Archaea Learning Outcome: 3.24, 3.25, 3.26, 3.27, 3.28, 3.29 3) Most antibacterial drugs disrupt or destroy bacterial cellular characteristics that are different from those of eukaryotic cells or that may not even be present in eukaryotic cells, an idea termed ‘selective toxicity'. List and describe at least three cellular features of bacteria that could be targeted to inhibit or kill a bacterial pathogen.

Answer: 1. Cell wall: The cell wall of almost all bacteria contains peptidoglycan, a molecule absent in eukaryotic cell walls. Gram-negative cell walls contain unique molecules such as lipopolysaccharide and structures such as porins, which are not present in eukaryotic cells.

Additionally, human cells do not have a cell wall at all.

2. Ribosomes: Bacterial ribosomes have a 70S structure, whereas eukaryotic ribosomes have an 80S structure. This difference is enough to allow some drugs to preferentially affect bacterial ribosomes while leaving eukaryotic ribosomes unharmed.

3. Cellular appendages: Although both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells can have flagella, the two types of cells use structurally different types of flagella. Furthermore, many bacteria have fimbriae and pili, which are not found on eukaryotic cells.

4. Cell membrane: Most cells use a phospholipid bilayer with inserted proteins as a cell membrane; however, bacterial cell membranes may contain hopanoids, in addition to these, which are absent in eukaryotic cell membranes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.31, 3.34, 3.36, 3.40

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4) Both mitochondria and chloroplasts have inner membranes with much greater surface area than their outer membranes. Discuss the contribution of the extensive inner membranes to the roles of these organelles.

Answer: Both organelles use enzymes and some non-protein molecules embedded in lipid membranes to produce cellular energy. The cristae of mitochondria house the enzyme to produce ATP. The thylakoids of chloroplasts are the site of light energy capture and conversion to cellular energy. The extensive surface area of the folded inner membranes allows both organelles to produce much more energy than would otherwise be possible.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Cytoplasm of Eukaryotes Learning Outcome: 3.42 5) Describe how the structure of the bacterial cytoplasmic membrane relates to its function of selective permeability.

Answer: The structure and function of the cytoplasmic membrane are explained in the fluid mosaic model. The cytoplasmic membranes of bacterial cells are composed of phospholipids, which create a semipermeable barrier to the cell's outer environment. The only molecules that can easily cross the membrane are small, lipid soluble molecules. Other types of molecules must use the wide variety of transport proteins embedded in the phospholipid bilayer to cross the membrane. In this way, the cell can control the concentration of both its nutrients and its waste products. The cytoplasmic membrane can also be used for energy production and for photosynthesis in prokaryotic cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Bacterial Cytoplasmic Membranes Learning Outcome: 3.15

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 4 Microscopy, Staining, and Classification 4.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Viruses are generally measured in A) nanometers.

B) millimeters.

C) micrometers.

D) centimeters.

E) decimeters.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1 2) Which of the following is an INCORRECT pairing?

A) magnification; refraction of radiation B) contrast; staining techniques C) numerical aperture; curved glass D) dark field: high contrast E) electron beams; shorter wavelength Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.4, 4.8 3) The ability of a lens to gather light is referred to as its A) resolution.

B) numerical aperture.

C) refraction.

D) contrast.

E) magnification.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6

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4) Which of the following are magnifying lenses?

A) objectives B) oculars C) condensers D) prisms E) both objectives and the oculars Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8 5) Lasers illuminate fluorescent dyes on specimens on A) phase-contrast B) dark-field C) fluorescent D) confocal E) bright-field Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.10

microscopes.

6) Why does immersion oil improve resolution?

A) It allows light to travel at a uniform speed on its way to the lens.

B) It decreases the working distance.

C) It increases the numerical aperture.

D) It increases numerical aperture and maintains a uniform light speed.

E) It increases the angle of refraction of the light.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 7) You are shown a micrograph from a light microscope in which the specimens appear sharply focused and nearly three-dimensional. The micrograph is probably from a(n) microscope.

A) dark-field B) phase-contrast C) Nomarski (differential interference contrast) D) bright-field E) atomic force Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9

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8) The microscope preferred for viewing living specimens is the A) bright-field B) phase-contrast C) scanning electron D) scanning tunneling E) transmission electron Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9 9) The resolution of a microscope is a function of the of light.

A) curvature, color B) curvature; wavelength C) numerical aperture; wavelength D) numerical aperture; intensity E) convex shape; intensity Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6

microscope.

of the lenses and the

10) All of the following are types of light microscopes EXCEPT A) fluorescent.

B) confocal.

C) phase-contrast.

D) scanning tunneling.

E) bright-field.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9, 4.11 11) One-millionth of a meter is called a A) centimeter.

B) decimeter.

C) micrometer.

D) millimeter.

E) nanometer.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.2

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12) If a microbiology lab student left the safranin out of the Gram stain procedure, what would be the result?

A) All cells would be purple.

B) Gram-positive cells would be purple and Gram-negative cells would be colorless.

C) All cells would be pink.

D) Gram-positive cells would be pink and Gram-negative cells would be purple.

E) Gram-positive cells would be colorless and Gram-negative cells would be pink.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 13) All of the following are common to both the Gram stain and the acid-fast stain EXCEPT A) primary stain.

B) counterstain.

C) a decolorizing agent.

D) a chemical mordant.

E) a decolorizing agent and a counterstain.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 14) Heat is used to drive dye into cells in A) the Gram B) the endospore C) the acid-fast D) the flagellar E) both the endospore and acid fast Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 15) Histological samples prepared with the cells.

A) acid-fast B) Gram C) simple safranin D) methylene blue E) hematoxylin and eosin (HE) Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15

stain(s).

stain may reveal the presence of abnormal

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16) Carbolfuchsin is the in the acid-fast stain.

A) primary stain B) mordant C) decolorizer D) counterstain E) fixing reagent Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 17) Which of the following is the best definition of "empty magnification"?

A) An image is magnified so much resolution and contrast are lost.

B) A specimen is so lacking in color it cannot be observed on a light microscope.

C) A magnified specimen is so small it cannot be resolved on a light microscope.

D) The background on the field is almost totally black.

E) A magnified image has lots of empty space around a small object.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.5 18) In a transmission electron microscope, the "lenses" are A) made of glass.

B) thin films of metal.

C) lasers.

D) magnets.

E) vacuums.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11 19) You are examining a bacterial smear on a light microscope. You observe pinkish-red bacilli and blue cells of various shapes. You are probably looking at a smear prepared with the stain.

A) Gram B) Ziehl-Neelsen acid-fast C) Schaffer-Fulton endospore D) Gomori methenamine E) Hematoxylin and eosin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15

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20) The placement of an organism into a domain is made on the basis of A) G + C content.

B) cell ultrastructure.

C) ribosomal RNA D) serological tests.

E) Gram-stain reactions.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 21) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a genus name?

A) It is usually an adjective.

B) It is written before the specific epithet.

C) It is always capitalized.

D) It is either underlined or in italics.

E) It is one of two names used to identify an organism.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.20 22) Carl Woese proposed the concept of the domain based on differences of which of the following cellular molecules?

A) transfer RNA B) membrane lipids C) ribosomal RNA D) DNA E) proteins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 23) Which of the following classification methods relies on the morphology of organisms?

A) phage typing B) physical characteristics C) biochemical tests D) analysis of nucleic acids E) serological tests Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23

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24) Bacteria in the genus Salmonella are frequent causes of serious food contamination. Which of the following methods would provide rapid confirmation that a Salmonella species was a contaminant in food suspected of causing food "poisoning"?

A) phage typing B) biochemical tests C) physical characteristics D) analysis of nucleic acids E) serological tests Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23 25) Viruses are not included in the taxonomic scheme proposed by Carl Woese because they lack A) genetic material.

B) ribosomal RNA. C) proteins.

D) lipid membranes.

E) cytoplasm.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 26) Why have some microbiologists proposed using ribosomal RNA as the basis for defining bacterial species?

A) Ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genetic sequences present in all prokaryotes.

B) The "interbreeding population" criterion does not apply to bacteria.

C) Ribosomal RNA is the basis for domain assignment.

D) Bacteria vary too little in their physical and biochemical traits.

E) Bacteria are not interbreeding populations, and ribosomal RNAs are highly conserved genes present in all prokaryotes.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.18 27) Which of the following phenomena produces magnification?

A) the wavelength of a radiation source B) the refraction of radiation as it passes through a lens C) the thickness of a microscopic specimen D) the numerical aperture of a lens E) the length of an objective lens Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) A virologist wants to observe the three-dimensional surface features of virus particles she is studying. Which of the following microscopes would be most useful for her observations?

A) differential interference contrast B) atomic force C) scanning electron D) transmission electron E) atomic force or scanning electron Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9, 4.11 29) A microscope provides images that are "slices" of the specimen which may be assembled digitally to produce a three-dimensional representation of the specimen.

A) bright-field B) dark-field C) confocal D) phase contrast E) transmission electron Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.10 30) Which of the following statements about transmission electron microscopy is INCORRECT? A) Two-dimensional images are produced.

B) Magnets serve as lenses.

C) Up to 1,000,000X magnification may be achieved.

D) Living specimens may be used.

E) Stains can be applied to increase electron density.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11, 4.16 31) Acidic dyes A) work best in low pH environments.

B) are negatively charged.

C) are used for staining negatively charged molecular structures.

D) are lipid soluble.

E) are negatively charged and work best at low pH. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.14 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) The kingdoms included in the Linnaeus system of classification are A) Animalia and Prokaryotae.

B) Protista and Plantae.

C) Fungi and Protista.

D) Animalia and Plantae.

E) Prokaryotae and Protista.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.21 33) The Gram stain works because of differences in the A) genetic characteristics B) cell walls C) cell membranes D) antigens E) capsules Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15

of bacteria.

34) The rules of naming organisms are called A) taxonomy.

B) nomenclature.

C) classification.

D) binomials.

E) identification.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.20 35) Why are modern light microscopes better than the ones Leeuwenhoek used?

A) Modern microscopes have a fivefold better resolution.

B) Modern microscopes are compound instead of simple.

C) Modern microscopes have lenses with smaller numerical apertures.

D) Modern lenses are made of prisms.

E) Modern microscopes are compound and have five-fold better resolution.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6, 4.8

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36) The function of a mordant in staining procedures is to A) fix the specimen to the slide.

B) provide contrasting color.

C) fix dye molecules to structures in a specimen.

D) remove dye from certain structures.

E) damage cellular structures so they take up dyes better.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 37) You are viewing an image from a microscope in which the specimens in the smear have more than one color. You are probably looking at A) a smear stained with a differential stain.

B) a specimen stained with various fluorescent molecules.

C) a scanning tunneling micrograph.

D) a specimen on a dark-field microscope.

E) either a specimen stained with a differential stain or fluorescent molecules.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 38) In Gram staining, ethanol-acetone is used as a A) decolorizing agent.

B) counterstain.

C) mordant.

D) drying agent.

E) primary stain.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 39) A sample from a patient is prepared using the Gomori methenamine silver stain. What type of microbe is suspected of being present?

A) bacteria B) parasitic worm larva C) fungus D) protozoal parasite E) virus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15

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40) Tungsten is a reagent used in the A) acid-fast stain.

B) electron microscopy stain.

C) endospore stain.

D) flagellar stain.

E) negative stain.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.16 41) Acidic dyes are commonly used for A) acid-fast B) negative C) flagellar D) endospore E) Gram Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.14

_ stains.

42) Low contrast specimens are made easier to see by A) increasing the amount of light passing through the slide.

B) using dyes that react with their structures.

C) adding color filters to the microscope.

D) using smaller aperture lenses.

E) drying them in a vacuum.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.7 43) Methylene blue can be used to stain DNA because A) DNA is negatively charged.

B) changes the pH and therefore the structure of DNA. C) covalently bonds with DNA. D) makes DNA electron dense.

E) is an effective fixing agent for nucleic acids.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.14

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44) The stain uses malachite green.

A) negative B) flagellar C) endospore D) electron microscopy E) acid-fast Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 45) The most appropriate unit of measurement for intact archaea is the A) meter (m).

B) millimeter (mm).

C) micrometer (μm).

D) nanometer (nm).

E) centimeter (cm).

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1 46) Specimens are prepared for A) atomic probe B) bright-field C) confocal D) transmission electron E) scanning tunneling Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.16

microscopy using electron-dense stains.

47) An important function of nomenclature is to A) facilitate unambiguous communication.

B) clarify relationships among organisms.

C) provide an understanding of evolutionary relationships.

D) define the characteristics used for classification.

E) provide a detailed description of an organism.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.17

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48) A measurement of a microbe is reported as 1 × 10-6 m, also known as A) centimeters (cm).

B) millimeters (mm).

C) micrometers (μm).

D) nanometers (nm).

E) yards.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1 49) One-thousandth of a meter is a A) yard.

B) millimeter (mm).

C) micrometer (μm).

D) nanometer (nm).

E) centimeter (cm).

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Units of Measurement Learning Outcome: 4.1 50) Bacteria and many other microbes do not and therefore do not fit Linneaus' definition of species.

A) reproduce sexually B) have nuclei C) exchange genetic material D) have cytoplasmic membranes E) reproduce asexually Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.18 4.2 True/False Questions 1) Longer wavelength radiation improves resolution.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 2) Chemical dyes are used to increase resolution of objects.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.7 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) The three domains proposed by Carl Woese and George Fox are the Archaea, the Eukarya, and the Protista.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 4) Gram-staining of bacteria provides all the physical characterization necessary to identify bacterial species.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.15, 4.18 5) A single basic dye is used in simple stains.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 6) The endospore stain reveals internal structures within cells of the genera Bacillus and Clostridium.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 7) Acid-fast cells such as Mycobacterium lose the color of the primary stain in the presence of hydrochloric acid.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 8) Specimens must be coated with metal for scanning electron microscopy.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.11 9) Images of living specimens can be produced using atomic force microscopes.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.12 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Specimens are visible on a phase contrast microscope because they refract the light that illuminates them.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9 4.3 Short Answer Questions 1)

The part of the microscope indicated by the arrow in Figure 4.1 is the (ocular/objective/condenser) lens.

Answer: condenser Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8 2) A(n) (acidic/metallic/fluorescent) molecule is one that absorbs invisible radiation and emits visible light.

Answer: fluorescent Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.10

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3) The total magnification using a 10X ocular and a 100X objective would be (110/1000/10000)×. (Be sure your answer is a numeral.)

Answer: 1000 Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8 4) Iodine is a (decolorizer/dye/mordant) in the Gram stain procedure.

Answer: mordant Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.15 5) Coating a specimen with a heavy metal is a step in preparing it for (phasecontrast/fluorescent/electron) microscopy.

Answer: electron Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.16 6) A serological test that involves the clumping of antigen and antibody is the (agglutination/antigen/ELISA) test.

Answer: agglutination Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23 7) The system of taxonomy used today was originated by (Linnaeus/Darwin/Woese). (Be sure to capitalize your answer.)

Answer: Linnaeus Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.21 8) The former kingdom Prokaryotae has been divided into two (domains/phyla/classes) in the current taxonomy.

Answer: domains Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.21

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9)

Figure 4.2 represents a (dichotomous/classification/taxonomic) key of the type used to identify a microbe.

Answer: dichotomous Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23 10) Phage typing is useful for identifying bacteria because of the specificity of (antibodies/bacteriophages/PCR) for unique bacterial structures.

Answer: bacteriophages Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23 11) A primary purpose for the use of stains in microscopy is to increase the (magnification/brightness/contrast) of a specimen.

Answer: contrast Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.7 12) PCR is a method for identifying microbes based on their (antigens/genes/morphology).

Answer: genes Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23

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13) In a compound microscope, the lens that directs light into the eye is the (ocular/condenser/objective) lens.

Answer: ocular Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.8 14) In the Schaffer-Fulton endospore stain, heat is a (fixation/mordant/staining) step.

Answer: staining Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.13 15) The resolution of a microscope lens is a function of the lens' (aperture/color/contrast).

Answer: aperture Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6 4.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the ways in which light rays can be manipulated to increase resolution and/or contrast.

Answer: Light rays can be manipulated to increase the resolution and contrast of a specimen in a variety of ways. In bright-field microscopes, immersion oil is used to capture light rays that would otherwise be refracted and lost; the result is an increase in the resolution of the image.

Dark-field microscopes purposely scatter light rays in such a way as to improve the contrast of the specimen. Phase-contrast microscopes alter the wavelengths of light rays by splitting them into different paths then rejoining them, thereby increasing contrast. Finally, fluorescent microscopes use UV light, which produces increased resolution because of its shorter wavelength, and the fluorescent dyes that are used emit a variety of colors, increasing contrast.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.6

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2) Compare and contrast the light microscope with the electron microscope.

Answer: Both the light microscope and the electron microscope depend on the wavelength of radiation to achieve the resolution necessary to see fine details of specimens. Light microscopes use light rays, which, because of their relatively long wavelengths, limit the magnification of these microscopes to 2000× or less. Electron beams, by contrast, have such a short wavelength that the resolution is greatly increased, to the point that magnification of 100,000× or more is possible. Both microscopes are capable of modulating and focusing their radiation sources in such a way as to increase the quality of the magnification; however, in a light microscope the light rays are focused using glass lenses, whereas in an electron microscope the electron beam is focused with magnetic fields. Because of their higher levels of magnification and extreme resolving power, electron microscopes are capable of revealing the finest details of the cell's ultrastructure, even molecules and atoms; light microscopes are capable of revealing only the larger cellular structures, such as organelles.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Microscopy Learning Outcome: 4.9, 4.11 3) You are a scientist studying the highly specific interactions of bacteriophages with their host cells when they first encounter the cell. Discuss what microscope(s) and preparation procedures you might use for this study.

Answer: A scanning electron microscope can produce three-dimensional images of the physical contact between bacteriophage and host, providing information on what portions of the bacteriophage are in contact with what structures of the cell. A mixture of bacterial cells and bacteriophages is dried onto the surface of the sample holder and coated with metal to prepare it for the scanning electron microscope. A transmission electron microscope may provide information about structures and interactions obscured by the intact bacteriophage. Samples are dried, embedded in plastic, sliced into thin (100 nm) sections, and stained with heavy metals (osmium, tungsten, etc.) to increase contrast.

Scanning tunneling or atomic force microscopy of separate preparations of bacteriophages and bacterial cells can provide details about the structures on each that interact when the bacteriophage is in contact with the surface of the cell. The preparation of specimens for atomic force microscopy is minimal, as the material does not need to be dried, sectioned, or stained.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Staining Learning Outcome: 4.11, 4.12, 4.16

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4) Compare and contrast the three domains identified by Woese and Fox: Eukarya, Bacteria, and Archaea.

Answer: With respect to cell type, organisms in Eukarya have eukaryotic cells and the characteristics that go with this cell type, such as a nucleus and membranous organelles. Bacteria and Archaea both have prokaryotic cells lacking nuclei and membranous organelles. All three have different ribosomal RNA sequences found in the small subunit of their ribosomes that are characteristic for the domain, which is an important tool for categorizing organisms. All three have cell membranes; however, they differ in the lipids found in the cell membrane.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.22 5) List and explain five types of techniques that can be used to identify unknown microorganisms.

Answer: There are five major types of identification techniques used in the microbiology lab.

One method is simply observation and classification of the physical characteristics of an organism, which includes both cellular morphology and colony morphology. A second method is the use of biochemical tests, such as fermentation of carbohydrates or production of metabolic by-products, to place microbes in different groups. A third type of identification technique is serological testing, in which antibodies are used to detect particular antigens on the surfaces of different microbes in an effort to distinguish closely related species or strains of microbes. Phage typing is the fourth technique, which is the use of bacteriophages to infect bacterial cells; because bacteriophages are highly specific in their infection of cells, the patterns of infected and uninfected cells can be used to differentiate bacterial strains and species. A fifth method involves analyzing the genetic material of microbes, such as the percentage of G and C bases in a cell's DNA, to demonstrate possible relationships between species.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Classification and Identification of Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 4.23

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 5 Microbial Metabolism 5.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following statements concerning cellular metabolism is FALSE? A) Energy obtained from nutrients or light is stored in the bonds of ATP. B) Enzymes are used in both catabolic and anabolic reactions.

C) Macromolecules are converted into cell structures via catabolism.

D) The goal of metabolism is reproduction of the organism.

E) ATP is used in the formation of macromolecules.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.1 2) Anabolic reactions may be characterized as A) exergonic.

B) breaking large molecules into smaller molecules.

C) forming large molecules from smaller molecules.

D) producing ATP. E) breaking large molecules into smaller molecules to produce ATP. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.1 3) An organic compound gains an electron from another molecule. The organic compound A) has been oxidized.

B) is an electron donor.

C) has been reduced.

D) has become more positively charged.

E) has lost a hydrogen atom.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.2

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4) The molecule that an enzyme acts upon is known as its A) substrate.

B) coenzyme.

C) apoenzyme.

D) product.

E) catalyst.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 5) Which of the following statements concerning enzymes is FALSE? A) They are usually, but not always, proteins.

B) They always function best at 37°C. C) They can be denatured if the pH of their environment is too high or too low.

D) They form a temporary intermediate compound with a substrate.

E) They can be used to catalyze a chemical reaction over and over again.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7 6) Sulfanilamide is an antimicrobial drug that mimics the shape of an important substrate for a particular bacterial enzyme, thereby inhibiting the enzyme. This type of inhibition is known as A) allosteric inhibition.

B) competitive inhibition.

C) allosteric activation.

D) noncompetitive inhibition.

E) feedback inhibition.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7 7) Which of the following produces NADPH? A) the pentose phosphate pathway only B) the Calvin-Benson cycle only C) the Embden-Meyerhof pathway only D) both the Embden-Meyerhof and Calvin-Benson cycle pathways E) both the pentose phosphate and Entner-Doudoroff pathways Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.25

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8) Which of the following statements concerning glycolysis is TRUE? A) The first step of glycolysis involves substrate level phosphorylation.

B) The glycolytic pathway has a net gain of two ATP molecules.

C) Glucose is activated by substrate-level phosphorylation.

D) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) is the end-product of glycolysis.

E) Two NADH molecules are used during glycolysis.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 9) Many vitamins are important of enzymes.

A) protein cofactors B) coenzymes C) allosteric inhibitors D) competitive inhibitors E) activators Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 10) Pyruvic acid is a product of A) the Citric acid cycle.

B) fermentation.

C) glycolysis.

D) the pentose phosphate pathway.

E) both fermentation and the Citric acid cycle.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 11) All of the following are forms of oxidation EXCEPT A) loss of an electron.

B) loss of hydrogen atom.

C) a dehydrogenation event.

D) substrate-level phosphorylation.

E) gain of an oxygen atom and its electrons.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.2, 5.3

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12) Anaerobic bacteria may use respiration.

A) nitrate only B) carbon dioxide only C) sulfate only D) either nitrate and sulfate E) carbon dioxide, nitrate and sulfate Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.10

as the final electron acceptor during anaerobic

13) Which of the following is a non-protein carrier found in some electron transport chains?

A) flavoproteins B) metal-containing proteins C) ribozymes D) cytochromes E) ubiquinone Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.11 14) The electron transport chain provides the energy for A) oxidative phosphorylation.

B) substrate-level phosphorylation.

C) beta-oxidation.

D) photophosphorylation.

E) anabolic reactions.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 15) Which of the following is a by-product of the catabolism of proteins?

A) lactic acid B) acetyl-CoA C) proteases D) ammonia E) carbon dioxide Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.19

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16) An apoenzyme requires to be active.

A) substrate-level phosphorylation B) a cofactor C) an allosteric inhibitor D) a holoenzyme E) substrate Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.5 17) Which of the following is/are common to chemiosmosis and the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis?

A) reduction of NADP+ only B) electron transport only C) a proton gradient only D) both electron transport and a proton gradient E) electron transport, a proton gradient, and reduction of NADP+ Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.12, 5.24 18) Which of the following is a by-product of both Swiss cheese and beer production?

A) acetic acid B) carbon dioxide C) ethanol D) lactic acid E) pyruvic acid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.16 19) How many ATP molecules can theoretically be produced from the NADH generated by the catabolism of a molecule of glucose during aerobic respiration?

A) 34 B) 30 C) 38 D) 36 E) 4 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8

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20) The various types of chlorophyll differ in the A) amount of light they can absorb.

B) amount of ATP they produce.

C) number of electrons they release.

D) amount of oxygen they utilize.

E) wavelengths of light they absorb.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.21 21) Which of the following metabolic processes is commonly used to identify bacteria?

A) carbohydrate fermentation B) lipid catabolism C) Citric acid cycle products D) lipid synthesis E) pentose phosphate pathway products Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.16 22) Glycerol from triglycerides can be converted to a substrate for the A) pentose phosphate pathway.

B) glycolytic pathway.

C) Embden-Meyerhof pathway.

D) Citric acid cycle.

E) Calvin-Benson cycle.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.18 23) Which of the following is associated with the Calvin-Benson cycle?

A) acetyl-CoA B) TMAO C) RuBP D) FADH2 E) PABA Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.25

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24) The energy captured by photophosphorylation is used to produce glucose A) through the Calvin-Benson cycle.

B) through the Citric acid cycle.

C) by cyclic phosphorylation.

D) through the pentose-phosphate pathway.

E) by beta-oxidation.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.25 25) Chemical reactions that can proceed toward either anabolism or catabolism are called A) glycolytic.

B) light-independent.

C) synthetic.

D) cyclic.

E) amphibolic.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.26 26) If a cell reverses the process of beta-oxidation, which of the following molecules will it make?

A) glycerol B) amino acids C) fatty acids D) nucleotides E) starch Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.28 27) When a cell forms an amino acid by adding an amine group derived from ammonia to a precursor metabolite, this process is called A) amination.

B) transamination.

C) reduction.

D) polymerization.

E) deamination.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.29

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28) The conversion of amino acids to carbohydrates is an example of A) amination.

B) gluconeogenesis.

C) substrate-level phosphorylation.

D) beta-oxidation.

E) electron transport.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.27 29) Noncyclic photophosphorylation produces A) ATP only.

B) oxygen.

C) NADPH only.

D) ATP and NADPH. E) water and ATP. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.23 30) The metabolic processes called fermentation A) produce substrates for the Citric acid cycle.

B) are alternatives for the pentose phosphate pathway.

C) use an organic molecule as a final electron acceptor.

D) occur only when oxygen is readily available.

E) produce substrates for glycolysis.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.15 31) Which of the following is TRUE concerning the structure and function of enzymes?

A) All enzymes bind cofactors necessary for their function.

B) An apoenzyme is a combination of a cofactor bound to a holoenzyme.

C) Enzymes can function at a wide range of pH. D) Competitive inhibition of an enzyme occurs when an inhibitor binds to an allosteric site on the enzyme.

E) After an enzyme has catalyzed a reaction, it resumes its original shape and can interact with a new substrate molecule.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6

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32) Bacteriochlorophyll a absorbs A) 350 nm, ultraviolet B) 425 nm, violet C) 660 nm, red D) both 425 & 660 nm (violet and red) E) all visible Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.21

light.

33) Prokaryotes produce the majority of their ATP A) on the cytoplasmic membrane.

B) in the cytosol.

C) on the thylakoids.

D) on the inner mitochondrial membrane.

E) on ribosomes.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.9 34) The conversion of pyruvic acid to acetyl-CoA can be described as molecule of CO2 is produced as a by-product.

A) decarboxylation B) amination C) respiration D) oxidation E) phosphorylation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.9

, because a

35) Although glycolysis requires an input of ATP, this pathway results in a net gain of two ATP; therefore it is a(n) pathway.

A) exergonic B) endergonic C) oxidative D) reductive E) neither exergonic nor endergonic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.1, 5.8

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36) Reactions in which atoms are rearranged within a molecule are catalyzed by A) hydrolases.

B) isomerases.

C) transferases.

D) ligases.

E) polymerases.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4 37) Prokaryotes use folds of their cytoplasmic membrane called A) thylakoids B) grana C) nucleoid D) cristae E) outer membrane Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.21 38) During the synthesis of acetyl-CoA from pyruvic acid, A) ATP B) NADH C) FADH2 D) H2O E) acetic acid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.9

for photosynthesis.

is produced.

39) During reactions catalyzed by oxidoreductases an electron donor is A) oxidized.

B) reduced.

C) synthesized.

D) degraded.

E) unaltered.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4

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40) Hydrolases are generally involved in _ reactions.

A) anabolic B) catabolic C) both anabolic and catabolic D) neither anabolic nor catabolic E) oxidation-reduction Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4 41) Reactions involving ligases are typically reactions.

A) anabolic B) catabolic C) both anabolic and catabolic D) neither anabolic nor catabolic E) exergonic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.4 42) Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs during which of the following stage(s) of glucose catabolism?

A) formation of acetyl-CoA B) lysis stage of glycolysis C) energy-conservation stage of glycolysis D) Citric acid cycle E) formation of acetyl-CoA and the cycle Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.3, 5.8, 5.9 43) Which of the following metabolic pathways is found only in prokaryotes?

A) Embden-Meyerhof-Parnas (EMP) B) Entner-Doudoroff (ED) C) Pentose phosphate pathway D) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation E) Calvin-Benson Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.13

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44) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of stages in glycolysis?

A) energy-conservation, energy-investment, lysis B) lysis, energy-investment, energy-conservation C) energy-investment, lysis, energy-conservation D) lysis, energy-conservation, energy-investment E) energy-investment, energy-conservation, lysis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 45)

Identify the processes of glucose metabolism represented in Figure 5.1.

A) A = electron transport chain, B = Citric acid cycle, C = glycolysis, D = fermentation B) A = glycolysis, B = fermentation, C = Citric acid cycle, D = electron transport chain C) A = fermentation, B = glycolysis, C = Citric acid cycle, D = electron transport chain D) A = glycolysis, B = Citric acid cycle, C = fermentation, D = electron transport chain E) A = glycolysis, B = Citric acid cycle, C = electron transport chain, D = fermentation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

46)

The process illustrated in the figure above is an example of a(n) A) amination B) reduction C) oxidation D) transamination E) transferase Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.29

reaction.

5.2 True/False Questions 1) Reactions that are both catabolic and anabolic are amphibolic.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.26 2) The amount of energy required for a reaction to occur is its activation energy.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.6 3) Accumulation of a metabolic pathway product may result in decreased activity of the pathway enzymes.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) As the concentration of substrate increases, the activity of the enzyme decreases.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7 5) Coenzyme Q is a type of flavoprotein found in all organisms.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.11 6) During chemiosmosis, electrons are pumped across a membrane to produce ATP. Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.12 7) Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is an intermediate in the Calvin-Benson cycle.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.25 8) All the precursors of amino acids are intermediates of glycolytic and fermentation pathways.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.29 9) Essential amino acids are amino acids that cannot be synthesized by an organism and so must be provided as nutrients.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.29 10) The pentose phosphate pathway generates all the necessary precursors for nucleotide biosynthesis.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Anabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.30

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5.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The conversion of phosphoenol pyruvic acid (PEP) to pyruvic acid results in the production of an ATP. This reaction is an example of (substrate-level/oxidative/reductive) phosphorylation.

Answer: substrate-level Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.3, 5.8 2) Ribosomes are a type of (apoenzyme/enzyme/ribozyme).

Answer: ribozyme Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.5 3) A(n) (oxidation/reduction/transport) reaction is one in which a molecule accepts an electron.

Answer: reduction Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.2 4) A holoenzyme is composed of an apoenzyme one or more (cofactors/inhibitors/substrates).

Answer: cofactors Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.5, 5.7 5) Another name for the Citric acid cycle is (Entner-Doudoroff/Krebs/Calvin-Benson) cycle.

Answer: Krebs Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.9 6) Beta-oxidation of fatty acids CoA/glycerol).Answer: acetyl-CoA Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.18

produces

(acetic

acid/acetyl-

7) Electrons are transferred in the Citric acid cycle in the form of (carbon/oxygen/hydrogen) atoms to NAD+ and FAD. Answer: hydrogen Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.9

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8) Both chemiosmosis and photophosphorylation gradients.Answer: proton Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.12, 5.23

involve

(electron/proton/hydroxyl)

9) Anaerobic respiration involves the use of molecules other than oxygen as the final electron (acceptor/donor) in an electron transport chain.

Answer: acceptor Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.10 10) Laboratory fermentation tests often include a pH indicator because many bacteria produce (O2/bases/acids) as they ferment carbohydrates.

Answer: acids Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.16 11) Amino acids are converted to substrates of the Citric acid cycle by (betaoxidation/deamination/transamination).

Answer: deamination Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.19 12) Some bacteria use (acetyl-CoA/DHAP/TMAO) as a final electron receptor, resulting in a detectable odor.

Answer: TMAO Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Other Catabolic Pathways Learning Outcome: 5.19 13) Anoxygenic photosynthesis typically results in the production of (oxygen/sulfur/ammonia) as a waste product.

Answer: sulfur Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.23 14) The (active/allosteric/substrate) sites of an enzyme can be used to regulate enzyme activity within a cell, and thereby control their metabolism.

Answer: allosteric Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Integration and Regulation of Metabolic Functions Learning Outcome: 5.32 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) Significant amounts of the NADPH required for the Calvin-Benson cycle are produced during the (cyclic/noncyclic) photophosphorylation reactions of photosynthesis.

Answer: noncyclic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.23 16) Only Photosystem I is required for (anoxygenic/cyclic/noncyclic) photophosphorylation to occur.

Answer: cyclic Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.22, 5.23 5.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the mechanism of feedback inhibition and the role this process plays in controlling enzyme activity.

Answer: Feedback inhibition is also known as negative feedback and end-product inhibition. In this mechanism, the product of a particular metabolic pathway inhibits an enzyme that catalyzes a reaction earlier in the pathway. For example, the end-product might be an allosteric inhibitor of that enzyme, binding to a location on the enzyme outside the active site. When the allosteric inhibitor binds, it changes the shape of the enzyme and prevents the enzyme from binding to its substrate. This "shuts off" the enzyme, and because the product of one reaction is the substrate for another, it shuts down the pathway. The inhibition is released as the amount of the endproduct decreases. When this occurs, the pathway will be turned on again, because the cell again needs the end-product. Feedback inhibition controls enzyme activity so that energy and metabolites are not wasted.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Basic Chemical Reactions Underlying Metabolism Learning Outcome: 5.7

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2) The discussion of carbohydrate catabolism includes some of the many metabolic variations microbes are capable of. Devise a set of biochemical tests to identify the Gram-negative bacteria mentioned. Assume you can detect various organic compounds. Prepare a dichotomous key of your identification scheme.

Answer: Many answers are possible. Figure 5.3 shown below is one example, based on glucose and lactose fermentation. Test for ability to ferment glucose and lactose. If glucose is fermented, test for the presence of 6-phosphogluconic acid and 2,3-butandiol.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.16, 5.17 3) Explain why the ATP yield from processes such as cellular respiration is generally given as a theoretical number.

Answer: The maximum yield of ATP from a single molecule of glucose is 38 ATP molecules.

However, any given glucose molecule may produce fewer than this number of ATP molecules for a variety of reasons. A eukaryotic cell spends 2 ATP molecules in transporting NADH produced during glycolysis into the mitochondrion; this reduces the theoretical yield to 36 ATP. The yield might be even lower, because in chemiosmosis there is no direct relationship between the number of electrons used to create a proton gradient and the number of ATP molecules produced from that proton gradient. Proton gradients are used to drive other processes and activities in the cell besides ATP production, so some of the energy that is represented by the proton gradient can be "siphoned off" before it is used to make ATP. Some of the intermediates of glycolysis and the Citric acid cycle can be used as substrates for other metabolic processes, and when the intermediates are diverted, the theoretical ATP yield is not realized.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Carbohydrate Catabolism Learning Outcome: 5.8 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) Compare and contrast cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation.

Answer: Both cyclic photophosphorylation and noncyclic photophosphorylation are aspects of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis. They both involve the excitation of electrons by light energy; these excited electrons then participate in an electron transport pathway to create a proton gradient that can be used to produce ATP through chemiosmosis. However, as its name implies, cyclic photophosphorylation occurs when electrons return to the chlorophyll molecules whence they came. Excited electrons in noncyclic photophosphorylation are also used in the same way to produce ATP; however, these electrons are donated to an NADP+ molecule at the end of their transport chain, producing NADPH as a product of the system. Because electrons are constantly leaving the chlorophyll molecules where they are being excited, and not returning, there must also be a steady source of electrons for the photosystem. These electrons can come from molecules such as water or hydrogen sulfide.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Photosynthesis Learning Outcome: 5.23 5) Discuss the interrelationships between anabolic and catabolic pathways. Provide specific examples in your answer.

Answer: Catabolic pathways generate the energy required for anabolic reactions. Catabolic pathways produce intermediates for other pathways, and some intermediates and products of anabolic pathways provide intermediates for catabolic pathways. The Citric acid cycle produces energy to drive amino acid synthesis, and several Citric acid cycle intermediates are substrates for amino acid biosynthesis. For example, oxaloacetic acid is a precursor for half a dozen amino acids, and α-ketoglutaric acid is a precursor for about four additional amino acids. The pentose phosphate pathway produces the five-carbon sugar required for nucleotide synthesis, and various amino acids are metabolized to produce the nitrogenous bases in nucleotides. The Citric acid cycle produces intermediates and substrates for lipid biosynthesis. Catabolism of amino acids produces a variety of molecules that are intermediates of glycolysis and the Citric acid cycle, and the same is true of lipid catabolism.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Integration and Regulation of Metabolic Functions Learning Outcome: 5.31

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 6 Microbial Nutrition and Growth 6.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A microorganism grows in the lab on medium containing mineral salts but no organic compounds. The organism is likely to be a(n) A) heterotroph.

B) autotroph.

C) chemotroph.

D) chemoheterotroph.

E) The answer cannot be determined from the information provided.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 2) A cell that uses an organic carbon source and obtains energy from light would be called a A) photoheterotroph.

B) lithoautotroph.

C) photoautotroph.

D) chemoheterotroph.

E) chemoautotroph.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 3) A(n) organism require(s) oxygen for growth.

A) anaerobic B) facultative anaerobic C) aerotolerant D) obligate aerobic E) aerotolerant and an anaerobic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3

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4) An aquatic microbe that can grow only near the surface of the water is probably which of the following?

A) a phototroph B) a heterotroph C) a chemotroph D) a lithotroph E) an anaerobe Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 5) The carotenoid pigments of some phototrophs interact with A) singlet oxygen (1O2) B) hydroxyl radical (HO-) C) peroxide anion (O22-) D) superoxide radical (O2-) E) molecular oxygen (O2) Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4

to reduce its toxicity.

6) The absence of leaves obligate anaerobes susceptible to killing by oxygen.

A) carotenoids B) superoxide dismutase C) peroxidase D) vitamin E E) catalase Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 7) A microbe that grows only at the bottom of a tube of thioglycollate medium is probably a(n) A) obligate aerobe.

B) facultative anaerobe.

C) aerotolerant anaerobe.

D) microaerophile.

E) obligate anaerobe.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3

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8) Nitrogen is a growth-limiting nutrient for many organisms because A) it is necessary for the biosynthesis of amino acids.

B) it is required for synthesis of nucleotides.

C) it is required for lipid synthesis.

D) only a small number of bacteria are able to extract it from the atmosphere.

E) only a few microbes can extract it from the atmosphere, but all organisms require it for amino acid and nucleotide synthesis.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.5 9) An organism that gains energy from redox reactions involving inorganic and organic chemicals is a(n) A) chemotroph.

B) phototroph.

C) lithotroph.

D) autotroph.

E) aerobe.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.1 10) At temperatures higher than the maximum growth temperature for an organism A) proteins are permanently denatured.

B) membranes become too fluid for proper function.

C) hydrogen bonds within molecules are broken.

D) hydrogen bonds are broken and proteins are permanently denatured.

E) hydrogen bonds are broken, proteins are denatured, and membranes become too fluid.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 11) Ted heats some food just to boiling, and stores some of it immediately in a container which he places in the refrigerator. A week later he takes the food out and finds it has spoiled. The microbes that spoiled the food are probably organisms.

A) thermoduric B) thermophilic C) mesophilic D) hyperthermophilic E) psychrophilic.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) In the process of , microbes detect the presence and density of other microbes and modify their metabolic activity in response.

A) quorum sensing B) antagonism C) mutualism D) symbiosis E) synergy Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.7 13) Which of the following organisms would be most likely to contaminate a jar of pickles?

A) a neutrophile B) a thermophile C) an acidophile D) an obligate anaerobe E) a mesophile Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 14) Organisms that can grow with or without oxygen present are A) obligate aerobes.

B) facultative anaerobes.

C) aerotolerant anaerobes.

D) obligate anaerobes.

E) either facultative anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3 15) A fastidious organism might be grown on which of the following types of media?

A) transport media B) reducing media C) enriched media D) differential media E) selective media Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10

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16) Obligate anaerobes may be cultured in the laboratory A) in a reducing medium.

B) in a standard incubator.

C) in standard Petri plates.

D) on blood agar plates.

E) in standard complex media.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10 17) Joan wants to discover a microbe capable of degrading an environmental contaminant.

Which of the following culturing methods would be most effective for isolation of such an organism?

A) cell culture B) chemostat C) quorum sensing D) enrichment culture E) differential culture Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.11 18) A microbiologist inoculates a flask of broth to a concentration of 100 bacterial cells per ml.

The generation time of the species is 1 hour, and there is no lag phase. How long will it be before the culture contains more than 6,000 cells per ml?

A) 12 hours B) 6 hours C) 2 hours D) 4 hours E) 10 hours Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.15, 6.16, 6.18

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19) An epidemiologist is investigating a new disease and observes what appear to be bacteria inside tissue cells in clinical samples from victims. The scientist wants to try to isolate the bacteria in the lab. What culture conditions are most likely to be successful?

A) culturing on blood agar plates B) inoculation of EMB plates C) incubation in an anaerobic culture system D) inoculation of cell cultures E) inoculation of a minimal medium broth Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.12 20) The events of binary fission are I. the cell doubles in size II. the DNA is replicated III. the cell forms a septum IV. the cell separates from its offspring The CORRECT order of these events is A) I, III, II, IV. B) II, III, I, IV. C) IV, I, III, II. D) II, I, III, IV. E) I, II, IV, III. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.14 21) MacConkey agar plates represent A) a minimal B) a selective C) a differential D) both a differential and a selective E) both a minimal and a selective Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10

_ medium.

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22) Why is refrigeration a considered short-term method of storing bacteria?

A) Refrigeration slows metabolism but does not stop it.

B) Refrigeration causes cellular damage.

C) Refrigeration dehydrates cells.

D) Refrigeration does not slow metabolism.

E) None of the above, refrigeration is not a suitable storage method for bacterial Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.13 23) The growth of bacterial cultures is best described as A) arithmetic growth.

B) lag growth.

C) logarithmic growth.

D) cell division.

E) replication.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.16 24) A is used in industrial microbiology to produce microbial products that are only synthesized during log phase growth.

A) Coulter counter B) broth culture C) spectrophotometer D) pour plate E) chemostat Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18, 6.19 25) The of a population is the time it takes for the cells to double in number.

A) binary fission B) exponential growth C) generation time D) arithmetic growth E) log phase Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.15

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26) Which of the following is an indirect method for estimating the number of microbes in a sample?

A) viable plate counts B) turbidity C) Coulter counter D) MPN E) membrane filtration Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 27) During which growth phase are bacteria more susceptible to antimicrobial drugs?

A) lag phase B) log phase C) stationary phase D) death phase E) The susceptibility is the same for all phases.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 28) The use of salt and sugar in preserving various types of foods is an application of which of the following concepts?

A) nitrogen fixation B) osmotic pressure C) pH D) hydrostatic pressure E) quorum sensing Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 29) A clinical sample labeled as "sputum" was collected from A) the skin.

B) the blood.

C) the central nervous system.

D) a piece of tissue.

E) the lungs.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.8

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30) CFUs (colony forming units) are the source for A) biofilms.

B) mixed cultures.

C) pure cultures.

D) inoculums.

E) specimens.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9 31) A(n) is a complex community of various types of microbes that adhere to surfaces.

A) aggregate B) colony C) CFU D) biofilm E) inoculum Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.7 32) The method provides an estimate of the CFUs (colony-forming units) in a sample.

A) Coulter-counter B) viable plate-count C) streak-plate D) turbidity E) direct microscopic-count Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 33) Blood agar plates are an example of A) differential B) selective C) reducing D) defined E) transport Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10

medium.

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34) Reducing medium is used to isolate A) fastidious B) obligate aerobic C) autotrophic D) obligate anaerobic E) intracellular parasitic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10

microbes.

35) An axenic culture is one which A) is obtained from a clinical sample.

B) is grown as a broth culture.

C) contains only a pure culture.

D) contains mixed microbiota.

E) contains only pathogens.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.9

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36)

Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding Figure 6.1?

A) Cells are actively reproducing only during the stage represented by B. B) The population is increasing arithmetically during the stage represented by B. C) Cells are most susceptible to antibiotics during the stage represented by D. D) Cells are alive but not reproducing during the stage represented by A. E) No new cells are being produced during the stage represented by C. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 37) The generation time of bacterial cells is shortest during the A) death B) lag C) log D) stationary E) longitudinal Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.15, 6.18

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phase.

38) When cells are metabolically active but not dividing, they are in the A) stationary B) log C) lag D) death E) exponential Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 39) Rates of cell production and cell death are approximately equal during the of growth.

A) lag B) log C) death D) stationary E) intermediate Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18

phase.

phase

40) Creating conditions in the laboratory that promote the growth of some microbes while inhibiting the growth of others is called A) complex culturing.

B) reducing conditions.

C) enrichment culturing.

D) transport conditions.

E) differential culturing.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.11 41) A laboratory recipe lists sucrose, an ammonia compound, calcium salts and a buffer as the ingredients for a microbiologic medium. These are added to water and autoclaved. What type of medium does this protocol produce?

A) defined agar B) defined broth C) complex broth D) reducing agar E) complex enrichment broth Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) A capnophile is a microorganism that thrives in conditions of high A) carbon dioxide levels.

B) hydrostatic pressure.

C) oxygen levels.

D) pH. E) salt concentration.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.12 43) A microorganism found living under conditions of high A) pH values B) oxygen concentrations C) hydrostatic pressure D) carbon dioxide levels E) salt concentrations Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6

is a barophile.

44) Microaerophiles are microbes that grow best at low A) carbon dioxide levels.

B) pH values.

C) hydrostatic pressure.

D) oxygen levels.

E) salt concentrations.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.3 45) A 0.1 ml sample of a log phase culture contains 10,000 bacterial cells/ml. It is added to 9.9 ml of fresh culture medium broth. Assume a generation time of 30 minutes, and no limiting nutrients. How many bacteria will be present in the entire broth culture after five hours?

A) 3.2 × 104 B) 5.0 × 105 C) 1.02 × 106 D) 6.0 × 106 E) 2.56 × 107 Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.15, 6.18 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

6.2 True/False Questions 1) Photoheterotrophs use carbon dioxide as their sole carbon source.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 2) A majority of prokaryotes are capable of carrying out nitrogen fixation.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.5 3) Thermoduric mesophiles are often responsible for spoilage of improperly canned foods.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 4) Serial dilution can be used in combination with pour plates as a method for isolating pure cultures.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9 5) The only effective way to store bacterial cultures for short periods of time is to arrest their metabolism by freezing.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.13 6) Quorum sensing produces changes in gene expression.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.7 7) Streak plates are a useful way to obtain CFUs. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Agar is a useful compound in the microbiology lab because it is an excellent nutrient for bacteria.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10 9) Enrichment culturing may require use of controlled environmental conditions.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.10 10) A Coulter counter is used to obtain pure cultures.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 6.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A(n) (autotroph/lithotroph/organotroph) uses inorganic molecules as electron donors.

Answer: lithotroph Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.1 2) Organisms that require organic sources of carbon and energy are called (autotrophs /chemoautotrophs/chemoheterotrophs /).

Answer: chemoheterotrophs Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.2 3) Some organisms use (carotenoids/catalase/peroxidase) to prevent the damage of singlet oxygen.

Answer: carotenoids Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 4) The (maximum/optimum/selective) growth temperature is the temperature at which an organism exhibits the highest growth rate.

Answer: optimum Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) The preferred method for long term storage of bacteria is (freezing/refrigeration/lyophilization).

Answer: lyophilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Organisms Learning Outcome: 6.13 6) Alkalinophiles can survive in water up to pH (11.5/10/7.0).

Answer: 11.5 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 7) Some organisms use vitamins as (oxidizers/antioxidants/peroxidases) to be able to live as aerobes.

Answer: antioxidants Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 8) A(n) (culture/specimen/inoculum) is a sample of microorganisms introduced into a growth medium.

Answer: inoculum Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9 9) A pure culture is composed of cells that arise from a single (CFU/inoculum/sample).

Answer: CFU Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9 10) Culturing of intracellular parasites generally requires (enrichment/cell culture/low oxygen) conditions.

Answer: cell culture Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.12 11) A sample placed into fresh medium is initially in the (lag/log/stationary) phase of microbial growth in most instances.

Answer: lag Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.18 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) A growth curve plots the (concentration/number/percentage) of viable organisms in a growing population over time.

Answer: number Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.17 13) A (Coulter/Petroff-Hauser chamber/spectrophotometer) counter is used to count cells on a light microscope.

Answer: Petroff-Hauser chamber Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 14) A clinical sample from a mucus membrane is usually collected as a (biopsy/needle/swab) specimen.

Answer: swab Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.8 15) A (Coulter counter/cytometer/spectrophotometer) can measure changes in the turbidity of a bacterial culture.

Answer: spectrophotometer Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 6.4 Essay Questions 1) A new prokaryote is recovered from a remote saline hot spring. Design a set of experiments to determine whether the organism is thermophilic or thermoduric, halophilic or halotolerant.

Answer: The experimental design should include a control in which the organism is grown in the salt conditions and at the temperature it was recovered from. One set of samples should be cultured at the same salt concentration but varying the temperatures. Another set of samples should be cultured at the temperature of the hot spring but varying the salt concentration. One culture should be grown at the lowest temperature and salt concentration used in the two experimental sets. Bacterial growth is most reliably measured using the viable plate count method (assuming the organism can be grown on plates). Alternatively, bacterial numbers may be determined using a cell counter. An excellent answer will describe the organism which can be expected to grow under the various conditions (thermophilic halophile, thermophilic halotolerant, thermoduric halophile, and so forth).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Creating Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.6 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

2) Explain how temperature and pH levels can influence microbial infections in the human body.

Answer: All microbes have particular ranges of temperature and pH within which they thrive.

When the temperature or pH of their environment falls outside this range, their growth is inhibited, and they may even die as a result of the adverse conditions. Therefore, only those microbes whose pH and temperature requirements match those conditions found in the human body will be able to grow and reproduce there. For example, because the temperature of the human body is 37°C, only mesophiles can reproduce there. In addition, the pH of most tissues and fluids in the body is 6.5-7.5, which matches the pH requirements of neutrophiles. Therefore, it is not surprising that most human pathogens are mesophiles and neutrophiles. However, this is not always the case. Some microbes have adapted to environments that would otherwise be extremely hostile to most microbes. A good example is the bacterium Helicobacter pylori, which is able to live in the extremely acidic conditions of the stomach by secreting substances that help to neutralize the acid. The result is an infection that can lead to stomach ulcers.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Growth Requirements Learning Outcome: 6.4 3) Compare and contrast the streak-plate method of isolation with the pour-plate method of isolation.

Answer: The streak-plate and the pour-plate methods of bacterial isolation are both used to produce pure cultures of bacteria from specimens. Both techniques involve the use of agar-based growth media contained in Petri plates. Additionally, both techniques involve the use of dilutions as a means of isolating single cells or groups of cells that then grow into isolated colonies.

However, there are several significant differences between the two techniques. The main difference is the way in which the specimen is diluted. In the streak-plate method, the specimen is diluted by use of an inoculating loop that spreads organisms over the surface of the agar. Thus, colonies appear only on the agar surface. In the pour-plate method, however, dilutions of the specimen are made in tubes of broth and then each dilution is added to melted agar, which is then poured into Petri dishes. Thus, microbes are mixed throughout the agar, and colonies will appear both in and on the medium.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Culturing Microorganisms Learning Outcome: 6.9

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4) Molecular methods of detecting microorganisms reveal that the number of bacterial species in nature exceeds previous estimates by several orders of magnitude. In human mouths, for example, it is estimated that 500-700 microbial species are normally present. Explain why previous estimates were low.

Answer: Previous estimates of microbial diversity were largely based on the ability to detect microbes in samples handled in a typical laboratory setting. In most cases, laboratory conditions represent a narrow range of growth parameters, including temperature range, oxygen and other gas levels, and spectrum of nutrients. Even in cases where attempts are made to simulate the normal conditions for microbes (e.g., providing a high-pressure environment for organisms collected from a hyperbaric environment), microorganisms must frequently tolerate fluctuations in the growth environment or even exposure to extremely adverse conditions for short periods of time. Organisms that are intolerant of significant fluctuation in their environmental requirements do not survive transport to the lab to be measured or cultured. As a consequence, only the relatively few microbes that are versatile in their nutrient requirements and can tolerate fluctuations in their growth environment have been observed or isolated in the laboratory. This, in turn, resulted in misleadingly low estimates of microbial diversity.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20 5) Explain the similarities and differences between direct and indirect methods of measuring microbial growth, and give examples of each.

Answer: Direct methods of measuring microbial growth involve quantifying the number of microbes in a specimen through actual counting of cells in a microscope or cytometer, or counting the numbers of colonies produced from the plating of a specimen. The advantage of these techniques lies in their usefulness for counting very large and very small populations of bacteria. Indirect methods, by contrast, seek to quantify cells by measuring some characteristic related to the number of cells present. For example, spectrophotometry measures the amount of light transmitted through a culture; the less light that is transmitted, the more cells are present.

The amount of light transmitted gives an approximation of the number of cells present. Indirect methods are useful for quantifying microbes, such as filamentous microbes, that are hard to count directly. Both direct and indirect methods seek to arrive at an approximation of the actual number of cells present. Because that number is changing even during the measurement process, neither technique can give an exact number of cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Growth of Microbial Populations Learning Outcome: 6.20

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 7 Microbial Genetics 7.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A bacterial genome is typically A) a single linear piece of DNA. B) multiple linear pieces of DNA. C) a linear RNA molecule.

D) a single circular DNA molecule.

E) multiple circular DNA molecules.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1 2) Which of the following is normally found at the 5' end of a DNA strand?

A) a phosphate group B) a hydrogen bond C) a hydroxyl group D) histones E) a methyl group Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.2 3) The bacterial chromosome is A) usually circular.

B) found in a nucleoid.

C) found in a nucleus.

D) both circular and found in a nucleoid.

E) both circular and found in a nucleus.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1

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4) Which of the following types of plasmids allows a bacterial cell to kill its competitors?

A) virulence plasmids B) fertility plasmids C) bacteriocin plasmids D) resistance plasmids E) cryptic plasmids Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.4 5) Which of the following is found in both archaeal and eukaryotic genomes?

A) chromatin fibers B) histones C) heterochromatin D) euchromatin E) nuclear envelope Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5 6) Which of the following statements is TRUE of bacterial plasmids?

A) They are always found in the nucleoid.

B) They can replicate autonomously.

C) They carry genes for essential metabolic functions.

D) They are small circular DNA molecules.

E) They are small circular DNA molecules that can replicate autonomously.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.4

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7)

The process indicated by the arrow in Figure 7.1 represents A) lagging strand synthesis.

B) leading strand synthesis.

C) transcription.

D) translation.

E) recombination.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.8 8) Which of the following statements concerning transcription in bacteria is FALSE? A) It occurs in the nucleoid region.

B) Sigma factors are parts of RNA polymerase that recognize promoter regions.

C) Different RNA polymerases are required for synthesis of mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA. D) Termination is either self-induced or due to the presence of Rho protein.

E) There are a variety of sigma factors that affect transcription.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.13 9) Which of the following is involved in translation?

A) r-RNA only B) t-RNA only C) m-RNA only D) both m-RNA and t-RNA E) m-RNA, r-RNA, and t-RNA are all involved.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.15

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10) Which of the following is a characteristic NOT shared by bacterial and archaeal DNA? A) They are circular molecules.

B) They are found in a nucleoid.

C) They have histones.

D) They are haploid.

E) They are linear molecules.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.3 11) Typical eukaryotic genomes are composed of A) multiple linear B) multiple circular C) a single circular D) a single linear E) both linear and circular Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5

chromosomes.

12) RNA is composed of four nucleotides, A, U, C, and G. Each codon is composed of three nucleotides. The number of possible codons is A) 16.

B) 4.

C) 12.

D) 64.

E) 32.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.14 13) Which of the following is both a codon for an amino acid and a start signal?

A) AAA B) AUG C) UAG D) GAU E) UGA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.15

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14) Amino acids are delivered in their appropriate order by A) mRNAs. B) RNA-induced silencing complexes (RISC).

C) ribozymes.

D) rRNAs. E) tRNAs. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.15 15) During elongation, a charged t-RNA first enters the ribosomal into the site.

A) A; E B) P; A C) P; E D) A; P E) E; A Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.15

site and then moves

16) Two bacterial strains have the same genes for metabolizing a carbohydrate, but one is wildtype for a regulatory inducer while the other does not produce the inducer. Which of the following statements is CORRECT with regard to the metabolism of the bacteria?

A) The two bacterial strains have the same phenotype.

B) The two bacterial strains have different phenotypes.

C) The genotypes and phenotypes of the two bacterial strains are the same.

D) The two bacterial strains have the same phenotype but have different genotypes.

E)The two bacterial strains differ in both genotype and phenotype.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.10 17) Semiconservative DNA replication means that A) each daughter DNA molecule is composed of one original strand and one new strand.

B) nucleotides are constantly being recycled as cells make DNA. C) the cell can proofread its newly synthesized DNA only part of the time.

D) the sequence of a DNA molecule is preserved as it is being replicated.

E) each strand of a double-stranded DNA molecule is replicated differently.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.6 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Okazaki fragments?

A) They are checked for accuracy by DNA polymerase III. B) They make up the lagging strand of replicated DNA. C) They begin with an RNA primer.

D) They are joined together by DNA ligase.

E) They are longer in eukaryotic cells.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.8 19) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of both DNA and RNA polymerases?

A) Synthesis takes place in only one direction.

B) Energy for synthesis is provided by the nucleotide triphosphates.

C) Complementary nucleotides pair by hydrogen bonding.

D) An initiation signal is required.

E) A primer is required for initiation.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.8, 7.12 20) Which of the following processes is involved in the "central dogma" of genetics?

A) translation only B) transcription only C) DNA replication only D) transcription and translation E) DNA replication and translation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.11 21) Prokaryotic operons typically include a(n) A) operator; terminator B) operator; promoter C) promoter; repressor D) inducer; repressor E) CAP-binding site; inducer Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.17

and a(n)

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_ with multiple genes.

22) Which of the following are considered to be frameshift mutations?

A) insertions only B) inversions only C) deletions only D) both inversion and insertions E) both deletions and insertions Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.21 23) If the codon AAA is changed to AAG, it still codes for the amino acid lysine; this is an example of a A) silent mutation.

B) nonsense mutation.

C) frameshift mutation.

D) dimer formation.

E) missense mutation.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.22 24) Which of the following causes mutations by creating thymine dimers?

A) nucleotide analogs B) nitrous acid C) ultraviolet light D) benzopyrene E) gamma rays Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.23 25) A base substitution changes a UCG codon to UAG. This is an example of a mutation.

A) missense B) silent C) deletion D) frameshift E) nonsense Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.22

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26) Which of the following DNA repair processes is most likely to introduce mutations into the repaired DNA? A) base-excision repair B) light repair C) nucleotide-excision repair D) mismatch repair E) SOS repair Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.26 27) The Ames test demonstrates that a chemical is A) carcinogenic.

B) carcinogenic in Salmonella.

C) mutagenic in Salmonella.

D) carcinogenic in humans.

E) mutagenic in humans.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.28 28) The horizontal transfer process known as transduction A) involves a virus.

B) requires a pilus.

C) requires a cell to be "competent."

D) requires a plasmid.

E) involves a mutagen.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.30, 7.32 29) Frederick Griffith discovered A) transformation.

B) transposons.

C) the lac operon.

D) DNA. E) conjugation.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.30, 7.32

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30) In conjugation, F+ cells A) serve as recipient cells.

B) contain an F plasmid.

C) do not have conjugation pili.

D) can transfer DNA only to other F+ cells.

E) contain "jumping genes."

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.31 31) Which of the following is required for transposition?

A) F+ plasmid B) bacteriophage C) inverted repeat D) donor cell E) competence Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.33 32) Which of the following is characteristic of prokaryotic genomes but NOT eukaryotic genomes?

A) histones B) circular chromosomes C) linear chromosomes D) enclosed in a nuclear membrane E) typically consist of a few to several chromosomes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1 33) You observe a microbiologist examining two plates and notice the pattern of colonies are nearly identical with the exception of a few colonies that are absent on one of them. The plates likely were produced by A) positive selection culturing.

B) replica plating.

C) pour plating.

D) streak plating.

E) the Ames test.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.27 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

34) A polypeptide in a wild type microbe contains the sequence Leu-Pro-Tyr-Ser-Pro. A phenotypic variant of the species has the peptide sequence Leu-Pro-Cys-Ser-Pro. This is an example of a(n) _ mutation.

A) nonsense B) missense C) silent D) frameshift E) inversion Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.22 35) Which of the following is NOT involved in the regulation of the lac operon?

A) an inducer B) a repressor protein C) an miRNA D) glucose E) cyclic AMP Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.19 36) Genetic elements known as promoters are initiation points in the process of A) DNA replication.

B) transcription.

C) translation.

D) mutation repair.

E) transformation.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.12 37) Codons are recognized during A) translation.

B) transcription.

C) base excision.

D) DNA replication.

E) transduction.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.14

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38) The events of are initiated at sequences called origins.

A) DNA replication B) translation C) splicing D) transcription E) transposition Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.8 39) The process of requires the activity of DNA ligase.

A) translation B) capping C) transcription D) DNA replication E) transduction Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.8 40) RNA polymerase is primarily responsible for A) DNA replication.

B) translation.

C) transcription.

D) transformation.

E) polyadenylation.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.12 41) Which of the following processes occurs in eukaryotes but not prokaryotes?

A) DNA replication B) capping C) transcription D) translation E) gene regulation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.13

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42) The modified amino acid f-Met is essential for A) bacterial translation.

B) bacterial transcription.

C) eukaryotic transcription.

D) eukaryotic translation.

E) eukaryotic mRNA processing.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.16 43) Transfer of random pieces of DNA mediated by phage is known as A) transformation of competent cells.

B) generalized transduction.

C) conjugation.

D) transposition.

E) specialized transduction.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.32 44) The process of is described as semiconservative.

A) translation B) transcription C) mismatch repair D) transformation E) DNA replication Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.6 45) The effects of a transposition event are equivalent to a(n) A) nonsense mutation.

B) missense mutation.

C) frameshift mutation.

D) silent mutation.

E) HFR conjugation.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.34

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7.2 True/False Questions 1) All eukaryotes are diploid.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5 2) A chemical is reported to inhibit bacterial replication. Bacterial cells are placed in medium with all nutrients necessary for replication. The chemical is added to the culture, and after a half hour an extract of the DNA is prepared. A significant percentage of the DNA is in pieces about 1000 to 2000 bases in length. The results are consistent with the chemical blocking the function of DNA ligase.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.7 3) The term "semiconservative replication" refers to the DNA repair process known as "errorprone repair".

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.6 4) Bacterial chromosomes are always circular DNA molecules.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.3 5) The structure of DNA explains both its ability to encode genetic information and the way in which it is copied during cell reproduction.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.2 6) Lagging strand synthesis in eukaryotes involves Okazaki fragments that are shorter than those in bacterial replication.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.9

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7) In contrast to leading strand synthesis, the lagging strand is synthesized 3' to 5', which is why it is slower.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.8 8) The phenotype of an organism reflects only part of its genotype.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.10 9) In generalized transduction, viruses carry random DNA sequences from one cell to another.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.32 10) Positive selection is a means of isolating wild-type phenotype strains.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.27 7.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A(n) (operon/codon/gene) is a specific sequence of nucleotides that codes for a protein or an RNA molecule.

Answer: gene Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.1 2) Loosely packed, transcriptionally active regions of a eukaryotic chromosome are called (euchromatin/heterochromatin/nucleosomes).

Answer: euchromatin Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.5 3) Transfer of DNA between bacterial cells by viruses is called (transformation/transduction/conjugation).

Answer: transduction Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.32 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) The phenotype of an organism is its set of (genes/traits/chromosomes).

Answer: traits Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.10 5) The enzyme responsible for separating the DNA strands during DNA replication is (topoisomerase/primase/helicase).

Answer: helicase Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.8 6) The chemical 5-bromouracil mimics the chemical structure of thymine, making it a(n) (analog/nucleotide/precursor) of thymine.

Answer: analog Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.24 7) A (missense/nonsense/silent) mutation of a gene usually produces a nonfunctional polypeptide.

Answer: nonsense Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.22 8) Except during initiation of translation, transfer RNA molecules carrying amino acids initially bind to the ribosome at the (P/A/E) site.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.15 9) The (codon/anticodon/loop) of a transfer RNA molecule is complementary to a codon in a messenger RNA molecule.

Answer: anticodon Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.15

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10) Base substitutions of the (first/second/third) base of a codon frequently produce silent mutations.

Answer: third Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.22 11) A(n) (genome/codon/operon) is a set of prokaryotic genes that are regulated and transcribed as a unit.

Answer: operon Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.17 12) The (leading/lagging/replicating) strand is the DNA strand that is synthesized continuously during DNA replication.

Answer: leading Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Structure and Replication of Genomes Learning Outcome: 7.8 13) The full set of genetic instructions of an organism is its (phenotype/genome/genotype).

Answer: genotype Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.10 14) Errors made during replication are primarily corrected by (baseexcision/mismatch/nucleotide-excision) repair.

Answer: mismatch Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.26 15) While studying a bacterial strain, a scientist notes a short DNA sequence between inverted repeats is present in both the chromosome and a plasmid within the cell. This sequence is most likely a(n) (phage/transposon/F plasmid).

Answer: transposon Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.32

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7.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the basic similarities and differences between DNA replication and transcription.

Answer: DNA replication and transcription are similar processes in that they both involve the production of molecules of nucleic acids using a preexisting template. Therefore, they both involve the polymerization of nucleotides to create long chains, as well as the utilization of complementary base-pairing rules to create the nucleotide sequence of the new molecule based on the sequence of the template. Additionally, these chains of nucleotides are synthesized in the same direction, 5' to 3', regardless of the type of nucleic acid being produced. However, there are a number of differences between these two processes as well. During DNA replication, both DNA strands serve as templates, while only one DNA strand is the template for transcription.

The product of DNA replication is an exact, complete DNA copy of an entire DNA molecule that will be passed on to the offspring of the cell producing it. The product of transcription is an RNA copy of a limited region (a gene) of a DNA molecule. Furthermore, this RNA molecule may not be an exact copy of the gene, because transcription is more prone to errors than DNA replication. The RNA molecules produced during transcription are used within the cell that produces them to provide information for the synthesis of proteins during translation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.7, 7.12 2) Describe the various types of nucleic acids that are typically found in cells.

Answer: All cells possess one or more DNA molecules that serve as the genetic blueprint of the cell; these molecules are generally referred to as chromosomes. Prokaryotic chromosomes differ from eukaryotic chromosomes in their number and physical shape. Eukaryotic chromosomes tend to be more complex in their organization, involving specialized packaging proteins called histones. Eukaryotic cells also tend to contain more chromosomes than prokaryotes, which have no more than two chromosomes. In addition, all cells contain additional nucleic acid in the form of various types of RNA (mRNA, tRNA, primer RNA, siRNA, miRNA, and rRNA), which are used to assist in the cell's genetic processes. Most cells contain other types of nucleic acid, such as plasmids or the DNA found in organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts. Plasmids are a common form of prokaryotic DNA and confer a variety of special abilities to the cell, depending on the specific genes carried by the plasmid. Some eukaryotic cells may also contain plasmids. The DNA of eukaryotic mitochondria and chloroplasts is used to partially control the activities of these organelles in conjunction with genes found in the cell's nucleus.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.2, 7.15, 7.19

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3) Bacterial strain A contains a plasmid. Bacterial strain B does not. When the bacteria are incubated together in a broth culture strain B cells containing the plasmid can be isolated. Devise an experiment to determine what type of gene transfer process is involved.

Answer: A variety of answers are possible. For example, bacterial strains A & B could be placed on either side of a filter with a pore size too small to allow bacteria to cross; if no strain B recombinants are produced the results would be consistent with gene transfer by conjugation.

Another experiment would be to mix the bacteria in the presence of DNase; if recombinants are not detected the results would suggest transformation of competent cells is involved. If recombinants are detected, genetic transfer by conjugation or transduction are possible. A good experimental design will include appropriate controls. An excellent answer may include multiple experimental approaches and/or discussion of alternatives to the proposed experiment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Creating Section: Genetic Recombination and Transfer Learning Outcome: 7.32 4) Compare and contrast the lactose operon with the tryptophan operon.

Answer: Both the lactose and the tryptophan operons have certain features in common. They both contain a set of genes dedicated to a common purpose (such as the catabolism of lactose by the genes of the lactose operon) and regulatory elements such as a promoter and an operator.

Each of these operons makes use of a repressor protein, which binds to the operator region and alters the activity of the operon. However, the lactose operon is classified as an inducible operon, which means it requires an inducer (a lactose metabolite) in order to be activated. In the absence of the inducer, the repressor protein shuts down the operon. In contrast, the tryptophan operon is a repressible operon, which requires a corepressor (tryptophan itself) in order to activate the repressor and shut down the operon. In the absence of the corepressor and repressor, the operon is fully functional. In both types of operons, the molecule either catabolized (in the case of lactose) or synthesized (in the case of tryptophan) is an important component of the regulation of the operon. In this way, the cell maintains precise control over these genetic pathways and does not spend time and energy making enzymes that are not needed. For example, making enzymes to catabolize lactose when no lactose is present would waste energy and metabolites.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Gene Function Learning Outcome: 7.18

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5) A point mutation can be completely harmless, or it can result in the death of a cell or organism. Explain why these types of mutations can have such varying effects.

Answer: A point mutation is a single base change in the nucleotide sequence of a cell's genome.

The effects of a point mutation can depend on its location. Point mutations in noncoding regions of the genome are usually harmless. Even in coding regions, point mutations can be harmless if they result in silent mutations. Silent mutations preserve the sense of the amino acid code because of the concept of "wobble," in which two codons can code for the same amino acid by varying only at the third base of the codon. If the point mutation has occurred at this third base, then the amino acid sequence of the protein will remain unchanged. Point mutations occurring at the first or second base of the codon are almost always much more serious because they change the codon to a completely different amino acid. This type of point mutation is known as a missense mutation. Occasionally, changes in the first or second base are still silent, in the case of amino acids specified by several codons (e.g. CGG and AGG both code for Arginine). (Another exception to this occurs when the new amino acid is chemically similar to the previous amino acid, in which case the missense mutation usually causes little or no change in the overall structure or function of the protein.) Finally, one of the most serious types of point mutations is a nonsense mutation in which the codon has been changed to a stop codon. These types of mutations result in the abnormal termination of a protein sequence. In all such cases, if the protein affected by the mutation is an enzyme or some other vital protein required for proper cellular function, then the cell and/or organism may die as a result of these relatively simple mutations.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Mutations of Genes Learning Outcome: 7.21, 7.22

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 8 Recombinant DNA Technology 8.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The use of microorganisms to produce useful products is known as A) biotechnology.

B) gene modification.

C) genomics.

D) recombinant DNA technology.

E) cloning.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.1 2) In the 20th century, scientists harnessed the natural metabolic reactions of bacteria to make for the first time in an industrial setting.

A) soy sauce B) acetone C) wine D) cheese E) alcohol Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.2 3) Which of the following items is NOT a part of the name of a restriction enzyme?

A) the Gram reaction of the source bacterium B) the specific epithet of the source bacterium C) Roman numerals to indicate its order of discovery D) the strain of the source bacterium E) the genus of the source bacterium Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.8

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4) The natural role of restriction enzymes in bacteria is to A) make conjugation more efficient.

B) allow transposons to move to another place in the chromosome.

C) protect the cell from invading phages.

D) allow cells to accept foreign DNA. E) provide the cell with new phenotypes, such as antibiotic resistance.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 5) Which of the following is a product of recombinant DNA technology?

A) bacteria that produce vitamins B) bacteria that produce insulin C) microbes that produce vaccines D) humans that produce vaccines E) microbes that produce vitamins, insulin and vaccines Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.3 6) Which of the following restriction enzyme sites would produce blunt-ended fragments? (The arrow represents the cutting site of the enzyme.)

A) C↓CGG B) G↓GATCC C) G↓AATTC D) CCC↓GGG E) A↓AGCTT Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 7) The enzyme reverse transcriptase A) synthesizes DNA to repair gaps in a DNA strand.

B) synthesizes DNA from an RNA template.

C) synthesizes RNA from an RNA template.

D) synthesizes RNA from a DNA template.

E) can synthesize DNA or RNA from an RNA template.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.5

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8) Which of the following statements regarding vectors is FALSE? A) Vectors are usually autonomously replicating DNA molecules.

B) A useful vector contains multiple restriction sites for insertion of DNA. C) Vectors are generally over 100,000 base pairs in size.

D) Cloning vectors frequently contain sequences necessary for expression of inserted sequences.

E) Cloning vectors include a "marker" to facilitate identification of cells containing them.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.10 9) Synthetic nucleic acids are useful as A) DNA probes.

B) primers for PCR. C) antisense RNAs. D) DNA probes and antisense RNAs. E) DNA probes, primers, and antisense RNAs. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7 10) Mutagens are useful in biotechnology research for A) producing organisms with altered phenotypes.

B) producing new organisms which have beneficial traits from two or more organisms.

C) selecting genetic mutants resistant to radioactivity.

D) removing undesirable traits from microbes.

E) producing DNA fragments for cloning.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.4 11) Which of the following is essential in PCR? A) DNA polymerase B) antisense RNAs C) reverse transcriptase D) DNA primers E) both DNA primers and DNA polymerase Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.13

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12) If a researcher used Escherichia coli DNA polymerase instead of Thermus aquaticus DNA polymerase in the PCR procedure, what would be the result?

A) DNA replication would occur more slowly than normal.

B) DNA replication would not occur at all.

C) Many mistakes would occur.

D) DNA replication would occur twice as fast as normal.

E) DNA replication would stop after one cycle.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.13 13) In the CRISPR system, the targeted DNA sequence is A) in the palindromic repeats.

B) in the cas gene.

C) between CRISPR regions.

D) in the spacer of a CRISPR region.

E) in a vector.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.11 14) A procedure using both reverse transcriptase and real time PCR can be used to A) determine the number of copies of a DNA sequence in a sample.

B) determine the number of copies of an RNA sequence in a sample.

C) produce DNA fragments for cDNA cloning.

D) both determine the number of copies of an RNA sequence in a sample and produce fragments for cDNA cloning.

E) produce RNA fragments for cloning.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.13 15) In gel electrophoresis, DNA molecules move toward the have an overall _ charge.

A) negative; negative B) positive; positive C) negative; positive D) positive; negative E) negative and positive; neutral Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

electrode because they

16) Single-strand DNA molecules are fixed to a glass slide or nylon membrane for the production of A) microarrays.

B) DNA clones.

C) real time PCR probes.

D) FISH assays.

E) templates for Sanger sequencing.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.16 17) A northern blot differs from a Southern blot in the A) type of probe used.

B) presence or absence of a nitrocellulose membrane.

C) size of the genetic sequences involved.

D) number of genetic sequences detected.

E) type of nucleic acid being isolated.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15 18)

Which method of inserting DNA into cells is illustrated in Figure 8.1?

A) protoplast fusion B) injection C) electroporation D) a gene gun E) transduction Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17

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19) Small single strand DNA molecules with a fluorescent molecule attached that are used to identify a clone containing a specific gene fragment is called a A) primer.

B) probe.

C) plasmid.

D) promoter.

E) peptide.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 20) The sequencing and analysis of an organism's genetic information is called A) protein synthesis.

B) gene therapy.

C) genomics.

D) northern blotting.

E) PCR. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.19 21) Which of the following devices is used for PCR? A) an electrophoresis chamber B) a gene gun C) a DNA sequencer D) a thermocycler E) a nucleic acid creation machine Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.13 22) Altering an organism’s phenotype by _ is a technique for determining the function of a gene.

A) gene therapy B) gene knockout C) probe analysis D) expression vector cloning E) FISH Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.19

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23) A researcher inserted DNA fragments from an organism into expression vector plasmids and introduced the modified plasmids into bacterial cells. Which of the following methods would be an effective means of identifying which clones contain a specific gene of interest?

A) Sequence the DNA of the plasmids from each isolate.

B) Prepare and analyze restriction fragments of the plasmids.

C) Isolate clones that still have the vector's genetic marker.

D) Use a DNA probe to detect colonies with the inserted DNA. E) Use reverse transcriptase to prepare cDNA copies.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.14 24) Subunit vaccines are safer than traditional vaccines because they A) are acellular.

B) are administered in food.

C) do not pose a risk for causing the disease.

D) are acellular and do not pose a risk for causing the disease.

E) are acellular and can be administered in food.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.21 25) Which of the following is common to both Sanger sequencing and next-generation sequencing?

A) radioactive labels B) gel electrophoresis C) tethered DNA fragments D) chain terminating nucleotides E) lasers Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.20 26) Transgenic organisms A) contain cells from other organisms.

B) contain genetically engineered microbes.

C) are the same as clones.

D) contain genes from other organisms.

E) have genomes that have been sequenced completely.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.24 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) Which of the following microbes produces a protein that kills a variety of insect pests?

A) Pseudomonas B) Haemophilus influenzae C) Bacillus thuringiensis D) Thermus aquaticus E) Plasmodium falciparum Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.24 28) Replacing a patient's defective gene with a fragment containing a functional gene is A) gene therapy.

B) genomics.

C) gene cloning.

D) gene mapping.

E) gene selection.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.23 29) If all the following DNA fragments were analyzed on an electrophoresis gel, which one would migrate farthest from the negative electrode?

A) 5000 base pairs B) 750 base pairs C) 1000 base pairs D) 250 base pairs E) 2500 base pairs Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15 30) Which of the following procedures would be used to introduce DNA into a single mouse cell?

A) Southern blotting B) electroporation C) gene gun D) microinjection E) protoplast fusion Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17

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31) The procedure used to determine whether a person has a heritable disease is known as A) DNA sequencing.

B) microarray analysis.

C) genetic screening.

D) northern analysis.

E) xenotransplantation.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.22 32) Double strand DNA fragments are separated by size using A) restriction analysis.

B) FISH. C) PCR. D) northern blotting.

E) gel electrophoresis.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15 33) Which of the following is generally NOT considered an ethical issue regarding recombinant DNA technology?

A) the modification of crop plants B) screening of humans for genes that predispose them to disease C) unforeseen impact on the environment D) the modification of animals to produce pharmaceuticals for humans E) answering basic research questions Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Ethics and Safety of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.25

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34)

Two men may be the father of a child. Figure 8.2 shows the results of a DNA fingerprint analysis to determine paternity. M is the mother, C is the child, A and B are the two men. What is the best interpretation of these results?

A) The man identified as A is probably the father.

B) The man identified as B is probably the father.

C) Neither man is this child's father.

D) Either man could be this child's father.

E) Paternity cannot be determined from this data.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.22 35) Which of the following microbes has been genetically engineered to contain a protein that helps protect crops from freezing?

A) Deinococcus radiodurans B) Bacillus thuringiensis C) Pseudomonas D) Salmonella E) Escherichia coli Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.24

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36) Synthesis of cDNA requires the use of A) DNA ligase.

B) agarose.

C) reverse transcriptase.

D) restriction enzymes.

E) fluorescent synthetic nucleotides.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.5 37) Probes used for detecting genetic sequences are frequently composed of A) agarose.

B) synthetic nucleic acids and labeled conjugates, such as fluorescent dyes.

C) restriction enzymes.

D) silicon chips.

E) nitrocellulose.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7 38) Which of the following are used for cutting DNA molecules into fragments?

A) antisense RNAs B) mutagens C) DNA polymerase and DNA ligase D) restriction enzymes E) RNA polymerases Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 39) "Heat shock" is an effective means of A) inserting a DNA fragment into a vector.

B) introducing DNA into animal cells.

C) introducing DNA into plant cells.

D) introducing DNA into bacteria.

E) starting a PCR cycle.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17

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40) Which of the following is NOT a goal of recombinant DNA technology?

A) combining genetic material from more than one organism to produce new useful organisms B) making it possible to clone humans C) eliminating undesirable traits from livestock or crops D) being able to remove or correct damaging traits in humans E) creating organisms capable of producing useful products Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.3 41) In Southern blotting, DNA molecules are immobilized on A) silicon chips.

B) nitrocellulose membranes.

C) agarose.

D) gold beads.

E) paper.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15 42) Michelle has a clone of the DNA of a newly discovered virus. She wants to identify which specific cells of an organ are infected by the virus. What method would be the most useful to answer this question?

A) Sanger sequencing of the clone B) real time PCR C) FISH (fluorescent in situ hybridization) D) restriction fragment analysis E) microinjection of the gene fragment Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.18 43) Injecting DNA into cells can be accomplished using A) nitrocellulose membranes.

B) silicon chips and nucleic acids.

C) compressed air and gold beads.

D) micropipettes.

E) micropipettes, or compressed air and gold beads.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17

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44) A scientist is using a microarray containing all the genes of a single species. What is the scientist likely to be using this microarray for?

A) gene expression analysis B) investigating a microbial community C) diagnosis of infectious disease D) determining the genetic sequence E) creating a clone library Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.16 45) What new technology increases the precision of gene editing, and may make gene therapy easier?

A) next-generation sequencing B) CRISPR-Cas9 C) microarrays D) FISH E) PCR Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Ethics and Safety of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.25 8.2 True/False Questions 1) Gene therapy for human genetic diseases has not been successful yet.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.23 2) Reverse transcriptase synthesizes a DNA molecule from an RNA template.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.5 3) The goals of recombinant DNA technology include production of new organisms with useful combinations of traits.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.3

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4) Restriction enzymes are useful only on synthetic DNA molecules.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.8 5) Under ideal conditions, the number of DNA molecules produced during PCR increases exponentially.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.13 6) Sticky-end fragments generated by EcoRI will hydrogen bond to any other sticky-end sequence.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 7) The human microbiome is very uniform across the entire species Homo sapiens in all geographic locations.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.19 8) Southern blotting is a technique that can be used to identify microbes that cannot be cultured.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15 9) A transcriptome is a record of the mRNA sequences produced in a cell.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.19 10) Scientists were able to increase the production of naturally occurring vitamin A in rice plants.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.24

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8.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The use of microbes to make practical products such as vaccines or hormones is called (genomics/recombination/biotechnology).

Answer: biotechnology Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Role of Recombinant DNA Technology in Biotechnology Learning Outcome: 8.1 2) A technique using fluorescent-tagged probes to detect specific DNA sequences in their natural locations is known as (BLOTTING/FISH/PCR).

Answer: FISH Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.18 3) Nucleic acid molecules used to deliver new genes to cells are called (plasmids/vectors/clones).

Answer: vectors Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.10 4) Restriction (enzymes/proteases/polymerases), first isolated from bacterial cells, cut DNA molecules at specific sites.

Answer: enzymes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.8, 8.9 5) A feature of both restriction enzymes and CRISPR systems is the recognition of (palindromes/primers/spacers) Answer: palindromes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9, 8.11 6) A set of clones representing the entire genome of an organism is known as a gene (recombinant/map/library).

Answer: library Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12

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7) The technique called (northern/Southern/western) blotting; uses probes to identify specific DNA fragments that have been separated by electrophoresis.

Answer: Southern Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.15 8) Small RNAs that bind to an mRNA and alter its expression are known as (antisense/probes/restriction) RNAs. Answer: antisense Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.7 9) A graduate student has been assigned the task of preparing a "cDNA library" of a microbe. He will need a vector, restriction enzymes and (CRISPR-Cas9/reverse transcriptase/Taq polymerase).

Answer: reverse transcriptase Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.12 10) The insertion of foreign DNA directly into a cell's nucleus using a glass micropipette is called (electrophoresis/electroporation/microinjection).

Answer: microinjection Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.17 11) Sanger and next-generation sequencing (NGS) both make use of (fluorescent/radioactive/terminating) molecules.

Answer: terminating Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.20 12) A DNA (library/microarray/screen) may be used to study the complex, changing patterns of mRNA production in an organism.

Answer: microarray Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Techniques of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.16

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13) Beta-carotene, the biochemical precursor to vitamin A, can be added to rice by using (sequencing/cloning/recombinant) DNA technology, thereby increasing its nutritional value.

Answer: recombinant Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.23 14) Crop plants modified to be resistant to insect damage produce Bt-toxin from a (bacterial/fungal/synthetic) gene.

Answer: bacterial Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.24 15) Vectors usually contain genetic (markers/sequences/probes) such as antibiotic genes or fluorescent tags.

Answer: markers Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.10 8.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss some of the impacts that tools and techniques of recombinant DNA technology have had on medicine.

Answer: Human gene libraries and DNA sequencing have greatly facilitated detecting genes and gene complexes that contribute to disease, both the genetic mutations that cause disease and genetic predispositions to a wide range of diseases. PCR, FISH, and microarrays are all tools that can be used to determine whether a person carries a specific genetic variation linked to disease or to detect the presence of a pathogen causing disease. Recombinant technology has provided tools to prevent or cure disease. Some examples include the ability to produce therapeutic agents such as human insulin for diabetes, clotting factors for people with blood-clotting disorders, and vaccines to prevent infection. The use of gene therapy to correct disorders of abnormal or nonfunctional genes is in its infancy and has been successfully applied to a couple of diseases.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.23 2) Discuss one of the pros and cons regarding the application of recombinant DNA technology.

Answer: A wide range of answers are possible. See page 256 in the textbook for examples of possible topics. A good answer may include additional topics. An excellent answer will reflect clear reasoning.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating Section: The Ethics and Safety of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.25

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3) Compare and contrast the two major categories of restriction enzymes.

Answer: All restriction enzymes recognize specific sequences in DNA molecules and cut at those sequences, making them powerful tools for generating and manipulating DNA fragments.

However, these enzymes differ in the type of cut they make. One type of cut is a staggered cut, which produces complementary overhangs known as "sticky ends." These ends can base pair with each other (if they have the same sequence), and they allow DNA fragments to be joined relatively easily. The other type of cut occurs at the same place on each strand of DNA and produces "blunt ends." Fragments with this type of end do not base pair with each other at all, making the joining of these fragments more difficult than sticky-ended fragments. However, blunt ends are more "generic" than sticky ends; they allow two fragments to be joined no matter which restriction enzyme generated them (as long as they were generated by blunt-end cutters).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9 4) Outline a procedure for creating a "knockout" microbe.

Answer: Many variations are possible. The answer should include (1) what organism is used as the source of DNA and how the desired DNA sequence is obtained, (2) the approach to modifying the gene, (3) the method of introduction of the modification into cells, and (4) how recombinant cells are identified. Since the question states a goal of a recombinant product, an expression vector should be specified. A variety of tools and techniques will be involved in a full answer. An excellent answer will include use of the CRISPR-Cas9 system.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Creating Section: The Tools of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.9, 8.10, 8.11, 8.13, 8.14, 8. 17, 8.20 5) Explain what a transgenic organism is, and give two examples.

Answer: A transgenic organism is one that contains genes from other organism(s). These genes usually add some special ability or function to the organism. Agriculture offers many examples of transgenic organisms. Soybeans have been engineered to contain glyphosate-resistance genes, and other crops have been engineered to grow well in soil with high salt concentrations. Plants have been modified to be resistant to naturally occurring microbial diseases. Still other plants have been engineered to contain the gene for Bt-toxin, a bacterial toxin that kills insect pests that would otherwise feed on and destroy the crop. Not all transgenic organisms represent such extreme genetic modifications, however. Some genetically modified organisms simply represent efforts to improve nutritional content (in the case of plant crops) or to increase food yield (in the case of bovine growth hormone, which is produced by transgenic bacteria and then given to cattle to increase their meat and milk yield).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Applications of Recombinant DNA Technology Learning Outcome: 8.24

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 9 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Environment 9.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Washing dishes in the dishwasher with detergent and hot water is a A) degerming B) disinfecting C) sterilizing D) sanitizing E) degerming and disinfecting Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1

process.

2) Which of the following statements is TRUE of disinfectants?

A) They are effective in destroying endospores.

B) They are used on living tissue.

C) They are used for sterilization.

D) They are used on inanimate surfaces.

E) They are only effective for short periods of time (seconds to minutes).

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1 3) You notice a sign in a public restroom that states "Sanitized for your safety." This means A) sterilizing chemicals have been used in cleaning.

B) antiseptics have been used to clean the area.

C) degerming methods only have been used to clean the restroom.

D) methods of disinfection that meet minimum standards of microbial removal have been used.

E) only "organic" chemicals were used in the cleaning process to reduce microbial numbers.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.2

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4) Which of the following is an example of pasteurization?

A) A public toilet is treated with disinfectants.

B) A surgeon washes her hands before surgery.

C) Heat is used to kill potential pathogens in apple juice.

D) An autoclave is used to prepare nutrient agar.

E) A nurse prepares an injection site with an alcohol swab.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.2 5) Aseptic means A) sterile.

B) free of all microbes.

C) clean.

D) sanitized.

E) free of pathogens.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1 6) Methods of microbial control called A) germicidal B) germistatic C) sanitizing D) disinfection E) antiseptic Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.3

arrest the growth of microbes.

7) Antimicrobial agents that damage nucleic acids also affect A) the cell wall.

B) the cell membrane.

C) the viral envelope.

D) endospores.

E) protein synthesis.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.5

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8) A chemical agent that dissolves lipids can damage A) cells.

B) bacterial endospores.

C) enveloped viruses.

D) non-enveloped and enveloped viruses.

E) cells and enveloped viruses.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.5 9) An instrument that will come into contact with only the skin of a patient should be disinfected with a(n) A) high-level germicide.

B) low-level germicide.

C) intermediate-level germicide.

D) degerming agent only.

E) germistatic agent only.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.6 10) Which of the following is the most difficult to inactivate?

A) enveloped viruses B) fungus spores C) bacterial endospores D) nonenveloped viruses E) protozoan cysts Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.7 11) Which of the following describes flash pasteurization?

A) heating at 63°C for 30 minutes B) heating at 72°C for 15 seconds C) heating at 72°C for 15 minutes D) heating at 134°C for one second E) passing liquid through steam at 140°C Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.14

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12) Which of the following is bacteriostatic?

A) heating in an oven at 171°C for an hour B) freezing below 0°C C) filtration D) autoclaving E) flash pasteurization Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.15 13) Boiling water for 10 minutes is effective in ridding it of A) actively growing bacteria.

B) enveloped viruses.

C) bacterial endospores.

D) protozoan cysts.

E) both growing bacteria and enveloped viruses.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.10 14) Which of the following is NOT a feature associated with filtration?

A) nitrocellulose or plastic membrane filters B) sterilization of heat-sensitive materials C) varying thicknesses of membrane filters used D) use of HEPA filters to filter air E) ability of some filters to trap viruses and proteins Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.17 15) Ultra-high-temperature sterilization effectively A) reduces microbes that cause spoilage.

B) removes only mesophilic microbes.

C) reduces microbes that cause disease.

D) removes all microbes that cause diseases or spoilage.

E) reduces microbes that cause disease or spoilage.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.14

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16) Which of the following types of radiation is non-ionizing and has the shortest wavelength?

A) ultraviolet light B) infrared radiation C) microwaves D) X rays E) gamma rays Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.19 17) Which of the following is used for microbial control in fresh fruits and vegetables?

A) X rays B) ultraviolet light C) electron beams D) microwaves E) gamma rays Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.19 18) Which of the following can be used to reduce microbes in air?

A) HEPA filters B) ethylene oxide C) ultraviolet light D) both HEPA filters and ultraviolet light E) both ethylene oxide and ultraviolet light Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.17, 9.19 19) Silvadene, a topical treatment for burns, contains 1% silver. What category of chemical control agent is in Silvadene?

A) halogens B) heavy metals C) oxidizing agents D) aldehydes E) surfactants Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.26

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20) Which of the following is the most appropriate pairing of microbe and biosafety level?

A) E. coli, BSL-3 B) anthrax, BSL-1 C) Ebola, BSL-2 D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), BSL-2 E) tuberculosis, BSL-1 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.9 21) The use of lysozyme during the preparation of cheeses and wines is effective in reducing the numbers of A) fungi.

B) viruses.

C) bacteria.

D) prions.

E) all microbes.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.29 22) Seventy percent alcohol is effective against A) enveloped viruses.

B) non-enveloped viruses.

C) bacterial endospores.

D) protozoan cysts.

E) prions.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.22 23) Which of the following is a sterilizing agent?

A) ozone B) hydrogen peroxide C) peracetic acid D) dish soap E) peracetic acid and hydrogen peroxide Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.24

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24) Quaternary ammonium compounds are disinfectants effective against A) endospores.

B) mycobacteria.

C) non-enveloped viruses.

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

E) enveloped viruses.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.25 25) Which of the following is used to sterilize items that should not, or cannot, be exposed to heat or water?

A) ethylene oxide B) formaldehyde C) hydrogen peroxide D) calcium hypochlorite E) triclosan Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.28 26) Which of the following achieves sterilization in the shortest period of time?

A) autoclaving B) boiling C) batch method pasteurization D) an oven at 171°C E) ultra-high-temperature sterilization Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11 27) Disinfecting agents naturally produced by microorganisms are A) aldehydes.

B) antibiotics.

C) halogens.

D) quaternary ammonium compounds.

E) triclosan.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.30

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28) A chemical agent that kills pathogenic microbes in general is a(n) A) sanitizer.

B) germicide.

C) disinfectant.

D) fungicide.

E) antiseptic.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.3 29) Which of the following is NOT a desirable characteristic of an ideal antimicrobial agent?

A) It is inexpensive.

B) It is stable during storage.

C) It is harmless to humans.

D) It only arrests growth of vegetative cells.

E) It acts quickly.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.6 30) Why are endospores used to measure the effectiveness of autoclave sterilization?

A) Endospores are easy to store in the lab until needed.

B) Endospores are very simple structures and easy to detect.

C) Endospores are very hard to kill.

D) Endospores are composed of all the molecules found in living cells.

E) Endospores of different bacteria are destroyed at different temperatures and can be used to calibrate autoclave temperatures.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.7, 9.13 31) A scientist develops a new medication that is a protein compound and that must be administered by injection. Which of the following would be the most effective and safest means of preparing a sterile solution of the new medication?

A) autoclaving B) filtration C) dilution with alcohol D) lyophilization E) ultraviolet irradiation Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.10, 9.17 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Which of the following procedures is currently the standard test used in the United States for evaluating the efficiency of antiseptics and disinfectants?

A) use-dilution test B) microbial death rate C) in-use test D) Kelsey-Sykes capacity test E) phenol coefficient Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.31 33) Which of the following would be used to sterilize a mattress?

A) autoclaving B) formaldehyde C) ethylene oxide D) heavy metals E) non-ionizing radiation Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.28 34) Disinfectants that damage membranes include A) alcohol.

B) phenolics.

C) iodine.

D) hydrogen peroxide.

E) both alcohol and phenolics.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.21, 9.22 35) Which of the following antimicrobial agents is the most toxic to humans?

A) 70% alcohol B) ethylene oxide C) quaternary ammonium compounds D) chloramines E) iodophors Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.28

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36) The process of filtration can be a(n) A) disinfectant method.

B) sterilizing method.

C) sanitization method.

D) antiseptic procedure.

E) ineffective method for removing microbes.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.17 37) Hydrogen peroxide is an effective A) sterilizing agent.

B) disinfectant.

C) antiseptic.

D) disinfecting and sterilizing agent.

E) antiseptic and disinfectant.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.24 38) The process of incineration is used for A) sterilization.

B) degerming.

C) disinfection.

D) sanitization.

E) both disinfection and sanitization.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11 39) Alcohols are used for A) disinfection.

B) sterilization.

C) antisepsis.

D) both sterilization and disinfection.

E) both antisepsis and disinfection.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.22

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40) Quaternary ammonium compounds ("quats") are used for A) antisepsis.

B) disinfection.

C) sterilization.

D) quantifying antimicrobial activity.

E) both antisepsis and disinfection.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.25 41) The compound ethylene oxide is used in A) sanitization.

B) sterilization.

C) antisepsis.

D) degerming.

E) disinfection.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.28 42) Formalin (37% formaldehyde) is used for A) antisepsis.

B) disinfection.

C) sterilization.

D) sanitization.

E) both disinfection and sterilization.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.27 43) Betadine contains what type of chemical agent?

A) alcohol B) aldehyde C) halogen D) heavy metal E) phenolic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.23

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44) Gamma irradiation is effective for sterilization because it A) damages molecules irreversibly.

B) is non-ionizing.

C) penetrates well.

D) destroys protein function, although DNA is undamaged.

E) is penetrating and causes extensive molecular damage.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.19 45) Desiccation, a time-honored method of preserving food, is effective because the A) heat of the process kills microbes.

B) freezing step of the process kills microbes.

C) salt concentration is too low to support metabolic function.

D) UV light used in the process of sun drying penetrates effectively.

E) water content is too low to support metabolic function.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.16 9.2 True/False Questions 1) Using an alcohol pad before taking a blood sample is an example of antisepsis.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1 2) Protozoan cysts are resistant to many disinfection methods.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.7 3) Refrigeration is an effective germicidal method.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.15 4) Antimicrobial agents usually work best at high temperatures and high pH levels.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.8 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Work with Staphylococcus aureus is supposed to be conducted in a BSL-3 lab.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.9 6) Lysozyme is effective against nearly all disease-causing agents.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.29 7) The decimal reduction time is the time required to kill all the microbes in a given sample.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.12 8) Slow freezing is more damaging to microbial cells than quick freezing.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.15 9) The cell walls of mycobacteria make them vulnerable to water soluble chemical agents.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.7 10) By themselves, soaps have only degerming activity, not antimicrobial activity.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.25

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9.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The process of freeze-drying microbes to preserve them is (denaturation/desiccation/lyophilization).

Answer: lyophilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.16 2) Honey is a(n) (isotonic/hypertonic/hypotonic) environment, which prevents microbial growth.

Answer: hypertonic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.18 3) The microbial death rate is (constant/non-linear/variable) over time.

Answer: constant Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.4 4) Disinfectants known as (alcohols/oxidizers/aldehydes) have the chemical group -CHO, which reacts with and damages both proteins and nucleic acids.

Answer: aldehydes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.27 5) The lowest temperature that kills all cells in a broth in 10 minutes is known as the (microbial/terminal/thermal) death point.

Answer: thermal Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.12 6) Dr. Joseph Lister used (alcohols/phenolics/detergents) for surgical antisepsis.

Answer: phenolics Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.21 7) Aldehydes are highly effective germicidal agents because they damage (lipids/cell walls/DNA) Answer: DNA Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.27 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) The deadliest, most contagious microbes are studied under conditions of (BSL-4/BSL-3/BSL2/BSL-1) containment.

Answer: BSL-4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.9 9) Ultraviolet light penetrates (more/less) effectively than gamma rays.

Answer: less Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.19 10)

The disinfectant chemical shown in Figure 9.1 is known as (isopropanol/quats/triclosan).

Answer: triclosan Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.21 11) Elements such as iodine, chlorine, and bromine are examples of (oxidizers/halogens/metals), which are the basis for many effective antimicrobial agents.

Answer: halogens Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.23 12) Heavy metal and oxidizing agent disinfectants damage (DNA/enzymes/membranes), interfering with microbial metabolism.

Answer: enzymes Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.26

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13) Infectious agents known as (endospores/cysts/prions) are the most resistant to antimicrobial agents or processes.

Answer: prions Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Selection of Microbial Control Methods Learning Outcome: 9.7 14) Long-term storage of milk is made possible by ultra-high-temperature (pasteurization/sanitization/sterilization).

Answer: sterilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.14 15) The physical removal of microbes is called (antisepsis/degerming/disinfection).

Answer: degerming Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.2 9.4 Essay Questions 1) Some sterilization procedures do not kill all the microbes that may be present. Explain how these procedures may, for practical purposes, still be considered sterilization.

Answer: Theoretically, sterilization is the complete removal or destruction of all microbes in a particular environment. These include dormant forms of microbes, such as bacterial endospores.

However, from a practical standpoint, one must take other factors into account when deciding what is or is not sterile. For example, the particular application of the sterilized material must be considered. Although there may be hyperthermophilic microbes present in canned foods after sterilization, they cannot grow and divide at normal shelf temperatures; thus, their presence does not cause problems. In practice, only those microbes that would cause problems either by their presence or by their continued growth and reproduction are generally the targets of sterilization methods. When these microbes have been eliminated, the goal of sterilization can be said to have been reached.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Basic Principles of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.1

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2) Compare and contrast the different uses of heat to reduce microbial contamination, including their relative efficacy.

Answer: Autoclaving, the use of super-heated steam, is a rapid, effective means of sterilization, both because the temperature achieved (121°C) inactivates every infectious agent except prions, and the steam is penetrating. Dry heat sterilization is equally effective but requires higher temperatures for longer periods of time (up to 170°C and/or 2 hours). Boiling is effective in killing vegetative cells of all microbes but is not effective on bacterial endospores and some cysts. Ultra-high-temperature sterilization is a highly effective process for sterilizing liquids.

Standard pasteurization procedures effectively kill the mesophilic microbes responsible for disease and most spoilage, but does not remove endospores, nor thermoduric and hyperthermophilic microbes. This lower level of microbial reduction is sufficient in the short term since it is the mesophiles that are most troublesome in terms of disease and spoilage. The primary effect of these methods is denaturation proteins, thus inhibiting metabolism. Higher temperature methods cause additional damage, including to cell membranes, cell walls, and DNA. Low temperature heating that produces desiccation is effective in inhibiting the metabolism of most microbes by reducing the water content of the materials. It is not effective against some fungi, and does not destroy endospores.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Physical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.11, 9.14, 9.16 3) What is the in-use test, and why is it more useful than other methods of evaluating disinfectants?

Answer: The in-use test is a method of evaluating antimicrobial agents such as disinfectants or antiseptics. It involves collecting specimens from objects that need to be disinfected, both before and after the disinfecting agent is applied. Then the specimens are inoculated into growth media, and the presence or absence of growth is an indicator of the effectiveness of the agent. The in-use test is regarded as an informative and useful test because it makes use of microbes that are actually found in the area of concern, and it gives a "real-life" picture of how the antimicrobial agent will work in that situation. Conversely, other tests, such as the disk-diffusion test or the use-dilution test, are not as useful because they rely on standardized conditions in a laboratory environment, and using test microbes that may or may not have any relation to the actual microbes that need to be targeted by the antimicrobial agent. Additionally, in some environments, many microbes form biofilms that can affect the activity of an antimicrobial agent, and these biofilms are not normally present in standardized testing procedures. Therefore, although the in-use test is not as convenient or quick as the other types of tests, it is regarded as more useful.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.31

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4) Design an experiment to compare the effectiveness of a physical and a chemical method of disinfection.

Answer: Answers will vary. Appropriate controls and methods should be included. An example is comparison of filtration and chlorine bleach.

Prepare a culture of bacteria of known cell concentration. Divide into three samples. Sample #1 is the positive control. Sample #2 is filtered using a specified pore size filter (0.45 micron maximum pore size) and the filtrate collected into a sterile container. Chlorine bleach is added to Sample #3 following manufacturer's directions for dilution. The three samples are incubated, then the turbidity of each is measured to determine if growth is evident in the two treated samples compared to the untreated sample.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Creating Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.10, 9.20 5) A student is shopping for antibacterial hand cleansers and is trying to decide which one to buy. One is a "waterless" hand gel containing 70% isopropanol, the second is an "antibacterial" hand soap containing triclosan (a phenolic), and the third is a wipe that lists benzethonium chloride (a synthetic quaternary ammonium salt) as the active ingredient. Compare and contrast these cleansers in terms of the action of the antimicrobial ingredient and the level of disinfection (degerming, germistatic, germicidal).

Answer: All three are germicidal, although not all to the same degree. The alcohol of the waterless hand cleaner is a germicide that disrupts cytoplasmic membranes and denatures proteins. It is not effective against bacterial endospores or fungal spores, and it has limited effect on nonenveloped viruses. The alcohol evaporates quickly, so the germicidal effect is short term.

The waterless hand cleaner is an intermediate-level disinfectant and is not an effective degermer.

The hand soap contains a phenolic, which also damages cytoplasmic membranes and denatures proteins, and is effective on the same range of microbes as the alcohol. Phenolics are intermediate-level disinfectants that persist on surfaces for long periods of time, providing extended disinfection. If used with running water and the hands are vigorously rubbed, the hand soap can be an effective degermer. Synthetic "quats" (quaternary ammonium compounds) disrupt cell membranes. They are effective against fungi, enveloped viruses, and most bacteria, but not against nonenveloped viruses, nor on endospores. Quats are low-level disinfectants that are germicidal for some microbes. The action of using and discarding the wipe provides some degerming effect.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Chemical Methods of Microbial Control Learning Outcome: 9.21, 9.22, 9.26

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 10 Controlling Microbial Growth in the Body: Antimicrobial Drugs 10.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Who proposed the concept of chemotherapy, especially antimicrobials?

A) Gerhard Domagk B) Alexander Fleming C) Paul Ehrlich D) Selman Waksman E) Joseph Lister Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1 2) An antimicrobial that inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis will result in which of the following?

A) Bacterial cells become more susceptible to osmotic pressure.

B) Bacteria cannot attach to their hosts.

C) Cytoplasmic membrane proteins lose their function.

D) The sterols in the bacterial cell wall become nonfunctional.

E) No change in bacterial cell activity.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.4 3) Beta-lactam antibiotics such as penicillins, have an effect on which of the following types of cells?

A) animal cells B) bacterial cells C) fungal cells D) virus-infected cells E) both animal and fungal cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5

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4) Which of the following is a primary advantage of semisynthetic drugs?

A) They are less stable and consequently have fewer side effects.

B) They work faster.

C) They are more effective than the unmodified natural antibiotics.

D) They must be administered intravenously.

E) They are not readily absorbed.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.2 5) Which of the following drugs specifically targets cell walls that contain mycolic acid?

A) vancomycin B) penicillin C) methicillin D) isoniazid E) bacitracin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5 6) The topical drug inhibits protein synthesis in Gram-positive bacteria by preventing loading of isoleucine onto tRNA. A) Amphotericin B B) Bacitracin C) Ciprofloxacin D) Mupirocin E) Tetracycline Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.7 7) Which of the following is NOT a target of drugs that inhibit protein synthesis?

A) the shape of the 30S ribosomal subunit B) interference with alanine-alanine bridges C) the enzymatic site of the 50S ribosomal subunit D) movement of the ribosome from one codon to the next E) the tRNA docking site Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8)

Figure 10.1 represents a Petri plate. The gray area is where bacteria A is growing, the black area is where bacteria B is growing. The white area is a zone where neither organism is growing.

What is the best interpretation of what is observed on the plate?

A) Bacteria B is producing an antibiotic that inhibits the growth of bacteria A. B) Bacteria A produces a compound that inhibits the growth of bacteria B. C) Bacteria A grows faster than bacteria B. D) Bacterial colony B has depleted the nutrients in the area around the colony.

E) No conclusion can be made from this information.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3 9) Amoxicillin is very effective for treating infections with Gram-positive bacteria but rarely causes side effects in humans. This is an example of A) selective toxicity.

B) narrow spectrum of action.

C) a broad-spectrum antimicrobial.

D) antibiotic resistance.

E) altruism.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3

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10) The first antimicrobial widely available for treatment of bacterial infections was the synthetic compound A) sulfanilamide.

B) isoniazid.

C) bacitracin.

D) streptomycin.

E) penicillin.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.9 11) The drug metronidazole is effective on both bacteria and some protozoa. It can therefore be described as a drug.

A) narrow spectrum B) broad spectrum C) full spectrum D) general spectrum E) specific spectrum Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15 12) Which of the following groups of drugs can become incorporated into the bones and teeth of a fetus?

A) beta-lactams B) aminoglycosides C) quinolones D) tetracyclines E) sulfonamides Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.18

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13) Which of the following can result when antibiotic therapy disrupts the normal microbiota?

A) anaphylactic shock B) black hairy tongue C) pseudomembranous colitis D) thrush E) both pseudomembranous colitis and thrush Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.18 14) A compound is extracted from a microbial culture and is modified in the laboratory for use as an oral medication. This product would be a(n) A) antibiotic.

B) analog.

C) semisynthetic antimicrobial.

D) synthetic antimicrobial.

E) probiotic.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.2 15) Some bacteria are resistant to erythromycin as a result of mutation of their ribosomal RNA. What type of resistance does this represent?

A) alteration of the target of the drug B) inactivation of the drug C) change in the permeability of the drug D) overproduction of an enzyme in a key metabolic pathway E) removal of the drug via a pump Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.23

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16) Bacillus licheniformis secretes a compound that inhibits the growth of other Gram-positive bacteria. This is an example of a(n) A) analog.

B) antibiotic.

C) chemotherapeutic.

D) porin.

E) toxin.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.2 17) Many drugs that inhibit the synthesis of the cell wall act by A) preventing the cross-linkage of NAM subunits.

B) blocking the secretion of cell wall molecules from the cytoplasm.

C) preventing the formation of alanine-alanine bridges.

D) disrupting the formation of the mycolic acid layer of the cell wall.

E) preventing the formation of β-lactamases.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5 18) Most broad-spectrum antibiotics act by A) inhibiting the synthesis of the cell wall.

B) inhibiting protein synthesis.

C) inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis.

D) inhibiting metabolic pathways.

E) disrupting the cytoplasmic membrane.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15 19) Which of the following antifungals works by binding to ergosterol in membranes?

A) fluconazole B) terbinafine C) amphotericin B D) nystatin E) both amphotericin B and nystatin Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.8 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) A drug is structurally similar to PABA and inhibits folic acid synthesis. It is most likely a(n) A) nucleic acid analog.

B) penicillin.

C) tetracycline.

D) azole.

E) sulfonamide.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.9 21) Which of the following steps in the folic acid synthesis pathway is specifically inhibited by sulfonamides?

A) the conversion of tetrahydrofolic acid to PABA B) the conversion of PABA to dihydrofolic acid C) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to tetrahydrofolic acid D) the conversion of PABA to tetrahydrofolic acid E) the conversion of dihydrofolic acid to PABA Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.9 22) Which of the following drugs inhibits nucleic acid synthesis specifically in most bacteria?

A) fluoroquinolones B) actinomycin C) rifampin D) tetracycline E) 5-fluorocytosine Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.12 23) The cooperative activity of drugs such as beta-lactam antibiotics and clavulanic acid, a βlactamase inhibitor, is known as A) cross resistance.

B) antimetabolism.

C) synergism.

D) selective toxicity.

E) chemotherapy.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.26 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

24) Some bacteria are resistant to antimicrobials due to the activity of many of them.

A) plasmids B) porins C) efflux pumps D) lipopolysaccharides E) ribosomes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.23

, which removes

25) It is inappropriate to prescribe antibacterial agents to treat colds or flu because A) the microbes involved can develop resistance rapidly.

B) these diseases are transmitted by endospores, which are difficult to kill.

C) these diseases exhibit cross resistance.

D) these diseases are caused by viruses.

E) these diseases can act synergistically with each other.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.26 26) Who discovered the first antimicrobial widely available to the general public?

A) Domagk B) Ehrlich C) Fleming D) Waksman E) Ehrlich and Waksman Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1

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27) Which of the following statements is TRUE of selective toxicity?

A) Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural similarities between host and pathogen.

B) To be effective, an antimicrobial agent must be more toxic to the patient than the pathogen.

C) Selective toxicity takes advantage of differences in metabolic rates of the host and pathogen.

D) Selective toxicity damages only pathogenic bacteria and not beneficial bacteria.

E) Selective toxicity takes advantage of structural and/or metabolic differences between host and pathogen.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3 28) Antimicrobials that block protein synthesis by binding to the mRNA are A) aminoglycosides.

B) antisense nucleic acids.

C) macrolides.

D) beta-lactams.

E) nucleic acid analogs.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 29) Which of the following is an effect of an antimicrobial that blocks tubulin polymerization?

A) Preventing binary fission in bacteria.

B) Preventing mitosis in eukaryotes.

C) Preventing bacterial motility.

D) Preventing pilus formation in bacteria.

E) Preventing cytoplasmic membrane synthesis in eukaryotes.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.4 30) The therapeutic window of an antimicrobial is the A) ratio of the dose a patient can tolerate to the effective dose.

B) range of microorganisms the antimicrobial effects.

C) range of concentrations at which the antimicrobial is both effective and non-toxic.

D) ratio of the concentration of antimicrobial in the blood to the oral dose.

E) length of time the medication persists in the body after a single dose.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.19 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) An antimicrobial is described as preventing alanine-alanine bridge formation. This means it A) prevents folic acid synthesis.

B) interferes with cytoplasmic membrane synthesis.

C) blocks glycocalyx synthesis.

D) interferes with protein synthesis.

E) prevents cell wall synthesis in bacteria.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5 32) Antimicrobials known as "attachment antagonists" are particularly useful for preventing A) bacterial protein synthesis.

B) cell membrane synthesis.

C) virus infection.

D) nucleic acid synthesis.

E) biofilm formation.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.13 33) Which of the following is NOT a factor in determining the potential of a new antimicrobial?

A) cost of production B) duplication of existing antimicrobial mechanism of action C) spectrum of action D) route of administration E) stability Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.14 34) Infection of the would be the hardest to treat with antimicrobial drugs.

A) heart B) kidneys C) liver D) brain E) colon Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.17

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35) Disruption of the normal microbiota can result in infections caused by which of the following microbes?

A) Mycobacterium B) Candida albicans C) Clostridium difficile D) Streptococcus E) both Candida albicans and Clostridium difficile Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.18 36) The antifungals known as polyenes interact with membranes.

A) cholesterol B) ergosterol C) mycolic acid D) phospholipid E) glycolic acid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.8

, a lipid unique to fungus

37) How does resistance to drugs spread in bacterial populations?

A) Exposure to drugs causes mutations in bacterial genes.

B) Horizontal gene transfer between bacteria spreads R (resistance) plasmids.

C) Genetic recombination during sexual reproduction.

D) Exposure to drugs induces immunity.

E) Exposure to drugs alters gene expression in bacteria.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.24 38) The mechanism of action of the antibiotic vancomycin is A) inhibition of protein synthesis.

B) inhibition of cell wall synthesis.

C) inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis.

D) inhibition of a metabolic pathway.

E) disruption of cytoplasmic membranes.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) The tetracyclines interfere with A) protein synthesis.

B) cell wall synthesis.

C) cell membrane component synthesis.

D) nucleic acid synthesis.

E) folic acid synthesis.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 40) Pentamidine is an example of an antimicrobial A) used to treat bacterial infections.

B) effective against helminths.

C) used to treat viral infections.

D) effective against eukaryotes, especially protozoa.

E) used to treat both bacterial and fungal infections.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.12 41) The members of a bacterial population known as persister cells may A) have R plasmids.

B) have efflux pumps.

C) not be actively growing.

D) have altered phenotypes.

E) lack the target of an antimicrobial agent.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.14 42) Methicillin is an example of the beta-lactam class of drugs that A) disrupts cytoplasmic membranes.

B) inhibits cell wall synthesis.

C) inhibits nucleic acid synthesis.

D) inhibits metabolic pathways.

E) inhibits protein synthesis.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.5 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) AZT and Valaciclovir are antiviral nucleoside analogs that interfere with A) protein synthesis.

B) cell wall synthesis.

C) cell membrane component synthesis.

D) nucleic acid synthesis.

E) viral attachment.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.11 44) The antimicrobial polymyxin A) inhibits protein synthesis.

B) inhibits nucleic acid synthesis.

C) blocks a metabolic pathway.

D) disrupts cytoplasmic membranes.

E) inhibits cell wall synthesis.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.8 45) Drug-resistant populations of microbes arise when A) exposure to drugs selectively kills sensitive cells, allowing overgrowth of resistant cells.

B) exposure to drugs causes mutations that produce resistance.

C) resistant cells become numerous in a population due to their greater vigor.

D) the patient becomes immune to the drug.

E) synergy between medications occurs.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.20

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10.2 True/False Questions 1) Paul Ehrlich discovered the first antibiotic.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1 2) Antisense nucleic acids interfere with protein synthesis.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 3) Nucleic acid analog drugs have no effect on human cell replication function.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.10 4) Because all cells engage in protein synthesis, there are few antimicrobial drugs that selectively inhibit this process.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.6 5) Biofilms contribute to the spread of resistance to antimicrobials.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.23 6) Some bacterial cells are resistant to a variety of antimicrobials because they actively pump the drugs out of the cell.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.23

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7) The outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria enables many antimicrobial drugs to enter the cell more easily.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.23 8) If a subculture of an MIC test grows in an MBC test, the concentration of the drug was bactericidal.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.16 9) There are relatively few antifungal medications available compared to antibacterial drugs.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3 10) Organs that are commonly affected by drug toxicity include the kidneys and the liver.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.18 10.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Any drug that acts against a disease is called a(n) (analog/antibiotic/chemotherapeutic) agent.

Answer: chemotherapeutic Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The History of Antimicrobial Agents Learning Outcome: 10.1 2) Selective (action/toxicity/treatment) means that a given antimicrobial agent is more toxic to a pathogen than to the host being treated.

Answer: toxicity Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3

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3) Nucleotide or nucleoside (acids/analogs/antisense) are antimicrobial agents that mimic the chemical structure of DNA building blocks.

Answer: analogs Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.12 4) A compound that is structurally similar to a metabolite is a(n) (abiotic/analog/antisense) molecule.

Answer: analog Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.10 5) Secondary infections that result from the killing of some of the normal microbiota are called (antagonism/superinfections/resistance).

Answer: superinfections Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15 6) Competition between beneficial microbes and potential pathogens is called microbial (antagonisms/synergy/toxicity).

Answer: antagonism Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15 7) A (bacteriocidal/bacteriostatic/inhibitory) concentration of a drug is one at which microbes survive but are not able to grow and reproduce.

Answer: bacteriostatic Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.16 8) The ratio of a medication's dose that can be tolerated to its effective dose is the therapeutic (index/range/window) of the medication.

Answer: index Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.19

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9) Some bacteria develop resistance to groups of drugs because the drugs are all structurally similar to each other; this is a phenomenon known as (cross/multiple/synergistic) resistance.

Answer: cross Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.25 10) Semisynthetic drugs developed to combat resistance are often called (analog/second generation/synergist) drugs.

Answer: second generation Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.26 11) Drugs known as beta-lactams interfere with bacterial (DNA/folic acid/cell wall) synthesis.

Answer: cell wall Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.5 12) External infections can be treated by (intramuscular/surface/topical) administration, in which a drug is applied directly to the site of infection.

Answer: topical Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.17 13) The abbreviation (MBC/MIC/MID) stands for the smallest amount of a drug that will inhibit the growth and reproduction of a pathogen. (Be sure to use all capital letters.)

Answer: MIC Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.16 14) The highest concentrations of medications are achieved by the (IM/IV/focal) route.

Answer: IV Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.17

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15) Medications which block viral entry into cells include (adhesin/analog/attachment) antagonists.

Answer: attachment Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.13 10.4 Essay Questions 1) Why can microbial resistance to antibiotics and other drugs be considered a primarily genetic phenomenon?

Answer: Microbial resistance is considered a genetic phenomenon because there are two major ways that bacteria acquire resistance: through mutations of chromosomal genes or through acquisition of new genes carried on R-plasmids. In both cases, the cell gains the ability to resist the activity of a particular drug through the modified structure or activity of proteins that are coded for by the genes in question. For example, some of these altered proteins can be cytoplasmic membrane proteins or porin proteins that no longer allow a drug such as penicillin to enter the cell. Also, some of the proteins coded for by these genes may be enzymes of various sorts that serve to inactivate a particular drug, such as the inactivation of beta-lactam antibiotics by β-lactamases.

Furthermore, these altered genes and proteins are then heritable by the offspring of the cell that acquired the resistance, leading quickly to entire populations of bacteria or other microbes that are resistant to a drug. When selective pressure is then brought to bear (through the administration of a particular drug) on a population that contains both susceptible and resistant cells, the result is that the susceptible cells die off, leaving the resistant cells to grow and flourish.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Resistance to Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.20, 10.21, 10.23, 10.24

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2) Discuss the cellular factors that might make a drug's spectrum of action narrow rather than broad.

Answer: When a drug is labeled "narrow-spectrum," meaning that it has activity against only a limited number of microbes, generally the reason is that many microbes possess some form of natural resistance against the drug. For example, many drugs work better against Gram-positive organisms than Gram-negative ones because Gram-negative cells possess an outer membrane that does not allow these drugs to enter the cell as readily as they enter Gram-positive cells.

Other cellular factors that can have an effect on the spectrum of action of a particular drug include the presence of R-plasmids in the cell that carries resistance genes, the presence of altered cytoplasmic membrane or cell wall proteins that prevent the passage of some types of drugs, and alterations in a cell's metabolic pathways, which can make the cell more resistant to certain types of drugs.

Other antimicrobials have a narrow spectrum of action because they target a metabolic or structural feature unique to a single pathogen or small group of pathogens. One example of this type of narrow-spectrum antimicrobial is antisense RNA, which complements a specific nucleotide sequence that may be present in only one pathogen. Another example is isoniazid which blocks the synthesis of a cell wall component unique to the Mycobacterium.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.15 3) Explain the concept of selective toxicity.

Answer: Selective toxicity is the underlying principle supporting Ehrlich's idea of the "magic bullet." This simply means that the most effective antimicrobial drugs are those that target some difference in a cellular structure or metabolic process between the host/patient cell and the target microbe. Conversely, the more similar the host cell and the microbe are, the harder it is to selectively attack just the microbe. Drugs that do not differentiate very well between types of cells are generally more toxic to the host than those that are more selective. This is most striking in the case of antiviral drugs, which are generally poor magic bullets because the virus is dependent on the host cell for all aspects of its growth. Those drugs that successfully inactivate the virus sometimes also end up damaging or even killing the cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.3

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4)

Examine the diffusion susceptibility plate results shown in Figure 10.2. Propose an explanation for the appearance of the zone around the S/10 disk, and discuss the implications for therapeutic use of this antibiotic for the pathogen tested.

Answer: The ring of colonies within the outermost limit of the zone of inhibition indicates that there are some cells in the population that are less susceptible to the antibiotic than the rest. If this antibiotic were used to treat an infection with this population, the growth of bacteria with some resistance would be promoted at the expense of the more susceptible cells, potentially giving rise to a new variant that is fully resistant. If this were to occur in a patient being treated, the antibiotic therapy would fail, putting the patient's health at risk. Therefore, drug AM would be a poor choice, perhaps the poorest choice, for chemotherapy against this bacterial species.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Clinical Considerations in Prescribing Antimicrobial Drugs Learning Outcome: 10.16

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5) A newly discovered prokaryote produces a compound with promising antimicrobial effects.

Devise a set of tests to determine whether the antimicrobial is broad or narrow spectrum and bactericidal or bacteriostatic.

Answer: Answers will vary somewhat, but the following includes elements which should be present. The spectrum of action can be determined by testing the antimicrobial against representatives of the various groups of pathogenic bacteria: Gram-positives such as Staphylococcus, Streptococcus, and Bacillus, members of the Gram-negative Enterobacteriaceae and other Gram-negative bacteria (Neisseria, for example), mycobacteria, and chlamydias. These tests might be done on broth cultures as MIC tests, or plate cultures as Etests. One or more broad spectrum antibiotics should be included as controls. Once susceptible microbes have been identified, MBC tests can be conducted to determine whether the antimicrobial is bacteriostatic or bactericidal. Appropriate controls should be included.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Mechanisms of Antimicrobial Action Learning Outcome: 10.15, 10.16

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 11 Characterizing and Classifying Prokaryotes 11.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Pleomorphic bacteria A) have a slightly curved rod shape.

B) are flexible spirals.

C) are both bacillus and coccobacillus in shape.

D) are roughly spherical.

E) vary in size and shape.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.1 2) Which of the following bacterial arrangements is the result of snapping division?

A) tetrads B) palisades C) streptoD) sarcinae E) staphyloAnswer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.4, 11.5

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3)

The arrangement illustrated in Figure 11.1 is known as A) staphylococcus.

B) palisades.

C) streptobacillus.

D) sarcinae.

E) tetrad.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.5 4) Contamination with is a concern because they are highly resistant to killing.

A) archaea B) endospores C) pleomorphs D) vegetative cells E) vibrios Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2 5) Endospores A) are bacterial reproductive structures.

B) may be produced when nutrients are scarce.

C) are produced by bacteria, algae, and fungi.

D) are resistant to everything except radiation.

E) can last for only about 10 years.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2

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6) Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology contains A) classification schemes for prokaryotes.

B) treatments for bacterial diseases.

C) a complete list of all bacterial species.

D) genetic sequences of all known prokaryotes.

E) rules for naming new bacterial species.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification Learning Outcome: 11.6 7) Which of the following characteristics distinguish the archaea from the bacteria?

A) cell wall composition B) ribosomal RNA (rRNA) sequences C) the deoxyribonucleotides in the DNA D) cytoplasmic membrane lipids E) cell wall composition, cytoplasmic membrane lipids, and rRNA sequences Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.8 8) The archaea known as halophiles A) require temperatures above 45°C to survive.

B) require salt concentrations of 9% or greater to survive.

C) are members of the phylum Euryarchaeota.

D) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require temperatures above 45°C. E) are members of the Euryarchaeota and require salt concentrations above 9%.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 9) The are the largest known group of archaea.

A) thermophiles B) halophiles C) cyanobacteria D) methanogens E) hyperthermophiles Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.10

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10) Which of the following types of microbes might be found in a boiling hot spring?

A) hyperthermophiles B) phototrophic bacteria C) methanogens D) non-thermophiles E) halophiles Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 11) Members of the actinomycetes reproduce asexually by A) producing spores.

B) producing endospores.

C) binary fission.

D) fragmentation.

E) budding.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.3 12) Aerobic cyanobacteria carry out the reactions of nitrogen fixation in A) akinetes.

B) endospores.

C) heterocysts.

D) chloroplasts.

E) lamellae.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12 13) Spores known as akinetes are reproductive structures of A) members of the Bacillus genus.

B) members of the genus Mycoplasma.

C) members of the proteobacteria.

D) members of the Archaea.

E) members of the cyanobacteria.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12

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14) Bacteria in the phylum Firmicutes are distinguished from the phylum Actinobacteria on the basis of A) their Gram stain reaction.

B) the high G + C content of their DNA. C) their spiral shapes.

D) the low G + C content of their DNA. E) the presence of LPS in their membranes.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.15 15) Which of the following diseases is NOT associated with bacteria that form endospores?

A) tetanus B) anthrax C) gangrene D) botulism E) toxic shock syndrome Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.2, 11.14 16) Mycoplasmas are pleomorphic because they A) have no cell walls.

B) are low G + C content Gram-positive bacteria.

C) exhibit snapping division.

D) have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes.

E) produce endospores.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.13 17) Which of the following bacterial genera produce(s) endospores?

A) Bacillus B) Clostridium C) Lactobacillus D) both Bacillus and Lactobacillus E) both Bacillus and Clostridium Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2

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18) Which of the following bacterial genera includes species that protect areas of the body such as the intestinal tract and the vagina from invasion by pathogens?

A) Staphylococcus B) Listeria C) Lactobacillus D) Mycobacterium E) Corynebacterium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 19) Which of the following groups of bacteria is named for its resemblance to fungi?

A) Corynebacterium B) Actinomyces C) Clostridium D) Lactobacillus E) Staphylococcus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 20) Which of the following bacterial genera is useful for the degradation of environmental pollutants?

A) Actinomyces B) Streptomyces C) Corynebacterium D) Rhizobium E) Nocardia Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 21) The prokaryotes known as methanogens require A) aerobic B) acidic C) high salt D) high temperature E) anaerobic Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Archeae Learning Outcome: 11.10

environments.

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22) What feature of mycobacteria is responsible for the unusually slow growth of these bacteria?

A) Their low tolerance for oxygen retards their growth.

B) They cannot fully metabolize carbohydrates and must rely on fermentation.

C) They have limited numbers of ribosomes so protein production is slow.

D) The mycolic acid in their cell walls requires signification metabolic investment.

E) They lack a cell wall and are extremely fragile.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.16 23) Members of the are Gram-positive bacteria that have a distinctive process for cell separation known as "snapping division."

A) Actinomycetes B) Clostridium C) Corynebacterium D) Mycoplasma E) Rhizobium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 24) Members of which of the following genera are the most common sexually transmitted bacteria in the United States?

A) Bacteroides B) Rickettsia C) Chlamydia D) Helicobacter E) Treponema Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.31 25) Gram-negative bacteria in the genus A) Bdellovibrio B) Chlamydia C) Rickettsia D) Mycoplasma E) Caulobacter Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.28

_ prey on other Gram-negative bacteria.

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26) Unusual cellular extensions called prosthecae are associated with which of the following groups of proteobacteria?

A) alphaproteobacteria B) betaproteobacteria C) gammaproteobacteria D) deltaproteobacteria E) epsilonproteobacteria Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.19 27) Which of the following bacterial genera plays an important role in environmental nitrogen cycles?

A) Nitrobacter B) Rhizobium C) Azospirillum D) both Nitrobacter and Rhizobium E) Nitrobacter, Rhizobium, and Azospirillum Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.20, 11.21 28) A plasmid found in can be used by scientists to genetically modify plants.

A) Agrobacterium B) Bacillus C) Bacteroides D) Corynebacterium E) Mycoplasma Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.23 29) The classification of prokaryotes in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology is largely based on A) Gram stain reaction.

B) habitat.

C) type of electron receptor used in cellular respiration.

D) rRNA sequences.

E) cellular morphology.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification Learning Outcome: 11.6 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) Which of the following bacteria oxidize nitrite (NO2-) to produce nitrate (NO3-)?

A) Nitrobacter B) Azospirillum C) Nocardia D) Cyanobacter E) Rhizobium Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.20 31) The plant pathogen _ is a member of the alphaproteobacteria that alters plant cells by introducing DNA into them.

A) Azotobacter B) Agrobacterium C) Rhizobium D) Pseudomonas E) Bdellovibrio Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.23 32) Which of the following bacterial genera is useful for sewage treatment?

A) Burkholderia B) Thiobacillus C) Neisseria D) Zoogloea E) Nitrosomonas Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.24 33) A flexible, spiral-shaped bacterium is called a A) spirochete.

B) vibrio.

C) coccobacillus.

D) spirillum.

E) sarcina.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.5

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34) Some members of the spirochetes move by means of A) gliding.

B) hami.

C) peritrichous flagella.

D) axial filaments.

E) nothing, they are non-motile.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.31 35) A stool sample is obtained from a patient with diarrhea and fever. A Gram-negative bacillus that is an obligate anaerobe is isolated from the sample. Which of the following genera might it be a member of?

A) Bacillus B) Bacteroides C) Clostridium D) Escherichia E) Brucella Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.32 36) The anaerobic Clostridium species are troublesome pathogens largely because of their capacity for A) endospore production.

B) rapid reproduction.

C) oxygen production.

D) biofilm production.

E) high salt tolerance.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 37) The domain Archaea includes prokaryotes that are A) endospore formers.

B) intracellular parasites.

C) members of the deeply branching bacteria.

D) human pathogens.

E) hyperthermophiles.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) Which of the following is CORRECT about the prokaryotes known as deeply branching bacteria?

A) They are chemoheterotrophs.

B) They lack peptidoglycan walls.

C) They are commonly found in acidic, anaerobic conditions.

D) They grow in long branching filaments.

E) They are photosynthetic.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.11 39) Bacteria of the Proteobacteria that are intracellular parasites are members of the A) alphaproteobacteria.

B) betaproteobacteria.

C) gammaproteobacteria.

D) alphaproteobacteria and betaproteobacteria.

E) alphaproteobacteria and gammaproteobacteria.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.22, 11.25 40) A Gram-positive psychrotrophic rod and meat and survives phagocytosis.

A) Escherichia coli B) Mycobacterium leprae C) Clostridium perfringens D) Bacillus thuringiensis E) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14

_ is a frequent contaminant of dairy products

41) A species of the genus Streptococcus is the leading cause of A) tuberculosis.

B) urinary tract infections.

C) contaminated milk and meat.

D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections.

E) food poisoning from rice.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14

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42) The genus Mycobacterium includes species responsible for A) tuberculosis.

B) urinary tract infections.

C) food poisoning from contaminated dairy products.

D) gastric ulcers.

E) food poisoning from contaminated meat.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 43) Gram-negative nitrogen-fixing bacteria found in association with plant roots are A) alphaproteobacteria.

B) betaproteobacteria.

C) cyanobacteria.

D) gammaproteobacteria.

E) deeply branching bacteria.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.20, 11.27 44) Members of the genus Chlamydia are A) thermophiles.

B) intracellular parasites.

C) classified with the deeply branching bacteria.

D) endospore-formers.

E) Gram-positive bacteria.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.31 45) Pseudomonas species are occasional causes of A) diarrheal disease.

B) food poisoning from meat.

C) food poisoning from dairy products.

D) "flesh-eating" bacterial infections.

E) urinary tract infections.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.25

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11.2 True/False Questions 1) The majority of prokaryotes are capable of forming endospores.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2 2) When an endospore germinates, it gives rise to two daughter cells called vegetative cells.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2 3) Various species of Streptomyces are important sources of antibiotics.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 4) Halophiles grow equally well in the presence or absence of high salt concentrations.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.9 5) The purple sulfur bacteria carry out oxygenic photosynthesis.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.25 6) Cocci which divide in the same plane and remain attached are streptococci.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.5 7) Some strains of Staphylococcus aureus can invade the body and cause diseases such as pneumonia and bacteremia.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14

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8) Mycoplasmas are named for the large quantities of mycolic acid in their cell walls.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.13 9) Methanogens play an important role in sewage treatment.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.10 10) Bacteria in the genus Cytophaga are capable of digesting a wide range of complex carbohydrates and are important for degrading raw sewage.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.32 11.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Random planes of division in cocci result in an arrangement known as (sarcinae/staphylo/strepto).

Answer: staphylo Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.5 2) The most common form of reproduction among prokaryotes is (budding/binary fission/snapping division).

Answer: binary fission.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.3 3) The rod-shaped (chlamydias/brucella/rickettsias) are intracellular parasitic members of the alphaproteobacteria.

Answer: rickettsias Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.22 4) The (Actinobacteria/alphaproteobacteria/Archaea) do not include any known pathogens.

Answer: Archaea Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Archaea Learning Outcome: 11.8 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5)

The bacterial shape in Figure 11.2 is called (bacillus/vibrio/rod).

Answer: vibrio Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.5 6) The G + C content of a cell is used in classification of (Archaea/Gram-positive/Gramnegative) prokaryotes.

Answer: Gram-positive Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.15 7) Diphtheria is caused by a member of the genus (Clostridium/Corynebacterium/Mycobacterium).

Answer: Corynebacterium Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.17 8) The genus of pathogenic cocci responsible for a wide range of human disease and whose members grow in chains is (Staphylococcus/Streptococcus/Enterococcus).

Answer: Streptococcus Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.14 9) Gammaproteobacteria of the genus (Escherichia/Pseudomonas/Vibrio) catabolize carbohydrates using pathways other than the standard glycolytic (Embden-Meyerhof) pathway.

Answer: Pseudomonas Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.25

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10) The reduction of nitrogen gas to ammonia is called nitrogen (fixation/cycling/oxidation).

Answer: fixation Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12 11) The slow growth of (Mycobacterium/Mycoplasma/Nocardia) is due in part to the high energy requirements for the synthesis of mycolic acid.

Answer: Mycobacterium Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.16 12) The bacterium (Agrobacterium/Cyanobacteria/Rhizobium) is a member of the alphaproteobacteria that forms beneficial relationships with higher plants.

Answer: Rhizobium Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.19 13) The (bacilli/Lactobacilli/bacteroids) are a group of Gram-negative bacteria that include obligate anaerobes normally found in the intestinal tracts of animals and humans.

Answer: bacteroids Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.32 14) Members of the newly discovered class zetaproteobacteria are primarily (autotrophs/heterotrophs/phototrophs).

Answer: autotrophs Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.30 15) Bdellovibrios are intracellular parasites of (animals/bacteria/plants).

Answer: bacteria Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.28

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11.4 Essay Questions 1) Will is a graduate student working in a microbiology lab. He is given the task of characterizing a newly discovered nitrogen-fixing bacterium. What type of tests or observations will help him determine whether it is a member of the Cyanobacteria, alphaproteobacteria, or gammaproteobacteria?

Answer: If the bacteria are coccus or disc-shaped, and carry out photosynthesis, it is likely a member of the cyanobacteria. Bacteria that are free-living nitrogen fixers are probably gammaproteobacteria. If the bacteria were found on or in the roots of plants they are probably alphaproteobacteria. Determining the sequence of the bacterium's ribosomal RNAs and comparing them to known sequences can be used to verify the assignment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Creating Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12, 11.27 2) Discuss the significance of the term "deeply branching bacteria".

Answer: The term "deeply branching bacteria" is applied to a group of autotrophic bacteria that typically live in extreme environments. Most are found in environments thought to be similar to conditions "deep" in time, near the time life arose on the planet. Their RNA sequences indicate they diverged from the rest of the bacteria early in their evolution, or "deep" in time Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.11 3) Describe the major taxonomic divisions of prokaryotic organisms.

Answer: Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology divides prokaryotes into two domains, the Archaea and the Bacteria, based on differences in their rRNA sequences, cell wall structures, cytoplasmic membrane proteins, and features of mRNA translation. The Archaea are divided into two major phyla (Crenarchaeota and Eukaryarchaeota) and three minor phyla. The Bacteria are divided into 24 phyla. Among these 24 phyla of Bacteria are the phylum Firmicutes (which includes low G + C Gram-positive bacteria) and the phylum Actinobacteria (which includes high G + C Gram-positive bacteria). The majority of Gram-negative bacteria are placed in the phylum Proteobacteria, which itself is divided into five classes: alpha, beta, gamma, delta, and epsilon.

These groups include a variety of pathogenic as well as environmentally important genera. Other Gram-negative bacteria, such as chlamydia and spirochetes, are not genetically related; however, they are grouped together in Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology for the sake of convenience.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Modern Prokaryotic Classification Learning Outcome: 11.6, 11.8

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4) Describe the similarities and differences observed among phototrophic bacteria.

Answer: All major groups of Gram-negative bacteria contain phototrophic bacteria, which includes the cyanobacteria and the green and purple phototrophic bacteria. All phototrophic bacteria are structurally similar in that they use photosynthetic lamellae that contain the photosynthetic pigments necessary for photosynthesis. However, the type of photosynthetic pigment used differs among these groups. For example, cyanobacteria contain chlorophyll a, whereas the green and purple photosynthetic bacteria use bacteriochlorophyll. The type of photosynthesis differs as well: cyanobacteria engage in oxygenic photosynthesis, whereas the green and purple bacteria are anoxygenic. Finally, most phototrophic bacteria are autotrophic, although they differ in the ways they obtain electrons for the reduction of CO2; most notably, the sulfur bacteria oxidize hydrogen sulfide to obtain electrons for CO2 reduction.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Survey of Bacteria Learning Outcome: 11.12 5) Explain the significance of endospores.

Answer: Because an endospore can regenerate the cell that produced it, these bacterial structures are an important survival mechanism for some bacteria, as well as an important method of transmitting diseases caused by these bacteria. For example, because they are hard to destroy, endospores can be a source of diseases that are caused by anaerobic organisms, such as tetanus and botulism, or that are transmitted over long distances and times, such as anthrax. Endospores can also survive for indefinite periods of time; the minimum documented durability of endospores is 34 years, but there is some evidence to suggest that endospores may be able to survive for millions of years. Endospores are this resistant because they have a special protective coating and go through a process called sporulation, in which a copy of the cell's genome is prepared for long-term "storage" inside the endospore. This makes endospores a special challenge in sterilization applications.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: General Characteristics of Prokaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 11.2

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 12 Characterizing and Classifying Eukaryotes 12.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The fusion of two gametes produces a A) zygote.

B) schizont.

C) chromatid.

D) centromere.

E) merozoite.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.1 2) Replication of the DNA occurs during A) metaphase.

B) prophase.

C) telophase.

D) anaphase.

E) interphase.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2 3) Sister chromatids separate and move toward the poles of the cell during _ A) telophase B) anaphase C) metaphase D) interphase E) prophase Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2

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of mitosis.

4) An aligned pair of homologous chromosomes is called a A) chromatid.

B) spindle.

C) tetrad.

D) coenocyte.

E) gamete.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 5) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) animals; usually diploid B) fungi; usually diploid C) protozoa; usually diploid D) slime mold; usually haploid E) plants; usually diploid Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.1 6) Crossing over between chromosomes occurs during which stage of meiosis?

A) prophase I B) prophase II C) metaphase I D) anaphase I E) metaphase II Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 7) Which of the following statements regarding meiosis is most accurate?

A) Crossing over occurs during metaphase I. B) A diploid cell produces haploid daughter cells.

C) Haploid cells produce diploid cells.

D) Homologous (non-sister) chromatids separate during anaphase II. E) Meiosis has the same number of stages as mitosis.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3

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8) Merozoites are a result of A) meiosis.

B) schizogony.

C) mitosis.

D) crossing over.

E) conjugation.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4 9) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) Diplomonadida; two nuclei B) Rhizaria; pseudopodia C) Parabasala; two mitochondria D) Euglenids; flagellum E) Ciliophora; cilia Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12 10) Some fungi postpone cytokinesis, producing A) coenocytes.

B) cysts.

C) merozoites.

D) schizonts.

E) trophozoites.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.4 11) Single-celled eukaryotes lacking a cell wall are A) protozoa.

B) fungi.

C) algae.

D) insects.

E) water molds.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.7

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12) The Apicomplexa are named for their complexes of specialized organelles which allow them to A) be motile by means of multiple flagella.

B) penetrate host cells.

C) undergo schizogony.

D) carry out photosynthesis.

E) attach to surfaces.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 13) The have shells composed of calcium carbonate and thin pseudopods.

A) Amebozoa B) Euglenids C) Ciliates D) Dinoflagellates E) Foraminifera Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12 14) Euglenids have an organelle known as a(n) behavior.

A) mitosome B) kinetoplast C) eyespot D) apical complex E) parabasal body Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.9

which has a role in their phototactic

15) Which of the following is a protozoan with two nuclei and no mitochondria?

A) Plasmodium B) Paramecium C) Euglena D) Giardia E) Trichomonas Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12

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16) Which of the following has NOT been a basis for classification of the protozoa?

A) means of locomotion B) genetic sequences C) photosynthetic ability D) habitat E) ability to form a dormant stage Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.8 17) The is the entire interwoven mass of one multicellular fungal organism.

A) hyphae B) sporangium C) mycelium D) pseudoplasmodium E) conidiophore Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.15 18) The asexual spores of molds are classified according to their A) size.

B) type of metabolism.

C) number of chromosomes.

D) shapes.

E) mode of development.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.18 19) Which of the following is a cell type associated with sexual reproduction in fungi?

A) sporangiospore B) dikaryon C) haustoria D) pneumocyst E) mycorrhiza Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.17

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20) Fungal spores produced asexually within a sac-like chamber at the tip of a hypha are called A) ascospores.

B) basidiospores.

C) sporangiospores.

D) conidia.

E) zygospores.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.18 21) Sexual reproduction in Basidiomycota results in the production of A) ascospores.

B) basidiospores.

C) conidiospores.

D) endospores.

E) zygospores.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.19 22) The dikaryons of Zygomycoa are known as A) asci.

B) basidia.

C) conidia.

D) sporangia E) zygosporangia Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.19 23) The large seaweed known as kelp is classified as a member of the A) Chlorophyta.

B) Phaeophyta.

C) Chrysophyta.

D) Rhodophyta.

E) Deuteromycete.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.25

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24) Hyphae are associated with which of the following?

A) yeasts B) algae C) molds D) protozoa E) helminths Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.15 25) Which of the following fungal divisions do not have septa?

A) Basidiomycota B) Deuteromycetes C) Zygomycota D) Ascomycota E) both Basidiomycota and Deuteromycetes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.15 26) Lichens are composed of a symbiosis of fungi and which of the following?

A) green algae B) cyanobacteria C) euglenoids D) cyanobacteria or green algae E) euglenoids or dinoflagellates Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.21 27) Slime molds are classified as A) Amoebozoa.

B) dinoflagellates.

C) fungi.

D) lichens.

E) rhizaria.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12

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28) The division Basidiomycota includes which of the following types of fungi?

A) truffles B) mushrooms C) baker's yeast D) bread mold E) ringworm Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.19 29) Some fungi and higher plants form a beneficial association known as A) galls.

B) haustoria.

C) mycorrhizae.

D) lichens.

E) vectors.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.14 30) Protozoa of the genus cause a sexually transmitted disease in humans.

A) Trypanosoma B) Nosema C) Trichomonas D) Spirogyra E) Naegleria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12 31) In a cell that has a diploid number of 8 chromosomes, how many chromatids will be present at the beginning of mitosis?

A) 8 B) 16 C) 32 D) 4 E) 2 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2

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32) Which of the following is present during meiosis but not mitosis?

A) a chromatid B) a centromere C) a spindle D) a tetrad E) sister chromatids Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 33) When mitosis occurs without cytokinesis, which of the following is produced?

A) merozoites B) chromatids C) cysts D) macronuclei E) coenocytes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4 34) The chromatids move toward opposite poles during A) anaphase B) telophase C) metaphase D) prophase E) interphase Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2

of mitosis.

35) Multiple mitoses followed by a single cytokinetic event is known as A) meiosis.

B) schizogony.

C) coenocytic division.

D) encystment.

E) interphase.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4

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36) The chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell during A) prophase.

B) anaphase.

C) metaphase.

D) telophase.

E) prophase II. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.2 37) The process in which the cytoplasm is divided between daughter cells is known as A) coenocytosis.

B) budding.

C) meiosis.

D) cytokinesis.

E) nuclear division.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4 38)

Which process is represented by Figure 12.1?

A) mitosis B) meiosis C) cytokinesis D) schizogony E) budding Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3

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39) The distinguishing characteristic used to classify the algae into four kingdoms is A) whether they are single celled or multicellular.

B) their cell wall components.

C) their storage products.

D) their habitat.

E) presence or absence of chlorophyll a.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.25 40) Algae that are important sources of thickening agents like agar are known as A) Rhodophyta.

B) Phaeophyta.

C) Chrysophyta.

D) Rhizobium.

E) Chlorophyta.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.26 41) Simple eukaryotes that carry out oxygenic photosynthesis and reproduce by means of alternation of generations are known as A) algae.

B) fungi.

C) slime molds.

D) euglenids.

E) arachnids.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.24 42) Previously classified as fungi, with cellulose walls.

A) chrysophyta B) diplomonads C) lichens D) water molds E) slime molds Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.27

are classified as algae because they are true diploids

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43) Fungi called Deuteromycetes are not known to reproduce sexually. Nonetheless, most of them are considered members of the on the basis of genetic sequences.

A) Zygomycota B) Basidiomycota C) Ascomycota D) Sporozoa E) Rhizaria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.20 44) Multicellular organisms with hard exoskeletons, segmented bodies and four pairs of jointed legs in the adult stage are A) algae.

B) arachnids.

C) insects.

D) helminths.

E) lice.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.30 45) Which of the following is transmitted by mosquitoes?

A) African sleeping sickness B) malaria C) toxoplasmosis D) tapeworms E) typhus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.33

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12.2 True/False Questions 1) Haploid genomes contain two sets of chromosomes.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.1 2) Fungi reproduce only asexually.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.17 3) Protozoa are eukaryotic organisms that lack a cell wall and can be unicellular or multicellular.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.7 4) The alveolates with two different nuclei are ciliates.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 5) In fungi, aseptate hyphae are coenocytic.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.15 6) Algae can have different types of photosynthetic pigments that allow them to photosynthesize at various depths in water.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.23 7) Lyme disease is vectored by ticks.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.31

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8) In spite of their name, water molds are not true fungi.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Water Molds Learning Outcome: 12.27 9) Ascospores are the products of meiosis.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.18 10) Diatoms are a type of protozoan.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.25 12.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Plasmodium, the causative agent of malaria, undergoes multiple mitoses before the release of uninucleate daughter cells called (gametocytes/schizonts/coencytes).

Answer: schizonts Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.4 2) Protozoa can survive changes in pH, nutrient availability or temperature as (conidospores /cysts/trophozoites).

Answer: cysts Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.7 3) The (fungi/algae/lichens) are so sensitive to pollutants that they are used as indicators of environmental conditions.

Answer: lichens Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.22 4) Protozoa that move and feed by the use of broad pseudopods are called (amoebozoa/apicomplexa/rhizaria).

Answer: amoebozoa Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.11 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Euglenids were once classified as (algae/fungi/prokaryotes).

Answer: algae Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.9 6) The asexual reproductive spores produced within a sac are (conidiospores/ascospores/sporangiospores).

Answer: sporangiospores Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.18 7) The "red tide" events along coasts are caused by (algae/fungus/protozoa).

Answer: protozoa Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.10 8) Slime molds are classified with protozoa in part because they have (flagella/pseudopods/shells).

Answer: pseudopods Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoa Learning Outcome: 12.12 9) Mushrooms with gills are the fruiting bodies of members of the (Ascomycota/Basidiomycota/Deuteromycetes/Zygomycota).

Answer: Basidiomycota Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.19 10) The plague is transmitted by (fleas/lice/ticks/mites).

Answer: fleas Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.33 11) Edible true mushrooms are typically members of the (Ascomycota/Basidiomycota/Deuteromycetes/Zygomycota).

Answer: Basidiomycota Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.19 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Diatoms are single celled marine algae with walls composed of (chiton/cellulose/carbonate/silica).

Answer: silica Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.25 13) Microbiologists interested in parasites study multicellular (algae/fungi/helminths) as well as single-celled protozoa.

Answer: helminths Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.28 14) Alternation of generations is a means of reproduction by (algae/ciliates/fungi/insects).

Answer: algae Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.24 15) Ticks, lice, and mosquitoes often serve as (carriers/transporters/vectors) by hosting and transmitting pathogenic microbes.

Answer: vectors Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Eukaryotes of Microbiological Interest: Parasitic Helminths and Vectors Learning Outcome: 12.29

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12.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast slime molds and water molds.

Answer: Both the slime molds and the water molds are saprobes, and neither of them is fungi, as the names would suggest. In spite of the similarity of names, however, these organisms are more different than they are similar.

Slime molds are classified among the protozoa (Amoebozoa). They are phagocytic organisms without cell walls and occur in two forms: plasmodial and cellular.

The plasmodial coenocytic slime molds are diploid under normal conditions, but under adverse conditions they produce haploid spores that can germinate to produce a unicellular form (myxamoeba) that uses flagella or pseudopodia for motility, depending on conditions. Two compatible myxamoebae fuse to form a new diploid, which, in turn, becomes a new coenocytic plasmodium.

The cellular slime molds are haploid. Under ideal conditions, the cellular slime molds live as single-celled organisms (myxamoebae). When food becomes scarce, the myxamoebae congregate and cooperate to form a sporangium, and some individuals then become spores. No diploidy or meiosis is involved.

The water molds are classified with the algae (Stramenophila), but they do not carry out photosynthesis. They are diploid saprobes with cell walls of cellulose. Their spores are motile by means of two flagella, which are structurally different. Some water molds are plant pathogens.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Water Molds Learning Outcome: 12.12, 12.27 2) A field biologist finds an unfamiliar single-celled organism in a sample from the surface of a marshy area. What observations or tests would make it possible to determine whether it is a protozoan, fungus, or alga? Assume the PCR machine at the field station is not working, but all other equipment is.

Answer: The presence of a cell wall would indicate the organism is either a fungus, or an alga.

The presence of pigments is an indication it is a photosynthetic organism, and if it has a cell wall, it is an alga. The identification would be further confirmed if the organism is diploid (observed during mitosis).

An organism with a cell wall but no pigments is probably a fungus. This identification can be verified by observing that the organism is haploid.

If the organism is a single-celled eukaryote without a cell wall, it is likely a protozoan. Motility (with flagella, cilia or pseudopodia) would help confirm this identification, although the absence of observable motility does not rule out protozoa.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Creating Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.7, 12.13, 12.23 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Compare and contrast mitosis and meiosis using words, diagrams or both.

Answer: Mitosis involves a single round of nuclear division, whereas meiosis involves two rounds. They both include the same four phases: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase; meiosis involves two rounds of each phase. Both meiosis and mitosis are preceded by interphase, during which DNA replication takes place. In meiosis, the homologous chromosomes line up to form tetrads early in prophase I. This event, which does not occur in mitosis, allows crossing over of homologous chromosomes to take place. Crossing over provides the genetic recombination of meiosis. The sister chromatids separate in anaphase in mitosis. In meiosis, the homologous (non-sister) chromatids separate during anaphase I, and the sister chromatids separate during anaphase II. The end result of mitosis is two diploid nuclei with identical chromosomes, whereas the final result of meiosis is the production of four haploid nuclei that are not genetically identical.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: General Characteristics of Eukaryotic Organisms Learning Outcome: 12.3 4) Describe the ways in which fungi reproduce.

Answer: Fungi reproduce both sexually and asexually; the precise mechanism of reproduction depends on the form of the fungus. Yeasts usually bud asexually in a manner similar to that of prokaryotic reproduction, although the cytoplasm is not typically equally shared between parent and daughter cell. Filamentous fungi can reproduce by the use of a variety of asexual spores, such as sporangiospores, chlamydospores, or conidiospores, based on the type of fungus.

Filamentous fungi can also produce sexual spores that are the product of cellular fusion and meiosis and that create genetic variation in a population. Because of the diversity observed among fungi in this area, they are often classified according to the nature and morphology of their sexual reproductive structures and spores.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Fungi Learning Outcome: 12.17, 12.18, 12.19 5) Describe the ways in which algae and fungi are useful microbes.

Answer: Algae and fungi are useful both in the biosphere in general and to humans in particular.

Because algae are photosynthetic, they are major contributors to Earth's oxygen supply; in fact, one group of algae (the diatoms) is Earth's major source of oxygen, simply because of their vast numbers. Algae are also a foundation of the biosphere's food chain in their role as plankton.

Algae are a source of chemicals, such as agar and alginic acid, which can be used as thickening agents and emulsifiers in industrial products.

Similarly, fungi are useful on two levels. In nature, they serve as recyclers of organic molecules and help plants retrieve water and nutrients from the soil. For humans, fungi play an enormous role in the food industry (in the manufacture of cheeses, bread, alcoholic beverages, and other items) and in medicine (in the production of antibiotics and other drugs). Fungi have also been instrumental tools in genetic research.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Algae Learning Outcome: 12.14, 12.26 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 13 Characterizing and Classifying Viruses, Viroids, and Prions 13.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) In what ways do viruses differ from other pathogens?

A) Viruses lack genetic material.

B) Viruses lack cytoplasm and organelles.

C) Viruses have no protein structure.

D) Viruses are composed of protein only.

E) Viruses are composed of both protein and lipid.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.1 2) The outermost layer of a virion fulfills which of the following functions of the virus?

A) protection B) recognition C) replication D) both protection and recognition E) both recognition and replication Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.1 3) A(n) is a virus that infects bacterial cells.

A) virion B) prion C) bacteriophage D) nucleocapsid E) envelope Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4

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4) Which of the following is a characteristic by which viruses are classified?

A) type of nucleic acid B) type of life cycle C) number of chromosomes D) type of host E) size Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.2 5) Host specificity of a virus is due to A) particular genes that it shares with the infected cell.

B) the presence of an envelope.

C) differences in size between the virus and the host cell.

D) the presence or absence of a cell wall on the host cell.

E) interactions between viral and cellular surface molecules.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.3 6) Which of the following is primarily responsible for the shape of a virion?

A) the type of nucleic acid B) the number of segments of the viral genome C) the source of the envelope D) the capsid E) the specific host protein the virus targets Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.5 7) Viruses that infect have no known extracellular state.

A) animals B) bacteria C) fungi D) plants E) both fungi and plants Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4

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8) The genome of influenza virus is A) multiple pieces of linear dsDNA. B) a single circular ssRNA. C) a single linear dsRNA. D) a single circular ssDNA. E) multiple pieces of linear ssRNA. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.2 9) Which of the following is CORRECT regarding the viral envelope?

A) It contains only viral proteins.

B) It contains only host cell proteins.

C) It is composed of sterols.

D) It is composed of cellular phospholipid membrane, cellular and viral proteins.

E) It is composed of sterols and viral proteins only.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.6 10) Which of the following statements regarding virus taxonomy is TRUE? A) Viruses are classified on the basis of the taxonomy of their host organisms.

B) Virus classes are well established.

C) Some virus family names are derived from the name of an important member of the family.

D) The species epithet is a Latin descriptor of the virion structure.

E) Virus classes are based on the domain of the host organism.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.7 11) The taxonomy of viruses includes all the following hierarchies EXCEPT A) genus.

B) class.

C) specific epithet.

D) family.

E) order.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.7

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12) Which of the following lists stages of a lytic replication cycle in order, from earliest to latest stages?

I. Synthesis II. Assembly III. Attachment IV. Release V. Entry A) III, V, I, II, IV B) III, II, V, I, IV C) V, III, II, IV, I D) I, III, V, II, IV E) I, II, III, V, IV Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8 13) Which of the following is associated with the attachment of a bacteriophage to a bacterial cell?

A) random collisions B) chemical attractions C) receptor specificity D) both chemical attractions and receptor specificity E) random collisions, chemical attractions, and receptor specificity Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8 14) The enzyme lysozyme is critical for which of the stages of a bacteriophage T4 infection cycle?

A) entry B) assembly C) entry and release D) synthesis E) attachment Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8

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15) A(n) is a bacterial virus which is integrated into the host cell DNA. A) lytic phage B) prophage C) plasmid D) transposon E) insertion phage Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 16) Which of the following events occurs in the lytic cycle of bacteriophage T4 infection but NOT in the lysogenic cycle?

A) attachment B) entry C) digestion of host DNA D) viral protein synthesis E) both digestion of host DNA and viral proteins synthesis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 17) Why is lysogeny advantageous to a bacteriophage?

A) It speeds up the viral infection cycle.

B) The genetic material of the bacteriophage is amplified many times over that seen in a lytic phage.

C) It allows the bacteriophage to infect cells it would not normally infect.

D) It allows the bacteriophage to destroy the host cell's DNA. E) It enables the bacteriophage to take over the cell.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 18) Which of the following may result from lysogenic infection?

A) The bacterium is resistant to infection with similar bacteriophage.

B) The bacterium can produce large quantities of phage without lysis.

C) The bacterium becomes pathogenic.

D) The bacterium becomes resistant to infection and becomes pathogenic.

E) The bacterium becomes resistant to infection and produces large quantities of phage.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9

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19) Replication of most viruses is similar to normal cellular processes.

A) dsDNA B) ssDNA C) +ssRNA D) -ssRNA E) dsRNA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 20) Attachment of herpesviruses results in viral entry.

A) direct penetration B) membrane fusion C) endocytosis D) exocytosis E) lysogeny Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10

, a process in which the host cell facilitates

21) Reverse transcriptase is associated with which of the following?

A) dsDNA viruses B) +ssRNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) retroviruses E) dsRNA viruses Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 22) The genome of which of the following types of animal virus can act directly as mRNA? A) retroviruses B) +ssRNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) ssDNA viruses E) dsRNA viruses Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11

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23) Which of the following types of animal virus requires RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to be replicated?

A) +ssRNA viruses B) ssDNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) retroviruses E) dsDNA viruses Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 24) Naked capsid animal viruses are commonly released from the infected cell by process the host cell does not survive.

A) budding B) lysis C) endocytosis D) membrane fusion E) exocytosis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12

,a

25) Which of the following membranes can give rise to a viral envelope?

A) the nuclear membrane B) the cytoplasmic membrane C) the endoplasmic reticulum D) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes E) the nuclear and cytoplasmic membranes and the endoplasmic reticulum Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12 26) A cell is infected with a virus carrying an oncogene sequence in its genome. What process may occur if the oncogene is expressed in the infected cell?

A) lysis B) neoplasia C) lysogeny D) latency E) both lysis and neoplasia Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.15 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) How is the HIV provirus different from a lambda-phage prophage?

A) The HIV provirus is integrated permanently into the host cell's DNA. B) All subsequent generations of HIV-infected cells carry the provirus.

C) All the offspring of a cell infected with a prophage will contain the virus.

D) The HIV provirus is inactive inside the host cell.

E) Lambda phage-infected cells produce virus slowly over time.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.13 28) Which of the following events may occur in a lysogenic infection but NOT a proviral infection?

A) uncoating B) synthesis of viral proteins C) integration D) induction E) replication Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.13 29) One mechanism by which viruses may cause cancer is to interrupt the genetic regulatory sequences of repressor proteins. Which of the following types of viruses is most likely to be involved in causing cancer by this mechanism?

A) +ssRNA viruses B) dsRNA viruses C) -ssRNA viruses D) retroviruses E) both +ssRNA and -ssRNA viruses Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.15 30) Tumors invade other organs and tissues in a process called A) neoplasia.

B) uncoating.

C) latency.

D) budding.

E) metastasis.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

31) Plaque assays are used for A) evaluating the cancer-causing ability of a virus.

B) determining the density of phage in a culture.

C) the study of prions.

D) cultivating viruses that cannot be grown any other way.

E) counting the number of latent phages in a cell.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.18 32) Disadvantages of continuous cell cultures include A) they only grow for a limited number of generations.

B) the expense of preparation.

C) they may be significantly different genetically from the original source animal.

D) viruses do not reliably infect them.

E) they are both expensive and have a limited number of divisions.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.20 33) Viroids infect A) bacteria.

B) plants.

C) fungi.

D) plants and animals.

E) all organisms.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.22 34) How are prions different from all other known infectious agents?

A) They cannot reproduce outside a cell.

B) They act as slow viruses.

C) They cause neurological problems.

D) They can be destroyed by incineration.

E) They lack nucleic acid.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.24

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35) Which of the following infectious particles do NOT have protein in their structure?

A) bacteriophages B) prions C) animal viruses D) viroids E) both prions and viroids Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.22 36) A lipid membrane is present in which of the following?

A) naked viruses B) enveloped viruses C) prions D) viroids E) both prions and viroids Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.6 37) What is a virion?

A) a virus genome inside a cell B) an empty capsid C) a single virus particle outside a cell D) an extracellular virus genome E) a virus genome integrated into a host cell genome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.1 38) Which of the following virus families has a double-stranded RNA genome?

A) Retroviridae B) Reoviridae C) Rhadoviridae D) Orthomyxoviridae E) Filoviridae.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.7

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39) Which of the following is a feature shared by viruses and living organisms?

A) possession of a genome that directs synthesis of materials necessary for replication B) presence of cytoplasm C) metabolic capability D) responsiveness E) the ability to increase in size Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Are Viruses Alive?

Learning Outcome: 13.21 40) Small circular RNAs called are plant pathogens.

A) plasmids B) viruses C) viroids D) prions E) phages Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.22 41) The of a virion determines the type of cell it enters.

A) nucleic acid B) matrix proteins C) glycoproteins D) lipid molecules E) shape Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.3 42) Which of the following infectious particles is most susceptible to damage?

A) naked capsid virus B) enveloped virus C) prions D) bacteriophage E) both naked capsid viruses and prions Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.6

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43) An acute viral disease is the likely result of A) a lytic B) a latent C) a persistent D) a lysogenic E) either latent or lysogenic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.13

infection.

44) A is a mass of neoplastic cells.

A) diploid culture B) metastasis C) tumor D) gall E) plaque Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14 45) The process known as is a mechanism of release for enveloped viruses.

A) lytic replication B) persistent infection C) metastasis D) latency E) budding Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12 13.2 True/False Questions 1) Viruses cause most human cancers.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.15 2) Most viruses cannot be seen by light microscopy.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Protozoa are susceptible to viral attack.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.4 4) Budding release of virus may result in long lasting or persistent infection.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.12 5) Members of a virus family have the same type of nucleic acid.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.7 6) All DNA viruses of animals replicate in the nucleus of the host cell.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 7) Bacteriophage release is a gradual process in which small numbers are released at a time.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8 8) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy is an example of a prion disease.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.27 9) All viruses use the host cell's nucleic acid polymerases for replication.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 10) Fertilized chicken eggs are used to culture some vaccine strains.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.19 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

13.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The extracellular state of a (capsid/nucleocapsid/virion).Answer: virion Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.1

virus

is

a

2) Viral capsids are composed of subunits called (capsomeres/nucleocapsids/prions).

Answer: capsomeres Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.5 3) Viruses with -ssRNA require the activity of (DNA polymerase/reverse transcriptase/RNAdependent RNA polymerase) for their replication.

Answer: RNA-dependent RNA polymerase Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 4) Continuous cell cultures are developed from (embryonic/haploid/neoplastic) cells.

Answer: neoplastic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.20

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5)

The acellular infectious agent in Figure 13.1 is most likely a (bacteriophage/prion/viroid).

Answer: bacteriophage Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.9 6) Another term for a lysogenic phage is a (temperate/latent/prophage) phage.

Answer: temperate Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.9 7) The process during viral infection known as "uncoating" involves the removal of the (capsid/envelope/matrix).

Answer: capsid Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10 8) Uncontrolled cell division in animals is known as (metastasis/neoplasia/cancer).

Answer: neoplasia Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.14

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9) Reverse transcriptase is found in the virions of some (DNA/-ssRNA/+ssRNA) viruses.

Answer: +ssRNA Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 10) The stage of virus infection called (assembly/entry/synthesis) is the stage most dependent on host cell proteins.

Answer: synthesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.8, 13.10 11) Genes that play a role in proper cell division but may also play a role in some types of cancer are called (oncogenes/proto-oncogenes/promoters).

Answer: proto-oncogenes Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.15 12) A (colony/plaque/prophage) is a clear zone on a bacterial lawn where cells have been killed by the activity of a bacteriophage.

Answer: plaque Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Culturing Viruses in the Laboratory Learning Outcome: 13.18 13) Nine (orders/families/classes) represent the highest level of taxonomic rank used in classifying viruses.

Answer: orders Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.7 14) Prions are composed of a single protein called (plaque/BSE/PrP).

Answer: PrP Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.24 15) In contrast with its host cells, a virus may have a (dsDNA/dsRNA/protein) genome.

Answer: dsRNA Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Characteristics of Viruses Learning Outcome: 13.2

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13.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast the ways in which animal, plant, and bacterial viruses gain entry into their host cells.

Answer: Because cells have different types of barriers against the outside world, viruses have evolved different ways of breaching these barriers. For example, viruses cannot easily invade cells that have rigid, protective cell walls (such as plant and bacterial cells). Viruses that infect these cells gain entry by direct injection (as observed in bacteriophage T4), by taking advantage of damage to the cell wall (as with some plant viruses), or by enlisting the aid of insects that are themselves parasites (as with some other plant viruses). In contrast, animal cells have no cell wall; therefore, animal viruses employ three basic strategies to enter through the flexible cytoplasmic membrane. Some animal viruses directly penetrate this membrane (either the entire virus or just its genome), whereas other viruses take advantage of natural cellular processes such as phagocytosis to gain entry into the cell. Enveloped animal viruses also can use the process of membrane fusion to get inside an animal cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.10, 13.23 2) Why is the synthesis of mRNA a central issue for all viruses? How do different types of viruses achieve this goal?

Answer: One way in which a virus gains control of a cell is to direct the synthesis of new viral proteins, which include such molecules as enzymes. To do this, however, the virus must provide the cell with mRNA for the production of such proteins. Viruses can achieve this goal in one of three basic ways: (1) they can import mRNA into the cell in the form of the viral genome; (2) they can allow the cell to make viral mRNA through normal cellular genetic processes by providing the cell with viral DNA; or (3) they can use unique mechanisms to convert their genomes into a form suitable for protein production. An example of the first type of virus is the +ssRNA virus; this type of genome essentially mimics the mRNA found in the cell. An example of the second type is the DNA virus, either ds or ss, which can take advantage of normal cellular processes to produce mRNA. An example of the third type is the -ssRNA virus, which uses a novel enzyme called RNA-dependent RNA transcriptase to convert its genome into +ssRNA, which can then be used for protein synthesis as in the first example.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11

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3) In contrast to most dsDNA animal viruses, the poxviruses replicate solely in the cytoplasm of the host cell. What does this suggest about the virus?

Answer: All cellular DNA replication occurs in the nucleus. DNA polymerases are synthesized in the cytoplasm and are transported into the nucleus where they are active. Replication of viral DNA in the cytoplasm would require DNA polymerase activity take place in the cytoplasm. One possibility is that the viral genome includes a gene for a DNA polymerase and that a DNA polymerase enzyme is packaged in the virion. Otherwise, the virus has some mechanism for diverting cellular DNA polymerase to the cytoplasm. The first possibility is the simpler explanation.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Viral Replication Learning Outcome: 13.11 4) A scientist discovers a new virus associated with a cancer. She is able to culture it in the laboratory and begins to analyze it. What features will help her determine the virus' classification? How does this help her understand the virus' mechanism for causing cancer?

Answer: Characterization of the nucleic acid present in the virion is a first step in determining the classification of the virus. If it is a large DNA virus with envelope, it may be one of the Herpesviridae. DNA viruses with smaller genome sizes known to cause cancer are the Papillomaviruses and Polyomaviruses. The Hepadnavirdae have a circular DNA molecule which is partially double strand and partially single strand. Very small DNA viruses which occasionally cause cancer are the Adenoviridae. The presence or absence of an envelope is also useful in eliminating possibilities. The presence of a segmented genome comprised of + singlestrand RNA and the enzyme reverse transcriptase is consistent with the virus being a member of the Retroviridae.

DNA sequence determination is useful for verifying the classification to a family or genus.

Establishing the classification of the virus can provide clues as to the possible mechanism of causing cancer, as different virus families are involved in different processes. For example, retroviruses integrate into the host DNA and may thereby disrupt the function of a tumor repressor.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Creating Section: The Role of Viruses in Cancer Learning Outcome: 13.7, 13.15 5) Describe the mechanism by which PrP is infectious.

Answer: The clue to why PrP acts as an infectious agent was found when it was discovered that all mammals contain the gene for PrP. However, under normal conditions, the protein produced from this gene, cellular PrP, is not a pathogenic agent. It is when PrP folds into an abnormal form called prion PrP that it is infectious. As prion PrP, the protein is capable of inducing copies of cellular PrP to refold into prion PrP, thereby causing the disease form of the protein to accumulate. Because the genetic information to create this protein is found in the host organism, prions are the only known example of a totally protein-based infectious agent.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Other Parasitic Particles: Viroids and Prions Learning Outcome: 13.24 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 14 Infection, Infectious Diseases, and Epidemiology 14.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is NOT an example of symbiosis?

A) bacteria in the human colon B) tapeworm in the human intestine C) tuberculosis in the human lung D) protozoa in termites E) microbes crossing the placenta to the fetus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 2) Mutualism is a relationship A) that provides benefits for both members, sometimes to the point that one cannot live without the other.

B) where only one member derives benefit from the other.

C) where one member of the relationship may kill the other.

D) where one member of the relationship benefits without hurting the other.

E) where it is difficult to prove the benefits or disadvantages one member of the relationship may provide for the other.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1

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3)

Figure 14.1 represents a Petri dish with a fungus (F), shown in darker gray, growing in the midst of bacterial lawn (B), shown in light gray. Both microbes were from the same patient sample.

The relationship between the fungus and the bacteria would best be described as A) mutualistic.

B) amensal.

C) commensal.

D) parasitic.

E) None, there is no relationship between the microbes.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 4) The bacterium Staphylococcus aureus is commonly found in the nasal cavity of healthy people. If inhaled into the lungs, however, it may cause pneumonia. Staphylococcus aureus is best described as A) a parasite.

B) resident microbiota.

C) a mutualist symbiotic partner.

D) an opportunistic pathogen.

E) both resident microbiota and opportunistic pathogen.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.2, 14.3, 14.4

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5) Chagas' disease is transmitted by a bug with mouthparts that penetrate blood vessels. Which type of exposure does this represent?

A) mucous membrane portal B) parenteral route C) skin portal D) contact E) fomite Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.7 6) Symptoms are A) subjective characteristics of a disease that only the patient can feel.

B) objective manifestations of a disease that can be measured.

C) objective manifestations of a disease that can be observed by others.

D) characteristics of a disease, such as sweating.

E) laboratory tests used to diagnose a disease.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11 7) The close contact between newborns and family members allow them to become with microbes that become established as their microbiota. (Choose the most accurate term.)

A) infected B) parasitized C) colonized D) contaminated E) infiltrated Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 8) In which of the following do the mucous membranes serve as a portal of entry for disease?

A) A pathogen crosses from the mother to the fetus by way of the placenta.

B) A person rubs the eye with contaminated fingers and the pathogen is washed into the nasal cavity by way of tears.

C) A person is bitten by a mosquito that carries the malaria parasite.

D) Fungi digest the outer layer of the skin.

E) A person receives an injection with a contaminated needle.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.7 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

9) Which of the following statements regarding the demonstration of the etiology of disease is FALSE? A) The suspect agent must be present in all cases of the disease.

B) The suspect agent must cause the disease under investigation when introduced into a susceptible host organism.

C) The suspect agent must be isolated and cultured in the laboratory.

D) It must be possible to re-isolate the suspect agent from the infected experimental host.

E) The suspect agent must be the only potential pathogen present in disease cases.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13 10) Which of the following situations is NOT a way in which a baby acquires normal microbiota?

A) The baby acquires the residential microbiota in the colon after the first meal.

B) Staphylococcus epidermidis is transferred from the hospital staff to the newborn after delivery.

C) Microbes cross the placenta during pregnancy.

D) Microorganisms grow in the respiratory tract after the baby's first breath.

E) Microbes enter the nose and mouth when the baby is in the birth canal.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 11) Which of the following situations might cause normal microbiota to become opportunistic pathogens?

A) growth of microbes on the surface of intact skin B) growth of microorganisms on the excreted cellular wastes and dead cells in the large intestine C) treatment of a cancer patient with radiation D) growth of Lactobacillus on the surface of teeth E) presence of Entamoeba in the lumen of the colon Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.4

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12) Which of the following is a fungus and is considered part of the normal human microbiome?

A) Candida B) Lactobacillus C) E. coli D) Bacteroides E) Staphylococcus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 13) A toxin common to most Gram-negative bacteria is A) neurotoxin.

B) coagulase.

C) lipid A. D) hemolysin.

E) collagenase.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 14) Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase, hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute to the ability of S. aureus to invade the body?

A) coagulase B) enterotoxin C) hemolysin D) hyaluronidase E) coagulase and hemolysin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 15) Which of the following stages of an infectious disease is the most severe?

A) the incubation period B) the prodromal period C) the illness period D) the decline period E) the convalescence period Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15

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16) Which of the following is an example of vehicle transmission?

A) kissing B) having intercourse C) sharing a glass D) drinking contaminated water E) being bitten by a mosquito Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 17) Which of the following is considered a mechanical vector transmission?

A) cockroach transmission of Shigella B) mosquito transmission of Plasmodium C) flea transmission of Yersinia D) tsetse fly transmission of Trypanosoma E) louse transmission of Rickettsia Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.18 18) Which of the following is a sign of disease?

A) headache B) dizziness C) fever D) nausea E) cramps Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11 19) Which of the following is a symptom of disease?

A) fever B) swelling C) diarrhea D) dizziness E) rash Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11

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20) Diseases that are induced by modern medical procedures are referred to as infections.

A) iatrogenic B) exogenous C) opportunistic D) endogenous E) subacute Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.26 21) A syringe is used for multiple patients, one of whom has hepatitis B. The syringe is not properly sterilized, resulting in possible transmission.

A) indirect contact B) airborne C) waterborne D) foodborne E) vector Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 22) A person is exposed to fungus and develops an infection. No one taking care of him/her becomes ill, suggesting the infection is a _ disease.

A) contagious B) subacute C) chronic D) non-communicable E) latent Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.21

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23) In early spring 2009, the CDC reported several dozen cases of novel H1N1 influenza ("swine flu") in the United States. By the end of the year millions of people had been infected. The pattern of novel H1N1 cases in the United States represents a(n) disease.

A) epidemic B) endemic C) sporadic D) pandemic E) opportunistic Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.24 24) The incidence of tuberculosis in the year 2000 in the United States was 12.43/100,000 cases.

This means A) 12.43 of every 100,000 people in the United States had tuberculosis in the year 2000.

B) 12.43 of every 100,000 people died of tuberculosis in the United States in the year 2000.

C) there were 12.43 new cases of tuberculosis for every 100,000 people in the United States in the year 2000.

D) there were 12.43 tubercle bacilli per 100,000 microbes in the United States in the year 2000.

E) 12.43 of every 100,000 cases of tuberculosis were treated in the United States in the year 2000.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.23 25) A strain of Neisseria gonorrhea has a mutation which has caused it to lose the ability to produce fimbriae and become less virulent as a consequence. What function has this pathogen lost?

A) the ability to adhere to cells of the body B) the ability to move from one location in the body to another C) the ability to produce an endotoxin D) the ability to establish a latent infection E) the ability to prevent phagocytes killing it Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.8

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26) Over 470,000 cases of cholera were reported in Haiti in the two years following the 2010 earthquake. Which of the following was the most likely mode of transmission?

A) mosquitoes B) aerosols C) contact D) contaminated water E) contaminated milk Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 27) The person known to history as "Typhoid Mary" was identified by public health officials as a source of typhoid fever, although she reported she had never had typhoid fever. Which of the following is the most accurate description of her in this scenario?

A) contact carrier B) human carrier C) reservoir D) both a human carrier and a reservoir E) a reservoir but not a carrier Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases in Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 28) Aerosols may be involved in transmission of pathogens.

A) droplet B) direct C) vector D) fecal-oral E) waterborne Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.17 29) Fomites are A) insects that transmit pathogens from an infected host to an uninfected host.

B) inanimate objects involved in the indirect contact transmission of pathogens.

C) fecal material from infected hosts.

D) animal sources for human pathogens.

E) silent carriers of infectious diseases.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) Koch's postulates were used to demonstrate the relationship between A) HIV and AIDS. B) Mycobacterium leprae and leprosy.

C) liver parasites and liver cancer.

D) Haemophilus influenzae and meningitis.

E) Haemophilus influenzae and the flu.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13 31) Which of the following diseases may be reduced by improved public sanitation measures?

A) malaria B) HIV C) cholera D) chickenpox E) rabies Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Epidemiology and Public Health Learning Outcome: 14.16, 14.29 32) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of a disease process?

A) convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline B) prodromal period, convalescence, incubation, illness, decline C) incubation, convalescence, prodromal period, illness, decline D) incubation, prodromal period, illness, decline, convalescence E) illness, convalescence, incubation, prodromal period, decline Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15 33) People who wash their hands frequently during cold season typically have fewer colds than those who do not. This observation suggests cold viruses can be transmitted by A) fomites.

B) mechanical vectors.

C) biological vectors.

D) direct contact.

E) both direct contact and fomites.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16

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34) A patient developed a blood infection after a dental procedure which resulted in bleeding gums. The patient has A) a subclinical infection.

B) an exogenous infection C) a healthcare-associated infection (HAI).

D) a superinfection.

E) a zoonotic infection.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.26 35) Which of the following virulence factors directly contributes to severe inflammation?

A) coagulase B) lipid A C) hyaluronidase D) kinase E) collagenase Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 36) A pathogen is best described as A) a microorganism that remains with the person throughout life.

B) any microorganism that causes disease.

C) an organism that remains in the body for a short time.

D) a microorganism that may cause a disease under certain circumstances.

E) a source of microbial contamination.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.2 37) Microbes known as transient microbiota are A) microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life.

B) microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances.

C) organisms that remain in the body for a short time.

D) unsuccessful microbial invaders because of the presence of preexisting microbes.

E) sources of microbial contamination.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3

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38) Infectious diseases can be classified on the basis of A) severity and duration of the disease.

B) means of transmission.

C) organs or organ systems affected by the disease.

D) type of microbe that causes the disease.

E) disease severity and duration, organ system affected or type of microbe.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.19 39) Organisms that are resident microbiota are best described as A) microorganisms that remain with the person throughout life.

B) any microorganisms that cause disease.

C) organisms that are present in or on the body for a short time without causing harm.

D) microorganisms that may cause a disease under certain circumstances.

E) microorganisms that never cause disease.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 40) A new influenza strain appears and is spreading rapidly. What measures might be taken by public health agencies to stop the spread?

A) Facilitate access to vaccines.

B) Identify and treat people who are infected.

C) Educate members of the public about ways to protect themselves.

D) Educate the public, promote vaccination, and treat those who are infected.

E) Shut down public transportation.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Epidemiology and Public Health Learning Outcome: 14.29 41) Commensalism is best described as a(n) A) unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.

B) relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits.

C) relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.

D) relationship in which a microorganism causes disease.

E) source of contamination.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1

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42) The condition called parasitism is characterized as a(n) A) relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits and the other is unharmed.

B) relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.

C) non-symbiotic relationship.

D) unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of preexisting microbes.

E) relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.2 43) An axenic environment is one A) in which microorganisms remain with the person throughout life.

B) that is free of microbes.

C) that is a source of contamination.

D) in which microorganisms remain present only for a short time.

E) contaminated by microbial toxins.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 44) The condition known as microbial antagonism may be defined as A) microorganisms that remain with a person throughout life.

B) a relationship between two organisms where one member harms the other.

C) a relationship between two organisms where only one member benefits.

D) an unsuccessful microbial invasion due to the presence of pre-existing microbes.

E) a relationship between two organisms where both members benefit.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.4 45) A reservoir is A) a source of microbial contamination.

B) an environment that is free of microbes.

C) any microorganism that causes disease.

D) a condition in which organisms remain in the body for a short time.

E) a source of microbes for laboratory testing.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases in Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5

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14.2 True/False Questions 1) In commensalism, one member of the relationship harms the other.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 2) Normal microbiota may cause disease if conditions change in the body.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.4 3) A syndrome is a group of symptoms and signs that collectively characterize a particular disease.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11 4) All diseases go through the stages known as incubation period, prodromal period, and illness.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15 5) Microbial contamination always results in infection.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.6 6) Hepatitis C is an acute disease.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.20 7) Biofilms provide an alternative means for bacteria to attach to surfaces within the body.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.9

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8) People in the incubation stage of a disease may be a reservoir of the agent.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases in Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 9) Koch's postulates can be applied to every infectious disease to identify its causative pathogen.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13 10) All infections result in disease.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.10 14.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Toxins that affect the lining of the digestive tract are (endotoxins/enterotoxins/exotoxins).

Answer: enterotoxins Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 2) The degree to which a microbe is able to cause disease is known as its (morbidity/virulence/toxicity).

Answer: virulence Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.10 3) The (intestines/nasal cavities/lungs) are normally axenic.

Answer: lungs Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.3 4) Bacterial capsules are (antiphagocytic/cytotoxic/exotoxic) virulence factors.

Answer: antiphagocytic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14

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5) The (incubation/morbidity/prodromal) period is the time between infection and the occurrence of the first symptoms or signs of the disease.

Answer: incubation Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.15 6) Staphylococcus bacteria are commonly present in the human nasal cavity but rarely cause disease of the upper respiratory system. This situation is an example of (commensalism/mutualism/parasitism).

Answer: commensalism Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Symbiotic Relationships Between Microbes and Their Hosts Learning Outcome: 14.1 7) Lipid A is a(n) (cytotoxin/endotoxin/exotoxin) that stimulates the body to release chemicals that cause fever, inflammation, diarrhea, hemorrhaging, shock, and blood coagulation.

Answer: endotoxin Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 8) Persons with asymptomatic infections may be (contaminants/reservoirs/zoonoses) of disease.

Answer: reservoirs Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases in Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 9) A young man dies after eating improperly stored food, resulting in (indirect/vehicle/vector) transmission.

Answer: vehicle Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Modes of Infectious Disease Transmission Learning Outcome: 14.16 10) Nausea is an example of a (sign/symptom/syndrome) of disease.

Answer: symptom Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.11 11) The bacterium that causes cholera is capable of living independently in freshwater. As a consequence, cholera epidemics primarily involve (animal/non-living/zoonotic) reservoirs.

Answer: non-living Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Reservoirs of Infectious Diseases in Humans Learning Outcome: 14.5 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) If a woman is infected with Zika virus during pregnancy, her baby may be infected by the (parenteral/placental/mucous membrane) route.

Answer: placental Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.7 13) A (chronic/latent/sub-clinical) infection is one in which the microbe is actively reproducing but not causing symptoms.

Answer: sub-clinical Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Classification of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.20 14) In early 2014, West African countries began diagnosing and reporting cases of Ebola for the first time in their history. This is an example of a(n) (endemic/epidemic/sporadic) disease.

Answer: epidemic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.24 15) Virions attach to a target host cell by means of (capsules/fimbriae/ligands).

Answer: ligands Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Invasion and Establishment of Microbes in Hosts: Infection Learning Outcome: 14.8 16) A patient has an upper GI endoscopic procedure and later develops a severe (endogenous/iatrogenic/secondary) infection with the Gram-negative pathogen known as CRE. Answer: iatrogenic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.28

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14.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast analytical, descriptive and experimental epidemiology.

Answer: A goal shared by all three is determining the source of disease.

Descriptive epidemiology is often the first step, and is primarily records of observations. The observations may be highly detailed. Infection control clinicians and public health officials observe and record cases of disease with similar features. They will also record other observations, such as similar environments visited or materials ingested by all patients. John Snow's investigation of the London cholera outbreak is an example. Early reports of Ebola in West Africa in 2014 is another.

Experimental epidemiology tests hypotheses about the relationship between microbes and disease. Koch's identification of Bacillus anthracis as the cause of anthrax in animals is an example. Clinical testing of medications or vaccines are other examples.

Analytical epidemiology is analysis of data produced by either descriptive epidemiology or experimental epidemiology. This type of analysis is sometimes used in situations in which the application is not possible or ethical.

Analytical and experimental epidemiology are often interconnected: a hypothesis developed with analytical epidemiology may then be tested using experimental epidemiologic methods.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Epidemiology of Infectious Diseases Learning Outcome: 14.25 2) Researchers have proposed that the herpes virus responsible for the childhood illness, roseola, may cause a type of T cell leukemia. Ninety percent of the population has been infected by the virus by two years of age, but the T cell leukemia is relatively rare. The virus can be cultured in the laboratory in tissue culture, but not in mature organisms. Discuss the obstacles to applying Koch's postulates to the etiology of this disease.

Answer: Koch's first postulate, that the suspect agent must be present in every case of disease, is met, but far more people have the virus than have the disease. This suggests that more than the presence of the virus is necessary for the leukemia to develop, and the additional factors may be difficult to identify. The third postulate states that the isolated suspect agent must cause disease when introduced into a host. This situation presents two difficulties in satisfying the third postulate. The first is that it is unethical to deliberately expose humans to an agent that may produce life-threatening disease (the leukemia). Additionally, ethical concerns aside, because such a large percentage of the population has been exposed to the virus, a large pool of potential uninfected subjects does not exist.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.13

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3) The Gram-positive bacterium Streptococcus pyogenes has several virulence factors, including the presence of a hyaluronic acid capsule, M protein, streptokinase, and hyaluronidase. Discuss how these factors contribute to this bacterium’s ability to cause a variety of diseases.

Answer: The hyaluronic acid capsule mimics tissues in the body and conceal the bacteria from white blood cells, while M protein interferes with phagocyte attack on the bacteria. Streptokinase and hyaluronidase contribute to the ability of S. pyogenes to invade the body. Streptokinase breaks down blood clots, and hyaluronidase breaks down the structure of tissues. Thus S. pyogenes can invade the body and cause damage while evading attack by the body’s white blood cell defenders.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14 4) In 2012, a new kind of fungal meningitis (infection of the nervous system) was discovered.

Disease occurred among patients who had received steroid injections in the spine. Discuss whether these were healthcare-associated infections (HAIs): defend your answer. Discuss the route of transmission and what measures public health agencies could take to reduce disease.

Answer: The fungal meningitis of 2012 was a HAI, of the iatrogenic type. It was introduced by the parenteral route. Public health agencies can educate health care providers about the source of the infections and how patients should be accessed and treated. They can stop the distribution of the suspect medication and determine what production standards may need to be enforced.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Epidemiology and Public Health Learning Outcome: 14.7, 14.28, 14.29 5) Compare and contrast endotoxins and exotoxins.

Answer: Both endotoxins and exotoxins are produced by Gram-negative bacteria. Exotoxins are also produced by Gram-positive bacteria. Endotoxins and exotoxins differ in their mechanism of release and composition: exotoxins are proteins or peptides that are secreted, leaving the cell intact, whereas endotoxins are lipids released only when the cell dies because they are a part of the outer membrane. The toxicity of exotoxins is higher than that of endotoxins, but both can be fatal. Both are heat stable, but endotoxins can survive an hour of autoclaving at 121°C, whereas exotoxins are not stable above 60°C. Exotoxins produce a strong immune response, and therefore toxoid immunization is possible. Endotoxins produce fever, but only a weak immune response, so toxoid immunization is not an option.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: The Nature of Infectious Disease Learning Outcome: 14.14

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 15 Innate Immunity 15.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of A) innate immunity.

B) adaptive immunity.

C) species resistance.

D) microbial antagonism.

E) species immunity.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.1 2) The second line of defense against invading microbes includes A) the skin.

B) mucous membranes.

C) antibodies.

D) phagocytic leukocytes.

E) microbiota.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.1 3) Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is A) the first line of defense.

B) the second line of defense.

C) the third line of defense.

D) microbial antagonism.

E) innate immunity.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.1

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4) Which of the following cells increase in number during an infection with parasitic worms?

A) basophils B) macrophages C) neutrophils D) eosinophils E) lymphocytes Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 5) Which of the following mucous membranes has cilia to aid shedding?

A) mouth B) nasal cavity C) urinary system D) lower respiratory system E) mouth, nasal cavity, and urinary system Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.4 6) Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of A) the lack of suitable environment in the body.

B) the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment.

C) the presence of phagocytes in the tissues.

D) the salty, acidic condition of normal skin.

E) both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.2 7) Which of the following statements regarding the surface of the skin is FALSE? A) It has sebum as a coating.

B) It has normal microbiota.

C) It has goblet cells.

D) It is salty.

E) It is acidic.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3

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8) Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion?

A) Tears contain lysozyme and salt.

B) A mucus layer traps and removes microbes.

C) Tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

D) Tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

E) Tears and mucus combine to trap microbes and remove them.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.6 9) Which of the following is the best definition of "microbial antagonism"?

A) the presence of pathogens on the surface of the skin, which will invade the body through abrasions B) the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading the body C) the presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions D) the ability of microbiota to mutate into pathogens E) the presence of resident bacteria on the surface of the body and in cavities that connect to the surface Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.7 10) Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders?

A) The mucus secreted by the mucous membrane physically traps microbes.

B) The mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecules.

C) Both the mucus and the outer layer of cells are shed frequently.

D) The mucus is a physical trap that contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals.

E) The mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and is shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.5

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11) What antibacterial chemical is present in tear fluid?

A) antibodies B) complement C) defensins D) lysozyme E) interferon Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.6 12) Which of the following statements about eosinophil function is CORRECT? A) They produce defensins.

B) They secrete toxins onto virally infected cells.

C) They are involved in the removal of neoplastic cells.

D) They attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and release toxins that kill the parasite.

E) They identify and spare normal cells.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 13) Antimicrobial peptides called are secreted in sweat and damage bacteria and fungi.

A) antibodies B) dermcidins C) TLRs D) complement factors E) cytokines Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 14) The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to A) attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.

B) triggering inflammation.

C) triggering release of interferons.

D) triggering inflammation and release of interferons.

E) both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17

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15) Cells of the second line of defense called A) basophils B) eosinophils C) macrophages D) NK cells E) dendritic cells Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13

recognize and kill virus-infected cells.

16) Which of the following is NOT a stage of phagocytosis?

A) chemotaxis.

B) secretion of cytotoxins.

C) adhesion.

D) elimination.

E) vesicle fusion.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12 17) Mannose sugar occurs on the surface of some bacteria and fungi and can trigger the A) release of cytotoxins by NK cells.

B) release of histamines by basophils.

C) classical pathway of complement activation.

D) lectin pathway of complement activation.

E) release of NETs by neutrophils.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17 18) Which of the following are phagocytic cells descended from monocytes?

A) alveolar macrophages B) dendritic cells C) microglial cells D) alveolar macrophages and dendritic cells E) alveolar macrophages and microglial cells Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.11

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19) Which of the following cells is a component of the body's first line defense?

A) monocyte B) goblet cell C) NK cell D) neutrophil E) microglial cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 20) Which of the following are agranulocytes?

A) eosinophils B) basophils C) lymphocytes D) neutrophils E) erythrocytes Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 21) Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the bloodstream?

A) monocyte B) lymphocyte C) basophil D) eosinophil E) neutrophil Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 22) The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as A) responders to invasion.

B) passive barriers.

C) mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense.

D) detecting the unique features of specific pathogens.

E) both passive barriers and detecting specific pathogen features.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.9

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23) Which of the following proteins are part of the first line of defense against microbial invasion?

A) dermcidins B) TLRs C) NOD proteins D) C3 and C5 E) interferons Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.8 24) Which of the following are among the activities of neutrophils?

A) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps B) release of histamines C) enzyme production that leads to the formation of nitric oxide D) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and release of histamines E) formation of neutrophil extracellular traps and production of nitric oxide Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 25) Iron in plasma is complexed with A) gastroferritin B) hemolysin C) ferritin D) transferrin E) siderophores Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10

which prevents some microbes acquiring it.

26) Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is TRUE? A) TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes.

B) TLRs on the surface of microbes trigger the accumulation of opsonins.

C) Lectins on the surface of microbes are bound by chemokine receptors.

D) NOD proteins on the surface of microbes are detected by TLRs. E) MACs on the surface of microbes are detected by NOD proteins.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14

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27) Alpha and beta interferons A) help protect virus-infected cells from the effects of the pathogen.

B) protect the cells that secrete them from being invaded by a virus.

C) are produced by infected fibroblasts and macrophages.

D) produce active antiviral proteins (AVPs) that coat the surface of healthy cells and prevent the attachment of pathogenic viruses.

E) produce no adverse effects in the body.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.16 28) Receptors known as are receptors for microbial molecules in the cytoplasm.

A) NOD proteins B) MACs C) TLRs D) lectins E) NETs Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.15 29) The alternative pathway of complement cascade activation begins with the surface of a microbe.

A) C1 B) factor B C) C3b D) C5a E) C5b Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17 30) Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature A) inactivates interferons.

B) increases vasodilation, contributing to inflammation.

C) increases sweating and consequently the barrier effect.

D) prevents viral infection of fibroblasts.

E) increases the effectiveness of interferons.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.19

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binding to

31) Which of the following substances contributes to the edema associated with inflammation?

A) leukotrienes B) histamine C) interferon D) defensin E) both leukotrienes and histamine Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 32) Which of the following is NOT an example of a walled-off site of infection that contains a fluid made of dead and dying tissue cells, leukocytes, and pathogens?

A) a boil B) an abscess C) a pimple D) a pustule E) a tumor Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 33) How does aspirin act to decrease the symptoms of inflammation?

A) It acts as an anti-prostaglandin.

B) It is an anti-toxoid for most microbial toxins.

C) It prevents complement activation.

D) It interferes with the action of interferons.

E) It blocks the release of histamine.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 34) Which of the following are macrophage functions?

A) phagocytosis of pathogens and debris B) release of alpha interferon C) production of NETs D) phagocytosis of pathogens and production of NETs E) phagocytosis of pathogens and secretion of alpha interferons and leukotrienes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18

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35) Which of the following proteins of the complement cascade is an opsonin?

A) C5a B) factor B C) C3a D) MAC E) factor P Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17 36) The phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as A) the squeezing of cells through the lining of capillaries.

B) the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.

C) the movement of a cell toward or away from a chemical stimulus.

D) the coating of a pathogen by complement.

E) an increase in allergies and helminth infection.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12 37) Opsonization is A) the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis.

B) the sticking of monocytes to the wall of the blood vessels at the site of infection.

C) damage resulting in cell lysis.

D) nonspecific leukocyte secretion of toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

E) phagocyte receptors detecting PAMPs. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12 38) A person produces a mutated C3 protein resulting in C3a failing to stick, but enzymatic function is not affected. Complement activation in this individual would result in which of the following?

A) MACs would form but inflammation would not occur.

B) Phagocytes would not be attracted to the site of infection.

C) Phagocytes would be attracted to the site of infection but phagocytosis would be impaired.

D) Phagocytosis would be facilitated but chemotaxis by phagocytes would be reduced.

E) MACs would not form.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.17

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39) A type of lymphocyte called a(n) kills them.

A) eosinophil B) NK cell C) neutrophil D) basophil E) mast cell Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13

detects cells with abnormal surface proteins and

40) Which of the following statements is TRUE of eosinophils?

A) They are in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc.

B) They produce the coating of a pathogen by complement.

C) They secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites.

D) They decline during allergic reaction.

E) They release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 41) Microbial molecules detected by phagocytes are called A) TLRs. B) NODs. C) PAMPs. D) leukotrienes.

E) prostaglandins.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14 42) TLRs are A) phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs. B) the coatings of pathogens by complement.

C) molecules that damage cells, resulting in cell lysis.

D) present in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc.

E) nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14

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43) The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes A) release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.

B) increase in allergies and helminth infection.

C) respond to the coating of a pathogen by complement.

D) are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virus-infected cells.

E) are specialists in killing bacteria.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 44) Which of the following is the first line of defense?

A) histamine, prostaglandin and leukotriene production B) intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and sweat C) phagocytes D) the coating of a pathogen by complement E) nonspecific leukocytes secreting toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.5, 15.6 45) Sebum contains which contributes to creating an inhospitable environment on the surface of the body.

A) lysozyme B) collagens C) acids D) salts E) bile Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 15.2 True/False Questions 1) Interferons alpha and beta are effective against viruses.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.16 2) The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.7 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysozyme.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 4) The phenomenon known as species resistance is a highly specific defense against infectious agents.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.2 5) Some toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found on the surface of host cells and recognize specific microbial molecules.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14 6) Innate immunity is not effective against fungus infections.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.17 7) Acute inflammation is normally beneficial.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 8) The growth of some microbes is inhibited by elevated body temperature.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.19 9) Neutrophils can kill bacteria by nonphagocytic mechanisms.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13

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10) Inflammation is an important part of the body's first line of defense, and it involves migration of phagocytes to the area.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 15.3 Short Answer Questions 1) White blood cells known as (basophils/lymphocytes/neutrophils) are the main cells involved in the third line of defense.

Answer: lymphocytes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.1 2) The absence of necessary receptors is the basis of the defense against microbial invasion known as (natural/innate/species) resistance.

Answer: species Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of the Body's Defenses Learning Outcome: 15.2 3) Sweat glands produce (lysozyme/dermcidin/acid), which destroys the cell wall of bacteria by cleaving the bonds between the sugar subunits.

Answer: lysozyme Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 4) The (epithelial/goblet/mucous) cells in the tracheal mucous membrane produce mucus.

Answer: goblet Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.5 5) The oily substance that lowers the pH of the skin's surface to about pH 5 and is inhibitory to many bacteria is (sebum/sweat/serum).

Answer: sebum Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3

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6) The normal microbiota interact with potential pathogens in a variety of ways to protect the body, creating a situation known as microbial (antagonism/competition/resistance).

Answer: antagonism Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.7 7) In a process called (cytokinesis/hematopoiesis/hematocrit), blood stem cells located in the bone marrow produce the three types of formed elements found in the blood.

Answer: hematopoiesis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10 8) Nonphagocytic (eosinophils/monocytes/NK cells) are a type of lymphocyte which produce toxins to kill abnormal cells.

Answer: NK cells Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 9) Neutrophils fight bacteria without phagocytosis by producing (MACs/NETs/PAMPs).

Answer: NETs Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 10) Proteins produced by the innate immune response to fight virus infection are (complement/interferons/opsonins).

Answer: interferons Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.16 11) Eosinophils respond to (complement/lipopolysaccharide/histamines) and kill bacteria in a nonphagocytic process.

Answer: lipopolysaccharide Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.13 12) Macrophages release (bradykinin/histamine/prostaglandin) in response to microbes and thereby contribute to acute inflammation.

Answer: prostaglandin Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

13) Molecular structures common to microbes that are detected by phagocytes are known as (NODs/PAMPs/TLRs).

Answer: PAMPs Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.14 14) Intact skin layers are part of the body's (first/second/third) line of defense against pathogens.

Answer: first Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3 15) Some pathogens produce toxins which function as (histamines/prostaglandins/pyrogens) to cause fever.

Answer: pyrogens Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.19 15.4 Essay Questions 1) Describe the events of the acute inflammatory response and their effect on a site of infection.

Include the cells and chemicals involved.

Answer: The events of the acute inflammatory response are vasodilation and increased permeability of the capillaries. Vasodilation is triggered when damaged cells release histamines and bradykinin is produced during blood clot formation. The vasodilation permits increased blood flow into the area of infection, which brings more blood components (molecular and cellular) to the area and also causes the area to become red and warmer. The increased permeability allows the blood components to enter the tissue more readily. Increased plasma flow results in swelling (edema) and also increases the content of complement factors in the tissue. The increased fluid flow into the tissue creates a pressure barrier that can slow the spread of microbes. The complement cascade triggered by the presence of bacteria releases chemotactic factors. Leukocytes entering the area of inflammation marginate and carry out diapedesis in response to chemotactic factors (produced by the complement cascade and by damaged cells).

These events result in a concentration of defensive factors at a site of infection and some containment of microbes in an effort to defeat the invading microbes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.18

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2) What are macrophages, and what are their functions?

Answer: Macrophages are one of the principal phagocytic cells in the second line of defense.

They are monocytes that have left the bloodstream and entered tissues. They are named according to their location in the body: wandering macrophages, alveolar macrophages (in the lungs), microglia (in the nervous system), and others. These phagocytes provide some protection against infection by phagocytizing microbes and are scavengers that clean the tissues of dead cells, debris, and inert foreign material (dust, etc.). Macrophages also play a role in triggering acute inflammation by releasing various inflammatory chemicals when microbes are detected by means of TLRs (extracellular molecules) and NODs (intracellular molecules resulting from phagocytosis).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10, 15.11, 15.14, 15.15 3) Describe at least three physical mechanisms that are part of the first line of defense.

Answer: Physical mechanisms include the skin, the mucous membranes, and the variety of fluids that are produced by the body. The skin acts as a key element in the first line of defense for several reasons. First, the skin has many layers of protection that few microbes can penetrate.

Second, these layers are shed, removing potential pathogens. Third, the epidermis has epidermal dendritic cells that are phagocytic. The mucous membranes also play a role for a variety of reasons. They contain tightly packed cells that are continually shed and replaced. In addition, the production of mucus acts to trap pathogens, and the cilia, which are often present, beat synchronously to remove microbes. Bodily fluids serve to dilute and wash away microbes. These fluids include tears, saliva, urine, vaginal secretions, blood, and menstrual flow. Other physical processes include defecation and vomiting.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's First Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.3, 15.5, 15.6

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4)

Examine the WBC count and differential data in Table 15.1. What type of disease is indicated by this set of data?

Answer: The overall elevation of WBC indicates an infection. The elevated lymphocyte proportion along with the slightly low neutrophil count is consistent with viral infections.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.10

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5) What is phagocytosis? What does it involve?

Answer: Phagocytosis is a process by which a cell can engulf substances and internalize them into the cytoplasm. Cells that are capable of phagocytosis are collectively known as phagocytes and include neutrophils, eosinophils, dendritic cells, and macrophages. Phagocytosis is part of the body's second line of defense, and it is nonspecific. It includes the following steps: Chemotaxis: A cell moves either toward or away from a chemical stimulus.

Adherence: The phagocyte attaches to the pathogen, through binding of complementary chemicals on the membranes of the pathogen.

Ingestion: After the pseudopodia adhere to the pathogen, the encompassed microbe is internalized as the pseudopodia fuse to form a sac called a phagosome.

Digestion: Lysosomes with over 30 digestive enzymes attach to the phagosome and break down the microbe. At the end of this process, the remains of the phagosome are known as the residual body.

Elimination: The phagocyte rids itself of undigested material by exocytosis, which is the opposite of ingestion.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: The Body's Second Line of Defense Learning Outcome: 15.12

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 16 Adaptive Immunity 16.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is a characteristic of the third line of defense that makes it significantly different from the second line?

A) The response is specific to a single antigen.

B) The initial response is very rapid, beginning in minutes to a couple of hours.

C) The response is effective on a broad range of antigens.

D) The response to a second exposure is similar to the response to a first exposure.

E) The responding cells are a variety of cell types.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 2) Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?

A) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single epitope.

B) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function.

C) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the epitope for which they are specific.

D) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body.

E) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 3) Which of the following is an exogenous antigen?

A) a bacterium inside a cell B) a virus inside a cell C) a bacterium outside a cell D) a non-infected human cell E) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.8

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4) Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE? A) Once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs.

B) B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated using a bright-field light microscope.

C) Lymphocytes have integral surface proteins by which they can be recognized.

D) The glycoproteins on the surface of a lymphocyte are designated with the prefix CD, for "cluster of differentiation."

E) Lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.2 5) The majority of mature, self-tolerant lymphocytes are found in A) the MALT. B) lymph nodes.

C) the thymus.

D) the spleen.

E) the tonsils.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.6 6) Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT? A) the appendix B) the spleen C) Peyer's patches D) lymphoid tissue in the respiratory tract E) lymphoid tissue in the small intestine Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.6 7) The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are A) NK lymphocytes and neutrophils.

B) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes.

C) macrophages and eosinophils.

D) macrophages and neutrophils.

E) neutrophils and dendritic cells.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.2

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8) You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely.

Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the A) appendix.

B) lymph nodes of the groin.

C) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical).

D) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla).

E) spleen.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.4 9)

The type of immunoglobulin illustrated in Figure 16.1 is A) IgE. B) IgG. C) IgA. D) IgM. E) IgD. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

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10) Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is FALSE? A) Antibodies are formed of four polypeptide chains.

B) Antibodies have two long peptide chains known as heavy chains.

C) Antibodies have two short peptide chains known as light chains.

D) The stem and arm are connected by a hinge.

E) The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.17 11) The antibody-binding site of an antibody is made up of A) portions of both of the heavy chains only.

B) the variable regions of the heavy chains.

C) the light chains only.

D) the variable regions of both light and heavy chains.

E) one heavy chain.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.17 12) Cell-mediated immunity is a function of A) NK cells.

B) T lymphocytes.

C) B lymphocytes.

D) dendritic cells.

E) macrophages.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.3 13) Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE? A) They can prevent virus attachment to host cells.

B) They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx).

C) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens.

D) They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes.

E) They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

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14) Secretory IgA antibodies are unique because they A) have unique light chains.

B) are Y-shaped molecules.

C) are present in the plasma.

D) are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to form dimers.

E) are present in lymph nodes.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 15) The most prevalent antibody class in the blood is A) IgD. B) IgM. C) IgA. D) IgG. E) IgE. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 16) Which of the following function in agglutination?

A) IgA antibodies B) IgG antibodies C) IgE antibodies D) IgD antibodies E) IgA and IgG antibodies Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 17) Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE? A) They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen.

B) They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter.

C) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites.

D) Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR. E) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs. Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.16 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

18) Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE? A) T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules.

B) T lymphocytes directly attack cells and produce the cell-mediated immune response.

C) T lymphocytes mature in the thymus.

D) T lymphocytes have TCRs that recognize unique antigens.

E) T lymphocytes require antigen presentation to become activated.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.13 19) Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes?

A) growth factors B) interferons C) interleukins D) tumor necrosis factors E) chemokines Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20 20) Clonal deletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s) in the body?

A) the bone marrow B) the spleen C) the liver D) both the bone marrow and the spleen E) the thymus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.15

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21)

Figure 16.2 illustrates an interaction between a(n) A) antigen presenting cell and a B lymphocyte.

B) antigen presenting cell and a helper T lymphocyte.

C) NK cell and its target cell.

D) cytotoxic T lymphocyte and its target cell.

E) antigen presenting cell and a plasma cell.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.26 22) Which of the following statements is TRUE about major histocompatibility (MHC) proteins?

A) All cells produce both class I and class II MHC proteins.

B) MHC proteins can bind multiple epitopes simultaneously.

C) All cells produce class II MHC proteins.

D) Class I and II MHC proteins are on the cytoplasmic membrane.

E) Class I MHC are secreted while class II is on the cytoplasmic membrane.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.9

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23) The lymphocytes of adaptive immunity called A) T cells B) B cells C) NK cells D) dendritic cells E) macrophages Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.2

mature in the red bone marrow.

24) Class I MHC molecules are essential for A) presentation of endogenous antigens.

B) recognition of chemokines.

C) detection of IL-2.

D) recognition of class II MHC. E) presentation of exogenous antigens.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.10 25) Class II MHC are found on A) the skin.

B) red blood cells.

C) cytoplasmic membranes of nucleated cells.

D) muscle cells.

E) professional antigen-presenting cells.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.10 26) Which of the following statements is TRUE of exogenous antigens?

A) All cells except red blood cells process exogenous antigens.

B) Exogenous antigens are presented on class I MHC proteins.

C) Only B cells can recognize exogenous antigens.

D) Exogenous antigens are produced by cells infected with intracellular pathogens.

E) Dendritic cells and macrophages process exogenous antigens.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.11

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27) The thymus is where A) T cells are produced.

B) T cells undergo clonal expansion.

C) T cells produce their TCR for the first time.

D) clonal deletion of T cells takes place.

E) T cells produce their TCR for the first time and undergo clonal deletion.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.12 28) Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is FALSE? A) They live for many years and function as memory cells.

B) They are descended from activated B cells.

C) They can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis.

D) They secrete a single type of antibody molecule specific for a single epitope.

E) The antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for weeks.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.25 29) Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as responses.

A) third-degree immune B) allergic C) primary immune D) memory E) autoimmune Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.28 30) Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is TRUE? A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated.

B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target.

C) Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes.

D) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide.

E) A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22

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31) The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because A) red blood cells do not produce MHC and, therefore, do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen.

B) the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs. C) RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents.

D) complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs. E) RBCs never enter lymphoid tissue.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.9 32) The perforin-granzyme pathway involves A) the production of fever, which kills the pathogen.

B) the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen.

C) the production of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells.

D) presenting the foreign antigen to B cells.

E) binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22 33) The molecular interaction between an antigen presenting cell and a T cell is A) an immunological synapse.

B) clonal expansion.

C) CD95L. D) regulatory TCR. E) a dendrite.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.21 34) What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease?

A) innate immunity B) naturally acquired passive immunity C) artificially acquired active immunity D) artificially acquired passive immunity E) naturally acquired active immunity Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Types of Acquired Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.29 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?

A) The child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza.

B) The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV. C) The child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections.

D) The child has neither influenza nor RSV. E) The results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 36) The lymphatic system A) has a pumping mechanism to move fluid.

B) includes areas of high concentrations of APCs, T and B cells.

C) collects fluid from around the brain and spinal cord.

D) is very impermeable to extracellular fluid.

E) is the site of B and T cell clonal deletion.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.4 37) What is the role of interleukins?

A) chemotaxis of leukocytes B) production of virally infected cells C) ensuring production of enough leukocytes D) signaling between leukocytes E) complement activation Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20 38) Which of the following cytokines promotes the development of a cell-mediated immune response?

A) alpha interferon B) chemokines C) tumor necrosis factor (TNF) D) IL-4 (interleukin-4) E) IL-12 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.21 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it?

A) activation of the dendritic cell to become a plasma cell B) display of epitope-MHC I complexes on the surface of the cell C) suppression of the immune response to the microbe D) display of microbial fragments with CD8 glycoproteins E) display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.11 40) Which of the following is TRUE of chemokines?

A) They ensure production of enough leukocytes.

B) They are involved in B lymphocyte activation and differentiation.

C) They are chemotactic factors for leukocytes.

D) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate.

E) They are substances used to signal between leukocytes.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20 41) Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces A) artificial passive B) natural passive C) natural active D) artificial active E) both active and passive Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Types of Acquired Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.29

immunity.

42) Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies?

A) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate.

B) They are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial stages of an immune response.

C) They are the antibody class found in body secretions.

D) They interact with phagocytes and NK cells.

E) They can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

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43) IgE antibodies are best described as A) a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation.

B) the antibodies found in body secretions.

C) those involved in complement activation.

D) the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC).

E) the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 44) How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented?

A) T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion.

B) T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated.

C) Regulatory T cells suppress autoimmune responses.

D) Clonal deletion of T cells and regulatory T cell suppression prevent autoreactive T cell activation.

E) Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.15 45) Which of the following is the result when a CTL interacts with a virally infected cell?

A) The cell releases interferon-gamma (INF-γ).

B) The cell undergoes apoptosis.

C) The CTL produces oxidizing chemicals.

D) The CTL produces IL-12.

E) The cell produces MHC II with epitope attached.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.21

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16.2 True/False Questions 1) All leukocytes have major roles in adaptive immunity.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.2 2) The adaptive immune response requires exposure to specific epitopes for activation.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 3) IgG antibodies can carry out all five antibody functions.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 4) Blood is surveyed for foreign material in the spleen.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.6 5) A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.16 6) Immature B lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion in the bone marrow.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.19 7) CTLs use the CD95 molecule to recognize their epitope.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22

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8) Cytokines are soluble regulatory proteins that act as intercellular signals and include substances such as interleukins, interferon, and growth factors.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.20 9) During an infection with Listeria, an intracellular bacterium, APCs will present antigen on MHC II molecules.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.11 10) When a T cell's CD95L binds to the CD95 on a target cell, antibodies are formed.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22 16.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The third line of defense is called (autoimmunity/clonal/self-tolerant) because it does not normally respond to autoantigens.

Answer: self-tolerant Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 2) Activation of B lymphocytes produces (antibody-mediated /cell-mediated/innate) immune responses.

Answer: antibody-mediated Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.3 3) The antigen-binding variable region assembled by a B cell occurs in both its antibody molecule and its (BCR/CD8/MHCII) molecule.

Answer: BCR Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.17

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4) The (constant/ hinge/variable) regions from the light and heavy chains of an antibody combine to form antigen-binding sites.

Answer: variable Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.17 5) The delay in the initial adaptive immune response to pathogen is largely due to the (inducibility/memory/specificity) of adaptive immunity.

Answer: inducibility Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Overview of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.1 6) T lymphocytes mature in the (bone marrow/lymph node/thymus).

Answer: thymus Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.12 7) Plasma cells produce (antibody/chemokine/cytotoxic) molecules.

Answer: antibody Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.25 8) T cells that recognize autoantigens are induced to undergo (apoptosis/proliferation/recombination) in the thymus.

Answer: apoptosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.15 9) The surface of each B lymphocyte is covered with about 250,000 to 500,000 identical copies of (BCR/MHC/TCR).

Answer: BCR Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.16

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10)

The antibody function known as (agglutination/neutralization/opsonization) is illustrated in Figure 16.3.

Answer: opsonization Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18 11) Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) include B cells, macrophages, and (dendritic/plasma/T) cells.

Answer: dendritic Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.10 12) T lymphocytes that have CD8 glycoproteins are (cytotoxic/helper/regulatory) T cells.

Answer: cytotoxic Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.14 13) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes insert (CD95/lectin/perforin) into the membranes of the cells they target as a first step in killing.

Answer: perforin Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Cell-Mediated Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.22

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14) IgG antibodies cross the placenta and enter the fetus’ bloodstream, producing (active/natural/passive) acquired immunity.

Answer: passive Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Types of Acquired Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.29 15) The antitoxin therapy for rattlesnake bite provides (artificial/innate/natural) immunity.

Answer: artificial Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Types of Acquired Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.29 16.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the importance of there being two types of adaptive immune responses (antibody and cell-mediated).

Answer: Pathogens (and other hazards to the body) vary in type and form. Many pathogens are extracellular parasites while others are intracellular parasites. Large numbers of pathogens are bacteria, and others are eukaryotes. The two different immune responses are effective at targeting different types of antigens. Cell-mediated immunity is directed against endogenous antigens, and therefore intracellular parasites. The antibody immune response primarily targets exogenous antigens and is therefore largely effective against extracellular pathogens. Antibody functions are particularly effective against bacteria. Antibodies can also neutralize non-living hazards like toxins. Consequently, the adaptive immune response against a specific pathogen will primarily involve one or the other type. The immune response is unlikely to be completely onesided in all infections. For example, an intracellular parasite may produce a toxin, so while a cell-mediated immune response will kill infected cells and slow the spread of the pathogen, neutralizing antibodies directed against the toxin will limit the damage done by the toxin.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity, Cell-Mediated Immune Responses, Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.8, 16.11, 16.21, 16.25

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2) A variety of molecular components of the adaptive immune system bind epitopes (antigenic determinants). Compare and contrast the binding of epitopes by antibody molecules, T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules, and describe the consequences of the different interactions.

Answer: MHC molecules bind processed antigen for presentation to lymphocytes. The MHC molecules are also composed of two peptides, analogous to the TCR. MHC I molecules bind endogenous antigenic determinants, that is, portions of molecules synthesized by the cell. MHC I-epitope complexes on the surface of cells are detected by T lymphocytes, leading to cytotoxic attack on the presenting cell by cytotoxic T lymphocytes. MHC II molecules bind antigen fragments produced by digestion of antigens in phagolysosomes (exogenous antigens) and display them to T lymphocytes, which become activated Th1 or Th2 lymphocytes. Only antigens that MHC molecules can bind will elicit a T-cell mediated immune response.

T cell receptors (TCRs) are produced by T lymphocytes for detecting processed antigen. The TCR is composed of two peptides. When T lymphocytes encounter presented antigen for which they are specific, they become activated and participate in the adaptive immune response. Helper T lymphocytes produce the interleukins needed to regulate the immune response, and cytotoxic T lymphocytes become killers. Thereafter, cytotoxic T lymphocytes use their TCR to identify target cells to attack. Both MHC and TCR are embedded in the cytoplasmic membrane of the cell expressing them.

Antibody molecules produced by B lymphocytes are weapons that either directly damage the antigen they bind or facilitate leukocyte attack on their attached antigen. An antibody molecule epitope binding site is formed by the "variable" regions of two peptides, the heavy chain, and the light chain. Antibody molecules are secreted by the plasma cells into the fluid compartments of the body. The sole exception is a membrane bound IgM or IgD, which functions as an antigen receptor on unactivated B lymphocytes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.9, 16.13, 16.18 3) What are the steps involved in B cell activation?

Answer: B cell activation involves many steps. First, antigen-presenting cells present antigenic determinants to Th cells that have complementary binding sites to the presented antigen. Next, Th cells differentiate into Th2 cells. Then, clonal selection takes place, where only the B cells with BCRs complementary to the antigenic determinants will be recognized. When a BCR on the surface of an unactivated B cell binds its epitope, the BCR-antigen complex is endocytosed, and the B cell then displays the epitope on MHC, behaving as an antigen presenting cell. A complementary Th2 cell binds to the B cell by recognizing its antigenic determinant-MHC II complex and then secretes IL-4, which activates the B cell to proliferate rapidly and produce memory cells and plasma cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.25

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4) Compare and contrast clonal deletion and clonal selection of B lymphocytes.

Answer: Both clonal deletion and clonal selection are screening processes in which the antigen specificity of the B cell receptors are scanned. These screening processes have very different end results.

Unactivated B lymphocytes produce their B cell receptor (BCR), which is a membrane-bound version of IgM or an IgD, while still in the bone marrow. Cells in the bone marrow present "self" antigen to the B lymphocytes, and those that respond are "deleted" (undergo apoptosis). Thus, clonal deletion prevents autoreactive B lymphocytes from completing their development.

Mature, unactivated B lymphocytes in lymphoid tissue undergo clonal selection. New antigen appearing in the body is bound by BCR specific for it, internalized, and processed for presentation with MHC II. If a Th2 lymphocyte specific for the same antigen detects the presented antigen, the B lymphocyte attached to it is "selected" for activation and clonal expansion (production of many daughter cells).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Antibody Immune Responses Learning Outcome: 16.19, 16.26 5) Describe the mechanisms of action of antibodies.

Answer: Antibodies act against foreign antigens in many ways. In agglutination, several immunoglobulin (antibody) molecules bind two or more microbial cells together, causing them to clump. This process hinders the activity of pathogenic organisms and increases the chances that they will be phagocytized. Antibodies may neutralize toxins produced by pathogens by binding to critical portions of the toxins and preventing them from functioning against the body.

Antibodies may bind to virus ligands or bacterial adhesions and prevent the pathogen from attaching to cells of the body. Antibodies also act as opsonins, which are molecules that stimulate phagocytosis. Binding of the antibody to foreign antigens on the surface of cells facilitates the action of natural killer lymphocytes. IgG antibody bound to antigen can become enzymatically active and produce hydrogen peroxide to damage and kill the microbe to which it is bound. IgG and IgM antibodies that have bound antigen can trigger the complement cascade.

IgE antibodies trigger the release of chemicals which damage cells and inflammatory chemicals from eosinophils and basophils.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Elements of Adaptive Immunity Learning Outcome: 16.18

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 17 Immunization and Immune Testing 17.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) What is the most efficient and cost-effective way to control infectious diseases?

A) variolation B) active immunization by vaccination C) passive immunotherapy using immunoglobulins D) immune testing E) autoimmunization Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 2) Contact immunity within a population can be produced by A) attenuated B) DNA C) inactivated D) subunit E) toxoid Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.4 3) The first true vaccine provided immunity to A) anthrax.

B) cholera.

C) pertussis.

D) rabies.

E) smallpox.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1

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_ vaccines.

4) Development of new vaccines has slowed in recent decades. This is due to A) the ineffectiveness of vaccines against disease.

B) the availability of vaccines against nearly all serious diseases.

C) the high cost of development.

D) the high level of risk with immunization.

E) a lack of need with modern medical treatments.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 5) Almost a century after Edward Jenner introduced successful vaccination, Louis Pasteur developed vaccine(s) against A) anthrax.

B) human cholera.

C) rabies.

D) influenza.

E) both anthrax and rabies.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 6) The discovery of antibodies and the understanding of their actions lead to A) improved vaccine design.

B) the development of genetically engineered vaccines.

C) improved methods of immunization.

D) the development of passive immunotherapy.

E) the use of the technique known as variolation.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 7) Pathogens may be attenuated for use in vaccines by A) raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.

B) genetic manipulation.

C) treatment with formaldehyde.

D) genetic manipulation coupled with treatment with formaldehyde.

E) genetic manipulation and/or raising the pathogen for several generations in tissue culture cells.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2, 17.3

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8) The polio vaccine currently administered in the U.S., known as IPV, is an example of a(n) vaccine.

A) attenuated B) inactivated C) subunit D) toxoid E) recombinant Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 9) Which of the following statements regarding an inactivated vaccine is FALSE? A) It can be produced with deactivated whole microorganisms.

B) It can be produced from antigenic fragments of a pathogen.

C) It is safer than an attenuated vaccine.

D) It is made from mutated forms of the pathogen.

E) It is made from pathogens that cannot replicate.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 10) Which of the following is a possible side effect of immunization with an inactivated vaccine?

A) contact immunity B) allergic reaction C) residual virulence D) toxicity E) both allergic reaction and toxicity Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.4 11) Killed vaccines work by stimulating A) an antibody response.

B) phagocytic activity.

C) the cell-mediated immune response.

D) cytotoxic T cells.

E) lymphocyte proliferation.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2

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12) Which of the following substances is commonly used to inactivate microbes?

A) formaldehyde B) alcohol C) synthetic detergents D) fluorescent dyes E) alum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 13) What type of vaccine is the hepatitis B vaccine?

A) inactivated whole pathogen B) attenuated vaccine C) toxoid vaccine D) a recombinant vaccine composed of a single antigen of the hepatitis virus E) a vaccine produced by treating the virus with formaldehyde Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3 14) Which of the following statements regarding toxoids is FALSE? A) They produce immunity to the toxin of the microorganism rather than the microorganism itself.

B) They provide lifelong immunity.

C) They stimulate antibody immune responses.

D) They have few antigenic determinants.

E) They are chemically or thermally modified.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 15) An infectious disease researcher isolates the pathogen responsible for an emerging disease.

The microbe is grown in the lab. A preparation of the laboratory-grown microbe is treated with a lethal dose of ionizing radiation and then tested for its potential as a vaccine. What type of vaccine is this?

A) attenuated B) subunit C) combination D) toxoid E) inactivated whole Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) The attenuated oral poliovirus vaccine (OVP) is no longer administered in the U.S.A. because it A) is very toxic.

B) does not provide good immunity.

C) can occasionally cause poliomyelitis.

D) can be spread to contacts.

E) can be spread to contacts and can occasionally cause poliomyelitis.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.4 17) A person who has been exposed to rabies receives both HRIG (human rabies immunoglobulin) injected near the bite site and the rabies vaccine. What does this strategy represent?

A) active immunization B) passive immunotherapy C) viral hemagglutination inhibition D) passive immunotherapy combined with viral hemagglutination inhibition E) active immunization combined with passive immunotherapy Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6 18) A person exposed to hepatitis A virus may be treated with an injection of antibody molecules. This type of treatment is A) immunization.

B) serology.

C) vaccine therapy.

D) passive immunotherapy.

E) adjuvant therapy.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6

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19) Antivenin is a(n) A) antitoxin used to treat exposure to a venom.

B) antigen produced from a virus.

C) antiserum produced from hybridomas.

D) vaccine made toward the endotoxin of a virus.

E) vaccine produced against the endotoxin of a bacterium.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 20) Monoclonal antibodies are obtained from A) human serum.

B) animal serum.

C) hybridomas.

D) human B cells in culture.

E) both human and animal serum.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 21) Analysis of blood to detect specific antigens or antibodies is known as A) immunology.

B) hematology.

C) serology.

D) cytology.

E) histology.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.7 22) Which of the following diagnostic procedures depends on precipitation of antigen-antibody complexes?

A) blood typing B) immunodiffusion C) viral hemagglutination inhibition tests used to diagnose viral infections D) ELISA E) fluorescent antibody tests Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.11

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23)

The assay shown in Figure 17.1 is used for what?

A) detecting antibodies against a complex mix of antigens B) verifying infection with a virus C) determining the concentration of antibodies D) detecting neutralizing antibodies E) blood typing Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19

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24) A viral neutralization test detects A) virus in patient samples.

B) patient antibodies specific for a virus.

C) cytokines produced in response to virus infection.

D) cytopathic effect on patient cells.

E) vaccine antigens.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.14 25) Tuberculosis may be diagnosed using a(n) on sputum (lung fluid) samples.

A) direct fluorescent antibody test B) complement fixation test C) neutralization test D) immunochromatographic assay E) viral hemagglutination test Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18 26)

The assay represented in Figure 17.2 is used to A) detect antigen-specific antibodies in patient serum.

B) detect specific antigen in patient serum.

C) determine the titer of IgM in patient serum.

D) determine the presence of an antibody-modifying enzyme in a patient sample.

E) detect cytopathic effects of viral infection.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19

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27) The concentration (or titer) of antibody to a specific antigen can be determined using a(n) test.

A) hemagglutination B) precipitation C) complement fixation D) agglutination E) immunochromatographic Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.13 28) Viral neutralization testing is based on the fact that A) antibodies can be produced against the toxin of a pathogen.

B) antibodies have different molecular weights.

C) viruses introduced into appropriate cell cultures have a cytopathic effect.

D) the gene for a pathogen's antigen can be isolated and introduced into a host cell by way of a plasmid.

E) antibodies to certain microbes can be given a fluorescent label.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.14 29) An indirect fluorescent antibody test detects A) antibodies specific for an antigen.

B) antigens in patient serum.

C) the titer of antibodies.

D) hybridoma antibodies.

E) ELISA Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18 30) Which of the following statements regarding ELISAs is TRUE? A) They are not quantitative.

B) They require large amounts of serum.

C) The antibody label is a fluorescent molecule.

D) They can be used to detect antibody or antigen.

E) They involve the use of membrane filters.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19

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31) Serological tests known as detect the formation of antibody-antigen complexes (immune complexes).

A) immunoblot tests B) ELISAs C) neutralization tests D) direct fluorescent antibody tests E) precipitation tests Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.10 32) A hemagglutination test is useful for A) determining antibody titer.

B) blood typing.

C) determining effectiveness of immunization.

D) detecting presence of a pathogen in patient serum.

E) diagnosing viral infection.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.13 33) In precipitation tests, maximum precipitation takes place when A) the amount of the antibody exceeds the amount of the antigen.

B) the amount of the antigen exceeds the amount of the antibody.

C) the amount of the antibody and the amount of the antigen are at optimal proportions.

D) a toxin is present.

E) a complex solution of many antibodies is used.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.10 34) A woman uses a home pregnancy test kit that tests for hCG hormone in urine. She knows this is a type of antibody assay from the kit brochure. Antibodies reacting with the hormone produce two lines on the test strip. What specific type of antibody assay does this represent?

A) a direct immunofluoresence test B) a complement fixation test C) an immunochromatographic assay D) an ELISA E) a neutralization assay Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) The complement fixation test uses red blood cells as the target for complement activation.

Test serum containing antibodies is combined with a known amount of antigen in a tube, and then the RBCs and antibodies against the RBCs are added. A positive result for the complement fixation test would be A) a line of precipitate near the bottom of the tube.

B) a cloudy solution in the tube.

C) loss of color in the tube.

D) a fluorescent precipitate.

E) a solution that is clear due to precipitation of RBCs. Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.9, 17.16 36) Which property of antibodies is the basis for complement fixation tests?

A) agglutination B) opsonization C) neutralization D) direct killing E) complement activation Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.16 37) Viruses that naturally cause clumping of red blood cells can be diagnosed using a(n) test.

A) agglutination B) complement fixation C) viral hemagglutination D) both agglutination and complement fixation E) viral neutralization Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.14 38) Serologic tests may be used to detect _ _ for diagnosis of disease.

A) the concentration of serum proteins B) the ability of the patient's antibodies to activate the complement system C) antigen-specific antibodies D) specific epitopes E) the proportion of plasma in a patient's blood Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.8 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

39) Anti-human antibodies (specific for human IgG antibodies) with fluorescent molecules covalently attached are used for A) direct fluorescent antibody tests.

B) indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

C) direct ELISAs. D) indirect ELISAs. E) immunodiffusion tests.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18 40) How is an immunofiltration assay different from an ELISA? A) Test antigens are bound to filters rather than plastic plates.

B) Positive results are the result of precipitate formation.

C) Fluorescent molecules are attached to antigen rather than enzyme.

D) Antibodies are bound to filters rather than plastic plates.

E) They take longer than ELISAs. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.20 41) Infection with HIV is routinely verified using a(n) assay.

A) direct fluorescent antibody B) immunodiffusion precipitation C) viral neutralization D) viral hemagglutination inhibition E) immunoblot Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19 42) Compared to ELISAs, immunofiltration assays A) are faster.

B) are more accurate C) require more material.

D) take more time.

E) are less accurate.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.20

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43) A(n) assay is used for rapid identification of strep (group A Streptococcus) infections.

A) direct fluorescent antibody B) immunodiffusion precipitation C) viral neutralization D) immunochromatographic E) immunoblot Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21 44) Rabies virus can be directly detected in brain tissue using a(n) _ assay.

A) viral neutralization B) direct fluorescent antibody C) immunodiffusion precipitation D) viral hemagglutination inhibition E) immunoblot Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18 45) Infection with influenza virus is commonly diagnosed using A) an immunoblot assay.

B) viral neutralization tests.

C) immunochromatographic assay.

D) viral hemagglutination inhibition test.

E) both immunochromatographic assay and viral hemagglutination inhibition test.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.15, 17.21

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17.2 True/False Questions 1) Edward Jenner was the physician who first used cowpox to vaccinate individuals against smallpox.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 2) Passive immunotherapy does not result in immunological memory.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6 3) For some bacterial diseases such as tetanus, it is more effective to produce an immune response against the bacterial toxin than against the bacteria.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 4) Because attenuated live vaccines contain viruses that are less virulent, many booster vaccines must be given to produce an effective immune response.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 5) Residual virulence is a risk factor in the use of subunit vaccines.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.4 6) Anti-antibodies are used in indirect antibody assays.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18, 17.19 7) Complement fixation is a more sensitive test for the presence of specific antibodies than are agglutination tests.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.16 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Agglutination tests are qualitative only, not quantitative.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.13 9) The hepatitis B vaccine is an attenuated vaccine.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 10) The MMR (measles, mumps, rubella) vaccine requires multiple immunizations in the first year because it is composed of whole killed viruses.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 17.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Deliberate infection of young children with particles of ground smallpox scabs from children who had survived mild cases of smallpox was known as (vaccination/variolation/immunization).

Answer: variolation Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.1 2) Raising viruses for numerous generations can produce an (adjuvant/attenuated/inactivated) form of the virus.

Answer: attenuated Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2

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3)

The "dipstick" illustrated in Figure 17.3 is used in a(n) (immunodiffusion/immunochromatographic/ immunofluorescent) assay.

Answer: immunochromatographic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21 4) The MMR vaccine is an example of a(n) (inactivated/combination/recombinant) vaccine.

Answer: combination Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 5) An advantage of (attenuated/inactivated/subunit) vaccines is that they usually elicit cellmediated immune responses.

Answer: attenuated Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 6) The vaccine against hepatitis B is a(n) (attenuated/recombinant/toxoid) vaccine.

Answer: recombinant Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 7) A researcher uses genetic recombination techniques to remove a virulence gene from a virus, producing a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/subunit/toxoid) vaccine.

Answer: attenuated Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3

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8) Chemically or thermally modified toxins that are used for vaccination are called (adjuvants/antigens/toxoids).

Answer: toxoids Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 9) Serum containing high titers of IgG antibodies used as therapy produces (immediate/lasting/no) protection from antigen.

Answer: immediate Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.6 10) An (ELISA/immunofiltration/immunoblot) assay uses antibodies bound on the surface of plastic to detect antigens.

Answer: ELISA Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.19 11) Epidemiologists can use (direct immunofluorescent/immunochromatographic/serological) assays to track infectious disease.

Answer: serological Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.8 12) Antisera directed against toxins are known as (antibodies/antitoxins/anti-antibodies).

Answer: antitoxins Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 13) Snakebites are treated with (antisera/antitoxins/antivenins).

Answer: antivenins Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.5 14) Fluorescent antibody, ELISA, and immunoblotting tests involve the use of (hybridoma/labeled/unlabeled) antibodies.

Answer: labeled Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.18, 17.19 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) One way to measure the antibody levels in the blood is by (neutralization/titration/turbidimetry) using agglutination tests.

Answer: titration Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.13 17.4 Essay Questions 1) Discuss the similarities and differences between immunodiffusion and immunochromatographic assays.

Answer: Both assays rely on the diffusion of antibody molecules, and both involve the formation of antibody-antigen complexes.

The immunodiffusion assay is a type of precipitation assay in which the presence of antigenantibody complexes results in the development of a visible line of precipitate where the complexes come out of solution. It can be used to verify the presence of antibodies reactive to specific antigens. The variation known as radial immunodiffusion can be used to measure antibody concentrations. The procedure requires a high degree of skill and is time-consuming.

The immunochromatographic assay detects the presence of antigens rather than antigen-specific antibodies. Antibodies labeled with colored metals form complexes with the antigen, but the complexes do not precipitate out of solution. The soluble, diffusing complexes are trapped and concentrated by anti-antibodies, producing a visible line of color. These antibody assays are very rapid and can be performed by persons with basic clinical skills.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.21 2) Compare and contrast viral neutralization and viral hemagglutination tests.

Answer: Viral neutralization tests detect the presence of neutralizing antibodies in patient serum specific for a suspect virus. Patient serum is mixed with a solution of test virus and the mixture is added to a culture of susceptible cells. If the serum contains anti-viral neutralizing antibodies the virus will infect few or none of the susceptible cells (positive result). If the serum does not contain neutralizing antibodies, the virus will infect and kill cells, and the damage and destruction of the cells (cytopathic effect) will be visible (negative result).

Viral hemagglutination tests can be used to detect antibodies against viruses that do not produce cytopathic effects. Many viruses can clump red blood cells—hemagglutination—and infections with hemagglutinating viruses can be diagnosed with this alternative test. Patient serum is mixed with the test virus then mixed with red blood cells. If the RBCs clump, the serum did not contain antibodies against the test virus (negative result). No RBC agglutination indicates the serum contained antibodies against the virus (positive result).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Serologic Tests That Use Antigens and Corresponding Antibodies Learning Outcome: 17.15 18 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) Two types of vaccines for polio have been developed, an inactivated whole (IPV) and a live attenuated (OPV) vaccine. Compare and contrast the advantages and disadvantages of the twopolio vaccines.

Answer: The inactivated whole vaccine does not replicate and, therefore, does not cause an infection, which has both advantages and disadvantages: The IPV vaccine does not cause polio, but it requires boosters and elicits primarily an antibody (humoral) response, which is less effective in fighting viral pathogens than are cell-mediated immune responses. The IPV vaccine also must be administered by injection.

The attenuated live vaccine replicates and therefore establishes an infection. The advantages to this vaccine are that it requires only a single dose and produces a cell-mediated immune response. The vaccine is easily administered orally. The oral dose mimics the normal route of infection (polio is an enteric virus) and potentially produces a more appropriate immune response. The vaccine can produce contact immunity. The disadvantages of the OPV vaccine are that it can cause polio in a small number of vaccinees (about 1 in every 2 million vaccinees) and their contacts and that it can revert to wild-type virulence and spread throughout the population.

Consequently, the live attenuated vaccine is no longer used in the United States.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.2 4) Discuss the concept of herd immunity and its importance in creating and maintaining a healthy population.

Answer: Herd immunity results when a large enough percentage of a population has immunity to a pathogen that the pathogen can no longer spread and be maintained in a population. Herd immunity can protect those members of the population who cannot be immunized (newborns, pregnant women, immunosuppressed, and so forth) from infection. Highly successful application of the principle of herd immunity may result in the eradication of a pathogen when that pathogen infects only one species. Smallpox is the first pathogen to be successfully eradicated. Eradication of polio is nearing success.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.4 5) How has modern technology helped to produce new types of vaccines?

Answer: Scientists have used a variety of recombinant DNA techniques to produce improved vaccines. They have used these methods to produce large amounts of very pure viral or bacterial antigens. Genetic engineering has been used to alter microbial or viral virulence to produce live recombinant vaccines, such as the rotavirus vaccine. Other methods include injecting into a patient DNA (by way of a plasmid) that codes for the pathogen's antigen rather than injecting the antigen itself. The patient's cells take up the plasmid, then transcribe and translate this DNA to produce antigens, which causes the body to produce a cell-mediated immune response as well as an antibody response.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunization Learning Outcome: 17.3 19 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 18 Immune Disorders 18.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) A reaction to an allergen is a A) type I B) type II C) type III D) type IV E) type V Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.1

hypersensitivity.

2) Which of the following immunoglobulins is produced by plasma cells in response to an allergen?

A) IgA B) IgD C) IgE D) IgG E) IgM Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 3) Which of the following is a type of blood cell that undergoes degranulation in type I hypersensitivity reactions?

A) B cell B) basophil C) T cell D) macrophage E) plasma cell Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2

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4) The non-leukocyte tissue cells known as activate enzymes which produce leukotrienes and prostaglandins in response to allergen binding.

A) neutrophils B) basophils C) monocytes D) lymphocytes E) mast cells Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.3 5) Which of the following is an example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction?

A) watery eyes after exposure to animals B) destruction of red blood cells after an incompatible blood transfusion C) farmer's lung D) immune complexes accumulation in the kidneys E) the tuberculin response Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.4 6) When mast cells degranulate and release histamine, which of the following events may occur?

A) constriction of small blood vessels B) bronchial spasms C) increased mucus production D) both constriction of small blood vessels and bronchial spasms E) both bronchial spasms and increased mucus production Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.3 7) The release of during a type I hypersensitivity reaction contributes to swelling.

A) histamine B) prostaglandins C) leukotrienes D) both histamines and leukotrienes E) both proteases and prostaglandins Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.3

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8) Which of the following bind the constant region of IgE? A) eosinophils B) mast cells C) monocytes D) both mast cells and monocytes E) both eosinophils and mast cells Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 9) The bronchial spasms which occur during asthma are due to A) release of histamines.

B) release of leukotrienes.

C) activation of proteases.

D) activation of complement.

E) release of histamines and/or leukotrienes.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.4 10) Jess has A- blood type, has never received a blood transfusion, and never been pregnant.

Antibodies against what blood antigens could be present in Jess' blood?

A) O and Rh antigens B) B antigens C) A antigens D) B and Rh antigens E) O antigens Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.5 11) What is the cause of hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A) The mother has eosinophilia during pregnancy.

B) An O blood type mother produces anti-A antibodies which cross the placenta and react with the baby's A antigens.

C) Antibodies of an A or B blood type mother cross the placenta and react with baby's O antigens.

D) The mother produces anti-Rh antibodies which cross the placenta and react with baby's Rh antigens.

E) The mother's mast cells degranulate in the placenta, damaging it.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Transfusion reactions are the result of antibody reaction to A) glycolipids and glycoproteins on the surface of red blood cells.

B) MHC molecules on red blood cells.

C) MHC molecules on white blood cells.

D) plasma proteins.

E) foreign antibodies.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.5 13) An accident victim receives a blood transfusion. Shortly thereafter, he begins to have difficulty breathing, develops a fever, and experiences nausea and vomiting. Which of the following is the most likely interpretation of these events?

A) The blood transfusion was mismatched.

B) The blood transfusion contained pyrogens.

C) The recipient had previously been exposed to foreign blood group antigens.

D) The blood transfusion was mismatched and contained pyrogens.

E) The blood transfusion was mismatched and the recipient had previously been exposed to the foreign blood group antigens.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.5 14) Which of the following statements concerning the Rh factor is CORRECT? A) The Rh antigen is on white blood cells.

B) Eighty-five percent of humans are Rh positive.

C) Preexisting antibodies occur in 85% of the population.

D) Rh antibodies are more abundant than the ABO antibodies.

E) Eighty-five percent of the human population is Rh negative.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7

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15) Which of the following could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A) Rh-negative mother and Rh-negative father B) Rh-positive mother and Rh-positive father C) Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father D) Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father E) either Rh-positive mother and Rh-negative father or Rh-negative mother and Rh-positive father Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 16) An agricultural worker experiences difficulty breathing which becomes progressively worse.

Tests show inflammation and damage of the lung tissue, but IgE antibodies and granulocytes are in the normal ranges. With which disorder of the immune system are these signs and symptoms consistent?

A) allergic reaction B) type III (immune complex-mediated) hypersensitivity C) type IV (delayed) hypersensitivity D) autoimmunity E) acquired immunodeficiency Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.9 17) When immune complexes in the blood become trapped in the kidneys the resulting disease is known as A) type I hypersensitivity.

B) hemolytic disease.

C) glomerulonephritis.

D) dermatitis.

E) anaphylaxis.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.9

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18) Which of the following is both a hypersensitivity disorder and an autoimmune disorder?

A) anaphylaxis B) glomerulonephritis C) graft rejection D) hemolytic disease of the newborn E) rheumatoid arthritis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.10 19) A small amount of antigen is injected under the skin of a patient. After 30 minutes there is no apparent change at the injection site, but 36 hours later the patient reports that the area is red and swollen. This type of response is due to A) type I hypersensitivity.

B) type II hypersensitivity.

C) type III hypersensitivity.

D) type IV hypersensitivity.

E) immunodeficiency.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12 20) A person identified as a universal recipient has A) A B) B C) AB D) O E) Rh-negative Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.6

blood type.

21) A young woman begins to experience swelling and reddening of the skin. Soon she is also having difficulty breathing. What treatment most likely to be prescribed?

A) corticosteroids B) cyclophosphamide C) antihistamines D) methylprednisolone E) epinephrine Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.4 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

22) If a T cell is exposed to a "hidden" antigen, what kind of immune reaction will result?

A) an autoimmune disease B) a delayed hypersensitivity reaction C) a cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction D) allergic contact dermatitis E) an allergy Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 23) Which hypersensitivity disorder is the result of cell-mediated response?

A) type I B) type II C) type III D) type IV E) both type I and II Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12 24) Which of the following statements concerning rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is TRUE? A) It occurs in humans and animals.

B) The symptoms are due to damage caused by cytotoxic T cells.

C) There is no genetic influence on the likelihood of developing RA. D) Accumulations of antibody complexes lead to inflammation in and destruction of joints.

E) The onset of disease is clearly correlated with having been infected with a specific microbe.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.10 25) Primary immunodeficiency diseases A) develop later in life.

B) are detectable close to birth.

C) may be caused by malnutrition.

D) are never associated with genetic defects.

E) are sometimes caused by severe stress.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18

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26) Which of the following is a primary immunodeficiency disease characterized by a lack of T cells?

A) anaphylaxis B) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia C) severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) D) DiGeorge syndrome E) type IV hypersensitivity Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 27) What is the underlying problem in most acquired immunodeficiencies?

A) declining cell-mediated immunity B) declining humoral immunity C) production of autoantibodies D) eosinophilia E) anemia Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.19 28) Which of the following is the mechanism of action of cyclosporine?

A) It blocks the complement cascade.

B) It blocks the activity of activated Th1 T cells.

C) It directly blocks CTL activity.

D) It interferes with activation of Th2 T cells.

E) It is an anti-inflammatory interfering with leukotriene function.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.15 29) A child has a history of recurring serious bacterial infections. A blood sample shows lymphocyte levels are near normal levels, but no antibodies to the pathogens are detected in serologic tests. Based on this information, which of the following is the likeliest diagnosis for this child?

A) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia B) Graves' disease C) severe combined immune deficiency (SCID) D) systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) E) hemolytic disease of the newborn Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

30) The condition known as graft-versus-host disease may result after A) a bone marrow allograft.

B) a mismatched blood transfusion.

C) a bone allograft.

D) a plasmapheresis procedure.

E) any type of allograft procedure.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.14 31) Hypotheses explaining the development of autoimmune disease include A) molecular mimicry.

B) genetic factors.

C) overuse of vaccines.

D) genetic factors and vaccines.

E) molecular mimicry and genetic factors.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 32) Multiple sclerosis is A) a type IV hypersensitivity disease involving attack on the myelin sheath of neurons.

B) a genetic birth defect of the nervous system.

C) a type II hypersensitivity to the myelin of neurons.

D) the formation of antibodies against transplanted tissue.

E) a neurological disease due to the accumulation of immune complexes in nerves.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 33) Antibody binding to receptors on the thyroid may result in A) multiple sclerosis.

B) Graves' disease.

C) DiGeorge syndrome.

D) type I diabetes.

E) autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17

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34) The tuberculin response is mediated by A) memory T cells.

B) mast cells.

C) B lymphocytes.

D) plasma cells.

E) eosinophils.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.13 35) Which of the following statements concerning allografts is TRUE? A) They are the best type of transplants because they are not associated with rejection.

B) They induce strong type IV hypersensitivity reactions and must be treated with immunosuppressive drugs.

C) They always require complete destruction of the recipient's bone marrow cells.

D) They are impossible to perform because the antigens between donor and recipient are so different.

E) They are the rarest type of transplants.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.14 36) Cytotoxic T cell response the cells of the pancreas may result in A) type I diabetes.

B) Graves' disease.

C) Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia.

D) DiGeorge syndrome.

E) hemolytic anemia disease.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 37) Type I diabetes is a(n) A) autoimmune disease.

B) immunodeficiency disease.

C) immune complex-mediated hypersensitivity disorder.

D) delayed hypersensitivity disorder.

E) immediate hypersensitivity disorder.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17

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38) Treatment with glucocorticoids to suppress type IV hypersensitivity may result in A) acquired immunodeficiency.

B) anaphylaxis.

C) autoimmune disease.

D) DiGeorge syndrome.

E) primary immunodeficiency.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.19 39) Antigen-antibody complexes trapped in tissues and triggering complement activation or mast cell degranulation are characteristic of A) type I hypersensitivity.

B) type II hypersensitivity.

C) type III hypersensitivity.

D) autoimmunity.

E) graft rejection.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.8 40) The responses observed in type IV hypersensitivities result from the action of A) IgE antibodies and mast cells.

B) T cells and phagocytes.

C) IgG and complement.

D) autoantibodies.

E) inflammatory chemicals.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12 41) Graft rejection can be reduced by A) preventing B cell activation.

B) antiphagocytic factors.

C) stimulating B cells.

D) preventing T cell proliferation.

E) suppressing macrophage activity.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.15

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42) Opportunistic infections typical of AIDS but rare otherwise include A) tuberculosis.

B) Pneumocystis pneumonia.

C) Kaposi's sarcoma.

D) tuberculosis and shingles.

E) Pneumocystis pneumonia and Kaposi's sarcoma.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.20 43) The syndrome known as AIDS is characterized A) by the presence of HIV. B) as an opportunistic disease resulting from herpesvirus reactivation.

C) by CTL attack on CD4 T cells.

D) by one or more opportunistic diseases and the presence of HIV. E) by the presence of anti-HIV antibodies.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.20 44) HIV causes acquired immunodeficiency by infecting A) B cells.

B) helper T cells.

C) cytotoxic T cells.

D) thymus cells.

E) both B and cytotoxic T cells.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.21 45) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE or lupus) is distinct from other autoimmune disorders because A) it is also a hypersensitivity disorder.

B) it involves an antibody response.

C) multiple organs and tissues are affected.

D) it may be triggered by an infection.

E) there is a genetic predisposition.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.11, 18.17

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18.2 True/False Questions 1) Development of an allergic reaction requires an initial exposure.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 2) Individuals with AB blood type are called "universal donors" because they do not have antibodies against blood group antigens.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.6 3) MHC genes are significant genetic factors in predisposition to develop autoimmune disease.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 4) The tuberculin response is an example of allergic contact dermatitis.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.13 5) Children with Bruton-type agammaglobulinemia are highly susceptible to recurrent bacterial infections.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 6) Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a type III hypersensitivity disorder. .

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.11 7) If an Rh-positive woman marries an Rh-negative man, their children are at risk for hemolytic disease of the newborn.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Infection with certain viruses may lead to the development of type I diabetes.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 9) Depletion of the helper T cell population by HIV results in the development of AIDS. Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.20 10) All autoimmune diseases have a genetic cause.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 18.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Contact dermatitis is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity disorder.

Answer: IV Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.12 2) Rheumatoid arthritis is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity reaction that results when B cells produce autoantibodies that damage the joints.

Answer: III Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.10 3) Hemolytic disease of the newborn is a type (I/II/III/IV) hypersensitivity disorder.

Answer: II Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 4) People identified as "universal donors" have (A/B/AB/O) blood type.

Answer: O Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.6

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5) Type I hypersensitivity reactions are also commonly known as (allergies/autoimmunities/inflammation).

Answer: allergies Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.1 6) Binding of IgE to the surface of sensitized cells leads to (activation/degranulation/lysis) of the cell, releasing many inflammatory chemicals.

Answer: degranulation Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 7) Many of the signs and symptoms of inflammation, including redness and itching, are due to the release of (histamines/leukotrienes/proteases) by degranulation of mast cells.

Answer: histamines Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.2 8) The tuberculin response is the result of a(n) (antibody-mediated/cell-mediated/immediate hypersensitivity) response.

Answer: cell-mediated Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.13 9) Stress may result in the production of (corticosteroids/leukotrienes/interleukins), which may lead to acquired immunodeficiency disease.

Answer: corticosteroids Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.19 10) Graft rejection can be treated by preventing T cell responses with (azithroprine/cyclophosphamide/cyclosporine).

Answer: cyclosporine Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.15

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11) The mechanism of action of RhoGAM is to (activate/neutralize/prevent) an anti-Rh immune response.

Answer: prevent Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.7 12) The most common type of transplant involves an (allograft/autograft/isograft).

Answer: allograft Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.14 13) Graves' disease is an autoimmune disease that affects the (lymph/thyroid/adrenal) gland.

Answer: thyroid Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 14) Immunological attack on the islets of Langerhans resulting in the inability to produce insulin leads to type (I/II/IV) diabetes Mellitus.

Answer: I Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.17 15) Chronic granulomatous disease is a disorder of the (first/second/third) line of immune defense.

Answer: second Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18

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18.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast type I hypersensitivity with type IV hypersensitivity with respect to reaction time, mediators, and cells involved.

Answer: Type I (immediate) hypersensitivity is very quick. The reaction time can be seconds to minutes after exposure to the allergen. This type of hypersensitivity starts with a prior sensitization to the allergen during which IgE specific for the allergen is produced. The IgE that is made binds to mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils. The response can be either local or systemic and is due to a subsequent exposure to the allergen. Upon subsequent exposure, the allergen binds to the IgE on mast cells, basophils, and eosinophils, causing them to degranulate and release a variety of inflammatory molecules, including histamines, kinins, proteases, leukotrienes, and prostaglandins.

Type IV (delayed or cell-mediated) hypersensitivity has a much slower reaction time. It takes 1224 hours to start developing. Antigen does not bind to antibody; it binds to antigen-presenting cells and T cells. As with type I, a type IV response is due to a prior exposure, but in the case of the type IV hypersensitivity, memory T cells are produced. In both type I and type IV hypersensitivities, inflammation is a common result.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.1, 18.2, 18.12 2) In the wake of the Ebola outbreak in West Africa in 2014-2016, researchers observed infectious Ebola virus is present in the eyes and semen of infected individuals months after apparent recovery from the acute stage of the disease. Based on information in this chapter, propose an explanation for this observation.

Answer: The eyes and testes are "hidden" sites which T cells do not normally enter. Virus infections are most effectively cleared by cell-mediated responses. CTL against Ebola virus cannot enter these areas under normal circumstances to attack infected cells, so the virus is not cleared from these organs.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Autoimmune Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.16 3) A patient arrives at a hospital suffering from serious difficulty breathing and shortness of breath. Initial tests indicate none of the standard respiratory infectious agents are present. The physician suspects an immune disorder. What clinical indicators would distinguish between asthma, pneumonitis and Pneumocystis pneumonia?

Answer: Asthma would produce high levels of histamines and leukotrienes, resulting in production of excess mucus in the trachea and bronchi and constriction of the bronchi. High antibody titers and low levels of complement proteins along with generalized inflammation of the lung tissue would indicate pneumonitis. CD4 T cell counts of less than 200/microliter of blood is consistent with Pneumocystis pneumonia.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.9, 18.20 17 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

4) One of the important inherited defects in the second line of immune defense is a condition called chronic granulomatous disease. What is this disease, and how is it caused?

Answer: Chronic granulomatous disease is a type of primary immunodeficiency. It is an inherited condition seen in children who have recurrent infections, especially with bacteria. It is due to the inability of phagocytes to produce reactive forms of oxygen and therefore fail to kill ingested bacteria. A CBC would have normal levels of lymphocytes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Immunodeficiency Diseases Learning Outcome: 18.18 5) Describe the tuberculin response and identify the type of response involved.

Answer: The tuberculin response is a type of delayed hypersensitivity reaction. It is used to diagnose contact with antigens from Mycobacterium tuberculosis. When tuberculin is injected into the skin of an individual who has never contracted tuberculosis and has never received the tuberculosis vaccine, no response occurs. If the patient has been exposed to tuberculin antigen by infection or prior vaccination, a red swelling develops at the site of injection. This reaction is considered a positive tuberculin response.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hypersensitivities Learning Outcome: 18.13

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 19 Pathogenic Gram-Positive Bacteria 19.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The presence of can be used to distinguish Staphylococcus from other Grampositive cocci.

A) enterotoxins B) catalase enzyme C) protein M D) kinases E) hemolysins Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Staphylococcus Learning Outcome: 19.1 2) Which of the following is a feature shared by Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis?

A) slime layer (capsule) B) protein A C) coagulase D) staphylokinase E) hyaluronidase Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Staphylococcus Learning Outcome: 19.1 3) What is one virulence factor that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from other species of staphylococci?

A) It has a capsule.

B) It can produce coagulase.

C) It produces catalase.

D) It can live on the surface of the skin and in cutaneous oil glands.

E) It produces lipase.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Staphylococcus Learning Outcome: 19.6

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4) Over 90% of Staphylococcus aureus isolates are penicillin-resistant. Why? A) They have loosely organized polysaccharide slime layers which protects their cell wall.

B) They produce coagulase.

C) They have a coating of protein A. D) They produce β-lactamase.

E) They produce staphylokinase.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Staphylococcus Learning Outcome: 19.7 5) A woman comes to the emergency department with fever and vomiting. She soon develops a red rash all over her body, and her blood pressure begins to drop. What is a likely diagnosis?

A) erysipelas B) endocarditis C) scarlet fever D) toxic shock syndrome E) staphylococcal food poisoning Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Staphylococcus Learning Outcome: 19.5 6) Bacteria collected from a severely inflamed wound are sent to the lab for analysis. The results come back as follows: Gram-positive cocci in irregular clusters, kinase and coagulase positive, and able to grow in the presence of most antibiotics except vancomycin. The bacteria in the wound are most likely A) Enterococcus.

B) Staphylococcus epidermidis.

C) Staphylococcus aureus.

D) methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA).

E) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A streptococcus).

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Staphylococcus Learning Outcome: 19.5, 19.7 7) Streptococci are frequently classified by A) Lancefield antigen designations.

B) the type of enzymes the bacteria produce.

C) their staining properties.

D) their ability to produce a capsule.

E) the diseases they produce.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.8 2 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) How do group A streptococci camouflage themselves from white blood cells?

A) They produce coagulase, allowing the bacteria to hide within blood clots.

B) They grow in chains or pairs.

C) They produce streptokinase, which breaks down blood clots.

D) They have hyaluronic acid capsules.

E) They have a coating of protein M. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.9 9) Which of the following diseases is considered an autoimmune disease triggered by bacterial infection?

A) glomerulonephritis caused by the group A streptococci B) scarlet fever C) rheumatic fever D) impetigo E) toxic shock syndrome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.11 10) Which of the following statements about "flesh-eating" streptococci is FALSE? A) It is caused by a group A streptococcus.

B) It is also known as necrotizing fasciitis because it travels along the fascia.

C) It causes death in over 50% of cases.

D) It is considered a common complication of pyoderma.

E) It involves toxemia.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.11 11) Streptococcus agalactiae is associated with which of the following diseases?

A) neonatal bacteremia B) neonatal meningitis C) neonatal pneumonia D) both neonatal bacteremia and neonatal meningitis E) neonatal bacteremia, neonatal meningitis, and neonatal pneumonia Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.14

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12) Which of the following statements regarding Streptococcus pyogenes is FALSE? A) It produces protein A, which inhibits opsonization.

B) It is beta-hemolytic.

C) It has group A Lancefield antigens.

D) It produces streptolysins.

E) It can be lysogenized by a temperate bacteriophage to produce erythrogenic toxins.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.9, 19.10 13) What differentiates virulent strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae from non-virulent strains?

A) the species-specific teichoic acid present in its cell wall B) the type of Lancefield antigen it produces C) the presence of a polysaccharide capsule D) the type of toxins it produces E) the extent of the hemolytic zone it produces when it is grown on blood agar Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.17 14) Untreated streptococcal pharyngitis may progress to A) scarlet fever.

B) necrotizing fasciitis.

C) rheumatic fever.

D) scarlet fever or necrotizing fasciitis.

E) scarlet fever or rheumatic fever.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.11 15) The Quellung reaction is a test to detect A) hemolysins.

B) kinases.

C) pyrogens.

D) capsule antigens.

E) protein M. Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.19

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16) Otitis media may lead to dangerous meningitis in children due to infection with A) Streptococcus agalactiae.

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae.

C) Streptococcus mutans.

D) Enterococcus.

E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.18 17) Which of the following staphylococcal virulence factors produce the signs and symptoms of scalded skin syndrome?

A) hyaluronidase B) staphylokinase C) exfoliative toxin D) leukocidin E) coagulase Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staphylococcus Learning Outcome: 19.2 18) During a stay in the hospital, an accident victim develops symptoms of bacteremia. A blood sample shows the presence of Gram-positive cocci in pairs. Lab tests determine that the bacteria are non-hemolytic and bile salt tolerant. The bacteremia is likely due to A) Enterococcus.

B) Mycoplasma.

C) Staphylococcus.

D) Streptococcus.

E) Listeria.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Enterococcus Learning Outcome: 19.20 19) Which of the following streptococci is associated with dental caries?

A) viridans streptococci B) Streptococcus pyogenes C) Streptococcus pneumoniae D) Streptococcus equisimilis E) Streptococcus arginosus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.16 5 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

20) Anthrax, which means "charcoal" in Greek, derives its name from A) the airborne endospores it produces.

B) the staining properties of the bacillus under the microscope.

C) the black eschars it produces on human skin.

D) its ability to invade the bloodstream and produce toxemia.

E) the high mortality it causes in infected individuals.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Bacillus Learning Outcome: 19.23 21) Which of the following statements about Bacillus anthracis is FALSE? A) It is primarily a disease of humans.

B) It produces endospores.

C) It has a capsule.

D) It normally dwells in the soil and can survive in the environment for centuries or longer.

E) It can be lethal even after treatment because antimicrobial drugs do not inactivate accumulated anthrax toxin.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Bacillus Learning Outcome: 19.21 22) Which of the following bacteria produce one of the deadliest bacterial toxins known?

A) Clostridium perfringens B) Clostridium difficile C) Clostridium tetani D) Clostridium botulinum E) Corynebacterium species Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.28 23) Which of the following bacteria can cause life-threatening pseudomembranous colitis?

A) Clostridium difficile B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Streptococcus pyogenes D) Enterococcus species E) Clostridium botulinum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.26

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24) How does the toxin from Clostridium tetani produce its action?

A) It fuses irreversibly to neurons, blocking release of acetylcholine at synaptic clefts.

B) The smaller polypeptide of its toxin can block the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters by inhibitory neurons in the central nervous system.

C) It is a pyrogenic toxin, which triggers a diffused rash and, later, sloughing of skin.

D) It destroys tissues, including muscle and fat.

E) Antibodies to the toxin bind the neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscle preventing relaxation.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.31 25) Which of the following statements concerning tetanus is FALSE? A) Its only source is from deep puncture wounds from rusty nails.

B) Its toxin causes simultaneous contraction of both muscles in an antagonistic pair.

C) It is a small, motile, obligate anaerobe.

D) It produces a terminal endospore that gives the cell a distinctive "lollipop" appearance.

E) Its diagnostic feature is characteristic muscle contractions, which are often noted too late to save the patient.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.31 26) Listeria virulence is directly related to its ability to A) produce powerful toxins.

B) form very resistant endospores.

C) live within cells and thus avoid exposure to the immune system of its host.

D) move rapidly through the body using multiple flagella.

E) resist most antimicrobial agents.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Listeria Learning Outcome: 19.35 27) Which of the following bacteria divide by "snapping division" in which daughter cells remain attached in characteristic V-shapes?

A) staphylococci B) enterococci C) Corynebacterium D) Listeria E) Mycobacterium Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Corynebacterium Learning Outcome: 19.43 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) Treatment of infection with Clostridium tetani includes cleaning the wound, antimicrobials and A) active immunization.

B) passive immunization.

C) blood transfusions.

D) both active and passive immunization.

E) both passive immunization and blood transfusions.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Corynebacterium Learning Outcome: 19.32 29) Members of the genus Mycoplasma are pleomorphic and stain Gram-negative because they A) lack cell walls.

B) have sterols in their cytoplasmic membranes.

C) lack cytoplasmic membranes.

D) have mycolic acid in their cell walls.

E) have a rudimentary cell wall.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mycoplasmas Learning Outcome: 19.38 30) The pathogenicity of primary tuberculosis is due to the fact that the mycobacteria A) are not phagocytized.

B) prevent fusion of lysosomes with vesicles.

C) form a pseudomembrane.

D) destroy helper T cells.

E) are carried by macrophages to a variety of sites.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mycobacterium Learning Outcome: 19.48 31) A sample of fluid from the lungs contains microbes that grow in filaments or clumps. The cells stain poorly in the Gram stain and are a pink-red when acid-fast stained. The bacteria in the sample are A) Mycobacterium species.

B) Mycoplasma species.

C) Corynebacterium species.

D) Actinomyces species.

E) not identifiable with this information.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Mycobacterium Learning Outcome: 19.48 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) Which of the following medications is/are specific treatments for infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?

A) methicillin B) isoniazid C) vancomycin D) clindamycin E) methicillin and clindamycin Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mycobacterium Learning Outcome: 19.49 33) A lab report on a respiratory patient's sample contains the notation MDR-TB. What does this mean?

A) The two standard drugs for TB, isoniazid and rifampin, are not effective.

B) The patient has a mild case of TB. C) There are almost no drugs that will treat the infection.

D) Most standard drugs for treatment of TB are recommended.

E) The bacteria responsible for the infection are moderately resistant to isoniazid and rifampin.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Mycobacterium Learning Outcome: 19.50 34) What is the most common disease caused by Propionibacterium?

A) acne B) food poisoning C) pneumonitis D) folliculitis E) a sty Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Propionibacterium Learning Outcome: 19.55 35) Mycetoma, which is a painless long-lasting infection characterized by swelling, pus production, and draining sores, is commonly caused by A) systemic tuberculosis.

B) Nocardia.

C) Actinomyces.

D) penicillin-resistant staphylococci.

E) cutaneous anthrax.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Nocardia and Actinomyces Learning Outcome: 19.56 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) The skin lesions characteristic of cutaneous infections with Bacillus anthracis are A) eschars.

B) acne.

C) impetigo.

D) scarlatina.

E) pus-filled ulcers.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Bacillus Learning Outcome: 19.24 37) An opportunistic pathogen frequently seen in AIDS patients, various organs.

A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis B) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare C) Mycobacterium leprae D) Mycobacterium bovis E) Mycobacterium ulcerans Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mycobacterium Learning Outcome: 19.53

spreads rapidly to

38) Enterococcus faecalis bacteria can be distinguished from other Gram-positive cocci because enterococci A) have a glycocalyx.

B) produce catalase enzyme.

C) produce hemolysins.

D) can grow in the presence of bile.

E) are highly sensitive to antibiotics.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enterococcus Learning Outcome: 19.20 39) Strep throat may progress to swollen tongue.

A) pyoderma B) toxic shock syndrome C) scarlet fever D) rheumatic fever E) scalded skin syndrome Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.11

, characterized by a skin rash and a bright red

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40) Increased sebum secretion can fuel the overgrowth of the opportunistic pathogen in its normal habitat, leading to disease.

A) Propionibacterium acnes B) Streptococcus agalactiae C) viridians streptococci D) Mycoplasma pneumoniae E) Actinomyces Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Propionibacterium Learning Outcome: 19.55 41) Immunization for may reduce the incidence of otitis media and sinusitis.

A) Mycoplasma pneumoniae B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis C) Propionibacterium acnes D) Corynebacterium diphtheriae E) Streptococcus pneumoniae Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.19 42) Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes respiratory disease by A) infecting and killing alveolar macrophages.

B) triggering inflammatory mediator release.

C) attaching to and ultimately killing the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.

D) paralyzing the respiratory muscles.

E) killing the epithelial cells of the alveoli.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mycoplasmas Learning Outcome: 19.40 43) Which of the following is a key diagnostic indicator of infection with Mycobacterium leprae?

A) blister-like lesions B) a distinctive red rash that lasts for days C) pus-filled abscesses D) localized loss of the sense of touch E) severe inflammation with swelling Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mycobacterium Learning Outcome: 19.52 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

44) Painful swelling, partly due to accumulation of gas, and rapidly spreading subcutaneous tissue necrosis is characteristic of a wound infection by A) Clostridium perfringens.

B) Clostridium tetani.

C) Mycobacterium leprae.

D) Bacillus anthracis.

E) Streptococcus pyogenes.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.34 45) Eating food contaminated with A) Mycoplasma hominis B) Staphylococcus aureus C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Clostridium perfringens E) Enterococcus faecalis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Listeria Learning Outcome: 19.36

may result in meningitis in at-risk persons.

19.2 True/False Questions 1) Staphylococcus aureus food poisoning is long-lasting because ingested bacteria produce enterotoxins in the digestive system.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staphylococcus Learning Outcome: 19.3 2) Infection in the bloodstream with Staphylococcus species can result in heart damage.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staphylococcus Learning Outcome: 19.5 3) Staphylococcus aureus can produce a toxin that dissolves the desmosomes that hold the adjoining cytoplasmic membranes of cells together and causes the patient's skin cells to separate.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Staphylococcus Learning Outcome: 19.2

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4) A person comes into the clinic with a wound that is severely inflamed, very painful, and turning black and "bubbly." The diagnosis is leprosy.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.27 5) Group A streptococci are considered more virulent if their cytoplasmic membrane contains M protein.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.9 6) Group B streptococci only causes disease in infants.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.14 7) The respiratory infection known as primary atypical pneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma pneumoniae.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mycoplasmas Learning Outcome: 19.40 8) The primary reservoir of anthrax is herbivores.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Bacillus Learning Outcome: 19.22 9) Adult food-borne botulism can be prevented by thoroughly cooking food (minimum 80°C for 20 minutes) before it is eaten.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.30 10) Mycobacterium tuberculosis is able to persist and be spread in aerosols due to its ability to produce endospores.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mycobacterium Learning Outcome: 19.46 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

19.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A "summer cold" that lasts for weeks and is characterized by sore throat, mild fever, dry cough, and malaise may be (pneumococcal/staphylococcal/walking) pneumonia.

Answer: walking Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Mycoplasmas Learning Outcome: 19.40 2) The primary treatment for food-borne botulism is (antibiotics/antitoxin/muscle relaxants).

Answer: antitoxin Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.30 3) In its role in the development of acne, (Propionibacterium/Staphylococcus/Actinomyces) typically grows in sebaceous glands of the skin.

Answer: Propionibacterium Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Propionibacterium Learning Outcome: 19.55 4) Mycobacterium leprae infects (epithelial/macrophage/skin) cells.

Answer: skin Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mycobacterium Learning Outcome: 19.51 5) In countries where tuberculosis is common, people are vaccinated with (BCG/INH/MDRTB), which contains attenuated Mycobacterium bovis bacteria.

Answer: BCG Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mycobacterium Learning Outcome: 19.49 6) Infection with Corynebacterium diphtheriae leads to the formation of (eschars/pseudomembranes/tubercles) which can severely impair respiratory function.

Answer: pseudomembranes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Corynebacterium Learning Outcome: 19.44

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7) Mycoplasma is classified as a member of the Firmicutes in spite of the observation that it stains (acid-fast/Gram-positive/Gram-negative).

Answer: Gram-negative Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Mycoplasmas Learning Outcome: 19.38 8) Food can be treated with (antibiotics/bacteriophage/probiotics) to prevent listeriosis.

Answer: bacteriophage Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Listeria Learning Outcome: 19.36 9) The neurotoxins of Clostridium botulinum produce (flaccid/intermittent/tetanic) paralysis by preventing muscle contraction.

Answer: flaccid Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.28 10) Bacterial food poisoning resulting from Clostridium (botulinum/difficile/perfringens) contamination is characterized by watery diarrhea accompanied by intestinal cramping but not fever, and it resolves in about a day.

Answer: perfringens Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.34 11) Members of the genus (Bacillus/Enterococcus/Mycobacterium) are part of the normal microbiota of humans.

Answer: Enterococcus Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enterococcus Learning Outcome: 19.20 12) The bacterium Clostridium (botulinum/difficile/perfringens) is an opportunistic pathogen that can cause a severe, potentially fatal diarrhea.

Answer: difficile Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.27 13) Group B strep (GBS) is also known as Streptococcus (agalactiae/mutans/pyogenes).

Answer: agalactiae Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.13 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

14) When streptococcal infections involve the skin and surrounding lymph nodes, triggering pain and inflammation, the condition is known as (erysipelas/folliculitis/pyoderma).

Answer: erysipelas Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.11 15) The ability to produce (hyaluronidase/lipase/proteases) enables Staphylococcus aureus to penetrate and spread through tissues.

Answer: hyaluronidase Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Staphylococcus Learning Outcome: 19.2 19.4 Essay Questions 1) A large number of patrons of a restaurant in a large city develop symptoms of food poisoning. Officials collect several foods that are suspected in the episode. Which of the Grampositive bacteria in this chapter may be responsible for the food poisoning? How do health officials determine which bacterium is the culprit?

Answer: Possible causative agents include Staphylococcus aureus, Clostridium perfringens, and Listeria monocytogenes. The symptoms are different with the different bacteria. S. aureus food poisoning starts about 4 hours with nausea, diarrhea, severe cramping and vomiting, and lasts about 24 hours. C. perfringens food poisoning is less severe with cramping and watery diarrhea but no nausea, vomiting or fever, and lasts less than 24 hours. Listeria monocytogenes causes mild symptoms of sore throat and low-grade fever with little to no intestinal distress.

However, it is the most serious of the three because it is an infection, not an intoxication (and technically not food poisoning in the most literal sense). Listeriosis can lead to far more serious disease in pregnant women and people with reduced immune function.

Bacteria are not always detected in contaminated food, but if present can be distinguished by Gram staining. S. aureus are cocci in irregular clusters C. perfringens are large nearly rectangular bacilli (endospores may be present) and are usually present in large numbers in cases of food poisoning. L. monocytogenes are smaller bacilli with no endospores, and can be recovered by cold enrichment culturing.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Listeria Learning Outcome: 19.3, 19.33, 19.36

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2) A throat swab is taken from a patient with a respiratory infection. After 24 hours, 1- to 3-mm colonies develop, which are round, mucoid, non-pigmented, and dimpled in the middle. What is the most likely pathogen, and how could you confirm the diagnosis on the culture?

Answer: The colonies described are characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae. Diagnosis of this pathogen is confirmed if they are alpha-hemolytic on blood agar when grown aerobically and beta-hemolytic when grown anaerobically. Pneumococcal colonies can be differentiated from other colonies of alpha-hemolytic strains by adding a drop of bile to a colony. The bile triggers chemicals in S. pneumoniae that lyse the cells. The colony dissolves in a few minutes, confirming that they are pneumococcal colonies. Diagnosis can also be made on uncultured samples using the Quellung reaction in which antibodies specific for the capsule carbohydrates causes the capsule to swell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Streptococcus Learning Outcome: 19.19 3) Compare and contrast the pathogenicity of Clostridium botulinum and Clostridium tetani, including mechanisms of action of their toxins and disease manifestations.

Answer: Both bacteria are anaerobic, endospore-formers that produce neurotoxins. Disease results when the endospores are introduced deep into the tissues. Both neurotoxins interfere with motor control.

Botulism toxin, produced by C. botulinum, binds the cytoplasmic membranes of motor neurons at the synapse and prevents the release of acetylcholine neurotransmitter and, consequently, prevents signaling to muscle cells. When muscle cells do not receive signals from motor neurons, they remain relaxed, resulting in a flaccid paralysis. Lack of motor control produces a long list of symptoms, the most serious of which is respiratory failure, because respiratory muscles can be affected by botulism toxin.

Tetanus toxin, produced by C. tetani, targets inhibitory neurons, which release neurotransmitters that prevents muscle cells from responding to acetylcholine stimulation to contract. Under normal circumstances, when one muscle of an antagonistic pair is stimulated to contract, the other muscle is inhibited from contracting, allowing for normal movement by alternate flexion and extension. When tetanus toxin blocks the release of inhibitory neurotransmitter, both muscles of the antagonistic pair contract spasmodically and sometimes lock in continuous contraction, resulting in nonflaccid paralysis. Loss of control of the respiratory muscles can lead to respiratory failure. Tetanus toxin can also interfere with autonomic (involuntary) muscle control, which may result in irregular heartbeat and possibly heart failure.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.25, 19.28, 19.32

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4) Mycobacterium leprae infections manifest in two different forms in a patient. What are these? What determines which form the patient will develop?

Answer: Mycobacterium leprae produces a disease known as leprosy in susceptible patients.

The symptoms of the disease depend on the patient's cell-mediated immune response. In patients with a strong cell-mediated immune response, the patient is able to kill cells infected with the bacteria. In these individuals, the disease manifests as a non-progressive form of the disease called tuberculoid leprosy. The bacteria cause nerve damage that leads to loss of sensation in regions of skin. In patients with weak cell-mediated immunity, the bacteria multiply in the skin and nerves and gradually lead to progressive loss of facial features, digits, and other body structures. This form of the disease is known as lepromatous leprosy.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Mycobacterium Learning Outcome: 19.51 5) Would Clostridium botulinum be a good microorganism to use for biological warfare?

Explain.

Answer: Clostridium botulinum is an anaerobic, endospore-forming, Gram-positive bacillus that is common in soil and water. Its endospores survive improper canning of food. In canned food, they germinate and produce neurotoxins. Heating the food can inactivate the neurotoxins if the temperature is high enough for long enough (80°C for 20 minutes). If the contaminated canned food is ingested unheated, it produces a disease known as botulism. The botulism toxins bind irreversibly to neuronal cytoplasmic membranes and prevent the release of acetylcholine in the neuromuscular junction clefts. This leads to flaccid paralysis of the muscles affected.

Eventually, the paralysis affects the diaphragm and leads to death due to respiratory failure.

Scientists consider botulism toxin one of the deadliest toxins in the world. Even a small taste of contaminated food can cause full-blown disease and death. Therefore, a small amount of this toxin could wipe out large populations and would be ideal for biological warfare. Even when a person survives, recovery occurs slowly over several months.

Conclusion: botulinum toxin or C. botulinum endospores could be used as biological weapons if distributed properly.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Clostridium Learning Outcome: 19.28, 19.30

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 20 Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci and Bacilli 20.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following are virulence factors contributing the pathogenicity of Neisseria species?

A) hemolysin B) fimbriae C) a capsule D) exotoxins E) both a capsule and fimbriae Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.1 2) Lipid A causes which of the following symptoms?

A) hemorrhaging B) fever C) disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) D) fever and disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) E) fever and hemorrhaging Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.1 3) Neisseria gonorrhoeae infection in men is A) usually asymptomatic.

B) only symptomatic in advanced stages of disease.

C) an acute painful infection with pus discharge.

D) symptomatic in about 50% of the population, causing mild urethritis.

E) usually a bladder infection.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.2

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4) Which of the following statements about Neisseria gonorrhoeae is FALSE? A) It causes disease in humans only.

B) The gonococci stick to epithelial cells via fimbriae and capsules.

C) The gonococci secrete a protease that destroys secretory IgA. D) The gonococci induce lasting immunity.

E) Infected women are often asymptomatic.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.3 5) Among the areas of the female genital tract, which of the following is NOT colonized by Neisseria gonorrhoeae?

A) the vagina B) the cervix C) the uterus D) the Fallopian tubes E) the pelvic organs Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.2 6) The major damage caused by Neisseria meningitidis is a result of A) its invasion into the central nervous system.

B) its presence in the respiratory tract of 40% of healthy individuals.

C) its ability to be transmitted by droplets among people who live in close contact.

D) the release of lipid A into the tissues, triggering severe inflammation and DIC. E) the fact that it can survive in cells after phagocytosis.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.4 7) Which of the following is diagnostic for Neisseria meningitidis?

A) the presence of Gram-negative diplococci in CSF phagocytes B) a catalase positive reaction C) the presence of lipid A D) the lack of lipooligosaccharide E) the presence of white blood cells in the CSF Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.4

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8) Members of the Enterobacteriaceae can be distinguished from each other by A) the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase.

B) the ability to ferment lactose.

C) motility.

D) both motility and the presence or absence of the enzyme oxidase.

E) both motility and the ability to ferment lactose.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.7 9) What virulence factor(s) do all Gram-negative bacteria share?

A) proteases that destroy IgA antibodies B) fimbriae C) lipid A D) a glycocalyx E) both fimbriae and a glycocalyx Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.1 10) Which of the following statements regarding Neisseria meningitidis is FALSE? A) There are vaccines available to prevent infection with all strains.

B) Up to 40% of the population are carriers.

C) Humans are the only natural carriers.

D) Transmission is via respiratory droplets.

E) It often causes meningitis.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.5 11) A lung specimen from a pneumonia patient contains Gram-negative bacilli. Laboratory test results on the bacteria show they are non-motile coliforms with a thick capsule. Which pathogen is the likely cause of the pneumonia?

A) Escherichia coli B) Enterobacter C) Hafnia D) Klebsiella E) Serratia Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.9

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12) Which of the following coliforms is the most common cause of non-nosocomial urinary tract infections?

A) Escherichia coli B) Serratia marcescens C) Proteus mirabilis D) Klebsiella pneumoniae E) Enterobacter Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.10 13) What biochemical test is used to distinguish between the Enterobacteriaceae and the Pasteurellaceae?

A) lactose fermentation B) oxidase test C) motility D) pigment production E) Gram stain Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.6 14) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; rapid lactose fermenters B) non-coliform opportunistic Enterobacteriaceae; Proteus, Morganella C) coliform Enterobacteriaceae; opportunistic pathogens D) non-pathogenic Enterobacteriaceae; Salmonella, Shigella E) non-coliform Enterobacteriaceae; non-lactose-fermenters Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.14 15) A virulence factor common to many members of the Enterobacteriaceae which permits them to deliver harmful proteins directly to cells is A) fimbriae.

B) a glycocalyx.

C) type III secretion system.

D) pili.

E) porins.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.8 4 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

16) Salmonella and Shigella, both causes of diarrhea, can be distinguished by which of the following tests?

A) lactose fermentation B) oxidase test C) hydrogen sulfide (H2S) production D) urease test E) pigment production Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.15 17) What is the causative pathogen for bubonic and pneumonic plague?

A) Yersinia pestis B) Yersinia enterocolitica C) Yersinia pseudotuberculosis D) Salmonella enterica E) Salmonella flexneri Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.16 18) Which of the following bacteria requires heme for its growth?

A) Salmonella B) Shigella C) Yersinia D) Haemophilus E) Bordetella Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.17 19) Members of the genus may cause epiglottitis and middle ear infections.

A) Pasteurella B) Haemophilus C) Salmonella D) Enterobacter E) Yersina Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.18

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20) Which of the following statements concerning Pasteurella is FALSE? A) It is oxidase positive.

B) It is non-motile.

C) Humans are typically infected via animal bites.

D) It is fastidious in its growth and must be cultivated on blood or chocolate agar.

E) It is very resistant to a wide variety of antibacterial drugs including fluoroquinolones.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.17 21) Cat scratch disease is caused by A) Bartonella bacilliformis.

B) Bartonella henselae.

C) Bartonella quintana.

D) Bartonella peliosis.

E) Bartonella angiomatosis.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.19 22) Bordetella pertussis causes disease by A) the development of pneumonia.

B) interfering with the action of the ciliated epithelial cells of the trachea.

C) suppressing the production of mucus by the respiratory lining.

D) forming a pseudomembrane that obstructs the larynx.

E) irritating the diaphragm, which leads to severe coughing attacks.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.21 23) Bordetella pertussis causes a disease commonly called A) cat scratch disease.

B) epiglottitis.

C) otitis media.

D) whooping cough.

E) pneumonic plague.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.22

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24) Which of the following diseases can be prevented by vaccination?

A) typhoid fever B) salmonellosis C) cat scratch disease D) gonorrhea E) chancroid Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.14 25) Legionnaires' disease can be diagnosed by A) the microbe's characteristic growth on common laboratory media.

B) the microbe's staining properties under the microscope.

C) fluorescent antibody tests.

D) the clinical symptoms in infected patients.

E) the microbe's sensitivity to all antimicrobial agents.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.30 26) Consuming unpasteurized dairy products may result in infection with A) Coxiella species.

B) Brucella species.

C) Bordetella pertussis.

D) Bartonella quintana.

E) Pasteurella species.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.20 27) What is the causative pathogen of Q fever?

A) Bacteroides fragilis B) Prevotella C) Coxiella burnetii D) Moraxella catarrhalis E) Acinetobacter Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.32

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28) How do Prevotella differ from Bacteroides?

A) Prevotella are sensitive to bile.

B) Prevotella are anaerobic.

C) Prevotella are pleomorphic bacilli.

D) Prevotella are found in the intestinal, respiratory, and urinary tracts.

E) Prevotella possess antiphagocytic capsules.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.33 29) Which of the following toxins produced by Bordetella pertussis results in the accumulation of excess mucus in the trachea?

A) pertussis toxin B) adenylate cyclase toxin C) tracheal cytotoxin D) both adenylate cyclase toxin and tracheal cytotoxin E) both pertussis toxin and adenylate cyclase toxin Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.21 30) Hemolytic uremic syndrome is caused by A) Escherichia coli O157:H7.

B) Serratia marcescens.

C) Proteus mirabilis.

D) Bacteroides fragilis.

E) Salmonella typhi.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.11 31) A cystic fibrosis patient develops a severe respiratory infection that resists treatment with standard antibiotics. A specimen from the lungs is greenish in color and contains aerobic motile Gram-negative bacilli. The bacteria are oxidase positive. The patient is probably infected with A) Bordetella pertussis.

B) Burkholderia cepacia.

C) Klebsiella pneumoniae.

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

E) Serratia marcescens.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.26 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) What is the characteristic lesion of Yersinia pestis?

A) a bubo B) a chancroid C) a soft chancre D) petechiae E) oozing abscesses in the intestinal wall Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.16 33) What is the antimicrobial agent of choice for treating Bacteroides infections?

A) erythromycin B) tetracycline C) metronidazole D) cephalosporin E) bacitracin Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.33 34) Important members of the intestinal microbiota are the strictly anaerobic A) Enterobacter.

B) Bacteroides.

C) Pseudomonas.

D) Bordetella.

E) Legionella.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.33

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35)

The growth pattern in Figure 20.1 is characteristic of which organism?

A) Klebsiella B) Proteus C) Pseudomonas D) Salmonella E) Shigella Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.12 36) How is pneumonic plague transmitted?

A) inhalation of respiratory aerosols from a person infected with Yersinia pestis B) bite of a flea carrying Yersinia pestis C) fomite contact D) contact with the blood of a person infected with Yersinia pestis E) bite of a tick carrying Yersinia pestis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.16

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37) Newborns exposed to Neisseria gonorrhoeae may develop A) a bubo.

B) meningitis.

C) an eschar.

D) ophthalmia neonatorum.

E) petechiae.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.2 38) Urinary tract infections with are frequently complicated by the formation of kidney stones.

A) Escherichia coli B) Bacteroides species C) Proteus mirabilis D) Klebsiella pneumoniae E) Salmonella species Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.13 39) Infection with usually produces acute upper respiratory disease but may cause meningitis in infants 3-18 months old.

A) Klebsiella pneumoniae B) Francisella tularensis C) Coxiella burnetii D) Haemophilus influenzae E) Hafnia species Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.18 40) Undiagnosed or untreated infections with Neisseria gonorrhoeae can progress to A) bubonic plague.

B) meningococcal meningitis.

C) trench fever.

D) pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

E) Q fever.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.2

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41) Which of the following is the result of inhalation of aerosols of fresh water containing a bacterial parasite of protozoa?

A) acute bacterial meningitis B) meningococcal meningitis C) Q fever D) pertussis E) Legionnaires' disease Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.29 42) Which of the following diseases is transmitted by the bite of human body lice?

A) bubonic plague B) tularemia C) Pontiac fever D) trench fever E) brucellosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.19 43) Inhaling aerosols of dried bodily fluids from infected animals may result in A) tularemia.

B) salmonellosis.

C) Q fever.

D) hemolytic uremic syndrome.

E) both tularemia and Q fever.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.27, 20.32 44) Humans infected with Brucella species develop sweating, muscle aches, and headache.

A) rabbit fever B) undulant fever C) trench fever D) Q fever E) cat scratch fever Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.20

characterized by fever, chills,

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45) Aerobic bacteria in the genus are metabolically diverse soil-dwellers which also cause opportunistic disease in cystic fibrosis patients.

A) Burkholderia B) Coxiella C) Enterobacter D) Prevotella E) Hafnia Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.23 20.2 True/False Questions 1) Serratia marcescens can be identified by its distinctive blue-green pigment pyocyanin.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.10 2) Humans are the sole hosts of Salmonella enterica subtype Typhi (formerly S. typhi).

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.14 3) Lipid A causes disseminated intravenous coagulation (DIC).

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.1 4) Enterobacteriaceae are rarely pathogenic.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.8 5) Gonococcal infections result in lifelong immunity against Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.3

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6) After a week of asymptomatic infection with Bordetella pertussis, the patient has cold-like (catarrhal) symptoms for a week or two followed by a period of severe paroxysmal episodes of coughing that leave the patient anoxic and fatigued.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.22 7) Shiga toxin kills cells by preventing protein synthesis.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.15 8) Salmonellosis is acquired by inhalation.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.15 9) Haemophilus ducreyi is transmitted by sexual contact.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.18 10) Pseudomonas aeruginosa has no virulence factors and therefore never causes disease.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.26 11) Coxiella burnetii is transmitted to humans mainly via the bite of infected tick vectors.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.32 12) Neisseria meningitidis is able to survive inside macrophages and be transported throughout the body in them.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.4

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20.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Coliforms are distinguished from non-coliforms by their ability to ferment (glucose/citrate/lactose).

Answer: lactose Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.12 2) Neisseria species can be cultured in the lab using (bile-esculin/chocolate/MacConkey) agar.

Answer: chocolate Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.1 3) Because of the existence of (acute/asymptomatic/passive) carriers, the eradication of meningococcal disease is unlikely.

Answer: asymptomatic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Cocci: Neisseria Learning Outcome: 20.5 4) An effective vaccine is available to prevent (gonorrhea/salmonellosis/typhoid).

Answer: typhoid Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.15 5) Non-motile members of the Enterobacteriaceae lack (H/K/O) antigens.

Answer: H Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.7 6) When a UTI spreads to the kidneys it is called (cystitis/pyelonephritis/urethritis).

Answer: pyelonephritis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.9 7) The pleomorphic bacterium (Coxiella/Legionella/Francisella) is an intracellular parasite that can lead to respiratory disease when inhaled in aerosols from freshwater sources.

Answer: Legionella Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.30 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae often involves the destruction of (alveoli/macrophages/epithelium) and the production of bloody sputum.

Answer: alveoli Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.9 9) The true pathogen (Salmonella/Shigella/Yersinia) is a non-coliform, non-motile, oxidasenegative member of the Enterobacteriaceae that does not produce hydrogen sulfide.

Answer: Shigella Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.15 10) Members of the Enterobacteriaceae produce toxins known as (exotoxins/hemolysins/siderophores) which cause diarrhea.

Answer: exotoxins Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.8 11) Of the three diseases caused by Yersinia pestis, only (bubonic/black/pneumonic) plague is communicable between humans.

Answer: pneumonic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.16 12) Cat scratch disease is caused by Bartonella (bacilliformis/henselae/quintana).

Answer: henselae Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.19 13) The zoonosis (brucellosis/bartonellosis/tularemia) can be acquired by humans in a variety of ways, including insect bites and ingestion of infected animals.

Answer: tularemia Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.27 14) Bordetella pertussis produces (adenylate cyclase/dermonecrotic/pertussis) toxin which disrupts blood supply to respiratory tissues.

Answer: dermonecrotic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.21 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

15) People can reduce the chances of contracting rabbit fever by avoiding rabbits, muskrats, and (fleas/lice/ticks).

Answer: ticks Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.28 20.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast meningococcal meningitis and meningitis caused by Haemophilus, including etiologic agents, pathology, and epidemiology.

Answer: Both diseases are transmitted in aerosols or droplets of upper respiratory secretions and are potentially fatal. Both diseases are preventable by vaccination. Both pathogens are fastidious, growing primarily on chocolate agar plates, and are oxidase positive.

A previously common early childhood bacterial meningitis is caused by Haemophilus influenzae type-b, a facultatively anaerobic pleomorphic bacterium in the family Enterobacteriaceae. H. influenzae most commonly causes disease in children less than two years of age. H. influenzae has a capsule that makes it resistant to phagocytosis.

Meningococcal meningitis is caused by Neisseria meningitidis, a Gram-negative aerobic diplococcus. N. meningitidis often causes meningitis in young adults, although young children are also susceptible. N. meningitidis has a polysaccharide capsule that does not prevent phagocytosis but resists digestion once inside phagocytes. As a consequence, N. meningitidis becomes an intracellular parasite of phagocytes.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.5, 20.18 2) Why is treatment with antimicrobial drugs NOT encouraged in patients with diarrhea caused by enteric bacteria?

Answer: Antimicrobial treatment of enteric diarrhea can worsen the prognosis by killing many bacteria at once, releasing large amounts of lipid A. The release of lipid A from these bacteria causes fever, vasodilation, inflammation, shock, and DIC, potentially leading to death. In addition, the diarrhea is normally self-limiting, and the expulsion of the organisms from the body is often more effective than antimicrobial treatment.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.9

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3) Compare and contrast Yersinia pestis and Francisella tularensis with respect to clinical manifestations, mechanisms of transmission, reservoirs, and pathogenesis.

Answer: Yersinia pestis causes bubonic plague, characterized by enlarged, necrotic lymph nodes and high fever, often progressing to bacteremia and DIC. Francisella tularensis cause tularemia which causes fever, headache and muscle aches, sore throat and nausea. Both organisms can produce a pulmonary form of disease if the bacterium travels via the blood or aerosol to the respiratory tract. Yersinia can also be transmitted to the respiratory tract person to person if it is pneumonic while Francisella cannot. Francisella can establish an infection from skin contact and cause a skin ulcer at the site of the site of infection. Yersinia does not infect the skin.

Both organisms can be transmitted by an arthropod vector. For Y. pestis, the vector is usually a flea, whereas for F. tularensis, vectors can be flies, mosquitoes, mites, or ticks. Francisella can also be transmitted by contact with contaminated animals, by ingesting contaminated animals or water, or by inhaling aerosols. Yersinia can be transmitted by contact with an infected animal. Francisella has many hosts; rabbits, ticks, and muskrats are the most common reservoirs. Rodents are the most common reservoirs for Yersinia.

Yersinia is pathogenic by injecting deadly proteins into cells triggering apoptosis, whereas Francisella is an intracellular parasite that inhibits phagocytosis by an unknown mechanism.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Aerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.16, 20.27 4) How does Salmonella grow in host cells? How does it differ from Shigella?

Answer: Salmonella are usually ingested by way of contaminated food and drink. After the microbes pass through the stomach, they attach to the cells lining the small intestine. There the bacteria use the type III secretion system to insert proteins into the host cells, inducing normally nonphagocytic cells to phagocytize the bacteria. The bacteria reproduce within the phagocytic vessels and end up killing the host cells. Shigella enter similarly to Salmonella and attach to intestinal epithelial cells which endocytose the bacteria, but they reproduce within the cell's cytosol and can move directly from cell to cell.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.15

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5) Among the variety of virulence factors possessed by pathogenic enteric bacteria, which ones allow them to evade the immune surveillance of its host?

Answer: Most enteric bacteria have capsules which make them resistant to phagocytosis.

Most also possess a type III secretion system, which is a complex structure composed of 20 different polypeptides. Once assembled, the system spans the two membranes and peptidoglycan of the bacterial cell and inserts into the host's cytoplasmic membrane. This forms a channel through which bacterial proteins are introduced into the host cell. Because the bacteria synthesize type III systems only after they have contact with a host cell, the type III proteins are never exposed to leukocytes. This also helps these bacteria evade immune surveillance.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic, Gram-Negative, Facultatively Anaerobic Bacilli Learning Outcome: 20.8

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 21 Rickettsias, Chlamydias, Spirochetes, and Vibrios 21.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) is spread by A) body lice.

B) ticks.

C) mosquitoes.

D) fleas.

E) mites.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.1 2) The rash of spotted fever rickettsiosis is the result of A) damage to endothelial cells.

B) infection of skin cells.

C) allergic reaction to the vector.

D) production of a toxin that causes inflammation.

E) infection of sebaceous glands.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.2 3) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of the rickettsias?

A) presence of a lipopolysaccharide membrane B) not motile C) absence of peptidoglycan D) parasitic in cytosol E) aerobic Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.1

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4) What type of cell does Ehrlichia chaffeensis infect in humans?

A) capillary endothelial cells B) B lymphocytes C) neutrophils D) monocytes E) eosinophils Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.5 5) Which of the following is the CORRECT pairing of rickettsial pathogen and vector?

A) R. rickettsia; flea B) R. typhi; tick C) R. prowazekii; louse D) R. typhi; mite E) R. rickettsia; louse Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.1 6) Transovarian transmission is a process in which A) a pathogen infects the ovaries of the host.

B) a pathogen is transmitted to the host when the host ingests contaminated eggs.

C) an infected female vector transmits the pathogen to the eggs forming in its ovaries.

D) the pathogen is transmitted from an infected male to a healthy female during mating.

E) the pathogen is spread from one host to the next by unprotected sexual intercourse.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.1 7) Rickettsiosis is caused by Rickettsia rickettsii, a pathogen that A) produces powerful exotoxins.

B) provokes a severe immune response.

C) interferes with the host cell's Krebs cycle.

D) infects the lining of blood vessels and leads to leaking of plasma into tissue.

E) lyses the host's cells.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.2

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8) Red mites (chiggers) spread A) Borrelia recurrentis B) Orientia tsutsugamushi C) Rickettsia rickettsii D) Ehrlichia chaffeensis E) Rickettsia typhi Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.4

among both humans and rodents.

9) Infection with the intracellular parasite Orientia tsutsuganushi can result in A) endemic typhus.

B) epidemic typhus.

C) scrub typhus.

D) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) E) murine typhus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.4 10) Which of the following statements regarding Ehrlichia is FALSE? A) It usually causes a spotted rash similar to Rocky Mountain spotted fever.

B) The organism reproduces inside the host's phagosomes.

C) It is transmitted by ticks.

D) It is an emerging infectious disease.

E) It has three stages: elementary body, initial body, and morula.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.5 11) People bitten by the Lone Star tick (Amblyomma americanum) are at risk for exposure to which of the following rickettsias?

A) Rickettsia rickettsii B) Rickettsia typhi C) Ehrlichia chaffeensis D) Orientia tsutsugamushi E) Rickettsia prowazekii Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.5

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12) Which of the following diseases is considered an emerging disease because it was unknown before 1987?

A) anaplasmosis B) Brill-Zinsser disease C) murine typhus D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever E) lymphogranuloma venereum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.5 13) Which of the following microorganisms have been referred to as energy parasites?

A) rickettsias B) vibrios C) chlamydias D) spirochetes E) Borrelia Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.9 14) The actively replicating form of chlamydias are known as A) elementary bodies.

B) reticulate bodies.

C) inclusion bodies.

D) initial bodies.

E) morula.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.8 15) The intracellular parasite Anaplasma phagocytophilium infects A) endothelial cells.

B) red blood cells.

C) monocytes.

D) neutrophils.

E) epithelial cells.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.6

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16) Which of the following is the cause of the STD known as lymphogranuloma venereum?

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae B) Haemophilus ducreyi C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Treponema pallidum E) Chlamydophila psittaci Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.12 17) Which of the following is an intracellular parasite of humans that usually causes a mild pneumonia?

A) Anaplasma phagocytophilium B) Chlamydophila pneumoniae C) Chlamydophila psittaci D) Ehrlichia chaffeensis E) Rickettsia typhi Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.14 18) Which of the following organs have cells that can be infected by Chlamydia trachomatis?

A) eyes B) trachea C) rectum D) urethra E) eyes, trachea, rectum, and urethra.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.10 19) The sexually transmitted invasive form of chlamydia A) never infects the baby of an infected mother during birth.

B) is symptomatic in 85% of infected females.

C) is caused by the LGV strain of Chlamydia trachomatis.

D) is easily differentiated from gonorrhea.

E) does not recur because of the immune response the host produces against reinfection.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.13

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20) Which of the following statements regarding trachoma is FALSE? A) It is the leading cause of non-traumatic blindness in humans.

B) It is most often a disease of adults who suffer from sexually transmitted chlamydia.

C) It leads to corneal scarring.

D) It first infects the conjunctiva and kills cells there.

E) Infants may contract the disease while passing through an infected birth canal.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.11 21) Sexually transmitted chlamydia is similar to infection with Yersinia pestis in that they both can produce A) urethritis.

B) pelvic inflammatory disease in females.

C) conjunctivitis.

D) buboes.

E) pneumonia.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.12 22) People who handle birds infected with A) Chlamydophila pneumonia B) Chlamydophila psittaci C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Ehrlichia chaffeensis E) Orientia tsutsugamushi Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.15

may develop pneumonia-like disease.

23) Which of the following is TRUE of spirochetes?

A) They are peritrichous.

B) They are Gram-positive.

C) They are able to penetrate a host's tissues.

D) They are obligate intracellular organisms.

E) They are pleomorphic.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.16

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24) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence for stages of Ehrlichia development in infected host cells?

A) initial body, morula, elementary body B) morula, elementary body, initial body C) initial body, elementary body, morula D) elementary body, initial body, morula E) morula, initial body, morula, elementary body Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.6 25) Which of the following is a zoonosis caused by a spirochete?

A) bejel B) leptospirosis C) pinta D) syphilis E) yaws Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.23 26) Treponema pallidum can be transmitted A) by contact with infected fomites.

B) through sexual intercourse.

C) from an infected mother to her unborn child.

D) both by contact with infected fomites and through sexual intercourse.

E) both through sexual intercourse and from an infected mother to her unborn child.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.17 27) Which of the following statements concerning the causative agent of syphilis is TRUE? A) It is a large helically coiled bacterium motile by means of endoflagella.

B) It is an intracellular parasite.

C) It is a non-motile comma-shaped bacterium.

D) It is a large bacillus with peritrichous flagella.

E) It is pleomorphic and motile by means of gliding motility.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.16

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28) The typical lesion of primary syphilis is A) purulent sore throat.

B) a generalized rash.

C) the development of buboes in the lymph nodes at the site of infection.

D) a painless reddened lesion called a chancre at the site of infection.

E) gummas in bones, in nervous tissues, or on the skin.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.18 29) The Ixodes tick can infect humans with Borrelia burgdorferi during which stage(s) of its life cycle?

A) only as a larva B) only as a nymph C) only as an adult D) either as a nymph or an adult E) either as a larva or a nymph Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.21 30) The signs and symptoms of infection with Helicobacter pylori are the result of A) damage to the lining of blood vessels by H. pylori.

B) invasion by H. pylori into the mucosa of the large intestine.

C) invasion by H. pylori into the mucosa of the stomach.

D) the production of exotoxins by H. pylori in the intestines.

E) the production of toxins by H. pylori in contaminated food.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.30 31) Shortly after returning from a trip to several continents, a young man experiences episodes of fever, chills, muscle aches, and headache that recur at irregular intervals. The young man reports carrying only a large backpack and commonly staying in hostels along the way while traveling. Which of the following diseases is he likely to have?

A) anaplasmosis B) scrub typhus C) louse-borne relapsing fever D) Lyme disease E) yaws Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.22 8 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

32) How can Leptospira interrogans be distinguished from other spirochetes?

A) It stains purple with the Gram stain.

B) One end of the bacterium looks like a question mark.

C) It is highly motile.

D) It can be found in multiple locations in the body.

E) It cannot be cultured on laboratory media.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.23 33) What characteristic does Vibrio share with Salmonella?

A) Both have O polysaccharide antigens.

B) Both are oxidase positive.

C) Both have polar flagella.

D) Both have similar shape.

E) Both are spread primarily by fecal contamination.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.24 34) The most important virulence factor of Vibrio cholerae is A) the presence of two axial flagella.

B) the fact that it is oxidase positive.

C) its ability to survive in fresh water.

D) its ability to produce a potent exotoxin.

E) its ability to live in estuarine and marine environments all over the world.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.25 35) A young woman who was recently hiking in the mountains and discovered a tick on her torso has a fever that came on quite suddenly. She has no rash, but she develops leukopenia.

Which of the following diseases is she most likely to have contracted?

A) anaplasmosis B) Lyme disease C) relapsing fever D) Rocky Mountain spotted fever E) scrub typhus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.5 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

36) Which of the following bacteria is responsible for the most common bacterial gastroenteritis in the United States, usually accompanied by frequent, bloody diarrhea?

A) Borrelia recurrentis B) Campylobacter jejuni C) Chlamydophila pneumoniae D) Vibrio cholerae E) Vibrio vulnificus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.28 37)

The pattern of fever shown in Figure 21.1 is most commonly seen with A) yaws.

B) Lyme disease.

C) lymphogranuloma venereum.

D) syphilis.

E) relapsing fever.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.22

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38) Epidemic typhus, spread by lice, is caused by A) Chlamydophila pneumonia.

B) Chlamydophila psittaci.

C) Ehrlichia caffeensis.

D) Rickettsia prowazekii.

E) Rickettsia typhi.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.1 39) The intracellular parasite throughout the body.

A) Anaplasma phagocytophilium B) Chlamydia trachomatis C) Orientia tsutsugamushi D) Ehrlichia caffeensis E) Helicobacter pylori Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.10

infects cells of the conjunctiva and mucous membranes

40) The bacterium is a common cause of bacterial gastroenteritis contracted from contaminated food, especially poultry.

A) Campylobacter jejuni B) Helicobacter pylori C) Vibrio cholerae D) Leptospira interrogans E) Vibrio parahaemolyticus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.28 41) Ornithosis, caused by , is usually a pneumonia-like disease but can sometimes lead to hepatitis or endocarditis.

A) Chlamydia trachomatis B) Chlamydophila pneumoniae C) Chlamydophila psittaci D) Rickettsia prowazekii E) Orientia tsutsugamushi Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.15 11 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

42) The STD characterized by three distinctly different symptomatic stages is the result of infection with A) Chlamydia trachomatis.

B) Leptospira interrogans.

C) Treponema carateum.

D) Treponema pallidum pallidum.

E) Treponema pallidum pertenue.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.18 43) Infection with may result in peptic ulcers and stomach cancer.

A) Campylobacter jejuni B) Helicobacter pylori C) Borrelia recurrentis D) Vibrio parahaemolyticus E) Rickettsia rickettsii Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.30 44) A gastroenteritis which usually resolves in 72 hours is contracted from eating shellfish contaminated with A) Campylobacter jejuni.

B) Ehrlichia caffeensis.

C) Helicobacter pylori.

D) Vibrio cholera.

E) Vibrio parahaemolyticus.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.26 45) Infection with produces symptoms similar to RMSF, except for the rash, making it difficult to diagnose.

A) Anaplasma phagocytophilium B) Chlamydophila psittaci C) Chlamydia trachomatis D) Treponema carateum E) Vibrio vulnificus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.7 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

21.2 True/False Questions 1) Chlamydia trachomatis produces a dormant, resistant stage which is transmitted from one host to another.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.8 2) All of the rickettsias are spread by transovarian transfer.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.1 3) Campylobacter gastroenteritis is usually caused by ingestion of contaminated poultry.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.27 4) Vibrio vulnificus causes septicemia that is self-limiting and rarely fatal.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.26 5) A positive urease test in cultures from gastric samples provides preliminary identification of Helicobacter pylori.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.30 6) All stages of Ixodes, the vector for Lyme disease, may feed on humans.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.21 7) Small doses of antimicrobial agents are very effective in treating the late stages of Borrelia infection because most of the symptoms result from immune responses.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.20 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

8) Cholera toxin causes intestinal cells to secrete large amounts of electrolytes, resulting in a very watery diarrhea.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.25 9) An expanding rash that resembles a bull's-eye is a characteristic of secondary syphilis.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.20 10) Humans are the only hosts of Rickettsia rickettsii.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.1 21.3 Short Answer Questions 1) A distinctive feature of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever (RMSF) rash is that is appears on the (limbs/face/palms) as well as the trunk.

Answer: palms Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.2 2) If the mother has (chlamydia/syphilis/yaws) at the time of birth, the pathogen can infect the newborn's eyes and may cause blindness.

Answer: chlamydia Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.11 3) The zoonosis known as RMSF is the result of infection with Rickettsia (prowazekii/rickettsii/typhi).

Answer: rickettsii Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.1 4) The (body louse/cat flea/dog tick) is the primary vector of epidemic typhus.

Answer: body louse Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.1 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Both Ehrlichia chaffeensis and Chlamydiae trachomatis reproduce in the (cytosol/nucleus/phagosome) of their hosts.

Answer: phagosome Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.5, 21.8 6) A disease of birds that can be transmitted to humans is (campylobacteriosis/Lyme/ornithosis).

Answer: ornithosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.15 7) The infectious form of chlamydia is the (elementary/initial/inclusion) body.

Answer: elementary Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.8 8) Helicobacter pylori produces (cytotoxin/hyaluronidase/urease), a unique virulence factor important to colonizing the digestive system.

Answer: urease Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.30 9) The reservoir for Orientia tsutsugamushi is (humans/mites/rodents).

Answer: mites Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Rickettsias Learning Outcome: 21.4 10) The characteristic lesion for tertiary syphilis is the presence of (gummas/necrosis/granulomas) in bones, in nervous tissue, or on the skin.

Answer: gummas Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.18 11) Untreated syphilis may persist in a latent state for (months/years/decades) before manifesting as tertiary syphilis.

Answer: decades Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.18 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Borrelia burgdorferi is an unusual bacterium that lacks iron-containing enzymes and proteins and causes (Brill-Zinser/Lyme/RMSF) disease in humans.

Answer: Lyme Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.20 13) A single dose of azithromycin is effective in treating (trachoma/syphilis/yaws).

Answer: yaws Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.19 14) Leptospira interrogans exits the body in (feces/aerosols/urine).

Answer: urine Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.23 15) The normal habitat for Vibrio cholerae is (humans/animals/water).

Answer: water Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.24 21.4 Essay Questions 1) A patient was admitted to the emergency department suffering from severe diarrhea that had lasted a couple of days. There had already been significant weight loss. On examination, his stool was very watery with white bits of mucus and little odor. What pathogen is likely causing this condition, and how does it cause disease?

Answer: The patient is suffering from cholera, and the causative agent is Vibrio cholerae. The most important virulence factor of this pathogen is an exotoxin called the cholera toxin, which is made of five identical B subunits and one A subunit. These subunits attach to epithelial cells in the intestine and eventually lead to the production of cyclic AMP (cAMP). In turn, the cAMP stimulates the active secretion of excess electrolytes into the lumen, which in turn causes water to leave the tissues, diluting the intestinal contents and leading to severe dehydration.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.25

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2) Explain why modern treatment of a peptic ulcer includes administering an antibacterial agent. Discuss the cause.

Answer: It is now accepted that almost all peptic ulcers are caused by Helicobacter pylori, a slightly helical bacterium that colonizes the stomach. It has numerous virulence factors that allow it to colonize the stomach: a protein to inhibit acid secretion of the stomach; flagella to burrow through the mucous lining of the stomach; adhesins to bind to gastric cells; and enzymes that inhibit phagocytic killing. It also produces urease, which leads to the release of ammonia, which increases the pH of the stomach. Therefore, to kill the pathogen and allow the stomach to heal, physicians treat peptic ulcers with one or more antimicrobial agents in combination with drugs that inhibit acid secretion.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Pathogenic Gram-Negative Vibrios Learning Outcome: 21.29, 21.30 3) Relapsing fever is characterized by recurring episodes of fever and septicemia separated by symptom-free intervals. What causes this pattern?

Answer: Relapsing fever is caused by Borrelia recurrentis and other Borrelia species. This bacterium continually changes its antigenic surface components throughout its life cycle in its human host. Because the body's defense is to create antibodies directed against these surface molecules, some bacteria with surface antigens different from the antigens being targeted by the immune response manage to evade the immune system. These surviving spirochetes go on to multiply and cause a relapse of the fever. This cycle continues, with a few changed spirochetes evading the system each time and causing the next round of the disease.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.22

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4) Compare and contrast the pathogenesis of the sexually transmitted diseases chlamydia and syphilis.

Answer: Chlamydia is caused by the intracellular parasite Chlamydia trachomatis. The bacteria are transmitted in a dormant form (elementary bodies), which are phagocytosed by cells of the mucosa and conjunctiva. Within the endosome, the bacteria actively reproduce (reticulate bodies) for about 21 hours, then convert to the dormant form and are released, killing the cell. Thus, chlamydia directly kills host tissues. The lesion at the initial site of infection is usually small and painless, but nearby lymph nodes soon host the infection, become inflamed, and may become draining sores. The lymph node infection, which is known as lymphogranuloma venereum, may be accompanied by fever, chills, muscle pain, and loss of appetite. Untreated infections may involve the urethra and genitalia, causing inflammation, swelling, and tissue damage. Chlamydia remains relatively confined to the vicinity of the site of invasion (i.e., the pelvic area) and may cause enough damage to lead to sterility, but it is not a fatal infection.

Syphilis is caused by the spirochete Treponema pallidum pallidum, which is not an intracellular parasite but readily invades tissue both by producing hyaluronidase and because the flat highly motile bacteria can burrow between cells. The lesion formed at the initial site of infection is a small, painless hard bump that resolves on its own. The bacteria spread from the initial invasion site over the course of weeks to months to establish a systemic infection. As the infection becomes systemic and the immune system responds to the pathogen, the secondary symptoms develop. These include fever and a rash on most of the body, including the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. Eventually, these symptoms fade, and the infection becomes latent. Over the course of years, the infection persists, and the immune response to the infection causes tumor-like tissue damage known as gummas. The bacteria can also invade the central nervous system. Consequently, the tertiary symptomatic stage is characterized by dementia as well as organ failure, especially of the cardiovascular system. Thus, untreated syphilis is eventually fatal.

Both pathogens are transmitted vertically. Chlamydia is transmitted at the time of birth; as the neonate passes through the vagina the bacteria invade and infect the eyes. Syphilis can cross the placenta and infect the developing fetus. Various body systems are infected and affected resulting in serious congenital defects to stillbirth.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Spirochetes Learning Outcome: 21.12, 21.17 5) Explain what is meant by describing chlamydias as "energy parasites."

Answer: Chlamydias do not have the capability to synthesize ATP, the energy "currency" of living organisms. They therefore completely depend on the host cell in which they reside for production of this vital molecule.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Chlamydias Learning Outcome: 21.9

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 22 Pathogenic Fungi 22.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is an opportunistic pathogenic fungus in humans?

A) Blastomyces dermatitidis B) Coccidioides immitis C) Candida albicans D) Histoplasma capsulatum E) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.4 2) Opportunistic fungi A) always have two physiological and structural forms.

B) are normal microbiota for many individuals.

C) have special proteins for colonizing the body.

D) are tracked by epidemiologists.

E) have the same geographical distribution as pathogenic fungi.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.4 3) Which of the following is NOT a major contributor to opportunistic mycoses?

A) an invasive medical procedure B) growth of fungus in food C) immunosuppressive therapy D) severe malnutrition E) chronic diseases like diabetes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.5

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4) Which of the following media is preferred for the culture of fungi?

A) Sabouraud dextrose agar B) sheep blood agar C) MacConkey agar D) chocolate agar E) Thayer-Martin media Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.7 5) Which of the following techniques reveal(s) the presence of fungal cells in tissues?

A) Gram staining B) KOH treatment C) Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) staining D) Gram staining combined with KOH treatment E) both KOH treatment and Gomori methenamine silver (GMS) staining Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.7 6) Which of the following types of fungal disease is primarily the result of ingestion?

A) mycosis B) dermatophytosis C) hypersensitivity D) toxicosis E) both mycosis and dermatophytosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.6 7) Most mycoses are difficult to treat because A) many fungi have developed resistance antifungal agents.

B) fungicides are rapidly metabolized by the liver.

C) fungi are biochemically similar to humans.

D) treatment causes major disruption of the microbiota.

E) fungicides are extremely expensive.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.8

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8) All of the true pathogen fungi discussed in this chapter are A) members of the Ascomycota.

B) members of the Zygomycota.

C) dimorphic.

D) members of the Ascomycota and are dimorphic.

E) members of the Zygomycota and are monomorphic.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.11 9) Ocular histoplasmosis is a(n) A) type I hypersensitivity immune reaction.

B) cytotoxic immune cell reaction.

C) delayed hypersensitivity reaction.

D) autoimmune disease.

E) example of contact dermatitis.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.11 10) What is the diagnostic structure produced by Paracoccidioides brasiliensis?

A) spiny spores visible by brightfield microscopy B) "steering wheel" buds visible in stained tissue samples C) spherules observed in tissue samples D) yeast buds that are not dissolved by KOH E) dimorphism when grown in the lab Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.12 11) An elderly woman is experiencing fever, chest pain, difficulty breathing, and a cough that occasionally brings up mucus containing blood. She reports having visited family in rural New Mexico over the Labor Day weekend. A GMS-stained sample from her lungs shows the presence of large spherules. Which of the following is the most likely infecting agent?

A) Coccidioides immitis B) Blastomyces dermatitidis C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis E) Trichophyton rubrum Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.12 3 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

12) Which of the following statements about Candida is FALSE? A) It is present in the digestive tract of 40-80% of all healthy individuals.

B) It can be transmitted to adults during sexual contact.

C) It is easily treated with topical antifungals in immunocompromised patients.

D) It causes thrush.

E) It can be passed to babies during childbirth.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.18 13) An avid gardener in eastern North America begins to have a fever and cough. A sample from her lungs contains yeast cells and pus. She may be infected with A) Amanita phalloides.

B) Blastomyces dermatitidis.

C) Claviceps purpurea.

D) Mucor.

E) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.11 14) The most common disease diagnosed in humans that is caused by Cryptococcus is A) primary pulmonary cryptococcosis.

B) cryptococcal meningitis.

C) secondary pulmonary cryptococcosis.

D) cryptococcoma.

E) cutaneous cryptococcosis.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.20 15) Which of the following fungal infections was extremely rare prior to the AIDS epidemic?

A) pulmonary cryptococcosis B) cutaneous candidiasis C) hypersensitivity aspergillosis D) mycetomas E) Pneumocystis pneumonia Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.16

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16) The observation of _ is diagnostic of infection with Histoplasma capsulatum.

A) "steering wheel" cells in tissue samples B) yeast cells with thick capsules in samples from the lungs C) a series of raised, red, ulcerating lesions D) spore-containing spherules E) yeast cells in macrophages Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.12 17) A retiree, tired of Minnesota winters, moves to Tucson, Arizona. He hopes the warm dry climate will ease his chronic respiratory problems. He soon experiences a new kind of weather, a massive dust storm. With which of the following fungi might he become infected?

A) Blastomyces dermatitidis B) Coccidioides immitis C) Histoplasma capsulatum D) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis E) Aspergillus fumigatus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.10 18) Which of the following is FALSE regarding antifungal vaccines?

A) There are several safe vaccines against fungal diseases in development.

B) Cell-mediated immunity is effective against fungus.

C) Attenuated vaccines are safe for patients with immune suppression.

D) Pharmaceutical companies are interested in developing antifungal vaccines.

E) The majority of fungal infections are caused by true pathogens from the environment.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.9 19) Ringworm is caused by A) worms infected with fungi invading the skin.

B) dermatophytes that have invaded deep into the living tissue.

C) dermatophytes growing in the outer dead tissue layers of the skin (epidermis).

D) a hypersensitivity caused by superficial contact with dermatophytes.

E) toxins produced by dermatophytes.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.27

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20) Histoplasma capsulatum A) is an opportunistic fungus.

B) produces arthrospores.

C) produces capsules.

D) produces yeast cells with a "steering wheel" formation.

E) is an intracellular parasite.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.11 21) Which of the following dermatophytes infects hair as well as skin?

A) Microsporum species B) Malassezia furfur C) Fonsecaea pedrosoi D) Epidermophyton floccosum E) Trichophyton species Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.27 22) White patches on the surface of the tongue and the oral mucosa accompanied by inflammation and swelling are signs consistent with A) zygomycosis.

B) cryptococcosis.

C) paracoccidioidomycosis.

D) sporotrichosis.

E) candidiasis.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.18 23) Which of the following fungal infections may progress to infection of the brain?

A) Coccidioides immitis B) Cryptococcus neoformans C) Mucor D) both Coccidioides immitis and Cryptococcus neoformans E) Coccidioides immitis, Cryptococcus neoformans, and Mucor Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.11, 22.20, 22.22

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24) Why are subcutaneous mycoses uncommon?

A) The human body is not a suitable habitat.

B) T cells are highly effective against fungus cells.

C) Injury is necessary to introduce the fungus into the tissue.

D) Only immunocompromised persons are susceptible to subcutaneous mycoses.

E) Saprobes do not grow well at body temperature.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.26 25) A sample of the tissue from an inflamed, pus-filled area on the lower leg is treated with KOH and stained with GMS. Under the microscope golden brown spheres are visible. With what disease are these observations consistent?

A) pityriasis B) fungemia C) chromoblastomycosis D) mycetoma E) sporotrichosis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.30 26) Which of the following fungal infections can be contracted through thorn pricks or wood splinters?

A) Sporothrix schenckii B) Cladophialophora C) Malassezia furfur D) Gyromitra esculenta E) Aspergillus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.31 27) Which of the following statements about Malassezia is FALSE? A) It is part of the microbiota of the skin.

B) It causes phaeohyphomycosis.

C) It is a basidomycete.

D) It causes pityriasis.

E) It tends to develop into a chronic infection.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.27 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

28) The monomorphic fungus Rhizopus is a(n) A) common bread mold.

B) toxic mushroom.

C) opportunistic pathogen.

D) true pathogen.

E) common bread mold and an opportunistic pathogen.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.22 29) Mycetismus is caused by A) ingestion of food contaminated with fungus.

B) ingestion of toxic mushrooms.

C) ingestion of milk from a cow that has ingested feed contaminated with fungal toxins.

D) inhalation of fungal allergens.

E) contamination of a wound with pathogenic fungi present in the skin.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies Learning Outcome: 22.32 30) Which of the following is referred to as the "death cap" mushroom?

A) Amanita phalloides B) Gyromitra esculenta C) Psilocybe cubensis D) Amanita muscaria E) Cortinarius gentilis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies Learning Outcome: 22.35 31) The fungus _ can cause a variety of diseases, depending on the condition of the person.

A) Amanita phalloides B) Aspergillus C) Gyromitra esculenta D) Sporothrix schenckii E) Mucor Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.19

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32) Ergometrine, which is used to stimulate labor contractions, is a product of A) Claviceps purpurea.

B) Aspergillus C) Amanita phalloides.

D) Exophiala.

E) Piedraia hortae.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies Learning Outcome: 22.33 33) The opportunistic pathogen is metabolically and morphologically distinctive from other fungi and is not effectively treated with antifungal medications.

A) Candida albicans B) Blastomyces dermatitidis C) Aspergillus D) Microsporum E) Pneumocystis jirovecii Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.15 34) Psilocybin is a A) toxin that causes bloody diarrhea.

B) toxin that causes kidney failure.

C) toxin that acts as a hallucinogen.

D) virulence factor produced by invasive fungi.

E) growth factor produced by mycoplasmas.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies Learning Outcome: 22.35 35) Chronic inhalation of particular fungal allergens would lead to a(n) A) type I hypersensitivity reaction.

B) type II hypersensitivity reaction.

C) type III hypersensitivity reaction.

D) type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

E) autoimmune disease.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies Learning Outcome: 22.36

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36) The subcutaneous infection known as can produce a series of lesions spreading from the initial infection point resulting from the fungus' ability to invade the lymphatic vessels.

A) aspergillosis B) candidiasis C) mycetoma D) sporotrichosis E) zygomycosis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.31 37) Chronic low-level ingestion of may cause liver cancer.

A) aflatoxin B) aspergillin C) ergotamine D) phalloidin E) psilocybin Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies Learning Outcome: 22.34 38) Which of the following can establish a subcutaneous infection known as a mycetoma?

A) Microsporum B) Candida albicans C) Pneumocystis jirovecii D) Mucor E) Pseudallescheria Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.30 39) Which of the following contributes to the pathogenesis of Cryptococcus neoformans?

A) the ability to produce hyphae which penetrate tissues B) the production of leukocidins C) the production of mucinase D) the ability to resist killing after phagocytosis E) the production of melanin and the presence of a phagocyte-resistant capsule Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.21

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40) Candida albicans can establish opportunistic infections of the A) mouth.

B) skin.

C) eye.

D) liver.

E) eyes, liver, mouth, skin, and other organs.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.18 41) Pityriasis, characterized by patches of hyperpigmented and depigmented skin on the trunk and arms, is due to cutaneous infection with A) Epidermophyton floccosum.

B) Cryptococcus neoformans.

C) Malassezia furfur.

D) Microsporum canis.

E) Trichophyton rubrum.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.27 42) Infection of the skin by Trichophyton rubrum results in raised red scaly patches of skin, a condition known as A) dermatophytosis.

B) candidiasis.

C) mucormycosis.

D) pityriasis.

E) sporothrichosis.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.27 43) Which of the following produces a hallucinogenic toxin?

A) Amanita phalloides B) Claviceps purpurea C) Psilocybe cubensis D) Pseudallescheria E) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies Learning Outcome: 22.35

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44) Which of the following fungi is an obligate intracellular parasite?

A) Coccidioides immitis B) Blastomyces dermatitidis C) Microsporidium D) Candida albicans E) Mucor species Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.23 45) Factors that contribute to difficulty in eliminating fungal infections via the body's defenses include A) the capsules of some fungi resist phagocytosis.

B) many fungi are resistant to cell mediated immune responses.

C) many pathogenic fungi produce leukocidins.

D) both resistance to phagocytosis and cell mediated immunity.

E) many pathogenic fungi are resistant to the action of complement.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.8, 22.11 22.2 True/False Questions 1) Mycoses are typically highly contagious.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.2 2) Dermatophytes, which live on the surface of the skin, are always pathogenic.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.4 3) Fungi that cause systemic mycoses are uniformly acquired by ingesting contaminated food.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.2

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4) The seriousness of Coccidioides infection can be attributed to the formation and rupture of spherules.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.11 5) Systemic infections with fungus are difficult to treat because fungi are metabolically similar to humans, so antifungal therapies are sometimes complicated by side effects.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.8 6) Ringworm is a type I hypersensitivity response to fungus spores.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.27 7) Histoplasma and Coccidioides produce tuberculosis-like damage to the lungs that can be seen on X-ray images.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.11 8) Very few cases of cryptococcal infections are caused by the variant Cryptococcus neoformans neoformans.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.20 9) Aspergillus causes both mycoses and mycotoxicosis.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies Learning Outcome: 22.19 10) Vaccines to prevent fungal infection are widely available because attenuated strains are safe.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.9 13 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

22.3 Short Answer Questions 1) Most fungi exist as (parasites/saprobes/autotrophs) and function as the major decomposers of organic material.

Answer: saprobes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.1 2) Infections with (dermatophytes/pathogens/opportunists) are commonly acquired by personto-person direct contact.

Answer: dermatophytes Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.1 3) The true pathogenic fungi responsible for systemic mycoses have (dimorphic/monomorphic/polymorphic) growth characteristics.

Answer: dimorphic Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.11 4) A solution of (GMS/KOH/DIF) is used to dissolve keratin and cellular material in skin scrapings, leaving only the fungal cells for examination.

Answer: KOH Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.7 5) Histoplasmosis may be diagnosed by observation of (spherules/spiny spores/pseudohyphae) in samples from the lungs.

Answer: spiny spores Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.12 6) The cell membranes of fungi contain (cholesterol/ergosterol/fatty acid) which is a target of some antifungal treatments.

Answer: ergosterol Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.8

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7) Blastomyces dermatitidis occurs in the (eastern/central/southwestern/western) part of North America.

Answer: eastern Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.10 8) Eating moldy grain may result in (mycetismus/mycetoma/mycotoxicosis).

Answer: mycotoxicosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies Learning Outcome: 22.32 9) The presence of (hyphae/spores/spherules) in a sample from the lungs is diagnostic for coccidioidomycosis.

Answer: spherules Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Pathogenic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.12 10) The opportunistic obligate parasite (Microsporum/Pneumocystis/Rhizopus) is considered a member of the normal microbiota.

Answer: Pneumocystis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.15 11) Malassezia furfur feed on (keratin/melanin/oil) in the skin.

Answer: oil Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.27 12) Exposure to (Aspergillus/Candida/Microsporum) species most commonly causes allergies.

Answer: Aspergillus Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.19 13) Clusters of budding yeast and branching pseudohyphae are consistent with (candidiasis/dermatophytosis/histoplasmosis).

Answer: candidiasis Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.18

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14) The opportunistic infection known as (aspergillosis/cryptococcosis/sporotrichosis) may develop into a series of nodular, pus-filled lesions on a limb.

Answer: sporothrichosis Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.31 15) A basidiomycete in the genus (Candida/Penicillium/Trichosporon) has recently been recognized as an opportunistic pathogen of AIDS patients.

Answer: Trichosporon Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.24 22.4 Essay Questions 1) Why are mycoses among the most difficult diseases to treat?

Answer: There are two main reasons it is so difficult to treat mycoses. First, fungi can evade the immune system. Fungi possess the biochemical ability to resist killing by T lymphocytes during cell-mediated immune responses, making them resistant to the body's defenses. Some fungi are also resistant to phagocytosis and phagocytic killing. Second, fungi are eukaryotic cells and are very similar to human cells, so most antifungal agents are also toxic to human cells.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: An Overview of Medical Mycology Learning Outcome: 22.8 2) More fungal diseases are recognized than were known just a decade ago. For example, in 2012, hundreds of patients developed a meningitis caused by a fungus never before known to cause disease. What contributes to these emerging diseases?

Answer: Advances in technology aid the identification of novel opportunistic pathogens.

Severely immunocompromised persons are subject to a wide range of opportunistic fungal infections, and the population of immunocompromised people continues to grow as medical advances make it possible for them to survive longer. Invasive medical procedures grant fungi that are not invasive access to the interior of body. Failure to practice rigorous aseptic in healthcare or medication production facilities and the large scale of the industries can expose large numbers of people to a novel opportunist in a short period of time.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.13

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3) Compare and contrast dermatophytosis and pityriasis.

Answer: Both are noninvasive fungal infections of the epidermis. Both can be treated by topical applications of antifungals in all but the most severe cases.

Fungi called dermatophytes feed on the protein keratin, which is found in abundance in the outer layers of the skin and in hair and nails. These are all nonliving structures on the body, so the infections do not damage living tissue. The inflammatory response to the fungus may result in some generally mild damage to the tissue, which resolves when the infection is cleared.

The fungus responsible for pityriasis, Malassezia furfur, feeds on the oily secretions of the skin and generally causes no damage to the skin. Occasionally in chronic infections, the fungus interferes with the melanin production of the epidermis, producing irregular pigmentation patterns, but the damage is cosmetic. Pigmentation will return to normal some months after the fungal infection is cleared.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Superficial, Cutaneous, and Subcutaneous Mycoses Learning Outcome: 22.27 4) A man has difficulty breathing, a cough, and is running a fever. He is an avid bird-watcher who recently visited a rookery where thousands of birds build their nests and raise their young.

What fungal infection(s) might he have contracted? What diagnostic tests would confirm the diagnosis? What treatment might be prescribed?

Answer: The man may have histoplasmosis, caused by Histoplasma capsulatum, or cryptococcosis, caused by Cryptococcus neoformans. Both of these fungi are saprobes that grow in bird droppings. Inhaled spores germinate in the lungs and give rise to parasitic forms of the fungi.

H. capsulatum is a dimorphic true pathogen, and fungus from lung samples will revert to the hyphal form when grown at laboratory temperatures. Amphotericin B is the treatment of choice.

C. neoformans is a monomorphic yeast with a thick capsule. The presence of spherical yeast cells with thick capsules in tissue samples indicates infection with C. neoformans and can be confirmed by detecting C. neoformans antigens in the samples or serum. Treatment of cryptococcosis is usually a combination of amphotericin B and 5-fluorocytosine administered for several weeks.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Systemic Mycoses Caused by Opportunistic Fungi Learning Outcome: 22.11, 22.20

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5) Distinguish mycotoxicosis from mycetismus.

Answer: Although both mycotoxicosis and mycetismus are acquired by vehicle transmission, they are ingested in different ways. Mycotoxicosis is a result of eating food that has become contaminated with fungi that have produced the toxins that are ingested. Aflatoxins are the best known mycotoxins. Mycetismus is a result of eating poisonous mushrooms. This usually occurs when a person picks and eats unidentified wild mushrooms.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Fungal Intoxications and Allergies Learning Outcome: 22.32

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 23 Parasitic Protzoa, Helminths, and Arthropod Vectors 23.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is an accidental parasite of humans?

A) Ascaris lumbricoides B) Acanthamoeba C) Balantidium coli D) Entamoeba histolytica E) Plasmodium Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.7 2) Which of the following organisms can colonize the nasal cavity and enter the brain to cause meningoencephalitis?

A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Acanthamoeba C) Naegleria D) Balantidium E) Giardia Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.7 3) Which of the following is a ciliated pathogen of the intestinal tract?

A) Balantidium B) Plasmodium C) Trypanosoma D) Leishmania E) Giardia Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.6

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4) Once infected with Trypanosoma brucei, the patient's immune system cannot clear the infection and develop immunity because the parasite A) has flagella that allow it to travel all over the body.

B) matures into infectious trypomastigotes.

C) reproduces by binary fission.

D) changes its glycoprotein surface antigens every time it replicates.

E) invades the central nervous system.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.8 5) Trypanosoma cruzi is introduced into the body by A) feces containing trypomastigotes contaminating a bite wound.

B) the bite of a tsetse fly, which introduces the trypomastigotes into the body.

C) ingesting food contaminated with the parasite.

D) the bite of a sand fly that has ingested phagocytes containing the parasite.

E) wearing contact lenses cleaned with contaminated tap water.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.8 6) The definitive host of a parasite is A) the host for immature stages of the parasite.

B) where the mature form of the parasite occurs.

C) also the vector for the parasite.

D) the host that the parasite name is based on.

E) the host for the dormant stage of the parasite.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Parasitology Learning Outcome: 23.2 7) Which of the following is the same for both Trypanosoma cruzi and Trypanosoma brucei?

A) central nervous system infection B) where the protozoan matures in the vector C) type of arthropod vector D) importance of early diagnosis and treatment E) means of entry into the host Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.8

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8) Which of the following is the most common parasitic disease in industrialized nations?

A) giardiasis B) Trichomonas infection C) schistosomiasis D) toxoplasmosis E) balantidiasis Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.11 9) The presence of active motile multi-flagellated trophozoites in vaginal or urethral secretion is indicative of infection with A) Trichomonas vaginalis.

B) Chlamydia trachomatis.

C) Giardia intestinalis.

D) Acanthamoeba.

E) Balantidium coli.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.11 10) The protozoans known as apicomplexans A) are motile.

B) reproduce by schizogony.

C) are intracellular parasites.

D) are motile intracellular parasites.

E) reproduce by schizogony and are intracellular parasites.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.12 11) Severe frothy diarrhea with a "rotten-egg" smell accompanied by abdominal pain, bloating, and fever are signs and symptoms consistent with A) balantidiasis.

B) Chagas' disease.

C) cryptosporidiosis.

D) giardiasis.

E) leishmaniasis.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.10

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12) Cycles of fever which recur every 48 hours is characteristic of A) malaria.

B) toxoplasmosis.

C) giardiasis.

D) leishmaniasis.

E) balantidiasis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.12 13) Blood smears are used in diagnosis of A) African sleeping sickness.

B) toxoplasmosis.

C) malaria.

D) African sleeping sickness and malaria.

E) toxoplasmosis and malaria.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.8, 23.12 14) The spreads more parasitic diseases to humans than any other vector.

A) kissing bug B) mosquito C) tick D) louse E) mite Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Arthropod Vectors Learning Outcome: 23.4 15) Which of the following statements concerning infection with Toxoplasma gondii is FALSE? A) It is one of the world's most widely distributed protozoan parasites in humans.

B) It is typically contracted by eating undercooked meat.

C) Even though it can be transmitted across the placenta, it is harmless to the fetus.

D) The majority of infected people are asymptomatic.

E) It usually results in no permanent damage and is self-limiting.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.13

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16) Which of the following parasites is NOT generally microscopic in its mature form, even though microbiologists usually study them?

A) amoebae B) toxoplasmas C) helminths D) leishmanias E) cyclosporas Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.15 17) After a trip to several South American countries, a middle-aged man becomes ill. He becomes anemic, loses weight, and runs a fever. The clinician notes a recently healed sore near his nose. Microscopic examination of a blood smear does not reveal anything other than the anemia. What parasitic infection is consistent with this scenario?

A) malaria B) leishmaniasis C) Chagas' disease D) giardiasis E) balantidiasis Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.9 18) A contact lens wearer and cat owner begins to experience problems with her eye. The eye is inflamed and painful, and examination of the eye reveals that the conjunctiva is ulcerating.

Which of the following parasites is most likely responsible?

A) Acanthamoeba B) Cryptosporidium parvum C) Entamoeba histolytica D) Toxoplasma gondii E) Trypanosoma cruzi Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.7

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19) The infectious stage of a beef tapeworm for humans is the A) gravid proglottids in feces.

B) eggs in contaminated water.

C) larvae in feces.

D) cysticerci in beef.

E) mature worms.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.17 20) The stage of a protozoan is the actively feeding and reproducing stage.

A) trophozoite B) cyst C) cysticercus D) encysted E) merozoite Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.5 21) The easiest way to prevent Taenia infection in humans is to A) vaccinate cows and pigs.

B) vaccinate humans who are in contact with cows and pigs.

C) spray pastures and grazing lands with toxins that kill the parasite.

D) thoroughly cook or freeze meat.

E) identify patients with cysticerci in their muscles.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.17 22) A human fecal sample is examined and found to contain a few strobila. The person is probably infected with A) Echinococcus granulosus.

B) Giardia intestinalis.

C) Taenia.

D) Schistosoma.

E) Necator americanus.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.16

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23) A person reports to a clinic complaining of fever and abdominal pain. The abdomen is swollen, and blood tests indicate liver damage. A stool sample is examined under a microscope and found to contain eggs with a spine projecting from its surface. The indications are consistent with infection with A) Ancylostoma duodenale.

B) Enterobius vermicularis.

C) Echinococcus granulosus.

D) Schistosoma mansoni.

E) Taenia solium.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.19 24) The definitive hosts for Echinococcus granulosus are A) bovines.

B) canines.

C) cats.

D) pigs.

E) snails.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.17 25) Which of the following nematodes can be transmitted by mosquitoes?

A) Wuchereria bancrofti B) Ascaris lumbricoides C) Ancylostoma duodenale D) Necator americanus E) Enterobius vermicularis Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.25 26) Which of the following is the most common parasitic worm in the United States?

A) Taenia saginata B) Echinococcus granulosus C) Schistosoma mansoni D) Enterobius vermicularis E) Ascaris lumbricoides Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.23 7 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

27) The helminth parasite Schistosoma A) is a cestode.

B) has snails as intermediate hosts.

C) has proglottids.

D) is a roundworm.

E) has fish as intermediate hosts.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.19 28) Which of the following helminth parasites do humans acquire by eating undercooked saltwater fish?

A) Schistosoma B) Fasciola C) Echinococcus D) Anisakis E) Ascaris Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.24 29) The parasites classified as Nematodes A) are known as flukes.

B) are known as roundworms.

C) have males of the species larger than females of the species.

D) do not have a digestive system.

E) are all monoecious.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.20 30) Humans become infected with Fasciola by A) ingesting cysts on vegetation.

B) consuming cysticerci in contaminated meat.

C) ingesting water contaminated with eggs.

D) the penetration of cercariae through the skin.

E) the bite of infected mosquitoes.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.19

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31) Elephantiasis is caused by A) blood flukes.

B) liver flukes.

C) filarial roundworms.

D) tapeworms.

E) flatworms.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.25 32) Humans become infected with Toxoplasma gondii primarily by A) being bitten by a tick.

B) direct skin penetration.

C) ingesting food or water contaminated with cysts.

D) ingesting meat containing the parasite.

E) intimate contact with another person.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.13 33) What is a characteristic shared by the protozoa which are intestinal parasites of humans?

A) They have a dormant cyst stage.

B) They have multiple nuclei.

C) They reproduce sexually in an invertebrate host.

D) They reproduce sexually in humans.

E) They have suckers for adhering to the intestine.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.5 34) Which of the following is transmitted by the fecal-oral route?

A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Plasmodium C) Schistosoma D) Trichomonas E) Schistosoma and Trichomonas Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.7

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35) The largest nematode parasite of humans is A) Anisakis simplex.

B) Ascaris lumbricoides.

C) Enterobius vermicularis.

D) Fasciola hepatica.

E) Wuchereria bancrofti.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.21 36) The primary risk to humans infected with Echinococcus granulosus is A) development of cysticerci.

B) formation of hydatid cysts.

C) intestinal obstruction.

D) anemia.

E) infection of the fetus.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.17 37) Why is snail fever a common name for infections with Schistosoma?

A) The worms look like snails.

B) They are contracted by eating snails.

C) Snails are the intermediate host.

D) Physical contact with snails may result in infection.

E) The larval stage looks like a snail.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.19 38) Balantidium coli uses to penetrate the intestinal mucosa.

A) adhesion discs B) flagella C) cilia D) pseudopodia E) suckers Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.6

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39) Triatoma, commonly called "kissing bugs," are vectors of A) African sleeping sickness.

B) Chagas' disease.

C) Cyclosporiasis.

D) Leishmania.

E) schistosomiasis.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Arthropod Vectors Learning Outcome: 23.8 40) Which of the following intestinal protozoa are considered parasites of humans only?

A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Balantidium coli C) Cyclospora cayentanensis D) Giardia intestinalis E) both Entamoeba histolytica and Cyclospora cayentanensis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.7, 23.14 41) The tsetse fly is responsible for the spread of A) African sleeping sickness.

B) Chagas' disease.

C) filariasis.

D) kala-azar.

E) toxoplasmosis.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Arthropod Vectors Learning Outcome: 23.8 42) The only helminth disease of humans spread by an insect vector is A) ascariasis.

B) fascioliasis.

C) filariasis.

D) hydatid disease.

E) schistosomiasis.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.25

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43) The vectors of are sand flies.

A) beaver fever B) Chagas' disease C) filariasis D) giardiasis E) leishmaniasis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Arthropod Vectors Learning Outcome: 23.9 44) Which of the following contributes to infection with Trichomonas vaginalis?

A) contact with contaminated fomites B) compromised immunity C) careless handwashing habits D) preexisting disease (chlamydia, for example) E) living in an undeveloped area of the world Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.11 45) Which of the following regarding all of the tapeworms that infect humans is TRUE? A) They all have non-human intermediate hosts.

B) The larva can directly infect humans upon contact with skin.

C) Humans are the normal intermediate hosts.

D) They are transmitted by insect vectors.

E) They reside in the muscle tissue of the definitive host.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.17 23.2 True/False Questions 1) Balantidium coli is the only ciliate known to cause disease in humans.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.6 2) Contact with infected cats and their feces is the only mode of transmission of Toxoplasma to humans.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.13 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

3) All tapeworms are intestinal parasites that completely lack digestive systems.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.16 4) All nematodes are acquired by ingestion.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.22 5) Plasmodium reproduces by binary fission.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.12 6) Several species of Plasmodium cause malaria in humans.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.12 7) Entamoeba histolytica can cause keratitis if it is introduced through an abrasion in the conjunctiva.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.7 8) Anemia is a common consequence of hookworm infestation.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.22 9) Herbivores are the normal hosts for Fasciola species.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.19

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10) Humans can be accidental intermediate hosts for some tapeworms.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.17 23.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The protozoal disease known as (cutaneous/mucocutaneous/visceral) leishmaniasis is potentially fatal.

Answer: visceral Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.9 2) Acanthamoeba and (Entamoeba/Naegleria/Plasmodium) cause rare and usually fatal infections of the brain.

Answer: Naegleria Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.7 3) The (brain/heart/liver) is the organ most severely damaged by Trypanosoma cruzi.

Answer: heart Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.8 4) The (definitive/intermediate/primary) host is where immature stages of parasites develop.

Answer: intermediate Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Parasitology Learning Outcome: 23.2 5) Humans are the only reservoir for (Balantidium/Entamoeba/Giardia), an intestinal parasite that causes diarrhea.

Answer: Entamoeba Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.7

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6) The parasite (Leishmania/Toxoplasma/Trichomonas) is an obligate parasite that is incapable of surviving long outside the human host and is transmitted almost exclusively via sexual activity.

Answer: Trichomonas Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.11 7) The most severe form of malaria, called "blackwater fever" is caused by Plasmodium (falciparum/malariae/ovale/vivax).

Answer: falciparum Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.12 8) A housefly can transmit diseases as a (biological/fomite/mechanical) vector.

Answer: mechanical Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Arthropod Vectors Learning Outcome: 23.3 9) Apicomplexans reproduce asexually by (mitosis/schizogony/fission).

Answer: schizogony Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.12 10) The protozoan (Cyclospora/Cryptosporidium/Echinococcus) can occasionally be transmitted from person to person.

Answer: Cryptosporidium Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.14 11) The most common nematode infection worldwide is (ascariasis/filariasis/pinworms).

Answer: ascariasis Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.22 12) The (cestodes/nematodes/trematodes) are helminths with an incomplete digestive system.

Answer: trematodes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.19

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13) The (proglottid/scolex/strobila) of an adult tapeworm is its anchor to the hosts intestine.

Answer: scolex Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.16 14) Eating undercooked (fish/pork/snails/vegetables) can result in infestation with Taenia solium.

Answer: pork Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.16 15) Humans become infested with liver flukes by ingesting the (cercaria/metacercaria/miricidium) stage of the worm.

Answer: metacercaria Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.19 23.4 Essay Questions 1) Parasitic diseases have been considered uncommon in developed countries but many are now emerging diseases in these parts of the world. Discuss factors that contribute to this shift.

Answer: Parasitic disease in Europe, North America, and other developed regions of the world declined with the application of rigorous control practices: proper public sanitation, water purification, inspections, vector control, and so forth. One consequence of the success is that physicians trained in these areas of the world rarely consider parasitic disease early in the diagnostic process, and untreated infections may spread in the meantime. Another result of the success is lax regulation as people forget the importance of water and food inspection, vector control, maintenance of public sanitation facilities, and so forth.

International travel, emigration, and importation of food and exotic animals have carried parasites to parts of the world where they have not been seen in decades or have never before occurred, and sometimes conditions are right for them to become established. Shifting climate patterns are changing the distribution of vectors of parasites, and the vectors introduce the parasites into their new ranges.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Parasitology Learning Outcome: 23.1

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2) How does the life cycle for the Trypanosoma that causes sleeping sickness differ from the one that causes Chagas' disease?

Answer: Sleeping sickness is caused by T. brucei, and Chagas' disease is caused by T. cruzi, which differ from each other in many ways. First, T. cruzi matures in the hindgut of the kissing bug, whereas T. brucei matures in the salivary gland of the tsetse fly. T. brucei is injected directly through the vector's bite, while T. cruzi enters the host when the vector's feces are rubbed into a bite wound. T. cruzi has an intracellular stage, whereas T. brucei does not. T. brucei remains in fluid compartments of the body (blood and cerebrospinal fluid), whereas T. cruzi penetrates tissues throughout the body, especially the cardiovascular system.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.8 3) A hunter was camping with his dog near a mountain spring where beavers were building a dam, and many animals came to drink. After a month, he developed severe watery diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, vomiting, and low-grade fever. His stool had a "rotten-egg" smell of hydrogen sulfide. What is the most likely parasite causing this patient's condition, and how is diagnosis confirmed?

Answer: This person is most likely suffering from giardiasis. Infection usually results from ingesting cysts in contaminated drinking water. Even if humans avoid drinking contaminated water, they usually do not prevent their dogs from drinking it. Therefore, it is usually just a matter of time before the dog passes the protozoa to its owner. Diagnosis is confirmed by the presence of flat, pear-shaped trophozoites seen in the stool under microscopic examination or by xTAG GPP test.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Protozoan Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.10 4) Why is self-reinfection commonly seen in children that suffer from pinworms?

Answer: After mating in the colon, the female pinworm migrates at night to the anus. Here, it deposits its eggs perianally. This causes the intense perianal itching that is characteristic of this infection. Scratching leaves eggs on the skin and under the fingernails; as a result, infected individuals may continuously re-infect themselves. This is especially common in small children because they do not tend to practice effective handwashing.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.23

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5) Compare and contrast infection with Taenia saginata and Echinococcus granulosus in humans, including the consequences of the infections.

Answer: Both of these parasites are cestodes (tapeworms) that are acquired by ingestion.

Humans are the definitive host for T. saginata and become infected when they consume undercooked beef containing the immature larvae in the form of cysticerci. The larvae emerge in the intestine, attach to the wall, begin feeding, and mature into self-fertilizing adults. The humans pass the eggs in their feces. Intestinal infection with the adult tapeworm may be asymptomatic, but patients may experience diarrhea, nausea, abdominal pain, and weight loss.

Humans are accidental intermediate hosts of E. granulosus, a parasite of canines. Humans become infected when they ingest the tapeworm eggs, which hatch in the intestine. The larvae then burrow out of the intestine and take up residence in a variety of organs ranging from the liver to the brain. The larvae of E. granulosus are capable of asexual reproduction in intermediate hosts, so the cysts established by the larvae continue to increase in size (and number of larvae) throughout the lifetime of the host. Eventually, the expanding cyst damages the organ in which it resides, and the condition may progress to organ failure. As a consequence, the human hosts experience a range of symptoms determined by the organ(s) being damaged (e.g., declining liver function to the point of failure or brain damage may mimic a tumor). Humans are considered dead-end hosts for E. granulosus because their flesh is rarely consumed by the definitive host.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Helminthic Parasites of Humans Learning Outcome: 23.17

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 24 Pathogenic DNA Viruses 24.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The first virus to be vaccine preventable is a member of the A) Arenviridae B) Herpesviridae C) Papillomaviridae D) Poxviridae E) Polyomaviridae Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.1

family.

2) Which of the following characteristics are common to Poxviridae, Herpesviridae, and Hepadnaviridae?

A) double-stranded DNA in the virion B) a complex capsid C) the presence of an envelope D) double-stranded DNA in the virion with a complex capsid E) double-stranded DNA in the virion and the presence of an envelope Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.1, 24.14 3) Which of the follow produces a rash that leaves permanent scars on the skin?

A) Herpesviridae B) Papillomaviridae C) Poxviridae D) Adenoviridae E) Polyomaviridae Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.1

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4) Which of the following lesions is a hard, raised sore?

A) macule B) papule C) vesicle D) pustule E) pox Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.2 5) High fever, headache, extreme fatigue, and a rash on the face that progresses to fluid- and pus-filled sores before crusting over and healing are signs and symptoms consistent with infection with A) adenovirus.

B) herpesvirus.

C) papillomavirus.

D) polyomavirus.

E) poxvirus.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.2 6) Which of the following statements is TRUE of both molluscum contagiosum and smallpox?

A) A genital form of the disease exists.

B) A vaccine is available.

C) The causative agent is a large dsDNA virus with a complex capsid.

D) The rash forms fluid-filled vesicles that become pustules.

E) It has a morality rate of 20%.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.1 7) Which of the following poxviruses are zoonoses?

A) molluscum contagiosum B) smallpox C) cowpox D) monkeypox E) both cowpox and monkeypox Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.1

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8) A teenager shows up at a clinic with lesions on his face. The sores are raised, light-colored bumps with a waxy texture. A few similar lesions are present on the torso as well. With which of the following viruses might he be infected?

A) human herpesvirus 1 B) B19 virus C) human herpesvirus 4 D) molluscum contagiosum E) papillomavirus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.1 9) Which of the following families of DNA viruses is the most prevalent in humans?

A) Poxviridae B) Herpesviridae C) Adenoviridae D) Polyomaviridae E) Rhinoviridae Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.4 10) Simplexviruses can establish latent infections of A) B B) epithelial C) nerve D) T E) muscle Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.4

cells.

11) An older adult is complaining of an intensely painful rash that has appeared as a patch on one side of his chest. This description is consistent with A) chickenpox.

B) roseola.

C) shingles.

D) smallpox.

E) whitlow.

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12) What makes neonatal herpes a very serious condition?

A) The potential for life-long infection.

B) Central nervous system infection of the neonate.

C) HHV infection of the bone marrow.

D) Development of lymphoma.

E) The potential for oncogenesis.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.4 13) Characteristic features of the herpesvirus used for diagnosis include the A) presence of recurring lesions in the lip or genital regions.

B) presence of syncytia in infected tissue.

C) presence of recurring lesions in the lip or genital regions and syncytia in infected tissue.

D) ability of the virus to be transmitted to neonates.

E) presence of viruses intracellularly years after recovery from the infection.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.4 14) Shingles, or herpes zoster, is caused by the virus that also causes A) cold sores.

B) chickenpox.

C) smallpox.

D) molluscum contagiosum.

E) warts.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.6 15) Human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) is implicated in which of the following diseases?

A) Hodgkin's lymphoma B) cervical cancer C) oral hairy leukoplakia D) chronic fatigue syndrome E) Hodgkin's lymphoma, chronic fatigue syndrome, and oral hairy leukoplakia Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.7

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16) What is the most prevalent viral infection seen in neonates?

A) human herpesvirus 1 B) human herpesvirus 2 C) human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) D) varicella-zoster virus E) cytomegalovirus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.8 17) Where does human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) become latent?

A) in sensory nerves B) in B lymphocytes C) in cytotoxic T lymphocytes D) in motor nerves E) in oligodendrocytes Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.7 18) Which of the following statements concerning genital warts is FALSE? A) They can be transmitted via fomites.

B) They can travel to different locations on the same individual by autoinoculation.

C) They can be sexually transmitted.

D) The virus may remain latent and cause lesions at a later time.

E) The incidence is relatively low because treatment is available.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.11 19) Pinkeye can be the result of infection with A) human herpesvirus 7.

B) a polyomavirus.

C) an adenovirus.

D) a poxvirus.

E) human herpesvirus 4.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Adenoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.13

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20) The polyomavirus known as BK may establish latent infection of A) B lymphocytes.

B) liver cells.

C) bone marrow stem cells.

D) nerve cells.

E) kidney cells.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.12 21) Which of the following viruses is a DNA virus that infects liver cells?

A) hepadnaviruses B) herpesviruses C) polyomaviruses D) poxviruses E) adenoviruses Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.15 22) Adenoviruses infect A) the digestive tract.

B) the respiratory tract.

C) the nervous system.

D) both the digestive tract and the respiratory tract.

E) both the respiratory tract and the nervous system.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Adenoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.13 23) A young man goes to a clinic complaining of discomfort in his foot, especially when standing. Upon examination, the clinician observes raised bumps with rough surfaces on the sole of his foot. These lesions are consistent with A) whitlow.

B) erythema infectiosum.

C) molluscum contagiosum.

D) shingles.

E) warts.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.11

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24) Which of the following is the only DNA virus known to can cause viral hepatitis?

A) hepatitis A virus B) hepatitis B virus C) hepatitis C virus D) hepatitis D virus E) hepatitis E virus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.15 25) A member of the has been implicated as having a role in obesity.

A) adenoviruses.

B) herpesviruses.

C) poxviruses.

D) parvoviruses.

E) both herpesviruses and poxviruses.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Adenoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.13 26) Which of the following increases the risk of permanent liver damage with hepatitis B infection?

A) coinfection with human herpesvirus 4 B) coinfection with hepatitis D virus C) coinfection with HHV-6 D) coinfection with human herpesvirus 4 and hepatitis D virus E) coinfection with hepatitis D virus and HHV-6 Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.15 27) Hepatitis B virus releases a large amount of viral antigen, which benefits the patient by A) producing a stronger cellular immune response.

B) activating antibody mediated immunity.

C) making it easier to develop a vaccine.

D) allowing for better treatment.

E) ensuring plentiful substrate for binding with labeled antibodies in diagnostic tests.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.15

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28) Which of the following statements concerning the hepatitis B vaccine is FALSE? A) It must be given in three doses.

B) It is protective against the virus in 95% of vaccinated individuals.

C) It is recommended for high-risk groups.

D) It must be repeated every five years.

E) Immunity can last at least 20 years and may be for life.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.15 29) Which of the following statements regarding the association of hepatitis B with liver cancer is FALSE? A) Geographic areas with a high incidence of liver cancer also have a high prevalence of hepatitis B. B) The HBV genome has been found integrated into hepatic cancer cells.

C) Hepatic cancer cells typically express HBV antigen.

D) Chronic carriers of the virus are 200 times more likely to develop hepatic cancer.

E) Vaccination does not provide protection against the development of hepatic cancer.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.16 30) Which of the following viruses are the only ssDNA viruses that cause disease in humans?

A) Parvoviridae B) Hepadnaviridae C) Poxviridae D) Polyomaviridae E) Herpesviridae Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Parvoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.17 31) Which of the following viruses is responsible for erythema infectiosum?

A) adenoviruses B) human herpesvirus 1 C) varicella D) human herpesvirus 4 E) B19 virus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Parvoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.17

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32) A new virus is discovered that has double stranded DNA and no envelope. The highly purified virions form large crystals. This new virus is most likely a member of which virus family?

A) Adenoviridae B) Herpesviridae C) Papillomarviridae D) Poxviridae E) Papillomaviridae Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Adenoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.13 33) What is unique about the Hepadnaviridae family of viruses?

A) They contain RNA. B) They contain double-stranded RNA. C) They contain single-stranded DNA. D) They contain double-stranded DNA. E) They contain both single-stranded DNA and double-stranded DNA. Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.3 34) What viral disease has been successfully eradicated?

A) smallpox B) cowpox C) vaccinia D) varicella E) erythrovirus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.3 35) Which of the following viruses are oncogenic?

A) parvovirus B) human herpesvirus 4 C) papillomavirus D) both human herpesvirus 4 and papillomavirus E) both parvovirus and human herpesvirus 4 Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.7, 24.11

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36) The common name for the disease caused by human parvovirus B19 is A) kissing disease.

B) fourth disease.

C) fifth disease.

D) shingles.

E) Reyes' syndrome.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Parvoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.17 37) Research suggests a link between A) HHV-2 B) HHV-3 C) HHV-4 D) HHV-6 E) HHV-8 Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.9

and multiple sclerosis (MS).

38) What conditions may trigger reactivation of latent herpesvirus infections?

A) co-infection with hepatitis D virus B) major hormonal changes C) immune suppression D) co-infection with hepatitis D virus along with hormonal changes E) Immune suppression or hormonal changes can both trigger reactivation.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.5 39) Which of the following is a vaccine-preventable disease?

A) genital warts B) Kaposi’s sarcoma C) fifth disease D) infectious mononucleosis E) roseola Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.11

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40) A home-schooled child recently visited an ailing great-grandparent who was complaining of a painful rash. Even though the child had had no contact with children suffering from chickenpox, the child developed chickenpox. How did the child contract the infection?

A) The virus was likely contracted from fomites.

B) The adult had chickenpox and exposed the child.

C) An insect vector infected the child.

D) The adult had shingles and the child was exposed to virus particles.

E) There is insufficient information for a conclusion.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.6 41) The virus known as _ primarily infects lymphocytes.

A) BK virus B) Adenovirus C) B19 virus D) HHV-6 E) HHV-8 Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.12 42) Reactivation of in immunosuppressed persons may produce Kaposi's sarcoma, a cancer of the blood vessels.

A) EBV B) HHV-6 C) Cytomegalovirus D) HHV-8 E) BK virus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.9

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43) A serum sample from a patient is examined on an electron microscope, and observed to contain Dane particles, filamentous, and spherical virion particles in abundance. This observation indicates infection with A) human herpesvirus 1.

B) EBV. C) hepatitis B. D) hepatitis D. E) VZV. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.15 44) A childhood illness caused by a herpesvirus and characterized by a "rosy" rash all over the body is known as A) chickenpox.

B) kissing disease.

C) CMV. D) monkeypox.

E) roseola.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.9 45) Infection of the respiratory system by cold.

A) adenoviruses B) cytomegaloviruses C) papillomaviruses D) polyomaviruses E) parvoviruses Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Adenoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.13

may develop into symptoms of a common

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24.2 True/False Questions 1) All poxviruses that infect humans are zoonoses.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.1 2) The first documented human disease to be eradicated by vaccination was smallpox.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.3 3) Infectious mononucleosis (mono) is caused by VZV (HHV-3).

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.7 4) Human herpesviruses have been designated by combining HHV (human herpesvirus) with numbers corresponding to the severity of the diseases they cause.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.4 5) Contact with a minute quantity of blood is sufficient for infection with hepatitis B virus.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.15 6) An effective vaccine to prevent infection with Epstein-Barr virus (EBV, HHV-4) is available.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.7 7) Human herpesvirus 4 (EBV) has been implicated as an etiological agent in some cases of Hodgkin's lymphoma.

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8) About half of the large number of HPVs can integrate into the host cell genome.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.10 9) Nearly everyone appears to be infected with polyomaviruses BK and JC by the age of 15.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.12 10) Erythema infectiosum is a dangerous but treatable disease.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Parvoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.17 24.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The poxvirus (Molluscipoxvirus/monkeypox/variola) is a zoonosis.

Answer: monkeypox Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.1 2) Painful, blister-like lesions that progressively become filled with pus suggest infection with a (herpesvirus/poxvirus/papillomavirus).

Answer: poxvirus Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Poxviridae Learning Outcome: 24.2 3) Human herpesvirus (1/2/3/4) is usually associated with lesions on the genitalia.

Answer: 2 Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.4 4) An inflamed fluid-filled lesion on the finger caused by either HHV-1 or HHV-2 is known as a (blister/wart/whitlow).

Answer: whitlow Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.4

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5) The condition in which athletes develop herpes lesions on their skin as a result of coming in contact with herpes lesions during wrestling is known as herpes (gladiatorum/whitlow/zoster).

Answer: gladiatorum Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.4 6) A rash that starts on the (face/hands/torso) and spreads to the rest of the body is characteristic of chickenpox.

Answer: torso Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.6 7) Individuals who have been infected by varicella-zoster virus may develop (Kaposi's sarcoma/shingles/whitlows) later in life if they experience severe stress or immune suppression.

Answer: shingles Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.6 8) Papillomaviruses are transmitted by (aerosols/direct contact/secretions).

Answer: direct contact Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.11 9) Infection with (EBV/HHV-8/HPV) may result in cancer of the oropharynx.

Answer: HPV Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.10.

10) Children infected with (adenovirus/EBV/HHV-6) may have diarrhea.

Answer: adenovirus Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Adenoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.13 11) Replication of the hepadnaviridae genome requires (RNA polymerase/reverse transcriptase).

Answer: reverse transcriptase Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.14

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12) The cauliflower-like growths on the genitalia called condylomata acuminata are caused by (herpesviruses/papillomaviruses/parvoviruses).

Answer: papillomaviruses Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.10 13) A wart on the bottom of the foot is known as a (flat/plantar/seed) wart.

Answer: plantar Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.10 14) Immunosuppressed persons infected with (B19 virus/EBV/JC virus) may develop progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML).

Answer: JC virus Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.12 15) The disease caused by B19 virus, a (papillomavirus/parvovirus/polyomavirus), is known as fifth disease and produces a distinctive rash.

Answer: parvovirus Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Parvoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.17

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24.4 Essay Questions 1) Compare and contrast the oncogenic viruses human herpesvirus 4 (Epstein-Barr virus) andhepatitis B virus (HBV).

Answer: HHV-4 infects B-lymphocytes and is primarily associated with lymphomas, although it is also associated with nasopharyngeal cancer. HBV infects hepatocytes and has been shown to be associated with hepatic cancer based on a large amount of evidence.

Both oncogenic viruses are DNA viruses with an envelope, and both can establish chronic infections. However, the chronic infection with HHV-4 is a latent infection, whereas chronic hepatitis B virus infections are productive. The DNA of both viruses can be detected in the nuclei of infected cells and may integrate into the host genome. Both infections appear to require cofactors for the development of cancer.

HHV-4 is a member of the herpesvirus family, a group of viruses known to be capable of integrating into the host genome. However, the high prevalence of the virus in the human population, coupled with the relative rarity of the associated cancers, suggests that additional factors are involved in triggering the development of cancer. The cofactors for HHV-4 oncogenicity have not been identified with certainty, but they may be environmental factors, such as exposure to malaria antigens.

The HBV genome has been shown to be capable of integration into the host genome. Viral integration often disrupts normal function or expression of the genes in the vicinity of the site of integration. Integration alone may be sufficient to trigger progression to cancer. However, the observation that not all chronic HBV infections result in hepatic cancer suggests that other factors may be involved or contribute to the development of cancer.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.7, 24.16 2) A patient is brought into the ER in a coma. Upon inspection, the physician sees evidence of many new tattoos, as well as yellowing of the skin and eyes. What is the most likely cause of the patient's condition?

Answer: The patient is suffering from viral hepatitis. The yellow discoloration of the skin and eyes is a condition called jaundice that is seen when a waste product called bilirubin accumulates in the blood. This is indicative of severe liver damage, as is his state of coma.

Because he has had many recent tattoos, the most likely causative agent is human hepatitis B virus, which he probably contracted through the use of contaminated materials during the tattooing.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Hepadnaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.15

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3) A child is suffering from a fever and has reddish cheeks, arms, and thighs. The rash intensifies upon exposure to the sun. What is the likely infectious agent?

Answer: The child is probably infected with B19 virus. The absence of sore throat and swollen lymph nodes rules out HHV-6. Also, the rash of HHV-6 is pinkish rather than red. The aggravation of the rash by sunlight is also consistent with fifth disease (one of the names for disease caused by B19 virus). The appearance of the rash is also not consistent with HHV-3 infection (chickenpox), in which the rash is spotty and progresses to vesicles. The absence of symptoms other than fever and rash largely rules out other childhood illnesses that produce a rash.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Parvoviridae Learning Outcome: 24.17 4) A four-year-old with a history of cold symptoms for two days visits the doctor. On examination, the doctor notices "dew drops on a rose petal" lesions over the child's back. From what is the child suffering? What are the potential long-term consequences of this infection?

Answer: The child has a typical case of chickenpox. This virus can become latent within sensory nerves and remain dormant for years. In about 15% of patients who have chickenpox, stress, aging, or immune suppression causes, the virus to travel down the nerves they inhabit and produce an extremely painful rash near the distal end of the nerve, known as shingles or herpes zoster.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Herpesviridae Learning Outcome: 24.6 5) B has been HIV positive for several years. Recently, B began to experience some disturbing symptoms. B has begun to have problems with vision and motor control. Clinical tests indicate B's immune function is declining. What other viruses besides HIV might be causing B's problems? How might this be verified?

Answer: As immune function declines, latent viral infections can reactivate. The vision problems are consistent with cytomegalovirus reactivation, but the motor control problems suggest another possibility. Reactivation of JC virus can result in viral infection of important support cells of the brain (oligodendrocytes) which will eventually lead to a variety of neurological problems as neurons in the brain die. Both viruses are widespread in the population.

CMV reactivation may be detected using ELISA or DNA probes. Immunoassays may detect JC virions. Treatment for retinal CMV is available. There are currently no treatment options for reactivated JC virus.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Papillomaviridae and Polyomaviridae Learning Outcome: 24.8, 24.12

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 25 Pathogenic RNA Viruses 25.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) The "common cold" is so common because A) no immunity to the virus develops.

B) the highly variable parainfluenza virus causes colds.

C) a large number of coronaviruses cause it.

D) over 100 strains of rhinovirus cause colds.

E) 100+ strains of Rhinovirus and several other types of virus cause "colds."

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.1 2) Which of the following RNA virus families include the smallest viral pathogens in animals?

A) Picornaviridae B) Coronaviridae C) Paramyxoviridae D) Arenaviridae E) Rhinoviridae Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.1 3) Which of the following is a family of six-pointed, star-shaped viruses that cause gastrointestinal diseases?

A) Picornaviridae B) Caliciviridae C) Rhabdoviridae D) Coronaviridae E) Filoviridae Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.7

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4) Which of the following statements about rhinoviruses is FALSE? A) They are limited to infecting the upper respiratory tract.

B) They are the only viruses that can cause a common cold.

C) They are extremely infectious.

D) They thrive at 33°C. E) Person-to-person contact is the most common mode of transmission.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.1 5) Enteroviruses gain their name from the fact that they A) infect the digestive system.

B) are able to withstand the low pH of the stomach.

C) are transmitted by the fecal-oral route.

D) spread from the intestinal lining into the bloodstream to cause viremia.

E) remain latent inside cells in the stomach and intestines.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.4 6) Diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting are signs and symptoms associated with which of the following viruses?

A) coxsackie A B) enterovirus C) rhinovirus D) echovirus E) norovirus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.7

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7) Some patients who have suffered from polio develop symptoms 30-40 years later in the form of A) repeated cold symptoms.

B) meningitis.

C) encephalitis.

D) crippling deterioration and dysfunction in the polio-affected muscles.

E) deterioration of the nerves that control polio-affected muscles.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.2 8) The type of polio that involves the infection of the brain stem and medulla is A) asymptomatic polio.

B) post-polio syndrome.

C) bulbar poliomyelitis.

D) minor polio.

E) non-paralytic polio.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.2 9) Fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, and a yellow color of the sclera and skin, without hemorrhaging or kidney damage, are typically observed with A) gastroenteritis.

B) dengue fever.

C) hepatitis.

D) rubella.

E) yellow fever.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.5

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10) Which vaccine-preventable disease caused by an RNA virus has been nearly eradicated?

A) measles B) influenza C) hantavirus D) polio E) rotavirus Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.3 11) Which of the following viruses is suspected of being a cause of diabetes mellitus?

A) coxsackie A virus B) coxsackie B virus C) echoviruses D) enteroviruses E) hepatitis A Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.4 12) The common childhood illness called "hand-foot-and-mouth disease" because it causes lesions in these areas is caused by A) an echovirus.

B) a rhinovirus.

C) a strain of coxsackie A virus.

D) a strain of coxsackie B virus.

E) the rubella virus.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.4

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13) Enteric hepatitis is fatal for 20% of people in which of the following groups?

A) infants under the age of 1 year B) teenagers C) young adults D) pregnant women E) elderly men Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.6 14) How do coronaviruses differ from togaviruses?

A) Coronaviruses have an envelope.

B) Coronaviruses are RNA viruses.

C) Coronaviruses have helical capsids.

D) Coronaviruses contain positive RNA. E) Coronaviruses individual capsids can be visualized.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.9 15) What does the term "arbovirus" mean?

A) The virus is vectored by arthropods.

B) The virus has a segmented genome.

C) The virus causes disease characterized by joint pain.

D) The capsid of the virus has a branching, tree-like structure.

E) The envelope readily adheres to fomites.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.9 16) The West Nile virus is classified as a(n) A) rhinovirus.

B) coronavirus.

C) togavirus.

D) flavivirus.

E) enterovirus.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.11

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17) The disease known as dengue hemorrhagic fever is actually A) a hyperimmune response to reinfection with the dengue virus.

B) an immediate immune reaction to the initial infection with the dengue virus.

C) an antibody-antigen complex reaction.

D) the result of co-infection with other arboviruses.

E) the chronic carrier state of the dengue virus.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.12 18) Which of the following is MISMATCHED? A) Salk vaccine; requires boosters B) Sabin vaccine; live attenuated vaccine C) Salk vaccine; administered orally D) Sabin vaccine; less stable E) Salk vaccine; inactivated polio vaccine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.3 19) Which of the following viruses is considered a childhood disease, and is known to cause "three-day measles"?

A) rubella B) roseola C) echovirus D) coxsackie A virus E) rhinovirus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.15 20) A child has a mild fever and a macular rash primarily on the torso. No lesions are evident in the mouth, and the child has not complained of pain. Which of the following diseases might the child have?

A) hand-foot-and-mouth disease B) three-day measles C) red measles D) dengue fever E) Rocky Mountain spotted fever Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.15 6 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

21) The transmission of enteric hepatitis is most effectively prevented by A) safe sex practices.

B) immunization.

C) reducing aerosol dispersion.

D) vector control.

E) good public sanitation and personal hygiene.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.8 22) Which of the following characteristics distinguishes coronaviruses from rhinoviruses?

A) replicate best at 33°C B) transmitted via respiratory droplets C) cause common colds D) an envelope is present E) virions contain single-stranded positive RNA Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.17 23) Which of the following enzymes allows retroviruses to transcribe DNA from ssRNA? A) protease B) DNA polymerase C) integrase D) reverse transcriptase E) nuclease Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.18 24) The human T-lymphotropic virus 1 causes A) hairy cell leukemia.

B) adult acute T-cell lymphocytic leukemia.

C) Hodgkin's lymphoma.

D) hepatic cancer.

E) Burkitt's lymphoma.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.21

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25) The recent epidemic of MERS virus was caused by a(n) A) adenovirus.

B) rhinovirus.

C) coronavirus.

D) flavivirus.

E) togavirus.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.17 26) Colorado tick fever is caused by a and can cause headache, muscle aches and conjunctivitis in some individuals.

A) coltivirus B) rotavirus C) mumps virus D) hantavirus E) coxsackie B virus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Naked, Segmented dsRNA Viruses: Reoviridae Learning Outcome: 25.40 27) Which of the following cells is NOT infected by HIV? A) helper T cells B) microglia C) B lymphocytes D) macrophages E) dendritic cells Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.24 28) How are HIV virions rendered virulent?

A) The action of protease releases reverse transcriptase and capsomeres after the virion buds from the cell.

B) They bud to the surface of the host cell.

C) They use a chemokine receptor to remove gp120.

D) They bind to smooth muscle cells.

E) They contact the cytoplasmic membrane via gp41.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.25

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29) A scientist discovers a new virus affecting birds. After isolation, the virus is characterized as having single-strand RNA in an icosahedral capsid and an envelope. To which of the following virus families might this new virus belong?

A) Coronaviridae B) Flaviviridae C) Orthomyxoviridae D) Picornaviridae E) Reoviridae Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.9 30) Which of the following cells are a major reservoir for and distributor of HIV? A) helper T cells B) B lymphocytes C) cytotoxic T cells D) infected dendritic cells E) monocytes and macrophages Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.25 31) Which of the following bodily fluids is commonly a source of infection by HIV? A) breast milk B) semen C) vaginal secretions D) both semen and vaginal secretions E) breast milk, semen, and vaginal secretions Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.26

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32) A child has a sore throat, headache, high fever, and a cough. A couple of days later there are white spots with a red margin on the mucous membranes of the mouth. These signs and symptoms are consistent with infection with A) rhinovirus.

B) measles virus (rubeola).

C) rubella virus.

D) parainfluenza virus.

E) mumps virus.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Enveloped, Unsegmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, and Filoviridae Learning Outcome: 25.27 33) Ebola hemorrhagic fever is caused by which type of virus?

A) filovirus B) rhabdovirus C) paramyxovirus D) rubulavirus E) pneumovirus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Unsegmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, and Filoviridae Learning Outcome: 25.32 34) Public health scientists discover and become concerned about a new strain of RNA virus among farm animals, especially geese and pigs, in the Midwest. Each virion is composed of lipid, helical proteins, and multiple pieces of RNA. This new virus may be a(n) A) rotavirus.

B) influenza virus.

C) hantavirus.

D) dengue virus.

E) coronavirus.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Enveloped, Segmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Orthomyxoviridae, Bunyaviridae, and Arenaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.33

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35) Which of the following pairs is MISMATCHED? A) mumps; parotitis B) rabies; hydrophobia C) measles; Koplik's spots D) parainfluenza virus; croup E) hantavirus; paralysis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Segmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Orthomyxoviridae, Bunyaviridae, and Arenaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.35 36) Which of the following is a family of double-stranded RNA viruses?

A) Picornaviridae B) Coronaviridae C) Retroviridae D) Reoviridae E) Rhabdoviridae Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Segmented dsRNA Viruses: Reoviridae Learning Outcome: 25.38 37) Rodents are the normal hosts for which of the following encephalitis viruses?

A) eastern equine encephalitis (EEE) B) St. Louis encephalitis C) Venezuelan equine encephalitis (VEE) D) western equine encephalitis (WEE) E) West Nile virus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.10 38) Which of the following is the MOST CORRECT description of the function of reverse transcriptase?

A) It synthesizes a DNA strand from an RNA template.

B) It synthesizes an RNA strand from a double-stranded RNA. C) It synthesizes a DNA from an integrated DNA template.

D) It synthesizes an RNA strand from an infecting single-strand RNA. E) It synthesizes an RNA strand de novo.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.19

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39) Fever, jaundice, and hemorrhaging which often results in "black vomit" are characteristics of A) coronavirus.

B) Dengue fever.

C) hepatitis C infection.

D) West Nile fever.

E) yellow fever.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.13 40) Which of the following viruses can establish a chronic infection of the liver which may progress to liver cancer?

A) hepatitis A B) HTLV-1 C) hepatitis C D) hepatitis D E) hepatitis E Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.16 41) Over the past couple of decades, most human rabies infection in the United States have been the result of contact with rabid A) dogs.

B) cats.

C) rats.

D) bats.

E) foxes.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Unsegmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, and Filoviridae Learning Outcome: 25.31 42) The HIV virion is best described as a(n) A) segmented RNA genome in an irregular polyhedron capsid with envelope.

B) unsegmented RNA genome in a helical capsid with an envelope.

C) unsegmented RNA genome in a long flexible helical capsid with envelope.

D) segmented RNA genome in an icosahedral capsid, without envelope.

E) segmented RNA genome in helical capsids and an envelope.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.23 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

43) Humans may become infected with by inhaling aerosols of dried rodent excrement.

A) influenza virus B) coronaviruses C) hantavirus D) West Nile virus E) Venezuelan encephalitis virus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Segmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Orthomyxoviridae, Bunyaviridae, and Arenaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.35 44) The mumps virus infects cells.

A) brain B) liver C) lung D) salivary gland E) small intestine Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Unsegmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, and Filoviridae Learning Outcome: 25.29 45) Deltavirus (hepatitis D virus) requires co-infection with to produce infectious virions.

A) hepatitis A virus B) hepatitis B virus C) hepatitis C virus D) arenaviruses E) hepatitis E virus Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Segmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Orthomyxoviridae, Bunyaviridae, and Arenaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.37

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25.2 True/False Questions 1) Hepatitis A does not cause chronic liver disease, and complete recovery occurs 99% of the time.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.6 2) Astroviruses are common causes of gastroenteritis.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.7 3) Infection by all influenza strains can be prevented with vaccines.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Segmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Orthomyxoviridae, Bunyaviridae, and Arenaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.34 4) Rhinoviruses are enveloped viruses and so are easy to inactivate.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.1 5) Echoviruses cause gastroenteritis.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.4 6) Norovirus is the leading cause of viral gastroenteritis in the United States.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.7

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7) The practice of screening blood, blood products, and organ transplants for HIV has virtually eliminated the risk of HIV infection from these sources.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.26 8) Infants infected with the coxsackie B virus do not develop myocarditis and, therefore, the virus is rarely fatal.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.4 9) Two doses of the MMR vaccine provide full protection from infection with the mumps virus.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Unsegmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, and Filoviridae Learning Outcome: 25.29 10) The spread of hepatitis D is preventable by the hepatitis D vaccine.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Segmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Orthomyxoviridae, Bunyaviridae, and Arenaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.37 25.3 Short Answer Questions 1) An RNA that can be used by a ribosome to translate into protein is (double/positive/negative) strand RNA. Answer: positive Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.1 2) The clinical term for "runny nose" is (reovir/rhinorrhea/rhinovirus).

Answer: rhinorrhea Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.1

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3) The majority of infections with poliovirus are (asymptomatic/nonparalytic/paralytic).

Answer: asymptomatic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.2 4) Jonas Salk developed a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/subunit) polio vaccine in 1955.

Answer: inactivated Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.3 5) Infection with (astrovirus/norovirus/rotavirus) is the most common cause of diarrhea in children worldwide.

Answer: rotavirus Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Naked, Segmented dsRNA Viruses: Reoviridae Learning Outcome: 25.39 6) A diagnostic sign of measles are (herpangina/Koplik's spots/macules) in the mouth.

Answer: Koplik's spots Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Unsegmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Paramyxoviridae, Rhabdoviridae, and Filoviridae Learning Outcome: 25.27 7) The deadliest infectious disease in the U.S. is (hepatitis B/ hepatitis C/HIV) Answer: hepatitis C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.16 8) Arboviruses are transmitted by the (contact/enteric/vector) route.

Answer: vector Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.9 9) The arthropod-borne (dengue/Rubeola/Zika) virus can cause serious congenital defects if infection occurs during pregnancy.

Answer: Zika Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.14 16 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

10) Rubella vaccine is a(n) (attenuated/inactivated/subunit) vaccine and should not be given to pregnant women.

Answer: attenuated Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.15 11) The dengue viruses are spread by (fleas/mosquitoes/ticks).

Answer: mosquitoes Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.12 12) Oncogenic retroviruses HTLV-1 and 2 infect (liver/lymphocyte/nerve) cells.

Answer: lymphocyte Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.21 13) HIV attaches to T-cell and macrophages by means of an interaction between gp120 and a(n) (antibody/CD4/gp41) receptor.

Answer: CD4 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.24 14) Ebola and Marburg viruses are emerging pathogens that cause life-threatening (encephalitis/diarrhea/hemorrhaging) fever, and can be transmitted in body fluids.

Answer: hemorrhaging Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Segmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Orthomyxoviridae, Bunyaviridae, and Arenaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.32 15) Antigenic shift of influenza viruses involves (co-infection/hybridization/reverse transcription).

Answer: co-infection Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Enveloped, Segmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Orthomyxoviridae, Bunyaviridae, and Arenaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.34

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25.4 Essay Questions 1) Why do most individuals have more than one episode of the common cold in a season?

Answer: The common cold can be caused by a number of different viruses, such as adenoviruses, coronaviruses, echoviruses, and paramyxoviruses. However, most colds are caused by the 100+ serotypes of rhinoviruses. Rhinoviruses are extremely infectious; a single virus is enough to cause a cold in 50% of infected individuals. Symptomatic or not, an infected person can spread viruses to the environment in large amounts. People of all ages acquire immunity to the serotypes they have been infected with in the past, but that immunity does not provide protection from infection with other serotypes. In addition, new serotypes are continuously being released into the population by mutations in the RNA of the virus, ensuring that no one can become immune to all rhinoviruses.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.1 2) Compare and contrast the two polio vaccines used to nearly eradicate polio.

Answer: Both vaccines are effective in providing immunity to all three strains of the polio virus, and both require booster vaccinations for complete immunity.

The first vaccine was developed by Jonas Salk in 1955 and is an inactivated polio vaccine (IPV). The Salk vaccine is inexpensive, is very stable in storage, and must be administered by injection. It poses no risk of causing disease.

Albert Sabin developed an alternative vaccine known as the oral polio vaccine (OPV), which is a live, attenuated vaccine. It is easier to administer (it is administered orally), but it is more expensive to prepare and is less stable in storage than the IPV. It can cause disease if administered to an immunocompromised person. The vaccine is a live, infectious agent, and people who have received the vaccine shed virus into the environment. There are two consequences of this property. On the one hand, the OPV can provide contact immunity, which is beneficial in areas where the polio incidence is high and vaccinating the entire population would be difficult for health care workers. On the other hand, the live vaccine can mutate to regain virulence and cause outbreaks of polio. One well-documented case of a polio outbreak caused by vaccine reversion occurred in 2001. For this reason, OPV use should be phased out as polio rates decline in a population.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Naked, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Picornaviridae, Caliciviridae, Astroviridae, and Hepeviridae Learning Outcome: 25.3

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3) Why was the discovery of reverse transcriptase a momentous event in biology?

Answer: The discovery of retroviruses and their enzyme, reverse transcriptase, provide a significant exception to the central dogma of molecular biology. The central dogma states that genetic information flow is from DNA to RNA to protein. Reverse transcriptase (RT) synthesizes a DNA copy of an RNA molecule. RT has also made possible the ongoing revolution in genetic engineering and biotechnology. Scientists can more easily isolate mRNA for a specific protein and then use reverse transcriptase to make the DNA gene. Then, scientists can find the gene itself amid the full complement of DNA of an organism. The isolated gene and its product can be studied more intensively, and in some cases the gene product is available for use as a medication (e.g., human insulin), vaccine, etc.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses with Reverse Transcriptase: Retroviridae Learning Outcome: 25.18 4) Compare and contrast infectious hepatitis (hepatitis A) and hepatitis C in terms of agents, transmission, prevention, and disease outcomes.

Answer: Both viruses are unsegmented positive-sense RNA viruses, and both target the liver.

Hepatitis A is a naked capsid virus transmitted by the fecal-oral route. It can persist on fomites and is resistant to some disinfectants. Nonetheless, good personal hygiene and food-handling practices can reduce transmission. A vaccine is available that prevents infection. Infectious hepatitis is an acute disease that rarely causes lasting liver damage.

Hepatitis C is an enveloped virus transmitted in bodily fluids. The presence of the envelope makes the virus much more fragile, and the virus does not persist on fomites. No vaccine is available to prevent transmission. Transmission is prevented by avoiding unprotected contact with infected bodily fluids and by screening blood products and organs. Hepatitis C infection produces chronic disease that may remain asymptomatic for decades. About 20% of infections may progress to symptomatic liver damage or failure, and a small percentage results in liver cancer.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Enveloped, Positive ssRNA Viruses: Togaviridae, Flaviviridae, and Coronaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.6

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5) Why are patients at risk for serious respiratory complications vaccinated every year for influenza?

Answer: Influenza is caused by two species of orthomyxoviruses. The genome of the virus is extremely variable, especially the genes that code for hemagglutinin and neuraminidase, which form the glycoprotein spikes for these viruses. This occurs through a process known as antigenic drift and antigenic shift. Antigenic drift refers to the accumulation of HA and NA mutations within a single strain of a virus in a given geographic location. This changes the antigenicity of the virus to the point that it becomes so antigenically distinct from previous strains that no one is immune to it. Antigenic drift leads to an increase in the number of influenza cases every two years or so. An antigenic shift is a major genetic change that results when genomes from different influenza virus strains reassort in a single host. This reassortment also changes the virus's antigenicity. Antigenic shift takes place every 10 years and is responsible for most pandemic strains. Therefore, because of the antigenic change of the causative agent, patients who are at risk should receive vaccination every year with vaccines developed against antigens of newly emerging influenza viruses.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Enveloped, Segmented, Negative ssRNA Viruses: Orthomyxoviridae, Bunyaviridae, and Arenaviridae Learning Outcome: 25.34

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 26 Applied and Industrial Microbiology 26.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is TRUE of "starter cultures"?

A) They cause spoilage of foods.

B) They are always naturally occurring in the foods being processed.

C) They are preservatives and do not alter the food being processed.

D) They are used to control the fermentation process.

E) They are naturally occurring and cause food spoilage.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 2) The difference between Swiss cheese and blue cheese is A) different sources of milk (cow versus goat) are used.

B) the first is pasteurized, the second is not.

C) different starter cultures are used.

D) one is prepared under anaerobic conditions, the other under aerobic conditions.

E) different secondary cultures are used.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 3) Sourdough bread is produced using A) yeast.

B) Aspergillus oryzae.

C) lactic acid bacteria.

D) both yeast and lactic acid bacteria.

E) both Aspergillus oryzae and lactic acid bacteria.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1

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4) Why are "fortified" foods more likely to spoil than are unfortified foods?

A) The addition of vitamins or minerals makes the food more nutritious for microbes as well as humans.

B) Vitamins are added to "fortified" foods by adding the microbes that produce the vitamins to the food item.

C) Every step of modification or manipulation of food increases the chance for contamination.

D) The addition of nutrients creates an osmotic environment suitable for a wide range of microbes.

E) The vitamins require a neutral pH environment, which is suitable for many microbes.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.2 5) Which of the following is used in the production of food and is also considered a probiotic?

A) Aspergillus oryzae B) Gluconobacter C) Lactobacillus bulgaricus D) Penicillium E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 6) The fermentation product known as silage is A) a step in the production of brandy.

B) a means of food preservation.

C) a means of making plant materials more appealing to livestock.

D) a meat product.

E) made from milk.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1

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7) Must is used in the production of A) beer.

B) red wine.

C) sake.

D) white wine E) both beer and sake.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 8) Why is the pasta you buy from the grocery store shelf considered a non-perishable food?

A) It has a low nutritional content.

B) It was sterilized during preparation.

C) The low moisture content prevents microbial growth.

D) Various preservative chemicals are added.

E) Microbes present in the pasta inhibit the growth of harmful microbes.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.2 9) Which of the following beverages is made from fermented fruit?

A) beer B) brandy C) sake D) vodka E) both beer and vodka Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 10) Which of the following results when ethanol is allowed to oxidize to acetic acid following the fermentation of fruit, grain, or vegetables?

A) beer B) wine C) champagne D) vinegar E) malt Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1

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11) Which of the following items that are commonly added during food preparation can be considered a preservative?

A) apple juice B) meat broth C) garlic D) yeast E) whey Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 12) An intrinsic factor of food that can determine whether spoilage occurs is A) the degree of processing.

B) the amount of preservatives added.

C) the storage temperature.

D) the water content.

E) storage packaging.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.2 13) Pickling is an effective means of food preservation involving A) increasing oxygen content.

B) increasing salt concentration.

C) reducing pH. D) reducing oxygen content.

E) increasing salt concentration or reducing pH or both.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 14) Which of the following is used in both food production and industrial fermentation?

A) Bacillus thuringiensis B) Escherichia coli C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Pseudomonas syringae E) Saccharomyces cerevisiae Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.5

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15) Sugar and salt act as preservatives by A) inhibiting bacterial enzymes.

B) producing oils that inhibit bacterial growth.

C) inhibiting DNA replication.

D) drawing water out of microbes.

E) killing endospores.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 16) Which of the following methods of preserving food sterilizes it?

A) canning B) pasteurization C) drying D) gamma radiation E) lyophilization Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 17) What is the significance of the industrial practice of waiting for cultures to enter the stationary phase of growth before harvest?

A) The cells are at peak metabolic activity.

B) Secondary metabolites are often the desired product, and are only produced in stationary phase.

C) The desired primary metabolites are produced in stationary phase.

D) Potential toxins from log phase growth have been depleted.

E) An optimal combination of primary and secondary metabolites is being produced.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.5 18) Undercooked shellfish contaminated with A) Toxoplasma gondii B) Campylobacter jejuni C) Listeria monocytogenes D) Yersinia enterocolitica E) Vibrio vulnificus Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.4

_ can lead to foodborne illness.

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19) A researcher studying the impact of agricultural pesticides on native plants discovers a bacterium capable of degrading small amounts of a specific pesticide. The researcher then modifies the bacterial species in the lab to increase the rate of pesticide degradation. This research represents A) applied microbiology.

B) environmental microbiology.

C) food microbiology.

D) both food microbiology and environmental microbiology.

E) both applied microbiology and environmental microbiology.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.5 20) Which of the following pairs of industrial microbial products and their uses is MISMATCHED? A) streptokinase; dissolving blood clots B) indigo; cloth dye C) citric acid; antioxidant in food D) gluconic acid; release of cellulose from flax to make linen E) phenylalanine; the sweetener aspartame Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 21) Which of these microbial products is needed to produce "gasohol"?

A) citric acid B) methanol C) ethanol D) hyaluronidase E) aspartame Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6

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22) A combines an electronic measuring device with microbes and is used for environmental testing.

A) biosensor B) bioreactor C) clarifier D) lyophilizer E) flocs Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 23) Industrial fermentation and fermentation in food production A) are both processes in which sugars are oxidized to alcohols or acids.

B) are processes in which sugar or protein is oxidized to produce alcohols or acids.

C) use entirely different microorganisms.

D) use entirely different starting material.

E) make use of the same microorganisms.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.5 24) During treatment of water to make it potable, about 90% of the microbes are removed A) by preliminary fermentation.

B) in the sedimentation step.

C) by treatment with biosensors.

D) by treatment with chlorine or ozone.

E) in the filtration step.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.9 25) Potable water is water that A) is considered safe to drink because it is completely sterile.

B) contains biosensors.

C) contains a dangerous number of microorganisms.

D) is transferred from one place to another.

E) contains low amounts of microorganisms and is considered safe to drink.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.9

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26) Municipal chlorinated water contains A) no viruses.

B) no bacteria at all.

C) no endospores.

D) no cysts.

E) a decreased microbial load.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.9 27) Which of the following microorganisms is the most commonly used indicator organism for water quality testing?

A) Escherichia coli B) Salmonella spp.

C) Shigella spp.

D) Campylobacter jejuni E) Hepatitis A virus Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.9 28) Which of the following statements concerning the biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is CORRECT? A) It is a measure of the amount of oxygen in water.

B) It is proportional to how potable water is.

C) It is used as a bioreceptor index.

D) It is a measurement of the amount of oxygen that aerobic bacteria require to decompose organic wastes in water.

E) It is a filter system to purify drinking water.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.9 29) The phenomenon known as a "red tide" can cause A) hepatitis B) dysentary C) confusion and coma D) fever and intestinal cramping E) paralysis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.8

in humans.

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30) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of steps for beer preparation?

A) mashing, malting, fermentation, clarification, aging B) malting, mashing, adding hops, fermentation, aging C) mashing, malting, fermenting, aging, clarification D) malting, fermenting, adding hops, clarification, aging Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 31) Which of the following additives help preserve food as well as enhancing flavor?

A) cinnamon B) garlic C) salt D) salt and pepper E) cinnamon, garlic, and salt Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 32) Which of the following microorganisms associated with food poisoning thrives in cold storage?

A) Salmonella spp.

B) Shigella spp.

C) Clostridium botulinum D) Escherichia coli E) Listeria monocytogenes Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.4 33) Secondary metabolites are often useful, and are obtained by A) harvesting a culture during log phase.

B) allowing a culture to enter stationary phase.

C) growing a culture at sub-optimal temperature.

D) adding chemicals that alter metabolic pathways.

E) using continuous flow culturing.

Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.5

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34) A patient is brought to the emergency room in a comatose state. The family reports he had complained of nausea and a bad headache in the past couple of days. They also report they had engaged in their normal summer activities: picnicking, fishing and swimming at the lake near their home. His fever is high, and while in the ER, he has a seizure. Which of the following is likely to be responsible for his symptoms?

A) Entamoeba histolytica B) Giardia intestinalis C) Gonyaulax D) Naegleria fowleri E) Toxoplasma gondii Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.8 35) The waterborne pathogen A) Hepatitis A virus B) Naegleria fowleri C) Norovirus D) Toxoplasma gondii E) Poliovirus Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.8

causes acute gastroenteritis.

36) Which of the following is a microbial product used to reduce crop damage?

A) Bt toxin B) saxitoxin C) ice-minus D) both Bt toxin and ice-minus E) both Bt toxin and saxitoxin Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 37) Which of the following may result from eating shellfish?

A) botulism B) norovirus infection C) polio D) salmonellosis E) paralysis Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.8 10 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

38) Microbial enzymes are used A) in the production of linen.

B) as preservatives.

C) in spot removers.

D) as a component of fabric dyes.

E) to biodegrade plastics.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 39) Which of the following is an application of proteases?

A) cheese B) indigo C) meat tenderizer D) vodka E) wine Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 40) Streptokinase is useful for which of the following?

A) producing antibiotics B) cheese production C) biosensors D) dissolving blood clots E) insecticide Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 41) A common source of antibiotics is A) Acetobacter.

B) Aspergillus oryzae and Lactobacillus.

C) Lactoccocus cremoris.

D) Streptococcus thermophilus.

E) Streptomyces.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6

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42) Which of the following may result from eating tuna sashimi (raw fish)?

A) botulism B) norovirus infection C) polio D) salmonellosis E) saxitoxin intoxication Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.8 43) What food products are made using Aspergillus oryzae?

A) kimchee B) fish sauce C) sake D) soy sauce E) sake and soy sauce Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 26.2 True/False Questions 1) Most microbes need an environment that has a water activity of at least 0.90.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.2 2) The starter culture used to make cheese determines the type of cheese produced.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 3) Amino acid and vitamin supplements are prepared from extracts of microbial cultures.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 4) Pasteurization is a more rigorous process than canning.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 12 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Cold is preferred for storing food because it retards microbial growth by slowing down metabolic processes.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 6) Canned foods are prepared using the same temperature as is used for autoclaving.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 7) Through recombinant DNA technology, many plants now can manufacture their own Bt-toxin, which improves fermentation.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.5 8) Alcoholic fermentation is effective in preventing spoilage of fruit juices.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 9) Food poisoning is often the result of ingesting microbial toxins, not the microbes themselves.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.4 10) Water contamination refers only to the presence of excess or non-endemic microbes.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.7

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26.3 Short Answer Questions 1) The definition of (fermentation/cultivation/processing) used by food microbiologists is a desirable change in food due to microbial activity.

Answer: fermentation Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 2) Because the same microbes are not always present on food from harvest to harvest, (fresh/natural/starter) cultures are used in the production of alcoholic beverages.

Answer: starter Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 3) The sour flavor in some fermented foods is usually the result of (acetic/benzoic/lactic) acid production.

Answer: lactic Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 4) The process of preserving foods in brine is called (canning/pickling/salting).

Answer: pickling Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 5) Garlic contains an antimicrobial substance called (allicin/penicillin/streptomycin).

Answer: allicin Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 6) Water content, pH and nutrients are (extrinsic/intrinsic/microbial) factors that contribute to food spoilage.

Answer: intrinsic Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.2

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7) Brandy is made by the same process as wine, but the alcohol is then concentrated by (fermentation/distillation/filtration).

Answer: distillation Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 8) Freezing food and then using a vacuum to draw off the ice crystals is called (dehydration/lyophilization/sublimation).

Answer: lyophilization Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 9) Benzoic acid is largely a(n) (antifungal/antiprotozoal/pickling) agent and does not affect the growth of many bacteria.

Answer: antifungal Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 10) The protozoan parasite (Gonyaulax/Toxoplasma gondii/Vibrio vulnificus) is commonly acquired by eating contaminated meat.

Answer: Toxoplasma gondii Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.4 11) With the (batch/continuous/static) production technique, organisms are allowed to ferment their substrate until it is exhausted.

Answer: batch Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.5 12) Botryococcus braunii is an alga that produces hydrocarbons at (10/20/30) percent of its dry weight and could be harvested in the future as an alternative fuel.

Answer: 30 Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 13) The destruction of (cysts/endospores/viruses) is the goal of industrial canning procedures.

Answer: endospores Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.3 15 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

14) The enzyme (amylase/hyaluronidase/lipase) can be used in injected medications to enhance their rate of absorbance.

Answer: hyaluronidase Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 15) Water quality can be tested by detection of (E. coli/Cryptosporidium/norovirus) using the chemical known as MUG. Answer: E. coli Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.9 26.4 Essay Questions 1) Before the discovery of microbes, humans had been preserving meat in a variety of ways.

Discuss how these methods might have been discovered.

Answer: Many answers are possible. The following are some examples.

People observed that the flesh of a carcass that had dried out did not rot. This could have occurred during winter in very cold, dry conditions, equivalent to lyophilizing, or in the desert.

The observation could lead to the process of making jerky. Similarly, hanging meat did not dry out quickly but instead became fuzzy with fungus, a hungry person took a chance and discovered dry curing.

A mixture of meat with other foods was left in a cool dark corner too long and fermented.

Someone tried it out and found it edible. This eventually led to developing methods for preparing sausages and other fermented meat products.

Fish are trapped in a drying lagoon and die but do not decompose (much) because the drying also left high concentrations of salt. Thus the use of salt to preserve food may have been discovered.

In each of these situations people experimented because they were hungry and nothing else was available.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1, 26.3

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2) Compare the use of biosensors with traditional methods of determining microbial contamination.

Answer: Traditional methods of detecting microbial contaminants rely on collecting samples containing living microbes and being able to culture them in the laboratory. The need to provide the right growth conditions reduces the sensitivity of such tests. Waiting for the organisms to grow makes traditional methods time consuming.

Biosensors use bacteria or bacterial enzymes to detect small amounts of contaminants in samples. The results are available in minutes rather than hours or days. Detection does not rely on properly anticipating an organism's growth requirements. Biosensors can also be designed to distinguish between closely related organisms, for example, by detecting whether a toxin is present in the sample. Biosensors are faster and more sensitive than traditional methods, and they are potentially more effective in distinguishing truly harmful microbes from their harmless close relatives.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6 3) In modern times beer and wine are considered recreational beverages. In the past they were important staples in the human diet, so much so that their consumption is often remarked upon in historical documents. Why were they so important?

Answer: Naturally occurring water that is safe to drink is relatively rare. The microbial activity of fermentation inhibits the growth of potentially harmful microbes. Therefore, wine and beer were much safer to drink than water.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.1 4) Use of genetically modified crop plants may be crucial to feeding the world's growing population. Discuss this statement with regard to Bt toxin production in modified crop plants.

Answer: Crop plants producing Bt toxin require the applying of far less chemical pesticide than unmodified crops. This in turn reduces the cost of producing the crop, reduces the possibility of pesticide contamination of the food, and reduces contamination of the environment with pesticides. Killing the insects feeding on the plant reduces crop damage and increases the crop yield, making the crop more economical to produce. Further, only the insects actually eating the crop plants are affected by the Bt toxin.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Industrial Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.6

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5) Compare and contrast the two types of foodborne disease.

Answer: Foodborne diseases are also known as food poisoning. Food poisoning may be due to food infections, caused by consuming living microorganisms, or to food intoxication, caused by consuming microbial toxins in food. Many cases of foodborne diseases are common-source epidemics, where one food source is responsible for many individual cases of the disease. Food infections primarily result from improper food handling or storage, whereas food intoxication may result from improper preparation, especially canning. Heating food is usually effective in killing living microbes in food, but most toxins are not inactivated by heating.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Food Microbiology Learning Outcome: 26.4

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Microbiology with Diseases by Taxonomy, 6e (Bauman) Chapter 27 Microbial Biology and Microbiomes 27.1 Multiple Choice Questions 1) Which of the following is the CORRECT sequence of microbial associations from smallest to largest?

A) populations, guilds, communities, microhabitats, ecosystem B) populations, communities, microhabitats, ecosystem, guilds C) communities, microhabitats, ecosystem, guilds, populations D) populations, communities, ecosystem, guilds, microhabitats E) ecosystem, populations, communities, microhabitats, guilds Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.1 2) A microbiome is usually composed of A) biospheres.

B) a single species.

C) ecosystems.

D) populations E) sets of guilds.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.1 3) A is a single species in an environment.

A) microhabitat B) population C) colony D) biome E) guild Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.1

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4) A guild is composed of A) populations with similar metabolic activities.

B) microhabitats in a single location.

C) a single species.

D) microbiomes in a single zone.

E) ecosystems.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.1 5) Dental plaque is a A) biosphere.

B) guild.

C) microhabitat.

D) population.

E) ecosystem.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.1 6) Which of the following is the best definition of antagonism?

A) competition for limited resources B) cooperation in utilization of resources C) sharing the same environment without harming each other D) production of products that interfere with the growth of others E) competition and production of products that interfere with growth Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.2 7) What type(s) of microbial interactions take place in a microhabitat?

A) antagonism B) cooperation C) competition D) antagonism and competition E) a combination of antagonism, cooperation, and competition Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.2

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8) The use of microorganisms to clean a polluted environment is A) bioremediation.

B) antagonism.

C) cooperation.

D) genetic engineering.

E) waste treatment.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.3 9) After a major crude oil spill, a variety of specific microbes is distributed in the area of the spill. This would be an example of A) microbial antagonism.

B) microbial adaptation.

C) bioremediation.

D) bioreactors.

E) biogeochemical cycling.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.3 10) What produces the acidic pH of some mine runoff?

A) Metal ores are reduced by exposure to the atmosphere.

B) Metal ores are oxidized by exposure to the atmosphere.

C) microbial activity D) Sulfur-containing ores are reduced by exposure to oxygen.

E) both oxidation of metal ores and microbial activity Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.4 11) Which of the following statements concerning the phosphorus cycle in bacteria is TRUE? A) The element cycles between different organic molecules.

B) It is the most important process for synthesizing proteins and nucleic acids.

C) The element alternates among several oxidative states.

D) The element changes from insoluble to soluble forms.

E) The element is converted to a gaseous state and is lost to the environment.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.5

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12)

What type of reactions take place in the portion of the sulfur cycle indicated in the figure above?

A) oxidation-reduction B) fermentation C) dissimilation D) denitrification E) carbon fixation Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.8 13) Which of the following best describes the roles of microorganisms in the carbon cycle?

A) primary producers B) heterotrophs C) decomposers D) heterotrophs and decomposers E) primary producers, heterotrophs and decomposers Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.6 14) What is carbon fixation?

A) The conversion of dead organisms into fossil fuel.

B) The release of carbon dioxide by cellular respiration.

C) The conversion of carbon dioxide into organic molecules.

D) The storage of carbon compounds by heterotrophs.

E) The release of carbon dioxide by combustion.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.6

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15) The "greenhouse gas" methane is produced by A) Archeae.

B) fungi.

C) algae.

D) animals.

E) both fungi and alga.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.6 16) What is nitrogen fixation?

A) the conversion of nitrate (NO3-) into nucleic acids B) the incorporation of ammonia (NH3) into amino acids C) the release of ammonia (NH4-) from decomposing organic material D) the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen (N2) into ammonia (NH3) E) the conversion of ammonia (NH3) into ammonium ion (NH4+) Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.7 17) Ammonium ion (NH4+) is oxidized to nitrate (NO3-) in a process known as A) assimilation.

B) anammox.

C) nitrogen fixation.

D) nitrification.

E) denitrification.

Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.7 18) Which form of sulfur can algae and plants use but not produce?

A) hydrogen sulfide (H2S) B) elemental sulfur (S0) C) sulfuric acid (H2SO4) D) sulfate (SO42- ) E) both elemental sulfur and hydrogen sulfide Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.8

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19) What nutrient most commonly contributes to eutrophication?

A) phosphorus B) nitrite C) sulfide D) methane E) iron oxides Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.9 20) Which of the following oxidize H2S to SO4-2, the form of sulfur animals use for their metabolism?

A) Beggiatoa B) Desulfovibrio C) purple sulfur bacteria D) both Beggiatoa and purple sulfur bacteria E) both Beggiatoa and Desulfovibrio Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.8 21) Metal ions are useful to organisms in the A) soluble B) reduced C) insoluble D) oxidized E) oxidized and insoluble Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.10

form.

22) Biomining takes advantage of prokaryotes ability to A) reduce B) reduce the solubility of C) oxidize D) directly solubilize E) bioaccumulate Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.10

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metals.

23) Where does the bulk of biogeochemical cycling occur?

A) in the air B) in soil C) in water D) in the benthic zone E) in both air and water Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.10 24) What pH conditions favor the growth of most bacteria?

A) pH 2 B) pH 5 C) pH 7 D) pH 9 E) Bacteria can grow at all ranges of pH. Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.11 25) Which of the following conditions will most favor the growth of microbes?

A) waterlogged with little mineral content B) moderately moist soil with lots of organic compounds C) alternating moist and dry with alkaline conditions D) mostly dry soil with moderate amounts of organic compounds and acidic conditions E) alternating moist and dry soil with high salt content Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.11 26) What microbes thrive in waterlogged soil?

A) anaerobes B) obligate aerobes C) halophiles D) thermophiles E) bacteria capable of forming endospores Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.11

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27) Soil contaminated with bird droppings may contain disease in humans.

A) Agrobacterium tumifaciens B) Clostridium tetani C) Streptomyces scabies D) Histoplasma capsulatum E) Bacillus anthracis Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.12

which can cause respiratory

28) Which of the following is a specific example of bioremediation?

A) the purification of water for drinking B) the treatment of wastewater C) the treatment of sludge D) the addition of nitrogen compounds to a landfill E) acid mine drainage Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.3 29) Anaerobic organisms reside in the A) limnetic B) benthic C) littoral D) profundal E) both the littoral and the profundal Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.13

zone of a lake.

30) The majority of the microbial carbon cycling activity will typically occur in the zone of a body of water.

A) benthic B) littoral C) limnetic D) profundal E) abyssal Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.6, 27.13

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31) Photoautotrophs reside in the A) abyssal B) limnetic C) littoral D) both limnetic and littoral E) abyssal, limnetic, and littoral Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.13

zone(s) of marine environments.

32) Which aquatic zone in a lake will have the highest nutrient levels and therefore the densest microbial populations?

A) the littoral zone B) the limnetic zone C) the profundal zone D) the benthic zone E) the sediment zone Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.13 33) Which of the following sets of characteristics describes the highest level of threat potential from biological weapons?

A) a waterborne toxin that is easily introduced into public water supplies and does not replicate in humans B) a pathogen of livestock transmitted by contact with infected animals but not infected people C) a human pathogen easily produced as an aerosol and transmissible by respiratory aerosols D) a pathogen of wheat that could be delivered using crop dusters E) a microbe that can be introduced into food during packaging and withstands refrigerator temperatures but not typical cooking temperatures Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 27.14 34) Which of the following infectious diseases currently tops the list of bioterrorist threats?

A) anthrax B) the plague C) smallpox D) botulism E) cholera Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 27.14 9 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

35) Which waterborne disease is also a moderate level bioterrorism threat?

A) blastomycosis B) giardiasis C) crown gall disease D) coccidioidomycosis E) cholera Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.12, 27.14 36)

Green and purple sulfur bacteria will carry out anaerobic photosynthesis primarily in A) zone 1.

B) zone 2.

C) zone 3.

D) zone 4.

E) both zones 1 and 2.

Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.13

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37) Which of the following bacteria is a common soil contaminant that may cause disease in humans and is a biological select agent?

A) Aspergillus oryzae B) Bacillus anthracis C) Cyanobacteria D) Lactoccocus cremoris E) Streptomyces scabies Answer: B Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 27.12, 27.14 38) Why are Category C select agents considered lower risk biological agents?

A) They are less dangerous pathogens than Category A. B) They may be difficult to disperse.

C) They cause disease in animals but not humans.

D) They are less dangerous pathogens and are more difficult to disperse.

E) Their threat potential is unknown.

Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 27.14 39) Which of the following disease agents has potential for both agroterrorism and bioterrorism?

A) smallpox B) tularemia C) plague D) brucellosis E) blight Answer: D Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 27.14 40) Which potential biological select agent currently has no natural source?

A) anthrax B) arenaviruses C) tularemia D) epidemic typhus E) smallpox Answer: E Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 27.14

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41) Which of the following would be most effective in reducing the amount of CO2 in the atmosphere?

A) cyanobacteria B) anaerobic microbes C) heterotrophic organisms D) fungi E) nitrogen fixers Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.6 42) Which of the following is a nitrogen-fixing bacterium that forms associations with the roots of plants?

A) anaerobic Bacillus species B) Clostridium species C) Rhizobium species D) Azotobacter species E) cyanobacteria Answer: C Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.7 43) When runoff containing excessive nutrients enters streams and lakes it can result in an overgrowth of cyanobacteria and algae, a process known as A) eutrophication.

B) oxidation.

C) fixation.

D) ammonification.

E) both ammonification and fixation.

Answer: A Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.9

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27.2 True/False Questions 1) The interactions between microbes in a guild are constantly changing.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.1 2) A microbiome typically is a single population of organisms.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.1 3) Members of a guild are metabolically related to each other.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.1 4) Acidic drainage from mine tailings is harmful to all life.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.4 5) Only prokaryotes fix nitrogen.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.7 6) Algae and protozoa in the soil are quite hardy, and therefore their abundance is not a useful indicator of environmental pollution.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.11 7) Bedrock does not contain microorganisms.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.11

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8) Bioremediation is the process of using organisms to clean up toxic, hazardous compounds by degrading them to less harmful substances.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.3 9) Without the activities of microorganisms, the functioning of Earth's ecosystems would cease.

Answer: TRUE Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.2 10) Public health infrastructure is not a factor in determining microbiological bioterrorism potential.

Answer: FALSE Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 27.14 27.3 Short Answer Questions 1) All the microbes in a community in one location constitute a(n) (biosphere/ecosystem/microbiome).

Answer: microbiome Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.1 2) A biofilm is an example of (antagonism/competition/cooperation) among microbes.

Answer: cooperation Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.2 3) Organic compounds are degraded to produce methane by (Archaea/fungi/Pseudomonas).

Answer: Archaea Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.3 4) Metals are cycled in the environment by microbes that (oxidize/reduce/solubilize) them.

Answer: solubilize Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.5 14 Copyright © 2020 Pearson Education, Inc.

5) Anaerobic oxidation of (methane/rubisco/plastics) produces carbon dioxide.

Answer: methane Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.6 6) During decomposition of amino acids, the amino groups undergo (ammonification/anammox/denitrification) and are converted to ammonia.

Answer: ammonification Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.7 7) Cyanobacteria produce a cell type known as a (cyst/heterocyst/nodule) that protects nitrogenase from the exposure to oxygen.

Answer: heterocyst Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.7 8) Some microbes can (assimilate/oxidize/reduce) hydrogen sulfide to elemental sulfur.

Answer: oxidize Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.8 9) Eutrophication is primarily a result of (agricultural/industrial/urban) runoff.

Answer: agricultural Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.9 10) Exposure to soil contaminated with rodent excrement may result in respiratory infection with (Coccidioides/Clostridium/Hantavirus).

Answer: Hantavirus Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.12 11) Rivers typically lack a(n) (anaerobic/littoral/limnetic) zone.

Answer: anaerobic Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.13

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12) A biological select agent spread by (aerosols/contact/ingestion) has a high threat level.

Answer: aerosols Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 27.14 13) The anthrax attack of Fall 2001 was accomplished by mailing the agent in ordinary envelopes. This method of delivery took advantage of the ability of Bacillus anthracis to produce (aerosols/endospores/spores).

Answer: endospores Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 27.14 14) When one microbe's metabolic activities create favorable conditions for another microorganism, this is referred to as (competition/cooperation/facilitation).

Answer: cooperation Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.1 15) The organic material found in topsoil is called (humus/peat/compost).

Answer: humus Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.11 27.4 Essay Questions 1) What are the levels of microbial associations in the environment? How do they relate to an ecosystem?

Answer: Microorganisms are associated with each other at many levels in the environment.

Individual growing and reproducing organisms that are all of one species are referred to as a population. Populations of microorganisms performing metabolically related processes are known as guilds. Guilds constitute communities. Guilds and populations within a community typically reside in their own habitat. Together, the organisms, environment, and relationship between the two constitute the ecosystem.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Understanding Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.1

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2) Compare and contrast carbon fixation and nitrogen fixation.

Answer: Both processes convert inorganic compounds into organic forms that living things can use.

Carbon fixation can take place in the presence or absence of oxygen. Both prokaryotes and eukaryotes capable of fixing carbon, incorporating carbon dioxide (CO2) into carbohydrate molecules (glucose).

Nitrogen fixation can only occur in the absence of oxygen, and only prokaryotes carry out nitrogen fixation. Nitrogen fixation reduces nitrogen gas (N2) to produce ammonia (NH3).

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.5 3) How do soil conditions impact the cycling of nitrogen during decomposition?

Answer: Soil moisture content influences cycling of nitrogen. In moist soil, the ammonia generated by decomposition of amino acids is converted to ammonium ion and quickly absorbed by organisms. In dry soil the ammonia is lost to the atmosphere.

The pH of the soil also influences whether ammonia is lost to the atmosphere or not: alkaline soil allows ammonia to escape as a gas, while neutral to acidic conditions favor conversion to ammonium ion and retention.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Environmental Microbiology Learning Outcome: 27.7, 27.11

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4) Smallpox is considered a serious potential biological weapon, whereas anthrax has been successfully used as one. Compare and contrast their potential with regard to the criteria for assessing biological threats.

Answer: The smallpox virus causes serious illness with moderate to high fatality rates. The virus is highly contagious by contact and aerosols, and it is contagious before clear signs appear. The virus can persist on fomites and infect persons who come in contact with them. Although a vaccine exists, the majority of the world's population is currently unvaccinated. Consequently, once released, the virus will spread rapidly. However, there is no natural source for the virus, so a person or persons intent on using it as a weapon would have to have special access and facilities to be able to produce much virus. Additionally, post-exposure vaccination is effective in producing immunity, so the resulting epidemic could be controlled once recognized.

The agent of anthrax, Bacillus anthracis, is an animal pathogen and a common soil contaminant.

The organism can be easily isolated from contaminated soil and is not difficult to culture. The disease is not transmissible from person to person, so only the people exposed to the initial release would be at risk. However, the bacterium produces endospores that can be stored for long periods of time and released as a dust contaminant in airways or contact contaminant on fomites.

Public perception of anthrax is that it is a very dangerous weapon. Initial respiratory symptoms are similar to other bacterial pneumonias, so proper diagnosis may not be made until the fatal toxemia develops. The current vaccine is expensive and does not produce immunity until after several boosters have been administered; therefore, it is not useful for controlling disease after a release. Natural B. anthracis is susceptible to most antibiotics, so treatment in cases of early detection is effective. Authorities are concerned about the potential for the development of antibiotic-resistant strains.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Analyzing Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 27.14

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5) The dengue and Ebola viruses cause hemorrhagic fevers. Evaluate their threat levels as select agents using the criteria in the textbook, and decide whether they pose significant risk as biological weapons.

Answer: Impact: Dengue virus can cause serious debilitating illness in adults but is only occasionally fatal, while the fatality rate among children is much higher. On the other hand, exposure to a different strain (there are 5) results in more severe disease. The public health impact could be increased by successive release of different strains into a susceptible population.

People in areas where dengue viruses are endemic may have natural immunity. Delivery: Dengue viruses are transmitted by mosquitoes. An initial release of infected mosquitoes could result in many illnesses, but if the normal vector is not endemic to the area the disease would not continue to spread. Spread would also be seasonal in most temperate areas. Public perception and preparedness: In temperate zone developed countries there is not much awareness of dengue, so initially people might not perceive that they were under attack. In the 100 or so tropical to subtropical countries where dengue occurs the public would recognize the outbreak more quickly. There are no specific treatments, and vaccines are in development but not yet available. Dengue virus is not an "ideal" biological weapon, but has some potential.

Impact: Ebola virus has a high mortality rate, and the manner of death is alarming. Fatality is not age-dependent. Delivery: Transmission from person to person requires direct contact with body fluids. Deliberate release into an unsuspecting population would be very difficult, probably requiring something like suicide "bombers". Public perception and preparedness: Public awareness of Ebola is very high due to the recent major outbreak, and the movie industry portrayal of the disease. This awareness combined with the obvious, alarming cause of death would likely result in terror in the population. There are no proven treatments and vaccines are in the early stages of development. While the "terror" potential of Ebola is high, the delivery obstacles make it an unlikely weapon.

Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis Section: Biological Warfare and Bioterrorism Learning Outcome: 27.14

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