TEST BANK Psychology and Work An Introduction to Industrial &Organizational Psychology 2nd Edition

7 Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the high-tech HR era?

(A) employee resumes stored in secured filing cabinets (B) applications submitted electronically (C) employees trained via online materials and trainers (D) applicant testing administered online and scored immediately Answer:

(A)

employee resumes stored in secured filing cabinets

8 Sarah investigated the role of different levels of heat in the work environment. In her study, she had two conditions: a warm workplace and a cool workplace. To her surprise, participants in both conditions demonstrated nearly equal levels of productivity. In speaking with the participants later, they all said they worked harder because they wanted to please her. This is called the ____.

(A) Hawthorne Effect (B) Bystander Effect (C) Diffusion of Responsibility (D) Social Loafing Answer:

(A)

Hawthorne Effect

9 _______ used motion pictures to conduct time-and-motion studies aimed at understanding the most efficient ways to do work.

(A) Hugo Munsterberg (B) Walter Dill Scott, Fred Garrison (C) Frank Gilbreth, Lillian Gilbreth (D) Wilhelm Wundt Answer:

(C)

Frank Gilbreth, Lillian Gilbreth

10 These I-O psychologists trained under Wilhelm Wundt and later moved to the U.S. Both focused on the role of individual differences in human behavior.

(A) Walter Dill Scott, Frederick Taylor (B) Hugo Munsterberg, James McKeen Cattell (C) Frederick Taylor, James McKeen Cattell (D) Frank Gilbreth, Lillian Gilbreth Answer:

(B)

Hugo Munsterberg, James McKeen Cattell

11 The Hawthorne Effect refers to situations in which: (A) research participants behave in a certain way because they know they are part of a study.

(B) researchers investigate a psychological phenomenon that they have personally faced.

(C) researchers are biased in favor of the organization over the worker.

(D) research participants believe the researcher is colluding with the organization.

Answer: of a study.

(A)

research participants behave in a certain way because they know they are part

12 _______ is often cited as the first person to receive a Ph.D. in industrial psychology.

(A) Lillian Gilbreth (B) Frank Gilbreth (C) Walter Dill Scott (D) Frederick Taylor Answer:

(A)

Lillian Gilbreth

13 The first known I-O psychology textbook was written by: (A) James McKeen Cattell (B) Wilhelm Wundt (C) Hugo Munsterberg

(D) Walter Dill Scott Answer:

(C)

Hugo Munsterberg

14 The professional organization to which most Industrial-Organizational psychologists in the US belong is ____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

SIOP Alpha ION Beta

Answer:

(A)

SIOP

15 The test used in World War I to screen personnel for the US military was _____.

(A) Army Alpha (B) Army Beta (C) (D)

Hawthorne Test Both the Army Alpha and Army Beta were used.

Answer:

(D)

Both the Army Alpha and Army Beta were used.

16 Which movement in the 1960s most influenced the practice of industrial psychology in the US? (A) Civil rights movement (B) Harking movement (C) (D)

Anti-war movement Hawthorne movement

Answer:

(A)

Civil rights movement

17 Which of the following is a current trend in I-O psychology?

(A) increasing focus on diversity at work (B) the development of Humanitarian Work Psychology (C) the development of Occupational Health Psychology (D) All of the above.

Answer:

(D) All of the above

18 Frank and Lillian Gilbreth (of Cheaper by the Dozen) are most closely associated with (A) Scientific Management (B) The Human Relations movement (C) The Hawthorne Studies (D) The Civil Rights movement Answer: (A) Scientific Management 19 Traditionally, Industrial psychology includes the area of ____.

(A) Personnel Selection (B) Motivation (C) Leadership (D) Teams Answer: (A) personnel selection

20 The professional organization for I-O psychologists in Europe is _____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

SIOP Alpha EAWOP Beta

Answer:

(C)

EAWOP

21 Which of the following terms characterize “big data”?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

volume variety velocity All of the above characterize big data.

Answer:

(D)

All of the above characterize big data.

22 Creating an environment where people from different backgrounds can feel safe to be their authentic selves and ensuring that people feel that they can influence important decisions are part of ____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

diversity

inclusion team management 21st century leadership

Answer:

(B)

inclusion

23 A recent review on diversity by Roberson et al. (2017) notes that work still needs to be done on ____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

how best to promote diversity in organizations

understanding the importance of workplace diversity placing older workers into the right jobs for them persuading older and younger people to work together

Answer:

(A)

how best to promote diversity in organizations

24 Diversity management is best achieved through _____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

a fair selection system

offering training to managers to understand diversity randomly assigning people from different backgrounds to work together All of the above as diversity management is best achieved through multiple workplace practices.

Answer: (D) multiple workplace practices.

All of the above as diversity management is best achieved through

25 The term “bridge employment” refers to _____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

people working different “gigs” over their lifetimes

working in an internship to get trained for your ideal job taking on a job short-term until a person gets the job they want when people work beyond their normal retirement age

Answer:

(D)

when people work beyond their normal retirement age

26 The human relations movement is most closely associate with _____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

the Hawthorne studies

Scientific Misalignment movement the Civic Alignment movement All of the above

Answer:

(A)

the Hawthorne studies

27 To be considered a psychologist in the US, one has to have _____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

a bachelor’s degree

a master’s degree

a doctoral degree specialized training on the social psychology of groups

Answer:

(C)

a doctoral degree

28 The most recent era in I-O psychology is _____.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

the high-tech HR era the era of blossoming data the divided era the civil rights era

Answer:

(A)

the high-tech HR era

29 Traditionally, Organizational psychology includes the area of ____.

(A) Training (B) Motivation (C) Selection (D) Job Analysis Answer: (B) Motivation 30 The person considered the “father” of Scientific Management is ____.

(A) Frank Gilbreth (B) Wilhelm Wundt (C) Walter Dill Scott (D) Frederick Taylor Answer: (D) Frederick Taylor 31 A field related to I-O psychology that focuses on worker health, well-being, and safety is _____.

(A) humanitarian work psychology (B) diversity and inclusion management (C) occupational health psychology (D) human relations Answer: (C) occupational health psychology

32 A central tenet of I-O psychology states that a strong I-O psychologist will be both a scientist/researcher as well as a strong practitioner.

Answer: True

33 The version of the Stanford-Binet adapted during World War I for use with large numbers of army recruits who were illiterate was the Army Alpha.

Answer: False

34 The “father” of Scientific Management was Frank Gilbreth.

Answer: False

35 The first PhD in I-O psychology was awarded to Frederick Taylor.

Answer: False

36 Portrayed in the novel Cheaper by the Dozen, Frank and Lillian Gilbreth had 12 children and used motion pictures in their time-and-motion studies.

Answer: True

37 Occupational Health Psychology was a movement that touted the effects of considering workers’ feelings and attitudes on performance.

Answer: False

38 Having people feel that they can be their authentic selves and that they have a voice in decisions are part of the concept of inclusion.

Answer: True

39 Working from a remote location away from a standard office or work site is referred to as work-life balance.

Answer: False

40 Humanitarian work psychology focuses on using organizational psychology to improve the welfare of people, not only in relatively wealthy industrialized countries, but in low-income nations as well.

Answer: True

41 Occupational health psychology (OHP) is a field related to I-O psychology and focuses on a range of topics to benefit workers in terms of their health, wellbeing, and safety.

Answer: True FILL-IN-THE-BLANK

42 The European Certificate of Psychology that provides a standard for evaluating the professional training of psychologists in Europe, and that provides a subspecialty in work and organizational psychology, is called _____.

Answer: EuroPsy 43 _____ is a central tenet of I-O psychology stating that a strong I-O psychologist will be both a researcher as well as a strong practitioner.

Answer: Scientist-practitioner model 44 The version of the Stanford-Binet adapted during World War I for use with large numbers of army recruits who were able to read was called _____.

Answer: Army Alpha 45 The version of the Stanford-Binet adapted during World War I for use with large numbers of army recruits who were illiterate was called _____.

Answer: Army Beta 46 _____ was the “father” of Scientific Management, he proposed a break from the simple “common sense” approach to management.

Answer: Frederick Taylor 47 The first person in the US to be awarded a PhD in I-O psychology was _____.

Answer: Lillian Gilbreth

48 The ______ movement touted the effects of considering workers’ feelings and attitudes on performance.

Answer: Human Relations 49 When participants in psychological research behave in certain ways because they know that they are in a study it is called _____.

Answer: the Hawthorne effect

50 _____ focuses on using organizational psychology to improve the welfare of people, not only in relatively wealthy industrialized countries, but in low-income nations as well.

Answer: Humanitarian Work Psychology 51 A field related to I-O psychology that focuses on a range of topics to benefit workers in terms of their health, well-being, and safety is called _____.

Answer: Occupational Health Psychology (OHP)

52 _____ is the legislation that caused I-O psychologists to focus on fair and valid hiring procedures.

Answer: Civil Rights Act of 1964 53 What are the general criteria for admitting students to a graduate program in I-O psychology?

Answer: Feedback: High Grade Point Average (GPA), high Graduate Record Examinations (GRE) scores (if applicable), prior research experience, strong letters of reference.

54 In what way was Wilhelm Wundt an important figure in the early years of I-O psychology?

Answer: Feedback: The beginnings of I-O psychology can be traced to psychologists trained in Wilhelm Wundt’s lab in Germany. Hugo Munsterberg and James McKeen Cattell trained under Wundt and later moved to the U.S.—both focused on the role of individual differences in human behavior. Another trainee of Wundt named Walter Dill Scott worked in the U.S. and published a series of essays describing the application of psychology to industry.

55 In what ways did the U.S. Civil Rights Act of 1964 influence personnel selection procedures?

Answer: Feedback: It challenged organizations to ensure that they used fair selection procedures that were also defensible in court. In addition, this legislation awakened organizations to the importance of assuring that their hiring procedures are fair and valid, but also to the broader concepts of managing diversity in organizations and on teams.

56 How has increased globalization influenced the field of I-O psychology?

Answer: Feedback: An increase in multinational organizations has resulted in people with diverse backgrounds working together with greater regularity. This has challenged I-O psychologists to understand issues such as how to deliver training across large, geographically dispersed organizations, how to develop hiring practices that are both legal and valid across cultures, and to understand how culture affects issues such as leadership and work motivation.

57 In recent years, I-O psychologists have become more interested in "big data." What are "big data" and what are some challenges I-O psychologists face when working with "big data?"

Answer: Feedback: Big data generally refers to the analysis of massive datasets that include the data of thousands or millions of people. The data include the “4 Vs”: Volume, variety, velocity, and veracity.

Performance measures can be gathered about thousands of employees and can be used to conduct research on how to predict which employees have the greatest potential. Data can be collected in real time to make decisions. The challenges are determining which types of employee data are acceptable to use and what types of research studies are acceptable from an ethics standpoint.

58 Why were World War I and World War II important time periods in the history of I-O psychology?

Answer: Feedback: In WWI, the Army Alpha and Army Beta exams were adapted from the Standford-Binet cognitive ability test to help select and place new recruits; the adapted exams were in a format that allowed the army to test a large number of individuals at one time. In WWII, I-O psychologists again

assisted in the selection of enlistees, and made some original developments in the use of biographical data in selection. Contributions were also made to the training of U.S. Army personnel.

59 What are the typical responsibilities of an I-O psychologist who works in an academic job?

Answer: Feedback: Conducting research. Training graduate students. Teach undergraduate and graduate classes. Engaging in internal and external service work.

60 Outside of an academic setting, in what type of a setting and what type of work might an I-O psychologist perform?

Answer: Feedback: Private industry: conduct research and apply I-O principles. Government: support human resources functions. Military: select and train personnel. Consulting: conduct research and support human resources functions for other organizations.

61 Identify and briefly describe two current forces that are shaping the research and practice in I-O psychology.

Answer: Feedback: Changes in the nature of work: increasing automation which decreases the need for lowskills jobs, and increasing use of telework. Diversity management and inclusion: workforce is increasingly diverse in terms of race, gender, ethnicity, age, and sexual orientation. Aging, age-diverse workforce: the workforce is aging, as people continue to work beyond traditional retirement ages.

Humanitarian work psychology: focuses on using organizational psychology to improve the welfare of people in both wealthy and low-income nations. Occupational health psychology: focuses on topics related to worker health and safety, and integrates concepts from fields such as I-O, clinical, and counseling. I-O as a growing field: the field is a growing occupation in the U.S. in terms of percent growth (BLS, 2014). Big Data and Analytics – large amounts of quickly moving data in decisions, includes issues around ethics.

1 If the correlation between two variables is .90, this indicates that there is a _____.

(A) strong positive association between the variables (B) strong negative association between the variables (C) weak positive association between the variables (D) no relationship between the variables Answer:

(A)

strong positive association between the variables

2 Chang-qin developed a new measure designed to assess individuals' organizational identity. In a measure validation study, he finds that, as expected, the measure is not related to individuals' cognitive ability or emotional stability. This finding would illustrate which type of validity?

(A) convergent (B) discriminant (C) face (D) content Answer:

(B)

discriminant

3 In 2015, Sanjay analyzed data from the 2010 U.S. Census in order to examine the relationship between education level and income. This source of data may best be labeled: (A) naturalistic (B) case study (C) archival (D) meta-analysis Answer:

(C)

archival

4 When researchers want to evaluate and integrate quantitative findings across many studies, they use a research method called ____.

(A) field study (B) experimental design (C) meta-analysis (D) analysis of variance Answer:

(C)

meta-analysis

5 What is the difference between a field study and laboratory study?

(A) A field study is conducted in heavily controlled artificial settings; a laboratory study is conducted in real organizations with real workers (B) A laboratory study is conducted in heavily controlled artificial settings; a field study is conducted in real organizations with real workers (C) A field study relies on inductive reasoning and introspection; a laboratory study relies on deductive reasoning and extrospection (D) A laboratory study relies on inductive reasoning and introspection; a field study relies on deductive reasoning and extrospection Answer: (B) A laboratory study is conducted in heavily controlled artificial settings; a field study is conducted in real organizations with real workers 6 Target is a large discount retail company in the U.S., and Google is a large technology company. When leaders at Target review a case study about an employee practice at Google, they ____.

(A) should be cautious in assuming that they will get the same results because Google is in a different industry with unique circumstances that may not generalize to Target.

(B) can assume that Google’s practices apply to them because Google and Target are similar in terms of their size.

(C) can assume that Google’s practices will apply to them because Google and Target likely share the same customer base.

(D) can learn a lot because Google and Target are both large, U.S-based companies.

Answer: (A) cautious in assuming that they will get the same results because Google is in a different industry with unique circumstances that may not generalize to Target.

7 A key difference between an interval scale and a ratio scale is: (A) an interval scale has equal intervals; a ratio scale does not (B) a ratio scale has equal intervals; an interval scale does not (C) an interval scale has a true zero point; a ratio scale does not (D) a ratio scale has a true zero point; an interval scale does not Answer:

(D)

a ratio scale has a true zero point; an interval scale does not

8 Carol gives two versions of the same test to a group of employees, and correlate the two tests with each other. Carol’s process is a way to assess _____.

(A) test-retest reliability (B) criterion-related validity (C) parallel forms reliability (D) construct validity Answer:

(C)

parallel forms reliability

9 An I-O psychologist investigates the relationship between a test’s font (bold font or regular font) and test performance. After randomly assigning 100 workers to two conditions, she finds that workers who take tests with bold font receive higher test scores than workers who take tests with regular font. The independent variable in this scenario is: (A) test performance (B) test font (C) test score (D) random assignment Answer:

(B)

test font

10 Dr. Dostoyevsky, an I-O psychologist, found that as job satisfaction increases, employee absenteeism decreases significantly. This is an example of a ____________ correlation.

(A) positive (B) negative (C) nonlinear (D) bimodal Answer:

(B)

negative

11 Noah is doing an experiment to see the effects of training on learning. One group of employee receives the training, while the other (control) group does not. He then gives the employees a job knowledge test. He wants to compare the mean job knowledge test score of the two groups. The best statistic to use for this would be _____.

(A) t-test (B) correlation (C) meta-analysis (D) linear regression Answer:

(A)

t-test

12 The reliability of a test relates to its _____________, whereas the validity of a test relates to its _____________.

(A) accuracy; generalizability (B) applicability; consistency (C) accuracy; consistency (D) consistency; accuracy Answer:

(D)

consistency; accuracy

13 Karl conducted an experimental study to see the relationship between room lighting and test performance. He randomly assigned participants to one of three conditions: room with dim lighting, room with normal lighting, and room with bright lighting. He then gave the participants a cognitive ability test. What statistical test should he use to compare the mean test performance of the three groups?

(A) correlation (B) t-test (C) ANOVA (D) meta-analysis Answer:

(C)

ANOVA

14 Rocio manipulates the level of stress that participants are exposed to, such that one group of 50 participants are randomly assigned to a low stress condition and another group of 50 participants are randonly assigned to a high stress condition. He later measures the participants' performance on a memory test. What is the independent variable (IV) in this example?

(A) level of stress (B) number of participants (C) performance on the memory test (D) random assignment Answer:

(A)

level of stress

15 Hilda is developing a test of college algebra. She does this by speaking to experts in college algebra (instructors) about what is expected as part of a college algebra course and also examining the material in algebra textbooks. Hilda appears to be using a ____ approach to develop her test.

(A) content validity (B) construct validity (C) criterion-related validity (D) None of the above. This is a non-scientific way to develop a test.

Answer:

(A)

content validity

16 Which of the following refers to the degree to which a measure is consistent over time?

(A) Inter-Rater Reliability (B) Test-Retest Reliability (C) Criterion-Related Validity (D) Internal Consistency Reliability Answer:

(B)

Test-Retest Reliability

17 __________ refers to the degree to which a measure is free of random error.

(A) Reliability (B) Validity (C) Generalizability (D) Utility Answer:

(A)

Reliability

18 Which entity reviews and governs the research process at a university?

(A) University Research Committee (URC) (B) Institutional Review Board (IRB) (C) Agency for Ethical Research (AER) (D) American Psychological Association (APA) Answer:

(B)

Institutional Review Board (IRB)

19 As the error variance of a measure goes up, _____.

(A) reliability goes up (B) validity goes up (C) reliability goes down (D) none of the above Answer:

(C)

reliability goes down

20 Zoe is studying the relationship between personality and later job performance. In this study, personality would best be described as a(n) _____.

(A) independent variable (B) dependent variable (C) antecedent (D) criterion Answer:

(C)

antecedent

21 _____ is the degree to which a scale measures what it is supposed to measure.

(A) reliability (B) validity (C) generalizability (D) criterion Answer:

(B)

validity

22 Carlos is developing a test of math skills. He finds that his math test has a strong correlation with another math test and also with a test of verbal ability. In this case, his test is showing _____.

(A) good convergent validity and good discriminant validity (B) poor convergent validity and poor discriminant validity (C) poor convergent validity and good discriminant validity (D) good convergent validity and poor discriminant validity Answer: (D) good convergent validity and poor discriminant validity 23 Alessia is developing a test of academic achievement to predict college success. She gives the test to a group of college students. She correlates their test scores with their GPA and finds that there is a significant correlation between the test and GPA. This is a demonstration of _____.

(A) content validity (B) construct validity (C) criterion-related validity (D) convergent validity Answer: (C) criterion-related validity 24 Which of the following is the most accurate statement about the validity of a measure?

(A) Content validity is the degree to which the test predicts an outcome of interest (B) There are not really three “types” of validity, but rather, many different types of evidence that a measure is valid.

(C) Criterion-related validity is the overarching method for accumulating validity evidence.

(D) Discriminant validity is the most important method to be sure that the test is fair and unbiased.

Answer: (B) There are not really three “types” of validity, but rather, many different types of evidence that a measure is valid.

25 Test-retest reliability involves giving a measure to a sample of people and then _______.

(A) giving them the test again and seeing the degree to which their scores are correlated.

(B) giving the test to another group of people and seeing the degree to which their scores are correlated.

(C) giving the same people a different version of the test and seeing if the scores on the two versions of the test are correlated.

(D) seeing the degree to which the odd-numbered items are correlated with the even-numbered items.

Answer: (A) giving them the test again and seeing the degree to which their scores are correlated.

26 Jaime has 100 employees’ scores on a personality test and their job performance. He has found a statistical relationship between the two. But now he wants to be able to use the test to predict a person’s job performance score. To do this, he best statistic for him to use would be ____.

(A) correlation (B) ANOVA (C) meta-analysis (D) linear regression Answer: (D) linear regression 27 Mohamed is a researcher trying to figure out the relationship between leadership and happiness. He has found 20 different studies on this topic, but the results differ some from study to study. He wants a statistical summary of these studies so he can understand what the overall conclusion is from these studies. The best statistic for him to use would be ____.

(A) correlation (B) ANOVA (C) meta-analysis (D) linear regression Answer: (C) meta-analysis 28 Which of the following is the best research study design for I-O research?

(A) correlational study (B) field study (C) laboratory study (D) Some combination of methods is probably best Answer:

(D)

Some combination of methods is probably best

29 Which of the following is necessary for a study to be considered a true experiment?

(A) There is an experimental group receiving a manipulation.

(B) There is a control group not receiving a manipulation.

(C) There is random assignment to groups.

(D) All of the above are required for a true experiment.

Answer:

(D)

All of the above are required for a true experiment.

30 Whereas the ___ begins with a theory and sets out to test hypotheses based on this theory, the ____ begins with observing a phenomenon and then developing a theory to explain it.

(A) observational approach; experimental approach (B) experimental approach; observational approach (C) inductive approach; deductive approach (D) deductive approach; inductive approach Answer: (D)

deductive approach; inductive approach

31 Whether the findings of a study are meaningful and important is referred to as _____.

(A) statistical significance (B) validity (C) reliability (D) practical significance Answer: (D) practical significance

32 ____ research examines what employers can actually do to improve the attitudes, well-being, health, and performance of workers.

(A) intervention (B) observational (C) practical significance (D) meta-analytic

Answer: (A)

intervention

TRUE/FALSE 33 If the correlation between two variables is -1.00, this indicates that there is a perfect, negative relationship between the two.

Answer: True 34 Linear regression is mostly commonly used to test whether there is a significant difference between two means.

Answer: False 35 ANOVA is used to test whether there are significant differences among three or more means.

Answer: True 36 When reliability is low, researchers can be more confident that differences in scores are meaningful and can differentiate among individuals Answer: False 37 Criterion-related validity is shown by documenting that the test was developed to sample the conceptual domain of interest.

Answer: False 38 Test-retest reliability is shown by giving a test to two different samples and seeing if their scores are correlated.

Answer: False 39 Discriminant validity is part of the process of demonstrating construct validity.

Answer: True 40 Meta-analysis is used to summarize the results of several studies.

Answer: True 41 Linear regression is used to develop an equation for the best fit line that explains the relationship between two variables.

Answer: True 42 As error variance of a measure goes up, the reliability goes down.

Answer: False

43 The _____ approach: A research approach that begins with a theory and sets out to test hypotheses based on this theory.

Answer: Deductive 44 _____ are sophisticated methods that graphically illustrate the relationships among variables to aid in data interpretation.

Answer: Big data visualization methods 45_____ is a variable that covaries with the IV and whose effects on the dependent variable are not easily disentangled from the IV. Answer: Confound variable 46 _____uses datasets that have already been collected by others and are made available for analysis.

Answer: Archival research 47 _____ is used to determine the degree of relationship between two variables, X and Y, and describes the best-fit line that describes the relationship in terms of an equation.

Answer: Linear regression

48 _____ is used to determine whether the difference between two means is statistically significant.

Answer: T-test 49 _____ refers to the dependability of a measure, or its consistency in measurement.

Answer: Reliability 50 _____ is where a test is given to a group of people twice in order to see how stable their scores are by correlating their test scores.

Answer: Test-retest reliability 51 _____ is where two forms of a test are given to the same people at the same time and the scores on both measures are correlated to provide a reliability estimate.

Answer: Parallel forms reliability 52 _____ involves the empirical demonstration that the test predicts an outcome that you care about. This is commonly done by correlating the test and the outcome.

Answer: Criterion-related validity

53 What is one strength and one weakness of experimental designs? What is one strength and one weakness of correlational designs?

Answer: Experimental designs: can make stronger inferences about causality, but can be impractical in some cases (or even unethical). Can also be unrealistic.

Correlational designs: can be simpler, especially in field settings, but can be difficult to determine causality.

54 How does linear regression go beyond correlation Answer: Both of them show the relationship between two variables. But regression also develops an equation for a best-fit line to explain that relationship. That also allows to predict a score on one variable from the other.

55 How do quasi-experimental designs differ from true experimental designs? What is an advantage of quasi-experimental designs?

Answer: Quasi-experimental designs approximate true experiments but lack one aspect such as random assignment to conditions or a control group. Advantage: can be much easier to implement in a field setting because quasi-experimental designs can use pre-existing groups (e.g., facilities, units) rather than random assignment.

56 Brandon conducts a review of the literature on positive emotion in the workplace.

While reading through many studies on the topic, he finds that the correlation between positive emotion and work outcomes (e.g., performance) vary in size from study to study. What are some reasons for why the size and sign of correlations differ across studies? How might Brandon quantitatively review or synthesize this research to get better estimates of the "true" relationships between positive emotion and selected work outcomes?

Answer: The size of the correlation may differ across studies based on issues like sample sizes (and sampling error) different types of workers, organizations, and industries. A meta-analysis could be conducted to quantitatively combine the results to provide a better estimate of the "true" relationships between positive emotion and the work outcomes. A meta-analysis may also identify the presence of moderators that may explain differences in the magnitude and/or sign of the relationships between positive emotion and the work outcomes.

57 Name one advantage of using surveys to collect participant data. Name one disadvantage.

Answer: Advantage: collect a large amount of data from many participants relatively easily.

Disadvantage: data may lack richness and depth.

58 A) Joe is comparing 2 training programs to see if they affect performance. He gives one set of training to one group of employees and the other training to another group.

How should he see if the mean performance of the two groups is different. B) He then gives a third training program to another group. Now he wants to compare the means of all three groups. What statistic should he use for that. Why? Answer: He should use t-test for the 2 groups, and ANOVA for the 3 groups. This is because t-test is used to compare the mean of two groups. ANOVA needs to be used with the 3 groups. It is used for testing differences between 2 or more groups.

59 What is an advantage and a disadvantage of collecting qualitative data?

Answer: Advantage: can provide rich data with a lot of detail about individual and his/her experience.

Disadvantage: relatively time-consuming and difficult to collect data from large samples.

60 Why might the informed consent process be challenging if participants in your sample come from a broad range of cultural, educational, and national backgrounds?

Answer: Informed consent ensures that individuals understand the study risks/benefits before volunteering to participate. As such, an informed consent process that can be understood by one group of participants may not be well understood by another.

61 Name and define three measures of central tendency.

Answer: Mean: average of scores.

Median: central score in a group or distribution of scores.

Mode: most frequently occurring number in a group of scores.

62 Name at least two types of reliability and how they are used.

Answer: Test-retest: Administer the test or measure to a group of people on two occasions.

Correlate scores from the two occasions. Parallel forms: Administer two, parallel forms of the measure to a group of people on a single occasion. Correlate the scores obtained from the two tests. Split-halves: Administer the measure to a group of people on a single occasion. Correlate their scores on the two halves of the test (e.g., odd-numbered items and even-numbered items).

Alpha: Administer the measure to a group of people on a single occasion. Calculate intercorrelations of the items. Inter-rater: Used when two people rate a series of job candidates (e.g., in a hiring interview) or employees. Calculate the correlation between Rater 1’s scores with Rater 2’s scores.

63 A friend tells you that there are three different kinds of validity. Explain to them why that isn’t really so.

Answer: There are not three “types” of validity, but different types of evidence that a measure is valid. In many ways, construct validity is the overarching method for accumulating validity evidence because of its focus on the accumulation of validity evidence from multiple studies.

64 What is meant by convergent and discriminant validity? What are they used for? Give an example of how you might use these with regard to a verbal ability test you are developing.

Answer: They are used to show construct validity. Convergent is the measure correlates with similar measures, and discriminant is that it doesn’t correlate with things it shouldn’t correlate with. For the verbal test, it should correlate with other verbal tests, and not correlate with things like math ability or personality.

1 The acronym "KSAO" stands for: (A) Knowledge, Selection, Applicability, Other characteristics (B) Knowledge, Selection, Abilities, Other characteristics (C) Knowledge, Skills, Applicability, Other characteristics (D) Knowledge, Skills, Abilities, Other characteristics Answer:

(D)

Knowledge, Skills, Abilities, Other characteristics

2 For a KSA criticality survey: (A) a sample of SMEs rates each task identified by the job analysts from interviews in terms of criticality (B) a sample of SMEs rates the degree to which the KSAs are critical to job performance (C) a job analyst documents examples of critical situations faced by job incumbents, examples of good and poor ways to handle them, and the results (D) a job analyst describes the general characteristics needed within a series of jobs Answer: performance

(B)

a sample of SMEs rates the degree to which the KSAs are critical to job

3 _____ focuses on pay difference for different jobs that are traditionally associated with men versus those traditionally associated with women.

(A) performance appraisal (B) task analysis (C) comparable worth (D) needs assessment Answer:

(C)

comparable worth

4 The structure of a task statement should include the following elements: (A) action verb, object, purpose (B) knowledge, skill, ability (C) observation, rating (D) competency, behavior, analysis Answer:

(A)

action verb, object, purpose

5 Melvin asks SMEs for examples of important situations they face on their job, and examples of the right way and the wrong way to handle these situations. What job analysis method is this?

(A) task-KSA analysis (B) PAQ (C) critical incidents technique (D) competency modeling Answer:

(C)

critical incidents technique

6 The most appropriate job analysis method to use when there are large numbers of SME is _____.

(A) survey (B) archival search (C) ride along (D) interview Answer:

(A)

survey

7 Job analysis is used as the basis for ____.

(A) selection systems (B) the development of training programs (C) criterion development (D) All of the above Answer:

(D)

All of the above

8 In most job analyses, the SMEs are _____.

(A) incumbents in the job being analyzed (B) supervisors of the job being analyzed (C) the job analyst (D) incumbents and supervisors Answer:

(D)

incumbents and supervisors

9 A compensable factor that is often used in a job evaluation study is _____.

(A) employee age (B) working conditions (C) comparable worth (D) KSAOs Answer:

(B)

working conditions

10 Which of the following is true of the PAQ in job analysis?

(A) It provides detailed information about a single job.

(B) It captures the values and culture of the organization.

(C) It requires a college reading level to complete the survey.

(D) It is developed using criticality and linkage surveys.

Answer:

(C)

It requires a college reading level to complete the survey.

11 Which of the following is true about competency models in organizations?

(A) they focus on average performance rather than top performance (B) they tend to be linked to business strategies (C) top management tends to dislike this approach (D) they require a college reading level Answer:

(B)

they tend to be linked to business strategies

12 ________ involves describing the general characteristics needed in jobs in an organization-- especially across a range of jobs--and in accordance with an organization's goals, values, and/or culture.

(A) competency modeling (B) functional job analysis (C) critical incidents technique (D) task-KSA analysis Answer:

(A)

competency modeling

13 Identifying compensable factors is an important step of ______________.

(A) Job Design (B) Job Evaluation (C) Training (D) Selection Answer:

(B)

Job Evaluation

14 One reason for conducting a job evaluation is to improve _______, which refers to the fairness of relative pay values within an organization.

(A) benchmark jobs (B) compensable factors (C) external equity (D) internal equity Answer:

(D)

internal equity

15 Task-KSA analysis typically involves which of the following?

(A) criticality survey and job evaluation survey (B) linkage survey and competency survey (C) criticality survey and linkage survey (D) criticality survey and competency survey Answer:

(C)

criticality survey and linkage survey

16 A step in the task-KSA analysis in which SMEs document the degree to which specific KSAOs really are needed to do the tasks is called the _____.

(A) criticality survey (B) linkage survey (C) job evaluation survey (D) job specification survey Answer:

(B)

linkage survey

17 Jill works as a barista in a coffee shop. She is asked to fill out a job analysis survey which includes items like, “Conducts brain surgery” and “Cleans ski slopes.” These items are probably part of a _____.

(A) lie scale (B) manipulation check (C) integrity scale (D) carelessness index Answer:

(D)

carelessness index

18 In conducting a job analysis, with regard to choosing SMEs from different demographic groups ______.

(A) US courts have indicated that SME samples should represent the demographic makeup of the organization (B) the Uniform Guidelines specify that minorities must make up at least 4/5 of the sample used in the job analysis (C) the Uniform Guidelines specify that women must make up at least 4/5 of the sample used in the job analysis (D) All of the above are true.

(A) US courts have indicated that SME samples should represent the demographic makeup of the organization Answer:

19 Henri needs to do a job analysis for customer service representatives in his company. He would like to get as much detailed information as possible about what people do on the job and the characteristics they need to do the job. The best method for this situation would be _____.

(A) the PAQ (B) the O*NET (C) task-KSA analysis (D) competency modeling Answer:

(C)

task-KSA analysis

20 Claire needs to do a job analysis that will compare several jobs in her company. Of the following, the best method for this situation would be _____.

(A) the PAQ (B) the critical incidents technique (C) task-KSA analysis (D) job specification

Answer:

(A)

the PAQ

21 Rowenna wants to create a company-wide system that can be used to describe all of the jobs in the company and also captures the values and goals of the company. The best approach for her to use in this situation would be _____.

(A) the PAQ (B) the critical incidents technique (C) task-KSA analysis (D) competency modeling Answer:

(D)

competency modeling

22 Whereas ____ is best to get fine detail about a single job, ____ is a less time-consuming, off-the-shelf job analysis method.

(A) the PAQ; task-KSA analysis (B) the critical incidents technique; task-KSA analysis (C) task-KSA analysis; the PAQ (D) competency modelling; the PAQ Answer:

(C)

task-KSA analysis; the PAQ

23 Joshua has conducted a task criticality survey and is now examining the data. He should consider dropping tasks that have _____.

(A) a low mean and a high standard deviation (B) a high mean and a low standard deviation (C) a high mean only (D) a high standard deviation only Answer:

(A)

a low mean and a high standard deviation

24 In job analysis, the term “SME” means a _____.

(A) knowledge or skill needed for the job (B) critical task needed for the job (C) job expert (D) critical aspect of the O*NET Answer:

(C)

job expert

25 Clara wants to do a job analysis for computer programmers in her company. Which of the following is a good use of the O*NET database in her job analysis?

(A) She can use it as a first step to see what job tasks and person characteristics are generally associated with the job title of computer programmer (B) She can use it as a final cross-check to compare with her job analysis to see if she has done it correctly (C) She can use the information in the O*NET database in place of a full job analysis that she would need to do herself.

(D) None of the above.

Answer: (A) She can use it as a first step to see what job tasks and person characteristics are generally associated with the job title of computer programmer

26 Research shows suggests which of the following when considering the demographic makeup of job analysis samples?

(A) People from different demographic backgrounds describe their jobs differently and provide different kinds of job analysis information.

(B) The demographic makeup should reflect the makeup of the local community.

(C) The O*NET provides different scores on the job analysis based on differences in ethnicity.

(D) It is important to include people from different backgrounds for purposes of diversity and inclusion rather than because there will be large differences in the way they describe their jobs.

(D) It is important to include people from different backgrounds for purposes of diversity and inclusion rather than because there will be large differences in the way they describe their jobs.

Answer:

27 When considering who to choose as SMEs, research has found that ____.

(A) high performers give the most accurate job analysis data.

(B) a mixture of high, medium, and low performers gives the most accurate results.

(C) high performers give inaccurate results because they exaggerate.

(D) SME performance has not been consistently shown to affect job analysis results.

Answer:

(D)

SME performance has not been consistently shown to affect job analysis

results.

28 The degree to which pay in an organization reflects market conditions is called ____.

(A) comparable worth (B) internal equity (C) external equity (D) compensable pay Answer:

(C)

external equity

29 The database published by the US government which provides job analysis information for thousands of jobs is called ____.

(A) the O*NET (B) the PAQ database (C) the EEOC (D) the JEM Answer:

(A)

the O*NET

TRUE-FALSE

30 A company’s CEO is usually used as an SME in a job analysis.

Answer: False 31 The online job analysis database developed by the US Department of Labor is called the PAQ. Answer: False 32 Comparable worth is the issue around differences in pay for typically male versus typically female jobs.

Answer: True 33 How well a job is paid relative to others in the organization is referred to as comparable worth.

Answer: False 34 How well a job is paid relative to the job market is called external equity.

Answer: True 35 The best tasks on a criticality survey are the ones with a high mean and a low standard deviation.

Answer: True

36 Competency modelling is more accepted among top managers than are other job analysis methods.

Answer: True 37 The PAQ is a useful job analysis method when you want to learn a great detail about a single job.

Answer: False 38 A job analysis method that focuses on very important situations an employee deals with as well as the right way and the wrong way to deal with them is criticality analysis.

Answer: False 39 A carelessness index includes bogus job analysis items to catch SMEs who might provide poor data.

Answer: True FILL-IN-THE-BLANKS 40 ____ is an overview of a job, typically one to two pages outlining what the job entails.

Answer: Job description 41 ____ is a brief overview of the characteristics needed to do the job, including the minimum qualifications necessary to do a job.

Answer: Job specification 42 A job incumbent or supervisor used to provide input to the job analysis is called a(n) ____.

Answer: SME 43 An online database developed by the US Department of Labor, that contains job analyses from various job titles, is called _____.

Answer: O*NET 44 How important a task is to job performance, typically in terms of importance to the job or relative time spent on the job, is referred to as _____.

Answer: Criticality 45 A step in the task-KSA analysis in which SMEs document the degree to which the KSAOs really are needed to do the tasks is called the _____ survey.

Answer: Linkage 46 ____ is a standardized, pre-written job analysis questionnaire containing 195 items.

Answer: Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ)

47 A method of job analysis that involves describing the general characteristics needed in jobs in a company, especially within a series of jobs or across a range of jobs. This often includes the company values or mission statement.

Answer: Competency modeling 48 A key goal of job evaluation, to assure fairness of relative pay values within the organization, is called ____.

Answer: internal equity 49 _____ points to differences in pay for typically male versus typically female jobs based on job evaluation and market value.

Answer: comparable worth ESSAY 50 What is the difference between a job description and job specification?

Answer: Feedback: Job description: A simplified and abbreviated form of the information identified in a job analysis (usually 1-2 pages in length); can be provided to employees so that they might understand their main responsibilities. Job specification: Similar to a job description but instead provides a relatively brief overview of the person characteristics needed to do a job; can include the minimum qualifications.

51 Clara works as a sales associate in large clothing retail store. While she has many different duties, one of her most critical tasks is to make the clothing displays look inviting and organized for customers. To do so, she folds each article of clothing and places it neatly on the display table. Given this information, write a task statement that encapsulates the information above.

Answer: Feedback: Folds and places (action verbs) clothing neatly on the display table (object) to make the clothing look inviting and organized for customers (purpose).

52 In order to assess and assure the quality of job analysis data, what can a job analyst do?

Answer: Feedback: Estimate accuracy of job analysis data: reliability of job analysis data (e.g., inter-rater reliability/agreement). Detect and remove SMEs who are providing poor ratings: use carelessness indices; select good SMEs; be especially careful when developing KSAO statements (as compared to task statements) due to typically lower reliability. Improve quality of SME ratings through training.

Things like the job performance level of the SME don’t necessarily matter much to actual quality of the data.

53 In the context of job evaluation, what is the primary difference between internal equity and external equity?

Answer: Feedback: Internal Equity: fairness of relative pay values within the organization. External Equity: fairness of pay relatively to outside market forces.

54 Why might it be advantageous for an organization to use competency modeling to define jobs across countries? In this same context, why might competency modeling be challenging?

Answer: Feedback: Potential challenge: Highly dependent on the culture/values of the organization. Potential advantage: Focuses on showing how the organization’s goals/values are reflected on the job, and thus may be helpful in transmitting organization’s goals/values across different parts of the organization.

55 Describe a potential advantage and a potential disadvantage of using the Position Analysis Questionnaire (PAQ) as the basis of a job analysis.

Answer: Feedback: Advantages: Pre-made (“off-the-shelf”); does not require creating extensive lists of tasks or KSAOs from scratch; allows comparisons across jobs to look for differences; provides information

about the relative value of jobs for making pay decisions. Disadvantages: Does not provide great detail about jobs, as it uses the 195 fairly generic descriptives; requires a fairly high reading level (college level), which can require the job analyst to complete the PAQ him/herself after interviewing SMEs about the job.

56 What are two ways in which the critical incidents technique provides value for key HR functions?

Answer: Feedback: Can generate rich information that can be used to develop: Performance appraisal forms Work-related scenarios for training Writing interview and test questions for selection 57 Describe the general process for conducting a task-KSA analysis.

Answer: Feedback: (a) Assemble List of tasks and KSAOs; (b) Conduct task and KSAO criticality survey; (c) Drop tasks and KSAOs with low mean (not critical) and high standard deviation (SMEs disagree); (d) Conduct linkage survey to assure that KSAOs are needed to perform the critical job tasks; (e) Determine final list of critical tasks and KSAOs. 58 What are the advantages of competency modelling as a job analysis method.

Answer: Feedback: It communicates organizational goals and values. Used over a wide range of jobs in the orgs so it can be used for comparisons. Top managers tend to like it more than other job analysis methods.

59 What are some of the other HR functions job analysis is used for?

Answer: Feedback: Recruitment, selection, performance appraisal, training, pay/compensation, job design, job descriptions, criterion measures.

60 How is job analysis different from job descriptions and specifications?

Answer:

Feedback: A job analysis usually implies a deep analytical process that is used to describe the job and what a person needs in order to perform the job. A good job analysis can allow a person who is relatively unfamiliar with a job to understand it. A detailed job analysis, for example, might describe hundreds of tasks.

61 Why is it important to take demographics into account when choosing SMEs? Answer: Feedback: Although demographics do not necessarily affect the actual job analysis data, it is important. First, the US courts say the SME sample should reflect the applicant pool and the organization. Second, it is important for all groups feel that they are included.

1 An employee steals printer toner cartridges from the copy room every Monday morning.

What type of behavior is this?

(A) task performance (B) counter-organizational citizenship behavior (C) Absenteeism (D) counterproductive work behavior Answer:

(D)

counterproductive work behavior

2 Congratulating a coworker on a job well done represents _____.

(A) contextual performance (B) adaptive performance (C) task performance (D) proactive performance Answer:

(A)

contextual performance

3 A team of advertising employees works to generate as many unique ideas as possible for a new advertising campaign. What dimension of job performance would best capture this aspect of their work?

(A) creative performance (B) adaptive performance (C) task performance (D) contextual performance Answer:

(A)

creative performance

4 A company uses four actual criterion measures to capture the job performance domain of administrative assistants. These 4 measures, averaged together, will be used evaluate a training program. This approach is best described as a _____.

(A) subjective criterion (B) composite criterion (C) objective measure (D) multiple criteria Answer:

(B)

composite criterion

5 Company A uses supervisor ratings to assess employees’ customer service behaviour.

However, it was found that those ratings also measure how much the supervisor likes the employee. Based on this information, one could conclude that the measure has some _______.

(A) composite criteria (B) criterion deficiency (C) criterion contamination (D) objective measurement Answer:

(C)

criterion contamination

6 Of the following, which is NOT a subjective criterion measure: (A) customer satisfaction (B) sales revenue (C) supervisor ratings (D) coworker ratings Answer:

(B)

sales revenue

7 An HR consultant decides to combine three different criteria by calculating the average score across these three criteria for each employee. The HR consult has created a(n) _______.

(A) objective measure (B) singular criterion

(C) multiple criteria (D) composite criterion Answer:

(D)

composite criterion

8 Donna is behind on making a deadline. Specifically, she has to write a 50-page financial report that is due in just two days—and she hasn’t even started yet. To support Donna and help her meet her deadline, a co-worker brings her a sandwich and coffee. This co-worker is exhibiting _____.

(A) organizational citizenship behavior (B) counterproductive work behavior (C) adaptive behavior (D) agreeableness Answer:

(A)

organizational citizenship behavior

9 Criterion relevance refers to the _____.

(A) degree to which the actual criterion overlaps with the conceptual criterion (B) degree to which actual criterion fails to overlap with the conceptual criterion (C) degree to which actual criterion includes other factors not related to the job (D) actual criterion is based on objective outcomes Answer:

(A)

degree to which the actual criterion overlaps with the conceptual criterion

10 After collecting job analysis data for the job of computer programmer, a company determines that a good measure of performance was how many lines of code the programmers could produce in one week. What type of performance measure is this?

(A) conceptual criterion (B) objective measure (C) composite criterion (D) actual criterion Answer:

(D)

actual criterion

11 Marcia has developed a training program for the office workers in her company. She has also developed 5 criterion measures to evaluate how effective the training program is. Marcia wants to understand, in detail, how effective the training program is. Her boss, the HR director, just wants to know if the training worked or not. Most likely, Marcia is interested in treating the measures as ____, whereas her boss would want to see ____.

(A) a composite; multiple criteria (B) multiple criteria; a composite (C) a composite; objective criteria (D) subjective criteria; objective criteria Answer:

(B)

multiple criteria; a composite

12 What term that describes the “essence” of the job, that is, the core job behaviors that can never be completely measured?

(A) job outcome (B) work characteristics (C) conceptual criterion (D) actual criterion Answer:

(C)

conceptual criterion

13 What is the criterion problem?

(A) degree to which the actual criterion overlaps with the conceptual criterion (B) degree to which actual criterion fails to overlap with the conceptual criterion (C) degree to which actual criterion includes something it should not, leading to error (D) difficulty of completely and accurately capturing performance with actual criterion measures

Answer: (D) criterion measures

difficulty of completely and accurately capturing performance with actual

14 Ben has been training for a 400 meter running race. During practice sessions, his times for usually range from 52 seconds to 55 seconds. But in a recent race, he ran the 400 meters in 49 seconds. Ben's 49-second race time most likely represents his _______ for 400 meters.

(A) typical performance (B) maximum performance (C) subjective performance (D) reliable performance Answer:

(B)

maximum performance

15 Staying late to help a coworker get caught up on his/her work is an example of: (A) contextual performance (B) adaptive performance (C) creative performance (D) task performance Answer:

(A)

contextual performance

16 Adaptive performance includes all of the following behaviors EXCEPT: (A) Dealing with uncertain and unpredictable work situations (B) Handling work stress (C) Assisting coworkers (D) Handling emergencies in crisis situations Answer:

(C)

Assisting coworkers

17 A group of I-O psychology experts concludes that they are unable to capture the entirety of what goes into being a good employee. This is an example of _____.

(A) criterion deficiency (B) multiple criteria (C) composite criterion (D) criterion contamination Answer:

(A)

criterion deficiency

18 ______ refers to the level of performance an employee usually exhibits.

(A) Typical performance (B) Optimal performance (C) General performance (D) Maximum performance Answer:

(A)

Typical performance

19 When choosing actual criterion measures, it is important that the actual criterion measures _____.

(A) overlap as much as possible with the conceptual criterion and with each other (B) overlap as little as possible with the conceptual criterion and with each other (C) overlap as little as possible with the conceptual criterion but overlap a lot with each other (D) overlap as much as possible with the conceptual criterion but overlap very little with each other Answer: (D) with each other

overlap as much as possible with the conceptual criterion but overlap very little

20 Which of the following is the best strategy when choosing criterion measures?

(A) Use objective measures as much as possible (B) Focus on a combination sales and units produced (C) Use a combination of measures that complement each other in terms of strengths and weaknesses

(D) Focus on supervisor and co-worker performance ratings to better understand what is actually going on Answer: (C) Use a combination of measures that complement each other in terms of strengths and weaknesses 21 An employee comes to work sick, perhaps because they believe their boss expects it. This is referred to as _____.

(A) reverse-absenteeism (B) the work-sick phenomenon (C) counterproductive work behavior (D) presenteeism Answer:

(D)

presenteeism

22 Which of the following is true of absenteeism as a performance criterion?

(A) It can be difficult to measure whether absences are excused or not.

(B) Some outstanding workers may occasionally take unexcused days off.

(C) Unexcused absences can cause extra work for other workers.

(D) All of the above are true.

Answer:

(D)

All of the above are true.

23 John Campbell’s comprehensive model of job performance describes job performance in terms of _____.

(A) task and contextual performance (B) adaptability and task performance (C) contextual performance, task performance, and organizational citizenship (D) eight broad dimensions Answer:

(D)

eight broad dimensions

24 The idea that an individual’s job performance changes over time (even within the same day) is referred to as _____.

(A) task performance (B) adaptive criteria (C) dynamic criteria (D) criterion change Answer:

(C)

dynamic criteria

25 Which of the following is true about the use of actual criteria in organizations?

(A) All actual criteria have some degree of measurement error.

(B) Objective criteria have very little measurement error and can best capture performance.

(C) Dynamic criteria are the best to use in today’s organizations.

(D) All of the above are true.

Answer:

(A) All actual criteria have some degree of measurement error.

TRUE-FALSE

26 The actual criterion is an abstract idea of the “essence” of a job and cannot be measured directly.

Answer: False 27 The criterion problem is the difficulty of capturing the conceptual criterion with the actual criterion measures.

Answer: True 28 Contextual performance includes behaviors that support the social environment in the workplace.

Answer: True 29 A situation in which a worker comes to work sick, perhaps because they thought that the boss expected them to do so, is called reverse-absenteeism.

Answer: False 30 Shrinkage is the degree to which organizational materials, inventory, or supplies disappear.

Answer: True 31 Shrinkage includes work behaviors such as theft, derailment of others, and abusive leadership.

Answer: False 32 The best strategy for measuring job performance is to use multiple types of job performance measures that can complement each other in terms of strengths and weaknesses.

Answer: True 33 Criterion deficiency is when an actual criterion measure includes something that it should not (e.g., bias), leading to error.

Answer: False 34 Citizenship fatigue can occur when people perform too many OCBs. Answer: True 35 Multiple criteria involves treating each criterion measure separately in an analysis.

Answer: True FILL-IN-THE-BLANK 36 _____ are outcome variables such as measures of employee knowledge, job performance, or attitudes.

Answer: Criteria 37 _____ is an abstract idea of the “essence” of a job and cannot be measured directly.

Answer: Conceptual criterion 38 The difficulty of capturing the conceptual criterion with the actual criterion measures is called _____.

Answer: the criterion problem

39 The concept that performance for an individual employee may change over time, even in the same time, is referred to as _____.

Answer: dynamic performance 40 Behaviors that support the social environment in the workplace are called _____.

Answer: Contextual performance or OCBs 41 If a person carries out too many OCBs, over time this can lead to _____.

Answer: Citizenship fatigue 42 _____ are work behaviors such as theft, derailment of others, and abusive leadership.

Answer: Counterproductive work behavior (CWB) 43 _____ is a situation in which a worker comes to work sick, perhaps because they thought that the boss expected them to do so.

Answer: Presenteeism 44 The degree to which organizational materials, inventory, or supplies disappear is called _____.

Answer: Shrinkage 45 When an organization averages criteria together to get a “bottom line” measure of work performance it is called _____.

Answer: Composite criterion 46 What are criterion measures, and why are they important?

Answer: Feedback: Criterion measures are outcome variables that capture performance or effectiveness of an employee or group of employees. It is important to conceptualize, operationalize, and measure job performance and other work outcomes in order to evaluate the effectiveness of organizational interventions, such as: selection procedures, training programs, and safety policies and practices.

47 How do actual criteria differ from conceptual criteria?

Answer: Feedback: Conceptual criteria are concepts or abstract ideas of the “essence” of a job—not something we can measure directly. We can use job analysis to get a better understanding of a job by collecting KSAOs and job behaviors, but we can never fully capture the entire essence of a job. Actual criteria are the measures actually used (e.g., performance ratings) to try and capture the conceptual criterion. All actual criterion measures are flawed in some way because they have some degree of error.

48 What are two major problems associated with measuring job performance?

Answer: Feedback: 1) Never certain whether a job has been accurately and completely specified to determine the conceptual criterion (via job analysis). 2) To capture conceptual criteria, actual criterion measures must be used, all of which contain some error.

49 When choosing multiple actual criterion measures that are intended to overlap with the same conceptual criterion, what is an important consideration?

Answer: Feedback: It is important to choose actual criteria that overlap as much as possible with the conceptual criterion, but not with each other—in other words, choose actual criteria that are not redundant with each other. Ideally, we want each actual criterion to capture a unique aspect of the conceptual criterion. We don’t want a situation where the actual criterion measures substantially overlap with each other.

50 What are two characteristics of good actual criterion measures?

Answer: Feedback: High reliability. Detect differences among employees. Accepted by employees and supervisors. Not too costly or disruptive 51 Provide an example of a situation (real or hypothetical) in which it would be preferable to use a multiple-criteria approach (as opposed to a composite-criteria approach).

Answer:

Feedback: Example: The separate criterion measures are not highly correlated. In a training intervention, the unique criterion measures might respond differently to the training intervention, such that some might increase slowly over time, others might increase rapidly over time, and still others might stay the same. Creating a composite out of these criterion measures might result in an incomplete picture of what, specifically, the training is impacting and how. Also, in general, multiple criteria are more important for research and knowing what is going on in the training, whereas a composite gives you a bottom line, e.g., for non-researchers.

52 Describe one challenge associated with using objective measures of performance. Give an example.

Answer: Feedback: Objective measures may be partially beyond the control of the employee. For instance, the number of sales made could depend upon the health of the economy. In addition, the number of units produced could depend upon the quality of the machinery or technology to produce them.

53 Given the respective challenges associated with both subjective and objective measures of performance, what should an organization do to measure performance?

Answer: Feedback: The best strategy is to use multiple types of job performance measures that can complement each other in terms of strengths and weaknesses. For example, objective measures may compensate for some of the biases inherent in subjective performance ratings. And subjective ratings may compensate for some of the factors that are not captured by objective ratings.

54 Given that performance can change over time, what are the implications of conducting performance appraisals once a year?

Answer: Feedback: If performance changes over time, a single time point performance evaluation may not capture a representative ""slice"" of workers' performance. It may overestimate or underestimate their true level of performance over the prior year. Further, while the average level of true performance over the course of a year may be the same two employees, one may experience an upward trajectory in performance while the other may experience a downward trajectory. By measuring only once a year, such trends may be missed, and as a result, tailored feedback and goal-setting may not be as effective.

55 Differentiate task performance from contextual performance.

Answer: Feedback: Task performance includes the core tasks and responsibilities of the job. Contextual performance includes supporting the social fabric of the team or organization.

56 What are problems with using absenteeism as a performance measure?

Answer: Feedback: The reasons an employee is absent aren’t easily measured or capture. Could be excused absence or not. Also, great employees may be absent sometimes. So absence is important but not the most important outcome.

57 What is shrinkage and why are measures of shrinkage used for in performance measurement?

Answer: Feedback: Shrinkage is the amount of material, etc. that disappears at work. It can be used to try to measure employee theft indirectly.

58 What is the “dark side” of OCBs? Answer: Feedback: Too much OCB can result in citizenship fatigue and lower OCB over time. Research has shown that some people (e.g., women) may be expected to perform OCBs, which then unfairly affects their productivity.

59 What are problems with using tardiness as a performance measure?

Answer: Feedback: It may not be the most important outcome. Plus, some very good employees may be tardy sometimes.

60 What is the criterion problem?

Answer: Feedback: First, it is hard to specify what makes up the conceptual criterion because job analysis methods are imperfect. Second, it’s hard to get good actual performance measures to capture the conceptual criterion – all actual criteria are imperfect, include measurement error or bias, etc. And even

using several actual criteria you can never completely capture the conceptual criterion – there is always some contamination and some deficiency.

1 Sheila supervises a group of nurses who work in an emergency department. In the past, she has only received job feedback from her direct supervisor. As part of a new development initiative, her department now requires that Sheila receive performance feedback from her direct supervisor, her subordinates, and other coworkers in her department. This type of performance feedback is best described as: (A) 360-degree (B) complete (C) comprehensive (D) holistic Answer: (A) 360-degree

2 When delivering performance feedback, Erik's supervisor complimented him on how well he handled challenging incidents with customers. But his supervisor then suggested that Erik’s attention to detail needed improvement, as evidenced by multiple instances in which Erik entered a wrong product number. Finally, the supervisor told Erik that his customer satisfaction scores were high and that he should keep up the good work. What does this suggest about his supervisor?

(A) the supervisor likes his employee (B) the supervisor uses the sandwich technique (C) the supervisor develops action plans (D) the supervisor uses a halo approach Answer: (B) the supervisor uses the sandwich technique

3 At a construction company, managers are required to place 10% of their employees into the high performance category, 60% into the medium performance category, and 30% in the low performance category. This is an example of a(n) _____ system.

(A) absolute appraisal (B) relative appraisal (C) objective measure (D) trait appraisal Answer:

(B)

relative appraisal

4 Regular _____ can provide opportunities for managers and employees to discuss their performance and set goals. Select the best response.

(A) one-on-one meetings (B) training (C) diary keeping (D) accountability Answer:

(A)

one-on-one meetings

5 For the first 11 months of the fiscal year, Pablo exceeded his manager's expectations by meeting or exceeding all of his goals. In the last month of the fiscal year, however, Pablo failed to meet several of his goals. During the performance appraisal meeting, Pablo's manager focuses primarily on the last month of Pablo's performance. In terms of the manager's ratings, what does this situation most likely reflect?

(A) halo effect (B) contrast error (C) strictness error (D) recency error Answer:

(D)

recency error

6 Nancy excels at her skills as a team member, although she is an average employee in other ways. Yet Nancy's manager rates her highly across all performance dimensions during her performance appraisal. What does this scenario most likely reflect?

(A) halo effect (B) contrast error (C) leniency error (D) recency error Answer:

(A)

halo effect

7 Performance appraisals are conducted for all of the following purposes EXCEPT: (A) developmental (B) administrative (C) accounting (D) legal Answer:

(C)

accounting

8 All of the following are characteristics of an effective performance appraisal system EXCEPT: (A) accurate (B) infrequent (C) practical (D) strategic fit with organization's objectives Answer:

(B)

infrequent

9 As Lindy's boss has observed that Lindy has exerted a great deal of effort and persistence in trying to achieve her goals. However, due to factors beyond Lindy’s control, Lindy was unable to complete the majority of her work-related goals. Knowing this background information, her boss decides to give Lindy a higher performance appraisal rating than she technically deserves because Lindy is trying so hard. This scenario represents the _________ of performance appraisal.

(A) automaticity (B) objectivity (C) cognitive process (D) social-relational process Answer:

(D)

social-relational process

10 A large company uses performance appraisals to make employment-related decisions (e.g., raises, layoffs) based on employees’ past performance. This company is conducting performance appraisals for _____.

(A) administrative reasons (B) research purposes (C) developmental reasons (D) personal reasons Answer:

(A)

administrative reasons

11 At Lisa's company, managers complete performance appraisals twice annually for every employee. The performance appraisal form instructs managers to rate employees' characteristics such as their honesty, perseverance, and friendliness. What type of appraisal is Lisa's company most likely using?

(A) trait (B) results (C) outcome (D) behavior Answer:

(A)

trait

13 When Terren conducts a performance appraisal, she writes a narrative description (including specific examples) of the focal employee's performance over the last review period. This rating approach can best be classified as a(n) ________.

(A) essay appraisal (B) behavior anchored appraisal (C) forced distribution appraisal (D) behavior observation appraisal Answer:

(A)

essay appraisal

14 Mark has been tasked with evaluating a new training program at his organization. As part of the evaluation process, he uses employees' performance appraisal data to assess whether their performance changed in response to the training program. Mark is using performance appraisals for _____.

(A) administrative reasons (B) research purposes (C) developmental reasons (D) personal reasons Answer:

(B)

research purposes

15 A company evaluates customer service representatives’ performance, in part, based on the frequency with which such employees are observed greeting customers in a friendly and professional manner. What type of appraisal does this represent?

(A) trait (B) behavior (C) results (D) outcome Answer:

(B)

behavior

16 The director of a large company notices that one unit manager gave all of her employees very high ratings. What rater error does this most likely reflect?

(A) strictness (B) central tendency (C) contrast (D) leniency Answer:

(D)

leniency

17 Mario's performance evaluations are based on how many computers he assembles and how much waste he produces during the assembly process. What type of appraisal does this represent?

(A) trait (B) behavior (C) results (D) outcome Answer:

(D)

outcome

18 A manager rates one employee's performance as lower than it actually is because the employee works with very high performers. What type of rater error does this represent?

(A) strictness (B) central tendency (C) contrast (D) leniency Answer:

(C)

contrast

19 If the performance appraisal form is too long, complicated, and difficult to understand, raters will not be motivated to be accurate in their ratings. This is mainly an issue around performance appraisal (A) Strictness (B) Practicality (C) User Fairness (D) Legality Answer: (B) Practicality 20 At Jaime’s company, he is encouraged to rate his subordinates according to preestablished criteria and standards, and not to focus comparing the subordinates to each other. The company is encouraging Jaime to carry out _____ appraisals.

(A) Absolute (B) Relative (C) Outcome (D) BARS Answer: (A)Absolute 21 Karen is a supervisor who rates her subordinates. She is asked to use a rating scale that lists a series of behaviors, and Karen rates how often or frequently each employee carries out that behavior. This rating scale is best described as a (A) Relative scale (B) Graphic rating scale (C) Behaviorally-anchored rating scale (D) Behavioral observation scale Answer: (D) Behavioral observation scale 22 Donna is a supervisor who rates her subordinates. She is asked to use a rating scale that lists a number of dimensions (such as “job knowledge”) on a scale of 1 to 5. The rating scale gives examples of behaviors at different points of the scale so Donna knows what is considered good or poor behavior. This rating scale is best described as a (A) Relative scale (B) Graphic rating scale

(C) Behaviorally anchored rating scale (D) Behavioral observation scale Answer: (C) Behaviorally anchored rating scale 23 One of the advantages of a straight ranking scale of employees is (A) Employees prefer this method (B) Supervisors support this method (C) It makes it easier to compare the ratings of employees across different supervisors (D) It is good for some decision-making purposes because it forces supervisors to identify top employees Answer: (D) It is good for some decision-making purposes because it forces supervisors to identify top employees 24 Which of the following is true about self-appraisal, where ratings are done by the employee about themselves?

(A) They allow the employee to have some input into the rating process.

(B) They ensure that the employee thinks about their past performance.

(C) They help supervisors remember the employee’s accomplishments during the rating period.

(D) All of the above are true.

Answer: (D) All of the above are true.

25 Trucking companies may be able to see how fast their drivers drive, how often and hard they brake, and how long they take breaks. And call center employees' calls may be recorded for performance assessment purposes, on criteria such as how quickly they completed the call. These are both examples of (A) Behavior observation scales (B) Electronic performance monitoring (C) Performance management (D) Performance development systems Answer: (B) Electronic performance monitoring 26 Jill is a new supervisor. As part of her training, she is shown videos of employee performance, asked to rate the employee, and given feedback about her ratings. This is referred to as (A) Frame-of-reference training (B) Rater error training (C) Developmental feedback training (D) Observation scale training Answer: (B) Frame-of-reference training

27 Ken is a new supervisor who has been asked to rate his employees. He goes to a meeting with other supervisors to discuss his ratings and compare his ratings to those of other supervisors. This is called a (A) Frame-of-reference meeting (B) Rater error meeting (C) Calibration meeting (D) Behavioral observation meeting Answer: (C) Calibration meeting 28 To the extent that performance appraisals are used to make employment systems like who gets promoted, they are governed by (A) the Uniform Guidelines (B) OSHA laws (C) The O*NET (D) the Fair Labor Standards Act Answer: (A) the Uniform Guidelines 29 Typical appraisals are based on a “deficit model” where weaknesses are identified and improved. This runs counter to assumptions of (A) Occupational Health Psychology (B) Occupational Safety (C) Positive Psychology (D) Industrial-Organizational Psychology Answer: (C) Positive Psychology 30 Some experts say that performance ratings should be abandoned completely because (A) The performance ratings lack reliability (B) Ratings are often based on political reasons (C) Both A and B (D) None of the above; few experts say we should stop using performance ratings.

Answer: (C) Both A and B

True-False 31 Performance management represents one component of a performance appraisal system.

Answer: False

32 A legally defensible performance appraisal should be based on a manager's expert opinion and general impressions of an employee's performance.

Answer: False

33 A manager who views an employee as similar to him/herself often develops a higher quality relationship with the employee.

Answer: True

34 360-degree feedback refers to the training and development of a person to achieve professional goals.

Answer: False

35 A behavioral observation rating scale is an example of a relative appraisal rating scale.

Answer: False

36 Some experts say that companies should stop doing performance ratings because they are unreliable.

Answer: True 37 To the extent that performance appraisals are based on a “deficit model”, they are consistent with positive psychology.

Answer: False

38 Ranking performance appraisal scales are good for giving employees feedback about how they can improve.

Answer: False 39 Frame-of-reference training familiarizes raters with different types of rating errors in the hopes that raters will avoid committing these errors.

Answer: False 40 An example of halo error is when a supervisor tends to rate his or her employees high.

Answer: False

Fill-in-the-blank 41 How managers and employees feel about a performance appraisal system is referred to as _____ Answer: user reactions 42 A performance appraisal scale where the rater is given detailed examples of behaviors on each point of the scale is referred to as a(n) _____ Answer: Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scale 43Appraisals conducted to validate a selection battery or for validating and assessing the effectiveness of a training program are used for _____ purposes.

Answer: Research 44 Appraisals which focus on measuring employee characteristics such as reliability, honesty, punctuality, or friendliness use a(n) _____ rating scale.

Answer: Trait 45 Appraisals which focus on quantitative metrics such as sales figures, number of units produced, or number of mistakes use a(n) _____ rating scale.

Answer: Outcome 46 ____ is a relative appraisal format where there are restrictions on what percentage of employees can be placed in the top, middle, and bottom categories.

Answer: Forced distribution 47 A performance appraisal system where data are collected from multiple raters at all levels, including managers, peers, subordinates, and customers is called _____.

Answer: 360 ratings/360s 48 Systems that utilize technology such as video cameras, recording of employee– customer interactions, or recording keyboard strokes to observe, review, and act on employee performance in a continuous fashion are called ____ Answer: Electronic performance monitoring

49 _____ error is a type of distribution error in which the rater gives all ratees a very high rating without distinguishing among them.

Answer: Leniency 50 One-on-one training and development of a person to achieve their professional goals is called ____.

Answer: Coaching Essay 51 In a performance appraisal system, there are many different potential sources of ratings (i.e., different people). Pick two sources and describe a potential limitation with each.

Answer: Feedback: Manager: manager's opportunity to observe can be limited, especially when the manager and employee work in different locations; being rated by someone who rarely observes the ratee can be perceived as unfair. Peers: can be time-consuming to collect and administer, as well as difficult to maintain confidentiality. Customers: can be cumbersome to collect customer satisfaction information; customers are not required to justify their ratings and are typically anonymous, and are thus susceptible to various biases. Subordinates: challenging to collect because employees may be fearful that their ratings could be identifiable and damage their relation with the manager; can be biased by how much the subordinates personally like the manager. Self: those who have an inflated sense of their performance are least receptive to feedback. 360-degree: self-other rating discrepancies associated with more negative reactions toward appraisal feedback; administratively cumbersome.

52 What are two things that a manager can do to help ensure that employees will perceive the performance appraisal process as fair?

Answer: Feedback: Ensure a positive feedback context in which the rater and ratee have had an ongoing relationship. Rater should prepare for the meeting by gathering needed documents and ratings, as well as scheduling a private meeting space. Allow the ratee to contribute to discussion and limit the number of topics to be discussed. Use the sandwich technique for delivering feedback.

Develop an action plan that describes goals for the future and what the rater and ratee will do to improve the ratee’s effectiveness.

53 What is the distinction between Performance Management and Performance Appraisal? Which term is gaining more acceptance in I/O psychology today? Why? Answer: Feedback: Performance appraisal connotes a singular event, while performance management implies a system of ongoing feedback, goal setting, and evaluation. Performance management is gaining wider acceptance has it captures the goals of many top companies.

54 Describe one reason why employees may not view their company's performance appraisal system as useful.

Answer: Feedback: Process can be political, such that ratings may be based influenced by factors other than performance (e.g., incentives, PA as motivational tool). Evaluation tool may not be based on a recent job analysis, and thus performance dimensions may be outdated. PA tool may be used inconsistently across employees, affecting perceptions of fairness. Supervisor may not have enough contact with employee’s work.

55 Performance appraisal can be thought of as both a cognitive process and a socialrelational process. To what do these two processes refer?

Answer: Feedback: Cognitive Process: This is all about the rater and their ability to rate correctly.

Factors that affect it include observe performance as it occurs; Store information about performance to memory; Recall information when time to assess performance. Train raters and have good PA scales to improve it. Social-Relational Process: PA occurs within context of existing rater-ratee relation; Raters have goals beyond rating ratee objectively.

56 According to the textbook, what are the four main purposes of performance appraisal from the perspective of the organization? Provide an example of each purpose.

Answer: Feedback: Developmental Reasons: conducted to develop future performance; Example: give employee feedback on goal-striving process and whether knew goal(s) should be set.

Administrative Reasons: make decisions based on past performance; Example: use PA for determining who receives a financial incentive. Research Purposes: evaluate training effectiveness or validate selection tool; Example: develop a new training program, and look at PA ratings before and after training to see if training improved ratings. Legal Reasons: defense for organization faced with employment discrimination claim; Example: employee claims that a recent set of promotions resulted in adverse impact against a protected subgroup; organization demonstrates that the PA was developed using rigorous job analysis and that promotions were entirely job-related.

57 What is the primary difference between a trait appraisal and a behavior appraisal?

Name one potential drawback for both types of appraisals.

Answer: Feedback: Trait appraisals focus on measuring employee KSAOs, traits, and characteristics, while behavior appraisals measure the frequency with which specific observable work behaviors occur. Potential problems with trait appraisals: Focus on the person rather than performance; Focus on factors that are intrinsic to the person and harder to change; Tend to increase common rating biases and errors due to vagueness of traits. Potential problems with behavior appraisals: Time-consuming to develop; Specific behaviors can result in assumption that there exists only one way to be a high performer.

58 In terms of the different types of performance appraisals, what is an outcome appraisal? What is an advantage of this type? What is a disadvantage?

Answer:

Feedback: Outcome Appraisals: focus on quantitative metrics—for example: Sales figures, Number of units produced, Level of absenteeism. Advantage: Less subject to many rating errors and perceived as fair when tied to most important elements of job. Disadvantage: Tend to be less under employee control; May not cover all aspects of job; Can create ethical dilemmas, as they may incentivize or motivate problematic behavior.

59 What is an absolute appraisal rating scale? What is a relative appraisal rating scale?

State one strength and one limitation for each type of appraisal rating scale.

Answer: Feedback: Absolute appraisal rating scales compare performance to pre-established criteria; strength: can provide a more meaningful indication of employee's performance in an absolute sense; limitation: may not be appropriate for making comparisons across employees if that is what’s needed. Relative appraisal rating scales compare performance of focal ratee to other ratees' performance; strength: can be useful for decision-making purposes because it forces raters to differentiate between different performers or levels of performance; limitation: becomes cumbersome as the number of ratees to be compared increases. Can be seen as unfair by employees. Ratings of two supervisors, one with really good employees and the other with really poor employees, cannot be compared.

60 What are electronic performance monitoring systems? What are their advantages and disadvantages?

Answer: Feedback: They use technology such as video cameras, recording of employees and customers, or keyboard strokes to monitor and act on employee performance in a continual fashion.

Negatives: May be seen as an invasion of privacy; may create anxiety; need to be sure the data is relevant/good quality. Advantages: May have fewer biases than a human rater. May help an organization understand performance of an employee or organization over time.

61 What are the different types of performance appraisal training?

Answer: Feedback: Rater error training (tell raters about the different errors and to avoid them); frame of reference training (showing rater examples, have them practice rating, and give the rater feedback); performance appraisal system training (how to give feedback) 62 What is meant by feedback context?

Answer: Feedback: The conditions under which feedback is delivered to an employee. It includes factors like the relationship quality between employees and managers, team cohesiveness, organizational culture.

63 What are some of the legal issues associated with performance appraisal?

Answer: Feedback: If the PA is used for employment decisions like promotion, salary, or layoffs.

64 What are some characteristics of effective performance appraisal systems?

Answer: Feedback: There are several of these, but the main factors are strategic fit with the organization; content validity (they sample important job behaviors); how accurate they are; how users (employees and supervisors) react to them; how practical/feasible they are.

65 What are some ways to minimize performance appraisal errors?

Answer: Feedback: There are several of these, but they include rater training of different sorts (error training, frame of reference, PA system training); calibration meetings; diary keeping; use of objective appraisals; use of multiple raters.

1 Using an "at work" frame of reference on test items has been shown to increase the validity of _____.

(A) cognitive ability tests (B) personality tests (C) situational judgment tests (D) tests of specific cognitive abilities Answer:

(B)

personality tests

2 The Big Five personality dimension of _____ includes facets such as orderliness, dutifulness, and achievement striving.

(A) conscientiousness (B) extraversion (C) openness to experience (D) proactivity Answer:

(A)

conscientiousness

3 Of the following selection tools, ____ tends to have the highest validity (A) Structured Interviews (B) Unstructured Interviews (C) Semi-structured interviews (D) Personality assessment interviews Answer:

(A)

Structured Interviews

4 _______ refers to the tendency to recognize and act on opportunities in the environment.

(A) conscientiousness (B) openness to experience (C) adaptability (D) proactive personality Answer:

(D)

proactive personality

5 Core self-evaluations includes the following: (A) conscientiousness, adaptability, emotional intelligence (B) proactive personality, adaptability, emotional intelligence (C) self-esteem, locus of control, self-efficacy, neuroticism (D) self-efficacy, openness to experience, self-esteem, conscientiousness Answer:

(C)

self-esteem, locus of control, self-efficacy, neuroticism

6 "I work quickly rather than paying attention to rules and details." This item would most likely be found on test of ______.

(A) integrity (B) conscientiousness (C) adaptability (D) proactive personality Answer:

(A)

integrity

7 ____ tap into a person's preferences for certain types of work or work environments.

(A) Vocational interests tests (B) Biodata measures (C) Assessment centers (D) Resumes Answer: 8

(A)

Vocational interests tests

Which of the following best exemplifies a psychomotor test?

(A) test-taker makes a situationally-based judgment (B) test-taker completes an in-basket task (C) test-taker identifies parallel analogies (D) test-taker inserts pegs into boards Answer:

(D)

test-taker inserts pegs into boards

9 Which of the following questions would be the most likely to be asked in a situational interview?

(A) Think of a time when you were asked to find a bicycle that best fit a customer. What did you do?

(B) If a customer asked you to find a bicycle that best fits him/her, what would you do?

(C) How would you describe your relationship with your previous supervisor?

(D) Do you work well under pressure?

Answer: do?

(B)

If a customer asked you to find a bicycle that best fits him/her, what would you

10 ____ tests allow test-takers to go at their own pace, with no consideration for how quickly they can answer the questions.

(A) Speed (B) Power (C) Group-administered (D) Cognitive Answer:

(B)

Power

11 _____ questions focus on an applicant’s education and past work and life experiences to predict how well the applicant can perform the job.

(A) Work sample (B) Situational judgment test (C) Biodata (D) Assessment center Answer:

(C)

Biodata

12 ____ tests require test-takers to work as quickly as possible within a short period of time.

(A) Speed (B) Power (C) Group-administered (D) Cognitive Answer:

(A)

Speed

13 Of the Big Five, ____ was found to be a good predictor of sales and management jobs.

(A) extraversion (B) positive affectivity (C) agreeableness (D) openness to experience Answer:

(A)

extraversion

14 “I pay attention to details." This item would most likely be found on a(n) _____.

(A) neuroticism test (B) adaptability test (C) conscientiousness test (D) openness to experience test Answer:

(C)

conscientiousness test

15 As part of a hiring process for computer technicians, a company asks job applicants to fix a malfunctioning computer. This type of selection procedure most likely represents a _____.

(A) situational judgment test (B) personality test (C) work sample test (D) structured interview Answer:

(C)

work sample test

16 A hiring manager asks each job applicant different questions. Some of the questions are not necessarily job related. What type of selection procedure is the hiring manager most likely using?

(A) structured interview (B) unstructured interview (C) personality test (D) biodata Answer:

(B)

unstructured interview

17 The Big Five personality dimensions are: (A) Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism, Conscientiousness, Openness to Experience (B) External Locus of Control, Internal Locus of Control, Positive Affectivity, Negative Affectivity, SelfMonitoring (C) Emotional Stability, Self-Efficacy, Self-Esteem, Internal Locus of Control, External Locus of Control (D) Verbal Ability, Quantitative Ability, Reasoning Ability, Spatial Ability, Perceptual Ability Answer: Experience

(A)

Extraversion, Agreeableness, Neuroticism, Conscientiousness, Openness to

18 Which of the Big Five personality dimensions is the most consistent predictor of job performance across a variety of job types?

(A) Extraversion (B) Agreeableness (C) Locus of Control (D) Conscientiousness Answer:

(D)

Conscientiousness

19 Which of the following is a method rather than a construct?

(A) integrity (B) assessment center (C) extraversion (D) proactive personality Answer:

(B)

assessment center

20 The term “g” stands for _____.

(A) general cognitive ability (B) validity coefficient (C) general core self-evaluations (D) conscientiousness Answer:

(A)

general cognitive ability

21 When considering the use of cognitive ability tests in selection, which of the following is true?

(A) Cognitive ability tests have high validity and low adverse impact.

(B) Cognitive ability tests have high validity and high adverse impact.

(C) Cognitive ability tests have low validity and low adverse impact.

(D) Cognitive ability tests have low validity and high adverse impact.

Answer:

(B)

Cognitive ability tests have high validity and high adverse impact.

22 One reason for the increased use of personality tests for selection is that these tests have _____.

(A) high validity (B) low adverse impact (C) lead to decreased faking by applicants (D) strongly correlated with situational judgment Answer:

(B)

low adverse impact

23 Whereas ____ questions ask applicants about their past job-related experiences, _____ questions ask hypothetical job-related questions.

(A) unstructured interview; behavioral interview (B) situational interview; unstructured interview (C) situational interview; behavioral interview (D) behavioral interview; situational interview Answer:

(D)

behavioral interview; situational interview

24 Which of the following are ways to add structure to a job interview?

(A) Use the same job related questions for all applicants.

(B) Develop standardized rating scales.

(C) Use multiple raters.

(D) All of the above are true.

Answer:

(D)

All of the above are true.

25 A(n)____ is a type of work sample test for managers.

(A) unstructured interview (B) proactive personality test (C) assessment center (D) extraversion test Answer:

(C)

assessment center

26 The idea that past and present behaviour are the best predictors of future behaviour is the basis for the use of _____ in selection.

(A) cognitive ability (B) resumes (C) biodata (D) situational judgment tests (SJTs) Answer:

(C)

biodata

27 Julio applies for a customer service job. As part of the selection process, he takes a multiple choice test that asks him how he would handle various interpersonal and customer service scenarios. In this case, Julio has completed a(n) _____.

(A) situational judgment test (SJT) (B) biodata test (C) assessment center exercise (D) cognitive ability test Answer:

(A)

situational judgment test (SJT)

28 State laws that prevent employers from asking about criminal history on a job application are called ____.

(A) Ban the box laws (B) Equal hiring laws (C) Biodata control laws (D) Open resume laws Answer:

(A)

Ban the box laws

29 Katrina is interviewing Ella for a management trainee job. As part of the interview, Katrina explains what the job is like, both good and bad. This is called a _____.

(A) recruitment interview (B) realistic job preview

(C) onboarding preview (D) quality control review Answer:

(B)

realistic job preview

30 Research has shown that integrity tests _____.

(A) are good predictors counterproductive work behaviors (B) have high adverse impact against protected groups (C) are good for attracting people with high job satisfaction to the organization (D) have low utility Answer:

(A)

are good predictors counterproductive work behaviors

31 Which of the following is correct about the research thus far on the use of artificial intelligence (AI) to score video interviews?

(A) Job applicants tend to prefer this approach because it eliminates bias.

(B) Job applicants tend to dislike this approach.

(C) This approach has shown poor validity as a selection tool.

(D) This approach to interviewing is costly.

Answer:

(B)

Job applicants tend to dislike this approach.

32 Which of the following is correct about the use of credit scores in selection?

(A) Credit scores are good predictors of workplace deviance.

(B) High credit scores are associated with high agreeableness.

(C) High credit scores are associated with low agreeableness.

(D) Credit scores should be included as part of most selection programs.

Answer:

(C) High credit scores are associated with low agreeableness.

33 Which of the following is correct about the use of resumes in selection?

(A) They are commonly used because they are very good predictors of performance.

(B) They are commonly used but there is little research that shows that they are valid.

(C) They may be illegal as personnel selection tools.

(D) They provide consistent information about each job applicant.

Answer: valid.

(B)

They are commonly used but there is little research that shows that they are

34 Which of the following are true about the use of social networking sites for personnel selection?

(A) Social networking sites may provide recruiters with demographic information about job candidates that recruiters are legally barred from using when making hiring decisions.

(B) Recruiter ratings of candidates’ social networking sites are predictive of future job performance.

(C) Job candidates should not be concerned with what is on the social networking sites because it is illegal for recruiters to use this information.

(D) All of the above are true.

Answer: (A) Social networking sites may provide recruiters with demographic information about job candidates that recruiters are legally barred from using when making hiring decisions.

TRUE/FALSE 35 The Big Five personality dimension that best predicts job performance across all jobs is neuroticism.

Answer: False 36 General cognitive ability is one of the best predictors of job performance across different types of jobs.

Answer: True 37 The validity of cognitive ability tests can be improved by providing an "at work" frame of reference for test takers.

Answer: False

38 Integrity tests are a weak predictor of counterproductive work behaviors.

Answer: False 39 A situational interview asks job-related questions about an applicant’s actual past workrelated experiences.

Answer: False 40 Unstructured interviews are better than structured interviews for predicting job performance.

Answer: False 41 Cognitive ability tests have high adverse impact against some protected groups.

Answer: True

42 A situational judgment test (SJT) puts the job applicant into a work-related situation and ask what they believe is the right action.

Answer: True 43 Research has found that people with high credit scores are high on agreeableness.

Answer: False 44 Biodata questions ask applicants about their past life history and experiences.

Answer: True 45 The Big Five dimension that is the best predictor of performance across all jobs is _____.

Answer: Conscientiousness

46 _____ is when tests are administered online so that a person might take the test at home or at some location away from a representative of the organization.

Answer: Unproctored Internet testing

47 The degree to which there are mean differences in the performance of different subgroups (e.g., ethnic groups, men vs. women) on a selection procedure is called _____.

Answer: adverse impact

48 Tests which assess dexterity and/or coordination and which may require agility and dexterous movements of the fingers, hands, or body are called _____.

Answer: Psychomotor tests 49 _____ personality is the tendency to recognize and act on opportunities in the environment.

Answer: Proactive 50 The combination of self-esteem, locus of control, self-efficacy, and neuroticism is referred to as _____.

Answer: Core self-evaluations (CSE) 51 ____ are tests Tests developed to predict negative and counterproductive employee behaviors such as theft, malingering, drug use, and aggression.

Answer: Integrity tests 52 A type of structured interview where applicants are asked job-related questions about hypothetical situations is called a _____.

Answer: Situational interview 53 ____ tests are tests developed to assess dimensions like endurance or explosive strength for physically demanding jobs such as firefighter.

Answer: Physical ability 54 A _____ is a selection procedure in which the applicant is asked to do a small portion of the job.

Answer: Work sample

ESSAY 55 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of traditional paper-and-pencil tests and unproctored Internet testing.

Answer: Feedback: Paper-and-pencil tests have the advantage of being scored easily. Further, they are often given in a testing center or site, which allows for supervision during testing and verification of identity.

In many cases, however, paper-and-pencil tests require that applicants come to the organization, which requires added resources from the organization (e.g., travel reimbursement) and effort from the applicant. Unproctored Internet testing gives applicants the freedom to complete a test online in the convenience of their own home or location of their choosing; or, organizations allow applicants to complete testing at a location that is away from a representative of the organization. A downside to unproctored Internet testing is that it may be difficult to verify applicants' identities to know if they actually took the test.

56 Why is it important to differentiate between methods and constructs in the selection context? What are they and how do they differ?

Answer: Feedback: On the one hand, method is the approach/technique/format used to gather data. For instance, common selection methods include: structured interviews, assessment centers, and paperand-pencil tests. On the other hand, constructs refer to the concepts (or KSAOs) that are presumed to underlie job performance in a given job, as defined by a job analysis. For instance, common selection constructs include: general cognitive ability, integrity, and conscientiousness. It is important to distinguish between methods and constructs because selection tests are supposed to be job-related, and thus the appropriate job-related construct(s) should be assessed regardless of the method used. In other words, a single method can be used to measure any number of constructs, and a single construct can be measured using a number of methods. For example, a structured interview could be designed to assess the level of applicants' conscientiousness, or it could be designed to assess the level of applicants' integrity.

57 What is a work sample test? What is one advantage and one disadvantage of using work sample tests?

Answer: Feedback: Work sample tests assess how well an applicant does the actual job, usually by giving the applicant actual equipment and asking the to perform key tasks for the job. Advantages: Have clear content validity; High psychological and physical fidelity. Disadvantages: Can be expensive and time intensive; Should not be used to assess job skills that applicants are expected to learn later on the job.

58 What is an assessment center? What is one advantage and one disadvantage of using assessment centers?

Answer: Feedback: Assessment centers put candidates for promotion to manager through a series of exercises that reflect the job. Advantages: Provide realistic context for assessing the strengths of candidates for promotion; Attractive to candidates because they really look like the job; Significant relationship with work performance; Help make decisions about promotion and provide rich feedback to candidates.

Disadvantages: Relatively expensive to administer; Candidates who can correctly guess the dimensions being assessed successfully tend to do better than other candidates; Tend to show some degree of adverse impact.

59 What are some ways in which structure can be added to a selection interview?

Answer: Feedback: Use the same, job-related questions for all applicants. Develop standardized rating scales.

Note taking. Use multiple raters. Train raters.

60 Accumulated evidence has demonstrated that general cognitive abiilty is one of the best predictors of job performance across a variety of jobs. Why is that some U.S. organizations refrain from using general cognitive ability tests or are very cautious when using them?

Answer: Feedback: General cognitive ability tests have been demonstrated to result in adverse impact. As such, organizations use cognitive ability tests cautiously and often in combination with other selection tools to mitigate any potential adverse impact. Finally, cognitive ability is a good indicator of what someone can do and not necessarily what they will do. Therefore, it's good practice to use other selection tools to try to anticipate a person's fit and motivation on the job.

61 What is at least one way to improve the validity of Big Five personality tests?

Answer: Feedback: Provide an at work frame of reference for items. Consider using specific facets or subtraits in certain situations rather than just the broad factor.

62 What is the validity of different types of interviews for selection?

Answer: Feedback: Unstructured interviews have the lowest validity. However, structured interviews which are based on a job analysis and have the same questions for each candidate have good validity. There are two types: Behavioral interviews which ask about past situations, and situational interviews which ask about hypothetical. Behavioral may be slightly more valid but the type of structured interview may be based on the situation, e.g., the work experience of the applicant pool.

63 What types of exercises are included in an assessment center?

Answer: Feedback: There are many types but 3 common ones are in box/in basket, where the candidate deals with materials that are in their in box; role-plays, which might include dealing with a difficult subordinate; and leaderless group discussion, which would include having candidates work on something together and seeing who emerges as the leader.

64 Discuss the use of integrity tests in selection.

Answer: Feedback: There are two types, overt, which ask about things like drug use or theft; and personality based, which are more subtle. Both are used to predict things like counterproductive work behaviors.

These tests have fairly low adverse impact and are inexpensive, and they seem to be good predictors (especially used with other predictors), but there is some disagreement on this last issue in recent years.

65 Discuss the value of work samples in selection.

Answer: Feedback: These tests are valid, they look like the job so are attractive to applicants. They sample the job well. The main issue is that they are expensive because often they are administered individually.

66 What are SJTs and why are they used?

Answer: Feedback: SJTs or situational judgment tests ask work-related questions and then typically give the respondent multiple-choice responses. They can be presented verbally or as a video. They are inexpensive versions of a work sample, sometimes called low-fidelity simulations. Inexpensive and solid validity.

67 Discuss the use of resumes in selection.

Answer: Feedback: Very commonly used. Not a lot of research that shows their validity. Applicants control what’s on them so that is an issue for orgs. Often too many and hard to process by orgs, but AI may be beginning to be used effectively for that.

68 Discuss the use of credit history and scores for selection.

Answer: Feedback: Used by some orgs who think they show issues like theft, CWB. But the research on this does not bear this out, e.g., high scores may relate to low agreeableness. Also may disadvantage people who have simply been caught in economic crises through no fault of their own. Concerns about legality.

69 Discuss the use of AI to score interviews.

Answer: Feedback: More and more common. Disliked by applicants but may have acceptable validity. Allows interviews to be recorded and scored asynchronously (also these asynchronous interviews may be scored later by a person.) Can use things like eye-tracking. Research here is developing. Also, AI algorithms may be based on past biases so need to be aware those are not carried through.

70 Discuss the use of social media in selection.

Answer: Feedback: Used by some employers to better understand their applicants’ backgrounds. Many concerns such as legality; perceived invasion of privacy; recruiter ratings of SM pages don’t predict performance well anyway (dubious validity). May be best for now to stick with methods like LinkedIn which are specifically developed for professional networking rather than FB and similar.

1 Which of the following is NOT one of the three primary goals of recruitment?

(A) Increase the diversity of the applicant pool (B) Increase the quality of the applicant pool (C) Increase the quantity of the applicant pool (D) Increase the geographic make-up of the applicant pool Answer:

(D)

Increase the geographic make-up of the applicant pool

2 The _____ method is used to set cut-off scores using a panel of SMEs. (A) Angoff (B) decision-based (C) content validity (D) criterion-referenced Answer:

(A)

Angoff

3 Accumulated evidence indicates that, around the world, applicants generally react more positively to ______.

(A) personality tests (B) work samples (C) graphology (D) integrity tests Answer:

(B)

work samples

4 One option for improving applicant reactions is to ______.

(A) explain the selection procedures to applicants (B) use methods applicants like the most such as cognitive ability tests (C) use integrity tests to show that the organization is ethical (D) all of the above Answer:

(A)

explain the selection procedures to applicants

5 A recent study (Harold et al., 2016) showed that applicants’ perceptions of how fairly they were treated can affect ______.

(A) whether applicants sue the organization (B) later job satisfaction on the job (C) later job performance one year later (D) whether applicants accept a position that is offered to them Answer:

(D)

whether applicants accept a position that is offered to them

6 When a test’s criterion-related validity is very high, there will be virtually zero ______ and ______.

(A) true positives; true negatives (B) false positives; true negatives (C) true positives; false negatives (D) false negatives; false positives Answer:

(D)

false negatives; false positives

7 To fill open sales positions, a company chooses from an applicant pool of 300 applicants.

60 applicants were hired into the position. What is the selection ratio?

(A) 0.60 (B) 0.30 (C) 0.20 (D) This cannot be determined from this information.

Answer:

(C)

0.20

8 The selection ratio is ____.

(A) the number of applicants tested versus the number who applied for the job (B) the adverse impact against protected groups (C) the number of applicants who make it to the final round of testing (D) the number of applicants hired versus the number who applied for the job Answer:

(D)

the number of applicants hired versus the number who applied for the job

9 To fill open sales positions, a company from an applicant pool of 300 applicants. In the applicant pool, there was a total of 100 Black applicants and 200 White applicants. Of those selected for the positions, 35 were Black and 70 were White. In this case, there would be _____.

(A) adverse impact against Black applicants (B) adverse impact against White applicants (C) zero adverse impact against either group (D) disparate treatment Answer:

(C)

zero adverse impact against either group

10 In the U.S., executive orders govern the employment practices of _____.

(A) private companies (B) state contractors (C) all organizations (D) federal contractors Answer:

(D)

federal contractors

11 Company X uses a test to select employees. The proportion of Black candidates who pass the test, however, is unusually small in comparison to the proportion of White candidates who pass the test. This situation appears to be an example of: (A) racial discrimination (B) quid pro quo (C) adverse impact (D) disparate treatment Answer:

(C)

adverse impact

12 Adam and Dean graduate from the same university with the same grades. They apply for a job in a company. The company decides to hire Adam and not Dean because Dean is older than Adam. In this case, Dean is a victim of: (A) adverse impact (B) disparate treatment (C) business necessity (D) quid pro quo Answer:

(B)

disparate treatment

13 The goal of __________ is to provide an organization with a large, diverse pool of qualified potential job candidates.

(A) job analysis (B) job design (C) recruitment (D) selection Answer:

(C)

recruitment

14 Content validity ___________.

(A) relies on expert judgment (B) is based on statistical correlations between two measures (C) refers to the process of correlating a measure with some criterion (D) assesses the consistency with which test items measure a single concept

Answer:

(A)

relies on expert judgment

15 Carmen develops a structured interview to be used for hiring baristas. Throughout the process, she gets input from SMEs and asks them to review the interview questions and scoring key. In this case, Carmen is using a _____.

(A) content validity approach (B) construct validity approach (C) concurrent validity approach (D) validity generalization approach Answer:

(A)

content validity approach

16 As an HRM consultant, you have been asked to determine whether there is evidence of disparate (adverse) impact based on a company’s selection data. The prior year’s selection data indicate that of the 100 male applicants who applied, 80 were selected; comparatively, of the 10 female applicants who applied, 6 were selected. Based on these data ____.

(A) there is adverse impact against women (B) there is no adverse impact against women (C) it is not possible to determine whether there is adverse impact given the information provided (D) there is no adverse impact, but there clearly is disparate treatment Answer:

(A)

there is adverse impact against women

17 A selection test can be said to have _____ validity if the test items represent a comprehensive sampling of the job.

(A) construct (B) concurrent (C) convergent (D) content Answer:

(D)

content

18 When completing a test as part of a selection battery, Juan can tell that one of the tests is definitely designed to assess his integrity. To Juan, this makes sense given that the job involves regularly handling large sums of money. For Juan, this test demonstrates high ______.

(A) face validity (B) concurrent validity (C) criterion-related validity (D) construct validity Answer:

(A)

face validity

19 The Age Discrimination in Employment Act (ADEA) prohibits discrimination against employees over the age of ______.

(A) 30 (B) 40 (C) 50 (D) 60 Answer:

(B)

40

20 A coffee chain is assessing the validity of its test used to hire baristas. It gives the test to 200 baristas in the company and finds that the test is significantly correlated with the baristas’ job performance. This is an example of _____ validation.

(A) predictive (B) concurrent (C) content (D) construct Answer:

(B)

concurrent

21 A department store is assessing the validity of its test used to hire salespeople. It gives the test to 200 job applicants applying for sales jobs. It hires 100 of these applicants. It then finds that the test is significantly correlated with the employees’ job performance 6 months later. This is an example of _____ validation.

(A) predictive (B) concurrent (C) content (D) construct Answer:

(A)

predictive

22 The ____ approach assumes that tests will need to be re-validated when used in different contexts, while the ____ approach assumes that the validity of tests holds up across different contexts.

(A) validity generalization; Angoff (B) situational specificity; multiple hurdle (C) Angoff; validity generalization (D) situational specificity; validity generalization Answer:

(D)

situational specificity; validity generalization

23 Carolina is working to show the validity of a series of tests her company is using to hire employees. She is using a criterion-related validity approach. During the process, she checks the regression weights found in her first validation sample of people against a second sample. This process is referred to as _____.

(A) cross-validation (B) validity generalization (C) construct validity (D) regression weighting Answer:

(A)

cross-validation

24 For recruitment success, an organization should _____.

(A) focus primarily on online recruitment (B) use online recruitment to get a larger pool but also add the personal touch (C) show applicants how much salary they will make early on in the process (D) focus on word-of-mouth from current employees Answer:

(B)

use online recruitment to get a larger pool but also add the personal touch

25 Increasing the number of applicants recruited into the “selection funnel” _____.

(A) should be avoided because it causes adverse impact (B) should be used if disparate treatment is a concern in the applicant pool (C) will negatively affect applicant reactions (D) allows the organization to be more selective when making hiring decisions Answer:

(D)

allows the organization to be more selective when making hiring decisions

26 The dollar value of using a particular selection procedure is referred to as _____.

(A) utility (B) ROI score (C) results criteria (D) payout Answer:

(A)

utility

27 All things being equal, having a larger applicant pool relative to the number of vacancies _____.

(A) reduces a test’s utility (B) increases a test’s utility (C) has no effect on a test’s utility (D) increases utility but is illegal

Answer:

(B)

increases a test’s utility

28 In legal terms, in the U.S. the Uniform Guidelines are _____.

(A) not technically law but treated as law by the courts (B) the law regarding hiring in the U.S. (C) the law except where they differ from the SIOP Principles (D) primarily used to explain to job applicants what their rights are Answer:

(A)

not technically law but treated as law by the courts

29 Jim is making hiring decisions for his company. He is treating all test scores within a 5point range as statistically equal. This approach is referred to as ____.

(A) disparate treatment (B) standard deviation (C) compensatory method (D) banding Answer:

(D)

banding

30 Gina is using Test A and Test B to predict job performance. She has developed a regression equation to determine the best weight for each test. The regression equation is Y=3(Test A) + 2(Test B) + 1. A job candidate gets a 10 on Test A and a 10 on Test B. What is their predicted job performance score?

(A) 51 (B) 50 (C) 501 (D) This cannot be determined from this information.

Answer:

(A)

51

31 The correlation between a selection test and the criterion is referred to as the test’s _____.

(A) content validity (B) construct validity (C) validity generalization (D) validity coefficient Answer:

(D)

validity coefficient

32 One factor to consider when using artificial intelligence (AI) to make hiring decisions is that _____.

(A) AI is more bias-free than human decision-makers (B) AI may, unfortunately, be “trained” to reflect the current biases in the organization (C) the use of AI is not acceptable according to the Uniform Guidelines (D) AI has become the main way hiring decisions are made today Answer: organization

(B)

AI may, unfortunately, be “trained” to reflect the current biases in the

33 When choosing among selection procedures to predict job performance, it is best to choose predictors that are _____.

(A) highly correlated with each other but not with the criterion (B) highly correlated with each other and highly correlated with the criterion (C) not correlated with each other and highly correlated with the criterion (D) not correlated with each other and not correlated with the criterion Answer:

(C) not correlated with each other and highly correlated with the criterion

34 In comparing adverse impact and disparate treatment, _____.

(A) adverse impact does not imply discriminatory intent on the part of the employer (B) adverse impact implies discriminatory intent on the part of the employer (C) neither adverse impact nor disparate treatment imply discriminatory intent (D) both adverse impact and disparate treatment imply discriminatory intent Answer: employer

(A)

adverse impact does not imply discriminatory intent on the part of the

35 Under US law, if a job applicant can show that an employer is using a test that causes adverse impact, the employer _____.

(A) is required to pay a fine to the government (B) must immediately stop using the test (C) can defend themselves by showing that the test is a valid selection procedure (D) must pay a fine to all applicants who were not hired as a result of the test Answer:

(C) can defend themselves by showing that the test is a valid selection procedure

36 In the US, the federal agency charged with monitoring discrimination in employment is the _____.

(A) Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) (B) Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures (UGESP) (C) Supreme Court (D) Executive Orders Administration (EOA) Answer:

(A)

Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC)

TRUE-FALSE

37 In the personnel selection context, content validity can be demonstrated by the fact that a test score has a statistical correlation with a measure of job performance.

Answer: False 38 When choosing selection procedures, it is best to focus on selection procedures that are highly correlated with each other.

Answer: False 39 Validating a selection test on a sample of people who are employees of the organization is called concurrent validation.

Answer: True 40 Validity generalization is the assumption that a test that is valid for one job will be valid for other, similar jobs.

Answer: True 41 Legally, adverse impact does not imply intentional discrimination on the part of the employer.

Answer: True 42 An advantage of the multiple hurdle approach is that all of the selection procedures can be given at the same time.

Answer: False 43 A band is a range of predictor scores within which all scores are considered statistically equal.

Answer: True

44 Applicants who failed the selection procedure but who would have been good employees if they had been hired are called false negatives.

Answer: True 45 The number of job vacancies relative to the number of job applicants is the selection ratio.

Answer: True 46 The preferred selection procedure of most applicants is graphology.

Answer: False FILL-IN-THE-BLANK

47 ______ is an organizational activity focused on increasing the number of job applicants, their diversity, quality and fit with the job openings.

Answer: Recruitment 48 _____ is the degree to which a test appears to be job-related to a job applicant.

Answer: Face validity 49 Legally, a type of discrimination which involves intentional discrimination on the part of the employer is called _____.

Answer: Disparate treatment 50 _____ is the degree to which the R2 on a cross-validation sample does not match the R2 on the original validation sample.

Answer: Shrinkage 51 _____ is a way of showing criterion-related validity where a test is given to a group of applicants and correlated with their later job performance (i.e., after they are hired).

Answer: Predictive validity 52 The belief that even though a test has been shown to be valid in one setting, one cannot assume that it will be valid in other settings is called _____.

Answer: Situational specificity hypothesis 53 _____ is the US government agency charged with monitoring employers’ activities in relation to providing equal opportunity to all groups, such as through selection procedures and pay.

Answer: Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) 54 A selection system in which there is a minimum score on each predictor and an applicant must pass one predictor before moving on to take the next predictor is called _____.

Answer: Multiple hurdle approach 55 Applicants who passed a selection test but did not turn out to be good employees are called _____.

Answer: False positives 56 The monetary value of using a personnel selection procedure is called _____.

Answer: Utility ESSAY 57 What is the difference versus situational specificity and validity generalization?

Answer: Feedback: Situational specificity assumes validity for a test doesn’t hold in other situations. VG assumes that it does.

58 What are the advantages and disadvantages of predictive and concurrent designs?

Answer: Feedback: Concurrent is easier and you can quickly get information. But it can lead to range restriction. Predictive uses a sample like the one you will use the test on.

59 What are two common ways to recruit potential applicants?

Answer: Feedback: Career websites Social networking sites Employee referral programs Career fairs 60 What are two factors that affect potential applicants’ attraction to an organization?

Answer: Feedback: Characteristics of the job and of the organization Behavior of the recruiter Individuals’ perceptions of their potential fit in the organization Image of the organization 61 Describe one potential benefit of using a multiple cutoff approach and one potential benefit of using a multiple hurdle approach.

Answer: Feedback: Multiple cut-off approach: Good option for situations where administering the test and providing feedback in a timely manner is important because tests are given all at once. Multiple hurdle approach: This is an efficient and economic option because all tests are not given to every applicant.

62 What are the three steps in an adverse impact case? If the employer is able to show that the selection procedure is valid, what is the last recourse for the plaintiff?

Answer: Feedback: Step 1: Plaintiff demonstrates adverse impact. Step 2: Employer demonstrates test validity.

Step 3: Plaintiff demonstrates other predictors were available. If the employer is able to show that the selection procedure is valid, the last recourse for the plaintiff is to show that other, equally valid selection procedures with lower adverse impact were available for the employer to use.

63 How are content validity and criterion-related validity shown in selection?

Answer: Feedback: Content validity refers to how well a measure samples from the theoretical construct domain it is intended to measure. Shown by SME judgment. Criterion-related validity refers to whether a measure predicts or relates to desired outcomes. Shown via a correlation/regression.

64 What are two ways to weight predictors in selection?

Answer: Feedback: Shown by the weights of the KSAs measured as determined by SME judgment/job analysis.

Shown empirically via regression weights.

65 Describe the variables that affect the utility of selection procedures.

Answer: Feedback: These are driven by selection ratio (how selective you can be); validity, with more tests leading to more utility; cost of the selection procedure.

66 How can you improve applicant reactions?

Answer: Feedback: Choose procedures they like, e.g., interviews and work samples; provide explanations for the procedures used.

67 What is the Angoff method and how is it used?

Answer:

Feedback: It is used to set passing scores on selection tests. It uses judgments on the part of the SMEs to determine the passing score.

68 What is banding and why is it used?

Answer: Feedback: Bands are ranges of scores in which all scores are considered tied. Based on statistics like reliability. It can increase the possibility of hiring people from protected groups.

69 What are the Uniform Guidelines?

Answer: Feedback: Guidelines published by the federal government to help employers use selection procedures fairly and legally and avoid discrimination. They summarize case law up till when they were published.

They are not law but the courts treat them as though they are.

70 Describe how a criterion-related validity study is carried out.

Answer: Feedback: The selection procedure is given to a group of applicants (predictive) or employees (concurrent) and their scores are correlated with their future/current job performance. A significant correlation shows criterion-related validity.

71 What is disparate treatment versus adverse impact?

Answer: Feedback: Disparate treatment is intentional discrimination. AI doesn’t imply intent but is shown by different selection ratios, e.g., 4/5 rule.

1 The first step in the training process, during which the organization decides on its resources, who will be trained, and what needs to be trained, is called _____.

(A) Evaluation (B) Attendance (C) Needs assessment (D) Method of training Answer:

(C)

Needs assessment

2 Which of the following is NOT a threat to internal validity during training evaluation?

(A) Maturation (B) Testing (C) Climate (D) History Answer:

(C)

Climate

3 Madden Motors is developing a new training program. The HR department wants to rigorously evaluate the effectiveness of their training program focused on safety knowledge.

Which of the following represents the most rigorous training evaluation design?

(A) Give all trainees a test to assess how much they learned in training.

(B) Randomly assign two units at Madden Motors to a trained and untrained (control) condition. Give each unit a safety knowledge test before and after training.

(C) Randomly assign two units at Madden Motors to a trained and untrained (control) condition. Give each unit a safety knowledge test after training.

(D) Administer a safety knowledge test to all employees. Have all employees complete the safety knowledge training. After training, give all employees another safety knowledge test.

Answer: (B) Randomly assign two units at Madden Motors to a trained and untrained (control) condition. Give each unit a safety knowledge test before and after training.

4 Charlotte is required to take diversity training as a requirement as part of her job. For the training, she visits a website in which modules have been prepared and quizzes created to teach about workplace diversity. What type of training method is this?

(A) Simulation (B) On-the-job training (C) Programmed instruction (D) Lecture Answer:

(C)

Programmed instruction

5 Laura returns from a day-long training and finds her boss and co-workers would like her to ignore the new skills she learned and continue to do her job just as she already had been doing. Which term best describes this situation?

(A) Low transfer climate (B) High transfer climate (C) Low determination climate (D) Low cognitive climate Answer:

(A)

Low transfer climate

6 Your organization has recently made a lot of new hires, and they all need some degree of training. However, little is known about the abilities and knowledge of the new employees.

What step in the training needs assessment may be particularly important in this scenario?

(A) Person analysis (B) Organization analysis (C) Needs analysis (D) Evaluation analysis Answer: 7

(A)

Person analysis

Which term refers to whether training results in actual improvements on the job?

(A) Exchange of ideas (B) Evaluation of needs (C) Motivation assessment (D) Training transfer Answer:

(D)

Training transfer

8 Which term refers to an individual's belief that they can succeed in training?

(A) Meta-cognitive skill (B) Training self-efficacy (C) Competency modeling (D) Motivator need Answer:

(B)

Training self-efficacy

9 ____ learning involves delivering small portions of a training over an extended period of time.

(A) Transferred (B) Needs-based (C) Spaced (D) Massed Answer:

(C)

Spaced

10 _____ should be included after certain types of training, especially when training is experiential, such as when it involves simulations.

(A) Debriefing (B) Meta-cognition (C) Need satisfaction (D) Leadership analysis Answer:

(A)

Debriefing

11 Executive coaching is an example of which type of training method?

(A) Climate sensitivity (B) Managerial training (C) Massed method (D) Leaderless group exercise Answer:

(B)

Managerial training

12 _____ is used to educate recently hired employees on company values and policies.

(A) New employee orientation (B) Diversity training (C) Refresher trainings (D) Leadership training Answer:

(A)

New employee orientation

13 Which of the following is NOT part of the training needs assessment?

(A) Person analysis (B) Organization analysis (C) Leadership analysis (D) Demographic analysis Answer:

(C)

Leadership analysis

14 Individuals with a _____ tend to focus on how they scored in the training rather than their increased knowledge and skills.

(A) Learning goal orientation

(B) Satisfaction orientation (C) Relatedness orientation (D) Performance goal orientation Answer:

(A)

Learning goal orientation

15 Providing assessments and feedback to trainees throughout a training may be especially useful to trainees low in _____ skills.

(A) Learning oriented (B) Meta-cognitive (C) Physical strength (D) Transfer Answer:

(B)

Meta-cognitive

16 An employee who does not want to put effort into learning the KSA's presented in a training may be suffering from low ____________________.

(A) cognitive ability (B) extraversion (C) resource dependency (D) training motivation Answer:

(D)

training motivation

17 _____ provides trainees with a way to organize the information they are learning.

(A) Leader personality (B) Feedback (C) A learning schema (D) Over-learning Answer:

(C)

A learning schema

18 Helen goes to a training where the trainer shows her a video about what she is supposed to do and then then allows her to practice the behaviour. This is an example of _____.

(A) Lecture (B) Behavior modeling training (C) Programmed instruction (D) Spaced learning Answer:

(B)

Behavior modeling training

19 Which is NOT one of Kirkpatrick's levels of training evaluation?

(A) Performance (B) Behavior (C) Learning (D) Reactions Answer:

(A)

Performance

20 Kevin goes offsite for a full day of training rather than taking the training over several weeks. This is an example of _____.

(A) Climate-based instruction (B) Massed learning (C) Spaced learning (D) Repetitive modelling Answer:

(B)

Massed learning

21 Wilson goes to a training where he is trained about customer service skills. The trainer also explains why different approaches to customer service are used in order to improve training transfer. This approach is called _____.

(A) psychological fidelity (B) transfer through principles (C) physical fidelity (D) transfer climate principles Answer:

(B)

transfer through principles

22 Bezrukova et al. (2016) found that diversity training is most effective when there are other diversity initiatives in place, when the training focuses on both awareness and skills development, and when it is conducted over a period of time.

(A) there are other diversity initiatives in place in the organization.

(B) the training focuses on both awareness and skills development.

(C) the training is conducted over a period of time.

(D) All of the above are true.

Answer:

(D)

All of the above are true

23 A recent review of the diversity training literature (Roberson, 2019) suggests that (A) diversity training has been shown to be effective in nearly all organizations.

(B) diversity training does not seem to work in most US corporations except for those with a strong team climate.

(C) a training needs assessment should be conducted so the diversity training can be tailored to the specific organization.

(D) diversity training should be evaluated primarily with criteria such as financial performance.

Answer: (C) a training needs assessment should be conducted so the diversity training can be tailored to the specific organization.

24 A meta-analysis by Bauer et al. (2007) showed that organizational newcomers can help themselves by ______.

(A) showing early success on the job (B) not seeking too much feedback from those around them (C) focusing on the job rather than relationships (D) All of the above are true.

Answer:

(A)

showing early success on the job

25 Employee training may be covered by the Uniform Guidelines if _____.

(A) the training can be considered a selection procedure (B) the training involves any kind of diversity training (C) if the training involves a needs assessment and evaluation of worker performance back on the job (D) None of the above; the Uniform Guidelines are only relevant to hiring new employees.

Answer:

(A)

the training can be considered a selection procedure

26 There is an increasing interest in “gamified” training because _____.

(A) research has shown that gamification increases training transfer (B) gamification is a growing trend in the workplace and training should be part of that (C) gamification increases the ease with which training programs can be evaluated (D) gamification is believed to increase learner motivation and engagement Answer:

(D) gamification is believed to increase learner motivation and engagement

27 A type of e-learning that presents the learner with small “bites” of information is referred to as

_____.

(A) mobile device training (B) gamified learning (C) microlearning

(D) learning by analytics Answer:

(C)

microlearning

28 When people take on workplace training for themselves outside of classrooms or learning apps,

this is referred to as _____.

(A) informal field-based learning (B) on-the-job training (C) programmed instruction (D) employee development Answer: (A)

informal field-based learning

29 Which of the following are ways in which sophisticated analytics can be used to enhance workplace training?

(A) Organizational training needs can be assessed quickly to show who needs to be trained.

(B) Training evaluation can give trainers quick feedback on training effectiveness.

(C) AI algorithms can recommend specific training content for an individual employee based on their past behavior.

(D) All of the above are true.

Answer: (D) All of the above are true.

30 One of the most sophisticated training evaluation designs, which may be impractical in most organizational settings, is the ____.

(A) Quasi-experimental design (B) Time series design (C) Pre-experimental design (D) Solomon 4-group design Answer: (D) Solomon 4-group design 31 Programmed instruction refers to ____.

(A) training that is delivered by computer (B) a process by which an employee develops a specific training program tailored to their individual needs and job requirements (C) training that is presented as a series of modules; trainees must master training content before going to the next module (D) the systematic evaluation of a training program to be sure it addresses organizational needs Answer: (C) training that is presented as a series of modules; trainees must master training content before going to the next module 32 Machine simulators are often used to train airline pilots because ____.

(A) this is considered the most effective training method (B) they are realistic but safer than on-the-job training (C) simulators increasing the motivation of trainees, and this is especially important for a job like this (D) All of the above are true Answer: (B) they are realistic but safer than on-the-job training 33 Which of the following is true of lectures?

(A) They are one of the least effective training methods.

(B) They are good for communicating verbal information to large numbers of people.

(C) They have been shown to be useful for teaching people how to perform specific behaviors.

(D) Lectures are useful on their own but not when combined with other training methods.

Answer: (B) They are good for communicating verbal information to large numbers of people.

TRUE-FALSE 34 Kirkpatrick's framework for evaluating trainings is rarely used by today's organizations.

Answer: False 35 The organization analysis process includes identifying a broad set of organizational issues that may affect training effectiveness.

Answer: True 36 Training goals should be developed after the organization, job, and person analysis.

Answer: True 37 Individuals with a performance goal orientation are better at learning training material.

Answer: False 38 Over-learning might be particularly important for certain jobs, such as tasks that must be done under stress.

Answer: True 39 Pre-experimental designs are the strongest type of training evaluation designs.

Answer: False 40 Research demonstrates that gamification of training ensures the best transfer of training.

Answer: False 41 Meta-cognition refers to the increases in the cognitive skills people get from training.

Answer: False 42 In theory, on-the-job training has nearly perfect psychological and physical fidelity.

Answer: True 43 Machine simulators are especially useful when on-the-job training is not possible because of safety concerns.

Answer: True FILL-IN-THE-BLANK

44 _____ is training approach in which the trainee practices a behavior so much that it becomes automatic, that is, it requires little attentional capacity from the learner.

Answer: Overlearning 45 _____ is a framework for organizing learning content.

Answer: A learning schema 46 _____ is the delivery of training in a condensed session or sessions.

Answer: Massed learning

47 _____ is the degree to which the social climate among employees back in the work situation supports training Answer: Transfer climate 48 The ability of learners to step back and assess their own learning and mastery of the material is referred to as.

Answer: Meta-cognitive skills 49 _____ is the degree to which training leads to improvements in on-the-job behavior.

Answer: Transfer of training 50 _____ is the process of identifying what current employees can actually do and what KSAs they currently possess.

Answer: Person analysis 51 _____ includes the identification of a broad set of organizational issues that can help or hinder the effectiveness of a training program.

Answer: Organizational analysis 52 Training criteria focused on whether the training led to a change in organizational performance such as profitability are called _____.

Answer: Results 53 Factors which may affect our ability to interpret results of a study such as a training evaluation are called: _____.

Answer: Threats to experimental validity

ESSAY 54 Why should organizations care about training? What's at stake?

Answer: Feedback: Organizations spend billions of dollars on training but don't often design evaluations or carefully consider how to design trainings. Training employees can result in positive ROI and increase employee job attitudes. Training can benefit employees, teams, organizations, and even society by increasing everyone's knowledge and competence.

55 What are the steps of a training needs assessment? What is the purpose of each?

Answer: Feedback: Organization analysis: assess organization factors that may affect training success. Job analysis: assess what tasks are performed and the necessary KSAs. Person analysis: assess which KSA's employees have and need. Demographic analysis: assess characteristics of trainees.

56 How might individual differences in trainees affect their ability to optimize their training experience?

Answer: Feedback: Personality traits (e.g., conscientiousness, proactive personality) may affect individual motivation, or how much effort individuals put into learning training material. Goal orientation may be a factor, depending on what the goal of the training is for the organization. General cognitive ability affects learning. Self-efficacy is important.

57 What are three factors that may affect transfer of training? Give at least three examples and explain why they are important.

Answer:

Feedback: Transfer climate: support needed for employees to use new KSAs on the job. Error management training: allow errors to occur during training as part of the learning process. Remove obstacles from the work environment: make sure trainees are able to actually use what they have learned on the job. Use identical elements so that training is like the work environment. Use transfer though principles and explain why trainees should do what they are doing.

58 Which type of learning (spaced versus massed) is advantageous to organizations?

Answer: Feedback: Both can be useful. Spaced is better for learning but may be costly, more time-consuming, and complex in terms of logistics. Massed may not be as beneficial to learning but can be done at once and it may be the case that employees need to be trained on certain KSAs quickly.

59 While on-the-job training is popular and has its advantages, what are three ways in which on-the-job training could fall short of being an optimal training method?

Answer: Feedback: Likely a lack of a formal training program designed according to a training needs assessment. Possible lack of consistency: employees may learn different things with the lack of a formal training program. May lack feedback, specific goals, or factors known to affect learning, and may not be evaluated. The employee giving the training should be given resources like time and an understanding of training principles.

60 How might motivational theories explain whether or not employees have high training motivation?

Answer: Feedback: Needs theories: employees may have different needs they are motivated to fulfill by participating in trainings. Goal-setting theory: employees may be motivated when specific, difficult goals are set by the trainer. VIE theory: employees need to believe that putting in effort will lead to desired behavior, and behavior will lead to desired rewards in order for them to be motivated in the training.

61 As part of your duties as a training coordinator for a large Fortune 500 company, you are asked to deliver a training to 200 new employees in five different cities over the course of 2 days. Describe at least two important decisions you might make with respect to the delivery, design, and evaluation of the training.

Answer: Feedback: Examples: Training needs assessment: analyze each aspect of pre-training analysis.

Delivery: programmed or recorded lecture for scaling. Provide quizzes learners can take on their own.

Evaluation: questionnaires that can be administered online or easily without the presence of a trainer.

62 Juan has been hired to evaluate a new training program that is being administered at a large electronics retailer for new sales persons. Describe how Juan could evaluate the training program using Kirkpatrick's training evaluation framework. Provide specific examples.

Answer: Feedback: Examples: Reactions: using a survey, ask participants whether they found the training useful. Learning: use short quizzes throughout the training to evaluate whether they learned the necessary KSAs. Behaviors: use observations by co-workers to assess whether employees are engaging in behaviors they learned in the training on the job. Results: assess improvements to organizational performance by determining whether sales increased for those who engaged in the training program.

63 What should be the first step for organizations when they want to deliver a training?

Answer: Feedback: Training needs assessment: Organizational, job, person, and demographic analysis.

64 What is one factor that may affect transfer of training?

Answer: Feedback: Examples: transfer climate, error management training, transfer through principles, identical elements.

65 What are two commonly studied goal orientation types?

Answer: Feedback: Learning goal orientation (focus on learning) and performance goal orientation (focus on performance).

66 What are the four levels of Kirkpatrick's training evaluation framework and define each?

Answer:

Feedback: Reactions – did they like the training; learning – did they gain knowledge or skill; behavior – did they perform differently on the job; results – were organizational outcomes like profit or productivity improve.

67 What the different types of evaluation designs that can be used to evaluate training.

Define briefly.

Answer: Feedback: Pre-experiments: The weakest design usually with no random assignment or control group; still better than no eval. Experiments: Rigorous with pre-test and control groups but may not be practical in actual organizations. Quasi-experiments: Almost an experiment. Lacks some rigor (e.g., may have a control group but no random assignment) but may be more practical in an actual organization.

Multiple-Choice

1 What are the two factors associated with Herzberg’s two-factor theory?

(A) motivator; hygiene (B) existence, relatedness, growth (C) valence, instrumentality, expectancy (D) affiliation, power, achievement

Answer:

(A)

motivator; hygiene

2 What are the needs associated with Maslow’s hierarchy of needs?

(A) Existence, Relatedness, Growth (B) Competence, Relatedness, Autonomy (C) Achievement, Affiliation, Power (D) Physiological, Security, Social, Esteem, Self-Actualization Answer:

(D)

Physiological, Security, Social, Esteem, Self-Actualization

3 Acquired needs theory incorporates which of the following three needs?

(A) Existence, Relatedness, Growth (B) Competence, Relatedness, Autonomy (C) Achievement, Affiliation, Power (D) Social, Esteem, Self-Actualization Answer:

(C)

Achievement, Affiliation, Power

4 Evidence surrounding goal setting theory indicates that, in general, employees’ motivation is highest when they are given _________ and __________ goals.

(A) specific; difficult (B) abstract; easy (C) abstract; difficult (D) specific; easy Answer:

(A)

specific; difficult

5 Gareth works as an HR professional in the manufacturing branch of a large automobile company. In the past, the company implemented monetary incentives but found that worker productivity improved only temporarily before returning to baseline levels. To increase task significance, Gareth decides to (A) Provide recognition in the form of a plaque to the employee with the highest productivity at the end of each month (B) Introduce workers to customers whose lives were saved by the quality of the company’s cars (C) Allow workers to work in teams so that they can assemble a complete car from start-to-finish (D) Assemble workers into manufacturing teams and allow them to decide how to best distribute the workload among team members Answer: (B) company’s cars

Introduce workers to customers whose lives were saved by the quality of the

6 Of the following core job characteristics, which refers to the discretion and freedom employees may exercise when organizing and completing their work?

(A) task identity (B) skill variety (C) task significance (D) autonomy Answer:

(D)

autonomy

7 The core job characteristics of skill variety, task identity, and task significance influence the psychological state of: (A) Perceived meaningfulness of work (B) Perceived responsibility for work (C) Perceived intensity of work (D) Knowledge of results Answer:

(A)

Perceived meaningfulness of work

8 Which of the following core job characteristics refers to the degree to which a job affects the lives of other people?

(A) feedback (B) autonomy (C) task significance (D) task identity Answer:

(C)

task significance

9 According to the Job Characteristics Model, the five core job characteristics influence the following key psychological states: (A) Skill variety, autonomy, task significance (B) Autonomy, social support, relatedness (C) Meaningfulness, knowledge of results, responsibility (D) Intensity, understanding, identity Answer:

(C)

Meaningfulness, knowledge of results, responsibility

10 Which theory of motivation hypothesizes that each person is motivated by a constellation of three needs, such that the dominant need is the strongest drive of motivation?

(A) Self-regulation theory (B) Intrinsic theory (C) Job satisfaction theory (D) Acquired Needs Theory Answer:

(D)

Acquired Needs Theory

11 When an organization provides a recognition award (e.g., gift certificate, plaque) to an employee who performs admirably, what is this an example of?

(A) Organizational motivation (B) Positive reinforcement (C) Growth need satisfaction (D) Negative reinforcement Answer: (B)

Positive reinforcement

12 Which job characteristic refers to the extent to which employees have control over their job and freedom to dictate their own approach to accomplish tasks?

(A) Skill variety (B) Need satisfaction (C) Autonomy (D) Formalization Answer:

(C)

Autonomy

13 Which factor in goal setting theory refers to the determination of an individual to meet their goal?

(A) Goal commitment (B) Goal growth (C) Organizational commitment (D) Extrinsic motivation Answer:

(A)

Goal commitment

14 Which term refers to the value a person places on a reward, according to expectancy theory?

(A) Instrumentality (B) Justice (C) Valence (D) Extrinsic motivation Answer:

(C)

Valence

15 Valence and instrumentality are factors in which theory?

(A) Justice theory (B) Expectancy theory (C) Control theory (D) Needs theory Answer:

(B)

Expectancy theory

16 Which theory of motivation postulates that individuals compare their inputs and outputs to those of others?

(A) Equity theory (B) Self-determination theory (C) Transactional theory (D) ERG theory Answer:

(A)

Equity theory

17 What type of needs, according to Herzberg, theoretically lower motivation if they are not met but may not motivate when present?

(A) Growth (B) Motivator (C) Hygiene (D) Relatedness Answer:

(C)

Hygiene

18 Motivation that comes from within a person and is derived from tasks that are personally rewarding to them is _________ motivation.

(A) intrinsic (B) extrinsic (C) authentic (D) faked Answer:

(A)

intrinsic

19 Self-determination theory proposes that motivation ranges from fully ______ to fully _______.

(A) intrinsic, satisfactory (B) direct, indirect (C) extrinsic, intrinsic (D) extrinsic, charismatic

Answer:

(C)

extrinsic, intrinsic

20 Which term is used by equity theory to refer to how much an individual prefers to receive an outcome relative to their inputs?

(A) Control satisfaction (B) Equity sensitivity (C) Determination (D) Acquired sensitivity Answer:

(B)

Equity sensitivity

21 Studies on goal setting theory suggest that performance can be enhanced through high levels of what factors?

(A) Goal difficulty and commitment (B) Commitment and organization (C) Intelligence and commitment (D) Goal difficulty and leader authenticity Answer:

(A)

Difficulty and commitment

22 This core job characteristic refers to employees’ perception that their job substantially influences the work, health, or well-being of other people.

(A) feedback (B) autonomy (C) task significance (D) task identity Answer:

(C)

task significance

23 Sarah works at a tech firm. She recently met with her supervisor and was told she would be given increased autonomy and control over how she did her job. What phenomenon is Sarah experiencing in this situation?

(A) Job rotation (B) Compensation increase (C) Job enrichment (D) Distributive justice Answer:

(C)

Job enrichment

24 When an organization redesigns jobs and attempts to increase how much control employees have over completing tasks and the variety of tasks they complete, which theory of motivation are they applying to their work, in essence?

(A) Job characteristics theory (B) Maslow's hierarchy of needs (C) Equity theory (D) Growth theory Answer:

(A)

Job characteristics theory

25 An employee who does not believe that increasing their effort will result in improved performance may need their __________ link strengthened, according to expectancy theory.

(A) Valence (B) Instrumentality (C) Expectancy (D) Self-determination

Answer:

(C)

Expectancy

26 Sandra works for a consulting company and is paid $100,000 per year. She recently found out that a new hire was offered twice her salary, and as a result Sandra has reduced her productivity. Which theory might explain her behavior?

(A) Equity theory (B) Self-determination theory (C) Intrinsic motivation theory (D) Engagement theory Answer:

(A)

Equity theory

27 Paul works at a job with good benefits, decent pay, and regular hours. However, the work is boring and exhausting. Paul is still with the company probably due to what type of motivation?

(A) Direct (B) Intrinsic (C) Occupation-based (D) Extrinsic Answer:

(D)

Extrinsic

28 A job applicant takes a battery of selection tests they believe to be fair but they do not get the job. What type of injustice are they likely experiencing?

(A) Distributive (B) Occupational (C) Applicational (D) Interpersonal Answer:

(A)

Distributive

29 What type of motivation is present when an employee is working harder in order to receive a raise at work?

(A) Intrinsic (B) Autonomous (C) Extrinsic (D) Negative reinforcement Answer:

(C)

Extrinsic

30 A company is trying to increase motivation by providing pay raises, but an employee doesn't place a strong value on receiving a raise. In this case, the company is not properly addressing the employee’s (A) Goal commitment (B) Valence (C) Expectancy (D) Acquisition Answer:

(B)

Valence

31 Which phenomenon is defined by a set of forces that determine the form, direction, intensity, and duration of behavior at work?

(A) Leadership (B) Job satisfaction (C) Work engagement (D) Work motivation

Answer:

(D)

Work motivation

32. A supervisor has been waiting for a report from an employee. The supervisor has been texting and emailing the employee to get the report done – something that the employee finds unpleasant. The supervisor stops sending the texts and emails once the employee has finally done the report. This is an example of a. positive reinforcement b. punishment c. *negative reinforcement d. extinction 33. A supervisor has told an employee that they will lose $10 of their pay if they are late for work again. The next time the employee is late, the supervisor cuts the employee’s pay by $10.

This is an example of positive reinforcement b. *punishment c. negative reinforcement d. extinction 34. According to reinforcement theory, a monthly paycheck is administered on a ___ reinforcement schedule. a. *fixed interval b. fixed ratio c. variable interval d. variable ratio 35. A current approach used by some organizations to try to motivate and engage employees is: a. compensation b. fulfillment progression c. *gamification d. artificial intelligence True-False 36. Existence, relatedness, and growth are the three components of ERG theory.

Answer: True 37. According to Maslow, when a person moves up the motivational hierarchy, that is referred to as fulfillment progression.

Answer: True 38. Intrinsic motivation includes factors such as pay and benefits.

Answer: False 39. According to Herzberg’s theory, the presence of hygiene factors leads to increased motivation.

Answer: False

40. According to VIE (expectancy) theory, expectancy is the degree to which a person wants a desired outcome.

Answer: False 41. According to equity theory, a person often compares themselves to a comparison other person to determine the degree of fairness.

Answer: True 42. Goal setting theory says that setting a specific, difficult goal for someone will motivate a person more than just telling them to do their best.

Answer: True 43. According to the job characteristics theory, the key core job characteristics are task significance, growth, and responsibility.

Answer: False 44. Research on job characteristics theory has shown that the core job characteristics affect job attitudes but not performance.

Answer: False 45. Job enlargement is when an organization increases the motivational potential of a job.

Answer: True 46. A supervisor provides a negative stimulus whenever an employee performs an undesirable behavior. This is an example negative reinforcement.

Answer: False 47. Extinction is when a behavior stops because it is not being reinforced.

Answer: True 48. Work motivation, a set of energetic forces that influence the form, direction, intensity, and duration of work-related behavior, can only originate from within an individual.

Answer: False 49. The formula for calculating performance is Motivation + Ability + Environment.

Answer:True 50. According to Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, the most basic need that must be fulfilled before moving onto other higher needs is self-actualization.

Answer: False 51. Self-determination theory explains how motivation exists on a continuum of extrinsic to intrinsic regulation.

Answer: True

52. Someone who is an “equity sensitive” would tend to expect a high level of compensation regardless of the effort they put into their job.

Answer: False 53. Procedural justice refers to fairness perceptions resulting from the way a person is treated by other people in an organization.

Answer: False 54. Valence refers to the value that a person places on a workplace reward for a job well done.

Answer: True 55. The acronym “SMART” refers to goals that are specific, measurable, adequate, relevant, and time bound.

Answer: False 56. Self-regulation refers to an individual’s belief in their own ability to succeed.

Answer: False 57. In spite of numerous acts of legislation deeming gender-based pay discrimination illegal, women, on average, are still paid 20% less than their male counterparts.

Answer: True

Fill in the Blank 58. The highest need level according to Maslow is ___.

Answer: self-actualization 59. The need theory that is based on Maslow’s but has only 3 levels of needs is ___.

Answer: ERG/Existence, relatedness, and growth.

60. According to Herzberg, work factors that can cause dissatisfaction when they are missing, but don’t cause satisfaction when they are present, are called ____ factors.

Answer: hygiene 61. ____ motivation includes doing the work because you are motivated by the work itself, rather than by pay.

Answer: Intrinsic 62. ____ is the theory in which we compare ourselves to others determine if our inputs and outcomes are fair.

Answer: Equity 63. According to expectancy theory, the degree to which a person believes that their performance will lead to a desired outcome is ____.

Answer: instrumentality

64. Providing specific, difficult goals for workers to increase their motivation is a key tenet of ____ theory.

Answer: goal-setting theory 65. ____ theory states that to increase motivation one should enrich an employee’s skill variety, task identity, task significance, feedback, and autonomy.

Answer: Job characteristics theory 66. According to the job characteristics theory, enrichment of the core job characteristics leads to enhanced _____ which leads to desired outcomes like motivation and performance.

Answer: psychological states 67. According to reinforcement theory, introducing something positive after a desired behavior is referred to as ____.

Answer: positive reinforcement 68. Mark strives to be the best at his job because he finds his work incredibly interesting and rewarding. This is an example of __________ motivation.

Answer: Intrinsic 69. Jennifer, a high performer at work, is driven primarily by the generous profit-sharing plan and commission structure at her firm. This is an example of __________ motivation.

Answer: Extrinsic 70. Building on Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, Alderfer’s __________ theory of motivation introduced three categories of needs and proposed that these needs can exist at the same time.

Answer: ERG/Existence-Relatedness-Growth 71. According to Herzberg’s two-factor theory, __________ factors, such as working conditions, lower motivation when they are not present while __________ factors, such as advancement opportunities, increase motivation when they are present.

Answer: Hygiene; Motivator 72. People with a high need for __________ tend to set challenging goals, desire high levels of feedback, and prefer reward systems based on merit.

Answer: Achievement 73. __________ is the degree to which a person thinks their effort will result in their desired performance and __________ is the extent to which a person believes their performance will result in a desired outcome or reward.

Answer: Expectancy; Instrumentality 74. An individual’s level of determination to reach a goal, known as goal __________, is a key component in goal setting theory.

Answer: Commitment

75. Task __________ refers to the connection employees make between their assigned tasks and the ultimate outcome of the job, whereas task __________ describes how strongly employees believe that their efforts on the job will impact the lives of others.

Answer: Identity; Significance 76. Increasing the motivating potential of a job by expanding the level of control an employee has over their work is known as __________.

Answer: Job enrichment 77. The removal of a positive consequence following an undesired behavior, which eventually results in decreases in the behavior, is known as __________.

Answer: Extinction

78

What are SMART goals? How do they relate to motivation?

Answer: Feedback: Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time Bound goals. Effective goals are set using these criteria. Goal-setting theory predicts these type of goals will lead to optimal performance.

79

While goal-setting theory has received widespread empirical support, in what ways may setting goals be related to negative outcomes?

Answer: Feedback: Not meeting goals may lower self-efficacy and negatively influence future behavior. Striving for goals may encourage unethical behavior. Striving for goals may be exhausting and may deplete an employee's resources.

80

Expectancy theory proposes that V, I, & E are multiplied to calculate motivation. What are some practical implications of conceptualizing motivation this way?

Answer: Feedback: Motivation is determined when employees compare inputs and outputs within themselves and compare them to others. People will adjust their behavior (e.g., reduce performance) if they experience inequity.

81

What does goal-setting theory predict will lead to higher performance?

Answer: Feedback: Specific, difficult goals will lead to higher performance, especially when feedback and commitment are utilized 82

Which job characteristics may affect employee motivation?

Answer: Feedback: Examples: skill variety, task variety, task significance, feedback, autonomy 83

What do needs-based theories say about motivation?

Answer: Feedback: Fulfilling needs drives motivation. Some also say that once a lower need is fulfilled you focus on the next level up/fulfillment-progression.

84 Answer:

Expectancy theory is what type of theory?

Feedback: Process-based theory.

85

A large nonprofit organization approaches your I/O consulting firm and asks you to help redesign jobs for new employees in order to increase their motivation. Using job characteristics theory, give three examples of what you could do to help your new client.

Answer: Feedback: Task significance: recommend connecting all tasks and projects to the greater mission of the organization. Autonomy: whenever possible, encourage the organization to allow employees to complete tasks with as much freedom in their methods as possible. Skill variety: encourage the organization to design jobs that require employees to use various skills and build competencies in their positions. Feedback: Tell employees how well they are doing.

Task variety: Allow employees to perform a broader range of tasks.

86

It is often said that motivation pervades all issues of work studied by I/O psychologists. Give three examples that illustrate how this might be true.

Answer: Feedback: There are a wide variety of answers, for example: Leadership: what motivates leaders to engage in effective behaviors? Job attitudes: which employees are motivated by might affect how they feel about their job. Training: employees may or may not be motivated to fully dedicate themselves to learning during training, for example, they may not see the training is relevant.

87

Describe three current issues or controversies in the field of motivation.

Answer: Feedback: How does motivation vary from day to day, within individuals? Are older workers more or less motivated than younger works, and if so, how? CEO compensation: what is an appropriate rate of compensation for CEO's?

88

You have been elected as the chairperson of a fundraising effort in your community, and you will be using volunteers to gather the funds.

Which theory of motivation covered in the textbook would you choose to motivate the volunteers to raise the funds? How would you apply this theory?

Answer: Feedback: Many correct responses.

89

While needs-based theories are a useful way of conceptualizing motivation, what critiques can be said about this approach?

Answer: Feedback: Difficult to measure needs or conceptualize needs accurately.Theories ignore individual cognition and emotions.The relative importance of needs is unclear (i.e., which needs are most important to motivation).

90

How do needs theories of motivation explain the motivation process?

Give an example of one and explain how it conceptualizes motivation.

Answer: Feedback: Needs must be fulfilled for an individual to be motivated.Maslow's hierarchy: physiological, security, social, esteem, self-actualization.5 needs, moving from lower-order needs to higher when the lower needs are fulfilled.

91 Compare and contrast Maslow’s hierarchy of needs with ERG theory.

Answer: Feedback: Maslow’s theory has 5 levels; ERG has 3 levels that map onto Maslow’s theory. Both theories talk about fulfillment progression, but ERG theory also includes frustration regression, wherein a person moves back down the hierarchy when frustrated.

92 Provide a summary of how expectancy theory works.

Answer: Feedback: Motivation is a summary of three factors: Expectancy, which is the belief that effort will lead to performance; instrumentality, which is the belief that performance will lead to a desired outcome; and valence, which is the degree to which the person wants the outcome.

Motivation is a function of all three together, and if any one goes to zero (e.g., a person doesn’t belief that performance will lead to the desired outcome), motivation will go down.

Multiple Choice 1 Leaders who are hostile towards employees and extremely demanding of them may be engaging in which type of leadership?

(A) Motivational behavior (B) Intellectual stimulation (C) Servant leadership (D) Abusive leadership Answer: (D) Abusive leadership 2 The trait approach to leadership focuses on: (A) stable characteristics of individuals (B) observable leader behaviors (C) contextual aspects of leadership (D) situational influences in leadership Answer: (A) stable characteristics of individuals

3 An individual who demonstrates __________ leadership tends to increase followers' awareness of work issues, provide support and encouragement, empower employees, and be charismatic (A) translational (B) servant (C) transactional (D) transformational Answer: (D) transformational 4 Identify the four main components of transformational leadership.

(A) Interpretative understanding, intelligible reaction, intuitive authority, individualized acceptance (B) Inspirational followership, indeterminant drive, inglorious recognition, internetwork prowess (C) Individualized consideration, intellectual stimulation, inspirational motivation, idealized influence (D) Instantaneous action, insidious acknowledgement, inceptive influence, intentional initiation

Answer: (C) Individualized consideration, intellectual stimulation, inspirational motivation, idealized influence 5 Power that comes from a person’s organizational role or position is called: (A) referent power (B) legitimate power (C) information power (D) authoritarian power Answer: (B) legitimate power 6 Management by exception and contingent rewards are examples of which type of leadership?

(A) Transactional leadership (B) Transformational leadership (C) Considerate leadership (D) Active leadership Answer: (A) Transactional leadership 7 Your supervisor at work is rarely present and usually unhelpful in most work situations. What type of leader do you have for your job?

(A) Transformational (B) Laissez-faire (C) Charismatic (D) Intellectual Answer: (B) Laissez-faire 8 Joey's supervisor at the chemical plant has made it clear that as long as Joey does his job well and avoids any errors, the supervisor will leave him to do his job. Which style of leadership best characterizes this situation?

(A) Charismatic leadership (B) Leader emergence (C) Normative leadership (D) Transactional leadership Answer: (D) Transactional leadership 9 A researcher does a study to determine whether employees in a team with no designated leader become perceived as leaders by their colleagues. What topic is this research focused on?

(A) Intrinsic motivation (B) Leader expectancy (C) Job satisfaction (D) Leader emergence Answer: (D) Leader emergence 10 An employee who feels inspired by their supervisor and experiences a boost in selfconfidence likely has a __________ leader.

(A) transformational (B) leaderless (C) laissez-hedonistic (D) behavioral Answer: (A) Transformational 11 Donald's supervisor is a good listener and always concerned for Donald's well-being, but his supervisor rarely clarifies his role or communicates performance standards.

The supervisor is likely high in ___________ and low in initiating structure.

(A) LMX (B) Power (C) Charisma (D) Consideration Answer: (D) consideration 12 One issue that the literature on leadership may face is ___________ proliferation, or an abundance of theories describing similar phenomena.

(A) leader (B) construct (C) motivation (D) power Answer: (B) construct 13 Authentic leadership (select the BEST option): (A) is an approach where a leader sets goals for employees and encourages them to reach those goals (B) is an approach that defines the leader’s role as serving the needs of others (C) is an approach in which a leader makes sure employees are involved in decision making

(D) is an approach in which a leader tries to stay true to themselves Answer: (D) is an approach in which a leader tries to stay true to themselves 14 __________ focuses on the quality of the dyadic relationships between a leader and each of his/her followers.

(A) Theory X (B) Path-Goal Theory (C) Leader-Member Exchange Theory (D) Transactional Leadership Theory Answer: (C) Leader-Member Exchange Theory 15 An instructor assigns grades to a class based on his/her _________ power. Choose the BEST response.

(A) legitimate (B) referent (C) information (D) emotion Answer: (A) legitimate 16 Bing is the only financial analyst within a company. With regard to his unique knowledge and skills of finance, this has afforded him considerable _____ power among his peers when it comes to matters of finance. Pick the best response.

(A) expert (B) coercive (C) reward (D) referent Answer: (A) expert 17 Alejandra is the manager of her department. She gives employees who have met their goals for the year a pay raise. She gives her employees their assignments and leaves them to do their work. She also monitors them so that if she notices a potential problem, it gets resolved before causing problems. What kind of leadership style is Alejandra demonstrating?

(A) Theory Y (B) Transformational (C) Transactional (D) Laissez-Faire

Answer: (C) Transactional 18 Research has found that all of the following personality traits are related to leadership EXCEPT: (A) Conscientiousness (B) Agreeableness (C) extraversion (D) openness Answer: (B) agreeableness 19 A key element that drives the effectiveness of transformational leadership is the development and maintenance of ____ between a leader and her/his followers: (A) dyad (B) creativity (C) Openness (D) Trust Answer: (D) Trust 20. Jose is a supervisor trying to decide what kind of desks and chairs to buy for his subordinates. Jose is not sure whether he should make the decision on his own or whether he should consult with his subordinates in the decision. The leadership model that would best guide him on this is: a. Fiedler’s contingency model b. Path-goal model c. *Vroom’s normative model d. LMX model 21. Leslie has a great relationship with her boss, Maria. But she notices that some of her other teammates do not. The leadership theory that would best explain these different leaderfollower relationships would be a. Fiedler’s contingency theory b. Path-goal theory c. Vroom’s normative theory d. *LMX theory 22. Wanda is a supervisor who is honest with her employees, and she is able to admit her mistakes. Her leadership style is best described as: a. Considerate leadership b. *Authentic leadership

c. Servant leadership d. Supportive leadership 23. Transformational leadership behaviors include a. Authority b. Laisseiz-faire behavior c. *Charisma d. Management by exception 24. A discriminatory barrier that prevents women from advancing to senior management positions is referred to as a. b. c. d.

abusive supervision gendered negativity lower levels of education *the glass ceiling

25. With regard to intelligence in leadership, it has been found that (choose the best answer): a. b. c. d.

a leader’s intelligence is a very important factor for leader success. *whether the leader is perceived to be intelligent by followers is what matters. leader intelligence only matters in military and government settings. there is no relationship between leader effectiveness and intelligence.

26. A person’s prototype of what characteristics a leader should have (for example, tall, male, older) is referred to as their: a. b. c. d.

*implicit leadership theory. situational leadership theory. normative leadership model. authentic leadership model.

27. One study found that when CEOs commented on the poor performance of competitor firms, they were more likely to ______ when the CEO in question was a minority. a. blame the company’s external circumstances. b. *blame the poorly performing company’s CEO. c. mention the race/ethnicity of the company’s CEO d. focus on racial inequality 28. Across all settings, women were seen as ______in top management and middle management positions.

a. b. c. d.

*more effective than men less effective than men equally effective as men more effective than men, but only in military settings.

29. The notion that women are overrepresented in top leadership positions that are risky and fragile, such as taking on the CEO role of a company about to go bankrupt, is referred to as the a. b. c. d.

glass ceiling gendered floor *glass cliff gender role

30. The way that different aspects of a person’s identity (e.g., gender, race) combine in different ways to shape their reality is referred to as a. b. c. d.

*intersectionality the glass cliff the glass ceiling consideration and initiating structure

True/False 31. The fact that women CEOs are often assigned to precarious leadership situations, such as where the company is likely to fail, is called the glass ceiling.

Answer: False 32. Transformational leadership includes behaviors such as management by exception.

Answer: False 33. The leadership dimensions identified by the Ohio State Studies include consideration and initiating structure.

Answer: True 34. LMX theory is focused on how leaders can use their power most effectively.

Answer: False 35. Vroom’s normative theory is focused on determining the best decision-making style for a given situation.

Answer: True 36. “Implicit leadership theory” means the ideas that each of us has of what a leader is or should be.

Answer: True 37. Laissez-faire leaders tend to show helpful support and guidance to their followers.

Answer: False 38. A supervisor of a group of individuals is said to have legitimate power.

Answer: True 39. Trait approaches to leadership are focused on leader behaviors.

Answer: False 40. Fiedler’s leadership theory was one of the first trait theories of leadership.

Answer: False Fill-in-the-Blank 41. ___ theory examines the quality of the relationship a leader has with their employees.

Answer: LMX, leader-member exchange 42. _____ refers to the fact that women often face discriminatory practices that prevent them from getting into higher leadership levels.

Answer: Glass ceiling 43. The theory that guides leaders on how to make the best decisions in their group is called ____.

Answer: Vroom’s normative theory 44. The ability to use force to gain compliance from another is referred to as _____ power.

Answer: Coercive 45. The prototypes of leaders that we have in our mind is referred to as ____ leadership theory.

Answer: Implicit 46. ____ theories of leadership specify the situational factors affecting when different leadership behaviors and styles are more appropriate.

Answer: Contingency

47. The _____ theory of leadership describes leader styles in terms of directive, supportive, participative, and achievement-oriented.

Answer: Path-Goal 48. ______ leadership is characterized by four distinct behaviors: idealized influence (charisma), inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, and individualized consideration.

Answer: Transformational 49. _____ leaders demonstrate contingent reward, active management by exception, passive management by exception, and laissez-faire leadership styles.

Answer: Transactional 50. ______ is characterized by a sustained display of hostile and demeaning behaviors, excluding physical contact.

Answer: Abusive supervision Short Essay 51 If you were hired as a consultant to improve leadership in a small tech start-up, which theories would you use to inform your action plan and why?

Answer: Feedback: Many possible answers acceptable, except Great Man.LMX most likely since it has strong empirical support and is arguably most comprehensive theory of leadership.Other behavioral approaches such as transformational leadership could work as well because they are behaviors that can be trained, and are associated with effective leadership.

52 What approaches have been used to study leadership?

Answer: Feedback: Examples: trait approach, behavioral approach 53 Which four behaviors characterize transformational leadership?

Answer: Feedback: Inspirational motivation, intellectual stimulation, idealized influence, individualized consideration 54 What are some outcomes of positive LMX relationships in the workplace?

Answer: Feedback: Examples: higher job satisfaction, higher organizational commitment, lower turnover 55 What does the contingency approach say about quality leadership?

Answer: Feedback: Leader effectiveness may depend on the leader and the situational factors involved 56 What may be a danger involved with having a charismatic leader in the workplace?

Answer: Feedback: Followers may not question the leader, even in circumstances where it may be appropriate or helpful to do so 57 What is the difference between leader emergence and leader effectiveness? Which is more important?

Answer: Feedback: Emergence: how leaders become perceived as leaders by t he group.

Effectiveness: what leaders actually accomplish. Organizations should care about both aspects.

58 Name two of the behaviors that characterize transformational leadership and describe how they contribute to effective leadership.

Answer: Feedback: Intellectual stimulation: leaders encourage challenging commonly held assumptions and push followers to grow intellectually. Idealized influence: leaders have a charismatic vision for the future and they role model how to achieve their goals. Inspirational motivation. Individualized consideration.

59 Compare and contrast two approaches to leadership. How do they describe what makes an effective leader?

Answer: Feedback: Example: LMX versus trait. Trait: Certain traits make effective leaders, such as extraversion. LMX: Leadership is an exchange relationship that develops trust between employees and leaders.

60 Charisma is a highly sought-after trait for leaders. However, what might some downsides be for employees and the organization that employs a charismatic leader?

Answer: Feedback: Extreme loyalty may lead to groupthink. Employees' loyalty may lead to overwork, stress, etc. Leader may take company in a bold but risky direction that may ultimately fail.

61 What was significant about Vroom’s normative model of leadership?

Answer: Feedback: The theory discusses how participatory a leader’s decision should be to optimize outcomes.

62 Describe the progression of leadership theories, citing at least three specific approaches and indicating how each improved upon a past approach.

Answer: Feedback: Trait approach: certain traits associated with leadership. Behavioral approach: not traits, but rather behaviors are associated with effective leadership. Contingency approach: leadership may depend on the situation. Contemporary approaches.

63 What is the relationship between gender and leadership?

Answer: Feedback: Complex relationship. Effective leadership may invoke both masculine and feminine traits. Perceived effectiveness is probably dependent on the situation and occupation. Women are underrepresented in leadership positions, but evidence suggests they are equally if not more effective.

64 Identify and describe three advantages that contemporary theories of leadership have over the traditional approaches.

Answer: Feedback: Empirical support: meta-analyses provide strong support for positive relationships between contemporary theories and positive organizational outcomes. More accurately and completely describe the phenomenon of leadership as it occurs in actual organizational life. Newer concepts can be trained or taught to managers who seek to improve their relationships with their followers.

65 What was the contribution of the Ohio State Studies to leadership theory?

Answer: Feedback: They were the first to focus on leader behavior, not leader traits. They identified consideration and initiating structure as two primary leader behaviors.

1

Companies that ask their employees to display certain emotions have emotional _______________.

(A) labor guidelines (B) performance indicators (C) display rules (D) commitment factors

Answer: (C) display rules

2

In general, job attitudes are comprised of the following three components: (A) rational, evaluative, emotional (B) affective, cognitive, behavioral (C) persistence, direction, magnitude (D) happiness, commitment, intention

Answer: (B) affective, cognitive, behavioral 3

Juan is leading his team's weekly meeting. One of Juan's team members enters the meeting, and she appears visibly agitated and angry. Soon afterward, another team member enters who also appears to be upset and angry. Finally, the four other team members enter smiling and laughing. About 10 minutes into the meeting, Juan notices that all six team members are now smiling and speaking excitedly. Of the following, what is best possible explanation for why all of the team members are now smiling?

(A) job satisfaction (B) employee engagement (C) job characteristics (D) emotional contagion

Answer: (D) emotional contagion 4

When companies have display rules for emotions, they are likely asking employees to engage in what?

(A) Emotional labor (B) Emotional turnover (C) Motivational labor (D) Path-goal emotions

Answer: (A) Emotional labor 5

Which is NOT an outcome of job attitudes at work?

(A) Performance (B) Turnover (C) Leadership (D) Organizational citizenship

Answer: (C) Leadership 6

Which type of emotional labor is usually not associated with higher experienced stress?

(A) Surface acting

(B) Dissonance acting (C) Deep acting (D) Newcomer display rules Answer: (C) Deep acting Answer: (B) newcomers 7.

Which of the following is true for "unfolding theory of turnover"? (a) Turnover is a function of supervisor personality (b) Turnover is a function of shocks or unexpected events (c) Whether turnover benefits or harms the organization depends on the situation. (d) Turnover is contagious and one person leaving increases the risk of others leaving.

Answer = b.

8

Which of the following is an antecedent to job satisfaction and organization commitment?

(A) counter-productive work behaviors (B) Absenteeism (C) Performance (D) none of the above

Answer: (C) performance 9

An employee at a company who does not believe in the company's mission but is required to display certain emotions is likely engaging in what type of emotional labor?

(A) Normative acting (B) Surface acting (C) Contagion acting (D) Deep acting

Answer: (B) Surface acting 10

Jesse works in the HR department of a large company. While Jesse does not particularly feel attached to this company, he also realizes that the company made a lot of investments in his training. When Jesse gets an offer to join another organization's HR department, he is feeling uncomfortable taking the new offer. Jesse may be experience what type of commitment?

(A) Continuance commitment (B) Occupational commitment (C) Job commitment (D) Normative commitment

Answer: (D) Normative commitment 11

An employee at an automobile manufacturing plant is told she may lose her job in the next 90 days. What effect might this have on her job satisfaction?

(A) Decreased due to job insecurity

(B) Increased due to job insecurity (C) None (D) Increased organizational commitment Answer: (A) Decreased due to job insecurity 12

Sarah is a computer programmer at a large tech company. In the morning she has a positive interaction with a supervisor, and in the afternoon she solves a technical problem with some code that has been bothering her for weeks. Which theory might explain this process?

(A) Job characteristics theory (B) Leadership theory (C) Stress theory (D) Broaden-and-build theory

Answer: (D) Broaden-and-build theory 13

_____ refers to the pleasurable (or unpleasurable) feeling resulting from one's evaluation a job or job experience.

(A) employee engagement (B) turnover intentions (C) organizational commitment (D) job satisfaction

Answer: (D) job satisfaction 14

An individual is considered to be high in ______ if he/she is dedicated, absorbed, energized, excited, and passionate about his/her work.

(A) employee engagement (B) positive affectivity (C) organizational commitment (D) job satisfaction

Answer: (A) employee engagement 15

______ refers to the transfer and sharing of emotion from an individual to others via automatic and unconscious processes.

(A) emotional labor (B) emotional contagion (C) emotion regulation (D) emotional valence

Answer: (B) emotional contagion 16

This type of emotional labor tends to have the most harmful consequences for employees who frequently engage in it.

(A) surface acting (B) deep acting (C) genuine acting (D) regulation

Answer: (A) surface acting 17

What is the difference between procedural justice and distributive justice?

(A) Procedural justice relates to the fairness of outcomes; distributive justice relates to fairness of an organizational process (B) Procedural justice relates to the fairness of a process; distributive justice relates to interpersonal treatment (C) Procedural justice relates to interpersonal treatment; distributive justice relates to the fairness of a process (D) Procedural justice relates to fairness of an organizational process; distributive justice relates to the fairness of an outcome

Answer: (D) Procedural justice relates to fairness of an organizational process; distributive justice relates to the fairness of an outcome 18

The effort, planning, and regulation required by employees to express organizationally desired or expected emotions during interactions with others is referred to as: (A) emotional labor (B) emotional contagion (C) job satisfaction (D) employee engagement

Answer: (A) emotional labor 19

A professional soccer player is no longer committed to his team but feels an obligation to remain with the team until his three-year contract is fulfilled. This is an example of ___________.

(A) affective commitment (B) continuance commitment (C) normative commitment (D) occupational commitment

Answer: (C) normative commitment

20. According to ______, behavior is a function of intentions, norms, and control. a. b. c. d.

*Theory of Planned Behavior Emotional Engagement Theory Social Contagion Theory Theory Emotional Labor

21. The degree to which an employee identifies with and feels involved in the organization describes their a. emotional engagement b. employee engagement c. *organizational commitment d. job satisfaction trajectory

22. Grant is dedicated to his job as an emergency room technician. He finds it exciting, and he is passionate about it. Grant is experiencing high ____ about his job. a. b. c. d.

emotional labor *work engagement LMX initiating structure

23. Exit interviews are used by organizations to ____. a. b. c. d.

*find out about factors that made departing employees unhappy. determine strengths and weaknesses of leaders’ normative commitment. find out how employee performance can be improved. establish better group norms around emotional labor.

24. Clarice is happy with the pay she gets on her job, but she doesn’t like the work itself.

Clarice is experiencing ____. a. b. c. d.

high global job satisfaction and low facet job satisfaction. high facet job satisfaction and low global job satisfaction. low extrinsic job satisfaction and high intrinsic job satisfaction. *high extrinsic satisfaction and low intrinsic job satisfaction.

25. _____ is a state of nonjudgmental attentiveness and awareness of the moment, without thinking and worrying about the past or the future. a. emotional balance b. *mindfulness c. consideration d. self-care 26. ____ is the perception that the organization is committed to and cares about its employees. a. organizational commitment b. organizational justice c. *perceived organizational support d. organizational engagement 27. Jennifer feels like the way pay decisions are made by her boss is fair, but she doesn’t like the fact that she ended up with a lower pay raise than her coworkers. Jennifer is experiencing a. *high procedural justice but low distributive justice. b. low procedural justice but high distributive justice. c. high interactional justice but low procedural justice. d. low interactional justice but high procedural justice.

28. ___ is a tendency to experience negative emotions such as anger, sadness, and guilt. a. Emotional labor b. Emotional engagement c. Mindfulness d. *Negative affectivity 29. Person-organization fit is defined as a. the degree to which a person’s knowledge, skills, and abilities fit their job. b. whether or not a person’s interests and values are aligned with those of their work group. c. *whether or not a person’s interests and values are aligned with those of their organization. d. whether or not a person perceives organizational support.

30. Job satisfaction and organizational commitment tend to be a. * highly correlated. b. uncorrelated. c. related to each other when justice is high. d. related to engagement but not each other.

True/False 31. The three components of a job attitude are cognitive, affective, and behavioral.

Answer: True 32. The Theory of Planned Behavior describes the conditions under which attitudes relate to behaviors.

Answer: True 33. Job satisfaction and organizational commitment are generally uncorrelated.

Answer: False 34. Satisfaction with pay is a part of extrinsic job satisfaction.

Answer: True 35. Normative commitment is being committed to the organization due to a sense of obligation and that it is the right thing to do.

Answer: True 36. Person-job fit is the degree of similarity between a person’s own values and the values of the organization.

Answer: False

37. Organizational citizenship behaviors are not part of an employee’s job description but contribute to the effectiveness of the organization.

Answer: True 38. Emotional contagion is when emotions spread within the work group.

Answer: True 39. Deep acting is when you change the expression of your emotions without changing your actual emotions.

Answer: False 40. Emotional labor is having to display emotions that you do not feel.

Answer: True Fill-in-the-Blank 41. ____ is the discomfort experienced when attitudes and behaviors are not aligned.

Answer: Cognitive dissonance 42. According to ____, behavior is a function of intentions, norms, and control.

Answer: Theory of Planned Behavior 43. ____ is the degree to which the employee identifies with and feels involved in the organization.

Answer: Organizational commitment 44. ____ is the degree to which the individual is dedicated to and absorbed with work, and bringing a sense of excitement and passion to work.

Answer: Work engagement 45. ____ are conducted with departing employees to explore why the employee is leaving the organization.

Answer: Exit interviews 46. ____ is satisfaction with the work itself and opportunities to use one’s skills.

Answer: Intrinsic job satisfaction.

47. ____ commitment is commitment to the organization because of a sincere emotional attachment to it.

Answer: Affective 48. ____ is the perception that the organization is committed to and cares about its employees.

Answer: Perceived organizational support

49. ____ justice is the perceived fairness of rewards received from the organization.

Answer: Distributive 50. ___ is changing not only how one acts but also trying to change the underlying emotion.

Answer: Deep acting

Essays 51.

Emerging evidence suggests that understanding job satisfaction trajectories (i.e., direction of change) may help organizations better predict turnover intentions and turnover (Chen et al., 2011). What steps can an organization take to capitalize on this finding?

Answer: Feedback: An organization could begin measuring job satisfaction with greater frequency to identify whether employees' level of job satisfaction is generally increasing or decreasing. If job satisfaction appears to be decreasing for many employees, the organization can take steps to increase employees' job satisfaction–this could be accomplished through intervening on known antecedents of job satisfaction (e.g., job characteristics, justice perceptions).

52 What are the three commonly studied dimensions of organizational commitment? How are they interrelated?

Answer: Feedback: Affective: emotional attachment. Continuance: perceived cost of leaving the organization is too high to leave. Normative: commitment due to obligation or the sense that staying is the right thing to do. Each are related and may be experienced simultaneously, but different types may be related to different outcomes.

53 What is work engagement? How does it differ from other job attitudes?

Answer: Feedback: Engagement: dedicated, absorbed, and excited about work. Christian meta-analysis indicates it is a separate construct from satisfaction or commitment. Conceptually, being satisfied is different from being absorbed in work, for instance.

54 What factors may affect job attitudes? What outcomes have been found to be connected with job attitudes?

Answer: Feedback: Antecedents: job characteristics, leadership, stress, POS, justice, personality, P-E fit.

Outcomes: performance, OCB's, absenteeism, turnover, unit performance.

55 What might the advantages and disadvantages of emotional display rules be for organizations?

Answer: Feedback: Positive customer experiences and satisfaction. May be exhausting or effortful for employees and related to burnout or stress. May have detrimental effects on job attitudes.

56 What are global measures versus facet-based measures of job satisfaction. What are the advantages and disadvantages of each?

Answer:

Feedback: Global is an overall measure of job satisfaction; facet-based assess specific aspects. Some information is lost when using global measures, but they tend to be shorter and easier to administer. Facet-based measures collect specific information, but are often lengthy and require time to complete.

57 An organization approaches your I/O consulting firm and explains their employees’ job attitudes are at an all-time low. What questions might you ask or areas of the organization might you examine to determine some likely causes of the diminished job attitudes?

Answer: Feedback: Job characteristics: what is it about the design of the employees' jobs that may be contributing to poor attitudes (i.e., lack of autonomy?). Justice: have recent decisions in the company affected employee justice perceptions or affected their perceived organizational support? P-E fit: are employees working jobs that fit their KSA's and personalities well, or are there many mismatches?

58 How might organizations increase performance in some way other than asking their employees to do more work? How would you explain how this might work?

Answer: Feedback: Job attitudes are linked to higher performance. Provide employees with perks and give them benefits that increase their job attitudes. Employees who enjoy their jobs will perform higher and will even go above and beyond for organizations (i.e., organizational citizenship behaviors).

59 If you were to start a company from scratch, would you or would you not require emotional display rules? What would your answer depend on? Use theories and evidence to support your answer.

Answer: Feedback: Opinion-based answer but it probably depends on the occupation, industry, etc. Some discussion of negative employee outcomes of display rules should be part of this answer.

Theory of planned behavior: employees may develop negative attitudes about display rules, which may influence behavior.

60 What are some outcomes of job attitudes?

Answer: Feedback: Examples: higher performance, higher OCB's, lower turnover 61 What are three types of organizational commitment?

Answer: Feedback: Affective, continuance, normative 62 What are emotional display rules?

Answer: Feedback: Requirements to show or hide certain emotions while on the job 63 What does Affective Events Theory say about emotions and job attitudes?

Answer: Feedback: Day to day emotions in reaction to events at work may affect employee job attitudes 64 What are two types of emotional labor?

Answer: Feedback: Surface acting and deep acting 65 Based on Broaden and Build Theory, describe why negative emotions might lead to unsafe behavior and accidents/injuries in the workplace.

Answer: Feedback: Negative emotions can lead to a narrowing of thought and fight or flight response. These may result in employees who ignore or simply don't perceive harmful stimuli or hazards in the work environment.

66 Is the amount a person is paid (i.e., pay level) a strong predictor of how satisfied that person will be with his/her job in general? Why or why not?

Answer: Feedback: There are social aspects, job characteristics, and other perquisites that a person might be satisfied with. Pay is just one of many aspects of a job that a person may evaluate. Also, pay satisfaction (and dissatisfaction) is a stronger predictor as opposed to pay level.

67 Linda works at large manufacturing company. She supervises three assembly teams and has noticed lately that her team members seem to be growing increasingly dissatisfied with their jobs and less committed to the company. Linda worries that if this trend continues her team’s performance may decrease and she may lose them to voluntary turnover. What can Linda do to help increase her employees' job satisfaction and organizational commitment?

Name two possible approaches.

Answer: Feedback: Based on evidence surrounding the nomological network of job satisfaction and organizational commitment, Linda could try to improve any one of these known antecedents: Job characteristics; Leadership; stress; Perceived organizational support; Justice; Personality of employees may be an issue; Person-environment fit 68 How might the Theory of Planned Behavior be used to explain how job attitudes may affect employee behavior?

Answer: Feedback: Behavior is a direct consequence of intentions. If employees have a negative attitudes about work, this may lead to negative behaviors. Norms and control may also affect behavior through intentions.

1 Occupational Health Psychology is primarily concerned with which aspects of employees?

(A) Motivation & productivity (B) Health & safety (C) Physical stressors & indicators (D) Top-down management & leadership Answer:

(B)

Health & safety

2 A company institutes a program to provide substance abuse counseling for employees.

This is an example of a(n) ______.

(A) Correlated stress management plan (B) Employee Assistance Program (C) OSHA inspection (D) Intervention study Answer:

(B)

Employee Assistance Program

3 According to the Job Demands-Resources Model, when does an employee experience strain?

(A) When there are too many job resources and not enough job demands (B) When there are too many job demands and not enough available job resources (C) When job resources increase over time (D) When job demands decrease over time Answer:

(B)

When there are too many job demands and not enough available job resources

4 Which of the following relationships best captures the process of stress?

(A) Stressor leads to Strain (B) Stimulus leads to Resource (C) Demand leads to Resource (D) Resource leads to Demand Answer:

(A) Stressor leads to Strain

5 A problem with measuring workplace safety using the frequency of accidents is the ______.

(A) low base rate of accidents (B) lack of employee motivation (C) safety participation is low (D) safety climate is low Answer:

(A)

low base rate of accidents

6 Kelly works for a retail organization. She seeks responsibilities at work that match her personality and interests. This is an example of (A) job satisfaction.

(B) climate improvement.

(C) customer satisfaction.

(D) job crafting.

Answer:

(D)

job crafting

7 David has two bosses who are asking him to work on two projects with incompatible demands at the same time. This is an example of ________.

(A) job de-crafting (B) exhaustion (C) role conflict (D) engagement Answer:

(C)

role conflict

8 The general term for anything that induces strain is a (A) stressor (B) hindrance (C) resource (D) challenge Answer:

(A)

stressor

9 What is the first stage of General Adaptation Syndrome?

(A) stress (B) alarm (C) depletion (D) exhaustion Answer:

(B)

alarm

10 Which of the following is an example of a challenge stressor?

(A) organizational politics (B) hassles (C) time urgency (D) paperwork Answer:

(C)

time urgency

11 ______ is a condition referring to long-term exhaustion and diminished interest in work.

(A) Depression (B) Rumination (C) Job ambiguity (D) Burnout Answer:

(D)

Burnout

12 Research indicates which of the following can affect an individual's stress?

(A) Workaholism (B) Self-efficacy (C) Personality type (D) All of the above Answer:

(D)

All of the above

13 Which of the following is NOT an individual approach to stress management?

(A) Seeking social support (B) Accessing an Employee Assistance Plan (C) Engaging in exercise (D) Getting adequate sleep Answer:

(B)

Accessing an Employee Assistance Plan

14 Which of the following is a type of stressor?

(A) role ambiguity (B) family-to-work conflict (C) information overload (D) Alll of the above are types of stressors Answer:

(D) All of the above are stressors

15 _____ is the shared perceptions employees have about the priority of safety in their organization.

(A) Safety climate

(B) Stress agreement (C) Safety participation (D) Safety compliance Answer:

(A) Safety climate

16 A tech firm installed walking desks for all their employees who requested one. This is an example of _____.

(A) Stress management (B) Job crafting (C) Increased job control (D) Shift work Answer:

(A)

Stress management

17 Which term refers to an individual employee’s desire for, and the importance they place on, safe behavior at work?

(A) Safety climate (B) Opportunity to perform (C) Safety motivation (D) Safety knowledge Answer:

(C)

Safety motivation

18 Conservation of Resources theory proposes individuals seek _____ to protect themselves from stress.

(A) Work-life balance (B) Social support (C) Motivation (D) Resources Answer:

(D)

Resources

19 While challenge stressors are positively related to engagement, ____ stressors are negatively related to engagement.

(A) Hindrance (B) Workload (C) Resource (D) Alarm Answer:

(A)

Hindrance

20 Which of the following is NOT an example of a psychological consequence of stress?

(A) Anxiety (B) Depression (C) Cardiovascular disease (D) Rumination Answer:

(C)

Cardiovascular disease

21 An employee who works extra hours compulsively and works because they feel guilty may be experiencing _____.

(A) Job crafting (B) Workaholism (C) Challenge stressors (D) Dysfunctional Engagement Answer:

(B)

Workaholism

22 An recent approach that acknowledges that safety, health, and well-being are all intertwined is called _____.

(A) Safety Participation SystemTM (B) Total Worker HealthTM (C) Challenge (D) Complete SupportTM Answer:

(B)

Total Worker HealthTM

23 Some recent railway fatalities have attributed to the medical condition ____.

(A) sleep apnea (B) diabetes (C) hypertension (D) neurological disease Answer:

(A)

sleep apnea

24 According to meta-analytic evidence, which of the following personality traits is positively related to safety motivation?

(A) Proactive personality (B) Workaholism (C) Extraversion (D) Conscientiousness Answer:

(D)

Conscientiousness

25 Studies have shown that a key outcome of detaching from work is ____.

(A) stress reduction (B) worker disengagement (C) improved job crafting (D) engagement Answer:

(A)

stress reduction

26 Which of the following is an example of mindfulness?

(A) Challenge stressor (B) Job crafting (C) Focus on breathing (D) Job satisfaction Answer:

(C)

Focus on breathing

27 A recent study by Gonzalez-Mule and Cockburn (2017) that tracked workers over a seven-year period found that workers in demanding jobs and low control (e.g., not able to decide how to do their work) were more likely to (A) seek to craft their job (B) quit (C) have sleep problems (D) die Answer:

(D)

die

28 A person’s belief that they can keep up with the physical and psychological requirements of their job is referred to as: (A) well-being.

(B) engagement.

(C) work ability.

(D) total health.

Answer: (C) work ability 29 People who prefer to work in specific blocks of time to separate work from non-work are referred to as _____.

(A) de-integrators (B) segmenters (C) volleyers (D) detachers

Answer:

(B)

segmenters

30 Displaying high levels of impatience, doing things quickly, and being competitive and highly involved in work is typical of individual’s with _____ personality.

(A) Type A (B) Type B (C) Conscientious (D) Proactive Answer:

(A)

Type A

TRUE-FALSE 31. The Job Demands-Resources model proposes stress results from a mismatch between employee stressors and strains.

Answer: False 32. Research has found that work-family conflict is related to lower work satisfaction and performance.

Answer: True 33. Low levels of stress typically predict the highest levels of performance.

Answer: False 34. A current criticism of OHP is that many studies focus on middle-class and professional workers.

Answer: True 35. Research suggests that not getting enough sleep can accumulate and affect cognitive performance.

Answer: True 36. Sleep apnea has been identified as a key cause of some recent train accidents in the U.S. Answer: True 37. Current approaches to studying worker safety and well-being have emphasized the need to treat safety and well-being as separate issues.

Answer: False 38. Job crafting involves supervisors redesigning employees’ jobs to reduce stress.

Answer: False 39. Research has shown that open offices are important for increasing performance and satisfaction.

Answer: False 40. Wearable technologies can increase worker stress because workers feel that they are always being watched.

Answer: True FILL-IN-THE-BLANK

41. Core safety behaviors such as following safety rules and properly using safety equipment are referred to as _____.

Answer: Safety compliance behaviors 42. Worker behaviors like supporting coworkers and safety norms within the organization are referred to as _____.

Answer: Safety participation behaviors 43. _____ is the shared understanding that workers have about the priority of safety in the organization.

Answer: Safety climate 44. A recognition of the interconnectedness of worker health and safety with an emphasis not only on health promotion but worker safety and psychological well-being is called ______.

Answer: Total Worker HealthTM 45. ___ are “bad” stressors, job demands that are negatively linked to work engagement.

Answer: Hindrance stressors 46. _____ are “good” stressors, job demands that are developmental and positively related to engagement.

Answer: Challenge stressors 47. When demands from work and nonwork domains negatively affect one another it is called: Answer: Work–family conflict 48. ____ is having multiple contradictory demands at work.

Answer: Role conflict 49. A lack of clarity regarding one’s work roles is referred to as _____.

Answer: Role ambiguity 50. _____ is state of consciousness which allows noticing but not evaluating or ruminating about information.

Answer: Mindfulness ESSAY 61. What is job crafting?

Answer: Feedback: Employees are allowed to complete their work in a way that works best for them.

62 What are stressors and strain? How are they different?

Answer: Feedback: Stressor: anything that induces strain. Strain: response to or outcome of stress. Stressors induce stain and strains are the outcomes. This is how we often conceptualize stress.

63 Name three types of stressors and discuss their outcomes.

Answer: Feedback: Role demands: role conflict/ambiguity related to lower job satisfaction. Interpersonal challenges: abusive supervision leads to increased strain and lowered job attitudes. Information overload: related to reduced focus & performance.

64 What are two theories of stress and how do they explain the stress process?

Answer: Feedback: Conservation of Resources or COR: loss of resources or threat to resources creates stress.

Employees may seek resources to overcome this. Job demands resources or JD-R: low resources combined with high demands create stress/strain.

65 How are challenge stressors different from hindrance stressors? What might be some potential issues with this conceptualization of stress?

Answer: Feedback: Challenge stressors: developmental and related to engagement. Hindrance stressors: negatively related to engagement. Certain stressors may be perceived as challenges to some people and hindrances to others (i.e., appraisal by the individual).

66. What are antecedents to safety behaviour or performance? How might organizations promote these?

Answer: Feedback: Safety climate: encouraging communication and role-modeling among supervisors. Safety motivation: increasing safety knowledge and making safety a clear priority. Safety priorities: specifically pointing out that safety is more important than performance (example from train crash). Personality such as conscientiousness.

67 A person who has worked as a firefighter and as a data entry specialist claims both jobs were equally stressful. Which theories of stress might explain how this is possible?

Answer: Feedback: Transactional theory: depending on the appraisal and coping resources, both jobs could be viewed as stressful. COR theory: resource availability may be different at each job and could produce strain, depending on the situation. JD-R: a lack of resources and many demands will produce stress.

68 An organization in the tech industry approaches you as an OHP consultant and explains their employees are reporting high levels of stress and are quitting at a high rate. How would you recommend proceeding to reduce stress levels among employees?

Answer: Feedback: Attempt interventions to address stressed employees, and eventually aim for a long-term solution. Examples could include increasing EAP programs, providing stress education and stress management techniques, supervisor support, and eventually jobs could be redesigned to be less stressful.

69 A supervisor would like to encourage their employees to take on responsibilities that align with their personal interests and strengths. What are they likely referring to and what would your advice be in regards to how they should proceed?

Answer: Feedback: Job crafting: performing job in a way that works best for them. Linked to increased resources and decreased burnout. Employees need to have enough autonomy to craft their jobs. May have a dark side if too much crafting occurs? Should be some sort of way of keeping track of this at a higher organizational level.

70 How does the transactional theory explain the stress process?

Answer: Feedback: Individual appraisals of the situation and how individuals can cope with the situation are factors in the stress process 71 How is a challenge stressor different from a hindrance stressor?

Answer: Feedback: Challenge stressors may provide some sort of upside to employees. That is, challenge stressors are seen as obstacles to overcome that might lead to opportunities, while hindrance stressors are viewed as barriers to that inhibit progress.

72 Which stressors are commonly studied by occupational health psychologists?

Answer: Feedback: Examples: role stressors, information overload, interpersonal challenges

73 How does conservation of resources explain the stress process?

Answer: Feedback: Threat to resources or lost resources affect strain outcomes. People may seek to increase resources.

1 What is the term for a collection of individuals whose interactions impact each other?

(A) Teamwork (B) Group (C) Work Team (D) Forming Answer: (B) Group 2 Of the following, which is NOT an outcome of teams with high levels of psychological safety?

(A) groupthink (B) idea sharing (C) team motivation (D) ability to learn and perform Answer: (A) groupthink 3 According to Tuckman, what are the stages of group development?

(A) Equilibrium, Punctuated Equilibrium, Punctuated Disequilibrium (B) Unfreezing, Changing, Refreezing (C) Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning (D) Investigation, Presentation, Bargaining, Closure Answer: (C) Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning 4 An airline tasks a team of individuals from various departments to determine ways to improve passenger's reported satisfaction with their flights. This is an example of what type of team?

(A) Management team (B) Project team (C) Cohesion team (D) Diversity committee Answer: (B) Project team 5 Lindsey is in a meeting with her team's leader. Each team member is agreeing with whatever the leader says, and although Lindsey doesn't agree with everything they say, she doesn't speak up. What may be occurring here is _______.

(A) transactional leadership (B) groupthink (C) group cohesion

(D) neuroticism Answer: (B) groupthink 6 A team that is focused on ideas and is often 'cross-functional' is a ______ team.

(A) advisory (B) management (C) production (D) project Answer: (D) project

7 ______ is the phenomenon that occurs when individuals in a group put forth less effort than if they were working on their own.

(A) Team norming (B) Work avoidance (C) Social loafing (D) Team effectiveness Answer: (C) Social loafing 8 What is the term that describes how a group approaches the process of doing its work?

(A) Group processes (B) Group diversity (C) Group intelligence (D) Group faultlines Answer: (A) Group processes 9 Which of the following describes the degree to which individual conceptualizations are shared across teams?

(A) Team mental models (B) Social loafing (C) Teamwork skills (D) Individual-team theory Answer: (A) Team mental models

10 What type of teams are teams in which members are trained in multiple roles in addition to their own?

(A) Cross-trained teams (B) Multi-role teams (C) Normed teams (D) Stormed teams Answer: (A) Cross-trained teams 11 Team ________ is a function of performance and viability, while team _____ is the belief a team has about their ability to perform.

(A) Efficacy; performance (B) Effectiveness; groupthink (C) Teamwork; cohesion (D) Effectiveness; efficacy Answer: (D) Effectiveness; efficacy 12 The ______ stage of group development may involve conflicts and group members testing one another.

(A) Storming (B) Performing (C) Grouping (D) Adjourning Answer: (A) Storming 13 Research suggests that writing ideas down before bringing them to a _______ session may be the most effective way of generating ideas in a group.

(A) brainstorming (B) leadership (C) barnstorming (D) teamwork Answer: (A) brainstorming 14 Which of the following is NOT related to team effectiveness?

(A) Group composition (B) Group processes (C) Group typography (D) Group affect

Answer: (C) Group typography 15 What type of team would likely be asked to review the quality of a newly released cell phone, including reviewing online customer reviews?

(A) Production team (B) Advisory team (C) Normative team (D) Cohesion team Answer: (B) Advisory team 16 Team member agreeableness (i.e., a Big 5 personality trait) has a _____ relationship with team performance, according to research.

(A) Passing (B) Positive (C) Negative (D) Neutral (non-significant) Answer: (B) Positive 17 Which of the following are potential outcomes of positive teamwork in organizations?

(A) Higher accident frequency (B) Increased misalignment (C) Increased customer satisfaction (D) None of the above Answer: (C) Increased customer satisfaction 18 In a large, multinational corporation in which teams are constantly shifting, the norm is to do 'icebreakers' (i.e., quick activities in which team members share something about themselves) whenever new teams start working together. Which stage in the life cycle of a team is this most likely occurring?

(A) Forming (B) Storming (C) Acting (D) Adjourning Answer: (A) Forming

19 After a long meeting at work your boss asks your team to stay for a few moments and review how the decisions that were made may effect your company.

This is an example of a ______.

(A) cohesive leadership (B) storming (C) debrief (D) groupthink Answer: (C) debrief 20 A natural and spontaneous grouping of people is referred to as a (A) Team (B) Informal group (C) Acting group (D) Formal group Answer: (B) Informal group 21 Jose works on an engineering team. He finds that his team’s approach to their work changes over time, and seems to go through iterative cycles. This appears to be an example of (A) Groupthink (B) Storming (C) Punctuated equilibrium (D) Performing Answer: (C) Punctuated equilibrium 22 Hua works on a team that makes high-tech medical devices. Her team would best be described as (A) Advisory team (B) Project team (C) Action and performing team (D) Production team Answer: (D) Production team 23 Francisco’s medical response team wants to continue to work together – and they can because the organization gives them enough resources. Francisco’s team is exhibiting signs of (A) Team effectiveness (B) Team performance (C) Team viability (D) Team management Answer:

(C)Team viability 24 Carla is new to her work group. She finds that there is some tension between the older men in the group and the younger women. This may be a sign of _____ in Carla’s group.

(A) Groupthink (B) Faultlines (C) Group personality (D) Group variability Answer: (B)Faultlines 25 According to the research, compared to sitting meetings, stand-up meetings result in (A) Shorter meetings but poorer outcomes (B) Shorter meetings with equal or better performance (C) Longer meetings with good outcomes (D) Shorter meetings but with a higher risk of developing faultlines Answer: (B) Shorter meetings with equal or better performance 26 Walking meetings have been promoted by (A) the U.S. military for making strategic decisions (B) medical teams for making quick decisions (C) Jack Welch at GE as far back as the 1990s (D) CEOs such as Mark Zuckerberg (Facebook) Answer: (D) CEOs such as Mark Zuckerberg (Facebook) 27 Jeff Bezos, CEO of Amazon, is known for starting his meetings (A) while standing.

(B) while walking, in very small groups.

(C) with several minutes of quiet communal reading time.

(D) an open discussion of personal problems the employees might be facing.

Answer: (C) with several minutes of quiet communal reading time 28 After spending years trying to understand what factors lead to successful teams, Google concluded that some key factors were (A) The feelings that each group member had about the other at a personal level.

(B) The team’s positive impact and psychological safety of the group.

(C) That meetings ended on time and that the team was rewarded for its performance.

(D) Understanding of the group’s personality and having a process for handling groupthink.

Answer:

(B) The team’s positive impact and psychological safety of the group.

29 “Coordinator” and “consul” are examples of _____ (A) Task-oriented roles (B) Social-oriented roles (C) Informal team roles (D) Boundary-spanning roles Answer: (D)Boundary-spanning roles 30 What is the hypothesized relationship between team conflict and team performance?

(A) Low team conflict is necessary for good team performance.

(B) High conflict leads to high performance because it increases competition and creativity.

(C) There is an optimal level of conflict – not too much or too little – to support performance.

(D) Research has generally found that conflict and performance are unrelated.

Answer: (C) There is an optimal level of conflict – not too much or too little – to support performance.

True-False 31. Group composition has little effect on team effectiveness.

Answer: False 32. Groups in organizations may be either formal or informal.

Answer: True 33. Research suggests team leadership can be either formal or informal, and internal or external.

Answer: True 34. Research indicates teams always develop in a linear fashion (i.e., they move from one stage of development to the next, in order).

Answer: False 35. While larger groups may have a positive effect on performance, they may also encourage the frequency of social loafing.

Answer: True

36. Best practices for meetings include starting on time, covering relevant issues, and not allowing one person to dominate the meeting.

Answer: True 37. Groupthink is a sign of group harmony and usually leads to good decisions.

Answer: False 38. Faultlines are social dividing lines that may split a group into subgroups based on one or more attributes.

Answer: True 39. Calibrator, communicator, and cooperator are all examples of task-oriented roles.

Answer: False 40. Group composition, group size, and group affect/cognition all affect team effectiveness.

Answer: True Fill-in-the-blank 41 A(n) _____ is a spontaneous and natural grouping of people.

Answer: Informal group 42 The most tumultuous stage of group formation is referred to as _____.

Answer: Storming 43 Rather than moving through smooth, linear stages of formation, groups instead may experience ______, wherein the go through cycles and can change course.

Answer: Punctuated equilibrium 44 ____ teams make suggestions to improve a product, process, or service.

Answer: Advisory 45 The tendency of group members to put forth less effort when participating in a joint activity is referred to as ______.

Answer: Social loafing 46 _____ are social dividing lines that may split a group into subgroups based on one or more attributes.

Answer: Faultlines 47 The understood rules about how group members should behave are referred to as _____.

Answer: Norms 48 Tom notices that he and his teammates share similar conceptualizations of their tasks and roles, that is, that they have shared _____.

Answer: Team mental models 49 Contractor, creator, contributor, completer, and critic are all examples of ____ roles within a team.

Answer: Task-oriented 50 Claudia supervises a group that needs to be creative, so she encourages them not to judge each other’s ideas until later in the process. She also encourages wild ideas. The process that Claudia is supporting in her group is _____.

Answer: Brainstorming Essay 51 What factors are related to team effectiveness?

Answer: Feedback: Group composition (size, tenure, personality, diversity). Group processes (teamwork, norms, roles, conflict).Group affect/cognition (cohesion, psychological safety, collective efficacy).

52 What are 3 common types of teams in organizations, and what are their characteristics?

Answer: Feedback: Production teams: make or process things. Advisory teams: make suggestions for improving a product. Project teams: idea-focused, crossfunctional. Action/performing teams for emergencies; Management teams for top leaders; Service teams to ensure positive outcomes over repeated situations.

53 What are some common threats to team effectiveness?

Answer: Feedback: Social loafing. Groupthink. Faultlines.

54 What are some ways in which researchers have described how teams develop?

Answer: Feedback: Tuckman's stages of group development. Punctuated equilibrium. Transition stage and action stage.

55 How does group composition relate to team effectiveness? List and explain three examples.

Answer: Feedback: Group personality: agreeableness positively related to team performance.

Conscientiousness is related if other members are as well. Group diversity: mixed evidence. Faultlines may create challenges. Group tenure: groups that are constantly gaining and losing members perform poorly compared to more stable groups.

56 Groupthink is a potential threat to high-quality decision making in teams. How might a manager avoid groupthink in their teams?

Answer: Feedback: Explicitly acknowledge there is no pressure to conform in meetings.Avoid negatively stereotyping employees with dissenting opinions. Carefully considering challenges or warnings to the group's assumptions.

57 Global teams (i.e., teams consisting of members who live or work in different countries) have increased in prevalence over the last 2 decades. What challenges do these teams face as they seek to complete their assignments?

Answer: Feedback: Group cohesion: difficult to form collective identity.Faultlines: geographic differences, time differences, cultural norms.Team mental models: difficult to form when depending on communicating via technology compared to face-toface.

58 If you were in charge of creating several work groups and deciding which teams employees worked with, would you create teams with diverse characteristics? Why or why not?

Answer: Feedback: Yes; selecting only similar employees may result in legal issues related to discrimination. Yes; diverse teams are likely more creative if management properly. Yes; technology makes it easier for group members in different countries to collaborate.

59 What is the relationship between conflict in teams and team effectiveness?

Would you or would you not encourage some conflict if you were a formal team leader?

Answer: Feedback: Hypothetical inverted-U relationship, while meta-analyses suggest no relationship or a negative relationship. Possible conflict related to the task but not personal - may be helpful. May be better to encourage psychological safety and avoid conflict.

60 What is group cohesion?

Answer: Feedback: Degree to which group members wish to continue working with their team 61 What are some different types of teams?

Answer: Feedback: Examples: project team, management team, production team, advisory team 62 Why are teams useful in organizations?

Answer: Feedback: Can be more effective than individuals and sharing of ideas can increase innovation 63 What are two phenomena that may occur in teams that can negatively affect team effectiveness?

Answer: Feedback: Groupthink and social loafing 64 What are the advantages of standing meetings?

Answer: Feedback: They can lead to quicker decisions and also to similar or better decision quality/performance.

65 What is meant by team viability and team performance, and how are they different?

Answer: Feedback: Team performance refers to successful delivery of an output to customers inside or outside the organization, while team viability refers to the ability and desire of group members to continue to work with one another. Both are important to evaluating team effectiveness. But performance is “getting the job done well”, while viability relates to the possible longevity of the work group or team.

66 What are some models that explain how teams operate in organizations?

Answer: Feedback: Examples: Input-process-output model and Tuckman and Jensen's 5 stages

1 This process results in an organization passing its culture to new employees.

(A) onboarding (B) departmentalization (C) assessment (D) attrition Answer: (A) onboarding

2 A large grocery store makes the decision to reduce the number of supervisors at its flagship store. In doing so, the remaining supervisors now have to supervise 50 production workers instead of 20. This change has increased the supervisors’ ______.

(A) span of control (B) line staff (C) scalar function (D) formalization Answer: (A) span of control

3 Which of the following represent the stages of organizational change according to Lewin?

(A) Forming, Storming, Norming, Performing, Adjourning (B) Preaction, Action, Reaction (C) Existence, Relatedness, Growth (D) Unfreezing, Changing, Refreezing Answer: (D) Unfreezing, Changing, Refreezing

4 Cubicles, core-values posters, free M&Ms for employees on Mondays, and a casual dress code are examples of organizational culture: (A) beliefs (B) values (C) artifacts (D) assumptions Answer: (C) artifacts

5 Organizational culture consists of three levels: (A) assumptions, values, artifacts (B) beliefs, values, artifacts (C) assumptions, orientations, beliefs (D) artifacts, beliefs, assumptions Answer: (A) assumptions, values, artifacts 6 Different cultures that emerge in different departments, units, or locations within the same organization are called ______.

(A) subcultures (B) norms (C) climate (D)

informal cultures Answer: (A) subcultures

7 Companies that are undergoing a change in which the aim is to change the culture of the organization are likely experiencing which type of organizational development approach?

(A) Team building (B) Strategic change (C) Total quality management (D) Organizational flipside Answer: (B) Strategic change 8 Classical theories of organizational design emphasized that ___________ was the ideal form for an organization.

(A) bureaucracy (B) matrix (C) startup (D) small size Answer: (A) bureaucracy

9 The subfield in I/O psychology that focuses on change in companies is called ____________________.

(A) Organization development (B) Organizational leadership (C) Change startup (D) Leadership development Answer: (A) Organization development

10 What aspect of culture is most observable or visible when researchers want to assess culture?

(A) Assumptions (B) Strengths (C) Artifacts (D) Formalizations Answer: (C) Artifacts

11 Which term describes employees' shared perceptions of policies, practices, and behaviors that are rewarded?

(A) Organizational climate (B) Organizational matrix (C) Shared formalization (D) Organizational control Answer:

(A) Organizational climate

12 An employee in which type of organization would likely report to both a functional manager and a project manager?

(A) Formal (B) Departmentalized (C) Matrix (D) Mechanistic Answer: (C) Matrix

13 Which type of organizational structure emphasizes governance and regulations?

(A) Organic (B) Spiral (C) Entrepreneurial (D) Mechanistic Answer: (D) Mechanistic

14 Contemporary researchers now tend to think that a _____________________ is the best way to think about organizational design (A) matrix paradigm (B)

bureaucratic paradigm (C) classical paradigm (D) situational paradigm Answer: (D) situational paradigm

15 Which movement influenced organizational design such that the objective was no longer simply to maximize performance?

(A) Human Relations (B) Organizational Development (C) I/O Consulting (D) Relational theory Answer: (A) Human Relations

16 Which is NOT an aspect of organizational structure?

(A) Level of centralization (B) Degree of formalization (C) Width of motivation (D) Type of departmentalization Answer: (C) Width of motivation

17 Employees in relatively ________________ organizations likely experience greater autonomy in their work.

(A) decentralized (B) bureaucratic (C) formalized (D) large Answer: (A) decentralized

18 Units in an organization that have values that directly contradict those of the organization may have a ___________.

(A) formalized culture (B) leadership culture (C) clan (D) counterculture Answer: (D) counterculture

19 A consultant is hired to help clarify roles and responsibilities in a work group. What approach to organization development are they using?

(A) Virtual organization (B) Technostructural (C) Team building

(D) Mechanistic approach Answer: (C) Team building

20 Total Quality Management and Job Enrichment are both examples of ____ OD approaches.

(A) Human process (B) Strategic Change (C) Autonomous (D) Technostructural Answer: (D) Technostructural 21 Small social media companies tend to value innovation so they can brand themselves as unique in a saturated industry. What type of culture do they likely have?

(A) Adhocracy (B) Clan (C) Autonomous (D) Intrinsic Answer: (A) Adhocracy

22 Enrique meets with his supervisor regularly, but also sends reports to a project manager.

What type of organization best describes Enrique's situation?

(A) Matrix organization (B) Leaderless organization (C) Classical organization (D) Situational organization Answer: (A) Matrix organization

23 Rachael works in alumni relations at a university and has very little autonomy in how she accomplishes her work. What aspect of organizational structure might be high or prevalent in this university?

(A) Formalization (B) Departmentalization (C) Feedback (D) Task variety Answer: (A) Formalization

24 Which stressor may be more likely to be present in a matrix organization in which employees effectively have multiple supervisors?

(A) Low-quality LMX (B) Evaluation apprehension (C)

Work-family conflict (D) Role conflict Answer: (D) Role conflict

25 Which factor may influence an organization's culture?

(A) Attraction-selection-attrition (B) Founder's values (C) Organizational history (D) All of the above Answer: (D) All of the above

26 While organizational culture may be important, ____________ may matter more in some circumstances.

(A) person-organization fit (B) formalization (C) departmentalization (D) matrixization Answer: (A) person-organization fit

27

Which theory of organizational design posited that one best way to structure work and design organizations?

(A) Effective Motivational Theory (B) Classical Organization Theory (C) Motivational Organization Theory (D) Classical Leadership Theory Answer: (B) Classical Organization Theory 28 Which organizational structure is built for flexibility and adaptability?

(A) Classical (B) Bureaucratic (C) Organic (D) Mechanistic Answer: (C) Organic 29 An individual employee’s perceptions of the climate and behavioral patterns in their organization is referred to as the (A) Organizational climate (B) Psychological climate (C) Team climate (D) Organizational culture Answer: (B) Psychological climate 30 Systematic gathering of information from employees to identify potential problem areas, stimulating conversation around these particular areas, and establishing motivation to change, are all a part of the _____ process.

(A) organizational climate (B) survey feedback (C) appreciative inquiry (D) quality management Answer:

(B) survey feedback True-False 31. Organizational design refers to structures of accountability and responsibility, HR practices, and business process in an organization.

Answer: True 32. Functional departments distribute employees working in the same function (e.g., accounting) into different departments.

Answer: False 33. Organic structures are associated with high levels of perceived fairness by employees and are considered the most effective organizational structures.

Answer: False 34. A virtual organization refers to an organization in which all of the work is completed online.

Answer: False 35. Job enrichment is an example of a technostructural approach to organizational development.

Answer: True 36. Unfreezing is the stage of change in which new ways of working are made permanent within the organization.

Answer: False 37. Organizations that are highly formalized have a lot of rules and procedures and low tolerance for deviations from rules.

Answer: True 38. The adhocracy culture is one that puts innovation first.

Answer: True 39. The ASA model describes the three stages of organizational change.

Answer: False 40. Appreciative inquiry involves identifying the unique strengths and best aspects of the organization, followed by generating ideas about how to build on them Answer:

True Fill-in-the-blank 41. _____ culture values employee satisfaction and commitment and therefore has a great emphasis on fairness, employee empowerment, and putting employees first.

Answer: Clan 42. ____ paradigm is an approach to organizational design where the key factor is understanding the context of the organization operates and configuring the organizational structure accordingly.

Answer: Situational 43. ____ is the degree to which the organization is characterized by rules and procedures and the extent to which deviations from rules are tolerated.

Answer: Formalization 44. ____ model of change includes the three phases of unfreezing, change, and refreezing.

Answer: Lewin’s 45. ____ is the number of employees that report to a single manager.

Answer: Span of control 46. ______ organization theory is an approach to organizational design that emphasizes the importance of efficiency as the goal and utilizes hierarchy, structure, and written processes to achieve this goal.

Answer: Classical 47. Artifacts, values, and assumptions are all indicators of an organization’s _____.

Answer: culture 48. The degree to which the decision-making authority in an organization is concentrated in the hands of a small number of decision-makers at higher levels is referred to as _____.

Answer: Centralization

49. The shared perceptions about a work unit’s policies and practices and which behaviors are rewarded is referred to as its Answer: Organizational climate 50. Marina’s company values innovation. In fact, it is their greatest value. Her company could be described as having a ____ culture.

Answer: Adhocracy culture 51 Although climate and culture are quite similar, there are, however, (at least) three ways to distinguish climate from culture. What are three distinctions?

Answer: Feedback: Perceptions of work unit or team likely refer to group climate; culture is often organization-wide.

Psychological climate refers to an individual person’s perceptions, not shared perceptions.

Climate tends to focus on a specific dimension (i.e., safety).

52 Describe three different types of culture and how they might affect performance in organizations.

Answer: Feedback: Cultures high in adhocracy may experience improved innovative performance. Market cultures are associated with higher profits and higher growth. Clan culture is related to positive job attitudes, which are related to organizational performance.

53 What are the advantages and disadvantages for an organization using matrix-style organization?

Answer: Feedback: Employees may experience role stressors from reporting to several supervisors. Organizations can respond to specific client needs and put employees with expertise on certain projects.

Employees may experience high workload if communication does not occur between supervisors on different projects.

54 What is a matrix organization?

Answer:

Feedback: Combines functional structure with project-based structure 55 What is organizational climate?

Answer: Feedback: Shared beliefs about practices, policies, and procedures in an organization 56 What was the focus of classical organization theory?

Answer: Feedback: It emphasized the importance of efficiency as the goal and utilizes hierarchy, structure, and written processes to achieve this goal.

57 What are Lewin's three stages of change? Describe briefly.

Answer: Feedback: Unfreezing: The stage of the change process in which those involved need to understand the necessity for change, and be motivated to change.

Change: The second stage of the change process that is the actual implementation stage.

Refreezing: The final stage of the change process, where the new ways of working or organizing are made permanent.

58 Which type of organizational structure (organic versus mechanistic) is likely better for organizational health? Explain your answer.

Answer: Feedback: Probably depends on the industry and individual company. May not be a 'best' structure, according to situational paradigm. Organic is likely more appropriate for startups and smaller companies trying to make a name for themselves. Mechanistic is likely better for manufacturing, large companies and ones in which efficiency is highly important.

59 If you were a consultant tasked with assessing the culture of a company, how would you assess its culture?

Answer:

Feedback: Artifacts such as dress code or building architecture. Values through documentation such as mission statements. Figure out employees’ assumptions that exist but are not documented.

60 What is organizational culture? Why is it important to study?

Answer: Feedback: Shared assumptions that employees have that affect the way they perceive the environment.

Culture may affect employee behavior. May not be official policies or in any handbook, but it can affect employee interactions and routines.

61 What is a lattice structure in organizations? How does it differ from other structures.

Answer: Feedback: Characterized by no typical hierarchy and no assigned managers. Most structures (i.e., matrix, mechanistic) emphasize structure and assigned managers. Encourages employees to communicate and learn about other employees if they want to get them to join their project or team.

62 What are the advantages and disadvantages of a classical approach to organizational design?

Answer: Feedback: Advantage: find a way to maximize productivity and perfect it. Advantage: method of efficiency could be tested and replicated in many organizations. Disadvantage: focus on efficiency ignores research on job attitudes, stress, leadership, etc. Disadvantage: classical approach may not align with the goals of every organization.

63 What is survey feedback?

Answer: Feedback: It is a type of organizational development intervention; a human process approach. It includes the gathering of information from employees to identify potential problem areas, stimulating conversation around these areas, and establishing employee motivation to change. The survey results for each team play a central role, with survey results fed back to each team so they can identify ways to improve their processes.

64 What is Total Quality Management?

Feedback: TQM is a technostructural approach to organizational development. It involves an emphasis on continuous and incremental improvement in the quality of work done and processes employed to accomplish tasks.

65 Describe some factors that can affect employee reactions to change?

Feedback: These include a number of issues such as their existing habits, the employee’s personality (e.g., high self-efficacy, high positive affect related to less resistance), whether they trust management, and the degree to which the change will have a personal impact on them.