TEST BANK for Invitation to the Life Span, 5th Edition by Kathleen Stassen Berger

Chapter 1 1. The science of human development seeks to understand: a. the meaning of life. b. the accuracy of new theories. c. the works of Freud, Piaget, and Erikson. d. how and why people change over time.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 3 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171454_61bb6d2b5523d1 2. Dr. Xavier ponders whether a specific brain chemical can be suppressed if a patient is given a large dose of vitamin D. Dr. Xavier has just demonstrated which step in the scientific method? a. first b. second c. third d. fourth ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 3 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171455_61bb6d2b5523d2

3. Dr. Schmidt predicts that a certain drug will reduce hallucinations in patients with schizophrenia. Their prediction is called: a. a conclusion. b. empirical evidence. c. a hypothesis. d. an observation.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171456_61bb6d2b5523d3 4. Professor Soto designed and conducted a study to determine if a particular drug would help patients suffering from depression. By designing and conducting this experiment, they were able to: a. establish a positive correlation. b. demonstrate proof. c. test the hypothesis. d. confirm the results.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment Understanding How and Why Bloom's: Applying Status: revised 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171457_61bb6d2b5523d4

5. Dr. Inez is curious to know more about how children's peer relationships develop over time. To gain an understanding of this subject that is not based on opinion or personal bias, Dr. Inez should: a. use the scientific method to collect data and establish facts. b. have the children undergo psychoanalysis. c. interview parents and teachers. d. read Dr. Spock's book Baby and Child Care.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171458_61bb6d2b5523d5 6. The first step in the scientific method involves: a. posing a question. b. conducting research. c. analyzing evidence. d. developing a hypothesis.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice

HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171459_61bb6d2b5523d6 7. The second step in the scientific method involves: a. posing a question. b. conducting research. c. developing a hypothesis. d. sharing the results.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171460_61bb6d2b5523d7 8. The third step in the scientific method involves: a. posing a question. b. conducting research. c. sharing the results. d. developing a hypothesis.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate

REFERENCES:

Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171461_61bb6d2b5523d8 9. The fourth step in the scientific method involves: a. posing a question. b. conducting research. c. developing a hypothesis. d. supporting or refuting a hypothesis.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 5 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171462_61bb6d2b5523d9 10. Empirical evidence is based on: a. theories and speculation. b. observation, experience, or experiment. c. inferences based on personal biases. d. opinions generated by focus groups.

ANSWER: b

POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

1 Easy Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171463_61bb6d2b5523d10 11. After posing a question, a researcher using the scientific method: a. draws conclusions. b. runs an experiment. c. selects a group of participants. d. develops a hypothesis.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171464_61bb6d2b5523d11 12. The final step in the scientific method involves: a. testing a hypothesis. b. posing a question. c. conducting research.

d. reporting the results.

ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

d 1 Moderate Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171465_61bb6d2b5523d12 13. Dr. Greene is interested in designing a study on children's language acquisition. What is the first step that Dr. Greene should take, according to the scientific method? a. recruit children and their parents as participants in the study b. develop a hypothesis regarding language acquisition c. pose a research question about language acquisition d. draw conclusions on the way children acquire language ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171466_61bb6d2b5523d13 14. A hypothesis is a(n):

a. experiment. b. prediction that can be tested. c. conclusion drawn from research. d. replication of a scientific study.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171467_61bb6d2b5523d14 15. Replication involves: a. the repetition of a study using different participants. b. the repetition of a study using the same participants. c. designing a new study based on information from a previous study. d. designing a new study using new ideas and information.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM

CUSTOM ID:

question_1171468_61bb6d2b5523d15

16. Dr. Stott conducts a study in which they find that smoking is correlated with an increased risk of high blood pressure. They publish their results. Then Dr. Meco conducts the same study using different participants in another city. Dr. Meco's work is an example of: a. scientific controversy. b. replication. c. ethics. d. data analysis.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171469_61bb6d2b5523d16 17. Which of these hypotheses is NOT related to the idea that music is related to higher intelligence? a. Brains react differently to Mozart versus Bach. b. Older individuals prefer music compared to younger individuals. c. Fetal brain waves reflect what music is played. d. Rats are smarter if they listen to Mozart.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why

KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Bloom's: Remembering Status: new 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171470_61bb6d2b5523d17

18. Parents who spend a great deal of time and money trying to find the best school for their children believe in the importance of _____ as it relates to development. a. nurture b. replication c. nature d. classical conditioning ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 5 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171471_61bb6d2b5523d18 19. _____ refers to all the environmental influences that affect development after conception. a. Epigenetics b. Nurture c. Nature d. Differential susceptibility ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 5 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance Understanding How and Why Bloom's: Remembering Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171472_61bb6d2b5523d19

20. In the science of human development, nature refers to: a. the influence of the genes that people inherit. b. environmental influences. c. patterns of development. d. developmental differences.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 5 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171473_61bb6d2b5523d20 21. In the science of human development, nurture refers to _____ traits. a. hereditary b. genetic c. environmental d. unique ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 5 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance Understanding How and Why Bloom's: Remembering Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171474_61bb6d2b5523d21

22. Dr. Ghufran believes that genetics is responsible for personality traits. Dr. Marks believes that a person's family life is responsible for personality traits. They are on different sides of the _____ debate. a. nature–nurture b. intelligent design-evolution c. genes-development d. traits-conditioning ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 5 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171475_61bb6d2b5523d22 23. Most developmental psychologists believe that development is the result of: a. nature and nurture acting separately. b. genetic traits. c. nature and nurture acting together. d. environmental influences.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 6 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice

HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171476_61bb6d2b5523d23 24. Which of these illustrates the influence of nature in development? a. having a mother who smoked during pregnancy b. having the gene for epilepsy c. eating a healthy diet d. living in a loud neighborhood ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 6 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171477_61bb6d2b5523d24 25. Recent research has demonstrated that playing a musical instrument can impact brain development and cognition in: a. limbic system. b. auditory areas. c. prefrontal cortex. d. hypothalamus.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 5

Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171478_61bb6d2b5523d25 26. Stan and Marcus, close friends, grew up in the same neighborhood. Both were exposed to chronic poverty, gang violence, and family dysfunction. By the time they were in high school, Stan was flunking out of most classes, had a child, and had been arrested numerous times for drug-related crimes and theft. Marcus, on the other hand, was a good student, played football, and had aspirations to attend college. These diverse developmental trajectories, despite similar environmental influences, illustrate the concept of: a. "epigenetics." b. a "critical period." c. a "sensitive period." d. "differential susceptibility."

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 6 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171479_61bb6d2b5523d26 27. In one study that looked at the effects of maternal depression during pregnancy and child outcomes, researchers found that children who had a particular type of the serotonin transporter gene were likely to be emotionally immature if their mothers were depressed. However, children with this gene were more mature than average if their mothers were not depressed. These findings illustrate the concept of:

a. "epigenetics." b. a "critical period." c. a "sensitive period." d. "differential susceptibility."

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 6 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171480_61bb6d2b5523d27 28. Differential sensitivity means that certain people have genes that: a. make them more vulnerable to particular experiences. b. interact and coordinate to influence developmental outcomes. c. determine their social interactions and intellectual outcomes. d. have an unknown impact on their long-term development.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 6 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171481_61bb6d2b5523d28

29. The life-span perspective takes into account development from: a. birth to death. b. childhood to middle age. c. birth to adolescence. d. conception to death.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 7 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171482_61bb6d2b5523d29 30. Late adulthood begins at age: a. 45. b. 55. c. 65. d. 75.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 7 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171483_61bb6d2b5523d30

31. A developmental perspective requires consideration of: a. time. b. one's birthday. c. observer bias. d. scientific conclusions.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 7 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171484_61bb6d2b5523d31 32. With respect to the concept of multi-directional development, rapid and dramatic change, such as when a larva becomes a mosquito, is an example of: a. continuity. b. discontinuity. c. genetics. d. nurture.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 8 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM

DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171485_61bb6d2b5523d32

33. The concept of multi-directional development suggests that gradual change, as when a tortoise grows larger over its 150-year lifespan, is an example of: a. continuity. b. discontinuity. c. genetics. d. nurture.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 8 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171486_61bb6d2b5523d33 34. Which example BEST illustrates a critical period? a. a child learning to walk b. a child learning a second language before age 4 c. a human fetus developing fingers and toes between 28 and 54 days in utero d. a child learning to ride a bike between 5 and 6 years of age ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 8 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding

OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171487_61bb6d2b5523d34

35. Which example BEST illustrates a sensitive period? a. a child who is born blind b. an egg being fertilized c. a fetus developing fingers and toes d. a child learning to speak a second language ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 9 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171488_61bb6d2b5523d35 36. Between 1957 and 1961, many pregnant women took thalidomide to alleviate morning sickness; this drug disrupted a(n) _____ period of prenatal development. a. sensitive b. critical c. early d. late ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 8 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

The Life-Span Perspective Bloom's: Understanding Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171489_61bb6d2b5523d36

37. A woman in Honduras worked in a field treated with pesticides during pregnancy. Their son was subsequently born with no arms or legs. Their pesticide exposure likely occurred during a(n) _____ period of prenatal development. a. critical b. early c. late d. sensitive ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 8 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171490_61bb6d2b5523d37 38. Suan did not learn to read until adolescence. When they did learn to read, it was much harder for them than it was for their peers. If Suan had learned to read during the childhood years, they would have acquired literacy skills much more competently. Suan's difficulty in learning to read as an adolescent demonstrates the concept of a(n) "_____ period." a. critical b. early c. late d. sensitive ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 9 Chapter 1

QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171491_61bb6d2b5523d38 39. The effects of climate, noise, population density, family size, and multiethnic communities illustrate that development is: a. linear. b. multi-directional. c. multi-contextual. d. multi-cultural.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 9 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171492_61bb6d2b5523d39 40. The ecological-systems approach was proposed by: a. Maslow. b. Freud. c. Bronfenbrenner. d. Skinner.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy

REFERENCES:

Page(s) 9 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171493_61bb6d2b5523d40 41. In Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems approach, the _____ refers to the interactions among systems. a. macrosystem b. exosystem c. microsystem d. mesosystem ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 10 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171494_61bb6d2b5523d41 42. Which term did Bronfenbrenner use to describe the impact of the specific time in history on a person's development? a. macrosystem b. microsystem c. chronosystem d. exosystem ANSWER: c

POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

1 Moderate Page(s) 10 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171495_61bb6d2b5523d42 43. Debbie was born during the Great Depression. Within the context of the ecological-systems approach, Debbie's experience of growing up during this time period falls within the: a. chronosystem. b. exosystem. c. microsystem. d. macrosystem.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 10 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171496_61bb6d2b5523d43 44. Dwayne lives with their mother, father, and younger sister. This makes up their: a. chronosystem. b. exosystem. c. microsystem.

d. macrosystem.

ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

c 1 Difficult Page(s) 9 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171497_61bb6d2b5523d44 45. Dr. Merko is studying the impact of exosystems on human development. Which of these would Dr. Merko be MOST interested in examining? a. cultural values and economic processes b. family and peer groups c. medical centers and religious institutions d. the development of the skeletal structure in children ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 10 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171498_61bb6d2b5523d45 46. In Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems model, a hospital in the community is an example of the: a. ecosystem.

b. microsystem. c. chronosystem. d. exosystem.

ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

d 1 Moderate Page(s) 10 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171499_61bb6d2b5523d46 47. In Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems model, family and peers are part of one's: a. microsystem. b. exosystem. c. macrosystem. d. social system.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 9 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171500_61bb6d2b5523d47 48. A person's macrosystem includes:

a. political processes. b. the peer group. c. school and church. d. the historical setting.

ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

a 1 Moderate Page(s) 10 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171501_61bb6d2b5523d48 49. According to Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems approach, the historical context that affects other systems is called the: a. ecosystem. b. chronosystem. c. mesosystem. d. macrosystem.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 10 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171502_61bb6d2b5523d49

50. Mary grew up in the Great Depression, while their grandson is part of the Millennial generation. Mary and their grandson belong to different: a. socioeconomic groups. b. microsystems. c. cohorts. d. cultural groups.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 10 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171503_61bb6d2b5523d50 51. Kindergarten students are considered to be in the same: a. social construction. b. network. c. socioeconomic status. d. cohort.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 10 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM

DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171504_61bb6d2b5523d51

52. Socioeconomic status refers to an individual's: a. culture. b. ethnicity. c. social class. d. race.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 11 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171505_61bb6d2b5523d52 53. The socioeconomic status of an individual includes, among other things, the person's: a. ethnicity. b. education level. c. political beliefs. d. religion.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 11 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171506_61bb6d2b5523d53

54. The socioeconomic status of an individual includes, among other things, the person's: a. ethnicity. b. political beliefs. c. neighborhood. d. religion.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 11 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171507_61bb6d2b5523d54 55. Zachary is a part-time construction worker. Maria is an attorney. These occupations reflect Zachary's and Maria's: a. SES. b. political values c. cohorts. d. family values.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 11 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective

KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Bloom's: Applying Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171508_61bb6d2b5523d55

56. Dorian has a college degree, lives in a nice neighborhood, and earns more than $50,000 a year. This information defines their: a. economic potential. b. socioeconomic status. c. cohort. d. microsystem.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 10 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171509_61bb6d2b5523d56 57. A system of shared beliefs, conventions, norms, behaviors, expectations, and symbolic representations that persist over time and prescribe social rules of conduct is the definition of: a. a cohort. b. culture. c. nature. d. nurture.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 12 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity The Life-Span Perspective Bloom's: Remembering Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171510_61bb6d2b5523d57

58. The general term for a concept that is created by society is: a. culture. b. a cohort. c. a social construction. d. SES. ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 12 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171511_61bb6d2b5523d58 59. Li, age 11, is a recent Chinese immigrant. Li's new teacher has noticed that they rarely talk, do not make eye contact, and seem very shy. When the teacher speaks to Li's parents, they are surprised, as these characteristics are valued in Li's culture. The perception of Li's behavior reflects the concept of a(n): a. microsystem. b. exosystem. c. social construction. d. social phobia.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 12 Chapter 1

QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171512_61bb6d2b5523d59 60. One historical example of the "difference-equals-deficit" error is: a. men perceiving women as intellectually inferior. b. European immigrants crossing the ocean to settle in America. c. how people's IQ scores have been steadily rising for more than 100 years. d. women taking factory jobs during World War II. ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 13 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171513_61bb6d2b5523d60 61. An example of the "difference-equals-deficit" error is: a. assuming that children who are hearing impaired cannot communicate as well as children who can hear. b. failing to compare typical and atypical behavior. c. ignoring inconsistencies in a child's language development. d. identifying flaws within the scientific method.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult

REFERENCES:

Page(s) 13 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171514_61bb6d2b5523d61 62. People whose ancestors were born in the same region and who usually share the same language and religion are called a(n): a. racial group. b. ethnic group. c. SES group. d. exosystem.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 13 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171515_61bb6d2b5523d62 63. According to the text, race is: a. part of the microsystem. b. a social construction. c. defined by heritage. d. multi-directional.

ANSWER: b

POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

1 Easy Page(s) 13 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171516_61bb6d2b5523d63 64. Some social scientists believe that _____ terms exaggerate minor differences between people. a. color b. diversity c. genetic analysis d. culture ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 14 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171517_61bb6d2b5523d64 65. The fact that race is a social construction: a. reflects inconsistencies in ethnic categories. b. does not make the term meaningless. c. means that it should be replaced with the term "culture." d. shows how powerful genetic influences are on development.

ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

b 1 Moderate Page(s) 14 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171518_61bb6d2b5523d65 66. Plasticity refers to the: a. many academic fields that contribute data to the science of development. b. universals and specifics of human development in many cultural settings. c. vast array of contexts in which development occurs. d. potential for human traits to be molded during development but also to remain durable.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 15 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171519_61bb6d2b5523d66 67. The term plasticity reminds us that: a. human development is linear. b. critical and sensitive periods predict developmental outcomes. c. developmental change is possible.

d. human traits are mostly inborn.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 15 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171520_61bb6d2b5523d67 68. The idea that human development is an ongoing, ever-changing interaction between the body, mind, and every aspect of the environment reflects the: a. dynamic-systems approach. b. theory of evolution. c. concept of universality. d. domino effect.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 15 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171521_61bb6d2b5523d68 69. Which of these is the BEST example of plasticity? a. a child who experiences a traumatic brain injury and relearns how to walk and talk

b. a teenager who spends a summer in Chile as part of their church youth group c. a woman who leaves her job to stay home with her newborn d. a man who is in a serious car wreck and remains in a coma five years later ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 15 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171522_61bb6d2b5523d69 70. In the case study of David, he was exposed to _____ during his mother's pregnancy. a. HIV b. cancer-causing pesticides c. rubella d. pneumonia ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 15–16 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171523_61bb6d2b5523d70 71. In the case study of David, his IQ changed from about 40 to about 130, and his physical disabilities

improved with age. These changes reflect which characteristic of development? a. sensitive period b. discontinuity c. critical period d. plasticity ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 15–16 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171524_61bb6d2b5523d71 72. Which theorist was a leader in describing the interaction between culture and education? a. Lev Vygotsky b. Urie Bronfenbrenner c. Jean Piaget d. Erik Erikson ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 12 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171525_61bb6d2b5523d72

73. What is one reason why children born into low-SES families are likely to become low-SES adults? a. Higher family income decreases the likelihood of a good education. b. Low family income reduces access to good education. c. Higher family income is related to reduced study time. d. Low family income is related to increased study time.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 11 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171526_61bb6d2b5523d73 74. What is the capital in capitalism? a. education b. food security c. support from people d. money ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 11 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM

DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171527_61bb6d2b5523d74

75. What is social capital? a. education b. food security c. support from people d. money ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

c 1 Moderate Page(s) 11 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171528_61bb6d2b5523d75 76. Which location has more pigmentary diversity compared to anywhere else in the world? a. China b. Europe c. Australia d. Africa ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 14 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering

OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Status: new 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171529_61bb6d2b5523d76

77. In the United States, the concept of _____ was created to justify slavery. a. ethnicity b. race c. age d. SES ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 14 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171530_61bb6d2b5523d77 78. Which of these is socially constructed? a. age b. religion c. race d. income ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 13 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

The Life-Span Perspective Bloom's: Remembering Status: new 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171531_61bb6d2b5523d78

79. A comprehensive and organized explanation of many phenomena is called a: a. hypothesis. b. theory. c. conclusion. d. development.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 17 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171532_61bb6d2b5523d79 80. A systematic statement of principles and generalizations that provides a framework for understanding how and why people change over time is called a: a. hypothesis. b. developmental theory. c. conclusion. d. stage.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 17 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance Theories of Human Development Bloom's: Remembering Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171533_61bb6d2b5523d80

81. In the first half of the twentieth century, which two opposing theories dominated the discipline of psychology? a. humanism and cognitive theory b. behaviorism and sociocultural theory c. psychoanalytic theory and behaviorism d. cognitive theory and sociocultural theory ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 17 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171534_61bb6d2b5523d81 82. The foundation of psychoanalytic theory is: a. observable behaviors. b. inner drives and motives, and unconscious needs. c. an individual's ideas and beliefs. d. self-awareness and willingness to change.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 17 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice

HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171535_61bb6d2b5523d82 83. Who developed the psychosocial theory? a. Piaget b. Freud c. Watson d. Erikson ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 17 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171536_61bb6d2b5523d83 84. _____ emphasizes unconscious drives and early experiences with respect to development, whereas _____ emphasizes learning by association, reinforcement, or observation with respect to development. a. Psychoanalytic theory; behaviorism b. Psychoanalytic theory; cognitive theory c. Behaviorism; psychoanalytic theory d. Cognitive theory; psychoanalytic theory ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 17–19

Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171537_61bb6d2b5523d84 85. _____ emphasizes unconscious drives and early experiences with respect to development, whereas _____ emphasizes learning by understanding how a person thinks. a. Psychoanalytic theory; behaviorism b. Psychoanalytic theory; cognitive theory c. Behaviorism; psychoanalytic theory d. Cognitive theory; psychoanalytic theory ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 17–21 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171538_61bb6d2b5523d85 86. Which is the correct order of the stages of Freud's psychosexual theory, beginning with infancy and ending with adolescence? a. oral, anal, genital, phallic, latency b. anal, oral, phallic, genital, latency c. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital d. latency, phallic, oral, anal, genital ANSWER: c

POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

1 Moderate Page(s) 18 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171539_61bb6d2b5523d86 87. Each stage of Freud's psychosexual theory of development is characterized by a conflict associated with different parts of the body. According to Freud, how people experience and resolve each conflict influences personality: a. throughout life, because early years provide the foundation of adult behavior. b. throughout life, but only if some of the conflicts are successfully resolved. c. only in childhood, with new conflicts emerging later that shape adult identity. d. at a particular stage of development, also called a sensitive period.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 17–18 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171540_61bb6d2b5523d87 88. According to Freud's psychosexual theory, the _____ stage centers around breast-feeding and weaning. a. oral b. anal c. phallic

d. genital ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

a 1 Easy Page(s) 18 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171541_61bb6d2b5523d88 89. Freud argued that the goal of a healthy life is to: a. connect spiritually with another person. b. follow moral codes set by society. c. avoid conflict and promote social harmony. d. love and to work.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 18 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171542_61bb6d2b5523d89 90. Although many of the theorists who follow Freud's psychoanalytic theory have modified and expanded his ideas, they agree on the importance of: a. early childhood experiences and psychosexual conflicts.

b. psychosexual conflicts and the unconscious. c. early childhood experiences and the unconscious. d. psychosexual conflicts and stages of psychosexual development.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 18 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171543_61bb6d2b5523d90 91. Unlike Freud, Erikson: a. only described development in childhood. b. believed that adult problems reflect childhood conflicts. c. emphasized family and culture in his stages. d. leaned toward the behaviorist perspective.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 18 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171544_61bb6d2b5523d91 92. Which psychoanalytic theorist identified unique stages of development from birth through late adulthood?

a. Freud b. Piaget c. Skinner d. Erikson ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

d 1 Easy Page(s) 18 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171545_61bb6d2b5523d92 93. Within Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, each of the developmental stages is characterized by a particular challenge, or a: a. conflict negotiation. b. developmental conflict. c. developmental crisis. d. resolution.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 18 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171546_61bb6d2b5523d93

94. Which of Erikson's stages can be compared to Freud's oral stage of development? a. initiative versus guilt b. intimacy versus isolation c. trust versus mistrust d. autonomy versus shame and doubt ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 18 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171547_61bb6d2b5523d94 95. Learning theorists believe that psychologists should focus on: a. observable behaviors. b. inner drives and motives. c. a person's ideas and beliefs. d. a person's sexual conflict.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 19 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM

CUSTOM ID:

question_1171548_61bb6d2b5523d95

96. Behaviorism has also been referred to as "_____ theory." a. conditioning b. learning c. modeling d. operant ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 19 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171549_61bb6d2b5523d96 97. The process by which a response becomes linked to a particular stimulus is called: a. psychoanalysis. b. cognition. c. observational learning. d. conditioning.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 19 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM

DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171550_61bb6d2b5523d97

98. Pavlov's experiments with dogs that salivated when they heard a specific noise without the presence of food provide an example of: a. classical conditioning. b. observational learning. c. operant conditioning. d. reinforcement.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 19 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171551_61bb6d2b5523d98 99. When persons or animals learn to associate a neutral stimulus with a meaningful stimulus, gradually responding to the neutral stimulus in the same way as to the meaningful one, they are exhibiting: a. classical conditioning. b. observational learning. c. operant conditioning. d. modeling.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 19 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding

OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171552_61bb6d2b5523d99

100. A balloon popped and made Chris cry. It happened again when they were at a holiday party. Now when Chris sees a balloon, they start to cry. According to the behaviorist perspective, Chris cries in response to the balloon because of: a. operant conditioning. b. observational learning. c. classical conditioning. d. modeling.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 19 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171553_61bb6d2b5523d10 101. The type of conditioning that Skinner identified is referred to as "_____ conditioning." a. classical b. observational c. operant d. cognitive ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 20 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Theories of Human Development Bloom's: Remembering Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171554_61bb6d2b5523d10

102. Operant conditioning is also referred to as "_____ conditioning." a. classical b. instrumental c. observational d. reinforcement ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 20 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171555_61bb6d2b5523d10 103. Hernando, age 13, dislikes school. His parents were recently informed that Hernando has missed 12 days of school this quarter and has left school early on at least 4 occasions. Hernando's father has decided to drop Hernando off every morning and pick him up every afternoon to make sure he was attending school. Hernando is now attending school, but has gotten into serious trouble on multiple occasions, leading to a three-day out-ofschool suspension. Since Hernando dislikes school and prefers to skip rather than attend, the out-of-school suspension represents a: a. reinforcement. b. punishment. c. conditioner. d. norm.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 20 Chapter 1

QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171556_61bb6d2b5523d10 104. The boss praises the hourly employees for their good work. The boss hopes that the praise encourages the employees to continue to work hard. In this example, the reinforcement is: a. the boss's praise. b. worker productivity. c. the boss. d. an hourly wage.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 20 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171557_61bb6d2b5523d10 105. Any consequence that follows a behavior and makes a person likely to repeat that behavior is called a(n): a. punishment. b. condition. c. reinforcement. d. observation.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy

REFERENCES:

Page(s) 20 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171558_61bb6d2b5523d10 106. Theorists who promote classical conditioning believe that learned behavior is the result of _____, whereas theorists who promote operant conditioning believe that learned behavior is the result of _____. a. the association between one stimulus and another; past reinforcement b. past reinforcement; the association between one stimulus and another c. observing another person's actions; past reinforcement d. the association between one stimulus and another; observing another person's actions ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 19–20 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171559_61bb6d2b5523d10 107. Social learning theory indicates that learning occurs from: a. the association between one stimulus and another. b. past reinforcement. c. observing and imitating others. d. responding to a particular stimulus.

ANSWER: c

POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

1 Easy Page(s) 20 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171560_61bb6d2b5523d10 108. A person observes the actions of others and copies them. Social learning theorists would call this an example of: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. modeling. d. cognition.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 20 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171561_61bb6d2b5523d10 109. Observational learning is also called: a. classical conditioning. b. operant conditioning. c. modeling.

d. cognition.

ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

c 1 Easy Page(s) 20 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171562_61bb6d2b5523d10 110. Jeremy watches his friend kick a soccer ball into the goal. Later that day, Jeremy finds a soccer ball and proceeds to kick it into the goal. Jeremy most likely engaged in the same behavior as his friend due to: a. classical conditioning. b. modeling. c. operant conditioning. d. reinforcement.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 20 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171563_61bb6d2b5523d11 111. The foundation of cognitive theory is: a. observable behaviors.

b. inner drives and motives. c. a person's thoughts and expectations. d. cultural influence.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 21 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171564_61bb6d2b5523d11 112. _____ was a cognitive theorist. a. Freud b. Watson c. Piaget d. Vygotsky ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 21 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171565_61bb6d2b5523d11 113. With regard to cognitive development, Piaget argued that _____ is more revealing than _____.

a. what children know; how they think b. how children think; what they know c. the cultural context; what children know d. what children know; their cultural context ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 21 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171566_61bb6d2b5523d11 114. Piaget's four stages of cognitive development, in order, are: a. formal operational, concrete operational, preoperational, and sensorimotor. b. preoperational, sensorimotor, formal operational, and concrete operational. c. sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. d. sensorimotor, preoperational, formal operational, and concrete operational.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 21 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171567_61bb6d2b5523d11

115. According to Piaget, intellectual advancement occurs because of cognitive: a. learning. b. resolution. c. equilibrium. d. modeling.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 21 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171568_61bb6d2b5523d11 116. A state of mental balance in which people are not confused because they can use their existing thought processes to understand current experiences and ideas is called: a. social learning. b. conflict resolution. c. cognitive equilibrium. d. information processing.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 21 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM

CUSTOM ID:

question_1171569_61bb6d2b5523d11

117. Irene has never seen a peach before today. As her dad hands it to her, he says that it is a fruit. Irene knows that apples and bananas are fruits and that she likes eating them, so she has a reference for this new experience.

Irene is experiencing: a. social learning. b. operant conditioning. c. guided participation. d. cognitive equilibrium.

ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

d 1 Moderate Page(s) 21 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 1/7/2022 3:44 PM CUSTOM ID: question_1171570_61bb6d2b5523d11 118. According to Piaget, when new experiences are interpreted to fit into old ideas, it is called: a. learning. b. assimilation. c. equilibrium. d. accommodation.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 21 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering

OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171571_61bb6d2b5523d11

119. Sanjay has a small dog at home, so he knows about dogs. He is walking down the street and sees an animal walking toward him. The animal is very large; has four legs, fur, and a tail; and is barking. Sanjay knows that these are characteristics of a dog, given his knowledge of dogs. He quickly concludes that this animal is a dog.

This example illustrates Piaget's concept of: a. operations. b. assimilation. c. equilibrium. d. accommodation.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 21 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171572_61bb6d2b5523d11 120. According to Piaget, when old ideas are restructured to include new experiences, it is called: a. learning. b. assimilation. c. equilibrium. d. accommodation.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 22 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance Theories of Human Development Bloom's: Remembering Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171573_61bb6d2b5523d12

121. Maggie knows a lot about dogs. In fact, dogs are their favorite animal. They are walking down the street and see an animal walking toward them. The animal has four legs, fur, and a tail. Maggie knows that these are characteristics of dogs. But the animal coming toward them is meowing, not barking. Maggie's mom tells them that the animal is a cat. Now when Maggie sees an animal with four legs, a tail, and fur, they will conclude it is a dog if it barks and a cat if it meows, illustrating Piaget's concept of: a. operations. b. assimilation. c. equilibrium. d. accommodation.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 22 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171574_61bb6d2b5523d12 122. With respect to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, the MOST difficult cognitive adaptation of these options is: a. assimilation. b. accommodation. c. sensorimotor behavior. d. equilibrium.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 22

Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171575_61bb6d2b5523d12 123. Approaches to toilet training have changed over time. At one point, it was suggested to parents to postpone toilet training until the child was at least a year old to avoid serious personality problems later on. This view is MOST consistent with: a. psychoanalytic theory. b. cognitive theory. c. behaviorism. d. information-processing theory.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 17 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171576_61bb6d2b5523d12 124. Approaches to toilet training have changed over time. At one point, it was suggested that parents toilettrain whenever they wished, using reinforcement as part of the training. This view is MOST consistent with: a. psychoanalytic theory. b. cognitive theory. c. behaviorism. d. information-processing theory.

ANSWER: c

POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

1 Moderate Page(s) 19 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171577_61bb6d2b5523d12 125. In order to understand the emotions, impulses, and habits of humans over the life span, it is important to understand how those same emotions, impulses, and habits developed within Homo sapiens over the past 100,000 years. This concept is consistent with _____ theory. a. psychoanalytic b. sociocultural c. information-processing d. evolutionary ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 22 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171578_61bb6d2b5523d12 126. Which of these questions would be addressed by an evolutionary theorist? a. At what age do adolescents initiate sexual activity? b. How do social media affect self-esteem in young people? c. Why do pregnant women have morning sickness?

d. What risk factors are associated with the development of Alzheimer's disease in late adulthood?

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 22 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171579_61bb6d2b5523d12 127. According to evolutionary theory, why are so many people afraid of snakes? a. because of daily life-threatening experiences b. because of unconscious memories of childhood experiences with snakes c. because they have learned by watching others react with fear to snakes d. because a fear of snakes helped our ancient ancestors survive ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 22 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171580_61bb6d2b5523d12 128. According to evolutionary theory, every species has two long-standing, biologically-based drives, namely: a. survival and reproduction. b. aggression and sex.

c. hunger satiation and shelter. d. fear and aggression.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 22 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171581_61bb6d2b5523d12 129. For centuries, men have needed a woman to be sexually faithful to ensure that her children are also his offspring. Which theory is MOST consistent with this explanation for faithfulness among romantic partners? a. eclectic theory b. evolutionary theory c. behaviorism d. sociocultural theory ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

b 1 Difficult Page(s) 22 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 1/7/2022 3:45 PM CUSTOM ID: question_1171582_61bb6d2b5523d12 130. _____ theories have made us aware of the impact on development of early-childhood experiences,

remembered or not. a. Psychoanalytic b. Cognitive c. Sociocultural d. Eclectic ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

a 1 Moderate Page(s) 17–18 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171583_61bb6d2b5523d13 131. _____ has/have shown the effect that immediate response, associations, and examples have on learning, moment by moment and over time. a. Psychoanalytic theories b. Cognitive theories c. Sociocultural theories d. Behaviorism ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 19–20 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM

CUSTOM ID:

question_1171584_61bb6d2b5523d13

132. _____ theories have brought an understanding of intellectual processes and how our thoughts and beliefs affect every aspect of our development. a. Psychoanalytic b. Cognitive c. Sociocultural d. Eclectic ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 21–22 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171585_61bb6d2b5523d13 133. Scientific observation allows for the: a. study of individuals' behaviors in a systematic and objective manner. b. determination of cause-and-effect relationships. c. observation of participants without their knowledge. d. systematic manipulation of variables.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171586_61bb6d2b5523d13

134. Which statement about scientific observation is true? a. It requires a large number of participants. b. It requires specialized equipment, such as video recorders. c. It involves recording behavior systematically and objectively. d. It must take place in a lab setting.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171587_61bb6d2b5523d13 135. Experiments allow researchers to: a. study the natural environment. b. study the complexity of an individual. c. use the scientific method in a cost-effective way. d. determine a cause-and-effect relationship.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Theories of Human Development

KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Bloom's: Understanding Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171588_61bb6d2b5523d13

136. When a researcher wants to determine the cause of a particular behavior, the appropriate research method to use is a(n): a. case study. b. meta-analysis. c. experiment. d. survey.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171589_61bb6d2b5523d13 137. A dependent variable is: a. the measured variable that may change depending on manipulation of an independent variable. b. any unmeasured variable that is uncontrolled within the context of the experiment. c. the variable that is intentionally manipulated by the researcher. d. an external variable that cannot be controlled by the researcher.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment Doing Science Bloom's: Remembering Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171590_61bb6d2b5523d13

138. An independent variable is: a. the measured variable that may change depending upon manipulation of a dependent variable. b. any unmeasured variable that is uncontrolled within the context of the experiment. c. the variable that is intentionally manipulated by the researcher. d. an external variable that cannot be controlled by the researcher.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171591_61bb6d2b5523d13 139. An example of a dependent variable in an experiment might be: a. gender. b. blood type. c. eye color. d. level of depression.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1

QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171592_61bb6d2b5523d13 140. In an experiment, the group of participants who receive the imposed treatment or special condition is referred to as the _____ group. a. independent b. dependent c. experimental d. comparison ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171593_61bb6d2b5523d14 141. The purpose of an experiment is to find out whether: a. an independent variable affects the dependent variable. b. a positive correlation can be established. c. the dependent variable can be manipulated. d. the hypothesis is flawed or influenced by researcher bias.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1

DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

Moderate Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171594_61bb6d2b5523d14 142. "_____ research" is a quick way to study the development of a large group of people. a. Experimental b. Survey c. Cohort-sequential d. Longitudinal ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 28 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171595_61bb6d2b5523d14 143. Which of these is a limitation of survey research? a. Participants often drop out of the research. b. It is expensive and time-consuming. c. It requires experimental control. d. Participants may be dishonest in their answers.

ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

d 1 Moderate Page(s) 28 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171596_61bb6d2b5523d14 144. The quickest and least expensive way to study development over time is with _____ research. a. survey b. cross-sectional c. longitudinal d. experimental ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 28 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Moderate OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171597_61bb6d2b5523d14 145. Dr. Clarke wanted to learn whether ice cream preferences change at different stages of development. For the study, they conducted a one-time assessment in which they asked a group of 5-year-olds, a group of 15year-olds, and a group of 30-year-olds to identify their ice cream preferences. Dr. Clarke conducted a _____

study. a. case b. cross-sectional c. longitudinal d. cross-sequential ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

b 1 Moderate Page(s) 28 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171598_61bb6d2b5523d14 146. _____ research involves studying the same individuals over time, as their development is repeatedly assessed. a. Survey b. Cross-sectional c. Longitudinal d. Observational ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 28 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup

DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171599_61bb6d2b5523d14

147. Which is NOT a limitation associated with longitudinal research? a. the aging of the participants b. losing participants over time c. changing historical context d. participants becoming aware of the goals of the study and changing their behaviors or answers ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 28 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171600_61bb6d2b5523d14 148. Which type of research design combines the cross-sectional design with the longitudinal research design? a. cross-sequential b. longitudinal c. meta-sequential d. quasi-experimental ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 29 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science

KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Bloom's: Remembering Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171601_61bb6d2b5523d14

149. A correlation indicates that there is _____ between two variables. a. a causal link b. validity c. reliability d. a relationship ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 31 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171602_61bb6d2b5523d14 150. A correlation is considered to be negative if: a. both variables decrease. b. both variables increase. c. one variable increases, while the other variable decreases. d. change in one variable is unrelated to change in the other variable.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 31 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment Cautions and Challenges from Science Bloom's: Understanding Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171603_61bb6d2b5523d15

151. A correlation is considered to be zero if: a. one variable increases, while the other decreases. b. both variables decrease. c. both variables increase. d. there is no relationship between the variables.

ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 31 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171604_61bb6d2b5523d15 152. The more Joshua eats, the less hungry they feel. The correlation that exists between Joshua's consumption of food and hunger is: a. positive. b. negative. c. zero. d. causal.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 31 Chapter 1

QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171605_61bb6d2b5523d15 153. The more parents read to their children, the higher their children score on achievement tests. This relationship between parents reading to their children and child achievement represents a(n): a. causal relationship. b. inverse correlation. c. positive correlation. d. negative correlation.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 31 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171606_61bb6d2b5523d15 154. If a researcher finds that there is a correlation between secondhand smoke and children's asthma, they know for sure that: a. secondhand smoke causes children's asthma. b. secondhand smoke does not cause children's asthma. c. prenatal exposure to smoking leads to asthma. d. asthma and secondhand smoke have some connection.

ANSWER: d

POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

1 Difficult Page(s) 31 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171607_61bb6d2b5523d15 155. _____ research can be categorized, ranked, or numbered. a. Quantitative b. Qualitative c. Correlational d. Observational ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 31 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171608_61bb6d2b5523d15 156. _____ research involves asking open-ended questions and reporting answers in narrative, not numerical, form. a. Quantitative b. Qualitative

c. Correlational d. Observational ANSWER: POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

b 1 Easy Page(s) 32 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171609_61bb6d2b5523d15 157. _____ research reflects cultural and contextual diversity but is also more vulnerable to bias and harder to replicate. a. Experimental b. Quantitative c. Qualitative d. Longitudinal ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 32 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171610_61bb6d2b5523d15

158. IRB stands for: a. Institutional Review Board. b. International Research Board. c. Internal Review Board. d. Intelligence Research Board.

ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 32 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA3 - Goal 3: Ethical and Social Responsibility in a Diverse World NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171611_61bb6d2b5523d15 159. The MOST important requirement for all scientists, particularly those studying human development, is to: a. have an advanced degree. b. only conduct experimental research. c. uphold ethical standards. d. avoid using vulnerable populations.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 32 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA3 - Goal 3: Ethical and Social Responsibility in a Diverse World NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM

DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171612_61bb6d2b5523d15

160. _____ are essential ethical safeguards. a. Promotion, social awareness, and publication b. Independence, privacy, and funding c. Political correctness, scientific advancement, and medical treatment d. Collaboration, replication, and transparency ANSWER: d POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 33 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA3 - Goal 3: Ethical and Social Responsibility in a Diverse World NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171613_61bb6d2b5523d16 161. To be ethical, researchers should choose topics of study that: a. may be researched quickly. b. may be researched inexpensively. c. can help all people live better lives. d. are politically correct.

ANSWER: c POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 33 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA3 - Goal 3: Ethical and Social Responsibility in a Diverse World NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding

OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Status: pickup 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171614_61bb6d2b5523d16

162. The idea that the various identities need to be combined is known as: a. social construction. b. intersectionality. c. difference-equals-deficit. d. multi-contextual.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 14 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171615_61bb6d2b5523d16 163. The fact that our many identities interact with and influence each other is known as: a. social construction. b. intersectionality. c. difference-equals-deficit. d. multi-contextual.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 14 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

The Life-Span Perspective Bloom's: Remembering Status: new 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171616_61bb6d2b5523d16

164. Who first introduced the term intersectionality? a. Freud b. Crenshaw c. Piaget d. Erikson ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 14 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171617_61bb6d2b5523d16 165. In an experiment, the _____ experiences the particular treatment or condition being examined. a. control group b. experimental group c. cohort group d. selected group ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment Doing Science Bloom's: Remembering Status: new 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1171618_61bb6d2b5523d16

166. In an experiment, the _____ does not experience the particular treatment or condition being examined. a. control group b. experimental group c. cohort group d. selected group ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171619_61bb6d2b5523d16 167. In a study examining the effects of a drug to treat the effects of COVID-19, those who receive the new drug are in the _____, and those who receive a placebo are in the _____. a. experimental group; comparison group b. comparison group; experimental group c. cohort group; control group d. comparison group; control group ANSWER: a POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1

QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171620_61bb6d2b5523d16 168. Dr. Thomas is conducting an experiment on the effects of exposure to sexualized music on consumers. The participants who are exposed to sexualized music are in the: a. control group. b. experimental group. c. cohort group. d. selected group.

ANSWER: b POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171621_61bb6d2b5523d16 169. Dr. Tau is conducting an experiment on the effects of exposure to sexualized music on consumers. The participants who are not exposed to sexualized music are in the: a. experimental group. b. cohort group. c. selected group. d. comparison group.

ANSWER: d

POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

1 Moderate Page(s) 26 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Multiple Choice HAS VARIABLES: False ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1171622_61bb6d2b5523d16 170. List in order and explain each of the five basic steps of the scientific method.

ANSWER: Step 1: Begin with curiosity. Pose a question based on a theory, prior research, or personal observation. Step 2: Develop a hypothesis, which is a specific prediction that can be tested through research. Step 3: Test the hypothesis.

Design and conduct research to gather empirical evidence (data). Step 4: Analyze the evidence gathered in the research. Draw conclusions. Using the evidence gathered in the research, conclude whether the hypothesis is supported or refuted. Step 5: Report the results by sharing the data, conclusions, and alternative explanations with other scientists.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 3–4 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1001 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212737_61bb6d2b5523d17

171. Explain the nature–nurture debate within developmental science, defining both nature and nurture and providing an example of each.

ANSWER: Nature refers to the influence of genes on a person, and nurture refers to environmental influences on a person. Environmental influences include the health and diet of the embryo's mother and continue for an individual's entire life, including experiences in the family, school, community, and society. An example of nature would be inheriting a gene that predisposes one to addiction.

An example of nurture would be having a predisposition to addiction but being raised in a warm, stimulating environment in which parents do not abuse drugs or alcohol, reducing the individual's risk for addiction as a result of not being exposed to abuse or parental addictions. The debate concerns how many of any person's characteristics, behaviors, or emotions are the result of genes and how many are the result of the person's experiences.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 5–6 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised NOTES: Sequence: 1002 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212738_61bb6d2b5523d17 172. Explain what intersectionality means and provide an example of how intersectionality would impact prejudice and discrimination.

ANSWER: Intersectionality is the idea that the various identities need to be combined. Our many identities interact with, and influence, each other. Intersectionality brings special attention to people who are simultaneously in several marginalized groups. Systems of social categorization and group power intersect to influence everyone daily. For instance, a person is more likely to experience ageism if they are a person of color who has a disability.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 14–15 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False

STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: new DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212739_61bb6d2b5523d17 173. Explain differential susceptibility, using the example of maternal depression and children's emotional maturity described in your textbook.

ANSWER: Differential susceptibility refers to the idea that people vary in how sensitive they are to particular experiences. These differences are often genetic. In one study, depression in pregnant women was assessed, and then the emotional maturity of their children was measured. Children who had a particular version of the serotonin transporter gene (5-HTTLPR) were likely to be emotionally immature if their mothers were depressed but more mature than average if their mothers were not depressed.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 6–7 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Understanding How and Why KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1004 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212740_61bb6d2b5523d17 174. Compare and contrast the critical and sensitive periods. Explain each one and provide an example of each.

ANSWER: A critical period is a time when something must occur to ensure normal development, and a sensitive period is a time when a specific developmental task occurs most easily. An example of a critical period would be the fetus's growing arms and legs and hands and feet—this can occur only at a specific time in utero. Language development is an example of a sensitive period. It

occurs most easily at a young age but can still develop at a later age as well.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 8–9 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: revised NOTES: Sequence: 1005 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212741_61bb6d2b5523d17 175. Explain Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems theory and describe his five systems.

ANSWER: Bronfenbrenner's ecological-systems theory is a perspective on human development that considers all the influences from the various contexts of development. This approach recognizes three nested levels as well as two systems that affect these levels. He believed that each person is affected by their social context. Over the course of his career, he identified five systems.

The first is the microsystem (e.g., one's family and peer group), the second is the exosystem (school, clubs, and church), and the third is the macrosystem (larger social setting, such as cultural values and economic policies). The fourth system, called the chronosystem, is the role of historical context, and the fifth system, called the mesosystem, is the interaction that occurs between all the other systems.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 9–10 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective

KEYWORDS: OTHER: NOTES: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

Bloom's: Remembering Status: pickup Sequence: 1006 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1212742_61bb6d2b5523d17

176. Define cohort, explain its effects, and give an example of one.

ANSWER: A cohort is a group of people born within a few years of each other who move through time together. Cohorts travel through life affected by the interaction of their chronological age with the values, events, technologies, and culture of the historical period. Cohort examples will vary but should show an understanding of a cohort. Examples include the names that parents give their babies, views regarding the legalization of marijuana, and even the war on drugs. The babyboom generation is an example of a cohort. Other common examples include the Greatest Generation (people who lived through the Depression and World War II) and the Millennials (Generation Y, born between the early 1980s and the early 2000s). Another example would be Generation X, born between the early 1960s and the early 1980s.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 10–11 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1007 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212743_61bb6d2b5523d17 177. Explain the term SES, including four components of SES. ANSWER: SES, or socioeconomic status, is a person's position in society and is determined by education, occupation, neighborhood, and income.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Easy REFERENCES: Page(s) 11

Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology NAEYC003 - Building Family and Community Relationships NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Remembering OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1008 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212744_61bb6d2b5523d17 178. Describe culture and explain why researchers interested in human development study different cultures.

ANSWER: Culture is the system of shared beliefs, conventions, norms, behaviors, expectations, and symbolic representations that persist over time and prescribe social rules of conduct. Culture is a powerful social construction, or a concept created by a society. Such social constructions affect how people think and act —what they value, praise, ignore, and punish. Different cultures may view the same behaviors or phenomena as either assets or deficits. Therefore, by studying different cultures, researchers can identify which patterns are universal among humans and which occur only in certain cultures. This information provides insights into the effects of different environments.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 12 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1009 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212745_61bb6d2b5523d17 179. Brenda believes that the terms culture, ethnicity, and race mean the same thing and are interchangeable.

Explain why Brenda is incorrect.

ANSWER:

Ethnic groups often share a culture, but not necessarily. There are multiple intersecting and interacting dimensions to ethnic identity. People may share ethnicity but differ culturally. For example, people of Irish descent in Ireland, Australia, and North America may come from several ethnic groups. In another example, African-born people in North America typically consider themselves African, but African people in Africa identify with more specific ethnic groups.

Race refers to people who are regarded by themselves or by others on the basis of their physical appearance, typically skin color. However, social scientists are convinced that race is a social construction and that color terms exaggerate minor differences. For instance, dark-skinned people with African ancestors have high levels of within-population genetic diversity, and many dark-skinned people whose ancestors were not African share neither culture nor ethnicity with Africans.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 12–13 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1010 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 1/7/2022 4:48 PM CUSTOM ID: question_1212746_61bb6d2b5523d17 180. Define and discuss the term plasticity as it relates to human development. What factors influence plasticity in development? Offer at least one example of plasticity that has operated or is operating in your own life.

ANSWER: Plasticity is the molding of human traits while simultaneously maintaining some durability of identity. The concept of plasticity reminds us that human development is an ongoing, ever-changing interaction between the body and mind and between the individual and every aspect of their environment.

Influences that affect plasticity include culture, upbringing, and genes.

Students' examples should relate to some aspect of growth in their individual lives, such as how they—or someone they know—have overcome adversity.

For example, they could discuss how a high-functioning person on the autism spectrum can eventually earn a college degree. (The autism remains [durability], but with school and other societal interventions, the person can still achieve traditional milestones.)

POINTS: 1

DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

Difficult Page(s) 15 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA1 - Goal 1: Knowledge Base in Psychology APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX002 - Psychosocial Integrity TOPICS: The Life-Span Perspective KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1011 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212747_61bb6d2b5523d18 181. Describe similarities between Freud's theory of psychosexual development and Erikson's theory of psychosocial development. Next, describe ways in which these theories differ.

ANSWER: Both Freud and Erikson proposed stage theories based on the belief that adult problems echoed childhood conflicts. However, Erikson's psychosocial theory had eight stages, while Freud's psychosexual theory had five. Erikson named two polarities at each stage, and his stages encompassed the entire life span, while Freud's ended after adolescence. Erikson's theory also emphasized the influence of family and culture, while Freud's theory emphasized unconscious sexual urges.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 17–19 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1012 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212748_61bb6d2b5523d18

182. Describe classical and operant conditioning. Next, identify the researcher who proposed the concept of classical conditioning and the researcher who introduced the idea of operant conditioning.

ANSWER: Classical conditioning is the learning process in which a meaningful stimulus is connected with a neutral stimulus that had no special meaning before conditioning. The person gradually reacts to the neutral stimulus with the same behavior as the meaningful one. Pavlov introduced the concept of classical conditioning. In operant conditioning, a person performs some action, and then a response occurs. If the response is pleasurable, the person is likely to repeat the action. If the response is unpleasant, the person is unlikely to repeat the action. Skinner is associated with operant conditioning.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 19–20 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1013 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212749_61bb6d2b5523d18 183. Explain social learning theory. From where did this theory originate, and what does it emphasize? Next, describe the concept of modeling.

ANSWER: Social learning theory is an extension of behaviorism that emphasizes the influence that other people have over a person's behavior. Even without specific reinforcement, every individual learns many things through observation and imitation of other people. Modeling is the central process of social learning, by which a person observes the actions of others and then copies them.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 20–21 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning

TOPICS: KEYWORDS: OTHER: NOTES: DATE CREATED: DATE MODIFIED: CUSTOM ID:

NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance Theories of Human Development Bloom's: Understanding Status: pickup Sequence: 1014 12/17/2021 11:48 AM 12/17/2021 11:48 AM question_1212750_61bb6d2b5523d18

184. Outline cognitive development according to Piaget's theory and explain what Piaget believed facilitates intellectual advancement.

ANSWER: The four stages are sensorimotor, preoperational, concrete operational, and formal operational. According to Piaget, cognitive equilibrium facilitates intellectual advancement because humans seek mental balance. Disequilibrium can cause cognitive growth if people change their thinking through assimilation or accommodation.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 21–22 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: revised NOTES: Sequence: 1015 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212751_61bb6d2b5523d18 185. Nathalia is a child-care teacher who works primarily with toddlers. Most of the children that Nathalia works with are not yet toilet-trained. Explain the advice a psychoanalyst, behaviorist, and cognitive theorist would give Nathalia regarding their approach to toilet training.

ANSWER:

Psychoanalytic theory identifies the first year of life as the oral stage, which occurs before the anal stage (years 1–3). Thus, psychoanalytic theorists believe that toilet training should be postponed until the child is cognitively, emotionally, and biologically ready—around age 2 for daytime training and age 3 for nighttime dryness.

A behaviorist would argue that toilet training should occur whenever the parent (or adult) wishes to start, not at a particular age. Praise and reward should be

used each time the child uses the toilet, as they will increase the likelihood that the child will successfully use the toilet in the future.

A cognitive theorist would suggest that a parent (or adult) wait until the child can understand reasons to urinate and defecate in the toilet.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 17–22 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1016 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 1/7/2022 3:42 PM CUSTOM ID: question_1212752_61bb6d2b5523d18 186. List and describe the four theories that have contributed to our understanding of human development.

ANSWER: Psychoanalytic theory has made scientists aware of the importance of social and emotional experiences during early childhood. Behavioral theory (or behaviorism) has shown the effect that immediate responses and associations have on human learning. Cognitive theory helps scientists understand how intellectual processes and thinking affect people's actions. Evolutionary theory suggests that human impulses need to be recognized before they can be guided.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 17–22 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC002 - Promoting Child Development and Learning NCLEX003 - Health Promotion and Maintenance TOPICS: Theories of Human Development KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1017 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM

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187. Imagine that you are interested in the relationship between age and reading ability for children of ages 8 to 12 years. Briefly define the cross-sectional design and summarize how you could test this relationship using that design.

ANSWER:

A cross-sectional design compares groups of people of one age with at least one other group of people of another age at a specific point in time. Although the people differ in age, they should be similar in other important characteristics. It is faster than a longitudinal study, because all the data are immediately available. Ideally, the participants should be matched at the same socioeconomic level.

To implement a cross-sectional design that examines age and reading ability, first identify two groups of children: 8-year-olds and 12-year-olds. Second, evaluate each individual child's reading ability. Finally, compare the children from each group, and look for differences in reading ability.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Difficult REFERENCES: Page(s) 28 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Doing Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Applying OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1018 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 1/7/2022 3:43 PM CUSTOM ID: question_1212754_61bb6d2b5523d18 188. Define correlation and give an example. Can one determine cause and effect from correlations? Explain why or why not.

ANSWER: A correlation exists between two variables when one variable changes (increases or decreases) as the other variable changes. Examples will vary but should illustrate this concept, such as the relationship between increased ice cream sales and higher murder rates. It is impossible to determine cause and effect from correlations, because even though correlations indicate a connection between two variables, they cannot determine the reason for the connection, since no other variables are controlled. In the example above, both ice cream sales and murder rates increase at the same time. Therefore, a third

variable—heat—may explain this relationship.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 31 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1019 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM CUSTOM ID: question_1212755_61bb6d2b5523d18 189. Differentiate quantitative research from qualitative research. What are the benefits of using qualitative research in developmental psychology?

ANSWER: Quantitative research provides data that can be expressed with numbers, such as ranks or scales. Qualitative research, in contrast, relies on open-ended questions, and information is presented in narrative rather than numerical form.

Many developmental researchers rely on quantitative research as it reflects cultural and contextual diversity.

POINTS: DIFFICULTY: REFERENCES:

1 Moderate Page(s) 31–32 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1020

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190. What are ethics, and why are ethical standards so important to scientific research?

ANSWER:

Ethics are a set of moral principles and specific practices that protect both participants and the integrity of research. Ethical standards provide study participants with the assurance of informed consent; the knowledge that their participation is voluntary and confidential; and the promise that they will not be harmed.

Ethics are also a vital part of the reporting process after the research has been conducted. Reports of findings should be accurate, and the study should be able to be replicated under the same conditions. Collaboration, replication, and transparency are essential ethical safeguards for all scientists.

POINTS: 1 DIFFICULTY: Moderate REFERENCES: Page(s) 32–33 Chapter 1 QUESTION TYPE: Essay HAS VARIABLES: False STUDENT ENTRY MODE: Complete ACCREDITING STANDARDS: APA2 - Goal 2: Scientific Inquiry and Critical Thinking APA4 - Goal 4: Communication NAEYC001 - Observing, Documenting, and Assessing to Support Young Children and Families NCLEX001 - Safe and Effective Care Environment TOPICS: Cautions and Challenges from Science KEYWORDS: Bloom's: Understanding OTHER: Status: pickup NOTES: Sequence: 1021 DATE CREATED: 12/17/2021 11:48 AM DATE MODIFIED: 1/7/2022 3:43 PM CUSTOM ID: question_1212757_61bb6d2b5523d19

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Chapter 2 1. Each human body cell contains _____ chromosomes. a. 46 pairs of b. 46 c. 23 d. 20 pairs of ANSWER: b 2. Copy number variations are _____ as common as variations in single genes. a. twice b. at least five times c. at least twice d. six times ANSWER: b 3. The full set of genes that provide the instructions for making living organisms is called the: a. phenotype. b. zygote. c. genome. d. allele.

ANSWER: c 4. Each human has a total of about _____ genes. a. 10,000 b. 20,000 c. 30,000 d. 40,000 ANSWER: b 5. When a zygote duplicates but fails to completely split, _____ occur. a. monozygotic twins b. dizygotic twins c. conjoined twins d. fraternal twins ANSWER: c 6. When is the only time that two cells become one? a. implantation b. epigenetic development c. conception d. methylation ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 7. What usually occurs in a woman's fallopian tubes? a. implantation b. epigenetic development c. conception d. methylation ANSWER: c 8. One aspect of both nature and nurture that profoundly affects each person is the _____, which refers to all bacteria that live within every part of the body. a. genome b. allele c. microbiome d. zygote ANSWER: c 9. A variation that makes a gene different in some way from other genes for the same characteristics is a(n): a. chromosome. b. zygote. c. genotype. d. allele.

ANSWER: d 10. The process of methylation can do all of these to genetic instructions EXCEPT to _____ them. a. alter b. connect c. remove d. transcribe ANSWER: c 11. Head-to-tail is to _____ as near-to-far is to _____. a. cephalocaudal; proximodistal b. genotype; phenotype c. phenotype; genotype d. proximodistal; cephalocaudal ANSWER: a 12. Dr. Margo studies how environmental factors affect gene expression. They study: a. atypical longevity. b. sociobiology. c. human pathogenesis.

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Chapter 2 d. epigenetics.

ANSWER: d 13. The single cell formed from the union of two gametes, a sperm and an ovum, is called a: a. chromosome. b. phenotype. c. genotype. d. zygote.

ANSWER: d 14. Every human begins life as a single cell, which is called a: a. chromosome. b. zygote. c. genotype. d. genome.

ANSWER: b 15. Humans have 23 pairs of _____, which contain the instructions to make the proteins needed for life and growth. a. chromosomes b. alleles c. genotypes d. zygotes ANSWER: a 16. The instructions for making amino acids are on about 3 billion pairs of chemicals called "_____ pairs." a. couple b. foundation c. base d. copy ANSWER: c 17. An individual's entire genetic inheritance is called a(n): a. phenotype. b. allele. c. genotype. d. gamete.

ANSWER: c 18. In 22 of the 23 pairs of chromosomes, both members of the pair are closely matched. Each of these 44 chromosomes is called a(n): Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 a. allele. b. gamete. c. autosome. d. blastocyst.

ANSWER: c 19. When researchers see and explain gender differences in the absence of data, they are engaging in: a. epigenetics. b. neurosexism. c. methylation. d. copy number variations.

ANSWER: b 20. When a person has a gender identity and/or expression that does not match their physical or sexual characteristics, they are said to be: a. cisgender. b. heterosexual. c. transgender. d. intersex.

ANSWER: c 21. Individual A's 23rd pair of chromosomes is XX. Individual A is: a. male. b. female. c. neither male nor female. d. both male and female.

ANSWER: b 22. Individual A's 23rd pair of chromosomes is XY. Individual A is: a. male. b. female. c. neither male nor female. d. both male and female.

ANSWER: a 23. On the 23rd pair of chromosomes, males have: a. two X chromosomes. b. two Y chromosomes. c. an X chromosome and a Y chromosome. d. just a Y chromosome.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 24. On the 23rd pair of chromosomes, females have: a. two X chromosomes. b. two Y chromosomes. c. an X chromosome and a Y chromosome. d. just a Y chromosome.

ANSWER: a 25. Males have one X and one Y on: a. each sperm. b. on the 43rd chromosome. c. the 23rd pair of chromosomes. d. each stem cell.

ANSWER: c 26. Jenninda and Sam are having a baby and are hoping for a girl. The baby's sex will be decided by the chromosomes of: a. the mother. b. the father. c. both the mother and the father. d. neither the mother nor the father.

ANSWER: b 27. Brad learned in his college biology class that, with respect to the sex chromosomes, the: a. Y chromosome is larger than the X chromosome and has more genes. b. X chromosome is larger than the Y chromosome and has more genes. c. X and Y chromosomes are the same size, but the X chromosome has more genes. d. X and Y chromosomes are the same size and have the same number of genes.

ANSWER: b 28. When a person is born with sex chromosomes, external genitalia, or an internal reproductive system not considered standard for males or females, they are said to be: a. cisgender. b. heterosexual. c. transgender. d. intersex.

ANSWER: d 29. Areas on the top of the newborn head where the skull bones have not yet fused are called: a. fontanels. b. alleles.

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Chapter 2 c. teratogens. d. chromosomes.

ANSWER: a 30. Identical twins are also called _____ twins. a. monozygotic b. dizygotic c. zygotic d. gamete ANSWER: a 31. James and Jacob are identical twins. They are the result of: a. one ovum fertilized by one sperm that splits into two zygotes. b. two separate ova that were fertilized by two different sperm. c. one ovum that was fertilized by two sperm. d. two ova that were fertilized by one sperm.

ANSWER: a 32. Miguel is in need of an organ donation. Which organ donor would be the BEST match for Miguel? a. their grandparent b. their younger sibling c. James, their dizygotic twin d. Hernando, their monozygotic twin ANSWER: d 33. Fraternal twins are also called _____ twins. a. monozygotic b. dizygotic c. zygotic d. gamete ANSWER: b 34. Jennifer and Jerry are dizygotic twins. They are the result of: a. one ovum fertilized by one sperm that splits into two zygotes. b. two separate ova that were fertilized by two different sperm. c. one ovum that was fertilized by two sperm. d. two ova that were fertilized by one sperm.

ANSWER: b 35. Which of these women is MOST likely to have dizygotic twins? a. Pallavi, who is Korean Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 b. Oluchi, who is Nigerian c. Mei, who is Chinese d. Marissa, who is American ANSWER: b 36. Which of these women is MOST likely to conceive dizygotic twins? a. Ashleigh, who is 20 b. Brianna, who is 27 c. Paige, who is 30 d. Alicia, who is 35 ANSWER: d 37. Dizygotic twins have _____ of their genes in common. a. 25 percent b. 50 percent c. 75 percent d. 100 percent ANSWER: b 38. The _____ is a person's appearance, personality, intelligence, and all other traits. a. phenotype b. allele c. genotype d. gamete ANSWER: a 39. Vince and Juan are playing basketball. Vince shoots the ball, and Juan blocks the shot. Vince says, "Wow, I didn't realize how tall you were until you did that!" Vince's comment refers to Juan's: a. phenotype. b. allele. c. genotype. d. gamete.

ANSWER: a 40. An individual's phenotype describes all these EXCEPT an individual's: a. genetic potential. b. appearance. c. personality. d. intelligence.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 41. Almost every trait is _____, which means it is affected by many genes. a. polygenic b. nonadditive c. X-linked d. monozygotic ANSWER: a 42. Nancy rushed into the house after school and announced to their parents, "My personality is _____! So many genes make me who I am!" a. polygenic b. nonadditive c. multifactorial d. monozygotic ANSWER: a 43. _____ enable the fetal head to become narrower as it moves through the vagina during birth. a. Fontanels b. Alleles c. Teratogens d. Chromosomes ANSWER: a 44. One in 10,000 newborns have three chromosomes at the 13th site resulting in: a. Turner syndrome. b. Down syndrome. c. Patau syndrome. d. Edwards syndrome.

ANSWER: c 45. Epigenetics means that a trait is determined by: a. genes alone. b. the environment alone. c. genes and the environment. d. genes more than the environment.

ANSWER: c 46. Wayne has inherited genes that put them at risk for developing diabetes, but they never develop diabetes due to a healthy diet and exercise. This example demonstrates that human characteristics, including diabetes, are: a. polygenic. b. nonadditive. c. continuous.

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Chapter 2 d. epigenetic.

ANSWER: d 47. Deficits caused by _____ are the most common form of inherited intellectual disability. a. Turner syndrome b. Down syndrome c. Patau syndrome d. fragile X syndrome ANSWER: d 48. Maggie is pregnant with their first child and recently learned that they had contracted COVID-19. What is a major concern regarding the pregnancy? a. the level of testosterone in the blood b. the amount of the hormone oxytocin c. the level of estrogen in the system d. the amount of oxygen supplied to the fetal brain ANSWER: d 49. When the effects of genes combine to create the phenotype, they are called "_____ genes." a. dominant b. recessive c. additive d. nonadditive ANSWER: c 50. Alisha learned from their science teacher that their height resulted from about 700 genes, each contributing a tiny amount of genetic information. This means that their height is due to: a. additive genes. b. dominant genes. c. recessive genes. d. nonadditive genes.

ANSWER: a 51. The interaction of a heterozygous pair of alleles in such a way that the phenotype reflects one allele more than the other is referred to as a(n): a. additive pattern. b. multifactorial pattern. c. dominant and recessive pattern. d. polygenic pattern.

ANSWER: c 52. Brown-eyed Inez has a blue-eyed mother and a brown-eyed father. In this case, their brown eyes were Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 determined by a _____ allele. a. dominant b. recessive c. dominant and recessive d. dizygotic ANSWER: a 53. Lara has a recessive gene in their genotype that is not expressed in their phenotype. Lara is a(n) _____ of that gene. a. recipient b. carrier c. expressor d. reactor ANSWER: b 54. _____ refers to a gene carried on the X chromosome. a. X-linked b. Polygenic c. Multifactorial d. Recessive ANSWER: a 55. Nate is color-blind. Their gene for color blindness is MOST likely a: a. dominant gene on their X chromosome. b. dominant gene on their Y chromosome. c. recessive gene on their X chromosome. d. recessive gene on their Y chromosome.

ANSWER: c 56. _____ are more likely to be carriers of X-linked traits, and _____ are more likely to express them. a. Females; males b. Females; females c. Males; females d. Males; males ANSWER: a 57. Genes with various repeats or deletions of base pairs are referred to as: a. polymorphic. b. autosomes. c. polygenic. d. copy number variations.

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Chapter 2 ANSWER: d 58. Brian was born with a condition in which the tail of the spine was not enclosed properly. This is known as: a. Turner syndrome. b. spina bifida. c. anencephaly. d. fragile X syndrome.

ANSWER: b 59. Danielle is doing a presentation on prenatal development. Their presentation will focus on these three periods, in the order of: a. embryonic, germinal, and fetal. b. fetal, embryonic, and germinal. c. germinal, embryonic, and fetal. d. germinal, fetal, and embryonic.

ANSWER: c 60. During the _____ period of prenatal development, the placenta must achieve implantation. a. germinal b. embryonic c. fetal d. conception ANSWER: a 61. During the germinal period, the first task of the zygote's outer cells is: a. differentiation. b. duplication. c. germination. d. implantation.

ANSWER: d 62. About _____ percent of all zygotes do not grow or implant properly and thus do not survive the germinal period. a. 10 b. 25 c. 65 d. 75 ANSWER: c 63. About a week after conception, the outer layer of the multiplying cells forms a protective circle, or shell, that will become the: a. placenta.

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Chapter 2 b. umbilical cord. c. vernix. d. infant.

ANSWER: a 64. The germinal period ends approximately _____ after conception. a. two days b. three months c. two weeks d. 12 weeks ANSWER: c 65. Jazmine just learned that they are seven weeks pregnant. They are in the _____ period of prenatal development. a. germinal b. embryonic c. fetal d. third ANSWER: b 66. The _____ period lasts from the third week through the eighth week of pregnancy. a. germinal b. embryonic c. fetal d. viability ANSWER: b 67. Which of these structures develops first during the period of the embryo? a. the neural tube b. the primitive streak c. the upper arms d. the placenta ANSWER: b 68. During the embryonic period, the neural tube will become the: a. reproductive organs. b. intestinal tract. c. backbone, legs, and arms. d. brain and spinal cord.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 69. Claire was born with part of the brain missing. This is known as: a. Turner syndrome. b. spina bifida. c. anencephaly. d. fragile X syndrome.

ANSWER: c 70. The longest period of prenatal development is the _____ period. a. embryonic b. fetal c. proximodistal d. germinal ANSWER: b 71. The third period of gestation is the _____ period. a. zygotic b. embryonic c. germinal d. fetal ANSWER: d 72. By the end of the _____ prenatal month, sex organs develop and are soon visible via ultrasound. a. second b. third c. fourth d. fifth ANSWER: b 73. The _____ is the age at which a fetus might survive outside the mother's uterus if specialized medical care is available. a. germinal period b. embryonic period c. fetal age indicator d. age of viability ANSWER: d 74. The age of viability occurs at about _____ weeks after conception. a. 16 b. 18 c. 22 d. 26 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 ANSWER: c 75. Which hormone starts labor? a. oxytocin b. testosterone c. estrogen d. norepinephrine ANSWER: a 76. Within hours after conception, the first 23 pairs of chromosomes within the zygote _____, forming two complete sets of genes. a. atrophy b. duplicate c. differentiate d. detach ANSWER: b 77. A form of newborn care in which mothers rest their babies on their naked chests is referred to as: a. the mother–infant bond. b. allele parenting. c. kangaroo care. d. attachment parenting.

ANSWER: c 78. After about the eight-cell stage within the zygote, cells start to _____, meaning that they take dissimilar forms and reproduce at various rates, depending on where they are located. a. divide b. duplicate c. differentiate d. detach ANSWER: c 79. Sammy loves to share information that they have learned from science class with their parents. Sammy comes home one day and, at dinner, tells the family about cell differentiation. Sammy correctly tells them that once cells differentiate: a. they can still specialize and take different forms. b. only cells in the brain can still transform into different cells. c. they can transform into stem cells. d. they can no longer specialize and take different forms.

ANSWER: d 80. Which mother is at greatest risk of having a child with a chromosomal abnormality?

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Chapter 2 a. a 15-year-old mother b. a 25-year-old mother c. a 35-year-old mother d. a 45-year-old mother ANSWER: d 81. The MOST common extra-chromosome condition is: a. Down syndrome. b. nearsightedness. c. fragile X syndrome. d. Tourette syndrome.

ANSWER: a 82. Down syndrome is also called: a. trisomy-12. b. trisomy-13. c. trisomy-21. d. trisomy-31.

ANSWER: c 83. An individual with an extra chromosome on the 21st pair of chromosomes has: a. Down syndrome. b. nearsightedness. c. fragile X syndrome. d. Tourette syndrome.

ANSWER: a 84. About 1 in every _____ infants is born with only one sex chromosome or with three or more, which creates a chromosomal abnormality. a. 100 b. 300 c. 500 d. 700 ANSWER: b 85. MOST of the known single-gene disorders are: a. recessive. b. dominant. c. difficult to identify. d. additive.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 86. Which of these is an example of a single-gene disorder that is dominant? a. Down syndrome b. nearsightedness c. fragile X syndrome d. Huntington's disease ANSWER: d 87. A fatal central nervous system disorder caused by more than 35 repetitions of a particular set of three base pairs is: a. Down syndrome. b. nearsightedness. c. fragile X syndrome. d. Huntington's disease.

ANSWER: d 88. The cognitive deficits caused by the genetic condition of _____ are the MOST common form of inherited intellectual disability. a. Down syndrome b. nearsightedness c. fragile X syndrome d. Huntington's disease ANSWER: c 89. MOST recessive genetic disorders are: a. on the autosomes. b. X-linked. c. additive. d. polygenic.

ANSWER: a 90. Consultation and testing by trained experts that enables individuals to learn about their heritability, including harmful conditions they could pass along to any children they might conceive, is referred to as: a. couples counseling. b. marriage counseling. c. genetic counseling. d. individual counseling.

ANSWER: c 91. Individuals who may especially benefit from preconception, prenatal, or even prenuptial (before marriage) genetic counseling include all of these EXCEPT: a. women over age 35 and men over age 40.

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Chapter 2 b. couples who are infertile. c. couples who have had several spontaneous abortions or stillbirths. d. women who are younger than 25 and men who are younger than 30.

ANSWER: d 92. A teratogen is any agent or condition that increases the risk for: a. prenatal abnormalities. b. damage to the placenta. c. extra chromosomes. d. male infertility.

ANSWER: a 93. Gwen just found out that they are expecting and consults with the doctor about the different categories of teratogens. The doctor will say that all of these are categories of teratogens EXCEPT: a. drugs. b. pollutants. c. immunizations. d. viruses.

ANSWER: c 94. Trevor is 5 years old. They have been diagnosed with ADHD and show signs of learning problems related to math and writing. Their pediatrician suggests that Trevor's problems could be the result of prenatal exposure to _____, though the pediatrician stresses that the link is not straightforward at this time. a. caffeine b. high levels of fat c. cell differentiation d. behavioral teratogens ANSWER: d 95. With respect to prenatal development, teratogens _____ prenatal abnormalities. a. increase the risk of b. decrease the risk of c. always cause d. do not cause ANSWER: a 96. Drugs, viruses, pollutants, malnutrition, and stress during pregnancy are referred to as: a. threshold effects. b. risk factors. c. teratogens. d. vulnerability factors.

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Chapter 2 ANSWER: c 97. Anya and her husband are considering having a baby. Anya's obstetrician recommends that she stop consuming alcohol and update her immunizations: a. before she gets pregnant. b. as soon as she knows she is pregnant. c. anytime during the first trimester of pregnancy. d. as soon as the baby is born.

ANSWER: a 98. Olivia is pregnant, yet still has four alcoholic drinks each day. The baby may be at increased risk for the development of _____ syndrome. a. fetal alcohol b. embryonic alcohol c. Turner d. Reye ANSWER: a 99. A woman carrying dizygotic twins drinks alcohol. The twins' blood alcohol levels are equal, yet one twin may be more severely affected than the other because their alleles for the enzyme that metabolizes alcohol differ. This is evidence that the _____ influence(s) the effects of teratogens. a. age of the embryo/fetus b. genes of the parent c. genes of the embryo/fetus d. doses of teratogen ANSWER: c 100. Low folic acid during pregnancy can result in: a. heart defects. b. lung defects. c. limb deformities. d. neural-tube defects.

ANSWER: d 101. Deedra is pregnant and wants to ensure that they do their part to prevent the occurrence of a neural-tube defect in the child. Deedra makes sure that they have the correct amount of _____ in their diet. a. vitamin D b. zinc c. folic acid d. vitamin K ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 102. Genetic counseling may be MOST useful to parents at which of these stages? a. before becoming pregnant b. during the last month of pregnancy c. during delivery d. after the birth of a child with intellectual disability ANSWER: a 103. A common reason that couples do not seek genetic counseling is that: a. they are fertile. b. they already eat a well-balanced diet. c. they are from different ethnic groups. d. they are well over the age of 35.

ANSWER: a 104. Babies born under 1,000 grams (2 pounds, 3 ounces) are considered: a. low birthweight. b. very low birthweight. c. extremely low birthweight. d. small for gestational age.

ANSWER: c 105. Babies born slightly under 1,500 grams (3 pounds 5 ounces) are considered _____ birthweight. a. low b. very-low c. extremely-low d. average ANSWER: b 106. Baby Danny weighed 2 pounds, 8 ounces at birth. Danny would be classified as _____ birthweight. a. low b. very-low c. extremely-low d. average ANSWER: b 107. Newborns born to migrants are generally healthier in every way, including birthweight, than newborns of U.S.-born women. This phenomenon is called the: a. sociocultural paradox. b. immigrant paradox. c. ethnic anomaly. d. cultural enigma.

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Chapter 2 ANSWER: b 108. A baby born two or more weeks early is called: a. premature. b. preterm. c. low birthweight. d. small for gestational age.

ANSWER: b 109. A baby whose birthweight is significantly lower than expected given the time since conception is referred to as: a. preterm. b. premature. c. low birthweight. d. small for gestational age.

ANSWER: d 110. Juan and Juliana moved to the United States from Mexico two years ago and just had their first baby.

Although Juan and Juliana's SES is lower than that of their native-born peers, their baby was born at a healthy weight. This phenomenon is called the _____ paradox. a. immigrant b. refugee c. native-born d. SES ANSWER: a 111. Adults who were low-birthweight babies have an increased risk of developing: a. diabetes. b. malnutrition. c. normal-range weight. d. obesity.

ANSWER: a 112. The frequency of low birthweight in the United States is: a. increasing. b. stabilizing. c. among the highest in the world. d. decreasing.

ANSWER: a 113. Which of these statements about international rates of low birthweight is true? a. The U.S. rate is higher than that of virtually every other developed nation.

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Chapter 2 b. Japan has the lowest rate of low-birthweight babies in the world. c. Germany, Denmark, and Australia have higher rates of low-birthweight babies than the United States. d. Canada, Sweden, and the United States have the lowest rate of low-birthweight babies in the world.

ANSWER: a 114. Statistically, which woman is at the greatest risk for having a low-birthweight baby? a. Amber, who is 27 years old and middle class b. Jody, who has been diagnosed with diabetes c. Cloie, who regularly misses meals d. Delfina, who is a Hispanic immigrant ANSWER: c 115. In the United States, which is NOT a potential reason for the rise in the frequency of low-birthweight babies? a. food insecurity b. drug use c. cigarette use d. genetic factors ANSWER: d 116. Janet, pregnant for the first time, wonders how long it will take to deliver the baby. You can tell Janet that for first births, the average baby is born after _____ hours of active labor. a. 7 b. 11 c. 12 d. 20 ANSWER: c 117. At around 38 weeks after conception, the _____ starts the sequence of events that prepares the fetus for delivery and starts labor. a. fetal brain b. maternal brain c. placenta d. amniotic sac ANSWER: a 118. In MOST cases, newborns: a. are unable to breathe on their own. b. do not cry until the umbilical cord is cut. c. breathe and cry on their own immediately.

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Chapter 2 d. breathe on their own and cry when the umbilical cord is cut.

ANSWER: c 119. A person who supports a mother through the birth process from early labor at home through delivery at home or in a hospital is called a: a. humanitarian. b. doctor. c. postpartum nurse. d. doula.

ANSWER: d 120. Today, _____ are likely to arrive at a pregnant woman's home during early labor and later work alongside hospital staff. a. doulas b. birthing coaches c. physicians' assistants d. neonatal support teams ANSWER: a 121. Abigail went into labor at home. Kristy arrived soon after and began to time the contractions and give gentle massages. She assisted Abigail and their partner when it was time to leave for the hospital and accompanied them through the birth process. Kristy was Abigail's: a. postpartum nurse. b. doctor. c. couvade. d. doula.

ANSWER: d 122. A surgical birth, in which incisions through the mother's abdomen and uterus allow the fetus to be removed quickly, is also referred to as a(n): a. epidural. b. cesarean section. c. induced labor. d. doula.

ANSWER: b 123. In the United States, more than _____ of births occur via c-section. a. one-third b. one-half c. two-thirds d. three-fourths ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 124. The Apgar scale is used at one minute and five minutes after birth to: a. evaluate the newborn's sensory abilities. b. evaluate the health of the new mother. c. help the mother recover from childbirth. d. evaluate the health of the newborn.

ANSWER: d 125. Newborn Kendra received an Apgar score of 4. This score indicates that Kendra is: a. healthy and responsive. b. in need of emergency care. c. slightly lethargic but in good condition. d. hungry, cold, and irritable.

ANSWER: b 126. A baby is assessed at one minute after birth using the Apgar scale. Three of the five vital signs are good, but the baby is weak and inactive and does not grimace. The two vital signs the medical team is concerned about are: a. muscle tone and heartbeat. b. respiratory effect and color. c. muscle tone and reflexes. d. reflex irritability and respiratory effect.

ANSWER: c 127. By age 3, children born by cesarean section are more likely to: a. exhibit behavioral problems, such as hyperactivity. b. have learning and motor difficulties. c. be diagnosed with autism. d. be obese.

ANSWER: d 128. Compared to vaginal births, c-section births: a. are less expensive. b. increase the risk of complications after birth. c. usually take longer. d. are less safe for the baby.

ANSWER: b 129. Vicki was two weeks over the due date. The doctor decided it was BEST for Vicki to _____ labor due to the increasing size of the fetus. a. postpone b. induce Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 c. forego d. decrease ANSWER: b 130. In which of these countries are home births MOST common? a. United States b. Canada c. England d. Netherlands ANSWER: d 131. The day after birth, Eric was given a test that measures responsiveness and records 46 behaviors, including 20 reflexes that maintain the oxygen supply, maintain constant body temperature, and manage feeding. This test is called the: a. Apgar scale. b. Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale. c. Bayley Infant Neurological Screener. d. Denver Developmental Screening.

ANSWER: b 132. Which of these is NOT an example of a newborn reflex? a. sneezing b. sucking c. sleeping d. stepping ANSWER: c 133. Carly just gave birth to her first child two weeks ago. Thomas, Carly's husband, has noticed that Carly is unable to sleep, talks excessively, and seems extremely concerned that something is wrong with the baby, despite being reassured by the doctor. Carly's behavior may indicate that she is experiencing: a. postpartum depression. b. bipolar depression. c. schizophrenia. d. a dissociative episode.

ANSWER: a 134. Postpartum depression: a. is a normal development and no cause for concern. b. has no treatment. c. does not typically interfere with the care of a newborn. d. can be mitigated by successful breast-feeding.

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Chapter 2 ANSWER: d 135. While Li's wife was pregnant, he experienced weight gain and indigestion. When she gave birth, he felt sharp physical pain as well. He was experiencing: a. postpartum depression. b. couvade. c. false labor. d. the Moro reflex.

ANSWER: b 136. Alicia had a baby three weeks ago and has been feeling sad and inadequate as a mother. This has made caring for the baby challenging. Alicia may be experiencing: a. posttraumatic stress disorder. b. postpartum depression. c. generalized anxiety disorder. d. separation anxiety.

ANSWER: b 137. Nadia just had a baby and now is experiencing a sense of inadequacy and sadness. Nadia may have: a. couvade. b. separation anxiety. c. a psychotic episode. d. postpartum depression.

ANSWER: d 138. Studies indicate that _____ may mitigate maternal depression. a. breast-feeding b. having a home birth c. couvade d. epidurals ANSWER: a 139. Paternal experiences of pregnancy and birth called _____ are expected in some cultures, a normal variation in many, and considered pathological in others. a. shenkui b. Saora disorder c. biological paradox d. couvade ANSWER: d 140. Define genotype and phenotype, explain the impact of both on an individual's traits, and give an example of each.

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Chapter 2 ANSWER: Genotype refers to the collection of genes a person carries in their DNA. For example, a person may carry a gene for red hair without having red hair. Phenotype is a person's actual appearance and behavior. In addition to the genes a person inherits, epigenetic factors and the interaction among genes determine the actual traits that are expressed in each person. For example, a person may carry a gene for depression that only gets expressed if that person experiences a harsh childhood environment.

141. Describe how a zygote's sex is determined at conception.

ANSWER: A zygote's sex is determined by the 23rd set of chromosomes. If the set contains two X chromosomes, then the zygote is determined to be female. If it contains an X and a Y, then the zygote is determined to be male. The mother's egg cell is always an X. Therefore, the father's sperm determines the sex of the zygote, since the sperm can carry either an X or a Y chromosome.

142. Describe the difference between monozygotic and dizygotic twins, including how each type of twin is conceived.

ANSWER: Monozygotic twins result when one ovum is fertilized by one sperm, and the zygote splits into two separate zygotes. This results in two identical zygotes that are eventually born as identical twins.

Dizygotic, or fraternal, twins result when two ova are fertilized by two different sperm.

143. Explain how color blindness is inherited and why it is much more common in one sex than the other.

ANSWER: Color blindness is an X-linked recessive gene. This means that it is always passed on from a mother on the X chromosome. Since boys have one X and one Y chromosomes, they inherit one recessive gene on the X chromosome and have no dominant chromosome to overpower it on the Y chromosome. This makes them much more apt to be color-blind. Girls have two X chromosomes.

This means that they will usually have a dominant gene on the other X chromosome. Thus, they may carry the trait but will not experience it themselves.

144. Briefly describe differentiation and when it begins. Give at least two examples of cell differentiation.

ANSWER: At approximately the eight-cell stage of a zygote, although duplication and division continue, a process called differentiation starts. In differentiation, cells specialize, taking different forms and reproducing at various rates, depending on where they are located. For instance, some cells become part of an eye, others part of a finger, and still others part of the brain.

145. What are the fontanels and how do they aid birth?

ANSWER: Fontanels are areas on the top of the newborn head where the skull bones have not yet fused. They enable the fetal head to become narrower as it moves through the vagina during birth. During the first weeks of life, the fontanels gradually close so the skull protects the entire brain. Preterm babies have larger fontanels, making them vulnerable to brain damage.

146. Describe the germinal period, embryonic period, and fetal period of prenatal development. Identify the length of each period, including the major developmental milestones that occur during each.

ANSWER: The first two weeks (14 days) of prenatal development are the germinal period. During this time, the zygote undergoes cell duplication and differentiation. The major milestone is the transformation of the zygote into a blastocyst, which forms the embryo and placenta, enabling implantation in the uterus. The embryonic period lasts from the third through the eighth prenatal week (days 14 to 56).

The major developmental milestones are body structure and system formation, including a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 rudimentary central nervous system and circulatory system. The fetal period starts at the ninth prenatal week and ends at birth. Fetal growth, sex organs, and refinement of all the body structures and systems are the major developmental accomplishments.

147. What makes Down syndrome a chromosomal condition? There are 11 characteristics that are often associated with Down syndrome. List four of these characteristics.

ANSWER: Down syndrome occurs when a person has three copies of chromosome 21. Some 300 distinct characteristics can result from that third chromosome 21. No individual with Down syndrome is identical to another, but the syndrome usually produces (1) a thick tongue, (2) a round face, (3) slanted eyes, (4) distinctive hands, (5) distinctive feet, and (6) distinctive fingerprints. Many people with Down syndrome also have (7) hearing problems, (8) heart abnormalities, (9) muscle weakness, and (10) short stature. They are (11) slower to develop intellectually, especially in language.

148. Identify three recessive conditions that are X-linked. Which condition results in cognitive deficits that are the most common forms of inherited intellectual disability?

ANSWER: Three recessive conditions that are X-linked are (1) hemophilia, (2) Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and (3) fragile X syndrome. The cognitive deficits caused by fragile X syndrome are the most common form of inherited intellectual disability.

149. Tad and Valessa, married for two years, have been talking about starting a family. Tad knows that he has some health conditions in his family, including autism and dementia. Valessa's uncle died of Huntington's disease, and her grandmother suffered from schizophrenia. Tad and Valessa want to determine their risk of passing on one or more of these disorders to their children if they decide to conceive. What type of professional would help answer their questions? Explain what they can expect to learn.

ANSWER: Tad and Valessa would likely visit a genetic counselor. Because genetic counseling involves consultation and testing by trained experts, Tad and Valessa would learn about their genetic heritage, including harmful conditions that they could pass along to any children they might conceive.

150. Define behavioral teratogens, and name at least two common ones. State two potential consequences of exposure to them.

ANSWER: Behavioral teratogens are substances and conditions that do not cause physical defects in a developing fetus but increase the risk of harm to the child's brain. For example, if a pregnant mother (1) smokes, (2) drinks alcohol, (3) uses marijuana or other drugs, or (4) has a virus (such as the flu), the fetus's brain could be damaged. Consequences of exposure to behavioral teratogens include (1) hyperactivity, (2) antisocial behavior, and (3) intellectual disabilities.

151. Trace and Emily, recently married, are talking about expanding their family. The couple comes to you for advice on what they can do to ensure a healthy pregnancy. List five suggestions that Emily can follow prior to becoming pregnant.

ANSWER: Prospective mothers like Emily should do the following: (1) plan the pregnancy, (2) take a daily multivitamin with folic acid, (3) avoid binge drinking, (4) update immunizations against all teratogenic viruses, especially rubella, (5) gain or lose weight, as appropriate, (6) reassess use of prescription drugs, and (7) develop daily exercise habits.

152. According to recent studies, how many U.S. women drink during pregnancy? What group of women are Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 most likely to consume alcohol during pregnancy? Assume that a woman gives birth to a child with fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS). Describe the characteristics of a child with this disorder.

ANSWER: Ten percent of pregnant women in the United States use alcohol, a rate that climbs to 19 percent for older pregnant women. Older, college-educated women are the most likely to drink during pregnancy. Fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS) is a cluster of birth defects, including abnormal facial characteristics, slow physical growth, and reduced intellectual ability, that may occur in the fetus of a woman who drinks alcohol while pregnant.

153. Name four factors that contribute to low birthweight.

ANSWER: Low birthweight can be caused by (1) stress, (2) maternal drug use, especially smoking, (3) underage (teen) mother, (4) low maternal body fat, (5) low total maternal weight gain, (6) inadequate vitamins in the mother's diet, (7) poor maternal nutrition, and (8) environmental pollution.

154. Explain how the threshold effect impacts the influence of a teratogen?

ANSWER: A factor influencing harm from teratogens is the amount and/or frequency of exposure. Many teratogens have a threshold effect. This means that they are virtually harmless until exposure reaches a certain level. Then they "cross the threshold" to damage the developing fetus.

155. Explain both the risks and benefits of both an at home birth and a birth that occurs in a hospital setting.

ANSWER: In the United States, although it is rare for a viable fetus to die at birth, the risk is higher for home births. Overall, about 1 in 10,000 home births result in the death of a newborn, a rate about four times the rate in hospital births. The reason is that a sudden emergency might require immediate intervention that is possible only in a hospital, such as surgery. Even so, home births are far less likely to involve surgery and other methods to speed labor. Home births involve less drugs and less intervention of any kind. If surgery seems necessary, a woman can be taken to a hospital. Home births may also be less stressful for the woman. Many women choosing a home birth have already had a baby in a hospital and were not happy with the experience. Another option is either a selfstanding birthing center, or a hospital that allows midwives to deliver babies, and that encourages fathers to be present at birth unless surgery is needed. Midwife births have lower rates of various complications and interventions than physician births, in part because midwives emphasize breathing, massage, and social support. An innovation that makes birth easier in hospitals or homes is a doula, a person trained to support the laboring woman. Doulas time contractions, use massage, provide encouragement, and do whatever else is helpful. Often, they come to the woman's home during early labor and return after birth to encourage breast-feeding. Doulas are chosen by many women, but they have proven to be particularly helpful for immigrant, low-income, or unpartnered women who may feel intimidated by doctors.

156. Newborn Josie received an Apgar rating following birth. Explain what the Apgar scale is, including the five vital signs that it measures. Josie received a 4 at one minute and five minutes after birth. What does this score indicate?

ANSWER: The Apgar scale is a quick assessment of a newborn's health, from 0 to 10. The five vital signs are color, heartbeat, reflexes, muscle tone, and respiratory effort. (Students may instead list the acronym for Apgar: Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, and Respiration. Full credit should be given for Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 2 either answer.) Josie's score indicates an emergency. A neonatal pediatrician will be summoned immediately to help save Josie's life.

157. Explain the procedure known as a cesarean section, and discuss at least two benefits and two risks associated with this kind of delivery.

ANSWER: A cesarean section (c-section) is also known as a surgical birth. Incisions through the mother's abdomen and uterus allow the fetus to be removed quickly, instead of being delivered through the vagina. Generally, cesareans are (1) safe for mother and baby and (2) can save a baby's life when the infant experiences distress during a vaginal delivery. Advantages for hospitals include (3) ease in scheduling and (4) less time taken than vaginal deliveries. Drawbacks include (1) a longer recovery period for the mother, (2) complications after birth, and (3) a reduction in breast-feeding.

158. Describe the maternal symptoms of postpartum depression. What are two possible outcomes of postpartum depression for the baby?

ANSWER: Symptoms of postpartum depression include a mother's (1) deep sadness, (2) feelings of inadequacy, (3) feelings of being burdened by baby care, (4) ignoring the baby's needs, and (5) thoughts of neglecting or hurting the infant. Possible outcomes for the baby include (1) inadequate food and care, (2) possible abuse or neglect, (3) lack of social stimulation, and (4) the likelihood of behavioral problems later on.

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Chapter 3 1. The average baby will grow about _____ inches by their second birthday. a. 10 b. 14 c. 20 d. 27 ANSWER: b 2. A typical child at 24 months weighs about _____ pounds. a. 14 b. 28 c. 42 d. 56 ANSWER: b 3. The average newborn triples their weight by: a. 6 months. b. 1 year. c. 1.5 years. d. 2 years.

ANSWER: b 4. Children reach half their adult height by about the age of _____ years. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: a 5. Cassandra's weight is in the 30th percentile. This means that _____ percent of all babies her age weigh less than she does and _____ percent of all babies her age weigh more than she does. a. 29; 69 b. 25; 75 c. 70; 30 d. 81; 19 ANSWER: a 6. A _____ is a ranking between 0 and 100 that compares children of the same age in order to determine whether a particular baby is growing well. a. normal score b. standard deviation c. percentile Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 d. norm ANSWER: c 7. Amanda brought her 6-month-old son to the doctor for a well-baby visit. The doctor says that her son is healthy and that his weight is in the 20th percentile. What does this mean? a. He is large for his age. b. He is not growing properly. c. He is malnourished. d. He falls within an acceptable range.

ANSWER: d 8. Mr. and Mrs. Hernandez are parents of newborn Glen. The pediatrician tells them that Glen's height falls at the 92nd percentile. This means that Glen is: a. above average in height. b. below average in height. c. eating too often. d. underweight.

ANSWER: a 9. _____ is a condition that may be caused by poor nutrition, allergies, the microbiome, or other medical conditions. a. Dwarfism b. Obesity c. Failure to thrive d. Head-sparing ANSWER: c 10. Twelve-month-old Iona has slept in their parents' bed since they were born. This custom is called: a. co-bedding. b. shared sleep. c. sleep accommodation. d. co-sleeping.

ANSWER: d 11. The average newborn sleeps approximately _____ hours a day. a. 12 to 14 b. 15 to 17 c. 18 to 20 d. 21 to 23 ANSWER: b 12. When two or more people sleep in the same bed, it is referred to as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 a. room-sharing. b. bed-sharing. c. co-sleeping. d. sleep-sharing.

ANSWER: b 13. Miguel and their wife and infant daughter all sleep in the same bed. They are engaging in: a. room-sharing. b. bed-sharing. c. co-sleeping. d. sleep-sharing.

ANSWER: b 14. According to international rates of co-sleeping, which baby is MOST likely to sleep in their parents' bed? a. Lesley, who is from New Zealand b. Mark, who is from Canada c. Dinh, who is from Switzerland d. Althea, who is from the Philippines ANSWER: d 15. Co-sleeping may be harmful to the baby if the mother: a. is in a fetal position around the baby. b. is a light sleeper. c. has been drinking. d. awakens frequently.

ANSWER: c 16. In addition to cultural influences, what is a compelling reason that causes parents to choose to co-sleep with their infant? a. Co-sleeping makes nighttime feedings easier. b. Co-sleeping allows the infant to sleep more deeply for longer periods. c. Co-sleeping helps the baby's digestion. d. Co-sleeping infants become more independent.

ANSWER: a 17. The human body is equipped to protect the brain when malnutrition temporarily affects body growth. This protective feature is known as: a. the blood–brain barrier. b. brain-override. c. head-sparing. d. caudal protection.

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Chapter 3 ANSWER: c 18. A newborn's brain weight is _____ an adult's brain weight. a. greater than b. the same as c. 75 percent of d. 25 percent of ANSWER: d 19. The central nervous system includes the _____ and _____. a. spinal cord; heart b. brain; lungs c. prefrontal cortex; heart d. brain; spinal cord ANSWER: d 20. A basic nerve cell in the central nervous system is called a(n): a. frontal cell. b. axon. c. dendrite. d. neuron.

ANSWER: d 21. At birth, the human brain can be characterized as having _____ of neurons. a. thousands b. millions c. billions d. trillions ANSWER: c 22. Neurons in the brain meet at "intersections" called: a. synapses. b. cortexes. c. axons. d. dendrites.

ANSWER: a 23. Synapses are: a. intersections where the axons of one neuron meet the dendrites of another neuron. b. where neurons make direct contact with one another. c. chemical structures that allow dendrites to send their messages to axons.

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Chapter 3 d. the area where neurons determine whether a stimulus exceeds the absolute threshold or not.

ANSWER: a 24. Which statement describes the brain's cortex? a. It is found in the center of the brain and is responsible for primitive emotions and reflexes. b. It makes up a small percentage of the outer brain and is responsible for movement. c. It makes up the outer layers of the brain and is responsible for thinking, feeling, and sensing. d. It is the gray matter of the brain where the intersections of dendrites and axons form.

ANSWER: c 25. The outer layers of the brain are referred to as: a. the cortex. b. axons. c. dendrites. d. synapses.

ANSWER: a 26. The areas at the very front of the cortex: a. are responsible for visual functions. b. help humans to understand spoken words. c. assist with impulse control. d. are well developed in newborns.

ANSWER: c 27. The function of neurotransmitters is to: a. bind the neurons of the central nervous system together. b. form the synapse between neurons. c. carry information from one neuron to another. d. assist in the formation of new neurons.

ANSWER: c 28. The limbic system is a cluster of brain areas located in the: a. cerebellum. b. hypothalamus. c. amygdala. d. forebrain.

ANSWER: d 29. When you experience pleasure or pain, you are likely activating your: a. prefrontal cortex. b. hippocampus.

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Chapter 3 c. pituitary gland. d. limbic system.

ANSWER: d 30. The last part of the brain to mature is/are the: a. axons. b. dendrites. c. synapses. d. prefrontal cortex.

ANSWER: d 31. The area in the brain that plans, anticipates, and controls impulses is the _____ cortex. a. prefrontal b. parietal c. temporal d. striate ANSWER: a 32. The brain develops extremely quickly in the first few years, but not all of this growth is permanent. Rapid and temporary dendrite growth is called: a. dendritic proliferation. b. pruning. c. cortex multiplication. d. transient exuberance.

ANSWER: d 33. Transient exuberance is the: a. rapid growth of dendrites during the first few years of life. b. high energy that toddlers experience following a nap. c. friendliness that infants display prior to the onset of stranger wariness. d. rapid growth of axons during the first few years of life.

ANSWER: a 34. The process through which unused dendrites atrophy and die is called: a. pruning. b. degeneration. c. transitional exuberance. d. myelination.

ANSWER: a 35. Pruning is the process by which: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 a. brain centers are rewired following localized brain damage. b. the left hemisphere specializes for language processing. c. the frontal lobe disengages from the prefrontal cortex. d. unused connections between neurons are eliminated.

ANSWER: d 36. _____ is required for normal brain maturation to occur. a. Experience-expectant growth b. Experience-dependent growth c. Self-righting d. Head-sparing ANSWER: a 37. Learning how to play a musical instrument or how to paint on a canvas results from: a. experience-expectant growth. b. experience-dependent growth. c. self-righting. d. head-sparing.

ANSWER: b 38. A life-threatening condition that occurs when infants are violently moved back and forth sharply and quickly is called: a. self-righting. b. head-sparing. c. shaken baby syndrome. d. transient exuberance.

ANSWER: c 39. An abusive caregiver shakes an infant to get them to stop crying. The infant stops crying. Why? a. The infant is so startled by the shaking that they can't cry. b. Blood vessels in their brain rupture and neural connections break. c. Experience has taught them to stop crying. d. The infant's airway is damaged.

ANSWER: b 40. A study conducted in Texas found that about half of all infants who died suddenly and unexpectedly were _____ at the time of their death. a. room-sharing b. bed-sharing c. co-sleeping d. sleep-sharing Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 ANSWER: b 41. At what point in development is the sense of hearing already quite acute? a. at birth b. by 3 months of age c. by 14 weeks of age d. by 6 months of age ANSWER: a 42. Which of these increases the risk of SIDS? a. room-sharing b. bed-sharing c. co-sleeping d. sleep-sharing ANSWER: b 43. A brain chemical that carries information from the axon of a sending neuron to the dendrites of a receiving neuron is called a(n): a. neurotransmitter. b. amygdala. c. synapse. d. dendrite.

ANSWER: a 44. In terms of visual acuity, newborns: a. possess 20/20 vision. b. are legally blind. c. have binocular vision. d. exhibit organized visual scanning.

ANSWER: b 45. The sense that is the LEAST functional at birth is: a. hearing. b. taste. c. vision. d. smell.

ANSWER: c 46. The neonate's vision: a. focuses only on things quite close to their eyes. b. is clearest when objects are about 10 feet away.

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Chapter 3 c. does not improve until about age 1. d. is the most developed of the baby's senses.

ANSWER: a 47. By 3 months of age, babies look closely at the eyes and mouth when studying faces. This change in focus is due to: a. increased interest in other humans. b. increased awareness of caregivers' identities. c. changes in willingness to interact with adults. d. improvements in visual scanning ability.

ANSWER: d 48. Binocular vision refers to the ability to: a. focus on objects at a distance. b. bring an object in and out of focus. c. focus on an object with both eyes. d. visually distinguish between similar colors.

ANSWER: c 49. Binocular vision appears between _____ months of age. a. 2 and 4 b. 6 and 8 c. 10 and 12 d. 14 and 16 ANSWER: a 50. Due to smell recognition, babies prefer to sleep: a. alone in a crib with freshly washed sheets. b. nuzzled into their caregiver's chest. c. near a kitchen while food is being prepared. d. in the room in which they were born.

ANSWER: b 51. Newborns' sense of touch allows them to: a. determine who is touching them. b. be comforted by their caregiver. c. feel no pain. d. make up for their lack of hearing at birth.

ANSWER: b 52. The ability to move and control some parts of the body is referred to as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 a. instinct. b. facilitation. c. motor skill. d. reflex.

ANSWER: c 53. Gross motor skills are: a. head motions. b. small movements. c. large movements. d. feet motions.

ANSWER: c 54. Large movements that coordinate many parts of the body are known as "_____ motor skills." a. athletic b. fine c. primitive d. gross ANSWER: d 55. By _____ months of age, around 50 percent of babies can usually sit up unsupported. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: c 56. The _____ growth trend means "head-down." a. cephalocaudal b. proximodistal c. experience-dependent d. experience-expectant ANSWER: a 57. The _____ growth trend means "center-out." a. cephalocaudal b. proximodistal c. experience-dependent d. experience-expectant ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 58. On average, which skill does an infant develop last? a. pulling up onto feet b. standing alone without holding on c. sitting without support d. standing while holding on ANSWER: b 59. On average, which skill does an infant develop first? a. running b. walking backward c. walking well d. jumping ANSWER: c 60. By _____ months of age, most infants are able to inch forward on their bellies. a. 5 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 ANSWER: a 61. On average, children begin to walk well at approximately _____ of age. a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 18 months d. 2 years ANSWER: b 62. Between _____ months of age, most infants can lift their midsections and crawl on "all fours." a. 8 and 10 b. 10 and 12 c. 12 and 14 d. 14 and 16 ANSWER: a 63. Veronica is concerned because their child is 12 months old and is starting to walk before learning to crawl.

What advice would a pediatrician give to Veronica? a. They should not let their child continue to walk until they have learned to crawl. b. The child needs to be tested because this may be a sign of a serious learning disability. c. They should wait another month or so to see if the child crawls and walks at the same time. d. They should not be worried since some babies do not crawl.

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Chapter 3 ANSWER: d 64. What three factors contribute to the ability to walk? a. muscle strength, parental teaching, practice b. brain maturation, parental teaching, muscle strength c. parental teaching, practice, brain maturation d. muscle strength, brain maturation, practice ANSWER: d 65. Jacob's father has been helping them to walk by holding their hands and supporting them. Jacob's legs are strong enough to hold them up, and they are able to move their legs in a coordinated way as long as their father supports them. What else does Jacob need in order to walk independently? a. muscle strength b. brain maturation c. practice d. fine motor skills ANSWER: c 66. Sarrahn started walking when they were 11 months old; Claire is just beginning to take steps by their self at 13 months. Which conclusion is MOST likely true? a. Sarrahn is more intelligent than Claire. b. Claire is malnourished. c. Claire is physically handicapped. d. Both children are developing normally.

ANSWER: d 67. Fine motor skills are: a. head motions. b. small movements. c. large movements. d. foot motions.

ANSWER: b 68. Small movements made by fingers and toes are called "_____ motor skills." a. athletic b. reflexive c. fine d. gross ANSWER: c 69. Fine motor skills are those that: a. develop as a result of brain damage.

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Chapter 3 b. produce large movements. c. require small body movements. d. use three or more muscles.

ANSWER: c 70. Baby Tre can grab objects, but sometimes they close their hand too early or too late. Tre is probably around _____ months old. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: b 71. Most babies learn to grasp and hold onto objects by about _____ months old. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANSWER: c 72. Piaget called an infant's first period of cognitive development: a. sensorimotor intelligence. b. adaptation. c. object awareness. d. imitative learning.

ANSWER: a 73. Infants in the sensorimotor stage: a. learn to use language to express sensations. b. think of past and future events. c. use senses and motor skills to understand the world. d. think logically and critically.

ANSWER: c 74. Piaget believed children begin to develop cognitively at: a. birth. b. 3 months. c. 1 year. d. 18 months.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 75. Stage one in Piaget's sensorimotor period is defined as: a. the stage of reflexes. b. making interesting sights last. c. first acquired adaptations. d. new adaptation and anticipation.

ANSWER: a 76. When 1-week-old Jennifer feels too warm, they reflexively cry. According to Piaget, Jennifer is in stage _____ of the sensorimotor period. a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: a 77. In Piaget's terminology, sensorimotor stage two is described as: a. the stage of reflexes. b. first acquired adaptations. c. making interesting sights last. d. new adaptation and anticipation.

ANSWER: b 78. Emma has been sucking their thumb for a few weeks. Emma's parents would prefer them to use a pacifier, but Emma refuses. Emma is at stage _____ of Piaget's theory of sensorimotor development. a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: b 79. In which of Piaget's sensorimotor stages do infants respond to people and objects and seek to make interesting events last? a. stage one b. stage two c. stage three d. stage four ANSWER: c 80. Sammie asks their infant daughter, "Do you want to play patty-cake?" The baby responds by clapping their hands. This demonstrates stage _____ of sensorimotor development. a. one b. two Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 c. three d. four ANSWER: c 81. In which of Piaget's sensorimotor stages do infants adapt, anticipate, and become more deliberate in responding to people and objects? a. stage one b. stage two c. stage three d. stage four ANSWER: d 82. Cassandra and their mother have been playing patty-cake, but their mother is now trying to engage Cassandra in a picture book. Cassandra wants to play patty-cake again, so they grab their mother's hands and put them together as if in a clap. Cassandra is clearly in stage _____ of sensorimotor development. a. one b. two c. three d. four ANSWER: d 83. The first of Piaget's sensorimotor stages that involves an infant's interaction with something else is stage: a. one. b. two. c. three. d. five.

ANSWER: c 84. The behavior of an infant in sensorimotor stage four might BEST be described as: a. deliberate. b. experimental. c. creative. d. anxious.

ANSWER: a 85. The behavior of an infant in sensorimotor stage four might BEST be described as: a. goal oriented. b. redundant. c. stubborn. d. unintentional.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 86. An example of stage-three sensorimotor behavior is: a. thumb sucking and self-soothing. b. looking for a smile and smiling back. c. searching for a teddy bear hidden under a blanket. d. trying to dress like Mommy or Daddy.

ANSWER: b 87. Sensorimotor stage four is the stage of: a. making interesting sights last. b. new means through active experimentation. c. new means through mental combinations. d. new adaptation and anticipation.

ANSWER: d 88. Stage _____ of sensorimotor development is characterized by trying to continue an experience, whereas stage _____ is characterized by initiating and anticipating events. a. one; two b. two; three c. three; four d. four; five ANSWER: c 89. Baby Keri enjoys playing with their dad's keys, but when their dad takes them away, Keri does not search for them. Piaget would say that is because Keri does not understand: a. conservation. b. object permanence. c. egocentrism. d. affordances.

ANSWER: b 90. _____ is the understanding that objects continue to exist when they cannot be seen. a. Object permanence b. Acquired adaptation c. Mental representation d. Object continuity ANSWER: a 91. Which of these behaviors indicates that Daniel has grasped the concept of "object permanence"? a. Daniel laughs when a sibling makes faces. b. Daniel grasps a rattle and bangs it on the floor. c. Daniel willingly lets go of an object.

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Chapter 3 d. Daniel searches for a toy that has fallen from sight.

ANSWER: d 92. Which brain structure registers emotions, particularly fear and anxiety? a. hippocampus b. amygdala c. cortex d. limbic system ANSWER: b 93. Piaget referred to toddlers in sensorimotor stage five as: a. little heathens. b. tertiary infants. c. little scientists. d. blank slates.

ANSWER: c 94. According to Piaget, a child in stage five of sensorimotor development is like a: a. child in the "terrible twos." b. childish teenager who wants his way all of the time. c. perfectionist who must do everything right. d. scientist who experiments to see what will happen.

ANSWER: d 95. Tina is fascinated with the toilet. So far, their parents have caught them trying to flush a stuffed animal, a toy cell phone, and a handful of dog food. Which sensorimotor stage is Tina MOST likely in? a. stage three b. stage four c. stage five d. stage six ANSWER: c 96. Piaget's sixth stage of sensorimotor intelligence is known as the stage of: a. mental combinations. b. interesting observations. c. primary reactions. d. new adaptation and anticipation.

ANSWER: a 97. Which brain structure is a central processor of memory? a. hippocampus Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 b. amygdala c. cortex d. limbic system ANSWER: a 98. Which lobes are responsible for audition? a. occipital b. temporal c. parietal d. frontal ANSWER: b 99. Which lobes enable people to plan, imagine, coordinate, decide, and create? a. occipital b. temporal c. parietal d. frontal ANSWER: d 100. The _____ responds to signals from the amygdala and to memories from the hippocampus by producing hormones, especially cortisol. a. cortex b. prefrontal cortex c. hypothalamus d. neuron ANSWER: c 101. Iman is a 3-month-old infant participating in an experiment. Iman is lying in a crib with one end of a ribbon tied to their foot and the other end tied to a mobile dangling over the crib. They quickly learn that they control the movement of the mobile with their kicking. One week later, the researchers return, tie the ribbon to their foot, and hang the mobile above the crib. Immediately, Iman starts vigorously kicking their leg. What does this experiment demonstrate? a. Three-month-olds can remember actions for at least a week. b. Three-month-olds can relearn the kicking strategy very quickly at the second test. c. Kicking behavior is very easy to learn. d. Mobiles are very interesting to 3-month-olds.

ANSWER: a 102. Studies on infant long-term memory have shown that infants can remember if the researchers: a. use situations that are different from real life. b. do not let the baby move during the memory event. c. use highly emotional events.

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Chapter 3 d. use special measures to aid memory retrieval, such as reminder sessions.

ANSWER: d 103. The fact that 3-month-olds do not spontaneously remember a kicking strategy that they learned two weeks earlier suggests that: a. infant amnesia is a valid term. b. infants cannot remember anything for very long. c. infant memory is fragile. d. infants are focused on facial recognition rather than gross motor movements.

ANSWER: c 104. Marc spoke Ukrainian in early childhood but stopped speaking it when they were about 4 years old. Marc no longer explicitly recalls any Ukrainian words and says they can't speak the language. Which of these situations might reveal their implicit knowledge of Ukrainian? a. Administer a test of Ukrainian language comprehension and compare their results to others who have never spoken Ukrainian. Marc will score higher than lifelong nonspeakers. b. Administer a test of Ukrainian language comprehension and compare their results to others who have spoken Ukrainian all of their lives. Marc will score just as well as lifelong speakers. c. Provide Ukrainian language lessons. Marc will pick up the language more quickly than lifelong nonspeakers. d. Provide Ukrainian language lessons. Marc will quickly realize that they do not need lessons.

ANSWER: c 105. Which of these is the primary stress hormone? a. norepinephrine b. serotonin c. cortisol d. estrogen ANSWER: c 106. Micah is a 3-week-old newborn. A test of habituation reveals that they prefer listening to their mother's language over any other language. What is the BEST explanation for this? Micah: a. understands the words in their mother's language. b. comprehends their mother's language. c. recognizes the rhythm, sound, and cadence of their mother's language. d. is designed to specifically learn their mother's language.

ANSWER: c 107. Peter's mother is a native Spanish speaker, and his father is a native English speaker. He hears both languages equally often and is addressed in Spanish by his mother and in English by his father. If Peter is a typical toddler, how will his language skills be affected by this early experience? a. He will be able to understand one language but not the other.

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Chapter 3 b. He will often mix the two languages together and be unable to differentiate them. c. He will be able to differentiate between both languages. d. His cognitive skills will lag behind those of similar-aged monolingual children.

ANSWER: c 108. During the newborn period, the primary means of communication is: a. blinking. b. reflexive. c. babbling. d. cooing.

ANSWER: b 109. Erika is a 4-month-old infant whose mother uses a high-pitched voice, simple words or phrases, and lots of repetition when they speak. Erika delights in their mother's use of: a. a dual-language approach. b. sign language. c. child-directed speech. d. babbling.

ANSWER: c 110. Research has found that child-directed speech is: a. a feminine, rather than a masculine, approach to language acquisition. b. spoken in a high pitch with simple vocabulary and short sentences. c. unique to English-speaking parents. d. spoken in a low pitch with the use of nonsense words.

ANSWER: b 111. The usual order of the development of spoken language in an infant is: a. cooing, babbling, reflexes, and spoken words. b. reflexes, cooing, babbling, and spoken words. c. babbling, cooing, spoken words, and reflexes. d. cooing, reflexes, babbling, and spoken words.

ANSWER: b 112. _____ is experience-expectant; all babies engage in it. a. Sign language b. Waving c. Babbling d. The use of holophrases ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 113. Abigail spontaneously says things such as "mamamamamama" and "dadadadadadada." About how old is Abigail likely to be? a. 2 months b. 3 to 6 months c. 6 to 10 months d. 10 to 12 months ANSWER: c 114. Chris is 8 months old, and settles down quickly and listens raptly while their mom sings "The Itsy Bitsy Spider." What factor BEST accounts for Chris's interest in this song? a. Chris remembers the story and loves how it ends. b. Chris doesn't remember the story, so the end is always exciting. c. Chris loves the rhymes and repetition. d. Chris loves the simple plot line.

ANSWER: c 115. Which of these is a development that requires understanding another person's perspective? a. babbling b. cooing c. naming d. pointing ANSWER: d 116. Infants' repetition of certain syllables at the age of about 6 or 7 months is called: a. cooing. b. holophrasing. c. gurgling. d. babbling.

ANSWER: d 117. Brian has begun repeating syllables such as "da-da-da-da" and "me-me-me-me-me." Brian is in the _____ stage of language development. a. cooing b. holophrasing c. gurgling d. babbling ANSWER: d 118. On average, children begin saying recognizable words at around _____ months of age. a. 3 b. 6 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 c. 12 d. 24 ANSWER: c 119. David just started saying single words such as "mama" and "doggie." About how old is David likely to be? a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 12 months d. 24 months ANSWER: c 120. Roberto has begun uttering one-word holophrases (e.g., "Dada!"). About how old is Roberto likely to be? a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 1 year d. 2 years ANSWER: c 121. The term holophrase is used to denote: a. a word that is empty of meaning. b. the infant's use of one word to express a whole thought. c. the relationship of object permanence to language development. d. the use of two words to take the place of one.

ANSWER: b 122. George uses the word "more" to mean "I want another cookie." In this case, "more" is a(n): a. holophrase. b. preverbal communication. c. overextension. d. reflexive communication.

ANSWER: a 123. Most _____-month-old human babies can interpret pointing. a. 3 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 ANSWER: c 124. Between 13 and 18 months, infants master their first _____ words. a. 25 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 b. 50 c. 100 d. 200 ANSWER: b 125. Frank is learning the names of two or three new objects or events every day. This rapid increase in vocabulary is referred to as the _____ explosion. a. naming b. vocabulary c. object d. cognitive ANSWER: a 126. At approximately what age will a child begin to combine three words? a. 10 months b. 12 months c. 16 months d. 24 months ANSWER: d 127. Abran is a typically developing toddler. By age _____ months, Abran should be able to combine two words, such as, "Daddy bye-bye." a. 9 b. 12 c. 15 d. 18 ANSWER: d 128. The use of prefixes, suffixes, intonation, verb forms, pronouns, and other parts of speech is known as: a. grammar. b. sentence structure. c. speech patterns. d. syntax.

ANSWER: a 129. Amanda is a speech and language therapist. When conducting an assessment on a child with speech or language concerns, they first record the average number of words in the child's typical sentence. They also use this technique to monitor a child's language progress over time. Amanda is relying on: a. subjective data. b. biofeedback. c. mean length of utterance.

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Chapter 3 d. the language acquisition device.

ANSWER: c 130. _____ believed that children learn language by receiving adequate parental attention. a. Jean Piaget b. B. F. Skinner c. Noam Chomsky d. Lev Vygotsky ANSWER: b 131. By 10 months of age, Ahmed has a vocabulary of a dozen words. B. F. Skinner would have attributed Ahmed's rapid speech development mainly to: a. exposure to child-directed speech. b. an unusual language acquisition talent. c. the amount his parents talk to him. d. rapid physical development.

ANSWER: c 132. Corbin uses incorrect word forms such as "ain't" and incorrect grammar such as "I don't got none." What would B. F. Skinner say was the source of Corbin's poor language development? a. delayed cognitive development b. lack of innate language ability c. parents who rewarded incorrect language use d. parents who ignored incorrect language use ANSWER: c 133. According to the sociocultural perspective, what is the focus of early communication for infants younger than 12 months? a. context b. content c. survival d. sound ANSWER: c 134. According to the sociocultural perspective of language learning, toddlers learn new words BEST: a. by hearing an adult say a new word as they play with an unrelated object. b. when they are taught in person. c. in a group setting. d. by watching others talk.

ANSWER: b 135. Veronica's mother often lets their 6-month-old baby watch Baby Einstein videos. According to research on Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 language and video exposure, what is Veronica likely learning from this program? a. how to count b. how to read c. new vocabulary words d. very little ANSWER: d 136. According to Chomsky's theory of language acquisition: a. children learn language through a complex process of imitation and reinforcement. b. children have an inborn ability to learn language. c. the inability to learn language is due to specific brain dysfunctions. d. language learning utilizes multiple structures in the brain.

ANSWER: b 137. Chomsky observed that: a. all young children master basic grammar according to a schedule. b. all grammar rules are the same across all languages. c. some rules of grammar are present in all languages. d. all parents reinforce correct use of grammar.

ANSWER: a 138. The language acquisition device (LAD) was proposed by Chomsky to explain: a. children's vocabulary spurts. b. the difference between surface structure and deep structure. c. the systematic differences among languages. d. children's ability to derive the rules of grammar quickly and effectively.

ANSWER: d 139. Elizabeth is a 21-month-old child who has just begun to make two-word sentences. Their sentences already reveal the grammar of their native language, as they order their nouns and verbs in the order that mature speakers of their language use. Chomsky would attribute Elizabeth's quick attainment of grammatical rules to their: a. intelligence. b. parents' correct use of grammar. c. language acquisition device. d. receiving reinforcement for proper language use.

ANSWER: c 140. According to Noam Chomsky's theory, _____ is deaf infants' particular expression of the universal language acquisition device. a. avoidance of a speaker's gaze b. signing Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 c. using holophrases d. cooing ANSWER: b 141. The statement "Multiple attentional, social, and linguistic cues contribute to early language learning" supports the _____ system of language learning. a. behavioral b. epigenetic c. hybrid d. social impulse ANSWER: c 142. Which brain structure responds to the hypothalamus by sending out hormones to various body parts? a. occipital lobe b. limbic system c. amygdala d. pituitary ANSWER: d 143. One effect of a lower infant mortality rate is: a. an increase in teenage birthrates. b. fewer babies per mother. c. less maternal education. d. weaker national economies.

ANSWER: b 144. Clean water, immunizations, and nourishing food have all had a dramatic impact on: a. infant and child mortality. b. maternal education levels. c. population control. d. marriage rates.

ANSWER: a 145. Based on research about SIDS, caregivers are advised that babies should be: a. put to sleep on their backs. b. put to sleep on their stomachs. c. kept in a very warm bedroom. d. fed right before being put to bed.

ANSWER: a 146. Susan Beal hypothesized that _____ played a role in SIDS deaths.

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Chapter 3 a. birth order b. ethnicity c. sleeping position d. parents' genes ANSWER: c 147. When the immune system is primed to resist a particular disease, the process is called: a. exuberance. b. immunization. c. pertussis. d. head-sparing.

ANSWER: b 148. The MOST lethal disease for children in the past was: a. polio. b. smallpox. c. rubella. d. anencephaly.

ANSWER: b 149. When children are immunized, they contribute to the protection of others. This is referred to as: a. community immunity. b. vaccinating. c. herd immunity. d. failure to thrive.

ANSWER: c 150. _____ is the thick, high-calorie fluid that is secreted by a new mother's breasts in the days immediately following birth. a. Collodion b. Colostrum c. Breast milk d. Glucose ANSWER: b 151. Breast milk: a. is deficient in iron and vitamin C. b. is more likely than formula to produce allergies. c. provides antibodies to fight diseases. d. upsets the baby's digestive system more than formula.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 152. Why are breast-fed babies less likely to contract infectious diseases than bottle-fed babies? a. They are less likely to come in contact with viruses and bacteria. b. Breasts are more sterile than bottles. c. Breast milk contains antibodies. d. Most breast-fed babies don't leave the home often.

ANSWER: c 153. Studies comparing breast-feeding to bottle-feeding show that: a. breast-fed babies have fewer allergies and stomach aches. b. breast-feeding is recommended for about half of all mothers. c. recent improvements in formula make bottle-feeding more nutritious than breast milk. d. breast-feeding should end as soon as a baby gets a tooth.

ANSWER: a 154. Brianna returned to full-time employment six weeks after her baby's birth. She exclusively breast-fed during her maternity leave, and then pumped her breast milk when she returned to work. Now her baby is 3 months old and drinks some formula when at daycare. Brianna wants to stop breast-feeding. If you were a pediatric nurse, what would you say to her? a. She can quit breast-feeding since all of its benefits are achieved within the first three months. b. She should quit breast-feeding since it is only beneficial if the baby doesn't drink any formula. c. She should keep breast-feeding until the baby begins to eat solid foods, which is the point at which breast milk loses its nutritional value. d. She should keep breast-feeding as long as possible since breast-fed babies are less likely to get sick.

ANSWER: d 155. A child who is too short for their age due to severe malnutrition is suffering from a condition called: a. stunting. b. marasmus. c. wasting. d. protein calorie malnutrition.

ANSWER: a 156. When a child is more than 2 standard deviations underweight for their age, the child is suffering from a condition called: a. stunting. b. wasting. c. marasmus. d. protein calorie malnutrition.

ANSWER: b 157. Husan is 2 years old and does not have enough food. As a result, he has unusual swelling in his face and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 abdomen, and thin, colorless hair. Husan is suffering from: a. kwashiorkor. b. marasmus. c. rickets. d. hypoglycemia.

ANSWER: a 158. Malik lives in Africa. She is 9 months old and does not weigh enough due to malnutrition. Her tissues are wasting away. Malik suffers from: a. rickets. b. hypoglycemia. c. kwashiorkor. d. marasmus.

ANSWER: d 159. Which psychological disorder may be the result of overpruning? a. bipolar disorder b. anorexia c. schizophrenia d. dissociative identity disorder ANSWER: c 160. Samantha just gave birth to their first child and is in a U.S. hospital with the newborn. Samantha can expect the hospital to test the newborn for _____ disorders. a. 10 b. 25 c. 35 d. 50 ANSWER: c 161. What is the most common inborn problem found among newborns? a. a hearing disorder b. spina bifida c. neurological disorder d. autism ANSWER: a 162. Many motor and emotional memories are considered: a. binocular b. explicit c. implicit Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 d. proximodistal ANSWER: c 163. Unconscious memories are also known as _____ memories. a. binocular b. explicit c. implicit d. proximodistal ANSWER: c 164. Factual memories that can be expressed with words are known as: a. binocular. b. explicit. c. implicit. d. proximodistal.

ANSWER: b 165. _____ is the first of three types of feedback loops in sensorimotor intelligence, involving the infant and an object or another person. a. Primary circular reaction b. Secondary circular reaction c. Tertiary circular reaction d. Fine circular reaction ANSWER: b 166. _____ begin when 1-year-olds take independent actions to discover the properties of other people, animals, and things. a. Primary circular reactions b. Secondary circular reactions c. Tertiary circular reactions d. Fine circular reactions ANSWER: c 167. A sudden increase in an infant's vocabulary, especially in the number of nouns, that begins at about 18 months of age is called the: a. mean length of utterance. b. language acquisition device. c. naming explosion. d. grammar sequence.

ANSWER: c 168. The average number of words in a typical sentence is called the: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 a. mean length of utterance. b. language acquisition device. c. naming explosion. d. grammar sequence.

ANSWER: a 169. Recent data from the United Nations indicate that _____ percent of all newborns survive, usually to live to old age. a. 25 b. 36 c. 78 d. 96 ANSWER: d 170. How can immunization occur? a. recovery from an illness b. vaccination c. both recovery from an illness or vaccination d. neither recovery from an illness nor vaccination ANSWER: c 171. Currently, vaccines are recommended for _____ serious childhood diseases. a. 7 b. 14 c. 25 d. 32 ANSWER: b 172. Rates of no vaccination at all are _____ among those with no health insurance. a. double b. three times lower c. five times higher d. seven times higher ANSWER: c 173. _____ occurs when a person does not consume enough food to sustain normal growth. a. Protein-calorie malnutrition b. Wasting c. Stunting d. Poverty ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 174. Nine-month-old Dee's weight is at the 40th percentile. Define a percentile and explain what Dee's number means. Is Dee a healthy baby based on this percentile? Why or why not?

ANSWER: A percentile is a point on a ranking scale of 0 to 100, and it indicates how one person compares to another. Dee's weight at the 40th percentile means that 39 percent of 9-month-old babies weigh less and 60 percent weigh more. Yes, Dee is a healthy baby.

175. Describe parent–child sleeping practices from two different cultural perspectives. What is the reason for the particular practice in each culture?

ANSWER: Traditionally, most U.S. infants slept in cribs and in their own rooms; it was feared that they would be traumatized if their parents had sex in the same room. In contrast, infants in Asia, Africa, and Latin America slept with or near their parents, a practice called co-sleeping or bed-sharing. In those cultures, nighttime parent–child separation was considered cruel. This difference in practice may seem to be related to cultural views regarding nighttime parent–child separation, views regarding separation and privacy, as well as infant and child independence from parents.

176. Define pruning. Using the examples of fragile X syndrome and autism, explain why pruning is essential for healthy brain development.

ANSWER: Pruning is the process by which unused connections in the brain atrophy and die. A symptom of fragile X syndrome is a persistent failure of normal synapse pruning. Without pruning, the dendrites of children with fragile X are too dense and long, making thinking difficult. Similarly, the brains of children with autism spectrum disorder are unusually large and full, making communication between neurons less efficient and some sounds and sights overwhelming.

177. Differentiate between experience-dependent and experience-expectant growth and provide one example of each.

ANSWER: With experience-dependent growth, some brain functions depend on particular experiences.

However, these experiences are not essential. Examples include: which language babies hear, what faces they see, whether curiosity is encouraged, or how their mother reacts to frustration.

Experience-expectant growth must occur in order for development to proceed normally. For example, almost all babies have things to see, objects to manipulate, and people to love them.

Babies everywhere welcome such experiences: they look around, they grab for objects, and they smile at people. As a result, babies' brains develop.

178. Isabele and Gio are parents to newborn Ravi. They have heard that stress causes significant damage to the young brain. As a result, they plan to limit visits with family, eliminate loud noises from the home (e.g., TV, music, video games), and avoid upsetting the baby in any way. If Ravi begins to cry during a diaper change, for example, they will wait until the baby is calm and try again. According to research presented in your textbook, are Isabele and Gio taking appropriate precautions or are they being overly protective? Explain your answer and include examples.

ANSWER: Research shows that too much of the wrong kind of stimulation may cause the brain to produce an overabundance of cortisol (a stress hormone) early in life. For example, an infant who is frequently terrified produces abnormal amounts of cortisol, leading to odd reactions to stress throughout the life span. However, infants should not be protected from every experience. Some stress, such as not getting an attractive object, being around noisy conversations, or being bathed or diapered when the baby does not want it, is part of normal infant life. Therefore, Isabele and Gio are being Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 overprotective of Ravi.

179. Describe the development of the five senses, beginning with birth and extending into the fourth month of life.

ANSWER: All of the senses function at birth. Some senses are much more developed than others. Hearing (which begins before the baby is born) is acute at birth; vision is the least-developed sense. An infant has reflexes that respond to touch (such as grasping a person's finger and turning toward and sucking when someone brushes the child's cheek). By 4 months, infants have developed perceptions of speech, expecting familiar rhythms and cadences of words. Vision improves rapidly after birth, with binocular vision in place between 2 and 4 months, so that an infant can focus on a single item.

Babies soon learn to prefer familiar touches. Similarly, babies quickly begin to recognize familiar smells, especially the smells of their caregivers, and come to appreciate familiar tastes as they are given spoonfuls of the family dinner.

180. Jane is concerned that their 13-month-old baby isn't walking independently yet. Explain to Jane how biology and environment interact in the development of gross motor skills. Additionally, what would you advise Jane?

ANSWER: The development and order of gross motor skills are largely due to biological factors, but that assumes that the environment provides adequate opportunity to practice the precursors for the skills.

Since a 13-month-old baby is within the average age range for the development of a skill, the parents should be encouraged to provide the opportunity for the skill to develop, and then relax and wait for the skill to emerge.

181. Briefly describe the first three stages of sensorimotor intelligence, including the length of each stage. For each stage, give an example of an infant's behavior.

ANSWER: Stage One: Reflexes. These include all of the reflex actions apparent at birth (such as staring, listening, sucking, and grasping), and the stage lasts for the first month of life. Examples include sucking anything that touches the lips or cheek.

Stage Two: The First Acquired Adaptations. This stage lasts from ages 1 to 4 months and includes behaviors such as thumb sucking, through which the infant learns the limits of their own body.

Stage Three: Making Interesting Sights Last. This stage covers 4 to 8 months of age. The behaviors include those through which the infant interacts with things in the environment, such as shaking a rattle, clapping hands, and kicking to make a crib mobile move.

182. Briefly describe stages four through six of sensorimotor intelligence, including the length of each stage.

For each stage, give an example of an infant's behavior.

ANSWER: Stage Four: New Adaptation and Anticipation. This stage lasts from 8 to 12 months of age and includes goal-directed behaviors. Infants become more deliberate and purposeful in responding to people and objects. An example is putting a mother's hands together in order to make her start playing patty-cake.

Stage Five: New Means Through Active Experimentation (Little Scientist). This stage lasts from 12 to 18 months of age. An example includes putting a teddy bear in the toilet and flushing it.

Stage Six: New Means Through Mental Combinations. In this stage, lasting from 18 to 24 months of age, toddlers are able to think about the consequences of various actions mentally without actually Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 having to perform them (such as recalling that they got in trouble the last time they flushed Teddy down the toilet and thus refrain from flushing something else).

183. Define object permanence and when it begins, according to Piaget. Describe how it is measured in laboratory settings and how it can be revealed in informal settings.

ANSWER: Object permanence is a child's awareness that an object or person continues to exist even when out of sight. It begins around the age of 8 months. In a laboratory, it is tested by showing a baby an object, and then covering it with a cloth. Babies who have achieved object permanence will remove the cloth to reveal the object. In more casual settings, it is revealed by a baby looking for an object or person who is not in the room.

184. Identify two ways in which memories are particularly evident in young babies. According to Carolyn Rovee-Collier, under what circumstances can 3-month-olds remember a behavior after two weeks?

ANSWER: Memories are particularly evident if (1) motivation and emotion is high, and (2) retrieval is strengthened by reminders and repetition. In an experiment conducted by Carolyn Rovee-Collier, 3month-olds could remember after two weeks if they had a brief reminder session before being retested—that is, a perceptual experience that helps a person recollect an idea, a thing, or an experience.

185. Describe the five stages of spoken language development from the first to second birthday.

ANSWER: 12 months: First spoken words that are recognizably part of the native language 13–18 months: Slow growth of vocabulary, up to about 50 words 18 months: Naming explosion—three or more words learned per day. Much variation; some toddlers do not yet speak.

21 months: First two-word sentence 24 months: Multiword sentences; half of toddler's utterances are two or more words long 186. Describe the characteristics of child-directed speech. How does this form of speech contribute to infant development?

ANSWER: Sometimes called baby talk or child-directed speech is the (1) high-pitched, (2) simplified, and (3) repetitive way adults speak to infants and children. Child-directed speech fosters learning, and babies communicate as best as they can. Between 3 and 6 months, babies squeal, growl, grunt, croon, and yell, telling everyone what is on their minds in response to both their own internal state and their caregivers' words.

187. How do the views of B. F. Skinner and Noam Chomsky differ in their explanations of infant language acquisition? Explain each view, and indicate which view seems more accurate to you.

ANSWER: Noticing that an infant's first babbles are reinforced with smiles, repetition of the sound, and other forms of attention, Skinner believed that parents' responses reinforce the development of speech in their babies. In Skinner's behavioral theory, parents and other caregivers are teachers of language. In contrast, Chomsky believed that infants are born with an innate language acquisition device (LAD) that equips them to learn language on their own. According to his view, language learning is the result of neurological maturity.

188. Samantha is the mother of 11-month-old Stan. Samantha has heard that programs like Baby Einstein help Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 3 advance cognitive development in infants and toddlers. Samantha has also downloaded several learning apps for the iPad. According to research on infant exposure to screen time, would you advise Samantha to buy Baby Einstein and have Stan interact with the learning apps? Why or why not? Give at least two reasons to support your answer.

ANSWER: Research indicates that videos, television programs, and applications fail to teach infants the skills they claim to teach. In fact, many scientists believe the opposite. One study actually found that infants could learn a word from either a book or a video but that only book-learning enabled children to use the new word in another context.

189. Explain the benefits of immunization for individuals, as well as for public health. What are potential consequences associated with not immunizing children?

ANSWER: Diseases that could be deadly are now rare because of immunization, which primes the body's immune system to resist a particular disease. Immunizations have been instrumental in the sharp decrease and near eradication of many common childhood diseases—smallpox being the best example. Children who are not immunized against these illnesses are more susceptible to disease and death. Fortunately, each vaccinated child stops transmission of the disease, a phenomenon called herd immunity. Usually, if 90 percent of a population is immunized, no one dies of that disease.

190. Brianna is pregnant with their first child and is trying to decide if they want to breast-feed the baby. List three of the advantages of breast-feeding to help Brianna decide.

ANSWER: Breast milk (1) provides antibodies from the mother, (2) is more digestible than cow's milk, and (3) contains more vitamins and minerals than formula. Additionally, (4) breast-fed babies have fewer allergies, asthma, and stomach aches, (5) and babies who are exclusively breast-fed become obese less often and (6) have lower rates of diabetes and heart disease.

191. Name three ways in which malnutrition can affect a young child.

ANSWER: Children who are malnourished may suffer in multiple ways. (1) If the malnutrition occurs over a long-enough period, stunting can occur, making them always short in stature. (2) Their brains may not develop normally. (3) They have no body reserves to help their immune systems fight common diseases, resulting in disability, disfigurement, or death. (4) Malnutrition can directly cause some diseases such as marasmus, rickets, and kwashiorkor. (5) Malnutrition can cause children to lack energy, interest, and curiosity, slowing their intellectual and physical development. (6) In severe cases, malnutrition causes death.

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Chapter 4 1. What percentage of babies cry excessively? a. 5 percent b. 9 percent c. 20 percent d. 35 percent ANSWER: c 2. Annie is a 3-month-old infant. Which behavior has probably just appeared? a. distress b. laughter c. social smile d. fear ANSWER: b 3. Which emotion is the last to develop in an infant? a. fear of strangers b. anger c. pride d. curiosity ANSWER: c 4. Sam has recently begun to display the emotion of anger. Sam is MOST likely: a. 3 weeks old. b. 3 months old. c. 6 months old. d. 9 months old.

ANSWER: c 5. Amanda is several hours old. Which emotion is already apparent? a. social smile b. reaction to pain c. embarrassed crying d. fear of strangers ANSWER: b 6. Which behavior develops around 6 weeks of age? a. anger b. laughter c. fear of unexpected sounds d. the social smile ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 7. At 6 weeks of age, baby Brenda's newest emotional reaction is MOST likely to be: a. fear of strangers. b. a wide-eyed look of surprise. c. a social smile. d. a squeal of delight at her favorite toy.

ANSWER: c 8. What is a common trigger for infant anger? a. sadness b. fear c. frustration d. shame ANSWER: c 9. Baby Chang participated in a research study in which the researcher restrained Chang's arms for two minutes.

Which emotion did Chang likely experience? a. sadness b. fear c. anger d. shame ANSWER: c 10. Increased levels of cortisol are associated with an infant experiencing: a. sadness. b. anger. c. well-being. d. secure attachment.

ANSWER: a 11. Separation anxiety and stranger wariness are two kinds of _____ in infancy and toddlerhood. a. sadness b. anger c. fear d. regulatory strategies ANSWER: c 12. When a baby acts upset because a caregiver is leaving, the baby is exhibiting: a. general anxiety. b. separation anxiety. c. solitary fear.

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Chapter 4 d. fear of isolation.

ANSWER: b 13. An infant's distress at seeing an unfamiliar person is called: a. stranger wariness. b. extrafamilial fear. c. fear of the unknown. d. separation anxiety.

ANSWER: a 14. Which statement about infants' emotional development is true? a. The social smile in response to another person first appears at about 12 weeks old. b. Very young infants seem incapable of expressing distress and contentment. c. A 5-month-old baby is likely to display fear of strangers and separation anxiety. d. An 11-month-old baby may show separation anxiety when their mother goes into another room.

ANSWER: d 15. If separation anxiety remains intense after age 3, impairing a child's ability to leave home, go to school, or play with other children, it is considered a(n): a. red flag for maltreatment. b. normative, as anxiety is common up until the age of 7. c. emotional disorder. d. indication of severe cognitive impairment.

ANSWER: c 16. Four-month-old Claire and 13-month-old Dawn are left with a babysitter. How will they react? a. Claire will be more upset than Dawn. b. Dawn will probably show more distress than Claire. c. Both Claire and Dawn will be experiencing separation anxiety. d. Neither girl is likely to show distress.

ANSWER: b 17. Which emotion involves social awareness? a. fear of strangers b. joy c. pride d. curiosity ANSWER: c 18. Which characteristic must be present before an infant can experience pride, shame, or guilt? a. social awareness Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 b. social skills c. stranger anxiety d. embarrassment ANSWER: a 19. The new emotions that appear around 18 months are: a. joy, distress, fear, and anger. b. pride, shame, embarrassment, and guilt. c. joy, fear, shame, and guilt. d. pride, shame, joy, and anger.

ANSWER: b 20. Which statement about emotional development in toddlers is true? a. Toddlers will universally feel proud of themselves. b. Emotions like pride and humility are dependent on cultural values. c. Toddlers are naturally humble. d. Toddlers are no longer distressed when separated from their parents.

ANSWER: b 21. If we place a dot of rouge on a 20-month-old girl's nose and stand the child in front of a mirror, she may then touch her own nose. This indicates that the child has some: a. dynamic perception. b. perceptual constancy. c. social referencing. d. self-awareness.

ANSWER: d 22. Researchers placed a dot of rouge on babies' noses and then had them look into a mirror. On average, at what age did MOST babies touch their own noses when they saw their reflection? a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 18 months ANSWER: d 23. Simone, 18 months old, recently started using first-person pronouns. Simone's mother is somewhat concerned that Simone constantly asserts their rights to objects, shouting, "Mine!" Even when playing with their brother, Simone doesn't want to share toys, instead insisting that everything is "mine." What does Simone's behavior show about emotional development? a. Simone has developed a sense of self-awareness. b. Simone's anxiety has become a source of anger. c. Simone is being selfish and their mother needs to discipline them.

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Chapter 4 d. Simone is trying to establish that they are the "boss" at home.

ANSWER: a 24. Twelve-month-old Nate's parents often argue, which has escalated to physical violence on multiple occasions. What effect might this environment have on Nate's brain development? a. The hypothalamus may grow more slowly than normal. b. The prefrontal lobes will be overdeveloped. c. The dendrites will likely overdevelop. d. The anterior cingulate gyrus will be damaged.

ANSWER: a 25. Research has found that a person's temperament is: a. highly variable from one country to the next. b. determined almost entirely by parenting. c. linked to biological patterns that appear in infancy. d. created during early social interactions.

ANSWER: c 26. Which statement about temperament and personality is true? a. They are different terms for the same concept. b. Personality is biologically based, while temperament is shaped by the environment. c. Both temperament and personality are present at birth. d. Temperament is not the same as personality.

ANSWER: d 27. Experience connects the _____ and the _____, and it helps infants connect their feelings with those of other people. a. hippocampus; limbic system b. frontal lobes; brain stem c. amygdala; prefrontal cortex d. brain stem; amygdala ANSWER: c 28. Jennifer has three children. If the children are _____, they are less likely to experience jealousy when Jennifer tends to their other children. a. demonstrating disorganized attachment b. insecurely attached c. demonstrating ambivalent attachment d. securely attached ANSWER: d 29. Professor Thomas studies synchrony among parents and their children. Which of these is NOT a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 physiological measure of synchrony that can be assessed during the research? a. heart rate b. brain waves c. breathing d. self-report questionnaires ANSWER: d 30. According to contemporary researchers, which are three dimensions of temperament, each of which affects later personality development and school performance? a. easy, slow-to-warm-up, and unclassified b. secure, insecure, and disorganized c. easy, secure, and difficult d. effortful control, negative mood, and exuberance ANSWER: d 31. According to a longitudinal study on temperament that followed participants into adulthood, which infant is MOST likely to change from infancy to age 4? a. Amanda, who is exuberant and easygoing b. Michaela, who is inhibited and fearful c. Nate, who is fussy and unpredictable d. Paulette, who is sometimes positive and sometimes fearful ANSWER: b 32. The coordinated interaction between caregiver and infant is called: a. scaffolding. b. synchrony. c. symbiosis. d. interplay.

ANSWER: b 33. The crucial aspect of synchrony is: a. infants observing adults. b. infants imitating adults. c. mutual interaction. d. unilateral imitation.

ANSWER: c 34. Mark and Abigail want to enhance their synchrony with their 6-month-old son. They can BEST do this by: a. imitating their daughter's vocal and facial expressions. b. watching their daughter imitate their mouth movements and smiles. c. listening to their daughter's vocalizations.

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Chapter 4 d. including their daughter in their conversations.

ANSWER: a 35. James's dad comes home from grocery shopping, sees James sitting on the sofa, and says, "Where's that boy of mine?" James gives his dad a smile that spreads across his entire face, and his dad responds with an exaggerated surprised look. This is an example of: a. psychosocial scaffolding. b. symbiosis. c. polarization. d. synchrony.

ANSWER: d 36. Synchrony depends on: a. attention span. b. stable mood. c. responsiveness and timing. d. breast-feeding.

ANSWER: c 37. In one study, mothers were instructed to interact with their infants by copying their babies' facial expressions, and then, on cue, to show no emotional reaction at all. This procedure is called the "_____ technique." a. facial mimicking b. emotional expression c. still-face d. social response ANSWER: c 38. Deedra is playing with their infant daughter Emma. Deedra responds to Emma's facial expressions by mimicking and exaggerating the same expressions. All of a sudden, Deedra's face becomes blank, and they do not show any emotion. How is Emma likely to respond? a. Emma will probably frown, fuss, drool, or look away from their mother. b. Emma will be glad for the break and will probably fall asleep. c. Emma will exaggerate their mother's facial expression. d. Emma will smile and coo even more to try to get their mother to respond.

ANSWER: a 39. The lasting emotional bond that an infant forms with a caregiver is called: a. temperament. b. attachment. c. unionization. d. synchrony.

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Chapter 4 ANSWER: b 40. "Proximity-seeking" and "contact-maintaining" behaviors are displays of: a. love. b. fear. c. attachment. d. friendliness.

ANSWER: c 41. Based on many decades of research, attachment appears to be: a. based on cognitive theory. b. stronger in mother–son pairs than father–son pairs. c. universal around the world. d. limited to Western cultures.

ANSWER: c 42. Which child is demonstrating secure attachment? a. Ying is willing to explore a new environment in the presence of the caregiver. b. Melinda refuses to let other children play with their toys. c. Valerie clings to their mother in a new environment. d. Chance mimics their father's expressions in a familiar environment.

ANSWER: a 43. Secure attachment makes a toddler: a. willing to explore. b. self-centered. c. cling to the mother. d. want to talk a lot.

ANSWER: a 44. Baby Erika's father is holding her. She is smiling at him one minute and then, unexpectedly, she slaps his face, which is typical for her. Erika frequently engages in other odd behaviors, such as freezing in place and pinching herself so hard it leaves bruises. Erika is demonstrating characteristics of _____ attachment. a. insecure-avoidant b. disorganized c. secure-detached d. insecure-resistant/ambivalent ANSWER: b 45. Jake clings to his mother and refuses to leave her lap. When she walks into another room, Jake throws a huge temper tantrum. However, when his mother returns, he is not relieved. Instead, he cries and hits her. When she puts him down, he throws another fit and puts his arms up to be held. Jake is exhibiting characteristics of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 _____ attachment. a. insecure-avoidant b. insecure-resistant/ambivalent c. secure d. disoriented ANSWER: b 46. Nine-month-old Beleme explores new environments when his mother is present but shows distress when his mother leaves the room. However, when she returns, Beleme stops crying and greets her with a hug. Beleme is exhibiting characteristics of _____ attachment. a. secure b. insecure-resistant/ambivalent c. insecure-avoidant d. disorganized ANSWER: a 47. A sign of secure attachment is when a child: a. refuses to let go of the caregiver's arm. b. plays aimlessly without interacting with the caregiver. c. shows extreme fear and anger. d. maintains contact with the caregiver while exploring.

ANSWER: d 48. Which child is demonstrating secure attachment? a. Simone, who ignores their father while sitting in a corner b. Jason, who expresses fear at the sight of their mother c. Chase, who makes positive social contact with their mother after they re-enter the room d. Amanda, who refuses to let go of their father when they attempt to place them on the floor ANSWER: c 49. Beth does not notice when their father leaves the day-care center and ignores their father when they return.

Beth's behavior is characteristic of _____ attachment. a. insecure-avoidant b. insecure-resistant/ambivalent c. secure d. disorganized ANSWER: a 50. _____ developed the now-classic laboratory procedure called the Strange Situation. a. Erikson b. Freud Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 c. Skinner d. Ainsworth ANSWER: d 51. The Strange Situation measures how a child: a. responds to a stranger. b. plays with a parent. c. responds to separations and reunions with a caregiver. d. plays with toys they have never seen before.

ANSWER: c 52. In the Strange Situation, a sign of insecure attachment might be: a. smiling at the mother when she returns to the room. b. crying and being unable to be comforted when the mother returns. c. seeking contact with the mother when reunited. d. playing happily as long as the mother is present.

ANSWER: b 53. In the Strange Situation, a sign of secure attachment is: a. smiling at the mother when she returns to the room. b. crying and not being comforted when the mother comes back. c. ignoring the mother when she returns to the room. d. being reluctant to leave the mother to play with new toys.

ANSWER: a 54. Krishna's father left them for a few minutes. When the father returned, Krishna climbed into their lap and then resumed playing. Krishna is probably a(n) _____ attached child. a. insecurely b. securely c. timidly d. disorganized ANSWER: b 55. Derek is 18 months old. Their parents are happy in their marriage and financially stable. Derek's attachment type will MOST likely be: a. insecure-resistant/ambivalent. b. insecure-avoidant. c. disorganized. d. secure.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 56. According to research on Romanian orphanages, children who were adopted before _____ months of age fared BEST. a. 6 b. 30 c. 36 d. 41 ANSWER: a 57. According to research on Romanian orphanages, children who were adopted after 18 months tended to score _____ points lower on intelligence tests than the statistical norm. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANSWER: c 58. A baby searches the faces of their parents to see how to respond in unfamiliar situations. The baby is illustrating the concept of: a. separation anxiety. b. social referencing. c. stranger anxiety. d. uncertainty checking.

ANSWER: b 59. A parent and a toddler meet someone who makes the parent nervous. If the toddler observes the parent's face, they will probably: a. act anxious. b. smile and reach for the person. c. start crying and hit the person. d. not show any reaction.

ANSWER: a 60. Aaron is 12 months old, and his uncle Frank is visiting for the first time in 6 months. Frank is delighted to see his nephew, so as he enters the room, he booms, "There's my little man!" Aaron looks to his mother, who is smiling broadly at her brother Frank, and crawls to her to be picked up. Aaron is demonstrating: a. attachment disorder. b. social referencing. c. a slow-to-warm-up temperament. d. insecure attachment.

ANSWER: b 61. Ramon was raised on a farm in Utah and enjoys the taste of beef liver cooked with onions. Sarah was raised Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 in New York City and would never think of eating beef liver, but she very much enjoys sushi. Both remember eating their preferred dish with their parents as children. What explains their differences in food preference? a. differences in attachment styles b. biological differences in their taste buds c. behavioral reinforcement d. social referencing ANSWER: d 62. Compared to mothers, fathers are more likely to make their infants: a. stop crying. b. laugh. c. go to sleep. d. say "please.”

ANSWER: b 63. Zach enjoys spending time with their 12-month-old daughter. Compared to their wife, Zach's interaction with their daughter is likely to be: a. more actively playful. b. less noisy and boisterous. c. more involved with basic care. d. less active and energetic.

ANSWER: a 64. When playing with their children, fathers are more likely than mothers to: a. read stories. b. engage in physical play. c. show them how to play with their toys. d. give them food rewards.

ANSWER: b 65. A child's typical activity during the oral stage is: a. sucking on a pacifier. b. toilet training. c. feeling a blanket using the fingers. d. playing peek-a-boo.

ANSWER: a 66. According to psychoanalytic theory, the child's prime focus of pleasure in the first year of life is the: a. anus. b. stomach. c. hands and feet.

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Chapter 4 d. mouth.

ANSWER: d 67. According to Freud, the second stage of psychosexual development is called the "_____ stage." a. phallic b. anal c. trust versus mistrust d. oral ANSWER: b 68. Freud claimed that during the anal stage: a. infants often find urinating and defecating to be painful. b. toilet training leads to positive mother–child interactions. c. infants find pleasure in stimulating and controlling the bowels. d. infants strive to develop a sense of trust in the parents.

ANSWER: c 69. How do people become "fixated" in a Freudian stage? a. They experience excessive emotions. b. Their normal developmental urges are frustrated. c. Their mother is not their primary caregiver. d. They fail to undergo a normal cognitive metamorphosis.

ANSWER: b 70. A child fixated in the oral stage may become an adult who: a. eats too much. b. is excessively neat. c. tends to be introverted. d. has intense fears.

ANSWER: a 71. Freud would attribute an adult's fingernail biting and overeating to problems during which childhood developmental stage? a. sensorimotor b. oral c. anal d. phallic ANSWER: b 72. Erika is an adult who requires predictability and regularity in all aspects of their life. They eat the same lunch every day, organize their clothes by color in the closet, and get distressed when the water is put on the wrong shelf in the refrigerator. Erika appears to be fixated at the _____ stage.

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Chapter 4 a. sensorimotor b. oral c. anal d. phallic ANSWER: c 73. According to Erikson, the first crisis of life is: a. obtaining oral gratification. b. controlling bodily functions. c. learning pain and pleasure. d. learning trust or mistrust.

ANSWER: d 74. Erikson's second stage of psychosocial development is called: a. attachment versus self-awareness. b. pride versus shame. c. trust versus mistrust. d. autonomy versus shame and doubt.

ANSWER: d 75. According to Erikson, if a child develops a sense of trust, the child will _____ as an adult. a. confidently explore the social world b. become dependent on others c. overcome a difficult temperament d. not experience any mental health problems ANSWER: a 76. A toddler in Freud's anal stage would also be at Erikson's _____ stage. a. autonomy versus shame and doubt b. oral c. trust versus mistrust d. object permanence ANSWER: a 77. According to Erikson's theory, what holds true for MOST toddlers? a. They want to depend on their caregivers to meet all of their needs. b. They want to gain a sense of control over their own bodies. c. Toilet training is only a minor step in learning a sense of autonomy. d. They need to have guilt and shame in order to strengthen their sense of autonomy.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 78. Another term for self-rule is: a. governed. b. synchrony. c. autonomy. d. controlled.

ANSWER: c 79. According to Erikson, failure to develop autonomy over one's own actions is MOST closely identified with: a. mistrust. b. synchrony. c. the oral stage. d. shame and doubt.

ANSWER: d 80. The autonomy versus shame and doubt crisis involves the child: a. exhibiting a sense of trust. b. asserting control over their own actions. c. developing a sense of worthiness. d. getting along with other children.

ANSWER: b 81. The Western value of independence is clearly exhibited in: a. Erikson's stage of autonomy versus shame and doubt. b. Freud's oral stage. c. Piaget's sensorimotor stage. d. Bandura's social learning theory.

ANSWER: a 82. Marko is 20 months old, and his mother is in a hurry. She wants to put his shoes on, but Marko rejects that by squirming and declaring, "No! Me!" It takes him five minutes, and his shoes end up on the wrong feet, but he proudly skips out to the car when he's done. Marko is in Erikson's _____ stage. a. trust versus mistrust b. autonomy versus shame and doubt c. anal d. oral ANSWER: b 83. According to traditional behaviorism, personality is: a. molded by one's parents. b. due to nature. c. in the unconscious mind.

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Chapter 4 d. unchangeable.

ANSWER: a 84. Which theorist stated, "Failure to bring up a happy child, a well-adjusted child—assuming bodily health— falls squarely upon the parents' shoulders"? a. Erikson b. Skinner c. Freud d. Watson ANSWER: d 85. _____ learning takes place by observing others. a. Cognitive b. Psychoanalytic c. Social d. Developmental ANSWER: c 86. Developmentalists have found that social learning takes place through: a. early childhood. b. middle childhood. c. adolescence. d. life.

ANSWER: d 87. Marla and Roberto are warm, nurturing parents who hold their baby often. They are exhibiting _____ parenting. a. proximal b. distal c. authoritarian d. autonomous ANSWER: a 88. When James fell and hurt themselves, they cried and ran to their father. Rather than comforting James, their father offered them a toy to distract them. Their father is probably a(n) _____ parent. a. proximal b. distal c. authoritative parent d. slow-to-warm-up parent ANSWER: b 89. Distal parenting tends to produce children who are: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 a. compliant. b. cooperative. c. clingy. d. self-aware.

ANSWER: d 90. Proximal parenting tends to produce children who are: a. self-aware. b. compliant. c. competitive. d. independent.

ANSWER: b 91. In various countries, research has found that _____ correlates with whether adults value individual rather than collective action. a. distal infant care b. paternal care c. maternal care d. proximal infant care ANSWER: a 92. According to cognitive theory, infants use their early relationships to develop a set of assumptions that become a frame of reference that may be used later in life. Such a set of assumptions is called a: a. referential hypothesis. b. working model. c. schematic plan. d. work in progress.

ANSWER: b 93. According to cognitive theory, a working model: a. can never change. b. is final. c. can be reorganized. d. is irrational.

ANSWER: c 94. Evolutionary theory stresses two needs: a. survival and reproduction. b. food and socialization. c. food and shelter. d. familial and social.

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Chapter 4 ANSWER: a 95. Allocare refers to the care of children by: a. their biological parents. b. foster parents. c. siblings. d. people other than their biological parents.

ANSWER: d 96. When Daniella gave birth, their mother moved in with the young family to help care for the newborn. This sort of caregiving by someone other than the baby's parent is called: a. kangaroo care. b. allocare. c. kinship. d. humanism.

ANSWER: b 97. The care of children by people other than the biological parents is called: a. center day care. b. allocare. c. decentralized day care. d. extrafamilial day care.

ANSWER: b 98. Day care in which several paid, trained providers care for many children in a space designed especially for the purpose of day care is a type of: a. allocare. b. decentralized day care. c. nonfamilial day care. d. extrafamilial day care.

ANSWER: a 99. Center-based day care is common in countries like France, Israel, and China, where: a. parental policies are highly variable by location and employer. b. there is no maternity leave. c. child care is heavily subsidized by the government. d. most people are opposed to allocare.

ANSWER: c 100. Which is NOT an essential characteristic of high-quality day care? a. encouragement of language development Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 b. experienced, professional caregivers c. cleanliness routines and accident prevention d. a ratio of one adult to three infants ANSWER: d 101. MOST babies are cared for primarily by: a. their mother. b. their grandparents. c. their father. d. a child-care center.

ANSWER: a 102. Social learning is to _____ as working model is to _____. a. psychoanalytic theory; behaviorism b. evolutionary theory; psychoanalytic theory c. behaviorism; cognitive theory d. cognitive theory; evolutionary theory ANSWER: c 103. Which of these is NOT a universal scientific finding regarding attachment? a. Synchrony and mutual attachments are beneficial. b. Quality of consistent care matters. c. Infants thrive when cared for solely by their mothers. d. Babies need loving and responsive caregivers.

ANSWER: c 104. According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, _____ percent of mothers in the United States with infants under 1 year of age were in the labor force in 2018. a. 23 b. 37 c. 60 d. 72 ANSWER: c 105. Which statement would a developmentalist NOT agree with regarding attachment and caregiving? a. Infant day care by people other than the parents is harmful to attachment formation. b. Babies benefit from a strong relationship with their parents. c. Frequent changes and instability in caregiving are problematic. d. Attachment to one or several familiar caregivers is essential.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 106. Which of these is NOT a characteristic of high-quality child care? a. adequate attention to each infant b. attention to health and safety c. warm and responsive caregivers d. high caregiver to child ratio ANSWER: d 107. Which is NOT a recommendation by the U.S. National Association for the Education of Young Children for infant child-care settings? a. Breast-feeding is encouraged. b. Babies are put to sleep on their backs. c. No more than 10 infants are permitted in a group. d. The ratio of adults to babies is 1:4 or fewer.

ANSWER: c 108. List and define two types of social fear most commonly seen in infants and toddlers.

ANSWER: Two types of social fear include (1) separation anxiety—an infant's distress when a familiar caregiver leaves; most obvious between 9 and 14 months; and (2) stranger wariness—an infant's expression of concern (e.g., a look of fear or a quiet stare while clinging to a familiar person) when a stranger appears.

109. Identify four emotions that require social awareness. From where does social awareness typically emerge?

ANSWER: Common toddler emotions that require social awareness include (1) pride, (2) shame, (3) jealousy, (4) embarrassment, (5) disgust, and (6) guilt. Such awareness typically emerges from family interactions.

110. Twelve-month-old Daniel lives in a very disorganized, low-income environment. Daniel has a history of maltreatment. Daniel's parents have a high conflict relationship, and it's not uncommon for Daniel to observe their parents screaming at each other. As a result of these experiences, Daniel experiences excessive fear and stress. What structures of the brain can be harmed by this type of fear and stress? Explain, citing findings from a study of children who were maltreated in infancy.

ANSWER: Excessive fear and stress harms the hypothalamus, which grows more slowly if an infant is often frightened. Children who were maltreated in infancy show abnormal responses to stress, anger, and other emotions later on. In addition to the hypothalamus, the amygdala, the hippocampus, and the prefrontal cortex are affected by abuse that begins in infancy.

111. Describe synchrony and examine its role in infant development. Give three outcomes that may occur if little or no synchrony is established between the infant and their caregiver.

ANSWER: Synchrony is a coordinated interaction between infant and caregiver that develops through ongoing experiences. Infant and caregiver learn to read each other's signals, expressions, and gestures.

Synchrony is (1) the root of attachment, (2) helps infants learn to take turns, and (3) helps infants learn to pay attention. To develop normally, infants need responsive caregivers; little or no synchrony makes it difficult for infants to form secure attachments with their caregivers and inhibits both psychosocial and biological development.

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Chapter 4 112. Briefly discuss three predictors of secure attachment in infants.

ANSWER: Predictors of secure attachment include (1) the parent's sensitivity and responsiveness to the infant's needs; (2) a high level of infant–caregiver synchrony; (3) the temperament of the infant; (4) low household stress; and (5) the caregiver's secure attachment to their own parents.

113. One-year-old Mark is playing in the living room with their father. Suddenly, loud music blares from the apartment next door. Using the concept of "social referencing," explain how Mark will respond. Be sure to include what will determine if Mark reacts negatively or positively to the sudden noise.

ANSWER: Mark will immediately look to their father to see how he responds, which is called social referencing. If Mark's father looks scared or angry, Mark will likely cry and become angry as well.

However, if their father remains calm and reassuring, Mark will likely resume their play.

114. Compare the behaviorist and psychoanalytic perspectives on early childhood personality development.

ANSWER: From the perspective of behaviorism, emotions and personality are molded as parents reinforce or punish a child. Behaviorists also acknowledge that children's personalities are influenced by social learning from other significant people in the environment.

Psychoanalysts believe that unconscious processes are the sole factors that influence personality.

These are shaped through the child's early interactions, especially with parents.

115. Define proximal and distal parenting practices. What are the outcomes of each type? What motivates parents to engage in one type over the other?

ANSWER: Proximal parenting involves close body contact with the child while distal parenting provides distance between the caregiver and the child. Proximal parenting results in compliance and interdependence. Distal parenting results in greater self-awareness and independence. Parenting styles are most motivated by cultural expectations and parents' perceptions of what their children need in order to be successful in their society.

116. What is a working model, and how does a 1-year-old child develop one? Give an example of how a working model could change from negative to positive over time.

ANSWER: A working model is a set of assumptions a child makes that becomes a frame of reference for later life. It is called "working" because although it is used as the lens through which the child views the world, it can be modified based on one's life experiences. A 1-year-old child will develop a working model based on responses from parents and other significant people in their life. They will apply this model to other situations. For example, if a child initially develops a model that is negative— such as that people are unpredictable—based on parents with inconsistent responses, the model can later be reorganized based on subsequent, more positive, experiences.

117. Explain the evolutionary approach to understanding how infants' early emotions are essential to their survival.

ANSWER: Infants are dependent for a long period of time and therefore must attract adult attention just to survive. For example, infant smiles and laughter engage adults—especially parents. Infants also strive to maintain proximity to their caregivers by fussing and crying when their parent leaves the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 4 room or doesn't pay attention, and by clapping and cooing during interactions with parents.

Evolutionary theory says that children do all these things in order to create the parent–child bond necessary for them to survive and thrive.

118. Amandita and Chris are the parents of 8-week-old David. Both parents work, and Chris is planning to return to their job full-time next month. Amandita and Chris are visiting day-care centers to see what works best for their family. Describe five characteristics that they should look for to determine if a center is high quality.

ANSWER: High-quality care during infancy has five essential characteristics: (1) adequate attention to each infant A small group of infants needs two reliable, familiar, loving caregivers. Continuity of care is crucial.

(2) encouragement of language and sensorimotor development Infants need language, including songs, conversations, and positive talk, and easily manipulated toys.

(3) attention to health and safety Cleanliness routines, accident prevention, and safe areas to explore are essential.

(4) professional caregivers Caregivers should have experience and degrees/certificates in early-childhood education. Turnover should be low, morale high, and enthusiasm evident.

(5) warm and responsive caregivers Providers should engage the children in active play and guide them in problem solving. Quiet, obedient children may indicate unresponsive care.

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Chapter 5 1. A person's average body mass index (BMI) is the lowest at the ages of: a. 1 to 2. b. 5 to 6. c. 9 to 10. d. 13 to 14.

ANSWER: b 2. Between the ages of 2 and 6, a well-nourished child will gain about _____ pounds and grow about _____ inches per year. a. 5; 6 b. 2; 3 c. 4.5; 3 d. 5.5; 4.5 ANSWER: c 3. The average 6-year-old child from a developed nation weighs between _____ pounds. a. 20 and 30 b. 30 and 40 c. 40 and 50 d. 50 and 60 ANSWER: c 4. _____ is a major problem that contributes to nutritional deficiencies, obesity, and tooth decay. a. Sugar b. Carbohydrates c. Low protein consumption d. Higher SES ANSWER: a 5. Parents of a typical 6-year-old child in the United States are MOST likely to say: a. "They aren't eating enough." b. "They eat too much." c. "They have no control over their appetite." d. "They are suffering from malnutrition."

ANSWER: a 6. A child's appetite _____ between the ages of 2 and 6. a. increases slightly b. increases dramatically c. stays the same d. decreases Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 ANSWER: d 7. Many day-care centers have successfully prevented obesity from increasing from ages 2 to 5 by: a. eliminating juice and milk from meals and snacks. b. requiring parents to participate in comprehensive nutrition classes. c. increasing exercise and improving snacks. d. eliminating certain customs where children tend to overeat, such as birthdays and holidays.

ANSWER: c 8. An estimated _____ to _____ percent of children are allergic to a specific food, almost always a common, healthy one. a. 2; 3 b. 3; 8 c. 10; 12 d. 15; 20 ANSWER: b 9. A common food to which young children are allergic is: a. soy. b. rice. c. oats. d. bananas.

ANSWER: a 10. A 2-year-old human's brain is _____ percent of the adult brain's weight. a. 55 b. 65 c. 75 d. 80 ANSWER: c 11. Which statement accurately explains the difference between the brains of Tom, a 2-year-old, and Jim, their father? a. Tom's brain is about 75 percent of the size of Jim's. b. Jim's brain has more activity in the angular gyrus than Tom's. c. Tom's brain is the same weight as Jim's. d. Jim's brain is less lateralized than Tom's.

ANSWER: a 12. The ability to play "Simon Says" successfully appears to be directly related to the development of the _____ cortex. a. parietal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 b. prefrontal c. striate d. posterior ANSWER: b 13. The process through which axons become coated with a fatty substance that speeds up the transmission of nerve impulses is called: a. myelination. b. action potential. c. transmission. d. lateralization.

ANSWER: a 14. Myelin is important because it: a. connects the two halves of the brain. b. compensates for loss of brain function due to injury. c. promotes regular childhood sleep patterns. d. speeds up the transmission of neural impulses.

ANSWER: d 15. James, a 6-year-old, can correctly name objects, catch a ball and throw it, and write his ABCs in proper sequence. Their younger brother Mark is much less speedy and skillful in all of these areas. What is the BEST explanation for James's superior performance? a. James most likely eats healthier foods than Mark. b. James's brain has experienced greater myelination than Mark's. c. James's frontal cortex is less mature than Mark's. d. James has fewer dendrites than Mark.

ANSWER: b 16. The ability to generate several thoughts in rapid succession is MOST specifically related to: a. eating healthy foods. b. myelination. c. frontal cortex maturation. d. development of new axons.

ANSWER: b 17. Vince is able to play "Go Fish," a card game that requires quick thinking. What brain change MOST directly supports this ability to think quickly? a. hypothalamic functioning b. myelination c. frontal cortex maturation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 d. development of new axons ANSWER: b 18. The long band of nerve fibers that connects the brain's hemispheres is: a. the striate cortex. b. the corpus callosum. c. the prefrontal cortex. d. the axon cord.

ANSWER: b 19. Maggie is beginning to learn how to write. They can hold a pencil in one hand and steady the paper with the other hand. This new ability is likely due to: a. the growth of the corpus callosum. b. their arms and legs growing longer. c. their brain's lateralization. d. adequate calcium in their diet.

ANSWER: a 20. Sven, age 4, has recently begun coordinating the two sides of their body more efficiently. This can be attributed to: a. the growth of the corpus callosum. b. their arms and legs growing longer. c. their brain's lateralization. d. adequate calcium in their diet.

ANSWER: a 21. Someone who teaches a person is known as a(n): a. novice. b. mentor. c. apprentice. d. pupil.

ANSWER: b 22. Lateralization is also called: a. myelination. b. white matter. c. sidedness. d. reverse specialization.

ANSWER: c 23. _____ is an advantage in some professions, including those involving creativity and split-second actions.

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Chapter 5 a. Right lateralization b. Left lateralization c. Reverse myelination d. Cross myelination ANSWER: b 24. A(n) _____ who teaches another person might be a parent, teacher, peer, or stranger. a. novice b. mentor c. apprentice d. pupil ANSWER: b 25. The specialization of the functioning of the two halves of the brain is called: a. lateralization. b. linearization. c. equalization. d. disequilibrium.

ANSWER: a 26. The left side of the brain notices _____, while the right side grasps _____. a. the big picture; the details b. the details; emotions c. emotions; language d. creative impulses; detailed analysis ANSWER: b 27. Dylan suffered a head injury as a result of an automobile accident. Their ability to speak and to process language was severely affected. The injury was to the: a. right side of the brain. b. left side of the brain. c. amygdala. d. prefrontal cortex.

ANSWER: b 28. According to Vygotsky, children learn because mentors do all of these EXCEPT: a. present challenges. b. take over the instruction. c. provide information. d. encourage motivation.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 29. During a long car trip, Samantha and Robert asked "Are we there yet?" so many times that their mother began covering her ears. Her children were exhibiting: a. impulsiveness. b. emotional regulation. c. perseveration. d. habituation.

ANSWER: c 30. Adwoa is a 3-year-old who is working on a craft project at preschool. They have to be repeatedly reminded to sit still, to continue working on the craft, and to stop grabbing their peers' supplies. What is the MOST likely explanation for Adwoa's behavior? a. They are not artistically inclined. b. They are displaying a normal lack of impulse control. c. They are not yet mature enough to be in preschool. d. They have an autism spectrum disorder.

ANSWER: b 31. Human interaction that expands and advances understanding, often through words that one person uses to explain something to another, is referred to as: a. social mediation. b. scaffolding. c. private speech. d. pragmatics.

ANSWER: a 32. The amygdala is a brain structure that registers: a. body temperature. b. emotions. c. speech perception. d. memories.

ANSWER: b 33. Based on what you know about the immaturity of the amygdala in early childhood, what is a likely experience that many young children have? a. a language delay b. extreme, violent tantrums c. frightening nightmares d. increased susceptibility to disease ANSWER: c 34. Which statement about exposure to stress is true?

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Chapter 5 a. Stress, in any form, is damaging to children's cognitive and social development. b. Even low-to-moderate forms of stress interfere with children's day-to-day functioning. c. High levels of stress activate hormones that are necessary in helping young children to cope. d. Some stress, but not too much, aids cognition.

ANSWER: d 35. The _____ function of speech occurs as mentors guide mentees in their zone of proximal development, learning numbers, recalling memories, and following routines. a. social mediation b. scaffolding c. private speech d. pragmatic ANSWER: a 36. The cognitive ability to organize and prioritize the many thoughts that arise from the various parts of the brain, allowing the person to anticipate, strategize, and plan behavior, is known as: a. executive function. b. theory of mind. c. scaffolding. d. conservation.

ANSWER: a 37. Preoperational intelligence: a. allows children to think in symbols. b. includes logical reasoning. c. is characterized by reversibility of thought. d. relies primarily on children's motor skills and senses.

ANSWER: a 38. Piaget referred to the early-childhood (ages 2 to 6) stage of cognitive development as "_____ intelligence." a. operational b. egocentric c. preoperational d. sensorimotor ANSWER: c 39. Piaget called the stage of cognitive development between the ages of 2 and 6 "preoperational intelligence" because children do not yet: a. demonstrate intellectual behavior. b. use logical operations. c. understand language.

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Chapter 5 d. produce language.

ANSWER: b 40. Piaget believed that until about age 6, it is difficult for children to think: a. subjectively. b. egocentrically. c. logically. d. about animism.

ANSWER: c 41. One of the milestones of preoperational thought is the ability to: a. use symbolic thought. b. understand reversibility. c. display conservation. d. think logically.

ANSWER: a 42. Joe was playing under the dining room table when they stood up suddenly and bumped their head. Joe pointed at the table and sternly said, "Mean table!" Joe is demonstrating Piaget's concept of: a. egocentrism. b. operational thinking. c. centration. d. animism.

ANSWER: d 43. To focus on one aspect of a situation and simultaneously exclude all other aspects is called: a. magical thinking. b. static reasoning. c. centration. d. animism.

ANSWER: c 44. A magician's goal is to get the audience to focus on one aspect of his show while he manipulates another.

This is easy to do with preoperational children, as they are fooled by their tendency to: a. think logically. b. reverse things in their minds. c. demonstrate centration. d. equilibrate.

ANSWER: c 45. Nine-year-old Brandon has no problem understanding that the 20-year-old woman who sometimes stays with him is both a student and a babysitter. According to Piaget, this is because Brandon's thinking has moved Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 beyond: a. conservation. b. object permanence. c. overregularization. d. centration.

ANSWER: d 46. _____ is the belief that natural objects and phenomena are alive, moving around, and having sensations and abilities that are human-like. a. Egocentrism b. Animism c. Centration d. Static reasoning ANSWER: b 47. "You are your mom's daughter, right?" Grandpa asked Beatriz.

"Yes!" Beatriz eagerly answered.

"Well, your mom is my daughter," Grandpa replied.

"No! She's my Mommy!" Beatriz exclaimed.

Beatriz is demonstrating which Piagetian error? a. conservation b. object permanence c. overregularization d. centration ANSWER: d 48. The Piagetian term for a particular type of centration in which a child thinks about the world only from their personal perspective is called: a. static reasoning. b. egocentrism. c. irreversibility. d. conservatism.

ANSWER: b 49. Brenda and her mother were shopping for a birthday gift for Brenda's father. "How about this? Daddy would love it!" Brenda exclaimed, showing her mother a pink and purple toy horse with flowing mane and tail.

Brenda's belief that her father would enjoy a toy that she herself would enjoy is an example of: a. static reasoning. b. egocentrism. c. irreversibility. d. conservatism.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 50. Four-year-old Colin thinks a tall 20-year-old man is older than a short 40-year-old man. Which Piagetian error characterizes Colin's thinking? a. egocentrism b. static thinking c. a focus on appearance d. symbolic thinking ANSWER: c 51. After seeing their new haircut for the first time, Jennifer began crying and yelled, "You didn't cut it the way I asked!" Jennifer's statement is an example of: a. egocentrism. b. static thinking. c. a focus on appearance. d. symbolic thinking.

ANSWER: c 52. When Ameya sees the first-grade teacher in the grocery store, they are shocked to see them outside of class.

Ameya's surprise is an example of: a. static reasoning. b. abstract reasoning. c. concrete thinking. d. irreversibility.

ANSWER: a 53. When children assume that the world is unchanging, they engage in: a. magical thinking. b. static reasoning. c. centration. d. a focus on appearance.

ANSWER: b 54. The characteristic of preoperational thought in which a young child thinks that nothing changes is called: a. egocentrism. b. conservation. c. static reasoning. d. centration.

ANSWER: c 55. Moshe dropped a tiny spot of honey mustard sauce on their pants during lunch. Even though the teacher was able to completely remove the spot, Moshe cries hysterically and says that they want to go home because the clothes are ruined. Moshe's reaction is an example of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 a. irreversibility. b. centration. c. egocentrism. d. conservation.

ANSWER: a 56. Irreversibility refers to the preoperational child's tendency to: a. focus on something other than appearances. b. use deductive reasoning to solve a problem. c. believe that what has been done cannot be undone. d. engage in centration when another solution is needed.

ANSWER: c 57. Steven's father takes him to the barber for his first real haircut. At first, Steven is excited, but as soon as the barber makes the first cut in his hair, he becomes very upset and tells his father to make the barber stop. In spite of his father's efforts to assure Steven that his hair will grow back, Steven is exhibiting the Piagetian characteristic known as: a. animism. b. centration. c. egocentrism. d. irreversibility.

ANSWER: d 58. A child's inability to understand that undoing a sequence of events will bring about the original situation is called: a. concrete operations. b. conservation. c. irreversibility. d. symbolic thought.

ANSWER: c 59. Four-year-old Terrance is sitting at the lunch counter next to their sister Erin. They are having identical hot dogs for lunch. When their mom cuts Terrance's hot dog into five pieces and Erin's into six pieces, Terrance protests, "Erin has more than me!" Which ability does Terrance not yet demonstrate? a. animism b. centration c. egocentrism d. conservation ANSWER: d 60. Dave has a ball of Silly Putty. His 6-year-old son, Mason, watches as Dave flattens the Silly Putty into a thin "pancake." When Dave asks Mason if there is now more Silly Putty, Mason replies "Yes" because he has: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 a. an understanding of scaffolding. b. not mastered the concept of conservation. c. an understanding of object permanence. d. demonstrated fast-mapping.

ANSWER: b 61. Yuri is the mother of 3-year-old Decha. Yuri shows Decha two equal balls of Play-Doh and determines that he views them as both the same. She then rolls one of the balls into a long "snake" and asks Decha if the amounts of clay are still the same or if one is different. Decha replies, "The snake has more Play-Doh now!"

Decha's reply indicates that he does not yet understand: a. animism. b. conservation. c. centration. d. symbolic language.

ANSWER: b 62. According to Vygotsky, guided participation requires that a child: a. interacts with a mentor to accomplish a task. b. is only provided with one set of directions for a task. c. discovers the solution to a task independently. d. learns new skills through observation.

ANSWER: a 63. According to Vygotsky, a child's first guided participation is provided by a mentor who is MOST likely a: a. classmate. b. pediatrician. c. parent. d. younger sibling.

ANSWER: c 64. As Shawn and their father, Carlos, put together a puzzle for the first time, Carlos begins by showing Shawn how to locate the outside pieces of the puzzle first. Once Shawn starts to get the idea, Carlos gradually withdraws their support, allowing Shawn to take more responsibility. Carlos is demonstrating Vygotsky's concept of: a. sensorimotor support. b. scaffolding. c. optimal reinforcement. d. overimitation.

ANSWER: b 65. According to Vygotsky's theory, skills that a child can accomplish with assistance but cannot yet perform independently are part of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 a. preoperational thinking. b. the child's theory of mind. c. physical maturation. d. the zone of proximal development.

ANSWER: d 66. One of Vygotsky's most influential concepts was the "zone of proximal development." According to this concept: a. there is a certain place in a school where most learning occurs. b. children can only reach a certain level of intelligence. c. children can master challenging tasks with the help of others. d. certain parts of the brain need to be activated during sensitive periods.

ANSWER: c 67. Brittany helps her 2-year-old daughter make hot chocolate. Brittany assists their daughter as they measure teaspoons of cocoa into a cup, add water, stir the contents, and then microwave the cup. Brittany is demonstrating Vygotsky's concept of: a. scaffolding. b. experience-expectant growth. c. conservation training. d. modeling.

ANSWER: a 68. According to Vygotsky, a teacher who carefully plans each child's participation in the learning process within the zone of proximal development uses: a. reinforcements for good behavior. b. scaffolding. c. peer mentoring. d. skill construction.

ANSWER: b 69. Which is an example of scaffolding? a. Jason helps their son build a model airplane by assembling it while their son watches. b. Josie and Priscilla buy an Xbox game system for their 5-year-old daughter Rebecca. They set it up for them and then allow them to figure out how to turn it on and use it. c. Bryce buys a do-it-yourself kite kit for their 6-year-old daughter Angela. They lay all of the pieces out for them and then allow them to read the instructions and follow them their self. d. Miriam helps their son David to make cookies. They measure all of the ingredients out and place them on the counter in small bowls. They read the recipe aloud as David places the ingredients in the bowl and mixes them together with a spoon.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 70. According to Vygotsky, which capability is demonstrated when young children repeat adult actions that are irrelevant, time-consuming, and inefficient? a. observing b. scaffolding c. modeling d. overimitation ANSWER: d 71. Balor, 2½, watches his father read the paper every morning at breakfast. Yesterday, Balor's mom observed him climbing into a chair and rapidly scrunching pages of the newspaper as he tried to turn a page. When he saw his mother looking, Balor exclaimed, "Like daddy!" Balor's behavior illustrates the concept of: a. modeling. b. scaffolding. c. exaggerated expression. d. overimitation.

ANSWER: d 72. While working on a coloring worksheet, 5-year-old Alma can be heard whispering, "Color this one blue.

Stay in the lines. Oh, yellow would be pretty." According to Vygotsky, Alma's utterances are: a. egocentric. b. indicative of emotional problems. c. called private speech. d. undermining her learning.

ANSWER: c 73. Although all of the objects of a culture guide children, _____ believed that language is pivotal. a. Vygotsky b. Skinner c. Ainsworth d. Erikson ANSWER: a 74. According to Vygotsky, the internal dialogue that people have with themselves either silently or aloud is referred to as: a. theory of mind. b. guided participation. c. private speech. d. apprenticeship.

ANSWER: c 75. Speech serves a _____ function, as mentors guide mentees in their zone of proximal development, learning Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 numbers, recalling memories, and following routines. a. preoperational b. sociobiological c. bidirectional d. social mediation ANSWER: d 76. According to Vygotsky, within the context of cognition, language is a tool: a. to make oneself understood. b. to regulate behavior. c. to advance thought. d. to express oneself.

ANSWER: c 77. Executive functioning involves three components: a. working memory, cognitive flexibility, and inhibitory control. b. short-term memory, habituation, and theory of mind. c. information processing, emotional reactivity, and social awareness. d. perspective taking, concrete thinking, and cognitive flexibility.

ANSWER: a 78. Which of these is NOT true regarding executive functioning? a. A child's executive function predicts later academic achievement. b. Executive function can protect teens from destructive emotional outbursts. c. Executive functioning can promote coping skills in adulthood. d. High levels of executive functioning lead to an early death in adulthood.

ANSWER: d 79. When does executive function dramatically improve? a. Toddlerhood b. Early childhood c. Adolescence d. Early adulthood ANSWER: b 80. Which of these is NOT a type of child-centered program? a. Montessori school b. Academic education c. Reggio Emilia d. Waldorf ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 81. _____ is an early-childhood education program that emphasizes creativity, social understanding, and emotional growth that originated in Germany with Rudolf Steiner. a. Montessori school b. A teacher-directed program c. Reggio Emilia d. Waldorf ANSWER: d 82. A person's understanding of the thoughts of other people is called: a. intuitive psychology. b. psychological schemata. c. theory of mind. d. self-schemes.

ANSWER: c 83. At what age do MOST children with older siblings start developing theory of mind? a. 1 year b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 4 years ANSWER: c 84. Only after a child has developed theory of mind can they: a. offer comfort to a crying playmate. b. tell a lie. c. feel anger. d. take turns sharing.

ANSWER: b 85. Brianna understands that her father is crying because his best friend died. This shows that Brianna has developed: a. egocentrism. b. a script for crying. c. theory of mind. d. conservation.

ANSWER: c 86. Maturation of the _____ is crucial to the development of theory of mind. a. hypothalamus b. prefrontal cortex Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 c. amygdala d. limbic system ANSWER: b 87. Which child is MOST likely to have the best-developed theory of mind? a. Ivy, age 5, who is the oldest of three children b. Brianna, age 4, who is an only child c. Boris, age 3½, who has a twin sister d. Thomas, age 3½, who has two older siblings ANSWER: d 88. When Jazmine was 12 months old, Jazmine was injured in an automobile accident. Jazmine was in a coma for almost a year and then spent many months of recovery from a brain injury. By Jazmine's third birthday, although she was making good progress, Jazmine has not yet spoken, and Jazmine's parents are fearful that Jazmine will never speak. The doctors, however, feel confident that Jazmine will learn to speak. This is because the first four years are not a _____ for language learning. a. sensitive period b. critical period c. developmental task d. dynamic system ANSWER: b 89. By the age of 2, a child will typically have a vocabulary of _____ words; by the age of 6, a child will typically have a vocabulary of _____ words. a. 500; 10,000 b. 5,000: 10,000 c. 200; 40,000 d. 100; 2,000 ANSWER: a 90. Deedra is a young child with a vocabulary of roughly 700 words. Recently, Deedra has started asking "What's that?" questions about everything. Based on this information, Deedra is probably _____ years old. a. 2 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 ANSWER: a 91. A child's ability to add new vocabulary words very quickly is called: a. fast-mapping. b. word mapping. c. mental language.

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Chapter 5 d. word charting.

ANSWER: a 92. When children hear a new word in a familiar context, they can simply add the word to the general category without fully understanding the word. This is called: a. lexical addition. b. categorical embellishment. c. vocabulary expansion. d. fast-mapping.

ANSWER: d 93. Tom's mother is considering different wallpapers for decorating his room. She asks him, "Which one do you like better: the striped or the plaid?" Tom's vocabulary doesn't include the word "plaid," but he's able to figure out what the word must mean based on the context. Tom is using _____ to add a new word to his vocabulary. a. lexical addition. b. categorical embellishment. c. vocabulary expansion. d. fast-mapping.

ANSWER: d 94. Logical extension involves: a. linking a newly learned word to other objects in the same category. b. mentally charting new words. c. applying a new concept to a preexisting category. d. equilibration.

ANSWER: a 95. Avia, age 4, visited the city zoo, pointed to a zebra, and exclaimed, "Look at the horse with stripes!" In describing the zebra, Avia used: a. logical extension. b. fast-mapping. c. overregularization. d. theory of mind.

ANSWER: a 96. For an English-speaking child, which word pair is especially difficult to understand? a. mine/yours b. mommy/daddy c. teacher/friend d. here/there ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 97. The structures, rules, and techniques used to communicate meaning in language are called: a. inflections. b. logical extensions. c. grammar. d. theory-theory.

ANSWER: c 98. Knowledge of _____ is essential for learning how to speak, read, and write. a. pragmatics b. code-switching c. social gestures d. grammar ANSWER: d 99. Dexter, age 4, speaks differently to their baby sister than to the teacher. This indicates that Dexter understands some of the practical uses of language. Dexter is developing an understanding of: a. pragmatics. b. code-switching. c. social gestures. d. grammar.

ANSWER: a 100. Overregularization in a child's speech patterns indicates that: a. the child is entering a sensitive period of language development. b. the child can apply grammatical rules to vocalizations. c. logical extension is underway. d. fast-mapping has occurred.

ANSWER: b 101. Jobe told their grandma, "I catched two mouses in a trap." Jobe's speech errors are an example of: a. egocentric speech. b. overregularization. c. literal translation. d. past imperfect tense.

ANSWER: b 102. Overregularization occurs because children: a. tend to regress briefly before progressing to new forms of language. b. have no understanding of past, present, and future verb tenses. c. assume that the language is less regular than it actually is. d. assume their language always follows the rules they already know.

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Chapter 5 ANSWER: d 103. When shown a novel object and told that it is called a "wug," preschoolers know that two of those objects would be two "wugs." This ability to correctly add an –s when pluralizing is evidence of their proper use of: a. inflections. b. logical extensions. c. grammar. d. theory-theory.

ANSWER: c 104. Knowing which words, tones, and grammatical forms to use with whom is called: a. pragmatics. b. code-switching. c. imitative speech. d. grammar.

ANSWER: a 105. The bilingual brain may provide some resistance to: a. learning disabilities like dyslexia. b. autism spectrum disorders. c. neurocognitive disorders due to Alzheimer's disease. d. depression and anxiety.

ANSWER: c 106. Alvaro's family recently immigrated to the United States from Mexico. After attending kindergarten, their parents noticed that their English was more fluent than their native language. Alvaro was exhibiting: a. a language shift. b. accelerated bilingualism. c. a vocabulary explosion. d. linguistic egocentrism.

ANSWER: a 107. Sarah attends a school where children of all ages learn together because older children can serve as mentors for the younger ones. The curriculum at the school tends to follow the interests, rather than age, of the children. Which type of school does Sarah attend? a. Montessori school b. a teacher-directed program c. Reggio Emilia d. Waldorf ANSWER: d 108. Which strategy predicts reading achievement in children from all income levels, languages, and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 ethnicities? a. code-focused teaching b. child-directed programs c. daily exposure to the "Hooked on Phonics" program d. use of digital media apps ANSWER: a 109. Janet is reading a storybook aloud to her 2-year-old daughter, Abigail. Abigail's father says, "Why are you bothering? It's not like she's going to learn to read from that." What would you tell Abigail's father about reading to preschoolers? a. He's right; it doesn't matter whether parents read to their preschoolers. b. He's right; children whose parents read aloud to them too early lose interest in books. c. He's wrong; children whose parents read to them as preschoolers tend to be better readers in elementary school. d. He's wrong; children whose parents read to them by age 2 are skilled readers by age 4.

ANSWER: c 110. In terms of early-childhood learning, research has found that if the home educational quality is poor, then: a. a quality preschool is especially beneficial. b. attendance at preschool is detrimental. c. day care will be more beneficial than preschool. d. a child-centered program will be more beneficial than another approach.

ANSWER: a 111. Child-centered programs are often influenced by the theories of _____ and _____. a. Piaget; Freud b. Piaget; Vygotsky c. Vygotsky; Skinner d. Skinner; Freud ANSWER: b 112. Sunnymont Preschool has plenty of opportunities for the children to play dress-up, dance, build with blocks, finger-paint, and be creative. Sunnymont is MOST likely a _____ program. a. Vygotsky-based b. child-centered c. teacher-directed d. bilingual ANSWER: b 113. Learning Circle Preschool emphasizes individual pride and achievement while focusing on teaching young children literacy-related tasks. Learning Circle's approach seems to MOST closely resemble a(n) _____ program.

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Chapter 5 a. intervention b. Montessori c. Reggio Emilia d. bilingual ANSWER: b 114. What was Maria Montessori's objective when she created her preschool? a. individual achievement b. the development of math skills c. creative expression d. obedience to a teacher ANSWER: a 115. The Reggio Emilia early-childhood program originated in: a. the United States. b. Norway. c. France. d. Italy.

ANSWER: d 116. The Reggio Emilia early-childhood program focuses on: a. reinforcement for academic accomplishments. b. assimilation and accommodation skills. c. children's creativity and artistic talent. d. self-esteem and self-concept.

ANSWER: c 117. Jonah attends a preschool where there is a high teacher/child ratio as well as plenty of opportunities for creative expression. They are engaged in a long-term art project that they chose in which they are making dinosaurs out of clay. Which child-centered approach does Jonah's preschool MOST closely reflect? a. Reggio Emilia b. Montessori c. Head Start d. teacher-directed ANSWER: a 118. MOST teacher-directed preschool programs stress: a. academics. b. arts and music. c. social skills. d. dual-language learning.

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Chapter 5 ANSWER: a 119. The goal of MOST teacher-directed preschools is: a. promoting individual achievement. b. encouraging informal social interaction. c. shaping student behavior. d. teaching children to read by the end of the year.

ANSWER: c 120. Leroy is in a teacher-directed preschool. Which activity would their parents NOT expect them to be doing? a. listening to a story read aloud during circle time b. forming the letter M in a tray filled with shaving cream c. gluing pieces of macaroni on a paper plate to form a number d. working on a long-term individual project about birds ANSWER: d 121. MOST developmentalists advocate _____ preschool programs. a. private b. public c. child-centered d. teacher-directed ANSWER: c 122. In the United States, low-income children are offered a free preschool education through: a. the War on Poverty. b. the Public Broadcasting System. c. the Women, Infants, and Children Program. d. Head Start.

ANSWER: d 123. An evaluation of Head Start found that benefits were MOST apparent for children: a. without disabilities. b. with the lowest family income. c. living in urban areas. d. living in suburban areas.

ANSWER: b 124. Jazmine and Greg have a preschool child and want to know how growth rate affects their eating habits.

Explain this to them and name at least three of the most common nutritional problems of preschoolers.

ANSWER: Appetite decreases between the ages of 2 and 5 years. The most common health-related problems in young children are obesity, tooth decay, and allergies.

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Chapter 5 125. Stephanie is the mother of 3-year-old Josie. Josie tends to have a varied appetite, eating more on some days than others. They are also about 8 pounds overweight. Stephanie frequently worries about Josie's eating habits and urges them to clean their plate at every meal, offering snacks as rewards for eating. Explain why Stephanie's approach is problematic.

ANSWER: One reason that parents like Stephanie urge children to eat is that they underestimate their children's weight. Studies show that parents of overweight children tend to believe that their children are thinner than they actually are. Using snacks as rewards actually encourages Josie to overeat.

126. Discuss the role of the corpus callosum in children's brain development. What is it, what does it do, and what happens if it does not develop correctly?

ANSWER: The corpus callosum is a long, thick band of nerve fibers that connects the two hemispheres of the brain. It is essential to the communication between the two sides of the brain, which results in children being able to coordinate both sides of their bodies. Serious disorders result when the corpus callosum fails to develop, almost always including intellectual disability. Abnormal growth of the corpus callosum is one symptom of autism spectrum disorders, as well as dozens of other disorders.

127. Three-year-old Karen has difficulty being quiet during story time at her preschool. When walking with her peers to the bathroom or to the gym for recess, Karen tends to walk next to or ahead of her classmates, despite being asked to walk in a straight line. She often touches things on the wall, such as posters, classroom art, or announcements. Karen especially has trouble focusing on tasks organized by adults. Both at home and at school, Karen tends to play with one toy—a doll that you can feed and change. She always requests that toy and is hesitant to try playing with something else. Karen's parents call her "Silly Sue" because once she starts laughing, she can't stop. Sometimes, she'll giggle off and on for 30 minutes straight. Based on the examples given, which two terms best describe Karen's behavior? Should her parents and teacher be concerned? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Karen is demonstrating poor impulse control, which is evident in her inability to remain quiet during story time, her difficulty walking in a line, and her interest in constantly touching things on the wall.

Karen's intense interest in the doll, as well as her "silly" laughing episodes, are examples of perseveration. No, Karen's parents and teacher should not be concerned, as this behavior is normal for a 3-year-old child. Many children of this age are notably unbalanced neurologically. As her brain develops, they can expect Karen's behavior to mature.

128. Explain Piaget's concept of "animism." Give two examples of how children demonstrate this concept.

ANSWER: Animism is a child's belief that inanimate objects are alive, and that nonhuman objects or animals have the same human characteristics as the child. For example, a child may believe that a doll has emotions, or that her pet cat thinks like she does, or that the chair on which she stubbed her toe did it to her on purpose.

129. According to Piaget, what are four limitations that make logic difficult until about age 6? Be sure to include definitions for each.

ANSWER: (1) Centration is the tendency to focus on one aspect of a situation to the exclusion of all others. (2) Focus on appearance: Young children ignore all attributes that are not apparent. (3) Static reasoning is the child's belief that nothing changes. That is, whatever is now has always been and always will be. (4) Irreversibility is when a child thinks that nothing can be undone. A thing cannot be restored to the way it was before a change occurred.

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Chapter 5 130. What is conservation? Describe an example of a conservation task, noting the initial presentation of the material, the transformation of the material, and the questions that children are asked. What is a preoperational child's response?

ANSWER: Conservation is the notion that the amount of something remains the same (is conserved) despite changes in its appearance. For example, a child will be presented with two identical things (e.g., two glasses of water), followed by the question, "Does this one have more, does this one have more, or are they both the same?" One of the things will then be transformed (e.g., one glass of water will be poured into a taller container that causes a different water level), and the child will be asked, "Does this one have more, does this one have more, or are they both the same?" Preoperational children will say that the transformation causes a change in the amount of the things (e.g., the taller glass now holds "more" water).

131. Anna is frustrated trying to learn to tie their shoelaces. According to Vygotsky, should the parents get involved, or should they let Anna try to master this task on their own? If they decide to get involved, what should their parents do?

ANSWER: Vygotsky would say that the parents definitely should get involved. The parents can serve as mentors and offer scaffolding by providing direct instruction, encouraging Anna to try to do it, interacting with Anna, gradually letting her do it more on her own, using directive comments, and helping her to see her progress. The parents should see what Anna is currently capable of and then offer the next step (the zone of proximal development) to achieve the task. For example, once she can make the first tie in the shoelaces, they can show her how to make the first bow. Once she can do that, they can show her how to go around that bow with the other shoestring (or make a second bow with the other shoestring and cross it if teaching the "bunny ears" method). Helping her to master each step in succession is called "scaffolding."

132. Mrs. Giu is a preschool teacher. She notices that many of her students talk to themselves while working on various classroom activities—for example, writing their letters, adding small numbers, and painting pictures.

According to Vygotsky, what is the term for this type of "self-talk"? Be sure to define the term. Should it be discouraged? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Mrs. Giu's students are using private speech, the internal dialogue that occurs when people talk to themselves (either silently or out loud). No, private speech should not be discouraged. Research shows that audible or not, private speech aids in cognition and self-reflection. In fact, young children should be encouraged to use it.

133. Explain what "theory of mind" is and indicate at what age it generally begins to develop. Discuss two factors that affect its development.

ANSWER: "Theory of mind" is a person's theory of what other people might be thinking. In order to have a theory of mind, children must realize that other people are not necessarily thinking the same thoughts that they themselves are. Theory of mind also includes the realization that thoughts may not reflect reality. Theory of mind is an emergent ability, slow to develop but typically beginning in most children at about age 4.

(1) The development of theory of mind is partly dependent on age-related maturation of the prefrontal cortex. (2) Children with older siblings develop a theory of mind at an earlier age than children without older siblings. (3) Conversations with adults facilitate the development of theory of mind.

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Chapter 5 134. What is the current consensus about whether early childhood is a critical or a sensitive period for language learning? Have scientists changed their stance over the years?

ANSWER: Yes, the thinking has changed. Scientists once thought that early childhood was a critical period for language learning—the only time when a first language could be mastered and the best time for learning a second or third one. However, researchers now believe that early childhood is a sensitive period for language acquisition—the best time for rapidly and easily mastering vocabulary, grammar, and pronunciation but certainly not the only time that these skills can be mastered.

135. Explain and discuss the process of "fast-mapping" and the related idea of "logical extension." Give an example of each concept.

ANSWER: Both fast-mapping and logical extension refer to a child's terrific surge of perceptual interrelationships among words. Fast-mapping refers to the phenomenon by which young children develop an interconnected set of categories for words, a kind of mental map, which makes speedy vocabulary acquisition possible. Fast-mapping speeds the development of learning new words because children immediately assign a new word to one of the categories in their mental language grid. Thus, the first time a child sees a pet ferret, he may assign it the status of a type of dog or a kind of cat, since he does not have a weasel concept. The child's understanding of the new word is not always precise. Children refine their understanding through use and experience.

Logical extension refers to a child applying a newly learned word to another related object. A young girl who just read a story about a Dalmatian dog may then refer to a black-and-white cow as a Dalmatian cow.

136. Aaron, age 3, often makes errors in speech. For example, Aaron will tell their mother that their "foots" are tired when they want to be carried. While watching a cartoon, they exclaimed, "Ew! Those are mices!" And last week, they told their grandfather that they "goed to the swimming park" with the babysitter. Explain the type of speech errors that Aaron is demonstrating. Should their parents or other adults criticize their speech in order to correct it? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Aaron's speech errors are called "overregularization," which is the application of rules of grammar even when exceptions occur, making the language seem more "regular" than it actually is. Criticism can undermine children's efforts at using language. Instead, adults can model the appropriate way to say words or phrases, such as, "Yes, those are mice!" or "Oh, you went to the swimming park! Was it fun?"

137. Discuss the concept of "language shift" in bilingualism. What is it, and how do young children exhibit it?

ANSWER: Language shift refers to the tendency of children to become more fluent in their new language than in the language spoken in their home. Some children exhibit a language shift by refusing to speak their first language, preferring the new language. This often occurs because young children are preoperational: They center on the immediate status of their language (not on future usefulness or past glory), on appearance more than substance.

138. Discuss the major differences between "child-centered" and "teacher-directed" early-childhood education programs. What does each type of program emphasize in its work with young children?

ANSWER: Child-centered programs are based on Piaget's theory that children will discover new ideas on their own, and Vygotsky's theory that children will learn best with guidance from other children and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 5 adults. These programs include a variety of opportunities for children to find their own interests and skills, including artistic, cognitive, and life-skills challenges. Montessori schools and Reggio schools are good examples of child-centered programs.

Teacher-directed programs are based on behaviorist theories that children who learn basic academic skills early will be more successful in school over the long run. Teacher-directed programs tend to be behavioral in their approach, structured on a basis of reward and punishment, and focused on school readiness. These programs include basic academic activities such as writing letters, sounding out words, and counting. Good behavior and adherence to routine are rewarded. Most preschool teachers, whether they are aware of it or not, run their classrooms in a manner that combines childcentered and teacher-directed methods.

139. Intensive early-childhood programs have been implemented in the United States. Give at least four examples of ways in which children benefit from early intervention, based on longitudinal studies that have been conducted.

ANSWER: Early education's long-term benefits become most apparent when the children are in the third grade or older. Children from these programs scored higher on math and reading achievement tests at age 10 than did other children from the same backgrounds, schools, and neighborhoods. They are also (1) less likely than their peers to be placed in classes for children with special needs or (2) to repeat a year of school. In adolescence, the children who had intensive preschool education (3) had higher career aspirations and (4) possessed a greater sense of achievement. As young adults, they were (5) more likely to attend college, (6) less likely to go to jail, and (7) more often working and paying taxes rather than relying on government subsidies.

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Chapter 6 1. The preeminent psychosocial accomplishment between the ages of 2 and 6 is learning when and how to: a. make friends. b. know right from wrong. c. regulate emotions. d. make choices.

ANSWER: c 2. An upset 4-year-old child might stop themself from hitting another child because they have developed: a. social referencing. b. self-esteem. c. identification. d. emotional regulation.

ANSWER: d 3. Emotional regulation is also referred to as: a. intentional behavior. b. motivation. c. effortful control. d. demanding control.

ANSWER: c 4. Erikson called the psychosocial developmental stage that occurs between 3 and 6 years of age: a. initiative versus guilt. b. industry versus inferiority. c. the preoperational stage. d. autonomy versus inferiority.

ANSWER: a 5. Children with a parent who does not have an optimal balance between emotional expression and emotional control may be likely to: a. struggle with emotional regulation. b. develop a sense of shame. c. experience high levels of pride. d. demonstrate characteristics of autism spectrum disorder.

ANSWER: a 6. John is at a toy store and sees a construction set. He asks his dad if he can have it for his birthday. His dad asks him if he thinks he would be able to use it. John reminds his dad that he is good at building with blocks.

What does this example demonstrate? a. John's dad is undermining his initiative. b. John needs to prove himself worthy to his father.

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Chapter 6 c. John has a positive self-concept. d. John has a sense of shame and doubt.

ANSWER: c 7. Jan, age 5, describes themselves as a good soccer player with brown hair who laughs a lot. Jan's description demonstrates the development of: a. emotional regulation. b. self-concept. c. self-deprecation. d. self-criticism.

ANSWER: b 8. Two-year-old Iris repeatedly exclaims "Me do it!" when their father tries to help them. Although this behavior is frustrating, their father understands that doing things independently will develop Iris' sense of: a. initiative. b. trust. c. integrity. d. emotional regulation.

ANSWER: a 9. When parents frequently remind their children of their positive accomplishments, it is common for children to develop: a. protective optimism. b. trust. c. integrity. d. emotional regulation.

ANSWER: a 10. _____ makes children believe that they will be good at anything they try to do. a. Overwhelming pride b. Protective optimism c. Extrinsic motivation d. Intrinsic motivation ANSWER: b 11. _____ is regulated in almost every culture. a. Anger b. Guilt c. Fear d. Pride ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 12. According to Erikson, children have _____, and thus believe that they can achieve any goal. a. a sense of self-doubt b. a weak self-concept c. strong feelings of guilt d. an unrealistic self-concept ANSWER: d 13. According to Erikson's theory, which factor(s) help(s) young children demonstrate initiative? a. neurological maturity and a longer attention span b. a child's sense of guilt and shame c. a decrease in the child's emotional regulation d. apprenticeship opportunities offered by a child's parents ANSWER: a 14. Which of these statements does NOT contribute to emotional regulation? a. Maturation matters. b. Learning matters. c. Culture matters. d. Timing of birth matters.

ANSWER: d 15. The desire to pursue a goal that comes from within a person is called: a. emotional regulation. b. extrinsic motivation. c. intrinsic motivation. d. effortful control.

ANSWER: c 16. Clara spends hours each day playing with their doll, Emma. Clara gives Emma a bath, dresses them, feeds them, and pretends to change their diaper. Clara is _____ to play with Emma. a. extensively motivated b. extrinsically motivated c. intrinsically motivated d. intensively driven ANSWER: c 17. A child having an imaginary friend is an example of: a. self-control. b. intrinsic motivation. c. extrinsic motivation. d. protective optimism.

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Chapter 6 ANSWER: b 18. One of the benefits of children having imaginary friends is that: a. there is less pressure to develop friendships with real peers. b. the child will always be happy because they have someone to talk to at all times. c. the child has an intrinsic motivation to converse with imaginary friends. d. parents can use the imaginary friend to convince their child to obey.

ANSWER: c 19. Skye frequently plays the piano whenever her family has guests because she enjoys the praise and attention that she receives. When alone, however, Skye rarely plays the piano. Skye's motivation: a. is exclusively intrinsic. b. brings her great pleasure. c. is mostly extrinsic. d. will persist through adulthood.

ANSWER: c 20. Mr. and Mrs. Bruce want to instill a sense of intrinsic motivation in their 5-year-old daughter Jane. Jane brings home a drawing of their school and classroom. How should the Bruce's respond? a. "Wow! You are the best artist at school!" b. "You really should have worked harder on this." c. "Why didn't you color your picture?" d. "You really worked hard on this drawing!"

ANSWER: d 21. Many developmentalists believe that _____ is the most productive as well as the most enjoyable activity that children undertake. a. preschool b. drawing c. play d. watching digital media ANSWER: c 22. In kindergarten, 5-year-old Maria rarely joins their peers at play. Instead, Maria tends to carefully observe the classmates as they transition from one play center to the next. According to Mildred Parten, Maria is engaged in _____ play. a. solitary b. onlooker c. parallel d. associative ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 23. Mildred Parten described play as: a. extrinsic. b. intrinsic. c. immature. d. neurotypical.

ANSWER: b 24. Play can be divided into two kinds: _____ play, when a child is alone, and _____ play, which occurs with playmates. a. onlooker; parallel b. parallel; cooperative c. parallel; prosocial d. pretend; social ANSWER: d 25. Young children usually play BEST with: a. their peers. b. their parents. c. older children. d. their younger siblings.

ANSWER: a 26. When a child identifies as being a gender other than the one assigned at birth, they are said to be: a. cisgender. b. transgender. c. intersex. d. gender binary.

ANSWER: b 27. Which statement is true? a. Parents around the world play with their children regularly. b. The ways in which children play are identical around the world. c. Children's play reflects their culture's practices and values. d. Children in North America who engage in parallel play are developmentally delayed.

ANSWER: c 28. Which is NOT one of the types of play identified by Mildred Parten? a. personal play b. associative play c. onlooker play d. parallel play Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 ANSWER: a 29. Husseun and Kamile are both building with building blocks. They are sitting apart, each with their own set of blocks. They are engaged in _____ play. a. cooperative b. parallel c. onlooker d. solitary ANSWER: b 30. A child's active play during the childhood years correlates with: a. decreased competitiveness. b. increased bullying. c. increased aggression. d. increased peer acceptance.

ANSWER: d 31. Many developmentalists are concerned that modern children spend too little time: a. playing alone. b. engaging in parallel play. c. imitating adults. d. engaged in active play.

ANSWER: d 32. Children who have peers to actively play with tend to: a. fight with them. b. develop physical skills. c. get overwhelmed. d. tattle on their playmates.

ANSWER: b 33. What is one of the functions peers provide in active play? a. competition b. criticism c. reluctant cooperation d. a quiet environment ANSWER: a 34. Play that mimics aggression through wrestling, chasing, or grabbing, but is not intended to harm, is called "_____ play." a. bullying Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 b. sociodramatic c. parallel d. rough-and-tumble ANSWER: d 35. Just as monkeys do in their rough-and-tumble play, human children: a. look angry. b. use a play face. c. play hide and seek. d. determine a social hierarchy.

ANSWER: b 36. Rough-and-tumble play has been associated with the development of the _____ area of the brain since it helps children to regulate their emotions, practice social skills, and strengthen their bodies. a. hippocampus b. frontal lobe c. prefrontal cortex d. brain stem ANSWER: c 37. Rough-and-tumble play between boys and fathers may prevent _____ at a later age. a. development of the prefrontal cortex b. the development of imagination c. antisocial behavior d. emotional regulation ANSWER: c 38. Tamy, Marla, and Maria are playing dress-up. They are all princesses and have built a castle out of cardboard boxes and colored paper. What type of play are the three girls engaging in? a. bullying play b. sociodramatic play c. parallel play d. rough-and-tumble play ANSWER: b 39. Lanae sees their friends Miguel and Liam playing a quiet game of blocks. Lanae wants to engage in some rough-and-tumble play, so they grab one of the blocks and run a few feet away, looking over their shoulder and displaying a play face. How are Miguel and Liam likely to respond? a. They will tell an adult that Lanae disrupted their game. b. They will chase Lanae and play wrestle. c. They will cry and demand their block back.

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Chapter 6 d. They will ignore Lanae and continue playing with their blocks.

ANSWER: b 40. When Nate's dad gets home from work, Nate runs to him shouting, "Daddy!" His dad sweeps him up in a bear hug, gives him a gentle knuckle rub on top of his head, and then lowers him to the ground in a pretend choke hold. Nate screams with delight, escapes the hold, and climbs on his dad's back to ride him like a horse.

Inadvertently, Nate hurt his dad while climbing, and his dad said sternly, "That really hurt. Be nice!" What kind of lesson is Nate's dad teaching him with this bout of rough-and-tumble play? a. dominance b. gender roles c. private speech d. emotional regulation ANSWER: d 41. Sociodramatic play helps children to develop _____ when they act out fear, bravery, and fury. a. self-control b. gender roles c. private speech d. emotional regulation ANSWER: d 42. Sociodramatic play may help children develop: a. theory of mind. b. gross motor skills. c. aggressive tendencies. d. antisocial behavior.

ANSWER: a 43. Marissa and Dominic are 4-year-olds at free play in their preschool. Marissa has an apron tied around their head, and Dominic has a sheer curtain tied over their shoulders like a cape. Each of them is holding a stick.

When asked what they're doing, Marissa says, "We're playing fairy. We're both fairies." What kind of play are they engaging in? a. bullying b. sociodramatic play c. parallel play d. rough-and-tumble play ANSWER: b 44. By the preschool years, children: a. spend over two hours a day with some form of media. b. can regulate emotions at an adultlike level. c. primarily learn through interactions with siblings.

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Chapter 6 d. are unaffected by the content of violent media.

ANSWER: a 45. Today's children spend more time _____ than playing outdoors. a. engaged in indoor sociodramatic play b. participating in solitary play c. using electronic media d. reading books ANSWER: c 46. _____ is the understanding of other people's feelings and concerns. a. Prosocial behavior b. Introspection c. Empathy d. Effortful control ANSWER: c 47. Which statement about prosocial and antisocial behavior is true? a. Both prosocial and antisocial behavior can be innate as well as learned. b. Neither prosocial nor antisocial behavior is innate. c. Prosocial behavior is innate, while antisocial behavior is socially constructed. d. Antisocial behavior is innate, while prosocial behavior is socially constructed.

ANSWER: a 48. What is the hallmark of prosocial behavior? a. It is done to help another without any benefit for oneself. b. It is done to promote one's social standing within a group. c. It is done to hurt another in order to benefit oneself. d. It is a neutral action that does not hurt or benefit anyone.

ANSWER: a 49. When Zhan, age 4, sees a little boy fall and hurt himself, a look of concern appears on their face. They are probably experiencing: a. fear. b. sadness. c. empathy. d. frustration.

ANSWER: c 50. Which scenario BEST illustrates prosocial behavior?

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Chapter 6 a. Indigo takes out the garbage for a quarter. b. Maranay helps their father clean so that their father will take them to the park. c. Eva says "please" when asking their father for a dollar. d. Bethany feeds their baby sister because their mother is sick.

ANSWER: d 51. Which scenario is an example of antisocial behavior? a. Jamie offers to share their toys with Jennifer. b. Ned intentionally knocks over Simon's blocks. c. Hank watches while other children jump rope. d. Stacey helps their father rake leaves in the yard.

ANSWER: b 52. Which type of aggression tends to be MOST characteristic of 2-year-old children? a. reactive b. adaptive c. bullying d. relational ANSWER: a 53. Indulgent parents are also called: a. authoritarian. b. permissive. c. authoritative. d. neglectful.

ANSWER: b 54. Aggression used to obtain a toy or other object is: a. bullying. b. instrumental. c. reactive. d. personal.

ANSWER: b 55. Which is an example of reactive aggression? a. Adrianna tells Jimmy that Jimmy is a sissy and everyone knows it. b. Joanie hits Lexie after Lexie bumps into them during a game of catch. c. Chris wrestles Dan for fun. d. Marion punches Jerry for no apparent reason.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 56. Three girls spread a rumor that 7-year-old Brenda is a bed-wetter who still uses a pacifier. This is an example of _____ aggression. a. instrumental b. reactive c. bullying d. relational ANSWER: d 57. Kendra was born a biological girl but identifies as a boy. Kendra is: a. transgender. b. a girl. c. cisgender. d. homosexual.

ANSWER: a 58. A feeling of dislike or even hatred for another person is called: a. empathy. b. antipathy. c. prosocial. d. antisocial.

ANSWER: b 59. Diana Baumrind is known for her work on: a. gender roles. b. types of play. c. parenting styles. d. cognitive stages.

ANSWER: c 60. The four dimensions of a parenting style described by Diana Baumrind are warmth, discipline, communication, and: a. physical contact. b. expectations for maturity. c. trust. d. supportiveness.

ANSWER: b 61. When parents expect unquestioning obedience from their children, their parenting style is labeled: a. tyrannical. b. authoritative. c. dictatorial.

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Chapter 6 d. authoritarian.

ANSWER: d 62. A parenting style characterized by high parent-to-child communication, low warmth, and high expectations of maturity is: a. authoritarian. b. authoritative. c. permissive. d. neglectful.

ANSWER: a 63. Thomas demonstrates warmth and nurturance toward their children. They do not believe in punishment and do not have any rules for their children. What is Thomas' parenting style? a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. neglectful d. permissive ANSWER: d 64. As a father, Aiden rates low on nurturance and communication and high on maturity demands. Aiden exhibits the _____ style of parenting. a. authoritarian b. permissive c. authoritative d. neglectful ANSWER: a 65. Authoritarian parents often: a. offer their children a lot of praise. b. allow children to question their decisions. c. seem stern to their children. d. make few maturity demands on their children.

ANSWER: c 66. Sofia is a nurturing parent and has a good relationship with their children, whom they never discipline.

Their parenting style is: a. authoritative. b. permissive. c. neglectful. d. authoritarian.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 67. Parents who set limits, enforce rules, and listen receptively to their children are exhibiting the _____ pattern of parenting. a. permissive b. authoritarian c. authoritative d. democratic ANSWER: c 68. Bree's usual bedtime is 9:00 P.M., and their parents enforce this rule. One evening, Bree is watching an educational program that ends at 9:30 P.M. They ask their parents if they can stay up to watch the end of the show. Their parents agree to let them stay up as long as they get up in time for school in the morning. Which parenting style are Bree's parents demonstrating? a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. permissive d. uninvolved ANSWER: b 69. Children who lack self-control are MOST likely to have parents who are: a. authoritative. b. overcontrolling. c. authoritarian. d. permissive.

ANSWER: d 70. The individual MOST likely to have grown up with permissive parents is: a. Richard, who is obedient but not very happy. b. Michael, who is happy and successful. c. Raul, who is unhappy and lacks self-control. d. Peter, who is a gang member and a drug user.

ANSWER: c 71. The individual MOST likely to have grown up with authoritative parents is: a. Cassie, who is obedient but not very happy. b. Raquel, who is happy and successful. c. Nathalia, who is unhappy and lacks self-control. d. Lacey, who is homeless and a drug user.

ANSWER: b 72. One criticism of Diana Baumrind's classification of parenting styles is that she: a. overlooked the fact that most authoritative parents are lax in discipline.

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Chapter 6 b. did not realize that many permissive parents love their children. c. considered children's temperamental differences. d. focused more on parental attitudes than on the daily interactions between parent and child.

ANSWER: d 73. When a child identifies as being the same gender as assigned at birth, they are said to be: a. cisgender. b. transgender. c. intersex. d. gender binary.

ANSWER: a 74. Rick hits or kicks Edwin on the playground nearly every day. Rick is using _____ aggression against Edwin. a. reactive b. instrumental c. bullying d. relational ANSWER: c 75. Of the different types of aggression, the MOST worrisome is: a. instrumental. b. reactive. c. bullying. d. relational.

ANSWER: c 76. Spanking is more frequent: a. by mothers than by fathers. b. by fathers than by mothers. c. in New England than in southern states. d. in high-SES than in low-SES families.

ANSWER: a 77. The idea that gender comes in only two forms is called: a. cisgender b. transgender c. intersex d. gender binary ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 78. When would a time-out be the MOST effective discipline strategy? a. when the child is less than 2 b. once the child can use words to express emotions c. if the child enjoys being with other people d. if the child is over the age of 8 ANSWER: c 79. Psychological control as a means of discipline relies on a child's: a. sense of belonging to the family unit. b. sense of pride in himself or herself. c. feelings of shame, guilt, and gratitude. d. sense of fear toward the parents.

ANSWER: c 80. The MOST common discipline technique for a child's misbehavior that North American parents use with preschool children is: a. blaming themselves. b. reasoning and disappointment. c. time-outs. d. removing children's playthings.

ANSWER: c 81. Juan has just required their 4-year-old son to sit quietly, without toys or any form of play, for a few minutes after their son intentionally poured juice on the floor. This is an example of: a. time-out. b. induction. c. child maltreatment. d. physical punishment.

ANSWER: a 82. _____ is a discipline technique that involves a parent talking to the child and helping the child to understand what they did wrong. a. Time-out b. Induction c. Psychoanalysis d. Behaviorism ANSWER: b 83. By the age of _____ year(s), children are convinced certain toys are appropriate for one gender but not the other. a. 1 b. 2 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 c. 3 d. 4 ANSWER: d 84. _____ differences are biological, and _____ differences are culturally prescribed. a. Gender; sex b. Sex; gender c. Sibling; parental d. Parental; sibling ANSWER: b 85. Freud would say that a typical 5-year-old child is in the _____ stage of development. a. phallic b. oral c. genital d. superego ANSWER: a 86. In Freudian theory, a little boy who develops sexual feelings toward his mother and becomes jealous of his father is experiencing: a. the Electra complex. b. penis envy. c. the Oedipus complex. d. identification.

ANSWER: c 87. According to Freud, boys in the third psychoanalytic stage of development: a. are openly angry with their fathers. b. secretly want to replace their fathers. c. disrespect their mothers. d. believe their fathers are perfect.

ANSWER: b 88. Morris believes that our human emphasis on sex difference blinds us to the reality that sexes have far more in common than traditional theories recognize. This is consistent with the: a. gender-similarities hypothesis. b. psychoanalytic view. c. Electra complex. d. evolutionary theory.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 89. Debra is 3 years old and says frequently that she wants to "marry daddy." According to psychoanalytic theory, this is a manifestation of: a. the Oedipus complex. b. sexual abuse. c. the ego. d. the Electra complex.

ANSWER: d 90. A range of potentially traumatic childhood stresses that can have lasting, negative effects on health and well-being are called: a. avoidable injury. b. child maltreatment. c. substantiated maltreatment. d. adverse childhood experiences.

ANSWER: d 91. According to Freud's psychoanalytic theory, the Electra complex causes girls to: a. resent their father because he has a penis. b. adore their father and resent their mother. c. prefer their mother to their father. d. try to make peace when parents fight.

ANSWER: b 92. To understand a child's development of gender attitudes and roles, behaviorists stress: a. biological mechanisms. b. reinforcement and punishment. c. reasoning ability. d. unconscious motivations.

ANSWER: b 93. Which scenario BEST demonstrates the behaviorist theory regarding gender development? a. Jeff has some hostility toward their father. b. Stelvio is a 6-year-old girl who is trying to act like their father. c. Nate realizes that he is male and that he will always be male. d. Cecelia wears a dress, and their parents tell her how pretty they look.

ANSWER: d 94. An effort by child-welfare authorities to find a long-term living situation that will provide stability and support for a maltreated child is called: a. permanency planning. b. kinship care.

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Chapter 6 c. foster care. d. adoption.

ANSWER: a 95. Developmentalists who focus on children's thinking about gender roles as opposed to the children's observable behaviors are _____ theorists. a. sociocultural b. psychoanalytic c. behavioral d. cognitive ANSWER: d 96. Which theory focuses on how children learn acceptable behaviors for their gender? a. cognitive theory b. behavioral theory c. epigenetic theory d. evolutionary theory ANSWER: b 97. Which theory states that gender role differences are rooted in a basic urge to reproduce? a. cognitive theory b. behavioral theory c. evolutionary theory d. sociocultural theory ANSWER: c 98. Far more children die from _____ than from any specific disease. a. obesity b. violence c. lead poisoning d. medical errors ANSWER: b 99. Instead of accident prevention, health workers prefer the term: a. injury control. b. perceptual oversight. c. federal laws. d. CPR. ANSWER: a 100. Immaturity of the _____ makes young children impulsive.

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Chapter 6 a. amygdala b. cerebellum c. prefrontal cortex d. orbital cortex ANSWER: c 101. Dianna hired a professional to help them "baby-proof" the house for their increasingly mobile toddler. The professional emphasized that when striving to protect toddlers from injury, it is important to think about _____ instead of _____. a. injury control; accident prevention b. injury control; harm reduction c. accident prevention; injury control d. harm reduction; injury control ANSWER: a 102. Which strategy is MOST effective in preventing injury in young children? a. parent education classes b. laws mandating primary prevention c. 911 and other hotlines d. tertiary prevention ANSWER: b 103. Which type of injury prevention begins after an injury and is done to limit the damage caused by the injury? a. primary b. tertiary c. quaternary d. secondary ANSWER: b 104. School buses have flashing lights on them as a form of _____ prevention. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary ANSWER: b 105. Which of these is an example of "secondary prevention"? a. immunizing a child against measles b. rushing a child to the emergency department c. passing a law to make bike helmets necessary for children Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 d. pushing a child out of the way of a falling ladder ANSWER: d 106. Which of these acts would be considered child maltreatment? a. a caregiver leaving a child alone while going to the store b. a parent yelling at a child c. a stranger following a child d. a teacher withholding a snack after the child threw a toy ANSWER: a 107. Child abuse is defined as: a. anything that hurts a child's feelings. b. anything that a child considers aversive. c. a deliberate act that is harmful to the child's physical, emotional, or sexual well-being. d. a failure to meet essential physical or emotional needs.

ANSWER: c 108. In order to be substantiated child maltreatment, _____ must be verified by the authorities. a. abandonment b. sexual abuse c. abuse or neglect d. multiple incidences ANSWER: c 109. The ratio of reported maltreatment cases to substantiated maltreatment cases is: a. 1:1. b. 2:1. c. 3:1. d. 5:1.

ANSWER: d 110. The idea that child maltreatment is rare and perpetuated by disturbed strangers: a. is representative of most child maltreatment cases. b. has been disproved by research. c. is true for abuse, but not neglect. d. is called "battered child syndrome."

ANSWER: b 111. What is the MOST probable reason child abuse is underreported? a. variation in outsiders noticing abuse b. an increase in child neglect Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 c. increased fear of retaliation from the legal system d. a decrease in the number of small children in households ANSWER: a 112. How do abused children come to view other people? a. as kind and nurturing, in contrast to their abuser's behavior b. as hostile and ready to take advantage of them c. as uninteresting and difficult to understand d. as amusing and appealing ANSWER: b 113. One study of 807 mistreated children found that as adults, they had a higher risk of being _____ than their same-sex peers from the same ethnicity, neighborhood, and SES. a. diabetic b. deaf c. unemployed d. accident prone ANSWER: c 114. Which illustrates tertiary prevention for child maltreatment? a. identifying a parent in a stressful situation and providing resources to assist him or her b. offering free parenting classes to high-risk populations c. providing psychotherapy to a someone who has been abused d. building Boys and Girls Clubs in low-income neighborhoods ANSWER: c 115. With respect to child maltreatment, permanency planning is a _____ level of prevention. a. tertiary b. primary c. secondary d. supplemental ANSWER: a 116. Austin's parents neglected him, and the court determined that he needed to be removed from their care while his parents dealt with the issues that led to his neglect. He was placed with his aunt, who provided: a. foster care. b. kinship care. c. day care. d. adoptive care.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 117. Discuss the development of emotional regulation in early childhood, including the concept of "effortful control." How do culture and family contribute to its development?

ANSWER: Emotional regulation, which is the ability to know how and when to express emotions, helps the child control impulsive behavior and appropriately display emotions. In the process of emotional regulation, children develop their self-concept, which is their idea of who they are. In early childhood, they begin to understand some of their characteristics, which include what emotions they feel and how they express them. Emotional regulation is also called "effortful control," a term that emphasizes that controlling outbursts is not easy. Effortful control is more difficult when people of any age are in pain, or tired, or hungry. For all aspects of emotional regulation, culture and family matter. Children may be encouraged to express or hide their emotions. Some adults guffaw, slap their knees, and stomp their feet for joy; others cover their mouths if a smile spontaneously appears.

Anger is regulated in almost every culture, but the expression of it varies a great deal. No matter what the specifics, parents teach emotional regulation.

118. Your friend is taking their first psychology course and has questions about Erikson's stage of initiative versus guilt. Given what you know, help your friend. Briefly describe what happens during Erikson's initiative versus guilt stage.

ANSWER: During Erikson's initiative versus guilt stage, children undertake new skills and activities. They attempt to master tasks by themselves, expressing pride in their successes and guilt about their failures. Their self-esteem is blossoming. They tend to overestimate their abilities and try to emulate what adults are doing.

119. Define intrinsic and extrinsic motivation. How might parents and teachers help children become intrinsically motivated?

ANSWER: Intrinsic motivation comes from within a person who does something for the joy of doing it without the need for payment, praise, or other external reward. Extrinsic motivation comes from outside a person and entices the person to behave in a certain way in order to earn praise, money, or rewards, or to avoid punishment.

Parents and teachers can help children become intrinsically motivated by acknowledging their effort when engaged in activities, instead of the product or outcome of their effort.

120. Ms. Walters is a new kindergarten teacher. List and describe the five types of play identified by Mildred Parten that Ms. Walters is likely to observe in students.

ANSWER: Parten identified the following types of play: (1) Solitary: A child plays alone, unaware of other children playing nearby.

(2) Onlooker: A child watches other children play.

(3) Parallel: Children play in similar ways but not together.

(4) Associative: Children interact, sharing toys, but not taking turns.

(5) Cooperative: Children play together, creating dramas or taking turns.

121. What is active play, and why is it important? Describe two types of active play, explaining why each type is important for a child's psychosocial development.

ANSWER: Active play includes running, jumping, and throwing. Active play is important for the development of motor skills and muscles. In addition, when playing with peers, children learn turn-taking, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 planning, and self-control.

Rough-and-tumble play includes activities such as wrestling, pushing, and climbing. It is engaged in most often by boys. This type of play is essential for the development of empathy, self-control, and recognition of others' emotions (through facial expressions and body language).

Sociodramatic play is pretend play and role-playing. It is important for advancing the child's theory of mind, empathy, and creativity.

122. List and define four forms of aggression. Indicate which form(s) increase(s) over the years and which form(s) decrease(s).

ANSWER: Instrumental aggression is hurtful behavior that is aimed at gaining something (such as a toy, a place in line, or a turn on the swing) that someone else has.

Reactive aggression is an impulsive retaliation for a hurt (intentional or accidental) that can be verbal or physical.

Relational aggression refers to nonphysical acts, such as insults or social rejection, aimed at harming the social connections between the victim and others.

Bullying aggression refers to unprovoked, repeated physical or verbal attacks, especially on victims who are unlikely to defend themselves.

Instrumental and reactive aggression tend to decline with age. Relational aggression increases with age, and bullying aggression can either increase or decrease with age.

123. Describe the three parenting styles identified by Baumrind.

ANSWER: Baumrind identified the following styles: • Authoritarian, which is characterized by lack of warmth; strict, rigid rules; allowing no input from the child; and strict, often physical, discipline. These parents have high expectations for maturity.

• Authoritative, which is warm and nurturing; uses reinforcement over punishment; understands that children are not cognitively as mature as adults; and encourages communication between the parent and child. These parents have realistic expectations for maturity.

• Permissive, which may be warm and loving but does not establish rules and often does not have consequences even for overt misbehaviors. These parents have low expectations for maturity.

Note: The neglectful/uninvolved parenting style was not identified by Baumrind and should not be included in the answer.

124. Describe neglectful/uninvolved parenting and compare it to the permissive parenting style.

ANSWER: Neglectful/uninvolved parents do not seem to care what or how their children are doing. Permissive parents care about their children's activities and are involved in their children's lives; however, they are indulgent. With both styles, the parents do not use physical punishment for misbehavior.

125. Discuss the long-term outcomes associated with the four parenting styles.

ANSWER: Authoritative: Children who are raised by authoritative parents tend to be successful, articulate, happy with themselves, and generous with others. They are also well liked by teachers and peers.

Authoritarian: Children who have authoritarian parents tend to become conscientious, obedient, and quiet. But they are not always happy. They may feel guilty or depressed. They may rebel during adolescence and may be quick to blame and punish as adults.

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Chapter 6 Permissive: Children who have permissive parents tend to be less mature than their peers. They display poorer self-regulation and often act out in an attempt to solicit parental or adult control.

They continue to display dependent behaviors into adulthood. As adults, they lack emotional regulation and self-control. This immaturity impedes relationships, which is the main reason for their unhappiness.

Neglectful/uninvolved: Children with neglectful/uninvolved parents tend to be immature, sad, lonely, and at risk of injury and abuse not only during childhood but throughout their life span.

126. Explain the difference between sex and gender as described in the text. Give three examples of gender schema.

ANSWER: Sex is defined by biology and includes the anatomical differences between boys and girls. Gender is a cultural construct and includes everything from toy preferences to dress to which emotions may be expressed and how they are to be expressed. Examples of gender schema include cultural constructs such as (1) boys shouldn't cry; (2) girls play with dolls instead of soldiers; (3) boys don't do ballet; and (4) girls don't play football. (Allow for other acceptable answers.)

127. Why are preschoolers and young children most prone to injuries and dangers? Explain the three levels of injury prevention and provide an example of each.

ANSWER: Preschoolers and young children are at risk because of their poor impulse control and their inability to assess risk due to their immature prefrontal cortex.

Primary prevention makes a situation safer to reduce the likelihood of injury, such as using streetlights instead of stop signs.

Secondary prevention reduces risk in high-risk situations, such as adding flashing lights at crosswalks.

Tertiary prevention provides a remedy after an injury has occurred, such as quick triage in the emergency room 128. Define child maltreatment, and explain why there are discrepancies between reported and substantiated child maltreatment.

ANSWER: Child maltreatment refers to intentional harm to, or avoidable endangerment of, anyone less than 18 years of age. It includes both child abuse and child neglect. There is wide variation in reports of maltreatment among areas in the United States. Many factors impact reports, including (1) duplicate reports; (2) underreporting; (3) wide variability among professionals noticing abuse; (4) the availability of community resources for investigation of abuse; and (5) difficulty verifying that abuse has occurred.

129. Name three immediate problems and three long-term consequences that can result from child maltreatment.

ANSWER: Immediate problems resulting from maltreatment include (1) physical symptoms (such as bruises or hunger), (2) academic impairment, (3) a lack of trust in others, (4) hostility/aggression, and (5) social isolation.

Long-term consequences can include (1) substance abuse, (2) unhealthy relationships, (3) employment and career struggles, (4) issues with food, (5) emotional disorders, and (6) an increased Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 6 chance of living in poverty.

130. Dr. Jensen is designing a comprehensive intervention program that addresses child maltreatment. You have been asked to consult with Dr. Jensen on this project. Explain how the program could be designed to intervene at each level of prevention. Provide an example of each level and describe the difficulties that Dr. Jensen might encounter in the implementation of these interventions.

ANSWER: Primary prevention of child maltreatment might include working to eliminate financial instability and teenage parenthood, and/or creating stable, safe neighborhoods. While primary interventions can create cultures that foster stronger families and societies, they require broad support and significant resources.

Secondary prevention involves noticing warning signs and intervening before the situation escalates.

Regular checkups by medical professionals and quality child care can provide this, but not every family has access to these resources. In the case of maltreatment, relatively few reports come from neighbors or relatives.

Tertiary prevention intervenes when there is already a problem. This may include providing a parent with parenting support or finding a safe place for a child in danger. By this point, intervention is challenging and expensive, and harm has already occurred.

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Chapter 7 1. Children between the ages of 6 and 11 are within the developmental stage referred to as: a. infancy. b. early childhood. c. middle childhood. d. adolescence.

ANSWER: c 2. When comparing the growth of children from ages 6 to 11 to infants or adolescents, one notices that children: a. grow slowly and steadily. b. grow faster than they did in early childhood. c. grow at the same rate from ages 2 to 12. d. have a tremendous growth spurt during the school years.

ANSWER: a 3. The ability to remember what you have seen is referred to as: a. selective attention. b. embodied cognition. c. echoic memory. d. visual-spatial memory.

ANSWER: d 4. Which activity, when a daily part of a child's life, is MOST associated with health problems later in life, such as obesity? a. playing outside for over an hour b. eating three meals each day c. having several hours of screen time a day d. playing about one hour of video games ANSWER: c 5. The health habits that children develop during the middle childhood years are: a. unrelated to their health in adolescence and adulthood. b. related to their health in adolescence, but unrelated to their health in adulthood. c. unrelated to their health in adolescence, but related to their health in adulthood. d. related to their health in adolescence and adulthood.

ANSWER: d 6. Physical activity can benefit children in all of these ways EXCEPT by improving: a. overall physical health. b. academic achievement. c. mental health. d. oral health practices.

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Chapter 7 ANSWER: d 7. Physical activity within schools has _____ over the years. a. increased b. decreased c. hindered academic achievement d. remained stable ANSWER: b 8. Children are considered overweight when they have BMI above the _____ percentile. a. 65th b. 75th c. 85th d. 95th ANSWER: c 9. Abby's BMI is in the 79th percentile, which is associated with being: a. underweight. b. normal weight. c. overweight. d. obese.

ANSWER: b 10. Childhood obesity is usually defined as a BMI above the _____ percentile. a. 65th b. 75th c. 85th d. 95th ANSWER: d 11. At Devon's recent checkup, their doctor told them that they were obese. Devon's BMI is MOST likely in the _____ percentile. a. 17th b. 37th c. 71st d. 97th ANSWER: d 12. Which of these is MOST often seen in children who are obese? a. low blood pressure b. increased psychopathology Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 c. high levels of cholesterol d. increased chance of becoming a bully ANSWER: c 13. Obesity has increased because it is common for: a. young children to attend preschool. b. young children to watch TV and drink soda. c. babies to be breast-fed. d. children to walk to school.

ANSWER: b 14. During middle childhood, children themselves contribute to weight gain by getting adults to do what they want, such as buying them candy or junk food. The ability of children to get adults to do what they want has been referred to as "_____ power." a. influence b. demanding c. child d. pester ANSWER: d 15. Shawn is in the grocery store with their mom when they see the candy-like cereal that was advertised on television. Shawn asks their mom to purchase it and they say no. Shawn continues to beg, bargain, and pout until their mother concedes. Shawn has demonstrated _____ power. a. influence b. demanding c. child d. pester ANSWER: d 16. Asthma is a disorder caused by _____ the airways. a. inflammation of b. enlargement of c. destruction of d. holes in ANSWER: a 17. Janice brought their 10-year-old daughter to see the doctor because they were having problems breathing.

The doctor informed Janice that their daughter had inflammation of the airways. Janice's daughter was diagnosed with: a. asthma. b. obesity. c. sleep apnea.

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Chapter 7 d. diabetes.

ANSWER: a 18. Between 1980 and 2000, the rate of childhood asthma in the United States has: a. doubled. b. tripled. c. decreased. d. stayed the same.

ANSWER: b 19. Wayne was doing a class report on asthma and learned that several factors may contribute to its development, including all of these EXCEPT: a. alleles. b. airtight windows. c. sunlight. d. carpets.

ANSWER: c 20. The belief that children's immune systems need to be exposed to viruses and bacteria in order to strengthen them, but that children are overprotected from this exposure, is called the: a. sterile environment theory. b. hygiene hypothesis. c. spore theory. d. immunity hypothesis.

ANSWER: b 21. With respect to asthma, the hygiene hypothesis is supported by data showing all of these EXCEPT: a. children born by cesarean delivery (very sterile) have more asthma. b. farm children have less asthma and other allergies. c. first-born children develop asthma more often than later-born children. d. city children have less asthma and fewer allergies.

ANSWER: d 22. Which child is more likely to develop asthma? a. a child who lives in a city b. a child who lives on a farm c. a child who experienced a vaginal delivery d. a child who is second-born in the family ANSWER: a 23. What is the idea that our sensorimotor actions are closely linked to our thinking?

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Chapter 7 a. selective attention b. embodied cognition c. echoic memory d. visual-spatial memory ANSWER: b 24. Which of these does NOT support the hygiene hypothesis? a. First-born children develop asthma more often than later-born ones. b. Asthma has specific genetic and biological factors. c. Asthma and allergies are less common among farm-dwelling children. d. Children born by c-section have a greater incidence of asthma.

ANSWER: b 25. The ability to concentrate on some stimuli while ignoring others is referred to as: a. selective attention. b. divided attention. c. automatization. d. reaction time.

ANSWER: a 26. Nine-year-old Joanna is able to listen to their teacher and concentrate on what they are saying even when their friends are talking around them. Joanna can do this because of an improvement in: a. selective attention. b. divided attention. c. automatization. d. reaction time.

ANSWER: a 27. According to Jean Piaget, middle childhood is a time for _____ thought. a. formal operational b. preoperational c. metacognitive d. concrete operational ANSWER: d 28. According to Jean Piaget, children gain the ability to use _____ during middle childhood. a. static reasoning b. abstract reasoning c. logic d. egocentrism ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 29. According to Jean Piaget, a child between the ages of 6 and 11 can apply logical principles to: a. abstractions, such as truth and liberty. b. chemistry and physics. c. concrete situations (real, tangible, visible). d. questions of social justice and equality.

ANSWER: c 30. A child is shown a large box and a small box. The large box contains a 5-pound weight and the small box contains a 10-pound weight. The child picks up the boxes and looks at them closely, and then is asked which weighs more. The child is no longer focused only on appearances, so he answers that the small box weighs more. Jean Piaget would say that this child is in the _____ stage of cognitive development. a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. metacognitive d. concrete operational ANSWER: d 31. When capable of concrete operational thought, children: a. are limited to intuitive, perceptual focusing. b. can apply their reasoning to real, tangible situations. c. can reason about abstractions. d. are likely to be misled by appearances.

ANSWER: b 32. Dr. Tess is doing a study to determine how 9-year-olds think. Based on theory, they believe that the 9-yearolds should be able to reason logically about concrete situations—situations that are real, tangible, and visible.

Dr. Tess's belief is based on: a. the information-processing perspective. b. Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development. c. Lev Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development. d. Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development.

ANSWER: b 33. The logical principle that allows objects to be grouped according to some characteristic that they share is called: a. concrete thought. b. transitive inference. c. classification. d. reversibility.

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Chapter 7 34. Nine-year-old Bobby sorted screws, bolts, and nails into three piles by type. They are able to correctly sort the objects into separate piles because of the logical principle of: a. conservation. b. seriation. c. classification. d. reversibility.

ANSWER: c 35. The knowledge that things can be arranged in a logical order is the logical principle of: a. conservation. b. seriation. c. classification. d. reversibility.

ANSWER: b 36. Seven-year-old Iona can arrange ten buttons in order from smallest to largest. Their understanding of _____ allows them to accomplish this. a. conservation b. transitive inference c. seriation d. abstract reasoning ANSWER: c 37. Which statement about the difference between a 4-year-old and an 11-year-old is TRUE? a. The 4-year-old can separate the relevant from the irrelevant, but the 11-year-old is unable to do so. b. The 11-year-old can apply abstract thought to the classification process, whereas the 4-year-old is unable to do so. c. The 4-year-old will be able to think logically about concrete situations, whereas the 11-year-old is unable to do so. d. The 11-year-old can use mental categories more flexibly, inductively, and simultaneously, whereas the 4-year-old is unable to do so.

ANSWER: d 38. Lev Vygotsky viewed _____ as being crucial to children's development of skills and knowledge. a. instruction b. independence c. exploration d. passive learning ANSWER: a 39. Dr. Stott is conducting a study to determine what 9-year-olds know. Based on theory, they believe that the 9-year-olds will advance in knowledge based on instructions. Dr. Stott's belief is based on: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 a. the information-processing perspective. b. Jean Piaget's theory of cognitive development. c. Lev Vygotsky's theory of cognitive development. d. Erik Erikson's theory of psychosocial development.

ANSWER: c 40. Lev Vygotsky might argue that all of these could be an instructor to a 6-year-old child EXCEPT: a. a 3-year-old sibling. b. an art teacher. c. a grandparent. d. a 10-year-old friend.

ANSWER: a 41. According to Lev Vygotsky's sociocultural framework, every experience after _____ teaches individuals something. a. birth b. childhood c. adolescence d. adulthood ANSWER: a 42. The memory process includes all of these EXCEPT: a. input. b. storage. c. retrieval. d. decay.

ANSWER: d 43. Which statement is TRUE? a. School-age children are able to understand complex, abstract concepts. b. School-age children are as rigid in their thinking as preschoolers. c. School-age children are slightly less advanced thinkers than preschoolers. d. There is no sudden shift between preoperational and concrete operational thought.

ANSWER: a 44. Memory that is active at any given moment is called: a. working memory. b. short-term memory. c. long-term memory. d. sensory memory.

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Chapter 7 45. Jean Piaget and Lev Vygotsky differed over the most important factors in a child's cognitive development.

In general, Piaget described _____; Vygotsky noted _____. a. cultural impact; social instruction b. information processing; brain maturation c. brain maturation; universal changes d. universal changes; cultural impact ANSWER: d 46. Which of these is essential for getting information into working memory? a. exposure b. processing c. experience d. audition ANSWER: b 47. During _____ working memory drastically improves because we begin to think about what we want to remember. a. early childhood b. emerging adulthood c. middle childhood d. adolescence ANSWER: c 48. Knowledge _____ is a body of knowledge in a particular area that makes it easier to master new information in that area. a. base b. immersion c. automatization d. start ANSWER: a 49. Ten-year-old Brandon loves baseball and has studied baseball statistics since he was 5 years old. Brandon is currently reading this year's statistics for some of his favorite players. He will easily remember the new statistics because of the knowledge _____ he has for baseball statistics. a. base b. automatization c. immersion d. start ANSWER: a 50. Which factor contributes to increases in a child's knowledge base?

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Chapter 7 a. scoring high on an IQ test b. educated parents c. personal motivation d. well-developed fine motor skills ANSWER: c 51. Which of these factors does NOT facilitate increases in the knowledge base? a. high intelligence b. past experience c. current opportunity d. personal motivation ANSWER: a 52. New concepts are BEST learned when they are connected to: a. what is already known about a subject. b. current events. c. a teacher-directed curriculum. d. a child-centered curriculum.

ANSWER: a 53. Djmila is learning to read. Which type of memory is especially important for learning this skill? a. working memory b. short-term memory c. long-term memory d. sensory memory ANSWER: a 54. When information has been deposited into memory, it is said to be: a. retrieved. b. processed. c. in progress. d. in storage.

ANSWER: d 55. As you take an exam for this course, you are attempting to engage in: a. input. b. storage. c. processing. d. retrieval.

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Chapter 7 56. Which of these is a U.S. approach to teaching English that gathers all of the non-English speakers together and provides intense instruction in English? a. ESL b. ELL c. TIMSS d. PISA ANSWER: a 57. The tenor of the school relationship is referred to as the: a. school climate. b. fixed mind-set. c. embodied cognition. d. growth mind-set.

ANSWER: a 58. The _____ is that learning develops with effort, with one person's growth likely to advance another's. a. school climate b. fixed mind-set c. embodied cognition d. growth mind-set ANSWER: d 59. During middle childhood, children understand all of these aspects of language EXCEPT: a. prefixes. b. compound words. c. phrases. d. sarcasm.

ANSWER: d 60. Nine-year-old David writes, "My brother eats like a hungry pig." This statement demonstrates the understanding of: a. syntax. b. a second language. c. simile. d. logic.

ANSWER: c 61. Mastery of pragmatics allows children to change styles of speech, or "codes," depending on the audience.

What code are children likely to use with their teachers? a. informal code b. formal code Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 c. moderate code d. extreme code ANSWER: b 62. Which of these is an example of an informal linguistic code? a. "She's watching!" b. "Is it A or B?" c. "LOL" d. "Yeah!"

ANSWER: c 63. Mastery of pragmatics allows children to change styles of speech, or "codes," depending on the audience.

What code are children likely to use with their peers? a. informal code b. formal code c. moderate code d. extreme code ANSWER: a 64. Caleb shouts, "Yo dude! Did you see that bad shooting star?" Caleb is likely speaking to a: a. teacher. b. parent. c. grandparent. d. friend.

ANSWER: d 65. Abbreviations (such as LOL, BTW, and RU) in text messages and e-mails is an example of: a. metaphors. b. similes. c. grammar. d. informal linguistic code.

ANSWER: d 66. When Sharmi wants the teacher to repeat a question, they ask, "Would you please repeat the question?" but when they need a classmate to repeat themselves, they say, "What?" This example shows that Sharmi understands: a. the pragmatics of language. b. metaphors and similes. c. metacognitive processes. d. the control processes in speech.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 67. Shawn has the ability to talk informally with friends and more formally to teachers during class. Clearly Shawn understands the: a. metacognitive aspects of intellect. b. pragmatics of his language. c. automatized view of social interaction. d. control processes of regulation.

ANSWER: b 68. Some children in the United States are classified as _____ based on their proficiency in English. a. ELL b. NAEP c. TIMSS d. PIRLS ANSWER: a 69. The approach to teaching a second language in which children are taught all school subjects entirely in that second language is referred to as the _____ approach. a. ELL b. immersion c. heritage language d. additive bilingual ANSWER: b 70. Jake, who speaks only English, has moved to Spain with their family. Jake attends a public school. All of the school subjects are taught in Spanish. Jake is learning Spanish through: a. a Spanish-as-a-second-language program. b. an ESL program. c. bilingual schooling. d. immersion.

ANSWER: d 71. A strategy in which school subjects are taught in both the learner's original language and the second (majority) language is: a. an ELL program. b. an ESL program. c. bilingual education. d. immersion.

ANSWER: c 72. Juan is in the fourth grade. Part of the instruction in the classroom is conducted in English and part is conducted in Spanish. The classroom uses: a. immersion.

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Chapter 7 b. heritage language education. c. bilingual education. d. mainstreaming.

ANSWER: c 73. Decades of research throughout the world have found a _____ correlation between academic achievement and SES, largely due to language. a. zero b. weak c. moderate d. positive ANSWER: d 74. Children from low-SES families usually have all of these compared to children from higher-SES families EXCEPT: a. smaller vocabularies. b. impaired grammar. c. fewer compound sentences. d. fewer ELL classifications.

ANSWER: d 75. Dianna, age 7, comes from a low-SES family. Compared to their peers from higher-SES families, they have difficulty with language learning in school. According to current research, one factor that could be contributing to Dianna's language learning difficulty is a lack of: a. early exposure to words. b. personal motivation. c. media exposure. d. education.

ANSWER: a 76. Research indicates that achievement in middle childhood is _____ teacher and parent expectations. a. entirely dependent on b. forced by c. influenced by d. contrary to ANSWER: c 77. The unspoken and often unrecognized lessons that children learn in school, which are the unofficial, unstated, or implicit rules and priorities that influence the academic program and every other aspect of learning in school, are called the: a. territorial imperative. b. whole language theory.

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Chapter 7 c. socioeconomic divide. d. hidden curriculum.

ANSWER: d 78. Jefferson High School has a student council to guarantee student representation in school affairs. Sam, a senior, has learned that the administration of this high school wants obedience. Obedience at Sam's school is an example of a hidden: a. agenda. b. curriculum. c. value. d. assumption.

ANSWER: b 79. More than 100 nations have participated in at least one massive international test of educational achievement. Longitudinal data finds that: a. if achievement rises, the national economy declines. b. if achievement declines, the national economy advances. c. if achievement rises, the national economy advances. d. there is no relation between achievement and the national economy.

ANSWER: c 80. What is the primary international test of science and math? a. PIRLS b. IATS c. TIMSS d. SAT ANSWER: c 81. Belinda is taking the TIMSS, which is the international test of: a. science and math. b. IQ. c. creative problem solving. d. reading.

ANSWER: a 82. What is the main international test of reading given to students? a. TIMSS b. PIRLS c. WJ III d. Stanford-Binet ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 83. Ingrid is taking the PIRLS, which is the main international test of: a. science and math. b. IQ. c. creative problem solving. d. reading.

ANSWER: d 84. In recent years, Finland has gained a great deal of attention for its very successful educational system.

Which statement about Finland's educational reform is FALSE? a. Students are given a series of high-stakes tests at each level. b. Only the top 3 percent of high school students gain admittance to teachers' colleges. c. Teachers are encouraged to foster collaboration among students. d. Teachers are encouraged to work collaboratively.

ANSWER: a 85. The TIMSS tests: a. reading. b. science and math achievement. c. learning ability. d. practical intelligence.

ANSWER: b 86. A child's achievement seems more influenced by _____ in the United States than in other nations. a. income and ethnicity b. income and neighborhood c. neighborhood and ethnicity d. income and parental education ANSWER: a 87. A federally sponsored test in the United States is the: a. TIMSS. b. NAEP. c. NCLB. d. PIRLS. ANSWER: b 88. In the United States, public schools that set their own standards, are licensed by the state, but are exempt from some state regulations, are known as _____ schools. a. voucher b. private c. religious Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 d. charter ANSWER: d 89. A school funded by tuition charges, endowments, and often religious or other nonprofit sponsors is a _____ school. a. voucher b. private c. religious d. charter ANSWER: b 90. Jazmine tends to view the mistakes they make as learning opportunities. This likely indicates that they have a(n): a. school climate. b. fixed mind-set. c. embodied cognition. d. growth mind-set.

ANSWER: d 91. The _____ is the belief that ability is determined early on. a. school climate b. fixed mind-set c. embodied cognition d. growth mind-set ANSWER: b 92. About what percentage of all U.S. children are currently home-schooled? a. 1 b. 3 c. 12 d. 35 ANSWER: b 93. According to the text, children who are home-schooled may struggle in which of these areas? a. academic b. social c. physical d. cognitive ANSWER: b 94. About _____ percent of students in the United States attend private schools.

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Chapter 7 a. 7 b. 11 c. 14 d. 19 ANSWER: b 95. One problem with smaller school class sizes is that: a. parents do not support them. b. they are too costly. c. the research supporting their advantages is mixed. d. evidence supporting their benefits is correlational.

ANSWER: c 96. In the United States, less than _____ percent of children under age 11 study a language other than English in school. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANSWER: a 97. Becca is in the fifth grade and has concluded that they will never be good at science. Becca likely has a(n): a. school climate. b. fixed mind-set. c. embodied cognition. d. growth mind-set.

ANSWER: b 98. Aptitude tests are designed to measure one's: a. potential for learning a skill or body of knowledge. b. achievement in a particular subject. c. capacity for divergent thinking. d. verbal abilities only.

ANSWER: a 99. Originally, a person's mental age and chronological age were factors used to determine their: a. achievement on the WAIS. b. intelligence quotient. c. multiple intelligences. d. achievement on the WPPSI. ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 100. One's mental age divided by one's chronological age and multiplied by 100 results in one's: a. measure of mastery. b. proficiency score. c. achievement quotient. d. intelligence quotient.

ANSWER: d 101. The average IQ is a score of: a. 70. b. 85. c. 100. d. 115.

ANSWER: c 102. Veronica has an IQ score of 90. According to the distribution of IQ scores, Veronica's IQ falls into what category? a. average b. slow learner c. superior d. gifted ANSWER: a 103. Melissa has an IQ score of 135. According to the distribution of IQ scores, Melissa's IQ falls into what category? a. average b. slow learner c. superior d. gifted ANSWER: d 104. Clarissa is tested on their mastery of college chemistry. Clarissa is taking a(n): a. achievement test. b. IQ test. c. field test. d. aptitude test.

ANSWER: a 105. Achievement tests are designed to measure one's: a. knowledge about a subject. b. potential for accomplishment.

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Chapter 7 c. capacity for divergent thinking. d. verbal abilities.

ANSWER: a 106. Achievement tests are to aptitude tests as _____ is to _____. a. long; short b. intelligence; creativity c. knowledge; potential d. fruit; apple ANSWER: c 107. Indigo just failed a pre-Algebra exam and exclaims "school sucks!" This is likely an indication of a(n): a. school climate. b. fixed mind-set. c. embodied cognition. d. growth mind-set.

ANSWER: b 108. Howard Gardner proposed that: a. there is only one intelligence. b. everyone is equal in all types of intelligence. c. IQ tests are the best way to measure intelligence. d. there are multiple intelligences.

ANSWER: d 109. With respect to Gardner's multiple intelligences, a successful professional athlete is likely to excel in _____ intelligence. a. linguistic b. interpersonal c. naturalistic d. bodily-kinesthetic ANSWER: d 110. With respect to Gardner's multiple intelligences, a successful farmer is likely to excel in _____ intelligence. a. linguistic b. interpersonal c. naturalistic d. bodily-kinesthetic ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 111. IQ tests: a. reflect multicultural understanding. b. are influenced by culture. c. do not accurately reflect aptitude. d. accurately reflect achievement.

ANSWER: b 112. Scientists agree that brain development: a. is complete by age 6. b. depends on experience. c. is the same in all children, gifted and not gifted. d. reflects unusual patterns in children with various disorders.

ANSWER: b 113. An international test taken by 15-year-olds in 50 nations that is designed to measure problem solving and cognition in daily life is called the: a. TIMSS. b. PIRLS. c. IEP. d. PISA. ANSWER: d 114. Each of these is a general principle of abnormal development covered in your text EXCEPT: a. abnormality is normal. b. disability does not change year by year. c. life may be better or worse in adulthood. d. diagnosis and treatment reflect the social context.

ANSWER: b 115. Vanessa was diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) at an early age. Throughout school they had extreme academic difficulties, though they excelled at music. When they graduated from high school they started a career as a musician and have done extremely well. As an adult they were experiencing life success even though they still had symptoms of ADHD. Which of the four general principles of abnormal development, as discussed in your text, does this example BEST illustrate? a. Abnormality is normal. b. Disability changes year by year. c. Life may be better or worse in adulthood. d. Diagnosis and treatment reflect the social context.

ANSWER: c 116. The presence of two or more unrelated disease conditions at the same time in the same person is referred to as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 a. psychopathology. b. comorbidity. c. multifinality. d. equifinality.

ANSWER: b 117. An ongoing and nationally representative measure of U.S. children's achievement in reading, mathematics, and other subjects over time is called the: a. TIMSS. b. PIRLS. c. NAEP. d. PISA. ANSWER: c 118. _____ has been nicknamed "the Nation's Report Card." a. TIMSS b. PIRLS c. NAEP d. PISA ANSWER: c 119. Which of these is a state that has banned corporal punishment in private schools? a. Iowa b. Georgia c. Texas d. New York ANSWER: a 120. Which of these is NOT a state that permits corporal punishment in private schools? a. Alabama b. Georgia c. Texas d. New Jersey ANSWER: d 121. According to the DSM-5, in order for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) to be diagnosed: a. several symptoms have to begin before age 12. b. there must be signs of other disorders, such as bipolar disorder, present. c. symptoms must occur for at least 6 weeks. d. symptoms must occur in only one context, such as at school or at home.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 122. Lee runs around the classroom, can't seem to sit still or concentrate, and is easily excited. With which disorder might Lee be diagnosed? a. mental retardation b. a sensory deficit c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. childhood schizophrenia ANSWER: c 123. Erik is excitable, impulsive, and very energetic. They also have great difficulty concentrating. They MOST likely have: a. mental retardation. b. a sensory deficit. c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. d. childhood schizophrenia.

ANSWER: c 124. All of these have been identified as problems with diagnosis of and treatment for attentiondeficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) EXCEPT: a. high rates of misdiagnosis. b. the overuse of medication to treat ADHD. c. the diagnosis of typical behavior as ADHD. d. helpful treatment for children who are difficult to parent or teach due to ADHD. ANSWER: d 125. Seven-year-old Chris has been diagnosed with both attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and bipolar disorder. Which term applies to Chris having both conditions? a. conflicting diagnoses b. complex diagnosis c. comorbidity d. coexistence ANSWER: c 126. Ten-year-old Kevin frequently cannot sit still and is constantly fidgeting. Kevin may be diagnosed with: a. autism spectrum disorder. b. a specific learning disorder. c. childhood schizophrenia. d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

ANSWER: d 127. Over the past few decades, the rates of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) have _____ in the United States.

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Chapter 7 a. decreased b. increased c. remained stable d. not been measured ANSWER: b 128. In the United States, more than _____ children and adolescents under the age of 18 take prescription drugs to regulate their emotions and behavior. a. 1 million b. 2 million c. 3 million d. 4 million ANSWER: b 129. The use of medication to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) (and many other disorders) in children: a. is widely accepted as the best option. b. is not considered off-label. c. is controversial. d. has not increased in the previous decades.

ANSWER: c 130. A marked delay in a particular area of learning that is NOT caused by an apparent physical disability, by intellectual disability, or by an unusually stressful home environment is referred to as: a. a specific learning disorder. b. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. c. autism spectrum disorder. d. bipolar disorder.

ANSWER: a 131. Jared has struggled with reading throughout their school experience and has fallen far behind their peers.

Based on this, their teacher recommends that Jared be evaluated for: a. a specific learning disorder. b. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. c. autism spectrum disorder. d. bipolar disorder.

ANSWER: a 132. The most commonly diagnosed learning disorder is: a. a specific learning disorder. b. dyscalculia.

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Chapter 7 c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. d. autism spectrum disorder.

ANSWER: a 133. Which learning disorder is characterized by unusual difficulty with reading? a. a specific learning disorder b. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder c. autism spectrum disorder d. bipolar disorder ANSWER: a 134. Monica is in the third grade but reads at the level of a preschooler. Monica's teacher thinks that they reverse letters and may have: a. a specific learning disorder. b. dyscalculia. c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. d. autism spectrum disorder.

ANSWER: a 135. Which of these is a learning disorder related to math? a. a specific learning disorder b. dyscalculia c. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder d. autism spectrum disorder ANSWER: b 136. The three signs of an autism spectrum disorder are: a. inadequate social skills, impaired communication, and repetitive behaviors. b. inadequate social skills, low intelligence, and impaired communication. c. impaired communication, unusual play, and low intelligence. d. unusual play, low intelligence, and inadequate social skills.

ANSWER: a 137. Abigail is 4 years old. She ignores people when they are in the room, and if people speak to her, she does not make eye contact. She also will not initiate communication, but rather just repeats what someone has said.

Finally, Abigail shows high sensitivity to any loud noise or strong smell. She may be showing signs of: a. a learning disability. b. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder. c. autism spectrum disorder. d. bipolar disorder.

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Chapter 7 138. What is a sign of autism spectrum disorder? a. impaired social responses b. cooperative play c. low intelligence d. early proficiency in language ANSWER: a 139. Children who are diagnosed with an autism spectrum disorder can vary in the type and range of symptoms they display, but all children with an autism spectrum disorder have: a. difficulty speaking. b. a lack of eye contact. c. difficulty understanding others' speech. d. difficulty understanding emotions.

ANSWER: d 140. Leo is very talented at drawing and obsessive about details when drawing pictures. Their speech is impaired and they tend to shy away from other children and are awkward when trying to relate to others. Which diagnosis would BEST fit Leo's behavior? a. compulsive disorder b. autism spectrum disorder c. a specific learning disorder d. attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder ANSWER: b 141. _____ is now considered to be a specific type of autism spectrum disorder. a. Specific learning disorder b. Attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder c. Autism d. Comorbidity ANSWER: c 142. MOST children with autism spectrum disorder show signs in: a. infancy. b. middle childhood. c. adolescence. d. adulthood.

ANSWER: a 143. Which of these is NOT a new hypothesis related to the increase in autism spectrum disorder? a. The increase in autism spectrum disorder is related to environmental causes. b. The increase in autism spectrum disorder is related to prenatal influences.

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Chapter 7 c. There really isn't an increase in autism spectrum disorder. d. The DSM classification system needs to be updated related to autism spectrum disorder.

ANSWER: d 144. Which statement about treatment for autism spectrum disorder is TRUE? a. Hyperbaric treatments have been found to be harmful to children with autism spectrum disorders. b. Risperidone has been found to cure autism spectrum disorder. c. Some vaccinations can cause autism spectrum disorder. d. No biological test is effective in diagnosing autism spectrum disorder.

ANSWER: d 145. In 1975 the Education of All Handicapped Children Act stipulated that children with cognitive disability must be educated in the: a. resource room. b. least restrictive environment. c. inclusion classroom. d. mainstreamed classroom.

ANSWER: b 146. Dean has a specific learning disorder. Dean is taught in the regular classroom, where they have their own reading tutor for part of the day. This is an example of: a. autism spectrum disorder. b. a resource room. c. inclusion. d. indoctrination.

ANSWER: c 147. What is the latest educational strategy in the United States for children who are below average in achievement to receive special help? a. mainstreaming b. inclusion c. resource rooms d. response to intervention ANSWER: d 148. A document for children with cognitive disability that specifies their educational goals is known as a(n): a. IEP. b. IFSP. c. LRE. d. RTI. ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 149. Marsha seemed to be struggling academically in their fourth-grade class. After a battery of tests, it was determined that Marsha had cognitive disability. School professionals met with Marsha's parents to discuss specific educational goals for Marsha. What the school professionals and Marsha's parents created was Marsha's: a. IEP. b. IFSP. c. LRE. d. RTI. ANSWER: a 150. Each state in the United States selects and educates gifted and talented students. Across the country: a. the selection and education process is the same. b. the selection process is the same, but the education process can be different. c. the selection process can be different, but the education process is the same. d. the selection and education process can be different.

ANSWER: d 151. One method of educating gifted and talented students that has become popular in the United States is: a. intense parental tutoring of a child's gift or talent. b. home schooling. c. educating all gifted and talented children of the same age together. d. segregating students by their gifts and talents to form mixed-age groups.

ANSWER: c 152. Which of these highlights the "difference is not deficit" idea? a. multifinality b. equifinality c. a specific learning disorder d. neurodiversity ANSWER: d 153. The idea that each person has neurological strengths and weaknesses that should be appreciated is known as: a. multifinality. b. equifinality. c. a specific learning disorder. d. neurodiversity.

ANSWER: d 154. What are three negative consequences that are associated with childhood obesity?

ANSWER: Childhood obesity correlates with (1) asthma, (2) high blood pressure, and (3) elevated cholesterol (especially, LDL, the "lousy" cholesterol). (4) School achievement often decreases, (5) self-esteem Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 falls, and (6) loneliness rises.

155. Sherilyn is writing an essay on the increased rates of childhood obesity in the United States. What can you explain to them to help them with their essay? Specifically, identify three causes that are associated with rising rates of obesity in U.S. children.

ANSWER: Children engage in (1) less exercise and (2) more time watching TV or (3) playing video games than ever before. In addition, (4) many parents cave to pester power (bugging parents until they allow the child to have junk food), and (5) commercials that target children advertise sugary/high-fat foods.

(Note: The answer must NOT include genetics, as genes change little from one generation to the next and thus cannot explain the large increase in obesity cases.)

156. Discuss the "hygiene hypothesis" as it relates to childhood illness. State two facts that support this hypothesis.

ANSWER: The hygiene hypothesis states that modern children are overprotected from dirt and bacteria, and thus are prevented from experiencing infections and childhood diseases that would strengthen their immune systems. Support for this hypothesis comes from research indicating that (1) first-born children are more likely to develop asthma, (2) farm children are less likely to develop asthma, and (3) children born by C-section (a very sterile procedure) have a greater incidence of asthma.

157. 4. Considering Piaget's theory of cognitive development related to childhood, explain cognition during the stage of concrete operational thought.

ANSWER: Piaget emphasized that concrete operational children (1) engage in productive thinking. Most importantly, the school-age child can (2) perform logical operations. This means that children can (3) apply reasoning skills to concrete situations that are visible, tangible, and real (not abstract).

During this stage, children (4) become systematic, (5) objective, and (6) scientific in their thinking.

158. Define classification and seriation, and provide an example for each.

ANSWER: Classification is the understanding that things can be organized into groups (or categories or classes) according to some characteristic they share in common. Seriation is the understanding that things can be arranged in a logical series (such as numbers or the alphabet). An example of classification is organizing things by shape, color, or size. It can be identifying which animals belong in a group (such as mammals). Seriation examples include putting numbers or decimals in numerical order, alphabetizing a series of words, or organizing things in order of ascending (or descending) height or length. Understanding that the letters in a word must be in a specific order to spell that word is another seriation example.

159. Compare and contrast Jean Piaget's and Lev Vygotsky's views about how best to educate children.

ANSWER: Similar to Piaget, Vygotsky felt that educators should consider children's thought processes, not just the outcomes. He appreciated the fact that children are curious, creative learners. However, unlike Piaget, who thought children would discover most concepts themselves, Vygotsky stressed direct instruction from teachers and other mentors who provided the needed scaffold between potential and knowledge by engaging each child in their zone of proximal development.

160. What is the knowledge base, and how does it contribute to children's cognitive development? List three Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 7 factors that facilitate increases in the knowledge base.

ANSWER: The knowledge base is a broad body of knowledge in a particular subject that makes it easier to master new information in that area. As children gain knowledge during the school years, they become better able to judge what is true and what is false, what is worth remembering and what is insignificant. Three factors facilitate increases in the knowledge base: past experience, current opportunity, and personal motivation.

161. Briefly describe the immersion and bilingual schooling approaches to teaching a second language in the United States.

ANSWER: With immersion, the child's instruction in school occurs entirely in the second language. With bilingual education, students are instructed part of the day in their native language and part of the day in English (or the majority language).

162. Explain the process of switching codes in speech. Identify the two codes and offer a real-life example of each, including the circumstances under which each code would typically be used.

ANSWER: Switching codes refers to the process of changing from proper, formal speech to a colloquial or more informal form of the same language. The codes are dependent upon the social context.

Children use the formal code in the classroom and with most adults; they use the informal code with friends and on the street. For example, Addison uses formal, correct English when speaking during a class, but uses slang when speaking with her girlfriend. Another example is that formal language is used during a speech or other presentation, but slang may be used when joking.

163. Identify the three ways in which children from low-SES families differ in language compared to children from high-SES families. Then identify and explain the most important factor shown to affect language learning.

ANSWER: Children from low-SES families usually have (1) smaller vocabularies than those from higher-SES families. Their (2) grammar is also simpler (fewer compound sentences, dependent clauses, and conditional verbs), and (3) their sentences are shorter. The most important factor shown to affect language learning is early exposure to words. Children from lower-SES families often are exposed to fewer words than those from higher-SES families. Many less-educated parents do not provide varied and extensive language exposure to their infants and young children, nor do they read to them on a daily basis.

164. In the United States, there are four types of educational environments for children: public schools, charter schools, private schools, and home schooling. Define each of these alternatives, and identify which type of school the majority of children in the United States attend.

ANSWER: A public school is one that is free to all children because it is funded by taxpayers; it must educate all students. A charter school is a public school with its own set of standards that is funded and licensed by the state or local district in which it is located; it has control over admissions and expulsions. A private school is one funded by tuition, endowments, and often religious or other nonprofit sponsors. Home schooling is education in which children are taught at home, usually by a parent. The majority of the children in the United States attend public schools.

165. Differentiate between aptitude and achievement tests, and identify two criticisms of testing.

ANSWER: Aptitude tests are designed to assess the potential a person has to master a specific skill or to learn a certain body of knowledge. Achievement tests are assessments of what has already been learned.

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Chapter 7 There are several criticisms of testing. One issue is (1) whether any single test can measure the complexities of the human brain. Another problem is that (2) sometimes an aptitude test score— such as IQ—that should theoretically be stable can change over time. A major criticism is that (3) test takers are influenced by their culture. (4) Test questions may be culturally biased.

166. Seven-year-old Bruce has been diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). Describe some of the behaviors that Bruce is likely to demonstrate. Identify three treatments for children like Bruce who have ADHD. ANSWER: Bruce is more easily distracted and more often in motion than the average child. When sitting down to do schoolwork, he might look around, ask questions, think about playing, get a drink, fidget, squirm, tap the table, jiggle his legs, and go to the bathroom—and then start the whole sequence again. Three treatments for ADHD are: (1) training for the family and the child, (2) special education for teachers, and (3) medication.

167. What is a specific learning disorder? Describe three common learning disorders.

ANSWER: A specific learning disorder is a marked deficit in a particular area of learning that is not caused by an apparent physical disability, by an intellectual disability, or by an unusually stressful home environment. The most commonly diagnosed learning disorder is dyslexia, which is unusual difficulty with reading. Dyscalculia refers to unusual difficulty with math and dysgraphia is difficulty in writing.

168. Identify two common symptoms of autism spectrum disorder (ASD). Provide examples of severe versus mild ASD. ANSWER: Two symptoms of autism spectrum disorder are (1) difficulty with social communication and interaction, and (2) restricted, repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities. Children with severe ASD may never speak, rarely smile, and typically play for hours with one object. Mildly impaired children may not seem unusual at first, and they may be talented in some specialized area, such as drawing or geometry, although social skills are delayed.

169. Differentiate between mainstreaming and inclusion in educating children with special needs. Include the definition and purpose of an IEP in your answer.

ANSWER: Mainstreaming and inclusion both involve educating children with special needs within the general classroom. Mainstreaming means a student is in a general education classroom. With inclusion, special education delivered by a specialist is incorporated into the general classroom for the children with special needs. This may take the form of a consulting teacher who helps the general education teacher with ideas and modifications, or it may take the form of team teaching, in which two teachers are in the classroom, one a general education teacher and the other a special education teacher. A student with special needs must have an individual education plan (IEP) that outlines the goals, activities, and expected outcomes for the child.

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Chapter 8 1. Which of these is crucial during middle childhood? a. abstract thinking b. social comparison c. fitness d. the development of conservation ANSWER: b 2. Erik Erikson's fourth stage of psychosocial development is called: a. autonomy versus shame and doubt. b. industry versus inferiority. c. trust versus mistrust. d. integrity versus incompetence.

ANSWER: b 3. More than people of any other age, children between the ages of 6 and 11 are: a. in need of punishment. b. trying to stand out from their peers. c. using electronic media with adult supervision. d. industrious, practicing the skills valued by their culture.

ANSWER: d 4. Juan is in the fourth grade. They spend many hours rehearsing math skills, reading books, and collecting bugs. According to Erik Erikson, Juan is developing a healthy sense of _____ through these tasks. a. industry b. self-control c. autonomy d. egocentrism ANSWER: a 5. Children's ideas about their intelligence, personality, abilities, gender, and ethnic background form their: a. industry. b. egocentrism. c. latency. d. self-concept.

ANSWER: d 6. Ten-year-old Stan announces to their mother, "I am smart, nice, and friendly, and I am so good at painting that one day I am going to sell lots of pictures." Stan is demonstrating: a. industry. b. egocentrism. c. latency.

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Chapter 8 d. self-concept.

ANSWER: d 7. Assessing one's abilities, achievements, social status, and other attributes by measuring them against one's peers, is called: a. peer evaluation. b. cultural normalization. c. social comparison. d. parental assessment.

ANSWER: c 8. Which example is common for the industry versus inferiority stage? a. Juan is having difficulty in learning math, but they continue to practice. b. Trevor says, "My parents never let me do anything!" c. Clayton says that their girlfriend, Claire, doesn't understand them. d. Amanda decides to stop taking piano lessons.

ANSWER: a 9. According to Erik Erikson's theory, children in middle childhood tend to judge themselves as either: a. suppressed or superior. b. industrious or inferior. c. competent or awkward. d. intelligent or stupid.

ANSWER: b 10. According to Erikson, if 9-year-old Carla is successful in solving their psychosocial conflict, they should be developing a(n) _____ view of the self. a. emotionally mature b. industrious c. inept d. latent ANSWER: b 11. _____ is both a cause and consequence of feeling inferior. a. Self-concept b. Effortful control c. Social rejection d. Social comparison ANSWER: c 12. The child who weathers severe family problems, even abuse, and yet emerges from those experiences unscathed is said to be: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 a. buoyant. b. resilient. c. parasympathetic. d. reliable.

ANSWER: b 13. Ashley and Jessica, sisters born two years apart, grew up in an impoverished, violent neighborhood. As adults, Ashley is chronically jobless and is addicted to drugs, while Jessica is a professor of economics at a community college. What might explain their different life outcomes? a. differential susceptibility b. shared environmental influences c. cohort differences d. parental influence ANSWER: a 14. The quality of resilience is dynamic, which means that it: a. is always present in the same way. b. may change over time. c. can be either a positive or negative adaptation. d. reflects successful coping with minor adversities.

ANSWER: b 15. Research indicates that a child who demonstrates positive adaptation in the face of stressors such as poverty and neglect is showing resilience and: a. will always show resilience no matter how the child's life changes. b. will only show resilience if the child's current experiences remain the same. c. will only show resilience if the child's current experiences get worse. d. may or may not show resilience in the future.

ANSWER: d 16. In _____, the dominant idea about resilience was that communities are responsible for child resilience. a. 2000 b. 2008 c. 2010 d. 2015 ANSWER: d 17. In 1980, the dominant idea about resilience was that: a. differential susceptibility means identical stressors can benefit one child and harm another. b. all children have the same needs for healthy development. c. nothing inevitably causes harm.

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Chapter 8 d. strengths vary by cultural and national values.

ANSWER: c 18. The _____ suggests the emotional problems at age 6 affect later academic difficulties more than vice versa. a. theory of moral development b. industry versus inferiority stage of psychosocial development c. social comparison model d. adjustment-erosion model ANSWER: d 19. One important factor with respect to children coping with adversity is a child's: a. interpretation of the events. b. SES. c. level of resiliency. d. cooperation with others.

ANSWER: a 20. When children act as adults and try to take care of everyone, it is called: a. resilience. b. parentification. c. emerging adulthood. d. an extended family.

ANSWER: b 21. The fact that some children in middle childhood care for younger children, others do housework, some use power tools, and others are supervised for everything represents: a. consistency in development. b. the absence of cultural standards for child rearing. c. variations in developmental processes. d. cohort and context changes.

ANSWER: d 22. Awareness of _____ increases during middle childhood, which can negatively impact academic performance. a. self-concept b. prejudice and discrimination c. self-efficacy d. cultural expectations ANSWER: b 23. According to developmental scholars and mental health practitioners, experiencing too many _____ can make resilience difficult.

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Chapter 8 a. rejections b. compliments c. personal relationships d. adverse childhood experiences ANSWER: d 24. Which of these appears to be a primary influence of basic values and traits? a. parents b. peers c. shared experiences d. genetics and nonshared environments ANSWER: d 25. Which of these activities decreases during middle childhood? a. time with parents b. time alone c. time with friends d. time at school ANSWER: a 26. Which of these is NOT true regarding self-concept during middle childhood? a. Self-concept becomes more specific. b. Self-concept becomes more logical. c. Changes in self-concept are related to cognitive development and social awareness. d. Changes in self-concept are related to cohort and context changes.

ANSWER: d 27. Research has suggested that which of these is MOST effective for developing self-confidence among children? a. developing a sense of pride b. teaching children conflict-resolution skills c. encouraging academic excellence d. preparing children for prejudice ANSWER: a 28. Abraham has unrealistically high self-esteem. Which is NOT likely a result of this? a. lower academic achievement b. increased aggression c. reduced effortful control d. reduced sense of pride ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 29. Deliberately modifying one's impulses and emotions is referred to as: a. inferiority. b. social comparison. c. effortful control. d. peer regulation.

ANSWER: c 30. Which is NOT a self-conscious emotion? a. pride b. anger c. guilt d. shame ANSWER: b 31. Which statement is FALSE regarding self-conscious emotions? a. They develop during middle childhood. b. They guide social interactions. c. They are associated with reduced self-esteem. d. They can lead to psychopathology.

ANSWER: c 32. Which element is important for self-esteem during middle childhood? a. academic achievement b. peer status c. family income d. teacher admiration ANSWER: a 33. Sam wants to wear only name-brand clothes to school and is concerned with having the latest smartphone.

This is related to the development of _____ during middle childhood. a. industry b. concrete thinking c. preoperational thinking d. inferiority ANSWER: b 34. Which factor is related to children noticing material possessions during middle childhood? a. concrete thinking b. industry c. preoperational thinking Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 d. inferiority ANSWER: a 35. Research has suggested that _____ is/are a strong buffer during times of severe stress or trauma. a. peers b. family c. friends d. neighborhoods ANSWER: b 36. Which change is NOT a negative consequence of experiencing homelessness during middle childhood? a. changes in cortisol levels b. changes in blood pressure c. increased self-esteem d. weight gain ANSWER: c 37. Andrew is a father who is also in the military. One disadvantage of his military service is: a. improved health care. b. higher education level. c. more family instability. d. higher income.

ANSWER: c 38. Hanuel's mother is in the military. Which statement is TRUE regarding what can be expected of them? a. They will have more emotional problems than peers from civilian families. b. They will have better academic achievement than peers from civilian families. c. They will experience more family stability than peers from civilian families. d. They will have worse health care coverage than peers from civilian families.

ANSWER: a 39. Which child is MOST likely to have poor academic performance? a. Scott, whose father is in the military b. Brenda, who is from an intact family c. Amanda, whose family is low SES d. Juan, who is Hispanic American ANSWER: a 40. More than _____ of all U.S. school-age children live with two parents. a. one-third b. one-fifth Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 c. two-thirds d. two-fifths ANSWER: c 41. Marla is a single parent who would like to remarry. According to the text, one reason they are likely seeking a new partner is: a. to help with parenthood. b. to help with housework. c. to avoid feelings of loneliness. d. to fit in with her friends.

ANSWER: a 42. What is the primary advantage of a stepparent household? a. relationship benefits b. financial gains c. improved health care coverage d. prolonged family stability ANSWER: b 43. Which family structure is MOST likely to change both residence and community? a. stepparent families b. nuclear families c. extended families d. polygamous families ANSWER: a 44. Clarissa's mother has recently remarried. Which behavior is NOT a way in which Clarissa may impede the functioning of the new family structure? a. Clarissa may be angry or sad. b. Clarissa may follow the family rules. c. Clarissa may fight with friends. d. Clarissa may struggle at school.

ANSWER: b 45. Extended families are often: a. poor. b. conflicted. c. both poor and conflicted. d. neither poor nor conflicted.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 46. Which factor makes extended families more likely? a. employment b. higher education levels c. neighborhood context d. poverty ANSWER: d 47. Grandparents who live with their children and grandchildren are all of these EXCEPT _____ compared to grandparents who live near but not with their children and grandchildren. a. more stressed b. less healthy c. more depressed d. happier ANSWER: d 48. Deedra lives in a three-generation household with their children and mother. Which situation is LEAST likely to be true? a. Deedra is often depressed. b. Deedra has financial stability. c. Deedra's children are disobedient. d. Deedra's mother is stressed.

ANSWER: b 49. All of these contribute to a stressful three-generation household EXCEPT: a. grandmother criticism. b. a lack of an independent source of income for the mother. c. increased maternal pride. d. father absence.

ANSWER: c 50. Janice's parents are wealthy. When Janice was a child they pressured her to excel. This may lead Janice to engage in all of these behaviors EXCEPT: a. drug abuse. b. delinquency. c. poor academic performance. d. maternal care.

ANSWER: d 51. Parental pressure for children to excel may be related to: a. externalizing problems. b. internalizing problems.

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Chapter 8 c. both externalizing and internalizing problems. d. neither externalizing nor internalizing problems.

ANSWER: c 52. Michael has struggled with finding employment as an adult. It may be that Michael comes from a family that included: a. more education. b. impaired emotional control. c. increased income. d. secure parent–child attachment.

ANSWER: b 53. Trevor struggles with finding employment and is of low income. This makes their children: a. more likely to misbehave. b. less likely to have health problems. c. likely to experience well-being as adults. d. more likely to go to college.

ANSWER: a 54. Which country has the highest educational gap between high- and low-income children? a. United States b. Norway c. Germany d. Australia ANSWER: a 55. Many parents believe that they mold their children's personalities. However, research has found that: a. half of all personality traits may be genetic. b. half of all personality traits may be environmental. c. genes and the nonshared environment have the most impact on personality. d. temperament defines personality.

ANSWER: c 56. Brad is an adopted child who lives with three siblings, all biological children of his adoptive parents. Brad's math skills are far better than those of his adoptive parents or his adoptive siblings. This provides evidence that: a. shared familial influences play a stronger role than was previously believed. b. genes may have a stronger effect on talents than familial environment. c. few environmental effects on personality come from outside the family. d. Brad's own initiative to excel is greater than that of his adoptive family.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 57. Researchers compared sets of monozygotic twins reared by their biological parents. The researchers asked the mothers to describe each twin. Descriptions ranged from very positive to very negative. The researchers measured personality at age 5 (including antisocial behavior as reported by kindergarten teachers) and then measured each twin's personality two years later. The results revealed: a. if mothers were more negative toward one of their twins, that twin became more antisocial at age 7 than at age 5. b. if mothers were less negative toward one of their twins, that twin became more antisocial at age 7 than at age 5. c. if mothers were more negative toward one of their twins, that twin became less antisocial at age 7 than at age 5. d. that there was no relation between maternal negativity and child antisocial behavior.

ANSWER: a 58. Family structure refers to: a. the way in which a family raises its children. b. the legal and genetic relationships of people in a household. c. how the family's house is constructed. d. how the various generations interact.

ANSWER: b 59. Jamison is asked to list all of the people in their family. Jamison is describing their family: a. structure. b. harmony. c. function. d. resilience.

ANSWER: a 60. Family function refers to: a. how a family cares for its members. b. the legal and genetic relationships of people in a household. c. how the family's house is constructed. d. how the various generations interact.

ANSWER: a 61. Developing self-respect, nurturing friendships with peers, and encouraging learning are three of the: a. family structures. b. measurements of family harmony. c. functions of a family. d. suggestions for stress resilience.

ANSWER: c 62. Which family function is especially crucial in middle childhood?

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Chapter 8 a. harmony and stability b. physical necessities c. peer relationships d. self-respect ANSWER: a 63. The need for _____ is evident in U.S. children in military families. a. siblings b. public school c. continuity d. popularity ANSWER: c 64. In a typical military family, income is _____ and children tend to have _____ school achievement than their peers from civilian families. a. lower; lower b. higher; lower c. lower; higher d. higher; higher ANSWER: b 65. The MOST common type of family for 6- to 11-year-olds in the United States is the: a. extended family. b. single-parent family. c. nuclear family. d. blended family.

ANSWER: c 66. James and Jeanette are brother and sister who live with their biological parents. They live in a(n) _____ family. a. extended b. blended c. foster d. nuclear ANSWER: d 67. _____ of U.S. school-age children live in a single-parent household. a. Ten percent b. A third c. Fifty percent d. Two-thirds Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 ANSWER: b 68. A family that consists of one man, several wives, and the biological children of the man and the women is a(n) _____ family. a. blended b. adoptive c. extended d. polygamous ANSWER: d 69. Compared with nuclear families, extended families typically: a. are more chaotic. b. include grandparents. c. feature less structure. d. are better for children.

ANSWER: b 70. Eric has been married before and has two biological children. He has just married Natasha, who has also been married before and has a biological son. Their family is an example of a _____ family. a. polygamous b. nuclear c. stepparent d. traditional ANSWER: c 71. In the United States, about 1 father in _____ has physical custody of his children and raises them without their mother or a new wife. a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 50 ANSWER: c 72. Who is MOST likely to experience few psychological problems during middle childhood? a. Ron, who is being raised by a single mom b. Bobby, who is being raised by a single dad c. Alberto, who is being raised by both biological mother and father d. Gareth, who is being raised by their biological mother and a romantic partner ANSWER: c 73. What percentage of school-age children in the United States currently live with single, formerly married mothers?

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Chapter 8 a. 5 b. 12 c. 25 d. 32 ANSWER: b 74. Compared with single-parent homes, two-parent homes usually have: a. stronger moral values. b. higher income. c. fewer parent–child interactions. d. less stability.

ANSWER: b 75. To reduce the impact of divorce on children, which of these should take place? a. Only one parent should stay in the children's lives for the first few years. b. Both parents should quickly remarry and move to new communities to allow children to start fresh. c. Transitions should be minimized. d. Parents should stay in their marriages regardless of the circumstances, avoiding divorce at all costs.

ANSWER: c 76. A study conducted in the slums of Mumbai, India, found that school-age children in _____ families had more psychological disorders than school-age children in _____ families. a. single-parent; divorced b. extended; nuclear c. nuclear; extended d. divorced; same-sex ANSWER: c 77. Two factors that universally interfere with family function in every nation are: a. ethnic differences and low income. b. low income and high conflict. c. high stress and high income. d. religious differences and low income.

ANSWER: b 78. The family stress model illustrates that: a. poverty itself is quite harmful to children. b. a high income can overcome the effects of stress. c. the reaction to family poverty is crucial. d. even a middle-class income cannot overcome the effects of stress.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 79. A longitudinal study that followed married parents and their adolescent children found that _____ on the adolescents' well-being. a. genetics were the main influence b. conflict was the main influence c. both genetics and conflict were equally influential d. neither genetics nor conflict was influential ANSWER: b 80. The particular rules and behaviors that are passed down to younger children from older children are what define: a. child culture. b. peer values. c. the lives of childhood. d. the legends of childhood.

ANSWER: a 81. School-age children would MOST admire: a. Thomas, whose mother kisses them good-bye at school. b. Carla, who was punished for not telling the teacher who threw a paper airplane. c. Cheyenne, who is the third-grade teacher's favorite. d. Gavin, who spends most of their free time with adults.

ANSWER: b 82. Ten-year-old India caught Sheryln, their best friend, lying to their own mom. India will probably: a. tell Sheryln's mother about the lie. b. keep quiet about it. c. no longer be friends with Sheryln. d. tell their own mother about the lie.

ANSWER: b 83. By the time children are 10 years old, which statement is TRUE? a. Girls are more interested than boys in maintaining long-term friendships. b. Boys prefer to be popular among peer groups; girls want to have best friends. c. Both boys and girls want to have best friends. d. Mutual loyalty is more important to boys than it is to girls.

ANSWER: c 84. What factors generally determine whether a child is well liked by their peers? a. age and gender b. culture and race Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 c. cohort and SES d. culture and cohort ANSWER: d 85. Mrunel is always friendly. When someone tells them a secret they do not tell other friends. They are also helpful and cooperate with others to get class assignments completed. Other students like working with Mrunel.

Mrunel could be defined as a(n) _____ child. a. aggressive-rejected b. popular c. moral d. spoiled ANSWER: b 86. Some unpopular children are _____ rather than rejected. a. neglected b. aggressive c. withdrawn d. arrogant ANSWER: a 87. The BEST example of an aggressive-rejected child is: a. Vera, who is disliked because she tells others they are stupid. b. Leanne, who is popular but hated by many children. c. Teo, who is ignored by most children. d. Maher, who changes friends often.

ANSWER: a 88. Brianna is an extremely timid and anxious 9-year-old girl. Other children seem to dislike them. They appear to be a(n): a. aggressive-rejected child. b. controversial child. c. neglected child. d. withdrawn-rejected child.

ANSWER: d 89. Repeated, systematic attacks on those who are unable to defend themselves is the definition of: a. aggression. b. harm. c. arrogance. d. bullying.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 90. Caleb has repeatedly been calling Joe names. Caleb also teases Joe about their haircut and clothes. The type of bullying that Caleb is displaying is: a. physical. b. verbal. c. relational. d. cyberbullying.

ANSWER: b 91. Bullying differs from ordinary aggression because bullying attacks: a. mainly occur in the United States. b. are repeated. c. are harmful. d. depend, on some level, on the tacit consent of the person who is bullied.

ANSWER: b 92. Research shows that a child is MOST likely to be a victim of bullying if the child is: a. withdrawn-rejected. b. aggressive-rejected. c. "under the radar." d. liked by peers.

ANSWER: a 93. The kind of bully who is the MOST strongly disliked by peers is called a "_____"; he or she rarely has friends or sympathizers. a. modeled bully b. rejected bully c. bully-victim d. familial bully ANSWER: c 94. Girls who bully typically: a. use threats of force. b. use words to attack. c. are larger than average in size. d. have older sisters who are aggressive.

ANSWER: b 95. MOST bullies pick on: a. members of the another sex. b. members of their own sex. c. people they barely know.

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Chapter 8 d. their little brothers and sisters.

ANSWER: b 96. Over time, the consequences of bullying: a. may lead to problems primarily for the bullies themselves. b. may lead to problems for the bullies and their victims. c. may lead to problems primarily for the victims. d. typically vanish by the time children enter high school.

ANSWER: b 97. There are many approaches to addressing the issue of bullying. Research indicates the one effective approach is: a. to have a zero-tolerance policy at school. b. talking to parents and teachers, but not to students, about bullying. c. grouping bullies together in the same classroom to isolate the problem. d. changing the school culture as a whole.

ANSWER: d 98. What method has been effective in stopping bullying in schools? a. focusing on children in higher grades b. focusing on children in lower grades c. instituting a zero-tolerance policy d. using a whole-school strategy ANSWER: d 99. What period is the prime time for moral development? a. early childhood b. late childhood c. middle childhood d. early adulthood ANSWER: c 100. All of these factors drive children's growing interest in moral issues EXCEPT: a. child culture. b. empathy. c. antipathy. d. education.

ANSWER: c 101. Lawrence Kohlberg's theory of moral development was strongly influenced by: a. Sigmund Freud.

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Chapter 8 b. Jean Piaget. c. Erik Erikson. d. Carol Gilligan.

ANSWER: b 102. _____ moral reasoning is not usually present until adolescence or adulthood, if then. a. Preconventional b. Unconventional c. Conventional d. Postconventional ANSWER: d 103. What is the first stage of moral reasoning in Lawrence Kohlberg's theory? a. preconventional b. unconventional c. conventional d. postconventional ANSWER: a 104. Lawrence Kohlberg's concept of preconventional morality involves: a. the careful consideration of all options. b. an emphasis on laws and social order. c. seeking pleasure and avoiding punishment. d. trying to gain the approval of others.

ANSWER: c 105. The Piagetian period of development that is similar to Lawrence Kohlberg's stage of preconventional morality is: a. the sensorimotor period. b. the preoperational period. c. concrete operations. d. formal operations.

ANSWER: b 106. Clarissa is usually good because they are afraid of getting in trouble if they aren't. Clarissa is at which level of Lawrence Kohlberg's view of moral reasoning? a. conventional b. preconventional c. premoral d. postconventional ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 107. The statement that BEST reflects moral reasoning at the preconventional level is: a. "I obey a higher power." b. "Every citizen should obey the rules." c. "I want everyone to like me." d. "I don't want to get caught and punished."

ANSWER: d 108. What is the second stage of moral reasoning in Kohlberg's theory? a. preconventional b. unconventional c. conventional d. postconventional ANSWER: c 109. Conventional morality involves: a. the careful consideration of all options. b. following what parents, teachers, and peers do. c. seeking pleasure and avoiding pain. d. trying to take care of one's own needs.

ANSWER: b 110. Jerry is asked whether a person should steal food if they are starving. Jerry says no because it is illegal.

Jerry is in Lawrence Kohlberg's _____ moral reasoning level, in the stage called "_____." a. preconventional; might makes right b. postconventional; social contract c. conventional; law and order d. conventional; good girl and nice boy ANSWER: c 111. Marissa decides not to tell the teacher that a classmate Hernando is cheating on the math exam because they are afraid the other kids will call them a snitch. This is an example of Lawrence Kohlberg's _____ stage of moral reasoning. a. conventional b. preconventional c. premoral d. postconventional ANSWER: a 112. Chad steals food to feed himself and their little brother because they are starving. If another child hears about this and states, "Chad shouldn't steal because stealing is against the law," that child is MOST likely in Lawrence Kohlberg's _____ stage of moral development.

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Chapter 8 a. preconventional b. premoral c. postconventional d. conventional ANSWER: d 113. What is the third stage of moral reasoning in Lawrence Kohlberg's theory? a. preconventional b. unconventional c. conventional d. postconventional ANSWER: d 114. According to Lawrence Kohlberg, _____ is what advances a person's morality. a. experience b. social development c. intellectual maturation d. ethnicity ANSWER: c 115. The crucial element in Lawrence Kohlberg's assessment of moral stages is: a. the age of the respondent. b. what the person answers. c. why the person chooses to participate. d. the reason why an answer was chosen.

ANSWER: d 116. Lawrence Kohlberg's theory has been criticized because his: a. stages do not reflect liberal, Western values. b. theory doesn't emphasize stages strongly enough. c. theory does not take into account cultural differences. d. theory emphasizes Eastern values.

ANSWER: c 117. Erum has begun to participate in arguments on issues of right and wrong. She is developing her own moral thinking, guided by: a. her religion alone. b. her peers, parents, and culture. c. advanced reading material at school. d. the urge to internalize her society's rules.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 118. When child culture conflicts with adult morality, children will: a. align themselves with their peers. b. listen to what the adults say. c. make their own decisions. d. be unable to make decisions.

ANSWER: a 119. Which is NOT a common value among 6- to 11-year-old children? a. dressing like adults b. protecting friends c. keeping secrets from adults d. blending in with peers ANSWER: a 120. Restitution as a punishment for a transgression involves: a. hurting the transgressor. b. praising the transgressor. c. restoring what was lost. d. defining what was lost.

ANSWER: c 121. Retribution as a punishment for a transgression involves: a. hurting the transgressor. b. praising the transgressor. c. restoring what was lost. d. defining what was lost.

ANSWER: a 122. When 9-year-old children were asked to choose between retribution and restitution for a punishment: a. almost all chose restitution. b. almost all chose retribution. c. about half chose restitution and half chose retribution. d. they were unable to decide.

ANSWER: c 123. Mr. Smithe had a good conversation about the fairness of restitution and retribution with 9-year-old Sherrod. The next day, Sherrod still thought retribution was the fairest. Scientific study shows us that this MOST likely means that talking about moral values with children: a. is a waste of time. b. must be done after age 10.

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Chapter 8 c. will not bring about immediate change. d. makes them more stubborn.

ANSWER: c 124. Zack tends to gravitate to peers who are defiant of their teachers and other authority figures in school. This is directly related to the: a. development of concrete thinking. b. goal of independence. c. struggle for industry. d. development of inferiority.

ANSWER: b 125. Childhood popularity depends on: a. cultural norms. b. parental influence. c. peer status. d. neighborhood context.

ANSWER: a 126. James is known as one of the school bullies. Which of these is NOT something that can be expected in this situation? a. Some of James's classmates are afraid of James. b. James has friends who admire them. c. James focuses on academic performance. d. James is popular.

ANSWER: c 127. Childhood bullying may be a form of: a. social dominance. b. authority. c. both social dominance and authority. d. neither social dominance nor authority.

ANSWER: c 128. Which of these is NOT a change that takes place regarding bullying during middle childhood? a. Bullies become skilled at avoiding adult awareness. b. Bullies become skilled at picking rejected and defenseless victims. c. Bullies become skilled at using nonphysical methods. d. Bullies become skilled at including adults in their bullying of others.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 129. Which statement is FALSE regarding bullying in middle childhood? a. Boys are more likely to be bullies than girls. b. Girl bullies demean shyer, more soft-spoken girls. c. Young boys never bully girls. d. Boys who are thought to be gay by their peers are likely to be targets of bullies.

ANSWER: c 130. Which factor can help develop empathy in children? a. concrete thinking b. the development of industry c. learning about diversity d. family structure ANSWER: c 131. Which family structure has two parents, at least one child, and no other relatives residing in the home? a. standard North American family b. skipped family c. extended family d. stepfamily ANSWER: a 132. Imanu lives with her brother and both biological, married, parents. No other relatives live in the home.

What type of family structure is this? a. standard North American family b. skipped family c. extended family d. stepfamily ANSWER: a 133. Which factors impact moral development and generosity during childhood? a. maturation and culture b. cohort and context c. family structure and function d. peer status and popularity ANSWER: a 134. When a family includes grandparents who are raising their grandchildren, with the parent generation missing, the family structure is called a. standard North American family b. skipped family c. extended family Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 d. stepfamily ANSWER: b 135. Brycen is being raised by their grandparents because their parents have left. This has been Brycen's living situation for over six years. This is what type of family structure? a. standard North American family b. skipped family c. extended family d. stepfamily ANSWER: b 136. Polygamous family structures are most common in: a. Australia b. the United States c. West Africa d. Europe ANSWER: c 137. According to recent research, children born to remarried adults are likely to score lower than other groups of children on all of these EXCEPT: a. educational attainment. b. antisocial behavior. c. depressive symptoms. d. general happiness.

ANSWER: d 138. Cohabitation is rather common among: a. emerging adults. b. middle aged adults. c. adolescents. d. young adults and older adults.

ANSWER: d 139. Which of these is NOT a benefit of cohabitation? a. a sexual partner b. increased economic stability c. emotional connections d. long-term commitment ANSWER: d 140. An arrangement in which a couple lives together in a committed romantic relationship but are not formally married is known as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 a. cohabitation b. marriage c. gatekeeping d. parentification ANSWER: a 141. The level of encouragement related to the involvement of the father by the mother is referred to as: a. gatekeeping b. parentification c. child culture d. parental comparison ANSWER: a 142. During the COVID-19 pandemic, which of these was the worst negative outcome for children? a. psychosocial consequences related to the pandemic b. physical complications due to the virus c. genetic changes related to the virus d. social changes taking places alongside the pandemic ANSWER: a 143. The Spanish concept _____ describes a culture of cooperation and positive relationships within a community. a. parentification b. familialism c. convivencia d. adjustment-erosion ANSWER: c 144. Identify and describe Erik Erikson's fourth psychosocial crisis. How does a child's resolution to this crisis relate to self-development?

ANSWER: During the industry versus inferiority stage, children attempt to master many skills, especially the skills that their culture values. Based on their ability to achieve these skills, children judge themselves as either industrious or inferior. They decide whether they are competent or incompetent, productive or useless, winners or losers. Self-pride depends not necessarily on actual accomplishments, but on how others, especially peers, view one's accomplishments. Social rejection is both a cause and a consequence of feeling inferior.

145. What is resilience and what are some factors that can support resilience during childhood?

ANSWER: Resilience is the capacity to adapt favorably in the face of significant adversity and to overcome serious stress. Resilience is any positive adaptation to significant stress. Resilience is dynamic, which means a given person may be resilient after certain crises but not others. Repeated or sustained stresses make resilience more difficult to achieve.

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Chapter 8 Factors that support resilience in children include traits in the child (especially problem-solving ability), in the family (consistency and caring), and in the community (good schools and welcoming religious institutions). In addition, a child's interpretation of a family situation (poverty, divorce, and so on) determines how that situation affects them.

146. Define and provide an example of shared and nonshared environments.

ANSWER: Shared environmental influences are those that arise from being in the same environment. An example is two siblings living in one home, raised by both parents.

Nonshared environmental influences are those that differ from one child to another. For example, despite living in the same home, two siblings are likely to have different experiences at school and within their neighborhood.

147. Name the five ways that a functional family nurtures its school-age children. Which area was the strongest in your family? How did your family nurture this area? Which area was the weakest in your family? Explain only to the degree that you feel comfortable.

ANSWER: The five ways a family nurtures school-age children are (1) meeting physical necessities (for food, clothing, and shelter), (2) encouraging learning, (3) developing each individual's self-respect, (4) nurturing peer relationships, and (5) providing harmony and stability.

Students should articulate their own family's areas of strength and weakness, evaluating why those areas were strong and weak.

148. How is family function connected to family structure? Offer three examples of different family structures.

ANSWER: Family function refers to how a family works to meet the needs of and cares for its members.

Function is more important than structure since everyone needs family love and encouragement.

Family structure is the legal and genetic connections among people living in the same household.

Function and structure are connected because the structure of the family often influences the success (or lack thereof) of family function.

Common family structures are (1) the single-parent family and (2) the nuclear family. Other twoparent families include (3) adoptive, (4) same-sex parents, (5) stepparent, and (6) grandparents raising grandchildren. Each family structure may function well for raising children.

149. Summarize the relationship among family income, conflict, and family function. Include a discussion of the family-stress model in predicting the impact of low versus high income on children.

The family-stress model states that the crucial question about any risk factor (such as low income, divorce, single parenthood, unemployment) is whether it increases stress. It predicts that low-income families experience stress created not only by economic hardship but also because of the parents' negative reaction to that hardship.

The adults' reaction to poverty is crucial, and some of the effects can be alleviated by a positive attitude (e.g., the adults don't seem distressed by the lack of money).

High income may also create stress in that parents can exert pressure on their children to excel, which can result in troubled behavior such as emotional problems, poor academic performance, drug abuse, and delinquency.

ANSWER: Family income strongly contributes to family function by influencing how well the family's needs Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 8 get met. The two factors that negatively interfere with family function in every structure, ethnic group, and nation are low income and high conflict. Low conflict usually results in a harmonious family that functions well.

150. Describe characteristics of children who are popular and well liked. Next, list and summarize traits associated with children who are unpopular.

ANSWER: At every age, children who are outgoing, friendly, and cooperative are well liked. In the United States, by the end of middle childhood, a second set of traits also predicts popularity: being dominant and somewhat aggressive. There are three types of unpopular children: Some are (1) neglected, not rejected. They are ignored but not shunned. The other two types are actively rejected: (2) aggressive-rejected, disliked because they are antagonistic and confrontational; and (3) withdrawn-rejected, disliked because they are timid and anxious.

151. Mark's daughter has been repeatedly picked on and bullied at school all year. Mark is concerned. Should they be? Explain your answer, citing research from the textbook.

ANSWER: Mark should be concerned, as victims of bullying can be anxious, depressed, and underachieving.

The results can be long-lasting, too, and may result in low self-esteem and painful memories years later. Mark should get involved by teaching their daughter problem-solving skills, supporting their child's academic progress, and helping to change their daughter's negative assumptions.

Furthermore, Mark can make teachers and administrators aware of this situation. Teachers can aim to successfully mediate peer conflicts and encourage empathy in the classroom, and schools as a whole can work to change their culture. If the situation persists, Mark should take steps to have their daughter moved to a different environment (another classroom or even another school).

152. Name and describe the first two levels of Lawrence Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning. How does a preschool child's morality differ from that of a school-age child?

ANSWER: The first two levels of Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning are the preconventional level and the conventional level. Preschool children typically display preconventional moral thinking. For them, right and wrong are based on avoiding pain and seeking pleasure. If they are likely to be punished for something, they are less apt to do it. If they can get away with a desired behavior, they will likely engage in that behavior regardless of whether it is morally correct in the eyes of society.

153. In what way is the conflict between the morality of children and that of adults evident? What are three common imperatives among 6- to 11-year-old children?

ANSWER: The conflict between the morality of children and that of adults is evident in the value that children place on education. Adults usually praise school and respect teachers, but children may encourage one another to skip class, cheat on tests, or harass a substitute teacher. Three common imperatives among school-age children are: (1) Protect your friends; (2) Don't tell adults what is happening; and (3) Conform to peer standards of dress, talk, and behavior.

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Chapter 9 1. The period when children's bodies become adult in terms of size, shape, and sexuality is called: a. puberty. b. youth. c. the growth spurt. d. secondary sex development.

ANSWER: a 2. For both girls and boys, puberty typically begins as young as _____ years of age or as late as _____ years of age. a. 5; 18 b. 7; 16 c. 8; 14 d. 10; 13 ANSWER: c 3. For girls, the usual sequence of physical changes in puberty is: a. menarche, the growth spurt, and the beginning of breast development. b. the beginning of breast development, the growth spurt, and menarche. c. the growth spurt, menarche, and the beginning of breast development. d. the growth spurt, the beginning of breast development, and menarche.

ANSWER: b 4. For girls, menarche is: a. the beginning of growth of the uterus. b. the first ovulation of a mature egg. c. a girl's first menstrual period. d. the first year of menstruation.

ANSWER: c 5. The first outward sign of puberty in a typical girl is: a. an increase in weight. b. the development of muscular strength. c. a spurt in height. d. the onset of nipple growth.

ANSWER: d 6. Marla, age 12, has just experienced a sudden growth spurt. According to the usual sequence of puberty, soon she will notice: a. initial pubic hair growth. b. breast development. c. her hips growing wider.

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Chapter 9 d. an increase in her shoe size.

ANSWER: c 7. Cognitive control during adolescence is limited because the _____ is not yet fully developed. a. limbic system b. prefrontal cortex c. basal ganglia d. temporal lobe ANSWER: b 8. For boys, the usual sequence of physical changes in puberty is: a. growth of the testes; initial pubic hair growth; growth of the penis; spermarche. b. growth of the testes; growth of the penis; initial pubic hair growth; spermarche. c. spermarche; growth of the testes; growth of the penis; initial pubic hair growth. d. initial pubic hair growth; growth of the testes; spermarche; growth of the penis.

ANSWER: a 9. For boys, the first ejaculation of seminal fluid is: a. penis growth. b. spermarche. c. first intercourse. d. pubic hair.

ANSWER: b 10. For boys, the first ejaculation generally occurs: a. when facial hair first appears. b. after the peak growth spurt. c. following growth of the penis. d. when the final pubic hair pattern is established.

ANSWER: c 11. Lee, age 11, noticed that he has some pubic hair. According to the usual sequence of puberty, his next pubertal event will probably be: a. beard development. b. penis growth. c. spermarche. d. voice change.

ANSWER: b 12. The first hormones to begin the process of puberty are triggered in the child's: a. gonads.

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Chapter 9 b. penis or uterus. c. adrenal glands. d. hypothalamus.

ANSWER: d 13. The biological events that begin puberty involve a hormonal signal from the: a. cerebellum. b. hypothalamus. c. hippocampus. d. ovaries or testes.

ANSWER: b 14. Which gland(s) receive(s) signals directly from the hypothalamus during the emergence of puberty? a. adrenals b. testes c. pituitary d. gonads ANSWER: c 15. The organ that produces the hormones that stimulate the adrenal glands is the: a. pituitary. b. gonad. c. hypothalamus. d. thyroid.

ANSWER: a 16. The correct sequence of puberty hormone production that starts in the brain and continues to the glands located below the waist is the: a. hypothalamus, pituitary, adrenals. b. pituitary, adrenals, hypothalamus. c. adrenals, hypothalamus, pituitary. d. pituitary, hypothalamus, adrenals.

ANSWER: a 17. At adolescence, the pituitary activates the _____, which are the ovaries in females and testicles in males. a. gonads b. pituitary glands c. adrenal glands d. circadian rhythms ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 18. The day–night cycle that occurs approximately every 24 hours is the: a. biorhythm. b. night–day cycle. c. sleep cycle. d. circadian rhythm.

ANSWER: d 19. Since he entered puberty, DJ has been staying awake late at night, is often snacking at midnight, and has almost no energy in the morning. DJ's behavior: a. means that he needs professional help. b. means that he is trying to avoid his parents. c. is due to changes in his brain. d. is due to hormonal shifts.

ANSWER: d 20. Statistically, which student is MOST likely to fall asleep during class? a. Makayla, age 5 b. Wilhelm, age 8 c. Adam, age 11 d. Ivy, age 14 ANSWER: d 21. A sequence of hormone production originating in the hypothalamus and moving to the pituitary and then to the gonads is the: a. HPG axis b. HPA axis c. circadian rhythm d. pubertal sequence ANSWER: a 22. Later high school start times have been associated with all of these EXCEPT: a. less adolescent depression. b. higher graduation rates. c. less student absenteeism. d. decreased college attendance.

ANSWER: d 23. During adolescence, the _____ matures before the _____ in the brain. a. prefrontal cortex; limbic system b. limbic system; prefrontal cortex c. prefrontal cortex; amygdala Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 d. cerebellum; amygdala ANSWER: b 24. A sequence of hormone production originating in the hypothalamus and moving to the pituitary and then to the adrenal glands is the: a. HPG axis. b. HPA axis. c. circadian rhythm. d. pubertal sequence.

ANSWER: b 25. Which of these individuals is MOST likely to take dramatic risks in order to gain peer approval? a. 5-year-old Eric b. 10-year-old Simeon c. 15-year-old Kevin d. 20-year-old Bruce ANSWER: c 26. Zack is generally more alert in the evening than in the morning. This is referred to as: a. egocentrism. b. rumination. c. circadian rhythm. d. eveningness.

ANSWER: d 27. James, 16, invites a group of his high-school friends to swim in a neighbor's pool late at night while that neighbor is away. They climb the fence and jump in, playing wildly and loudly in the water. A few minutes later, the police arrive. How does adolescent brain development help explain James's poor decision-making? a. His limbic system is underdeveloped. b. His prefrontal cortex is underdeveloped. c. His amygdala is underdeveloped. d. The regions regulating his emotions are overdeveloped.

ANSWER: b 28. Adolescents are more likely than adults to choose to stay up all night, go through a day without eating, exercise in pain, or text while driving because of an immature: a. limbic system. b. prefrontal cortex. c. amygdala. d. pituitary gland.

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Chapter 9 29. About _____ of the variation in age of puberty is determined by genes. a. one-half b. two-thirds c. one-fourth d. three-fourths ANSWER: b 30. Sean is 16 years old and likes to listen to extremely loud music, stay up all night without sleeping, and drink until he is drunk. He may enjoy these activities because his _____ is not yet fully developed. a. limbic system b. prefrontal cortex c. basal ganglia d. temporal lobe ANSWER: b 31. Which statement about the correlation between body fat and onset of puberty among females is correct? a. There is no correlation between body fat and the onset of puberty among females. b. There is a positive correlation between body fat and onset of puberty among females. c. There is a negative correlation between body fat and the onset of puberty among females. d. There is a correlation between body fat and the onset of puberty only among female adolescents who are Native American.

ANSWER: b 32. Mary experienced menarche when she was 8 years old. She experienced: a. precocious puberty. b. abnormal hormonal fluctuations. c. preterm menarche. d. excessively high levels of androgens.

ANSWER: a 33. Researchers have found that _____ genes differ in those who are natural "early birds" or "night owls." a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 15 ANSWER: d 34. In one survey of U.S. high school seniors who had driven a car in the past month, _____ percent had texted while driving. a. 10 b. 17 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 c. 28 d. 39 ANSWER: d 35. Stress, especially when prolonged: a. may contribute to an early onset of puberty. b. may contribute to a late onset of puberty. c. typically increases after the onset of puberty. d. typically decreases after the onset of puberty.

ANSWER: a 36. Research indicates that female children who experienced a great deal of _____ while very young also experienced early puberty. a. attention b. stress c. exercise d. starvation ANSWER: b 37. Jinu is physically active for an hour each day. Their BMI is 26 but they are not actually overweight. This is because: a. fat is heavier than muscle. b. fat and muscle weigh the same. c. skin is heavier than muscle. d. muscle is heavier than fat.

ANSWER: d 38. Which of these has been found to decrease adolescent stress more than increase it? a. family discussions b. adolescent independence c. peer relationships d. family dinners ANSWER: d 39. Body dissatisfaction is related to all of these EXCEPT: a. increased self-esteem. b. unfavorable media comparisons. c. weight criticism from parents. d. unfavorable peer comparisons.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 40. While about _____ percent of U.S. high school girls are trying to lose weight, only _____ are overweight. a. 40; one-fifth b. 20; half c. 60; one-sixth d. 30; one-third ANSWER: c 41. Yared was assigned female at birth but identifies as male. They have chosen surgery to remove their breasts to ensure that their body conforms to their gender. This indicates the importance of _____ in gender development and identity. a. primary sexual characteristics b. uterine development c. secondary sex characteristics d. hips ANSWER: c 42. Among U.S. high school seniors, about _____ of girls and _____ of boys have had sexual intercourse. a. 42; 42 b. 56; 58 c. 64; 66 d. 64; 58 ANSWER: b 43. During a boy's puberty, the growth spurt sequence typically occurs in this order: a. weight, height, muscles b. weight, muscles, height c. height, weight, muscles d. muscles, height, weight ANSWER: a 44. One of the first signs of the growth spurt is: a. lengthening of the torso. b. increased muscle mass. c. growth of arms and legs. d. growth of fingers and toes.

ANSWER: d 45. During the adolescent growth spurt, what is/are the last part(s) of the body to grow? a. limbs b. torso c. ears Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 d. feet ANSWER: b 46. Which article of clothing is Micah MOST likely to outgrow first when he experiences the adolescent growth spurt? a. shirt b. pants c. belt d. shoes ANSWER: d 47. Janet and Stan are both experiencing a growth spurt. If they are typical adolescents, Janet will have _____ than Stan. a. a lower proportion of body fat b. a higher proportion of body fat c. more upper body muscle d. narrower hips ANSWER: b 48. One physical change that typically occurs during adolescence is that the: a. lungs increase in weight by a factor of five. b. heart doubles in size. c. tonsils increase in size. d. skin becomes darker.

ANSWER: b 49. Some teenagers seem able to skate, play basketball, or dance for hours without rest. This increased endurance is BEST explained by: a. increased hormone output. b. increased weight. c. better digestive processes. d. the growth of the heart and lungs.

ANSWER: d 50. _____ are the MOST common school accidents, and they increase at puberty. a. Sports injuries b. Falls c. Physical fights d. Overdoses ANSWER: a 51. Adolescent acne is usually caused by: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 a. changes in diet. b. changes in the lymphoid system. c. sexual frustration. d. an increase in skin oils and sweat.

ANSWER: d 52. What percentage of U.S. high school girls and boys have had four or more sexual partners? a. 2; 5 b. 5; 10 c. 7; 10 d. 8; 7 ANSWER: c 53. In 2019, only about _____ percent of U.S. adolescents ate the recommended three or more servings of vegetables daily. a. 10 b. 13 c. 22 d. 35 ANSWER: b 54. Statistically, which person is MOST likely to have the greatest health problems due to iron deficiency? a. 12-year-old Lanae, who has not yet experienced menarche b. 15-year-old Nicholas, who exercises very little c. 16-year-old Marilyn, who is menstruating d. 25-year-old Ben, who has three children ANSWER: c 55. Stacey is concerned about deficiencies in her daughter Alana's diet. If Alana is a typical teen, she is likely deficient in all of these EXCEPT: a. calcium. b. zinc. c. iron. d. vitamin A. ANSWER: d 56. Which pair of nutrients is MOST likely to be lacking in the adolescent diet? a. magnesium and B vitamins b. iron and calcium c. sodium and potassium d. vitamins A and C Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 ANSWER: b 57. The recommended daily dose of calcium is _____ milligrams; most teens consume less than _____ milligrams per day. a. 1,000; 300 b. 1,000; 500 c. 1,300; 800 d. 1,300; 500 ANSWER: d 58. According to research, which of these strategies could be implemented in order to encourage adolescents to make better food choices? a. Increase prices of healthy foods. b. Provide healthier selections in school vending machines. c. Increase parental monitoring of food choices. d. Put unhealthy foods in closer proximity to where students hang out.

ANSWER: b 59. One reason adolescents' nutritional habits may be poor is: a. lack of media attention to the importance of good nutrition. b. misunderstanding about what is and is not healthy food. c. altered taste buds due to hormonal surges. d. anxiety about their body image.

ANSWER: d 60. Research indicates that a majority of adolescent girls in the United States are trying to: a. gain weight. b. lose weight. c. lift weights. d. not focus on their appearance.

ANSWER: b 61. Many times, the perpetrator of sexual abuse during adolescence is: a. another teenager. b. a stranger. c. a neighbor. d. an aunt.

ANSWER: a 62. Alicia told a friend that she doesn't like the way her legs look in her new volleyball uniform. She said she hates her body and expressed a desire to lose a lot of weight. Alicia's concerns likely reflect: a. poor body image.

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Chapter 9 b. dislike of sports. c. a competitive nature. d. poor social comparisons.

ANSWER: a 63. Which symptom is NOT associated with anorexia nervosa? a. having a BMI of 18 or lower b. voluntary starvation c. average weight d. distorted body image ANSWER: c 64. Patricia is 5 feet tall and weighs 87 pounds, yet when she looks in the mirror she thinks she is too fat. She does aerobics for two hours daily and eats very little. Patricia appears to suffer from: a. anorexia nervosa. b. puberty. c. depression. d. bulimia nervosa.

ANSWER: a 65. Abigail is obsessed with her weight. She sometimes eats a whole package of Oreos at one sitting and then makes herself vomit. She also takes laxatives for weight control. Abigail MOST likely suffers from: a. anorexia nervosa. b. degenerative organ disease. c. anxiety. d. bulimia nervosa.

ANSWER: d 66. Which STI has no immediate consequences but increases the risk of cancer in adult men and women and has a vaccine to prevent against it? a. HPV b. HIV c. chlamydia d. gonorrhea ANSWER: a 67. Once a week, Erica locks herself in her bedroom and gorges on cookies, cakes, ice cream, and other snack foods. She eats until her stomach hurts, and this has been going on for five months. Erica is very private about her eating splurges and is embarrassed and depressed over her out-of-control eating. Erica is demonstrating characteristics of: a. anorexia nervosa. b. binge-eating disorder.

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Chapter 9 c. anxiety-based eating disorder. d. BMI (body mass index) dysfunction.

ANSWER: b 68. For all eating disorders, _____ is crucial. a. family structure b. family function c. discipline d. school-based intervention ANSWER: b 69. Changes in primary sex characteristics include: a. growth of pubic hair and underarm hair. b. rapid increase in height. c. growth of the uterus or the testes. d. deeper voice.

ANSWER: c 70. Once the primary sexual organs begin to function, adolescents are biologically capable of: a. reproduction. b. weight loss. c. giving blood. d. sleeping fewer hours.

ANSWER: a 71. Secondary sex characteristics are traits that: a. occur later in development. b. are not visible. c. occur for only some people. d. are not directly related to fertility.

ANSWER: d 72. Hillary, age 13, notices that her hips are widening, and her breasts are developing. Hillary is noticing changes in her _____ sex characteristics. a. primary b. secondary c. puberty d. prefrontal ANSWER: b 73. If a boy notices a swelling around his nipples during puberty, what is the likely cause?

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Chapter 9 a. the normal fluctuation of sex hormones b. late-onset puberty c. abnormally high levels of estrogen d. drug abuse ANSWER: a 74. Which factor has the greatest impact on whether sexual discovery and exploration is healthy and enjoyable, or shameful and frightening? a. sex hormones b. brain function c. culture d. gender ANSWER: c 75. Thinking obsessively about self-focused concerns is referred to as: a. egocentrism b. the personal fable c. rumination d. an imaginary audience ANSWER: c 76. One reason for adolescent rumination is: a. egocentrism b. the personal fable c. rumination d. an imaginary audience ANSWER: a 77. In many nations, including the United States, rates of sexual activity among boys and girls are: a. almost even. b. significantly higher for boys. c. significantly higher for girls. d. unclear.

ANSWER: a 78. Believing that certain jobs are best filled by men and others by women is referred to as: a. gender intensification b. egocentrism c. rumination d. formal operational thought ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 79. Annie is sexually active and has contracted an STI. However, she does not recognize symptoms as problematic, has not told her sexual partner, and has no intention of seeking medical care. She is MOST likely _____ years old. a. 15 b. 21 c. 25 d. 32 ANSWER: a 80. Child sexual abuse: a. most often is instigated by strangers. b. is quite rare in all cultures and countries. c. includes only activities that involve genital contact. d. is most common when the first signs of puberty occur.

ANSWER: d 81. Young people who are sexually exploited/abused: a. usually forget about the abuse. b. tend to devalue themselves throughout life. c. do not usually know their abuser. d. are not likely to be aggressive.

ANSWER: b 82. A young boy experienced ongoing sexual abuse until he was 15. Now that he is a grown man, it is likely that he: a. has forgotten the experiences over time. b. suffers from biological harm resulting from the abuse. c. is depressed and has difficulty with sex or psychosocial issues. d. has outgrown the biological and psychosocial effects of the abuse.

ANSWER: c 83. Teenagers have _____ rate of gonorrhea, genital herpes, and chlamydia when compared to sexually active people of other age groups. a. a lower b. the same c. a higher d. an unknown ANSWER: c 84. During puberty, adolescents' thoughts center on: a. friends.

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Chapter 9 b. society. c. family. d. themselves.

ANSWER: d 85. During puberty, young people center on themselves, in part because brain maturation heightens: a. self-esteem. b. self-consciousness. c. self-concept. d. self-identity.

ANSWER: b 86. Thinking intensely about themselves and about what others think about them is called: a. individualism. b. deductive thinking. c. inductive thinking. d. egocentrism.

ANSWER: d 87. _____ referenced the term adolescent egocentrism. a. Erikson b. Skinner c. Elkind d. Kohlberg ANSWER: c 88. Charlene thinks they are more unique and admired than their peers and is certain that everyone is paying attention to their every action. It appears that they have started to experience adolescent: a. modesty. b. moral reasoning. c. egocentrism. d. logic.

ANSWER: c 89. Chiara, who is 15 years old, is attending their first swim team practice. They are very sensitive to the facial expressions, body language, communication styles, and other social cues given by their new teammates.

Chiara's sensitivity to these social cues is aided by adolescent: a. hypothetical thinking. b. deductive thinking. c. inductive thinking. d. egocentrism.

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Chapter 9 ANSWER: d 90. Many adolescents feel that their own thoughts and experiences are far more extraordinary than those of other people. This is part of their: a. personal fable. b. post-operational thought. c. moral reasoning. d. invincibility fable.

ANSWER: a 91. The belief that one cannot be harmed by things that would hurt someone else is referred to as: a. the invincibility fable. b. the personal fable. c. the imaginary audience. d. deductive reasoning.

ANSWER: a 92. Seventeen-year-old Josiah drinks excessively and drives dangerously fast, believing that they cannot be hurt. Josiah is demonstrating: a. the personal fable. b. deductive reasoning. c. self-awareness. d. the invincibility fable.

ANSWER: d 93. The power of the invincibility fable may be observed in: a. a 17-year-old boy who drives cautiously. b. an 18-year-old girl who insists that her boyfriend use a condom. c. a military recruit who is 18 and hopes to be sent into combat. d. an adolescent who sings, thinking that the neighbors must be listening.

ANSWER: c 94. The term imaginary audience refers to adolescents': a. ability to understand how others perceive them. b. belief that everyone is watching their behavior and appearance. c. constant posing and posturing before mirrors. d. belief that others are spying on them.

ANSWER: b 95. Nadiene says, "There is no way I am going to school today with this pimple on my cheek. Everybody is going to laugh at me." Nadiene is demonstrating: a. a volatile mismatch.

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Chapter 9 b. an implicit judgment. c. the imaginary audience. d. the invincibility fable.

ANSWER: c 96. When adolescents fantasize about how others will react to their new hairstyle, they are creating a(n): a. personal fable. b. abstract audience. c. personal identity. d. imaginary audience.

ANSWER: d 97. Jean Piaget called the reasoning that characterizes adolescence: a. formal operational thought. b. invincibility thinking. c. metacognition. d. concrete operational thinking.

ANSWER: a 98. Yanko just solved this algebraic problem: (35xy2)(6zy3). Yanko's ability to do so places them in which of Piaget's stages of cognitive development? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete operational d. formal operational ANSWER: d 99. When Piaget and his colleagues asked children of different ages to balance a scale using several different weights, they found that: a. by age 4, children tended to use logical deduction. b. by age 7, children used spatial relationships. c. by age 10, trial-and-error strategies based on logic are used to balance the scale. d. by age 13 or 14, logic is used to understand a reciprocal relationship.

ANSWER: d 100. Ron, age 7, has been asked to balance a scale with weights that can be hooked to the arms of the scale. Ron will probably: a. solve the problem through a trial-and-error strategy. b. put weights on both sides without considering distance from the center of the scale. c. understand the inverse relationship between distance and weight. d. put all the weights on one side of the scale.

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Chapter 9 ANSWER: b 101. In Piaget's experiments with balancing a scale, trial-and-error problem solving was MOST characteristic of those of the age defined by: a. unrealistic thought. b. concrete operational thought. c. logical thought. d. formal operational thought.

ANSWER: b 102. In Piaget and his colleagues' experiments with balancing a scale, a child who systematically tests the idea that the relationship between weight and distance is reciprocal is probably age: a. 4. b. 7. c. 10. d. 14.

ANSWER: d 103. One of the MOST prominent aspects of formal operational thought is the ability to: a. reject adult thoughts and values. b. think in terms of possibilities. c. take another person's point of view. d. use creative impulse as a problem-solving skill.

ANSWER: b 104. Reasoning that includes propositions and possibilities that may not reflect reality defines: a. inductive reasoning. b. perceptual thought. c. hypothetical thought. d. deductive reasoning.

ANSWER: c 105. Which statement is TRUE? a. Hypothetical thought is tied to the everyday world as the individual knows it. b. Hypothetical thought is emotionally based. c. Hypothetical thought involves imagined possibilities. d. Hypothetical thought is an aspect of concrete operational thinking.

ANSWER: c 106. If–then propositions require: a. concrete thought.

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Chapter 9 b. operational thought. c. postformal thought. d. hypothetical thought.

ANSWER: d 107. Deandre is 15 years old. Their parents are often annoyed because Deandre tends to ask critical questions such as, "I don't understand why I'll be able to vote when I'm 18, but I have to wait until I'm 21 to buy alcohol!"

This demonstrates Deandre's: a. inductive reasoning. b. perceptual thinking. c. hypothetical thinking. d. deductive reasoning.

ANSWER: c 108. Which term refers to reasoning from a general statement, premise, or principle, through logical steps, to figure out specifics? a. hypothetical reasoning b. inductive reasoning c. deductive reasoning d. adolescent egocentrism ANSWER: c 109. Deductive reasoning is also referred to as "_____ reasoning." a. top-down b. theoretical c. concrete d. bottom-up ANSWER: a 110. Which term refers to the ability to begin with specifics, such as accumulated facts, and then make general conclusions? a. hypothetical reasoning b. inductive reasoning c. deductive reasoning d. adolescent egocentrism ANSWER: b 111. Bottom-up reasoning is also referred to as "_____ reasoning." a. top-down b. theoretical c. concrete Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 d. inductive ANSWER: d 112. All Christians believe in the Bible, and James is a Christian; therefore, James believes in the Bible. This is an example of: a. deductive reasoning. b. theoretical reasoning. c. concrete reasoning. d. formal reasoning.

ANSWER: a 113. Elane, an adolescent, believes that government should pay for all citizens' health care. From this premise, they reason about the particulars of how and why government-funded health care would work. This is an example of: a. adolescent egocentrism. b. intuitive thinking. c. inductive reasoning. d. deductive reasoning.

ANSWER: d 114. Using _____ thinking, a person might think, "If it barks like a dog and wags its tail like a dog, it must be a dog." a. deductive b. preoperational c. reductive d. inductive ANSWER: d 115. Three different girls tell David that The Notebook is their all-time favorite movie. David concludes that all girls love that movie. David has just used: a. hypothetical reasoning. b. inductive reasoning. c. deductive reasoning. d. adolescent egocentrism.

ANSWER: b 116. Stephania is taking a test that will determine if they are accepted into the college they want to attend. This test is a crucial factor for determining college admission. Which test is Stephania taking? a. TEFL b. SAT c. PISA d. TISSA Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 ANSWER: b 117. The notion that two networks exist within the human brain, one for emotional and one for analytical processing of stimuli, is: a. dual-thinking. b. dual-processing. c. dual-reasoning. d. emotional-analytic.

ANSWER: b 118. When asked what she sees in her new boyfriend, whom she just met, Kendra responds, "I don't know. It just feels right." Kendra's response is an example of _____ thought. a. concrete operational b. analytic c. intuitive d. abstract ANSWER: c 119. Piaget's scale-balancing problem requires _____ thought. a. concrete operational b. analytic c. intuitive d. conventional ANSWER: b 120. Thinking or drawing conclusions based on past personal experience, emotions, or a hunch is referred to as: a. deductive reasoning. b. intuitive thought. c. concrete reasoning. d. analytic thought.

ANSWER: b 121. A thought that arises through a "feeling" that the thought is right is referred to as a(n) "_____ thought." a. intuitive b. factual c. experimental d. logical ANSWER: a 122. Fifteen-year-old Suan wants to be allowed to drive the family car, even though they do not yet have a driver's license. When their parents ask them why they think they should have driving privileges, Suan answers, "I know other kids who do it, and it's just stupid that I have to wait another year!" This is an example of _____ Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 thinking. a. rational b. intuitive c. logical d. analytic ANSWER: b 123. Veronica and their friends come up with several options of things to do on Friday night, and ultimately decide to go to a new movie because it received positive reviews. In making this decision Veronica and their friends are using what type of thought? a. deductive reasoning b. intuitive thought c. concrete reasoning d. analytic thought ANSWER: d 124. Formal, logical, hypothetical-deductive thinking described by Piaget is referred to as: a. deductive reasoning. b. intuitive thought. c. concrete reasoning. d. analytic thought.

ANSWER: d 125. Sixteen-year-old Cassandra has a 10 P.M. curfew. They ask their parents to extend their curfew to 11 P.M. on weekends. When their parents ask why, Cassandra replies, "I've never been late for my 10 P.M. curfew. You can trust me. Can we at least give it a try?" This is an example of _____ thought. a. concrete operational b. intuitive c. emotional d. analytic ANSWER: d 126. Ethan has a busy week of school ahead. They have a report due in social studies, an English paper due, an exam in chemistry, and two soccer games. In order to effectively manage all of these activities, Ethan will need to engage what type of thought? a. deductive reasoning b. intuitive thought c. concrete reasoning d. analytic thought ANSWER: d 127. Klaczynski's studies of younger and older adolescents' analytical thinking indicated that: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 a. younger adolescents were rarely logical, whereas older adolescents were nearly always logical. b. individuals who were analytical on some problems were analytical on all problems. c. as adolescents grow older sometimes there is a gain in logic and other times there is regression. d. younger adolescents tended to dismiss research that was contrary to their own beliefs.

ANSWER: c 128. Klaczynski's research showed that logical thinking improved with age and education, but not with: a. life experiences. b. practice of formal thinking. c. intelligence. d. parent involvement.

ANSWER: c 129. Erika has heard repeatedly from their parents about the potential dangers of drinking alcohol, yet at a party they gladly accept an alcoholic beverage from a popular friend. In this situation, what type of thinking is MOST likely dominating Erika's decision to accept the drink? a. inductive reasoning b. intuitive thought c. concrete reasoning d. analytic thought ANSWER: b 130. Krishna has heard from their parents about the dangers of smoking and agrees with their parents about the potential dangers. At a party Krishna is offered a cigarette but declines it even though the person who offered the cigarette is one of the most popular students at school. In this situation, what type of thinking is MOST likely dominating Krishna's decision to decline the cigarette? a. inductive reasoning b. intuitive thought c. concrete reasoning d. analytic thought ANSWER: d 131. During adolescence, impulsivity declines and analytic thinking: a. also declines. b. increases. c. stays at the preadolescent level. d. is still not developed.

ANSWER: b 132. Adolescents tend to rely more on _____ thinking than adults do. a. intuitive b. analytic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 c. abstract d. preconventional ANSWER: a 133. The tendency to not think about future rewards and instead seek immediate pleasure is called: a. stereotype threat b. delay discounting c. rumination d. egocentrism ANSWER: b 134. Spreading insults and rumors by means of e-mails, text messages, or Web postings is called: a. spamming. b. cyberbullying. c. electronic harassment. d. hacking.

ANSWER: b 135. The school years after elementary or grade school and before college or university are referred to as: a. primary education. b. secondary education. c. tertiary education. d. quaternary education.

ANSWER: b 136. Rhonda is in 10th grade. Rhonda is enrolled in _____ education. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. higher education ANSWER: b 137. Which statement is FALSE? a. Secondary education refers to schooling completed after high school graduation, such as college or vocational training. b. No matter where they live, individuals who complete secondary education are healthier. c. Every nation is increasing the number of students in secondary education. d. As the age of puberty has decreased, some schools of secondary education now start with grade 5.

ANSWER: a 138. Middle school typically includes grades: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 a. 4 to 6. b. 5 to 7. c. 6 to 8. d. 7 to 9.

ANSWER: c 139. Many developmentalists find middle schools to be "developmentally regressive," which means: a. teachers do not allow students to be independent. b. learning goes backward. c. the curriculum is not high quality. d. students do not desire autonomy.

ANSWER: b 140. Brenda and Matt are in their first year of middle school. Statistically, one would expect their academic achievement to: a. improve. b. decline. c. remain the same as in elementary school. d. exhibit an erratic pattern of rising and falling.

ANSWER: b 141. Therence has just started middle school. According to research, Therence will: a. likely experience more behavior problems. b. likely experience fewer behavior problems. c. continue to show high achievement. d. experience a sharp decline in self-esteem, achievement, and social status.

ANSWER: a 142. Research has shown that adolescents who drop out of high school may show early signs of high school dropout by: a. preschool. b. elementary school. c. middle school. d. high school.

ANSWER: c 143. Teraji spends almost two hours getting ready for school every day. They insist on only wearing brandname clothes. Teraji also wears specific sunglasses to demonstrate that they are a member of the popular crowd, and participates in verbal bullying of students in the loner crowd. Teraji is MOST likely to be at what level of the education system? a. preschool b. elementary school Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 c. middle school d. college ANSWER: c 144. The common middle-school schedule that involves students changing rooms, teachers, and classmates every 40 minutes: a. creates a developmental mismatch between students' needs and the school context. b. supports children's development due to increased independence and autonomy. c. improves student grades, since they are motivated by new teachers every 40 minutes. d. increases student collaboration because they get to work with new students.

ANSWER: a 145. A strategy to increase student motivation in middle schools is to encourage a belief in: a. students' ability to master whatever they seek to learn. b. doing homework. c. the entity approach to learning. d. studying for tests.

ANSWER: a 146. Most U.S. high schools emphasize learning based on _____, which is developmentally appropriate. a. formal thinking b. memorization c. practical cognition d. international standards ANSWER: a 147. One type of high school class that is assessed by externally scored exams that may satisfy college requirements is: a. IB (International Baccalaureate). b. PISA (Programme for International Student Assessment). c. TIMSS (Trends in International Mathematics and Science Study). d. PIRLS (Progress in International Reading Literacy Study).

ANSWER: a 148. Sander and their classmates are taking an exam today that will determine whether they graduate from high school or not. Sander and their classmates are taking a(n) _____ test. a. Advanced Placement b. International Baccalaureate c. high-stakes d. college entrance ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 149. As the United States moves increasingly toward high-stakes testing: a. other nations are following suit. b. other nations are moving away from it. c. some nations are following suit and others are moving away from it. d. other nations are following suit only if they have high-performing students.

ANSWER: c 150. According to the results of the Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA), the countries with the highest math test scores are: a. Greece, Iceland, and China. b. Japan, the United States, and Finland. c. Austria, Italy, and South Korea. d. China, Singapore, and South Korea.

ANSWER: d 151. Which of these is NOT TRUE regarding the PISA? a. The PISA was designed to measure students' ability to apply what they have learned. b. The PISA is taken when students are close to the end of their secondary school career. c. The questions on the PISA are practical, applying to information that would apply at home or on the job. d. U.S. students score higher on the PISA compared to other nations.

ANSWER: d 152. Aimi entered college immediately after graduating from high school. They attend a public four-year university and aren't doing well in their classes. Aimi is thinking of quitting. Aimi wouldn't be alone as almost _____ of those attending a four-year institution do not graduate and end up quitting. a. one-fourth b. half c. three-fourths d. two-thirds ANSWER: b 153. Describe two factors that contribute to changes in sleep patterns during puberty. What are at least three risks associated with sleep deprivation and irregular sleep schedules among adolescents?

ANSWER: First, puberty interacts with biorhythms—seasonal changes or those on a 24-hour cycle, like the circadian rhythm. For most people, daylight awakes the brain. But at puberty, night may be more energizing, making some teens wide awake and hungry at midnight and half asleep, with no energy, all morning. Second, the blue spectrum light from TV, computer, and personal-device screens may have particularly strong effects on the human circadian system. Risks associated with sleep deprivation and irregular sleep schedules include: (1) insomnia, (2) nightmares, (3) mood disorders, (4) falling asleep while driving, and (5) learning difficulties.

154. Discuss the relationship between stress and pubertal timing. Mention at least three stress factors, as well as Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 9 research findings on why this link may exist.

ANSWER: There is a positive correlation between stress levels and puberty. Individuals who experience higher levels of stress begin puberty earlier than their peers, especially if the children's parents are (1) sick, (2) drug addicted, or (3) divorced, or if (4) the neighborhood is violent and impoverished. One study found that (5) sexually abused girls began puberty as much as a year earlier than their nonabused peers.

155. List four problems with modern adolescents' dietary habits. Provide two reasons for problematic eating patterns in adolescence.

ANSWER: Many adolescents do not eat well. Teenagers often (1) skip breakfast, (2) binge at midnight, (3) guzzle down unhealthy energy drinks, and (4) eat salty, processed snacks. One reason for their eating patterns is that their hormones affect the circadian rhythm of their appetites. Another reason may be anxiety about body image.

156. Your text discusses three different eating disorders. Explain each one.

ANSWER: Anorexia is an eating disorder that is characterized by a refusal to eat. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by binge eating and subsequent purging. Binge eating disorder involves frequent episodes of uncontrollable overeating to the point that the stomach hurts.

157. Explain primary and secondary sex characteristics during pubertal development. Identify at least three of each type of characteristic for males and females.

ANSWER: Primary sex characteristics are those that are directly involved in conception and pregnancy.

Specific primary changes in the female are (1) growth of the uterus, (2) growth of the vagina, and (3) mature ova produced by the ovaries. Specific primary changes in the male are (4) growth of the testes, (5) growth of the penis, and (6) production of sperm.

158. Define adolescent egocentrism and give two examples of it. Next, provide an example of a time when you exhibited adolescent egocentrism in your own life, and identify the type of egocentrism it was.

ANSWER: Adolescent egocentrism is how adolescents think intensely about themselves and about what others think of them. Two examples of egocentrism are adolescents' belief in the invincibility fable and the imaginary audience. The invincibility fable is the belief that nothing bad can happen to them because they are unique and immortal. This can lead to dangerous risk-taking. The imaginary audience is the idea that the whole world is watching them and is concerned about what they do.

159. State two risks associated with the invincibility fable.

ANSWER: The invincibility fable is the notion that adolescents feel immune to harm or defeat. Since they feel they cannot be harmed, they may engage in (1) dangerous, thrill-seeking acts. Potential risks include (2) physical injury, (3) death, (4) pregnancy, and (5) alienation from one's family.

160. What is the difference between deductive and inductive reasoning in relation to hypothetical thought?

Provide an example of each.

ANSWER: Inductive reasoning (also called bottom-up reasoning) starts with specific facts or experiences and ends with a general conclusion. An example of inductive reasoning would be: "This new creature waddles and quacks. Ducks waddle and quack. Therefore, it must be a type of duck." The concrete operations of childhood are based on inductive reasoning.

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Chapter 9 161. Define analytic thinking and intuitive thinking. Which form of thinking is more frequent among adolescents, and why?

ANSWER: Analytic thought is formal, logical, rational, hypothetical, and deductive. It is the thinking described

by Piaget and involves the rational analysis of many factors whose interactions must be calculated.

Such logical thinking improves with age and education, although not with IQ. 162. Explain cyberbullying.

ANSWER: Cyberbullying is when a person is bullied via electronic devices, usually through e-mail, text messages, or cell phone videos. Texted and e-mailed rumors and insults can "go viral," reaching thousands, transmitted day and night. The imaginary audience magnifies the shame.

163. Define secondary education and explain the importance of secondary education for both individual students and nations.

ANSWER: Secondary education encompasses grades 7 through 12. It denotes the school years after elementary or grade school and before college or university. Data on almost every health ailment, from every nation and every ethnic group, confirm that high school graduation correlates with better health, wealth, and family life. Educated adults also advance national wealth and health. Partly because political leaders recognize that educated adults advance national wealth and health, every nation is increasing the number of students in secondary schools. Education is compulsory until at least age 12 almost everywhere, and new high schools and colleges open almost daily in developing nations.

164. Explain the trajectory of student achievement and behavior during middle school. What are two factors that contribute to this pattern?

ANSWER: For many middle school students, academic achievement declines and behavioral problems rise.

There are many factors that contribute to this pattern. (1) Puberty is part of the problem. (2) Middle schools undermine student–teacher relationships. (3) Unlike earlier school years, when each classroom has one primary teacher all year, middle school teachers have hundreds of students. This makes them impersonal and distant, and (4) their students learn less and (5) risk more. Also, (6) middle schools typically require students to change rooms, teachers, and classmates every 40 minutes or so. That (7) makes public acclaim and new friendships difficult. (8) Recognition for academic excellence is especially elusive, because middle school teachers mark more harshly. (9) Many middle school students seek acceptance from their peers rather than their teachers.

165. Explain what the PISA (Programme for International Student Assessment) is and describe how U.S. students perform on this assessment compared to their international peers.

ANSWER: The PISA is an international test taken by 15 year olds in 50 nations. It is designed to measure problem solving and cognition in daily life. Therefore, the questions are written to be practical, measuring knowledge that a person would apply at home or on the job. On the PISA, the U.S. 15 year olds scored 36th in math, 28th in science, and 24th in reading.

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Chapter 10 1. Psychosocial development during adolescence involves the search for a(n): a. spouse. b. career. c. set of behaviors to please others. d. understanding of oneself.

ANSWER: d 2. Psychosocial development during adolescence is often seen as a quest to answer the question: a. "What am I going to do with my life?" b. "Will I ever find someone to love?" c. "Who am I?" d. "Why don't my parents understand me?"

ANSWER: c 3. According to Erikson, adolescents are in the stage of: a. identity versus role confusion. b. intimacy versus isolation. c. independence versus neediness. d. integration versus separation.

ANSWER: a 4. According to Erikson, the goal of adolescence is to: a. abandon parental goals. b. find one's own identity. c. attain independence from one's peer group. d. form an intimate relationship with a member of the other sex.

ANSWER: b 5. According to Erikson, the ultimate adolescent psychosocial goal is identity _____. a. diffusion b. achievement c. foreclosure d. moratorium ANSWER: b 6. Jane is an adolescent. According to Erikson, their new identity will be established by: a. choosing an appropriate adult "hero figure." b. adopting values and goals opposite to the destructive identities of media stars. c. embracing some parental and societal values while abandoning others. d. deciding a sexual role and sticking with it, regardless of the consequences.

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Chapter 10 ANSWER: c 7. Following Erikson's lead, _____ distinguished four specific ways young people cope with the identity crisis. a. Baumrind b. Freud c. Marcia d. Skinner ANSWER: c 8. Which identity status is characterized by a lack of commitment to goals or values? a. achievement b. foreclosure c. role confusion d. moratorium ANSWER: c 9. Role confusion refers to the identity status in which adolescents: a. pause during their identity formation to explore alternatives. b. form their identity prematurely. c. do not commit to goals and fail to take on any role. d. understand who they are as connected to everything they have learned.

ANSWER: c 10. What characterizes role confusion? a. lack of focus on or concern about the future b. foreclosure c. following one's heart d. commitment to a cause ANSWER: a 11. Which adolescent appears to be experiencing role confusion? a. Ami, who runs away from a pressured home environment and joins a commune b. Juan, who is pressured by their parents to become a doctor c. Barbara, a college student who is majoring in psychology d. Zachary, who spends most of their time watching TV, playing video games, and avoiding responsibility ANSWER: d 12. Eighteen-year-old Emrie failed several classes, lost their job, and spends most of their time sleeping on the couch. When their parents voice their disapproval, they reply "Whatever." Emrie's response indicates: a. role confusion.

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Chapter 10 b. identity achievement. c. identity foreclosure. d. moratorium.

ANSWER: a 13. When a person adopts parents' or society's roles and values without questioning and exploring a personal identity, it is referred to as "identity _____." a. moratorium b. foreclosure c. diffusion d. achievement ANSWER: b 14. _____ is an example of "identity foreclosure." a. Dropping out of high school b. Choosing a different career path than what parents wanted c. Eagerness to vote in a national election d. Working in the family business because it is expected ANSWER: d 15. Juan readily adopted their parents' political beliefs without question. Happy and secure, they enjoy participating in political events with their parents. Their identity status reflects: a. diffusion. b. achievement. c. foreclosure. d. moratorium.

ANSWER: c 16. Without any thoughtful consideration, Steven took on an identity that is the opposite of what their parents want for them. Steven has adopted a(n): a. negative identity. b. positive identity. c. nonidentity. d. over identity.

ANSWER: a 17. Of the various identity statuses, _____ is comfortable. a. diffusion b. moratorium c. foreclosure d. achievement Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 ANSWER: c 18. The term for a pause in identity formation, when alternatives are explored before final choices are made, is: a. identity diffusion. b. role confusion. c. negative identity. d. moratorium.

ANSWER: d 19. During an identity moratorium, adolescents typically: a. ignore their future roles and responsibilities. b. take on temporary roles and postpone identity-achievement decisions. c. change their identities from that of their youth. d. adopt their parents' views after having tested them on their own.

ANSWER: b 20. Chad is serving a two-year mission for his church at the age of 19. When he returns home from his mission assignment, he will decide whether to attend college and will make decisions about career and family. Chad's current status is identity: a. foreclosure. b. moratorium. c. diffusion. d. achievement.

ANSWER: b 21. According to Erikson, _____ identity is an arena of identity formation. a. physical b. political c. familial d. economic ANSWER: b 22. _____ adolescents totally reject the religions in which they've grown up. a. Few b. About half of all c. About three-fourths of all d. Almost all ANSWER: a 23. Adolescents may express their _____ identities devoutly. a. sexual Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 b. achievement c. religious d. vocational ANSWER: c 24. According to researchers, which individual will probably be the MOST liberal? a. Carla, who just turned 10 b. Liliana, who just turned 19 c. Marla, the mother of a teenager d. Barrette, the father of a teenager ANSWER: b 25. Related to political identity is: a. foreclosure. b. vocational identity. c. diffusion. d. ethnic identity.

ANSWER: d 26. Early _____ identity is no longer appropriate, as it was a century ago. a. gender b. political c. vocational d. sexual ANSWER: c 27. Erikson's term for the attainment of identity, when people know who they are as unique individuals, combining past experiences and future plans, is referred to as: a. role confusion. b. identity achievement. c. identity foreclosure. d. moratorium.

ANSWER: b 28. Gender refers to: a. the cultural or social attributes of being male or female. b. the biological characteristics of being male or female. c. the categories that boys and girls are sorted into at birth. d. one's sexual orientation.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 29. People's acceptance of the roles and behaviors that they define as male or female is referred to as their "_____ identity." a. gender b. ethnic c. heterosexual d. foreclosed ANSWER: a 30. Fernando believes that males should always be the ones to ask females out on dates. He thinks that if a man accepts an invitation for a date from a girl, it makes him a wimp. This is an example of Fernando's: a. sex. b. gender identity. c. sexual orientation. d. gender.

ANSWER: b 31. Which statement is an example of a gender role? a. A man should be the primary wage earner. b. A baby is born with reproductive organs for both sexes. c. A biological male decides to undergo an operation to become a woman. d. A woman should try dating men and women.

ANSWER: a 32. The DSM-IV labeled individuals who had a strong and persistent cross-gender identification as having "gender dysphoria." The DSM-5 instead describes people who are distressed at their biological genders as having "_____." a. gender atypicality b. sexual fetishism c. sexual atypicality d. gender dysphoria ANSWER: d 33. American adults are most likely to identify as _____ when it comes to their political affiliation. a. Republican b. Democrat c. Federalists d. Nonpartisan ANSWER: d 34. In the United States, parent–child conflict is MOST common during: a. late childhood. b. early adolescence.

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Chapter 10 c. late adolescence. d. emerging adulthood.

ANSWER: b 35. The belief that there are only two genders is referred to as: a. gender binary. b. transgender. c. gender identity. d. cisgender.

ANSWER: a 36. Marissa's assigned gender at birth was female. Now that they have gotten older, Marissa identifies as a female. Marissa would be considered: a. gay. b. transgender. c. pansexual. d. cisgender.

ANSWER: d 37. The concept of _____ takes into consideration how various identities combine and conflict within the individual as well as society. a. dysphoria b. prejudice c. perception d. intersectionality ANSWER: d 38. Juan is a religious conservative and identifies as gender nonbinary. They feel troubled at times because their two identities conflict with each other. This is referred to as: a. dysphoria. b. prejudice. c. perception. d. intersectionality.

ANSWER: d 39. _____ refers to the belief that family members should support one another, sacrificing individual freedom and success to care for one another. a. Familism b. Authoritarianism c. Extended-family cohesion d. Ethnic connectedness Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 ANSWER: a 40. Two aspects of family closeness during adolescence include: a. communication and autonomy. b. support and connectedness. c. connectedness and authority. d. openness and control.

ANSWER: b 41. A father says to his son, "I want you home by 10:00 P.M." This BEST represents which aspect of family closeness? a. control b. support c. communication d. connectedness ANSWER: a 42. Parents' awareness of where their adolescents are, what they are doing, and with whom they are doing it is referred to as "_____." a. parental monitoring b. generational stake c. psychological control d. connectedness ANSWER: a 43. Brenda is aware of where her son is whenever he goes out, and she requires him to call if there is any change in plans. This is an example of: a. generational stake. b. foreclosure for her son. c. parental monitoring. d. negative control.

ANSWER: c 44. Parental monitoring is MOST likely to be effective and healthy when it is: a. rigid and controlling. b. part of a warm, supportive relationship. c. relaxed and permissive. d. part of authoritarian parenting.

ANSWER: b 45. Healthy communication and support from parents make _____ peer relationships more likely. a. constructive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 b. destructive c. another-sex d. romantic ANSWER: a 46. The urge to conform to one's peers in behavior, dress, and attitude is referred to as: a. conformation. b. adolescent burden. c. generation gap. d. peer pressure.

ANSWER: d 47. Kayla called her friend Sue on Saturday to see whether Sue wanted to go to the movies. Sue told Kayla she was staying home to study for their upcoming history test. After the call, Kayla decided to study instead of go to the movies. Kayla was experiencing: a. conformation. b. adolescent burden. c. generation gap. d. peer pressure.

ANSWER: d 48. _____ and _____ are especially important for understanding the impact of peers. a. Selection; facilitation b. Age; maturity c. Vocational identity; political identity d. Moratorium; diffusion ANSWER: a 49. When others strongly encourage someone to join in their activity, usually when the pressure is being included or excluded in a group, and the activity is not approved by authorities, _____ has occurred. a. peer pressure b. selection c. facilitation d. coercive joining ANSWER: d 50. At age 16, Saerah aspired to become a serious musician. Their group of friends began to change as they grew closer to students with deep musical interests, and they drifted away from other friends who were more engaged in sports. This illustrates peer: a. exclusion. b. facilitation. c. selection.

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Chapter 10 d. focus.

ANSWER: c 51. Several of Jake's friends agree to gather Thursday evening and study for their physics exam, and they invite Jake to come along. Jake's friends are: a. selecting destructive behaviors. b. facilitating constructive behaviors. c. providing deviancy training. d. being monitored by parents.

ANSWER: b 52. Mr. and Mrs. Thomas have discovered that their child has been skipping classes and cutting school with a group of classmates. Which conclusion is MOST likely true? a. The group has led their innocent child astray. b. The behavior is nothing to worry about. c. Their child is more rebellious than the group as a whole. d. Their child chose this group because they share their interests.

ANSWER: d 53. Many adolescent romances: a. are stable and long-term. b. do not include sexual intercourse. c. are exclusive commitments between partners. d. do not generate strong emotional reactions.

ANSWER: b 54. The term that describes one's having erotic desires about the same sex, the other sex, or both sexes is: a. sexual identity. b. sexual orientation. c. sexuality. d. gender identity.

ANSWER: b 55. When referencing sexual activity, popular media commonly: a. mention the possibility of developing a sexually transmitted infection (STI). b. discuss the consequences of an unwanted pregnancy. c. show the use of a condom or birth control. d. depict casual sex as alluring and exciting.

ANSWER: d 56. Research indicates that the sexually active teens MOST likely to have STIs attend schools that: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 a. tell students too many details about sex. b. provide condoms and other contraception options. c. limit students' exposure to the media. d. warn students to stay away from sex.

ANSWER: d 57. One reason that the teenage pregnancy rate in most European nations is less than half of that in the United States may be because: a. European schools have an extensive sex-education curriculum. b. European adolescents live at home longer. c. American parents are too permissive with their adolescents. d. European teens reach puberty later.

ANSWER: a 58. Effective sex education must engage _____ more than _____. a. morality; logic b. emotions; logic c. logic; emotions d. logic; morality ANSWER: b 59. Parent–child communication and encouragement has been shown to reduce all of these EXCEPT teenage: a. depression. b. low self-esteem. c. aspirations. d. suicide.

ANSWER: c 60. Research has demonstrated that _____ at age 12 predicts antisocial violence at age 21. a. peer pressure b. selection c. facilitation d. coercive joining ANSWER: d 61. John has asked Abby to send him explicit sexual pictures of herself via her cell phone. This inappropriate and illegal request is known as: a. sexting. b. texting. c. instant messaging. d. e-mailing.

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Chapter 10 ANSWER: a 62. Sending an explicit sexual message or picture via cell phone is called: a. sexting. b. texting. c. instant messaging. d. e-mailing.

ANSWER: a 63. Sexting among teens has been found to increase all of these EXCEPT: a. sexual experiences. b. oral sex. c. sex without a condom. d. anal sex.

ANSWER: d 64. Adolescents today are called _____ because they have been networking, texting, and clicking for definitions, directions, and data their entire lives. a. digital natives b. Millennials c. generation X d. adolescence-limited offenders ANSWER: a 65. When people try to harm others via social media, it is referred to as: a. cyberbullying. b. sexting. c. peer pressure. d. coercive joining.

ANSWER: a 66. Deedra has used social media to spread nasty rumors about another classmate. This is an example of: a. cyberbullying. b. sexting. c. peer pressure. d. coercive joining.

ANSWER: a 67. Sam is secretly a homosexual and dates a woman named Cassandra to hide his sexual orientation. This puts him at an increased risk for all of these EXCEPT: a. binge drinking.

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Chapter 10 b. drug use. c. suicidal thoughts. d. developing bisexuality.

ANSWER: d 68. Among U.S. high school students in 2019, _____ percent of girls and _____ percent of boys attempted suicide in the previous year. a. 5 ; 10 b. 9; 5 c. 11; 7 d. 15; 10 ANSWER: c 69. Suicide rates for LGBTQ+ youth is _____ compared to other young. a. inconsistent b. twice as high c. seven times higher d. three times lower ANSWER: c 70. Which of these is NOT an immediate social context that may influence depression rates among youth in the United States? a. school b. family c. community d. ethnic group ANSWER: d 71. Jeanette was born in the United States to Latino immigrant parents. Which condition is Jeanette NOT likely to experience if they fear the deportation of their parents? a. increased self-esteem b. symptoms of depression c. sleep disturbance d. lower school achievement ANSWER: a 72. About _____ percent of European American males are arrested at least once before the age of 18. a. 15 b. 22 c. 30 d. 45 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 ANSWER: b 73. Which adolescent characteristic does NOT increase the likelihood of being arrested during the teen years? a. being in an ethnic minority group b. coming from a low-SES family c. being male d. having parents with professional careers ANSWER: d 74. About _____ percent of confessions in the United States are false. a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 30 ANSWER: c 75. Brandon has confessed to a crime that he did not actually commit. Which factor BEST explains this false confession? a. defense of friends b. brain immaturity c. protection of family members d. desire to please adults ANSWER: b 76. Which of these is NOT a possible explanation for the reduction in adolescent arrests in 2018 compared to 2000? a. fewer immigrants b. fewer high school dropouts c. smaller families d. less drug use ANSWER: a 77. What BEST explains the difference in arrest rates between those age 15 to 17 years and those over the age of 18? a. increased poverty among adolescents compared to adults b. irresponsible parenting c. substance use and addiction d. differences in brain activity and development ANSWER: d 78. In general, as children experience puberty, their self-esteem: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 a. rises. b. declines. c. rises and then declines. d. remains stable.

ANSWER: b 79. The cultural norm of familism often: a. demands that individual family members take care of themselves at a very early age. b. fails to provide family members with a cushion during stressful life experiences. c. requires family members to make sacrifices for the good of the whole. d. undermines familial solidarity.

ANSWER: c 80. Suicidal ideation refers to: a. a deliberate act of self-destruction that does not end in death. b. thinking about suicide. c. the belief that suicide is an effective way of getting back at one's parents or peers. d. feelings of sadness or hopelessness.

ANSWER: b 81. Suicidal ideation is MOST common around age: a. 9. b. 12. c. 15. d. 18.

ANSWER: c 82. Malissa finds that she often thinks about killing their self. This is called: a. parasuicide. b. self-destructive behavior. c. deliberate suicide. d. suicidal ideation.

ANSWER: d 83. Parasuicide refers to: a. a suicide attempt that does not end in death. b. helping someone else commit suicide. c. several people in a group committing suicide. d. the serious consideration of suicide.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 84. Margo took an overdose of prescription pills, but before they lost consciousness, they called their dad for help. Margo was rushed to the hospital for medical attention. Margo's behavior is defined as: a. parasuicide. b. self-destructive. c. deliberate suicide. d. suicidal ideation.

ANSWER: a 85. Several suicides within the same group of people in a brief period are called "_____ suicides." a. cult b. pact c. planned d. cluster ANSWER: d 86. With respect to suicide, what is MORE common in adolescent boys than in adolescent girls? a. serious consideration of suicide b. parasuicide c. completed suicide d. cluster suicide ANSWER: c 87. According to the text, which is NOT a possible reason for the decrease in juvenile criminal behavior? a. fewer school dropouts b. lenient drug laws c. smaller families d. less lead poisoning ANSWER: b 88. Life-course-persistent offenders: a. may show signs of neurological impairment. b. have after-school jobs they dislike. c. tend to be involved in school activities. d. are unlikely to end up in prison.

ANSWER: a 89. Wayne started to behave aggressively at age 5 and by age 8 was caught shoplifting several times. Wayne is now age 25 and has committed armed robbery. Wayne would be considered a(n) _____ offender. a. hostile b. dual c. life-course-persistent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 d. adolescence-limited ANSWER: c 90. Adolescence-limited offender refers to someone who: a. attacks only other adolescents. b. stops committing crimes by age 21. c. is never arrested. d. is arrested for the first time at the age of 25.

ANSWER: b 91. An individual who commits crimes during adolescence but stops by the age of 21 is considered a(n): a. repeat offender. b. career criminal. c. life-course-persistent offender. d. adolescence-limited offender.

ANSWER: d 92. Drug use before the age of 15: a. is rare because it is illegal. b. is statistically lower than drug use at age 12. c. is the best predictor of later drug abuse. d. usually only involves experimentation with alcohol.

ANSWER: c 93. Inhalants, which are used more by younger adolescents to get high, include: a. marijuana. b. cocaine. c. tobacco. d. aerosols.

ANSWER: d 94. The two MOST common drugs used by adolescents are: a. inhalants and alcohol. b. tobacco and alcohol. c. marijuana and alcohol. d. prescription drugs and tobacco.

ANSWER: c 95. Heavy drinking impairs memory and self-control by: a. damaging the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex. b. damaging the heart and lungs.

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Chapter 10 c. increasing blood pressure. d. causing strokes in the brain.

ANSWER: a 96. When applied to the discussion of drug abuse, the term generational forgetting means that: a. adults turn a blind eye to youthful experimentation. b. youth seek to get high and forget their ages. c. adolescents gather with others of their cohort to experiment with drugs. d. the new generation ignores what adults have learned about the hazards of drugs.

ANSWER: d 97. Which factor has NOT contributed to a decline in the number of young adolescent smokers in the United States? a. higher cigarette prices b. the legal smoking age c. warnings printed on tobacco products d. better law enforcement of tobacco sales ANSWER: b 98. Research has found that teens who smoke marijuana regularly are more likely to do all of these EXCEPT: a. drop out of school. b. become teenage parents. c. experience depression. d. be employed in the future.

ANSWER: d 99. James Marcia identifies three specific ways in which young people cope with the identity crisis before they reach identity achievement. Name and describe all three.

ANSWER: Role confusion (also called identity diffusion) is a state in which the young person does not know or seem to care what their identity is. Identity foreclosure is a state in which a young person accepts without question the values of the culture around them; this is comfortable but often temporary.

Moratorium is a "time-out" that includes opportunity for exploration without committing to a particular path. For many young people, college provides moratorium.

100. Define and give an example of gender identity and of gender role.

ANSWER: Gender identity is a relatively broad term that indicates a person's acceptance of being a male or a female. During adolescence, many teens identify with their biological genders and come to feel at ease with being male or female. However, some experience confusion about whether they are heterosexual, homosexual, or bisexual. A transgender individual struggles to identify with their biological gender, feeling trapped in the "wrong" body.

Gender role refers to specific patterns of behavior that apply to males and females. Gender roles once meant that only men were employed; they were providers, and women were housewives and Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 mothers. Today, many women are employed, but—especially in sports—many traditional gender roles are still followed: For example, boys don't participate in ballet, and girls don't play football.

101. Describe the type of conflict that is most common between parents and adolescents and when it peaks and dissipates. Discuss what this type of conflict might indicate about the family.

ANSWER: Disputes are common because of adolescents' drive for independence, which clashes with parents' desire to maintain control. Normally, conflict peaks in early adolescence, especially between mothers and daughters, usually in the form of "bickering"—repeated, petty arguments about routines and daily concerns, such as cleanliness, clothes, chores, and schedules. Each generation tends to misjudge the other. Parents think their offspring resent them, and adolescents imagine their parents want to dominate them, more than either generation actually does. Some bickering indicates a healthy family, because close relationships almost always include conflict. If communication is good, conflict is not necessarily problematic.

102. Your new roommate claims that they "fell in with the wrong crowd" in adolescence and, as a result, engaged in many delinquent activities they wouldn't have otherwise. Evaluate this claim based on what you learned about selecting friends in adolescence.

ANSWER: Peers are often beneficial, but they can also lead one another into trouble. For example, peers sometimes provide deviancy training, whereby one person shows another how to rebel against social norms; gangs are a perfect example of deviancy training. Peer facilitation helps adolescents act in ways in which they are unlikely to act on their own. Peer facilitation includes negative behaviors (such as spray-painting graffiti or shoplifting) and positive behaviors (such as trying out for a team or studying).

Innocent teens are not corrupted by deviant friends. Adolescents choose their friends and models— not always wisely, but never randomly. Teenagers select friends whose values and interests they share, abandoning former friends who follow other paths. These friends then promote destructive or constructive behaviors.

103. Identify three of the four sources for information about sex during adolescence, and describe the kind of information each source provides.

ANSWER: Adolescents can learn about sex from (1) the media, (2) parents, (3) peers, and (4) educators. The media tend to portray many sexual encounters as being free from potential consequences and do not provide much real information.

Parents, on the other hand, do play a major role in educating about sexuality, although the kind of information provided and its impact vary by family. Adolescents whose parents give information followed by stern warnings to simply avoid sex tend to be the most likely to contract STIs. Most effective are parents who maintain loving relationships that encourage open communication.

Sexual behavior is strongly influenced by peers, especially when parental communication about sex is absent or incomplete. Peers tend to discuss details of sexual encounters, and partners may give each other instructions on techniques, but rarely is protection from pregnancy or disease a topic of conversation among peers.

School curriculum provides some information, although the information presented varies by place and according to the culture and politics of a given community. Studies of European nations that have comprehensive sex-education curricula suggest that teen pregnancy and disease may be Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 10 influenced by the presence of such information in schools.

104. Define suicidal ideation and parasuicide. How do the rates of suicidal ideation, parasuicide, and completed suicide compare for adolescent males and females in the United States?

ANSWER: Suicidal ideation refers to serious thoughts about killing oneself and peaks at around age 15.

Parasuicide is an attempted suicide (also called failed suicide) but can include any deliberate selfharm that could have been lethal, such as jumping in front of a moving vehicle. The difference between parasuicide and completed suicide may be luck and prompt treatment rather than intent.

Although the rates of suicidal ideation and parasuicide are higher for females, the rate of completed suicide is higher for males. Among U.S. high school students in 2015, 11.6 percent of girls and 5.5 percent of boys had attempted suicide in the previous year. Although suicidal ideation during adolescence is common, completed suicides are not. The U.S. annual rate of completed suicide for people ages 15 to 19 (in school or not) is less than 8 per 100,000, or 0.008 percent, which is only half the rate for adults ages 20 and older.

105. Discuss at least two problems caused by alcohol, two problems caused by tobacco, and two problems caused by marijuana use in adolescents.

ANSWER: Drug use causes many problems for adolescents, often leading to anxiety disorders, depression, rebellion, academic failure, and crime. Alcohol (1) impairs memory and (2) self-control by (3) damaging the hippocampus and prefrontal cortex, (4) perhaps permanently distorting the reward circuits for the brain. Tobacco (1) impairs digestion and (2) nutrition, (3) slowing growth and damaging the developing (4) hearts, (5) lungs, and possibly (6) brains and (7) reproductive systems of adolescents. Marijuana affects (1) brain connections and (2) intelligence.

106. Explain Erikson's fifth psychosocial stage of development.

ANSWER: Psychosocial development during adolescence is often understood as a search for selfunderstanding. Each young person wants to know, "Who am I?" According to Erik Erikson, life's fifth psychosocial crisis is identity versus role confusion: Working through the complexities of finding oneself is the primary task of adolescence. Erikson believed that this crisis is resolved with identity achievement, when adolescents have reconsidered the goals and values of their parents and culture, accepting some and discarding others, to forge their own identity.

107. Explain the concept of intersectionality and provide an example.

ANSWER: An added complexity is that each identity overlaps with every other, not just in individuals, but in society. Various identities combine and conflict, as evident in the concept of intersectionality.

Someone who identifies as a religious conservative may be troubled if they also identify as gender nonbinary; someone who identifies as Black may be troubled by assumptions about their politics.

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Chapter 11 1. A person between the ages of 18 and 25 is considered to be in the developmental stage of: a. adulthood. b. emerging adulthood. c. postadolescence. d. middle adulthood.

ANSWER: b 2. Juan is a 21-year-old American college student. According to the text, Juan is in the developmental period of: a. late adolescence. b. emerging adulthood. c. early adulthood. d. young adulthood.

ANSWER: b 3. Ora is a first-year college student. After earning a bachelor's degree, they plan to continue to graduate school.

In addition, Ora is not seriously dating anyone and thinks marriage and parenthood are years away. Ora is at which developmental stage? a. late adolescence b. emerging adulthood c. extended adolescence d. middle adulthood ANSWER: b 4. Maximum strength potential typically peaks at about age: a. 15. b. 25. c. 35. d. 45.

ANSWER: b 5. Which task would be easier for a 21-year-old than for a 51-year-old? a. writing a letter by hand b. carrying a bag of groceries from the store to the car c. watching two hours of television d. walking up four flights of stairs ANSWER: d 6. A study of biological aging found that some people age _____ times faster than others, with about half of the difference between fast and slow aging evident by age 26. a. three b. five Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 c. seven d. ten ANSWER: a 7. During emerging adulthood, all body systems: a. begin to develop. b. function optimally. c. cease developing. d. age rapidly.

ANSWER: b 8. Generally, emerging adulthood is characterized by _____ health. a. good to excellent b. failing c. slowly improving d. fair to poor ANSWER: a 9. Which statement is NOT true about emerging adulthood? a. It is a time between full body growth and full adult roles. b. Many of today's college students fall within the period of emerging adulthood. c. Universal trends, including longer educational tracks and later first-time parenthood, have "created" this stage. d. All individuals between the ages of 18 and 30 are now considered to be in this stage.

ANSWER: d 10. Conclusions based on U.S. college students may apply only to those who are WEIRD, which refers to: a. the idea that they are chronic risk-takers with little responsibility. b. "Western, Educated, Industrialized, and Rich Democracies." c. "Witty, Educated, Intelligent, Risk-Taking, and Daring." d. their deviation from the social norms of their parents' generations.

ANSWER: b 11. The average age of marriage in the United States is _____ for women and _____ for men. a. 25; 27 b. 27; 29 c. 28; 30 d. 30; 28 ANSWER: c 12. The three body functions that protect emerging adults are: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 a. lymph tissue, strong muscles, and a developing brain. b. organ reserve, homeostasis, and allostasis. c. metabolism, neurotransmitter production, and lymph tissue. d. the circulatory system, the metabolic system, and the neurological system.

ANSWER: b 13. The capacity of structures to allow the body to cope with stress via extra, unused functioning ability is referred to as: a. senescence. b. homeostasis. c. organ reserve. d. diathesis.

ANSWER: c 14. Organ reserve power decreases each _____, but it usually does not matter, because people rarely need to draw on it. a. day b. month c. year d. decade ANSWER: c 15. Homeostasis is quickest in: a. middle childhood. b. adolescence. c. early adulthood. d. middle adulthood.

ANSWER: c 16. Due to unemployment and divorce, 27-year-old Mark has been under an enormous amount of stress, yet they still feel good physically. The fact that Mark’s body can continue to function well under this stress is likely due to: a. organ reserve. b. homeostasis. c. senescence. d. diathesis.

ANSWER: a 17. A dynamic longer-term body adjustment that affects overall physiology is referred to as: a. organ reserve. b. homeostasis.

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Chapter 11 c. senescence. d. allostasis.

ANSWER: d 18. Carla has been skipping meals for months. One night they go out with friends and eat a full meal. Within hours, Carla is vomiting and has diarrhea. Their symptoms are likely the result of a(n) _____ adjustment. a. organ reserve b. homeostatic c. senescence d. allostatic ANSWER: d 19. _____ refers to the stresses of basic body systems that burden overall functioning, eventually causing hypertension, obesity, and diabetes. a. Reserve b. Homeostasis c. Organ reserve d. Allostatic load ANSWER: d 20. Jailyn, age 25, started an extreme diet last month. They have already lost 20 pounds, and due to restricting their food intake, Jailyn rarely feels hungry. Jailyn’s eating behavior has triggered new _____, allowing them to function with fewer daily calories. a. homeostatic reactions b. metabolic syndrome c. organ reserves d. caloric reactions ANSWER: a 21. Faster heartbeats and heavier breathing, which accompany exercise, are: a. homeostatic responses. b. metabolic indicators. c. organ reserves. d. allostatic loads.

ANSWER: a 22. The CARDIA (Coronary Artery Risk Development in Adulthood) study began with more than 4,000 healthy 18- to 30-year-olds; most were reexamined 7 to 20 years later. The study found that: a. those who were the most fit at the first assessment were four times more likely to have diabetes and high blood pressure in middle age. b. those who were the least fit at the first assessment were four times more likely to have diabetes and high blood pressure in middle age.

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Chapter 11 c. those who were the least and most fit at the first assessment were four times more likely to have diabetes and high blood pressure in middle age. d. there was no relation between fitness level at the first assessment and later health conditions.

ANSWER: b 23. Which statement is NOT true about the sexual-reproductive system of emerging adults? a. Miscarriage is less common. b. Conception is quicker. c. Orgasms are more frequent. d. Serious birth complications are usual.

ANSWER: d 24. Historically, peak newborn survival occurred when mothers were _____ years old at the time of birth. a. 15 to 22 b. 18 to 25 c. 25 to 32 d. 30 to 37 ANSWER: b 25. Many emerging adults want to engage in sexual activity but know that they are not emotionally ready to be parents. Their solution is: a. abstinence. b. monogamy. c. contraception. d. early marriage.

ANSWER: c 26. In the United States and worldwide, women above age 30 are having _____ children than they did in earlier decades, and emerging adults are having _____ children than they did then. a. more; fewer b. fewer; fewer c. fewer; more d. more; more ANSWER: a 27. _____ emerging adults believe that premarital sex is acceptable. a. Almost all b. About one-third of c. Less than half of d. Few ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 28. Erin is currently a 21-year-old college student. Like most of their peers, Erin believes that premarital sex is: a. okay if you plan to get married. b. wrong. c. acceptable. d. very risky.

ANSWER: c 29. Which of these can help explain why those over the age of 75 were more likely to die of COVID-19 compared to younger adults? a. They were not able to maintain homeostasis. b. Their organ reserve had been depleted. c. They experienced allostasis. d. They had a major neurocognitive disorder.

ANSWER: b 30. Largely due to the sexual activities of young adults, _____ has become a worldwide epidemic. a. premarital sex b. HIV c. teenage pregnancy d. contraception ANSWER: b 31. Which individual is MOST likely to be an STI vector? a. Mark, age 15 b. James, age 23 c. Dean, age 39 d. Ross, age 55 ANSWER: b 32. Francis works as an emergency room nurse. They are likely to notice: a. an absence of emerging adults in the emergency room. b. emerging adults who do not respond to typical doses of medications. c. emerging adults with a variety of injuries. d. emerging adults suffering from heart disease, cancer, and stroke.

ANSWER: c 33. Nate spends his weekends engaged in freestyle motocross. Nate is participating in a(n) _____ sport. a. spiritual b. extreme c. illegal d. college Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 ANSWER: b 34. Risk-taking during emerging adulthood _____ society. a. is beneficial to b. is harmful to c. rarely has an effect on d. may benefit or harm ANSWER: d 35. Which of these is not a health benefit of regular exercise? a. reduced blood pressure b. reduced depression c. reduced risk for major neurocognitive disorder d. reduced heart and lung functioning ANSWER: d 36. Because adult cognition combines logic and experience, it is considered: a. formal operational thought. b. allostasis. c. objective. d. integrative thinking.

ANSWER: d 37. _____ is to abstract and impersonal logic where _____ is to personal experiences and emotion. a. Objective thought; subjective thought b. Subjective thought; objective thought c. Formal operational thought; postformal operational thought d. Postformal operational thought; formal operational thought ANSWER: a 38. Karla believes that college should be available for everyone. This is known as: a. allostasis. b. massification. c. socialism. d. the Matthew effect.

ANSWER: b 39. In the United States, the average age at first marriage was _____ for women and _____ for men. a. 24; 22 b. 26; 24 c. 28; 30 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 d. 29; 27 ANSWER: c 40. Denise is 25 years old and lives in the United States. Statistically, Denise is MOST likely to be: a. married. b. never married. c. married and then separated. d. married and then widowed.

ANSWER: b 41. _____ coined the term emerging adulthood. a. Jeffrey Arnett b. Erik Erikson c. Jean Piaget d. Lev Vygotsky ANSWER: a 42. When drug use is harmful, it is called: a. addiction. b. drug abuse. c. substance use. d. experimentation.

ANSWER: b 43. When compared with earlier cognition, thinking in adulthood is all these EXCEPT more: a. practical. b. concrete. c. flexible. d. dialectical.

ANSWER: b 44. A possible fifth stage of cognitive development that characterizes adult thinking is "_____ thought." a. preformal b. semiformal c. informal d. postformal ANSWER: d 45. As Dwayne looks over their course syllabi for the term they realize that, in three weeks, they have three assignments due on one day. Dwayne decides they will do one assignment per week for the next three weeks so that they will have them all done by their due dates. Dwayne is demonstrating _____ thinking.

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Chapter 11 a. preoperational b. concrete operational c. formal operational d. postformal ANSWER: d 46. After Soomin graduated from college and began working in their chosen field, their thinking became: a. more exciting. b. more practical. c. more playful. d. less routine.

ANSWER: b 47. The notion that the rich get richer but the poor stay poor is known as: a. allostasis. b. massification. c. socialism. d. the Matthew effect.

ANSWER: d 48. In a longitudinal study of 18-year-old students at the beginning and end of their first year in college, researchers found increases in the brain areas that integrate _____ and _____. a. intelligence; conscientiousness b. reasoning; reality c. emotion; cognition d. intelligence; problem solving ANSWER: c 49. Which of these is NOT a concern regarding the use of drugs, such as Adderall and Ritalin, among today’s college students? a. Their use is related to the abuse of other drugs, such as cocaine. b. The long-term health consequences are unknown. c. These drugs distort judgment. d. The drugs are available to everyone.

ANSWER: d 50. Francesca started their first year of college right before COVID-19 forced their classes to move to remote learning. Which of these was a likely result of this new remote learning for Francesca? a. increased academic performance b. increased risk of cheating Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 c. reduced risk of drop out d. reduced motivation and engagement ANSWER: d 51. Which of these is NOT a moratorium in identity development? a. taking a gap year before college b. attending college with a career goal c. taking a temporary job d. traveling around the world ANSWER: b 52. Larkin prefers data analysis, finance, planning, and organizational tasks. They also value efficiency and order. Based on Holland’s view, which personality pattern does Larkin demonstrate? a. conventional b. investigative c. artistic d. social ANSWER: a 53. Indigo enjoys drawing and painting and has a lead role in an upcoming play. Based on Holland’s view, which personality pattern does Indigo demonstrate? a. conventional b. investigative c. artistic d. social ANSWER: c 54. According to Robert Sternberg, passion, intimacy, and commitment can combine in various ways to produce _____ different types of love. a. three b. five c. seven d. ten ANSWER: c 55. When a person experiences too many options available in mate selection, they are experiencing: a. choice overload b. massification c. the Matthew effect d. allostasis ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 56. Din and Harshad are upset because they do not have enough money this month to pay the rent. They are both arguing, yelling, and Din has not left the home. This is an example of: a. intimate terrorism. b. linked lives. c. revenge porn. d. situational couple violence.

ANSWER: d 57. _____ is a violent and demeaning form of abuse in a romantic relationship, in which the victim (usually female) is frightened to fight back, seek help, or withdraw. a. Intimate terrorism b. Linked lives c. Revenge porn d. Situational couple violence ANSWER: a 58. During emerging adulthood, people can use both emotion and logic when grappling with personal and social problems; such thinking demonstrates _____ thought. a. postformal b. informal c. preformal d. nonformal ANSWER: a 59. Compared to individuals without a college education, those with a college education tend to be: a. healthier and wealthier. b. more intelligent. c. married. d. more likely to smoke.

ANSWER: a 60. If Tinnuli is like a typical U.S. college student today, they would indicate that they are in college primarily for all these reasons EXCEPT to: a. get a better job. b. gain a general education. c. be well off financially. d. make more money.

ANSWER: b 61. William Perry found that over the four years of their college careers, students typically: a. move from a relativistic to a dualistic approach.

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Chapter 11 b. change their viewpoints very little. c. stick to their own views when faced with conflicts. d. move through nine levels of complexity in their thinking.

ANSWER: d 62. Jared is a high school senior who has wanted to attend college since elementary school. According to recent research, what will MOST significantly influence whether Jared will attend college and, if they do, whether they graduate? a. family income b. grades and SAT scores c. letters of recommendation and volunteer work d. a special talent, such as athletics, music, or art ANSWER: a 63. Which student is MOST likely to leave college without a degree? a. Francis, whose family income is less than $30,000 a year and who attends a for-profit University b. Baxter, whose family income is $100,000 a year, and who attends a college with 1,000 students c. Kayla, who works part-time and attends a college with 800 students d. Cy, whose family income is $60,000 year, who goes to school full-time, and who attends a college with 2,000 students ANSWER: a 64. If Erika has declared the most popular major in college in the United States, they are studying: a. computer science. b. English. c. business. d. psychology.

ANSWER: c 65. Which statement is TRUE? a. The increased diversity of the college atmosphere encourages cognitive development. b. A college education had more positive effects on cognitive development in the past than it does today. c. Because many students drop out of college, estimating the effect of college education on cognitive development is complicated. d. Diversity has decreased the long-term effects of a college education.

ANSWER: a 66. David is 21 years old and is not sure what kind of work they would like to do after college. Like many Americans his age, David has not yet developed a(n) _____ identity. a. true b. political Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 c. educational d. vocational ANSWER: d 67. Which type of identity may take longer to achieve during emerging adulthood? a. gender identity b. sexual identity c. vocational identity d. religious identity ANSWER: c 68. Between the ages of 18 and 25, the average adult in the United States: a. buys a first house. b. has held seven jobs. c. has had two or three children. d. has a 20 percent chance of divorce.

ANSWER: b 69. Nate is 23 years old and works in an entry-level sales position at a local company. If Nate is a typical American adult, in the next few years, they will: a. change jobs, perhaps several times. b. stay with his current company for decades. c. think about changing jobs but never actually do it. d. remain in his entry-level position long-term.

ANSWER: a 70. Personality traits present at age 18 _____ by age 25. a. sometimes disappear b. rarely disappear c. usually disappear d. always disappear ANSWER: b 71. According to Erik Erikson, once an emerging adult has established a sense of identity, they need to resolve which crisis? a. trust versus mistrust b. generativity versus stagnation c. identity versus role confusion d. intimacy versus isolation ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 72. Erik Erikson's sixth stage of development involves a continuum between: a. integrity and despair. b. initiative and guilt. c. intimacy and isolation. d. industry and inferiority.

ANSWER: c 73. Now that they are in their twenties, Juan wants to find someone to have a romantic relationship with. Erik Erikson would say that Juan is in the stage of: a. trust versus mistrust. b. generativity versus stagnation. c. identity versus role confusion. d. intimacy versus isolation.

ANSWER: d 74. All members of a family have _____, as the experiences and needs of individuals at one stage of life are affected by all those at other stages. a. linked lives b. family discord c. generation gap d. social convoy ANSWER: a 75. According to Erik Erikson, the stage of "intimacy versus isolation": a. is followed by the search for identity. b. is characterized by a need for generativity. c. reflects the desire to share one's life with someone else. d. occurs only if one avoids stagnation.

ANSWER: c 76. Intimacy is the desire for: a. social connection. b. generativity. c. sexual intercourse. d. self-esteem.

ANSWER: a 77. Oliva was a sophomore thriving in college when their father was laid off from their job. Even with financial aid, the family could no longer afford to send Oliva to college, so they left to get a full-time job at a restaurant near the family home. This situation illustrates the _____ of families. a. linked lives b. family discord Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 c. generation gap d. social convoy ANSWER: a 78. Jwa, age 23, believes that same-sex marriage should be legal. Given what is known about emerging adults and their parents, it is likely that Jwa and his parents _____ about that issue. a. have different attitudes b. have similar attitudes c. argue and yell d. avoid conversations ANSWER: b 79. Friends _____ mental health and _____ physical health. a. strengthen; weaken b. weaken; strengthen c. strengthen; strengthen d. weaken; weaken ANSWER: c 80. Friendships reach their peak of functional significance during: a. adolescence. b. emerging adulthood. c. middle adulthood. d. late adulthood.

ANSWER: b 81. An emerging adult is MOST likely to spend time with a _____ on a Friday night. a. spouse b. parent c. child d. friend ANSWER: d 82. Emerging adult Erum is a heavy social media user. This may _____ face-to-face friendships. a. strengthen b. hinder c. replace d. harm ANSWER: a 83. For most emerging adults, what is considered the primary prerequisite for marriage?

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Chapter 11 a. love b. commitment c. passion d. earning potential ANSWER: a 84. What is rated as MOST important for a successful marriage by emerging adults? a. love b. faithfulness c. money d. ethnic or religious similarity ANSWER: b 85. An arrangement in which a couple lives together in a committed romantic relationship but is not formally married is referred to as: a. a hookup. b. infatuation. c. romance. d. cohabitation.

ANSWER: d 86. Karen and Raul live together as a romantic couple, but they are not married. Their living arrangement is called: a. a dual relationship. b. a hookup. c. romance. d. cohabitation.

ANSWER: d 87. Miranda just celebrated their 21st birthday, and is concerned that "it is all downhill from here." Explain to Miranda why this statement is incorrect by stating at least five positive facts about aging.

ANSWER: Positive facts include that (1) physical strength increases; (2) every body system—including the digestive, respiratory, circulatory, and sexual-reproductive systems—functions optimally at the beginning of adulthood; (3) emerging adults are less likely to be sick, fatigued, or obese than older adults; (4) many childhood ailments, such as asthma, are outgrown; (5) organ reserve is at its peak; (6) young adults rarely experience serious diseases, such as cancer, because organ reserve, homeostasis, and allostasis all work in harmony; and (7) emerging adults are more capable than people of any other age of racing up a flight of stairs, lifting a heavy load, or gripping an object with maximum force.

88. Define homeostasis and indicate two factors that contribute to it.

ANSWER: Homeostasis is a balance between various parts of the body systems that keeps every physical function in sync. Homeostasis works most quickly and efficiently during emerging adulthood. Each Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 11 person's homeostatic systems are affected by (1) age; (2) current behaviors, such as getting enough sleep and good nutrition; and (3) past experiences (e.g., reaction to weather depends partly on childhood climate).

89. Neveah is a counselor at the university health services. They are planning a presentation on drug abuse among college-age students and needs your assistance to prepare. Define drug abuse and explain factors that increase drug abuse among college students.

ANSWER: Drug abuse occurs whenever a drug (legal or illegal, prescribed or not) is used in a harmful way, damaging a person's physical, cognitive, or psychosocial well-being. One risk factor related to drug abuse is age. Drug abuse peaks around age 20 and then declines. Men are more likely to engage in drug abuse than women. College students may also use drugs to ease the awkwardness of social situations. College students at residential colleges are more likely to use drugs than those who live with their parents, who are married, or may be cohabiting.

90. How might risk-taking by emerging adults be both destructive and beneficial? Include two specific examples of destructive and beneficial risk-taking.

ANSWER: Depending on the activity, risk-taking can lead to new areas of growth and opportunity or can cause physical, emotional, or financial harm. Destructive risk-taking may include having sex without a condom, driving without a seat belt, carrying a loaded gun, or experimenting with drugs. Beneficial risk-taking may include enrolling in college, befriending strangers, trying new foods, traveling abroad, moving to a new place, getting married, having a baby, starting a business, undertaking an artistic endeavor, or enlisting in the Peace Corps. Society would suffer if young adults were always timid, traditional, and afraid of innovation.

91. Name and describe at least three characteristics of the proposed fifth stage of cognitive development.

ANSWER: "Postformal thought" is the proposed fifth stage of cognitive development. Postformal thinkers (1) do not wait for someone else to present a problem to solve. They take a (2) more flexible and (3) comprehensive approach, considering various aspects of a situation to (4) anticipate problems and (5) deal with difficulties in a timely manner rather than denying, avoiding, or procrastinating. As a result, postformal thought is (6) more practical, creative, and imaginative than earlier thinking is. In addition, it is (7) more dialectical (which means more capable of combining contradictory elements into a comprehensive whole).

92. Professor Stott is reviewing Erik Erikson's eight stages of development, including the virtue or pathology that supposedly corresponds to each stage. List Erikson's stages, noting the virtue/pathology that is associated with each.

ANSWER: Stage 1. Trust versus mistrust 2. Autonomy versus shame and doubt 3. Initiative versus guilt 4. Industry versus inferiority 5. Identity versus role confusion 6. Intimacy versus isolation 7. Generativity versus stagnation 8. Integrity versus despair Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

Virtue/Pathology Hope/withdrawal Will/compulsion Purpose/inhibition Competence/inertia Fidelity/repudiation Love/exclusivity Care/rejection Wisdom/disdain Page 17

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Chapter 11 93. Identify three of the problems experienced by emerging adults in achieving vocational identity and describe the typical employment pattern during the emerging adulthood years.

ANSWER: Vocational identity is particularly difficult for emerging adults. For many emerging adults, achieving one's vocational identity will continue into adulthood. (1) Emerging adults may not know what they want to do. Even if they do know and earn the appropriate degrees, (2) many cannot find the jobs they want. This has been (3) particularly true during the recent economic downturn, and they may still be affected even when the nation's economy improves.

Many emerging adults hold a series of temporary jobs. According to 2015 statistics, the average U.S. worker between ages 18 and 25 has held seven jobs. College-educated workers change jobs even more often than those without college degrees.

94. Describe Erik Erikson's stage of "intimacy versus isolation," noting the crisis that young people must overcome.

ANSWER: In Erikson's theory, after achieving identity, people experience the "intimacy versus isolation" crisis.

This crisis arises from the powerful desire to share one's personal life with someone else. Without such intimacy, adults suffer from loneliness. The urge for social connection is a powerful human impulse. Therefore, adults seek to become friends, lovers, companions, and partners.

95. Many emerging adults receive substantial support from their parents. Identify three ways in which parents support their emerging adult children and tell how the support contributes to their success or lack thereof.

ANSWER: Many emerging adults (1) receive cash from their parents in addition to (2) college tuition, (3) medical care, (4) food, and (5) other financial support. Most are also given (6) substantial gifts of time, such as help with laundry, moving, household repairs, and, if the young adult becomes a parent, (7) free child care.

96. Define cohabitation, provide two reasons people decide to cohabit, and identify two potential outcomes of the living arrangement.

ANSWER: Cohabitation describes a couple living together in a committed romantic relationship without being married. People cohabitate (1) as a prelude to marriage (which will occur when the couple has the emotional or financial means) or (2) because they prefer to live together without being married. In the United States, cohabiters are less likely to pool their money, less likely to have close relationships with their parents or their partners' parents, less likely to take care of their partners' health, more likely to break the law, and more likely to break up. However, more recent research finds fewer negative outcomes of cohabitation.

97. Compare and contrast objective and subjective thought and explain how they are related to cognitive development.

ANSWER: Objective thought uses abstract, impersonal logic. Subjective thought arises from personal experiences and emotions. Both are characteristics of postformal thought. Preoperational, egocentric thought is subjective where formal operational thought is objective. Postformal thought includes both objective and subjective thought.

98. Some college students use drugs, such as Adderall and Ritalin, to enhance cognition and allow all night studying before course exams. Use of these drugs varies across institutions, but developmentalists are concerned about such drug use. Why? What are the four reasons outlined in your text?

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Chapter 11 ANSWER: Developmentalists worry about these drugs for four main reasons: (1) Their use makes it more likely that a student will abuse other drugs, such as cocaine and heroin; (2) the long-term health consequences, especially on the heart and lungs, are unknown; (3) these drugs distort judgment, so students might think that they have become more intelligent or better learned when they actually have not; and (4) the drugs are not available to everyone, and that puts users at an unfair advantage.

99. Explain what moratorium is and provide at least two examples.

ANSWER: Moratorium is a common way that emerging adults continue their identity quest. A moratorium is a programmed pause, a way to postpone identity achievement by doing something else. Examples may include taking a gap year before college and traveling around the world.

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Chapter 12 1. Adulthood covers the four decades of life between ages _____ and _____. a. 15; 55 b. 25; 65 c. 35; 75 d. 45; 85 ANSWER: b 2. Dwayne, who is 50 years old, did not realize how much their physical appearance had changed until they saw a picture of themselves taken 20 years ago. Dwayne’s gradual change in physical appearance was due to: a. senescence. b. homeostasis. c. organ reserve. d. allostasis.

ANSWER: a 3. Once a person has reached the age of 20, oxygen dispersal into the bloodstream from the lungs drops about 4 percent: a. each year. b. every 5 years. c. each decade. d. each day.

ANSWER: c 4. In an aging brain: a. neurons fire faster. b. reaction time lengthens. c. brain size increases. d. multitasking becomes easier.

ANSWER: b 5. What percentage of all U.S. births involve in vitro fertilization? a. 0.7 b. 2 c. 5 d. 7 ANSWER: b 6. Before the age of 65, only _____ percent of adults experience significant brain loss. a. 1 b. 5 c. 8 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 d. 15 ANSWER: a 7. Severe brain loss that occurs before late adulthood could be caused by any of these factors EXCEPT: a. poor circulation. b. genes. c. senescence. d. drug abuse.

ANSWER: c 8. What are the odds that a person will inherit the dominant gene for Alzheimer's disease? a. 1 in 1,000 b. 10 in 1,000 c. 50 in 1,000 d. 100 in 1,000 ANSWER: a 9. Which individual is MOST at risk for significant brain loss by age 65? a. Mark, who jogs 3 miles five days a week b. Bill, who drinks five beers per day c. Oswald, who has normal blood pressure d. Jerome, who watches three hours of TV a day ANSWER: b 10. The first visible signs of senescence are usually observed in a person's: a. gait. b. posture. c. skin. d. eyes.

ANSWER: c 11. A group of friends, all about 60 years of age, are playing cards. Which characteristic of senescence do they MOST likely have in common? a. They are unable to drive. b. Their faces have wrinkles. c. They wear hearing aids. d. They are nearsighted.

ANSWER: b 12. Tomo and their husband have postponed having a child because they wanted to make sure they were financially stable and successful in their careers. Now that they are older, they are ready to welcome a baby.

They have decided to try IVF to help them conceive. What is the likelihood of conception using this method?

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Chapter 12 a. 1 in 2 b. 1 in 3 c. 2 in 5 d. 2 in 3 ANSWER: b 13. Professor Than is an evolutionary biologist. Which of these explanations for women becoming infertile around age 50 but living decades after is Professor Than most likely to agree with? a. rate of living theory b. wear and tear hypothesis c. the grandmother hypothesis d. free radicals theory ANSWER: c 14. Which physical change does NOT typically occur in middle adulthood? a. Hair thins and some gray hairs start to show. b. Skin—especially on the face—has lines or wrinkles. c. Muscles weaken, and the waistline widens. d. The spaces between the spinal disks widen.

ANSWER: d 15. Which vision change is NOT associated with aging in adulthood? a. longer adjustment time to darkness b. decreasing farsightedness c. slowed motion perception d. decreasing peripheral vision ANSWER: b 16. Middle-aged Chong and their adolescent daughter are sitting at the table reading the newspaper. Chong is holding their section of the newspaper rather far from their eyes. Their daughter asks, "Dad, why are you holding the paper so far away? If I held it that far away, I could not read anything!" Chong replies, "I think it is because I am developing _____." a. nearsightedness b. farsightedness c. presbycusis d. macular degeneration ANSWER: b 17. Hearing is MOST acute at about age: a. 5. b. 10.

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Chapter 12 c. 20. d. 35.

ANSWER: b 18. Leslie, age 60, is experiencing some symptoms of age-related hearing loss. If Leslie is typical for their age, which sound would be the LEAST audible? a. a low, bass beat b. music on headphones c. ringing in the ears d. the voice of a small child ANSWER: d 19. Drugs that affect emotions more than physical functioning are referred to as: a. stimulants b. depressants c. dissociative anesthetics d. psychoactive drugs ANSWER: d 20. Which experience is LEAST likely to be associated with hearing loss? a. working a job in construction b. attending a rock concert c. watching television d. listening to music through headphones ANSWER: c 21. At which age is an individual likely to experience the slowest sexual arousal? a. 18 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 ANSWER: d 22. Research indicates that middle-aged men and women in committed, monogamous relationships are MOST likely to be _____ with their sex lives. a. extremely satisfied b. satisfied c. dissatisfied d. extremely dissatisfied ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 23. A study of women in the United States aged 40 and older found that sexual activity: a. and satisfaction increased each decade. b. and satisfaction decreased each decade. c. increased each decade, but satisfaction did not. d. decreased each decade, but satisfaction did not.

ANSWER: d 24. For both men and women, as they age: a. sexual responses come quicker. b. sex-hormone levels increase. c. reproduction becomes less likely. d. fertility increases.

ANSWER: c 25. Cannabis is now at least partially legal in how many U.S. states? a. 25 b. 32 c. 44 d. all 50 ANSWER: c 26. Saheban is on a diet with ample vegetables and very little meat, as well as fish, nuts, whole grains, some dairy, and one glass of wine. Which diet is Saheban on? a. intermittent fasting b. keto diet c. weight watchers d. Mediterranean diet ANSWER: d 27. Which of these pregnant women is MOST likely to experience birth complications? a. Mandi, age 20 b. Jasmine, age 28 c. Marla, age 36 d. Shelly, age 44 ANSWER: d 28. Bree and Eric are both in their forties. They have spent their early adult years focusing on their education and careers. Now that they are financially secure and successful, they want to have a baby. Bree and Eric should know that couples in their forties have a _____ percent infertility rate. a. 25 b. 40 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 c. 50 d. 65 ANSWER: c 29. A pattern of eating that includes periods of restricted eating interspersed with usual food consumption is called: a. intermittent fasting. b. keto diet. c. weight watchers. d. Mediterranean diet.

ANSWER: a 30. After about a year of trying for a baby, Tom and Selma see their physician. The couple finds out that Tom has a low sperm count, which may explain the difficulty they are having. What should Tom avoid in order to improve his sperm count? a. sitting for more than 20 minutes at a time b. carbohydrates c. alcohol d. outside exercise ANSWER: c 31. The formation of neurons is referred to as: a. neurogenesis b. plasticity c. transduction d. the action potential ANSWER: a 32. Which area of the brain, located within the hippocampus, is active in forming new memories and exploring new places? a. dentate gyrus b. pons c. limbic system d. frontal lobe ANSWER: a 33. A couple has been trying to conceive a child for 12 months. They decide to consult a doctor about their inability to conceive. After several tests, the doctor suggests that perhaps they will need to use _____ because of a low sperm count. a. natural methods b. arranged reproductive technology c. assisted reproductive technology Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 d. alternative medical technology ANSWER: c 34. The average age of menopause is about _____ years. a. 40 b. 45 c. 51 d. 60 ANSWER: c 35. A drop in sex hormones in a woman's bloodstream along with cessation of ovulation and menstruation signal: a. menopause. b. andropause. c. cancer. d. a need for assisted reproductive technology.

ANSWER: a 36. Malissa is 50 years old and is experiencing vaginal dryness, hot flashes, and cold sweats. She is MOST likely entering: a. menopause. b. andropause. c. depression. d. IVF. ANSWER: a 37. Which statement about hormone replacement therapy is TRUE? a. It involves replacing testosterone that naturally declines with age. b. Research on its use has yielded consistent findings. c. Some findings may have been affected by SES. d. It increases the risk of osteoporosis.

ANSWER: c 38. Research has found that taking estrogen and progesterone _____ the risk of heart disease, stroke, and breast cancer. a. increased b. decreased c. eliminated d. had no impact on ANSWER: a 39. Women experience menopause; men experience: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 a. testeropause. b. libidopause. c. andropause. d. spermatopause.

ANSWER: c 40. The term andropause, or male menopause, is sometimes used to refer to: a. the sudden loss in fertility in a middle-aged man. b. the sudden drop in testosterone that generally occurs at about age 50. c. the age-related reduction in testosterone. d. impotence as a reaction to a wife's menopause.

ANSWER: c 41. At a recent visit, Sam's doctor informed him that he is at an age when he is likely to experience lower testosterone levels. Sam was informed that, due to lower testosterone levels, he could experience a reduction in all these EXCEPT: a. sexual desire. b. muscle mass. c. erections. d. hair loss.

ANSWER: d 42. Thousands of scientists have found that _____ helps virtually every age-related condition that people encounter. a. weight-loss surgery b. exercise c. a low-fat diet d. moderate alcohol consumption ANSWER: b 43. How many common versions of intermittent fasting are there? a. two b. three c. four d. only one ANSWER: b 44. The leading risk factor for many diseases is: a. tobacco use. b. a high carbohydrate diet. c. radiation exposure.

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Chapter 12 d. divorce.

ANSWER: a 45. Almost every adult consumes: a. alcohol. b. aspirin. c. caffeine. d. opiate medication.

ANSWER: c 46. Research studies on alcohol use have shown that: a. alcohol use of any kind is dangerous to health. b. alcohol raises levels of "bad" cholesterol in the blood. c. moderate use of alcohol may increase longevity. d. alcohol abuse is most common during adolescence.

ANSWER: c 47. As Riu helped themselves to a fifth beer, they announced to everyone at the party that alcohol is healthy in moderation. How does the text define moderation? a. one drink per day b. two drinks per day c. three drinks per day d. three drinks per week ANSWER: b 48. Which psychoactive substance may be associated with increased use during adulthood? a. marijuana b. prescription medications c. heroin d. methamphetamine ANSWER: b 49. _____ increased every year from 2000 to 2017. a. Prescription opioids b. Benzodiazepines (for treating anxiety) c. Chronic pain disorders d. Increased alcoholism ANSWER: a 50. Research has found that between the ages of 20 and 60: a. every extra pound is a health hazard.

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Chapter 12 b. it is okay to be overweight, as long as one is not obese. c. metabolism slows down by about a third. d. adults need to consume more calories.

ANSWER: c 51. Helo, who is 55, could not understand why he kept slowly gaining weight. He was eating the same amount of food that he had each day since he was 20, and they got regular exercise. What could explain his weight gain? a. His metabolism had slowed down. b. He is likely very ill; this situation is very unusual. c. He really was not gaining weight; his height was decreasing. d. He overate due to regular exercise.

ANSWER: a 52. Based on demographic trends, which of these middle-aged adults is MOST likely to be obese? a. Tim, who is White b. Jwa, who is Asian c. Jon Taye, who is African American d. Lana, who is Latina ANSWER: c 53. Currently in the United States, _____ of adults are overweight. a. one-third b. one-half c. two-thirds d. three-quarters ANSWER: c 54. Denis is considered overweight because they: a. snack several times a day. b. have a BMI of 25 or more. c. consume foods that are high in cholesterol. d. diet often but always gain back the weight.

ANSWER: b 55. Which statement about weight-loss surgery in obese adults is FALSE? a. Death rates without it are higher for morbidly obese adults. b. About 10 percent of patients will require additional surgery. c. Such surgery decreases the need for life-changing habits. d. The surgery causes dramatic weight loss.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 56. Which psychologist proposed the existence of g? a. Charles Spearman b. Louis Thurstone c. Howard Gardner d. Robert Sternberg ANSWER: a 57. The term g refers to "_____ intelligence." a. grand b. general c. great d. gross ANSWER: b 58. Charles Spearman was interested in assessing the g, or general intelligence, of college students, so he assessed abilities in all these areas EXCEPT: a. memory. b. vocabulary. c. reasoning. d. agility.

ANSWER: d 59. Based on the results of cross-sectional intelligence testing, _____ for the first half of the twentieth century. a. younger generations were considered to be smarter than older ones b. older generations were considered to be smarter than younger ones c. older generations were considered to know entirely different things than younger ones d. younger and older generations were considered equally smart ANSWER: a 60. Tanya, a high school junior, tells the school counselor that they believe they are at the peak of their intellectual ability. The counselor responds that: a. they are correct. b. their intellectual abilities will actually peak during college and then start to decline. c. their intellectual abilities will increase throughout adulthood. d. there is no way to know whether they are or are not at the peak of their intellectual ability.

ANSWER: c 61. A problem with cross-sectional research is that: a. there could be cohort effects, as each has unique life experiences. b. retesting leads older subjects to do better.

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Chapter 12 c. the most intelligent people are most likely to drop out of the study. d. the results tend not to be worth the large investment.

ANSWER: a 62. Harry, who is in good health, scores lower on an intelligence test than their grandson Caleb. This could be for all these reasons EXCEPT: a. Harry and Caleb having different educational experiences. b. Harry and Caleb having different health issues. c. Harry and Caleb having different health care experiences. d. Harry losing intellectual power as they age.

ANSWER: d 63. Longitudinal research on measuring intelligence is more accurate than cross-sectional research. However, there are three drawbacks to this research design. Which is NOT one of the drawbacks? a. an inability to determine continuity and discontinuity of intellectual development b. unusual events affecting each cohort, and more mundane changes making the data on one cohort less relevant to later cohorts c. the loss of some participants across time, which could skew the results d. repeated testing provides practice, which could improve scores ANSWER: a 64. Dr. Smith is studying intellectual development in adulthood. In order to generate the MOST accurate view of intellectual development, Dr. Smith should use a _____ research design. a. cross-sectional b. longitudinal c. cross-sequential d. case study ANSWER: c 65. K. Warner Schaie's cross-sequential research on intellectual development studies: a. verbal meaning, number ability, and word fluency. b. verbal meaning, deductive reasoning, inductive reasoning, number ability, and word fluency. c. deductive reasoning, spatial orientation, inductive reasoning, number ability, and word fluency. d. verbal meaning, spatial orientation, inductive reasoning, number ability, and deductive reasoning.

ANSWER: a 66. K. Warner Schaie's cross-sequential research on intellectual development demonstrates that: a. there is a decline in most abilities after age 30. b. individuals improve in most mental abilities during adulthood. c. cohort differences make it appear that older people are more intelligent than younger people. d. women outperform men on most cognitive tasks.

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Chapter 12 ANSWER: b 67. In K. Warner Schaie's study, each successive cohort scored higher in adulthood than did the previous generations in: a. spatial orientation. b. verbal memory. c. inductive reasoning. d. number ability.

ANSWER: b 68. Results from K. Warner Schaie's study reveal that intelligence test scores for more recent generations have: a. declined. b. increased. c. maintained stability. d. barely changed.

ANSWER: b 69. From about ages 20 to 70, _____ seem(s) to have the LEAST influence on intelligence test scores. a. chronological age b. specific genes c. national values d. education ANSWER: a 70. The two researchers who concluded that fluid and crystallized intelligence are the most crucial aspects of intelligence are: a. Nancy Bayley and Melita Oden. b. Raymond Cattell and John Horn. c. Harold Jones and Herbert Conrad. d. Robert Sternberg and Howard Gardner.

ANSWER: b 71. The basic intelligence that makes learning quick and thorough is referred to as "_____ intelligence." a. fluid b. crystallized c. practical d. creative ANSWER: a 72. Jake is a participant in a research study. They need to decide how Figure A relates to Figure B. In order to make this decision, Jake will need to use _____intelligence. a. creative Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 b. practical c. fluid d. crystallized ANSWER: c 73. Intelligence that reflects accumulated learning is referred to as "_____ intelligence." a. creative b. practical c. fluid d. crystallized ANSWER: d 74. Which example relies MOST heavily on crystallized intelligence? a. putting together a puzzle b. knowing the chemical symbols for various elements c. exhibiting creativity with words d. analyzing relationships between concepts ANSWER: b 75. Cora is asked by their son to help with making a list of all the presidents of the United States for a school project. In order for Cora to help their son, they will need to rely on _____ intelligence. a. creative b. practical c. fluid d. crystallized ANSWER: d 76. With respect to intelligence testing in adulthood, scores on items measuring fluid intelligence _____ with age, and scores on items measuring crystallized intelligence _____ with age. a. increase; increase b. decrease; decrease c. decrease; increase d. increase; decrease ANSWER: c 77. The older Devin gets, the more difficult it is going to be for him to: a. define the word "homemade". b. answer what comes next in the series "4916253." c. recall the seventh president of the United States. d. learn the meaning of a new word.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 78. Robert Sternberg has proposed _____ fundamental forms of intelligence. a. 3 b. 6 c. 8 d. 11 ANSWER: a 79. According to Robert Sternberg, "analytic intelligence" involves: a. the skills used in everyday problem solving. b. abstract planning, focused attention, and verbal and logical skills. c. the accumulation of facts and knowledge as a result of experience. d. the capacity to be intellectually flexible and innovative.

ANSWER: b 80. When students take multiple-choice exams, they are using the form of intelligence that Robert Sternberg calls: a. academic intelligence. b. creative intelligence. c. practical intelligence. d. analytic intelligence.

ANSWER: d 81. According to Robert Sternberg, a college student who does well on multiple-choice and essay exams likely is high in _____ intelligence. a. analytic b. creative c. practical d. academic ANSWER: a 82. According to Robert Sternberg, creative intelligence requires _____ thinking. a. divergent b. convergent c. adaptive d. practical ANSWER: a 83. When Tina is assigned to host a work party for 150 employees with a modest $300 budget, they need to be innovative and imaginative. In order for Tina to host a successful work party, they will need to utilize _____ intelligence. a. creative Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 b. fluid c. immersive d. crystallized ANSWER: a 84. According to Robert Sternberg, intelligence used in everyday problem solving is considered to be _____ intelligence. a. creative b. practical c. analytic d. crystallized ANSWER: b 85. Which of Robert Sternberg's three forms of intelligence is sometimes called "street smarts"? a. creative b. practical c. analytic d. general ANSWER: b 86. Practical intelligence is sometimes called "_____ intelligence," because it is not obvious on tests. a. analytical b. tacit c. intrapersonal d. creative ANSWER: b 87. Practical intelligence, one form of Robert Sternberg's intelligences, would be needed to: a. study vocabulary for a foreign language test. b. take a standard intelligence test. c. improve reading speed. d. understand the needs of family members.

ANSWER: d 88. Francis is a retired registered nurse who fills in at the local hospital when the staff is in need of nurses.

Francis is frequently called in without advance notice and must take over without any time to get oriented.

Frances must rely on what Robert Sternberg calls "_____ intelligence" in order to grasp the expectations and needs of the situation. a. practical b. creative c. flexible Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 d. analytic ANSWER: a 89. The benefits of _____ intelligence in adult life are obvious, as adults need to solve real-world challenges. a. practical b. creative c. flexible d. analytic ANSWER: a 90. Practical intelligence is supported by: a. experience and flexibility. b. education and wealth. c. health and nutrition. d. GPA and advanced degrees.

ANSWER: a 91. Which type of intelligence is usually MOST valued during high school and college? a. creative b. practical c. behavioral d. analytic ANSWER: d 92. Over the long run, _____ intelligence is prized whenever life circumstances change or new challenges arise. a. creative b. crystallized c. analytic d. practical ANSWER: a 93. The Angels just had their first child. Both parents must now adapt to the new demands of caring for an infant. This will require the form of intelligence that Robert Sternberg calls _____ intelligence. a. formal b. creative c. analytic d. practical ANSWER: d 94. Which statement about fluid intelligence is TRUE? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 a. It is the accumulation of facts. b. It is quick and flexible. c. It includes long-term memory for dates in history. d. It includes the size of one's vocabulary.

ANSWER: b 95. Fluid intelligence includes: a. a knowledge of geographical facts. b. the speed of processing mathematical information. c. the size of one's science vocabulary. d. the ability to recognize and name famous paintings.

ANSWER: b 96. Which is the BEST example of fluid intelligence? a. knowing the names of the British monarchs in chronological order b. the ability to quickly recognize relationships between words c. extensive knowledge of computer programming d. the ability to read and interpret an electrocardiogram ANSWER: b 97. Which test measures intelligent parenting? a. Dr. Spock's Assessment of Parent Competence b. Knowledge of Infant Development Inventory c. The Bayley Scales of Infant Development d. Creative Child-Rearing Assessment ANSWER: b 98. Paul and Margret Baltes have found that adults use their intellectual strengths to offset their age-related declining abilities through the process of: a. compensatory thinking. b. selective optimization with compensation. c. maturation of compensation. d. optimization of maturation and wisdom.

ANSWER: b 99. Russell is 62 years old and realizes that their reading speed and eyesight are not as robust as they were when they were younger. They still enjoy participating in a book club, which requires that a new book be read every week. In order to participate, Russell now listens to the books on tape. Russell is using _____ in order to participate in the book club. a. compensatory thinking b. selective optimization with compensation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 c. maturation of compensation d. optimization of maturation and wisdom ANSWER: b 100. Which is the BEST example of an adult using selective optimization with compensation? a. Giovanni, who always buys and drives a standard transmission vehicle so they will not forget how to do so b. Dorothy, who is learning to play the piano in retirement c. Bettie, who uses sticky-note reminders in their home, office, and car d. Rick, who wears reading glasses due to astigmatism ANSWER: c 101. When developmentalists use the term expert, they usually mean a person who: a. is extraordinarily gifted in one area. b. has earned advanced credentials in their special area. c. is innately skilled. d. specializes in activities that are personally meaningful.

ANSWER: d 102. All of these factors contribute to the development of expertise EXCEPT: a. gender. b. experience. c. accumulated knowledge. d. practice.

ANSWER: a 103. Expert thought is: a. intuitive, automatic, practical, and flexible. b. intuitive, automatic, strategic, and flexible. c. practical, automatic, strategic, and flexible. d. intuitive, automatic, strategic, and practical.

ANSWER: b 104. Experts tend to be intuitive, automatic, _____, and _____ in their thinking. a. strategic; inflexible b. strategic; flexible c. flexible; analytical d. analytical; inflexible ANSWER: b 105. To solve a problem in their special area, the expert is more likely than the novice to: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 a. rely on past experiences. b. give conscious attention to all aspects of the problem. c. rely on formal procedures. d. verbalize exactly how they achieve results.

ANSWER: a 106. Juanita needs to have surgery, and wants to make sure that the surgeon they choose is the most skilled.

Which of these questions should Juanita ask potential surgeons? a. "Where did you go to medical school?" b. "How often have you performed this operation?" c. "How many years have you been a surgeon?" d. "What was your undergraduate GPA (grade point average)?"

ANSWER: b 107. Compared to novices, experts typically: a. work more slowly. b. are less flexible. c. are more intuitive. d. exhibit more arrogance.

ANSWER: c 108. When the thought required for an action has become routine, and it appears that most aspects of the task are performed instinctively, the performance of the task is: a. automatic. b. optimized. c. compensated. d. modified.

ANSWER: a 109. Thinking that occurs without deliberate, conscious thought is _____ processing. a. strategic b. flexible c. automatic d. intuitive ANSWER: c 110. Ken is a highly skilled electrician, and Stacey is the new apprentice. When unexpected problems occur as they work on complex wiring projects, the MOST critical difference between their approaches in successfully completing the job is: a. Ken's automatic processing. b. Stacey's trial and error.

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Chapter 12 c. Ken's innate ability. d. Stacey's use of trade manuals.

ANSWER: a 111. The MOST crucial difference between a skilled person and an unskilled person may be: a. strategy. b. automatic processing. c. intuition. d. flexibility.

ANSWER: a 112. Who is MOST likely to have the greatest number of strategies? a. Micah, who has been playing chess for one year b. Cal, who has been playing chess for five years c. Adam, who has been playing chess for 25 years d. Robert, who is new to the game of chess but excels at math ANSWER: c 113. The expert artist, musician, or scientist is creative and curious, deliberately experimenting and enjoying the challenge when things do not go according to plan. This suggests that their thinking is more: a. automatic. b. intuitive. c. strategic. d. flexible.

ANSWER: d 114. According to the text, an expert internal medicine doctor may prefer a patient who: a. has a clearly diagnosable condition. b. is in perfect health. c. has symptoms that match a common ailment. d. does not come in for medical care until their home remedies fail.

ANSWER: c 115. Which statement about age and expertise is TRUE? a. Expertise can overcome some of the detrimental effects of age, but not all. b. Expertise can compensate for the deterioration that comes with age. c. Female experts are better than male experts at keeping their levels of expertise stable as they age. d. The effects of age apply equally to experts and novices.

ANSWER: a 116. Maurice is a middle-aged doctor who is an expert at laser eye surgery for the correction of myopia. They Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 graduated from medical school 35 years ago. Juan is a young doctor who also does the surgery; they graduated from medical school five years ago. According to the text, who would likely be the better choice for operating on your eyes? a. Maurice; they will probably complete the operation more quickly than Daryl. b. Maurice; they have done the operation so often that they are more strategic and flexible. c. Juan; they graduated more recently and know the most recent techniques. d. Juan; because they are younger, they think faster and can adjust to problems that arise.

ANSWER: b 117. According to the text, who might be the BEST employee at a workplace? a. a 20-year-old who has worked for the company for one year and is motivated to do his best b. a 35-year-old who has worked for the company for 10 years but does not have a lot of motivation c. a 45-year-old who has worked for the company for 2 years and is motivated to do his best d. a 50-year-old who has worked for the company for 15 years and is motivated to do his best ANSWER: d 118. Research on taxi drivers in London indicates that drivers with more experience: a. develop higher intelligence test scores through their work. b. have brains that adjust to the need for a particular kind of knowledge. c. become less effective over time as they tune out details. d. have slower processing skills than younger drivers.

ANSWER: b 119. The skill, flexibility, and strategies needed to raise a family are a manifestation of: a. expertise. b. intelligence. c. coping. d. weathering.

ANSWER: a 120. Describe how the brain changes with age. Identify two implications of these changes for an individual's functioning. On what type of tests do people improve every decade until at least age 70?

ANSWER: The brain slows down with age. Neurons fire more slowly, and messages sent from the axon of one neuron are not picked up as quickly by the dendrites of other neurons, so reaction time lengthens.

Although new neurons and dendrites appear, the overall size of the brain decreases, with fewer neurons and synapses in middle adulthood than earlier.

Implications include the following: (1) Multitasking becomes harder, (2) processing information takes longer, (3) reactions are slower, and (4) complex working-memory tasks may become challenging or even impossible.

On tests of knowledge, people improve every decade until at least age 70.

121. For about 1 percent of all adults, brain loss is significant between ages 25 and 65. Explain the five main Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 causes for this brain loss.

ANSWER: If severe brain loss occurs before age 65, one of the following is the cause: (1) Drug abuse. All psychoactive drugs can harm the brain, especially alcohol abuse over decades.

(2) Poor circulation. Everything that impairs blood flow, such as hypertension and cigarette smoking, impairs circulation in the brain and harms thinking.

(3) Viruses. Various membranes, called the "blood-brain barrier," protect the brain from most viruses. However, a few, including HIV and the prion that causes mad cow disease, cross that barrier and destroy neurons.

(4) Genes. About 1 in 1,000 persons inherits a dominant gene for Alzheimer's disease, and even fewer people inherit genes for other severe neurocognitive disorders.

(5) Traumatic brain injury. Blows to the head—either at one time as in a car crash or repeated over time as in football, hockey, or boxing—reduce brain functioning. TBIs can occur at any age, but for adults they usually occur before age 40.

122. Explain how the senses become less acute over time, particularly related to vision and hearing.

ANSWER: Every sense becomes less acute with each decade of age. With respect to vision, (1) peripheral vision decreases, (2) color perception fades, (3) farsightedness increases, (4) nearsightedness decreases, and (5) night vision worsens.

Hearing loss also occurs throughout adulthood, with high frequencies being the hardest to hear. In middle age, many people experience occasional signs of future hearing problems: (3) ringing in the ears, (4) muffled sounds, and (5) temporary deafness.

123. Describe what happens to sexual responsiveness as individuals age and indicate the degree to which individuals are sexually active and satisfied during adulthood.

ANSWER: Most people are sexually active throughout adulthood, although for both genders, (1) sexual arousal occurs more slowly with age, (2) orgasm takes longer to achieve, and (3) the length of recovery after orgasm increases.

(1) A study of women aged 40 and older found that although sexual activity decreased each decade, satisfaction did not. (2) A British study of more than 2,000 adults in their 50s found that almost all of them were sexually active (94 percent of the men and 76 percent of the women) and that most were satisfied with their sex lives. (3) A study of 38,207 adults in the United States who had been in committed relationships for more than three years found that about half were highly satisfied with their sex lives, but about a third were not.

124. Becky, age 55, is going through menopause. Recently, Becky has been experiencing hot flashes, cold sweats, and increased irritability. Becky wants to talk to the doctor about hormone replacement therapy (HRT), but is not sure whether it is right for them. Explain research findings on the concerns over and the benefits of HRT. ANSWER: Initial research correlated hormone replacement therapy with positive health outcomes, such as reduced risk of (1) cognitive loss, (2) stroke, (3) heart disease, and (4) osteoporosis (fragile bones), but further research demonstrated that a third variable affecting these outcomes was likely. The Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 higher SES of HRT-takers was actually the underlying reason for the reduced incidence of these diseases. In addition, studies indicated that prolonged use of estrogen and progesterone could actually (4) increase the risk of disease.

According to current research on HRT, benefits include (1) a possible decrease in osteoporosis and (2) decreased symptoms of menopause, although its use is associated with an (3) increased risk for breast cancer, (4) stroke, and (5) heart disease.

125. Identify three consequences of obesity.

ANSWER: Excess body fat (1) increases the risk of almost every chronic disease. One example is (2) diabetes, which is rapidly becoming more common and causes eye, heart, and foot problems as well as early death. The consequences of obesity are psychological as well, because overweight adults are targets of scorn and prejudice, being (3) less likely to be chosen as marriage partners, (4) employees, and (5) even friends. The stigma endured by people who are obese may lead them to engage in unhealthy habits, such as avoiding medical checkups, eating more, and exercising less.

126. Who introduced the concept of "general intelligence," or g? What does g stand for, and how can it be measured?

ANSWER: Charles Spearman proposed that there is a single entity, "general intelligence," which he called g.

Spearman contended that although g cannot be measured directly, it can be inferred from various abilities, such as vocabulary, memory, and reasoning.

127. What has cross-sectional research determined about IQ? What has longitudinal research determined about IQ? Why is there a difference in the results? Which research design is scientifically valid in assessing agerelated changes in IQ? ANSWER: Cross-sectional studies find that younger adults outscore older adults on IQ tests. Yet longitudinal studies find that intelligence increases across the adulthood years. The difference in results is due to cohort effects. Each cohort has unique life experiences that influence intellectual development. In particular, more education and better health may explain why younger generations score higher than older generations on intelligence tests. The longitudinal and cross-sequential research designs are scientifically valid in assessing age-related changes in IQ. 128. Describe Robert Sternberg's three forms of intelligence. Identify when each might be most valued with respect to development.

ANSWER: Analytic intelligence involves such mental processes as abstract planning, strategy selection, focused attention, and information-processing as well as verbal and logical skills. Analytic intelligence fosters academic proficiency by making possible efficient learning, remembering, and thinking. Analytic intelligence is usually valued during high school and college.

Creative intelligence involves the capacity to be intellectually flexible and innovative. It is useful if one needs to write a new novel or song, restructure local government, create an advertising display, or invent a new gadget. Creative intelligence is valued when life circumstances change and new challenges arise or if one "builds a better mousetrap" that results in a financial windfall.

Practical intelligence involves the capacity to adapt one's behavior to the demands of a given situation. This capacity includes an accurate grasp of the expectations and needs of the people involved and an awareness of the particular skills that are called for, along with the ability to use these insights effectively. Practical intelligence is sometimes called "tacit intelligence" or "street Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 12 smarts," because it is not obvious on tests. Practical intelligence is the mostly highly valued throughout adulthood, because every adult needs to solve real-world challenges.

129. Define fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence. Describe age-related changes in fluid and crystallized intelligence, including how each type of intelligence relates to overall IQ scores.

ANSWER: Fluid intelligence is the type of basic intelligence that makes new learning of all sorts quick and thorough and includes such abilities as short-term memory, abstract thought, and speed of thinking.

Crystallized intelligence reflects accumulated learning, such as vocabulary and general knowledge of facts.

Fluid intelligence decreases with age, while crystallized intelligence increases. A person's IQ, which is composed of scores from fluid intelligence and crystallized intelligence subtests, is fairly steady from ages 30 to 70. Although brain slowdown begins approximately at age 20, it is rarely apparent until massive declines in fluid intelligence affect crystallized intelligence, causing overall IQ scores to drop 130. Define selective optimization with compensation and explain how this theory relates to intelligence during adulthood. Give two examples of selective optimization with compensation.

ANSWER: Paul and Margret Baltes developed the theory of selective optimization with compensation to explain the way in which people maintain a balance in their lives by looking for the best way to compensate for physical and cognitive losses and to become more proficient in activities they do well. Such choices are critical, because every ability can be enhanced or diminished, depending on how, when, and why a person uses it. As such, selective optimization means that each person selects certain aspects of their intelligence to optimize and neglects the rest. If those aspects that are ignored happen to be the ones measured by IQ tests, then intelligence scores will fall, even if a person's selection results in improvement (optimization) in other areas of intellect. Examples of selective optimization with compensation include (1) using reading glasses, (2) enlarging the font on a computer screen, (3) wearing hearing aids, and (4) reducing multitasking. Sometimes older adults (5) write everything down—using their own shorthand and symbols—to compensate for their failing memories.

131. Identify and describe the four ways in which experts think.

ANSWER: Expert thought is (1) intuitive, (2) automatic, (3) strategic, and (4) flexible. Intuitive means that experts rely more on their past experiences and on the immediate context when thinking than on formal procedures and rules. Automatic means that the complex action and thought required by most people facing a problem have become routine for experts, making it appear that most aspects of a task are performed instinctively by the expert. Strategic means that experts have more and better strategies to solve problems, especially when problems are unexpected or unusual. Flexible means that experts do not need to follow one pattern of thought but can adapt their thinking to situations and even enjoy doing so.

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Chapter 13 1. The psychoanalytic theorist who proposed four psychosocial stages of adulthood is: a. Sigmund Freud. b. Erik Erikson. c. B. F. Skinner. d. Lev Vygotsky.

ANSWER: b 2. Although Erik Erikson's stages of psychosocial development are sequential, the search for identity that begins in the stage of identity versus role confusion: a. is ongoing throughout adulthood. b. ends with the stage of intimacy versus isolation. c. ends with the stage of generativity versus stagnation. d. comes to fruition only after the stage of integrity versus despair.

ANSWER: a 3. Which is one of Erik Erikson's stages of adulthood? a. trust versus mistrust b. initiative versus guilt c. generativity versus stagnation d. industry versus inferiority ANSWER: c 4. Samantha’s grandfather, at age 84, is engaged in the personal journey of connecting their life with the historical and cultural purpose of human society. The grandfather is in which of Erik Erikson's psychosocial stages? a. identity versus role confusion b. industry versus inferiority c. generativity versus stagnation d. integrity versus despair ANSWER: d 5. According to Erik Erikson, the developmental crisis that occurs after intimacy versus isolation is: a. initiative versus guilt. b. identity versus role confusion. c. generativity versus stagnation. d. integrity versus despair.

ANSWER: c 6. According to Erik Erikson, when individuals are productive in a caring way, they are demonstrating: a. autonomy. b. generativity.

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Chapter 13 c. diffusion. d. altruism.

ANSWER: b 7. According to Erik Erikson, an adult's failure to achieve generativity results in: a. intermittent feelings of loneliness. b. stagnation and personal impoverishment. c. childlessness and depression. d. difficulties in mate selection or friendship.

ANSWER: b 8. Common ways to be generative include caregiving, employment, and: a. goal-setting exercises. b. financial security. c. parenthood. d. travel.

ANSWER: c 9. _____ developed the theory of humanism. a. Erik Erikson b. Albert Bandura c. Sigmund Freud d. Abraham Maslow ANSWER: d 10. How many stages of development does Abraham Maslow describe? a. three b. five c. seven d. nine ANSWER: b 11. People in Abraham Maslow's third level on the hierarchy of needs seek: a. self-actualization. b. safety. c. generativity. d. love and belonging.

ANSWER: d 12. Deedra is a retired stockbroker who enjoys tutoring children at the local library after school. They are demonstrating the psychosocial stage of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 a. generativity versus stagnation. b. integrity versus despair. c. identity versus role confusion. d. industry versus inferiority.

ANSWER: a 13. The primary form that generativity takes is: a. being guided by the younger generation. b. establishing and guiding the next generation. c. belonging to a religious organization. d. volunteering in the community.

ANSWER: b 14. Which statement about Abraham Maslow's theory is TRUE? a. He believes that everyone, universally, has the same needs. b. His theory overemphasizes the flaws of human behavior. c. His theory is primarily developed for Western adults. d. He believes that children have different basic needs than adults.

ANSWER: a 15. The concept of the Big Five reflects which type of theory? a. trait b. humanism c. psychoanalytic d. information processing ANSWER: a 16. Which is NOT one of the Big Five personality traits? a. selflessness b. openness c. extroversion d. agreeableness ANSWER: a 17. Thomas is moody, anxious, and self-punishing. Thomas is high in: a. openness. b. extroversion. c. conscientiousness. d. neuroticism.

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Chapter 13 18. A person who has many of the personality traits associated with extroversion would be described as: a. depressed and anxious. b. active and outgoing. c. open and receptive. d. creative and intelligent.

ANSWER: b 19. Jwa seems to thrive on changing jobs, is artistic, and adventurous. They would be rated high on which personality dimension? a. extroversion b. openness c. neuroticism d. sociability ANSWER: b 20. Those who know them describe Suni as a kind, helpful, and easygoing person. They are high on which Big Five personality trait? a. agreeableness b. neuroticism c. openness d. conscientiousness ANSWER: a 21. Babu has always been very organized and self-disciplined. They conform easily to standards set for their performance at work. They are high on which of the Big Five traits? a. agreeableness b. openness c. conscientiousness d. extroversion ANSWER: c 22. A person who changes jobs frequently, moves often, and always seems happier because of such changes is likely to be high in: a. conscientiousness. b. openness. c. neuroticism. d. extroversion.

ANSWER: b 23. Which personality trait tends to increase with age? a. extroversion b. openness Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 c. conscientiousness d. neuroticism ANSWER: c 24. With increasing age, the trait of neuroticism tends to: a. transform into extroversion. b. increase. c. decrease. d. remain stable.

ANSWER: c 25. Self-esteem rises from early adulthood until about age: a. 35. b. 40. c. 45. d. 50.

ANSWER: d 26. Nate is high in extroversion and therefore will probably: a. be likely to get a divorce. b. have a life that is in constant flux. c. become a librarian or a safety inspector. d. get married.

ANSWER: d 27. Which statement about personality is TRUE? a. There is only empirical evidence that personality is innate. b. Genes are the only influence on adult personality. c. Adult personality can be influenced by context. d. Geography does not influence adult personality.

ANSWER: c 28. Statistically, who is likely to have the MOST stable personality? a. a 5-year-old boy b. a 14-year-old girl c. a 23-year-old man d. a 35-year-old woman ANSWER: d 29. A study of well-being and self-esteem in 28 nations has found that people are happiest if their personality traits: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 a. evolve over time. b. change from one setting to the next. c. are identified early in life. d. match their social context.

ANSWER: d 30. Which factor has NOT been associated with adult personality? a. income b. history c. local norms d. geography ANSWER: a 31. Which of these is NOT an area of identity during adulthood? a. gender b. vocational c. political d. physical ANSWER: d 32. Of adults born before 1940, about which percentage got married? a. 10 b. 35 c. 50 d. 95 ANSWER: d 33. Committed partners who maintain separate homes but function as a committed couple are said to be: a. living apart together. b. residing in an empty nest. c. avoiding marriage. d. consequential strangers.

ANSWER: a 34. A long-term partnership correlates with health and happiness throughout adulthood and late adulthood. For MOST people, then, _____ is the crucial aspect of love in a partnership. a. intimacy b. infatuation c. commitment d. passion ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 35. James and Will are a gay couple who recently married. They wonder what their relationship will be like in 5 to 10 years. If they are like MOST married couples, their happiness will: a. decline sharply. b. hold steady. c. dip, with divorce likely. d. be even stronger than during the honeymoon period.

ANSWER: b 36. All of Shawn and Geneva's children have moved out, have started families, and are working on their careers.

According to the text, Shawn and Geneva's home is now a(n): a. haven of quiet. b. empty nest. c. lonely cavern. d. house of mirrors.

ANSWER: b 37. After children have grown and moved out of the family home, MOST couples find that: a. their financial strains are overwhelming. b. their relationships improve. c. there are more fights over equity in domestic work. d. less time is spent in shared activities.

ANSWER: b 38. After the children are grown, MOST married couples: a. spend longer hours at work. b. dislike being "empty-nesters." c. have adequate time for their relationship. d. see little of each other.

ANSWER: c 39. Sven and Rosa have been married for nearly 30 years. Their youngest child left home six months ago. If they are typical, the quality of their marriage should: a. remain constant, no different than earlier years. b. worsen, because there are no children to act as buffers. c. be tumultuous, because they have grown apart over the years. d. improve, because they have more time to spend together.

ANSWER: d 40. Research indicates that remarriage initially restores all these EXCEPT: a. intimacy. b. health.

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Chapter 13 c. previous friendships. d. financial security.

ANSWER: c 41. At least initially, remarriage brings which condition? a. poorer health b. financial insecurity c. better health d. the same level of happiness as in the first marriage ANSWER: c 42. A multinational study has found that the likelihood of separation of married and cohabitating couples is powerfully influenced by: a. national norms. b. gender. c. age. d. sexual identity.

ANSWER: a 43. Research suggests that about _____ of the time, divorce ends an abusive, destructive relationship. a. one-eighth b. one-third c. two-thirds d. three-quarters ANSWER: b 44. The group of people who move through life with an individual while providing both protection and encouragement is called a: a. familial collection. b. social convoy. c. fictive kin. d. support network.

ANSWER: b 45. Ross moved to another state to advance their career. Although they moved alone, they soon developed a group of coworkers and friends who became like a family to them. They served as their: a. kinkeeper. b. extrinsic rewards. c. social convoy. d. clique.

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Chapter 13 46. As people age, their friendships tend to: a. dissipate. b. fade. c. stagnate. d. improve.

ANSWER: d 47. _____ are a crucial part of the social convoy. a. Personality traits b. Extended family c. Friends d. Younger adults and children ANSWER: c 48. A study of 7,578 adults in seven nations has found that physical separation between parents and adult children: a. weakens family ties. b. creates conflict between parents and their adult children. c. strengthens the relationships between parents and their adult children. d. causes parents to spend more time and resources to support their adult children.

ANSWER: c 49. The number of adults living with their parents has reached a peak similar to that of: a. colonial times. b. the Great Depression. c. the stock market crash. d. the Industrial Revolution.

ANSWER: b 50. A recent economic recession led to an increase in "_____," which are young adults who live with their parents for a while. a. fictive kin networks b. social convoys c. boomerang children d. helicopter offspring ANSWER: c 51. Individuals who are accepted into families that are not their legal or biological families are called: a. fictive kin. b. kinkeepers. c. social convoys.

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Chapter 13 d. generative allies.

ANSWER: a 52. Edu grew up in several different foster homes and never knew their parents. When they started working with Kent, they became close to Kent's family, to the point where they fondly referred to them as "our newfound son." The family "adopted" Edu as: a. a surrogate sibling. b. a foster son. c. a kindred brother. d. fictive kin.

ANSWER: d 53. The youngest of Dawid and Tuila's three children has just started kindergarten. Dawid and Tuila have had to change their morning and bedtime routines, child-care arrangements, and discipline practices, and the family's income has suffered as a result of this shift, yet they are happy to make these changes for their children. These changes reflect the fact that: a. Dawid and Tuila do not know enough about parenting. b. their children must be especially difficult. c. Dawid and Tuila are trying too hard to please their children. d. Dawid and Tuila are demonstrating generativity.

ANSWER: d 54. According to the text, the easiest form of nonbiological parenting may be: a. grandparenthood. b. foster parenting. c. adoption. d. kinkeeping.

ANSWER: c 55. Freud believed that a healthy adult should be able to: a. love and work. b. play and reproduce. c. rest and retire. d. vote and work.

ANSWER: a 56. Bryson spent the first four years of life living with various family members and in various foster homes.

Maggie, their second cousin, adopted Bryson about six months ago. Although Maggie provides Bryson with love, support, and stimulation, Bryson does not seem attached to Maggie. They resist any kind of affection and prefer to be alone rather than socialize with the new family. According to the DSM-5, Bryson probably has: a. reactive attachment disorder. b. oppositional defiant disorder.

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Chapter 13 c. a severe cognitive impairment. d. posttraumatic stress disorder.

ANSWER: a 57. The average new stepchild in a family is _____ years old. a. 3 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12 ANSWER: c 58. In foster parent families, which type of bond is BEST for both the parent and the child? a. replacement b. loving c. distant d. friendly ANSWER: b 59. In developed nations, grandparenthood begins on average at about age: a. 50 b. 60 c. 67 d. 75 ANSWER: a 60. Kelani is the family's kinkeeper. This means that Kelani is responsible for: a. the financial stability of the family. b. caring for her grandchildren while their parents work. c. gathering the family for holidays and disseminating information. d. regularly visiting family members who live in care homes.

ANSWER: c 61. Fifty years ago, the kinkeeper in a typical family was MOST likely to be: a. a young adult son. b. a middle-aged father. c. the first grandchild. d. a middle-aged mother.

ANSWER: d 62. Because they are called on to help both the older and younger generations of the family, middle-aged adults have been called the: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 a. midlife generation. b. family caregivers. c. kinkeepers. d. sandwich generation.

ANSWER: d 63. According to research, which statement about the "sandwich generation" is TRUE? a. Many adults do not feel burdened by their responsibilities. b. It describes the reality of most middle-aged women's lives. c. It conveys the financial strain that adults often experience when caring for elderly parents. d. It communicates the degree to which older adults care for their younger kin.

ANSWER: a 64. Employment is _____ adult psychosocial health. a. absolutely necessary for b. not a key part of c. one factor contributing to d. rarely a positive contributor to ANSWER: c 65. When young people are first entering the workforce and establishing themselves in their careers, which do they tend to consider to be the MOST important? a. intrinsic rewards b. extrinsic rewards c. pride d. pension ANSWER: b 66. After nearly 25 years with the company, Jeff’s job was outsourced. They want their new job to offer not only a good wage but also job satisfaction and a sense of accomplishment. They are focused on the _____ of work. a. status b. primary gains c. secondary gains d. intrinsic rewards ANSWER: d 67. After a recent breakup, Michelle is entering the workforce for the first time in over seven years. As a single parent with three children, they need a livable wage, good benefits, and a retirement plan. Michelle is focused on the _____ of work. a. intrinsic rewards b. self-fulfilling prophecy Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 c. extrinsic rewards d. secondary gains ANSWER: c 68. With regard to paid work, older employees tend to have _____ compared to younger employees. a. less absenteeism b. more problems with lateness c. less job commitment d. more extrinsic motivation ANSWER: a 69. Margie and Dan have been married for almost 20 years and have two children who are now teens. What can be said regarding their marital happiness? a. They are in the honeymoon period. b. They are most likely to get divorced now. c. Their level of happiness is holding steady. d. Their happiness is declining as their children reach puberty.

ANSWER: d 70. Casual contacts are called: a. consequential strangers. b. acquaintances. c. friends. d. peers.

ANSWER: a 71. Immigrants make up about _____ percent of the U.S. adult workforce. a. 3 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25 ANSWER: b 72. In the United States, about _____ of all workers have nonstandard schedules. a. one-fourth b. one-third c. one-half d. three-quarters ANSWER: b 73. The implicit understanding of the relationship between employer and the employee is known as the: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 a. psychological contract. b. work/life balance. c. social convoy. d. extrinsic reward.

ANSWER: a 74. Which statement about employees who work overtime is TRUE? a. Working overtime always decreases job satisfaction. b. Workers who are paid extra for overtime are usually satisfied with their jobs. c. Workers who are required to work overtime feel less job satisfaction. d. Overtime work is part of a traditional work schedule.

ANSWER: c 75. In the days of _____, it was thought that everyone would become a parent if they could. a. Sigmund Freud b. B. F. Skinner c. Lev Vygotsky d. Erik Erikson ANSWER: d 76. What is perhaps the MOST stressful experience in a family's life? a. having a child b. caring for an aging sibling c. caring for a grandparent d. moving ANSWER: a 77. The idea that employment demands should be limited to protect the rest of life is referred to as the: a. work/life balance. b. psychological contract. c. social convoy. d. intrinsic reward.

ANSWER: a 78. Belinda is pregnant with their first child. They are 20 years old and are unemployed. They believe that someone else might make a better parent for the child and have decided to place the baby up for adoption.

However, they want to maintain contact with the child after the adoption. Belinda is interested in: a. becoming an adoptive parent. b. an open adoption. c. a closed adoption. d. finding a stepfamily.

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Chapter 13 ANSWER: b 79. Adults tend to become foster parents for _____ reasons. a. psychosocial b. financial c. emotional d. cultural ANSWER: a 80. What is the average age of a child entering the foster-care system? a. 6 months of age b. 2 years of age c. 6 years of age d. 9 years of age ANSWER: c 81. Which of these is NOT a negative consequence that many foster children experience, as stated in text? a. less education b. increased arrest rates c. earlier deaths d. increased psychological disorders ANSWER: d 82. Xavier is a new grandparent. If they are like other new grandparents, what is their age? a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60 ANSWER: c 83. About how many grandchildren live with their grandparents? a. 1 percent b. 3 percent c. 10 percent d. 12 percent ANSWER: a 84. What is the MOST common form of generativity? a. owning a pet b. caring for an aging parent c. helping a neighbor Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 d. caring for a child ANSWER: d 85. What kind of family has the middle generation missing? a. fictive kin b. skipped generation c. kinkeeper d. sandwich generation ANSWER: b 86. Wu makes sure that his children and grandchildren get together as a family several times each year. Wu can be described as a(n) _____ with his family. a. kinkeeper b. fictive kin c. member of the sandwich generation d. member of a skipped generation ANSWER: a 87. Margaret helps take care of their grandchildren for their adult child. Margaret is also caring for their own aging parents. Margaret is part of the: a. skipped generation. b. sandwich generation. c. fictive generation. d. kin generation.

ANSWER: b 88. Which of these is NOT a way in which work can fill psychosocial needs? a. developing and using personal skills b. suppressing creative energy c. supporting education and health of families d. providing goods and services to the community ANSWER: b 89. When generative needs are NOT met, which of these is a possible negative consequence, as stated in text? a. happiness b. domestic abuse c. anxiety d. increased income ANSWER: b 90. Which statement about unemployment is FALSE? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 a. Adults who are unemployed are 60 percent more likely to die than other people. b. Adults who are unemployed are twice as likely to be clinically depressed. c. Adults who are unemployed are twice as likely to be addicted to drugs. d. Adults who are unemployed experience less stress than those employed.

ANSWER: d 91. Employment changes are affecting adults in all these ways EXCEPT: a. diversity among workers. b. job changes. c. decreasing empty nest. d. alternate schedules.

ANSWER: c 92. Davis is 55 years old and has recently lost his job of almost 30 years. They are glad, however, that they did not have problems finding a new job. Even so, changes in their employment at this stage in life may lead to all of these consequences EXCEPT: a. losing work friendships. b. losing his income rate and seniority. c. experiencing age discrimination. d. increasing his generativity.

ANSWER: d 93. Describe Erik Erikson's psychosocial stage, generativity versus stagnation. Indicate the three most common ways adults satisfy their need to be generative.

ANSWER: Generativity versus stagnation is the stage associated with adulthood and the need to care for the next generation. Generativity is unselfish caring for others—often of the younger generation—and is a central goal of adulthood. Without generativity, adults experience stagnation and personal impoverishment. Adults satisfy their need to be generative in many ways, especially through (1) parenthood, (2) caregiving (taking care of the needs of others or pets), and (3) employment.

94. Explain Maslow’s theory of personality, outlining the five hierarchical needs proposed in his theory.

ANSWER: Abraham Maslow’s theory consists of a series of needs, arranged in a pyramid or hierarchy. The five needs are: (1) Physiological, or needing food, water, warmth, and air (2) Safety, or feeling protected from injury and death (3) Love and belonging, or having friends, family, and a community (often religious) (4) Esteem, or being respected by the wider community as well as by oneself (5) Self-actualization, or becoming truly oneself, fulfilling one's unique potential while appreciating life 95. Define and explain how the Big Five personality traits are important. Name and describe each of these traits.

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Chapter 13 ANSWER: The Big Five traits are five basic clusters of personality traits that remain quite stable through adulthood. Each person is somewhere between extremely high and extremely low on each of these five personality traits. Adults choose their vocations, hobbies, health habits, friends, and neighborhoods at least in part because of the following personality traits: Agreeableness, being kind, helpful, easygoing, generous Extroversion, being outgoing, assertive, active Openness, being imaginative, curious, artistic, creative, open to new experiences Conscientiousness, being organized, deliberate, conforming, self-disciplined Neuroticism, being anxious, moody, self-punishing, critical 96. Mr. and Mrs. Carson, happily married, have three adult children. Charlie, their youngest, just left for college. Which term is used to describe when parents are alone again after the children have left? Is this a stressful time for the majority of middle-aged adults? Explain.

ANSWER: The Carsons are experiencing the empty nest. No, this is not necessarily a stressful time. For many couples, this is a time for improved relationships. Simply having time for each other, without crying babies, demanding children, or rebellious teenagers, improves intimacy. Parents can focus on their mates, doing together whatever they both enjoy.

97. When adult children live apart from their parents, what usually happens to the parent–child relationship?

How might parents support their adult children?

ANSWER: When adult children live apart from their parents, the parent–child relationship seems to become stronger, not weaker. However, parents support their adult children in numerous ways. Parents may provide adult children with a place to live. In addition, parents may provide financial and emotional support to their adult children.

98. Indicate how being a parent could satisfy generativity. Identify the four different kinds of parents.

ANSWER: The chief form of generativity is establishing and guiding the next generation, which is accomplished through parenthood. Many adults pass along their values as they respond to the hundreds of requests and unspoken needs of their children each day, thus being generative. The four different kinds of parents are (1) biological parents, (2) adoptive parents, (3) stepparents, and (4) foster parents.

99. Tammy and Tom, who are American, recently adopted a baby from China. If Tammy and Tom are like many adoptive parents, how will they ensure that their daughter learns about her heritage and some of the challenges that she may face as she grows up?

ANSWER: Many parents who adopt multiethnic babies seek multiethnic family friends and educate their children about their heritage and the prejudice they may encounter. Such socialization often occurs within minority families for their biological children. When adoptive parents do so, their adolescents Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 13 who encounter frequent prejudice experience less stress, because they are ready to counter with pride in their background.

100. Define and provide examples of the extrinsic rewards of work and the intrinsic rewards of work. How do most people's perspectives on the extrinsic and intrinsic rewards of employment change with age and maturity?

ANSWER: The extrinsic rewards of work are the tangible benefits, usually in the form of compensation (e.g., salary, health insurance, pension) that one receives for doing a job. The intrinsic rewards of work are the intangible gratifications (e.g., job satisfaction, self-esteem, pride) that come from within oneself as a result of doing a job.

With age and maturity, adults want more than extrinsic rewards from their work; the importance of intrinsic rewards increases. Extrinsic rewards like salary, employee benefits, and pension plans remain important, but adults tend to find that the more intangible intrinsic rewards, such as friendships with coworkers, pride in a job well done, and the opportunity to make an impact in a field or on the community, are actually more significant to them.

101. Explain three ways in which employment can fulfill generativity needs in adulthood.

ANSWER: Work provides an income, a structure for daily life, a setting for human interaction, and a source of social status and fulfillment. Employment provides opportunities for developing and using personal skills, mentoring and creativity, for supporting one's family financially, and for contributing to the community.

102. Referring to workplace dynamics, what are microaggressions? Provide three examples of microaggressions. In which ways can microaggressions have negative impacts on an individual?

ANSWER: Microaggressions are small things unnoticed by one person that seem aggressive to another. For example, mentioning "senior moments," being "color-blind," the "fairer sex," or the "model minority" can be perceived as aggressive, even when that was not the speaker's intention. [Other answers should be accepted, as long as they meet the criteria for a microaggression.] Even a question like "Where are you from?" may imply that the speaker perceives the individual as being from somewhere else.

Microaggressions can affect anyone who feels different because of their ethnicity, age, gender, sexual orientation, religion, or anything else. One research group has found that older workers are particularly likely to notice ageist microaggressions at their workplace but that some young men also hear microaggressions about them.

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Chapter 14 1. The science that describes populations is called: a. gerontology. b. psychology. c. demography. d. geography.

ANSWER: c 2. While worldwide, 9 percent of the population is over age 65 in the United States it is _____ percent a. 2 b. 17 c. 29 d. 42 ANSWER: b 3. In the past, there were 20 times more children than older people. Currently, there are three times as many children as there are elders. These changes in the age makeup of the population are referred to as a(n): a. population growth. b. cyclical event. c. demographic shift. d. elder explosion.

ANSWER: c 4. What is the fastest-growing age group in the United States? a. 0 to 15 b. 20 to 35 c. 35 to 65 d. 80 and up ANSWER: d 5. In the United States, only 3 percent of older people over the age of 64 live: a. at home. b. in nursing homes. c. with an adult child. d. independently.

ANSWER: b 6. Enid and George, married 52 years, have been living in the same home for the past 30 years. They have a comfortable retirement, and when they need help with something, they can rely on their middle-aged children or young adult grandchildren. However, Enid and George are fiercely independent, providing much more care than they receive. This couple's experience is _____ among elders. a. very common b. somewhat common Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 c. somewhat uncommon d. very uncommon ANSWER: a 7. Which statement is NOT true about most elders? a. Most elders rely on others for basic care. b. Most elders are caregivers rather than receivers of care. c. A minority of elders live with their adult children. d. Three percent of individuals age 60 or older are in nursing homes or hospitals.

ANSWER: a 8. When asked to think of "an elderly person," most people think of a feeble person who lives in a nursing home. Statistics show that the vast majority of people between the ages of 65 and 75 fall in the category of: a. young-old. b. old-old. c. youthfully old. d. independently old.

ANSWER: a 9. The main reason people may not notice the "young-old" is that: a. they do not fit society's stereotypes of the elderly. b. there are relatively few of them. c. they are a problem-prone minority. d. they are not integrated into the community.

ANSWER: a 10. Which group makes up the largest group of older adults? a. "young-old" b. "old-old" c. "oldest-old" d. centenarians ANSWER: a 11. Which distinguishes the "old-old" from the "young-old"? a. years of age b. details of living arrangements c. degree of positive or negative attitude d. reductions in physical or mental ability ANSWER: d 12. Individuals classified as "oldest-old" are usually how old?

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Chapter 14 a. 60 to 65 b. 65 to 75 c. 70 to 85 d. over 85 ANSWER: d 13. The elderly who are dependent and MOST likely to have age-related illnesses are: a. young-old. b. old-old. c. oldest-old. d. sickly old.

ANSWER: c 14. The term ageism refers to: a. the veneration of the elderly. b. judging people on the basis of chronological age. c. the view of society held by older people. d. the demographics of the population pyramid.

ANSWER: b 15. Sarai, age 70, believes they are independent and have personal autonomy. They are likely to be: a. wrong; no one their age can be autonomous. b. mentally and physically healthier than people their age who do not share those beliefs. c. more optimistic than other people their age, but no healthier than they are. d. overstating their sense of well-being.

ANSWER: b 16. Using elderspeak when engaging in conversation with an older adult: a. is demeaning. b. helps the individual comprehend the meaning of the conversation. c. only makes sense if the individual has a hearing aid. d. demonstrates respect and understanding.

ANSWER: a 17. Which vocal characteristic is a feature of elderspeak? a. higher pitch b. faster speech c. bigger words d. elongated pronunciation ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 18. In 2020, COVID-19 deaths reduced the life expectancy by: a. one year b. two years c. four years d. five years ANSWER: b 19. A lifetime of dealing with discrimination and microaggressions can take a toll on the body. This is known as: a. biomarkers. b. weathering. c. the life review. d. universal design.

ANSWER: b 20. A pattern of eating that includes periods of restricted eating interspersed with usual consumption is known as: a. calorie restriction. b. weathering. c. intermittent fasting. d. cellular aging.

ANSWER: c 21. With some cells out of control, _____ is a major cause of all forms of cancer. a. cellular aging b. wear-and-tear c. weathering d. vascular disease ANSWER: a 22. Clayton is 60 years old and now their vision is cloudy, opaque, and distorted. This is likely caused by: a. cataracts. b. glaucoma. c. macular degeneration. d. frontotemporal NCDs. ANSWER: a 23. Aoife is 78 years old and has a buildup of fluid within their eyes that damage the optic nerve. If untreated, this can lead to blindness. Aoife will likely be diagnosed as having: a. cataracts. b. glaucoma.

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Chapter 14 c. macular degeneration. d. frontotemporal NCDs. ANSWER: b 24. Many scientists seek _____ when diagnosing a neurocognitive disorder, which are biological measures, such as in the blood or in brain cells. a. weathering b. biomarkers c. polypharmacy d. ecological validity ANSWER: b 25. Thomas, age 76, tripped on a garden hose and broke his leg. His 17-year-old grandson, Brad, fell while skateboarding and broke his leg. Why is Thomas's injury more of a concern than Brad's injury? a. Thomas is less likely to fully recover than Brad is. b. Thomas is in more pain than Brad is. c. Thomas's tripping may be the first sign of Parkinson's disease. d. It is not more of a concern. Brad's break may impede normal development and is the more worrisome event.

ANSWER: a 26. Harris has Parkinson’s disease and is experiencing a decline in functioning of the heart, lungs, and digestive system. Their physician believes that this indicates that death will occur within the next few months. Harris is experiencing: a. vascular disease. b. polypharmacy. c. terminal decline. d. weathering.

ANSWER: c 27. Which theory of aging proposes that the body breaks down, part by part, after years of use? a. wear-and-tear b. secondary aging c. free-radical hypothesis d. cellular accident ANSWER: a 28. The wear-and-tear theory of aging is weakened by the fact that: a. the human body cannot repair itself. b. many parts of the body wear out from use. c. many body functions benefit from use. d. machines cannot grow old.

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Chapter 14 ANSWER: c 29. The concept of aging as a result of cellular duplication errors is based on the fact that the body's ability to make new cells that are exact copies of the original ones: a. stops at about age 18. b. stops at about age 80. c. becomes less able to repair duplication errors. d. continues unchanged throughout life.

ANSWER: c 30. Maximum life span is defined as the: a. number of years a newborn is likely to live. b. risk of mortality. c. average age at death. d. upper limit to which members of a species can live.

ANSWER: d 31. Which statement about cellular aging is TRUE? a. Cells can replicate indefinitely, but errors do occur. b. Aging may be caused by the inevitable loss of the ability of cells to duplicate perfectly. c. Damage is caused by free radicals that slow down the cell duplication process. d. Cells from adults are able to duplicate more quickly and more times than are cells from embryos.

ANSWER: b 32. Verbal recall without clues is to _____ as performing a habit is to _____. a. explicit memory; implicit memory b. semantic memory; associative memory c. episodic memory; implicit memory d. implicit memory; episodic memory ANSWER: a 33. The very ends of chromosomes in cells that may be correlated with longevity are known as: a. B cells. b. T cells. c. alleles. d. telomeres.

ANSWER: d 34. Calorie restriction may: a. slow down aging. b. speed up aging.

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Chapter 14 c. increase the risk of diabetes. d. increase the rate of death.

ANSWER: a 35. The maximum life span is _____ years for humans. a. 13 b. 55 c. 122 d. 180 ANSWER: c 36. _____ is the oldest possible age that members of a species can attain, whereas _____ is how long an average newborn in a particular place is likely to live. a. Maximum life span; average life expectancy b. Average life expectancy; maximum life span c. Average life span; Hayflick limit d. Hayflick limit; maximum life expectancy ANSWER: a 37. Creating settings and equipment so that they can be used by everyone—able-bodied, sensory-acute, or not —is known as: a. control processes. b. universal design. c. the Hayflick limit. d. the built environment.

ANSWER: b 38. Which statement is NOT true regarding sexuality in late adulthood? a. Intercourse becomes less frequent. b. Sexual activity in late adulthood is an example of selective optimization. c. Women stop intercourse earlier than men for biological reasons. d. Sexual satisfaction may increase after middle age.

ANSWER: c 39. Which situation is NOT an example of a healthy approach to sexuality in older adulthood? a. Claire and Sam, married 45 years, have sexual intercourse three times a month and feel completely satisfied with hugs and kisses in between. b. After the divorce, Virginia has relegated sexual intercourse to their past and doesn't seek sexual connections with new partners. c. After the death of their husband of 35 years, Beverly invited their new romantic partner to live with them. They sleep in the guest bedroom, and they live apart together. d. Recently, Tony read an article that said that elderly couples can have sexual lives that are just as Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 active as they did in earlier adulthood. They have been pressuring their wife, Margaret, to have sex with them every night since then.

ANSWER: d 40. Although they have sex less frequently than they used to, more elderly couples report that their sex life has _____ rather than _____. a. improved; deteriorated b. deteriorated; improved c. remained the same; ceased d. ceased; remained the same ANSWER: a 41. Now that Geo is 70, they use selective optimization with compensation while driving. For example, they: a. drive only at night, when fewer cars are on the road. b. rely only on rearview and side mirrors so they won't hurt their neck turning their head. c. drive more slowly. d. drive fast to get home as soon as possible to avoid accidents.

ANSWER: c 42. When you remember the details of when you first learned how to ride a bike, you are remembering a(n): a. semantic memory. b. associative memory. c. episodic memory. d. explicit memory.

ANSWER: c 43. Which strategy is crucial when older people have sensory loss? a. acceptance b. isolation c. compensation d. retirement ANSWER: c 44. Approximately _____ percent of people over age 65 can see well without glasses. a. 1 b. 5 c. 10 d. 25 ANSWER: c 45. As stated in the text, which sound does an older adult lose the ability to detect first?

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Chapter 14 a. a car horn b. the voice of a small child c. a voice on the telephone d. a train whistle ANSWER: b 46. With age, which change occurs in the brain? a. All growth ceases. b. Activity level always increases. c. Using both hemispheres simultaneously becomes more likely. d. Plaque and tangles form.

ANSWER: c 47. Compared with younger adults, older adults: a. are more likely to rely on the right hemisphere of the brain. b. experience greater decline in right hemisphere functioning rather than in left hemisphere functioning. c. use more parts of their brains, including both hemispheres, to solve problems. d. are less intellectually sharp but faster at information-processing tasks.

ANSWER: c 48. In a research study, elders who had been exposed to ageist beliefs their whole lives displayed poorer memory than younger participants and other elders who had not been exposed to ageist beliefs. This outcome was MOST likely due to: a. stereotype threat. b. cultural differences in age-related changes. c. increased confidence among the younger participants. d. ageism among the researchers.

ANSWER: a 49. Which change happens to the brain during senescence? a. Neural fluid increases. b. Myelination thickens. c. Neurotransmitter production decreases. d. The corpus callosum increases.

ANSWER: c 50. Overall brain slowdown is evident in which way? a. faster reaction time b. slower reaction time c. faster thinking d. increased sensory perception Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 ANSWER: b 51. Which variable is NOT correlated with reduced deterioration of cognition? a. physical exercise b. physical disability c. good physical health d. level of education ANSWER: b 52. White matter lesions start to appear on MRIs after age 50 or so. Which statement about these lesions is FALSE? a. They slow transmission from one neuron to the next. b. They increase the time it takes to think. c. They may disrupt transmission from parts of the cortex and cerebellum. d. They encourage the processing of novel stimuli.

ANSWER: d 53. Cheema, age 78, believes their memory is fading with age, and the anxiety this causes them actually diminishes their memory. This is an example of: a. sensory threshold. b. source amnesia. c. stereotype threat. d. information processing.

ANSWER: c 54. Chris, age 75, just relayed a news story to their friends over coffee but cannot remember where they heard or read the information. Chris has: a. sensory threshold. b. source amnesia. c. stereotype threat. d. hindered information processing.

ANSWER: b 55. The primary reason older people receive less input into their brains is that: a. they are less interested in new things. b. their senses decline, reducing the sensory input. c. their thresholds increase, reducing sensory input. d. they are not able to store information effectively.

ANSWER: b 56. Which individual's behavior is an example of prospective memory? a. Evelyn remembers that they are meeting friends for lunch tomorrow.

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Chapter 14 b. James remembers that they had lunch with friends yesterday. c. Jason remembers that they used to bring their lunch to work every day. d. Simone remembers that they forgot to eat lunch at noon.

ANSWER: a 57. Older adults have _____ vocabularies and _____ fluency. a. extensive; limited b. extensive; extensive c. limited; limited d. limited; extensive ANSWER: a 58. As an individual ages, small sensory losses, such as a decreased ability to hear nuances of emotion in speech: a. impair cognition. b. are noticed immediately by the person experiencing them. c. are unusual and usually a sign of a serious problem. d. are sufficiently filled in by the brain.

ANSWER: a 59. The usual path of cognition in late adulthood as measured by psychological tests is gradual decline.

However, because _____ are the aspects of cognition that fade most with age, such tests may be culturally fair but age-unfair. a. practical thinking and processing speed b. abstract thinking and processing speed c. creative thinking and application of material d. autonomous thinking and creativity ANSWER: b 60. The idea that cognition should be measured in terms of everyday tasks and circumstances is known as: a. priming. b. recall. c. recognition. d. ecological validity.

ANSWER: d 61. For the average individual in late adulthood, traditional tests of intelligence demonstrate that: a. cognitive abilities remain stable. b. cognitive abilities continue to increase. c. cognitive abilities decline. d. some cognitive abilities increase, and others decline.

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Chapter 14 ANSWER: c 62. _____ has the highest proportion of elderly in the world. a. The United States b. Bulgaria c. Sweden d. Japan ANSWER: d 63. The medication that reduces hypertension in middle-aged adults can _____ for the oldest-old. a. be harmful b. be more effective c. cause hallucinations d. cost too much ANSWER: a 64. Which term would be ageist? a. dementia b. major neurocognitive disorder c. delirium d. senility ANSWER: d 65. Dementia is: a. benign forgetfulness. b. a problem that affects most of the elderly. c. a problem that affects only the elderly. d. the pathological loss of brain functioning.

ANSWER: d 66. According to the most recent DSM (DSM-5), dementia is now referred to as: a. mental aging. b. major neurocognitive disorder. c. delirium. d. senility.

ANSWER: b 67. People who are diagnosed with neurocognitive disorders will: a. return to their previous cognitive functioning over time. b. display progressively worse cognitive functioning over time. c. have significant problems with memory.

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Chapter 14 d. suffer from major cognitive losses.

ANSWER: c 68. People who inherit one copy of _____ have about a 50/50 chance of developing Alzheimer's disease. a. ApoE4 b. daf-2 c. IGF-1 d. RNAI ANSWER: a 69. Autopsies show that the brains of Alzheimer's disease victims: a. have a proliferation of plaques and tangles. b. exhibit damage from strokes. c. have shrunk to half of normal size. d. appear to be normal.

ANSWER: a 70. Brains of Alzheimer's disease victims display plaques, which are _____, and tangles, which are _____. a. a protein called tau; a protein called beta-amyloid b. a protein called beta-amyloid; a protein called tau c. presenilin 1; presenilin 2 d. amyloid precursor protein; presenilin ANSWER: b 71. Jerry developed Alzheimer's disease well before the age of 60; early Alzheimer's disease is associated with a condition that Jerry was born with called: a. Pick disease. b. trisomy-21. c. cerebral palsy. d. Huntington's disease.

ANSWER: b 72. Jeneeza was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease while in middle adulthood. Their doctor told their family that compared to the kind of Alzheimer's disease that develops in old age, this version: a. is much more benign. b. progresses more rapidly. c. progresses more slowly. d. has many more symptoms.

ANSWER: b 73. Researchers believe that Alzheimer's disease is _____ genetic.

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Chapter 14 a. not b. completely c. partly d. rarely ANSWER: c 74. When Alzheimer's disease sets in early and affects those under age 60, the final phase of the disease typically occurs around _____ years after the first signs of the disease appear. a. 1 to 2 b. 3 to 5 c. 6 to 9 d. 10 to 15 ANSWER: b 75. Vascular disease is caused by: a. Alzheimer's disease. b. inadequate nutrition. c. insufficient supply of blood to the brain. d. environmental toxins.

ANSWER: c 76. Claire suffered a transient ischemic attack, or ministroke. The symptoms disappeared shortly thereafter and the ministroke went unnoticed by friends and family. What is likely to happen next? a. Claire will continue to lead a full, active life, because ministrokes are isolated events that do not often happen again. b. Claire will develop Parkinson's disease. c. Claire will need physical therapy to prevent future problems. d. Claire will most likely have other strokes; the first one was a warning.

ANSWER: d 77. John underwent major surgery that required general anesthesia. Which neurocognitive complication, although rare, is possible as a result? a. ministroke b. Alzheimer's disease c. dementia d. mild neurocognitive disorder ANSWER: a 78. The MOST common form of frontotemporal NCD is: a. Alzheimer's disease. b. vascular disease.

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Chapter 14 c. Lewy body dementia. d. Pick disease.

ANSWER: d 79. Which neurocognitive disorder is MOST likely to occur prior to age 70? a. Alzheimer's disease b. vascular disease c. frontotemporal lobar degeneration d. Lewy body dementia ANSWER: c 80. The main symptom of frontotemporal NCD is: a. personality change. b. memory loss. c. seizures. d. tremor.

ANSWER: a 81. The major cause of Parkinson's disease is: a. loss of dopamine-producing neurons. b. overabundance of dopamine-producing neurons. c. loss of serotonin-producing neurons. d. overabundance of serotonin-producing neurons.

ANSWER: a 82. Parkinson's disease produces dementia as well as: a. flabbiness in the muscles. b. rigidity in the muscles. c. many little strokes. d. high blood pressure.

ANSWER: b 83. Recently, Kieran has had difficulty lifting their feet to climb steps. Sometimes their hands tremble when they are drinking their afternoon cup of coffee. Which neurocognitive disorder are they likely suffering from? a. Alzheimer's disease b. vascular disease c. Parkinson's disease d. Pick disease ANSWER: c 84. Some dementias, including _____, begin with impaired motor control.

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Chapter 14 a. Alzheimer's disease b. vascular disease c. Parkinson's disease d. Pick disease ANSWER: c 85. Erica has dementia. Their motor control and memory has been affected. Even so, their impairment is not the most significant symptom of the condition, which is their loss of inhibition, evident in their chronic gambling.

Erica MOST likely has _____ disease. a. Lewy body b. vascular c. Parkinson's d. Pick ANSWER: a 86. A main symptom in Lewy body disease is loss of: a. inhibition. b. memory. c. speech. d. small motor control.

ANSWER: a 87. Darrell, who played soccer in high school, college, and into their early thirties, received at least 10 head injuries in their athletic career. Eight of these have caused severe concussions. Now, at age 60, Darrell is experiencing memory loss and mood swings. Darrell probably has: a. Pick disease. b. chronic traumatic encephalopathy. c. Huntington's disease. d. Lewy body disease.

ANSWER: b 88. Which is the MOST important nongenetic factor in preventing the onset of cognitive impairment? a. good nutrition b. physical exercise c. mental exercise d. mindful meditation ANSWER: b 89. Which behavior is a characteristic of frontotemporal NCD? a. more careful planning b. deterioration of social behavior Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 c. pronounced emotional involvement d. memory loss ANSWER: b 90. One infectious disease that can cause neurocognitive disorders is: a. tuberculosis. b. AIDS. c. sickle-cell anemia. d. pneumonia.

ANSWER: b 91. The MOST common reversible condition that is mistaken for major neurocognitive disorder is: a. depression. b. anxiety. c. diabetes. d. high blood pressure.

ANSWER: a 92. Since Dwayne's wife died, he has been eating the exact same thing—and a very small amount of it—for breakfast and lunch every day. Most nights, he skips dinner. Sometimes he seems confused when his granddaughter calls to check in on him. Based solely on this information, which diagnosis is MOST likely? a. Malnutrition is causing symptoms that mimic dementia. b. He must have had a ministroke. c. He is likely in the early stages of Alzheimer's disease. d. Lewy body dementia is the most likely cause of his symptoms.

ANSWER: a 93. _____ occurs because many elderly people take many different prescription drugs. a. Polypharmacy b. Undernourishment c. Reversible dementia d. Pick's disease ANSWER: a 94. Which statement is NOT a reason why prescription drugs may produce more severe side effects in the elderly? a. Recommended doses are based on younger adults. b. Clinical trials exclude people with multiple diseases. c. The elderly are less likely to miss a dose. d. Metabolism is slower in the elderly.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 14 95. The fact that many elderly people take many different medications means that: a. they are less likely to have adverse reactions. b. their dosages should be gradually increased. c. the drugs can interact and produce adverse reactions. d. they are especially aware of the possibility of drug overdose.

ANSWER: c 96. _____ can cause cognitive loss. a. Untreated diabetes b. Pregnancy c. Exercise d. Lipids ANSWER: a 97. Abraham Maslow maintains that older adults are _____ to reach self-actualization. a. more likely than younger people b. less likely than younger people c. just as likely as younger people d. too emotionally impaired ANSWER: a 98. Erik Erikson calls elders "_____," because he believes they are both aware of the interdependence of the generations and have a broad view of the human experience. a. the keepers of the flame b. self-actualized c. social witnesses d. cognitively superior ANSWER: c 99. According to Erik Erikson, which does NOT characterize self-actualization? a. spiritual understanding b. the longing for a secure and stable home c. an appreciation for or an engagement in artistic pursuits d. philosophical reflection ANSWER: b 100. According to the text, the fact that many older people begin to demonstrate an interest in painting, music, or woodworking supports the idea that older people: a. are generally very bored. b. develop an appreciation for the aesthetic. c. still have a drive for power and prestige.

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Chapter 14 d. become less interested in being with other people.

ANSWER: b 101. Which statement about learning late in life is FALSE? a. Learning new knowledge is possible, but gaining new skills is not possible. b. People younger than 80 can learn almost anything if the training is targeted to their ability and motivation. c. Regular practice is the key to learning anything new. d. Developmentalists do not discourage older adults from trying to learn new things.

ANSWER: a 102. Cora has begun keeping a detailed journal that includes stories of their childhood, early adulthood, and adult life. Cora plans to pass the journal down to their grandchildren as a family history so that they can know them in a more intimate way. The journal is known as: a. an aesthetic summary. b. a cathartic evaluation. c. a life review. d. confessional psychotherapy.

ANSWER: c 103. A challenge faced by researchers who want to see whether wisdom increases with age is that: a. most of the older people they want to study die. b. there are no established ways to study change over time. c. the definition of wisdom varies by culture. d. it is difficult to find participants for a study that requires self-reflection.

ANSWER: c 104. Which factor is NOT associated with wisdom? a. putting aside one's personal needs b. quickly solving novel problems c. self-reflective honesty d. perspective on past living ANSWER: b 105. You are preparing a talk on the demographic shift that has occurred in the population over the past century.

How do you plan to summarize this? Make sure to provide at least three factors that help account for this shift.

ANSWER: During the past century, the ratio of people under age 15 to over age 65 has moved from 20:1 to the current level of 3:1. Reasons for the demographic shift include (1) the lower birth rate, (2) the improved ability to survive serious illnesses, (3) an increase in the food supply, (4) the higher likelihood of surviving early adulthood, and (5) improved health care and medications.

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Chapter 14 106. Gerontologists have distinguished between three types of aging adults. List and describe each type.

ANSWER: (1) The young-old is the largest group of older adults. They are healthy, active, financially secure, and independent. Few people notice them or realize their age. (2) Adults in the old-old group suffer some losses in the body, mind, or social support, but they proudly care for themselves. (3) Adults in the oldest-old group are dependent, and they are the most noticeable.

107. You have been hired by an organization that advocates for the elderly. Explain why ageism is a concern, and why it is important to reduce it.

ANSWER: Ageism is comparable to racism and sexism—it creates unfair stereotypes of all members of a group. When applied to the elderly, few people seem concerned about it, because it is institutionalized in American culture. Because ageist attitudes may seem kind or benevolent, they are insidious. Even elders seem to accept stereotypes about the old and conclude that either they are different from the norm or that they will inevitably fulfill the stereotypes. Stereotype threat can reduce performance on tasks, further cementing ageist beliefs. Elders who believe ageist stereotypes are more likely to have heart disease, and ageist attitudes affect elders' vitality and health. Multiple studies have proven that ageism undercuts ability.

108. Explain the three theories of aging.

ANSWER: Three theories of aging explain why no one can live forever: (1) Wear-and-tear—The body wears out from use.

(2) Genetic adaptation—There is a genetically programmed time to begin aging that differs from person to person; evidence for genetic aging comes from premature aging experienced by children.

(3) Cellular aging—Cells stop replacing themselves, and the body is no longer able to fix every cellular error; even without specific infections or stresses, healthy cells stop replicating at a certain point referred to as the "Hayflick limit."

109. You are the head nurse of a gerontology unit in a hospital. You have been asked to prepare a workshop for new staff and clinicians about how to communicate effectively with elderly patients. Identify three specific agerelated changes that might influence an elderly patient's ability to understand and follow medical advice.

ANSWER: It is essential that (1) the patient comprehend procedures. Therefore, make sure that the patient has the necessary assistance for sensory losses—that is, (2) make sure hearing aids are in during physician rounds, (3) ensure that the patient has their glasses on, and (4) have follow-up instructions printed in large print for the patient to take home and follow. In addition, staff should (5) avoid elderspeak, which may offend and actually reduce the speaker's understandability.

110. Enriquetta just turned Enriquetta's children have become concerned about her driving and are pressuring her to sell her car and take public transportation (or to call one of them when she needs to run errands).

Referring to the biological process of aging, how have Enriquetta's driving skills likely changed with age? If she is like most aging adults, how has she compensated for these changes? Why is Enriquetta reluctant to take her children's advice?

ANSWER: With age, reading road signs takes longer, turning the head becomes harder, reaction time slows, and night vision worsens. Few older drivers notice the impact of these losses. Hearing and vision are not as acute, reaction time is slower, and grip strength is reduced. Another common problem is less accuracy in estimating the speed of oncoming cars.

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Chapter 14 Enriquetta has likely compensated by driving slowly and reducing her driving in the dark.

In the United States, driving is a source of pride, and cars are tools of independence; many elders, like Enriquetta, are reluctant to quit. They know that some critics are ageist and that some family members are overprotective. Consequently, many old people reject age-based advice and/or restrictions.

111. Describe the brain shrinkage that occurs in late adulthood. Which brain structures are most affected, and how does the shrinkage affect cognition?

ANSWER: In every part of the brain, the volume of gray matter is reduced, but especially in the prefrontal cortex. The hippocampus also shrinks. Because the prefrontal cortex is involved in planning and inhibition, control processes are reduced. Because the hippocampus is involved in working memory, executive function declines. White matter generally is reduced as well. The widespread reduction in gray matter results in a general slowdown of cognition and affects response times and access to information stored in memory. However, older adults compensate by using more parts of their brains, including both hemispheres, to solve problems.

112. An older relative is showing signs of dementia. They forget things and are disoriented, especially when riding in a car. What is the best way to determine whether they are suffering from Alzheimer's disease, and what other problems could cause such symptoms?

ANSWER: The relative must be examined by a physician to rule out physical problems, such as (1) medication interactions, (2) polypharmacy, (3) malnutrition, and (4) dehydration. Psychological problems, such as (5) depression, should also be considered. The relative severity of the problem should be carefully evaluated, and the progression of cognitive deficits should be analyzed.

Stages of Alzheimer's Disease Stage 1. People in the first stage forget recent events or new information, particularly names and places. This first stage is similar to mild cognitive impairment—even experts cannot always tell the difference.

Stage 2. Generalized confusion develops, with deficits in concentration and short-term memory.

Speech becomes aimless and repetitious, vocabulary is limited, and words get mixed up. Personality traits are not curbed by rational thought.

Stage 3. Memory loss becomes dangerous.

Stage 4. At this stage, full-time care is needed. People cannot communicate well. They might not recognize their closest loved ones.

Stage 5. Finally, people with Alzheimer's disease become unresponsive. Identity and personality have disappeared.

113. George, age 65, started experiencing rigidity in their left leg and right hand about six months ago. More recently, they have noticed that their legs tremble sometimes when they stand up. On more than one occasion, George has spilled coffee on their shirt due to shaky hands. Which disorder does George likely have? Make sure to provide a definition. What causes this disorder?

ANSWER: George likely has Parkinson's disease, a progressive disease that is characterized by muscle tremors and rigidity and sometimes major neurocognitive disorder. Parkinson's disease is caused by reduced dopamine production in the brain.

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Chapter 14 114. You are concerned that your grandfather may be experiencing polypharmacy. What is polypharmacy, how can you recognize it, and what should be done about it?

ANSWER: Polypharmacy occurs when multiple prescription medications and even over-the-counter supplements interact with one another to produce dementia-like symptoms. If a person is displaying confusion and/or loss of memory, the first task should be to examine the medicine cabinet. Most doctors ask their patients whether they are taking any medications, but a patient may not respond accurately or even recall all the drugs that they are taking. A list of all the grandfather's medications and their strengths should be presented to a physician so that they can determine whether polypharmacy is an issue.

115. Jose just turned 19 and is planning to attend their grandfather's 78th birthday party next week. Jose comments to their father, "Wow, Grandpa is really old. I guess they’re too old to learn anything new, huh?" Is Jose’s belief correct? Explain, citing research on new cognitive development in aging adults.

ANSWER: Jose is not correct. In fact, cognitive development is possible in late adulthood. Research on adult cognition finds that older adults can learn and may maintain new skills if they are used regularly.

Research has shown that people younger than age 80 can learn almost any cognitive skill if the educational process is carefully targeted to the individual's motivation and ability. Many older people are able to use selective adaptation with compensation to develop new ways to do things.

Erik Erikson has also found that the elderly are more interested in arts, children, and the whole of human experience than they were when they were younger. Therefore, the best may lie ahead, rather than behind, for Marshall's grandfather.

116. Describe at least three ways in which creativity changes in late adulthood.

ANSWER: Many experts believe that pursuing creative activities—poetry and pottery, jewelry making and quilting, music and sculpture—can benefit all the elderly. Old age can be a time of emotional sensory awareness and enjoyment. (1) Without the fears of being judged that come with ambition, the elderly can express their creativity freely. They are (2) focused, (3) efficient, and (4) committed.

Indeed, many great artists made their (5) biggest contributions in their later years. Best of all, expressing creativity in old age can aid in one's social skills, resilience, and brain health.

117. What is wisdom? Which characteristics make a person wise? Identify someone (living or dead) who you think has/had wisdom and discuss why you think that person is/was wise.

ANSWER: According to Paul Baltes and Jacqui Smith, wisdom is an "expert knowledge system dealing with the conduct and understanding of life." Wisdom is often associated with age, although age does not always yield wisdom. Wise people are rare at any age. Research shows that starting around age 25, some adults worldwide of every age are wise, but most, even at age 80, are not.

Characteristics associated with wisdom include (1) a broad, practical approach to life; (2) insight into the complexities and uncertainties of human nature; and (3) reliance on enduring truths rather than quick fixes to problems. The elements of wisdom include (1) the ability to put aside one's personal needs (self-actualization), (2) self-reflective honesty (integrity), and (3) perspective on past living (the life review).

Students should articulate how the wise individuals they select demonstrate insight, perspective, and altruism.

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Chapter 15 1. Self theories emphasize: a. social forces. b. levels of discrimination. c. perceptions of self. d. circumscribed opportunities.

ANSWER: c 2. Erik Erikson called the final crisis of development: a. optimization versus compensation. b. generativity versus stagnation. c. integrity versus despair. d. activity versus disengagement.

ANSWER: c 3. According to Erik Erikson, the dichotomy of integrity versus despair is the focus of: a. adolescence. b. early adulthood. c. middle adulthood. d. late adulthood.

ANSWER: d 4. Yonita is 85 and looks back at their life with pride, even though some aspects of their personal history include errors on their part. Yonita is in the stage that Erik Erikson called: a. generativity versus stagnation. b. optimization versus compensation. c. activity versus disengagement. d. integrity versus despair.

ANSWER: d 5. According to Erik Erikson, each new experience throughout life requires: a. both assimilation and accommodation. b. a reassessment of identity. c. selective optimization. d. stratification.

ANSWER: b 6. Marla was asked to select an object from their life that had sentimental value to them. They chose a small tarnished picture frame with a photo of them with their mother, taken when they were a girl. Their selection demonstrates their attempt to: a. portray her object as a valued antique. b. be young again.

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Chapter 15 c. hold on to her identity. d. be more like her mother.

ANSWER: c 7. Brynne has accumulated such large piles of old papers and magazines that they can no longer use the table, and they have held on to so much furniture and clothing that many rooms in their home cannot be entered. In their attempt to hang on to various material items from their life, Brynne developed: a. a positivity effect. b. a good strategy for aging in place. c. universal design. d. compulsive hoarding.

ANSWER: d 8. Many elderly hoarders grew up: a. in the Great Depression. b. in middle-class families. c. during the turn of the century. d. in western states.

ANSWER: a 9. In older adults, a positive worldview _____ according to the socioemotional selectivity theory. a. correlates with less well-being b. correlates with believing that life is meaningful c. is associated with increased family conflict d. is associated with increased responsiveness to regretful events ANSWER: b 10. The view that older people choose familiar social contacts who reinforce their generativity, pride, and joy is referred to as: a. integrity versus despair. b. socioemotional selectivity theory. c. stratification theory. d. disengagement theory.

ANSWER: b 11. Theories that describe the ways in which societies place people on a particular life path are called: a. self theories. b. stratification theories. c. continuity theories. d. activity theories.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 12. Gender-stratification theory recognizes that men and women are pushed into certain roles because of their sex, roles that may ultimately: a. limit women but not men. b. harm them in late adulthood. c. keep society intact. d. make them better spouses.

ANSWER: b 13. Longevity itself may result from lifelong _____, in this case harming men. a. income discrepancies b. gender stratification c. prejudice d. social disengagement ANSWER: b 14. _____ theories claim that social forces limit individual choice and direct life, especially in late adulthood. a. Dynamic b. Self c. Stratification d. Stage ANSWER: c 15. Age, gender, ethnicity, and income are the four major categories of _____; as such, they can limit choice at every stage of life. a. cognitive development b. socioeconomic status c. self theories d. stratification ANSWER: d 16. Older immigrants tend to be: a. happy and financially stable due to retirement savings. b. well integrated into extended-family life, as is the norm in the United States. c. isolated but provided for by social welfare programs. d. lonely and poor, without a U.S. work history or the benefit of extended-family life to support them.

ANSWER: d 17. _____ may magnify stratification of gender, ethnicity, and immigration history. a. Social status b. Marriage c. Income Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 d. Retirement ANSWER: c 18. The crucial stratification variable in the well-being of the elderly is _____, which causes a lifetime of stresses including less education, less health care, and accumulating disadvantages of many kinds. a. the age of retirement b. low income c. age d. family size ANSWER: b 19. The idea that opportunities and roles are determined based on age is referred to as: a. stratification by age. b. selective optimization. c. self-actualization. d. social stagnation.

ANSWER: a 20. The most controversial version of social stratification theory is _____ theory, in part because it can be used to justify ageism and social isolation. a. compensation b. disengagement c. optimization d. activity ANSWER: b 21. A man who is almost 65 years old withdraws from his connections with younger people and his coworkers stop asking him for help. Which theory says this behavior is a natural part of aging? a. continuity b. self-actualization c. selective optimization d. disengagement ANSWER: d 22. The theory that is contrary to disengagement theory is _____ theory. a. epigenetic b. identity c. activity d. feminist ANSWER: c 23. The view that elderly people need to remain energetic in a variety of social spheres is called: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 a. stratification theory. b. positivity effect. c. activity theory. d. disengagement theory.

ANSWER: c 24. Disengagement is more likely among: a. the sandwich generation. b. professional women. c. those low in SES. d. affluent elders.

ANSWER: c 25. Asnah has retired from a career as a city administrator, disengaging from their work life. Disengagement in one area of life: a. means that Asnah will certainly disengage from all other areas of life, too. b. does not necessarily mean that Asnah will disengage from other areas of life. c. proves that disengagement theory is more accurate than activity theory. d. is the start of Asnah's decline.

ANSWER: b 26. Ferguson believes that they have a limited time left to live. They contemplate the meaning of life frequently and try to spend as much time as they can with their family and friends. Which theory would BEST predict this behavior? a. integrity versus despair b. socioemotional selectivity theory c. stratification theory d. disengagement theory ANSWER: b 27. Which theory is a specific version of selective optimization with compensation? a. integrity versus despair b. socioemotional selectivity theory c. stratification theory d. disengagement theory ANSWER: b 28. The tendency for elderly people to perceive, prefer, and remember optimistic images and experiences more than negative ones is referred to as: a. positivity effect. b. happiness paradox.

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Chapter 15 c. race crossover. d. stratification.

ANSWER: a 29. The traditional roles of married couples are less rigid during: a. early adulthood. b. emerging adulthood. c. middle adulthood. d. late adulthood.

ANSWER: d 30. Contributing to the welfare and well-being of others is to _____ as motivation to help others is to _____. a. prosociality; antisociality b. antisociality; prosociality c. altruism; antisociality d. prosociality; altruism ANSWER: d 31. Low birthweight is associated with all of these EXCEPT: a. obesity. b. diabetes. c. heart disease. d. arthritis.

ANSWER: d 32. Income stratification is most likely to have the greatest impact among: a. adolescents. b. young adults. c. the young-old. d. the old-old.

ANSWER: d 33. Immigrant elders are generally happier with their lives than nonimmigrants. This is referred to as the: a. race crossover. b. happiness paradox. c. positivity effect. d. stratification.

ANSWER: b 34. Wayne is in late adulthood and has fond memories of childhood and early adulthood but seems to have forgotten negative experiences. This can BEST be explained by: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 a. positivity effect. b. happiness paradox. c. race crossover. d. stratification.

ANSWER: a 35. Henry is 82 years old and lives in a community where the roads are not paved. This may lead Henry to be: a. disengaged. b. discriminated against. c. altruistic. d. active.

ANSWER: a 36. Billy is 70 years old and never learned how to read. Their wife, Juanita is 72 years old and can read and write very well. Juanita's literacy is likely to impact Billy in what ways? a. Billy is more likely to experience depression. b. Billy is likely to be a victim of elder abuse. c. Billy is likely to experience reduced physical and mental health. d. Billy is likely to experience better cognition and health.

ANSWER: d 37. Which state is NOT a favorite among the elderly? a. Florida b. Maine c. Utah d. West Virginia ANSWER: c 38. All these workers are quite likely to remain in the paid labor force after age 60 EXCEPT a(n): a. English professor. b. unionized mechanic at a local factory. c. independently employed cleaning woman. d. judge in a state court.

ANSWER: b 39. Older adults who work part-time or become self-employed tend to be _____ than those who work full time or quit completely. a. happier b. more depressed c. more stressed d. sicker Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 ANSWER: a 40. Longitudinal as well as cross-sectional research finds a strong link between _____ and volunteering. a. age b. health c. political affiliation d. vocational identity ANSWER: b 41. Typically, who does more housework after retirement than before? a. children b. hired housecleaners c. hired caregivers d. both men and women ANSWER: d 42. Generally, where do the elderly prefer to live? a. in a planned retirement community b. with their children or other relatives c. in their own homes d. in nursing homes ANSWER: c 43. Barbara and Dennis have lived in the same house for over 40 years. They reared their children there and were actively involved in the neighborhood. As they age, their children want them to move to a nearby small apartment. Like many other older adults, Barbara and Dennis: a. look forward to moving to a new home. b. prefer to age in place. c. are divided on the decision, as women in general prefer to move during retirement. d. would actually prefer to head to a warmer climate than stay local.

ANSWER: b 44. A study examining data from 27 different nations found that _____ is the most important quality among every generation. a. personal safety b. personal status c. family bonds d. family income ANSWER: c 45. When many adults who moved into a neighborhood decades earlier never leave the area, the result is: a. assisted living.

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Chapter 15 b. an empty nest. c. a universal design. d. a naturally occurring retirement community.

ANSWER: d 46. Which state has the highest proportion of people over the age of 65? a. Florida b. California c. Arizona d. Maine ANSWER: a 47. The fact that Maine, Pennsylvania, and West Virginia follow Florida as the states with the highest proportion of residents over age 65 illustrates that: a. most elderly people want to retire to warmer environments. b. only a few states have an adequate number of planned retirement communities. c. most people prefer to age where they have always lived. d. the old tend to congregate in a few parts of the country.

ANSWER: c 48. Religious involvement correlates with _____ because it promotes social relationships and healthy habits. a. higher levels of stress b. better health c. more wealth d. earlier death ANSWER: b 49. Which statement about older people and religion is TRUE? a. Faith communities promote caring relationships. b. Belief in the afterlife may explain the high numbers of suicides among African American women. c. Faith decreases with age and experience. d. Religious identity is never as significant as ethnic identity in the lives of older adults.

ANSWER: a 50. Religious faith is associated with improved psychological health in old age due to: a. the belief that one's particular faith or ethnicity is superior to that of others. b. beliefs that give meaning to life and death. c. a focus on pleasure and immediate needs. d. the regular attendance of religious services.

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Chapter 15 51. What percentage of older adults volunteer in political campaigns? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5 ANSWER: b 52. In what way are older Americans the LEAST politically active? a. voting b. writing letters to elected officials c. staying informed on current events d. volunteering on political campaigns ANSWER: d 53. With regard to elections and public policy debates, the elderly tend to: a. always vote in support of their economic interests. b. uniformly support the candidate or measure endorsed by AARP. c. be divided. d. look to their adult children for guidance.

ANSWER: c 54. Who are ideal convoy members for older adults? a. former spouses b. former teachers c. old friends d. retired bosses or supervisors ANSWER: c 55. Compared to single older adults, elderly spouses tend to be: a. happier and wealthier. b. happier but poorer. c. poorer and less happy. d. wealthier but less happy.

ANSWER: a 56. Life satisfaction for the elderly correlates with: a. work. b. companionship. c. sexual activity. d. income.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 57. The MOST important buffer against the loss that comes from such stressors as retirement or widowhood is having: a. several grandchildren. b. at least one close friend. c. paid caregivers. d. a home of one's own.

ANSWER: b 58. Who is MOST likely to be the healthiest and happiest at age 70? a. Marla, who never married and lives alone b. Kimm, who lives with their husband of 50 years c. Judith, who has been a widow for 16 years and did not remarry d. Sorren, who has been divorced for 23 years and lives with their daughter ANSWER: b 59. Most studies of marriages of long duration find that compared to younger adults, the elderly are: a. more open to the possibility of divorcing. b. happier in their marriages. c. no longer interested in sexual interaction. d. more likely to dwell on areas of disagreement.

ANSWER: b 60. One crucial factor in the success of long-term marriages is: a. a sense of agreement on everything. b. a strong sense of shared experiences. c. a more active sex life. d. the trend toward living apart together.

ANSWER: b 61. George and Janet have been married for 60 years. When asked to share their secret to a long marriage, George MOST likely replied: a. "We spend ample time apart." b. "We have learned how to disagree." c. "She depends on me for money." d. "We each have our own friends instead of a combined social circle."

ANSWER: b 62. A family of many generations but with only a few members of each generation is called a _____ family. a. beanpole b. nuclear Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 c. stratified d. collective ANSWER: a 63. Clarissa is adding a room to the house in anticipation of their elderly parents moving in with them. As their oldest daughter, Clarissa feels obligated to provide care for them out of a sense of: a. filial responsibility. b. family ethics. c. guilt. d. surrogate parenting.

ANSWER: a 64. When it comes to intergenerational relationships, conflict is more likely in _____ relationships than in distant ones. a. married b. long-lasting c. newly formed d. emotionally close ANSWER: d 65. As a value, filial responsibility is especially strong in: a. Europe. b. South America. c. Asia. d. Africa.

ANSWER: c 66. Elders' relationships with members of younger generations: a. include both positive and negative feelings. b. are usually negative but can also have some aspects that are mutually beneficial. c. do not have a significant impact on their life and happiness. d. are usually good with those much younger, such as grandchildren, but strained with those just one generation removed.

ANSWER: a 67. In parent and adult child relationships, _____ feel stronger affection toward their parents. a. daughters b. sons c. those who live physically close together d. those who are emotionally close ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 68. By age 65, what percentage of adults in the United States are grandparents? a. 75 b. 80 c. 85 d. 90 ANSWER: c 69. The effect of COVID-19 on employment demonstrated that: a. younger workers were more likely to keep their job than older workers. b. both younger and older workers were likely to lose their job at the same rate. c. gender stratification impacted who lost their job. d. older workers were more likely to keep their job than younger workers.

ANSWER: d 70. Elderly people who are physically infirm, very ill, or cognitively impaired are referred to as: a. distant grandparents. b. frail elderly. c. dependent old. d. isolated elderly.

ANSWER: b 71. About one-third of older people will be frail for _____ before they die. a. the final month b. at least a year c. approximately a decade d. the last 20 years ANSWER: b 72. ADLs are: a. aged developmental limitations. b. activities of daily life. c. Alzheimer's disease lessons. d. associations for disabled living.

ANSWER: b 73. Which activity is one of the ADLs? a. bathing b. shopping c. paying bills d. preparing a family meal ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 74. In the United States, which activity is one of the IADLs? a. eating b. toileting c. preparing income tax forms d. growing vegetables in a garden ANSWER: c 75. The difference between ADLs and IADLs is that: a. ADLs are simple enough that even the frail elderly can do them independently. b. IADLs are the same across cultures. c. ADLs require professional training. d. IADLs require some intellectual competence.

ANSWER: d 76. Which activity is NOT an instrumental activity of daily life (IADL)? a. preparing food b. going to work c. maintaining a household d. managing personal finances ANSWER: b 77. The responsibility for preventing frailty among the elderly in a society falls to: a. adult children of aging parents. b. governments, families, and individuals. c. the youngest generation and public policy officials. d. medical professionals.

ANSWER: b 78. Which response to weakening leg muscles in an older person is the BEST response in terms of maintaining self-efficacy? a. using a walker and minimizing movement to decrease risks b. beginning a strength-training regimen c. continuing with daily life without change d. moving to an assisted-living facility ANSWER: b 79. Muscles weaken with age, a condition called: a. Huntington's disease. b. muscular dystrophy. c. osteoporosis.

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Chapter 15 d. sarcopenia.

ANSWER: d 80. Which statement about family caregivers of the frail elderly is TRUE? a. Daughters-in-law are often grateful that they can reciprocate for the nurturing they once received. b. Most caregivers have no prior experience taking care of the frail elderly. c. Caregiving is universally a depressing and unrewarding task. d. Public agencies frequently provide services to compensate for needs the caregiver is unable to fulfill.

ANSWER: b 81. Which condition increases the likelihood of elder abuse? a. a demanding care receiver b. a well-paid caregiver c. residence in a state-licensed nursing home d. a caregiver who has only a small number of patients ANSWER: a 82. What is one of the reasons that elder abuse is sometimes difficult to identify? a. Most elders cannot speak for themselves. b. The definition of what constitutes abuse is not clearly defined. c. It is most common in institutions, where inspectors hide problems from view. d. Many elders make false claims, leading to a "boy who cried wolf" phenomenon.

ANSWER: b 83. Which is a sign of a humane setting for long-term care? a. few inspections b. limited privacy c. individual choice in activities d. frequent changes in staff ANSWER: c 84. In the United States, the trend has been toward _____ nursing home residents. a. more b. a stable number of c. fewer d. trying to increase the number of ANSWER: c 85. Which statement about most front-line nursing home employees is FALSE? a. They are most likely to be family members of the residents. b. Training on even very simple tasks is very important.

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Chapter 15 c. Many staff members have many patients. d. Pay is often very low.

ANSWER: a 86. An intermediate form of care for older adults is: a. aging in place. b. assisted living. c. a nursing home. d. spending time in the hospital.

ANSWER: b 87. Those with all of these personality traits EXCEPT ______ are likely to appreciate retirement. a. extraversion b. agreeableness c. consciousness d. neuroticism ANSWER: d 88. Assisted living can be thought of as a combination of: a. hospital care and independent living. b. nursing home care and independent living. c. kinship care and hospital care. d. independent living and aging in place.

ANSWER: b 89. Making a home livable for those who may find it hard to climb the stairs is an example of implementing: a. stratification b. integrity c. the positivity effect d. universal design ANSWER: d 90. Mary is the primary caregiver of her husband, Paul. Mary has no prior experience in caregiving but assumes that it is solely her responsibility. What may happen with Mary? a. She may become depressed but not exhausted. b. She may become exhausted but not depressed. c. She is likely to become both depressed and exhausted. d. She is not likely to become either depressed nor exhausted.

ANSWER: c 91. Spousal caregiving can be considered a _____ for some as it can often lead to exhaustion and poor mental Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 health. a. chronic stressor b. paradox c. stratification d. crossover effect ANSWER: a 92. Which culture holds families fully responsible for elder care? a. European b. American c. African d. Australian ANSWER: c 93. Care of frail elders that combines the caregiving strengths of everyone is called: a. happiness paradox. b. stratification. c. integrated care. d. hospice.

ANSWER: c 94. Multidisciplinary teams are required for successful: a. happiness paradox. b. stratification. c. integrated care. d. hospice.

ANSWER: c 95. Who of these is more likely to believe lies told by political leaders? a. Samiah, who is 18 years old b. Maya, who is 25 years old c. Aidan, who is 70 years old d. Russell, who is 50 years old ANSWER: c 96. Which of these is a prime indicator of senescence? a. positivity b. audition c. altruism d. grip strength ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chapter 15 97. Define the positivity effect and discuss how it benefits the lives of the elderly.

ANSWER: The positivity effect is the tendency for older people to perceive, prefer, and remember positive experiences over negative ones. It allows the elderly to maintain emotional health, as they are able to let go of or downplay difficult and negative events and correlates with the belief that life has meaning. Elders with a positive worldview are likely to be healthier and happier.

98. Applying the four stratification theories discussed in the text, describe three difficulties that a poor elderly minority woman could face in U.S. culture.

ANSWER: A poor elderly minority woman could face many difficulties in U.S. culture. As a poor person, she could have had (1) decreased access to education and health care, and her current access to health care and 2) her financial resources could be strained. As an older person, she could (3) face ageism in many environments, including in medical offices where doctors may be less likely to run diagnostic tests. As a member of a racial or ethnic minority, she could have faced (4) discrimination that would continue in her old age. As a woman, she could be considered by many in the culture to (5) be weak and dependent. All of these factors would (6) increase her allostatic load, (7) negatively impacting her health and well-being in old age.

99. Describe disengagement theory and activity theory, including how each relates to the quality of life in late adulthood.

ANSWER: Disengagement theory holds that as people age, their opportunities for social engagement shrink and people become more isolated; it says that elders voluntarily and progressively withdraw from society.

Activity theory contends that the elderly seek to maintain their relationships and activities, and that if they become isolated, they do so unwillingly. Research shows that elders who remain active are healthiest and happiest; those who become isolated are most often the sickest and poorest.

100. Explain how COVID-19 impacted employment during 2020.

ANSWER: The effects of COVID-19 on employment illustrate specific age differences. Unemployment increased for people of every age, but for both personal and systemic reasons, older workers were far more likely to keep their jobs than younger workers.

101. Inez is interested in volunteering after retirement. What are two benefits of volunteering Inez may experience?

ANSWER: (1) Volunteering is related to positive well-being in later life. (2) A major reason volunteering is beneficial is that it fosters social connections. In addition, studies have found that (3) people who volunteer stay healthier than those who do not volunteer.

102. Explain three aspects of religious involvement that benefit the elderly.

ANSWER: (1) Religious prohibitions positively impact health (such as discouraging drug use or alcohol abuse and encouraging other aspects of clean living); (2) involvement in a religious organization increases opportunities for social engagement and relationships; and (3) religious beliefs give meaning to life and death, reducing the stress associated with aging. (4) A nearby house of worship, where their volunteer efforts and their mere presence are valued, is one reason why American elders prefer to age in place.

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Chapter 15 103. Discuss the changes in marriage that occur in long-term partnerships.

ANSWER: Those in long-term marriages benefit from a lifetime of shared experiences, which often leads them to view their partner in very positive terms. While they may still disagree, (1) they have often learned how to do so with an attitude of mutual respect and (2) without serious fights or taking things too seriously. While the division of labor may be unequal, they have often (3) settled into an established pattern based on strengths, tradition, and past experience and do not take issue with the disparities. Couples use selective optimization with compensation together, with (4) each partner making up for the other's losses. (5) They maintain sexual intimacy, either through intercourse or through other forms of intimate activity.

104. Consider the relationships between elders and their adult children. State two factors that support strong intergenerational relationships and two factors that negatively affect such relationships.

ANSWER: Factors that affect intergenerational relationships include personal contact between older adults and their adult children, the type of assistance the elders may need and their children's ability to provide it, their history of love and respect, and an adult child feeling either a sense of obligation or affection toward the elders 105. Marla is a director of a health department and oversees wellness checks of the elderly. One especially problematic trend is the occurrence of elder abuse. Marla wants to make sure that nurses and mental health technicians know the risk factors for abuse. List three risk factors for elder abuse.

ANSWER: Abuse of elders is most likely under the following circumstances: • The caregiver suffers from emotional problems or substance abuse.

• The care receiver is frail, confused, and demanding.

• The care location is isolated, where visitors are few.

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Epilogue 1. Which statement is a way that death today is different from 100 years ago? a. Death occurs earlier. b. Dying occurs faster. c. Death impacts more children. d. Death has become less familiar.

ANSWER: d 2. Today, newborns are expected to live on average to age: a. 55. b. 61. c. 72. d. 85.

ANSWER: c 3. In many nations, _____ are the fastest-growing age group. a. children b. emerging adults c. infants and toddlers d. centenarians ANSWER: d 4. Themes around death that occur in all of the known ancient cultures include all of these EXCEPT that: a. mourners respond to death with a set of rituals. b. all dead bodies must be buried in the ground. c. actions in life impact what happens after death. d. an afterlife exists.

ANSWER: b 5. One hundred years ago, most people died _____, while today they most often die in a hospital. a. at home b. at birth c. while working d. in public spaces ANSWER: a 6. People in _____ connected death with birth considering that death was interwoven with hope for the future and reverence for the past. a. China b. Australia c. Egypt d. West Africa Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Epilogue ANSWER: d 7. Which of these is NOT a common theme regarding death in every region of the world? a. Actions during life affect destiny after death. b. Reincarnation is immediate. c. The afterlife exists. d. Mourners engaged in actions to prevent the spirit of the dead from haunting them.

ANSWER: b 8. How should adults deal with a child who has encountered death? They should: a. tell the child that the dead person or animal is just sleeping. b. tell the child that it is best not to talk about things that are upsetting. c. listen to the child with full attention when the child talks about the death. d. quickly change the subject when the child talks about the death.

ANSWER: c 9. Children who are terminally ill fear that death means they will be: a. abandoned. b. in pain. c. sad. d. forgotten.

ANSWER: a 10. Abigail's mother has been reluctant to tell her that Grandpa Bo is dead. After keeping Abigail home with a babysitter during the funeral, her mother has said things like, "Grandpa Bo had to go away." But Abigail, who has heard adults talking about the death, senses that her mother is avoiding the topic and has come to the conclusion that: a. adults just want to protect their children. b. the conversations were probably false and Grandpa Bo is just away for a while. c. death is a terrifying topic that even adults can't discuss. d. there are some things kids just shouldn't know.

ANSWER: c 11. Which belief might a typical preschooler hold following the death of their grandfather? a. "I caused my grandfather to die because I told him he was boring." b. "I'm glad my grandfather died, because he was boring." c. "I should bring flowers to my grandmother because my grandfather died." d. "I will say a prayer."

ANSWER: a 12. Adolescents' use of the internet to write to the dead person to vent their grief is: a. unhealthy denial.

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Epilogue b. unhealthy withdrawal from the family. c. an effective way to express their identity concerns. d. a sign of their self-absorption.

ANSWER: c 13. According to _____, adolescents and emerging adults engage in high-risk behaviors in order to cope with their fear of death. a. thanatology b. terror management theory c. reincarnation d. bereavement ANSWER: b 14. In 2017, more people died from _____ than from _____. a. chronic diseases; accidents b. accidents; all the diseases combined c. suicide; accidents d. homicide; suicide ANSWER: b 15. In an effort to reduce binge drinking on campus, the university initiated an information campaign to raise awareness. Within weeks of the beginning of the campaign, binge drinking incidents had increased. What is the BEST explanation for this? a. thanatology b. terror management theory c. belief in reincarnation d. bereavement ANSWER: b 16. Poet Dylan Thomas didn't want his father to die or to go easily into death. Why do adults express this kind of sentiment about other people's deaths? a. It helps them to defend against the fear of death. b. They don't want to lose their loved ones to death. c. They aren't sure they will be able to get time off to attend the funeral. d. It helps keep them motivated to live healthily.

ANSWER: a 17. George, age 50, is terminally ill. George is probably primarily focused on: a. his fear of death. b. the pain he might suffer. c. a fear of leaving something undone.

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Epilogue d. planning his funeral.

ANSWER: c 18. The fact that more people fear flying than driving illustrates that attitudes about death tend to be: a. largely informed by statistics. b. focused on the changes that individuals should make in order to live longer lives. c. major factors in our selection of transit. d. largely irrational.

ANSWER: d 19. In late adulthood, attitudes about death shift. Anxiety _____ while hope _____. a. decreases; increases b. increases; increases c. decreases; decreases d. increases; decreases ANSWER: a 20. Many developmentalists believe that one sign of mental health in older adults is: a. denying death. b. feeling guilty for what is undone. c. accepting mortality. d. focusing on the limits of old age.

ANSWER: c 21. One way that older people cope with their own mortality is through: a. denying death. b. feeling guilty for what is undone. c. engaging in legacy work. d. focusing on the limits of old age.

ANSWER: c 22. Which statement about older adults who think they may die soon is TRUE? a. They are more likely to want to spend time with a family member. b. They are unlikely to believe in some kind of afterlife. c. They give up on living. d. They are unlikely to accept death as a part of life.

ANSWER: a 23. Across cultures, a result of near-death experiences is: a. an increased fear of death. b. scientific data on what happens to the dead.

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Epilogue c. a loss of the will to live. d. a sense of hopefulness.

ANSWER: d 24. Fortuna was in critical condition when they arrived at the ER due to injuries sustained from an automobile accident. Their heart stopped and they almost died, but thanks to quick intervention they survived the ordeal. As they healed, they discussed having the sense of floating in light and experiencing a sense of peace. Fortuna seems to have had a: a. coma. b. near-death experience. c. brush with the afterlife. d. good death.

ANSWER: b 25. Across cultures, those who have a near-death experience often reach a worldview with all of these EXCEPT: a. limitations of social status. b. insignificance of material possessions. c. increased focus on vocational goals. d. narrowness of self-centeredness.

ANSWER: c 26. Which description is NOT a characteristic of a good death? a. peaceful b. quick c. in familiar surroundings d. being alone ANSWER: d 27. In what way has modern medicine made a good death more likely? a. by confining most deaths to hospitals and nursing homes b. by increasing the general levels of health so that most deaths occur in old age c. by not discussing the likelihood of death with patients, so as not to scare them d. by using whatever means necessary to prolong life at all times ANSWER: b 28. Which situation is NOT a way that medical advances have made a bad death more likely? a. Hospitals exclude visitors at the most critical point. b. People are encouraged to fight death with surgery and drugs. c. Death occurs at the end of a long life. d. Drugs are used to manage pain, which can cause delirium or confusion.

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Epilogue ANSWER: c 29. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross proposed _____ sequential stages that dying people go through. a. two b. five c. seven d. ten ANSWER: b 30. According to Elisabeth Kübler-Ross, the first stage of dying is: a. anger. b. denial. c. depression. d. bargaining.

ANSWER: b 31. Mrs. Thomas has been diagnosed with terminal cancer, but insists that they will recover and believes that their laboratory results were mixed up or misinterpreted. Elisabeth Kübler-Ross would say that Mrs. Thomas is in the stage of: a. acceptance. b. bargaining. c. denial. d. depression.

ANSWER: c 32. "Why me? You're an incompetent doctor!" Ted wails when the doctor delivers the news that the cancer has returned, and that Ted has only three months to live. In which of Kübler-Ross's stages is Ted? a. denial. b. anger. c. bargaining. d. depression.

ANSWER: b 33. "Doctor, if you can find a new treatment that will cure me, I will buy the hospital a new cancer wing," Wanda promises. Which of Kübler-Ross's stages is Wanda in? a. denial. b. anger. c. bargaining. d. depression.

ANSWER: c 34. "Dad, why don't we go for a walk? You can watch the kids play soccer at the park," Breanna says. Their Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Epilogue father, who has a terminal cancer, replies, "What's the point? Nothing really matters anymore." Which of Kübler-Ross's stages is Breanna's father in? a. denial. b. anger. c. bargaining. d. depression.

ANSWER: d 35. The work of _____ has been used to describe dying as a movement from a focus on physical needs, through the needs for safety, love, respect, and self-actualization, and finally to the acceptance of death. a. Jean Piaget b. Abraham Maslow c. Sigmund Freud d. B. F. Skinner ANSWER: b 36. According to Abraham Maslow, which stage is involved in the dying process? a. safety b. denial c. forgiveness d. depression ANSWER: a 37. Later in his career, Maslow suggested a possible sixth stage to his hierarchy of needs, _____, which emphasizes the acceptance of death. a. peaceful reflection b. life review c. self-actualization d. self-transcendence ANSWER: d 38. Who opened the first modern hospice? a. Abraham Maslow b. Janet Anderson c. Cecily Saunders d. Addison Freely ANSWER: c 39. Which statement regarding hospice care is TRUE? a. People are only admitted when there is reasonable chance for recovery. b. Patients can only be admitted if death is likely within six months.

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Epilogue c. No medications are available once a patient moves into hospice. d. Currently, no insurance companies cover hospice services.

ANSWER: b 40. Alicia has just entered a hospice and can expect: a. pain management. b. being place on an artificial life-support system. c. restricted visiting hours for family and close friends. d. to be resuscitated if they step breathing on their own.

ANSWER: a 41. Which situation is a common barrier to hospice care? a. Patients and their families may not be accepting death. b. Patients must be within two weeks of death to be admitted. c. Most people prefer to die in a hospital. d. It is currently only available in England.

ANSWER: a 42. In the United States, most deaths occur: a. at home. b. in hospitals. c. in nursing homes. d. at hospice.

ANSWER: b 43. Palliative care: a. is the legal term for a living will. b. does not occur in a hospice setting. c. is not acceptable to most religions. d. provides relief from physical pain.

ANSWER: d 44. The goal of palliative care is to: a. relieve patients from pain and suffering. b. treat terminal illnesses. c. study the experience of the dying. d. treat advanced-stage diseases by any means possible.

ANSWER: a 45. Medication that relieves pain and also slows respiration has a: a. double effect.

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Epilogue b. DNR. c. negative effect. d. positive effect.

ANSWER: a 46. Dr. Vaughn specializes in the relief of pain and suffering. They frequently prescribe pain medicines for patients suffering from a terminal illness. Dr. Vaughn specializes in: a. pharmacy. b. palliative care. c. physician-assisted suicide. d. thanatology.

ANSWER: b 47. Opiates have a double effect, meaning that they both: a. relieve pain and fight many infections. b. reduce sedation and cause delirium. c. relieve pain and slow respiration. d. fight many infections and slow respiration.

ANSWER: c 48. Margaret has just been evaluated by medical professionals. Margaret cannot move any part of their body except for their eyes, but brain waves are still apparent. The doctor explains that Margaret is not dead, but: a. has brain death. b. is in a coma. c. is in a vegetative state. d. has locked-in syndrome.

ANSWER: d 49. A person who is in a state of deep unconsciousness from which they cannot be aroused: a. has brain death. b. is in a coma. c. has slipped into a vegetative state. d. has locked-in syndrome.

ANSWER: b 50. Historically, death was determined by: a. being in a coma. b. low rates of brain activity. c. absence of a heartbeat. d. absences of movement for more than a week.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Epilogue 51. Worldwide, death is determined when: a. the person enters locked-in syndrome. b. the kidneys shut down. c. noticeable respiration ceases. d. brain waves cease.

ANSWER: d 52. In "locked-in syndrome": a. the person is dead. b. the heart has stopped. c. the person is not dead. d. normal brain waves have ceased.

ANSWER: c 53. A person in a state characterized by prolonged cessation of all brain activity, with a complete absence of voluntary movements: a. has brain death. b. is in a coma. c. has slipped into a vegetative state. d. has locked-in syndrome.

ANSWER: a 54. Jed entered a state of deep unconsciousness after a serious automobile accident. Their cognitive functions have ceased though they are still breathing. Their family and friends notice that their eyes have occasionally opened and they have made a few irregular sounds. Jed: a. is in a coma. b. has brain death. c. is in a vegetative state. d. has locked-in syndrome.

ANSWER: c 55. A person with which condition is considered dead? a. a coma b. brain death c. a vegetative state d. locked-in syndrome ANSWER: b 56. In _____, a seriously ill person is allowed to die naturally, without any medical intervention. a. assisted suicide b. passive euthanasia Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Epilogue c. a health care proxy d. active euthanasia ANSWER: b 57. Which situation is an example of passive euthanasia? a. A doctor gives a patient a prescription for a lethal medication. b. A husband injects his wife with an overdose of her medication, without her requesting this of him. c. A patient asks his adult child to give him a lethal injection. d. A doctor does not resuscitate a man who stops breathing after seeing that he had a DNR order.

ANSWER: d 58. A DNR order: a. can be used only by hospice workers. b. allows a natural death. c. is not available to the terminally ill. d. is illegal in most U.S. states.

ANSWER: b 59. An example of active euthanasia is when: a. a doctor does not restore breathing after reading the patient's DNR order. b. health care professionals limit painkilling drugs. c. someone turns off a patient's respirator. d. a patient refuses to eat.

ANSWER: c 60. Roh is suffering from terminal cancer and is in constant pain. They have asked their doctor for a prescription they can use to end their life. If the doctor gives the prescription and Roh uses it to die, it is considered: a. hospice care. b. physician-assisted suicide. c. passive euthanasia. d. palliative care.

ANSWER: b 61. Oregon's law regarding assisted suicide requires the: a. patient to enter hospice care. b. patient's illness to be confirmed by at least four physicians. c. dying person to request the lethal drugs twice orally and once in writing. d. consent of the next of kin.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Epilogue 62. When Oregon residents' reasons for requesting physician-assisted suicide were assessed, which reason was identified as the LEAST common? a. loss of autonomy b. loss of dignity c. increase in pain d. loss of ability to enjoy life ANSWER: c 63. A major argument against legalizing euthanasia is a concern that it may lead toward ending life for people who are disabled, poor, or non-White, creating a: a. passive euthanasia. b. health care proxy. c. slippery slope. d. death panel.

ANSWER: c 64. In Oregon in 2018, which group was MOST likely to use physician-assisted suicide? a. the oldest-old b. the poor c. European Americans d. those with only a high school education ANSWER: c 65. ____ can describe everything regarding end-of-life care. a. Legal proxies b. Advance directives c. Notarized decrees d. Terminal decrees ANSWER: b 66. Some people designate a _____, or another person who can make medical decisions for them if they are unable to do so. a. health care proxy b. living will c. palliative care specialist d. court ANSWER: a 67. A living will is written to indicate: a. that no attempt should be made to revive the person if they stop breathing. b. the way property should be divided among heirs.

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Epilogue c. how to pass along important family stories. d. what medical intervention should be used if the person is not conscious when a decision needs to be made.

ANSWER: d 68. A person whom a dying person designates to make their medical decisions is a(n): a. adult child. b. health care proxy. c. attorney. d. hospice worker.

ANSWER: b 69. The deep sorrow that people feel after the death of another is called: a. grief. b. mourning. c. a near-death experience. d. resilience.

ANSWER: a 70. The type of grief that impedes a person's future life is called _____ grief. a. complicated b. absent c. disenfranchised d. incomplete ANSWER: a 71. Maggie is 6 years old and their grandfather recently passed away. Maggie is likely to believe that: a. their grandfather cares about what they do. b. their grandfather is coming back. c. their grandfather is just sleeping. d. their grandfather is pretending to be asleep.

ANSWER: a 72. Older adults who were securely attached in childhood are more likely to experience _____ grief when a loved one dies. a. absent b. complicated c. normal d. very little ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Epilogue 73. Maxine's father just died. She was very close to him, and simply cannot face the reality of his death. To those around her, it appears that Maxine is not grieving at all. Maxine is experiencing _____ grief. a. complicated b. disenfranchised c. absent d. incomplete ANSWER: c 74. The type of grief in which people are not allowed to mourn publicly because of cultural customs or social restrictions is called _____ grief. a. incomplete b. disenfranchised c. complicated d. absent ANSWER: b 75. Stan's ex-wife died suddenly. Although their two children were included in the memorial service, Stan was intentionally excluded. Because Stan still cared about their ex-wife, they experienced: a. absent grief. b. incomplete grief. c. disenfranchised grief. d. mourning.

ANSWER: c 76. Esther's husband was flying a small plane when it disappeared above a wooded mountainside. Their body was never recovered. Given this fact, which may interfere with the process of grieving, it is likely that Esther is experiencing: a. absent grief. b. incomplete grief. c. disenfranchised grief. d. mourning.

ANSWER: b 77. Which condition may hinder the healing and affirmation of the bereaved? a. experiencing a delay in recovering the body of the deceased b. holding a funeral a few days after the death c. having rosy recollections of the deceased person d. believing in life after death ANSWER: a 78. The public and ritualistic expression of bereavement is called: a. mourning.

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Epilogue b. sadness. c. a near-death experience. d. palliative care.

ANSWER: a 79. An important function of the mourning process is to: a. allow a private expression of pain following a death. b. allow expression of grief publicly. c. identify a point of blame for the death. d. take one's mind off the loss of a loved one.

ANSWER: b 80. Which statement about memorials to the dead is TRUE? a. There is a consensus among religions that memorials are an important part of the grieving process in every culture. b. It is a Western practice that is antithetical to some Eastern cultures. c. They are a relatively modern phenomenon. d. They are only used in Christian services.

ANSWER: b 81. Josie’s father recently died after a long illness. Though Josie has not attended religious services since they were a child, it is likely that they will: a. become more spiritual after being confronted with this death. b. refuse to attend the funeral. c. not believe in any sort of life after death. d. never move past their grief because they do not practice a religion.

ANSWER: a 82. In Western culture, viewing the deceased as a role model is seen as a healthy form of: a. a continuing bond. b. hallucination. c. denial. d. the slippery slope.

ANSWER: a 83. When elders focus on trying to leave something meaningful behind for later generations, they are engaged in: a. legacy work. b. euthanasia. c. seeking a good death. d. hospice care.

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Epilogue ANSWER: a 84. During the 2020 pandemic, which of these was not true regarding hospice care? a. Hospice care was common for those suffering from COVID-19. b. Hospice care was not very common for people dying of heart disease. c. Hospice care was rare for those suffering from COVID-19. d. Hospice care was most common for people dying from cancer.

ANSWER: a 85. An order from a doctor regarding end-of-life care that advises nurses and other medical staff which treatments should be used and which should not is referred to as a(n): a. physician-ordered life-sustaining treatment. b. DNR order. c. living will. d. palliative care.

ANSWER: a 86. What differentiates a POLST from a living will? a. A living will is written for medical professionals and is more specific. b. A living will is written for family members and is more specific. c. A POLST is written for family members and is less specific. d. A POLST is written for medical professionals and is more specific.

ANSWER: d 87. In 2021, physician-assisted suicide was legal in all of these states EXCEPT: a. California. b. Colorado. c. Hawaii. d. Florida.

ANSWER: d 88. Which age group is MOST likely to experience a "grief pandemic" of complicated or incomplete grief resulting from the effect of COVID deaths? a. children b. adolescents c. young adults d. the elderly ANSWER: b 89. Marge is taking a class about the psychology of death and dying. They are learning how the process of death has changed over the past 100 years. Outline at least three ways death has changed that Marge is likely learning in class.

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Epilogue ANSWER: (1) People are now dying later due to longer life spans. (2) People are taking longer to die due to medical intervention (lingering). (3) Most people die in hospitals rather than at home. (4) People are now dying from different causes (e.g., age-related illnesses rather than typhoid).

90. Seven-year-old Abigail’s best friend, Danielle, died in an automobile accident last month. Abigail’s parents are concerned because one day, Abigail seems to be fine and the next, they may dissolve into tears, start screaming, or completely shut down. According to research on brain development, is Abigail’s response typical for a child their age? Explain.

ANSWER: Because the limbic system matures more rapidly than the prefrontal cortex, young children may seem happy one day and morbidly depressed the next. At this point, Abigail’s grief reaction is consistent with a young child's developmental level.

91. Bree is taking a class on death and dying as part of nursing training. This week, Bree's professor is explaining Elisabeth Kübler-Ross's theory. According to Kübler-Ross, what are the five stages of dying?

Provide an example for each stage.

ANSWER: Kübler-Ross proposed five sequential stages in the dying process: (1) Denial. "I am not really dying."

(2) Anger. "This is my family's fault!"

(3) Bargaining. "I will lead a much better life if only I can live."

(4) Depression. "I don't care about anything. Nothing matters anymore."

(5) Acceptance. "I accept my death as part of life."

92. Define a good death. Explain three steps that medical professionals can take to help individuals experience a good death.

ANSWER: A good death (1) is at the end of a long life, (2) is in the presence of loved ones, and (3) may be in familiar surroundings. A good death is one that is (4) peaceful, (5) quick, and (6) without pain.

Steps that medical professionals can take to ensure a good death include: (1) talking honestly about the pros and cons of life-prolonging interventions, (2) offering pain management without worry of addiction for the terminally ill, (3) allowing for family and friends to visit freely, and (4) letting the terminally ill leave the hospital and die at home or in a hospice when there is no chance of recovery.

93. What is the goal of hospice care? Who does it serve? What barriers can keep people from receiving this kind of care?

ANSWER: The goal of hospice care is to allow dying individuals to spend their last days in comfort outside of a hospital and to support the close friends and family of the dying individual.

Hospice serves dying people (who have less than six months to live) by respecting their wishes and providing a level of pain management that meets their needs. It serves loved ones by providing counseling and guidance.

Barriers to hospice care include: (1) it can be expensive, and costs are not always covered by insurance; (2) it is not available everywhere; (3) admitted patients must be terminally ill and approaching death (within six months); and (4) both the patient and patient's loved ones must accept death to accept hospice services.

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Epilogue 94. Name and describe the two controversial practices that assist a person in terminating their own life.

ANSWER: The two controversial practices are active euthanasia and physician-assisted suicide. Active euthanasia occurs when someone answers a dying person's request for assistance to end life, such as giving a fatal injection or unplugging life-support machines. Physician-assisted suicide occurs when the doctor provides a prescription for a patient to end their own life. The person then chooses whether or not to take the lethal medication.

95. Define physician-assisted suicide. Which U.S. states allow physician-assisted suicide as part of "death with dignity"? Do you agree or disagree with this practice? Why or why not?

ANSWER: Physician-assisted suicide is a form of active euthanasia in which a doctor provides the means for someone to end their own life, usually by prescribing lethal drugs. In the United States, Washington, Montana, Vermont, California, and Oregon have joined together to allow physician-assisted "death with dignity." Students can indicate whether or not they support this answer. Credit should be given if they justify or explain their position.

96. Define absent grief, disenfranchised grief, and incomplete grief. Provide examples of circumstances that can lead to each type of grief.

ANSWER: Absent grief is when mourners do not or cannot grieve. This may be a first reaction, when a mourner simply cannot face the fact that a loved one has died. Disenfranchised grief is experienced when some people, even though they are bereaved, are prevented from participating in mourning. This may be experienced by an ex-spouse or long-time but unmarried partner who is excluded by the immediate family from attending the mourning events (such as calling hours, funeral, or memorial service). Incomplete grief occurs when circumstances interfere with or delay the process of grieving.

This may occur when there is a delay in returning the body for burial, as with deaths that occurred in military action or as part of a crime scene.

97. Apply the notion of "placing blame and seeking meaning" to a tragic death (or the tragic deaths of many people) that has been in the news recently. What actions did mourners take after the event?

ANSWER: For public deaths on a national scale, such as the killing of innocent civilians in a war-torn area, one nation will blame another, and often protests will ensue. Mourners may also (1) protest after deaths caused by a drunk driver, dangerous intersection, gun violence, or preventable violence. They often (2) seek to change laws and raise awareness. Mourners will often (3) create memorials—sometimes tied to the place of tragedy, or sometimes to share the news of their loss widely (as with online obituaries). Mourners will often also (4) find connection with others who have been through a similar tragedy, as when parents who lost children to violence join a support group to provide assistance to one another.

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