Test Bank for Cognitive Psychology 5th Edition by Robert Sternberg

(Cognitive Psychology 5e Robert Sternberg) (Test bank, MCQ's Answer at the end of each Chapter)

Chapter 1--Introduction to Cognitive Psychology Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. In a dialectical progression of ideas, an originally proposed ____ is countered by a(n) ____.

A. synthesis; thesis B. thesis; synthesis C. antithesis; thesis D. thesis; antithesis

2. The combination of rational with empirical methods so as to get the "best of both worlds" represents, in dialectical terms, a(n) A. thesis.

B. antithesis.

C. synthesis.

D. antisynthesis.

3. Part of dialectic thinking is when a statement of belief is proposed. This statement would be called the ____.

A. antithesis B. synthesis C. thesis D. pragmatics

4. This part of dialectic thinking is when a counterstatement to previous beliefs emerges. This counterstatement would be called the ____.

A. antithesis B. synthesis C. thesis D. pragmatics

5. The philosopher who advanced the notion of a dialectic was ____.

A. Plato B. Hegel C. Descartes D. Aristotle

6. A rationalist A. uses logical analysis to understand the world and people's relations to it.

B. is a follower of Aristotle's empiricist philosophy.

C. supports the idea of monism.

D. believes that knowledge is acquired through experience and observation.

7. Rationalism is to ____ as empiricism is to ____.

A. empirical evidence; theory B. theory; empirical evidence C. manipulation; measure D. hypothesis; theory

8. This particular approach emphasizes logical analysis as the means to acquiring new knowledge.

A. Tabula rasa B. Synthesis C. Rationalist D. Empiricist

9. An empiricist A. believes that knowledge is acquired through experience and observation.

B. is a follower of Plato's rationalist philosophy.

C. supports the idea of mind-body dualism.

D. believes that the mind and the body are separate entities.

10. This particular approach emphasizes empirical evidence as the means to acquiring new knowledge.

A. Rationalist B. Monist C. Empiricist D. A priori

11. Theresa, a judge, does not accept circumstantial evidence as evidence in her court. Theresa will not convict anyone of a crime, based on general principles of anticipated behavior of people brought to court. Instead, Theresa allows only evidence that she can see, or "hard," observational evidence, to be used in a prosecution.

Theresa could be referred to as a(n) A. Monist B. Empiricist C. Rationalist D. Platonist

12. Elma, an automobile factory worker, learns how to install a car air conditioner by watching a fellow worker install the part. The knowledge Elma has just acquired is ____ acquired knowledge.

A. experimentally B. reductively C. innately D. empirically

13. Psychology is sometimes viewed as a merging of A. philosophy and monism.

B. rationalism and physiology.

C. physiology and empiricism.

D. philosophy and physiology.

14. Descartes is known for having been a(n) A. functionalist.

B. behaviorist.

C. empiricist.

D. rationalist.

15. A philosopher who largely rejected acquisition of knowledge by empirical means was A. John Locke.

B. Aristotle.

C. David Hume.

D. René Descartes.

16. Which of the following people supported the rationalist view and largely rejected the pure empirical view?

A. Kant B. Aristotle C. Descartes D. Locke

17. ____ refers to Locke's belief that all knowledge is gained empirically, beginning at birth, when our minds are a blank slate.

A. Innate B. A priori C. A posteriori D. Tabula rasa

18. Immanuel Kant A. believed in an integration of rationalism and empiricism.

B. rejected completely all forms of rationalism and empiricism.

C. believed only in rationalism.

D. believed only in empiricism.

19. The goal of structuralism was to understand the "content" of the mind by A. synthesizing constituent parts of perceptions.

B. analyzing perceptions into their constituent parts.

C. observing responses to various stimuli.

D. evaluating other schools of thought to provide a "structure" for the new movement.

20. Wilhelm Wundt's idea of ____ involved looking inward at the contents of one's consciousness.

A. projection B. introversion C. repression D. introspection

21. Bill, a mechanic, believes that automobile research should place an emphasis on studying how the car parts function and the processes that occur among the various parts. If Bill had chosen psychology as a career field, he might have been in favor of A. Gestaltism.

B. structuralism.

C. behaviorism.

D. functionalism.

22. Which of the following examples is most analogous to the goal of the structuralist movement?

A. Scientists study an entire assembled jigsaw puzzle in order to understand each of the pieces.

B. Scientists look at how the pieces of a jigsaw puzzle fit together in order to understand the assembling process.

C. Scientists look at each piece of a jigsaw puzzle in order to understand the whole puzzle as assembled.

D. Scientists study the different ways a jigsaw puzzle can be assembled to form different images.

23. The school of thought that focuses on answering the question of "What do people do and why do they do it?" is called A. Gestaltism.

B. structuralism.

C. psychoanalysis.

D. functionalism.

24. Which of the following is not consistent with the ideas of functionalism?

A. The study of the organism independent of its environment B. The study of mental processes C. The study and uses of consciousness D. The study of the relationship between the organism and its environment

25. Loarraine was conducting an experiment in which she was eating an apple and was trying to analyze the experience. What technique was she using?

A. in vivo B. introspection C. empiricism D. naturalistic observation

26. A leader in guiding functionalism toward pragmatism was ____, whose chief functional contribution to the field of psychology was his landmark book, Principles of Psychology.

A. John Dewey B. William James C. Edward Lee Thorndike D. Hermann Ebbinghaus

27. Pragmatism concerns itself most directly with the A. practicality of acquiring knowledge.

B. degree to which knowledge is empirical.

C. philosophical implications of knowledge.

D. usefulness of knowledge.

28. Of the following types of knowledge, a pragmatist would most likely support the study of knowledge that A. exists for its own sake.

B. can be used to help people become better educated.

C. enables us to speculate further on the relationship between body and mind.

D. has no specific use, but is highly interesting from a psychological perspective.

29. Associationism is a school of psychology, arising from Locke and Aristotle, that examines A. how ideas become associated with each other in the mind.

B. the process by which the thoughts of some people associate with the thoughts of others.

C. how "nonreal" representative objects become associated with abstract "ideal" objects in the mind.

D. observable associations between stimuli and responses.

30. Behaviorism, an extreme version of associationism, deals mainly with A. unobservable behavior.

B. both unobservable and observable behavior.

C. observable behavior.

D. animal and plant behavior.

31. The "law of effect" states that a stimulus will tend to produce a certain response over time if the A. stimulus is conditioned.

B. organism is repeatedly rewarded for that response.

C. organism is repeatedly punished for that response.

D. stimulus and the response are both unconditioned.

32. The landmark experiment in which dogs salivate at the sight of the person who feeds them provides an example of A. classically conditioned learning.

B. instrumental learning.

C. social learning.

D. physiological psychology.

33. Skinner's argument included the idea of operant conditioning, which refers to his belief that A. the strengthening or weakening of behavior, depending upon the presence or absence of reinforcement or punishment, explains all human behavior.

B. all human behavior can be explained by operant conditioning, involving the strengthening or weakening of behavior, depending only on the presence of punishment.

C. human behavior is highly unpredictable and, as a result, only some human behavior can be explained in terms of reinforcement-punishment relationships.

D. human behavior cannot be understood without taking into account the purpose of the behavior.

34. John Watson, the founder of radical behaviorism, was an American psychologist who A. rejected all aspects of functionalism.

B. supported the functionalist movement and was one of its most ardent supporters.

C. rejected some aspects of functionalism, but at the same time drew heavily from the functionalists.

D. altered the course of functionalism and later renamed the movement "behaviorism".

35. Which of the following best describes the idea behind Gestalt psychology?

A. "The sum of the parts is equal to the whole."

B. "All is part of the whole."

C. "The whole is nothing more than separate individual parts."

D. "The whole differs from the sum of its parts."

36. Gestalt psychology has most greatly influenced, specifically, the study of A. emotion.

B. insight.

C. behavior.

D. linguistics.

37. Karl Lashley's work in biological psychology led him to work with which key issue that deals with the location of individual cognitive processes in the brain?

A. Monistic localization in brain function B. Prosopagnosia C. The brain as an organizer of behavior D. Hysteresis

38. When developing this type of computer system, the goal is to have a system that demonstrates intelligent processing of information.

A. Artificial Intelligence B. Engineered Intelligence (EI) C. Technologically Engineered Intelligence (TEI) D. Information processing approach

39. A ____ is a proposed account of an organized body presented as a coherent collection of explanatory principles for the phenomenon of interest.

A. correlational study B. dependent variable C. hypothesis D. theory

40. Christia is in the process of developing a research idea. She currently is reviewing various ____, which consists of explanatory principles for the phenomenon of interest.

A. correlational studies B. dependent variables C. hypotheses D. theories

41. Prior to the outcome of an experiment, the experimenter makes a prediction about the relationship between the variables (the expected outcome). This is called a(n) A. theory.

B. hypothesis.

C. correlational study.

D. independent variable.

42. Maximus believes that the new study technique will have a greater impact on retention of information than the traditional method. This prediction would be an example of a(n) A. theory.

B. hypothesis.

C. correlational study.

D. independent variable.

43. After conducting an experiment, the means for the two groups are not identical which may suggest a difference between the two groups. However, in order to be sure, you need to analyze the experimental results in terms of the likelihood that the result simply occurred by chance. This is called A. statistical significance.

B. practical significance.

C. descriptive statistics.

D. meta-analysis.

44. Dorothy conducted an experiment in which there was a 20 point difference between the experimental and control group. The statistical test suggests that this result did not occur simply by chance. Dorothy's results are said to have (found) A. statistical significance.

B. practical significance.

C. descriptive statistics.

D. meta-analysis.

45. In an experimental design, this is often the variable of interest that is being manipulated.

A. extraneous variable B. independent variable C. dependent variable D. confounding variable

46. In an experimental design, this is often the outcome or the variable that is being measured (e.g., score on a test).

A. extraneous variable B. independent variable C. dependent variable D. confounding variable

47. Independent variable is to ____ as dependent variable is to ____.

A. manipulation; measure B. empirical evidence; theory C. hypothesis; manipulation D. measure; theory

48. Erica is conducting experimental research in which she is looking at the effect of type of music on intellectual development. What is the independent variable in this example?

A. type of music B. intellectual development C. the control group D. the experimental group

49. Erica is conducting experimental research in which she is looking at the effect of type of music on intellectual development. What is the dependent variable in this example?

A. type of music B. intellectual development C. the control group D. the experimental group

50. The sample, when compared to the population, does a good job of reflecting many of the characteristics of the population.

A. systematic sampling B. cross-sectional design C. random sample D. representative sample

51. James was interested in a new study technique and whether it would have an impact on the retention of information when compared to a traditional study method. James had the experimental group, with the new study technique, study psychology, while the other group, with the old technique, studied Greek. In this example, the type of material (psychology versus Greek) would be an example of (a) ____.

A. antithesis B. confounding variable C. random sample D. representative sample

52. ____ is a type of variable that is left uncontrolled in an experiment. Such a variable could contribute to difference in performance making it difficult to interpret the results of the experiment.

A. Independent variable B. Confounding variable C. Dependent variable D. Controlled variable

53. Every individual in the population of interest has an equal chance of being selected for an experiment.

A. representative sample B. single-subject design C. random sample D. systematic sampling

54. This type of study simply looks for a statistical relationship between two or more variables without manipulating the variables of interest.

A. quasi-experimental design B. multivariate statistics C. correlation D. experimental design

55. Brian was playing a game of three truths and a lie with some of his friends. The goal of the group is to identify the lie. Brian observed that the bigger the lie the more the person would scratch his/her face. He thought that if he plotted amount of scratching by severity of lie that there would be a relation. Brian is thinking of what type of study.

A. quasi-experimental design B. multivariate statistics C. correlation D. experimental design

56. This type of research is interested in identifying which parts of the brain and what specific brain activity are associated with particular cognitive tasks.

A. psychobiological research B. cerebral relational analysis C. structural relational analysis D. biological research

57. This technique for studying the brain occurs after the death of the individual, and relates function prior to death to observable brain features after death.

A. postmortem B. in vivo C. aspiration lesions D. cryogenic blockade

58. This technique for studying the brain occurs while the individual is alive, and specific cerebral damage is conducted to see the effects on function.

A. postmortem B. cryogenic blockade C. extracellular unit recording D. in vivo

59. Yaun participated in an experiment in which he saw various stimuli on a computer screen. After the experiment, Yaun was to provide feedback about what he thought was going on cognitively. This would be an example of A. naturalistic observation B. individual observation C. case study D. self-report

60. Lequoia decided to conduct her study at the mall. She watched people at the mall for very specific behavior and simply kept track of the number of times the behavior occurred for various groups. This would be an example of A. naturalistic observation B. structuralism C. case study D. self-report

61. ____ take(s) into account human limits when modeling cognitive functions/processes in a program.

A. Computer simulations B. Ecological programming C. Artificial intelligence D. Cognitive science

62. What is one of many ways in which cognitive performance by computers differs from such performance by humans?

A. Most computers use parallel processing, whereas humans often use serial processing.

B. Most computers use serial processing, whereas humans often also use parallel processing.

C. There are no differences in cognitive ability; only in the way each carries out tasks.

D. Computers' cognitive abilities are much more complex than human cognitive abilities, and therefore there is no one explanation.

63. Ecological validity refers to the degree to which lab data hold true when altered to account for A. ecological differences between the lab and the outside environment.

B. the degree to which data gathered in a lab will apply outside the lab, given the influences of the environment on cognitive activity.

C. the accuracy of predictions of how test subjects will react when placed in an environment with different ecological relationships.

D. the effect ecological changes have on the behavior of organisms in the particular environment.

64. Mrs. M had difficulties with managing relationships. She was paranoid about anything that was said and often interpreted comments as an attack on her or her family. These symptoms and others were studied by a therapist for years and then were written up to help others understand her particular constellation of symptoms.

This would be an example of a A. naturalistic observation B. psychobiological research C. case study D. self-report

65. This major theme of cognitive psychology deals with what factors contribute/influence who we are. To what extent is it our genetic inheritance or our surrounding environment?

A. Structures versus processes B. Nature versus nurture C. Biological versus behavioral methods D. Rationalism versus empiricism

66. This theme of cognitive psychology deals with how we discover truth about ourselves and the world. Is it through the use of reason and logic or is it through observing and testing what we can sense?

A. Rationalism versus empiricism B. Biological versus behavioral methods C. Structures versus processes D. Nature versus nurture

67. ____ is an interdisciplinary approach (e.g., artificial intelligence, linguistic, etc..) to the study of the mind.

A. Multidisciplinary Approach to the Mind (MAM) B. Cognitive consortium C. Cognitive science D. Cognitive psychology

68. The issues for this theme of cognitive psychology is whether we should focus on the content of the human mind or if we should focus on the processes of human thinking.

A. Rationalism versus empiricism B. Domain generality versus domain specificity C. Structures versus processes D. Nature versus nurture

69. This theme of cognitive psychology is whether one should use carefully controlled experiments or use techniques that would allow one to observe the behaviors as they naturally occur.

A. Structures versus processes B. Validity of inferences versus ecological validity C. Nature versus nurture D. Domain generality versus domain specificity

70. This major theme of cognitive psychology looks at to what extent we use highly controlled experiments versus naturalistic techniques.

A. Biological versus behavioral methods B. Validity of inferences versus ecological validity C. Rationalism versus empiricism D. Structures versus processes

71. This major theme for cognitive psychology is whether research should focus on fundamental cognitive processes or focus on research that has more of a practical application.

A. Domain generality versus domain specificity B. Structures versus processes C. Applied versus basic research D. Rationalism versus empiricism

72. This major theme for cognitive psychology is in terms of how we acquire information about cognitive processes. Should we study the brain directly or should we look at performance on cognitive tasks?

A. Biological versus behavioral methods B. Validity of inferences versus ecological validity C. Nature versus nurture D. Rationalism versus empiricism

73. Santiago says that in order to understand cognitive processes we need to look directly at the brain to see how it functions. Ayami disagrees and says that we need to look at how people perform on various cognitive tasks. This disagreement is an example of A. biological versus behavioral methods.

B. validity of inferences versus ecological validity.

C. nature versus nurture.

D. rationalism versus empiricism.

74. In psychological research, conducting lesions on the brain can be seen as an example of which of the key issues within the field of cognitive psychology?

A. nature versus nurture B. rationalism versus empiricism C. structure versus processes D. applied versus basic research

75. Santiago and Ayami disagree on the direction of their research lab. Santiago is simply interested in a particular phenomenon and wants to study it for knowledge sake; Ayami, however, wants to be able to take what is learned and use it in practical applications. Their disagreement is an example of A. nature versus nurture.

B. rationalism versus empiricism.

C. structure versus processes.

D. applied versus basic research.

76. Describe the difference between deductive reasoning and inductive reasoning. Give an example of your own to illustrate the difference.

77. Briefly summarize each of the antecedents to cognitive psychology; include the paradigms' founders and main tenets or beliefs in your discussion.

78. Briefly summarize the seven major themes for cognitive psychology.

79. Define the rationalist and empiricist positions.

80. Explain the terms dialectic, thesis, and antithesis and how they relate to each other.

81. Briefly explain the differences in Plato and Aristotle's approaches to acquiring knowledge. Be sure to include the concepts of induction/deduction and rationalism/empiricism.

82. Briefly describe a correlational study and an experiment and then compare and contrast the two types of designs.

83. Both artificial intelligence programs and humans can be seen as processors of information. What are the similarities and differences between these two in terms of handling information?

84. List three of the different research methods used by psychologists, as mentioned in the chapter, and describe how they differ from one another.

85. Cognition is generally adaptive. Use forgetting as a potential example and explain how it is adaptive.

86. René Descartes and John Locke had differing views of the relationship between mind and body. What is your position? Support your position, using specific references to each of their theories.

87. Choose one of the research designs addressed in the text and describe it. Then outline a cognitive-psychological experiment to illustrate your chosen design.

88. Design an experiment looking at study habits. Make sure to include the following terms: hypothesis, control group, experimental group, independent variable, dependent variable, extraneous variables.

89. Identify some behavior of interest. Come up with a number of different hypotheses that might explain the behavior. For each hypothesis, include evidence that would support and evidence that would not support each hypothesis.

90. What if cognitive processes did not interact with each other? Provide some examples of how our (cognitive) lives would be different - what would be the implications?

91. Give an example from your own life in which you were classically conditioned.

92. Explain how Ebbinghaus's idea of rehearsal aids in learning in a classroom.

93. How might research that is "basic" in the short run become practical and applied in the long run? Give an example.

94. If you were working for a company developing a new customer response system, explain what the advantages and disadvantages would be in terms of using a program based on artificial intelligence versus a computer simulation.

95. Explain the advantages that both applied and basic research have for society.

Chapter 1--Introduction to Cognitive Psychology Key

1. D 2. C 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. C 11. B 12. D 13. D 14. D 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. A 19. B 20. D 21. D 22. C 23. D 24. A 25. B 26. B 27. D 28. B 29. A

30. C 31. B 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. D 36. B 37. C 38. A 39. D 40. D 41. B 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. B 46. C 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. D 51. B 52. B 53. C 54. C 55. C 56. A 57. A 58. D 59. D 60. A 61. A 62. B 63. B

64. C 65. B 66. A 67. C 68. C 69. D 70. B 71. C 72. A 73. A 74. C 75. D 76. Answer not provided.

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Chapter 2--Cognitive Neuroscience Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The approach to studying the brain in order to understand what specific part of the brain controls what specific skills or behaviors is called ____.

A. synthesis B. localization of function C. ecological validity D. lobotomy

2. These cells in the brain transmit electrical signals from one location to another in the nervous system.

A. amygdala B. dopamine receptor C. metabolic D. neuron

3. The junction between terminal buttons of one neuron with the dendrites of other neurons.

A. synapse B. terminal button C. nodes of ranvier D. synaptic terminal

4. At the end of the branches of an axon are the ____, which look like small knobs.

A. terminal buttons B. synapse C. nodes of ranvier D. synaptic terminal

5. Signals between neurons occur when these chemical messengers transmit information from one neuron to the next across the synaptic gap.

A. synapse B. hormones C. neurotransmitters D. neurobinders

6. Identify the three types of chemical substance that are involved in neurotransmission: A. monoamine neurotransmitters, amino-acid neurotransmitters, neurobinders.

B. monoamine neurotransmitters, amino-acid neurotransmitters, neuropeptides.

C. amino-acid neurotransmitters, neurobinders, cerebropeptides.

D. monoamine neurotransmitters, neuropeptides, neurobinders.

7. Adrian has Alzheimer's and has a difficult time with his memory. The doctors say that his memory difficulties in part are due to the low levels of ____.

A. acetylcholine B. dopamine C. dratonin D. serotonin

8. This particular neurotransmitter is associated with attention, reward and reinforcement, learning, and motivational processes.

A. acetylcholine B. dopamine C. GABA D. serotonin

9. This particular neurotransmitter is important for regulating impulsivity and is associated with eating behavior, and aggressive behavior.

A. acetylcholine B. dopamine C. GABA D. serotonin

10. This technique has been used for centuries in which researchers document the behaviors of individuals thought to have brain damage and then after the person dies, they examine the brain for lesions.

A. postmortem studies B. in vivo techniques C. ipsilateral transmission D. brain damage analysis (BDA)

11. Which of the following is not an in vivo technique for viewing the structures and functions of the brain?

A. Recording the electrical activity of the brain B. Still-imaging of the brain (e.g., CT scan, MRI scan) C. Examining how radioactive material is transported and used in the brain D. Dissecting the brain to locate possible lesions

12. Tan, a patient of Broca's who had severe speech problems, was capable of uttering only one syllable "Tan" (hence the name). After Tan's death, examination of his brain revealed a number of lesions in the frontal lobe. It was ascertained from this that parts of the frontal lobe are important for speech production. Gathering knowledge from someone about brain function after death with known difficulties would be an example of A. Broca's technique.

B. Brain Capacity Functional Analysis.

C. in vivo techniques.

D. postmortem studies.

13. Sandy has a number of electrodes attached to his head. He is probably about to participate in a study involving use of A. fMRI. B. ERPs. C. PET. D. CT scan.

14. This technique of studying the living brain is based on examining the recording of the electrical frequencies and intensities of the brain over time.

A. Electrical Recording Technique (ERT) B. Lobotomy C. Electroencephalograms (EEGs) D. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

15. These techniques for studying the brain obtain a still image that can help with "revealing the structures of the brain."

A. Electrical Recording Techniques (ERT) B. Brain Structure Enhancements (BSE) C. Static Imaging Techniques D. Magnetic Recognition Enhancements (MRE)

16. This static imaging technique uses a strong magnetic field to analyze "magnetic changes in the energy of the orbits of nuclear particles in the molecules of the body. " A. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) B. Brain Structure Enhancement (BSE) C. Electrical Recording Technique (ERT) D. Magnetic Recognition Enhancement (MRE)

17. These techniques take advantage of the brain's consumption of glucose or oxygen and specifically look for which part of the brain is most active "during more generalized processing." The active part of the brain would require more resources than inactive areas.

A. Glucose Metabolism Tomography (GMT) B. Metabolic Imaging C. Electrical Recording Technique (ERT) D. Static Imaging Techniques

18. This particular type of metabolic imaging technique uses a radioactive form of glucose "that emits positrons as it is metabolized" to look at the physiological functioning of the brain "in action." It monitors increase in blood flow to particular parts of the brain.

A. Electroencephalograms (EEGs) B. Glucose Metabolism Tomography (GMT) C. Positron emission tomography (PET) D. ERPs

19. This particular neuroimaging technique is able to look at changes in the brain over time by looking at increases in oxygen consumption to produce an image of the brain.

A. Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging (fMRI) B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) C. Positron Emission Tomography (PET) D. ERPs

20. This particular technique for studying the brain temporarily disrupts normal activity of the brain in a very small area. This is done by placing a coil on the person's head and passing a current through it.

A. electroencephalograms (EEGs) B. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) C. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) D. magnetoencephalography (MEG)

21. Activity of the brain is study outside of the head by this particular technique in which the magnetic fields emitted by changes in brain activity is picked up.

A. transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) B. functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI) C. electroencephalograms (EEGs) D. magnetoencephalography (MEG)

22. The basal ganglia of the forebrain are crucial to A. motor function.

B. hearing.

C. sleeping and waking.

D. regulating behavior necessary for species survival.

23. The limbic system is responsible for A. memory retrieval.

B. relaying sensory information.

C. emotion, motivation, and learning.

D. motor information.

24. All of the following are central interconnected cerebral structures of the limbic system except the A. primary motor cortex.

B. septum.

C. amygdala.

D. hippocampus.

25. Dysfunction of the basal ganglia is known to cause A. visual agnosia.

B. semantic memory loss.

C. fear.

D. motor deficits.

26. Which of the following processes would most likely involve the limbic system?

A. Bill stretches his arms high into the air.

B. Bill feels very nervous about the upcoming exam.

C. Bill solves a physics problem.

D. Bill feels an acute pain in his wrist.

27. When the area of the forebrain known as the amygdala is stimulated, what reactions are likely to result?

A. Palpitations, fearful hallucinations, frightening flashbacks in memory B. Dizziness, headache, loss of consciousness C. Insomnia, inability to concentrate, restlessness D. Emotionality, weeping, sadness

28. The ____ and ____ play a role in anger, aggression, and fear.

A. amygdala; hippocampus B. septum; amygdala C. hippocampus; septum D. primary motor cortex; septum

29. Which of the following would most likely involve the use of the septum?

A. Mike is scared by a man pointing a knife at him.

B. Mike remembered a man that had pointed a knife at him.

C. Mike sees a man who is pointing a knife at him.

D. Mike sees a photo of a man pointing a knife at a woman.

30. Which of the following would involve activity in the amygdala?

A. Wilma sees a large dog.

B. Wilma remembered seeing a large dog on the street.

C. Wilma gets angry at a dog after it ate her purse.

D. Wilma leans over to pet a large dog.

31. The ____ is responsible for the formation of new memories.

A. thalamus B. hippocampus C. hypothalamus D. aphasia

32. Damage to the hippocampus can result in "loss of memory function" in which old information is still able to be recalled, but the individual is unable to form new memories. This is know as A. Benzine syndrome.

B. apraxia.

C. aphasia.

D. Korsakoff's syndrome.

33. Disruption in the hippocampus does not seem to result in deficits of what kind of memory?

A. Declarative memory B. Short-term memory C. Procedural memory D. Long-term memory

34. Wilma has damage to a certain area of her brain. She can remember people and events from long ago, but she cannot remember where she ate lunch today. Judging by her symptoms, Wilma probably has damage to the A. hypothalamus.

B. hippocampus.

C. thalamus.

D. corpus callosum.

35. This particular part of the brain is responsible for regulating behavior that is important for the survival of the organism (e.g., fighting, feeding, fleeing, and mating) and "regulating emotions and reactions to stress."

A. hypothalamus B. thalamus C. pons D. limbic system

36. Dysfunction in the thalamus can lead to a variety of results, including A. hypersexuality.

B. depression.

C. anxiety.

D. amnesia.

37. Although the midbrain is not as important in mammals as in nonmammals, it is significant in that it houses the reticular activating system, which is essential in regulating A. consciousness, heartbeat, and breathing.

B. bodily coordination, balance, and muscle tone.

C. breathing, swallowing, and digestion.

D. the signals passing from one part of the brain to another.

38. Physicians make a determination of brain death based on the degree of function of the A. midbrain.

B. brain stem.

C. medulla oblongata.

D. cerebellum.

39. The ____, located in the hindbrain, is responsible for controlling the heartbeat, and to some extent, breathing, swallowing, and digestion.

A. pons B. cerebellum C. cerebral cortex D. medulla oblongata

40. This particular part of the hindbrain "contains neural fibers that pass signals from one part of the brain to another" and thus serves as a relay station.

A. Medulla Oblongata B. Pons C. Cerebellum D. Limbic System

41. This part of the hindbrain is responsible for "coordination, balance, and muscle tone," and also includes memory related to procedural movements.

A. Hypothalamus B. Amygdala C. Septum D. Cerebellum

42. A code blue has just been announced in a hospital. A patient has stopped breathing. Doctors and medics are rushed to the scene and quickly determine that brain death has not yet occurred. How did the medics know whether the patient was brain dead or not?

A. They found that there was still activity in the frontal lobe of the patient's brain.

B. Once breathing stops, brain death occurs.

C. They found that there was still activity in the brain stem.

D. They found that the pons was still active.

43. How would someone determine whether there was a possibility of a problem in the function of a patient's medulla oblongata?

A. The patient might be experiencing both short-term and long-term memory loss.

B. The patient might not be able to sense pain or pressure.

C. The patient might display irregular aggression patterns.

D. The patient might experience heartbeat irregularity and possible breathing problems.

44. Sonia lays in a hospital bed unable to wakeup. Scans of her brain show damage to the ____ which is important for regulating overall level of consciousness/arousal.

A. corpus callosum B. white matter C. reticular activating system D. medulla oblongata

45. The convolutions of the cerebral cortex comprise ____, which are small grooves; ____, which are raised areas or bulges; and ____, which are large grooves.

A. sulci; fissures; gyri B. fissures; sulci; gyri C. gyri; fissures; sulci D. sulci; gyri; fissures

46. The cerebral cortex is A. the main lobe of the forebrain.

B. the bridge between the left and the right hemispheres of the brain.

C. a one- to three-millimeter-thick layer that covers the surface of the brain.

D. a layer, covering the surface of the brain, that comprises about 60% of the brain.

47. The cerebral cortex is often referred to as ____, whereas the nerve fibers of the brain's interior are often called ____.

A. contralateral; ipsilateral B. gray matter; white matter C. ipsilateral; contralateral D. white matter; gray matter

48. ____ refers to transmission of information to the opposite side, whereas ____ refers to transmission to the same side.

A. Contralateral; ipsilateral B. Occipital; frontal C. Ipsilateral; contralateral D. Parietal; temporal

49. Most motor information transmission is A. parietal.

B. contralateral.

C. ipsilateral.

D. occipital.

50. The corpus callosum serves to A. make certain contralateral transmissions ipsilateral.

B. regulate the transmission of information along the cerebral cortex.

C. allow transmission of information between the left and right hemispheres.

D. transmit information from the left and right hemispheres to the spinal cord.

51. There are two radio stations, one receiving signals from the western hemisphere and one receiving signals from the eastern hemisphere. A cable connects the two stations so that signals sent out from one half of the world can be transmitted to the other half. This cable is analogous to the brain's A. corpus callosum.

B. cerebral cortex.

C. white matter.

D. medulla oblongata.

52. The two halves of the brain, which rely on the corpus callosum for communication, are called A. cerebral hemispheres.

B. lobes.

C. contralateral.

D. split brain.

53. Marc Dax noticed a relationship between the loss of speech and the side of the brain in which damage had occurred in patients suffering from A. prosopagnosia.

B. aphasia.

C. ablation.

D. schizophrenia.

54. Paul Broca believed that A. localization of function does not exist.

B. the left hemisphere of the brain is critical to normal speech function.

C. the right hemisphere of the brain is critical to normal speech function.

D. neither hemisphere of the brain is critical to normal speech function.

55. Karl Lashley concluded that localization of specific memories A. can be demonstrated through the use of a large variety of techniques.

B. can be demonstrated only by using incision.

C. can be demonstrated only by using ablation.

D. cannot be demonstrated.

56. This particular part of the left hemisphere of the brain appears to contribute to language comprehension.

A. Dax's area B. Wernicke's area C. Lashley's area D. Boca's area

57. Split-brain patients sometimes have difficulty reconciling information that is ____ (largely localized in the left hemisphere) with information that is ____ (generally localized in the right hemisphere).

A. verbal; spatial B. spatial; verbal C. visual; auditory D. tactile; olfactory

58. Juan suffers from a disorder of skilled movements, which is known as A. dyslexia.

B. aphasia.

C. apraxia.

D. agnosia.

59. What percentage of the population has language functions predominantly localized in the left hemisphere of the brain?

A. 100 B. 90 C. 50 D. 20

60. The frontal lobe is responsible for A. sensing pain and pressure.

B. visual processing.

C. auditory processing.

D. higher thought processes and motor processing.

61. Which of the following would most involve the use of the frontal lobe?

A. Tia sees her finger in a nutcracker.

B. Tia feels incredible pain when she gets her finger caught in a nutcracker.

C. Tia hears a nutcracker closing.

D. Tia considers how to use an oddly designed nutcracker to crack a nut.

62. This particular way of looking at the brain divides up the cerebral hemisphere into four parts called A. lobes.

B. hemispheric specialization.

C. in vivo technique.

D. split brain.

63. The frontal association area of the ____ lobe is crucial to problem solving, planning, and judgment.

A. frontal B. parietal C. temporal D. occipital

64. The parietal lobe is primarily responsible for A. planning and execution of movement.

B. somatosensory processing.

C. auditory processing.

D. visual processing.

65. The main functions of the temporal and occipital lobes, respectively, are A. visual processing and auditory processing.

B. execution of movement and sensing texture.

C. auditory processing and visual processing.

D. somatosensory processing and visual processing.

66. Tom puts his hand on a warm stove burner and senses the heat coming from the stove. The message of warmth travels from his hand to which lobe of the brain?

A. occipital B. parietal C. temporal D. frontal

67. Wilma wakes up in the middle of the night to hear a loud thump coming from the stairway. She then hears creaking and a voice whispering. Her ____ lobe makes it possible for her to hear that there are burglars in her house.

A. occipital B. parietal C. temporal D. frontal

68. Joe is walking around a room completely in the dark. He cannot see anything. When he feels the doorknob with his hand, he pulls the door open. What location in the brain most directly enabled him to accomplish what he attempted?

A. the temporal lobe B. the occipital lobe C. the parietal lobe D. the cerebral fissures

69. This part of the brain, located in the frontal lobe, is important for controlling movement. It is responsible for planning and executing movement especially for movements including a delayed response.

A. primary visual cortex B. the cerebral fissures C. primary auditory cortex D. primary motor cortex

70. The parietal lobe contains the ____, which is the part of the brain that the various senses provide information to concerning "pressure, texture, temperature, and pain."

A. association areas B. primary motor cortex C. primary somatosensory cortex D. primary visual cortex

71. Although the brain makes up only one fortieth of the total weight of the adult human body, it uses ____ of the circulating blood, available oxygen, and available glucose.

A. one thirtieth B. one twentieth C. one tenth D. one fifth

72. For convenience and localizing different cortical functions, ____ is the division of the cerebral cortex into different modules.

A. Cortical Spatial Map (CSM) B. Cerebral Localization Map (CLM) C. Brodmann areas D. Broca's areas

73. This type of disorder is caused by an interruption in the flow of blood to the brain and often contributes to noticeable loss in cognitive functioning.

A. vascular disorder B. aphasic stroke C. dratonin D. neoplasms

74. Cognitive function can be affected by brain tumors which can occur in either the gray or white matter of the brain. Another name for a brain tumor is A. septum.

B. neoplasm.

C. pons.

D. apraxia.

75. This type of stroke is due to a fatty tissue that has built up over years and then breaks free and then becomes lodged in an artery in the brain.

A. neoplasms B. hemorrhagic stroke C. aphasic stroke D. ischemic stroke

76. This type of stroke is due to a blood vessel in the brain suddenly breaking and filling the surrounding tissue with blood which contributes to cells dying.

A. ischemic stroke B. neoplasms C. hemorrhagic stroke D. aphasic stroke

77. List the three main regions of the brain. Next, under each heading, list the significant structures located in each region, and give a short description of the functions of each structure.

78. Explain the concept of hemispheric specialization. Include in your discussion a description of the abilities of each hemisphere and the role of the corpus callosum.

79. Explain the importance of the various chemical substances involved in neurotransmission.

80. List and describe the function of the various neuronal structures.

81. Describe the different types of strokes and the impact they have on the brain.

82. How can researchers trace observed behavior resulting from brain damage to a certain location in the brain once a patient has died? Contrast this method with other methods used while the patient is alive.

83. Suppose that a large, parasitic microorganism entered the human blood stream and traveled up to the brain, but was blocked from entering. Why did the microorganism not pass into the brain? What structure blocked its entry? Compare this structure with the structure that links both brain hemispheres.

84. An epileptic patient has had her corpus callosum severed. The patient has been asked to draw a three-dimensional form with her left hand. The patient is successful. However, when asked to draw the same object with the right hand, the patient was not able to perform the task successfully. Why not?

85. Explain the similarities and differences between the various types of metabolic imaging techniques. Include in your explanation when you might use one over another.

86. You have just stepped on a nail protruding from the floor. Describe the various processes involved in relaying information from the time you step on the nail to the time you pull your foot away. Be sure to include effecters and receptors in your discussion.

87. Each of the four lobes of the brain is responsible for the processing of different information. Give an example of a task or activity that would require the use of at least three of the lobes. In describing the task, make sure you show how each of the lobes is involved.

88. Imagine that you were a doctor in "the old days" (prior to the invention of the various in vivo techniques).

First, list a number of cognitive problems that you could study (e.g., Korsakoff's syndrome, aphasia, apraxia, case studies like Phineas Gage), then describe how you would use postmortem studies in understanding these various cognitive problems. Include in your discussion the various behaviors of interest. Also, from a scientific standpoint how would you increase the confidence of your findings?

89. Imagine that the brain had no hemispheric specialization and no modularity. What would be the implications for such a brain (include issues such as learning, brain damage, brain development, etc.)?

90. Explain how the brain might work if all neurotransmitters were nonexistent and it was based simply on which neurons were firing. What would be the implications for a brain that functioned so?

91. Generate various scenarios in which an individual has a head injury from say a car accident (include injuries from front, back, top, and the sides). Include both closed and open-head injuries and describe how the injuries would alter function.

92. As part of a research project for a biological psychology class, you are assigned to work with experienced researchers who have access to equipment that allows you to study the human brain. Describe two in vivo techniques and how they would allow you to learn about the human brain.

93. How can the study of the brain have applications for improving human welfare?

94. What parts of the brain are used while playing football, and how are they used?

95. From both a research and medical diagnostic viewpoint, explain the significance of Brodmann areas.

96. You are a biological psychologist and you must figure out what symptoms or effects certain diseases have on each of your participants. One participant has Korsakoffs syndrome, one is a split-brain patient, and the third has had an ischemic stroke. Briefly explain the effects or accompanying symptoms of each of these people.

Chapter 2--Cognitive Neuroscience Key

1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. B 7. A 8. B 9. D 10. A 11. D 12. D 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. A 20. B 21. D 22. A 23. C 24. A 25. D 26. B 27. A 28. B 29. A

30. C 31. B 32. D 33. C 34. B 35. A 36. D 37. A 38. B 39. D 40. B 41. D 42. C 43. D 44. C 45. D 46. C 47. B 48. A 49. B 50. C 51. A 52. A 53. B 54. B 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. C 59. B 60. D 61. D 62. A 63. A

64. B 65. C 66. B 67. C 68. C 69. D 70. C 71. D 72. C 73. A 74. B 75. D 76. C 77. Answer not provided.

78. Answer not provided.

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Chapter 3--Perception Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. ____ refer(s) to the set of psychological processes by which people recognize, organize, synthesize, and give meaning (in the brain) to the sensations received from environmental stimuli (in the sense organs).

A. Comprehension processes B. Recognition C. Sensation D. Perception

2. A ____ refers to the mental representation of a stimulus that is perceived.

A. percept B. sensation C. template D. constancy

3. Transduction of electromagnetic light energy into neural electrochemical impulses occurs in this part of the eye.

A. cornea B. crystalline lens C. retina D. vitreous humor

4. These long thin photoreceptors work well under situations in which light is dim.

A. cones B. crystalline lens C. rods D. ganglion cells

5. These short and thick photoreceptors work well in situations in which the light is bright.

A. cones B. ganglion cells C. rods D. vitreous humor

6. The three types of interneuron cells are: A. amacrine cells, horizontal cells, bipolar cells B. astroglia cells, ganglion cells, bipolar cells C. ganglion cells, photoreceptors, photopigments D. horizontal cells, ganglion cells, oligodendroglia

7. The optic nerve consists of axons from what type of cells?

A. amacrine cells B. ganglion cells C. horizontal cells D. oligodendroglia

8. This part of the eye allows for light to pass through it and serves as protection for the eye.

A. cornea B. crystalline lens C. iris D. vitreous humor

9. ____ refers to an external source of stimulation as it exists in the world, which may differ somewhat from the internal sensation of the source of stimulation that is detected in the sensory receptors.

A. Distal stimulus B. Proximal stimulus C. Sensation constancy D. Perceptual constancy

10. ____ refers to the internal sensation of a source of stimulation as it is registered by the sensory receptors.

The internal sensation does not have to match exactly the external source of stimulation as it exists in the world.

A. Distal stimulus B. Proximal stimulus C. Sensation constancy D. Perceptual constancy

11. ____ refers to the perception that a given object remains the same even when the immediate sensation of the object changes.

A. Distal stimulus B. Proximal stimulus C. Sensation constancy D. Perceptual constancy

12. When someone approaches us, we do not experience the person becoming larger as he or she comes closer, despite the fact that the retinal image is enlarging dramatically. This phenomenon is called A. distal stimulus.

B. proximal stimulus.

C. shape constancy.

D. size constancy.

13. When someone opens a door, we do not experience the door as becoming distorted in form, from a rectangle to a diamond to a flat, thin stripe, and the like. Rather, we observe the door as remaining in its original form.

This phenomenon is called A. distal stimulus.

B. proximal stimulus.

C. shape constancy.

D. size constancy.

14. These cues about depth are represented in just two dimensions and can be seen with just one eye.

A. viewer-centered representation B. monocular depth cues C. perceptual constancies D. binocular depth cues

15. Painters often use these types of cues in their work to provide a perspective of depth to the artwork. These types of cues are called A. viewer-centered representation.

B. monocular depth cues.

C. perceptual constancies.

D. binocular depth cues.

16. Texture gradients, relative size, interposition, linear perspective, and aerial perspective are all examples of A. binocular depth cues.

B. monocular depth cues.

C. a type of depth perception.

D. perceptual stimuli.

17. These cues about depth are based upon the information received from both eyes.

A. object-centered representation B. monocular depth cues C. perceptual constancies D. binocular depth cues

18. The two eyes increasingly turn inward as objects approach the eyes; in turn, the brain interprets these muscular movements as indications of distance from the eyes. The major depth cue represented in this description is A. binocular disparity.

B. interposition.

C. binocular convergence.

D. motion parallax.

19. The two eyes send increasingly disparate images to the brain as objects approach the eyes. The brain interprets the degree of disparity as an indication of distance from the person. The major depth cue represented in this description is A. binocular disparity.

B. interposition.

C. binocular convergence.

D. motion parallax.

20. These neurons contribute to depth perception by integrating incoming information from both eyes.

A. binocular neurons B. binocular disparity C. ganglion cells D. horizontal cells

21. This particular mental representation is such that the object is stored in the manner in which the object looks to the observer (object is represented in relationship to the individual). This is called a(n) A. object-centered representation.

B. state-dependent representation.

C. viewer-centered representation.

D. egocentric representation.

22. The form of this particular mental representation is stored in a manner that is independent of the objects appearance to the observer.

A. object-centered representation B. state-dependent representation C. viewer-centered representation D. form-centric representation

23. This concept suggests that we divide visual information into two parts in which some of the information appears closer and better defined while the rest of the information appears further away and "unhighlighted" A. object specification.

B. binocular depth cues.

C. decompositional analysis.

D. figure-ground.

24. The ____ approach is based on the notion that the whole differs from the sum of its individual parts.

A. structuralist B. functionalist C. Gestalt D. decompositional analysis

25. The law of ____ is a Gestalt principle asserting the perceptual tendency to perceive visual arrays in ways that most simply organize disparate elements into a stable and coherent form.

A. parsimony B. Prägnanz C. organization of elements D. coherence

26. The Gestalt principles of form perception, including proximity, similarity, closure, continuity, and symmetry, all support the overarching law of A. parsimony.

B. Prägnanz.

C. organization of elements.

D. coherence.

27. This strategy suggests that for developing and using mental representations we focus on a prominent item and then characterizes other information in relation to that item.

A. item centered representation B. landmark centered representation C. object-centered representation D. viewer-centered representation

28. ____ showed that people tend to use Gestalt principles, even when confronted with novel stimuli.

A. Palmer B. Gibson C. Marr D. Hubel and Wiesel

29. This proposal for pattern-recognition suggests that we have two systems for recognizing patterns. One system specializes in the recognition of parts of objects, and the second system specializes in recognizing A. various features of objects.

B. motion of objects.

C. stationary features.

D. larger configurations.

30. According to the viewpoint of ____ perception, the array of information in the sensory receptors, including the sensory context, is all that is needed for a person to perceive anything; prior knowledge or thought processes are not necessary for perception.

A. synthetic B. unconscious C. direct D. constructive

31. The ____ refers to the distinctive relation between what is sensed and what is stored in memory, which involves more than just a simple sensory link between the two.

A. Hoffding function B. Hoffman problem C. cognitive dilemma D. perceptual fork

32. The theory of direct perception is an example of a A. bottom-up theory.

B. top-down theory.

C. complete theory of perception.

D. template theory.

33. Gibson's direct perception model is sometimes referred to as a(n) ____, because of Gibson's concern with perception as it occurs in the everyday world rather than in laboratory situations.

A. anti-laboratory view B. real-life view C. world model D. ecological model

34. The viewpoint of direct perception was championed by A. John Watson.

B. Johanes Ponzo.

C. Irvin Rock.

D. James Gibson.

35. ____ are theoretical explanations of perception that focus on the physical stimulus being perceived and then proceed upward to consider higher-order cognitive processes.

A. Cognition-driven theories B. Stimulus models C. Bottom-up theories D. Top-down theories

36. The template theories, prototype theories, feature theories, and computational theories of form and pattern perception are all A. cognition-driven theories.

B. stimulus models.

C. bottom-up theories.

D. top-down theories.

37. A ____ refers to an exact model of a distinctive pattern or form, used as the basis for perception of patterns or forms.

A. template B. proximal stimulus C. percept D. Gestalt

38. A ____ refers to a model that best represents a given concept. This model comprises a set of characteristic features that tend to be typical of most examples of the concept. However, not all features are necessary for a given example to be considered an instance of the concept.

A. template B. prototype C. geon D. Gestalt

39. According to ____ theories of form perception, people attempt to match characteristics of an observed pattern to existing characteristics, without considering the prior experience of the perceiver or what the perceiver already knows about the context in which the form is presented.

A. constructive-perception B. prototype C. feature D. computational

40. A pandemonium model, based on the notion that metaphorical "demons" with specific duties receive and analyze the features of a stimulus, is an example of a ____ theory of form perception.

A. template B. prototype C. feature D. computational

41. ____ features are those that constitute the small-scale or detailed aspects of a given pattern.

A. Mega B. Micro C. Local D. Global

42. ____ features are those that give a form its overall shape.

A. Mega B. Micro C. Local D. Global

43. A study on pattern perception looked at stimuli in which a single "larger" letter was constructed of smaller letters (e.g., using small "s" letters to make a large "H"). In this study, participants were asked to identify the individual components (small letters) or identify the large letter. When the small letters were positioned close together, in general, participants were faster at identifying the larger letter versus the smaller letters. This is known as A. global precedence effect.

B. local precedence effect.

C. macro-identity effect.

D. recognition-by-components.

44. A study on pattern perception looked at stimuli in which a single "larger" letter was constructed of smaller letters (e.g., using small "s" letters to make a large "H"). In this study, participants were asked to identify the individual components (small letters) or identify the large letter. When the small letters were positioned widely spaced, in general, participants were faster at identifying the smaller letters versus the larger letters. This is known as A. global precedence effect B. local precedence effect C. recognition-by-components D. micro-identity effect

45. According to Hubel and Wiesel, ____ cells receive input from neural cells projected from the thalamus and then fire in response to lines of particular orientations and positions in the receptive field. These cells differ from one another in that each cell responses only to a specific line orientation.

A. simple B. complex C. subcortical D. hypercomplex

46. In some areas of the cortex, some ____ cells fire maximally only in response to very specific shapes (e.g., a hand or a face).

A. simple B. complex C. subcortical D. hypercomplex

47. According to the ____ theory of object perception, objects are recognized based on the perception of the distinctive arrangement of various geons (a set of three dimensional geometrical elements) that compose each object.

A. feature-matching B. prototype C. template D. recognition-by-components

48. ____ perception refers to a key view of perception which asserts that the perceiver builds the stimulus that is perceived, using sensory information as the foundation for the structure, but also considering the existing knowledge and thought processes of the person.

A. Synthetic B. Unconscious C. Direct D. Constructive

49. ____ was one of the chief architects of the theory of constructive perception.

A. Wendell Garner B. David Marr C. Irvin Rock D. James Gibson

50. ____ perception is a key view of perception, also known as intelligent perception, because it states that higher-order thinking plays an important role in perception.

A. Synthetic B. Unconscious C. Direct D. Constructive

51. Identification of an item may be influenced by surrounding information especially when the sensory information is ambiguous. This example of a top-down approach of perception in terms of using the surrounding information is called A. micro-identity effect.

B. direct assimilation effects.

C. context effects.

D. synthetic conglomeration effects.

52. This particular type of context effect occurs when recognition of an object is easier when it is seen in a configuration rather than when the object is presented in isolation.

A. configural-superiority effect B. direct perception C. computational configuration effect D. synthetic conglomeration effects

53. This particular type of context effect occurs when recognition of a target line that is part of a 3-D drawing is identified more accurately than when the line is part of a disjoined 2-d pattern.

A. configural-superiority effect B. direct perception C. object-superiority effect D. complex line drawing effect

54. This view of perception suggests that later-stage representations are directly influence by and are not independent of our attentional focus.

A. bottom-up B. intelligent topographical C. synthesis of bottom-up and top-down D. top-down

55. ____ refers to a severe deficit in the ability to perceive sensory information, usually related to the visual sensory modality.

A. Amnesia B. Agnosia C. Dyslexia D. Aphasia

56. Melanie has a peculiar perceptual deficit. She can sense all parts of her visual field, but the objects she sees do not mean anything to her. This phenomenon is called A. visual amnesia.

B. prosopagnosia.

C. simultagnosia.

D. visual-object agnosia.

57. Upon seeing a pair of eyeglasses, a patient with ____ noted first that there was a circle, then there was another circle, then a crossbar, and finally guessed that he was looking at a bicycle.

A. visual amnesia B. prosopagnosia C. simultagnosia D. visual-object agnosia

58. This hypothesis suggests that there are two distinct visual pathways in the brain; one pathway is important for the location of the object in space and the other is for identifying the object.

A. Object Identity/Object Location B. Object Identity/Object Position C. What/How D. What/Where

59. This hypothesis suggests that there are two distinct visual pathways in the brain; one pathway is important for identifying the object and the other for identifying the function of the object.

A. Object Identity/Object Location B. Object Identity/Object Position C. What/How D. What/Where

60. Disturbance in the temporal region of the cortex can lead to ____, in which a person is unable to pay attention to more than one object at a time.

A. visual-object agnosia B. time amnesia C. simultagnosia D. time agnosia

61. Alice suffers from a peculiar perceptual deficit, such that she does not recognize her own face in the mirror.

This phenomenon is called A. spatial agnosia.

B. prosopagnosia.

C. simultagnosia.

D. visual-object agnosia.

62. ____ reflects a severely impaired ability to recognize human faces.

A. Spatial agnosia B. Prosopagnosia C. Simultagnosia D. Visual-object agnosia

63. This particular deficit in perception is defined as when a person has a difficult time navigating the everyday environment (e.g., fails to recognize landmarks, gets lost on familiar routes).

A. simultagnosia B. spatial agnosia C. prosopagnosia D. visual-object agnosia

64. This part of the brain seems to play an important role in the recognition of faces.

A. fusiform gyrus of the temporal lobe B. inferior colliculi C. dorsal raphe nuclei D. lateral geniculate nuclei

65. Nancy has a difficult time with perceiving very specific sounds. This would be an example of what type of agnosia?

A. apperceptive agnosia B. associative agnosia C. auditory agnosia D. achronatopsia

66. This type of agnosia, due to a failure in perceptual processing, results in a failure to recognize an object.

A. apperceptive agnosia B. associative agnosia C. auditory agnosia D. achronatopsia

67. With this type of agnosia, perceptual processing is fine. The person can represent objects visually but is unable to use the information to recognize things.

A. apperceptive agnosia B. associative agnosia C. auditory agnosia D. akinetopsia

68. This perceptual deficit is thought of in terms of damage to the "how" visual pathway, and results in difficulties with using ones visual system to guide one's own movements.

A. tritanopia B. akinetopsia C. optic ataxia D. apoptosis

69. This particular color deficit is true color-blindness in that the person really has no ability to see any color.

A. deuteranopia B. dichromacy C. monochromacy D. Protanomaly

70. This particular color deficit is the result of a malfunction in one of the mechanism for color perception in which the person may have a difficult time distinguishing particular colors.

A. achromatopsia B. akinetopsia C. dichromacy D. monochromacy

71. This form of color deficiency is when a person has a difficult time distinguishing between the reds and the greens. In general, they have difficulties with the longer wavelengths (red).

A. achromacy B. deuteranopia C. protanopia D. tritanopia

72. This form of color deficiency is when a person has a difficult time with medium wavelengths had have a difficult time with green colors.

A. achromacy B. deuteranopia C. protanopia D. tritanopia

73. A person with this form of color deficiency can see only shades of gray and truly no color what so ever. The person has cones but the cones are nonfunctional.

A. akinetopsia B. deuteranopia C. rod monochromacy D. tritanopia

74. Alice can see objects with no problem. However, she can not see objects actually in motion. She says that it is like receiving snapshots of the word because objects appear in one location and then in another with no sense of how they got there.

A. achromatopsia B. akinetopsia C. rod monochromacy D. tritanopia

75. Some one with this hereditary disorder is born with no cones in the retina and they rely solely on their rods for vision.

A. Achromatopsia B. Akinetopsia C. Rod monochromacy D. Tritanopia

76. What is perceptual constancy and why is it important?

77. What are the monocular depth cues?

78. Define akinetopsia and achromatopsia.

79. What is the pattern recognition system? Explain how this system is important for perception.

80. List and then explain the function of the various layers of the retina.

81. Compare and contrast the various forms of deficits in perception.

82. Compare and contrast the theory of constructive perception with the theory of direct perception.

83. Compare and contrast the various bottom-up theories of perception (e.g., template theories, prototype theories, feature theories, and recognition-by-components theory).

84. Compare and contrast apperceptive, associative, prosopagnosia, and simultagnosia.

What do these tell us about perception?

85. Explain and then compare the what/where hypothesis and the what/how hypothesis.

86. Describe briefly what the Gestalt principles of form perception of closure and continuity represent. Then, describe how we would experience the world if we did not perceive form according to these principles at all.

87. Imagine that you land on a planet where the inhabitants change size (height and width in a proportional manner) at will at any given time; thus, size constancy only applies to inanimate objects on the planet. Briefly describe three monocular depth cues and explain how you would use each of them to estimate an inhabitant's size at any specific moment.

88. Imagine that you were building an artificial life form. Explain why and how you would incorporate the notions of top-down and bottom-up processing. What would be needed to implement such a system?

89. Select one of the anomalies in color perception and describe how, if everyone had that, it would change our world and our view of the world.

90. What if perception occurred only through bottom-up processing. Explain what implications this would have for how we deal with our world.

91. Suppose that for Halloween, you are enlisted to use your knowledge of depth perception to create a small room where the sense of depth is distorted. Describe briefly two depth cues and then explain how you would use these toward your goal.

92. Describe briefly what the Ponzo and the Muller-Lyer illusions refer to. Then, explain what recommendations you might give an architect who is interested in designing buildings, and how she might compensate for the tendency of people to make these perceptual judgments when perceiving buildings.

93. Describe the various anomalies in color perception. How would the various deficits in color perception affect ones ability to live in a "media rich world?"

94. Describe how a person with monocular depth cues but no binocular depth cues "survive" in today's world.

What would be the implications of having just the one set of cues for depth?

95. How might we help someone with one of the agnosias (pick one). What would this program have to do to help them process information?

Chapter 3--Perception Key

1. D 2. A 3. C 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. A 9. A 10. B 11. D 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. A 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. C 25. B 26. B 27. B 28. A 29. D

30. C 31. A 32. A 33. D 34. D 35. C 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. C 40. C 41. C 42. D 43. A 44. B 45. A 46. B 47. D 48. D 49. C 50. D 51. C 52. A 53. C 54. C 55. B 56. D 57. D 58. D 59. C 60. C 61. B 62. B 63. B

64. A 65. C 66. A 67. B 68. C 69. C 70. C 71. C 72. B 73. C 74. B 75. A 76. Answer not provided.

77. Answer not provided.

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Chapter 4--Attention and Consciousness Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. ____ refers to the cognitive link between the limited amount of information that we actually manipulate mentally and the enormous amount of information available through our senses, our stored memories, and our other cognitive processes.

A. Arousal B. Attention C. Consciousness D. Priming

2. ____ refers to the complex phenomenon of evaluating the environment and then filtering that information through the mind, with the awareness of doing so.

A. Arousal B. Attention C. Consciousness D. Priming

3. Information that is available for cognitive processing but that currently lies outside of conscious awareness exists at the ____ level of awareness.

A. superconscious B. conscious C. preconscious D. unconscious

4. Information about your bedroom, such as the number of windows in it, is often easily pulled from ____ awareness to conscious awareness.

A. superconscious B. preconscious C. subconscious D. unconscious

5. ____ refers to the process by which particular stimuli activate mental pathways that enhance the ability to process subsequent stimuli related to the initial stimuli in some way.

A. Priming B. Feature enhancement C. Conjunction processing D. Binaural processing

6. ____ refers to a form of preconscious processing, in which people may have the ability to detect information without being fully aware that they are doing so.

A. Dichotic perception B. The Stroop phenomenon C. Signal perception D. Subliminal perception

7. ____ refers to an experience involving the preconscious level of consciousness, in which a person tries to remember something that is known to be stored in memory, but that the person cannot quite retrieve.

A. The tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon B. The tip-of-awareness phenomenon C. Freudian slip D. Subliminal perception

8. A person with lesions in the visual cortex may report not being able to see information; however, if forced to answer about an item, the person can often correctly guess the location and orientation of various objects. This suggests that some processing of visual information occurs outside of conscious awareness and is called A. blindsight.

B. peripheral vision.

C. change blindness.

D. signal detection theory.

9. ____ processing refers to cognitive manipulation that requires no conscious decisions or intentional effort.

A. Natural B. Procedural C. Controlled D. Automatic

10. ____ processing refers to cognitive processing that requires conscious control and effort that is performed one step at a time.

A. Natural B. Procedural C. Controlled D. Automatic

11. ____ refers to the process by which a person repeats a procedure so frequently that the procedure changes from being highly conscious and effortful to being relatively automatic and effortless.

A. Habituation B. Adaptation C. Automatization D. Dishabituation

12. The effects of practice on automatization show a ____ curve, in which early practice effects are great and later practice makes less and less difference in the degree of automatization.

A. curvilinear B. monotonic C. positively accelerated D. negatively accelerated

13. ____ refers to the tendency to become accustomed to a stimulus and gradually to notice it less and less.

A. Automatization B. Proceduralization C. Habituation D. Dishabituation

14. ____ refers to the phenomenon in which a change in a familiar stimulus prompts the perceiver to start noticing a new stimulus to which the perceiver had previously become accustomed.

A. Automatization B. Proceduralization C. Habituation D. Dishabituation

15. While studying for an exam, Suzanne likes to keep the radio on. She quickly gets used to the music in the background and she scarcely notices it. Yet, if someone changes the loudness, Suzanne becomes aware of the music immediately. This reaction to the change in loudness illustrates A. disproceduralization.

B. disautomatization.

C. dishabituation.

D. sensory disadaptation.

16. The automatic processes of habituation and dishabituation occur A. only in adults.

B. in a variety of animal species.

C. only in infants.

D. only in mammals.

17. ____ refers to a temporary physiological response to a sensed change in the environment, which is generally not subject to conscious control and which does not depend on previous experience with the given type of environmental change.

A. Habituation B. Sensory adaptation C. Proceduralization D. Automatization

18. Tom works at a fish store. When he gets home, his family comments on how strongly he smells. He, in contrast, cannot smell any fish odor at all. This example illustrates the phenomenon of A. proceduralization.

B. automatization.

C. habituation.

D. sensory adaptation.

19. Jessica usually puts on perfume in the morning. She has noticed that, although she can smell the perfume on herself immediately after putting it on, she can barely smell it the rest of the day. Yet, others around her can smell her perfume easily. Jessica is showing A. proceduralization.

B. automatization.

C. habituation.

D. sensory adaptation.

20. The main difference between habituation and sensory adaptation is that habituation A. does not involve sensory stimuli and sensory adaptation does.

B. is not always adaptive, whereas sensory adaptation is.

C. refers to habits, and sensory adaptation does not.

D. involves some conscious control over whether to notice something to which one has become habituated, whereas one has no such control over sensory adaptation.

21. While studying for an exam, Suzanne likes to keep the radio on. She quickly gets used to the music in the background and she scarcely notices it. Suzanne is showing A. proceduralization.

B. automatization.

C. habituation.

D. sensory adaptation.

22. ____ refers to a degree of physiological excitation, responsivity, and readiness for action relative to a baseline.

A. Awareness B. Arousal C. Attention D. Vigilance

23. ____ refers to a main task for which we use our attention, in which we choose to attend to some stimuli and to ignore others.

A. Selective attention B. Vigilance C. Search D. Multiple-task processing

24. When scanning a scene for a particular item/person, the target stimulus that you are attempting to detect is called a(n) A. movement-filter theory.

B. signal.

C. false alarm.

D. dishabituation.

25. Splitting your attentional resources between two or more different task is called A. selective attention.

B. feature search.

C. divided attention.

D. signal detection theory.

26. ____ refers to a main task for which we use our attention, in which we prudently allocate our available attentional resources to engage in more than one task at a time.

A. Selective attention B. Vigilance C. Search D. Divided attention

27. According to signal-detection theory, ____ refer to one of the possible outcomes, in which we correctly identify the presence of a signal.

A. hits B. false alarms C. misses D. correct rejections

28. According to signal-detection theory, ____ refer to one of the possible outcomes, in which we incorrectly identify the presence of a signal that is actually absent.

A. hits B. false alarms C. misses D. correct rejections

29. According to signal-detection theory, ____ refer to one of the possible outcomes, in which we incorrectly fail to observe the presence of a signal.

A. hits B. false alarms C. misses D. correct rejections

30. According to signal-detection theory, ____ refer to one of the possible outcomes, in which we correctly identify the absence of a signal.

A. hits B. false alarms C. misses D. correct rejections

31. This function of attention involves the detection of information of a particular stimulus.

A. stimulus observation B. signal detection C. attentional integration D. stimulus selection

32. This theory characterizes our ability to detect a signal as one of four possible outcomes involving either detection or no detection and presence or absence of the stimuli.

A. signal-detection theory B. change blindness C. attentional-resource D. attentional integration theory

33. You are watching your favorite TV show when a friend enters the room and wants to engage you in conversation. You really want to watch your show, but know that you should attend to the conversation. You try to do both. This is an example of A. selective attention.

B. feature search.

C. divided attention.

D. signal detection theory.

34. ____ refers to a main task for which we use our attention, in which we watchfully wait to detect the appearance of a particular stimulus.

A. Selective attention B. Vigilance C. Search D. Multiple-task processing

35. Alice is a lifeguard at a busy beach. When on duty, she must remain alert to detect the initial appearance of a stimulus (i.e., someone having difficulties in the water), despite prolonged periods during which the stimulus is absent. Alice's job requires great A. selective attention.

B. vigilance.

C. search.

D. multiple-task processing.

36. ____ refers to a main task for which we use our attention, in which we actively seek out particular stimuli.

A. Selective attention B. Vigilance C. Search D. Multiple-task processing

37. Trying to locate a particular shop in a crowded shopping center or a particular key term in a large list of terms are examples of A. selective attention.

B. vigilance.

C. search.

D. multiple-task processing.

38. ____ refer to features, characteristics, objects, or other stimuli that cause a person difficulty in selectively attending to the desired stimuli.

A. Signals B. Distracters C. Secondary stimuli D. Secondary signals

39. ____ refers to the visual pursuit of a particular characteristic by means of scanning the environment for the characteristic.

A. Feature search B. Characteristic selectivity C. Signal scanning D. Visual selective attention

40. Fred needs to find a particular furniture store in a busy shopping area. Yet, this particular shop has no unique features to help him recognize it, other than the store's name. Thus, Fred must read each store's name and compare it to the target shop's name. This illustrates A. characteristic selectivity.

B. visual selective attention.

C. conjunction search.

D. feature search.

41. As a child, every time you went to a place with large crowds, your mother had you wear a bright colored shirt. She knew that it would be easier to spot you in the crowd by the color of your shirt. She was making use of A. feature search.

B. vigilance.

C. divided attention.

D. conjunction search.

42. Your child attends a school that requires use of 1 of 4 different uniforms. You lament that it is often difficult to spot your child in the crowd of children. The difficulty is due to a search involving A. feature search.

B. vigilance.

C. divided attention.

D. conjunction search.

43. ____ refers to a means of pursuing a quest for a target stimulus by seeking the joint appearance of multiple features that distinguish the target stimulus from distracters.

A. Characteristic selectivity B. Visual selective attention C. Conjunction search D. Feature search

44. Your child attends a school that requires use of 1 of 4 different uniforms. You lament that it is often difficult to spot your child in the crowd of children. On that day it is raining, it is easy to spot the red umbrella that your child uses in the sea of black umbrellas. The search has changed from a(n) ____ to a(n) ____.

A. feature search; conjunction search B. selective attention; divided attention C. divided attention; selective attention D. conjunction search; feature search

45. According to the ____ theory, the key factor affecting the relative ease or difficulty of visual searches is whether or not discrete features must be integrated.

A. similarity B. feature-integration C. commonality D. signal-detection

46. According to the ____ theory, the key factor affecting the relative ease or difficulty of visual searches is the degree to which the features of targets and distracters are alike.

A. similarity B. commonality C. feature-integration D. signal-detection

47. This model, ____, suggests that all searches, whether conjunctive or feature, involve two stages. The first stage, operating in parallel, identifies information for further processing that occurs in the second stage, which occurs serially.

A. guided search theory B. movement-filter theory C. Broadbent's model D. similarity theory

48. The ____ phenomenon refers to the process of tracking one conversation in the face of the distraction of other conversations.

A. cocktail party B. dichotic listening C. bidirectional attention D. subliminal perception

49. ____ presentation refers to the presentation of the same audible stimuli to both ears at the same time.

A. Binaural B. Simultaneous C. Parallel D. Dichotic

50. ____ presentation refers to the simultaneous presentation of differing audible stimuli (such as verbal messages) to each ear.

A. Binaural B. Equalized C. Parallel D. Dichotic

51. ____ refers to an experimental task in which you listen to two different messages and then are required to repeat back only one of the messages as soon as possible after you hear it, ignoring the other.

A. Selective listening B. Shadowing C. Unilateral attention D. Uniaural listening task

52. This model of selective attention suggests that while there are multiple channels for sensory input, only one channel is processed while the other channels of information are blocked (filtered). Information from only one channel makes it through the attentional filter.

A. Treisman's attenuation model B. Broadbent's Model C. Single channel detection theory D. Deutsch and Deutsch's Late Filter Model

53. According to the ____ theories of attention, information is selectively blocked out or attenuated as it passes from one level of processing to the next.

A. attentional-resource B. filter and bottleneck C. neurological D. signal-detection

54. This model of selective attention suggests that most information is blocked out at the sensory level, but that highly salient messages are able to break through the attentional filter.

A. Moray's Selective Filter Model B. The Multimode Theory C. Deutsch and Deutsch's Late Filter Model D. Treisman's attenuation model

55. This model of selective attention suggests that 1) some higher level processing of the information occurs prior to informational filter, and 2) the strength of the unattended stimuli is weaker than that for the attended stimuli.

A. Broadbent's Model B. Deutsch and Deutsch's Late Filter Model C. Treisman's attenuation model D. Guided search model of information processing

56. This model of selective attention suggests that the filter for blocking signals occurs later than sensory processing and allows for both perceptual and conceptual analysis of information to take place.

A. Treisman's attenuation model B. Perceptual-Conceptual model of attention C. Guided search model of information processing D. Deutsch and Deutsch's Late Filter Model

57. This model of selective attention proposes that there are three stages of processing, and that selection of one incoming message over another can take place during any of the three stages.

A. the multimode theory B. Deutsch and Deutsch's Late Filter Model C. divided attention D. Neisser's Synthesis

58. This model combines early-filter and later-filter models by suggesting that there are two processes, preattentive and attentive, that govern attention.

A. multimode theory B. Treisman's attenuation model C. movement-filter theory D. Neisser's Synthesis

59. Ulric Neisser synthesized the early filter and the late filter models in part by proposing that there are two processes governing attention: A. foreground and background processes.

B. preattentive and attentive processes.

C. signal and noise processes.

D. target and distracter processes.

60. According to the ____ theories of attention, people have a fixed amount of attentional resources that they allocate to the perceived task requirements.

A. attentional-resource B. filter and bottleneck C. neurological D. signal-detection

61. The ____ refers to the psychological difficulty in selective attention that occurs when a literate person attempts to name the colors of ink which are printed color words that label contrasting colors (e.g., "blue" may be printed in red ink).

A. semantic confusion phenomenon B. feature-integration problem C. Stroop effect D. signal effect

62. In the making of a movie, any particular scene is often filmed several times. No matter how hard they try during the editing process, there is often some discontinuity in the scenes (e.g., an object suddenly changes location from one location to another). Failure to notices these changes would be an example of A. blindsight.

B. divided attention.

C. conjunction search.

D. change blindness.

63. When a person fails to detect changes that occur for attended or unattended objects in a viewed scene, this is called A. blindsight.

B. divided attention.

C. conjunction search.

D. change blindness.

64. This attentional dysfunction, typically due to lesions in the parietal lobes, is when a person ignores information from half of their visual field.

A. single hemisphere neglect B. anterior attentional deficit C. signal detection failure D. spatial neglect

65. Michael Posner has identified an anterior attention system within the ____ lobe and a posterior attention system within the ____ lobe.

A. frontal; parietal B. parietal; frontal C. frontal; occipital D. occipital; frontal

66. Cognitive neuropsychologists often use ____, which map(s) regional cerebral blood flow, to study attention processes.

A. positron-emission tomography B. event-related potentials C. electric potentials D. neurochemical markers

67. Perry is a cognitive neuropsychologist who would like to study attentional processes by mapping people's regional cerebral blood flow. To this end, he may use A. positron-emission tomography.

B. event-related potentials.

C. electric potentials.

D. neurochemical markers.

68. According to Michael Posner, the activity of the attentional system occurs as a result of A. enhanced activation of attended items.

B. inhibition or suppressed activation of unattended items.

C. both enhanced activation of attended items and inhibition of activation of unattended items.

D. differing mechanisms, depending on the particular task and on the area of the brain under investigation.

69. Rebecca is a cognitive neuropsychologist who wants to study attention processes in a way that allows her to trace minute changes in electrical activity in response to various stimuli. To this end, she may use A. positron-emission tomography.

B. event-related potentials.

C. galvanic responses.

D. neurochemical markers.

70. ____ attention deficits have been linked to lesions in the frontal lobe and in the basal ganglia.

A. Visual B. Auditory C. Tactile D. Overall

71. ____ attention deficits have been linked to the posterior parietal cortex and the thalamus.

A. Visual B. Auditory C. Tactile D. Overall

72. The attentional systems involved in visual search seem to be ____ other aspects of visual attention.

A. the same as B. distinct from C. similar to D. opposite of those of

73. The ____ seems to be dominant for maintaining alertness.

A. corpus collosum B. midbrain C. right hemisphere D. left hemisphere

74. An area that has long been recognized as crucial to overall arousal is the A. thalamus.

B. frontal lobe.

C. left hemisphere.

D. reticular activating system.

75. Changes in the reticular activating system and in specific measures of arousal have been linked to all of the following phenomena except one. Identify the exception.

A. Habituation B. Dishabituation C. Orienting reflex D. Tactile sensation

76. Describe how an MRI works.

77. Describe the difference between selective attention and vigilance.

78. Describe the relationship between attention and consciousness.

79. Describe automatic and controlled processes. Explain the role that each play in consciousness.

80. Describe Neisser's theory concerning the two processes that govern attention.

81. Compare and contrast the filter or bottleneck theories of attention with the attentional-resource theories of attention.

82. State what both habituation and sensory adaptation refer to and describe any similarities as well as differences between these two phenomena. Explain.

83. Explain the differences between selective attention, divided attention, and change blindness. Explain how these three concepts are important and under what circumstances. Provide circumstances for each in which they can be considered positive and then examples when they would be negative.

84. First describe the data that has been problematic for the filter theories, and then explain how each model handles the data.

85. Compare and contrast Moray's selective filter model and Deutsch and Deutsch's late filter model. What are some of the important differences between the models?

86. Describe what habituation and dishabituation are and use these concepts to design a study that would allow you to determine whether a comatose patient can hear a relative's voice.

87. Most of us have experienced the tip-of-the-tongue phenomenon, in which information seems to be stuck at the preconscious level. Describe the phenomenon and outline some method or experiment to study this phenomenon.

88. Describe how an ad campaign might make use of conjunction and feature search. Under which circumstances would one be preferred over the other?

89. Explain how the various theories of selective attention would account for the difficulty in finding Waldo.

90. How does or how might advertising modify its approach when considering habituation?

91. Based on research on vigilance and signal detection described in the text, what advice would you give to an air-traffic controller who was interested in avoiding misses as well as false alarms? Explain.

92. A friend of yours is a teacher of young children. Based on the research on factors that influence attention, such as overall arousal, familiarity with task, degree of difficulty of task, and practice effects, what would you tell your friend to aid him in obtaining and maintaining the attention of young children?

93. Often motorcycles are involved in accidents in which the people that hit them claim that they did not see the motorcycle. How might selective attention be used to explain this, and what might be done to change it?

94. Explain how selective attention can be good or bad in a situation such as witnessing a robbery.

95. Explain how a fire alarm system makes uses of elements from signal detection theory. Can you think of anyway to make this more effective?

Chapter 4--Attention and Consciousness Key

1. B 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. C 12. D 13. C 14. D 15. C 16. B 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. D 21. C 22. B 23. A 24. B 25. C 26. D 27. A 28. B 29. C

30. D 31. B 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. B 36. C 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. D 41. A 42. D 43. C 44. D 45. B 46. A 47. A 48. A 49. A 50. D 51. B 52. B 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. D 57. A 58. D 59. B 60. A 61. C 62. D 63. D

64. D 65. A 66. A 67. A 68. D 69. B 70. D 71. A 72. B 73. C 74. D 75. D 76. Answer not provided.

77. Answer not provided.

78. Answer not provided.

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Chapter 5--Memory: Models and Research Methods Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. ____ refers to the means by which people draw on past knowledge in order to use such knowledge in the present; it refers to the dynamic mechanisms associated with the retention and retrieval of information.

A. Implicit store B. A network C. Memory D. Sensory store

2. ____ refers to a process of memory often employed in memory tasks, in which the person is asked to produce a fact, a word, or other item from memory.

A. Recall B. Recognition C. Identification D. Production

3. ____ refers to a process of memory often employed in memory tasks, in which the person may be asked to identify from among several choices a fact, a word, or other item from memory.

A. Recall B. Recognition C. Retrieval D. Assimilation

4. Fill-in-the-blank tests can be memory tasks, which require that students employ primarily the memory process of A. recall.

B. recognition.

C. access.

D. production.

5. Multiple-choice exams can be memory tasks, which require that students employ primarily the memory process of A. recall.

B. recognition.

C. access.

D. production.

6. ____ recall refers to a type of recall task used in experiments in which the participant recalls items in the exact order in which they were presented.

A. Ordered B. Serial C. Ordinal D. Free

7. ____ recall refers to a type of recall task used in experiments in which the participant recalls items in any order he or she chooses.

A. Arbitrary B. Serial C. Disordered D. Free

8. ____ recall refers to a type of recall task used in experiments in which items are presented in pairs, and during recall, the participant is cued with one member of each pair and is asked to recall the mate of each cued item.

A. Serial B. Free C. Dyadic D. Cued

9. Max is a volunteer for a psychological experiment. He has been asked to listen carefully to a list of words. He has been instructed to try to remember as many of these words as possible in any order and to write them down after a signal. Max is participating in a ____ recall task.

A. serialB. freeC. paired-associates D. structured-

10. Melissa volunteered to participate in a psychological experiment. She has been instructed to listen carefully to a list of words, because later she will have to remember as many of these words as possible in the exact order in which they were presented. Melissa is participating in a ____ recall task.

A. serialB. freeC. paired-associates D. structured-

11. After a test, Jill identified and then learned the information that she had forgot for the test. She noted that there was a "saving" in that the information was learned faster the second time. Jill has discovered the concept of ____.

A. relearning B. partial-report method C. subsequent refinement D. permastore

12. Jacoby suggests that both implicit and explicit memory play a role in every response. His model is called A. process-dissociation model.

B. memory synthesis model.

C. levels of processing model.

D. multi-store model of memory.

13. ____ memory refers to a form of memory retrieval in which a person consciously acts to recall or recognize particular information.

A. Episodic B. Semantic C. Explicit D. Implicit

14. ____ memory refers to a form of memory retrieval in which a person uses recalled or recognized information without consciously being aware of doing so.

A. Episodic B. Semantic C. Explicit D. Implicit

15. Participants in an experiment read over a list of words. A second unrelated task (a filler task) is then completed. For the final task, participants rate letter strings as words or non-words. The results indicate that participants in general were faster at identifying words from the first list. This facilitation in response to those items from the first task is an example of A. priming.

B. synesthesia.

C. levels of processing.

D. phonological processing.

16. Anytime we read, we unconsciously and effortlessly remember the meanings of particular words and even how to read. These are examples of everyday tasks that primarily involve ____ memory.

A. episodic B. semantic C. explicit D. implicit

17. Recall memory is to ____ as recognition memory is to ____.

A. receptive knowledge; expressive knowledge B. implicit memory; explicit memory C. expressive knowledge; receptive knowledge D. explicit memory; implicit memory

18. According to Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968), ____ is/are structures and ____ is/are the information stored in the structures.

A. network; nodes B. nodes; network C. stores; memory D. memories; store

19. ____ refers to a concept that cannot be directly measured or observed but that may be used as a mental representation for understanding the workings of a psychological phenomenon.

A. Declarative knowledge B. A node C. A hypothetical construct D. A prime

20. According to Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968), the ____ store refers to the memory store characterized as having the smallest capacity for storing information and the shortest duration for memory storage.

A. sensory B. short-term C. fleeting D. episodic

21. The ____ store refers to a sensory register for the fleeting storage of discrete visual images, usually resembling whatever is being represented.

A. echoic B. visual C. episodic D. iconic

22. Louise put a light bulb on a lamp, turned it on, and looked at it directly. Immediately after that, she looked away and she could still "see" the bulb shining brightly. This visual persistence is an example of the type of information held in the ____ store.

A. echoic B. visual C. episodic D. iconic

23. The initial discovery of the existence of the iconic store came from a Ph.D. dissertation by A. Donald Norman.

B. Richard Shiffrin.

C. Richard Atkinson.

D. George Sperling.

24. During his experiments studying iconic store, Sperling would flash an array of stimuli (e.g., letters and/or numbers) for approximately 50 milliseconds on a screen. Asked to recall all symbols presented would be an example of the A. backward visual masking.

B. forward visual masking.

C. partial-report procedure.

D. whole-report procedure.

25. During his experiments studying iconic store, Sperling would flash an array of stimuli (e.g., letters and/or numbers) for approximately 50 milliseconds on a screen. Asked to recall just the symbols presented on the third line would be an example of the A. backward visual masking.

B. forward visual masking.

C. partial-report procedure.

D. whole-report procedure.

26. A second stimulus is presented shortly after the first item in the same location and "erases" the original stimulus. This is called A. stimulus blocking.

B. synesthesia.

C. visuospatial sketchpad.

D. backward visual masking.

27. According to Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968), the ____ store refers to the memory store characterized as having a modest capacity (about seven items) for storing information and a duration for memory storage of only a few seconds.

A. sensory B. short-term C. fleeting D. episodic

28. As tested by a psychologist, the capacity of Jerry's short-term store for a wide range of items appears to be 11 items. Jerry's short-term memory capacity is A. below average.

B. average.

C. above average.

D. Cannot be established on the basis of this limited information.

29. The capacity of our immediate, short-term store for a wide range of items appears to be ____ plus or minus 2 items.

A. 5 B. 6 C. 7 D. 8

30. According to Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968), the ____ store refers to the memory store characterized as having the greatest capacity for storing information and the longest duration for memory storage.

A. secondary B. short-term C. long-term D. lasting

31. How long does unrehearsed material typically remain in the short-term store?

A. 1 second B. 5 seconds C. 30 seconds D. 5 minutes

32. People's names, where we keep things, and humorous incidents from our childhood are all examples of information held in our ____ store.

A. short-term B. long-term C. working D. stable

33. According to Bahrick, ____ refers to a very long-term storage of information. The information contained in this store may include, for example, knowledge of a foreign language and of mathematics acquired years or even decades earlier.

A. permanent store B. permastore C. longest-term store D. infinite store

34. The ____ refers to a way of looking at memory storage, which postulates that memory comprises a continuous dimension in which the depth to which information is encoded predicts the ease of retrieving an item.

A. levels-of-processing framework B. working-memory framework C. parallel-processing model D. continuous-dimension model

35. According to the levels-of-processing framework, as originally proposed, if you were shown semantically related words (e.g., dog and animal), rhyming words (e.g., dog and log), as well as unrelated words, the words most easily recalled would be the A. semantically related words.

B. words concretely connected.

C. unrelated words.

D. all words would be recalled about equally.

36. According to the levels-of-processing framework, the deeper the level of processing of information, A. the more that recall of the information depends on other cognitive events.

B. the less that recall of the information depends on other cognitive events.

C. the lower the probability that the information will be retrieved.

D. the higher the probability that the information will be retrieved.

37. Participants were asked to judge whether words describe them or not. Recall was highest for the items that described the individual. The setup of this experiment demonstrates A. self induced schema (SIS).

B. personal word identification.

C. partial-report procedure.

D. self-reference effect.

38. ____ memory refers to a portion of memory that may be viewed as a specialized part of long-term memory, which holds only the most recently activated portion of long-term memory, and which moves these activated elements into and out of short-term memory.

A. Moving B. Activated C. Working D. Utility

39. This model of memory consists of four main elements: central executive, phonological loop, visuospatial sketchpad, and the episodic buffer (plus additional subsidiary slave systems). This model is known as A. primary memory & secondary memory.

B. three-store model.

C. levels-of-processing framework.

D. working memory.

40. This component of the working memory model is important for processing both spatial information and images.

A. central executive B. episodic buffer C. phonological loop D. visuospatial sketchpad

41. This part of the working memory model is well suited for handling verbal information and for rehearsing information.

A. central executive B. episodic buffer C. phonological loop D. visuospatial sketchpad

42. This component of the working memory model is responsible for coordinating attentional activities and regulating the flow of information.

A. central executive B. episodic buffer C. phonological loop D. visuospatial sketchpad

43. This part of the working memory model allows for an interface that can integrate different types of information from various systems.

A. central executive B. episodic buffer C. phonological loop D. visuospatial sketchpad

44. Sophie's working memory is having difficulty integrating information from its various parts so that the information makes sense to Sophie. What component is not properly functioning?

A. her visuospatial sketchpad B. her phonological loop C. her working memory D. her episodic buffer

45. The difference between semantic and episodic knowledge is that A. semantic knowledge includes all "general truths," whereas episodic knowledge must be gained from experience.

B. semantic knowledge must be gained from experience, whereas episodic knowledge includes all "general truths."

C. semantic knowledge is what we know about experiences linked to particular time referents, whereas episodic knowledge is what we know in the way of facts.

D. semantic knowledge is what we know in the way of facts, whereas episodic knowledge is what we know about experiences linked to particular time referents.

46. ____ memory refers to encoding, storage, and retrieval of facts that do not describe the unique temporally coded experiences of the person recalling the facts.

A. Episodic B. Semantic C. Factual D. Declarative

47. ____ memory refers to encoding, storage, and retrieval of events that the one who is remembering experienced personally at a particular time and place.

A. Episodic B. Semantic C. Time-bound D. Personal

48. According to Endel Tulving, if you needed to remember that you saw a friend yesterday at the library, you would be drawing on a(n) ____ memory.

A. episodic B. semantic C. time-bound D. working

49. According to Endel Tulving, if you needed to remember the name of the friend that you saw yesterday at the library, you would be drawing on a(n) ____ memory.

A. episodic B. semantic C. time-bound D. working

50. This model, based on neuroscientific results, suggests that episodic and semantic memories are in fact distinct from one another given that they activate different parts of the brain.

A. Hemispheric Specialization Model B. Asymmetrical Hemispheric Specialization (AHS Model) C. Hemispheric Encoding/Retrieval Asymmetry (HERA Model) D. Intrahemispheric Activation Model

51. As applied to a model of memory, a ____ is a set of labeled relations between nodes.

A. network B. prime C. schema D. concept

52. This memory system is often called implicit memory and includes memory for how to do various tasks or operations.

A. nondeclarative memory B. episodic memory C. semantic memory D. episodic buffer

53. The ____ refers to a conceptual model of memory in which the cognitive manipulation of multiple operations occurs simultaneously.

A. levels-of-processing framework B. parallel-distributed processing model C. three-store model D. working-memory model

54. A ____ refers to a juncture within a memory network, which may be seen as representing a concept.

A. prime B. node C. schema D. dyad

55. Many cognitive psychologists have asserted that the ____ effect refers to the activation of a node by a prime to which the node is connected in a network, due to the process of spreading activation.

A. activating B. priming C. recall D. recognition

56. This model of memory, which consists of nodes and links between the nodes, suggests that knowledge is represented in the connections between the nodes.

A. correspondence model of memory B. HERA model of memory C. Permastore D. connectionist model of memory

57. A(n) ____ refers to a node that activates a connected node in a network.

A. schema B. dyad C. activating locus D. prime

58. This metaphor suggests that memory can be thought of as a repository of information and events.

A. ecological memory B. storehouse metaphor C. connectionist metaphor D. correspondence metaphor

59. This metaphor for memory focuses on the importance of accurately representing past events so that one can interact with the real world.

A. ecological memory B. storehouse metaphor C. parallel distributed memory metaphor D. correspondence metaphor

60. Debbie participated in a memory experiment and performed exceptionally well. When asked how she could recall long strings of material such as rows and columns of numbers, she said that she memorized numbers by transforming them into dates, and then thinking about what she had done that day. Debbie seems to be a A. photographic thinker.

B. parallel processor.

C. mnemonist.

D. genius.

61. Allison is a peculiar thinker. She can remember a great amount of information, in large part because she converts sounds and words into visual impressions and because she experiences a word's taste and weight.

Allison seems to make use of A. episensation.

B. metasensation.

C. synesthesia.

D. metaesthesia.

62. ____ are persons who use memory-enhancing techniques for greatly improving their memory or who have a distinctive sensory or cognitive ability to remember information.

A. Mnemonists B. Geniuses C. Parallel-processors D. Photographic thinkers

63. ____ refers to the experiencing of a sensation in a sensory modality different from the sense that is physically stimulated.

A. Episensation B. Metasensation C. Synesthesia D. Metaesthesia

64. This process involves using a number of different retrieval cues in order to retrieve memories that appear to have been forgotten.

A. hypermnesia B. retroactive recall C. proactive recall D. double dissociations

65. ____ amnesia refers to an inability to recall events that occur after whatever trauma caused the memory loss.

A. Semantic B. Infantile C. Anterograde D. Retrograde

66. ____ amnesia refers to an inability to recall events that occur before the trauma that causes the memory loss.

A. Semantic B. Infantile C. Anterograde D. Retrograde

67. In retrograde amnesia, the memories that return typically do so starting A. from the more distant past and progressing up to the time of the trauma.

B. from the time of the trauma and progressing back to the more distant past.

C. with the more meaningful experiences, regardless of their chronological time.

D. with the less meaningful experiences, regardless of their chronological time.

68. Retrograde amnesia may be viewed as a problem in ____ information in (from) memory.

A. encoding new B. retrieving old C. encoding and storing new D. encoding and storing old

69. ____ amnesia refers to the inability to recall events that happened during early development of the brain.

A. Developmental B. Infantile C. Anterograde D. Retrograde

70. ____ refers to the severe loss of explicit memory, usually affecting semantic memory more than procedural memory.

A. Aphasia B. Dyslexia C. Amnesia D. Agnosia

71. ____ knowledge refers to the understanding and awareness of how to perform particular tasks or skills (i.e., "knowing how").

A. Procedural B. Declarative C. Episodic D. Semantic

72. Jimmy knows how to ride a bicycle. This is an example of a task that involves ____ knowledge.

A. procedural B. declarative C. episodic D. semantic

73. ____ memory refers to a discrete memory system for knowledge of how to perform particular tasks or skills.

A. Episodic B. Semantic C. Procedural D. Declarative

74. ____ knowledge refers to a recognition and understanding of factual information (i.e., "knowing that").

A. Procedural B. Declarative C. Episodic D. Semantic

75. Jennifer has an excellent understanding of geography. This is an example of ____ knowledge.

A. procedural B. declarative C. episodic D. ecphoric

76. Raphael is an amnesia patient. When specifically asked to remember a particular set of information, Raphael does poorly. When indirectly measured on the same information he shows signs of learning. This show that ____ is impaired by amnesia while ____ is not impaired.

A. implicit memory; explicit memory B. recognition memory, recall memory C. explicit memory; implicit memory D. recall memory, recognition memory

77. It is difficult to draw cause-and-effect statements from an interruption of function due to a lesion in a particular part of the brain since other parts of the brain may also be involved with that function. In evaluating hypotheses about neuropathologies, scientists look for ____ or different neuropathologies in which the individuals demonstrate an opposite pattern of deficits.

A. hypermnesia B. intrahemispheric activation C. paired-associates D. double dissociations

78. The only definitive test for Alzheimer's disease involves A. an analysis of brain tissue.

B. a memory test.

C. an fMRI. D. a CT scan.

79. The encoding of declarative information seems to depend primarily on the A. basal ganglia.

B. hippocampus.

C. cerebellum.

D. peripheral nervous system.

80. The consolidation of encoded information in the long-term store seems to depend primarily on the A. basal ganglia.

B. hippocampus.

C. cerebellum.

D. cerebral cortex.

81. A person who has suffered some sort of brain injury affecting only his or her hippocampus is most likely to show difficulty with A. encoding of declarative information.

B. encoding of procedural information.

C. retrieval of semantic information.

D. retrieval of episodic information.

82. A person who has suffered some sort of brain injury affecting only his or her hippocampus is most likely to show difficulty with A. the consolidation of encoded information in the long-term store.

B. encoding of procedural information.

C. retrieval of semantic information.

D. retrieval of episodic information.

83. The long-term storage of information, particularly declarative information, seems to depend primarily on the A. basal ganglia.

B. amygdala.

C. cerebellum.

D. cerebral cortex.

84. The memory of classically conditioned responses seems to depend primarily on the A. basal ganglia.

B. hippocampus.

C. cerebellum.

D. cerebral cortex.

85. A person who has suffered some sort of brain injury, affecting only his or her cerebellum is most likely to show difficulty with A. the consolidation of encoded information in the long-term store.

B. encoding of procedural information.

C. the memory of classically conditioned responses.

D. episodic information.

86. Describe what implicit memory is.

87. What role does the hippocampus play in memory?

88. Describe the various parts of Baddeley's model of working memory and their relationship to each other.

89. Describe the whole-report and partial-report methods used by Sperling. Explain what Sperling thought the two reports have to say about sensory memory.

90. Explain double dissociations and their relevance to understanding memory.

91. Compare the sensory store, the short-term store, and the long-term store with each other and state the way in which they differ from one another.

92. Compare and contrast the traditional model of memory (with its sensory, short-term, and long-term stores) with the levels-of-processing framework.

93. Compare and contrast recall and recognition. Why does one task appear to be easier than the other? What processes are involved?

94. First describe the various types of recall tasks, then explain what it says about memory when we can access information with some tasks but not others.

95. Describe the different types of amnesia and explain how they are different from one another.

96. Describe briefly procedural knowledge and declarative knowledge. Then describe the ways in which our lives would be different if all procedural knowledge decayed quickly if it were not maintained through rehearsal.

97. Describe what the levels-of-processing memory model is and then design a study that would allow you to test a specific hypothesis stemming from the model.

98. Pretend you are developing your own memory improvement book. What are some of the important facts that you would have to cover or include in your book?

99. If you were developing an artificial life form, explain which model of memory you would base your design of the memory on and why (also include why you did not choose some of the other models).

100. Technology in the past has provided new ways of looking at how we conceptualize memory. Generate a new metaphor for memory based on some type of technology. Make sure that you include in your discussion how the various components of memory relate to this technology.

101. Suppose that a teacher seeks your advice regarding how to test his students in a way that (a) mainly involves recall processes; or (b) mainly involves recognition processes. Explain briefly what recall and recognition processes are and then state your recommendations to the teacher.

102. Based on the research on mnemonists and on the self-reference effect, state at least two ways by which you can increase your recall of information when studying for an exam. Be specific and be sure to state the relationship between the research and your proposed study strategies.

103. Suppose that someone asked your opinion about doing two tasks at once. What advice would you give them (think of Baddeley's working memory model)? Under what circumstances would you have an easier or difficult time with two tasks?

104. What advice would you give someone in terms of studying for two exams on one day? In your discussion relate the advice to various memory concepts including proactive and retroactive interference.

105. Using the levels of processing model as your guide, what advice would you give someone in terms of studying and their ability to remember information.

Chapter 5--Memory: Models and Research Methods Key

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. D 9. B 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. C 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. D 23. D 24. D 25. C 26. D 27. B 28. C 29. C

30. C 31. C 32. B 33. B 34. A 35. A 36. D 37. D 38. C 39. D 40. D 41. C 42. A 43. B 44. D 45. D 46. B 47. A 48. A 49. B 50. C 51. A 52. A 53. B 54. B 55. B 56. D 57. D 58. B 59. D 60. C 61. C 62. A 63. C

64. A 65. C 66. D 67. A 68. B 69. B 70. C 71. A 72. A 73. C 74. B 75. B 76. C 77. D 78. A 79. B 80. B 81. A 82. A 83. D 84. C 85. C 86. Answer not provided.

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Chapter 6--Memory Processes Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. ____ refers to how you transform a physical, sensory input into a kind of representation that can be placed into memory.

A. Encoding B. Storage C. Retrieval D. Transfer

2. ____ refers to how you retain encoded information in memory.

A. Encoding B. Storage C. Retrieval D. Transfer

3. ____ refers to how you gain access to information stored in memory.

A. Encoding B. Storage C. Retrieval D. Transfer

4. The processes of encoding, storage, and retrieval ____ with each other and are ____.

A. interact; interdependent B. interact; not interdependent C. do not interact; interdependent D. do not interact; not interdependent

5. Research shows that encoding in short-term memory is primarily A. visual.

B. semantic.

C. acoustic.

D. none of these

6. In R. Conrad's (1964) landmark experiment on encoding in short-term memory, Conrad found that despite the fact that letters were presented ____ to participants, errors tended to be based on ____ confusability.

A. acoustically; visual B. acoustically; semantic C. visually; acoustic D. visually; semantic

7. It appears that although encoding in short-term memory is primarily ____, there may be some secondary ____ encoding, and perhaps even fleeting ____ encoding.

A. semantic; acoustic; visual B. semantic; visual; acoustic C. acoustic; visual; semantic D. acoustic; semantic; visual

8. Short-term memory is usually encoded ____ and long-term memory is usually encoded ____.

A. semantically; acoustically B. acoustically; semantically C. visually; acoustically D. visually; semantically

9. Encoding of information in the long-term store is not exclusively ____. There also is evidence for ____ encoding.

A. semantic; visual B. visual; acoustic C. acoustic; semantic D. visual, semantic

10. Information stored in long-term memory seems to be primarily A. visually encoded.

B. acoustically encoded.

C. semantically encoded.

D. encoded according to the personal relevance of information.

11. On his way to the supermarket, Marcelo remembers that he needs tomatoes and cucumbers. He then remembers that he also needs cheese, eggs, and milk. The order in which he remembered the grocery items illustrates that information stored in long-term memory seems to be primarily encoded A. visually.

B. acoustically.

C. semantically.

D. according to the personal relevance of the information.

12. The process of taking new information and integrating it with stored information in long term memory is called A. metacognition.

B. consolidation.

C. constructive memory.

D. reality monitoring.

13. ____ is an aspect of cognition that involves thinking about how to remember more effectively, such as by using various mental strategies.

A. A mnemonic device B. Metamemory C. Constructive memory D. Massed learning

14. How do we transfer information from short-term memory to long-term memory?

A. By deliberately attending to information in order to comprehend it B. By making connections or associations between the new information and what we already know C. By rehearsing the information D. All of these

15. Manuela, a college student, has a clear awareness of what she knows and does not know about a particular topic, such that when she needs to study for an exam, she knows exactly what to study to enhance her understanding. This description illustrates A. the method of loci.

B. categorical clustering.

C. metacognition.

D. motivated learning.

16. An individual can reflect on and use his/her awareness or knowledge to influence thinking. This use of your knowledge about cognitive processes is called A. metacognition.

B. reflex activation.

C. persistence.

D. distributed learning.

17. ____ practice refers to learning in which various sessions are spaced over time.

A. Paced B. Distributed C. Mass D. Elaborative

18. People tend to learn better when they acquire knowledge via ____ learning.

A. paced B. motivated C. mass D. distributed

19. Shantell has a cumulative final exam in physics coming up. To ensure a good grade, she has been studying throughout the semester, at least one hour each day. Shantell's studying schedule illustrates ____ learning.

A. paced B. massed C. motivated D. distributed

20. ____ practice refers to learning in which sessions are crammed together all at once.

A. Bulk B. Distributed C. Massed D. Motivated

21. The greater recall associated with distributed learning is called the ____ effect.

A. distributed B. spacing C. mnemonic D. time-delay

22. This stage of sleep seems to be important for the process of consolidating memories.

A. reconstructive stage of sleep B. constructive stage of sleep C. Stage 4 D. REM sleep

23. This type of rehearsal, in which one tries to make the information more meaningful and/or connects the information to other information already learned, is a more effective method for moving information into long term memory.

A. distributed learning B. consolidation C. elaborative rehearsal D. maintenance rehearsal

24. In this type of rehearsal, the individual simply repeats the information to be learned over and over again.

This method is not an affect way to put information into long term memory.

A. distributed learning B. consolidation C. elaborative rehearsal D. maintenance rehearsal

25. Participants in a study using multiple trial learning and lists containing several different categories (e.g., animals, minerals) will spontaneously cluster their recall of items by these categories. Even when there appears to be no apparent relation (e.g., categories), participants still cluster items during recall. These consistent patterns in the order of recall are called A. reality monitoring.

B. distributed learning.

C. retrospective memory.

D. organization of information.

26. In an effort to remember some grocery items, Andrew visualizes a huge loaf of bread, with a bottle of soda balanced on one side of the bread and a can of soup on the other. Andrew is using A. a mnemonic device.

B. metamemory.

C. constructive memory.

D. massed learning.

27. Mnemonic devices are best described as A. experimental devices used in cognitive studies.

B. strategies for efficient problem solving.

C. artificial-intelligence algorithms that mimic human reasoning.

D. specific techniques to help you memorize lists of words.

28. Frank is organizing his grocery list into a set of categories in order to remember what he needs to buy at the store. Frank is using what type of memory technique?

A. acrostics B. keyword system C. pegword system D. categorical clustering

29. If you are imagining taking a walk around an area with distinctive landmarks, matching up a landmark with a specific item you need to remember, you are using the ____ technique.

A. acronym B. interactive images C. method of loci D. keyword system

30. As a memory aid, we can use the physical constraints of our environment to help us remember things (e.g., putting an important document on your alarm clock so you remember to take it to work).

A. forcing functions B. physical mnemonics C. prospective memory D. physical persistence

31. Tying a string around your finger, keeping a list of things to do, and asking someone to remind you of something are all examples of strategies to improve A. prospective memory.

B. introspective memory.

C. retrospective memory.

D. retroactive memory.

32. This type of memory is for events that have occurred in the past.

A. repressed memories B. retrospective memory C. persistence D. maintenance rehearsal

33. In an exhaustive serial processing search of short-term memory, people generally take ____ amount(s) of time to find a target ____.

A. different; depending on where in the list it is located.

B. the same; regardless of where in the list it is located.

C. the same; as long as the target is one of the first 3 items.

D. the same; as long as the target is one of the last 3 items.

34. There are a number of reasons why we may have a difficult time retrieving information from long-term memory. This particular view focuses on to what extent one can gain access to the information.

A. availability B. persistence C. accessibility D. transience

35. Whereas ____ theory views one piece of information as knocking out another, ____ theory views the original piece of information as gradually disappearing unless something is done to keep it intact.

A. decay; interference B. interference; decay C. availability; interference D. interference; availability

36. ____ occurs when competing information causes us to forget something.

A. Decay B. Reconstructive interference C. Unlearning D. Interference

37. In general, as the amount of learning prior to recall increases, ____ increases.

A. availability B. decay C. interference D. constructive memory

38. ____ refers to the idea that particular information has been permanently stored in long-term memory and, hence, can be retrieved.

A. Constancy B. Retroactivity C. Availability D. Accessibility

39. According to the ____ theory of forgetting, forgetting occurs because new information ultimately displaces old information in the short-term store.

A. decay B. availability C. accessibility D. interference

40. Stephanie has been studying for two exams scheduled on the same day, one for her Spanish class and the other for French. While taking the Spanish exam, she remembers more French than Spanish. Stephanie is most likely to be experiencing A. decay.

B. interference.

C. reconstructive interference.

D. unlearning.

41. Seth participated in a memory experiment. He has been instructed to count backwards between the last presentation of a stimulus and recall of the stimulus. This procedure was probably designed to A. prevent subjects from rehearsing.

B. disorient subjects about the purpose of the experiment.

C. allow some decay to occur.

D. increase depth of processing.

42. Counting backwards immediately after the last presentation of a stimulus and before recall of the stimulus is an example of a task designed to A. prevent participants from rehearsing.

B. deceive participants about the purpose of the experiment.

C. allow some decay to occur.

D. facilitate recall.

43. In memory studies, the retention interval refers to the time A. the participant needs to encode sensory input into the short-term store.

B. the participant needs to retain new information in the long-term store.

C. between the presentation of the last stimulus and the start of the recall phase of the experimental trial.

D. between the presentation of the first and last stimuli within a trial.

44. ____ interference is caused by an activity occurring after we learn something, but before we are asked to recall that thing.

A. Decay B. Proactive C. Retroactive D. Reconstructive

45. Retroactive interference is caused by activity occurring ____ we learn something and ____ we are asked to recall that thing.

A. after; after B. after; before C. after; while D. before; after

46. At a party, Hoshiko was introduced to Steve just as she arrived. Hoshiko then went off to speak with a different group and was introduced to each of them as well. After hearing the new names, Hoshiko could not remember Steve's name. This description illustrates A. retroactive interference.

B. proactive interference.

C. decay.

D. reconstructive forgetting.

47. Sandra has just come from studying with some classmates to whom she has just been introduced. She then runs into a good friend who introduces her to David. As Sandra walks away, she realizes that she can't remember David's name. This description illustrates A. decay.

B. reconstructive forgetting.

C. retroactive interference.

D. proactive interference.

48. ____ interference occurs when the interfering material occurs before, rather than after, learning of the to-be-remembered material.

A. Retroactive B. Proactive C. Decay D. Reconstructive

49. Proactive interference occurs when the interfering material occurs ____ rather than ____ learning of the to-be-remembered material.

A. after; before B. after; during C. before; during D. before; after

50. Keppel and Underwood (1962) showed that proactive interference can operate in the forgetting of material stored in the A. short-term store.

B. long-term store, in general.

C. long-term store, but only with semantic information.

D. both short- and long-term stores.

51. The serial-position curve represents the probability of recall of A. a given word, given its semantic relationship to other words in a list.

B. groups of words, given their relative order of presentation in a list.

C. a given word, given its order of presentation in a list.

D. groups of words, given their semantic relationship.

52. A typical serial position curve shows that recall of words in a list is best for items ____ of the list and poorest for items ____.

A. at and near the end; in the middle B. at and near the end; near the beginning C. near the beginning; in the middle D. near the beginning; at and near the end

53. Superior recall of words at and near the beginning of a list is referred to as a(n) ____ effect.

A. primacy B. primary C. recency D. availability

54. After being given directions to get to the theater, Kurt can remember only the first part of where to turn.

This illustrates the ____ effect.

A. primacy B. recency C. initial D. availability

55. Superior recall of words at and near the end of a list is referred to as a(n) ____ effect.

A. primacy B. recency C. finality D. availability

56. After being given directions to get to the park, Galvin can remember only the last part of where he is to turn.

This illustrates the ____ effect.

A. primacy B. recency C. finality D. availability

57. The serial-position curve can be well explained in terms of the ____ theory of forgetting.

A. availability B. decay C. interaction D. interference

58. Words at the ____ of a list in a free-recall task are most subject to proactive interference.

A. beginning B. middle C. end D. beginning and end

59. Words at the ____ of a list in a free-recall task are most subject to retroactive interference.

A. beginning B. middle C. end D. beginning and end

60. Words at the ____ of a list in a free-recall task are subject to both proactive and retroactive interference.

A. beginning B. middle C. end D. beginning and end

61. ____ occurs when simply the passage of time causes us to forget.

A. Decay B. Interference C. Reconstructive interference D. Unlearning

62. ____ theory asserts that information is forgotten because of the gradual disappearance of the memory trace.

A. Availability B. Accessibility C. Interference D. Decay

63. Marianne took a chemistry course three years ago in high school and has not studied any chemistry since.

She believes that the reason why she barely remembers any chemistry is because she has not used it. This explanation illustrates the ____ theory of forgetting.

A. interference B. availability C. interactive D. decay

64. Linton's self study of autobiographical memory found that her rate of forgetting events was A. circular.

B. linear.

C. curvilinear.

D. constant.

65. An example of this specific "sin" from Schacter's "seven memory sins" would be someone having information "on the tip of their tongue," but being unable to retrieve it: A. transience.

B. bias.

C. persistence.

D. blocking.

66. Jennifer cannot remember where she heard that pigs were very intelligent animals. Roger thinks he read in The Sunday Herald that Death Valley is the warmest spot in the United States; however, he really read about Death Valley in Outside Magazine. These memory lapses are examples of A. suggestibility.

B. misattribution.

C. absent-mindedness.

D. persistence.

67. Studies show that memory is not just ____, such that we use only what we have encountered to help us rebuild original remembered experience; it is also ____, in that our schemas for prior experience affect how we recall things.

A. retroactive; proactive B. proactive; retroactive C. constructive; reconstructive D. reconstructive; constructive

68. Tony keeps mentally reliving the time that he was hit in the head with a Frisbee. This reoccurrence of this memory is an example of A. transience B. misattribution C. persistence D. bias

69. The difficulty in recalling information that one knows they should know. This is called A. transience B. misattribution C. persistence D. blocking

70. One of the sins of memory in which false information is thought to have occurred (e.g., seeing something that did not occur).

A. suggestibility B. bias C. blocking D. transience

71. This is the notion that some types of memories (e.g., due to trauma) have been "pushed deep into the unconscious" and therefore may be difficult to retrieve.

A. persistence B. suggestibility C. repressed memories D. transience

72. From which of the following groups is the validity of eyewitness testimony particularly suspect?

A. children B. people with dyslexia C. people with quadriplegia D. adolescent males

73. Roediger and McDermott have shown that A. it is impossible to create false memories.

B. it is easy to create false memories.

C. it is difficult to create false memories.

D. false memories are more common than true ones.

74. This occurs when a person has a difficult time in remembering the context in which they heard the information and erroneously attribute it to a different context.

A. source-monitoring error B. accessibility C. encoding specificity D. context dependent memory

75. Enhanced vividness and perceptual detail of our recollections has been associated with A. the person's metacognitive skills.

B. a memory's emotional intensity.

C. cognitive maturity.

D. activation of information in working memory.

76. ____ memory refers to a memory of an event that is so emotionally powerful that the person remembers the event as vividly as if it were indelibly preserved on film.

A. Traumatic B. Photographic C. Flashbulb D. Iconic

77. Reyna won an Olympic gold medal many years ago. Yet, she can still recall with great detail and vividness standing on the podium, medal in hand. This is an example of a(n) ____ memory.

A. constructive B. photographic C. flashbulb D. iconic

78. Many people believe that they remember with great detail and vividness the context in which they heard the news that the Challenger space shuttle had exploded. This is an example of a(n) ____ memory.

A. constructive B. photographic C. flashbulb D. iconic

79. Under laboratory conditions, participants seem ____ to recall items that have pleasant associations items ____ that have unpleasant associations.

A. more accurately; than B. less accurately; than C. equally accurately; as D. Evidence is inconclusive.

80. According to the construct of ____, the specific way of representing information as it is placed into memory affects the specific way in which the information may be recalled later.

A. distributed learning B. encoding specificity C. metacognitive strategy D. reconstructive memory

81. The following statements accurately describe what younger children lack when compared to older children, except one statement, which is false. Find the false statement.

A. Younger children lack knowledge of memory-enhancing strategies.

B. Younger children lack the inclination to use memory-enhancing strategies when they do know about them.

C. Younger children lack metamemory skills.

D. Younger children lack basic mechanisms.

82. Peter has a mentally retarded son, Sebastian. Peter has shown Sebastian how to rehearse names so that Sebastian can remember them better. Next time that Sebastian needs to remember a list of items, it is most likely that he will A. spontaneously transfer the strategy to the new task.

B. not spontaneously transfer the strategy to the new task.

C. rehearse the wrong things.

D. make few or no mistakes.

83. What is distributed practice?

84. What is the recency effect?

85. What is the nature of encoding specificity?

86. What is autobiographical memory?

87. Explain the seven sins of memory.

88. Compare the two main theories of forgetting--decay theory and interference theory--and identify their strengths and weaknesses.

89. What are the advantages of distributed practice over massed learning? What are the disadvantages?

Explain.

90. Explain the differences between repressed memories and false memories. What do the experimental results suggest?

91. Explain the role of REM sleep in memory consolidation. Use experimental results to support your position.

92. Compare and contrast the two concepts - flashbulb memories and encoding specificity.

93. Imagine a world in which people best remembered items in the middle of a list, rather than those at the beginning or end. Could proactive and/or retroactive interference explain such a pattern of forgetting? Why or why not?

94. Imagine a world in which encoding in long-term memory was not primarily semantic, but rather was visual or tactile. What might subjective organization in free recall be like in such cases?

95. Develop some mnemonics for the material for this section of the course (e.g., a mnemonic to remember the seven sins of memory).

96. If you were in charge of a program to help senior citizens with their memory, what advice could you provided in particular with retrospective & prospective memory?

97. What if people never made source monitoring errors. What implications would this have for how memory works?

98. Based on what you know about distributed learning and encoding specificity, how could students manage their study time so that they could maximally recall the material studied?

99. Draw from your knowledge of proactive and retroactive interference as well as of encoding specificity to generate a strategy that can help you remember several people's names at a party.

100. What advice would you give a judge to persuade her or him of the potential danger of wrongful conviction based on eyewitness testimony as the sole or primary kind of evidence?

101. Explain the circumstances under which encoding specificity can be helpful and when it is not. For those situations in which it is not helpful, provide some suggestions in terms of what can be done to minimize the effects.

102. If you were an expert memory consultant for a jury trial, what information would you share with the jury about memory? What factors might influence what you tell the jury?

Chapter 6--Memory Processes Key

1. A 2. B 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. A 10. C 11. C 12. B 13. B 14. D 15. C 16. A 17. B 18. D 19. D 20. C 21. B 22. D 23. C 24. D 25. D 26. A 27. D 28. D 29. C

30. A 31. A 32. B 33. B 34. C 35. B 36. D 37. C 38. C 39. D 40. B 41. A 42. A 43. C 44. C 45. B 46. A 47. D 48. B 49. D 50. A 51. C 52. A 53. A 54. A 55. B 56. B 57. D 58. C 59. A 60. B 61. A 62. D 63. D

64. B 65. D 66. B 67. D 68. C 69. D 70. A 71. C 72. A 73. B 74. A 75. B 76. C 77. C 78. C 79. A 80. B 81. D 82. B 83. Answer not provided.

84. Answer not provided.

85. Answer not provided.

86. Answer not provided.

87. Answer not provided.

88. Answer not provided.

89. Answer not provided.

90. Answer not provided.

91. Answer not provided.

92. Answer not provided.

93. Answer not provided.

94. Answer not provided.

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102. Answer not provided.

Chapter 7--Representation and Manipulation of Knowledge In Memory: Images and Propositions Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. A scientist who studies classic epistemology would be studying the A. nature, origin, and limits of mental representation.

B. limits of visual imagery.

C. nature, origin, and limits of human knowledge.

D. nature and origin of semantic knowledge.

2. Declarative knowledge is one of the two kinds of knowledge structures, which include A. facts that can be stated.

B. procedures that can be implemented.

C. only knowledge that can be visually represented.

D. only knowledge that cannot be mentally represented.

3. "The U.S. Constitution was ratified in 1789" is an example of ____ knowledge.

A. analogical B. declarative C. nondeclarative D. procedural

4. This type of knowledge is "knowing how" to do something (e.g., steps involved in riding a bicycle).

A. declarative knowledge B. procedural knowledge C. productive thinking D. preoperational knowledge

5. This concept states that the relationship between a word and what it represents is arbitrary (e.g., there is nothing special about the word "dog" that represents particular aspects of a dog).

A. analogue representation B. semantic representation C. deductive code D. symbolic representation

6. Imagery includes A. only visual representations.

B. representations perceived through all the senses.

C. only visual, auditory, and taste representations.

D. only visual and auditory representations.

7. According to some researchers, which of the following forms of imagery do we seem to use most often?

A. tactile (touch) B. auditory C. visual D. olfactory (smell)

8. According to Allan Paivio, mental representations for words are represented in a(n) ____ code, whereas visual images are represented in a(n) ____ code.

A. symbolic; analogue B. analogue; symbolic C. verbal; propositional D. propositional; verbal

9. This type of code for representing information preserves some feature of what is being represented (e.g., a model showing the paths & distances from the sun of the various planets).

A. analogue code B. hierarchical code C. deductive code D. symbolic code

10. This type of code for representing information arbitrarily stands for what it represents and does not preserve some of the original features.

A. analogue code B. hierarchical code C. deductive code D. symbolic code

11. The dual-code theory was first proposed by A. Stephen Kosslyn.

B. Allan Paivio.

C. Lee Brooks.

D. John Anderson.

12. The dual-code theory states that A. all information is encoded in the same form and can be called up as either a visual or verbal representation.

B. information is represented in the form of a proposition with two separate ways of encoding information, verbally and nonverbally.

C. some information is represented in a verbal form, some in a nonverbal form, and some is encoded and stored in both forms.

D. all information is either represented in a verbal or in a nonverbal form, but not both.

13. Debbie is trying to recall the words to the French national anthem. Jim is trying to recall the exact appearance of the Statue of Liberty. If asked, Paivio would probably say that Debbie is retrieving information stored in a(n) ____ code, whereas Jim is retrieving information stored in a(n) ____ code.

A. analogue; symbolic B. symbolic; analogue C. visual; verbal D. symbolic; verbal

14. This theory of knowledge representation suggests that our mental representations can take one of two forms - something similar to either imagined or verbal.

A. epiphenomena B. survey C. dual-code theory D. propositional

15. This theory of knowledge representation suggests that our mental representations are in an abstract form and not stored in the form of an image.

A. epiphenomena B. holographic representations C. dual-code D. propositional

16. Lee Brooks tested the notion that A. visual perception could interfere with verbal perception.

B. producing a verbal response could interfere with visual imagery, and visual perception could interfere with mental manipulation of words.

C. producing a verbal response could interfere with mental manipulation of words, and visual perception could interfere with visual imagery.

D. verbal imagery seems to be processed differently than visual imagery.

17. The propositional theory was once championed by ____ and ____.

A. Herbert Clark; Stephen Kosslyn B. Zenon Pylyshyn; Stephen Reed C. Deborah Chambers; Daniel Reisberg D. John Anderson; Gordon Bower

18. ____ proposed the idea that mental images are epiphenomena and that we manipulate images using a propositional code, not an analogous one.

A. Stephen Reed B. Zenon Pylyshyn C. Mary Peterson D. Daniel Reisberg

19. According to the propositional theory, A. imaginal information and verbal information are stored in two separate sets of encoded propositions, each ready to be called up and represented as either verbal or imaginal.

B. only imaginal information is stored in the form of a proposition, whereas verbal information is stored as encoded symbols.

C. both imaginal information and verbal information are stored as encoded propositions, ready to be called up and decoded as either verbal or visual.

D. only verbal information is stored in the form of a proposition, whereas imaginal information is stored in the form of raw images.

20. This concept suggests that images are simply a result (a byproduct) or other cognitive processes.

A. epiphenomena B. percept C. construals D. deductive code

21. John mentally represents a boat sailing under a bridge. He then represents what he has heard a person shouting from a car downtown. According to the Anderson and Bower's hypothesis, ____ is/are encoded as (a) proposition(s).

A. the first representation only B. the second representation only C. neither representation D. both of the representations

22. In experiments on ambiguous figures, Chambers and Reisberg concluded that because most subjects could A. not visualize alternate interpretations of an ambiguous figure, there is no discrete imaginal code.

B. easily visualize alternate interpretations of an ambiguous figure, there is a discrete imaginal code.

C. visualize alternate interpretations of an ambiguous figure, the imaginal code may, in some cases, override a propositional code.

D. not visualize alternate interpretations of an ambiguous figure, a propositional code may be overridden by an imaginal code in some cases.

23. This type of stimuli, ____, is often used in the area of perception and has at least two different interpretations.

A. percept B. dichotic stimuli C. multidimensional stimuli D. ambiguous figure

24. This manipulation of ambiguous figures involves a shift in the figure in regards to its "positional orientations of the figures on the mental page or screen".

A. mental repositioning B. mental reassessment C. mental realignment D. mental reconstrual

25. This manipulation of ambiguous figures involves a reinterpretation of parts of the figure. This is important in terms of seeing the "other" interpretation of the stimulus.

A. mental repositioning B. mental reassessment C. mental realignment D. mental reconstrual

26. This type of hint in experiments involving the reinterpretation of ambiguous figures involves showing participants a different ambiguous figure in which one had to realign the frame of reference.

A. implicit reference-frame hint B. attentional hint C. construals from "good" parts D. explicit reference-frame hint

27. One view of ambiguous figures suggests that there are two types of manipulations. These are A. mental reconstrual and mental realignment.

B. mental reassessment and mental realignment.

C. mental reconstrual and mental repositioning.

D. mental reassessment and mental repositioning.

28. Which of the following is not a hint used by Mary Peterson in her experiments?

A. implicit reference-frame hint B. explicit reference-frame hint C. attentional hint D. rotated-alignment hint

29. This type of hint in experiments involving the reinterpretation of ambiguous figures involves directing participants to realign their frame of reference.

A. implicit reference-frame hint B. attentional hint C. construals from "good" parts D. explicit reference-frame hint

30. This type of hint in experiments involving the reinterpretation of ambiguous figures involves directing participants to the region of the ambiguous figure when either the realignment or reconstruals are to occur.

A. implicit reference-frame hint B. attentional hint C. construals from "good" parts D. explicit reference-frame hint

31. This type of hint in experiments involving the reinterpretation of ambiguous figures involves identifying sections of the figure for analyses.

A. implicit reference-frame hint B. attentional hint C. construals from "good" parts D. explicit reference-frame hint

32. The classic experiment on mental rotations was performed by A. Roger Shepard and Jacqueline Metzler.

B. Apostolos Georgopoulos and Roger Shepard.

C. Jacqueline Metzler and Apostolos Georgopoulos.

D. Steven Pinker and Larry Squire.

33. Abhilasha, an architect, often sees the town hall downtown. At her office, her employer shows her some blueprints for the building. First she examines a blueprint of the facade of the town hall. As she sees each successive blueprint showing the building from progressively different angles, she starts to have difficulty recognizing the building as the town hall. Abhilasha's difficulty is due to the fact that A. as objects are rotated, it becomes increasingly difficult to identify the objects.

B. for every decrease in the degree of rotation of an object, there is a corresponding increase in response time.

C. for every increase in the degree of rotation of an object, there is a corresponding decrease in response time.

D. large objects seen from different angles are harder to recognize.

34. Which of the following is an accurate description of results obtained in a major study concerning mental rotations?

A. The degree of rotation of the figures had no bearing on response time.

B. For every increase in the degree of rotation of the figures, there was a corresponding decrease in response time.

C. For every decrease in the degree of rotation of the figures, there was a corresponding increase in response time.

D. For every increase in the degree of rotation of the figures, there was a corresponding increase in response time.

35. In a study on image scanning, Kosslyn found that it takes longer mentally to scan across A. smaller objects than larger objects.

B. familiar locations than unfamiliar locations.

C. longer distances than shorter distances.

D. distances when an incentive is not offered than distances when an incentive is offered.

36. Recent fMRI work suggests that brain areas used in A. verbal comprehension are the same as those used in perception.

B. verbal comprehension are the same as those used in mental rotation.

C. perception are not the same as those used in mental rotation.

D. perception are the same as those used in mental rotation.

37. For which of the following would it be easiest to visualize small, detailed features?

A. a molecule B. a caterpillar C. a turtle D. a honeybee

38. Which of the following is a conclusion drawn by Stephen Kosslyn in a study dealing with image size?

A. The resolution for objects that take up a small area of the mental screen is more detailed than it is for larger objects.

B. The resolution for objects that take up a large area of the mental screen is more detailed than it is for objects that are smaller.

C. The resolution for both large and small objects is equally highly detailed.

D. Resolution varies randomly with sizes of objects.

39. Which of the following was not one of the observations made in an image size study involving both children and adults?

A. In general, children responded more quickly than adults.

B. First-graders responded more quickly regarding larger attributes of objects.

C. Many of the younger children indicated that they had used imagery even when instructed not to do so.

D. There was not as large a difference in response times between adults and children in the imagery condition as in the nonimagery condition.

40. Steven Pinker's participants first observed and then mentally represented a three dimensional array of objects, and finally mentally scanned from one object to another. The results for three-dimensional scanning ____ two-dimensional scanning.

A. differ from those for B. are the same as those for C. are similar only for large-figure D. are similar only for close-distance

41. After Margaret Intons-Peterson found that experimenter expectations affected the results of a study, ____ and ____ demonstrated that experimenter effects did not adequately explain their findings.

A. Kosslyn; Luria B. Gazzaniga; Sperry C. Kosslyn; Jolicoeur D. Jolicoeur; Corballis

42. In an experiment testing the influence of demand characteristics, experimenters were led to believe that the results would form a U-shaped curve, when in reality the results A. formed a traditional V-shaped graph.

B. formed a traditional linear relation.

C. actually did form a U-shaped curve.

D. were in complete agreement with Intons-Peterson's findings.

43. Johnson-Laird suggests that mental representations may take one of three forms. This particular form of representation consists of knowledge structures based on prior experience that help one to understand his/her experiences.

A. image B. explicit reference-frame C. mental model D. proposition

44. Johnson-Laird suggests that mental representations may take one of three forms. This particular form of representation is distinguished from the rest in that one can verbally express the meaning of this abstract representation.

A. image B. explicit reference-frame C. mental model D. proposition

45. Johnson-Laird suggests that mental representations may take one of three forms. This particular form of representation is a very specific view of a particular object/environment such that many of the perceptual features are retained.

A. image B. explicit reference-frame C. mental model D. proposition

46. Nancy Kerr's study on the imaginal capacity of blind people as compared with that of sighted people showed that A. blind people not only responded more slowly, but also did not appear to have the imaginal capacity of the sighted people.

B. although blind people responded more quickly, their responses demonstrated a lack of imaginal capacity.

C. although blind people responded more slowly, they showed similar response patterns to those of sighted people.

D. blind people not only responded more quickly, but also showed similar response patterns to those of sighted people.

47. Initial neuropsychological research on mental imagery came from studies of patients with identified ____ and from ____.

A. lesions; split-brain patients B. neurological diseases; split-brain patients C. lesions; blind patients D. neurological diseases; blind patients

48. ____ found that participants seem to have auditory as well as visual mental images, and that some of the same findings from visual image-scanning studies apply in auditory scanning.

A. Karl van Frisch B. Stephen Kosslyn C. Edward Tolman D. Margaret Intons-Peterson

49. Alexander Luria and Brenda Milner have noted that lesions in particular areas of the left side of the brain seem to affect ____ functions, whereas lesions in certain areas of the right side of the brain seem to affect ____ functions.

A. symbol-manipulation; imagery-manipulation B. visual-perception; symbol-manipulation C. imagery-manipulation; symbol-manipulation D. heuristic; occipital

50. According to Luria and Milner, lesions in the right hemisphere are associated with impaired A. visual perception only.

B. visual memory only.

C. visual perception and visual memory.

D. verbal memory, not visual memory.

51. Research that studies brain lesions suggests a lateralization of function. Impairment to verbal memory and verbal comprehension suggests lesions in (the) A. left hemisphere.

B. right hemisphere.

C. both hemispheres.

D. neither hemisphere.

52. Research that studies brain lesions suggests a lateralization of function. Impairment to visual memory and visual perception suggest lesions in (the) A. left hemisphere.

B. right hemisphere.

C. both hemispheres.

D. neither hemisphere.

53. Michael Corballis suggested that "humans alone can conceive what they have never perceived" because A. like other animals, our right hemisphere perceives our physical environment, and our left hemisphere manipulates imaginal components and symbols.

B. like other animals, our right hemisphere perceives our physical environment in an analogue manner; our left hemisphere, however, unlike that of animals, manipulates imaginal components and symbols.

C. only humans possess a mind that can represent objects and locations imaginally.

D. unlike other animals, humans mentally visualize images using the right hemisphere only, whereas animals use only their left hemisphere.

54. Martha Farah found that visual imagery and spatial imagery appear to be A. merely parts of a dual-natured phenomenon.

B. one and the same, and in effect, inseparable.

C. separate subsystems of imagery representation.

D. alike in their types of processing, but different in their forms of representation.

55. In one of Farah's studies, L. H. had lesions in the temporo-occipital regions, the right temporal lobe, and the right inferior frontal lobe of the brain, causing his visual imagery ability to be A. nonexistent and his spatial skills to be weak.

B. highly developed, but his spatial skills to be nonexistent.

C. normal, as was his spatial ability.

D. very weak, but his spatial ability to be relatively normal.

56. In considering Farah's studies of L. H., it might be said that our knowledge of object labels and attributes taps ____ knowledge about the objects, whereas our ability to manipulate the orientation or the size of images taps ____ knowledge of the objects.

A. imaginal; propositional B. propositional; analogue C. perceptual; analogue D. analogue; perceptual

57. Farah and her colleagues found activation of the occipital region of the brain for A. both visual perception and visual imagery.

B. visual perception only.

C. visual imagery only.

D. neither visual perception nor visual memory.

58. Edward Tolman argued that rats running a maze learn a ____, an internal representation of the maze.

A. cognitive map B. route-road map C. survey map D. perceptual map

59. Nobel Prize-winning scientist Karl van Frisch studied the behavior of ____ and their methods of communicating information, which appear to be based on some type of imaginal maps.

A. students B. bees C. rats D. psychologists

60. In a study in which participants were asked to estimate distances between buildings on a map they had seen, the participants guessed ____ distances for more similar landmarks than for less similar landmarks.

A. longer B. shorter C. the same D. randomly varying

61. In reference to landmark knowledge, people tend to distort their mental images so that their mental estimates of distances A. increase in relation to the number of intervening landmarks.

B. decrease in relation to the number of intervening landmarks.

C. between landmarks stay the same no matter how many intervening landmarks are present.

D. increase as route-road perception overcomes landmark perception.

62. Which of the following is not one of the three types of knowledge used when forming and utilizing cognitive maps?

A. route-road B. relative-position C. landmark D. survey

63. This type of spatial knowledge provides an overview of a space and contains information that would allow for estimating the distances between various landmarks.

A. route-road knowledge B. relative-position C. survey D. procedural map

64. When looking at the map that Quinlan drew of his hometown, one notices that streets with "odd" intersections appear to be more perpendicular than what they really are. This would be an example of A. route-road knowledge B. relative-position heuristic C. survey D. right-angle bias

65. The map that Quinlan draws of the city that he lives in appears to be more "even" than what it really is.

Streets that are not of the same length are in his drawing. The distribution of the city appears to be more even that what it really is. This would be an example of the A. route-road knowledge B. relative-position heuristic C. symmetry heuristic D. survey

66. The ____ heuristic seems equally strong in memory and perception, whereas the ____ heuristic appears to influence mental representation more than it does perception.

A. relative-position; symmetry B. rotation; relative-position C. symmetry; relative-position D. rotation; symmetry

67. Alice consistently judges two cities that are on the same highway as being closer to each other compared to two cities that are actually physically closer but after "further" away due to the highways connecting them. This discrepancy in apparent distance is an example of A. route-road knowledge B. relative-position C. survey D. procedural map

68. Which of the following is not one of Barbara Tversky's propositional heuristics?

A. Landmark heuristic B. Symmetry heuristic C. Relative-position heuristic D. Right-angle bias

69. According to Barbara Tversky's alignment heuristic, people tend to A. resolve distortions in reality, representing landmarks as more unaligned than they appear in reality.

B. distort their mental images to represent landmarks as better aligned than they are in reality.

C. distort their mental images of the relative positions of landmarks to reflect their conceptual knowledge rather than the actual spatial configurations.

D. represent shapes as being more symmetrical than they really are.

70. Bill has often seen a main city street lined with buildings. He attempts to mentally represent the street, but he distorts it so that the buildings are all the same distance from the street, when in reality they are different distances from the street. Which heuristic has Bill used?

A. the rotation heuristic B. the relative-position heuristic C. the symmetry heuristic D. the alignment heuristic

71. The rotation heuristic states that people tend to represent A. upside-down objects as right-side-up.

B. slightly slanted objects as objects that rotate either horizontally or vertically.

C. rotating objects as being still.

D. slightly slanted objects as being more horizontal or more vertical than they really are.

72. Ragini is mentally representing a map of her town. She represents a number of different landmarks. She will most likely estimate that the distance between two houses that look very similar as ____ the distance between two that look different. (Assume that in reality the distances are equal.)

A. longer than B. shorter than C. the same as D. variably different than

73. This heuristic is influence by ones conceptual knowledge such that one's mental image is distorted and made to conform to one's expectation of the space versus the actual spatial configuration.

A. route-road knowledge B. relative-position heuristic C. symmetry heuristic D. right-angle bias

74. In a study on students' perceptions of world maps, Jukka Saarinen found that, in general, students drew maps reflecting all of the following characteristics except A. a Eurocentric view of the world.

B. a view centering on and highlighting the students' own countries.

C. random distortions of the less well-known countries, but accurate perceptions of the sizes of the more well-known countries.

D. modest distortions that enlarged the well-known countries and diminished the sizes of less well-known countries.

75. Barbara Tversky believes that we may be able to create cognitive maps from ____, and that these cognitive maps may be just as accurate as those created from looking at a graphic map.

A. false descriptions B. holographic representations C. verbal descriptions D. auditory perceptions

76. Cognitive maps can be constructed from a number of different sources of information (e.g., procedural knowledge). This particular type of cognitive map is based on verbal descriptions in which the reader updates his/her map with additional information. This is called a(n) A. propositional map B. procedural map C. percept D. text map

77. Experiments looking at children's spatial abilities often look at their ability to use information to orient themselves and to mentally manipulate images of objects. This ability is called A. an epiphenomena B. holographic representations C. construals D. spatial visualization

78. According to Anderson and Bower, how are images and words stored and recalled? Describe the Anderson and Bower hypothesis. How would Paivio disagree with this hypothesis?

79. How did Chambers and Reisberg find additional limits to analogical representation? Describe the process by which they attempted to determine whether mental images are truly analogous to perceptions of physical objects, using ambiguous figures.

80. What did Margaret Intons-Peterson believe about the validity of some results found in image research?

Why? How was her argument countered by Kosslyn and Jolicoeur?

81. How did Luria and Milner determine that certain areas of the brain control imagery-manipulation functions, whereas other areas control symbol-manipulation functions? What relationship did they find between lesion locations and the specific functions of the areas?

82. Explain how the lateralization of function supports the notion of multiple codes.

83. What is the difference between declarative knowledge and procedural knowledge? Give an example of each to show distinctions.

84. Contrast the hypothesis of Allan Paivio with that of Anderson and Bower. With which points of each (dual-code vs. propositional) do you agree or disagree? Which would you support and why?

85. Using the examples of a representation of a house and a representation of a song you know, contrast the ideas of analogue codes and symbolic codes. According to Paivio, how is each used? Offer examples of each form of information storage.

86. Johnson-Laird proposed three different forms for mental representations - propositional, mental models, and images. Describe each form and then explain how they are different from each other.

87. Explain how studying the spatial abilities of other animals is informative about the spatial skills of humans.

What are the similarities and differences between humans and other animals (bees, rats, pigeons) in terms of spatial abilities?

88. Based on Kosslyn's studies on image size, devise your own study for determining whether small or large objects are more detailed on the mental screen.

89. Attempt to pictorially represent the answer to the following question: What does a shark look like?

Is drawing the answer to the question easier than answering the question in written format? Why?

90. Lets say that you are developing an artificial life form - the Super Advanced Reliable Artificial Helper (S.A.R.A.H.). State which model of representation you would use for S.A.R.A.H. and why. Make sure your response includes practical application of knowledge that would allow your artificial life form to deal with and move through the environment (e.g., going to the grocery story to retrieve all the items on the list).

91. Develop a program that would help children develop their spatial visualization skills. What would be the important components of this program? Explain any differences in the program that would be tailored towards females or males.

92. Imagine a world in which we did not make the mistakes seen when using various heuristics for spatial knowledge. What would this world look like? Expand this idea and address the issue of what this would say about our spatial skills in other areas?

93. You are taking your final exam in cognitive psychology. One question asks about a film you saw in class a week ago and you know that you must recall a particular scene from the film. Is it easier for you, and for people in general, to "see" or to "hear" the scene in your mind? Explain.

94. You are mentally visualizing a map of your town. In visualizing the distance between your home and a nearby landmark, providing that there are numerous landmarks in between, how will you distort the distance?

Why?

95. How would a map maker make use of information about the mental shortcuts people take with spatial information? How would the various heuristics affect giving directions?

96. There are three types of knowledge (landmark, route-road, & survey) that are useful when developing and using one's cognitive map. Explain how one could make use of this information when learning a new city. Are there any individual differences that need to be taken into account?

97. What factors would be helpful in helping children to develop mental models of text information?

Chapter 7--Representation and Manipulation of Knowledge In Memory: Images and Propositions Key

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. B 7. C 8. A 9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C 13. B 14. C 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. C 23. D 24. C 25. D 26. A 27. A 28. D

29. D 30. B 31. C 32. A 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. D 37. C 38. B 39. A 40. B 41. C 42. B 43. C 44. D 45. A 46. C 47. A 48. D 49. A 50. C 51. A 52. B 53. B 54. C 55. D 56. B 57. A 58. A 59. B 60. B 61. A 62. B

63. C 64. D 65. C 66. C 67. A 68. A 69. B 70. D 71. D 72. B 73. B 74. C 75. C 76. D 77. D 78. Answer not provided.

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Chapter 8--Representation and Organization of Knowledge in Memory: Concepts, Categories, Networks, and Schemas Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. ____ knowledge refers to information regarding facts and ideas, which can be stated in terms of propositions (sometimes described as "knowing that").

A. Semantic B. Procedural C. Declarative D. Conceptual

2. Your knowledge about cognitive psychology, about world history, about your own personal history, and about mathematics all rely on your mental representation of what cognitive psychologists call ____ knowledge.

A. procedural B. declarative C. semantic D. conceptual

3. ____ knowledge refers to information regarding how to execute a sequence of operations (sometimes described as "knowing how").

A. How-to B. Executive C. Declarative D. Procedural

4. Your knowledge of how to ride a bicycle, how to write your signature, how to drive a car to a familiar location, and how to catch a ball all depend on your mental representation of what cognitive psychologists call ____ knowledge.

A. how-to B. executive C. declarative D. procedural

5. ____ refers to an approach to understanding cognition that involves an attempt to enable machines such as computers to simulate various cognitive processes that characterize human intelligence.

A. Elementary information process B. The simulated intelligence view C. Schematic simulation D. Artificial intelligence

6. ____ refer(s) to the use of multiple approaches and techniques to come together in addressing a problem or in responding to a question.

A. The multiplicity method B. The multi-techniques approach C. Converging operations D. Diverging operations

7. The fundamental unit of symbolic knowledge is typically viewed as A. a concept.

B. a word.

C. a morpheme.

D. a schema.

8. A ____ refers to an idea or a thought about something.

A. frame B. concept C. morpheme D. schema

9. The fundamental unit of symbolic knowledge is the ____, which may be organized into ____.

A. concept; schemas B. concept; hidden units C. node; schemas D. node; concepts

10. When talking about concepts and categories, items such as turtles, alligators, trees, and grass are examples of ____.

A. artifact categories B. classical concepts C. fuzzy concepts D. natural categories

11. When talking about concepts and categories, items such as airplanes, cars, and boats are examples of ____.

A. artifact categories B. classical concepts C. fuzzy concepts D. natural categories

12. This particular type of category, unlike other types of categories, is flexible and can change over time.

A. ad hoc categories B. artifact categories C. natural categories D. polymorphous categories

13. Which of the following is not a defining feature of bachelor?

A. unmarried B. childless C. male D. adult

14. ____ are a set of components, each of which is an essential element of a given concept, and which together compose the properties that uniquely define the concept.

A. Defining features B. Prototypical features C. Characteristic features D. Deep structures

15. The term wife is comprised of a number of components, namely adult, female, and married. These are called ____ according to the componential theory of meaning.

A. defining features B. prototypical features C. characteristic features D. deep structures

16. Whereas a ____ feature is possessed by every instance of a concept, a ____ feature need not be.

A. prototypical; defining B. defining; prototypical C. characteristic; defining D. defining; characteristic

17. ____ are words such as bachelor that can be readily defined through defining features.

A. Fuzzy concepts B. Reference concepts C. Classical concepts D. Prototypes

18. With prototype theory, ____ are features that are typically present and are consistent with one's exemplars for that particular concept.

A. prototype B. characteristic features C. exemplars D. defining features

19. ____ are thoughts or ideas (or words) that can be described more aptly by using characteristic features than by using defining features.

A. Fuzzy concepts B. Reference concepts C. Classical concepts D. Exemplars

20. ____ are thoughts or ideas (or words) that can be described more aptly by using defining features than by using characteristics features.

A. Fuzzy concepts B. Reference concepts C. Classical concepts D. Exemplars

21. Classical concepts are to ____ as Fuzzy concepts are to ____.

A. defining features; prototypes B. prototypes; defining features C. exemplars; inheritance D. inheritance; exemplars

22. ____ refer to several alternative typical representatives of a semantic category.

A. Fuzzy concepts B. Classical concepts C. Prototypes D. Exemplars

23. This view for categorizing concepts is that we have several typical examples of the category that can be used for comparison purposes when trying to categorize a new item.

A. prototype B. characteristic features C. exemplars D. defining features

24. This notion for categorization is that the ____ contain(s) those defining features that must be present in order to be considered part of that category.

A. exemplars B. theory-based view C. inheritance D. core

25. Categorizing concepts, according to this view, is based on one's own ideas or implicit theories regarding that particular concept. In other words, your own experiences are helpful in constructing an explanation for that concept and deciding between which features are essential and which are incidental.

A. exemplars B. theory-based view C. inheritance D. core

26. A ____ refers to a web of labeled relations among interconnected elements.

A. frame B. script C. semantic network D. node

27. An "is a" category membership relation, which connects "pig" to "mammal," establishes meaningful connections between A. nodes.

B. schemas.

C. frames.

D. scripts.

28. The labeled relationship of attributes, which connects "furry" to "mammal," establishes meaningful connections between A. nodes.

B. schema C. frames.

D. scripts.

29. A ____ refers to an element representing a concept within a semantic network.

A. frame B. script C. node D. schema

30. According to a semantic-network model, when we think about cats, the ____ for cats becomes ____.

A. network; activated B. frame; inhibited C. node; inhibited D. node; activated

31. The connections between nodes are ____ relationships, which might involve category membership, attributes, or some other semantic relation.

A. labeled B. scripted C. framed D. causative

32. Information can economically be represented in a hierarchical model when items lower in the hierarchy are assumed to have the properties of items higher in the hierarchy. This concept is called A. subsumption.

B. inheritance.

C. class-inclusion statements.

D. superordinate feature acquisition.

33. When shown a red, edible, roundish object, you would most probably call it an apple, rather than a delicious apple or a red delicious apple. This fact suggests that "apple" is ____ of the concept.

A. the basic level of specificity B. a defining feature C. a characteristic feature D. a deep characteristic

34. A concept's basic level of specificity is the one that has the ____ number of distinctive properties.

A. smallest B. prototypical C. standard D. largest

35. A ____ refers to a mental framework for meaningfully organizing various interrelated concepts.

A. convergent operation B. production system C. schema D. domain-general process

36. This mental framework provides a meaningful structure for concepts that are related, and provides general facts about the concept that allows one to make inferences based on prior experiences.

A. compound cue B. schemas C. script D. spreading activation theories

37. According to Schank and Abelson (1977), a ____ is "a structure that describes appropriate sequences of events in a particular context [and] is made up of slots and requirements about what can fill the slots." It does not handle totally novel situations.

A. script B. node C. network D. schema

38. ____ processing refers to the means by which only one elementary information process is executed at any one time, and multiple processes are handled sequentially.

A. Parallel B. Serial C. Distributed D. Monotonic

39. ____ refers to a specialized vocabulary that a particular group uses (e.g., physicians). Individuals not part of the group may find it difficult to understand the information.

A. Jargon B. Word-superiority effect C. Synthesis D. Representational thought

40. A(n) ____ refers to a condition-action ("if-then") sequence, to generation output of a procedure.

A. inferential manifestation B. spreading activation process C. production D. converging operation

41. If your car is veering toward the left side of the road, then you should steer toward the right side of the road.

The if clause includes a set of conditions that must be met in order to implement the then clause. This is an example of ____, which are used in some computer simulations.

A. semantic simulations B. action rules C. declarative procedures D. production rules

42. A(n) ____ refers to an ordered set of productions in which execution starts at the top of a list of productions, continues until a condition is satisfied, and then returns to the top of the list to start anew.

A. production system B. procedural loop C. semantic cycle D. action-execution system

43. An example of a simple ____ for a pedestrian to cross the street at an intersection with a traffic light includes the person first having to test whether the light is red or green. If it is red, the person stops and again tests whether the light is still red. If it is green, the person starts moving.

A. production system B. procedural loop C. semantic cycle D. action-execution system

44. According to Anderson, temporal strings contain information about ____ information.

A. spatial B. absolute C. relative time D. olfactory

45. ____ refers to a model of information processing that integrates a network representation for declarative knowledge and a production-system representation for procedural knowledge.

A. The declarative-procedural frame approach B. ACT (Adaptive control of thought) C. Conceptual dependency D. Artificial intelligence

46. Anderson's model of mental representation and information processing incorporates both declarative and procedural knowledge. Declarative is represented in a propositional network while procedural is represented in a production system. The name of this model is A. parallel distributed processing (PDP).

B. hierarchical model.

C. dual-code theory.

D. ACT-R.

47. When thinking about an issue, such that various associations seem to come to mind regarding that issue, we are experiencing ____ along the nodes that represent our knowledge of various aspects of the problem, and possibly, its solution.

A. conceptual dependency B. spread of activation C. a priming effect D. serial processing

48. According to ____, the amount of activation between a prime and a given target node is a function of the number of links connecting the prime and the target and the relative strength of each connection.

A. the links model B. the compound-node model C. the nodal-strength view D. spreading activation theories

49. The ____ process refers to a process by which stimuli activate nodes within a network and activation causes connections between nodes to become active.

A. connected excitation B. connected activation C. spreading excitation D. spreading activation

50. According to Anderson (1980), knowledge representation of procedural skills occurs in three of the following four stages. Identify the exception.

A. cognitive B. associative C. autonomous D. affective

51. According to Anderson (1980), while we are in the ____ stage for learning how to drive a standard-shift car, we must explicitly think about each rule for stepping on the clutch, gas, or brake pedal, while also trying to shift gears.

A. cognitive B. associative C. autonomous D. affective

52. According to Anderson (1980), while we are in the ____ stage for learning how to drive a standard-shift car, we must carefully practice following each rule for stepping on the clutch, gas, or brake pedal, while also trying to shift gears.

A. cognitive B. associative C. autonomous D. affective

53. According to Anderson (1980), while we are in the ____ stage for learning how to drive a standard-shift car, we have integrated all of the various rules (for stepping on the clutch, gas, or brake pedal, while also trying to shift gears) into a single, coordinated series of actions.

A. cognitive B. associative C. autonomous D. affective

54. ____ refers to the overall process by which we transform slow, explicit information about procedures ("knowing that") into speedy, implicit implementations of procedures ("knowing how").

A. Activation B. Implicitization C. Machination D. Proceduralization

55. When learning to drive a standard-shift car and progressing from having to think about stepping on the clutch pedal and so on, to no longer needing to think about what steps to take to shift gears, we are experiencing the process sometimes called A. activation.

B. implicitization.

C. machination.

D. proceduralization.

56. Which of the following is not a type of nondeclarative knowledge in Larry Squire's theory?

A. episodic knowledge B. procedural knowledge C. classical and operant conditioning D. priming

57. Sarah has come to associate the smell of freshly baked apple pie with her grandmother, such that the mere smell of pie reminds her of her grandmother instantaneously. This type of knowledge is referred to as ____ knowledge.

A. declarative B. simple associative C. simple nonassociative D. priming

58. Timmy, a 4 year old, has learned that to stay warm in the winter cold, one must wear lots of clothes. He learned this after several trials of going outside under clothed and coming into the house uncomfortably cold.

This type of knowledge is referred to as ____ knowledge.

A. connectionist B. simple nonassociative C. simple associative D. priming

59. Most nondeclarative knowledge can be retrieved for use ____ declarative knowledge can be retrieved.

A. less quickly than B. more quickly than C. just as quickly as D. Not clear based on current research.

60. Right outside of Mr. Jones's second-grade classroom there is a construction crew. When the construction began, Mr. Jones found that the children were easily distracted by the noise. Now that the construction has been going on for months, the children pay no attention to the noises. This type of knowledge, associated with no longer paying attention to outside noises, is referred to as A. declarative.

B. simple associative.

C. simple nonassociative (i.e., habituation).

D. priming.

61. ____ refers to the facilitation of information retrieval, as a result of prior stimulation or activation of related information (or even of the same information).

A. Production B. Spreading activation C. Priming D. Conceptual dependency

62. If someone asks you to spell the word sight, you will probably spell it differently, depending on whether you have been talking about vision ("s-i-g-h-t") or about locations for an archaeological dig ("s-i-t-e"). This bias reflects the ____ effect.

A. production B. spreading activation C. priming D. conceptual dependency

63. According to Michael Posner, ____ priming refers to priming in which we are primed by a meaningful context or meaningful information.

A. contextual B. semantic C. meaning-related D. repetition

64. According to Michael Posner, ____ priming refers to priming in which a prior exposure to a word or other stimulus primes a subsequent retrieval of that information.

A. contextual B. semantic C. repetition D. exposure

65. Neurological findings and other cognitive research seem to indicate that human cognition primarily involves ____, in which multiple information processes are executed simultaneously.

A. parallel processing B. serial processing C. schematic production D. multi-nodal activation

66. ____ refers to a model of knowledge representation and information processing, which proposes that knowledge is represented within a network in which information is stored in the form of various patterns of connection strengths distributed across the brain.

A. The connection strength model B. Parallel distributed processing C. The knowledge patterns approach D. Serial distributed processing

67. In the parallel distributed processing model proposed by McClelland and Rumelhart, the network comprises A. concepts.

B. nodes.

C. propositions.

D. neuron-like units.

68. In the parallel distributed processing model proposed by McClelland and Rumelhart, connections between units can possess varying degrees of ____ potential, even when the connections are currently inactive.

A. excitation but not inhibition B. inhibition but not excitation C. excitation or inhibition D. rest

69. In the parallel distributed processing model proposed by McClelland and Rumelhart, knowledge is represented by A. the specific neuron-like units connected.

B. the pattern of interconnections.

C. the location of the neuronal network.

D. the location of the nodal network.

70. In the brain, at any one given time, a given neuron may assume each of the following activities, except one.

Identify the exception.

A. Inactive B. Excitatory C. Inhibitory D. Dormant

71. In the parallel distributed processing model proposed by McClelland and Rumelhart, the more often a particular connection is activated, the A. weaker the strength of the connection.

B. greater the strength of the connection.

C. fewer the number of neuron-like units necessary to activate.

D. greater the number of neuron-like units involved in the activation.

72. According to the parallel distributed processing model proposed by McClelland and Rumelhart, whenever we use knowledge, we A. change our representation of it.

B. always arrive at a more efficient way of storing the knowledge.

C. leave our representation of it unchanged.

D. risk forgetting it.

73. A "connectionist" model is another way to refer to a(n) A. elementary information process model.

B. test-operate-test-exit model.

C. production system.

D. parallel distributed processing model.

74. In early artificial intelligence research, investigators believed that the ideal was to write programs that were A. as domain-general as possible.

B. domain-specific.

C. in keeping with the latest brain research.

D. in keeping with the brain injury research.

75. The term modularity refers to the A. particular mode of thought in which the brain functions.

B. degree to which information is able to be classified into modules for processing throughout large areas of the limbic system.

C. processing of information in the brain via separate and specialized "units."

D. specific regions of the brain that alter their modes of activity in order to process complicated pieces of information.

76. One of the most influential books in the field of cognitive science during the 1980s was ____'s The Modularity of Mind, which presented the argument for extreme domain-specificity.

A. James McClelland B. David Rumelhart C. Jerry Fodor D. Herbert Simon

77. What are the main features of connectionist models?

78. What are scripts?

79. Describe the various components of a production system and how it works (an example other than the one in the book would be helpful).

80. Explain classical and fuzzy concepts.

81. Explain ACT-R and how it represents declarative and nondeclarative knowledge.

82. How do models inspired by information processing in the human brain differ from models based on information processing in computers?

83. Compare Newell and Simon's (1972) production system and production rules with schema theory. Specify some differences as well as similarities.

84. Explain the various components of Anderson's ACT-R model. How does his model differ from other models?

85. List and then define the various types of categories. Explain the similarities and differences between them.

86. Define prototype theory, characteristics features, and exemplars. Explain how each concept is similar to and different from the others.

87. Imagine a planet in which the inhabitants process both procedural and declarative information serially.

Explain what these two types of knowledge are. Then describe what the inhabitants' thought processes might be like (a) for crossing the street and (b) for determining whether an animal in the distance is a cat.

88. Describe briefly what procedural and declarative knowledge are. Then, come up with a new metaphor (besides the computer and the brain) of how knowledge is organized in our minds.

89. Provide an example of a schema and explain the various components.

90. Instead of natural and artifact categories, explain the consequence if all categories were ad hoc categories.

What would be the social, economic, and political consequences?

91. Come up with some examples in which the core and defining features are different for a particular concept.

92. Imagine that as part of your college courses, you have been assigned to write a computer program in a way that simulates human information processing of procedural knowledge. Explain what procedural knowledge is.

Then outline the information processing involved in any one task involving procedural knowledge.

93. Describe what semantic and repetition priming mean. Then, based on the priming research, state at least two ways by which you can increase your recall of information when studying for an exam. Be specific and be sure to state the relationship between the research and your proposed study strategies.

94. Explain how one could develop a new skill and take advantage of the three stages for the representation of procedural skills. Explain if there are any positives or negatives for thinking of skill development using these stages.

95. The connectionist model is "loosely" based on the functioning of the human brain. First explain the similarities between the connectionist model and the brain. Second, expand on the connectionist model and explain what other features could reasonably be added to this model to make it function more like the human brain.

96. If one were thinking about a model based on spreading activation what would be some of the things that one would have to do/know in order to implement such a model?

Chapter 8--Representation and Organization of Knowledge in Memory: Concepts, Categories, Networks, and Schemas Key

1. C 2. B 3. D 4. D 5. D 6. C 7. A 8. B 9. A 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. B 14. A 15. A 16. D 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. C 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. D 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. A

29. C 30. D 31. A 32. B 33. A 34. D 35. C 36. B 37. A 38. B 39. A 40. C 41. D 42. A 43. A 44. C 45. B 46. D 47. B 48. D 49. D 50. D 51. A 52. B 53. C 54. D 55. D 56. A 57. B 58. C 59. B 60. C 61. C 62. C

63. B 64. C 65. A 66. B 67. D 68. C 69. B 70. D 71. B 72. A 73. D 74. A 75. C 76. C 77. Answer not provided.

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Chapter 9--Language: Nature and Acquisition Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Which of the following areas of study have contributed to our understanding of language?

A. Sociolinguistics, anthrolinguistics, and psycholinguistics B. Neurolinguistics, anthrolinguistics, and psycholinguistics C. Neurolinguistics, sociolinguistics, and linguistics D. Linguistics, psycholinguistics, and anthrolinguistics

2. The main properties of language are A. communicative, statically symbolic, and productive.

B. regularly structured, communicative, and statically symbolic.

C. structured at multiple levels, dynamic, and abstractly leveled.

D. regularly structured, productive, and dynamic.

3. This property of language coveys the notion that we are able to exchange thoughts and feelings with others.

A. arbitrarily symbolic B. structured at multiple levels C. generative D. communicative

4. On a planet where cows are called zoht!, the inhabitants use the name "zoht!" any time they refer to cows. A psycholinguist would argue on the basis of this fact that the aliens' language is A. regularly structured.

B. arbitrarily symbolic.

C. dynamic.

D. static.

5. Jimmy is two years old and he calls all cats "foffy," such that if you hear him say "Foffy pretty," you know that he is referring to a cat. Which of the properties of language does this description illustrate?

A. arbitrary symbolic B. productivity C. the dynamic property D. regularity of structure

6. Symbols that resemble their referents in some way and are not arbitrarily symbolic are termed A. words.

B. phonemes.

C. morphemes.

D. icons.

7. This notion suggests that one important principle for word meaning is that the understanding of arbitrary symbols is based on the traditional or customary use of symbols to stand for particular concepts.

A. Principle of Conventionality B. Principle of Contrast C. Principle of Symbolic Arbitrariness D. Principle of Differential Meaning

8. This notion suggests that one important principle for word meaning is that different symbols are important in a system in which different words have different meaning.

A. Principle of Conventionality B. Principle of Contrast C. Principle of Symbolic Arbitrariness D. Principle of Differential Meaning

9. Dolores is learning English. She would like to say that it is almost time to go home. Instead, she says, "Time it is almost go home." The property of language that Dolores has not mastered is the English language's A. arbitrary symbolism.

B. productive quality.

C. regular structure.

D. dynamic property.

10. Timmy said, "My name is Timmy Bogokowsy and I live on the corner of Phillis and Emerson Roads." It is very likely that Timmy is the first human being in history to have uttered this sentence. This description illustrates language's A. regularity of structure.

B. generative property.

C. arbitrary symbolic reference.

D. communicative property.

11. The basic idea in the sentence "The girl walked the dog" is fundamentally the same as that in "The dog was walked by the girl." This description illustrates language's A. regularity of structure.

B. multiplicity of structure.

C. arbitrary symbolic reference.

D. communicative property.

12. With technology, new words are developed in order to describe new concepts or products (e.g., television, laser, microchips). The coining of new words and phrases refers to language's A. regularity of structure.

B. multiplicity of structure.

C. dynamic quality.

D. communicative property.

13. An important characteristic of language is that it is ____, that is, language constantly evolves.

A. dynamic B. arbitrarily symbolic C. generative D. productive

14. This term refers to the ability to take our thoughts and transform them in to linguist output.

A. linguistic input/output theory B. decoding C. encoding D. principle of differential meaning

15. Vincent often has a difficult time with comprehending either written or spoke information (no physical limitations to her senses). Vincent appears to have poor ____.

A. generative language deficiencies (GLD) B. phonemic comprehension C. adaptive language skills D. verbal comprehension

16. ____ refers to deriving meaning from whatever symbolic reference system is being used.

A. Encoding B. Decoding C. Verbal fluency D. Receptive fluency

17. ____ refers to the ability to produce written and spoken linguistic output, such as words, sentences, and paragraphs.

A. Encoding B. Decoding C. Verbal comprehension D. Verbal fluency

18. The ____ is the smallest distinguishable unit of all possible human speech sounds.

A. phoneme B. morpheme C. phone D. morphe

19. Cooing is the infant's oral expression that explores the production of all the possible ____ that humans can produce.

A. phones B. phonemes C. morphes D. morphemes

20. The ____ is the smallest unit of speech sound that may be distinguished from other speech sounds and which may or may not make a meaningful difference in a given language.

A. morpheme B. percept C. phoneme D. phone

21. This is the smallest unit of speech sound that can be used to distinguish one meaningful utterance from another in a given language.

A. Morpheme B. Percept C. Phoneme D. Phone

22. Some phonemes can be produced in a number of different ways (i.e., different sounds for the same phoneme). These variants for a phoneme are called A. allophones.

B. feature hypothesis.

C. cooing.

D. deep structure.

23. This area of study focuses on the particular phonemes of a language A. discourse.

B. phonemics.

C. phonetics.

D. allophones.

24. Tameron is visiting a village in a remote area for the purpose of seeing how the villagers produce and combine various speech sounds. He is also interested in how the various sounds are written as symbols.

Tameron is interested in A. discourse.

B. phonemics.

C. phonetics.

D. allophones.

25. The smallest unit of sound that denotes meaning within a particular language is the A. phoneme.

B. morpheme.

C. phone.

D. morphe.

26. The root words dog and paint are both examples of ____ morphemes.

A. content B. semantic C. function D. dynamic

27. The suffix -ist and the prefix de- are both examples of ____ morphemes.

A. content B. semantic C. function D. dynamic

28. ____ refers to the entire set of morphemes in a given person's linguistic repertoire.

A. The lexicon B. Verbal memory C. Language D. A vocabulary

29. The average adult speaker of English has a lexicon of about ____ morphemes.

A. 30,000 B. l,000,000 C. 800,000 D. 80,000

30. American English-speaking adults typically have (around) ____ words in their vocabulary.

A. 10,000 B. 20,000 C. under 80,000 D. over 100,000

31. Semantics is the study of the A. structure of language.

B. meanings of words.

C. production of speech.

D. acquisition of language.

32. This level of analysis goes beyond the level of the sentence and can include things like conversations, paragraphs, or even an entire written work.

A. principle of conventionality B. categorical perception C. discourse D. syntax tendency

33. When speaking, phonemes in a word and between words often overlap. In other word, the boundaries between phonemes are not discrete but more continuous. This overlapping of phonemes is called A. allophones.

B. holophrases.

C. discourse.

D. coarticulation.

34. According to the ____ theory of speech perception, we start with a passive analysis of auditory sensations but then quickly shift to active processing, identifying words on the basis of successively paring down the possibilities for matches between each of the phonemes and the words we already know from memory.

A. motor B. psychological C. phonetic-refinement D. TRACE

35. The ____ effect is based on incomplete speech information and involves integrating what we know about our language with what we hear when we perceive speech to fill in any missing phoneme in the speech.

A. phonemic-restoration B. categorical perception C. continuous perception D. McGurk

36. According to the ____, speech perception begins with three levels of feature detection (i.e., acoustic features, phonemes, and words) and further, speech is highly interactive, with lower levels affecting higher levels and vice versa.

A. motor theory B. passive theory C. phonetic-refinement theory D. TRACE model

37. According to the ____ effect, continuous differences in sound wave forms are perceived as qualitatively distinct.

A. categorical-perception B. continuous-perception C. phonemic-restoration D. McGurk

38. According to the ____ theory of speech perception, the sounds /r/ and /l/ sound identical to a native Japanese speaker because he or she articulates them the same way.

A. motor B. psychological C. phonetic refinement D. TRACE

39. The ____ effect involves the synchrony of visual (the speaker's lip movements) and auditory (speech) perceptions such that comprehension of what is being said is facilitated.

A. categorical-perception B. TRACE C. phonemic-restoration D. McGurk

40. ____ which is important for forming the meaning of a word can include both the denotation and connation of a word.

A. Semantics B. Holophrasic C. Verbal fluency D. Telegraphic speech

41. The strict, dictionary definition of a word is its A. meaning.

B. interpretation.

C. denotation.

D. connotation.

42. A word's emotional overtones, presuppositions, and other nonexplicit meanings are its A. meaning.

B. interpretation.

C. denotation.

D. connotation.

43. Semantics is to syntax as A. structure is to meaning.

B. meaning is to structure.

C. nouns are to verbs.

D. verbs are to nouns.

44. ____ refers to the systematic way in which words can be combined and sequenced to make meaningful phrases and sentences.

A. Semantics B. Syntax C. Pragmatics D. Linguistics

45. ____ refers to the study of language in terms of noticing regular patterns. These patterns relate to the functions and relationships of words in a sentence.

A. Semantics B. Pragmatics C. Grammar D. Linguistics

46. ____ grammar specifies the purported correct ways in which to structure the use of written and spoken language.

A. Descriptive B. Prescriptive C. Inferential D. Logistical

47. ____ is concerned with the structure/construction of meaningful phrases and sentences.

A. Overstructuralization B. Holophrasic C. Syntax D. Child-directed speech

48. Steve was a linguist who was interested in analyzing sentences in terms of the order in which words appear in sentences, regardless of differences or similarities of meaning. He probably specializes in ____ grammar.

A. inferential B. prescriptive C. phrase-structure D. word-structure

49. ____ revolutionized the study of syntax by being the first to argue convincingly that phrase-structure grammars are inadequate to convey fully the structures of sentences.

A. Eleanor Rosch B. Ludwig Wittgenstein C. Herbert Clark D. Noam Chomsky

50. Transformational grammar refers to rules used to A. contrast prescriptive and descriptive grammar.

B. generate surface structures from deep structures.

C. interrelate bottom-up and top-down strategies to derive meaning.

D. analyze a sentence's classical concepts.

51. When we talk about the relationships and transformations among phrase structures of sentences, we must talk more about ____ than about ____.

A. prescriptive grammar; descriptive grammar B. descriptive grammar; prescriptive grammar C. deep structure; surface structure D. surface structure; deep structure

52. Items in a sentence can be used in a particular way depending on the context of the communication (e.g., agent, patient, beneficiary, etc.). The different ways in which items can be used based on context is called A. thematic roles.

B. coarticulation.

C. holophrases.

D. functional morphemes.

53. The cooing of infants around the world is ____ across hearing and deaf babies and ____ across languages.

A. indistinguishable; distinguishable B. distinguishable; indistinguishable C. distinguishable; distinguishable D. indistinguishable; indistinguishable

54. ____ comprises only the distinct phonemes that characterize the primary language of the infant.

A. Post-natal cooing B. Babbling C. Onomatopoeic speech D. Motherese

55. The babbling of infants around the world is ____ across hearing and deaf infants and ____ across languages.

A. indistinguishable; distinguishable B. distinguishable; indistinguishable C. distinguishable; distinguishable D. indistinguishable; indistinguishable

56. Each of the following aspects of children's linguistic development increases with age, except their A. ability to comprehend language.

B. ability to generate useful strategies for verbal comprehension and fluency.

C. verbal fluency.

D. ability to discriminate phonemes of several languages.

57. When an infant uses one-word utterances, typically nouns, to convey his/her intentions, desires, and/or demands, this is called A. holophrases.

B. denotation.

C. connotation.

D. coarticulation.

58. Little Sarah is saying emphatically, "Book! Book! Book!" Jenny's father understands that Jenny would like for her father to read Jenny a story. This description illustrates Sarah's A. holophrases.

B. babbling.

C. telegraphic speech.

D. semantic speech.

59. Annie, an 18-month-old infant, calls all furry, four-legged animals "doggie." Annie is displaying the A. generalization error.

B. underextension error.

C. overextension error.

D. holophrasic error.

60. The ____ hypothesis suggests that, when learning to use words, children form definitions that include too few features. Thus, a child might refer to a cat as a dog because of a mental rule that if an animal has the feature of four legs, it is a "doggie."

A. overextension B. feature C. functional D. generalization

61. The ____ hypothesis suggests that, when learning to use words, children form definitions that describe important purposes. Thus, since dogs and cats serve the same purposes as pets, a child is likely to refer to a cat as a "doggie."

A. overextension B. feature C. functional D. generalization

62. Sentences that consist typically of two-word utterances that have rudimentary syntax are called A. two word sentence syntax.

B. telegraphic speech.

C. metacognition.

D. phrase-structure grammars.

63. Language acquisition probably involves A. the interaction of nature and nurture.

B. nature only.

C. nurture only.

D. neither nature nor nurture.

64. Chomsky suggests that humans have a biologically innate mechanism that helps in developing language. He calls this mechanism the A. Language Development Module.

B. Language Acquisition Device.

C. Phrase-structure Module.

D. Language Assimilation Device.

65. Rachel was 30 years old when she started learning Italian. Although she has been speaking Italian now for more than 20 years, she still has trouble producing some specific phonemes of the Italian language. Rachel's linguistic context probably ____ those Italian phonemes during early critical periods.

A. provided but did not condition B. provided but did not model C. provided but did not reinforce D. did not provide

66. Understanding and controlling one's own cognition to help in learning language would be an example of A. overregularization.

B. verbal regulation.

C. metacognition.

D. cognitive management theory.

67. ____ periods refer to times of development during which a particular ability must be developed if it is ever to develop adequately.

A. Growth B. Developmental C. Critical D. Ability-enhancing

68. This view on language acquisition suggests that both nature and nurture are important for language development. Specifically, an inherited facility for language makes it possible for children to form tentative guess about information in their environment.

A. telegraphic speech B. verbal regulation C. verbal fluency D. hypothesis testing

69. Researchers of language who argue that children acquire language largely because of the environment to which they are exposed propose that language is learned through two main mechanisms: A. imitation and conditioning.

B. imitation and punishment.

C. reinforcement and punishment.

D. reinforcement and reward.

70. Sarah's father wants to know whether little Sarah would like to ride in the car with him. To this end, he uses exaggerated vocal expression and simple wordings when he say "Would pumpkin like to go in car with dada?".

Such an expression is an example of A. holophrases.

B. Fatherese.

C. telegraphic speech.

D. child-directed speech.

71. Six-year-old Gracie Lou says "hows come" instead of "how come" just like her grandparents. Gracie Lou use of "hows come" would be an example of A. modeling.

B. social language interaction theory.

C. conditioning.

D. phrase-structure grammar.

72. Across cultures, parents seem to use ____ intonations to gain young children's attention and ____ intonations to comfort children.

A. rising; flat B. rising; falling C. falling; rising D. flat; falling

73. Anthony is being asked if he knows where the Frisbee is. To this question, he answers, "I taked it and leaved it outside." Anthony's expression is an example of A. overregularization.

B. overstructuralization.

C. overextension.

D. holophrasic error.

74. During a particular language development phase as a child, Lamar would say that he "goed to the store" instead of he "went to the store." This example of ____ is when general rules of language are applied to exceptional cases.

A. telegraphic speech B. overregularization C. holophrases D. holophrasic intuition

75. Patty's teacher constantly corrects Patty when he hears her say such things as "I runned" or "It breaked." The teacher also praises Patty when she uses English correctly. This description could illustrate the view that we acquire language primarily through A. modeling.

B. imitation.

C. conditioning.

D. our active participation.

76. What are the main properties of language?

77. What is a phoneme?

78. Explain deep structure and surface structure.

79. What is the language acquisition device?

80. What role does metacognition play in language acquisition?

81. Psychologists have wondered about the extent to which maturational (nature) versus environmental (nurture) factors are of greater importance in the acquisition of language. Contrast these two factors (as described in your text) and indicate the importance of each factor as well as how they interact.

82. How would a behaviorist account for language acquisition? What "holes" are there in this account?

83. Explain semantics and grammar and how they are similar and dissimilar.

84. Explain how the various theories of speech perception account for language comprehension. What are the main differences and similarities?

85. Explain the importance of Chomsky's Language Acquisition Device to the acquisition of language.

86. On the planet Zoack, people are born old and die as they reach infancy. Drawing from the patterns of language acquisition for humans on Earth addressed in the chapter, how are Zoack people likely to lose language as they approach infancy? State how their stages of language loss differ from our stages of language acquisition.

87. Think of music as a language. State which of the six major properties that characterize language addressed in your text may apply to the language of music and tell why.

88. Say you are designing a program to understand and produce language. What would be the benefits or disadvantages to having it go through the stages of language acquisition?

89. Imagine that language was learned using just conditioning principles. What would a training program look like for children (or even an adult) learning a language?

90. What would be the implications if there were no critical periods for language acquisition?

91. Daniel is interested in learning a new language as an adult and wants your advice about language learning.

What practical information would you give him in regard to (a) overextension, (b) overregularizations, and (c) the hypothesis-testing view of language acquisition?

92. Jennifer and Dominic are expecting a baby. They are eager to provide the best language stimulation for the baby. Drawing from your knowledge of language acquisition, what practical advice would you give them regarding appropriate language stimulation for infants?

93. Explain coarticulation and then relate it to learning a second language. What are the issues - is there anything we could do to make it easier?

94. Discuss the issue of verbal comprehension and verbal fluency as it relates to various disorders. What are some of the issues?

95. In order to help a child develop his or her metalinguistic skills, what would be important for such a program? What would be the benefit?

Chapter 9--Language: Nature and Acquisition Key

1. C 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B 11. B 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. B 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. D 21. C 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. D

30. D 31. B 32. C 33. D 34. C 35. A 36. D 37. A 38. A 39. D 40. A 41. C 42. D 43. B 44. B 45. C 46. B 47. C 48. C 49. D 50. B 51. C 52. A 53. D 54. B 55. C 56. D 57. A 58. A 59. C 60. B 61. C 62. B 63. A

64. B 65. D 66. C 67. C 68. D 69. A 70. D 71. A 72. B 73. A 74. B 75. C 76. Answer not provided.

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Chapter 10--Language in Context Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. When a person has a difficult time deciphering, reading, and comprehending written information this is known as ____.

A. aphasia B. malapropism C. dyslexia D. anomaly

2. This type of dyslexia occurs when an individual has a difficult time in learning the various rules as they relate to sounds. This type of dyslexia starts in early childhood and often continuous throughout adulthood.

A. acquired B. developmental C. progressive D. longitudinal

3. ____ processes refer to the various cognitive processes involved in identifying letters and words, as well as in activating relevant information in memory about the words.

A. Lexical B. Semantic C. Syntactic D. Comprehension

4. ____ processes refer to the cognitive processes used for understanding text as a whole and thereby making sense of what is read.

A. Lexical B. Semantic C. Syntactic D. Comprehension

5. ____ refers to a process by which people can retrieve from memory information about words (e.g., letter names).

A. Semantic access B. Semantic retrieval C. Lexical access D. Lexical attainment

6. When people speed-read, they show A. fewer and shorter fixations.

B. more but shorter fixations.

C. fewer but longer fixations.

D. more and longer fixations.

7. In ____, we identify words based on letter combinations and thereby activate our memory in regard to the words.

A. lexical encoding B. lexical access C. semantic retrieval D. semantic encoding

8. The word-superiority effect is also known as the ____ effect.

A. Hoffding B. Hubel-Weisel C. Reicher-Wheeler D. Rumelhart-McClelland

9. The ____ effect refers to a phenomenon of form perception in which a person can more readily identify letters when they are presented in the context of words than when they are presented as solitary letters.

A. word-superiority B. word-context C. letter-identification D. perceptual-facilitation

10. This concept states that language provides a cognitive system that influences the way one thinks about the world, and that users of different languages and cognitive systems, therefore, think about the world differently.

A. linguistic relativity B. linguistic universals C. dual-system hypothesis D. single-system hypothesis

11. The Sapir-Whorf hypothesis is another name for the linguistic____ hypothesis.

A. absolutism B. relativity C. universality D. contextualism

12. Edward Sapir and Benjamin Lee Wharf were most forceful in propagating the linguistic ____ hypothesis.

A. absolutism B. relativity C. universality D. contextualism

13. ____ are characteristic patterns of language that apply across all of the languages of various cultures.

A. Speech acts B. Scripts C. Similes D. Linguistic universals

14. Recent research comparing Chinese versus English speakers' impressions of people described in text passages in Chinese and in English show that the structures of these languages A. do influence the likelihood of identifying a particular cultural stereotype.

B. do not influence the speakers' impressions of the people.

C. constrain only the ability to communicate their impressions of the people, and not the impressions themselves.

D. cannot be studied at present.

15. A person who speaks more than one language is A. bilingual.

B. monolingual.

C. subtractive bilingual.

D. unilingual.

16. When bilinguals are ____ bilinguals and when they come from ____ backgrounds, positive effects of bilingualism tend to be found.

A. de facto; middle-class B. subtractive; upper-class C. balanced; middle-class D. fluent; lower-class

17. A person who speaks one language is said to be A. bilingual.

B. monolingual.

C. subtractive bilingual.

D. unilingual.

18. Carmen is a balanced bilingual of Spanish and English who comes from a middle-class background.

Carmen's thought processes are likely to exhibit A. negative effects of bilingualism.

B. positive effects of bilingualism.

C. no differences from the thought processes of monolinguals.

D. mostly negative but some positive effects of bilingualism.

19. ____ bilingualism refers to learning a second language in the context of a relatively well-developed first language.

A. Balanced B. Unbalanced C. Additive D. Subtractive

20. ____ bilingualism refers to learning a second language in a way that elements of the second language replace elements of the first language.

A. Balanced B. Unbalanced C. Additive D. Subtractive

21. According to Cummins (1976), ____ bilingualism results in increased cognitive functioning, whereas ____ bilingualism results in decreased functioning.

A. subtractive; additive B. additive; multiplicative C. multiplicative; subtractive D. additive; subtractive

22. When a person learns two different languages at the same time, this is called A. additive bilingualism.

B. sequential bilingualism.

C. simultaneous bilingualism.

D. subtractive bilingualism.

23. This type of bilingualism is when a person learns one language and then at a later time learns a second language.

A. additive bilingualism B. sequential bilingualism C. simultaneous bilingualism D. subtractive bilingualism

24. The single-system hypothesis suggests that the bilingual's two languages A. serve a single and primary function with a facilitative effect on cognition.

B. are represented in a unified cognitive system.

C. progress toward greater fluency in a unitary manner.

D. lead to the development of a single system of thought.

25. The dual-system hypothesis suggests that the bilingual's two languages A. serve a dual function, one cognitive and another practical.

B. progress toward greater fluency in a reciprocal and mutual manner.

C. are represented in separate cognitive systems.

D. lead to the development of two systems of thought.

26. ____ refers to a simple means of communication that is a rudimentary mixture of the lexicon and syntax of two or more languages.

A. Pidgin B. Creole C. Dialect D. Language

27. ____ refers to a regional variety of a language distinguished by features such as vocabulary, grammar, and pronunciation.

A. Pidgin B. Creole C. Dialect D. Language

28. ____ refer(s) to inadvertent errors in what is said, usually as a result of articulatory or semantic confusion of phonemes, morphemes, or even words.

A. Semantic confusion B. Conversational errors C. Similes D. Slips of the tongue

29. "I'd really like to be her" instead of "I'd really like to see her" is an example of a linguistic error in which what we mean is different than what we say. This is called a(n) A. slip of the tongue.

B. interactive-activation model.

C. linguistic relativity.

D. word superiority effect.

30. A business associate said, "I'm glad to beat you," when what he intended to say was "I'm glad to meet you."

This description illustrates the psychoanalytic concept of A. semantic confusion.

B. conversational errors.

C. Jungian similes.

D. Freudian slip.

31. An idea may be correct in terms of how we think about it or our "language of the mind" is correct. However, a mistake maybe made when conveying the idea to others. This mistake would be called A. linguistic output error.

B. slips of the tongue.

C. conceptual generation error.

D. linguistic generator error.

32. This "error" can occur at a number of different hierarchical levels of linguistic processing including the acoustical and semantic levels. This type of error would be called a(n) A. conceptual generation error.

B. hypermnesia.

C. linguistic output error.

D. slip of the tongue.

33. Identify the tenor and the vehicle from the following: Shakespeare in one of his plays wrote "all the world is a stage." The tenor is ____ and the vehicle is ____.

A. play; Shakespeare B. Shakespeare; play C. stage; world D. world; stage

34. A(n) ____ refers to a juxtaposition of two unlike nouns, thereby asserting their similarities, while not disconfirming their dissimilarities.

A. metaphor B. synectic C. semantic comparison D. analogical act

35. A(n) ____ refers to juxtaposition of two unlike nouns, in which the word like or as is used to suggest similarities between the two.

A. metaphor B. simile C. semantic comparison D. analogical act

36. Using the metaphor "She's on fire!", this approach would emphasize the similarity between the elements in the metaphor (her behavior and the properties of a fire).

A. Anomaly view B. Domain-Interaction view C. Nonliteral form of class-inclusion statement D. Traditional Comparison view

37. Using the metaphor "She's on fire!", this approach would emphasize the dissimilarity between the elements in a metaphor.

A. Anomaly view B. Domain-Interaction view C. Nonliteral form of class-inclusion statement D. Traditional Comparison view

38. Using the metaphor "She's on fire!", this approach suggests that a metaphor involves an interaction between the domains of the tenor and vehicle. This would include both similarities as well as dissimilarities.

A. Anomaly view B. Domain-Interaction view C. Nonliteral form of class-inclusion statement D. Traditional Comparison view

39. ____ refers to the study of how people use language, emphasizing the contexts in which language is used, as well as the nonverbal communication that augments verbal communication.

A. Proxemics B. Dialectics C. Pragmatics D. Linguistics

40. ____ refer to any of five basic categories of speech, analyzed in terms of the purposes accomplished by the given act.

A. Conversational categories B. Conversational acts C. Speech categories D. Speech acts

41. ____ refers to a speech act by which a person conveys a belief that a given proposition is true.

A. Representative B. Directive C. Commissive D. Declaration

42. ____ refers to an attempt by a speaker to get a listener to do something, such as giving the answer to a question.

A. Representative B. Directive C. Commissive D. Declaration

43. ____ refers to a commitment by the speaker to engage in some future course of action.

A. Representative B. Directive C. Commissive D. Performative

44. ____ refers to a statement regarding the speaker's psychological state.

A. Representative B. Directive C. Expressive D. Performative

45. The statement "As you can see here on the thermostat, the temperature in the house is 68 degrees Fahrenheit" is an example of a ____ speech act.

A. representative B. directive C. commissive D. performative

46. The statement "Can you pass the salt?" is an example of a ____ speech act.

A. representative B. directive C. commissive D. performative

47. Sarah makes the statement "I'll be flying to Costa Rica tomorrow" is an example of a ____ speech act.

A. representative B. directive C. commissive D. performative

48. The statement "I'm delighted that final exams are over!" is an example of a(n) ____ speech act.

A. representative B. directive C. expressive D. performative

49. The statement "Do you have the time?" is an example of a ____ speech act.

A. representative B. directive C. commissive D. performative

50. The statement "I do" uttered by a couple in a marriage ceremony is an example of a(n) ____ speech act.

A. representative B. directive C. expressive D. declaration

51. ____ refers to a speech act by which the very act of making a statement brings about an intended new state of affairs.

A. Representative B. Directive C. Commissive D. Declaration

52. Ann said "this court is now in session." This is an example of which type of speech act?

A. commissive B. declaration C. expressive D. representative

53. ____ refers to a form of speech in which the person makes a request in an oblique manner.

A. Oblique request B. Oblique speech act C. Indirect request D. Indirect speech act

54. All of the following statements describe basic ways of making indirect requests except one. Identify the exception.

A. Asking or making statements about abilities B. Stating a desire C. Stating a future action D. Describing a past event

55. The statement "Can you pass me the salt?" is an example of an indirect speech act that emphasizes A. abilities.

B. desires.

C. a future action.

D. reasons.

56. The statement "I would be so pleased if you cooked today!" is an example of an indirect speech act that emphasizes A. abilities.

B. desires.

C. commisives.

D. reasons.

57. In order to talk to each other versus talking past one another, we often setup our conversations such that it is easy for our listener to understand the intended message. Doing so is making use of ____.

A. metaphors B. cooperative principles C. indirect requests D. speech acts

58. According to Grice (1967), successful conversations follow the following four maxims: A. quantity, quality, relation, and manner.

B. quantity, quality, expression, and relation.

C. expression, intent, relation, and manner.

D. intent, time, relation, and manner.

59. According to Grice (1967), the maxim of ____ refers to making a contribution to a conversation as informative as required, but no more informative than is appropriate.

A. quantity B. quality C. relation D. manner

60. When Mr. Spock (a "Vulcan" in the TV series Star Trek) was asked what the temperature was, he answered, "It's 31.297868086298 degrees out there." Mr. Spock's answer illustrates a violation of the conversational maxim of A. quantity.

B. quality.

C. relation.

D. manner.

61. According to Grice (1967), the maxim of ____ refers to the expectation that a person's contribution to a conversation is truthful, reflecting what the person believes to be the case.

A. quantity B. quality C. relation D. manner

62. In response to the question, "Honey, how do I look?" Ms. Smith exclaimed, "Terrific!" although she had serious reservations about her husband's appearance. Ms. Smith's answer illustrates a violation of the conversational maxim of A. quantity.

B. quality.

C. relation.

D. manner.

63. According to Grice (1967), the maxim of ____ refers to the expectation that a person's contribution to a conversation be relevant to the aims of the conversation.

A. quantity B. quality C. relation D. manner

64. When Tom said to Mary, "I think we need to talk about our relationship," Mary said casually, "The weather sure is beautiful!" Mary's answer illustrates a violation of the conversational maxim of A. quantity.

B. quality.

C. relation.

D. manner.

65. According to Grice (1967), the maxim of ____ refers to the expectation that a person's contribution to a conversation avoid obscure expressions, vague utterances, and purposeful obfuscation of the point.

A. quantity B. quality C. relation D. manner

66. To express "people read," a well-known sociologist wrote instead, "The individual member of the social community often receives information via visual, symbolic channels." This long sentence illustrates a violation of the maxim of A. quantity.

B. quality.

C. relation.

D. manner.

67. Research suggests that young men, more than young women, prefer to talk about A. close friends.

B. fears.

C. classes.

D. political views.

68. Research suggests that young women, more than young men, prefer to talk about A. political views.

B. sources of personal pride.

C. fears.

D. what they like about the other person.

69. Deborah Tannen's research on male-female conversation shows that gender differences in conversational style largely center on differing understandings of A. the semantic connotations of words spoken.

B. the logic of the speaker.

C. the goals of conversation.

D. how grammar should be used in sentences.

70. According to Deborah Tannen (1990), men see the world as a hierarchical social order in which the purpose of communication does not include A. negotiation for the upper hand.

B. preservation of independence.

C. avoidance of failure.

D. communication of strong positive emotions.

71. According to Deborah Tannen (1990), in conversations, women generally do not seek to A. establish a connection between the two participants.

B. give support and confirmation to others.

C. reach consensus through communication.

D. establish the upper hand.

72. Systematic rules at the sentence level is to ____ as systematic rules beyond the sentence level is to ____.

A. syntax; discourse B. phonology; morphology C. morphology; linguistic relativity D. discourse; linguistic relativity

73. Communicative units that are structured systematically that are larger than the sentence level are called A. discourse.

B. syntax.

C. semantics.

D. pragmatics.

74. This general term indicates that there is an impairment in language functioning due to some damage to the brain (e.g., lesions).

A. orthographic B. linguistic relativity C. subtractive bilingualism D. aphasia

75. This type of aphasia, due to damage in a specific area of the brain, is evident by a person's difficulty in understanding sentences and words that are spoken.

A. anomic aphasia B. Broca's aphasia C. orthographic aphasia D. Wernicke's aphasia

76. This type of aphasia, due to damage in a specific area of the brain, is evident by a person's production of agrammatical speech (e.g., dingo ... loving ... ESP ... daughter).

A. anomic aphasia B. Broca's aphasia C. global aphasia D. Wernicke's aphasia

77. With this type of aphasia, impairment is seen for both comprehension and production of speech.

A. anomic aphasia B. Broca's aphasia C. global aphasia D. Wernicke's aphasia

78. This type of aphasia is evident by a person's difficulty in retrieving words that correspond to specific objects.

A. anomic aphasia B. Broca's aphasia C. global aphasia D. Wernicke's aphasia

79. One theory of (the) ____ suggests that this disorder is a result of an extreme male brain. These individuals are often very strong in systematization but weak in empathy and communication.

A. autism B. anomaly view C. aphasia D. akinetopsia

80. Kutas and Hillyard used ____ to detect differences in processing of expected versus anomalous sentences.

A. fMRIs B. ERPs C. PET scans D. CT scans

81. Although it is difficult to precisely map linguistic functions to specific hemispheres, in general it can be said that the left hemisphere A. seems better at processing well-practiced routines.

B. seems better at dealing with novel stimuli.

C. seems to have little involvement in linguistic function.

D. seems to be entirely responsible for linguistic function.

82. For almost all right-handed persons and most left-handed persons, the left hemisphere is implicated in all of the following aspects except one. Which is the exception?

A. syntactical aspects of linguistic processing B. speech C. signing D. vocal inflection

83. For almost all right-handed persons and most left-handed persons, the right hemisphere is implicated in which of the following aspects of language processing?

A. Syntax B. Auditory comprehension but not vocal inflection C. Vocal inflection but not auditory comprehension D. Both vocal inflection and auditory comprehension

84. What are the different kinds of speech acts?

85. What evidence supports the existence of linguistic universals?

86. List and explain the various conversational postulates.

87. Explain the single-system and dual-system hypotheses for bilingualism.

88. Explain the Sapir-Whorf hypothesis.

89. Compare and contrast the strong and weak versions of linguistic relativity, making an argument in favor of one.

90. Compare and contrast alternative views of metaphors.

91. Compare and contrast the different types of aphasia (What are the defining features of each?).

92. Explain the different types of bilingualism. In your discussion, include the circumstances / factors that are important for determining whether learning a second language will be positive or not.

93. Explain the word superiority effect in the context of bottom-up and top-down processing. What is the relevance of this effect for reading?

94. Imagine a world in which men had women's conversational style and women had men's (remember Deborah Tannen's work). In what way would such a world differ from ours? Be sure to trace the differences between the worlds back to Tannen's gender conversational styles.

95. Researchers who study bilingualism debate between the dual-system view of language representation and the single-system view. State what these views represent and come up with a third view as a potential alternative view of language representation.

96. If you had to "remove" for all time one of the conversational postulates, which one would it be? Explain what impact removal of this postulate would have on conversations. Also, provide your rationale for selecting that particular postulate to "eliminate."

97. What other metaphors (besides the computer metaphor) could be used for cognitive psychology? What are the various components of the metaphor and how do they explain cognition?

98. Provide some examples of metaphors (or make up your own) and identify for each the tenor and the vehicle.

Explain then each metaphor from the traditional comparison view and then the anomaly view.

99. Based on Deborah Tannen's research on male-female conversation, what advice would you give to a heterosexual couple that was showing clear signs of distress due to their gender-specific conversational styles?

100. A family friend of yours is considering the cognitive advantages of raising her children bilingual. Based on the research on the potential positive effects of bilingualism given some conditions, what kind of advice would you give her family?

101. What would be the advantage of building a language system that, with certain subroutines, would mimic the different types of aphasia?

102. Explain the importance of speech acts and the contribution they make to everyday conversations. What would happen if these were no longer part of our "language"?

103. Take a few slips of the tongue (or generate your own) and provided examples of how the errors occur at different levels of linguistic processing (i.e., acoustical level). What do slips of the tongue tell us about how we process linguistic information?

Chapter 10--Language in Context Key

1. C 2. B 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. B 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. D 14. A 15. A 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. C 20. D 21. D 22. C 23. B 24. B 25. C 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. A

30. D 31. B 32. D 33. D 34. A 35. B 36. D 37. A 38. B 39. C 40. D 41. A 42. B 43. C 44. C 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. C 49. B 50. D 51. D 52. B 53. C 54. D 55. A 56. B 57. B 58. A 59. A 60. A 61. B 62. B 63. C

64. C 65. D 66. D 67. D 68. C 69. C 70. D 71. D 72. A 73. A 74. D 75. D 76. B 77. C 78. A 79. A 80. B 81. A 82. D 83. D 84. Answer not provided.

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Chapter 11--Problem Solving and Creativity Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. ____ refers to a set of processes for which the goal is to overcome obstacles obstructing the path to a solution.

A. Convergent thinking B. Problem solving C. Creativity D. Productive thinking

2. ____ is (are) a particular approach to problem solving which suggests the following steps: problem identification, problem definition, strategy formulation, organization of information, allocation of resources, monitoring, and evaluation.

A. Problem solving cycle B. Well-structured problems C. Ill-structured problems D. Entrenchment

3. Richard does not realize that his drinking is interfering with his daily activities and is becoming a problem.

To address this problem, Richard first and foremost (before anything else) needs to ____ the problem.

A. define B. formulate a strategy to deal with C. identify the existence of D. evaluate

4. Steve realizes he and his girlfriend Cathy are not getting along well. Steve thinks that the reason why his girlfriend is unhappy with their relationship is because he spends too much time with his buddies. Yet, according to Cathy, this is not the reason at all. According to Cathy, Steve has failed to ____ the problem correctly.

A. define B. formulate a strategy to deal with C. monitor D. evaluate

5. ____ refers to the process of breaking down a complex whole into smaller elements.

A. Automaticity B. Positive transfer C. Analysis D. Synthesis

6. John does not realize that his girlfriend, Mary, is unhappy about their relationship and wants to break up. To address this situation, John first and foremost (before anything else) needs to ____ the problem.

A. define B. formulate a strategy to deal with C. identify the existence of D. evaluate

7. Pat just found out that she must give a class presentation in 10 days. To this end, Pat breaks down the task of preparing for her presentation into specific, manageable steps she must take to do a good job. This problem-solving strategy primarily involves A. analysis.

B. synthesis.

C. divergent thinking.

D. convergent thinking.

8. ____ refers to the process of integrating various elements into a more complex whole.

A. Automaticity B. Positive transfer C. Analysis D. Synthesis

9. After researching a topic for a term paper, Sam needs to organize all the information and put it together into a coherent paper. The problem-solving strategy primarily involved in this task is A. analysis.

B. synthesis.

C. divergent thinking.

D. convergent thinking.

10. Jamie is a bright college student who wants to work with people in the medical field. To this end, she is considering a diverse assortment of possible alternative ways to achieve her goal, including becoming a medical doctor, nurse, or physician's assistant. The problem-solving strategy primarily involved in this task is A. analysis.

B. synthesis.

C. divergent thinking.

D. convergent thinking.

11. ____ refers to thought processes involving the production of various alternatives.

A. Divergent thinking B. Convergent thinking C. Insight D. Incubation

12. ____ refers to thought processes during which the person selectively narrows down multiple alternatives until reaching a single, optimal alternative.

A. Divergent thinking B. Convergent thinking C. Insight D. Incubation

13. After being admitted by several colleges, Michael needs to decide which college to attend. The problem-solving strategy primarily involved in this task is A. divergent thinking.

B. convergent thinking.

C. synthesis.

D. autonomy.

14. After researching a topic for a term paper, you go over all of your notes and decide on an outline for organizing your ideas as well as the order in which you will address them in your paper. The problem-solving step primarily associated with this task is A. problem definition.

B. problem identification.

C. organization of information.

D. resource allocation.

15. This part of the problem-solving cycle involves periodically assessing to what extent you are getting closer to the goal. In other words, individuals who are effective problem-solvers will check their performance along the way to decide if they should continue or change their approach.

A. strategy formulation B. problem definition C. monitoring D. evaluation

16. Cathy has three exams and two papers coming up, and she needs to decide how much time to spend on each project to maximize her chances of doing well on all of them. The problem-solving step primarily associated with this task is A. problem definition.

B. problem identification.

C. organization of information.

D. resource allocation.

17. This part of the problem-solving cycle occurs once you have arrived at a solution you then assess the quality of your solution.

A. strategy formulation B. problem definition C. monitoring D. evaluation

18. ____ problems have a well-defined path to solution.

A. Positive transfer B. Transparent C. Well-structured D. Heuristic

19. "How do you find the area of a triangle?" is an example of a(n) ____ problem.

A. positive transfer B. transparent C. well-structured D. isomorphic

20. ____ problems refer to problems with no clear, readily available path to solution.

A. Positive transfer B. Negative transfer C. Ill-structured D. Isomorphic

21. ____ refer(s) to informal, intuitive, speculative strategies for solving problems, which sometimes work and sometimes do not.

A. Incubation B. Creativity C. Insight D. Heuristics

22. ____ generally involve successive, somewhat mechanical iterations of a particular strategy until an answer (usually, the correct solution) is reached.

A. Algorithms B. Heuristics C. Isomorphic problems D. Global planning strategies

23. The ____ refers to the universe of all possible actions that can be applied to solve a problem.

A. action space B. problem space C. action universe D. solution universe

24. ____ problems have the same formal structure and differ only in their content.

A. Acontextual B. Structural C. Isoformic D. Isomorphic

25. ____ refers to a seemingly sudden understanding of the nature of something, often as a result of taking a novel approach to the problem.

A. Insight B. Creativity C. Incubation D. Deduction

26. Max Wertheimer and Wolfgang Köhler were two respected ____ psychologists who made important contributions in the area of insightful thinking.

A. psychometric B. information processing C. Gestalt D. structural

27. According to ____ psychologists, insight problems require problem solvers to perceive the problem as a whole, which differs from perceiving the problem as a collection of its parts.

A. Gestalt B. information processing C. structural D. behavioral

28. ____ refers to thought processes that involve novel insights that go beyond the bounds of existing associations.

A. Convergent thinking B. Positive transfer C. Reproductive thinking D. Productive thinking

29. This type of thinking is when the person is working with associations that are already known and this type of thinking is not associated with insight problems.

A. reproductive thinking B. productive thinking C. convergent thinking D. divergent thinking

30. This view of insight suggests that the processes involved in insight are processes that are part of ordinary thinking.

A. the Neo-Gestaltist view B. the nothing-special view C. the three-process view D. the normal-to-special process view

31. This view of insight suggests that there is something special about insight. Support for this view is that problem-solvers show poor ability in predicting success until just prior to solving the problem. Thus, problem-solvers for insight problems lack an incremental increase in terms of predicting success of finding a solution.

A. The Neo-Gestaltist view B. The nothing-special view C. The three-process view D. The normal-to-special process view

32. This view on insight suggests that there are different types of insight (selective-encoding, selective-comparison, & selective-combination), and that the processes involved can be used for insight and non-insight problems.

A. The Neo-Gestalist view B. The nothing-special view C. The three-process view D. The normal-to-special process view

33. Selective-____ refer to thought processes in which relevant information is distinguished from irrelevant information.

A. comparison insights B. combination insights C. encoding insights D. decoding insights

34. When you are taking notes during a lecture, you must decide which points are crucial, which points are supportive and explanatory, and which are not necessary. These tasks require primarily selective-____ processes.

A. comparison B. combination C. encoding D. decoding

35. An insightful lawyer must figure out which of the myriad facts of a legal case are relevant to principles of law and can be used to make a case. This task requires primarily selective-____ processes.

A. comparison B. combination C. encoding D. decoding

36. In trying to figure out who has perpetrated a crime, a detective must figure out what the relevant facts are.

This task requires primarily selective-____ processes.

A. comparison B. combination C. encoding D. decoding

37. Selective-____ refer to cognitive processes that involve novel realizations of how existing knowledge may be related to new information.

A. comparison insights B. combination insights C. encoding insights D. decoding insights

38. An insightful lawyer needs to relate a current case to past legal precedents; choosing the right precedent is absolutely essential. This task requires primarily selective-____ processes.

A. combination B. comparison C. encoding D. decoding

39. Selective-____ refer to cognitive processes involving novel syntheses of relevant information.

A. comparison insights B. combination insights C. encoding insights D. decoding insights

40. A detective, having collected the facts that seem relevant to a case, must determine how the facts fit together to point only to the guilty party and not to anyone else. This task requires primarily selective-____ processes.

A. comparison B. combination C. encoding D. decoding

41. ____ refers to a cognitive phenomenon in which a person is predisposed to use an existing model for representing information, even when the existing model inadequately represents the information in a new situation.

A. Heuristic facilitation B. Mental set C. Algorithm fixedness D. Stationary thinking

42. When problem-solvers ____, they fixate on a strategy that normally works in solving many problems, but that does not work in solving a particular problem of interest.

A. have an entrenched mental set B. have an unentrenched mental set C. experience heuristic facilitation D. experience algorithmic fixedness

43. ____ refers to the inability to see that something that is known to have a particular use may also be used for performing other functions.

A. Functional inhibition B. Divergent thinking C. Introceptive thinking D. Functional fixedness

44. Becoming free of ____ is what first allowed people to use a reshaped coat hanger to get into a locked car, and it is what first allowed thieves to pick simple spring door locks with a credit card.

A. functional inhibition B. divergent thinking C. introceptive thinking D. functional fixedness

45. This is a particular type of mental set when one believes that members of a particular social group tend to have similar characteristics.

A. functional fixedness B. stereotypes C. negative transfer D. convergent thinking

46. ____ occurs when solving an earlier problem makes it harder to solve a later one.

A. Divergent thinking B. Functional fixedness C. Negative transfer D. Positive transfer

47. ____ occurs when solving an earlier problem makes it easier to solve a new problem.

A. Divergent thinking B. Functional fixedness C. Negative transfer D. Positive transfer

48. ____ refers to any carryover of knowledge or skills from one problem situation to another.

A. Transfer B. Divergent thinking C. Functional inhibition D. Functional fixation

49. Bertha completed a number of problems for an experiment. Two of the problems she noted had the same underlying structure even though the surface features were different. She was able to adapt the solution for the first problem to the second. This is an example of (a) A. ill defined problem.

B. well defined problem.

C. transfer of analogies.

D. transparency.

50. This is the case where an individual is trying to use/apply the structure/solution from one problem on to a new problem.

A. convergent thinking B. intentional transfer C. functional fixedness D. transparency

51. ____ refers to the tendency to believe that problem situations with similar contexts or content also have analogous formal structures or solution paths.

A. Transparency B. Isomorphic inhibition C. Negative transfer D. Heuristic fixedness

52. ____ refers to a period of rest, following a period of intensive effort in problem solving, during which the problem-solver puts aside the problem for a while, thereby permitting greater mental flexibility so that insights may arise.

A. The insight facilitation stage B. The proceduralization period C. The automaticity stage D. Incubation

53. Studies show that expert problem-solvers tend to devote more of their mental resources to ____ planning than do novice problem solvers.

A. global B. local C. isomorphic D. heuristic

54. Studies show that expert problem-solvers tend to devote ____ of their mental resources to global planning than do novice problem solvers.

A. less B. more C. the same D. a differing amount (depending on the type of problem)

55. When it comes to writing term papers, Scott takes much longer conducting his research, organizing his notes, and planning his paper than does David. Yet, David requires more time to do the actual writing of the paper than does Scott. From this we can infer that Scott devotes ____ to ____ planning than does David.

A. more time; global B. less time; global C. more time; local D. less time; crystallized

56. ____ refers to a phenomenon whereby repeated experience with a procedure (e.g., problem-solving in a particular domain) may lead to enhanced performance, requiring little conscious effort or control.

A. Proceduralized fixedness B. Facilitation C. Habituation D. Automaticity

57. This particular psychometric approach for assessing creativity looks at the ability of the individual to produce a variety of responses. Those who generate more are seen as being more creative.

A. intentional transfer B. incubation C. convergent production D. divergent production

58. ____ refers to the production of something that is both original and worthwhile.

A. Insight B. Creativity C. Mental set D. Fluidity

59. This specific test for creativity looks at a number of different measures including "diversity, numerosity, and appropriateness of responses to open-ended questions" (e.g., think of all the possible way you can use your shoelaces).

A. Creative Aptitude Test (CAT) B. Torrance Tests of Creative Thinking C. Generative Test of Creativity D. Multiple Measures Test of Creativity

60. This view of creativity suggests that creative people essentially are experts within their particular area. They are likely to study the works of both their predecessors and their contemporaries and well as willing to work hard on the problem.

A. It's What You Know B. It's When You Are C. It's Where You Are D. It's Who You Are

61. This particular view of creativity suggests that there may be personality traits associated with creativity. In general, creative individuals tend to be more flexible in their beliefs as well as more accepting of others beliefs.

A. It's What You Know B. It's When You Are C. It's Where You Are D. It's Who You Are

62. Some researchers argue that ____ motivators are essential to creativity and that ____ motivators may actually impede creativity under some circumstances.

A. global; local B. local; global C. extrinsic; intrinsic D. intrinsic; extrinsic

63. Sheer enjoyment of the creative process and personal desire to solve a problem are examples of ____ motivators.

A. intrinsic B. extrinsic C. global D. local

64. Desire for fame or fortune is an example of a(n) ____ motivator.

A. intrinsic B. extrinsic C. global D. local

65. This particular view of creativity suggests that context is also an important factor (being in the right place at the right time).

A. It's What You Know B. It's When You Are C. It's Where You Are D. It's Who You Are

66. According to Howard Gardner, creative individuals tend to have early family lives that are A. rather strict but moderately supportive.

B. permissive but not supportive.

C. permissive and highly supportive.

D. rather strict and not supportive.

67. Czikszentmihalyi (1996) distinguishes between the ____ and the ____, in which creative work is done.

A. range; domain B. domain; field C. range; field D. field; front

68. This theory suggests that both individual factors as well as environmental factors need to converge in order for creativity to occur. A creative individual, then, often finds undervalued ideas, develops them, and then moves on after others recognize the value of the idea.

A. well-structured problems B. productive theory C. selective-combination insights D. investment theory of creativity

69. According to Sternberg and Lubart's investment theory of creativity, creative individuals A. always take big risks.

B. never take big risks.

C. buy high and sell low in the world of ideas.

D. buy low and sell high in the world of ideas.

70. When Sally looks at her field of expertise she feels that something is missing. She takes elements of prior theories and combines them to form a new approach. The end result is that her work has moved the field in a different direction.

A. replication B. advance forward movement C. redirection from a point in the past D. integration

71. Al is conducting experiments that have already been done in his field of expertise. The results of his contributions help in determining that the field is in fact where it should be. This is an example of what type of creative contribution?

A. redefinition B. replication C. starting over D. integration

72. Alice is displeased with the current theoretical approaches in her field of education and considers many of them merely "fads without substance." She instead focuses on issues that were important over 10 years ago. Her contributions help the field to again focus on what is important. This is an example of what type of creative contribution?

A. redirection from a point in the past B. integration C. replication D. starting over

73. This type of creative contribution provides a different perspective of the field as it already exists. Many of the same methods and techniques can be used - just interpreted in a different light.

A. redirection from a point in the past B. integration C. redefinition D. starting over

74. This type of creative contribution continues with the current direction of the field but simply advances the field where others are ready to go.

A. starting over B. redefinition C. integration D. forward movement

75. If a creative contribution represents an attempt to move the field forward in the direction it is already going, but moves beyond where others are ready for the field to go, it would be known as which type of contribution?

A. reconstruction-redirection B. redirection C. forward movement D. advance forward movement

76. The type of creative contribution known as starting over signifies an A. attempt to move the field to a different and, as yet not reached, starting point and then to move the field in a different direction from that point.

B. attempt to move the field back to where it once was so that they field may move onward from that point.

C. effort to show that a given field is where it should be.

D. attempt to move the field by putting together aspects of two or more past kinds of creative contributions that were formerly viewed as distinct or even opposed but now are seen as synthesized.

77. What is functional fixedness?

78. How might incubation help in insightful problem-solving?

79. Define well structured and ill structured problems.

80. Explain the different Types of Creative Contributions.

81. Explain isomorphic problems. Include what research suggests concerning peoples ability to deal with these types of problems.

82. Compare and contrast Davidson and Sternberg's three kinds of insights.

83. What are the advantages of becoming an expert? What are the disadvantages? Explain.

84. Compare any two of the three perspectives on insight presented in the text. State the strengths and weaknesses of each.

85. Compare and contrast negative and positive transfer.

86. Discuss the similarities and differences between mental set, functional fixedness, and stereotypes for problem solving.

87. Imagine a world of highly creative people, splashed with only a few "non-creative" individuals. Based on your knowledge of creativity, develop a theory of "non-creativity" (lack of creativity) and describe what would characterize these few "non-creative" individuals.

88. Outline an experiment designed to study creativity. Be very clear in specifying it. What measures would you use? What would be your operational definition of creativity?

89. Devise a technique/procedure that would help a person to get out of functional fixedness.

90. Take a problem that you had a difficult time solving and then explain how the problem solving cycle could have been applied or which parts where used.

91. Describe a famous person who is thought to be creative. Include in your discussion: It's how much you produce, it's what you know, it's who you are, it's where you are. Also, if the person lived fifty years later would they still be considered creative?

92. Based on current research and theory on creativity, what advice would you give a friend who would like to be more creative in her or his work?

93. Based on what you know about incubation, what are some of the things you would do if you wanted to facilitate your likelihood of success in solving a problem?

94. Develop an example of a problem situation that can be used to illustrate the problem-solving cycle. State the application of the cycle to the situation for each of the cycle's steps.

95. One factor that often leads to difficulty with problems is problem representation. What advice could you give to help someone with solving problems?

96. Compare and contrast negative and positive transfer. Develop ways in which one could minimize negative transfer and increase positive transfer.

Chapter 11--Problem Solving and Creativity Key

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. C 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. C 11. A 12. B 13. B 14. C 15. C 16. D 17. D 18. C 19. C 20. C 21. D 22. A 23. B 24. D 25. A 26. C 27. A 28. D 29. A

30. B 31. A 32. C 33. C 34. C 35. C 36. C 37. A 38. B 39. B 40. B 41. B 42. A 43. D 44. D 45. B 46. C 47. D 48. A 49. C 50. B 51. A 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. A 56. D 57. D 58. B 59. B 60. A 61. D 62. D 63. A

64. B 65. C 66. A 67. B 68. D 69. D 70. D 71. B 72. A 73. C 74. D 75. D 76. A 77. Answer not provided.

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Chapter 12--Decision Making and Reasoning Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. The goal of ____ is to select from among choices or to evaluate opportunities.

A. reasoning B. judgment and decision making C. reasoning and judgment D. decision making and reasoning

2. Most of the early models of classical decision theory were devised by A. cognitive psychologists.

B. physiological psychologists.

C. philosophers.

D. economists.

3. All of the following statements describe assumptions of an early model of decision making, the "economic man and woman," except one. Identify the assumption not associated with this model.

A. Decision-makers are completely informed of all possible options and all possible outcomes of their decision options.

B. Decision-makers are infinitely sensitive to subtle differences among decision options.

C. Decision-makers are aware that making errors in judgment is inherent in decision-making.

D. Decision-makers are fully rational in regard to their choice of options.

4. What is the goal of human action in decision making, according to the subjective expected utility theory?

A. Utilities for a given action may be predicted for all persons within a given culture.

B. In making decisions, people seek to maximize pleasure and minimize pain.

C. In making decisions, people seek to maximize their maximum gain.

D. In making decisions, people seek to maximize their minimum gain.

5. What is the idea behind the subjective expected utility theory?

A. Utilities for a given action vary from person to person, depending on each person's hopes and fears.

B. In making decisions, people use objective criteria for studying probabilities of outcomes but subjective criteria for evaluating each outcome.

C. In making decisions, people seek to maximize their maximum gain.

D. In making decisions, people seek to maximize their minimum gain.

6. Stephanie and Steve are looking at a variety of cars, as they are trying to select a new vehicle. Given that they selected very different vehicles, it appears that their calculations were based on individual versus objective information. Decisions based on each of their own preferences would be called A. conditional probability.

B. subjective probability.

C. bounded rationality.

D. false-consensus effect.

7. When making a decision, the use of one's individual values versus use of objective criteria is reflective of what concept?

A. subjective utility B. subjective probability C. conditional probability D. pragmatic reasoning

8. This notion suggests that we do not have infinite sensitivity when evaluating an number of different options.

Rather when making decisions "we are rational but within limits."

A. opportunity costs B. subjective probability C. bounded rationality D. perspective effects

9. According to ____, we typically use a decision-making strategy called satisficing.

A. Amos Tversky B. Michael Ross C. Daniel Kahneman D. Herbert Simon

10. The theory of satisficing states that A. all decision making is strengthened or weakened depending on whether there is a reward for a certain decision.

B. decision making is geared toward seeking to maximize pleasure and minimize pain.

C. we consider options one by one, and then we select an option as soon as we find one that is just good enough.

D. people make decisions that would ultimately bring satisfaction to themselves, regardless of the effect the decision has on others.

11. Satisficing makes it more difficult for people to make fully rational decisions because, in satisficing, A. we do not consider all possible options, but rather consider a few until we find one that is satisfactory.

B. we consider the additional variable of an incentive, or reward, in the decision-making process.

C. we limit the number of options we consider in causing us to seek to minimize pain.

D. we often become irrational and unable to make a well-reasoned decision.

12. ____ is a process in which we focus on one attribute of the various options, form a minimum criterion for that attribute, and then exclude all options that do not meet that criterion.

A. Illusory correlation B. Inductive reasoning C. Modus ponens D. Elimination by aspects

13. This type of reasoning is used when evaluating scientific hypotheses and is an estimate of the likelihood of one event given another event.

A. subjective utility B. subjective probability C. conditional probability D. pragmatic reasoning

14. A group has to make a decision under anxious circumstances. During the discussion the group members are trying to avoid any conflicts and so any dissent is quickly dismissed which leads to the group coming to a premature decision. This is an example of A. group cohesion.

B. group think.

C. pragmatic reasoning schema.

D. overconfidence.

15. Rob has appointed himself to enforce the group norm. So during the discussion every time Ralph brings up an objection Rob counters what Ralph has to say. Sometimes criticizing Ralph himself. Criticism of Ralph would be an example of A. squelching of dissent.

B. closed-mindedness.

C. a group enforcer.

D. formation of a "mindguard."

16. Instead of studying for a big exam the next day, a group of students instead decided to go see a movie.

When questioned about why they were going to the movie instead of studying, Ralph explained that "Going to the movie was a way of helping the mind to relax, and in fact, by going to the movie, they were going to make their study time later more effective because of the improved mood that they will be in. So by not going to the movie they were actually hurting their grades." From the group think perspective, this is an example of A. rationalization.

B. feeling unanimous.

C. justification.

D. discussion enforcer.

17. Rob has self appointed himself to enforce the group norm. So during the discussion every time Ralph brings up an objection Rob counters what Ralph has to say. Sometimes criticizing Ralph himself. Rob's self appointed role can be seen as A. discussion enforcer .

B. closed-mindedness.

C. formation of a "mindguard."

D. squelching of dissent.

18. One of the symptoms of groupthink is when a group thinks that due to the qualities of the group (i.e., intelligence) that it must have made the correct decision. This would be an example of A. feeling invulnerable.

B. feeling unanimous.

C. squelching of dissent.

D. closed-mindedness.

19. During groupthink the group is not willing to entertain other ideas that are inconsistent with the view of the group. This would be an example of A. group focus.

B. close-mindedness.

C. rationalization.

D. feeling unanimous.

20. Which of the following is not a heuristic people use in making decisions?

A. Representativeness B. Availability C. Adjustment-from-an-anchor D. Categorical

21. Wilma throws two peaches, two apples, and two pears into a basket and shakes up the basket. Blindfolded, she takes each piece of fruit from the basket and places them all in a line on a table. According to Tom, who is using the heuristic of representativeness, which of the following is the most probable arrangement?

A. peach, pear, apple, pear, apple, peach B. pear, pear, apple, apple, peach, peach C. apple, apple, pear, pear, peach, peach D. pear, peach, apple, pear, peach, apple

22. Andy is throwing dice. The probability that he will throw a 1,2,3,4,5,6 sequence is ____ than/as his throwing a 4,2,5,6,3,1 sequence.

A. 6 times smaller B. 36 times smaller C. not as great D. the same

23. This notion is the mistaken belief that the current probability of event is influence by prior random events (e.g., flipping a coin and the person get heads 8 times, s/he believes that the 9th coin flip is more likely to be tails).

A. Sunken Costs B. Adjustment from Anchor Heuristic C. Gambler's Fallacy D. Inclusion Fallacy

24. Andy is watching basketball and sees that a player on "his team" has made the last three shots that he took.

Andy keeps say "give"--------"the ball!" This demonstrates Andy's belief in (the) A. fast-and-frugal heuristic B. take-the-best heuristic C. hot hand D. availability heuristic

25. A gambler has lost a game in which there is a 0.5 chance of winning. In fact, she has now lost six times and is trying to figure out her odds of winning on the next try. Taking into consideration the six previous times she lost, her chance of winning is now A. more than 50%.

B. less than 50%.

C. exactly 50%.

D. more than 75%.

26. "I keep hearing about that book, so it must be worth reading." This statement suggests use of what heuristic?

A. availability B. antithesis C. synthesis D. antisynthesis

27. Imagine a professional tennis player. It is ____ probable that he has a graphite tennis racquet than a graphite racquet with high-quality grip tape and a quality shock absorber.

A. more B. slightly less C. equally D. much less

28. This bias is such that a larger group is more likely to be judged as having a particular trait than compared to a smaller subset of the group.

A. causal inference B. adjustment from anchor C. overextension errors D. inclusion fallacy

29. Although their sum is the same, which group would appear to have the greatest sum, using the adjustment-from-an-anchor heuristic?

A. 1+3+2+4+8+17+21+33 B. 33+17+8+21+3+1+2+4 C. 33+21+17+8+2+3+1+4 D. 3+2+8+17+33+21+4+1

30. Because of the ____ we falsely tend to see particular attributes, categories, or events as going together.

A. fallacy of composition B. tendency to perceive illusory correlation C. hindsight bias D. framing effect

31. The effect of the context on an individual's decision making is referred to as the A. fallacy of composition.

B. hindsight bias.

C. framing effect.

D. conjunction fallacy.

32. John often relies on his own experiences and the accuracy of his judgment over the judgment of others based on what he knows of his own skills and knowledge. This would be an example of (a/an) A. exclusion fallacy.

B. subjective probability.

C. framing effect.

D. overconfidence.

33. Carl recently bought a used car--and it's a lemon. He has spent thousands of dollars on repairing the car, and this week, the mechanic told him it needs a new radiator. Carl thinks about how much money he has put into the car and thinks that, because he has invested so much money in repairs, he'd be better off just making the repair as opposed to spending money to buy a new car. Carl is a victim of A. overconfidence.

B. the sunk-cost fallacy.

C. opportunity costs.

D. hindsight bias.

34. This notion realizes that when a potentially advantageous situation arises that one may need to consider the "price" for taking advantage of the situation. In others words, this concept recognizes that making one decision may come at the price of other potential situations.

A. opportunity costs B. overconfidence C. inclusion fallacy D. bounded rationality

35. Michelle was trying to figure out the best way to take notes. She tried both a deductive and an inductive approach. She tried highlighting the most important facts. After the exam, she realized it would have been much more to her advantage to concentrate on specifics. Michelle's realization is an example of A. overconfidence.

B. the framing effect.

C. the illusory correlation.

D. the hindsight bias.

36. This particular heuristic sets a standard of rationality based on a number of factors and then makes decisions based on this criteria. This type of decision making is often in environments in which there are often less that optimum solutions.

A. conjunction fallacy B. fast-and-frugal heuristic C. take-the-best heuristic D. hot hand

37. As part of the job interview process for a large corporation, Wilma is taken out to lunch. She is trying to decide what to order. When making the decision, she is taking into consideration a number of factors (i.e., cost of the food, ease of eating with out any embarrassing moments, etc.). She then selects an item that meets these criteria. This would be an example of A. fast-and-frugal heuristic B. conjunction fallacy C. overconfidence heuristic D. take-the-best heuristic

38. Deductive reasoning makes use of ____ which can be thought of as assertions that can be either true or false.

A. satisficing B. subjective expected utility theory C. method of difference D. proposition

39. The goal of ____ is to draw conclusions from principles and from evidence.

A. reasoning B. problem solving C. judgment and decision making D. decision making and reasoning

40. A primary type of deductive reasoning in which the reasoner must draw a conclusion based on an if-then proposition is referred to as A. conditional reasoning.

B. modus tollens argument.

C. a linear syllogism.

D. a categorical syllogism.

41. Which of the following is false regarding deductive and inductive reasoning?

A. Deductive reasoning involves reasoning from general principles to specific facts or instances.

B. Syllogisms involve deductive reasoning.

C. Inductively based conclusions can be proved, whereas deductively based conclusions cannot be proved.

D. Inductively reasoned arguments can be disproved by even one contrary observation.

42. Which of the following statements is not deductively valid?

A. If people watch television, then they get a headache. They watch television. Therefore, they get a headache.

B. If a student writes an abstract for a paper, then she gets a good grade. A student's paper is abstract. Therefore, the student gets a good grade.

C. If the sky is clear, then there are no clouds. The sky is clear. Therefore, there are no clouds.

D. If a black cat crosses your path, then you will have bad luck. A black cat crosses your path. Therefore, you will have bad luck.

43. Which of the following is a modus ponens argument?

A. If you are happy, then you smile. You are happy. Therefore, you smile.

B. If thieves are skilled, they do not bungle their robberies. Thieves are not skilled. Therefore, they bungle their robberies.

C. If you are happy, then you smile. You are not happy. Therefore, you do not smile.

D. If thieves are skilled, then they do not bungle their robberies. Thieves do not bungle their robberies.

Therefore, they are skilled.

44. Which of the following is a modus tollens argument?

A. If you are born, then you have parents. You do not have parents. Therefore, you are not born.

B. If a fly bites you, then your arm swells. A fly bites you. Therefore, your arm swells.

C. If you eat too much, then you get fat. You do not eat too much. Therefore, you do not get fat.

D. If fish live in the water, then they have gills. Fish do not live in the water. Therefore, they do not have gills.

45. The conditional proposition is "If it is a chair then it is a piece of furniture". Existing condition is that it is not a chair. The inference made is that it is not a piece of furniture. This particular type of fallacy is called A. affirming the antecedent.

B. affirming the consequent.

C. denying the antecedent.

D. denying the consequent.

46. The conditional proposition is "If it is a chair then it is a piece of furniture. " Existing condition is that it is a piece of furniture. The inference made is that it is a chair. This particular type of fallacy is called A. affirming the antecedent.

B. affirming the consequent.

C. denying the antecedent.

D. denying the consequent.

47. General organizing principles related to specific types of goals are termed A. confirmation bias.

B. pragmatic reasoning schemas.

C. casual inferences.

D. fallacies.

48. Mark sees a man walk into a bank downtown. Suddenly, alarms sound, people scream, and Mark sees the same man run out of the bank carrying a gun and a bag of money. Because Mark has never seen such an occurrence before, he uses a ____ to deduce that the man is a robber.

A. conversion strategy B. syllogistic schema C. transitive-inference strategy D. pragmatic reasoning schema

49. Deductive arguments that involve drawing conclusions from two premises are referred to as a(n) A. illicit conversion.

B. modus ponens argument.

C. syllogism.

D. modus tollens argument.

50. David is shorter than Maria. Maria is shorter than her brother. Who is the shortest?

The above is an example of a(n) A. illicit conversion.

B. categorical syllogism.

C. if-then statement.

D. linear syllogism.

51. All of the following are parts of a categorical syllogism except A. the major premise.

B. the conditional premise.

C. the minor premise.

D. the conclusion.

52. Which of the following is not a recognized way of solving linear syllogisms?

A. spatially representing the syllogisms B. semantically solving them using propositions C. representing the syllogisms in an auditory form D. using propositions and then spatially representing the syllogisms

53. Elephants live longer than turtles. Turtles live longer than cats. Which lives the longest? The above is an example of a(n) A. linear syllogism.

B. illicit conversion.

C. if-then statement.

D. categorical syllogism.

54. With syllogisms there are some combinations that one is unable to "draw logically valid conclusions from."

Identify which combination of forms would be considered not logically valid.

A. two universal affirmatives statements B. two particular affirmative statements C. one universal affirmative and one particular affirmative statement D. one universal negative statement and one particular affirmative statement

55. All animals breathe. All humans are animals. Therefore, all humans breathe. The above is an example of a(n) A. if-then statement.

B. linear syllogism.

C. illicit conversion.

D. categorical syllogism.

56. Janet is trying to solve a syllogism. The particular sequencing of the terms has prevented her from reaching an accurate conclusion. Instead of first deciding whether the syllogism is deductively valid, she jumps to a conclusion. Janet was influenced by ____ effects/reasoning.

A. premise-phrasing B. foreclosure C. ad hominem D. overextension

57. These types of statements for a categorical syllogism are in the form "All A are B" in which a positive statement is made about all the members in that class (e.g., all cognitive psychology students are brilliant).

A. particular affirmative statements B. particular negative statements C. universal affirmatives D. universal negative statements

58. These types of statements for a categorical syllogism are in the form "No A are B" in which a negative statement is made about all members in that class (e.g., no cognitive psychology students are unicyclists).

A. particular affirmative statements B. particular negative statements C. universal affirmatives D. universal negative statements

59. These types of statements for a categorical syllogism are in the form "Some A are B" in which a subset of the members in that class are said to belong to or posses quality B (e.g., some cognitive psychology students are basketball players).

A. particular affirmative statements B. particular negative statements C. universal affirmatives D. universal negative statements

60. These types of statements for a categorical syllogism are in the form "Some A are not B" in which a subset of the members in that class are said to not belong to or posses quality B (e.g., some cognitive psychology students are not basketball players).

A. particular affirmative statements B. particular negative statements C. universal affirmatives D. universal negative statements

61. Premise 1: No cats are dogs. Premise 2: Some people are nervous. Rob uses a particular strategy to solve a categorical syllogism. Based on premise 2 (above), his conclusion is negative. Based on premise 2, his conclusion is particular. The strategy Rob is using is the A. Venn diagram.

B. illicit-conversion strategy.

C. pragmatic-reasoning schema.

D. atmosphere theory.

62. This theory for solving syllogisms suggests that semantic processes are used to construct an analogous representation which may or may not lead to deductively valid conclusion.

A. mental models B. categorical syllogisms C. linear syllogisms D. categorical inferences

63. Applying prior strategies with syllogisms to new situations in which they may not work would be a type of heuristic which is called A. opportunity costs.

B. illusory correlation.

C. overextension errors.

D. discounting error.

64. If we fail to consider all of the possibilities before reaching a conclusion, we are experiencing the ____ effect.

A. premise-phrasing B. foreclosure C. ad hominem D. canon

65. We tend to find support for our conclusions through our mental models and other cognitive processes when we engage in A. pragmatic reasoning.

B. overextension errors.

C. confirmation bias.

D. overconfidence.

66. Putting all the pieces of evidence together leads us to a conclusion: "The butler did it." This reasoning is A. deductive.

B. inductive.

C. abductive.

D. reductive.

67. ____, during the late 1800s, proposed a set of canons, widely accepted principles on which people may base their judgments.

A. Michael Faraday B. John Stuart Mill C. Jerome Bruner D. John Holland

68. Mill's method of ____ refers to inductively reasoned conclusions based on whether, of all the possible causes of an outcome, only one is present in all the instances of the given outcome.

A. agreement B. difference C. contrast D. similarity

69. Cindy is conducting an experiment. She manipulates all of the variables but one to observe whether the particular variable is directly associated with the predicted outcome. This method is analogous to the A. method of agreement.

B. canon effect.

C. method of difference.

D. analogy procedure.

70. Any time an event occurs there may be any number of contributing factors (e.g., computer crash). For this particular phenomenon, ____, once we find one factor we often stop looking for other contributing factors.

A. exclusion fallacy B. bounded rationality C. overextension errors D. discounting error

71. Research into inductive reasoning takes a look at how people make judgments concerning what causes something else.

A. causal inferences B. satisficing C. subjective expected utility theory D. discounting error

72. With this particular type of confirmation bias, one may have low expectations of another in which that person then respond with less of an effort. The person's behavior than "confirms" your beliefs.

A. availability heuristic B. self fulfilling prophecy C. reasoning by analogy D. overextension error

73. "Fire is to asbestos as water is to (a) vinyl, (b) air, (c) cotton, (d) faucet". This is an example of A. reasoning by analogy.

B. conditional reasoning.

C. social exchange schema.

D. bounded rationality.

74. Which form of reasoning is used in solving verbal analogies?

A. pragmatic B. inductive C. syllogistic D. prepositional

75. This alternative view to reasoning suggests that there are two complementary systems for reasoning. One system, the ____, is involved with mental operations that are based on observed similarities and temporal contiguities while the ____ is involved with manipulating the relations among symbols.

A. heuristics; biases B. biases; heuristics C. association system; rule-base system D. rule-base system; association system

76. Sloman suggests that we have two systems for reasoning, a rule-based system and a(n) A. random system.

B. dialectical system.

C. paradigmatic system.

D. associative system.

77. If people were asked which of the following sequences would be the most probable, how would most people respond? Why? Nine marbles are drawn at random from a bin containing 33 red, 33 white, and 33 blue marbles. The drawn marbles are then lined up. The possible sequences are as follows: R, W, R, B, W W B, R, B R,R,R,R,W,W,W,W,B B, R, W, R, B, W, B, R, W R, R, R, R, R, R, R, R, R

78. Explain the adjustment-from-an-anchor heuristic and give an example. Which part is the anchor?

79. Define modus ponens, modus tollens, denying the antecedent, and affirming the consequent arguments. Give examples of each to show the distinctions.

80. John Stuart Mill proposed a set of canons to explain the processes of inductive reasoning. Describe both the method of agreement canon and the method of difference canon and offer an instance in which each method is applicable.

81. Explain each of the six symptoms of group think.

82. Contrast both the utility-maximization theory and the subjective-utility theory with another model of decision-making.

83. Contrast linear syllogisms with categorical syllogisms. Offer an example of each and label the subjects, middle terms, and predicates.

84. For categorical syllogisms, what are the differences between universal and particular arguments?

85. Compare and contrast inductive and deductive reasoning.

86. Compare and contrast the following items: take-the-best heuristic, fast-and-frugal heuristic, and pragmatic reasoning schemas. What do these say overall about problem solving?

87. Explain what John Stuart Mill meant by his method of difference. Then illustrate your answer with an example.

88. Create a test that will measure students' knowledge of the difference between categorical syllogisms and linear syllogisms.

89. Apply the social-exchange schema to say dating behavior in a bar. What would the theory suggest about such an approach?

90. Apply the concepts satisficing and elimination by aspects to a few examples.

91. Take the six symptoms of group think and discuss different methods (safeguards) that one could use to decrease the likelihood of this happening. Presenting this information in an example may be helpful.

92. How can deciding on a college or graduate school be an example of subjective utility theory?

93. Give a real-world example of the representativeness heuristic not found in the textbook.

94. A friend of yours is a law student interested in thinking of ways that minimize erroneous conclusions. She knows that you are studying this topic for your psychology class and asks you to explain to her some of the most common reasoning errors. What would you tell her?

95. The section "Alternative View of Reasoning" in the textbook describes two complementary systems of reasoning. Describe and discuss how each system would respond to the same problem.

96. Discuss the various advantages and disadvantages of say having the government using the Rule-Based System to justify all decisions made from various perspectives (e.g., economic responsibility, social responsibility, etc.). What would be the advantages and disadvantages? Would this make our government more efficient (effective) or less efficient (effective)?

Chapter 12--Decision Making and Reasoning Key

1. B 2. D 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. B 7. A 8. C 9. D 10. C 11. A 12. D 13. C 14. B 15. A 16. A 17. C 18. A 19. B 20. D 21. A 22. D 23. C 24. C 25. C 26. A 27. A 28. D 29. C

30. B 31. C 32. D 33. B 34. A 35. D 36. B 37. D 38. D 39. A 40. A 41. C 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. C 46. B 47. B 48. D 49. C 50. D 51. B 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. D 56. A 57. C 58. D 59. A 60. B 61. D 62. A 63. C

64. B 65. C 66. B 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. D 71. A 72. B 73. A 74. B 75. C 76. D 77. Answer not provided.

78. Answer not provided.

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Chapter 13--Human and Artificial Intelligence Student: ___________________________________________________________________________ 1. Researchers vary in their conceptions of intelligence, yet they generally embrace two themes: A. the capacity to learn from experience and the ability to select your environment.

B. the capacity to learn from experience and the ability to adapt to the surrounding environment.

C. the capacity to learn from experience and the ability to shape your environment.

D. the capacity to learn from experience and the ability to influence others.

2. People's understanding and control of their own thinking is called A. intelligence.

B. learning.

C. metacognition.

D. human reasoning.

3. Our personal, unstated ideas of what it means to be smart are called ____ of intelligence.

A. implicit theories B. explicit theories C. tacit theories D. unconscious theories

4. Mayer and Salovey have done extensive research in the area of A. cognitive intelligence.

B. triarchic intelligence.

C. social intelligence.

D. emotional intelligence.

5. ____ was an early researcher of intelligence who viewed intelligence as a function of psychophysical abilities. He developed tests, such as weight discrimination, to measure intelligence.

A. Alfred Binet B. Clark Wissler C. Francis Galton D. Theodosius Simon

6. Mary is trying to study for an exam and asks Tom to lower the radio. After Tom lowers it, Mary insists that the radio is still just as loud. Although Tom notices the change in loudness, Mary does not. According to ____, Mary's intelligence is not great, as indicated by her poor auditory sensitivity.

A. Alfred Binet B. Clark Wissler C. Francis Galton D. Theodosius Simon

7. Among the early researchers of intelligence, Francis Galton viewed ____ as the key to intelligence, whereas Alfred Binet viewed ____ as most central to intelligence.

A. adaptation; mental judgment B. psychophysical abilities; verbal competence C. adaptation; verbal competence D. psychophysical abilities; mental judgment

8. Elizabeth is planning to go to law school. As a sophomore in college, she knows exactly what she needs to do to ensure that she will succeed in entering the law school of her choice. According to Alfred Binet, Elizabeth shows great intelligence as reflected in her A. adaptation.

B. direction.

C. criticism.

D. skill.

9. Brian is trying to quit smoking. He has decided systematically to smoke one cigarette less for every week that goes by and to give himself a celebratory treat at the end of each successful week. According to Alfred Binet, Brian shows great intelligence, as shown in his A. adaptation.

B. direction.

C. criticism.

D. skill.

10. A mental age of 8 refers to A. the intelligence of any 8-year-old.

B. a score of 8 on a standard intelligence test.

C. a person who utilizes only 80% of his or her brain capacity.

D. the average level of intelligence of an 8-year-old.

11. The intelligence quotient (IQ) is the ratio of A. chronological age divided by mental age.

B. mental age divided by chronological age.

C. chronological age divided by mental age, multiplied by 100.

D. mental age divided by chronological age, multiplied by 100.

12. The Wechsler intelligence tests yield three scores: A. verbal, analytical, and performance scores.

B. verbal, analytical, and mathematical scores.

C. verbal, analytical, and overall scores.

D. verbal, performance, and overall scores.

13. A psychologist is giving Amy an intelligence test. Amy has been asked to rearrange a scrambled set of cartoon-like pictures into an order that tells a coherent story. From this description, we can tell that the intelligence test that Amy is taking was probably originally developed by A. David Wechsler.

B. Earl Hunt.

C. Francis Galton.

D. Howard Gardner.

14. Factor analysis is best understood as A. a critical analysis of a psychological construct.

B. an analysis of the factors most important in constructing a cogent scientific argument.

C. a statistical method that seeks to identify separate underlying sources of individual differences in performance on tests.

D. a method of logic used to derive the main factors of an analytical argument.

15. ____ are all intelligence researchers who used factor analysis extensively to determine various factors underlying intelligence.

A. Spearman, R. Cattell, and Galton B. Hunt, Jensen, and R. Cattell C. Spearman, Hunt, and R. Cattell D. Spearman, R. Cattell, and Guilford

16. ____ concluded that a general factor, which he labeled "g," provides the key to understanding intelligence.

A. Spearman B. Wechsler C. Sternberg D. Gardner

17. ____ are some of Thurstone's primary mental abilities.

A. Direction, adaptation, and criticism B. Verbal, performance, and overall abilities C. Analytical, creative, and practical abilities D. Number, memory, and perceptual speed abilities

18. The main subfactors of intelligence, according to R. Cattell, are A. practical-, mechanical-, and verbal-educational.

B. fluid and crystallized intelligence.

C. verbal and performance abilities.

D. memory and reasoning abilities.

19. Bertha is in an experiment in which she is looking at stimuli presented on a computer screen. She has to judge which of two lines is the longest. After presentation of the stimuli for a brief amount of time a mask is presented on the screen. It appears that Bertha is in an experiment looking at A. lexical access speed.

B. computer literacy.

C. inspection time.

D. social intelligence.

20. According to Jensen's view of intelligence, the smart person is someone A. whose neural circuits conduct information rapidly.

B. who can use most of his or her brain capacity.

C. whose brain has a specified balance of neurotransmitters.

D. who has well-developed frontal lobes.

21. The time it takes to select one answer from among several possibilities is called A. reaction time.

B. movement time.

C. reasoning time.

D. choice reaction time.

22. Lexical-access speed refers to the speed with which we can retrieve information about A. words stored in our long-term memories.

B. whether or not letters match physically.

C. whether or not words rhyme.

D. whether letters are upper- or lower-case.

23. Verifying whether a sentence is true or not and having to remember the last word for each sentence is an example of testing ____ which is viewed as an important component in intelligence that is reflected by the ability to actively manipulate and maintain information.

A. working memory B. componential analysis C. choice reaction time D. means-ends analysis

24. According to Sternberg's componential theory of information processing, the components or mental processes and strategies used in performing tasks found on conventional intelligence tests, such as analogies, do not include A. encoding each term of the problem.

B. inferring relations between some of the terms.

C. mapping inferred relations to other terms of the problem.

D. reducing problems to a manageable size.

25. According to Sternberg's research, more intelligent subjects take ____ during encoding and formulation of a general strategy to solve a problem; they also take ____ to form and implement strategies for the details of the task.

A. more time; less time B. less time; less time C. less time; more time D. research is inconclusive

26. Susan is a very bright student. She has noticed that, overall, it takes her less time to write a paper than it does some of her student friends. According to Sternberg's componential analysis research, Susan most likely takes ____ to research and plan the writing of her papers and ____ to do the actual writing of it.

A. more time; less time B. less time; less time C. less time; more time D. about the same amount of time; less time

27. ____ is an aspect of problem solving during which the person encodes the problem and formulates a general strategy for attacking the problem.

A. Fluid planning B. Crystallized planning C. Global planning D. Local planning

28. ____ is an aspect of problem solving during which the person devises and implements detailed tactics.

A. Fluid planning B. Crystallized planning C. Global planning D. Local planning

29. Physiological studies of intelligence suggest that higher intelligence correlates with ____ levels of glucose metabolism during problem-solving tasks; that is, smarter brains consume ____ sugar than do less smart brains doing the same task.

A. reduced; more B. reduced; less C. greater; more D. greater; less

30. According to contextualists, A. intelligence is not something that a culture creates.

B. intelligence can be understood outside its real-world context.

C. researchers must study how intelligence relates to the external world in which intelligence is being applied.

D. intelligence is what intelligence tests measure.

31. Researchers who study the effects of cultural differences on intelligence-test scores have shown that the IQs of first-generation Italian-Americans (less than a century ago) had a median of 87 (low average). Today, Italian-American students show slightly above average IQs. The most plausible explanation of such remarkable gains is A. heredity.

B. cultural assimilation.

C. greater motivation.

D. better nutrition.

32. ____ is a concept describing testing that is equally appropriate and fair for members of all cultures.

A. Culture testing relevance B. Cultural relativism C. Culture-fair testing D. Cultural contextualism

33. The use of a timed task as a measure of intelligence within a culture that does not value quickness illustrates A. the problems that may arise when using culturally bound methods in research.

B. the value of speed of information processing in intelligence research.

C. the importance of viewing intelligence in terms of the speed of neural conduction.

D. the universally high correlation between speed of information processing and intelligence.

34. Culture-relevant tests employ skills and knowledge that A. are not relevant to the cultural experiences of the test-takers.

B. are relevant to the cultural experiences of the test-takers.

C. are fixed at birth.

D. can derive from any culture.

35. The design of test items ____ is not an example of a basic strategy for attempting to create culture-relevant tests.

A. based on content and procedures that are novel to almost anyone, regardless of cultural context, B. based on content and procedures that are familiar to almost anyone, regardless of cultural context, C. that can be translated into the cultural context of the test-takers, while taking into account the culture-based knowledge and skills of the test-takers, D. that are translated from one language to another

36. Among the following statements that accurately describe Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, there is a false statement. Identify the false statement.

A. His theory integrates many aspects of intelligence.

B. He defines eight distinct intelligences that are relatively independent of each other.

C. His theory is a factorial theory, where each of the eight intelligences is a different factor of intelligence.

D. He views the mind as modular, such that the different intelligences can be distinguished through activities of distinct portions of the brain.

37. Suzanne is going to a party where there is some dancing in addition to the usual mingling. According to Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences, which type of intelligence will Suzanne require the most?

A. intrapersonal intelligence B. interpersonal intelligence C. musical intelligence D. spatial intelligence

38. Cathy has been striving to learn more about who she truly is and what makes her tick. According to Gardner's theory of intelligence, Cathy will be primarily calling upon her ____ intelligence in this effort.

A. intuitive B. interpersonal C. intrapersonal D. sensual

39. Which is not one of Gardner's intelligences?

A. linguistic B. bodily-kinesthetic C. musical D. artistic

40. Dan tends to have trouble in parallel-parking his car, as he is never sure where the car's front and back are with respect to the sidewalk. From this description, we can conclude that Dan's ____ intelligence is not very high.

A. bodily-kinesthetic B. action C. spatial D. object-relational

41. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of human intelligence, intelligence comprises three aspects; these deal with the relation of intelligence to the A. internal world of the person, to experience, and to the external world.

B. internal world of the person, to the external world, and to heredity.

C. selection, shaping, and modification of our environments.

D. reasoning, problem solving, and decision making of the individual.

42. According to Sternberg, ____ are executive processes used to plan, monitor, and evaluate problem solving.

A. performance components B. knowledge-acquisition components C. metacomponents D. megacomponents

43. Steve was asked to write a term paper for his history class. As he decides on a topic and plans the paper, he will primarily be using his A. metacomponents.

B. performance components.

C. knowledge-acquisition components.

D. creative components.

44. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of human intelligence, how intelligence relates to ____ is the aspect of intelligence that emphasizes information processing, viewed in terms of three different kinds of information-processing components.

A. the internal world B. experience C. the external world D. none of these

45. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of intelligence, intelligence comprises A. analytical, creative, and inferential abilities.

B. verbal, mathematical, and analytical abilities.

C. logistic, inferential, and dynamic abilities.

D. analytical, creative, and practical abilities.

46. According to the triarchic theory, in ____, we try to solve familiar problems by using strategies that manipulate the elements of a problem or the relationships among the elements.

A. analytical thinking B. creative thinking C. practical thinking D. none of these

47. James needs to write a paper for his psychology class that compares and contrasts Gardner's and Sternberg's theories of intelligence. According to the triarchic theory of intelligence, this task will require James to use his ____ abilities the most.

A. analytical B. creative C. practical D. naturalistic

48. According to the triarchic theory, in ____, we try to solve new kinds of problems that require us to think about the problem and its elements in a new way.

A. analytical thinking B. creative thinking C. practical thinking D. none of these

49. Sarah must write a poem for her poetry class. According to the triarchic theory of intelligence, this task will require Sarah to use her ____ abilities the most.

A. analytical B. creative C. practical D. naturalistic

50. According to the triarchic theory, in ____, we try to solve problems that apply what we know to everyday contexts.

A. analytical thinking B. creative thinking C. practical thinking D. naturalistic thinking

51. Adam, a kindergarten teacher, needs to figure out what to do with a couple of children who do not seem to get along and tend to disrupt the class. According to the triarchic theory of intelligence, this task will require Adam to use his ____ abilities the most.

A. analytical B. creative C. practical D. naturalistic

52. According to Sternberg, ____ are lower-order processes used for implementing the commands of the metacomponents.

A. knowledge-acquisition components B. performance components C. fluid components D. crystallized components

53. Janet, a college professor, needs to prepare a new course syllabus for a class she will be teaching. During the actual writing of the syllabus, she will primarily use her A. metacomponents.

B. performance components.

C. knowledge-acquisition components.

D. creative components.

54. According to Sternberg, ____ are the processes used for learning how to solve problems in the first place.

A. metacomponents B. performance components C. learning components D. knowledge-acquisition components

55. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of human intelligence, how intelligence relates to ____ is the aspect of intelligence that emphasizes how prior events in our lives may interact with all three kinds of information-processing components.

A. the internal world B. experience C. the external world D. the dialectic

56. According to Sternberg's triarchic theory of human intelligence, how intelligence relates to ____ is the aspect of intelligence that emphasizes the application of the information-processing components to the world in order to adapt to, shape, and select our environments.

A. the internal world B. experience C. the external world D. the dialectic

57. Jeffrey is learning how to prepare a new dish for his restaurant. As he does some research to learn about the specifics of the new dish, he will primarily be using his A. metacomponents.

B. performance components.

C. knowledge-acquisition components.

D. creative components.

58. According to the triarchic theory of intelligence, in deciding to attend one college rather than other colleges, students use the various information-processing components of intelligence to ____ their environment.

A. select B. adapt to C. shape D. identify

59. When taking a new class, students try to figure out how a new professor grades and what she expects of the students in order to know how to do well in the course. According to the triarchic theory of intelligence, in doing so, the students are using the various information-processing components of intelligence to ____ their environment.

A. select B. adapt to C. shape D. identify

60. In college, students actively ____ their current environments when they decide what courses to take and what activities to pursue.

A. represent B. adapt to C. shape D. identify

61. According to the triarchic theory of intelligence, an intelligent person is best described as someone A. who excels in all aspects of intelligence.

B. who capitalizes on strengths and compensates for weaknesses.

C. who processes novel information quickly and effectively.

D. whose brain metabolizes glucose efficiently.

62. Today, many researchers of intelligence believe that intelligence is A. determined wholly by our environment.

B. malleable.

C. determined wholly by our inheritance.

D. completely fixed.

63. Programs like Head Start view intelligence as A. fixed at birth.

B. malleable.

C. determined by our inheritance.

D. completely fixed.

64. Researchers who study the development of intelligence in young children have found that several factors in the preschool child's home environment may be linked to high IQ scores. One such factor is not A. emotional and verbal responsivity of the primary caregiver.

B. the caregiver's involvement with the child.

C. opportunity for variety in daily stimulation.

D. political ideology.

65. Which of the following aspects has the least profound effect on a person's intelligence?

A. the person's environment B. the person's motivation C. the person's knowledge of the culture in general D. the person's knowledge of a sport in particular

66. According to most researchers of intelligence, heredity A. fixes at birth a person's level of intelligence.

B. sets some kind of lower limit on how intelligent a person may become.

C. sets some kind of upper limit on how intelligent a person may become.

D. has no bearing on an individual's level of intelligence.

67. ____ requires an understanding of abstract and often novel relations, as required in inductive-reasoning tests, such as analogies and series completions.

A. Fluid intelligence B. Crystallized intelligence C. Verbal comprehension D. Operational intelligence

68. A person's reaction range of intelligence refers to A. a view of intelligence as partly genetic, in which a person's intelligence can be developed further within broad limits of potential intelligence.

B. a measure of creative intelligence, in which subjects are asked to generate as many reactions or uses of particular materials as possible in creativity tasks.

C. a psychophysical index of intelligence, in which the range of subjects' responses to various psychophysical stimuli is measured.

D. the person's maximum possible attained level of intelligence.

69. ____ represents the accumulation of knowledge and is measured, for example, by vocabulary tests and general-information tests.

A. Fluid intelligence B. Verbal comprehension C. Creative intelligence D. Crystallized intelligence

70. Stephanie is a computer expert. Lately, she has been studying how human intelligence may be mimicked by the way computer programs perform when solving a problem. Stephanie's computational model of cognitive processing reflects a(n) ____ approach to the study of intelligence.

A. structural B. artificial intelligence C. psychophysical D. psychometric

71. One way of implementing ____ is to develop a symbol processing system (e.g., a software program or computer) that simulates cognitive processes.

A. structural B. artificial intelligence C. psychophysical D. psychometric

72. This proposed method of determining if a computer program is intelligent is if it passes the ____. The AI program passes if an individual has a difficult time distinguishing between the performance ("conversation") of a human from that of a computer.

A. Intuition Test B. Chatterbot Test C. Turing Test D. MYCIN Test

73. This iterative method of problem solving involves reducing the difference between your current state and your goal state.

A. global planning B. fluid intelligence C. means-ends analysis D. componential analysis

74. This AI program uses means-ends analysis to solve problems such that the goal of the program is to reduce the difference between one's current state and one's goal state.

A. general problem solver B. Deep Blue C. DENDRAL D. SHRDLU

75. This AI program takes the role of a nondirective psychotherapist in which the program reflects back the feeling of the patient.

A. Logic Theorist B. Guidon C. NEOMYCIN D. Eliza

76. This program takes the role of a paranoid patient of a psychotherapist. Simulation of a paranoid patient is based on a theory of neurotic processes.

A. PARRY B. SHRDLU C. Eliza D. Turing

77. ____ are a type of AI computer program that simulate the reasoning of competent individuals in a particular area of specialty (use if-then rules to capture this knowledge).

A. Expert systems B. Case-based reasoning C. General Problem Solver (GPS) D. Emergent Intelligence Program

78. ____ is an expert system, that is able to make medical diagnoses and treatment suggestions within the area of bacterial infections at a level comparable with physicians.

A. ELIZA B. MYCIN C. INTERNIST D. DENDRAL

79. One of the issues for various AI programs is the size of the content domain it is to cover. In general, AI programs do well in limited areas, but if you increase "the area" they tend to do poorly. This issue is called A. limited application program.

B. Chinese room problem.

C. absence of intuition.

D. bandwidth-fidelity problem.

80. This medical AI program deals with a broad spectrum of diseases. Its performance however does not quite measure up that that of an experienced doctor.

A. PARRY B. INTERNIST C. MYCIN D. General Problem Solver (GPS)

81. The greater success of the MYCIN program compared to the INTERNIST program demonstrates what principle of artificial intelligence?

A. plasticity B. lack of understanding of the symbols that are manipulated C. absence of intuition D. bandwidth-fidelity problem

82. A United Airlines DC-10 had all three of the hydraulic systems become non-functional. The pilots had to figure out a way to land the plane even thought the computer system (simulator) had no suggestions. This example demonstrates ____ for AI programs.

A. case-based reasoning B. absence of intuition C. simulation of intelligence D. bandwidth-fidelity problem

83. Searle raises the question of whether computers can really be intelligent. He uses the ____ as an example in which one can be good at manipulating symbols and appear to be intelligent without having a true understanding of the symbols.

A. means-ends analysis B. absence of intuition C. Chinese Room problem D. bandwidth fidelity problem

84. ____ is used as an example to help demonstrates the notion that computers are good at symbol manipulation and give the appearance of intelligence but do not actually understand the symbols (e.g. simulated intelligence versus actual comprehension of the symbols) A. Means-ends analysis B. Absence of intuition C. Chinese room problem D. Bandwidth fidelity problem

85. What are the eight multiple intelligences in Gardner's theory?

86. What arguments have been given to counter the notion that computers can be intelligent?

87. Explain the various components of Sternberg's Componential Theory.

88. Describe the various factors that can influence intellectual skills.

89. Describe crystallized and fluid intelligence.

90. What are the goals of the structural and information-processing approaches to intelligence? How do these approaches differ? What are the strengths and weaknesses of each approach?

91. Both Gardner and Sternberg have proposed theories of intelligence that attempt to integrate many aspects of intelligence. Assess both the similarities and the differences in their theories of intelligence.

92. Trace how intelligence has been defined and measured through time. How do early views and tests of intelligence differ from more contemporary models of intelligence? How are they similar?

93. Evaluate the Process Timing Theories of Intelligence. In particular, how are they similar or different from some of the earlier models of intelligence?

94. Describe the following theories of intelligence: 1) Spearman, 2) Thurstone, 3) Guilford, and 4) Cattell, Vernon, and Carroll. What are the similarities and differences between these theories?

95. Imagine that intelligence can be seen as analogous to the captain of a ship. Use some of the elements in this metaphor (e.g., captain, ship, wind, water currents, weather conditions, sailors) to develop a new model of intelligence. According to this ship-captain model of intelligence, what is intelligence? Draw from any model of intelligence covered in the chapter as you work with this metaphor and state what aspects are from which model.

96. Imagine you are an inventor and you wish to create an emotionally intelligent artificial life form. What kinds of characteristics could you give your robot so that it is emotionally intelligent?

97. Develop five items that you think would be appropriate for a culturally fair test. Justify why you think these items are appropriate.

98. Generate ten items to ask for a Turing Test. Let's say you are now developing a program to pass the Turing Test. Looking back at your questions, what information would be needed by the program to be able to competently address each of these questions?

99. Think of your own family and what it means to be intelligent within that particular group. Describe what particular skills / abilities / knowledge are important within this particular group. How does this compare to more traditional methods of intelligence?

100. A dear friend may need a serious operation. You decide to visit the doctor with her to assess her doctor's intelligence in the context of treating your friend's health problem. What are the aspects that you would attempt to measure? What are some of the factors that would lead you to determine the doctor's intelligence in this context?

101. After hearing that burglars have been breaking into houses in your neighborhood, you decide to get an intelligent watchdog. According to Francis Galton's view of intelligence, what are some of the aspects of intelligence that you would want to know about for the different types of dogs that would lead you to make a wise choice about which dog to get?

102. A friend of yours teaches at a university. Typically the class has a mix of traditional and non-traditional students (returning adults of all ages). Explain the relevance of crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence and how it may impact testing.

103. If you were developing a robot that would have artificial intelligence, what would be the essential capabilities/ information that you would think would be necessary for such a robot to have in order to be intelligent?

104. Imagine that you are a teacher and that you are going to give an assignment. Describe the assignment, and then from Gardner's theory of multiple intelligences provide from at least four of the different types of intelligence how the project might be done.

Chapter 13--Human and Artificial Intelligence Key

1. B 2. C 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. B 10. D 11. D 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. C 20. A 21. D 22. A 23. A 24. D 25. A 26. A 27. C 28. D 29. B

30. C 31. B 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. C 37. D 38. C 39. D 40. C 41. A 42. C 43. A 44. A 45. D 46. A 47. A 48. B 49. B 50. C 51. C 52. B 53. B 54. D 55. B 56. C 57. C 58. A 59. B 60. C 61. B 62. B 63. B

64. D 65. D 66. C 67. A 68. A 69. D 70. B 71. B 72. C 73. C 74. A 75. D 76. A 77. A 78. B 79. D 80. B 81. D 82. B 83. C 84. C 85. Answer not provided.

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