TEST BANK for McCurnin's Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians 9th Edition by Joanna M. Basse

McCurnins Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians 9th Edition Bassert Test Bank Chapter 01: Introduction to Veterinary Technology: Its Laws and Ethics Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. NAVTA stands for a. National Association of Veterinarian Technical Academy b. North American Veterinary Technology Association c. National Association of Veterinary Technicians of America d. North American Veterinary Technician Association ANS: C

The National Association of Veterinary Technicians of America is NAVTA. PTS: 1 REF: p. 4 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 2. Presently in the field of veterinary technology which is not true? a. Salaries vary depending on the field of interest and the level of experience. b. Widespread shortages of veterinary technicians have been reported. c. In 2015, the average salary for veterinary technicians nationwide was $33,280 per

year or $16.00 per hour. d. Technicians working in metropolitan areas earn less, on average, than those

working in rural areas.

ANS: D

Presently, widespread shortages of veterinary technicians have been reported, and graduates of veterinary technology programs are finding ample job opportunities. Although job opportunities are plenty, salaries vary depending on the field of interest and the level of experience. For example, in 2015, the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics reported that the average salary for veterinary technicians nationwide was $33,280 per year or $16.00 per hour.

However, level of experience, location of work, and field of interest have an impact on income potential. Technicians working in metropolitan areas earn more, on average, than those working in rural areas.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 4 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 3. A controlled substance is a drug or chemical a. not used in veterinary medicine. b. whose manufacture, possession, or use is regulated by government. c. that is categorized into specific classes or schedules based on their cost. d. that can be prescribed by veterinary technicians.

ANS: B

A controlled substance is a drug or chemical whose manufacture, possession, or use is regulated by government. In veterinary medicine, controlled substances are used on a daily basis. Federal and state legislation, such as the federal and state controlled substance acts, establish limitations and guidelines for the possession, use, storage, exportation, and production of specific drugs. Controlled drugs are categorized into specific classes or schedules based on the drugs’ capacity for addiction. In the United States, the Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) has been empowered by Congress to enforce federal regulation of controlled substances. Controlled substance log books, used in many veterinary practices, are required by governmental regulatory agencies and legislation to document the distribution and use of controlled substances. State controlled substance acts frequently apply to all drugs and devices, not just those drugs that are on the state or Federal Controlled Substances lists.

Veterinarians may only prescribe drugs for their animal patients, with whom they have a veterinarian-client-patient relationship. They may not prescribe (or dispense from their own pharmacy) drugs for themselves or others. No state permits veterinary technicians to prescribe drugs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 34 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Demonstrate understanding of controlled substance regulations 4. The Animal Welfare Act (AWA) a. requires that minimum standards-of-care and treatment be provided for all

warm-blooded animals. b. excludes mice, rats, or birds, which represent approximately 90% of animals used

in research and higher education. c. excludes animals transT poErtSedTB coAmNmKeS rcEiaLllL y,EaR s. wC elO l aMs those exhibited to the

public. d. is an International law.

ANS: B

In the United States, the Animal Welfare Act (AWA) requires that minimum standards-of-care and treatment be provided for [most] some warm-blooded animals bred for commercial sale, used in research and higher education, transported commercially, and exhibited to the public. The AWA does not apply to mice, rats, or birds, which represent approximately 90% of animals used in research and higher education.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 35 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 5. Because the practice of veterinary technology is regulated by each state or province which of

the following is incorrect? a. One state may issue a license, whereas another may issue a certificate. b. Granting of a license by a state board implies that the board has reviewed and approved the qualifications of the individual to practice. c. Granting of a certificate implies that an entity other than a state board has reviewed and approved the qualifications of the individual to practice, and has certified that the person is competent to practice.

d. Once certified a technician does not need to check with the state’s board before

beginning practice to ensure that he or she has obtained the proper authorization to practice.

ANS: D

Because the practice of veterinary technology is regulated by each state or province, some variety is noted in the terminology used to designate an individual whom the board has authorized to practice. This variety can be confusing because one state may issue a license, whereas another may issue a certificate. Granting of a license by a state board implies that the board has reviewed and approved the qualifications of the individual to practice. Granting of a certificate implies that some other entity has reviewed and approved the qualifications of the individual to practice, and has certified that the person is competent to practice. Some states issue a license but call a technician certified (e.g., in Pennsylvania, technicians’ qualifications are reviewed by the board, and the board issues a license bestowing the title Certified Veterinary Technician). Some jurisdictions “register” rather than license technicians. The term registered implies that neither the board nor an independent entity has reviewed and approved the qualifications of the technician to practice; however, to lawfully practice veterinary technology, the individual must register and provide information to the board.

Some boards that refer to registration actually do review and approve the qualifications of technicians. A technician should check with the state’s board before beginning practice to ensure that he or she has obtained the proper authorization to practice.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 26 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies

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6. If a veterinary technician violates the state’s practice act or regulations of the profession’s

governing body, the penalty can include a. loss of licensure, monetary penalties (fines), or other discipline. b. no punishment since veterinary technicians are not covered by practice acts. c. those outlined in a standard practice act adopted by every state. d. none of the above are correct.

ANS: A

If a veterinary technician violates the state’s practice act or regulations of the profession’s governing body, the penalty can include loss of licensure, monetary penalties (fines), or other discipline, such as additional continuing education courses. Because practice acts vary from one jurisdiction to another, every veterinary technician must be sure to understand the laws that govern the practice of veterinary technology in the state or province in which the technician plans to practice.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 24 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 7. NAVTA model rules and regulations for veterinary technicians include three levels of

supervision. Of those levels, which of the following is correct?

a. Immediate supervision—A licensed veterinarian is within direct eyesight and

hearing range. b. Direct supervision—A licensed veterinarian is on the premises and is readily

available. c. Indirect supervision—A licensed veterinarian is not on the premises but is able to

perform the duties of a licensed veterinarian by maintaining direct communication. d. All of the above are correct.

ANS: D

NAVTA model rules and regulations for veterinary technicians include three levels of supervision defined as follows: Immediate supervision—A licensed veterinarian is within direct eyesight and hearing range. Direct supervision—A licensed veterinarian is on the premises and is readily available. Indirect supervision—A licensed veterinarian is not on the premises but is able to perform the duties of a licensed veterinarian by maintaining direct communication.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 27 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 8. In some states veterinary technicians can extract teeth, whereas in other states this is

considered surgery and cannot be performed by a veterinary technician. In order to determine if this is a task that you can perform in your state you should a. ask your supervisor. b. know that veterinary technicians can perform any task they were taught in school. c. consult your state practTicEeSaT ctB . ANKSELLER.COM d. never extract teeth during a dental cleaning.

ANS: C

One such area that has recently undergone intense scrutiny by licensing boards nationwide is the appropriate scope of practice for technicians performing dental procedures. States range from permitting technicians to perform only cleaning and polishing without subgingival scaling to permitting technicians to perform certain types of extractions. Massachusetts permits a veterinary technician to clean and polish teeth under direct veterinary supervision.

Georgia permits a veterinary technician who is under the direct supervision of a veterinarian to remove calculus, soft deposits, polish stains, and smooth and file teeth, and to perform dental extractions that do not require sectioning of the tooth or resecting of bone.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 31 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 9. Which of the following is not yet a NAVTA-recognized area of specialty for veterinary

technicians? a. Veterinary Technician Anesthetists b. Veterinary Emergency and Critical Care Technicians c. Oncology Medicine for Veterinary Technicians

d. Internal Medicine for Veterinary Technicians ANS: C

NAVTA recognized areas of specialty for veterinary technicians are as follows: Veterinary Dental Technicians Veterinary Technician Anesthetists Internal Medicine for Veterinary Technicians Veterinary Emergency and Critical Care Technicians Veterinary Behavior Technicians Veterinary Zoological Medicine Technicians Equine Veterinary Nursing Technicians Veterinary Surgical Technicians Veterinary Technicians in Clinical Practice Veterinary Nutrition Technicians Veterinary Clinical Pathology Technicians Dermatology Veterinary Technicians PTS: 1 REF: p. 14 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 10. College programs designed to train veterinary technicians are accredited by a. The USDA. b. The FDA. c. The AVMA and the CV TM ESAT. d. The AALAS. ANS: C

In the U.S. and Canada, college programs designed to train veterinary technicians are accredited by the American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA) and by the Canadian Veterinary Medical Association (CVMA), respectfully.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 4 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 11. The current rate of attrition from the field of veterinary technology a. is very low. b. is very high. c. is not a problem because many people want to be trained. d. cannot be explained.

ANS: B

The profession of veterinary technology has a high rate of attrition.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 5 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 12. Upon graduation from a Veterinary Technology program, students must take and pass the

VTNE. Which of the following statements regarding the VTNE is the most accurate?

a. The VTNE is the Veterinary Technician National Examination. b. Students are not required to take the VTNE to become certified or licensed in most

states and Canada. c. Once the VTNE has been passed, technicians can perform any task a veterinarian

can do. d. All of the above are true.

ANS: A

After completing the requirements to graduate from a program of veterinary technology, students prepare to take the Veterinary Technician National Examination (VTNE), which is required in most states and provinces.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 6 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 13. Veterinary technicians are often charged with obtaining objective patient information such as

all of the following except (which is not objective patient information) a. Heart rate and pulse rate b. Blood work including serum chemistries and CBC c. Body temperature d. Observations about the patient’s mentation ANS: D

Objective data include measureable patient information such as vital signs (heart rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, and body temperature) and laboratory results (complete blood count (CBC) and serum chemistry analysis).

PTS: 1 REF: TpE p.S7T -8BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 14. Patient evaluations can be thought of in three categories a. Actual physical and psychological problems of the patient b. The risk of or potential for problems c. The risks related to the owner d. All of the above are correct ANS: D

Patient evaluations therefore fall into one of three categories: 1. Evaluations that relate to actual physical and psychological problems of the patient, such as “hypovolemia,” “abnormal eating behavior,” and “fear.” 2. Evaluations that relate to the risk of or potential for problems in the future, such as “risk for infection” and “risk of aspiration.” 3. Evaluations that relate to the owner (also called the client), such as “client knowledge deficit” and “noncompliant owner.”

PTS: 1 REF: p. 8 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history

15. Foundation issues are the most critical problems that must be addressed first in any medical

situation because they determine whether the animal will live or die. Which is the most critical foundation issue and should always be addressed first? a. Oxygenation b. Bleeding c. Pain d. Head injury ANS: A

The most critical problems are considered foundation issues because if they are not addressed first, the animal may not live. The most important issues at the bottom relate to oxygenation.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 8-9 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 16. It is widely accepted and has been proposed by both the American Veterinary Medical

Association (AVMA) and the American Association of Veterinary State Boards (AAVSB) that only veterinarians may do the following: prescribe, diagnose, or perform surgery. In addition, which other task is recommended for veterinarians only? a. Client education b. Prognosis c. IV catheter placement d. Bandaging ANS: B

It is widely accepted and hT asEbSeT enBpAroNpKoS seEdLbL yE boRt. hC thO eM American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA) and the American Association of Veterinary State Boards (AAVSB) that only veterinarians may do the following: prescribe, diagnose, prognose, or perform surgery.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 8 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 17. It is important that the veterinary technician, when completing veterinary medical records,

enter the notation, for each treatment, drug, medication, or appliance ordered by the veterinarian. a. “per Os” b. “as per order” c. “b.i.d.” d. Veterinary technicians do not write in medical records ANS: B

It is important that the veterinary technician, when completing veterinary medical records, enter the notation, “as per order,” for each treatment, drug, medication, or appliance ordered by the veterinarian.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 10

TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Demonstrate the ability to accurately record medical information 18. The veterinary technician’s role in the area of pharmacy may include all of the following

except a. interpreting the prescription language. b. dispensing the medication to the pet owner. c. ensuring that the pharmacy is well stocked. d. prescribing medication.

ANS: D

The veterinary technician interprets the prescription language, then fills and dispenses the medication to the pet owner, along with instructions for its use. In addition, veterinary technicians are often responsible for ensuring that the pharmacy is well stocked, that expired drugs are discarded, and that controlled substances are handled appropriately.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 10 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Read and follow veterinarian's pharmacy orders 19. In the operating room, the veterinary technician may assume all of the following duties except a. acting as the circulating nurse. b. assisting during a particularly challenging operation. c. performing surgery. d. ensuring that all surgical equipment is clean, sterile, and ready to use.

ANS: C

The operating room (OR) technician, or the circulating nurse, positions the patient on the operating table and completes the final surgical scrub. Instruments, equipment, and materials needed by the surgeon are made available. The technician retrieves any additional materials requested during the procedure, adjusts surgery lights, tilts the surgery table, and, in general, does whatever is necessary to support the needs and comfort of the surgeon. In some practices, the technician acts simultaneously as anesthetist and circulating nurse.

Occasionally, technicians are asked to assist during a particularly challenging operation and must be skilled in proper sterile techniques, including gloving and gowning. After the procedure has been performed, the technician washes and dries the surgical instruments and reorganizes them into surgical packs for sterilization. The technician may also perform the duties of the postoperative care nurse for the recovering patient.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 12 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Prepare surgical instruments and supplies 20. Throughout the animals’ clinic or hospital stay, the veterinary technician frequently assesses

and reassesses patients’ status. They should alert the veterinarian to any changes in a. pain level of the animal. b. surgical complications such as bleeding. c. changes in mentation. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Throughout the patient’s hospitalization, the veterinary technician assesses and reassesses patient status, develops new evaluations, and adjusts the technician nursing plan. During these periodic patient assessments, the veterinary technician is keenly aware of pain levels experienced by the patient and ensures that appropriate pain management is provided as per order from the veterinarian.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 13 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 21. In addition to salary, many employers of veterinary technicians provide benefits to their

employees. Which of the following is true with regard to these benefits? a. Smaller companies are often better positioned to provide benefits than larger ones. b. Retirement plans should not be considered a primary benefit offered to technicians. c. Health care coverage is too expensive to provide in a clinical setting, so it is never offered. d. Continuing education may include support towards earning a university degree.

ANS: D

Financial support that helps employees earn a bachelor’s or master’s degree may be provided by an employer, especially one that is involved with pharmaceutical or corporate business.

This is considered a form of continuing education, or CE, and is a valuable benefit.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 5 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 22. According to the AVMA, which of the following is a true statement? a. The best run clinics use veterinarians to complete most of their animal-centered

tasks. b. Technicians are best utilized as receptionists in the clinical setting. c. Technicians should be involved in as many animal-related tasks as possible. d. Technicians are an expense to a clinic and their presence is hard to justify

economically.

ANS: C

Statistics gathered by the AVMA indicate that the most financially sound practices are those that make full use of their staff. Veterinarians in these well-run practices complete only those tasks that by law they alone are permitted to do. All other animal care tasks are completed by veterinary technicians and veterinary assistants.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 5 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Understand and observe legal boundaries of veterinary health care team members 23. Which is the committee that accredits veterinary technician programs in the United States? a. CVMA b. CVTEA c. USDA

d. VTPAC ANS: B

The CVTEA (Committee on Veterinary Technician Education and Activities) is a component of the American Veterinary Medical Association (AVMA) which is responsible for the accreditation of American veterinary technician programs based on the fulfillment of 11 essential criteria. The Canadian Veterinary Medical Association is the Canadian counterpart to the AVMA, and performs the same accreditation function via the Animal Health Technology/Veterinary Technician Program Accreditation Committee (AHT/VTPAC).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 5 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 24. Which of the following is not a domain that is covered on the VTNE? a. Dentistry b. Diagnostic Imaging c. Pain Management d. Surgical Techniques ANS: D

While there is a Surgical Nursing Domain on the VTNE, the practice of surgery is delegated to licensed veterinarians. It is important for technicians to have a firm understanding of surgical procedures and have a strong working relationship with veterinary surgeons; however, the actual practice of surgery by veterinary technicians is not allowed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 7 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 25. What is the purpose of the 20 new questions that are added annually to the VTNE? a. To determine how well the candidates answer them and whether they qualify as

repeatable questions that can be used on future exams b. To give extra credit to applicants who answer them correctly c. To increase the number of scored questions each year d. To ensure everyone who takes the VTNE passes ANS: A

These 20 questions are not identified to the test takers, and therefore are analyzed for appropriateness in use for subsequent tests. Since they are not scored they are not intended to punish test takers who do not answer them correctly. If they are answered correctly by a predetermined number of test takers they may then be used as repeatable questions on future examinations.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 7 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 26. There are five cyclically performed steps involved in a patient’s hospitalization. These are

collectively called the veterinary technician a. diagnostic approach b. practice model

.

c. therapeutic formulation d. data evaluation ANS: B

The veterinary technician practice model includes the following: gathering patient data, identification and prioritization of patient evaluations, development and implementation of plan for patient care, evaluation of the patient’s response to the plan, and then the gathering of additional data. These steps allow for the systematic evaluation and treatment of an animal under the technician’s care.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 7 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 27. How often should a technician examine and reevaluate a patient using the veterinary

technician practice model? a. Once a day b. Several times a day c. Once per hospitalization d. Every hour ANS: B

Typically, a patient should be examined and evaluated several times a day to determine if any adjustments must be made to the treatment plan. As the patient’s status fluctuates so should the treatment parameters. Evaluations performed less frequently than this may result in missed opportunities to modify a treatment in a manner that may be beneficial to the overall health of the patient.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 7-8 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 28. Why should veterinary technicians become accustomed to communicating with clients

regarding their pets? a. Many clients feel more comfortable discussing their pets with technicians rather than with veterinarians b. Veterinarians are too busy to talk to clients c. Technicians are inherently more talkative than veterinarians d. Clinics charge less for time that technicians versus veterinarians spend talking with clients ANS: A

It is true that many clients feel more at ease discussing issues involving their pets with technicians than they do with the veterinarians. Issues ranging from euthanasia to behavior modification are routinely brought up directly to the technicians on duty and thus CVTs must be open and willing to serve as a source of useful information regarding all areas of veterinary medicine.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 10 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology

profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Interact professionally with clients and fellow staff members 29. Which of the following is true concerning specialist status for veterinary technicians? a. There are five areas of veterinary technician specialization b. It is required that the specialist is a member of the state veterinary technician

association c. A master’s degree is required d. The specialist is identified with the initials VTS ANS: D

VTS (Veterinary Technician Specialist) is included after the individuals name along with the area of specialty for that technician. Currently there are 12 specialties and 6 societies that a certified veterinary technician can become a specialist in with advanced training and expertise.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 14 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 30. What is the difference between a veterinary technician and a veterinary technologist? a. Veterinary technologists are trained outside of the United States b. Veterinary technicians are assigned more responsibility than technologists c. Veterinary technologists require more formal education than technicians d. There is no difference, and the titles depend solely on which college the person

attended ANS: C

Veterinary technologists arTeEreSqT uiBreAdNtoKhSoEldLaLbEaR ch.eC loOr’M s degree from an AVMA-accredited university program. Due to their higher degree of education compared to technicians, technologists often hold positions of higher responsibility and stature than their technician counterparts.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 15 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 31. According to the Saunders Comprehensive Veterinary Dictionary, the “Rules or principles

that govern right conduct” are known as professional a. laws b. responsibilities c. rights d. ethics

.

ANS: D

Veterinary professional ethics involves what is right and wrong for both the patient and the client. Veterinary technicians are required to operate under a strict moral baseline of ethical practices in their daily work. While ethical considerations can be complicated matters, their contemplation must take place in order to adequately fulfill the oath each American veterinary technician takes.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 21-23 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology

profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Understand and observe legal boundaries of veterinary health care team members

Chapter 02: Veterinary Practice Management Bssert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. In the best-run practices, job duties are delegated to the lowest-level person who can do the

job well within the legal scope of practice. When this does not occur a. the practice spends more money than necessary on personnel. b. it causes frustration among veterinarians and veterinary technicians who are not given the opportunity to fully exercise the skills they were educated to perform. c. a key component of good management is missing. d. all of the above are true.

ANS: D

This kind of delegation is a key component of good management. In “real life,” it is not uncommon to see veterinarians doing tasks that a well-trained technician is legally allowed to do and can do better. Many also hire veterinary technicians but have them perform the duties of veterinary assistants and caretakers. Consequently, the practice spends more money than necessary on personnel, causing frustration among veterinarians and veterinary technicians who are not given the opportunity to fully exercise the skills they were educated to perform.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 40 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Demonstrate a commitment to high quality patient care 2. CVPMs stand for a. Certified Veterinary Practice Managers. b. Certified Veterinarian Practice Managers. c. Certified Veterinary Patient Managers. d. Certified Veterinarian Patient Managers.

ANS: A

Certified Veterinary Practice Managers are CVPMs. PTS: 1 REF: p. 41 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 3. A veterinary technologist is a a. graduate of a 2- or 3-year AVMA-accredited program. b. graduate of a 4-year AVMA-accredited program. c. high level veterinary assistant. d. veterinary technician who has received on-the-job training.

ANS: B

A veterinary technician is a graduate of a 2- or 3-year AVMA-accredited program in veterinary technology, and a veterinary technologist is a graduate of a 4-year, AVMA-accredited program.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 42

TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 4. Using the proper terms for personnel whether veterinary assistant, veterinary technician, or

veterinary technologist is important for which of the following reasons? a. So that clients are clear about the qualifications of each member of the veterinary health care team b. So that each team member is valued and recognized for their level of education c. So that each team member has a clear idea of job duties d. All of the above ANS: D

It is important for veterinary practices to use proper terminology, so that clients are clear about the qualifications of each member of the veterinary health care team.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 42 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Demonstrate an understanding of interpersonal skills and team dynamics 5. Which of the following offers voluntary accreditation for veterinary hospitals? a. USDA b. AVMA c. AAHA d. AALAS ANS: C

The American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA) offers voluntary accreditation programs for veterinary hospitals. AA ATisBtA heNoKnS lyEoLrgLaE niRza.tC ioO nM to offer accreditation in North TH ES America; approximately 12% of veterinary hospitals have achieved this designation. The process is designed to help practices refine and improve their services.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 44 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 6. A client’s initial impression of a practice is based on the appearance of the building and

grounds. Therefore a. regular maintenance, including painting and repair, is very important. b. the parking lot should be clean, neat, and well lighted and should offer easy access. c. the entrance to the veterinary facility should be in full view and well-marked. d. all of the above should be true.

ANS: D

A client’s initial impression of a practice is based on the appearance of the building and grounds.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 44-45 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 7. During the physical examination on an outpatient in the examination room, how should that

animal be restrained? a. By the owner b. By the veterinarian

c. By the veterinary technician d. No restraint is needed; it will just make the animal more fearful ANS: C

Clients should not be allowed to restrain their own pets because of the risk of being bitten.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 46 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 8. Safety Data Sheets a. apply only to building materials. b. are recommended by OSHA. c. are required by OSHA. d. A and C are correct.

ANS: C

Safety data sheets (SDS) are required by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 47 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Dispensing: Accurately dispense and explain prescribed drugs to clients. | Demonstrate compliance with all federal regulatory guidelines for drug purchase, storage, administration, withdrawal, dispensing, disposal, and inventory control (e.g., biologics and therapeutic agents, pesticides, and hazardous wastes) 9. Isolation wards should be used to a. house animals that havT eE anSiT nfBeA ctN ioK usSdEisLeL asEe.R.COM b. should be placed in the middle of the hospital so they can be observed by many

people moving in and out. c. have flooring and furniture that is soft and comfortable. d. have multiple entrances in case the animal needs fast help.

ANS: A

When animals with infectious and contagious diseases are hospitalized, they are placed in an isolation ward. The isolation area should have one entrance and exit preferably with access to the outside, so that infectious patients do not walk through the common areas of the hospital.

Isolation areas are designed to restrict the shedding of infectious microbes to a single region that can be easily sanitized.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 48 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Establish and maintain appropriate sanitation and infection control protocols for a veterinary facility, including patient and laboratory area 10.

With regard to storing food for human consumption in the hospital setting a. it is acceptable to store it in the same refrigerator used for animal food b. it is acceptable to store it in the same refrigerator used for pharmaceuticals c. it is acceptable to store it the same refrigerator used for biological samples

d. it is never acceptable to store it in the same refrigerator used for animal food,

pharmaceuticals, or biological samples ANS: D

OSHA regulations dictate that human food and drink must not be stored in the same refrigerator used for either pet food, biological samples, or pharmaceuticals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 49 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Establish and maintain appropriate sanitation and infection control protocols for a veterinary facility, including patient and laboratory area 11. The OR, or operating room, should have a. multiple entrances. b. an area to prepare (clip and scrub) the patient. c. signs telling those who enter that they must have on proper clothing. d. a sink to wash instruments in and an autoclave.

ANS: C

All presurgical preparation of patient, surgeon, and technician should take place outside the OR to keep the OR as clean as possible. These presurgical activities include instrument preparation and sterilization, clipping and scrubbing of the patient, and hand scrubbing, gowning, and gloving of the surgical team.The OR itself should be a “dead-end” room with only one entrance and exit. Dust-carrying bacteria are easily stirred into the air when people walk through the room and will settle into an open surgical incision. No one should enter the OR without proper clothinT g,EsS hoTeB s,AcN apK, S anEdLmLaE skR. .COM PTS: 1 REF: p. 50 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Maintain proper operating room conduct and asepsis 12. Most complaints against veterinary practice are a result of a. patient death. b. ineffective communication between the practice and the pet owner. c. over charging. d. poor medical care.

ANS: B

Most complaints against veterinary practices are the result of ineffective communication between the practice and the pet owner.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 54 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 13. Which of the following is not a component of good communication with clients? a. Clarity

b. Courtesy c. Brevity d. Reflective listening ANS: C

Clear and frequent verbal communication with clients is an important part of effective veterinary health care. Components of good communication are clarity, courtesy, positive nonverbal communication, open-ended inquiry, reflective listening, and empathy.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 54 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 14. Open-ended questions a. allow for more information to be gathered. b. allow for the funnel approach to gathering information. c. take more time and should not be used. d. two of the above are correct.

ANS: D

Open-ended questions are particularly important when a history is taken; they encourage the client to elaborate or tell a story with no shaping or focusing of content by the person asking the questions. The goal is to find the meaning of the communication, not just the facts. Simple examples include questions that start with “Tell me…” or “Describe for me…” “What” and “How” questions are also effective. “Why” questions are less effective; they tend to provoke defensiveness. Open-endedTqEuSesTtiBoA nsNaKreSpEaL rtLoE f aRf.uC nnOeM l approach to gathering information—start with the broad questions and end with more specific ones.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 55 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 15. Although there is no way to completely prepare for a client outburst, it does help to role-play

such situations during staff training. One good strategy to help deal with an angry client is a. discuss the situation with them in a public area. b. try to find a solution that will create a “win-win” situation. c. be sure to justify a clinical action that the client is criticizing. d. maintain a treatment table or desk between you and the client at all times.

ANS: B

Although there is no way to completely prepare for a client outburst, it does help to role-play such situations during staff training.

These guidelines may help to diffuse the situation: • An angry client should immediately be “invited” to a private area such as an examination room or an office away from other clients, or to a place without distraction or interruption.

• A friendlier environment is created when people sit down side by side without a desk or an examination table between them.

• The staff member should immediately start the conversation by thanking the client, in a friendly fashion, for allowing the practice to find out what is wrong.

• Sometimes the client will burst out with everything that is wrong, in great detail. Although this may be unpleasant, it is essential for eventual resolution. If the client does not initiate a discussion, the staff member must speak first: “Could you explain to me what is wrong?”

• Active and reflective types of listening are employed. Being empathic helps staff members understand the client’s point of view.

• Try to find points of agreement. Any part of the client’s experience during which the pet owner confirms that something went well, or that he or she is satisfied, is beneficial for the process of resolving problems.

• Be careful not to justify a clinical action that the client is criticizing. If the client is correct that a mistake has been made, or that poor service has been delivered, this should be admitted and the situation corrected immediately.

• When it does become appropriate to explain hospital procedures, try to put them in a positive light, for example, clients hate to hear that their pet needs a rabies vaccination because it is your “policy.” Talk to clients in terms of what constitutes the best health care for their pet: “Did you know that Texas has the highest incidence of rabies in the nation?”

Try to find a solution, to create a “win-win” situation. It can help to ask the client what he or she would recommend to resolve the conflict.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 55-56 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Demonstrate an understanding of interpersonal skills and team dynamics 16. An organizational chart (“org” chart) a. is a visual representatioTnEoS fT hoBwAdNeKpS arE tmLeL ntEs Ran.dCeOmMployee positions in a business

are aligned. b. shows how authority and responsibility flow between departments and individuals. c. has all key individuals in the practice included, along with indications of who

reports to whom. d. all of the above are correct.

ANS: D

An organizational chart (also known as “org chart”) is a visual representation of how departments and employee positions in a business are aligned. It shows how authority and responsibility flow between departments and individuals. All key individuals in the practice should be included in the org chart, along with indications of who reports to whom.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 57 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Demonstrate an understanding of interpersonal skills and team dynamics 17. Veterinary medicine, like other health care professions, includes a fair amount of stress. All of

the following are true about stress experienced in veterinary medicine except a. Everyone exhibits and handles stress differently b. Stress can often have physical symptoms c. The closely knit staff that constitutes many veterinary health care teams makes them less susceptible to stress

d. Many technicians feel that they have little time for lunch or other breaks and are

challenged to keep up with the pace of a busy practice ANS: C

Veterinary medicine, like other health care professions, includes a fair amount of stress.

Veterinary personnel who work in clinical practices are on their feet for the vast majority of the day. Many technicians feel that they have little time for lunch or other breaks and are challenged to keep up with the pace of a busy practice. Animals can be uncooperative, and owners, who may be stressed themselves (particularly if their pet is ill), can be difficult at times. In addition, the closely knit staff that constitutes many veterinary health care teams can be particularly vulnerable to stress if conflict arises within the team. Finally, pet loss from euthanasia and illness, and particularly unexpected death, can bring sadness and lower morale, which in turn exacerbates an already stressful working environment.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 59-60 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Interact professionally with clients and fellow staff members 18.

includes all activities necessary to obtain and retain clients and enhance awareness and standing of the hospital in the community. a. Sales b. Marketing c. Advertising d. Promotion ANS: B

Marketing includes all activities necessary to obtain and retain clients and enhance awareness and standing of the hospital in the community.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 61 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Utilize appropriate interpersonal and public relations skills.

19. Results from the Bayer Veterinary Care Usage Study indicate that a large number of pet

owners a. do not have a good understanding of the care their pet needs to live a long and healthy life. b. are not concerned about their pets’ health. c. are unwilling to spend money on their pets’ health. d. would rather get advice about their pets’ health from the Internet than the veterinary medical team.

ANS: A

Results from the Bayer Veterinary Care Usage Study indicate that a large number of pet owners do not have a good understanding of the care their pet needs to live a long and healthy life.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 64 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and

Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 20. Which category of practice owners listed below represents the largest proportion of practices

in the United States? a. Owned by a corporation b. Owned by a technician c. Owned by a veterinarian working in the clinic d. Owned by citizens outside of the clinic ANS: C

Most clinics are owned by veterinarians who also work in the practice.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 38 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 21. Which role listed below serves as the head of the hiring and training of office and reception

staff in a traditional clinic, but is not usually tasked with financial duties such as establishing budgets or performing intricate financial analyses? a. Hospital administrator b. Practice manager c. Office manager d. Owner ANS: C

The office manager performs many of the same tasks as the other positions listed, although their responsibilities are laT rgE elS yTcoBnAfiN neKdStE oL thL eE ofRfi.ceCaOnM d reception areas of the clinic. They also do not usually participate in some of the more in-depth financial activities (budget planning, financial review, payroll adjustments, etc.) that are completed by the practice manager or hospital administrator (who may also be a clinic owner).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 40 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 22. What is the benefit of allowing technicians to perform a wide-range of practice-act allowed

duties in a clinic? a. Reduces the need for a clinic to employ an expensive veterinarian b. Increases the efficiency of the clinic c. Decreases the cost of service by using technicians without proper training d. Allows for increased caseload due to technicians performing minor surgeries ANS: B

Veterinary technicians are well-trained in performing a wide range of duties, with the only real limitations being diagnosing disease, prescribing medications, and performing surgery.

Most other tasks can be performed by properly trained veterinary technicians as long as they are working in collaboration with a licensed veterinarian or veterinary practice.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 41 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Understand and observe legal

boundaries of veterinary health care team members 23. Which of the four professional activity areas within a veterinary hospital includes the doctor

and technician offices as well as the reference library and employee lounge? a. Inpatient b. Outpatient c. Surgical d. Support ANS: D

The hospital support area includes the spaces used to house the veterinary staff as well as equipment and supplies. Maximizing employee comfort while minimizing space needed for storage is a key concept in operating a functional clinic.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 50 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 24. Which of the four professional activity areas in a veterinary hospital includes the rooms that

are used for annual check-ups and vaccinations and houses the laboratory equipment? a. Inpatient b. Outpatient c. Surgical d. Support ANS: B

Outpatient activities include those that are performed on an animal during a normal examination, without requiring overnight hospitalization. Annual check-ups, vaccination appointments, minor proceT dE urS esT, B anAdNdK iaS gnEoLstLicEsRam plO eM collection are all considered .C outpatient activities.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 45 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 25. Which of the four professional activity areas include both short and overnight stays due to

surgical procedures, long-term care to address a chronic disease, and x-ray and ultrasound wards? a. Inpatient b. Outpatient c. Surgical d. Support ANS: A

An animal is classified as an inpatient when it requires hospitalization, being very short term (several hours) or extending for long periods of time (weeks or months). Inpatient capabilities include monitoring technologies that allow for repeated rechecks and adjustment of therapies.

The inpatient area shares diagnostic equipment with outpatient services.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 47 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 26. All of the following statements about SOAP notes are false except a. Because writing SOAP notes is time-consuming, this approach to patient care is

not always taken in general practice. b. Only the veterinarian can write SOAP notes. c. The “P” in SOAP stands for “Processes.” d. Only the veterinary technician can write SOAP notes.

ANS: A

SOAP is an acronym for “Subjective, Objective, Assessment,” and “Plan.” SOAP notes are written by the veterinarian to assist in the diagnostic process; the veterinary technician writes SOAP notes to support the nursing process and to ensure that all technician evaluations are addressed. Although this approach to patient care represents best practices, it is time-consuming and, therefore, is not always implemented in the hospital setting.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 48 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Skill: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 27. What should be present in an operating room? a. A lot of cabinets b. Maximum counter space c. Ceiling or wall mounted oxygen outlets d. Instrument washing equipment ANS: C

Storage cabinets in the operating room should be kept to a minimum and should contain only those items that are used in surgery; items used elsewhere in the hospital should not be stored in the OR. Likewise, equipment used during preoperative activities, such as instrument washing, should be located outside of the OR. Structures that promote dust build-up, such as EiSzeTdB. A countertops, should be minTim SiN mKilS arE lyL, L oxEyR ge.nCoOuM tlets, surgery lights, and patient monitors should be mounted flush with the ceiling or walls when possible, making them less likely to accumulate dust and easier to clean.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 50 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 28. Which is considered the most expensive space in a veterinary clinic? a. Surgical preparation room, operating room, and recovery room b. Storage c. Treatment area d. Reception ANS: B

Storage is often considered the most expensive space in a veterinary clinic because it is required, but produces no income on its own. All other spaces are maximized to provide an economic pay back based on use of the area; storage produces no such benefit.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 50 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 29. Which of the following is not considered good practice when discussing the case with the

client? a. Limiting the amount of information given b. Using scientific terminology to prove your understanding of the patient’s condition

c. Following up with a phone call shortly after the client’s visit d. Sending home written directions with the client ANS: B

Clients’ are easily confused when presented with formal scientific terminology that is somewhat common verbiage between veterinary professionals. Talking with simple terminology that anyone would understand will increase client compliance and provide a clear understanding of their pet’s condition.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 54 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts)

Chapter 03: Veterinary Medical Records Bssert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The SOAP method of medical recordkeeping stands for all except a. subjective. b. objective. c. animal. d. planning.

ANS: C

SOAP (subjective, objective, assessment, planning).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 78 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Skill: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 2. The acronym VCPR contains all of the following words except a. veterinary. b. client. c. pet. d. relationship.

ANS: C

Veterinary-client-patient Relationship (VCPR). The VCPR serves as the foundation of the interaction among veterinaT riE anSsT , tB heAirNcKliS enEtsL, L anEdRth.eCirOpM atients.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 80 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Demonstrate a commitment to high quality patient care, interpersonal skills and team dynamics.

3. Informed consent means the client or the client’s representative has been educated about a. the pet’s malady, diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment options, and with regard to

justification for the cost of treatment. b. in-clinic and home care, monitoring procedures and follow-up procedures. c. emergency procedures and preventive health care plans. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

It is important for veterinary practices to demonstrate not only client consent, but informed client consent. In other words, the client or representative must be educated with regard to the pet’s malady, diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment options, and with regard to justification for the cost of treatment. In addition, in-clinic and home care, monitoring procedures, follow-up and emergency procedures, and preventive health care plans should be discussed with the client and documented in writing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 80 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and

Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 4. Medical records maybe used as legal documents therefore written entries a. should be signed or initialed by the author, and the author’s credentials. b. need to be signed after each entry with a full signature. c. should not include any abbreviations d. do not require the full date and time.

ANS: A

In a court of law, handwriting alone is not an adequate way to identify the author of a notation. Therefore, all written entries should be signed or initialed by the author, and the author’s credentials (e.g., CVT, DVM) and the date and time should be entered. In addition, the practice should maintain a log that associates each person’s full name, which is typically typed into the log, with their signature and initials that are listed in separate columns. In this way, the initials and signatures are accurately and clearly linked to a particular veterinarian or veterinary technician. Entries into electronic patient records similarly must verify the employee’s identity and include the date and time the entry is made. Abbreviations can be used in written entries, as long as they are approved, standard abbreviations.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 81 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain all appropriate facility records and logs in compliance with regulatory guidelines (e.g., radiography, surgery, anesthesia, laboratory, controlled substance) 5. In general, veterinary medical records are the property of a. the client. b. the veterinary practice. c. the patient. d. the staff who provided care to the animal.

ANS: B

In general, veterinary medical records are the property of the veterinary practice and its owners. Although the client purchased the veterinary services that generated the medical information, the client is not, by law, the owner of the medical record. However, the client may make a written request at any time for a copy of a pet’s medical record PTS: 1 REF: p. 82 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain all appropriate facility records and logs in compliance with regulatory guidelines (e.g., radiography, surgery, anesthesia, laboratory, controlled substance) 6. Medical records are considered confidential and any information in them is also confidential.

Which of the following breaches this confidentiality? a. Posting interesting things you have seen throughout the day on Facebook or other social media with client and patient information. b. Discussing medical information with others at the grocery store.

c. Discussing medical information with those who are not a part of your veterinary

medical team. d. All of the above.

ANS: D

The practice owner should be the only person to authorize the release of information contained in the medical record. Keep in mind that the patient record is confidential, and that its confidentiality must be guarded. Therefore, in most states, the patient record may be released to a third party only with permission from the client. The following circumstances are exceptions to this rule. In these instances, information in the medical record must be given to the appropriate authority without client permission: The veterinarian has diagnosed a reportable disease and must alert local, state, and federal agencies as required by law.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 82 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Respect and protect the confidentiality of client and patient information 7. The abbreviation BAR a. reflects an animal’s mentation status. b. is a shorthand notation for bright, alert, and responsive. c. cannot be used in a medical record. d. a and b ANS: D

“BAR” = bright, alert, and responsive, reflecting the animal’s mentation status.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 88 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 8. The

includes the major medical disorders experienced by a patient during its lifetime. Each problem represents a conclusion or a decision resulting from examination, investigation, and analysis of the database. a. medical record b. master problem list c. SOAP form d. clinical pathology log ANS: B

The master problem list includes the major medical disorders experienced by a patient during its lifetime. Each problem represents a conclusion or a decision resulting from examination, investigation, and analysis of the database. The master problem list is typically arranged in five columns: a chronological list of each problem, the date of onset, the action taken, the outcome or resolution, and the date of the outcome or resolution. In this way, the master problem list serves as an index to the patient’s medical history.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 89 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history

9. Completion of the

portion of the SOAP notes requires analysis of all subjective and objective data that have been gathered thus far. a. subjective b. objective c. assessment d. plan ANS: C

Completion of the assessment portion of the SOAP notes requires analysis of all subjective and objective data that have been gathered thus far.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 93 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 10. The MAOR, also known as a ward treatment sheet, is used to ensure that hospitalized patients

are given treatments, diagnostic tests, and diet as requested by the attending veterinarian.

When a medication was inadvertently not given what should be done? a. Put a line through the blank box. b. Do not write in the blank box. c. Administer the medication twice the next time. d. Enter the letters “NG” into the box ANS: D

MAOR stands for medication administration/order record. When a treatment is not given, the initials “NG” should be entered into the appropriate column and box. In addition, the veterinary technician mustTnE otS ifT yB thAeNatKteSnE diL ngLE veRte.riC naOrM ian if a treatment was not administered.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 94-95 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Demonstrate the ability to accurately record medical information 11. Periodically, the collection of medical records should be reviewed and purged of files that are

not in current use. Although each veterinary hospital has its own review and purging schedule, it is generally accepted that old files that have not been in use for or more maybe shredded. a. 3 years b. 8 years c. 10 years d. these are legal documents and can never be shredded ANS: B

Records that are 8 years old or older may be removed from storage and shredded.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 101 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain individual client records, vaccination certificates, and other appropriate forms

12. Logs kept throughout the hospital serve to a. provide additional documentation for legal support. b. provide data for quick analysis and retrospective studies. c. record daily activity with regard to a particular aspect of the hospital d. all of the above.

ANS: D

In addition to documents contained within the patient record, medical information is maintained continuously in logs that are located throughout the veterinary hospital. Many practices have logs for radiology and special imaging, surgery, anesthesia, controlled substances, ultrasound, clinical laboratory, and euthanasia. In addition, some practices have unexpected death, drug reaction, and medical waste logs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 104 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain all appropriate facility records and logs in compliance with regulatory guidelines (e.g., radiography, surgery, anesthesia, laboratory, controlled substance) 13. VCPR occurs when all of the following conditions have been met except a. the veterinarian has assumed responsibility for making clinical judgments

regarding the health of the animal. b. the veterinarian has sufficient knowledge of the animal to initiate at least a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal. c. the veterinarian has recently seen and is personally acquainted with keeping and LL care of the animal(s) byTE viS rtuTeBoAf N anKeSxE am inE atR io. nCoO f tMhe animal, or through medically appropriate and timely visits to the premises where the animal is kept. d. the veterinarian is travelling but has provided the client with a phone number at which the veterinarian can be reached in the event of an emergency.

ANS: D

A VCPR (veterinarian-client-patient relationship) occurs when all of the following conditions have been met: • The veterinarian has assumed responsibility for making clinical judgments regarding the health of the animal(s) and the need for medical treatment, and the client has agreed to follow the veterinarian’s instructions.

• The veterinarian has sufficient knowledge of the animal(s) to initiate at least a general or preliminary diagnosis of the medical condition of the animal(s). This means that the veterinarian has recently seen and is personally acquainted with keeping and care of the animal(s) by virtue of an examination of the animal(s), or through medically appropriate and timely visits to the premises where the animal(s) are kept.

• The veterinarian is readily available or has arranged for emergency coverage for follow-up evaluation in the event of adverse reactions or failure of the treatment regimen.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 80 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Demonstrate a commitment to high quality patient care and team dynamics.

14.

forms document in writing an understanding between the veterinary practice and the pet owner. They outline specific conditions, risks of procedures, and responsibilities of both parties. a. Consent b. Agreement c. Payment d. Hospital ANS: A

Consent and authorization forms document in writing an understanding between the veterinary practice and the pet owner. They outline specific conditions, risks of procedures, and responsibilities of both parties. In keeping with the doctrine of informed consent, completed authorization forms provide veterinary practices with legal evidence that the owner was informed of important information, and that the owner agreed to pursue a particular course of action based on the circumstances and information given to him or her. Be aware that consent must be given by legal adults 18 years of age or older. Consent by a juvenile is not legal consent.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 80 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Demonstrate a commitment to high quality patient care 15. In hardcopy medical records, errors should NOT be a. scratched out. b. erased. c. blotted out with marker. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

In hardcopy medical records, errors should NOT be scratched out, erased, or blotted out with a marker or correction fluid. Instead, a single line should be drawn through the mistake and the word “error” should be written in the margin along with the corrected information. This change should be signed and dated by the person who made the error, and a brief explanation for the correction should be entered.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 81 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain all appropriate facility records and logs in compliance with regulatory guidelines (e.g., radiography, surgery, anesthesia, laboratory, controlled substance) 16. Medical records can be transferred to another veterinary hospital at the owners’ request. When

doing so, it is recommended that a. the records be copied and handed to the owner for transport. b. the records be copied and mailed or e-mailed to the successive veterinarian. c. the records be given to the successive veterinarian. d. the records be given to the owner.

ANS: B

It is recommended that copies of medical records be mailed or e-mailed to the successive veterinarian and not hand delivered by the owner, who may be apt to misinterpret entries in the medical record. A cover letter or e-mail should be included with the attached copy of the record, so that the original veterinary hospital and veterinarian can be easily contacted, if necessary.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 82 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Respect and protect the confidentiality of client and patient information 17. Reportable diseases a. maybe dangerous for the public or for the widespread health of animals. b. should be recorded in the animal’s medical records only. c. do not take precedent over the confidentiality of an animal’s medical records. d. are not seen on the North American continent.

ANS: A

Reportable diseases may be dangerous for the public or for the widespread health of animals and include a wide variety of diseases such as rabies, brucellosis, and equine encephalitis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 82 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 18. In which type of medical record systems is patient information is kept together by subject

matter? a. SOVMR b. POVMR c. SOAP d. VCPR ANS: A

In a source-oriented veterinary medical record (SOVMR) patient information is kept together by subject matter. Laboratory reports, for example, may be kept separate from progress notes, which are written in chronological order. Clinical observations are entered as they become evident.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 83 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 19. All of the following statements about the problem-oriented veterinary medical record

(POVMR) are true except a. Notes are entered on progress forms using the SOAP format. b. The American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA) will not certify a veterinary facility that uses POVMRs. c. Notes written by the veterinary technician focus on the patient’s psychological and physiologic reactions to the malady. d. Notes written by the veterinarian focus on identifying the cause of illness and subsequently a cure.

ANS: B

The problem-oriented veterinary medical record (POVMR) provides an organized approach to clinical veterinary care in that the information in the medical record is grouped by problem, and each problem is addressed separately. Notes are entered on progress forms using the SOAP format, and a note is written for each problem. Both veterinarians and veterinary technicians may write SOAP notes in the POVMR, although their focus is different. The veterinarian focuses on identifying the cause of illness and subsequently a cure, while the veterinary technician focuses on the patient’s psychological and physiologic reactions to the malady. The American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA) endorses the use of problem-oriented veterinary medical record keeping and insists on its use in practices seeking AAHA certification.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 83 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Skill: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 20. All of the following are components of a patient’s signalment a. Reproductive status b. Age c. Weight d. Breed ANS: C

The signalment of an animal consists of its species, breed, age, sex, and reproductive status (intact, spayed, neutered, pregnant).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 84 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous .eCnO MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ENSuT rsB inA g:NPK atS ieE ntLaL ssE esR sm t: M Skill: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 21. What duration of time should encompass an active medical record? a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 8 years ANS: B

It is recommended that records that are in current use should include data that goes back for a period of 3 years. After 3 years, most records are put into storage until 8 or more years, at which time they are destroyed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 101 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain individual client records, vaccination certificates, and other appropriate forms 22. Which of the following should a receptionist obtain from the owner of a pet that is to undergo

surgery or some other procedure requiring anesthesia? a. A credit card. b. The owner’s preference for disposal of the pet’s body should it not survive the procedure.

c. The client’s schedule for the day. d. Information on the pet’s susceptibility to anesthesia.

ANS: C

Whenever a pet is scheduled to undergo surgery or some other procedure requiring anesthesia, the receptionist may want to have a general idea of the client’s schedule for the day and where he or she can be reached and at what times. Unexpected events or findings can occur during clinical procedures, and the veterinarian may need to consult the owner immediately.

Sometimes the owner must make important decisions over the telephone, such as the extent of treatment to be performed, while the animal is on the surgery table and/or under anesthesia. In this situation, good communication and care provided for the patient are maximized if the client can be contacted immediately.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 84 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 23. What is an important advantage of electronic medical records compared to hard copy

versions? a. They are all user friendly b. They produce permanent records c. They allow for multiple viewers simultaneously d. They are cheap ANS: C

Along with the ability for easy retrieval due to their virtual nature, electronic medical records allow for simultaneous conTsE ulS taT tioBnAw NiKthSmEuLltLipEleRc.liCniOciMans to help provide a higher standard of patient care. There are many programs available, with variable degrees of user-friendliness, but many are a substantial expense for a clinic. In addition, if a hard copy backup is not made there exists the chance for data loss upon occurrence of a power outage or surge.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 102-104 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain individual client records, vaccination certificates, and other appropriate forms 24. Farm animal veterinarians keep a. individual b. combined herd c. no d. only handwritten

immunization records on large numbers of animals.

ANS: B

It is impractical for food animal veterinarians who are responsible for the health of entire herds of livestock to maintain an individual record for every animal treated. In this situation, they keep records for the combined herd as a whole. Immunizations and reproductive histories are maintained for the group, although individual records may be generated for animals that have undergone special surgical or treatment procedures. Although some ambulatory practitioners still continue to make handwritten notes on carbonized invoice sheets, many carry laptop computers in their trucks to assist with record keeping.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 104-105 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 25. What does the American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA) require in regard to hard copy

backups of patient medical records? a. They do not require a hard copy at all b. They should be stored in 8  10 inch folders c. They should be inaccessible to most of the veterinary staff d. They should be locked away in a storage container ANS: B

The AAHA certification process requires adherence to fairly strict principles that govern the activities that are performed inside a veterinary clinic. For those practices using hard-copy medical records, the AAHA requires that each patient should have its own medical record, and that those records should be stored in standard 8  10-inch folders that are commonplace in most businesses.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 99 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain individual client records, vaccination certificates, and other appropriate forms 26. How should follow-up after a surgery be completed? a. Wait until the client contacts the clinic b. A technician should give the client a call several days after discharge c. The client should alwaT ysErS etT urBnAtoNtKhS eE clL inL icE3R 0.dC ayOs Mafter surgery d. The veterinary technician should personally visit the client the day after discharge ANS: B

The technician should routinely perform a follow-up phone call several days after discharge of the patient to ensure healing is occurring as expected and to give the client a chance to ask questions about their pet. Even when the animal is fine, most clients will appreciate the clinic staff taking time to check on their needs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 100 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 27. Which of the following would be considered a medical record notation? a. A conversation with a referring veterinarian b. The heart and respiratory rate of the animal c. The animal’s weight d. The patient’s treatment plan ANS: A

A notation includes information related to the patient that is derived outside of a traditional SOAP. Subjective and objective information, patient assessment and treatment plans are SOAP components. Conversations with another veterinary professional, as well as things such as client communication notes, are considered record notations.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 94 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain individual client records, vaccination certificates, and other appropriate forms 28. Which would not be a commonly accepted “Rule of Thumb” regarding medical record

keeping? a. If it is not written in blue ink, it was not documented b. If it is not written down, it did not happen c. If it is not legible written, it was not documented d. If any part of the record was tampered with, the entire record integrity is questionable ANS: A

Medical records are historically hand-written in black ink, which, compared to other ink colors, improves the clarity of images during photocopying or faxing. When faced with legal challenge, it is important that, like veterinarians, veterinary technicians are aware of how to correctly add to the medical record in a manner that will be accepted as evidence in a court of law.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 81 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain individual client records, vaccination certificates, and other appropriate forms TRUE/FALSE 1. The medical record should document only patient information not communication with the

owner.

ANS: F

The medical record also documents communications with the client; this is particularly important when many members of the veterinary health care team are assisting the same client.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 79 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain individual client records, vaccination certificates, and other appropriate forms 2. The medical record is a legal document.

ANS: T

The medical record is used as a legal document in a court of law and is valuable during litigation. It serves as evidence of procedures performed and treatments administered, and it provides specific dates and times of events.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 79 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain all appropriate facility records and logs in compliance with regulatory guidelines (e.g., radiography, surgery, anesthesia, laboratory, controlled substance)

Chapter 04: Occupational Health and Safety in Veterinary Hospitals Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. OSHA stands for all except a. Occupational b. System c. Health d. Administration ANS: B

OSHA is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration. It enforces federal laws that help to ensure a safe workplace for American workers.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 108 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 2. It is your responsibility to learn and follow the safety rules and practices that have been

established for your position in the veterinary hospital. If you violate these rules a. You may be fined by OSHA b. You are placing yourself and others at greater risk in the work place c. You forfeit worker’s compensation should get you hurt at work d. You may be fined by thTeEUSSTDBAANKSELLER.COM ANS: B

It is your responsibility to learn and follow the safety rules and practices that have been established for your position in the veterinary hospital. Even though OSHA will not cite or fine the employee directly for violations of these responsibilities, he or she is required under the Occupational Safety and Health Act (the Act) to “comply with all occupational safety and health standards and all rules, regulations, and orders issued under the Act.” Not only does this include specific OSHA standards, it also applies to workplace-specific rules established by the leadership at your hospital.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 109 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 3. In addition to the responsibility to follow the safety rules, OSHA requires that veterinary

employees must also do all of the following except a. choose to wear or not to wear PPE. b. read the OSHA poster. c. comply with all applicable standards. d. report hazardous conditions to your supervisor.

ANS: A

In addition to the responsibility to follow the rules, the Occupational Safety and Health Act requires you to do the following: • Read the OSHA poster.

• Comply with all applicable standards.

• Wear or use prescribed personal protective equipment (PPE) while working.

• Report hazardous conditions to your supervisor.

Report any job-related injury or illness to the proper person and seek treatment promptly.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 109 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 4. Every practice should have a Hospital Safety Manual. This is a a. set of OSHA Rules. b. document needed only in case of natural disasters. c. document that is kept at an off-site location for safety. d. collection of written safety-related policies.

ANS: D

Every practice should have a collection of written safety-related policies known as the Hospital Safety Manual.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 109 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, andTsEtaS ffT . |BUA ndNeK rsS taE ndLhLoE wRto.eC nsOuM re safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 5. According to insurance statistics,

injuries account for one in every five workplace injuries among American and Canadian workers. a. head b. neck c. back d. knee ANS: C

According to insurance statistics, back injuries account for one in every five workplace injuries among American workers.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 110 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 6. The most common types of injury to veterinary technicians are a. related to accidental ingestion of toxic substances b. animal related c. slip-and-fall injuries d. eye injuries

ANS: B

Insurance statistics show that animal-related accidents are the most common type of injury among workers in veterinary-related jobs, including veterinary technicians.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 114 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 7. Heavy supplies or equipment should be

to prevent unnecessary strain in trying to lift them overhead and to reduce the risk of material falling on your head. a. divided into smaller units b. Lifted only by tall people c. Kept on lower shelves d. Stored in the hallways ANS: C

Supplies and equipment always should be store properly. Heavy supplies or equipment, for example, should be kept on lower shelves to prevent unnecessary strain in trying to lift them overhead and to reduce the risk of material falling on your head.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 111 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 8. Ingestion of pathogenic organisms or harmful chemicals while eating on the job is a

possibility in veterinary hospitals. This is why a. food kept in a refrigerator along with biological agents should be in stored in containers with tight lids. b. tools used in the pharmacy should be kept in the staff kitchen so that they can be washed frequently. c. snacking on the job while in the treatment area should be kept to a minimum. d. designated areas for staff breaks should be established and used.

ANS: D

Ingestion of pathogenic organisms or harmful chemicals while eating on the job is a possibility in veterinary hospitals. This is why it is important to eat and drink only in areas designated for staff breaks that are free of toxic and biologically harmful substances. Always store food, drinks, condiments, and snacks in a separate refrigerator from the one used to store biological or chemical hazards such as vaccines, drugs, and laboratory samples.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 111-112 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 9. Autoclaves present a danger from the pressure that is used for proper sterilization. Therefore

a. b. c. d.

before fully opening an autoclave be sure to crack the door a little and peer in. handle the packs quickly to get them out as soon as possible. be sure to vent to release pressure and steam before you open the door. run the autoclave at very low pressures.

ANS: C

Autoclaves present a danger from the pressure that is used for proper sterilization. Before opening an autoclave, be sure to first release the pressure by activating the vent device, and at the same time keep your hands and face away from the steam. Let the steam dissipate completely before opening the door fully, and be careful when removing the packs because they may still be hot.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 112 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 10. To reduce the chance of fire flammable materials such as newspapers, boxes, and cleaning

chemicals must always be stored at least water heater, furnace, or stove. a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7

feet away from an ignition source such as a

ANS: B

Flammable materials such TasEnSeT wB spAaN peKrsS, E boLxLesE, R an.dCcOleManing chemicals must always be stored at least 3 ft. away from an ignition source such as a water heater, furnace, or stove.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 113 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 11. Every business, including your practice, must follow the requirements of OSHA’s “right to

know” law. This law requires that you a. have the right to know about every employee’s medical history. b. have the right to choose what PPE you want to wear. c. have PPE available to purchase that you can wear at work. d. be informed of all chemicals you may be exposed to while doing your job.

ANS: D

Every business, including your practice, must follow the requirements of OSHA’s “right to know” law. This law requires that you be informed of all chemicals you may be exposed to while doing your job. The right to know law also requires that you wear all safety equipment prescribed by the manufacturer and the practice when using any product containing a hazardous chemical. Safety equipment must be provided to you at no cost, but it is not optional—you must wear what is prescribed.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 114

TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 12.

describe recommended measures that should be taken to minimize or prevent adverse effects resulting from exposure to the hazardous chemical or improper storage or handling. a. USDA guidelines b. OSHA memos c. Hazardous materials plans d. Precautionary statements ANS: D

When you receive a product from the manufacturer or distributor, every bottle will be identified with a label containing directions for use and the appropriate warnings. The warnings will include precautionary statements. Precautionary Statements describe recommended measures that should be taken to minimize or prevent adverse effects resulting from exposure to the hazardous chemical or improper storage or handling. There are four types of precautionary statements:prevention (to minimize exposure); response (in case of accidental spillage or exposure, and first-aid); storage; and disposal.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 114 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 13. To decrease the risk of exposure to formalin, which is used to preserve biopsy samples, a. obtain formalin in small, premeasured containers. b. only preserve some biopsy samples. c. send the patient to a referral hospital to have the biopsy performed. d. none of the above are correct.

ANS: A

Whenever possible, you should obtain formalin in small, premeasured containers (also called biopsy jars), so that serious risk is minimized. Often the diagnostic laboratory will supply prefilled biopsy jars at no charge, so be sure to ask.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 116 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 14. Infectious diseases that can be passed from animals to humans are known as a. epidemic diseases. b. zoonotic diseases. c. pandemic diseases. d. contagious diseases.

ANS: B

Infectious diseases that can be passed from animals to humans are known as zoonotic diseases.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 118 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Animal Procedures: Safely and effectively handle common laboratory animals used in animal research. | Demonstrate knowledge of zoonotic diseases and modes of transmission 15. The primary wildlife carriers of rabies in the United States include all but a. bats. b. rats. c. skunks. d. raccoons.

ANS: B

In the United States and Canada, bats, raccoons, and skunks are the primary wildlife carriers of rabies. Although the disease is ever-present in wild animal populations, in recent years many states have confirmed record high numbers of rabies cases in domestic species such as cats, dogs, horses, and cattle.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 118 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Animal Procedures: Safely and effectively handle common laboratory animals used in animal research. | Demonstrate knowledge of zoonotic diseases and modes of transmission 16. Bacteria can be transferred from animals to veterinary staff in all of the following ways except a. direct contact with infected animals. b. inhalation of aerosolizeTdEbS acTteBrA iaN . KSELLER.COM c. absorption of the bacteria absorbed through mucous membranes. d. all of the above are true.

ANS: D

Bacteria can be transferred by direct contact with animals and their exudates. This is particularly likely if you have any cuts or open sores. Some bacteria may be aerosolized and inhaled or absorbed through mucous membranes. The best protection against exposure to bacteria is simply good personal hygiene.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 118 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 17. Ringworm is a contagious disease caused by a. bacteria b. fungus c. ring-shaped worms d. ring-shaped viruses ANS: B

Contrary to its name, ringworm is not a parasite or a worm. It is an infection of the skin caused by a fungus known as Microsporum.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 118 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 18. Toxoplasma is especially harmful to developing fetuses. Pregnant women should a. give away or euthanize their cats. b. have Toxoplasma titers evaluated before becoming pregnant. c. eat only foods they have grown in their own garden. d. only clean their cat’s litter box once a week to decrease exposure.

ANS: B

Infestation with a protozoan known as Toxoplasma gondii is called toxoplasmosis.

Nonsporulated Toxoplasma eggs are shed in the feces of infected cats, and then sporulate approximately 2 to 4 days later. Sporulated oocysts, if inadvertently ingested by a pregnant woman, are particularly dangerous to her fetus. Pregnant women can reduce potential exposure to Toxoplasma by taking the following steps: 1. Avoid cleaning cat litter pans when possible, particularly those that contain feces older than 2 days. If cleaning is unavoidable, be sure to wear gloves when handling the litter box, and wash your hands when you are finished.

2. Wash raw vegetables thoroughly (dirt on vegetables may contain oocysts).

3. Do not eat raw or uncooked meat, particularly lamb and pork, which can carry the encysted protozoan in the muscle tissue. Cook all meat thoroughly.

4. When gardening, wear gloves that can be removed easily. Under no circumstances should dirt accidentally enter your mouth (e.g., when removing a hair from your mouth).

5. Women in the veterinaryTpErS ofTesBsA ioN nK arSeEenLcLoE urR ag.eC dOtoMhave Toxoplasma titers evaluated before becoming pregnant, if at all possible.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 119 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 19. What is a reasonable expectation if an employee uncovers a safety risk on the job? a. The employer must immediately address the risk. b. The employer must address the risk within a reasonable time frame. c. The employee should immediately contact OSHA to report the violation. d. The employee should ignore the violation and try to be more careful on the job.

ANS: B

It is within an employer’s rights to correct a safety-deficiency within an ample amount of time before an employee should resort to contacting OSHA. Upon notification of a potential risk by an employee, it is in the practice owner’s best interest to correct the problem within a relatively short period of time.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 109 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of

appropriate regulatory agencies 20. Regarding workplace safety, what is a reasonable expectation from the practice leadership? a. To provide a safe workplace b. To eliminate all hazards in a workplace c. To personally observe all hazardous workplace activities d. To fine employees who behave in an unsafe manner ANS: A

A clinic’s leadership team is charged with identifying workplace hazards, correcting those that can be corrected, and controlling any uncorrectable hazards. Overall, it is the responsibility of the clinic leaders to provide a safe workplace, although all hazards are not capable of being eliminated.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 109 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 21. Which of the following is an example of dress that would be considered unacceptable in a

veterinary workplace? a. Nonslip shoes b. Jewelry such as a diamond engagement ring c. Surgical scrubs d. A laboratory coat ANS: B

It is preferable to remove all jewelry while working in a veterinary setting due to the inherent danger involved with snagging a ring’s setting on a patient or piece of equipment. If possible, jewelry should be minimized, with smooth banded rings such as a plain wedding band preferable to any protruding components that extends out of the piece.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 110|p. 112 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 22. Under which scenario should a clinic employee try to fight a fire in the building? a. When the fire can block the sole available clinic exit b. When the fire involves the building’s structure c. When the extinguisher contents are unknown d. When the fire is localized to an office trash bin ANS: D

The National Fire Protection Association recommends that you never attempt to fight a fire if any of these conditions are true: • The fire is spreading beyond the immediate area where it started, or involves any part of the building or structure.

• The fire could block your escape route.

• You are unsure of the proper operation of the extinguisher.

• You are in doubt that the extinguisher you are holding is designed for the type of fire at hand or is large enough to suppress the fire.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 113 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 23. Which document lists the characteristics of a compound that contains a potentially hazardous

chemical, including precautions, instructions for use, and advice for handling the compound safely? a. Chemical label b. Safety data sheet c. Chemical formula d. Patent application ANS: B

The safety data sheet (SDS; formerly known as a material safety data sheet [MSDS]) is prepared by the manufacturer of a product that contains a hazardous chemical. The SDS provides precautions, instructions, and advice for safe handling of that product in the workplace. Additional information such as the physical and chemical properties of the product will likely be included on the SDS. Copies of these documents should be present and easily accessible in a veterinary clinic that uses such compounds.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 115 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous T E S T B A N K S MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory ProEcL edLuE reR s:.

SC peO ciM men management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 24. Which chemical is used for gas sterilization of equipment that cannot be autoclaved safely,

although it is a suspected carcinogen? a. Carbon dioxide b. Hydrogen sulfide c. Ethylene oxide d. Chlorine dioxide ANS: C

Ethylene oxide gas is suitable for sterilizing rubber, sharp, and mechanical equipment that needs to be sterilized but cannot stand up to the high temperatures required of traditional autoclaving. Due to its carcinogenic potential, care must be used when handling this chemical.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 116 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Operate and maintain autoclaves 25. Which chemical is commonly used to “cold” sterilize clinic instruments? a. Formalin b. Sodium hypochlorite

c. Glutaraldehyde d. Ethylene oxide ANS: C

Glutaraldehyde is used to sterilize hard instruments without the use of an autoclave.

Although not considered a carcinogen, its ability to kill microorganisms effectively may also pose a risk to humans who are continually exposed to this chemical.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 116-117 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Operate and maintain autoclaves 26. Which of the following is not a major risk for veterinary personnel exposed to a dog with

parvovirus? a. Risk of transmission of the virus to their own pet dogs b. Risk of transmission of the virus to other dogs in the clinic c. Risk of causing serious enteritis in the patient d. Risk of causing serious enteritis in the clinician due to parvo’s zoonotic potential ANS: D

Parvovirus is not a zoonotic pathogen, so human health will not be compromised upon exposure to the viral agent. The infectious agent, which is involved in severe enteritis, is extremely contagious to other dogs, and thus precautions must be made to prevent inadvertent transmission from host to other animals via fomite contact.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 119 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ELSaT boBraAtoNryKPSroEcL edLuE reR s:.

SC peO ciM men management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Understand how to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff in the collection and handling of samples 27. Which bacteria may become aerosolized during dental procedures due to high-speed

ultrasonic scaling of a patient’s teeth? a. Escherichia coli b. Pasteurella multocida c. Salmonella typhimurium d. Clostridium perfringens ANS: B

Pasteurella multocida is commonly encountered on oral surfaces, and with high-speed ultrasonic scalers can become aerosolized. Goggles, gloves, surgical masks, and long sleeves should be worn when performing dental procedures to help prevent zoonotic transmission of this pathogen to humans.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 119-120 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Dentistry: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Perform routine dental prophylaxis (manual and machine).

28. Why should dosimetry badges not be left in your car when not in use? a. Sunlight causes false exposure readings

b. They are at risk for theft c. They emit radiation d. They are inactivated by heat ANS: A

Sunlight will cause elevated radiation readings on the badge, thereby resulting in incorrect exposure rates for the individual linked to that particular badge. When not in use, dosimetry badges should be stored in a designated storage space inside the clinic but away from the x-ray area.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 121 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures TRUE/FALSE 1. As an employee, you have the right and a responsibility to bring those concerns about

potential safety hazards to the attention of the employer without fear of reprisal.

ANS: T

As an employee, you have the right and a responsibility to bring those concerns to the attention of the employer without fear of reprisal.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 108 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agenciTesESTBANKSELLER.COM 2. If the hospital where you work employs more than 10 employees, you have the right to view

the summary of work-related injuries and illnesses.

ANS: T

If the hospital where you work employs more than 10 employees, you have the right to view the summary of work-related injuries and illnesses (OSHA Form 300A), which should be posted on the employee bulletin board at certain times of the year.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 109 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies

Chapter 05: Animal Behavior Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A leading cause of pet relinquishment to animal shelters is a. owners can no longer afford them. b. owners report becoming allergic to the animals. c. behavior problems reported by owners. d. owners report medical problems with the pet.

ANS: C

Behavior problems continue to be a leading cause of pet relinquishment to animal shelters by owners and subsequent euthanasia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 126 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 2. Veterinary technicians must recognize behavioral changes associated with an animal’s stress

for all of the following reasons except a. Stress and illness are correlated b. Stress can cause aggressive or protective behaviors c. Stress is exhibited by animals in a variety of forms d. Stress is not felt or exhibited by animals ANS: D

The correlation between stress and illness is well known and underscores the importance of providing animals with a psychologically safe environment in which they are free to carry out innate, species-appropriate behavior. Because an animal’s behavior is a direct result of physiologic activity in the brain, behavior is an inextricable part of physiology.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 126 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 3. Taking a behavior-specific history can be challenging because a. clients do not understand their pet’s behavior. b. clients do not want to talk about their pet’s behavior. c. clients anthropomorphize their pet’s behavior. d. clients do not think their pet’s behavior is important.

ANS: C

Taking a behavior-specific history can be challenging because many owners describe their pet’s behavior in terms of what the owner thinks the pet is experiencing (e.g., “Fluffy is mad at me for leaving him home alone,” “Spot does not like my new boyfriend”). The owner is projecting his human perspective onto the animal to justify the troublesome actions of the pet.

This is called anthropomorphizing.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 127-128 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 4. While taking a behavior-specific history, the veterinary technician should ask a. What was your pet feeling? b. What did your pet do? c. What was your pet thinking? d. Do you think your pet felt guilty?

ANS: B

While collecting a behavior-specific history, ask clients to describe the pet’s actions, NOT what they believe the animal was thinking or feeling.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 128 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 5. One of the most important messages that veterinary technicians can share with pet owners is a. pets act out of a sense of morality, out of knowing “right” vs. “wrong.” b. pets often act out of spite to punish their owners. c. pets’ behaviors cannot be changed. d. pets act based upon whether a previous action made them feel good or bad.

ANS: D

One of the most important messages that veterinary technicians can share with pet owners is that animals are unlikely to possess a sense of morality and most likely do not take actions or make decisions based uponTaEsSeT nsBeAoN f “KriSgE htL ”L orE“Rw.roCnOgM .” The impetus for an animal’s behavior is based on whether a previous action made the animal feel good or bad. Behaviors that made them feel good are repeated, and actions that gave rise to discomfort are avoided.

Most animals (with primates being the possible exception) do not perform behaviors out of spite or anger. Helping pet owners to understand this is an important first step in helping to resolve a pet’s problem behavior because it moves the owner from feeling anger to feeling empathy.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 128 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts)

learning occurs when an animal forms a learned association between

6.

two features or events. a. Animal b. Associative c. Amenistic d. Agreement ANS: B

Associative learning. As the name suggests, associative learning occurs when an animal forms a learned association between two features or events.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 128 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 7. Associations that are a. highly predictable b. random c. frequently occurring d. inconsistently displayed

will be learned most readily.

ANS: A

Associations that are highly predictable will be learned most readily.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 129 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 8.

conditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus comes to elicit a reflexive response when paired with a stimulus that normally elicits the response. a. Neutral b. Operant c. Classical d. Counter ANS: C

Classical conditioning occurs when a neutral stimulus comes to elicit a reflexive response when paired with a stimulus that normally elicits that response.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 129 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 9.

behaviors (those acquired by classical conditioning) are involuntary or reflexive types of behaviors. a. Neutral b. Operant c. Respondent d. Despondent ANS: C

Respondent behaviors (those acquired by classical conditioning) are involuntary or reflexive types of behaviors, such as salivation in the presence of food.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 129 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client

understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 10. The terms positive reinforcement a. means only positive attitudes are used. b. means it is a positive experience for the animal. c. means something is given to the animal. d. is the only correct way to train an animal.

ANS: C

The terms positive and negative are used like mathematical operations. They do not imply any type of value judgment; they simply refer to the giving or taking away of something. Positive reinforcement involves the presentation of something pleasant (e.g., food) that is likely to strengthen a behavior response; it increases the likelihood that the behavior will be repeated.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 129 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 11. One of the most important things to remember about reinforcement and punishment is that

they must be defined by their effects, not by intended function. Which is an example of this that can be used to educate clients? a. Using a squirt bottle to discourage a dog’s behavior is always aversive. b. Using a squirt bottle to discourage a dog’s behavior is aversive only if the dog does not like it. c. Using a squirt bottle to discourage a dog’s behavior is not an example of negative reinforcement. d. Using a squirt bottle to discourage a dog’s behavior is cruel and should not be done.

ANS: B

One of the most important things to remember about reinforcement and punishment is that they must be defined by their effects, not by intended function. In other words, just because you think using a squirt bottle to discourage a dog’s behavior is aversive, this does not necessarily mean that it is aversive to the dog. If the dog likes water, it may interpret this as play.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 129-130 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 12.

reinforcement is the best way to teach an animal a new behavior. It leads to a very rapid learned response. a. Intermittent b. Positive c. Continuous d. Negative ANS: C

Continuous reinforcement, as the name suggests, means that you provide a reinforcement every single time the animal does something you want repeated. Continuous reinforcement is the best way to teach an animal a new behavior. It leads to a very rapid learned response.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 130 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 13. Sudden withdrawal of reinforcement, especially of a behavior that has been reinforced for a

long time, leads to a certain amount of frustration in the animal and often leads to greatly increased frequency of the behavior initially. This is called . a. negative reinforcement b. extinction expectation c. extinction burst d. negative burst ANS: C

Sudden withdrawal of reinforcement, especially of a behavior that has been reinforced for a long time, leads to a certain amount of frustration in the animal. The animal does not understand why this behavior that previously “worked” so well no longer “works” to achieve its desires. Most of the time, this leads to greatly increased frequency of the behavior initially, before a decrease is ever seen. This is called an extinction burst.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 130 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and LaEnnRe.r iCnOalMl formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and Communication: CommunicaTteEiS nT aB prA ofN esK siS onEaL lm electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 14. Pet behavior problems rooted in fear or anxiety are often exhibited through effects of what

type of learning? a. Conditioned b. Operant c. Negative d. Respondent ANS: D

Many pet behavior problems are rooted in anxiety or fear. These behaviors are often exhibited through the effects of respondent learning. For example, the animal with separation anxiety learns through classical conditioning that when it is left alone, it feels fear or anxiety. After a time, the physiologic response of increased heart rate, panting, and trembling occurs every time the animal thinks its owners are preparing to leave.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 130 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts)

15. Systematic desensitization is a procedure by which we change a dog’s emotional response to a

stimulus. This is done by . a. gradually increasing exposure to the stimulus. b. gradually decreasing exposure to the stimulus. c. quickly increasing exposure to the stimulus. d. quickly decreasing exposure to the stimulus.

ANS: A

Systematic desensitization is a procedure by which a dog’s emotional response to a stimulus is changed. This is done by gradually increasing exposure to the stimulus, starting at a level that does not cause an emotional response. Over a period of several sessions, exposure to the stimulus is gradually increased until the animal no longer responds to it at any level.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 131 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 16.

is the process used to substitute an alternative emotional response or behavior that is incompatible with the problem behavior or emotional response you are trying to eliminate. a. Respondent learning b. Systematic desensitization c. Counter conditioning d. Continuous reinforcement ANS: C

Counter conditioning is the process used to substitute an alternative emotional response or behavior that is incompatible with the problem behavior or emotional response you are trying to eliminate.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 131 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 17.

, also known as response blocking, is a technique that exposes an animal to a fearful stimulus at full intensity and prevents the animal from escaping until it ceases to be fearful. a. Resource guarding b. Flooding c. Counter conditioning d. Continuous reinforcement ANS: B

Flooding, also known as response blocking, is a technique that exposes an animal to a fearful stimulus at full intensity and prevents the animal from escaping until it ceases to be fearful.

This technique can require very long sessions, and if a session ends before the animal stops responding, the animal’s fear may intensify rather than diminish.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 131 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 18. An appropriate size crate to instruct a client to buy for their dog would be one that is a. large enough for the dog to stand at its full height, turn around, or lie down with its

legs outstretched. b. twice as large as the dog’s full height and large enough so that it can turn around

and lie down with its legs outstretched. c. as large as will fit in your space as long as the dog can lie in it. d. as big as you can get.

ANS: A

The crate must be appropriate for the size of the dog, and it may take some time to acclimate an adult dog to a crate. The crate must be large enough for the dog to stand at its full height, turn around, and lie down with its legs outstretched.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 133 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 19. All animal regardless of their age can be habituated to procedures that require handling.

Veterinary technicians should show all owners how to habituate their animals to all but which of the following procedureT s?ESTBANKSELLER.COM a. Hoof and paw handling b. Standing for physical examinations c. Eye and ear examinations d. All are important for good quality health care ANS: D

Habituation means exposing an animal frequently, and in a nonthreatening manner, to gentle handling that mimics commonly performed procedures such as trimming nails and examining the eyes and ears. All dogs and cats, regardless of their age, can be habituated to procedures that require handling. While this is most easily performed when animals are still young; it can be accomplished in older animals as well, but this takes longer.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 135 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 20. The

period maybe one of the most critical periods of development for a dog. Ideally, all puppies should be exposed to a large variety of the environmental features that they are likely to encounter as an adult during this period. a. neonatal b. socialization c. developmental

d. fearful ANS: B

The socialization period maybe one of the most critical periods of development. Ideally, all puppies should be exposed to a large variety of the environmental features that they are likely to encounter as an adult during this period. For socialization to be successful, experiences with novel stimuli must be positive. For example, when meeting new people, it may be beneficial to have a stranger offer the puppy small, tasty treats so that the puppy learns to associate strangers with good things. Puppies that have positive experiences with novelty during the socialization period are more likely to make good pets as adults. They will be less fearful, more confident, and more capable of dealing with novel stimuli later in life.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 139 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 21. Which organization is responsible the awarding technicians a specialist certifications in

animal behavior? a. AVMA b. NAVTA c. AVBT d. ACVB ANS: C

The Academy of Veterinary Behavior Technicians (AVBT), which has been recognized by the National Association oT fV etT erB inA arNyKTSecEhL niLcE iaR ns.iC nO AM merica (NAVTA), can award ES technicians a specialist certification in veterinary behavior. It is given to those who have an interest in behavior medicine and demonstrate increased knowledge of “scientifically— and humanely—based techniques of behavior health, problem prevention, training, management, and behavior modification.” Interested technicians must complete a formal training program and pass a test to be credentialed as a veterinary behavior technician specialist.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 127 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Miscellaneous 22. When should discussion about a pet’s behavioral and development needs begin with the pet’s

owner? a. At the first veterinary appointment b. At 6 months of age c. At 1 year of age d. Once a behavior issue arises ANS: A

The conversation about behavior training and expectations should be initiated by veterinary technicians at the pet’s very first clinic visit. Each animal is different, as are their levels of development, so preemptive education prior to the time that problems arise is desirable.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 133 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and

electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 23. Another name for the provision of exercises and materials that stimulate physical and mental

activity is environmental a. enhancement b. stimulation c. enrichment d. activity

.

ANS: C

Environmental enrichment can include toys and fun activities that the animals can use regularly. Mental stimulation is associated with socialization and play while physical enrichment delivered by regular exercise. Animals that are not allowed an adequate amount of environmental enrichment often lead to the expression of negative behaviors.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 134 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 24. Which is involved with the “take away” method of behavior modification? a. Take the animal away from the area when a disturbance occurs. b. Take away an object valued by the offending animal. c. Take away meals for a day when a pet violates its training. d. Take the animal to a kennel if it does not learn to behave.

ANS: B

The “take away” method involves removing a pleasant object from an animal when it misbehaves. This object can include the owner themselves; upon exhibiting an offensive behavior, the owner walks away and abruptly stops their interaction with the pet. Over time the pet will likely associate the unwanted behavior with the unpleasant feeling of their owner leaving, and thus will tend to cease that behavior.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 134 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 25. Which of the following is a component of proper use of positive punishment in behavior

modification? a. Punishment should occur within an hour of the behavior. b. Punishment should be performed every 2 or 3 times the behavior occurs. c. Remote punishment should be used whenever possible. d. Punishment should not be severe enough to cause the pet to be fearful.

ANS: D

Positive punishment can be effective, but it must be performed immediately at the time the behavior occurs, and it must occur every time it occurs. Discipline activities must not cause pain or fear in the animal, but instead should be a gentle reminder that the activity is inappropriate. Remote discipline may be an effective way to reprimand the pet without causing damage to the human-animal bond.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 134-135 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 26. New dog introductions should be performed a. in the owner’s home. b. ideally, 100% on leash. c. without the owner present. d. at an area away from the owner’s residence.

ANS: D

Introductions should be held at a neutral site, away from the owner’s residence. After initially introducing two dogs while both are leashed, off-leash play and exploration should be allowed as long as no signs of aggression are noted. Regular observation by the owner is important during the initial introductory period.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 143 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and proT viE deScT lieBnA t eNdK ucSatE ioL nL inEaRc. leC arOaM nd accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 27. Which of the following activities represent play-related aggression? a. Improper urination b. Mouthing c. Growling when approached d. Biting when approached ANS: B

Mouthing (when teeth make contact with skin) and rough playing are examples of play-related aggression. Though often considered harmless, behaviors like this are unruly and should be corrected. When instances of these occur, the owner should immediately vacate the area as a means to show disapproval of such activities.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 144 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 28. Which occurs first in dogs, sexual or social maturity? a. Sexual maturity b. Social maturity c. They both occur concurrently

d. There is no such thing as social maturity ANS: A

Sexual maturity in dogs typically occurs from 5 to 9 months of age, while social maturity is likely experienced at 1 to 3 years of age. Both of these periods may coincide with aggression disorders. Animals showing aggression outside of these periods of development may be experiencing medical conditions causing pain, discomfort, or dementia. Aggression also can potentially be the result of a neurologic condition such as brain tumors and/or seizure disorders.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 147 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 29. Which is the typical period of socialization in the kitten? a. 1 to 3 weeks of age b. 2 to 7 weeks of age c. 5 to 9 weeks of age d. 10 to 20 weeks of age ANS: B

The period of kitten socialization (2 to 7 weeks of age) is when a cat is most open to developing friendly and gentle habits that will last throughout their lives. Kittens should be handled daily (minimum 15 minutes per day) during this period as a means to promote positive social interactions and friendliness.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 1S4T 9 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Grooming 30. Which of the following is true regarding inter-cat aggression? a. A hissing cat is showing dominance to a submissive cat. b. It is easy to differentiate between feline aggression and playing. c. Staring between cats often precedes an aggressive act. d. An attacking cat will hold its tail still in a low position.

ANS: C

Although it may be difficult to identify when a cat is exhibiting aggressive behaviors (which can be confused with behaviors exhibited during play), many owners will notice a period of staring by a cat before they attack. The hissing that occurs when cats face-off is often due to a submissive cat expressing fear of the other cat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 152 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts)

Chapter 06: Restraint and Handling of Animals Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Reducing stress to any animal receiving medical care is important because a. it creates a safer environment for the staff. b. it means medical care can be given more efficiently. c. it creates a safer environment for the patient d. all of the above are true.

ANS: D

Any effort to eliminate stressors helps create a fear-free environment for the patient and a safer one for both the patient and veterinary personnel.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 167 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 2. In a clinic setting, most aggressive behaviors in dogs and cats can be classified as a. b. c. d.

. dominance aggression pain aggression fear aggression poor socialization

ANS: C

In a clinic setting, most aggressive behaviors in dogs and cats are based on fear or the perception of a threat. Although different types of aggression can play a role, such as a dominant personality, the primary motivation is generally fear and avoidance of injury.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 168 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 3. When a fearful pet displays warnings, the situation can usually be improved by a. reaching towards the animal slowly b. backing up and reducing the pet’s perceived threat level c. asking the owner to hold the pet d. continuing to engage the pet

.

ANS: B

When a fearful pet displays warnings, the situation can usually be improved by backing up and reducing the pet’s perceived threat level.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 168 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species

4. Displacement behaviors often appear to imply the pet is relaxing but should not be

misinterpreted by veterinary personnel. All of the following are displacement behaviors except a. grooming in a cat. b. yawning in a dog. c. licking lips in a dog. d. wagging the tail in a dog.

ANS: D

Displacement behaviors in fearful pets are a coping mechanism intended to help the pet reduce its anxiety level. Displacement behaviors such as grooming in cats, and yawning, scratching, and licking lips in dogs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 168 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 5. Veterinary technicians should advise cat owners to reduce travel related stress for their pets by

doing all of the following except a. using the carrier only for veterinary visits. b. acclimating their cat to its carrier. c. leaving the carrier open while at home. d. feeding the cat treats in its carrier.

ANS: A

Cat owners can also place T caEtnSipT,BtrA eaNtsK, S anEdLaLfE am Ri.liaCrOtoMwel in the carrier during transportation to help reduce the cat’s anxiety.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 169 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 6. In order to reduce stress levels in cats the practice should a. leave other cat smells in the examination room to comfort the pet. b. not have veterinary personnel wash their hands before touching the pet. c. put the cat in the first available examination room even if it is not cleaned yet. d. establish a cat-only examination room.

ANS: D

Pets rely heavily on scents to interpret their environment, so the lingering aroma of anal gland secretions, urine, or feces can affect the behavior of the next pet that enters the area. It is therefore important for veterinary personnel to wash their hands between patient examinations, and to keep the examination room, table, and waiting area as clean as possible in between appointments. If possible, establishing a cat-only examination room at the quiet end of a hallway is helpful in creating a fear-free environment for cats where the perception of dogs is minimized. Feline facial pheromone spray is also helpful for improving the perception of aromas in cats.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 169 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 7. Standing between a dog and its owner should be avoided at first because a. the dog will think you are trying to trick him. b. the dog may try to protect or guard its owner. c. the dog wants to see its owner but will be looking at you. d. the dog needs to be near its owner.

ANS: B

Standing between a dog and its owner should be avoided if possible, especially if children are present. Dogs that are being protective or fearful may react negatively to this positioning.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 169 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 8. If a dog escapes from the clinic, veterinary personnel should first a. chase the dog and catch it quickly. b. lunge with your arms raised to deter the dog. c. follow the dog from a safe distance and give it time to calm down. d. approach the dog from over its head to grab at its leash.

ANS: C

If a dog escapes, resist the natural inclination to pursue it. Chasing a dog will simply make it run faster, and cornering a dog can potentially cause it to fight. Instead, follow the dog from a safe distance and give it a few minutes to calm down.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 169 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 9. Large dogs may have to be examined on the floor. This is not ideal because a. the floor is dirty. b. the dog has less mobility. c. the dog may feel threatened as you lean over it. d. it is harder for a client to see what you are doing.

ANS: C

If a large dog is very fearful of the table, examination can be conducted on the floor; however, this situation is not ideal. The dog has greater mobility on the floor than on the table, so escape is easier. When restraining a dog on the floor, it is important to avoid leaning over the dog. This positioning can make a fearful or aggressive dog feel threatened.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 169 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species

10. If a pet seems to be stressed by the restraint you are using a. apply more restraint and work more quickly. b. take a break and consider using different restraint techniques. c. ask the owner to leave the room. d. avoid distractions like food or treats.

ANS: B

If a dog seems to object strenuously to restraint, it is best to avoid wrestling with the dog.

Instead, take a break and consider using less restraint or a different restraint technique.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 172 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 11. Muzzles are often safe and effective for restraining uncooperative dogs; however, be sure a. the dog can still pant in order to cool itself. b. the muzzle is tight enough so you cannot see the dogs tongue. c. the dog can easily get it off, if need be. d. not to apply a muzzle until the dog has snapped at someone.

ANS: A

Muzzles are available in several sizes and styles, including cloth, leather, and basket-style.

When choosing the right fit for a traditional cloth or leather muzzle, the muzzle should be snug enough that it cannot be pushed off, and the cone portion over the dog’s nose should be tight enough to prevent biting. However, it is helpful if the dog has enough room to pant, as many stressed dogs need toTdEoS. TBANKSELLER.COM PTS: 1 REF: pp. 172-173 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 12. Sedatives, which may have to be used in order to treat a patient, a. make it easy to assess the patient’s mental status. b. make it easy to assess the patient’s pain level. c. may change physical parameters of the patient. d. will not affect physical parameters of the patient.

ANS: C

Sedatives hinder physical assessment of a patient; physical parameters like heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate can be altered by sedatives. Sedation also makes it nearly impossible to assess a pet’s mental state, perform a neurologic examination, or localize pain.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 174 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 13.

Which of the following statements regarding venipuncture is the most accurate? a. It should be performed using the maximum level of restraint to ensure a still

patient. b. It is most painful at the point where the skin and vein is pierced. c. It can result in intravascular placement of the needle if the patient moves. d. It should always be done under sedation to ensure a still patient.

ANS: B

When attempting venipuncture, continue to use the minimum level of restraint necessary, but try to keep the patient as still as possible. Movement can result in perivascular placement of the needle; the goal of venipuncture is intravascular placement of the needle. The most painful portion of the venipuncture is the piercing of skin and vessel; this is the point when the restraint must be most secure.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 176 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 14. If blood needs to be collected from an aggressive cat, it would be safer to use the a. cephalic vein. b. jugular vein. c. metatarsal vein. d. medial saphenous vein.

ANS: D

For a truly aggressive cat, medial saphenous venipuncture may be the safest approach because the entire body (including the head) can be wrapped in a towel while the rear leg is isolated for venipuncture.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 176 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 15. Horses have three areas where their vision is extremely limited, excluding which of the

following? a. directly in front of their nose. b. directly in back of them. c. between their front and back legs. d. between their eyes on their forehead.

ANS: C

Horses have three areas where their vision is extremely limited: directly behind them, directly in front of their nose, and between their eyes on the forehead.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 178 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 16. A single front leg kick by a horse is called a. double barrel kick. b. cow kick.

c. striking. d. lunging.

ANS: C

When horses use their front legs to kick, this is known as striking. A single leg strike is the most common way a person can get injured when in front of the horse if the horse is prone to this behavior or is agitated.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 178 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 17. Diversionary restraint includes which of the following? a. Twitches b. Halters c. Lead ropes d. Stocks ANS: A

Diversionary restraint uses varying techniques or devices to distract the horse. Diversionary restraint can be manual (tapping lightly on the horses head) or mechanical (use of a twitch).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 179 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species

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18. Signs of aggression in a horse include all except a. snorting. b. pointing ears forward. c. pawing at the ground. d. pinning ears back.

ANS: B

Signs of aggression in horses include but are not limited to pinning ears, pawing at the ground, snorting, lunging forward, and turning the head quickly and biting.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 179 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 19. Signs of fear in a horse include all except a. widening of its eyes with the sclera (the whites of the eyes) obvious. b. flaring nostrils. c. tightening of the muscles around the mouth. d. snorting.

ANS: D

Signs of fear in the horse are subtle and include: tension; tightening of muscles around the mouth, eyes, and neck; eyes wide with sclera (the whites of the eyes) obvious; and an increased respiratory rate. Nostrils will be flared and the horse will be taking deep breaths.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 179 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 20. The left side of a horse, which is traditionally the side we approach from, is known as the a. off side. b. near side. c. correct side. d. loading side.

ANS: B

The left side of the horse is known as the near side.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 180 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 21. Who is responsible for injuries incurred by veterinary technicians while they are performing

duties on a patient on a farm? a. The technician b. The practice owner c. The farmer d. The township where the farm is located ANS: B

Any injuries that take place while veterinary care is being administered are under the responsibility of the practice owner, regardless if it occurs in a clinic or on a farm. This is a major reason why practicing proper animal handling and restrain is important for every member of the clinical team.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 167 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 22. What is the purpose of using feline facial pheromone spray? a. To keep cats away b. To cause listless cats to become alert c. To cause cats to hold their breath during auscultation d. To cause cats to relax ANS: D

Feline facial pheromone spray (such as Feliway) is used to calm cats. It can be applied to cages and towels. Preemptive treatment of these areas with this pheromone spray may help some cats relax and feel comfortable during their visit.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 168 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint

techniques for various animal species 23. Which of the following approaches to a patient is considered threatening? a. Approaching from the side b. Approaching from below c. Approaching from in front d. Approaching with hands held straight down ANS: C

Any posture or approach that results in the animal being perceived as small is considered threatening to that animal. Veterinary personnel should approach from the side of the animal, without towering over the pet and with hands held straight down (not placed on the hips) to prevent the appearance of excessive size and dominance.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 168 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 24. Which component of the nervous system is activated when an animal reacts with alert upon

being handled? a. Sympathetic b. Parasympathetic c. Somatic d. Voluntary ANS: A

The sympathetic componeT ntEoS fT thB eA auNtoKnSoE mL icL(E “aR ut.oC mO atM ic”) nervous system is responsible for what is commonly called the “fight-or-flight” response. This response results in increased blood flow to the body in preparation for the physical demands required to defend against a perceived threat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 169 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 25. When should a rabies pole be used to restrain a dog? a. When the dog is in a deep-backed cage b. When a dog is unable to stand due to a back injury c. When a dog cannot be retrieved by any other method d. When a dog needs long-term restraint ANS: C

A rabies pole should only be used as a last resort, since the location of the restraint and leverage that can be applied by the restrainer is potentially dangerous. Short-term restraint of animals that are unable to be handled by any method aside from use of a rabies pole is permissible, but the individual should be trained in the use of such a tool.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 170 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint

techniques for various animal species 26. It is important to recognize the signs of a nervous cat that is likely to react poorly to handling.

All of the following are signs of a nervous cat include except a. Ears are pulled back. b. Direct eye contact is made with the handler. c. Vocalization (hissing, growling, etc…). d. Crouching low and staying toward the back of its carrier or cage.

ANS: B

Nervous cats will decline to make direct eye contact with an individual that is attempting to restrain it, and this key should be obvious to a skilled animal health professional. In addition to ear and body positions, any aggressive vocalizations should be considered a warning from a nervous cat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 170 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 27. Where should the handler position themselves in relation to the examiner when working with

a horse? a. On the same side as the examiner b. On the opposite side as the examiner c. To the rear of the horse d. The examiner should always double as the handler ANS: A

There are many procedures that require a handler to restrain a horse in order to perform a physical examination or technique. When a handler is needed, that person should position themselves on the same side as the examiner. This will reduce stress and confusion for the horse to help perform the work effectively.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 180 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 28. How large is the typical horse’s flight zone? a. Less than 5 ft. b. 5 to 10 ft. c. 10 to 30 ft. d. 30 to 50 ft.

ANS: C

While a horse on pasture will typically exhibit a larger flight zone than one housed in pens, a typical range is 10 to 30 ft. Workers must be cautious when present within this flight distance, as a horse could startle and become excessively excited, thus causing a dangerous situation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 180 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint

techniques for various animal species 29. How large is the typical adult dairy cow’s flight zone? a. Less than 5 ft. b. 5 to 10 ft. c. 10 to 30 ft. d. 30 to 50 ft.

ANS: B

Cattle vary in their flight distances from zero to about 25 ft. Beef cattle have a larger flight zone (15 to 25 feet) compared to dairy cattle. Dairy cows are handled up-close by farmers on a daily basis and are more used to and comfortable with the close contact.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 187 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species 30. For which of the following activities would a tail jack on a cow not be an appropriate

restraint? a. For access of the tail when collecting 100 mL of blood from the tail vein b. To prevent kicking during an intramammary infusion c. To restrain an animal when performing rectal palpation d. To stop kicks during injecting a local analgesic ANS: A

While tail jacking can be performed for any procedure that may result in noxious sensations to a cow, it is only appropriatT eE inScToB njA unNcK tiS onEw ai. l vCeO niMpuncture if the volume to be collected LiLthEtR is relatively small (less than 20 ml). Larger volumes should be collected from the jugular vein, although tail jacking may still be performed for such a sample to help with restraint.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 191 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate restraint techniques for various animal species

Chapter 07: History and Physical Examination Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When taking a patient history, it is important to ask open-ended questions. An open-ended

question is one that a. requires clients to fill in the information themselves. b. potentially guides the client to an answer. c. can be answered with a yes or no to speed up history taking. d. might generate missed information by leading the client.

ANS: A

It is important to ask open-ended questions, rather than leading questions. An open-ended question is one that requires clients to fill in the information themselves, whereas a leading question is one that potentially guides them to an answer.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 209 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 2. The animals signalment includes all except a. age. b. reproductive status. c. breed. d. registration number.

ANS: D

Signalment includes age, breed (or dominant breed if mixed), sex, and reproductive status (spayed or neutered).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 210 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 3. When discussing a case, signalment is used to a. accurately identify which patient is being discussed. b. focus in on medical condition more common to that group of animal. c. both A and B are correct. d. neither A nor B is correct.

ANS: C

The signalment describes all of the background information regarding the animal’s breed, age, sex, and reproductive status, etc. This information may help the diagnostician develop a list of differential diagnoses in a manner that facilitates treatment of a disease or disorder.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 210 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 4. Pyometra most often occurs

a. b. c. d.

2 weeks to 2 months after a heat cycle. after parturition. in intact male dogs. following the development of mammary tumors.

ANS: A

Pyometra occurs most commonly during the period after active estrus.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 210 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 5. When obtaining the medical history, be sure to get all of the following information about

medications the animal is taking except a. type of medication. b. dose and frequency of medication. c. duration for which the medication has been given. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

The goal should be to find out the following: type of medication, dose and frequency of medication, duration for which it has been given, reason it has being given, and whether it has provided benefit to the pet.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 211 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 6. The key to a good physical examination is a. being sure to evaluate only the chief complaint to increase efficiency. b. careful completion of all parts of the examination every time it is performed. c. evaluating only the systems that are medically pertinent. d. completing it once a year.

ANS: B

The key to a good physical examination is careful completion of all parts of the examination every time it is performed. You should perform all aspects of the physical examination in the same order in every patient. Developing this sort of routine will prevent you from forgetting to evaluate one area because you are overly focused on another.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 211 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 7. A quick visual inspection of the patient a. cannot provide much important information. b. should be part of every physical examination. c. wastes valuable time. d. produces findings that should not be recorded in the medical record.

ANS: B

Several pieces of useful information can be obtained with just a quick visual inspection of the animal from a distance as it behaves in the waiting room, the examination room, or the kennel.

You can obtain a general sense for the animal’s mentation. Is the patient bright, alert, and responsive? Is the patient quiet but alert and responsive? Such observations may suggest a less emergent condition. Is the patient dull, depressed, or even unresponsive? This could indicate more serious disease or neurologic dysfunction. In addition to mentation, you can visually inspect the animal at rest for increases in respiratory rate or effort. When the animal walks, quickly look for evidence of lameness, ataxia, or visual deficits. You may be able to identify asymmetry or swelling of the patient. This is a good time to evaluate the body condition of the patient and to assign a body condition score. The list of things that you can identify by careful visual inspection is extensive.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 213 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 8. An axillary or aural temperature a. is as accurate as a rectal temperature. b. should be the first choice when obtaining a temperature. c. can be used if medically necessary. d. two of the above are correct.

ANS: C

An axillary or aural temperature measurement may be used in cases where the rectum or nearby anatomy is swollen or painful, as in severe colitis or with a perineal hernia. These methods are less accurate than a rectal temperature measurement and should be used only when necessary.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 213-214 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 9. Severe hyperthermia a. is a body temperature >107° F. b. is not a medical emergency. c. is a body temperature <90° F d. can be caused by hypothyroidism.

ANS: A

Severe elevations of body temperature (>107° F) can lead to organ dysfunction and can warrant initiation of gradual cooling mechanisms.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 214 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 10. Pulses are generally evaluated using the femoral artery, which is located a. in the axillary region. b. in the inguinal region.

c. in the cervical region. d. in the aural region.

ANS: B

Pulses generally are palpated by way of the femoral artery, which is located high on the medial thigh of the animal.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 214 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 11. Absence of a palpable pulse (or a significant change in pulse quality) accompanied by an

audible heartbeat is called a a. hypocardia b. thready pulse c. pulse deficit d. pulse pressure

.

ANS: C

Absence of a palpable pulse (or a significant change in pulse quality) with an audible heartbeat is called a pulse deficit. Pulse deficits usually indicate an abnormal heart rhythm and warrant further evaluation, such as electrocardiography.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 214 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 12. To obtain an animal’s respiratory rate most commonly you should a. count for 15 seconds and then multiply by 4. b. count for 15 seconds and then multiply by 10 c. count for 30 seconds and then multiply by 4. d. count for 60 seconds and then multiply by 10.

ANS: A

To calculate the respiratory rate (breaths per minute), count the number of breaths for 15 seconds and multiply by 4.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 214 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 13. Retropulsed means a. flushing fluid through an IV catheter. b. pushing backwards, such as on the eyes. c. historical data about a pulse. d. the period of time after taking a pulse.

ANS: B

During an ocular examination, if the eyes cannot be pushed backward (retropulsed) slightly when pressure is gently applied to the globes (by placing one’s thumbs over the eyelids, a lesion (such as a mass) may be present behind one or both eyes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 215 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 14. Diseases of the oral cavity may cause a. hepatomegaly. b. halitosis. c. hepatitis. d. halitomegaly.

ANS: B

Diseases of the oral cavity may cause loss of appetite, difficulty chewing, or halitosis. Dental disease (such as periodontal disease) is common in small animal patients.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 215 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry

is the position of the lower eyelid when it is rolling outward away from the

15.

eye. a. Entropion b. Uveitis c. Ectropion d. Distichia ANS: C

During an ocular examination, the position of the lower eyelid should be examined to see whether the lid is rolling inward toward the eye (entropion) or outward away from the eye (ectropion). Both of these conditions can lead to ocular problems.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 215 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 16. A clinical finding that indicates glaucoma is a. increased intraocular pressure b. increased interocular pressure c. decreased intraocular pressure d. decreased interocular pressure

_.

ANS: A

During an ocular examination, when pressure is gently applied to the globes (by placing one’s thumbs over the eyelids), the globes may feel extremely firm, indicating increased intraocular pressure, which is a clinical sign of glaucoma.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 215

TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 17. The is an easy place to examine for the yellow discoloration seen with icterus. a. conjunctiva b. nictitating membrane c. sclera d. iris ANS: C

The sclera is the normally white part of the eye. It is an easy place to examine for the yellow discoloration seen with icterus.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 216 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

staining is usually required for recognition of a corneal ulcer.

18. a. b. c. d.

Geisma Anisocoria Fluorescein Wrights

ANS: C

Corneal ulcers are fairly common, and although fluorescein staining is usually required for recognition of a corneal ulT ceE r,SdT eeBpA erNuKlcSerEsLmLaE yR be.iCdO enMtifiable with only visual inspection.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 216 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 19.

is the part of the eye behind the cornea but in front of the iris and should normally be clear. a. Cornea b. Sclera c. Anterior chamber d. Internal chamber ANS: C

The anterior chamber is the part of the eye behind the cornea but in front of the iris and should normally be clear; there should be no difficulty in seeing the structures behind it. Cloudiness, pus, or blood may be present in the anterior chamber in association with severe ocular inflammation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 216 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

20. Inside the pinnae is a common place to recognize

, which is indicative of a

primary hemostatic defect (such as thrombocytopenia). a. excoriation b. alopecia c. uveitis d. petechiation ANS: D

Inside the pinnae is a common place to recognize petechiation, which is indicative of a primary hemostatic defect (such as thrombocytopenia).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 216 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 21. The chest piece on most stethoscopes consists of two sides: a flat side called the

and a cup-shaped side called the bell. a. chest piece b. acoustic piece c. diode d. diaphragm ANS: D

A stethoscope should be used such that the earpieces are pointing toward the examiner’s nose when they are placed into the ears. The chest piece on most stethoscopes consists of two sides: a flat side called the diaphragm and a cup-shaped side called the bell.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 218 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 22. Each quadrant of the lungs should be auscultated through at least

_ to

respiratory cycles of inspiration and expiration. a. one; two b. two; three c. three; four d. four; five ANS: B

The lungs should be auscultated on both sides of the patient, generally dividing the lung fields into nine quadrants on each side. Each quadrant should be auscultated through at least two to three respiratory cycles of inspiration and expiration.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 219 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 23. During a physical examination on a dog, which heart valves can be auscultated on the left side

of the chest?

a. b. c. d.

pulmonic, aortic, mitral tricuspid, mitral tricuspid, aortic, mitral pulmonic, aortic

ANS: A

The pulmonic, aortic, and mitral valves can best be auscultated on the left side of the animal, whereas the tricuspid valve is best auscultated on the right side.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 219 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 24. Although heart valve positions in dogs are similar to those in

, abnormal heart

sounds in the latter are more commonly auscultated in the sternal area. a. dogs b. cats c. horses d. cattle ANS: B

In cats, it is best to auscultate the heart directly over the sternum initially, and then move the chest piece gradually up to the left side and back over to the right side. Although valve positions in dogs are similar to those in cats, abnormal heart sounds in cats are more commonly auscultated in the sternal area.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 2S1T 9 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 25. Dogs may normally have a slight variation in heart rhythm, such that the heart rate increases

slightly during inspiration and decreases slightly during expiration. This is called , and it is a sign that a dog has normal cardiac function. a. sinus arrhythmia b. respiratory sinus rhythm c. respiratory rhythm d. respiratory sinus arrhythmia ANS: D

Dogs may normally have a slight variation in heart rhythm, such that the heart rate increases slightly during inspiration and decreases slightly during expiration. This is called respiratory sinus arrhythmia, and it is a sign that a dog has normal cardiac function.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 219 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 26. When performing an eye examination, which of the following internal structures requires

some specialized equipment to adequately view?

a. b. c. d.

Cornea Retina Iris Anterior chamber

ANS: B

The retina requires the use of an ophthalmoscope to visualize clearly. The cornea, iris, and anterior chambers are visible with the naked eye and allow for easy observation during a physical examination. In a normal patient (i.e., one without nuclear sclerosis or cataracts), the lens cannot be seen without specialized equipment.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 216 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 27. What is the term for the presence of different sizes of a patient’s pupils? a. Anisocoria b. Exophthalmos c. Entropion d. Strabismus ANS: A

Pupils of differing sizes are important to explore as a sign of potential neurologic disorder.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 216 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a vaTriE etS yT ofBaA niN mK alSsE peL ciL esE . |RD.eC mO onMstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 28. Which of the following statements is not typically considered true with regard to the

respiratory examination of a companion animal? a. Lack of dorsal lung sounds may indicate pneumothorax. b. Pulmonary edema may present as inspiratory crackles. c. Thin-bodied dogs are harder to auscultate than muscular-bodied dogs. d. Lack of ventral lung sounds may indicate pleural effusion.

ANS: C

The large muscle mass that is present in larger-bodied dogs prevents effective sound transmission through the thorax. Conversely, thin-bodied dogs have less thoracic mass for the lung sounds to pass through, thereby making for easier auscultation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 218 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 29. The gingival mucous membranes are important areas for a veterinary technician to assess

during a physical examination. What may the capillary refill time (CRT) of <1 second indicate? a. Hypotension b. Hypoperfusion

c. Hypertension d. Anemia ANS: C

The CRT is a direct measure of how well the circulatory system is able to deliver blood to tissues (“perfusion”). A normal CRT is approximately 2 seconds; if a CRT is greater than 2 seconds, hypoperfusion and low blood pressure are indicated, while a short CRT indicates excess pressure due to events such as stress or septic shock.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 219 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 30. Which of the following organs would most likely be palpable when performing abdominal

palpation on a healthy dog? a. Liver b. Stomach c. Spleen d. Gallbladder ANS: C

When performing abdominal palpation on a healthy dog, the spleen usually is palpable in the cranial-ventral or midventral abdomen. The liver should not be palpable in the normal animal, but if it is enlarged or contains a mass, it may be palpated in the cranial-ventral abdomen. The stomach usually is not palpable if it is empty, but if gastric distention or a mass is present, it may be palpable in the cranial-dorsal abdomen. The gall bladder is closely associated with the liver; it is not able to be roT utE inS elTyBpA alN paKteSdEwLhLilE eR pe.rfCoO rmMing an abdominal examination. It is important for technicians to realize which organs are accessible through manual palpation in order to discern abnormalities that are encountered.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 221 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 31. Why cannot the kidneys normally be palpated in a canine? a. They lie too far cranially. b. They are covered in fat. c. The spleen prevents proper isolation. d. They are diffuse and hard to identify.

ANS: B

Due to the heavy fat layer that surrounds the canine kidney, they are not able to be moved and are not usually felt during routine abdominal palpation. If a dog has a condition where the kidneys are grossly enlarged (renomegaly), or the patient is overly thin, then it is possible to feel the kidneys from outside the abdomen.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 222 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

32. Which of the following lymph nodes can be examined for irregular size and shape through

external palpation of a normal animal? a. Retropharyngeal b. Intramesenteric c. Mediastinal d. Popliteal ANS: D

The popliteal lymph nodes are found on the caudal surface of the knee. Along with mandibular and prescapular lymph nodes, these can be felt during palpation of the external body surfaces. Enlarged lymph nodes can be indicative of an infection or inflammation, although more serious conditions such as lymphoma may also be indicated.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 224 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 33. What should be the next step if a limb is found to be painful upon examination? a. Check the corresponding limb on the opposite side b. Perform regional limb analgesia c. Schedule an MRI d. Perform ultrasound-guided tenectomy ANS: A

The first thing that should be done once a painful limb is identified is to determine if the contralateral limb is likewiT seEaSffTeB ctA edN. K US niE laLteLraEl R li. mC bO paMin indicates isolation of the condition to the affected side and would necessitate further exploration of that side.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 225-226 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 34. A

animal is unresponsive to any stimuli, while a offensive stimulation such as pain. a. dull; comatose b. stuperous; dull c. comatose; stuperous d. quiet; comatose

animal only responds to

ANS: C

Measures of mentation allow for the analysis of the neurologic health of a patient. A comatose animal is unresponsive to all stimulatory efforts. Stupor is characterized by a dull and depressed attitude that is only startled when a painful stimulus (such as a toe pinch) is applied.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 226 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

35. Damage to which cranial nerve is associated with deficits in facial skin tone? a. VI b. VII c. VIII d. IX ANS: B

The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is associated with symmetry of the facial muscles. With damage (aka “facial nerve paralysis”), the side of the nerve lesion is characterized with a face skin droop on that same side.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 226 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

Chapter 08: Preventive Health Programs Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. According to the American Association of Feline Practitioners (AAFP) a cat is considered in

which age group when it is 11 to 14 years old? a. Adult b. Mature c. Senior d. Geriatric ANS: C

The American Association of Feline Practitioners (AAFP) has identified six life stages in cats: Kitten (0 to 6 months), Junior (7 months to 2 years), Adult (3 to 6 years), Mature (7 to 10 years), Senior (11 to 14 years), and Geriatric.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 242 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 2. Veterinary technicians should always explain to clients that routine health examinations are

important a. so that problems can be detected early and treatments may have better outcomes. b. to be sure the pet is up T toEdSaT teBoA nN thKeS ir E vaLcL ciE neRs. . COM c. as an income stream for the clinic. d. so the pet gets used to coming to the clinic.

ANS: A

Routine examinations establish what is normal for healthy patients and help detect abnormalities of which the owner may not be aware. When a problem is detected early in the disease process, a favorable outcome of treatment for the condition becomes more likely.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 242 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 3. The initial visit to a veterinary practice for a healthy puppy or kitten typically occurs at

weeks of age a. 3 to 5 b. 4 to 6 c. 6 to 8 d. 8 to 12 ANS: C

The initial visit to a veterinary practice for a healthy puppy or kitten typically occurs at 6 to 8 weeks of age.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 242 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 4. Initial puppy and kitten examinations may identify problems present at birth these are known

as a. b. c. d.

adjuvant defects. congenital defects. genetic problems. developmental errors.

ANS: B

The pet is examined with emphasis on identifying any congenital defects that may be present.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 242 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 5. Before bringing a new cat or kittens into a household with other cats, the animal should be

screened using blood tests for which two contagious diseases even if they appear healthy? a. FIV and FeLV b. FIV and FVRCP c. FeLV and FVRCP d. FVRCP and Rabies ANS: A

For kittens, the initial visit often involves performing a blood test to check for feline leukemia virus (FeLV) and feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 242 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 6. During every examination when a fecal sample is requested the veterinary technician should

educate the client about diseases that animals can transmit to people, known as a. communicable diseases b. infectious diseases c. reportable diseases d. zoonotic diseases

.

ANS: D

This is an important opportunity to educate clients about the need for routine parasite control and the zoonotic risks of certain parasites to humans.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 242 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client

understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 7. Veterinary technicians should be familiar with and educate clients on the benefit of spaying

their pet. These benefits include all off the following except a. unwanted pregnancies. b. heat-related behaviors. c. ovarian cancer. d. mammary carcinoma.

ANS: D

Spaying eliminates unwanted pregnancies, heat-related behaviors, ovarian cancer, and pyometra. It also decreases the likelihood of mammary carcinoma if performed before the second heat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 243 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 8. Even though surgical risk to the animal has been minimized for common surgical procedures

owners still must sign an informed consent form which outlines a. preventive health actions that could have prevented the surgery. b. risks of the procedure. c. parasite control following the procedure. d. proper grooming techniques in light of the incision.

ANS: B

Surgical risk to the animal has been minimized with the use of state-of-the-art anesthetics and sterile techniques Nevertheless, risks of adverse reactions to medications, unexpected hemorrhage, and postoperative complications are present. Informed consent forms should be signed by the owner before all surgical procedures are performed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 243 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Organize medical records/consent forms 9. After the initial visit, puppies and kittens are examined at

-week intervals until

approximately 16 weeks of age. a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 3 c. 3 to 4 d. 4 to 5 ANS: C

After the initial visit, puppies and kittens are examined at 3- to 4-week intervals until approximately 16 weeks of age.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 243 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and

electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 10. AAHA-AVMA Canine and Feline Preventive Health Guidelines recommend that adult dogs

and cats be examined annually, with some animals requiring more frequent visits. should be seen more than once per year. a. Purebred animals b. Mature animals c. Senior animals d. Mixed breed animals ANS: C

AAHA-AVMA Canine and Feline Preventive Health Guidelines recommend that adult dogs and cats be examined annually, with some animals requiring more frequent visits. Because one of the goals of preventive health programs is to detect disease early in its onset, it is recommended that senior and geriatric dogs and cats visit the veterinary practice every 6 months.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 243 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 11. A senior animal is one considered by AAHA to be a. 10 to 15 years old. b. in the last 25% of its predicted life span. c. in the last 10% of its prTeE diS ctT edBlAifN eK spSaE n.LLER.COM d. greater than 10 years old.

ANS: B

American Animal Hospital Association Senior Care Guidelines for Dogs and Cats define seniors as those animals in the last 25% of their predicted life span.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 243 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 12. Due to osteoarthritis some geriatric dogs require treatment with NSAID. NSAID stands for a. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug b. Nonsystemic anti-inflammatory drug c. Nonsynthetic anti-inflammatory drug d. New steroidal anti-inflammatory drug ANS: A

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may be beneficial in controlling pain caused by osteoarthritis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 243 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively

administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 13. Active immunity occurs in the body when a. the animal consumes colostrum. b. the immune system develops antigens to antibodies. c. the animal is given intravenous infusion of antibody-rich plasma. d. the immune system develops antibodies to antigens.

ANS: D

Active immunity occurs in the body when the immune system develops antibodies to antigens such as viruses, yeast, or bacteria.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 244 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 14. Antibodies from provided the longest duration of action. a. colostrum b. antibody rich plasma infusions c. transplacental migration d. active immunity ANS: D

Unfortunately, passive immunity lasts for a relatively short time, and the neonate eventually becomes susceptible to the diseases it was once protected against. Vaccinations therefore are administered to puppies anT dEkS ittT enBsAtoNsKtiSmEuL laL teEaR n .acCtiOvM e immune response in the animal, which protects it from disease for a longer time.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 244 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 15.

Adjuvants are added to the contents of a vaccine in order to a. preserve the vaccine so that no containment grows in it. b. lengthen the shelf life of the vaccine. c. ensure the vaccine does not cause disease. d. help stimulate a stronger immune response.

ANS: D

To ensure that an adequate immune response occurs, adjuvants are typically added to the contents of the vaccine. Adjuvants are substances that help stimulate a stronger immune response to antigens contained within a vaccine.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 245 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects

16. Although hypersensitivity reactions to vaccines are rare, they are more likely to occur with a. b. c. d.

types of vaccines. infectious noninfectious active passive

ANS: B

A disadvantage of noninfectious types of vaccines is that although hypersensitivity reactions to vaccines are rare, they are more likely to occur with noninfectious than infectious types of vaccines.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 245 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 17. Once a vaccine is reconstituted, it is no longer stable and should be administered within a. b. c. d.

of being reconstituted.

1 minute 1 hour 1 day 1 week

ANS: B

Once a vaccine is reconstituted, it is no longer stable and should be administered within 1 hour of being reconstituted.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 245 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 18. Vaccines are dosed based upon a. body weight. b. body surface area. c. amount needed to stimulate an immune response. d. amount needed to travel throughout the body.

ANS: C

All dogs and cats should receive the same designated vaccine dose, per manufacturer recommendations, regardless of the age or size of the animal.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 246 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 19. It is recommended by the AAFP that feline vaccines be given in the distal limb because a. the cat can be restrained in a less traumatic way. b. a better immune response can be achieved. c. it is easier to observe a local reaction.

d. in the event of a local sarcoma the limb can be amputated.

ANS: D

Due to the invasive nature of vaccine-induced sarcomas, it is now recommended immunizations are administered on the distal limb. In the event of a local vaccine-induced sarcoma, the leg could be amputated to completely remove the mass.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 246-247 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 20. Core vaccines are those a. that are recommended for all animals of that species. b. that cover all the diseases that can be vaccinated for in that species. c. that are specifically recommended for animals at risk for contracting the disease. d. that are not recommended for every animal regardless of species.

ANS: A

Both the American Association of Feline Practitioners and the American Animal Hospital Association have published guidelines for vaccines that they consider core and those that they consider noncore. Core vaccines are those that are recommended for all animals of that species.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 248-249 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognTizEe S anTdBeA xpNlaK inScE om idC e eOffects Lm LoEnRs. M

is a zoonotic and reportable viral disease.

21. a. b. c. d.

Ringworm Cutaneous larval migrans Rabies Giardia lamblia

ANS: C

Rabies is a zoonotic and reportable disease caused by a rhabdovirus, which affects the nervous system.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 252 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 22. Veterinary technicians must know the local laws that govern rabies vaccinations in terms of a. how often revaccination must occur. b. route of vaccine administration. c. the animal’s age at initial vaccination. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

In many regions, pets are required by law to receive rabies vaccination, and the law may even dictate the route of administration (intramuscular vs. subcutaneous) and/or the frequency of administration (annually vs. triennially).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 252 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 23.

are normal with feline herpesvirus infection and involve the virus lying dormant within the cat for a period of time. After stressful episodes for the cat, clinical signs of upper respiratory disease and/or viral shedding typically recur. a. Acute infections b. Chronic infections c. Patent infections d. Latent infections ANS: D

Latent infections are normal with feline herpesvirus infection and involve the virus lying dormant within the cat for a period of time. After stressful episodes for the cat, clinical signs of upper respiratory disease and/or viral shedding typically recur.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 252 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 24.

is caT usE edSb rvSoE viL ruLs.EIR t i. sC hiO ghMly contagious and is commonly TyBaApNaK found in the environment; cats of all ages are susceptible. Clinical signs include fever, lethargy, anorexia, dehydration, vomiting, and diarrhea. a. Feline rhinotracheitis b. Feline panleukopenia c. Feline leukemia virus d. Feline immunodeficiency virus ANS: B

Feline panleukopenia is caused by a parvovirus. It is highly contagious and is commonly found in the environment; cats of all ages are susceptible. Clinical signs include fever, lethargy, anorexia, dehydration, vomiting, and diarrhea.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 252 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 25. FIV-negative cats who receive the FIV vaccine will a. test negative on the antibody-based FIV screening test. b. test positive on the antibody-based FIV screening test. c. test negative on the antigen-based FIV screening test. d. test positive on the antigen-based FIV screening test.

ANS: B

Cats testing negative for the feline immunodeficiency virus (FIV) before receiving the FIV vaccine will subsequently test positive on the antibody-based FIV screening test. This is because the screening test is unable to differentiate between antibodies formed secondary to the vaccine and antibodies formed secondary to the actual disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 252 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 26. The vaccine for which of the following canine viruses is not considered a core vaccine? a. Canine distemper virus b. Canine Adenovirus Type 2 c. Canine Parvovirus d. Canine Parainfluenza Virus ANS: D

Vaccines against the following viruses are considered to be core: Canine Distemper Virus, Canine Adenovirus Type 2, Canine Parvovirus, and rabies. The vaccine against Canine Parainfluenza Virus is considered to be noncore.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 252-253 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 27. The vaccine for which of the following feline viruses is not considered a core vaccine? a. Feline Coronavirus b. Feline Panleukopenia c. Feline herpesvirus type 1 d. Feline Calicivirus ANS: A

Vaccines against the following viruses are considered to be core: Feline Panleukopenia, Feline herpesvirus type 1, and feline Calicivirus. The vaccine against feline coronavirus is considered to be noncore.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 252-253 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 28. Vaccines provide protection from infection from a pathogen for a certain length of time. This

period is called the a. onset of immunity. b. duration of immunity. c. primary exposure. d. titer.

ANS: B

The duration of immunity is the length of time that an animal retains protective immunity against an infectious agent. Many, but not all, “infectious” vaccines provide for a longer duration of immunity than do “noninfectious” vaccine.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 247 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 29. How quickly would you expect to see signs of anaphylaxis in a dog vaccinated with an

“infectious” immunization? a. Day of injection b. Three days after injection c. One week after injection d. One month after injection ANS: A

Anaphylaxis, which is characterized by extreme respiratory difficulty and systemic hypersensitivity, most often occurs shortly after immunization. This life-threatening condition requires immediate attention and is often treated with injectable steroids, antihistamines or catecholamines.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 255-256 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects

ioE nS wTitB hA vaNcK ciS neE-L asL soEcR ia. teC dO saMrcoma development in certain 30. There is a historic associatT companion animals. Which animal is often linked with this condition? a. Dogs b. Cats c. Lizards d. Rabbits ANS: B

All vaccine-associated lesions should be noted in a patient’s medical record, although relatively few develop into dangerous cancerous lesions. Felines are most often implicated in vaccine-reaction sarcomas than other species, and thus injections are often performed on limbs instead of axial locations due to the potential for life-saving amputation should such a neoplasm develop.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 256 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 31. Why are tetanus toxoids administered annually to horses? a. A single year’s doses are not protective b. Clostridium readily mutate year-to-year c. The causative agent is ubiquitous in the soil d. Prebreeding boosters protect against equine abortion

ANS: C

The bacterium that produces the toxin that is responsible for clinical tetanus, Clostridium tetani, is readily found in the soil and environment. Annual boosters with the inactivated tetanus toxin (“toxoid”) prevents against disease with this commonly found bacteria.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 265 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 32. How often should a typical horse have its hooves trimmed? a. Weekly b. Every 3 to 4 weeks c. Every 6 to 8 weeks d. Twice a year ANS: C

The typical horse hoof grows at a rate of 1/4 inch per month, depending on the ground surface, exercise frequency, nutrition, and individual growth rates. Hooves should be trimmed every 6 to 8 weeks in order to maintain proper shape, balance, and movement. Keeping the hooves trimmed short and maintaining the correct hoof-pastern axis helps prevent excess stress on tendons and ligaments of the limb.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 268 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry/Grooming 33. Which of the following is true regarding vaccination against Bang’s disease in cattle? a. Cattle are marked with a green tag in their left ear after being vaccinated. b. This vaccine protects against a respiratory pathogen. c. This vaccine can be administered by a license veterinary technician. d. This vaccine is targeted for young heifers.

ANS: D

Bang’s disease (brucellosis) is caused by the bacterium Brucella abortus, and is an important potential cause of abortions and infertility in cattle. Only heifers less than 1 year of age can legally receive the vaccination, which is reported to the USDA. An orange tag and tattoo are placed in the animal’s right ear after the vaccine is administered.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 270 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 34. Why are cattle vaccines administered only in the neck region? a. Preferred site for a regional protective immune response b. Preserves carcass merit c. Ease of administration d. Preferable proximity to the jugular vein ANS: B

The Beef Quality Assurance (BQA) program recommends all vaccines given IM or SQ should be administered in the neck regions to decrease the trim loss that occurs due to vaccine-associated lesions that can arise after injection. There is no well-established immune-based value to administering the injections at this site compared to other injection sites.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 270 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 35. Which organism is commonly called the Barber-Pole Worm and can lead to serious anemia in

small ruminants? a. Haemonchus contortus b. Clostridium perfringens c. Ascarus lumbricoides d. Baylisascaris procyonis ANS: A

This worm is called the Barber-Pole Worm due to the visual appearance of a white and red helix that is comprised of the genital and gastrointestinal tracts, respectively, of these worms.

High Haemonchus loads lead to loss of blood due to the parasite’s ability to feed on host blood. Practitioners used the FAMACHA test to determine the level of anemia in an individual animal, and treat highly-burdened sheep accordingly.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 272 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a vaTriE etS yT ofBaA niN mK alSsE peL ciL esE .R | D.eC mO onMstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

Chapter 09: Companion Animal Nutrition Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Macronutrients can be used by the body to produce energy. They include all of the following

except a. proteins. b. vitamins. c. carbohydrates. d. fats.

ANS: B

Three types of nutrients, often referred to as macronutrients, can be used by the body for energy production: protein, fat, and carbohydrate.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 275 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 2. The nutrient used by the body to build tissues, hormones, and enzymes is a. proteins. b. vitamins. c. carbohydrates. d. lipids.

ANS: A

In the body, proteins are used as structural components of organs and tissues. They also function as enzymes, hormones, and carriers of other molecules (e.g., hemoglobin is a protein that transports oxygen to tissues) and can be a source of energy.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 276 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow)

must be consumed regularly because it cannot be stored in the body if

3.

in excess. a. Protein b. Vitamins c. Carbohydrate d. Fats ANS: A

Proteins can be synthesized in the body from amino acids and other compounds, but protein is not stored. Every day, protein is lost from the body through breakdown (catabolism), metabolic processes, and skin and hair loss, as well as in waste products. Animals therefore need to consume dietary protein regularly to make up for normal losses.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 276

TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 4. Cholesterol is formed in the body from which essential nutrient? a. Proteins b. Vitamins c. Carbohydrates d. Lipids ANS: D

Lipids, which consist in part of fats and oils, are simple to complex molecules with many functions, including providing and storing energy, making up cell membrane structure, acting as signaling agents and hormones, and forming other important compounds such as cholesterol.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 276 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 5. Which of the following cannot be synthesized in the bodies of dogs or cats? a. essential fatty acids b. protein c. nonessential amino acids d. vitamins ANS: A

Many fats and fatty acids can be synthesized in the body from building blocks, but several must be supplied in the diet; these are called essential fatty acids. Proteins can be synthesized in the body from amino acids and other compounds. Nonessential amino acids can be formed in the body if dietary intake is not adequate. Some vitamins can be synthesized in the body.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 277 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 6. Which hormones help in regulating blood glucose levels? a. Insulin and glycogen b. Insulin and glucagon c. Insulin and gluconeogenesis d. Insulin and glycolysis ANS: B

The hormones insulin and glucagon from the pancreas help regulate blood glucose levels to keep them within a normal range.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 277 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow)

7. Excess glucose is stored in the liver and muscle tissue as

, which can be quickly

metabolized when needed or converted to fat for long-term storage. a. glucagon b. simple sugars c. glycogen d. globulin ANS: C

Excess glucose is stored in the liver and muscle tissue as glycogen, which can be quickly metabolized when needed or converted to fat for long-term storage.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 277 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 8. Some types of fiber are fermented by bacteria in the large intestine. These are called a. insoluble fiber. b. soluble fiber. c. starch fiber. d. dietary fiber.

ANS: B

Fiber resists digestion by enzymes in the stomach and the small intestine. Some types of fiber are fermented by bacteria in the large intestine (often called soluble fiber), and other types pass into feces unchanged (insoluble fiber). Fiber is found in plant sources of food rather than in animal tissues.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 277 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 9. Vitamins which can accumulate to toxic levels in the body include all except a. vitamin A. b. B-vitamin. c. vitamin D. d. vitamin K. ANS: B

Fat-soluble (A, D, E, and K) and water-soluble (B and C) vitamins. Fat-soluble vitamins can be stored in the body and may accumulate to toxic levels.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 277 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 10. An animal that stops eating will become deficient in

the alternative group. a. A, D, E, and K

vitamins much sooner than

b. Vitamins E and K c. water-soluble d. Calcium ANS: C

The water-soluble vitamins (vitamins B and C) have limited storage capability and are excreted rapidly, whereas the fat-soluble vitamins (vitamins A, D, E, and K) can be stored in the body. An animal that stops eating will become deficient in water-soluble vitamins much sooner than fat-soluble vitamins.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 277 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 11. Minerals are classified as macrominerals vs. microminerals based on a. the size of their molecular structure. b. the size of the impact they have on the body. c. the size of the animal that needs them. d. the amount required in the diet.

ANS: D

Some are required in the diet in larger amounts (macrominerals) than others (microminerals).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 277 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy T anEdSnT utB rieAnN t rK eqSuE irL emLeE ntR s. ofCwOell M animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 12. All of the potential energy available in a food or diet is known as a. Net b. Metabolizable c. Digestible d. Gross

energy.

ANS: D

Gross energy (GE) is all of the potential energy available in a food or diet; it is measured by bomb calorimetry (burning the food to see how much heat is produced). Some energy is lost in feces, and subtracting fecal energy from GE results in digestible energy (DE). More energy is lost in urine and gases produced by the body, and subtracting that from DE results in metabolizable energy (ME). This is the most common estimate of the amount of energy available from pet foods, so ME is a good measure of what is available to the animal for body functions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 278 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 13. To determine the amount of energy present in pet food a. the Atwater factors are used just like for human food. b. the Atwater factors are cannot be used for pet food.

c. the Atwater factors have to be modified since pet food is more digestible than

human food. d. the Atwater factors have to be modified since pet food is less digestible than

human food.

ANS: D

A vast majority of commercial pet foods use an estimate of energy content rather than a direct measurement. The typical method is to use modified Atwater factors, which assign energy (caloric) content to the three macronutrients (protein, fat, carbohydrate). Because commercial pet food is considered less digestible than foods sold for human consumption, modified Atwater factors are used instead.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 279 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 14. When estimating how much to feed a hospitalized adult animal patient you should calculate a. the maintenance energy requirement (MER). b. the resting energy requirement (RER). c. the daily energy requirement (DER). d. the energy expenditure (EE).

ANS: B

The resting energy requirement (RER) kilocalories per day is often used for estimating how much to feed a hospitalized patient.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 2S7T 9 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 15. The amino acid Taurine is important to consider when reviewing a pets diet because a. it is required in the diet for cats but not for dogs. b. it is required in the diet for dogs but not for cats. c. it is an essential amino acid for both dogs and cats. d. it can be synthesized in the body of both dogs and cats.

ANS: A

Taurine is unique in that it is required in the diet for cats but not for dogs, because healthy dogs are able to synthesize taurine from other amino acids.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 280 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 16. When comparing pet food to each other, care must be taken to always compare “like”

measurements. Which is not a measure of nutrient percentage in pet food? a. As fed b. Dry matter c. Gross matter

d. Metabolizable energy ANS: C

Percentages of protein, fat, carbohydrate, and other nutrients may be expressed on an “as fed,” “dry matter,” or “metabolizable energy” basis. These values are not interchangeable.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 281 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 17. Diets that are excessive in protein a. allow the body to store up excess protein for later needs. b. allow the body to use some of the excess protein as energy. c. are usually much are more palatable to the pet. d. help keep the cost of the pet food down.

ANS: B

Whenever excess protein over requirements is fed to dogs and cats, it is not stored for later use and does not seem to have a health benefit. Instead, it is simply used to provide energy.

Because protein is an expensive component of pet food, this leads to higher costs for pet owners, and very-high-protein products are usually not as palatable. As a general rule, pet foods for adult dogs should contain less than 40% crude protein and for adult cats less than 50% crude protein on a dry matter basis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 281 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 18. Dogs and cats do not have the same fat metabolism or tendency to get atherosclerosis as

people, so there is no risk associated with feeding them a. unsaturated b. saturated c. fats with double bonds d. Short-chain fatty acids

(animal origin) fats.

ANS: B

The degree of saturation for each fatty acid is important in human nutrition but less so for dogs and cats (i.e., saturated, monounsaturated, polyunsaturated) is. People should avoid excessive dietary saturated fat because it increases the risk of cardiovascular disease and stroke. Dogs and cats do not have the same fat metabolism or tendency to get atherosclerosis, so no risk is associated with feeding saturated (animal origin) fats.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 282 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 19. It is important that cats be fed foods with animal proteins since a. omega-3 fatty acids b. linoleic acid

is essential for cats.

c. arachidonic acid d. polyunsaturated fatty acids ANS: C

Many fats and fatty acids can be synthesized in the body from building blocks, but several must be supplied in the diet. These are called essential fatty acids, and arachidonic acid, an essential fatty acid for cats, is found only in foods of animal origin. A deficiency of arachidonic acid can lead to impaired reproduction and growth.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 278|p. 282 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 20. A condition called pansteatitis (“yellow fat disease”) in animals results from a. a vegetarian diet in cats. b. excess dietary fat and deficient antioxidants. c. excessively high protein pet foods d. A low-quality protein diet lacking sufficient quantities of one or more amino acids.

ANS: B

A condition called pansteatitis (“yellow fat disease”) in animals results from excess dietary fat and deficient antioxidants.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 282 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand key nutritional factors in disease conditions 21. The primary function of a. water b. vitamins c. proteins d. carbohydrates

is to supply energy.

ANS: D

Their main function of carbohydrates is to supply energy because they are easily converted to glucose, and can also supply body heat and serve as structures for other nutrients. Excess carbohydrates are converted to fat for long-term storage.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 281-282 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 22. The guaranteed analysis found on pet food labels does not reflect

content. a. total dietary energy b. total dietary protein c. total dietary fiber d. total dietary water

ANS: C

The guaranteed analysis found on pet food labels does not reflect total dietary fiber content because the assays used are not accurate for detecting all fiber types.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 282 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow)

can be measured in international units (IU) or retinol equivalents

23.

(RE). a. Linoleic acid b. Saturated fats c. Vitamin A d. Cholesterol ANS: C

Vitamin A in the diet can be measured in international units (IU) or retinol equivalents (RE).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 283 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 24. Vitamin D is a necessary vitamin in the diet of

because they cannot use sunlight to convert the provitamin D (7-dehydrocholesterol) found in the skin to the active form. a. dogs and cats b. horses and sheep c. guinea pigs d. nonhuman primates ANS: A

Vitamin D is a necessary vitamin in the diet of dogs and cats because they cannot use sunlight to convert provitamin D (7-dehydrocholesterol) found in the skin to the active form (unlike humans and many other mammals).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 284 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 25. Vitamin

foods. a. b. c. d.

A B

D E

ANS: D

has antioxidant activity which makes it useful as a preservative in pet

Vitamin E is the general name for a group of compounds called tocol and tocotrienol derivatives, with alpha-tocopherol being the most active form. The main function is antioxidant activity, meaning that it helps protect against cell damage by reactive oxygen and other free radicals. This property of vitamin E makes it useful as a preservative in pet foods. A deficiency of dietary vitamin E leads to muscle disease, poor reproduction, and retinal degeneration. In cats, a condition called steatitis (yellow fat disease) can occur when oily fish is fed exclusively.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 284 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 26. Deficiency of

results in anemia (microcytic hypochromic), weakness, and poor growth; excess amounts can be toxic and may cause gastrointestinal signs and death. a. calcium b. phosphorus c. iron d. vitamin K ANS: C

Deficiency of iron results in anemia (microcytic hypochromic), weakness, and poor growth; excess amounts can be toxic and may cause gastrointestinal signs and death.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 286 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand key nutritional faT ctE orSs T inBdA isN eaK seScE onLdL itiE onRs.COM 27. AAFCO, the Association of American Feed Control Officials is a. a branch of the USDA. b. regulated by APHIS. c. a branch of the FDA. d. a private, nongovernmental organization.

ANS: D

The Association of American Feed Control Officials (AAFCO) is a private, nongovernmental organization that does not have regulatory or enforcement power. However, many members of AAFCO are employed by federal and state governments as feed control officials. The organization develops definitions of feed ingredients, wording that is used on pet food labels, protocols for feeding studies, and other guidelines and standards that often become laws or official regulations after adoption by governmental agencies.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 291 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 28. All of the following are characteristics of vitamins except one. Which is not associated with a

vitamin? a. They are inorganic molecules

b. They maintain metabolic processes c. They can be synthesized by animals d. Requirements are species-specific ANS: A

Vitamins are organic molecules found in plants and animals. Although many animals synthesize appropriate levels of most vitamins, certain species are known to risk deficiency if supplementation is not provided. An example is the guinea pig, which requires supplemental vitamin C while common companion species such as the dog and cat do not.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 277 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 29. When discussing energy in rations, capitalization is important. Which of the following

contains the most energy: a kilocalorie or a Calorie? a. Calorie is larger b. Kilocalorie is larger c. They are equivalent d. There is no such thing as a kilocalorie ANS: C

The terms kilocalorie (kcal) and Calorie (capital “C”) all represent 1000 calories. Kilocalories are used to describe the energy contained in a foodstuff. A single calorie is far too small to have any reasonable application in veterinary nutrition.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 2S7T 8 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 30. This term describes the number of kilocalories that are contained per unit of food. a. Food quotient b. Feed efficiency c. Ration d. Energy density ANS: D

The energy density of a food is the amount of energy present in a standard amount of the food, and allows for the comparison of the Calories present in different foods. This value is often calculated as kcal of energy per kilogram of food. Knowing the energy density allows for feeding excessive Calories to animals that are underweight, or conversely feeding less energy-rich food to obese pets.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 279 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 31. Which is true regarding prescription pet diets? a. Since they are food, they do not require a valid VCPR

b. They include medications such as antibiotics c. They are worthless in most situations d. They are not technically “prescription” items such as pharmaceuticals ANS: D

Prescription diets (a.k.a. therapeutic diets) are only available at veterinary clinics or from online vendors with a veterinary prescription, although they are not considered in the same class as pharmaceuticals such as medication like antibiotics. Although many pet food manufacturers supply prescription diets, it can often be very unclear how prescription diets and over-the-counter diets differ in certain cases.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 290 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 32. Which governmental organization is responsible for the regulation of pet food? a. USDA b. FDA c. NIH d. EPA ANS: B

The FDA (Food and Drug Administration) regulates both human and animal foods, and the veterinary side is overseen by its Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM). The CVM regulates not only what the labels placed on foodstuffs states, but also that the food and snacks are safe for animal consumption.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 291 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 33. If a product name states that a dog treat is made of chicken (with no additional descriptor),

what minimum percentage of the treat must be chicken? a. 10% b. 45% c. 70% d. 100% ANS: C

For a product to be placed on the product name, the product must be at least 70% (by weight) that component. In this example, if “Chicken” is in the product name, at least 70% of the food must be chicken. If a “descriptor” such as “recipe” is used in the name, at least 10% of the food must be that product.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 292 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow)

34. Which of the following are guaranteed to contain some preservatives? a. Dry kibble b. Canned moist food c. Raw diet d. All foods must contain some preservatives ANS: A

In order for a dry food to maintain a reasonable shelf life, some preservatives must be added to the food. Canned foods can be heat sterilized, and coupled with their air-tight seal do not require additional preservatives to maintain their long useful life in the can. Raw diets are fed without added preservatives in order to deliver nutrient in their native state.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 295 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand current developments in nutritional supplements and additives including benefits and potential toxicities 35. Colostrum is considered rich in many vital compounds. Which of the following is not found in

high amounts in colostrum compared to regularly secreted milk? a. Immunoglobulins b. Minerals such as iron c. Protein d. Lactose ANS: D

Colostrum contains comparably low levels of lactose versus the amounts found in “milk.” As colostrum transitions to miTlkEaSftT erBsA evNeK raSl E daLyL sE poRs. tpC arOtuMm, the lactose component increases while the other vital components in colostrum (such as antibodies, minerals, and protein) decrease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 298 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow)

Chapter 10: Large Animal Nutrition Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

is often identified as the most expensive element in achieving full productivity and profitability in livestock production. a. Genetic seed stock b. Housing c. Optimal nutrition d. Veterinary care ANS: C

Optimal nutrition has often been identified as the most expensive element in achieving full productivity and profitability in livestock.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 319 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 2. MNRs a. stands for Maintenance nutrient requirements. b. is the maximum level dietary need. c. is usually larger than the published requirements. d. A and B are correct.

ANS: A

Maintenance nutrient requirements (MNRs) are the levels of nutrients needed to sustain body weight without gain or loss. The MNR is the minimum level of dietary need; usually a vast percentage of published requirements are higher than this standard.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 319 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 3. The most widely used feeding standards in the United States are those published by the a. USDA. b. APHIS. c. NRC. d. FDA. ANS: C

The most widely used feeding standards in the United States are those published by the National Research Council (NRC), and they are established for beef cattle, dairy cattle, sheep, goats, swine, poultry, and horses.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 319 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition:

Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow)

is the process of protein, carbohydrate, and fat breakdown into

4.

absorbable nutrients. a. Mastication b. Digestion c. Absorption d. Biologic value ANS: B

Digestion (the process of protein, carbohydrate, and fat breakdown into absorbable nutrients) is accomplished by chemical, enzymatic, microbial, and physical methods.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 319 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 5.

is the principal constituent of organs and soft tissues. It is constructed of building blocks called amino acids that are linked together in a chain. a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Fat d. Vitamin ANS: A

Protein is the principal constituent of organs and soft tissues. It is constructed of building blocks called amino acids T thE atSaT reBlA inN keKdStE ogLeL thE erRi. nC aO chMain.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 319 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 6.

amino acids must be supplied in the diet because the body of the animal cannot synthesize them fast enough to meet requirements. a. Nonessential b. Essential c. Dietary d. Nondietary ANS: B

Essential amino acids must be supplied in the diet because the body of the animal cannot synthesize them fast enough to meet requirements.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 319|p. 321 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 7. Protein biological value is

.

a. b. c. d.

the protein content of a feed the amino acid make-up of the protein the amount of protein absorbed from the diet the percentage of true absorbed protein that is available for productive body functions

ANS: D

Protein biological value is the percentage of true absorbed protein that is available for productive body functions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 8. Proteins from which source have higher biologic values in general? a. Plant stems and roots b. Plant leaves and seeds c. Animal by-products d. Animal tissue sources ANS: D

Proteins of animal origin have greater biological value than do proteins of plant origin. The higher the biological value, the better the protein used for productive purposes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 9. Rumen microbes improve the quality of a. high quality fats. b. high quality proteins. c. poor quality feeds. d. They do not affect the quality of dietary protein.

ANS: C

The protein quality from moderate to poor feed will usually be improved by rumen metabolism, whereas the opposite may occur with high quality protein feed. Rumen microbes also have the ability to convert nonprotein nitrogen sources into microbial protein.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 10. Use of animal protein sources derived from ruminant species is not allowed in ruminant (i.e.,

cattle and sheep) rations to prevent the possible transmission of a. hoof and mouth disease. b. bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE). c. rabies. d. Johnne’s disease.

ANS: B

Use of animal protein sources derived from ruminant species is not allowed in ruminant (i.e., cattle and sheep) rations to prevent the possible transmission of bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand and identify substances that when ingested result in toxicity 11. Fat has a. 1 b. 2 c. 2.25 d. 2.5

times more energy per gram than protein or carbohydrate.

ANS: C

Fat has 2.25 times more energy per gram than protein or carbohydrate.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 12. Fats aid in the absorption of which fat-soluble vitamins? a. B and C b. A and B c. A, D, E, and K d. A, B, C, D, and K ANS: C

Fats aid in the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins A, D, E, and K. PTS: 1 REF: p. 322|p. 337 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 13.

are the primary energy source in livestock rations. They are less expensive and more readily available than other nutrients. a. Protein b. Fats c. Carbohydrates d. Vitamins ANS: C

Carbohydrates are the primary energy source in livestock rations. They are less expensive and more readily available than protein or fat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 14. Carbohydrates must be broken down into

before they can be absorbed in

the intestine. a. free fatty acids and glycerol b. amino acids c. polysaccharides d. simple sugars ANS: D

Carbohydrates must be broken down into simple sugars such as glucose before they can be absorbed in the intestine.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 15. Carbohydrate-splitting enzymes that are effective in splitting apart structural polysaccharides

such as cellulose (fiber) a. are made by some mammalian digestive tracts. b. are made by some microflora. c. are ingested by some mammals. d. none of the above are correct.

ANS: B

Carbohydrate catabolism rT eqEuS irT esBdA igNeK stiSvE eL enLzE ym Re.sCthOaMt are generated by the host or by microflora that live in the animal’s digestive system. These carbohydrate-splitting enzymes are effective in splitting some carbohydrates into simple sugars but are less successful in splitting apart structural polysaccharides such as cellulose (fiber). Fortunately, microbes in the rumen and in the cecum of some nonruminants, such as horses and rabbits, produce an enzyme that breaks down fiber (fermentable carbohydrates).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 16. Carbohydrates in animal feed are commonly categorized as roughage or as concentrates.

Concentrates include a. grains. b. grass. c. hays. d. legumes.

ANS: A

Carbohydrates in animal feed are commonly categorized as concentrates, such as grains, and as high-starch compounds or roughage, such as grass, hays, and legumes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 17. Carbohydrates in animal feed are commonly categorized as roughage or as concentrates.

Which of the following is not considered a roughage? a. corn cobs b. straw c. plant stalks d. grains ANS: D

Corn cobs, straw, and plant stalks are considered to be low-grade roughage. Grains are categorized as concentrates.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 330 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow)

is a general measure of the nutritive value of a feed.

18. a. b. c. d.

TDN GE DE ME

ANS: A

TDN (total digestible nutrients) is a general measure of the nutritive value of a feed.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 19. The usefulness of TDN as a measure of feed energy is limited because it does not take into

account energy losses in a. urine, combustible gases, and heat. b. in the form of undigested food residue in the feces. c. the energy that is not used with 100% efficiency d. it accounts for all of the above.

ANS: A

The usefulness of total digestible nutrients (TDN) as a measure of feed energy is limited in that it does not take into account energy losses in urine, combustible gases, and heat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 20.

represents the actual portion of energy available to the animal for use in maintaining body tissues or during pregnancy or lactation. a. GE

b. DE c. ME d. NE ANS: D

Net energy (NE) represents the actual portion of energy available to the animal for use in maintaining body tissues or during pregnancy or lactation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow)

animals have a lower percentage of their body weight from water.

21. a. b. c. d.

Neonatal Young Growing Mature

ANS: D

Water accounts for 65% to 85% of an animal’s body weight at birth and 45% to 60% of body weight at maturity.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow)

TESTBANKSELLER.COMhas the advantage of having each bite

22. The Dairy ration feeding program known as

containing all of the required balanced nutrients needed for production. a. TDN b. TMR c. BV d. MNR ANS: B

The total mixed ration (TMR) feeding program used in the dairy industry involves weighing and blending all feedstuffs into a complete ration. Each bite consumed by the cow contains all of the required balance of nutrients.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 327 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 23. If cows are allowed to consume all the forage they want, they will a. be able to meet their nutrient needs for peak lactation and production. b. be able to reach optimal production standards. c. not have sufficient rumen capacity to consume enough concentrate to meet the

energy requirements for lactation. d. fill their rumen completely and not need concentrate in their diet.

ANS: C

If cows are allowed to consume all the forage they want, they will not have sufficient rumen capacity to consume enough concentrate to meet the energy requirements for lactation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 329 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 24. Nonprotein nitrogen supplied as

can be an effective feedstuff to supply protein

equivalents in dairy rations. a. roughage b. concentrate c. urea d. TMR ANS: C

Nonprotein nitrogen supplied as urea can be an effective feedstuff to supply protein equivalents in dairy rations.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 329 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 25. Rumen microorganisms can synthesize water-soluble vitamins, whereas vitamin

is the

only fat-soluble vitamin readily synthesized by microorganisms. a. b. c. d.

Ba A D K

ANS: D PTS: 1 REF: p. 329 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 26. Newborn calves require the mother’s

within the first 72 hours of life to acquire

energy and maternal immunity from disease. a. cholesterol b. colostrum c. glycogen d. glucagon ANS: B

Newborn calves require the mother’s colostrum within the first 72 hours of life to acquire energy and maternal immunity from disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 329 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow)

27. With cattle, supplemental vitamin A, D, and E should be provided when

is

used as a major source of energy in wintering rations. a. Alfalfa hay b. Short-stored hay c. High-grade roughage d. Corn cobs or cornstalks ANS: D

Supplemental vitamin A, D, and E should be provided when low-grade roughage or long-stored hays are used as a major source of energy in wintering rations.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 331 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 28. Pigs are commonly weaned at a. 3 to 5 b. 5 to 7 c. 8 to 10 d. 12 to 14

weeks of age.

ANS: A

Pigs are commonly weaned at 3 to 5 weeks of age PTS: 1 REF: p. 337 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 29. Sow’s milk is virtually devoid of a. Calcium b. Phosphorus c. Iron d. Vitamin A

.

ANS: C

Sow’s milk is virtually devoid of iron, and anemia of nursing pigs will occur unless they are supplemented with another source of iron.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 337 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 30. Which of the following are least likely to search nutrition consultations from a large-animal

veterinary technician? a. Hobby farmer b. Child raising an animal for 4H c. Large corporation beef feedlot d. Small dairy farm with less than 50 cows ANS: C

Most large-scale farmers will have a skilled nutritionist working to balance their rations in order to grow the most livestock as effectively as possible. It is unlikely that they will search out input from outside sources. On the other hand, smaller operations and farmers raising individual animals will benefit greatly by working with a technician that has a strong understanding of livestock nutrition.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 330 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 31. Beef cattle are dependent on a proper ration in order to maximize their growth rates. Therefore

feeding beef cattle is the primary cost for raising beef cattle. Which of the following represents the feeding cost as a percentage of the total cost of raising cattle? a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90% ANS: C

Almost three-fourths of the cost to raise beef cattle is tied up in feed costs. In order to be profitable, cattle raisers must constantly modify and balance their cattle rations to allow for the most growth using the least costly feedstuffs possible.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 330 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy T anEdSnT utB rieAnN t rK eqSuE irL emLeE ntR s. ofCwOeM ll animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 32. Which of the following nutrients accounts for the majority of the energy density on a

dry-matter basis in the forage and grains fed to dairy cattle? a. Proteins b. Carbohydrates c. Fats d. Alcohols ANS: B

Carbohydrates make up the majority (50% to 80%) of the energy ingested daily in a bovine.

Ruminants get a large amount of their carbohydrates from forages and grains.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 327 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 33. When finishing beef cattle, how much daily feed (on a dry-weight basis) would be appropriate

for a 1000-lb pound animal? a. 80 to 100 pounds b. 60 to 70 pounds c. 40 to 50 pounds d. 20 to 30 pounds

ANS: D

When finishing beef cattle, high-energy diets are used to increase weight gain, improve carcass characteristics, and decrease the cost of energy (as compared with diets high in fiber).

Total dry-feed intake commonly will be 2% to 3% of the animal’s body weight. The goal of the finishing feeding program is to maintain a maximum feed intake and weight gain without causing digestive upsets.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 331 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 34. What is the component that is implicated in lambing paralysis in an ewe? a. Carbohydrates b. Bacterial toxins c. Selenium d. Calcium ANS: A

A common problem attributed to poor nutrition in ewes is lambing paralysis, or ketosis.

Feeding inadequate forage along with little or no grain during the last trimester of pregnancy in ewes carrying twins or triplets can create a deficiency of usable carbohydrates; this can lead to paralysis and coma in the ewe.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 333 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy T anEdSnT utB rieAnN t rK eqSuE irL emLeE ntR s. ofCwOeM ll animals (dog, cat, horse, cow) 35. Which amino acid is usually considered “limiting” in a pig’s diet? a. Threonine b. Methionine c. Tryptophan d. Lysine ANS: D

Swine rations are entirely focused on producing the most lean-muscle mass per unit of feed as possible. Muscle is primarily protein, which is made of small components called amino acids.

By matching amino acid intake to desired rate of gain, producers can ensure effective feeding practices that result in the desired growth characteristics.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 337 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition: Understand life stage energy and nutrient requirements of well animals (dog, cat, horse, cow)

Chapter 11: Animal Reproduction Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Theriogenology is the study of a. avian species. b. genetic transfer between microbes of the genus Therios. c. domestic animal reproduction. d. elderly species encountered in veterinary medicine.

ANS: C

Theriogenology is the study of the reproductive behaviors of species of animals. The scientific basis of this veterinary specialty is the understanding of similarities and differences between the multiple species encountered in the field of veterinary medicine.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 345 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 2. Which of the following is not directly involved in hormonal regulation of female

reproduction? a. The female genitalia b. Hypothalamus c. Pituitary gland d. The pancreas ANS: D

In addition, the pineal, thyroid and adrenal glands produce hormones that are important in reproductive coordination in the female animal.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 345 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 3. The term estrus refers to a. the reproductive cycle. b. the period of sexual receptivity and ovulation. c. the period immediately after ovulation. d. the scientific term for pregnancy.

ANS: B

Estrus refers to the period of time where a female is capable of becoming pregnant due to ovulation. Estrous is an adjective that describes the characteristic phases of an animal’s reproductive cycle. Estrous consists of multiple phases, including estrus which indicates sexual receptivity for copulation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 345 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 4. Which is the correct order of hormone release related to follicle development? a. GnRH to FSH to estrogen b. Estrogen to GnRH to FSH c. LH to estrogen to GnRH d. FSH to GnRH to LH ANS: A

Gondaotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) is released from the hypothalamus and causes the anterior pituitary gland to release Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH), which is the direct stimulator of follicular development. Primary follicles secrete estrogen as they grow and mature, which eventually results in the GnRH-mediated release of Luteinizing Hormone (LH) from the anterior pituitary gland and subsequent ovulation. After ovulation, LH causes the follicle to convert into a corpus luteum, which releases progesterone as the hormone to preserve any pregnancy that occurs with that ovulation.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 345-346 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 5. Which hormone is produced by the corpus luteum with the responsibility to maintain a

pregnancy? a. GnRH b. FSH c. LH d. Progesterone ANS: D

Progesterone is produced after ovulation by a structure called the corpus luteum. In the absence of a true pregnancy the corpus luteum will regress and the progesterone level in the body will decline, causing many domestic animals to prepare for a subsequent estrus.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 345-346 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 6. Early in development, the embryo consists of three distinct layers. Which layer becomes the

fetal muscles? a. Endoderm b. Mesoderm c. Ectoderm d. Placenta ANS: B

The Ectoderm is the outermost layer and becomes the hair, skin, and nervous system. The innermost layer, which transforms into the intestine, liver, and lungs, is the endoderm. In between lies the mesoderm, which in addition to muscle becomes the skeletal, cardiovascular, and reproductive tissues. The placenta results from the cells that are separate from these three layers, and actually exist outside of all three.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 347 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 7. Which type of placental organization and attachment profile is characterized by the presence

of placentomes? a. Diffuse b. Zonary c. Cotyledonary d. Discoid ANS: C

A cotyledonary placenta consists of fetal (cotyledon) and maternal (caruncle) connection components. A diffuse placentation has evenly interspersed connections, while connections that are either band or disc shaped are termed zonary or discoid, respectively.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 348 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 8. Which of the following is true regarding a cryptorchid male? a. They will exhibit female characteristics. b. They are typically subdued similarly to a castrated male. c. They are infertile if neither testicle descends. d. If only one testicle is retained, the hidden testicle is less likely to develop

neoplasms than the one that has descended.

ANS: C

Cryptorchid males with neither testicle descended are infertile. However, they have normal testosterone levels and secondary sex characteristics. Retained testicles apparently develop cancer at a rate higher than their descended counterparts.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 348 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 9. Which of the following is the correct order of the estrous phases in the bitch? a. Proestrus to Estrus to Anestrus to Diestrus b. Estrus to Proestrus to Diestrus to Anestrus c. Proestrus to Estrus to Diestrus to Anestrus d. Estrus to Anestrus to Proestrus to Diestrus ANS: C

These four stages occur during the canine estrous cycle, which on average lasts from 6 to 7 months. Anestrus, the period of noncyclicity and sexually reluctance, is the longest cycle and ends when GnRH levels begin to increase in efforts to begin a new estrous cycle.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 350-351|p. 353 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 10. What is the significance of the bloody uterine discharge exhibited by a breeding-age dog? a. Indicates ovulation has past and breeding must wait until the next cycle b. Indicates trauma due to copulation c. Represents an aborted fetus d. Indicates the beginning of a new reproductive cycle ANS: D

The serosanguinous uterine discharge is due to vascular engorgement and slight hemorrhage of the uterine environment in order to prepare the tissues for ovulation and possible pregnancy. This period is historically linked to the beginning of proestrus, and serves as a valuable tool to indicate impending ovulation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 350 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 11. All of the following are typTiE caS lT beBhA avNioKrS s eExL hiLbE iteRd.bCyOaMbitch in estrus except one. Which of

the following is not typical? a. Standing to allow for breeding by a male b. Lifting of the tail c. Locking to the male (“tie”) overnight d. Behaving friendly to a present male ANS: C

During active estrus, the female dog will interact with her male counterpart, exhibiting friendly behaviors and signaling to the male her receptivity to be bred. The tie, which physically connects the two breeding canines while copulation occurs, can last for up to 30 to 60 minutes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 354 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 12. What is the earliest time at which pregnancy in a bred dog can typically be diagnosed? a. 1 week b. 3 weeks c. 5 weeks d. 7 weeks ANS: B

Pregnancy examination by palpation is possible in most bitches at 21 to 30 days of gestation.

Pregnancies can be imaged via ultrasound from 21 to 28 days of age up until the typical whelping date of 60 days past breeding.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 354 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 13. Which of the following would be a strong indication of dystocia in a dog? a. Ten minutes without the delivery of a puppy after the first. b. Restless behavior exhibited by the bitch during Stage I. c. An abrupt temperature drop of 2 F. d. Absence of parturition progression after 45 minutes of strong contractions.

ANS: D

A difficult birthing, often due to fetus malposition or overly large pups. Is often detected by the lack of progression to deliver pups even with the presence of strong uterine contractions.

Veterinary professionals should be alerted if a true dystocia is suspected.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 355 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 14. Which stage of bovine parturition involves the relaxation and dilation of the cervix resulting

in oxytocin release, resulting in further cervical lumen expansion? a. Stage I b. State II c. Stage III d. Stage IV ANS: A

There are three stages involved in bovine parturition. Stage I involves the relaxation and dilation of the cervix in preparation for fetal expulsion. Stage II is active parturition, where the calf or calves is delivered. This is followed by Stage III, which involves the expulsion of the placenta.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 360 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 15. Sheep and goats can undergo multiple ovulations during the fall and winter months. This type

of estrous cycle is classified as a. anestrus b. seasonally polyestrous c. polyestrous d. monoestrus ANS: B

Many breeds of small ruminants ovulate during the months where the daylight hours become shorter. In the northern hemisphere, these months are during the fall and winter. There are other animals that are seasonally polyestrous, such as cats. However, they are seasonal in the spring when the days begin to get longer. Dogs on the other hand typically go into heat twice a year, with no true seasonal variation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 361 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 16. In sheep production, the term

means feeding a higher level of nutrition, before breeding, thereby increasing the number of oocytes and the chances for multiple births. a. over conditioning b. flushing c. cycling d. polyestrous ANS: B

Flushing, feeding a higher level of nutrition, before breeding increases the number of oocytes and results in more multiple births.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 361 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques

teE roS neTsBpA onNgKeS s oErLLER.COM 17. Use of intravaginal progesT

(CIDR) inserts, allow estrus

synchronization. What does CIDR stand for? a. central inserted drug release b. controlled intravaginal dam reproduction c. controlled internal drug release d. contained internal dosage for reproduction ANS: C

Use of intravaginal progesterone sponges or controlled internal drug release (CIDR) inserts, allow estrus synchronization.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 360|p. 362 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques

causes the release of luteinizing hormone from the pituitary gland in camelid

18.

species. a. High levels of estrogen b. Circadian rhythms c. Copulation d. Flehmen response ANS: C

Ovulation is induced by copulation in camelids.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 362 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 19. Neonatal llamas are called a. crias b. kits c. foals d. lambs

.

ANS: A

Immature llamas are called crias.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 362 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 20. During a BSE, breeding soundness examination, semen is evaluated for all of the following

characteristics except a. volume. b. weight. c. motility. d. morphology.

ANS: B

Semen is examined first for motility. Morphologic examination is performed. The volume of the ejaculate should be measured.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 364 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 21. Rapid forward progressive movement of sperm in a semen evaluation indicates excellent

motility. A finding of a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 70%

or more of progressively motile sperm is desirable.

ANS: D

Rapid forward progressive movement indicates excellent motility. A finding of 70% or more of progressively motile sperm is desirable.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 364 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques

22. When preparing a mare for a reproductive examination extreme care must be taken so that

contamination of the reproductive track does not occur. This is accomplished by having a “clean” hand and a “dirty” hand, in which case a. only the clean hand should be touching the animal. b. the clean hand should be taking scrub materials from the clean bucket. c. most of the “work” should be done by the clean hand. d. used scrub materials are transferred into the dirty hand by the clean hand prior to disposal ANS: B

Care should be taken to avoid contaminating the wash water with soap or dirt from the mare.

To accomplish this, the assistant designates one hand as the “clean” hand, to take the soaking cotton from the bucket. Then the clean cotton is transferred to the “dirty” hand, soap is applied to the cotton, and the scrub carried out. Because most of the work is done by the “dirty” hand, the dominant hand is usually “dirty.” Only the clean hand takes clean cotton from the clean bucket. Once cotton is used, it is thrown to the ground. This system reduces contamination.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 365 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 23. Uterine biopsies involve taking a biopsy from the lining of the uterus called the a. ectometrium. b. endometrium. c. myometrium. d. intermetrium.

ANS: B

Although referred to as a uterine biopsy, it is really a biopsy of the endometrium or lining of the uterus.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 365 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 24. In male reproduction, pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) causes

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) to be released from the anterior pituitary. FSH causes a. testosterone production. b. secondary sexual characteristics to develop. c. increased sperm growth, and maturation. d. the release of GnRH. ANS: C

Pulsatile gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) causes follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) to be released from the anterior pituitary. FSH causes increased sperm growth, maturation, and release.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 349 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 25.

make up the fetal half of the bovine placenta and interlock with the maternal half to provide a path (placentome) between the cow and the fetus for the transfer of nutrients. a. Caruncles b. Cotyledons c. Chorions d. Cambriae ANS: B

Cotyledons make up the fetal half of the bovine placenta and interlock with caruncles on the maternal half to provide a path (placentome) between the cow and the fetus for the transfer of nutrients.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 361 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 26. The hormone

is important in the regulation of seasonal and diurnal rhythms including the seasonal breeding cycles of long and short day breeders such as cats, sheep, goats and horse. a. Serotonin b. Luetlayse c. GnRH d. Melatonin ANS: D

Melatonin is important in the regulation of seasonal and diurnal rhythms including the seasonal breeding cycles of cats, sheep, goats and horse. The pineal gland produces melatonin, which is secreted in response to the dark and inhibited by light.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 345 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 27. The hormone

helps prepare and maintain the uterus for implantation of

the zygote. a. FSH b. LH c. Progesterone d. Prolactin ANS: C

Progesterone helps prepare the uterus for implantation of the zygote.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 345-346 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques

28. Fertilization, which involves penetration of the ovum by a single sperm, occurs in the a. b. c. d.

(fallopian tube). uterine horns last part of the oviduct cervix uterine body

ANS: B

Fertilization, which involves penetration of the ovum (mature oocyte) by a single sperm, occurs in the last part of the oviduct (fallopian tube).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 347 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 29. A placental attachment is classified as zonary if the area of contact takes the form of a band or

ring around the fetus. Zonary placentation occurs in which species? a. Dog b. Horse c. Cow d. Sheep ANS: A

The placental attachment is zonary if the area of contact takes the form of a band or ring around the fetus. This type of placenta occurs in dogs and cats.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 347-348 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 30. The term

refers to two or more sires causing a single gestation. This is common in species such as dogs that have litters. a. polyparental b. superfetation c. superfecundation d. polyspermatic ANS: C

Superfecundation refers to two or more sires causing a single gestation. This is common in species such as dogs that have litters.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 348 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 31. Which of the following does not represent a male accessory sex gland? a. Prostate gland b. Bulbourethral gland

c. Ampulla d. Pineal gland ANS: D

The male accessory sex glands are the prostate, bulbourethral gland, ampulla, and vesicular glands.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 348 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 32. The location of the testicles within the scrotum a. maintains the testicles 1 to 2 degrees warmer than the body core. b. maintains the testicles 1 to 2 degrees cooler than the body core. c. provides better blood flow than the body core. d. provides than the body core.

ANS: B

The external location of the testicles within the scrotum maintains the testicles 1 to 2 degrees cooler than the body core.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 348 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 33. Interstitial (also called

) cells, located in the spaces between tubules within the

testes, continually produceTteEsS toT stB erAoN neK. SELLER.COM a. b. c. d.

Sertoli cells interstitial cell masses Leydig cells Islets of Langerhans

ANS: C

The Sertoli cells completely surround the developing sperm cells isolating them from the immune system which might consider them as foreign and destroy the developing sperm.

Interstitial (Leydig) cells, located in the spaces between tubules, continually produce testosterone.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 348 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 34. Spermatogenesis is completed within the testicles, but the sperm are not mature until they pass a. out with the ejaculate. b. into the female reproductive tract. c. through the epididymis. d. through the prostate gland.

ANS: C

Spermatogenesis is completed within the testicles, but sperm are not mature until they pass through the epididymis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 349 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 35. During sexual stimulation,

innervation causes increased blood flow

into the cavernous portions of the penis. a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic c. CNS d. somatic ANS: B

During sexual stimulation, parasympathetic innervation causes increased blood flow into the cavernous portions of the penis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 350 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 36. Under the influence of increasing estrogen, the endometrium (uterine lining) becomes a. hypoactive and “quiet.” b. highly vascularized and engorged with blood. c. involuted. d. non cornified epithelial cells.

ANS: B

Under the influence of increasing estrogen, the endometrium (uterine lining) becomes highly vascularized and engorged with blood.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 350 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 37. Gestation in the a. bitch b. ewe c. doe d. heifer

lasts approximately 60 days from fertilization.

ANS: A

Gestation in the bitch lasts approximately 60 days from fertilization.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 354 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques

38. Body temperature drops 1 to 3 degrees to 37.2° C (99° F) about 24 hours before Stage II of

labor in about 85% of bitches. This temperature drop is related to a. calming effects of the hormone relaxin. b. decreased activity of the bitch. c. the abrupt decrease in progesterone. d. delivery of the placenta.

ANS: C

Body temperature drops 1 to 3 degrees to 37.2° C (99° F) about 24 hours before Stage II in about 85% of bitches. This temperature drop is related to the abrupt decrease in progesterone and is a signal that whelping is imminent.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 354 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 39. a. b. c. d.

is released within minutes of copulation in the cat.

Luteinizing hormone Follicle-stimulating hormone Estrogen Progesterone

ANS: A

LH is released within minutes of copulation and lasts up to 24 hours.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 355 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ENSuT rsB inA g:NPK atS ieE ntLcL arE e:RU.nC deO rsM tand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 40. Equine puberty occurs around what age? a. 6 months to 1 year b. 1 to 2 years c. 2 to 3 years d. 3 to 5years ANS: B

Puberty in the horse occurs at 1 to 2 years of age.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 356 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 41. A stallion exhibits the

response when he approaches a mare in heat. He curls his upper lip exposing his vomeronasal organ to the female’s pheromones. a. bruce b. pheromone c. flehmen d. ejaculatory ANS: C

A stallion exhibits the flehmen response when he approaches a mare in heat. He curls his upper lip exposing his vomeronasal organ to the female’s pheromones.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 356 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 42. Mares usually ovulate a. 24 hours before the end of estrus. b. 24 hours after the end of estrus. c. midestrus. d. at the onset of estrus.

ANS: A

Mares usually ovulate 24 hours before the end of estrus.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 357 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 43. Cattle usually ovulate a. 12 hours before the end of estrus. b. 12 hours after the end of estrus. c. midestrus. d. at the onset of estrus.

ANS: B

Breeding of cattle often is timed to coincide with the period of ovulation that occurs approximately 8 to 12 hours after the cow goes out of standing heat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 360 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 44. Parturition in mares occurs between a. 110 and 115 days b. 280 and 285 days c. 320 and 360 days d. >365 days

. Most mares deliver naturally.

ANS: C

Parturition in horses occurs between 320 and 360 days. Most mares deliver naturally, but may need some induction. Oxytocin and other drugs are effective.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 359 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques 45. Parturition in cows occurs between

.

a. b. c. d.

110 and 115 days 280 and 285 days 320 and 360 days >365 days

ANS: B

Timing of calving is important to understand from a cattle husbandry standpoint.

Approximately 9 months after successful conception a pregnant cow will deliver her calf.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 352 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of breeding/reproduction techniques

Chapter 12: Hematology and Cytology Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The Complete Blood Count (CBC) measures levels of all of the following except a. Red Blood Cells. b. White Blood Cells. c. Platelets. d. Blood Electrolytes.

ANS: D

The CBC involves the measurements of blood cells (erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes) as well as plasma protein. These measurements are important in assessing the health status of veterinary patients.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 368 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform CBC 2. Which is the preferred anticoagulant used to prevent clotting in mammalian blood samples

destined for hematologic analysis? a. Heparin b. EDTA c. Aspirin d. Ethanol ANS: B

Unlike other anticoagulants, EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid) blocks the clotting cascade without producing undue artifacts. A drawback for EDTA is it can cause erythrocyte lysis with blood samples from animals other than mammals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 368 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices 3. A blood sampling tube which contains heparin as the anticoagulant is colored a. lavender. b. red. c. purple. d. green.

ANS: D

The two main blood tubes which contain anticoagulants are purple/lavender top (EDTA) and green top (heparin), which are used in different applications depending on the needs of the diagnostician. Red topped tubes do not contain anticoagulant.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 369 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Coagulation tests

4. Which of the following is not measured during a complete cell blood count (CBC)? a. Clotting time b. Packed cell volume c. Platelet count d. Hemoglobin concentration ANS: A

Blood samples that are collected for a CBC are added to an anticoagulant to allow the blood to remain fluid and thus be analyzed by the technician. Clotting time cannot be determined due to the addition of the anticoagulant.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 368 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform CBC 5.

What is an alternate name for packed cell volume (PCV)? a. Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) b. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) c. Hematocrit (HCT) d. Red blood cell distribution width (RDW) ANS: C

The hematocrit, or PCV, is easy to measure with inexpensive materials, and is the most commonly used test to measure the amount of red blood cells in a sample volume as a means to assess the patient’s ability to carry blood borne oxygen.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 369 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ELSaT boBraAtoNryKPSroEcL edLuE reR s:.

SC peO ciM men analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices 6. To estimate the hemoglobin concentration in the blood of a canine, simply divide the PCV by

. a. b. c. d.

0.5 2 3 10

ANS: C

Measuring the hemoglobin concentration of blood manually is difficult, and in the absence of automated measurements the value can be reasonably estimated by dividing the PCV by 3 and reporting the result in gram per deciliter.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 371 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices 7. For which of the following species would the presence of nucleated red blood cells identified

during a CBC not be considered abnormal? a. Dogs b. Cats c. Birds d. Cattle

ANS: C

Birds and reptiles retain nuclei in their erythrocytes, which makes accurate counting with older models of blood analyzers difficult. Most other species possess mature red blood cells that are without visible nuclei.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 373 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Perform laboratory procedures 8. Which of the following cannot be completed on a properly prepared blood smear? a. Estimation of blood cell numbers b. Visualization of cellular morphology c. Hematogenous infectious agent identification d. Serum protein quantification ANS: D

Visual observation of a fresh blood sample that is correctly made into a blood smear is a valuable assessment strategy of many parameters measured via automated or manual CBC. Although many cell characteristics can be inferred through a blood smear, liquid components such as total protein cannot be analyzed on a dried smear.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 372 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform CBC 9. Which region of a prepared blood smear should be used to count individual cells as well as to

determine the represented T mE orSpT hoBloAgNicKfS eaEtuLrL esEoRf . thC eO ceMlls in a sample? a. Drop b. Body c. Counting area d. Feathered edge ANS: C

Incorrect counts and morphologic observations can occur where the cells are piled on top of one another (i.e., at the drop or body), or where the cells are spread too thinly and damage often occurs (feathered edge). In the counting area, erythrocytes, leukocytes, and thrombocytes can be enumerated within the cell monolayer, with additional observation of cellular morphology possible.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 374 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 10. Which finding would be supported by a feline blood sample that exhibits stacked red blood

cells observable with a microscope that, upon addition of saline, results in dispersed cells? a. Agglutination b. Coagulation c. Rouleaux formation d. Covalent hemagglutination

ANS: C

In horses and cats, it is normal to observe stacked red blood cells in a blood smear. This transient finding is termed rouleaux, and can be differentiated from permanent agglutination or coagulation via the saline dispersion test. These “clumps” of cells are not considered normal findings in properly handled blood samples collected from animals other than horses or cats.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 375 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 11. What is the term for red blood cells that exhibit “spikes” on their surfaces and is often

considered an artifact of the blood smear production process? a. Anisocyte b. Echinocyte c. Keratocyte d. Spherocyte ANS: B

Echinocytes possess even distributions of cellular projections from their surfaces, and may indicate disease although often is simply a processing artifact. Anisocytosis is the presence of differently sized erythrocytes in a sample, keratocyte is a red blood cell that has two vacuolar projections that resemble horns, and a speherocyte is a cell that has been damaged by splenic macrophages resulting in the lack of typical central pallor characteristic of most red blood cells.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 377 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ELSaT boBraAtoNryKPSroEcL edLuE reR s:.

SC peO ciM men analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 12. Which of the following species have higher relative levels of lymphocytes than neutrophils in

their circulating blood volume? a. Dogs b. Horses c. Cattle d. Pigs ANS: C

Although neutrophils are the predominant leukocyte population found in many domestic species, including humans, ruminants (including cattle, sheep and goats) have a larger proportion of lymphocytes than neutrophils. Swine have relatively equal proportions of neutrophils and lymphocytes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 384 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 13. Which of the following hematologic findings would be expected in a blood sample taken from

an atopic dog? a. Neutrophilia b. Monocytosis

c. Lymphopenia d. Eosinophilia ANS: D

Eosinophils, although low in number under normal situations, are associated with allergies and/or parasitism. Elevated numbers of eosinophils is highly suggestive of either of these two conditions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 383 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 14. What are monocytes converted into when they migrate from the blood into the tissues in

search of foreign invaders in an animal host? a. Antibodies b. Mast cells c. Macrophages d. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes ANS: C

Macrophages function to ingest and present antigens as a member of the innate immune system. In addition, macrophages serve dual roles as a member of the adaptive immune system in efforts to prevent infection upon successive invasion of pathogenic organisms by presenting antigens to lymphocytes. Monocytes are found in the blood stream as precursors to macrophages prior to their exit from the circulatory system and into the surrounding tissues.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 384 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ELSaT boBraAtoNryKPSroEcL edLuE reR s:.

SC peO ciM men analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 15. An abdominocentesis is performed on a cat. The small volume of fluid sample that is

collected is white and cloudy, but upon spinning down the sample in the centrifuge the cloudiness is resolved. What is the likely cause of the appearance of this abdominal fluid sample? a. Cells b. Lipid c. Protein d. Mucus ANS: A

Normal abdominal fluid in small animals is clear and colorless. The presence of cloudiness in an abdominocentesis sample indicates components in addition to the normal peritoneal fluid, often either protein, lipid, or cellular contents. If cells are present, centrifugation will cause a pellet to form at the bottom of the tube and will result in a clear supernatant. Lipid or protein will remain in suspension even after centrifugation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 387 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 16. Which test is not performed when using a refractometer? a. Plasma protein concentration

b. Abdominal fluid total protein concentration c. Abdominal fluid pH d. Urine specific gravity ANS: C

Abdominal fluid pH is not performed when using a refractometer. Total protein concentration and specific gravity (of urine or thoracic and abdominal effusions) are determined by refractometry, similar to the plasma protein concentration.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 372|p. 387 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 17. Normal joint fluid is very viscous because it contains a protein called a. glucosamine b. mucin c. glacial acetic acid d. immunoglobulin G

.

ANS: B

Normal joint fluid is very viscous because it contains a protein called mucin.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 388 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 18. The number of large mononuclear cells in normal synovial fluid is TESTBANKSELLER.COM a. very high. b. moderate. c. low. d. there should be no mononuclear cells in synovial fluid.

ANS: C

The number of large mononuclear cells is very low in normal synovial fluid.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 388 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 19.

stain purple with Wright and Wright-Giemsa stains, whereas some commercially available quick stains do not consistently stain these granules that can lead to misdiagnosis. a. Neutrophil granules b. Gram-positive bacteria c. Mast cell granules d. Eosinophil granules ANS: C

Mast cell granules and granules in some lymphocytes stain purple with Wright and Wright-Giemsa stains, whereas some commercially available quick stains do not consistently stain these granules.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 389 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 20. Otic samples prepared to check for the presence of

usually are examined unstained before the slide is allowed to dry. A drop of immersion oil can be added before a coverslip is applied, to prevent the slide from drying. a. bacteria b. yeast c. viruses d. mites ANS: D

Samples prepared to check for the presence of mites usually are examined unstained before the slide is allowed to dry. A drop of immersion oil can be added before a coverslip is applied, to prevent the slide from drying.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 389 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform parasitologic procedures for external parasites and identify

organisms are 2 to 6 µm by 4 to 7 µm and have a characteristic peanut or footprint shape because of the broad-based budding that occurs during replication. a. Otodectes cynotis b. Candida spp. c. Malassezia d. Staphylococcus

21. In an otic preparation

ANS: C

Malassezia organisms are 2 to 6 µm by 4 to 7 µm and have a characteristic peanut or footprint shape because of the broad-based budding that occurs during replication.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 390 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 22. It is important to fill the collection tubes with the correct volume of blood because a. underfilling can lead to sample dilution with the anticoagulant. b. overfilling can lead to sample dilution with the anticoagulant. c. underfilling can lead to cell mortality. d. overfilling can lead to cell mortality.

ANS: A

It is important to fill the collection tubes with the correct volume of blood because overfilling or underfilling can cause erroneous results due to the incorrect ratio of blood to anticoagulant.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 369 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Coagulation tests

23. Newer hematology analyzers designed for processing animal blood samples are becoming

more widely used in veterinary settings. Some of these instruments utilize methods, in which cells in the blood sample interfere with an electrical current, thereby providing information on the various sizes if the cells present. a. light scatter b. electromagnetic scatter c. impedance d. validated ANS: C

With impedance methods, cells interfere with an electrical current, and the size of the cells is proportional to the deflection of the current.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 369 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices

is the percentage of RBCs in a specific volume of blood.

24. a. b. c. d.

TP PCV PVC HTC

ANS: B

PCV (packed cell volume) is the percentage (%) of RBCs in a specific volume of blood.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 381 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ELSaT boBraAtoNryKPSroEcL edLuE reR s:.

SC peO ciM men analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices 25. Longer periods of time for centrifugation may be required for blood samples from cattle,

sheep, and goats to obtain a PCV because a. their blood is thicker than blood from dogs and cats. b. their RBCs are smaller than RBCs from dogs and cats. c. a larger volume of blood has to be collected - from cattle, sheep and goats than from dogs and cats. d. their blood is thinner than blood from dogs and cats.

ANS: B

Longer periods of time for centrifugation may be required for blood samples from cattle, sheep, and goats because their RBCs are smaller than RBCs from dogs and cats.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 369 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices 26. In diseases such as immune-mediated hemolytic anemia, which causes agglutination of RBCs,

the RBC count obtained from an automated hematology analyzer will be falsely . a. increased b. decreased c. macrocytic

d. microcytic ANS: B

If agglutination of RBCs is noted, as occurs in immune-mediated hemolytic anemia, the RBC count from the automated instrument will be falsely decreased owing to clumping of RBCs. This falsely decreases the HCT. PTS: 1 REF: p. 370 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Coagulation tests 27. a. b. c. d.

is the protein in RBCs that carries oxygen from lungs to tissues.

Thromboplastin Myoglobin Hemoglobin Oxyglobin

ANS: C

Hemoglobin is the protein in RBCs that carries oxygen from the lungs to tissues.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 369 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices 28. a. b. c. d.

is used as an indicator of the average size of RBCs. Mean corpuscular volume Packed cell volume Hematocrit MCHC

ANS: A

MCV is used as an indicator of the average size of RBCs. PTS: 1 REF: pp. 369-370 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices 29. RBCs with an increased MCV are called a. normocytic. b. microcytic. c. macrocytic. d. nonregenerative.

ANS: C

RBCs with an increased MCV (mean corpuscular volume) are called macrocytic.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 371 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices 30. If the MCHC is increased, it is helpful to examine all except a. the plasma to determine whether hemolysis is present. b. the plasma to determine whether lipemia is present.

c. a blood smear to see whether Heinz bodies are present. d. a blood smear to see whether platelets are present.

ANS: D

If MCHC (mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration) is increased, it is helpful to examine the plasma to determine whether hemolysis or lipemia is present, and to evaluate a blood smear to see whether Heinz bodies or agglutinated RBCs are evident.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 371 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices

is the average amount of hemoglobin in each RBC.

31. a. b. c. d.

MCV MCHC MCH RBC mass

ANS: C

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin (MCH), the average amount of hemoglobin in each RBC. PTS: 1 REF: p. 371 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices 32. Variation in RBC size is called a. anisocytosis. b. acytosis. c. morphocytosis. d. megacytosis.

ANS: A

Variation in RBC size is called anisocytosis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 371 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 33. Plasma from healthy dogs and cats is , whereas plasma from horses and cattle is a. clear and colorless, clear and light-yellow b. clear and light-red, slightly cloudy and colorless c. clear and colorless, slightly cloudy and colorless d. clear and light-red, clear and light-yellow

.

ANS: A

Plasma from healthy dogs and cats is clear and colorless, whereas plasma from horses and cattle is clear and light-yellow, owing to dietary differences. Changes in color and clarity may be important indicators of disease and should be reported as part of the CBC. PTS: 1 REF: p. 371 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform CBC

34. Ideal blood smear technique results in a blood smear that is evenly distributed across

of the stationary slide. a. 10% b. 25% to 50% c. 50% to 75% d. 100% ANS: C

This should result in a blood smear that is evenly distributed across the stationary slide.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 371 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 35. Unstained blood smears should be stored away from formalin fumes and shipped separately

from surgical biopsies that have been placed in formalin because formalin vapors a. inhibit cell growth. b. inhibit optimal staining. c. change cellular morphology. d. cause cell death.

ANS: B

Unstained blood smears should be stored away from formalin fumes and shipped separately from surgical biopsies that have been placed in formalin as formalin vapors inhibit optimal staining.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 374 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ELSaT boBraAtoNryKPSroEcL edLuE reR s:.

SC peO ciM men analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 36. On the microscope, the _

objective is recommended for blood smear

evaluation. a. 10X b. 40X high dry c. 40X oil immersion d. 100X oil immersion ANS: D

The 100X oil immersion objective is recommended for blood smear evaluation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 374 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 37. When examining a blood smear, cell morphology should be evaluated a. at the feathered edge. b. at the body beginning where the drop of blood was placed. c. at the monolayer. d. at the basement membrane.

ANS: C

The counting area contains a monolayer of cells; in this region, RBCs, WBCs, and platelets can be identified, and their morphology can be adequately evaluated. The counting area is between the body and the feathered edge, appearing progressively thinner as it approaches the feathered edge. The feathered edge is the end of the blood smear farthest away from the drop.

At the feathered edge, many of the cells may be broken, distribution of cells may be uneven, and RBCs often lose their central zone of pallor.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 374 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 38. Agglutination refers to irregular, variably-sized clumps of RBCs that form because of a. improper temperature at the time of sample collection. b. inadequate volume of anticoagulant used. c. excess antibodies bound to the surface of RBCs. d. improper sample handling.

ANS: C

Agglutination refers to irregular, variably sized clumps of RBCs that form because of excess antibodies bound to the surface of RBCs. PTS: 1 REF: p. 375 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Coagulation tests 39. In mammals,

are non-nucleated fragments of cytoplasm released from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. a. clotting factors b. fibrin c. thrombocytes d. platelets ANS: D

In mammals, platelets are non-nucleated fragments of cytoplasm released from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 376 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 40. In most mammals, platelets are a. smaller than RBCs. b. larger than RBCs. c. equal in size to RBCs. d. adhered to RBCs. ANS: A

In most mammals, platelets are smaller than RBCs. PTS: 1 REF: p. 377 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film

41. A decreased platelet count is called a. plateopenia. b. thrombocytopenia. c. acytopenia. d. anicyocytopenia.

ANS: B

A decreased platelet count is called thrombocytopenia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 377 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microscopic exam of blood film 42. a. b. c. d.

refers to variation in RBC shape.

Rubocytosis Arubocytosi Poikilocytosis Apoikilocytosis

ANS: C

Poikilocytosis refers to variation in RBC shape.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 377 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices 43. Fragments of RBCs, called a. keratocyte. b. schistocytes. c. acanthocytes. d. echinocytes.

ANS: B

Fragments of RBCs are called schistocytes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 378 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices 44. Nucleated RBCs (nRBCs), are called a. schistocytes. b. metarubricytes. c. eccentrocytes. d. Heinz bodies.

ANS: B

Occasional nucleated RBCs (nRBCs), or metarubricytes, can be seen in peripheral blood from healthy animals. Increased numbers of nRBCs can occur in markedly regenerative anemia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 378 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices

45.

are nuclear remnants that appear as small, round basophilic structures in RBCs. They sometimes are increased in animals with regenerative anemia. a. Heinz bodies b. Howell-Jolly bodies c. Polychromasia d. Döhle bodies ANS: B

Howell-Jolly bodies are nuclear remnants that appear as small, round basophilic structures in RBCs. They sometimes are increased in animals with regenerative anemia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 380 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Calculate hematologic indices

Chapter 13: Clinical Chemistry, Serology, and Urinalysis Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is not a purpose of assessing serum chemistry profiles? a. Measuring the degree of patient liver failure. b. Screening for subclinical cases of disease. c. Determining whether an at-risk patient is suitable for surgery. d. Helping in determining a definitive diagnosis.

ANS: A

Although a chemistry panel is valuable in aiding the inference of specific diseases by noting changes in the constituents of the serum, this assay does not serve as a direct measure of individual organ or cellular function.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 392 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform blood chemistry tests 2. What would be expected to occur regarding blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels and urine

specific gravity (SG) in a dehydrated patient who has properly functioning kidneys? a. Increased BUN and increased urine SG b. Increased BUN and decreased urine SG c. Decreased BUN and increased urine SG d. Decreased BUN and decreased urine SG

TESTBANKSELLER.COM

ANS: A

The presence of increased nitrogenous waste products in the blood (azotemia) indicates either patient dehydration (prerenal azotemia) or kidney dysfunction (renal azotemia). If a dehydrated patient has normally functioning kidneys, increases in the nitrogenous waste products should be accompanied by a high urine SG, indicating that the kidneys are capable of concentrating urine to conserve as much water as possible; this is termed prerenal azotemia.

By contrast, in patients with renal azotemia, the kidneys fail to adequately concentrate urine, and the SG is lower than expected to compensate for the dehydration.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 392-393 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform blood chemistry tests 3. As a means to detect liver damage in bovine and equine patients, levels of the serum enzymes

aspartate aminotransferase (AST) and sorbitol dehydrogenase (SDH) are analyzed. In addition to AST, which enzyme is used for this purpose in dogs? a. Creatine kinase (CK) b. Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) c. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) d. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) ANS: C

Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) is used along with AST to indicate hepatocellular damage in dogs and cats. When liver cells are destroyed, these enzymes leak out of the cellular materials and are elevated in the blood stream. In cattle and horses, serum levels of AST and SDH are used as a measure of hepatocellular damage.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 393 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform blood chemistry tests 4. Which enzyme would you expect to be elevated solely due to skeletal muscle damage? a. Creatine kinase (CK) b. Gamma-glutamyltransferase (GGT) c. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) d. Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) ANS: A

Both creatine kinase (CK) and aminotransferase (AST) are enzymes released when skeletal muscle cells are damaged. However, CK is not released due to hepatocellular damage, as is AST. Therefore, detection of CK in the serum (even in the presence of AST) is a good indicator of skeletal muscle breakdown versus hepatocellular injury.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 393 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform blood chemistry tests 5. Which of the following is not a reasonable cause for elevated blood glucose levels? a. Stress b. Excitement c. Starvation d. Diabetes mellitus ANS: C

Increased serum glucose may indicate diabetes mellitus, excitement, or stress.

Excitement-induced hyperglycemia should be transient, and glucose should return to normal once the animal is calm.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 393 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform blood chemistry tests 6. Based on total serum protein values observed by refractometry, the value of what blood

constituent is derived from subtracting the albumin amount from the total protein? a. Glucose b. Actin c. Myosin d. Globulin ANS: D

The total protein found in a serum sample consists of the predominant protein in the blood, albumin, as well as the globulins. By measuring the total serum protein, which can be easily accomplished via refractometry from a serum sample, a technician may subtract the albumin level from the total protein level, with the remaining value representing the globulins.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 393 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform blood chemistry tests 7. What is the term that represents physical factors involved in a serologic sample that makes the

interpretation of the sample results questionable? a. Error b. Interference c. Calibration d. Correction ANS: B

Examples of blood sample interferences include hemolysis and excessive blood triglyceride levels (lipemia), which make accurate analysis of blood constituents difficult.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 393 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform blood chemistry tests 8. A technician is responsible for collecting a blood sample for subsequent CBC and serum

analysis, requiring both a clotted sample (red top tube) as well as a sample mixed with the anticoagulant heparin (green top tube). If a single needle is used to collect both of these samples, which order should the technician utilize to properly collect these samples? a. Red top 1st, green top 2nd b. Green top 1st, red top 2nd c. Does not matter NpKlS d. You should never colleTcE t bSoT thBsA am esEfL roL mEoRn. eC neOeM dle ANS: A

Both samples may be collected with the same needle; however, in order to avoid accidental contamination of the serum with anticoagulants, the red-top tube (which contains no anticoagulant) should be filled first, followed by the green-top tube.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 393 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform blood chemistry tests 9. Which of the following serum appearances are appropriate representations of the listed

finding? a. Increased turbidity = hemolysis b. Red-tinged sample = lipemia c. Clear = horse serum d. Orange-tinged sample = bilirubinemia ANS: D

Excessive bilirubin in the blood will result in a slight yellow-orange tint to the serum, which should be clear and colorless in dogs and cats. A yellow tint is normal and expected in ruminants and horses. Red blood cell destruction (hemolysis) is characterized by a red discoloration of the sample, while excess lipids in the blood (lipemia) is characterized by increased turbidity of the sample, imparting a slightly hazy to milky appearance to the serum.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 394 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform blood chemistry tests 10. The laboratory terminology for the processes that are performed regularly to ensure that test

results can be trusted to be accurate is a. Sensitivity b. Specificity c. Quality control d. Assay optimization ANS: C

Quality control (QC) helps to detect problems in laboratory procedures that could yield erroneous test results on patient samples. By completing regular QC, the lab’s equipment and reagents are tested to ensure that the results are valid and can be trusted to be accurate representations of the disease condition being investigated.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 395 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Implement quality control measures 11. Laboratory calibration is used to ensure that a laboratory’s equipment is working properly by

testing a material standardized to contain a known amount of a substance. How often (at a minimum) should laboratory equipment be calibrated? a. Weekly b. Monthly c. Every 6 months d. Every 12 months ANS: C

The standardized material used during calibration is called a calibrator; it contains a known, standard amount of a reference material, and the instrument is adjusted so that the reading on the instrument matches the known amount of reference material. For some instruments, a representative from the manufacturer may calibrate the instrument as part of routine maintenance. For other instruments, the technician will have this responsibility. Either way, regular equipment calibration, along with documentation of the results, should take place at a minimum of every 6 months.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 395 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen management: Demonstrate knowledge of proper handling, packaging and storage of specimens for laboratory analysis to ensure safety of patients, clients, and staff. | Implement quality control measures 12. Which of the following commonly employed methods to collect a urine sample is considered

least desirable in order to culture urinary bacteria? a. Free catch b. Cystocentesis c. Urinary catheterization d. Collection from cage floor ANS: D

Kennel and cage floors supply very contaminated urine samples, which makes the analysis of a bacterial culture very difficult. The cleanest samples are collected via cystocentesis or urinary catheterization, with free catch resulting in intermediate levels of contamination due to the resident microflora present on the skin and hair near the external urethra.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 398 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 13. What is the major drawback of collecting urine by cystocentesis? a. Pain b. Microbial contamination c. Blood contamination d. Difficulty ANS: C

Although cystocentesis is easily performed with minimal pain and bacterial contamination, there is the possibility of exposing the urine sample to blood cells picked up during needle insertion into the urinary bladder. These cells can make interpretation of the sample results difficult because the hemorrhage caused by the cystocentesis can mimic a pathologic condition, such as hemorrhagic cystitis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 398 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 14. Urine containing hemoglobin vs. blood can be differentiated by centrifuging the sample. A

BpAiNf KSELLEisRp.reCsOenMt, while spun sample will reveal a rTedEcSlT um uniform red sample with no precipitation. a. myeloglobinuria; hemoglobinuria b. hemoglobinuria; hematuria c. hematuria; hemoglobinuria d. hemoglobinuria; myeloglobinuria

will result in a

ANS: C

The red blood cells found in hematuric samples will precipitate if the sample is allowed to sit or if it is centrifuged. The small molecules of hemoglobin (and myoglobin, if excess muscle catabolism has occurred) will remain in suspension even after the sample has been spun down.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 398 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 15. Animals derive energy from ketone bodies that can accumulate to toxic levels in the blood, as

measured by assessing urine ketone levels. Which of the following is not a ketone body? a. Beta-hydroxybutyrate b. Glucose c. Acetone d. Acetoacetate ANS: B

Ketosis results from a need for energy that is not provided by normal digestive functions, such as occurs with some diseases and starvation. Ketones may be detectable in the urine (ketonuria) before reaching readily detectable levels in the blood.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 400 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 16. An active infection diagnosed via serology can be diagnosed using paired samples. How much

time should be allowed to elapse before the second sample is taken? a. 1 to 3 hours b. 1 to 3 days c. 1 to 3 weeks d. 1 to 3 months ANS: C

In order to give an animal time to mount a humoral immune response, and thus show an elevated titer due to the presence of an active microbial infection, a second sample should be collected from the animal 1 to 3 weeks after the initial sample is collected. A 4-fold increase in antibody titer when comparing the second sample to the initial collection is suggestive of a current infection.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 396-397 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform serologic test (ELISA, slide/card agglutinations) 17. An antibody against the antigen of interest is bound to a solid matrix. The patient sample is

mixed with reagent containTinEgSaTnBeA nzNyK mS e-ElaLbL elE edRa.nC tibOoMdy against the antigen. This type of serology test is called a/an a. AGID. b. IRMA. c. RIA. d. ELISA. ANS: D

ELISA stands for enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay. With ELISA and the other types of serologic assays, the basic principle is to link the binding of antigen and antibody to a detection system (either visual or automated). Because of the requirements for validating and carrying out these types of assays, most are performed in diagnostic laboratories, which can provide information on the type of sample, proper handling, shipping requirements, and interpretation of results.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 397 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform serologic test (ELISA, slide/card agglutinations) 18. When serologic tests are performed, it is critical to follow all QC guidelines and instructions,

as variations in a. temperature b. incubation times c. washing

can interfere with the accuracy of the test.

d. all of the above ANS: D

When serologic tests are performed, it is critical to follow all QC guidelines and instructions.

Variations in temperature, incubation times, and washing can interfere with the accuracy of the test.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 397 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform serologic test (ELISA, slide/card agglutinations) 19. SNAP tests based on

technology have become increasingly available for in-clinic use and are often used to screen for infectious agents and can be designed to detect antigen or antibody. a. AGID b. ELISA c. IRMA d. RIA ANS: B

SNAP tests based on ELISA technology have become increasingly available for in-clinic use and are often used to screen for infectious agents and can be designed to detect antigen or antibody.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 397 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform serologic test (ELISA, slide/card agglutinations) 20.2 With serology SNAP tests that detect antibodies to an infectious agent, a positive test 0 indicates that further testing may be needed to confirm . a. the animal has an active infection. b. the animal has been exposed to the pathogen and has developed an immune

response. c. the animal has an active infection and is contagious. d. the animal has been exposed to the pathogen.

ANS: A

With tests that detect antibodies to an infectious agent, a positive test indicates that the animal has been exposed to the pathogen and has developed an immune response. Further testing may be needed to confirm an active infection.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 398 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform serologic test (ELISA, slide/card agglutinations) 21. Collecting a urine sample for bacterial culture should be done before the rest of the urinalysis

is performed a. in order to be sure it is not forgotten. b. to avoid contamination. c. because the other tests kill bacteria. d. because it requires a large amount of urine.

ANS: B

Collecting a urine sample for bacterial culture should be done before the rest of the urinalysis is performed in order to avoid contamination of the sample.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 398 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 22. Which of the following statements about the collection of urine is the most accurate? a. The urine sample should be examined with 2 hours of collection. b. If the urinalysis is delayed more than 3 hours, the sample should be warmed to

match the body temperature of the patient before proceeding. c. Urinary crystals can either form or dissolve after the urine sample is collected. d. Urine samples can be refrigerated up to 1 week without affecting the urinary constituents.

ANS: C

Ideally, the urine sample should be examined within 30 minutes of collection. However, if that is not possible, then the sample can be stored in the refrigerator for up to 24 hours before conducting the urinalysis (recommended refrigeration times vary from 6 to 24 hours). When working with a refrigerated sample, it should be brought to room temperature before proceeding. Urinary crystals can either form or dissolve after the urine sample is collected; this is dependent on the duration of storage and the sample’s pH. PTS: 1 REF: p. 398 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 23. When obtaining a urine sample via free catch, contamination may be lessened by a. catching urine while providing gentle compression of the bladder. b. catching urine midstream. c. avoiding the urethra and genital tract. d. catching the full amount of urine voided.

ANS: B

Contamination may be lessened by catching the urine midstream.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 398 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 24. A disadvantage of the free catch method of obtaining a urine sample is a. contamination of the urethra. b. contamination from the urethra, from areas around the urethral opening, and from

the lower genital tract. c. contamination of the ureter. d. contamination from the ureter, from areas around the urethral opening, and from

the lower genital tract.

ANS: B

A disadvantage of the free catch method of urine collection is contamination from the urethra, from areas around the urethral opening, and from the lower genital tract. Contamination can be lessened by catching the urine midstream.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 398 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 25. In most species, normal urine should be clear. Exceptions are the a. dog and cat. b. dog and horse. c. horse and rabbit. d. rabbit and cat.

ANS: C

In most species, normal urine should be clear. Exceptions are equine urine, which is normally cloudy due to the presence of calcium carbonate crystals, and normal rabbit urine, which is densely turbid as the result of mucus and calcium carbonate crystals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 398 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 26. One would expect to find calcium carbonate crystals in normal urine from a a. dog. b. cat. c. horse. d. cow.

ANS: C

In most species, normal urine should be clear. Exceptions are equine urine, which is normally cloudy due to the presence of calcium carbonate crystals, and normal rabbit urine, which is densely turbid as the result of mucus and calcium carbonate crystals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 398 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 27. A a. b. c. d.

is a quick and simple way to measure urine SG. chemistry reagent strip (“dip stick”) refractometer spectrophotometer crit tube

ANS: B

A refractometer is a quick and simple way to measure urine specific gravity (SG).

Refractometry measures the bending of light as it passes through a solution and is related to the density (number of particles) in that fluid.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 398-399 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis

28. The accuracy of the refractometer should be periodically checked by using distilled water,

which should show a SG of a. <0.00. b. 0.00. c. 1.000. d. >1.000.

ANS: C

Accuracy of the refractometer should be periodically checked by using distilled water, which should show a specific gravity (SG) of 1.000.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 399 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 29. A urine SG less than

indicates that the kidneys are functioning and are able to

actively dilute the urine. a. 1.008 b. 1.018 c. 1.028 d. 1.038 ANS: A

A urine specific gravity (SG) less than 1.008 indicates that the kidneys are functioning and are able to actively dilute the urine.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 3S9T 9 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 30. Urine with a SG in the range of 1.008 to 1.012 is

and indicates that the urine

is being neither concentrated nor diluted compared to plasma. a. hyposthenuric b. isothenuric c. hyperosthenuric d. hyperosmolenuric ANS: B

Urine with a SG in the range of 1.008 to 1.012 is isothenuric and indicates that the urine is being neither concentrated nor diluted compared to plasma.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 399 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 31. When testing an animal’s urine using a chemistry reagent strip (“dip stick”), it is important to

remember which tests will not yield accurate results if using reagent strips designed for human urine samples. Those tests are a. leukocytes and RBCs. b. leukocytes and SG. c. SG and pH.

d. RBCs and pH. ANS: B

The reagent pads for leukocytes and specific gravity (SG) on chemistry reagent strips designed for use with human urine samples do not work on animal samples and, therefore, yield inaccurate results.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 399 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 32. pH is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+). As H+ concentration increases,

the pH . a. increases b. stays the same c. decreases d. will either increase or decrease, depending on the temperature ANS: C

pH is a measure of the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+). As H+ concentration increases, the pH decreases.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 399 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 33. A urine pH below 7 (increased H+) is a. aciduric b. alkaluric c. isothenuric d. neutral ANS: A

A urine pH below 7 is aciduric (increased H+). A urine pH above 7 is alkaluric (decreased H+).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 399 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 34. The normal urine pH of herbivores, including horses, cattle, sheep, and camelids, is a. 2.5 to 5.0. b. 5.0 to 7.5. c. 7.5 to 8.5. d. 8.5 to 10.5.

ANS: C

The normal urine pH of carnivores, such as dogs and cats, is 5.0 to 7.5, whereas that of herbivores, including horses, cattle, sheep, and camelids, is 7.5 to 8.5. Omnivores, such as pigs, may have acidic or alkaline urine.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 399 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens.

| Perform urinalysis 35. Urine pH should be measured shortly after sample collection. As urine stands, the pH will a. decrease due to loss of carbon dioxide. b. increase due to loss of carbon dioxide. c. not be affected, but other parameters will. d. either increase or decrease, depending on the temperature.

ANS: B

Urine pH should be measured shortly after sample collection. As urine stands, the pH will increase due to loss of carbon dioxide.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 399 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 36. Alkaline urine (pH >8) can a. falsely decrease the amount of protein detected. b. give a falsely elevated SG. c. give a false-positive protein result. d. falsely decrease the SG. ANS: C

Alkaline urine (pH >8) can result in a false-positive protein level, whereas acidic or very dilute urine can falsely decrease the amount of protein detected.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 399 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 37. Normal urine should a. contain 300 mg/dL of glucose. b. not contain glucose. c. contain a species-specific amount of glucose. d. contain 180 mg/dL of glucose.

ANS: B

Normal urine should not contain glucose.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 400 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 38. Ketones may be detectable in the a. b. c. d.

. blood; urine blood; breath urine; blood breath; urine

ANS: C

before reaching readily detectable levels in the

Ketones (acetoacetate, acetone, and beta-hydroxybutyrate) may be detectable in the urine before reaching readily detectable levels in the blood.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 400 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis

results from the metabolism of hemoglobin and is normally excreted in the

39.

bile. a. Acetoacetate b. Bilirubin c. Vitamin C d. Creatinine ANS: B

Bilirubin results from the metabolism of hemoglobin and is normally excreted in the bile.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 400 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 40. Bilirubin is not detected in normal

urine, so bilirubinuria in this species indicates

disease. a. dog b. cat c. horse d. cow ANS: B

Bilirubin is not detected in normal cat urine, so bilirubinuria in this species indicates disease.

Dogs, especially males, normally may have small amounts of bilirubin in concentrated urine samples.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 400 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 41. When performing a urine sediment evaluation, improved contrast of the wet mount can be

achieved by a. opening the iris diaphragm as wide as possible. b. turning up the light source and adding more stain. c. adding more stain to the supernatant. d. lowering the condenser and partially closing the iris diaphragm.

ANS: D

When performing a urine sediment evaluation, improved contrast of the wet mount can be achieved by lowering the condenser and partially closing the iris diaphragm.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 400 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis

42. Squamous epithelial cells are large polygonal cells with small nuclei. Squamous cells are

absent in urine samples collected by a. free catch. b. catheterization. c. cystocentesis. d. retroflush.

ANS: C

Squamous epithelial cells are large polygonal cells with small nuclei that originate from the urethra, vagina, or prepuce. These cells are found in urine collected by free catch or by catheterization, are absent in urine collected by cystocentesis, and have no clinical significance.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 401 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 43. When performing a urine sediment evaluation, a finding of increased numbers of leukocytes is

an indication of a. urinary casts b. leukopenia c. pyuria d. urinary crystals

.

ANS: C

When performing a urine sediment evaluation, a finding of increased numbers of leukocytes is an indication of pyuria, or inflammation in the urinary tract. Pyuria is frequently associated LiLcrEoR with infection, and carefulTeE xaSmTinBaA tioNnKfS orEm or.gC anOisMms, as well as a culture, should be performed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 402 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 44. Increased numbers of a. white blood cells b. red blood cells c. crystals d. casts

seen during a urine sediment evaluation is called cylindruria.

ANS: D

Increased numbers of casts in urine is called cylindruria.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 402 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 45. Ammonium biurate and other urate crystals may be seen in the urine of

result of an inherited error of metabolism, and in some dogs with portosystemic shunts. a. pregnant dogs b. Dalmatians c. horses

as the

d. Doberman pinschers ANS: B

Ammonium biurate and other urate crystals may be seen in Dalmatians as the result of an inherited error of metabolism, and in some dogs with portosystemic shunts.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 404 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis

Chapter 14: Parasitology Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following groups of parasites includes ticks, mosquitos, and mites? a. Nematodes b. Trematodes c. Cestodes d. Arthropods ANS: D

In addition to insects and mites, the arthropod group includes crustaceans and ticks.

Nematodes are the roundworms, trematodes are the flukes, and cestodes are the tapeworms.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 407 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 2. Which of the following terms describes a fluke that requires three hosts, two of which are

considered intermediate, and one that is definitive, in order to complete its life cycle? a. Dimorphic b. Digenetic c. Diploid d. Dynamic ANS: B

“Digenetic” literally translates to “two beginnings,” indicating that the parasite requires two initial hosts, which are considered to be intermediate hosts. Many parasites, if they require an intermediate host, will only need one. Most of the flukes (trematodes) discussed in veterinary parasitology are classified as “digenetic trematodes.”

PTS: 1 REF: p. 407 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 3. Which species of trematode is unusual in that it infects the lungs of dogs and cats, as opposed

to the gastrointestinal tract which is where most flukes reside? a. Paragonimus kellicotti b. Schistosoma ornithobilharzia c. Fasciola magna d. Fascioloa hepatica ANS: A

Paragonimus kellicotti is the lung fluke of dogs and cats. This is an unusual digenetic fluke in that it is found within the respiratory system, whereas most digenetic flukes are associated with the gastrointestinal tract or one of its branches (e.g., the bile duct).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 407|p. 409 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis

of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 4. The operculated eggs of Paragonimus kellicotti exhibit this unusual characteristic when

subjected to a simple fecal flotation procedure. a. They sink to the bottom and form a pellet b. They float to the top c. They stick to the sides of the tube d. They change color when exposed to the flotation solution ANS: B

Whereas the eggs of most digenetic flukes will sink during simple fecal flotation procedures, the eggs of Paragonimus kellicotti will float on the surface of most fecal flotation solutions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 409 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform diagnostics procedures for parasites 5. Which of the following species is the typical definitive host of the trematode associated with

the zoonotic condition commonly known as “swimmer’s itch”? a. Ruminant b. Equine c. Avian d. Porcine ANS: C

Avian schistosomes are commonly referred to as the “blood fluke of wild birds.” This parasite produces schistosome cercarial dermatitis, or “swimmer’s itch,” in humans that swim or wade in waters frequented by aqT uaEtiS c,TmBiA grN atKoS ryEbL irL dsEiR nf.eC ctO edMwith the fluke.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 409-411 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 6. All of the following are components of cestode anatomy except a. scolex. b. thorax. c. neck. d. strobila.

ANS: B

Tapeworms, unlike insects and animals, do not have a thoracic cavity. The scolex (or head) extends to one terminus of the parasite, with the proglottids arranged into a long chain in a structure called the strobila. In between the scolex and strobila is the neck.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 411 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 7. Which portion of the adult tapeworm Dipylidium caninum is shed through the GI tract of its

host and resembles pieces of rice? a. Scolex b. Spore

c. Proglottid d. Cast ANS: C

Dipylidium caninum is known as the “double-pored tapeworm” or “cucumber seed tapeworm” of dogs and cats. As the tapeworm matures, individual gravid proglottids (tapeworm segments) are shed into the environment via defecation, and can be noticed on or near the voided feces, as well as around the anus of the infected host. As these segments dry out, they resemble pieces of uncooked white rice that can be seen on the pet’s bedding (and even on the owner’s bedding, if the pet happens to sleep in the owner’s bed).

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 411-412 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 8. What is the term for a host in which a parasite cannot undergo further development? a. Paratenic b. Stationary c. Opportunistic d. Intermediate ANS: A

An example of a “paratenic host” (also known as a “transport host”) is when a child accidentally ingests roundworm eggs (usually those of Toxocara canis) containing the infective second-stage larvae. (This can occur while the child is playing in a sandbox, for instance, contaminated by feces from an infected dog or cat.) After ingestion, the eggs hatch, but the larvae will not undergo further development; rather, they will migrate to various sites, such as the lungs, liver, anT dE eySeT s,BcA auNsiK nS gE viL scLeE raR l l. arCvO aM migrans and ocular larval migrans, respectfully.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 417-419 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 9. Which nematode associated with raccoons can cause a serious condition called neurologic

larva migrans in a mammalian or avian transport host? a. Toxocara cati b. Toxocara canis c. Baylisascaris procyonis d. Ancylostoma tubaeforme ANS: C

A “transport host” (also known as a “paratenic host”) is one in which a parasite cannot undergo further development, but can cause serious damage nonetheless. Baylisascaris procyonis is the raccoon roundworm. If an avian or mammalian paratenic host (including humans) ingests B. procyonis eggs containing the infective second-stage larvae, the larvae can migrate to the neural tissues (e.g., brain and spinal cord), causing neurologic larva migrans.

While the paratenic host is a “dead-end host,” it usually succumbs to this highly pathogenic parasite. Should a child accidentally ingest the eggs, the outcome is almost certainly fatal.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 419-420 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis

of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 10. Which parasites are associated with cutaneous larva migrans in humans? a. Tapeworms b. Flukes c. Hookworms d. Pinworms ANS: C

Hookworms, especially species such as Acylostoma braziliense, infect humans through direct contact with the hookworm larvae and subsequent penetration of the skin. This can happen, for instance, when walking barefoot. The resultant infection leads to raised, red, pruritic skin lesions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 421 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 11. A

is a “blood fluke” that inhabits the blood vasculature of its

definitive host. a. schistosome b. nematode c. miracidium. d. metacestode ANS: A

A schistosome is a “blood fluke” that inhabits the blood vasculature of its definitive host.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 410 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 12. Parasite eggs that have a tiny door-like structure at one end are termed a. embryonated. b. operculated. c. hermaphroditic. d. miracidium.

ANS: B

Operculated eggs are eggs with a tiny door-like structure at one end.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 409 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 13. Cestodes are adult tapeworms, while

tapeworms. a. nanocestodes b. neocestodes c. metacestodes d. larvocestodes

are the larval stage of

ANS: C

Cestodes are adult tapeworms, while metacestodes are the larval stage of tapeworms.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 411 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 14. This common tapeworm is found in the small intestine of dogs, cats, and ferrets, and is

commonly called the “cucumber seed tapeworm” and the “double-pored tapeworm.” a. Taenia pisiformis b. Dipylidium caninum c. Taenia taeniaformis d. Dipylidium feli ANS: B

Dipylidium caninum is found in the small intestine of dogs, cats, and ferrets. Humans, especially small children, may also become infected with the adult tapeworm.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 411 TOP: VTNE Domain: Miscellaneous MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 15. When an owner reports finding particles that resemble dry, uncooked white rice on their dog’s

or cat’s bedding, the pet should be checked for a. protozoal parasites. b. trematodes. c. cestodes. d. nematodes.

ANS: C

Dried out tapeworm segments (proglottids) of Dipylidium caninum resembling dry, uncooked white rice may be seen on the pet’s bedding (and even on the owner’s bedding, if the pet happens to sleep in the owner’s bed).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 412 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform diagnostics procedures for parasites 16. Among the proglottids of the tapeworm Dipylidium caninum, both cross-fertilization and

self-fertilization can occur. A mature proglottid has functioning male and female reproductive organs, but older, gravid proglottids contain a. only testicles. b. are hermaphrodites. c. only a uterus. d. a uterus filled to capacity with thousands of egg packets.

ANS: D

Among the proglottids of the tapeworm Dipylidium caninum, both cross-fertilization and self-fertilization can occur. A mature proglottid has functioning male and female reproductive organs, but older, gravid proglottids contain a uterus filled to capacity with thousands of egg packets. Each packet contains from 20 to 30 individual hexacanth (six-toothed) embryos.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 412 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 17. The hexacanth embryo of Dipylidium caninum is eaten by the maggot-like larva of the

, the intermediate host for this tapeworm. a. b. c. d.

deer tick deer mouse cat flea aquatic snail

ANS: C

The hexacanth embryo is eaten by the maggot-like larva of the cat flea, Ctenocephalides felis (pronounced “ten-oh-cef-al-ah-dees” “fee-lis”), the intermediate host for this tapeworm.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 412 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 18. Nematodes are colloquially referred to as roundworms because of a unique feature— a. their eggs have a round shape. b. they are round when observed on cross-section. c. their mouth parts are round. d. the adult parasite circles back on itself in a ring shape.

ANS: B

Nematodes are colloquially referred to as roundworms because of a unique feature—they are round when observed on cT roE ssS-sTecBtA ioN n.KNSeE mLatLoE deRs .coCm OeMin all shapes (from cylindrical to round) and sizes (from the tiny Strongyloides stercoralis to the giant kidney worm, Dioctophyma renale).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 417 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 19. When humans act as paratenic hosts to

, the conditions that result from this infection are known as visceral larva migrans (VLM) and ocular larva migrans (OLM). a. Trichuris vulpis b. Taenia taeniaformis c. Toxocara canis d. Dipylidium caninum ANS: C

When humans act as paratenic hosts (most often to T. canis), the conditions that result from this infection are known as visceral larva migrans (VLM) and ocular larva migrans (OLM).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 418 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 20.

What is an ascarid? a. Protozal parasite

b. Trematode c. Cestode d. Nematode ANS: D

An ascarid is a nematode (roundworm).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 417 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 21. Somatic migration of Toxocara canis larvae occurs in dogs older than 3 months; the larvae

will hatch in the small intestine and enter the bloodstream before being carried to somatic sites. What are somatic sites? a. Intravascular locations b. Body tissues (e.g., muscles, kidneys, mammary glands) c. The lumen of the GI tract d. The alveoli of the lungs ANS: B

Somatic migration occurs in dogs older than 3 months; the larvae will hatch in the small intestine and enter the bloodstream before being carried to somatic sites (e.g., muscles, kidneys, mammary glands) throughout the dog’s body to become encysted second-stage larvae (which undergo no further development and are in suspended animation).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 418 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | IdeTnE tifS yT coBmAmNoK nS paEraLsiL ticEfR or.mCs OM 22. During the height of pregnancy in an infected dog, the encysted Toxocara canis larvae will

migrate from the mother to the developing fetuses, where they will reside in the fetal . a. lungs b. heart c. liver d. intestine ANS: C

During the height of pregnancy, the larvae will migrate from the mother to the developing fetuses, where they will reside in the liver. Soon after birth, the larvae migrate from the liver to the lungs, where they will be coughed up and swallowed, thereby returning to the small intestine to mature to the adult stage.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 418 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 23. It is possible for a bitch to pass Toxocara canis to her puppies via the a. tracheal migration; transmammary b. transplancental; fecal-oral c. tracheal migration; fecal-oral d. transplacental; transmammary

_ and

routes.

ANS: D

During the height of pregnancy, the Toxocara canis larvae will migrate from the mother to the developing fetuses, where they will reside in the liver; this involves the transplacental route.

Alternatively, the migrating larvae may encyst within the mother’s mammary glands, and then during lactation the larvae may become activated and pass to the puppies in the milk; this is the transmammary route.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 418 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 24. Because Toxocara species should be considered in any puppy or kitten presenting with

gastrointestinal signs, it is important to warn clients of the zoonotic potential of this parasite, particularly regarding young children and their chances of contracting a. Cutaneous larva migrans. b. Visceral larva migrans and ocular larva migrans. c. Pica and geophagia. d. Neurologic larva migrans.

ANS: B

Ascarids should be considered in any puppy or kitten presenting with gastrointestinal signs.

Obtaining an adequate fecal sample is key to a definitive diagnosis through identification of eggs in the sample. Routinely deworming all puppies and kittens that are not on monthly preventive agents is important, as is warning clients of the zoonotic potential of this parasite, particularly regarding young children and the ways in which this parasite is transmitted.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 4S1T 9 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform coprologic tests 25. If a mammalian or avian paratenic host ingests eggs containing the second-stage larvae of this

common parasite of raccoons, the host will usually succumb. a. Trichuris vulpis b. Baylisascaris procyonis c. Taenia taeniaformis d. Toxocara canis ANS: B

Baylisascaris procyonis is the raccoon roundworm. If an avian or mammalian paratenic host (including humans) ingests B. procyonis eggs containing the infective second-stage larvae, the larvae can migrate to the neural tissues (e.g., brain and spinal cord), causing neurologic larva migrans. While the paratenic host is a “dead-end host,” it usually succumbs to this highly pathogenic zoonotic parasite. Should a child accidentally ingest the eggs, the outcome is almost certainly fatal.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 419-420 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 26. Hookworms are found in the small intestine of dogs and cats. As a group, hookworms may

produce a zoonotic condition in humans known as

a. b. c. d.

Cutaneous larva migrans.

Visceral larva migrans.

Pica and geophagia.

Neurologic larva migrans.

ANS: A

Hookworms are found in the small intestine of dogs and cats. As a group, hookworms may produce a zoonotic condition in humans known as cutaneous larva migrans.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 420 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 27. Canine

are voracious blood feeders owing to their unique teeth and their large buccal cavity. Pale mucous membranes and hydremia (watery blood) may be seen, signaling anemia, particularly in young puppies. a. hookworms b. tapeworms c. roundworms d. liver flukes ANS: A

Canine hookworms are voracious blood feeders owing to their unique teeth and their large buccal cavity. Pale mucous membranes and hydremia (watery blood) may be seen, signaling anemia, particularly in young puppies. Chronic infections may lead to puppies that are underweight and have a distended abdomen, poor hair coat, and inappetence.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 4S2T 0 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 28. a. b. c. d.

resembles a whip, hence its name, the whipworm.

Taenia taeniaeformis Trichuris vulpis Baylisascaris procyonis Toxocara canis

ANS: B

Trichuris vulpis resembles a whip, hence its name, the whipworm. For diagnosing whipworms, a very fresh fecal sample is best. The veterinary technician must be able to recognize the whipworm’s unique whip-like shape (fat posterior handle with long, filamentous anterior end) and its unique trichinelloid-type egg.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 422 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 29. The only domestic species that does not serve as a definitive host for trichurids is the a. dog. b. cat. c. horse. d. cow.

ANS: C

The only domestic species that does not serve as a definitive host for trichurids (whipworms) is the horse.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 422 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 30.

are associated with the cecum and portions of the large intestine. This parasite is a bloodsucker with a tiny mouth on its anterior end and a tiny stylet just inside the opening. a. Hookworms b. Tapeworms c. Roundworms d. Whipworms ANS: D

Trichurids (whipworms) are associated with the cecum and portions of the large intestine.

This parasite is a bloodsucker with a tiny mouth on its anterior end and a tiny stylet just inside the opening.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 422 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify blood parasites 31. The eggs of

containing the second-stage larva, which is infective for the canine host, can survive in the soil for months to years. As such, access to contaminated areas should be avoided. a. hookworms b. tapeworms c. roundworms d. whipworms ANS: D

To adequately control whipworm infection, rigorous hygiene is paramount. Dog kennels and exercise runs should be constructed with concrete flooring and should be cleaned regularly.

Because eggs can survive in the soil for months to years, access to contaminated areas should be avoided.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 423 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify blood parasites 32. Intestinal

_ are unusual parasites in that only the female worm is parasitic and is found buried in the mucosa of the small intestines. a. hookworms b. threadworms c. roundworms d. whipworms ANS: B

Intestinal threadworms are unusual parasites in that only the female worm is parasitic and is found buried in the mucosa of the small intestines.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 424 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 33. The main difference between the homogonic and heterogonic life cycles of the intestinal

threadworm lies in the a. haploid female gamete. b. environmental temperatures during the time when the cycle occurs. c. presence of a male threadworm. d. environmental food availability.

ANS: B

The main difference between the homogonic and heterogonic life cycles lies in the environmental temperatures during the time when the cycle occurs. A fair and moderate temperature is conducive to the heterogenic cycle, while more extreme temperatures encourage the homogenic cycle.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 424 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 34. Enterobius vermicularis, the human pinworm, is often a source of infection for humans,

especially small children. Dogs and cats are NEVER infected with pinworms, but are often incriminated as sources of infection by some pediatricians. Therefore, if found in dogs or cats, it is classified as a a. obligate parasites. b. pseudoparasites. c. definitive parasites. d. fastidious parasites.

ANS: B

Enterobius vermicularis, the human pinworm, is often a source of infection for humans, especially small children. Dogs and cats are NEVER infected by pinworms, but are often incriminated as sources of infection by some pediatricians.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 425 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 35. The pinworm is never a parasite of a. omnivores. b. herbivores. c. carnivores. d. none of the above; it is a parasite of a wide variety of species.

ANS: C

Pinworms do not parasitize carnivores, so if found in dogs and cats they are regarded as “pseudoparasites.” However, the pinworm is a parasite of omnivores (e.g., humans and mice) and herbivores (e.g., horses and cattle).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 425 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 36. Dirofilaria immitis, the canine heartworm, usually resides in the right ventricle and branches

of the pulmonary artery; however, it may “get off track” during its migration to the heart and become established in the anterior chamber of the eye. This is called a/an a. wandering or solicitous parasite. b. end-stage host parasite. c. aberrant or erratic parasite. d. encysted or off track parasite.

ANS: C

An aberrant or erratic parasite is one that has wandered into an organ or location in which it is not normally found.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 426 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 37. Whereas adult male and female heartworms are found within branches of the pulmonary

artery and in the right ventricle, fertilized adult females produce found within the peripheral blood. a. first-stage larvae b. second-stage larvae c. third-stage larvae d. microfilariae

, which are

ANS: D

Whereas adult male and female heartworms are found within branches of the pulmonary artery and in the right ventricle, fertilized adult females produce microfilariae, which are found within the peripheral blood.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 426 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 38. When an adult female mosquito, acting as the intermediate host for Dirofilaria immitis, takes

a blood meal from an uninfected dog, the parasite’s emerge onto the dog’s skin surface; they then enter the puncture wound and migrate through the subcutaneous tissues. a. first-stage larvae b. second-stage larvae c. third-stage larvae d. microfilariae ANS: C

When an adult female mosquito, acting as the intermediate host for Dirofilaria immitis, takes a blood meal from an uninfected dog, the parasite’s third-stage larvae emerge onto the dog’s skin surface; they then enter the puncture wound and migrate through the subcutaneous tissues, where they molt into fourth-stage larvae.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 426 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 39. Within the life cycle of a parasite, the host that harbors the immature, asexual, or larval stage

of a parasite is the a. definitive host b. incidental hosts c. aberrant host d. intermediate host

.

ANS: D

Within the life cycle of a parasite, the host that harbors the immature, asexual, or larval stage of a parasite is the intermediate host. For example, the intermediate host for Dirofilaria immitis is the female mosquito. Only female mosquitoes take a blood meal, and therefore are the only vectors for heartworms.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 426 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 40. Infestation by a. ascarids b. mites or ticks c. roundworms d. flies or lice

is called acariasis.

ANS: B

Infestation by mites or ticks is called acariasis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 427 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 41. This mite dwells in hair follicles and sebaceous glands, and although it is not a sarcoptiform

mite, it produces a similar syndrome, with localized or generalized alopecia. a. Demodex canis b. Cheyletiella c. Sarcoptes scabiei d. Otodectes cynotis ANS: A

Demodex canis dwells in hair follicles and sebaceous glands, and although It is not a sarcoptiform mite, it produces a similar syndrome, with localized or generalized alopecia.

This type of acariasis is nonpruritic, unless complicated by secondary bacterial infection, and cannot be spread by direct contact.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 428 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms

42. These mites produce a skin condition in which excess keratin debris is observed. If the hair

coat of an infested animal is parted with a fine-toothed comb, the observer will be able to detect these mites as they “walk” along the skin surface. a. Demodex canis b. Cheyletiella species c. Sarcoptes scabiei d. Otodectes cynotis ANS: B

Cheyletiella mites produce a skin condition in which excess keratin debris (dandruff) is observed. If the hair coat of an infested animal is parted with a fine-toothed comb, the observer will be able to detect these mites as they “walk” along the skin surface. These are tiny, white mites, and when observed grossly (using a hand-held lens or Optivisor), they take on the appearance of “walking dandruff.”

PTS: 1 REF: p. 429 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 43. Because this mite is highly contagious and zoonotic, owners should be especially concerned if

a pet dog, cat, or rabbit is diagnosed with a. Demodex canis b. Cheyletiella species c. Sarcoptes scabiei d. Otodectes cynotis

.

ANS: B

Owners should be especialT lyEcSoT ncBeA rnN edKiS fE aL peLt E doRg., C caOt,Mor rabbit is diagnosed with Cheyletiella species, because this mite is highly contagious. And, if the infested animal is in the home or is frequently handled by the owners, this mite is readily transferred to humans, even with brief amounts of exposure. Cheyletiella can live up to 10 days off the host, and is spread by direct contact and fomites.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 429 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 44. Ticks that affect small animals include all of the following except a. Ixodes species b. Dermacentor species c. Amblyomma species d. Cheyletiella species ANS: D

Ticks that affect small animals include Dermacentor species, Rhipicephalus sanguineus, Amblyomma species, and Ixodes species. Cheyletiella species are mites.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 430 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms 45. Which stage of the tick life cycle has six legs?

a. b. c. d.

Egg Larva Nymph Adult

ANS: B

There are four developmental stages in the life cycle of the tick—egg, larva, nymph, and adult. The six-legged larvae (often referred to as seed ticks) will crawl up a blade of grass and then attach to its first host, usually a small mammal, on which it feeds before dropping off and molting into the eight-legged nymph stage.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 430 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Identify common parasitic forms

Chapter 15: Clinical Microbiology Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A bacteria that is classified as a “select” agent indicates that a. the strain grows especially well in the laboratory. b. the bacteria is exotic to the United States. c. the agent has potential for use in military applications. d. the bacteria are nonvirulent ANS: C

A select agent is one that has been deemed of particular risk as potential agents of biowarfare.

Identification of agents considered “select” is done in a registered diagnostic laboratory; no attempt should be made to culture such agents in a veterinary clinic.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 447 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 2. This term indicates a systemic infection where bacterial cells are present in the bloodstream. a. Localized b. Bacteriuria c. Bacteremia d. Abscess ANS: C

Bacteremia is diagnosed by collecting serial blood samples and culturing each to identify whether bacteria are present. Hematogenous bacteria present an important problem due to the ability for the infection to disseminate to multiple organs via the circulatory system.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 451 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 3. Which test is used as an initial screen to detect subclinical mastitis in dairy cows? a. Culture and sensitivity b. California mastitis test c. Electrical conduction test d. Udder ultrasound ANS: B

The California mastitis test (CMT) is a cow-side test used to detect subclinical mastitis by sampling milk and observing for the presence of somatic cells, as indicated by a visible reaction with a colored reagent.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 452 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 4. Why is selective media required when performing a fecal culture?

a. b. c. d.

Fecal bacteria are fastidious Fecal bacteria are obligate aerobes Fecal bacteria are difficult to grow in a laboratory Fecal bacteria must be isolated from normal flora

ANS: D

Feces contain large numbers of variable bacterial species. In order to determine the presence of significant bacterial strains from a fecal sample, the bacteria of interest must be selected by inhibiting the growth of other microbial populations.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 456 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform coprologic tests 5. For which of the following samples is it acceptable to freeze the sample for shipping to the

diagnostic laboratory for culture? a. Blood b. Feces c. Milk d. Joint aspirate ANS: C

Milk samples can be frozen and thawed because the fat globules in the milk protect any bacteria present. Other types of samples should not be frozen, as freezing and thawing can kill the bacteria.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 453 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ELSaT boBraAtoNryKPSroEcL edLuE reR s:.

SC peO ciM men analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 6. How many bacteria should be present in order to observe organisms via direct microscopy of

a 1-mL volume of fluid sample? a. 1000 b. 100,000 c. 1,000,000 d. 1,000,000,000 ANS: B

It takes approximately 100,000 (105) bacteria per milliliter of collected sample to adequately visualize bacteria directly without sample amplification by culture.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 453 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 7. What is the primary component of the bacterial cell wall that is responsible for the results of

the Gram stain for a Gram-positive organism such as Staphylococcus? a. Teichoic acid b. Lipopolysaccharide c. Peptidoglycan d. Porin

ANS: C

Peptidoglycan is a predominant cell wall component in Gram-positive bacterial organisms. By contrast, Gram-negative organisms, such as E. coli, contain only a few layers of peptidoglycan, so they do not present the similar dark staining that occurs when the crystal violet in the Gram stain interacts with the thick peptidoglycan present in Gram positives.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 453-454 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 8. Which of the following organisms would be identifiable using the Gram stain? a. Mycobacterium bovis b. Nocardia asteroides c. Mycoplasma bovis d. Streptococcus agalactiae ANS: D

Mycobacteria and Nocardia are identified by the acid-fast stain due to their external cell wall components that do not stain well with the Gram stain. Mycoplasma lack a true cell wall, so they fail to stain when subjected to cell wall stains. Streptococci are typical Gram-positive bacteria, which easily stain Gram positive.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 455|p. 462|p. 467 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations

dE enSoT teBaAbN acKteSriEalLoLrgEaR ni.sm 9. The common term used to T COthMat requires exacting conditions to grow adequately in the laboratory. a. Ubiquitous b. Fastidious c. Obligate d. Opportunist ANS: B

Fastidious organisms require specialized atmospheric and nutritional requirements in order to grow effectively in the laboratory. This may include the addition of gas mixtures containing CO2 at specific levels, specialized media and cofactors, or temperatures either higher or lower than standard.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 456 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 10. Which is the proper sequence of events that occur during the polymerase chain reaction

(PCR)? a. Annealing, denaturation, and extension b. Extension, annealing, and denaturation c. Denaturation, annealing, and extension d. Annealing, extension, and denaturation ANS: C

PCR involves separating a piece of double-stranded DNA by using heat (denaturation), placing a primer sequence of nucleic acids near the target area to be analyzed (annealing), and producing complementary DNA from the primer sequence (extension).

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 475-476 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 11. Diseases that have the potential for causing mass human harm are reportable to the CDC,

which stands for a. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention b. Communication of Disease Center c. Communicable Disease Control d. Center for Disaster Control ANS: A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 447 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 12. Another name for “normal” flora is a. transflora. b. indigenous flora. c. non-pathologic flora. d. there is no such thing as “normal” flora.

ANS: B

It is important to remember that the skin, mucous membranes, conjunctiva, respiratory tract, urogenital tract, and particularly the gastrointestinal tract are normally inhabited by a variety of bacterial species, often called “normal” or indigenous flora.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 448 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 13. Indigenous flora can cause opportunistic infections, meaning that a. these organisms are usually harmless, but can cause disease under certain

circumstances. b. these organisms are usually harmless, but can cause disease in certain species. c. these organisms are usually pathologic, but do not cause disease in certain species. d. these organisms are usually pathologic, but do not cause disease under certain circumstances.

ANS: A

Indigenous flora can cause opportunistic infections, meaning that although these organisms usually are harmless, they can cause disease under certain circumstances. This typically happens when there is a failure in host defenses.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 447 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 14. If a bacterial culture is needed and a patient is receiving antimicrobial therapy, it is best to

collect the sample a. just before the animal is fed, when antimicrobial concentration will be lowest. b. just after the drug dose is given, when antimicrobial concentration will be lowest. c. just before the next drug dose is given, when antimicrobial concentration will be lowest. d. just after the animal is fed, when antimicrobial concentration will be lowest.

ANS: C

If a culture is needed and a patient is receiving antimicrobial therapy, it is best to collect the sample just before the next drug dose is given, when antimicrobial concentration will be lowest.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 447 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 15. Abscesses are pockets of infection that contain purulent material composed of a. bacteria. b. neutrophils. c. macrophages. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Abscesses are pockets of infection that contain purulent material composed of bacteria, neutrophils, and macrophages.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 451 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 16. When submitting a sample for bacterial culture of urine, it is important to note how the sample

was obtained. In a sample collected by expected. a. cystocentesis b. free catch c. catheterization d. bronchoalveolar lavage

, a low number of indigenous flora would be

ANS: B

Free-catch urine samples typically include bacteria, so it is important to evaluate the number of bacteria present in the sample to determine whether an infection is actually present. Low numbers of organisms present in a free-catch sample reflect indigenous flora from the external genitalia rather than an actual infection.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 451 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis

17. Joint fluid samples to be submitted for culture can be collected in sterile vials (red top tubes).

However, because joint fluid can clot, anticoagulants are sometimes used. Which of the following anticoagulants would not interfere with the bacterial culturing of joint fluid? a. Heparin b. EDTA c. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate d. Citrate ANS: C

Joint fluid typically is submitted in blood culture media to improve recovery of organisms.

Samples may also be submitted in sterile vials (red top tubes) or on swabs. Because joint fluid can clot, anticoagulants are sometimes used. However, most anticoagulants, such as heparin or EDTA, will interfere with bacterial culturing and should not be used. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate is an anticoagulant that will not interfere with the bacterial culture and can be used to prevent clotting of joint fluid.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 451-452 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 18. Patients can have local infections that spread to multiple organs. Such infections are called

. a. b. c. d.

endemic or pandemic disseminated or systemic chronic or complete suppurative or purulent

ANS: B

Patients can have local infections that spread to multiple organs. Such infections are called disseminated infections or systemic infections. Bacteria are transported from the site of local infection throughout the body by the blood or lymph.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 451 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 19. Microscopic examination of viscous fluids, such as exudates, can be difficult because the fluid

is too thick to get a monolayer smear and does not stain well. As such, samples can be diluted with a. sterile water. b. sterile normal saline. c. heparin. d. plasma.

ANS: B

It is important that the sample on the slide be thin enough for good visual examination with the microscope. Viscous fluids, such as thick exudates, may be too thick for adequate examination. As such, samples can be diluted with sterile normal saline until an appropriate thickness is achieved.

PTS: 1

REF: pp. 454-455

TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 20. It is important to remember that samples stained with a Wright’s-based stain, such as

Diff-Quik, a. can also be used to determine whether an organism is Gram-positive or Gram-negative. b. cannot be used to determine whether an organism is Gram-positive or Gram-negative. c. can also be used to perform a culture and sensitivity. d. can be submitted for histopathology.

ANS: B

It is important to remember that samples stained with a Wright’s-based stain, such as Diff-Quik, cannot be used to determine whether an organism is Gram-positive or Gram-negative. Examination of samples stained with both Wright’s stain and Gram’s stain is helpful.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 455 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 21.

is required to determine the identity of organisms such as Mycobacterium spp. and Nocardia spp. a. Acid-fast staining b. Wright’s stain c. Gram’s stain d. Geimsa stain ANS: A

Acid-fast staining is required to determine the identity of organisms such as Mycobacterium spp. and Nocardia spp.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 455 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 22. MacConkey’s agar plates, which allow the growth of Gram-negative enteric organisms, such

as Escherichia coli, but inhibit Gram-positive organisms are considered to be a. a nutrient-rich medium. b. a dermatophyte test medium. c. a selective medium. d. an enrichment medium.

ANS: C

Most laboratories use a combination of a nutrient-rich medium (such as blood agar plates, which allow the growth of most bacteria) along with a selective medium such as MacConkey’s agar plates, which allow the growth of Gram-negative enteric organisms but inhibit Gram-positive organisms.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 456 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis

of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 23.

are used to enhance the recovery of organisms that are difficult to grow or that occur in low numbers in the presence of indigenous flora. a. Nutrient-rich media b. Dermatophyte test media c. Selective media d. Enrichment media ANS: D

Enrichment media are used to enhance the recovery of organisms that are difficult to grow or that occur in low numbers in the presence of indigenous flora PTS: 1 REF: p. 458 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 24. Plates should always be incubated in a. an upright b. a level c. an inverted d. a slanted

position.

ANS: C

Plates should always be incubated in an inverted position (lid down). If they are not inverted, moisture from the plate collects on the lid and can fall onto the plate surface, causing contamination of the culture or mixing of bacteria on the plate surface, creating a lawn of bacterial growth rather thaT nE isS olT atB edAcNoK loSnE ieL s.LER.COM PTS: 1 REF: p. 459 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 25. After inoculation, most bacteriologic plates and biochemical tests should be incubated

overnight at a. 30° C to 35° C. b. 35° C to 37.5° C. c. 37.5° C to 40° C. d. 40° C to 45° C. ANS: B

After inoculation, plates and biochemical tests should be incubated overnight at 35° C to 37.5° C. PTS: 1 REF: p. 459 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 26. Screw-caps for tube media should be a. tightened completely to prevent contamination b. tightened firmly to prevent condensation c. left loose

during incubation.

d. left off ANS: C

Screw-caps for tube media should be left loose during incubation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 459 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 27. Enriching the growth of

organisms is done by inoculating a trypticase soy broth tube or a brain-heart infusion broth tube. a. anerobic b. fastidious c. acid-fast d. indigenous ANS: B

In some practices, enriching the growth of fastidious organisms is done by inoculating a trypticase soy broth tube or a brain-heart infusion broth tube, both of which are rich media that support the growth of fastidious organisms.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 460 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 28. The Gram stain reaction is based on the ability of the bacterial cell wall to retain crystal violet

stain, appearing purple when examined under light microscopy. Organisms that stain purple are a. acid-fast b. fastidious c. Gram-positive d. Gram-negative ANS: C

On slides prepared with Gram stain, Gram-positive organisms retain the crystal violet stain and appear purple, whereas Gram-negative organisms do not retain the crystal violet, but counterstain with safranin and appear pink.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 454 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 29. The

test is based on the ability of bacteria to convert 3% hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen gas. a. peroxidase b. oxidase c. protease d. catalase ANS: D

The catalase test is based on the ability of bacteria to convert 3% hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen gas; it tests for the presence of the enzyme catalase. This test is commonly used to differentiate between staphylococci (which are catalase-positive) and streptococci (which are catalase-negative).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 461 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 30. To perform this test, place a sample of an isolated colony on a glass slide with an inoculating

loop or with a sterile wooden stick; then place a small drop of hydrogen peroxide on the bacteria, and observe. Formation of bubbles indicates a positive test absence of bubbles indicates a negative test. This test is commonly used to differentiate staphylococci (which are ) from streptococci and enterococci (which are _). a. catalase-negative; catalase-positive b. catalase-positive; catalase-negative c. catalase-positive; catalase-neutral d. catalase-neutral; catalase-negative ANS: B

To perform this test, place a sample of an isolated colony on a glass slide with an inoculating loop or with a sterile wooden stick; then place a small drop of hydrogen peroxide on the bacteria, and observe. Formation of bubbles indicates a positive test (Figure 15-13); absence of bubbles indicates a negative test. This test is commonly used to differentiate staphylococci (which are catalase-positive) from streptococci and enterococci (which are catalase-negative).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 461 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ELSaT boBraAtoNryKPSroEcL edLuE reR s:.

SC peO ciM men analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 31. The

test is used to identify bacteria containing a certain respiratory enzyme. It also is commonly used to differentiate Gram-negative bacteria. Because the iron from inoculating loops can give a false-positive result, a wooden applicator stick or a cotton swab is used for this test. a. peroxidase b. oxidase c. protease d. catalase ANS: B

The oxidase test is used to identify bacteria containing the respiratory enzyme cytochrome oxidase. A bacterial colony is picked up from a blood agar plate and tested with the oxidase reagent. A positive test is indicated by the formation of a blue color, whereas a negative test result is colorless.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 461 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 32. Commercially available test kits to detect C. perfringens and C. difficile in fecal material test

for

a. b. c. d.

the presence of these organisms. the presence of the antigenic portion of these organisms. the presence of antibody to these organisms. the presence of the toxin produced by these organisms.

ANS: D

In the case of C. perfringens and C. difficile, disease correlates with the presence of toxins produced by these agents rather than with the presence of the organisms themselves.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 463 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform coprologic tests 33. The term “CFU” is used to describe the number of bacteria growing on a plate because it is

not possible to know whether more than a single bacterium was responsible for the growth being observed. CFU stands for a. complete fecal unit. b. colony-forming unit. c. colony foundation unit. d. complete forming unit.

ANS: B

The term “CFU” is used to describe the number of bacteria growing on a plate because it is not possible to know whether more than a single bacterium formed the colony being observed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 465 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | PeT rfoErS mTmBicAroNbK ioS loE giL cL prE ocRed.uC reO s/M evaluations 34. When performing a quantified urine culture, the 1:1000 dilution plate should have

approximately a. 10x b. 2x c. as many d. 0.1x

as many bacteria as the 1:100 dilution plate.

ANS: D

The 1:1000 dilution plate should have approximately 1/10 as many bacteria as the 1:100 dilution plate.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 464-465 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 35. The most significant organisms found in milk are the agents of contagious mastitis, which

include all of the following except a. Staphylococcus aureus. b. Streptococcus agalactiae. c. Campylobacter. d. Mycoplasma spp.

ANS: C

The most significant organisms found in milk are the agents of contagious mastitis, such as Staphylococcus aureus, Streptococcus agalactiae, and Mycoplasma spp.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 465 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 36.

are catalase-positive, Gram-positive cocci that normally inhabit the skin and mucous membranes. a. Staphylococcus spp. b. Streptococcus spp. c. Enterococcus spp. d. Bacillus spp.

ANS: A

Staphylococcus spp. are catalase-positive, Gram-positive cocci that normally inhabit the skin and mucous membranes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 465 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 37. a. b. c. d.

are Gram-positive rods.

Staphylococcus spp.

Streptococcus spp.

Enterococcus spp.

Bacillus spp.

ANS: D

Bacillus spp. are Gram-positive rods.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 465 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 38.

have cell walls that include mycolic acid, which does not retain Gram stain but stains positively with carbol fuchsin. a. Staphylococcus spp. b. Mycobacterium spp. c. Bacillus spp. d. Proteus spp.

ANS: B

Mycobacterium spp. have cell walls that include mycolic acid, which does not retain Gram stain but stains positively with carbol fuchsin. Organisms in this genus are typically slow growing, sometimes taking weeks to grow sufficiently for colonies to be seen.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 466 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations

39.

can readily swarm a plate, overwhelming other, more slowly growing organisms. The potential presence of this organism makes it advisable to use selective media in initial cultures. a. Staphylococcus spp. b. Mycobacterium spp. c. Bacillus spp. d. Proteus spp.

ANS: D

Proteus spp. can readily swarm a plate, overwhelming other, more slowly growing organisms.

The potential presence of this organism makes it advisable to use selective media in initial cultures. Proteus spp. cause urinary tract infections, but can also be present as opportunists in wounds, in ears, and on the skin.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 466 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 40. The most important spirochetes in veterinary medicine include all of the following except a. Borrelia burgdorferi. b. Leptospira spp. c. Proteus spp. d. Campylobacter spp.

ANS: C

Among the most important spirochetes in veterinary medicine are Leptospira spp., Borrelia burgdorferi, Brachyspira hyodysenteriae, and Campylobacter spp.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 467 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 41. Chlamydia, Ehrlichia, and Rickettsia are classified as a. obligate anerobic bacteria. b. obligate intracellular bacteria. c. spirochetes d. curved bacteria.

ANS: B

Obligate intracellular bacteria will not grow on standard culture media. Like viruses, they require cultured animal cells to grow. Infections with these organisms are often diagnosed using serologic or molecular testing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 467 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 42. This method of drug susceptibility testing uses dilutions of antimicrobial agents in liquid

culture (broth) to determine the lowest amount of antimicrobial that will inhibit growth of the bacterium being tested. a. Maximum inhibitory concentration, or MIC b. Minimum inhibitory compliment, or MIC

c. Minimum inhibitory concentration, or MIC d. Maximum interference concentration, or MIC ANS: C

The minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) method of susceptibility testing uses dilutions of antimicrobial agents in liquid culture (broth) to determine the lowest amount of antimicrobial that will inhibit growth of the bacterium being tested. For each drug tested, a series of two-fold dilutions of antimicrobial encompassing a clinically relevant range of concentrations is prepared.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 468-469 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 43. When testing for dermatophytes, the innoculation plate should be placed in a loosely sealed

plastic bag and incubated at room temperature a. overnight b. for 24 to 48 hours c. for 1 to 2 weeks d. for up to 3 weeks

.

ANS: D

Dermatophytes are fungi that invade hair, nails, and superficial layers of the skin. One popular system for culturing dermatophytes involves a plate containing both dermatophyte test medium (DTM) and Sabouraud dextrose agar. Once innoculated, the plate is placed in a loosely sealed plastic bag and incubated at room temperature for up to 3 weeks. The DTM agar contains phenol red, which turns the media red as the dermatophytes grow.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 471-472 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 44. Dermatophyte test medium agar contains a chemical that turns the media

as the

dermatophytes grow. a. yellow b. clear c. red d. violet ANS: C

Dermatophyte test medium agar contains phenol red, which turns the media red as the dermatophytes grow. However, dermatophytes are not the only organisms that will alter the color of the media, so microscopic examination is required to identify the organism involved.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 471-472 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 45.

is identified by the abundant capsular material surrounding a yeast cell approximately 2 to 20 µm in diameter. India ink is often used to stain impression smears of lesions taken from animals suspected of having this infection. a. Candida albicans

b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Malassezia pachydermatis d. Blastomyces dermatitidis ANS: B

Cryptococcus neoformans is identified by the abundant capsular material surrounding a yeast cell approximately 2 to 20 µm in diameter. India ink is often used to stain impression smears of lesions taken from animals suspected of having this infection (e.g., cats with rhinitis).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 473 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations 46.

is frequently found in patients with otitis externa, but can also be seen in dermatitis, particularly in patients with underlying diseases that may cause immunosuppression. It often is described as looking like a “footprint” or a “snowman.” a. Candida albicans b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Malassezia pachydermatis d. Blastomyces dermatitidis ANS: C

Malassezia pachydermatis is frequently found in patients with otitis externa, but can also be seen in dermatitis, particularly in patients with underlying diseases that may cause immunosuppression, such as diabetes mellitus or hypothyroidism. This organism is readily observed in Diff-Quik–stained slides prepared from swabs of the external ear, and its shape may be described as resembling a “footprint” or a “snowman.” M. pachydermatis can be identified by cytologic exaT mEinSaT tioBnA, N anKdScE ulL tuL reEiR s. noCt O reMquired.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 472 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform microbiologic procedures/evaluations

Chapter 16: Diagnostic Imaging Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Radiographs are produced within the x-ray tube using the a. b. c. d.

-charged cathode and the

-charged anode. positive; negative negative; positive neutral; positive negative; neutral

ANS: B

Negatively charged electrons are produced by the cathode, and are attracted to the positively charged anode.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 480 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 2. Why is a vacuum environment required for an x-ray tube? a. So the x-ray photons do not blind the operator b. So the x-rays can move fast c. So the x-rays do not produce any heat d. So the x-rays are not dangerous to the operator ANS: B

Any interaction of the electrons with matter will result in slowing down their passage from the cathode to the anode. In order to produce x-rays in adequate supply, the x-ray tube is housed in a vacuum void of any potentially interfering air molecules.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 480 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 3. In radiography, technique refers to a. how the patient is restrained. b. the angle at which the x-ray beams are directed. c. the exposure factors that are set to take a radiograph. d. the manual positioning of the patient.

ANS: C

The techniques are factors that allow for high-quality radiographs to be collected based on the tissue of interest, the thickness of the tissue, and the patient positioning. An x-ray machine-specific technique chart allows for the exposure values (kilovoltage, milliamperage, etc.) to be set based on the thickness of the tissue to be visualized.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 485 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Develop and properly utilize radiographic technique charts 4. Which of the following is not considered one of the “big three” of radiation protection? a. Time b. Distance c. Age d. Shielding ANS: C

Proper methods used to minimize dangerous radiation exposure involve decreasing the number of retakes, increasing the distance the technician is in relation to the x-ray beam, and providing maximal shielding of the technician’s body from radiation.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 504 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 5. This is the precise area of the anode where the electrons liberated from the cathode are

intended to collide. a. Anode ring b. Focusing cup c. Filament d. Focal spot ANS: D

The focal spot, which can change in size due to heating when multiple x-ray exposures are performed, is a pinpoint area that has a direct effect on the details of the radiograph.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 481 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 6. This “effect” is utilized while taking radiographs of a tissue with substantial variability in

thickness from one end to the other. a. Source-image distance effect b. Heel effect c. Scatter effect d. Density effect ANS: B

The heel effect is due to the higher intensity of the x-ray beam on the cathode side of the x-ray tube in comparison to the anode side. This is used as an advantage when radiographing tissues that are not uniformly thick; orienting the thicker position of the tissue nearer the cathode will result in a more uniformly exposed x-ray film.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 483 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 7. In addition to producing films of poor quality, what is the primary problem associated with

scatter radiation? a. Increased radiation exposure to personnel b. Damage to the x-ray tube c. Increased heat at the target d. Costly waste of tungsten at the cathode and anode ANS: A

Scatter radiation occurs when x-ray photons hit tissues and other physical structures and are reflected back outward in many directions. Scatter can overly or unevenly expose a radiograph, but also poses a risk to technicians due to their proximity to the x-ray beam.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 483 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and TpEleSmTenBt AanNdKoS non-radiographic images. | Im bsE erL veLrE ecRo. mC mO enMded radiation safety measures 8. Which of the following radiograph exposure factors controls the speed at which the electrons

are accelerated between the cathode and the anode? a. Milliamperage b. Exposure time c. Kilovoltage peak d. Focal-film distance ANS: C

The kilovoltage peak (kVp) setting regulates the energy of the x-ray beam. This is referred to as “penetrating power” and directly affects the contrast scale of a radiograph, which is the number of gray shades that are visible on a film.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 481|p. 486 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 9. Which of the following radiograph exposure factors involve how long the electrons are

released to allow for an x-ray image to be produced? a. Milliamperage

b. Exposure time c. Kilovoltage peak d. Focal-film distance ANS: B

The exposure time, along with the milliamperage, has a direct impact on the number of x-ray photons that are released to image a tissue. Technicians should try to maximize the milliamperage used to produce an image so that the exposure time is minimized (which will cut down on blur caused by patient motion). This combined factor (milliamperage  time) is called mAs (milliamperage seconds).

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: pp. 485-486 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 10. Which of the following radiograph exposure factors is involved with controlling the number

of x-rays that are produced to allow enough to reach the film cassette? a. Milliamperage b. Exposure time c. Kilovoltage peak d. Focal-film distance ANS: A

The milliamperage controls the number of x-rays that are directed toward an object, while the kilovoltage is the amount of energy required to produce the x-rays.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 485 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 11. Which of the following radiograph exposure factors involves how far or close the x-ray tube is

from the surface of the x-ray detector? a. Milliamperage b. Exposure time c. Kilovoltage peak d. Focal-film distance ANS: D

The Focal-film distance (FFD), or source-image distance (SID), refers to the distance between the target in the x-ray tube and the surface of the film or x-ray detector; it plays a role in the repeatability of exposures. Based on the inverse square law, as you move the x-ray tube twice as far from the x-ray target (i.e., increase FFD), you diminish the exposure strength by a factor of four.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 487 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and

non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 12. This piece of equipment is used to scavenge scatter radiation and allow for higher-quality

films with less undesired radiation exposure. a. x-ray tube b. Amplifying cone c. Grid d. Cassette ANS: C

Grids are made of lead that is organized in thin strips. The grids allow only radiation that is in direct line with the primary beam to pass through, thereby absorbing all scattered and reflected radiation and preventing their interaction with the radiograph cassette.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 487 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 13. What is the primary advantage of digital radiography in comparison to film-based methods? a. Cost savings b. Less labor involved c. No radiation exposure d. Decreased retakes ANS: D

Digital radiography allowsTfE orSpToB stA -eN xpKoS suErL eL enEhR an.cC em OeMnt of the images. This decreases the number of retakes required due to incorrect exposures or positioning.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 490 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 14. The use of the Internet has allowed for collaboration between veterinarians and radiologists

through the transmission of electronic images. This activity is called a. conference call. b. e-mail. c. teleradiology. d. interradiologic communication efforts (ICE).

ANS: C

The advent of Internet-based communication has benefited radiology by allowing instant, virtual sharing of digitalized radiographs with specialists throughout the world. Previously, diagnoses were delayed by the mail transit time required to send and receive physical radiographs.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1

REF: pp. 491-492

TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 15. This type of x-ray intensifying screen is characterized as requiring lowered amounts of

radiation to produce an image, but often results in images of diminished detail. a. Fast b. Slow c. Wide d. Thin ANS: A

Fast intensifying screens are composed of thick layers of phosphor and large crystals that increase the screen’s overall light-absorption capability, thus allowing for decreased patient exposure to radiation. These screens are ideal for thick tissues that otherwise would require excessive increases in radiation exposure.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 494 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 16. X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation that have characteristics similar to visible light,

radio signals, and television signals, but with a much the x-ray beam more energy in comparison to visible light. a. longer b. shorter c. stronger d. weaker

wavelength, thus giving

ANS: B

X-rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation that have characteristics similar to visible light, radio signals, and television signals, but with a much shorter wavelength. The shorter wavelength gives the x-ray beam more energy in comparison to visible light, and makes it capable of penetrating tissues and affecting x-ray detectors and fluorescent screens.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 480 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 17. The

that is applied to the filament in an x-ray tube determines the number of electrons that are produced. a. amount of energy b. amount of heat c. amount of rotation d. amount of pressure ANS: B

When the filament is heated to a critical temperature, electrons are boiled off and create an electron cloud within the focusing cup. The amount of heat that is applied to the filament determines the number of electrons that are produced.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 480 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 18. The filament inside an x-ray tube is much like the filament on the inside of a light bulb. It is

made of a a. silver-coated metal. b. PYREX envelope c. tungsten alloy d. radioactive element

.

ANS: C

The cathode is the negatively charged side of the tube that contains one or two filaments enclosed in the focusing cup. The filament is much like the filament on the inside of a light bulb. It is made of a tungsten alloy, a metal that has a high atomic number and a high melting point.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: pp. 480-481 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and TpEleSmTenBt AraNdiKogSrE non-radiographic images. | Im apL hiL cE quRa. litC yO coMntrol measures 19. The acceleration of electrons in an x-ray tube is controlled by the

applied between the cathode and the anode. a. kilovoltage peak (kVp) b. temperature (F) c. milliamperage (mA) d. amperage (amp) ANS: A

The acceleration is controlled by the kilovoltage peak (kVp) applied between the cathode and the anode.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 481 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 20. Using a small (11 degree) angle for the target in an x-ray tube allows for a narrower beam and

. a. more image detail b. greater area of image formation c. better ability to dissipate heat

d. less image detail ANS: A

If the angle of the target was greater than 11 degrees, the effective focal spot (beam) would be wider, resulting in less sharpness of the image. Using a small angle allows for a narrower beam and more image detail.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: pp. 481-482 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 21. When using x-ray units that have stationary anodes, such as those found in dental equipment,

technicians must pay close attention to the indicators on the machine to ensure . a. enough electricity is being used b. the source-image distance is great enough c. enough heat has dissipated between exposures d. there is no movement of the anode ANS: C

Stationary anodes are found in dental x-ray machines and in the small, portable units used by large-animal veterinarians in the field to image animal extremities. Stationary anodes are constructed so that the tungsten target is embedded in a block of copper. The copper is used to absorb and diffuse the tremendous amount of heat generated by the interaction of the electron beam with the target area. However, the amount of heat that is dissipated pales in comparison to the amount of heat that iTs E prSoT duBcA edNdKuSriE ngLL x-E raRy.pC roO dM uction, so the technician must pay close attention to the indicators on the machine to ensure that enough heat has been dissipated between exposures.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 482 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 22. Rotating anode x-ray machines have a two-step exposure switch. The first step of the switch

, and the second step of the switch activates the high-voltage circuit, accelerating the electrons across the tube, allowing for x-ray production. a. warms the anode up b. starts the anode rotating c. stabilizes movement of the anode d. opens the anode ANS: B

Rotating anode x-ray machines have a two-step exposure switch. The first step of the switch starts the anode rotating, and the second step of the switch activates the high-voltage circuit, accelerating the electrons across the tube, allowing for x-ray production.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task:

PTS: 1 REF: p. 482 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 23. Always place the

of the area being x-rayed toward the cathode side of

the x-ray tube. a. thinnest part b. thickest part c. most moveable part d. most stable part ANS: B

By placing the thickest part of the area being x-rayed toward the cathode side of the x-ray tube, the technician can take advantage of the “heel effect.” The heel effect is due to the higher intensity of the x-ray beam on the cathode side of the x-ray tube in comparison to the anode side. This is taken advantage of when radiographing tissues that are not uniformly thick; orienting the thicker position of the tissue nearer the cathode will result in a more uniformly exposed x-ray film.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 483 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 24.

is lower-energy x-ray photons that have undergone a change in direction after interacting with structures T inEtS heTpBaA tieNnK t’S sE boLdL yE orRa.nC ytO hiMng else in the path of the primary beam. a. The heel effect b. Scatter radiation c. High-energy radiation d. The shadow effect ANS: B

Scatter radiation is lower-energy x-ray photons that have undergone a change in direction after interacting with structures in the patient’s body or anything else in the path of the primary beam.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 483 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 25. Which of the following statements regarding portable x-ray units is the least accurate? a. Most are used in equine extremity radiography. b. Most have a rotating anode. c. Some models require an electrical outlet for power. d. They never should be hand-held while taking an image.

ANS: B

Most portable x-rays units are used in equine extremity radiography, and all have stationary (versus rotating) anodes. Some models may be battery operated, while others may require an electrical outlet for power. From a safety perspective, portable x-ray units never should be hand held. Hand-holding an x-ray machine not only places the operator close to the x-ray tube, thereby increasing the technician’s radiation exposure, it also decreases the film quality because of tube motion while taking the image.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 482|p. 484 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 26. The veterinary technician is responsible for selecting an x-ray technique that will produce a

diagnostic-quality radiograph. Factors that must be selected include all of the following except a. length of exposure. b. milliamperage. c. frequency of wavelength. d. kilovoltage peak.

ANS: C

The veterinary technician is responsible for selecting an x-ray technique that will produce a diagnostic-quality radiograph. Factors that must be selected include the length of exposure, milliamperage, and kilovoltage peak.

VTNE Domain 6: DiagnosTtiE cS ImTaB gA inN g;KCSVETLELAESRk. ilC l aOnM d Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 485 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 27. Since both exposure time and milliamperage affect the number of photons created, you should

always use the arrive at the desired mAs. a. highest; lowest b. lowest; highest c. lowest; lowest d. highest; highest

milliamperage setting and the

time setting to

ANS: A

Since both exposure time and milliamperage affect the number of photons created, and because you want the shortest exposure time possible so that blur caused by patient motion is minimized, you should always use the highest milliamperage setting and the lowest time setting to arrive at the desired mAs. VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 486 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and

non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 28. Using

settings produces a higher-contrast image (more black and white in appearance with few grays) because the beam is more discriminating. a. high kVp b. low kVp c. high Sievert d. low Sievert ANS: B

Using low kVp settings produces a higher-contrast image (more black and white in appearance with few grays) because the beam is more discriminating than a beam with a high kVp. VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 486 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 29.

setting is used more for affecting the scale of contrast on a radiograph than for controlling the density. a. The mAs b. The milliamperage c. The kilovoltage peak d. The focal-film distance ANS: C

The kilovoltage setting is used more for affecting the scale of contrast on a radiograph than for controlling the density. Contrast is necessary to differentiate anatomic structures in an image.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 486 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 30. The technician can change the density of the image by adjusting either the

of x-ray photons) or the a. mAs; rads b. mAs; kVp c. kVp; mAs d. kVp; rads

(total number

(energy of the x-ray).

ANS: B

The technician can change the density of the image by changing the total number of x-ray photons (mAs) or the energy of the x-ray (kVp).

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1

REF: p. 486

TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 31. What is the equation that is used to estimate the amount of kVp needed to produce a

diagnostic-quality x-ray image for a given thickness of tissue? a. (thickness of tissue in cm) + distance = kVp b. (2  mAs) + (2  thickness of tissue in cm) = kVp c. (2  thickness of tissue in cm) + distance = kVp d. (thickness of tissue in cm) + (2  mAs) = kVp ANS: C

To estimate the amount of kVp needed to provide adequate contrast when radiographing a given thickness of tissue, a mathematical equation known as Sante’s Rule is used: (2  thickness of tissue in cm) + distance = kVp This equation assumes that the technician has measured the patient correctly and that the cassette is placed on top of the table.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: pp. 486-487 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 32. The inverse square law states that the intensity of the x-ray beam at a given point is inversely

proportional to the square of the distance from the x-ray source. Therefore, the results of changing the focal-film distance are similar to changing the . a. mAs b. milliamperage c. kilovoltage peak d. exposure time ANS: A

The inverse square law states that the intensity of the x-ray beam (quantity of x-ray photons) at a given point is inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the x-ray source.

In other words, an increase in distance from the x-ray source decreases the number of x-rays reaching the film, and vice versa. Therefore, the results of changing the focal-film distance would be similar to changing the mAs. VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 487 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 33. The purpose of a grid is to allow only the a. b. c. d.

from reaching the film. scatter radiation; primary x-ray beam primary x-ray beam; scatter radiation primary x-ray beam; heel radiation scatter radiation; heel radiation

to pass through, thereby preventing

ANS: B

The purpose of a grid is to allow only the primary x-ray beam to pass through, thereby preventing scatter radiation from reaching the film.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 487 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 34. The grid is most useful when parts of the body that cause considerable scatter radiation are

imaged. In practice, this includes a. thin parts of the body. b. moveable parts of the body. c. thick parts of the body. d. body parts with uneven thickness.

ANS: C

The grid is most useful when parts of the body that cause considerable scatter radiation are imaged. In practice, this includes all thick parts of the body (e.g., thorax, abdomen, skull) and those joints and bones of thickness in excess of 10 cm.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 487 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 35. The disadvantage of using a grid is that a. some absorption of the primary beam will also occur b. the part being x-rayed must be relatively thin c. the FFD must be increased d. some absorption of the scatter radiation will also occur

.

ANS: A

The disadvantage of using a grid is that some absorption of the primary beam will also occur.

To compensate for the reduced radiation reaching the film, the exposure time used must be increased in order to get the correct amount of density on the radiograph.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 488 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 36. A technique chart is formulated by a series of trial-and-error exposures. It is necessary,

however, to standardize as many variable factors as possible before starting trial exposures.

Factors that must be standardized include a. dark room technique. b. type of film used. c. FFD.

d. all of the above.

ANS: D

A technique chart is formulated by a series of trial-and-error exposures. It is necessary, however, to standardize as many variable factors as possible before starting trial exposures.

Factors such as the type of cassette and intensifying screen, type of x-ray film, and focal-film distance must be constant. A grid should be used if available. Darkroom procedures must be standardized to include fresh solution and the developing time recommended by the manufacturer based on the temperature of the solution. All of these factors should be constant, since the technique chart will only work under conditions for which it was formulated.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 489 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Develop and properly utilize radiographic technique charts 37. When radiographing anatomical areas of the patient that have tissue thickness greater than a. b. c. d.

, a grid should be used.

1 cm 3 cm 5 cm 10 cm

ANS: D

When radiographing anatomical areas of the patient that have tissue thickness greater than 10 cm, a grid should be placed between the patient and the film cassette.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 489 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 38. In

, an x-ray tube coupled to a specialized detector panel that changes x-rays into electrical signals is used. The analogue image is digitalized and displayed on the integrated computer screen. a. computed radiography (CR) b. digital radiography (DR) c. computed tomography (CT) d. direct radiography (DR) ANS: B

In digital radiography (DR), an x-ray tube coupled to a specialized detector panel that changes x-rays into electrical signals is used. The analogue image is digitalized and displayed on the integrated computer screen.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 490 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures

39. The time required for image acquisition with computed radiography (CR) is

with

digital radiography (DR). a. shorter than b. longer than c. equivalent d. set on the machine and does not vary as ANS: B

CR is similar to DR except that an x-ray detector similar to a cassette is used and must be processed in a special machine. The special cassette contains a photostimulable phosphor that changes x-ray photons into a latent electronic image that is “read” by the processor and transferred to the computer. This makes the time required for image acquisition with CR slightly longer than with DR. VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: pp. 490-491 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 40. CR and DR to produce an image compared with film radiography. a. do not use less radiation b. use less radiation c. do not use less equipment d. use less equipment ANS: A

CR and DR do not use less radiation to produce an image compared with film radiography, and the same principles of radiation protection apply.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 491 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 41.

is a universal digital image format that has allowed for digital images to be shared between different vendors’ software. This makes sending electronic images to other locations, such as hospitals or specialists, much more efficient. a. RIS b. PACS c. DICOM d. HIS ANS: C

DICOM, which stands for “digital imaging and communication in medicine,” is a universal digital image format that has allowed for digital images to be shared between different vendors’ software. This makes sending electronic images to other locations (teleradiology), such as to hospitals or specialists, much more efficient.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: pp. 491-492 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 42.

will result in too few x-ray photons striking the detector panel (in the case of DR) or the imaging plate (in the case of CR), leading to production of a grainy image with poor resolution (an effect known as “quantum mottle” or “noise”). a. Low mAS b. Decreased FFD c. Severe underexposure d. Severe overexposure ANS: C

Severe underexposure will result in too few x-ray photons striking the detector panel (in the case of DR) or the imaging plate (in the case of CR), leading to production of a grainy image with poor resolution (an effect known as “quantum mottle” or “noise”).

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 491 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 43. A non-screen cassette is a direct-exposure cassette in which the film is placed in a cardboard

cassette or a plastic film holder, and is used when great detail is needed for an examination.

The disadvantage of this tyTpE eS ofTcB asAsN etK teSsE ysL teLmEiR s. thC atOitMrequires a. a shorter exposure time than that of a regular par screen cassette system. b. a longer exposure time than that of a regular par screen cassette system. c. that the patient not be sedated. d. personnel to restrain the patient.

ANS: B

A non-screen cassette is a direct-exposure cassette in which the film is placed in a cardboard cassette or a plastic film holder. This non-rigid system must be light-proof and is used when great detail is needed for an examination. The disadvantage of this type of cassette is that it requires a longer exposure time than that of a regular par screen cassette system. Non-screen exposures, which are used primarily for intraoral occlusal studies and studies of the nasal cavity, should be used only when the animal is placed under general anesthesia or heavy sedation to stop motion, and when no personnel are required for restraint.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: pp. 492-493 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 44.

are the smooth, shiny, white inner surfaces of the film cassette. They are made of layers of tiny crystals bonded together on a plastic support and covered with a protective coating. These crystals fluoresce, or emit light, after exposure to x-rays.

a. b. c. d.

Intensifying screens Grids Calipers Scatter screens

ANS: A

Intensifying screens are the smooth, shiny, white inner surfaces of the film cassette. They are made of layers of tiny crystals bonded together on a plastic support and covered with a protective coating. These crystals fluoresce, or emit light, after exposure to x-rays.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 493 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 45. Slower or detail screens have relatively

. This results in less light generated by the screen, requiring more radiation to produce a radiograph of sufficient density. a. large crystals and are less efficient at light conversion b. small crystals and are more efficient at light conversion c. small crystals and are less efficient at light conversion d. large crystals and are more efficient at light conversion ANS: C

Slower or detail screens have smaller crystals than fast screens and are less efficient at light conversion. This results in less light generated by the screen, requiring more radiation to produce a radiograph of suT ffE icS ieT ntBdAeN nsKitS y.ELLER.COM VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 494 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 46.

are advantageous for veterinary radiography because they require fewer x-rays to produce a diagnostic radiograph. a. Tungsten screens b. Rare earth screens c. Calcium tungstate screens d. Slower speed screens ANS: B

Rare earth screens are advantageous for veterinary radiography because they require fewer x-rays to produce a diagnostic radiograph. This reduced exposure time means lower radiation doses to the patient and technician, fewer retakes because of patient motion, and longer x-ray tube life.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 494 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and

non-radiographic images. | Implement and observe recommended radiation safety measures 47. When more than one image is exposed on one cassette, this is referred to as “splitting” the

cassette, and requires that a. the x-ray beam is centered on the middle of the cassette. b. both views are facing the same direction on the film. c. the collimation covers the entire cassette. d. a sheet of calcium tungstate is placed over the portion of the cassette not being exposed.

ANS: B

When radiographing extremities using a tabletop setting, the cassette may be divided to expose more than one image on one cassette. This is achieved by placing a sheet of lead over the portion of the cassette that is not being exposed. The body part being radiographed is then positioned on the opposite side, and the beam is collimated to fit the area of the cassette being exposed. When the first exposure is complete, the body part is moved to the unexposed side and the lead is placed over the area that was just exposed to prevent double exposure. The rules to “splitting” a cassette are as follows: (1) Both views must be facing the same direction on the film; (2) there should be enough room on the cassette to include all anatomic areas needed for diagnosis; and (3) the cassette should be placed on the tabletop to ensure proper alignment and collimation of the views.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 505 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures

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48. Positive contrast media are those that appear a. black b. radiopaque c. white d. radiolucent

on the film.

ANS: C

Positive contrast media are those that appear white or radiopaque on the film. Negative contrast media appear black or radiolucent.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 507 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 49.

is a positive contrast media that absorbs a large amount of radiation, resulting in greatly increased radiographic opacity. It is used almost exclusively for upper and lower gastrointestinal examinations. a. Iothalamate b. Barium sulfate c. Diatrizoate d. Lopamidol

ANS: B

Barium sulfate is a positive contrast media that absorbs a large amount of radiation, resulting in greatly increased radiographic opacity (whiteness). It is used almost exclusively for upper and lower gastrointestinal (GI) examinations. Barium sulfate is inert, non-absorbed, and does not alter the physiologic function of the GI tract, which makes it useful for viewing serial films that show GI function.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 507 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 50. Ionic iodides used in contrast radiography are essentially hyperosmolar salt solutions, so when

used intravascularly they can result in a(n) followed by an osmotic diuresis. a. stabilization b. fluctuation c. increase d. decrease

of intravascular fluid volume

ANS: C

Ionic iodides are essentially hyperosmolar salt solutions, so when used intravascularly they can result in an increase in intravascular fluid volume followed by an osmotic diuresis.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 507 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 51. The newest class of positive contrast agents includes the nonionic organic iodides that can be

used myelography. a. subdurally b. intrathecally c. intracranially d. intercranially

(injected into the cerebrospinal fluid space around the spinal cord) for

ANS: B

Nonionic organic iodides can be used intrathecally (injected into the cerebrospinal fluid space around the spinal cord) for myelography, as well as everywhere that ionic iodides can be used.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 507 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 52. Some studies require the use of double contrast, which utilizes both a positive and negative

contrast medium to better view a structure. These studies are generally done

.

a. b. c. d.

intra-articularly to distend hollow structures in the body for fistulography intrathecally

ANS: B

Some studies require the use of double contrast, which utilizes both a positive and negative contrast medium to better view a structure. The negative medium is introduced first to inflate the structure, followed by the positive medium to better delineate mucosal detail. Double contrast is used in gastrography and cystography.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: pp. 507-508 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 53. The frequencies used in veterinary diagnostic ultrasound examination range from 2.5 to 12

megahertz (MHz). The frequencies at the higher end of the range produce sound waves, which provide increased image resolution but decreased patient penetration. a. Longer b. Shorter c. Faster d. Slower ANS: B

As the frequency of sound increases, the wavelength decreases. The frequencies used in NiKnaStiEoL veterinary diagnostic ultrasToE unSdTeBxA am nL raE ngRe.fC roO mM2.5 to 12 megahertz (MHz). The shorter (higher frequency) sound waves provide increased image resolution but decreased patient penetration.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 508 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Implement radiographic quality control measures 54. When performing an ultrasound examination, the transducer (the hand-held device used

during the examination) acts as a. the sound transmitter. b. the sound receiver. c. the energy source. d. both the sound transmitter and the receiver.

ANS: D

When performing an ultrasound examination, the transducer (the hand-held device used during the examination) acts as both the sound transmitter and the receiver.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 508 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and

non-radiographic images. | Use and care of ultrasonography equipment 55. In ultrasonography,

are the result of the sound wave bending as it crosses areas

of differing tissue densities. a. Reflection and scattering b. Refraction and diffraction c. Attenuation or weakening d. Absorption and heat generation ANS: B

In ultrasonography, refraction and diffraction are the result of the sound wave bending as it crosses areas of differing tissue densities.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 508 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Use and care of ultrasonography equipment 56. Sound reflection, or echo production, forms the basis of the ultrasound image. An echo is

produced whenever the ultrasound beam crosses an acoustic interface (the boundary between two tissues of differing acoustic impedances). The more different two adjacent tissues are, the will be the echo reflection between them. a. more hypoechoic b. darker c. greater d. lesser ANS: C

Sound reflection, or echo production, forms the basis of the ultrasound image. An echo is produced whenever the ultrasound beam crosses an acoustic interface (the boundary between two tissues of differing acoustic impedances). The more different two adjacent tissues are, the greater will be the echo reflection between them.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 508|p. 511 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Use and care of ultrasonography equipment 57. Because 100% of the sound is reflected when the ultrasound beam intersects air, and because

the patient’s hair traps air, an ultrasound examination on an animal that has not been clipped or on which a generous amount of ultrasound gel has not been applied will yield a/an a. hypoechoic image b. anechoic image c. isoechoic image d. hyperechoic image ANS: D

Hair traps air, and if the patient is not clipped prior to an ultrasound examination, or if a generous amount of ultrasound gel has not been applied, most of the beam would be reflected before it ever enters the animal, producing a hyperechoic image. Ultrasound gel is beneficial for displacing air and coupling the transducer to the skin.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: pp. 511-512 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Use and care of ultrasonography equipment 58.

occurs when the ultrasound beam hits gas or air. Because of the large drop in acoustic impedance (at the soft tissue/air interface), the entire ultrasound beam is reflected back to the transducer, a portion of which bounces off the transducer and reenters the patient’s body. This occurs repeatedly and appears on the screen as a set of bright parallel lines that are the same distance from each other. a. A shadowing artifact b. A reverberation artifact c. An acoustic enhancement d. A through-transmission artifact ANS: B

A reverberation artifact occurs when the ultrasound beam hits gas or air. Because of the large drop in acoustic impedance (at the soft tissue/air interface), the entire ultrasound beam is reflected to the transducer, a portion of which bounces off the transducer and reenters the patient’s body. This occurs repeatedly and appears on the screen as a set of bright parallel lines that are the same distT anEcS eT froBm eaKcS hE otL heLrE .R erO beMration artifacts are also referred to as AN Re.vC “comet tails.”

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 512 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Use and care of ultrasonography equipment 59.

, forms the basis for two-dimensional ultrasound imaging.

Returning echoes are displayed as dots on the image screen. The brightness of the dot is a function of the strength of the returning echo. a. A-mode, or amplitude mode b. B-mode, or brightness mode c. F-mode, or field-motion (FM) mode d. M-mode, or time-motion (TM) mode ANS: B

B-mode, or brightness mode, forms the basis for two-dimensional ultrasound imaging.

Returning echoes are displayed as dots on the image screen. The brightness of the dot is a function of the strength of the returning echo.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1

REF: p. 511

TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Use and care of ultrasonography equipment 60. Which of the following transducers would be most appropriate for performing an abdominal

ultrasound examination on a cat? a. 3 MHz b. 5 MHz c. 7.5 MHz d. 10 MHz ANS: C

For performing abdominal ultrasonography on a small dog (15 kg or less) or a cat, a 7.5-MHz transducer is ideal. For medium- to large-sized dogs, and for non-reproductive large animal imaging, a 5-MHz transducer works well. Both 3- and 5-MHz linear array transducers are used extensively for transrectal large animal reproductive ultrasonography.

VTNE Domain 6: Diagnostic Imaging; CVTEA Skill and Task: PTS: 1 REF: p. 511 TOP: VTNE Domain: Diagnostic Imaging MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Imaging: Safely and effectively produce diagnostic radiographic and non-radiographic images. | Use and care of ultrasonography equipment

Chapter 17: Basic Necropsy Procedures Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What is the accepted term for the examination of an animal after death? a. Autopsy b. Necropsy c. Premortem evaluation d. Diagnostic database ANS: B

Necropsy translates to “viewing the dead” and is reserved for postmortem evaluation of an animal carcass. The term autopsy is reserved for humans.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 519 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 2. Which of the following is not a reasonable justification for performing a necropsy? a. Want to follow up and determine if a diagnosis was valid. b. Want to evaluate if a therapy was effective. c. Want to identify a disease without contacting the owner. d. Want to determine the cause of death.

ANS: C

In addition to A, B, and D,TnE ecSrT opBsA ieN s aKrS eE peLrfLoE rmRe. dCtoOdMetermine which disease processes lead to the animal’s death. Necropsy should only be performed with proper owner permission, and should be done under the supervision of a veterinarian.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 519 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 3. Prior to performing a necropsy, the animal’s species, breed, and sex are recorded. Which

component of the animal’s signalment is missing from this information? a. Weight b. Pregnancy status c. Age d. Litter number ANS: C

The signalment includes the species, breed, sex, and age of the animal. It is extremely important to identify each of these factors to include in the case history while performing a necropsy and when submitting tissue for evaluation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 519 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 4. Which of the following is true regarding postmortem autolysis of a carcass?

a. b. c. d.

Large animals undergo autolysis faster than smaller animals.

The animal’s body should be frozen prior to necropsy.

The intestine tends to resist postmortem autolysis.

Autolysis is not a major concern in visualizing a body postmortem.

ANS: A

Autolysis is the decomposition of the tissues of a carcass that occurs very rapidly after death, and it makes accurate visualization of the pathologic processes in an animal difficult. Large animals hold in more body temperature than do their smaller counterparts, which leads to faster decomposition of the tissues. If the necropsy must be delayed, the body should be refrigerated as soon as possible. However, the body should not be frozen, because freezing and subsequent thawing cause postmortem artifacts in the tissues being analyzed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 520 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 5. Which of the following would be inappropriate for a technician to note on a postmortem

submission form? a. 2 cm  3 cm subcutaneous mass b. Unifocal lipoma c. White on cut surface d. Located on right lateral thorax ANS: B

The technician must use care to report the necropsy findings without drawing conclusions as to a diagnosis. Indicating that the mass is a lipoma constitutes a diagnosis, which requires analysis by a trained veteriT naErS iaT n.BANKSELLER.COM PTS: 1 REF: p. 521 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 6. What is the standard fixative used to submit tissues for histopathology? a. 10% formalin b. 10% bleach c. Deionized water d. 50% acetic acid ANS: A

Buffered (containing monobasic and dibasic sodium phosphate) formalin diluted to 10% is effective for fixing tissues for transport and subsequent analysis by diagnostic laboratory personnel.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 523 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures

7. A technician prepares a postmortem submission to the regional diagnostic lab as follows: A

2.5 cm  2.5 cm  4 cm section of liver was placed in 250 ml of 10% neutral buffered formalin and sealed in a plastic screw-top bottle, which then was double bagged. A second similarly sized sample was collected for fresh tissue analysis. Freezer packs were placed around the fresh tissue sample, and both samples were shipped by overnight delivery to the laboratory. What is the problem with this submission? a. The tissues should be frozen. b. The fixative should be 50%. c. Too much fixative was included in the sample. d. The samples were too thick.

ANS: D

Proper fixation of tissues requires that the sample be at most 1 cm thick in order for the formalin to penetrate the entire sample. The 4-cm thickness used in this scenario will impede the formalin from reaching the inner portions of the liver. Similarly, fresh tissue samples should no thicker than 1 cm (tissue sections of 2 cm  3 cm  1 cm are desirable). In this scenario, the 250 mL volume of 10% formalin is appropriately 10X the tissue volume. Fifty percent formalin is reserved for the preservation of whole brains, intact spinal cords, and bones.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 523|p. 525 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 8. Which of the following fresh tissues should be collected last for microbiological testing, such

as for bacterial culture? a. Brain b. Lung c. Intestine d. Liver ANS: C

The high load of bacterial microflora present in the intestine easily contaminates other fresh tissues that are being collected for eventual culture. Because of this, intestinal sections should be collected last, tied off at each end to prevent leakage of internal contents, and submitted in their own sampling container.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 523 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 9. Which tissue should be submitted in a case where rabies infection is suspected? a. Spinal cord b. Brain c. Salivary glands d. Entire head ANS: D

The entire head should be removed by an individual trained in collecting samples associated with zoonotic diseases, and who has been preimmunized against rabies. Some states require removal of the brain before submission to the laboratory for animals larger than a large dog (horses, cattle, etc.).

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 523-524 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 10. Which of the following is not considered one of the three major body cavities? a. Pleural b. Peritoneal c. Pericardial d. Periosteal ANS: D

Periosteal describes a location surrounding bone, which is a specific location but not a body cavity.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 529 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 11. When examining the gallbladder on necropsy, why should it be gently squeezed? a. To ensure that the gallbladder is producing bile. b. To determine the patency of the bile duct. c. To identify ulcers in the gallbladder. d. To identify weak layerT s oEfSthTeBgAalNlbKlaSdE deLrLwEaR ll..COM ANS: B

With gentle squeezing, bile will be released from the gallbladder and will enter the intestine via the bile duct. This indicates that the connection is patent and not disrupted.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 533 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 12. It is important to observe the appearance of the intestine, both inside and out. The outer

surface of the intestine is the surface. a. serosal; pleural b. mucosal, serosal c. serosal; mucosal d. pleural; serosal

surface, while the inner surface is the

ANS: C

The serosal surface is the outermost layer of the intestine, while the mucosal surface is the innermost layer. It is important to visualize both of these surfaces when examining intestinal sections.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 534 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis

of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 13. If a bird is suspected of being infected with a zoonotic disease, submit a. the whole bird. b. just the head. c. just a blood sample. d. tissues transected during a traditional necropsy.

ANS: A

The safest way to handle a necropsy on a bird that is potentially infected with a zoonotic pathogen is to submit the entire bird carcass directly to the diagnostic laboratory. This prevents the practitioner or technician from being exposed to the infectious agent.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 538 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 14. When performing a bovine necropsy, how should the carcass be presented? a. Right lateral recumbency b. Left lateral recumbency c. Dorsal recumbency d. Ventral recumbency ANS: B

By positioning the bovine on its left side, the rumen is positioned downward and out of the way of the rest of the abdominal tissues. The large rumen size can obscure visualization and manipulation of the tissues of the remaining stomachs, intestinal tract, liver, gallbladder, and urogenital tract.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 535-536 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 15. Which of the following represents proper technique when examining the kidneys postmortem? a. Only one kidney should be removed and sectioned. b. The kidney should be separated from the ureter at the renal pelvis. c. The kidney should be sliced longitudinally. d. The capsule should remain intact on both kidneys.

ANS: C

In order to identify any lesions in the kidney, the tissue is sliced through in a longitudinal fashion, and the capsule is peeled away from one-half of the organ. This allows for the observation of all areas of the kidney, including the cortex, medulla, pelvis, and the external surface.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 534 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 16.

refers to pathologic changes in tissue that are visible with the unaided eye. a. Histopathology b. Chemopathology

c. Cytopathology d. Gross pathology ANS: D

Gross pathology refers to pathologic changes in tissue that are visible with the unaided eye, whereas histopathology refers to pathologic changes in tissue that can be seen only with the use of a microscope.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 519 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 17. Fixed tissues are tissues preserved in fixative solutions to prevent further decomposition

(autolysis) after sample collection or death of the animal. Fixed tissues are routinely collected for _. a. gross pathology b. histopathology c. culture and sensitivity d. bacteriology ANS: B

Fixed tissues are tissues preserved in fixative solutions to prevent further decomposition (autolysis) after sample collection or death of the animal. Fixed tissues are routinely collected for histopathology.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 521 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | PeT rfoErS mTnB ecA roN psKySpE roL ceLdur es.COM ER 18. Formalin (and all fixatives) should be handled with care. Formalin is a contact irritant and a

carcinogen. Which of the following precautions is needed when handling formalin? a. Protective plastic gloves and eye protection should be worn. b. Containers with fixatives should be kept closed before and after tissue placement. c. Handle and use in a well-ventilated space. d. all of the above should be applied.

ANS: D

Formalin (and all fixatives) should be handled with care. Formalin is a contact irritant and a carcinogen.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 523 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 19. Tissues for

are collected aseptically and may be refrigerated in a sterile container or immersed in sterile 50% buffered glycerol in sterile containers and preserved by freezing. a. bacteriology b. histopathology c. virus isolation d. rabies isolation ANS: C

Tissues for virus isolation are collected aseptically and may be refrigerated in a sterile container or immersed in sterile 50% buffered glycerol in sterile containers and preserved by freezing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 523 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 20. An adequate sample of fecal material, about

, placed in a leak-proof, labeled container is an easy sample to collect at the time of necropsy. a. 5 g b. 15 g c. 30 g d. 50 g ANS: B

An adequate sample of fecal material, about 15 g or one tablespoon, placed in a leak-proof, labeled container is an easy sample to collect.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 524 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 21. During a necropsy, each part of the carcass is first examined a. perimorteum b. by dissection c. in situ d. in vivo

.

ANS: C

During a necropsy, each part of the carcass is first examined “in situ” (in its normal place), as it first appears in the carcass. It then is isolated from the carcass and examined as a whole.

Finally, it is dissected and examined.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 526 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 22. Which of the following is not a lymph node routinely examined during a necropsy? a. Popliteal b. Inguinal c. Axillary d. Atlanto-occipital ANS: D

Lymph nodes routinely examined during a necropsy are the mandibular, superficial cervical, prescapular, axillary, inguinal, and popliteal lymph nodes. Atlanto-occipital pertains to a joint.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 527|p. 529 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures

23. Bone marrow samples are obtained by cracking the upper midshaft a. scapula b. manubrium c. femur d. rib

.

ANS: C

Bone marrow samples for impression smears or histopathologic examination are obtained by cracking the upper midshaft femur with pruning shears.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 529 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 24. The abdomen is opened by making a midline incision from the sternum to the symphysis

pubis, and by making incisions laterally from the sternum along both caudal costal margins.

Costal margins refer to a. striations between abdominal muscle layers. b. borders of the ribs. c. borders of the diaphragm. d. striations between the linea alba.

ANS: B

Costal margins refer to the borders of the ribs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 529|p. 536 TOP: VTNE Domain: LaboT raE toS ryTPB roAceNdK urS esELLER.COM MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 25. It is necessary to cut or disarticulate the

dorsal to the pharynx to free the tongue,

larynx, pharynx, trachea, and esophagus as a unit. a. mandibular symphysis b. hard palate c. hyoid bones d. temporomandibular joint ANS: C

It is necessary to cut or disarticulate the hyoid bones dorsal to the pharynx to free the tongue, larynx, pharynx, trachea, and esophagus as a unit.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 529 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 26. When exposing the brain at necropsy, three cuts are made. The first is a transverse cut through

the a. b. c. d.

bones, made immediately caudal to the orbits. nasal occipital frontal zygomatic

ANS: C

The calvaria (the domelike portion of the cranium) and caudal wall of the cranial cavity are removed from the skull as a unit, exposing the dorsum of the brain. Three cuts are made to accomplish this, the first of which is a transverse cut through the frontal bones, made immediately caudal to the orbits.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 530 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 27. The large hole in the occipital bone at the caudal end of the skull through which the brainstem

becomes continuous with the spinal cord is called the a. infraorbital foramen. b. external meatus. c. magnum meatus. d. foramen magnum.

ANS: D

This structure is called the foramen magnum (“large hole”).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 530|p. 537 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 28. The are the three membranes that cover the brain. a. Mediastinum b. Meninges c. Myometirum d. Mesenchyma ANS: B

The meninges are the three membranes that cover the brain. They are examined in situ.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 530 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 29. Beginning at the atlas, the right and left laminae of each vertebra are cut with bone shears or,

in larger specimens, with the Stryker saw. This procedure is done during a necropsy to reveal the a. pharynx. b. spinal cord. c. mesentery. d. diaphragm.

ANS: B

The spinal cord is covered dorsally by the vertebral arches; each arch consists of a right and a left lamina, which unite to form the dorsal spinous process (spine). Beginning at the atlas, the right and left laminae of each vertebra are cut with bone shears or, in larger specimens, with the Stryker saw.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 535 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 30. During necropsy, encountering a distended gastrointestinal tract is more likely in a. large dogs. b. cattle. c. laboratory animals. d. swine.

ANS: B

In cattle, which rely on gut fermentation for their nutrients, the rumen continues to generate heat long after the animal’s death. If the rumen is severely distended with gas, a tiny nick in the wall will release the gas without causing excessive contamination.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 520|p. 535 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 31. In ruminants, various circumstances (such as legal mandates or the presence of neurologic

disease) may require tissue sample collection for a. mycoplasmosis disease b. prion disease c. TB disease d. Johne’s disease

testing.

ANS: B

In ruminants, various circumstances (such as legal mandates or the presence of neurologic disease) may require sample collection for prion disease testing. Prions are unconventional infectious agents that are proteins (i.e., neither bacterial nor viral) with an insidious mode of transmission. Abnormal prions are the cause of fatal neurodegenerative diseases, such as bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE; “mad cow disease”), which affects cattle as well as humans. In these cases, the brainstem, pharyngeal lymph nodes, and sometimes the tonsils are collected during necropsy.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 537 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 32. All joints of the appendicular skeleton should be opened during an equine necropsy. With that

said, the a. carpus b. fetlock c. pastern d. coffin

joint is the most difficult joint to access.

ANS: D

All joints of the appendicular skeleton should be opened during an equine necropsy. With that said, the coffin joint is the most difficult joint to access, but access is easier if the foot can be split (with a saw), which also facilitates examination of the hoof wall lamina.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 537 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 33. Because of the herd implications of the disease

, it is customary to

examine the nasal turbinates of market-weight pigs during necropsy. a. erysipelas b. rabies c. atrophic rhinitis d. Pasteurella bronchiseptica ANS: C

It is customary to examine the nasal turbinates of market-weight pigs during necropsy.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 537 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 34. To determine the gestational age of dead fetuses from cattle and horses, the

is often

used. a. size of the liver b. color of the liver c. Crown-to-rump length d. length of the placenta ANS: C

Fetuses from cattle and horses are measured (weighed, if possible) to estimate gestational age.

Standardized charts are avaTilEaS blT eB inAmNaKnS yE veLteLriEnR ar. yC teOxM tbooks. Crown-to-rump length (the distance from the poll to the tail base along the dorsum) is determined with a flexible tape measure.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 538 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 35. The carcass of a bird prior to necropsy should be wetted by immersing it in warm, soapy

water or disinfectant to a. allow better visualization of the skin. b. decrease the spread of infectious agents. c. wash off any hemorrhage. d. decrease the odor.

ANS: B

The carcass should be wetted by immersing it in warm, soapy water or disinfectant to decrease the spread of infectious agents and reduce the quantity of irritating, aerosolized dander and feathers.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 538 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures

36. When submitting avian tissues for histopathology, technicians should remember that birds

have a. multilobular ovaries. b. only the left ovary. c. only the right ovary. d. fused ovaries.

ANS: B

Only the left ovary is present in birds.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 538 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 37. Cosmetic necropsies refer to a. removal of the viscera, and then closure of the incision with sutures. b. necropsies done when the body will be returned to the owner. c. necropsies that preserve the outward appearance of the carcass. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Cosmetic necropsies can be performed when disease processes are limited to the abdomen and chest.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 519|p. 539 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | PeT rfoErS mTnB ecA roN psKySpE roL ceLdur es.COM ER 38. The rules for shipping diagnostic samples, technically referred to as “clinical specimens,”

have changed in recent years. Senders can be fined if a. specimens are shipped in excess formalin. b. containers break or specimens leak during normal transit conditions. c. containers break or specimens leak during special transit conditions. d. specimens are shipped on freezer packs.

ANS: B

The rules for shipping diagnostic samples, technically referred to as “clinical specimens,” have changed in recent years. Senders can be fined if containers break or specimens leak during normal transit conditions. Correct labeling is important, and a special packaging symbol (UN 3373) is required.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 524 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 39.

must be obtained before the necropsy is performed, the animal for necropsy must be correctly identified and the history including the clinical findings reviewed and recorded. a. The owner’s payment b. The owner’s permission c. The owner’s signature

d. The owner’s premises ID number ANS: B

The owner’s permission must be obtained before the necropsy is performed. Additionally, the animal must be correctly identified, and the history, including the clinical findings, must be reviewed and recorded.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 521 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 40. Before opening the carcass for necropsy, the clinical history, including the clinical findings

(and herd health, if applicable), should be reviewed. The clinical history gives a clue as to a. which organ or tissue is mainly affected. b. whether or not infectious disease is suspected. c. the type of PPE needed due to zoonotic potential. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Before opening the carcass for necropsy, the clinical history, including the clinical findings (and herd health, if applicable), should be reviewed. The clinical history gives a clue as to which organ or tissue is mainly affected.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 520 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 41. Accurate, complete recordT inE gsSoTfBnA ecNroKpS syEfLinLdE inR gs.sChO ouMld a. include digital photographs. b. include specific descriptions that draw conclusions. c. include helpful diagnostic interpretations (e.g., hemangiosarcoma). d. not include subjective information, such as the animal’s signalment.

ANS: A

Digital photos of lesions are helpful and can be sent to the laboratory along with the reports or as separate electronic files by e-mail.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 521 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 42. Before histopathology samples are preserved, the tissue sections should a. not be squeezed or stretched b. be rinsed with water c. be fixed d. not be photographed ANS: A

Before histopathology samples are preserved, the tissue sections should not be squeezed, stretched, or rinsed with water. Tissues are fixed (preserved) only after they have been collected.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 521-522 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 43. To obtain a fresh tissue sample for culture when the surface of the tissue is contaminated, the

technician should a. rinse the tissue carefully in sterile water, and then blot it gently and insert a Culturette. b. insert a Culturette deep into the tissue. c. sear the tissue with a flamed spatula, cut into it with a sterile blade, and then insert a Culturette. d. place the sample in 10% formalin for 24 hours, and then insert a Culturette.

ANS: C

To obtain a fresh tissue sample for culture when the surface of the tissue is contaminated, sear the tissue with a flamed spatula, cut into it with a sterile blade, and then insert a Culturette.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 523 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 44. When necropsies are performed in the field (outdoors),

become

particular concerns. a. ventilation and exposure of veterinary staff b. appropriate disposal of tissues and inadvertent spread of disease c. temperature and weather conditions that hasten autolysis d. all of the above ANS: D

When necropsies are performed in the field (outdoors), appropriate disposal of tissues and inadvertent spread of disease become particular concerns.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 520|p. 525 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 45. Because , dissection begins with the eyes. a. we perform cephalocaudal necropsy b. the retina rapidly decomposes after death c. the eye dries out quickly after death d. the eye readily undergoes fermentation ANS: B

Because the retina rapidly decomposes after death, dissection begins with the eyes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 527 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures

Chapter 18: Diagnostic Sampling and Therapeutic Techniques Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Oral administration of medications is appropriate in all of the following scenarios except a. dosing a small volume of pleasant-tasting liquid. b. dosing with a crushed tablet mixed with soft food. c. administering intratracheal drugs directly into the oral cavity. d. delivering an antibiotic in capsule form.

ANS: C

One of the major contraindications of oral administration relates to inadvertent passage of the medication into the trachea. With oral dosing, any coughing or respiratory distress that accompanies giving the medication is important and must be followed up in order to address potential aspiration. In an emergency situation, such as during cardiopulmonary resuscitation, drugs can be injected directly into the trachea of an unconscious animal. When an intratracheal injection is performed, a polypropylene urinary catheter or rubber feeding tube is inserted into the trachea, either directly or through an endotracheal tube.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 543-544|p. 555 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 2. Some solid medications are sticky when administered orally, and prolonged contact with the

EpLliLcaEtiRo. esophageal mucosa can leaTdEtoSsTeB rioAuNs KcoSm nsC. O WMhat can be done in order to manage this? a. Give an extra dose to correct for any drug that remains in the esophagus. b. Always crush the medications and administer as a suspension. c. Insert a flexible orogastric tube into the throat to push the tablet into the stomach. d. Follow the solid dose with a syringe of fluid to mobilize the medication.

ANS: D

Giving a small volume of a palatable liquid, such as broth, will help propel any stuck tablets down the throat. Specialized pill “guns” are available to insert the medication directly into the esophagus, but technicians should be properly trained prior to using such a tool.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 543-544 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 3. Which route of medication administration is consistent with topical application of ointments

or creams placed directly on the skin? a. Intradermal b. Transdermal c. Interdermal d. Dermal ANS: B

Transdermal means “through the skin,” and is effective with the application of medications placed directly on the skin and absorbed through the dermis. This route of medication application is useful with drugs such as prednisone, methimazole, and nitroglycerin when other routes are not possible. Caution must be paid by the treating individual to ensure that inadvertent dosing of the person does not occur through the skin during the application.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 545 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 4. Of the following, which is not true regarding intrarectal administration of medications? a. Intrarectal medications are absorbed best when the rectum is free of feces. b. Vomiting patients are good candidates for intrarectal medications. c. Intrarectal medications are only truly effective locally. d. Intrarectal medications should be inserted at least 5 cm into the rectum.

ANS: C

Both local and systemic effects can result from medications inserted into the rectum. The mucosa of the rectum is an effective absorptive surface for pharmaceuticals that are not capable of being dosed orally or parenterally.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 546 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 5. What is a reasonable justification for using the intradermal route for administering a drug? a. Delivering small volumes of a potent antibiotic to treat a systemic infection b. To initiate general anesTthEeS siT a BANKSELLER.COM c. To vaccinate an animal against an enteric infection d. For the delivery of an antigen for allergy testing ANS: D

Intradermal injections are limited to small volumes (0.1 cc maximum) for either the desensitization of the skin with a local anesthetic, such as lidocaine, or to test for allergic sensitivity to an antigen. A small-gauge needle (25- to 27-gauge) is used to insert the small injection within the skin layers.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 546 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 6. What is the most common route used to administer parenteral medications? a. Subcutaneous b. Intramuscular c. Intravenous d. Intraosseous ANS: A

The subcutaneous (SQ or SC) route is used most often because it is easily accessible and allows for relatively fast (though not immediate) absorption of medications into the systemic circulation. Moderate volumes of nonirritating and isotonic fluids can be injected subcutaneously, most often in the dorsolateral region from the neck to the hips.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 547 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 7. In addition to the intravenous route of parenteral injection, which type of injection allows for

instantaneous absorption of medications? a. Subcutaneous b. Intramuscular c. Intraperitoneal d. Intraosseous ANS: D

Injections targeted within the bone (intraosseous) allow for direct deposition of fluids, drugs, and blood products into the bloodstream due to the communication of the bone marrow with the circulatory system. If moderate volumes of fluid are needed to be absorbed quickly, the intraosseous route is a reasonable option. If relatively large volumes of fluid need to be introduced, the intravenous route is the best choice.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 556 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 8. Which species of animals is historically implicated with the development of

vaccine-associated sarcomas? a. Feline b. Canine c. Bovine d. Equine ANS: A

Vaccination of cats is traditionally performed at the distal limbs and not in the proximal regions of the hind- or forelimbs due to their propensity to develop tumors in association with the inoculum. This allows for the removal of the distal limb if a tumor develops, thereby avoiding the long-term, life-threatening complications brought on by a neoplasm in the body axis. For similar reasoning, vaccination in the intrascapular region also should be avoided.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 547 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 9. Why should intramuscular injections at the area of the caudal thigh be directed lateral to the

body of the muscle? a. The caudal portion of the semi-membranosus muscle is covered by thick fascia. b. To prevent damage to the sciatic nerve. c. To prevent inadvertent injection into the femoral artery. d. The muscle bellies are too small to allow for other directional approaches.

ANS: B

The sciatic nerve courses near the caudal aspect of the femur. By approaching the semi-membranosus and semi-tendinosus muscles from the lateral direction, and by directing the needle caudally, the potential for inadvertently damaging the sciatic nerve is minimized.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 547 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 10. When would using a peripheral catheter be an acceptable alternative to a jugular catheter in an

animal? a. For the delivery of high osmolality fluids (>600 mOsm/L). b. When total parenteral nutrition needs to be provided. c. When central venous pressure must be continually measured. d. When an IV antibiotic must be injected SID for 3 days.

ANS: D

Jugular catheters, due to the relatively large lumen diameter of the jugular vein, allow for large volumes of IV drugs to be injected in a reliable manner compared to using smaller peripheral vessels. This route also allows for the introduction of potentially irritating substances due to the dilution effect of the jugular blood volume. Peripheral vessels are entirely adequate for regular, small-volume IV injection of medications in most patients.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 551 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 11. Regular intravenous catheter care should include a. daily flushing with 0.9% saline. b. changing of the catheter site every 7 days. c. close inspection at least every 48 hours. d. cleaning of the catheterTsEitS eT wB ithAN 10K0S %EeLthLaE noRl..COM ANS: C

Intravenous catheters should be closely examined at least every 48 hours for signs of leakage, perivascular infiltration, inflammation (phlebitis), infection, and patency. Heparinized saline should be flushed through the catheter, and ideally the placement site should be changed every 3 days.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 553-554 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 12. What does tissue swelling distal to an IV catheter bandage usually indicate? a. An overly loose bandage b. An overly tight bandage c. Overperfusion of a tissue by IV fluids d. Infection ANS: B

Swelling distal to an IV catheter bandage is usually indicative of an overly tight bandage, while swelling proximal to the bandage may be caused by infiltration.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 554 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

13. Which of the following is contraindicated concerning caring for a catheter used for the IV

delivery of chemotherapeutic medications? a. Regular flushing of the catheter with heparinized saline. b. Allowing no more than one “stick” per vein to place the catheter. c. Chemotherapy sharps should be discarded in a chemotherapeutic waste container. d. Reconstitution of chemotherapeutics should occur in designated areas.

ANS: A

The heparin in heparinized saline may react with some chemotherapeutics, such as doxorubicin, to form a potentially dangerous precipitate that should not be injected IV. Therefore, regular 0.9% saline should be used as a catheter flush after the IV injection of the drug.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 554 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 14. Considering intratracheal dosing of medications, what does the “A” in ALE represent? a. Atropine b. Acepromazine c. Atipamazole d. Acetylcholine ANS: A

Atropine is an important anticholinergic that can be delivered directly into the trachea in an emergency, such as during cardiopulmonary resuscitation. When an intratracheal injection is administered, a urinary catT heEteSrToB r rAuN bbKeS rE feL edLinEgRt. ubCeOisMinserted into the trachea, either directly or through an endotracheal tube. The drug, which is contained in a syringe at a dose typically double the IV dose, is then forcefully injected through the urinary catheter or feeding tube. The remaining drugs represented by the ALE acronym are lidocaine (“L”) and epinephrine (“E”), which also are typically dosed at double the IV dose.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 555-556 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 15. Why would a clinician choose the intraperitoneal (IP) route when delivering a medication to a

patient? a. The technician requires administration more quickly than possible by IV injection. b. The medication that needs to be delivered is caustic. c. There are complications with accessing a patent vessel for IV injection. d. For delivery of a warm fluid to a hyperthermic patient.

ANS: C

The IP route is useful for treating animals with medications that require fast absorption when, for some reason, the IV or intraosseous routes are not accessible. In addition, overly warm or cool animals may be treated with IP administration of cool or warm fluids, respectively.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 556 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

16. A technician who is knowledgeable in IV catheter complications is performing IV catheter

care and notices that the catheter insertion site is erythematous, swollen, painful, and warm to the touch. The veterinary technician assesses the problem to be a. thrombocytopenia. b. extravasation. c. thrombophlebitis. d. occlusion.

ANS: C

A technician who is knowledgeable in IV catheter complications is performing IV catheter care and notices that the catheter insertion site is erythematous, swollen, painful, and warm to the touch. The veterinary technician assesses the problem to be thrombophlebitis, determines that a new catheter is needed, and removes the old one before identifying a new site.

Thrombophlebitis can result in life-threatening conditions for the animal, especially those that are highly compromised.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 543|p. 586 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 17. When administering liquid medication, the syringe tip should be placed in the a. diastema. b. commissure of the lips. c. free gingival margin. d. lingual surface of the premolars.

ANS: B

When liquids are administered with a syringe or dropper, the patient’s lower lip is pulled out at the commissure. The tip of the syringe or dropper is placed between the cheek and the gums, and small volumes of liquid are injected.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 543 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 18.

of the neck or movement by the patient during oral medication administration may result in fluid aspiration into the trachea. a. Hyperflexion b. Hyperextension c. Hyperrotation d. Hyperadduction ANS: B

Hyperextension of the neck or movement by the patient during oral medication administration may result in fluid aspiration into the trachea. If the patient struggles or coughs, or if fluid spills out of the mouth, the patient should be allowed to rest before further administration attempts are made.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 543 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 19. When placing an orogastric tube, it is important to premeasure from the a. b. c. d.

to

. tip of the nose; the last rib commissure of the lips; the xiphoid process tip of the nose; the manubrium commissure of the lips; the manubrium

ANS: A

During orogastric intubation, the length of 10- to 22-French (Fr) plastic or rubber tube required to extend from the tip of the nose to the 13th rib is measured and marked on the tube with tape or ink.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 544 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 20. After the fluid has been administered when using an orogastric tube, the tube is bent to

occlude it and then withdrawn in a downward direction. This technique a. prevents a backflow of air into the esophagus. b. is not a necessary precaution if all the fluid has been administered. c. prevents a backflow of fluid from entering the trachea. d. can cause discomfort and damage to the esophagus if not done correctly.

ANS: C

After the fluid has been administered when using an orogastric tube, the tube is bent to occlude it and then withdraTwEnSinTB aA doNwKnS wE arLdLdE irR ec.tiC onO. M This technique prevents a backflow of fluid from entering the trachea.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 544 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 21. It is important to place a fentanyl patch in a location from which the animal cannot remove it,

such as on the intrascapular region. It should not be applied to skin that will be in contact with a heating pad, a heat lamp, or another external heat source because a. the drug will be metabolized more quickly. b. the drug will be transformed into the inactive form. c. the rate of drug delivery will be increased. d. the skin under the patch will be thermally burned.

ANS: C

It is important to place the fentanyl patch in a location from which the animal cannot remove it, such as on the intrascapular region. It should not be applied to skin that will be in contact with a heating pad, a heat lamp, or another external heat source because the rate of drug delivery would become increased when the skin beneath the patch warms and the cutaneous vessels vasodilate.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 545 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

22. Topical application of creams (e.g., EMLA cream, lidocaine, prilocaine) desensitizes the skin

so that a venipuncture is more comfortable for the patient. Ideally, the topical anesthetic should be in contact with the skin for to reach its maximal effectiveness. a. 1 to 3 minutes b. 3 to 10 minutes c. 10 to 15 minutes d. 30 to 60 minutes ANS: D

Topical application of creams (e.g., EMLA cream, lidocaine, prilocaine) desensitizes the skin so that a venipuncture is more comfortable for the patient. The topical anesthetic should be in contact with the skin for at least several minutes, but ideally 30 to 60 minutes, for it to reach its maximal effectiveness.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 545 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 23. Fluid administration via the

route is not recommended in severely dehydrated or critically ill patients when immediate absorption is required. a. IV b. IO c. SC d. Per rectum ANS: C

The subcutaneous (SC) route is not recommended in severely dehydrated or critically ill patients when immediate absorption is required. In an emergency situation, the IV or intraosseous route provides much faster absorption.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 547 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 24. Which of the following sites is recommended for a rabies vaccination in a cat? a. right front leg b. right rear leg c. left front leg d. left rear leg ANS: B

The following sites are recommended for feline vaccination: right front leg, rhinotracheitis-calici-panleukopenia; right rear leg, rabies; and left rear leg, feline leukemia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 547 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

25. Once the needle has been inserted for a subcutaneous injection, the syringe plunger is

retracted slightly, and the needle hub is checked for blood prior to giving the injection. If blood appears in the hub a. the technician should inject steadily and massage the area afterward. b. the needle should be withdrawn, removed from the syringe, and replaced with a new needle. c. the needle should be redirected. d. the needle should be withdrawn and reinserted in another location.

ANS: D

Once the needle has been inserted for a subcutaneous injection, the syringe plunger is retracted slightly, and the needle hub is checked for blood prior to giving the injection. If no blood appears, inject steadily, and then massage the skin briefly to facilitate drug distribution.

If blood does appear in the hub, it means that a blood vessel has been penetrated, in which case the needle should be withdrawn and reinserted in another location.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 547 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 26. Deep lumbar injections in the third to fifth lumbar region are used to administer heartworm

treatment. However, placement of the needle in the lumbosacral muscles is not recommended in . a. very old animals b. very thin animals c. obese animals d. hyperthermic animals ANS: B

Deep lumbar injections in the third to fifth lumbar region are used to administer heartworm treatment. However, placement of the needle in the lumbosacral muscles is not recommended in very thin animals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 547 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 27. Intravenous (IV) injection is used for drugs or fluids that a. must rapidly reach high blood levels. b. would be irritating to tissue. c. would be insufficiently absorbed if given by another route. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Intravenous (IV) injection is used for drugs or fluids that must rapidly reach high blood levels, or that would be irritating to tissue or insufficiently absorbed if given by another route.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 547 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 28. Which of the following is not true about ophthalmic medications?

a. The tip of the medication dispenser should not come into direct contact with any

surface of the eye b. Eye medication dispensed to a patient should be used exclusively on that patient c. Ophthalmic medications should be administered directly at refrigerated

temperatures d. If an ophthalmic medication as a solution contains particulate matter, it should not

be used ANS: C

Eye medication dispensed to a patient should be used exclusively on that patient to prevent transmitting the ocular infection to other patients. The tip of the medication dispenser should not come into direct contact with any surface of the eye, including the cornea, to prevent contamination and scratching of the cornea. If an ophthalmic medication as a solution appears cloudy, contains particulate matter, or has a color change, it should not be used. Ophthalmic medications should be administered slightly warm or at room temperature.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 545 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 29. If the patient requires multiple topical ophthalmic medications in the same eye, these should

be applied a. simultaneously to avoid multiple trauma the eye. b. at different sites on the sclera to avoid mixing. c. 3 to 5 minutes apart to allow for sufficient absorption. d. on alternate days to avoid confusion.

ANS: C

If the patient requires multiple topical ophthalmic medications in the same eye, these should be applied 3 to 5 minutes apart to allow for sufficient absorption.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 545 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 30. If the patient needs both an ophthalmic solution and an ointment, a. the solution should be placed in the eye 3 to 5 minutes before the ointment. b. the ointment should be placed in the eye 3 to 5 minutes before the solution. c. the solution should be placed in the opposite eye as the ointment, and they should

be alternated. d. they can be placed simultaneously in the same eye as directed.

ANS: A

In the scenario of needing to administer both an ophthalmic solution and an ointment, the solution should be placed in the eye 3 to 5 minutes before the ointment. If the ointment is applied first, it may coat the cornea and interfere with absorption of the solution.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 545 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 31. Four general categories of IV access devices are available; which is not considered one?

a. b. c. d.

Over-the-needle (OTN) catheter Through-the-needle (TTN) catheter Under-the-needle (UTN) catheter Winged-needle (butterfly) catheter

ANS: C

Four general categories of IV access devices are available: winged-needle (butterfly) catheter, over-the-needle (OTN) catheter, through-the-needle (TTN) catheter, and multilumen catheter.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 548 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 32. The

catheter is the most common type of catheter used today, and is used primarily for peripheral vein catheterization. a. over-the-needle (OTN) b. through-the-needle (TTN) c. under-the-needle (UTN) d. winged-needle (butterfly) ANS: A

Over-the-needle catheters are fitted outside or over a steel needle, with the needle point extending a millimeter or so beyond the catheter tip for entry into the vein.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 548 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 33.3 When placing a IV catheter in the cephalic vein of achondroplastic breeds (such as the 3 Dachshund or Basset hound), of the carpus will stretch the vessel, thereby . improving vessel immobilization. a. supination b. rotation c. extension d. flexion ANS: D

In achondroplastic breeds, flexion of the carpus will stretch the vessel, thereby improving vessel immobilization.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 551 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 34. Which is not true of jugular catheters? a. Placement of the jugular catheter is best done with the patient in sternal

recumbency. b. Jugular catheters are placed antegrade. c. The assistant should hold off the vein by pressing into the thoracic inlet. d. Fluids that have an osmolality greater than 600 mOsm/L should be administered

through a jugular vein.

ANS: A

Jugular catheters are placed antegrade, with the tip of the catheter always directed toward the heart. Placement of jugular catheters is best done with the patient in lateral recumbency.

Fluids that have an osmolality greater than 600 mOsm/L, as well as constant rate infusions of drugs known to cause phlebitis (such as diazepam, pentobarbital, and mannitol), should be administered through a jugular vein.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 551 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 35. The required distance for a jugular catheter insertion is estimated by measuring the distance

from a. the intended insertion site to the caudal edge of the last rib. b. the intended insertion site to the caudal edge of the triceps muscle. c. the intended insertion site to the caudal edge of thoracic inlet. d. the intended insertion site to the caudal edge of the xiphoid.

ANS: B

The required distance for a jugular catheter insertion is estimated by measuring the distance from the intended insertion site to the caudal edge of the triceps muscle.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 552 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 36. When administering chemotherapeutic agent through an IV catheter, which of the following

statements in not true if exTtrE avSaT saBtiA onNsKoS ccEuL rsL ? ER.COM a. The tissue surrounding the site should be infused with saline solution, corticosteroids, or 2% lidocaine. b. The catheter is flushed with several milliliters of saline solution. c. Warm or cold compresses should be applied, depending on the chemotherapy drug used. d. As much of the drug as possible should be removed from the site by aspirating 5 ml of blood back through the catheter.

ANS: B

If extravasations occur, as much of the drug as possible should be removed from the site by aspirating 5 ml of blood back through the catheter. The tissue surrounding the site should be infused with saline solution, corticosteroids, or 2% lidocaine, and warm or cold compresses should be applied, depending on the chemotherapy drug used.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 554 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 37. When an intraosseous catheter or needle must be placed into the femur, the hip region is

shaved and aseptically prepared. The patient is placed in lateral recumbency, and the technician stands at the dorsum of the patient. Which landmark on the femur should be identified via palpation? a. Greater tubercle of the femur

b. Femoral tuberosity c. Greater trochanter of the femur d. Acetabulum of the femur ANS: C

When an intraosseous catheter or needle must be placed into the femur, the hip region is shaved and aseptically prepared. The patient is placed in lateral recumbency, and the technician stands at the dorsum of the patient. The trochanteric fossa of the femur of the upside leg is identified on the medial aspect of the greater trochanter of the proximal femur.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 556 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 38. Which of the following administration routes represents the speed in which substances would

be absorbed, from most rapidly to slowest? a. IV > IO > SC > IP b. IP > IO > IV > SC c. IV > IO > IP > SC d. IO > IV > SC > IP ANS: C

Substances injected into the peritoneal cavity are absorbed more rapidly than those administered SC, but more slowly than those given by the intravascular or intraosseous routes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 556 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and denTtiE strSyTteB chAnN iqK ueSsE apLpL roE prRia. teCtoOvMarious animal species. | Therapeutics 39. During blood collection, the amount of negative pressure applied to aspirate the blood into the

syringe must not be excessive, as this may a. cause the vein to distend. b. result in hemolysis of red blood cells. c. result in tissue fluid (thromboplastin) entering the sample. d. cause extravasation.

ANS: B

The amount of negative pressure applied to aspirate the blood into the syringe must not be excessive, as this may cause the vein to collapse or result in hemolysis of red blood cells as they pass through the needle, yielding erroneous laboratory values.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 557 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 40. If the initial venipuncture attempt on a peripheral vein is unsuccessful, reinsert the needle a. b. c. d.

previous entry site. just below the distal to the proximal to the any of the above would be fine

ANS: C

If the initial venipuncture attempt on a peripheral vein is unsuccessful, reinsert the needle proximal to the previous entry site.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 557 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 41. One of the best ways to assess pulmonary function is through measurement of a. venous blood gases. b. arterial blood gases. c. central venous blood pressure. d. intra-arterial blood pressure.

ANS: B

One of the best ways to assess pulmonary function is through arterial blood gases, which reveal information about the patient’s ability to ventilate and oxygenate. Arterial blood gases measure the partial pressure of carbon dioxide (PaCO2—ventilation) and oxygen (PaO2— oxygenation) in the blood. Blood gas measurements are performed on a pH and bloodgas analyzer.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 560 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 42. Urine collected by manual expression of the bladder can be used for routine urinalysis, but

should not be used for culture because urine obtained by this method a. will be exposed to contT ES am inT anBtsAfNroKmStEhL eL aiE r. R.COM b. will not be a representative sample, since the bladder was completely emptied. c. will contain contaminants from the lower urinary tract, skin, and hair. d. poses no diagnostic problem and can be used for culture and sensitivity testing.

ANS: C

Urine collected by manual expression of the bladder can be used for routine urinalysis, but should not be used for culture because urine obtained by this method will contain contaminants from the lower urinary tract, skin, and hair. Urine obtained by cystocentesis is used for culture and sensitivity testing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 562 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 43. When performing a cystocentesis, the patient can be in any of the following positions except a. Standing b. Lateral recumbency c. Dorsal recumbency d. Sternal recumbency ANS: D

When performing a cystocentesis, the patient can be standing, in lateral recumbency, or in dorsal recumbency.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 562 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Properly collect diagnostic specimens for analysis (ex: urine, blood, feces, specimens for cytology) 44. When performing a cystocentesis, a. If blood enters the needle, another cystocentesis attempt is made with the same

needle and syringe. b. Release negative aspiration pressure on the plunger of the syringe before

withdrawing the needle. c. The needle can be redirected once it is in the abdominal cavity. d. Removal of the entire volume of urine present in the bladder should be the goal.

ANS: B

Cystocentesis is the percutaneous aspiration of urine from the bladder, and is indicated to obtain a sterile urine sample for analysis and/or culture and sensitivity testing; aspiration of a sample renders it free of bacteria, cells, and debris from the lower urinary tract. After the desired sample volume is obtained, stop aspiration (release negative pressure) on the plunger of the syringe before withdrawing the needle from the bladder and abdominal cavity. The needle should never be redirected once it is in the abdominal cavity, and if blood enters the needle during the procedure, another cystocentesis attempt is made using a different needle and syringe. Not all of the urine should be removed during a cystocentesis.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 562-563 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Properly collect diagnostic specimens for analysis (ex: urine, blood, feces, specimens for cytology) 45. A normotensive, normovolemic patient with intact renal function should produce

of urine per kilogram of body weight per hour. a. b. c. d.

1 to 2 ml 5 to 7 ml 7 to 10 ml 10 to 20 ml

ANS: A

A normotensive, normovolemic patient with intact renal function should produce 1 to 2 ml of urine per kilogram of body weight per hour.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 563 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 46. Cats that have had a urinary obstruction for a long period are often obtunded and

and, therefore, should be carefully evaluated and monitored before anesthetic agents are administered. a. hypocalemic b. hypokalemic c. hyperkalemic d. hypernatremic ANS: C

Cats that have had a urinary obstruction for a long period are often obtunded and hyperkalemic and, therefore, should be carefully evaluated and monitored before anesthetic agents are administered.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 565 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 47.

is a procedure that may be used to diagnose or treat pleural filling defects (pneumothorax or pleural effusion). a. Abdominocentesis b. Arthrocentesis c. Cystocentesis d. Thoracocentesis ANS: D

Thoracocentesis is a procedure that may be used to diagnose or treat pleural filling defects (pneumothorax or pleural effusion). Air and fluid, which may compress the lungs within the pleural cavity, can be removed via thoracocentesis, allowing the lungs to reexpand.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 566 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 48. An area several inches in diameter is clipped and surgically prepared for a thoracocentesis.

Thoracocentesis is performed a. caudal to the 13th rib b. at the 7th to 8th intercoTstE alSsT paBcA e NKSELLER.COM c. at the caudal edge of the triceps muscle d. at the caudal border of the scapula ANS: B

Thoracocentesis is performed at the 7th to 8th intercostal space. An area several inches in diameter is clipped and surgically prepared.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 566 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 49. Abdominocentesis is performed

to avoid the liver, spleen, and urinary

bladder. a. at the left midabdominal region b. at the right midabdominal region c. at the ventral midline, midabdominal region d. at the costochondral junction, midabdominal region ANS: B

Abdominocentesis is performed at the right midabdominal region, to avoid the liver, spleen, and urinary bladder.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 567 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 50. It has been proved that culture swabs of the pharynx and the tonsil region are unreliable in

evaluating lower respiratory tract disease because a. of the difficulty obtaining them. b. of contamination of the samples with the immune cells. c. of contamination of the samples with oral flora. d. of contamination of the samples with red blood cells.

ANS: C

It has been proved that culture swabs of the pharynx and the tonsil region are unreliable in evaluating lower respiratory tract disease because of contamination of the samples with oral flora. Appropriate sampling is obtained more consistently by using techniques that completely bypass the mouth and oropharynx, such as transtracheal lavage and aspiration.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 568 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

Chapter 19: Small Animal Medical Nursing Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following in not one of the commonly cited “Five Freedoms of Animal

Welfare”? a. Freedom from discomfort b. Freedom to express normal behavior c. Freedom from fear and distress d. Freedom from ownership ANS: D

The Five Freedoms of Animal Welfare (which, in addition to A, B, and C above, include the freedom from hunger and thirst, and the freedom from pain, injury, or disease) were established to help establish how animals should be handled in interactions with humans.

They do not prohibit animal ownership, but instead are guidelines for the humane care of animals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 630 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Laws and Ethics: Follow and uphold applicable laws and the veterinary technology profession's ethical codes to provide high quality care to patients. | Demonstrate a commitment to high quality patient care 2. The compilation of information on a patient—such as physical examination results, medical

history, attending veterinarTiaEnSinTpB uA t, N anKdSdE iaL gnLoEstRic.tC esOt M results—is collectively considered the a. database. b. diagnosis. c. signalment. d. prognosis.

ANS: A

The patient database consists of all of the objective and subjective data concerning an animal.

It is important for the veterinary technician to identify and gather this data, which may be significant factors in the patient’s eventual diagnosis and treatment.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 630 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Create and maintain individual client records, vaccination certificates, and other appropriate forms 3. The veterinary technician is responsible for providing a “technician evaluation” of a patient’s

condition using combined diagnostic data as well as their own experience and training. Which of the following would be considered a technician evaluation and not a diagnosis? a. Right-sided heart failure b. Hypoproteinemia c. Anemia of chronic disease d. Protein-losing enteropathy

ANS: B

It is important to understand that it is legally the ultimate responsibility of the veterinarian to offer a diagnosis of a disease. The technician is responsible for collecting information that leads to the diagnosis, but should not make the jump to providing a formal, definitive clinical determination.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 630 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Skill: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 4. Concerning the medical record acronym SOAP, which association is incorrect? a. S = Subjective b. O = Objective c. A = Assessment d. P = Prognosis ANS: D

In order to accurately record patient information in the medical record, technicians must understand the components of “SOAP.” The “P” aspect involves the “plan” for the patient, and is important to identify in order to move on to the next steps in the treatment of the patient. The patient prognosis ideally fits into the “Assessment” component.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 637 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Skill: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Obtain a thorough patient history 5. Of the four components of the development of disease, which one is involved with how the

disease progresses in the presence of the pathogenic agent? a. Etiology b. Pathogenesis c. Lesions d. Clinical signs ANS: B

A disease’s pathogenesis involves its progression into the physical changes (lesions) that are associated with the pathogenic process. The etiology is the causative agent implicated in the process, and the eventual clinical signs are what the observer sees as a result of the disease.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 637-638 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 6. Respiratory disease can result in altered sounds when the respiratory system is ausculted.

What is the scientific term for the loud, snorting sound that occurs when the pharynx is obstructed? a. Stridor b. Stertor c. Hemoptysis d. Cough

ANS: B

Stertor is a lower-pitched sound associated with upper respiratory obstruction, while an inspiratory wheeze with a high pitch is termed stridor. Both are important indicators of potential respiratory distress and warrant more thorough examination of the pharynx and larynx. Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood and is an obvious sign of a respiratory disorder, such as with heartworm disease and congestive heart failure.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 639 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 7. Which of the following is not a commonly noticed sign of hypoxia? a. Cyanosis b. Tachypnea c. Bradycardia d. Mucous membrane pallor ANS: C

The inability to carry adequate oxygen to the body’s tissues often results in increased heart rate (tachycardia) as a means to elevate the amount of blood picking up oxygen through the alveoli. Decreased heart rate (bradycardia) would be counterintuitive in this process.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 640 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 8. What would be the likely clinical finding in an animal undergoing right-sided heart failure? a. Pulmonary edema b. Dyspnea c. Ascites d. Hypoxia ANS: C

Right-sided congestive heart disease results in the backup of the venous return system at the level of the vessels that drain into the right atrium. This results in venous congestion and subsequent passage of fluid into the tissues surrounding the body’s major veins, namely in the liver and abdominal cavity. The presence of an abdomen distended with fluid is consistent with ascites, or hydroperitoneum. Left-sided heart failure is associated with respiratory dysfunction.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 643 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 9. Which is the most common form of heart dysfunction in cats? a. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy b. Dilated cardiomyopathy c. Ventricular septal defect d. Patent ductus arteriosus

ANS: A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy presents as thickening of the myocardium of the left ventricle, with excessive cases resulting in a dramatic narrowing of the ventricular lumen. A major consequence of this condition in cats is arterial thromboembolism that can cause disastrous compromise of the abdominal aorta, disrupting the blood supply to the hindlimbs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 643 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 10. What is the difference between regurgitation and vomiting? a. Regurgitation is centrally mediated, whereas vomiting is locally mediated b. Regurgitation is a passive expulsion, whereas vomiting is a forceful expulsion c. Regurgitation is an active process, whereas vomiting is a passive process d. There is no difference between the two ANS: B

Regurgitation is the passive expulsion of material from the mouth, pharynx, or esophagus, whereas vomiting is the forceful expulsion of contents from the stomach and the upper small intestine. Regurgitation does not involve contractions of the abdominal musculature (retching) as occurs with vomiting, nor is it associated with nausea. Both conditions can result in tracheal aspiration. Vomiting patients are prone to dehydration and electrolyte deficiencies, and vomiting can be associated with an infectious disease that should be assessed for treatment potential.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 6S45TBANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 11. In addition to being characterized as loose stool, what other feature is attributed to the stool in

cases of diarrhea? a. Fully formed b. Malodorous c. Large volumes d. Frequent passage ANS: D

Diarrhea is characterized by the frequent passage of loose, unformed, and often watery feces.

While diarrhea is often self-limiting in mild cases, the treatment of chronic diarrhea cases involves fluid and electrolyte supplementation, as well as nutritional support.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 645 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 12. Which enzyme is implicated in pancreatitis? a. Lipase b. Amylase

c. Trypsin d. Cholecystokinin ANS: C

Trypsin is a digestive enzyme responsible for the breakdown of protein in the intestine. In cases of pancreatitis, trypsin becomes activated in the pancreas prior to its entry into the duodenum, which results in digestion of the pancreatic tissue.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 646 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform blood chemistry tests 13. Which type of portosystemic shunt (PSS) is associated with older dogs as a secondary effect

of hepatitis of chronic duration? a. Acquired b. Congenital c. Vena caval d. Pancreatic ANS: A

Portosystemic shunts (PSSs) are extrahepatic or intrahepatic vascular abnormalities that connect the portal and systemic circulations. Acquired PSSs typically are seen in older dogs as sequelae of chronic hepatitis. Congenital PSSs generally are diagnosed in cats and dogs younger than 2 years of age.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 649 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a vaTriE etS yT ofBaA niN mK alSsE peL ciL esE . |RD.eC mO onMstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 14. Azotemia is a condition characterized by elevations of two metabolites of protein breakdown.

In addition to creatinine, which metabolite is elevated in an azotemic patient? a. Ammonia b. Acetone c. Bilirubin d. BUN ANS: D

BUN stands for “blood urea nitrogen,” which is a metabolite of protein degradation.

Excessive levels of BUN and creatinine in the blood indicate a buildup of these compounds due to the diminished ability of the kidneys to excrete them. Chronic kidney disease (the irreversible, progressive loss of functioning renal tissue) is characterized by both azotemia and an inadequate urine specific gravity in a well-hydrated patient.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 649 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform blood chemistry tests 15. What is the primary bacterial etiologic agent responsible for lower urinary tract infections in

small animals? a. Escherichia coli b. Pasteurella multocida

c. Staphylococcus aureus d. Clostridium difficile ANS: A

Lower urinary tract infections (UTIs) can be caused by a variety of bacteria; the most common pathogen in small animals is Escherichia coli.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 653 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform urinalysis 16. a. b. c. d.

is the coughing up of blood.

Hemocupage Leukopenia Hemoptysis Hematemesis

ANS: C

Hemoptysis is the coughing up of blood.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 639 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 17. a. b. c. d.

is the accumulation of excessive fluid within the thoracic cavity.

Pneumothorax Pulmonary edema Pleural effusion Pneumo effusion

ANS: C

Pleural effusion is the accumulation of excessive fluid within the thoracic cavity.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 639 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 18. Patients with respiratory disease often exhibit orthopnea, which is a. difficulty breathing b. the inability to breathe except in an upright position c. straining to defecate d. the inability to exhale without using abdominal muscles

.

ANS: B

Patients with respiratory disease often exhibit orthopnea, which is the inability to breathe except in an upright position. Dogs tend to stand with their necks extended and their elbows abducted, while cats prefer sternal recumbency.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 640 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective

patient data 19. Which is not true about respiratory system observations? a. Owners often confuse a productive cough, particularly in cats with asthma, with

retching or vomiting. b. Dogs with dyspnea tend to stand with their necks extended and their elbows adducted. c. Cats do not pant. d. Patients with upper airway disease tend to exhibit increased inspiratory effort and take slow, deep breaths.

ANS: B

Patients with upper airway disease tend to exhibit increased inspiratory effort and take slow, deep breaths; by contrast, patients with lower airway disease typically exhibit increased expiratory effort and take shallow, rapid breaths. Dogs experiencing dyspnea (respiratory distress) tend to stand with their necks extended and their elbows abducted (not adducted); this is called orthopnea (the inability to breathe except in an upright position). Owners often confuse a productive cough, particularly in cats with asthma, with retching or vomiting. Cats do not pant, so the presence of open-mouth breathing with noticeable chest movement equates with dyspnea and is an urgent situation.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 639-640 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 20. Which of the following statements about cardiac disease is false?

ST EL a. The body has very fewTcE om peBnA saN toKrySm ecL haEnRis. mCsOtoMmaintain cardiac output when

faced with an abnormally functioning heart. b. Early cardiac disease has subtle clinical signs such as mild exercise intolerance,

lethargy, or tachypnea. c. In cats, myocardial disease accounts for the majority of heart disease cases. d. In dogs, valvular disease accounts for the majority of heart disease cases.

ANS: A

Heart disease is a pathologic abnormality that affects the myocardium (the muscular walls of the heart), the valves, rhythm conduction, the pericardium (the sheath covering the heart), or the overall structure of the heart (shunts). In cats, myocardial disease accounts for the majority heart disease cases; in dogs, valvular disease accounts for the majority of heart disease cases.

The body has incredible compensatory mechanisms to maintain cardiac output when faced with an abnormally functioning heart; therefore, many patients are asymptomatic at home, or owners may miss subtle clinical signs such as mild exercise intolerance, lethargy, or tachypnea.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 640 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 21. A patient with heart failure has clinical signs referable to the perfusion deficit. These signs

include all of the following except

a. b. c. d.

tachypnea. exercise intolerance and weakness. cough. decreased capillary refill time (CRT).

ANS: D

A patient with heart failure has clinical signs referable to the perfusion deficit: tachypnea, exercise intolerance (dogs), syncope, weakness, prolonged (not decreased) capillary refill time (CRT), cough, and pale mucous membranes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 640 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 22. Congestive heart failure (CHF) results when decreased cardiac output causes poor venous

return to the heart. If the left side of the heart is afflicted, this condition is classified as left-sided CHF. In this condition, fluid builds up first in the a. tissues of the extremities. b. abdominal cavity. c. pulmonary vasculature. d. CNS as cerebral edema.

ANS: C

If the left side of the heart is afflicted, this condition is classified as left-sided CHF. In this condition, fluid builds up in the pulmonary vasculature (pulmonary edema), and in cats, extends into the pleural space (pleural effusion).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 643 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 23. The diagnosis of dilated cardiomyopathy, which is the most common cardiomyopathy in dogs,

is confirmed by all of the following except a. Electrocardiography. b. Radiography. c. Echocardiography. d. Auscultation.

ANS: D

Dilated cardiomyopathy (DCM), the most common canine cardiomyopathy, is characterized by extreme atrial and ventricular dilatation with decreased contractility. Primarily, the left side of the heart is damaged; however, right-sided DCM can be seen. Diagnosis is confirmed by radiography, electrocardiography, and echocardiography.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 643 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

24. Degenerative atrioventricular valve disease affects the cardiac valve leaflets or cusps and is

characterized by thickening of the tissue. It primarily affects dogs, with approximately 60% of cases involving a. only the tricuspid valve. b. only the mitral valve. c. only the right AV valve. d. both the mitral and tricuspid valves.

ANS: B

This disease affects the cardiac valve leaflets or cusps and is characterized by thickening of the tissue. It primarily affects dogs, with approximately 60% of cases involving only the mitral valve.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 643 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 25. Heartworm disease is a mosquito-borne infectious disease that affects both cats and dogs.

Clinical signs of heartworm disease differ between the cat and the dog. This difference in clinical signs is a reflection of worm burden and the longevity of the adult worm. Which statement is true? a. Cats carry a heavier burden (more adult heartworms) than do dogs. b. Adult heartworms survive for a greater length of time in dogs than in cats. c. In dogs, adult worms reside primarily in the pulmonary veins. d. In cats, adult worms reside primarily in the left atrium.

ANS: B

Heartworm disease is a mosquito-borne infectious disease that affects both cats and dogs.

Clinical signs of heartworm disease differ between the cat and the dog. This difference in clinical signs is a reflection of worm burden and the longevity of the adult worm. In dogs, large numbers (30 or more) of adult worms can be present in the pulmonary arteries, the right atrium and ventricle, and the caudal vena cava, and they can live up to 7 years. In the cat, heartworm infection generally consists of 1 to 3 worms that survive up to 3 years; they tend to reside primarily in the pulmonary arteries, but can migrate to the right atrium.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 643-644 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform diagnostics procedures for parasites 26. Diagnosis of feline heartworm disease via antigen testing alone is unreliable because a. cats do not harbor adult heartworms, just the microfilariae. b. unisex infection is common in cats. c. cats do not make antibody to the heartworm antigen. d. cats hide the disease well until there is an overwhelming worm burden.

ANS: B

Diagnosis of feline heartworm disease via antigen testing alone is unreliable because unisex infection is common in cats.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 644 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of

laboratory specimens. | Perform diagnostics procedures for parasites 27. Treatment of canine heartworm disease consists of adulticide therapy, with microfilaricide

therapy starting 3 to 4 weeks later. Adult heartworms die slowly over a period of 2 to 30 days.

During this time, patients are at risk for a. pulmonary tenesmus. b. pulmonary thromboembolism. c. pulmonary hematochezia. d. pulmonary hepatic encephalopathy.

ANS: B

Treatment of canine heartworm disease consists of adulticide therapy, with microfilaricide therapy starting 3 to 4 weeks later. Adult heartworms die slowly over a period of 2 to 30 days.

During this time, patients are at risk for pulmonary thromboembolism.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 644 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform diagnostics procedures for parasites 28. Treatment for feline heartworm disease is unrewarding because a. cats carry such a high worm burden, which leads to a great number of dead adult

worms at the same time. b. the death of just one heartworm can trigger anaphylactic shock or cause pulmonary

thromboembolism, both of which can result in sudden death. c. adult heartworms in cats are resistant to the drug immiticide. d. cats are generally diagnosed at the very early stages of infection.

ANS: B

The death of just one heartworm can trigger anaphylactic shock or cause pulmonary thromboembolism, both of which can result in sudden death.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 644 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform diagnostics procedures for parasites 29. Systemic hypertension is defined as an increase in systemic blood pressure. In small animals, a

diagnosis of hypertension is made based on the inherent risk of organ damage in a calm patient with a repeatable systolic blood pressure measurement of a. <20 mm Hg. b. 20 to 100 mm Hg. c. 100 to 150 mm Hg. d. >150 mm Hg ANS: D

Systemic hypertension is defined as an increase in systemic blood pressure. In small animals, a diagnosis of hypertension is made based on the inherent risk of organ damage in a calm patient with a repeatable systolic blood pressure measurement of 150 mm Hg or greater.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 644 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

30. During a funduscopic examination, findings of enlarged retinal vessels and retinal hemorrhage

are early warning signs of impeding retinal detachment due to a. diabetes mellitus b. congestive heart failure c. hypertension d. upper airway disease

.

ANS: C

Routine funduscopic examinations should be performed on at-risk cardiac patients because enlarged retinal vessels and retinal hemorrhage are early warning signs of impeding retinal detachment due to hypertension.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 644 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 31. Clinical signs of

include hindlimb paresis/paralysis and severe pain, cyanotic toe pads, absent or poor femoral pulses, and coolness of the affected limb. a. dilated cardiomyopathy b. congestive heart failure c. pulmonary thromboembolism d. feline arterial thromboembolism ANS: D

Cats with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (or any cardiomyopathy) are at risk for feline arterial thromboembolism, whereiT nE blS ooTdBcAloNtsKfS orEmLiL nEthRe.hC eaOrtMand lodge in the arterial vasculature, most commonly in the abdominal aortic trifurcation where they disrupt the blood supply to the hindlimbs. Clinical signs include hindlimb paresis/paralysis and severe pain, cyanotic toe pads, absent or poor femoral pulses, and coolness of the affected limb.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 643 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 32. Hematochezia is the presence of blood in the feces. It can be seen with diarrhea or as streaks

of blood on the outside of normally formed stool. Hematochezia usually indicates a problem with the a. upper GI tract. b. colon or rectum. c. small intestine. d. stomach.

ANS: B

Hematochezia is the presence of blood in the feces. It can be seen with diarrhea or as streaks of blood on the outside of normally formed stool. Hematochezia usually indicates a problem with the colon or rectum.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 645 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient

assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 33. Because

have only one pancreatic duct, which joins the common bile duct before emptying into the duodenum, an association with concurrent bile duct/liver inflammation (cholangiohepatitis) and/or inflammatory bowel disease has been noted in this species. a. dogs b. cats c. ferrets d. rabbits ANS: B

Because cats have only one pancreatic duct, which joins the common bile duct before emptying into the duodenum, an association with concurrent bile duct/liver inflammation (cholangiohepatitis) and/or inflammatory bowel disease has been noted in this species.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 646 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 34. Chronic pancreatitis can lead to a. diabetes mellitus. b. exocrine pancreatic insufficiency. c. both (A) and (B) above. d. none of the above.

ANS: C

Chronic pancreatitis can lead to exocrine pancreatic insufficiency or diabetes mellitus.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 648 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 35. Chronic diarrhea that is pale, fatty, and voluminous is called a. lipochezia. b. melena. c. steatorrhea. d. hematochezia.

ANS: C

Chronic diarrhea that is pale, fatty, and voluminous is called steatorrhea.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 648 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

36. Patients with severe hepatobiliary disease may develop

, which results when the brain is exposed to GI toxins. Clinical signs include altered mentation, head pressing, hypersalivation, circling, ataxia, seizures, blindness, behavior changes, lethargy, and coma. a. Feline hepatic lipidosis b. Hepatic encephalopathy. c. Chronic hepatitis d. Cholangiohepatitis ANS: B

Patients with severe hepatobiliary disease may develop hepatic encephalopathy (HE).

Hepatic encephalopathy results when the brain is exposed to GI toxins, such as ammonia, as a consequence of decreased liver function or portosystemic shunts, which compromise the normal functioning of liver detoxification or the enterohepatic circulation. Clinical signs of HE include altered mentation, head pressing, hypersalivation, circling, ataxia, seizures, blindness, behavior changes, lethargy, and coma.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 648 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 37.

is characterized by an accumulation of lipids, or fats, within the cytoplasm of more than 80% of the hepatocytes. As the hepatocytes swell, cholestasis and hepatic damage result. It is predominantly a feline condition. a. Hepatic lipidosis b. Hepatic encephalopathy c. Chronic lipemia d. Cholangiohepatitis ANS: A

Hepatic lipidosis (HL) is characterized by the accumulation of lipids, or fats, within the cytoplasm of more than 80% of the hepatocytes. As the hepatocytes swell, cholestasis and hepatic damage result. HL is predominantly a feline condition caused by a derangement of lipid metabolism associated with prolonged anorexia. Obese cats that are anorexic have a high risk of developing HL; however, any cat experiencing prolonged anorexia is at risk for developing this disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 648 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 38. Chronic hepatitis indicates a history of liver disease for a prolonged period, usually longer

than 4 to 6 months. Clinical signs are generally nonspecific and include vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, weight loss, and polyuria/polydipsia. Clinical signs usually are not apparent until of the liver mass is lost. a. 15% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75%

ANS: D

Chronic hepatitis indicates a history of liver disease for a prolonged period, usually longer than 4 to 6 months. Clinical signs are generally nonspecific and include vomiting, diarrhea, anorexia, weight loss, and polyuria/polydipsia. Clinical signs usually are not apparent until 75% of the liver mass is lost.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 648 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 39. Cholangitis refers to inflammation of the a. liver. b. bile ducts. c. gallbladder. d. pancreatic ducts.

ANS: B

Cholangitis refers to inflammation of the bile ducts.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 649 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 40. Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is characterized by an irreversible, progressive loss of

functioning renal tissue. Clinical signs relate to a. impairment of fluid hoT mE eoSsT taB siA s.NKSELLER.COM b. uremia. c. electrolyte abnormalities. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is characterized by an irreversible, progressive loss of functioning renal tissue. Clinical signs relate to impairment of fluid homeostasis, uremia (the buildup of toxins in the bloodstream), and electrolyte abnormalities that result from diminishing kidney function.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 649 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 41. A a. b. c. d.

is a pathologic stone formed from mineral salts found in the urinary tract. trichobezoar urolith chondriod enterolith

ANS: B

A urolith is a pathologic stone formed from mineral salts found in the urinary tract.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 653 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

is abnormally frequent urination.

42. a. b. c. d.

polyuria stranguria pollakiuria anuria

ANS: C

Pollakiuria is abnormally frequent urination.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 653 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 43. It is important to impart to the client that the recurrence rate for urinary tract stones is a. nonexistent. b. low. c. high. d. 100%.

ANS: C

The overall recurrence rate for uroliths is high, up to 50%.

RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing . 6S5T 3 BANKS TE OL P:LE VT PTS: 1 REF: TpE MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Develop and provide client education in a clear and accurate manner at a level the client understands (i.e., oral and written form, including educational handouts) 44. No gender preference has been noted for non-obstructive feline lower urinary tract disease

(FLUTD). Obstructive FLUTD a. has no gender preference as well. b. is seen primarily in females. c. is seen primarily in males. d. is seen primarily in young animals.

ANS: C

Although no gender preference has been noted for nonobstructive feline lower urinary tract disease (FLUTD), obstructive FLUTD is seen primarily in males because of the unique anatomy of the male urethra.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 653 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

45. Clinical signs of

are related to the increased metabolic rate and include weight loss, increased appetite, increased activity level, polyuria and polydipsia, vomiting, and diarrhea. a. hypothyroidism b. hypoadrenalcorticism c. hyperthyroidism d. hyperadrenocorticism ANS: C

Clinical signs of hyperthyroidism are related to the increased metabolic rate and include weight loss, increased appetite, increased activity level, polyuria and polydipsia, vomiting, and diarrhea.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 654 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 46. Hyperthyroidism is a disease that most commonly affects

in which the thyroid gland is overactive, producing abnormally large amounts of the thyroid hormones thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), resulting in an increased basal metabolic rate. a. dogs b. cats c. ferrets d. rabbits ANS: B

Hyperthyroidism is a diseaT seEtS haTt B mAoN stKcS om ctM s cats in which the thyroid gland is Em LoLnElyRa.ffCeO overactive, producing abnormally large amounts of the thyroid hormones thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), resulting in an increased basal metabolic rate.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 654 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 47. Hypoadrenocorticism is caused by adrenal gland atrophy or destruction, resulting in

inadequate secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, primarily cortisol and aldosterone. This disease primarily affects a. Dogs b. Cats c. Ferrets d. Rabbits ANS: A

Hypoadrenocorticism is caused by adrenal gland atrophy or destruction, resulting in inadequate secretion of glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids, primarily cortisol and aldosterone. Hypoadrenocorticism, or Addison disease, primarily affects dogs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 655 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective

patient data 48. Hypoadrenocorticism is also known as a. Cushing syndrome. b. Addison disease. c. Grave’s disease. d. Cortico’s syndrome.

ANS: B

Hypoadrenocorticism is also known as Addison disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 655 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 49. Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disorder of neuromuscular transmission that causes muscle

weakness. Acquired MG is caused by an immune system dysfunction that produces autoantibodies against a. acetylcholine receptors in the presynaptic membrane. b. acetylcholine receptors in the postsynaptic membrane. c. calcium channels in the postsynaptic membrane. d. Actin fibers in the postsynaptic membrane.

ANS: B

Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a disorder of neuromuscular transmission that causes muscle weakness. Acquired MG is caused by an immune system dysfunction that produces autoantibodies against acetTyE lcS hoTliB nA eN reK ceSpE toL rsLinER th. eC poOsM tsynaptic membrane.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 656 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 50.

are inanimate objects such as water bowls, cages, clipper blades, and scrubs on which pathogens can survive and be transmitted. a. Vectors b. Hosts c. Reservoirs d. Fomites ANS: D

Fomites are inanimate objects such as water bowls, cages, clipper blades, instruments, towels, scrubs, etc. on which pathogens can survive and be transmitted.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 656 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 51. Infectious agents that can infect a human or an animal via a common vector, such as fleas or

ticks, are called

.

a. b. c. d.

reverse zoonoses shared-vector zoonoses vector zoonoses host-susceptible zoonoses

ANS: B

Infectious agents that can infect a human or an animal via a common vector, such as fleas or ticks, are called shared-vector zoonoses.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 657 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform diagnostics procedures for parasites 52. Patients with infectious diseases often require extensive nursing care and support while the

patient’s body fights the infection. This is especially true of is no direct way to destroy the pathogen. a. bacterial. b. viral. c. fungal. d. yeast.

infections, for which there

ANS: B

Patients with infectious diseases often require extensive nursing care and support while the patient’s body fights the infection. This is especially true of viral infections, for which there is no direct way to destroy the pathogen (such as with the use of antibiotics).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 657 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ENSuT rsB inA g:NPK atS ieE ntLaL ssE esR sm t: M Demonstrate and perform patient .eCnO assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 53. Which group of dogs would be expected to have the lowest heart rate? a. Toy breeds b. Puppies c. Adult dogs d. Painful dogs ANS: C

Adult dogs have a heart rate of 60 to 160 beats/min; smaller breeds have a higher heart rate.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 631 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 54. A capillary refill time (CRT) of a. <1 second b. <1minute c. <2 seconds d. <2 minutes ANS: C

is considered normal for dogs and cats.

The normal CRT in dogs and cats is <2 seconds.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 631 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 55. Mucous membranes that are brick red in color may indicate a. inadequate blood volume or low hemoglobin concentration. b. inadequate oxygenation of tissues. c. hyperbilirubinemia. d. endotoxemia or shock.

ANS: D

Mucous membrane colors and their physiological significance are as follows: Pink/Pale pink Normal Pale/White Inadequate blood volume or low hemoglobin concentration Blue/Purple (cyanotic) Inadequate oxygenation of tissues Yellow (icteric) Hyperbilirubinemia Brick red (injected) Endotoxemia or shock PTS: 1 REF: p. 631 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 56. Dietary therapy that includes novel proteins and carbohydrates for patients with food allergies

or intolerance, and is aimeT dE atSreTdBuA ciN ngKiS nfElaLmLmEaRti. onC, O isMcalled a a. bland b. hypoallergenic c. fiber-rich d. low-residue

diet.

ANS: B

Dietary therapy Bland diets: Easier to digest, gentler on the GI tract. Generally fed as small, frequent meals.

Ideal for patients with nonspecific vomiting or diarrhea.

Hypoallergenic diets: Novel proteins and carbohydrates for patients with food allergies or intolerance. Reduce inflammation.

Fiber-rich diets: Helpful in patients with diarrhea or constipation. Fiber helps normalize colonic health.

Low-residue diets: Helpful for patients with chronic constipation.

Feeding tube placement: To feed around the problem (e.g., esophagitis, pancreatitis) and/or to treat severe anorexia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 646 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition

is the study of the causation or origination of disease.

57. a. Pathology

b. Epidemiology c. Etiology d. Disease pathophysiology ANS: C

Etiology is the study of the causation or origination of disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 638 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 58. When a client calls because his or her cat is urinating in inappropriate places (i.e., outside of

the litter box), the technician should first suggest a. providing an appropriate number of litter boxes. b. using water fountains to increase fluid intake. c. bringing the cat in to rule out a medical cause. d. pheromone therapy.

ANS: C

Treatment for Feline Idiopathic Cystitis includes: Environmental Modification • Litter box management  Provide appropriate number of litter boxes  Provide suitable type and amount of litter in the litter boxes  Place litter boxes in a quiet, safe area of the house  Clean frequently • Reduce overcrowding anT d EbS ulT lyB inAgNKSELLER.COM • Pheromone therapy • Avoid punishing the cat • Environmental enrichment • Increase water intake  Increase amount of canned cat food fed  Use water fountains Pharmacologic Intervention for Severe/Recurrent Cases • Analgesics • Glucosamine therapy for the health of the bladder lining • Antispasmodics to reduce urethral spasms • Antidepressants, antianxiety medications for diagnosed behavioral disorders PTS: 1 REF: p. 654 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 59. Delayed skin turgor indicates a. polyuria. b. hypertension. c. dehydration. d. hypothermia.

ANS: C

Delayed skin turgor indicates dehydration.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 632 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 60. Which of the following is not consistent with dehydration? a. Tacky mucous membranes b. Delayed skin turgor c. Increased packed cell volume d. Decreased total protein and albumin ANS: D

Tacky mucous membranes + Delayed skin turgor + Increased packed cell volume + Increased total protein and albumin = DEHYDRATION PTS: 1 REF: p. 651 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

Chapter 20: Large Animal Medical Nursing Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. How are rebreathing bags used as a diagnostic tool in equine medicine? a. Resuscitate a horse in respiratory distress b. Measure lung tidal volume c. Increase lung sounds to allow thorough auscultation d. Present a horse from panting ANS: C

A rebreathing bag is used to increase respiratory effort, thereby amplifying inspiratory and expiratory lung sounds that commonly are difficult to hear.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 666 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 2. This equine disease is characterized by the presence of palpable lymph node abscesses near

the ventral jaw and adjoining neck, which may open up either externally or internally into the pharynx. The causative bacterial agent is a Gram-positive coccus. a. Heaves b. Equine protozoal meningitis c. Strangles d. Chondroids ANS: C

Strangles is a highly contagious bacterial infection caused by Streptococcus equi ssp. equi, which reside in the submandibular and retrophrayngeal lymph nodes. Clinical signs include inappetence, fever, and localized pain. Upon dissemination to other lymph nodes throughout the body, this condition is called “bastard strangles.” Draining material from the abscesses can result in transmission to other pen mates.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 666 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 3. Which vessels in the equine are implicated in life-threatening blood loss due to fungal guttural

pouch mycosis? a. Jugular veins b. Carotid arteries c. Cephalic veins d. Femoral arteries ANS: B

Both the internal and external carotid arteries lie close to the surface of the guttural pouches, and with impaction and infection of the guttural pouches are at risk of rupture. A breach specifically of the internal carotid artery could lead to fatal blood loss if not addressed immediately.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 666 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 4. A horse infected with equine infectious anemia (EIA) may develop life-threatening anemia

that can be passed from horse to horse by biting flies. An EIA-negative result for a specific blood test is required for any movement of horses from state to state. Name the test? a. ELISA b. Coggin c. PCR d. IFA ANS: B

The Coggin test (an agar gel immunodiffusion assay) is used to identify horses that have positive antibody titers to the EIA virus. This blood for the assay must be drawn by a USDA-accredited veterinarian, who also provides a detailed description of the horse on specified forms. The health certificate for interstate travel cannot be issued until a negative Coggin test result is returned from a state or federally recognized laboratory.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 670 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a vaTriE etS yT ofBaA niN mK alSsE peL ciL esE .R | D.eC mO onMstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 5. Which of the following is correct with regard to the most common vector involved in the

transmission of anaplasmosis and Lyme disease? a. Anaplasmosis is transmitted by Ixodes spp. ticks, while Lyme disease is transmitted by Dermacentor spp. ticks. b. Anaplasmosis is transmitted by Dermacentor spp. ticks, while Lyme disease is transmitted by Ixodes spp. ticks. c. Both are transmitted by Dermacentor spp. ticks. d. Both are transmitted by Ixodes spp. ticks.

ANS: D

Ticks of the genus Ixodes are commonly implicated in the transmission of bloodborne bacterial diseases such as anaplasmosis and Lyme disease. Both of these vector-borne diseases are treatable with tetracycline antibiotics.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 670 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform diagnostics procedures for parasites 6. Which class of the gastric ulcer treatment is preferred for use in horses? a. Proton pump inhibitor b. Histamine (H2) blocker

c. Gastrointestinal protectant d. Increased feeding of grain in the ration ANS: A

Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, is found in several common equine gastric ulcer medications and is currently considered the superior method to both prevent and treat gastric ulceration in horses. In addition, decreasing the grain fraction of the equine ration may help decrease the incidence of gastric ulcers.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 670 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 7. Potomac Horse Fever (PHF) is a serious infection that infects horses in the United States. Of

the following, which answer is incorrect with regard to PHF? a. The causative agent in PHF is Neorickettsia risticii. b. Fresh water insects are involved in the life cycle of the causative agent. c. Diagnosis requires culture of the bacteria from a blood sample. d. A fresh water snail is involved in the life cycle of the causative agent.

ANS: C

Diagnosis is most commonly based on indirect detection of the infection via antibody presence in the patient’s serum. Alternatively, due to the highly susceptible nature of the infection to tetracyclines, a favorable response to treatment with oxytetracycline is associated with diagnosis of PHF. PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 6S7T 1 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform serologic test (ELISA, slide/card agglutinations) 8. Which of the following animals is not a commonly implicated vector in rabies transmission? a. Skunk b. Raccoon c. Fox d. Dogs ANS: D

Dogs are often considered vectors in rabies transmission due to their close association with humans, although they are not considered a major reservoir species in nature in North America. In addition to skunks, raccoons, and foxes, bites from bats are often linked to American rabies infections.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 673 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 9. If an animal is exposed to the tetanus toxin, which of the following immediate parenteral

treatments would be most likely to help them from developing clinical tetanus? a. Tetanus toxoid b. Tetanus antitoxin

c. Penicillin d. Tetanus toxin ANS: B

Tetanus antitoxin contains preformed antibodies to the tetanus toxin. It is used for exposed animals that need immediate immunoglobulin protection from the toxin. Tetanus toxoid is inactivated tetanus toxin, and is used as a vaccine to help develop host antibody protection. In cases of acute exposure, the toxoid requires too much time to develop the immune response to be effective in the presence of the toxin.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 676 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 10. What is another name for dermatophytosis? a. Rain rot b. Bacterial pyoderma c. Rain scald d. Ringworm ANS: D

“Ringworm” is a fungal disease caused by organisms in the Microsporum or Trichophyton genera. This self-limiting, zoonotic disease is usually associated with circular areas of alopecia and inflammation in horses younger than 4 years of age.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 677 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ELSaT boBraAtoNryK: S SpEeL ciL mE enRa. naClyOsis: M Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform diagnostics procedures for parasites 11. In the horse, which of the following is considered to be a therapeutic–side effect relationship? a. Chloramphenicol–nephrotoxicity b. Penicillin–anaphylaxis c. Aminoglycosides–aplastic anemia d. Tetracyclines–gastric ulceration ANS: B

Intravenous administration of procaine penicillin in a horse can lead to life-threatening anaphylactic reactions, which require immediate epinephrine treatment to prevent potentially fatal respiratory collapse. If intravenous penicillin is required, potassium penicillin is a better choice in veterinary species not known to be sensitive to penicillin.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 685 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 12. Why are mild increases (2 to 4X normal) in the creatine phosphokinase (CK) levels in serum

considered less significant in horses than in other animals? a. CK is not present in other species b. Horses use CK for energy c. Horses have a large relative muscle mass

d. Horses readily excrete CK in their feces ANS: C

Creatine phosphokinase is a muscle breakdown byproduct. Since horses have very large muscle masses compared to other species, moderate increases in blood levels of the enzyme are normal with activities that require muscular exertion, such as prolonged transport or exercise. CK elevations in the 200X range indicate substantial muscular damage, as does concurrent increases in other enzymes such as aspartate aminotransferase.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 686 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 13. What is the target of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)? a. Pathogen nucleic acids b. Intact viruses c. Polysaccharides produced by pathogenic bacteria d. Misfolded proteins from genetic disorders ANS: A

The diagnostic PCR assay involves the amplification of targeted nucleic acid sequences in order to identify the presence of a specific pathogen. This sensitive technique can theoretically identify a single segment of microbial DNA, resulting in the diagnosis of a disease due to as few as a single pathogenic microorganism.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 687 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ENSuT rsB inA g:NPK atS ieE ntLaL ssE esR sm Demonstrate and perform patient .eCnt:OM assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 14. What is the traditional cutoff to indicate that adequate colostrum management (passive

transfer of maternal antibodies) is occurring in a herd of calves as measured by serum total solids (STS) refractometry? a. 1.5 g/dL b. 3.5 g/dL c. 5.5 g/dL d. 7.5 g/dL ANS: C

A serum total solids level of 5.5 g/dL is indicative of adequate passive transfer of maternal antibodies via colostrum in calves. A benchmark of 80% of calves reaching this level of total solids within the first week of life indicates that proper colostrum feeding is likely being completed on a herd-wide basis. Levels less than 5.5 g/dL are indicative of failure of passive transfer.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 689 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 15. Of the following, what is the most effective method to warm a hypothermic lamb or kid?

a. b. c. d.

Placing warm water bottles around the animal Feeding warm milk Setting the animal in a sunny, warm spot Immersing the body in a warm-water bath

ANS: D

Placing the neonate in a water bath ranging from 100 °F to 105 °F is the most effective method to raise the core body temperature in a hypothermic kid or lamb. Although feeding warm solutions can increase internal body temperature, it may also result in regurgitation and aspiration in hypothermic animals, which could prove dangerous or fatal.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 691 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 16. Horses with respiratory disease may present with an increased respiratory rate, which is

termed a. dyspnea b. tachypnea c. apnea d. stridor

.

ANS: B

Horses with respiratory disease may present with an increased respiratory rate (tachypnea) and increased respiratory effort (dyspnea).

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 6S6T 5 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 17. Bronchoalveolar lavage is a diagnostic test used to evaluate the a. upper airway b. lower airway c. lower urinary tract d. upper urinary tract ANS: B

Diagnostic tests that can be used to assess the upper airway include endoscopy, radiography, computed tomography, and magnetic resonance imaging. Diagnostic tests performed to assess the lower airway include bronchoscopy, bronchoalveolar lavage, transtracheal wash, ultrasonography, radiology, and pulmonary function testing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 666 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Properly collect diagnostic specimens for analysis (ex: urine, blood, feces, specimens for cytology) 18. Strangles is a common, highly contagious respiratory disease of horses caused by a bacterial

pathogen that typically produces swelling and abscess formation. “Bastard strangles” refers to a. development of an abscess in young, male horses.

b. development of an abscess in abnormal locations. c. development of an abscess that causes abnormal behavior. d. development of an abscess in the submandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes.

ANS: B

Strangles is a highly contagious bacterial infection caused by Streptococcus equi ssp. equi, which typically produce swelling and abscess formation in the submandibular and retrophrayngeal lymph nodes. The development of an abscess in abnormal locations (e.g., within the thorax, abdomen, or central nervous system) is termed bastard strangles, a condition that is particularly difficult to treat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 666 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 19. Chondroids are a. mucopurulent material that forms into gelatinous concretions. b. the process of each rib that holds the rib head in place. c. the anogenital opening in cattle. d. the distal process of the ulna.

ANS: A

In chronic cases of strangles in which the abscesses have ruptured into the guttural pouch, the mucopurulent material that drains from the abscesses can form into gelatinous concretions called chondroids.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 6S6T 6 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 20. Horses that have recovered from equine strangles remain contagious and represent a threat to

susceptible horses . a. until clinical signs of disease are gone. b. until all horses are vaccinated. c. until there is no further nasal discharge present. d. for 6 weeks after recovery from clinical disease.

ANS: D

Horses that have recovered from equine strangles remain contagious and represent a threat to susceptible horses for approximately 6 weeks after recovery from clinical disease. Horses may become asymptomatic carriers of strangles, posing a great risk to other horses as the result of persistent infection of the guttural pouches.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 666 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 21. The guttural pouches are two large, symmetric dilatations

present in all Equidae.

that are

a. b. c. d.

of the pharynx of the prepuce of the eustachian tube of the cecum

ANS: C

The guttural pouches are two large, symmetric dilatations of the eustachian tube that are present in all Equidae. They are located just above the pharynx and larynx.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 666 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 22.

travel superficially under the surface of the guttural pouch lining and are vulnerable to damage from pathologic conditions. a. The esophagus and larynx b. The internal and external carotid arteries c. The meninges d. The optic nerves ANS: B

The internal and external carotid arteries and several cranial nerves travel superficially under the surface of the guttural pouch lining and are vulnerable to damage from pathologic conditions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 666 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ENSuT rsB inA g:NPK atS ieE ntLaL ssE esR sm Demonstrate and perform patient .eCnt:OM assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 23.

(the causative agent of rhinopneumonitis) is a contagious virus that produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease in horses. a. Aspergillus spp. b. Streptococcus equi c. Equine herpesvirus d. Pleuropneumonia ANS: C

Equine herpesvirus (the causative agent of rhinopneumonitis) is a contagious virus that produces respiratory disease, abortion, and neonatal and neurologic disease in horses.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 666 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 24. Environmental management aimed at removing offending allergens is the most important

intervention for which equine disease? a. strangles b. heaves c. laminitis

d. colic ANS: B

Heaves is an allergic airway disease caused by airway inflammation, narrowing of small airways (bronchoconstriction), and excessive production of mucus. Most horses affected by heaves are allergic to dust and molds present in hay and straw. Environmental management aimed at removing offending allergens is the most important intervention. This consists of maintaining horses at pasture, soaking hay or eliminating hay from the diet, using low-dust bedding and grain, and removing horses from the barn when stalls are being cleaned.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 668 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 25. The medical term for fainting is a. dysphagia. b. pleurodynia. c. syncope. d. EIPH. ANS: C

The medical term for fainting is syncope.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 669 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 26. Second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block is a common arrhythmia in horses, particularly fit,

athletic horses. The arrhythmia occurs as the result of altered conduction through the AV node. If the is arrhythmia is detected, the horse a. should be exercised slightly until there is a return to normal sinus rhythm. b. should be exercise-restricted and rested. c. should be worked up further to determine the underlying cardiac pathology. d. should be given an alpha2 agonist, such as xylazine or detomidine.

ANS: A

Second-degree atrioventricular (AV) block is a common arrhythmia in horses, particularly fit, athletic horses. The arrhythmia occurs as the result of altered conduction through the AV node, resulting in contraction of the atria that is not always accompanied by contraction of the ventricles. This can occur because of high vagal tone, electrolyte imbalances, and the effects of medications such as alpha2 agonists (xylazine, detomidine). When the horse is auscultated, a regularly irregular rhythm is heard, often described as “dropped beats.” This arrhythmia usually is not clinically significant, and a few minutes of exercise, which stimulates the heart rate to increase, results in a return to normal sinus rhythm.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 669 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

27. Because horses that have a positive Coggin test result for

are persistent carriers, they serve as a reservoir for the virus. Therefore, infected horses must be quarantined for life or euthanized. a. EPIH b. IAD c. EVA d. EIA ANS: D

Because horses that have a positive Coggin test result for equine infectious anemia (EIA) are persistent carriers, they serve as a reservoir for the virus. Therefore, infected horses must be quarantined for life (at a distance >200 yards from other horses) or euthanized.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 670 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 28. Clinical signs of this equine disease include fever, anemia, icterus, lethargy, stiffness, and

limb edema. Diagnosis is based on observation of the organism within white blood cells on a peripheral blood smear, or by PCR or serology. What is the pathogen that causes this disease? a. Ixodes b. Anaplasma phagocytophilum c. Borrelia burgdorferi d. Clostridium tetani ANS: B

Anaplasmosis is caused byTiE nfS ecTtiBoA nN wK ithStEhL eL baEcR te. riuCm OMAnaplasma phagocytophilum. These bacteria are transmitted by biting ticks of the genus Ixodes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 670 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 29. Lyme disease in horses occurs only in areas where both ticks and reservoir mammalian hosts,

typically a. dogs b. raccoons c. small rodents d. bats

coexist.

ANS: C

Lyme disease occurs only in areas where both ticks and reservoir mammalian hosts, typically small rodents, coexist. In North America, Lyme disease is predominantly seen along the Eastern Seaboard, in the upper Midwest, in Texas, and on the Pacific Coast (California).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 670 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

30. Young horses are particularly prone to development of gastric ulceration. Which is not a

predisposing factor? a. A high-forage diet b. Stress c. Administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) d. Musculoskeletal pain ANS: A

Young horses are particularly prone to development of gastric ulceration. Stress, a high-grain diet, musculoskeletal pain, and administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) are common predisposing factors.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 670 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 31. a. b. c. d.

should be monitored in horses receiving prolonged treatment with NSAIDs. Hydration status Protein levels Renal values All of the above

ANS: D

Hydration status, protein levels, and renal values should be monitored in horses receiving prolonged treatment with NSAIDs. PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 6S7T 1 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 32. In horses with colitis, IV fluid therapy is crucial to support the cardiovascular system, replace

fluid losses, and correct electrolyte and acid-base imbalances. Colloid therapy may be necessary because of protein loss, which can lead to peripheral edema as blood leaks from blood vessels into surrounding tissue. Which of the following would not be included in colloid therapy? a. hetastarch b. plasma c. lactated Ringer’s solution d. dextran ANS: C

The approach to treatment of horses with colitis is consistent regardless of the cause. IV fluid therapy is crucial to support the cardiovascular system, replace fluid losses, and correct electrolyte and acid-base imbalances. Colloid therapy, which includes plasma, hetastarch, and dextran, may be necessary because of protein loss, which can lead to peripheral edema as blood leaks from blood vessels into surrounding tissues.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 671 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective

patient data 33. Clinical signs of

in the horse include anxiety, gagging, excessive salivation, and feed and saliva coming from the nostrils. a. aspiration b. vomition c. choke d. regurgitation ANS: C

Clinical signs of choke in the horse include anxiety, gagging, excessive salivation, and feed and saliva coming from the nostrils.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 673 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 34.

Which of the following statements about equine rabies is not true? a. Horses should be vaccinated against rabies on an annual basis. b. Vaccinated horses that have been exposed to a rabid animal should be revaccinated

promptly and observed for 90 days. c. Unvaccinated horses with known rabies exposure should be observed for 6 months

and should not be vaccinated. d. Unvaccinated horses with known rabies exposure should be observed for 6 months

and should be vaccinated promptly.

ANS: D

Horses should be vaccinated against rabies on an annual basis. Vaccinated horses that have been exposed to a rabid animal should be revaccinated promptly and observed for 90 days.

Unvaccinated horses with known rabies exposure should be observed for 6 months and should not be vaccinated.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 673-674 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 35. The viral equine encephalitides produce rapidly progressive, highly fatal neurologic disease in

horses. a. Mosquitoes b. Ticks c. Opossums d. Small rodents

transmit the infection to horses.

ANS: A

The viral equine encephalitides produce rapidly progressive, highly fatal neurologic disease in horses. Mosquitoes transmit the infection to horses.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 674 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective

patient data 36. Horses that flip over backward and incur a skull fracture develop neurologic signs that can

include abnormalities of balance, incoordination of limbs, nystagmus ( abnormal respiratory patterns, and coma. a. stupor b. rhythmic eye movement c. nonresponsive seizures d. painful breathing

),

ANS: B

Horses that flip over backward can fracture their petrous temporal bone and/or the junction of the basisphenoid and basioccipital bones. Neurologic signs associated with these fractures include abnormalities of balance, incoordination of limbs, nystagmus (rhythmic eye movement), abnormal respiratory patterns, and coma.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 675 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 37. Wobbler syndrome (cervical vertebral malformation) is a manifestation of developmental

orthopedic disease characterized by compression of the cervical spinal cord by malformed or unstable cervical vertebrae. Which of the following statements regarding Wobbler syndrome is not true? a. Males are affected four times more frequently than are females b. Thoroughbreds appear to be predisposed c. The forelimbs usually aTrE eS mT orBeAseNvK erSelEyLaL ffE ecRte.dCthOaM n the hindlimbs d. Clinical signs of symmetric incoordination usually begin between 6 months and 3 years of age ANS: C

Cervical vertebral malformation, or Wobbler syndrome, is a manifestation of developmental orthopedic disease characterized by compression of the cervical spinal cord by malformed or unstable cervical vertebrae. Males are affected four times more frequently than are females, and Thoroughbreds appear to be predisposed. Clinical signs of symmetric incoordination usually begin between 6 months and 3 years of age. The hindlimbs usually are more severely affected than the forelimbs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 675 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 38. Equine protozoal myelitis (EPM) is a common cause of neurologic disease in horses, and

Sarcocystis neurona is the most common protozoan parasite that causes this disease. are the primary hosts of this parasite, and horses are likely infected via fecal-oral transmission. a. Mosquitoes b. Ticks c. Opossums

d. Small rodents ANS: C

Equine protozoal myelitis (EPM) is a common cause of neurologic disease in horses, and Sarcocystis neurona is the most common protozoan parasite that causes this disease Opossums are the primary hosts of this parasite, and horses, which are dead-end, aberrant hosts, are likely infected via fecal-oral transmission.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 675 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform diagnostics procedures for parasites 39. Tetanus is a highly fatal neurologic disease in horses characterized by a stiff and stilted gait,

hyperexcitability, seizures, and coma. The causative organism is commonly present in the environment. The most common portals of entry for this organism include a. a subsolar abscess. b. a surgical site. c. a penetrating wound. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Tetanus is a highly fatal neurologic disease in horses characterized by a stiff and stilted gait, hyperexcitability, seizures, and coma. The causative organism is commonly present in the environment. The most common portals of entry for this organism include a subsolar abscess (i.e., an abscess beneath the sole of the horse’s hoof), a penetrating wound, or a surgical site.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 676 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ENSuT rsB inA g:NPK atS ieE ntLaL ssE esR sm t: M Demonstrate and perform patient .eCnO assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 40. Myoglobinuria is an indicator of a. hemolytic anemia. b. rhabdomyolysis. c. acute renal failure. d. Wobbler syndrome.

ANS: B

Myoglobinuria is the presence of myoglobin in the urine. It is an indicator of rhabdomyolysis (muscle damage).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 676|p. 686 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 41. Polydipsia in horses is defined as drinking more than a. 1% b. 3% c. 5% d. 10%

of their body weight daily.

ANS: D

Polydipsia in horses is defined as drinking more than 10% of their body weight daily.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 677 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 42. Rain scald or rain rot is a common bacterial infection caused by

that produces crusting lesions. The crusts can be pulled out with a tuft of hair, and the remaining lesion is a glistening yellow crater. a. Microsporum spp. b. dermatophytosis c. Dermatophilus congolensis d. Trichophyton spp.

ANS: C

Dermatophilosis (rain scald, rain rot) is a common bacterial infection caused by Dermatophilus congolensis that produces crusting lesions. The crusts can be pulled out with a tuft of hair, and the remaining lesion is a glistening yellow crater.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 677 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 43. An equine

is a benign, locally invasive tumor of the skin, and is the most common

tumor in horses. a. papilloma b. fibroma c. sarcoid d. lipoma ANS: C

An equine sarcoid is a benign, locally invasive tumor of the skin, and is the most common tumor in horses.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 677 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 44. Equine recurrent uveitis (moon blindness) is the most common cause of blindness in horses. It

is a/an a. immune-mediated condition. b. parasitic condition. c. bacterial condition. d. viral condition.

ANS: A

Equine recurrent uveitis (moon blindness) is the most common cause of blindness in horses. It is an immune-mediated condition, and many factors (heredity, parasites, leptospirosis) have been implicated in its development.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 678 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

is inflammatory cellular exudate in the anterior chamber of the eye.

45. a. b. c. d.

Synechiae Hypopyon Phthisis bulbi Ophthalmia

ANS: B

Hypopyon is inflammatory cellular exudate in the anterior chamber of the eye.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 678 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 46.

are fungi that produce collagenase, which destroys the cornea and creates a “melting” corneal ulcer. These ulcers are rapidly progressive, and the eye is prone to rupture. a. Dermatophilus congolensis b. Culicoides c. Aspergillus spp. d. Anaplasma phagocytophilum ANS: C

Aspergillus spp. are fungi that produce collagenase, which destroys the cornea and creates a “melting” corneal ulcer. These ulcers are rapidly progressive, and the eye is prone to rupture.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 678 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 47. An increased heart rate (tachycardia) is indicative of pain. A rate of

beats per

minute (bpm) or greater indicates serious pain in an adult horse. a. 40 b. 60 c. 80 d. 100 ANS: B

An increased heart rate (tachycardia) is indicative of pain. A rate of 60 beats per minute (bpm) or greater indicates serious pain in an adult horse.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 678|p. 682 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 48. Recumbent horses are particularly challenging to manage effectively in a hospital setting.

Which of the following is not a major concern? a. Decubital ulcers b. Muscle damage as the result of pressure and decreased circulation c. Failure to void urine d. Inability to vocalize ANS: D

Recumbent horses are particularly challenging to manage effectively in a hospital setting.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 682-683 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 49. In order to prevent pressure sores and necrosis, the position of a recumbent horse should be

changed a. every 30 minutes b. every 1 to 2 hours c. 3 hours d. every 4 to 6 hours ANS: D

In order to prevent pressurT eE soSreTsBaA ndNnKeS crE osLisL, E thRe .pos ion of a recumbent horse should be COitM changed every 4 to 6 hours.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 683 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate humane restraint techniques for various animal species 50. Which statement is not true about endotoxemia? a. Clinical signs associated with endotoxemia include fever, tachycardia, and

hyperemic mucous membranes. b. The most common cause of endotoxemia in horses is gastrointestinal disease that

compromises the intestinal wall. c. Endotoxemia refers to the group of clinical signs caused by endotoxin circulating

through the blood stream. d. Endotoxin is a component of the cell wall of Gram-positive bacteria.

ANS: D

Endotoxin is a component of the cell wall of Gram-negative bacteria. Endotoxemia refers to the group of clinical signs caused by endotoxin circulating through the bloodstream, including fever, tachycardia, hyperemic mucous membranes, leukopenia, laminitis, and depression. The most common cause of endotoxemia in horses is gastrointestinal disease that compromises the intestinal wall, allowing translocation of bacteria across the intestinal wall and into the bloodstream. Horses are extremely sensitive to the effects of endotoxin, and aggressive treatment is required.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 683 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 51. Which of the following is considered the most effective for the treatment of musculoskeletal

pain in the horse. a. Flunixin meglumine b. Phenylbutazone c. Meclofenamic acid d. Ketoprofen ANS: B

Phenylbutazone is most effective for the treatment of musculoskeletal pain in the horse.

Ketoprofen and meclofenamic acid (as well as naproxen) are less commonly used drugs that provide mild-to-moderate analgesia for musculoskeletal pain. Flunixin meglumine is effective for soft tissue and visceral (abdominal) pain.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 685 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 52.

is considered the NSAID of choice for a horse with colic because it may combat the effects of endotoxemia. a. Flunixin meglumine b. Phenylbutazone c. Meclofenamic acid d. Ketoprofen ANS: A

Flunixin meglumine is effective for soft tissue and visceral (abdominal) pain. In addition, it may combat the effects of endotoxemia in horses with gastrointestinal tract disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 685 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 53. The serum of horses normally has a a. yellow tint as a result of increased serum bilirubin levels, because horses do not

have gallbladders. b. white tint as a result of increased serum lipids, because horses eat high-fat diets. c. yellow tint as a result of increased serum carotenoids, because horses make

increased levels of vitamin A. d. white tint as a result of increased serum calcium carbonate, because horses eat

diets high in calcium.

ANS: A

The serum of horses normally has a yellow tint as a result of increased serum bilirubin levels, because horses do not have gallbladders.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 686

TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 54.

is produced by cells undergoing anaerobic metabolism due to a lack of oxygen; its levels in the blood, therefore, increase in conditions of decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. a. Carbon dioxide b. Lactate c. Creatine phosphokinase d. Myoglobin ANS: B

Lactate, or lactic acid, is produced by cells undergoing anaerobic metabolism due to a lack of oxygen. Lactate levels in the blood, therefore, increase (hyperlactatemia) in conditions of decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. In horses, this most commonly occurs as the result of hypovolemia, which is seen with colic and diarrhea.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 686 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 55. When assisting with neonatal calf care after a forced fetal extraction or a C-section, it is

important to place the calf in a. standing b. sternal c. lateral d. dorsal

recumbency and ensure that it is breathing.

ANS: B

When assisting with neonatal calf care after a forced fetal extraction or a C-section, the most important first steps are to place the calf into sternal recumbency and ensure that it is breathing. All mucus should be cleared from the nose, mouth, and upper airway. The calf may be briefly hung upside down with the head off the ground to allow drainage of these fluids, and then returned to a sternal recumbency position.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 688 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 56. It is important that neonatal calves receive an appropriate dose of colostrum within the first 6

hours of life because a. the placenta in cattle and other ruminants prevents in utero transfer of immunoglobulins (antibodies) from the dam to the fetus. b. intestinal absorption of antibodies terminates within 24 hours of birth. c. both of the above statements are true. d. neither of the above statements are true.

ANS: C

Colostrum ingestion soon after birth is critically important for neonatal survival and the prevention of infectious disease. The calf should receive colostrum at the rate of 10% of its body weight within the first 4 to 6 hours of life.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 689 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 57. Partial or total failure of the passive transfer of maternal antibodies can make a calf

susceptible to a variety of disease conditions. Compromised calves are more likely to develop omphalophlebitis, which is a. an infection in the anterior chamber of the eye b. a vegetative heart valve c. inflammation of the umbilical veins d. inflammation of the internal carotid artery ANS: C

Compromised calves are more likely to develop umbilical infection and inflammation (omphalophlebitis), which can lead to any combination of the following problems: septicemia, septic arthritis, anterior uveitis, meningitis, vegetative endocarditis, pneumonia, and diarrhea.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 689 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 58. Diarrhea, or scours, is a common problem among young dairy and beef calves. Treatment is

aimed at a. normalization of body temperature and immediate vaccination. b. rapid replacement of lost fluids and correction of acidosis and electrolyte abnormalities. c. rapid replacement of loTstEfS luT idBs AanNdKcSoE rrL ecL tiE onRo.fCaO lkM alosis and electrolyte abnormalities. d. normalization of body temperature and immediate isolation.

ANS: B

Diarrhea, or scours is a common problem among young dairy and beef calves and is associated with multiple infectious and noninfectious causes. Affected calves often develop watery diarrhea, rapidly leading to severe dehydration, metabolic acidosis, hypoglycemia, shock, and hypothermia. Treatment is aimed at rapid replacement of lost fluids and correction of acidosis and electrolyte abnormalities.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 689-690 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 59. White muscle disease), also known as nutritional myodegeneration, occurs in young calves,

lambs, and kids born to dams receiving diets deficient in which may cause degeneration of cardiac or skeletal muscle. a. calcium and vitamin D b. magnesium c. selenium d. sodium ANS: C

during gestation,

White muscle disease, also known as nutritional myodegeneration, occurs in young calves, lambs, and kids born to dams receiving diets deficient in selenium during gestation. Dietary deficiency of selenium and/or vitamin E may cause degeneration of cardiac or skeletal muscle.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 690 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 60.

Lambing in individual pens, or lambing jugs, helps in a. preventing lamb “stealing” by late-pregnant ewes. b. ensuring that lambs can identify their mothers. c. preventing rejection of the lamb by the ewe. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Sheep are gregarious and stay together as a group, even during lambing, which may result in lamb “stealing” by late-pregnant ewes; lambing in individual pens, or lambing jugs (which are 4 feet square and 30 inches high), helps to prevent this from happening. Another reason for using lambing pens is that lambs require several days before they can identify their mothers; ewes, on the other hand, are capable of identifying their offspring after only a few hours of contact. If at all possible, any treatments needed by the lamb should be provided in the lambing pen, because separation of the lamb from the ewe for longer than 1 hour may result in rejection of the lamb by the ewe.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 690 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry

Chapter 21: Veterinary Oncology Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

tumors invade local tissues and can spread (metastasize) to other parts of the body, through blood and lymphatic vessels. a. Cancer b. Benign c. Malignant d. Neoplasm ANS: C

Malignant tumors invade local tissues and can spread (metastasize) to other parts of the body, through blood and lymphatic vessels.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 725 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 2. Apoptosis is defined as a. programmed cell death. b. invading surrounding tissues. c. cell growth and proliferation. d. cell maturation.

ANS: A

“Programmed cell death” is called apoptosis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 725 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 3. Genes that promote cancer growth are called a. oncogenesis. b. proto-oncogenes. c. oncogenes. d. proto-oncogenesis.

ANS: B

Proto-oncogenes are cancer-promoting genes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 725 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 4. Environmental toxins that give rise to DNA mutations are called a. mutagens. b. oncogens. c. carcinogens. d. tumorogens.

ANS: C

Mutations of the DNA arise as the consequence of chronic exposure to environmental toxins, called carcinogens.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 725 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 5. The most common paraneoplastic syndrome seen in veterinary medicine is a. hypokalemia. b. hypoglycemia. c. hypernatremia. d. hypercalcemia.

ANS: D

The most common paraneoplastic syndrome seen in veterinary medicine is hypercalcemia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 726 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 6.

arise from epithelial tissues, such as the skin, mucous membranes, and glandular structures, and they usually appear as a discrete mass. a. Carcinomas b. Lymphoma c. Meningioma d. Sarcomas ANS: A

Carcinomas, arise from epithelial tissues, such as the skin, mucous membranes, and glandular structures, and they usually appear as a discrete mass.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 726 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

arise from mesenchymal tissues, such as bone, cartilage, and other

7.

connective tissues. a. Carcinomas b. Lymphoma c. Meningioma d. Sarcomas ANS: D

Sarcomas arise from mesenchymal tissues, such as bone, cartilage, and other connective tissues.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 726 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

8.

is a cancer of immune system cells in which malignant lymphocytes clonally proliferate in lymph tissues throughout the body. a. Carcinomas b. Lymphoma c. Meningioma d. Sarcomas ANS: B

Lymphoma is a cancer of immune system cells in which malignant lymphocytes clonally proliferate in lymph tissues throughout the body.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 727 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 9. Although a

is benign, it can cause severe neurological dysfunction because it localizes in the delicate brain and spinal cord. a. Carcinomas b. Lymphoma c. Meningioma d. Sarcomas ANS: C

Although a meningioma is benign, it can cause severe neurological dysfunction because it localizes in the delicate brain and spinal cord.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 725 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ENSuT rsB inA g:NPK atS ieE ntLcL arE e:RU.nC deO rsM tand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 10. a. b. c. d.

is a sarcoma that arises from blood vessels.

Hemangiosarcoma Leiomyosarcoma Liposarcoma Osteosarcoma

ANS: A

Hemangiosarcoma can arise in many organs, but most commonly the heart, liver, and spleen.

Osteosarcoma is a sarcoma that arises from bone. Leiomyosarcoma is a sarcoma of smooth muscle. Liposarcoma arise from fat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 726|p. 728 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 11. Tumor grade can have prognostic value, and higher-grade tumors are expected to a. behave less metastatically. b. grow less quickly. c. behave more aggressively. d. grow more benignly.

ANS: C

Tumor grade can have prognostic value, and higher-grade tumors are expected to behave more aggressively than lower-grade ones.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 726 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 12. In dogs, the most common clinical presentation of

is a middle-aged dog with multiple,

markedly enlarged lymph nodes. a. carcinomas b. lymphoma c. meningioma d. sarcomas ANS: B

In dogs, the most common clinical presentation of lymphoma is a middle-aged dog with multiple, enlarged lymph nodes PTS: 1 REF: p. 727 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 13. a. b. c. d.

are the most common malignant skin tumors of dogs.

Lipomas Liposacromas Squamous cell carcinomas Mast cell tumors

ANS: D

Mast cell tumors are the most common malignant skin tumors of dogs PTS: 1 REF: p. 727 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 14.

can cause mast cell tumor activation and histamine release that may result in severe hypotension. Therefore, use of this drug is contraindicated in mast cell tumor patients. a. Morphine b. Diphenhydramine c. Antihistamine d. Serotonin ANS: A

Certain narcotics, such as morphine, can cause mast cell tumor activation and histamine release that may result in severe hypotension. Therefore, use of these drugs is contraindicated in mast cell tumor patients.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 727 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

15.

occurs most commonly in middle-aged, large breed dogs. It primarily affects the bones of the appendicular skeleton. a. Carcinoma b. Lymphoma c. Meningioma d. Osteosarcoma ANS: D

Osteosarcoma occurs most commonly in middle-aged, large breed dogs. It primarily affects the bones of the appendicular skeleton.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 727 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 16. The most common malignant oral tumor found in cats is a. melanoma. b. squamous cell carcinoma. c. hemangiosarcoma. d. mast cell tumor.

ANS: B

The most common malignant oral tumor found in cats is squamous cell carcinoma.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 727 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and denTtiE strSyTteB chAnN iqK ueSsE apLpL roE prRia. teCtoOvMarious animal species. | Therapeutics 17. Sarcomas arise from mesenchymal tissue, which is a. epithelial b. lymphatic c. connective d. nervous

tissue.

ANS: C

Sarcomas arise from mesenchymal tissue, which is connective tissue. They are spread primarily through the bloodstream alone. By contrast, carcinomas arise from epithelial tissue and are spread primarily via lymphatic vessels, and less commonly through the bloodstream.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 726 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 18. Use of sloppy or improper biopsy or aspiration techniques of tumors may a. seed tumor cells to additional sites. b. cause degranulation of tumor cells, thereby releasing harmful chemical mediators. c. result in a nondiagnostic sample. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Use of sloppy or improper biopsy or aspiration techniques may seed tumor cells to additional sites, cause additional pathology, or yield inaccurate results.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 727|p. 729 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 19. a. b. c. d.

biopsy attempts to remove the entire tumor.

FNA Excisional Incisional Punch

ANS: B

Excisional biopsy attempts to remove the entire tumor, as well as a margin of normal tissue, whereas incisional biopsy procures only a part of the tumor.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 730 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

treatment uses high-energy waves to kill cancer cells and shrink

20.

tumors. a. Laser b. Chemotherapy c. Cytotherapy d. Radiation ANS: D

Radiation treatment uses high-energy waves to kill cancer cells and shrink tumors.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 731 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 21.

radiation is used to reduce pain associated with the presence of a tumor and to improve the patient’s quality of life. a. Curative b. Palliative c. Targeted d. Hospice ANS: B

Palliative radiation is used to reduce pain associated with the presence of a tumor and to improve the patient’s quality of life.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 731 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

22. After radiation therapy, the skin within the radiation field may have depigmentation,

hyperpigmentation, leukotrichia, or alopecia. Leukotrichia means a. lack of hair follicle growth. b. eye lashes falling out. c. white hair. d. white blood cells invading the skin.

ANS: C

After radiation therapy, the skin within the radiation field may have depigmentation, hyperpigmentation, leukotrichia (white hair), or alopecia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 732 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 23. Most traditional chemotherapy agents target metabolically active, rapidly dividing cells.

These agents are not specific to cancer cells, however, and normal cells that are also metabolically active and rapidly dividing will be affected by these treatments as well. These normal cells include all except a. nerve cells. b. bone marrow-derived cells. c. cells in the hair follicles. d. epithelial cells.

ANS: A

Most traditional chemotherapy agents target metabolically active, rapidly dividing cells.

These agents are not specific to cancer cells, however, and normal cells that are also EiLllLbE metabolically active and raTpE idS lyTdBivAidNinKgSw eR af. feC ctOedMby these treatments as well. These normal cells include the epithelial cells that line the gastrointestinal tract, bone marrow-derived cells (such as neutrophils), and cells in the hair follicles. Traditional side effects from treatment, therefore, include vomiting, diarrhea, inappetence, and hair loss (in certain breeds).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 732 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 24. Proper PPE for handling chemotherapeutic drugs involves a. chemotherapy-rated gloves. b. double-gloving with latex gloves. c. gloves with no powder. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Gloves should have no powder, because the powder may absorb contaminants. It is appropriate to double-glove with latex gloves if chemotherapy-rated gloves are not available.

Hands should be washed after chemotherapy exposure even if gloves are worn.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 738 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

25. Some chemotherapy agents, called

, cause severe tissue irritation, blistering, and sloughing of skin and tissue if they are accidentally administered outside the vein. a. teratogens b. percutaneants c. vesicants d. extravasants ANS: C

Some chemotherapy agents, called vesicants, cause severe tissue irritation, blistering, and sloughing of skin and tissue if they are accidentally administered outside the vein (extravasated).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 739 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 26. Some dogs have a mutation in the

(MDR1) gene that results in an increased sensitivity to certain medications, including select chemotherapeutic agents. a. medical disease-related b. multidrug resistance c. mutational DNA relapsing d. mutagenic DNA resistance ANS: B

Some dogs have a mutation in the multidrug resistance (MDR1) gene that results in an increased sensitivity to certain medications, including select chemotherapeutic agents. Many of these dogs are white-footed (including shephards, sheepdogs, and collies), and the rhyme “four white feet, don’t treaT t”EmSaTyBhA elN pK onScE oL loL gyEpRe. rsC onOnMel remember to test for MDR1 mutation before treating these breeds.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 741 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 27.

is a serious and life-threatening allergic reaction to chemotherapy that may include difficulty breathing, hypersalivation, increased heart rate and blood pressure, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, hyperemic mucous membranes with increased capillary refill time, and swelling of the face, tongue, or throat. a. Anaphylaxis b. Acute tumor lysis syndrome c. Anisocoria d. Adrenergic ANS: A

Anaphylaxis is a serious and life-threatening allergic reaction to chemotherapy that may include difficulty breathing, hypersalivation, increased heart rate and blood pressure, vomiting, abdominal pain, diarrhea, hyperemic mucous membranes with increased capillary refill time (CRT), and swelling of the face, tongue, or throat. Pretreatment with diphenhydramine is recommended to prevent an anaphylactic reaction.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 741 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 28.

is a metabolic derangement seen in cancer patients with advanced disease. The syndrome involves muscle wasting and loss of the body’s fat stores. a. Anorexia b. Cachexia c. Hepatic lipidosis d. Pica ANS: B

Cachexia is a metabolic derangement seen mostly in human patients with advanced cancer. It is less commonly seen in veterinary medicine because most patients are humanely euthanized before advanced wasting occurs. The syndrome involves muscle wasting and loss of the body’s fat stores in spite of the patient consuming appropriate amounts of food. Use of antinausea medication, nutritional management, and appetite stimulants can be tried in these patients.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 744 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 29. a. b. c. d.

are the most common type of skin tumor in horses.

Squamous cell carcinomas Melanomas Sarcoids Fibromas

ANS: C

Sarcoids are the most common type of skin tumor in horses. They are locally invasive but rarely metastasize.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 745 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 30. Which term is used to represent a tumor that arises from an epithelial tissue? a. Sarcoma b. Carcinoma c. Fibroma d. Dermoma ANS: B

Carcinomas are tumors of epithelial tissues and arise from many sites. The more common ones seen in veterinary medicine are mammary carcinomas (primarily in late-spayed or intact females), urothelial carcinomas (e.g., transitional cell carcinoma of the urinary bladder), anal sac carcinomas in dogs, and squamous cell carcinomas in cats.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 729 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

31. In addition to choosing the appropriate treatment, what is the most important factor for

long-term treatment success when faced with a cancer diagnosis? a. Cost of the medication b. Options for inpatient or at-home treatment c. Early detection d. Side effects of the therapy ANS: C

Two of the most important factors for long-term treatment success of cancer are appropriate treatment and early detection. A “watch and wait” approach is not advised, and diagnostic recommendations should be documented in the veterinary record. If an owner declines diagnostics, monitoring recommendations should be made.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 729 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 32. Radiography of the

is most commonly used initially to evaluate the presence or absence of metastasis? a. Urinary bladder b. Stomach c. Medullary cavity of the femur d. Thorax ANS: D

Comprehensive radiography of the thorax is most commonly used initially to evaluate the presence or absence of metastatic disease. Specialty hospitals may additionally recommend thoracic computed tomogrT apEhS yT (CBTA),NdKepSeEnL diL ngEoRn.tC heOtM ype of tumor and its location. CT is the imaging modality used for planning radiation therapy, as it is more likely to detect very small lesions compared with other imaging modalities.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 729-730 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 33. Which of the following is not considered one of the four aspects of oncologic disease that

allow for accurate staging of the cancer’s progression? a. Regional lymph node involvement b. Tumor size and its borders c. Location and type of the tumor d. The patient’s age ANS: D

Carefully staging a tumor, which is essential for planning an appropriate and effective course of treatment, does not typically take patient age into account. The forth aspect of staging cancer is the presence or absence of metastasis and the number of tumors involved.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 730 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

34. Which of the following is the most likely treatment to provide a positive, long-term outcome

in a cancerous animal? a. Surgery b. Chemotherapy c. Radiation therapy d. Immuno-stimulation ANS: A

Surgery is the cancer treatment most likely to provide a positive, long-term result; however, it is not recommended for all tumor types. Surgery is best used to treat solitary masses that have not metastasized beyond the primary site, and to treat associated regional disease such as affected lymph nodes. Surgery will not improve survival for most patients with distant metastases. Generally, solitary tumors that are less than 2 cm in diameter and have been completely excised offer the best long-term surgical outcomes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 731 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 35. Which of the following is generally true regarding the doses and delivery of chemotherapeutic

drugs? a. Doses should be as low as possible and delivered for short periods b. Doses should be as low as possible and delivered for long periods c. Doses should be as high as possible and delivered for short periods d. Doses should be as high as possible and delivered for long periods ANS: C

Due to the highly toxic potTenEtS iaT l oBfAcN heKmSoE thL erLaE peRu. ticCaOgM ents on normal cells and the consequent side effects, it is recommended that chemotherapy be given at the highest dose possible (the maximum tolerated dose) for relatively short periods, followed by intervals of recovery when no chemotherapy is given. These periods of rest between treatments permit the side effects to recede.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 740 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 36. When do signs of acute tumor lysis syndrome (ATLS) occur in relation to chemotherapy

administration? a. After the 1st dose b. After several doses c. After the final dose d. Weeks to months after the final dose ANS: A

This uncommon syndrome occurs when tumor cells rapidly die and cause metabolic derangements in the patient as a consequence. Animals with advanced lymphoma or leukemia, as well as those with underlying renal disease, are at higher risk of developing ATLS, and it most commonly occurs after the first dose of treatment. Life-sparing treatment must be undertaken immediately upon observation of clinical signs, as this syndrome is usually fatal.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 742 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 37. What is the goal of palliative care? a. To cure the patient b. To improve the patient’s quality of life c. To anesthetize the patient d. To strengthen the patient’s immune system ANS: B

Palliative care involves aspects of “comfort care,” including therapies that improve the quality of life for the patient. These treatments help to decrease feelings of pain and nausea, increase vigor, and normalize gastrointestinal functions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 742 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 38. Which of the following would not reasonably pose a risk for chemotherapeutic agent exposure

to a client? The patient’s a. Urine b. Feces c. Vomit d. Hair ANS: D

When a patient is undergoing chemotherapy, it is important to realize that remnants of these medications may be present in the animal’s waste products and bodily fluids (including saliva and blood). Shed hair has not been implicated in medical exposure to clients who live in close proximity to their treated pets. If feces, urine, or vomit is encountered from a treated animal, care must be taken to wear intact gloves while cleaning up such materials.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 741-742 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 39. Which type of cancer is found in cattle with pale, nonpigmented areas of skin that are subject

to prolonged exposure to sunlight? a. Osteosarcoma b. Malignant melanoma c. Squamous cell carcinoma d. Lymphoma ANS: C

Squamous cell carcinoma is often seen in breeds of pasture-raised cattle with white heads, such as Herefords and Holsteins. The excess light coupled with the lack of pigment predisposes these cattle to this type of cancer on their heads, especially near the ears and eyes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 745 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 40. When should you typically expect the neutrophil count to reach its lowest level in relationship

to the animal receiving a chemotherapy dose? a. Within 24 hours b. After 1 to 3 days c. After 5 to 7 days d. After 10 days ANS: C

Patients will often experience their neutrophil “nadir” (lowest point) at approximately 5 to 7 days after administration of chemotherapy. It is important to know this time frame, since animals with severe neutropenia are at elevated risk to develop life-threatening microbial infections. It also will help to determine future treatment parameters.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 742 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

Chapter 22: Neonatal Care of Puppies, Kittens, and Foals Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Normal neonatal behavior for puppies and kittens involves a. sleeping for 2 to 4 hours throughout the day and nursing vigorously most of the

day (80%). b. sleeping throughout most of the day (80%) and nursing vigorously for a short time every 2 to 4 hours. c. being awake throughout most of the day (80%) and playing vigorously for a short time every 2 to 4 hours. d. being awake throughout most of the day (80%) and nursing vigorously for a short time every 2 to 4 hours.

ANS: B

During the first week of life, newborn kittens and puppies sleep throughout most of the day (80%) and nurse vigorously for a short time every 2 to 4 hours.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 749 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 2. By 3 days of age, kittens and puppies should be able to lift their head, and by

they

can crawl in a coordinated manner. a. 3 days b. 7 days c. 14 days d. 21 days ANS: B

By 3 days of age, kittens and puppies should be able to lift their head, and by 1 week they can crawl in a coordinated manner.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 749 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 3. In dogs, the testicles do not descend until a. birth. b. 1 to 2 weeks of age. c. 6 to 8 weeks of age. d. 6 to 8 months of age.

ANS: C

In dogs, the testicles do not descend until 6 to 8 weeks of age.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 749 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 4. Kittens and puppies will have doubled their birth weight by a. 7 to 10 days and 10 to 12 days, respectively. b. 10 to 12 days and 12 to 14 days, respectively. c. 12 to 14 days and 12 to 18 days, respectively. d. 7 to 20 days and 10 to 20 days, respectively.

ANS: A

Kittens and puppies will have doubled their birth weight by 7 to 10 days and 10 to 12 days, respectively.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 749 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 5. In neonatal kittens and puppies, which of the following occurs first? a. Their ear canals open. b. They open their eyes. c. They defecate without maternal stimulation. d. They demonstrate good postural reflexes.

ANS: B

Neonatal kittens and puppies begin to open their eyes at 7 to 12 days of age, and the external ear canals open at 14 to 16 days of age. By 3 weeks of age, they are able to stand and have good postural reflexes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 749 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 6. In neonatal puppies and kittens, it is important to be mindful that no more than

% of

the circulating blood volume should be drawn over the course of a week. a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 ANS: C

In neonatal puppies and kittens, no more than 10% of the circulating blood volume should be drawn over the course of a week. If the neonate is ill, the volume of blood to be drawn should be no more than 5% of the circulating volume.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 751 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry

7. Because neonatal puppies and kittens have immature kidneys, it is normal to find urine

specific gravities between 1.012 and 1.020, as well as younger than 2 weeks of age. a. glucose b. white blood cells c. red blood cells d. bacteria

in the urine of newborns

ANS: A

Because neonatal puppies and kittens have immature kidneys, it is normal to find urine specific gravities between 1.012 and 1.020, as well as glucose in the urine of newborns younger than 2 weeks of age.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 751 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 8. When

neonatal puppies and kittens are tube-fed, the milk replacer may be regurgitated and aspirated, resulting in pneumonia, or the stomach contents may ferment, leading to bloat. a. dehydrated b. hypothermic c. malnourished d. hypoglycemic ANS: B

When hypothermic neonatal puppies and kittens are tube-fed, the milk replacer may be regurgitated and aspirated, resulting in pneumonia, or the stomach contents may ferment, leading to bloat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 751 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 9. In hypothermic neonatal puppies and kittens, warm intravenous fluids can be given, but

should be no more than a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 10

°F higher than current body temperature.

ANS: A

In hypothermic neonatal puppies and kittens, warm intravenous fluids can be given, but should be no more than 2°F higher than current body temperature. It should be noted, however, that raising the neonatal body temperature by more than 4° F within an hour usually has fatal consequences because of delayed organ failure.

PTS: 1

REF: pp. 751-752

TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 10. A finding of tacky to dry mucous membranes in a neonatal puppy or kitten indicates

dehydration. a. 1% to 3% b. 5% to 7% c. 8% to 10% d. More than 10% ANS: B

A finding of tacky to dry mucous membranes in a neonatal puppy or kitten indicates 5% to 7% dehydration. At 10% dehydration, the mucous membranes are dry, and a decrease in skin elasticity is noticeable.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 752 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry

is one of the most common causes of seizures in neonatal puppies and

11.

kittens. a. Dehydrated b. Hypothermia c. Malnourished d. Hypoglycemia ANS: D

Hypoglycemia is one of the most common causes of seizures in neonatal puppies and kittens.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 752 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 12. Kittens at risk for neonatal isoerythrolysis are a. blood type B kittens that receive colostral antibodies from a blood type A queen. b. blood type A kittens that receive colostral antibodies from a blood type B queen. c. kittens that receive colostral antibodies from a blood type B queen. d. Kittens that do not receive colostrum.

ANS: B

All blood type B cats have high titers of naturally occurring antibodies against type A red blood cells. Therefore, if a blood type B queen nurses a blood type A kitten, the ingested colostral antibodies may lead to an incompatibility reaction. Kittens at risk for isoerythrolysis must be removed from their queen, but only during the first day of life.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 752 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry

13. To tube feed a neonatal puppy or kitten, first measure the distance from the tip of the

neonate’s nose to the end of its chest. Do this by laying a feeding tube alongside the animal’s body. Then, using a felt-tip pen or piece of tape, make a mark on the feeding tube at of this distance, measuring from the distal end of the tube. It is this length of tubing that is inserted into the neonate. a. 100% b. 75% c. 50% d. 25% ANS: B

To tube feed a neonatal puppy or kitten, first measure the distance from the tip of the neonate’s nose to the end of its chest. Do this by laying a feeding tube alongside the animal’s body. Then, using a felt-tip pen or piece of tape, make a mark on the feeding tube at 75% of this distance, measuring from the distal end of the tube. It is this length of tubing that is inserted gently into the mouth while holding the patient upright.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 752-753 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 14. The first indication that a neonatal or kitten is not doing well can best be determined by a. the skin turgor test. b. noting a loss of weight or lack of weight gain. c. measuring the urine spT ecEifS icTgBraAvN ityK.SELLER.COM d. daily recording of rectal temperatures.

ANS: B

Weight loss, or lack of weight gain, is the first indication that a neonate is not doing well.

Therefore, accurate daily weight recordings ensure that a problem will be identified before it is too late for therapy.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 754 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 15. The average length of gestation in a mare is a. 3 months 3 weeks and 3 days b. 285 days c. 340 days d. 9 months ANS: C

The average length of gestation in a mare is 340 days.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 755 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 16. When a mare becomes pregnant, she is evaluated at regular intervals by a. transabdominal ultrasound. b. “bumping” the abdomen. c. abdominal radiography. d. transrectal ultrasound.

ANS: D

When a mare becomes pregnant, she is evaluated at regular intervals by a veterinarian through rectal examination and transrectal ultrasonography at around 15 days, 30 days, and 90 days.

These examinations ensure that the mare is retaining the embryo, identifies the presence of twins, and evaluates amniotic and allantoic fluid levels surrounding the embryo.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 755 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 17. Toward the end of gestation, the mare is said to be waxing if a. her vulva becomes firm and swollen. b. beads of milk appear on the ends of her teats. c. she exhibits pica. d. her udder becomes enlarged and engorged.

ANS: B

BaArN Toward the end of gestatioT n,EtS heTm e’K sS udEdL erLsE loRw.lyCeOnM larges, and before delivery, beads of milk appear on the ends of her teats. This is called waxing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 755 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 18. Dripping milk from a mare’s udder occurs unexpectedly for three reasons. Which of the

following is not a cause for dripping? a. Twins are present b. The mare has placentitis c. The mare is colicky d. The owner has miscalculated the delivery date ANS: C

Unless delivery is imminent, the mare should not have milk dripping or streaming from her udder. Dripping occurs unexpectedly for three reasons: twins are present, the mare has placentitis, or the owner has miscalculated the delivery date.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 755 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry

19. Which is not an indication in late-term pregnancy that the foal is stressed in utero? a. A range of heart rates over time b. A sustained low heart rate c. A sustained high heart rate d. A falling heart rate ANS: A

In late-term pregnancy, the foal has a heart rate between 40 bpm (when sleeping) and 150 bpm (when active). The important point to note is that the foal should have a range of heart rates over time, not a sustained low or high heart rate, which can indicate that the foal is stressed in utero.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 755-756 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 20. The veterinarian can use ultrasound to evaluate gross fetal movement and to estimate fetal age

by measuring a. the crown to rump length. b. the eye orbit. c. the shoulder to carpus length. d. the placenta.

ANS: B

By performing transrectal ultrasonography, the veterinarian can evaluate gross fetal movement and can measurT eE thSeTeyBeAoNrbKitStE oL esLtiE mR at. eC feOtaMl age.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 755 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 21. A maiden mare is a. primiparous, which means that the mare has never foaled. b. multiparous, which means that the mare has been bred many times. c. omniparous, which means that the mare has never foaled. d. aparous, which means that the mare has never been bred.

ANS: A

A maiden mare is primiparous, which means that the mare has never foaled.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 756 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 22.

represents one of the most consistent and significant changes before parturition in a mare. a. A rapid rise in body temperature

b. A rapid rise in colostral calcium c. A rapid rise in urine calcium d. A rapid rise in body movement ANS: B

A rapid rise in colostral calcium represents one of the most consistent and significant changes before parturition, in a mare.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 756 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 23. Stage 2 of labor is explosive in mares and starts when the placenta ruptures and allantoic fluid

escapes (water breaking). When this occurs, the foal should be delivered within . a. 30 minutes b. 1 hour c. 2 hours d. 8 hours ANS: A

Stage 2 of labor is explosive in mares and starts when the placenta ruptures and allantoic fluid escapes (water breaking). When this occurs, the foal should be delivered within 30 minutes, but many foals are delivered within 10 to 15 minutes. If the foal is not delivered within 30 minutes, the foal will experience hypoxemia (low oxygen blood levels) and may develop neurologic deficits or mayTdE ieS ; tT heBrA efN orKe,StE hiL sL isEcR on.sC idO erM ed to be an emergency.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 756 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 24. Foals pass a. allantoic fluid

(black, sticky fecal material) within a few hours after birth.

b. surfactant c. meconium d. mesenchyme ANS: C

Foals pass meconium (black, sticky fecal material) within a few hours after birth.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 757 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 25. It is important to measure the foal’s immunoglobulin G (IgG) level approximately 12 hours

after delivery to ensure that a. passive transfer of maternal antibodies has occurred. b. active transfer of maternal antibodies has occurred.

c. hypoglycemia has not occurred. d. adequate fat has been absorbed for thermoregulation.

ANS: A

It is important to measure the foal’s immunoglobulin G (IgG) level approximately 12 hours after delivery to ensure that passive transfer of maternal antibodies has occurred.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 757|p. 758 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 26. Which of the following statements regarding the hematology and serum chemistry values of a

foal is the least accurate? a. Band neutrophils are not normal in the healthy foal. b. A serum glucose level below the normal reference range is a concern. c. The packed cell volume of the normal foal during the first 24 hours of life is less than that of an adult horse d. In normal foals, serum levels of creatinine and blood urea nitrogen often are above reference values for adults for the first 36 to 72 hours of life.

ANS: C

The packed cell volume of the normal foal during the first 24 hours of life is greater than that of an adult horse. Band neutrophils are not normal in the healthy foal, and elevated levels usually indicate acute infection, such as sepsis. A decrease in serum glucose concentration to below the normal referenceTrEaS ngTeBisAaNcKoS ncEeL rnLaE ndR. inC diOcaMtes insufficient caloric uptake of the foal or metabolic derangements in the critically ill foal. In normal foals, serum levels of creatinine and blood urea nitrogen often are above reference values for adults for the first 36 to 72 hours of life.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 758 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 27. Signs of a premature foal include a. high birth weight. b. silky hair coat. c. erect ears. d. concave forehead.

ANS: B

Signs of a premature foal include low birth weight, weakness, silky hair coat, floppy ears, domed forehead, flexor tendon laxity, and angular limb deformities.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 758 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry

28. The term

usually refers to a large foal that experienced a longer-than-expected gestation (e.g., 400 days). a. polymaturity b. dysmaturity c. hypermaturity d. extramaturity ANS: B

The term dysmaturity usually refers to a large foal (e.g., greater than 65 kg) that experienced a longer-than-expected gestation (e.g., 400 days). The foal’s hair coat will be coarse and long, and the incisor teeth will have erupted through the gingiva.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 758 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 29. A foal that is critically ill often presents with sunken eyes and entropion as a result of a. b. c. d.

. hypovolemia hypothermia malnourishment hypoglycemia

ANS: A

A foal that is critically ill often presents with sunken eyes and entropion (eyelids rolled TiBa A(dNecKrS inward) as a result of hypoT voElS em eaEseLdLbEloRo. dC voOlM ume).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 760 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 30. When foals are unable or reluctant to swallow and are treated with antimicrobials, they are

prone to develop an oral infection characterized by a coating of white plaque on the tongue.

Which of the following is the most common pathogen leading to this infection? a. Rhodococcus equi b. Streptococcus spp. c. Trichophyton spp. d. Candida spp.

ANS: D

When foals are unable or reluctant to swallow and are treated with antimicrobials, they are prone to develop oral candidiasis. This yeast infection coats the tongue with a white plaque.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 763 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry

31. How much weight should a hospitalized foal gain daily to indicate that it is receiving adequate

nutrition? a. Less than 1 lb./day b. 1 to 2 lbs./day c. 3 to 4 lob/day d. 5 lbs./day ANS: B

With daily weighing, it is easy to determine whether the foal is receiving adequate nutrition.

Foals usually gain 1 to 2 lb (0.5 to 1 kg) per day.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 763 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 32. Failure to properly care for the umbilical stump after foaling can lead to infection and

inflammation of this tissue. What is the name of this inflammation? a. Umbilicitis b. Omphalitis c. Urachitis d. Umbilical remnant disorder ANS: B

The external umbilical remnant contains remnants of the urachus (which connects to the urinary bladder). Sick foals often develop a patent urachus and omphalitis, or inflammation of SbEilLicLalErR .nCaOntMwill be moist and enlarged, and the the umbilicus. When thisToE ccSuT rsB , tA heNuKm em foal will strain or dribble small streams when urinating.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 761 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 33. What is the reason why fibrinogen levels are measured in the plasma of a sick foal? a. To determine the presence of active inflammation. b. To determine whether a foal has experienced failure of passive transfer. c. To ensure that the foal has adequate clotting capabilities. d. To determine the risk of thrombus formation and embolism.

ANS: A

Fibrinogen levels in plasma increase when a foal is experiencing active inflammation. In general, fibrinogen levels should not exceed 420 mg/dL in foals up to 1 week of age.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 758 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 34. A newborn foal is noticed walking with exaggerated steps and holding itself up with a

wide-based stance. What is the likely cause of this?

a. Sleepy foal disease b. Joint infection c. Cranial nerve deficits due to congenital dysfunction d. This is normal ANS: D

A newborn foal does not have the same nervous system development as an older horse, so they exhibit an exaggerated posture and gait. An increased response to visual, auditory, and tactile stimuli, as well as jerky movements, also are considered normal.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 757 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry 35. Which of the following is ideal regarding contact of a mare with her new foal after the

birthing process? a. The foal should be removed immediately. b. The foal should be allowed to nurse for up to 1 hour, and then removed. c. The foal should be placed with another mare. d. The mare and her foal should be allowed to remain together as much as possible.

ANS: D

Postpartum bonding is important for both foals and mares, especially since mares are historically very protective of their offspring. The foal will be able to nurse as needed during the first few hours of life to ensure adequate colostrum intake, as long as no complications occur.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 756 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry

Chapter 23: Care of Birds, Reptiles, and Small Mammals Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. There is a large role that the veterinary technician can play in the health care of exotic pets. It

is estimated that of the diseases seen in veterinary clinics in these animals is a result of pet owners’ lack of basic nutritional and husbandry information for that species. a. 25% b. 45% c. 65% d. 85% ANS: D

It is important to note that approximately 85% of the presenting disease problems of companion exotic animals result from pet owners’ lack of basic nutritional and husbandry information for that particular species.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 767 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 2. When bringing a bird into the clinic, owners should be advised that it is not necessary to a. bring droppings from the cage. b. bring a photo of the hoT mE eS enTcB loAsuNrK e.SELLER.COM c. bring in the home cage rather than a transport cage. d. bring in any supplements used or medications the bird is on.

ANS: C

Owners should be advised to take photos of the enclosure at home and bring droppings from the cage to allow the medical team to evaluate them. Additionally, owners should bring in samples of the food they offer, any supplements used, and any medications the bird may currently be taking.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 767 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 3. When restraining avian species, technicians must be careful to restrain the head safely while

not compressing the chest because a. they struggle against tight restraint. b. their feathers are easily crushed and broken. c. they do not have much muscle to protect their bones. d. their chest must be able to expand and contract to allow them to breathe.

ANS: D

Birds lack a diaphragm, and the chest must be able to expand and contract to allow them to breathe. Once the bird is in the towel, technicians must be careful to restrain the head safely while not compressing the chest.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 768 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Recognize, understand, and perform restraint techniques of birds, reptiles, amphibians, and ferrets 4.

Avian droppings have three components. Which statement is not correct? a. The feces component of avian droppings is generally brown to green b. Urine is the liquid part of avian droppings. c. Uric acid in avian droppings is generally white and pasty. d. Ammonia is the liquid part of avian droppings.

ANS: D

Avian droppings have three components; the feces, which are generally brown to green and formed like normal stool, uric acid, which is how avian kidneys convert and excrete ammonia, is generally white and pasty, and urine, which is the liquid part.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 768 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 5. Most pet bird species haveTpE reSdT om y ELLER.COM inhabiting the digestive system.

BiAnaNnKtlS a. Gram-positive organisms b. Gram-negative organisms c. mixed Gram staining flora d. the Gram staining flora with properties that are diet dependent ANS: A

Most pet bird species have predominantly Gram-positive organisms inhabiting the digestive system. This test can also be helpful in diagnosing candidiasis, Clostridium perfringens, or avian gastric yeast.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 768 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 6. A cloacal swab is often performed on avian species to obtain samples for PCR (polymerase

chain reaction) testing. These DNA tests are often used for infectious disease testing such as a. Candidiasis and Clostridium perfringens. b. Chlamydia psittaci and Polyomavirus. c. ascarids and Capillaria spp. d. polyuria and diarrhea.

ANS: B

A cloacal swab is often performed on avian species to obtain samples for PCR (polymerase chain reaction) testing. These DNA tests are often used for infectious disease testing such as Chlamydia psittaci or polyomavirus.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 769 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective data: birds, reptiles, amphibians, and ferrets 7. Which of the following statements about performing a crop wash on birds is the least

accurate? a. A beak speculum must be used to pry open the beak. b. A sterile tube is inserted laparoscopically into the proventriculus, and then advanced into the crop. c. Sterile saline is flushed into the crop, agitated, and then aspirated back though the tube. d. Always use a tube that has a diameter larger than the glottis.

ANS: B

When performing a crop wash, a beak speculum must be used to pry open the beak. A sterile or sanitized tube is placed through the bird’s oral cavity into the crop. Always use a tube that has a diameter larger than the glottis. Sterile saline is flushed into the crop, agitated, and then aspirated back though the tube.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 769 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe anTdEeS ffeTcB tivAeNcaKreSfE orLbLirE dsR, . reC ptO ileMs, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective data: birds, reptiles, amphibians, and ferrets

is a muscular outpouching of the esophagus located above a bird’s sternum where food is stored prior to digestion. a. Choana b. Crop c. Proventriculus d. Gizzard

8. The

ANS: B

The crop is a muscular outpouching of the esophagus located above a bird’s sternum where food is stored prior to digestion.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 769 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 9. When examining a crop wash sample, all inflammatory cells should be noted.

are, the most abundant granulocyte in avian, reptile, and some small mammalian species. a. Heterophils b. Mast cells

c. Neutrophils d. Macrophages ANS: A

Heterophils are the most abundant granulocyte in avian, reptile, and some small mammalian species.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 769 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Perform laboratory procedures 10. Each blood collection location in avian patients has its own advantages and disadvantages.

The vein is the recommended site for most, if not all, pet bird species. a. left jugular b. right jugular c. saphenous d. basilic ANS: B

Common venipuncture sites in birds include the right jugular vein, basilic vein, and the medial metatarsal vein. The right jugular vein is the recommended site for most, if not all, pet bird species.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 769 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Collect T blE ooSdTsaBmApN leK s SELLER.COM 11. The term apteric tract refers to a. an energy flow line used in acupuncture. b. a normal area of thin skin where vena puncture is most easily performed. c. a normal area of skin where feathers do not grow. d. the jugular furrow of birds.

ANS: C

The apteric tract is a normal area of skin where feathers do not grow.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 769-770 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 12. Safe sample collection volumes from birds should never be greater than

body weight. a. 1% b. 2% c. 5% d. 10% ANS: A

of the bird’s

Safe sample collection volumes from birds should never be greater than 1% of the bird’s body weight. Technicians should take into account the potential for hematoma formation before sampling avian patients.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 770 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective data: birds, reptiles, amphibians, and ferrets 13. For endotracheal intubation, a noncuffed tube is used in birds because a. their trachea is lined with highly sensitive tissue, and pressure from a cuff could

cause severe pressure necrosis of the mucosal layer. b. their trachea is made of completely closed cartilaginous rings, and pressure from a

cuff could cause severe pressure necrosis of the mucosal layer. c. their trachea bifurcates in a very short distance, so a cuff is not needed. d. their trachea is a single diameter, so a cuff is not needed.

ANS: B

For endotracheal intubation, a noncuffed tube is used in birds because their trachea is made of completely closed cartilaginous rings and pressure from a cuff could cause severe pressure necrosis of the mucosal layer.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 771 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective data: birds, reptiles, amphibians, and ferrets 14. Intramuscular injection of medication in birds should be given in the a. large biceps brachii muscle mass. b. large triceps brachii muscle mass. c. large pectoral muscle mass. d. large quadriceps muscle mass.

ANS: C

Intramuscular injection of medication in birds should be given in the large pectoral muscle mass on either side of the keel bone.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 772 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Administer drugs or medicaments using appropriate sites and routes 15. Gavage feeding is often necessary in birds. Food that is administered using a feeding tube

must have a temperature between a. 50° F and 80° F. b. room temperature and tepid, room temperature. c. 85° F and 87° F. d. 99° F and 101° F. ANS: D

Food that is administered using a feeding tube must have a temperature between 99° F and 101° F. PTS: 1 REF: p. 772 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 16. An overgrown beak is often mistakenly thought to be due to a lack of things to chew or grind

on, but in reality, it is usually a sign of a. trauma. b. infection. c. metabolic disturbance. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

An overgrown beak is often mistakenly thought to be due to a lack of things to chew or grind on, but in reality it is usually a sign of trauma, infection, or metabolic disturbance.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 773 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 17. Avian seed diets are deficient in certain nutrients such as specific amino acids and vitamins

(particularly vitamin a. b. c. d.

igE hLinLfE atR. .COM TE)S, aTnBdAarNeKhS

A B C D

ANS: A

Seed diets are deficient in certain nutrients such as specific amino acids, vitamins (particularly vitamin A), trace minerals, and macro minerals (such as calcium and sodium), and are high in fat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 774 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 18. Psittacosis is a disease transmissible to humans that is caused by the bacterium C. psittaci.

This disease bacterium’s genus is a. Candida. b. Chlamydia. c. Clostridia. d. Campylobacter.

ANS: B

Psittacosis is a disease transmissible to humans that is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia psittaci. Birds suspected to be sick with Chlamydia should be isolated, gloves and masks should be used to protect hospital personnel, and feces should be disposed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 776 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Recognize, understand, and perform restraint techniques of birds, reptiles, amphibians, and ferrets 19. When taking a history, the veterinary technician should always ask when the last period of

ecdysis occurred. Ecdysis is a. Estrus in snakes b. Molting in birds c. Shedding in reptiles d. Nesting in birds ANS: C

Ecdysis is shedding PTS: 1 REF: p. 777 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 20. Vitamin

deficiency is commonly diagnosed in reptiles, and usually manifests as an overgrown beak, stomatitisT, E dySsT ecBdA ysNisK, S paElpLeL brEalRe.dC em OaM, and conjunctivitis. a. b. c. d.

A B C D

ANS: A

Vitamin A deficiency is commonly diagnosed in reptiles, and usually manifests as an overgrown beak (chelonians), stomatitis, dysecdysis, palpebral edema (inflammation of the eyelid), and conjunctivitis (inflammation of the conjunctival tissue around the eye).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 777 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 21. Nutritional Secondary Hyperparathyroidism (NSHP) is one of the more common of the

metabolic bone diseases that are prevalent in captive reptiles. It is caused by all of the following except a. inappropriately low calcium intake. b. low vitamin D3 intake. c. too great an exposure to UVB radiation. d. excessive phosphorus intake.

ANS: C

Nutritional Secondary Hyperparathyroidism (NSHP) is one of the more common of the metabolic bone diseases that are prevalent in captive reptiles. It is caused by inappropriately low calcium intake, low vitamin D3 intake (or access to UVB radiation), or excessive phosphorus intake.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 777 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 22. Snakes should be fed freshly killed or thawed frozen rodents to prevent a. hypovitaminosis A. b. Nutritional Secondary Hyperparathyroidism (NSHP). c. egg binding. d. injury or infection caused by prey bites to the snake.

ANS: D

It is usually prudent to feed frozen or freshly killed rodents to prevent injury or infection caused by prey bites to the snake.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 779 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education

ntK oS wE hiLchLE thR e. reC prOoM ductive, gastrointestinal, and urinary TESTBAiN tracts empty prior to being excreted from the body. a. choana b. cloaca c. uropygial pouch d. gizzard

23. All reptiles have a(n)

ANS: B

All reptiles do have a cloaca into which the reproductive, gastrointestinal, and urinary tracts empty prior to being excreted from the body.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 780 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 24. Injections should be administered to reptiles in the cranial half of the animal’s body, because a. of the larger muscle masses. b. proper restraint makes this safer. c. of the renal portal system. d. of the dermal scutes.

ANS: C

The renal portal system in reptiles routes blood from the caudal third of the body through a capillary network into the kidneys before sending it to the general circulation. Because of this, injections should be administered to reptiles in the cranial half of the animal’s body, especially if the drug is nephrotoxic.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 783 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Perform injections using appropriate sites 25. What does the acronym POTZ refer to regarding poikilotherms? a. Poikilotherm Optimum Temperature Zone b. Preferred Optimum Temperature Zone c. Poikilotherm Overt Temperature Zone d. Preferred Overt Temperature Zone ANS: B

All poikilotherms should be kept at their POTZ (Preferred Optimum Temperature Zone) is the temperature at which individual species will thrive.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 782-783 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 26. Ferrets are strict carnivores with general dietary requirements of roughly a. 12% to 18% protein anT d EloSwTiB n AfaNt.KSELLER.COM b. 12% to 18% protein and 25% fat. c. 30% protein and low in fat. d. 30% protein and 25% fat.

ANS: D

Ferrets are strict carnivores, with general dietary requirements of roughly 30% protein and 25% fat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 785 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 27. Female ferrets are a. seasonally polyestrous. b. diestrus. c. anestrus. d. induced ovulators.

ANS: D

Female ferrets are induced ovulators.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 785

TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 28. Hyperadrenocorticism is a common problem in pet ferrets due to a. hypertrophy of the adrenal gland. b. atrophy of the adrenal gland. c. hypertrophy of the pituitary gland. d. atrophy of the pituitary gland.

ANS: A

Hyperadrenocorticism is a common problem in pet ferrets due to hypertrophy of the adrenal gland.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 785 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 29. Clients should always be counseled that a ferret, particularly a young kit, that is vomiting,

anorexic, and lethargic, should be considered to have a potential a. salmonella infection b. gastrointestinal obstruction c. influenza infection d. dietary deficiency ANS: B

A ferret, particularly a young kit, that is vomiting, anorexic, and lethargic, should be considered to have a potential gastrointestinal obstruction.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 786 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 30. Why should pregnant guinea pigs be bred by 7 or 8 months of age? a. To prevent dystocia b. To prevent uterine adenocarcinoma c. To prevent aggression when mating occurs d. Because by 8 months of age guinea pigs become anestrus ANS: A

A female guinea pig’s pubic symphysis undergoes fusion at 7 to 8 months of age. Pregnancy after this time will result in a dystocia. If the sow is experiencing dystocia, retrieval of the young by cesarean section is often the only option to save her and the fetuses.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 792 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians,

guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 31. How many flight feathers should be clipped to prevent an injured bird from trying to fly? a. 0—You should never trim flight feathers b. 1 to10 c. 10 to 20 d. All of them ANS: B

No more than 10 primary flight feathers should be trimmed in order to prevent unwanted flight in birds. Larger birds require less to be trimmed than smaller birds. It is important to clip feathers on both wings in a symmetric fashion to help prevent injury due to uncoordinated flight.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 773 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 32. While using opioids in birds, it is important to know that many birds have larger numbers of

opioid receptors in relation to mammals. a. b. c. d.

Mu Kappa Omega Lambda

ANS: B

Mammalian opioid receptors are dominated by the mu receptor. Birds have a predominance of kappa receptors. An alternative drug such as butorphanol (partial kappa agonist) would work preferentially in avian patients.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 771 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 33. Why should care be taken when a rabbit is injected with atropine as a surgical premedication? a. Rabbits are extremely sensitive to atropine. b. Atropine is associated with malignant hyperthermia. c. Atropine causes excessive salivation and gastric secretion in rabbits. d. Rabbits naturally break down atropine.

ANS: D

Rabbits produce an enzyme (atropinesterase) that naturally breaks down atropine. To alleviate the secretory state induced by the parasympathetic arm of the autonomic nervous system, glycopyrrolate should be used instead, because it tends to persist in the rabbit for longer periods of time.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 787 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the

approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Administer drugs or medicaments using appropriate sites and routes 34. When do rabbits typically exhibit the most activity? a. Nighttime b. Daytime c. At periods of low light d. They are active all day long ANS: C

Rabbits are crepuscular, which means they are most active during periods of low light as occurs during the hours of dusk and dawn. In nature, this is the time of day when rabbits are expected to experience fewer of their natural predators.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 787 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Understand unique husbandry issues for each species (birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets) and provide client education 35. When taking radiographs on birds in the ventrodorsal view (VD), what should the technician

align the spinal column up with to ensure a clear image is collected? a. The right scapula b. The left humeral head c. The ramus of the mandible d. The keel bone ANS: D

By aligning the keel and the spinal cord, the technician can be confident that the structures visualized on a VD radiograph will be in view. When positioning in lateral recumbency, the ideal position will align both hip bones perfectly while the legs are separated.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 770-771 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Avian, Exotic & Small Mammals Procedures: Understand the approach to providing safe and effective care for birds, reptiles, amphibians, guinea pigs, hamsters, gerbils, and ferrets. | Recognize, understand, and perform restraint techniques of birds, reptiles, amphibians, and ferrets

Chapter 24: Physical Therapy, Rehabilitation, and Alternative Medical Nursing Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1.

are naturally occurring and biologically active products that can be supplemented in a patient’s diet to provide a health benefit. a. Food additives b. Nutraceuticals c. Probiotics d. Supplements ANS: B

Nutraceuticals are naturally occurring and biologically active products that can be supplemented in a patient’s diet to provide a health benefit.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 799 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 2.

inhibits enzymes that are responsible for cartilage degradation and decreases the production of inflammatory mediators. a. Glucosamine b. Chondroitin c. Glycosaminoglycans d. Hyaluronic acid ANS: A

Glucosamine inhibits enzymes that are responsible for cartilage degradation and decreases the production of inflammatory mediators.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 799 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 3. Nutraceuticals and chondroprotectants available to treat osteoarthritis include all of the

following except a. enkephalins. b. omega 3 fatty acids. c. polysulfated glycosaminoglycans. d. hyaluronic acid.

ANS: A

Nutraceuticals and chondroprotectants available to treat osteoarthritis osteoarthritis include omega 3 fatty acids, polysulfated glycosaminoglycans, and hyaluronic acid.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 799 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 4. Herbal extracts are made by

a. b. c. d.

drying, chopping, and powdering the herb. soaking the herb or extract in hot water, and then allowing it to cool. concentrating the herb in alcohol or glycerin. grinding and nebulizing the herb.

ANS: C

Herbal extracts are made by concentrating the herb in alcohol or glycerin.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 801 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 5. The Materia Medica a. is used as a reference for toxic plants. b. is a drug formulary for herbal remedies. c. is a Chinese form of acupuncture. d. is a flower recipes book.

ANS: B

Information about the medicinal use of herbs can be found in the Materia Medica, which is similar to a drug formulary.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 801 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 6. The physiologic effects of acupuncture a. include local effects based upon needle placement.

TESTBANKSELLER.COM b. include systemic effects based upon CNS responses. c. include both systemic and local effects. d. work only to improve local blood flow.

ANS: C

The physiologic effects of acupuncture include both systemic and local effects as acupuncture stimulates both the central and peripheral nervous systems.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 801 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 7. The local effects of acupuncture include; a. muscle relaxation and spasm relief. b. vasoconstriction. c. the decreased production of local prostaglandins. d. release of Hageman’s Factor XII which suppresses the clotting cascade.

ANS: A

The local effects of acupuncture include muscle relaxation and spasm relief; release of Hageman Factor XII, which activates the clotting cascade, complement cascade, plasminogen and kinins; degranulation of mast cells, which releases histamine, heparin, and kinin protease; release of bradykinin which leads to vasodilation; and production of local prostaglandins, which leads to smooth muscle relaxation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 801 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 8.

acupuncture points, which make up 67% of all points, are considered motor points and are located in areas where nerves enter muscles. a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV ANS: A

Type I acupuncture points, which make up 67% of all points, are considered motor points.

The motor point is the point in a muscle which, when electrical stimulation is applied, will produce a maximal contraction with minimal intensity of stimulation. Motor points are located in areas where nerves enter muscles.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 801 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 9. Dry needle acupuncture is the insertion of a sterile filiform needle into an acupuncture point to

elicit a response. These needles are typically left in place for a. 15 to 30 seconds b. 1 to 3 minutes c. 15 to 30 minutes d. 1 to 3 hours ANS: B

Dry needle acupuncture is the insertion of a sterile filiform needle into an acupuncture point to elicit a response. These needles are typically left in place for 15 to 30 minutes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 802 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 10. A subluxation or a vertebral subluxation complex (VSC) involves an abnormal relationship

between two adjacent vertebrae. Clinical signs include a. altered mobility. b. pain on palpation. c. abnormal tension in the paraspinal muscles. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

A subluxation or a vertebral subluxation complex (VSC) involves an abnormal relationship between two adjacent vertebrae. Clinical signs include altered mobility, pain on palpation, and abnormal tension.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 804 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

11. If resistance is felt when the acupuncture needle is removed, the veterinary technician should, a. tap around the needle. b. roll the needle up and down. c. pull the needle out more forcefully. d. leave the needle in longer.

ANS: A

If resistance is felt when the needle is removed, tapping around the needle, rolling it back and forth, or gently holding down the skin on either side of the needle while pulling the needle gently will ease it from the tissue.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 803 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 12. Immediately after veterinary spinal manipulative therapy (VSMT), the technician may be

asked to massage the patient or walk the patient for several minutes to help the animal a. relax after the adjustment. b. “hold” the adjustment. c. “set” the adjustment. d. warm the muscles after the adjustment.

ANS: B

Immediately after VSMT, the technician may be asked to massage the patient or walk the patient for several minutes to help them “hold” the adjustment.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 8S0T 5 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

can be defined as relief of pain and restoration of mobility and

13.

function. a. Rehabilitation b. Restoration c. Physiotherapy d. Physical therapy ANS: A

Rehabilitation can be defined as relief of pain and restoration of mobility and function.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 805 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 14. A(n)

is used to measure the range of motion (both flexion and extension) of all distal joints including the carpus, elbow, shoulder, tarsus, stifle, and hip. a. Gulick b. Goniometer c. Force plate d. Infrared camera

ANS: B

A goniometer is used to measure the range of motion (both flexion and extension) of all distal joints including the carpus, elbow, shoulder, tarsus, stifle, and hip.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 806 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 15. PROM stands for a. progressive resistance of the muscle. b. physical rehabilitation of the muscle. c. passive range of motion. d. power range of muscle.

ANS: C

Passive range of motion (PROM) is a manual therapy that uses stretching to prevent the loss of normal range of motion, to return normal range of motion if absent, to increase cartilage nutrition in the joint, and to stimulate cartilage regeneration.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 811 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

exercises help a patient develop better body awareness.

16. a. b. c. d.

Endurance Proprioception Strengthening Therapeutic

ANS: B

Proprioception exercises help a patient develop better body awareness.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 807 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 17.

exercises can target specific muscle groups, such as hamstrings and gluteals.

They are used when atrophy is present or when increased strength in specific areas is desired. a. Endurance b. Proprioception c. Strengthening d. Therapeutic ANS: C

Strengthening exercises can target specific muscle groups, such as hamstrings and gluteals.

They are used when atrophy is present or when increased strength in specific areas is desired.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 807 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

exercises are used to improve strength, balance, and

18.

coordination. a. Endurance b. Proprioception c. Strengthening d. Therapeutic ANS: D

Therapeutic exercises are used to improve strength, balance, and coordination.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 807 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

exercises emphasize the cardiovascular system and are whole body

19.

exercises. a. Endurance b. Proprioception c. Strengthening d. Therapeutic ANS: A

Endurance exercises emphasize the cardiovascular system and are whole body exercises.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 808 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 20.2 Hydrotherapy involves the use of water to promote physical activity. It takes advantage of the 0 physical properties of water, such as temperature, buoyancy, and pressure, for therapeutic . purposes. The buoyancy property of water a. decreases stress on the joints. b. reduces edema. c. improves strengthening and proprioception. d. all of the above.

ANS: A

Hydrotherapy involves the use of water to promote physical activity. The buoyancy of the water decreases stress on the joints.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 808 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 21. Hydrotherapy involves the use of water to promote physical activity. It takes advantage of the

physical properties of water, such as temperature, buoyancy, and pressure, for therapeutic purposes. The hydrostatic pressure of the water a. decreases stress on the joints. b. reduces edema. c. improves strengthening and proprioception. d. all of the above.

ANS: B

Hydrotherapy involves the use of water to promote physical activity. The hydrostatic pressure of the water reduces edema.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 808 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 22. Hydrotherapy involves the use of water to promote physical activity. It takes advantage of the

physical properties of water, such as temperature, buoyancy, and pressure, for therapeutic purposes. The viscosity and surface tension of the water a. decreases stress on the joints. b. reduces edema. c. improves strengthening and proprioception. d. all of the above.

ANS: C

Hydrotherapy involves the use of water to promote physical activity. The viscosity and surface tension of the water improve strengthening and proprioception.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 808 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 23. When direct pressure is applied over an area of maximal tenderness of a taut muscle band or

knot, the tissue becomes ischemic (blood is pushed out of the tissue), and when the pressure is removed, the tissue becomes hyperemic (blood quickly infiltrates the tissue). This massage techniques is called a. trigger-point massage. b. acupressure. c. ischemic massage. d. effleurage.

ANS: A

The manual technique for deactivating a trigger point is ischemic compression. When direct pressure is applied over the point, the tissue becomes ischemic (blood is pushed out of the tissue), and when the pressure is removed, the tissue becomes hyperemic (blood quickly infiltrates the tissue).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 810 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 24.

is the most commonly used massage stroke in animals. It is a gliding stroke that follows the contour of the body. a. Trigger-point massage b. Acupressure c. Ischemic massage d. Effleurage ANS: D

Effleurage is the most commonly used massage stroke in animals. It is a gliding stroke that follows the contour of the body.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 810 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 25. Pétrissage, or kneading, consists of rhythmic lifting, squeezing, and releasing of tissue. It is

beneficial in a. relaxing muscles. b. removing metabolic waste and promoting circulation. c. deactivating a trigger point. d. lengthening muscles.

ANS: B

Pétrissage is beneficial in removing metabolic waste and promoting circulation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 810 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 26. The massage motion where the hands are cupped, and strokes start at the caudal aspect of the

ribs and move forward, which loosens up phlegm congestion in the lungs, is called a. effleurage. b. tapotement. c. coupage. d. vibration.

ANS: C

Coupage, which is a form of tapotement, is used to loosen phlegm congestion in the lungs.

The hands are cupped, and strokes start at the caudal aspect of the ribs and move forward.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 810 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 27. Contraindications to massage include massaging over a. bacterially or virally infected lesions. b. open wounds. c. the area of an acute injury or an inflammatory condition. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Contraindications include massaging over bacterially or virally infected lesions, over open wounds, over the area of an acute injury or an inflammatory condition, over an area of hemorrhage, or after a recent high fever.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 811 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 28. Passive range of motion (PROM) is the use of stretching

a. b. c. d.

to prevent the normal range of motion. to return normal range of motion if absent. to decrease cartilage nutrition in the joint. to inhibit cartilage regeneration.

ANS: B

Passive range of motion (PROM) is the use of stretching to prevent the loss of normal range of motion, to return normal range of motion if absent, to increase cartilage nutrition in the joint, and to stimulate cartilage regeneration.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 811 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 29.

is the use of electric current to stimulate nerves to release endogenous opioids and therefore relieve pain and muscle spasm. a. Neuromuscular electrical stimulation (NMES) b. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) c. Low-level laser therapy (LLLT) d. Therapeutic ultrasound (TU) ANS: B

Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) is the use of electric current to stimulate the nerves to release endogenous opioids and therefore relieve pain and muscle spasm.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 812 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and denTtiE strSyTteB chAnN iqK ueSsE apLpL roE prRia. teCtoOvMarious animal species. | Therapeutics 30. When performing massage therapy on horses, which of the following is a common sign that

the animal is relaxed? a. Swishing the tail b. Tachypnea c. Opening the eyes d. Hanging the head ANS: D

Horses will often hang their heads as a sign of relaxation. Other activities that indicate the animal is in a calm state include sighing, yawning, and burping.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 811 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 31. The practice of injecting air subcutaneously in order to treat muscle atrophy is called a. pseudo-acupuncture. b. air embolism. c. pneumo-acupuncture. d. oxygen therapy.

ANS: C

Pneumo-acupuncture works by producing pressure on underlying tissues and thereby stimulating nerves and muscles to help treat muscular atrophy.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 803 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 32. Which of the branches of herbal medicine is the most widely practiced in veterinary settings? a. Western b. Chinese c. Ayurvedic d. Traditional ANS: B

The onset of Chinese herbal medicine dates back over 8000 years, and incorporates Chinese herbal therapy, either individual or in combination. Western herbal medicine incorporates practices from the Greek and Native American practitioners, while Ayurvedic herbal medicine is perhaps the oldest form, although it is not as commonly practiced.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 800 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 33. Which of the following is not a result of cryotherapy? a. Vasodilation b. Decreased nervous conduction c. Decreased enzyme activity d. Decreased bleeding ANS: A

Cold therapy (cryotherapy) is often used to provide vasoconstriction, which results in decreased blood flow and slowing of hemorrhage. Biologic processes slow and decrease under cold temperature too, so enzyme activity diminishes and nervous conduction (such as is involved with pain) is minimized.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 814 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 34. What is the name of the therapeutic technique that uses sound waves to penetrate tissues and

treat damaged areas of the body? a. Therapeutic ultrasound b. Ultrasonication c. Laser therapy d. Hypersonication ANS: A

Therapeutic ultrasound is used to decrease inflammation and increase wound healing in tissues. Parameters such as frequency and intensity dictate the depth of tissue penetration, as well as the possibility of using thermal effects to treat the damaged areas.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 813

TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 35. What is the main benefit of thermotherapy? a. To sterilize a body surface. b. To stabilize and stiffen collagen. c. To increase circulation. d. To decrease microbial replication at a site of infection.

ANS: C

Heating body tissues functions to increase blood flow, thereby increasing muscle contractility and connective tissue flexibility. Mild warmth (not too hot to handle) is optimal, with applications lasting for up to 15 minutes at a time.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 814 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 36. What causes thermal injury complications while providing therapeutic ultrasound? a. Use of too large a probe b. Not moving the probe over the tissue c. Emitting too low of an intensity d. Using a “pulsed” ultrasound setting ANS: B

A stationary probe causes sound waves to be applied to a single focused area. With extensive application, heat will build up and can burn those areas of tissue. Moving the probe continuously will minimizT eE thS isTpB osAsiNbK iliS tyE. LLER.COM PTS: 1 REF: p. 814 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 37. With therapeutic ultrasound, as you a. b. c. d.

the frequency of the sound waves, you the depth of wave penetration into the body. increase, increase decrease, decrease increase, decrease decrease, block

ANS: C

With decreased wave frequency, sound waves will increase their depth of penetration.

Conversely, as the frequency is increased, the wave penetration decreases. This understanding is important when determining a patient’s therapeutic plan.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 813 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 38. Laser therapy relies on the amplification of a. Light b. Sound

to cause a therapeutic effect.

c. X-rays d. Heat ANS: A

Laser (light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation) therapy stimulates tissue with amplified light waves.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 813 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 39. Which of the following is not considered a primary effect of low-level laser therapy (LLLT)? a. Decreased pain b. Improved wound healing c. Decreased inflammation d. Decreased microbial populations ANS: D

Lasers function to decrease pain via endorphin release, promote wound healing by stimulating vascularization and new cell production in wounded tissues, and decrease inflammation by blocking prostaglandin production. Use of lasers to disinfect or sterilize tissues is not a known benefit of this technology.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 813 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 40. What percentage of weightTbEeS arT inB gAoN ccKuS rsEwLhL enEaRd.oCgOisMsubmerged in water to the level of

the stifle? a. 45% b. 60% c. 85% d. 99% ANS: C

When utilizing hydrotherapy in the rehabilitation of companion animals, it is important to understand how different levels of water affect the weight bearing capacity of injured limbs. It is understood that 91% of the weight bearing capacity of a limb is used when water reaches the tarsus. Conversely, when the water level reaches the greater trochanter of the femur just 38% of the weight bearing capacity is used. As a rule, the more submerged the limb, the more weight is taken off of that limb.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 809 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

Chapter 25: Fluid Therapy and Transfusion Medicine Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dogs, have a circulating blood volume of approximately, a. 40 to 60 mL/kg. b. 80 to 90 mL/kg. c. 40% of their BW. d. 60% of their BW. ANS: B

Dogs, cats, and horses have a circulating blood volume of approximately 80 to 90 mL/kg, 40 to 60 mL/kg, and 80 mL/kg, respectively.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 819 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 2. Cats have a circulating blood volume that is a. less b. the same c. greater d. not related to their weight

per kg than horses or dogs

ANS: A

Dogs, cats, and horses have a circulating blood volume of approximately 80 to 90 ml/kg, 40 to 60 ml/kg, and 80 ml/kg, respectively.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 819 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 3. When an electrolyte solution is administered, approximately

vascular space and a. 0%; 100% b. 25%; 75% c. 75%; 25% d. 100%; 0%

will remain in the

will move into the interstitium.

ANS: B

When an electrolyte solution is administered, approximately 25% will remain in the vascular space and 75% will move into the interstitium.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 820 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

4. Colloids by increasing the oncotic pressure of blood a. move fluid into the vascular space. b. move fluid into the interstitial space. c. move fluid into the peritoneal space. d. move fluid into the intracellular space.

ANS: A

Colloids may have the ability to move fluid from the interstitium into the vascular space by increasing the oncotic pressure of blood.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 820 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 5. 0.45% Sodium chloride (NaCl), is an example of a a. colloid b. isotonic crystalloid c. hypotonic crystalloid d. hypertonic crystalloid

fluid.

ANS: C

Examples of hypotonic fluids include dextrose 5% in water (D5W), and 0.45% sodium chloride (NaCl).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 820 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 6.

fluids should never be used in fluid resuscitation (administered rapidly as a bolus) because they are highly ineffective for expanding vascular volume and could cause overly rapid changes in blood osmolality. a. Hypertonic b. Hypotonic c. Isotonic d. Normotonic ANS: B

Hypotonic fluids have an osmolality less than that of blood It should be emphasized that these fluids should never be used in fluid resuscitation (administered rapidly as a bolus) because they are highly ineffective for expanding vascular volume and could cause overly rapid changes in blood osmolality.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 820 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 7. The high osmolality of

saline will cause a shift of fluid from the interstitium to the intravascular space, promoting rapid expansion of vascular volume (volume expansion) to aid in resuscitation.

a. b. c. d.

hypertonic hypotonic isotonic normotonic

ANS: A

The high osmolality of hypertonic saline will cause a shift of fluid from the interstitium to the intravascular space, promoting rapid expansion of vascular volume (volume expansion) to aid in resuscitation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 821 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 8. Fluid resuscitation administration should be titrated to effect based on clinical response the

best practice of this would be to a. bolus the shock dose of fluids then measure urine output. b. administer the shock dose of fluids then weigh the animal. c. administer one-fourth of the shock dose over 15 minutes and then reassessing for improvement in perfusion parameters. d. administer one-fourth of the shock dose every hour until stable.

ANS: C

Volumes determined as “shock doses” for these different fluids are meant to serve as a guideline. Fluid administration should be titrated to effect based on clinical response. This is typically achieved by giving some fraction of the shock dose over some period of time (such as one-fourth over 10 to 15Tm utB esA) N anKdSthEeLnLreEaR ss. esCsO inM g for improvement in perfusion EiSnT parameters.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 821 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 9.

fluid therapy involves correction of dehydration, replacement of ongoing losses, and provision of maintenance fluid requirements. a. Remittance b. Resuscitation c. Replacement d. Rescue ANS: C

Replacement fluid therapy involves correction of dehydration, replacement of ongoing losses, and provision of maintenance fluid requirements.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 822 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 10. The rate of fluid replacement should be altered in animals with

a. b. c. d.

kidney disease. cardiac disease. chronic loss. all of the above.

ANS: D

The fluid replacement rate should take into account the animal’s species and medical conditions. Patients with chronic fluid loss, for instance, should be rehydrated relatively slowly. There should be further consideration for feline patients as well as those with kidney disease, as these patients are particularly associated with decreased fluid tolerance and slower rehydration is recommended.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 822 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 11. In hospitalized patients, quantifying water losses can be accomplished by using urine

collection devices, or by weighing fluids (vomit, diarrhea, and urine) collected in absorbable pads. This is achieved by weighing the soiled pads and then subtracting the weight of the pads themselves. When taking this approach a. every gram of weight lost is equal to 1 mL of fluid loss. b. every kilogram of weight lost is equal to 1 mL of fluid loss. c. every gram of weight lost is equal to 10 mL of fluid loss. d. every kilogram of weight lost is equal to 10 mL of fluid loss.

ANS: A

Every gram of weight meaT suEreSdTiB s eAqN uaKlStoE1Lm l oRf.flC uiOdMloss.

LE PTS: 1 REF: p. 822 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 12. Linear fluid maintenance requirement calculations (such as 60 mL/kg/day) tend to

rates in small canine patients (<10 kg) and large patients (>30 kg). a. underestimate; underestimate b. underestimate; overestimate c. overestimate; underestimate d. overestimate: overestimate

rates in

ANS: B

Linear calculations (such as 60 ml/kg/day) tend to underestimate rates in small canine patients (<10 kg) and overestimate rates in large patients (>30 kg).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 822 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 13. Dextrose solutions greater than 2.5% should not be given subcutaneously

a. b. c. d.

because they may cause increased intravascular pressure. because they are hypotonic. because skin sloughing and abscess formation may occur. because they cause stinging at the site of injection.

ANS: C

Dextrose solutions greater than 2.5% should not be given subcutaneously because skin sloughing and abscess formation may occur.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 826-827 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 14. Enteral fluids are often used in a. dogs. b. volemic shock patients. c. neonates. d. horses.

ANS: D

Enteral fluids are often used in large animal patients, particularly equids.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 827 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

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15. Animals in diabetic ketoacidosis often present with a. hyponatermia. b. hypokalemia. c. hypercalemia. d. hyperpotassinemia.

ANS: B

Hypokalemia can be seen with gastrointestinal losses of potassium, such as vomiting or diarrhea, and with urinary losses. Specific causes include chronic renal failure, postobstructive diuresis, dialysis, hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing’s disease), diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), and primary hyperaldosteronism.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 827 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 16. Sodium bicarbonate can be administered to patients with

because it helps to promote a shift of potassium (K ) into cells in exchange for hydrogen ions (H+). a. hyponatermia b. hypokalemia c. hypercalemia d. hyperkalemia +

ANS: D

Sodium bicarbonate can be administered to patients with hyperkalemia because it helps to promote a shift of potassium (K+) into cells in exchange for hydrogen ions (H+).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 828 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 17. Measurement of blood

levels is used to indicate the level of anaerobic metabolism

in the tissue. a. potassium b. lactate c. gluconate d. sodium ANS: B

Measurement of blood lactate levels is a potential guide to fluid therapy. Lactate, a by-product of anaerobic metabolism, accumulates when tissues do not receive enough oxygen.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 829 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 18. One of the greatest concerns with volume overload from fluid therapy is a. weight gain. b. dilution of metabolic processes. c. pulmonary edema. d. loss of enzymatic function.

ANS: C

Volume overload is manifested in various ways. Of greatest concern is the development of pulmonary edema from overload of the left side of the heart.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 830 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 19. In foals more than 12 hours old, an immunoglobulin (Ig-G) concentration of less than a. b. c. d.

is an indication for plasma transfusion.

0 to 10mg/dL 5.5g/dL 800 mg/dL 800 g/dL

ANS: C

In foals more than 12 hours old, an immunoglobulin (Ig-G) concentration of less than 800 mg/dL is an indication for plasma transfusion.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 831 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 20. To increase the likelihood of having a compatible blood donor in a horse you should a. choose a donor horse of the same age as the recipient. b. choose a donor horse of the same weight as the recipient. c. choose a donor horse of the same sex as the recipient. d. choose a donor horse of the same breed as the recipient.

ANS: D

A horse of the same breed is more likely to have a similar blood type, so choosing a donor of the same breed may increase the likelihood of having a compatible blood donor.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 831 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 21. Dogs do not have naturally occurring antibodies; therefore, with regard to red blood cells, a. the first transfusion will cause a transfusion reaction. b. the first transfusion will cause alloimmunization. c. a transfusion reaction is more likely after a first transfusion. d. a transfusion reaction is less likely after a first transfusion.

ANS: D

Dogs do not have naturally occurring antibodies; therefore, a transfusion reaction is less likely after a first transfusion of red blood cells.

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PTS: 1 REF: p. 832 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 22. In

, an initial emergency blood transfusion may be given without pretesting because the likelihood of naturally occurring RBC antibodies is low. a. cats b. horses and dogs c. all of the above d. none of the above ANS: B

In horses and dogs, an initial emergency blood transfusion may be given without pretesting because the likelihood of naturally occurring RBC antibodies is low.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 833 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 23. Equine cross-matching may be difficult to interpret because of a. rouleaux formation b. autoagglutination

.

c. alloimmunization d. Heinz body formation ANS: A

Equine cross-matching may be difficult to interpret because of normal rouleaux formation (stacking) of equine RBCs. PTS: 1 REF: p. 833 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 24. The recommended maximum blood donation for dogs is a. 5% to 10% b. 15% to 20% c. 20% to 25% d. 20% of BW

of its blood volume.

ANS: B

The recommended maximum blood donation for dogs is 15% to 20% of the dog’s blood volume.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 833 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 25. A useful guideline for RBC transfusion in dogs is that 2 mL/kg of whole blood or 1 mL/kg of

packed RBCs will raise theTPECSVTbByANKSELLER.COM a. 1%. b. 2%. c. 5%. d. 10%.

ANS: A

A useful guideline for RBC transfusion in dogs is that 2 mL/kg of whole blood or 1 mL/kg of PRBCs will raise the PCV by 1%.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 836 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 26. The recommended maximum blood donation for cats is a. 1 to 5 mL/kg b. 5 to 10 mL/kg c. 11 to 15 mL/kg d. 15 to 20 mL/kg ANS: C

The recommended maximum blood donation for cats is 11 to 15 mL/kg, and the standard blood volume collected is 50 to 70 mL.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 834 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 27. Donor horses should be weighed and should have PCV/TP measured before blood collection.

Ideally, the PCV should be greater than a. 25% b. 35% c. 45% d. 55%

.

ANS: B

The recommended maximum blood donation for horses is 20% of blood volume, or approximately 16 ml/kg body weight. Donor horses should be weighed and should have PCV/TP measured before blood collection. Ideally, PCV should be greater than 35%.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 834 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 28. If donated blood will be transfused immediately, the anticoagulant

is acceptable to use during blood collection, but it will not support RBC metabolism during storage. a. heparin b. sodium citrate c. citrate-phosphate-dextrose (CPD) d. EDTA ANS: B

If the donated blood will be transfused immediately, the anticoagulant sodium citrate is acceptable, but it will not support RBC metabolism during storage.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 835 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 29. Plasma that is used within a. 1 b. 2 c. 8 d. 12

hour(s) of collection is considered to be fresh plasma.

ANS: C

Plasma that is used within 8 hours of collection is considered to be fresh plasma. Plasma that is placed in a freezer within 8 hours of collection and that is less than 1 year old is considered to be fresh frozen plasma (FFP).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 835 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 30. What type of replacement fluids is recognized for its ability to expand vascular volume

through its influence on oncotic pressure? a. Isotonic crystalloids b. Hypertonic crystalloids c. Colloids d. Hypotonic crystalloids ANS: C

Colloids contain high molecular weight molecules (suspended in isotonic crystalloids) that remain in the vascular space. This characteristic allows for fluids to be pulled into the vasculature, and thus serve as prolonged volume expanders.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 820-821 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 31. Which of the following is a primary benefit of delivering fluids via the subcutaneous route? a. It allows for the fastest rate of absorption. b. Irritating substances do not cause pain in the SQ space. c. Aseptic technique is not required as it is with IV administration. d. Its allows for client administration at home.

ANS: D

Subcutaneous fluid administration allows for moderately slow absorption, which is definitely not as fast as other routes sTuE chSaTs BinAtrN avKeS noEuLslLyE . PRa. tiC enOtsMthat need intermittent, but continual fluids (such as the case with renal therapy patient) can be administered these products by this route at home with relative ease. This is not a route to be used in animals undergoing severe fluid loss and shock.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 826 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 32. The use of sodium bicarbonate should only be used when the blood pH is approximately a. <7. b. 7 to 8. c. >8. d. It does not matter; sodium bicarbonate should never be given to a patient.

ANS: A

Sodium bicarbonate functions to buffer acidic pH levels in the blood in order to treat academia and its effects. When the pH of blood is less than ~7.1 many patients will develop cardiac and vascular complications that are best treated by increasing the pH to normal physiologic levels.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 828 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 33. What is the typical normal systolic blood pressure range for dogs and cats? a. 80 to 100 mmHg b. 100 to 110 mmHg c. 110 to 140 mmHg d. 150 to 170 mmHg ANS: C

Normal systolic blood pressure is usually between 110 and 140 mm Hg, with a mean arterial blood pressure between 80 and 100 mmHg. It is important when providing fluid therapy to ensure the pressures do not reach values substantially higher or lower than these ranges.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 829 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 34. When would it be appropriate to target a low systolic blood pressure (90 to 100 mmHg)? a. When the patient is hemorrhaging. b. When the patient is undergoing hypovolemic shock due to dehydration. c. When the patient is a senior (>7 years old). d. In preparation for a long trip in the car.

ANS: A

Hemorrhaging patients may experience increased bleeding when administering excessive fluids due to increased intravascular pressures pushing fluids out of the breach. In this case, it is acceptable to target a sysTtoElS icTbB loA odNK prS esEsuLrL eE thR at.iC s lOoM wer than adequate under normal circumstances.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 829 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 35. How much fluid should an 84 kg St. Bernard be administered if it is assessed to be 6%

dehydrated? a. 5 ml b. 5 L c. 500 ml d. 50 L ANS: B

Fluid deficits can be calculated by multiplying the weight of the dog in kilograms by the percentage deficit (in decimal form). This will give a value that is equivalent to liters of fluid deficit. In this example, 84 kg multiplied by 0.06 (which is the decimal equivalent of 6%) gives a result of 5.04, which is rounded to 5 L. PTS: 1 REF: p. 822 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

36. What is the typical packed cell volume (PCV) cut-off where a whole blood transfusion should

be considered for a patient that is actively bleeding? a. PCV of 1% to 5% b. PCV of 10% to 15% c. PCV of 20% to 25% d. PCV of 30% to 40% ANS: C

When a bleeding patient has a PCV that drops below 20% to 25%, the patient is at high risk of severe cardiovascular complications. The transfusion product that should be provided includes either whole blood or packed red blood cells with plasma. It is not advisable to wait until PCV levels are substantially below 20% as this level is unsustainable for even short periods of time and can easily lead to irreversible damage and death.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 830 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 37. Why do patients with immune-mediated thrombocytopenia often fail to respond to platelet

transfusions? a. The injected platelets often stick to the catheter site. b. Platelets are actively destroyed. c. Platelets cause immune-mediated hypersensitivity and anaphylaxis. d. These patients are predisposed to life-threatening emboli.

ANS: B

The cause of immune-medicated thrombocytopenia is an overactive immune system that readily destroys platelets throughout the circulation. This same process occurs with exogenous platelet administration; many of the introduced platelets are readily destroyed upon contacting immune components in the body.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 831 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 38. Hypothermic patients that need whole blood transfusions should receive a. refrigerated blood. b. blood warmed to room temperature. c. blood warmed to 10° F above ideal body temperature. d. blood warmed to 150° F. ANS: B

Overly heated blood products leads to hemolysis. The ideal temperature of blood products ranges from ambient room temperature up to body temperature. Products cooler than room temperature will exacerbate hypothermia, while products higher than body temperature will contain few viable red blood cells.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 835-836 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

Chapter 26: Emergency and Critical Care Nursing Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. When measuring noninvasive blood pressure, the blood pressure cuff width should be

approximately a. 10% b. 30% c. 40% d. 70%

of the circumference of the limb at the site of cuff placement.

ANS: C

The blood pressure cuff width should be approximately 40% of the circumference of the limb at the site of cuff placement.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 857 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 2. In order to distinguish a corneal ulcer a. atropine b. fluorescein c. colchicine d. bupivacaine

is applied to the eye.

ANS: B

Applying fluorescein stain to the corneas every day or every other day will reveal potential ulcers at the earliest stage possible, allowing for appropriate treatment.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 858 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 3. The ECG should be recorded in a quiet environment with the patient in

recumbency on a pad, a. right lateral b. standing c. left lateral d. sternal ANS: A

The ECG should be recorded in a quiet environment with the patient in right lateral recumbency on a pad.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 860 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

4. The electrodes on many ECG machines are color coded. The

lead is placed on the

right forelimb. a. black b. green c. red d. white ANS: D

The white electrode (RA) is placed on the right forelimb, the black electrode (LA) is placed on the left forelimb, and the red electrode (LL) is placed on the left hindlimb. The green electrode (RL) is the ground and is placed on the right hindlimb.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 860 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 5. On an ECG, the T wave is associated with a. ventricular depolarization. b. ventricular repolarization. c. atrial depolarization. d. atrial repolarization.

ANS: B

The T wave is associated with ventricular repolarization. . 8S61 PTS: 1 REF: TpE TBANKSELLER.COM TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 6.

can be administered to abolish vagal tone if patients are symptomatic for bradycardia or to demonstrate a vagal origin to the rhythm. a. Epinephrine b. Lidocaine c. Atropine d. Propanol ANS: C

Atropine can be administered to abolish vagal tone if patients are symptomatic for bradycardia or to demonstrate a vagal origin to the rhythm.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 866 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 7. Ventricular tachycardia in a dog is a run of four or more VPCs in succession at a rapid heart

rate of a. <180 beat/minute b. 100 to 150 beats/minute

c. >100 beats/minute d. >180 beats/minute ANS: D

Ventricular tachycardia is a run of four or more VPCs (ventricular premature complexes) in succession at a rapid rate (greater than 180 beats/minute).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 869 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 8.

is a life-threatening rhythm characterized by chaotic, irregular waves due to lack of organized ventricular activity. a. Ventricular block b. Ventricular premature contractions c. Ventricular fibrillation d. Ventricular asystole ANS: C

Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening rhythm characterized by chaotic, irregular waves due to lack of organized ventricular activity.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 868 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

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9. Excess fluid that is removed through a nasogastric tube is termed,

and the

amount, color, and odor should be noted. a. gastric effluent b. gastric reflux c. digesta d. ileus ANS: B

Excess fluid that is removed is termed gastric reflux, and the amount should be noted.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 874 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 10. a. b. c. d.

is/are the most serious complication of performing a rectal examination on a horse.

Being kicked by the horse Rectal tears A palpable small intestine Blood on the rectal sleeve

ANS: B

Rectal tears are, by far, the most serious complication of a rectal examination on a horse, and they can be life threatening. To minimize the risk for this complication, the horse should be restrained, ideally in a standing stock, and sedated and/or twitched when necessary. While it is important to examine the plastic rectal sleeve (which covers the arm of the veterinarian) for evidence of blood, the presence of blood is only a sign of a complication and not a complication unto itself. Determining whether the small intestine is distended and palpable is one of the purposes of performing the rectal examination.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 875 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 11. When preparing horse for an abdominocentesis or a “belly tap” the area that should be

prepared is a. the area just cranial to the xiphiod. b. the area left of the midline in the cranial quadrant. c. the most dependent part of the abdomen. d. the just caudal to the diaphragm.

ANS: C

When preparing a horse for an abdominocentesis, a 10  10-cm area of the most dependent part of the abdomen is clipped. This area is usually centered 3 to 5 cm caudal to the xiphoid and 3 to 5 cm to the right of the midline.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 875 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and denTtiE strSyTteB chAnN iqK ueSsE apLpL roE prRia. teCtoOvMarious animal species. | Therapeutics 12. Abnormal respiratory noise heard during inspiration in a horse with an upper respiratory tract

emergency is called a. tachypnea. b. dyspnea. c. stridor. d. strangles.

ANS: C

Expiratory noise is referred to as stridor.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 876-877 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 13. To determine the approximate distance to the nasopharynx when preparing a nasal cannula for

a horse, the cannula is measured from the opening of the nares to the a. facial crest. b. medial canthus of the eye. c. larynx. d. thoracic inlet.

ANS: B

To determine the approximate distance to the nasopharynx, the cannula is measured from the opening of the nares to the medial canthus of the eye.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 880 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 14. The introduction of a needle into a joint, joint tap, is also called a. arthodesis b. arthotomy c. arthrocentesis d. arthosenseis

.

ANS: C

The introduction of a needle into a joint is called arthrocentesis or a “joint tap.”

PTS: 1 REF: p. 883 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 15. A

is a nonviable segment of bone that acts as a foreign body and frequently prevents full wound healing until it is removed. a. chip b. sesamoid c. sequestrum d. splint ANS: C

A sequestrum is a nonviable segment of bone that acts as a foreign body and frequently prevents full wound healing until it is removed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 884 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 16. A volvulus in the abomasum or cecum in cattle is especially serious because a. b. c. d.

in addition to an obstruction to the flow of ingesta. vascular supply is compromised extreme pain is caused malnourishment occurs prolapse occurs

ANS: A

In cattle, volvulus of the abomasum or cecum is especially serious because vascular supply is compromised in addition to an obstruction to the flow of ingesta.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 885 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 17. Regional and local nerve blocks used during abdominal surgeries on cattle include all except a. paravertebral nerve block. b. inverted-L block. c. line block. d. epidural nerve block.

ANS: D

When performing abdominal surgery on cattle, the surgical site is desensitized by performing a local or regional nerve block (paravertebral nerve block, inverted-L block, or line.)

PTS: 1 REF: p. 885|p. 892 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 18. Bloat can be a life-threatening event. In a ruminant, emergency decompression via stomach

tube is less likely to be successful in cases of a. free gas bloat. b. frothy bloat. c. foamy bloat. d. methane bloat.

ANS: B

Bloat is life-threatening when the distended rumen pushes cranially on the diaphragm and inhibits normal respirations. Emergency decompression is necessary in these cases. In cases of free gas bloat, an esophageTaE l tS ubTeBisAuNsK uaSllE yLsuLfE ficRi. enCt O toMrelieve excessive gas accumulation.

Frothy ruminal contents do not pass well through a tube.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 886 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 19. Choke in large animals is the common name given to a. an esophageal obstruction. b. a tracheal obstruction. c. a vascular obstruction. d. a gastrointestinal obstruction.

ANS: A

Choke is the common name given to an esophageal obstruction caused by swallowing a foreign body.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 887 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 20.

is the laboratory test used to determine rumen microbial flora function. a. The DTM test

b. The methylene blue reduction test c. The cobalt blue test d. The number of microbes per dL of fluid ANS: B

The methylene blue reduction test is an assay that is used to determine microbial function.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 887 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 21. Normal rumen pH should be a. acidic. b. basic. c. approximately 7. d. >7.

ANS: C

Normal rumen pH should be approximately 7.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 887 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 22. a. b. c. d.

is the transfer of ruminal microbes from one individual to another.

Rumination Repopulation Transfaunation Transfiguration

ANS: C

Transfaunation is the transfer of ruminal microbes from one individual to another.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 887 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 23. When faced with an airway obstruction, animals that are “air-hungry” may act a. sedate and lethargic. b. unusually aggressive or delirious. c. aloof and unconcerned. d. hydrophobic and photophobic.

ANS: B

Animals that are in respiratory distress may act unusually aggressive or delirious. Safety precautions should be followed at all times to avoid placing the veterinarian, veterinary staff, owner, or patient in unnecessary danger.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 888 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 24. Most commonly, C-sections in cows are performed with the animal a. in dorsal recumbency, under general anesthesia. b. standing and awake. c. in right lateral recumbency and awake. d. in dorsal recumbency, under epidural anesthesia.

ANS: B

Most commonly, C-sections in ruminants are performed on the left flank with the animal standing and awake. However, because of increased difficulty in keeping small ruminants restrained, the surgeon often will elect to place these animals in right lateral recumbency.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 892 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 25. Sequelae of uterine prolapse include all of the following except a. uterine trauma. b. uterine ischemia. c. uterine involution. d. uterine artery rupture.

ANS: C

Sequela of uterine prolapse include uterine trauma with potential tearing of the uterine wall, and damage to the uterus dTuE e to triNcK tioSnEoLf L thE eR bl.oC odOsMupply (ischemia). If the weight of the STreBsA uterus applies too much traction on the vasculature of the uterus, the uterine artery can rupture, causing fatal hemorrhage. An involution is the opposite of a prolapse.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 893 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 26. Cattle that present with signs of toxic shock, resulting most often from severe mastitis or

metritis, may show the following signs except a. tachycardia. b. tachypnea. c. vomition. d. weakness or neurologic deficits.

ANS: C

Cattle with severe metritis and mastitis can develop endotoxemia from absorption of endotoxins. These animals may present with signs of toxic shock (tachycardia and tachypnea), with weakness or neurologic deficits, or they may be down.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 893 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

27. Formation of urolithiasis in large animals occurs most often when the animal feeds a. on lush spring pastures. b. on high roughage diets. c. on low phosphorus diets. d. on high in concentrates diets.

ANS: D

Formation of most urolithiasis (stones) stones is associated with ingestion of high-phosphorus diets such as those high in concentrates (grain).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 893 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 28. The most common electrolyte abnormalities that must be addressed with an animal that has a

urethral obstruction include all except a. hyperkalemia (high potassium). b. hyponatremia (low sodium). c. hypochloremia (low chloride). d. hyperglycemia (high glucose).

ANS: D

Hyperkalemia (high potassium), hyponatremia (low sodium), and hypochloremia (low chloride) are the most common electrolyte abnormalities seen in animals with a urethral obstruction.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 894 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 29.

is a process that involves creating an opening in the urethra proximal to an obstruction by a urinary stone. a. Cystotomy b. Tracheostomy c. Urethrostomy d. Cystostomy ANS: C

Urethrostomy is a process that involves creating an opening in the urethra proximal to an obstruction by a urinary stone.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 895 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 30. Which of the following systems is not evaluated during the initial in-hospital triage

examination? a. Musculoskeletal

b. Cardiovascular c. Respiratory d. Neurologic ANS: A

The initial triage examination is a 1- to 2-minute systematic evaluation of essential organ systems—respiratory, cardiovascular, and neurologic.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 842 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 31. Which term describes a postural position that an animal uses to ease breathing? a. Bradypnea b. Tachypnea c. Dyspnea d. Orthopnea ANS: D

Orthopnea indicates that the animal is maintaining a straight neck posture and abducted forelimbs to decrease air resistance as the animal breaths. This stance is often seen in animals with respiratory distress where the breathing structures are restrictive in their ability to move gases in and out of the lungs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 842 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 32. After CPR has been performed, the brain is highly susceptible to reperfusion injury, which

manifests as cerebral edema. Which of the following drugs is used to decrease cerebral edema in the post-arrest patient? a. Lidocaine b. Furosemide c. Mannitol d. Dopamine ANS: C

Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic that used to decrease cerebral edema in patients that have suffered cardiopulmonary arrest (CPA) and have been administered cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that is used occasionally in the post-arrest period; it can help resolve cardiogenic pulmonary edema. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic medication used to treat rapid or unstable ventricular tachycardia. Dopamine is a synthetic catecholamine that improves blood pressure by causing peripheral vasoconstriction.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 855-856 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 33. In which vein is the catheter placed in order to monitor a patient’s central venous pressure?

a. b. c. d.

Cephalic vein Jugular vein Lateral metatarsal vein Medial metatarsal vein

ANS: B

The catheter used to monitor central venous pressure is placed in the jugular vein, advanced through the cranial vena cava, and positioned with the tip resting just outside the right atrium.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 856 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 34. What is the best method to provide long-term periods of assistance to a cow that has nerve

damage that results in recumbence? a. Hydrofloatation b. Hip lifters c. Slings d. Allow the cow to lay still for several days ANS: A

The use of water tanks (“hydroflotation”) to assist standing in recumbent cows is the preferred method of therapy for long-term cases. Use of support devices (slings and hip lifters) can result in traumatic damage to tissues, while prolonged recumbence may lead to irreparable ischemic necrosis due to the relatively large body size of the bovine. Water-aided lifting works by gently lifting the carcass due to its buoyancy.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 889-890 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 35. Why is a perineal scrub performed prior to assisting in the delivery of a fetus? a. To sterilize the field where the offspring will be presented. b. To prepare for an episiotomy that should routinely be performed. c. To decrease uterine and vaginal contamination. d. To provide an aseptic area for the veterinary to examine the dam rectally.

ANS: C

Minimizing fecal load is a benefit in the long-term health of a neonate. By cleaning the perineal region of a dam, the load is decreased but not eliminated in preparation of the parturition process.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 891-892 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 36. Which of the following substances should never be administrated via endotracheal tube in an

emergency case? a. Sodium bicarbonate

b. Atropine sulfate c. Lidocaine d. Epinephrine ANS: A

Medications can be administered via endotracheal tube (at twice the IV dose) in instances when a vessel is inaccessible. The acronym NAVEL indicates several of these drugs that are valuable to administer by this route (naloxone, atropine, vasopressin, epinephrine, lidocaine).

Drugs such as magnesium and bicarbonate are caustic to the lungs, so should never be administered by this route.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 854 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 37. When performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) on dogs and cats, it is important a. for the technician that starts the process to continue through its entirety. b. to not compress the chest over 10% so that lung damage is prevented. c. to allow full recoil of the chest wall between compressions. d. to compress the chest at the level of the caudal lung lobes.

ANS: C

Correct CPR technique involves pushing down on the chest at the level of the heart in a manner that compresses the chest wall 30% to 50% of its normal size. Adequate recoil of the chest in between compressions allows for the heart to refill with blood in advance of cardiac ejection with subsequent compression. The process is tiring for the individual completing the compressions, so back-upsTsE hoSuT ldBbAeNaK vaSilE abLleLeEvRer.yCsO evMeral minutes to prevent fatigue and inadequate technique.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 852 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 38. Why does supplemental oxygen administration prove only mildly beneficial in improving the

condition of anemic animals? a. Oxygen causes bleeding by drying out the mucous membranes, exacerbating the anemia b. Tank oxygen cannot be taken up by red blood cells c. The blood is already saturated with oxygen d. Oxygen is toxic to body cells when delivered by this route ANS: C

Anemic animals that do not have an underlying lung issue do not suffer from inadequate red blood cell oxygen saturation. In contrast, the blood cells that are present can sufficiently transport blood. Instead, it is the total number of erythrocytes that is the problem.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 850|p. 880 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

39. Which organization should be consulted in order to determine the milk and meat withdrawal

times for drugs that are administered to food-producing animals in the United States? a. USDA b. NIH c. FARAD d. CVM ANS: C

The Food Animal Residue Avoidance Database (FARAD) should be consulted for any questions that arise regarding the withdrawal times that should be adhered to for food animals.

Although medication labels will include this information for food-production drug regimens, FARAD will provide recommendations when off-label drugs are used.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 884 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 40. What do “pings” signify when performing auscultation and percussion of the abdominal wall

in large animals? a. The presence of ferrous materials in cases of hardware disease b. The Presence of gas in hollow organs c. Areas of infiltrative masses in tissues d. Lower airway obstruction ANS: B

The presence of gas-fluid iT ntEeS rfaTcB esAw t iE nRh. ypCeO rrM esonance upon examination and NiKllSreEsuLlL percussion at areas of displacements. The common condition of displaced abomasum in cattle is one that is associated with these sounds, which resemble a metallic “ping” upon “flicking” the area while simultaneously listening with a stethoscope.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 874|p. 884 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 41. Which of the following statements is the most accurate regarding vaginal delivery of a calf? a. A fetus in a breech presentation has its head and both front legs extended into the

pelvis of the dam. b. A fetus in a breech presentation has both hind legs extended into the pelvis of the

dam. c. A fetus in a breech presentation has its hind legs retained, so that the rump is presented first. d. A fetus in a breech presentation must be delivered by C-section.

ANS: C

If the fetus is in posterior presentation but the hind legs are retained, the rump will be presented first; this is termed a breech presentation. Breech fetuses must be repositioned before successful vaginal delivery can be performed. A normal presentation has the fetus positioned with either its head and both front legs extended into the pelvis of the dam (anterior presentation), or with both its hind legs extended into the pelvis of the dam (posterior presentation).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 892 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

Chapter 27: Toxicology Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The general rule of toxicology is to “treat the patient not the poison.” This means a. first stabilize the patient before attempting decontamination. b. decontamination should always occur first. c. first perform a complete physical examination then stabilize the patient. d. patient stabilization and physical examination must occur simultaneously in stable

animals.

ANS: A

The general rule of toxicology is to “treat the patient not the poison.” The ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation) should be addressed before attempting any type of decontamination.

The examination of a pet that is unconscious, in shock, seizing, or in cardiovascular or respiratory distress must be conducted simultaneously with stabilization measures. With stable animals, the technician should obtain a comprehensive history of the pet and the exposure and perform a thorough physical examination.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 899 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 2. When an animal owner phones a veterinary practice expressing concern that the animal might

have been poisoned, a veteT riE naSryTB teA chNnK icS iaE nL shLoE ulRd.bC eO abMle to do all of the following without input from the veterinarian except a. Call a local pharmacy and place an order for the appropriate antidote. b. Recognize what constitutes a toxicologic emergency. c. Provide clear directions to the veterinary hospital. d. Give basic first-aid advice.

ANS: A

A veterinary technician should be able to recognize what constitutes a toxicologic emergency, give basic first-aid advice, and provide clear directions to the veterinary hospital, if needed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 898 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 3. With any ocular exposure, the eyes should be a. flushed with cold water to decrease inflammation. b. flushed repeatedly with tepid water or saline. c. massaged gently through the eye lid toward the medial canthus. d. held shut to allow tears to form until an examination can occur.

ANS: B

With any ocular exposure, the eyes should be flushed repeatedly with tepid water or saline solution for a minimum of 20 to 30 minutes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 899 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 4. When dealing with sticky substances (e.g., gum, glue traps, tar, etc.), a. work small amounts of peanut butter into the fur until small balls are formed. b. solvents should be used to quickly remove the substance. c. mineral should be used for birds coated with sticky substances. d. all of the above are true.

ANS: A

To remove sticky substances from mammals, work a small amount of vegetable oil, mineral oil, mayonnaise or peanut butter through the substance until it breaks down into “gummy balls,” and then wash with liquid dishwashing detergent. For birds, follow the same instructions, but do not use mineral oil, as it is very difficult to remove from feathers.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 899 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 5. When dealing with corrosive substances that have been ingested a. induce vomiting immediately. b. dilute with milk or water. c. administer mineral oil via stomach tube. d. administer mineral oil T viE aS aT naBsA ogNaK stS ricEtLuL beE. R.COM ANS: B

Dilution with milk or water, in combination with administration of gastrointestinal protectants, is recommended in cases of corrosive or irritant ingestion. Emesis (the induction of vomiting) is contraindicated when corrosive substances have been ingested because of exposure of the esophageal tissues to the corrosive material.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 900 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition

(inducing vomiting) can be performed in some cases of toxin ingestion.

6. a. b. c. d.

Induction Regurgitation Emesis Emeris

ANS: C

Emesis (inducing vomiting) can be performed in some cases of toxin ingestion. However, emesis is contraindicated in rodents, rabbits, birds, horses, and ruminants because they are unable to vomit.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 900

TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 7. Emesis is contraindicated in all of the following except, a. rodents and rabbits. b. horses, and ruminants. c. birds. d. swine.

ANS: D

Emesis is contraindicated in rodents, rabbits, birds, horses, and ruminants.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 900 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 8. When using hydrogen peroxide to induce vomiting, the dosage is for hydrogen peroxide is a. small amounts until vomiting occurs. b. 1 tsp (5 mL)/1 lb of body weight. c. 1 tsp (5 mL)/5 lbs. of body weight. d. hydrogen peroxide should not be used to induce vomiting.

ANS: C

A 3% hydrogen peroxide solution has been shown to be an effective emetic for dogs, ferrets, and pigs. The dosage for hydrogen peroxide is 1 tsp (5 mL)/5 lbs. of body weight and should not exceed a total dose of 3TtEabSlT esB poAoNnK(4S5Em LLL)E. R.COM PTS: 1 REF: p. 900 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 9.

have an increased risk of developing hemorrhagic gastroenteritis after hydrogen peroxide administration so it is not recommended to induce vomiting in this species. a. Ferrets b. Dogs c. Cats d. Swine ANS: C

Cats have an increased risk of developing hemorrhagic gastroenteritis after hydrogen peroxide administration so it is not recommended in this species.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 900 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 10. Emesis is more likely to be productive if a. the animal is fed a small, moist meal before inducing vomiting.

b. the animal has an empty stomach before inducing vomiting. c. it is performed at within 24 hours after toxin ingestion. d. the animal is showing signs of CNS excitation.

ANS: A

Emesis is more likely to be productive if the animal is fed a small, moist meal before inducing vomiting.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 900 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 11. In addition to binding to the toxin to prevent absorption activated charcoal also should be

given to a. prevent hemorrhagic gastroenteritis. b. prevent aspiration of the toxin. c. prevent enterohepatic recirculation of metabolized toxicants. d. prevent metabolism of toxicants.

ANS: C

Activated charcoal is an adsorbent that can bind to toxins, thereby preventing their absorption into the bloodstream. By adsorbing the toxicant, activated charcoal facilitates the toxicant’s excretion via the feces. It is administered orally when an animal ingests a toxin or if enterohepatic recirculation of metabolized toxicants can occur.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 901 TOP: VTNE Domain: EmerT geEnS cyTM icK inS e/E CrLitL icE alR C. arC e OM BeAdN MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition

decrease gastrointestinal transit time.

12. a. b. c. d.

Emetics Activated charcoals Cathartics Apomorphine

ANS: C

Cathartics decrease gastrointestinal transit time.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 901 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 13. Moldy food may contain certain tremorgenic mycotoxins, which are classified as a. neurotoxins. b. renotoxins. c. myotoxins. d. gastrotoxins.

ANS: A

Moldy food may contain certain tremorgenic mycotoxins, such as penitrem-A and roquefortine C. Tremorgenic mycotoxins are compounds made by molds that can induce muscle tremors, ataxia, and convulsions that can last for several days. They are classified as neurotoxins.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 902 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 14. Methylxanthines are a. depressants. b. stimulants. c. emetics. d. anticonvulsants.

ANS: B

Methylxanthines are stimulants.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 902 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition

chocolate contains negligible amounts of methylxanthines.

15. a. b. c. d.

Dark Baking Milk White

ANS: D

White chocolate (a combination of cocoa butter, sugar, butterfat, milk solids, and flavorings without cocoa beans) contains negligible amounts of methylxanthines.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 902 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 16. Theobromine toxicity affects various organ systems in a dose-dependent fashion. Which of

the following is the correct representation of organ systems that will be affected at low doses, moderate doses, and high doses, respectfully? a. gastrointestinal, renal, cardiovascular. b. CNS, renal, gastrointestinal. c. gastrointestinal, CNS, hepatic. d. gastrointestinal, cardiovascular, CNS. ANS: D

Theobromine and caffeine have an LD50 (dose that will be lethal to 50% of patients) of 100 to 200 mg/kg, signs of toxicity can be seen well below this dose. Mild gastrointestinal signs can be seen at doses more than 20 mg/kg, moderate cardiovascular effects are seen at more than 40 mg/kg, and severe neurologic effects are seen at doses exceeding 60 mg/kg.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 902 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 17. Clinical signs associated with

poisoning include hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinuria, vomiting, weakness, and pallor. a. theobromine b. methylxanthine c. onion d. tremorgenic mycotoxins ANS: C

Clinical signs associated with onion poisoning include hemolytic anemia, hemoglobinuria, vomiting, weakness, and pallor. Onions are members of the Allium genus, which includes garlic, leeks, shallots, and chives, all of which can be harmful to animals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 902 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 18. Cold water or ice cubes should be administered by mouth or via a stomach tube to dogs that

have ingested a. onions. b. bread dough. c. chocolate. d. macadamia nuts.

ANS: B

Ingestion of bread dough with raw yeast can be life threatening to dogs. Administering cold water or ice cubes by mouth or via a stomach tube will halt the rising process of yeast.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 903 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 19. Ingestion of grapes and raisins can cause a. liver failure b. kidney failure c. CNS signs d. hindlimb paralysis

in some dogs when eaten.

ANS: B

Grapes and raisins have been shown to cause kidney failure in some dogs when eaten.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 904 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition

20.

of xylitol poisoning in dogs can occur soon after ingestion or up to 8 hours later and include weakness, depression, ataxia, and vomiting. a. Hypothermic symptoms b. Hyperthermic symptoms c. Hypoglycemic symptoms d. Hyperglycemic symptoms ANS: C

Hypoglycemic symptoms of xylitol poisoning in dogs can occur soon after ingestion (baked goods, candy) or up to 8 hours later (gum) and include weakness, depression, ataxia, and vomiting.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 904 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 21. Common household sources of

include: toilet bowl cleaners, drain openers, automobile battery fluid, and pool sanitizers. a. acids b. nonionic detergents c. sodium hypochlorite d. surfactants ANS: A

Common sources of acid include: toilet bowl cleaners, drain openers, metal cleaners, antirust compounds, gun barrel cleaners, automobile battery fluid, and pool sanitizers.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 904 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 22. Death due to nicotine toxicity is most likely to occur because of a. seizures. b. hyperthermia. c. respiratory paralysis. d. hemorrhagic gastroenteritis.

ANS: C

Death due to nicotine toxicity occur following respiratory paralysis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 905 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 23. Treatment of battery exposure is the same as for exposure to a. any lead product. b. any alkaline product. c. any yeast product. d. any allium product.

ANS: B

Treatment of battery exposure is the same as for exposure to any alkaline product and includes observation and treatment of burns incurred.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 904|p. 906 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 24. Plants of the genus Rhododendron, including azalea and rhododendrons, contain

grayanotoxins, which when ingested, can lead to a. renal dysfunction. b. CNS dysfunction. c. cardiovascular dysfunction. d. hepatic dysfunction.

ANS: C

Plants of the genus Rhododendron, including azalea and rhododendrons, contain grayanotoxins, which can lead to cardiovascular dysfunction.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 906 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 25.

is the toxic principle of castor beans and is considered to be one of the most potent plant toxins known. a. Cardiac glycosides b. Grayanotoxins c. Ricin d. Cycasin ANS: C

Ricin is the toxic principle of castor beans and is considered to be one of the most potent plant toxins known.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 907 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 26. Ingestion of lilies can cause acute a. renal failure b. CNS dysfunction c. cardiovascular failure d. hepatic dysfunction

and death in cats.

ANS: A

Ingestion of various day lilies (Hemerocallis spp.) can cause acute renal failure and death in cats.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 908

TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 27. Which of the following statements about cats and permethrin, which is found in some flea &

tick control products is not true? a. Cats are extremely sensitive to concentrated permethrin. b. Cats that groom or snuggle with dogs that have been treated with concentrated permethrin can experience toxicosis. c. Application of concentrated permethrin products can result in seizures and muscle tremors. d. All permethrin products labeled for pet use are safe for dogs and cats.

ANS: D

Cats have been shown to be extremely sensitive to concentrated permethrin. Currently, there are multiple brands of permethrin spot-on products available over the counter as topical flea control labeled “for dogs only.” The packaging of these products will have multiple warnings not to use on cats. However, inappropriate applications of concentrated permethrin products still occur often and can result in seizures and muscle tremors in cats. Problems can even occur in cats that groom or snuggle with dogs in the first 24 hours after application of concentrated permethrin.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 910-911 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition

Cm OM 28. Amitraz tick collars can caT usEeSpT roBbA leN mK sS ifEinLgL esEteRd. .A itraz is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and can cause sedation, bradycardia and hypotension. Fortunately, the signs can be reversed with a. naloxone. b. yohimbine or atipamezole. c. antiamitraz. d. epinephrine.

ANS: B

Amitraz tick collars can also cause problems if ingested. Amitraz is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and can cause sedation, bradycardia, and hypotension. Fortunately, the signs can be reversed with yohimbine or atipamezole.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 911 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 29. A clinical sign of poisoning by ingestion of anticoagulant rodenticides include hemorrhage

due to a. destruction of RBC’s. b. interference with vitamin K utilization. c. hemoglobinuria. d. aplastic anemia.

ANS: B

Anticoagulant rodenticides act by competitive inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase, thus halting the recycling of vitamin K. Because vitamin K is an important component in the production of blood clotting factors, the ingestion of anticoagulant rodenticides leads to interference with hemostasis, resulting in hemorrhage. Clinical signs of anticoagulant poisoning may not be observed for 3 to 10 days after ingestion and include hemorrhage, pale mucous membranes, weakness, exercise intolerance, lameness, dyspnea, coughing, and swollen joints.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 911 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 30. How long after ingestion of chocolate should emesis be attempted in dogs? a. Only immediately upon chocolate ingestion b. Up to 1 hour after ingestion c. Up to 8 hours after ingestion d. Up to 24 hours after ingestion ANS: C

Chocolate may remain in the stomach of a dog for up to 8 hours. Although best results of emetic therapy for chocolate ingestion is within the first several hours, attempts can be made to prevent absorption up to the 8-hour period of time. Many other poisons will be absorbed in much shorter periods of time (10 to 15 minutes).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 900|p. 902 BeAdN TOP: VTNE Domain: EmerT geEnS cyTM icK inS e/E CrLitL icE alR C. arC e OM MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 31. Which emetic medication can be administered via the conjunctival sac? a. Hydrogen peroxide b. Syrup of Ipecac c. Xylazine d. Apomorphine ANS: D

Apomorphine hydrochloride may be administered either via the conjunctival sac (powdered form) or via an injection. This drug is the preferred emetic agent for dogs, and resulting sedative effects from this drug’s activity can be reversed by the opioid antagonist naloxone.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 900 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 32.

What is the best way to prevent toxicosis? a. Prevent toxic ingestion from occurring b. Have antidotes to most common toxicants on hand c. Keep animals indoors as much as possible d. Understand how to treat all cases of toxicosis

ANS: A

Prevention is the best method to prevent long-lasting effects of toxin ingestion. Although not always possible, the health of an animal will benefit from not having to undergo treatment, even if it occurs immediately after ingestion.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 898 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 33. Which organization is available to call when poisoning is suspected? a. USDA b. AVMA c. AVTA d. ASPCA ANS: D

The American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (ASPCA) provides a team of veterinary toxicologists in their Animal Poison Control Center that are available around the clock to field calls regarding incidences of poison ingestion.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 899 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 34. With which of the following scenarios should activated charcoal be used to prevent absorption

of a toxin into the bloodstrT eaEmS?TBANKSELLER.COM a. A dog ingests battery acid. b. A cat ingests uncooked bread yeast, resulting in ethanol intoxication. c. A dog ingests multiple aspirin tablets. d. A dog ingests a pound of table salt.

ANS: C

While activated charcoal is effective in absorbing many ingested toxicants, it does not adequately bind up certain substances including ethanol and sodium chloride. In addition, its use is contraindicated when caustic substances are ingested (such as strong acids and bases), because it is black in color may prevent adequate visualization of esophageal burns and abrasions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 901 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 35. Lead is absorbed into the body least effectively when a. embedded in muscle. b. ingested by young animals. c. present in the stomach. d. present in synovial joint fluid.

ANS: A

Lead is absorbed most effectively when in acidic environments (such as the joint synovium or in the low pH of the stomach) then in muscle tissue. The capacity to absorb lead decreases as the animal ages; neonates have increased lead absorption compared to adults of the same species.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 905 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 36. Why are commercial enemas contraindicated for use in small companion animals? a. The applicators are not adequately sized for animals. b. They are too expensive to use routinely. c. They may cause physiologic imbalances. d. They are preferred, but only in birds.

ANS: C

Premixed enema solutions for humans are contraindicated in small animals because of the potential electrolyte and/or acid–base imbalances they may cause. Instead, a mild soapy solution or plain warm water should be used. Birds run the risk of oviduct infections with enema use, so should not be treated with enemas.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 901 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition

mSoT xaBlA atN eK prS odEuLceLdEbRy.pC laO ntMs such as philodendron and peace 37. Where does insoluble calciTuE lilies cause problems when ingested by companion animals? a. Mouth b. Lungs c. Kidneys d. Liver ANS: A

These insoluble crystals are very sharp and cause irritation in the soft tissues of the mouth and the esophagus. In contrast to soluble calcium oxalate, which is often associated with renal damage, these insoluble crystals lead to signs of pharyngitis including mouth pain, drooling and difficulty swallowing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 909 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 38. What is the typical cause of death due to the ingestion of rodenticides that contain zinc

phosphide? a. Anemia b. Respiratory failure c. Clotting disorders d. Hemorrhagic enteritis

ANS: B

Zinc phosphide converts to phosphine gas when subjected to the acid content of the stomach.

This gas is highly irritating to the tissue in the lung, thereby leading to the respiratory failure that is associated with toxicity. In addition to the animal that ingests this toxin, care must be taken to minimize exposure to pet owners and veterinary personnel who come into contact with respired gasses from affected animals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 912 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 39. Why is ethanol administered in cases of ethylene glycol toxicity? a. It causes vomiting b. It decreases toxic metabolite production c. Its sedative effects decrease CNS stimulation d. It serves as a diuretic ANS: B

Alcohol dehydrogenase is an enzyme that metabolizes alcohols, such as ethanol. The parent compound in ethylene glycol is an alcohol, so this enzyme is also implicated in the production of the toxic metabolites that are responsible for the clinical signs associated with antifreeze toxicity. When ethanol is administered, this enzyme’s activity becomes predominately involved in its metabolism, thereby limiting toxic ethylene glycol byproduct production.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 912 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ENSuT rsB inA g:NPK atS ieE ntLcL arE e:RU.nC deO rsM tand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 40. Felines are deficient in an acetaminophen-metabolizing enzyme. What is the enzyme? a. Alcohol dehydrogenase b. Acetaminophenase c. Galactosidase d. Glucuronidase ANS: D

Hepatic glucuronidase is responsible for detoxifying acetaminophen. Since cats are deficient in this enzyme, they are prone to building up toxic levels of acetaminophen, which leads to serious complications including methemoglobinemia, hepatic necrosis, and death.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 913 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition 41. Why should emesis not be routinely performed as a method to treat cannabis toxicity in

companion animals? a. It is not highly effective b. High risk of aspiration c. Marijuana is caustic to the esophagus d. Due to its highly toxic nature, emergency detoxification is required

ANS: A

Marijuana has a generalized antiemetic effect, so the use of emetic drugs is often fruitless.

Instead, activated charcoal and cathartic administration may be used to decrease the active effects of ingestion of this drug. This drug has a low risk for mortality, so supportive care is often preferred.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 914 TOP: VTNE Domain: Emergency Medicine/Critical Care MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Nutrition

Chapter 28: Wound Management and Bandaging Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The , the first phase of wound healing, begins immediately. a. second intention phase b. proliferative phase c. inflammatory phase d. maturation phase ANS: C

The inflammatory phase, the first phase of wound healing, begins immediately. As the injury occurs, blood is released into the wound via injured blood vessels.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 917 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 2. The inflammatory phase lasts for 3 to 5 days and is often called the lag phase because, a. it is marked by fibroblasts and endothelial cells entering the wound. b. wound strength is at its lowest during this phase. c. begins after the proliferative phase. d. dehiscence rarely occurs.

ANS: B

The inflammatory phase laTstE sS foTr B 3A toN5KdSaE ysLaLnE dR is.oC ftO enMcalled the lag phase because wound strength is at its lowest during this phase.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 917 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 3. a. b. c. d.

is marked by fibroblasts and endothelial cells entering the wound.

Second intention phase Proliferative phase Inflammatory phase Maturation phase

ANS: B

Proliferative phase is marked by fibroblasts and endothelial cells entering the wound.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 918 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 4. Angiogenesis refers to a. formation of new blood cells b. formation of new blood vessels c. formation of blood pressure receptors d. formation of new tissue

ANS: B

As cells migrate into the wound, new vessels are formed by angiogenesis to supply oxygen and nutrients to newly forming tissue PTS: 1 REF: p. 918 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 5. Healthy granulation tissue is a. shiny and grey b. pink c. smooth and tan d. tan

in appearance.

ANS: B

Healthy granulation tissue is pink in appearance because of the abundance of capillaries; poor quality granulation tissue is pale because of lack of appropriate blood supply.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 918 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 6. Fibroblasts deposit a. fibrinogen b. collagen c. fibrin clot d. keratin

into the wound, which increases wound strength.

ANS: B

During the proliferative phase, fibroblasts then begin to deposit collagen into the wound, which finally increases wound strength. Once the wound bed is covered by granulation tissue, fibroblasts decrease in number and are replaced by tissue rich in collagen.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 918 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 7.

migrate across healthy granulation tissue to reestablish a barrier between the wound and the environment. a. Granulocytes b. Melanocytes c. Epithelial cells d. Keratinocytes ANS: C

During the proliferative phase, following deposition of collagen into the wound by fibroblasts and formation of granulation tissue, epithelial cells migrate across healthy granulation tissue to reestablish a barrier between the wound and the environment.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 918-919 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

8. Once a wound heals, the wound tissue will be a. weaker than the original tissue. b. stronger than the original tissue. c. smaller than the original tissue. d. larger than the original tissue.

ANS: A

During the maturation phase, the wound gains the most strength, although it will never be as strong as normal tissue.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 919 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 9. Obesity is associated with increased risk of wound infection and dehiscence because a. lipids interfere with epithelization. b. apposition of wound edges is not possible. c. decreased vascularization of fatty tissue leads to a decreased capacity for healing. d. of low protein and albumin levels.

ANS: C

Obesity is associated with increased risk of wound infection and dehiscence because decreased vascularization of fatty tissue leads to a decreased capacity for healing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 919 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and denTtiE strSyTteB chAnN iqK ueSsE apLpL roE prRia. teCtoOvMarious animal species. | Therapeutics 10.

Corticosteroids, especially with long-term use, a. decrease the body’s inflammatory response. b. increase the risk for infection. c. delay all phases of wound healing. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Corticosteroids, especially with long-term use, decrease the body’s inflammatory response (thereby increasing risk for infection) and delay all phases of wound healing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 919 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 11. When clipping hair from the edges of a skin wound to prepare it for primary closure,

should be placed over the wound. a. water-soluble lubricant b. colloid fluids c. hypertonic solution d. disinfectant ANS: A

The wound can be covered with moist sterile water-soluble lubricant such as K-Y Jelly. As the hair around the wound is clipped, any hair that falls into the wound will be caught by the sterile lube and can be flushed out after clipping.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 920 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 12. When lavaging a highly contaminated wound, tap water can be used initially instead of sterile

isotonic fluids because the main benefit comes from a. the rapid administration of lavage. b. the force of the fluids used for lavage. c. the volume rather than the type of fluid used. d. the temperature of the fluids used for lavage.

ANS: C

Effective wound lavage requires copious amounts of fluid. In highly contaminated wounds, tap water can be used initially instead of sterile isotonic fluids because the main benefit in such a wound comes from the volume rather than the type of fluid used.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 920 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 13. The goal of

is removal of obviously contaminated, devitalized, or necrotic tissue and elimination of foreign debris from the wound. a. lavage b. débridement c. chronicity d. dead space ANS: B

The goal of débridement is removal of obviously contaminated, devitalized, or necrotic tissue and elimination of foreign debris from the wound.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 920 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 14. Newly epithelialized wounds a. are tough and not easily traumatized. b. are friable. c. never heal by second intention. d. all of the above.

ANS: B

The newly epithelialized wound is often friable and easily traumatized.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 922 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

15. Passive drains provide a direct avenue for ascending infection and a. must be covered with a sterile bandage while in place. b. work by creating a vacuum within the wound. c. are more expensive than active drains. d. do not have to exit in a dependent location.

ANS: A

Passive drains provide a direct avenue for ascending infection and must be covered with a sterile bandage while in place.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 922 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

are partial-thickness dermal wounds.

16. a. b. c. d.

Abrasions Burns Lacerations Degloving injuries

ANS: A

Abrasions are partial-thickness dermal wounds.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 923 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 17.

-degree buTrnEsSaT reBfuAlN l-tKhS icE knLeL ssEiR nj. urCieOs M characterized by a thick, leathery, often black layer of dead dermis. a. First b. Second c. Third d. Fourth ANS: C

Third-degree burns are full-thickness injuries characterized by a thick, leathery, often black layer of dead dermis (eschar).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 923 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 18.

develop over bony prominences as the result of skin compression on hard surfaces during long periods of recumbency. a. Eschar b. Callus c. Decubitus ulcers d. Corneal ulcers ANS: C

Decubitus ulcers develop over bony prominences as the result of skin compression on hard surfaces during long periods of recumbency.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 924 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 19. The

layer of a bandage, absorbs and holds exudate (if present) and provides some immobilization and support. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary ANS: B

The secondary layer of a bandage absorbs and holds exudate (if present) and provides some immobilization and support.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 924 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 20. If fluid strike-through of the tertiary layer of a bandage occurs, a. it will remove not only diseased tissue but also healthy tissue, such as new

granulation tissue. b. it creates a dry environment that is not conducive to wound healing. c. bacteria from the environment can penetrate the bandage and contaminate the

wound. d. all of the above.

ANS: C

If fluid strike-through of the tertiary bandage layer occurs, bacteria from the environment can penetrate the bandage and contaminate the wound.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 924 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 21. It is imperative to use a(n)

primary layer once granulation tissue has formed or epithelialization has begun, to protect and promote second intention wound healing. a. adherent b. nonadherent c. wet-to-dry d. nonselective ANS: B

It is imperative to use a nonadherent primary layer once granulation tissue has formed or epithelialization has begun, to protect and promote second intention wound healing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 925 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

22. Distal limb bandages are not appropriate for fractures above the

or the

because they cannot effectively immobilize injuries above those joints. a. carpus; hock b. carpus; tarsus c. elbow; hock d. elbow; stifle ANS: D

Distal limb bandages are not appropriate for fractures above the elbow or the stifle because they cannot effectively immobilize injuries above those joints.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 926 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 23. This bandage relies on an extremely thick secondary layer such as cast padding or cotton,

which is tightly compressed to cause uniform compression of the distal limb. a. Ehmer b. Schroeder-Thomas c. Adson Brown d. Robert Jones ANS: D

The Robert Jones bandage can be used to temporarily immobilize limbs distal to the elbow or stifle joint. This bandage relies on an extremely thick secondary layer such as cast padding or cotton, which is tightly compressed to cause uniform compression of the distal limb.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 9S2T 6 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 24. A(n)

is a non-weight-bearing sling applied to the pelvic limb to protect the hip joint after injury. a. Ehmer b. Schroeder-Thomas c. Adson Brown d. Robert Jones ANS: A

An Ehmer sling is a non-weight-bearing sling applied to the pelvic (hind) limb to protect the hip joint after injury.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 931 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 25. When monitoring distal limb bandages an increased distance between the toe nails indicates a. swelling. b. decubital ulcer formation. c. wound dehiscence. d. neuropathy.

ANS: A

Monitoring of distal limb bandages includes daily inspection of the toes for swelling (indicated by increased distance between the toenails).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 937 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 26. Open wounds on the distal aspect of the limb (below the carpus or tarsus) of the horse are

notorious for developing exuberant granulation tissue, commonly referred to as a. “proud cut.” b. “proud flesh.” c. “primary intention healing.” d. “eschar healing.”

ANS: B

Open wounds on the distal aspect of the limb (below the carpus or tarsus) of the horse are notorious for developing exuberant granulation tissue, commonly referred to as “proud flesh.”

PTS: 1 REF: p. 938 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 27. A support bandage placed on a limb before a splint should be long enough to cover a. the limb under the splint. b. the joint above and the joint below the splint. c. the limb above and below the ends of the splint. d. the joint below the spliT ntE. STBANKSELLER.COM ANS: C

A support bandage placed on the limb before applying a split should be long enough to cover the limb above and below the ends of the splint. This will prevent the development of pressure sores.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 940 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 28. For optimal effectiveness in immobilization, a cast must immobilize a. the joint under the cast. b. the joint proximal and distal to the injury. c. the bone proximal and distal to the injury. d. the area of the fracture.

ANS: B

For optimal effectiveness in immobilization, a cast must immobilize the joint proximal and distal to the injury.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 942 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

29. When applying a fiber glass cast

the water, the faster the curing process of the resin, resulting in premature hardening of the fiberglass cast material. a. the greater the quantity of b. the colder c. the warmer d. the less sterile ANS: C

The warmer the water, the faster the curing process of the resin, resulting in premature hardening of the fiberglass casting material.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 944 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 30. What is the proper way to remove a cast from an equine limb? a. Cut both the cranial and caudal surfaces of the cast b. Cut both the medial and lateral surfaces of the cast c. Cut just the lateral surface of the cast d. Cut just the cranial surface of the cast ANS: B

Using an oscillating cast cutter, the cast should be cut on both the lateral and medial surfaces before prying off the limb with cast spreaders. By making the cuts at these locations, potential damage to the limbs flexor and extensor tendons is minimized.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 946 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ENSuT rsB inA g:NPK atS ieE ntLcL arE e:RU.nC deO rsM tand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 31. Which of the following wounds are most predictable in their healing pattern? a. Cat bite b. Abrasion due to a fall c. Cut from a barbed-wire fence d. Incision from a mass removal ANS: D

Surgically produced wounds heal more predictably (and often more timely and with less complications) than traumatically-induced wounds. In addition to their clean, sharp margins, surgical wounds usually have less surrounding soft tissue damage and less contamination than other types of lacerations.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 919 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 32. What is the best method to treat pressure sores caused by bandaging? a. Apply a corticosteroid cream to the sores b. Using triple antibiotic ointment c. Prevent them by using proper padding d. Excise the damaged tissue and apply a wet-to-dry bandage to the wounds

ANS: C

Prevention of necrotic lesions at points of pressure is the best method to address bandage-associated sores. Proper padding at bony prominences, such as the olecranon, calcaneus, and carpus and tarsus is absolutely necessary. It is important to ensure that these areas are not simply padded more, since more padding can result in excessive compression and subsequent bandage movement.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 924 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 33. What must occur in order for a wound to be considered closed by primary closure? a. Closure must precede granulation tissue formation b. Closure must precede infection c. Closure must be preceded by 2 to 3 days of open wound management d. Epithelialization and contraction ANS: A

Granulation tissue is formed after 3 to 5 days of wound exposure to the outside environment.

In order for primary closure to occur, the wound should be closed prior to granulation tissue formation. Otherwise, the closure is described as delayed primary closure or secondary closure. Surgical incisions are closed under most circumstances via primary closure.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 918|pp. 921-922 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 34. Which of the following is true regarding bite wounds? a. They are often small puncture wounds without underlying tissue damage. b. They may commonly be considered contaminated. c. They rarely involve concurrent crushing injuries. d. They often require the use of drains in their treatment.

ANS: D

Bite wounds are always considered contaminated wounds, with likely deep tissue involvement in addition to the outwardly visible small laceration caused by the teeth. Due to the contaminated nature of these wounds (caused by the vast population of oral microflora from the animal inflicting the bite), liberal debridement followed with placement of drains to help diminish dead space should be considered.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 922-923 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 35. Why is honey employed in wound management? a. It serves as a food source for beneficial bacteria. b. It provides energy for fibroblasts, thereby hastening wound healing. c. It has antimicrobial effects. d. It allows for bandage adherence to wounded tissue.

ANS: C

Honey and other sugar substances are highly hypertonic, making it an unhospitable substrate for microbial cells. This property also allows for fluid movement out of the wound, with concurrent flushing of debris out of the damaged tissue. Due to this, bandages overlying sugar become saturated very easily and thus require continual bandage changes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 923 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 36. What is the main advantage of a fiberglass cast over its plaster counterpart? a. Fiberglass is cheaper to apply b. Fiberglass has a longer working time before it sets c. Fiberglass can easily be cut with a preplaced piece of gigli wire d. Fiberglass is strong yet lightweight ANS: D

Although they are often more expensive to apply and require a cast cutter to remove, fiberglass casting material provides an extremely rigid limb support without being excessively heavy. Fiberglass and plaster of Paris casts are used often in veterinary medicine, with each exhibiting benefits and are used at the discretion of the clinician.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 931|p. 942 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

TESTBANKSELLEiRn.oC rdOerMto reduce the mobility of the affected

37. Spica splints are used to keep a limb in

limb. a. flexion b. extension c. pronation d. supination ANS: B

Immobilization of a limb (often a forelimb after elbow luxation) is accomplished by using a spica splint to maintain an extended position of said limb. This splint requires the use of a lateral support in addition to a soft bandage to accomplish this effect.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 931 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 38. What type of sling is used to immobilize all of the joints on a forelimb? a. Velpeau sling b. Carpal flexion sling c. Ehmer sling d. Metatarsal sling ANS: A

The Velpeau sling immobilizes all of the joints on a non-weight-bearing forelimb. It involves flexing the entire forelimb and affixing it to the thoracic wall of the patient. Since this sling involves encircling the entire chest wall, it is imperative that respiratory capacity is maintained and any signs of distress are addressed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 934 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 39. What is the function of a 90/90 flexion sling in puppies? a. To immobilize the humerus b. To support laxity in the humeroscapular joint c. To stretch the quadriceps d. To keep debris out of an open wound ANS: C

When puppies undergo a distal femoral fracture, a 90/90 flexion sling is often applied to keep both the stifle and the hock held in about 90 degrees of flexion. This allows for the quadriceps muscles to remain in a state of stretch, thereby minimizing the risk for muscle contracture (aka “quadriceps tie-down”).

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 933-934 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 40. What is the primary benefit of using a wet-to-dry bandage? a. To provide nonselective débridement b. To absorb exudate withToE utSaTdB heAriN ngKS toEthLeLwEoRu. ndCOM c. To keep granulation tissue clean and dry d. To provide padding ANS: A

Wet-to-dry bandages allow for débridement of heavily contaminated wounds. As the moist gauze dries, it adheres to the wound bed. Mechanical débridement occurs when the adhered dried gauze is pulled away from the wound, taking with it foreign material and superficial tissue, although healthy tissue including granulation tissue is removed as well.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 924 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics

Chapter 29: Pharmacology and Pharmacy Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The study of the fundamentals of drug movement in the body is called a. pharmacodynamics. b. pharmacology. c. pharmacokinetics. d. pharmacia.

ANS: C

The study of the fundamentals of drug movement in the body is pharmacokinetics. The biochemical and physiologic effects of drugs is pharmacodynamics.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 953 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 2.

drugs do not require a prescription and are considered safe for use by the general public without the supervision of a veterinarian or physician, provided that they are used as directed on the label. a. Generic b. Prescription c. Over-the-counter (OTC) d. Controlled ANS: C

OTC drugs do not require a prescription and are considered safe for use by the general public without the supervision of a veterinarian or physician, provided that they are used as directed on the label.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 954 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 3. VCPR stands for a. Veterinary Client Prescription Relationship. b. Veterinarian-Client-Patient Relationship. c. Veterinary Client Patient Relationship. d. Veterinarian Clinic Practice Relationship.

ANS: C

Veterinarian-client-patient-relationship = VCPR. PTS: 1 REF: p. 954 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects

must be labeled with the following statement: “Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.” a. generic drugs b. prescription drugs c. OTC drugs d. controlled drugs

4. All veterinary

ANS: B

All veterinary prescription drugs must be labeled with the following statement: “Caution: Federal law restricts this drug to use by or on the order of a licensed veterinarian.”

PTS: 1 REF: p. 954 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 5. Controlled substances are categorized into

schedules by the DEA based on

their potential for abuse. a. two b. three c. four d. five ANS: D

Controlled substances are categorized into five schedules (I, II, III, IV, and V) by the DEA based on their potential for abuse.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 954 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Demonstrate understanding of controlled substance regulations 6. A licensed veterinarian must be registered with the

as an individual or through a

hospital to legally use or prescribe controlled substances. a. USDA b. FDA c. EPA d. DEA ANS: D

A licensed veterinarian must be registered with the DEA as an individual or through a hospital to legally use or prescribe controlled substances.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 954 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Demonstrate understanding of controlled substance regulations 7. Use of controlled substances by a registered individual requires a. accurate record keeping of orders, receipts, and usage. b. inventory to be reconcilable with records.

c. all records to be available for inspection at any time by the DEA. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Use of controlled substances by a registered individual requires accurate record keeping of orders, receipts, and usage. Inventory must be reconcilable with records, and all records must be available for inspection at any time by the DEA. PTS: 1 REF: p. 954 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Demonstrate understanding of controlled substance regulations 8. Some oral dosage forms are enteric coated to a. delay absorption until the drug reaches the lower pH of the stomach. b. prevent drug exposure to the low pH of the stomach. c. delay absorption until the drug reaches the higher pH of the stomach. d. allow the drug exposure to the low pH of the stomach.

ANS: B

Some oral dosage forms are enteric coated to prevent drug exposure to the low pH of the stomach and to delay absorption until the drug reaches the higher pH of the small intestine.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 955 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects

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9. The only tablets that should be split or cut are those that are a. scored by the manufacturer. b. enteric coated. c. parenteral. d. too large a dose size.

ANS: A

The only tablets that should be split or cut are those that are scored by the manufacturer, as this ensures that the drug will be evenly distributed between the split fractions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 955 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 10. The

of the prescribed drug is the expression of the amount of drug per unit of body weight (e.g., milligrams per kilogram, or mg/kg). a. dosage regimen b. dosage interval c. dose d. dosage ANS: D

The dosage of the prescribed drug is the expression of the amount of drug per unit of body weight (e.g., milligrams per kilogram, or mg/kg). The drug dose is the amount of drug that will be given with each administration. It is important to communicate the dosage interval, or frequency of drug administration (e.g., once a day, three times a day, or every 12 hours), to the client, as well as the duration of the treatment.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 955 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Read and follow veterinarian's pharmacy orders 11. When recording drug doses on treatment forms, medical records, or other legal documents, it

is important that the dose be recorded a. as the total amount prescribed. b. in units such as milligrams. c. as a volume. d. as the number of tablets.

ANS: B

When recording drug doses on treatment forms, medical records, or other legal documents, it is important that the dose be recorded in units such as milligrams. Many drugs are available in multiple concentrations, and if recorded as a volume or number of tablets, it will not be clear how much drug was actually administered.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 955-956 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Demonstrate the ability to accurately record medical information 12.

is the movement of drug from the site of administration (gastrointestinal tract, muscle, subcutaneous tissues, respiratory tract, or skin) to the circulating blood. a. Administration b. Uptake c. Absorption d. Distribution ANS: C

Absorption is the movement of drug from the site of administration (gastrointestinal tract, muscle, subcutaneous tissues, respiratory tract, or skin) to the circulating blood.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 956 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Safely and effectively administer drugs by common parenteral and enteral routes; explain appropriate routes and methods and when used 13. Drug absorption across cell membranes is most effective for drugs that are lipid soluble (or a. b. c. d.

) and uncharged (or nonionic). lipophilic lipophobic lipolytic lipocyte

ANS: A

Drug absorption across cell membranes is most effective for drugs that are lipid soluble (or lipophilic) and uncharged (or nonionic).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 956 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects

refers to the fraction of a drug dose that reaches the bloodstream.

14. a. b. c. d.

Absorption Bioavailability Therapeutic blood levels Nonionic

ANS: B

Bioavailability refers to the fraction of a drug dose that reaches the bloodstream.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 956 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 15. Factors that influence the bioavailability of drugs include all of the following except a. dosage form of the drug. b. vascularity of the site of administration. c. mechanism of absorption. d. route of elimination.

ANS: D

Bioavailability of a drug is influenced by the dosage form of the drug, vascularity of the site of administration, the mechanism of absorption, and metabolism of the drug.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 956 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Safely and effectively administer drugs by common parenteral and enteral routes; explain appropriate routes and methods and when used 16. The intestinal blood vessels that absorb oral drugs lead directly to the liver via the

vein. a. azygous b. pulmonary c. enteric d. portal ANS: D

The intestinal blood vessels that oral drugs are absorbed into lead directly to the liver via the portal vein.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 956 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Safely and effectively administer drugs by common parenteral and enteral routes; explain appropriate routes and methods and when used

17. The first-pass effect, explains why some drugs are not effective when administered

due to low bioavailability and require parenteral administration. a. orally b. topically c. transmucosally d. transdermally ANS: A

The intestinal blood vessels that absorb oral drugs lead directly to the liver via the portal vein, causing many drugs to be broken down before they have a chance to be distributed to tissues.

This is called the first-pass effect, and explains why some drugs are not effective when administered orally due to low oral bioavailability and require parenteral administration.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 956 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Safely and effectively administer drugs by common parenteral and enteral routes; explain appropriate routes and methods and when used 18. After absorption into the bloodstream, a portion of the drug binds to blood proteins, primarily a. b. c. d.

. globulin albumin glycoprotein phospholipids

ANS: B

After absorption into the bT loE odSsT trB eaAmN, K aS poErL tioLnEoRf . thC eO drMug binds to blood proteins, primarily albumin.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 956 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Safely and effectively administer drugs by common parenteral and enteral routes; explain appropriate routes and methods and when used 19. The is considered the major site of drug metabolism in the body. a. kidney b. gastrointestinal tract c. liver d. spleen ANS: C

The liver is considered the major site of drug metabolism in the body.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 957 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Safely and effectively administer drugs by common parenteral and enteral routes; explain appropriate routes and methods and when used 20. Metabolism most commonly inactivates or detoxifies drugs and/or makes them more

for elimination in urine or bile. a. lipid soluble

b. water soluble c. hydrophobic d. lipophobic ANS: A

Metabolism most commonly inactivates or detoxifies drugs and/or makes them more water soluble for elimination in urine or bile.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 957 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Safely and effectively administer drugs by common parenteral and enteral routes; explain appropriate routes and methods and when used 21. Steady state is a. the rate at which a drug is removed from an organ or from the body. b. reached when the amount of drug administered equals the amount of drug

eliminated. c. the efficiency of drug elimination. d. the time required for the amount of a drug in the body to decrease by one-half.

ANS: B

Steady state is reached when the amount of drug administered equals the amount of drug eliminated.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 957 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Safely and effectively administer drugs by common parenteral and enteral routes;TeE xpSlaT inBaA ppNrK opS riE atL e rLoE utR es.aC ndOm Methods and when used 22. In food-producing animals, the withdrawal time is the period following drug administration

during which the food products contain an unacceptable amount of drug residue, and cannot be harvested or consumed. Withdrawal time must be closely adhered to because a. consumption of animal products containing drug residues can cause allergic reactions. b. consumption of animal products containing drug residues can cause disease in people. c. consumption of animal products containing drug residues can cause antibiotic resistance. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

The withdrawal time is the period following drug administration during which the food products contain an unacceptable amount of drug residue, and cannot be harvested or consumed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 957 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Safely and effectively administer drugs by common parenteral and enteral routes; explain appropriate routes and methods and when used 23. Dose-dependent drug reactions a. are unpredictable.

b. affect only a small portion of treated animals. c. increase as the drug dose increases. d. usually affect one species.

ANS: C

Dose-dependent drug reactions are predictable, affect all members of a species, and often affect multiple species. The likelihood of these reactions increases as the drug dose increases.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 958 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 24. Therapeutic drug monitoring is not helpful in identifying or avoiding which of the following

reactions? a. Idiosyncratic drug reactions b. Dose-dependent drug reactions c. Reactions between two or more drugs d. Inappropriate doses reactions ANS: A

Therapeutic drug monitoring is not helpful in identifying or avoiding idiosyncratic drug reactions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 958 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Monitor therapeutic responses

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25. Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) is a. the cessation of clinical signs of disease. b. the periodic measurement of the amount of a drug in the blood. c. the periodic monitoring of drug dosages. d. the determination of clinical signs related to drug side effects.

ANS: B

Therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM) is the periodic measurement of the amount of a drug in the blood.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 958|p. 1322 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Monitor therapeutic responses 26. The is the major organ involved in drug elimination. a. liver b. gastro intestinal tract c. kidney d. spleen ANS: C

The kidney is the major organ involved in drug elimination.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 958

TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 27. The

houses the metabolic enzymes that convert lipophilic drugs to more water-soluble metabolites for elimination. a. liver b. gastrointestinal tract c. kidney d. spleen ANS: A

The liver houses the metabolic enzymes that convert lipophilic drugs to more water-soluble metabolites for elimination by the kidney.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 959 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 28. A reduced ability of the body to eliminate drugs through the kidney results in a. a require dosage adjustment to a higher dose. b. decreased drug plasma concentrations when standard doses are given. c. increased drug plasma concentrations when standard doses are given. d. a required increase in the frequency of drug administration.

ANS: C

Kidney disease or failure cT anEcSaT usBeAdN ecKreSaE seLdLdE ruRg.eC lim OiMnation, thereby increasing drug plasma concentrations and the risk for adverse reactions or toxicity when standard doses are given.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 958 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects

antibiotics inhibit bacterial replication.

29. a. b. c. d.

Bactericidal Bacteriostatic Bacteriophilic Bacteriolytic

ANS: B

Bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit bacterial replication.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 960 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 30. Which breed of dog is associated with a dangerous sensitivity to macrocyclic lactone

medications such as the avermectins?

a. b. c. d.

German Shephard Great Dane Collie English Bulldog

ANS: C

Herding breeds (including Collies) often contain a genetic alteration that allows macrocyclic lactone medications to accumulate in the central nervous system. The failure of an important efflux pump (P-glycoprotein) in the brain to remove these drugs can lead to toxicity of the nervous system.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 963 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 31. Endoparasitic drugs would be effective against all of the following except a. ticks. b. flukes. c. roundworms. d. protozoa.

ANS: A

Endoparasites include those organisms that reside within the body. The organisms include the nematodes, trematodes, cestodes, and protozoal parasites. Drugs that work to treat infections with these pathogens are called endoparasitic agents.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 9S6T 2 BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 32. Which of the following is not true regarding long-acting glucocorticoids such as

dexamethasone? a. They are ineffective at suppressing the immune system. b. They can lead to adrenal gland suppression. c. They cause prolonged side effects due to their long duration of action. d. They are difficult to dose.

ANS: A

Long-acting glucocorticoids persist in the body for periods up to several days after administration. They are effective at decreasing immune function in the body, but since they persist for excessive periods they are difficult to remove from the body, so are more apt to cause deleterious effects on immune function. Since glucocorticoids should be tapered down at the end of therapy in order to maintain hypothalamic/pituitary/adrenal gland function, long-acting members prove difficult to wean from patients due to their persistence.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 972 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects

33. Which is the most common endocrinopathy found in felines? a. Hyperadrenocorticism b. Hyperthyroidism c. Diabetes mellitus d. Diabetes insipidus ANS: B

While low thyroid hormone levels (hypothyroidism) is relatively common in dogs, cats are more likely to be afflicted with high levels of circulating thyroid hormone (hyperthyroidism).

Since thyroid hormone is responsible for driving the metabolic rate of animals, cats with hyperthyroidism often present as thin, anxious, and restless.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 962|p. 964 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Monitor therapeutic responses 34. What is the generic name of the drug that is used to treat hypothyroidism in horses? a. L-thyroxine b. Methimazole c. Metronidazole d. Amitraz ANS: A

L-thyroxine is used to treat hypothyroidism in dogs and horses. Methimazole is used to treat hyperthyroidism in cats. Metronidazole is an antiprotozoal used in dogs and cats. Amitraz is used to treat ectoparasites in dogs, cattle, and swine.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 966 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Safely and effectively administer drugs by common parenteral and enteral routes; explain appropriate routes and methods and when used 35. What is the starting material for the inflammatory cascade? a. Cell membrane phospholipids b. Arachidonic acid c. Prostaglandin d. Leukotriene ANS: A

The mediators of inflammation include prostaglandins and leukotrienes which are produced through a cascade that involves phospholipids (which form the walls of cells) being converted to arachidonic acid. Steroids function to prevent the conversion of phospholipids to arachidonic acid, while NSAIDs work to block the conversion of arachidonic acid to the final inflammatory mediators.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 972 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects

36. Medical treatment of Cushing disease is often accomplished through the use of mitotane or

trilostane. What is the mode of action of mitotane? a. Decreased release of ACTH from the pituitary gland b. Destruction of the adrenal cortex c. Decreased release of CRH from the hypothalamus d. Destruction of cortisol after it is produced by the adrenal gland ANS: B

Hyperadrenocorticism, also called Cushing disease, is caused by an excessive production of cortisol by the adrenal gland. Mitotane is cytotoxic to the adrenal cortex, which is the area that produces cortisol after stimulation by the pituitary-derived adrenocorticotropic hormone. In contrast, trilostane affects the conversion of cortisol production from steroid starting products via enzymatic blockage.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 966 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 37. In addition to glucocorticoid activity, what property of fludrocortisone makes it a valuable

sole therapy for hypoadrenocorticism? a. It has mineralocorticoid activity. b. It stimulates the appetite in an Addison’s patient. c. It does not add to the endogenous aldosterone, thereby is not likely to cause toxicity. d. It does not cause any immunosuppression.

ANS: A

With hypoadrenocorticism (Addison disease), both mineralocorticoid and glucocorticoid activity is decreased. Therefore, for therapy to be effective a patient must receive supplementation of mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) and glucocorticoids (cortisol).

Fludrocortisone has both activities, and so can be used as a sole therapy for Addison’s disease.

The other drug often used in these cases is desoxycorticosterone, but since it only possesses mineralocorticoid activity it must be combined with a glucocorticoid to provide the full hormonal complement to the deficient patient.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 966 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 38. Which is the primary ion that is excreted by most diuretics as a means to increase urine loss? a. Calcium b. Hydrogen c. Sodium d. Iron ANS: C

The goal of diuretic therapy is to increase sodium and water excretion, thereby reducing the fluid buildup (edema) that accompanies many disease processes. Diuretics accomplish this by inhibiting the reabsorption of sodium at different parts of the nephron or collecting duct during urine formation. Although many electrolytes are excreted with the use of most diuretic drugs, sodium is the predominant driver of diuresis. In addition to sodium, potassium is commonly lost through the use of these medications.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 967 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Safely and effectively administer drugs by common parenteral and enteral routes; explain appropriate routes and methods and when used 39. Which class of cardiac arrhythmia medication works by blocking calcium channels in the

heart, therefore decreasing the contraction rate of the myocytes? a. Class I b. Class II c. Class III d. Class IV ANS: D

Class IV antiarrhythmics work by blocking calcium channels. The main drug in this class is diltiazem. This mode of action differs from those drugs that fall into class I (sodium channel blockers), class II (beta-adrenergic blockers), and class III (potassium channel blockers.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 970 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 40. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that has a relative toxicity level that is quite near its effective

dose. Thus, digoxin is said to have a a. wide b. narrow c. short d. long

therapeutic index.

ANS: B

Therapeutic indices indicate how much a medication differs between its effective dose and its toxic dose. Drugs that are considered safe, meaning the toxic dose is much larger than the effective dose, are said to have a wide therapeutic index. Medications that are potentially dangerous at doses quite near their effective doses are considered to have a narrow therapeutic index. Since digoxin functions to increase cardiac contractility by way of manipulating ion concentrations in myocytes, it is reasonably easy to reach a dose that is cardiotoxic.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 969 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Monitor therapeutic responses 41. Why should heparin not be used to dissolve a blood clot in a dog? a. Canines are known to be hypersensitive to heparin. b. Heparin blocks all clotting activity, leading to massive internal bleeding.

c. Heparin does not dissolve blood clots. d. Heparin is not legal for use in veterinary medicine.

ANS: C

Heparin simply blocks blood clots from forming, but has no activity on a clot once it is in place. By blocking prothrombin’s conversion to thrombin, heparin is useful in preventing thrombus formation in high-risk patients.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 971 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 42. What is the primary antiseizure medication used during an active seizure? a. Potassium bromide b. Phenobarbital c. Ethanol d. Diazepam ANS: D

Diazepam is the most commonly used drug to stop an active seizure in an emergency setting.

This benzodiazepine is administered either IV or rectally (if a vein is inaccessible). Potassium bromide and phenobarbital are very commonly used, but their application is for long-term prevention of seizures in animals with history of such episodes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 972 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 43. Which of the following is true regarding nutraceuticals? a. They are relatively safe for use in animals. b. They require medical supervision of use. c. They require a prescription from a licensed veterinarian. d. They are considered dietary supplements.

ANS: D

Since nutraceuticals are not considered medications, nor are they considered food, they fall into the category of dietary supplements. Nutraceuticals are dispensed without a prescription and administered without medical supervision. Although they may be quite beneficial in their activity, these benefits are not guaranteed or analyzed by the FDA. PTS: 1 REF: pp. 972-973 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Demonstrate compliance with all federal regulatory guidelines for drug purchase, storage, administration, withdrawal, dispensing, disposal, and inventory control (e.g., biologics and therapeutic agents, pesticides, and hazardous wastes) 44. Which entity is responsible for the manufacture and distribution of medications and devices

used in veterinary medicine? a. The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) b. The U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA)

c. The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) d. The Center for Veterinary Medicine (CVM) ANS: D

The CVM is part of the larger FDA, and it is the organization that regulates the production of drugs, food additives, and medical devices that are used in veterinary cases throughout the country. The USDA is responsible for regulating veterinary biologics, while the EPA oversees pesticide regulatory functions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 973 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Demonstrate compliance with all federal regulatory guidelines for drug purchase, storage, administration, withdrawal, dispensing, disposal, and inventory control (e.g., biologics and therapeutic agents, pesticides, and hazardous wastes) 45. A medication that is labeled for use in dogs for pneumonia is used to treat a cat with the same

type of disease. This type of use is considered a. labeled use. b. extra-label use. c. illegal. d. OK as long as a licensed technician determines it is OK. ANS: B

Extra-label drug use involves any use of a prescription product in a manner aside from what is on its label. This includes use in different species, by different routes, at different doses and for different durations. AMDUCA is the law that made such extra-label use acceptable as long as certain criteria are met, one of which is that the drug must be prescribed by a licensed veterinarian.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 973-974 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Read and follow veterinarian's pharmacy orders 46. Which of the following pieces of information is not required to be visible on a clinic’s

prescription drug label for medications that are sent home with a client? a. The name and contact information of the clinic and/or pharmacy where the drug is sold b. The directions for the use of that drug c. Common side effects specific to that drug d. The name of the prescribing veterinarian ANS: C

Although the drug insert will contain a list of the common side effects and contraindications involved with the use of a medication, this information is not likely to be included on the clinic’s label.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 977 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Dispensing: Accurately dispense and explain prescribed drugs to clients. | Relay drug information to clients (e.g., handling, storage, administration, side-effects, drug interactions, safety, reasons for use of drug) 47. Which common veterinary abbreviation is not widely used in human medicine?

a. b. c. d.

SQ prn s.i.d.

IP

ANS: C

The abbreviation s.i.d. (once a day) is not commonly used outside of the veterinary medical field. Since human-based pharmacies are increasingly being used to fill veterinary prescriptions, prescribers should state “every 24 hours” instead of using s.i.d. on prescriptions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 978 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Read and follow veterinarian's pharmacy orders 48. What component of the drug calculation involves an amount of medication delivered per unit

of body weight (e.g., 10 mg/kg)? a. Dose b. Dosage c. Weight d. Concentration ANS: B

A drug dosage is the amount of drug that is provided per unit of body weight (such as kilogram or pound), while a drug dose is the amount of drug that is given to a patient at one time, with the calculation based on body size already accomplished. Different-sized animals can receive the same dosage of a medication, but their doses will likely be different since their weights are not the same.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 978 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pharmacy and Pharmacology MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Accurately perform appropriate calculations; use weights and measures correctly

Chapter 30: Pain Management Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Recently, research in pain management has shifted toward identifying and even predicting

known painful events. For example, herniation. a. tolerable b. mild c. moderate d. severe

pain is expected with cervical disc

ANS: D

Recently, research in pain management has shifted toward identifying and even predicting known painful events. For example, severe pain is expected with cervical disc herniation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 983 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Accurately perform appropriate calculations; use weights and measures correctly 2. Signs of pain in animals can be categorized as a. psychologic or metabolic. b. metabolic or physiologic. c. physiologic or behavioral. d. behavioral or temporalT . ESTBANKSELLER.COM ANS: C

Signs of pain in animals can be categorized as physiologic or behavioral.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 983 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Accurately perform appropriate calculations; use weights and measures correctly 3. Clinical signs of pain in a dog may include of all of the following except a. restlessness. b. decreased temperature. c. aggression. d. depression.

ANS: B

Clinical signs of pain in dogs and cats most often reported include tachycardia, increased respiratory rate, restlessness, increased temperature, increased blood pressure, abnormal posturing, in appetence, aggression, frequent movement, facial expression, trembling, depression, and insomnia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 984 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Accurately perform appropriate calculations; use weights

and measures correctly 4. For cats, which of the following is not in the top three clinically ranked signs of pain? a. Abnormal posture b. Aggression c. Hiding d. Restlessness ANS: D

For cats abnormal posture, hiding, and aggression are ranked as common pain signs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 984 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Accurately perform appropriate calculations; use weights and measures correctly 5. When assessing an animal’s pain, it is good to use a VAS pain scale. VAS stands for a. visual subjective scale. b. visual analogue scale. c. veterinary analogue scale. d. veterinary analytic scale.

ANS: B

The observer’s subjective opinion and physiologic signs can be described using a pain scale, such as a visual analogue scale (VAS).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 984 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Accurately perform appropriate calculations; use weights and measures correctly

is an emotional state characterized by anxiety depression or

6.

unease. a. Dysphagia b. Dysphoria c. Dysphonia d. Dyspalegia ANS: B

When behaviors are thought to be related to stress rather than pain, they are often referred to as dysphoria (an emotional state characterized by anxiety, depression, or unease).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 984 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Accurately perform appropriate calculations; use weights and measures correctly 7. Abnormal postoperative behaviors sometimes are referred to as

attributed to residual gas anesthetics. a. dysphoria b. emergence delirium c. narcosis delirium

are often

d. opioid emergence ANS: B

Abnormal postoperative behaviors sometimes are referred to as emergence delirium attributed to residual gas anesthetics.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 984 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 8. The five vital signs that a veterinary technician must be constantly aware of are a. temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure, and mucous membrane color. b. temperature, pulse, respiration, blood gasses, and mucous membrane color. c. temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure, and pain. d. pulse, respiration, blood pressure, mucous membrane color, and pain.

ANS: C

Pain is considered to play such an important role in overall health and well-being that pain is now regarded as a fifth vital sign, ranking it of equal importance with temperature, pulse, respiration, and blood pressure.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 984 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 9. Increased cortisol levels that accompany pain may a. promote the animals’ sT enEsS eT ofBwAeN llK -bS eiE ngL.LER.COM b. interfere with wound healing. c. induce sleep. d. facilitate the immune system.

ANS: B

Increased cortisol levels that accompany pain may interfere with wound healing and may reduce the immune system’s ability to work effectively.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 984 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 10. Pain receptors are also called a. nociceptors. b. analgesiaceptors. c. anti-inflammatory receptors. d. corticoceptors.

ANS: A

The term nociception is derived from the Latin word nocere, which means “to injure.”

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 985-986 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and

maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 11. Which of the following is not a phase of the pain pathway? a. Transduction b. Transmission c. Modulation d. Nociception ANS: D

The pain pathway includes three distinct phases: transduction, transmission, and modulation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 985 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 12. The phase of pain that involves the nerve endings converting pain into electrical impulses is

called a. transduction. b. transmission. c. modulation. d. nociception.

ANS: A

When nociceptors (pain receptors) are stimulated, these specialized nerve endings convert mechanical, chemical, and thermal energy into electrical impulses (transduction) once their threshold is exceeded.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 986 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 13. What differentiates nociception from pain? a. The animal’s visible response. b. Consciousness. c. Number of nerve cells activated. d. Involvement with the central nervous system.

ANS: B

Consciousness differentiates nociception from pain.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 987 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 14.

occurs when pain-transmitting nerve fiber threshold is reset to a lower level, resulting in less stimulation being required to initiate pain. a. hyperalgesia b. hyperesthesia

c. dysphoria d. allodynia ANS: A

Hyperalgesia occurs when the pain-transmitting nerve fiber threshold is reset to a lower level, resulting in less and less stimulation being required to initiate pain.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 988 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 15. A Dachshund with vertebral disc disease that cries out in pain when any part of its body is

touched is an example of a. hyperalgesia. b. allodynia. c. wind-up. d. dysphoria.

ANS: C

The presence of hyperalgesia and allodynia collectively is considered wind-up phenomenon.

This is apparent, for example, in the Dachshund with vertebral disc disease that cries out in pain when any part of its body is touched.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 988 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 16. Any procedure that might be considered noxious should be performed by taking the patient

outside the cage, because a. it allows better visualization. b. it allows better restraint. c. it allows the animal to feel comfortable and safe in the cage. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Any procedure that might be considered noxious should be performed by taking the patient outside the cage, if possible. This allows the animal to feel comfortable and safe when in the cage.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 988 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Coordinate pain management with the anesthesia/surgical team 17. Preemptive analgesia means the best way to treat pain is to a. treat immediately upon signs of pain and distress. b. wait until the animal absolutely needs some relief. c. supply the maximum allowed dosages of pain medication. d. prevent it.

ANS: D

The best way to treat pain is to prevent it. This is the concept of preemptive analgesia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 988 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 18. Multimodal analgesia means a. combining two or more analgesic drugs. b. combining two or more classes of analgesic drugs to alter more than one phase of

nociception. c. using one class of drug to affect or alter more than one phase of nociception. d. using analgesic drugs to affect both the PNS and CNS. ANS: B

Multimodal analgesia takes advantage of the synergistic effects obtained by combining two or more classes of analgesic drugs to alter more than one phase of nociception (transduction, transmission, modulation, and perception).

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 988-989 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 19. Using drugs from three different classes provides better pain control and confers the added

benefit of a. decreasing the cost of analgesia. b. avoiding the use of conTtrE oS lleTdBsA ubNsK taS ncEeL s.LER.COM c. allowing the use of lower doses of individual agents, thereby reducing side effects. d. allowing for smaller tablet size and easier oral dosing.

ANS: C

Using drugs from three different classes provides better pain control and confers the added benefit of allowing the use of lower doses of individual agents, thereby reducing side effects.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 989 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 20. Many veterinary professionals agree that most soft tissue procedures, such as spaying or

neutering, require a. 1 to 2 b. 3 to 4 c. 5 to 7 d. 10 to 14

days of postoperative analgesia.

ANS: B

Many veterinary professionals agree that most soft tissue procedures, such as spaying or neutering, require 3 to 4 days of postoperative analgesia.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 989

TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 21. Drugs used to reduce fevers are called a. antithermics. b. antipyretics. c. antiemetics. d. antimicrobials.

ANS: B

Antipyretics are used to reduce fevers.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 990 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 22. Current FDA-approved veterinary NSAIDs for use in dogs include all except a. Rimadyl (carprofen). b. Onsior (robenicoxib). c. Previcox (firocoxib). d. Deramaxx (deracoxib).

ANS: B

Current FDA-approved veterinary NSAIDs for use in dogs include Rimadyl (carprofen), Metacam (meloxicam), Deramaxx (deracoxib), and Previcox (firocoxib). Metacam and Onsior (robenicoxib) are approvedTfEoS r uTsB eA inNcK atS s.ELLER.COM PTS: 1 REF: p. 990 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 23. The most commonly reported adverse events in the cats after administration of NSAIDs are a. GI bleeding, and GI perforation. b. related to the renal system and include renal failure. c. vomiting and diarrhea. d. related to the hepatic system and include liver failure.

ANS: B

The most commonly reported adverse events in the dog are related to the gastrointestinal (GI) tract and include vomiting, diarrhea, GI bleeding, and GI perforation, whereas in the cat, signs are more commonly related to the renal system and include renal failure.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 990 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 24. Cats should never receive

. Cats lack an enzyme required to metabolize it, resulting in liver toxicity and an inability of the red blood cells to carry oxygen.

a. b. c. d.

Onsior (robenicoxib) Metacam (meloxicam) Tylenol (acetaminophen) Rompun (xylazine)

ANS: C

Cats should never receive Tylenol (acetaminophen). Cats lack an enzyme required to metabolize acetaminophen, resulting in liver toxicity and an inability of the red blood cells to carry oxygen.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 991 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 25. Local anesthetics work by blocking a. transduction. b. transmission. c. modulation. d. nociception.

ANS: B

Local anesthetics work by totally disrupting neural transmission of information. Blocking transmission of painful signals is one of the most effective ways of managing pain.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 991 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 26. Lidocaine, the most widely used local anesthetic, takes effect in

and is effective

for 60 to 90 minutes. a. 1 to 2 minutes b. 3 to 5 minutes c. 5 to 10 minutes d. immediately ANS: B

Lidocaine, the most widely used local anesthetic, takes effect in 3 to 5 minutes and is effective for 60 to 90 minutes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 991 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 27. Administration of a local anesthetic by injection into the local tissue is called a. topical administration. b. transmucosal administration. c. local infiltration. d. circumferential ring block.

ANS: C

Injection of lidocaine or bupivacaine into local tissue can reduce pain associated with various painful procedures. This technique is useful for small mass removal, digit amputation, arterial catheter placement, thoracocentesis, abdominocentesis, bone marrow sampling, and so forth.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 991 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 28.

are the most commonly used analgesics in hospitalized patients because of their efficacy, rapid onset of action, and safety. a. NSAIDs b. local anesthetics c. Alpha2 agonists d. Opioids ANS: D

Opioids are the most commonly used analgesics in hospitalized patients because of their efficacy, rapid onset of action, and safety.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 993 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 29. Opioid antagonists work by a. over powering the opioid activity. b. increasing metabolismT oE f tS heToBpAioNidKsS . ELLER.COM c. binding with opioids in the vascular space. d. blocking opioid action at the receptors.

ANS: D

Opioid antagonists work by blocking opioid action at the receptors. By contrast, opioid agonists work by stimulating opioid receptors. Mixed agonist-antagonist opioids stimulate some receptors while blocking others, and partial agonists cause partial stimulation of receptor sites.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 993 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 30. How does the American Animal Hospital Association (AAHA) approach pain assessment in

patients? a. They recommend optional assessment, but only in trauma cases. b. They require opioid treatment in all patients. c. They require pain assessment in all animals. d. They routinely recommend steroidal anti-inflammatories while the patient is in the clinic.

ANS: C

Regardless of the presenting complaint, AAHA requires routine pain level assessment in all of their patients. This high standard helps AAHA clinics maintain the quality of care and animal welfare that sets them above the standard-of-care in other clinics which do not properly assess this response.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 985 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 31. Why do many companion animals fail to adequately show pain? a. They have fewer pain receptors than do humans. b. They do not experience pain. c. There is an instinctual benefit to not showing pain. d. They require more stimulus to feel pain.

ANS: C

Historically, canine and felines were commonly associated with predator-prey relationships in nature. This ingrained behavioral mechanism is still seen today, although most of the wild background of these animals has been bred away. This is the reason why some animals will fail to show responses to noxious stimuli, even though they are truly experiencing pain.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 982 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed

foErm f aAnNalKgS esE iaLtL haEt R is.uC seOdMin ruminants?

32. What is the most common T SToB a. Opioids b. Steroidal anti-inflammatories c. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories d. Local anesthetics ANS: D

Due to the number of routine procedures that are performed in food-animal practice (dehorning, castration, abdominal surgery, etc.), local analgesia, primarily through administration of lidocaine or bupivacaine nerve blocks, is very common. The veterinary technician should be aware of the location of the numerous local nerve blocks that are performed in ruminant practice.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1005 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 33. Which of the following groups of animals are traditionally least likely to receive analgesia for

routine procedures? a. Camelids b. Equines c. Cattle d. Dogs

ANS: C

With the exception of valuable beef herd sires and high-producing dairy cows, food-producing herd animals, such as cattle, sheep, and goats, are the least likely of the large animals to receive analgesia. This is because these animals often have an absolute economic value with a narrow profit margin, and pharmaceutical residue is not generally accepted in the food industry. Camelids (e.g., llamas and alpacas) are more likely than cattle, sheep, and goats (but not as likely as horses) to receive analgesic treatment because they generally are constrained neither by an absolute economic value nor by entry into the human food chain.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1005|p. 1006 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 34. In which types of surgery is analgesic medication recommended? a. In surgeries involving visceral pain b. In surgeries that involve skeletal pain, such as a fracture repair c. For procedures that enter a body cavity d. For all surgeries ANS: D

All surgical procedures involve painful stimuli, so analgesia should be performed for any and all operations. Preventing pain is more important than treating pain once it occurs from the standpoint of animal welfare and provision of quality of life.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 986|p. 988 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain T ME anSaT geB mAenNt/K AS naElgLeL siaER.COM MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Coordinate pain management with the anesthesia/surgical team 35. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of alpha2 agonists? a. Hypotension b. Bradycardia c. Cardiac arrhythmias d. Peripheral vasoconstriction ANS: A

Alpha2 agonists, such as xylazine and dexmedetomidine, cause peripheral vasoconstriction.

The narrowed vessels result in increased blood pressure, or hypertension. Because heart rate normally goes up when blood pressure is low and down when blood pressure is high, a slowed heart rate (bradycardia) is expected and is considered a normal finding.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 989|p. 994 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 36. Which of the four categories of analgesic medications include agents that are considered a

therapeutic class of analgesics?

a. b. c. d.

NSAIDs Local anesthetics Opioids Alpha2 agonists

ANS: A

Since NSAIDs are anti-inflammatory in nature, they treat the underlying causes of inflammatory pain. Therefore, they are considered therapeutic agents, not simply medications that mask the feelings of pain.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 990 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 37. Which of the four categories of analgesic medications is used primarily for sedation although

they have some mild analgesic effects as well? a. NSAIDs b. Local anesthetics c. Opioids d. Alpha2 agonists ANS: D

The alpha2 agonists (such as xylazine and dexmedetomidine) are sedatives, with variable effects depending on the species involved. Ruminants are historically very sensitive to the sedative effects of these agents, with lesser effects in horses and companion animals. The analgesic properties are relatively short-lived although moderate in effect.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 994|p. 1003 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 38. Which of the four categories of analgesic medications are classified as nerve blocking agents? a. NSAIDs b. Local anesthetics c. Opioids d. Alpha2 agonists ANS: B

Local anesthetics block nerve transmission of nociceptive messages from the body to the brain. These “nerve blocks” are often provided by injection in specific tissues of medications such as lidocaine and bupivacaine, which block sodium ion channels in neurons thereby preventing nerve cell signal transduction.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 991|p. 1003 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed

39. Topical analgesia is an important way to diminish pain associated with minor procedures.

Which of the following is not true regarding topical analgesia? a. At least 5 minutes of contact time must be provided for maximal effect b. Topical analgesia is ideal for mucosal surfaces c. Lidocaine, bupivacaine, or tetracaine can be administered topically d. Topical analgesics can be formulated in pastes or creams ANS: A

It is important to understand that due to the relatively slow rate of absorption that occurs with topical drug administration compared to parenteral methods, at least 20 to 30 minutes should be allowed for the drug to contact the tissues and provide its analgesic effect.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 991 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 40. Of the following, which is not commonly considered a reason why horses receive relatively

high levels of analgesia compared to other “large” animals? a. Horses are often considered “companion” animals to their owners. b. Horses can be very dangerous if frightened or in pain. c. Horses require very small doses of analgesia compared to food-animals of the same size. d. Horses can be performance animals, necessitating their freedom from pain to perform at their best.

ANS: C

Since horses often are not T linEkS edTiBnA triNnK siS caEllL yL toEtR he.irCeO coMnomic value (in contrast to cattle or pigs), owners are more likely to require high-level care with their horses which includes adequate pain control. In addition, in the United States horses are not routinely intended for human consumption, so analgesic withholds do not apply.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1004 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed

Chapter 31: Veterinary Anesthesia Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. For noninvasive blood pressure measurements, the cuff should be placed a. higher than the heart. b. at the same elevation as the heart. c. lower than the heart. d. its placement has no relation to the plane of the heart.

ANS: B

For proper operation, the cuff should be at the same horizontal plane as the heart.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1041-1042 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment 2.

is a device that is designed to detect changes in the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin. a. An esophageal stethoscope b. A pulse oximeter c. A capnograph d. A doppler ANS: B

A pulse oximeter is a device that is designed to detect changes in the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1041 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment 3. Maintenance of the pulse oximeter probes should be done by a. autoclaving for sterility. b. vigorous scrubbing to remove organic debris. c. immersing in a warm water bath. d. wiping with a mild disinfectant.

ANS: D

Pulse oximeters require little maintenance but must be handled with care. Probes should be cleaned with alcohol or another mild disinfectant, but must not be immersed, scrubbed, or autoclaved.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1043 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment

4. The term premedication is used to mean drugs that accomplish all except which of the

following? a. Sedation b. Analgesia c. Induction d. Muscle relaxation ANS: C

Premedications are chosen to produce a specific set of desired effects, such as sedation, analgesia, and muscle relaxation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1046 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 5. When inducing a dog using propofol, the drug should be given a. at one-fourth of the calculated dose every 30 seconds to effect. b. as one rapid bolus. c. slowly over a period of 20 minutes. d. as a CRI. ANS: A

When inducing a patient with propofol, give one-fourth of the calculated dose every 30 seconds to effect until the patient is at an adequate depth for endotracheal intubation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1047 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:EASnT esBthAesNiaK: S PaEtiL enLt E mR an. agCeO mM ent: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 6. Chamber induction of anesthesia should have a vaporizer setting of

or a. b. c. d.

for isoflurane,

for sevoflurane.

1% to 3%; 1% to 3% 1% to 3%; 2% to 4% 2% to 4%; 4% to 6% 3% to 5%; 4% to 6%

ANS: D

Place the patient in the chamber, close the lid, and attach to the ports the breathing tubes of a semi-closed rebreathing system. Deliver oxygen at 5 L/minute and isoflurane at 3% to 5% or sevoflurane at 4% to 6%.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1048 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 7. After catheterization for anesthesia induction, the horse’s mouth should be rinsed out with a

dose syringe placed between the cheek and the teeth on each side of the mouth to flush out any feed material. This a. prevents damage to the equipment during intubation.

b. provides better visualization during intubation. c. prevents aspiration of the material during intubation. d. provides better airway control.

ANS: C

After catheterization, the horse’s mouth should be rinsed out with a dose syringe placed between the cheek and the teeth on each side of the mouth to flush out any feed material. This prevents aspiration of the material during intubation or in recovery.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1050 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 8. Signs that a horse is adequately sedated prior to anesthesia induction include a. the head held stretched out, level to its body. b. nystagmus and head tilt. c. head and lower lip droop. d. a fidgety stance.

ANS: C

Sedation is considered to be adequate when the horse’s head (and lower lip) droops, the horse no longer pays attention to its surroundings, and the horse demonstrates a wide-based stance or reluctance to move.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1051 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 9. As a result of large breathing circuit volume and patient size, response to changes in inhalant

anesthetic and oxygen flow rates occur too slowly to return a horse to surgical anesthesia simply by altering machine settings. If a horse under anesthesia suddenly moves, the veterinary technician should to maintain a. Double the surgical rate of IV fluids b. Attach the breathing tube to a ventilator c. Administer one-fifth of the IV induction dose of ketamine d. Administer one- third the sedation dose of acepromazine ANS: C

As a result of large breathing circuit volume and patient size, response to changes in inhalant anesthetic and oxygen flow rates occur too slowly to return a horse to surgical anesthesia simply by altering machine settings. A syringe of ketamine is typically drawn up before anesthesia and may be attached to a three-way stopcock in the fluid administration line or kept close to the IV port for this purpose. Approximately one-fifth of the IV induction dose is administered to the horse to return it to surgical anesthesia.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1051-1052 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Administer anesthetic-related drugs (injection, endotracheal tube, mask)

10. When preparing to extubate a horse, the veterinary technician should always keep in mind

horses a. rarely demonstrate the swallowing reflex. b. are obligate nasal breathers. c. vomit frequently and easily. d. skip a few of the stages and planes of anesthesia when recovering.

ANS: B

Horses can breathe only through their noses and will become distressed and compromised if they are unable to do so.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1053 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Administer anesthetic-related drugs (injection, endotracheal tube, mask) 11. Veterinary technicians must always remember that

are most sensitive to xylazine and

doses must be checked very carefully when the drug is used. a. horses b. dogs c. cats d. cattle ANS: D

Ruminants are sensitive to xylazine, requiring at most one-tenth of the dose administered to horses.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 1S0T 55BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Administer anesthetic-related drugs (injection, endotracheal tube, mask) 12. During the postanesthetic period, once a ruminant is lying in sternal recumbency without

support and is no longer in danger of a. bloating b. regurgitation c. vomition d. apnea

_, it can be left unattended.

ANS: A

During the postanesthetic period, once a ruminant is lying in sternal recumbency without support and is no longer in danger of bloating, it can be left unattended.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1056 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Evaluate patient and implement pain management protocols as directed 13. During anesthesia healthy SA patients should receive intermittent positive pressure ventilation

(bagging, manual ventilation) at a rate of a. 1 breath per second b. 1 breath per minute

to prevent atelectasis.

c. 1 breath every 2 to 5 minutes d. 1 breath every 6 to 10 minutes ANS: C

Healthy SA patients should receive a breath once every 2 to 5 minutes to prevent atelectasis.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1037-1038 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter) 14. If excessive pressure is applied to the airways, alveoli can rupture, resulting in pneumothorax

or pneumomediastinum, Never allow pressure in the breathing circuit to exceed in small animals. a. 10 cm of water b. 20 cm of water c. 30 cm of water d. 40 cm of water ANS: B

Excessive pressure in the breathing circuit can result in dyspnea, lung damage, pneumothorax, and decreased cardiac output. For these reasons, never allow pressure in the breathing circuit to exceed 15 to 20 cm of water in small animals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1028|p. 1057 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter) 15. The

is the best noninvasive tool for judging the appropriateness of the respiratory rate and volume in an anesthetized patient. a. Pulse oximeter b. Capnograph c. Esophageal stethoscope d. Noninvasive Doppler ANS: B

A capnograph is the best noninvasive tool for judging the appropriateness of the rate and volume, with the gold standard being measurement of arterial CO2 through blood gas analysis.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1044-1045 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment 16. A flowmeter or oxygen tank pressure gauge that registers zero indicates that the flowmeter is

turned off, or that the oxygen tank is empty or turned off. If during a surgical procedure, the primary tank becomes empty and there is no reserve tank, you should a. turn up the flowmeter as high as it goes. b. disconnect the endotracheal tube from the breathing system.

c. squeeze the reservoir bag every few seconds. d. be sure the pop-off valve is open.

ANS: B

A flowmeter or oxygen tank pressure gauge that registers zero indicates that the flowmeter is turned off, or that the oxygen tank is empty or turned off. If the primary tank is empty, open the reserve tank. If it is impossible to solve the problem right away (there is no reserve tank on the machine and only one machine at your disposal), you should disconnect the endotracheal tube from the breathing system until the problem is rectified, although there is a risk that the patient may wake up or become hypoxemic in the interim.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1057 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment 17. Lack of movement of the reservoir bag or of the unidirectional valves when the anaesthetized

patient breathes could indicate a. that the oxygen flow rate is not high enough. b. that the endotracheal tube is not in the trachea. c. that the vaporizer setting is too high. d. that the pop-off valve is closed.

ANS: B

Lack of movement of the reservoir bag or of the unidirectional valves when the patient breathes usually indicates that the endotracheal tube is not in the trachea, is disconnected, or is blocked.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1057 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment 18. Indications that the CO2 absorbent is saturated include all of the following except a. violet or off-white absorbent granules. b. brittle absorbent granules. c. decreased inspired CO2 levels. d. increased expired CO2 levels.

ANS: C

Violet or off-white, brittle absorbent granules indicate saturation of the CO2 absorbent. The resulting increase in CO2 in the breathing circuit will cause increased inspired and expired CO2 levels on a capnography and may also cause tachypnea or tachycardia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1058 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment 19. Difficulty keeping a patient adequately anesthetized is most often related to problems with the

machine and associated equipment. All of the following are potential sources of problems except

a. b. c. d.

the oxygen is off and the flow is inadequate. the endotracheal tube is improperly placed and cuffed. the vaporizer is set at too high a percentage. the vaporizer is empty and is turned off.

ANS: C

Difficulty keeping a patient adequately anesthetized is most often related to problems with the machine and associated equipment. Check that the oxygen is on and flow is adequate, the vaporizer is not empty and is turned on, the machine is correctly assembled, no system leaks are present, and the endotracheal tube is properly placed and cuffed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1058 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment 20. Low oxygen saturation is defined as SpO2 a. <100% b. <99% c. <97% d. <95%

on a pulse oximeter.

ANS: D

Low oxygen saturation is defined as SpO2 less than 95% on a pulse oximeter.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1059 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment 21. If the anesthetized patient begins to retch or vomit at any time during general anesthesia,

quickly position the patient’s head a. higher than their stomach. b. lower than the body. c. level with the body. d. higher than the body.

ANS: B

If the patient begins to retch or vomit at any time during general anesthesia, quickly position the patient’s head lower than the body, so that the vomitus flows out of the oral cavity and away from the pharynx.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1059 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter) 22. It is imperative that the veterinary technician have a standard protocol to follow when

preparing and anesthetic machine for use. The first step should always be to a. assemble the machine and check the low-pressure system for leaks. b. select an appropriately sized reservoir bag and breathing tubes.

c. Check the quantity of carrier gas in the compressed gas cylinders. d. Assemble, turn on, and adjust the scavenging system.

ANS: C

When preparing an anesthetic machine for use, check the quantity of carrier gas in the compressed gas cylinders, and replace them if needed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1022 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter) 23. When using a mask induction technique for a cat or dog, what should the oxygen flow rate be

set at? a. 100 ml/kg/minute b. 200 ml/kg/minute c. 300 ml/kg/minute d. 400 ml/kg/minute ANS: C

When using mask induction for small animals, foals, calves, and small ruminants, the oxygen flow rate is set at: 300 ml/kg/minute (or 30 times the tidal volume). This works out to 1 to 3 L/minute for patients weighing <10 kg, and 3 to 5 L/minute for patients weighing >10 kg.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1026 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment 24. When using an endotracheal tube with an underinflated cuff all of the following maybe

potential problems except a. difficulty with or inability in keeping the patient anesthetized. b. aspiration of stomach contents. c. pollution of the work space with anesthetic gas. d. necrosis of the tracheal mucosa.

ANS: D

The endotracheal cuff is not inflated or is underinflated when the following complications can occur: • inability to create a seal between the cuff and trachea; • difficulty with or inability in keeping the patient anesthetized; • aspiration of stomach contents; • aspiration of foreign material and fluid during dental cleaning; • pollution of the work space with anesthetic gas.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1034 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment

25. When troubleshooting signal loss when using a pulse oximeter with a transmission probe, the

veterinary technician should always first a. make sure the patient is safe by assessing vital signs. b. remove and replace the probe. c. determine if the tongue is dry and rewet it. d. choose a different area of the patient that is not pigmented.

ANS: A

When troubleshooting signal loss when using any type of pulse oximeter (whether it has a transmission or reflective probe), the veterinary technician should always first make sure that the patient is safe by assessing vital signs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1044 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment 26. When troubleshooting signal loss while using a pulse oximeter, the first thing the veterinary

technician should do is a. make sure the side with the light source and sensor is oriented toward the tissue. b. check for adequate tissue contact. c. make sure that feces are not between the probe and the tissue. d. make sure the patient is safe by assessing vital signs.

ANS: D

When troubleshooting signal loss when using any type of pulse oximeter (whether it has a reflective or transmission probe), the first thing the veterinary technician should do is to make sure that the patient is safeTbE yS asTsB esA siN ngKvSiE taL l sLigEnR s..COM PTS: 1 REF: p. 1044 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter) 27. Recommended fasting times to withhold food prior to anesthesia in dogs and cats are a. 2 to 4 hours b. 4 to 6 hours c. 8 to 12 hours d. 12 to 24 hours ANS: C

Before initiating any anesthetic procedure in dogs and cats, food should be withheld for 8 to 12 hours, and water should be withheld for 2 to 4 hours. (Food can be withheld for shorter lengths of time in patients weighing <2 kg).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1010 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter)

28. Veterinary technicians should monitor respiratory rates while the patient is under anesthesia.

A normal respiration rate for a dog under anesthesia is a. 10 to 30 breaths per minute. b. 8 to 20 breaths per minute. c. <6 breaths per minute. d. >20 breaths per minute.

ANS: B

8 to 20 breaths per minute is normal for the dog under anesthesia, with <6 breaths per minute considered too low, and >20 considered too high.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1038 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter) 29. During equine anesthesia, systolic blood pressure should be maintained at a. 100 to160 mm Hg b. >80 mm Hg c. >50 mm Hg d. 50 to 80 mm Hg ANS: B

Normal systolic blood pressure values during anesthesia for the horse is >80 mm Hg. PTS: 1 REF: p. 1041 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter) 30. What is the state that is induced by dissociative drugs such as ketamine, characterized by the

patient appearing awake but unresponsive to its environment? a. General anesthesia b. Catalepsy c. Sedation d. Status epilepticus ANS: B

The cataleptic state induced by dissociative drugs provides the main benefit of immobilization. Dissociative agents do not provide anesthesia themselves. They can be combined with other agents such as tranquilizers or opioids to provide combination therapy including profound analgesia and anesthesia maintenance.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1017 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter)

31. Which of the following is not a beneficial property of using an endotracheal tube during

surgery? a. Maintains an open airway b. Prevents aspiration into the lungs c. Allows for ventilation if needed d. Allows for gastric delivery of slurry nutrition ANS: D

Endotracheal tubes are used to provide a direct route of entry into the lungs, thereby facilitating the delivery of inhalant anesthetics in patients undergoing surgical procedures.

Cuffed endotracheal tubes form a seal around the trachea, thereby preventing aspiration of blood, saliva, and gastric contents into the lungs.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1018-1019 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter) 32. What is the vaporizer setting that should be used as a baseline to provide surgical anesthesia

in most cases? a. 0.5 times MAC b. 1 time MAC c. 1.5 times MAC d. 10 times MAC ANS: C

The MAC (minimum alveoTlE arScT onBcA enNtrKaS tioEnL )L isEthRe.pC erOceMnt concentration of an agent that is required to provide surgical unresponsiveness to a surgical stimulus in 50% of patients. As a rule, an anesthetic agent that reaches 150% MAC (1.5 times MAC) should be targeted for surgical procedures.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1018 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter) 33. What is the carrier gas that is used in all anesthetic procedures? a. Nitrogen b. Oxygen c. Carbon dioxide d. Helium ANS: B

Carrier gases provide delivery of the vaporized anesthetic gases (such as isoflurane and sevoflurane) to the patient that is being anesthetized. Oxygen is the carrier gas used in all surgical procedures. In addition, oxygen can be delivered without the vaporized anesthetic as a means to revive an anesthetized patient after the procedure has been completed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1022 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and

maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter) 34. Oxygen tanks are which color when purchased in the United States? a. White b. Green c. Red d. Yellow ANS: B

It is helpful to recognize that in the United States oxygen tanks are colored green (white is the color of oxygen tanks internationally). This recognition will help in making certain that the correct gas tank is connected if different gases (such as nitrous dioxide) are used in the clinic.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1023 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Patient management: Safely and effectively manage and maintain patients in all phases of anesthesia. | Utilize clinical signs and appropriate equipment to monitor patient status during anesthetic procedures (e.g., esophageal stethoscope, blood pressure monitor, capnometer, electrocardiogram, pulse oximeter) 35. When should a non-rebreathing circuit be used for surgical intubation? a. When the patient is <7 kg b. When the patient is >7 kg c. When the patient is likely to need manual ventilation d. When the patient is geriatric ANS: A

Non-rebreathing systems do not resist air movement, and thus are most appropriate for smaller patients that do not have the strength to breathe against the high levels of resistance in other types of systems. A 7 kg cut-off is used to determine whether to use a rebreathing or non-rebreathing system.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1025 TOP: VTNE Domain: Anesthesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Anesthesia: Equipment/facility management: Safely and effectively select, utilize and maintain anesthetic delivery and monitoring instruments and equipment. | Maintain and operate anesthetic delivery and monitoring equipment

Chapter 32: Surgical Instruments and Aseptic Technique Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The most commonly used scalpel handles include the Bard-Parker No. 3 and No. 4.Which size

blades fit the No. 3 handle? a. #00, #01, #02, #05 b. #10, #11, #12, #15 c. #20, #21, #22, #25 d. #30, #31, #32, #35 ANS: B

The most commonly used scalpel handles include the Bard-Parker No. 3 (for scalpel blades #10, #11, #12, and #15) and No. 4 (for scalpel blades #20, #21, and #22).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1062 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 2. Which size blades are most often used in large animal surgeries? a. #00, #01, #02 b. #10, #11, #12, #15 c. #20, #21, #22 d. #30, #31, #32, #35 ANS: C

Small animal surgeries are generally performed with a No. 3 handle, whereas large animal surgeons usually use a No. 4 handle with a #20, #21, or #22 scalpel blade.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1062 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 3. When using electrocautery if good contact is not maintained between the surgical patient and

the ground plate a. the patient might feel a shock. b. the patient might be burned. c. the surgeon might feel a shock. d. the surgeon might be burned.

ANS: B

When using electrocautery, it is important that adequate contact is made between the patient’s skin and the ground plate or the patient can be burned at the site of the ground plate.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1062 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments

4. Different types of surgical laser units get their energized light from any of the following

sources except a. gas. b. crystal. c. liquid. d. liquid nitrogen.

ANS: D

Laser is an acronym for light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation. Several different types of lasers are used in veterinary medicine. Energized light coming from a laser unit is generated from gas, liquid, or crystal.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1062 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 5. Coherent light emitted from a laser means that it a. scatters in different directions. b. is uniform in wavelength. c. has multiple frequencies that go together well. d. is set to deliver the same number of joules.

ANS: B

Unlike light from a flashlight, the light from a laser is uniform in wavelength and frequency and this is referred to as coherent light. Thus, it does not scatter in different directions as it is emitted from a laser unit.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1062 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 6. Which laser is emitted as a free beam and therefore does not touch the tissue? a. Diode b. Neodymium:yttrium-aluminum-garnet (Nd:YAG) c. CO2 d. Liquid nitrogen ANS: C

The CO2 laser is emitted as a free beam, which means that the beam travels freely a short distance through air before it maintains contact with the surgical tissue. It is ideal for both cutting and vaporizing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1063 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 7.

lasers create minimal latent and collateral thermal damage, and can be used for precise cutting.

a. b. c. d.

Diode Neodymium:yttrium-aluminum-garnet (Nd:YAG) CO2 Liquid nitrogen

ANS: C

CO2 lasers create minimal latent and collateral thermal damage, thus it can be used for precise cutting.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1063-1064 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 8. Lasers are divided into four classes according to their ability to a. penetrate tissue. b. change the color of the laser beam itself. c. inflict damage to skin or eyes. d. be seen with the naked eye.

ANS: C

Lasers are divided into four classes according to their ability to inflict damage to skin or eyes.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1065-1066 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 9. Operating scissors are classified by multiple features, including all of the following except a. blade type. b. the character of their points. c. their designation to cut tissue or nontissue. d. the design of the cutting edge of the blades.

ANS: C

Operating scissors are classified by multiple features, including blade type (straight or curved), the character of their points (blunt-blunt, blunt-sharp, or sharp-sharp), and the design of the cutting edge of the blades (plain or serrated).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1067 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 10. Filtering face masks specifically made for lasering should be worn in lieu of conventional

surgical masks, because a. they protect against contamination of the surgical site. b. the laser emits a lot of scatter radiation. c. they protect against the plume. d. they protect against the heat generated.

ANS: C

Filtering face masks specifically made for lasering should be worn in lieu of conventional surgical masks to protect against plume, or smoke.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1066 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments

are fine, straight, or curved scissors used for cutting delicate tissue, such as fat

11.

or thin muscle. a. Metzenbaum scissors b. Mayo dissecting scissors c. Operating scissors d. Lister scissors ANS: A

Metzenbaum dissecting scissors are fine, straight, or curved scissors used for cutting delicate tissue, such as fat or thin muscle.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1067 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 12. The primary difference between needle holders is the presence of built-in scissors. The a. b. c. d.

needle holder contains built-in scissors.

Adson-Brown Mayo-Hegar Olsen-Hegar Lister

ANS: C

The primary difference between Mayo-Hegar and Olsen-Hegar needle holders is the presence of built-in scissors. The Olsen-Hegar needle holder contains built-in scissors.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1068 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 13. High-quality needle holders often contain within their jaws tungsten carbide inserts that a. provide a tighter grip and better wear. b. are resistant to wear. c. can be replaced when worn down. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

High-quality needle holders often contain within their jaws tungsten carbide inserts that are replaceable. These inserts allow for excellent grip and are resistant to wear.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 1069

TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 14.

thumb forceps are commonly used. They have multiple intermeshing teeth with a broad tip to provide good tissue and suture needle handling for most routine suturing and wound/incisional closures. a. Rat-tooth b. Brown-Adson c. DeBakey d. Russian ANS: B

Brown-Adson thumb forceps are commonly used. They have multiple intermeshing teeth with a broad tip to provide good tissue and suture needle handling for most routine suturing and wound/incisional closures.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1069 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 15.

tissue forceps are considered to be “traumatic forceps” and should be used only on tissues that are being removed from the patient (e.g., tumors, damaged bowel, etc.). a. Allis b. Babcock c. Doyen d. Adson-Brown ANS: A

Allis tissue forceps securely grasp tissue but cause significant tissue crushing. Allis tissue forceps are therefore considered to be “traumatic forceps” and should be used only on tissues that are being removed from the patient (e.g., tumors, damaged bowel, etc.).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1070 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 16. Hemostatic forceps are classified according to all of the following criteria except a. whether they are straight or curved. b. size. c. whether they include a scissors in their handle. d. the pattern of the grooves on the inside surface of the jaws.

ANS: C

Types of hemostatic forceps are classified according to their size, the pattern of the grooves on the inside surface of the jaws, and whether they are straight or curved.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1070 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. |

Identify and know proper use for instruments 17. Which hemostatic forceps have transverse grooves associated with only the distal-most aspect

of the jaws? a. Crile b. Kelly c. Rochester-Péan d. Rochester-Ochsner ANS: B

Kelly forceps contain grooves associated with only the distal-most aspect of the jaws.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1070-1071 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 18. The

is a specialized type of hand-held retractor used to grasp the horn of the uterus during an ovariohysterectomy. a. Army-Navy retractor b. Gelpi retractor c. Senn retractor d. Snook hook ANS: D

The Snook ovariohysterectomy hook, or snook hook, is a specialized type of hand-held retractor used to grasp the T hoErS nT ofBtA heNuKteSruEsLdLuE rinRg.aCnOoM variohysterectomy.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1071 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments

-is a self-retaining retractor.

19. a. b. c. d.

Army-Navy Gelpi Senn Snook

ANS: B

Gelpi retractors and Weitlaner retractors are self-retaining retractors commonly used for muscle retraction, especially in orthopedic and neurologic surgery.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1071 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments

are instruments that are used to pry periosteum or muscle from the bone

20.

surface. a. Rongeurs

b. Curettes c. Periosteal elevators d. Osteotomes ANS: C

Periosteal elevators are instruments that are used to pry periosteum or muscle from the bone surface.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1073 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 21.

are used to cut bone by pounding on the flat or flared end of the instrument with a mallet. a. Rongeurs b. Curettes c. Periosteal elevator d. Osteotomes ANS: D

Osteotomes and chisels are used to cut bone by pounding on the flat or flared end of the instrument with a mallet.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1075 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper useTfE orSinTsB truAmNeK ntS s ELLER.COM 22. Metal implants usually are made of stainless steel alloy, cobalt-chromium alloy, or titanium.

Of these types, which is the most resistant to corrosion and has the best fatigue life (although it is also the most expensive)? a. Stainless steel b. Cobalt-chromium alloy c. Titanium d. All are equivalent ANS: C

Metal implants usually are made of stainless steel alloy, cobalt-chromium alloy, or titanium.

Of these three types, titanium is the most resistant to corrosion and has the best fatigue life; it is also the most expensive.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1076 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 23. Cerclage wire is used in orthopedic procedures to a. cut small, deep holes. b. hold bones together in the intermedullary space. c. encircle bones or bone fragments. d. provide resistance to compression.

ANS: C

Stainless steel orthopedic wire (cerclage wire) is most commonly applied in a cerclage fashion by encircling the bone or bone fragments and twisting the ends in a twist-tie.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1077 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 24. When preparing to introduce an arthroscope into a joint, a sharp trocar is inserted into a

hollow, cannula-type instrument called the . Both the trocar and this instrument are then used to penetrate the fibrous portion of the joint capsule via a stab incision. a. cannula sleeve b. arthroscope sleeve c. obturator d. inflation sleeve ANS: B

The sharp trocar is a pointed instrument that is inserted into a hollow, cannula-type instrument called the arthroscope sleeve.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1081 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 25. When using an arthroscope, it is important to keep in mind that fiberoptic cables are easily

damaged if a. they get wet. b. they are put in the ethylene oxide sterilizer. c. they get blood on them. d. they are kinked excessively.

ANS: D

It is important to note that fiberoptic cables are easily damaged if excessive bending or kinking occurs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1082 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 26. When performing a laparoscopic procedure, the abdomen must be filled with a gas to cause

distension. This process is called a. inflation. b. insufflation. c. infusion. d. injection.

ANS: B

During laparoscopic procedures, the abdominal cavity is accessed via the paralumbar fossa (equine) or the ventral abdomen (canine and equine) and gas (CO2) is used to distend (insufflate).

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1085-1086 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 27. After it has been rinsed in cold water or soaked in detergent, each surgical instrument should

be inspected and scrubbed with a soft brush in warm water using an instrument detergent with a pH of . a. 0 b. <7 c. 7 d. >7 ANS: C

After it has been rinsed in cold water or soaked in detergent, each instrument should be inspected and scrubbed with a soft brush in warm water using a neutral pH instrument detergent.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1088 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Perform post-surgical clean-up (e.g., equipment, instruments, room, proper disposal of hazardous medical waste) 28. When surgical instruments are placed into the ultrasonic cleaner, box locks should be in the a. b. c. d.

position. neutral closed open ratcheted

ANS: C

When instruments are placed into the ultrasonic cleaner, box locks should be in the open position.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1088 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Perform post-surgical clean-up (e.g., equipment, instruments, room, proper disposal of hazardous medical waste) 29. In terms of aseptic technique, débridement of a cutaneous abscess would be considered a. a sterile procedure. b. a clean surgery. c. a clean-contaminated procedure. d. a dirty surgery.

ANS: D

Whether surgery is considered clean, clean-contaminated, contaminated, or dirty determines the appropriate degree of asepsis and the need for perioperative antimicrobials. For example, débridement of a cutaneous abscess is considered to be a dirty surgery, so aseptic technique would not be strictly followed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1090 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Perform post-surgical clean-up (e.g., equipment, instruments, room, proper disposal of hazardous medical waste) 30. What is the safe storage time for an autoclaved sterile pack that was double-wrapped in

muslin and is being kept in a closed cabinet? a. 3 weeks b. 7 weeks c. 2 months d. 1 year ANS: B

The safe storage time for an autoclaved sterile pack that was double-wrapped in muslin and is being kept in a closed cabinet is 7 weeks. It was being kept in an open cabinet, the safe storage time would be only 3 weeks. Heat-sealed paper or transparent plastic pouches (often used to sterilize individual instruments) can safely be stored for at least 1 year.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1094 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, sTuE ppSliT esBaA ndNeK nS viE roL nm t t. oC mO aiM ntain asepsis during surgical procedures. | LeEnR Identify and know proper use for instruments 31. Which surgical instrument is used to scrape hard tissues, such as bone? a. Rongeurs b. Bone-cutting forceps c. Currettes d. Osteotome ANS: C

Currettes are made with a small cup on the handle ends, which aid in the cutting and scraping actions against hard tissues such as bone and cartilage. Currettes help to remove medullary material for use in bone grafting, or to remove small fragments associated with bone injuries.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1073 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments 32. What is a benefit of using external fixators to repair a fractured bone? a. They do not require surgery to place. b. They involve no pain during placement. c. They are inexpensive to use. d. They allow for closed fracture repair.

ANS: D

By placing wires and pins into bone as a means to stabilize a fracture, this type of closed repair allows for fixation without disruption of the fracture site that is required with open techniques. Although still requiring surgical expertise, this technique is preferred due to its relative ease of application. Unfortunately, not all fractures can be repaired by this technique.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1076 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify and know proper use for instruments

Chapter 33: Surgical Assistance and Suture Material Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Electrocautery plates a. should not be used with patient with thick hair coats. b. must be placed after the patient is draped to prevent a break in sterile technique. c. should be indirect contact with the patient at all times. d. must be kept dry at all times.

ANS: C

Electrocautery plates should be in direct contact with the patient at all times. Poor contact with the patient may affect the function of the electrocautery unit. This is a particular concern in patients with long, thick hair coats.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1117 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 2. Surgical patient drapes are sterile and placed on the nonsterile patient a. by the nonsterile surgical assistant. b. to provide a sterile area and decrease the contact of sterile instruments with sterile

skin. c. by the sterile surgeon or sterile assistant. d. prior to moving the aniT mEaS l iT ntB oAthNeKstSeE rilL eL suErR ge.ryCsOuM ite.

ANS: C

Sterile drapes are placed around the surgical site to cover the nonsterile skin and to establish an impervious barrier, thereby decreasing the contact of sterile instruments and gloved hands with nonsterile skin and hair.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1117-1118 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 3. The quarter drape is positioned a few centimeters from the proposed incision site and once

placed a. should be fixed in place with a Lorna nonpenetrating towel clamp. b. should never be laid in a double layer. c. should never be advanced toward the proposed incision. d. should be removed once the patient drape is in place.

ANS: C

The quarter drape is positioned a few centimeters from the proposed incision site and once placed should never be advanced toward the proposed incision because this action would drag contaminants toward the incision site.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1118 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 4. If a surgeon’s or surgical assistant’s gown or glove comes into contact with a contaminated

region, a. that item should be rinsed with sterile saline. b. the animal should be placed on antibiotics right away. c. they should leave the operating room immediately. d. that item should be removed and a sterile replacement obtained.

ANS: D

If a surgeon’s or surgical assistant’s gown or glove has come into contact with a contaminated region, that item should be removed and a sterile replacement obtained.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1119 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 5. A patient undergoing an intercostal thoracotomy should be positioned for surgery in a. lateral recumbency. b. dorsal recumbency. c. ventral recumbency. d. paramedian recumbency.

ANS: A

A patient undergoing an intercostal thoracotomy should be positioned for surgery in lateral recumbency.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1119 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Position patient for common procedures 6. It is the job of the circulating nurse to watch that sterility is maintained in the OR. The most

likely time for a break in sterility to occur is a. when the patient is being moved into the OR. b. when the patient is being draped. c. when the animal is being positioned on the table. d. when the initial incision is being made.

ANS: B

The most likely time for breaks in sterility to occur is when the patient is being draped and surgical and instrument tables are being set up.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1122 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Position patient for common procedures

7. Surgical lights should be finely adjusted to the surgical site a. once the patient is positioned on the surgery table. b. before the surgeon enters the room. c. after the patient is draped. d. any time there is an opportunity.

ANS: C

Waiting until drapes are placed over the patient prevents accidental contamination of the surgical site when reaching up to adjust the lights.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1123 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 8. Monopolar electrocautery is most efficient in a a. wet b. dry c. hot d. cold

surgical site.

ANS: B

Monopolar electrocautery is most efficient in a dry surgical site. The surgical assistant may need to use gauze blotting technique or gentle suction at first to decrease blood in the region.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1125 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 9. When fine electrocautery is required, as during an ophthalmic procedure, _

should be

used. a. a cordless hand-held unit b. vascular clips c. monopolar electrocautery d. bipolar electrocautery ANS: D

Bipolar electrocautery is generally employed in situations where precisely targeted cauterization is necessary, as during ophthalmic and neurologic procedures.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1125 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 10. Once the patient is prepared for surgery, the surgical assistant and veterinarian should avoid

contact with the skin because a. it can lead to increased pain. b. it increases the risk of tissue death. c. it increases the risk of contamination. d. it decreases the blood flow to the area of skin.

ANS: C

Although it is necessary to incise the skin during initiation of surgery, surgeons and assistants should avoid regular contact with the skin during surgery. The skin is prepared via aseptic technique before surgery, but the skin should never be considered sterile.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1126 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 11. Surgical gloves should be wet when abdominal organs are touched, particularly the

gastrointestinal tract, because dry gloves can a. stick to the organs. b. cause tearing of the serosal layer or drying of the organs. c. allow less fine or delicate of a touch. d. cause a greater heat loss from the organs.

ANS: B

Surgical gloves should be wet when abdominal organs are touched, particularly the gastrointestinal tract, because dry gloves can cause tearing of the serosal layer or drying of the organs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1126 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 12. Drains are generally removTeE dS wT heBnANKSELLER.COM a. fluid production turns purulent. b. the wound around them starts to heal. c. fluid production has slowed or ceased. d. the wound around them closes over the drain.

ANS: C

Drains are generally removed when fluid production has slowed or ceased. It should be remembered that drains present within tissue stimulate fluid production.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1127 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 13. a. b. c. d.

drains are considered gravity dependent.

Passive Active Suction Standing

ANS: A

Passive drains are gravity dependent; this requires that the lowest drainage point is in a dependent location. Passive drains should never be used to drain the abdomen.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1128 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 14.

sutures are considered easier to pass through the tissue because they cause less resistance. a. Absorbable b. Nonabsorbable c. Monofilament d. Braided ANS: C

Monofilament sutures are generally considered easier to pass through tissue because they cause less resistance, but greater attention is needed during knot tying of monofilament sutures because they tend to be slippery and have a propensity to untie.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1129 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance

sutures have greater capillary action.

15. a. b. c. d.

Absorbable Nonabsorbable Monofilament Braided

ANS: D

Braided sutures are multifilament sutures and have greater capillary action, making them more susceptible to bacterial colonization than monofilament sutures. Use of multifilament sutures in infected wounds should therefore be avoided.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1129 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify common suture materials, types, and sizes 16. a. b. c. d.

sutures lose most of their breaking strength within 60 days Absorbable Nonabsorbable Monofilament Braided

ANS: A

Absorbable sutures lose most of their breaking strength within 60 days of placement.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1129-1130 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify common suture materials, types, and sizes

17. Catgut is a

suture constructed from the intestines of sheep, goats, or cattle and consists mostly of collagen. a. monofilament b. multifilament c. synthetic d. nonabsorbable ANS: B

Catgut is a multifilament suture constructed from the intestines of sheep, goats, or cattle and consists mostly of collagen.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1130 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify common suture materials, types, and sizes 18. Synthetic absorbable sutures offer an advantage over natural absorbable sutures because a. b. c. d.

. they biodegrade more quickly in the body they have less tissue drag when pulled through the tissue they wick bacteria less they are not significantly affected by inflammation

ANS: D

Synthetic absorbable sutures offer an advantage over natural absorbable sutures in terms of predictable degradability in a biological environment; wounds that are infected or inflamed do not significantly affect the degradation of these sutures.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1130 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 19. a. b. c. d.

is an example of a braided multifilament suture.

Polyglycolic acid (Dexon) Polyglyconate (Maxon) Poliglecaprone 25 (Monocryl) Polydioxanone (PDS)

ANS: A

Polyglycolic acid (Dexon) is a braided multifilament suture.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1130 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify common suture materials, types, and sizes 20. Silk is a multifilament suture that consists of braided or twisted strands. Silk has

, which makes it the near-perfect suture to handle. a. high capillarity b. the ability to stimulate an intense inflammatory reaction c. poor strength

d. no memory ANS: D

Silk is a multifilament suture that consists of braided or twisted strands. Silk has no memory, which makes it the near-perfect suture to handle.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1130 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify common suture materials, types, and sizes 21. Suture needles can be preloaded with suture. This is called a/an a. monovalent b. swedged c. swaged d. iatrogenic

needle.

ANS: C

Suture needles to which sutures have been preloaded with suture are referred to as swaged.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1130 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify common suture materials, types, and sizes 22. a. b. c. d.

needles contain a sharp tip that is capable of piercing and spreading tissue.

Cutting Reverse-cutting Blunt Taper

ANS: D

Taper needles contain a sharp tip that is capable of piercing and spreading tissue, but surrounding tissues are not cut.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1131 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify common suture materials, types, and sizes

patterns allow increased control of suture tension and apposition of

23.

wounds. a. Simple b. Horizontal c. Interrupted d. Continuous ANS: C

Interrupted suture patterns allow increased control of suture tension and apposition of wounds.

Use of interrupted suture patterns avoids the potentially catastrophic complications such as wound dehiscence with subsequent tissue herniation and/or infection when a single continuous strand breaks. Continuous suture patterns decrease operative time and form an air-tight and water-tight seal.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1132 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify common suture materials, types, and sizes 24. If a small intestinal resection is performed in a horse, this segment of small intestine is

isolated from the rest of the abdominal cavity as much as possible with impervious drapes. a. gauze sponges b. patient drapes c. laparotomy sponges d. ground drapes

and

ANS: C

If a small intestinal resection is performed in a horse, this segment of small intestine is isolated from the rest of the abdominal cavity as much as possible with laparotomy sponges and impervious drapes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1137 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 25. While setting up for equine intestinal surgery, the veterinary technician must setout a. extra gowns and gloves. b. extra shoe covers and masks. c. extra patient drapes. d. extra table drapes.

ANS: A

Immediately after closure of the intestine, the surgeon and the surgical assistant must replace gloves and gowns with clean, sterile ones before the abdomen is closed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1137 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 26. Irrigation is mandatory during bone drilling primarily because a. it allows for good visualization of the area. b. tissues must remain moist to be viable. c. heat generated from drilling can cause thermal damage to bone and result in tissue

necrosis. d. it is an aseptic technique.

ANS: C

Irrigation is mandatory during bone drilling because heat generated from drilling can cause thermal damage to bone and result in tissue necrosis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1137 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all

aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 27. a. b. c. d.

needles cause greater tissue trauma due to the loop of suture through the eye.

Eyed Swaged Swedged Reverse-cutting

ANS: A

Eyed needles cause greater tissue trauma than swaged needles due to the loop of suture through the eye.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1130-1131 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 28.

needles have three cutting edges; however, the third edge is on the outer convex curvature of the needle and are designed to resist tissue cutout. a. Taper b. Blunt c. Cutting d. Reverse-cutting ANS: D

Reverse-cutting needles haTvE eS thT reB eA cuNttKinSgEeL dgLeE s;Rh.oC wO evMer, the third edge is on the outer convex curvature of the needle and are designed to resist tissue cutout as compared with conventional cutting needles.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1131 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 29. Veterinary technicians in the OR are very careful to count all gauze sponges before and after

abdominal surgery because a. gauze sponges are expensive to replace. b. there is no way to tell if one has been left behind in the abdomen. c. if left behind they can cause adhesions and inflammation. d. they need to know how many to charge the client for.

ANS: C

Sponges left in the abdominal cavity cause severe inflammatory reactions, resulting in peritonitis and intra-abdominal adhesions that could impair the normal function of the equine gastrointestinal tract.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1138 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance

30. Which of the following tissues is not considered to be located in the retroperitoneal space? a. Urinary bladder b. Kidneys c. Aorta d. Ureters ANS: A

Tissues of the urinary tract proximal to the urinary bladder (kidneys, ureters) are located in the retroperitoneal space, along with the caudal vena cava, aorta, and the adrenal glands.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1126 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 31. Which grip of the scalpel is most commonly used when making long incisions such as with a

celiotomy? a. Pencil grip b. Fingertip grip c. Palm grip d. Backwards grip ANS: B

Fingertip grips are often used for longer incisions, while the pencil grip is used for short and extremely precise cutting such as with stab incisions. The palm grip is rarely used since it does not allow for very precise control, although it does provide for increased cutting pressure that may be needed when cTuE ttiSnT gB thA icN kKmSaE teL riaLlE s. R.COM PTS: 1 REF: p. 1124 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance

Chapter 34: Small Animal Surgical Nursing Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Therapeutic drug levels must be present in the wound fluid (serum and interstitial tissues) at

the time of surgical incision, or the antibiotics will be ineffective. They should be given at least minutes before the surgical incision is made. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 60 ANS: B

Therapeutic drug levels must be present in the wound fluid (serum and interstitial tissues) at the time of surgical incision, or the antibiotics will be ineffective. They should be given at least 20 minutes before the surgical incision is made.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1142 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 2. Potential problems that could arise during anesthesia and surgery that a veterinary technician

should always be on the lookout for include a. hypothermia. b. blood loss. c. decreased blood pressure. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Anesthesia and surgery can result in several potential problems, including blood loss, hypothermia, pain, and cardiac and respiratory problems.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1142 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 3. It is not unusual for packed cell volume (PCV) and total plasma protein (TP) to drop up to

% as a result of anesthesia and surgery, even when no major blood loss has occurred. a. b. c. d.

1 3 5 10

ANS: D

Furthermore, it is not unusual for PCV and TP to drop up to 10% as a result of anesthesia and surgery, even when no major blood loss has occurred.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 1143

TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 4. Animals with substantial blood loss may experience

, as well as rapid heart rate with weak peripheral pulses, rapid respiratory rate, and pale or white mucous membranes. a. hypothermia b. bradycardia c. apnea d. a decrease in CRT ANS: A

Animals with substantial blood loss may experience continued hypothermia (drop in body temperature), rapid heart rate with weak peripheral pulses, rapid respiratory rate, and pale or white mucous membranes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1143 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 5. If hemorrhage from a ruptured spleen is suspected, a a. thoracocentesis b. pericardiocentesis c. abdominocentesis d. urocentesis

may be performed.

ANS: C

Whenever hemorrhage into the abdominal cavity is suspected, an abdominocentesis (aspiration of fluid from the abdomen) can be performed. If the sampled fluid has a PCV nearly equal to the systemic PCV and clinical signs are consistent with hemorrhage, then the index of suspicion should be high.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1143 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 6. If an abdominocentesis is performed, the PCV of the fluid when compared to the systemic

PCV will be if hemorrhage into the abdominal cavity is actively occurring. a. equal to the systemic PCV b. higher than the systemic PCV c. lower than the systemic PCV d. not comparable to the systemic PCV ANS: A

If the sampled fluid has a PCV nearly equal to the systemic PCV and clinical signs are consistent with hemorrhage, the index of suspicion should be high that hemorrhage is actively occurring.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1143 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all

aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 7. To help offset hypothermia during the intraoperative and postoperative periods, all of the

following are recommended except a. wrapping paws and the body in plastic wrap. b. heat lamps. c. actively warmed cages and surgery tables. d. warm water bottles (or gloves filled with warm water).

ANS: B

Mechanisms to maintain body temperature include placing animals on heated circulating water blankets; wrapping paws and the body in plastic wrap to prevent heat loss wrapping warm water bottles (or gloves filled with warm water) with a towel and placing them next to the animal; covering areas not involved in the surgical procedure with an insulated blanket; using actively warmed cages and surgery tables; and using a warm-air blanket on areas not involved in the surgical procedure. Heat lamps and electric heating pads are not recommended because they can cause thermal burns, especially in an anesthetized animal that cannot respond to painful, concentrated heat.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1143 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 8. Ointments and creams applied to a surgical incision can a. help the wound heal more quickly.

TEfeSelTinBgApNaiKn.SELLER.COM b. prevent the animal from c. can cause irritation and delay healing. d. decrease inflammation.

ANS: C

Ointments and creams (even antibiotic topicals) should not be placed on the incision because this can cause irritation, and components of the ointment can delay wound healing.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1144 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 9. Dehiscence which can occur in the postoperative period refers to a. swelling. b. drainage. c. redness. d. wound breakdown.

ANS: D

Abnormalities that can occur in the early postoperative period (1 to 3 days after surgery) include redness, swelling, drainage, and dehiscence (wound breakdown).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1144 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all

aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 10. Swelling secondary to surgical trauma will usually resolve within a. 1 to 3 hours b. 1 to 3 days c. 3 to 7 days d. 1 to 3 weeks

to

after surgery.

ANS: C

Swelling secondary to surgical trauma will usually resolve within 3 to 7 days after surgery.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1144 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 11. Accumulation of serum under a surgical incision may last for weeks and is called a a. hematoma b. teratoma c. seroma d. plasmoma ANS: C

Seromas (serum accumulation under the incision) and hematomas (blood accumulation under the incision) may persist for weeks.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1144 OP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing TESTBANKSTE L ER.COM MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 12. Seromas are not typically drained because a. of the increase in pain this would cause. b. of the increased chance for infection. c. seromas resolve within hours postoperatively. d. draining would result in significant blood loss.

ANS: B

Seromas are not typically drained because of the increased chance for infection.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1145 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 13. Infection along tissue planes that can arise postoperatively is called a. dehiscence. b. phlebitis. c. cellulitis. d. planitis.

ANS: C

Cellulitis is an infection along tissue planes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1145 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 14. Complete dehiscence of a thoracic wound will result in

(air within the chest causing collapse of the lungs), a problem that may result in sudden death. a. atelectasia b. pneumothorax c. pneumonia d. pleuritis ANS: B

Complete dehiscence of a thoracic wound will result in a pneumothorax (air within the chest causing collapse of the lungs), a problem that may result in sudden death.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1146 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 15. Wounds can drain excessively, causing serum to seep through the bandage and extend to the

external environment. This is called a. serum sickness b. blow-back c. fly-strike d. strike-through

.

ANS: D

Wounds can drain excessively, causing serum to seep through the bandage and extend to the external environment. This is called strike-through.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1146 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 16. Veterinary technicians should advise clients that animals undergoing routine sterilization or

simple mass removal usually require of restricted activity, whereas animals undergoing orthopedic surgery will likely require 6 to 8 weeks of confinement. a. 1 to 2 days b. 10 to 14 days c. 2 to 3 weeks d. 2 months ANS: B

Animals undergoing routine sterilization or simple mass removal usually require 10 to 14 days of restricted activity, whereas animals undergoing orthopedic surgery will likely require 6 to 8 weeks of confinement.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1147 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 17. Tail docking and dewclaw removal in puppies should be performed during which time period? a. The first 24 hours after birth b. The first 1 to 2 days after birth c. The first 3 to 5 days after birth d. The first 1 to 2 weeks after birth ANS: C

Tail docking and dewclaw removal should be performed during the first week of life (3 to 5 days of age).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1148 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Properly identify patients and surgical procedures 18. Onychectomy is painful. Pain medication should be administered a. on an “as needed basis.” b. only intraoperatively. c. if the cat exhibits signs of pain. d. to all cats in the postoperative period.

ANS: D

Onychectomy is painful. Pain medication should be administered to all cats in the postoperative period.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1150-1151 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 19. Animals being prepared for an exploratory celiotomy should always be clipped widely

because a. of aesthetic reasons. b. it allows for better draping of the patient. c. the incision may have to be extended. d. it allows for better postoperative bandaging of the area.

ANS: C

Celiotomy (laparotomy) is a surgical incision into the abdominal cavity. Animals should always be clipped widely for abdominal incisions. At times, the incision must be extended, and an inappropriate prep will hinder surgical exposure.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1152 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance

20. During abdominal surgery, any excess hemorrhage on the viscera is blotted away with

moistened sponges. The surfaces of the viscera should not be wiped with sponges because this a. causes tissue trauma. b. dislodges blood clots. c. all of the above. d. none of the above.

ANS: C

Blot any excess hemorrhage with moistened sponges (do not wipe surfaces with sponges because this causes tissue trauma and dislodges blood clots).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1153 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 21. Intraoperative intestinal and pancreatic manipulation can lead to

, temporary loss of

intestinal motility. a. ileus b. intussusception c. inappetance d. enterotomy ANS: A

Intestinal and pancreatic manipulation can lead to intestinal ileus (temporary loss of intestinal motility), nausea, and/or pancreatitis.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 1S1T 54BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 22.

is the suturing together of portions of the gastrointestinal tract to allow confluent ingesta flow. It is performed when damaged tissue or a tumor requires a segment of the gastrointestinal tract to be removed. a. Enterotomosis b. Anastomosis c. Celiotomosis d. Gastrotomosis ANS: B

Anastomosis is suturing portions of the gastrointestinal tract together to allow confluent ingesta flow. Anastomosis is performed after damaged tissue or a tumor requires a segment of the gastrointestinal tract to be removed.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1154 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify common suture materials, types, and sizes 23. Characteristics of intestinal devitalization include the following except a. lack of motility.

b. lack of bleeding on the cut section. c. purple and red discoloration. d. lack of fluorescein dye uptake.

ANS: C

Characteristics of intestinal devitalization include the following: Lack of motility, gray, green, or black discoloration, severe thinning of the visceral wall, lack of bleeding on cut section, lack of fluorescein dye uptake, and lack of Doppler blood flow.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1154 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 24. Prior to gastrointestinal surgery the veterinary technician should have two surgical packs

prepared or at the least extra instruments a. because surgical instruments get slippery when covered with GI content. b. in case the primary pack is contaminated with intestinal contents during the procedure. c. in case the incision must be extended. d. because these instruments can only be used once.

ANS: B

The veterinary technician should make sure that extra instruments are available in case the primary pack is contaminated with intestinal contents during the procedure.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1154 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ESSuT rgB icA alNNK urSsiE ngL: L Pati ERen.t CmOanMagement: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Prepare surgical site using appropriate aseptic techniques 25. Gastropexy is attachment of the stomach to the body wall after a dog experiences GDV in

order to a. prevent further bloat. b. prevent any further rotation. c. create a permanent adhesion. d. create a better flow of digesta.

ANS: C

Gastropexy is attachment of the stomach to the body wall with the goal of creating a permanent adhesion.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1156 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 26. Animals suffering from GDV usually are in shock. This shock is classified as a. septic. b. hypovolemic. c. anaphylaxtic. d. aspirationic.

ANS: B

Animals suffering from gastric dilatation-volvulus (GDV) usually are in shock. If left untreated, these animals will die from cardiovascular collapse. The enlarged stomach compresses the caudal vena cava and affects venous return to the heart, leading to hypovolemic shock.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1156 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 27. Ovariohysterectomy if performed during estrus or pregnancy in the dog increases the potential

surgical risk due to a. increased hormones which increases the potential for hemorrhage. b. increased vasculature which increases the potential for hemorrhage. c. increased tissue which increases the potential for hemorrhage. d. increased blood pressure which increases the potential for hemorrhage.

ANS: B

If an ovariohysterectomy is performed during estrus or pregnancy, increased vasculature may be encountered with the potential for increased hemorrhage.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1158 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Properly identify patients and surgical procedures

EL 28. During a routine ovariohysTteEreScT toB mAyN , tK heSm osL tE paRin.fuClOmManipulation will occur during

,

and the veterinary technician must be mindful of the anesthetic plane at this point in the surgery. a. tearing of the suspensory ligament. b. exteriorization of the uterus. c. incision of the uterine body. d. closure of the linea alba.

ANS: A

The suspensory ligament holds each ovary tight in the abdominal cavity and must be severed or torn to exteriorize the ovaries, especially on the right, for proper ligation. This is often the most painful part of the procedure and the animal may begin to wake up.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1161 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 29. A possible complication of pyometra includes a. peritonitis. b. intussusception. c. eunuchoid syndrome. d. urinary incontinence.

ANS: A

In animals with pyometra, uterine rupture and peritonitis are possible. Palpation of the abdomen should be done with extreme care, and cystocentesis to collect urine should be avoided in animals suspected of having pyometra. Broad-spectrum intravenous antibiotic therapy is initiated before surgery.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1162-1163 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 30. Which reason is incorrect regarding why prophylactic antibiotics are used prior to a surgery? a. To decrease risk of infection. b. To minimize postoperative complications. c. To minimize the amount of disinfection required to prepare for surgery. d. To prevent infections due to intraoperative exposure.

ANS: C

Antibiotics are not suitable substitutes for proper surgical preparation, and should be used instead to minimize potential infection due to exposure to pathogens during surgery. As a rule, antibiotics should never be given indiscriminately to any animals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1142 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 31. When would prophylactic T anEtiS biToB ticAsNnK otSbEeLapLpEroRp.riC atO e?M a. The patient is on concurrent immunosuppressive drugs. b. The operation takes 30 minutes. c. The urinary bladder is going to be entered during surgery. d. The knee joint will be entered.

ANS: B

Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated when complications are anticipated, or procedures are not considered routine. For instance, operations lasting over 1 1/2 hours, surgeries in patients that are immunocompromised, when a hollow viscus is entered, or when an immune-privileged site such as a joint is entered are all instances where antibiotics should be given prior to surgery. Routine and short, clean procedures do not require the use of antibiotics in this manner.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1142 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 32. Which of the following is not one of the common criteria used to determine if monitoring of

the patient in the postoperative period is no longer necessary? a. The patient can eat and swallow its food. b. The patient reaches normal temperature. c. The patient resists the presence of the endotracheal tube, so it is removed. d. The patient is responsive.

ANS: A

The postoperative recovery phase is a critical transition period from general anesthesia to consciousness, and monitoring should be continued until the animal is safely extubated, normothermic, and responsive.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1143 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 33. What is the purpose of a “stay” suture? a. A permanent suture, designed to stay in the body for the remainder of life b. To steady a tissue within an incision c. To keep a tissue out of the way of an incision d. To tie a tissue to the body wall, such as in GDV repair ANS: B

Stay sutures are used to position and steady tissues within an incision site so the surgeon can perform the procedure without spilling a hollow organs contents. These are not designed to be permanent sutures, but instead to allow assistants to hold the tissue in the correct orientation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1169 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify common suture materials, types, and sizes 34. For an exploratory celiotomy, which layer of the three-layered closure is the holding layer? a. b. c. d.

The linea alba The subcutaneous layer The skin All three layers are equally supportive

ANS: A

The linea alba contains strong connective tissue that is far more supportive than muscle or skin layers to support the abdominal viscera after completing an abdominal celiotomy. Care must be made to ensure the linea is properly apposed and tightly closed to prevent subsequent wound dehiscence.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1153 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Procedural management: Understand and provide the appropriate instruments, supplies and environment to maintain asepsis during surgical procedures. | Identify common suture materials, types, and sizes 35. Which of the following procedures would be considered a nonelective surgery? a. Cancer mass removal b. Ovariohysterectomy c. Tracheostomy due to an obstruction d. Stifle stabilization prior to cranial cruciate repair ANS: C

Elective surgeries are those which are performed after consultation between a client and their veterinarian and are not considered life-threatening or required immediately. Nonelective surgeries are considered emergencies and are not able to be put off. In the instance of a choking, emergency tracheostomy and respiratory support is required without delay in order to prevent irreparable damage.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1148 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Properly identify patients and surgical procedures 36. Which of the following is true regarding feline onychectomy? a. It is a pain-free procedure. b. It is defined as tail-docking in cats. c. Bleeding is minimal, so the use of a tourniquet is discouraged. d. It is an elective procedure.

ANS: D

Feline claw removal (onychectomy) is an elective procedure often used to decrease clawing damage to the owner’s home or body. Most veterinarians will recommend the removal of only the claws of the forelimbs to maintain a cat’s ability to climb or defend itself in concert with its natural instinctive activities.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1150 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Properly identify patients and surgical procedures 37. When should a surgical patient be administered pain-relief medication? a. As needed b. At the first sign of pain c. Prior to any potential pain occurring d. After the surgery ends ANS: C

Pain medication should be administered prior to any pain occurring. In procedures that have a potential to pain (including incisional discomfort), analgesia should be administered prior to the operation as well as at regularly scheduled intervals postoperatively.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1144 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 38. What occurs with wound dehiscence? a. The wound contracts with scar tissue. b. The wound layers separate. c. The wound is covered with a sterile dressing. d. The wound heals by 1st intention processes.

ANS: B

Wound dehiscence involves the separation of tissue layers of an incision or wound, often due to errors in the closure techniques or surgical procedures. It can also be caused by traumatic means when an animal chews or bites at the suture or staple line of a wound.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1146 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 39. How much time should be given after a surgery before the external sutures can be removed? a. 48 hours b. 1 week c. 2 weeks d. 4 weeks ANS: C

In 2 weeks after placing the sutures, the wound should be strong enough for them to be removed. If a two-layer skin closure is performed, the external sutures can be removed in as little as a week since the subcuticular sutures will likely be supportive of the underlying tissues.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1146 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 40. At which temperature (° F) should a postoperative dog or cat be removed from any external

heating devices? a. 80° b. 90° c. 100° d. 110° ANS: C

Typically, once an animal reaches a temperature of 100° F they can be taken away from an external heating source. Still, continual reevaluation of the patient’s temperature should occur to make certain that the animal’s thermoregulatory function is intact.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1143-1144 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care

is an external opening surgically created in the male feline’s urogenital tract that is large enough for passage of urine, mucus, crystals, and small calculi without obstruction. a. Perineal urethrostomy b. Pelvic orchidectomy c. Perineal urethrotomy d. Pelvic ostectomy

41. A/an

ANS: A

A perineal urethrostomy is an external opening surgically created in the urethra of male cats in the area of the perineum that is large enough for passage of urine, mucus, crystals, and small calculi without obstruction. It bypasses the narrow penile urethra, where obstruction often occurs. The procedure is performed in male cats with recurrent urethral obstruction secondary to feline urologic syndrome.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1169 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Properly identify patients and surgical procedures 42. Which of the following is true regarding mammary neoplasms in companion animals? a. The vast majority of mammary tumors in dogs are malignant. b. Most feline mammary tumors are malignant. c. Dogs and cats do not generally develop mammary neoplasm. d. Most malignant mammary tumors metastasize to the liver.

ANS: B

Most feline mammary cancers are malignant, while in dogs these are fairly equally distributed between benign and malignant tumors. With metastasis, regional lymph nodes or the lungs become secondary sites for these tumors. Surgery is considered the most effective therapy for primary mammary tumors.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1175 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 43. What is the term used to indicated the generalized removal of a mass? a. Mastectomy b. Bursectomy c. Lumpectomy d. Bulgectomy ANS: C

A lumpectomy is the surgical resection of a mass, often located in the cutaneous or subcutaneous spaces. A mastectomy is a lumpectomy of the mammary gland, which is a specific region of mass removal.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1174-1175 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Properly identify patients and surgical procedures 44. Which is correct regarding an animal with a diaphragmatic hernia? a. It is an emergency condition, requiring immediate surgical intervention. b. It is important to exercise the patient to help diagnose a herniation. c. Diaphragmatic hernias should be suspected in all cases of trauma. d. Diaphragmatic hernias are hard to identify on radiographs.

ANS: C

A diaphragmatic hernia should not be considered a surgical emergency unless there are concurrent signs such as respiratory distress or intestinal strangulation. It is preferable from a survival standpoint to perform surgical repair on these cases several days after the patient is stabilized if possible.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1172-1173 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment

Chapter 35: Large Animal Surgical Nursing Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. For elective surgical procedures, adult horses are generally held off feed for approximately 4

to 6 hours to allow time for emptying of the stomach, which may a. decrease the risk of regurgitation and vomition. b. increase the risk of hypoglycemia. c. decrease atony of the gut. d. enable the horse to ventilate more easily.

ANS: D

For elective surgical procedures, adult horses are generally held off feed for approximately 4 to 6 hours to allow time for emptying of the stomach, which may enable the horse to ventilate more easily.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1185 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 2. A a. b. c. d.

vaccination should be given to a horse before undergoing surgery. rabies encephalitis clostridium C & D tetanus

ANS: D

A horse should be vaccinated against tetanus before undergoing surgery. Tetanus is caused by bacteria ubiquitous to the environment. Penetrating wounds allow the tetanus toxin to enter the body and potentially cause nervous system dysfunction the results in clinical tetanus. The best protection against this disease is adequate vaccine administration.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1185 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 3. Prior to surgery, a horse’s oral cavity should be washed out to decrease a. the chance of aspiration pneumonia. b. the chance of periodontitis. c. the chance of oral trauma. d. the chance of oronasal fistual formation.

ANS: A

Because horses are generally intubated with an endotracheal tube through the oral cavity, it is important that the mouth be thoroughly washed out before anesthetic induction; this will reduce the chance that feed material will be carried into the airway during intubation.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 1185

TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 4. During lateral recumbency in the anesthetized equine patient, the dependent forelimb is pulled

forward in order to a. facilitate access to the hock. b. facilitate access to the stifle. c. minimize pressure over the triceps and radial nerve. d. minimize pressure over the quadriceps muscle and sciatic nerve.

ANS: D

The dependent forelimb is pulled as far forward as possible to minimize pressure over the triceps and the radial nerve.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1186 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Position patient for common procedures 5. The muscle pigment that is often released when a muscle is damaged is called a. myotonin. b. myoglobin. c. myometria. d. myotonia.

ANS: B

In severe cases of hypoperT fuE siS onT,BmAuN scKleSpEigLmLeEnR t (. mCyO ogMlobin) is released into the bloodstream.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1186 TOP: VTNE Domain: Laboratory Procedures MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 6. The two primary factors that contribute to muscle hypoperfusion during equine surgery are a. hypertension and pressure from the recumbent horse’s body. b. hypotension and perfusion mismatch. c. hypotension and pressure from the recumbent horse’s body. d. hypertension and hypovolemia.

ANS: C

The pressure of the recumbent horse’s body and the hypotension that can occur during anesthesia can result in hypoperfusion of the muscles.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1186 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 7. What should happen if the veterinary technician observes a break in aseptic technique during

surgery?

a. The technician should give the patient antibiotics immediately then tell the

surgeon. b. The technician should not interrupt the surgeon. c. The technician should clean the area postoperatively. d. The break should be brought to the attention of the surgeon, so the problem can be

remedied.

ANS: D

If the technician observes a break in aseptic technique, it should be brought to the attention of the surgeon, so the problem can be remedied.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1186 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 8. The most common surgical approach to the abdominal cavity is through a _

incision with the horse under general anesthesia. a. ventral midline b. flank c. paralumbar fossa d. dorsal midline ANS: A

The most common approach to the abdominal cavity is through a ventral midline incision with the horse under general anesthesia and positioned in dorsal recumbency.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 1S1T 87BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 9. Postoperative care of a horse requires flushing the IV catheter with sterile saline at what

interval? a. Every 30 minutes b. Every hour c. Every 4 hours d. Every 6 hours ANS: D

Postoperative care of a horse requires flushing the IV catheter with sterile saline at 6-hour intervals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1186 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 10. The is a remnant of a channel between the bladder and the umbilicus in a fetus. a. round ligament b. ligamentum arteriosus c. urachus

d. umbilicus ANS: C

The urachus is a remnant of a channel between the bladder and the umbilicus in a fetus. The channel normally closes before birth, but in some foals, it maintains patency or becomes patent after foaling.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1190 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Husbandry: Demonstrate understanding of nursing care of newborns 11. Which of the following is most commonly used to provide IV anesthesia for a horse

undergoing castration? a. xylazine-ketamine. b. acepromazine. c. xylazine-tolazoline d. propofol ANS: A

The drugs most commonly used to provide IV anesthesia for a horse undergoing castration include the combination drugs xylazine-ketamine and xylazine-thiobarbiturate; both combinations can be used with or without guaifenesin.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1190 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 12. When using the emasculator to perform an equine castration a. the spermatic cord should be crushed on the side toward the scrotum. b. the spermatic cord should be crushed on the side toward the body wall. c. the spermatic cord should not be crushed. d. the spermatic cord should not be cut, but just crushed.

ANS: B

The emasculators should be placed on the spermatic cord so that the cord is crushed on the side toward the body wall and is cut on the side toward the scrotum.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1190 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide surgical assistance 13. Postoperative care after an equine castration usually includes strict stall confinement for 24

hours followed by controlled exercise (hand walking) once or twice daily for 1 to 2 weeks in order to a. promote drainage. b. prevent excessive swelling. c. prevent or reduce stiffness and soreness. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Postoperative care by the veterinary technician usually includes strict stall confinement for 24 hours followed by controlled exercise (hand walking) once or twice daily for 1 to 2 weeks to promote drainage, prevent excessive swelling, and prevent or reduce stiffness and soreness.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1190 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 14. After castration in the equine the skin incisions are manually stretched in order to a. promote hemostasis. b. ensure ventilation. c. promote drainage. d. ensure nothing was left behind.

ANS: C

After castration in the equine, the skin incisions are stretched manually to promote drainage.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1190 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 15. An incision made through the vaginal wall to perform an ovariectomy in a mare is called a a. gynotomy. b. colpotomy. c. colotomy. d. vaginotomy.

ANS: B

An ovariectomy of nondiseased ovaries of normal size usually can be performed through a flank incision or via an incision in the vaginal wall (colpotomy) in standing, sedated mares with local anesthetic infiltration in the body wall or a caudal epidural anesthetic.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1191 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Properly identify patients and surgical procedures 16. Equine epidurals are performed at the level of a. the last sacral and first coccygeal vertebrae. b. the last lumbar and first sacral vertebrae. c. L5 and L6. d. the sacroiliac crest.

ANS: A

A caudal epidural anesthesia is provided after the hair over the tailhead is clipped and the skin is aseptically prepared. An 18-gauge, 1.5-inch needle is inserted through the skin between the last sacral and first coccygeal vertebrae, or between the first and second coccygeal vertebrae.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1191 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all

aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Coordinate pain management with the anesthesia/surgical team 17. The most commonly performed perineal surgery in the horse is a. diagonal paramedian surgery b. colpotomy c. Caslick surgery d. Ecraseur surgery

.

ANS: C

The most commonly performed perineal surgery is Caslick operation. This is performed in many fillies on the racetrack and in mares with poor vulvar conformation to prevent pneumovagina and fecal contamination of the vagina, respectively.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1192 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Properly identify patients and surgical procedures 18. The most common limb deviation in foals is carpal valgus, where the a. limb proximal to the carpus deviates laterally. b. limb proximal to the carpus deviates medially. c. limb distal to the carpus deviates laterally. d. limb distal to the carpus deviates medially.

ANS: C

The most common deviation is carpal valgus, where the limb distal to the carpus deviates laterally.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1195 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Properly identify patients and surgical procedures 19. In a foal with an angular limb deformity, transection and elevation of the periosteum near the

affected growth plate on the concave (short) side of the limb will a. stimulate more rapid bone growth on that side. b. suppress bone growth on that side. c. inhibit all bone growth on that limb. d. stimulate all bone growth on that limb.

ANS: A

Transection and elevation of the periosteum near the affected growth plate on the concave (short) side of the limb will stimulate more rapid bone growth, which usually leads to correction of disproportionate growth.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1195 TOP: VTNE Domain: Surgical Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care

20. Laminitis, also known as

, is a serious, often life-threatening disease of horses involving inflammation of the sensitive laminae of the feet. a. goiter b. founder c. navicular d. sweeney ANS: B

Laminitis (founder) is a serious, often life-threatening disease of horses involving inflammation of the sensitive laminae of the feet.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1195 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 21. What is the purpose of an Esmarch bandage? a. To stabilize a distal limb. b. To force blood out of a limb. c. To stop bleeding. d. To keep a débrided tissue clean.

ANS: B

Esmarch bandages are applied on limbs from distal to proximal, which in turn forces blood out of the distal limbs. Surgery time and complications can be minimized by excluding blood from the limb in this fashion.

PTS: 1 REF: TpE . 1S1T 85BANKS TE OP:L E VT RN.ECDOoMmain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 22. What is the recommended maximum period of time that a tourniquet should be left in place on

a limb? a. 30 minutes b. 2 hours c. 4 hours d. 12 hours ANS: B

Tourniquets that are left in place for over 2 hours can lead to ischemic tissue injury due to decreased blood perfusion.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1185 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Provide post-operative care 23. Concerning horses with colic a. Most cases can be managed medically. b. Most cases are managed surgically. c. Surgery is not required in cases of intestinal volvulus.

d. Colic is not a serious condition.

ANS: A

Most cases of equine colic can be treated with medical treatment including anti-inflammatories, mild exercise, and gastric supplementation. Surgery for this dangerous condition is not required in many cases, but with increased complexity of the disease etiology timely surgery is necessary.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1187 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 24. Which type of flexural limb deformity results in a clubfoot-shaped hoof in horses? a. Carpal flexural deformities b. Deformity of the coffin joint c. Deformity of the metacarpophalangeal joint d. Deformity of the hip flexor ANS: B

Flexural deformity of the distal interphalangeal joint (aka “coffin” joint) results in a characteristic club-footed appearance of the hoof. Corrective trimming and shoeing is often curative in mild deformities, with more involved cases requiring surgical ligament transection.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1194 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 25. What condition would be suspected for a horse that is lame on one foot that upon examination

feels hot to the touch with bounding digital pulses? a. Founder b. Subsolar abscess c. Spinal trauma d. Angular limb deformity ANS: B

Founder and subsolar abscesses present very similarly, although founder often will affect multiple (or all) limbs while an abscessed foot is an individual-limb condition. Establishing drainage of the purulent exudate under the hoof wall is curative.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1197 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 26. What is responsible for “roarer” syndrome in horses? a. Right arytenoid cartilage paralysis b. Left arytenoid cartilage paralysis c. Dorsal arytenoid cartilage paralysis d. Ventral arytenoid cartilage paralysis ANS: B

The majority of cases of “roarer” syndrome affect the left arytenoid cartilage, presumably due to the longer left recurrent laryngeal nerve that innervates the muscles that abduct the left cartilage. The technical name for this condition is left laryngeal hemiplegia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1197 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 27. Which vertebrae serve as the injection landmarks for the distal paravertebral local anesthetic

approach used in cattle? a. L1, L2, L3 b. T13, L1, L2 c. L1, L2, L4 d. T13, L1, L3 ANS: C

This anesthetic block utilizes local anesthetic injection at the position of the transverse processes of vertebrae L1, L2, and L4. Injection is made both ventral and dorsal to the transverse processes of these vertebrae.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1199 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 28. Which vertebrae serve as the injection landmarks for the proximal paravertebral local

anesthetic approach used inTE caSttT leB ? ANKSELLER.COM a. L1, L2, L3 b. T13, L1, L2 c. L1, L2, L4 d. T13, L1, L3 ANS: A

This anesthetic block is made at the cranial edge of L1, L2, and L3, at a position near where the transverse processes connect to the bodies of the vertebrae. Scoliosis of the cow will confirm that the nerves are adequately blocked and the patient is ready for surgical incision at the ipsilateral paralumbar fossa.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1200 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 29. Where are most abdominal exploratory laparotomies performed in the cow? a. Right flank b. Left flank c. Right paramedian d. Left paramedian ANS: A

Most abdominal surgeries are performed from the right paralumbar fossa (right flank). When approached from the left side, the rumen often prohibits adequate externalization and visualization of the abdominal viscera, although this side is desirable for C-Sections and rumenotomies.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1200 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Properly identify patients and surgical procedures 30. Which of the following is true regarding the incidence of displaced abomasum (DA) in dairy

cows? a. Often occurs in the cow’s dry period b. Associated with high-roughage/low-grain diets c. Right-sided DA is more common than left-sided DA d. May be associated with low blood calcium ANS: D

There are many reasons for the development of DA in today’s high-producing dairy cattle, but a known association with metabolic fitness is likely involved. Left-sided DA (LDA) is the most common iteration of this disorder, although right DA (RDA) and abomasal volvulus occur and require timely treatment in order to prevent serious complications.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1201 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 31. What is another name for interdigital hyperplasia, which is commonly seen in cattle? a. Footrot b. Hairy Heel Wart c. Corn d. Extradigital Fibroma ANS: C

Corns (interdigital fibromas or hyperplasia) are excessive interdigital growths that arise due to chronic irritation of that area. If allowed to grow to a point where the claws are deviated, surgical excision under regional anesthesia should be performed.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1202-1203 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 32. What is the hallmark sign of radial nerve paralysis in a bovine? a. Lameness of the rear limb b. Bilateral lameness of the fore limbs c. Unilateral lameness of a fore limb d. Total recumbency, with the inability to use any limb ANS: C

Radial nerve paralysis is associated with prolonged lateral recumbency and subsequent paralysis of the dependent forelimb due to the recumbency and pressure on the radial nerve on that side. Typically the affected limb will have a dropped elbow and will be unable to undergo extension of the elbow. Treatment involves supportive care and NSAID administration.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1204 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 33. What would the expected peritoneal-to-serum creatinine ratio be in a cow that has a ruptured

urinary bladder? a. 1:1 b. 2:1 c. 1:10 d. 1:5 ANS: B

A peritoneal-to-serum creatinine ratio (based on abdominocentesis) of 2:1 or greater is suggestive of a ruptured urinary bladder. If this occurs, it is recommended to perform surgery if the tear is confirmed to be located in the ventral urinary bladder. Dorsal tears often heal on their own with concurrent urinary catheterization.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1207 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 34. What is the most common neoplasm found in cattle? a. Ocular squamous cell carcinoma b. Cardiac lymphosarcoma c. Mediastinal lipoma d. Pituitary adenocarcinoma ANS: A

As a major economic cost in the United States, bovine ocular squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) is a major concern in the cattle industry. This condition occurs at a relatively high rate in white faced cattle housed outdoors in areas of high sunlight exposure. They often occur in older cattle, and can arise in multiple areas surrounding the eye, including both lids and the canthi.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1210 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment 35. Which anatomic site has the highest risk for urinary obstruction in small ruminants? a. Just proximal to the sigmoid flexure b. Just distal to the sigmoid flexure c. In the mid-penile urethra d. At the urethral process

ANS: D

While the predominant area of urethral obstruction is at the urethral process, the distal sigmoid flexure is the second most likely site. Male small ruminants have a high predisposition to developing uroliths, and animals that vocalize as if painful are often the presenting sign.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1212 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Surgical Nursing: Patient management: Understand and integrate all aspects of patient management for common surgical procedures in a variety of animal species. | Patient assessment

Chapter 36: Veterinary Dentistry Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Dental tasks that fall within the purview of the veterinary technician a. include professional dental cleanings. b. include certain procedures that may result in alterations in the shape, structure, or

positional location of teeth in the dental arch. c. are consistent from state to state. d. are left to the discretion of each local practice.

ANS: A

The level of dental care the technician can legally provide varies from state to state.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1217 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 2.

teeth have a relatively small, distinct crown compared with the size of their well-developed roots. a. Deciduous b. Brachyodont c. Hypsodont d. Elodont ANS: B

Brachyodont teeth have a relatively small, distinct crown compared with the size of their well-developed roots.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1218 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 3. The cheek teeth of horses are an example of

teeth. The apices of these teeth remain open for a significant portion of adult life, but they eventually close, after which continued growth of the tooth ceases, and occlusal wear is offset only by continued eruption. a. deciduous b. brachyodont c. hypsodont d. elodont ANS: C

The cheek teeth of horses are an example of radicular hypsodont teeth. The apices of these teeth remain open for a significant portion of adult life, but they eventually close, after which continued growth of the tooth ceases, and occlusal wear is offset only by continued eruption.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1218 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry

4. Most mammals are a. duodont b. diphyodont c. bidont d. deciduodont

, meaning that they have two sets of teeth.

ANS: B

Most mammals are diphyodont, meaning that they have two sets of teeth.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1218 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 5. Terms used to signify the tooth surface facing the lips include all except a. apalatal. b. vestibular. c. buccal. d. labial.

ANS: A

“Vestibular” is a term that describes the tooth surface facing the lips or vestibule (acceptable alternatives are “buccal” and “labial”).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1219 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry

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6. a. b. c. d.

refers to a portion of the tooth that is closer to the apex (tip of the root).

Apical Mesial Distal Coronal

ANS: A

“Apical” refers to a portion of the tooth that is closer to the apex (tip of the root).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1219 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 7. The most commonly used numbering system is the modified Triadan system. Teeth in the

maxillary left quadrant are considered the a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 400

series.

ANS: B

The most commonly used numbering system is the modified Triadan system. Teeth in the maxillary right quadrant are considered the 100 series, and the left maxillary quadrant is called the 200 series.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1219 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 8. Using the modified Triadan system of numbering teeth, a retained deciduous upper right

canine tooth would be assigned the number. a. 104 b. 104a c. 504 d. 604 ANS: C

In the modified Triadan system, deciduous teeth are assigned the 500 series for the right maxillary quadrant, 600 series for the left maxillary quadrant, 700 series for the left mandibular quadrant, and 800 series for the right mandibular quadrant.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1219 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 9. Cats are missing which mandibular teeth a. 305, 306, 405, 406 b. 307, 407 c. 106, 107, 206, 207 d. 106, 206 ANS: A

Cats are missing their mandibular first and second premolars (305, 306, 405, 406), as well as their maxillary first premolars (105, 205).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1219 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 10. Using the rule of 4’s and 9’s can help keep nomenclature easier to follow. Using this rule,

what are teeth 104, 204, 304, and 404 in dogs, cats, and horses? a. Lateral incisors b. Canine teeth c. First premolars d. First molars ANS: B

Right maxillary canine is 104, and so on. The left maxillary canine is 204, left mandibular canine 304, and right mandibular canine 404.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1220 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 11.

refers to the situation when teeth or jaws are not correctly aligned. a. Occlusion

b. Dysocclusion c. Acclusion d. Malocclusion ANS: D

Malocclusion refers to the situation when teeth or jaws are not correctly aligned.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1220 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 12. In most species, the upper jaw is wider than the lower jaw; this is referred to as a. masticatory b. carnassial c. brachygnathism d. anisognathism

.

ANS: D

In most species, the upper jaw is wider than the lower jaw; this is referred to as anisognathism.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1221 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 13. a. b. c. d.

The carnassial teeth of dogs and cats are the . maxillary fourth premolar and mandibular fourth premolar maxillary fourth premoTlaEr S anTdBtA heNm ulE arRf. irsCt OmMolar teeth KaSnEdiLbL maxillary first molar and mandibular first molar maxillary first molar and mandibular fourth premolar

ANS: B

The carnassial teeth of dogs and cats are the maxillary fourth premolar and the mandibular first molar teeth. (NOTE: Even though cats have only 3 maxillary premolars, the one closest to the molar is the “fourth” premolar by convention. This is because the maxillary first premolar in cats is “missing” [as compared to dogs], thus making the remaining premolars the second, third, and fourth, respectively. Therefore, technically, the maxillary carnassial tooth in cats is the fourth premolar.)

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1221 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 14. Dogs and cats are less susceptible to dental caries than humans partly because a. there is less sugar in their diets. b. they do to chew their food as completely. c. they have less occlusal surfaces on their teeth. d. they have stronger enamel.

ANS: C

The relative lack of occlusal surfaces in dogs and cats partly explains their decreased susceptibility to caries lesions compared with humans.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1222 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 15. An abnormal communication between the oral cavity and the nasal cavity that often result

from periodontal disease is called a. root exposure. b. furcation. c. oronasal fistula. d. periodontitis.

ANS: C

A history of sneezing after drinking water is suggestive of the presence of an oronasal fistula—a common problem in small breed dogs with severe periodontal disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1222|p. 1258 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 16. The corner of the eye nearest the nose where the eye lids join is called the a. medial fissure. b. medial canthus. c. lateral fissure. d. lateral canthus.

ANS: B

During the extraoral examiTnE atS ioT n,BpAalp atS eE thL eL soEftRt. isC suOeMin the area ventral to the medial NK canthus of the eye. Swelling in this area may be caused by a tooth root abscess of the maxillary fourth premolar.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1227 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 17. The major salivary glands of the dog and cat are the paired mandibular, sublingual,

zygomatic, and a. maxillary b. facial c. buccal d. parotid

.

ANS: D

The major salivary glands of the dog and cat are the paired mandibular, sublingual, zygomatic, and parotid glands.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1227 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry

is a term that describes the supporting structures of the teeth.

18. a. Gingiva

b. Periodontium c. Periodontitis d. Perineum ANS: B

Periodontium is a term that describes the supporting structures of the teeth.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1227 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 19.

refers to the mucosa that begins at the mucocutaneous junction and lines the cheeks and lips. a. Alveolar mucosa b. Buccal mucosa c. Lingual mucosa d. Gingival mucosa ANS: B

Buccal mucosa refers to the mucosa that begins at the mucocutaneous junction and lines the cheeks and lips. Alveolar mucosa refers to the mucosa that lies against the bone of the upper or lower jaw and meets the gingiva at the mucogingival junction.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1227 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 20. The hard palate forms the rToE stS raT l tBwAoN -thKiS rdE sL ofLtE heRr.oC ofOoMf the mouth and is covered by palatal

mucosa arranged in prominent ridges called a. rugae b. zygomatic c. xiphoid d. oronasal fistula

.

ANS: A

The hard palate forms the rostral two-thirds and is covered by palatal mucosa arranged in prominent ridges called rugae.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1228 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 21. Normal sulcus depth is

to mm in dogs and to than normal are documented on the chart as pockets. a. 1 to 3; 1 to 3 b. 1 to 3; 0 to 3 c. 0 to 3; 0 to 1 d. 0 to 3; 0 to 3

mm in cats. Probing depths greater

ANS: C

Normal sulcus depth is 0 to 3 mm in dogs and 0 to 1 mm in cats. Probing depths greater than normal are documented on the chart as pockets.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1230 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 22. The number of teeth in an adult dog’s mouth is a. 42. b. 30. c. 48. d. 32.

ANS: A

Consider the canine mouth as containing 42 patients, and the feline mouth as containing 30 patients, with each patient requiring a thorough evaluation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1230 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 23. The tool used to measure periodontal sulcus depth is called the a. Gracey curette. b. scaler. c. periodontal ruler. d. periodontal probe.

ANS: D

The periodontal probe has a round or flat working end that is marked in millimeter increments, ending in a bluTnE t tSipT. BANKSELLER.COM PTS: 1 REF: p. 1230 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 24. Gingival hyperplasia occurs when the free gingival margin migrates coronally, a. toward to apex of the tooth. b. toward the crown of the tooth. c. toward the mesial surface of the tooth. d. toward the gum line.

ANS: B

Gingival hyperplasia occurs when the free gingival margin migrates coronally, toward the crown of the tooth.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1232 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry

refers to tooth wear associated with tooth-to-tooth contact overtime.

25. a. b. c. d.

Caries Furcation Attrition Abrasion

ANS: C

Abrasion refers to tooth wear associated with aggressive chewing on external objects, such as toys, rocks, and ice cubes. Attrition refers to wear associated with tooth-to-tooth contact over time.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1233 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 26. Many dental x-ray units have an internally set level of certain parameters and only a. b. c. d.

may be changed for a darker or lighter technique. kilovoltage milliamperes milliamperes per second time

ANS: D

Many dental x-ray units have an internally set level of kilovoltage and milliamperes, and only exposure time may be changed for a darker or lighter technique.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1233 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 27. The timer switch on a dental x-ray unit can be remotely wired and mounted outside of the

dental treatment room, or at least a. 6 to 8 ft. b. 6 to 8 inches c. 1 to 2 ft. d. 10 to12 ft.

away from the tube head.

ANS: A

The timer switch on a dental x-ray unit can be remotely wired and mounted outside of the dental treatment room, or at least 6 to 8 feet away from the tube head.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1234 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 28. The radiographic positioning error that results in the x-ray beam missing portions of the

sensor plate or film is called a. elongation. b. foreshortening. c. cone cutting. d. angulation.

ANS: C

Cone cutting occurs when the x-ray beam misses portions of the sensor, plate or film, resulting in areas with no image.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1234 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry,

nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 29. Placing the sensor parallel to the long axis of the tooth to produce a dental radiograph can

only be used to produce radiographs of the a. mandibular teeth caudal to the symphysis. b. caudal to the symphysis. c. mandibular teeth. d. maxillary teeth rostral to the symphysis.

ANS: A

The paralleling technique requires the sensor to be placed parallel to the long axis of the tooth.

The beam is directed perpendicular to the sensor and teeth and is positioned to aim for the center of the sensor. Parallelism can be used only on the mandibular teeth, caudal to the symphysis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1234 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 30. For which anatomic structure is bilateral retropulsion important when completing an extraoral

examination of the head? a. Eyes b. Ears c. Canine teeth d. Nares ANS: A

Bilateral retropulsion invoT lvE esSgTeB ntA lyNpKuS shE inLgLbE otRh.eC yeOs M (while closed) into their sockets simultaneously. Any deviation in comparative depth of retropulsion may be indicative of an ocular neoplasm, inflammation, or infection that may play a role in oral disease by consequence of proximity of the oral cavity to the eyes.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1222|p. 1227 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 31. When performing a dental radiograph, which of the following structures does not block or

absorb x-rays and thus appear dark on the developed image? a. Dentin b. Cementum c. Pulp d. Mandibular bone ANS: C

Along with other soft tissues and the periodontal ligament space, pulp does not block x-rays, but instead allow them to pass through the structure resulting in a darkened or black image on the radiograph.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1235-1236 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry

32. What does a tooth mobility classification of 3 signify? a. Normal, healthy tooth b. Mild laxity of the tooth in the alveolar bone c. Severe mobility of the tooth in the alveolar bone d. Missing tooth at that location ANS: C

Tooth mobility is measured on a scale of 1 to 3, with 3 showing the most severe mobility of the tooth where it is able to move in a vertical fashion within the alveolar bone. The numbers relate to the distance (in millimeters) the tooth moves in any single direction within the sulcus.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1231 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 33. Concerning veterinary dentistry, what does the term exodontics refer to? a. Palate implant surgery b. Replacement teeth for use after extraction c. Wiring of the jaw together due to a mandibular fracture d. The process of removing teeth ANS: D

Tooth extraction is called exodontics. Extractions can occur for a variety of reasons, ranging from diseased and infected teeth with a poor prognosis, to removal of embedded deciduous teeth.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1253 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and TasT k:ENSuT rsB inA g:NPK atS ieE ntLcL arE e:RU.nC deO rsM tand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 34. Which nerve block would be effective to desensitize both the buccal and palatal sides of one

half of the upper arcade of teeth? a. Maxillary nerve block b. Inferior alveolar nerve block c. Middle mental nerve block d. Infraorbital nerve block ANS: A

The maxillary nerve block is useful for blocking pain sensations of an entire maxillary quadrant. This block is performed by injecting the anesthetic intraorally into a location lateral to the hard palate just caudal to the dog’s maxillary second molar or the cat’s maxillary first molar. This area is directly ventral to the eye, so care must be taken to ensure the injection does not reach the ocular tissues.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1248-1249 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 35. Which grade of periodontal disease would be associated with a loss of 25% to 50% of the

attachment structures of the tooth? a. Grade I b. Grade II

c. Grade III d. Grade IV ANS: C

Periodontal disease is graded on a scale from I (gingivitis) to IV (severe periodontitis that often requires tooth extraction). Grade III periodontitis involves a loss of 25% to 50% of the tooth attachments; this is considered moderate periodontitis, and results in a fair to guarded prognosis for tooth preservation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1248 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 36. Which of the following activities is not recommended to decrease the bacterial load of the

mouth of companion animals? a. Use of household antiseptic mouthwash b. Regular tooth brushing c. Feeding an appropriate hard food diet d. Providing chew toys ANS: A

Although veterinary mouth rinses are available, the ability to use a contact-time mouthwash to companion animals is largely impossible. In addition, many human mouthwashes contain alcohol which can be very dangerous if ingested by animals.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1250-1251 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and denTtiE strSyTteB chAnN iqK ueSsE apLpL roE prRia. teCtoOvMarious animal species. | Dentistry 37. Compared to other local anesthetics such as lidocaine, why is bupivacaine used primarily for

dental procedures that cause pain or discomfort? a. Lidocaine is particularly toxic in animals b. Bupivacaine lasts longer c. Bupivacaine takes effect quicker d. Lidocaine is much more expensive ANS: B

Although largely equivalent in their activity levels, duration of activity of bupivacaine is longer than lidocaine (up to 10 hours, compared to 2 hours maximum for lidocaine), thus allowing for both intra- and postoperative pain relief for dental procedures. Lidocaine and bupivacaine have similar onsets of activity (3 to 5, and 4 to 20 minutes, respectively).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1247 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 38. How long does it take for plaque to mineralize on the surface of a tooth? a. Within minutes b. 1 hour c. 24 hours d. 1 week

ANS: C

If undisturbed, plaque will mineralize on the tooth surface in as little as 1 day. This structure is called a dental calculus (or tartar), and serves as a base for subsequent plaque accumulation and worsening oral condition unless cleaned off during a dental examination.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1236-1237 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 39. Which of the following structures is not a component of the periodontium? a. Periodontal ligament b. Tooth enamel c. Tooth root cementum d. Gingival connective tissue ANS: B

The periodontium consists of structures that support the teeth, but not the tooth itself. Teeth are comprised primarily of enamel and dentin, which are not parts of the periodontium itself.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1236 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 40. Which common veterinary species has a relatively high prevalence of tooth resorption? a. Cats b. Dogs c. Horses d. Rats ANS: A

Although the reason is unknown (vitamin D deficiency is suggested), felines experience tooth resorption at a high rate. This disease is rare in other species, although 20% to 70% of cats are afflicted.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1257-1258 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 41. Which class of malocclusion involves a mandible that is relatively shorter than its associated

maxilla? a. Class I malocclusion b. Class II malocclusion c. Class III malocclusion d. Class IV malocclusion ANS: B

A class II malocclusion is often incorrectly termed an overbite, although it is derived from either an abnormally long maxilla (maxillary prognathism) or an abnormally short mandible (mandibular brachygnathism). Synonyms for class II malocclusion include mandibular distoclusion, overjet, or overshot.

PTS: 1

REF: p. 1259

TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry

MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 42. The most common oral neoplasm in felines is a. melanoma. b. squamous cell carcinoma. c. fibrosarcoma. d. osteosarcoma.

ANS: B

Seventy percent of all oral tumors in cats are squamous cell carcinomas. This aggressive cancer is best treated by surgical excision at a very early stage to ensure complete surgical resection occurs with wide surgical margins.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1261 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 43. Where is the ideal location to place a cerclage wire to treat a mandibular symphyseal

separation in a dog or cat? a. Rostral to the incisors b. At the ramus of the mandible c. Just caudal to the canines d. Figure 8 pattern involving the first molars ANS: C

A common result of jaw trauma is separation of the left and right halves of the mandible.

Cerclage wire can adequatT elE yS isT olB atA eN anKdSlE imLitLlE axRit. yCoO f tM he symphysis to allow for thorough healing. The wire should be placed just caudal to the mandibular canines for a period of time not exceeding 4 weeks.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1263 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry 44. Wolf teeth (first set of permanent premolars) are most commonly found a. on the mandible of male horses. b. on the mandible of female horses. c. on the maxilla of male horses. d. on the maxilla of female horses.

ANS: D

Wolf teeth are found in 24.4% of female horses, but in only 14.9% of male horses. They are primarily located on the maxilla, and are commonly extracted to prevent discomfort with use of a bit.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1264 TOP: VTNE Domain: Dentistry MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Dentistry

Chapter 37: Geriatric and Hospice Care: Supporting the Aged and Dying Patient Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Conditions that occur commonly in our aging pet population include cardiac disease,

respiratory disease, neoplasia, kidney disease, dermatologic disease, orthopedic disease, and metabolic conditions. What other disorders can occur as patient’s age? a. Oral health abnormalities b. Vision loss and hearing loss c. Urinary and fecal incontinence d. All of the above ANS: D

Conditions that occur commonly in our aging pet population include oral health abnormalities, vision loss, hearing loss, cardiac disease, respiratory disease, neoplasia, kidney disease, urinary and fecal incontinence, dermatologic disease, orthopedic disease, and metabolic conditions.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1270 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 2. Owner complaints of that should prompt a thorough oral examination of the pet include all of

the following except a. halitosis b. difficulty chewing c. dropping food from the mouth d. elevated heart rate ANS: D

Owner complaints of halitosis, difficulty chewing, dropping food from the mouth, or excessive salivation should prompt a thorough oral examination.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1270 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 3. Cats are more likely to develop hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)—a condition in which

the heart muscle becomes a. dilated b. thinned and stretched c. ischemic d. thickened

.

ANS: D

Cats are more likely to develop hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)—a condition in which the heart muscle becomes thickened. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy can affect younger cats, but many are middle-aged at the time of initial presentation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1270 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 4. Any reports of fatigue, exercise intolerance, collapse, or cough should be investigated further,

because all of these may be secondary to a. urinary b. metabolic c. cardiac d. reproductive

disease.

ANS: C

Any reports of fatigue, exercise intolerance, collapse, or cough should be investigated further, because all of these may be secondary to cardiac disturbances.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1270 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 5. Chronic renal disease is one of the diseases seen most commonly in geriatric patients,

especially cats. In addition to causing increased urination, which is called _ increase in water intake may also be seen. a. polyuria b. polyphagia c. polydactyly d. polydipsia

, an

ANS: A

Chronic renal disease is one of the diseases seen most commonly in geriatric patients, especially cats. In addition to causing increased urination (polyuria) and water intake (polydipsia), renal disease can cause complications, such as anemia, gastric upset, anorexia, weight loss, and muscle weakness.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1270 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 6. Routine screening for proteinuria, and other abnormalities associated with kidney diseases

should be a part of wellness exams and any diagnostic evaluation in a senior pet. The veterinary technician should collect what sample to screen for proteinuria? a. Whole blood b. Plasma c. Urine d. Feces ANS: C

Routine screening for proteinuria, azotemia, and other abnormalities associated with kidney diseases should be a part of wellness exams and any diagnostic evaluation in a senior pet.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1270-1271 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Properly collect diagnostic specimens for analysis (ex: urine, blood, feces, specimens for cytology) 7. Clinical signs such as altered sleep-wake cycles, house soiling, confusion, and irritability are

signs of . a. urinary disease b. cognitive dysfunction c. spinal cord abnormalities d. a low-protein diet ANS: B

Clinical signs of cognitive dysfunction such as altered sleep-wake cycles, house soiling, confusion, and irritability can strain the critical human-animal bond. Pet owners should be counseled about how to manage cognitive changes in their aging pets, and veterinary professionals should strive to manage owner expectations regarding this condition.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1271 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

is also known as degenerative joint disease (DJD).

8. a. b. c. d.

Founder Osteoarthritis Arthoarthritis Rheumatoid arthritis

ANS: B

Osteoarthritis is also known as degenerative joint disease (DJD).

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1271 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 9. A common disease in middle-aged and older cats,

, leads to an increase in metabolic rate. Clinical signs include increased appetite with concurrent weight loss, polyuria and polydipsia, lack of grooming, and vomiting. a. Cushinoid syndrome b. osteoarthritis c. hypothyroidism d. hyperthyroidism ANS: D

A common disease in middle-aged and older cats, the clinical syndrome of hyperthyroidism is caused by excessive production of thyroid hormone. This leads to an increase in metabolic rate and clinical signs including increased appetite with concurrent weight loss, polyuria and polydipsia, lack of grooming, and vomiting.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1271 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 10. Hypothyroidism is well managed with a. radioactive iodine b. surgical removal of the thyroid gland c. daily insulin injections d. oral thyroid hormone supplementation

.

ANS: D

Hypothyroidism is well managed with oral thyroid hormone supplementation.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1271 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 11. Diabetic animals should be checked frequently for a. urinary tract infections b. cardiac arrhythmias c. weight gain d. dehydration

.

ANS: A

Diabetes mellitus predisposes animals to infection, especially in the urinary tract, because glucose overloads the kidnT eyEsSaT ndBiA sN spKilS leEdLinLtoEuRr. inC e,OpMroviding an excellent nutrient source for bacteria.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1271 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Properly collect diagnostic specimens for analysis (ex: urine, blood, feces, specimens for cytology) 12.

, also known as Cushing disease, is caused by excessive production of glucocorticoids, such as cortisol, released from the adrenal cortex. a. Hypoadrenocorticism b. Hyperadrenocorticism c. Addison disease d. Grave’s disease ANS: B

Hyperadrenocorticism, also known as Cushing disease, is caused by excessive production of glucocorticoids, such as cortisol, released from the adrenal cortex.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1271 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

13. The most common drug classes that veterinarians prescribe to manage pain in geriatric

patients include all of the following except a. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs b. steroids c. opiates d. dissociatives ANS: D

The most common drug classes that veterinarians prescribe to manage pain in geriatric patients are (1) nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), (2) steroids, and (3) opiates.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1274 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 14. Another name for narcotic drugs is a. anesthetics b. NSAIDs c. opioids d. glucocorticoids

.

ANS: C

Opioids are narcotic drugs that produce varying degrees of analgesia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1274 TOP: VTNE Domain: Pain Management/Analgesia MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 15. Animals that spend more time on one side than on the other can develop

in the lung lobes on the “down” side, which can lead to respiratory compromise and pneumonia. a. atrophy b. atelectasis c. angina d. anemia ANS: B

Animals that spend more time on one side than on the other can develop atelectasis in the lung lobes on the “down” side, which can lead to respiratory compromise and pneumonia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1274 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate humane restraint techniques for various animal species 16. Animals should always be in

food material or vomitus. a. lateral recumbency b. standing c. sternal recumbency d. dorsal recumbency

when fed, to help prevent accidental aspiration of

ANS: C

Animals should always be in sternal recumbency when fed, to help prevent accidental aspiration of food material or vomitus.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1274 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate effective and appropriate humane restraint techniques for various animal species 17. Decubital ulcers develop most commonly around the a. elbows b. shoulders c. tarsi and hips d. all of the above

.

ANS: D

These decubital ulcers develop most commonly around the elbows, shoulders, tarsi, and hips.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1274 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 18. Which of the following pieces of advice given to owners about administering subcutaneous

fluids to their pet at home is the least accurate? a. Warming the fluids before administration can make the procedure more acceptable to the pet. b. Fluid administered into the subcutaneous space often settle in the ventral body tissues. c. Sudden changes in the animal’s urinary habits can be indicative of fluid overload. d. Administering excessive quantities of fluid, especially in cats, can be detrimental and may lead to fluid overload if cardiac function is compromised.

ANS: C

When administering subcutaneous fluids to a pet at home, warming the fluids can make the procedure more acceptable to the pet. Owners should be aware that fluid administered into the subcutaneous space often will settle in the ventral body tissues. Owners also should be aware that administering excessive quantities of fluid, especially in cats, can be detrimental and may lead to fluid overload if cardiac function is compromised. If an animal does become fluid overloaded, changes in the pet’s respiratory pattern (not urinary habits) will be apparent; this also could be a sign of heart disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1275 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient care: Understand and demonstrate husbandry, nutrition, therapeutic and dentistry techniques appropriate to various animal species. | Therapeutics 19. When urine sits in the bladder, especially in a patient that is unable to void on its own,

becomes more likely. a. polyuria b. cystitis c. decubital ulcers

d. urine scalding ANS: B

When urine sits in the bladder, especially in a patient that is unable to void on its own, cystitis becomes more likely.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1275 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Properly collect diagnostic specimens for analysis (ex: urine, blood, feces, specimens for cytology) 20. It is important that owners routinely clean the patient’s fur and skin of urine after expressing

the bladder to prevent a. polyuria b. cystitis c. decubital ulcers d. urine scalding

.

ANS: D

It is important that owners routinely clean the patient’s fur and skin of urine after expressing the bladder to prevent urine scalding.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1275 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Properly collect diagnostic specimens for analysis (ex: urine, blood, feces, specimens for cytology) 21. What is the generally accepted age when a dog or cat is considered a “senior” and thus

requires special care to preT veEnSt T agBeA -rN elK atS edEdLeL geEnR er. atCinOgMconditions? a. 5 years b. 7 years c. 10 years d. 12 years ANS: B

Although the animal’s life stage is highly dependent on individual genetics, size, and lifestyle, at 7 years of age most veterinarians begin to advocate for screening and examinations to help address degenerative diseases in companion animals. This includes twice a year veterinary evaluations as well as advanced diagnostic modalities to help provide early identification of “senior” pet ailments.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1269-1270 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 22. Geriatric patients may see an onset of age-related pain issues. Which of the following is often

associated with pain or discomfort in animals? a. Bradycardia b. Hypothermia c. Tachypnea

d. Hyperphagia ANS: C

Elevated breathing rate (tachypnea) is often associated with discomfort in animals. This can be accompanied with tachycardia, vocalization upon manipulation, lameness, and hyperthermia due to inflammation. If any of these signs are encountered, the veterinary medical team should be prepared to investigate and address pain alleviation in order to minimize pain sensations.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1274 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 23. Which of the options listed is not typically used to treat a horse with recurrent airway

obstruction (RAO)? a. Environmental modification b. Oxygen supplementation c. Bronchodilator therapy d. Anti-inflammatories ANS: B

Common therapeutic approaches for horses with RAO involve removal of the patient from dusty housing environments, as well as the concurrent administration of steroids (to decrease lung inflammation) and bronchodilators (to increase respiratory capability and decrease respiratory effort). Although not curable, with treatment and environmental adjustment RAO can be adequately controlled for the life of the horse.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1280-1281 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 24. A localized spinal cord injury to segments will often lead to urinary incontinence due to the

nerves controlling the external urethral sphincter arising from what location? a. L1 L5 b. T10 T13 c. S1 S3 d. Ca1 Ca2 ANS: C

The external urethral sphincter, which is under voluntary control, is innervated by nerves arising from the sacrum at vertebrae S1 to S3. Damage occurs at this location will often lead to a “leaky” urethral sphincter that requires continual manual bladder expression by the owner or extra time outdoors to prevent unwanted urine leakage indoors.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1275 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data

25. What is a sign of excessive glucocorticoid use in an animal? a. Decreased thirst b. Cessation of urine production c. Increased rates of systemic infections d. Excessive GI secretions ANS: C

With excess glucocorticoid administration, the body’s ability to fight infectious diseases is diminished, allowing systemic infections to occur which are normally controlled endogenously. In geriatric patients, the use of glucocorticoids should be carefully monitored and relied on as a last resort to control inflammation in a painful animal.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1271|p. 1274 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 26. What is the most common valvular disease that is present in the heart of the aged horse? a. Aortic valve stenosis b. Mitral valve regurgitation c. Aortic valve regurgitation d. Tricuspid valve hypoplasia ANS: B

Mitral valve regurgitation is the most common valvular disease in horses over 15 years of age.

Identifiable by a characteristic left-sided systolic murmur, this condition fortunately is often associated with low morbidTiE tySaT ndBA mN orK taSliE tyLinLE thR e. noCrO mM al horse, although cardiovascular deficiency may be noted when patients with this condition are exercised.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1278 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective patient data 27. Which of the following would not be a common finding in a horse that has equine Cushing

disease? a. Patchy sweating b. Long, wavy hair c. Depressed attitude d. Greasy skin coat ANS: D

Equine Cushing disease, also called pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction (PPID), results in a loss of the normal hair shedding function that often occurs in the spring time. The resulting long, wavy, dry hair coat that fails to shed, coupled with listlessness and depression, are hallmarks of this condition. This long haired condition is called hirsutism.

PTS: 1 REF: pp. 1279-1280 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Nursing: Patient assessment: Demonstrate and perform patient assessment techniques in a variety of animal species. | Demonstrate the ability to obtain objective

patient data 28. Which medication is contraindicated in cases of corneal ulceration due to equine recurrent

uveitis? a. Topical antibiotics b. Systemic NSAIDs c. Topical glucocorticoids d. Systemic anticholinergics ANS: C

Glucocorticoids may exacerbate an ulcerated cornea and prevent proper healing from occurring. If a cornea is ulcerated due to conditions such as moon blindness, medications such as topical antibiotics and systemic anti-inflammatories and anticholinergics should be utilized in order to heal the ulcerated corneal tissue.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1282 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects 29. What is considered good practice to employ when vaccinating a horse that has a history of

adverse vaccine hypersensitivity reactions? a. Cease giving all annual vaccine boosters b. Administer a partial vaccine dose c. Administer vaccines on an every-other-year basis d. Pretreat the patient with an NSAID ANS: D

Pretreatment with an NSAID such as flunixin meglumine or phenylbutazone may help diminish the risk of vaccine-mediated hypersensitivity in horses that have a history of reactions. If the horse still develops a reaction with vaccination, only giving essential vaccines should be considered to lower the risk of subsequent complications.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1283 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize the safe and effective manner in which vaccines must be administered; recognize and explain common side effects 30. Which of the following would not be a valid reason for euthanizing a horse? a. Impending cold weather b. The horse is 25 years old c. Refractory pain d. The horse is rapidly losing weight ANS: A

Geriatric horses are living longer today, with many living well into their 20s and 30s when properly cared for and closely monitored. Considerations for euthanasia include poor body condition or rapidly losing weight, as well as refractory pain (e.g., pain caused by severe laminitis that does not respond to treatment). Additional considerations include episodes of the horse falling frequently and impending cold weather. Cold weather and snow are difficult for older horses to manage, and if the horse slips on the snow or ice, it may be impossible to lift the horse up again, necessitating an emergency euthanasia. A scheduled euthanasia, by contrast, can allow the entire family to say goodbye, and can offer a peaceful end to a beloved horse.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1283 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Pharmacy and Pharmacology: Administration: Safely and effectively administer prescribed drugs to patients. | Recognize groups of drugs, their mechanisms, and clinically relevant side effects

Chapter 38: The Human-Animal Bond and Euthanasia Bassert: McCurnin’s Clinical Textbook for Veterinary Technicians, 9th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE

and have been comforted by their pet’s presence may also exhibit strong attachment and thus intense bereavement when they lose a pet. a. significant losses b. adjustments c. traumas d. all of the above

1. Owners who have experienced previous

ANS: D

Owners who have experienced previous significant losses, adjustments, or traumas and have been comforted by their pet’s presence may also exhibit strong attachment and thus intense bereavement.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1286 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 2. To effectively assist grieving clients, the veterinary technician is most effective when he or

she a. b. c. d.

educates and reassures the clients that their feelings are normal. silently leaves the roomT.ESTBANKSELLER.COM assures them that it was just a pet so grieving is not need. asks them to pay the bill.

ANS: A

One of the most effective ways for veterinary professionals to assist grieving clients through the grief process is to educate and reassure them that their feelings and behaviors are normal parts of the process.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1288 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 3. Dr. Kübler-Ross describes the grief process as consisting of which five stages? a. Denial, anger, depression, resolution, and beginning over b. Denial, despair, anger, bargaining, and resolution c. Denial, bargaining, anger, depression, and resolution d. Denial, depression, bargaining, restlessness, and resolution ANS: C

Dr. Kübler-Ross was one of the first to work extensively with dying persons and their families during the late 1960s. She described the grief process as consisting of five stages: denial, bargaining, anger, depression, and resolution.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1288 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 4. When working through the grief process, a. the five stages outlined always proceed in the same order. b. each stage takes an equal amount of time. c. each stage is experienced only once. d. none of the above are correct.

ANS: D

When working through the grief process, the stages may occur out of specified order for varying amounts of time many times.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1288|p. 1290 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 5. After a client is given the pet’s diagnosis and is told that the prognosis is poor, the client may

enter a stage of denial, often reflected by the client asking seemingly inappropriate questions.

When a client is experiencing denial, it is important to keep in mind that a. clients will often begin to process the seriousness of the situation only after arriving home, and may call the clinic with important questions. b. clients should be kept in the office until they realize the seriousness of the situation. c. you should never restate the diagnosis and prognosis. d. it is best to ignore the client’s questions since they are irrelevant.

ANS: A

It must be kept in mind that acceptance of the unbearable reality of the situation occurs only when clients are ready for acceptance internally. Usually a client will begin to ask appropriate questions about the time he or she arrives home and may telephone the veterinary office.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1290 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 6. The following are examples of the

stage of the grief process: A client asks you about miracle cures they have found on the Internet, purchases a replacement animal that looks just like the dying animal, or hopes that good behavior might change the outcome. a. denial b. anger c. bargaining d. resolution ANS: C

Once the reality of death or impending death is realized, the client may show various impotent attempts to control or reverse the reality.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1290 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 7. When confronted with a client in the anger stage of the grief process, it is important for the

veterinary professional to a. take a mental step back and a deep breath. b. take a non-defensive attitude. c. allow the client time to voice his or her anger by just listening. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

The veterinary professional can assist the client with all types of exhibited anger by taking a mental step back and a deep breath, committing to a non-defensive attitude, and simply listening. Take notes, if possible, and reassure the client of follow-up if anger is directed at veterinary staff. Assuage any guilt if the opportunity arises while allowing the client to vent.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1292 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 8. When dealing with a client who is grieving over the loss of a pet, it is important for veterinary

technicians to a. separate their feelings from those of the clients. b. advise the client to get T aE neSwTB peAt N asKsS ooEnLaLs E poRs. siC blOe.M c. explain to the client that anger is not useful. d. all of the above are correct.

ANS: A

Separating your feelings from the client’s feelings will allow you to transform empathy into sympathetic gestures that help the client.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1293 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 9. It is estimated that what percentage of clients change veterinarians after a pet has died? a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 40% ANS: D

It has been reported that as many as 40% of clients change veterinarians after a pet has died.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1296 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and

electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 10. While discussing euthanasia with a client, the veterinary professional a. should avoid using the phrases put to sleep or put away. b. should be careful not to describe the actual process so the client is not frightened. c. should not discuss financial details until after the pet is euthanized. d. should avoid any mention of disposal of the body.

ANS: A

While discussing euthanasia options with the client, the veterinary professional should not use alternative jargon for euthanasia, such as “put to sleep,” “put down,” “put away,” “humanely destroy,” “rock,” or “shoot,” unless its meaning is understood by all individuals involved.

Confusion will result from the use of a phrase such as “put to sleep” when talking to a companion animal owner who perceives the phrase to refer to anesthesia instead of euthanasia.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1297 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 11. During the process of euthanasia, often reflex actions occur. The client should be warned

beforehand that all of the following are reflex actions, not signs of pain or distress, and might happen except a. Urination b. Defecation c. Twitching d. Closing of the eyes ANS: D

Occasionally, pets will urinate, defecate, vocalize, twitch, or gasp after they have become unconscious. Although these reflex acts can be minimized, they will occasionally occur and will have a far less negative effect if they are expected, and if the client understands such reflexes are not a reflection of pain or suffering.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1298 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 12. An important predictor of survival for people with coronary artery disease is a. pet ownership. b. having owned a dog as a child. c. not having animals in the house. d. isolation from animal dirt.

ANS: A

Human cardiac patients who own pets experience higher survival rates than those without pets. Pet ownership is considered an important predictor of survival for patients with coronary artery disease.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1286 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and

Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 13.

of companion animal pet owners describe their pets as family members and cite companionship, love, affection, and fun as the most important derivatives of the relationship. a. One-tenth b. All c. One-third d. Half ANS: C

One-third of companion animal pet owners describe their pets as family members and cite companionship, love, affection, and fun as the most important derivatives of the relationship.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1286 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 14. Why are veterinary professionals often an important support when a client’s pet dies? a. because they understand the unique role the pet has played in the clients’ life. b. because the client does not feel embarrassed by their grief over an animal. c. because they understand the stages of the grief process. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

Oftentimes, pet owners turn to veterinary professionals as sources of support, comfort, and understanding at and arounTdEthSeTtB imAeNoK fS thE eiL rL peEt’R s. deCaO thMas the only people who “understand.” When clients turn to veterinary personnel as the only ones who can comprehend their grief, this can place veterinary professionals in an awkward position because the situation demands knowledge that is typically outside the boundaries of veterinary medicine and requires confidence in talking about death and the grief process.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1287 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 15. There are many factors that can complicate the grief process, so it is important for a veterinary

technician to be on the lookout for each. Which of the following is not a factor that might complicate the grief process? a. Multiple losses within a related time frame. b. Loss of a pet on a special day such as a birthday. c. Witnessing the violent death of a pet. d. A veterinary team that supports the client and pet.

ANS: D

A supportive veterinary team does not complicate the grief process.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1294 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and

electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 16. It is important for the veterinary technicians to recognize in themselves and their coworkers

the physical signs and symptoms of burnout, which include all of the following except a. low blood pressure. b. headaches. c. muscle tightness. d. nausea.

ANS: A

Physical Symptoms of burnout include headaches, gastrointestinal disturbances, muscle tightness, high blood pressure, nausea, skin disorders, ulcers, and heartburn.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1300 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Demonstrate an understanding of interpersonal skills and team dynamics 17. It is important for the veterinary technician to recognize in themselves and their coworkers the

emotional symptoms of burnout which include all of the following except a. crying spells. b. physical fatigue. c. irritability. d. sleepiness.

ANS: D

Emotional Symptoms of burnout include • Reduced sleep (inability T toEsS leT epB/sAtaNyKaS slE eeLpL ) ER.COM • Irritability • Crying spells • Physical fatigue • Withdrawal from family and friends PTS: 1 REF: p. 1300 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Demonstrate an understanding of interpersonal skills and team dynamics 18. Which of the following is not recommended when preparing a euthanized patient to be

received by the client? a. The eyes should be glued opened. b. The hair coat should be bathed and combed, time permitting. c. The patients tongue should be placed in its mouth. d. All catheters and bandages should be removed.

ANS: A

The pet’s eyes should be closed, and gluing the lids will keep them closed, taking on the appearance of a sleeping animal. This peaceful positioning will help the grieving clients feel at ease when viewing their deceased pet.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1299 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis

of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 19. Which type of environment traditionally has higher staff turnover in comparison to the rest? a. A traditional veterinary practice b. A no-kill animal shelter c. A traditional animal shelter d. A large animal practice ANS: C

Traditional animal shelters that commonly perform elective euthanasia due to over population often experience higher staff-turnover than other settings where euthanasia is less common.

For this reason, it is important to provide client support options to help deal with the stress associated with death of animals in mass quantities.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1301 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 20. In a modern, high-volume veterinary practice, how many euthanasia events will technicians

likely participate in on a weekly basis? a. Less than 1 b. 1 to 2 c. 3 to 6 d. Always more than 10 ANS: C

Usually, a technician will pTaE rtS icT ipB atA eN inK3StE oL 6LeuEtR ha.nC asOiaMs per week, which is approximately one every day, or every other day. It is important that aspiring technicians understand this, and are prepared to participate in this process with appropriate expectations. If employed in a research or shelter situation, this average number will likely be much higher.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1301 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 21. Which governmental organization regulates the drugs most commonly used to perform

euthanasia on companion animals? a. The USDA b. The DEA c. The EPA d. The NIH ANS: B

Sodium pentobarbital is labeled for use in euthanasia, and since it is a barbiturate it is under the regulation of the United States Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA). The DEA is a component of the United States Department of Justice. Veterinary clinics must have veterinarian with DEA licensure in order to possess and use DEA schedule drugs.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1298 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Management: Participate in facility management utilizing traditional and electronic

media and appropriate veterinary medical terminology and abbreviations. | Recognize roles of appropriate regulatory agencies 22. If the client requests to be present while his or her pet is euthanized, how should the method

of euthanasia be determined? a. Any method listed in the AVMA panel of euthanasia report is acceptable. b. Choose which ever method is cheapest. c. Choose a method that is acceptable ethically and aesthetically. d. Let the client pick the method.

ANS: C

It is important to not only choose a method of euthanasia that is medically acceptable, but also to keep in mind how that method appears to the clients who observe the process. Although the AVMA panel on euthanasia provides ethically-acceptable methods, some of these methods may appear violent and unpleasant to a client.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1298 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 23. What is the process called in which the members of the veterinary staff proclaim a client’s

right to cry, be emotional, and grieve over a pet’s death? a. Proclamation b. Permission c. Validation d. Intervention ANS: C

Validation is the process of proclaiming that a client is within his or her rights to feel emotional and to begin the grief process due to the death of a pet, and is an important component of appropriate bedside manner. Since most veterinary professionals are not trained in how to say the right words to express the sadness that these events cause, providing validation to the client may prove invaluable to certain individuals.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1299 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 24. Which of the following is not a recommended coping mechanism used to help employees

handle the stress associated with euthanizing animals in a research setting (where euthanasia may occur quite commonly)? a. Assign one member of the staff to perform all euthanasia b. Discuss the situation with the staff on a regular basis c. Participate in “dark humor” regarding the process and situation d. Provide counseling if needed ANS: A

It is beneficial to give staff a break from euthanasia duties on a regular basis to allow for a reduction in the moral stress associated with performing this process continually. The other options, including use of humor to help relieve undue stress, are viable recommendations to help prevent staff burnout.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1301 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Demonstrate an understanding of interpersonal skills and team dynamics 25. When euthanizing an animal with sodium pentobarbital, what occurs first upon IV injection of

the drug? a. Cardiac arrest b. Respiratory arrest c. Death d. Unconsciousness ANS: D

After injecting sodium pentobarbital, the animal will quickly become unconscious. This is followed by respiratory arrest, and lastly cardiac arrest followed by death.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1298 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 26. Which is the most common drug used to euthanize companion animals? a. Propofol b. Sodium pentobarbital c. Thiopental d. Phenobarbital ANS: B

Sodium pentobarbital is labeled for use in euthanasia, although any of the above drugs can cause death if used in high doses. This drug o decreases the activity of the central nervous system. The normal route for pentobarbital injection is IV, although it can be administered directly into the heart or liver, or intraperitoneally in certain circumstances.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1298 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 27.

How should excessive stress experienced by veterinary staff be handled? a. Ensure employees that they will become used to such stress over time b. Enroll staff in a clinic-supported exercise program c. Provide counselling services, if needed, to help staff handle stress d. Ignore the problem, since these are personal issue with employees ANS: C

Employees routinely experience stress during their daily routine in a veterinary clinic.

Euthanasia of patients adds to this stress load, and has been targeted as a major cause of employee burn-out leading to feelings of dissatisfaction with their careers. Providing counseling services to excessively stressed individuals can help to make these situations much more tolerable.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1301 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and

Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Demonstrate an understanding of interpersonal skills and team dynamics 28. When euthanizing large animals such as cattle or horses, the jugular vein is the ideal vessel for

IV injection of the barbiturates. If thrombosis of the jugular veins is present, which site should be used in their place? a. Cephalic veins b. Saphenous veins c. Femoral vein d. Intramuscular in the hindlimb ANS: A

The cephalic veins of the forelimb are preferable, although special care must be taken to present injury from thrashing front legs. Access of these sites must be known by technicians and clinicians who work with animals that have this type of jugular pathologic thrombosis.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1301 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Laboratory Procedures: Specimen analysis: Properly perform analysis of laboratory specimens. | Perform necropsy procedures 29. Of the following, which would be the least ideal time of day to schedule a euthanasia? a. First thing in the morning b. Mid-morning c. Midday (lunch time) d. Early evening ANS: B

It is important to schedule T thEesSeTaB ppAoN inKtm thO eM clinic team can devote at least 30 SeEnLtsLwEhRen.C uninterrupted minutes to care for the patient. These appointments are best scheduled early in the morning, at lunch, or in the evenings since these times allow for provision of undivided attention toward the patient.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1297 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients 30. Who should be present at a pet’s euthanasia? a. Just the veterinary staff b. The veterinarian and the client c. The veterinarian and the client’s family d. Varies, depending on the client and the veterinarian ANS: D

It is a mistake for the veterinarian to prevent the client from witnessing a pet’s euthanasia without giving the client the option. Although it may appear easier for the client to not have to see their companion die, many people benefit from the opportunity to say goodbye to their pet. The option should be given, and a joint decision by the client and practitioner made regarding whose presence will be acceptable at the procedure.

PTS: 1 REF: p. 1297 TOP: VTNE Domain: Animal Care and Nursing MSC: CVTEA Skill and Task: Office And Hospital Procedures, Client Relations, and

Communication: Communicate in a professional manner in all formats - written, oral, non-verbal, and electronic. | Apply crisis intervention/grief management skills with clients