Test Bank for Essentials Of Anatomy And Physiology 3rd Edition by Kenneth Saladin

CHAPTER 1 1)

Historically, the most accurate study of the body began with __________.

A) X-rays B) dissection C) palpation D) MRI E) a stethoscope

2)

A human body specimen used for dissection is called a __________.

A) cadaver B) comparative specimen C) corpse D) dry specimen E) model

3) Feeling structures with your fingertips is called __________, whereas tapping on the body and listening for sounds of abnormalities is called __________.

A) palpation; auscultation B) auscultation; percussion C) percussion; auscultation D) palpation; percussion E) percussion; palpation

4) Which of these is the best imaging technique for routinely examining the anatomical development of a fetus?

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A) Auscultation B) PET scan C) MRI D) Sonography E) Radiography

5) The fact that most of us have five lumbar vertebrae, but some people have six and some have four is an example of __________ variation among organisms.

A) cellular B) holistic C) physiological D) anatomical E) reductionist

6) When examining a patient, a nurse notices that their right kidney is not in its usual location. What does this most likely mean?

A) The patient definitely has a kidney disease.

B) The patient may simply have an anatomical variation.

C) The patient is faking an injury.

D) The patient's kidney was stolen by black market organ harvesters.

E) The nurse is not good at palpation.

7) Understanding the respiratory function of mice, helps us understand the respiratory function of humans. This is an example of __________.

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A) neurophysiology B) comparative physiology C) endocrinology D) physiopathology E) histology

8)

Metabolism is the sum of __________.

A) inhalation and exhalation B) growth and differentiation C) anabolism and catabolism D) positive and negative feedback E) responsiveness and movement

9) The change in size of the bone marrow (where blood cells are produced) as an infant matures is an example of __________, whereas the transformation of blood stem cells into white blood cells is an example of __________.

A) development; differentiation B) growth; development C) growth; differentiation D) differentiation; growth E) differentiation; development

10) When you exercise you generate excess heat and your body temperature rises. Blood vessels dilate in the skin, warm blood flows closer to the body surface, and you lose heat. This is an example of __________.

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A) negative feedback B) positive feedback C) dynamic equilibrium D) integration control E) set point adjustment

11) Blood glucose concentration rises after a meal and stimulates release of the hormone insulin. Insulin travels in the blood and stimulates body cells to uptake glucose from the bloodstream. This reduces blood glucose concentration. This is an example of __________.

A) negative feedback B) positive feedback C) dynamic equilibrium D) integration control E) set point adjustment

12)

Negative feedback loops are __________.

A) homeostatic B) not homeostatic C) associated with "vicious circles" D) self-amplifying cycles E) harmful

13)

The ability to maintain internal stability is called _________.

A) homeostasis B) thermodynamics C) reproduction D) development E) evolution

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14) When a woman is giving birth, the head of the baby pushes against her cervix and stimulates release of the hormone oxytocin. Oxytocin travels in the blood and stimulates the uterus to contract. Labor contractions become more and more intense until the baby is expelled.

This is an example of __________.

A) negative feedback B) positive feedback C) dynamic equilibrium D) integration control E) set point adjustment

15)

Which of the following is most likely to cause disease?

A) Positive feedback B) Negative feedback C) Homeostasis D) Equilibrium E) Irritability

16) On average the resting heart rate of a healthy, normal adult human is between 70 and 80 beats per minute (bpm). A marathon runner may have a resting heart rate of 55 bpm. This is an example of __________.

A) a normal anatomical variation B) an exercise-induced physiological variation C) a pathological physiological variation D) an abnormality E) a pathological anatomical variation

17)

Which of the following is least likely to result in physiological variation?

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A) Gender B) Physical activity level C) Age D) Diet E) Time of day

18)

Which of the following is considered the simplest living body structure?

A) Organ system B) Organ C) Cell D) Organelle E) Molecule

19) An __________ is composed of two or more tissues types, whereas __________ are microscopic structures in a cell.

A) organ system; organs B) organ system; organelles C) organ; organelles D) organ; molecules E) organelle; molecules

20) Which of the following lists the levels of human structure from themost complex to the simplest?

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A) Organelle, cell, tissue, organ, organ system B) Organ system, organ, cell, tissue, organelle C) Organ system, organelle, tissue, cell, organ D) Organ system, organ, tissue, cell, organelle E) Organ, organ system, tissue, cell, organelle

21) Which of the following lists examples of body structures from the simplest to the most complex?

A) Mitochondrion, connective tissue, protein, stomach, adipocyte (fat cell) B) Protein, mitochondrion, adipocyte (fat cell), connective tissue, stomach C) Mitochondrion, connective tissue, stomach, protein, adipocyte (fat cell) D) Protein, adipocyte (fat cell), stomach, connective tissue, mitochondrion E) Protein, stomach, connective tissue, adipocyte (fat cell), mitochondrion

22) A(n) __________ is a group of similar cells and their intercellular materials in a discrete region of an organ performing a specific function.

A) macromolecule B) organ system C) organelle D) organism E) tissue

23)

Which one of the following isnot in the correct anatomical position?

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A) Arms at sides B) Standing erect C) Face and eyes facing forward D) Feet flat on the floor E) Palms facing posteriorly

24) Which plane passes vertically through the body or an organ and divides it into anterior and posterior portions?

A) Sagittal B) Frontal C) Median D) Transverse E) Oblique

25) What is the only plane that allows one to see both kidneys and the umbilicus at the same time?

A) Frontal B) Midsagittal C) Transverse D) Parasagittal E) Coronal

26)

The image of a typical chest X-ray shows a __________ view of the thoracic region.

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A) sagittal B) frontal C) transverse D) oblique E) lateral

27)

The most superior segment of the upper limb is called the __________ region.

A) digital B) manual C) carpal D) antebrachial E) brachial

28) The __________ region of the left lower limb is proximal to the __________ region of the same limb.

A) carpal; manual B) femoral; crural C) antebrachial; brachial D) tarsal; crural E) brachial; femoral

29)

The interscapular region is __________ to the scapular region.

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A) anterior B) posterior C) medial D) lateral E) superior

30)

The stomach is located mainly in which quadrant of the abdomen?

A) Right upper quadrant (RUQ) B) Right lowerquadrant (RLQ) C) Left upper quadrant(LUQ) D) Left lowerquadrant (LLQ) E) Left middlequadrant (LMQ)

31) In the appendicular region, the wrist is called the __________ region, and the ankle is called the __________ region.

A) manual; pedal B) brachial; crural C) crural; antebrachial D) carpal; tarsal E) metacarpal; metatarsal

32)

The __________ cavity is inferior to the __________ cavity.

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A) cranial; thoracic B) thoracic; abdominopelvic C) pericardial; pleural D) thoracic; peritoneal E) thoracic; cranial

33)

The __________ wraps around the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

A) pleura B) pericardium C) meninges D) visceral peritoneum E) parietal peritoneum

34)

The vertebral column encloses the __________.

A) thoracic cavity B) abdominal cavity C) pelvic cavity D) vertebral canal E) cranial cavity

35)

The brain and the spinal cord are protected by __________.

A) a parietal layer B) a visceral layer C) mucous membranes D) serous membranes E) meninges

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36)

The thoracic cavity and abdominopelvic cavity are lined by __________.

A) an endothelium B) the mediastinum C) meninges D) serous membranes E) mucous membranes

37) The thoracic cavity is divided into right, left, and medial portions by a region called the __________.

A) mediastinum B) diaphragm C) serous membrane D) meninges E) peritoneum

38)

The __________ cavity contains the lungs, which are enfolded in the __________.

A) thoracic; pleurae B) thoracic; pericardium C) thoracic; peritoneum D) abdominopelvic; peritoneum E) abdominopelvic; pleurae

39)

The heart is in the __________ cavity and is covered by the __________.

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A) thoracic; pleura B) thoracic; pericardium C) pericardial; pleura D) pericardial; peritoneum E) cranial; meninges

40)

The abdominopelvic cavity contains a moist serous membrane called the __________.

A) peritoneum B) pleura C) pericardium D) mediastinum E) meninges

41)

Which of the following is not an organ system?

A) Skeletal B) Endocrine C) Epidermal D) Reproductive E) Lymphatic

42)

Which of the following is not an organ?

A) Tooth B) Skin C) Nail D) Liver E) Digestive system

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43)

The __________ is an organ directly associated with both the __________ systems.

A) stomach; digestive and reproductive B) pancreas; digestive and endocrine C) small intestine; digestive and integumentary D) testis; male reproductive and urinary E) ovary; female reproductive and lymphatic

44) Which system provides protection, water retention, thermoregulation, and vitamin D production?

A) Lymphaticsystem B) Muscularsystem C) Skeletalsystem D) Integumentarysystem E) Excretorysystem

45)

Which system contains the thymus, spleen, and tonsils?

A) Endocrinesystem B) Respiratorysystem C) Lymphaticsystem D) Circulatorysystem E) Muscularsystem

46)

Which two systems control and coordinate the 50 trillion cells that make up a human?

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A) Muscular andnervous systems B) Circulatory andlymphatic systems C) Endocrine andnervous systems D) Circulatory andendocrine systems E) Muscular andskeletal systems

47)

Which system breaks down food and absorbs nutrients?

A) Digestive system B) Urinary system C) Reproductive system D) Circulatory system E) Lymphatic system

48) Which system regulates blood volume and pressure, stimulates red blood cell formation, and controls fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance?

A) Urinary system B) Reproductivesystem C) Digestivesystem D) Muscularsystem E) Circulatorysystem

49) When writing his/her notes, a doctor mistakenly misspells the intended word "ileum" as "ilium", stating "examine the ilium further". What is the possible outcome of this mistake?

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A) It's just a spelling error, and it's obvious what the doctor meant.

B) The next practitioner may mistakenly examine the intestines when he/she should have been examining the hip.

C) The next practitioner may mistakenly examine the hip when he/she should have been examining the intestines.

D) The practitioner may mistakenly examine the knee when he/she should have been examining the lungs.

E) The practitioner may mistakenly examine the lungs when he/she should have been examining the knee.

50)

The prefix hypo- means __________, whereas hyper- means __________.

A) front; back B) right; left C) inside; outside D) clear; dark E) below; above

51)

What does the term "hypercalcemia" mean?

A) Elevated calcium levels B) Lowered calcium levels C) Elevated sodium levels D) Elevated potassium levels E) Lowered sodium levels

52) The plural of axilla (armpit) is __________ whereas the plural of appendix is __________.

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A) axillae;appendices B) axillides;appendages C) axillies;appendi D) axilli;appendices

53)

The plural of villus (hair) is __________ whereas the plural of diagnosis is __________.

A) villuses; diagnosises B) villi; diagnoses C) villus; diagnosis D) villi; diagnosis E) villuses; diagnosis

54)

The breastbone is __________ to the vertebral column.

A) anterior B) posterior C) superior D) inferior E) medial

55)

The most __________ part of the small intestine is the part closest the stomach.

A) dorsal B) ventral C) proximal D) distal E) medial

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56)

The right shoulder is __________ and __________ to the umbilical region.

A) superior; lateral B) superior; medial C) inferior; lateral D) inferior; medial E) posterior; lateral

57)

The trachea is __________ to the esophagus.

A) superior B) dorsal C) anterior D) posterior E) inferior

58) In the cat, the head is __________ to the tail, whereas in the human the head is __________ to the gluteal region (buttock).

A) superior; superior B) anterior; superior C) posterior; dorsal D) ventral; distal E) anterior; posterior

59)

The lumbar vertebrae are __________ to the thoracic vertebrae.

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A) anterior B) superior C) cephalic D) posterior E) inferior

60)

Histology is the study of structures that can be observed without a magnifying lens. ⊚ ⊚

61)

Feeling for swollen lymph nodes is an example of auscultation. ⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

We can see through bones with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

true false

Homeostasis and occupying space are both unique characteristics of living things. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) Negative feedback is a self-amplifying chain of events that tend to produce rapid change in the body.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

65) Positive feedback helps to restore normal function when one of the body's physiological variables gets out of balance. ⊚ ⊚

66)

Organs are made of tissues. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

A molecule of water is more complex than a mitochondrion (organelle). ⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

true false

In anatomical position, the palms face forward. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) The frontal plane passes vertically through the body or an organ and divides it into equal right and left portions. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

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70)

The cut of a guillotine is an example of a section done in the midsagittal plane. ⊚ ⊚

71)

The appendicular region consists of the head, neck, and trunk. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

The cranial cavity contains the brain. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

The heart occupies a space called the pleural cavity. ⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

The appendix is typically found in the right lower quadrant. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

true false

The liver is proximal to the diaphragm. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_3e_Saladin 1) B 2) A 3) D 4) D 5) D 6) B 7) B 8) C 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) E 18) C 19) C 20) D 21) B 22) E 23) E 24) B 25) C 26) B Version 1

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27) E 28) B 29) C 30) C 31) D 32) E 33) D 34) D 35) E 36) D 37) A 38) A 39) B 40) A 41) C 42) E 43) B 44) D 45) C 46) C 47) A 48) A 49) C 50) E 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) A 55) C 56) A Version 1

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57) C 58) B 59) E 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) FALSE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE

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CHAPTER 2 1)

Which of these is a cation? Check all that apply.

A) O2 B) K+ C) Na+ D) Ca2+ E) Cl-

2)

What is the most abundant element in the human body by weight?

A) Nitrogen B) Hydrogen C) Carbon D) Oxygen E) Calcium

3)

Which elements account for 98.5% of the body's weight?

A) Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, sodium, potassium, and chlorine B) Carbon, oxygen, iron, sodium, potassium, and chlorine C) Carbon, nitrogen, hydrogen, sodium, potassium, and chlorine D) Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sodium, and potassium E) Carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, calcium, and phosphorus

4)

Sodium has an atomic number of 11 and an atomic mass of 23. Sodium has __________.

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A) 12 neutrons and 11 protons B) 12 protons and 11 neutrons C) 12 electrons and 11 neutrons D) 12 protons and 11 electrons E) 12 electrons and 11 protons

5)

The chemical bonding properties of an atom are determined by its __________.

A) protons B) electrons C) neutrons D) protons and neutrons E) particles

6) Consider oxygen, which has an atomic number of 8 and an atomic mass of 16. How many valence electrons does it have?

A) 2 B) 4 C) 6 D) 8 E) 16

7) Varieties of elements called __________ differ from one another only in number of neutrons, and therefore differ in atomic mass.

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A) cations B) anions C) isotopes D) electrolytes E) free radicals

8) Sodium, which has an atomic number of 11, will react with chlorine, which has an atomic number of 17. When these two atoms react, both become stable. To become stable, sodium will __________, while chlorine will __________.

A) accept one electron; give up one electron B) give up one proton; accept one proton C) share one electron with chlorine; share one electron with sodium D) become an anion; become a cation E) give up one electron; accept one electron

9) Oxygen has an atomic number of eight. When two oxygen atoms come together, they form a(n) __________ bond.

A) hydrogen B) nonpolar covalent C) polar covalent D) ionic E) Van der Waals

10)

What happens when table salt, sodium chloride (NaCl), is placed in water?

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A) Na+ and Cl- form ionic bonds with each other.

B) Na+ and Cl- form polar covalent bonds with each other.

C) Na+ and Cl- form hydrogen bonds with water.

D) ionic bondsbetween Na+ and Cl- are broken.

E) Na+ and Cl- become separated by their Van der Waals forces.

11)

What are responsible for chemical bonding?

A) Electrons B) Protons C) Positrons D) Neutrons E) Photons

12)

What type of bond attracts one water molecule to another?

A) An ionic bond B) A peptidebond C) A hydrogenbond D) A covalentbond E) A hydrolyticbond

13) When you jump off a high diving board into water, you notice the great resistance of water. This resistance is called __________ and is caused by water's great __________.

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A) surface tension;adhesiveness B) surface tension;cohesiveness C) hydrophobictension; adhesiveness D) hydrophilictension; cohesiveness E) hydrophilictension; adhesiveness

14)

Which of these is hydrophobic?

A) Sugar B) K+ C) ClD) Water E) Fat

15)

A solution with pH 4 has __________ the H+ concentration of a solution with pH 8.

A) half B) twice C) 4 times D) 10,000 times E) 1/10,000

16)

Which of these has the highest H+ concentration?

A) Lemon juice, pH =2.3 B) Red wine, pH =3.2 C) Tomato juice, pH= 4.7 D) Saliva, pH =6.6 E) Householdammonia, pH = 10.8

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17) Blood has a pH ranging from 7.35 to 7.45. Slight deviations from this can cause major problems or even death. You are doing an intense workout, and your skeletal muscle cells are producing metabolic acids such as lactic acid. Your blood pH does not drop significantly in spite of the metabolic acids released into the blood. Why do you maintain a constant blood pH? A) Metabolic acids are neutralized in muscle cells before being released into the blood.

B) Metabolic bases are produced at the same rate by muscle cells to neutralize the acids.

C) The respiratory system removes excess H+ from the blood before the pH is lowered.

D) The body contains chemicals called buffers that resist changes in pH. E) Endothelial cells secrete excess H+ to prevent a decrease in pH.

18)

What is a solution that resists a change in pH when an acid or base is added?

A) A buffer B) A catalyst C) A reducing agent D) An oxidizing agent E) A colloid

19)

A __________ reaction converts a __________ to its monomers.

A) hydrolysis; polymer B) dehydration synthesis; molecule C) dehydration synthesis; polymer D) polymer; molecule E) condensation; reactant

20) Triglycerides are molecules consisting of one 3-carbon compound called __________ bound to three __________.

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A) eicosanoid; fatty acids B) steroid; glycerols C) eicosanoid; steroid D) glycerol; fatty acids E) steroid; fatty acids

21)

Proteins are __________ built from __________ different amino acids.

A) monomers; 10 B) molecules; 10 C) polymers; 20 D) macromolecules; 40 E) polypeptides; 80

22)

Nucleic acids are __________ of __________.

A) molecules; monosaccharides B) monomers; ATP C) polymers; nucleotides D) polymers; cAMP E) polymers; DNA

23)

__________ is a monosaccharide, whereas __________ is a polysaccharide.

A) Fructose; sucrose B) Galactose; maltose C) Lactose; glycogen D) Glucose; starch E) Cellulose; glucose

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24)

Which of the following is a disaccharide?

A) Galactose B) Lactose C) Glucose D) Fructose E) Amylose

25) Table sugar is a disaccharide called __________ and is made up of the monomer(s) __________.

A) maltose; glucose B) sucrose; glucose and fructose C) lactose; glucose and galactose D) glycogen; glucose E) glucose; galactose and fructose

26) A drastic conformational change in proteins in response to conditions such as extreme heat or pH will lead to loss of a protein's function. What is this significant change in threedimensional shape called?

A) Contamination B) Denaturation C) Saturation D) Sedimentation E) Deconformation

27)

Enzymes are specific to substrates because of the shape of their __________.

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A) active sites B) receptors C) secondary structure D) terminal amino acids E) alpha chain

28)

__________ is the substrate of __________.

A) Glucose; lactose B) Lactase; glucose C) Lactose; lactase D) Galactose; lactose E) Sucrase; sucrose

29) Enzymes are __________ that act as catalysts, helping chemical reactions go faster at normal body temperature.

A) cofactors B) proteins C) lipids D) carbohydrates E) nucleic acids

30) The most relevant form of energy in human physiology is the energy stored in __________.

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A) electrolytes ionized in water B) free radicals with an odd number of electrons C) radioisotopes D) the chemical bonds of organic molecules E) Van der Waals forces

31)

ATP ________ endergonic and exergonic reactions.

A) opposes B) decomposes C) reduces D) links E) dehydrates

32)

Which of the following equations depicts a decomposition reaction?

A) AB → A + B B) A + B → AB C) AB + CD → AC + BD D) AB → A- + B+ E) A + B → AB → C + D

33) The breakdown of glycogen (an energy-storage compound) is an example of a(n) __________ reaction.

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A) exergonic B) endergonic C) exchange D) synthesis E) equilibrium

34) Digestive enzymes break down the starch in a potato into thousands of glucose molecules. This exemplifies a(n) __________ reaction.

A) synthesis B) decomposition C) exchange D) anabolic E) reductive

35) Glucose is broken down in most of your cells to form carbon dioxide, oxygen, and the energy currency of the cell called ATP. This type of reaction is both __________ and __________.

A) anabolic;endergonic B) catabolic; exergonic C) anabolic;exergonic D) catabolic;endergonic E) anabolic;exothermic

36)

Which of the following words includes all of the other terms?

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A) Catabolism B) Anabolism C) Metabolism D) Oxidativereactions E) Reductivereactions

37)

What is any chemical reaction that removes electrons from an atom called?

A) Reduction B) Condensation C) Hydrolysis D) Anabolism E) Oxidation

38)

What is any chemical reaction in which an atom gains electrons called?

A) Reduction B) Condensation C) Hydrolysis D) Anabolism E) Oxidation

39)

Which of the following is not a function of proteins?

A) To catalyze metabolic reactions B) To give structural strength to cells and tissues C) To produce muscular and other forms of movement D) To regulate transport of solutes into and out of cells E) To store hereditary information

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40)

What are the two most abundant minerals in the human body?

A) Calcium and Phosphate B) Carbon and Potassium C) Copper and Magnesium D) Sodium and Potassium E) Chloride and Sulfur

41)

Which of the following is an anion?

A) ClB) Na+ C) Ca3(PO4)2 D) H2 E) 14C

42)

An acid release what in water?

A) Proton B) Electron C) Neutron D) Atom E) Ion

43)

Which macromolecule can act as a catalyst in chemical reactions?

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A) Protein B) Lipid C) Carbohydrate D) Nucleic acid E) ATP

44)

In the chemical reaction HCl + KOH → KCl + H2O, what are the products?

A) KCl and H2O B) HCl and H2O C) HCl and KOH D) KOH and H2O E) HCl and KCl

45)

Potassium, sodium, and chlorine are trace elements. ⊚ ⊚

46)

Molecules composed of two or more atoms are called compounds. ⊚ ⊚

47)

true false

true false

Minerals are organic elements extracted from the soil by plants. ⊚ ⊚

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48)

Hydrogen, deuterium, and tritium are three isotopes of hydrogen. ⊚ ⊚

49)

Ionic bonds break apart in water more easily than covalent bonds. ⊚ ⊚

50)

true false

The opposite of a dehydration synthesis is hydrolysis. ⊚ ⊚

53)

true false

Blood pH is approximately 7.4, which is slightly acidic. ⊚ ⊚

52)

true false

The high heat capacity of water makes it a very ineffective coolant. ⊚ ⊚

51)

true false

true false

Unsaturated fatty acids have as much hydrogen as they can carry. ⊚ ⊚

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54)

A dipeptide is a molecule with two peptide bonds. ⊚ ⊚

55)

true false

ATP is the body's most important form of long-term energy storage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) In a synthesis reaction, new covalent bonds are formed between smaller molecules to form a larger molecule. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) All the chemical reactions in which larger molecules are broken down to smaller ones are called catabolic reactions. ⊚ ⊚

58)

true false

A base can accept a hydrogen ion. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_3e_Saladin 1) [B, C, D] 2) D 3) E 4) A 5) B 6) C 7) C 8) E 9) B 10) D 11) A 12) C 13) B 14) E 15) D 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) B 26) B Version 1

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27) A 28) C 29) B 30) D 31) D 32) A 33) A 34) B 35) B 36) C 37) E 38) A 39) E 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE Version 1

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57) TRUE 58) TRUE

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CHAPTER 3 1)

The intracellular fluid and organelles are collectively known as the __________.

A) nucleus B) plasma membrane C) cytoplasm D) inclusions E) membrane proteins

2)

What does cytology study?

A) Cells B) Tissues C) Development D) Pathology E) Microbes

3)

What is the fluid outside of a cell called?

A) Cytosol B) Intracellular fluid C) Extracellular fluid D) Cytoplasm E) Nucleoplasm

4)

What is another term for the intracellular fluid?

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A) Cytosol B) Glycocalyx C) Cytoskeleton D) Nucleoplasm E) Plasma

5) Membrane proteins that receive and bind chemical signals from other cells, such as hormones, neurotransmitters, and growth factors, are called __________.

A) receptors B) enzymes C) carriers D) cell-identity markers E) cell-adhesion molecules

6)

What are the most abundant molecules in the plasma membrane?

A) Glycolipids B) Phospholipids C) Prostaglandins D) Proteins E) Cholesterol molecules

7) The __________ enables the body to distinguish its own cells from foreign and diseased cells.

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A) glycocalyx B) mitochondria C) microvilli D) phospholipids E) membrane proteins

8)

Human ABO blood types are determined by which of the following?

A) Glycocalyx B) Plasma membrane proteins C) Plasma membrane lipids D) Microvilli E) Flagella

9) __________ provide motility to a cell, __________ act as sensory "antenna" in many cells, and __________ increase a cell's surface area.

A) Cilia; microvilli; flagella B) Microvilli; cilia; flagella C) Microvilli; flagella; cilia D) Flagella; microvilli; cilia E) Flagella; cilia; microvilli

10) Cells specialized for absorption and secretion in the small intestine have __________ in the cell membrane.

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A) flagella B) cilia C) microvilli D) ribosomes E) mitochondria

11)

Which of these are folds of the plasma membrane that provide increased surface area?

A) Microvilli B) Villi C) Cilia D) Flagella E) Pseudopodia

12)

Cells of the intestinal wall resist leakage of intestinal contents due to __________.

A) tight junctions B) gap junctions C) desmosomes D) hemidesmosomes E) connexons

13) The uniformity of the contraction of the heart is aided by the __________ between the cells.

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A) tight junctions B) gap junctions C) desmosomes D) hemidesmosomes E) cell adhesion proteins

14) Which of the following cell junctions incorporates cell adhesion proteins and anchors the cell to the basement membrane?

A) Tightjunctions B) Gap junctions C) Desmosomes D) Hemidesmosomes E) Cell adhesionproteins

15) What consume ATP when transferring solutes from one side to the other side of the plasma membrane?

A) Receptors B) Pumps C) Cell-adhesion molecules D) Channels E) Cell-identity markers

16)

Water flows through a selectively permeable membrane in a process called __________.

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A) simple diffusion B) osmosis C) active transport D) endocytosis E) facilitated diffusion

17) The sodium-potassium (Na+-K+) pump transports both sodium and potassium __________ their concentration gradients in a process called __________.

A) up; active transport B) up; facilitated transport C) up; cotransport D) down; active transport E) down; countertransport

18) Which of the following processes could occur only through the plasma membrane of a living cell?

A) Facilitateddiffusion B) Simplediffusion C) Filtration D) Osmosis E) Activetransport

19)

Particles can leave a cell by any of these means except __________.

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A) active transport B) exocytosis C) simple diffusion D) an antiport system E) pinocytosis

20)

White blood cells engulf bacteria by means of __________.

A) phagocytosis B) cotransport C) pinocytosis D) active transport E) receptor-mediated endocytosis

21)

Which of these is an example of active transport?

A) Diffusion of oxygen from a place of high concentration to a place of lower concentration B) Facilitateddiffusion of K+ C) Transport ofglucose down its concentration gradient D) Transport of Na+ from a place of low concentration to a place ofhigher concentration E) Transport of Cl- following its concentration gradient

22)

What do facilitated diffusion and active transport have in common?

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A) Both are processes involving the transport of a solute against its concentration gradient.

B) Both are processes involving transport of a solute down its concentration gradient.

C) Both are processes involving the use of energy provided by ATP. D) Both are ATP-independent processes.

E) Both are cases of carrier-mediated transport.

23) What gives a cell structural support, determines its shape, and directs the movement of substances within it?

A) Smooth ER B) Nucleus C) Plasma membrane D) Golgi complex E) Cytoskeleton

24)

Which of the following isnot a component of the cytoskeleton?

A) Cytosol B) Microfilaments C) Terminal web D) Microtubules E) Intermediate filaments

25)

Which of the following isnot contained within inclusions?

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A) Ribosomes B) Dust C) Glycogen D) Fat E) Pigment

26)

Since there are no genes coding for carbohydrates and lipids, how do cells produce them?

A) The Golgi complex synthesizes carbohydrates, and the endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes lipids.

B) Cells are born with all the products they need.

C) Cells absorb these products by endocytosis.

D) Cells import these products from older cells.

E) The Golgi complex synthesizes lipids, and the endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes carbohydrates.

27)

Which of the following is not a membranous organelle?

A) Mitochondrion B) Ribosome C) Nucleus D) Endoplasmic reticulum E) Golgi complex

28) Among other functions, hepatocytes (liver cells) are specialized in detoxifying drugs or other chemicals. Hepatocytes, therefore, must have large amounts of which of the following?

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A) DNA B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum C) Microtubules D) Cilia E) Centrioles

29)

What function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed?

A) Exocytosis B) Activetransport C) Ciliary action D) Proteinsynthesis E) Osmosis

30)

What organelle is most active in causing programmed cell death?

A) Rough endoplasmicreticulum B) Nucleus C) Centriole D) Lysosome E) Mitochondrion

31)

Muscle cells contain numerous __________ to serve their high demand for ATP. A) ribosomes B) lysosomes C) mitochondria D) inclusions E) Golgi vesicles

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32)

Which organelle synthesizes steroids in the ovary and stores calcium in muscle cells?

A) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum B) Rough endoplasmic reticulum C) Nucleus D) Mitochondrion E) Golgi complex

33)

What are made of microtubules and play an important role in cell division?

A) Mitochondria B) Ribosomes C) Nucleoli D) Centrioles E) Inclusions

34) __________ synthesize(s) carbohydrates and put(s) finishing touches on proteins synthesized at __________.

A) Smooth ER; rough ER B) The Golgi complex; rough ER C) Smooth ER; the Golgi complex D) The Golgi complex; smooth ER E) Ribosomes; smooth ER

35)

Which organelles decompose fatty acids, and detoxifies alcohol, free radicals, and drugs?

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A) Lysosomes B) Microvilli C) Inclusions D) Peroxisomes E) Golgi vesicles

36) Which of the following organelles isnot involved in the protein synthesis, processing, and packaging process?

A) Smooth ER B) Rough ER C) Golgi complex D) The nucleus E) Ribosomes

37)

What is the complete set of an individual's genes called?

A) Genome B) Chromatid C) Nucleotide D) Chromosome E) Codon

38) Copying genetic information from DNA into RNA is called __________, whereas using the information contained in mRNA to make a polypeptide is called __________.

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A) transcription; translation B) translation; transcription C) DNA replication; translation D) DNA duplication; transcription E) DNA translation; RNA transcription

39)

Which of the following is not directly involved in translation?

A) DNA B) mRNA C) tRNA D) rRNA E) Ribosomes

40)

Transcription occurs in the __________, but most translation occurs in the __________.

A) nucleus; cytoplasm B) nucleus; nucleolus C) cytoplasm; nucleus D) nucleolus; cytoplasm E) nucleolus; rough endoplasmic reticulum

41)

Anticodons, codons, and base triplets correspond to __________, respectively.

A) tRNA, DNA, and mRNA B) DNA, tRNA, and mRNA C) tRNA, mRNA, and DNA D) DNA, RNA, and pre-mRNA E) RNA, DNA, and pre-mRNA

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42) During translation, the genetic code is the correspondence between the __________ and the __________ that they represent.

A) DNA molecule; 20 amino acids B) DNA molecule; 64 amino acids C) mRNA anticodons; 20 amino acids D) mRNA codons; 64 amino acids E) mRNA codons; 20 amino acids

43)

DNA polymerase is most active in which phase of the cell cycle?

A) S B) G1 C) G2 D) M E) G0

44)

What are the G1, S, and G2 phases collectively called?

A) Interphase B) Telophase C) Cytokinesis D) Prophase E) Anaphase

45)

Which of the following isnot associated with DNA replication?

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A) DNA B) DNA polymerase C) The nucleus D) Ribosomes E) The double helix

46) Which enzyme reads the base sequence on one strand of DNA and assembles nucleotides in the right order to make a complementary strand?

A) DNA polymerase B) DNA helicase C) RNA polymerase D) RNA helicase E) DNA synthase

47)

Which of these does not cause mutations?

A) Radiation B) Viruses C) Chemicals D) A mistake made by DNA polymerase E) A mistake made by RNA polymerase

48)

Which of these processes occurs during a cell's first gap (G1) phase?

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A) DNA is replicated.

B) The nuclear envelope breaks down.

C) The cell synthesizes the enzymes that control mitosis.

D) The cell synthesizes proteins and grows.

E) The chromatin condenses into visible chromosomes.

49)

Cytokinesis overlaps with which phase of mitosis?

A) The S phase B) Telophase C) Metaphase D) Prophase E) Interphase

50)

During which mitotic phase do sister chromatids aggregate along the equator of the cell?

A) Prophase B) Metaphase C) Anaphase D) Telophase E) Interphase

51)

During which mitotic phase are sister chromatids pulled to opposite poles of the cell?

A) S phase B) G2 phase C) Prophase D) Metaphase E) Anaphase

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52)

Chromatin shortens and thickens, coiling into compact rods during __________.

A) telophase B) anaphase C) interphase D) prophase E) metaphase

53) Most human cells range from 10 to 15 micrometers in diameter. What limits how large a cell can be?

A) A cell's lifespan B) Nutrients available in the environment of a cell C) The relationship between its volume and length D) The relationship between its length and surface area E) The relationship between its volume and surface area

54)

How many microns are in a meter?

A) 1,000,000 B) 1,000 C) 100 D) 10 E) 1,000,000,000

55) Some channel proteins are always open, while others open and close in response to stimuli. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 17

56)

Microvilli and cilia differ in their function but have the same internal structure. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) One example of pinocytosis is the uptake of low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) by endothelial cells. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) A crystal of calcium phosphate in the cytoplasm of a cell should be classified as an inclusion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59)

Both the nucleus and the mitochondrion are surrounded by two layers of membrane. ⊚ true ⊚ false

60)

The nucleus is the largest organelle in most cells. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

Ribosomes are made of proteins and RNA.

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⊚ ⊚

62)

true false

The Golgi complex makes peroxisomes but not lysosomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

63) A gene can be defined as a code on a segment of RNA that codes for the production of a polypeptide. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) DNA never migrates from the nucleus to the cytoplasm to participate directly in protein synthesis. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

The enzyme RNA polymerase participates in translation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) All proteins made by the ribosomes are exported from a cell for use elsewhere in the body. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

19

67)

Mitosis is responsible for embryonic development and tissue growth. ⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

A cell starting prophase has double the DNA content in its nucleus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) After mitosis is completed, each chromosome consists of two identical, parallel filaments called sister chromatids. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

20

Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_3e_Saladin 1) C 2) A 3) C 4) A 5) A 6) B 7) A 8) A 9) E 10) C 11) A 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) E 19) E 20) A 21) D 22) E 23) E 24) A 25) A 26) A Version 1

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27) B 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) C 32) A 33) D 34) B 35) D 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) C 42) E 43) A 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) E 48) D 49) B 50) B 51) E 52) D 53) E 54) A 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) TRUE 60) TRUE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE

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CHAPTER 4 1)

Which of the following isnot a primary tissue type found in adults?

A) Connective B) Fibrous C) Nervous D) Epithelial E) Muscular

2)

What is a thin, stained slice of tissue mounted on a microscope called?

A) Fixative B) Histological section C) Spread D) Stain E) Smear

3)

Cells that are taller than they are wide are called __________ cells.

A) columnar B) cuboidal C) squamous D) stellate E) amorphous

4)

Cells that are flat and tile-shaped are called __________ cells.

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A) columnar B) cuboidal C) squamous D) stellate E) amorphous

5)

Body cavities, the body surface, and many organs are lined with __________ tissue.

A) interstitial B) muscle C) adipose D) epithelial E) nervous

6)

The basement membrane is found between __________.

A) epithelium andconnective tissue B) epithelium andextracellular material C) epithelium andintracellular material D) extracellularmaterial and intracellular material E) interstitial fluidand extracellular fluid

7) A brush border of microvilli belongs to ___________ epithelium found in the __________.

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A) pseudostratified; nasal cavity B) simple cuboidal; esophagus C) simple columnar; small intestine D) stratified squamous; anal canal E) stratified squamous; esophagus

8) __________ epithelium provides a moist and slippery surface and is well suited to resist stress, as in the __________.

A) Transitional; tongue B) Keratinized; tongue C) Nonkeratinized; skin D) Keratinized; skin E) Nonkeratinized; vagina

9) An epithelium with a single layer of tall, narrow cells and with every cell touching the basement membrane is called __________.

A) stratified squamous B) stratified cuboidal C) simple cuboidal D) simple columnar E) pseudostratified columnar

10) Which tissue allows for the rapid diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide through the air sacs (alveoli) of the lungs?

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A) Simple squamous epithelium B) Simple cuboidal epithelium C) Simple columnar epithelium D) Keratinized stratified squamous epithelium E) Nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium

11) Most kidney tubules are made of __________ epithelium, which is specialized for absorption and secretion.

A) simple columnar B) stratified columnar C) pseudostratified columnar D) simple cuboidal E) stratified cuboidal

12) All cells in __________ epithelium reach the basement membrane and only cells that reach the free surface have cilia.

A) pseudostratified columnar B) simple columnar C) stratified columnar D) stratified cuboidal E) stratified squamous

13) __________ epithelium found in the bladder resembles __________ epithelium, but the apical cells are rounded, not flattened.

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A) Transitional; stratified squamous B) Stratified squamous; pseudostratified C) Stratified squamous; stratified columnar D) Simple columnar; pseudostratified E) Transitional; simple cuboidal

14) What kind of cells would you expect to see in a tissue that has a mucus coating on the apical surface?

A) Fibroblasts B) Chondrocytes C) Squamous cells D) Osteocytes E) Goblet cells

15) Epithelium that is associated with rapid diffusion is ___________, whereas __________ epithelium is best suited for resistance to abrasion.

A) simple columnar; transitional B) simple squamous; stratified squamous C) simple cuboidal; pseudostratified D) pseudostratified; simple squamous E) pseudostratified; simple cuboidal

16)

Which of the following features is not common to all connective tissues?

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A) Most cells are not in direct contact with each other.

B) The cells of connective tissue are arranged in layers or sheets.

C) Extracellular material usually occupies more space than cells.

D) Protein fibers are usually present in the ground substance.

E) Most connective tissues are highly vascular.

17)

Fibroblasts and collagen fibers are associated with both __________.

A) dense regular anddense irregular connective tissues B) plasma and formedelements C) elastic cartilageand hyaline cartilage D) spongy bone andcompact (dense) bone E) adipose tissue andreticular tissue

18) The cells found in mature cartilage are called _________ and are trapped in spaces called ___________.

A) leukocytes;lumen B) mast cells;lacunae C) osteocytes;lacunae D) chondrocytes;lacunae E) adipocytes;lumen

19) Marfan syndrome is a hereditary defect in elastic fibers. People with this syndrome may have which of the following?

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A) Weak arterial walls B) A small cranium C) Elastic bones D) Stronger bones E) Viscous blood

20)

Which of the following is a function of adipose tissue?

A) Movement B) Forms the stroma of the spleen C) Energy storage D) Shock absorption between vertebrae E) Shapes the outer ear

21) Many blood vessels are found in __________ tissue, however __________ is free of blood capillaries.

A) epithelial; cartilage B) muscular; osseous tissue C) dense regular connective; dense irregular connective tissue D) areolar; cartilage E) nervous; osseous tissue

22)

Fibrous connective tissue has all of the following features except __________.

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A) very conspicuous protein fibers B) fibroblasts C) collagen D) ground substance with a gelatinous to rubbery consistency E) a calcified matrix

23)

What creates the shape of a person's external ear?

A) Dense regular connective tissue B) Dense irregular connective tissue C) Elastic cartilage D) Fibrocartilage E) Ligaments

24)

Fibrous connective tissues include all of the following except __________.

A) reticular tissue B) hyaline cartilage C) dense regular connective tissue D) dense irregular connective tissue E) areolar tissue

25)

Which of the following contain abundant collagenous fibers?

A) Blood and hyaline cartilage B) Blood, adipose tissue, and osseous tissue C) Ligaments, bones, and the most superficial portion of the skin D) Tendons, ligaments, and the deeper portion of the skin E) Areolar tissue, tongue, and bones

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26)

Which of the following is a function of blood?

A) Contraction B) Energystorage C) Protection ofcardiac tissue D) Lining the heart chambers E) Transporting nutrients to the tissues

27) __________ tissues respond quickly to outside stimuli by means of changes in membrane potential, thus they are called __________ tissues.

A) Muscular and nervous; excitable B) Connective and muscular; responsive C) Adipose and areolar; complex D) Epithelial and connective; irritable E) Nervous and connective; excitable

28)

Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types, neurons and __________.

A) fibroblasts B) chondrocytes C) glial cells D) myocytes E) osteocytes

29)

Why are astronauts in zero gravity able to move food through their digestive tracts?

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A) Smooth muscle produces waves of contractions that propel material through the digestive tract.

B) Skeletal muscle puts pressure on the digestive tract.

C) Cardiac muscle maintains a high pressure that moves material through the digestive tract.

D) Striated muscle creates a pressure gradient that forces material from one end of the digestive tract to the other.

E) Skeletal muscle sphincters contract and allow materials to move through the digestive tract.

30)

Which of the following describes skeletal muscle?

A) Striated and voluntary B) Striated and involuntary C) Nonstriated and voluntary D) Nonstriated and involuntary E) Fibrous and contracting

31)

A muscle fiber refers to a(n) __________.

A) entire cell B) organelle C) collagen molecule D) extension from thesoma E) filament

32) Mucin, which combines with water to form a thick and sticky product, is produced by __________ glands. However, __________ glands produce a relatively watery fluid.

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A) mucous;serous B) merocrine;holocrine C) apocrine;mixed D) endocrine;exocrine E) serous;mucous

33)

Endocrine glands secrete __________ into __________.

A) mucus; theblood B) enzymes; theblood C) hormones;ducts D) hormones; theblood E) enzymes; ducts

34) Tear glands have vesicles that release their secretion by exocytosis. These are classified as __________ glands. However, __________ glands (such as oil-producing glands) secrete a mixture of disintegrated cells and their products.

A) endocrine;exocrine B) mucous;serous C) cytogenic;apocrine D) mucous;cutaneous E) merocrine;holocrine

35) What does the membrane lining the digestive, respiratory, urinary, and reproductive tracts consist of?

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A) Simple squamous epithelium and dense irregular connective tissue B) Areolar and dense irregular connective tissue C) An epithelium and areolar connective tissue D) Areolar tissue and cartilage E) Simple squamous epithelium and cartilage

36)

__________ membranes line passageways that open to the exterior environment.

A) Peritoneal B) Endothelial C) Synovial D) Serous E) Mucous

37) The epithelium of the lungs in smokers may transform into abnormal cells that continue to multiply to form an abnormal mass. This is an example of which of the following?

A) Neoplasia B) Hypertrophy C) Atrophy D) Differentiation E) Hyperplasia

38) After six months of lifting weights at the gym, you notice that some of your muscles have increased in size. This increase in size is due to __________ of muscle cells.

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A) hyperplasia B) neoplasia C) hypertrophy D) metaplasia E) atrophy

39) The replacement of dead or damaged cells by the same cells as before is called ___________.

A) hypertrophy B) hyperplasia C) regeneration D) fibrosis E) neoplasia

40)

The replacement of damaged tissue with scar tissue is called __________.

A) necrosis B) apoptosis C) gangrene D) regeneration E) fibrosis

41) It is normal for the uterus to shrink after a woman gives birth. This is facilitated by __________ of the cells of the uterus.

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A) necrosis B) apoptosis C) hypertrophy D) infarction E) gangrene

42)

Which of the following isnot one of the primary tissue types?

A) Mesothelium B) Epithelial C) Connective D) Muscular E) Nervous

43) How would a blood vessel appear on a microscope slide if sliced perpendicular to its axis?

A) As a circle B) As a long rectangle C) As an ellipse D) As a dot E) As many circles

44)

Programmed cell death is referred to as which of the following?

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A) Apoptosis B) Necrosis C) Infarction D) Atrophy E) Gangrene

45)

In an epithelium, there are no blood vessels. ⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

Nonkeratinized cells exfoliate from the surface of the skin. ⊚ ⊚

true false

47) To increase surface area for absorption, columnar cells lining the small intestine show a brush border of microvilli on the apical surface. ⊚ true ⊚ false

48)

Fibrocartilage is found in intervertebral discs. ⊚ ⊚

49)

true false

Blood consists of cells and a ground substance made of formed elements. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

15

50) The basis for the excitation of excitable cells is a difference in electrical charges across the plasma membrane. ⊚ ⊚

51)

Dendrites in a neuron send outgoing signals to other cells. ⊚ ⊚

52)

true false

true false

Smooth and cardiac muscles are under involuntary control. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) The duct of an exocrine gland leads into the bloodstream rather than onto an epithelial surface. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) Scar tissue helps to hold an organ together but does not restore normal function of the damaged tissue. ⊚ ⊚

55)

true false

The cells of most connective tissues are tightly packed together with little space between.

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⊚ ⊚

56)

Glial cells support neurons in dense regular connective tissue. ⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

true false

An axon is also referred to as a nerve fiber. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

17

Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_3e_Saladin 1) B 2) B 3) A 4) C 5) D 6) A 7) C 8) E 9) D 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) E 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) E 23) C 24) B 25) D 26) E Version 1

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27) A 28) C 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) D 34) E 35) C 36) E 37) A 38) C 39) C 40) E 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) TRUE

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CHAPTER 5 1)

Which of the following is not a sensation that the skin reacts to?

A) Temperature B) Blood glucose levels C) Vibration D) Texture E) Pressure

2)

The skin does not include the __________.

A) epidermis B) papillarylayer C) hypodermis D) stratum basale E) dermis

3)

Which cells arenot found in the epidermis?

A) Melanocytes B) Fibroblasts C) Stem cells D) Keratinocytes E) Tactile (Merkel) cells

4)

Which of the following are associated with the sense of touch?

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A) Fibroblasts B) Melanocytes C) Keratinocytes D) Dendriticcells E) Tactile cells

5)

Which cells stand guard against toxins, microbes, and other pathogens?

A) Keratinocytes B) Melanocytes C) Adipocytes D) Dendritic cells E) Tactile cells

6)

Which layer of the epidermis consists of up to 30 layers of dead cells?

A) Stratumbasale B) Stratumspinosum C) Stratumgranulosum D) Stratumlucidum E) Stratumcorneum

7)

What is the deepest layer of the epidermis?

A) Stratum basale B) Stratum spinosum C) Stratum granulosum D) Stratum lucidum E) Stratum corneum

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8)

Calluses, or corns, are part of which layer of the epidermis?

A) Stratum corneum B) Stratum basale C) Stratum lucidum D) Stratum granulosum E) Stratum spinosum

9)

The __________ is absent from most areas of the epidermis on the body.

A) stratum basale B) stratum spinosum C) stratum granulosum D) stratum lucidum E) stratum corneum

10) Leather is mostly made of the __________ layer of the dermis, which is very tough due to the high concentration of __________ fibers.

A) areolar; collagen B) areolar; keratin C) reticular; collagen D) reticular; keratin E) papillary; keratin

11)

The cause of skin discoloration that most likely suggests physical abuse is __________.

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A) pallor B) albinism C) erythema D) a hematoma E) jaundice

12)

Which pigment causes the reddish color of the lips?

A) Hemoglobin B) Myoglobin C) Melanin D) Carotene E) Keratin

13)

Which skin color is most likely to result from anemia?

A) Pallor B) Erythema C) Hematoma D) Albinism E) Jaundice

14)

Which skin discoloration is caused by bilirubin?

A) Erythema B) Jaundice C) Pallor D) Bronzing E) Cyanosis

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15)

Ethnic differences in skin color are primarily caused by which of the following?

A) UV radiation exposure B) The quantity of hemoglobin carried in the blood C) The quantity and tone of melanin produced D) The number of keratinocytes E) The amount of carotene present

16)

A(n) __________ is an elevated patch of melanized skin.

A) erythema B) mole C) freckle D) bruise E) callus

17)

Blood vessels in the _________ provide hair with its sole source of nutrition.

A) bulb B) root C) shaft D) dermal papilla E) medulla

18)

Each hair grows in an diagonal tube called a(n) __________.

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A) hair follicle B) vellus C) pilus D) bulb E) dermal papilla

19)

Variations in hair color arise from the relative amounts of __________.

A) collagen andelastic filaments B) keratin andmelanin C) carotene andhemoglobin D) carotene andcollagen E) eumelanin andpheomelanin

20)

As a hair grows, cells __________ as they migrate toward the surface of the skin.

A) are pushed awayfrom the blood supply B) continue tomultiply in the hair shaft C) are coated withcerumen D) form the folliclearound the hair matrix E) atrophy

21)

Hair grows by __________ in the hair __________.

A) mitosis;matrix B) mitosis;follicle C) hypertophy;matrix D) hyperplasia;follicle E) mitosis; bulb

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22) The typical scalp hair in a young adult grows for __________ years at a rate of __________ per three days.

A) 6 to 8; 1 mm B) 3 to 4; 1 mm C) 6 to 8; 5 mm D) 1 to 2; 5 mm E) 1 to 2; 1 mm

23)

Skin covering the __________ has no hair follicles.

A) forearm B) buttocks C) abdomen D) fingertips E) back

24)

Contraction of the arrector muscles causes __________.

A) hairs to standupright B) hairs to grow C) hairs to turnwhite in color D) hairs toatrophy E) hairs to fallout

25)

What is the narrow zone of dead skin overhanging the proximal end of a nail called?

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A) Cuticle B) Lunule C) Nail plate D) Nail body E) Nail root

26)

Mitosis in the __________ accounts for growth of the nail.

A) nail plate B) nail fold C) cuticle D) hyponychium E) nail matrix

27)

Most sweat glands are called __________ glands.

A) mammary B) ceruminous C) sebaceous D) apocrine E) eccrine

28)

The cutaneous glands concerned with cooling the body are __________ glands.

A) ceruminous B) sebaceous C) eccrine D) apocrine E) exothermic

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29)

The __________ glands are a source of sex pheromones.

A) ceruminous B) eccrine C) mammary D) sebaceous E) apocrine

30)

The oil of your scalp is secreted by __________ glands associated with the hair follicles.

A) eccrine sweat B) apocrine sweat C) sebaceous D) ceruminous E) mammary

31) Holocrine glands that keep the skin and hair from getting dry and brittle are called ____________ glands.

A) eccrine sweat B) apocrine sweat C) sebaceous D) ceruminous E) mammary

32) ____________ is/are formed partly from the secretions of glands in the external ear canal.

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A) Sebum B) Cerumen C) Sweat D) Scents E) Mucus

33)

The skin carries out the first step in the synthesis of vitamin D. ⊚ ⊚

true false

34) Reducing blood flow close to the body surface and sweating are examples of how the skin functions in thermoregulation. ⊚ ⊚

35)

The youngest keratinocytes are found in the stratum basale. ⊚ ⊚

36)

true false

Dead keratinocytes exfoliate from the epidermis as tiny specks called dander. ⊚ ⊚

37)

true false

true false

The deeper of the two layers of the skin is the hypodermis.

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⊚ ⊚

38)

Melanin, hemoglobin, and carotene give color to the skin. ⊚ ⊚

39) skin.

true false

Freckles are localized concentrations of hemoglobin. ⊚ ⊚

42)

true false

Embarrassment can be perceived by an abnormal coloration of the skin called cyanosis. ⊚ ⊚

41)

true false

Albinism is the genetic lack of melanin that results in a milky white coloration of the ⊚ ⊚

40)

true false

true false

Hair and nails are composed of collagen. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

11

43) Eccrine sweat glands are associated with hair follicles in the pubic and anal regions, axilla, areola, and beard. ⊚ ⊚

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12

Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_3e_Saladin 1) B 2) C 3) B 4) E 5) D 6) E 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) D 12) A 13) A 14) B 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) E 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) E Version 1

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27) E 28) C 29) E 30) C 31) C 32) B 33) TRUE 34) TRUE 35) TRUE 36) TRUE 37) FALSE 38) TRUE 39) TRUE 40) FALSE 41) FALSE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE

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CHAPTER 6 1)

Osseous tissue is a(n) ____________ tissue.

A) connective B) epithelial C) dense regular D) dense irregular E) reticular

2)

The skeleton stores __________ and __________, but not ___________.

A) calcium;phosphate; blood cells B) white blood cells;red blood cells; calcium C) fat; blood cells;phosphorous D) blood plasma;phosphorous; calcium E) blood cells;calcium; glucose

3)

What are the two regions of cartilage in a growing long bone?

A) Elastic cartilage and epiphyseal plate B) Epiphyseal plate and epiphyseal line C) Primary and secondary ossification centers D) Fibrocartilage and articular cartilage E) Articular cartilage and epiphyseal plate

4)

What are the distal and proximal portions at each end of a typical long bone called?

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A) Epiphyses B) Diaphyses C) Metaphyses D) Synostoses E) Synchondroses

5) A bone is covered externally with a sheath called the __________, whereas the internal surface is lined by the __________.

A) epiphysis; diaphysis B) diaphysis; epiphysis C) compact bone; spongy bone D) periosteum; endosteum E) endosteum; periosteum

6) What fatty substance would you find dominating the medullary cavity of an adult humerus?

A) Spongy bone B) The periosteum C) Red bone marrow D) Yellow bone marrow E) Compact bone

7)

The cells that deposit bone matrix are called __________.

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A) osteogenic (osteoprogenitor) cells B) osteoblasts C) osteoclasts D) osteocytes E) osteons

8)

When __________ become enclosed in lacunae, they become cells called __________.

A) osteogenic cells; osteoblasts B) osteoblasts; osteoclasts C) osteoblasts; osteocytes D) osteocytes; osteoclasts E) osteocytes; osteoblasts

9)

Where are trabeculae found?

A) Compact bone B) Bone matrix C) Yellow bone marrow D) Red bone marrow E) Spongy bone

10) __________ gives bone the ability to resist compression, whereas __________ resists tension.

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A) Minerals; collagen B) Collagen; minerals C) Calcium; phosphorous D) Collagen; matrix E) Osteoblasts; osteoclasts

11) __________ have a ruffled border with many deep infoldings of the plasma membrane, whereas __________ have long, thin, fingerlike cytoplasmic processes.

A) Osteoclasts; osteocytes B) Osteocytes; osteoclasts C) Osteoblasts; osteoclasts D) Osteoblasts; osteocytes E) Osteocytes; osteogenic cells

12)

Bone cells called __________ have the greatest number of lysosomes.

A) osteoblasts B) osteoclasts C) osteocytes D) osteogenic cells E) stem cells

13)

__________ are common in compact bone but rarely seen in spongy bone.

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A) Lamellae B) Osteoclasts C) Lacunae D) Central canals E) Osteocytes

14)

Which of the following is formed by intramembranous ossification?

A) Irregular bones of the vertebral column B) Flat bones of the skull C) Long bones of the limbs D) Short bones of the wrist E) Short bones of the ankle

15) In endochondral ossification, the precursor connective tissue is __________, which is replaced by bone.

A) soft embryonic connective tissue B) fibrous membranes C) hyaline cartilage D) transitional epithelium E) fibrocartilage

16) Achondroplasia is a condition that causes a decrease in the cell division of the epiphyseal plate during adolescence and childhood. The most obvious sign of this condition is __________.

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A) soft cranial bones B) long, thin long bones of the limbs C) a lack of articular cartilage D) excessively thick cranial bones E) shorter than average long bones

17)

Long bones get longer by way of __________.

A) cartilage growth B) muscle growth C) osseous tissue growth D) fibrous membrane addition E) dense irregular connective tissue addition

18)

Why does an adult not have as many bones as a child?

A) Osteoporosis leads to bone loss with age.

B) Some separate bones gradually fuse with age.

C) Many bones are replaced by cartilage with age.

D) Bones arereabsorbed with age.

E) Osteoclast activity overcomes osteoblast activity with age.

19) _____________ is the process of dissolving bone and returning its minerals to the bloodstream.

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A) Mineralization B) Mineral deposition C) Crystallization D) Resorption E) Ossification

20)

Phosphate isnot found in which of the following?

A) ATP B) DNA C) Phospholipids D) RNA E) Amino acids

21)

Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except __________.

A) muscle contraction B) exocytosis C) blood clotting D) DNA synthesis E) communication among neurons

22)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) does all of the followingexcept __________.

A) promote calcium reabsorption by the kidneys B) stimulate osteoclast activity C) lower blood calcium D) promote calcitriol synthesis E) inhibit osteoblast activity

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23)

Calcitriol is the most active form of __________.

A) vitamin D B) calcium C) hydroxyapatite D) vitamin K E) phosphorous

24) Blood Ca2+ deficiency stimulates __________ secretion, which leads to __________ activity.

A) calcitonin; osteoblastic B) calcitriol; osteoblastic C) parathyroid hormone; osteoclastic D) parathyroid hormone; osteoblastic E) calcitonin; osteoclastic

25) If a thyroid tumor secreted an excessive amount of calcitonin, which of the following would you then expect to see?

A) An elevated level of osteoclast activity B) An elevated level of osteoblast activity C) A reduced rate of endochondral ossification D) A rise in blood calcium concentration E) Increasingly soft bones

26) The result of calcium and phosphate levels in blood that are too low for normal deposition is a softness of the bones called ___________ in children and ___________ in adults.

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A) osteomalacia; rickets B) rickets; osteomalacia C) osteoporosis; osteomalacia D) osteomyelitis; osteosarcoma E) osteomyelitis; osteomalacia

27)

What is a rounded knob that articulates with another bone called?

A) Condyle B) Sulcus C) Alveolus D) Foramen E) Sinus

28)

Any bony prominence is called a(n) __________.

A) epicondyle B) tubercle C) fossa D) head E) process

29) What is a hole through a bone that usually allows passage for nerves and blood vessels called?

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A) Orifice B) Alveolus C) Fissure D) Foramen E) Sinus

30)

What is the average number of bones in the adult skeleton?

A) 56 B) 106 C) 156 D) 206 E) 256

31) All the bones listed below belong to the axial skeleton, except the __________, which belongs to the appendicular skeleton.

A) frontal bone B) mandible C) scapula D) thoracic vertebra E) hyoid

32)

Which bone doesnot belong to the appendicular skeleton?

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A) Clavicle B) Patella C) Ethmoid D) Ulna E) Carpals

33)

Most of the bones of the skull are connected by immovable joints called __________.

A) sinuses B) amphiarthroses C) gomphoses D) symphyses E) sutures

34)

Which of the following isnot part of the temporal bone?

A) Zygomatic process B) Mastoid process C) External acoustic meatus D) Sella turcica E) Mandibular fossa

35)

The __________ are not facial bones.

A) parietal bones B) maxillae C) lacrimal bones D) nasal bones E) palatine bones

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36)

The _________ houses the pituitary gland and is found within the ____________.

A) foramen magnum; occipital bone B) sella turcica; sphenoid bone C) lambdoid suture; parietal bones D) supraorbital margin; frontal bone E) occipital condyle; occipital bone

37)

Which of the following bones isnot paired?

A) Ethmoid bone B) Parietal bone C) Maxilla D) Zygomatic bone E) Palatine bone

38)

Which suture separates the left and right parietal bones?

A) Coronal B) Sagittal C) Frontal D) Lambdoid E) Squamosal

39)

All of these contribute to the wall of the orbit except the ____________.

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A) sphenoid bone B) frontal bone C) maxilla D) zygomaticbone E) nasal bone

40) How many cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal vertebrae are typically found in a child?

A) 12; 7; 5; 5; 4 B) 12; 5; 5; 7; 4 C) 7; 5; 5; 12; 4 D) 7; 12; 5; 5; 4 E) 7; 5; 5; 4; 12

41) The most common deformity of the vertebral column is an abnormal lateral curvature called __________.

A) scoliosis B) hyperlordosis C) hyperkyphosis D) osteosis E) osteitis deformans

42) Which abnormal curvature of the spine would cause one shoulder or one hip to be higher than the other?

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A) Hyperkyphosis B) Hyperlordosis C) Scoliosis D) Rickets E) Osteomalacia

43)

Which of the following is not found on a vertebra?

A) Spinous process B) Transverse process C) Head D) Vertebral foramen E) Body

44)

The axis is the only vertebra with a __________.

A) transverseforamen B) spinousprocess C) dens (odontoidprocess) D) vertebralarch E) superiorarticular facet

45)

A typical thoracic vertebra does not have ______________.

A) facets on the body for articulation with ribs B) facets at the end of each transverse process for articulation with ribs C) a downward angledspinous process D) a vertebralforamen E) a pair oftransverse foramina

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46) In a herniated disc, the ring of fibrocartilage called the __________ cracks and the __________ oozes out.

A) nucleus pulposus; annulus fibrosus B) lamina; nucleus pulposus C) annulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus D) annulus fibrosus; body E) nucleus pulposus; lamina

47) The __________ is a bone of the thoracic cage, whereas the __________ is a bone of the pectoral girdle.

A) sternum; clavicle B) clavicle; sternum C) T5; T1 D) scapula; clavicle E) scapula; sternum

48)

The manubrium is part of __________.

A) the clavicle B) the sternum C) the scapula D) a rib E) a vertebra

49)

The seventh rib is classified as a __________ rib.

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A) true B) floating C) false D) prime E) cartilaginous

50)

The _________ is the most inferior portion of the sternum.

A) xiphoid process B) suprasternal notch C) body of the sternum D) costal cartilage E) costal groove

51)

Costal cartilages connect the __________ to the __________.

A) clavicles; sternum B) true ribs; scapula C) floating ribs; xiphoid process D) false ribs; sternum E) true ribs; sternum

52)

What is a sesamoid bone?

A) A bone growing within cartilage in response to pressure.

B) A bone that forms within a tendon in response to stress.

C) A bone that forms in the cranium in response to trauma.

D) A bone made of hyaline cartilage.

E) A bone made of dense regular connective tissue.

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53)

The __________ does not belong to the pectoral girdle.

A) glenoidcavity B) acromion C) sacrum D) clavicle E) scapula

54)

The acromion is part of which bone?

A) Clavicle B) Scapula C) Ulna D) Scaphoid E) Hamate

55)

The glenoid cavity of the __________ articulates with the head of the __________.

A) scapula; sternum B) radius; humerus C) humerus; scapula D) sternum; humerus E) scapula; humerus

56)

Which of the following isnot a surface marking found on the humerus?

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A) Greater tubercle B) Lesser tubercle C) Radial tuberosity D) Trochlea E) Capitulum

57) The styloid process on the lateral side of the wrist is a surface marking found on the __________.

A) humerus B) scaphoid C) lunate D) ulna E) radius

58)

The distal portion of the ulna is where you'll find its __________.

A) head B) olecranon C) trochlearnotch D) radial notch E) coronoidprocess

59)

Which of the following isnot a carpal?

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A) Scaphoid B) Trapezium C) Talus D) Capitate E) Capitulum

60)

When an infant is born, she passes through the __________ first, then the ___________.

A) pelvic inlet;pelvic outlet B) pelvic outlet; pelvic inlet C) pelvic inlet; obturator foramen D) obturator foramen; pelvic outlet E) pelvic inlet; pubic symphysis

61)

The acetabulum articulates with the __________.

A) humerus B) femur C) patella D) tibia E) hip bone

62) When one sits down on a chair, the part of the hip bone touching the chair is most likely the ___________.

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A) pubic symphysis B) iliac crests C) ischial tuberosities D) acetabulae E) auricular surfaces

63)

Which of the following is true regarding the male and female pelves?

A) The male pelvis is lighter.

B) The male pelvis is wider.

C) The female pelvis is shallower.

D) The female pelvis has a more oval pelvic inlet.

E) The male pelvis has a rounder pelvic inlet.

64)

The __________ is not a surface marking found on the femur.

A) medial malleolus B) linea aspera C) medial condyle D) greater trochanter E) lesser trochanter

65)

The __________ is a surface marking found on the fibula.

A) lateralmalleolus B) linea aspera C) medial malleolus D) anterior crest E) medial condyle

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66)

Which of the following isnot a major class of joints?

A) Elastic B) Synovial C) Cartilaginous D) Fibrous E) Diarthrotic

67)

Unlike other joints, a __________ does not join two bones to each other.

A) suture B) syndesmosis C) gomphosis D) cartilaginous joint E) bony joint

68)

What do sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses have in common?

A) They are all joints found only in the appendicular skeleton.

B) They are alljoints found only in the axial skeleton.

C) They do not bind bones to other bones.

D) They are all fibrous joints.

E) They are all cartilaginous joints.

69)

The joint between the diaphyses of the radius and ulna is a __________.

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A) suture B) gomphosis C) syndesmosis D) synchondrosis E) symphysis

70)

The joint between a true rib and the sternum is a __________.

A) synchondrosis B) symphysis C) hinge D) ball and socket E) planar

71)

The joint between L2 and L3 is a __________.

A) synostosis B) gomphosis C) synchondrosis D) symphysis E) syndesmosis

72)

The study of joint structure, function, and dysfunction is called _________.

A) kinesiology B) arthrology C) osteology D) biomechanics E) synostology

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73)

Coronal, sagittal, and lambdoid are examples of ________.

A) syndesmoses B) gomphoses C) fibrous joints D) cartilaginous joints E) synovial joints

74)

What are the most movable joints?

A) Symphyses B) Synovial C) Syndesmoses D) Gomphoses E) Synchondroses

75)

Between the proximal and middle phalanges are __________ joints.

A) pivot B) plane (gliding) C) hinge D) saddle E) condylar (ellipsoid)

76)

The metacarpophalangeal joints at the base of the fingers are __________ joints.

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A) ball-and-socket B) condylar C) pivot D) hinge E) plane (gliding)

77)

The trapeziometacarpal joint is a(n) __________ joint.

A) saddle B) cartilaginous C) condyloid D) fibrous E) planar

78)

Which of the following isnot part of a synovial joint?

A) An articular cartilage B) A joint cavity C) An interosseous membrane D) A fibrous capsule E) A synovial membrane

79)

A(n) __________ is a sac of fluid associated with a synovial joint.

A) alveolus B) synovial vesicle C) bursa D) meniscus E) articular cavity

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80)

Which of the following is an example of a multiaxial joint?

A) The radioulnar joint.

B) The metatarsophalangeal joint.

C) The humeroulnar joint.

D) The humeroscapular joint.

E) The atlantoaxial joint.

81)

The proximal radioulnar joint is a __________ joint.

A) ball-and-socket B) saddle C) hinge D) pivot E) condylar

82) When you walk up the stairs, your hip and knee joints __________ to lift your body weight.

A) rotate B) abduct C) adduct D) flex E) extend

83) When you hold your hands out in front of you with the palms up, __________ of your wrists will tip your palms toward you.

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A) hyperextension B) circumduction C) rotation D) flexion E) abduction

84) Raising the arms to each side of the body to form the letter "T" is an example of __________ of the shoulders.

A) abduction B) adduction C) circumduction D) rotation E) protraction

85)

Normal chewing in humans involves ___________ of the mandible.

A) protraction and retraction B) opposition and reposition C) elevation and pronation D) elevation and depression E) supination and depression

86) Drawing your fingers together so you "cup" your hand to hold water requires __________.

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A) pronation of the forearm B) circumduction of the wrists C) opposition of the thumb D) abduction of the fingers E) adduction of the fingers

87)

Pulling your thigh back as if you're preparing to kick a ball is __________ of the hip.

A) abduction B) extension C) hyperextension D) adduction E) flexion

88) If you stand on tiptoe to reach something high up, you are performing __________ at the ankle.

A) plantar flexion B) abduction C) opposition D) dorsiflexion E) eversion

89) Holding your upper limb straight out and drawing a circle on a canvas is ____________ of the shoulder.

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A) rotation B) circumduction C) extension D) flexion E) hyperextension

90)

Your shoulders __________ when you reach forward to push a door open.

A) protract B) retract C) supinate D) hyperextend E) elevate

91)

The hinge joint at the elbow is capable of which of the following movements?

A) Circumduction B) Supination andpronation C) Flexion andextension D) Rotation E) Abduction

92) To raise your hand and place it on the shoulder of a person standing in front of you involves __________ of the shoulder.

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A) abduction B) adduction C) extension D) flexion E) elevation

93) Suppose your upper limb is outstretched in front of you and you pull your hand up as if to tell someone to stop. This motion of the wrist is an example of __________.

A) flexion B) hyperextension C) extension D) pronation E) supination

94) Moving the soles of your feet medially so they are facing each other is called __________, whereas moving them laterally, away from each other is called __________.

A) dorsiflexion;plantar flexion B) inversion;eversion C) pronation;supination D) opposition;reposition E) retraction;protraction

95)

What is a side effect of the shoulder's mobility?

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A) Susceptibility todislocations B) Stability C) Resistance todislocations D) Limited range ofmotion E) Weight-bearingcapacity

96)

Tearing of the rotator cuff can result in __________.

A) instability ofthe glenohumeral joint B) increasedstability of the glenohumeral joint C) instability ofthe tibiofemoral joints D) instability of the femoroacetabular joint E) instability ofthe proximal radioulnar joint

97)

What is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body?

A) The hip B) The knee C) The elbow D) The shoulder E) The wrist

98)

The hip joint can move in __________ planes.

A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

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99)

The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) prevents the femur from __________.

A) sliding off thefront of the tibia B) sliding off theback of the tibia C) slidingmedially D) slidinglaterally E) rotating on thetibia

100)

What structure in the knee prevents hyperextension?

A) The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL).

B) The posterior cruciate ligament (PCL).

C) The quadriceps tendon.

D) The medial meniscus.

E) The lateral meniscus.

101)

The femoral condyles and the tibial condyles articulate to form the __________ joint.

A) knee B) hip C) elbow D) shoulder E) ankle

102) You observe an athlete sustain a lateral blow to the knee while in full extension. When you test the knee, you notice that there is more hyperextension than usual. Which of these structures is likely injured?

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A) Patellar ligament B) Anterior cruciateligament (ACL) C) Posterior cruciateligament (PCL) D) Quadricepstendon E) Lateral meniscus

103)

Which of the following is not a component of the skeletal system?

A) Achilles tendon B) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) C) Styloid process of the radius D) Costal cartilages E) Auditory ossicles

104)

Which of the following isnot a function of the skeletal system?

A) Thermoregulation B) Support C) Protection D) Blood formation E) Mineral storage

105)

Which of the following isnot a cavity of the skull?

A) Medullary cavity B) Oral cavity C) Cranial cavity D) Sphenoid sinus E) Inner ear cavity

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106)

Which of the following isnot a sinus found in the skull?

A) Carotid sinus B) Ethmoid sinus C) Frontal sinus D) Sphenoid sinus E) Maxillary sinus

107)

Blood cells and platelets are produced in the red marrow. ⊚ ⊚

108)

Concentric lamellae within an osteon are connected to each other by lacunae. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

Osteogenic cells are bone stem cells that differentiate into osteoblasts and osteoclasts. ⊚ ⊚

110)

true false

true false

A decrease in the mineral content of bone can cause the bone to soften. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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111)

The matrix of bone is composed of collagen fibers and calcium nitrate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Intramembranous ossification is common in children, whereas endochondral ossification is typical in adults. ⊚ true ⊚ false

113)

A radiograph (X-ray) of a child's hand will show epiphyseal lines. ⊚ true ⊚ false

114)

Closed reduction is the realignment of the parts of a broken bone involving surgery. ⊚ true ⊚ false

115)

Hypercalcemia causes depression of the nervous system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

116)

Parathyroid hormone (PTH) stimulates osteoblast activity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

117)

A deficiency of parathyroid hormone can cause muscle tremors.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

118) Due to vertebral compression fractures, osteoporosis often leads to an exaggerated thoracic spinal curvature. ⊚ true ⊚ false

119)

The skeletal system includes bones, cartilages, ligaments, and tendons. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_3e_Saladin 1) A 2) A 3) E 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) B 8) C 9) E 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) E 17) A 18) B 19) D 20) E 21) D 22) C 23) A 24) C 25) B 26) B Version 1

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27) A 28) E 29) D 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) E 34) D 35) A 36) B 37) A 38) B 39) E 40) D 41) A 42) C 43) C 44) C 45) E 46) C 47) A 48) B 49) A 50) A 51) E 52) B 53) C 54) B 55) E 56) C Version 1

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57) E 58) A 59) C 60) A 61) B 62) C 63) C 64) A 65) A 66) A 67) C 68) D 69) C 70) A 71) D 72) B 73) C 74) B 75) C 76) B 77) A 78) C 79) C 80) D 81) D 82) E 83) D 84) A 85) D 86) E Version 1

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87) C 88) A 89) B 90) A 91) C 92) D 93) B 94) B 95) A 96) A 97) B 98) C 99) A 100) A 101) A 102) B 103) A 104) A 105) A 106) A 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE 111) FALSE 112) FALSE 113) FALSE 114) FALSE 115) TRUE 116) FALSE Version 1

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117) TRUE 118) TRUE 119) FALSE

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CHAPTER 7 1)

All of the following are functions of musclesexcept __________.

A) stability B) heat production C) control of openings D) secretion E) respiration

2)

Muscle contraction makes up to about __________ % of our body heat at rest.

A) 30 B) 60 C) 10 D) 95 E) 5

3)

In skeletal muscle, alternating light and dark bands are called __________.

A) strabismi B) striations C) Z discs D) myofibrils E) myoblasts

4)

One somatic motorneuron is stimulated by how manymuscle fibers?

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A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3 E) 4

5) To stimulate muscle contraction, acetylcholine is released from the ___________ into the synaptic cleft.

A) axon terminal B) junctional folds C) sarcoplasmic reticulum D) sarcolemma E) terminal cisterns

6)

What neurotransmitter is excitatory for skeletal muscles?

A) Acetylcholine B) Norepinephrine C) Adrenaline D) Serotonin E) Dopamine

7) Exposure to the toxin produced by the bacterium Clostridium tetani causes a continuous release of acetylcholine. What effect would this have onsmooth muscle?

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A) Flaccid paralysis B) Spastic paralysis C) Lockjaw D) No effect E) Myocardial atrophy

8)

Release of acetylcholine at a neuromuscular junction __________.

A) decreases the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum B) increases permeability of the sarcolemma to Na+ C) decreases the positive charge on the sarcolemma D) lowers the threshold of the muscle fiber E) overrides the inhibitory effect of acetylcholinesterase

9)

Which muscle type(s) depend(s) solely on the sarcoplasmic reticulum to store calcium?

A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle D) Skeletal and smooth muscle E) Smooth and cardiac muscle

10) If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber has only partially relaxed from the previous twitch, the most likely result will be __________.

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A) fatigue B) treppe C) incomplete tetanus D) complete tetanus E) flaccid paralysis

11) The absence or inhibition of acetylcholinesterase at a synapse would lead to which of the following?

A) Flaccid paralysis B) Spastic paralysis C) Atrophy D) Numbness E) Muscle wasting

12)

Which protein acts as a calcium receptor in skeletal muscle?

A) F actin B) Tropomyosin C) Troponin D) Titin E) Dystrophin

13)

A lack of calcium ions in the sarcoplasm would prevent which of the following?

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A) Myosin heads from binding with actin.

B) Acetylcholine release into the synaptic cleft.

C) Opening of sodium ion channels in the sarcolemma.

D) Opening of potassium ion channels in the sarcolemma.

E) A change in membrane potential in the sarcolemma.

14) Recruiting more and larger motor units for contraction will ___________ the strength of muscle contraction.

A) increase B) decrease C) not change D) increase then decrease E) decrease then increase

15) As you are lifting a box, someone places extra weight on top of it. For your muscle to continue contracting and lifting the box, the muscle must __________.

A) recruit more muscle fibers B) lower its threshold C) reduce its wave summation D) shift from isometric to isotonic contraction E) shift from slow-twitch to fast-twitch mode

16)

Shortening of a muscle while maintaining constant tension is called what?

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A) Tetanus B) Isokinetic contraction C) Isometric contraction D) Isotonic contraction E) Treppe

17)

Which of the following istrue concerning isotonic eccentric contraction?

A) The muscle shortens but tension remains constant.

B) The muscle lengthens but tension remains constant.

C) The muscle tenses and shortens.

D) The muscle tenses but length remains unchanged.

E) The muscle lengthens and tension declines.

18) Aerobic respiration produces approximately __________ more ATPs than anaerobic fermentation.

A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 50 E) 100

19) Athletes who train at high altitudes increase their red blood cell count and thus increase their oxygen supply during exercise. Increased oxygen supply results in __________.

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A) increased glycolysis B) increased use of myokinase C) longer aerobic respiration D) longer anaerobic fermentation E) reduced ATP consumption

20)

Which of the following isnot a known cause of muscle fatigue?

A) ATP depletion B) Lactic acid accumulation C) Acetylcholine depletion D) Calcium leakage from the sarcoplasmic reticulum E) Accumulation of potassium in the extracellular fluid

21)

Which of the following doesnot contribute to a person's tolerance to prolonged exercise?

A) The amount of glucose stored in the muscle.

B) The amount of oxygen-storing pigment in the muscle.

C) The speed with which acetylcholinesterase catalyzes reactions.

D) Physical conditioning (improving maximal rate of oxygen uptake).

E) The number of mitochondria in the muscle cell.

22) Michael Jordan was arguably the best player in professional basketball history largely because of his explosive moves. Scientifically one would expect him to have highly developed __________.

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A) red muscle B) white muscle C) intermediate fibers D) slow oxidative fibers E) type I fibers

23)

Which of the following istrue about slow-twitch muscle fibers?

A) They are known as white muscles.

B) Examples are the biceps brachii and gastrocnemius.

C) They have abundant mitochondria and myoglobin.

D) They release and absorb Ca++ quickly.

E) They have more glycogen than fast twitch fibers.

24)

Which of the following activities wouldincrease a muscle's resistance to fatigue?

A) Training for a marathon B) Bench pressing C) Driving a golf ball D) Practicing a hockey slapshot E) Sprinting

25)

A skeletal muscle generates the greatest tension when it is __________.

A) greatly stretched before being stimulated B) partially stretched before being stimulated C) fully relaxed before being stimulated D) well rested and low in creatine phosphate E) in a state of treppe

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26)

The training regimen of a competitive weight lifter is designed partly to ___________.

A) convert certain parallel muscles into stronger pennate muscles B) increase the average number of myofibrils per muscle fiber C) convert white muscle tissue to red muscle D) increase the size of his motor units E) lower the threshold for muscle excitation

27)

Where would you expect to find numerous gap junctions in muscular tissue?

A) The sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle.

B) The A bands of skeletal and cardiac muscle.

C) The sarcolemma of skeletal muscle.

D) Intercalated discs of cardiac muscle.

E) Multiunit smooth muscle.

28)

Which of the following would be caused by the contraction of smooth muscle?

A) Release of urine from the urinary bladder B) Blood leaving the left ventricle of the heart C) Elevating the eyebrows D) Blinking the eyelids E) Deep inspiration

29)

Which muscle(s) can contract without the need for nervous stimulation?

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A) Skeletal muscle B) Smooth muscle C) Cardiac muscle D) Smooth and cardiac muscle E) Skeletal, smooth,and cardiac muscle

30) The contraction strength of smooth muscle is relatively independent of its resting length partly because __________.

A) it gets nearly all of its Ca2+ from the extracellular fluid B) it does not have intercalated discs C) it does not have sarcomeres D) it is regulated by a length-tension relationship E) it is an involuntary muscle

31)

In comparison to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle __________.

A) contracts more slowly but relaxes more rapidly B) contracts more rapidly but relaxes more slowly C) contracts and relaxes more slowly D) consumes more ATP to maintain a given level of muscle tension E) depends on a nerve axon to supply the calcium needed for contraction

32) Drugs called calcium channel blockers may be used to lower blood pressure by causing arteries to vasodilate. These drugs __________.

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A) prevent calcium from entering the sarcoplasmic reticulum of smooth muscle B) stimulate the calcium pump in smooth muscle, thus removing calcium from the calmodulin C) prevent calcium from exiting the sarcoplasmic reticulum in skeletal muscle D) prevent calcium from entering cardiac muscle, thus slowing down the heart rate E) prevent calcium from entering smooth muscle, thus allowing the muscle to relax

33)

Muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called __________.

A) compartments B) fascicles C) retinacula D) aponeuroses E) groups

34) What is the name of the connective tissue that is found between the bellies of adjacent muscles?

A) Epimysium B) Fascicles C) Perimysium D) Fascia E) Endomysium

35) Carpal tunnel pressure is sometimes relieved by surgically excising part or all of which structure?

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A) Palmaraponeurosis B) Extensorretinaculum C) Flexorretinaculum D) Extensoraponeurosis E) Median nerve

36)

What term best describes the relationship between the pronator quadratus and supinator?

A) Fixators B) Antagonists C) Synergists D) Prime movers E) Depressors

37) Which term best describes the relationship of the deltoid and SITS muscles during shoulder abduction?

A) Prime movers B) Antagonists C) Synergists D) Fixators E) Adductors

38)

Based on its name, how would you describe the rectus femoris?

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A) Straight and in the thigh B) Diagonal and in the thigh C) Triangular and in the thigh D) Straight and inthe calf E) Diagonal and in the calf

39) What would you expect to name a muscle that lies alongside the medial bone of the forearm, crosses the wrist, and acts to open a fist?

A) Flexor carpi ulnaris B) Extensor carpi radialis C) Extensor carpi ulnaris D) Flexor digitorum profundus E) Flexor digitorum brevis

40)

Which of the following extensors of the head is the most superficial?

A) Trapezius B) Semispinaliscapitis C) Spleniuscapitis D) Sternocleidomastoid E) Temporalis

41)

The __________ attaches to the zygomatic arch and to the angle of the mandible.

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A) Masseter B) Buccinator C) Temporalis D) Genioglossus E) Stylohyoid

42) Which of the following muscles of mastication would be responsible for mandibular elevation?

A) Temporalis B) Lateralpterygoid C) Stylohyoid D) Zygomaticusmajor E) Zygomaticusminor

43) While sitting at your desk, you drop your pencil onto the floor. You bend over to pick up the pencil. In order to straighten up and continue your exam, you must use which of the following muscles?

A) Tibialisanterior B) Erector spinae C) Semimembranosus D) Tibialis anteriorand semimembranosus E) Extensor hallucislongus

44) Which of the following correctly states the attachment points of the sternocleidomastoid from inferior to superior?

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A) Sternum, clavicle, mastoid process B) Mastoid process, sternum, clavicle C) Acromion, mastoid process D) First rib, external occipital protuberance E) Mastoid process, acromion

45) After taking their wedding vows, a bride and groom often ceremonially kiss using which of the following muscles before walking away from the altar?

A) Depressor angulioris B) Orbicularisoris C) Levator labiisuperioris D) Platysma E) Quadricepsfemoris

46) When a nurse draws blood, it is not uncommon for the needle to penetrate which muscle near the cubital region?

A) Pronatorquadratus B) Semimembranosus C) Pronator teres D) Buccinator E) Supinator

47)

What is the antagonist to the triceps brachii?

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A) Deltoid B) Anconeus C) Biceps brachii D) Supinator E) Teres minor

48)

Which of the following best describes the attachment of the extensor digitorum?

A) It indirectly attaches to all digits of the hand.

B) It indirectly attaches to all digits of the hand except the thumb.

C) It directly attaches to all digits of the hand.

D) It directly attaches to all digits of the hand except the thumb.

E) It directly attaches to the index finger only.

49)

What is the longest muscle in the human body?

A) Iliopsoas B) Sartorius C) Erector spinae D) Semitendinosus E) Semimembranosus

50) A clinician induces contraction of the gastrocnemius and soleus and notices that the foot does not plantar flex as expected. Which of the following would be a logical diagnosis?

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A) Peroneal nerveinjury B) Rupturedcalcaneal tendon C) Anteriorcompartment syndrome D) Shinsplints E) Lateral plantarnerve injury

51) A man who doesn't exercise often accepts his friend's invitation to a pickup basketball game. When attempting a jump shot, he falls to the ground in pain, grasping at the calf of his leg.

There is an enormous bulge in his leg immediately below the knee, and he is unable to plantar flex that foot. Most likely he has injured his __________.

A) quadriceps tendon B) calcaneal tendon C) patellar ligament D) tibia E) hamstrings

52) An Olympic sprinter readies for a race. After the sound of the starting gun, he propels himself forward from the starting block and immediately grimaces in pain, grabbing for the back of his thigh. Within 48 hours, he begins noticing extensive bruising on the back of his thigh extending into the back of the knee. He now has difficulty rising from a seated position and flexing his knee. Bending at the waist generates more pain. Which muscle is likely injured?

A) Gluteusmaximus B) Popliteus C) Bicepsfemoris D) Gastrocnemius E) Iliopsoas

53)

What is the thicker middle region of a muscle between its attachments called?

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A) Belly B) Aponeurosis C) Origin D) Insertion E) Body

54) A dark band formed by parallel thick filaments that partly overlap the thin filaments is known as an H band. ⊚ ⊚

55)

The sarcoplasmic reticulum is the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of a muscle fiber. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

true false

An isometric contraction does not change muscle length. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) The "insertion" of a muscle used to refer to an attachment that does not move with contraction. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_3e_Saladin 1) D 2) A 3) B 4) A 5) A 6) A 7) D 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) C 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) C 20) B 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) B 26) B Version 1

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27) D 28) A 29) D 30) C 31) C 32) E 33) B 34) D 35) C 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) B 46) C 47) C 48) B 49) B 50) B 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) TRUE Version 1

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57) FALSE

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CHAPTER 8 1)

The agents of communication in the nervous system are __________.

A) nerves B) neuroglia C) hormones D) tracts E) pools

2) The function of the nervous system that is charged with determining a reasonable and appropriate response to a stimulus is the __________ function.

A) sensory B) motor C) integrative D) efferent E) afferent

3) The __________ function of the nervous system includes stimulating glands to secrete and muscles to contract.

A) sensory B) motor C) sympathetic D) automatic E) integrative

4)

The brain and spinal cord are the two components of the __________ nervous system.

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A) central B) peripheral C) sensory D) glands E) endocrine

5) The stimulus that causes the quadriceps femoris to contract and extend the knee is part of the ___________ nervous system.

A) central B) peripheral C) sensory D) autonomic E) sympathetic

6) __________ neurons are specialized to detect stimuli, whereas __________ neurons send signals to the effectors of the nervous system.

A) Afferent;afferent B) Afferent;efferent C) Motor; sensory D) Efferent;association E) Afferent;association

7)

Most of the neurons in the nervous system are __________ neurons.

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A) sensory B) motor C) afferent D) efferent E) association

8)

Using a structural classification, what are the most common neurons?

A) Multipolar B) Bipolar C) Unipolar D) Association E) Afferent

9)

What is another name for a nerve fiber?

A) Nerve cell B) Dendrite C) Tract D) Axon E) Fascicle

10)

Most regulatory and metabolic processes in the neuron take place in the __________.

A) axon B) neurosoma C) dendrites D) axon hillock E) Schwann cell

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11)

On a neuron, where are signals from other neurons most commonly received?

A) Synaptic knob B) Axon C) Collateral D) Neurosoma E) Dendrite

12)

The pieces of exposed axon in between the myelin sheaths are called ___________.

A) internodes B) nodes ofRanvier C) dendrites D) synapticknobs E) synaptic vesicles

13)

The __________ are at the most distal end of a neuron.

A) axon terminals B) axons C) dendrites D) nodes ofRanvier E) axon hillocks

14)

Neurons cannot typically ___________.

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A) conduct electrical impulses B) make ATP C) synthesizeproteins D) undergo celldivision E) containchromosomes

15)

The myelin sheath in the PNS is formed by ___________.

A) oligodendrocytes B) Schwann cells C) ependymalcells D) satellitecells E) microglia

16)

A decrease in the function of Schwann cells may cause __________.

A) a delay in thesignal transmission to the biceps brachii muscle B) a delay in thesignal transmission down the spinal cord C) a delay in thesignal transmission up the spinal cord D) a delay in thesignal transmission from one gyrus of the brain to another E) a decrease incerebrospinal fluid in the brain's cavities

17)

Which cells form myelin sheaths in the spinal cord?

A) Schwann cells B) Astrocytes C) Satellite cells D) Oligodendrocytes E) Microglia

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18) The layers of the plasma membrane of Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes that cover axons is called the __________.

A) myelin sheath B) endoneurium C) epineurium D) perineurium E) neurosoma

19)

The presence of ___________ is the key difference between gray and white matter.

A) a plasmamembrane B) myelin C) neurotransmitters D) hormones E) microglia

20) At rest, the difference in charge on the outside of a plasma membrane versus the inside is called the cell's __________.

A) resting membranepotential B) surface tension C) localpotential D) actionpotential E) nerveconduction

21)

In order for the cell to maintain the resting membrane potential, __________ is required.

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A) ATP B) calcium C) constantdepolarization D) a battery E) myelin

22)

Local potentials usually occur at the __________ or neurosoma.

A) dendrites B) axon hillock C) trigger zone D) Schwann cells E) axon terminal

23)

Opening of sodium gates typically leads to __________.

A) repolarization ofthe plasma membrane B) hyperpolarizationof the plasma membrane C) depolarization ofthe plasma membrane D) drifting ofplasma membrane voltage toward a more negative value E) plasma membranevoltage returning to the resting membrane potential

24)

Which of the following will cause the plasma membrane to hyperpolarize?

A) Inflow ofsodium B) Inflow ofpotassium C) Opening of sodiumion channels only D) Opening ofpotassium channels only

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25) A change in membrane potential caused by the opening of a ligand-gated ion channel is called a(n) _____________.

A) actionpotential B) localpotential C) nerve impulse D) resting membranepotential E) threshold

26)

A depolarization of the membrane makes the membrane potential less ___________.

A) negative B) positive C) stable D) permeable E) fluid

27) The specific membrane potential voltage that opens the voltage-gated sodium ion channels in a neuron is called the __________.

A) resting membrane potential B) local potential C) threshold D) trigger point E) initiation

28) When the voltage of a plasma membrane shifts from +35 mV toward 0 mV, we say the cell is _________.

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A) depolarizing B) repolarizing C) hyperpolarizing D) reaching thethreshold E) exiting thethreshold

29)

The action potential begins at the ___________.

A) axon hillock B) neurosoma C) dendrite D) axon terminal E) node ofRanvier

30)

During the __________, the neuron cannot be stimulated.

A) resting phase B) localpotential C) refractoryperiod D) lag time E) initial phase

31)

Conduction speed of a nerve fiber would be the fastest in a __________.

A) large myelinatedfiber B) small myelinatedfiber C) largeunmyelinated fiber D) smallunmyelinated fiber E) small fiber withmultiple Schwann cells

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32)

A chain reaction of one action potential after another is what we know as __________.

A) a localpotential B) a gradedpotential C) an actionpotential D) a nerve signal E) a depolarizingsignal

33) What would be the best explanation for why myelinated fibers conduct signals faster than unmyelinated fibers?

A) There are no internodes in unmyelinated fibers.

B) There are more internodes in unmyelinated fibers.

C) Facilitated diffusion of sodium and potassium is faster in myelinated fibers.

D) Active transport of sodium and potassium is faster in myelinated fibers.

E) Action potentials need only be produced at the nodes of Ranvier.

34)

Neurotransmitters are stored within the __________ of the presynaptic neuron.

A) axon B) neurosoma C) synapticvesicles D) nucleus E) dendrites

35)

A condition causing a deficiency of acetylcholine could result in ____________.

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A) excessivetransmission of nerve impulses from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynapticneuron B) an inabilityto transmit nerve impulses from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynapticneuron C) hyperpolarizationof the postsynaptic neuron's membrane D) excessive skeletalmuscle contraction E) spastic paralysis

36) After diffusion across the synaptic cleft, acetylcholine immediately causes _____________ in the postsynaptic neuron's plasma membrane.

A) hyperpolarization B) inhibition C) the opening ofvoltage-gated sodium and potassium ion channels D) the opening ofligand-gated sodium and potassium ion channels E) the closing ofligand-gated sodium and potassium ion channels

37)

The following are all functions associated with the spinal cord except ___________.

A) to protect andnourish the neurons of the central nervous system B) to mediate areflex such as the withdrawal of a hand from pain C) to conduct sensoryinformation up to the brain D) to conduct motorinformation down from the brain E) to receive sensoryinformation from the body

38)

The spinal cord is divided into all of the following regions except _________.

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A) cervical B) thoracic C) lumbar D) pelvic E) sacral

39)

Which of the following fractures would be the least likely to cause a spinal cord injury?

A) A fracture ofvertebra C2 B) A fracture ofvertebra C6 C) A fracture ofvertebra T5 D) A fracture ofvertebra T12 E) A fracture ofvertebra L4

40) The gray matter through which motor nerve signals leave the spinal cord is called the __________.

A) anterior horn B) posterior horn C) anterior column D) posterior column E) anteriorramus

41)

The central canal of the spinal cord is filled with __________.

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A) fat B) blood C) cytosol D) cerebrospinalfluid E) pia mater

42)

Gray matter contains __________.

A) glial cells, axonsof motor neurons, and Schwann cells B) glial cells andmyelinated fibers C) neurosomas,dendrites, and unmyelinated axons D) dendrites andmyelinated axons E) glial cellsonly

43) The bundle of nerve roots that occupy the vertebral canal from L2 to S5 is called the __________.

A) medullary cone B) cauda equina C) lumbar enlargement D) cervical enlargement E) spinal cord

44)

The most superficial layer of the spinal meninges is the __________.

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A) dura mater B) arachnoidmater C) pia mater D) gray matter E) white matter

45)

The middle layer of the spinal meninges is called the ____________.

A) gray matter B) white matter C) dura mater D) arachnoid mater E) pia mater

46) Epidural anesthesia is introduced in the epidural space between the __________ to block pain signals during childbirth.

A) vertebrae anddura mater B) pia mater andspinal cord C) dura mater and arachnoid mater D) arachnoid mater and pia mater E) dura mater and pia mater

47)

Neurosomas of somatic sensory neurons are found in the __________.

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A) anterior root B) posteriorrootlets C) posterior rootganglion D) posterior horn ofgray matter E) anterior horn ofgray matter

48)

__________ keep(s) individual nerve fibers insulated from one another.

A) Perineurium B) Endoneurium C) Fascicles D) Epineurium E) Blood vessels

49)

A ganglion is a __________.

A) bundle of axonsin the CNS B) cluster ofdendrites in either the CNS or the PNS C) cluster ofneurosomas in the PNS D) bundle of axonsin the PNS E) cluster ofneurosomas in the CNS

50)

The __________ contains only fibers of sensory neurons.

A) posterior root B) anterior root C) posterior ramus D) anterior ramus E) meningeal branch

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51)

A(n) __________ is a bundle of nerve fibers and connective wrappings.

A) axon B) neuron C) nerve D) dendrite E) fascicle

52)

There are __________ pairs of spinal nerves.

A) 12 B) 24 C) 31 D) 35 E) 62

53)

Which of the following is not a property of a reflex?

A) Reflex responsesare very predictable.

B) Reflexes areresponses to sensory inputs.

C) Reflexes are quickresponses of the nervous system.

D) Reflexes are notvoluntary.

E) Reflexes areunpredictable actions of the nervous system.

54) When John begins to run, his muscles utilize oxygen and produce carbon dioxide. His body has receptors monitoring these conditions. When the levels stimulate a receptor, the heart rate and respiratory rate elevate to accommodate the change. This is an example of a __________ reflex.

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A) stretch B) somatic C) visceral D) tendon E) withdrawal

55) Reflexes that result in skeletal muscle contraction or relaxation are known as __________ reflexes.

A) motor B) visceral C) sensory D) neural E) somatic

56)

A quick, involuntary, predictable response to a stimulus is called a(n) __________.

A) contraction B) integration C) impulse D) actionpotential E) reflex

57)

Which one of the following best describes the order of a somatic reflex?

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A) Somatic receptor →interneuron → afferent nerve fiber → efferent nerve fiber → skeletal muscle B) Somatic receptor →efferent nerve fiber → interneuron → afferent nerve fiber → skeletal muscle C) Somatic receptor →afferent nerve fiber → interneuron → efferent nerve fiber → skeletal muscle D) Somatic receptor →efferent nerve fiber → afferent nerve fiber → interneuron → skeletal muscle E) Somatic receptor →afferent nerve fiber → interneuron → efferent nerve fiber → smooth muscle

58)

Reflex arcs that utilize an interneuron in the integrating center are always ____________.

A) ipsilateral B) contralateral C) monosynaptic D) polysynaptic E) autonomic

59) Which of the following components of a reflex arc is not in the peripheral nervous system?

A) Afferentneuron B) Integratingcenter C) Efferentneuron D) Receptor E) Effector

60) Consider the following scenario. The biceps brachii tendon in the anterior elbow region is hit by a reflex hammer and subsequently contracts. This reflex is __________.

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A) monosynaptic B) polysynaptic C) intersegmental D) contralateral E) an example of thetendon reflex

61) Consider the following scenario. The biceps brachii tendon in the anterior elbow region is hit by a reflex hammer and subsequently contracts. The integrating center for this reflex _________.

A) does not utilize an interneuron B) ispolysynaptic C) is in thebrainstem D) is in the PNS E) is in the whitematter of the spinal cord

62) A nurse pricks your finger to type your blood. You flinch at the pain, pulling your hand back. This is called the __________.

A) painful reflex B) stretch reflex C) flexor (withdrawal)reflex D) tendon reflex E) crossed extensionreflex

63) The stretch reflex of the quadriceps femoris muscle group causes it to contract. At the same time, the hamstring group relaxes. The hamstring group is effected by ___________.

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A) thecrossed-extensor reflex B) its own stretchreflex C) reciprocalinhibition D) the flexorreflex E) the tendonreflex

64) In the patellar tendon reflex arc, the patellar ligament is stretched, which stretches the quadriceps femoris muscle of the thigh. This reflex will cause the quadriceps femoris to __________.

A) contract and theantagonist muscles, the hamstrings, to relax B) contract and thehamstrings also to contract C) relax and thehamstrings to contract D) relax and thehamstrings also to relax E) relax without anyeffect on the hamstrings

65) The sensory function of the nervous system includes communicating with muscles to stimulate contraction. ⊚ ⊚

66)

Most neurons have multiple dendrites. ⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

true false

Unipolar neurons have only a single process leading away from the neurosoma.

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⊚ ⊚

68)

Postsynaptic neurons receive neurotransmitters primarily at the dendrite. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

Neurosomas and dendrites are both found in gray matter. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

There are four kinds of CNS glial cells and two kinds of PNS glial cells. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

Ependymal cells line the inner cavities of the CNS. ⊚ ⊚

71)

true false

Oligodendrocytes serve the same purpose in the CNS that satellite cells do in the PNS. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

true false

An action potential never occurs in dendrites.

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⊚ ⊚

74)

true false

When a neuron is stimulated, Na+ gates open and allow Na+ to exit the cell. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) Nerve signals travel up the spinal cord through gray matter and down the spinal cord through white matter. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Cervical and lumbar enlargements are wide points in the spinal cord to accommodate the increased volume of neurons needed for movement of the limbs. ⊚ ⊚

77)

A nerve fiber is enclosed in its own fibrous sleeve called a perineurium. ⊚ ⊚

78)

true false

true false

A ganglion is a swelling along a nerve containing cell bodies of peripheral neurons. ⊚ ⊚

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79)

Somatic reflexes are responses of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) The tendon reflex is the inhibition of a muscle contraction that occurs to protect the tendon from rupturing. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) The crossed extension reflex is the contraction of the extensors on one side of the body when the flexors are contracted on the other side. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

The stretch reflex is a tendency of a muscle to stretch when it is overcontracted. ⊚ ⊚

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23

Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_3e_Saladin 1) A 2) C 3) B 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) E 8) A 9) D 10) B 11) E 12) B 13) A 14) D 15) B 16) A 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) B 26) A Version 1

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27) C 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) E 34) C 35) B 36) D 37) A 38) D 39) E 40) A 41) D 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) C 48) B 49) C 50) A 51) C 52) C 53) E 54) C 55) E 56) E Version 1

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57) C 58) D 59) B 60) A 61) A 62) C 63) C 64) A 65) FALSE 66) TRUE 67) TRUE 68) TRUE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) FALSE 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE

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CHAPTER 9 1)

The cerebellum is _________ to the cerebrum.

A) superficial B) deep C) inferior D) superior E) medial

2) From a superior view, the right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated from each other by __________.

A) many sulci B) many gyri C) the brainstem D) the longitudinalfissure E) the corpuscallosum

3)

The gray matter of the cerebrum forms a surface layer called the __________.

A) cortex B) diencephalon C) corpus callosum D) midbrain E) thalamus

4)

Most gray matter of the cerebrum is located in the __________.

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A) reticularformation B) cortex C) limbic system D) basal nuclei E) substantianigra

5)

Place the meninges in order from superficial to deep.

A) Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid B) Dura mater, arachnoid, pia mater C) Pia mater, dura mater, arachnoid D) Pia mater, arachnoid, dura mater E) Arachnoid, pia mater, dura mater

6) Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by __________ into the ventricles and reabsorbed by the __________.

A) choroid plexuses; arachnoid granulations B) arachnoid granulations; choroid plexuses C) the pineal gland; brain capillaries D) pituitary gland; arachnoid granulations E) choroid plexuses; brain capillaries

7)

Cerebrospinal fluid serves these purposes except __________.

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A) to regulate thechemical environment of the nervous tissue B) to rinsemetabolic wastes from the nervous tissue C) to directly provide oxygen and nutrients to the nervous tissue D) to protect thebrain from striking the cranium when the head is jolted E) to providebuoyancy to the brain so it does not rest heavily on the cranium floor

8)

The blood-brain barrier (BBB) consists of __________.

A) gap junctionsbetween epithelial cells that form the capillary walls B) tight junctionsbetween epithelial cells that form the capillary walls C) gap and tightjunctions between astrocytes and epithelial cells that form the capillarywalls D) desmosomes andtight junctions between astrocytes and ependymal cells that form the capillarywalls E) gap junctionsbetween ependymal cells and endothelial cells that form the capillary walls

9) Damage to the _________ could result in abnormal sex drive, inability to regulate body temperature, and irregular food and water intake.

A) limbic system B) thalamus C) pineal gland D) hypothalamus E) pituitarygland

10) The __________ function(s) in visual reflexes, as in looking at and following the flight of a butterfly.

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A) colliculi B) tegmentum C) choroid plexus D) substantia nigra

11) Degeneration of neurons in the __________ inhibits unwanted body movements and leads to the muscle tremors of Parkinson disease.

A) cerebral crus B) tegmentum C) pons D) substantia nigra E) colliculi

12) Nearly all the somatosensory input to the cerebrum passes by way of synapses in the __________.

A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) epithalamus D) cerebellum E) reticularformation

13)

The following are all components of the brainstem except the _________.

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A) pyramids B) pons C) medullaoblongata D) midbrain E) cerebellum

14)

The medulla oblongata is part of the ___________.

A) cerebellum B) diencephalon C) cerebrum D) spinal cord E) brainstem

15) The centers for controlling the heart rate, respiratory rhythm, swallowing, and vomiting are found in the _________.

A) medullaoblongata B) pons C) midbrain D) spinal cord E) diencephalon

16) The reticular formation is an organized core of __________ scattered throughout the __________.

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A) nerves; white matter in the cerebrum B) white matter; cerebellum C) gray matter; brainstem D) gray matter; cerebrum E) neurosomas; hypothalamus

17)

The pons isnot associated with __________.

A) heart rate B) respiration C) sleep D) facial sensation E) bladder control

18)

The thalamus and hypothalamus are part of the __________.

A) diencephalon B) cerebrum C) cerebellum D) spinal cord E) basal nuclei

19) Loss of motor coordination, a sense of time, and difficulty differentiating between similarly sounding words would most likely be related to a lesion in the __________.

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A) limbic system B) pons C) pituitarygland D) medullaoblongata E) cerebellum

20)

The arbor vitae is a structure found in __________.

A) both the rightand left cerebral hemispheres B) the tegmentum inthe midbrain C) thecerebellum D) the reticularformation E) thediencephalon

21) Tracts of white matter that connect the left and right cerebral hemispheres can be found in the __________.

A) cerebralcortex B) thalamus C) cerebellum D) corpuscallosum E) brainstem

22) Planning, motivation, and social judgment are functions of the brain associated with __________.

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A) frontal lobe B) parietal lobe C) occipital lobe D) insula E) temporal lobe

23)

The occipital lobe is __________.

A) chiefly concernedwith mood, memory, and emotions B) the principalvisual center of the brain C) the primary sitefor receiving and interpreting signals from the general senses D) concerned withvoluntary motor functions E) likely to play arole in understanding spoken language

24)

The hippocampus and amygdala are structures found in the __________.

A) medullaoblongata B) basal nuclei C) limbic system D) midbrain E) cerebralcortex

25) After a stroke, a patient complains about lack of sensitivity in her right hand. The stroke most likely affected the __________.

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A) precentral gyrusin the right frontal lobe B) postcentral gyrusin the left parietal lobe C) precentral gyrusin the left frontal lobe D) postcentral gyrusin the right temporal lobe E) postcentral gyrusin the left frontal lobe

26)

Visual disturbances could be caused by a lesion of the __________.

A) medial temporallobe and inferior frontal lobe B) Wernicke and Brocaareas C) occipital lobe D) superior temporallobe and insula E) inferior temporallobe and amygdala

27) The __________ areas are responsible for receiving sensory stimuli, and the __________ areas are responsible for identifying the sensations.

A) sensory association; primary sensory B) Wernicke;Broca C) postcentral;precentral D) primary sensory;sensory association E) visual;auditory

28)

Nerve impulses from the sense of hearing travel to the __________.

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A) medial temporallobe and occipital lobe B) Wernicke and Brocaareas C) postcentral andprecentral gyri D) temporal lobe E) amygdala

29)

Nerve impulses from the sense of smell travel to the __________.

A) medial temporallobe and inferior frontal lobe B) Wernicke and Brocaareas C) postcentral andprecentral gyri D) superior temporallobe and insula E) inferior temporallobe and amygdala

30) The mental processes of awareness, perception, thinking, knowledge, and memory are collectively known as __________.

A) motor ability B) sensation C) language D) cognition E) fight-or-flight

31)

Seventy-five percent of our brain tissue is taken up by __________ areas.

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A) cognitiveassociation B) primary sensoryassociation C) primary motorassociation D) memoryassociation E) limbic system

32) The memories for habitual motor skills, like turning on your cell phone or working a remote control, lie in the __________ of the cerebrum.

A) corpuscallosum B) basal nuclei C) prefrontalcortex D) precentralgyrus E) cortex

33) The hippocampus, amygdala, and cerebellum are responsible for __________, which is the process of creating new memories from sensory experiences.

A) recognition B) memoryconsolidation C) memory banking D) remembering E) total recall

34) The __________ is the part of the brain where decisions about voluntary motor activity are made.

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A) postcentralgyrus B) motor associationarea C) amygdala D) precentralgyrus E) brainstem

35) Once one decides to take notes in class, the appropriate muscles must be deployed. The plan for this deployment is relayed to the __________ before the nerve impulses head down the brainstem.

A) precentralgyrus B) postcentralgyrus C) motor associationarea D) lower motorneurons E) parietal lobe

36) Nonfluent aphasia, due to a lesion in the __________, results in the inability to command the muscles to form chosen words.

A) primary motorarea B) thalamus C) Broca area D) Wernicke area E) primary auditory area

37) A car accident results in damage to the left cerebral hemisphere. This could impair __________.

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A) rational and symbolic thought B) imagination C) insight D) artistic skill E) comparison of smells

38) A predominance of __________ waves in an electroencephalogram (EEG) might indicate that a person is awake, but resting.

A) alpha B) beta C) theta D) delta E) gamma

39)

The complete and persistent absence of __________ is used to determine brain death.

A) thoughts B) memories C) brain waves D) sensation E) somaticreflexes

40) The cranial nerve that innervates the muscles for facial expression is called the __________ nerve and is cranial nerve _________.

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A) facial; X B) trigeminal; VII C) facial; VI D) abducens; VI E) facial; VII

41)

The __________ isnot a motor cranial nerve.

A) trochlear nerve (IV) B) abducens nerve (VI) C) hypoglossal nerve (XII) D) optic nerve(II) E) accessory nerve (XI)

42) The cranial nerve that innervates the muscles for chewing as well as providing sensory innervation for the face is __________.

A) accessory nerve(XI) B) facial nerve(VII) C) trigeminal nerve(V) D) hypoglossal nerve(XII) E) abducens nerve(VI)

43) The cranial nerve that is responsible for regulating heart rate, bronchial airflow, and gastrointestinal secretion is __________.

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A) hypoglossal nerve(XII) B) accessory nerve(XI) C) trochlear nerve(IV) D) abducens nerve(VI) E) vagus nerve(X)

44) The motor pathway of the autonomic nervous system usually involves __________ neurons.

A) no B) one C) two D) three E) four

45)

The autonomic nervous system controls all of the followingexcept __________.

A) the adrenalglands B) the bloodvessels C) cardiacmuscle D) skeletalmuscle E) sweat glands

46)

Preganglionic fibers have their somas in the __________.

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A) posterior rootganglion B) peripheralneurons C) effectors D) spinal cord orbrain E) sympatheticchain

47)

Which one of the following best describes the order of a visceral reflex?

A) Sensory receptor→ interneuron → afferent nerve fiber → efferent nerve fiber → gland B) Sensory receptor→ efferent nerve fiber → interneuron → afferent nerve fiber → gland C) Sensory receptor→ afferent nerve fiber → interneuron → efferent nerve fiber → gland D) Sensory receptor→ efferent nerve fiber → afferent nerve fiber → interneuron → gland E) Sensory receptor→ interneuron → efferent nerve fiber → afferent nerve fiber → gland

48)

Autonomic nervous system fibers are involved in all of the followingexcept __________.

A) changing thediameter of the pupil B) adjusting heartrate and force C) adjustingurination D) adjustingbronchial diameter E) maintaining thetension of the neck muscles

49) In response to high blood pressure, stretch receptors called __________ in the walls of arteries carrying blood to the head will trigger a reflex that causes the heart to __________ its beats per minute.

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A) baroreceptors; decrease B) proprioceptors; decrease C) baroreceptors; increase D) proprioceptors; increase E) chemoreceptors; increase

50) Consider the visceral reflex that increases bronchial diameter in the lungs. What would happen if there was a malfunction in the integrating center of that reflex when exercising?

A) Blood would notpump as quickly as needed.

B) Oxygen would not get into the blood as quickly as needed.

C) The body wouldfunction normally.

D) Urination wouldbe uncontrollable.

E) The pupils wouldconstrict.

51)

Pupils dilate in response to __________ activity.

A) sympathetic B) parasympathetic C) somatic D) sensory E) effector

52)

Which of the following is associated with the "fight-or-flight" reaction?

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A) Pupillaryconstriction B) Glycogensynthesis C) Increased gastricmotility D) Reduced urinaryoutput E) Reduced heartrate

53)

Sympathetic nerve fibers are not associated with situations involving ___________.

A) anger B) digestion C) competition D) stress E) arousal

54)

Most fibers of the parasympathetic nervous system travel in the ___________.

A) vagus nerve B) trigeminalnerve C) pelvic nerve D) sacral plexus E) sciatic nerve

55)

Sympathetic fibers arise only from the __________ region(s) of the spinal cord.

A) cervical, thoracic, and lumbar B) thoracic and lumbar C) thoracic D) cervical E) lumbar

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56) The pre- and postganglionic neurons of the parasympathetic nervous system synapse at the __________ ganglia.

A) chain B) prevertebral C) posteriorroot D) terminal E) basal

57) Preganglionic sympathetic fibers stimulate the adrenal medulla to secrete __________ and __________ into the blood.

A) acetylcholine;epinephrine B) norepinephrine;acetylcholine C) epinephrine;nicotine D) epinephrine;norepinephrine E) acetylcholine;nicotine

58)

The neurotransmitter(s) associated with autonomic ganglia is(are) __________.

A) norepinephrine(NE) B) acetylcholine(ACh) and norepinephrine (NE) C) acetylcholine(ACh) D) dopamine E) dopamine andnorepinephrine (NE)

59) Which of the following is most effective in producing bronchodilation (opening of the airways)?

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A) Acetylcholine B) Nicotine C) Muscarine D) Norepinephrine E) Dopamine

60)

All of the following are under dual control of the ANSexcept __________.

A) pupildiameter B) heart rate C) salivary glandactivity D) adrenal medullaactivity E) gastrointestinalmotility

61) __________ is an example of the cooperative effect between the two autonomic nervous system divisions.

A) The compositionof saliva B) Bronchodilation C) Gastrointestinal secretion D) Heart rate E) Vasomotor tone

62) When the motor divisions of the ANS affect a target in ways that complement each other or work together, it is called a(n) __________ effect.

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A) antagonistic B) agonistic C) cooperative D) synergistic E) muscarinic

63) The concept of __________ refers to the fact that most organs receive input from both divisions of the ANS. A) doubleindemnity B) dualinnervation C) ganglioninnervation D) receptorspecificity E) terminalinnervation

64) The cerebrum and cerebellum both have gray matter in their surface cortex and white matter deep to the cortex. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

The epidural space is between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) The blood-brain barrier (BBB) blocks all toxins and harmful agents from reaching the brain, but allows all beneficial medications to reach the brain.

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⊚ ⊚

67)

true false

The medulla oblongata is the most superior portion of the brainstem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

68) Structures in the midbrain control homeostasis and relay sensory signals to specific regions of the cerebral cortex. ⊚ ⊚

69)

true false

The cerebellum is part of the brainstem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

70) The inability to walk a straight line or climb stairs may be a dysfunction of the cerebellum. ⊚ ⊚

71)

true false

The cerebellum exhibits folds called gyri separated by grooves called sulci. ⊚ ⊚

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72)

The cerebellum is divided into hemispheres. ⊚ ⊚

73)

true false

The visual center of the brain is primarily in the temporal lobe. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) After scoring an A on a difficult anatomy and physiology exam, you feel great about how you performed. It's likely that the amygdala, hippocampus, and/or the hypothalamus are responsible for your feeling of satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

75) The Wernicke area formulates the phrases we speak and transmits a plan of speech to the Broca area. ⊚ ⊚

76)

true false

The optic nerve is also known as cranial nerve I. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) The origins of cranial nerve VIII can be found in both the pons and the medulla oblongata.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

78) The autonomic nervous system carries out many somatic reflexes that are crucial to homeostasis. ⊚ ⊚

79)

The primary targets of the autonomic nervous system are the skeletal muscles. ⊚ ⊚

80)

true false

Both divisions of the autonomic nervous system are normally active simultaneously. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

Most preganglionic fibers synapse with postganglionic fibers in the dorsal root ganglia. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

Most autonomic efferent pathways involve multiple neurons. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

true false

Postganglionic neurons of the vagus nerve end very near or within their target organs.

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⊚ ⊚

84)

The parasympathetic division stimulates digestion. ⊚ ⊚

85)

true false

The autonomic effect on a target cell depends only on the neurotransmitter that reaches it. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

The adrenal medulla is a modified sympathetic ganglion. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

true false

Most sympathetic postganglionic fibers are adrenergic. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) causes pupil dilation.

The parasympathetic division causes pupil constriction. This relationship is known as an antagonistic. ⊚ ⊚

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25

Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_3e_Saladin 1) C 2) D 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) A 7) C 8) B 9) D 10) A 11) D 12) A 13) E 14) E 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) A 19) E 20) C 21) D 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) B 26) C Version 1

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27) D 28) D 29) A 30) D 31) A 32) B 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) C 37) A 38) A 39) C 40) E 41) D 42) C 43) E 44) C 45) D 46) D 47) C 48) E 49) A 50) B 51) A 52) D 53) B 54) A 55) B 56) D Version 1

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57) D 58) C 59) D 60) D 61) A 62) C 63) B 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) FALSE 68) FALSE 69) FALSE 70) TRUE 71) FALSE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) FALSE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE Version 1

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87) TRUE 88) TRUE

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CHAPTER 10 1)

What is a sensation?

A) A response of asensory receptor B) A response of asensory organ C) A subjectiveawareness of a stimulus D) An unconsciousresponse to a stimulus E) A response to anyconscious stimulus

2) The process of converting a mechanical stimulus to an action potential is called __________.

A) potentialenergy B) a gradedpotential C) sensoryadaptation D) sensoryreception E) sensorytransduction

3) Sensory receptors must transduce all stimuli into __________ in order for the brain to perceive the sensation.

A) chemicalenergy B) actionpotentials C) a modality D) nuclear energy E) mechanicalenergy

4) There are four kinds of information obtained from sensory receptors. Pressure is an example of a sensory ___________.

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A) receptor B) modality C) location D) duration E) intensity

5) Over time, it is difficult to notice the smell of your own perfume because of ____________.

A) sensoryadaptation B) sensorytransduction C) proprioception D) nociception E) sensoryintensity

6)

The volume of music is an example of the __________ of a stimulus.

A) type(modality) B) duration C) adaptation D) intensity E) location

7)

Which of the following isnot an example of a general sensation?

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A) Pain B) Touch C) Smell D) Temperature E) Vibration

8) Sensations limited to the head that utilize cranial nerves as their sensory neurons are called _________ senses.

A) general B) special C) tactile D) adaptive E) somatic

9) The __________ does not require anesthesia during surgery because of a lack of __________.

A) brain; nociceptors B) heart; nociceptors C) kidney; mechanoreceptors D) liver; thermoreceptors E) stomach; mechanoreceptors

10)

Pain, heat, and cold are detected by __________.

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A) tactile corpuscles B) lamellar corpuscles C) free nerveendings D) hairreceptors

11) Encapsulated nerve endings found in the dermal papillae of the skin that receive light touch and texture are called __________.

A) lamellarcorpuscles B) tactilecorpuscles C) free nerveendings D) tactile discs E) hairreceptors

12) Pain-blocking substances called __________ can prevent the brain from feeling the pain of an injury.

A) acetylcholine andnorepinephrine B) endorphins andenkephalins C) potassium andsodium ions D) acids andbases E) kinins andprostaglandins

13) A man is hiking along a trail, missteps, and falls off the edge of the trail, falling 15 ft. and snapping the bones of his lower left leg. The extreme pain is not immediately perceived because of ___________, allowing the man to crawl to safety and contact emergency services.

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A) sensoryadaptation B) sensorytransduction C) spinal gating D) referred pain E) phantom pain

14)

The __________ is (are) stimulated by tastants.

A) supportingcells B) taste buds C) olfactoryhairs D) cranial nerves E) taste hairs

15)

The visible bumps on the surface of the tongue are called __________.

A) lingualpapillae B) taste (gustatory)cells C) taste hairs D) taste buds E) taste pores

16) The olfactory nerve fibers have to travel through foramina in the __________ bone to reach the olfactory bulb.

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A) ethmoid B) sphenoid C) frontal D) temporal E) nasal

17)

Which of the following isnot a primary taste sensation?

A) Umami B) Salty C) Bitter D) Spicy E) Sour

18) Which taste sensation is produced by amino acids such as aspartic acid and glutamic acid?

A) Salty B) Umami C) Bitter D) Sweet E) Sour

19)

Which of the following does not contribute to the flavor of food?

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A) Taste B) Smell C) Appearance D) Amount E) Temperature

20) In addition to smell, an injury or condition that causes a loss of the olfactory sense would also affect ___________.

A) the flavor offood B) the ability to recognize faces C) the taste offood D) balance andequilibrium E) the ability toconvert short-term memories to long-term memories

21)

The primary olfactory cortex is located in the __________ of the cerebrum.

A) parietal lobe B) insula C) occipitallobe D) frontal lobe E) temporal lobe

22) Cranial nerves __________ carry nerve signals of gustation to the cerebrum for conscious awareness and integration.

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A) I, II, andIII B) VII, IX, andX C) I, V, and VII D) I, IX, and X E) IX, X, and XI

23) The ________ is the only auditory ossicle that articulates with both of the other two auditory ossicles.

A) incus B) malleus C) stapes D) utricle E) saccule

24) In the spiral organ, the hairs of the outer hair cells come in contact with the ___________.

A) cupula B) tectorialmembrane C) inner hair cells D) basilar membrane E) fibers of the cochlear nerve

25)

The stapedius is __________.

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A) an auditoryossicle B) a muscle thatprotects the sensory cells from loud noises C) the footplate ofthe stapes D) the region of thevestibular apparatus responsible for vertical acceleration E) another name forthe spiral organ

26)

Which of the following structures is part of the inner ear?

A) Malleus B) Incus C) Tympanicmembrane D) Cochlea E) Stapes

27)

The scalae are found within the __________.

A) cochlea B) vestibule C) semicircular duct D) middle ear E) outer ear

28)

A crista ampullaris is found within each of the __________.

A) cochlear ducts B) scalae C) ampullae of thesemicircular ducts D) maculae E) vestibules

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29) Which structure allows upper respiratory infections to spread from the throat to the tympanic cavity?

A) The ovalwindow B) The cochlearduct C) The externalauditory canal D) The auditory(eustachian) tube E) The vestibule

30) When the head rotates, endolymph in a semicircular duct lags behind, which causes the __________ to bend and trigger hair cells.

A) macula B) otolithicmembrane C) utricle D) cupula E) cochlea

31) When you spin while sitting in a swivel chair with your eyes closed, you can sense this movement because the __________ is (are) stimulated.

A) cochlea B) saccule C) semicircularducts D) utricle E) spiral organ

32)

When you travel in an elevator, the __________ senses when the elevator is moving.

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A) inner hair cells of the basilar membrane B) outer hair cells of the basilar membrane C) hair cells of the tectorial membrane D) hair cells of the otolithic membrane of the macula in the utricle E) hair cells of the otolithic membrane of the macula of the saccule

33)

What happens when the hair cells of the spiral organ bend?

A) They release aneurotransmitter that excites the cochlear nerve.

B) They release aneurotransmitter that excites the vestibular nerve.

C) The tectorialmembrane bends upward.

D) The basilarmembrane flattens out.

E) The waves ofendolymph in the cochlear ducts dampen.

34)

We can't hear certain frequencies of sound because __________.

A) the waves do notvibrate the tympanic membrane enough B) those frequenciesare not strong enough to vibrate the auditory ossicles C) those frequenciesdo not vibrate the basilar membrane in areas with a spiral organ D) the semicircularducts have a very limited frequency-reception range E) the hair cells ofthe vestibule are too stiff for excessively high and low frequencies

35)

Stimuli produced by sound waves reach the brain following which pathway?

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A) Upper scala →spiral organ → ossicles → oval window → auditory canal → tympanic membrane →fibers of cochlear nerve B) Auditory canal →tympanic membrane → oval window → hair cells → ossicles → spiral organ →fibers of cochlear nerve C) Upper scala →oval window → auditory canal → tympanic membrane → ossicles → spiral organ →fibers of cochlear nerve D) Tympanic membrane→ auditory canal → ossicles → oval window → upper scala → spiral organ →fibers of cochlear nerve E) Auditory canal →tympanic membrane → ossicles → oval window → upper scala → basilarmembrane → spiral organ → fibers of cochlear nerve

36) Rods and cones are directly connected to a thick layer of neurons called __________ cells.

A) bipolar B) pigmented C) amacrine D) ganglion E) optic nerve

37)

Which of the following isnot an accessory structure of the eye?

A) The conjunctiva B) The palpebrae C) The lacrimalapparatus D) The extrinsicmuscles E) The cornea

38)

The __________ isnot an anatomical component of the eyeball.

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A) aqueous humor B) vitreous body C) lens D) conjunctiva E) cornea

39) Nerve fibers from all regions of the retina converge on the __________ and exit the eye by way of the optic nerve.

A) macula lutea B) optic disc C) fovea centralis D) ora serrata E) lens

40) The relatively relaxed state of the eye focusing on objects greater than 6 meters away is called __________.

A) hyperopia B) myopia C) presbyopia D) emmetropia E) astigmatism

41) In order to see an object as sharply as possible, the light rays from that object must be focused on the bilateral _________, which is the point in the retina with the highest concentration of photoreceptors.

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A) fovea centralis B) maculae C) optic discs D) lenses E) corneas

42) As you age, it may become difficult to view objects close to the eye clearly, such as the text in a book. This could be due to a decrease in the lens function called _________.

A) emmetropia B) accommodation C) refraction D) myopia E) convergence

43)

Paralysis of the ciliary body would result in which of the following?

A) The inability ofthe cornea to refract light.

B) The inability ofthe photoreceptors to respond to light stimuli.

C) The inability ofthe lens to adjust for focusing.

D) The inability ofthe pupil to constrict.

E) The inability toopen and close the eyelids.

44) Cones are responsible for __________ vision and are classified by the __________ of light they respond to.

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A) color;wavelength B) gray;frequency C) low-light;wavelength D) gray;wavelength E) color;frequency

45) The __________ are responsible for photopic (day) vision as well as trichromatic (color) vision.

A) bipolar cells B) rods C) cones D) ganglioncells E) pigmentedepithelia

46)

When a person lacks one of the cone's photopsin pigments, the result is ___________.

A) nightblindness B) a need forrefractive lenses C) colorblindness D) totalblindness E) glaucoma

47) The nerve signals generated by the retinal cells are transmitted to ___________, which carries them to the central nervous system.

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A) cranial nerveI B) cranial nerveIII C) the oculomotornerve D) cranial nerveII E) the olfactorynerve

48)

Half of the fibers of each optic nerve cross the midline of the body at the ___________.

A) superiorcolliculus B) optic chiasm C) lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus D) optic foramen E) midbrain

49) Optic nerve fibers carry nerve signals to the primary visual cortex in the ___________ lobe of the cerebrum.

A) frontal B) temporal C) parietal D) insular E) occipital

50) The __________ allows us to identify and interpret visual stimuli, as well as form new short- or long-term visual memories.

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A) visualassociation area B) primary visualcortex C) optic chiasm D) retina E) temporal lobe

51)

Which of the following isnot a function or property of lacrimal fluid?

A) It provides oxygento the conjunctiva.

B) It cleanses theeye surface.

C) It lubricates theeye surface.

D) It is responsiblefor 50% of the refraction of light rays entering the eye.

E) It prevents eye infections.

52)

A structure specialized to detect a stimulus is called a sensation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) Sensory receptors sense only stimuli external to the body, such as light, sound waves, smell, and touch. ⊚ ⊚

54)

true false

The process of converting stimulus energy into nerve energy is called transduction. ⊚ ⊚

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55)

Pain from a laceration of the liver would be considered somatic pain. ⊚ ⊚

56)

Divergent sensory pathways explain the phenomenon of referred pain. ⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

true false

Smell results from the stimulation of olfactory hairs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Taste signals travel from the tongue through the facial, vagus, and glossopharyngeal nerves. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) The macula of the saccule is nearly horizontal while the macula of the utricle is nearly vertical. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) The vestibule would be responsible for the dizziness a small boy feels when doing repetitive somersaults as well as detecting the giggles of friends watching him.

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⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

The auditory ossicles are found in the inner ear. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) Infection of the middle ear can cause fluid accumulation. This is not problematic as the middle ear is typically a fluid-filled chamber. ⊚ ⊚

63)

The cornea is part of the fibrous layer of the eyeball. ⊚ ⊚

64)

true false

Daylight striking the retina causes rods to signal an action potential in the optic nerve. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

Rods respond to shades of grays and reds. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

true false

Nutritional deficiencies of Vitamin A could result in visual disturbances.

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⊚ ⊚

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20

Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_3e_Saladin 1) C 2) E 3) B 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) C 8) B 9) A 10) C 11) B 12) B 13) C 14) E 15) A 16) A 17) D 18) B 19) D 20) A 21) E 22) B 23) A 24) B 25) B 26) D Version 1

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27) A 28) C 29) D 30) D 31) C 32) E 33) A 34) C 35) E 36) A 37) E 38) D 39) B 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) A 45) C 46) C 47) D 48) B 49) E 50) A 51) D 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) FALSE 66) TRUE

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CHAPTER 11 1)

Endocrine glands secrete substances __________.

A) that have nometabolic effects B) into ducts C) into a lumen D) into theblood E) onto the bodysurface

2)

__________ are chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands into the blood.

A) Neurotransmitters B) Neuromodulators C) Enzymes D) Acids E) Hormones

3) The nervous system reacts to stimuli __________ compared to the endocrine system, adapts __________ compared to the endocrine system, and has __________ effects compared to the endocrine system.

A) slowly; slowly; widespread B) quickly; slowly; specific C) quickly; quickly; widespread D) quickly; quickly; specific E) slowly; quickly; specific

4)

What makes a cell responsive to a particular hormone?

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A) The chemicalproperties of the hormone B) The presence of areceptor for that particular hormone C) The location ofthe gland that secretes the hormone D) The location ofthe target cells in the body E) The site wherethe hormone is secreted

5)

__________ enters a target cell's nucleus and acts directly on the genes.

A) Insulin B) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) C) Estrogen D) Glucagon E) Oxytocin (OT)

6) Hydrophilic hormones require a(n) __________ to stimulate metabolic activity in their target cells.

A) transportprotein B) ion channel C) secondmessenger D) nuclearreceptor E) thyroidhormone

7) Neither follicle-stimulating (FSH) hormone nor testosterone alone can stimulate significant sperm production, whereas when they act together, the testes produce some 300,000 sperm per minute. This is an example of __________.

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A) hormoneclearance B) the cascadeeffect C) the synergisticeffect D) the permissiveeffect E) the antagonisticeffect

8) Parathyroid hormone stimulates osteoclastic activity. Calcitonin stimulates osteoblastic activity. These hormones have a(n) __________ effect.

A) permissive B) synergistic C) reciprocal D) agonistic E) antagonistic

9)

Target organs most often regulate the pituitary gland via __________.

A) negative feedbackinhibition B) positive feedbackinhibition C) direct nervousstimulation D) spinalreflexes E) antagonisticregulation

10)

Which of the following is an example of negative feedback inhibition?

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A) Oxytocin releasestimulated by uterine contractions B) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) causes the anterior pituitary to releasethyroidstimulating hormone (TSH) C) Thyroid-stimulating hormone causing thyroid hormone release D) Growth hormone stimulating the release of insulin-like growth factors E) Thyroid hormone preventing the release of thyrotropin-releasing hormone

11)

Hormones are removed from the body by the __________.

A) liver andkidneys B) spleen C) sweat glands D) lungs E) pancreas

12)

The hypophyseal portal system connects __________.

A) the anterior pituitary with the hypothalamus B) the posteriorpituitary with the hypothalamus C) the anteriorpituitary with the posterior pituitary D) the hypothalamuswith the thalamus E) the pituitarywith its target organs

13)

The hypothalamus controls the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland via __________.

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A) ADH B) OT C) nervousstimulation D) the brainstem E) the hypophyseal portal system

14) The hormone __________ stimulates uterine contractions, and the hormone __________ stimulates water retention.

A) ADH; OT B) OT; ADH C) PRL; GH D) TSH; ADH E) OT; TSH

15)

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone targets the __________.

A) thyroid gland B) thymus gland C) hypothalamus D) posteriorpituitary gland E) anteriorpituitary gland

16)

Which of the following isnot a hypothalamic hormone?

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A) Antidiuretichormone (ADH) B) Luteinizinghormone (LH) C) Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) D) Somatostatin E) Prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH)

17)

Growth hormone is secreted by the __________.

A) hypothalamus B) posterior lobe ofthe pituitary gland C) anterior lobe ofthe pituitary gland D) thyroid gland E) adrenalglands

18)

The posterior lobe of the pituitary gland releases __________ and __________.

A) prolactin (PRL);growth hormone (GH) B) adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH); thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) C) oxytocin (OT);antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D) thyroid hormone(TH); oxytocin (OT) E) growth hormone(GH); antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

19)

Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) targets the __________.

A) kidneys B) adrenal gland C) anteriorpituitary D) hypothalamus E) pancreas

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20)

_________ has more target cells in the body than any of the others.

A) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) B) Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) C) Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH) D) Growth hormone (GH) E) Oxytocin (OT)

21)

The gland that secretes glucocorticoids can be found __________.

A) in the neck B) near thebrain C) superior to thekidney D) draped over theheart E) posterior to thestomach

22) The gland that secretes two antagonistic hormones that regulate blood glucose levels can be found __________.

A) near thebrain B) in the neck C) superior to thekidney D) posterior to thestomach E) draped over theheart

23)

The zona fasciculata and reticularis in the adrenal gland secrete __________.

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A) glucagon B) epinephrine C) estradiol D) aldosterone E) cortisol

24)

Alpha (α) cells in the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans) secrete __________.

A) glucagon, whichlowers blood glucose B) glucagon, whichraises blood glucose C) insulin, whichlowers blood glucose D) insulin, whichraises blood glucose E) glucocorticoids,which raise blood glucose

25)

__________ is synthesized by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets.

A) Insulin B) Cortisol C) Testosterone D) Calcitriol E) Glucagon

26)

The __________ has both endocrine and exocrine functions.

A) adrenal gland B) salivarygland C) ovary D) pineal gland E) thymus

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27)

Absence of iodine in the diet leads to __________.

A) hypoparathyroidism B) hypothyroidism C) hypocalcemia D) hypoglycemia E) hypoxemia

28) The __________ secretes hormones that regulate the development and activity of T cells, a type of white blood cell.

A) thyroid B) thymus C) adrenal gland D) spleen E) parathyroid

29) The __________ secretes a hormone that increases the body's metabolic rate, promotes alertness, quickens reflexes, and stimulates the fetal nervous system.

A) thyroid gland B) pancreas C) adrenal gland D) parathyroid gland E) thymus

30)

The __________ secrete(s) a hormone as a response to hypocalcemia.

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A) thymus B) thyroid gland C) parathyroid glands D) pineal gland E) pituitary gland

31)

The __________ secrete(s) __________, which promotes Na+ and water retention.

A) adrenal medulla; epinephrine B) pancreas; cortisol C) kidneys; corticosterone D) adrenal cortex; aldosterone E) thyroid; calcitonin

32)

The pancreas secretes __________ in response to high blood glucose levels.

A) glucagon B) glucocorticoids C) insulin D) aldosterone E) growth hormone

33)

Most of the thyroid hormone release is in the form of __________.

A) T4 B) T3 C) Triiodothyronine D) TSH E) Thyrotropin

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34) Diabetes insipidus causes excessive urine production, but the urine has no glucose in it.

What might cause this symptom?

A) Insulinhyposecretion B) Glucagonhypersecretion C) Lack of insulinreceptors D) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) hyposecretion E) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) hypersecretion

35) Type II diabetes mellitus causes hyperglycemia (high blood glucose), but the beta cells of the pancreas still function. What is the cause?

A) Glucagonhypersecretion B) Glucagonhyposecretion C) Insulinhypersecretion D) Insulinhyposecretion E) Deficiency ofinsulin receptors

36) The __________ is not traditionally thought of as an endocrine gland, but it has a role in endocrine function.

A) kidney B) pancreas C) thyroid gland D) parathyroid gland E) adrenal gland

37) The initial response to stress is called __________ and is mediated mainly by __________.

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A) the resistance stage; cortisol B) the resistance stage; aldosterone and cortisol C) the alarm reaction; norepinephrine and epinephrine D) the alarm reaction; cortisol E) the exhaustion stage; norepinephrine and epinephrine

38) During the exhaustion stage of the stress response, stress overwhelms homeostasis. A characteristic of this stage is that __________.

A) glycogen suppliesare depleted B) energy demandsare met primarily by fat metabolism C) fermentation isnot enough to provide the necessary ATP D) energy demandsare met primarily by protein metabolism E) energy demandsare met primarily by carbohydrate metabolism

39)

The resistance stage in the stress response is dominated by __________.

A) cortisol B) epinephrine C) norepinephrine D) angiotensin E) aldosterone

40)

Which of the following is a function of cortisol?

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A) Inhibits fatdigestion B) Stimulates proteinsynthesis C) Promotes glycogensynthesis D) Stimulates glucoseintake by most organs E) Promotes breakdownof fat and protein

41)

Thyroxine belongs to what class of hormones?

A) Monoamines B) Peptide hormones C) Steroids D) Glycoproteins E) Carbohydrates

42)

How are hormones eliminated from the body?

A) In bile and urine B) In sweat and urine C) In urine and feces D) In bile and feces E) In sweat and bile

43)

Hormones are normally secreted via ducts into a lumen or onto a surface. ⊚ ⊚

44)

true false

Hormones are only secreted by endocrine glands.

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⊚ ⊚

45)

Peptide hormones are composed of chains of fatty acids. ⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

Oxytocin is synthesized by the posterior pituitary gland. ⊚ ⊚

48)

true false

Testosterone is a gonadotropin. ⊚ ⊚

47)

true false

true false

Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) targets the thyroid gland ⊚ true ⊚ false

49) Growth hormone promotes tissue growth by stimulating protein synthesis, mitosis, and cellular differentiation. ⊚ ⊚

true false

50) The adrenal medulla consists of glandular epithelial cells that secrete mainly norepinephrine.

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⊚ ⊚

51)

Both the thymus and the pineal gland shrink after childhood. ⊚ ⊚

52)

true false

Thyroid hormone plays an important part of maintaining body temperature. ⊚ ⊚

55)

true false

Epinephrine is a monoamine involved in stress responses. ⊚ ⊚

54)

true false

A thyroid deficiency would cause a person to be intolerant of cold temperatures. ⊚ ⊚

53)

true false

true false

A deficiency of insulin receptors would cause low blood sugar. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) Regardless of the cause of stress, the body reacts in a fairly consistent way to different stressors.

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⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

The exhaustion stage of the stress response sets in when protein reserves are depleted. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_3e_Saladin 1) D 2) E 3) D 4) B 5) C 6) C 7) C 8) E 9) A 10) E 11) A 12) A 13) E 14) B 15) E 16) B 17) C 18) C 19) A 20) D 21) C 22) D 23) E 24) B 25) A 26) C Version 1

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27) B 28) B 29) A 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) D 35) E 36) A 37) C 38) D 39) A 40) E 41) A 42) A 43) FALSE 44) FALSE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) FALSE 51) TRUE 52) TRUE 53) TRUE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE Version 1

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57) FALSE

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CHAPTER 12 1)

Which of the following are functions of the circulatory system? Select all that apply.

A) Sensation B) Transport C) Regulation D) Protection E) Mineral storage

2)

Which of the following aretrue regarding the functions of the blood? Select all that apply.

A) It helps maintainfluid balance.

B) It picks up oxygenfrom body cells and transports it to the lungs to be expelled.

C) Shifts in its flow can help regulate body temperature.

D) Its proteins act as pHbuffers.

E) It drains excess fluid from tissues to prevent swelling.

3)

Platelets are formed from large multinucleated cells called ___________.

4)

A normal hematocrit is approximately __________ of the total blood volume.

A) less than 1% B) 17% to 23% C) 25% to 31% D) 62% to 75% E) 37% to 52%

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5)

Blood doesnot __________.

A) transport a variety of nutrients B) help to stabilize the pH of extracellular fluids C) participate in the initiation of blood clotting D) produce plasma hormones E) help to regulate body temperature

6)

The buffy coat doesnot contain __________.

A) lymphocytes B) granulocytes C) erythrocytes D) agranulocytes E) platelets

7) A patient's blood is found to be abnormally viscous. This could be due to abnormally high ___________ concentration, as this component is the main contributor to blood viscosity.

A) fibrin B) albumin C) sodium D) erythrocyte E) nitrogenous waste

8) What would happen If all the hemoglobin contained in RBCs was released into the plasma?

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A) It would considerably increase blood oxygen-carrying capacity.

B) It would facilitate delivery of oxygen into tissues supplied by small capillaries.

C) It would facilitate oxygen diffusion into cells distant from blood capillaries.

D) It would significantly increase blood osmolarity.

E) It would drastically increase the blood pressure.

9)

Which of the following isnot normally found in plasma?

A) Glycogen B) Fibrinogen C) Glucose D) Urea E) Albumin

10)

What is the most abundant protein in plasma?

A) Insulin B) Creatine C) Bilirubin D) Albumin E) Creatinine

11)

Serum is essentially identical to plasma except for the absence of __________.

A) blood clots B) nitrogenouswastes C) platelets D) glucose E) albumin

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12) When doing blood analysis of a sample taken from an ill patient, a lab technician discovers the protein called __________ that is not normally found in plasma. This could be due to abnormal rupturing of RBCs. A) albumin B) hemoglobin C) transferrin D) globulin E) fibrinogen

13)

Erythrocytes function to transport oxygen and __________.

A) defend the body against pathogens B) initiate blood clotting C) regulate erythropoiesis D) transport nutrients E) transport some carbon dioxide

14)

Most oxygen is transported bound to __________.

A) the plasma membrane of erythrocytes B) alpha chains in hemoglobin C) beta chains in hemoglobin D) delta chains in hemoglobin E) heme groups in hemoglobin

15) What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?

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A) Biliverdin B) Bilirubin C) Globin D) Heme E) Iron

16)

What is more likely to cause anemia than any of the other factors below?

A) High altitude B) Air pollution other than by carbon monoxide C) Renal disease D) Smoking E) Any factor thatcreates a state of hypoxemia

17)

Which of the following isnot a consequence of anemia?

A) Blood viscosity is increased.

B) The individual is lethargic.

C) Blood osmolarity is reduced.

D) Blood resistance to flow is reduced.

E) More fluid transfers from the bloodstream to the intercellular spaces.

18)

Where do most RBCs die?

A) Stomach B) Red bone marrow C) Spleen D) Lymph nodes E) Pancreas

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19)

A deficiency of __________ can cause pernicious anemia.

A) vitamin C B) iron C) vitamin B12 D) EPO secretion E) folic acid

20) An increased erythropoietin (EPO) output by the kidneys would lead to all of the followingexcept __________.

A) decreased oxygen in the blood B) increased blood osmolarity C) increased RBC production D) increased blood viscosity E) increased hematocrit

21)

Sickle-cell disease isnot __________.

A) caused by a recessive allele that modifies the structure of hemoglobin B) a hereditary hemoglobin defect C) advantageous to protect carriers against malaria D) a cause of malaria E) a cause of anemia

22)

Type AB blood has ____________ RBC antigen(s).

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A) no B) anti-A and anti-B C) anti-A D) anti-B E) A and B

23) Type A blood can safely donate RBCs to __________ and can receive RBCs of type __________.

A) O; AB B) AB; O C) A; B D) B; A E) O; O

24) RhoGAM is an antibody given to Rh– women who give birth to Rh+ children. RhoGAM is what type of plasma protein?

A) Immune globulin B) Transferrin C) Hemoglobin D) Fibrinogen E) Albumin

25)

The universal donor of RBCs, but not necessarily plasma, is __________.

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A) AB, Rh-negative B) AB, Rh-positive C) O, Rh-negative D) O, Rh-positive E) ABO, Rh-negative

26) An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood. The individual has __________ antigen(s) and can produce anti-__________ antibody(-ies).

A) A and D; B B) B and D; A C) B; A and D D) A; B and D E) D; A and B

27) The main reason why an individual AB, Rh-negative cannot donate blood to an individual A, Rh-positive is because __________.

A) anti-A antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient B) anti-A antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor C) anti-B antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient D) anti-D antibodies in the donor will agglutinate RBCs of the recipient E) anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor

28) A woman's first pregnancy is normal but her second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), or erythroblastosis fetalis. The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood. The mother is most likely type __________ and both children are most likely __________.

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A) Rh-negative; Rh-positive B) Rh-positive; Rh-negative C) O; AB D) AB; O E) O; O

29) ___________ aid in the body's defense processes by secreting histamine (vasodilator) and heparin (anticoagulant).

A) Eosinophils B) Basophils C) Neutrophils D) Platelets E) Monocytes

30) The differential count of __________ typically increases in response to bacterial infections.

A) basophils B) monocytes C) erythrocytes D) eosinophils E) neutrophils

31)

A total WBC count above normal is called __________.

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A) Leukemia B) Leukopenia C) Leukocytosis D) Lymphoma E) Myelodysplastic syndrome

32)

Leukopoiesis begins with the differentiation of __________.

A) hematopoietic stem cells B) precursor cells C) colony-forming units D) myeloblasts E) lymphoblasts

33) Some lymphocytes, such as those responsible for immune system memory, can live for up to __________.

A) days B) weeks C) months D) years E) decades

34)

All these can cause leukopeniaexcept __________.

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A) acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) B) lead poisoning C) radiation therapy D) dehydration E) immunosuppressant drugs

35)

The overall cessation of bleeding is specifically called ___________.

A) hematopoiesis B) homeostasis C) hemostasis D) platelet plug formation E) coagulation

36) Platelets release ____________, a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm.

A) heparin B) thrombin C) thromboplastin D) prostacyclin E) serotonin

37)

Platelets donot secrete __________.

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A) clotting factors B) thrombopoietin C) growth factors D) vasoconstrictors E) a clot dissolving enzyme called plasmin

38)

When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by __________.

A) prothrombin B) thromboplastin C) kallikrein D) plasmin E) platelet-derived growth factor

39)

The structural framework of the blood clot is formed by __________.

A) thrombin B) plasmin C) fibrin D) fibrinogen E) albumin

40) Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by the abnormal clotting of blood in an unbroken vessel. Moreover, a piece of the ____________ (clot) may break loose and begin to travel in the bloodstream as a(n) ______________.

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A) thrombus; embolus B) embolism; thrombus C) plaque; thrombus D) thrombosis; plaque E) plaque; embolus

41)

What are the least abundant formed elements?

A) Platelets B) Basophils C) Erythrocytes D) Neutrophils E) Eosinophils

42)

What are the most abundant agranulocytes?

A) Macrophages B) Eosinophils C) Monocytes D) Lymphocytes E) Neutrophils

43)

Whole blood is more viscous than water due to plasma electrolytes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) The most important component of the cytoplasm of red blood cells (RBCs) is hemoglobin.

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⊚ ⊚

45)

Hemoglobin binds equal percentages of oxygen and carbon dioxide. ⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

true false

Hemostasis is the production of formed elements of blood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

47) A person develops anti-A antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen A, and anti-B antibodies only after he is exposed to antigen B. ⊚ ⊚

true false

48) Incompatibility of one person's blood with another results from the action of plasma antibodies against the RBCs' antigens. ⊚ ⊚

true false

49) Rh incompatibility between a sensitized Rh+ woman and an Rh– fetus can cause hemolytic disease of the newborn. ⊚ ⊚

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50) Lymphocytes secrete antibodies, coordinate action of other immune cells, and serve in immune memory. ⊚ ⊚

51)

Monocytes differentiate into large phagocytic cells. ⊚ ⊚

52)

true false

true false

Circulating white blood cells (WBCs) spend most of their lives in the bloodstream. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) Leukocytes circulate in the blood for long periods of time, generally from months to years. ⊚ ⊚

54)

true false

Platelet production is called hemostasis. ⊚ ⊚

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55) You cut your finger with a knife while making dinner. In order to stop the bleeding, coagulation will begin with a vascular spasm and the bleeding will cease with the formation of a platelet plug. ⊚ ⊚

56)

Clotting deficiency can result from thrombocytopenia or hemophilia. ⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

true false

After a wound is sealed, tissue repair is followed by fibrinolysis. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_3e_Saladin 1) [B, C, D] 2) [A, C, D] 3) megakaryocytes 4) E 5) D 6) C 7) D 8) D 9) A 10) D 11) A 12) B 13) E 14) E 15) B 16) C 17) A 18) C 19) C 20) A 21) D 22) E 23) B 24) A 25) C 26) B Version 1

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27) E 28) A 29) B 30) E 31) C 32) A 33) E 34) D 35) C 36) E 37) B 38) D 39) C 40) A 41) B 42) D 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE Version 1

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57) TRUE

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CHAPTER 13 1) The __________ sulcus on the heart surface marks the boundary between the atria and ventricles.

2)

The __________ nerves supply parasympathetic input to the SA and AV nodes.

3)

Oxygen-poor blood passes through __________.

A) the right AV (tricuspid) valve and pulmonary valve B) the right AV (tricuspid) valve only C) the left AV (bicuspid) valve and aortic valve D) the left AV (bicuspid) valve only E) the pulmonary and aortic valves

4)

The __________ is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart.

A) parietal pericardium B) visceral pericardium C) endocardium D) epicardium E) myocardium

5)

Pericardial fluid is found between which structures?

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A) The visceral pericardium and the myocardium B) The visceral pericardium and the epicardium C) The parietal and visceral pericardia D) The myocardium and endocardium E) The epicardium and myocardium

6)

The __________ performs the work of the heart.

A) fibrous skeleton B) pericardial cavity C) endocardium D) myocardium E) epicardium

7)

The ________ on the heart surface marks the boundary between the ventricles.

A) coronarysulcus B) interventricularseptum C) interatrialseptum D) interventricular sulcus E) medial margin

8)

The tricuspid valve regulates the opening between the __________.

A) right atrium and the left atrium B) right atrium and right ventricle C) right atrium and the left ventricle D) left atrium and the left ventricle E) left ventricle and the right ventricle

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9) If the ___________ fails to adequately initiate a regular heartbeat, it is often replaced with an artificial pacemaker.

A) subendocardial conducting network B) bicuspid valve C) sinoatrial (SA) node D) atrioventricular (AV) node E) tricuspid valve

10)

Which of these is not part of the cardiac conduction system?

A) The sinoatrial(SA) node B) The tendinouscords (TC) C) Theatrioventricular (AV) node D) Theatrioventricular (AV) bundle (bundle of His) E) The subendocardial conducting network

11) What is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiocyte in the left ventricle (LV)?

A) Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → atrioventricular (AV) node → subendocardial conducting network → cardiocyte in LV B) Atrioventricular (AV) node → subendocardial conducting network → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → sinoatrial (SA) node → cardiocyte in LV C) Atrioventricular (AV) node → sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → subendocardial conducting network → cardiocyte in LV D) Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → subendocardial conducting network → cardiocyte in LV E) Sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → subendocardial conducting network → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → cardiocyte in LV

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12)

Atrial depolarization is read as the __________ on an EKG. A) P wave B) QRS complex C) T wave D) ST segment E) QT interval

13)

When does atrial systole begin on an EKG? A) Immediately before the P wave B) Immediately after the P wave C) During the Q wave D) During the S-T segment E) Immediately after the T wave

14) When the left ventricle contracts, the __________ valve closes and the __________ valve is pushed open.

A) bicuspid; pulmonary B) tricuspid; pulmonary C) tricuspid; aortic D) mitral; aortic E) aortic; pulmonary

15)

The second heart sound is due to the __________ valve(s) closing.

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A) atrioventricular B) left AV C) bicuspid D) semilunar E) right AV

16) As the ventricles begin to contract, blood pushes against the AV valves and closes them, causing _________.

A) the first heart sound B) the second heart sound C) a heart murmur D) blood to pass into the atria E) the sounds of Korotkoff

17) If stroke volume goes up and heart rate remains constant, cardiac output will __________.

A) increase B) decrease C) stay the same D) increase then decrease E) decrease then increase

18) Sympathetic stimulation of the heart will increase heart rate and stroke volume, therefore __________ cardiac output.

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A) increasing B) decreasing C) not affecting D) nullifying E) neutralizing

19)

Which of the following carry oxygen-poor blood?

A) The pulmonary veins and vena cavae B) The aorta and pulmonary veins C) The aorta and vena cavae D) The venae cavae and pulmonary arteries E) The pulmonary veins and pulmonary arteries

20)

Which of the following have the thickest tunica media?

A) Small arteries B) Small veins C) Large arteries D) Large veins E) Capillaries

21) The outermost wall of an artery or vein is called the __________ and in large arteries and veins contains the __________.

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A) tunica media; smooth muscle B) tunica externa; vasa vasorum C) tunica externa; valves D) tunica intima; endothelium E) tunica intima; basement membrane

22)

Which of the following is not a possible circulatory route from the heart?

A) Heart → arteries → capillary bed → veins → heart B) Heart → arteries → capillary bed → vein → capillary bed → veins → heart C) Heart → arteries → capillary bed → vein → capillary bed → arteries → heart D) Heart → arteries → arterial anastomosis → capillary bed → veins → heart E) Heart → arteries → arterial anastomosis → capillary bed → venous anastomosis → veins → heart

23) Hypertension is commonly considered to be a chronic resting blood pressure higher than __________.

A) 90/40 B) 110/60 C) 160/90 D) 130/80 E) 200/90

24)

Myocardial infarction can lead to _______________ shock.

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A) neurogenic B) hemorrhagic C) obstructed venous return D) venous pooling (vascular) E) hypovolemic

25) As resistance increases, blood flow will __________ unless the heart pumps harder to compensate.

A) increase B) decrease C) remain the same

26)

What has the most important effect on blood velocity?

A) Blood viscosity B) Vessel radius C) Blood osmolarity D) Hematocrit E) Vessel length

27)

Which of the following doesnot increase blood pressure?

A) Epinephrine B) Antidiuretic hormone C) Angiotensin D) Aldosterone E) Atrial natriuretic peptide

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28) Damage to the vasomotor center of the __________ could affect peripheral blood flow and blood pressure.

A) hypothalamus B) medulla oblongata C) spinal cord D) cerebellum E) cortex

29) In people who stand for long periods, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs and this may result in varicose veins. Varicose veins are caused by __________.

A) an aneurysm or weak point in an artery B) an aneurysm or weak point in a vein C) failure of the venous valves D) failure of the lymphatic valves E) a ruptured aneurysm in a vein

30)

What doesnot contribute to venous return?

A) The difference of pressure between venules and the venae cavae B) The expansion and contraction of the thoracic cavity during ventilation C) The suction created by the atria slightly expanding during ventricular systole D) Widespread vasodilation E) Contraction of skeletal muscles of the limbs

31)

What is the most important force in venous flow?

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A) Cardiac suction B) The pressure generated by the heart C) The skeletal muscle pump D) The thoracic (respiratory) pump E) The one-way flow generated by valves

32)

Which of the following belong to the pulmonary circuit?

A) Aorta and venae cavae B) Aorta and pulmonary veins C) Pulmonary arteries and venae cavae D) Venae cavae and pulmonary veins E) Pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins

33)

Which of the following isnot found in humans?

A) Right and left common carotid arteries B) Right and left brachiocephalic arteries C) Right and left brachiocephalic veins D) Right and left subclavian veins E) Right and left subclavian arteries

34)

From superior to inferior, what are the major branches of the abdominal aorta?

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A) Celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries B) Celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, gonadal arteries, renal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries C) Superior mesenteric artery, celiac trunk, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries D) Superior mesenteric artery, celiac trunk, gonadal arteries, renal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries E) Superior mesenteric artery, inferior mesenteric artery, celiac trunk, gonadal arteries, renal arteries, and common iliac arteries

35)

Which of the following isnot found in the upper limb?

A) Cephalic vein B) Great saphenous vein C) Basilic vein D) Median cubital vein E) Ulnar vein

36)

How many pulmonary arteries empty into the right atrium of the heart?

A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 E) 7

37)

The lungs receive a systemic blood supply by way of the __________.

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A) right pulmonary artery B) left pulmonary artery C) pulmonary veins D) bronchial arteries E) lobar arteries

38)

Which artery supplies 80% of the cerebrum with oxygen-rich blood?

A) Superficial temporal artery B) Occipital artery C) Internal carotid artery D) Anterior cerebral artery E) Middle cerebral artery

39)

Which of the following istrue about blood flow through the heart?

A) Blood enters the left atrium from the pulmonary veins.

B) Blood enters the left ventricle through the tricuspid valve.

C) Blood enters the aorta through the pulmonary valve.

D) Blood enters the pulmonary arteries from the right ventricle.

E) Blood enters the left ventricle from the right atrium.

40)

Heart attacks are generally caused by blockage of which of the following?

A) Coronary arteries B) Coronary veins C) Coronary sinus D) Coronary nodes E) Coronary bundles

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41)

Which vessel layer can increase and decrease the vessels diameter?

A) Tunica media B) Tunica interna C) Tunica externa D) Endothelium E) Vasa vasorum

42)

A shunt between vessels is also called a(n) __________.

A) anastamosis B) vaso vasorum C) portal system D) fenestration E) intercellular cleft

43)

Which of the following wouldincrease blood flow?

A) A decreased hematocrit B) An increased blood albumin C) An increased vessel length D) Vasoconstriction E) A decreased vessel radius

44)

Where in a capillary does more fluid move into the vessel than leaves it?

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A) At the venous end of the capillary B) At the arteriole end of the capillary C) At the middle of the capillary D) At both ends of the capillary E) At the precapillary sphincter

45)

Which of the following is true regarding the heart?

A) It is found in the mediastinum.

B) It tilts slightly to the right.

C) The inferior end is the base.

D) It is about the same size as ones liver.

E) It is enclosed by the single-walled pericardial sac.

46)

Lung tissue receives nourishment and waste removal from the pulmonary circuit. ⊚ ⊚

47)

The pulmonary circuit is supplied by both the right and the left sides of the heart. ⊚ ⊚

48)

true false

true false

The systemic circuit contains oxygen-rich blood only. ⊚ ⊚

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49)

The inferior end of the heart is referred to as the base. ⊚ ⊚

true false

50) The fibrous skeleton of the heart serves as electrical insulation between the atria and the ventricles. ⊚ ⊚

true false

51) Damaged or weak papillary muscles could result in the atrioventricular valves (AV) prolapsing (bulging) excessively into the atria when the ventricles contract. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) Blood in the heart chambers provides most of the myocardiums oxygen and nutrient needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

53) Desmosomes form channels that allow each cardiocyte to electrically stimulate its neighbors. ⊚ ⊚

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54)

Intercalated discs contain gap junctions. ⊚ ⊚

55)

Cardiac muscle can only use glucose as a source of organic fuel. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

The ventricles are almost empty at the end of ventricular diastole. ⊚ ⊚

59)

true false

Parasympathetic stimulation reduces heart rate. ⊚ ⊚

58)

true false

The heart relies most heavily on anaerobic respiration for its ATP production. ⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

true false

Blood flow through a capillary bed is regulated by precapillary sphincters. ⊚ ⊚

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60) The brachial vein is the most common site of blood pressure measurement with the sphygmomanometer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

61) Increased capillary filtration, reduced reabsorption, or obstruction of lymphatic drainage can lead to edema. ⊚ ⊚

62)

The pulmonary circuit is the only route in which arteries carry less oxygen than veins. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

true false

The greatest outflow from the dural venous sinuses is via the internal jugular vein. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) The three primary branches of the celiac trunk are the common hepatic, left gastric, and splenic veins. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

Arterial flow to the lower limb comes from the external iliac artery. ⊚ ⊚

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66)

The radial artery is lateral to the ulnar artery. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_3e_Saladin 1) coronary 2) vagus 3) A 4) A 5) C 6) D 7) D 8) B 9) C 10) B 11) D 12) A 13) B 14) D 15) D 16) A 17) A 18) A 19) D 20) C 21) B 22) C 23) D 24) B 25) B 26) B Version 1

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27) E 28) B 29) C 30) D 31) B 32) E 33) B 34) A 35) B 36) A 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) A 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) FALSE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) TRUE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) TRUE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE

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CHAPTER 14 1)

Which of the following isnot a function of the lymphatic system?

A) Fluid recovery B) Oxygen delivery C) Immunity D) Lipidabsorption E) Returning fluid to the veins

2)

The tonsils, thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes of principal examples of __________.

A) lymphatics B) lymphaticvessels C) lymphaticducts D) lymphaticorgans E) lymphatictissues

3)

Lymphatic vessels recover about ___________ of the fluid filtered by capillaries.

A) 5% B) 15% C) 25% D) 50% E) 85%

4)

Lymph is similar to blood plasma, but with less __________.

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A) protein B) carbon dioxide C) metabolicwaste D) electrolytes E) sodium andpotassium

5)

All these forces help lymph to flowexcept __________.

A) rhythmiccontractions of lymphatic vessels B) breathing C) skeletal musclecontraction D) pumping lymphnodes E) blood flowdraw

6)

__________ are the largest of the lymphatic vessels and they empty into the __________.

A) Lymphatic trunks; collecting ducts B) Lymphatic trunks; subclavian arteries C) Lymphatic trunks; subclavian veins D) Collecting ducts; subclavian veins E) Collecting ducts; subclavian arteries

7) Special lymphatic vessels called lacteals absorb dietary __________ that are not absorbed by the blood capillaries.

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A) water B) glucose C) vitamins D) amino acids E) lipids

8) The __________ is (are) patches of lymphatic tissue found in the pharynx and guard against inhaled and ingested pathogens.

A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) tonsils D) lymphaticducts E) spleen

9)

The _________ shows a remarkable degree of degeneration (involution) with age.

A) lymph node B) thymus C) spleen D) pharyngeal tonsil E) appendix

10)

The _________ is (are) the only lymphatic organ(s) with afferent lymphatic vessels.

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A) lymph nodes B) thymus C) spleen D) red bone marrow E) tonsils

11)

Removal of the __________ would be the most harmful to a one-year-old child.

A) spleen B) lymph node C) thymus D) appendix E) palatine tonsil

12) __________ are secreted by cells infected by viruses. They signal nearby cells to inhibit viral replication and activate natural killer cells.

A) Complement system globulins B) Interferons C) Granzymes D) Pyrogens E) Perforins

13) __________ destroy bacteria by employing a chemical "killing zone" of hydrogen peroxide and hypochlorite.

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A) Neutrophils B) Basophils C) Cytotoxic T cells D) Natural killer cells E) Suppressor T cells

14) Natural killer cells release proteins called __________, which create a hole in the enemy cell membrane.

A) immunoglobulins B) cytokines C) perforins D) interferons E) prostaglandins

15) If you get exposed to the flu virus this winter, which of these could help inhibit a widespread infection in your body?

A) Bradykinins B) Interferons C) Cytokines D) Kinins E) Prostaglandins

16) The __________ synthesizes most of the 30 antimicrobial proteins that make up the __________ system.

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A) liver;antibody B) kidney;humoral C) liver;complement D) liver;supplement E) bone marrow;inflammation

17)

Proteins of __________ are activated by pathogens and chemically destroy microbes.

A) humoralimmunity B) the thymus C) the spleen D) inflammation E) the complementsystem

18) The increased blood flow associated with inflammation helps to deliver __________ to the injury site.

A) antibodies B) leukocytes C) bacteria D) viruses E) pathogens

19)

Which of the following is not a cardinal sign characteristic of inflammation?

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A) Impaired use B) Redness C) Pain D) Heat E) Swelling

20)

How do neutrophils find bacteria during the early stages of inflammation?

A) Antigen-presenting cells present the bacteria to the neutrophils.

B) Antibodies on theneutrophils locate the bacteria.

C) The bacteriastimulate a hormone release that summons neutrophils.

D) Neutrophils are attracted to chemicals released by bacteria.

E) Neutrophils followcytotoxic T cells to the area.

21)

Which of the following agents donot participate in inflammation?

A) Cytotoxic Tcells B) Helper T cells C) Eosinophils D) Neutrophils E) Endothelialcells

22)

A pyrogen is a substance that causes __________.

A) inflammation B) opsonization C) complementfixation D) cytolysis E) fever

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23)

One characteristic of the immune response is specificity. This means __________.

A) immunity starts indefined organs in the body B) immunity starts inspecialized tissues in the body C) immunity iscarried on by a specific group of cells of the immune system D) immunity isdirected against a particular pathogen E) immunity iscarried on by a specific group of tissues of the immune system

24) Regarding humoral immunity, the quickest response to reexposure to an antigen is mounted by __________.

A) antibodies B) plasma cells C) memory Tcells D) cytotoxic Tcells E) memory Bcells

25)

Cellular (cell-mediated) immunity is effective against __________.

A) allergens B) venoms C) cancer cells D) extracellularviruses E) toxins

26)

Antigen-presenting cells can be __________ or __________.

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A) macrophages;dendritic cells B) T cells; Bcells C) neutrophils; monocytes D) basophils;eosinophils E) T cells;neutrophils

27)

Helper T (TH) cells recognize antigens when they are bound to a(n) __________.

A) hapten B) immunoglobulin C) natural killercell D) antigen-presentingcell E) basophil

28) Antigen-presenting cells (APCs) usually display processed antigens to T cells in the ___________.

A) plasma B) lymph nodes C) thymus D) red bonemarrow E) liver

29)

T cells achieve immunocompetence in the ____________.

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A) bone marrow B) bloodstream C) spleen D) thymus E) liver

30) T cells undergo positive selection in the thymus, which means the cells that __________ are selected to be cloned into identical cells.

A) destroyself-antigens B) can phagocytize bacteria C) do not recognizeself-antigens D) canproduce antibodies E) recognize self-antigens

31) Autoimmune diseases are disorders in which the immune system fails to distinguish __________ from foreign ones.

A) self-immunoglobulins B) self-antibodies C) self-antigens D) self-interleukins E) self-complement proteins

32)

Antibodies are associated with __________ immunity.

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A) cellular B) barrier C) nonspecific D) humoral E) memory T cell

33)

The __________ of the antibody determines what antigens an antibody will bind to.

A) variableregion B) light chain C) heavy chain D) constantregion E) helper region

34)

Each immunoglobulin (Ig) has ______________ antigen-bonding site(s).

A) two B) four C) six D) one E) three

35)

__________ constitutes about 80% of circulating antibodies in plasma.

A) IgD B) IgE C) IgA D) IgM E) IgG

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36)

The immunoglobulin that provides passive immunity to a newborn is __________.

A) IgD B) IgE C) IgM D) IgA E) IgG

37)

Helper T (TH) cells play a key role in __________.

A) humoral immunityonly B) cellular immunityonly C) humoral and cellular immunity D) physicalbarriers E) inflammation

38)

Cytotoxic T (TC) cells only respond to __________.

A) haptens B) antigens ofdiseased host cells C) antigen fragmentspresented by APCs D) antibodies E) self-antigens

39)

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) targets mainly __________.

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A) helper Tcells B) B cells C) plasma cells D) cytotoxic Tcells E) natural killercells

40) Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the humoral immune response?

A) Antigen binding→ antigen presentation → differentiation → clonal selection → attack B) Antigen binding→ antigen presentation → clonal selection → differentiation → attack C) Antigen presentation → antigen binding→ clonal selection → differentiation → attack D) Antigen presentation → antigen binding→ clonal selection → attack differentiation E) Antigen binding→ differentiation → antigen presentation → clonal selection → attack

41)

Before B cells secrete antibodies, they differentiate into __________.

A) stem cells B) antigen-presenting cells C) plasma cells D) T cells E) macrophages

42) Which of the following isnot a way that antibodies render antigens harmless or mark them for destruction?

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A) Neutralization B) Clonalselection C) Agglutination D) Activation of thecomplement system E) Precipitation

43) Which of the following is directly responsible for recognizing an antigen upon reexposure?

A) Helper Tcells B) Cytotoxic Tcells C) Plasma cells D) Memory Tcells E) Regulatory Tcells

44)

What kind of immunity does vaccination stimulate?

A) Natural activeimmunity B) Artificial activeimmunity C) Natural passiveimmunity D) Artificial passiveimmunity E) Artificialspecific immunity

45)

The serum used for emergency treatment of snakebites stimulates __________.

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A) artificial passiveimmunity B) artificial activeimmunity C) natural passiveimmunity D) natural activeimmunity E) artificialspecific immunity

46)

Which of the following is an example of natural active immunity?

A) Antibodies passedto a fetus through the umbilical cord B) Vaccination C) Antibodies passedthrough mother's milk D) Antibodiessynthesized in response to chicken pox virus exposure E) A tetanus shot

47)

Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?

A) Antibodies passedto a fetus through the umbilical cord B) Vaccination C) Antibodiesobtained from an injected blood serum D) Antibodiessynthesized in response to chicken pox virus exposure E) A tetanus shot

48) Which of the following is not a reason why surface barriers are a good first line of defense against pathogens?

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A) Epidermal cells are tightly connected by intercalated discs B) Mucus contains lysozyme C) The epidermis contains keratin D) Epithelial cells of mucous membranes are joined by tight junctions E) Sweat is acidic

49)

Which of the following differentiates adaptive from innate immunity?

A) Adaptive immunity is specific B) Innate immunity has memory C) Adaptive immunity is immediate D) Innate immunity only develops after exposure to an antigen E) Innate immunity can be natural or acquired

50)

A(n) __________ is any molecule that triggers an immune response.

A) antigen B) allergen C) hapten D) antibody E) immunogen

51)

Which T cells would attack cancerous or infected cells?

A) Cytotoxic B) Helper C) Regulatory D) Suppressor E) Cellular

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52)

Which cell plays a role in both cellular and humoral immunity?

A) Helper T cell B) Cytotoxic T cell C) Basophil D) Natural killer cell E) Neutrophil

53)

How are helper T cells activated?

A) By binding to antigen presented by an APC B) By binding to antigen presented by an infected cell C) By binding to antigen on a natural killer cell D) By binding to antigen on a B cell E) By binding to antigen on a basophil

54)

Lymph originates in blood capillaries that pick up tissue fluid. ⊚ ⊚

55)

Red bone marrow is the point of origin of all immune cells of the lymphatic system. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

true false

Interferons are secreted in response to bacterial infections.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

57) Mucous membranes prevent most pathogens from entering the body because of the stickiness of the mucus and the presence of lysozymes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

58) Pus is made of dead neutrophils, macrophages, and other tissue debris from a damaged tissue. ⊚ ⊚

59)

true false

Pyrogens act by increasing the set point for body temperature in the thalamus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

60) Humoral immunity takes care of intracellular viruses, whereas cellular immunity takes care of extracellular viruses. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

The antigenicity of a molecule is due to specific regions of it called haptens. ⊚ ⊚

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62)

Interleukins are chemical signals by which immune cells communicate with each other. ⊚ ⊚

63)

T cells can synthesize antibodies. ⊚ ⊚

64)

true false

Clonal selection of T cells results in B cell formation. ⊚ ⊚

66)

true false

Cytotoxic T cells directly attack and kill other cells. ⊚ ⊚

65)

true false

true false

Most plasma cells stay in the lymph nodes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

67) Some antibodies against foreign antigens can react to similar self-antigens, causing an autoimmune disease.

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⊚ ⊚

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20

Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_3e_Saladin 1) B 2) D 3) B 4) A 5) D 6) D 7) E 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) A 14) C 15) B 16) C 17) E 18) B 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) E 23) D 24) E 25) C 26) A Version 1

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27) D 28) B 29) D 30) E 31) C 32) D 33) A 34) A 35) E 36) D 37) C 38) B 39) A 40) B 41) C 42) B 43) D 44) B 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) TRUE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) FALSE 66) FALSE 67) TRUE

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CHAPTER 15 1)

Which of the following is not a function of the respiratory system?

A) It helps controlthe pH of body fluids.

B) It promotes the flow of lymph and venous blood.

C) It allows us tocommunicate with others.

D) It assists in the synthesis of vasodilators.

E) It helps with defecation.

2)

Crude sounds are formed into intelligible speech by the __________.

A) pharynx B) vocal cords C) structures foundin the oral cavity D) trachea E) thyroidcartilage

3)

The upper respiratory tract extends from the ___________.

A) nose through thetrachea B) nose through thepharynx C) nose through thelarynx D) nose through thealveoli E) nose through thelungs

4)

The nasal cavity is divided into right and left halves by the __________.

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A) vestibule B) nasal septum C) nares D) conchae E) pharynx

5)

The thyroid cartilage is the largest part of the __________.

A) larynx B) pharynx C) trachea D) epiglottis E) hyoid bone

6)

Pulmonary surfactant is secreted by __________.

A) mucosal cells B) alveolarsquamous cells C) macrophages D) great alveolarcells E) goblet cells

7)

Each alveolus is surrounded by a web of __________.

A) surfactant B) capillaries C) arterioles D) venules E) macrophages

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8)

Which of the following structures has ciliated cells?

A) Alveoli B) Parietalpleura C) Visceralpleura D) Trachea E) Respiratorybronchioles

9)

The grapelike clusters of alveoli are called ___________.

A) alveolar sacs B) alveolar ducts C) respiratorybronchioles D) alveolarmembranes E) alveolarcapillaries

10)

The __________ is not part of the larynx.

A) cricoid cartilage B) thyroid cartilage C) hyoid bone D) epiglottis E) vocal cords

11) Mucus plays an important role in cleansing inhaled air. It is produced by __________ of the respiratory tract.

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A) squamous alveolar cells B) great alveolar cells C) the pleurae D) ciliated cells E) goblet cells

12) The conducting division of the respiratory tract ends with the terminal bronchioles. What is the correct path for air leaving the conduction portion and entering the respiratory portion?

A) Alveolar ducts → respiratory bronchioles → alveolar sacs B) Alveolar sacs → alveolar ducts → respiratory bronchioles C) Respiratory bronchioles → alveolar ducts → alveolar sacs D) Respiratory bronchioles → alveolar sacs → alveolar ducts E) Alveolar ducts → alveolar sacs → respiratory bronchioles

13) Through which of the following structures is air not required to travel on its way to the main bronchi?

A) Larynx B) Bronchioles C) Trachea D) Pharynx

14) An obstruction of a main bronchi would prevent incoming fresh air from entering the __________.

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A) trachea B) larynx C) orophaynx D) bronchioles E) nasal cavity

15) Assuming the airways are open, when the intrapulmonary pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure, we __________.

A) exhale B) inhale C) are performing aValsalva maneuver D) are notbreathing E) are experiencing a collapsed lung

16) Contracting the diaphragm increases thoracic cavity __________ and decreases thoracic cavity ___________. This results in _________.

A) volume; pressure;inspiration B) pressure; volume;inspiration C) volume; pressure;expiration D) pressure; volume;expiration E) pressure; pressure, inspiration

17)

Among its other purposes, the Valsalva maneuver is used __________.

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A) to aid indefecation and urination B) as part of theprocedure for giving CPR to a person in respiratory arrest C) to ventilate thelungs during distress D) to expel more thanthe usual tidal volume from the lungs E) to clear carbonmonoxide from the body and replace it with oxygen

18)

The principal muscle of pulmonary ventilation is (are) the __________.

A) internalintercostals B) externalintercostals C) sternocleidomastoid D) diaphragm E) rectus abdominis

19) The amount of air in excess of tidal volume that can be inhaled with maximum effort is called the __________.

A) vitalcapacity B) inspiratoryreserve volume C) expiratoryreserve volume D) residualvolume E) inspiratorycapacity

20)

The calculation for vital capacity is ___________.

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A) inspiratoryreserve volume + expiratory volume B) inspiratoryreserve volume + tidal volume C) expiratoryreserve volume + tidal volume D) expiratoryreserve volume + tidal volume + inspiratory reserve volume E) respiratoryvolume + tidal volume

21)

Compromised compliance of lung tissue can cause __________ of the respiratory system.

A) a restrictive disorder B) an obstructivedisorder C) cancer D) emphysema E) asthma

22) The volume of air that can still be actively expelled from the lungs after a quiet exhale is called the __________.

A) expiratory reservevolume B) inspiratoryreserve volume C) residualvolume D) vital capacity E) tidal volume

23) If your tidal volume is 500 mL and the conducting portion of your respiratory tract is 150 mL, how much air are you exchanging gases with from that breath?

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A) 650 mL B) 500 mL C) 350 mL D) 150 mL E) Not enoughinformation is given.

24) Your breathing rate is 14 breaths/minute; spirometric measurements reveal your tidal volume is 500 mL; your inspiratory reserve volume is 3000 mL; and your expiratory reserve volume is 1200 mL. Your vital capacity is __________ mL. A) 2,400 B) 3,000 C) 3,800 D) 4,700 E) 5,800

25)

Which of the following is not monitored by chemoreceptors?

A) Blood pH B) Blood oxygen C) Noxious fumes D) Carbon dioxide E) pH of cerebrospinal fluid

26)

The pacemaker of respiration is the __________.

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A) pons B) cerebral cortex C) hypothalamus D) ventral respiratorygroup (VRG) E) midbrain

27) The total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the __________ of its individual gases.

A) volumes B) temperatures C) partialpressures D) concentrations E) mass

28)

Which has the highest concentration in the air we breathe?

A) Oxygen B) Water vapor C) Nitrogen D) Carbon dioxide E) Hydrogen

29) Which of the following is not a reason why oxygen dissociation increases in active tissues?

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A) More active tissues use more oxygen then less active tissues, which lowers the Po2 of the tissue fluid.

B) Active tissueshave a higher pH. Oxygen dissociates more readily in alkaline solutions.

C) Active tissues produce more CO2, which results in higher H+ concentration. Oxygen dissociates more readily in acidic solutions.

D) Active tissuesare warmer. Increased temperature results in increased rate of oxygendissociation.

E) Active tissues produce more BPG (DPG) which shifts the hemoglobin saturation curve downwards.

30) While running a marathon, oxygen dissociation at the muscles of the lower limbs should __________.

A) decrease B) stay the same C) increase

31) air?

Which of the following would slow down gas exchange between the blood and alveolar

A) An increase inrespiratory membrane thickness B) An increase inalveolar surface area C) An increase inrespiratory rate D) A decrease inrespiratory membrane thickness E) A decrease innitrogen solubility

32) The addition of CO2 to the blood generates _________ ions in the red blood cells (RBCs), which in turn stimulates RBCs to unload more oxygen.

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A) sodium B) potassium C) nitrogen D) hydrogen E) chloride

33)

Which of the following has no effect on oxyhemoglobin dissociation?

A) Carbon dioxide levels B) Fever C) Cellularactivity D) Low pH E) Erythrocytecount

34) In one passage through a bed of systemic blood capillaries, the blood gives up about what percentage of its oxygen?

A) 5% to 10% B) 10% to 15% C) 20% to 25% D) 30% to 40% E) 70% to 85%

35)

Ninety percent of the carbon dioxide in the blood reacts with water to form __________.

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A) carbonicanhydrase B) carbonic acid C) peroxide D) carbonmonoxide E) oxyhemoglobin

36)

Each hemoglobin molecule can transport up to __________ oxygen molecules.

A) one B) two C) three D) four E) five

37) Normally the systemic arterial blood has a Po2 of __________ mm Hg, a Pco2 of __________ mm Hg, and a pH of __________.

A) 40; 95; 7.4 B) 95; 40; 7.4 C) 7.4; 40; 95 D) 95; 7.4; 40 E) 40; 7.4; 95

38) Which of the following enzymes helps form bicarbonate and hydrogen ions from carbon dioxide and water?

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A) Hemoglobin B) Carboxyhemoglobin C) Carbonic anhydrase D) Bisphosphoglycerate E) Carbaminoreductase

39)

The blood transports more CO2 in the form of __________ than in any other form.

A) carbonicanhydrase B) carboxyhemoglobin C) bicarbonate ions D) dissolved CO2 gas E) carbonite

40)

The least significant chemical stimulus for breathing is __________.

A) carbon dioxide B) pH C) oxygen D) bicarbonate E) carbonic acid

41) Cellular activity increases the levels of __________ in the tissue fluid and blood plasma.

This is turn results in a decrease in __________.

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A) carbon dioxide;pH B) pH; carbondioxide C) oxygen; pH D) oxygen; carbon dioxide E) pH; oxygen

42) The respiratory system functions in communication with others and elimination of waste products from the digestive system. ⊚ ⊚

43)

true false

Pleural fluid lines the alveolar surfaces so they do not stick together when we breathe. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) The epiglottis is pushed downward and the larynx is lifted up to meet it when we swallow. ⊚ ⊚

45)

The maximum amount of air the lungs can contain is known as vital capacity. ⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

true false

Breathing is controlled solely by the medulla oblongata and pons.

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⊚ ⊚

47)

The rate of oxygen diffusion is affected by the pressure gradient of carbon dioxide. ⊚ ⊚

48)

true false

true false

At the systemic tissues, erythrocytes typically unload oxygen and load carbon dioxide. ⊚ ⊚

true false

49) Hemoglobin releases the same amount of oxygen to all the tissues regardless of variations in their metabolic rate. ⊚ ⊚

true false

50) Gas transport is the process of carrying gases from the alveoli to the systemic tissues and vice versa. ⊚ ⊚

true false

51) According to the Bohr effect, a low level of oxyhemoglobin enables the blood to transport more CO2. ⊚ ⊚

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15

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_3e_Saladin 1) D 2) C 3) C 4) B 5) A 6) D 7) B 8) D 9) A 10) C 11) E 12) C 13) B 14) D 15) B 16) A 17) A 18) D 19) B 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) D 25) C 26) D Version 1

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27) C 28) C 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) D 33) E 34) C 35) B 36) D 37) B 38) C 39) C 40) C 41) A 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) FALSE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) TRUE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE

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CHAPTER 16 1)

Which of the following is not an organ of the urinary system?

A) Urethra B) Suprarenalgland C) Ureter D) Urinarybladder E) Kidney

2)

Which is not a function of the kidneys?

A) They regulate osmolarity of the body fluids.

B) They fight osteoporosis by synthesizing vitamin D. C) They help control blood pressure.

D) They release waste into the bloodstream.

E) They indirectlyincrease red blood cell production.

3) The process of separating wastes from the body fluids and eliminating them is called __________.

A) excretion B) secretion C) salivation D) regulation E) diuresis

4)

Which organ system does not excrete waste?

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A) The urinarysystem B) The cardiovascularsystem C) The integumentarysystem D) The digestivesystem E) The respiratorysystem

5) A byproduct of protein catabolism, __________ constitutes approximately one-half of all nitrogenous waste.

A) urea B) creatinine C) uric acid D) azotemia E) ammonia

6)

The kidneys are __________.

A) retroperitoneal B) unilateral C) level with oneanother D) just below the stomach E) mesenteric

7) Blood vessels, nerves, ureters, and lymphatic vessels all enter/exit the kidney at the __________.

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A) renal capsule B) hilum C) renalcorpuscle D) nephron E) renal pyramid

8)

The outermost connective tissue layer protecting the kidney is known as the __________.

A) renal column B) renal pyramid C) hilum D) renal cortex E) renal capsule

9)

One renal pyramid and its overlying cortex constitute one __________.

A) lobule B) lobe C) corpuscle D) glomerulus E) capsule

10)

A renal pyramid voids urine into the __________.

A) minor calyx B) major calyx C) renal medulla D) renal papilla E) ureter

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11)

The average person has approximately __________ nephrons per kidney.

A) 1.2 million B) 2.4 million C) 3.6 million D) 4.8 million E) 5.6 million

12)

The __________ carries blood directly into the glomerulus.

A) efferentarteriole B) peritubular capillary C) afferentarteriole D) renal artery E) cortical radiateartery

13)

The transition from an afferent arteriole to an efferent arteriole occurs in the __________.

A) glomerulus B) medulla C) cortical radiateveins D) peritubularcapillaries E) nephron loop

14)

The __________ are blood vessels that surround the renal tubules.

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A) efferentarterioles B) afferentarterioles C) renalarteries D) radiatearteries E) peritubularcapillaries

15)

The part of the nephron connected to the collecting duct is the ___________.

A) PCT B) renalcorpuscle C) nephron loop D) glomerulus E) DCT

16)

Blood plasma is filtered in the __________.

A) renal tubule B) renalcorpuscle C) renal capsule D) renal column E) minor calyx

17) Which of these form the inner layer of the glomerular capsule and wrap around the capillaries of the glomerulus?

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A) Macula densacells B) Peritubularcapillaries C) The nephronloop D) Podocytes E) Leukocytes

18)

What is the correct flow of fluid through the nephron?

A) Renal corpuscle → PCT → nephron loop → collecting duct → DCT B) Renal corpuscle → PCT → collecting duct → DCT → nephron loop C) Renal corpuscle → PCT → nephron loop → DCT → collecting duct D) PCT → nephron loop → DCT → collecting duct → renal corpuscle E) Nephron loop → PCT → DCT → collecting duct → renal corpuscle

19) The __________ are primarily responsible for maintaining the salinity of the renal medulla versus the renal cortex.

A) corpuscles B) nephron loops C) collectingducts D) proximalconvoluted tubules E) distal convoluted tubules

20)

The fluid in the glomerular capsule is known as __________.

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A) plasma B) urine C) filtrate D) tubular fluid E) water

21) The mechanism of stabilizing the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) based on the tendency of smooth muscle to contract when stretched is known as __________.

A) renal autoregulation B) sympathetic control C) the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism D) autonomic tone E) the detrusor reflex

22)

In a healthy kidney, very few __________ are filtered by the glomerulus.

A) amino acids B) electrolytes C) glucose D) vitamins E) proteins

23)

Which of the following would reduce the glomerular filtration rate?

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A) Vasoconstriction ofthe efferent arteriole B) Parasympatheticstimulation C) Stretching theafferent arteriole D) Sympatheticstimulation E) An increase inosmotic pressure in the glomerular capsule

24)

Aldosterone acts on the __________.

A) proximalconvoluted tubule B) renal corpuscle C) descending limbof the nephron loop D) distal convolutedtubule E) glomerulus

25) Hormones secreted by the heart, called __________, act to increase the excretion of salt and water in the urine, which decreases blood volume and pressure.

A) aldosterone B) angiotensinII C) angiotensin I D) renin E) natriuretic peptides

26)

Which of the following is true of antidiuretic hormone?

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A) ADH stimulatesangiotensin II secretion.

B) ADH promotes waterconservation.

C) ADH stimulateshypothalamic osmoreceptors.

D) ADH inhibitssalivation and thirst.

E) ADH targets thecerebral cortex.

27)

When blood volume and pressure are too high ____________.

A) ADH release isinhibited B) ADH release isstimulated C) renal tubulesreabsorb more water D) renal tubulesreabsorb more sodium E) the kidneysproduce less urine

28)

Which of the following is true regarding aldosterone?

A) Aldosteroneincreases both Na+ and K+ reabsorption.

B) Aldosteroneincreases both Na+ and K+ secretion.

C) Aldosteroneincreases Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion.

D) Aldosteronereduces Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion.

E) Aldosterone causesthe urine to be more diluted.

29) In response to a drop in overall hydrostatic blood pressure, __________ stimulates constriction of the glomerular inlet and even greater constriction of the outlet.

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A) aldosterone B) sodium chloride C) calcitrol D) cortisol E) angiotensin II

30)

Renin converts angiotensinogen, released from the __________, into angiotensin I. A) lungs B) kidneys C) liver D) heart E) spleen

31)

Glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed from the glomerular filtrate by the __________.

A) renalcorpuscle B) proximalconvoluted tubule C) distal convolutedtubule D) glomerularcapillaries E) collectingduct

32) Because of the great deal of active transport that occurs here, the ___________ of all the nephrons collectively account for about 6% of one's daily resting ATP and caloric consumption.

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A) proximal convoluted tubules B) distal convoluted tubules C) nephron loops D) collecting ducts E) glomeruli

33)

Proximal convoluted tubules are not responsible for reabsorbing __________.

A) potassium B) sodium chloride C) hydrogen ions D) urea E) water

34)

A drop in blood pressure stimulates the kidneys to secrete ___________.

A) aldosterone B) antidiuretic hormone C) angiotensinogen D) renin E) angiotensin II

35) The renal tubule extracts chemicals from the blood in the peritubular capillaries by way of __________.

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A) filtration B) tubularsecretion C) reabsorption D) micturition E) excretion

36)

Which of the following is not a purpose of tubular secretion?

A) Acid-base balance B) Waste removal C) Clearance ofdrugs D) Waterretention E) Ammoniaremoval

37)

Which of the following does not promote water conservation?

A) The collectingduct B) Aldosterone C) Diuretics D) Antidiuretichormone

38)

Which of the following is a direct result of antidiuretic hormone?

A) Decreased urinevolume B) Decreased urineconcentration C) Increased urinevolume D) Increased urinesalinity E) Increased urineacidity

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39) Which renal structure is responsible for producing hypertonic urine by reabsorbing water while allowing metabolic wastes and NaCl to pass through?

A) Glomerulus B) Proximalconvoluted tubule C) Distal convolutedtubule D) Collectingduct E) Nephron loop

40)

The urine is most likely to be hypotonic when _________.

A) the body's watervolume is high B) the body's pH islow C) the output ofantidiuretic hormone is high D) the output ofnatriuretic peptides is high E) a person is lostand deprived of drinking water

41) The __________ is a muscular tube that carries urine from the kidney to the urinary bladder.

A) urethra B) ureter C) trigone D) renal pelvis E) major calyx

42)

Contraction of the __________ stimulates voiding of the urine.

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A) diaphragm B) ureter C) detrusor D) urethra E) trigone

43)

Backflow of urine from the urinary bladder into the ureters is prevented by __________.

A) stratifiedsquamous epithelium B) the detrusormuscle C) the ureteralmuscles D) the urethra E) valve-like flaps of mucosa

44)

The male urethra is ___________.

A) shorter than thefemale urethra B) used only forurinary purposes C) about 6 cm long D) used by thereproductive and urinary systems E) divided into four main sections

45)

The ___________ reflex stimulates the voiding of urine.

A) micturition B) urination C) stretch D) tendon E) ureteral

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46) In males, the internal urethral sphincter is _________. The external urethral sphincter is __________.

A) voluntary;involuntary B) involuntary;voluntary C) involuntary;involuntary D) voluntary;voluntary E) absent, voluntary

47) Normal urine from a healthy person can be expected to contain all of the following except __________.

A) creatinine B) urea C) glucose D) ammonia E) uric acid

48)

The average adult produces approximately __________ of urine per day.

A) 5 L B) 1 to 2 L C) 500 to1000 mL D) 8 to 10 L E) 15 to 20 L

49)

Excessive urine output is called __________.

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A) oliguria B) dysuria C) uremia D) diuresis E) hematuria

50)

Most of the body water is in the ___________.

A) intracellular fluid(ICF) B) extracellular fluid(ECF) C) tissue(interstitial) fluid D) blood plasma andlymph E) transcellularfluid

51) Most body water comes from __________, whereas most body water is lost via _________.

A) metabolic water; cutaneous transpiration B) metabolic water; sweat C) drinking; cutaneous transpiration and expired air D) drinking; urine E) drinking; radiation

52)

Water output is significantly controlled through variations in ____________.

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A) metabolicwater B) sweating C) cutaneoustranspiration D) drinkinghabits E) urine volume

53)

The principal cation of the ECF is ___________.

A) Ca2+ B) Cl– C) K+ D) Na+ E) Pi

54)

Hypernatremia tends to cause all of the following except __________.

A) waterretention B) edema C) hypertension D) interstitial fluidaccumulation E) a reduction inplasma volume

55) The most significant solute in determining the distribution of water among fluid compartments is ___________.

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A) Na+ B) Cl– C) Ca2+ D) K+ E) Pi

56)

The most abundant cation of the ICF is ___________.

A) Ca2+ B) Na+ C) K+ D) Cl– E) Pi

57)

Which of the following is not a way the body balances acids and bases?

A) Chemicalbuffers B) Lymphaticbuffers C) Respiratorybuffers D) Renal buffers E) Changes in the rate and depth of breathing

58)

Tissue fluid normally has a pH of __________.

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A) 6.95–7.05 B) 7.05–7.15 C) 7.15–7.25 D) 7.25–7.35 E) 7.35–7.45

59)

The major chemical buffers of the body are ___________.

A) urinary and respiratory B) urinary and digestive C) bicarbonate,phosphates, and proteins D) bicarbonate,nucleic acids, and proteins E) bicarbonate,phosphates, and nitrates

60) The process of hydrogen ions being secreted into tubular fluid is indicative of the ___________ buffer system.

A) respiratory B) chemical C) renal D) intracellular E) phosphate

61)

Which structure connects each kidney to the bladder?

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A) Ureter B) Urethra C) Collecting duct D) Renal papilla E) Major calyx

62)

Which of the following isnot a function of the kidneys?

A) Production of insulin B) Urine formation C) Stimulation of red blood cell production D) Acid-base balance E) Production of vitamin D

63)

What is the correct order that fluid flows through a nephron?

A) Renal Capsule - PCT - LOH - DCT - Collecting Duct B) PCT - LOH - DCT - Collecting Duct - Renal capsule C) Renal Capsule - DCT - LOH - PCT - Collecting Duct D) Renal Capsule - PCT - DCT - LOH - Collecting Duct E) Collecting Duct - PCT - DCT - LOH - Renal Capsule

64)

Which of the following allows the collecting duct to concentrate urine?

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A) The osmolarity of the tissue around it is higher in the medulla than cortex.

B) The contents of the collecting duct are isotonic to the tissues surrounding it in the medulla.

C) The cortical region of the collecting duct is more permeable to solutes than water.

D) The medullary region of the collecting duct is not permeable to solutes or water.

E) The collecting duct is under the influence of atrial natriuretic peptide.

65) If you are dehydrated, your ADH levels __________ which causes your urine volume to __________, and your urine become __________ concentrated.

A) increase; decrease; more B) increase; decrease; less C) decrease; increase; more D) decrease; increase; less E) increase; increase; less

66)

Where is ADH released from?

A) Posterior pituitary gland B) Anterior pituitary gland C) Right atrium D) Adrenal cortex E) Adrenal medulla

67)

Where is most of the body's water found?

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A) Intracellular fluid B) Extracellular fluid C) Plasma D) Lymph E) Tissue fluid

68)

Which of the following is true of aldosterone?

A) It regulates both sodium and potassium balance.

B) It regulates sodium balance.

C) It regulates calcium balance.

D) It regulates both sodium and calcium balance.

E) It regulates potassium balance.

69)

The most toxic of our metabolic wastes are nitrogenous wastes. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

The thick segment of the nephron loop is impermeable to water. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) The fenestrated endothelium of the glomerular capillaries have pores small enough to exclude blood cells from the filtrate. ⊚ ⊚

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72) Glomerular filtration occurs when blood plasma leaves the glomerulus and enters the glomerular capsule. ⊚ ⊚

true false

73) Angiotensin-converting enzyme is found only in the kidneys and converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I. ⊚ ⊚

74)

Aldosterone increases salt retention, which causes water retention. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

It is normal to find some glucose in the urine. ⊚ ⊚

76)

true false

true false

The ureters pass anterior to the bladder and enter it from below. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_3e_Saladin 1) B 2) D 3) A 4) B 5) A 6) A 7) B 8) E 9) B 10) A 11) A 12) C 13) A 14) E 15) E 16) B 17) D 18) C 19) B 20) C 21) A 22) E 23) D 24) D 25) E 26) B Version 1

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27) A 28) C 29) E 30) C 31) B 32) A 33) C 34) D 35) B 36) D 37) C 38) A 39) D 40) A 41) B 42) C 43) E 44) D 45) A 46) B 47) C 48) B 49) D 50) A 51) D 52) E 53) D 54) E 55) A 56) C Version 1

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57) B 58) E 59) C 60) C 61) A 62) A 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) A 67) A 68) A 69) TRUE 70) TRUE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) FALSE 74) TRUE 75) FALSE 76) FALSE

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CHAPTER 17 1)

Swallowing is also known as __________.

2) In the process of __________, successive waves of contraction overlap each other, milking the contents along.

3) ____________ is the physiological process that moves a nutrient from the outside to the inside of the body.

A) Ingestion B) Compaction C) Digestion D) Absorption E) Secretion

4)

Chemical digestion breaks down __________ into __________.

A) proteins; nucleotides B) amino acids; proteins C) polysaccharides; amino acids D) fatty acids; cholesterol E) complex carbohydrates; monosaccharides

5)

Which of the following isnot an accessory organ of the digestive system?

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A) Tongue B) Liver C) Pancreas D) Salivary gland E) Spleen

6) What is the correct order of digestive tract tissue layers from the lumen to the external surface?

A) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, serosa B) Serosa, mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa C) Mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, lamina propria D) Mucosa, muscularis mucosae, submucosa, muscularis externa E) Mucosa, muscularis externa, submucosa, lamina propria

7) What are the serous membranes that suspend the stomach and intestines from the abdominal wall called?

A) Mesenteries B) Mucosae C) Circular folds D) Omenta E) Ligaments

8)

The surface of the tongue has bumps called __________ which contain taste buds.

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A) lingual papillae B) lingual frenula C) pharyngeal arches D) tonsils E) fauces

9) Infants have __________ deciduous teeth, whereas adults have __________ permanent teeth.

A) 20; 32 B) 16; 20 C) 28; 20 D) 32; 20 E) 32; 32

10)

What are the structures found in a typical toothfrom superficial to deep?

A) Cement, root canal, enamel B) Enamel, rootcanal, dentin C) Dentin, enamel, cement D) Enamel, dentin,pulp E) Crown, enamel,dentin

11) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the __________, whereas protein digestion begins in the __________.

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A) liver; small intestine B) small intestine; stomach C) mouth; stomach D) mouth; small intestine E) stomach; small intestine

12)

Which of the following controls deglutition?

A) Prefrontal lobe of the cerebrum B) Cerebellum C) Superior colliculus of the mesencephalon D) Medulla oblongata E) Enteric nervous system

13)

Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is secreted by __________ cells.

A) mucous B) regenerative (stem) C) parietal D) chief E) enteroendocrine

14) __________, which is secreted by __________ cells, is necessary for vitamin B12 absorption.

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A) Intrinsic factor; parietal B) Bile salts; chief C) Lecithin; hepatic D) Hydrochloric acid; parietal E) Enterokinase; mucous

15)

Pepsinogen is produced by __________ and is activated by __________.

A) chief cells; carbonic anhydrase (CAH) secreted by parietal cells B) chief cells; hydrochloric acid (HCl) secreted by parietal cells C) parietal cells; hydrochloric acid (HCl) secreted by chief cells D) parietal cells; carbonic anhydrase (CAH) secreted by chief cells E) enteroendocrine cells; carbonic anhydrase (CAH) secreted by parietal cells

16)

Which of the following enzymes functions at the lowest pH? A) Salivaryamylase B) Pancreaticamylase C) Pepsin D) Trypsin E) Dipeptidase

17)

__________ is a hormone, whereas __________ is an enzyme.

A) Enterokinase; pepsin B) Gastrin; secretin C) Gastrin; cholecystokinin (CCK) D) Gastric lipase; histamine E) Secretin; pepsin

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18)

Which of the following helps protect the stomach lining from digesting itself?

A) HCl B) Pepsin C) Intrinsicfactor D) Alkaline mucus E) Enterokinase

19)

Which organ stores excess glucose and releases it later into the blood?

A) Pancreas B) Stomach C) Liver D) Spleen E) Small intestine

20)

Pancreatic enzymes are secreted in response to which hormone?

A) Insulin B) Cholecystokinin C) Vasoactive intestinal peptide D) Glucagon E) Gastrin

21)

What stimulates the liver and pancreas to release bicarbonate?

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A) Secretin B) Pepsin C) Cholecystokinin D) Histamine E) Gastrin

22) Which of the following doesnot contribute to the large absorptive surface area of the small intestine?

A) Intestinal length B) Microvilli C) Villi D) Rugae E) Circular folds

23) If the process of __________ is disrupted, the contents of the small intestine will not bemixed and digested sufficiently.

A) segmentation B) peristalsis C) chemical digestion D) mass movements E) haustral contractions

24)

Which of the following must be chemically digested before being absorbed?

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A) Water B) Vitamins C) Proteins D) Minerals E) Cholesterol

25)

Of the following components of bile, only __________ has/have a digestive function.

A) bile salts B) bilirubin C) cholesterol D) phospholipids E) neutral fats

26)

Which of these is not a component of the pancreatic juice?

A) Trypsinogen B) Chymotrypsinogen C) Deoxyribonuclease D) Sodiumbicarbonate E) Enterokinase

27)

__________ break(s) down __________.

A) Lactase; glucose B) Peptidases; proteins C) Lipases; micelles D) Lactose; lactase E) Nucleases; nucleotides

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28)

Which of these nutrients is absorbed by the lacteals of the small intestine?

A) Triglycerides B) Amino acids C) Glucose D) Minerals E) Water-solublevitamins

29) Amino acids and monosaccharides are absorbed in the __________, and fatty acids are absorbed in the __________.

A) small intestine; large intestine B) small intestine; liver C) stomach; small intestine D) stomach; large intestine E) small intestine;small intestine

30) The muscle tone of the __________ along the colon contracts it lengthwise, causing its walls to bulge and form pouches called __________.

A) circular folds; ceca B) taeniae coli; haustra C) haustra; taeniae coli D) internal sphincters; omental (epiploic) appendages E) internal sphincters; ceca

31)

Which of the following are the bacterial flora of the gutnot responsible for?

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A) Digesting most of the proteins we ingest B) Synthesizing vitamin K C) Producing some of the gases found in flatus D) Digesting cellulose E) Forming part of the feces

32)

Bacteria constitute about __________ % of the dry weight of the feces.

A) 2 B) 14 C) 30 D) 55 E) 80

33) Haustral contractions occur every 30 minutes, whereas mass movements occur about how often?

A) Every 15 minutes B) Every hour C) Every several hours D) Every several days E) Continuously

34) Which of the following are responsible for mixing residue in the large intestine and moving it to the next haustrum?

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A) Haustralcontractions B) Defecationreflexes C) Valsalva maneuvers D) Mass movements E) Ciliary contractions

35)

What stimulates defecation?

A) The chemical composition of the feces B) Bacterial flora in the feces C) Water content of the feces D) Lipid content in the feces E) Stretching of the rectum

36)

Instead of a serosa, the pharynx and most of the esophagus are covered by what layer?

A) Adventitia B) Lamina propria C) Mucosa D) Muscularis externa E) Muscularis mucosae

37)

What is the most superior region of the stomach?

A) Fundus B) Cardial region C) Body D) Pylorus E) Greater omentum

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38)

Which of the following isnot a lobe of the liver?

A) Falciform B) Right C) Left D) Caudate E) Quadrate

39) What is the correct order of small intestine adaptations that serve to increase surface area fromsmallest to largest?

A) Microvilli - villi - circular folds B) Circular folds - villi - microvilli C) Villi - circular folds - microvilli D) Villi - microvilli - circular folds E) Microvilli - circular folds - villi

40)

What function do circular folds, villi, and microvilli serve in the small intestine?

A) To increase surface area for nutrient absorption B) To facilitate excretion of metabolic wastes C) To aid in mechanical digestion through segmentation and peristalsis D) To house the numerous enteroendocrine cells that produce the hormones needed to coordinate digestion E) To produce the bulk of digestive enzymes needed for chemical digestion

41)

The digestive system processes food, extracts nutrients, and eliminates the residue.

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⊚ ⊚

42)

Both chemical and mechanical digestion start in the mouth and continue in the stomach. ⊚ ⊚

43)

true false

true false

The duodenum is considered an accessory organ of the digestive system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

44) If the central nervous system is damaged, such as in a spinal cord injury, the enteric nervous system could still regulate typical digestive activity. ⊚ ⊚

45)

Damage to the enamel of a tooth directly affects the structure of the root of the tooth. ⊚ ⊚

46)

true false

Lingual lipase begins chemical digestion of lipids in the mouth. ⊚ ⊚

47)

true false

true false

Gastric juice consists entirely of water and hydrochloric acid.

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⊚ ⊚

48)

true false

Secretin from the small intestine stimulates gastric motility. ⊚ ⊚

true false

49) The tight junctions of epithelial cells of the gastric mucosa are alkaline in nature, which aids in protecting deeper tissues from damaging gastric juice. ⊚ ⊚

50)

The liver is the body's largest gland. ⊚ ⊚

51)

true false

true false

Both pancreatic juice and bile are secreted into the duodenum. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) As compared to the small intestine, the stomach requires a larger surface area since it is the site of most nutrient absorption. ⊚ ⊚

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53)

The small intestine begins with the duodenum, which is its longest segment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) Goblet cells in the intestine give the intestinal absorptive cells their characteristic brush borders. ⊚ ⊚

55)

Absorption of many nutrients starts in the stomach. ⊚ ⊚

56)

true false

The large intestine absorbs water, fats, and salts. ⊚ ⊚

58)

true false

Most fat is digested by pancreatic lipase. ⊚ ⊚

57)

true false

true false

The large intestine is longer than the small intestine. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_3e_Saladin 1) deglutition 2) peristalsis 3) A 4) E 5) E 6) A 7) A 8) A 9) A 10) D 11) C 12) D 13) C 14) A 15) B 16) C 17) E 18) D 19) C 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) A 24) C 25) A 26) E Version 1

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27) B 28) A 29) E 30) B 31) A 32) C 33) C 34) A 35) E 36) A 37) A 38) A 39) A 40) A 41) TRUE 42) TRUE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) FALSE 48) FALSE 49) FALSE 50) TRUE 51) TRUE 52) FALSE 53) FALSE 54) FALSE 55) FALSE 56) TRUE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) FALSE

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CHAPTER 18 1) One __________ is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water 1 degree Celsius.

2) Minerals and vitamins are called __________ because only small amounts are required in the diet.

3)

__________ consists of synthesis reactions that require energy.

4) ___________ yield about 4 kcal/g when completely oxidized, whereas __________ yield about 9 kcal/g.

A) Proteins and carbohydrates; fats B) Proteins; fats and carbohydrates C) Fats; carbohydrates and proteins D) Carbohydrates; fats and proteins E) Carbohydrates and fats; proteins

5)

Which of the following are macronutrients?

A) Sodium, potassium, calcium, chloride, and phosphorous.

B) Nucleic acids, carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins C) Sodium, potassium, carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins D) Carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and water E) Urea, uric acid, and creatinine

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6)

Minerals are __________, whereas vitamins are __________.

A) micronutrients; macronutrients B) water-soluble elements; lipid-soluble compounds C) inorganic elements; organic compounds D) inessential nutrients; essential nutrients E) incomplete nutrients; complete nutrients

7)

Which of the following can lower cholesterol?

A) Water-soluble fibers B) Water-insoluble fibers C) Water-insoluble vitamins D) Water-soluble vitamins E) Water-soluble minerals

8)

Fats should account for about what percent of the daily caloric intake?

A) 15-20 B) 5-10 C) 25-30 D) 50-55 E) 60-65

9)

Why are lipids such efficient energy storage molecules as compared to carbohydrates?

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A) They are hydrophobic.

B) They contain 4 kcal per gram of fat.

C) They hold a lot of water.

D) They are less compact than carbohydrates.

E) They are polar.

10) You have some routine blood work done to check your overall health. You find that your __________ are elevated, which can indicate high levels of cholesterol deposition in the arteries.

This is why it is often considered "bad" cholesterol.

A) triglycerides B) chylomicrons C) low-density lipoproteins D) high-density lipoproteins E) very-low-density lipoproteins

11)

Which is the healthiest ratio of blood lipoproteins?

A) High HDL:low LDL B) High LDL:low HDL

12)

High-quality __________ proteins are those that provide all the essential amino acids.

A) globular B) fibrous C) net D) incomplete E) complete

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13)

__________ amino acids are those that can be synthesized within the body.

A) Essential B) Nonessential C) Conditional D) Polar E) Nonpolar

14)

Which of the following accurately describes vitamins?

A) They may serve as coenzymes.

B) They are usually synthesized within the body.

C) They are macronutrients.

D) They are not essential for normal functioning of the body.

E) They are all water-soluble.

15)

Which of the following is a product of glycolysis?

A) Glucose B) Carbon dioxide C) Lactic acid D) Pyruvic acid E) Acetyl-CoA

16)

Which of the following accurately describes oxygen?

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A) It transports electrons to the mitochondrion.

B) It directly transfers electrons and protons to NAD+ and FAD. C) It directly receives electrons and protons from NAD+ and FAD. D) It is the only substrate of aerobic respiration.

E) It is the final electron acceptor in aerobic respiration.

17)

____________ is a product of aerobic respiration.

A) Carbon dioxide B) Pyruvic acid C) Lactic acid D) Glucose E) Oxygen

18)

What is the overall reaction for aerobic respiration?

A) C6H12O6 + 6 H2O → 6 CO2 + 6 O2 B) C6H12O6 + 6 O2 → 6 CO2 + 6 H2O C) C6H12O6 + 6 CO2 → 6 O2 + 6 H2O D) 6 CO2 + 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 O2 E) 6 O2+ 6 H2O → C6H12O6 + 6 CO2

19)

Which of these processes is essential for all of the rest to happen?

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A) Glycolysis B) Citric acid(Krebs) cycle C) Lactic acidreduction D) Electron-transportchain E) Anaerobicfermentation

20) _________ happens in the cytoplasm, whereas __________ happens in the mitochondrion.

A) The citric acid (Krebs) cycle; electron-transport B) Aerobic respiration; anaerobic fermentation C) Glycolysis; the citric acid (Krebs) cycle D) Anaerobic fermentation; glycolysis E) Glycolysis; pyruvic acid reduction

21)

Most of the NADH contributing energy to ATP synthesis is produced by __________.

A) glycolysis B) the citric acid cycle C) anaerobic fermentation D) the mitochondrial proton pumps E) electron transfer from FADH2

22)

Which of the following compounds yields the most ATP per molecule?

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A) Glucose B) Pyruvic acid C) Acetyl-CoA D) Lactic acid E) Glycogen

23) The synthesis of glucose from amino acids belongs to a metabolic process called __________.

A) glycogenesis B) glycogenolysis C) glycolysis D) gluconeogenesis E) glycogen catabolism

24)

Incomplete fatty acid oxidation produces __________, could lead to __________.

A) triglycerides; new triglycerides B) ketone bodies; acidosis C) pyruvic acid; acidosis D) glycerol; alkalosis E) acetyl-CoA; acidosis

25)

Oxidation of a typical fatty acid can yield __________ ATP.

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A) 2 B) 18 C) 36 D) 38 E) 129

26)

The first step in using amino acids as fuel is to __________ them.

A) digest B) deaminate C) transaminate D) aminate E) synthesize

27)

What metabolic process produces ammonia?

A) Oxidation of fattyacids B) Transamination ofurea C) Amination of ketoacids D) Deamination ofglutamic acid E) Deamination of fatty acids

28)

Where does HDL in the body come from?

A) The diet B) The liver C) The pancreas D) The small intestine E) The gallbladder

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29)

Which of the following does the livernot do?

A) Glycogenesis B) Detoxification C) Phagocytosis D) Secrete digestive enzymes E) Synthesize plasma proteins

30)

Which of the following isnot a function of the liver?

A) The conversion of ammonia to urea B) The beta oxidation of fatty acids C) The production of insulin and glucagon D) The synthesis of cholesterol E) The synthesis of glucose from fats and amino acids

31) Glycogenesis is stimulated by ____________, and glycogenolysis is stimulated by ____________.

A) insulin; glucagon and epinephrine B) insulin; aldosterone C) growth hormone; glucagon and epinephrine D) growth hormone; cortisol E) growth hormone; insulin

32)

Which of the following occurs during the postabsorptive state?

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A) Blood glucose rises.

B) Glycerol is used for gluconeogenesis.

C) Lipids are stored in adipose tissue.

D) Glucose is stored by glycogenesis.

E) Protein synthesis is active.

33)

Which of the following occurs during the absorptive state?

A) The principal regulatory hormone is glucagon.

B) Blood glucose falls.

C) Fatty acids are oxidized for fuel.

D) Gluconeogenesis is suppressed.

E) HDL production by the liver decreases.

34) Using your knowledge of the following hormones, which would likely be secreted during the postabsorptive state?

A) Gastrin B) Insulin C) Growth hormone D) Cholecystokinin (CCK) E) Secretin

35)

When should the basal metabolic rate be measured?

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A) When a person is sleeping B) When a person first rises in the morning C) When a person has just eaten a meal of no more than 2000 kcal D) When a person is in the absorptive state E) When a person is engaged in normal physical activity but not strenuous exercise

36) In preparation for a weight loss program, a patient is calculating the number of kcal he burns per day. In other words, he is measuring his __________.

A) metabolic rate B) appetite C) absorptive state D) amount of satiety E) ketogenic capacity

37)

Which of the following doesnot raise total metabolic rate?

A) Starvation B) Anxiety C) Fever D) Eating a big meal E) Pregnancy

38) People on weight-loss diets often lose weight quickly at first, but then more slowly.

Which of the following isnot a reason for this?

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A) Water is lost quickly but other weight is harder to lose.

B) The initial weight loss is mostly fat.

C) As a diet progresses, the body produces more fat even with the same caloric intake.

D) The body lowers its metabolic rate when it loses weight.

E) Will power often weakens as the diet progresses.

39) __________ are short-term regulators of appetite, whereas __________ is a long-term regulator.

A) Insulin and cholecystokinin (CCK); peptide YY (PYY) B) Peptide YY (PYY) and insulin; cholecystokinin (CCK) C) Peptide YY (PYY) and cholecystokinin (CCK); insulin D) Leptin and insulin; cholecystokinin (CCK) E) Leptin and insulin; peptide YY (PYY)

40) Which hormone is released by the colon to signal satiety soon after food enters the stomach?

A) Peptide YY B) Ghrelin C) Leptin D) NeuropeptideY E) CCK

41)

Which is true of the hypothalamic signals that regulate appetite?

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A) Ghrelin stimulates the release of NPY. B) Insulin increases NPY levels, stimulating hunger.

C) Leptin decreases the secretion of melanocortin.

D) The actions of leptin cause the hypothalamus to stimulate hunger.

E) Leptin causes vasodilation of the intestinal capillaries increasing absorption.

42)

Shivering warms the body because it increases the rate of _________.

A) radiation B) conduction C) ATP hydrolysis D) vasodilation E) glycolysis

43)

A nude body at a room temperature of 21°C (70°F) loses most of its heat by __________.

A) evaporation B) conduction C) convection D) radiation E) forced convection

44)

The loss of body heat by conduction can be enhanced by __________.

A) radiation B) evaporation C) nonshivering thermogenesis D) shivering thermogenesis E) convection

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45)

The quickest physiological mechanism for achieving moderate heat loss is __________.

A) convection B) cutaneous vasoconstriction C) nonshivering thermogenesis D) cutaneous vasodilation E) diaphoresis

46)

What causes heat exhaustion?

A) Extreme electrolyte loss in the sweat B) Denaturation of proteins in the brain tissue C) Excessive heat loss from the body D) A high rate of conduction and convection E) A high humidity that retards evaporative cooling

47)

What is the most significant polysaccharide nutrient?

A) Starch B) Cellulose C) Sucrose D) Lactose E) Maltose

48)

What is the most significant monosaccharide found in the blood?

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A) Glucose B) Sucrose C) Fructose D) Maltose E) Lactose

49)

Which hormone, secreted by the stomach, stimulates hunger?

A) Ghrelin B) Peptide YY C) Leptin D) CCK E) Insulin

50) The bulk of your daily food intake is in the form of micronutrients, including such things as minerals. Therefore, if you ingest too many micronutrients, your weight may increase. ⊚ ⊚

51)

Both glycogenesis and gluconeogenesis are examples of catabolism. ⊚ ⊚

52)

true false

true false

Catabolism is the sum of all chemical changes in the body. ⊚ ⊚

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53) When a person stops breathing, they will begin anaerobic fermentation. This process is less efficient than aerobic respiration and leads to a lack of ATP systemically. ⊚ ⊚

54)

true false

Excess glucose in the body is usually converted to and stored as protein. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) The most abundant nitrogenous waste in blood is urea, which is produced by the combination of ammonia with carbon dioxide. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) It's Thanksgiving and you've enjoyed all of the turkey and side dishes you could possibly eat. It's now an hour after you put your fork down and you're watching one of the football games.

Metabolically, you are in the postabsorptive state. ⊚ ⊚

true false

57) The absorptive state is regulated mainly by insulin, whereas the postabsorptive state is regulated by multiple hormones. ⊚ ⊚

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58) It's finals week and you are anxious about taking your comprehensive anatomy and physiology final. Your metabolic rate is likely lower than normal due to the anxiety. ⊚ ⊚

59)

In order to gain weight, the average daily energy intake and output must be equal. ⊚ ⊚

60)

true false

Oral temperature gives a good estimate of core temperature. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

true false

Shell temperature may be over 100 degrees Fahrenheit during exercise. ⊚ ⊚

true false

62) When a person is active, most of the body heat is generated in the brain, heart, and endocrine glands. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

The heat-promoting center is located in the hypothalamus, which triggers shivering.

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⊚ ⊚

64)

true false

Hypothermia may be fatal if the core body temperature reaches 37°C or lower. ⊚ ⊚

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18

Answer Key Test name: Chap 18_3e_Saladin 1) calorie 2) micronutrients 3) Anabolism 4) A 5) D 6) C 7) A 8) C 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) E 13) B 14) A 15) D 16) E 17) A 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) B 22) E 23) D 24) B 25) E 26) B Version 1

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27) D 28) B 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) A 38) B 39) C 40) A 41) A 42) C 43) D 44) E 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) A 49) A 50) FALSE 51) FALSE 52) FALSE 53) TRUE 54) FALSE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) TRUE 58) FALSE 59) FALSE 60) FALSE 61) TRUE 62) FALSE 63) TRUE 64) FALSE

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CHAPTER 19 1)

The __________is the gonad, and the __________ is the gamete.

A) testis; ovary B) testis; semen C) testis; sperm D) sperm; semen E) semen; sperm

2) Would a vasectomy, a procedure where the ductus deferens is cut and a small segment removed, affect a man's libido (sex drive)?

A) No, because the organs that produces androgens are still intact.

B) No, because semen does not travel through the ductus deferens during ejaculation.

C) Yes, because the removal and disruption of a structure involved in ejaculation can affect libido.

D) Yes, because the ductus deferens produces testosterone.

E) No, because libido is produced by prostatic secretions.

3)

Which of the following are primary sex organs?

A) Ova B) Uterine tubes C) Breasts D) Ovaries E) Seminal vesicles

4)

Which of the following is a secondary sex organ?

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A) Testis B) Ovary C) Vagina D) Facial hair E) Hypothalamus

5)

The __________ is part of the female external genitalia.

A) scrotum B) clitoris C) uterine tube D) seminal vesicle E) vagina

6)

A man is sitting in a hot tub relaxing. Which of these conditions is most likely?

A) The cremaster and dartos fascia are both relaxed allowing the testes to descend.

B) The cremaster is relaxed while the dartos fascia is tightened allowing the testes to descend.

C) Only the dartos fascia is tightened to bring the testes closer to the body.

D) The dartos fascia is tightened while the cremaster is synchronously relaxed, drawing the testes closer to the body.

E) The cremaster contracts while the dartos relaxes, moving the testes further from the body wall.

7)

__________ arenot found in or around the seminiferous tubules.

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A) Interstitial cells B) Germ cells C) Sustentacular (Sertoli) cells D) Spermatids E) Corpus cavernosum cells

8) Which of the following describes the pathway sperm cells take from their formation to ejaculation?

A) Seminiferous tubule → epididymis → urethra → ejaculatory duct → ductus deferens B) Seminiferous tubule → epididymis → ejaculatory duct → ductus deferens → urethra C) Seminiferous tubule → epididymis → ductus deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra D) Seminiferous tubule → epididymis → ejaculatory duct → urethra → ductus deferens E) Seminiferous tubule → ductus deferens → epididymis → ejaculatory duct → urethra

9) All of these organs and structures are paired in the male reproductive system except the __________.

A) bulbourethral gland B) prostate C) ejaculatory duct D) seminal vesicle E) corpora cavernosa

10) When it is cold, the __________ contracts and draws the testes closer to the body to keep them warm.

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A) cremaster muscle B) pampiniform plexus C) corpus spongiosum D) perineum E) corpus cavernosum

11) While exercising, body heat increases, which could affect sperm production. Which of the following is the most important structure in maintaining temperature homeostasis for the testes?

A) The epididymis B) The pampiniform plexus of veins C) The blood-testis barrier D) The scrotal portal system E) The ductus deferens

12)

The penile urethra is enclosed by the __________.

A) corpus cavernosum B) corpus spongiosum C) trabecular muscle D) prepuce E) frenulum

13)

Why would an enlarged prostate interfere with urination?

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A) It inhibits urine production.

B) It develops calcified deposits that block the urethra.

C) It produces thicker prostatic secretions that block the urethra.

D) It inhibits the micturition reflex.

E) It compresses the urethra.

14)

The __________ is the site of sperm maturation and storage.

A) seminiferous tubule B) prostate gland C) epididymis D) seminal vesicle E) bulbourethral gland

15)

All of the following play a role in thermoregulation of the testesexcept the __________.

A) bulbospongiosus muscle B) cremaster muscle C) pampiniform plexus of veins D) countercurrent heat exchanger E) dartos muscle

16) Which of the following hormones directly stimulates the development of male secondary sex characteristics?

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A) Estrogen B) Inhibin C) Luteinizinghormone D) Follicle-stimulating hormone E) Testosterone

17)

What is male climacteric a consequence of?

A) Increased secretion of estrogens B) Increased secretion of progesterone C) Decreased secretion of testosterone D) Increased secretion of FSH and LH E) Increased secretion of GnRH

18)

Where are follicles located?

A) In the medulla of the ovary B) In the cortex of the ovary C) In the center of the ovum D) In the epithelium of the endometrium E) In the placenta

19)

The internal female genitalia include the __________.

A) vagina B) clitoris C) labia majora D) labia minora E) mammary gland

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20)

The _________ is the site of attachment of the embryo.

A) endometrium B) perimetrium C) myometrium D) uterine tube E) vagina

21) The nonpregnant uterine wall consists mostly of ___________, which is composed of ___________.

A) perimetrium; areolar tissue B) endometrium; simple columnar epithelium and glands C) endometrium; blood vessels and dense regular connective tissue D) myometrium; dense irregular connective tissue E) myometrium; bundles of smooth muscle

22)

Which of these isnot found in the vestibule?

A) Urinaryorifice B) Mons pubis C) Vaginalorifice D) Labia minora E) Clitoris

23) Most of the natural lubrication during female sexual excitement is provided by the __________.

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A) semen B) sperm C) vestibular bulbs D) greater vestibular glands E) lesser vestibular glands

24)

After puberty, the vaginal lining becomes __________ to __________.

A) simple squamous epithelium; allow fast diffusion of nutrients in case a zygote is implanted B) stratified squamous epithelium; resist abrasion C) transitional epithelium; provide more elasticity necessary for coitus and delivery D) simple columnar; facilitate sperm absorption and secretion of vaginal lubricants E) simple cuboidal; provide protection and lubrication

25)

The earliest sign of puberty in girls is __________.

A) the onset of breast development B) the appearance of pubic and axillary hair C) the appearance of sebaceous and axillary glands D) the first menstrual period E) the increase in muscle mass

26)

__________ are feminizing hormones.

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A) Female gonadotropin-releasing hormones B) Follicle-stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone C) Androgens D) Androgen and progesterone E) Estrogens

27) The midlife change in estrogen and progesterone is called __________ whereas the cessation of menstruation is called __________.

A) climacteric; menopause B) menopause; climacteric C) menopause; atresia D) atresia; climacteric E) climacteric; atresia

28)

During climacteric, sudden __________ may cause hot flashes.

A) vasoconstriction of cutaneous arteries B) vasodilation of cutaneous arteries C) vasodilation of cranial arteries D) vasoconstriction of cranial arteries E) vasodilation of facial arteries

29)

__________ is generally considered to be a secondary sex characteristic.

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A) The enlargement of the breasts B) The presence of testes C) The presence of the prostate D) The presence of the uterus E) The presence of the vagina

30)

In meiosis, each parent cell produces __________.

A) two haploid cells B) four haploid cells C) two diploid cells D) four diploid cells E) haploid cells identical to the parent cell

31) At the end of meiosis I there are __________, whereas at the end of meiosis II there is/are __________, A) two diploid cells; one diploid cell B) two diploid cells; one haploid cell C) two diploid cells; four haploid cells D) two haploid cells; four haploid cells E) two haploid cells; one diploid cell

32)

The most important role of meiosis in sexual reproduction is __________.

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A) that it reduces the size of the gametes B) that it produces at least one gamete that is mobile C) that it prevents the chromosome number from doubling in each generation D) that it ensures that each daughter cell is genetically identical E) that it changes the genetic composition of each chromosome

33)

_________ stimulates the interstitial cells of the testes to secrete __________.

A) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH); LH B) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH); androgen-binding protein (ABP) C) Luteinizing hormone (LH); androgen-binding protein (ABP) D) Luteinizing hormone (LH); testosterone E) Luteinizing hormone (LH); estrogen

34)

Which hormone suppresses spermatogenesis without affecting testosterone secretion?

A) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) B) Testosteroneitself C) Inhibin D) Luteinizinghormone (LH) E) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

35)

The ovulated egg is a __________.

A) primary oocyte B) secondary oocyte C) primary follicle D) secondary follicle E) tertiary follicle

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36)

An ovulated "egg" is in __________.

A) prophase I B) metaphase I C) telophase I D) prophase II E) metaphase II

37)

The ovum completes meiosis __________.

A) during fertilization B) during implantation C) as a secondary follicle D) as a primary follicle E) as a mature (graafian) follicle

38) After expelling the oocyte, the follicle becomes the __________ and secretes __________ A) corpus albicans; FSH and LH B) corpus albicans; estrogen and progesterone C) corpus luteum; FSH and LH D) corpus luteum; estrogen and progesterone E) corpus albicans; progesterone

39)

What is a follicle?

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A) An organ in the ovary B) An oocyte C) An oocyte enclosed in follicular or granulosa cells D) A group of granulosa cells E) A group of follicular cells

40)

By volume, where is most of the semen produced?

A) In the testes B) In the penis C) In the prostate gland D) In the seminal vesicles E) In the bulbourethral glands

41) Sperm cells get energy to power their movement from __________ contributed by the __________.

A) prostaglandins; prostate gland B) sucrose; bulbourethral gland C) fructose; seminal vesicles D) semenogelin; prostate gland E) semen; seminiferous gland

42)

The acrosome contains enzymes used to __________.

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A) dissolve the mucosa of the vagina B) dissolve the mucosa of the uterus C) dissolve the stickiness of the semen D) penetrate the vagina E) penetrate barriers surrounding the ovum

43) A sperm count any lower than __________ million sperm per mL of semen is usually associated with infertility (sterility).

A) 250 to 500 B) 200 to 250 C) 100 to 200 D) 50 to 100 E) 20 to 25

44)

Which of these blood hormone levels reaches its maximum during the luteal phase?

A) GnRH B) FSH C) LH D) Progesterone E) Estradiol

45) Ovulation prediction kits are now available in addition to pregnancy tests. Both are performed by sampling the urine for hormones. Which hormone would likely be tested as an indication that ovulation is soon or has recently occurred?

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A) Luteinizing hormone B) Estradiol C) Progesterone D) Human chorionic gonadotropin E) Follicle stimulating hormone

46) The __________ phase is the one associated with menstrual cramps and typically occurs __________ of the cycle.

A) proliferative; from days 15 to 26 B) secretory; around day 5 C) menstrual; from days 9 to 14 D) premenstrual; days 27 to 28 E) premenstrual; days 13 to 14

47)

Which of the following best describes an erection?

A) An autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers B) An autonomic reflex mediated predominantly by sympathetic nerve fibers C) A somatic reflex mediated predominantly by parasympathetic nerve fibers D) A somatic reflex mediated predominantly by sympathetic nerve fibers E) An exclusively voluntary action mediated by the cerebral cortex

48)

Mammary glands develop within the breasts primarily __________.

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A) during the last weeks of fetal development B) at birth C) during infancy D) during puberty E) during pregnancy

49)

What determines breast size?

A) The amount of adipose tissue B) The amount of collagenous fibers C) The size of lactiferous sinuses D) The amount of mammary gland tissue E) The muscle tone

50)

What is the longest stage of labor?

A) The dilation(first) stage B) The expulsion(second) stage C) The placental(third) stage D) The postpartumstage E) The puerperiumstage

51) Milk ejection occurs as a result of stimulation of nerve endings in the __________, which leads to the release of __________ from the pituitary.

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A) mammary acini; oxytocin B) mammary acini; prolactin C) nipple and areola; oxytocin D) nipple and areola; prolactin E) nipple and areola; progesterone

52) A breast-fed infant's only source of nutrition during the first 2-3 days postpartum is __________.

A) casein B) colostrum C) breast milk D) meconium E) lactose

53)

Which hormone stimulates uterine contractions in childbirth?

A) Oxytocin B) Progesterone C) Estrogen D) Inhibin E) Gonadotropin releasing hormone

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54)

54.1) This image shows a sagittal section of the male reproductive system. What is the function of the structure labeled "4"?

A) Produce a fructose-rich fluid B) Control micturition C) Produces alkaline secretions to neutralize acidity D) House sperm that are maturing E) Allow for homeostatic control of temperature in the male reproductive tract

54.2) This image shows a sagittal section of the male reproductive system. What does "3" represent?

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A) Seminalvesicle B) Urethra C) Bulbourethralgland D) Prostate gland E) Ejaculatoryduct

55)

55.1) This image shows a section of the testis and scrotal contents. What does "2" represent?

A) Spermatic cord B) Epididymis C) Rete testis D) Seminiferoustubules E) Ductus deferens

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56)

56.1)

This image shows spermatogenesis. The cells labeled "3" are __________.

A) diploid spermatogonia B) haploid secondary spermatocytes C) haploid primary spermatocytes D) diploid spermatids E) haploid sperm

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57)

57.1) This figure shows the female reproductive system. What is the function of the structure labeled "3"?

A) Release of urine B) Development of an embryo/fetus C) Production of oocytes and female hormones D) Production of urine E) Transport of oocytes to the uterus

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58)

58.1) This figure shows the structure of the female reproductive tract. Which structure is directlyassociated with the clinical condition called endometriosis?

A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5

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59)

59.1)

This figure shows the female perineum. What does "1" represent?

A) Vaginalorifice B) Labium minus C) Labium majus D) Clitoris E) Urethralorifice

60) The formation of a zygote requires the union of two cells; one to carry DNA and one to carry both DNA and nutrients for the embryo. ⊚ ⊚

61)

true false

Sexual reproduction entails the union of two gonads to form a zygote. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false 23

62)

The scrotum contains the testes and spermatic cords. ⊚ ⊚

63)

true false

Sperm travels along the ductus deferens before reaching the spermatic cord. ⊚ ⊚

true false

64) If a woman begins taking testosterone, often just referred to as taking "steroids," it is likely that not only will she experience muscle growth, but also lowering of the voice, increased libido, and possibly increased size of the clitoris. ⊚ ⊚

true false

65) In early puberty, follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulate enlargement of the testes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

66) Follicular cells of the ovaries are functionally equivalent to the interstitial cells of the male testes. ⊚ ⊚

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67)

The uterus is a thick muscular chamber inferior to the urinary bladder. ⊚ ⊚

68)

true false

The vagina has no glands but it is moistened by mucus from glands in the cervical canal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

69) The number of ovarian follicles declines with age, leading to a reduction of estrogen levels. ⊚ ⊚

70)

true false

Most primary oocytes undergo atresia during climacteric. ⊚ ⊚

true false

71) Only germ cells undergo meiosis, which produces four haploid cells with 23 chromosomes each. ⊚ ⊚

72)

true false

Sustentacular cells secrete inhibin, which regulates the rate of sperm production. ⊚ ⊚

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73) After a vasectomy, a male will still produce semen and the quantities will be similar to before the vasectomy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

74) The ovarian cycle typically lasts about 28 days, with day 1 considered to be the first day after ovulation. ⊚ ⊚

75)

true false

The proliferative phase of the uterine cycle is driven by estrogen from the ovaries. ⊚ ⊚

true false

76) Sympathetic nerve fibers trigger the secretion of nitric oxide, which dilates the deep arteries, allowing blood to engorge the penis. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) When a woman begins nursing a newborn infant, the milk is ejected from the breast due to oxytocin. This may also cause uterine contractions or cramping while nursing. ⊚ ⊚

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78)

Progesterone is responsible for the positive feedback loop involved in labor. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) Prolactin is secreted during pregnancy to stimulate milk synthesis so that milk will be available by the time the infant is born. ⊚ ⊚

80)

true false

Oxytocin stimulates contraction of myoepithelial cell of the mammary acini. ⊚ ⊚

Version 1

true false

27

Answer Key Test name: Chap 19_3e_Saladin 1) C 2) A 3) D 4) C 5) B 6) A 7) E 8) C 9) B 10) A 11) B 12) B 13) E 14) C 15) A 16) E 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) A 21) E 22) B 23) D 24) B 25) A 26) E Version 1

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27) A 28) B 29) A 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) E 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) D 41) C 42) E 43) E 44) D 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) E 49) A 50) A 51) C 52) B 53) A 54) Section Break 54.1) C 54.2) D Version 1

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55) Section Break 55.1) E 56) Section Break 56.1) B 57) Section Break 57.1) E 58) Section Break 58.1) C 59) Section Break 59.1) D 60) TRUE 61) FALSE 62) TRUE 63) FALSE 64) TRUE 65) TRUE 66) TRUE 67) FALSE 68) TRUE 69) TRUE 70) FALSE 71) TRUE 72) TRUE 73) TRUE 74) FALSE 75) TRUE 76) FALSE 77) TRUE 78) FALSE 79) FALSE Version 1

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80) TRUE

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CHAPTER 20 1) The term __________ refers to all the changes that occur in the body with the passage of time.

2)

The process that makes it possible for sperm to penetrate the egg is called __________.

A) sperm migration B) capacitation C) the cortical reaction D) morulation E) cleavage

3)

The optimal "window of opportunity" to conceive a child is __________.

A) a few days before ovulation to less than a day after B) less than a day before ovulation to less than a day after C) a few days before ovulation to a few days after D) a few days before ovulation E) a few days after ovulation

4) egg.

Out of the 300 million ejaculated sperm, only about __________ reach the vicinity of an

A) 30 B) 300 C) 3,000 D) 30,000 E) 300,000

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5)

By the end of 8 weeks, the individual is considered a fetus because __________.

A) all the primary germ layers are formed B) the amniotic cavity has formed C) all of the organ systems are present D) the neural tube and yolk sac have formed E) the mesoderm has formed

6)

The first 4 weeks of postpartum life constitute _________.

A) the transitional period B) the premature period C) the neonatal period D) senescence E) infancy

7)

Embryonic stem cells used for research would be derived from the __________.

A) inner cell mass B) trophoblast C) chorion D) allantois E) yolk sac

8)

Which of these lists the stages or structures of prenatal development in the correct order?

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A) Cleavage, zygote,morula, blastocyst, embryo, fetus B) Zygote, morula,blastocyst, cleavage, embryo, fetus C) Zygote, cleavage,morula, blastocyst, embryo, fetus D) Zygote, embryo,morula, blastocyst, cleavage, fetus E) Embryo, zygote,blastocyst, cleavage, morula, fetus

9) The spheroidal stage of early prenatal development with about 16 to 64 cells is called a/an __________.

A) zygote B) embryo C) blastomere D) morula E) blastocyst

10) Twins produced when a single egg is fertilized are called __________ twins, and twins produced from two eggs ovulated at the same time are called __________ twins.

A) monozygotic; identical B) dizygotic; nonidentical C) monozygotic; dizygotic D) dizygotic; monozygotic E) nonidentical; identical

11) In the blastocyst, the trophoblast will become __________, whereas the embryoblast will become __________.

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A) part of the placenta; the yolk sac B) part of the placenta; the embryo C) the embryo; part of the placenta D) the embryo; the yolk sac E) the yolk sac; the embryo

12)

Three tissue layers are formed during _________.

A) implantation B) cleavage C) conception D) organogenesis E) gastrulation

13)

Which of these has to occur prior to all of the others?

A) Formation of a morula B) Formation of a blastocyst C) Gastrulation D) Formation of the trophoblast E) Formation of an embryonic disc

14)

By the time the conceptus arrives in the uterus, __________.

A) it is still a zygote B) it is called a trophoblast C) it has the three primary germ layers D) it shows traces of all the organ systems E) it consists of 16 or more cells

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15)

Mesenchyme gives rise to __________.

A) nervous tissue B) muscle, bone, and blood C) digestive organs and endocrine glands D) reproductive and urinary systems E) the integumentary system and exocrine glands

16)

All of these are derivatives of ectodermexcept __________.

A) the salivary glands B) the nervous system C) the epidermis D) the cutaneous glands E) the dermis

17)

As it implants, the conceptus is nourished by means of __________.

A) trophoblastic nutrition B) uterine milk C) nutrient diffusion from the endometrium D) placenta E) umbilical nutrition

18) __________ pass(es) from the maternal blood to the fetal blood, while fetal __________ pass(es) the other way.

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A) Carbon dioxide and oxygen; wastes B) Carbon dioxide; nutrients C) Wastes; nutrients and oxygen D) Wastes and nutrients; oxygen and carbon dioxide E) Oxygen and nutrients; wastes

19) The __________ completely encloses the embryo and provides a stable environment for its development.

A) yolk sac B) amnion C) chorion D) chorionic villus E) allantois

20)

The __________ encloses all the rest of the embryonic membranes and the embryo.

A) chorion B) allantois C) yolk sac D) amnion E) zona pellucida

21)

The embryonic membranes include all of the followingexcept the __________.

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A) yolk sac B) placenta C) allantois D) chorion E) amnion

22) As a result of embryonic folding, a _________ is formed, which later becomes the digestive tract.

A) primitive gut B) neural tube C) somite D) yolk sac E) chorion

23)

The fossa ovalis is a remnant of the __________ of the fetus.

A) ductus arteriosus B) ductus venosus C) umbilical artery D) umbilical vein E) foramen ovale

24)

During birth, an infant is normally stimulated to breathe by __________.

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A) CO2 accumulating in the baby's blood B) an increased O2 level in the baby's new environment C) prostaglandins D) surfactant E) spanking him/her

25) Which one of these organ systems shows the greatest anatomical change in the neonatal period after birth?

A) Muscular B) Integumentary C) Skeletal D) Circulatory E) Nervous

26) Which of these organ systems faces the greatest physiological challenge in the neonatal period after birth?

A) Muscular B) Integumentary C) Respiratory D) Circulatory E) Nervous

27)

Infant respiratory distress syndrome (IRDS) is caused by _________.

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A) production of very thick respiratory mucus B) deficiency of pulmonary surfactant C) underdeveloped respiratory epithelium D) pulmonary edema E) overinflated alveoli

28)

A teratogen is most likely to cause __________.

A) a deformity of the limbs B) aneuploidy C) trisomy D) nondisjunction E) a mutation

29)

All of these have potentially teratogenic effectsexcept __________.

A) smoking B) alcohol C) infectious diseases D) sunlight E) X-rays

30)

Down syndrome (trisomy-21) results from __________.

A) a mutagen B) nondisjunction C) a teratogen D) a sex-linked mutation E) an autosomal recessive allele

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31) The most likely outcome of nondisjunction is the production of a gamete receiving __________.

A) no chromosomes B) 46 chromosomes C) 44 chromosomes D) 24 chromosomes E) 23 chromosomes

32) Only autosomal trisomies involving chromosomes 13, 18, and 21 are survivable. Why would this be?

A) These are relatively short chromosomes.

B) These are relatively long chromosomes.

C) These are relatively gene-poor chromosomes.

D) These are redundant chromosomes.

E) These chromosomes have no genes.

33)

Congenital anomalies can result from all of the followingexcept __________.

A) an infectious disease in the mother during pregnancy B) a genetic disorder C) exposure to teratogens during pregnancy D) smoking during lactation E) smoking during pregnancy

34) At the age of 40, a women begins to regularly exercise, including both aerobic and strength training exercises. This will __________.

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A) decrease senescence of her skeletal muscles along with other tissues such as bone tissue B) increase her risk of bone fractures C) decrease her reflex speed and increase senescence of motor neurons D) lower her metabolic activity E) increase her risk for cardiovascular disease

35)

What are telomeres?

A) Cytoplasmic enzymes involved in senescence B) Antioxidants that slow the progress of senescence C) DNA segments at each end of a chromosome D) Proteins that cap the ends of the chromosomes E) Motor molecules that guide embryonic cells to the right destinations

36) The observation that there is a limit to how many times a cell can divide is the basis for the __________.

A) autoimmune theory of senescence B) free radical theory of senescence C) cross-linking theory of senescence D) replicative senescence theory E) abortive theory of senescence

37) In fetal circulation, the __________ bypasses the liver and the __________ bypasses the lungs.

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A) ligamentum venosum; ligamentum arteriosum B) foramen ovale; ductus venosus C) ductus arteriosus; ductus venosus D) ductus venosus; ductus arteriosus E) ligamentum arteriosum; foramen ovale

38)

In fetal circulation, blood bypasses the lungs by flowing through __________.

A) the umbilical vein and umbilical arteries B) the fossa ovalis and umbilical arteries and vein C) the foramen ovale and ductus arteriosus D) the ductus venosus and ductus arteriosus E) the ligamentum venosum and ligamentum arteriosum

39)

Oxygenated blood reaches the fetus through the __________.

A) umbilical vein B) umbilical arteries C) maternal vein D) maternal arteries E) placental sinus

40) Sperm must travel to the distal end of the uterine tube for fertilization to occur. This typically must take place less than 24 hours after ovulation. ⊚ ⊚

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41) A couple has unprotected intercourse one week prior to the woman ovulating. It is unlikely that the couple needs to be concerned with pregnancy occurring. ⊚ ⊚

42)

true false

The fertilization membrane is the endometrial tissue that receives the conceptus. ⊚ ⊚

true false

43) A 7-week-old embryo has not begun placenta formation as the chorionic villi have not formed yet. ⊚ ⊚

44)

Teratogens can contribute to congenital anomalies. ⊚ ⊚

45)

true false

true false

The embryonic stage extends from 16 days through the end of week 8. ⊚ ⊚

true false

46) Cleavage results in daughter cells containing half the number of chromosomes of the parent cell. ⊚ ⊚

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47)

During implantation, the embryoblast undergoes gastrulation. ⊚ ⊚

48)

Trophoblastic nutrition refers to the nutrition of the conceptus before it implants. ⊚ ⊚

49)

true false

true false

The chorion forms the fetal part of the placenta. ⊚ ⊚

true false

50) During development, the embryo folds around the yolk sac to become cylindrical in shape. ⊚ ⊚

true false

51) Spina bifida is a condition in which the neural tube fails to close properly during development. This would occur during the fetal stage of development. ⊚ ⊚

true false

52) Neonatal immunity depends on IgG and IgA acquired through the placenta and colostrum, respectively.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

53) The heat loss of the neonate is compensated for to some extent by the thermalinsulation provided by brown fat. ⊚ ⊚

true false

54) Premature infants may suffer from multiple dysfunctions resulting from inadequate liver function. ⊚ ⊚

true false

55) Senescence begins at different ages and progresses at different rates in different organ systems. ⊚ ⊚

true false

56) It is more likely that an active 80-year-old has greater senescence of his/her organ systems than a bedridden individual of the same age because higher activity levels promote degeneration. ⊚ true ⊚ false

57) Genes that contribute to senescence tend to be eliminated over time due to natural selection. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

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58)

Life expectancy has steadily increased in the last century, whereas life span has not. ⊚ ⊚

true false

59) Considering the past, life span is likely to increase consistently over the next several decades. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 20_3e_Saladin 1) aging 2) B 3) A 4) B 5) C 6) C 7) A 8) C 9) D 10) C 11) B 12) E 13) A 14) E 15) B 16) E 17) A 18) E 19) B 20) A 21) B 22) A 23) E 24) A 25) D 26) C Version 1

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27) B 28) A 29) D 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) D 34) A 35) C 36) D 37) D 38) C 39) A 40) TRUE 41) TRUE 42) FALSE 43) FALSE 44) TRUE 45) TRUE 46) FALSE 47) TRUE 48) FALSE 49) TRUE 50) TRUE 51) FALSE 52) TRUE 53) FALSE 54) TRUE 55) TRUE 56) FALSE Version 1

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57) FALSE 58) TRUE 59) FALSE

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