Spam Classification Of Text Message Dataset Using Python PROJECT REPORT

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A MINI PROJECT REPORT ON

“Spam Classification Of Text Message Dataset Using Python”

SUBMITTED TO THE SAVITRIBAI PHULE PUNE UNIVERSITY, PUNE.

FOR LAB PRACTICE III (MACHINE LEARNING) BACHELOR OF ENGINEERING (COMPUTER ENGINEERING) SUBMIITED BY

Anurag Jha

B1521047

Pavan Teli

B1521052

Abhijeet Bansode

B1521046

D.Y. PATIL COLLEGE OF ENGINEERING AKURDI, PUNE44. SAVITRIBAI PHULE PUNE UNIVERSITY, 2020-21.

DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER ENGINEERING

Machine Learning Mini - Project Title Mini - Project : Classification of text Message into categories using NLP and Classification algorithm in machine learning.

Problem Definition: Perform Data preprocessing on suitable dataset and analyze confusion matrix for different classifier models using Sci-kit learn in python. Apply the Support vector machine for classification on a dataset obtained from UCI ML repository Prerequisite: Knowledge of Python Programming language, Basic Concepts of Data preprocessing (For NLP) and different techniques to build classifier model.

Software Requirements: Python

,

Sklearn

Toolkit(nltk),regular

,Pandas,

expression

(re),

matplotlib,

numpy

,Natural

language

stopwords

64

Operating

System

(Windows/Linux) Hardware Requirement: 4GB RAM and above , 500 GB HDD and above , Learning Objectives:

bit

We are going to learn how to perform data preprocessing on a dataset for cleaning the data. Build classifier models using different classification techniques like decision tree, Naive-Bayes, K-NN, Random Forest and SVM etc. and also analyze these models based on confusion matrix generated.

Outcomes: You are able to understand Data preprocessing and confusion matrix with Python.

You are able to perform classification algorithms specifically SVM.

Theory Concepts: Data Preprocessing : Data preprocessing is a data mining technique which is used to transform the raw data in a useful and efficient format.

Steps involved in Data preprocessing are: 1. Data Cleaning : The data can have many irrelevant and missing parts. To handle this part, data cleaning is done. It involves handling of missing data, noisy data etc. (a) Missing data : a. This situation arises when some data is missing in the data. It can be handled in various ways. Some of them are:

1. Ignore the tuples: This approach is suitable only when the dataset we have is quite large and multiple values are missing within a tuple.

2. Fill the Missing values:

There are various ways to do this task. You can choose to fill the missing values manually, by attribute mean or the most probable value. (b) Noisy data : Noisy data is a meaningless data that can‘t be interpreted by machines. It can be generated due to faulty data collection, data entry errors etc. It can be handled in following ways : 1. Binning Method : This method works on sorted data in order to smooth it. The whole data is divided into segments of equal size and then various methods are performed to complete the task. Each segmented is handled separately. One can replace all data in a segment by its mean or boundary values can be used to complete the task.

2. Regression : Here data can be made smooth by fitting it to a regression function. The regression used may be linear (having one independent variable) or multiple (having multiple independent variables).

3. Clustering : This approach groups the similar data in a cluster.

The outliers may be undetected or it will fall outside the clusters.

2. Data Transformation: This step is taken in order to transform the data in appropriate forms suitable for mining process. This involves following ways: (a) Normalization : It is done in order to scale the data values in a specified range (-1.0 to 1.0 or 0.0 to 1.0) (b) Attribute Selection : In this strategy, new attributes are constructed from the given set of attributes to help the mining process. (c) Discretization : This is done to replace the raw values of numeric attribute by interval levels or conceptual levels.

(d) Concept Hierarchy Generation : Here attributes are converted from level to higher level in hierarchy. For Example-The attribute ―city‖ can be converted to ―country‖.

2. Data Reduction : Since data mining is a technique that is used to handle huge amount of data.

While working with huge volume of data, analysis became harder in such cases.

In order to get rid of this, we use data reduction techniques. It aims to increase the storage efficiency and reduce data storage and analysis costs. The various steps to data reduction are: (a) Data Cube Aggregation : Aggregation operation is applied to data for the construction of the data cube. (b) Attribute Subset Selection : The highly relevant attributes should be used, rest all can be discarded. For performing attribute selection, one can use level of significance and p- value of the attribute. The attribute having p-value greater than significance level can be discarded.

(c) Numerosity Reduction : This enable to store the model of data instead of whole data, for example: Regression Models.

(d) Dimensionality Reduction : This reduce the size of data by encoding mechanisms.It can be lossy or lossless. If after reconstruction from compressed data, original data can be retrieved, such reduction are called lossless reduction else it is called lossy reduction. The two effective methods of dimensionality reduction are: Wavelet transforms and PCA (Principal Component Analysis).

Classification Models

It is a Data analysis task, i.e. the process of finding a model that describes and distinguishes data classes and concepts. Classification is the problem of identifying to which of a set of categories (subpopulations), a new observation belongs to, on the basis of a training set of data containing observations and whose categories membership is known.

Example: Before starting any Project, we need to check it‘s feasibility. In this case, a classifier is required to predict class labels such as ‗Safe‘ and ‗Risky‘ for adopting the Project and to further approve it. It is a two-step process such as: 1. Learning Step (Training Phase): Construction of Classification Model Different Algorithms are used to build a classifier by making the model learn using the training set available. The model has to be trained for the prediction of accurate results.

2. Classification Step: Model used to predict class labels and testing the constructed model on test data and hence estimate the accuracy of the classification rules.

Classifiers can be categorized into two major types: 1. Discriminative : It is a very basic classifier and determines just one class for each row of data. It tries to model just by depending on the observed data, depends

heavily on the quality of data rather than on distributions. Example: Logistic Regression 2. Generative : It models the distribution of individual classes and tries to learn the model that generates the data behind the scenes by estimating assumptions and distributions of the model. Used to predict the unseen data. Example: Naive Bayes Classifier Different classifier models are:

1. Decision Trees

2. Bayesian Classifiers 3. Neural Networks 4. K-Nearest Neighbour 5. Support Vector Machines 6. Logistic Regression

Support Vector Machine (SVM) Support Vector Machine (SVM) is a supervised machine learning algorithm which can be used for both classification or regression challenges. However, it is mostly used in classification problems. In the SVM algorithm, we plot each data item as a point in n-dimensional space (where n is number of features you have) with the value of each feature being the value of a particular coordinate. Then, we perform classification by finding the hyper-plane that differentiates the two classes very well. To separate the two classes of data points, there are many possible hyperplanes that could be chosen. Our objective is to find a plane that has the maximum margin, i.e the maximum distance between data points of both classes. Maximizing the margin distance provides some reinforcement so that future data points can be classified with more confidence.

Hyperplanes are decision boundaries that help classify the data points. Data points falling on either side of the hyperplane can be attributed to different classes. Also, the dimension of the hyperplane depends upon the number of features. If the number of input features is 2, then the hyperplane is just a line. If the number of input features is 3, then the hyperplane becomes a two-dimensional plane. It becomes difficult to imagine when the number of features exceeds 3. Support vectors are data points that are closer to the hyperplane and influence the position and orientation of the hyperplane. Using these support vectors, we maximize the margin of the classifier. Deleting the support vectors will change the position of the hyperplane. These are the points that help us build our SVM.

Support Vector Machine (SVM) is a supervised machine learning algorithm capable of performing classification, regression and even outlier detection. The linear SVM classifier works by drawing a straight line between two classes. All the data points that fall on one side of the line will be labelled as one class and all the points that fall on the other side will be labeled as the second. The LSVM, that is the Linear SVM algorithm will select a line that not only separates the two classes but stays as far away from the closest samples as possible. In fact, the ―support vector‖ in ―support vector machine‖ refers to two position vectors drawn from the origin to the points which dictate the decision boundary.

The objective of SVM is to draw a line that best separates the two classes of data points.

SVM generates a line that can cleanly separate the two classes. How clean, you may ask. There are many possible ways of drawing a line that separates the two classes, however, in SVM, it is determined by the margins and the support vectors.

The margin is the area separating the two dotted green lines as shown in the image above.

The more the margin the better the classes are separated. The support vectors are the data points through which each of the green lines passes through. These points are

called support vectors as they contribute to the margins and hence the classifier itself.

These support vectors are simply the data points lying closest to the border of either of the classes which has a probability of being in either one.

The SVM then generates a hyperplane which has the maximum margin, in this case the black bold line that separates the two classes which is at an optimum distance between both the classes.

In case of more than 2 features and multiple dimensions, the line is replaced by a hyperplane that separates multidimensional spaces.

Natural Language processing Natural Language Processing, or NLP for short, is broadly defined as the automatic manipulation of natural language, like speech and text, by software.

The study of natural language processing has been around for more than 50 years and grew out of the field of linguistics with the rise of computers.

Natural language refers to the way we, humans, communicate with each other.

Namely, speech and text.

Mainly python developers use NLTK for natural language processing .

NLTK is a leading platform for building Python programs to work with human language data. It provides easy-to-use interfaces to over 50 corpora and lexical resources such as WordNet, along with a suite of text processing libraries for classification, tokenization, stemming, tagging, parsing, and semantic reasoning, wrappers for industrial-strength NLP libraries, and an active discussion forum.

Confusion Matrix: A confusion matrix is a summary of prediction results on a classification problem. The number of correct and incorrect predictions are summarized with count values and

broken down by each class. This is the key to the confusion matrix. The confusion matrix shows the ways in which your classification model is confused when it makes predictions. It gives us insight not only into the errors being made by a classifier but more importantly the types of errors that are being made.

Class 1 Actual Class 2 Actual

Class 1 Predicted TP

Class 2 Predicted FN

FP

TN

Here, • Class 1 : Positive • Class 2 : Negative Definition of the Terms : • Positive (P) : Observation is positive (for example: is an apple).

• Negative (N) : Observation is not positive (for example: is not an apple).

• True Positive (TP) : Observation is positive, and is predicted to be positive.

• False Negative (FN) : Observation is positive, but is predicted negative.

• True Negative (TN) : Observation is negative, and is predicted to be negative.

• False Positive (FP) : Observation is negative, but is predicted positive.

Accuracy : Accuracy is given by the relation -

Recall : Recall can be defined as the ratio of the total number of correctly classified positive examples divide to the total number of positive examples. High Recall indicates the class is correctly recognized (small number of FN). Recall is given by the relation –

Precision : To get the value of precision we divide the total number of correctly classified positive examples by the total number of predicted positive examples. High Precision indicates an example labeled as positive is indeed positive (small number of FP). Precision is given by the relation –

Implementation steps:

1. Download Anaconda latest version from its official site. and configure it.

2. Open Spyder IDE 3. Create a project folder and copy the dataset into the folder (spamtext.csv) 4. Importing dataset in python using pandas import pandas as pd dataset = pd.read_csv('spamtext.csv')

1)

imported data .

Category: - classes (spam, ham) - 2 Text:- comments to be classified into classes.

5. Data preprocessing

Removing symbols Considering English words.

By using natural language processing toolkit.

To convert categorical Data into numeric data using Feature Extraction.

To convert categorical Data into numeric data using Label Encoding.

Spam

1

No Spam

0

6. Splitting the data into training and testing sets

The dataset is split in ratio of 0.2 means 80% training set and 20% testing set.

7. Creating classification models KNN classifier Creating classifier

Decision Tree: Creating classifier:

Naïve Bayes : Creating classifier :

Support Vector Machine : Creating Classifier model

8. Calculating Accuracy .

Method KNN Decision Tree Naïve Bayes SVM

Accuracy 94.26% 98.20% 77.57% 77.57%

9 Data Visualization and Results Data visualization of Confusion matrix

Naive Bayes

SVM Classifier

Decision Tree

Data visualization for comparing classification algorithm

Output of the above code :

KNN

Conclusion: In this way using python we have performed machine Learning on a text Message dataset and analyzed confusion matrix for different classifier models (SVM, KNN, DT , NB).

What did I think interior design wa at the begining of the programme?

At first, interior design as a discipline is appealing to me because in my opinion, interior was “inside of buildings” , which usually involved designing, It consists of many furniture elements, interior design should not only solve the problems existing in interior space, but also provide users with a more comfortable and warmer environment. The development of interior space is closely interlinked with human activities as one depends and impacts on another. You know how space always has a good influence on people. This makes me think that interior design is amazing and attract me to learn more.

Figure 1

What do I think is now?

Figure 2 is a drawing I made to describe my understanding and re-definition of interior design, stressing that “interior is a way of the inhabitant tells his personal story”. The figure shows the building of 40 George Square building and the habitant’s life in within this space. Therefore, I would define interior as “a story that shows different aspects of people’s existence over time and space”. In different interior spaces (e.g., in the study room, in the kitchen, in stairs, in the library), people have corresponding activities and thinking, which composes one’s life itinerary.

How did I learn the different?

Before learning this course, interior was “inside of buildings” in my previous understanding, which usually involves designing and decoration. However, I have ignored the important dimensions of inhabitants’ activities, specific time and space. I have learned from Reading interiors course Lecture 1 that the utilization of materials and design actually reflects specific time and space dimensions, which is closely related to inhabitants’ life and occupational experiences. Praz (1964) shows how the author furnished his apartment over the years with a vast number of pieces of furniture, pictures and knick-knacks. This inspires me that interior shows the itinerary of a person’s life and the interplay of correspondences.

Plastic arts and literature are intertwined in the interior design. I have learned from Lecture 2 that “a Figure 2

mood is something of an atmosphere”. That is, interior is not presented by a single thing, rather, it is represented by a combination of things. Interior design, different from architecture, puts together something as “mood board”.

CONCECTING INTERIORS BRIEF Project name: Green Living When we come across living issues, the main issue facing most urban residents today is the growing demand for housing within the region. At the same time, an ageing society poses a challenge to our cities, towns and communities, their living style should also be taken into account. Considering the urgent climatic crises, we are currently facing and given the significant influence of the construction industry in greenhouse gases production, it is crucial to develop ways of reusing existing building stock as a sustainable alternative to providing new housing units. At the same time, it is necessary to provide spatial and technological solutions, which facilitates living in a sustainable way for the inhabitants.

The project brings together a series of new dwellings for Edinburgh University students and retired staff without family, who come from different family lifestyles to form a new home and redefine the meaning of home. Here, the concept of green, healthy, and low-carbon life is applied in real-life scenarios, so as to promote more people to pay attention, understand and participate in the practice of sustainable living. Green architecture, or green design, is an approach to building that minimizes harmful effects on human health and the environment. (Roy,2008) I combine different space functions to reorganize energy and design simple small farms. urban food growing, particularly the newer forms such as urban farms and community gardens, tends to be characterized by the use of organic methods.Recycling and reducing waste .Urban food growing offers the potential to use organic waste by composting reducing the needfor landfill.(Howe and Wheeler1999.)The form of the living community will be diversified and multifunctional, and the existing problems will be solved with space. In this way, young people and the elderly live together, exchanging ideas in workshops or communal kitchens, or simply have a chat next to the green gardens. Leisure is one key aspect of the quality of city life. Plant-covered land is an appropriate place for amusement, joy, and rest (Safikhani et al., 2014). Here, the elderly in need of medical care are no longer relegated to the margins of urban life but live like other members of society. Everyone has their own division of labor in this community, and they help each other. They can grow their own food, satisfy themselves, and form a small community activity. The plant can also be provided to the people outside so that the outsiders can also enjoy the community public welfare activities, which truly reflects the closeness of the community.

Urban agriculture canre-affirm community identity, enable training, contribute to local economies, improve people’shealth and diet, act as a source of leisure andcontribute to biodiversity.((Howe and Wheeler1999). By combining food production and architecture, helps to produce buildings capable of multiple functions. This is accompanied by many social and ecological advantages (Thomaier et al., 2015).

A communal way of living can help to reduce the impact humanity has on climate change and on planet Earth in general, while improving the conditions of living. I believe living together is about sharing and this is one of the most promising solutions to tackle contemporary issues and to cope with future challenges.

12

INTERIORS FUNCTION Tool Room : A place that can provide daily treatment.

Toliet : Accessible for all residents and visitors.

Reception : A place to arrange apartment/studio rentals, provide security services and ask questions.

Facility Room : Allow community workers to enter to inspect community facilities for problems.

Care Center : A place that can provide daily treatment.

Garbage Disposal Room : A place that allows the community access to dispose of the waste produced daily.

Plant Flowers Zone : A place for residents to grow and view flowers, where residents can discuss decorative floriculture with their neighbors.

Plant Vegetatbles Zone : A place where plants and vegetables can be grown to provide fresh food for the day.

Cafe Bar : A place that allows students to have drinks and snacks.

Open Social Space : A place that provides open sofa areas or booth areas or other loose spatial arrangements for residents to relax or chat with friends or neighbors during a short period of time during the day, and also includes corridor space.

View Plant Area : A place for residents to rest and view plants area.

Courtyard : A place for residents to rest and watch plants.

Store Room : One provides space for all residents to store their belongings under all circumstances, and under the safe supervision of community staff.

Cateen : Fresh food produced daily is also available in the restaurant for residents who need it.

Market Hall : Fresh food produced daily is sold in supermarkets for residents or visitors.

Plant Exhibition : An exhibition that shows residents how to grow vegetables, food for visitors to eat and share.

Shared Kitchen : A place where people can share their cooking skills with their neighbors.

Laundary Room : Open to residents living in the community.

Cinema : A place for residents to relax and watch their favorite movies.

Shared Living Room : A shared space where you can chat and meet your neighbors.

Bathroom : Each floor apartment has its own bathroom, allowing residents living in the community to use it themselves.

Green Zone : Each floor of the community has an area to provide residents with fresh air and contact with nature.

Independent Study Room : A quiet place to read and study.

Roof planting Zone : A place that allows residents to grow vegetables on the roof, providing a suitable place to grow vegetable food that needs full sunlight.

Roof Garden : A place for residents to relax in the sun for leisure time and ornamental plants.

Livestock : Provide residents with a place where they can raise their livestock.

13

DeCenzo 12e Test Bank Chapter 7, Foundations of Selection

TRUE/FALSE

1. The eight step selection process typically begins with the completion of the application form.

Ans: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Screening Applicant Learning Objective: Explain the purpose of screening applicants and how initial screening is conducted.

Blooms Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of Knowledge

2. The initial screening is a three-step procedure: (1) screening inquiries, (2) screening interviews, and (3) checking references.

Ans: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Screening Applicants Learning Objective: Explain the purpose of screening applicants and how initial screening is conducted.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

3. The last step of the selection process is the permanent job offer.

Ans: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Screening Applicants Learning Objective: Explain the purpose of screening applicants and how initial screening is conducted.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of Knowledge

4. Assessment centers are a type of performance simulation tests.

Ans: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Pre-employment Testing Learning Objective: Outline the types and uses of pre-employment testing.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge 5. Work sampling includes a series of exercises used for selection, development, and performance appraisal.

Ans: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Pre-employment Testing Learning Objective: Outline the types and uses of pre-employment testing.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge 6. A comprehensive interview is used to assess a candidate’s motivation, values, ability to work under pressure, and ability to fit in with the organizational culture.

Ans: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge 7. The key element in a realistic job preview is providing negative as well as positive information.

Ans: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge 8. Background investigations are performed, in part, to protect employers from negligent hiring liability.

Ans: True Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Background Investigations, Medical and Physical Exams Learning Objective: Explain the purpose and legal issues involved in conducting background investigations.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

9. Validity refers to a selection device’s consistency of measurement.

Ans: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge 10. The degree to which a test measures a particular trait related to successful performance on the job refer to content validity.

Ans: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge 11. Personal factors such as health and background may be considered in international assignments.

Ans: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: The Employment Offer Learning Objective: Explain factors relevant to employment offers and global selection.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

12. Unfortunately, former employer of a job applicant is prohibited by law from ever talking to the new employer about the applicant.

Ans: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Background Investigations, Medical and Physical Exams Learning Objective: Explain the purpose and legal issues involved in conducting background investigations.

Bloom’s Level: Application AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

13. It is not necessary, when rejecting a job candidate, to worry about how the rejection is worded, as it will have minimal, if any, impact on the organization.

Ans: False Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: The Employment Offer Learning Objective: Explain factors relevant to employment offers and global selection.

Bloom’s Level: Application AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge 14. Validation coefficients demonstrate the statistical relationships existing between an individual’s test score and his or her job performance.

Ans: True Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge 15. The most effective technique to excel in an interview for a candidate is to arrive at the interview site a few minutes early and for the first time look through any company literature lying about to get an idea of what the company does.

Ans: False Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Final Thoughts: Excelling at the Interview Learning Objective: Outline how to personally excel in the interview process.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

MATCHING KEY TERMS AND DEFINITIONS

a) Performance simulation test b) Weighted application forms c) Application d) Reliability e) Criterion-related validity f) Background investigation g) Concurrent validity h) Qualified privilege i) Work sampling j) Behavioral interview k) Validity generalization l) Predictive validity m) Cut score n) Validity o) Interviewer bias

16. The proven relationship of a selection device to relevant criterion.

Ans: n Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

17. Company-specific employment document completed by job applicants used to generate specific information the company wants.

Ans: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Application Forms Learning Objective: Explain how application forms are used and the relevant legal issues.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

18. A special type of application form that uses relevant applicant information to determine the likelihood of job success.

Ans: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Application Forms Learning Objective: Explain how application forms are used and the relevant legal issues.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

19. A selection device requiring the job applicant to actually perform a small segment of the job.

Ans: i Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Pre-employment Testing Learning Objective: Outline the types and uses of pre-employment testing.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

20. A selection device in which job candidates are observed, not only for what they say, but how they fit the identified dimensions or competencies of the position.

Ans: j Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

21. A scoring point below which applicants are rejected.

Ans: m Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking 22. An image created by reviewing materials, such as, the résumé, application, or test scores prior to

the actual interview.

Ans: o Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Preventing Perceptual Errors Learning Objective: Discuss the perceptual errors common in the interview process and ways to prevent them.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

23. Work sampling and assessment centers evaluate of abilities in actual job activities.

Ans: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Pre-employment Testing Learning Objective: Outline the types and uses of pre-employment testing.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

24. The process of verifying information that is provided by job candidates.

Ans: f Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Background Investigations, Medical and Physical Exams Learning Objective: Explain the purpose and legal issues involved in conducting background investigations.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

25. The ability for companies to speak candidly to one another about employees.

Ans: h Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Background Investigations, Medical and Physical Exams Learning Objective: Explain the purpose and legal issues involved in conducting background investigations.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

26. A selection device’s consistency of measurement.

Ans: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

27. The degree to which a particular selection device accurately predicts the important elements of work behavior.

Ans: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

28. Validating tests by using current employees as the study group.

Ans: g Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

29. Validating tests by using prospective applicants as the study group.

Ans: l Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

30. Refers to a test valid for screening applicants for a variety of jobs and performance factors across occupations.

Ans: k Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

FILL-IN THE BLANKS

31. The ________ is a two-step procedure: (1) screening inquiries, and (2) screening interviews.

Ans: initial screening Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Screening Applicants Learning Objective: Explain the purpose of screening applicants and how initial screening is conducted.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

32. You should not offer an official job interview during the _________.

Ans: phone screening interview Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Screening Applicants Learning Objective: Explain the purpose of screening applicants and how initial screening is conducted.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

33. Once the initial screening is completed, applicants are asked to complete the company’s __________.

Ans: application form Difficulty: Easy Selection Reference: Application Forms Learning Objective: Explain how application forms are used and the relevant legal issues.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

34. _______ are increasingly used as selection devices to avoid criticism and potential liability from using psychological and aptitude tests in the selection process.

Ans: Performance simulation tests Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Pre-employment Testing Learning Objective: Outline the types and uses of pre-employment testing.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

35. ________, the ability to portray an image that will produce a favorable outcome, is a significant source of inaccuracy in interviews.

Ans: Impression management Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Preventing Perceptual Errors Learning Objective: Discuss the perceptual errors common in the interview process and ways to prevent them.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

36. The ________ is a selection device that allows job applicants to learn negative as well as positive information about the job and organization.

Ans: realistic job preview Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Preventing Perceptual Errors Learning Objective: Discuss the perceptual errors common in the interview process and ways to prevent them.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

37. _________ occurs when an employer has failed to properly investigate an employee’s background and that employee is later involved in wrongful conduct.

Ans: Negligent hiring Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Background Investigations, Medical and Physical Exams Learning Objective: Explain the purpose and legal issues involved in conducting background investigations.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

38. A ________is a tentative job offer that becomes permanent after certain conditions are met.

Ans: conditional job offer Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: The Employment Offer Learning Objective: Explain factors relevant to employment offers and global selection.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

39. A _______ is a scoring point below which applicants are rejected.

Ans: cut score Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

40. In a ________ candidates are observed not only for what they say but also for how they fit the identified dimensions or competencies of the position.

Ans: behavioral interview Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

MULTIPLE-CHOICE

41. Jermaine has successfully completed the initial screening phase of the selection process. What is his next step? a) Screening inquiries b) Screening interviews c) Background check d) Complete the application form e) Screening personality test Ans: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Application Forms Learning Objective: Explain how application forms are used and the relevant legal issues.

Bloom’s Level: Application AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

42. The selection process may include all of the following steps EXCEPT a) background investigation. b) screening interview. c) application form. d) employment tests. e) a history evaluation of hobbies.

Ans: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Screening Applicants Learning Objective: Explain the purpose of screening applicants and how initial screening is conducted.

Bloom’s Level: Evaluation AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

43. The selection process typically consists of: a) 10 steps b) 8 steps

c) 6 steps d) 4 steps e) 3 steps Ans: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Screening Applicants Learning Objective: Explain the purpose of screening applicants and how initial screening is conducted.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

44. Which of the following is a legally appropriate question to ask on the application form? a) What is your name? b) What is your height? c) How old are you? d) Does your faith keep you from working on Saturday? e) What is your national origin?

Ans: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Ethical understanding and reasoning

45. All of the following would be likely to cause the HR person to remove an applicant from the pool during the initial screening of the selection process EXCEPT a) Lack of experience. b) Performance test data. c) Many brief jobs. d) Gaps in the applicant’s job history. e) Seminars and courses, instead of appropriate education.

Ans: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Screening Applicants Learning Objective: Explain the purpose of screening applicants and how initial screening is conducted.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

46. All of the following are performed during the initial screening and help minimize selection costs EXCEPT a) Discussing details of the job description. b) Revealing low salary range data. c) Describing benefits, especially medical care. d) Holding telephone call interviews. e) All of the above.

Ans: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Screening Applicants Learning Objective: Explain the purpose of screening applicants and how initial screening is conducted.

Bloom’s Level: Evaluation AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

47. What is the difference between a conditional job offer and a permanent job offer? a) The conditional job offer is made when employment tests are passed. The permanent job offer is made when background checks are passed. b) The conditional job offer is made by the recruiter. The permanent job offer is made by the interviewer. c) The conditional job offer is made after salary is set. The permanent job offer is based on performance expectations, before salary is set. d) Conditional job offers are made to hourly workers. Permanent job offers are made to salaried workers. e) The conditional job offer is made before the initial screening. The permanent job offer is made after medical requirements are met.

Ans: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: The Employment Offer Learning Objective: Explain factors relevant to employment offers and global selection.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: analytical thinking

48. What is the percentage of all organizations in the United States that use some type of employment test? a) About 80 percent b) About 60 percent

c) About 45 percent d) About 35 percent e) About 25 percent Ans: b Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Pre-employment Testing Learning Objective: Outline the types and uses of pre-employment testing.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

49. What is the main advantage of work sampling over traditional pencil-and-paper tests? a) Compared to pencil-and-paper tests, work sampling is applicable to all levels of the organization. b) It is easier to develop good work samples. c) Work sampling tends to be a better predictor of short-term performance. d) Work sampling is easier to use for managerial positions. e) None of the above.

Ans: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Pre-employment Testing Learning Objective: Outline the types and uses of pre-employment testing.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

50. Application forms typically include all of the following EXCEPT a) a statement giving the employer the right to dismiss an employee for falsifying information. b) a statement that employment is not guaranteed. c) permission for the employer to obtain previous work history. d) name, address, and telephone number. e) marital status.

Ans: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Application Forms Learning Objective: Explain how application forms are used and the relevant legal issues.

Bloom’s Level: Evaluation AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

51. Why do some organizations use application forms with age, gender or religious questions, since

civil rights legislation has made it illegal to discriminate on the basis of such criteria? a) These items may be job-related. b) EEO legislation has no jurisdiction over application forms. c) They may be used to identify protected classes. d) They are used to supply adverse impact. e) No organizations use these categories.

Ans: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Application Forms Learning Objective: Explain how application forms are used and the relevant legal issues.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

52. Anthony, vice-president of human resources, wants to decrease turnover for counter workers at a fast food chain. He examined work application forms over the last five years and discovered the following information: 50% of employees who stayed less than 90 days had no prior work experience; 50% of employees who stayed longer than 1 year held more than 2 previous jobs; 80% of employees who stayed less than 90 days held less than a high school degree; 80% of employees who stayed more than a year held a high school degree; 40% of employees who indicated only weekend work schedules left within 90 days; 45% of workers who indicated no weekend work schedules left within 90 days. What should he do? a) Raise work experience requirements for the job. b) Lower work experience requirements for the job. c) Weight prior job experience more heavily than educational level. d) Weight educational level more heavily than prior job experience. e) Do not require weekend work schedules.

Ans: d Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Application Forms Learning Objective: Explain how application forms are used and the relevant legal issues.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

53. Ahmad, a veteran manager in the fast-food business, applied for a manager position at a fast-food restaurant when he relocated because of health reasons. He was told he did not get the job because he did not have a high school diploma. Although that was not stated as a job requirement for manager positions, he learned that the application form he completed was the same one used for counter workers. That form is legally weighted to consider education level. He can use which of the following as a basis for legal challenge?

a) None of these items should be weighted more heavily than any of the others. b) Application items were not validated for the manager positions. c) Prior job experience should be weighted more heavily than educational background. d) Educational background should be weighted more heavily than prior job experience. e) Application forms cannot be used in this way.

Ans: b Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Application Forms Learning Objective: Explain how application forms are used and the relevant legal issues.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

54. Helaine, a recruiter at Company ABC, is in the process of hiring an office manager. An important success factor for this position is the ability to “fit in” with the firm’s culture. Helaine is planning to use an interview to evaluate the extent to which job applicants are likely to fit in at Company ABC. What selection device should Helaine choose? a) A cultural fit test b) A stress interview c) An integrity test d) A comprehensive interview e) A work sample test Ans: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

55. Tosi is interviewing for a managerial job with a global manufacturer. He has been screened and he completed the application form. He routed 20 documents in an inbox successfully. Now he is in a group with 4 other candidates, making a stick model of a new product. Later today he is scheduled for a personality test. These activities identify which stage of the selection process? a) Work sampling b) Comprehensive interview c) Assessment center d) Physical characteristic evaluation e) No stage. They are just waiting Ans: c

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Pre-employment Testing Learning Objective: Outline the types and uses of pre-employment testing.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

56. Why are performance simulation tests used more often today instead of written tests in the selection process? a) Employment tests are more expensive than performance simulation tests. b) It is easier to train an interviewer to administrate a performance simulation test than an employment test. c) Performance simulation tests more easily meet the criteria of job-relatedness because they evaluate actual job behaviors. d) Employment tests are conducted after hiring decisions are made, not during the selection process. e) Literacy rates are 15% lower than they were a decade ago.

Ans: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Pre-employment Testing Learning Objective: Outline the types and uses of pre-employment testing.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

57. During the interview process, an acceptable question to ask is a) Do you own your own home? b) When did you graduate from college? c) Do you have a college degree? d) How many children do you have? e) Where are you from originally?

Ans: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Evaluation AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

58. What advice does your text give to organizations that want to use employment testing in the global arena? a) Employment testing is illegal in Asia.

b) Practices must be adapted to cultures in which the organization operates. c) Practices must be approved by the United Nations. d) Home country nationals are required to pass local tests. e) Graphology is illegal in all countries.

Ans: b Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: The Employment Offer Learning Objective: Explain factors relevant to employment offers and global selection.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking 59. XYZ Corporation is a U.S. company with operations in 25 countries. The company is in the process of hiring a British general manager for one of its manufacturing facilities in Northern England. Which of the following tests should XYZ Corporation use to select the British general manager? a) A polygraph test b) A psychological profile test c) An integrity test d) A graphology test e) None of the above Ans: e Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Pre-employment Testing Learning Objective: Outline the types and uses of pre-employment testing.

Bloom’s Level: Evaluation AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

60. Daniel is an experienced interviewer for a large service organization. He has just asked a job candidate what she would do in this scenario: “You show up for a routine meeting. The client greets you, angry, yelling, and waving a piece of paper in your face that he asserts contains a billing error.

How do you handle the situation?” What is Daniel doing? a) Screening review b) Panel interview c) Serial interview d) Behavioral interview e) Stress interview Ans: d Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what

interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

61. The value of the interview in the hiring process has been affirmed for which of these reasons? a) Impression management is a good job success predictor. b) The interviewer often holds a stereotype of what represents a “good” applicant. c) Positive information is given the highest weight. d) Most interviewers exhibit an unusually strong ability to recall detailed information with great accuracy. e) Organizational “fit” often determines how long an employee will stay with the organization.

Ans: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

62. Which of the following is NOT true regarding realistic job previews? a) Realistic job previews provide applicants with favorable and unfavorable information about the job and organization. b) Realistic job previews help increase job survival among new employees. c) Giving the applicants a realistic job preview before offering them the job lowers acceptance rates. d) Giving the applicants a realistic job preview before offering them the job reduces turnover without lowering acceptance rates. e) Applicants who receive a realistic job preview tend to have more realistic expectations about the job.

Ans: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Evaluation AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

63. Who should make the actual hiring decision? a) The HR manager b) The general manager

c) The recruiter d) The manager in the department where the vacancy exists e) The compensation and benefits manager Ans: d Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: The Employment Offer Learning Objective: Explain factors relevant to employment offers and global selection.

Bloom’s Level: Evaluation AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

64. Studies of realistic job previews show that they a) increase turnover and increase acceptance rates. b) reduce turnover and reduce acceptance rates. c) challenge even the best HR professionals to explain the discrepancies. d) reduce turnover without lowering acceptance rates. e) reduce participation rates among majority applicants.

Ans: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

65. Yu Chen, one of your most valued employees, has decided to leave your organization after 20 years of exceptional service. His decision took you completely by surprise and you have to fill the position quickly. To make sure you do not make a mistake and hire the wrong person, you should do all of the following EXCEPT a) Conduct a reference checking without the applicant’s knowledge. b) Don’t panic. Hire a temporary worker during the transition. c) Update the list of job requirements, duties, and responsibilities so that you and the job candidate will understand the expectations of the position. d) Before you extend an offer, check references. e) During a job interview, ask appropriate questions, such as the long and short-term goals of the applicant.

Ans: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what

interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

66. Company XYZ is using an aptitude test to measure the applicants’ cognitive abilities. The score of the test can vary from 10 to 100. A score of 10 indicates very low cognitive abilities whereas a score of 100 indicates exceptional cognitive abilities. A job candidate, Robert, received a score of 87 when he took the test in April. Robert took the test again (same test) in June. However, the second time his score was only 42. What type of problem may this test have? a) A predictive validity problem b) A reliability problem c) A content validity problem d) A construct validity problem e) A concurrent validity problem Ans: b Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

67. Why do organizations conduct background checks on potential employees? a) To identify good work team opportunities. b) To comply with ADA regulations for reasonable accommodation. c) The FLSA requires credit history on all hourly workers d) Past behavior is a good predictor of future behavior. e) Most internal investigators have been reassigned from line responsibilities.

Ans: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Background Investigations, Medical and Physical Exams Learning Objective: Explain the purpose and legal issues involved in conducting background investigations.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

68. A-Frame Manufacturing is using a job knowledge test in its selection process. It appears that the test content omits knowledge about important tasks necessary to effectively perform the job. What type of problem does this test seem to have?

a) A predictive validity problem b) A reliability problem c) A content validity problem d) A construct validity problem e) A concurrent validity problem Ans: c Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

69. Service International is using an aptitude test in its selection process. It appears that individuals who received high scores on the aptitude test ended up performing very poorly on the job after they were hired. What type of problem does this test seem to have? a) A predictive validity problem b) A reliability problem c) A content validity problem d) A construct validity problem e) A concurrent validity problem Ans: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

70. John’s conditional job offer has been rescinded by the Grace Hospital. His prior employer referred Grace to the public records of John’s criminal drug activity in that city. Is this action legal? a) Yes, under bona fide occupational qualification. b) Yes, under qualified privilege. c) Yes, under reasonable accommodation. d) No, under reasonable accommodation. e) No, under qualified privilege.

Ans: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Background Investigations, Medical and Physical Exams Learning Objective: Explain the purpose and legal issues involved in

conducting background investigations.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

71. Correlation coefficients used to demonstrate the statistical relationships existing between an individual’s test score and her/his performance are called a) reliability coefficients. b) significant coefficients. c) validity coefficients. d) canonical coefficients. e) empirical coefficients.

Ans: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

72. Jan runs a temporary agency that provides experienced IT professionals.

She gives a virus laden IT network to job candidates and an hour to get it running as part of the selection process. She does not hire based on this test, but compares their scores to their job performance evaluations after the first two job assignments. She is using this test for a) predictive validity. b) constraint validity. c) content validity. d) reliability. e) discriminant analysis.

Ans: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

73. Connie hires cash register operators for a large grocery chain. She gives basic mathematics tests to applicants six months after they are hired and

compares the scores to their performance evaluations. What is Connie doing? a) Establishing predictive validity. b) Confirming reliability. c) Monitoring reliable validity. d) Establishing concurrent validity. e) Evaluating concept inferences.

Ans: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

74. Josh was not hired for a job as a dump truck driver because he scored below 40 on the emotional intelligence test, even though he scored a perfect 100 on a driving and dumping test. He challenged this in court, contending that this employment test does not have a) predictive validity. b) reliability. c) content validity. d) validity analysis. e) contaminant validity.

Ans: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

75. Sancho, a banker, has been trying to find a new loan officer assistant for 6 months. What advice do you, as a human resource professional, have for him about using tests for concurrent or predictive validity? Both are available in the organization. a) Current employees and applicants are very similar. Use the least expensive measure. b) There may be little similarity between current employees and applicants. Use the concurrent measures. c) There may be little similarity between current applicants and past applicants. Use predictive measures. d) There may be little similarity between current applicants and past applicants. Use concurrent

measures. e) There may be little similarity between current employees and applicants. Use the predictive measures.

Ans: e Difficulty: Hard Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

76. Correlation coefficients are used to demonstrate the statistical relationships existing between an individual’s test score and her/his performance. The correlation coefficients can range in magnitude from a) zero to +1. b) zero to -1. c) - 1 to +1. d) -100 to +100. e) -2 to +2.

Ans: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

77. Ian, in charge of selection, wants to decrease the size of his applicant pool for entry level electrical workers. This job, like most in his organization, requires an employment test. What should he do? a) Stop using the employment test. b) Lower the cut score on the employment test. c) Raise the cut score on the employment test. d) Increase the concurrent validity of the employment test. e) Increase the reliability of the employment test.

Ans: c Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

78. Dan, a recruiter for a technology company in the research triangle, has started doing open-house recruiting for network troubleshooters. Which of the following is evidence of that process? a) He lowered the cut score on the skills test to 40, the number that indicates satisfactory basic skill requirements. b) He places ads in the Raleigh paper advertising that the firm is open every Wednesday evening from 6 to 9pm, for tours and information sessions. Free beer and pizza. c) Turnover rates have decreased. d) The reliability index is zero. e) He eliminated the skills test and hired 4 additional recruiters to visit college campus job fairs.

Ans: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

79. Which of the following is NOT true regarding international assignments? a) They require greater attention to personality factors. b) They require greater attention to the applicant’s marital status. c) They require greater attention to the applicant’s health. d) They require greater attention to the applicant’s gender. e) They require greater attention to the applicant’s marital history.

Ans: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: The Employment Offer Learning Objective: Explain factors relevant to employment offers and global selection.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

80. When using a cut score, a validity coefficient close to one is good. What does that mean? a) There is a strong positive correlation between an individual’s test score and his or her job performance. b) The meta-analysis has reduced discrepancies in all of the testing criteria results. c) The measure has uniformity.

d) There is a strong relationship between the applicants this year and applicants from a year ago. e) One recruiter can analyze up to 1000 applicant scores a day. This number is the same as the zscore.

Ans: a Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Reliability and Validity in Testing Learning Objective: List three types of validity and explain why they are important.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

81. How should social media be used when ensuring an employer is using job-related criteria for investigating potential employees? a) The same social media sites should be used for every candidate. b) Social media should be looked at only after a face-to-face interview. c) Social media should be viewed only by the hiring manager. d) Social media should be completely avoided. e) Social media should be viewed to find information that is typically illegal to ask about during the interview.

Ans: b Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Application Forms Learning Objective: Explain how application forms are used and the relevant legal issues.

Bloom’s Level: Application AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

82. What are the advantages of using social media sites to research a job candidate? a) Social media sites allow employers to ensure due diligence in investigating potential employees. b) Social media sites allow employers to find information that might be illegal to ask about during the interview. c) Candidates tend to be more honest on social media sites than in person. d) Social media sites can be controlled with privacy settings, ensuring only the most relevant information is accessible. e) Social media sites can be viewed by all members of the interview team, so everyone has the same level of knowledge.

Ans: a

Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Application Forms Learning Objective: Explain how application forms are used and the relevant legal issues.

Bloom’s Level: Understanding AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

83. What can be used to replace traditional telephone screening interviews? a) Social media site views b) E-mail c) Online interviews d) Instant messaging e) Pre-employment testing Ans: c Difficulty: Easy Section Reference: Screening Applicants Learning Objective: Explain the purpose of screening applicants and how initial screening is conducted.

Bloom’s Level: Knowledge AACSB Tag: Application of knowledge

84. Which type of interview is best in determining how a candidate might resolve future job issues? a) Unstructured b) One-on-one c) Directive d) Behavioral e) Stress Ans: d Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

85. Which type of interview evaluates a candidate based on actions taken to

resolve a situation and the outcome of the action? a) Stress b) Directive c) Unstructured d) Comprehensive e) Behavioral Ans: e Difficulty: Medium Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Analysis AACSB Tag: Reflective thinking

86. Many companies only provide limited information during a reference check. Is there a value to calling and checking the references today? a) No, an employer can find more information by looking at a candidate's social media. b) Yes, a past employer’s reaction to the request can provide significant information about the candidate. c) No, an employer is limited in the types of information he or she can provide, most of which can be found elsewhere. d) Yes, past employers and coworkers are often very open and honest when a candidate no longer works for them. e) No, the concept of qualified privilege inhibits the value of any type of reference check.

Ans: b Difficulty: Difficult Section Reference: Background Investigations, Medical and Physical Exams Learning Objective: Explain the purpose and legal issues involved in conducting background investigations.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

87. Which of the following is an advantage of allowing team members to have an equal say when interviewing job candidates? a) Employees feel less threatened by the candidate because they know the candidate better. b) There is less prejudice against a candidate, even if the job was previously held by a favorite coworker.

c) There is greater likelihood the team and the hiring manager will agree on strengths of the candidate. d) The team will have more of an interest in helping the new hire succeed. e) There is less resentment and fewer dilemmas after the candidate has been hired or rejected.

Ans: d Difficulty: Difficult Section Reference: Interviewing Applicants Learning Objective: Explain several different interview formats and what interviewers need to know to conduct effective interviews.

Bloom’s Level: Synthesis AACSB Tag: Analytical thinking

KABANATA 11 SA HONGKONG AT MACAO 1888

KABANATA 11

SA HONGKONG AT MACAO 1888

SA HONGKONG AT MACAU

ANG BIYAHE SA HONG KONG

Pebrero 3, 1888

ANG PAGDATING SA HONG KONG Pebrero 8, 1888

ANG PAGBISITA SA MACAO

Pebrero 18, 1888

MGA PAGLISAN SA KARANASAN HONG KONG SA HONG Pebrero 22, 1888 KONG

KABANATA 12 ROMANTIKONG PAGBISITA SA JAPAN 1888

KABANATA 12 ROMANTIKONG PAGBISITA

SA JAPAN 1888

ANG PAGDATING SA YOKOHAMA Pebrero 28, 1888

ROMANTIKONG PAGBISITA SA JAPAN ANG IMPRESYON NI RIZAL SA JAPAN

SI RIZAL SA TOKYO

PAKIKIPAG ROMANSA KAY O-SEI-SAN

SAYONARA, JAPAN Abril 13, 1888

ROMANTIKONG PAGBISITA SA JAPAN

PAGWAWAKAS NG PAGIBIG

PAGTAWID SA PACIFIC

SI RIZAL AT TETCHO

27 anyos

ANG BIYAHE SA HONG KONG Pebrero 3, 1888

Dahilan ng pag-alis ni Rizal - Takasan ang mga kaaway na gumugulo at tumutugis sa kanya - Mapapanatag ang kanyang pamilya sa panganib kung siya'y aalis - Upang iwasang madamay ang kanyang pamilya at ilang malalapit na kaibigan at kapanalig May dalang 800 kopya ng unang edisyon ng El Filibusterismo si Rizal ng siya ay magtungo sa Hongkong

ANG BIYAHE SA HONG KONG Pebrero 3, 1888

Zafiro Ang barkong sinakyan ni Jose Rizal patungong Hongkong

Pebrero 7, 1888

Amoy, Tsina

Sandaling tumigil dito ang barkong sinasakyan ni Jose Rizal ngunit hindi siya nakababa ng barko.

ANG PAGDATING SA HONG Pebrero 8, 1888 KONG

Pebrero 16, 1888 • •

Sumulat si Rizal kay Bluementritt. Ang laman ng sulat ay tungkol sa kapaitang nararamdaman nya sa buhay

Sumulat ulit si Rizal ng isa pang liham kay Bluementritt noong araw na iyon.

Inilarawan ni Rizal Ang Hongkong sa sulat

• Otel Victoria

• • •

Ang pinagtuluyan ni Rizal Sa Hongkong.

Malugod siyang sinalubong nina Jose Maria Basa, Balbino Mauricio at Manuel Yriate.

Nakita nya rin doon si Jose Sanz de Varanda, isang Espanyol na naniniktik kay Rizal

ANG PAGBISITA SA MACAO Pebrero 18, 1888

Pebrero 18, 1888 •

Lulan ng barkong Kiu-Kiang ay nagtungo si Rizal kasama si Basa sa Macao.

• Tumuloy si Rizal sa bahay ni Don Juan Francisco Lecaros. Nakituloy sya rito ng dalawang araw.

• Maraming binisita na lugar si Rizal sa dalawang araw na pamamalagi nito sa Macau. Nakita niya rin dito ang isang prusisyong Katoliko.

Pebrero 20, 1888 •

Bumalik si Rizal at Basa sa Hongkong lulan parin ng barkong KiuKiang.

MGA KARANASAN SA HONG KONG

Sa dalawang linggong pagbisita ni Rizal sa Hongkong ay pinag-aralan nya ang pamumuhay ng mga Tsino.

• Isinulat niya ang kanyang mga natutunan at naranasan sa kanyang talaarawan.

1. Maingay na selebrasyon ng mga Tsino sa Bagong taon na nagaganap tuwing ika-11 ng Pebrero hanggang 13 ng Pebrero.

2. Maingay na Teatrong Tsino na may maingay na manonood at maingay na musika 3. Ang salu-salong lauriat 4. Ang ordeng dominikano 5. Ang pagkakaiba-iba ng mga sementeryo

PAGLISAN SA HONG KONG Pebrero 22, 1888

Pebrero 22, 1888 • Nilisan ni Rizal ang Hongkong lulan ng barkong Oceanic.

• Japan ang kanyang sunod na destinasyon sa kanyang paglalakbay.

ANG PAGDATING SA YOKOHAMA

Pebrero 28, 1888

Pebrero 28, 1888 • Nang dumating si Rizal sa Japan ay tumuloy siya sa isang otel sa Yokohama, ito ay ang Otel Grande.

• Kinabukasan ay nagtungo siya sa Tokyo at kumuha ng isang silid sa Otel Tokyo.

• Umalis si Rizal sa Otel Grande noong Marso 1 at tumuloy sa Otel Tokyo simula Marso 2, hanggang Marso 7.

SI RIZAL SA TOKYO

Juan Perez Caballero • Isang kalihim ng Legasyong Espanyol sa Japan.

• Inimbitahan nito si Rizal na sa Legasyong Espanyol na lamang ito tumuloy.

Mayo 7, 1888

• Nilisan ni Rizal ang kanyang tinutuluyan na Otel Tokyo at tumuloy sa Legasyong Espanyol.

• Naging mabuting magkaibigan si Perez Caballero at Rizal.

Unang araw sa Tokyo

SI RIZAL SA TOKYO

• Nahihiya si Rizal sa unang araw nito sa Tokyo dahil hindi ito marunong magsalita ng wikang Hapon • Kahawig ni Rizal ang mga Hapones ngunit hindi ito marunong magsalita ng wika nila.

• Dahil sa hindi siya maunawaan ng mga ito ay pinag-aralan ni Rizal ang wikang hapon. Pinag-aralan din nito ang Kabuki at Judo.

• Binisita din niya ang mga magagandang pasyalan

ANG IMPRESYON NI RIZAL SA JAPAN

Maganda ang impresyon ni Rizal sa Japan. Masusing pinag-aralan ni Rizal ang pamumuhay ng mga tao rito.

Mga bagay na hinangaan ni Rizal sa Japan: 1. Kagandahan ng Bansa 2. Ang kalinisan

3. Mga damit at Haponesa 4. Kaunti ang mga magnanakaw pati na rin mga pulubi

Marami man ang nagustuhan ni Rizal sa Japan may isang bagay pa rin ang di niya nagustuhan, ito ay ang rickshaw

ANG KANILANG ROMANSA NI O-SEI-SAN

• Naparaan sa Legasyon ng Espanyol sa Azubu ng Tokyo ang isang magandang haponesa.

• Nagtanong-tanong si Rizal kung sino ang magandang haponesa at isang hardenero ang nakakakilala rito.

Seiko Usui • Isang 23 taong gulang na dalagita • Natuwa ito sa pagiging magalang ni Rizal.

• Wikang Ingles at Pranses ang wikang ginamit upang magkaintindihan.

• Simula noon ay araw-araw na silang nagkikita at binisita ang ibat ibang magandang tanawin.

Seiko Usui

ANG KANILANG ROMANSA NI O-SEI-SAN

• Tinulungan nito si Rizal sa maraming paraan.

• Hindi lamang siya kasintahan ni Rizal, siya’y naging gabay, tagasalin, at guro ni Rizal.

Dahil sa pag-iibigan nilang dalawa ay muntik nang magbago ang pasya ni Rizal. Nang panahon ding iyon, inalok siya ng trabaho sa Legasyong Espanyol.

SAYONARA, JAPAN Abril 13, 1888

Abril 13, 1888

• Isinulat ni Rizal sa kanyang talaarawan ang kanyang pagmamahal kay O-sei-san.

Barkong Belgic • Ang barkong sinakyan ni Rizal patungong Estados Unidos.

• Malungkot na nilisan ni Rizal ang Land of Cherry Blossom.

PAGWAWAKAS NG PAGIBIG

1897 - Ikinasal si O-Sei-San kay G. Alfred Charlton G. Alfred Charlton - Ingles na guro ng Kimika sa Peers' School (Tokyo) - Namatay noong Nobyembre 2, 1915 Seiko Usui - tunay na ngalan ni O-Sei-San Yuriko - nagiisang anak Yoshiharu Takiguchi - napangasawa ni Yuriko - anak ng isang senador na Hapon Distrito ng Shinjuko sa Tokyo Mayo 1, 1947 - namatay si O-Sei-San sa edad na 80

PAGTAWID SA PACIFIC

Tutungo si Rizal sa Estados Unidos lulan ng isang barko.

Nakilala niya rito ang mag-anak na sina G. Reinaldo Turner at Emma Jackson at mga anak nito Nakilala niya rin sa barko si Tetcho Suehiro, isanaga palabang Hapon, mamamahayag, at kampeon ng mga karapatang pantao.

SI RIZAL AT TETCHO

Tetcho Suehiro Naging kaibigan ni Rizal sa loob ng walong buwan (Abril 13 – Disyembre 1,188).

Ikinuwento ni Rizal kay Tetcho ang kanyang misyon at naging tagahanga ito ni Rizal.

Tetcho Suehiro

SI RIZAL AT TETCHO

Disyembre 1, 1888 - huli't mahigpit na kamayan, nagpaalam sa isa't isa- upang di na muling magkita London - Tinigilan ni Rizal 1889 - inilathala ni Tetcho ang kanyang talaarawan tungkol sa biyahe niya.

Nagretiro si Tetcho bilang patnugot ng Choya, pahayagan ng Tokyo 1890 - nahalal na miyembro ng mababang kapulungan ng Unang Imperyal na Diet (Parlamentong Hapon) 1891 - Nankai-no-Daiharan ( Sigwa sa Katimugang Dagat) 1894 - O-unabara (Malaking Dagat) Pebrero 1896 - namatay si Tetcho sanhi ng atake sa puso. Siya ay 49 taong gulang

SALAMAT!

Dalmacio, Rose Fraga, Rheymart Jimenez, Precious Genivy Ondis, Jessa Mae

QUIZ 2 Question Type: Multiple Choice

# Of Questions: 14

# Correct: 11

Grade Details - All Questions Question 1.Question : (TCO 1) Shelly, an HR manager, recently had a meeting with the production manager to determine if the firm's vacation policy was been strictly followed in the production department. Shelly was most likely performing a _____ function. coordinative

Student Answer:

procedural staff line See Chapter 1. The coordinative function of an HR manager involves coordinating Instructor Explanation: personnel activities, a duty often referred to as functional authority (or functional

control). Here, he or she ensures that line managers are implementing the firm's human resource policies and practices, such as vacation policies.

Points Received:

0 of 5

Comments: Question 2.Question : (TCO 1) Sweet Leaf Tea, a Texas-based maker of bottled iced tea, is a small but fast-growing firm that has gained a loyal following for its use of fresh, organic ingredients in its beverages. Although beverage industry experts recommended that Sweet Leaf replace the organic cane sugar and honey it uses with less costly high-fructose corn syrup, Sweet Leaf refused because of the company's mission to provide a high-quality, organic beverage to consumers. The 11-year-old company has 50 employees, and its products are available in 30% of the U.S. market.

Sweet Leaf Tea recently received multimillion dollar investments that will enable the business to expand its national presence.

Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Sweet Leaf Tea should implement a corporate-level strategy of market penetration?

Student Answer:

Sweet Leaf Tea can develop a national name by adding new product

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lines, such as organic snack foods and organic coffee.

Sweet Leaf Tea's marketing research indicates that customers would purchase the organic beverages more frequently if the prices were lower.

Sweet Leaf Tea can achieve growth by aggressively selling its beverages in current markets where loyal customers will help boost wordof-mouth.

Sweet Leaf Tea's competitors primarily focus their marketing and

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

distribution efforts on regional grocery store chains rather than big-box national retailers.

See Chapter 3. A corporate-level strategy of market penetration means that Sweet Leaf would boost sales of its current products by more aggressively selling and marketing in its current markets. Loyal customers would most likely spread the word about the beverage through word-of-mouth. Choice A refers to a strategy of vertical integration, and Choice B involves a strategy of diversification. Price and competitors' marketing efforts fail to support the argument that Sweet Leaf should implement a market penetration strategy.

5 of 5

Comments: Question 3.Question : (TCO 1) The four major areas of human resource management are

Student Answer:

training, development, legal, and outsourcing. training, development, IRS, and benefits. employment, training and development, compensation and benefits, and employee relations. hiring, firing, promoting, and training.

Instructor Explanation: Points Received:

Week 1 Course Objectives

5 of 5

Comments: Question 4.Question : (TCO 1) A small distribution organization uses a payroll company to provide employee compensation services and keep timesheet records and employee attendance history. This situation is an example of

Student Answer:

offshoring. centralized work surveillance.

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outsourcing. telecommuting.

Instructor Explanation: Points Received:

Chapter 3

5 of 5

Comments: Question 5.Question : (TCO 2) Which of the following best defines termination at will?

Student Answer:

Employees can refuse to collaborate with specific coworkers for personal reasons.

Either the employer or the employee can end the employment relationship at anytime.

Employers can deny employees' requests for vacation and leave for any reason.

Customers can end relationships with service providers for any

Instructor Explanation: Points Received:

reason at anytime.

See Chapter 14. Termination at will means that without a contract, either the employer or the employee could terminate at will the employment relationship.

The employee can resign for any reason, at will, and the employer can dismiss an employee for any reason, at will.

5 of 5

Comments: Question 6.Question : (TCO 2) You are vice president of human resources of a large pharmaceutical manufacturer. Your firm has a longstanding tradition of promoting from within. New hires are fresh college graduates with no experience and no advanced degrees. Your firm is being sued by Ed, a 45-year-old MBA, who has attempted to apply for a general manager job and was not even given an interview. He knows the position is available because the incumbent died and the obituary was public information. He is claiming age discrimination. Which of the following discrimination defenses should be employed?

Student Answer:

The 4/5 rule Geographical comparison Performance ratio comparison

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No valid defense—the policy is suspect and could result in adverse

Instructor Explanation: Points Received:

impact and treatment claims Chapter 2

5 of 5

Comments: Question 7.Question : (TCO 2) Health-Tech Materials is a firm that manufactures medical equipment purchased by hospitals and clinics. The firm employs over 2,500 workers in its two manufacturing facilities located in Texas and Arizona. Recently, Health-Tech dismissed a number of employees for ethics violations ranging from improper Internet usage to stealing company funds. In addition, the firm has been sued by two former employees for wrongful discharge. As a result, Health-Tech's top executives are evaluating the firm's hiring process, ethics training system, reward system, and disciplinary system to determine how to promote ethics and fair treatment.

Which of the following best supports the argument that Health-Tech should make significant changes to its disciplinary process?

Student Answer:

According to surveys, Health-Tech employees feel that managers do not listen to their concerns or take their opinions seriously.

Health-Tech requires employees to receive annual ethics training to ensure that they understand the firm's latest policies.

Health-Tech's main competitor uses fictional scenarios to test applicants' morality and has fewer ethics problems than Health-Tech.

Historically, arbitrators have overturned the dismissal decisions of

Instructor Explanation: Points Received:

Health-Tech's managers because of unclear company rules.

See Chapter 14. Arbitrators are more likely to overturn employers' decisions when the employer fails to have clear rules and regulations. Inattentive managers, ethics training, and competitor's actions are less relevant.

5 of 5

Comments: Question 8.Question : (TCO 2) Sharon, vice president of human resources for a large textile firm, is in a strategic restructuring meeting. The discussion topics include which one of the three production facilities to close within the next 4 years. There are 40 employees at each of the facilities. When asked, "What must we tell the employees?" Sharon responds,

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Student Answer:

"Tell them we are keeping the newest plant open for another 2 years.

Transfer all employees with 20 years of seniority to that plant."

"Notify all workers immediately of probable plant closings within the next 4 years."

"If we close, workers in affected areas get 30 days notice or 90 days pay and benefits upon closing."

"Legally, we are not required to tell the employees anything unless

Instructor Explanation: Points Received:

we lay off 50 or more individuals or close an entire facility 60 days from now."

Chapter 14

5 of 5

Comments: Question 9.Question : (TCO 3) The PAQ method of job analysis is

Student Answer:

very suspicious, especially when a theft is involved. useful and highly rated as a method of doing job analysis. used mainly by Indiana companies, because it was invented at Purdue. one that works best for higher level, professional jobs. one that works mainly due to its easy-to-read format and down-to-

Instructor Explanation: Points Received:

earth questions.

Chapter 4

0 of 5

Comments: Question 10.Question : (TCO 3) Leona has gathered job analysis data with a structured questionnaire for managerial jobs in remote locations of her firm. Exit interviews have produced comments such as, "You should have told me what was really expected." She wants to use an additional collection technique to avoid misrepresentation in job descriptions. Leona's boss told her, "Be thorough. Job analysis time and cost are nothing compared to the cost of replacing these managers." Which method should she use?

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Student Answer:

Individual interview Technical conference Diary Gap analysis

Instructor Explanation: Points Received:

Chapter 4

5 of 5

Comments: Question 11. Question : (TCO 3) Which constraint on recruiting efforts is being kept in check by using teleconferencing for initial interviews?

Student Answer:

Recruiting costs Government influences Job attractiveness Organizational image Social media privacy

Instructor Explanation: Points Received:

Chapter 4

5 of 5

Comments: Question 12.Question : (TCO 3) Jane is the director of recruiting for a large corporation. Which of the following is a warning signal that her efforts are not effective?

Student Answer:

Recruiting costs have increased 5% over the last 3 years.

Twenty-five percent of resumes are received through the Internet.

Jane's secretary spends more time acknowledging ad responses from qualified applicants than she did a year ago.

Jane's secretary spends more time acknowledging ad responses from underqualified applicants than she did a year ago.

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Instructor Explanation: Points Received:

Chapter 5

0 of 5

Comments: Question 13.Question : (TCO 3) Which is the difference between a conditional job offer and a permanent job offer?

Student Answer:

The conditional job offer is made when employment tests are passed.

The permanent job offer is made when background checks are passed.

The conditional job offer is made by the recruiter. The permanent job offer is made by the interviewer.

The conditional job offer is made after salary is set. The permanent job offer is based on performance expectations before salary is set.

Conditional job offers are made to hourly workers. Permanent job offers are made to salaried workers.

The conditional job offer is made before the initial screening. The

Instructor Explanation: Points Received:

permanent job offer is made after medical requirements are met.

Chapter 6

5 of 5

Comments: Question 14.Question : (TCO 3) Why are performance simulation tests used more often today instead of written tests in the selection process?

Student Answer:

Employment tests are more expensive than performance simulation tests.

It is easier to train an interviewer to administer a performance simulation test than an employment test.

Performance simulation tests more easily meet the criteria of job relatedness because they evaluate actual job behaviors.

Employment tests are conducted after hiring decisions are made, not

Instructor Explanation:

during the selection process.

Chapter 7

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Points Received:

5 of 5

Comments:

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(TCO 2) Which of the following is most likely a line function of the human resource manager?

Student Answer:

Ensuring that line managers are implementing HR policies Advising line managers about how to implement EEO laws Representing the interests of employees to senior management Directing the activities of subordinates in the HR department

Instructor Explanation:

See Chapter 1. HR managers carry out three primary functions—line, coordinative, and staff. Directing members of the HR staff is a line function.

Ensuring that line managers implement HR policies is a coordinative function.

Advising line managers and representing employee interests to senior management are staff functions.

0 of 5

Points Received: Comments:

Question 8.

Question :

Student Answer:

(TCO 4) Which of the following would least likely foster diversity in the workplace?

Changing the culture through diversity training education programs Appointing a small group of minorities to high-profile positions Recruiting minority members to the board of directors Using metrics to evaluate diversity programs

Instructor Explanation:

See Chapter 2. Tokenism occurs when a company appoints a small group of women or minorities to high-profile positions, rather than more aggressively seeking full representation for that group. Diversity is fostered through education, minority participation on the board of directors, and regular assessment.

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Points Received:

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 10.

Question :

Student Answer:

(TCO 5) Which method interviews the job incumbents simultaneously?

Group interview method Observation method Structured method Individual view method

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 4

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 11.

Question :

Student Answer:

(TCO 6) Which constraint on recruiting efforts is being kept in check by using teleconferencing for initial interviews?

Recruiting costs Government influences Job attractiveness

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Organizational image Social media privacy Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 4

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 12.

Question :

Student Answer:

(TCO 6) Which is not a constraint on recruiting efforts?

Job attractiveness Recruiting costs Government influence Candidate image

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 5

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 13.

Question :

Student Answer:

(TCO 7) Application forms typically include all of the following except

a statement giving the employer the right to dismiss an employee for falsifying information.

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a statement that employment is not guaranteed. permission for the employer to obtain previous work history. name, address, and telephone number. marital status.

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 6

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 14.

Question :

Student Answer:

(TCO 7) An activity included in preemployment testing that creates a miniature replica of a job is called

a performance simulation test. a work sampling. an assessment center. a global testing.

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 7

0 of 5

Comments:

* Times are displayed in (GMT­07:00) Mountain Time (US & Canada)

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Week 4 : HRM: Orientation, Training, and Development - Quiz

Time Remaining:

Question 1.1. (TCO 1) The vice president of marketing tells a marketing manager to prepare a

presentation by the end of the week. The vice president is most likely exercising which of the following? (Points : 5) Staff authority Procedural authority Line authority Functional authority

Question 2.2. (TCO 1) Sweet Leaf Tea, a Texas-based maker of bottled iced tea, is a small but fast-

growing firm that has gained a loyal following for its use of fresh, organic ingredients in its beverages.

Although beverage industry experts recommended that Sweet Leaf replace the organic cane sugar and honey it uses with less costly high-fructose corn syrup, Sweet Leaf refused because of the company's mission to provide a high-quality, organic beverage to consumers. The 11-year-old company has 50 employees, and its products are available in 30% of the U.S. market. Sweet Leaf Tea recently received multimillion dollar investments that will enable the business to expand its national presence.

Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the argument that Sweet Leaf Tea should implement a corporate-level strategy of vertical integration? (Points : 5) Sweet Leaf Tea lacks the facilities or knowledge to produce the raw ingredients for its beverages.

Market research suggests that Sweet Leaf Tea customers primarily purchase only one flavor of tea.

Most loyal customers of Sweet Leaf Tea purchase the beverage at neighborhood convenience stores.

Sugar farmers used by Sweet Leaf Tea have agreed to a fixed price for the next 5 years so that the company can keep prices low.

Question 3.3. (TCO 2) A large manufacturing organization uses several consulting firms to provide

training programs, private staffing agencies to perform recruiting and selection activities, and a financial organization to handle benefits administration. This situation is an example of (Points : 5) outsourcing. shared services decentralized work surveillance. telecommuting.

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offshoring.

Question 4.4. (TCO 2) All of the following practices are most likely implemented by companies with high-performance work systems except (Points : 5)

hiring employees based on validated selection tests. providing pay increases based on service years. filling positions with internal candidates. utilizing self-managing work teams.

Question 5.5. (TCO 3) Which Supreme Court case was used to define unfair discrimination in conjunction with EEO laws? (Points : 5)

Brown v. Board of Education Griggs v. Duke Power Company West Coast Hotel Co. v. Parrish Abington School District v. Schempp

Question 6.6. (TCO 3) A company used a personality test to select job candidates for customer service

positions. There were 40 male candidates and 20 female candidates. It appeared that 30 men passed the personality test and five women passed the personality test. Was there evidence of disparate impact against female candidates with this personality test? (Points : 5) No, because this is an example of disparate treatment.

No, because a passing rate of 25% (5/20) for the female candidates is fairly good.

Yes, because the passing rate of the female candidates (25%) is less than 80% of the passing rate of the male candidates (75%).

Yes, because the passing rate of the female candidates can’t be determined.

Question 7.7. (TCO 4) Health-Tech Materials is a firm that manufactures medical equipment purchased

by hospitals and clinics. The firm employs over 2,500 workers in its two manufacturing facilities located in Texas and Arizona. Recently, Health-Tech dismissed a number of employees for ethics violations ranging from improper Internet usage to stealing company funds. In addition, the firm has been sued by two former employees for wrongful discharge. As a result, Health-Tech's top executives are evaluating the firm's hiring process, ethics training system, reward system, and disciplinary system to determine how to promote ethics and fair treatment.

Which of the following best supports the argument that Health-Tech should make significant changes to its disciplinary process? (Points : 5) According to surveys, Health-Tech employees feel that managers do not listen to their concerns or take their opinions seriously.

Health-Tech requires employees to receive annual ethics training to ensure that they understand

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the firm's latest policies.

Health-Tech's main competitor uses fictional scenarios to test applicants' morality and has fewer ethics problems than Health-Tech.

Historically, arbitrators have overturned the dismissal decisions of Health-Tech's managers because of unclear company rules.

Question 8.8. (TCO 4) Sharon, vice president of human resources for a large textile firm, is in a

strategic restructuring meeting. The discussion topics include which one of the three production facilities to close within the next 4 years. There are 40 employees at each of the facilities. When asked, "What must we tell the employees?" Sharon responds, (Points : 5) "Tell them we are keeping the newest plant open for another 2 years. Transfer all employees with 20 years of seniority to that plant."

"Notify all workers immediately of probable plant closings within the next 4 years."

"If we close, workers in affected areas get 30 days notice or 90 days pay and benefits upon closing."

"Legally, we are not required to tell the employees anything unless we lay off 50 or more individuals or close an entire facility 60 days from now."

Question 9.9. (TCO 5) A written statement of what a job holder does, how it is done, under what conditions it is done, and why it is done is (Points : 5)

a job evaluation. a job analysis. a job assessment. a job description. a job specification.

Question 10.10. (TCO 5) When a job analyst watches employees directly or reviews films of workers on the job, which analysis method is being used? (Points : 5)

Group view method Observation method Structured method Individual view method

Question 11.11. (TCO 6) When using either a trend analysis or a ratio analysis, it is assumed that _____ will remain the same. (Points : 5)

staffing levels currency rates

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productivity levels recruitment plans

Question 12.12. (TCO 6) Jane is the director of recruiting for a large corporation. Which of the following is a warning signal that her efforts are not effective? (Points : 5)

Recruiting costs have increased 5% over the last 3 years.

Twenty-five percent of resumes are received through the Internet.

Jane's secretary spends more time acknowledging ad responses from qualified applicants than she did a year ago.

Jane's secretary spends more time acknowledging ad responses from underqualified applicants than she did a year ago.

Question 13.13. (TCO 7) Application forms typically include all of the following except (Points : 5)

a statement giving the employer the right to dismiss an employee for falsifying information. a statement that employment is not guaranteed. permission for the employer to obtain previous work history. name, address, and telephone number. marital status.

Question 14.14. (TCO 7) Why are performance simulation tests used more often today instead of written tests in the selection process? (Points : 5)

Employment tests are more expensive than performance simulation tests.

It is easier to train an interviewer to administer a performance simulation test than an employment test.

Performance simulation tests more easily meet the criteria of job relatedness because they evaluate actual job behaviors.

Employment tests are conducted after hiring decisions are made, not during the selection process.

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Week 4 Quiz

Grade Details - Missed Questions Question 1 Question : .

Student Answer:

(TCO 1) Shelly, an HR manager, recently had a meeting with the production manager to determine if the firm's vacation policy was been strictly followed in the production department. Shelly was most likely performing a _____ function.

coordinative procedural staff line

See Chapter 1. The coordinative function of an HR manager involves coordinating Instructor Explanation: personnel activities, a duty often referred to as functional authority (or functional control). Here, he or she ensures that line managers are implementing the firm's human resource policies and practices, such as vacation policies.

Points Received:

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 2. Question :

(TCO 1) Sweet Leaf Tea, a Texas-based maker of bottled iced tea, is a small but fast-growing firm that has gained a loyal following for its use of fresh, organic ingredients in its beverages. Although beverage industry experts recommended that Sweet Leaf replace the organic cane sugar and honey it uses with less costly high-fructose corn syrup, Sweet Leaf refused because of the company's mission to provide a high-quality, organic beverage to consumers. The 11-year-old company has 50 employees, and its products are available in 30% of the U.S. market. Sweet Leaf Tea recently received multimillion dollar investments that will enable the business to expand its national presence.

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Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the argument that Sweet Leaf Tea should implement a corporate-level strategy of vertical integration?

Sweet Leaf Tea lacks the facilities or knowledge to produce the raw ingredients for its beverages.

Student Answer:

Market research suggests that Sweet Leaf Tea customers primarily purchase only one flavor of tea.

Most loyal customers of Sweet Leaf Tea purchase the beverage at neighborhood convenience stores.

Sugar farmers used by Sweet Leaf Tea have agreed to a fixed price for the next 5 years so that the company can keep prices low.

Instructor Explanation:

See Chapter 3. A corporate-level strategy of vertical integration would require Sweet Leaf to expand by either producing its own raw materials or selling its products directly. If the company lacks the facilities and knowledge to produce raw materials or the price of sugar is guaranteed to remain stable for 5 years, then vertical integration is a bad idea. If loyal customers purchase the tea at convenience stores, then selling the product through specialized stores would not likely be beneficial.

Points Received:

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 5. Question :

Student Answer:

(TCO 3) Which of the following laws most impacts pregnant women’s employee and/or employer rights and obligations?

USERRA ADA

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OSHA NLRA PDA

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 2

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 6 Question : .

Student Answer:

(TCO 3) A company used a personality test to select job candidates for customer service positions. There were 40 male candidates and 20 female candidates. It appeared that 30 men passed the personality test and five women passed the personality test. Was there evidence of disparate impact against female candidates with this personality test?

No, because this is an example of disparate treatment.

No, because a passing rate of 25% (5/20) for the female candidates is fairly good.

Yes, because the passing rate of the female candidates (25%) is less than 80% of the passing rate of the male candidates (75%).

Yes, because the passing rate of the female candidates can’t be determined.

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 2

0 of 5

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Comments:

Question 10 Question : .

Student Answer:

(TCO 5) Which method interviews the job incumbents simultaneously?

Group interview method Observation method Structured method Individual view method

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 4

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 11. Question :

Student Answer:

(TCO 6) Which of the following recruiting advertisements is the least likely to be considered discriminatory by the EEOC?

Looking for folks with 1–2 years’ experience who are recently graduated from high school

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Looking for tall, strong, and able-bodied employees for a job as a lumberjack Wanted: Computer engineers with Linux experience to work the night shift Wanted: Part-time computer engineers who would like to supplement their social security and/or pension income Wanted: A dependable, responsible woman, preferably with a degree in education, as a “live-in” house mother for a male-only fraternity house dormitory at the University of Florida

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 4

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 13 Question : .

(TCO 7) Which is the difference between a conditional job offer and a permanent job offer?

Student Answer:

The conditional job offer is made when employment tests are passed.

The permanent job offer is made when background checks are passed.

The conditional job offer is made by the recruiter. The permanent job offer is made by the interviewer.

The conditional job offer is made after salary is set. The permanent job offer is based on performance expectations before salary is set.

Conditional job offers are made to hourly workers. Permanent job offers are made to salaried workers.

The conditional job offer is made before the initial screening. The permanent job offer is made after medical requirements are met.

Instructor Explanation:

Chapter 6

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Points Received:

0 of 5

Comments:

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Week 4 Quiz

Grade Details - Missed Questions Question 1 Question : .

Student Answer:

(TCO 1) Shelly, an HR manager, recently had a meeting with the production manager to determine if the firm's vacation policy was been strictly followed in the production department. Shelly was most likely performing a _____ function.

coordinative procedural staff line

See Chapter 1. The coordinative function of an HR manager involves coordinating Instructor Explanation: personnel activities, a duty often referred to as functional authority (or functional control). Here, he or she ensures that line managers are implementing the firm's human resource policies and practices, such as vacation policies.

Points Received:

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 2. Question :

(TCO 1) Sweet Leaf Tea, a Texas-based maker of bottled iced tea, is a small but fast-growing firm that has gained a loyal following for its use of fresh, organic ingredients in its beverages. Although beverage industry experts recommended that Sweet Leaf replace the organic cane sugar and honey it uses with less costly high-fructose corn syrup, Sweet Leaf refused because of the company's mission to provide a high-quality, organic beverage to consumers. The 11-year-old company has 50 employees, and its products are available in 30% of the U.S. market. Sweet Leaf Tea recently received multimillion dollar investments that will enable the business to expand its national presence.

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Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the argument that Sweet Leaf Tea should implement a corporate-level strategy of vertical integration?

Sweet Leaf Tea lacks the facilities or knowledge to produce the raw ingredients for its beverages.

Student Answer:

Market research suggests that Sweet Leaf Tea customers primarily purchase only one flavor of tea.

Most loyal customers of Sweet Leaf Tea purchase the beverage at neighborhood convenience stores.

Sugar farmers used by Sweet Leaf Tea have agreed to a fixed price for the next 5 years so that the company can keep prices low.

Instructor Explanation:

See Chapter 3. A corporate-level strategy of vertical integration would require Sweet Leaf to expand by either producing its own raw materials or selling its products directly. If the company lacks the facilities and knowledge to produce raw materials or the price of sugar is guaranteed to remain stable for 5 years, then vertical integration is a bad idea. If loyal customers purchase the tea at convenience stores, then selling the product through specialized stores would not likely be beneficial.

Points Received:

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 5. Question :

Student Answer:

(TCO 3) Which of the following laws most impacts pregnant women’s employee and/or employer rights and obligations?

USERRA ADA

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Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 2

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 6 Question : .

Student Answer:

(TCO 3) A company used a personality test to select job candidates for customer service positions. There were 40 male candidates and 20 female candidates. It appeared that 30 men passed the personality test and five women passed the personality test. Was there evidence of disparate impact against female candidates with this personality test?

No, because this is an example of disparate treatment.

No, because a passing rate of 25% (5/20) for the female candidates is fairly good.

Yes, because the passing rate of the female candidates (25%) is less than 80% of the passing rate of the male candidates (75%).

Yes, because the passing rate of the female candidates can’t be determined.

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 2

0 of 5

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Comments:

Question 10 Question : .

Student Answer:

(TCO 5) Which method interviews the job incumbents simultaneously?

Group interview method Observation method Structured method Individual view method

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 4

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 11. Question :

Student Answer:

(TCO 6) Which of the following recruiting advertisements is the least likely to be considered discriminatory by the EEOC?

Looking for folks with 1–2 years’ experience who are recently graduated from high school

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Looking for tall, strong, and able-bodied employees for a job as a lumberjack Wanted: Computer engineers with Linux experience to work the night shift Wanted: Part-time computer engineers who would like to supplement their social security and/or pension income Wanted: A dependable, responsible woman, preferably with a degree in education, as a “live-in” house mother for a male-only fraternity house dormitory at the University of Florida

Instructor Explanation:

Points Received:

Chapter 4

0 of 5

Comments:

Question 13 Question : .

(TCO 7) Which is the difference between a conditional job offer and a permanent job offer?

Student Answer:

The conditional job offer is made when employment tests are passed.

The permanent job offer is made when background checks are passed.

The conditional job offer is made by the recruiter. The permanent job offer is made by the interviewer.

The conditional job offer is made after salary is set. The permanent job offer is based on performance expectations before salary is set.

Conditional job offers are made to hourly workers. Permanent job offers are made to salaried workers.

The conditional job offer is made before the initial screening. The permanent job offer is made after medical requirements are met.

Instructor Explanation:

Chapter 6

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Points Received:

0 of 5

Comments:

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Question 1 5 / 5 pts (TCO 1) Shelly, an HR manager, recently had a meeting with the production manager to determine if the firm's vacation policy was been strictly followed in the production department. Shelly was most likely performing a _____ function.

Correct! coordinative

procedural

staff

line

See Chapter 1. The coordinative function of an HR manager involves coordinating personnel activities, a duty often referred to as functional authority (or functional control). Here, he or she ensures that line managers are implementing the firm's human resource policies and practices, such as vacation policies.

Question 2 5 / 5 pts (TCO 1) Sweet Leaf Tea, a Texas-based maker of bottled iced tea, is a small but fast-growing firm that has gained a loyal following for its use of fresh, organic ingredients in its beverages. Although beverage industry experts recommended that Sweet Leaf replace the organic cane sugar and honey it uses with less costly high-fructose corn syrup, Sweet Leaf refused because of the company's mission to provide a high-quality, organic beverage to consumers. The 11-year-old company has 50 employees, and its products are available in 30% of the U.S. market. Sweet Leaf Tea recently received multimillion dollar investments that will enable the business to expand its national presence.

Which of the following, if true, best supports the idea that Sweet Leaf Tea has implemented a competitive strategy of differentiation?

New Sweet Leaf Tea customers are initially attracted to the unique labels and logo on the bottles.

Correct!

Loyal customers of Sweet Leaf Tea seek products that are U.S. Department of Agriculture-certified organic despite the associated higher costs.

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Other brands of bottled iced tea compete with Sweet Leaf Tea by offering new flavors at competitive prices.

Sweet Leaf Tea sells both lemonade and teas in a variety of flavors that appeal to consumers of all ages.

See Chapter 3. Differentiation is a business-level strategy that occurs when a firm seeks to be unique in its industry along dimensions that are widely valued by buyers. Sweet Leaf has developed a customer base among individuals who only buy organic products and are willing to pay more for them, so it has differentiated itself from other beverage firms.

Question 3 5 / 5 pts (TCO 1) A large manufacturing organization uses several consulting firms to provide training programs, private staffing agencies to perform recruiting and selection activities, and a financial organization to handle benefits administration. This situation is an example of

Correct! outsourcing.

shared services

decentralized work surveillance.

telecommuting.

offshoring.

Chapter 3

Question 4 5 / 5 pts (TCO 1) Which of the following refers to an analysis by which an organization measures where it currently stands and determines what it has to accomplish to improve its HR functions?

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HR methodology

HR benchmark

HR checklist

Correct!

HR audit

See Chapter 3. An HR audit is an analysis by which an organization measures where it currently stands and determines what it has to accomplish to improve its HR functions.

Benchmarking, which involves comparing one firm with another, is an additional tool used by managers who take an evidence-based approach to HR management.

Question 5 5 / 5 pts (TCO 2) Which Supreme Court case was used to define unfair discrimination in conjunction with EEO laws?

Brown v. Board of Education

Correct!

Griggs v. Duke Power Company

West Coast Hotel Co. v. Parrish

Abington School District v. Schempp

See Chapter 2. Griggs v. Duke Power Company was a landmark Supreme Court case used to define unfair discrimination as put forth in EEO laws such as Title VII. The court ruled that employment practices must be job related and that discrimination does not have to be overt to be illegal. Brown v. Board of Education held that segregation in public schools was unconstitutional.

Question 6 0 / 5 pts

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(TCO 2) A consequence of an employment practice that results in a greater rejection rate for a minority group than for a majority group is

Correct Answer adverse (or disparate) impact.

You Answered adverse attack.

adverse treatment.

disparate treatment.

Chapter 2

Question 7 0 / 5 pts (TCO 2) Which of the following lists of reasons for being terminated consists of all exceptions to the employment at will policy?

You Answered Whistle-blowing, pregnancy, reduction in force

Pregnancy, armed forces deployment, a pilot who turns age 70

Correct Answer Armed forces deployment, whistle-blowing, an 18-month jury duty

Whistle-blowing, being convicted of DUI, armed forces deployment

Pregnancy, being hospitalized for 6 months, armed forces deployment

Chapter 2

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Question 8 5 / 5 pts (TCO 2) Which of the following would least likely foster diversity in the workplace?

Changing the culture through diversity training education programs

Correct!

Appointing a small group of minorities to high-profile positions

Recruiting minority members to the board of directors

Using metrics to evaluate diversity programs

See Chapter 2. Tokenism occurs when a company appoints a small group of women or minorities to high-profile positions, rather than more aggressively seeking full representation for that group. Diversity is fostered through education, minority participation on the board of directors, and regular assessment.

Question 9 0 / 5 pts (TCO 3) Pick the list that only includes methods of job analysis.

Correct Answer Diary/logs, observation, questionnaire, interviews

Questionnaire, restructuring, interviews, focus groups

You Answered Diary, questionnaire, technical conference

Focus groups, reduction in force, interviews

Walk-about, focus groups, interviews

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Chapter 4

Question 10 5 / 5 pts (TCO 3) Which method interviews the job incumbents simultaneously?

Correct!

Group interview method

Observation method

Structured method

Individual view method

Chapter 4

Question 11 5 / 5 pts (TCO 3) Which of the following recruiting advertisements is the least likely to be considered discriminatory by the EEOC?

Looking for folks with 1–2 years’ experience who are recently graduated from high school

Looking for tall, strong, and able-bodied employees for a job as a lumberjack

Correct!

Wanted: Computer engineers with Linux experience to work the night shift

Wanted: Part-time computer engineers who would like to supplement their social security and/or pension income

Wanted: A dependable, responsible woman, preferably with a degree in education, as a “live-in” house mother for a male-only fraternity house dormitory at the University of Florida

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Chapter 4

Question 12 5 / 5 pts (TCO 3) Which is not a constraint on recruiting efforts?

Job attractiveness

Recruiting costs

Correct!

State influence

Organization image

Chapter 5

Question 13 5 / 5 pts (TCO 3) Which of the following things should not be discussed in the initial job screening telephone interview?

The applicant’s relevant experience

The applicant’s relevant education

The applicant’s interest in the company

Correct!

The date for the face-to-face interview

The job’s salary range

Chapter 6

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Question 14 5 / 5 pts (TCO 3) Which of the following is not true regarding interviewing?

Prior knowledge about the applicant can bias the interviewer's evaluation.

Correct!

Structured interviews are less reliable than unstructured interviews.

The interviewer tends to favor candidates who share their own attitudes.

Interviewers have short and inaccurate memories.

Chapter 7

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MGMT 303 – Final

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Short answer 1. (TCO 2) An organization’s external environment refers to forces outside the organization that affect its performance. Compare and contrast two of the components of the external environment. (Points : 10) the economic environment refers to costs of raw materials that a company needs and may be a result of an economic recession. While the demographic environmental impact can affect a company’s customer base. Both of these external forces are outside the ability of a company to control. However a company can ensure that their effects are minimized through research and proactive actions.

2. (TCO 3) What is social entrepreneurship? How can businesses promote positive social change? (Points : 10) social entrepreneurship is what happens when an organization or an individual looks for ways to improve their society through practical, innovative, or sustainable approaches. A business can promote positive social change through employee volunteering efforts and corporate philanthropy.

3. (TCO 7) Briefly describe the matrix structure of organizational design. What are the advantages and disadvantages of this design? (Points : 10) the matrix structure of organizational design assigns specialists from different functional departments to work on projects led by a project manager. Employees have two managers, a functional manager and a project manager and this can cause confusion for the employee on who is their boss. However, if both manager communicate effectively then resources can be used efficiently.

4. (TCO 8) Identify three performance appraisal methods and an advantage and disadvantage of each method. (Points : 10) MBO – Management by Objectives.

Employees are evaluated on who well they have accomplished set goals.

Advantage: Focuses on goals and is results based.

Disadvantage: Time consuming for management.

Graphic Rating Scale.

Performance ratings are set at an incremental scale and the manager rates the employee on each factor.

Advantage: does not take a lot of time and is based on quantitative data.

Disadvantage: this method does not provide the employee with in-depth information of job performance.

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Written Essay.

Manager writes a narrative of the employee’s strengths and weaknesses, performance, potential, and opportunities for improvement.

Advantage: Easy to use.

Disadvantage: less about the employee’s performance and more about the manager’s ability to write.

5. (TCO 9) Explain what the barriers are to interpersonal communications. (Points : 10) Filtering – manipulation of information so that it is received more favorably.

Emotions – extreme emotions can hinder effective communications.

Information Overload – when too much information will exceed our ability to process it.

Defensiveness – when people feel that they are being attacked they become defensive by being sarcastic or judgmental.

Language – even if two employee speak the same language, they may not be able to communicate due to age or cultural backgrounds.

6. (TCO 10) What are the three steps in the control process? Explain each of the steps. (Points : 10) The first step is Measuring Actual Performance by determining what actual performance is and getting information about it.

The second step is Comparing Actual Performance Against the Standard, this will help a manger evaluate the variation between performance and expectation. Any variation that outside of an acceptable range will then need to be paid attention to.

The third step is Taking Managerial Action, when a manager then chooses between possible courses of action; do nothing, correction, or revision.

7. (TCO 1) Recall a recent group project or task in which you have participated. Explain how members of the group displayed each of the managerial skills. (Points : 10) this term I was involved in a group project for my class; Senior Project. Our team that consisted of five students worked on a presentation and report for a fictional company’s board of directors to evaluate the company’s potential through a SWOT analysis. Our team had great communication and demonstrated exceptional teamwork. While the team involved several Atype personalities, we were able to effectively demonstrate an open and cooperative management style.

Essay

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1. (TCO 2) List and explain in detail the components of the four perspectives on how managers make decisions. (Points : 20) the four basic components on how manager make decisions include planning, organizing, leading, and controlling. When a manager plans they will set goals, establish strategies to achieve these goals, and develop plans and Intergrate activities. Managers also organize by structuring and arranging work that employees are tasked to perform so that goals can be accomplished. By becoming a leader, a manager works through their employees to accomplish goals through motivation, influence, effective communication, and dealing with employee issues. Controlling is the final component in which the manager evaluates the progress of planned events or achievement of goals and monitors the performance of employees. If any one of these areas are not proceeding as planned, then the manager will need to make decisions on how to get them back on track so that goals can be met.

2. (TCO 8) The goals of Organizational Behavior are to explain, predict, and influence employee behavior. List and explain in detail the six employee behaviors that are so important in this process. (Points : 20) the six employee behaviors that are important in organizational behavior are: employee productivity, absenteeism, turnover, organizational citizenship behavior, job satisfaction, and workplace misbehavior. Employee productivity measures both the efficiency and productivity of an employee and helps a manager determine how to best influence that outcome.

Absenteeism shows us how impactful it is to the business when an employee fails to report to work. Turnover identifies employees voluntary or involuntary removal from the workforce and can help a manager with recruiting, selection, and retention. Organizational citizenship behavior is effectively the discretionary effort that an employee may exhibit that goes above and beyond the scope of their employment or experience a reduction of effort due to overwork or stress. Job satisfaction helps a manger understand the general attitude that an employee may have about their job. Workplace misbehavior is any action by an employee that is intentionally harmful to the business or other employees.

3. (TCO 9) Throughout many organizations, communications serve four major functions. List and describe in detail each of the four functions and share an example of each. (Points : 20) communication serves an important role in an organization and it serves four major functions: control, motivation, emotional expression, and information. Communication works to control employee behavior through authority hierarchies and guidelines. When an employee is required to report a job related policy violation to their manager, this shows and an example of the control that a company has through communication of a policy. Motivation seeks to clarify to employees what performance levels are expected and the results of achieving set goals.

Achieving a productivity goal can motivate an employee to exhibit improved productivity in an effort to gain an additional reward that is outside the scope of their compensation.

Communication provides a release of emotional expression in the workplace. Employees often

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find that the workplace becomes their primary source of social interaction and by communicating their frustrations or satisfactions can be a fulfillment of their social needs.

4. (TCO 10) Explain what a PERT network system is and share an example of when it would be best to use this tool. (Points : 20) the PERT network system is a flowchart that shows the sequence of activities that are needed to complete a project and the amount of time or cost that is involved with each activity. This system helps a manager determine what needs to be done and what events depend on one another for completion and can also help the manger identify potential trouble points in the project. The PERT network system would be ideal in evaluation the activities surrounding a projects management. Implementing a new proposed system software architecture would benefit from using this system. By identifying the different tasks that need to be completed, their expected time frames, and what the preceding tasks are will help a manager develop a PERT network that will identify what tasks need to be performed in what order any in what time frame for the successful completion of the project.

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MGMT 303 Final Exam Study guide

Question 1.1.(TCO 1) At the _____ managerial level, technical skills are particularly important.

(Points : 7) top management operational employee middle management first-line supervisor board of directors Question 2.2.(TCO 2) Which of the following is an example of a merger? (Points : 7) Brown Electronics and Kelvin Data Systems form a new company, and Brown and Kelvin cease to exist.

Brown Electronics buys Kelvin Data Systems and continues to operate as Brown Electronics.

Brown Electronics buys Kelvin Data Systems, and Kelvin operates as a subsidiary of Brown.

Brown completes a hostile takeover of Kelvin.

None of the above Question 3.3.(TCO 3) The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires _____ to vouch for the truthfulness and fairness of the firm’s financial disclosures. (Points : 7) all employees managers senior managers board members senior managers and board Question 4.4.(TCO 4) McDonald’s operates restaurants around the world in airports. The agreement between McDonald’s and the airports is a(n) (Points : 7)

global sourcing agreement. strategic alliance. global business. exporting agreement. direct investment.

Question 5.5.(TCO 5) _____ planning is the process by which managers identify alternative courses of action that the organization might follow if various conditions arise. (Points : 7) Strategic Standard Contingency Integrative Goal optimization

Question 6.6.(TCO 6) The overall purpose of a business plan is to (Points : 7) identify all actions required up to the point when the firm opens its doors. outline activities for the business in its first year of operation. provide prospective lenders with a blueprint for action. determine potential demand for the firm's product or service .determine the most appropriate form of ownership.

Question 7.7.(TCO 7) A regional manufacturing operation has the following divisions: manufacturing, finance, human resources, marketing, and shipping/receiving. This is an example of _____ departmentalization. (Points : 7) functional location product customer sequential Question 8.8.(TCO 8) According to Herzberg, when _____ factors are adequate, employees won't be satisfied, but they won't be dissatisfied either. (Points : 7) intrinsic hygiene motivating neutral Question 9.9.(TCO 9) Which of the following statements does NOT describe an advantage of verbal communication? (Points : 7) It is easy to use.

It is accurate.

It facilitates feedback.

It is comfortable for managers.

It can be done with little preparation.

Question 10.10.(TCO 10) Income statements, balance sheets, and audits are examples of the control of (Points : 7) physical resources. cybernetics. financial resources. organizational complexity. human resources.

Question 1.1.(TCO 2) How is environment scanning helpful to a manager and the organization?

(Points : 10) Environmental scanning is the process of gathering information about events and their relationships within an organization's internal and external environments. The basic purpose of environmental scanning is to help management determine the future direction of the organization.

Question 2.2.(TCO 3) You are the CEO of a factory that manufactures furniture. Explain briefly why your company needs to be socially responsible. Briefly comment on any two areas of social responsibility. (Points : 10) When looking at Social responsibility it is an ethical ideology or a theory an organization or an individual has. IT would be an obligation to act to benefit society as a whole. Social responsibility is a duty that the organization has to uphold and they have to maintain a balance between the economy and the ecosystem. With a company they are able to use ethical decision making to secure their company by making the decisions needed. When you have a company in

the US that follows the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) guidelines for emissions on dangerous pollutants and also gets involved with the community and address certain concerns that ones have they would be less likely to have the EPA investigate them for environmental concerns. Some people think that these rules and guidelines are put into place because of a possible outcry that the public has had in recent history. When a company or organization adopts socially responsible practices i think that the general public form a new liking for the company. I think that when the people see companies joining in on this they are also selling more product. The consumers think that the company is like them and have an attachment towards them. Which in turn i think would increase their sales because the general public believes in them.

Question 3.3.(TCO 7) Briefly describe the matrix structure of organization design. What are the advantages and disadvantages of this design? (Points10) As a form of organizational design, matrix design is based on overlapping sets of product departments on an existing functional organization. It relies on a structure composed of multiple command levels. In a matrix design, employees working on a project are both members of their respective functional departments like accounts or engineering and the project as well. In a matrix design the project managers are always in coordination with teams of employees who belong to different departments in the same organization. The main advantage of a matrix design is the enhancement of flexibility because the teams can easily be formed, modified, and disbanded depending on the requirements of the project. Secondly, the assumption of responsibility in decision making processes within the team motivates and improves commitment among the employees. Employees working in a matrix design structure have a better opportunity

of learning new skills. The fourth advantage is that a matrix design provides an opportunity for the organization to efficiently utilize its human resources. By members being involved in both the functional unit and in their respective teams, there is increased cooperation and efficiency between the two levels. Lastly, a matrix design has the advantage of giving the top management a means of decentralization. Its main disadvantage is uncertainty among employees when submitting reports and is seen by some managers as an ingredient for anarchy because it gives employees an unlimited freedom. This design is most appropriate during cost allocation among different departments of an organization.

Question 4.4.(TCO 8) Briefly explain one performance appraisal method. Explain an error that can occur in the performance appraisal process and one way to effectively deal with such an error. (Points : 10) Performance appraisal is a critical management tool to evaluate the performance of employees and their contribution to achieving the organization’s goals. Different companies employ different performance appraisal methods to assess individual performance.

This method provides an objective basis for conducting a thorough discussion of an employee’s performance. This method avoids recent bias (most recent incidents get too much emphasis).

This method suffers however from the following limitations: Negative incidents may be more noticeable than positive incidents. The supervisors have a tendency to unload a series of complaints about incidents during an annual performance review session. It results in very close supervision which may not be liked by the employee. The recording of incidents may be a chore for the manager concerned, who may be too busy or forget to do it.

Question 5.5.(TCO 9) Briefly explain two ways in which communication effectiveness can be improved. (Points : 10) Effective communication increases productivity because it empowers those working in the organization. The more information each employee has, the more she will feel empowered to execute her tasks with confidence and direction. Employees who have an accurate understanding of what needs to be done and how to do it will be more willing and motivated to get it done. Effective communication empowers people to do their jobs right the first time.

When an organization practices effective communication skills, the workers are prone to keep one another accountable. Because effective communication provides clear instruction, each employee knows exactly what is expected of him. This allows co-workers to maintain a certain level of accountability with one another, which increases productivity.

Question 6.6.(TCO 10) What are the different levels of control? What are the relationships between the different levels? (Points : 10) It is the process of monitoring, comparing an correcting work performance. This is a three step process of measuring actual performance, comparing actual performance against standards, and taking managerial action to correct deviations or inadequate standards.

Question 7.7.(TCO 1) Briefly describe any five of the 10 managerial roles described by Henry Mintzberg. Give an example of each. (Points : 10) Monitor - In this role, you regularly seek out information related to your organization and industry, looking for relevant changes in the environment. You also monitor your team, in terms of both their productivity, and their well-being. Disseminator - This is where you communicate potentially useful information to your colleagues and your team. Spokesperson - Managers

represent and speak for their organization. In this role you're responsible for transmitting information about your organization and its goals to the people outside it. Entrepreneur - As a manager, you create and control change within the organization. This means solving problems, generating new ideas, and implementing them. Disturbance Handler - When an organization or team hits an unexpected roadblock, it's the manager who must take charge. You also need to help mediate disputes within it.

Question 1.1.(TCO 2) Organizations have both an internal and an external environment. Describe the general environment and give at least one specific example of each dimension, other than the examples given in the text and in the lectures. (Points : 20) Sociocultural is one of the general environment also impacts the manager's actions. "Managers must adapt to their practices to the changing expectations of the society in which they operate" (Robbins)(Coulter 2014). April 1992, Disney's new $4 billion theme park-Euro Disneyland opened at twenty miles east of Paris. Disney executives are banking on a love affair between Mickey and company and the Europeans as the principal engine of Disney's growth in the 1990s.

It is hoped that 11 million Europeans a year will rub elbows in a happy melting pot at the park.

But a number of conflicts and a lower-than-expected attendance in the early months had Disney's bosses worried. Glitzy American -style theme parks may not be Europe's cup of tea. No one really expects the king of theme parks to flop in Europe. Two million Europeans flock to Disney's American parks every year. But for reasons ranging form culture backlash to France's chilly winter weather, the reception has indeed been cool for the U.S. company. Europeans visit Disneyworld in Florida as part of an "American experience." Many observers doubt, however, that they will seek Americana as eagerly in the Paris suburbs. Then there was the challenge of hiring and training 16000 "cast members," representing 86 nationalities and 34 languages. About

half of the cast members were French, and the dress code imposed by Disney was regarded as an assault on French and European social standards. The attempt to maintain the standardized, allAmerican Disney look-no long hair, no long fingernails, very limited makeup, no jewelry. In addition to specific job training, Disney University, a feature of all company parks, gave the standard day-and-a half course in Disney culture. Now, Disneyworld is very successful in Paris (Deresky, 1994).

Deresky, Helen (1994). International Management: Managing Across Borders and Cultures. New York. HarperCollins College Publishers Robbins, Stephen P., & Coulter Mary(2014). Management

Question 2.2.(TCO 8) You are a manager of a Consulting firm with 25 employees under your supervision. Employee Motivation appears to be slipping, as well as employee performance.

Employees seem to have a negative attitude about their work, which has led to some turnover of employees and an increase in absenteeism. You have been asked to provide upper management with recommendations of how to improve motivation of the employees. Please create a motivation plan and list the main motivational theories you are applying in this plan. You should come up with a minimum of three ideas on how to improve motivation. (Points : 20) There are many different techniques that can be used in order to reward others for a job well done. It is crucial for businesses to analyze these different methods and implement the one(s) that work(s) best for them. There are many alternatives that an employer may choose to motivate its crew. When managers make an effort to recognize their employees on a personal level, there is a sense at which employees no longer feel like just a number, and this behavior lets the employees know that they are noticed and appreciated. There is a heavy emphasis placed upon extrinsic

rewards because raises, promotions, along with other monetary incentives, are major keys to success in any organization. Positive reinforcement has been, and always will be, the best way to motivate people over the long term; however, negative reinforcement techniques can be useful, as a way to make employees aware of what their job expectations are, compared to their actual job performance. Negative reinforces are most efficient when they are used on a short-term basis, and they should decline over time; however, it is important to proceed with caution when using this method of motivation. My recommendation is provide help instead of criticism, giving and receiving feedback from employers, and customizing incentive programs to maximize performance, so these goals can be made possible.

3.(TCO 9) You are the plant manager at Acme Plastics. You are running two shifts, a day shift and an evening shift. Before the day shift leaves each day, the workers must get an adequate supply of raw materials from the warehouse for the evening shift to use. On several occasions, they have failed to do so. By the time the evening shift gets to work, the warehouse is locked up, and it takes about 3 hours to get someone out to unlock it and get the production line rolling again. The two shift supervisors are at each other's throats, and you have to do something to correct the situation. What is the basic problem causing this conflict? What could you do to solve it? (Points : 20) In the given scenario it is noticed that since there is unavailability of materials the evening shift is not being able to work and the production of the company is hampered, it is said that the supervisors are at each other throat which means they have been arguing with each other in anger. There is a clear indication of lack in coordination and communication within the employees of the company and the supervisors. Therefore, as a manager what I would do to

correct this situation is meet with the two supervisors immediately, I would Let them vent. Giving them my full attention, allow each employee involved in apparent conflict to state their case without fear of any judgment on my part. Validate feelings, I would be objectively empathetic. A conflict between employees brings out some pretty raw emotions, and showing that you understand their feelings helps your employees let their guards down and diffuses tension. Get specifics, I would ask them to describe the particular behaviors that are causing tension, once specific behaviors can be described and addressed, the discussion can become more grounded and reasonable. Find a common ground, I probably will never get my employees to be besties, but I can help them work together productively to meet in achieving the company’s goals. I would encourage them to work together to create solutions. I would also ask what it would take to resolve the conflict and what each employee is willing to contribute. And then hold each accountable. Follow through, once I have gotten beyond the immediate employee conflict, I will continuously check in with these employees. Also I would Consider bringing in a third-party consultant to facilitate issues and teach concepts to resolve future conflicts; enrolling supervisors in classes geared toward conflict resolution, problem solving, and teamwork; or having everyone take the Myers-Briggs personality-type test, which will help co-workers learn and appreciate that everyone communicates in different ways. http://thehiringsite.careerbuilder.com/2009/01/13/5-ways-to-cope-when-your-employees-dontget-along/

Question 4.4.(TCO 10) Our text defines the four functions of a management as planning, organizing, leading and controlling. Briefly put, the plan states the desired outcome or goal and

the process for achieving it. Control is the regulation of organizational activities and processes in such a way as to facilitate goal attainment. Assume that you are a manager of a business. State the type of business you are managing (it can be any business you choose). Give two examples of controls that you would implement in the business and how they could facilitate goal attainment.

Being a manager in a Psychiatric Clinic I would implement a systematic and structured conceptual model for crisis intervention useful with persons calling or walking into an outpatient psychiatric clinic, psychiatric screening center, counseling center, or crisis intervention program. A systematic crisis intervention model is analogous to establishing and visualizing the implications of each proposed crisis intervention guidepost and technique in the model's process and sequence of events and make any necessary adjustments before the program is fully operational. The model is a series of guideposts that makes it easier to remember alternative methods and techniques, thus facilitating the counseling process. By learning about each component or stage of a model, the clinician will better understand how each component relates to one another and should facilitate goal attainment, problem solving, and crisis resolution. In order to measure effectiveness and crisis resolution, as well as facilitate accountability and quality improvement, it is critical that outcome measures are clearly explicated in behavioral and quantifiable terms. Common performance indicators and measures should eventually lead to quality mental health and effective crisis intervention services. http://btci.edina.clockss.org/cgi/content/full/5/4/329/?

Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

passed by Congress in an attempt to address a number of weaknesses found in corporate financial reporting in the wake of the recent accounting scandals. The Act's major provisions include: Requirement of CEO/CFO certification of financial statements Requirement of auditor examination of company internal controls Creation of the Public Company Accounting Oversight Board (PCAOB) to serve as an auditing profession "watchdog. “Prohibition of certain client services by firms conducting a client's audit.

Sarbanes-Oxley: Management's Responsibility for Financial Reporting?

Management's Responsibility for Financial Reporting One of its most important provisions (Section 302) states that the key company officials must certify the financial statements. Certification means that the company CEO and CFO must sign a statement indicating: 1. They have read the financial statements.

2. They are not aware of any false or misleading statements (or any key omitted disclosures).

3. They believe that the financial statements present an accurate picture of the company's financial condition.

(TCO 1) At the _____ managerial level, conceptual skills are particularly important. (Points : 7)

Top management Operational employee Middle management First-line supervisor None of the above

(TCO 1) Which of the following is an example of an organization? (Points : 7) The Department of Labor The Atlanta Braves IBM The Boys & Girls Club of America All of the above

(TCO 1) The goals that have been set for an organization must be monitored and the actual performance compared to goals. This is part of the ______ function of management. (Points : 7) Planning Organizing Leading Controlling

(TCO 2) In Florida, a vacationer could choose from over 200 timeshare resorts. In Vermont, the choice is limited to 15. A resort in Vermont has (Points : 7) The power of suppliers.

The threat of new entrants.

Competitive rivalry The competitive advantage.

(TCO 2) The process of actively monitoring the environment through activities such as reading and observation is called (Points : 7) Being socially responsible Environmental scanning Alliance creation Informational management A strategic response

(TCO 3) Employees who face ethical dilemmas need ___________ so they can dowhat is right without fear of reprimand. (Points : 7) ethics training Social responsibility Independent social audits Protective mechanisms

(TCO 3) Individuals in an organization who find themselves in an ethical dilemma have many factors that will determine whether their behavior is ethical or unethical. Which of the following does NOT determine the behavior? (Points : 7) Organizational culture Individual's stage of moral development Issue intensity Individual's characteristics Size of the organization (TCO 3) ______ is when an organization's intention is to go beyond its legal and economic obligations, to do the right thing and act in ways that are good for society.(Points : 7) Classic view Sustainability Social responsibility ISO 9000 all of the above (TCO 4) The European Union and North American Free Trade Agreement are often in the news in the USA. There are other trade agreements in the world. China and South Korea are not members of a specific trade agreement but do take part in trade discussion of which agreement or association? (Points : 7) South Asian Assiciation for Regional Cooporation Association of Southeast Asian Nations East Asia Trade Community Asia United Trade Agreement

(TCO 4) When 12 original countries joined together, with the primary goal of reasserting the region's economic position against the United States and Japan, the _____ was formed. (Points : 7) African Union European Union Central America Free Trade Agreement developing market economy Association of South-East Asian Nations

(TCO 5) Manger must be focused on the future. ______________ are targets that managers are trying to reach and they are also the basis by which work results are measured. (Points : 7) Performance Time-frames Objectives Environmental Scanning

(TCO 5) Busy managers will often make a decision based only on their ability to understand and process the information. This type of decision making is (Points : 7) bounded rationality.

A satisfice.

Rational decision making.

Escalation of commitment None of the above

(TCO 5) _____ planning is the process by which managers identify alternative courses of action that the organization might follow if various conditions arise. (Points : 7) Strategic Standard Contingency Integrative Goal optimization

(TCO 5) Theory surrounding organizational authority states that subordinates will accept orders if which of the following conditions is/are satisfied: (Points : 7) They understand the order.

The order does not conflict with their personal beliefs.

They are able to perform the task as directed.

All of the above.

(TCO 6) Jay wants to start a new business. Which of the following questions should he use as part of his analysis of the ideas for a new business? (Points : 7) Who is the potential customer?

What similar or unique product features does his proposed idea have to compare to what's currently on the market?

How and where will potential customers purchase his product?

How will he need to promote and advertise his product?

All of the above.

( TCO 6) After watching the royal wedding, Susan wants to start her own hat-making company in the United States. To help her determine whether this is a good idea, she needs to find the answers to which of the following questions? (Points : 7) Who are my customers, and where are they?

Who are my competitors, and where are they?

How can I differentiate my product from that of my competitors?

In what quantities and at what price will my customers buy my products?

All of the above

(TCO 7) A regional manufacturing operation has the following divisions: manufacturing, finance, human resources, marketing, and shipping/receiving. This is an example of _____ departmentalization. (Points : 7) functional location product customer sequential

(TCO 7) __ defined as clear and distinct lines of authority among all positions in an organization.

Autonomy Delegation Chain of command Span of management Departmentalization

(TCO 8) A person’s ability to sense how others are feeling best describes which emotional intelligence trait? (Points : 7) Self-Awareness Empathy Social Skills Managing Emotions

(TCO 8) According to Herzberg, when _____ factors are adequate, employees won't be satisfied, but they won't be dissatisfied either. (Points : 7) intrinsic hygiene motivating neutral

(TCO 8) The _____ is the act that requires organizations with 50 or more employees up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave each year for family or medical reasons. (Points : 7) Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act Family Medical Leave Act Occupational Safety and Health Act Americans with Disability Act (TCO 9) During which stage of group development do members try out various forms of behavior in an attempt to test the waters and see what will be acceptable in the group? (Points : 7 Norming Storming Forming Performing Conforming

(TCO 9) Which of the following statements does NOT describe an advantage of verbal communication? (Points : 7) It is accurate It facilitates feedback.

It is comfortable for managers.

It can be done with little preparation.

(TCO 10) Budgets (Points : 7) Help managers coordinate resources.

Help define standards for control.

Provide guidelines about resources.

Enable the evaluation of the performance of managers.

All of the above

(TCO 10) Income statements, balance sheets, and audits are examples of the control of (Points:7 Physical resources Cybernetics Financial resources Organizational complexity Human resources

(TCO 2) An organization’s external environment refers to forces outside the organization that affect its performance. Compare and contrast two of the components of the external environment. (Points : 10) The external environment of an organization are those factors outside the company that affect the company's ability to function. Customers are among the demographic external elements that you can attempt to influence. But ultimately, your relationship with your clients is based on finding ways to influence them to purchase your products. As with the majority of the elements of your organization's external environment, your company must be efficient at monitoring the economy and learning how to react to it, rather than trying to manipulate it. Economic factors affect how

you market products, how much money you can spend on business growth, and the kind of target markets you will pursue.

(TCO 2) In today’s environment, what are the important organizational strategies to be considered? Discuss why each is important. (Points : 10) Strategies that are important in today’s environment: e-business, customer service and innovation. The world is constantly changing; therefore, resources are more and more becoming scarce. That alone makes business organizations a non-stop changing mechanism finding and innovating tools to counter these constant changes, in addition, have a vision to innovate, and satisfy all stake-holders at the same time. There are key tools making a strategy to last a decade and not till the next business cycle. One important tool is leadership and empowerment to vision and innovate next generation products that exceed customer’s expectations, solve their daily problems. Companies that study their customers, finding what solves their problems, meet and exceed their needs, and answering the who target audience is, the what product they need to solve their problems, the how to communicate and reach the product to them, and the where will be accessing the product at? Keeping in mind to develop a sustainable competitive advantage, and a long term vision that is communicated and shared with the whole organization by empowering and leading employees to innovate and revolutionized products, and ideas. Are the most successful companies and vision driven organizations that can sustain any threat and always gain on opportunities.

(TCO 3) You are the CEO of a factory that manufactures furniture. Explain briefly why your company needs to be socially responsible. Briefly comment on any two areas of social responsibility. (Points : 10) Being socially responsible creates good will and a positive image for the business. Trust and a good reputation are some of the company’s most valuable assets. In fact, without these, you wouldn’t even have a business. You can nurture these important assets by being socially responsible. It is however, crucial that you devise the right socially responsible program for your business. When used properly, it will open up a myriad of new relationships and opportunities.

Not only will your success grow, but so will the company’s culture. It will become a culture which you, your staff and the wider community genuinely believe in.

(TCO 3) What is social entrepreneurship? How can businesses promote positive social change? (Points : 10) An individual or organization who seeks out opportunities to improve society by using practical, innovative, and sustainable approaches. Social entrepreneurs are all about change, they want to make the world a better place and have a driving passion to make that happen. Businesses promote positive social change by contributions to support community needs. Businesses can do this by engaging in activities that promote positive social change through corporate philanthropy and through employee volunteering efforts.

(TCO 7) Briefly describe the matrix structure of organizational design. What are the advantages and disadvantages of this design? (Points : 10)

The matrix organizational structure brings together employees and managers from different departments to work toward accomplishing a goal. It is design to create a dual chain of command because the employees of this design have two managers. The functional manager and the project manager. Advantages of implementing the matrix organizational structure in a business is that it can lead to an efficient exchange of information. Departments work closely together and communicate with each other frequently to solve issues. Another advantage is that it leads to employee satisfaction and increased motivation. In a matrix structure, each employee brings his expertise to the table. Managers are involved in the day-to-day operations, which allows them to make decisions through the viewpoint of employees. Disadvantages of the matrix structure is that it can result in internal complexity. Some employees may become confused as to who their direct supervisor is. For example, an employee may receive different directions concerning the same thing from supervisors in different departments. Another disadvantage of the matrix organizational structure is that it is expensive to maintain.

(TCO 7) Compare and contrast the mechanistic and organic organizations. (Points: 10) Mechanistic Organization Stable environment- This organizational structure works best when the environment is relatively stable.

Low differentiation of tasks- Tasks will not be differentiated much, because each subtask is relatively stable and easy to control. Low integration of departments and functional areas Due to the stability of tasks, there will be low integration between departments and functional areas - because tasks stay relatively stable, and because the functional areas are not heavily dependent on each other. Centralized decision-making- When the environment is stable, there is

no need for complex decision-making that involves people at lower levels. Therefore, decisionmaking is centralized at the top of the organization.

Standardization and formalization- When tasks are stable, tasks should be standardized and formalized, so that operations can run smoothly without breakdowns. Organic Organization Dynamic and uncertain environment- This organizational structure works best when the environment is relatively dynamic and uncertain. High differentiation of tasks- Because tasks are often changing, tasks may need to be differentiated, so specialists, each responsible for one or few tasks, are able to respond quickly.

High integration of departments and functional areas- In complex environments, rapid communication and information sharing is necessary. Therefore, departments and different functional areas need to be tightly integrated. Decentralized decision-making- When the environment is dynamic and uncertain, there is a need for complex decision-making that involves people at lower levels. Therefore, decision-making power should be distributed to lower ranks, which should get empowered in making decisions.

Little Standardization and formalization- When tasks change rapidly, it is unfeasible to institute standardization and formalized procedures. Instead, tasks should be mutually adjusted, so that each subtask is balanced with other subtasks. http://www.businessmate.org/Article.php?ArtikelId=44 (TCO 8) Identify three performance appraisal methods and an advantage and disadvantage of each method.

Performance Appraisal is the evaluation that establishes performance on employees.

Written Essay- Evaluator writes a description of employee’s strengths and weaknesses, past performance, and potential. Provides suggestions for improvement

+

Simple to use

May be better measure of evaluator’s writing ability than of employee’s actual performance Multi-person Comparison- Employees are rated in comparison to others in work group. + Compares Employee’s with one another -

Difficult with large number of employee’s; legal concern

360-Degree Appraisal- Utilizes feedback from supervisors, employees, and co-workers. + Thorough Time-consuming (TCO 8) Identify three selection tools used in the selection process to ensure that the most appropriate candidates are hired. What makes the tools useful? When is the tool appropriate? (Points : 10) The three selection tool used to hire is interviews, test, and background check. What makes these tools useful it should be viewed as an opportunity to learn about an individual’s level moral development, personal values, ego strength and locus of control. When these tools become useful is when a particular jobs require the candidate to have certain technical skills or expertise in a certain field, employers may consider skills assessment in the collection of hiring tools.

(TCO 9) Explain what the barriers are to interpersonal communications. (Points : 10) Barriers to interpersonal communication are: 1) Filtering- The deliberate manipulation of information to make it appear more favorable to the receiver. 2) Information overload- When information exceeds our processing capacity. 3) Jargon- Specialized terminology or technical language that members of a group use to communicate upon themselves.

(TCO 9) Identify and briefly explain five communication issues for management in today’s organizations. (Points : 10) Five Communication issues of particular significance to today’s managers: 1) Managing communication in an internet world- Which has created special communication challenges legal and security issues, and lack of personal interaction. 2) Managing the organization knowledge resources- What managers need to do is make it easy for employees to communicate and share their knowledge. Build online information database that employees can access, create communities for internal collaboration. 3) Communicating with customers- communicating appropriately and effectively by recognizing three components in any service delivery process: the customers, the service organization, and the individual service provider. 4) Getting employee input- Let the employees know that their opinions matter. 5) Communicating ethically- Managers should encourage ethical communication, establish clear guidelines for ethical behavior, including ethical business communication.

(TCO 10) Identify and describe the controls that can be used before, during, and after an activity.

(Points : 10 Managers can implement controls before an activity begins, during the time the activity is going on, and after the activity has been completed, The first type is called feed-forward control; prevents problems because it takes place before the actual activity. The second, concurrent control; is to keep a watchful eye while the activity is in progress. The last one, feedback control; most popular it takes place after the activity is done.

(TCO 10) What is controlling and why is it important to an organization? (Points : 10)

Controlling is the process of monitoring, comparing, and correcting work performance.

Controlling is important, therefore, because it’s the only way that managers know whether organizational goals are being met and if not, the reason why. The value of the control function can be seen in three specific areas: planning, empowering employees, and protecting the work place.

(TCO 1) Briefly describe any five of the 10 managerial roles described by Henry Mintzberg.

Give an example of each. (Points : 10) Leader: Interpersonal roles; fosters a proper work atmosphere and motivates and develops subordinates.

2. Spokesperson: Informational roles; communicates to the outside world on performance and policies.

3. Entrepreneur: Decisional roles; designs and initiates change in the organization; 4. Disturbance Handler: Decisional roles; deals with unexpected events and operational breakdowns; 5. Negotiator: Decisional roles; participates in negotiation activities with other organizations and individuals

(TCO 1) Recall a recent group project or task in which you have participated. Explain how members of the group displayed each of the managerial skills.

Robert L. Katz proposed that managers need three critical skills in managing: technical, human

and conceptual. a. Technical skills are the job specific knowledge and techniques needed to proficiently perform work tasks.

In a resent situation I was asked by my manager to take on a third shift, due to a co-worker had fallen ill and he felt I was the best person to do the job. b. Human skills involve the ability to work well with other people both individually and in a group.

I realize later why he had asked me to be the one to take the third shift was due to a request, it was said that I was very open minded and easy to work and get along with. c. Conceptual skills are the skills managers use to think and to conceptualize about abstract and complex situations.

My manager was put in a situation where the employee who had fallen ill would be out for several weeks. He used his conceptual skills by keeping business running as usual and pleasing top managers by providing coverage for the third shift.

(TCO 2) Describe the six components of the external environment and give at least one specific example of each of the components that are not examples given in the textbook. (Points : 20) The six components of external environment are economic, global, political/legal, sociocultural, technological, and demographics. Economic: Because the economy influences basic business decisions, such as whether to hire more employees, expand production, or take out loans to purchase equipment, managers scan their economic environments for signs of change.

Social and Cultural: the social and cultural refers to the structure and dynamics of individuals and groups and their behaviors, believes, thought patterns and lifestyles, friendship etc many of

this trends goes a long way to affect your marketing operations. For example, women with children are much more likely to work outside the home today than 30 years ago.

Demographic: demography refers to study of people, such as their age, sex, marital status, occupation, family size etc. Though, demography is uncontrollable because you cannot control the sex, age, marital status in your external environment, but accurate forecast of it goes a long way to enabling you as a marketer forecast future trend and consumptions of your product.

Technological: Changes in technology can help companies provide better products or produce their products more efficiently. For example, advances in surgical techniques and imaging equipment have made open-heart surgery much faster and safer in recent years Global: this refers to the physical environment; it comprises of the available or lacks of natural resources that can vacillated or hinder your production output. Political/Legal: Throughout the last decade, new legislation and regulations have placed additional responsibilities on companies.

Unfortunately, many managers are unaware of these new responsibilities. For example, the Canadian Human Rights Act prohibits discrimination against those who are infected with HIV/AIDS. Discrimination against anyone with HIV/AIDS could result in the company having to pay damages and back pay.

(TCO 8) You are a manager of a consulting firm with 25 employees under your supervision.

Employee motivation appears to be slipping, as well as employee performance. Employees seem to have a negative attitude about their work, which has led to some turnover of employees and an increase in absenteeism. You have been asked to provide upper management with recommendations of how to improve motivation of the employees. Please create a motivation plan and list the main motivational theories you are applying in this plan. You should come up with a minimum of three ideas on how to improve motivation. (Points : 20)

As a manager I have been asked by upper management to create a plan to improve motivation among the employees. After assessing the situation my plan consisted of a list that I would follow in order motivate and bring employee performance up and have the employee’s happy doing their job. The plan present to top management included: 1. Make employees feel they are doing something meaningful. 2. Effectively communicate and share information. 3. Consistently share new information to ensure that employees make good decisions. 4. You must always let employees know how the organization is progressing toward achieving goals. 5. Give employees clear job descriptions and accountability. 6. Give and receive ongoing performance feedback. 7.

Have—and show—faith and trust in team. 8. Listen to, focus on, and respect employees’ needs.

9. Provide recognition to worthy employees. 10. Provide fair compensation and pay for the performance you seek. 11. Foster innovation. 12. Establish fair company policies that support the company’s goals. 13. Get ongoing input from employees. 14. Manage, but don’t micromanage.

15. Encourage teamwork. 16. Modify my management approach for different types of employees. 17. Give employees opportunities for personal growth.

(TCO 10) Our text defines the four functions of management as planning, organizing, leading and controlling. Briefly put, the plan states the desired outcome or goal and the process for achieving it. Control is the regulation of organizational activities and processes in such a way as to facilitate goal attainment. Assume that you are a manager of a business. State the type of business you are managing (it can be any business you choose). Give two examples of controls that you would implement in the business and how they could facilitate goal attainment. (Points : 20)

In this scenario, I am the manager of Stericycle this includes medical waste disposal and sharps disposal management, product recalls and retrievals, OSHA compliance training, pharmaceutical returns, healthcare dock management, healthcare water treatment programs, pharmaceutical waste disposal, medical safety product sales, and high volume notification services. We also employ highly qualified teams who handle every task with accuracy and sensitivity. I have to document everything from the disposal of medical waste to the financial documents we retain and compile for the services we offer. The department I manage is the accounts payable department. We must comply with document retention of payments made to companies and governmental compliance departments, and tax payments. These particular data retention and payments require critical management to pay the companies on time and the correct amounts to the correct companies. I must comply with dated deadlines so I must have a plan to organized direction as to when these payments must be made, how they are sent to the payees owed, and how to retain them. As department manager I must be able to organize employee’s tasks, plan our payment schedules, direct them to pay them and control the financial status to do so. We must all work together as a team and stay as organized as possible to accomplish the goals ethics of the company. As the manager I must be strong in my organizational skills and planning skills to accomplish this.

(TCO 2) List and explain in detail the components of the four perspectives on how managers make decisions. (Points : 20) The four components managers use to make decision include: Planning: The organizations long-term objectives

Strategies that will best achieve those objectives What should be the organization’s short-term objectives?

How difficult should individual goals be?

Organizing: How many employees should report directly under management?

How much centralization should there be in the organization?

How jobs should be designed When should the organization implement a different structure Leading Employees who appear unmotivated The most effective leadership style in a given situation How a specific change affect worker productivity?

When is the right to stimulate conflict?

Controlling: Activities in the organization needs to be controlled How should those activities be controlled?

When is a performance deviation significant What type of management information system should the organization have?

(TCO 8) Human Resources Planning is a process to ensure managers have the right number of skilled employees at the right place and right time. Thorough planning entails two steps: assessing current human resources and meeting future HR needs. List and explain the three important parts of the current assessment process. (Points : 20)

There are numerous different types of formal assessments that organizations can use to select employees. The first step in developing or selecting an assessment method for a given situation is to understand what the job requires employees to do and, in turn, what knowledge, skills and abilities individuals must possess in order to perform the job effectively. This is typically accomplished by conducting a job analysis, a job description, and a job specification.

(TCO 9) Describe in detail the three major contingency theories of leadership. How do these differ? (Points : 20) Contingency theories are that there is no one leadership style and that the nature of those being led, the make-up of the leader and the tasks facing a group are different. Each situation is unique and the ideal leader-led situation will be unique, as well. Some of the major contingency theories are: Fiedler's contingency theory is one of the contingency theories that states that effective leadership depends not only on the style of leading but on the control over a situation. Fiedler measured leadership style with the Least Preferred Co-Worker Scale (LPC scale.) The leaders scoring high on this scale are relationship motivated and those scoring low are task motivated.

Hersey-Blanchard Contingency theory. Implies that, leadership depends upon each individual situation, and no single leadership style can be considered the best. For Hershey and Blanchard, tasks are different and each type of task requires a different leadership style. The HerseyBlanchard Situational Leadership Theory has two pillars: leadership style and the maturity level of those being led. To Hersey and Blanchard, there leadership styles stem from four basic behaviors, designated with a letter-number combination:

S-1 Telling S-2 Selling S-3 Participating S-4 Delegating.

The Path-Goal model is a theory based on specifying a leader's style or behavior that best fits the employee and work environment in order to achieve a goal. The goal is to increase your employees' motivation, empowerment, and satisfaction so they become productive members of the organization. The path-goal theory can best be thought of as a process in which leaders select specific behaviors that are best suited to the employees' needs and the working environment so that they may best guide the employees through their path in the obtainment of their daily work activities. While Path-Goal Theory is not a detailed process, it generally follows these basic steps that include: Determine the employee and environmental characteristics Select a leadership style Focus on motivational factors that will help the employee succeed

(TCO 10) Explain what a PERT network system is and share an example of when it would be best to use this tool. (Points : 20) A project management tool that provides a graphical representation of a project's timeline. PERT, or Program Evaluation Review Technique. PERT is a network of events and activities. The PERT chart allows the tasks in a particular project to be analyzed, with particular attention to the time required to complete each task, and the minimum time required to finish the entire project. A PERT chart is a graph that represents all of the tasks necessary to a project's completion, and the

order in which they must be completed along with the corresponding time requirements. Certain tasks are dependent on serial tasks, which must be completed in a certain sequence, or the activity be preceded by another activity? First the manager has to identify every activity that must be achieved for the project to be completed. Second determine the order in which these event must be completed then diagram the flow of activities from start to finish, identifying each activity and its relationship to all other activities. The fourth step is compute a time estimated for completing each activity. The fifth step is using the network diagram that contains time estimated for each activity. PERT can be described as a network diagram of sorts. The first draft can be as simple as a sketch. What a PERT chart consists of are milestones or events connected by lines.

In the first draft, the events are usually numbered in 10s (milestone 10, milestone 20, etc.). This provides flexibility in case tasks or events need to be added in later. The events are then connected by arrows, and each preceding event must be completed before the next one can begin. Example: A publisher has a contract with an author to publish a textbook. The activities associated with the production of the textbook are given. The author is required to submit to the publisher a hard copy and a computer file of the manuscript. A list of activities is provided.

Using the PERT method, we can find out the completion time of the project. We will also determine which activities are critical activities-activities that if delayed would delay the completion of the project, and slack times for non-critical activity can run late without effecting the completion time of the project.

Unlock the Power of Blockchain An introduction to blockchain and its cloud computing needs

Unlock the Power of Blockchain An introduction to blockchain and its cloud computing needs

Blockchain technology has been a disruptive force in the era of digital transformation. According to Statista Research, worldwide spending on blockchain solutions is expected to grow to $19 billion USD by 2024.

Blockchain works as a distributed ledger technology, meaning it uses independent computers to record and share activities. This decentralizes the record of transactions and makes data stored using blockchain more secure and transactions more transparent than those housed on a single server or controlled by a single entity.

While blockchain has gained notoriety through cryptocurrency, the technology is used by many businesses across industries. Any type of data can be stored using blockchain, and fields from finance to healthcare, and retail operations to supply chain management all benefit from the security, transparency, and efficiencies blockchain technology provides.

In a recent TechRepublic Research study, 64% of professionals said that they expect blockchain to affect their industry in some way, with most expecting the impact to be positive. Blockchain has the potential to completely change how people do business, and innovative startups are taking notice.

In a recent survey, Deloitte found that 90% of emerging blockchain disruptors are actively hiring blockchain talent. They learned that these founders aren’t approaching blockchain as incremental change, but are interested in fundamentally changing how business is conducted.

The opportunities are endless. Organizations are using blockchain to actualize ideas like digital verification systems that ensure creators are properly paid for their work, systems for safer and more efficient data transfer, and technologies supporting fast and secure digital identity verification.

With these visions, startups and SMBs around the globe are prepared to usher in a new era of digital innovation. As more organizations seek to take advantage of the benefits that blockchain provides, and still others begin to create blockchain-based services, it’s important to consider the computing and infrastructure needs of these potentially world-changing businesses. In this guide, we’ll explore the fundamentals of blockchain for business and what founders should keep in mind as they build their businesses.

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Blockchain words to know Address (Wallet Address)

Used to send and receive transactions on a blockchain network.

An address is an alphanumeric character string, which can also be represented as a scannable QR code.

Consensus mechanism

The process by which a group of peers is responsible for maintaining distributed ledger use. Proof of Work and Proof of Stake are examples of consensus mechanisms.

Decentralized application (dapp)

An open-source software application with backend code running on a decentralized peer-to-peer network rather than a centralized server.

Also referred to as Web3.

DeFi (Decentralized Finance)

Refers to cryptocurrency and economic activity occurring on a blockchain.

Genesis block

The first block in the blockchain.

Mainnet

The primary network where actual transactions take place on a specific distributed ledger. For example, The Ethereum mainnet is the public blockchain where network validation and transactions take place.

Contrast this with a sidechain (below).

Node

Any computer connected to the blockchain network is referred to as a node. A full node is a computer that can fully validate transactions and download the entire data of a specific blockchain. A lightweight or light node does not download all pieces of a blockchain’s data and uses a different validation process, relying on the backplane nodes for full chain integrity. At DigitalOcean, we recommend CPU Optimized Droplets for full nodes, but Basic Droplets are typically sufficient for light nodes.

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Non-Fungible Token (NFT)

Fungibility refers to an object’s ability to be exchanged for another.

For example, an individual dollar is considered fungible as we can trade dollars with one another. Artwork is usually deemed non-fungible because it’s likely to be unequal in quality or value. A non-fungible token is a type of token that is a unique digital asset and has no equal token.

Shard

Sharding refers to splitting the entire network into multiple portions called “shards.” Each shard would contain its own independent state, meaning a unique set of account balances and smart contracts. Usually, shards must be tightly coupled and sidechains must be loosely coupled. This is very similar to database sharding.

Sidechain

A chain that runs in parallel to a mainnet, but only interacts with the mainnet for validation or other activities. Sidechains have a two-way bridge to a mainnet. Sidechains are not required to use the same proof as the mainnet.

Smart contracts

Smart contracts are programs whose terms are recorded in a computer language instead of legal language. Smart contracts are automated actions that can be coded and executed once a set of conditions is met.

Haskell is a common language for this.

51% attack

If more than half the computer power or mining hash rate on a network is run by a single person or a single group of people, then a 51% attack is in operation. This means that this entity has full control of the network and can negatively affect a cryptocurrency by taking over mining operations, stopping or changing transactions, and double-spending coins.

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Blockchain vs. cryptocurrency The most well-known use for blockchain technology is cryptocurrency, and people often use the terms synonymously. Blockchain and cryptocurrency, however, are not the same. Blockchain is the technology that enables cryptocurrency, but that’s far from its only use. Cryptocurrencies use a distributed ledger but are based on a digital store of value, and primarily exist as a source of electronic currency. Cryptocurrencies, like Bitcoin, rely on distributed ledger technology to keep anonymity.

While anyone can look at the ledger and see that a transaction took place, no one will know who or what was involved. Alternatively, businesses who use blockchain keep careful internal records allowing for the transparency of transactions through the distributed ledger while keeping the individual data secure with the block’s encryption.

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Understanding the basics of blockchain At its core, blockchain enables record-keeping in a secure, immutable way. Anything can be tracked using blockchain technology, from tangible resources to intangible pieces of information. In blockchain, the data is encrypted within blocks. Each block contains the data itself, a hash that’s unique to the block, and the hash of the previous block. New blocks are created by generating a new hash. These new hashes are validated through consensus mechanisms, often called proofs. When validated blocks are accepted to the network, the block is added to the blockchain.

A transaction is requested

Validation through consensus across the network occurs

A block of data is created

The block is added to the chain

The block is sent to other parties in the network

The update is distributed across the network

If anyone tampers with the data in one block, the hash changes. Thus, all the hashes in subsequent blocks are rendered incorrect. In order to make a change to data within a blockchain, someone would have to make the change, creating a new hash, then create new hashes and pass the proof mechanisms of the network for each subsequent block in the chain. Since the validation mechanisms are distributed across multiple computers and owned by different individuals, it’s nearly impossible to tamper with the data in a blockchain.

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Choosing a consensus mechanism Consensus mechanisms allow distributed networks to stay secure by requiring a general agreement to the proposed change or addition in the system. There are a few different ways consensus is reached in order to allow a block to be added to the network. The core tenet of proofs is that they should be hard to produce, but easy to validate. The most common types of proofs are Proof of Work and Proof of Stake. There are pros and cons to each consensus mechanism, depending on the goals of the network and the resources available.

Proof of Work

Proof of Work is the consensus mechanism most people are familiar with. Many well-known cryptocurrencies, like Bitcoin, use Proof of Work as their means of validation. Proof of Work requires individuals to solve cryptographic puzzles to produce blocks. Creating new blocks (often called mining) requires powerful hardware that is able to solve the complex math problem needed to create the new hash for the block, and computers compete against each other to be the first to find the answer to the puzzle. Because of the complexity required to create each block, Proof of Work validation methods are exceptionally secure. Proof of Work is extremely energy-intensive and is the primary source of concern regarding the environmental impact of cryptocurrency. Some cloud providers like DigitalOcean do not allow Proof of Work on their platforms.

Proof of Stake

Proof of Stake is the consensus mechanism many major blockchains are moving toward. With Proof of Stake mechanisms, validators are required to “stake” coins or tokens from the blockchain network in a staking pool, locking them for a period of time. Staked coins or tokens never leave your wallet, but they can’t be transacted with until the stake is withdrawn. Exchanges will never ask you to withdraw tokens in order to stake. After coins or tokens are staked, the network uses a randomized process to choose a validator to produce the next block. Proof of Stake uses much less energy to secure the blockchain and is much faster than Proof of Work.

When choosing a consensus mechanism for blockchain, it’s important to consider the goals of your network. Consensus mechanisms should be resilient, high-performing, and efficient. Nodes should easily be able to follow the rules and participate as needed.

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“Elrond is the first Proof of Stake network to implement all three types of sharding: state, network, and transactions. Maintaining this architecture in a high throughput environment of up to 15,000 transactions per second requires dependable network connectivity and dynamic provisioning capabilities, which DigitalOcean reliably provides to support us on our mission.”

Lucian Mincu, Elrond Network CIO.

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Choosing nodes for blockchain applications Blockchain requires coordinated activity from multiple computers. Any computer connected to the blockchain network is referred to as a node. Nodes are the framework of a blockchain, storing, spreading, and preserving the data in the chain. There are different types of nodes, each having a different job in the validation process and each with unique computing power requirements. Two of the most common types of nodes are full nodes and light nodes.

Full nodes

Light nodes

• Fully validate transactions

• Rely on full nodes for full chain integrity

• Download the entire history of the data • Requires significant computing power • Can't tolerate hypervisor steal or disk latency

• Only download and validate the most recent transactions • Faster than full nodes • Require less computing power

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Full nodes fully validate transactions and download the data of a specific blockchain in its entirety. Full nodes support and provide security to the network. They download the entire history in order to observe and enforce the rules. Since they contain the transaction and data history in its entirety, full nodes also provide increased security to the networks, because each one is capable of carrying on the network itself. In order to lose the data, all full nodes would have to be destroyed—an unlikely scenario in a ledger distributed across multiple computers. Full nodes require a significant amount of computing power and since they are performing both validation and consensus work, they are extremely latency-sensitive both in terms of disk and network. They can’t tolerate hypervisor steal or disk latency.

Full nodes can be “pruned” to save space, essentially taking out some of the older blocks to reduce the disk usage required, but then they require archival nodes— nodes that have the complete historical data of the blockchain—to support them.

This typically won’t reduce the other hardware requirements; they still need significant processing power and RAM to perform the work.

Lightweight or light nodes don’t download the blockchain’s data in its entirety.

Light nodes rely on full nodes for full chain integrity and have to connect to the full node to be able to participate in the validation process. Light nodes download and validate the most recent transactions, making them faster than full nodes and able to run with less computing power, meaning that they need the full nodes to access the history of the data in its entirety. Light nodes have lighter hardware requirements and looser timing requirements and offer significant resource savings.

The core computing requirements depend on the blockchain, but in general full nodes take more CPU than light nodes. Full nodes are more latency-sensitive than light nodes due to their increased processing requirements. If users interact directly with full nodes, the interactions are often cumbersome and inefficient. At DigitalOcean, we recommend running full nodes on dedicated threads.

Full nodes and light nodes can work together, and many proof of work chains take advantage of the strengths of each type of node. In proof of stake chains, full nodes are primarily used for validation and consensus, although the chains are working toward using a full node and light node standard similar to proof of work chains.

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Example infrastructure

Light Node Group

Full/Backplane Node Group

Blockchain Networks

External Users

Basic Droplets

State Storage (i.e. MySQL)

Volumes

(optional, see notes)

Dedicated Threat Droplet

Supporting Services (Ansible, Packer, etc.)

One way to set up the backend infrastructure for a blockchain network includes support from full and light nodes. In the above diagram, the users interact with light nodes and light nodes store the most recent blocks and then sync with the full nodes as transactions occur.

A few things to keep in mind: •

Light nodes typically don’t have dedicated thread requirements, but full nodes do.

•

Full nodes typically don’t require any additional state support as they contain entire copies of the chain and have extremely sensitive disk latency requirements. If you’re running a full node and run out of local disk, you must upsize to the next slug.

•

Supporting services will typically be used for both groups from the same place.

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Choosing a cloud provider Blockchain is hard. It’s an extremely complicated field of tech that’s constantly evolving and changing.

There’s no reason to add even more complexity with your cloud provider. When researching a cloud provider for your blockchain business, consider the following:

CPU considerations Blockchain requires a significant amount of ingress due to chain download and updates and does require data to be egressed to the rest of the network. Take a close look at bandwidth models, benefits, and pricing of potential providers. For example, DigitalOcean provides free ingress and bandwidth pooling.

Uptime considerations Blockchain networks should run well regardless of what provider they are on. Decentralized applications may run anywhere, but that doesn’t mean they’ll run optimally anywhere. Research the cloud agnosticism of potential providers. Find out if there’s lock-in with long contracts or how well they support cloud native computing. Blockchains need extremely reliable services, so finding out about the reliability of any provider you’re considering is important.

Scalability considerations Chains also naturally grow over time. It would be significantly disruptive to destroy and create servers in order to meet chain growth. Choose a cloud provider that enables you to resize your servers.

For example, DigitalOcean allows developers to spin Droplets up and down with the click of a button.

Since blockchain services frequently need to scale up in response to demand, consider choosing a cloud partner that provides a transparent pricing model, enabling you to understand what the costs will be for various levels of demand.

“We started with DigitalOcean and we grew with DigitalOcean. We were pretty ecstatic when we were doing three and a half billion requests a month, which translates to 3,500 requests a second, and now we’re doing 10X that, so DigitalOcean has helped us scale throughout our journey.” – QuickNode

Ease of use considerations Find a cloud provider that enables you to move quickly and efficiently. Blockchain can be extraordinarily complex. A cloud provider that is equally complex can hinder administration and growth. For example, getting an environment up and running in a hyperscaler typically takes a significant amount of time due to configuration accounts, IAM, and more. To move quickly, consider a cloud platform that provides simple, easy-to-use solutions and robust documentation and support. Providers that enable automation via an API and third-party tools like Terraform make managing workloads much easier.

“DigitalOcean has a great workflow that enables us to deploy blockchain nodes quicker and easier, which are key factors that have allowed us to grow as large and as fast as we have to serve more customers.” – Blockspaces

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Blockchain businesses building on DigitalOcean DigitalOcean’s simple, low-cost Droplet virtual machines have proven to be an excellent match for the needs of blockchain businesses. Companies including Blockspaces, QuickNode, and Elrond leverage DigitalOcean’s cloud services to run their blockchain networks and serve thousands of users around the globe.

QuickNode enables developers to integrate with multiple large blockchain networks, including Bitcoin, Ethereum, and Solana, through elastic APIs and dedicated nodes. They provide customers with in-depth analytics and tools that enable businesses to easily create and scale blockchain applications without needing to worry about the blockchain infrastructure.

QuickNode recently raised a $35 million Series A funding round and has been a DigitalOcean user since its inception.

The Elrond blockchain is the second-largest Proof of Stake network in the world after Ethereum 2.0, with 3,200 validator nodes supporting its geographically dispersed main network. When counting the main and backup nodes, as well as several public test networks and auxiliary systems, the Elrond infrastructure spans close to 10,000 servers.

BlockSpaces offers an integration platform that supports connectivity between business applications and blockchain networks through managed infrastructure, no/low code workflows, and robust performance analytics.

The BlockSpaces platform is specially designed for companies that need to deploy blockchain solutions without dealing with the complexities involved in integrating the technology into existing systems. The company has seen 257.2% quarter over quarter growth and 1,678% year over year growth since raising a second seed round of capital in late 2021. BlockSpaces leverages DigitalOcean Droplets, our low-cost virtual machines, and our simple-to-use API and CLI to support their growth.

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About DigitalOcean DigitalOcean simplifies cloud computing so developers and businesses can spend more time building software that changes the world. With its mission-critical infrastructure and fully managed offerings, DigitalOcean helps developers, startups, and small- and medium-sized businesses (SMBs) rapidly build, deploy, and scale applications to accelerate innovation and increase productivity and agility. DigitalOcean combines the power of simplicity, community, open source, and customer support so customers can spend less time managing their infrastructure and more time building innovative applications that drive business growth.

To get started, sign up for an account at DigitalOcean.com.

For more information or help migrating your infrastructure to DigitalOcean, speak to a sales representative.

Community Health Centre Work Plan Report The CEO of your health care organization has asked you to form a task force to increase the number of patients who access your community health center for primary care. You must determine the internal and external partners you would enlist as collaborators.

Executive Summary The community health center management has noted with concern that the number of people visiting the centre has been stagnant for a while. The report will therefore identify the best possible ways that would help the center attract more visitors while providing quality primary care.

Relationship Analysis Community health usually has a strong focus on the wellbeing of the people within a specific area. More so, it helps towards promoting healthy living by preventing disease outbreaks and offering the community people knowledge on how to protect themselves against illnesses. With the existence of a strong community involvement chances of having a healthy community are increased. Studies show that community health can create a positive impact in society ranging from increased productivity and increased life expectancy (Rosenbaum, 2016).

But to achieve these positive impacts, there needs to be a strategy that will create a strong link between the community people and the community health center itself. While the aim is to increase the number of people visiting the center, it is also paramount to maintain the number of frequent visitors. All of these require a strong and sustainable marketing strategy that can identify the target audience and woo them to the center. To implement the strategy then several partners are necessary.

The first partnership would be to identify influence people within the target areas.

Such people are important as they serve as the link between the community people and the community health center. They will be tasked with helping to relay the center's agenda and explaining to the people the objectives of the center besides helping the center to understand the needs of the community. Another partnership to pursue is with a reputable marketing agency that will assist the center to identify the marketing gaps and help develop a strong marketing strategy that will help the center attract new visitors. Finally, working with the respective government health agencies will benefit the center in terms of securing funding to help improve the centers' facilities and services. The agencies also will be able to offer technical expertise to help the center delivery good services to community people.

Problem-Solving Framework Problems will always be there, and the community health center must be cognisant of such and be prepared to solve them when they arise. The basic plan for decision making would include identifying the problem that exists, analyzing the problem in-depth,

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brainstorm on the possible solutions, identify the best possible alternative, implement the possible alternative, and finally undertaking monitoring and evaluation. But problem-solving is not for one person alone rather it requires collaboration from all parties including the major beneficiaries who are the patients.

Ethical Questions When it comes to health, the major stakeholders are the patients and their families and whose interests should be put at the forefront. It is where medical ethics come into play.

The first ethical aspect would be to ensure patient confidentiality. The health of individual patients is a private issue and should be treated as such by the medical professional unless authorized to disclose it. Medical personnel should always respect this aspect (Zucker et.al, 2019). The guiding ethical question would be whether the medical services offered, and patient relationship aims to respect confidentiality.

The second ethical aspect is that medical professionals should act in the best possible way that would benefit the patients. For this to happen, then they must be well trained and knowledgeable in their respective services they offer to patients (Fajadet et.al, 2017). Hence, the guiding ethical question should be whether the medical care offered by the medical professionals is appropriate and in line with the health protocols.

Conclusion Community health centers are aimed at helping promote wellness in the communities they exist in. But they cannot achieve this mandate if no one is visiting the facilities. Hence, this report aims to determine the best way to ensure that the center attracts new visitors and in turn helps it achieve its primary goal of delivering primary health care.

Work Cited Zucker, N. A., Schmitt, C., DeJonckheere, M. J., Nichols, L. P., Plegue, M. A., & Chang, T. (2019). Confidentiality in the doctor-patient relationship: Perspectives of youth ages 14-24 years. The Journal of pediatrics, 213, 196-202.

Rosenbaum, S. (2016). Hospitals as community hubs: Integrating community benefit spending, community health needs assessment and community health improvement.

Economic Studies at Brookings, 5.

Fajadet, J., Wood, S., & Wijns, W. (2017). Live-case demonstrations: putting patients first. European heart journal, 38(42), 3173-3176.

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CS7643_Quiz3_1.

Q1) If you do not have enough data, just use transfer learning since it's always effective (true, false) False

Q2) If we want to use transfer learning for an image captioning task, we need to use a source dataset for image captioning or visual question answering, since image classification by itself is not similar enough (true, false) False

Q3) The source of error where the neural network may not generalize (eg. overfitting due to finite amount of data) to the testing set is known as 1. Testing Error 2. Modeling Error 3. Estimation Error 4. Optimization Error

Q4) Select the following trends of errors that occur as a neural network grows in complexity 1. Estimation error increases 2. Modeling error descreases 3. Modeling error increases 4. Optimization error decreases

Q5) Match the architectures with their key features (drop down and choose) 1. AlexNet - ReLu,Dropout 2. VGG - First Repeated use...

3. Inception Net - Parallel filters...

4. ResNet Skip connections

Q6) If you have a convolutional neural network with a 224x224x3 input layer, convolutional layer with 3x3 filters (padding to keep image size the same, stride 1) and output size of 224x224x64 , pooling layer of output size 112x112x64, and a fully connected layer of output size 1x1x10 how many total parameters does it have (NOT including the bias)?

Q7) If you have a convolutional neural network with a 224x224x3 input layer, convolutional layer with 3x3 filters (padding to keep image size the same, stride 1) output size of 224x224x64 , pooling layer of output size 112x112x64 , and a fully connected layer of output size 1x1x10 ,assuming batch size of 1 how much memory (where memory is defined as number of values) does it use for forward activations (include the image)?

Q8) computation Given

dH, the 2x2 gradient of the cost with respect to the convolutional layer

H, and

3x3 output activations of the previous layer, perform the backward pass and return gradient of the cost with respect to the weights (indexing starts at 1) of the gradient

X, the dW22, the

W . Note that we want the resulting value at [2,2]

dW. Assume the usual convolutional layer implementation

(forward pass is cross-correlation).

Q9) compuuation Given

dH, the 2x2 gradient of the cost with respect to the convolutional layer

weights

W, perform the backward pass and return

respect to

H, and the 2x2

dX22, the gradient of the cost with

X, the output activations from the previous layer. Note that we want the resulting value

at [2,2] (indexing starts at 1) of the gradient

dX. Assume the usual convolutional layer

implementation (forward pass is cross-correlation).

Q10) In implementing CNNs, we actually implement the forwards pass as a cross-correlation. This means that during the backward pass the gradient of the loss with respect to the weights (kernel) is 1. convolution between upstream gradient and input 2. cross-correlation between upstream gradient and input 3. cross-correlation between upstream gradient and kernel Q11) Convolutional layers are 1. neither 2. invariant to all rotations 3. equivariant to all rotations

Q12) In implementing CNNs, we actually implement the forwards pass as a cross-correlation. This means that for the backward pass, the gradient of the loss with respect to the input is 1. convolution between upstream gradient and kernel 2. cross-correlation between upstream gradient and kernel 3. convolution between upstream gradient and input

4. cross-correlation between upstream gradient and input

Q13) Which of the following is TRUE (mark all that apply) 1. black box attacks use gradient ascent to create adversarial inputs.

2. NN's cannot be attacked if no architecture information is available.

3. small pixel changes can lead to large changes in output scores.

4. DL methods uniquely suffer from adversarial perturbations.

Q14) Which of the following statements is TRUE about Guided Backprop (mark all that apply) 1. helps the optimization find better minima 2. may give us segmentation masks for free 3. can be paired with other techniques improving visualizations 4. zeroes out positive gradient.

Q15) Find the BEST Match: style transfer content loss -> my answer: Minimizes L2 (MSE) between output image and input image style transfer style loss -> my answer: Minimizes L2 (MSE) between gram matrices of features Focal Loss -> my answer:Down-weights loss for well classified examples Cross Entropy -> my answer: Attention mechanism that focuses on relevant features.

Q16) Which of the following is FALSE about image segmentation?

1. Fully connected layers can be replaced with convolutions 2. The decoder in this architecture can only work with learnable kernels 3. The output is another image where each pixel conveys its class distribution 4. Larger output sizes can be used via upsampling

Q17) Select all that is TRUE about calibration. (mark all that apply) 1. Imperfect classifiers cannot have equal calibration and error rates between groups that vary in prevalence 2. Platt scaling is useful for calibration in multiclass classification (>2 classes) 3. Well calibrated classifiers have probability scores of labels that match the proportion of observations having that label 4. For there to be group calibration, the scores for each of the subgroups of interest must be

calibrated

Q18) Perform a transposed convolution on input matrix Solve for o11, o22, o33 in the output matrix.

X = [[0,1],[2,3]] W = [[1,2],[3,4]]

Q19) Which of the following is FALSE about receptive field (mark all that apply): 1. Decreases as we go deeper in a CNN 2. Is the set of input pixels that affect the values of a particular activation in the network.

3. Fully Connected Layers have a strictly larger receptive field versus Convolutional Layers 4. All pixels in a receptive field contribute equally to the output response for convolutional layers.

5. Adding pooling increases the receptive field of a CNN