TEST BANK for Living Physical Geography 1st Edition by Gervais IBSN 9781464106644. (Complete Downloa

6. Which is a natural methane source?

A) photosynthesis B) volcanoes C) fossil fuels D) anaerobic bacteria

7. Which is a methane sink?

A) photosynthesis B) ultraviolet radiation C) the oceans D) rainfall

8. Which is a water-vapor source?

A) evaporation B) condensation C) ultraviolet radiation D) rainfall

9. Which is a water-vapor sink?

A) evaporation B) condensation C) ultraviolet radiation D) fossil fuels

10. Which is an ozone source?

A) photosynthesis B) evaporation C) ultraviolet radiation D) aerosols

11. Which is an ozone sink?

A) photosynthesis B) condensation C) ultraviolet radiation D) fossil fuels

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12. Which is a nitrous oxide source?

A) photosynthesis B) condensation C) ultraviolet radiation D) soil bacteria

13. Which is a nitrous oxide sink?

A) photosynthesis B) condensation C) ultraviolet radiation D) soil bacteria

14. Which is a CFC source?

A) human activity B) condensation C) ultraviolet radiation D) soil bacteria

15. Which is a CFC sink?

A) photosynthesis B) condensation C) ultraviolet radiation D) soil bacteria

16. Clouds are composed of __________.

A) water vapor B) aerosols C) nitrogen D) CFCs

17. Ninety-nine percent of the atmosphere is found below __________ kilometers.

A) 32 B) 100 C) 170 D) 200

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18. At sea level there is/are __________ kilogram(s) per square centimeter of air pressure on average.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

19. At sea level there are __________ pounds per square inch of air pressure on average.

A) 10.8 B) 14.7 C) 15.4 D) 16.8

20. Which city has the highest air pressure on average?

A) Winnipeg, Canada—232 meters (761 feet) B) Cairo, Egypt—23 meters (75 feet) C) Ulan Bator, Mongolia—1,350 meters (4,429 feet) D) Santiago, Chile—520 meters (1,706 feet)

21. Which city has the lowest air pressure on average?

A) Winnipeg, Canada—232 meters (761 feet) B) Cairo, Egypt—23 meters (75 feet) C) Ulan Bator, Mongolia—1,350 meters (4,429 feet) D) Santiago, Chile—520 meters (1,706 feet)

22. The lowest-most layer of the atmosphere is called the __________.

A) mesosphere B) stratosphere C) thermosphere D) troposphere

23. The division between the troposphere and the stratosphere is called the __________.

A) tropopause B) stratopause C) mesopause D) thermopause

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24. On average, the top of the troposphere occurs at about __________ kilometers.

A) 5 B) 9 C) 12 D) 18

25. The temperature at the top of the troposphere is about __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 0 B) -20 C) -40 D) -60

26. Which is not found in the troposphere?

A) a permanent temperature inversion B) all of Earth's weather C) the highest atmospheric density D) vertical mixing

27. The tropopause is the division between what?

A) the stratosphere and the mesosphere B) the troposphere and the mesosphere C) the troposphere and the stratosphere D) the stratosphere and the thermosphere

28. Clouds in the troposphere end at the tropopause because __________.

A) the stratosphere is too warm B) there is too little water vapor in the stratosphere C) the stratosphere is too high for clouds to reach D) the stratosphere is too cold

29. The atmosphere is thicker in the tropics than at higher latitudes mostly because of __________.

A) air circulation patterns B) gravity from the Moon C) Earth's rotation D) cloudiness

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30. The division between the stratosphere and the mesosphere is called the __________.

A) tropopause B) stratopause C) mesopause D) thermopause

31. The top of the stratosphere occurs at about __________ kilometers.

A) 40 B) 50 C) 60 D) 70

32. The temperature at the top of the stratosphere is about __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 0 B) -10 C) -20 D) -30

33. Which is a main characteristic of the stratosphere?

A) strong vertical mixing B) permanent temperature inversion C) where meteors burn up D) where all the weather occurs

34. The top of the mesosphere occurs at about __________ kilometers.

A) 80 B) 90 C) 100 D) 110

35. The division between the mesosphere and the thermosphere is called the __________.

A) tropopause B) stratopause C) mesopause D) thermopause

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36. The temperature at the top of the mesosphere is about __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 0 B) -40 C) -60 D) -90 C

37. The top of the thermosphere is found at __________ kilometers.

A) 400 B) 500 C) 600 D) 700

38. Temperatures in upper reaches of the thermosphere are as high as _________ degrees Celsius.

A) 100 B) 550 C) 1,200 D) 2,100

39. The division between the thermosphere and the exosphere is called the __________.

A) tropopause B) stratopause C) mesopause D) thermopause

40. Which statement is not true of the exosphere?

A) It is the top-most layer of the atmosphere that fades to outer space.

B) Some gas molecules escape from it out to space.

C) It is where meteors burn up as they enter the atmosphere from space.

D) There is almost no air pressure.

41. Auroras are caused by __________.

A) the solar wind B) electromagnetic radiation from the Sun C) high temperatures in the thermosphere D) gas properties of the ionosphere

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42. The timing of the solar wind coincides with the timing of __________.

A) drought cycles B) solar flare activity C) stages of the Moon D) Earth's magnetic field strength

43. A primary pollutant is defined as __________.

A) a pollutant that is toxic to humans B) a pollutant that enters the air or water directly from the source C) a pollutant that has been altered by reactions with other pollutants D) a pollutant that is emitted by natural sources such as volcanoes

44. Which is not a primary pollutant?

A) carbon monoxide B) nitrogen dioxide C) ground-level ozone D) sulfur dioxide

45. The main source of anthropogenic carbon monoxide in urban areas is __________.

A) automobiles B) coal burning C) burning agricultural wastes and forests D) unburned gasoline

46. The main source of anthropogenic carbon monoxide in remote areas is __________.

A) automobiles B) coal burning C) burning agricultural wastes and forests D) unburned gasoline

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Use the following to answer question 47:

47. Referring to the map of carbon monoxide concentrations, what is the most likely source of carbon monoxide for equatorial Africa in winter?

A) industrial emissions B) agricultural waste burning C) fossil fuel emissions D) natural forest emissions

48. Which causes acid rain?

A) carbon monoxide B) ground-level ozone C) VOCs D) sulfur dioxide

49. The main source of nitrogen dioxide pollution is __________.

A) burning of vegetation B) burning of coal and gasoline C) incomplete burning of gasoline D) chemical reactions in sunlight

50. The main source of VOCs is __________.

A) burning of vegetation B) burning of coal and gasoline C) incomplete burning of gasoline D) chemical reactions in sunlight

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51. Which is photochemical smog?

A) sulfur dioxide B) ground-level ozone C) nitrogen dioxide D) VOCs

52. Which is not an example of particulate matter?

A) dust B) smoke C) ozone D) pollen

53. The main source of particulate matter in the United States is __________.

A) coal burning B) industrial processes C) transportation D) windblown dust

54. The main source of particulate matter in northern Africa is __________.

A) coal burning B) industrial processes C) transportation D) windblown dust

55. When there is __________ it gets warmer as altitude increases.

A) strong wind B) a temperature inversion C) an environmental lapse rate D) acid rain

56. Which is not one of the three main factors that concentrate or disperse pollution?

A) topography B) temperature inversions C) vegetation D) wind

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57. The Clean Air Act was first enacted in __________.

A) 1967 B) 1970 C) 1985 D) 1990

Use the following to answer questions 58-61:

58. Referring to the map, what causes particulate matter to be high in the Sahara in northern Africa?

A) dust storms B) industrial emissions C) agricultural emissions D) photochemical reactions

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59. Referring to the map, what causes particulate matter to be high in the eastern United States?

A) dust storms B) industrial emissions C) agricultural emissions D) photochemical reactions

60. Referring to the map, what causes particulate matter to be high in eastern Asia?

A) dust storms B) industrial emissions C) agricultural emissions D) photochemical reactions

61. Referring to the map, what causes particulate matter to be high in northern India?

A) dust storms B) industrial emissions C) agricultural emissions D) photochemical reactions

Use the following to answer questions 62-64:

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62. According to the graph, which air pollutant has dropped most between 1990 and 2012?

A) CO B) NOx C) PM10 D) SO2

63. According to the graph, which air pollutant has dropped least?

A) CO B) NOx C) PM10 D) SO2

64. Referring to the graph, what is responsible for the downward trend in these pollutants?

A) population decrease B) people driving fewer miles C) enactment of the U.S. Clean Air Act D) different measurement techniques

65. The gas that causes ozonosphere thinning is __________.

A) methane B) ozone C) CFCs D) carbon dioxide

66. The atmospheric lifetime of a CFC molecule can be __________ years or more.

A) 10 B) 100 C) 1,000 D) 10,000

67. Which atom comes from a CFC molecule and breaks ozone apart?

A) fluorine B) chlorine C) carbon D) oxygen

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68. What type of solar radiation causes ozone molecules to break apart and reform?

A) visible sunlight B) ultraviolet radiation C) thermal radiation D) microwave radiation

69. The geographically most extensive hole in the ozonosphere occurred in what year?

A) 1980 B) 1990 C) 2000 D) 2010

70. Where are stratospheric ozone concentrations lowest?

A) over the tropics B) over the midlatitudes C) over the North Pole D) over the South Pole

71. __________ facilitate(s) a reduction of ozone in the ozonosphere.

A) Particulate matter B) Nacreous clouds C) High atmospheric density D) The presence of nitrogen dioxide

72. When was the Montreal Protocol ratified?

A) 1987 B) 1990 C) 1995 D) 2001

73. What did the Montreal Protocol mandate?

A) the phaseout of CFCs B) the phaseout of fossil fuels C) the cleaning up of sulfur dioxide D) the phaseout of ground-level ozone

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74. The ozonosphere is anticipated to return to 1980 levels by about the year __________.

A) 2020 B) 2040 C) 2060 D) 2080

75. Which condition is not among the human health problems caused by exposure to increased levels of ultraviolet radiation?

A) skin cancer B) respiratory problems C) reduced immunity D) cataracts

76. Given the geographic pattern of ozonosphere thinning, which location would have the highest UV radiation levels at ground level?

A) the southern United States B) northern Canada C) northern Australia D) southern Australia

77. Under the Montreal Protocol, CFCs have mostly been replaced by what chemical?

A) methane B) HFCs C) fluorine D) carbon dioxide

78. A problem with HFCs is that they __________.

A) are toxic pollutants B) cause ground-level ozone C) affect plant photosynthesis D) are strong greenhouse gases

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Use the following to answer questions 79-82:

79. According to this figure, ultraviolet rays do what?

A) form ozone molecules B) break apart ozone molecules C) break apart CFC molecules D) ultraviolet rays do all of the above

80. According to the figure, chlorine atoms change ozone molecules to what?

A) oxygen molecules and oxygen atoms B) CFC molecules C) more ozone molecules D) chlorine atoms

81. According to the figure, how is ozone formed naturally?

A) by reactions with CFCs B) by reactions with chlorine atoms C) by reactions with ultraviolet radiation D) by reactions with carbon dioxide

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82. According to the figure, how is ozone broken down naturally?

A) by reactions with CFCs B) by reactions with chlorine atoms C) by reactions with ultraviolet radiation D) by reactions with carbon dioxide

83. Natural gas extraction is creating air pollution for rural areas of the west such as Wyoming.

A) True B) False

84. Most of the pollution is caused by acid rain from drilling operations.

A) True B) False

85. The atmosphere is composed of 78 percent nitrogen and 21 percent oxygen molecules.

A) True B) False

86. Water vapor can occupy up to 4 percent of the atmosphere by volume.

A) True B) False

87. A greenhouse gas absorbs and emits heat.

A) True B) False

88. Methane is a greenhouse gas.

A) True B) False

89. Gases enter the atmosphere through gas sinks.

A) True B) False

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90. Nitrogen molecules in the atmosphere are a type of aerosol.

A) True B) False

91. The atmosphere is kept pinned to Earth by gravity.

A) True B) False

92. The higher the molecular density of air, the lower the air pressure.

A) True B) False

93. On average, the Dead Sea has the highest air pressure on Earth.

A) True B) False

94. The environmental lapse rate in the troposphere is 6.5 degrees Celsius per 1,000 meters.

A) True B) False

95. Tropos in Greek means to turn over and to mix.

A) True B) False

96. The tropopause is higher above Earth's surface at the poles than at the equator.

A) True B) False

97. The height of the equatorial tropopause is about 18 kilometers.

A) True B) False

98. The height of the polar tropopause is about 8 kilometers.

A) True B) False

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99. In the stratosphere air flows mostly horizontally.

A) True B) False

100. Most meteors burn up in the mesosphere.

A) True B) False

101. Northern lights occur in the mesosphere.

A) True B) False

102. Northern lights are also called aurora borealis.

A) True B) False

103. Aurora australis occurs in the Northern Hemisphere.

A) True B) False

104. Most anthropogenic pollutants come from burning fossil fuels.

A) True B) False

105. Volcanoes make acid rain pollution.

A) True B) False

106. PM10 is more unhealthy than PM2.5.

A) True B) False

107. Ground-level ozone is harmless. Stratospheric ozone is harmful to people.

A) True B) False

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108. The Air Quality Index ranks air quality by its effects on human health.

A) True B) False

109. Particulate matter is an aerosol.

A) True B) False

110. CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) are gases that occur naturally in the atmosphere.

A) True B) False

111. CFCs are toxic gases made by people.

A) True B) False

112. The problem with the ozonosphere was known since the 1920s, but wasn't taken seriously until 1974.

A) True B) False

113. Ozone molecules form naturally in the stratosphere.

A) True B) False

114. Ozone molecules break apart naturally in the stratosphere.

A) True B) False

115. What would happen to sea-level air pressure if the atmosphere were thinner? What would happen to sea-level pressure if the atmosphere were thicker?

116. Why do CFC molecules persist in the troposphere, then break down in the stratosphere?

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117. The atmosphere and the oceans are heavy because they are composed of molecules that have mass and weight. Why, then, don't the atmosphere and oceans pin us down against the surface of Earth?

118. How are cumulonimbus clouds prevented from entering the stratosphere?

119. Describe how acid rain forms. Is acid rain decreasing or increasing in the United States?

Explain why this trend has occurred.

120. Cleaning up the air by reducing emissions is expensive. Industry ultimately passes the costs on to the consumer. Do you think the Clean Air Act is worth the expense? Explain.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. A 18. A 19. B 20. B 21. C 22. D 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. B 31. B 32. A 33. B 34. A 35. C 36. D 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. C 41. A 42. B 43. B 44. C

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45. A 46. C 47. B 48. D 49. B 50. C 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. C 57. B 58. A 59. B 60. B 61. B 62. A 63. C 64. C 65. C 66. C 67. B 68. B 69. C 70. D 71. B 72. A 73. A 74. B 75. B 76. D 77. B 78. D 79. D 80. A 81. C 82. C 83. A 84. B 85. A 86. A 87. A 88. A 89. B 90. B

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91. A 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. B 97. A 98. A 99. A 100. A 101. B 102. A 103. B 104. A 105. A 106. B 107. B 108. A 109. A 110. B 111. B 112. B 113. A 114. A 115. Air pressure would drop if the atmosphere were thinner because there would be less atmosphere to compress. Air pressure would increase if the atmosphere were thicker because the weight of the overlying atmosphere would compress the atmosphere more.

116. CFCs break down when exposed to UV radiation. In the troposphere there is relatively little UV radiation compared to the stratosphere.

117. Only a solid heavy object can pin us down because all of its weight will come from one direction only—from above us. The atmosphere and oceans are fluids, however, and they flow around us. Therefore their weight comes from all directions simultaneously and we are not pinned.

118. The stratosphere warms with height. Cumulonimbus clouds become relatively cold, dense, and heavy in the stratosphere and so they cannot rise very far into it.

119. Acid rain forms when sulfur dioxide combines with rainwater to form sulfuric acid droplets. Acid rain has been decreasing in the United States because of emissions restrictions mandated by the Clean Air Act. 120. Answers will vary. On a short-term basis, the two sides basically are pro economy vs. pro environment. Cleaning the air costs money and jobs. But cleaning the air improves the quality of life for people because they are healthier. On a long-term basis, it is much harder to argue for not cleaning up the air. In the long term, it saves money, helps the economy, and improves the quality of life for people.

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Chapter 2- Seasons and Solar Energy 1. It takes Earth __________ days to revolve around the Sun. A) 24 B) 202 C) 365.25 D) 278

2. It takes Earth __________ hours to complete one rotation on its axis.

A) 24 B) 202 C) 365.25 D) 278

3. The path that Earth and the other plants follow as they orbit the Sun is called the __________.

A) subsolar point B) plane of ecliptic C) axial tilt D) circle of illumination

4. The farthest position of Earth's orbit around the Sun is called __________.

A) aphelion B) perihelion C) plane of ecliptic D) an astronomical unit

5. The average distance between Earth and the Sun is __________ million kilometers.

A) 149.6 B) 167 C) 180 D) 274.3

6. Earth's North Pole points to __________.

A) the subsolar point B) the plane of the ecliptic C) Polaris D) the Sun

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7. How fast would you have to travel to stay beneath the subsolar point as it moved along the equator?

A) 656 kilometers per hour B) 909 kilometers per hour C) 1,035 kilometers per hour D) 1,670 kilometers per hour

8. The __________ is the division between night and day.

A) circle of illumination B) solar declination C) perihelion D) solar altitude

9. The __________ refers to the height of the Sun above the horizon at noon.

A) circle of illumination B) solar declination C) perihelion D) solar altitude

10. Over a six-month period, the subsolar point migrates across __________ degrees of latitude.

A) 0 B) 23.5 C) 47 D) 90

11. If Earth's axial tilt were zero, the subsolar point would migrate across __________ degrees of latitude each six months.

A) 0 B) 23.5 C) 46 D) 90

12. If Earth's axial tilt were 90 degrees, the subsolar point would migrate across __________ degrees of latitude each six months.

A) 0 B) 23.5 C) 46 D) 90

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13. Which statement is not true about the December solstice?

A) The subsolar point is over 23.5 degrees south latitude.

B) It is the longest day in the Southern Hemisphere.

C) Daylight hours get longer as one travels northward.

D) The subsolar point is over the Tropic of Capricorn.

14. Which statement is not true about the March equinox?

A) All locations on Earth (except the poles) receive 12 hours of daylight and night.

B) It is the first day of spring in the Northern Hemisphere.

C) It is the first day of fall in the Southern Hemisphere.

D) The subsolar point is over the Tropic of Capricorn.

15. Which statement is not true about the June solstice?

A) The subsolar point is over the Tropic of Cancer.

B) It is the shortest day of the year in the Northern Hemisphere.

C) Daylight hours get shorter as one travels southward.

D) It is the first day of winter in the Northern Hemisphere.

16. Which statement is not true about the September equinox?

A) All locations on Earth (except the poles) receive 12 hours of daylight and night.

B) Winter has ended in the Southern Hemisphere.

C) It is the first day of spring in the Northern Hemisphere.

D) The solar declination is 0 degrees latitude.

17. On June 21, the latitude 41 degrees north receives __________ hours of daylight.

A) 0 B) 9 C) 12 D) 15

18. On the March equinox, the latitude 41 degrees north receives __________ hours of daylight.

A) 0 B) 9 C) 12 D) 15

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19. On December 21, the latitude 80 degrees north receives __________ hours of daylight.

A) 0 B) 9 C) 12 D) 15

20. The Arctic Circle is located at __________ latitude.

A) 66.5 degrees north B) 23.5 degrees north C) 23.5 degrees south D) 66.5 degrees south

21. The Tropic of Capricorn is located at __________ latitude.

A) 66.5 degrees north B) 23.5 degrees north C) 23.5 degrees south D) 66.5 degrees south

22. The Antarctic Circle is located at __________ latitude.

A) 66.5 degrees north B) 23.5 degrees north C) 23.5 degrees south D) 66.5 degrees south

23. The Tropic of Cancer is located at __________ latitude.

A) 66.5 degrees north B) 23.5 degrees north C) 23.5 degrees south D) 66.5 degrees south

24. On the __________ all locations within the Arctic Circle receive 24 hours of daylight.

A) June solstice B) September equinox C) December solstice D) March equinox

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25. On the __________ all locations within the Antarctic Circle receive 24 hours of daylight.

A) June solstice B) September equinox C) December solstice D) March equinox

Use the following to answer questions 26-29:

26. Looking at the figure, what seasonal marker occurs at position A? A) June solstice B) December solstice C) March equinox D) September equinox

27. Looking at the figure, what seasonal marker occurs at position B? A) June solstice B) December solstice C) March equinox D) September equinox

28. Looking at the figure, what seasonal marker occurs at position C? A) June solstice B) December solstice C) March equinox D) September equinox

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29. Looking at the figure, what seasonal marker occurs at position D? A) June solstice B) December solstice C) March equinox D) September equinox

Use the following to answer question 30:

30. Which date is shown in this figure?

A) June 21 B) December 21 C) March 20 D) August 21

31. The heat-index temperature is caused by __________.

A) humidity B) ocean currents C) convection in the atmosphere D) sun angle

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32. Ninety-five degrees Fahrenheit is equal to __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 20 B) 25 C) 30 D) 35

33. Zero degrees Celsius is equal to __________ degrees Fahrenheit.

A) 0 B) 12 C) 32 D) 212

34. One degree of change in Celsius is equal to __________ degrees of change in Fahrenheit.

A) 1.8 B) 2 C) 2.3 D) 4

35. Water boils at __________ degrees Fahrenheit.

A) 0 B) 32 C) 100 D) 212

36. Water boils at __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 0 B) 32 C) 100 D) 212

37. Water freezes at __________ degrees Fahrenheit.

A) 0 B) 32 C) 100 D) 212

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38. Water freezes at __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 0 B) 32 C) 100 D) 212

39. Circulation of heat in the oceans and atmosphere is an example of energy movement through __________.

A) conduction B) convection C) radiation D) seasonality

40. Absorption of sunlight by Earth's surface is an example of __________.

A) conduction B) convection C) radiation D) seasonality

41. Heat traveling through an iron rod stuck in a fire is an example of __________.

A) conduction B) convection C) radiation D) seasonality

42. The highest temperature officially recorded on Earth was where?

A) in Libya B) in Death Valley, California C) near Phoenix, Arizona D) in the Atacama Desert in Chile

43. The lowest temperature ever officially recorded was in __________.

A) Alaska B) Siberia C) Antarctica D) Montana

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44. On a climate diagram, the horizontal axis is always __________.

A) temperature B) precipitation C) months of the year D) humidity

45. The temperature of 1 gram of water will rise __________ degree(s) Celsius when 1 calorie is added to it.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5

46. The temperature of 1 gram of dry sand will rise about __________ degree(s) Celsius when 1 calorie is added to it.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5

47. At a given location the sea level air temperature is 30 degrees Celsius. Based on the average environmental lapse rate, what is the most likely temperature at 5,000 meters in mountains near that same sea level location?

A) 20 degrees Celsius B) 10.5 degrees Celsius C) 0.5 degrees Celsius D) -2.5 degrees Celsius

48. Which location has the lowest average annual temperature?

A) near the equator and at a low elevation B) near the equator and at a high elevation C) at a high latitude and at a low elevation D) at a high latitude and high elevation

49. Which location has the highest annual temperature range?

A) near the equator and near the ocean B) near the equator and far inland C) at a high latitude and near the ocean D) at a high latitude and far inland

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50. The continental effect __________ the annual temperature range.

A) increases B) decreases C) has no effect on D) is unrelated to

51. Which does not cause the continental effect?

A) the specific heat of water B) condensation of water C) mixing of water D) transparency of water

52. The Southern Hemisphere has __________ average annual temperature range compared to the Northern Hemisphere.

A) a higher B) a lower C) the same D) a cooler

53. Which location has the highest annual temperature range?

A) northern North America B) north and central Eurasia C) northeastern Eurasia D) Australia

Use the following to answer question 54:

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54. Which location does this climate diagram best match?

A) high latitude and coastal B) high latitude and high elevation C) low latitude and coastal D) low latitude and high elevation

Use the following to answer question 55:

55. Which location does this climate diagram best match?

A) high latitude and coastal B) high latitude and inland C) low latitude and coastal D) low latitude and inland

56. Hotter objects emit __________ than relatively cooler objects.

A) longer wavelengths B) shorter wavelengths C) shorter wavelengths at a faster rate D) longer wavelengths at a faster rate

57. Terrestrial radiation peaks at __________ micrometers.

A) 10 B) 17 C) 20 D) 33

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58. Solar radiation peaks at __________ micrometers.

A) 0.1 B) 0.5 C) 1 D) 3.2

59. Which color has the longest photon wavelength?

A) red B) orange C) yellow D) green

60. Which wavelength causes sunburns?

A) red B) orange C) ultraviolet D) infrared

61. Which describes insolation traveling through Earth's atmosphere?

A) transmission B) scattering C) reflection D) absorption

62. Which will most likely happen to insolation if it strikes snow?

A) transmission B) scattering C) reflection D) absorption

63. Which will most likely happen to insolation if it strikes vegetation?

A) transmission B) scattering C) reflection D) absorption

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64. The sky is blue because of __________.

A) Rayleigh scattering B) the color of the oceans C) absorption of blue photons of light D) the color of molecules in the atmosphere

65. Grass is green because it __________.

A) emits green photons B) absorbs green, and reflects all other colors C) absorbs all colors, but green is reflected D) transmits green

66. Clouds are white because they __________.

A) emit white photons B) absorb all colors equally C) reflect all colors equally D) absorb all colors, but reflect white

67. Rainbows are caused by __________.

A) reflected sunlight B) absorbed sunlight C) refracted sunlight D) transmitted sunlight

68. What happens after an object absorbs a photon of energy?

A) The temperature of the object decreases.

B) The object changes states of matter.

C) The temperature of the object increases.

D) The object remains unaffected.

69. Which has the potentially highest albedo?

A) clouds B) bare rock C) vegetation D) asphalt

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70. The radiative equilibrium temperature of an object (such as Earth's lower atmosphere) will remain unchanged as long as __________.

A) incoming energy is greater than outgoing energy B) incoming energy is less than outgoing energy C) incoming energy is equal to outgoing energy D) there is no incoming or outgoing energy

71. What would happen to Earth's radiative equilibrium temperature if Earth's albedo were lowered?

A) It would decrease.

B) It would increase.

C) It would not change.

D) It is unknown.

72. The temperature of Earth's surface is approximately __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 12 B) 14.6 C) 17 D) 18.3

73. Without __________ Earth's atmosphere would not have a natural greenhouse effect.

A) a global heat engine B) radiative equilibrium temperature C) insolation D) greenhouse gases

74. The atmosphere is heated mostly by __________.

A) counter-radiation from clouds B) counter-radiation from gases in the atmosphere C) Earth's surface D) the oceans

75. Overall, what percentage of solar radiation is reflected by Earth?

A) 7 percent B) 23 percent C) 30 percent D) 70 percent

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76. What percentage of solar radiation is reflected by clouds and the atmosphere?

A) 7 percent B) 23 percent C) 30 percent D) 70 percent

77. Overall, what percentage of solar radiation is absorbed by Earth?

A) 7 percent B) 23 percent C) 30 percent D) 70 percent

78. The surface of the land and oceans absorbs __________ percent of solar radiation.

A) 7 percent B) 23 percent C) 47 percent D) 56 percent

79. Because of the greenhouse effect, which emits the most longwave radiation?

A) the land surface B) clouds C) greenhouse gases D) the oceans

80. At which latitude does the amount of absorbed solar radiation equal the amount of energy emitted by Earth?

A) 23.5 degrees B) 37 degrees C) 45 degrees D) 50 degrees

81. At high latitudes, Earth radiates __________ energy than it absorbs.

A) less B) more C) the same amount D) Earth does not radiate energy.

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82. The __________ is the result of heating inequalities across latitudes.

A) natural greenhouse effect B) urban heat island C) global heat engine D) electromagnetic spectrum

83. If the Sun stopped shinning, the global heat engine would __________.

A) shut down B) be enhanced C) remain unchanged D) Solar energy does not relate to the global heat engine.

84. What percentage of the energy the world uses comes from fossil fuels?

A) 50 percent B) 65 percent C) 70 percent D) 85 percent

85. By the middle of the century, about how much energy could come from fossil fuels?

A) 20 percent B) 40 percent C) 60 percent D) 80 percent

86. Which is not among the problems with fossil fuels?

A) They are finite.

B) They produce pollution.

C) They are available in large amounts.

D) They are politically volatile.

87. Which is not an example of a renewable energy?

A) coal B) sunlight C) geothermal heat D) wind

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88. About 101,000 terawatts of energy are delivered to Earth each day by the Sun. Worldwide, society consumes about __________ terawatts of energy.

A) 15 B) 25 C) 40 D) 76

89. Which has the most potential as a renewable energy source in terms of the theoretical maximum energy production?

A) biomass B) geothermal C) wind D) hydroelectric

90. Meteorological seasons refer to the changing of weather conditions over the course of a year.

A) True B) False

91. Astronomical seasons refer to the changing position of the Sun, Moon, and stars.

A) True B) False

92. Earth's axis is tilted 25 degrees.

A) True B) False

93. If Earth's axial tilt were to increase, seasonality would decrease.

A) True B) False

94. Earth is closer to the Sun in January than in July.

A) True B) False

95. The Tropic of Capricorn occurs at 23.5 degrees north latitude.

A) True B) False

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96. Sunlight becomes less diffuse at high latitudes.

A) True B) False

97. Only in the tropics can the solar altitude be 90 degrees.

A) True B) False

98. The subsolar point moves as high as 38 degrees latitude north and south.

A) True B) False

99. Temperature is the average kinetic movement of molecules in a substance, measured by a thermometer.

A) True B) False

100. The heat-index temperature is determined by measuring atmospheric humidity and temperature.

A) True B) False

101. The Kelvin scale has no negative numbers.

A) True B) False

102. When two objects of different temperatures come into contact, heat will flow from the object with a lower temperature to the object with a higher temperature.

A) True B) False

103. The greater the temperature contrast between two objects in contact, the faster heat will flow from one to the other.

A) True B) False

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104. Copper is a good insulator. Air is a good conductor.

A) True B) False

105. The difference between the highest and lowest air temperatures for a given location is called the temperature range.

A) True B) False

106. Lines of equal temperature are called isotherms.

A) True B) False

107. Water has a lower specific heat than dry sand.

A) True B) False

108. The Gulf Stream current reduces the annual temperature range for Northern Europe.

A) True B) False

109. All locations in the tropics are warm.

A) True B) False

110. New York City, located on the coast, has a strongly maritime climate.

A) True B) False

111. All objects emit electromagnetic radiation.

A) True B) False

112. Most of Earth's electromagnetic radiation is in short wavelengths.

A) True B) False

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113. Most solar electromagnetic radiation is in long wavelengths.

A) True B) False

114. Ultraviolet radiation has shorter wavelengths than visible light.

A) True B) False

115. Transmission is the absorption of electromagnetic energy by an object.

A) True B) False

116. Alpenglow forms as light is scattered in the atmosphere.

A) True B) False 117. The term insolation is short for “incoming solar radiation.”

A) True B) False

118. Radiometers are used to measure the amount of reflected shortwave radiation at Earth's surface.

A) True B) False

119. Snow has a lower albedo than vegetation.

A) True B) False

120. Earth's albedo is highest in tropical regions.

A) True B) False

121. The lower albedo of cities and the materials of which they are made create the urban heat island effect.

A) True B) False

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122. Renewable energy does not put ancient carbon in the atmosphere.

A) True B) False

123. Photovoltaic (PV) panels generate electricity from sunlight.

A) True B) False

124. Solar panels on rooftops are an example of centralized solar energy production.

A) True B) False

125. One of the world's most intense sunlight regions is equatorial Africa.

A) True B) False

126. In the United States, the most intense sunlight occurs in Florida.

A) True B) False

127. Concentrated solar power (CSP) generates electricity by creating steam from water heated by sunlight.

A) True B) False

128. Desert organisms such as the California desert tortoise are not harmed by solar power farms.

A) True B) False

129. What presiding body compiles daily global temperature recordings? About how many stations are used to monitor Earth's atmospheric temperature?

130. Why is deep and clear water colored blue?

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131. Do rainbows only occur where it is raining? Explain.

132. Is there an urban heat island where you live? What information would you need to acquire to answer this question?

133. Explain what the global heat engine is and how it is fundamentally important to atmospheric systems.

134. What are biomass, geothermal, and hydroelectric energy sources? How does each generate electricity? What does it mean to say that they are renewable?

135. Give examples of centralized and decentralized solar energy production. Discuss the strengths and weaknesses of both.

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Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. C 14. D 15. B 16. C 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. A 21. C 22. D 23. B 24. A 25. C 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. C 31. A 32. D 33. C 34. A 35. D 36. C 37. B 38. A 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. B 43. C 44. C

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45. A 46. D 47. D 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. B 52. B 53. B 54. C 55. B 56. C 57. A 58. B 59. A 60. C 61. A 62. C 63. D 64. A 65. C 66. C 67. C 68. C 69. A 70. C 71. B 72. B 73. D 74. C 75. C 76. B 77. D 78. C 79. C 80. B 81. B 82. C 83. A 84. D 85. D 86. C 87. A 88. A 89. C 90. A

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91. A 92. B 93. B 94. A 95. B 96. B 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. A 101. A 102. B 103. A 104. B 105. A 106. A 107. B 108. A 109. B 110. B 111. A 112. B 113. B 114. A 115. B 116. A 117. A 118. A 119. B 120. B 121. A 122. A 123. A 124. B 125. B 126. B 127. A 128. B 129. Global Historical Climatology Network. There are about 75,000 stations in use worldwide.

130. The color of the oceans is not related to the color of the sky. Instead, like a filter, ocean water absorbs longer wavelengths of reds and yellows before shorter wavelengths of blue, leaving blue wavelengths to perceive.

131. Rainfall isn't required for rainbows to form. Rainbows form wherever there is sunlight, drops of water in the sky, and an observer to see the effect. Sprinklers, waterfalls, and whale spouts all can create rainbows.

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132. Only students living in large cities may have an urban heat island. Average temperature data would have to be used to compare the averages between the city interior and nearby surrounding rural areas.

133. The global heat engine is the convective movement of heat energy out of the tropics to middle and high latitudes. The oceans moves about 40 percent of the energy, and the atmosphere moves about 60 percent. This heat movement gives rise to wind and storm systems.

134. Biomass generates power by burning organic material, such as agricultural wastes or plant oils. Geothermal generates power from Earth's internal heat. Hydroelectric refers to the generation of electricity from rivers by means of turbines on dams. Each is renewable because the source of energy never runs out.

135. Decentralized solar energy production includes putting solar panels on rooftops, in parking lots, and on any other available surface in urban and rural settings. Two strengths of the decentralized approach are 1) homeowners can take part in producing carbon-free energy, and 2) this approach does not require large tracts of land that could be habitats for organisms. One problem with decentralized solar energy production is that in many cases it is not yet cost-effective. The centralized solar energy approach creates a single area with intensive energy production, either through an expanse of solar panels or the concentrated solar power technique. Generally, energy produced through a centralized approach must be transported long distances because large spaces are not typically available near large population centers where energy is in demand.

Transporting electricity long distances can be inefficient and wasteful.

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Chapter 3- Water in the Atmosphere 1. The process of __________ turns solid ice to liquid.

A) condensation B) evaporation C) melting D) freezing

2. The process of __________ turns liquid water to water vapor.

A) condensation B) evaporation C) melting D) freezing

3. The process of __________ turns water vapor to liquid.

A) condensation B) evaporation C) melting D) freezing

4. The process of __________ turns liquid water to ice.

A) condensation B) evaporation C) melting D) freezing

5. The process of __________ turns ice to water vapor.

A) deposition B) evaporation C) sublimation D) condensation

6. The process of __________ turns water vapor to ice.

A) deposition B) evaporation C) sublimation D) condensation

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7. Which directly results from the absorption of solar energy?

A) condensation B) evaporation C) precipitation D) deposition

8. The energy that drives the hydrologic cycle comes from __________.

A) Earth's internal heat B) the Sun C) chemical energy in the biosphere D) electrical energy in the atmosphere

9. Which process does not happen in the hydrologic cycle?

A) evaporation off the oceans B) condensation in the atmosphere C) precipitation from clouds D) sublimation from plants

10. What percentage of solar energy goes to work evaporating water from Earth's surface?

A) 20 percent B) 30 percent C) 40 percent D) 50 percent

11. After the oceans, __________ is/are the most important source of water vapor to the atmosphere.

A) plants B) snow C) groundwater D) streams

12. Atoms of hydrogen and oxygen form attachments to make a water molecule through __________.

A) covalent bonding B) hydrogen bonding C) adhesive bonding D) cohesive bonding

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13. Water molecules attach to each other through __________.

A) covalent bonding B) hydrogen bonding C) adhesive bonding D) cohesive bonding

14. Which is not one of the special properties of water?

A) ice floats B) water has a high specific heat C) water is the universal solvent D) water erodes continents

15. How many calories are required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water from 30 degrees to 31 degrees Celsius?

A) 1 B) 100 C) 541 D) 800

16. How many calories are required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water from 100 degrees to 101 degrees Celsius?

A) 1 B) 100 C) 541 D) 800

17. Which does not occur as water changes phase from liquid to vapor?

A) evaporation B) absorption of heat C) a phase change D) warming of the surrounding environment

18. The process of the latent heat of evaporation requires __________ calories than the latent heat of vaporization.

A) less B) more C) about the same D) Neither requires calories to occur.

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19. During evaporation, for every gram of water about __________ calories are absorbed from the surrounding environment.

A) 200 B) 400 C) 600 D) 800

20. During condensation, for every gram of water about ___________ calories are released to the surrounding environment.

A) 200 B) 400 C) 600 D) 800

21. When the air's water-vapor content is equal to the air's vapor capacity the air is __________.

A) saturated B) humid C) getting warmer D) getting cooler

22. Atmospheric humidity is measured with a __________.

A) barometer B) thermometer C) hygrometer D) altimeter

23. Which location typically has the highest specific humidity?

A) at high latitudes over water B) at high latitudes over land C) in the tropics over land D) in the tropics over water

24. Globally, evaporation accounts for __________ percent of water vapor in the atmosphere.

A) 50 B) 65 C) 75 D) 85

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25. Plants move water vapor to the atmosphere through __________.

A) evaporation B) transpiration C) condensation D) sublimation

26. Globally, transpiration accounts for __________ percent of water vapor in the atmosphere.

A) 15 B) 25 C) 36 D) 50

27. The __________ is the temperature that it feels like to a person when the air is hot and there is a high humidity.

A) ITCZ B) saturation vapor pressure C) heat-index temperature D) unofficial temperature

28. Each year in the United States, about __________ people lose their lives because of heat waves.

A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 500

29. During the 1995 heat wave in the Chicago and Milwaukee areas, more than __________ people lost their lives.

A) 100 B) 300 C) 500 D) 700

30. During the August 2003 heat wave, about __________ people in Europe lost their lives.

A) 10,000 B) 30,000 C) 50,000 D) 70,000

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31. The vapor pressure at which saturation occurs is called the __________.

A) dew-point temperature B) saturation vapor pressure C) vapor pressure D) relative humidity

32. Warm air has a(n) __________ vapor pressure than cold air.

A) lower B) higher C) identical D) Temperature does not change vapor pressure.

33. Warm air has a(n) __________ saturation vapor pressure than cold air.

A) lower B) higher C) identical D) Temperature does not change saturation vapor pressure.

34. For every 10 degrees Celsius increase in air temperature, saturation vapor pressure __________.

A) decreases by half B) doubles C) does not change D) changes in different ways

35. __________ expresses humidity in grams of water per kilogram of air.

A) Specific humidity B) Dew-point temperature C) Vapor pressure D) Relative humidity

36. __________ expresses humidity as a percent.

A) Specific humidity B) Dew-point temperature C) Vapor pressure D) Relative humidity

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37. Which will occur least when the relative humidity is 100 percent?

A) saturation B) condensation C) the release of latent heat D) evaporation

38. What is the relative humidity for a parcel of air with 6 millibars vapor pressure and 30 millibars saturation vapor pressure?

A) 20 percent B) 30 percent C) 40 percent D) 50 percent

39. Where in the United States are dew-point temperatures typically highest?

A) in the southeast B) in the southwest C) in the northwest D) in the northeast

40. Which U.S. state most likely has the highest specific humidity at any given time?

A) Nevada B) North Dakota C) Georgia D) Maine

41. Dew-point temperatures above __________ degrees Celsius are uncomfortable to people.

A) 15 B) 20 C) 25 D) 30

42. Which will not change the dew-point temperature?

A) an increase in air temperature B) a change in specific humidity C) a change in vapor pressure D) evaporation

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43. Which is likely to occur when the dew-point temperature is below freezing?

A) saturation B) dew C) frost D) evaporation

Use the following to answer questions 44-45:

44. According to this graph, what is the saturation vapor pressure for air that is 30 degrees Celsius?

A) 10 millibars B) 20 millibars C) 30 millibars D) 40 millibars

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45. Which statement best describes the relationship between air temperature and saturation vapor pressure?

A) As air temperature increases, saturation vapor pressure increases linearly.

B) As air temperature increases, saturation vapor pressure increases exponentially.

C) As air temperature increases, saturation vapor pressure decreases linearly.

D) As air temperature increases, saturation vapor pressure decreases exponentially.

Use the following to answer question 46:

46. Finish this sentence: On the surface of this glass of water __________.

A) there is net condensation B) there is net evaporation C) condensation and evaporation are equal D) the relative humidity is below 100 percent

47. When an air parcel rises it __________.

A) expands and cools B) expands and warms C) compresses and cools D) compresses and warms

48. When an air parcel sinks it __________.

A) expands and cools B) expands and warms C) compresses and cools D) compresses and warms

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49. The dry adiabatic rate of temperature change for an unsaturated air parcel is __________.

A) 3.5 degrees Celsius per 1,000 meters B) 6.5 degrees Celsius per 1,000 meters C) 10 degrees Celsius per 1,000 meters D) 12 degrees Celsius per 1,000 meters

50. As an air parcel's temperature decreases, the relative humidity within the parcel __________.

A) decreases B) increases C) remains unchanged D) exceeds 100 percent

51. In rising air parcels, clouds form at the __________.

A) lifting condensation level B) vapor pressure level C) convergent level D) cumulonimbus level

52. Which statement is not true about the LCL (lifting condensation level)?

A) Below the LCL the air temperature is greater than the dew-point temperature.

B) The relative humidity is 100 percent at the LCL. C) The vapor pressure is equal to the saturation vapor pressure above the LCL. D) Evaporation exceeds condensation above the LCL.

53. The moist adiabatic rate of cooling is different from the dry adiabatic rate of cooling because of __________.

A) the release of latent heat within a cloud B) the absorption of heat from the surrounding air C) evaporation within a cloud D) ground surface heating

54. The moist adiabatic rate of cooling is usually about __________ degrees Celsius per 1,000 meters.

A) 3 B) 6 C) 9 D) 12

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55. A conditionally unstable atmosphere mainly occurs when __________.

A) an air parcel temperature is lower than the surrounding air B) an air parcel temperature is higher than the surrounding air C) an air parcel is unsaturated near the ground and saturated higher up D) an air parcel temperature is equal to the surrounding air near the ground

56. The temperature in a parcel of air is 30 degrees Celsius at sea level. How high will this unsaturated air parcel have to rise to reach 10 degrees Celsius?

A) 1,000 meters B) 2,000 meters C) 3,000 meters D) 4,000 meters

57. The temperature in a parcel of air is 30 degrees Celsius at sea level and it has a dew-point temperature of 0 degrees Celsius. How high will this unsaturated air parcel have to rise to become saturated?

A) 1,000 meters B) 2,000 meters C) 3,000 meters D) 4,000 meters

58. Continuing with the previous question, assume the air parcel has a moist adiabatic rate of 5 degrees Celsius per 1,000 meters. What will the temperature of the air parcel be at 6,000 meters altitude?

A) -5 degrees Celsius B) -10 degrees Celsius C) -15 degrees Celsius D) -30 degrees Celsius

59. The temperature in a parcel of air is -20 degrees Celsius at 4,000 meters altitude. What will its temperature be if it descends to sea level?

A) 0 degrees Celsius B) -10 degrees Celsius C) 10 degrees Celsius D) 20 degrees Celsius

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60. __________ occurs when air masses lift air.

A) Convective uplift B) Orographic uplift C) Frontal uplift D) Convergent uplift

61. __________ occurs when air moves over mountains.

A) Convective uplift B) Orographic uplift C) Frontal uplift D) Convergent uplift

62. __________ occurs when heated air parcels rise in the atmosphere.

A) Convective uplift B) Orographic uplift C) Frontal uplift D) Convergent uplift

Use the following to answer questions 63-64:

63. For location A, at 3,000 meters the air is __________.

A) stable B) unstable C) neither stable nor unstable D) saturated

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64. For location B, at 2,000 meters the air is __________.

A) stable B) unstable C) neither stable nor unstable D) saturated

65. Which cloud type is associated with severe weather?

A) cumulus B) cumulonimbus C) nimbostratus D) cirrus

66. Stratus clouds form below __________ meters altitude.

A) 2,000 B) 3,000 C) 7,000 D) 10,000

67. Alto clouds form above __________ meters altitude.

A) 2,000 B) 3,000 C) 7,000 D) 10,000

68. Cirrus clouds form above __________ meters altitude.

A) 2,000 B) 3,000 C) 7,000 D) 10,000

69. __________ clouds are wispy and thin.

A) Cirrus B) Cirrostratus C) Altostratus D) Stratus

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70. __________ clouds obscure the Sun and make the whole sky gray.

A) Cirrus B) Cirrostratus C) Altostratus D) Stratus

71. __________ clouds create a halo around the Sun or Moon.

A) Cirrus B) Cirrostratus C) Altostratus D) Stratus

72. __________ are mid-level sheets that partially obscure the Sun. A) Cirrus B) Cirrostratus C) Altostratus D) Stratus

73. Radiation fog forms when __________.

A) the ground cools the air above B) air moves downslope in mountains C) air moves over a cold surface like an ocean D) air flows offshore in coastal areas

74. Advection fog forms when __________.

A) the ground cools the air above B) air moves downslope in mountains C) air moves over a cold surface like an ocean D) air flows offshore in coastal areas

75. Which sequence presents the process of collision and coalescence in the right order?

A) cloud droplets—collision and coalescence—condensation nuclei—raindrops B) condensation nuclei—collision and coalescence—cloud droplets—raindrops C) condensation nuclei—cloud droplets—collision and coalescence—raindrops D) collision and coalescence—condensation nuclei—cloud droplets—raindrops

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76. The collision and coalescence process occurs in __________ clouds.

A) warm B) cold C) mixed D) various

77. The ice crystal process occurs in __________ clouds.

A) warm B) cold C) mixed D) various

78. Which scenario would be most likely to make sleet?

A) below-freezing temperatures from cloud to ground B) above-freezing temperatures from cloud to ground C) rain falling through a thin layer of below-freezing air near the ground D) rain falling through a deep layer of below-freezing air near the ground

79. Which scenario would be most likely to make freezing rain?

A) below-freezing temperatures from cloud to ground B) above-freezing temperatures from cloud to ground C) rain falling through a shallow layer of below-freezing air near the ground D) rain falling through a deep layer of below-freezing air near the ground

80. Which scenario would be most likely to make snow?

A) below-freezing temperatures from cloud to ground B) above-freezing temperatures from cloud to ground C) rain falling through a shallow layer of below-freezing air near the ground D) rain falling through a deep layer of below-freezing air near the ground

81. Which scenario would be most likely to make rain?

A) below-freezing temperatures from cloud to ground B) above-freezing temperatures from cloud to ground C) rain falling through a shallow layer of below-freezing air near the ground D) rain falling through a deep layer of below-freezing air near the ground

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82. The largest official hailstone was the size of a __________.

A) golf ball B) baseball C) softball D) bowling ball

83. A negative feedback system causes a system to become __________.

A) destabilized B) stabilized C) stronger D) weaker

84. A positive feedback system causes a system to become __________.

A) destabilized B) stabilized C) stronger D) weaker

85. How would the temperature at the surface of Earth likely respond if there were more stratus clouds?

A) It would warm.

B) It would cool.

C) It would not change.

D) It is unknown what would happen.

86. How would the temperature at the surface of Earth likely respond if there were fewer tropical cirrus clouds?

A) It would warm.

B) It would cool.

C) It would not change.

D) It is unknown what would happen.

87. How would the temperature at the surface of Earth likely respond if there were more midlatitude cirrus clouds?

A) It would warm.

B) It would cool.

C) It would not change.

D) It is unknown what would happen.

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88. Water levels in some of the Great Lakes are lowering because evaporation is increasing.

A) True B) False

89. Decreased snow cover due to warmer winters is also enhancing evaporation from the Great Lakes.

A) True B) False

90. Water weighs 1 kilogram per liter or 8.3 pounds per gallon.

A) True B) False

91. Precipitation includes solid or liquid water that falls from clouds to the ground.

A) True B) False

92. Water moves through Earth's physical systems in the carbon cycle.

A) True B) False

93. Cloud droplets remain suspended in the atmosphere because they are too light to fall to the ground.

A) True B) False

94. Clouds are made of water vapor.

A) True B) False

95. Over most of the oceans, evaporation exceeds precipitation.

A) True B) False

96. Ice has fewer hydrogen bonds than liquid.

A) True B) False

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97. Ice is less dense than liquid water.

A) True B) False

98. Sensible heat changes the temperature of a substance. Latent heat does not.

A) True B) False

99. The latent heat of melting is the energy that is used to evaporate liquid.

A) True B) False

100. The latent heat of evaporation occurs in natural outdoor settings where the temperature of water is well below 100 degrees Celsius.

A) True B) False

101. Up to 600 calories per gram of water are absorbed from the environment during evaporation.

A) True B) False

102. Evaporation cools the environment. Condensation warms the environment.

A) True B) False

103. Clouds form only in environments of net evaporation.

A) True B) False

104. Condensation raises atmospheric humidity.

A) True B) False

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105. The average sea-level air pressure is 1013.25 millibars.

A) True B) False

106. Vapor pressure expresses the water-vapor content of the air by how much pressure in millibars the water vapor exerts.

A) True B) False

107. Air temperature and relative humidity are inversely related.

A) True B) False

108. Relative humidity indicates the actual water vapor content of the air.

A) True B) False

109. For most locations, specific humidity increases at night.

A) True B) False

110. An air parcel is a body of air with uniform humidity and temperature.

A) True B) False

111. Polar air has a high relative humidity because the air is humid.

A) True B) False

112. Tropical air has a high relative humidity because the air is humid.

A) True B) False

113. Evaporation of water into the atmosphere can saturate the air.

A) True B) False

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114. The dew-point temperature is the temperature at which the air becomes saturated.

A) True B) False

115. Air with a high dew-point temperature has a lower specific humidity than air with a low dew-point temperature.

A) True B) False

116. Air with a high dew-point temperature has a higher vapor pressure than air with a low dew-point temperature.

A) True B) False

117. When an air parcel is cooler than the surrounding environment it is unstable.

A) True B) False

118. Adiabatic temperature changes occur inside a parcel of air.

A) True B) False

119. The moist adiabatic lapse rate is always greater (faster) than the dry adiabatic lapse rate.

A) True B) False

120. The moist rate of adiabatic cooling varies depending on how much water vapor is condensing to liquid.

A) True B) False

121. The more water vapor that condenses, the slower the rate of moist adiabatic cooling will occur.

A) True B) False

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122. The leeward side of a mountain range is often warmer and drier than the windward side.

A) True B) False

123. Rain shadows occur in moist coastal areas.

A) True B) False

124. All clouds take three basic forms: stratiform, cumuliform, and cirriform.

A) True B) False

125. A jet contrail is a naturally forming cloud.

A) True B) False

126. Cirrus clouds are composed entirely of ice crystals.

A) True B) False

127. Stratocumulus clouds bring rain.

A) True B) False

128. Heavy rains are made by cumulonimbus.

A) True B) False

129. Fog is a type of alto cloud.

A) True B) False

130. Radiation fog forms mainly over mountains.

A) True B) False

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131. Fog over the ocean is always advection fog.

A) True B) False

132. Cloud droplets form around condensation nuclei.

A) True B) False

133. Ice nuclei are required for the formation of snowflakes.

A) True B) False

134. In a snow gauge, 10 centimeters of snow usually melts into about 5 centimeters of liquid water.

A) True B) False

135. Satellites can measure precipitation by taking direct samples.

A) True B) False

136. Hailstones start as graupel and grow larger the longer the hail is suspended in a cloud.

A) True B) False

137. Only nimbostratus make hail.

A) True B) False

138. As the atmosphere warms from anthropogenic climate change, scientists are certain that there will be more cloud cover.

A) True B) False

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139. Cloud negative forcing causes cooling of the atmosphere. Cloud positive forcing causes warming of the atmosphere.

A) True B) False

140. Cirrus clouds can cause both positive and negative feedbacks in the climate system.

A) True B) False

141. Currently, clouds cause net cooling worldwide.

A) True B) False

142. If the Sun stopped shining would there still be a hydrologic cycle?

143. How is radiation fog a hazard for people?

144. Why does a cold drink become wet with water on the outside of the container?

145. Why does hail have such a big financial impact?

146. Why is the water level of some of the Great Lakes lowering? What factors are behind this trend? How is this trend economically significant?

147. Explain how a thunderstorm that can weigh many hundreds of tons or more remains suspended in the atmosphere.

148. Why does “steam” form over water bodies at certain times? Explain this in terms of the relative temperatures of the water and air, and in terms of the atmospheric humidity.

149. Why are clouds so important to predicting how Earth's temperature will change in the coming decades?

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Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. D 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. C 21. A 22. C 23. D 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. C 29. D 30. D 31. B 32. D 33. B 34. B 35. A 36. D 37. D 38. A 39. A 40. C 41. B 42. A 43. C 44. D

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45. B 46. A 47. A 48. D 49. C 50. B 51. A 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. C 56. B 57. C 58. C 59. D 60. C 61. B 62. A 63. B 64. A 65. B 66. A 67. A 68. C 69. A 70. D 71. B 72. C 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. A 77. B 78. D 79. C 80. A 81. B 82. D 83. B 84. A 85. B 86. B 87. A 88. A 89. A 90. A

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91. A 92. B 93. A 94. B 95. A 96. B 97. A 98. A 99. B 100. A 101. A 102. A 103. B 104. B 105. A 106. A 107. A 108. B 109. B 110. A 111. B 112. A 113. A 114. A 115. B 116. A 117. B 118. A 119. B 120. A 121. A 122. A 123. B 124. A 125. B 126. A 127. B 128. A 129. B 130. B 131. A 132. A 133. A 134. B 135. B 136. A

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137. B 138. B 139. A 140. A 141. A 142. The hydrologic cycle relies on evaporation of water off the oceans. Without solar energy there would be no evaporation and there would be no hydrologic cycle.

143. It reduces visibility on highways and airports. It often causes car pileups on busy highways and roads.

144. The container's surface temperature is lowered. This lowers the temperature of the air surrounding the container. If the air temperature is lowered to the dew-point temperature, condensation on the container occurs.

145. It damages buildings and cars. But more importantly, it pits and damages crops.

146. The most important factor causing the lowering of the level of some of the Great Lakes is increased evaporation in the area. Evaporation has increased with warmer temperatures, but stream inflow from rainfall has remained steady. The lake level is the result of water inputs from streams and water outputs from outflow streams and evaporation. Also, warmer temperatures have decreased the ice cover on the lakes. Ice inhibits evaporation. With less ice there is more evaporation. The Great Lakes are a transportation hub and help support a $34 billion shipping industry. Lowered lake levels force ships to carry less so they float higher and can navigate shallow locks and gates that connect the lakes.

147. The water in a thunderstorm exists as water vapor and as very small liquid cloud droplets. The liquid cloud droplets easily remain suspended in the air by updrafts. As they collide and coalesce, however, their weight increases and they may eventually fall to the ground as a raindrop. So in a way, a cloud is not a single, heavy object. Instead, it is an incredibly large number of microscopic cloud droplets that are suspended in the air.

148. When warm water evaporates into cold air, the water-vapor capacity of the air is low because it is cold. So the evaporation may raise the vapor pressure to the saturation vapor pressure, creating 100 percent relative humidity and saturation. This is one way to form steam fog. Another way it may form is when cold water chills warm and humid air just above it to the dew-point temperature. This creates condensation and steam fog as well.

149. Clouds are very important because they create forcings that cause temperature to trend one direction or another. They also create feedbacks, in which the cloud causes changes in the temperature, and these changes cause more changes in the clouds. Positive feedbacks can cause instability, such as creating a warming or cooling trend. Negative feedbacks can create stability by counteracting any warming or cooling trends.

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Chapter 4- Atmospheric Circulation

1. The fastest wind officially recorded was measured in a __________.

A) hurricane B) tornado C) midlatitude storm system D) sea breeze

2. A knot is equal to __________ kilometers per hour.

A) 1.86 B) 2 C) 2.5 D) 3

3. A(n) __________ measures wind speed only.

A) aerovane B) anemometer C) wind vane D) altimeter

4. A(n) __________ measures wind direction only.

A) aerovane B) anemometer C) wind vane D) altimeter

5. A(n) __________ measures both wind speed and wind direction.

A) aerovane B) anemometer C) wind vane D) altimeter

6. On the Beaufort wind force scale, which would a light breeze be ranked?

A) 2-3 B) 4-5 C) 8-9 D) 12 or more

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7. On the Beaufort wind force scale, which would a hurricane be ranked?

A) 2-3 B) 4-5 C) 8-9 D) 12 or more

8. On the Beaufort wind force scale, which category is gale force?

A) 2-3 B) 4-5 C) 8-9 D) 12 or more

9. A wind rose portrays __________.

A) the prevailing wind direction B) wind speed C) the pressure gradient for any given time D) wind altitude

10. A wind barb shows __________.

A) wind speed B) wind direction C) wind speed and direction D) prevailing winds

11. A wind barb with one solid triangle and one full barb shows a wind speed of __________ knots.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80

12. __________ are disconnected arrows that show the direction and speed of the wind.

A) Wind barbs B) Wind vectors C) Streamlines D) Wind vanes

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13. __________ are continuous arrows that show the direction and speed of the wind.

A) Wind barbs B) Wind vectors C) Streamlines D) Wind vanes

14. Which instrument measures atmospheric pressure?

A) thermometer B) barometer C) altimeter D) anemometer

15. Oxygen levels are too low for human survival above __________ meters elevation.

A) 6,000 B) 7,000 C) 8,000 D) 9,000

16. The most important factor determining wind speed and direction is __________.

A) Coriolis force B) pressure-gradient force C) friction force D) thermal pressure

17. An area with uniform air density and pressure will have __________.

A) strong wind B) moderate wind C) weak wind D) no wind

18. In order to adjust station pressure to sea-level pressure, about __________ millibars must be added for every 100 meters increase in elevation.

A) 10 B) 12 C) 15 D) 18

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19. The direction of the pressure gradient runs __________ to isobars.

A) parallel B) perpendicular C) at an angle D) over

20. When isobars are close together, the pressure gradient __________.

A) increases B) decreases C) does not change D) Isobars have no relationship to the pressure gradient.

21. When isobars are close together, the wind speed __________.

A) increases B) decreases C) does not change D) Isobars have no relationship to wind speed.

22. Coriolis force is caused by __________.

A) the geographic grid B) the pressure-gradient force C) friction force D) Earth's rotation

23. In the Northern Hemisphere, Coriolis force deflects objects __________.

A) up B) down C) right D) left

24. Which location has the strongest Coriolis deflection?

A) Panama B) Texas C) North Dakota D) the Yukon Territory

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25. Which location has the weakest Coriolis deflection?

A) Ecuador B) Mexico C) the United States D) northern Canada

26. The __________ is/are where wind is slowed by friction with Earth's surface.

A) subpolar low B) westerlies C) boundary layer D) doldrums

27. Which is not found in a cyclone?

A) surface-level converging air flow B) divergence aloft C) a rising central air column D) clockwise rotation in the Northern Hemisphere

28. Which is not found in an anticyclone?

A) convergence aloft B) surface-level diverging air flow C) a rising central air column D) clockwise rotation in the Northern Hemisphere

29. The global pressure belt called the __________ is found centered on about 30 degrees latitude north and south.

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

30. The global pressure belt called the __________ is found centered on about 90 degrees north and south.

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

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31. The global pressure system called the __________ is found centered on the equator.

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

32. The global pressure system called the __________ is found centered on about 60 degrees latitude north and south.

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

33. Which is best characterized as warm and rainy?

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

34. Which is best characterized as cold and dry?

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

35. Which is best characterized as cold and wet?

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

36. Which is best characterized as warm and dry?

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

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37. Thermal pressure creates which of the following?

A) the ITCZ and the subtropical high B) the ITCZ and the polar high C) the subtropical high and the subpolar low D) the subpolar low and the polar high

38. Dynamic pressure creates which of the following?

A) the ITCZ and the subtropical high B) the ITCZ and the polar high C) the subtropical high and the subpolar low D) the subpolar low and the polar high

39. Between 0 and 30 degrees north latitude the __________ occur.

A) northeasterly trade winds B) southeasterly trade winds C) westerlies D) polar easterlies

40. Between 60 and 90 degrees latitude north and south the __________ occur.

A) northeasterly trade winds B) southeasterly trade winds C) westerlies D) polar easterlies

41. Between 30 and 60 degrees latitude north and south the __________ occur.

A) northeasterly trade winds B) southeasterly trade winds C) westerlies D) polar easterlies

42. Between 0 and 30 degrees south latitude the __________ occur.

A) northeasterly trade winds B) southeasterly trade winds C) westerlies D) polar easterlies

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43. Which wind system would assist with sailing from Virginia to Portugal?

A) the trade winds B) the westerlies C) the horse latitudes D) the polar easterlies

44. Which wind system would assist with sailing from Mexico to Vietnam?

A) the trade winds B) the westerlies C) the horse latitudes D) the polar easterlies

45. Which is a windless region found near 30 degrees latitude north and south?

A) the doldrums B) the horse latitudes C) the subtropical high D) the boundary layer

46. Which is a windless region found near the equator?

A) the doldrums B) the horse latitudes C) the subtropical high D) the boundary layer

47. The polar jet stream is found __________ meters altitude.

A) at 1,000 to 4,000 B) at 4,000 to 7,000 C) at 7,000 to 12,000 D) above 12,000

48. Maximum polar jet stream winds can exceed __________ kilometers per hour.

A) 200 B) 250 C) 300 D) 400

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49. The subtropical jet stream is centered on about __________ degrees latitude north and south.

A) 30 B) 45 C) 60 D) 70

50. __________ are curves in the geostrophic winds.

A) Santa Ana winds B) Polar jet streams C) Rossby waves D) katabatic winds

51. The ITCZ is farthest north in __________.

A) January B) March C) July D) September

52. Semipermanent pressure systems are caused by __________.

A) oceans B) landmasses C) mountains D) upper level winds

53. The East Coast is wetter than the West Coast because of the influence of __________.

A) anticyclones B) cyclones C) upper level winds D) Rossby waves

54. The Aleutian low semipermanent pressure system is part of the __________.

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

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55. The Siberian high is caused by __________.

A) heating of the Eurasian landmass B) the polar high C) cooling of the Eurasian landmass D) the subtropical high

56. In July in the Northern Hemisphere, the subtropical high __________.

A) strengthens B) weakens C) remains unchanged D) moves over land

57. In January, the ITCZ __________.

A) strengthens B) weakens C) is mostly in the Northern Hemisphere D) is mostly in the Southern Hemisphere

Use the following to answer question 58:

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58. Why is the ITCZ, shown in this figure, restricted almost entirely to the tropics?

A) because the tropics are always warm B) because Earth's distance from the Sun varies C) because it follows the latitude of the subsolar point D) because the tropics are mostly wet

Use the following to answer questions 59-61:

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59. Referring to the figure, what is the main control of precipitation for the equator?

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

60. Referring to the figure, what is the main control of precipitation for the Sahara?

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

61. Referring to the figure, what is the main control of precipitation for 60 degrees north latitude?

A) ITCZ B) subtropical high C) subpolar low D) polar high

62. Which generates sea breezes?

A) inland heating of the land B) inland cooling of the land C) upper-level winds D) anticyclones

63. A __________ is a seasonal reversal of winds.

A) katabatic wind B) monsoon C) sea and land breeze D) chinook wind

64. Which is not one of the synoptic controls of the Asian monsoon?

A) movement of the ITCZ B) strength of the subpolar low C) orographic lifting D) onshore flow from summer heating

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65. The officially recognized wettest place on Earth is __________.

A) Cherrapunji, India B) Lloró, Colombia C) Mount Waialeale, Hawai'i D) Mawsynram, India

66. In terms of how it forms, the Asian monsoon is most similar to what other wind system?

A) Santa Ana winds B) katabatic winds C) foehn winds D) sea and land breezes

67. What do valley and mountain breezes, chinook and foehn winds, Santa Ana winds, and katabatic winds all have in common?

A) They form by heating of landmasses.

B) They form in the tropics.

C) They all occur in sloped terrain.

D) They are all strongest in summer.

68. What effect will stronger daytime heating normally have on valley breezes?

A) It will make them stronger.

B) It will make them weaker.

C) It will have no effect on them.

D) It will make them cease altogether.

69. What effect will warmer nighttime temperatures normally have on mountain breezes?

A) It will make them stronger.

B) It will make them weaker.

C) It will have no effect on them.

D) It will make them cease altogether.

70. Why is the leeward side of most mountain ranges often warmer than the windward side?

A) because wind is cold B) because latent heat is released on the windward side C) because the leeward side is a lower elevation than the windward side D) because latent heat is released on the leeward side

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71. The biggest threat from Santa Ana winds is __________.

A) wind damage B) dust storms C) drought D) fire

72. Santa Ana winds form when __________.

A) high pressure is over the Great Basin and low pressure is over Southern California B) low pressure is over the Great Basin and high pressure is over Southern California C) upper-level winds reverse D) a Rossby wave moves over Southern California

73. Katabatic winds are also called __________.

A) Santa Ana winds B) foehn winds C) gravity winds D) monsoon winds

74. Katabatic winds form from __________.

A) a seasonal reversal B) cold and heavy air C) nighttime cooling of landmasses D) adiabatic heating

75. Which country is currently the leader in wind-power capacity?

A) India B) China C) the United States D) Germany

76. By 2020 about __________ of the world's energy supply will come from wind.

A) 10 percent B) 20 percent C) 30 percent D) 40 percent

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77. The United States has the goal of meeting __________ of electrical demand through wind power by 2030.

A) 10 percent B) 20 percent C) 30 percent D) 40 percent

78. Which wind systems are most prevalent in the United States?

A) westerlies B) trade winds C) mountain winds D) katabatic winds

79. Which wind systems are most prevalent in northern Europe?

A) westerlies B) trade winds C) polar easterlies D) katabatic winds

80. Which wind systems are most prevalent in northwestern Africa?

A) westerlies B) trade winds C) polar easterlies D) katabatic winds

81. Most of the wind energy in the United States is where?

A) along the coastlines B) in the Great Plains C) in the deserts D) on the East Coast

82. Which results in the lowest number of bird kills?

A) outdoor house cats B) agricultural pesticides C) wind turbines D) automobiles

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83. Desertification is both a natural process and an anthropogenic process.

A) True B) False

84. Dust storms are natural, but they are becoming more frequent because of human activities.

A) True B) False

85. The wind blows because the Sun shines.

A) True B) False

86. The fastest winds ever recorded were the result of the release of latent heat energy.

A) True B) False

87. The Beaufort wind force scale ranks winds based on measured wind speed.

A) True B) False

88. A north wind can also be called a 0 degree wind.

A) True B) False

89. A 90 degree wind can also be called an east wind.

A) True B) False

90. Onshore winds are always east winds.

A) True B) False

91. High pressure is generally associated with fair weather.

A) True B) False

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92. Dynamic pressure is caused by heating or cooling of air.

A) True B) False

93. Air always flows from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure.

A) True B) False

94. Station pressure is a raw pressure measurement that has not been adjusted to sea level.

A) True B) False

95. Coriolis force determines the direction water spirals down a sink.

A) True B) False

96. There is more friction over mountains than over the oceans.

A) True B) False

97. Isobars show wind direction.

A) True B) False

98. A hurricane is a cyclonic system.

A) True B) False

99. In the Southern Hemisphere, cyclones rotate counterclockwise.

A) True B) False

100. Upper-level winds are slower than surface winds.

A) True B) False

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101. Upper-level winds are above the boundary layer.

A) True B) False

102. In the Northern Hemisphere, the Hadley cell is bordered by the ITCZ to the south and the subtropical high to the north.

A) True B) False

103. The Empty Quarter is caused by the ITCZ. A) True B) False

104. Geostrophic winds do not cross isobars.

A) True B) False

105. The ITCZ generally occurs where the rays of the Sun are perpendicular to Earth's surface.

A) True B) False

106. As a general trend, the influence of the ITCZ becomes stronger farther away from the equator.

A) True B) False

107. All global pressure belt systems generally move north in July and south in January.

A) True B) False

108. The polar jet stream is weakest in winter.

A) True B) False

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109. Troughs are usually associated with stormy weather and ridges are usually associated with fair weather.

A) True B) False

110. During winter, landmasses develop high-pressure systems. During summer, they develop low-pressure systems.

A) True B) False

111. Microscale meteorological systems occur over a distance of 2 kilometers or less.

A) True B) False

112. Mesoscale meteorological systems occur over several thousand kilometers.

A) True B) False

113. Synoptic-scale systems have longer durations than mesoscale systems.

A) True B) False

114. Land breezes occur during the day.

A) True B) False

115. Generally, warmer days should create a stronger sea breeze.

A) True B) False

116. The winter portion of a monsoon system brings precipitation.

A) True B) False

117. Valley breezes blow from high elevations to lower elevations.

A) True B) False

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118. Chinook winds occur on the leeward side of the Rocky Mountains.

A) True B) False

119. Renewable energies such as solar and wind eventually run out.

A) True B) False

120. Hydrogen fuel cells are one way to store wind energy.

A) True B) False

121. Wind energy can also be stored in the ground as compressed air or even in reservoirs of water.

A) True B) False

122. NIMBY stands for Not In My Back Yard.

A) True B) False

123. What human activities and natural factors are contributing to desertification in western China?

124. Atmospheric pressure is always lower in mountains than in surrounding lowlands. Why, then, doesn't the wind always blow upslope to high elevations?

125. Would it be reasonable to assume that a warmer atmosphere could lead to a stronger Asian monsoon?

126. Why might we expect Mawsynram, India, the wettest place on Earth, to be arid?

127. What are the major hurdles to developing wind energy in the United States?

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128. What are Wumps and NIMBYs in the context of wind energy development?

129. If you owned a home overlooking the ocean, would you oppose or support a commercial-scale offshore wind turbine project that you could see from your house?

Explain.

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Answer Key 1. A 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. D 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. C 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. A 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. D 31. A 32. C 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. B 37. B 38. C 39. A 40. D 41. C 42. B 43. B 44. A

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45. B 46. A 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. C 51. C 52. B 53. A 54. C 55. C 56. A 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. B 61. C 62. A 63. B 64. B 65. D 66. D 67. C 68. A 69. B 70. B 71. D 72. A 73. C 74. B 75. B 76. A 77. B 78. A 79. A 80. B 81. B 82. C 83. A 84. A 85. A 86. A 87. B 88. B 89. A 90. B

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91. A 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. B 96. A 97. B 98. A 99. B 100. B 101. A 102. A 103. B 104. A 105. A 106. B 107. A 108. B 109. A 110. A 111. A 112. B 113. A 114. B 115. A 116. B 117. B 118. A 119. B 120. A 121. A 122. A 123. Excessive plowing of arid lands and overgrazing by sheep and goats contributed to desertification there. Also, an increasing number of natural droughts are to blame for the growing number of dust storms there.

124. Because gravity is also pulling the wind down. Gravity prevents the atmosphere from flowing upslope.

125. Yes, it would be a reasonable assumption. Increased land heating would strengthen onshore flow and potentially strengthen the ITCZ. A warmer atmosphere will also have a higher water-capacity and evaporate more water from the Indian Ocean, leading to potentially more rainfall.

126. The city is located at 25 degrees north latitude where the subtropical high influence is strong.

127. Wind energy must be converted to electricity. Electrical energy must be moved from where it is generated to where it is in demand. The electricity must be available during peak demand times. Environmental problems remain that must be solved.

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128. Wumps refers to the sound that wind turbines sometimes make. These noises bother people who live near wind turbines. This problem can be addressed by changing the pitch of the rotor blade. NIMBY refers to people who do not want wind energy or any other human land use that diminishes the real or perceived value of their property.

129. Answers will vary. One side may say they support it for the greater good. The other side may say it's not worth the personal sacrifice.

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Chapter 5- The Restless Sky

1. How many EF5 tornadoes have been recorded in the United States in the last 60 years?

A) 40 B) 50 C) 60 D) 70

2. A multicell thunderstorm is an example of a __________ event.

A) microscale B) mesoscale C) synoptic-scale D) global-scale

3. A hurricane is an example of a __________ event.

A) microscale B) mesoscale C) synoptic-scale D) global-scale

4. A single-cell thunderstorm is an example of a __________ event.

A) microscale B) mesoscale C) synoptic-scale D) global-scale

5. A supercell thunderstorm is an example of a __________ event.

A) microscale B) mesoscale C) synoptic-scale D) global-scale

6. A midlatitude cyclone is an example of a __________ event.

A) microscale B) mesoscale C) synoptic-scale D) global-scale

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7. Which events have the greatest duration?

A) microscale events B) mesoscale events C) synoptic-scale events D) global-scale events

8. Which events have the shortest duration?

A) microscale events B) mesoscale events C) synoptic-scale events D) global-scale events

9. Each day there are about __________ thunderstorms worldwide.

A) 10,000 B) 20,000 C) 30,000 D) 40,000

10. Which state has the most thunderstorms?

A) California B) Florida C) Colorado D) Mississippi

11. Which state has the fewest thunderstorms?

A) California B) Florida C) Colorado D) Mississippi

12. Which region has the greatest number of thunderstorms?

A) equatorial Africa B) equatorial South America C) the foothills of the Himalayas D) Indonesia

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13. There is a region of high thunderstorm activity in Colorado because of __________.

A) the Great Plains B) the warm Gulf of Mexico C) the Rocky Mountains D) the cold Pacific Ocean

14. The western states have few thunderstorms because of __________.

A) the Great Plains B) the warm Gulf of Mexico C) the Rocky Mountains D) the cold Pacific Ocean

15. Which air mass will form over a warm ocean?

A) mT B) cT C) mP D) cP

16. Which air mass will form over a cool ocean?

A) mT B) cT C) mP D) cP

17. Which air mass will form over a warm continent?

A) mT B) cT C) mP D) cP

18. Which air mass will form over a cold continent?

A) mT B) cT C) mP D) cP

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19. Which sequence is the correct order of single-cell thunderstorm development?

A) mature—cumulus—dissipating B) cumulus—mature—dissipating C) dissipating—cumulus—mature D) cumulus—dissipating—mature

20. About how long do single-cell thunderstorms typically last?

A) 1 hour B) 2 hours C) 4 hours D) 6 hours

21. Which is not one of the criteria used to determine whether a thunderstorm is severe or not?

A) hail size B) tornado presence C) wind speed D) lightning frequency

22. About __________ percent of the thunderstorms in the United States are severe.

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40

23. Individual thunderstorms in a multicell system persist for about __________ hour(s).

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 6

24. Which setting is least likely to form a multicell thunderstorm?

A) squall lines B) mesoscale convective systems C) within the interior of air masses D) on the boundary of air masses

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25. A derecho is formed when a gust front has 93 kilometers per hour winds or greater and is __________ kilometers in length.

A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400

26. __________ is the most common form of lightning.

A) Cloud-to-cloud B) Cloud-to-ground C) Heat lightning D) Nighttime lightning

27. A __________ is sand that has been fused by lightning.

A) derecho B) fulgurite C) thermocline D) squall line

28. About __________ people are struck by lightning each year in the United States.

A) 300 B) 400 C) 500 D) 600

29. Which is the safest if caught outdoors in a lightning storm?

A) on the top of a mountain B) playing golf C) hiding under an isolated tall tree D) sheltering in a car

30. If there is a 6-second delay between the sound of thunder and a discharge of lightning, about how many kilometers distant was the lightning bolt?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

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31. What is a mesocyclone?

A) a rotating updraft in a thunderstorm B) another name for a hurricane C) a midlatitude cyclone D) a name for a tornado in Australia

32. A __________ is the lowest portion of a mesocyclone.

A) down draft B) fulgurite C) wall cloud D) supercell

33. An EF3 tornado is associated with __________ to structures and trees.

A) moderate damage B) severe damage C) devastating damage D) incredible damage

34. An EF4 tornado is associated with __________ to structures and trees.

A) moderate damage B) severe damage C) devastating damage D) incredible damage

35. For what minimum tornado categories are cars lifted off the ground?

A) EF2 B) EF3 C) EF4 D) EF5

36. What percentage of tornadoes in the United States are EF0 and EF1?

A) 1 percent B) 30 percent C) 60 percent D) 80 percent

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37. What percentage of tornadoes in the United States are EF4 and EF5?

A) 1 percent B) 30 percent C) 60 percent D) 80 percent

38. About what percentage of tornado damage in the United States is caused by EF4 and EF5 tornadoes?

A) 25 percent B) 55 percent C) 65 percent D) 90 percent

39. Most tornadoes in the United States occur __________.

A) January to March B) March to April C) April to July D) July to August

40. Most tornadoes in the United States occur __________.

A) before noon B) from noon to 2:00 pm C) 2:00 to 4:00 pm D) 4:00 to 6:00 pm

41. Most tornadoes in the United States last about __________ minutes.

A) 5 B) 20 C) 45 D) 60

42. The United States experiences about __________ tornadoes per year.

A) 500 B) 1,200 C) 1,700 D) 2,000

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43. Most strong tornadoes in the United States occur __________.

A) west of the Rocky Mountains B) east of the Appalachian Mountains C) in Canada D) between the Rocky Mountains and the Appalachian Mountains

44. A tornado watch is issued for a region when __________.

A) a tornado has been seen B) conditions are favorable for supercell thunderstorms C) conditions are favorable for single-cell thunderstorms D) conditions are favorable for strong wind shear

45. A tornado warning is issued for a region when __________.

A) a tornado has been seen B) conditions are favorable for supercell thunderstorms C) conditions are favorable for single-cell thunderstorms D) conditions are favorable for strong wind shear

46. A Doppler radar hook echo indicates the presence of what?

A) heavy downpours B) heavy hail C) a tornado D) a hurricane

47. Which is the least safe place to be during a strong tornado?

A) the basement B) near a window C) under a mattress D) an interior room

48. If you are caught in a car in a tornado, which act should not be done?

A) park the car on the side of the road B) keep the seat belt on C) put your head below the window level D) try to drive through the tornado

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49. Hurricane strength comes from __________.

A) the absorption of latent heat through evaporation B) the trade winds C) the release of latent heat through condensation D) ocean currents

50. Tropical waves develop in the __________.

A) trade winds B) doldrums C) westerlies D) subpolar low

51. Tropical waves give rise to __________.

A) tropical depressions B) tropical storms C) tropical disturbances D) hurricanes

52. Which sequence is the correct order of hurricane development?

A) tropical storm—tropical disturbance—tropical depression—hurricane B) tropical disturbance—tropical depression—tropical storm—hurricane C) tropical depression—tropical disturbance—tropical storm—hurricane D) tropical disturbance— tropical storm—tropical depression—hurricane

53. Closed rotation first begins in a __________.

A) tropical depression B) tropical storm C) tropical disturbance D) hurricane

54. A category 1 hurricane has wind speeds over __________ kilometers per hour.

A) 100 B) 119 C) 154 D) 250

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55. Which hurricane category brings “extensive” damage?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

56. Which hurricane category has pressure between 920 and 944 millibars?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

57. A category 5 hurricane has wind speeds over __________ kilometers per hour.

A) 100 B) 119 C) 154 D) 250

58. The __________ is the system used to rank hurricanes.

A) enhanced Fujita scale B) Saffir-Simpson scale C) Beaufort wind-force scale D) ocean wind-force scale

59. For hurricanes to form, seawater generally must be about __________ degrees Celsius at the surface.

A) 21 B) 23 C) 26 D) 28

60. Warm seawater must extend to about __________ meters in depth for hurricanes to persist.

A) 60 B) 80 C) 100 D) 110

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61. Which hurricane monitoring system provides information about seawater temperatures beneath the surface of the ocean?

A) satellites B) aircraft reconnaissance and dropsondes C) marine buoys D) Doppler radar

62. Which region experiences the most and the strongest tropical cyclones (hurricanes)?

A) the western Pacific Ocean B) the eastern Pacific Ocean C) the western Atlantic Ocean D) the Indian Ocean

63. Which region experiences the most deadly tropical cyclones (hurricanes)?

A) the western Pacific Ocean B) the eastern Pacific Ocean C) the western Atlantic Ocean D) the Indian Ocean

64. Why does the equator never experience tropical cyclones (hurricanes)?

A) because there is no Coriolis force B) because the water is too warm C) because there is not enough ocean D) because the water is too cool

65. Why do tropical cyclones (hurricanes) not form near South America?

A) because there is no Coriolis force B) because the water is too warm C) because there is not enough ocean D) because the water is too cool

66. Generally, which aspect of hurricanes is most dangerous?

A) sustained high winds B) inland flooding C) coastal flooding D) warm seawater

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67. A __________ is a rise in sea level caused by high winds and low atmospheric pressure.

A) storm surge B) nor'easter C) hurricane D) squall line

68. A __________ occurs when a warm air mass advances on a relatively cold air mass.

A) warm front B) midlatitude cyclone C) hurricane D) cold front

69. A __________ occurs when a cold air mass advances on a relatively warm air mass.

A) warm front B) midlatitude cyclone C) hurricane D) cold front

70. Which air mass is a midlatitude cyclone cold sector composed of?

A) mT B) cT C) mP D) Air masses do not make up midlatitude cyclone cold sectors.

71. Which is unlikely to be produced by a warm front?

A) gentle frontal slope B) precipitation is steady and prolonged C) a progression of clouds, beginning with high-altitude cirrus and ending with low-altitude nimbostratus D) a cold air mass after the front has passed

72. Which is unlikely to be produced by a cold front?

A) multicell thunderstorms B) brief and intense showers C) precipitation from nimbostratus D) a squall line

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73. Which sequence puts the stages of midlatitude cyclone development in the correct order?

A) stationary wave—stationary front—midlatitude cyclone— occluded front B) stationary front—stationary wave—midlatitude cyclone—occluded front C) midlatitude cyclone—stationary front—stationary wave— occluded front D) occluded front—stationary front—stationary wave—midlatitude cyclone

74. Which cannot strengthen a midlatitude cyclone?

A) a Rossby wave trough B) upper-level divergence C) upper-level convergence D) a rising central air column

75. The Pacific Northwest in North America is likely to experience __________ weather from El Niño.

A) warm B) wet and warm C) dry D) dry and warm

76. Indonesia is likely to experience __________ from El Niño.

A) warm B) wet and warm C) dry D) dry and warm

77. The Southeastern United States is likely to experience ___________ from El Niño.

A) warm B) wet and cool C) dry D) dry and warm

78. Southeastern Africa is likely to experience __________ from El Niño.

A) warm B) wet and cool C) dry D) dry and warm

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79. Peru and Ecuador are likely to experience __________ from El Niño.

A) drought B) flooding rains C) heat waves D) fires

80. Western Australia is likely to experience __________ from El Niño.

A) typhoons B) flooding rains C) heat waves D) fires

81. Which does not occur when an El Niño year occurs?

A) a reversal of the trade winds B) migration of warm water eastward across the equatorial Pacific Ocean C) deepening of the thermocline near Indonesia and Australia D) reversed Walker circulation

82. In recent decades the intensity of El Niño has __________.

A) increased B) decreased C) remained the same D) cycled between high and low states

83. El Niños and La Niñas occurred during about __________ of the last 50 years.

A) 8 B) 10 C) 25 D) 30

84. The most hurricane-prone state in the United States is __________.

A) Louisiana B) Mississippi C) North Carolina D) Florida

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85. The long-term average number of hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean is __________.

A) increasing B) decreasing C) not changing significantly D) unknown

86. Which factor was not cited in this chapter as one that could decrease the number of hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean?

A) wind shear B) La Niña C) El Niño D) warmer ocean temperatures

Use the following to answer question 87:

87. According to the map, which of these states has the least frequent number of hurricanes?

A) Mississippi B) Georgia C) Alabama D) Texas

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Use the following to answer questions 88-89:

88. According to the graph, which of these years experienced the strongest El Niño event?

A) 1978 B) 1997 C) 2000 D) 2005

89. According to the graph, which of these years experienced the strongest La Niña event?

A) 1970 B) 1997 C) 1989 D) 1999

90. The strongest tornado ranking is EF5.

A) True B) False 91. The “EF” scale stands for “Enhanced Force.”

A) True B) False

92. The United States experiences about one EF5 tornado per year on average.

A) True B) False

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93. EF5 tornadoes do not cause very much damage.

A) True B) False

94. A thunderstorm is a cumulonimbus cloud that makes lightning and thunder.

A) True B) False

95. All thunderstorms make lightning.

A) True B) False

96. Microscale events are 1 kilometer in size or greater.

A) True B) False

97. Multicell thunderstorms can form under conditions of moderate wind shear.

A) True B) False

98. Gust fronts form from downdrafts in a thunderstorm.

A) True B) False

99. Multicell thunderstorms have a rotating updraft.

A) True B) False

100. Lightning develops as a separation of electrical charges builds up between a cloud and another cloud or a cloud and the ground.

A) True B) False

101. All mesocyclones produce tornadoes.

A) True B) False

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102. Tornadoes do not form in mountainous regions.

A) True B) False

103. Tornados never hit the same place twice.

A) True B) False

104. Tornadoes can travel over the ground at 113 kilometers per hour or more.

A) True B) False

105. North America experiences the most and the strongest tornadoes in the world.

A) True B) False

106. A funnel cloud is a tornado that has not touched ground.

A) True B) False

107. Seeking shelter beneath a bridge when a tornado strikes is safe.

A) True B) False

108. Tropical cyclones rotate clockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.

A) True B) False

109. All hurricanes have wind speeds of 119 kilometers per hour or greater.

A) True B) False

110. A hurricane is also called a typhoon.

A) True B) False

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111. Hurricanes in the Atlantic Ocean basin use French, English, and Spanish names.

A) True B) False

112. Hurricane names are retired for those storms that are particularly destructive.

A) True B) False

113. Strong hurricanes always bring the heaviest rainfall totals.

A) True B) False

114. Like tornadoes, hurricanes often go undetected and catch coastal populations by surprise.

A) True B) False

115. Dropsondes measure precipitation amounts in hurricanes.

A) True B) False

116. Hurricane Katrina was the deadliest hurricane to strike U.S. shores.

A) True B) False

117. A midlatitude cyclone rotates counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere.

A) True B) False

118. Midlatitude cyclones occur between 30 and 70 degrees latitude in both hemispheres.

A) True B) False

119. Midlatitude cyclones are the largest storm systems on the planet.

A) True B) False

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120. Warm fronts often bring severe weather.

A) True B) False

121. The cold front of a midlatitude cyclone arrives before the warm front.

A) True B) False

122. Troughs provide upper-level support for midlatitude cyclones.

A) True B) False

123. Nor'easters occur in the Rocky Mountains.

A) True B) False

124. El Niño is a periodic shift in Earth's climate system.

A) True B) False

125. El Niño events occur predictably every 5 years.

A) True B) False

126. La Niña often follows right after El Niño.

A) True B) False

127. Scientists cannot predict El Niño more than 6 months in advance.

A) True B) False

128. In 2005, Hurricane Katrina flooded about 80 percent of New Orleans.

A) True B) False

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129. Tallahassee, Florida, is the largest metropolitan region in the United States most at risk to flooding and wind damage by a major hurricane.

A) True B) False

130. In the 1990s Atlantic hurricane frequency increased as part of a natural, long-term cycle.

A) True B) False

131. If the water temperature decreased in the Great Lakes, would the lake-effect snows increase or decrease? Explain.

132. Are scientists certain how hurricane activity will change in the coming decades?

133. Explain how hurricane winds grow so strong and perpetuate themselves.

134. In the context of climate change, why might a person reasonably expect that hurricanes should be getting more frequent and stronger?

135. Based on your reading in this chapter, what, if any, atmospheric hazards occur where you live? Explain how they form.

136. Do you think it would be possible to reduce the vulnerability of the Great Plains to tornadoes? What would need to be done to accomplish this?

137. How does El Niño influence the weather where you live?

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Answer Key 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. A 21. D 22. A 23. A 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. B 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. A 38. C 39. C 40. D 41. A 42. B 43. D 44. B

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45. A 46. C 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. A 51. C 52. B 53. A 54. B 55. B 56. C 57. D 58. B 59. C 60. A 61. C 62. A 63. D 64. A 65. D 66. C 67. A 68. A 69. D 70. C 71. D 72. C 73. B 74. C 75. A 76. D 77. B 78. D 79. B 80. D 81. C 82. A 83. C 84. D 85. C 86. B 87. B 88. B 89. C 90. A

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91. B 92. A 93. B 94. A 95. A 96. B 97. A 98. A 99. B 100. A 101. B 102. B 103. B 104. A 105. A 106. A 107. B 108. B 109. A 110. A 111. A 112. A 113. B 114. B 115. B 116. B 117. A 118. A 119. A 120. B 121. B 122. A 123. B 124. A 125. B 126. A 127. A 128. A 129. B 130. A 131. The snows would decrease because cold water evaporates less quickly than warm water.

Also, colder water could freeze the surface. A cover of ice greatly reduces the rate of evaporation from a water body.

132. Scientists are not at all certain how hurricanes will respond to a warmer world. A warmer world is a potentially windier world with more wind shear. Wind shear does not favor hurricane development.

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133. Hurricane sustained winds are caused by the latent-heat positive feedback. The more condensation that occurs, the faster the surface winds will be. Condensation of water vapor in the eye wall releases latent heat. This warms the atmosphere and enhances instability in the eye wall. Unstable, buoyant clouds rise, cool, and water vapor condenses, releasing yet more latent heat. These rising columns of air pull in air from surrounding regions at the surface level, creating hurricane-force winds.

134. We might expect stronger hurricanes because hurricanes require a very high specific humidity. Warm air has a higher water vapor capacity than cold air and warm air warms the ocean's surface, causing it to evaporate more quickly. So a warmer atmosphere should make more hurricanes.

135. Answers will vary depending on where the student lives.

136. Answers will vary. One line of thought would be to build better shelters in all structures.

Another idea would be to build stronger structures, but this may not be effective given how strong tornado winds are. It is not reasonable to assume that people could move away from tornado country.

137. Answers will vary. Use Figure 5.25 for help.

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Chapter 6- The Changing Climate

1. The Medieval Warm Period occurred from approximately __________.

A) 950 to 1250 CE B) 1350 to 1850 CE C) 950 to 1250 BCE D) 1350 to 1850 BCE

2. The Little Ice Age occurred from approximately __________.

A) 950 to 1250 CE B) 1350 to 1850 CE C) 950 to 1250 BCE D) 1350 to 1850 BCE

3. The Greenland Norse society failed because of __________.

A) frozen soils B) disease that killed its livestock C) summer sea ice D) global warming

4. Which is an example of climate?

A) a tornado B) the average July temperature C) one week of rain D) the relative humidity for an afternoon

5. Which is an example of weather?

A) the average date of the first frost B) the average number of hurricanes per season C) the date of the first frost D) the average number of days of thunderstorms

6. Which is an example of weather?

A) drought B) the Asian monsoon C) El Niño D) a midlatitude storm

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7. Which has the longest temporal scale?

A) a rainbow B) Cenozoic cooling C) a hurricane D) the Younger Dryas

8. Since 1880, the average temperature of the lower atmosphere has increased __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 0.83 B) 0.9 C) 1.3 D) 2.1

9. A __________ causes climate change but is not affected by climate change.

A) climate forcing B) climate feedback C) climate teleconnection D) climate anomaly

10. A __________ causes climate change and is affected by climate change.

A) climate forcing B) climate feedback C) climate teleconnection D) climate anomaly

11. Which is an example of a climate feedback?

A) a volcano B) changes in solar output C) changes in snow coverage D) changes in Earth-Sun orbital geometry

12. The Cenozoic Era is used as an example of __________.

A) a climate anomaly B) a climate cycle C) a climate trend D) a climate feedback

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13. The Quaternary period is used as an example of __________.

A) a climate anomaly B) a climate cycle C) a climate trend D) a climate feedback

14. The Younger Dryas event is used as an example of __________.

A) a climate anomaly B) a climate cycle C) a climate trend D) a climate feedback

15. About 55 million years ago, during the Cenozoic, the average global temperature was about __________ degrees Celsius warmer than today.

A) 4 B) 8 C) 10 D) 12

16. About 55 million years ago, during the Cenozoic, atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations were about __________ parts per million.

A) 300 B) 500 C) 900 D) 1,000

17. The Cenozoic cooling is thought to have been caused by __________.

A) a gradual dimming of the Sun B) changes in Earth-Sun orbital relations C) the uplift of the Himalayas and Tibetan Plateau D) changes in snow and ice cover in the Northern Hemisphere

18. Glacial periods last about __________ years on average.

A) 10,000 B) 30,000 C) 60,000 D) 90,000

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19. Interglacial periods last about __________ years on average.

A) 10,000 B) 30,000 C) 60,000 D) 90,000

20. There have been about __________ glacial-interglacial cycles during the Quaternary period.

A) 10 B) 16 C) 22 D) 43

21. The orbital eccentricity component of a Milankovitch forcing takes about __________ years to complete one full cycle.

A) 10,000 B) 24,000 C) 41,000 D) 100,000

22. The precession component of a Milankovitch forcing takes about __________ years to complete one full cycle.

A) 10,000 B) 24,000 C) 41,000 D) 100,000

23. The axial tilt component of a Milankovitch forcing takes about __________ years to complete one full cycle.

A) 10,000 B) 24,000 C) 41,000 D) 100,000

24. Glacial cycles develop as ice sheets grow in __________.

A) Eurasia B) North America C) the Northern Hemisphere D) the Southern Hemisphere

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25. Glacial cycles require that the __________ cools.

A) summer B) fall C) winter D) spring

26. Increased sunspot activity can cause __________.

A) warming B) cooling C) drought D) flooding

27. Volcanic eruptions cause short-term cooling by __________.

A) injecting ash and sulfur dioxide into the troposphere B) injecting ash and sulfur dioxide into the stratosphere C) releasing large amount of carbon dioxide D) depositing reflective ash on the ground

28. The Younger Dryas was a cooling period that was caused by __________.

A) volcanic eruptions B) Milankovitch cycles C) ocean currents D) snow coverage

29. During the Younger Dryas, Greenland temperature dropped by __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 4 B) 8 C) 12 D) 15

30. The __________ is a global system of surface and deep ocean currents.

A) ocean conveyor belt B) Medieval Warm Period C) ice-albedo positive feedback D) Holocene epoch

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31. The Gulf Stream transports __________ percent of all global heating moving north and south.

A) 10 B) 25 C) 30 D) 50

32. If the ocean conveyor belt slows down, the Northern Hemisphere gets __________.

A) warmer B) colder C) wetter D) drier

33. The __________ was the large ice sheet that formed over North America during the previous glacial cycle.

A) Laurentide ice sheet B) Scandinavian ice sheet C) Cordilleran ice sheet D) Pleistocene ice sheet

34. Scientists suspect that the ocean conveyor system was slowed during the Younger Dryas due to __________.

A) warm water from the Gulf Stream B) cold water from the Laurentide ice sheet C) fresh water from the Laurentide ice sheet D) volcanic eruptions

35. Which material provides the longest record of climate change?

A) tree rings B) marine sediments C) glaciers D) corals

36. Which material provides the highest temporal resolution?

A) tree rings B) marine sediments C) glaciers D) corals

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37. About 99.9 percent of all carbon on Earth is stored in the __________.

A) atmosphere B) biosphere C) hydrosphere D) lithosphere

38. Which does not transfer carbon from the atmosphere to the lithosphere?

A) chemical weathering of rocks B) volcanic activity C) the activities of shell-building organisms D) the preservation of photosynthetic organisms on land and in the oceans

39. In the short-term carbon cycle, 91 percent of carbon is in the __________.

A) oceans B) biosphere C) atmosphere D) cryosphere

40. How does carbon leave the lithosphere?

A) through volcanic eruptions and burning of fossil fuels B) through photosynthesis C) through chemical weathering D) through sedimentation

41. Human activity moves about __________ times more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere than all volcanic activity.

A) 5 to 10 B) 20 to 30 C) 50 to 70 D) 100 to 300

42. Each year, human-caused deforestation moves about __________ billion metric tons of carbon to the atmosphere.

A) 1.3 B) 2.5 C) 3.4 D) 4.5

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43. Each year, burning of fossil fuels moves about __________ billion metric tons of carbon to the atmosphere.

A) 1.4 B) 6.8 C) 19.3 D) 31.6

44. In about __________ days, human activity emits an entire year's worth of average volcanic emissions.

A) 4 B) 32 C) 68 D) 100

45. Human activity is increasing carbon dioxide in the atmosphere by __________ parts per million per year.

A) 1 B) 2.5 C) 3 D) 4.5

46. The Keeling curve shows measurements of __________.

A) carbon dioxide B) methane C) sulfur dioxide D) ozone

47. Scientists measure atmospheric carbon dioxide levels from Mauna Loa Observatory in Hawai'i because __________.

A) Hawai'i is a convenient location and centrally located B) Hawai'i is far away from pollution from human activity C) Hawai'i has naturally high levels of carbon dioxide D) Hawai'i has naturally low levels of carbon dioxide

48. Scientists study ancient atmospheric carbon dioxide levels preserved in __________.

A) marine sediments B) tree rings C) corals D) ice cores

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49. Atmospheric carbon dioxide levels began to dramatically increase around the year __________.

A) 1600 B) 1750 C) 1850 D) 1920

50. The __________ began the era of fossil fuel burning.

A) Holocene epoch B) Industrial Revolution C) Agricultural Revolution D) Green Revolution

51. During the last 800,000 years, carbon dioxide and __________ have increased and decreased synchronously.

A) air temperature B) methane levels C) volcanic activity D) human populations

52. During the last 800,000 years, carbon dioxide concentrations have never exceeded __________ parts per million.

A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 500

53. The average rate of annual warming is __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 0.013 B) 0.25 C) 0.51 D) 0.78

54. Most atmospheric warming is occurring __________.

A) in the Southern Hemisphere B) in the tropics C) in the Arctic D) at midlatitudes in the Northern Hemisphere

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55. Earth's average temperature is now higher than at any time in the last __________ years as a result of the anthropogenic greenhouse effect.

A) 100 B) 500 C) 1,000 D) 1,500

56. The last time temperatures were warmer than today was during the __________.

A) Eemian B) Holocene C) Pleistocene D) Cenozoic

57. When Earth's temperatures were last warmer than today they were about __________ degrees Celsius above today's average temperature.

A) 1 to 2 B) 3 to 4 C) 5 to 6 D) 7 to 8

58. When Earth's temperatures were last warmer than today, sea levels were about __________ meters higher than today.

A) 1 to 2 B) 3 to 4 C) 4 to 6 D) 6 to 8

59. When Earth's temperatures were last warmer than today, atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations were about __________ parts per million.

A) 250 B) 300 C) 350 D) 400

60. Which is not being observed in the current warming trend?

A) The pace of warming mirrors the pace of carbon dioxide increases in the atmosphere.

B) The nights are warming faster than the days.

C) The lower stratosphere is cooling.

D) The tropics are warming faster than middle and high latitudes.

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61. From 1880 to 2010, the average sea surface temperature increased by __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 0.31 B) 0.56 C) 0.78 D) 1.3

62. The oceans have absorbed about __________ percent of carbon dioxide emitted to the atmosphere by human burning of fossil fuels.

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40

63. What happens as the oceans absorb carbon dioxide?

A) They become more acidic.

B) They become less acidic.

C) They become warmer.

D) They become colder.

64. Global sea level is rising about __________ millimeters per year.

A) 1.1 B) 1.6 C) 2.4 D) 3.2

65. Altogether, sea level has risen about __________ millimeters since 1880.

A) 100 B) 150 C) 200 D) 250

66. Which is not contributing to sea-level rise?

A) increased rainfall on land B) melting mountain glaciers C) expansion of seawater as it warms D) runoff from water pumped from the ground

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67. The year __________ recorded the lowest-ever extent of Arctic sea ice.

A) 2010 B) 2011 C) 2012 D) 2013

68. In some places in the western United States snowpack has decreased by as much as __________ percent over the last 50 years.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80

69. Bird populations have shifted north by about __________ kilometers on average since 1965.

A) 40 B) 56 C) 67 D) 78

70. Since 1900, the growing season is on average __________ days longer for the lower 48 states.

A) 7 B) 12 C) 15 D) 20

71. The IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change) projects that sea levels could rise by __________ meters by 2100.

A) 0.5 B) 1.2 C) 2.2 D) 2.6

72. Climatologists use __________ to develop predictions about how climate might respond to greenhouse gas forcing.

A) Earth system models B) samples from marine sediments C) measurements of atmospheric temperature D) public opinion polls

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73. By the year 2100, lower estimates of atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations are __________ parts per million.

A) 400 B) 450 C) 500 D) 550

74. By the year 2100, higher estimates of atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations are __________ parts per million.

A) 900 B) 950 C) 1,000 D) 1,050

75. Which is not a factor that contributes to the scientific uncertainty of how much temperature will warm by 2100?

A) the extent of fossil fuel burning B) the extent of deforestation C) the extent of extreme weather events in the coming years D) the extent of cloud feedbacks

Use the following to answer questions 76-77:

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76. According to this graph, in 1960 the annual increase in carbon dioxide was about how many parts per million per year?

A) 0.5 B) 1.5 C) 2.0 D) 2.5

77. According to the graph, in 2013 the annual increase in carbon dioxide was about how many parts per million per year?

A) 0.5 B) 1.5 C) 2.0 D) 2.5

Use the following to answer questions 78-79:

78. According to these graphs, carbon dioxide concentrations were about how many parts per million 400,000 years ago?

A) 200 B) 280 C) 320 D) 350

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79. According to these graphs, temperature and carbon dioxide share what relationship?

A) an inverse relationship B) a direct relationship C) no relationship D) It is not possible to tell using these graphs.

Use the following to answer questions 80-81:

80. According to this figure, which location has seen the greatest decrease in snowpack?

A) Southern California B) Oregon C) Utah D) British Columbia

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81. According to this figure, which location has seen the greatest increase in snowpack?

A) Southern California B) Oregon C) Utah D) British Columbia

82. The last time atmospheric carbon dioxide concentrations were 400 parts per million was __________ million years ago.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

83. When atmospheric carbon dioxide was last 400 parts per million, atmospheric temperatures were about __________ degrees Celsius warmer than today.

A) 1 to 2 B) 2 to 3 C) 3 to 4 D) 4 to 5

84. When atmospheric carbon dioxide was last 400 parts per million, global sea level was about __________ meters higher than today.

A) 10 B) 15 C) 20 D) 25

85. On May 9, 2013, atmospheric carbon dioxide levels rose above _________ parts per million briefly, then dropped back down.

A) 397 B) 398 C) 399 D) 400

86. Scientists have set the goal to not exceed carbon dioxide levels of __________ parts per million.

A) 400 B) 450 C) 500 D) 550

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87. To stop carbon dioxide concentrations from increasing, human emissions must be reduced by about __________ percent.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80

88. In order to meet the goals of carbon dioxide emissions cuts, buildings should reduce energy usage by __________ percent.

A) 25 B) 30 C) 35 D) 40

89. In order to meet the goals of carbon dioxide emissions cuts, coal burning power plants must improve their efficiency to __________ percent.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80

90. In order to meet the goals of carbon dioxide emissions cuts, solar energy capacity must increase __________ times.

A) 100 B) 300 C) 500 D) 700

91. In order to meet the goals of carbon dioxide emissions cuts, wind energy capacity must increase __________ times.

A) 40 B) 50 C) 60 D) 70

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92. Which is not among the ways the climate change problem can be addressed at the international level?

A) carbon taxes B) cap and trade C) carbon credits D) voluntary reductions by cities

93. Which would not help an individual drive less?

A) choice of living location B) bicycling C) using public transportation D) increasing use of solar energy

94. Which would not help an individual reduce his or her carbon emissions?

A) driving less B) using renewable energy C) eating more meat D) flying less

95. Scandinavian Norse settled southern Greenland during the Little Ice Age. A) True B) False

96. The Greenland Norse thrived for nearly five centuries.

A) True B) False

97. The primary reason the Greenland Norse society failed was due to the formation of summer sea ice in the North Atlantic Ocean.

A) True B) False

98. San Diego and Tucson have similar averages of annual temperature and precipitation.

They therefore have the same climate.

A) True B) False

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99. Long-distance climate connections among different geographic regions are called climate teleconnections.

A) True B) False

100. Scientists can say with certainty that a given extreme meteorological event, like a heat wave, was caused by global warming.

A) True B) False

101. The ice-albedo feedback is a positive feedback that can cause both cooling and warming trends.

A) True B) False

102. The Quaternary period began 2.6 million years ago.

A) True B) False

103. Quaternary glacial and interglacial periods together cycle at about 100,000-year intervals.

A) True B) False

104. The Holocene epoch began about 5,000 years ago.

A) True B) False

105. Milankovitch cycles refer to repeated and predictable changes in solar intensity.

A) True B) False

106. Climate anomalies are caused by both climate forcings and climate feedbacks.

A) True B) False

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107. Scientists who study Earth's ancient climates are paleoclimatologists.

A) True B) False

108. The carbon cycle describes the movement of carbon atoms and carbon dioxide molecules through Earth's physical systems.

A) True B) False

109. The long-term carbon cycle involves the movement of carbon into and out of the biosphere.

A) True B) False

110. The short-term carbon cycle involves the movement of carbon between the biosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere.

A) True B) False

111. Fossil fuels are the remains of ancient photosynthetic organisms.

A) True B) False

112. The first reliable and direct measurements of atmospheric carbon dioxide levels occurred in 1958.

A) True B) False

113. The anthropogenic greenhouse effect is caused by decreased stratospheric ozone.

A) True B) False

114. The year 1976 was the last year global atmospheric temperatures were below average.

A) True B) False

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115. The ice-albedo feedback is accelerating atmospheric warming in the tropics.

A) True B) False

116. The current warming trend can be explained by activity of El Niño, volcanoes, and sunspots.

A) True B) False

117. The anthropogenic greenhouse effect is the result of human activity increasing greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere.

A) True B) False

118. Taken as a whole, the negative aspects of climate change far outweigh the positive aspects.

A) True B) False

119. Most mountain glaciers are moving downslope in response to a warming atmosphere.

A) True B) False

120. By 2100, computer models forecast that the Great Plains and Midwest will warm more than the rest of the United States.

A) True B) False

121. Earth system models forecast the Southwestern United States will become drier by some 20 percent to 40 percent by 2100.

A) True B) False

122. By 2100 most of Canada is forecast to become wetter.

A) True B) False

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123. A green economy is one that focuses on parks and forests as a means to combat climate change.

A) True B) False

124. A carbon footprint is the amount of greenhouse gases that any activity generates.

A) True B) False

125. Individuals are powerless to address the problem of climate change.

A) True B) False

126. How is climate defined?

127. How does eating less meat and organic food help reduce the carbon footprint of an individual? How does eating food locally produced help?

128. How does using less water allow one to reduce one's carbon footprint?

129. If a severe storm strikes, can scientists definitely say it was caused by climate change?

Explain.

130. What caused the Cenozoic cooling trend?

131. Compare and contrast the long-term carbon cycle to the short-term carbon cycle.

Explain how carbon moves within each.

132. What differences and what similarities can you think of that exist between the Greenland Norse and modern societies in the context of vulnerability to climate change?

133. The topic of climate change has been politically controversial. Why do you think this is?

What are the sides of the controversy?

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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. C 6. D 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. D 16. D 17. C 18. D 19. A 20. C 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. B 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. A 37. D 38. B 39. A 40. A 41. D 42. C 43. D 44. A

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45. B 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. B 51. A 52. B 53. A 54. C 55. D 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. D 61. B 62. C 63. A 64. D 65. C 66. A 67. C 68. D 69. B 70. C 71. B 72. A 73. D 74. A 75. C 76. A 77. D 78. B 79. B 80. B 81. A 82. C 83. B 84. D 85. D 86. C 87. D 88. A 89. B 90. D

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91. A 92. D 93. D 94. C 95. B 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. B 101. A 102. A 103. A 104. B 105. B 106. A 107. A 108. A 109. B 110. A 111. A 112. A 113. B 114. A 115. B 116. B 117. A 118. A 119. B 120. A 121. A 122. A 123. B 124. A 125. B 126. Climate is defined as the long-term average of weather, usually a 30-year average and the average occurrence of extreme events. It also includes the average timing of the first frost or the last snows and so on.

127. Raising livestock for meat is more carbon-intensive than growing plants for direct human consumption. Eating organic food eliminates the use of fossil-fuel fertilizers.

Eating locally produced food reduces the need to transport food long distances.

128. Cleaning and distributing water require energy to process the water then pump it to where it will be used. Using less water consumes less energy.

129. Scientists cannot say whether any given event was caused by climate change. They can say that a given event would not have been as intense if the atmosphere and oceans were not warmer from climate change.

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130. The leading theory to explain the Cenozoic cooling trend is that the uplift of the Himalayas and the Tibetan Plateau is responsible. As the Indian plate moves northward into the Eurasian plate the mountains are being lifted. Through chemical weathering, carbon dioxide in the atmosphere bonds with other materials and is deposited as sediments on the seafloor. There it is compressed and turned to sediments and rock. This process draws down carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. As a result, the atmosphere has gradually cooled. This process is still occurring.

131. In the long-term carbon cycle, carbon moves into and out of the lithosphere through weathering and erosion of continental rocks and volcanic activity. This takes hundreds of thousands to millions of years. In the short-term carbon cycle, carbon moves quickly between the oceans, the biosphere, and the atmosphere. The oceans absorb carbon from the atmosphere and emit carbon to the atmosphere. Plants absorb carbon from the atmosphere when they photosynthesize and put carbon in the atmosphere when they decompose.

132. The Greenland Norse were vulnerable to climate change because they relied on trade with Europe, and summer sea ice severed that trade. Modern societies might be comparable in that agricultural output could be greatly reduced if Earth's climate changes significantly. This could lead to major problems for humanity.

133. The sides often are climate “believers” and climate “deniers.” This is a false dichotomy.

Empirical data are not about belief—they are simply a measured observation. The question really is how to interpret the available data. An objective scientist will not use the data to support a predetermined ideology or idea. Instead, the objective scientist will rationally interpret the data and come to a reasoned conclusion based on rational thought. There is no “controversy” about climate change within the science community.

Peer-reviewed research climate change papers unequivocally conclude that climate change is occurring and it is a problem.

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Chapter 7- Patterns of Life- Biogeography

1. About __________ non-native species have been successfully introduced into the United States.

A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 20,000 D) 50,000

2. Hawai'i is particularly vulnerable to non-native species because __________.

A) it is geographically isolated and has only a few species B) it is geographically isolated and has few native predators C) small islands are usually vulnerable to non-native species D) tropical islands are usually vulnerable to non-native species

3. Biodiversity is the __________.

A) number of native individuals in a given region B) number of all individuals in a given region, native or non-native C) total number of species in a given region D) patterns of migration of different species

4. The study of the geography of life and how it changes through space and time refers to what key term?

A) biogeography B) biodiversity C) migration D) ecology

5. The study of interactions between organisms and their environment refers to what key term?

A) biogeography B) biodiversity C) ecology D) migration

6. Which location would likely have the highest biodiversity?

A) the tropics B) the midlatitudes C) polar latitudes D) the subtropics

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7. Which island would likely have the highest biodiversity?

A) a small island B) a mid-sized island C) a large island D) Island size is not associated with biodiversity.

8. Which location experiences the greatest increase in biodiversity during summer?

A) high latitudes B) the tropics C) midlatitudes D) the subtropics 9. Which would be a “push” factor that might result in species migration?

A) low temperatures B) nesting opportunities C) mating opportunities D) feeding opportunities 10. Which would be a “pull” factor that might result in species migration?

A) predation B) increased resources C) competition D) drought

11. __________ are the best technique to track the migration of butterflies.

A) Pop-up satellite tags B) GPS archival tags C) Mail-in tags D) GPS radio collars

12. __________ are the best technique to track the migration of mid-sized birds.

A) Pop-up satellite tags B) GPS archival tags C) Mail-in tags D) GPS radio collars

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13. __________ are the best technique to track the migration of large mammals such as a wolf or elk.

A) Pop-up satellite tags B) GPS archival tags C) Mail-in tags D) GPS radio collars

14. __________ are the best technique to track the migration of large marine animals such as sharks or sea lions.

A) Pop-up satellite tags B) GPS archival tags C) Mail-in tags D) GPS radio collars

15. A group of organisms that interbreed in the same geographic area is called a(n) __________.

A) ecosystem B) habitat C) population D) biome

16. The process of __________ creates new species.

A) migration B) speciation C) extinction D) dispersal

17. __________ is the evolutionary process in which two or more unrelated organisms evolve to look alike.

A) Divergent evolution B) Extinction C) Migration D) Convergent evolution

18. The desert hopping mammals were given as an example of __________.

A) convergent evolution B) ecosystem interactions C) divergent evolution D) dispersal

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19. The Hawaiian honeycreepers provide an example of __________ .

A) convergent evolution B) ecosystem interactions C) divergent evolution D) dispersal

20. Which biogeographic region is North America in?

A) the Palearctic B) the Nearctic C) the Neotropical D) the Ethiopian

21. Which biogeographic region is Africa in?

A) the Palearctic B) the Nearctic C) the Neotropical D) the Ethiopian

22. What biogeographic transition zone separates the Ethiopian and the Palearctic biogeographic regions?

A) the Sonoran Desert B) the Sahara Desert C) the Pacific Ocean D) the Atlantic Ocean

23. What biogeographic transition zone separates the Nearctic and the Palearctic biogeographic regions?

A) the Sonoran Desert B) the Sahara Desert C) the Pacific Ocean D) the Atlantic Ocean

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Use the following to answer questions 24-26:

24. According to this map, the number of plant species in central Australia is as few as __________.

A) 20 to 200 B) 500 to 1,000 C) 1,000 to 1,500 D) >5,000

25. According to this map, the number of plant species in the United States is approximately __________.

A) 20 to 200 B) 500 to 1,000 C) 1,000 to 1,500 D) > 5,000

26. According to this map, which country has the highest number of plant species?

A) Ecuador B) Greenland C) South Africa D) Spain

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Use the following to answer questions 27-28:

27. According to the graph, approximately how many square kilometers is the island of Montserrat?

A) 10 B) 100 C) 1,000 D) 10,000

28. According to the graph, approximately how many species does Hispaniola have?

A) 1 B) 10 C) 100 D) 1,000

29. A species that is found on every continent is called __________.

A) endemic B) cosmopolitan C) a predator D) a mesophyte

30. The yellow-eared parrot provides an example of __________.

A) an endemic organism B) a cosmopolitan organism C) competition D) mutualism

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31. Which is not an example of a limiting factor?

A) temperature B) light C) predation D) a scavenger

32. Which could be a physical limiting factor for an organism?

A) competition B) predation C) temperature D) mutualism

33. Which could be a biological limiting factor for an organism?

A) sunlight B) soil nutrients C) water D) predation

34. A __________ grows submerged in water.

A) mesophyte B) hydrophyte C) xerophyte D) sciophyte

35. A __________ is adapted to limited amounts of water.

A) mesophyte B) hydrophyte C) xerophyte D) sciophyte

36. An organism that keeps a constant body temperature is called __________.

A) a poikilotherm B) a consumer C) endothermic D) a heliophyte

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37. An organism whose body temperature is equal to the temperature of the environment is called __________.

A) a poikilotherm B) a consumer C) endothermic D) a heliophyte

38. Which is not a characteristic found in cactus adapted to arid climates?

A) a deep taproot B) CAM photosynthesis C) an expandable stem D) leaves reduced to spines

39. The mesquite that grows in the North American desert copes with water stress mainly by __________.

A) a shallow, fibrous root mat B) a long taproot C) collecting liquid water from fog on its leaves D) storing water in its large trunk

40. Baobabs cope with water stress mostly by __________.

A) a shallow, fibrous root mat B) a long taproot C) collecting liquid water from fog on its leaves D) storing water in its large trunk

41. Which is not an adaptation kangaroo rats have to cope with water stress?

A) daytime activity B) producing high concentrations of urea C) having dry feces D) never sweating

42. Which term does not apply to the North American gray wolf?

A) predator B) keystone species C) detritivore D) carnivore

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43. __________ is chemical competition found only in plants.

A) Allelopathy B) Intraspecific competition C) Infraspecific competition D) Physical shading

44. When one species depends on another for survival, it is called a(n) __________.

A) facultative mutualist B) mutualist C) competitor D) obligate mutualist

45. Which organism pair is not an example of mutualism?

A) clownfish and sea anemones B) hummingbirds and flowers C) wolves and elk D) bees and flowers

46. Which is not an example of a propagule?

A) a seed B) a single male C) a rooting branch D) a gravid female

47. Which disperses passively?

A) a drifting seed B) a flying bat C) a swimming fish D) a walking elephant

48. Which disperses actively?

A) a blackberry B) an acorn C) a salamander D) a coconut

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49. Which is an example of a zoochore?

A) an acorn B) a salamander C) a coconut D) a dandelion seed

50. Oaks and pines never crossed the equator to the Southern Hemisphere due to __________.

A) biogeographic filters B) sweepstakes dispersal C) the fact that they are zoochores D) the unsuitable climate in the Southern Hemisphere

51. Small islands that are geographically isolated from the mainland and have no neighboring islands are colonized through what means of dispersal?

A) waif B) sweepstakes C) stepping-stones D) corridor

52. __________ allows organisms to colonize remote islands by moving from one island to another.

A) Waif dispersal B) Sweepstakes dispersal C) Stepping-stone dispersal D) Corridor dispersal

53. __________ occurs when an organism successfully establishes outside its current geographic range on its own without the help of people.

A) Colonization B) A biogeographic filter C) Invasion D) Intra-range dispersal

54. __________ occurs when people transport an organism outside its geographic range and it successfully establishes in the new location.

A) Colonization B) A biogeographic filter C) Invasion D) Intra-range dispersal

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55. Which could potentially create the most severe ecological disturbance event?

A) the wind B) a surface fire C) a canopy fire D) a volcanic eruption

56. Which is not an adaptation to fire by plants?

A) crown sprouting B) fire-retardant leaves C) serotinous cones D) deep roots

57. Which is not one of the consequences of fire suppression?

A) a buildup of fuel B) hotter fires C) fewer fires D) more canopy fires

58. Which is a biotic ecological disturbance?

A) wind B) non-native species C) flooding D) avalanche

59. Which is most likely to create primary succession?

A) a large volcanic eruption B) a surface fire C) a hurricane D) an insect outbreak

60. A __________ is a stage of vegetation succession that follows ecological disturbance.

A) mesophyte B) canopy fire C) sere D) community

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Use the following to answer questions 61-62:

61. In this figure, what is the third sere?

A) grassland B) grass-shrub C) pine forest D) oak-hickory forest

62. In this figure, what is the climax community?

A) grassland B) grass-shrub C) pine forest D) oak-hickory forest

63. __________ are based on movement of energy and matter through physical systems.

A) Ecological systems B) Trophic systems C) Spatial systems D) Taxonomic systems

64. Solar energy enters the biosphere through the process of __________.

A) photosynthesis B) ecological disturbance C) dispersal D) predation

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65. In the process of photosynthesis, plants take in water and __________ from the atmosphere.

A) sugar B) oxygen C) carbon dioxide D) sunlight

66. In the process of photosynthesis, plants release __________ to the atmosphere.

A) sugar B) oxygen C) carbon dioxide D) sunlight

67. In the process of photosynthesis, plants use __________ to make sugars.

A) sugar B) oxygen C) carbon dioxide D) sunlight

68. Phytoplankton are __________.

A) primary producers B) primary consumers C) secondary consumers D) tertiary consumers

69. An organism that consumes only other animals is a(n) __________.

A) herbivore B) carnivore C) omnivore D) detritivore

70. An organism that consumes only plants is a(n) __________.

A) herbivore B) carnivore C) omnivore D) detritivore

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71. An organism that consumes both plants and animals is a(n) _________.

A) herbivore B) carnivore C) omnivore D) detritivore

72. An organism that consumes only other animals is a __________.

A) primary producer B) primary consumer C) secondary consumer D) decomposer

73. An organism that consumes only plants is a __________.

A) primary producer B) primary consumer C) secondary consumer D) tertiary consumer

74. An organism that photosynthesizes is a __________.

A) primary producer B) primary consumer C) secondary consumer D) tertiary consumer

75. An organism that consumes carrion is a __________.

A) detritivore B) scavenger C) decomposer D) primary producer

76. An organism that consumes decaying organic material is a __________.

A) detritivore B) scavenger C) decomposer D) primary producer

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77. A coyote often functions as a __________.

A) detritivore B) scavenger C) decomposer D) primary producer

78. An earthworm is a __________.

A) detritivore B) scavenger C) decomposer D) primary producer

79. Fungi are __________.

A) detritivores B) scavengers C) decomposers D) primary producers

80. A tertiary consumer receives about __________ percent of the available energy when it consumes a secondary consumer.

A) 10 B) 1 C) 0.1 D) 0.01

81. A tertiary consumer receives about __________ percent of the available energy when it consumes a primary producer.

A) 10 B) 1 C) 0.1 D) 0.01

82. Taxonomy uses __________ traits to form groups of related organisms.

A) homologous B) analogous C) superficial D) obvious

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83. Which sequence lists the spatial hierarchy in the correct order?

A) individual—population—biome—community B) population—individual—community—biome C) individual—population—community—biome D) community—individual—population—biome

84. Which occurs at the smallest spatial scale?

A) biome B) community C) individual D) population

85. A __________ consists of different populations of organisms interacting in a geographic area.

A) biome B) community C) individual D) population

86. The coconut was domesticated __________.

A) near India B) near Indonesia C) near India and Indonesia D) It is unknown where it was first domesticated.

87. Who first spread the coconut across the Pacific Ocean?

A) Austronesians B) Native Americans C) Australian aborigines D) Europeans

88. The coconut was brought to Hawai'i in about __________.

A) 1500 BCE B) 900 BCE C) 900 CE D) 1000 CE

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89. Europeans began dispersing coconut varieties as early as __________.

A) 1500 B) 1550 C) 1600 D) 1650

90. Europeans brought the coconut to what ocean basin where it did not grow before?

A) the Indian Ocean B) the Pacific Ocean C) the Atlantic Ocean D) the Arctic Ocean

91. The discussion of the coconut in this chapter illustrates what larger theme?

A) convergent evolution B) artificial selection C) competition D) succession

92. The relationship between humans and the coconut is best described as __________.

A) mutualism B) predation C) competition D) parasitism

93. Non-native organisms are those that have been brought outside their original geographic range by people.

A) True B) False

94. Hawai'i has a particularly serious problem with non-native organisms because of its extreme geographic isolation.

A) True B) False

95. Extinction is the permanent and global loss of a species.

A) True B) False

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96. A group of individuals that can interbreed and produce sterile offspring would be considered all the same species.

A) True B) False

97. The Nile perch is native to Lake Victoria.

A) True B) False

98. All non-native species are destructive.

A) True B) False

99. Dispersal is the movement of organisms away from where they originated.

A) True B) False

100. All biogeographic regions are separated by biogeographic transition zones.

A) True B) False

101. An ecological niche refers to where a species lives.

A) True B) False

102. A habitat refers to the resources a species requires.

A) True B) False

103. Sciophytes are shade-tolerant plants.

A) True B) False

104. Allen's rule observes that appendage length decreases farther south in response to warm temperatures.

A) True B) False

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105. Plants that go to seed then die each year are called annuals.

A) True B) False

106. Herbivory is a form of predation.

A) True B) False

107. Most mammals are generalists.

A) True B) False

108. The monarch butterfly caterpillar is a generalist.

A) True B) False

109. The degree of competition among organisms depends on how similar their niches are.

A) True B) False

110. Intra-range dispersal is usually lethal.

A) True B) False

111. Mountain ranges are dispersal barriers for all organisms.

A) True B) False

112. Seeds dispersed by the wind are called anemochores.

A) True B) False

113. The cattle egret is an example of both invasion and natural colonization.

A) True B) False

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114. The removal of a keystone species from an ecosystem can create ecological disturbance.

A) True B) False

115. The addition of a non-native species to an ecosystem can create ecological disturbance.

A) True B) False

116. The fire-return interval for the forests of the Pacific Northwest is higher than the fire-return interval for grasslands of the Great Plains.

A) True B) False

117. Scientists see most vegetation communities as climax communities that rarely change.

A) True B) False

118. Photosynthetic organisms include bacteria, algae, and plants.

A) True B) False

119. Most trophic systems are composed of food chains rather than food webs.

A) True B) False

120. The 10 percent rule states that only about 10 percent of available energy passes up to the next higher trophic level.

A) True B) False

121. An herbivore occupies only one trophic level in its ecosystem.

A) True B) False

122. An omnivore occupies more than one trophic level in its ecosystem.

A) True B) False

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123. Biomass is the dried weight of living material.

A) True B) False

124. Taxonomy is the science of classifying organisms based on their appearance.

A) True B) False

125. A bat is more closely related to a whale than it is to a bird.

A) True B) False

126. There is usually only one common name for any given organism.

A) True B) False

127. Domestication occurs when people change the genetic structure of an organism.

A) True B) False

128. The coconut is a plant that has been domesticated by people.

A) True B) False

129. Coconuts cannot successfully establish north or south of about 26 degrees latitude.

A) True B) False

130. Give examples of domesticated organisms you see in your everyday life.

131. Explain how non-native organisms can be harmful to native ecosystems and their organisms.

132. Explain how non-native organisms can be economically beneficial to people.

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133. Explain why species expend so much energy migrating great distances across Earth's surface. What are the costs? What are the rewards?

134. Can you think of factors that have helped human beings be successful by using your understanding of generalists and specialists?

135. By definition, when people move an organism to a new place, that organism is non-native. People brought the coconut to Hawai'i over one thousand years ago.

Because that was so long ago, do you think enough time has passed that we can consider this plant native to Hawai'i now? Explain.

136. Compare the process of natural selection to artificial selection. How are they the same and how are they different?

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Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. A 19. C 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. C 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. C 36. C 37. A 38. A 39. B 40. D 41. A 42. C 43. A 44. D

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45. C 46. B 47. A 48. C 49. A 50. A 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. C 55. D 56. B 57. C 58. B 59. A 60. C 61. C 62. D 63. B 64. A 65. C 66. B 67. D 68. A 69. B 70. A 71. C 72. C 73. B 74. A 75. B 76. A 77. B 78. A 79. C 80. A 81. C 82. A 83. C 84. A 85. B 86. C 87. A 88. C 89. A 90. C

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91. B 92. A 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. B 97. B 98. B 99. A 100. A 101. B 102. B 103. A 104. B 105. A 106. A 107. A 108. B 109. A 110. B 111. B 112. A 113. A 114. A 115. A 116. A 117. B 118. A 119. B 120. A 121. A 122. A 123. A 124. B 125. A 126. B 127. A 128. A 129. A 130. Answers will vary but should include almost all produce in the grocery store, most pets, and plants used in landscaping.

131. Non-native organisms can be harmful when they compete with native organisms for resources, such as light, water, nutrients, food, and physical space. They can also be harmful if they prey on or parasitize native organisms.

132. Nearly all of the food crops grown to feed people are non-native, domesticated organisms. In most cases, these food crops are not native to the places in which people

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grow them. Modern human society is dependent on these non-native crops.

133. Long-distance migration has a net benefit or species would not have evolved to do it.

The rewards of long-distance migration include the increase of resources for nesting, feeding, and mating. The main costs of long-distance migration are potentially increased exposure to predation and increased consumption of food with the increased expenditure of energy required to migrate.

134. If humans were specialists we likely would not have been able to expand geographically across the globe. Everywhere people migrated they shifted and adapted their diet to what was available. Coastal regions have very different types of food than inland regions. Because people are generalist omnivores they were able to exploit almost all of the environments through which they moved.

135. Answers will vary. There is no right answer. Students may stick to the strict definition that any species brought outside its native geographic range by people is non-native.

They may also argue that enough time has elapsed, several thousand years in some cases, for the organism to be considered native.

136. Both are the same in that characteristics or traits are being selected. With natural selection, nature does the selecting. With artificial selection, people do the selecting.

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Chapter 8- Climate and Life- Biomes

1. Earth's biomes are determined mostly by __________.

A) slope steepness B) soil types C) climate D) slope aspect

2. Biomes are identified by __________.

A) the structure of vegetation B) the botanical characteristics of plants C) the species that are present D) the level of human impacts

3. A __________ consists of a continuous cover of shrubs.

A) forest B) woodland C) shrubland D) desert

4. A __________ is dominated by trees with a closed canopy.

A) forest B) woodland C) shrubland D) desert

5. A __________ consists of sparse plant cover.

A) forest B) woodland C) shrubland D) desert

6. A __________ consists of widely spaced trees surrounded by grasslands.

A) forest B) woodland C) shrubland D) desert

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7. A __________ is composed of widely spaced shrubs.

A) forest B) scrubland C) shrubland D) desert

8. A(n) __________ is a woody, climbing vine.

A) tree B) liana C) epiphyte D) bryophyte

9. A(n) __________ has tall, upright woody growth.

A) tree B) liana C) epiphyte D) bryophyte

10. Mosses are __________.

A) trees B) lianas C) epiphytes D) bryophytes

11. A(n) __________ grows on trees and is not parasitic.

A) tree B) liana C) epiphyte D) bryophyte

12. A(n) __________ has nonwoody growth.

A) epiphyte B) shrub C) herb D) liana

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13. A __________ bears cones.

A) broad-leaved B) conifer C) needle-leaved D) deciduous

14. A __________ tree has large, flat leaves.

A) broad-leaved B) conifer C) needle-leaved D) deciduous

15. A __________ tree has long, narrow leaves.

A) broad-leaved B) conifer C) needle-leaved D) deciduous

16. A(n) __________ tree loses its leaves all in one season.

A) broad-leaved B) evergreen C) needle-leaved D) deciduous

17. A(n) __________ tree loses its leaves gradually and always has leaves on its branches.

A) broad-leaved B) evergreen C) needle-leaved D) deciduous

18. The Köppen climate classification system creates __________ climate zones.

A) 15 B) 20 C) 25 D) 30

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19. Which biome is found where it is cold and dry?

A) tropical rainforest B) tropical savanna C) tundra D) desert

20. Which biome is found where it is warm and wet?

A) tropical rainforest B) tropical savanna C) tundra D) desert

21. Which biome is found where it is wet and cool?

A) tropical rainforest B) temperate rainforest C) tundra D) desert

22. Which biome is found where it is dry?

A) tropical rainforest B) temperate rainforest C) tundra D) desert

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Use the following to answer questions 23-24:

23. According to this graph, temperate deciduous forest occurs in what temperature range?

A) 0 to 20 degrees Celsius B) 10 to 20 degrees Celsius C) 20 to 30 degrees Celsius D) -10 to 10 degrees Celsius

24. According to the graph, tropical seasonal forest occurs in what precipitation range?

A) 150 to 200 centimeters B) 175 to 300 centimeters C) 225 to 300 centimeters D) 100 to 300 centimeters

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25. The __________ is/are the most important climatic factor that determines the presence of the tropical rainforest.

A) subtropical high B) ITCZ C) horse latitudes D) trade winds

26. The tropical rainforest corresponds with Köppen climate type __________.

A) Af B) Am C) Aw D) BWh

27. Which is unlikely to be found in a tropical rainforest?

A) epiphytes B) buttress roots C) adaptations to fire D) multiple forest canopies

28. Which does not accurately describe the tropical rainforest?

A) high primary productivity B) high biomass C) high biodiversity D) high seasonality

29. The forest floor of the tropical rainforest may receive as little as __________ percent of light falling on the upper canopies.

A) 50 B) 10 C) 5 D) 1

30. What is terra preta?

A) a type of soil B) a type of plant C) a region in the tropics D) a plant adaptation

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31. The geoglyphs found in the Amazon rainforest as it is cleared by people reveal what about the Amazon?

A) that the soils are poor B) that there used to be large human populations in the rainforest C) that the rainforest used to be tropical savanna biome D) that human forest clearance is occurring at a rapid pace

32. Which is the correct sequence that deforestation in the Amazon often follows?

A) commercial ranching and agriculture—roads and logging—slash-and-burn agriculture B) slash-and-burn agriculture—roads and logging—commercial ranching and agriculture C) roads and logging—commercial ranching and agriculture—slash-and-burn agriculture D) roads and logging—slash-and-burn agriculture—commercial ranching and agriculture

33. Orangutans in Indonesia have lost about __________ percent of their original habitat.

A) 20 B) 40 C) 60 D) 80

34. Which product in a grocery store is tied to threats to orangutan habitat in Indonesia's tropical rainforests?

A) cookies B) soda C) rice D) bananas

35. Approximately __________ million species are lost each year worldwide.

A) 5 to 8 B) 8 to 10 C) 10 to 12 D) 12 to 14

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36. The primary reason species go extinct is due to __________.

A) non-native species B) habitat loss C) climate change D) pollution

37. The tropical seasonal forest corresponds with Köppen climate type __________.

A) Af B) Am C) Aw D) BWh

38. Which is not found in the tropical seasonal forest?

A) high biodiversity B) rich and fertile soils C) broad-leaved deciduous trees D) water stress in summer

39. The tropical savanna corresponds with Köppen climate type __________.

A) Af B) Am C) Aw D) BWh

40. Which would not be found in tropical savanna?

A) large grazing animals B) organisms adapted to low temperatures C) broad-leaved deciduous trees D) frequent fires

41. Which is not one of the three factors that strongly influence the vegetation of the tropical savanna?

A) seasonally intense rainfall B) insects C) fire D) grazing pressure

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42. Which is not one of the main threats to tropical savanna?

A) overgrazing B) desertification C) poaching D) logging

43. The grazing sequence observed for large mammals in the tropical savanna in Africa allows the animals to do what?

A) compete better B) obtain more food C) avoid competition D) avoid predation

44. Which is not one of the regional names for temperate grasslands?

A) pampas B) steppe C) chaparral D) veldt

45. The temperate grasslands of Eurasia are called __________.

A) pampas B) steppe C) chaparral D) veldt

46. The temperate grasslands of South America are called __________.

A) pampas B) steppe C) chaparral D) veldt

47. The temperate grassland Köppen climate classification is __________.

A) BSh and BSk B) Cfa, Cwa, Cwb C) Csa, Csb D) H

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48. Which does not describe the temperate grassland biome?

A) mostly converted to agriculture in North America B) continuous cover of grasses with widely spaced trees C) frequent fires D) moisture deficits in most months

49. The North American temperate grasslands do not include ________.

A) tallgrass prairie B) middle-grass prairie C) mixed-grass prairie D) short-grass prairie

50. Buffalo grass is found on __________.

A) tallgrass prairie B) middle-grass prairie C) mixed-grass prairie D) short-grass prairie

51. Roughly __________ percent of the North American temperate grasslands have been converted to agriculture.

A) 20 B) 50 C) 80 D) 90

52. Which is not one of the regional names for the Mediterranean biome?

A) chaparral B) veldt C) fynbos D) matorral

53. Fynbos is found in __________.

A) South Africa B) Chile C) Australia D) California

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54. The Köppen climate classification for the Mediterranean biome is __________.

A) Am B) Af C) BSk D) Csa, Csb

55. Which is not associated with the Mediterranean biome?

A) sclerophyllous vegetation B) fire adaptations C) low biodiversity D) mild winters

56. Which factor does not contribute to forming the Mediterranean biome?

A) very cold winters B) extended summer drought C) frequent fire activity D) low soil nutrients and soil organic matte

57. __________ does not occur in the Mediterranean biome.

A) fire suppression B) slash-and-burn subsistence agriculture C) overgrazing D) urban development

58. Which location does not support the temperate deciduous forest biome?

A) eastern North America B) western Europe C) eastern Asia D) eastern South America

59. The temperate rainforest has the Köppen climate designation __________.

A) BSk B) Cfb, Cfc C) Csa, Csb D) Dfa, Dwa

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60. Which is not a major characteristic of the temperate rainforest biome?

A) broad-leaved deciduous trees B) epiphytes C) evergreen trees D) orographic precipitation

61. What is the primary human impact of the temperate rainforest?

A) logging B) slash-and-burn agriculture C) pollution D) urban development

62. In Eurasia the boreal forest is called __________.

A) mallee B) matorral C) taiga D) pampas

63. Which is not a major feature of the boreal forest?

A) needle-leaved evergreen trees B) short winter growing season C) understory of mosses, lichens, and herbaceous plants D) fire activity can be important for certain areas

Use the following to answer questions 64-67:

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64. Climate diagram A best fits what biome type?

A) tropical savanna B) Mediterranean C) northern tundra D) temperate deciduous forest

65. Climate diagram B best fits what biome type?

A) tropical savanna B) Mediterranean C) northern tundra D) temperate deciduous forest

66. Climate diagram C best fits what biome type?

A) tropical savanna B) Mediterranean C) northern tundra D) temperate deciduous forest

67. Which climate diagram is in the Southern Hemisphere?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

68. Which tree genera is found naturally only in the Southern Hemisphere?

A) spruce B) larch C) pine D) Eucalyptus

69. The longest-lived tree species is the __________.

A) bristlecone pine B) Sitka spruce C) giant sequoia D) southern beech

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70. Which is the most significant anthropogenic factor in the montane forest biome?

A) logging B) urban development C) overgrazing D) non-native species

71. Which does not describe the tundra biome?

A) very cold winters and a short summer growing season B) too cold for trees C) frequent fire activity D) occurs at any latitude

72. The tundra biome has the Köppen climate designation __________.

A) ET and H B) EF C) Dfc, Dwc D) Csa, Csb

73. The __________ occurs between the boreal forest and the northern tundra.

A) alpine tree line B) northern tree line C) alpine tundra D) montane forest

74. The __________ occurs between the montane forest and the alpine tundra.

A) alpine tree line B) northern tree line C) northern tundra D) boreal forest

75. The structural similarities between the same biomes that are geographically separated (such as tropical alpine scrubland) and have genetically unrelated plants are called __________.

A) speciation B) limiting factors C) ecological equivalence D) anthropogenic impacts

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76. What is one of the most serious human impacts in tundra?

A) deforestation B) thawing of permafrost soils C) conversion to agriculture D) gold mining

77. Most deserts have less than __________ centimeters of annual precipitation.

A) 25 B) 20 C) 15 D) 10

78. The largest desert in the world is the __________ desert.

A) Kalahari B) Sonoran C) Arabian D) Sahara

79. Which desert would be found on the leeside of a mountain range?

A) hot deserts B) rain-shadow deserts C) cold deserts D) plateau deserts

80. Which desert is dominated by the subtropical high-pressure system?

A) hot deserts B) rain-shadow deserts C) cold deserts D) plateau deserts

81. Which desert would be found in Antarctica?

A) hot deserts B) rain-shadow deserts C) cold deserts D) plateau deserts

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82. Which desert would be found in Namibia?

A) hot deserts B) rain-shadow deserts C) cold deserts D) plateau deserts

83. Which is the most significant human impact in the deserts in the U.S. Southwest?

A) pollution B) water diversions from streams C) off road vehicles D) climate change

84. The most widespread human activity that reduces the extent of natural biomes is __________.

A) rangelands B) mixed settlement C) croplands D) residential

85. What is the most important factor today that causes endangerment and extinction of species?

A) hunting for bush meat B) hunting for pseudo-medicines C) habitat fragmentation D) non-native species

86. What is the primary driver of habitat fragmentation today?

A) international trade B) non-native species C) hunting for fur and feathers D) mixed settlement

87. Terraforming is the transformation of a planet to suit human needs.

A) True B) False

88. Farming and animal domestication are forms of terraforming.

A) True B) False

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89. The Köppen climate classification system categorizes climate types based on temperature and precipitation characteristics for a given region.

A) True B) False

90. The tropical savanna receives more annual precipitation than the tropical rainforest.

A) True B) False

91. The tundra boreal forest is colder than the temperate deciduous forest.

A) True B) False

92. Grasslands receive more precipitation than temperate deciduous forest.

A) True B) False

93. Tropical rainforest is also called chaparral..

A) True B) False

94. Normally, in every month it rains in tropical rainforests.

A) True B) False

95. Epiphytes are uncommon in tropical rainforests.

A) True B) False

96. Buttress roots in tropical rainforests are designed to reduce tree toppling in strong wind.

A) True B) False

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97. The presence of terra preta indicates that human populations in the Amazon rainforest were once great.

A) True B) False

98. Water is a major limiting factor in the tropical rainforest biome.

A) True B) False

99. Most plants in the tropical rainforest biome are pollinated by animals and their fruits and seeds are dispersed by animals.

A) True B) False

100. The tropical seasonal forest experiences no dry season.

A) True B) False

101. The tropical seasonal forest is easy to burn in the winter season.

A) True B) False

102. The tropical savanna biome has a wet summer, dry winter pattern of climate.

A) True B) False

103. Livestock do not compete or harm native grazing ungulates in the tropical savanna in Africa.

A) True B) False

104. Contraception is used to control elephant populations in African wildlife preserves.

A) True B) False

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105. Temperate latitudes are the transition region between warm subtropical air and cold polar air.

A) True B) False

106. Temperate grassland is treeless because the soils are too poor for trees to grow.

A) True B) False

107. Temperate grasslands are found mostly between 50 and 60 degrees latitude.

A) True B) False

108. Prairie dogs are a keystone species on the North American temperate grasslands.

A) True B) False

109. Moderate cattle grazing can be beneficial to the prairie grasslands and the native plants there.

A) True B) False

110. The Mediterranean biome receives almost all of its precipitation during the summer.

A) True B) False

111. The temperate deciduous forest is dominated by trees that shed their leaves during the winter.

A) True B) False

112. Forest that has never been logged is called secondary forest.

A) True B) False

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113. Most of Europe is covered with primary temperate deciduous forest.

A) True B) False

114. Temperate rainforest has less cold winters compared to temperate deciduous forest.

A) True B) False

115. In the Southern Hemisphere temperate rainforest consists of broad-leaved evergreen trees like Eucalyptus and Nothofagus.

A) True B) False

116. The boreal forest is found in the Southern Hemisphere.

A) True B) False

117. The montane biome is a result of orographic precipitation.

A) True B) False

118. The montane biome is found in the Köppen climate zone ET. A) True B) False

119. The pine family of trees does not occur in the Southern Hemisphere.

A) True B) False

120. Tundra occurs at any latitude where it is too dry for trees to grow.

A) True B) False

121. The tundra biome has permafrost soils.

A) True B) False

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122. Trees do not grow in deserts because it is too cold.

A) True B) False

123. Habitat fragmentation is the division and reduction of habitat into smaller pieces by human activity.

A) True B) False

124. All of the materials we use originate from natural resources found in nature.

A) True B) False

125. Describe the relationship between the prairie dog, bison, and pronghorn in the temperate grasslands of North America.

126. How does ecological equivalence illustrate convergent evolution? (See Section 7.1.)

127. How does the preservation of biomes help to mitigate climate change?

128. Non-native species are often most successful when they are transported to the same or similar biome. They are less successful if they are transported to a different biome. For example, many invasive plants in California came from the Mediterranean region. Why do you think these plants have been able to successfully establish in California?

129. Why should we save a spider monkey in remote tropical seasonal forest of Mexico? Of what practical use is the spider monkey to people?

130. Using Figure 8.2, find the biome you live in. Using Figure 8.28, can you tell what its leading category of human land use is now?

131. Many people in Brazil claim that other countries such as the United States have no business telling Brazil not to cut its rainforests because most developed countries (such as the United States) cut their forests early in their histories. Do you agree or disagree with this argument? Explain.

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132. Besides helping people, can you think of other reasons to save habitat and species?

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Answer Key 1. C 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. B 7. B 8. B 9. A 10. D 11. C 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. D 17. B 18. C 19. C 20. A 21. B 22. D 23. A 24. B 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. D 30. A 31. B 32. D 33. D 34. A 35. A 36. B 37. B 38. D 39. C 40. B 41. B 42. D 43. B 44. C

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45. B 46. A 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. D 51. C 52. B 53. A 54. D 55. C 56. A 57. B 58. D 59. B 60. A 61. A 62. C 63. B 64. C 65. B 66. D 67. D 68. D 69. A 70. A 71. C 72. A 73. B 74. A 75. C 76. B 77. A 78. D 79. B 80. A 81. C 82. A 83. B 84. A 85. C 86. A 87. A 88. A 89. A 90. B

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91. A 92. B 93. B 94. A 95. B 96. B 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. B 101. A 102. A 103. B 104. A 105. A 106. B 107. B 108. A 109. A 110. B 111. A 112. B 113. B 114. A 115. A 116. B 117. A 118. B 119. A 120. B 121. A 122. B 123. A 124. A 125. The relationship between these animals was mutualism. The prairie dog burrowing activities and droppings increased grass and forb growth around prairie dog towns. This plant growth benefited the bison and pronghorn. In turn, the bison and pronghorn benefited the prairie dogs by keeping plant growth low near prairie dog colonies, allowing the prairie dogs a better view of predators.

126. Convergent evolution occurs when two unrelated organisms evolve to look and act alike and evolve similar physiological characteristics in separate geographic areas. That is what is happening in ecological equivalence, but on the biome level rather than the individual level.

127. The preservation of biomes maintains healthy soils and vegetation. Soils and vegetation store carbon. Some biomes store a great deal of carbon. Preserving biomes keeps this carbon in the soil and vegetation. Converting biomes to human land use usually burns

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the vegetation and tills the soil, causing the carbon to oxidize and form carbon dioxide.

Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.

128. This occurs because an organism from the Mediterranean Sea region is already evolved to live in California's chaparral or Chile's matorral.

129. Habitat that supports organisms like spider monkeys provides natural services for people, like clean water, aesthetic delight, tourism revenue, and climate stabilization by keeping carbon in vegetation and soils and out of the atmosphere.

130. Answers will vary depending on where the student lives.

131. Answers will vary. Basically, one argument is that it is hypocritical to criticize developing nations for doing what we did and are still doing. Conversely, it could be argued that the important thing is to save what's left wherever it may occur, in both developed and developing nations.

132. Answers will vary. One possibility is that people have no right to destroy the natural world. Religion may come into this as well, if the instructor likes.

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Chapter 9- Soil and Water Resources

1. The process of forming soils is called __________.

A) pedogenesis B) regolith C) eluviation D) leaching

2. __________ is/are layers of soils that are identified by their different physical and chemical properties.

A) Regolith B) Soil horizons C) Soil orders D) Soil texture

3. Through the process of __________ rainwater carries dissolved nutrients downward and deeper into the soil.

A) eluviation B) leaching C) pedogenesis D) illuviation

4. Through the process of __________ rainwater carries soil particles downward and deeper into the soil.

A) eluviation B) leaching C) pedogenesis D) illuviation

5. Through the process of __________ rainwater deposits soil particles and minerals deeper into the soil.

A) eluviation B) leaching C) pedogenesis D) illuviation

6. Rainwater moves particles and dissolved chemicals into the __________ soil horizon.

A) O B) A C) E D) B

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7. The __________ soil horizon is also called the “organic horizon.”

A) O B) A C) E D) B

8. Transported clays and dissolved chemicals are deposited through the process of illuviation in the __________ horizon.

A) O B) A C) E D) B

9. The __________ soil horizon is also called topsoil.

A) A B) C C) E D) B

10. The __________ horizon is composed of unconsolidated weathered rock and rests on the bedrock.

A) O B) C C) E D) R

11. The __________ horizon consists mostly of unweathered bedrock.

A) O B) C C) E D) R

12. Which is not considered when evaluating soil's texture?

A) sand content B) water content C) silt content D) clay content

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13. Particle sizes of 0.05 to 1 millimeter are classified as __________.

A) sand B) silt C) clay D) cobble

14. Particle sizes of 0.002 to 0.05 millimeters are classified as __________.

A) sand B) silt C) clay D) gravel

15. Particle sizes of <0.002 millimeters are classified as __________.

A) sand B) silt C) clay D) loam

16. The average topsoil depth worldwide ranges from __________ centimeters.

A) 1 to 5 B) 5 to 20 C) 20 to 30 D) 30 to 65

17. In which geographic setting will soils develop the fastest?

A) in a desert B) in the tundra C) in the lowland tropics D) in a temperate deciduous forest

18. Which climate zone has the deepest soils?

A) the polar high B) the subpolar low C) the subtropical high D) the ITCZ

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19. Which climate zone has the most leached soils?

A) the polar high B) the subpolar low C) the subtropical high D) the ITCZ

20. Plant roots are concentrated in the __________ soil horizon.

A) A B) E C) B D) C

21. The actions of living organisms are concentrated in the __________ soil horizon.

A) A B) E C) B D) C

22. Plaggen soils occur where?

A) in the Amazon rainforest B) in Equatorial Africa C) in the eastern deciduous forest D) in Europe

23. Compost is a type of __________.

A) leaching B) illuviation C) anthropogenic soil D) loam

24. Soil develops at a rate of __________ centimeters per 1,000 years.

A) 1 B) 2.5 C) 4 D) 6

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25. The most important soil-loss factor is due to __________.

A) road building B) human settlement C) erosion D) poisoning

Use the following to answer question 26:

26. This photo shows Georgia's Providence Canyon. What human activity resulted in this canyon?

A) burning the forests B) poor agricultural practices C) overgrazing D) These canyons are natural.

27. __________ is the practice of creating furrows in the soil that run parallel to a line of equal elevation.

A) Composting B) Terracing C) Contour plowing D) Leaching

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28. __________ is the practice of creating shelves of standing water on very steep slopes to grow crops, notably rice.

A) Composting B) Terracing C) Contour plowing D) Leaching

29. Using Table 9.1, which vegetation type has the highest soil-carbon content?

A) temperate grasslands B) croplands C) wetlands D) boreal forest

30. Using Table 9.1, which vegetation type has the highest total carbon (soil-carbon and plant-carbon) content?

A) temperate grasslands B) croplands C) wetlands D) boreal forest

31. Which statement is not accurate about the benefits of soils?

A) Soils provide climate change mitigation.

B) Soils provide clean water.

C) Soils pollute groundwater.

D) Soils provide new medicines.

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Use the following to answer questions 32-33:

32. In the figure, which soil horizon is composed mainly of organic matter or humus?

A) O B) A C) E D) B

33. In the figure, in which soil horizon are clays and dissolved chemicals deposited through illuviation?

A) O B) A C) E D) B

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Use the following to answer questions 34-35:

34. Reading this chart, what percentage of “silty clay” is composed of silt?

A) 30 to 50 percent B) 40 to 60 percent C) 50 to 70 percent D) 60 to 80 percent 35. Reading this chart, what percentage of “sandy clay loam” is composed of clay?

A) 20 to 35 percent B) 30 to 45 percent C) 35 to 55 percent D) 60 to 100 percent

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Use the following to answer questions 36-39:

36. In the figure, red or orange soils indicate __________.

A) high organic content B) strong weathering C) persistent high water tables D) heavy leaching of iron

37. In the figure, gray soils indicate __________.

A) high organic content B) strong weathering C) persistent high water tables D) heavy leaching of iron

38. In the figure, dark brown soils indicate __________.

A) high organic content B) strong weathering C) persistent high water tables D) heavy leaching of iron

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39. In the figure, blue and green-gray soils indicate __________.

A) high organic content B) strong weathering C) persistent high water tables D) heavy leaching of iron

Use the following to answer questions 40-48:

40. According to the figure, soils that form in coniferous forests with cold climates are called __________.

A) entisols B) gelisols C) oxisols D) spodosols

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41. According to the figure, soils that occur where the ground is permanently frozen are called __________.

A) entisols B) gelisols C) oxisols D) spodosols

42. According to the figure, soils that commonly form in tropical regions with high rainfall are called __________.

A) mollisols B) gelisols C) oxisols D) spodosols

43. According to the figure, soils found in new deposits from rivers, glaciers, and sand dunes are called __________.

A) entisols B) vertisols C) oxisols D) spodosols

44. According to the figure, soils developed from volcanic ash are called __________.

A) entisols B) andisols C) mollisols D) alfisols

45. According to the figure, clay-dominated soils with low organic content are called __________.

A) entisols B) andisols C) oxisols D) vertisols

46. According to the figure, soils found in grasslands are called __________.

A) mollisols B) andisols C) oxisols D) vertisols

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47. According to the figure, which type of soil is common in the southeastern United States?

A) andisols B) entisols C) oxisols D) ultisols

48. According to the figure, which soil is the most fertile for agriculture?

A) entisols B) inceptisols C) mollisols D) oxisols

49. Which factor is not considered by the Thornthwaite system that determines water availability in a given region?

A) the amount of precipitation B) actual evapotranspiration rates C) potential evapotranspiration rates D) atmospheric humidity

50. Which biome has the highest potential evapotranspiration rates?

A) temperate deciduous forest B) hot desert C) grassland D) cold desert

51. About what percentage of water people use in the United States comes from the ground?

A) 10 percent B) 30 percent C) 50 percent D) 70 percent

52. Water moves through the soil through the process of __________.

A) leaching B) percolation C) infiltration D) eluviation

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53. The ease at which water can flow through the ground depends mostly on the __________ of the ground.

A) permeability B) porosity C) pedogenesis D) eluviation

54. A(n) __________ is any sediment or rock with pore spaces that contain water.

A) aquiclude B) aquifer C) spring D) capillary fringe

55. A(n) __________ is any sediment or rock that has no pore spaces and cannot contain water.

A) aquiclude B) aquifer C) spring D) capillary fringe

56. A confined aquifer requires that what be present?

A) a capillary fringe B) a cone of depression C) an aquiclude D) a water table

57. Water seeps into the ground by gravity through the process of __________.

A) infiltration B) percolation C) pedogenesis D) eluviation

58. A(n) __________ forms where hydraulic pressure pushes groundwater onto the surface.

A) aquifer B) water table C) spring D) confined aquifer

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59. Most lakes and streams reveal what about groundwater?

A) the height of the water table B) the permeability of the ground C) the direction of groundwater movement D) the size of the aquifer

60. Drought does what to groundwater?

A) It raises the height of the water table.

B) It lowers the height of the water table.

C) It increases the permeability of the soil.

D) It has little effect on groundwater.

61. From the ground's surface downward, which sequence is in the correct order?

A) capillary fringe—zone of aeration—zone of saturation B) zone of saturation—zone of aeration—capillary fringe C) zone of aeration—capillary fringe—zone of saturation D) zone of aeration—zone of saturation—capillary fringe

62. The layer of ground that is not permanently saturated is called the __________.

A) zone of aeration B) zone of saturation C) aquifer D) water table

63. A perched water table requires the presence of what?

A) a continuous aquiclude B) a spring C) a capillary fringe D) a discontinuous aquiclude

64. The __________ is the elevation to which hydraulic pressure will push water in pipes.

A) artesian well B) potentiometric surface C) zone of saturation D) water table

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Use the following to answer question 65:

65. On the map, which region shows the greatest moisture deficits in January 2014?

A) the Pacific Northwest B) the interior western states C) the Midwest D) the East Coast

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Use the following to answer questions 66-67:

66. Which marked letter zone in this figure designates the zone of saturation?

A) A B) B C) C D) All letters mark the zone of saturation.

67. Which marked letter in this figure designates the capillary fringe?

A) A B) B C) C D) All letters mark the capillary fringe.

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Use the following to answer question 68:

68. In the figure, water flows from points P1 to P2 because __________.

A) there is less hydraulic pressure at P1 than P2 B) there is more hydraulic pressure at P1 than P2 C) there is an upward slope from P1 to P2 D) there is a downward slope from P1 to P2

69. __________ is a lowering of the water table level around a well that results from withdrawing water from an aquifer faster than it is recharged.

A) Groundwater overdraft B) Saltwater intrusion C) A cone of depression D) A surface fissure

70. __________ is the removal of water from an aquifer faster than it is replenished through recharge.

A) Groundwater overdraft B) Saltwater intrusion C) A cone of depression D) A surface fissure

71. Which is not associated with groundwater overdraft?

A) subsidence B) dry well C) surface fissures D) lowered potentiometric surface

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72. A(n) __________ is a shaft dug by people to get water from the ground.

A) spring B) aquiclude C) aquifer D) well

73. __________ occurs in wells in coastal areas when water is taken from an aquifer faster than it is replenished through recharge.

A) Groundwater overdraft B) Saltwater intrusion C) A perched aquifer D) Land subsidence

74. __________ occurs when water is taken from an aquifer faster than it is replenished through recharge and the pore spaces in the ground collapse.

A) Groundwater overdraft B) Saltwater intrusion C) A perched aquifer D) Land subsidence

75. Water in the Ogallala Aquifer originated mostly from __________.

A) infiltration from streams B) periods of wet climate C) melting of the Laurentide ice sheet D) large lakes that once existed on the Great Plains

76. The groundwater in Saudi Arabia is over __________ years old.

A) 10,000 B) 20,000 C) 50,000 D) 100,000

77. Why are some farm fields circular?

A) because circles fit together efficiently B) because circular fields are easiest to plant and harvest C) because they have traditionally been that shape D) because they are watered by a center-pivot irrigation system

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78. Why does groundwater become more expensive as the water table lowers?

A) because there is more competition for it, driving up prices B) because it takes more energy and expense to pump it from greater depths C) because the water must be cleaned and processed D) The cost of groundwater does not increase as the water table lowers.

79. A cloud of pollution in an aquifer is called a __________.

A) contaminant plume B) containment well C) groundwater remediation D) pollution source

80. __________ is the process of cleaning polluted groundwater.

A) Contaminant plume B) Containment well C) Groundwater remediation D) Pollution source

81. Which type of remediation treats groundwater pollution within the ground?

A) in situ remediation B) pump-and-treat remediation C) surface remediation D) de-facto remediation

82. Which is not used in groundwater remediation?

A) chemicals B) legislation C) bacteria D) extraction wells

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Use the following to answer question 83:

83. According to the map, most of the lowering of the water table level in the Ogallala Aquifer has occurred in the __________ portion(s) of the aquifer.

A) northwestern B) northeastern C) northeastern and central D) central and southern

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Use the following to answer question 84:

84. Referring to the figure, which does not contaminate groundwater?

A) septic tanks B) mining activities C) farm animal waste D) swimming pools

85. Referring to Table 9.4, how many liters of water are required to make a 1 liter water bottle?

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

86. The average golf course in the United States uses about __________ liters of water each day.

A) 10,000 B) 100,000 C) 300,000 D) 500,000

87. The hidden water required to produce a material good or food is called __________.

A) virtual water B) unseen water C) soft water D) hidden water

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Use the following to answer questions 88-89:

88. According to the map, which country exports the most virtual water?

A) the United States B) Canada C) Mexico D) China

89. According to the map, which country imports the most virtual water?

A) the United States B) Canada C) Mexico D) China

90. A lack of water and soil resources was implicated in the downfall of the Maya.

A) True B) False

91. Soil is the layer of sediment that has been modified by organisms and water, and is the region where plant roots extend.

A) True B) False

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92. The horizontal layers in soils are called regolith.

A) True B) False

93. Soils contain components from all of Earth's major physical systems: the lithosphere, the biosphere, the atmosphere, and the hydrosphere.

A) True B) False

94. Loam consists of about 70 percent sand, 20 percent silt, and 10 percent clay by volume.

A) True B) False

95. Sandy soils and rocky soils have high organic content.

A) True B) False

96. Soil erosion can change soil texture.

A) True B) False

97. The best soils for agriculture have a loam texture.

A) True B) False

98. Soils develop slower in tropical climates than in cold climates and arid climates.

A) True B) False

99. Bedrock that is resistant to weathering forms soils more slowly than soft bedrock.

A) True B) False

100. Healthy topsoil does not have bacteria living in it.

A) True B) False

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101. Gentle slopes develop thicker soils than steep slopes.

A) True B) False

102. In the Northern Hemisphere, north-facing slopes are drier than south-facing slopes.

A) True B) False

103. Where natural springs arise, soils are wet.

A) True B) False

104. Soil color indicates what the soil is composed of and the climate under which it formed.

A) True B) False

105. Potential evapotranspiration is the amount of water that evaporates and transpires from plants.

A) True B) False

106. Actual evapotranspiration is the amount of water that would evaporate and transpire from plants if it were available.

A) True B) False

107. The Palmer Drought Severity Index is based on potential evapotranspiration rates.

A) True B) False

108. Drought occurs when water deficits persist longer than normal for a region.

A) True B) False

109. Groundwater supplies fluctuate relatively little compared to surface water supplies.

A) True B) False

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110. Clay has greater permeability than sand.

A) True B) False

111. Clay has high porosity and low permeability.

A) True B) False

112. Sand has high porosity and high permeability.

A) True B) False

113. Aquifers form mostly in porous sediments and rocks.

A) True B) False

114. Most aquifers are confined aquifers.

A) True B) False

115. Groundwater overdraft can increase the height of the water table.

A) True B) False

116. Groundwater recharge occurs as water infiltrates the soil and enters the aquifer.

A) True B) False

117. Water enters an aquifer through groundwater discharge.

A) True B) False

118. The height of the water table usually changes by season.

A) True B) False

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119. Water withdrawals by people can lower the level of the water table.

A) True B) False

120. Groundwater mining occurs where water is taken from an aquifer that has rapid natural recharge.

A) True B) False

121. Fossil groundwater is water in an aquifer that is continually being replenished.

A) True B) False

122. Groundwater in the southern Ogallala Aquifer is fossil groundwater.

A) True B) False

123. All groundwater extraction in Saudi Arabia is groundwater mining.

A) True B) False

124. All groundwater mining is unsustainable in the long term.

A) True B) False

125. Nearly 5,000 children in developing countries die each day as a result of waterborne diseases.

A) True B) False

126. Population growth and economic development often increase the demand for water resources.

A) True B) False

127. Why is farming in the Arabian Desert unsustainable?

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128. Examine the Soil Taxonomy map in this chapter and find where you live. What soil order(s) occurs where you live? How else could you determine the soil type where you live?

129. How does economic development affect water resources within a country?

130. How does buying a cotton T-shirt potentially relate to the health and well-being of people living near the Aral Sea in Uzbekistan?

131. Do you think luxury services, such as golf courses, are justifiable given their water footprint? Does your answer depend on whether you golf or not? Are there other similar activities you could argue as being equally unjustifiable? What are they?

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Answer Key 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. C 16. B 17. C 18. D 19. D 20. A 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. B 27. C 28. B 29. D 30. D 31. C 32. A 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. A 39. C 40. D 41. B 42. C 43. A 44. B

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45. D 46. A 47. D 48. C 49. D 50. B 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. B 55. A 56. C 57. A 58. C 59. A 60. B 61. C 62. A 63. D 64. B 65. B 66. C 67. B 68. B 69. C 70. A 71. D 72. D 73. B 74. D 75. C 76. A 77. D 78. B 79. A 80. C 81. A 82. B 83. D 84. D 85. C 86. D 87. A 88. A 89. C 90. A

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91. A 92. B 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. B 101. A 102. B 103. A 104. A 105. B 106. B 107. A 108. A 109. A 110. B 111. A 112. A 113. A 114. B 115. B 116. A 117. B 118. A 119. A 120. B 121. B 122. A 123. A 124. A 125. A 126. A 127. The fossil groundwater is not replacing itself. It is permanently lost once it is used.

128. Answers will vary depending on where students live. It would also be possible to use a Munsell Soil Color Book. Students could take soil samples and key them out and identify them by color.

129. Generally, the more economic development, the greater the demands for water resources. Also, water use becomes more efficient with increased economic development.

130. In this case, the cotton was grown by diverting water from the Aral Sea to the cotton fields. These water diversions destroyed the Aral Sea ecosystem. This is an example of the impacts that virtual water may have on distant areas.

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131. Answers will vary. Students may choose either side of this issue. One could argue golf courses are unnecessary and waste water. By that argument one could also assert that planting roses or washing a car are unnecessary and waste water. Certain types of foods, such as meats, have a large water footprint. There are many activities and products with large water footprints. So a student may argue that golf is a reasonable water use if it provides enjoyment to those who do it. Or they may argue that activities like golf are not necessary and are unjustifiable.

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Chapter 10- The Living Hydrosphere

1. Anthropogenic coastal dead zones are caused by __________.

A) excessive use of fertilizers on farms far from the coast B) coastal pollution from cities C) coastal oil spills D) overfishing

2. If Earth were a smooth sphere, the oceans would cover the surface to a depth of __________ meters.

A) 500 B) 1,000 C) 1,500 D) 2,500

3. What percentage of the oxygen in the atmosphere originates from photosynthetic organisms in the oceans?

A) 50 percent B) 60 percent C) 70 percent D) 80 percent

4. On average, the oceans are __________ kilometers deep.

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7

5. A __________ is a long body of deep water that usually forms an inlet or connects two seas.

A) gulf B) sea C) strait D) sound

6. A __________ is mostly enclosed by land like a bay, but it is much larger.

A) gulf B) sea C) strait D) sound

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7. A __________ is a narrow passage of water connecting to larger bodies of water.

A) gulf B) sea C) strait D) sound

8. A __________ is a large body of salt water that is defined by the presence of continents, peninsulas, or islands.

A) gulf B) sea C) strait D) sound

9. The largest ocean is the __________ Ocean.

A) Pacific B) Atlantic C) Indian D) Southern

10. The oldest ocean is the __________ Ocean.

A) Pacific B) Atlantic C) Indian D) Arctic

11. The __________ Ocean surrounds Antarctica.

A) Pacific B) Atlantic C) Indian D) Southern

12. The __________ Ocean is mostly ice-covered.

A) Pacific B) Atlantic C) Arctic D) Southern

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13. The __________ Ocean is mostly in the Southern Hemisphere.

A) Pacific B) Atlantic C) Indian D) Arctic

14. Light penetrates up to __________ meters in seawater.

A) 120 B) 180 C) 250 D) 300

15. Which wavelength of light travels deepest in seawater?

A) red B) orange C) yellow D) blue

16. Which wavelength of light is the first to be absorbed by seawater?

A) red B) orange C) yellow D) blue

17. The mesopelagic zone occurs at a depth of __________ meters.

A) 0 to 200 B) 200 to 1,000 C) 1,000 to 4,000 D) 4,000 to 6,000

18. The abyssopelagic zone occurs at a depth of __________ meters.

A) 0 to 200 B) 200 to 1,000 C) 1,000 to 4,000 D) 4,000 to 6,000

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19. The epipelagic zone occurs at a depth of __________ meters.

A) 0 to 200 B) 200 to 1,000 C) 1,000 to 4,000 D) 4,000 to 6,000

20. The bathypelagic zone occurs at a depth of __________ meters.

A) 0 to 200 B) 200 to 1,000 C) 1,000 to 4,000 D) 4,000 to 6,000

21. The deepest parts of the ocean are found in the __________ zone.

A) epipelagic B) mesopelagic C) bathypelagic D) hadal

22. The lighted surface region is the __________ zone.

A) epipelagic B) mesopelagic C) bathypelagic D) hadal

23. At 30 meters depth there are __________ kilograms of water pressure for every square centimeter.

A) 1 B) 3 C) 6 D) 9

24. The large circular ocean currents in the ocean basins are called __________.

A) gyres B) thermoclines C) seamounts D) eddies

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25. The shallow, sloping areas of seafloor near the continents are called __________.

A) abyssal plains B) mid-ocean ridges C) seamounts D) continental shelves

26. The flat plains on the ocean floor are called __________.

A) abyssal plains B) mid-ocean ridges C) seamounts D) continental shelves

27. Submarine mountain ranges are called __________.

A) abyssal plains B) mid-ocean ridges C) seamounts D) continental shelves

28. __________ are isolated submerged mountains on the seafloor.

A) Abyssal plains B) Mid-ocean ridges C) Seamounts D) Continental shelves

Use the following to answer questions 29-30:

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29. According to this figure, how deep do green wavelengths of light penetrate the ocean?

A) 50 meters B) 100 meters C) 200 meters D) 250 meters

30. According to the figure, which wavelengths of insolation penetrate least in seawater?

A) ultraviolet B) orange C) red D) infrared

Use the following to answer questions 31-36:

31. Which lettered location on the map shows the warmest water?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

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32. Which lettered location on the map shows the transition between tropical and polar waters?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

33. Which lettered location on the map shows the coldest water?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

34. Referring to the map, which statement describes the temperature profile of ocean water for the tropics?

A) Water temperature is cold at all depths.

B) Water temperature is warm at all depths.

C) Water temperature is higher near the surface than at depth.

D) Surface water temperature is the highest of any latitude because it receives the most insolation.

35. Referring to the map, which statement describes the temperature profile of ocean water for high latitudes?

A) Water temperature is cold at all depths.

B) Water temperature is warm at all depths.

C) Water temperature is higher near the surface than at depth.

D) Surface water temperature is the highest of any latitude because it receives the most insolation.

36. Referring to the map, which statement describes the temperature profile of ocean water for the equator?

A) Water temperature is cold at all depths.

B) Water temperature is warm at all depths.

C) Water temperature is higher near the surface than at depth.

D) Surface water temperature is the highest of any latitude because it receives the most insolation.

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Use the following to answer questions 37-39:

37. Referring to the variation in ocean salinity map, which statement describes ocean water salinity at high latitudes?

A) The salinity of ocean water is uniform at all depths.

B) The salinity of ocean water is low near the surface and increases with depth.

C) The salinity of ocean water is slightly higher near the surface than at depth.

D) The salinity of ocean water is much higher near the surface than at depth.

38. Referring to the variation in ocean salinity map, which statement describes ocean water salinity in the tropics?

A) The salinity of ocean water is uniform at all depths.

B) The salinity of ocean water is low near the surface and increases with depth.

C) The salinity of ocean water is slightly higher near the surface than at depth.

D) The salinity of ocean water is much higher near the surface than at depth.

39. Referring to the variation in ocean salinity map, which statement describes ocean water salinity at the equator?

A) The salinity of ocean water is uniform at all depths.

B) The salinity of ocean water is low near the surface and increases with depth.

C) The salinity of ocean water is slightly higher near the surface than at depth.

D) The salinity of ocean water is much higher near the surface than at depth.

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Use the following to answer questions 40-41:

40. Which lettered location on the map shows the area of least change in seawater pH? A) A B) B C) C D) D

41. Which lettered location on the map shows the area of greatest change in seawater pH? A) A B) B C) C D) D

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Use the following to answer questions 42-44:

42. Which lettered box in this figure points to the continental shelf?

A) A B) B C) F D) E

43. Which lettered box in the figure points to the abyssal plain?

A) A B) C C) D D) F

44. Which lettered box in the figure points to seamounts?

A) C B) D C) F D) G

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45. There are about __________ known species of coral.

A) 100 B) 500 C) 700 D) 1,000

46. Which statement is not true of most warm-water, reef-building corals?

A) They are obligate mutualists with algae.

B) They are tolerant of low salinity levels.

C) They require water that is between 18 and 30 degrees Celsius.

D) They require high levels of light.

47. A(n) __________ runs parallel to the shoreline and forms a deep-water lagoon behind it.

A) fringing reef B) barrier reef C) atoll D) shelf reef

48. A(n) __________ forms near and parallel to the shoreline.

A) fringing reef B) barrier reef C) atoll D) shelf reef

49. A(n) __________ is a ring of coral reefs with an interior lagoon.

A) fringing reef B) barrier reef C) atoll D) shelf reef

50. Due to factors causing corals to decline, by 2050 scientists estimate that __________ percent of corals reefs could be threatened.

A) 50 B) 70 C) 90 D) 100

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51. Which is not among the factors threatening coral reefs?

A) rising ocean water temperature B) rising sea levels C) destructive fishing practices D) increased ocean acidity

52. Which is one of the adaptations to salt water found in mangrove trees and shrubs?

A) They have deep tap root systems.

B) They build reef structures.

C) They exude salt from pores on their leaves.

D) They live only above the high-tide line.

53. The single greatest threat to mangrove forests today is __________.

A) shrimp aquaculture B) overfishing C) coastal pollution D) sea-level rise

54. Between 1980 and 2000, __________ percent of the world's mangrove forests were cut down by people.

A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50

55. About __________ percent of the world's mangrove forests are now lost due to human activities.

A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60

56. Most of the world's remaining mangroves are found in __________.

A) Asia B) Africa C) Oceania D) South America

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57. Which is not true about seagrass meadows?

A) They improve coastal water quality by reducing suspended sediments.

B) They are restricted to the tropics.

C) They provide habitat for juvenile fish species and many other organisms.

D) They reduce coastal erosion.

58. Which is not one of the anthropogenic threats to seagrass meadows?

A) coastal pollution B) beach development C) dredging D) sport fishing

59. Which is not one of the characteristics of estuaries?

A) extensive mudflats B) low primary productivity C) used by migratory bird species D) dominated by herbaceous plants

60. The most important factor that has historically caused the loss of estuaries has been __________.

A) destructive fishing B) urban settlement C) coastal erosion D) Shrimp farms

61. Kelp forests are found where water temperature does not exceed __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 15 B) 20 C) 25 D) 28

62. Which kelp type forms kelp forests?

A) green kelp B) tan kelp C) red kelp D) orange kelp

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63. Kelp forests occur in water no deeper than __________ meters.

A) 20 B) 30 C) 40 D) 50

64. Which is not among the main threats kelp forests face?

A) pollution and sediment runoff from streams B) ocean acidification C) warming oceans D) removal of keystone species

65. Which statement does not accurately describe beaches and rocky shorelines?

A) They are low-energy environments.

B) Biodiversity is not very high in these environments.

C) Tide pool communities are found in these environments.

D) Coastal erosion of sand is a significant threat to beaches.

66. Which is not a threat to beaches?

A) development and urban settlement B) pollution runoff C) burial by too much sand D) non-native species

Use the following to answer question 67:

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67. According to the pie chart, __________ percent of coral reefs today are classified as healthy.

A) 15 B) 19 C) 20 D) 46

68. __________ is/are the circulating of water and nutrients from the seafloor up to the water's surface.

A) Upwelling B) Trawling C) Phytoplankton blooms D) Gyres

69. What season has the highest biological productivity in polar waters?

A) spring/early summer B) summer C) late summer/early fall D) fall

70. The open waters cover __________ percent of Earth's surface.

A) 50 B) 63 C) 71 D) 92

71. Organisms migrate from depths to the surface at night mainly to do what?

A) feed B) mate C) obtain oxygen D) avoid predation

72. Organisms living at the surface migrate to deeper water mainly to do what?

A) feed B) mate C) obtain oxygen D) avoid predation

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73. Organisms that are pelagic __________.

A) occupy high trophic levels B) live in coastal areas C) live in the open sea D) reproduce quickly 74. The “shark café” is probably a place where sharks __________.

A) feed B) mate C) avoid predation D) get their bearings using Earth's magnetic field

75. Which is bioluminescence not used for?

A) attracting mates B) attracting predators C) hiding from predators D) attracting prey

76. Why do many deep-sea fish have reflective silver scales?

A) to attract prey B) to attract predators C) to break their silhouette in the faint light D) to reflect light to confuse predators

77. Which is the least important form of sample collection in the open ocean?

A) trawling nets B) ROVs C) photo documentation D) manned submersibles

78. Why are seamounts biologically rich and productive?

A) because they are surrounded by productive waters B) because they create turbulence in ocean currents that stir up nutrients from the seafloor to the surface C) because they are closer to the sunlit layers of the ocean where more organisms live D) because organisms congregate around them to get their bearings during migration

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79. __________ is a place where fish are caught for human consumption.

A) A fishery B) Bycatch C) A gyre D) A hydrothermal vent

80. __________ occurs when fish are taken from the oceans faster than the population can reproduce.

A) Unsustainable fishing B) Commercial fishing C) Sustainable fishing D) Ocean trawling

81. __________ drags nets through the water column or along the seafloor.

A) Drift net fishing B) Trawling C) Longline fishing D) Seine fishing

82. __________ suspends large nets in the upper reaches of the ocean.

A) Drift net fishing B) Trawling C) Longline fishing D) Seine fishing

83. __________ entraps fish with a large net.

A) Drift net fishing B) Trawling C) Longline fishing D) Seine fishing

84. __________ employs thousands of baited hooks on lines up to 80 kilometers (50 miles) in length.

A) Drift net fishing B) Trawling C) Longline fishing D) Seine fishing

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85. Fishery collapse occurs when a population of fish declines to __________ percent of its former levels.

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40

86. About __________ percent of all plastic made is recycled.

A) 5 to 10 B) 10 to 20 C) 20 to 30 D) 30 to 40

87. About __________ percent of plastic that enters the oceans eventually sinks to the seafloor.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80

88. About __________ percent of all plastic made is disposed of in landfills.

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40

89. How does most plastic get into the oceans?

A) from streams flowing into the ocean B) from ships at sea dumping illegally C) from litter at beaches D) from factories that dump it illegally

90. Which is not a practical solution to the plastic problem?

A) make biodegradable plastics B) make less plastic C) prevent plastic from entering the ocean D) stop making disposal, nonbiodegradable plastic

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91. Coastal dead zones are areas of coastal water with extremely high levels of oxygen.

A) True B) False

92. Coastal dead zones are caused only by human activities.

A) True B) False

93. The oceans have an important effect on Earth's weather and climate.

A) True B) False

94. Green wavelengths of light travel deepest in seawater.

A) True B) False

95. At the thermocline, surface water transitions to cold water deeper down.

A) True B) False

96. Seawater salinity comes from streams that flow into the oceans.

A) True B) False

97. The average ocean salinity is 5 percent.

A) True B) False

98. Evaporation decreases the salinity of surface ocean water.

A) True B) False

99. Ocean water acidity is increasing because of human burning of fossil fuels.

A) True B) False

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100. Seafloor topography is called bathymetry.

A) True B) False

101. Coral reefs are the most biodiverse marine ecosystem.

A) True B) False

102. Corals are closely related to jellyfish.

A) True B) False

103. All corals live in shallow tropical waters and build reefs.

A) True B) False

104. Coral bleaching occurs when coral are stressed and unhealthy.

A) True B) False

105. Coral bleaching always kills corals.

A) True B) False

106. Australia's Great Barrier Reef is the largest reef system in the world.

A) True B) False

107. Mangrove forests are dominated by saltwater tolerant shrubs and trees that grow at all latitudes.

A) True B) False

108. Mangrove forests are important because they function as nurseries for many species of fish.

A) True B) False

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109. Seagrass meadows are composed of true grasses that have evolved to live submerged in salt water in coastal areas.

A) True B) False

110. Estuaries occur only at the mouths of rivers where fresh and salt water mix and there is a tidal influence.

A) True B) False

111. There are no saltwater-tolerant trees in estuaries.

A) True B) False

112. Estuaries are commercially valuable because they provide habitat for adult commercial fish species.

A) True B) False

113. Compared to lower latitudes, polar coastal waters are relatively little influenced by people.

A) True B) False

114. Phytoplankton are primary consumers.

A) True B) False

115. Phytoplankton include plants, algae, and bacteria.

A) True B) False

116. Polar waters have low biological productivity because they are so cold.

A) True B) False

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117. The open waters ecosystem covers about 10 percent of Earth's surface.

A) True B) False

118. Organisms that make their own light are called bioluminescent.

A) True B) False

119. A seamount is an isolated mountain that rises from the seafloor.

A) True B) False

120. The abyssal plains are biologically rich and productive areas of the ocean.

A) True B) False

121. Hydrothermal vent communities do not depend on sunlight as an energy source.

A) True B) False

122. Hydrothermal communities are not very biologically diverse.

A) True B) False

123. The global fish catch by people has declined in recent decades even though there are more boats in the water trying to catch more fish.

A) True B) False

124. Bycatch is intentional catching of targeted marine organisms.

A) True B) False

125. Shark fin soup threatens sharks worldwide.

A) True B) False

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126. The Great Pacific Garbage Patch forms because of ocean gyres.

A) True B) False

127. The Great Pacific Garbage Patch was first detected by satellites.

A) True B) False

128. Filter-feeding organisms ingest plastic and may transfer toxins in the plastic to marine food webs.

A) True B) False

129. Sea turtles can be killed when they eat plastic bags, mistaking them for jellyfish.

A) True B) False

130. If there were strong upwelling in tropical waters, do you think the Arctic tern would migrate such a long distance? Explain.

131. What is the connection between burning fossil fuels and ocean acidity? In this regard, how have the oceans reacted to slow atmospheric warming?

132. Can you think of any other solutions to the plastic problem not raised in this Geographic Perspectives?

133. Why is it said that corals are “canaries in a coal mine”?

134. Weigh the pros and cons of restricting or banning fishing (or hunting, or collecting) from an area.

135. Explain how the Pacific sea otter functions as a keystone species in kelp forests on California's coastline.

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Answer Key 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. C 13. C 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. A 20. C 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. A 25. D 26. A 27. B 28. C 29. B 30. D 31. D 32. A 33. C 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. B 38. C 39. D 40. D 41. C 42. A 43. B 44. B

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45. C 46. B 47. B 48. A 49. C 50. D 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. C 56. A 57. B 58. D 59. B 60. B 61. B 62. B 63. D 64. B 65. A 66. C 67. D 68. A 69. A 70. A 71. A 72. A 73. C 74. B 75. B 76. C 77. D 78. B 79. A 80. A 81. B 82. A 83. D 84. C 85. A 86. A 87. C 88. D 89. A 90. C

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91. B 92. B 93. A 94. B 95. A 96. A 97. B 98. B 99. A 100. A 101. A 102. A 103. B 104. A 105. B 106. A 107. B 108. A 109. B 110. A 111. A 112. B 113. A 114. B 115. A 116. B 117. B 118. A 119. A 120. B 121. A 122. B 123. A 124. B 125. A 126. A 127. B 128. A 129. A 130. It is reasonable to assume the tern would not expend so much energy to get to the polar regions if required resources were available year-round for the bird in the tropics.

131. Fossil fuels put carbon dioxide in the atmosphere. The oceans have absorbed about 30 percent of all anthropogenic carbon dioxide emissions since the Industrial Revolution.

As the oceans absorb carbon dioxide, they become more acidic. Absorbing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere has decreased the rate of increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.

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132. Answers will vary. For instance, consumers can choose to buy fewer disposable items that are made from plastic, and they can support bans on plastic in their local areas.

133. Corals are sensitive to changes in the environment, such as changes in temperature, salinity, or pH. Scientists call them bio-indicators because they point to larger problems on a global scale. Two examples are climate change and decreasing seawater pH as the oceans absorb anthropogenic carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

134. The pros are: When fishing is restricted or banned, fish populations can recover from overfishing. With further controlled harvesting, the fish population can be sustained over the long term. Also, healthy ecosystems can potentially attract ecotourists. The cons are: Fishing provides a revenue stream for local economies, assuming the fishermen are local. Restrictions on fishing can harm the local economy.

135. The Pacific sea otter eats sea urchins. When the otter is gone, the sea urchin population grows. Sea urchins eat and kill kelp. Too many urchins threaten the kelp forests.

Hundreds of other species depend on the kelp forests. Therefore, when the otter is gone, the kelp is threatened and so are the organisms that depend on the kelp.

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Chapter 11- Earth History, Earth Interior

1. Earth is one of __________ planets in the solar system.

A) seven B) eight C) nine D) ten

2. There are about __________ stars in the Milky Way. A) 10,000 to 100,000 B) 1 million to 5 million C) 50 billion to 100 billion D) 100 billion to 400 billion

3. Light travels at __________ kilometers per second.

A) 1,000 B) 100,000 C) 300,000 D) 500,000

4. The Milky Way is __________ light years across.

A) 10,000 B) 65,000 C) 120,000 D) 210,000

5. Scientists think the universe is about __________ billion years old.

A) 6 B) 10.2 C) 13.8 D) 15

6. The age of the universe is based on what?

A) the age of stars B) the distance of stars C) the observation that all objects in the universe are moving away from each other D) radiocarbon dating

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7. Atoms and molecules that make up physical matter comprise about __________ percent of the mass of the universe.

A) 4 B) 10 C) 25 D) 90

8. Every year an estimated __________ metric tons of material from space enters Earth's atmosphere.

A) 7 B) 15 C) 55 D) 140

9. Most of the material from space that enters Earth's atmosphere is the size of __________.

A) sand B) gravel C) rocks D) large boulders

10. Which sequence puts the solar system formation in the correct order?

A) protoplanetary disk—star development—solar system formation B) solar system formation—star development—protoplanetary disk C) star development—protoplanetary disk—solar system formation D) star development—solar system formation—protoplanetary disk

11. The Sun is about __________ times the mass of Earth.

A) 300 B) 3,000 C) 30,000 D) 300,000

12. Why does Earth's surface have fewer impact craters than the Moon?

A) because Earth is hit by fewer asteroids than the Moon B) because erosion has erased Earth's impact craters C) because the Moon is older than Earth and has been hit more asteroids D) because lava flows cover up most impact craters on Earth

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13. Manicouagan Crater in Québec, Canada, is about __________ kilometers in diameter.

A) 1 B) 10 C) 100 D) 1,000

14. Which statement does not describe the Willamette meteorite that was found in Oregon?

A) It is the largest meteorite ever found in the United States.

B) It is composed mostly of iron.

C) It is over a billion years old.

D) It weighs 300 tons.

15. How did Earth's atmosphere form?

A) from volcanic gases B) from early plants C) from comets and asteroids D) from chemical reactions

16. How did Earth's oceans form?

A) from volcanic gases B) from early plants C) from comets and asteroids D) from chemical reactions

17. What is a stromatolite?

A) a region in the French Alps B) a region of Earth's interior C) an instrument used to measure rock chemistry D) a mat of photosynthetic bacteria

18. Oxygen concentrations in the atmosphere began rising about __________ billion years ago.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

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19. After the Great Oxidation Event, __________ formed.

A) terrestrial life B) the ozonosphere C) the oceans D) the atmosphere

20. Multicellular life appeared about __________ years ago.

A) 100 million B) 700 million C) 900 million D) 1.2 billion

21. Land plants evolved about __________ million years ago.

A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 500

22. The earliest mammal fossils are about __________ million years old.

A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400

23. About when did reptiles first evolve?

A) 200 million years ago B) 300 million years ago C) 350 million years ago D) 400 million years ago

24. About when did fishes first evolve?

A) 350 million years ago B) 400 million years ago C) 440 million years ago D) 540 million years ago

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25. The earliest modern human fossils are about __________ years old.

A) 100,000 B) 150,000 C) 200,000 D) 250,000

Use the following to answer questions 26-27:

26. On the map, which continent has the fewest number of impact craters?

A) North America B) Eurasia C) Australia D) Africa

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27. On the map, why is there a cluster of meteorite impacts in northern Europe?

A) because more have hit there compared to surrounding areas B) because the area has been thoroughly searched as a result of large populations living there C) because the craters are better preserved in northern Europe compared to surrounding areas D) Map distortion makes it appear that there are more impact craters in northern Europe, when in fact there are not.

28. Earth is __________ billion years old.

A) 3.5 B) 4.6 C) 8 D) 13.5

29. When did mammals first evolve?

A) 200 million years ago B) 250 million years ago C) 300 million years ago D) 350 million years ago

30. There have been about __________ mass extinction events in Earth's history.

A) two B) three C) four D) five

31. Which geologic time period are we currently not in?

A) the Cenozoic B) the Quaternary C) the Mesozoic D) the Holocene

32. Which sequence puts the geologic periods in the correct order, from oldest to most recent?

A) Pliocene—Pleistocene—Holocene B) Holocene—Pliocene—Pleistocene C) Pliocene—Holocene—Pleistocene D) Pleistocene—Pliocene—Holocene

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33. Which statement describes the premise of radiometric dating used to date rocks?

A) Dates are based on the constant rate of decay of unstable elements in a material.

B) Dates are based on the composition of minerals in a rock.

C) Dates are based on the degree of solar energy that has been absorbed by an object.

D) Dates are based on the known ages of other materials.

34. Earth's earliest fossils are about __________ billion years old.

A) 2 B) 3.2 C) 3.5 D) 4

Use the following to answer questions 35-36:

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35. Reading the geologic time table in this figure, which era are we currently in?

A) Cenozoic B) Mesozoic C) Paleozoic D) Precambrian

36. According to the figure, in what epoch does Homo sapiens develop?

A) the Holocene B) the Pleistocene C) the Pliocene D) the Miocene

Use the following to answer question 37:

37. According to the figure, if all of Earth's history were compressed into a year of time, dinosaurs exist in __________.

A) mid-June B) mid-September C) late November D) mid-December

38. At 40 kilometers depth the temperature is about __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 500

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39. The core of the planet is nearly __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 4,000 B) 4,500 C) 5,000 D) 5,500

40. Tidal forces that partially keep Earth's interior hot are caused by __________.

A) the oceans B) the Moon only C) the Sun only D) the Moon and Sun

41. Why is Earth's center composed of heavy iron and nickel?

A) because the temperatures in the center are high enough to form those metals B) because the heaviest elements settled to the center while Earth was forming C) because there is great pressure at the center of Earth D) because the center of Earth formed earlier than the outer layers.

42. The average density of Earth is about __________ grams per cubic centimeter.

A) 4 B) 4.5 C) 5 D) 5.5

43. The average density of the rocks near the surface is about __________ grams per cubic centimeter.

A) 2 B) 2.9 C) 3.4 D) 4

44. __________ are waves of energy released by earthquakes that travel through Earth's interior.

A) Seismic waves B) Raleigh waves C) Continental waves D) Magma waves

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45. What have scientists concluded about Earth based on the average density of Earth and the average density of the crust?

A) that the crust must be made of heavy metals in order to account for the missing density B) that the core must be made of heavy metals in order to account for the missing density C) that the center and the core are the same density D) that their understanding of what lies at the center of Earth is faulty

46. Most of what is known about the physical structure of Earth's deep interior comes from __________.

A) deep drill core samples B) lava samples from volcanoes C) computer modeling D) seismic waves

47. Which is not used by scientists to study the internal structure and chemistry of Earth?

A) deep drill core samples B) lava from volcanoes C) the magnetic field D) seismic waves

48. The lithosphere lies at a depth of __________ kilometers.

A) 0 to 35 B) 0 to 70 C) 0 to 100 D) 0 to 200

49. The asthenosphere is found between __________ kilometers depth.

A) 10 to 20 B) 50 to 100 C) 100 to 200 D) 200 to 300

50. The mantle lies at a depth of __________ kilometers.

A) 35 to 2,900 B) 70 to 2,900 C) 100 to 2,900 D) 200 to 2,900

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51. The mantle composes about __________ percent of Earth's volume.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80

52. The core lies at a depth of __________ kilometers.

A) 1,500 to 6,371 B) 2,000 to 6,371 C) 2,900 to 6,371 D) 5,155 to 6,371

53. The __________ surrounds the inner core and is composed of liquid iron and nickel.

A) lithosphere B) asthenosphere C) mantle D) outer core

54. The magnetic field is generated by the __________.

A) lithosphere B) asthenosphere C) outer core D) inner core

55. The magnetosphere shields Earth from __________.

A) ultraviolet radiation B) X-rays C) gamma rays D) the solar wind

56. The __________ is the layer of heated and slowly deforming solid rock that occurs between the base of the crust and the outer core.

A) lithosphere B) asthenosphere C) mantle D) outer core

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57. The __________ is the outer-most layer of Earth.

A) crust B) asthenosphere C) mantle D) outer core

58. The Moho is on average __________ kilometers in depth.

A) 10 B) 25 C) 35 D) 40

59. Which statement is not correct regarding composition of the crust?

A) Continental crust is made of granite.

B) Oceanic crust is made of basalt.

C) Continental crust is heavier than oceanic crust.

D) Granite is a silica-rich rock.

60. __________ is melted rock that is not on the crust's surface.

A) Lava B) Magma C) Granite D) Basalt

61. The thickness of the crust is __________ percent of the radius of the planet.

A) 0.01 to 1 B) 1 to 2 C) 2 to 5 D) 5 to 10

62. There are __________ major lithospheric plates.

A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 18

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63. Most of the heat loss from Earth's interior occurs where?

A) beneath the continents B) beneath mountains C) beneath valleys D) at plate boundaries

Use the following to answer questions 64-68:

64. Which layer in the figure shown is liquid?

A) the lithosphere B) the lower mantle C) the outer core D) the inner core

65. Which layer in the figure is rigid and brittle?

A) the lithosphere B) the lower mantle C) the outer core D) the inner core

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66. Which layer in the figure is solid rock that undergoes plastic deformation?

A) the lithosphere B) the lower mantle C) the outer core D) the inner core

67. Which layer in the figure has the greatest density?

A) the lithosphere B) the lower mantle C) the outer core D) the inner core

68. Which layer in the figure has the lowest density?

A) the lithosphere B) the lower mantle C) the outer core D) the inner core

Use the following to answer question 69:

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69. Which statement can be concluded by examining this figure?

A) The depth of the Moho is constant.

B) The depth of the Moho is greatest beneath oceans.

C) The depth of the Moho is greatest beneath mountains.

D) The depth of the Moho is greatest where the crust is thinned.

70. Today the average temperature of Mars at midlatitudes is about __________ degrees Celsius.

A) 50 B) 25 C) 0 D) -45

71. Which is the leading theory used to explain why Mars lost its atmosphere and oceans?

A) It lost its magnetic field that protected it from the solar wind.

B) It lost its atmosphere and the oceans evaporated to space.

C) Mars drifted too far away from the Sun to support an atmosphere and oceans.

D) The planet became too small to support an atmosphere and oceans.

72. Earth's internal heat keeps the atmosphere warm by __________.

A) radiating heat to the atmosphere B) driving plate motion, creating volcanoes that emit carbon dioxide that warms the atmosphere C) trapping greenhouse gas molecules in the atmosphere D) warming the oceans, which warm the atmosphere

73. Earth's human population is currently just over 7 billion.

A) True B) False

74. By 2050 there could be as many as 14 billion people on Earth.

A) True B) False

75. The Anthropocene is a new geologic era that began approximately in 1800 with the Industrial Revolution.

A) True B) False

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76. The Anthropocene marks the beginning of farming.

A) True B) False

77. Nearly 40 percent of Earth's land surface is used to grow food for people.

A) True B) False

78. About 10 percent of all mammal biomass is people and domesticated animals.

A) True B) False

79. All planets in the solar system orbit around Earth.

A) True B) False

80. Earth is the closest planet to the Sun. A) True B) False

81. Earth is the second smallest planet in the solar system.

A) True B) False

82. Earth is the warmest planet in the solar system.

A) True B) False

83. Our solar system is found in the Milky Way galaxy.

A) True B) False

84. Distances in space are usually given in light years, the time it takes light to travel from distant objects to Earth.

A) True B) False

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85. The Moon is thought to have formed after a large object named Theia collided with Earth early in the history of the solar system.

A) True B) False

86. Scientists believe that most of Earth's water resides in the Earth's interior rather than on the surface.

A) True B) False

87. The earliest fossils are about 3.5 billion years old.

A) True B) False

88. Earth's earliest life was plants.

A) True B) False

89. Most of Earth's biological history consists of single-celled bacteria.

A) True B) False

90. Uniformitarianism is the principle that changes in Earth's physical systems are rapid and perceivable on human time scales.

A) True B) False

91. Absolute age compares the age of one object or event to the age of another without specifying how old either is.

A) True B) False

92. Catastrophic events sometimes play an important role in the history of Earth's physical systems.

A) True B) False

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93. The absolute age of an object indicates how old it is in years.

A) True B) False

94. The principle of superposition assumes that younger layers of rock lie above older layers below.

A) True B) False

95. Radiocarbon dating is a form of radiometric dating.

A) True B) False

96. The oldest rocks on Earth are dated using radiocarbon dating.

A) True B) False

97. The geothermal gradient refers to the increasing temperature of Earth's atmosphere.

A) True B) False

98. The core, the mantle, and the lithosphere are the three major layers of Earth's interior.

A) True B) False

99. The Moho is the transition between the outer core and the mantle.

A) True B) False

100. The inner core of Earth is made of solid iron and nickel.

A) True B) False

101. True north and magnetic north are at the same location.

A) True B) False

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102. Compass needles point to true north.

A) True B) False

103. The mantle includes the asthenosphere and the lowest portion of the lithosphere.

A) True B) False

104. The crust is the outermost portion of Earth's layers.

A) True B) False

105. The asthenosphere is the weakest layer of Earth's solid interior and easily deforms, causing the lithosphere above it to move.

A) True B) False

106. The mantle is liquid molten rock that slowly flows.

A) True B) False

107. As seismic waves travel through Earth's interior, they bend and refract as a result of different densities of material they pass through.

A) True B) False

108. The crust is composed of both continental crust and oceanic crust.

A) True B) False

109. Oceanic crust is composed of basalt.

A) True B) False

110. Oceanic crust is lighter than continental crust.

A) True B) False

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111. Basalt is a dark volcanic rock found mostly in oceanic crust.

A) True B) False

112. When melted, basalt rock flows easily downslope.

A) True B) False

113. On California's San Andreas fault, the Pacific plate is moving north and the North American plate is moving south.

A) True B) False

114. Mars once had huge liquid oceans and a thick atmosphere.

A) True B) False

115. Today Mars has no more oceans, but it still has a thick and warm atmosphere.

A) True B) False

116. Scientists have evidence that life once existed on Mars.

A) True B) False

117. The magnetosphere protects Earth's surface from the harmful effects of the solar wind.

A) True B) False

118. What is the difference between magnetic north and geographic north?

119. Why is the crust cracked into lithospheric plates?

120. With regard to the ozonosphere (see Section 1.5), how did stromatolites make it possible for life to colonize land?

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121. What role do volcanoes have in producing the greenhouse effect?

122. How are the oceans and the greenhouse effect important to life on Earth?

123. What observations would you need to make to determine if the Moho was greater than or less than the average depth of 35 kilometers where you live?

124. What physical features can you identify where you live that were formed while operating under the principle of uniformitarianism?

125. New evidence shows that most stars have orbiting planets and that planets are more common than stars. Do you think that there might be life on other planets besides Earth?

What conditions would be necessary to support life? How would the discovery of life on another planet change your perspective of Earth's life?

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Answer Key 1. B 2. D 3. C 4. C 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. D 12. B 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. A 17. D 18. C 19. B 20. D 21. D 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. D 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. D 31. C 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. A 36. B 37. D 38. D 39. D 40. B 41. B 42. D 43. B 44. A

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45. B 46. D 47. A 48. C 49. C 50. A 51. D 52. C 53. D 54. C 55. D 56. C 57. A 58. C 59. C 60. B 61. A 62. C 63. D 64. C 65. A 66. B 67. D 68. A 69. C 70. D 71. A 72. B 73. A 74. B 75. A 76. B 77. A 78. B 79. B 80. B 81. B 82. B 83. A 84. A 85. A 86. A 87. A 88. B 89. A 90. B

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91. B 92. A 93. A 94. A 95. A 96. B 97. B 98. A 99. B 100. A 101. B 102. B 103. A 104. A 105. A 106. B 107. A 108. A 109. A 110. B 111. A 112. A 113. A 114. A 115. B 116. B 117. A 118. Magnetic north is where the compass needle points. It is the location where the magnetic field dips into the body of the planet. The magnetic north changes position through time. The geographic north is determined by the rotational axis. Its position never varies.

119. The crust is cracked because it is rigid and it is experiencing shear stresses from the moving asthenosphere beneath.

120. Cyanobacteria photosynthesis put oxygen in Earth's early atmosphere. Oxygen forms ozone molecules in the stratosphere as it interacts with high-energy ultraviolet radiation.

121. They emit water vapor and carbon dioxide. These are two greenhouse gases.

122. The natural greenhouse effect is essential for life on Earth. Earth would probably be too cold to support much of any life without the natural greenhouse effect because there would be very little available liquid water.

123. You would look at the elevation of surface topography to make this determination. The Moho is a mirror image of the surface—where mountains are higher, the Moho is deeper.

124. Answers will vary. Mountains may be discussed. Flat floodplains and sedimentation by a stream might be discussed. Everything in the biosphere is a result of uniformitarianism—slow and gradual changes through evolution.

125. Answers will vary. Basically, make students aware of the ubiquity of planets outside our

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solar system (there are billions scientists now know!) and get students to think about the uniqueness of Earth. There are no right answers, just reasoned conjecture on this one.

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Chapter 12- Drifting Continents- Plate Tectonics

1. Pangaea began forming __________ million years ago.

A) 200 B) 300 C) 400 D) 500

2. Which modern region was not a part of Gondwana?

A) Eurasia B) South America C) Australia D) India

3. Which modern region was not a part of Laurasia?

A) Eurasia B) North America C) Greenland D) India

4. The Tethys Sea formed about __________ million years ago.

A) 60 B) 200 C) 250 D) 300

5. The Atlantic Ocean was formed by about __________ million years ago.

A) 10 B) 25 C) 55 D) 65

6. Alfred Wegener first proposed the theory called __________.

A) continental drift B) plate tectonics C) seafloor spreading D) plate movement

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7. Which was not used by Wegener to support his theory?

A) matching rock types on separated continents B) the age of the seafloor C) glacial gravel deposits D) fossils

8. Wegener proposed his theory in __________.

A) 1912 B) 1921 C) 1932 D) 1940

9. The Glomar Challenger was a __________.

A) research vessel B) theory C) scientific lab D) type of fossil

10. Harry Hess proposed the theory of __________.

A) continental drift B) plate tectonics C) seafloor spreading D) plate movement

11. Which was not initially an important form of evidence used in support of the theory of plate tectonics?

A) mid-ocean ridges B) chemical composition of the continents C) magnetic reversals in crust on the seafloor D) age of the seafloor crust

12. Scientists discovered mid-ocean ridges using what technology?

A) radar B) sonar C) satellite data D) seawater chemistry

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13. What do deep-sea trenches reveal about Earth's crust?

A) They indicate where crust is moving apart.

B) They indicate where crust is moving together and diving down deeper into the mantle.

C) They indicate where an island was once at the sea's surface, then moved into deeper water.

D) They indicate where the youngest crust is.

14. Why do seamounts have flat tops?

A) because they are volcanic vents B) because ocean currents have scoured them flat C) because they are part of the old flat seafloor D) because waves eroded their tops when they were above sea level

15. What do seamounts reveal about Earth's crust?

A) They indicate where crust is moving apart.

B) They indicate where crust is moving together and diving down deeper into the mantle.

C) They indicate where an island was once at the sea's surface, then moved into deeper water.

D) They indicate where the youngest crust is.

16. How do magnetic properties of seafloor rocks support the theory of plate tectonics?

A) As they cool, the rocks record reversals of magnetic north.

B) The magnetic properties of the rocks indicate where the seafloor is thickest and therefore oldest.

C) The magnetic field changed the chemical composition of the rocks through time, revealing plate movement.

D) The magnetized rocks first revealed where mid-ocean ridges were.

17. The lithosphere is broken into about __________ major plates.

A) 10 B) 14 C) 18 D) 20

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18. Which is a primary plate?

A) Arabian plate B) Philippine plate C) African plate D) Cocos plate

19. Which is a secondary plate?

A) Nazca plate B) Antarctic plate C) Pacific plate D) Indo-Australian plate

20. How did scientists first determine where the boundaries of the plates are?

A) by studying rock types B) by examining earthquake activity C) by studying volcanic activity D) by examining magnetic properties of the crust

21. __________ is the process in which rising magma along a mid-ocean ridge lifts and forces oceanic lithosphere apart.

A) Mantle drag B) Ridge push C) Slab pull D) Lateral force

22. __________ occurs when the mantle beneath the plates moves and drags the lithosphere.

A) Mantle drag B) Ridge push C) Slab pull D) Lateral force

23. __________ occurs when the weight of sinking oceanic lithosphere accelerates plate motion.

A) Mantle drag B) Ridge push C) Slab pull D) Lateral force

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24. If the absolute velocity of two plates is 5 centimeters per year and both are moving away from each other, what is their relative velocity in centimeters per year?

A) 0 B) 5 C) 10 D) 15

25. If the absolute velocity of two plates is 5 centimeters per year and both are moving in the same direction, what is their relative velocity in centimeters per year?

A) 0 B) 5 C) 10 D) 15

26. In terms of relative velocity, lithospheric plates move as fast as __________ centimeters per year.

A) 10 B) 14 C) 18 D) 22

27. Which is not addressed by plate tectonics theory?

A) mountain building B) the geographic locations of volcanoes C) patterns of earthquakes D) climate patterns

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Use the following to answer questions 28-30:

28. Referring to the figure, which letter marks the oldest seafloor crust?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

29. Referring to the figure, which letter marks the youngest seafloor crust?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

30. Referring to the figure, as you cross the Atlantic Ocean basin from North America to northern Africa, which describes the age pattern of rocks?

A) old—younger—youngest B) youngest—old—oldest C) young—old—young D) old—young—old

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Use the following to answer questions 31-33:

31. Referring to the figure, which is the largest plate?

A) the African plate B) the South American plate C) the Pacific plate D) the Eurasian plate

32. Referring to the figure, which plate is mainly of continental crust?

A) the North American plate B) the Eurasian plate C) the Arabian plate D) the Philippine plate

33. Referring to the figure, which plate is mainly of oceanic crust?

A) the North American plate B) the Indo-Australian plate C) the African plate D) the Cocos plate

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Use the following to answer questions 34-35:

34. Referring to the figure, use the previous question to help you find the plate names. In the northern portion of the plates, what is rate of movement between the African and South American plates in centimeters per year?

A) 2.0 B) 3.0 C) 7.2 D) 10.1

35. Referring to the figure, which of these accurately describes the plate movement between the Nazca plate and the South American plate?

A) convergent B) divergent C) transform D) It cannot be determined.

36. A __________ plate boundary occurs where two plates move laterally past one another.

A) hot spot B) convergent C) divergent D) transform

37. A __________ plate boundary occurs where two plates move apart.

A) hot spot B) convergent C) divergent D) transform

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38. A __________ plate boundary occurs where two plates move together.

A) hot spot B) convergent C) divergent D) transform

39. Ocean basins grow larger in areas of __________.

A) seafloor spreading B) subduction C) collision D) hotspots

40. A __________ is a region where continental crust is stretching and splitting.

A) mid-ocean ridge B) rift C) collision zone D) transform plate boundary

41. The world's largest lake by volume is __________.

A) Lake Malawi B) Lake Tanganyika C) Lake Superior D) Lake Baikal

42. Wadati-Benioff zones are found only in regions where __________ is occurring.

A) uplift B) collision C) subduction D) erosion

43. Which process consumes and recycles oceanic crust?

A) rifting B) collision C) subduction D) transform plate movement

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44. The Canadian Shield is about __________ years old.

A) 570 million B) 1 billion C) 2 billion D) 4 billion

45. A __________ is a long chain of volcanoes formed on the margin of a continent where oceanic crust is subducting beneath continental crust.

A) Wadati-Benioff zone B) continental volcanic arc C) volcanic island arc D) hotspot track

46. As oceanic plate subducts, sediments on the seafloor may scrap up into heaps called a(n) __________.

A) accretionary prism B) continental volcanic arc C) island archipelago D) mid-ocean ridge

47. Why does subducting oceanic crust melt into magma?

A) because the crust is hotter in subduction zones B) because seawater mixes with and lowers the melting point of rock C) because the crust is chemically different in subduction zones D) because of the weight of the overlying continental crust

48. __________ occurs when magma rises through and melts the continental crust in subduction zones.

A) Flux melting B) Heat melting C) Shield melting D) Partial melting

49. A __________ is a long chain of volcanoes formed on the margin of a continent where oceanic crust is subducting beneath oceanic crust.

A) Wadati-Benioff zone B) continental volcanic arc C) volcanic island arc D) hotspot track

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50. The Appalachian Mountains were formed about 280 million years ago through the process of __________.

A) subduction B) collision C) transform movement D) hot spot activity

51. __________ occurs where the continental crusts of two different plates converge.

A) Subduction B) Collision C) Transform movement D) Hot spots

52. The Himalayas are still being formed by __________.

A) subduction of oceanic crust beneath continental crust B) subduction of oceanic crust beneath more oceanic crust C) collision between two continental plates D) divergence between two oceanic plates

53. The fastest rate of uplift in the Himalayas is about __________ millimeters per year.

A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

54. A(n) __________ is a mass of crust that is transported and fused onto the margin of a continent.

A) accreted terrane B) volcanic island arc C) anticline D) orogenic belt

55. The largest accreted terrane group is in __________.

A) South Asia B) western South America C) western North America D) eastern North America

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56. California's San Andreas Fault occurs on what type of plate boundary?

A) a divergent plate boundary B) a convergent plate boundary C) a transform plate boundary D) It does not occur on a plate boundary.

57. On a __________ plate boundary two plates slip laterally past each other.

A) convergent B) divergent C) transform D) hot spot

58. Geographically, most transform plate boundaries are found where?

A) on the margins of continents B) at hot spots C) on the seafloor D) in the continental interiors

59. A(n) __________ is a plate boundary that often has a deep-sea trench with a narrow continental shelf.

A) active continental margin B) rift valley C) passive continental margin D) accretionary prism

60. A(n) __________ typically has a broad, sloping continental shelf and is not near a plate boundary.

A) active continental margin B) rift valley C) passive continental margin D) accretionary prism

61. Which of these cannot occur when two plates converge?

A) earthquakes B) volcanoes C) rift valleys D) mountains

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Use the following to answer question 62:

62. According to the figure, eastern Africa could likely one day become what?

A) a new sea B) a mountain range C) a large plateau D) a subduction region

63. Which statement does not accurately describe mantle plumes?

A) They are mostly stationary.

B) They extend as far down as the asthenosphere.

C) They rise at a rate of several centimeters per year.

D) They occur mainly beneath oceanic crust.

64. Yellowstone's active geologic features are the result of what?

A) a hot spot B) plate subduction C) rifting D) transform plate movement

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65. A __________ is a wrinkle in rock layers resulting from deformation due to geologic stress.

A) fault B) fold C) rift D) fault block

66. A __________ is a fracture in the crust where movement and earthquakes occur.

A) fault B) fold C) rift D) fault block

67. In which tectonic setting is folding most common?

A) regions of plate convergence B) regions of plate divergence C) transform regions D) hot spot regions

68. A(n) __________ is a fold in the crust with a U-shaped dip.

A) anticline B) syncline C) fold D) fault

69. A(n) __________ is a fold in the crust with an archlike ridge.

A) anticline B) syncline C) fold D) fault

70. The Teton Range in Wyoming is a __________ mountain range.

A) volcanic B) fault-block C) collision D) hot spot

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71. Which tectonic environment does not have volcanically active mountains?

A) mid-ocean ridge B) rift valley C) subduction zones D) collision

Use the following to answer questions 72-75:

72. Referring to the figure, the Himalayas were formed through which process?

A) subduction B) faulting C) collision D) hot spots

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73. Referring to the figure, the Andes were formed through which process?

A) subduction B) faulting C) collision D) hot spots

74. Referring to the figure, the Rocky Mountains were formed through which process?

A) subduction B) faulting C) collision D) hot spots

75. Referring to the figure, which mountain range is in Australia?

A) the Eastern Ghats B) the Urals C) the Tian Shan D) the Great Dividing Range

76. The average elevation of the Tibetan Plateau is __________ meters.

A) 4,500 B) 5,000 C) 5,500 D) 6,000

77. About __________ percent of the world's population uses freshwater from the Tibetan Plateau.

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40

78. The uplift of the Tibetan Plateau is thought to have caused a lowering of atmospheric carbon dioxide through what means?

A) increased oceanic productivity of phytoplankton B) reflecting sunlight C) weathering and erosion of the uplifted crust D) deflecting westerly airflow

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79. The uplift of the Tibetan Plateau is thought to have changed the albedo of the region by what means?

A) increased oceanic productivity of phytoplankton B) reflecting sunlight C) weathering and erosion of the uplifted crust D) deflecting westerly airflow

80. Glaciers of the Tibetan Plateau and surrounding mountains are now experiencing __________.

A) net loss B) net gain C) The glaciers are not changing.

D) Scientists are still uncertain if the glaciers are changing.

81. Water from the rivers on the Tibetan Plateau provide water for about __________ percent of the world's rice exports.

A) 30 B) 55 C) 60 D) 75

82. As relates to this Geographic Perspectives, how could climate change negatively affect Asia in the coming decades?

A) Loss of glaciers could lead to less stream runoff and water for people.

B) Increased pollution could lead to more human illness.

C) Population growth could lead to chronic food shortages.

D) Climate warming could lead to increased extinctions.

83. A tsunami is a large ocean wave generated by earthquakes.

A) True B) False

84. Plate movement creates volcanic eruptions.

A) True B) False

85. Pangaea was a single large landmass.

A) True B) False

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86. The Pacific Ocean surrounded the Pangaea.

A) True B) False

87. The Tethys Sea split Pangaea into Laurasia and Gondwana.

A) True B) False

88. Gondwana was a supercontinent in the Southern Hemisphere.

A) True B) False

89. Alfred Wegener's theory was accepted by his scientific peers when he was alive.

A) True B) False

90. Plate tectonics theory describes the origin, movement, and recycling of the lithospheric plates.

A) True B) False

91. As new seafloor rocks are formed they record the direction of Earth's changing magnetic field.

A) True B) False

92. Seamounts are long mountain ranges on the ocean floor.

A) True B) False

93. The plates of the lithosphere are floating on molten rock.

A) True B) False

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94. Most lithospheric plates are composed of both continental and oceanic crust.

A) True B) False

95. Plate movement is caused exclusively by friction from the mantle as it moves against the lithosphere.

A) True B) False

96. Relative plate velocity is the rate of plate movement relative to the movement of an adjoining plate.

A) True B) False

97. Absolute plate movement refers to the movement of a plate in relation to another plate's movement.

A) True B) False

98. Plate tectonics is called a unifying theory because it explains many different and seemingly unrelated physical phenomena.

A) True B) False

99. The most geographically extensive mountain ranges on Earth are the mid-ocean ridges.

A) True B) False

100. Mid-ocean ridges and rift valleys form at divergent plate boundaries.

A) True B) False

101. The youngest seafloor is always along mid-ocean ridges.

A) True B) False

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102. The oceanic crust is generally older than the continental crust.

A) True B) False

103. Rift valleys are often volcanically active.

A) True B) False

104. Continental crust subducts.

A) True B) False

105. The oldest portions of continental crust are called shields.

A) True B) False

106. Deep-sea trenches are formed where two continental plates collide.

A) True B) False

107. Collision zones are volcanically active.

A) True B) False

108. Subduction zone volcanoes make up the Pacific Ring of Fire.

A) True B) False

109. Large volcanic mountains develop on transform plate boundaries.

A) True B) False

110. Because of plate movement, Los Angeles and San Francisco could be joined in about 17 million years.

A) True B) False

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111. At hot spots as the mantle flows upward it melts into magma because it encounters less pressure near the base of the lithosphere.

A) True B) False

112. Hawai'i's newest forming island is occurring on the far northwestern end of the island chain.

A) True B) False

113. Hawai'i was formed by a geologic hot spot.

A) True B) False

114. Hot spot tracks form as a mantle plume melts through a stationary lithospheric plate.

A) True B) False

115. The Big Island of the Hawaiian islands is the oldest island in the chain.

A) True B) False

116. Folds in rocks can range from a few centimeters to hundreds of kilometers.

A) True B) False

117. Synclines usually form ridges and anticlines usually form valleys.

A) True B) False

118. Where topography is inverted, anticlines may form valleys.

A) True B) False

119. The uplift and building of mountains is called orogenesis.

A) True B) False

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120. The Tibetan Plateau and the mountains surrounding it contain the largest volume of ice outside of the polar regions.

A) True B) False

121. Uplift of the Tibetan Plateau and surrounding mountains is thought to have caused sea level rise.

A) True B) False

122. What is the nearest plate boundary to where you live? What kind is it? Use figures 12.7 and 12.11 for help.

123. What do rift valley lakes, volcanoes, and earthquakes have in common?

124. Are there mountains near where you live? If so, how were they formed? If you do not know, what kind of questions would you ask to determine how they were formed? Use Figure 12.33 for help.

125. Describe the relative ages of oceanic crust and continental crust and explain why they are different.

126. The rate of crust formation at mid-ocean ridges must be exactly equal to the rate of crust recycling at subduction zones. Is this statement true or false? Explain.

127. Most hot spot tracks are straight, but some curve sharply. How would you explain a curved hot spot track?

128. What does it mean that the Tibetan Plateau is a climate driver? In what three ways does the plateau modify climate?

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. D 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. B 13. B 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. B 22. A 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. C 27. D 28. C 29. B 30. D 31. C 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. D 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. B 41. D 42. C 43. C 44. D

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45. B 46. A 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. B 51. B 52. C 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. C 57. C 58. C 59. A 60. C 61. C 62. A 63. B 64. A 65. B 66. A 67. A 68. B 69. A 70. B 71. D 72. C 73. A 74. B 75. D 76. A 77. B 78. C 79. B 80. A 81. D 82. A 83. A 84. A 85. A 86. B 87. A 88. A 89. B 90. A

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91. A 92. B 93. B 94. A 95. B 96. A 97. B 98. A 99. A 100. A 101. A 102. B 103. A 104. B 105. A 106. B 107. B 108. A 109. B 110. A 111. A 112. B 113. A 114. B 115. B 116. A 117. B 118. A 119. A 120. A 121. B 122. Answers will vary depending on where one lives. West of the Appalachians, the Pacific–North American plate boundary is closest. Those in North America east of the Appalachians are closest to the west coast transform boundary in California or the subduction boundaries in the Pacific Northwest. The East Coast is closer to the divergent plate boundaries of the mid-Atlantic ridge.

123. They are all formed by plate movement.

124. Answers will vary. Students should ask about whether they are near a plate boundary or not. If so, they should ask what type of plate boundary movement is occurring. If they are far from a plate boundary, then mountains are likely to have been formed by faulting and block movement. Residents of Hawai'i should discuss the hot spot. Accreted terranes should be discussed for people living in western North America, from northern California to southern Alaska.

125. Most continental crust is far older than oceanic crust because the continental crust has never been subducted due to its buoyancy. Ocean crust, on the other hand, is relatively young because it is continually recycled into the mantle through subduction.

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126. It is true. It is not possible to subduct faster than new crust is formed because the source of crust would run out. Similarly, it is not possible to form new crust faster than it is subducted because the source of mantle would run out.

127. These could be produced by a change in plate movement direction, or they could be explained by movement of a mantle plume. The crook in the Hawaiian Island seamounts at Midway is a result of plate movement.

128. As the Tibetan Plateau is uplifted, streams erode it. Carbon is pulled out of the atmosphere in this process of erosion and deposited in sediments on the seafloor.

Eventually these sediments turn to rock, creating carbonate rocks. The plateau also is thought to have deflected cold air southward in Eurasia, cooling the region. Lastly, the plateau is snow-covered and reflects sunlight, cooling the atmosphere.

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Chapter 13- Building the Crust with Rocks

1. Mineralogists have identified more than __________ types of minerals.

A) 1,000 B) 2,500 C) 3,800 D) 4,600

2. Which is not a criterion in determining if something is a mineral?

A) It must be naturally occurring.

B) It must be made by organisms.

C) It must be crystalline.

D) It must be of uniform chemical composition.

3. __________ occurs when atoms or molecules come together in an orderly patterned structure.

A) Crystallization B) Cementation C) Lithification D) Sedimentation

4. __________ form when carbon combines with other elements, particularly oxygen.

A) Silicates B) Oxides C) Sulfides and sulfates D) Carbonates

5. When silicon and oxygen combine with each other and with other elements they make __________.

A) silicates B) oxides C) sulfides and sulfates D) carbonates

6. When sulfur combines with other elements __________ are formed.

A) silicates B) oxides C) sulfides and sulfates D) carbonates

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7. When elements combine with oxygen __________ are formed.

A) silicates B) oxides C) sulfides and sulfates D) carbonates

8. __________ gives many rocks a reddish coloration.

A) Hematite B) Olivine C) Gypsum D) Quartz

9. About __________ percent of the continental rocks are composed of silicates.

A) 40 B) 55 C) 70 D) 95

10. More than 27 percent of Earth's crust is made up of __________ molecules.

A) oxygen B) silicon C) aluminum D) iron

11. More than 46 percent of Earth's crust is composed of __________ atoms.

A) oxygen B) silicon C) aluminum D) iron

12. __________ is/are the broken and unconsolidated fragments of rock.

A) Sediments B) Bedrock C) Outcrops D) Rock

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13. __________ is the process of forming sedimentary rock from sediments.

A) Cementation B) Lithification C) Crystallization D) Oxidation

14. __________ is the process in which minerals fill the spaces between rock fragments and bind them together.

A) Cementation B) Lithification C) Crystallization D) Oxidation

15. Rock that is still structurally a part of Earth's crust is called __________.

A) sediments B) bedrock C) outcrop D) rock

16. Which geographic setting is least likely to have an outcrop?

A) road cuts B) coastal areas C) stream canyons D) flat valleys

17. Which describes an igneous rock?

A) cooled from magma deep underground or lava on the surface B) formed through cementation or compression of broken rock fragments C) formed from heat and pressure on preexisting rock D) formed from organisms

18. Which describes a metamorphic rock?

A) cooled from magma deep underground or lava on the surface B) formed through cementation or compression of broken rock fragments C) formed from heat and pressure on preexisting rock D) formed from organisms

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19. Which describes a sedimentary rock?

A) cooled from magma deep underground or lava on the surface B) formed through cementation or compression of broken rock fragments C) formed from heat and pressure on preexisting rock D) formed from organisms

20. In which geographic setting is a sedimentary rock most likely to be found?

A) on a volcanic mountain range B) on the seafloor C) deep in the lithosphere D) in a valley

21. In which geographic setting is an igneous rock most likely to be found?

A) on a volcanic mountain range B) on the seafloor C) deep in the lithosphere D) in a valley

22. In which geographic setting is a metamorphic rock most likely to be found?

A) on a volcanic mountain range B) on the seafloor C) deep in the lithosphere D) in a valley

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Use the following to answer questions 23-24:

23. According to this pie chart, which element is most abundant in Earth's crust?

A) aluminum B) calcium C) potassium D) magnesium

24. According to the pie chart, what percentage of Earth's crust is composed of iron?

A) 8.1 percent B) 5 percent C) 3.6 percent D) 2.8 percent

25. In which geographic setting does mantle melt into magma through flux melting?

A) mid-ocean ridges B) rift zones C) hot spots D) subduction zones

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26. In which geographic setting does mantle melt into magma through decompression melting?

A) subduction zones B) collision zones C) rift valleys D) at transform plates boundaries

27. Rock that has cooled from lava is called __________.

A) intrusive igneous B) extrusive igneous C) metamorphic D) sedimentary

28. Rock that has cooled from magma is called __________.

A) intrusive igneous B) extrusive igneous C) metamorphic D) sedimentary

29. A __________ is an intrusion of igneous rock that runs parallel to preexisting layers of rock.

A) laccolith B) sill C) dike D) batholith

30. A __________ is an intrusion of igneous rock that has pushed overlying rocks upward into a dome.

A) laccolith B) sill C) dike D) batholith

31. A __________ is a large, homogenous mass of intrusive igneous rock up to several hundred kilometers long.

A) laccolith B) sill C) dike D) batholith

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32. A __________ is an intrusion of igneous rock that runs across preexisting layers of rock.

A) laccolith B) sill C) dike D) batholith

33. Felsic rocks are composed of about __________ percent silica.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80

34. Mafic rocks are composed of about __________ percent silica.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80

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Use the following to answer questions 35-37:

35. Referring to the image, Hawai'i has formed in what type of melting environment?

A) mid-ocean ridges B) continental rift valleys C) hot spots D) subduction zones

36. Referring to the image, eastern Africa is an area dominated by what?

A) mid-ocean ridges B) continental rift valleys C) hot spots D) subduction zones

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37. Referring to the image, the Cascade range in western North America was produced by what?

A) mid-ocean ridges B) continental rift valleys C) hot spots D) subduction zones

Use the following to answer questions 38-48:

38. Referring to the figure, which rock has the highest silica content?

A) rhyolite B) andesite C) diorite D) gabbro

39. Referring to the figure, which rock has the lowest silica content?

A) granite B) diorite C) andesite D) basalt

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40. Referring to the figure, which rock has the greatest density?

A) basalt B) diorite C) granite D) andesite

41. Referring to the figure, which rock has the lowest density?

A) rhyolite B) diorite C) gabbro D) andesite

42. Referring to the figure, which rock is aphanitic?

A) diorite B) granite C) andesite D) gabbro

43. Referring to the figure, which rock type is phaneritic?

A) basalt B) andesite C) gabbro D) rhyolite

44. Referring to the figure, which rock cooled from magma?

A) rhyolite B) granite C) andesite D) basalt

45. Referring to the figure, which rock cooled from lava?

A) gabbro B) granite C) basalt D) diorite

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46. Referring to the figure, which rock is extrusive igneous?

A) granite B) diorite C) gabbro D) rhyolite

47. Referring to the figure, which rock would most likely be found on the seafloor?

A) granite B) diorite C) basalt D) rhyolite

48. Referring to the figure, which rock is intrusive igneous?

A) basalt B) gabbro C) rhyolite D) andesite

49. __________ sedimentary rocks result from dissolved materials that precipitate out of water.

A) Clastic B) Organic C) Chemical D) Inorganic

50. __________ sedimentary rock is composed of organic material derived from ancient plants.

A) Clastic B) Organic C) Chemical D) Inorganic

51. __________ sedimentary rock is composed of broken pieces of other rocks.

A) Clastic B) Organic C) Chemical D) Inorganic

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52. Referring to Table 13.1, which is an example of a clastic sedimentary rock?

A) claystone B) chalk C) coal D) gypsum

53. Referring to Table 13.1, which is an example of an organic sedimentary rock?

A) siltstone B) shale C) coal D) rock salt

54. Referring to Table 13.1, which is an example of a chemical sedimentary rock?

A) coal B) gypsum C) chalk D) sandstone

55. Referring to Table 13.1, which lithifies into fossiliferous limestone?

A) shell fragments from coral reefs B) sand C) peat soils D) evaporated seawater

56. Referring to Table 13.1, which lithifies into shale?

A) shell fragments from coral reefs B) sand C) peat soils D) clay

57. Referring to Table 13.1, from what does gypsum form?

A) evaporated seawater B) peat soils C) sand D) silt and clay

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58. Referring to Table 13.1, from what does coal form?

A) precipitated calcium carbonate B) cobbles C) peat soils D) silt and clay

59. Which geographic setting is least likely to be a place where sedimentary rocks form?

A) estuaries and lakes B) river floodplains C) mountainous regions D) offshore environments

60. Which sedimentary rock type is most common?

A) sandstone B) shale C) limestone D) mudstone

61. On average, each person in the United States uses about __________ liters of oil per day.

A) 40 B) 50 C) 60 D) 70

62. A(n) __________ is a deposit of salt or other mineral resulting from the repeated evaporation of water from a basin.

A) evaporite B) mineral C) pluton D) hydrocarbon

63. Which of these do fossils not help us understand?

A) the process of evolution and extinction B) the process of metamorphism C) relative and absolute ages of rocks D) climate and environmental change

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Use the following to answer questions 64-65:

64. Referring to the figure, sandstone is most likely to form in which geographic environments?

A) deserts and coastal sand dunes and river floodplains B) estuaries and lakes C) coastal environments D) offshore environments

65. Referring to the figure, limestone is most likely to form in which geographic environments?

A) deserts and coastal sand dunes B) estuaries and lakes C) river floodplains D) offshore environments

66. A(n) __________ is the original or parent rock from which new rocks are made through the process of metamorphism.

A) evaporite B) dike C) protolith D) hydrocarbon

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67. Which factor does not relate to what type of metamorphic rock results during metamorphism?

A) the latitude at which the process occurs B) the degree of heating C) the degree of compression D) the original chemical constitution of the rock before metamorphism

68. Contact metamorphism occurs only when __________ is present.

A) water B) magma C) igneous rock D) oceanic crust

69. In which tectonic setting would contact metamorphism occur?

A) in a collision zone B) at transform plate boundaries C) where there is plate divergence D) in a subduction zone

70. Regional metamorphism requires heat and __________.

A) pressure B) water C) continental crust D) plate divergence

71. __________ metamorphic rocks have little or no structured grain pattern.

A) Foliated B) Nonfoliated C) Extrusive D) Intrusive

72. __________ metamorphic rocks show flat or wavy banding patterns.

A) Foliated B) Nonfoliated C) Extrusive D) Intrusive

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73. Referring to Table 13.3, which type of metamorphic rock is nonfoliated?

A) anthracite coal B) schist C) gneiss D) slate

74. Referring to Table 13.3, which type of metamorphic rock is foliated?

A) anthracite coal B) marble C) quartzite D) schist

75. Referring to Table 13.3, what is the protolith for slate?

A) limestone or chalk B) sandstone C) shale or mudstone D) peat

76. Referring to Table 13.3, what is the protolith for schist?

A) limestone or chalk B) sandstone C) shale or mudstone D) slate

77. Referring to Table 13.3, what is the protolith for gneiss?

A) schist B) mudstone C) shale or mudstone D) slate

78. Referring to Table 13.3, which type of metamorphic rock requires the highest temperature to form?

A) slate B) schist C) gneiss D) Each of these forms under the same temperature.

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79. Referring to Table 13.3, which type of metamorphic rock has the largest grain size?

A) slate B) schist C) gneiss D) Each of these has the same grain size.

80. Referring to Table 13.3, which type of metamorphic rock is often used in gravestones?

A) quartzite B) gneiss C) slate D) schist

81. Referring to Table 13.3, which type of metamorphic rock is often used in sculpture?

A) quartzite B) marble C) slate D) schist

82. Referring to Table 13.3, which type of metamorphic rock is often used for roofing tiles?

A) quartzite B) gneiss C) slate D) schist

83. Referring to Table 13.3, which type of metamorphic rock is used for fuel?

A) anthracite coal B) quartzite C) gneiss D) marble

84. Which is not a problem potentially associated with fracking?

A) surface water contamination B) groundwater contamination C) deforestation D) climate change

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85. What is fracking fluid?

A) water that naturally occurs at a well B) water that is injected into a well by fracking operations C) oil that is extracted from a well that is fracked D) the toxic chemicals that are added to water

86. The earliest stone tools in eastern Africa were used to hunt big game.

A) True B) False

87. Many minerals and rocks today provide economically significant materials.

A) True B) False

88. Coal is an economically important rock.

A) True B) False

89. Obsidian is a mineral.

A) True B) False

90. Most rocks are composed of one or more minerals cemented and interlocked together.

A) True B) False

91. Sediments are broken and unconsolidated fragments of rock.

A) True B) False

92. Exposed bedrock is called an outcrop.

A) True B) False

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93. In the rock cycle, rocks always start as igneous rocks, then lithify into sedimentary rocks, then conclude as metamorphic rocks.

A) True B) False

94. Sedimentary rocks form directly from cooled magma.

A) True B) False

95. All igneous rocks originate either through decompression melting or flux melting.

A) True B) False

96. The process of exhumation creates sedimentary rock.

A) True B) False

97. All igneous rocks form directly from cooled magma or lava.

A) True B) False

98. Phaneritic rocks are igneous rocks that cool slowly deep in the crust.

A) True B) False

99. Phaneritic rocks have poorly developed crystals.

A) True B) False

100. Aphanitic rocks are igneous rocks that cool quickly on or near the crust's surface.

A) True B) False

101. Aphanitic rocks have large, well developed crystals.

A) True B) False

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102. Extrusive igneous rock is an example of a phaneritic rock.

A) True B) False

103. According to the principle of superposition, in a stacked sequence of sedimentary rock layers the oldest layers are at the top.

A) True B) False

104. Most of the crust is composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks.

A) True B) False

105. Most of the rocks exposed at the surface are igneous and metamorphic rocks.

A) True B) False

106. Coal is the most economically valuable sedimentary rock.

A) True B) False

107. The presence of coal in the crust indicates that thick forests and wetlands long ago occurred in that area.

A) True B) False

108. Coal mountaintop removal is an environmentally safe form of mining.

A) True B) False

109. Petroleum oil is both a mineral and a rock.

A) True B) False

110. Salt is a type of sedimentary rock.

A) True B) False

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111. Lithium ion batteries for laptops and phones are made in part from evaporite deposits.

A) True B) False

112. Salar de Uyuni in Bolivia is the largest exposed evaporite deposit in the world.

A) True B) False

113. Contact metamorphism is more geographically widespread than regional metamorphism.

A) True B) False

114. Contact metamorphism requires the presence of either magma or lava.

A) True B) False

115. Regional metamorphism requires the presence of either magma or lava.

A) True B) False

116. Rocks can become metamorphosed at the ground's surface if they are heated by lava.

A) True B) False

117. The majority of metamorphic rocks must be exhumed in order to be exposed on the surface.

A) True B) False

118. Hydraulic fracturing or fracking is a technique that is used to extract oil and gas that is trapped in shale.

A) True B) False

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119. Fracking is a new technology, invented in the last two decades.

A) True B) False

120. Do all rocks (those of the oceans and those of the continents) experience recycling in the rock cycle? Explain.

121. Give the pros and cons of fracking.

122. Without exhumation, would we be able to find metamorphic rocks? Explain.

123. What is mountaintop removal mining? Where is it practiced? How is it environmentally destructive?

124. How do shale and coal relate to climate change?

125. Which side of the fracking debate do most identify with? Justify your position.

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Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. B 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. B 16. D 17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B 21. A 22. C 23. A 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. B 28. A 29. B 30. A 31. D 32. C 33. C 34. A 35. C 36. C 37. D 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. A 42. C 43. C 44. B

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45. C 46. D 47. C 48. B 49. C 50. B 51. A 52. A 53. C 54. B 55. A 56. D 57. A 58. C 59. C 60. B 61. D 62. A 63. B 64. A 65. D 66. C 67. A 68. B 69. D 70. A 71. B 72. A 73. A 74. D 75. C 76. D 77. A 78. C 79. C 80. B 81. B 82. C 83. A 84. C 85. B 86. B 87. A 88. A 89. B 90. A

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91. A 92. A 93. B 94. B 95. A 96. B 97. A 98. A 99. B 100. A 101. B 102. B 103. B 104. A 105. B 106. A 107. A 108. B 109. B 110. A 111. A 112. A 113. B 114. A 115. B 116. A 117. A 118. A 119. B 120. Eventually most rocks on Earth are recycled. They are not all recycled, however. Many continental rocks have never been subducted and they erode very little.

121. The pros are: jobs, energy, reduces dependence on foreign energy. The cons are: causes climate change, groundwater and surface water pollution.

122. Sometimes lava flows heat rock and metamorphose it at the surface. These could be found. Otherwise, metamorphosed rocks in collision zones and subduction zones would not be found if they were not exhumed because they would be too far beneath the surface.

123. In mountaintop removal, surface vegetation, soil, and rock are removed to extract coal deposits beneath. About 470 mountaintops have been leveled in Kentucky, West Virginia, Virginia, and Tennessee since the 1980s, and 12 million acres of temperate deciduous forest have been destroyed by coal mountaintop removal.

124. Shale contains fossil fuel natural gas reserves. The technique of fracking extracts this shale gas. Coal is a fossil fuel. Both natural gas and coal are burned for energy. Burning them puts carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, a greenhouse gas that warms the atmosphere.

125. Answers will vary. There is no right answer. Students need to substantiate their position

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using the information provided in the Geographic Perspectives and based on the pros and the cons of the technique.

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Chapter 14- Geohazards- Volcanoes and Earthquakes

1. __________ are broad, dome-shaped volcanoes.

A) Stratovolcanoes B) Shield volcanoes C) Cinder cones D) Pyroclasts

2. __________ are large, potentially explosive, cone-shaped volcanoes composed of alternating layers of ash and lava.

A) Stratovolcanoes B) Shield volcanoes C) Cinder cones D) Pyroclasts

3. __________ are small, cone-shaped volcanoes consisting of pyroclasts that settle at the angle of repose.

A) Stratovolcanoes B) Shield volcanoes C) Cinder cones D) Pyroclasts

4. A(n) __________ volcano is one that has erupted in historic times and is likely to erupt again.

A) extinct B) active C) dormant D) plug dome

5. A(n) __________ volcano is one that has not erupted for over 10,000 years and will never erupt again.

A) extinct B) active C) dormant D) plug dome

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6. A(n) __________ volcano is one that has not erupted for over 10,000 years but could erupt again.

A) extinct B) active C) dormant D) plug dome

7. Cinder cones are no more than __________ meters in height.

A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400

8. Which of the following does not control the viscosity of lava?

A) crystal content of the lava B) temperature of the lava C) gas content of the lava D) elevation at which the lava forms

9. __________ lava has a silica content between 50% and 70%.

A) Mafic B) Intermediate C) Felsic D) Pyroclastic

10. __________ lava has a silica content of 50% or less.

A) Mafic B) Intermediate C) Felsic D) Pyroclastic

11. __________ lava has a silica content of 70% or greater.

A) Mafic B) Intermediate C) Felsic D) Pyroclastic

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12. All things being equal, which of the following lava characteristics might create the highest lava viscosity?

A) high silica content, high temperature B) high silica content, low temperature C) low silica content, high temperature D) low silica content, low temperature

13. Which of the following is not composed of mafic lava?

A) pāhoehoe B) 'a'ā C) pillow lava D) blocky lava

14. Which of the following is the most geographically widespread lava formation?

A) pāhoehoe B) 'a'ā C) pillow lava D) blocky lava

15. __________ is a pyroclast that develops a streamlined shape as it travels through the air and cools while airborne.

A) Ash B) A block C) Pumice D) Bomb

16. __________ is a pyroclast that consists of marble- to golf ball-sized fragments.

A) Ash B) Lapilli C) Pumice D) A block

17. __________ is a pyroclast that is fine-grained and soft to the touch.

A) Ash B) Lapilli C) Pumice D) A bomb

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18. __________ is a pyroclast that was torn from a volcano's cone and ejected into the air.

A) A bomb B) Lapilli C) Pumice D) A block

19. __________ is a pyroclast that has 50% air content and floats on water.

A) Ash B) Lapilli C) Pumice D) Bomb

20. Most magma is about __________ percent gas by volume.

A) 5 B) 8 C) 12 D) 20

21. Which of the following is not one of the main gases emitted by volcanoes?

A) water vapor B) carbon dioxide C) methane D) sulfur dioxide

22. __________ is/are accumulations of lava that cover extensive geographic areas.

A) Columnar jointing B) Flood basalts C) Caldera D) Large igneous province

23. A geometric pattern of jointing in volcanic rock is called __________.

A) columnar jointing B) a caldera C) a flood basalt D) a large igneous province

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24. A large circular depression formed at the top of a volcano by the collapse of the magma chamber is called __________.

A) columnar jointing B) a flood basalt C) a large igneous province D) a caldera

25. The Columbia Plateau is an example of __________.

A) columnar jointing B) a caldera C) a stratovolcano D) a large igneous province

26. Which of the following is mainly responsible for causing an explosive volcanic eruption?

A) lava flows B) expansion of volcanic gas C) the latitude at which the volcano occurs D) the age of the volcano

27. The volcanic explosivity index ranks volcanic eruptions based on what?

A) the height of the eruption column B) the chemical composition of the material erupted C) the volume of material erupted D) the length of time the volcano is erupting

28. During the last 10,000 years, there have been about __________ VEI 6 eruptions.

A) 50 B) 100 C) 200 D) 350

29. The largest historic eruption, Tambora in 1815, had a VEI __________ ranking.

A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8

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30. Yellowstone last erupted 640,000 years ago. Its VEI ranking was what?

A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8

31. A __________ is a mudflow that forms from a volcanic eruption.

A) lahar B) flood basalt C) pyroclastic flow D) lapilli

32. A __________ is a rapidly moving avalanche of hot gas and ash.

A) lahar B) flood basalt C) pyroclastic flow D) lapilli

33. In 79 CE people living near Mount Vesuvius were killed by what?

A) a lahar B) volcanic ash C) a pyroclastic flow D) lava

34. Today, about how many people live dangerously close to Mount Vesuvius?

A) 10,000 B) 100,000 C) 300,000 D) 500,000

35. Which of the following is not one of the warning signs used to predict a volcanic eruption?

A) changing chemistry of volcanic gas B) the activity of animals C) development and widening of surface cracks on the volcano D) earthquake activity

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36. What type of volcanoes are mainly found in the Pacific Ring of Fire?

A) stratovolcanoes B) shield volcanoes C) cinder cones D) plug domes

Use the following to answer questions 37-40:

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37. According to the figure, what was the largest eruption ranking for Volcán de Colima in Mexico?

A) VEI 3 B) VEI 4 C) VEI 5 D) VEI 6

38. Referring to the figure, in what year(s) did Mount Merapi experience its strongest recorded eruptions?

A) 1820 B) 1870 and 2010 C) 1930 and 1964 D) 2010

39. As shown in the figure, approximately when did Whakaari/White Island volcano last erupt?

A) 1980 B) 1990 C) 2000 D) 2010

40. Referring to the figure, which of the following volcanoes is not in the Pacific Ring of Fire?

A) Volcán de Colima, Mexico B) Mauna Kea, Hawaii C) Mount Merapi, Indonesia D) Whakaari/White Island, New Zealand

41. An offset stream can be created by __________.

A) reverse faults B) normal faults C) strike-slip faults D) seismic waves

42. Tensional force occurs on __________.

A) reverse faults B) normal faults C) strike-slip faults D) the focus

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43. Compressional force occurs on __________.

A) reverse faults B) normal faults C) strike-slip faults D) the epicenter

44. Shearing force occurs on __________.

A) reverse faults B) normal faults C) strike-slip faults D) the epicenter

45. If you are on a right-lateral fault during an earthquake, the opposite side of the fault will move __________.

A) toward you B) away from you C) to the left of you D) to the right of you

46. The Great Basin Desert in Nevada has mainly what kind of faults?

A) reverse faults B) normal faults C) strike-slip faults D) the epicenter

47. Which of the following gives the correct sequence of the development of an earthquake?

A) faulting, stress buildup, seismic wave generation, earthquake B) stress buildup, faulting, earthquake, seismic wave generation C) faulting, stress buildup, earthquake, seismic wave generation D) stress buildup, faulting, seismic wave generation, earthquake

48. The __________ is the location where the rocks break due to stresses in the crust.

A) focus B) seismic wave C) epicenter D) fault

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49. The __________ usually experiences the most shaking during an earthquake.

A) focus B) seismic wave C) epicenter D) fault

50. Stored energy is released as __________ when the crust breaks.

A) electromagnetic waves B) seismic waves C) thermal energy D) potential energy

51. Earthquakes that often come after a main earthquake are called __________.

A) foreshocks B) seismic waves C) aftershocks D) seismic belts

52. Earthquakes that sometimes come before a main earthquake are called __________.

A) foreshocks B) seismic waves C) aftershocks D) seismic belts

53. According to the figure, collision zones typically have __________ earthquakes.

A) shallow B) intermediate C) deep D) variable

54. Referring to the figure, subduction zones typically have __________ earthquakes.

A) shallow B) intermediate C) deep D) variable

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55. As shown in the figure, transform plate zones typically have __________ earthquakes.

A) shallow B) intermediate C) deep D) variable

56. As shown in the figure, rift zones typically have __________ earthquakes.

A) shallow B) intermediate C) deep D) variable

57. According to the figure, divergent plate zones typically have __________ earthquakes.

A) shallow B) intermediate C) deep D) variable

58. Referring to the figure, collision zones typically have __________ faults.

A) normal B) reverse C) strike-slip D) variable

59. Referring to the figure, transform plate zones typically have __________ faults.

A) normal B) reverse C) strike-slip D) variable

60. According to the figure, rift zones typically have __________ faults.

A) normal B) reverse C) strike-slip D) variable

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61. As shown in the figure, divergent plate zones typically have __________ faults.

A) normal B) reverse C) strike-slip D) both normal and strike-slip

62. Seismic waves that travel deep through Earth's interior are called __________.

A) body waves B) surface waves C) compressional waves D) shear waves

63. Seismic waves that travel through the upper crust are called __________.

A) body waves B) surface waves C) compressional waves D) shear waves

64. __________ move back and forth perpendicular to the direction the seismic waves are traveling.

A) Body waves B) Surface waves C) Compressional waves D) Shear waves

65. __________ produce motion that goes back and forth in a direction parallel to the direction of the traveling waves.

A) Body waves B) Surface waves C) Compressional waves D) Shear waves

66. __________ are compressional seismic waves that travel deep in Earth's interior.

A) P waves B) S waves C) R waves D) L waves

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67. __________ are shear seismic waves that travel near the crust's surface.

A) P waves B) S waves C) R waves D) L waves

68. __________ are compressional seismic waves that travel near the crust's surface.

A) P waves B) S waves C) R waves D) L waves

69. __________ are shear seismic waves that travel deep in Earth's interior.

A) P waves B) S waves C) R waves D) L waves

70. __________ travel fastest and are the first to be felt during an earthquake.

A) P waves B) S waves C) R waves D) L waves

71. Most of the shaking during an earthquake comes from __________.

A) P waves B) S waves C) R waves D) R and L waves

72. A back-and-forth motion during an earthquake is made by __________.

A) P waves B) S waves C) R waves D) L waves

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73. A rolling motion during an earthquake is made by __________.

A) P waves B) S waves C) R waves D) L waves

74. A Mercalli intensity scale ranking of VIII is associated with what type of damage?

A) barely noticeable earth movement B) easily felt C) difficult to stand upright D) collapsed buildings

75. A Mercalli intensity scale ranking of III is associated with what type of damage?

A) barely noticeable earth movement B) easily felt C) difficult to stand upright D) collapsed buildings

76. A Mercalli intensity scale ranking of X is associated with what type of damage?

A) barely noticeable earth movement B) easily felt C) difficult to stand upright D) collapsed buildings

77. A Mercalli intensity scale ranking of V is associated with what type of damage?

A) barely noticeable earth movement B) easily felt C) difficult to stand upright D) collapsed buildings

78. The death toll for the 2010 Haiti earthquake was about __________.

A) 10,000 B) 50,000 C) 70,000 D) 100,000

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79. Why do seismic waves in the western United States not travel as far as those on the East Coast?

A) because the mountains in the west help seismic waves travel B) because the eastern United States has few earthquakes C) because the crust in the western United States is broken and weakened by many faults D) because the western United States is composed mainly of oceanic crust

80. Which of the following is not used by the moment magnitude scale to determine earthquake magnitude?

A) measured ground shaking B) physical signs of ground movement C) the physical characteristics of rocks at the epicenter D) damage done to structures

81. The strongest recorded earthquake, in Chile in 1960, was a magnitude __________.

A) 7 B) 8.3 C) 9.5 D) 10.2

82. How much more ground shaking does a magnitude 1 earthquake make compared to a magnitude 2?

A) 1 B) 5 C) 10 D) 100

83. How much more energy is released in a magnitude 2 earthquake compared to a magnitude 1 earthquake?

A) 1 time more B) 32 times more C) 76 times more D) 100 times more

84. Which of the following criteria are not used to determine the seismic risk for an area?

A) seismic probability B) the moment magnitude scale C) types of faults present D) historic fault activity

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85. According to the figure, the 2010 Haiti earthquake was a maximum Mercalli intensity of __________.

A) V B) VIII C) X D) X or greater

Use the following to answer questions 86-89:

86. According to the figure, a category 3 hurricane is approximately equal to what magnitude earthquake?

A) 6.6 B) 7.0 C) 8.3 D) 8.5

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87. According to the figure, the 1906 San Francisco earthquake was approximately equal to what other event?

A) Hiroshima bombing B) a lightning bolt C) Mt. St. Helens' 1980 eruption D) Krakatau's 1883 eruption

88. Referring to the figure, what magnitude was the 1906 San Francisco earthquake?

A) 6.7 B) 6.9 C) 7.0 D) 7.9

89. According to the figure, how much energy was released during the 1906 San Francisco earthquake in kilograms of TNT? A) a bolt of lightning B) a tornado C) a hurricane D) a hydrogen bomb explosion

90. Tambora's 1815 eruption is notable for what?

A) It caused the greatest known human death toll.

B) It was the largest officially measured volcanic eruption.

C) It was the first eruption of Tambora in human history.

D) It caused 100 years of climate change.

91. Tambora's 1815 eruption was ranked as VEI __________.

A) 5 B) 6 C) 7 D) 8

92. Up to __________ people died from pyroclastic flows, tsunamis, and starvation in the immediate vicinity of Tambora.

A) 10,000 B) 50,000 C) 70,000 D) 100,000

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93. Which of the following was not among Tambora's effects?

A) crop failure B) devastating lava flows C) disease outbreak D) changes in the Indian monsoon

94. In the open ocean, tsunamis are difficult to detect.

A) True B) False

95. Most tsunamis are triggered by earthquakes, but not all of them are.

A) True B) False

96. Fragments of solid material ejected from a volcano are called pyroclasts.

A) True B) False

97. Stratovolcanoes are much larger than shield volcanoes.

A) True B) False

98. Mount Fuji in Japan is a shield volcano.

A) True B) False

99. The Hawaiian islands are composed of shield volcanoes.

A) True B) False

100. Stratovolcanoes are the largest type of volcano.

A) True B) False

101. Lava with high viscosity is thick and does not easily flow.

A) True B) False

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102. Felsic lava is hotter than mafic lava.

A) True B) False

103. Shield volcanoes are composed of mafic lava.

A) True B) False

104. Volcanic gas is a type of pyroclast.

A) True B) False

105. Volcanic gases are seldom deadly.

A) True B) False

106. Shield volcanoes produce dangerous and explosive eruptions.

A) True B) False

107. Stratovolcanoes can produce both explosive eruptions and effusive outpourings of lava.

A) True B) False

108. Generally, flowing lava is the most serious volcanic geohazard.

A) True B) False

109. Volcanic eruptions can sometimes be accurately predicted.

A) True B) False 110. The 2011 Tōhoku earthquake was the fifth largest earthquake ever recorded.

A) True B) False

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111. Elastic rebound theory describes how blocks in Earth's crust bend, break, and rebound back to their original shape.

A) True B) False

112. Most earthquakes are too small to be felt by people.

A) True B) False

113. In horst and graben topography, a horst is a valley and a graben is a ridge.

A) True B) False

114. Worldwide, the majority of earthquakes occur in the interior of continents.

A) True B) False

115. Most transform plate boundaries are on the seafloor.

A) True B) False

116. No two earthquakes produce the same pattern of ground shaking.

A) True B) False

117. Seismographs detect, measure, and record ground shaking from earthquakes.

A) True B) False

118. The Mercalli intensity scale ranks earthquakes with seismographs.

A) True B) False

119. In some regions buildings sink into the ground during earthquake shaking because of liquefaction of the sediments on which the buildings sit.

A) True B) False

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120. Earthquake magnitude is evaluated based on the amount of damage an earthquake causes to physical structures.

A) True B) False

121. Each earthquake is assigned only one earthquake magnitude number.

A) True B) False

122. Collapsing structures are the main threat to people created by earthquakes.

A) True B) False

123. Scientists have successfully predicted some earthquakes.

A) True B) False

124. In some regions, scientists are able to warn people of approaching seismic waves before the waves arrive.

A) True B) False

125. Volcanoes cool Earth's surface because their suspended aerosols reflect sunlight.

A) True B) False

126. Tambora's climate effects included cooling summer temperatures in the Northern United States by about 3°C to 6°C. A) True B) False

127. If given the opportunity, would you live in the red zone of Vesuvius or another risky zone like Vesuvius? Explain.

128. Do you agree that scientists should be held accountable for natural disasters? Explain.

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129. Are you vulnerable to volcanic hazards where you live? If you are unsure, how would you find out?

130. Is there a risk of an earthquake occurring where you live? If you do not know, what kinds of questions could you ask to find out?

131. Do you think scientists will ever be able to predict with accuracy when a given region will be hit by an earthquake?

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. A 18. D 19. C 20. B 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. D 25. D 26. B 27. C 28. A 29. C 30. D 31. A 32. C 33. B 34. D 35. B 36. A 37. C 38. B 39. C 40. B 41. C 42. B 43. A 44. C

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45. D 46. B 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. B 51. C 52. A 53. A 54. D 55. A 56. A 57. A 58. B 59. C 60. A 61. D 62. A 63. B 64. D 65. C 66. A 67. D 68. C 69. B 70. A 71. D 72. D 73. C 74. C 75. A 76. D 77. B 78. D 79. C 80. D 81. C 82. C 83. B 84. B 85. D 86. A 87. C 88. D 89. C 90. A

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91. C 92. D 93. B 94. A 95. A 96. A 97. B 98. B 99. A 100. B 101. A 102. B 103. A 104. B 105. A 106. B 107. A 108. B 109. A 110. A 111. A 112. A 113. B 114. B 115. A 116. A 117. A 118. B 119. A 120. B 121. A 122. A 123. B 124. A 125. A 126. A 127. Answers will vary. Many might say yes because it would be fun to live in Italy and Vesuvius probably won't erupt. This is an opportunity to get the students to think about natural hazards and how much risk we are willing to expose ourselves to.

128. Answers will vary. Some students may think scientists should be able to forewarn the public. Another tack would be to say that natural disasters like earthquakes and most volcanic eruptions cannot be predicted, and we can't hold scientists accountable.

129. Answers will vary. Mostly in the United States the Pacific Northwest is vulnerable to volcanoes. A student could use the maps in this chapter to determine his or her vulnerability to volcanoes.

130. Answers will vary. Students can use the maps provided in this chapter to determine their

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vulnerability to earthquakes. Students in the west are far more likely to experience earthquakes than those east of the Rockies.

131. Answers will vary. Students might take the position that technology will eventually enable scientists to do this. Another angle is that earthquakes will always be impossible to predict because they occur randomly in time.

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Chapter 15- Weathering and Mass Movement

1. __________ is the process of transporting rock fragments by streams, glaciers, and wind.

A) Weathering B) Erosion C) Sedimentation D) Denudation

2. __________ is the process of dissolving and breaking solid rock into smaller fragments.

A) Weathering B) Erosion C) Sedimentation D) Denudation

3. The process of depositing eroded rock fragments is called __________.

A) weathering B) erosion C) deposition D) denudation

4. The processes of weathering, erosion, and deposition of rock material is called __________.

A) Weathering B) Erosion C) Sedimentation D) Denudation

5. Which is not an agent of erosion?

A) flowing glaciers B) streams C) growing plant roots D) wind

6. Which occurs when the weight of overlying rocks and sediments are removed from deeply buried rocks?

A) biophysical weathering B) pressure-release jointing C) chemical weathering D) frost wedging

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7. __________ is the process in which joints form parallel to the rock surface, creating sheetlike slabs.

A) Exfoliation B) Denudation C) Salt wedging D) Hydrolysis

8. Where it is cold, what is the most important type of physical weathering?

A) root wedging B) salt wedging C) frost wedging D) biophysical weathering

9. In coastal areas, what is a common type of physical weathering?

A) root wedging B) salt wedging C) frost wedging D) biophysical weathering

10. Tafoni results from what type of physical weathering?

A) root wedging B) salt wedging C) frost wedging D) biophysical weathering

11. A burrowing gopher breaking rocks into smaller fragments is an example of __________.

A) biophysical weathering B) frost wedging C) root wedging D) salt wedging

12. Roots growing in and cracking a rock is an example of __________.

A) biophysical weathering B) frost wedging C) root wedging D) salt wedging

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13. Rocks falling from a cliff and breaking apart are an example of what?

A) chemical weathering B) a landslide C) a debris flow D) physical weathering

14. Freeze-thaw cycles result in __________.

A) biophysical weathering B) frost wedging C) root wedging D) salt wedging

15. Acidic rainwater dissolving rock is an example of __________.

A) salt wedging B) hydrolysis C) carbonation D) oxidation

16. Rusting rocks is an example of __________.

A) oxidation B) carbonation C) hydrolysis D) hydration

17. Clay absorbing water and softening is an example of __________.

A) oxidation B) carbonation C) hydrolysis D) hydration

18. Limestone rocks are weathered through __________.

A) oxidation B) carbonation C) hydrolysis D) hydration

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19. During __________, water is absorbed into the structure of the rock, causing it to expand and weaken.

A) carbonation B) hydrolysis C) hydration D) oxidation

20. __________ occurs when water reacts with and combines with minerals in rocks to form new minerals.

A) Carbonation B) Hydrolysis C) Hydration D) Oxidation

21. __________ results when carbon dioxide dissolves in water and forms carbonic acid that dissolves certain types of rocks.

A) Carbonation B) Hydrolysis C) Hydration D) Oxidation

22. In __________, oxygen atoms combine with the minerals in rocks and weaken them.

A) carbonation B) hydrolysis C) hydration D) oxidation

23. Weathering acts faster on which surface of a rock?

A) on flat surfaces B) on curved surfaces C) on angular edges D) on angular corners

24. Boulders become rounded through what process?

A) differential weathering B) erosion C) sedimentation D) denudation

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25. A __________ is a tall, columnar rock formation produced by differential weathering.

A) natural arch B) monolith C) hoodoo D) exfoliation dome

26. A __________ is a bridgelike structure that sometimes forms in sandstone as a result of differential weathering.

A) natural arch B) hoodoo C) monolith D) exfoliation dome

Use the following to answer questions 27-28:

27. In the photo, box A points to what?

A) a bedding plane B) an exfoliation dome C) a joint D) a landslide

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28. In the photo, box B points to what?

A) a bedding plane B) an exfoliation dome C) sheeting slabs D) a landslide

29. __________ refers to the process of weathering of carbonate rocks.

A) Differential weathering B) Oxidation C) Physical weathering D) Karst

30. Why do high latitude regions not experience karst weathering as quickly as warmer regions?

A) because water is often frozen and unavailable for chemical reactions at high latitudes B) because there are few carbonate rocks at high latitudes C) because there is little liquid rainfall at high latitudes D) because there is little available carbon to make carbonic acid at high latitudes

31. __________ is a depression in Earth's surface that results from weathering of carbonate rock.

A) Talus B) Tafoni C) A hoodoo D) A sinkhole

32. __________ is a depression that forms as the ceiling of a cavern caves in.

A) A sinkhole B) Cockpit karst C) Tower karst D) A collapse sinkhole

33. When a collapse sinkhole fills with water a __________ forms.

A) sinkhole lake B) cenote C) tafoni D) cavern

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34. Where a stream flows over the surface for only a short stretch in a karst region, it is called a(n) __________.

A) spring B) exotic stream C) disappearing stream D) intermittent stream

35. Where a stream flows out of the ground and onto the surface in a karst region, it is called a(n) __________.

A) disappearing stream B) exotic stream C) ephemeral stream D) spring

36. A surface composed of deeply weathered bare limestone is called __________.

A) limestone pavement B) tower karst C) cockpit karst D) karst

37. __________ is a limestone surface with vegetated rounded hills formed by limestone weathering.

A) Limestone pavement B) Tower karst C) Cockpit karst D) Karst

38. __________ may form where weak vertical joints focus the dissolution of karst weathering along vertical planes.

A) Limestone pavement B) Tower karst C) Cockpit karst D) Karst

39. Calcium carbonate mineral accumulations in limestone caverns are called __________.

A) speleothems B) limestone karst C) tower karst D) cockpit karst

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40. Cave formations that grow from the ceiling downward are called __________.

A) stalactites B) stalagmites C) limestone columns D) soda straws

41. Cave formations that grow from the floor upward are called __________.

A) stalactites B) stalagmites C) limestone columns D) soda straws

Use the following to answer question 42:

42. Referring to the figure, which continent has the fewest exposed carbonate rocks?

A) North America B) South America C) Eurasia D) Africa

43. A slope is said to be __________ when it has failed or is seen as likely to fail.

A) stable B) unstable C) saturated D) vegetated

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44. A slope is said to be __________ when it is unlikely to fail.

A) stable B) unstable C) saturated D) vegetated

45. Which is not a factor that weakens a slope?

A) geologic fault B) jointing C) foliation planes D) a cover of vegetation

46. An increase in soil friction, electrical charges in soil, and plant roots can all do what to the stability of a slope?

A) increase it B) decrease it C) have no effect on it D) Each of these affects slope stability unpredictably.

47. As vegetation grows on a slope, the slope will likely become __________.

A) more stable B) less stable C) unchanged D) steeper

48. After a disturbance event, like fire, a slope will likely become __________.

A) unchanged B) more stable C) less stable D) steeper

49. In terms of slope stability factors on Table 15.2, rivers and road cuts do what?

A) increase the resistance force B) reduce the resistance force C) increase the downslope force D) both reduce the resistance force and increase the downslope force

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50. In terms of slope stability factors on Table 15.2, earthquakes can do what?

A) increase the resistance force B) reduce the resistance force C) increase the downslope force D) both reduce the resistance force and increase the downslope force

51. In terms of slope stability factors on Table 15.2, rain-saturated ground can do what?

A) increase the resistance force B) reduce the resistance force C) increase the downslope force D) both reduce the resistance force and increase the downslope force

52. In terms of slope stability factors on Table 15.2, weathering does what?

A) increase the resistance force B) reduce the resistance force C) increase the downslope force D) both reduce the resistance force and increase the downslope force

53. In terms of slope stability factors on Table 15.2, removal of vegetation does what?

A) increase the resistance force B) reduce the resistance force C) increase the downslope force D) both reduce the resistance force and increase the downslope force

54. Which sequence puts these phenomena in the correct order in terms of how fast they move material downslope, from slowest to fastest?

A) flows and landslides—slumping—avalanches—rockfall B) slumping—flows and landslides—avalanches—rockfall C) slumping—avalanches—flows and landslides—rockfall D) rockfall—avalanches—flows and landslides—slumping

55. __________ is the imperceptible downslope movement of soil and regolith as they change volume in seasonal expansion and contraction cycles.

A) Soil creep B) Solifluction C) A slump D) A landslide

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56. __________ occurs in the northern tundra and the high-elevation alpine tundra where freeze-thaw cycles cause sheets and lobes of soils to move slowly downslope.

A) Soil creep B) Solifluction C) A slump D) A landslide

57. __________ is a type of mass movement where regolith detaches and slides downslope along a spoon-shaped plane and comes to rest more or less as a unit.

A) Soil creep B) Solifluction C) A slump D) A landslide

58. __________ is a general term for the rapid movement of rock or debris down a steep slope.

A) Soil creep B) Solifluction C) A slump D) A landslide

59. A fast-flowing slurry of mud mixed with large objects, such as rocks and vegetation, is called a __________.

A) debris flow B) slump C) rock slide D) debris slide

60. A rapid downslope movement of rocks and broken rock fragments is called a __________.

A) debris flow B) slump C) rock slide D) debris slide

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61. A __________ is a rapid downslope movement of a mixture of rocks, soil, and vegetation.

A) debris flow B) slump C) rock slide D) debris slide

62. Which is not used by scientists to monitor and predict the stability of a single specific slope?

A) GPS sensors B) laser measurements of slope movement C) boreholes with electronic sensors D) satellites

63. Which is not one of the components of a debris avalanche?

A) snow B) rocks C) trees D) soil

64. A(n) __________ occurs when rocks tumble off a vertical or nearly vertical cliff face.

A) avalanche B) talus C) rockfall D) rockfall chute

65. The pieces of angular broken rock that accumulate at the base of a steep slope or vertical cliff are called __________.

A) talus cones B) talus C) rockfall D) a rockfall chute

66. Repeated rockfall events in the same location can carve notches into the bedrock called __________.

A) talus cones B) talus C) rockfall D) a rockfall chute

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67. Talus accumulates at the base of cliffs in piles called __________.

A) talus cones B) toes C) rockfall D) rockfall chutes

68. Which is a form of weathering?

A) jointing B) rockslide C) rockfall D) avalanche

69. Which is a form of mass movement?

A) jointing B) chemical weathering C) limestone dissolution D) rockfall

70. Which is not a form of denudation?

A) stream erosion B) new rock cooled from lava C) root wedging D) deposition

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Use the following to answer question 71:

71. Cattle terraces, shown in the photo, are most similar to what type of natural mass movement?

A) a landslide B) a slump C) a debris flow D) soil creep

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Use the following to answer questions 72-76:

72. This figure shows what kind of mass movement?

A) a landslide B) a slump C) debris flow D) soil creep

73. In the figure, box A shows what?

A) failure surface B) head scarp C) toe D) slump material

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74. In the figure, box B shows what?

A) failure surface B) head scarp C) toe D) slump material

75. In the figure, box C shows what?

A) failure surface B) head scarp C) toe D) slump material

76. In the figure, box D shows what?

A) failure surface B) head scarp C) toe D) slump material

Use the following to answer questions 77-79:

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77. Box A in this photo shows what?

A) a talus cone B) an avalanche C) a rockfall chute D) a debris flow

78. The landform in this photo was created by what process?

A) erosion B) chemical dissolution C) slumping D) weathering

79. Box B in this photo shows what?

A) a talus cone B) an avalanche C) a rockfall chute D) a debris flow

80. Up to __________ billion dollars in damage is caused by mass movement in the United States each year.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

81. About __________ deaths are caused by mass movements each year in the United States.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 70 D) 80

82. Most mass movements are caused by three factors. Which of these is not one of those three factors?

A) undercutting of steep slopes B) mining activity C) removal of vegetation D) heavy and prolonged rainfall

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83. Mass wasting events causing 1,000 deaths or more occur, on average, about every __________ years.

A) 3 B) 4.5 C) 6 D) 7.5

84. Referring to Table 15.33, the 1999 Vargas, Venezuela, mass wasting event caused __________ deaths.

A) 10,000 B) 20,000 C) 30,000 D) 40,000

85. Referring to Table 15.33, most of the recent major deadly landslides were triggered by what?

A) heavy rains B) earthquakes C) volcanic eruptions D) hurricanes

86. Referring to Table 15.33, at which geographic location did the most recent major landslide catastrophe occur?

A) Vargas, Venezuela B) Pakistan and India C) Colombia (Tolima) D) China (Sichuan)

87. Scientists can assess the landslide risk using remote sensing. Which factor is not used to determine the global landslide risk?

A) slope steepness B) population size C) land use types D) soil types

88. Mount Rushmore must be continually protected from the effects of weathering.

A) True B) False

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89. All rocks exposed on the surface experience weathering.

A) True B) False

90. Physical weathering and chemical weathering are the same.

A) True B) False

91. Chemical weathering breaks rocks down into smaller pieces without altering the chemical makeup of the rock.

A) True B) False

92. Physical weathering breaks rocks down into smaller pieces by altering the chemical makeup of the rock.

A) True B) False

93. Exfoliation is a type of pressure-release jointing.

A) True B) False

94. Physical weathering often increases the rate of chemical weathering.

A) True B) False

95. Rust is a result of physical weathering.

A) True B) False

96. Fungi and lichen dissolving rock is an example of biochemical weathering.

A) True B) False

97. Carbonic acid is an anthropogenic pollutant and does not occur naturally.

A) True B) False

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98. When carbon dioxide dissolves in water it makes a weak carbonic acid.

A) True B) False

99. Carbonic acid dissolves carbonate rocks like limestone.

A) True B) False

100. When a sinkhole fills with water a collapse sinkhole results.

A) True B) False

101. Sinkhole lakes indicate the level of the water table.

A) True B) False

102. The world's largest collapse sinkhole is in Mexico.

A) True B) False

103. When a stalactite joins to a stalagmite, a limestone column forms.

A) True B) False

104. Stalactites first form as hollow tubes called soda straws.

A) True B) False

105. Speleothems form and grow only in caves that are flooded with water.

A) True B) False

106. Mass movement is the movement of rock, soils, snow, or ice downhill by gravity.

A) True B) False

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107. Mass movements cannot occur without gravity.

A) True B) False

108. A slope near geologic faults is more likely to fail than one that is far from faults.

A) True B) False

109. The angle of repose of soil particles results from the equilibrium between gravity and friction.

A) True B) False

110. A lahar is a type of soil creep.

A) True B) False

111. Small particles settle at a steeper angle of repose than large particles.

A) True B) False

112. In some instances, a landslide event can be predicted.

A) True B) False

113. Submarine landslides around Hawai'i are more extensive than land area of the islands.

A) True B) False

114. Only snow can make an avalanche.

A) True B) False

115. Removal of vegetation increases the resistance force that stabilizes a slope.

A) True B) False

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116. Earthquakes often trigger mass movement events.

A) True B) False

117. Landslides sometimes settle across rivers, damming them and creating lakes behind the dam debris.

A) True B) False

118. Scientists use temperature changes to estimate landslide risk for many areas of the world.

A) True B) False

119. Contrast stalactites, stalagmites, and limestone columns. How does each form?

120. In terms of geologic time, do you think that landforms resulting from differential weathering, such as natural arches and hoodoos, are short-lived or permanent features?

Explain.

121. The process of weathering has been going on since Earth first formed and never stops, yet many rocks are still “fresh” and relatively unweathered. Why haven't all of Earth's rocks been weathered away long ago?

122. What differences are there between flows and landslides?

123. Explain how cockpit karst and tower karst form.

124. What is talus? What is a talus cone? How do rockfall chutes relate to talus cones? What natural and human-produced factors increase the chance of an earth movement event?

125. Can scientists predict landslides with accuracy?

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. B 11. A 12. C 13. D 14. B 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. D 24. A 25. C 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. A 31. D 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. D 36. A 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. A 41. B 42. B 43. B 44. A

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45. D 46. A 47. A 48. C 49. C 50. D 51. D 52. B 53. B 54. B 55. A 56. B 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. C 61. D 62. D 63. A 64. C 65. B 66. D 67. A 68. A 69. D 70. B 71. D 72. B 73. B 74. D 75. C 76. A 77. C 78. D 79. A 80. D 81. A 82. B 83. B 84. C 85. B 86. D 87. B 88. A 89. A 90. B

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91. B 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. B 96. A 97. B 98. A 99. A 100. B 101. A 102. B 103. A 104. A 105. B 106. A 107. A 108. A 109. A 110. B 111. B 112. A 113. A 114. B 115. B 116. A 117. A 118. B 119. Stalactites are formations that grow from the ceiling downward. Conversely, stalagmites grow from the cavern floor upward. A limestone column is a cylindrical cavern formation resulting when a stalactite joins with a stalagmite.

120. Geologically, these features are fragile and very short-lived. Gravity eventually pulls them down.

121. New, unweathered rocks are continually made in the rock cycle.

122. A landslide is a general term for the rapid movement of rock or debris down a steep slope. Overall, flows move less quickly downhill than landslides, and flows are always mixed with large amounts of water.

123. Both are forms of karst topography where former subterranean caverns have been exposed through weathering and erosion of the limestone bedrock. Cockpit karst consists of a surface of rounded hills formed by limestone weathering. Tower karst may form where weak vertical joints focus the dissolution of the rock along vertical planes.

124. Frost wedging produces rockfall. Rockfall occurs when rocks free-fall and tumble off a vertical or nearly vertical cliff face. These falling rocks sometimes carve notches in a mountain called a rock chute. When the rockfall accumulates into a pile it is called talus.

Often the piles accumulate in cones called talus cones. Vegetation removal and slope steepening with mining or road cuts can increase the potential for slope movement.

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Heavy and prolonged rainfall also increases slope instability.

125. The best approach is to identify areas that are already vulnerable. Then identify areas where the risk increases as a result of heavy rainfall. This approach allows risk maps to be developed that can help warn people of the increased likelihood of landslides.

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Chapter 16- Flowiing Water- Fluvial Systems

1. Which is not one of the many names natural streams go by?

A) brooks B) runs C) wadis D) canals

2. A __________ is a single large stream into which smaller tributaries merge.

A) drainage basin B) trunk stream C) tributary D) mouth

3. A __________ is a geographic region drained by a stream.

A) drainage basin B) trunk stream C) tributary D) mouth

4. A stream's __________ is found where the stream meets the ocean.

A) drainage basin B) trunk stream C) tributary D) mouth

5. A __________ is a small stream that joins with other small streams.

A) drainage basin B) trunk stream C) tributary D) mouth

6. A ridge or highland that separates drainage basins is called a(n) __________.

A) drainage divide B) continental divide C) internal drainage system D) dendritic drainage system

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7. Drainage basins that have no outlet to an ocean are called __________.

A) drainage divides B) continental divides C) internal drainage systems D) dendritic drainage systems

8. A ridge or highland that separates drainage systems that empty into different ocean basins is called a(n) __________.

A) drainage divide B) continental divide C) internal drainage system D) dendritic drainage system

9. __________ drainage forms on the flanks of volcanoes.

A) Dendritic B) Deranged C) Radial D) Trellis

10. __________ drainage resembles the branches of a tree.

A) Dendritic B) Deranged C) Radial D) Rectangular

11. __________ drainage can form where bedrock jointing creates a linear pattern of streams.

A) Dendritic B) Deranged C) Rectangular D) Trellis

12. __________ drainage forms on a surface that was recently covered by ice sheets.

A) Dendritic B) Deranged C) Radial D) Rectangular

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13. __________ drainage occurs in internal drainage basins.

A) Trellis B) Deranged C) Radial D) Centripetal

14. __________ drainage is common in areas of tilted layers of sedimentary rock.

A) Trellis B) Deranged C) Radial D) Centripetal

15. What stream order results when a first-order and a first-order stream meet?

A) The stream order does not change.

B) A second-order stream results.

C) A third-order stream results.

D) A fourth-order stream results.

16. What stream order results when a third-order and a second-order stream meet?

A) The stream order does not change.

B) A fourth-order stream results.

C) A fifth-order stream results.

D) A sixth-order stream results.

17. What stream order results when a fourth-order and a fourth-order stream meet?

A) The stream order does not change.

B) A fifth-order stream results.

C) A sixth-order stream results.

D) An eighth-order stream results.

18. A(n) __________ is a permanent stream that originates in a humid region and flows through an arid region.

A) intermittent stream B) ephemeral stream C) permanent stream D) exotic stream

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19. A(n) __________ flows briefly only after heavy rainstorms.

A) intermittent stream B) ephemeral stream C) permanent stream D) exotic stream

20. A(n) __________ runs dry during part or most of the year.

A) intermittent stream B) ephemeral stream C) permanent stream D) exotic stream

21. A(n) __________ flows year-round.

A) intermittent stream B) ephemeral stream C) permanent stream D) exotic stream

Use the following to answer questions 22-27:

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22. In the figure, box A shows what type of drainage pattern?

A) dendritic B) radial C) rectangular D) centripetal

23. In the figure, box B shows what type of drainage pattern?

A) trellis B) radial C) deranged D) centripetal

24. In the figure, box C shows what type of drainage pattern?

A) dendritic B) radial C) rectangular D) centripetal

25. In the figure, box D shows what type of drainage pattern?

A) dendritic B) radial C) rectangular D) centripetal

26. In the figure, box E shows what type of drainage pattern?

A) deranged B) radial C) rectangular D) trellis

27. In the figure, box F shows what type of drainage pattern?

A) deranged B) centripetal C) rectangular D) dendritic

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28. What does the Latin word fluvius mean?

A) erosion B) river C) water D) drainage basin

29. Newly forming stream channels are called __________.

A) rills B) gullies C) interfluves D) sheetwash

30. __________ are flat areas between stream channels.

A) Exotic streams B) Gullies C) Interfluves D) Sheetwash

31. As rills deepen, they develop into __________.

A) exotic streams B) gullies C) interfluves D) sheetwash

32. What is the process called whereby stream channels lengthen upslope?

A) headward erosion B) sheetwash C) fluvial deposition D) stream order

33. Which is not an important influence on stream discharge?

A) climate B) stream order C) season D) All of these have an important influence on stream discharge.

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34. Which best describes stream discharge in an urbanized area immediately following a storm?

A) rapid increase and rapid decrease in discharge B) gradual increase and gradual decrease in discharge C) rapid increase and gradual decrease in discharge D) gradual increase and rapid decrease in discharge

35. Stream height is measured using what?

A) a stilling well B) a current meter C) a laser D) a stream hydrograph

36. Which best describes stream discharge in an undeveloped area immediately following a storm?

A) rapid increase and rapid decrease in discharge B) gradual increase and gradual decrease in discharge C) rapid increase and gradual decrease in discharge D) gradual increase and rapid decrease in discharge

37. If a stream is 6 meters wide, 1 meter deep on average, and flows at 1 meter per second, what is its discharge in cubic meters per second?

A) 1 B) 6 C) 8 D) 10

38. The Amazon River has a discharge of about __________ cubic meters per second.

A) 100,000 B) 200,000 C) 300,000 D) 400,000

39. The Mississippi River has a discharge of about __________ cubic meters per second.

A) 10,000 B) 20,000 C) 30,000 D) 40,000

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40. Soluble minerals carried in solution by a stream are an example of what?

A) abrasion B) the dissolved load C) the suspended load D) the bed load

41. Stream __________ rounds and polishes rocks in a stream.

A) abrasion B) dissolved load C) suspended load D) bed load

42. Heavy material moving in the streambed is an example of what?

A) abrasion B) the dissolved load C) the suspended load D) the bed load

43. Small particles of clay and silt that are suspended in the stream are an example of what?

A) abrasion B) the dissolved load C) the suspended load D) the bed load

44. __________ occurs when particles move in the streambed by dragging and tumbling.

A) Abrasion B) Saltation C) Traction D) Suspension

45. __________ occurs when particles move in the streambed by bouncing and hopping.

A) Abrasion B) Saltation C) Traction D) Suspension

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46. Which is not a characteristic of a high-gradient stream?

A) low stream order B) low discharge C) large, angular rocks D) high stream order

47. Which is not a characteristic of a low-gradient stream?

A) low stream order B) high capacity C) low competence D) mostly sand, silt, and clay on the streambed

48. __________ form where a stream downcuts into bedrock with vertical joints.

A) V-shaped valleys B) Slot canyons C) Stair-step canyons D) U-shaped canyons

49. __________ form where a stream downcuts into soft bedrock and soil.

A) V-shaped valleys B) Slot canyons C) Stair-step canyons D) U-shaped canyons

50. __________ form where a stream cuts through alternating layers of hard and soft bedrock.

A) V-shaped valleys B) Slot canyons C) Stair-step canyons D) U-shaped canyons

51. An abrupt increase in stream gradient (or steepness) over a short distance results in what?

A) a knickpoint B) an escarpment C) a slot canyon D) a V-shaped valley

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52. A long cliff face or steep slope is called a what?

A) knickpoint B) escarpment C) meander D) V-shaped valley

53. A waterfall is an example of a(n) __________.

A) knickpoint B) escarpment C) slot canyon D) meander

54. A(n) __________ is a looping bend in a stream on a floodplain.

A) knickpoint B) escarpment C) slot canyon D) meander

55. Which does not result from stream rejuvenation?

A) stream terraces B) oxbow lakes C) entrenched meanders D) superimposed streams

56. A(n) __________ cut(s) through bedrock ridges, rather than flow around them.

A) antecedent stream B) stream meander C) superimposed stream D) antecedent and a superimposed stream

57. In a stream's headwaters, what size of stream channel material would most likely be found?

A) large, angular boulders B) well-rounded stones and pebbles C) sand, silt, and clay D) dissolved minerals

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58. In a stream's floodplain, what size of stream channel material would most likely be found?

A) large, angular boulders B) well-rounded stones and pebbles C) sand, silt, and clay D) dissolved minerals

59. At about the halfway point between a stream's headwaters and its mouth, what size of stream channel material would most likely be found?

A) large, angular boulders B) well-rounded stones and pebbles C) sand, silt, and clay D) dissolved minerals

60. Floodplains are built through the process of __________.

A) aggradation B) degradation C) denudation D) erosion

61. Which defines an alluvial fan?

A) a cone-shaped accumulation of sediments deposited by a stream B) a small stream that joins with other small streams C) the area of flat land near a stream that experiences flooding on a regular basis D) a stream that forms intertwining channels around sediments in the streambed

62. Which defines a braided stream?

A) a cone-shaped accumulation of sediments deposited by a stream B) a small stream that joins with other small streams C) the area of flat land near a stream that experiences flooding on a regular basis D) a stream that forms intertwining channels around sediments in the streambed

63. Which term refers to the fastest area of flow in a stream?

A) thalweg B) cut bank C) point bar D) oxbow lake

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64. Which forms on the outside bend of a meander?

A) cutoff B) oxbow lake C) cut bank D) point bar

65. Which forms on the inside of a meander?

A) meander neck B) cut bank C) oxbow lake D) point bar

66. Which forms after a meander neck is cut off?

A) cut bank B) oxbow lake C) point bar D) yazoo stream

67. Which is the most likely sediment sorting sequence that would occur during stream flooding?

A) gravel closest to the stream channel, then sand, silt, and clay farther away B) sand closest to the stream channel, then gravel, silt, and clay farther away C) clay closest to the stream channel, then gravel, sand, and silt farther away D) silt closest to the stream channel, then gravel, sand, and clay farther away

68. Blocking the flow of a stream with a concrete dam creates a __________.

A) reservoir B) delta C) lake D) distributary

69. Blocking the flow of a stream with a natural phenomenon, like a landslide, creates a __________.

A) reservoir B) delta C) lake D) distributary

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70. A __________ is an accumulation of sediments that forms where a stream reaches base level.

A) lake B) reservoir C) delta D) distributary

71. What type of delta is found at the mouth of the Mississippi River?

A) arcuate delta B) bird's foot delta C) artificial delta D) forested delta

72. Why do coastal deltas subside?

A) Plate tectonics lowers the land elevation.

B) The weight of buildings people place on deltas causes them to sink.

C) Farming activities cause them to subside.

D) The weight of sediments causes them to compact.

73. What do dams and levees do to the rate of natural subsidence in coastal deltas?

A) They increase the rate of subsidence.

B) They decrease the rate of subsidence.

C) They do not influence the rate of subsidence.

D) Scientists are not certain how they affect the rate of subsidence.

74. Which is not among structures typically used by people to reduce flooding?

A) dams B) levees C) stream bypasses D) canals

75. Which is a disadvantage of stream bypasses?

A) sedimentation reduces reservoir capacity B) often constrict the stream channel and reduce riparian habitat C) requires large amounts of undeveloped land that can be flooded D) controls flooding

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76. Which is a disadvantage of dams?

A) sedimentation reduces reservoir capacity B) often constrict the stream channel and reduce riparian habitat C) requires large amounts of undeveloped land that can be flooded D) controls flooding

77. Which is a disadvantage of levees?

A) sedimentation reduces reservoir capacity B) often constrict the stream channel and reduce riparian habitat C) requires large amounts of undeveloped land that can be flooded D) controls flooding

78. If a stream has a 1 percent annual probability of flooding, what is the probability that it will flood sometime during a 100-year period?

A) 1 percent B) 50 percent C) 75 percent D) 100 percent

79. If a stream has a 1 percent annual probability of flooding, what is the recurrence interval for that stream?

A) once every 100 years B) once every 50 years C) once every 10 years D) once every year

80. There are more than __________ public and private dams in the United States.

A) 15,000 B) 50,000 C) 85,000 D) 100,000

81. Canada has about __________ dams.

A) 1,000 B) 10,000 C) 50,000 D) 80,000

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82. Worldwide, there are about __________ dams.

A) 100,000 B) 550,000 C) 780,000 D) 850,000

83. Norway makes about __________ percent of its electricity from dams.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 90 D) 98

84. Canada makes about __________ percent of its electricity from dams.

A) 50 B) 60 C) 90 D) 98

85. Which is not one of the pros of dams and their reservoirs?

A) water storage B) sedimentation C) flood control D) recreation

86. Which is not one of the cons of dams and their reservoirs?

A) loss of cultural sites and habitat B) sedimentation C) flooded communities and farmland D) transportation

87. What is one of the major problems with dams in the Pacific Northwest?

A) sedimentation B) blocking spawning fish such as salmon C) lack of hydroelectrical production D) loss of archaeological sites

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88. What is the problem with reservoirs created in the tropics?

A) They fill up with sediments particularly fast.

B) They emit large amounts of the greenhouse gas methane.

C) They become anoxic (oxygen free) and fish kill-offs occur.

D) They flood farmland.

89. Early subsistence farming first began in ancient Mesopotamia.

A) True B) False

90. Today, Mesopotamia consists of Spain and France.

A) True B) False

91. Floodplains experience flooding on a regular basis.

A) True B) False

92. Soils deposited by streams are poor in plant nutrients.

A) True B) False

93. Many major world cities are located on stream floodplains.

A) True B) False

94. The radial stream drainage pattern is the most common.

A) True B) False

95. Australia has the largest internal drainage basins in the world.

A) True B) False

96. Internal drainage basins sometimes have highly salty lakes.

A) True B) False

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97. A stream is a channel in which water flows downhill by the force of gravity.

A) True B) False

98. Drainage basins are usually small and geographically limited.

A) True B) False

99. A first-order stream has no tributaries.

A) True B) False

100. Water diversions by people create anthropogenic intermittent streams.

A) True B) False

101. Flowing water is the most important and geographically widespread agent of erosion.

A) True B) False

102. If the Sun were to stop shining permanently, fluvial erosion would continue.

A) True B) False

103. The amount of water flowing in a stream channel is called stream size.

A) True B) False

104. Streams in undeveloped areas experience sudden spikes in discharge during heavy precipitation events compared to streams in urbanized areas.

A) True B) False

105. Geographers refer to the size of fragments a stream can transport as stream competence.

A) True B) False

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106. Stream capacity refers to the amount of material collectively that a stream can carry.

A) True B) False

107. High-gradient streams occur on the floodplains of a drainage basin.

A) True B) False

108. Waterfalls slowly migrate downstream through erosion.

A) True B) False

109. Geologic uplift gives streams more energy to erode Earth's surface.

A) True B) False

110. Stream rejuvenation can form a water gap.

A) True B) False

111. Stream piracy occurs when two streams merge to form one larger stream.

A) True B) False

112. The dissolved load carried by a stream settles out by gravity at base level.

A) True B) False

113. Stream deposits are often sorted by size.

A) True B) False

114. The California Gold Rush miners used hydraulic mining to wash gold from the hillsides.

A) True B) False

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115. Meanders only develop in low-gradient streams.

A) True B) False

116. Natural levees are built up only during stream flooding.

A) True B) False

117. Distributaries are found at the headwaters of a stream.

A) True B) False

118. Subsidence occurs when sediments compact and the land surface elevation lowers.

A) True B) False

119. There are two main types of flooding: flash floods and seasonal floods.

A) True B) False

120. Seasonal floods are more dangerous than flash floods.

A) True B) False

121. The Johnstown Flood in 1889 was a flash flood.

A) True B) False

122. Dams and reservoirs reduce peak discharge amounts of a stream following a storm.

A) True B) False

123. Hydroelectricity is a carbon-free energy source.

A) True B) False

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124. In what situations do stream capacity and stream competence decrease? What happens to the stream load when they decrease?

125. What is stream rejuvenation? What rejuvenates a stream? What do streams do once they are rejuvenated?

126. Identify several floodplain landforms.

127. Fluvial erosion downcuts into mountains and reduces their height. Why haven't streams worn all of Earth's mountains flat?

128. How do dams relate to climate change?

129. Where do natural levees form and how do they form?

130. What is a stream hydrograph? Compare natural stream discharge to discharge of streams in urbanized areas.

131. Rocks are much harder than water. How does water carve valleys into mountains composed of solid bedrock?

132. Do you live where it floods? What kinds of information would you need in order to answer this question if you do not know?

133. Which argument do you think is stronger, dam removal or dam building? Or does it depend on the circumstance? Explain your answer.

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Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. C 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. B 20. A 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. B 25. C 26. D 27. B 28. B 29. A 30. C 31. B 32. A 33. D 34. A 35. A 36. B 37. B 38. B 39. B 40. B 41. A 42. D 43. C 44. C

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45. B 46. D 47. A 48. B 49. A 50. C 51. A 52. B 53. A 54. D 55. B 56. D 57. A 58. C 59. B 60. A 61. A 62. D 63. A 64. C 65. D 66. B 67. A 68. A 69. C 70. C 71. B 72. D 73. A 74. D 75. C 76. A 77. B 78. D 79. A 80. C 81. B 82. D 83. D 84. B 85. B 86. D 87. B 88. B 89. A 90. B

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91. A 92. B 93. A 94. B 95. B 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. A 101. A 102. B 103. B 104. B 105. A 106. A 107. B 108. B 109. A 110. A 111. B 112. B 113. A 114. A 115. B 116. A 117. B 118. A 119. A 120. B 121. A 122. A 123. A 124. Stream capacity and competence decrease when discharge and velocity decrease. Also, when streams reach base level, capacity and competence become zero. When streams lose capacity and competence, they drop the material they were carrying.

125. Stream rejuvenation refers to the increased downcutting energy given to a stream after base level is lowered relative to the watershed. Sea level lowering or tectonic uplift of the land can rejuvenate a stream. Once streams are rejuvenated, they have more energy to cut into the bedrock.

126. Point bars, cut banks, oxbow lakes, yazoo streams, natural levees, bayous, wetlands, and backswamps are examples of floodplain landforms.

127. Geothermal energy continually builds mountains up and counteracts the effects of erosion.

128. Dams mitigate climate change by producing carbon-free energy. Dams contribute to climate change because reservoirs (particularly those in the tropics) generate methane, a

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potent greenhouse gas.

129. Natural levees parallel the stream channel. They form as alluvium is deposited during floods. The largest particles settle closest to the stream channel and accumulate to form natural levees.

130. A stream hydrograph plots stream discharge for a given period of time. Streams in urbanized areas have a higher and faster peak discharge than streams in undeveloped areas.

131. Downcutting by streams is accomplished in large part through weathering and abrasion.

Weathering, physical and chemical, disintegrates rocks. Abrasion mechanically breaks rocks apart. The flowing water carries this material downslope, cutting into the crust over time.

132. Answers will vary. Students will need to know what a floodplain is and if they are on one. They can think about this in terms of how flat the land is where they live and where the nearest stream is.

133. Answers will vary. One angle is that economic development, clean electricity, and water procurement are most desirable. Another angle is that natural habitat restoration and preservation are most important.

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Chapter 17- The Work of Ice

1. What percentage of soils in the Northern Hemisphere are permafrost soils?

A) 10 percent B) 25 percent C) 50 percent D) 75 percent

2. The surface of permafrost that thaws each summer and freezes in fall is called __________.

A) the active layer B) continuous permafrost C) discontinuous permafrost D) talik

3. __________ occurs where permafrost is 100 meters thick or more.

A) The active layer B) Continuous permafrost C) Discontinuous permafrost D) Talik

4. Non-frozen areas in an area dominated by permafrost are called __________.

A) the active layer B) continuous permafrost C) periglacial D) talik

5. The Northern Hemisphere's thickest permafrost is found in __________.

A) the Andes B) Alaska C) northeastern Russia D) northern Canada

6. Near the equator, permafrost is found at elevations higher than __________ meters.

A) 3,000 B) 5,000 C) 6,000 D) 7,000

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7. The Arctic is warming about how many times faster than the rest of the world?

A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5

8. How does the active layer respond to atmospheric warming?

A) It deepens.

B) It becomes more shallow.

C) It does not respond.

D) Scientists are still uncertain.

9. Scientists think that northern permafrost could release up to about __________ billion metric tons of carbon to the atmosphere by 2100.

A) 400 B) 500 C) 700 D) 800

10. When trees become tilted as the active layer deepens during summer a __________ results.

A) pingo B) patterned ground C) talik D) drunken forest

11. A __________ is a hill with a core of ice.

A) pingo B) patterned ground C) talik D) drunken forest

12. __________ is ground that has been influenced by freeze-thaw cycles that slowly wedge soil apart.

A) A pingo B) Patterned ground C) Talik D) A drunken forest

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13. __________ is a large mass of ice that is formed from the accumulation of snow.

A) A glacier B) A glacial erratic C) Glacial drift D) Firn

14. Glacial ice has an air content of less than __________ percent.

A) 20 B) 25 C) 50 D) 90

15. Granular snow has an air content of about __________ percent.

A) 20 B) 25 C) 50 D) 90

16. Firn has an air content of about __________ percent.

A) 20 B) 25 C) 50 D) 90

17. Fresh snow has an air content of about __________ percent.

A) 20 B) 25 C) 50 D) 90

18. About __________ meters below a glacier's surface, ice can slowly deform and flow.

A) 30 B) 40 C) 50 D) 60

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19. In the __________ zone, ice deforms and flows in a glacier.

A) brittle B) transition C) plastic deformation D) glacial ice

20. In the __________ zone, ice cracks and breaks and forms crevasses.

A) brittle B) transition C) plastic deformation D) glacial ice

21. The __________ zone is found about 60 meters below the glacier's surface.

A) brittle B) transition C) plastic deformation D) glacial ice

22. In a glacial surge, a glacier may flow as fast as __________ meters per day.

A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 30

23. The fastest flow in a glacier occurs where?

A) near the edges of the glacier B) at the base of the glacier C) at the surface and center of the glacier D) Glaciers flow a uniform speed throughout.

24. The terminus of a glacier is the __________.

A) zone of accumulation B) zone of ablation C) toe D) equilibrium line

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25. The __________ is the area of a glacier where ice gain from snowfall exceeds ice loss.

A) zone of accumulation B) zone of ablation C) toe D) equilibrium line

26. The __________ is the area of a glacier where ice loss exceeds ice accumulation.

A) zone of accumulation B) zone of ablation C) toe D) equilibrium line

27. The elevation at which snowfall and snowmelt are equal is called the __________.

A) zone of accumulation B) zone of ablation C) toe D) equilibrium line

28. When the mass balance of a glacier is neutral, the toe's position will __________.

A) advance B) retreat C) not change D) melt

29. When the mass balance of a glacier is positive, the toe's position will __________.

A) advance B) retreat C) not change D) melt

30. When the mass balance of a glacier is negative, the toe's position will __________.

A) advance B) retreat C) not change D) melt

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31. Atmospheric warming will do what to the elevation of the equilibrium line?

A) raise it B) lower it C) not affect it D) Scientists are not sure how the equilibrium line will respond to warming.

32. Which is not used by scientists to monitor changes in glacier mass balance?

A) photographs B) field measurements C) satellite remote sensing D) seismometers

33. What type of glacier forms a bowl-shaped depression?

A) cirque glacier B) valley glacier C) piedmont glacier D) ice cap

34. What type of glacier forms lobes of ice that spill out onto flat plains?

A) cirque glacier B) valley glacier C) piedmont glacier D) ice cap

35. What type of glacier occupies mountain valleys?

A) cirque glacier B) valley glacier C) piedmont glacier D) ice cap

36. What type of glacier forms a large dome over high mountain regions?

A) cirque glacier B) valley glacier C) piedmont glacier D) ice cap

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37. Ice sheets are larger than __________ square kilometers.

A) 20,000 B) 30,000 C) 40,000 D) 50,000

38. Ice sheets today contain about __________ percent of all ice on Earth.

A) 50 B) 70 C) 90 D) 99

39. An __________ is a large block of ice that breaks from the toe of a glacier or an ice shelf and floats in the ocean or a lake.

A) iceberg B) ice shelf C) outlet glacier D) ice stream

40. An __________ is the portion of an ice sheet or an outlet glacier that extends over the ocean.

A) iceberg B) ice shelf C) outlet glacier D) ice stream

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Use the following to answer questions 41-42:

41. In the figure, which panel shows the toe of the glacier advancing?

A) A B) B C) C D) The glacier is not advancing in any panel.

42. In the figure, which panel shows the toe of the glacier retreating?

A) A B) B C) C D) The glacier is not retreating in any panel.

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Use the following to answer questions 43-46:

43. In the image, box A shows what type of glacier?

A) piedmont glacier B) valley glacier C) ice cap D) cirque glacier

44. In the image, box B shows what type of glacier?

A) piedmont glacier B) valley glacier C) ice cap D) cirque glacier

45. In the image, box C shows what type of glacier?

A) piedmont glacier B) valley glacier C) ice cap D) cirque glacier

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46. In the image, box D shows what type of glacier?

A) piedmont glacier B) valley glacier C) ice cap D) cirque glacier

47. The process in which a glacier pulls up and breaks off pieces of bedrock as it moves downslope is called __________.

A) plucking B) abrasion C) glacial polish D) calving

48. The process in which movement of one material wears away another material is called __________.

A) plucking B) abrasion C) glacial polish D) calving

49. Streams that flow beneath a glacier and exit from its toe are called what?

A) outwash streams B) subglacial streams C) supraglacial streams D) braided stream

50. Proglacial lakes are found where?

A) on a glacier B) on the sides of a glacier C) at the toe of a glacier D) at the headwalls of a glacier

51. A(n) __________ is a steep-sided sharp ridge.

A) cirque B) tarn C) arête D) col

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52. A(n) __________ is a bowl-shaped depression with steep headwalls.

A) cirque B) tarn C) arête D) col

53. A low area or pass over a ridge formed by two cirque glaciers is called a(n) __________.

A) cirque B) tarn C) arête D) col

54. A lake that forms within or just below a cirque is called a(n) __________.

A) cirque B) tarn C) arête D) col

55. A drowned glacial valley is called a __________.

A) fjord B) recessional moraine C) paternoster lake D) roche moutonnée

56. One of a series of small lakes that form in a glacial valley is called a __________.

A) paternoster lake B) roche moutonnée C) fjord D) recessional moraines

57. What is the name for an elongated and asymmetrical ridge of glacially carved bedrock?

A) terminal moraine B) roche moutonnée C) fjord D) recessional moraine

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58. Global sea levels were lower over 10,000 years ago due to what?

A) lifting of the land masses B) building of continental ice sheets C) ocean currents D) more precipitation on land

59. During the last glacial maximum, sea levels were __________ meters lower than today.

A) 40 B) 50 C) 85 D) 100

60. What is a heap of unsorted sediments deposited by a glacier called?

A) moraine B) till C) horn D) arête

61. __________ is any debris deposited by a glacier without the influence of running water.

A) Moraine B) Horn C) Arête D) Till

62. A __________ moraine forms where the toe of the glacier pauses as it is gradually retreating upslope.

A) terminal B) lateral C) recessional D) medial

63. A __________ moraine marks the farthest advance of the glacier's toe before it begins retreating upslope.

A) terminal B) recessional C) medial D) lateral

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64. Which type of moraine forms along the edge of a glacier?

A) recessional moraine B) lateral moraine C) terminal moraine D) medial moraine

65. Where two glaciers merge, their lateral moraines also merge, forming a __________ moraine.

A) terminal B) lateral C) recessional D) medial

66. Which glacial landform is an elongated ridge composed of sorted sand and gravel that was deposited by a subglacial stream?

A) kame B) drumlin C) kettle hole D) esker

67. Which glacial landform is an elongated hill composed of till?

A) kettle hole B) esker C) drumlin D) kame

68. Which is a depression formed by a buried stagnant ice block?

A) kettle hole B) drumlin C) kame D) esker

69. __________ are mounded accumulations of glaciofluvial sediments deposited by an ice sheet.

A) Drumlins B) Eskers C) Kames D) Kettle holes

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70. Referring to Table 17.1, alpine glaciers have what percentage of all ice on Earth?

A) 91 percent B) 76 percent C) 8 percent D) < 1 percent

71. Referring to Table 17.1, Antarctica has what percentage of all ice on Earth?

A) 91 percent B) 76 percent C) 8 percent D) < 1 percent

72. Referring to Table 17.1, Greenland has what percentage of all ice on Earth?

A) 91 percent B) 76 percent C) 8 percent D) < 1 percent

73. Referring to Table 17.1, if Antarctica were to melt, sea level would rise by how many meters?

A) 73 B) 62 C) 6.5 D) 0.45

74. Referring to Table 17.1, if alpine glaciers were to melt, sea level would rise by how many meters?

A) 73 B) 62 C) 6.5 D) 0.45

75. Referring to Table 17.1, if Greenland were to melt, sea level would rise by how many meters?

A) 73 B) 62 C) 6.5 D) 0.45

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76. In late July 2012, what happened on Greenland that had never been witnessed before?

A) Almost all surface layer of the ice sheet melted.

B) The entire surface layer of the ice sheet remained frozen.

C) Most outlet glaciers slowed down.

D) Most outlet glaciers sped up significantly.

77. What factor do scientists think is causing some of Greenland's outlet glaciers to flow into the ocean faster?

A) The temperature of the ice is increasing, allowing it to deform and flow faster.

B) Increased snowfall is speeding up the rate of glacier flow.

C) The glaciers are being lubricated by liquid water from moulins.

D) Decreased snowfall is speeding up the rate of glacier flow.

78. Which is not related to the current loss of ice on Greenland?

A) a reduced ice sheet albedo B) increased precipitation C) a melting surface of the ice sheet D) faster flowing outlet glaciers

79. What factor do scientists think is causing some of Antarctica's outlet glaciers to flow into the ocean faster?

A) The temperature of the ice is increasing, allowing it to deform and flow faster.

B) As ice shelves break apart, their buttressing effects are removed.

C) The glaciers are being lubricated by liquid water from moulins.

D) Decreased snowfall is speeding up the rate of glacier flow.

80. What happened to the Larsen B ice shelf in 2002 that surprised scientists?

A) It grew larger.

B) It grew smaller.

C) It disintegrated.

D) It remained unchanged.

81. In the last century, sea level rose about __________ millimeters per year.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

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82. Sea level is currently rising about __________ millimeters per year.

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

83. Which is not a significant factor causing sea-level rise?

A) melting ice shelves B) melting of alpine glaciers C) melting of the ice sheets and increased outlet glacier flow from the ice sheets D) thermal expansion of seawater as a result of warming water

84. By the end of this century, the annual rate of sea-level rise could reach some __________ millimeters per year.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8

85. By the end of this century, sea level rise could rise __________ meter(s).

A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4

86. Worldwide, over __________ million people live within 1 meter of the high-tide line.

A) 10 B) 50 C) 75 D) 100

87. In the United States, about __________ million people live within 1 meter of the high-tide line.

A) 1 B) 2.3 C) 3.7 D) 4.3

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88. Most mammoth became extinct by 9,600 years ago.

A) True B) False

89. Climate change alone was responsible for the extinction of the mammoth.

A) True B) False

90. Mammoth tusks are valued for their ivory.

A) True B) False

91. Periglacial environments are found at high latitudes and high elevations where temperatures are almost always below freezing.

A) True B) False

92. Permafrost regions have gelisol soils.

A) True B) False

93. Permafrost is ground that is continuously frozen for one year or more.

A) True B) False

94. The Southern Hemisphere has more permafrost than the Northern Hemisphere because of Antarctica.

A) True B) False

95. Many northern lakes are now emitting nitrous oxide gas as their permafrost soils thaw.

A) True B) False

96. Large boulders transported long distances by glaciers are called glacial erratics.

A) True B) False

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97. Glacial drift is any material deposited by a glacier or a stream flowing out of a glacier.

A) True B) False

98. Glaciers form in periglacial environments.

A) True B) False

99. A glacier with a negative mass balance gains ice faster than it loses it.

A) True B) False

100. Most alpine glaciers are retreating upslope due to warming of the atmosphere.

A) True B) False

101. Only Antarctica has an ice sheet today.

A) True B) False

102. A nunatak is an outcrop of rock surrounded by an ice sheet.

A) True B) False

103. Ice streams form where outlet glaciers become constricted in valleys.

A) True B) False

104. Icebergs form only in the oceans.

A) True B) False

105. Glaciers that reach sea level are called tidewater glaciers.

A) True B) False

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106. Through abrasion, glaciers often polish rock surfaces over which they flow.

A) True B) False

107. Glacial striations are bands in sedimentary rock revealed by glacial erosion.

A) True B) False

108. Lakes downstream of glaciers are sometimes colored bright blue as a result of suspended sediments called glacial flour.

A) True B) False

109. A glacial horn is found only in mountainous regions that have been glaciated.

A) True B) False

110. Valley glaciers carve V-shaped valleys.

A) True B) False

111. A hanging valley forms where a tributary glacier feeds into a larger glacial valley with a deeper valley floor.

A) True B) False

112. Moraines are always composed of till.

A) True B) False

113. Kame-and-kettle topography is formed by a continental ice sheet.

A) True B) False

114. The Laurentide ice sheet extended all the way south to Virginia.

A) True B) False

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115. The “driftless area” in Wisconsin is unusual because it has no glaciofluvial deposits.

A) True B) False

116. Loess is wind-deposited silt and clay that is often derived from glacial outwash plains.

A) True B) False

117. The Greenland ice sheet has a negative mass balance.

A) True B) False

118. The number of summer snowmelt days on Greenland is increasing.

A) True B) False

119. A moulin is a vertical shaft in an ice sheet through which water flows.

A) True B) False

120. When ice shelves break apart they cause sea-level rise.

A) True B) False

121. When outlet glaciers flow into the ice from ice sheets they cause sea-level rise.

A) True B) False

122. The Antarctic ice sheet mass balance is currently positive.

A) True B) False

123. What is sediment sorting? Why are stream deposits sorted but glacial deposits are unsorted?

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124. What is loess and how does it form?

125. If you were hiking outdoors and saw a large, isolated boulder, what information would help you to determine if it was a glacial erratic?

126. What is glacier mass balance? Compare and contrast the zone of accumulation, the zone of ablation, and the equilibrium line.

127. Why are the toes of some glaciers advancing rather than retreating upslope, even though the atmospheric temperature over those glaciers is increasing?

128. How would a 1 meter rise in sea level affect you where you live? What information should you find to answer this question? How would you find that information?

129. What does it mean to say that ice sheets have “nonlinear” behavior in response to warming? Explain how nonlinear behavior works and why its effects are important.

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Answer Key 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. A 9. B 10. D 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. A 15. C 16. B 17. D 18. D 19. C 20. A 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. A 26. B 27. D 28. C 29. A 30. B 31. A 32. D 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. D 38. D 39. A 40. B 41. B 42. C 43. D 44. B

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45. A 46. C 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. C 51. C 52. A 53. D 54. B 55. A 56. A 57. B 58. B 59. C 60. A 61. D 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. D 66. D 67. C 68. A 69. C 70. D 71. A 72. C 73. A 74. D 75. C 76. A 77. C 78. B 79. B 80. C 81. B 82. C 83. A 84. C 85. A 86. D 87. C 88. A 89. B 90. A

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91. A 92. A 93. B 94. B 95. B 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. B 100. A 101. B 102. A 103. A 104. B 105. A 106. A 107. B 108. A 109. A 110. B 111. A 112. A 113. A 114. B 115. A 116. A 117. A 118. A 119. A 120. B 121. A 122. B 123. Flowing water drops out the largest and heaviest sediments first and the lightest sediments last. As a result, fluvial deposits are sorted by size. Glaciers, on the other hand, bulldoze material into an unsorted heap of a moraine.

124. Loess deposits are wind-deposited silt and clay sediments that originate in many areas from glacial outwash plains as glacial flour. In many cases, loess deposits were formed by katabatic winds that blew down the slopes of the ice sheets and suspended dust on the glacial outwash plain. This dust was deposited in great heaps of loess.

125. It would be necessary to look for other evidence of the former presence of ice. Glacial striations and glacial polish on the rock would indicate ice was there. Also, if the boulder rock type did not match the rocks on which it was sitting, that would also indicate that it could be a glacial erratic.

126. Glacier mass balance refers to changes in glacier ice volume over a period of time. As a whole, a glacier with a neutral mass balance has inputs (snowfall) and outputs (melting, sublimation, and iceberg calving) that are equal. When snowfall is less than ice loss, a

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negative mass balance exists for the glacier. When snowfall exceeds ice loss, a glacier has a positive mass balance. In the zone of accumulation, more snow falls than melts. In the zone of ablation, less snow falls than melts. The equilibrium line is the transition between the zone of ablation and the zone of accumulation.

127. Warm air has a higher water-vapor capacity. Atmospheric warming can therefore increase snowfall, as long as the temperature remains below freezing. This is happening in parts of western Norway.

128. This would only apply to people living in coastal cities at sea level. It could be argued that the forced migration of coastal populations would affect inland populations that are well above 1 meter. One could use topographic maps or Google Earth to determine one's elevation above sea level.

129. Nonlinear means the rate of response changes through time. Internal feedbacks of climate or ice sheet dynamics can change the rate of response. In this chapter the example given was that as an ice sheet's elevation is lowered, it enters warmer air and melts at a faster rate. These nonlinear feedbacks are difficult to model and give rise to uncertainty as to how much sea level will rise in the coming decades.

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Chapter 18- Water, Wind, and Time

1. Which is not one of the three main factors that cause aridity worldwide?

A) the subtropical high-pressure system B) mountain rain shadows C) cold and dry continental air D) cold ocean currents

2. Which causes the most widespread aridity geographically?

A) the subtropical high-pressure system B) mountain rain shadows C) cold and dry continental air D) cold ocean currents

3. Between 20 degrees and 30 degrees latitude, what factor often plays an important role in causing aridity in coastal areas?

A) the subtropical high-pressure system B) mountain rain shadows C) cold and dry continental air D) cold ocean currents

4. The Köppen climate system (see Section 8.1) classifies arid and semiarid regions as __________ climates.

A) BWh and BWk B) BSh and BSk C) Csa and Csb D) EF

5. Erosion of sandstone creates what?

A) rock varnish B) quartz sand C) ventifacts D) a pedestal rock

6. Approximately when did the Sahara experience wetter conditions?

A) 20,000 years ago B) 15,000 years ago C) 7,000 years ago D) 1,000 year ago

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7. When the Sahara was wetter, much of the desert today was what type of vegetation?

A) tropical rainforest B) tropical savanna C) montane forest D) tundra

8. The Sahara became wetter during the Green Sahara due to what?

A) changing ocean currents B) climate cooling C) changes in Earth-Sun orbital characteristics D) volcanic eruptions

9. What scientific evidence is there that indicates the Sahara was wetter?

A) tree ring data B) ancient beaches and fossils C) ice core data D) migration patterns of birds

10. Which is not a form of aeolian transport of particles?

A) traction B) saltation C) suspension D) dissolution

11. In a dust storm, which particles make up the suspended load?

A) sand B) silt C) clay D) silt and clay

12. In a dust storm, which particles saltate?

A) sand B) silt C) clay D) silt and clay

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13. __________ is a wind-sculpted desert rock formed through abrasion by windblown sand.

A) A ventifact B) Rock varnish C) Quartz sand D) A sand dune

14. The process of removing sediments and lowering the land surface by wind erosion is called what?

A) a blowout depression B) desertification C) deflation D) desert pavement

15. A __________ is a remnant of a layer of erosion-resistant cap rock supported by a slender column of less resistant rock.

A) pedestal rock B) yardang C) blowout depression D) rock varnish

16. A __________ is an elongated ridge formed by sand abrasion in the desert.

A) pedestal rock B) blowout depression C) dune D) yardang

17. Which is not a consequence of windblown dust from the Sahara?

A) It can cause cooling by reflecting sunlight.

B) It can cause atmospheric warming by absorbing sunlight.

C) It can slow the rate of carbon dioxide increase in the atmosphere by stimulating growth of terrestrial plants.

D) It can slow the rate of carbon dioxide increase in the atmosphere by stimulating the growth of marine phytoplankton.

18. Which is not true about the windward side of a sand dune?

A) Sand grains move up the windward side through traction.

B) Sand grains move up the windward side through saltation.

C) Sand ripples often form on the windward side.

D) The windward side settles at the angle of repose.

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19. Relating to the leeward side of a sand dune, which statement is correct?

A) It moves upwind.

B) Over time, increasingly larger sand grains settle on it.

C) It settles at the angle of repose.

D) It is created by rainfall.

20. Which is not true about sand dunes?

A) They migrate in the direction of the prevailing wind.

B) Sand accumulates on the windward side in layers called cross bedding.

C) The slip face settles at the angle of repose.

D) They generally move as a unit.

21. Which is not one of the three factors that determine what kind of sand dune will form?

A) the composition of the sand B) the amount of sand available C) the strength of the wind D) whether the wind changes direction over the year

22. Where sand does not completely cover the desert floor and the prevailing wind consistently comes from one direction, what crescent-shaped dunes can form?

A) barchan dunes B) star dunes C) transverse dunes D) parabolic dunes

23. Where sand completely covers the desert floor, what linear dunes oriented perpendicularly to the prevailing wind direction may form?

A) transverse dunes B) star dunes C) barchan dunes D) longitudinal dunes

24. If the prevailing wind shifts direction over the year, what dunes can form?

A) barchan dunes B) transverse dunes C) parabolic dunes D) longitudinal dunes

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25. What crescent-shaped dunes sometimes form where vegetation anchors the sand?

A) barchan dunes B) transverse dunes C) parabolic dunes D) longitudinal dunes

26. What are the long, straight dunes that may form where sand is abundant and the prevailing wind varies only slightly during the year?

A) star dunes B) longitudinal dunes C) transverse dunes D) parabolic dunes

27. Why are deserts particularly vulnerable to erosion by water?

A) because they have little or no protective cover of vegetation B) because the rainfall in the desert is steady and constant C) because the wind drives the raindrops against the rocks and soil D) deserts are not particularly vulnerable to erosion by water

28. What are dry stream channels called in the Middle East and Africa?

A) arroyos B) dry washes C) wadis D) dongas

29. What are dry stream channels called in India?

A) wadis B) nullahs C) dongas D) arroyos

30. In deserts, where streams exit a steep canyon a(n) __________ often forms.

A) alluvial fan B) wadi C) playa D) yardang

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31. Where alluvial fans merge, a(n) __________ is formed.

A) arroyo B) playa lake C) bajada D) blowout depression

32. Where desert streams empty into a closed basin, they form a temporary shallow lake called a __________.

A) coulee B) playa lake C) bajada D) playa

33. Dry and flat lake beds are called __________.

A) nullahs B) playa lakes C) bajadas D) playas

34. Why are playa lakes salty?

A) because saltwater streams flow into them B) because minerals are left behind in the lake during evaporation C) because the salt deposits on the lake bed dissolve into the water D) because they are found in deserts

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Use the following to answer questions 35-41:

35. Referring to the figure, which desert is the largest?

A) Syrian Desert B) Arabian Desert C) Kalahari Desert D) the Sahara

36. Referring to the figure, which desert is the result of being located far inland?

A) Gobi Desert B) Arabian Desert C) Kalahari Desert D) the Sahara

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37. Referring to the figure, which desert is a rain shadow desert?

A) Gobi Desert B) Great Victoria Desert C) Patagonian Desert D) the Sahara

38. Referring to the figure, which desert is in Australia?

A) Gobi Desert B) Great Victoria Desert C) Patagonian Desert D) the Sahara

39. Referring to the figure, which desert is in Asia?

A) Gobi Desert B) Great Victoria Desert C) Patagonian Desert D) the Sahara

40. Referring to the figure, which desert is in South America?

A) Gobi Desert B) Great Victoria Desert C) Patagonian Desert D) the Sahara

41. Referring to the figure, which desert is in North America?

A) Great Basin Desert B) Great Victoria Desert C) Patagonian Desert D) the Sahara

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Use the following to answer questions 42-45:

42. Referring to the figure, box A shows what feature of this sand dune?

A) bedding planes B) the windward side C) the direction of dune migration D) the slip face

43. Referring to the figure, box B shows what feature of this sand dune?

A) bedding planes B) the windward side C) the direction of dune migration D) the slip face

44. Referring to the figure, box C shows what feature of this sand dune?

A) bedding planes B) the windward side C) the direction of dune migration D) the slip face

45. Referring to the figure, at which box does sand settle at the angle of repose?

A) box A B) box B C) box C D) None of the boxes is associated with the angle of repose.

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Use the following to answer questions 46-47:

46. Referring to the figure, what does the graph show?

A) wind speed B) solar intensity C) sand dune migration D) rainfall history 47. “Summer insolation” was highest how many years ago, according to this graph?

A) 5,000 B) 10,000 C) 15,000 D) 20,000

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Use the following to answer questions 48-51:

48. In the figure, parabolic dunes are shown with which box?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

49. In the figure, longitudinal dunes are shown with which box?

A) A B) C C) D D) E

50. In the figure, barchan dunes are shown with which box?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

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51. In the figure, transverse dunes are shown with which box?

A) A B) B C) C D) E

52. A flat, stony plain is called a(n) __________.

A) reg B) mesa-and-butte terrain C) inselberg D) erg

53. __________ consists of tightly interlocking stones that form a hardened surface on the desert floor.

A) A bajada B) Desert pavement C) An inselberg D) A lag deposit

54. In the Sahara, regs are also called __________.

A) gibber plains B) ergs C) hamadas D) mesas

55. In Australia, regs are also called __________.

A) gibber plains B) ergs C) hamadas D) mesas

56. Landscapes that are dominated by actively moving sand dunes are called __________.

A) gibber plains B) ergs C) hamadas D) mesas

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57. Sand dunes occupy approximately what percentage of desert areas?

A) 10 percent B) 20 percent C) 30 percent D) 40 percent

58. Ergs are by definition at least _______ square kilometers in extent.

A) 50 B) 100 C) 125 D) 200

59. Ergs are most commonly found in what global pressure system?

A) the ITCZ B) the subtropical high C) the subpolar low D) the polar high

60. The largest erg is what?

A) the Rub' al Khali erg on the Arabian Peninsula B) the Grand Erg Oriental in Algeria C) the Erg Iquidi in Algeria D) the Great Sand Sea in Libya and Egypt

61. How long has the Rub' al Khali erg been active?

A) 10,000 years B) 100,000 years C) 500,000 years D) over 1 million years

62. A __________ is a slender spire of rock with a flat top.

A) mesa B) butte C) chimney D) mesa-and-butte terrain

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63. A __________ is a flat-topped area that is taller than it is wide.

A) mesa B) butte C) chimney D) mesa-and-butte terrain

64. A __________ is a flat-topped area that is wider than it is tall.

A) mesa B) butte C) chimney D) mesa-and-butte terrain

65. Which provides the correct sequence of mesa-and-butte terrain formation?

A) tectonic uplift—sedimentation and lithification—headward erosion B) headward erosion—sedimentation and lithification—tectonic uplift C) sedimentation and lithification—tectonic uplift—headward erosion D) sedimentation and lithification—headward erosion—tectonic uplift

66. When the dip of sedimentary rocks is less than 30 degrees, a(n) __________ forms.

A) mesa B) cuesta C) hogback D) inselberg

67. When sedimentary rocks are horizontally oriented, a(n) __________ forms.

A) mesa B) cuesta C) hogback D) inselberg

68. When the dip of sedimentary rocks is greater than 30 degrees, a(n) __________ forms.

A) mesa B) cuesta C) hogback D) inselberg

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69. A(n) __________ is a large, weathered outcrop of bedrock surrounded by a flat alluvium-filled plain.

A) mesa B) cuesta C) hogback D) inselberg

70. The Basin-and-Range Province in Nevada is forming because the crust is doing what?

A) lifting up B) compressing C) stretching D) thickening

71. Badlands mostly occur where what type of rock is present?

A) sandstone B) granite C) shale D) limestone

72. All badlands have what in common?

A) They have deep rills and gullies and largely unvegetated slopes.

B) They occur in deserts.

C) They occur at high elevations.

D) They occur at about 30 degrees north and south latitude.

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Use the following to answer questions 73-74:

73. In the figure, a lag deposit develops through what process?

A) weathering B) exfoliation C) deflation D) mass wasting

74. In the figure, a lag deposit is formed as __________.

A) large stones are blown in from other areas B) large stones are blown away to other areas C) fine sediments are blown in from other areas D) fine sediments are blown away to other areas

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Use the following to answer questions 75-76:

75. In the figure, a desert pavement develops through what process?

A) weathering B) exfoliation C) deflation D) mass wasting

76. In the figure, desert pavement is formed as __________.

A) large stones are blown in from other areas B) large stones are blown away to other areas C) fine sediments are blown in from other areas D) fine sediments are blown away to other areas

77. The Aral Sea streams were diverted mainly to grow what crop?

A) tomatoes B) corn C) cotton D) wheat

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78. Due to water diversions, the Aral Sea is now about __________ percent of its original size.

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40

79. Why does the Aral Sea area now experience so many dust storms?

A) because the lake bed is exposed B) because the wind speed has increased C) because people have removed vegetation in the region that once anchored the soils D) because farming activity has increased

80. Why are dust storms toxic in the Aral Sea area today?

A) because the dust is naturally toxic B) because the area is downwind of other polluted areas C) because of agricultural chemicals D) because of heavy industrial polluters in the area

81. The Aral Sea region has the highest rates of what type of cancer in the world?

A) breast B) lung C) pancreatic D) esophageal

82. The loss of the Aral Sea has done what to the regional climate?

A) It has not changed.

B) It has become hotter.

C) It has become colder and windier.

D) It has become more extreme in temperature and wind.

83. What city diverts water from Owens Lake?

A) Los Angeles B) Phoenix C) San Diego D) Las Vegas

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84. When did water diversions from Owens Lake begin?

A) 1900 B) 1913 C) 1926 D) 1953

85. By what year was Owens Lake gone as a result of diversions?

A) 1900 B) 1913 C) 1926 D) 1953

86. What distinction does Owens Valley have today?

A) It is the driest place in the United States.

B) It is the dustiest place in the United States.

C) It is the largest playa in the United States.

D) It is the coldest place in the United States.

87. Why are dust storms toxic in the Owens Valley area today?

A) because the dust is naturally toxic B) because the area is downwind of other polluted areas C) because of agricultural chemicals D) because of heavy industrial polluters in the area

88. What city diverts water from Mono Lake?

A) Los Angeles B) Phoenix C) San Diego D) Las Vegas

89. Between 1940 and 1980, Mono Lake's water level dropped __________ meters.

A) 5 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20

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90. Since 1994, what has been happening to Mono Lake?

A) Its lake level has continued to fall.

B) Its lake level has remained mostly stable.

C) Its lake level has risen dramatically.

D) It has become saltier.

91. Antofagasta is located in the driest desert in the world but still experiences occasional flooding.

A) True B) False

92. In part, Antofagasta is arid because of the cold Peru ocean current.

A) True B) False

93. Antofagasta is located in the rain shadow of the Andes.

A) True B) False

94. Most deserts receive less than 25 centimeters of precipitation annually.

A) True B) False

95. Chemical weathering is more important than physical weathering in deserts.

A) True B) False

96. Rock varnish is formed by the activities of bacteria.

A) True B) False

97. A petroglyph is a prehistoric rock carving.

A) True B) False

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98. The Green Sahara refers to a period when the Sahara desert was covered with tropical rainforests.

A) True B) False

99. There were more permanent human settlements in the central Sahara about 5,000 years ago than there are today.

A) True B) False 100. Aeolian means “of or relating to wind.”

A) True B) False 101. Some sand dunes make an audible sound or “sing” as their particles move in the wind.

A) True B) False

102. Desertification is both natural and anthropogenic conversion of arid lands to desert.

A) True B) False

103. Aeolian erosion and deposition sorts particles by their sizes.

A) True B) False

104. A lag deposit forms as small particles such as sand and clay are carried away by the wind, leaving an accumulation of rocks.

A) True B) False

105. Desert pavement is formed by the erosion of windblown silt and clay.

A) True B) False

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106. Sand for ergs often comes from former glacial outwash plains, dry lake beds, and river deltas.

A) True B) False

107. Mesa-and-butte terrain occurs only in deserts.

A) True B) False

108. Mesa-and-butte terrain forms only in sedimentary rocks.

A) True B) False

109. The presence of an inselberg indicates that net erosion is occurring.

A) True B) False

110. Inselbergs are found in all climates, not just deserts.

A) True B) False

111. A bornhardt is an inselberg that is derived from crystalline rocks like granite or gneiss.

A) True B) False 112. Badlands are “bad” because they have naturally toxic soils.

A) True B) False

113. By volume, desert lakes are among the largest lakes in the world.

A) True B) False

114. The Amu Darya and the Syr Darya rivers once flowed into the Aral Sea. A) True B) False

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115. Dust in Owens Valley today is about 30 percent salt.

A) True B) False

116. Owens Lake disappeared because of natural drought cycles.

A) True B) False

117. Mono Lake's water level has dropped due to water diversions.

A) True B) False

118. How are people causing many large desert lakes worldwide to shrink?

119. What and where was the Aral Sea? What happened to it?

120. Why are there toxic dust storms in Owens Valley today?

121. Etching the desert floor to make the Nazca geoglyphs was no doubt a lot of work for the Nazca people. What purpose do you think these features served for the people who made them?

122. Regs composed of lag deposits and regs composed of desert pavement look alike on the surface. If you were in a desert and standing on a reg, what evidence would you look for to determine which process formed that particular reg?

123. What would happen to the great Saharan and Arabian ergs if the monsoon were to return to the interior desert, bringing summer rainfall?

124. What do you think would happen to the Aral Sea ecosystems and local economies if water diversions were stopped and the sea was allowed to refill?

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Answer Key 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. D 11. D 12. A 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. D 17. B 18. D 19. C 20. B 21. A 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. A 31. C 32. B 33. D 34. B 35. D 36. A 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. C 41. A 42. B 43. D 44. C

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45. B 46. B 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. A 51. C 52. A 53. B 54. C 55. A 56. B 57. A 58. C 59. B 60. A 61. D 62. C 63. B 64. A 65. C 66. B 67. A 68. C 69. D 70. C 71. C 72. A 73. C 74. D 75. A 76. C 77. C 78. A 79. A 80. C 81. D 82. D 83. A 84. B 85. C 86. B 87. C 88. A 89. C 90. B

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91. A 92. A 93. A 94. A 95. B 96. A 97. A 98. B 99. A 100. A 101. A 102. A 103. A 104. A 105. B 106. A 107. B 108. B 109. A 110. A 111. A 112. B 113. B 114. A 115. A 116. B 117. A 118. Water diversions, mostly for agriculture, are causing desert lakes to shrink in many areas.

119. The Aral Sea was a large inland sea in western Asia that supported economically viable fisheries. Water diversions, mostly for growing cotton, destroyed the Aral Sea. 120. Like the Aral Sea, pesticides and herbicides from agriculture accumulated in Owens Lake when it was still a lake. After it dried, the wind suspended these toxins in the air.

121. Answers will vary. These etchings may have fulfilled the need for spiritual communication. They may have been a form of competition among neighboring groups.

Creative thought and imagination are encouraged.

122. The only way to tell the difference between the two would be to dig below the surface of stones. If stones were embedded throughout the sediments deeper down, then it would be reasonable to conclude it was a lag deposit. If there were no stones, then it is desert pavement.

123. Vegetation would establish. The erg dunes would become anchored. Permanent water bodies would become established. This would bring many animals and permanent human settlements again, just as occurred during the Green Sahara period.

124. The Aral Sea would fill with water after about one decade. The fisheries would probably rebound. The toxic dust storms would stop. The area would become economically and ecologically vital once again.

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Page 27

Chapter 19- The Work of Waves

1. Lunar tides are how much higher than solar tides?

A) twice as high B) three times as high C) four times as high D) They are about the same height.

2. The tide-generating force is created by gravity from the Moon and Sun and by what other factor?

A) centrifugal force B) centripetal force C) Coriolis force D) frictional force

3. Any location on Earth will pass through a tidal bulge approximately every __________ hours.

A) 6 B) 12 C) 14 D) 24

4. When Earth, the Moon, and the Sun are aligned along the same axis, a __________ results.

A) spring tide B) neap tide C) low tide D) high tide

5. When the Moon is positioned at a right angle between Earth and the Sun, a __________ results.

A) spring tide B) neap tide C) low tide D) high tide

6. In which lunar cycle does a spring tide occur?

A) a full Moon B) a first-quarter Moon C) a new Moon D) a full Moon and a new Moon

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7. A flood tide lasts about __________ hours.

A) 4 B) 6 C) 12 D) 24

8. An ebb tide lasts about __________ hours.

A) 4 B) 6 C) 12 D) 24

9. The coastal area between the high and low tide line is called the __________.

A) backwash B) swash C) intertidal zone D) surf zone

10. The average tidal range on Earth is __________ centimeters.

A) 100 B) 200 C) 300 D) 400

11. The world's highest tidal range is __________ meters.

A) 10.1 B) 16.8 C) 20.2 D) 21.6

12. Where does the highest tidal range in the world occur?

A) in the Gulf of Alaska B) in the Persian Gulf C) in the Bay of Fundy in eastern Canada D) on the southern coast of Australia

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13. What causes the highest tides in the world?

A) the shape of the coastline B) gravitational anomalies of the crust C) strong and persistent wind D) deep coastal areas

14. Which is the most important wave-generating force?

A) earthquakes B) undersea landslides C) the wind D) marine mammals

15. Waves that trace a circular motion are called __________.

A) waves of oscillation B) waves of translation C) wave crests D) wave troughs

16. Waves that move water forward in a horizontal motion are called __________.

A) waves of oscillation B) waves of translation C) wave crests D) wave troughs

17. The wave base occurs at a depth of about __________ of the wavelength.

A) one-quarter B) one-half C) two-thirds D) three-quarters

18. What causes a wave of oscillation to become a wave of translation?

A) increased wind speed B) the wave base encounters the seafloor C) the backwash undercuts the approaching wave D) the wavelength decreases

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19. In the open ocean, which does not influence wave height?

A) speed of the wind B) the depth of the water C) duration of the wind D) the fetch of the open water

20. Swells in the open ocean can have wave heights of __________ meters or more.

A) 2 B) 4 C) 7 D) 10

21. Swells can have wavelengths of __________ meters or more.

A) 40 B) 20 C) 350 D) 500

22. When a wave collapses on a beach, what does it form?

A) a breaker B) a swell C) swash D) backwash

23. When a crashing wave flows up the beach it creates what?

A) a breaker B) swash C) a swell D) backwash

24. After a wave flows up a beach, it returns down the beach as what?

A) a breaker B) swash C) a swell D) backwash

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25. In the process of __________, waves bend as they approach shoreline so that their orientation is roughly parallel to the shore.

A) wave refraction B) longshore drift C) longshore current D) embayment

26. A rocky prominence is called a(n) __________.

A) emergent coast B) wave refraction C) headland D) embayment

27. A recessed sandy beach is called a(n) __________.

A) wave refraction B) headland C) embayment D) longshore current

28. A __________ flows parallel to the beach in the direction of wave movement.

A) longshore drift B) wave refraction C) breaker D) longshore current

29. __________ is the movement of sediment down the length of the beach in the direction of wave movement.

A) Longshore drift B) Wave refraction C) Breaker D) Longshore current

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Use the following to answer questions 30-34:

30. In the diagram, box A shows what?

A) neap tide with first-quarter moon B) neap tide with a last-quarter moon C) spring tide with a new moon D) spring tide with a full moon

31. In the diagram, box B shows what?

A) neap tide with first-quarter moon B) neap tide with a last-quarter moon C) spring tide with a new moon D) spring tide with a full moon

32. In the diagram, box C shows what?

A) neap tide with first-quarter moon B) neap tide with a last-quarter moon C) spring tide with a new moon D) spring tide with a full moon

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33. In the diagram, box D shows what?

A) neap tide with first-quarter moon B) neap tide with a last-quarter moon C) spring tide with a new moon D) spring tide with a full moon

34. Referring to the diagram, the highest tides occur in boxes __________.

A) A B) B C) A and C D) B and D

Use the following to answer questions 35-37:

35. On this map, the greatest daily tidal range is shown at what location?

A) A B) B C) C D) D

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36. At letter B on the map, maximum tidal ranges are approximately __________ inches.

A) 16 B) 32 C) 47 D) 94

37. According to the map, which location has the highest daily tidal range?

A) southern Alaska B) South Africa C) southern Australia D) southern India

Use the following to answer questions 38-41:

38. In the diagram, box A points to what?

A) the swash B) waves of oscillation C) waves of translation D) the wave base

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39. In the diagram, box B points to what?

A) the swash B) waves of oscillation C) waves of translation D) the wave base

40. In the diagram, box C points to what?

A) the swash B) waves of oscillation C) waves of translation D) the wave base

41. In the diagram, box D points to what?

A) the swash B) waves of oscillation C) waves of translation D) the wave base

42. What kind of coast forms when sea level rises relative to the coastline?

A) isostasy B) eustasy C) an emergent coast D) a submergent coast

43. Changes in global sea level as a result of changing the amount of water in the oceans is called what?

A) isostasy B) eustasy C) an emergent coast D) a submergent coast

44. Changes in the height of the lithosphere from tectonic lifting or lowering are called what?

A) isostasy B) eustasy C) an emergent coast D) a submergent coast

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45. What kind of coast forms when sea level lowers relative to the coastline?

A) isostasy B) eustasy C) an emergent coast D) a submergent coast

46. Referring to Table 19.1, which is not a depositional coast?

A) barrier island B) delta C) beach D) lava flow

47. Referring to Table 19.1, which is not an organic coast?

A) coral reef B) ria C) mangrove D) estuary

48. Referring to Table 19.1, which is not an erosional coast?

A) fjord B) bedrock C) limestone karst D) lava flow

49. Referring to Table 19.1, a ria is what type of coast?

A) a flooded coast B) an ice coast C) an organic coast D) an erosional coast

50. Referring to Table 19.1, an estuary is what type of coast?

A) a flooded coast B) an ice coast C) an organic coast D) an erosional coast

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51. Referring to Table 19.1, which type of coastline is a drowned U-shaped glacial valley?

A) fjord B) ria C) estuary D) delta

52. Referring to Table 19.1, which type of coastline is a drowned V-shaped glacial valley?

A) fjord B) ria C) estuary D) delta

53. Referring to Table 19.1, which type of coastline is dominated by living reefs?

A) delta B) mangrove C) coral reef D) estuary

54. Referring to Table 19.1, which type of coastline is generally found higher than 55 degrees latitude?

A) glaciers and ice shelf B) limestone karst C) fjord D) ria

55. Referring to Table 19.1, which type of coast forms at the mouths of rivers?

A) fjord B) ria C) coral reef D) delta

56. In beach environments, the __________ zone includes the surf zone and breakers.

A) offshore B) nearshore C) foreshore D) backshore

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57. In beach environments, in the __________ zone, waves encounter the seafloor and slow down.

A) offshore B) nearshore C) foreshore D) backshore

58. In beach environments, the __________ zone is found above the high-tide line.

A) offshore B) nearshore C) foreshore D) backshore

59. In beach environments, the __________ zone runs from the low-tide line to the high-tide line.

A) offshore B) nearshore C) foreshore D) backshore

60. White-sand beaches are composed of sand derived from what?

A) volcanic rocks B) coral reefs C) quartz D) cobbles

61. Black-sand beaches are composed of sand derived from what?

A) volcanic rocks B) coral reefs C) quartz D) cobbles

62. Shingle beaches are composed of sand derived from what?

A) volcanic rocks B) coral reefs C) quartz D) cobbles

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63. Beige-sand beaches are composed of sand derived from what?

A) volcanic rocks B) coral reefs C) quartz D) cobbles

64. Which is a not a coastal beach landform?

A) sea stack B) sandspit C) baymouth bar D) tombolo

65. A __________ is an elongated dry bar of sand that extends from a beach out into the water.

A) sandspit B) baymouth bar C) tombolo D) barrier island

66. A __________ is formed when a sand bar connects an island to the mainland.

A) sandspit B) baymouth bar C) tombolo D) barrier island

67. A __________ is an unbroken sandbar that forms across the mouth of a river or an estuary.

A) sandspit B) baymouth bar C) tombolo D) barrier island

68. A __________ is an offshore sandbar that runs parallel to the coast.

A) sandspit B) baymouth bar C) tombolo D) barrier island

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69. Scientists estimate that barrier islands represent about __________ percent of all coastlines on Earth.

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40

70. Which is not used by scientists to monitor beach erosion?

A) radar B) photography C) dye tracers D) satellites

71. A __________ is a linear structure made of concrete or stone that extends from a beach into the water.

A) groin B) jetty C) seawall D) sea arch

72. A __________ is a human-built structure designed to protect backshore environments from wave erosion during large storms.

A) groin B) jetty C) seawall D) sea arch

73. A __________ is a human-built wall that is placed at the mouth of harbors to prevent sand from closing the harbor entrance.

A) groin B) jetty C) seawall D) sea arch

74. On rocky coastlines, weathering and erosion often form what feature at the base of coastal cliffs?

A) sea stack B) wave-cut notch C) wave-cut bench D) sea cave

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75. When arches on rocky coastlines collapse, what landform often results?

A) sea stack B) wave-cut notch C) wave-cut bench D) sea cave

76. On rocky coastlines, __________ sometimes form where waves erode weaker areas of bedrock along joints or faults.

A) sea stacks B) wave-cut notches C) wave-cut benches D) sea caves

77. On rocky coastlines, flat coastal platforms called __________ are created by erosion from waves and are exposed at low tide.

A) sea stacks B) wave-cut notches C) wave-cut benches D) sea caves

Use the following to answer questions 78-82:

78. In the diagram, letter A points to a __________.

A) sandspit B) lagoon C) tombolo D) baymouth bar

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79. In the diagram, letter B points to a __________.

A) sandspit B) lagoon C) tombolo D) baymouth bar

80. In the diagram, letter C points to a __________.

A) sandspit B) lagoon C) tombolo D) baymouth bar

81. In the diagram, letter D points to a __________.

A) sandspit B) lagoon C) tombolo D) baymouth bar

82. Which best describes the direction of sand movement in this diagram?

A) from right to left B) from left to right C) from shore to deep water D) from deep water to shore

Use the following to answer questions 83-84:

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83. In this diagram, letter A points to what?

A) sea walls B) jetties C) groins D) piers

84. In this diagram, letter B points to what?

A) sea walls B) jetties C) groins D) piers

Use the following to answer questions 85-90:

85. In the diagram, letter A points to a __________.

A) wave-cut bench B) sea stack C) wave-cut notch D) headland

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86. In the diagram, letter B points to a __________.

A) wave-cut bench B) sea stack C) wave-cut notch D) sea arch

87. In the diagram, letter C points to a __________.

A) wave-cut bench B) wave-cut notch C) headland D) sea arch

88. In the diagram, letter D points to a __________.

A) wave-cut bench B) sea stack C) wave-cut notch D) sea arch

89. In the diagram, letter E points to a __________.

A) sea stack B) wave-cut notch C) headland D) sea arch

90. Which location in the diagram is most likely to collapse from gravity?

A) A B) B C) C D) E

91. By some estimates, some __________ percent of beaches in the United States are losing sand faster than they are gaining it.

A) 50 B) 70 C) 80 D) 90

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92. Which is not one of the three options available to address the problem of beach erosion?

A) relocate development away from the beachfront B) pave the beach over with concrete C) create hard structures like seawalls and groins D) replenish the sand on the beach

93. The average lifetime of an artificial beach is how many years?

A) 5 B) 10 C) 20 D) 50

94. Virginia Beach has been nourished with sand on average every __________ years since 1951.

A) 1.3 B) 4.5 C) 7.4 D) 10.2

95. Mavericks are a type of coastal wave.

A) True B) False

96. In some areas, the slope of the seafloor focuses wave energy and creates large, breaking waves.

A) True B) False

97. Most ocean waves and coastal waves are generated by earthquakes.

A) True B) False

98. Ultimately, the Sun's energy creates ocean waves.

A) True B) False

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99. Daily tidal changes in sea level are caused by the gravitational pull of the Sun and the Moon.

A) True B) False

100. The Sun has a stronger influence on the daily tides than does the Moon.

A) True B) False

101. Centrifugal force created by Earth's revolution around a common center of mass creates a larger tidal bulge than the pull of gravity from the Moon.

A) True B) False

102. During a flood tide, sea level is rising.

A) True B) False

103. During an ebb tide, sea level is lowering.

A) True B) False

104. Water motion ceases below the wave base.

A) True B) False

105. If caught in a rip current, the best thing to do is to swim toward shore.

A) True B) False

106. Isostatic sea level changes can be caused by plate tectonics.

A) True B) False

107. Eustatic sea level changes are caused by melting of glaciers.

A) True B) False

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108. An emergent coast can form from both eustasy and isostasy.

A) True B) False

109. A shingle beach is composed mostly of driftwood.

A) True B) False

110. Sand moves down the length of a beach by the action of waves.

A) True B) False

111. Only the topmost few centimeters of sand move on a beach from wave action.

A) True B) False

112. For most beaches, sand accumulates during winter and erodes during summer.

A) True B) False

113. If the amount of sand entering a beach is less than the amount of sand leaving a beach, the beach will erode.

A) True B) False

114. Inland reservoirs provide sediment sources that help beaches grow.

A) True B) False

115. A marine terrace always indicates the presence of an emergent coastline.

A) True B) False

116. Hurricane Sandy was a major storm that struck the East Coast in October 2012.

A) True B) False

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117. Beaches provide habitat for nesting and feeding animals, support local economies, and protect coastal development from wave energy.

A) True B) False

118. Beach nourishment is the process in which fertilizers are dispersed on a beach to help wildlife.

A) True B) False

119. A recent study reports that ocean wave height is increasing worldwide. What effect, if any, do you think this will have on coastal erosion? Explain.

120. What physical structures are emplaced on a beach to slow the loss of sand?

121. Think about the coast nearest to where you live. Is it an emergent or submergent coast?

What information do you need to answer this question?

122. Why is beach erosion a problem?

123. How well does beach nourishment address the problem of beach erosion? Give the pros and cons of this approach.

124. Weigh in on the issue of beach nourishment. Do you side with the practice or against it?

How do you think it is best to tackle the problem of beach erosion?

125. When was the last time you went to a beach? Do you think that beach has been nourished? How would you find out?

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Answer Key 1. A 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. B 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. A 16. B 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. D 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. C 28. D 29. A 30. C 31. A 32. D 33. B 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. A 38. D 39. B 40. C 41. A 42. D 43. B 44. A

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45. C 46. D 47. B 48. A 49. A 50. C 51. A 52. B 53. C 54. A 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. D 59. C 60. B 61. A 62. D 63. C 64. A 65. A 66. C 67. B 68. D 69. A 70. D 71. A 72. C 73. B 74. B 75. A 76. D 77. C 78. B 79. D 80. A 81. C 82. B 83. B 84. C 85. A 86. C 87. C 88. B 89. D 90. D

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91. D 92. B 93. A 94. A 95. B 96. A 97. B 98. A 99. A 100. B 101. B 102. A 103. A 104. A 105. B 106. A 107. A 108. A 109. B 110. A 111. B 112. B 113. A 114. B 115. A 116. A 117. A 118. B 119. Increased wave height will bring increased energy and increased erosion to coastal areas.

120. Jetties are human-built walls placed at the mouth of a harbor in pairs to prevent sand from closing the harbor entrance. Groins are linear, concrete or stone structures that extend from a beach into the water. They slow the erosion of sand on a beach.

121. Answers will vary. A rocky coastline may indicate an emergent coast. A coastline with beaches may indicate a submergent coast. A discussion of the tectonic history would also be useful. Generally speaking, the west coast of the United States and Canada is an emergent coast. The east coast from the Gulf of Mexico up to the Carolinas is a submergent coast; north of that it becomes emergent.

122. Beach erosion is a problem mostly because of the importance of beaches to local, state, and national economies. Beaches attract tourists and tourism money. Beaches also protect coastal development from the impact of storm energy. Lastly, beaches provide habitat for many organisms, including shorebirds and nesting turtles.

123. The pros are it is a quick fix that brings sand to a beach. The problem is that the underlying cause of beach erosion still remains and will remove the sand brought by people within just a few years.

124. Answers will vary. Some may feel it's an unfair waste of taxpayer dollars and that local

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entities should foot the bill. Others may see it as a sacrifice for the greater good, just like the interstate highways, and believe funding is justified.

125. Answers will vary depending on one's location. If the beach were a popular tourist destination on the East Coast, it likely has been nourished with sand. One could do sleuthing online to determine whether that particular beach was nourished. One could contact the Army Corps of Engineers since it oversees all federally funded beach nourishment projects. One could also contact local city officials or the Chamber of Commerce with inquiries.

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Chapter GT- The Geographer's Toolkit

1. Geography is the study of Earth's __________.

A) weather systems B) crust C) life D) physical and cultural systems and how they change through space and time

2. Physical geography is mainly concerned with __________.

A) the state of the atmosphere at any given moment B) the study of Earth's living and nonliving physical systems C) the rigid outer crust of Earth D) the water in the oceans and in the atmosphere

3. Which question would you least likely explore in Living Physical Geography?

A) Why is there winter and summer?

B) Why do mountains form and how are they worn down?

C) Why are there no polar bears in the Southern Hemisphere or penguins in the Northern Hemisphere?

D) What is the population of India?

4. A system is a __________.

A) set of interacting parts that function as a unit B) theory that helps scientists understand Earth C) group of ideas D) way of mapping Earth's surface

5. Which is an example of an anthropogenic phenomenon?

A) Earth's climate system B) ocean currents C) croplands D) tropical rainforest

6. Which would not be associated with night lights on Earth's land surface?

A) cities B) forests C) roads D) natural gas extraction

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7. People depend on Earth's physical systems because they __________.

A) provide resources for people B) are part of Earth's physical geography C) occupy space and possess mass D) allow us to better understand Earth

8. Which is an example of a spatial phenomenon?

A) the age of a mountain range B) the temperature of an ocean C) the size of a thunderstorm D) the strength of a hurricane

9. Which is an example of a temporal phenomenon?

A) the age of a mountain range.

B) the temperature of an ocean C) the size of a thunderstorm D) the strength of a hurricane

10. Which is the smallest spatial scale?

A) a view of Earth B) a view of a mountain C) a view of a lake D) a view of a tree

11. Which has the longest temporal scale?

A) an earthquake B) El Niño C) forest migration D) mountain building

12. Which is not given in the metric system?

A) kilometer B) mile C) Celsius D) kilogram

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13. Energy is __________.

A) the capacity to change and do work on physical matter B) a form of activity C) not very important to physical geography D) an example of climate change

14. Matter occurs in __________ state(s).

A) one B) two C) three D) four

15. Geothermal energy is energy from __________.

A) the Sun B) living organisms C) the atmosphere D) Earth's interior

16. An example of radiant energy is energy from __________.

A) the Sun B) living organisms C) the atmosphere D) Earth's interior

17. Along the equator, Earth's diameter is __________ kilometers.

A) 10,550 B) 12,714 C) 12,756 D) 13,901

18. Photosynthesis is the process in which plants, algae, and bacteria __________.

A) convert solar radiant energy to chemical energy B) convert thermal energy to radiant energy C) are created D) grow

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19. Which is an example of potential energy?

A) a boulder perched on a cliff B) a falling boulder C) electricity D) heat

20. Which is an example of kinetic energy?

A) a boulder perched on a cliff B) a falling boulder C) electricity D) heat

21. What form of energy is water sitting in a reservoir that will be released to make electricity?

A) kinetic B) chemical C) electrical D) potential

22. The energy to build Earth's surface relief comes from __________.

A) the Sun B) Earth's interior C) the rocks D) organisms

23. The __________ includes the crust and the heated layer below it.

A) atmosphere B) biosphere C) lithosphere D) hydrosphere

24. The __________ is the layer of gases that surrounds Earth.

A) atmosphere B) biosphere C) lithosphere D) hydrosphere

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25. Which is not a part of the hydrosphere?

A) a glacier B) a river C) a plant D) a cloud

26. The oceans cover __________ percent of the planet's surface.

A) 56 B) 67 C) 71 D) 85

27. The oceans are __________ kilometers deep on average.

A) 4 B) 5 C) 6 D) 7

28. The __________ is all life on Earth.

A) atmosphere B) biosphere C) lithosphere D) hydrosphere

29. The __________ includes all water on Earth.

A) atmosphere B) biosphere C) lithosphere D) hydrosphere

30. At the equator, Earth's rotation speed is __________ kilometers per hour.

A) 0 B) 837 C) 1,447 D) 1,670

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31. Which does not contribute to Earth's oblate ellipsoid shape?

A) topography B) rotation C) the oceans D) gravitational anomalies

32. The lithosphere extends down to about __________ kilometers.

A) 10 B) 100 C) 200 D) 500

33. The crust is broken into __________ large plates.

A) eight B) 10 C) 12 D) 14

34. Which is an example of climate?

A) the average temperature of a region B) a single day of extreme heat C) a single day of heavy precipitation D) a large tornado

35. Geothermal energy drives __________.

A) the biosphere B) plate tectonics C) precipitation D) climate

36. Erosion is the process of __________ rock fragments.

A) transporting B) depositing C) making D) cementing together

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37. Which system is not solar powered?

A) the atmosphere B) the biosphere C) building up of the lithosphere D) erosion of the lithosphere

38. Which is not an agent of erosion?

A) streams B) glaciers C) chemical reactions D) wind

39. Ultimately, the energy that drives erosion comes from __________.

A) Earth's internal heat B) organisms C) the wind D) the Sun

40. The opposite of evaporation is __________.

A) condensation B) erosion C) precipitation D) melting

Use the following to answer question 41:

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41. Referring to the figure, which statement describes how the Sun provides energy to power this electric vehicle?

A) Radiant energy is converted to kinetic energy, which is converted to electrical energy that powers the car.

B) Kinetic energy is converted to radiant energy that powers the car.

C) Electrical energy is converted to kinetic energy that powers the car.

D) Electrical energy is converted to radiant energy, which is converted to kinetic energy that powers the car.

Use the following to answer question 42:

42. Which statement describes the transformation of energy shown in this figure?

A) Radiant energy is converted to chemical energy that builds atmospheric systems.

B) Geothermal energy is converted to kinetic energy that builds atmospheric systems.

C) Radiant energy is converted to kinetic energy that builds atmospheric systems.

D) Kinetic energy is converted to radiant energy that builds atmospheric systems.

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Use the following to answer question 43:

43. Which statement describes the transformation of energy shown in this figure?

A) Radiant energy is converted to chemical energy that fuels the biosphere.

B) Geothermal energy is converted to kinetic energy that fuels the biosphere.

C) Radiant energy is converted to kinetic energy that fuels the biosphere.

D) Kinetic energy is converted to radiant energy that fuels the biosphere.

Use the following to answer question 44:

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44. Which statement describes the transformation of energy shown in this figure?

A) Geothermal energy is converted to chemical energy that builds the lithosphere.

B) Geothermal energy is converted to kinetic energy that builds the lithosphere.

C) Radiant energy is converted to kinetic energy that builds the lithosphere.

D) Kinetic energy is converted to geothermal energy that builds the lithosphere.

Use the following to answer question 45:

45. Which statement describes the transformation of energy shown in this figure?

A) Radiant energy is converted to chemical energy that erodes the lithosphere.

B) Geothermal energy is converted to kinetic energy that erodes the lithosphere.

C) Radiant energy is converted to kinetic energy that erodes the lithosphere.

D) Kinetic energy is converted to radiant energy that erodes the lithosphere.

46. The __________ is a coordinate system used to identify locations on Earth's surface.

A) equator B) prime meridian C) geographic grid D) global positioning system

47. The __________ divides Earth into two equal halves.

A) equator B) prime meridian C) North Pole D) South Pole

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48. The __________ is located at 90 degrees north latitude.

A) North Pole B) South Pole C) Equator D) Prime meridian

49. The __________ is the 0 degree longitude.

A) equator B) prime meridian C) North Pole D) South Pole

50. On the equator, meridians are __________ kilometers apart.

A) 0 B) 53 C) 111 D) 200

51. At the South Pole, meridians are __________ kilometers apart.

A) 0 B) 53 C) 111 D) 200

52. The __________ are found between 23.5 degrees north and south.

A) tropics B) midlatitudes C) high latitudes D) polar regions

53. The __________ are found between 80 and 90 degrees north and south.

A) tropics B) midlatitudes C) high latitudes D) polar regions

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54. The __________ are found between 35 and 55 degrees north and south.

A) tropics B) midlatitudes C) high latitudes D) polar regions

55. The __________ are found between 23.5 degrees and 35 degrees north and south.

A) tropics B) subtropics C) midlatitudes D) high latitudes

56. The __________ uses satellites to identify the locations on Earth.

A) geographic grid B) global positioning system C) Doppler radar D) sonar

57. A __________ is the shortest distance between two points on the globe.

A) meridian B) parallel C) small circle route D) great circle route

58. Which of these is a great circle?

A) the equator B) the prime meridian C) the 55th parallel D) the 170th meridian

59. The 0 degree meridian is also called the __________.

A) equator B) prime meridian C) 55th parallel D) 170th meridian

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60. How many degrees of latitude separate the equator from the North Pole?

A) 0 B) 45 C) 90 D) 180

61. Longitudes run as high as __________ degrees.

A) 0 B) 45 C) 90 D) 180

62. Which location cannot exist?

A) 1 degree south, 1 degree west B) 70 degrees north, 0 degrees east C) 140 degrees south, 10 degrees west D) 10 degrees north, 123 degrees east

63. Which map scale is still accurate after a map has been reduced or enlarged from its original size?

A) bar scale B) verbal scale C) representative fraction scale D) map scale 64. “One centimeter equals 5 kilometers” is an example of what kind of map scale?

A) a bar scale B) a verbal scale C) a representative fraction scale D) a measurement

65. Which is not among the elements maps generally should have?

A) border B) title C) map scale D) legend

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66. Topography is __________.

A) a geographic locating system B) the height of the tallest object in a landscape C) the shape and physical character of Earth's surface D) a mapping technique

67. A contour line is used to show __________.

A) population B) the biosphere C) weather D) topography

68. If people continue to walk along a contour line, what will eventually happen?

A) They will experience a wide range of weather conditions.

B) They will encounter many forms of life.

C) They will climb uphill.

D) They will end up where they started.

69. Where contour lines are close together on a map __________.

A) the slope is steep B) the temperature is low C) the population is high D) the vegetation is changing

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Use the following to answer questions 70-71:

70. Which set of coordinates locates the red square on this figure?

A) 60° N, 40° E B) 40° S, 60° E C) 40° N, 60° E D) 0°, 30° W

71. Which set of coordinates locates the blue circle on this figure?

A) 20° S, 20° E B) 10° N, 30° E C) 40° S, 20° E D) 0°, 30° W

72. Which is not an example of remote sensing?

A) taking soil samples B) Doppler radar C) sonar D) digital photography

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73. Which technology can be used to map rainfall in a hurricane?

A) Doppler radar B) LIDAR C) sonar D) lasers

74. What remote sensing technology is used to map the seafloor?

A) Doppler radar B) LIDAR C) sonar D) lasers

75. A GIS is what?

A) a navigation instrument B) a tropical storm system C) a way to display spatial data D) a map scale

76. Which order is a logical sequence of the scientific method?

A) observations, questions, hypothesis development, hypothesis testing, further inquiry B) hypothesis testing, observations, questions, hypothesis development, further inquiry C) further inquiry, hypothesis development, observations, questions, hypothesis testing D) hypothesis development, observations, questions, hypothesis testing, further inquiry

77. Which European group was the first to find Easter Island?

A) the French B) the Spanish C) the Dutch D) the Portuguese

78. The giant statues on Easter Island are called what?

A) ahu B) moai C) rapa nui D) lapita

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79. When geographers examined the history of Easter Island, what key evidence did they find that indicated that the island was once forested?

A) ancient pollen B) ancient insect remains C) ancient wood D) ancient burial sites

80. The loss of forests occurred most likely because of what?

A) fire B) poor soils C) building of moai D) boat building

81. How might the rats brought to Easter Island by Polynesians have contributed to the demise of the Easter Islanders?

A) The rats brought disease to the people.

B) The rats ate the seeds of trees.

C) The rats ate most of the humans' food stores.

D) The people starved after the rat populations disappeared.

82. Humans have little effect on Earth's physical systems.

A) True B) False

83. The material goods we use, like cell phones, cars, and computers, are not connected to Earth's physical systems.

A) True B) False

84. Science is fundamental to the study of physical geography.

A) True B) False

85. Temporal scale refers to size, length, distance, or area of an object or process.

A) True B) False

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86. Physical geography emphasizes phenomena or processes occurring over scales of meters to the entire planet.

A) True B) False

87. A photo sequence showing progressive deforestation illustrates both temporal and spatial scales.

A) True B) False

88. The United States is the only industrialized country that mostly uses the U.S. customary system of measurement.

A) True B) False

89. The highest point on Earth is Mount Everest at 8,848 meters (29,029 feet).

A) True B) False

90. The lowest point on Earth is Death Valley at -86 meters (-282 feet).

A) True B) False

91. The crust is the rigid outermost portion of Earth's surface.

A) True B) False

92. Earth's true shape is an oblate spheroid.

A) True B) False

93. Earth's gravitational pull is stronger over mountains than over valleys.

A) True B) False

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94. The atmosphere consists mostly of nitrogen and carbon dioxide.

A) True B) False

95. Water exists as a solid, a liquid, and a vapor.

A) True B) False

96. When water evaporates, vapor turns to liquid.

A) True B) False

97. Clouds are composed of water vapor.

A) True B) False

98. Living Physical Geography is structured around energy flows through Earth's physical systems.

A) True B) False

99. Most life on Earth obtains its energy from the Sun. A) True B) False

100. The energy for erosion is derived from Earth's heat.

A) True B) False

101. Tornado energy is derived from the Sun. A) True B) False

102. The origin is found at 0 degrees latitude and 0 degrees longitude.

A) True B) False

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103. The equator is 0 degrees latitude.

A) True B) False

104. The prime meridian is 180 degrees longitude.

A) True B) False

105. Cartography is the art and science of map making.

A) True B) False

106. Maps can portray spatial information and temporal information.

A) True B) False

107. A map of a mountain has a relatively smaller map scale than a map of a continent.

A) True B) False

108. Contour lines are used on topographic maps to show changes in elevation.

A) True B) False

109. Radar is a form of passive remote sensing.

A) True B) False

110. Doppler radar is an example of a remote sensing technology.

A) True B) False

111. A digital elevation model is used to show topographic relief.

A) True B) False

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112. Digital elevation models can only be developed for surfaces above water.

A) True B) False

113. A GIS is interactive and it can be used to analyze spatial data.

A) True B) False

114. A hypothesis is an idea that can be tested and proved incorrect.

A) True B) False

115. The process of science works by first having an idea, then collecting only those data that support the idea.

A) True B) False

116. A theory is constructed from many hypotheses that have been tested and supported by scientific data and observations.

A) True B) False

117. If you walked along a parallel, which direction would you be walking?

118. What are the basic elements of the scientific method?

119. Native Easter Islanders thought that the large statues “walked” to their present locations along the coast. Explain how this seemingly impossible notion could actually have a scientific basis.

120. What would happen to the biosphere if the Sun were to stop shining?

121. What would happen to the atmosphere if the Sun were to stop shining?

122. Give three examples of how Earth's physical systems affect one another.

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123. If you were a forest manager and you were assigned the task of finding areas most in need of new tree plantings, what information and technology might be most useful to you?

124. Explain the process by which people convert solar energy to electrical energy to run a computer by using a flowing stream.

125. Explain the history of Easter Island from the perspective of our scientific understanding.

What happened and why did it happen?

126. Are there any similarities between what happened on Easter Island and the world today?

If so, what are these similarities?

127. “Insect outbreaks in western forests occur during warmer winters.” Is this a testable hypothesis? If it is, what data would you need to test it?

128. Do you think the United States should use the metric system like the rest of the world?

Explain your answer.

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Answer Key 1. D 2. B 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. D 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. C 24. A 25. C 26. C 27. A 28. B 29. D 30. D 31. C 32. B 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. A 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. A 41. A 42. C 43. A 44. B

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45. C 46. C 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. C 51. A 52. A 53. D 54. B 55. B 56. B 57. D 58. A 59. B 60. C 61. D 62. C 63. A 64. B 65. A 66. C 67. D 68. D 69. A 70. C 71. A 72. A 73. A 74. C 75. C 76. A 77. C 78. B 79. A 80. C 81. B 82. B 83. B 84. A 85. B 86. A 87. A 88. A 89. A 90. B

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91. A 92. A 93. A 94. B 95. A 96. B 97. B 98. A 99. A 100. B 101. A 102. A 103. A 104. B 105. A 106. A 107. B 108. A 109. B 110. A 111. A 112. B 113. A 114. A 115. B 116. A 117. You would be walking either east or west.

118. The elements of the scientific method include observation, questioning, hypothesis development, data collection, hypothesis testing, and further inquiry.

119. Scientists attempted and succeeded in moving the statues by “walking” a replica statue with a system of ropes lassoed around the statue's head. Thus, the statues “walked” across the island.

120. Almost all life on Earth would perish. Only bacteria and their ecosystems in deep-sea hydrothermal vents and hot springs would survive.

121. If the Sun were to stop shining there would be no solar energy. Solar energy evaporates water and creates wind. Without wind and water vapor, there would be no weather systems.

122. Water evaporates from the hydrosphere to the atmosphere. Organisms in the biosphere put oxygen and carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. The lithosphere (volcanoes) put carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. The oceans absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.

123. A geographic information system (GIS) would be most useful. You would need different types of data that would indicate where trees may have been damaged and are in need of replanting. Spatial data on fire activity and bug infestations might be useful for determining where the forest is in need of new trees. Regions of drought might also be of interest. You might need spatial data on tree planting history for the area of

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interest, as well as temperature and precipitation data to help you decide which species of tree would be most suitable. You could put these layers of data in a GIS and analyze the data to identify areas most in need of plantings.

124. The Sun's energy evaporates water. This water condenses and precipitates and flows downslope. People build dams to collect the runoff in a reservoir. A hydroelectric dam generates electricity from the water flowing out the base of the dam. The electricity powers the computer.

125. Easter Islanders cut down their forests. Without the forests, the islanders could not build boats (from logs) and their diet became severely restricted. Soil erosion without the forest probably also contributed to famine. Thus, the population collapsed.

126. Easter Islanders appear to have prioritized building statues (and cutting forests) over taking care of the needs of the population. As a result, the natural resources the forest provided were squandered on political efforts rather than addressing the needs of people. Today, this same argument could be made. Also, although Earth is very large, it too can be viewed as an island on whose resources humanity depends. Squandering these resources is not in our best long-term interest.

127. This is a testable hypothesis. One could statistically compare insect population data with winter temperature data. If a correlation exists, the hypothesis is supported and can be accepted.

128. Answers will vary. Generally, comfort and familiarity with the U.S. customary could be a reason not to change. In contrast, practicality and the ease of coordinating with other countries would be a reason to change.

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