Sensation and Perception 10th Edition Bruce Goldstein; James TEST BANK

TEST BANK Sensation and Perception by Goldstein and James Brockmole

TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1. Introduction to Perception Chapter 2. The Beginning of the Perceptual Process Chapter 3. Neural Processing Chapter 4. Cortical Organization Chapter 5. Perceiving Objects and Scenes Chapter 6. Visual Attention Chapter 7. Taking Action Chapter 8. Perceiving Motion Chapter 9. Perceiving Color Chapter 10. Perceiving Depth and Size Chapter 11. Hearing Chapter 12. Hearing II: Location and Organization Chapter 13. Speech Perception Chapter 14. The Cutaneous Senses Chapter 15. The Chemical Senses

CHAPTER 1.

1 : Perceiving machines that can negotiate the environment with humanlike ease A : were developed by computer scientists in the 1960s B : were developed by computer scientists in the 1970s C : were developed by computer scientists in the 1990s D : have yet to be developed

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Correct Answer : D 2 : Because perception is something you experience interesting in its own right.

A : Intermittently B : when necessary C : when important D : constantly

, knowing about how it works is

Correct Answer : D 3 : The only way to see, hear, taste, smell, and feel what you want to experience is by A : identifying stimulus inputs B : discriminating among similar stimuli C : developing necessary cognitive constructs D : activating sensory receptors

.

Correct Answer : D 4 : Stevens auditory receptors were damaged failing to use hearing protection when working in a loud environment. As a result, we can expect that .

A : the areas of his brain associated with auditory perception will have diminished considerably in size B : he is almost certainly permanently and completely disabled and likely to require assistance to live independently C : he will be unable to work without special support, such as the use of hearing aids D : his auditory experiences will differ from those of an individual whose receptors have not been damaged Correct Answer : D 5 : Which of the following is the first category of the stages in the perceptual process?

A : stimuli B : neural Processing C : serendipity D : behavioral responses Correct Answer : A 6 : The process of transforming energy in the environment into electrical energy in the neurons is called .

A : refraction B : transduction C : reduction 1/9

D : Construction Correct Answer : B 7: is the step in the perceptual process that is analogous to what happens during an ATM withdrawal, when pressure from button press becomes electrical energy, and then becomes a mechanical response resulting in the dispensing of money.

A : Knowledge B : Transference C : Action D : Transduction Correct Answer : D 8 : The specific term for the stimulus on the receptors in visual processing is the A : transduced image B : environmental stimulus C : visual image D : perception

.

Correct Answer : C 9 : The image projected on the retina is best described as a(n) A : representation B : environmental stimulus C : replication D : scale model

of the actual stimulus.

Correct Answer : A 10 : Which brain structure is responsible for creating perceptions and producing other high level functions such as language, memory, and thinking?

A : brain stem B : cerebral cortex C : hypothalamus D : occipital lobe Correct Answer : B 11 : Visual form agnosia is a problem of the A : action B : attention C : transduction D : recognition

step of the perceptual process.

Correct Answer : D 12 : Which statement best describes the steps of the perceptual process?

A : The steps are unidirectional, starting at the environmental stimulus and ending at perception.

B : The steps are unidirectional, starting at the environmental stimulus and ending at knowledge.

C : The steps are unidirectional, starting at transduction and ending at recognition.

D : The sequence of steps is dynamic and constantly changing.

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Correct Answer : D 13 : If a person sees the unambiguous rat stimulus, and then views the ambiguous rat-man figure, the person will most likely report seeing .

A : a rat, because of the effect of knowledge B : a man, because we tend to see things that match our species C : a rat, because of the effect of action D : a rat or a man equally Correct Answer : A 14 : Justin forgot to wear his glasses to class so the writing he sees on the chalk board is blurry.

Even so, he is sure it says Pop Quiz! because he knows that there are pop quizzes in the class and he can read the P and the Q. What allows him to read the board?

A : bottom-up processing B : oblique processing C : top-down processing D : compression Correct Answer : C 15 : processing is based on the stimuli reaching the receptors.

A : Bottom-up B : Oblique C : Top-down D : Receptor Correct Answer : A 16 : Trying to read a note written by someone with poor handwriting involves A : only top-down processing B : only bottom-up processing C : both top-down and bottom-up processing D : only data-based processing

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Correct Answer : C 17 : The physiological level of analysis involves the relationship between A : stimulus-and-physiology only B : physiology-and-perception only C : stimulus-and-perception only D : both stimulus-and-physiology and physiology-and-perception

.

Correct Answer : D 18 : Kimmy is casting shadows on the wall and watching whether her cat Tiger jumps at the shadows or not. She uses different hand motions to see if there is a difference in whether Tiger jumps or not. Kimmy is informally studying which relationship?

A : the stimulus-physiology relationship B : the physiology-perception relationship C : the stimulus-perception relationship D : the perception-behavior relationship 3/9

Correct Answer : C 19 : Cognitive influences affect level of analysis.

A : only the physiological B : only the psychophysical C : both the physiological and psychophysical D : neither the physiological nor psychophysical Correct Answer : C 20 : The psychophysical method in which stimuli of varying intensities are presented in ascending and descending orders in discrete steps is called the method of .

A : limits B : constant stimuli C : searching D : scaling Correct Answer : A 21 : When using the method of limits, the absolute threshold is determined by calculating .

A : the stimulus intensity detected 66% of the time B : the stimulus intensity detected 75% of the time C : the stimulus intensity detected 100% of the time D : the average of the cross-over values Correct Answer : D 22 : The method of limits takes into account the variability of human perception by A : consistently presenting subliminal stimuli to avoid bias B : using deception to hide the true purpose C : averaging the results of a number of trials D : measuring brain activity concurrently

.

Correct Answer : C 23 : Fechners and Webers methods not only made it possible to measure the ability to detect stimuli, but also made it possible to .

A : determine mechanisms responsible for experiences B : identify the subconscious rationales for the responses C : provide scientific justification for introspection D : localize brain lesions responsible for poor performance Correct Answer : A 24 : The smallest difference between two stimuli that enables us to tell the difference between them is called the .

A : necessary difference B : difference threshold C : discriminant equation D : determinant level 4/9

Correct Answer : B 25 : Based on the dark adaptation curve, you would expect the absolute threshold to time in a darkened room increases.

A : get larger B : remain unchanged C : get smaller D : vary unpredictably

as

Correct Answer : C 26 : One of the important limitations of the knowledge derived from determining thresholds is that .

A : perception includes far more than just what happens at the threshold B : the methods are based fundamentally on introspection C : the outcomes are of extremely limited reliability D : generalization from the laboratory to real life is not possible Correct Answer : A 27 : Ilsa recently had a stroke that has damaged her ability to name objects. Her neurologist shows Ilsa a pen and asks her to name what it is. This is best described as a test of .

A : recognition B : Magnitude C : reaction time D : description Correct Answer : A 28 : The game Whack-a-Mole, in which the player must whack randomly appearing moles with a hammer as quickly as possible when they peek their heads out, is best described as a task.

A : recognition B : magnitude C : reaction time D : Description Correct Answer : C 29 : Tina is a medical laboratory worker who is being trained to read the results of certain laboratory tests. In this phase of her training, she looks at prepared slides and then writes a summary of what she sees. This task is best described as a(n) task.

A : recognition B : magnitude C : reaction time D : description Correct Answer : D 30 : Which methods are used to measure the quantitative relationship between the stimulus and perception?

A : description B : the phenomenological methods 5/9

C : reflection D : classical psychophysical methods Correct Answer : D 31 : Fechners psychophysical methods .

A : are important from a historical perspective only B : were developed in the early 1960s C : showed that mental activity cannot be measured quantitatively D : are currently used to test a persons hearing and vision Correct Answer : D 32 : The first step in the procedure for is to present the participant a standard stimulus and assign a numerical value to that stimulus.

A : Recognition B : Description C : phenomenological method D : magnitude estimation Correct Answer : D 33 : The method of magnitude estimation yields a measure of A : objective B : perceived C : difference D : absolute

magnitude.

Correct Answer : B 34 : As a part of the interview process for his dream job quality control at a small, luxury chocolate manufacturer Tony is asked to taste small pieces of chocolate and then describe what he tastes. Tony is most likely being asked to provide a(n) .

A : phenomenological report B : magnitude estimation C : adaptation curve D : absolute thresholds Correct Answer : A 35 : The question What do you see? is asking about A : sensation B : discrimination C : recognition D : perception

.

Correct Answer : D 36 : The question What is it? is asking about A : sensation B : discrimination C : recognition D : perception

.

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Correct Answer : C 37 : Classical psychophysical methods opened the way for the founding of scientific psychology by providing methods to measure .

A : an aspect of the mind B : neurological activation C : response bias D : multicultural effects Correct Answer : A 38 : Nelia is riding in a car and notices that stationary objects closer to her move faster than stationary objects that are further. Nelia is using the technique regarding perception of a stimulus.

A : detection B : search C : phenomenological D : magnitude estimation Correct Answer : C 39 : Michaela lives near the railroad tracks and often hears the loud bangs associated with cars being added to trains. When a friend of hers is visiting, the friend becomes alarmed at the sounds, wondering what they are but Michaela is able to reassure her friend that it is a normal train-related sound. Michaelas skills, at least in this situation, are superior to her friends.

A : recognition B : detection C : search D : adjustment Correct Answer : A 40 : Abdel works for a company that designs adapted products to help people who have trouble grasping items. Today he is meeting with children who have difficulty grasping as a result of traumatic brain injury and has provided them with a supply of crayons that have been adapted in various ways. Abdel watches as the children color with the crayons. Which question is he most likely asking?

A : How quickly do the children react to the crayons?

B : How do the children interact with the crayons?

C : How do the children describe the crayons?

D : Can the children identify the crayons?

Correct Answer : B 41 : The spectrum is a band of energy ranging from gamma rays at the short-wave end of the spectrum to AM radio and AC circuits at the long-wave end.

A : light B : sound C : electromagnetic D : perceptual Correct Answer : C 7/9

42 : According to Ludy Benjamin, if changes in physical stimuli always resulted in similar changes in perception of those stimuli, .

A : the world would be unbearably complex B : remediation of sensory deficits would be impossible C : there would be no need for psychology D : the neurophysiology of perception would be clear Correct Answer : C

ESSAY 43 : Discuss the difference between sensation and perception.

Correct Answer : Sensation is often identified as involving simple “elementary” processes that occur right at the beginning of a sensory system, as when light stimulates receptors in the eye.

In contrast, perception is identified with complex processes that involve higher-order mechanisms such as interpretation and memory that involve activity in the brain. It is therefore often stated that sensation involves detecting elementary properties of a stimulus (Carlson, 2010), and that perception involves the higher brain functions involved in interpreting events and objects (Myers, 2004).?

44 : Name the five questions about the perceptual world outlined in the text and provide an example for each.

Correct Answer : What is the perceptual magnitude of a stimulus? What is the identity of the stimulus? How quickly can someone react to the stimulus? How can what is “out there” be described? How can someone interact with what is “out there?” Examples will vary. ?

45 : List seven steps from a stimulus in the environment to an action by the perceiving individual, illustrating each step with an example.

Correct Answer : Stimulus in the environment Stimulus passes through the environment to the receptors Receptor processes Neural processing Perception Recognition Action Examples will vary.

46 : (a) Define top-down and bottom-up processing. (b) Discuss how the rat-man demonstration is used to exemplify the distinction between these two types of processing.

Correct Answer : Bottom-up processing (also called data-based processing) is processing that is based on the stimuli reaching the receptors. Top-down processing (also called knowledgebased processing) refers to processing that is based on knowledge. ? The rat–man demonstration shows how recently acquired knowledge (“that pattern is a rat”) can influence perception. When individuals are initially shown a figure that looks like a rat, they are more likely to identify an ambiguous rat-man figure as a rat while those who initially see a man are more likely to identify it as a man, 47 : Name and provide examples of the three relationships used to study perceptual processes.

Correct Answer : Relationship A: The stimulus–perception relationship Relationship B: The stimulus–physiological relationship Relationship C: The physiology–perception relationship 8/9

48 : Describe the method of limits and how it is used.

Correct Answer : In the method of limits, the experimenter presents stimuli in either ascending order (intensity is increased) or descending order (intensity is decreased). For example, suppose an experimenter is studying the perception of tones. On the first series of trials, the experimenter begins by presenting a tone with an intensity we will call 103, and the observer indicates by a “yes” response that he hears the tone. This response is indicated by a Y at an intensity of 103 in the far left column of the table. The experimenter then presents another tone, at a lower intensity, and the observer responds to this tone. This procedure continues, with the observer making a judgment at each intensity until he responds “no,” he did not hear the tone.

This change from “yes” to “no,” indicated by the dashed line, is the crossover point, and the threshold for this series is taken as the mean between 99 and 98, or 98.5. The next series of trials begins below the observer’s threshold, so that he says “no” on the first trial (intensity 95), and continues until he says “yes” (when the intensity reaches 100). Notice that the crossover point when starting below the threshold is slightly different. Because the crossover points may vary slightly, this procedure is repeated a number of times, starting above the threshold half the time and starting below the threshold half the time. The threshold is then determined by calculating the average of all of the crossover points.?

49 : What is meant by the absolute threshold? What about the difference threshold?

Correct Answer : The absolute threshold is the smallest stimulus level that can just be detected.

The difference threshold is the smallest difference between two stimuli that enables us to tell the difference between them.

50 : Why is the difference between physical and perceptual important?

Correct Answer : What physical measuring instruments record and what we perceive are two different things. The Hermann grid creates an “illusory perception” in which we perceive dark spots that aren’t physically present. But sometimes we fail to perceive stimuli that are physically present. Perception is psychology, not physics, and perceptual responses are not necessarily the same as the responses of physical measuring devices.?

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CHAPTER 2 1 : Our perception of the environment begins with A : energy B : the proximal stimulus C : the distal stimulus D : cognition

.

Correct Answer : C 2 : Visible light is between A : 100; 400 B : 400; 700 C : 500; 1000 D : 900; 1500

and

nm within the electromagnetic spectrum.

Correct Answer : B 3 : A wavelength of 10,000 meters would fall in the spectrum.

A : X-rays B : radio wave C : infrared rays D : gamma rays

range of the electromagnetic

Correct Answer : B 4 : The electromagnetic spectrum is a continuum of electromagnetic energy that is produced by and is radiated as .

A : electric charges; waves B : magnetism; waves C : electric charges; magnetism D : magnetism; electric charges Correct Answer : A 5 : The structure of the eye that provides about 80% of the eyes focusing power is the A : iris B : pupil C : cornea D : lens

.

Correct Answer : C 6 : Jan tries to focus on the tip of her pencil as she brings it closer to her. She feels the strain on her eye as she does this. What she is feeling in her eye is due to the process called .

A : inhibition B : reflection C : accommodation D : assimilation Correct Answer : C 1 / 12

7 : The ciliary muscles change the shape of the focusing power.

A : iris B : pupil C : cornea D : lens

, providing about 20% of the eyes

Correct Answer : D 8 : Loreleis mother is 60 years old, and, because of the condition called difficult time bringing near objects into focus.

A : cataracts B : diplopia C : presbyopia D : retinitis pigmentosa

, she has a

Correct Answer : C 9 : In , the eyeball is too long, resulting in difficulty seeing far objects.

A : axial myopia B : refractive myopia C : axial hyperopia D : refractive hyperopia Correct Answer : A 10 : Individuals with myopia may have difficulty seeing are also referred to as being .

A : nearby; farsighted B : nearby; nearsighted C : distant; farsighted D : distant; nearsighted

objects clearly. Often times, they

Correct Answer : D 11 : Vera has hyperopia, and tends to get headaches when she reads. This might be because .

A : Vera also has presbyopia and has the constant need to accommodate B : Vera also has myopia and is unable to accommodate C : Vera has just had LASIK surgery and her ciliary muscles are damaged D : Vera is 5-years-old and lacks the visual acuity to read Correct Answer : A 12 : The visual pigment molecules are contained in the A : inner segments of the visual receptors B : outer segments of the visual receptors C : axons of the rods D : axons of the cones

.

Correct Answer : B 2 / 12

13 : reacts to light to start the process of transduction.

A : Opsin B : Retinal C : Choroid D : Thyric acid Correct Answer : B 14 : The isomerization of a single pigment molecule triggers what is best described as a A : chain reaction B : ballistic expansion C : hyperactive potential D : hypopolarization wave

.

Correct Answer : A 15 : Which of the following is true about the difference between the rods and the cones?

A : The rods control vision in high illumination conditions, and the cones controlvision in low illumination conditions.

B : The rods are packed in an area called the fovea, and the cones are found more in the peripheral retina.

C : There are about 120 million rods in the human eye and about 6 million cones.

D : The only difference between the rods and the cones is physical shape.

Correct Answer : C 16 : A retinal condition that destroys the cones in the fovea is A : macular degeneration B : retinitis pigmentosa C : presbyopia D : retinal hypopolarization

.

Correct Answer : A 17 : In the early stages of peripheral vision.

A : macular degeneration B : retinitis pigmentosa C : presbyopia D : retinal hypopolarization

, peripheral rod receptors are destroyed leading to poorer

Correct Answer : B 18 : The blind spot is located .

A : in the fovea B : in the vitreous C : where the optic nerve leaves the eye D : at the optic chiasm Correct Answer : C 19 : Nina does a demonstration of seeing the blind spot, in which a grid pattern surrounds the black dot that disappears when it falls on the blind spot. What does Nina most likely see in the 3 / 12

area where the dot disappears?

A : a blurry gray area B : a white circle C : nothing D : a continuation of the grid pattern Correct Answer : D 20 : The episode of Mythbusters cited in the textbook demonstrated that dark adaptation was the reason why .

A : poker players wear sunglasses B : pirates wore eyepatches C : cardinals have good night vision D : cats have good night vision Correct Answer : B 21 : To isolate the rod portion of the dark adaptation curve, researchers A : use rod monochromats as the participants B : present the stimulus foveally C : present the stimulus in the periphery D : use cone monochromats as participants

.

Correct Answer : A 22 : The rod-cone break in the dark adaptation curve occurs after about A : 30 seconds B : 2 minutes C : 7 minutes D : 30 minutes

in the dark.

Correct Answer : C 23 : When visual pigments become bleached they are A : dead B : fully regenerated C : color sensitive D : detached from the opsin

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Correct Answer : D 24 : Rushton demonstrated that the physiological mechanism behind dark adaptation is A : visual pigment regeneration B : the enzyme cascade C : modular organization D : photon remission

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Correct Answer : A 25 : Cone spectral sensitivity is measured by having the observer A : look up and blink B : look straight forward without blinking C : look directly into a light

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D : look to the side of a flashing light Correct Answer : C 26 : The peak in the spectral sensitivity curve is about the cones.

A : 700 nm; 400 nm B : 450 nm; 800 nm C : 500 nm; 560 nm D : 600 nm; 450 nm

for the rods, and about

for

Correct Answer : C 27 : The Purkinje shift .

A : occurs when reds appear brighter than blues in well-lit conditions, but blues appear brighter than reds in dim conditions B : occurs when blues appear brighter than reds in well-lit conditions, but blues appear brighter than reds in dim conditions C : occurs when details that are easily seen in well-lit conditions become more difficult to see in low-light conditions D : demonstrates the importance of eye movements in visual pigment regeneration Correct Answer : A 28 : There are A:2 B:3 C:4 D:7

different cone receptors, each with different absorption spectra.

Correct Answer : B 29 : The three major parts of a neuron are A : dendrites, cell body, and axon B : axon, nerve fiber, and receptor C : receptor, transmitter, and median D : receptor, dendrites, and conductor

.

Correct Answer : A 30 : The difference in charge between the inside and the outside of the nerve fiber when the nerve is at rest is mV. A : 70 B : 10 C:0 D : +19 Correct Answer : A 31 : Which of the following statements best defines the propagated response?

A : Once a response is triggered, the response travels the length of the axon without decreasing in amplitude.

B : Once a response is triggered, the response gradually increases in amplitude as it travels 5 / 12

down the length of the axon.

C : The response increases the positive charge of the chlorine ions throughout the length of the axon.

D : The number of negative potassium ions increase the closer the impulse is to the dendrites.

Correct Answer : A 32 : As stimulus intensity is increased, recording from a single neuron shows that .

A : the amplitude of the action potential increases B : the amplitude of the action potential decreases C : the amplitude of the action potential may increase or decrease, depending on the stimulus D : the rate of firing of the nerve fiber increases Correct Answer : D 33 : The upper limit of a neurons firing rate is estimated to be A : 20 B : 100 C : 800 D : 4400

impulses per second.

Correct Answer : C 34 : At the beginning of the action potential, nerve fiber.

A : positive potassium B : negative potassium C : positive sodium D : negative sodium

ions flow from outside the nerve fiber into the

Correct Answer : C 35 : The flow of ions that create the action potential are caused by the changes in the the nerve fiber.

A : suppression B : permeability C : accommodation D : assimilation

of

Correct Answer : B 36 : Synaptic vesicles contain chemicals called the next neuron.

A : electrolytes B : collagens C : neurotransmitters D : glial cells

that are released across the synapse to

Correct Answer : C 37 : The analogy is used to describe the relationship of neurotransmitters with receptor sites.

A : needle in a haystack 6 / 12

B : lock and key C : stadium wave D : rolling stone Correct Answer : B 38 : is the process by which inhibitory transmitters cause the inside of the neuron to become more negative.

A : Hyperpolarization B : Depolarization C : Antipolarization D : Repolarization Correct Answer : A 39 : The rate of firing of the postsynaptic neuron depends on the amount of receives from the presynaptic neuron.

A : excitation B : inhibition C : equalization D : both excitation and inhibition

input it

Correct Answer : D 40 : is necessary for the neural transmission and processing of information.

A : Only inhibition B : Only excitation C : Only equalization D : Both inhibition and excitation Correct Answer : D 41 : Rods and cones synapse with A : ganglion; bipolar B : bipolar; ganglion C : amacrine; unipolar D : amacrine; bipolar

cells, which then synapse with

cells.

Correct Answer : B 42 : Converging circuits with excitation and inhibition are associated most closely with which step of the perceptual process?

A : recognition B : attention C : neural processing D : the environmental stimulus Correct Answer : C 43 : If we compare how the rods and cones converge onto other retinal neurons, we find that .

A : foveal cones converge more than the peripheral rods B : rods and cones converge equally 7 / 12

C : rods converge more than foveal cones D : horizontal cells converge onto the peripheral cones Correct Answer : C 44 : Convergence results in A : increased; increased B : increased; decreased C : decreased; decreased D : decreased; increased

sensitivity and

acuity.

Correct Answer : B 45 : Reading the eye chart in an optometrists office is used to measure A : acuity B : sensitivity C : receptive fields D : creativity

.

Correct Answer : A 46 : Acuity is better in the A : periphery; fovea B : optic disk; fovea C : optic disk; cornea D : fovea; periphery

than in the

.

Correct Answer : D 47 : The difficulty of reading under dim light conditions can be explained by .

A : the increased sensitivity of cones under low light conditions B : the increased acuity of cones under low light conditions C : the fact that rod functioning predominates during dark adaptation, resulting in poor acuity D : the fact that cone functioning predominates during dark adaptation, resulting in poor acuity Correct Answer : C 48 : The stimuli used in the preferential looking technique of testing infant acuity are A : geons B : gratings C : greebles D : graftings

.

Correct Answer : B 49 : Acuity develops to almost 20/20 vision by the time the infant is A : one month old B : two months old C : one year old D : two years old

.

Correct Answer : C 8 / 12

50 : Which of the following is a reason for the poor acuity of newborns?

A : The rods are not developed at birth.

B : Newborns have too much visual pigment in the cones.

C : A newborns rods have very narrow inner segments.

D : The visual cortex of the newborn is only partially developed.

Correct Answer : D

ESSAY 51 : Name and define three kinds of focusing problems.

Correct Answer : When you changed focus from far away to the nearby pencil point during this demonstration, you were changing your accommodation. Either near objects or far objects can be in focus, but not both at the same time. Accommodation, therefore, makes it possible to adjust vision for different distances. However, as people get older, their ability to accommodate decreases due to hardening of the lens and weakening of the ciliary muscles, and so they become unable to accommodate enough to see objects, or read, at close range. This loss of the ability to accommodate, called presbyopia (for “old eye”), can be dealt with by wearing reading glasses, which brings near objects into focus by replacing the focusing power that can no longer be provided by the lens. ? Another problem that can be solved by a corrective lens is myopia, or nearsightedness, an inability to see distant objects clearly. Myopia occurs when the optical system brings parallel rays of light into focus at a point in front of the retina, so the image that reaches the retina is blurred. This problem can be caused by either of two factors: (1) refractive myopia, in which the cornea and/ or the lens bends the light too much, or (2) axial myopia, in which the eyeball is too long. Either way, images of faraway objects are not focused sharply, so objects look blurred. Corrective lenses can solve this problem. ? Finally, people with hyperopia, or farsightedness, can see distant objects clearly but have trouble seeing nearby objects because the focus point for parallel rays of light is located behind the retina, usually because the eyeball is too short. Young people can bring the image forward onto the retina by accommodating. However, older people, who have difficulty accommodating, often use corrective lenses that bring the focus point forward onto the retina.

52 : (a) Discuss the major differences between the rods and the cones. (b) Describe two retinal disorders that differentially affect the rods and the cones.

Correct Answer : There are two types of visual receptors, rods and cones, so called because of the rod- and cone-shaped outer segments. The rod and cone receptors not only have different shapes; they are also distributed differently across the retina. One small area, the fovea, contains only cones. When we look directly at an object, the object’s image falls on the fovea.

The peripheral retina, which includes all of the retina outside of the fovea, contains both rods and cones. It is important to note that although the fovea has only cones, there are also many cones in the peripheral retina. ? A condition called macular degeneration, which is most common in older people, destroys the cone-rich fovea and a small area that surrounds it.

(Macula is a term usually associated with medical practice that includes the fovea plus a small area surrounding the fovea.) This creates a blind region in central vision, so when a person looks directly at something, he or she loses sight of it. ? Another condition, called retinitis pigmentosa, is a degeneration of the retina that is passed from one generation to the next (although not always affecting everyone in a family). This condition first attacks the peripheral rod receptors and results in poor vision in the peripheral visual field. The peripheral retina contains many more rods than cones because there are about 120 million rods and only 6 9 / 12

million cones in the retina.

53 : (a) What is the blind spot? (b) Discuss two reasons why we are not usually aware of the blind spot.

Correct Answer : There is one area in the retina where there are no receptors. This occurs where the nerve fibers that make up the optic nerve leave the eye. Because of the absence of receptors, this place is called the blind spot. One reason we are not usually aware of the blind spot is that the blind spot is located off to the side of our visual field, where objects are not in sharp focus. Because of this and because we don’t know exactly where to look for it, the blind spot is hard to detect. But the most important reason that we don’t see the blind spot is that some mechanism in the brain “fills in” the place where the image disappears.?

54 : (a) Draw a graph (with appropriate axis labels) of the dark adaptation curve. (b) Describe the methodology used to isolate the rod component of the curve, and the cone component.

Correct Answer : Refer to Figure 2.13 in the text, which shows three dark adaptation curves.

The dark adaptation curve shows that as adaptation proceeds, the subject becomes more sensitive to the light. Note that higher sensitivity is at the bottom of this graph, so movement of the dark adaptation curve downward means that the subject’s sensitivity is increasing. The red dark adaptation curve indicates that the subject’s sensitivity increases in two phases. It increases rapidly for the first 3 to 4 minutes after the light is extinguished and then levels off. At about 7 to 10 minutes, it begins increasing again and continues to do so until the subject has been in the dark for about 20 or 30 minutes. The sensitivity at the end of dark adaptation, labeled dark-adapted sensitivity, is about 100,000 times greater than the light-adapted sensitivity measured before dark adaptation began. ? The figure shows three dark adaptation curves. The red line is the two-stage dark adaptation curve, with an initial cone branch and a later rod branch, which occurs when the test light is in the peripheral retina. The green line is the cone adaptation curve, which occurs when the test light falls on the fovea. The purple curve is the rod adaptation curve measured in a rod monochromat. Note that the downward movement of these curves represents an increase in sensitivity. The curves actually begin at the points indicating “light-adapted sensitivity,” but there is a slight delay between the time the lights are turned off and when measurement of the curves begins. ? To measure dark adaptation of the cones alone, we have to ensure that the image of the test light falls only on cones. We achieve this by having the subject look directly at the test light so its image falls on the all-cone fovea, and by making the test light small enough so that its entire image falls within the fovea. ? In order to reveal how the sensitivity of the rods is changing at the very beginning of dark adaptation, we need to measure dark adaptation in a per- son who has no cones. Such people, who have no cones because of a rare genetic defect, are called rod monochromats. Their allrod retinas provide a way for us to study rod dark adaptation without interference from the cones. Because the rod monochromat has no cones, the light-adapted sensitivity we measure just before we turn off the lights is determined by the rods.

55 : What are the basic properties of action potentials?

Correct Answer : An important property of the action potential is that it is a propagated response - once the response is triggered, it travels all the way down the axon without decreasing in size. ? Another property is that the action potential remains the same size no matter how intense the stimulus is. Changing the stimulus intensity does not affect the size of the action potentials but does affect the rate of firing. ? Although increasing the stimulus intensity can increase the rate of firing, there is an upper limit to the number of nerve impulses per second that can be conducted down an axon. This limit occurs because of a property of the axon called the refractory period - the interval between the time one nerve impulse occurs and the next one can 10 / 12

be generated in the axon. ? Action potentials that occur in the absence of stimuli from the environment are called spontaneous activity. This spontaneous activity establishes a baseline level of firing for the neuron.

56 : Describe the process of synaptic transmission. Include in this description the differences between excitatory and inhibitory transmitters.

Correct Answer : Early in the 1900s, it was discovered that when action potentials reach the end of a neuron, they trigger the release of chemicals called neurotransmitters that are stored in structures called synaptic vesicles in the sending neuron. The neurotransmitter molecules flow into the synapse to small areas on the receiving neuron called receptor sites that are sensitive to specific neurotransmitters. These receptor sites exist in a variety of shapes that match the shapes of particular neurotransmitter molecules. ? Thus, when an electrical signal reaches the synapse, it triggers a chemical process that causes a new electrical signal in the receiving neuron. The nature of this signal depends on both the type of transmitter that is released and the nature of the receptor sites in the receiving neuron. Two types of responses can occur at these receptor sites, excitatory and inhibitory. An excitatory response occurs when the inside of the neuron becomes more positive, a process called depolarization. An inhibitory response occurs when the inside of the neuron becomes more negative, a process called hyperpolarization. ? Hyperpolarization is an inhibitory response because it causes the charge inside the axon to move away from the level of depolarization, indicated by the dashed line, needed to generate an action potential.

57 : Using words and/or diagrams, describe circuits with (a) no convergence and (b) convergence.

Correct Answer : Convergence occurs when a number of neurons synapse onto a single neuron. A great deal of convergence occurs in the retina because each eye has 126 million receptors but only 1 million ganglion cells. An important difference between rods and cones is that the signals from the rods converge more than do the signals from the cones. This difference between rod and cone convergence becomes even greater when we consider the cones in the fovea. Many of these foveal cones have “private lines” to ganglion cells, so that each ganglion cell receives signals from only one cone, with no convergence. ? Many rods sum their responses by feeding into the same ganglion cell, but only one or a few cones send their responses to any one ganglion cell. The fact that rod and cone sensitivity is determined not by individual receptors but by groups of receptors converging onto other neurons means that when we describe “rod vision” and “cone vision”, we are actually referring to the way groups of rods and cones participate in determining our perceptions.

58 : (a) In words and/or diagrams, discuss why convergence of the rods results in increased sensitivity, but decreased acuity. (b) In words and/or diagrams, discuss why the lack of convergence in the foveal cones results in decreased sensitivity, but increased acuity.

Correct Answer : When we present two spots of light next to each other, the rod’s signals cause the ganglion cell to fire. When we separate the two spots, the two separated rods feed into the same ganglion cell and cause it to fire. In both cases, the ganglion cell fires. Thus, firing of the ganglion cell provides no information about whether there are two spots close together or two separated spots. ? When we present a light that stimulates two neighboring cones, two adjacent ganglion cells fire. But when we separate the spots, two more-distantly separated ganglion cells fire. This separation between two firing cells provides information that there are two separate spots of light. Thus, the cones’ lack of convergence causes cone vision to have higher acuity than rod vision. ? Convergence is therefore a double-edged sword. High convergence results in high sensitivity but poor acuity (the rods). Low convergence results in 11 / 12

low sensitivity but high acuity (cones). The way the rods and cones are wired up in the retina, therefore, influences what we perceive.

59 : Describe how preferential looking and visual evoked potentials technique have been used to study infant perception.

Correct Answer : In the preferential looking (PL) technique, two stimuli are presented, and the experimenter watches the infant’s eyes to determine where the infant is looking. In order to guard against bias, the experimenter does not know which stimulus is being presented on the left or right. If the infant looks at one stimulus more than the other, the experimenter concludes that he or she can tell the difference between them. ? Visual evoked potential (VEP) is recorded by disc electrodes placed on the infant’s head over the visual cortex. For this technique, researchers alternate a gray field with a grating or checkerboard pattern. If the stripes or checks are large enough to be detected by the visual system, the visual cortex generates an electrical response called the visual evoked potential. If, however, the stripes are too fine to be detected by the visual system, no response is generated. Thus, the VEP provides an objective measure of the visual system’s ability to detect details.

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CHAPTER 3 1 : Hartline et al. (1956) selected the Limulus to demonstrate lateral inhibition because A : it was possible to illuminate a single receptor without illuminating its adjacent receptor B : it was readily available to him and was extremely easy to breed in the lab C : the Limulus eye contained more cones than rods D : the Limulus has excellent color vision

.

Correct Answer : A 2 : A receptor array in the Limulus is connected by the lateral plexus. Receptor A is located 5 receptors to the left of Receptor B. What stimulation will result in the greatest firing rate recorded from A? A : stimulate A with 10 units of illumination B : stimulate A with 10 units of illumination and stimulate B with 10 units C : stimulate A with 10 units of illumination and stimulate B with 20 units D : stimulate A with 5 units of illumination and stimulate B with 20 units Correct Answer : A 3: : Limulus :: : human retina.

A : Horizontal cells; amacrine cells B : Amacrine cells; horizontal cells C : Lateral plexus; horizontal and amacrine cells D : Lateral plexus; rods Correct Answer : C 4 : Human lateral inhibition is most likely accomplished by A : end-stopped cells B : extrastriate cells C : bipolar cells D : dissociative cells

.

Correct Answer : C 5 : Lateral inhibition has previously been used to explain .

A : the Hermann Grid only B : Mach bands and the Hermann Grid, but not the Chevreul illusion C : Chevreul illusion only D : the Hermann Grid and Mach bands, and the Chevreul illusion Correct Answer : D 6 : The gray intersections in the Hermann Grid .

A : are physically present B : are explained by dark adaptation C : support the claim that perception is not the same as the physical stimulus D : support the claim that what is learned in animals is not applicable to humans Correct Answer : C

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7 : In Hermanns grid, a possible explanation for why gray areas appear at the intersections is because .

A : the amount of inhibition right at the intersections is twice as great as the inhibition between each square B : the amount of inhibition right at the intersections is much less than the inhibition between each square C : the superior colliculus responds maximally as you move your eye from intersection to intersection D : moving the eye creates a blur at all the intersections Correct Answer : A 8 : In Mach bands, the darker area sends lighter area sends to the darker area.

A : less B : more C : the same amount of D : no

lateral inhibition to the lighter area than the

Correct Answer : A 9 : You can create a version of the by illuminating a light-colored surface with a desk lamp and casting a shadow with a piece of paper.

A : Hermann Grid B : Mach bands C : Benary Cross D : illusory square Correct Answer : B 10 : When , lateral inhibition can no longer account for the Hermann Grid.

A : the lines are made curvy B : illumination is increased C : illumination is decreased D : the number of squares is increased Correct Answer : A 11 : The inability of lateral inhibition to account for more complex effects shows how A : physiological explanations may need to be modified by perceptual results B : physiological explanations rarely hold across species C : perceptual explanations are typically consistent across species D : what we learn from animals is rarely applicable to humans

.

Correct Answer : A 12 : The inability of lateral inhibition to explain some perceptual effects suggests that some contrast effects are based in .

A : the retina.

B : the cortex C : the lateral plexus D : the macula 2/8

Correct Answer : B 13 : The area on the retina that influences the firing rate of the neuron is called the A : receptive field B : amacrine region C : divergence area D : inverted fovea

.

Correct Answer : A 14 : A neuron with an excitatory center-inhibitory surround receptive field will respond most when we stimulate .

A : only the center B : only the surround C : both the center and surround together D : part of the surround Correct Answer : A 15 : Most of the signals travel from the retina to the A : temporal cortex B : lateral geniculate nucleus C : the superior colliculus D : the visual homunculus

via the optic nerve.

Correct Answer : B 16 : Chad is reading when he sees an insect land on the corner of his book. He then makes an eye movement to look at the insect. The structure of the visual system that is most likely responsible for making this eye movement is the .

A : superior colliculus B : extrastriate cortex C : optic chiasm D : parietal cortex Correct Answer : A 17 : Neurons in the LGN have A : center-surround B : side-by-side columnar C : ill-defined D : ambiguous

receptive fields.

Correct Answer : A 18 : The flow of information in the LGN is best described as A : unidirectional, with signals going from the retina to the LGN B : unidirectional, with signals going from the LGN to the retina C : unidirectional, with signals going from the LGN to the cortex D : signals coming from the retina and the cortex to the LGN

.

Correct Answer : D 3/8

19 : The flow of information to the A : cortex; LGN; retina B : LGN; retina; cortex C : retina; LGN; cortex D : LGN; cortex; retina

from the

is greater than from the

.

Correct Answer : D 20 : The Nobel Prize winners who conducted the pioneering research on the physiology of striate cortex neurons were .

A : White and Benary B : Hubel and Wiesel C : Mathers and Marshall D : Libby and Rizzutto Correct Answer : B 21 : Graphing the response of a simple cortical cell results in the A : response compression curve B : orientation tuning curve C : response expansion curve D : motion-directive sensitivity function

.

Correct Answer : B 22 : Unlike simple cells, complex cells respond best to A : stationary spots of light B : small spots of light C : moving stimuli D : stationary lines of any orientation

.

Correct Answer : C 23 : cells fire to moving lines of a specific length or to moving corners or angles.

A : Complex B : Simplex C : End-stopped D : Edge Correct Answer : C 24 : As we travel farther from the retina, neurons fire to A : more complex stimuli B : less complex stimuli C : more intense stimuli D : less intense stimuli

.

Correct Answer : A 25 : The different types of cortical cells that respond to specific stimuli are also known as A : inhibitory cells B : feature detectors C : direct circuits

.

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D : signal detectors Correct Answer : B 26 : A stimulus that contains alternating black and white bars is called a A : grating B : grid C : Boolean array D : Moire pattern

.

Correct Answer : A 27 : The difference in intensity between light bars and dark bars is called A : orientation B : wave form C : phase D : contrast Correct Answer : D 28 : To measure , the experimenter decreases the intensity difference between the light bars and the dark bars until an observer can just barely detect the difference between the dark bars and the light bars.

A : Mach bands B : contrast threshold C : phase continuity D : brightness constancy Correct Answer : B 29 : The results of experiments of selective adaptation to gratings with specific orientations can be related to the of cells.

A : lateral inhibition; simple cortical B : lateral inhibition; end-stopped C : tuning curves; amacrine D : tuning curves; simple cortical Correct Answer : D 30 : When we view a stimulus with a specific property, neurons tuned to that property fire and will eventually become fatigued, an effect called adaptation.

A : selective B : refractory C : depletion D : massed Correct Answer : A 31 : refers to the fact that the response properties of neurons can be shaped by an animals or persons perceptual experience.

A : Selective adaptation B : Neural plasticity C : Sensory integration 5/8

D : Perceptual analysis Correct Answer : B 32 : Selective rearing refers to .

A : raising an organism in an environment that only contains certain types of stimuli B : genetically manipulating the organism prenatally C : genetically manipulating the organism in the first month after birth D : presenting an array of stimuli to the organism in the first month after birth Correct Answer : A 33 : When a kitten is exposed to an environment of just horizontal lines, the kitten A : would pay attention only to vertical lines B : would pay attention only to horizontal lines C : would have cortical cells that only respond to vertical lines D : would have cortical cells that respond to horizontal lines, but none to vertical lines

.

Correct Answer : D 34 : In the 1990s, researchers discovered an area on the underside of the temporal lobe of the human cortex that was named the face area because it responded strongly to faces.

A : fusiform B : cingulate C : geniculate D : occipital Correct Answer : A 35 : Neurons in the lines.

A : LGN B : striate cortex C : IT cortex D : retina

respond to complex stimuli, but not simple stimuli such as straight

Correct Answer : C 36 : Which proposed representational system is the least likely to actually be in place in the human visual system?

A : sparse coding B : specificity coding C : representation by a small number of neurons D : distributed coding Correct Answer : B 37 : coding is the representation of a particular object by the pattern of firing of a large number of neurons.

A : Specificity B : Population C : Extrastriate D : Sparse 6/8

Correct Answer : B 38 : Quiroga et al. (2008) studied sensory coding by .

A : ablation of the IT in humans B : ablation of the FFA in humans C : using implanted electrodes in the limbic system of college student volunteers D : using implanted electrodes in the temporal lobe of epileptic patients Correct Answer : D 39 : coding occurs when a particular object is represented by a pattern of firing of only a small group of neurons, with the majority of neurons remaining silent.

A : Sparse B : Selective C : Limited D : Specific Correct Answer : A 40 : In coding, a particular neuron might respond to Jasons face, another particular neuron to Sams face, and another particular neuron to Bills face.

A : identity B : specificity C : individuated D : experiential Correct Answer : B

ESSAY 41 : (a) What is lateral inhibition? (b) Select either the Hermann Grid or Mach bands, and discuss how lateral inhibition accounts for the phenomenon.

Correct Answer : Lateral inhibition is inhibition that is transmitted across the retina. Explanations will vary, but should focus on the effects of summing lateral inhibition over a circuit.?

42 : What happens when the straight lines of the Hermann Grid are made curvy? Why is this a problem?

Correct Answer : When the grid’s usual straight lines are made curvy, the dark spots at the intersections vanish! But making the lines curvy should have little or no effect on lateral inhibition. So a simple perceptual display has called into question an explanation that has been accepted for many years. Of course, the next question is, what is the mechanism responsible for these effects? A number of alternatives have been proposed involving interactions between neurons that are more complex than the simple lateral inhibition calculations, but these explanations are unproven, so further research will be needed to determine exactly what is going on.?

43 : Describe Hartlines procedure for mapping receptive fields.

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Correct Answer : Hartline isolated a single fiber in the optic nerve of a frog by teasing apart the optic nerve near where it leaves the eye. While recording from this teased-out fiber, Hartline illuminated different areas of the retina and found that the fiber he was recording from responded only when a small area of the retina was illuminated. He called the area that caused the neuron to fire the nerve fiber’s receptive field, which he defined as “the region of the retina that must receive illumination in order to obtain a response in any given fiber.”?

44 : (a) Describe the difference between simple cortical cells, complex cortical cells, and endstopped cells. (b) Explain why these cells are called feature detectors.

Correct Answer : Cells with side-by-side excitatory and inhibitory receptive fields are called simple cortical cells. Complex cells, like simple cells, respond best to bars of a particular orientation. However, unlike simple cells, which respond to small spots of light or to stationary stimuli, most complex cells respond only when a correctly oriented bar of light moves across the entire receptive field. End-stopped cells fire to moving lines of a specific length or to moving corners or angles. Because simple, complex, and end-stopped cells fire in response to specific features of the stimulus, such as orientation or direction of movement, they have been called feature detectors.?

45 : Discuss the relationship between neural plasticity and selective rearing as it relates to sensory functioning.

Correct Answer : The idea behind selective rearing is that if an animal is reared in an environment that contains only certain types of stimuli, then neurons that respond to these stimuli will become more prevalent. This follows from a phenomenon called neural plasticity or experience-dependent plasticity, i.e., the idea that the response properties of neurons can be shaped by perceptual experience. When animals are reared in an environment that, for example, contains only vertical lines, neurons that respond to vertical lines will come to dominate.?

46 : Describe how information would be represented under each of the following representational schemes: specificity coding, population coding, and sparse coding.

Correct Answer : The idea that an object could be represented by the firing of a specialized neuron that responds only to that object is called specificity coding. Population coding is the representation of a particular object by the pattern of firing of a large number of neurons. Sparse coding occurs when a particular object is represented by a pattern of firing of only a small group of neurons, with the majority of neurons remaining silent.?

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CHAPTER 4 1 : The can be described as the electronic map of the retina on the cortex.

A : visual map B : spatial map C : retinotopic map D : cortextual map Correct Answer : C 2 : The cortical magnification factor occurs in humans because .

A : a small area in the peripheral retina accounts for a large area on the cortex B : the small area of the fovea accounts for a large area on the cortex C : the lens accommodates so that the image is magnified on the retina D : the area at the optic disk accounts for a large area on the cortex Correct Answer : B 3 : The brain imaging technique that creates images of structures in the brain, but cannot indicate neural activity, is .

A : fMRI B : Ablation C : PET scan D : MRI Correct Answer : D 4 : The brain imaging technique that tracks blood flow in the brain using magnetic fields is .

A : fMRI B : ablation C : ERP D : PET scan Correct Answer : A 5 : Dougherty et al. (2003) used brain imaging to investigate cortical magnification. Their primary finding was that .

A : information presented in the peripheral vision activated the most brain area B : information presented to the fovea activated the most brain area C : moving stimuli activated different brain areas than stationary stimuli D : cortical magnification is not detectable using fMRI Correct Answer : B 6 : Using the techniques of both recording from neurons and ablation, researchers found that properties of the ventral and dorsal streams are established by two different types of cells in the retina, which transmit signals to different layers of the .

A : bipolar; hippocampus B : ganglion; hippocampus C : ganglion; LGN D : bipolar; hippocampus 1 / 10

Correct Answer : C 7 : Ocular columns are columns in which neurons respond better to input from one eye than to the other.

A : preference B : dominance C : Orientation D : laterality Correct Answer : B 8 : An electrode is placed in an orientation column that responds best to orientations of 45 degrees. The adjacent column of cells will probably best respond to orientations of .

A : 5 degrees B : 40 degrees C : 90 degrees D : 175 degrees Correct Answer : B 9 : Which statement is true regarding the organization of columns in the cortex?

A : A location column can contain many orientation columns.

B : An orientation column can contain many location columns.

C : Location and orientation columns are located in different parts of the cortex.

D : Action columns are present in both location and orientation columns.

Correct Answer : A 10 : A(n) is a location column that receives information about all possible orientations within a given area of the retina.

A : supercolumn B : orientation C : hypercolumn D : action Correct Answer : C 11 : Neurons respond preferentially to the right eye or the left eye. This phenomenon is referred to as .

A : hemispheric specialization B : bilateral dominance C : retinotopic disparity D : ocular dominance Correct Answer : D 12 : The arrangement of ocular dominance columns in the cortex is best described as .

A : columns for both the left eye and right eye in each hypercolumn B : columns for the left eye in the left hemisphere and for the right eye in the right C : groupings of left eye columns adjacent to groupings of right eye columns D : concentric areas, with the center columns for the left eye, and the surrounding columns for the right 2 / 10

Correct Answer : A 13 : A large object, such as a tree trunk, will cause .

A : every neuron in one location column to fire, but no firing in any other column B : a limited number of neurons to fire in only one ocular dominance column C : firing of neurons in a number of different columns D : every neuron in an orientation column to fire, but not in the location columns Correct Answer : C 14 : When looking at a scene, the different sections of the scene are processed by many different location columns. Through the use of all of the location columns, the entire scene can be perceived. This effect is referred to as .

A : fielding B : orientation C : convergence D : tiling Correct Answer : D 15 : Zghsx#8j, a visitor from another planet, is curious about cars. She takes the battery out of the car, and finds out that the car wont start and the lights and stereo dont work. Her research is most closely related to the method called .

A : ablation B : transcranial magnetic stimulation C : transcendental mediation D : microstimulation Correct Answer : A 16 : Ablation is a procedure in which .

A : a radioactive isotope is injected into the bloodstream and traced through the brain B : electrodes on the scalp are used to measure changes in brain activity C : a particular area of the brain is removed or destroyed D : an electromagnetic pulse is used to temporarily disrupt brain activity Correct Answer : C 17 : Object discrimination problem is to the the .

A : temporal lobes; parietal lobes B : parietal lobes; temporal lobes C : parietal lobes; occipital lobes D : LGN; thalamus

as a landmark discrimination problem is to

Correct Answer : A 18 : In Ungerleider and Mishkins (1982) research, monkeys who had had their temporal lobes removed had difficulty .

A : coordinating their movements B : discriminating between objects C : discriminating between locations 3 / 10

D : remembering sequences of actions.

Correct Answer : B 19 : The dorsal pathway goes to the A : temporal B : frontal C : parietal D : occipital

lobe.

Correct Answer : C 20 : The ventral pathway has also been labeled the A : where B : how C : What D : Why

pathway.

Correct Answer : C 21 : Which statement regarding the dorsal and ventral pathways is most accurate?

A : Information flow is unidirectional in both pathways.

B : The pathways rely on information from the same type of ganglion cells.

C : The pathways are independent of each other and do not communicate.

D : Both pathways have feedback activation.

Correct Answer : D 22 : According to Milner and Goodale, the dorsal stream is the A : what B : when C : how D : why

pathway.

Correct Answer : C 23 : A researcher finds that damage to Area A of the brain results in the loss of Function A, but not Function B. In another individual, damage to Area B results in the loss of Function B, but not Function A. These results are best described as a(n) .

A : associative link B : double dissociation C : single dissociation.

D : differential assessment Correct Answer : B 24 : The results of the patient D.F., who had visual form agnosia, show that A : perception and action are independent of each other in the brain B : the same brain areas are involved in visual orientation and oriented action C : the inability to draw items is due to a lack of general knowledge D : double dissociations do not occur in these patients

.

Correct Answer : A 4 / 10

25 : Ganel et al. (2008) designed a modified Ponzo (visual) illusion in which line 1 appears to be longer than line 2, when, in reality, line 2 is longer. Participants are asked to judge the line lengths and to reach and grab the ends of the lines. The results of this investigation reveal .

A : the interaction of the ventral and dorsal stream B : that the visual illusion affects both the ventral and dorsal streams C : the effects of damage to the ventral pathway D : that the illusion only affects ventral stream processing Correct Answer : D 26 : A structure that is specialized to process information about a particular type of stimulus is called a .

A : lesion B : module C : Partition D : Pathway Correct Answer : B 27 : The principle that specific functions are served by specific cortical areas is called A : Magnification B : modularity C : distribution D : segmentation

.

Correct Answer : B 28 : An IT neuron in the monkey will fire briskly when presented a picture of a A : monkeys face B : Tree C : banana D : human torso

.

Correct Answer : A 29 : Tsao et al. (2006) found that A : 12% B : 97% C : 70% D : 43%

of neurons in the monkey IT cortex were face selective.

Correct Answer : B 30 : An area in the called the A : temporal lobe; FFA B : occipital lobe; RBC C : parietal lobe; FFA D : parietal lobe; area 4H

is specialized to recognize faces.

Correct Answer : A 5 / 10

31 : Prosopagnosia is .

A : the difficulty in recognizing familiar faces B : due to damage to the parietal lobe C : due to damage to the MT cortex D : the inability to detect movement Correct Answer : A 32 : Activity in the PPA .

A : reveals a preference for indoor, but not outdoor, scenes B : is higher for pictures of empty rooms than furnished rooms C : reveals a preference for body parts over faces D : is the same for pictures of furnished and empty rooms Correct Answer : D 33 : The EBA is activated by .

A : pictures of houses and other manmade structures B : pictures of bodies and parts of bodies C : direct eye gaze from another individual D : tasks that require spatial information Correct Answer : B 34 : Patient H.M. had his A : Hippocampi B : IT cortex C : striate cortex D : corpus callosum

removed in order to control his epileptic seizures.

Correct Answer : A 35 : The primary deficit encountered by patient H.M. is best described as the inability to A : discriminate between faces B : perceive different line orientations C : form new long-term memories D : use information from the where pathway

.

Correct Answer : C 36 : In the Halle Berry study, Quiroga et al. found that the Halle Berry neuron is best described as responding to the of Ms. Berry.

A : visual features B : face C : associations D : concept Correct Answer : D 37 : Gelbard-Sagiv et al. (2008) monitored individual MTL neurons while displaying video clips of a variety of stimuli. They were able to identify neurons that respond preferentially to a visual stimulus. Later, they asked participants to and found preferential activation of the same neuron to the video clip concept.

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A : view pictures from various viewpoints B : view the same video clips, but with an altered color pallet C : try to remember the video clips they had seen D : draw a picture representing the video clip Correct Answer : C 38 : refers to the fact that the response properties of neurons can be shaped by what an animal or person perceives.

A : Selective adaptation B : Experience-dependent plasticity C : Sensory integration D : Perceptual analysis Correct Answer : B 39 : The effect occurs because humans have more cortical neurons that respond to horizontal and vertical orientations than slanted orientations.

A : oblique B : transverse C : parallel D : box Correct Answer : A 40 : After training participants on the recognition of Greeble stimuli, Gauthier et al. found that the neuron in the FFA responded .

A : as well to Greebles as to human faces B : weakly to Greebles, but strong activity to human faces C : unpredictably to Greebles, and inhibited activity for human faces D : weakly to Greebles, and decreased activity to human faces Correct Answer : A 41 : Gauthier et al.s Greeble finding is consistent with the A : maturation B : oblique C : Rivalry D : Expertise

hypothesis.

Correct Answer : D

ESSAY 42 : (a) Describe research that shows cortical magnification occurs in humans. (b) What is the connection between cortical magnification and acuity?

Correct Answer : Even though the fovea accounts for only 0.01 percent of the retina’s area, signals from the fovea account for 8 to 10 percent of the retinotopic map on the cortex (Van Essen & Anderson, 1995). This apportioning of a large area on the cortex to the small fovea is called cortical magnification. The extra cortical space allotted to letters and words at which the 7 / 10

person is looking provides the extra neural processing needed to accomplish tasks such as reading that require high visual acuity (Azzopardi & Cowey, 1993).?

43 : Describe how an object such as a tree is represented in the striate cortex.

Correct Answer : The continuous tree trunk is represented by the firing of neurons sensitive to a specific orientation in a number of separate columns in the cortex. Although it may be a bit surprising that the tree is represented by separate columns in the cortex, it simply confirms a property of our perceptual system that we mentioned earlier: The cortical representation of a stimulus does not have to resemble the stimulus; it just has to contain information that represents the stimulus. Working together, these columns cover the entire visual field, an effect called tiling. Just as a wall can be covered by adjacent tiles, the visual field is served by adjacent (and often overlapping) location columns.?

44 : Describe research on brain damaged people that support the idea that the dorsal stream is the how pathway.

Correct Answer : Milner and Goodale (1995) used the method of determining double dissociations to study D.F., a 34-year-old woman who suffered damage to her ventral pathway from carbon monoxide poisoning caused by a gas leak in her home. One result of her brain damage was that D.F. was not able to match the orientation of a card held in her hand to different orientations of a slot. Because D.F. had trouble orienting a card to match the orientation of the slot, it would seem reasonable that she would also have trouble placing the card through the slot, because to do this she would have to turn the card so that it was lined up with the slot. But when D.F. was asked to “mail” the card through the slot, she could do it! Even though D.F. could not turn the card to match the slot’s orientation, once she started moving the card toward the slot, she was able to rotate it to match the orientation of the slot. Thus, D.F. performed poorly in the static orientation-matching task but did well as soon as action was involved (Murphy et al., 1996). Milner and Goodale interpreted D.F.’s behavior as showing that there is one mechanism for judging orientation and another for coordinating vision and action.?

45 : Summarize the Ganel et al. (2008) research on length estimation and grasping tasks, and what the implication of this research is for different processing streams.

Correct Answer : Tzvi Ganel and coworkers (2008) conducted an experiment designed to demonstrate a separation of perception and action in non-brain-damaged subjects. The stimulus they used, consisting of two lines, creates a visual illusion in which line 2 is longer than line 1, when line 1 is actually longer. Ganel and coworkers presented subjects with two tasks: (1) a length estimation task in which they were asked to indicate how they perceived the lines’ length by spreading their thumb and index finger; and (2) a grasping task in which they were asked to reach toward the lines and grasp each line by its ends. Sensors on the subjects’ fingers measured the separation between the fingers as the subjects grasped the lines. These two tasks were chosen because they depend on different processing streams. The length estimation task involves the ventral or what stream. The grasping task involves the dorsal or where/how stream.? ? The results of this experiment indicate that in the length estimation task, subjects judged line 1 (the longer line) as looking shorter than line 2, but in the grasping task, they separated their fingers farther apart for line 1 to match its longer length. Thus, the illusion works for perception (the length estimation task), but not for action (the grasping task). These results support the idea that perception and action are served by different mechanisms. An idea about functional organization that originated with observations of patients with brain damage is therefore supported by the performance of subjects without brain damage.

46 : Define modular organization and specify how the senses are organized into primary 8 / 10

receiving areas.

Correct Answer : The idea that there are pathways that serve different functions leads us to modularity, the idea that specific areas of the cortex are specialized to respond to specific types of stimuli. Areas that are specialized to specific types of stimuli areas are called modules for processing information about these stimuli. For example, there is a great deal of evidence for an area that is rich in neurons that respond to faces.?

47 : Describe the procedure, results, and implications of the Quiroga et als (2005) Halle Berry neuron study.

Correct Answer : Quiroga recorded from eight patients with epilepsy who, in preparation for surgery, had electrodes implanted in their hippocampus or other areas in the medial temporal lobe to help localize precisely where their seizures originated. Patients saw a number of different views of specific individuals and objects plus pictures of other things, such as faces, buildings, and animals. Not surprisingly, a number of neurons responded to some of these stimuli. What was surprising, however, was that some neurons responded to a number of different views of just one person or building, or to a number of ways of representing that person or building. For example, one neuron responded to pictures of the actresses Jennifer Aniston and Lisa Kudrow, who both starred in the TV series Friends, but did not respond to faces of other famous people, nonfamous people, landmarks, animals, or other objects. As we noted in Chapter 3, another neuron responded to pictures of actor Steve Carell. Still another neuron responded to photographs of Halle Berry, to drawings of her, to pictures of her dressed as Catwoman from Batman, and also to seeing the words “Halle Berry.” The role of these neurons in memory is supported by the way they respond to many different views of the stimulus, different modes of depiction, and even words signifying the stimulus. These neurons are not responding to visual features of the pictures, but to concepts – “Jennifer Aniston,” “Halle Berry,” “Sydney Opera House” – that the stimuli represent.?

48 : Describe the methods, results, and conclusions of Gauthier et al.s Greeble research.

Correct Answer : The fact that experience with the environment can shape the nervous system is the basis of the expertise hypothesis, which proposes that our proficiency in perceiving certain things can be explained by changes in the brain caused by long exposure, practice, or training (Bukach et al., 2006; Gauthier et al., 1999). Isabel Gauthier and coworkers (1999) demonstrated an expertise effect by using fMRI to determine the level of activity in the fusiform face area (FFA) in response to faces and to objects called Greebles – families of computergenerated “beings” that all have the same basic configuration but differ in the shapes of their parts. Initially, the observers were shown both human faces and Greebles. The results for this part of the experiment indicate that the FFA neurons responded poorly to the Greebles but well to the faces.? ? The participants were then trained in “Greeble recognition” for 7 hours over a 4-day period. After the training sessions, participants had become “Greeble experts,” as indicated by their ability to rapidly identify many different Greebles by the names they had learned during the training. Becoming a Greeble expert affected the neural response in the participants’ FFA and after the training, the FFA neurons responded about as well to Greebles as to faces.

49 : Describe how MRIs and fMRIs are performed and explain why these methods are so important to psychological research.

Correct Answer : In the 1980s, a technique called magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) made it possible to create images of structures within the brain. Since then, MRI has become a standard technique for detecting tumors and other brain abnormalities. While this technique is excellent 9 / 10

for revealing brain structures, it doesn’t indicate neural activity. Another technique, functional magnetic resonance imaging (fMRI), has enabled researchers to determine how various types of cognition activate different areas of the brain. Functional magnetic resonance imaging takes advantage of the fact that blood flow increases in areas of the brain that are activated. The measurement of blood flow is based on the fact that hemoglobin, which carries oxygen in the blood, contains a ferrous (iron) molecule and therefore has magnetic properties. If a magnetic field is presented to the brain, the hemoglobin molecules line up, like tiny magnets. Areas of the brain that are more active consume more oxygen, so the hemoglobin molecules lose some of the oxygen they are transporting, which makes them more magnetic and increases their response to the magnetic field. The fMRI apparatus determines the relative activity of various areas of the brain by detecting changes in the magnetic response of the hemoglobin.?

50 : Identify the five areas of the brain associated with processing of faces, explaining what is processed in each area.

Correct Answer : Occipital cortex (OC): Initial processing? Fusiform face area (FFA): Basic face processing Amygdala (A): Emotional reactions (face expressions and observer’s emotional reactions); Familiarity (familiar faces cause more activation in amygdala and other areas associated with emotions) Frontal lobe (FL): Evaluation of attractiveness Superior temporal sulcus (STS): Gaze direction; mouth movements; general face movements

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CHAPTER 5 1 : Current computer programs are able to identify some objects A : and require only brief training on a few images B : and are considered remarkably successful C : but they perform only slightly above chance D : but they often make errors that a human would never make

.

Correct Answer : D 2 : The problem shows that numerous physical stimuli can create exactly the same image on the retina.

A : correspondence B : inverse projection C : occlusion D : ambiguity Correct Answer : B 3 : Jimmy looks at a moderately blurred picture of Princess Dianas face. Jimmy will most likely .

A : not be able to identify the face B : identify the face as male rather than female C : be able to correctly identify the face D : need a computer to scan the image to correctly identify it Correct Answer : C 4 : Viewpoint invariance means that .

A : children can only represent one perceptual viewpoint at a time B : computers can invert images to easily perform object recognition C : humans can easily recognize objects when seen from different viewpoints D : monkeys can only recognize other monkey faces from a frontal view Correct Answer : C 5 : Wundt is to as Wertheimer is to A : structuralism; Gestalt psychology B : Gestalt psychology; structuralism C : functionalism; structuralism D : psychophysics; metaphysics

.

Correct Answer : A 6 : Structuralists would be most likely to endorse which of the following statements?

A : Sensations and perceptions are the same unit of thought.

B : The whole of something is greater than its parts.

C : The starting point for perceptions is the sensations that make them up.

D : Past experience plays little or no role in perception formation.

Correct Answer : C

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7 : The demonstration of apparent movement provides support for the Gestalt approach because .

A : the phenomenon cannot be explained by sensations alone B : the phenomenon relies exclusively on the perceivers past experience C : the images used do not follow the principle of common region D : the phenomenon relied on figure/ground segregation Correct Answer : A 8 : Gestalt psychologists used the example of illusory contours to support the claim that A : perceptions are formed by combining sensations B : vision can be modeled on computer processing C : the whole is different than the sum of its parts D : experience determines perceptual interpretation

.

Correct Answer : C 9 : The Olympic symbol is an example of the Gestalt principle of A : proximity B : pragnanz C : common fate D : synchrony

.

Correct Answer : B 10 : The principle of and/or size.

A : segregation B : shape C : identity D : similarity

can account for grouping of stimuli that share orientation, shape,

Correct Answer : D 11 : Corey looks at a flock of seagulls flying in one direction, when suddenly, five of the seagulls start flying in another direction. He now perceives two groups of birds, because of the Gestalt principle of .

A : common fate B : uniform connectedness C : synchrony D : pragnanz.

Correct Answer : A 12 : Alyson looks at a picture of arrows and sees white arrows pointing to the right against a black background. She looks at the picture longer, and then sees black arrows pointing to the left against a white background. Her perception of this stimulus is an example of .

A : perceptual segregation B : binocular rivalry C : view invariance D : orientation invariance Correct Answer : A 2 / 10

13 : In a scene, the objects in the foreground are best described as making up the background is best described as the .

A : object; setting B : ground; figure C : near point; distance D : figure; ground

, whereas the image

Correct Answer : D 14 : Border ownership means that when figure-ground segregation occurs, the border between the figure and background .

A : seems to change color B : is perceived to be associated with the background C : is perceived to be associated with the figure D : seems to disappear Correct Answer : C 15 : Which of the following is a general determinant of figure-ground segregation?

A : The right side is more likely to be perceived as a figure than the left.

B : Small stimuli are more likely to be perceived as ground than figure.

C : Near the shared borders, figure is seen as unformed material.

D : A lower region is more likely to be perceived as figure than an upper region.

Correct Answer : D 16 : Sally recently looked at some visual illusions. In one reversible-image illusion, she saw a vase in the middle of a blue box. What is Sally most likely to remember about this illusion?

A : details about the box B : the two faces on the side of the face C : the vase she saw in the illusion D : the lower half of the image Correct Answer : C 17 : In one reversible figure/ground study, Gibson and Peterson (1994) used an image in which one area looks like a woman when upright, but does not resemble anything when turned upside down. Their general finding was that .

A : meaningfulness of an image had a large effect on figure-ground segregation B : meaningful images were just as likely to be seen as figure or ground C : inverting the entire image lead to slower response times D : meaningfulness only had an effect when they appeared on the left side Correct Answer : A 18 : The Bev Doolittle print of The Forest Has Eyes exemplifies the way perceptual organization.

A : proximity B : common region C : Meaningfulness D : common fate

affects

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Correct Answer : C 19 : Humans need approximately A : 250 milliseconds B : 1000 milliseconds C : 2 seconds D : 5 seconds

to perceive the gist of a scene.

Correct Answer : A 20 : A masking stimulus is primarily used to .

A : stop persistence of vision B : increase the duration of persistence of vision C : increase the area of the region-of-interest D : hide the purpose of the experiment from participants Correct Answer : A 21 : Based on Fei-Fei et al. (2007), smaller objects within a scene are typically recognized within .

A : 50 milliseconds B : 150 milliseconds C : 500 milliseconds D : 1000 milliseconds Correct Answer : C 22 : Global image features are A : individualistic B : slowly perceived C : slowly processed D : holistic

.

Correct Answer : D 23 : Suppose you were to review dozens of photographs of various natural and manmade scenes on social media. You would expect that .

A : horizontal and vertical orientations would be most common B : diagonal orientations would be most common C : the major environmental regularities would be incompatible with Gestalt principals D : environmental irregularities would be more salient than environmental regularities Correct Answer : A 24 : The effect is that humans perceive horizontals and verticals more easily than other orientations.

A : Turing B : Oblique C : spreading D : visual persistence Correct Answer : B 4 / 10

25 : Jimmy looks at a picture of a side of a submarine that has dents and bumps on it. When he turns the picture upside-down, what he originally perceived as bumps, now look like dents, and vice versa. This is due to .

A : figure-ground reversal B : the oblique effect C : accidental properties of light D : the light-from-above assumption Correct Answer : D 26 : Humans use the to distinguish shape from shading.

A : environmental assumption B : light-from-above assumption C : proximity principle D : delayed-matching principle Correct Answer : B 27 : When Palmer (1975) showed observers a kitchen scene and then a target picture, which picture was identified correctly 80% of the time?

A : A loaf of bread, because it matches the context of the scene B : A mailbox, because it seems so out-of-context, that it pops-out C : A drum, because participants were music majors D : A bedroom, because it is from the same category Correct Answer : A 28 : The theory of unconscious inference .

A : replaced the Bayesian inference approach B : is closely related to the likelihood principle C : describes the use of algorithms in perception D : is incompatible with Gestalt psychology.

Correct Answer : B 29 : If two eyes receive totally different images and the brain cant combine the two images, a condition called results.

A : delayed processing B : persistence of vision C : binocular rivalry D : visual masking Correct Answer : C 30 : objects are ones that, when seen or imagined in isolation, evoke a strong sense of surrounding space.

A : Idiosyncratic B : Spatially-bound C : Characteristic D : Space defining Correct Answer : D 5 / 10

31 : Tong et al. (1998) used binocular rivalry to test brain responses when the person perceived a house or a face. When the person perceived the house, activity in the .

A : PPA increased, but not in the FFA B : FFA increased, but not in PPA C : PPA and the FFA increased D : PPA and the FFA decreased Correct Answer : A 32 : A voxel is .

A : a small cube-shaped area of the brain about 2 mm on each side B : an electrode used to measure brain activity C : the basic unit of sensation D : the retinal area on which an image is projected Correct Answer : A 33 : Kamitani and Tong (2005) developed orientation decoders. When eight orientations were tested, the decoders were able to correctly predict what orientation a person was looking at for of the eight gratings.

A : two B : four C : six D : eight Correct Answer : D 34 : Naselaris et al. (2009) developed the decoder, which is used to make predictions about characteristics of a scene such as contrast and shape.

A : form B : structural C : orientation D : semantic Correct Answer : B 35 : The decoder is intended to discriminate between different categories of images, such as outdoor scenes and portraits.

A : orientation B : structure C : scene D : semantic Correct Answer : D 36 : Which of the following is true regarding inversion effects?

A : Faces and other objects are equally affected by inversion.

B : Face processing is slowed more than that of other objects.

C : Object identification is not affected by inversion.

D : They demonstrate that faces are processed by feature.

Correct Answer : B 6 / 10

37 : Perceiving the emotional aspects of a face are reflected by activation in the brain structure called the .

A : amygdala B : medulla C : IT cortex D : superior temporal sulcus Correct Answer : A 38 : The preferential looking technique showed that infants as young as mothers face than a strangers face.

A : two-days-old B : one-week-old C : one-month-old D : six-months-old

willlook at their

Correct Answer : A 39 : Research has shown that an infant can visually recognize his/her mothers face from A : the contrast between her eye color and face B : her smile C : the contrast between her hairline and forehead D : her overall head shape

.

Correct Answer : C 40 : The ability to recognize faces, including identifying expressions, is not fully developed until approximately .

A : late infancy B : early childhood C : late childhood D : adolescence or early adulthood Correct Answer : D

ESSAY 41 : Discuss three reasons why object perception is difficult for computer vision.

Correct Answer : The stimulus on the receptor can be ambiguous. Objects can be hidden or blurred. Objects look different from different viewpoints.

42 : State, define, and give an example (in words and/or drawings) for each of five Gestalt principles of perceptual organization.

Correct Answer : The principle of good continuation states the following: Points that, when connected, result in straight or smoothly curving lines are seen as belonging together, and the lines tend to be seen in such a way as to follow the smoothest path The principle of pragnanz, also called the principle of good figure or the principle of simplicity states: Every stimulus pattern is seen in such a way that the resulting structure is as simple as possible. According to the principle of similarity, similar things appear to be grouped together. According to the principle of 7 / 10

proximity, or nearness, things that are near each other appear to be grouped together.

According to the principle of common fate, things that are moving in the same direction appear to be grouped together. According to the principle of common region, elements that are within the same region of space appear to be grouped together. According to the principle of uniform connectedness, a connected region of the same visual properties, such as lightness, color, texture, or motion, is perceived as a single unit.

43 : Describe two image-based factors that determine what area is seen as figure in an image with reversible figure-ground. Draw an example that demonstrates each factor.

Correct Answer : One image-based factor proposed by the Gestalt psychologists was that areas lower in the field of view are more likely to be perceived as figure. Another Gestalt proposal was that figures are more likely to be perceived on the convex side of borders?

44 : Name and describe five global image features.

Correct Answer : Degree of naturalness. Natural scenes have textured zones and undulating contours. Man-made scenes, such as the street, are dominated by straight lines and horizontals and verticals. Degree of openness. Open scenes, such as the ocean, often have a visible horizon line and contain few objects. The street scene is also open, although not as much as the ocean scene. The forest is an example of a scene with a low degree of openness. Degree of roughness. Smooth scenes (low roughness) like the ocean contain fewer small elements.

Scenes with high roughness like the forest contain many small elements and are more complex.

Degree of expansion. The convergence of parallel lines, like what you see when you look down railroad tracks that appear to vanish in the distance indicates a high degree of expansion. This feature is especially dependent on the observer’s viewpoint. Color. Some scenes have characteristic colors, like the ocean scene (blue) and the forest (green and brown).

45 : Describe the main finding from binocular rivalry research and explain why that finding is important.

Correct Answer : Observers in Tong et al.’s (1998) experiment viewed the overlapping red house and green face through red–green glasses, so the house image was presented to the right eye and the face image to the left eye. Because of binocular rivalry, the observers’ perception alternated back and forth between the face and the house. When the observers perceived the house, activity occurred in the parahippocampal place area (PPA) in the left and right hemispheres (red ellipses). When observers perceived the face, activity occurred in the fusiform face area (FFA) in the left hemisphere (green ellipse). This experiment and others like it generated a great deal of excitement among brain researchers because they measured brain activation and perception simultaneously and demonstrated a dynamic relationship between perception and brain activity in which changes in perception and changes in brain activity mirrored each other.

46 : Define semantic regularities and describe their effect on perceptual organization.

Correct Answer : In language, semantics refers to the meanings of words or sentences. Applied to perceiving scenes, semantics refers to the meaning of a scene. This meaning is often related to what happens within a scene. For example, food preparation, cooking, and perhaps eating occur in a kitchen; waiting around, buying tickets, checking luggage, and going through security checkpoints happen in airports. Semantic regularities are the characteristics associated with activities that are common in different types of scenes. ? Most people who have grown up in modern society have little trouble visualizing an office or the clothing section of a department store. What is important about this ability, for our purposes, is that part of this visualization 8 / 10

involves details within these scenes. Most people see an office as having a desk with a computer on it, bookshelves, and a chair. The department store scene may contain racks of clothes, a changing room, and perhaps a cash register. Our visualizations contain information based on our knowledge of different kinds of scenes. This knowledge of what a given scene typically contains is called a scene schema.

47 : Describe the how Bayesian inference can be used to understand perception.

Correct Answer : Bayesian inference was named after Thomas Bayes (1701–1761), who proposed that our estimate of the probability of an outcome is determined by two factors: (1) the prior probability, or simply the prior, which is our initial estimate of the probability of an outcome, and (2) the extent to which the available evidence is consistent with the outcome. This second factor is called the likelihood of the outcome. ? Applying this idea to object perception, let’s return to the inverse projection problem. Remember that the inverse projection problem occurs because a huge number of possible objects could be associated with a particular image on the retina. So the problem is how to determine what is “out there” that is causing a particular retinal image. Luckily, we don’t have to rely only on the retinal image, because we come to most perceptual situations with prior probabilities based on our past experiences. ? One of the priors you have in your head is that books are rectangular. Thus, when you look at a book on your desk, your initial belief is that it is likely that the book is rectangular. The likelihood that the book is rectangular is provided by additional evidence such as the book’s retinal image, combined with your perception of the book’s distance and the angle at which you are viewing the book. If this additional evidence is consistent with your prior that the book is rectangular, the likelihood is high and the perception “rectangular” is strengthened. Further testing by changing your viewing angle and distance can further strengthen the conclusion that the shape is a rectangle. Note that you aren’t necessarily conscious of this testing process - it occurs automatically and rapidly. The important point about this process is that while the retinal image is still the starting point for perceiving the shape of the book, adding the person’s prior beliefs reduces the possible shapes that could be causing that image.

48 : Describe the decoders developed by Naselaris et al. (2009), how they were established, and what they can be used for.

Correct Answer : Thomas Naselaris and coworkers (2009) created a brain reading device by developing two methods for analyzing the patterns of voxel activation recorded from visual areas of an observer’s brain. The first method, called structural encoding, is based on the relationship between voxel activation and structural characteristics of a scene, such as lines, contrasts, shapes, and textures. Naselaris’s structural decoder was calibrated by presenting a large number of images, and determining how voxels responded to specific features of each scene, such as line orientation, detail, and the position of the image. These data were used to calibrate the structural encoder so it could use patterns of voxel responses to predict the features of the image that the subject was viewing. The second method for analyzing patterns of voxel activation, called semantic encoding, is based on the relationship between voxel activation and the meaning or category of a scene. The semantic encoder is calibrated by measuring the pattern of voxel activation to a large number of images that have previously been classified into categories such as “crowd,” “portrait,” “vehicle,” and “outdoor.” From this calibration, the relationship between the pattern of voxel activation and image category is determined. This semantic decoder then uses the pattern of voxel responses to make predictions about the type of scene the subject is viewing.

49 : Explain how grouping and segregation work together to organize perception.

Correct Answer : Perceptual organization is the process by which elements in the environment 9 / 10

become perceptually grouped to create our perception of objects. During this process, incoming stimulation is organized into coherent units such as objects. The process of perceptual organization involves two components: grouping and segregation. Grouping is the process by which visual events are “put together” into units or objects. The process of grouping works in conjunction with segregation, which is the process of separating one area or object from another. Thus, seeing two buildings as separate from one another, with borders indicating where one building ends and the other begins, involves segregation.

50 : Describe what is known about the ability of infants to perceive human faces.

Correct Answer : Human faces are among the most important stimuli in an infant’s environment. As a newborn or young infant stares up from the crib, numerous faces of interested adults appear in the infant’s ?eld of view. The face that the infant sees most frequently is usually the mother’s, and there is evidence that young infants can recognize their mother’s face shortly after they are born. Using preferential looking in which 2-day-old infants were given a choice between their mother’s face and a stranger’s, Ian Bushnell and coworkers (1989) found that newborns looked at the mother about 63 percent of the time. This result is above the 50 percent chance level, so Bushnell concluded that the 2-day-olds could recognize their mother’s face. To determine what information the infants might be using to recognize the mother’s face, Olivier Pascalis and coworkers (1995) showed that when the mother and the stranger wore pink scarves that covered their hairline, the preference for the mother disappeared. The high-contrast border between the mother’s dark hairline and light forehead apparently provide important information about the mother’s physical characteristics that infants use to recognize the mother. ? There is also evidence for a role of experience in infant face perception. Ian Bushnell (2001) observed newborns over the ?rst 3 days of life to determine whether there was a relationship between their looking behavior and the amount of time they were with their mother. He found that at 3 days of age, when the infants were given a choice between looking at a stranger’s face or their mother’s face, the infants who had been exposed to their mother longer were more likely to prefer her over the stranger. The two infants with the lowest exposure to the mother (an average of 1.5 hours) divided their looking evenly between the mother and stranger, but the two infants with the longest exposure (an average of 7.5 hours) looked at the mother 68 percent of the time. Analyzing the results from all of the infants led Bushnell to conclude that face perception emerges very rapidly after birth, but that experience in looking at faces does have an effect. Although the infant’s ability to recognize faces develops rapidly over the first few months, these impressive gains are only a starting point, because even though 3- to 4-month-old infants can recognize some facial expressions, their ability to identify faces doesn’t reach adult levels until adolescence or early adulthood. ?

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CHAPTER 6 1: described attention as the taking possession by the mind, in clear and vivid form, of one out of what seem several simultaneously possible objects or trains of thought.

A : Hemlholtz B : Posner C : James D : Rensink Correct Answer : C 2 : One aspect of the visual system that helps us select specific information from the environment for processing is .

A : the optic nerve B : the concentration of cones in the fovea C : the blind spot D : the prevalence of amacrine cells in the peripheral retina Correct Answer : B 3 : Vaco is playing basketball, and does a no-look (covert) pass to a teammate. This demonstrates the idea that attention .

A : is solely the result of eye movements B : can occur without looking at the object C : does not occur even if we are looking straight at an object D : is due to the functioning of the rods Correct Answer : B 4 : The eye movements that occur as the observer shifts his/her gaze from one part of the visual scene to another are called eye movements.

A : pursuit B : magnified C : Saccadic D : Aperature Correct Answer : C 5 : When a person scans a visual scene, he/she usually makes about second.

A : one B : three C : nine D : twelve

fixation(s) per

Correct Answer : B 6 : Kelly is participating in an attention study. She is asked to fixate on a cross in the middle of the screen and watch for a word to appear in place of the cross. When the word appears she is using attention to perceive it.

A : indirect B : overt 1 / 11

C : covert D : focused Correct Answer : B 7 : People tend to fixate first on high contrast or unique (relative to the surrounding area) points in a visual scene. This is a result of and is a process.

A : stimulus salience; top-down B : stimulus salience; bottom-up C : the spotlight effect; top-down D : the spotlight effect; bi-directional Correct Answer : B 8 : Parkhurst et al. (2002) showed that observers make initial fixations in a visual scene based on .

A : stimulus saliency B : meaningfulness C : stimulus schema D : scotopic representations Correct Answer : A 9: can be generated based on saliency principles and used to predict early fixations in a scene.

A : Contrast maps B : Salience decoders C : Interest point files D : Saliency maps Correct Answer : D 10 : Larissa looks at a still picture of a football game. She uses her knowledge of football to look at the quarterback first, then the running backs, then the wide receivers, then the linebackers.

This is an example of using to guide attention.

A : saliency maps B : retinotopic maps C : knowledge D : the cue approach Correct Answer : C 11 : Nicki walks into her friends bathroom and sees a blender next to the sink. She spends more time looking at that blender than she would have spent looking at a soap dispenser in the same position. Her increased gaze is a reflection of a in action.

A : saliency map B : scene schema C : task demand D : mismatch effect Correct Answer : B 12 : Learning from past experience as a factor involved in attention was demonstrated by 2 / 11

Shinoda et al. (2001), who showed that drivers are more likely to detect stop signs when they were positioned .

A : at the middle of a block B : 75 feet from the intersection C : at the intersection D : at random through a neighborhood Correct Answer : C 13 : Land and Hayhoe (2001) found that are most important in determining fixations when a person makes a peanut butter sandwich.

A : the stimulus colors B : the stimulus contrast levels C : the stimulus orientations D : the task demands Correct Answer : D 14 : Posners precueing studies demonstrated that attention A : increases the color perception of objects B : can spread through objects C : eliminates change blindness D : increases the efficiency of information processing

.

Correct Answer : D 15 : Egly et al. (1994) showed that precueing increases the efficiency of information processing .

A : only when the cue is in the same position as the target B : when the cue appears in the same rectangle as the target stimulus C : when a cue is in a different rectangle than the target stimulus D : only when the cue is the same color as the target stimulus Correct Answer : B 16 : The finding that attention can spread within an object, thereby, enhancing detection at other places within the object is referred to as .

A : spreading activation B : object location invariance C : same-object advantage D : spatial drift Correct Answer : C 17 : The spreading enhancement effect of attention can help us perceive A : occluded objects B : the oblique effect C : grating stimuli D : illusory conjunctions

.

Correct Answer : A 18 : The important finding of Carrasco et al.s (2004) research was that

.

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A : two physically identical gratings will always be perceived the same B : the attended-to grating is perceived to have a higher contrast than another, identical grating C : the attended-to grating is perceived to have a lower contrast than another, identical grating D : the attended-to grating is perceived to have a higher contrast when compared to a nonidentical grating Correct Answer : B 19 : When presented with superimposed images of a house and a face, Mack is asked to focus on the house. This attentional focus results in .

A : increased activity in the FFA B : increased activity in the MT C : increased activity in the PPA D : similar activation changes in the FFA and PPA Correct Answer : C 20 : In an fMRI study by Datta and DeYoe (2009), participants covertly shifted their attention within a display. This shifting of attention resulted in the activation of .

A : the same brain regions because the participants eyes were not moving B : the same brain regions because the participant was engaging attention C : different brain regions because the participant was attending to different locations D : different brain regions because the participants eyes were moving Correct Answer : C 21 : Based on fMRI data from covert shifts of attention, Datta and DeYoe (2009) developed . These tools predicted convert attention to a location with % accuracy.

A : attention maps; 100 B : saliency maps; 80 C : voxel maps; 95 D : heat maps; 90 Correct Answer : A 22 : A monkey attends to a moving stimulus left of fixation then to a stationary stimulus right of fixation. If one were recording MT neuronal activity, it would reveal that .

A : the neuron preferentially responding to the left stimulus is inactive when attending to the right stimulus B : the neuron preferentially responding to the left stimulus is unaffected by attention to the right stimulus C : the receptive field associated with the neuron responding to the left stimulus shrinks when attention shifts to the right stimulus D : the receptive field associated with the neuron responding to the left stimulus shifts right when attention shifts to the right stimulus Correct Answer : A 23 : occurs when a stimulus that is not attended is not perceived, even though the person is looking directly at the stimulus.

A : Prosopagnosia B : Inattentional blindness C : The Lazarus effect 4 / 11

D : Balints Syndrome Correct Answer : B 24 : Simons and Chabris showed a video of students passing a basketball and asked participants to count how many passes made. In the video, a person in a gorilla suit walked through the basketball players for 5 seconds. Approximately how many of the participants reported seeing the gorilla?

A : 100 B : 77 C : 54 D : 23 Correct Answer : C 25 : The incidence of change blindness when a cue is added to the scene that indicates which part of the scene has changed.

A : increases B : decreases C : remains unchanged D : can increase or decrease, depending on cue duration Correct Answer : B 26 : Which statement about change blindness is most accurate?

A : When sorting blocks according to color in a computer-based task, sudden changes to taskirrelevant features are detected better than changes to task-relevant features.

B : When changes are made to a well-known, iconic building or vista, the changes are detected by at least 90% of viewers.

C : Changes to objects appearing in their usual locations are more easily detected than those occurring to objects in atypical locations.

D : Smokers detect changes to smoking-related objects (e.g., lighters) better than changes to other household objects.

Correct Answer : D 27 : In Grimes 1996 study, from bright pink to bright green.

A : 38% B : 48% C : 58% D : 68%

of subjects failed to detect a change in a models swimsuit

Correct Answer : C 28 : In Grimes 1996 study, of subjects failed to notice a 180-degree rotation of Cinderellas Castle at Disneyland.

A : 15% B : 25% C : 35% D : 45% Correct Answer : B 5 / 11

29 : While watching Pretty Woman (1990), you fail to notice when Vivian (Julia Roberts) begins to reach for a croissant that suddenly turns into a pancake. This is an example of , which can be a real-life example of if you do not notice the switch.

A : a contingency break; inattentional blindness B : a continuity error; change blindness C : an attentional lapse; illusory contingency D : a unity break; illusory sequencing Correct Answer : B 30 : In the procedure, participants attend to a central task, but also have to complete a peripheral task.

A : figure-ground B : task demand C : dual-task D : discrimination Correct Answer : C 31 : Which of the following is true regarding task-irrelevant stimuli?

A : They are least distracting when you are engaged in a difficult task.

B : They are least distracting when you are engaged in an easy task.

C : They are most likely to distract you when workload is high.

D : They are least likely to distract you when perceptual load is low.

Correct Answer : A 32 : According to feature integration theory, the color, orientation, and other features of objects are initially processed in the stage of processing.

A : preattentive B : postattentive C : focused attention D : tertiary Correct Answer : A 33 : Yasmen is walking in a mall and thinks she sees a man wearing a red dress. She takes a longer look, and realizes she has seen a man in a suit walking next to a woman in a red dress.

This is a natural example of .

A : disjunctive searches B : illusory conjunctions C : scene statistics D : illusory confusion Correct Answer : B 34 : According to Treisman, the information about an object.

A : Preattentive B : focused attention C : tertiary D : compiling

stage is the glue that combines all the incoming

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Correct Answer : B 35 : Treisman and Schmidt prevented the focused attention stage from occurring by A : presenting stimuli for 200 msec B : having observers focus attention on another task C : none of these; focused attention occurs automatically D : using rapid stimulus presentation and directing attention to another task

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Correct Answer : D 36 : R.M., a patient with Balints syndrome, reported illusory conjunctions on 23% of the trials .

A : only if the two stimuli were presented for less than 1 second B : only if the two stimuli were presented for less than 2 seconds C : if he was told to attend only to the first stimulus D : even if he was presented the two stimuli for 10 seconds Correct Answer : D 37 : In the 100=Car Naturalistic Driving Study, the driver was inattentive in some way 3 seconds before of crashes.

A : 75% B : 80% C : 85% D : 90% Correct Answer : B 38 : In a laboratory experiment on the impact of cell phone conversations on driving, drivers missed red lights when talking on the phone as when not talking on the phone.

A : about as many B : twice as many C : three times as many D : five times as many Correct Answer : B 39 : When an infant exhibits dishabituation, the researcher concludes that .

A : the infant cannot tell the difference between the habituated stimulus and the new stimulus B : the infant can tell the difference between the habituated stimulus and the new stimulus C : the new stimulus causes emotional distress in the infant D : the habituated stimulus is more interesting than the new stimulus Correct Answer : B 40 : The ability to perceive a rod as being continuous behind an occluding block A : is innate B : is common in one-week-old infants C : can be accomplished by four-month-olds D : occurs only after sharp acuity is developed

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Correct Answer : C 7 / 11

41 : Johnson et al. (2004) presented moving occluded rods to 3-month-old infants,and classified the infants as perceivers or nonperceivers of a unified, occludedrod. The main finding of the study was that .

A : perceivers and nonperceivers did not differ in eye movements B : perceivers and nonperceivers did not differ in VEP activity C : perceivers tended to make more horizontal eye movements D : perceivers tended to look at the stationary occluder Correct Answer : C

ESSAY 42 : Discuss the three factors involved in determining what we fixate on in a visual scene.

Correct Answer : Scene regions that are markedly different from their surroundings, whether in color, contrast, movement, or orientation, are said to have visual salience. Visually salient objects can attract attention, Attention is influenced by scene schemas – an observer’s knowledge about what is contained in typical scenes. A person’s interests and goals as well as their knowledge can influence attention.?

43 : Describe Posner et al.s (1978) precueing procedure, the classic results obtained using this procedure, and the implications for attention theory.

Correct Answer : The general principle behind a precueing experiment is to determine whether presenting a cue indicating where a test stimulus will appear enhances the processing of the test stimulus. The subjects in Posner and coworkers’ (1978) experiment kept their eyes stationary throughout the experiment, always looking at the + in the display. They first saw an arrow cue indicating on which side of the target a stimulus was likely to appear. The arrow cue indicates that subjects should focus their attention to the right. (Remember, they do this without moving their eyes, so this is an example of covert attention.) The subjects’ task was to press a key as rapidly as possible when a target square was presented off to the side. The location indicated by the arrow cue was valid 80 percent of the time, but 20 percent of the trials were invalid; that is, the arrow cue indicated that the target was going to be presented on one side but it actually appeared on the other side. For this invalid trial, the arrow cue indicates that the subject should attend to the left, but the target is presented on the right. The results of this experiment indicate that subjects reacted more rapidly on valid trials than on invalid trials.

Posner interpreted this result as showing that information processing is more effective at the place where attention is directed. This result and others like it gave rise to the idea that attention operates like a spotlight or zoom lens that improves processing when directed toward a particular location.?

44 : (a) Define inattentional blindness. (b) Describe the method and results of Simons and Chabris (1999) research on inattentional blindness.

Correct Answer : Research has shown not only that we miss things that are out of our field of view, but that not attending can cause us to miss things even if we are looking directly at them.

One example of this is a phenomenon called inattentional blindness. The idea that attention can affect perception of overlapping scenes was tested in an experiment by Daniel Simons and Christopher Chabris (1999), who created a 75-second film that showed two “teams” of three players each. One team, dressed in white, was passing a basketball around, and the other was 8 / 11

“guarding” that team by following them around and putting their arms up as in a basketball game. Subjects were told to count the number of passes, a task that focused their attention on the team wearing white. After about 45 seconds, one of two events occurred. Either a woman carrying an umbrella or a person in a gorilla suit walked through the “game,” an event that took 5 seconds. After seeing the video, subjects were asked whether they saw anything unusual happen or whether they saw anything other than the six players. Nearly half of the observers (46%) failed to report that they saw the woman or the gorilla. This experiment demonstrated that when people are attending to one sequence of events, they can fail to notice another event, even when it is right in front of them?

45 : (a) What is the relationship between change blindness and continuity errors? (b) Describe a specific example of a continuity error.

Correct Answer : The difficulty in detecting changes in scenes is called change blindness.

Change blindness occurs regularly in popular films, in which some aspect of the scene, which should remain the same, changes from one shot to the next. Have you ever noticed that, in the Wizard of Oz (1939), Dorothy’s (Judy Garland’s) hair changes length many times from short to long and back again? Were you surprised while watching Pretty Woman (1990) when Vivian (Julia Roberts) began to reach for a croissant for breakfast that suddenly turned into a pancake? Were you confused watching a scene in Harry Potter and the Sorcerer’s Stone (2001) when Harry (Daniel Radcliffe) suddenly changed where he was sitting during a conversation in the Great Hall? These changes in films, called continuity errors, have been well documented on the Internet (search for “continuity errors in movies”).?

46 : (a) Discuss how Treismans feature integration theory addresses the binding problem. (b) What are illusory conjunctions, and why are they support for feature integration theory?

Correct Answer : Feature integration theory (FIT) tackles the question of how we perceive individual features as parts of the same object. We will begin by describing the theory’s claims, and then we will review the empirical evidence supporting them. According to FIT, the first step in object processing is the preattentive stage. As its name implies, the preattentive stage occurs before we focus attention on an object. Because attention is not involved, researchers argue that this stage is automatic, unconscious, and effortless. In this stage, the features of objects are analyzed independently in separate areas of the brain and are not yet associated with a specific object. These independent features are then combined in a second stage of processing, called the focused attention stage. In this two-stage process, you can think of visual features as components of a “visual alphabet.” At the very beginning of the process, perceptions of each of these components exist independently of one another, just as the letter tiles in a game of Scrabble exist as individual units when the tiles are scattered at the beginning of the game.

However, just as the individual Scrabble tiles are combined to form words, the individual features combine to form perceptions of whole objects.? ? Illusory conjunctions occur when features from different stimuli are combined. They can occur even if the stimuli differ greatly in shape and size. According to FIT, these illusory conjunctions occur because the divided attention task reduces subjects’ ability to focus their attention on the shapes, and this allows independent visual features to be combined incorrectly.

47 : Explain the load theory of attention.

Correct Answer : Lavie proposed the load theory of attention, which involves two key concepts: perceptual capacity and perceptual load (Lavie, 2005, 2010). Perceptual capacity refers to the idea that a person has a certain capacity that can be used for carrying out perceptual tasks.

Perceptual load is the amount of a person’s perceptual capacity needed to carry out a particular perceptual task. Some tasks, especially easy, well-practiced ones, have low 9 / 11

perceptual loads; these low-load tasks use up only a small amount of the person’s perceptual capacity. Other tasks, those that are difficult and perhaps not as well practiced, are high-load tasks and use more of a person’s perceptual capacity. Lavie proposes that the amount of perceptual capacity that remains as a person is carrying out a task determines how susceptible the person is to being distracted by task-irrelevant stimuli.?

48 : (a) Describe the occluded rod paradigm. (b) Describe what it revealed about the relationship between perceptual completion, motion perception, attention, and scan paths in infants.

Correct Answer : The occluded rod paradigm presents a stimulus consisting of a rod moving back and forth behind a rectangular occluder. Adults perceive rod as a single rod that extends behind the rectangle. Using habituation, researchers have found that new born infants see the moving rods as two separate units and not as a single rod extending behind the occluder. When researchers tested 2-month-olds and obtained results for some of the infants that were similar to those for the 4-month-olds, they argued that the ability to use movement as a way to organize the perceptual world develops rapidly over the ?rst few months of life. They labeled the infants who demonstrated perceptual completion perceivers and those who did not, nonperceivers.

Additional research found that perceivers ?xated mainly on the rod, whereas nonperceivers ?xated on the rectangular occluder. Eye movement records also showed that, as a group, perceivers made more horizontal eye movements than nonperceivers. The perceivers, therefore, tended to look at the rod and follow its movement, whereas the nonperceivers looked more at the stationary occluder and other parts of the display that were not related to perceiving the rod as extending behind the occluder.?

49 : Are voice-activated devices in cars a good idea or are they potentially dangerous? Explain your reasoning.

Correct Answer : A 2004 article in the New York Times titled “Hi, I’m Your Car. Don’t Let Me Distract You” notes that many cars have distraction- producing devices such as GPS systems and menu screens for computer controls (Peters, 2004). In the decade since that article appeared, the number of distracting devices available for cars has greatly increased. For example, voice-activated apps are available that enable drivers to make movie or dinner reservations, send and receive texts or emails, and make postings on social media. While this sounds like fun, it is important to note that a recent study from the AAA Foundation for Traffic Safety titled Measuring Cognitive Distraction in the Automobile found voice-activated activities to be more distracting, and therefore potentially more dangerous, than either hands-on or handsfree cell phones. The study concludes that “just because a new technology does not take the eyes off the road does not make it safe to be used while the vehicle is in motion” (Strayer et al., 2013).?

50 : How is talking on a cell phone while driving different from talking to passengers while driving?

Correct Answer : One way to appreciate the difference between talking on a cell phone and what often happens when talking to a passenger is to imagine the situation in which you place a call to your friend’s cell phone. Your friend answers and you start talking. As far as you are concerned, you are just having a phone conversation. But unbeknownst to you, the person you called is driving and is in the process of negotiating his way through heavy traffic, or is perhaps reacting to a car that has just cut in front of him, traveling 70 miles per hour on the highway. The question to ask yourself is, would you be having the same conversation if you were a passenger sitting next to the driver? As a passenger, you would be aware of the traffic situation and would be able to react by pausing the conversation or perhaps warning the driver of upcoming hazards 10 / 11

(sometimes called “backseat driving”!). It is also relevant to consider the social demands of phone conversations. Because it is generally considered poor form to suddenly stop talking or to pause for long periods on the phone, the person talking on the phone while driving might continue talking even when driving is becoming challenging.?

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CHAPTER 7 1 : The ecological approach emerged as a reaction .

A : to the structuralist approach B : to the artificiality of laboratory approach to studying vision C : to the over-reliance on brain imaging techniques D : to pointillism Correct Answer : B 2 : The ecological approach was developed by A : J.J. Gibson B : David Marr C : Max Wertheimer D : Ronald Rensink

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Correct Answer : A 3 : The movement of elements of the environment relative to the observer is called A : optic flow B : the phi movement C : an affordance D : motion ecology

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Correct Answer : A 4 : You are driving a car. Which statement is an accurate reflection of flow in this situation?

A : Optic flow is slower near the car.

B : Optic flow does not occur for information in the periphery.

C : Optic flow is faster farther away from the car.

D : Optic flow does not occur for the focus of expansion.

Correct Answer : D 5 : Information that remains constant even though the observer is moving is called A : a flow gradient B : a texture gradient C : a penumbra constant D : invariant information

.

Correct Answer : D 6 : Which statement is true concerning the focus of expansion?

A : It always occurs at the point you are fixated on.

B : It always occurs at the point you are moving toward.

C : It continues in the same direction once established.

D : It always contains the fastest flow of information.

Correct Answer : B 7 : When expert gymnasts close their eyes while performing a somersault, they perform A : better because they eliminated visual distractions

.

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B : as well as with their eyes open, since doing the routine is automatic C : more poorly, because they couldnt make in-air corrections D : better because they usually train with their eyes closed Correct Answer : C 8 : According to Gibson, the relationship between movement and flow is .

A : movement creates flow, which then provides information to guiding further movement B : movement creates flow, but this information does not affect further movement C : flow and self-produced movement are related, but both are independent of guiding further movement D : flow and movement are not related Correct Answer : A 9 : If you close both your eyes while standing on one foot, .

A : you can stand longer than if both eyes are open because you eliminate distracting visual information B : you can stand longer than if just your non-dominant eye is open C : you can stand longer with one eye open because you are eliminating binocular disparity cues D : you lose your balance more quickly than if your eyes are open Correct Answer : D 10 : Lee et al.s Swinging Room studies found that .

A : only adults are affected by flow information B : only young children are affected by flow information C : children will lean back when a forward-swaying flow pattern was created D : adults were always able to keep their balance in the moving room Correct Answer : C 11 : In Lee and Aronsons experiment, although a few of the toddlers were unaffected by the sway, fell down, even though the floor remained stationary throughout the entire experiment!

A : 22% B : 33% C : 44% D : 55% Correct Answer : B 12 : When novices close their eyes when trying a somersault, .

A : their performance typically improves B : there is no impact on their performance C : their performance is not degraded as much as is the performance of experts D : their performance seems to change randomly Correct Answer : C 13 : Gibson emphasized studying A : each sense in isolation

.

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B : tightly-controlled laboratory experiments C : invariant information from the environment D : invariant sensory functions Correct Answer : C 14 : The swinging room experiments showed that .

A : vision can override the traditional sources of balance information B : traditional sources of balance information cannot be overridden C : traditional sources of balance information can only be overridden in experienced adults D : traditional sources of balance information can be integrated with but not overridden by other senses Correct Answer : A 15 : According to Land and Lee, drivers look when driving on a straight road.

A : directly at the focus of expansion B : straight ahead, but not directly at the focus of expansion C : at locomotor flow line D : at the psychometric curb Correct Answer : B 16 : According to Land and Lee, drivers negotiate curves by A : looking directly at the FOE B : looking directly at the road C : using a complex combination of affordances D : using information in addition to optic flow

.

Correct Answer : D 17 : Blind walking studies have shown that .

A : participants cannot locate nearby objects with their eyes closed B : flow information is necessary for navigation; blindfolded participants cannot walk to a target location they have just seen C : blindfolded participants can navigate short distances as long as they walk in a straight line D : blindfolded participants can navigate short distances when walking in a straight line or making an angled turn Correct Answer : D 18 : Using the visual direction strategy, walkers stay on target by A : using flow information to estimate the destination point B : going toward the focus of expansion C : keeping their body pointed toward the destination D : keeping their eyes fixated on the destination

.

Correct Answer : C 19 : Hamid et al. (2010) had participants navigate a maze while recording their eye movements.

The maze contained landmarks on the walls at corners and at other positions that would not aid maze navigation. After participants learned the maze, the researchers removed half of the landmarks. The results of this study revealed that .

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A : performance decreased when landmarks that had been viewedlongerwere removed B : participants did not notice that the landmarks were missing and their performance was unaffected C : participants had been relying on all landmarks to navigate D : performance increased when non-informative landmarks were removed Correct Answer : A 20 : In Janzen and vanTurennouts study of using landmarks as decision points in a navigating through a museum, participants .

A : had greater brain activation in the MST when they saw non-decision points than when they saw decision points B : had lower recognition scores for landmarks than non-landmarks C : had greater brain activation in the parahippocampal gyrus for decision points than nondecision points D : recognized decision points better when cells in their temporal cortex were microstimulated Correct Answer : C 21 : After damage to his , Mantio is unable to recognize formerly-familiar landmarks in his hometown.

A : hypothalamus B : medial superior temporal area C : parahippocampal gyrus D : superior temporal sulcus Correct Answer : C 22 : Research with patients who were being prepared for surgery to treat severe epilepsy found that neurons in patients functioned like the rat grid cells.

A : entorhinal cortex B : medial superior temporal area C : retrosplenial cortex D : superior temporal sulcus Correct Answer : A 23 : Elena looks at a banana and realizes that the banana is eat-able. This an example of .

A : optic flow B : a texture gradient C : ataxia D : an affordance Correct Answer : D 24 : Affordances .

A : provide a counterexample to Gibsons ecological approach B : are used to explain the flow of information organizational principles C : provide the observer possibilities for action D : arise from the interaction between flow and depth cues Correct Answer : C 4 / 10

25 : M.P., a person with brain damage that resulted in the inability to name objects, could .

A : identify objects more accurately when given the name of the object B : identify objects more accurately when given the function of the object C : not identify any of the objects, even when given both the name and function D : not identify the object more accurately if permitted to interact with the object Correct Answer : B 26 : Joe enters a room, sees a novel object, and promptly walks over and sits on it. The object was about the size of a small table and had a flat, smooth surface at approximately knee height.

If asked to explain Joes behavior, Gibson would likely say that Joe .

A : was acting based on affordances B : had sustained damage to his hippocampus C : had learned the function of the object from optic flow D : was suffering from optic ataxia Correct Answer : A 27 : The neurons that signal the monkeys intention to grab an object are mostly found in the .

A : Hippocampus B : superior colliculus C : parietal reach region (PRR) D : nystagmus parietal radius (NPR) Correct Answer : C 28 : Fattori and coworkers (2012) discovered neurons called cells; these responded not only when a monkey was preparing to grasp a specific object, but also when but also when the monkey viewed that specific object.

A : where/how/when B : sensorimotor integration C : visuomotor grip D : sensory coordination Correct Answer : C 29 : In monkey hand grip experiments, a monkey briefly sees an object, the lights go out, then the monkey is prompted to reach for the object. When the monkey reaches for the object, .

A : he often will use the wrong grip because he is unable to see the object in the dark B : he will use the correct grip only if his attention is redirected to the object C : neurons that respond to the specific grip being used will be activated D : neurons may be preferentially activated as a result of just seeing the object Correct Answer : C 30 : Suppose you are sitting in a coffee shop and about to reach for a cup of coffee on a table covered with magazines, plants, books and various other objects. First, you must identify the coffee cup among the flowers and other objects on the table using the pathway and then for it, taking into account its location on the table using the pathway.

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A : ventral; dorsal B : ventral; ventral C : dorsal; dorsal D : dorsal; ventral Correct Answer : A 31 : Individuals with damage to the parietal regions associated with reaching have difficulty with reaching tasks. An analysis of their reach paths reveals that the parietal region .

A : provides guidance for where to reach B : calculates the distance required to reach for an object C : is responsible for motor coordination D : provides guidance for reaching and avoiding obstacles Correct Answer : D 32 : Neurons in the premotor cortex, called mirror neurons, respond when a monkey performs a hand action and when it hears the sound associated with this action A : coordinated B : grip C : sensorimotor D : audiovisual Correct Answer : D 33 : Mirror neurons in the monkey fire .

A : when the monkey sees the experimenter grasp a piece of food, and when the monkey also grasps the food B : when the experimenter grasps the food with his/her fingers, and when the experimenter picks up the food using pliers C : when the monkey sees the food reflected in a mirror D : when the monkey grasps the food with his/her fingers, and when the monkey picks up the food using pliers Correct Answer : A 34 : Which situation would most likely cause an audiovisual mirror neuron to fire?

A : when the monkey only hears the sound of breaking glass B : when the monkey sees a peanut breaking and hears the sound of the peanut breaking C : when the monkey sees a stick being dropped and hears the sound of the peanut breaking D : when the monkey grasps the peanut and sees the experimenter grasps the peanut with pliers Correct Answer : B 35 : Proposed functions of mirror neurons include their role in A : applying common heuristics B : facilitating the binding of information sources.

C : developing metacognitive skills D : aiding interpretation of facial expressions.

.

Correct Answer : D 6 / 10

36 : Softball players were asked to estimate the size of a softball immediately after a game.

When perceived ball size was examined in relation to batting average, it was revealed that .

A : batters who hit well perceived the ball to be smaller than batters who were less successful B : experienced batters perceived the ball to be larger than less experienced batters with the same hit-rate C : experienced batters perceived the ball to be smaller than less experienced batters D : batters who hit well perceived the ball to be bigger than batters who were less successful Correct Answer : D 37 : Jessica Witt and her colleagues (2009) asked people with chronic back and/or leg pain to estimate their distance from various objects placed in a long hallway and found that .

A : the chronic pain group consistently underestimated their distance from objects B : the chronic pain group was wildly inaccurate in estimating their distance from objects, with some underestimating and others overestimating C : the chronic pain group consistently overestimated their distance from objects D : there was no relationship between chronic pain and ability to estimate distances Correct Answer : C 38 : Some researchers have suggested that individuals with chronic pain may not perceive distances differently, but rather, may have .

A : emotional overreactions B : different expectations C : cognitive differences D : less motivation Correct Answer : B 39 : The perception hypothesis states that people perceive their environment in terms of their ability to act on it.

A : functionality B : utility-based C : visuomotor D : action-specific Correct Answer : D 40 : The exact functions of mirror neurons in humans are .

A : extremely limited in comparison to those in monkeys B : limited but well-established C : still being actively researched D : largely unknown due to problems with ethically-studying them in humans Correct Answer : C

ESSAY 41 : Name and discuss two characteristics of optic flow.

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Correct Answer : Optic flow is more rapid near the moving observer. The different speed of flow – fast near the observer and slower farther away – is called the gradient of flow. The gradient of flow provides information about how fast the observer is moving. According to Gibson, the observer uses the information provided by the gradient of flow to determine his or her speed of movement.? ? There is no flow at the destination toward which the observer is moving. The absence of flow at the destination point is called the focus of expansion (FOE).

42 : Discuss research that shows how vision is important in performing a somersault.

Correct Answer : We can appreciate the problem facing a gymnast who wants to execute an airborne backward somersault (or backflip) by realizing that, within 600 ms, the gymnast must execute the somersault and then end in exactly the correct body configuration precisely at the moment that he or she hits the ground. One way this could be accomplished is to learn to run a predetermined sequence of motions within a specific period of time. In this case, performance should be the same with eyes open or closed. However, Benoit Bardy and Makel Laurent (1998) found that expert gymnasts performed somersaults more poorly with their eyes closed.

Films showed that when their eyes were open, the gymnasts appeared to be making in-the-air corrections to their trajectory. For example, a gymnast who initiated the extension of his or her body a little too late compensated by performing the rest of the movement more rapidly.? ?

Another interesting result of Bardy & Laurent’s (1998) study was that closing the eyes did not affect the performance of novice somersaulters as much as it affected the performance of experts. Apparently, experts learn to coordinate their movements with their perceptions, a skill that novices have not yet learned. Therefore, when the novices closed their eyes, the loss of visual information had less of an effect than it did for the experts.

43 : Describe a blind-walking experiment, and discuss how the results are related to optic flow.

Correct Answer : Jack Loomis and co-workers (1992; Philbeck et al., 1997) have demonstrated that optic flow information is not always necessary by eliminating optic flow altogether, using a “blind walking” procedure in which people observe a target object located up to 12 meters away, then walk to the target with their eyes closed.? ? These experiments show that people are able to walk directly toward the target and stop within a fraction of a meter of it. In fact, people can do this even when they are asked to walk off in the wrong direction first and then make a turn and walk to the target, all while keeping their eyes closed. The fact that the person generally stopped close to the target shows that we are able to navigate short distances accurately in the absence of any visual stimulation at all (also see Sun et al., 2004). Subjects in the blind walking experiment accomplished this feat by mentally combining knowledge of their own movements (e.g., muscle movements can give the walker a sense of his or her speed as well as shifts in direction) with their memory for the position of the target throughout their walk.

The process by which people and animals keep track of their position within a surrounding environment while they move is called spatial updating 44 : Describe the role landmarks play in wayfinding.

Correct Answer : One important source of information for wayfinding is landmarks – objects on the route that serve as cues to indicate where to turn. Sahar Hamid and coworkers (2010) studied how subjects used landmarks as they learned to navigate through a mazelike environment displayed on a computer screen in which pictures of common objects served as landmarks. Subjects first navigated through the maze until they learned its layout (training phase) and then were told to travel from one location in the maze to another (testing phase).

During both the training and testing phases, subjects’ eye movements were measured using a head-mounted eye tracker. This maze contained both decision-point landmarks - objects at corners where the subject had to decide which direction to turn - and non-decision-point 8 / 10

landmarks - objects located in the middle of corridors that provided no critical information about how to navigate.? ? The eye-tracking measurements showed that subjects spent more time looking at decision-point landmarks than non-decision-point landmarks, probably because the decision-point landmarks were more important for navigating the maze. In fact, when maze performance was tested with half of the landmarks removed, removing landmarks that had been viewed less (which were likely to be in the middle of the corridors) had little effect on performance. However, removing landmarks that observers had looked at longer caused a substantial drop in performance.

45 : Describe Maguires work on individual differences in wayfinding.

Correct Answer : Eleanor Maguire and coworkers (2006) studied the effect of wayfinding practice on the brain by studying two groups of subjects: (1) London bus drivers, who have learned specific routes through the city, and (2) London taxi drivers, who have to travel to many different places throughout the city. She conducted an experiment in which bus drivers and taxi drivers were asked to identify pictures of London landmarks. Taxi drivers scored higher than bus drivers, as we might expect from their more widespread exposure to London. When the bus and taxi drivers’ brains were then scanned, Maguire found that the taxi drivers’ hippocampus was larger.?

46 : (a) What are affordances? (b) Provide an example of an object and what action it affords. (c) Describe whether or not an object could have more than one affordance associated with it.

Correct Answer : Affordances are information that indicates how an object can be used. What this means is that perception of an object includes not only its physical properties, such as shape, size, color, and orientation, that enable us to recognize the object, but also information about how the object is or could be used. For example, when you look at a cup, you might see that it is “a round white coffee cup, about 5 inches high, with a handle,” but your perceptual system would also respond with information indicating that it “can be picked up,” “can be filled with liquid,” or even “can be thrown.” Affordances thus go beyond simply recognizing the cup; they guide our interactions with it. Another way of saying this is that “potential for action” is part of our perception of an object.?

47 : Describe evidence from monkey studies that suggests that mirror neurons do more than respond to patterns of motion.

Correct Answer : Evidence that mirror neurons are doing more than just responding to a particular pattern of motion is the discovery of neurons that respond to sounds that are associated with actions. These neurons in the premotor cortex, called audiovisual mirror neurons, respond when a monkey performs a hand action and when it hears the sound associated with this action?

48 : One researcher found that tennis players who have recently won a match perceive the net as being lower than those who have recently lost. Describe how these differences in perception might arise.

Correct Answer : The action-specific perception hypothesis (Witt, 2011a) states that people perceive their environment in terms of their ability to act on it. This hypothesis has been largely based on the results of experiments involving sports. For example, Jessica Witt and Dennis Proffitt (2005) presented a series of circles to softball players just after they had finished a game, and asked them to pick the circle that best corresponded to the size of a softball. When they compared the players’ estimates to their batting averages from the just-completed game, they found that batters who hit well perceived the ball to be bigger than batters who were less 9 / 10

successful. These sports examples all involved making judgments after doing either well or poorly. This supports the idea that perception can be affected by performance.?

49 : Discuss the capacity of newborn infants to imitate facial expressions.

Correct Answer : The capacity to imitate the actions of others seems to be present from birth. In a classic demonstration of this, Andrew Meltzoff and Keith Moore (1977) showed that a group of infants aged 12 to 17 days imitate the facial expressions of an adult model. Imitating facial expressions may seem simple, but doing so reveals rather complex mental processing on the part of the infant. In order to imitate an adult’s facial expressions, the infant must have the ability to see, the ability to control his or her facial muscles, and the mental ability to transform what is seen visually into an action that can be performed nonvisually (i.e., we can’t see our own faces). This transformation is not simply the result of an automatic perception-to-action conversion process, however. Instead, it is purposeful and goal-oriented: children (and adults) imitate others because doing so teaches them how to perform and complete new tasks.?

50 : Discuss how mirror neurons could convey information about others intentions.

Correct Answer : One possibility is that the response of these neurons is determined by the chain of motor activities that could be expected to happen in a particular context (Fogassi et al., 2005; Gallese, 2007). For example, when a person picks up a cup with the intention of drinking, the next expected actions would be to bring the cup to the mouth and then to drink some coffee or tea. However, if the intention is to clean up, the expected action might be to carry the cup over to the sink. According to this idea, mirror neurons that respond to different intentions are responding to the action that is happening plus the sequence of actions that is most likely to follow, given the context.?

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CHAPTER 8 1 : The patient L.M. (studied by Zihl, et al.) had cortical lesions that affected her motion perception. What was her condition called?

A : prosopagnosia B : akinetopsia C : stroboscopia D : amblyopia Correct Answer : B 2 : The patient L.M. (studied by Zihl, et al.), who had cortical lesions that affected her motion perception, experienced A : no problems pouring a cup of coffee B : no difficulty crossing a street C : difficulty following dialogue D : only minor social inconveniences Correct Answer : C 3 : A mouse freezes when it sees a cat nearby. This assists the mouses survival because being motionless reduces .

A : the attention-attracting effect of motion B : the effectiveness of camouflage C : the levels of stress hormones D : the pheromones the mouse gives off Correct Answer : A 4 : Camouflage can be interpreted as a problem of A : figure-ground segregation B : binocular disparity C : induced movement D : the waterfall illusion

.

Correct Answer : A 5 : Movies are to as the waterfall illusion is to A : apparent movement; induced movement B : real movement; apparent movement C : movement aftereffects; stroboscopic movement D : apparent movement; movement aftereffects

.

Correct Answer : D 6 : Our ability to perceive movement when reading message boards that are used in advertising is based on .

A : apparent movement B : movement aftereffects C : waterfall effects D : motion agnosia

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Correct Answer : A 7 : Brian looks at the moon and some clouds at night. He perceives the moon moving through the clouds. This is an example of .

A : induced motion B : the stroboscopic effect C : the Reichardt effect D : the Shedlock effect Correct Answer : A 8 : Larsen et al. (2006) used fMRI to study the responses of the brain to real and apparent motion and found that .

A : the pathways overlapped but processing occurred in different brain regions B : both the pathways and the processing areas were distinct C : similar regions of the brain were activated for both D : there was a great deal of idiosyncrasy in the areas involved Correct Answer : C 9 : As Dore runs through the park, the flow signals that he is moving and not the environment.

Gibson calls this .

A : local disturbances in the optic array B : deletion in the optic array C : the global optic flow D : the bioptic flow Correct Answer : C 10 : Tom is watching Terri walk across the room. According to Gibson, Tom perceives Terri .

A : to be moving because her image is moving across his retina B : to be stationary because the background is stationary C : to be moving because of a local disturbance in the optic array D : to be stationary because the background texture is fixed Correct Answer : C 11 : In addition to describing movement detection in terms of the environment, researchers have proposed different ways to detect movement from a physiological perspective. The Reichardt detector is one solution. Which of the following is the greatest weakness of the Reichardt detector?

A : It only explains motion detection for images that cross the receptors.

B : It only explains how eye movements can be accounted for in motion detection.

C : It only is able to detect lateral movement of stimuli.

D : It operates using excitatory and inhibitory signals.

Correct Answer : A 12 : According to corollary discharge theory, movement is perceived when .

A : there is a disturbance in the global optic array B : the comparator receives the corollary discharge signal and image displacement signal simultaneously 2 / 11

C : the comparator receives the corollary discharge signal alone or image displacement signal alone D : the comparator finds dissimilarities between the local and global optic arrays Correct Answer : C 13 : Which type of signal is sent from the brain to the eye muscles?

A : image displacement signal B : ciliary signal C : motor signal D : comparator signal Correct Answer : C 14 : The signal is sent to other areas of the brain relaying the message that a signal has been sent from the motor cortex to the eye muscles. It is analogous to using the cc (copy) function in an email.

A : image displacement B : ciliary C : motor D : corollary discharge Correct Answer : D 15 : Which of the following is true about the corollary discharge theory?

A : It can explain why you see a bird moving in flight when you are following it with your eyes.

B : It has much behavioral support, but no physiological support yet.

C : It has little behavioral support, but the comparator has been found in the IT cortex.

D : It can explain why an afterimage seems to be stationary as you move your eye to different fixation points.

Correct Answer : A 16 : An afterimage when viewed in the dark appears to move when you move your eyes. The corollary discharge theory predicts this because .

A : there is an IDS, but not a CDS B : there is no IDS, but there is a CDS C : there is no IDS and no CDS D : there is both IDS and CDS Correct Answer : B 17 : Percy is injected with a drug that paralyzes his eye muscles. When he is instructed to try to move his eye when looking a stationary scene, his brain is able to send a signal to his eye muscles but he is unable to move his eyes. As a result, he perceives .

A : no movement, because his eye muscles cant move B : no movement, because the scene is stationary C : movement, because there is a CDS and an IDS D : movement, because there is a CDS, but not an IDS Correct Answer : D 18 : Mira gently pushes on her eye with her finger. Because her eye muscles push against the 3 / 11

force of her finger, which keeps the image in the same location, she perceives the visual scene .

A : to be jiggling B : to be stationary C : to have exaggerated depth D : to be shrinking Correct Answer : A 19 : R.W., the man who experienced vertigo when he moved his eyes, suffered cortical damage that eliminated .

A : corollary discharge signals B : image movement signals C : cortical magnification D : binocular cell firing Correct Answer : A 20 : The vertigo case of R.W. not only provided evidence for the corollary discharge theory, it revealed the importance of the in producing CDS. A : MT area B : PPA C : STS D : MST area Correct Answer : D 21 : Real-motion neurons found in the monkey cortex fire when when moves.

A : the eye; a stimulus B : a stimulus; the background C : a stimulus; the eye D : the background; a stimulus

moves, but do not fire

Correct Answer : C 22 : In monkeys, real-motion neurons have been located in A : the extrastriate cortex B : the striate cortex C : the retina D : the brain stem

.

Correct Answer : A 23 : Newsome, Britten, and Movshon found that as the coherence between the dots direction of movement increased, .

A : the MT neuron fired more rapidly B : the monkey judged the direction of movement less accurately C : the MT neuron fired less rapidly D : the MT neuron fired at rates less than the level of spontaneous activity Correct Answer : A 4 / 11

24 : A monkey with an intact MT cortex can detect the direction of moving dots when coherence is %, while a monkey that has had the MT cortex lesioned detects the direction of the moving dots when coherence is %.

A : 1-2; 10-20 B : 10-20; 1-2 C : 1-2; 1-2 D : 1-20; 1-2 Correct Answer : A 25 : The connection between MT neurons and movement perception has been supported by .

A : lesioning studies only B : microstimulation studies only C : both lesioning and microstimulation studies D : intact brain studies only Correct Answer : C 26 : The is demonstrated when you look through a circle you make with your fingers, and move a pencil either horizontally or diagonally behind your fingers.

A : kinetic depth effect B : structure-from-motion phenomenon C : correspondence problem D : aperture problem Correct Answer : D 27 : In the pooling solution to the aperture problem, MT neurons receive signals from a number of neurons in the and then combine these signals to determine the actual direction of motion.

A : striate cortex B : prefrontal cortex C : cerebellum D : central sulcus Correct Answer : A 28 : Pack and Born (2001) found that the combining of responses from V1 cells occurs after about after presentation of the moving bars.

A : 1 msec B : 20 msec C : 140 msec D : 900 msec Correct Answer : C 29 : In an apparent motion demonstration, two pictures are used. In one picture, a fist is located behind a board; in the other, the fist is located in front of the board at the same height. When rapidly alternating between these pictures, what apparent motion would result?

A : The fist would appear to go around the side of the board.

B : The fist would appear to magically pass through the board.

C : The fist would appear to smash the board.

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D : No apparent motion would occur; it would look like two still pictures.

Correct Answer : B 30 : In an apparent motion demonstration, two pictures are used. In one picture, a persons fist is located behind his head; in the other, the persons fist is located in front of their face at the same height. When slowly alternating between these pictures (less the five times a second), what apparent motion would result?

A : The fist would appear to go around the side of the head.

B : The fist would appear to magically pass through the head.

C : The fist would appear to smash the head.

D : No apparent motion would occur because the alternation is too slow.

Correct Answer : A 31 : A point-light walker wears lights on different body locations. When viewed in a dark room, an observer would perceive a(n) .

A : person when the point-light walker is not moving B : person when the point-light walker is moving C : person if just one light on the person is moving D : unidentifiable biological organism when the point-light walker is moving Correct Answer : B 32 : The perceptual grouping of lights in biological motion has been shown physiologically to occur in the area of the cortex.

A : superior temporal sulcus B : lateral geniculate C : premotor D : anterior intraparietal Correct Answer : A 33 : is a technique that has been used to temporarily disturb brain area functioning in humans.

A : Lesioning B : Ablation C : Transcranial magnetic stimulation D : Orbital magnetic gyration Correct Answer : C 34 : Presenting transcranial magnetic stimulation to the area of the STS in humans A : increased the persons ability to perceive biological motion B : decreased the persons ability to perceive biological motion C : did not affect the persons ability to perceive biological motion D : resulted in gender difference in perceiving biological motion

.

Correct Answer : B 35 : Freyd (1983) presented two pictures sequentially that implied motion, such as a person jumping off a low wall. In the same condition, the second picture was identical to the first; in the time-forward condition, the second picture was the jumper closer to the ground; and in the time6 / 11

backward condition, the jumper was further from the ground. The observers task was to respond whether or not the two pictures were the same or different. The response time was longest for .

A : the same condition B : the time-forward condition C : the time-backward condition D : both the same and time-backward conditions Correct Answer : B 36 : Which of the following stimuli is most likely to show the greatest representational momentum?

A : a house B : a rocket C : a coffee mug D : a banana Correct Answer : B 37 : Kourtzi and Kanwisher (2000) used fMRIs to show that implied motion stimuli cause A : greater responses in the MT and MST than no-implied motion stimuli B : less firing in the MT and MST than no-implied motion stimuli C : less firing in the amygdala than the house pictures D : the same amount of firing in the MST as house pictures

.

Correct Answer : A 38 : The real world contains instances of continuous motion that somehow are divided up into meaningful units. The point in time when one unit ends and another begins is referred to as the .

A : breaking point B : segment marker C : event boundary D : transition period Correct Answer : C 39 : In one study, Zacks et al. (2009) recorded someone making a sandwich and asked participants to press a button when they thought one action was complete. The results of the study indicated that were indicative of the end of an action.

A : pauses B : changes in speed C : changes in hand orientation D : head movements Correct Answer : B 40 : When L.M. tried to pour a cup of tea, she .

A : had some trouble aiming, but was able to get most of it in the cup B : perceived the tea as frozen, like a glacier C : could do it accurately if she talked herself through the steps D : typically under-filled the cup because she could not judge the level 7 / 11

Correct Answer : B

ESSAY 41 : Describe the case of the woman with akinetopsia. What does this case tell us about the importance of motion perception?

Correct Answer : Perhaps the most dramatic way to illustrate the importance of motion perception to daily life (and survival) comes from case studies of individuals who, through disease or trauma, suffer from damage to parts of the brain responsible for perceiving and understanding movement. When this happens, a person is said to suffer from a condition called akinetopsia or “motion blindness,” where motion is either very difficult or impossible to perceive. The most famous and well-studied case of akinetopsia is that of a 43-year-old woman known as L.M. (Zihl et al., 1983, 1991). Without the ability to perceive motion following a stroke, L.M. was unable to successfully complete activities as simple as pouring a cup of tea. As she put it, “the fluid appeared to be frozen, like a glacier,” and without the ability to perceive the tea rising in the cup, she had trouble knowing when to stop pouring. Her condition caused other, more serious problems as well. It was dif?cult for her to follow dialogue because she couldn’t see the motions of a speaker’s face and mouth, and people suddenly appeared or disappeared because she couldn’t see them approaching or leaving. Crossing the street presented serious problems because at ?rst a car might seem far away, but then suddenly, without warning, it would appear very near. Thus, her disability was not just a social inconvenience but enough of a threat to the woman’s well-being that she rarely ventured outside into the world of moving – and sometimes dangerous – objects.

42 : Discuss three types of illusory motion and provide an example of each.

Correct Answer : The most famous, and best studied, type of illusory motion is called apparent motion. When two stimuli in slightly different locations are alternated with the correct timing, an observer perceives one stimulus moving back and forth smoothly between the two locations.

This perception is called apparent motion because there is no actual (or real) motion between the stimuli. This is the basis for the motion we perceive in movies, on television, and in moving signs that are used for advertising and entertainment. Induced motion occurs when motion of one object (usually a large one) causes a nearby stationary object (usually smaller) to appear to move. For example, the moon usually appears stationary in the sky. However, if clouds are moving past the moon on a windy night, the moon may appear to be racing through the clouds.

In this case, movement of the larger object (clouds covering a large area) makes the smaller, but actually stationary, moon appear to be moving. Motion aftereffects occur when viewing a moving stimulus causes a stationary stimulus to appear to move (Glasser et al., 2011). One example of a motion aftereffect is the waterfall illusion (Addams, 1834). If you look at a waterfall for 30 to 60 seconds (be sure it ?lls up only part of your ?eld of view) and then look off to the side at part of the scene that is stationary, you will see everything you are looking at - rocks, trees, grass - appears to move upward for a few seconds. If you’re short on waterfalls, next time you are at the cinema, you may be able to induce this illusion by carefully watching the rolling credits at the end of the movie (you should sit toward the rear of the theater).

43 : (a) What does Gibson mean by the optic array? (b) Specify how changes in the optic array affect movement perception.

Correct Answer : Gibson’s approach (1950, 1966, 1979) involves looking for information in the environment that is useful for perception. This information for perception, according to Gibson, 8 / 11

is located not on the retina but “out there” in the environment. He thought about information in the environment in terms of the optic array – the structure created by the surfaces, textures, and contours of the environment – and he focused on how movement of the observer causes changes in the optic array. Local disturbance in the optic array occurs when there is movement relative to the environment, covering and uncovering the stationary background. According to Gibson, this local disturbance in the optic array provides information that movement is occurring relative to the environment.

44 : What is the aperture problem? How does the visual system solve this problem?

Correct Answer : The fact that viewing only a small portion of a larger stimulus can result in misleading information about the direction in which the stimulus is moving is called the aperture problem. There are at least two solutions to the aperture problem. 1. A neuron could use information about the end of a moving object (such as the tip of the pencil) to determine its direction of motion. As it turns out, neurons that could signal this information, because they respond to the ends of moving objects, have been found in the striate cortex. 2. The second solution is to pool, or combine, responses from a number of neurons. Apparently, MT neurons receive signals from a number of neurons in the striate cortex and then combine these signals to determine the actual direction of motion.

45 : (a) Describe the major components and principle of the corollary discharge theory. (b) Describe two behavioral demonstrations that support the corollary discharge theory and specify how the theory predicts the result.

Correct Answer : The three components of corollary discharge theory are: 1. An image displacement signal (IDS) occurs when an image moves across receptors in the retina. 2. A motor signal (MS) occurs when a signal is sent from the brain to the eye muscles. 3. A corollary discharge signal (CDS) is a copy of the motor signal that, instead of going to the eye muscles, is sent to a different place in the brain. This is analogous to using the “cc” (copy) function when sending an email message. The email goes to the person it is addressed to, and a copy of the email is simultaneously sent to someone else at another address. Why does an afterimage appear to move when you move your eyes? The answer cannot be that an image is moving across your retina because the circle’s image always remains at the same place on the retina.

(The circle’s image on the retina has created a small area of bleached visual pigment, which remains in the same place no matter where the eye is looking.) Without motion of the stimulus across the retina, there is no image displacement signal. However, the motor signals sent to move your eyes are creating a corollary discharge signal, which reaches the comparator alone, so the afterimage appears to move. Why do you see motion when you push on your eyeball?

Lawrence Stark and Bruce Bridgeman (1983) did an experiment in which they instructed observers to keep looking at a particular point while pushing on their eyelid. Because the observers were paying strict attention to the instructions (“Keep looking at that point!”), the push on their eyelid didn’t cause their eyes to move. This lack of movement occurred because the observer’s eye muscles were pushing back against the force of the ?nger to keep the eye in place. According to corollary discharge theory, the motor signal sent to the eye muscles to hold the eye in place created a corollary discharge signal, which reached the comparator alone, so Stark and Bridgeman’s observers saw the scene move.

46 : Review the evidence for the physiological basis of perceiving biological motion.

Correct Answer : Our ability to easily perceive biological motion in moving points of light led some researchers to suspect that there may be a specific area in the brain that responds to biological motion. Emily Grossman and Randolph Blake (2001) provided evidence supporting the idea of a specialized area in the brain for biological motion by measuring observers’ brain 9 / 11

activity as they viewed the moving dots created by a point-light walker and as they viewed dots that moved similarly to the point-light walker dots, but were scrambled so they did not result in the impression of a person walking. They found that a small area in the superior temporal sulcus was more active when viewing biological motion than viewing scrambled motion in all eight of their observers. In later experiments, researchers determined that other brain areas are also involved in the perception of biological motion. For example, both the FFA (Grossman & Blake, 2002) and the portions of the PFC that contain mirror neurons are activated more by biological motion than by scrambled motion. Based on these results, researchers have concluded that there is a network of areas that together are specialized for the perception of biological motion 47 : Describe Freyds (1983) study of implied motion.

Correct Answer : Maggie Shiffrar and Jennifer Freyd (1990, 1993) had observers view photographs in which a woman is shown with her hand in front of her head and then with her hand (apparently) behind her head, with the photographs alternating rapidly. According to the shortest path constraint, motion should be perceived in a straight line between the hands in the alternating photos, which means observers would see the woman’s hand as moving through her head. This is, in fact, exactly what happens when the pictures are alternated very rapidly (five or more times a second), even though motion through the head is physically impossible.

While the straight-line motion of the hand through the head is an interesting result, the most important result occurred when the rate of alternation was slowed. When the pictures were alternated less than five times per second, the hand appeared to move around the woman’s head.

48 : Describe the findings of Kourtzi and Kanwishers (2000) fMRI study of implied motion.

Correct Answer : If implied motion causes an object to continue moving in a person’s mind, then it would seem reasonable that this continued motion might be re?ected by activity in the brain. When Zoe Kourtzi and Nancy Kanwisher (2000) measured the fMRI response in the MT and MST cortex to pictures that showed implied motion, no implied motion, a person at rest and an object that would not reasonably be expected to move, like a house, they found that the area of the brain that responds to actual motion also responds to pictures of motion, and that impliedmotion (IM) pictures caused a greater response than no-implied-motion (no-IM) pictures, at rest (R) pictures, or house (H) pictures. Thus, activity occurs in the brain that corresponds to the continued motion that implied- motion pictures create in a person’s mind.

49 : Describe Francesca Simions work with biological motion in newborn infants.

Correct Answer : Francesca Simion and her coworkers (2008) wondered whether biological motion detector mechanisms might be present in newborn humans. To find out, the researchers conducted a study with 1- and 2-day-old newborns using the preferential looking procedure.

Simion conducted her experiment in the maternity ward of a hospital with full-term newborns.

Infants in the study sat on an adult’s lap while they were shown two movies simultaneously on side-by-side computer monitors. On one screen, infants saw 14 point-lights moving in random directions. On the other screen, they were shown a movie where the 14 moving point-lights depicted the same walking hen used by Vallortigara in his experiment with chicks. Simion used the hen-walking animation because she could not ethically deprive the newborns of any visual experience prior to their participation in her study. So, the newborns may have obtained some very limited experience with human motion prior to the experiment, but it was very unlikely that they had seen any hens wandering about the hospital. The researchers wanted to know if these newborns, like newly hatched chicks, would prefer the biological motion display to the random point-light display. They therefore compared the amount of time the infants spent looking at each movie. They discovered that the infants spent 58 percent of their time looking at the point10 / 11

light hen, which was statistically greater than the time spent looking at the random point-light display. Thus, Simion and her colleagues concluded that, like chicks, humans are born with an ability to detect biological motion.

50 : Identify four brain regions involved in perception motion and describe the role of each region.

Correct Answer : Striate Cortex (V1): Direction of motion across small receptive fields Middle Temporal Area (MT): Direction and speed of object motion Medial Superior Temporal Area (MST): Processing optic flow; locating moving objects; reaching for moving objects Superior Temporal Sulcus (STS): Perception of motion related to animals and people (biological motion)

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CHAPTER 9 1 : When you go to pick strawberries, you are easily able to separate the ripe red berries from the green foliage, the white blossoms and the green, still-forming berries. This has led to the suggestion that .

A : we need experience with the natural world in order to experience color vision B : the genes resulting in lack of color vision should have disappeared long ago C : color vision may have evolved for the express purpose of detecting fruit D : only herbivore species should have color vision Correct Answer : C 2 : A monkey with good color vision .

A : would have difficulty with figure-ground segregation B : would have a better chance of surviving than a color-blind monkey C : would have an equal chance of survival as a color-blind monkey D : would be very atypical, since most monkeys are color-blind Correct Answer : B 3 : Adding more white to a color changes the colors A : hue B : wavelength C : brightness D : saturation

.

Correct Answer : D 4 : The basic colors in the color circle are A : red, white, blue and green.

B : black, white, and gray C : red, green, and blue D : red, green, blue, and yellow

.

Correct Answer : D 5 : By changing , we can create about a million (or more) discriminable colors.

A : saturation only B : value only C : hue and saturation, but not value D : saturation, value, and hue Correct Answer : D 6 : The reflectance curve is a plot of the light reflected off a surface as a function of A : spatial frequency B : contrast C : wavelength D : orientation

.

Correct Answer : C

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7 : The reflectance curve for a white piece of paper would reflect .

A : mostly short wavelengths, a moderate amount of medium wavelengths, and a little of the long wavelengths B : mostly long wavelengths, a small amount of medium wavelengths, and a little of the short wavelengths C : a little of short wavelengths, a large amount of medium wavelengths, and a little of the long wavelengths D : long, medium and short wavelengths equally Correct Answer : D 8 : The reflectance curve for a purple piece of paper will reflect A : short wavelengths B : long wavelengths only C : all wavelengths equally D : long and short wavelengths

.

Correct Answer : D 9 : Yellow and blue light is projected on a white screen. What color will the screen appear to be?

A : white B : gray C : green D : purple Correct Answer : A 10 : Light that is mixed is referred to as a(n) A : electromagnetic color mixture B : additive color mixture C : subtractive color mixture D : transitive color mixture

.

Correct Answer : B 11 : Paint that is mixed is referred to as a(n) A : viscous color mixture B : additive color mixture C : subtractive color mixture D : pigmented color mixture

.

Correct Answer : C 12 : Blue and yellow paints mixed together yield A : white B : gray C : green D : purple

.

Correct Answer : C 13 : The major theories of color vision were first proposed A : in the 1800s, based on behavioral evidence only

.

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B : in the 1930s, based on some psychophysical data and lesioning studies C : in the 1960s after Hubel and Wiesels pioneering research D : in the 1990s when advanced brain imaging studies were conducted Correct Answer : A 14 : The trichromatic theory of color vision is also known as the A : Seurat-Signac B : Hering C : Young-Helmholtz D : Young-Adhart

theory.

Correct Answer : C 15 : Color matching experiments show that if a person with full color vision is given at least wavelengths to mix together, the person can match any single wavelength.

A : two B : three C : four D : five Correct Answer : B 16 : The trichromatic theory of color vision states that color perception is due to A : the pattern of activity in four different receptors mechanisms B : the activity pattern in the occipital, parietal, and temporal cortical lobes C : the pattern of activity in three different receptor mechanisms D : processing in layers 1,2, and 3 in the LGN

.

Correct Answer : C 17 : The maximum absorption for the short-wavelength cone pigment is at A : 308 B : 419 C : 531 D : 558

nm.

Correct Answer : B 18 : The maximum absorption for the long-wavelength cone pigment is at A : 419 B : 531 C : 558 D : 747

nm.

Correct Answer : C 19 : The pattern of firing of receptor activity in response to red would be .

A : large firing from the S receptor, medium firing from the M receptor, and little firing from the L receptor B : large firing from the S receptor, large firing from the M receptor, and little firing from the L receptor C : little firing from the S receptor, a moderate firing from the M receptor, and large firing from 3 / 12

the L receptor D : large firing from the S receptor, large firing from the M receptor, and large firing from the L receptor Correct Answer : C 20 : Two stimuli that are physically different, but are perceptually identical, are called A : complements B : Rayleigh stimuli C : metamers D : isomers

.

Correct Answer : C 21 : The principle of helps explain why a person with only one visual pigment can see all wavelengths as the same color (i.e., shade of gray) if light intensity is adjusted appropriately.

A : intensity B : adjustments C : univariance D : unitization Correct Answer : C 22 : In order to distinguish between wavelengths independent of light intensity, one must have at least visual pigment(s).

A : one B : two C : three D : four Correct Answer : B 23 : A monochromat experiences A : black, white, and grays B : black, grays, and greens C : different shades of red D : different shades of blue

.

Correct Answer : A 24 : A unilateral dichromat .

A : has trichromatic vision in one eye and dichromatic vision in the other eye B : can only see black, white, and grays C : can match any wavelength with three wavelengths in the comparison field, but is not as good as trichromats at discriminating small differences in wavelengths D : is more common in the U.S. than protonopes Correct Answer : A 25 : Which of the following statements is TRUE about dichromatism?

A : Males are more likely to be dichromats than females.

B : Experience, not genetics, is the major cause of dichromacy.

C : There are six major forms of dichromacy.

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D : There are nine major forms of dichromacy.

Correct Answer : A 26 : The neutral point for protonopes is approximately A : 405 B : 492 C : 570 D : 690

nm.

Correct Answer : B 27 : Physiological evidence shows that deuteranopes do not have the pigment.

A : short B : medium C : long D : short and long

wavelength cone

Correct Answer : B 28 : The rarest form of dichromatism is A : deuteranopia B : protanopia C : tritanopia D : fruitopia

.

Correct Answer : C 29 : Which of the following is behavioral support for the opponent-process theory?

A : color afterimages B : color matching C : visual pigment absorption rates D : the univariance effect Correct Answer : A 30 : Nora adapts to a yellow stimulus for about 30 seconds. She will then see an afterimage that appears to be .

A : a saturated yellow B : green C : blue D : red Correct Answer : C 31 : Dr. Lanzilotti wants to create a stimulus that will produce an afterimage of a red heart shape against a white background. He should make the heart and the background .

A : red; green B : green; black C : blue; white D : pink; red 5 / 12

Correct Answer : B 32 : Which of the following is an opponent mechanism proposed by Hering?

A : Black (+); White (-) B : Red (+); Green (-) C : Blue (+); Red (-) D : Black (-); Yellow (+) Correct Answer : B 33 : Herings support for opponent-process theory was A : neurological B : behavioral C : physiological D : phenomenological

in nature.

Correct Answer : D 34 : Opponent neurons found in theory.

A : the retina only B : the LGN only C : the superior colliculus only D : both the retina and LGN

provide physiological support for the opponent-process

Correct Answer : D 35 : Which statement below best describes the current consensus on the theories of color vision?

A : The physiological support for the trichromatic theory is greater than the support for the opponent-process theory.

B : The physiological evidence for the opponent-process theory has shown that the trichromatic theory is incorrect.

C : The psychophysical evidence for the trichromatic theory has shown that the opponentprocess theory is incorrect.

D : The physiology of the cone receptors and the discovery of opponent cells in the retina and LGN show that both theories are correct.

Correct Answer : D 36 : The case of Mr. I, described in the beginning of the chapter, supports the idea that color is processed in .

A : the retina only B : the LGN only C : both the retina and LGN D : a color center in the cortex Correct Answer : D 37 : Cerebral achromatopsia is when a person .

A : has only one type of cone pigment due to genetic causes B : has only two types of cone pigments C : has normal cone functioning, but cannot experience color due to a brain injury 6 / 12

D : paradoxically can experience color cortically from stimulation from the rods Correct Answer : C 38 : The wavelength distributions from an incandescent light bulb and from sunlight are .

A : exactly the same B : different, with the incandescent light bulb distribution having much higher amounts of energy at long wavelengths C : different, with the incandescent light bulb distribution having much higher amounts of energy at short wavelengths D : different, with the sunlight distribution having much higher amounts of energy at long wavelengths Correct Answer : B 39 : According to researcher Dorthea Jameson, A blue bird would not be mistaken for a goldfinch if it were brought indoors. This supports the concept of .

A : anomalous trichromacy B : neutral point univariance C : color constancy D : area centralis Correct Answer : C 40 : Uchikawa et al. demonstrated how A : chromatic adaptation B : the ratio principle C : isomerization D : neural circuitry

can explain why color constancy occurs.

Correct Answer : A 41 : Mark enters a supermarket that is lit by red lights. After fifteen minutes he enters the produce section and finds some red apples to purchase. Mark is able to see these apples as red because he has undergone .

A : chromatic adaptation B : re-adaption C : Isomerization D : corticalization Correct Answer : A 42 : Color constancy works best when .

A : surrounding colors are masked B : chromatic adaptation occurs C : a color object is surrounded by one other color D : a color object is surrounded by many different colors Correct Answer : D 43 : Which of the following is a finding that demonstrates the phenomenon of memory color?

A : Participants recall words printed in red ink better than words printed in black ink.

B : Participants can quickly identify the word blue if printed in blue ink.

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C : Participants have difficulty reporting ink color if the word is the name of a color different than the ink color.

D : Participants perceive a 620-nm pattern as being redder if that pattern has the shape of a stop sign rather than a mushroom shape.

Correct Answer : D 44 : Ikya looks at a white surface under sunlight conditions and she perceives it to be white.

When she looks at the white surface under a tungsten light, it looks to her.

A : reddish B : yellowish C : white D : violet Correct Answer : C 45 : According to the ratio principle, .

A : lightness constancy will occur as long as the ratio of light reflected from a white surface and a black surface remain constant B : lightness constancy will occur if the ratio of light reflected from a white surface and a black surface increases as the overall light intensity increases C : lightness constancy will occur if the ratio of light reflected from a white surface and a black surface decreases as the overall light intensity increases D : lightness constancy cannot occur unless there are pre-existing cortical abnormalities Correct Answer : A 46 : The edge between a dark shadow and an illuminated checkerboard is a(n) A : reflectance edge B : illumination edge C : ratio edge D : Ishihara border

.

Correct Answer : B 47 : If you cover the penumbra with a black marker, the perception of the border A : remains constant B : changes from an illumination edge to a reflectance edge C : changes from a reflectance edge to an illumination edge D : can be predicted from the ratio principle

.

Correct Answer : B 48 : If you look at a folded index card though a pinhole, you see the border as a(n) because the card looks .

A : illumination edge; flat B : illumination edge; 3-D C : reflectance edge; flat D : reflectance edge; 3-D Correct Answer : C 49 : Newtons quote, The rays are not colored, means that

.

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A : we can determine the accuracy of color perception by measuring the wavelength of the light B : colors are created by our perceptual system C : the experience of color is not arbitrary D : a 450 nm pattern will look the identical shade of blue to all human trichromats Correct Answer : B 50 : The absorption curves for honeybee visual pigments are .

A : nearly identical to those of humans B : shifted downward, so honeybees can see shorter wavelengths than humans can C : shifted upward, so honeybees can see longer wavelengths than humans can D : shifted downward for the lowest wavelength lights and shifted upward for the highest Correct Answer : A 51 : Bornstein et al. habituated a four-month-old infants to a 510 nm (green) stimulus, then presented a 480nm (blue) stimulus or a 540nm (green) stimulus. The infants in this study dishabituated to A : the 480 nm stimulus only B : the 540 nm stimulus only C : both of the 480nm and 540nm stimulus D : neither the 480 nm nor the 540 nm stimulus Correct Answer : A

ESSAY 52 : Explain (with examples) the difference between additive color mixture and subtractive color mixture.

Correct Answer : The key to understanding what happens when colored paints are mixed together is that when mixed, both paints still absorb the same wavelengths they absorbed when alone, so the only wavelengths reflected are those that are reflected by both paints in common.

Because medium wavelengths are the only ones reflected by both paints in common, a mixture of blue and yellow paints appears green. Because the blue and yellow blobs subtract all of the wavelengths except some that are associated with green, mixing paints is called a subtractive color mixture. The key to understanding what happens when colored lights are superimposed is that all of the light that is reflected from the surface by each light when alone is also reflected when the lights are superimposed. Thus, where the two spots are superimposed, the light from the blue spot and the light from the yellow spot are both reflected into the observer’s eye. The added-together light therefore contains short, medium, and long wavelengths, which results in the perception of white. Because mixing lights involves adding up the wavelengths of each light in the mixture, mixing lights is called an additive color mixture. Examples will vary.

53 : Contrast the three types of dichromatism with regard to rates of occurrence, neutral points, color experience, and proposed physiological cause.

Correct Answer : People with dichromatism are missing one of the three cone pigments and hence experience some colors. However, they cannot distinguish as many colors as can trichromats. There are three major forms of dichromatism: protanopia, deuteranopia, and tritanopia. The two most common kinds, protanopia and deuteranopia, are inherited through a 9 / 12

gene located on the X chromosome (Nathans et al., 1986). Males (XY) have only one X chromosome, so a defect in the visual pigment gene on this chromosome causes color deficiency. Females (XX), on the other hand, with their two X chromosomes, are less likely to become color deficient because only one normal gene is required for normal color vision. These forms of color vision are therefore called sex-linked because women can carry the gene for color deficiency without being color deficient themselves. Thus, many more males than females are dichromats. Protanopia affects 1 percent of males and 0.02 percent of females. A protanope is missing the long-wavelength pigment. As a result, a protanope perceives shortwavelength light as blue, and as the wavelength is increased, the blue becomes less and less saturated until, at 492 nm, the protanope perceives gray. The wavelength at which the protanope perceives gray is called the neutral point. At wavelengths above the neutral point, the protanope perceives yellow, which becomes less intense at the long wavelength end of the spectrum. Deuteranopia affects about 1 percent of males and 0.01 percent of females. A deuteranope is missing the medium-wavelength pigment. A deuteranope perceives blue at short wavelengths, sees yellow at long wavelengths, and has a neutral point at about 498 nm (Boynton, 1979). Tritanopia is very rare, affecting only about 0.002 percent of males and 0.001 percent of females. A tritanope is missing the short-wavelength pigment. A tritanope sees blue at short wavelengths, red at long wavelengths, and a neutral point at 570 nm (Alpern et al., 1983).

54 : Describe the phenomenological evidence Hering provided for the opponent-process theory of color vision.

Correct Answer : Hering’s ideas about opponent colors were based on people’s color experiences when looking at a color circle. A color circle arranges perceptually similar colors next to each other around its perimeter. When looking at the color circle, Hering noted that the colors all seem to fall into four groups that are defined by the amount of yellowness, blueness, greenness, and redness in each group. The trip around the color circle can be described as a journey, which begins with one of Hering’s primary colors (red, yellow, green, or blue) and evolves into different colors as small amounts of the next primary color are added. Hering’s description is revealing, both because it illustrates his phenomenological descriptions, and also because it set the stage for his idea that color vision can be explained based on pairs of opposing colors. Looking back at the color circle, Hering observed that it can be divided into an upper portion where the colors possess some amount of redness, a lower portion where the colors have some amount of greenness, a left portion where the colors seem to contain varying degrees of blueness, and a right portion where the colors have more or less yellowness.

What’s important to realize, according to Hering, is that while we can see yellowish reds (upper right) and yellowish greens (lower right), and we can see bluish greens (lower left) and bluish reds (upper left), there is no color anywhere in the circle that appears to be both yellowish and bluish, or any color that appears to be a combination of red and green. In fact, we can’t even imagine what a bluish yellow or reddish green would even look like. (Try it!) Thus, Hering proposed that our color experience is built from four primary chromatic colors that are arranged into two opponent pairs: yellow–blue and red–green. In addition to these chromatic colors, Hering also considered black and white to be an opponent achromatic pair.

55 : Does retinal physiology support the trichromatic theory, opponent-processing theory, or both? Support your answer.

Correct Answer : Our experience of color is shaped by physiological mechanisms both in the receptors and in opponent neurons at the level of the retina. Trichromatic theory is supported by color matching at the level of receptors while hue cancellation, which supports opponentprocess theory occurs in opponent cells. Hence, retinal physiology supports both theories.

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56 : Evaluate Newtons claim that the light rays are not colored.

Correct Answer : Newton’s idea is that the colors we see in response to different wavelengths are not contained in the rays of light themselves, but that the rays “stir up a sensation of this or that color.” Stating this idea in modern-day physiological terms, we would say that light rays are simply energy, so there is nothing intrinsically “blue” about short wavelengths or “red” about long wavelengths, and that we perceive color because of the way our nervous system responds to this energy. We can appreciate the role of the nervous system in creating color experience by considering not only what happens when vision shifts from cone to rod receptors but also the fact that people like Mr. I., the artist who lost his ability to see color in a car accident, see no colors, even though they are receiving the same stimuli as people with normal color vision. Also, many animals perceive either no color or a greatly reduced palette of colors compared to humans, and others sense a wider range of colors than humans, depending on the nature of their visual systems.

57 : Discuss the methods and results of Uchikawa et al.s (1989) research on chromatic adaptation and color constancy.

Correct Answer : The idea that chromatic adaptation is responsible for color constancy has been tested in an experiment by Keiji Uchikawa and coworkers (1989). Observers viewed isolated patches of colored paper under three different conditions: (a) baseline - paper and observer illuminated by white light; (b) observer not adapted - paper illuminated by red light, observer by white (the observer is not chromatically adapted); and (c) observer adapted to red – both paper and observer illuminated by red light (the observer is chromatically adapted). In the baseline condition, a green paper is perceived as green. In the observer not adapted condition, the observer perceives the paper’s color as being shifted toward the red. Color constancy does not occur in this condition because the observer is not adapted to the red light that is illuminating the paper. But in the observer adapted to red condition, perception is shifted only slightly to the red, so it appears more yellowish. Thus, the chromatic adaptation has created partial color constancy – the perception of the object is shifted after adaptation, but not as much as when there was no adaptation. This means that the eye can adjust its sensitivity to different wavelengths to keep color perception approximately constant as illumination changes.

58 : (a) What is the difference between an illumination edge and a reflectance edge? (b) Discuss what the penumbra demonstration and the folded card demonstration reveal about perception of these types of edges.

Correct Answer : The perceptual system needs to distinguish between reflectance edges and illumination edges. A reflectance edge is an edge where the reflectance of two surfaces changes, for example, when two surfaces are made of different materials that reflect different amounts of light. An illumination edge is an edge where the lighting changes. ? Covering the penumbra (the fuzzy border at the edge of the shadow) causes most people to perceive a change in the appearance of the shadowed area. Apparently, the penumbra provides information to the visual system that the dark area next to the cup is a shadow, so the edge between the shadow and the paper is an illumination edge. However, masking off the penumbra eliminates that information, so the area covered by the shadow is seen as a change in reflectance. In this demonstration, lightness constancy occurs when the penumbra is present but does not occur when it is masked. ? In the demonstration in which a folded card is viewed through a pinhole, the illumination edge you perceived at first became transformed into an erroneous perception of a reflectance edge, so you saw the shadowed white paper as being gray paper. The erroneous perception occurs because viewing the shaded corner through a small hole eliminated information about the conditions of illumination and the orientation of the corner. In order for lightness constancy to occur, it is important that the visual system have 11 / 12

adequate information about the conditions of illumination. Without this information, lightness constancy can break down and a shadow can be seen as a darkly pigmented area.

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CHAPTER 10 1 : Merrill watches his finger with both eyes as he brings it closer to his nose. As the finger gets closer, his eyes move inward and he feels his eye muscles working. Which depth cue(s) is/are associated with the changes made in the shape of the lens as he brings objects into focus?

A : accommodation and convergence B : convergence and accretion C : accretion D : stereopsis Correct Answer : A 2 : Of the oculomotor depth cues, convergence is A : less effective B : more effective C : equally effective D : less automatic

than accommodation.

Correct Answer : B 3 : What depth cue could be classified as a binocular cue and an oculomotor cue?

A : accommodation B : accretion C : stereopsis D : convergence Correct Answer : D 4 : When your professor stands behind a podium, you perceive your professor as being further away than the podium because the podium blocks the vision of the professors body. This is an example of which depth cue?

A : relative height B : convergence C : occlusion D : accommodation Correct Answer : C 5 : Several years ago, Bryce, a devoted fan of the Houston Rockets basketball team who had gone to many games in person, saw the player Yao Ming (who is 76 tall) standing next to his coach Jeff VanGundy (who is less than 6 feet tall). Bryce still remembers that she correctly perceived the two men as being the same distance away from her. Which depth cue most influenced her perception?

A : relative height B : relative size C : familiar size D : accretion Correct Answer : C 6 : Vinod is standing on a rooftop in a city. The buildings closer to him look sharper, and the buildings in the distance look hazier. This is an example of which depth cue?

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A : atmospheric perspective B : occlusion C : relative size D : shadowing Correct Answer : A 7 : Epstein (1965) presented observers photographs of a quarter, dime, and half-dollar that were all equal in physical size. His results showed that .

A : familiar size is most effective when other information about depth is absent B : familiar size is most effective when the observer has both eyes open C : the quarter was judged to be closer than the dime, when viewed monocularly D : accommodation is a stronger cue than any pictorial depth cue Correct Answer : A 8 : As Tyler looks down a railroad track, he perceives the sides of the tracks as becoming closer as the distance increases. This is an example of .

A : atmospheric perspective B : familiar size C : perspective convergence D : motion parallax Correct Answer : C 9 : Motion parallax .

A : is widely used to create depth in cartoons and video games B : is an important depth cue for amphibians, but not mammals C : occurs when near objects are perceived as moving slower than distant objects D : has not proven to be an effective cue for robot vision Correct Answer : A 10 : Deletion and accretion are .

A : especially effective when viewing non-moving displays B : only important when both eyes are open C : effective for detecting depth when moving sideways D : ineffective for judging depth in natural environments Correct Answer : C 11 : Which depth cue is effective both from 0-2 meters and above 20 meters?

A : atmospheric perspective B : occlusion C : accommodation D : convergence Correct Answer : B 12 : is defined as depth perception created by input from both eyes.

A : Binocular integration B : Convergent depth perception C : Stereoscopic depth perception 2 / 11

D : Viewpoint dependent depth Correct Answer : C 13 : is a term used to describe conditions in which movements between the two eyes are not coordinated.

A : Strabismus B : Macular degeneration C : Ciliary disjunctive disorder D : Oculomotor instability Correct Answer : A 14 : Individuals with walleye or other conditions in which the eyes are misaligned have difficulty with depth perception because .

A : the cortex receives messages from both eyes, making it difficult to attend to one visual stimulus B : the visual system suppresses vision in one eye in order to avoid having the experience of double vision C : the misaligned eye movements are jittery making it difficult to form a stable perception D : they are unable to use any picture depth cues Correct Answer : B 15 : The imaginary plane in which all objects project to corresponding points in the left and right retina is .

A : the horopter B : the univariance plane C : the constancy arc D : the binocular area Correct Answer : A 16 : is the difference in the images in the two eyes; results from this information.

A : Deletion; accretion B : Accretion; deletion C : Binocular disparity; convergence D : Binocular disparity; stereopsis

is the impression of depth that

Correct Answer : D 17 : A stereoscope provides the illusion of depth in 2-D images by .

A : rapidly alternating between two images B : presenting an image to each eye at different distances from the retina C : presenting an image to each eye that are from slightly different perspectives D : presenting an image to each eye that have different polarization filters in place Correct Answer : C 18 : The depth cue that is responsible for perceiving depth in 3-D movies is A : motion parallax B : accommodation

.

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C : binocular disparity D : relative height Correct Answer : C 19 : When you put your 3-D glasses on at a movie, the lenses separate the two overlapping images so that each eye only receives one of the images. Today, the image separation is most often achieved by using light.

A : disparate B : alternative-source C : displaced D : polarized Correct Answer : D 20 : The importance of is that these stimuli rely solely on binocular disparity to provide the impression of depth.

A : lenticular projections B : stereographic photographs C : gradient patterns D : random dot stereograms Correct Answer : D 21 : The correspondence problem is best demonstrated by A : random-dot stereograms B : polarized 3-D images C : Emmerts law D : disparity parallax

.

Correct Answer : A 22 : Blake and Hirsch (1975) use selective rearing of kittens to show that A : kittens are born with fully developed binocular cells B : binocular neurons are not necessary for stereopsis C : disparity-selective neurons are responsible for stereopsis D : severing the optic chiasm increases the number of binocular cells

.

Correct Answer : C 23 : When Uka and DeAngelis microstimulated disparity-selective neurons in a monkey, the monkey made a behavioral depth response based on the .

A : angle of disparity on the retina B : tuning curve of the stimulated neurons C : orientation of the stimulus D : location of the horopter Correct Answer : B 24 : The anecdote in the book of the pilot misjudging the size of an object on the ground in whiteout conditions is most closely related to which research study?

A : Holway and Borings (1941) hallway study B : Blake and Hirschs (1975) selective rearing of kittens study 4 / 11

C : Juleszs (1971) random-dot stereogram study D : DeLucia and Hochbergs (1985) dumbbell Muller-Lyer study Correct Answer : A 25 : The approximate visual angle of the width of your thumb held at arms length is degrees.

A : 0.5 B : 2.0 C : 4.7 D : 11.5 Correct Answer : B 26 : Holway and Boring found that size constancy .

A : holds under all viewing conditions B : is inconsistent with visual angles in humans C : is more likely to occur if you have more depth cues D : does not occur under binocular viewing conditions Correct Answer : C 27 : The size-distance scaling equation is S = K(R x D). The S in the equation stands for A : stimulus intensity B : an objects perceived size C : an objects physical size D : an objects physical shape

.

Correct Answer : B 28 : The size-distance scaling equation explains Emmerts Law because A : retinal size is constant as perceived distance changes B : retinal size changes as perceived distance remains constant C : perceived size remains constant as retinal size changes D : perceived size changes as the color of the afterimage changes

.

Correct Answer : A 29 : Myranda looks at a photograph of a truck. Which statement best describes how she will perceive this photograph?

A : She will always perceive a photograph of a real truck as being a real truck.

B : She will always perceive a photograph of a toy truck as being a toy truck.

C : She will perceive the toy truck as a toy truck if depth cues are eliminated.

D : Her perception of the size will depend on the known size of nearby objects.

Correct Answer : D 30 : If you hold one quarter about 12 inches from your eyes, and another quarter at arms length, the two quarters will be perceived to be about the same size when .

A : both eyes are open B : only the left eye is open C : only the right eye is open D : viewed either binocularly or monocularly 5 / 11

Correct Answer : A 31 : According to Gregorys misapplied size constancy scaling hypothesis, we perceive the arrows pointing out version of the Muller-Lyer illusion as .

A : longer, because it is perceived as being further away B : longer, because it is perceived as being closer C : shorter, because it is perceived as further away D : shorter, because it is perceived as being closer Correct Answer : D 32 : Gregorys misapplied size constancy scaling explanation of the Mller-Lyer illusion A : has difficulty in explaining the dumbbell version of the illusion B : can easily explain three-dimensional versions of the illusion C : is incompatible with the size-distance scaling equation D : has been unchallenged as the only viable explanation of the illusion

.

Correct Answer : A 33 : According to Days conflicting cues theory, the perception of vertical line lengths depends on .

A : the actual length of the lines and the relative size of nearby objects B : the overall length of the figure and the amount of texture gradient C : the amount of texture gradient and the relative size of nearby objects D : the actual length of the lines and the overall length of the figure Correct Answer : D 34 : The depth cue of is the most important in the Ponzo (railroad track) illusion.

A : perspective convergence B : accommodation C : stereopsis D : motion parallax Correct Answer : A 35 : The key to the Ames Room illusion is that .

A : the room is constructed to look rectangular to the observer but it is not B : the room is constructed of rectangular walls, but does not look that way C : people of a wide range of physical heights are put in the room D : all depth cues except binocular disparity are eliminated Correct Answer : A 36 : The size-distance scaling equation explains the Ames Room illusion because .

A : we perceive the two people in the room to be the same size because the size of the image on the retina is the same B : we perceive the two people in the room to be of different sizes even though the size of the image on the retina is the same C : we perceive the two people in the room to be different sizes because they are perceived to be at different distances away D : we perceive the two people in the room to be different sizes because they are perceived to 6 / 11

be at the same distance away and their retinal image size is different Correct Answer : D 37 : A major assumption of the apparent-distance theory of the moon illusion is that the sky overhead .

A : appears to be further away than the horizon because of the lack of the depth cue of atmospheric perspective B : appears to be further away than the horizon because of the depth cue of stereopsis C : appears to be closer than the horizon because of the lack of depth cues D : appears to be closer than the horizon because of the depth cue of accommodation Correct Answer : C 38 : According to the theory of the moon illusion, the overhead moon appears smaller when it is surrounded by a large amount of sky.

A : ocular dominance B : stimulus deprivation C : angular size-contrast D : apparent-distance Correct Answer : C 39 : A is able to make use of binocular disparity because it has A : rabbit; frontal B : rabbit; lateral C : cat; frontal D : monkey; lateral

eyes.

Correct Answer : C 40 : Bats are able to determine depth by using A : echolocation B : stereopsis C : movement parallax D : collocation

.

Correct Answer : A 41 : An insect is most likely to use A : atmospheric perspective B : movement parallax C : size information D : binocular disparity

to perceive depth.

Correct Answer : B 42 : The ability to use binocular disparity as a depth cue A : develops after using overlap as a depth cue B : occurs before binocular fixation develops C : develops after using familiar size as a depth cue D : can be tested using random dot stereograms

.

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Correct Answer : D 43 : Fox et al. (1980) found that the ability to use binocular disparity develops between A : 1 to 2 months B : 2 to 3 months C : 3 to 6 months D : 10 to 11 months

.

Correct Answer : C 44 : In their study on infant use of familiar size as depth cue, Granrud et al. used stimuli, and as the dependent measure.

A : objects of different sizes; reaching B : photographs of fruit bowls; sucking rate C : mobiles; eye movements D : photographs of stuffed animals; eye movements

as the

Correct Answer : A 45 : Ambrozia is a four-month-old infant. Which depth cue is she most likely able to use?

A : familiar size B : shadows C : linear perspective D : binocular disparity Correct Answer : D

ESSAY 46 : Name, define, and give an example (in words and/or drawings) of six pictorial depth cues.

Correct Answer : Occlusion occurs when one object hides or partially hides another from view.

The partially hidden object is seen as being farther away. The height in the frame of the photo corresponds to the height in our field of view, and objects that are higher in the field of view are usually farther away. We use the cue of familiar size when we judge distance based on our prior knowledge of the sizes of objects. When you look down parallel railroad tracks that appear to converge in the distance, you are experiencing perspective convergence. Atmospheric perspective occurs because the farther away an object is, the more air and particles (dust, water droplets, airborne pollution) we have to look through, so that distant objects appear less sharp than nearer objects and often have a slight blue tint. When several similar objects are equally spaced throughout a scene, they produce a perception of texture when viewed in depth, with farther elements seen as being spaced more closely. Shadows: Decreases in light intensity caused by the blockage of light - can provide information regarding the locations of these objects.

47 : Suppose you watch a 3-D movie (using red/blue 3-D glasses) with your friends. After the movie, a friend asks Why do we see such depth in this movie? Summarize how you would answer this question.

Correct Answer : When you put your 3-D glasses on, the lenses separate the two overlapping images so that each eye only receives one of the images. This image separation can be 8 / 11

achieved in several ways, but the most common method in movie theaters today uses polarized light - light waves that vibrate in only one orientation. One image is polarized so its vibration is vertical and the other is polarized so its vibration is horizontal. The glasses you wear have polarized lenses that let only vertically polarized light into one eye and horizontally polarized light into the other eye. Thus, sending these two different views to two different eyes duplicates what happens in the real 3-D world, and suddenly some objects appear to be recessed behind the screen while others appear to jut far out in front of it.

48 : Discuss motion-based depth perception cues.

Correct Answer : Motion parallax occurs when, as we move, nearby objects appear to glide rapidly past us, but more distant objects appear to move more slowly. Thus, when you look out the side window of a moving car or train, nearby objects appear to speed by in a blur, whereas objects that are farther away may appear to be moving only slightly. As an observer moves sideways, some things become covered, and others become uncovered. Deletion and accretion occur all the time as we move through the environment and create information that the object or surface being covered and uncovered is farther away. Covering of a further away object is called deletion, while its uncovering is called accretion.

49 : Discuss the method, results, and implications of the Holway and Boring (1941) hallway experiment.

Correct Answer : Observers in Holway and Boring’s experiment sat at the intersection of two hallways and saw a luminous test circle when looking down the right hallway and a luminous comparison circle when looking down the left hallway. The comparison circle was always 10 feet from the observer, but the test circles were presented at distances ranging from 10 feet to 120 feet. An important property of the fixed-in-place comparison circle was that its size could be adjusted. The observer’s task on each trial was to adjust the diameter of the comparison circle in the left corridor to match his or her perception of the sizes of the various test circles presented in the right corridor. An important feature of the test stimuli in the right corridor was that they all cast exactly the same-sized image on the retina. ? The idea that objects with different sizes can have the same visual angle was used in the creation of the test circles in Holway and Boring’s experiment. Because objects with the same visual angle create the samesized image on the retina, all of the test circles had the same-sized image on the observers’ retinas, no matter where in the hallway they were located. In the first part of Holway and Boring’s experiment, many depth cues were available, including binocular disparity, motion parallax, and shading, so the observer could easily judge the distance of the test circles. The results showed that when the observers viewed a large test circle that was located far away, they made the comparison circle large; when they viewed a small test circle that was located nearby, they made the comparison circle small. Thus, when good depth cues were present, the observer’s judgments of the size of the circles matched the physical sizes of the circles. ?

Holway and Boring then determined how eliminating depth information would affect the observer’s judgments of size. They did this by having the observer view the test circles with one eye, which eliminated binocular disparity; then by having the observer view the test circles through a peephole, which eliminated motion parallax; and finally by adding drapes to the hallway to eliminate shadows and re?ections. Each time some depth information was eliminated, the observer’s judgments of the sizes of the test circles became less accurate.

When all depth information was eliminated, the observer’s perception of size was determined not by the actual size of the test circles but by the relative sizes of the circle’s images on the observer’s retinas.

50 : (a) How are random-dot stereograms created? (b) What is the importance of random-dot stereograms? (c) How is the correspondence problem related to the concept of random-dot 9 / 11

stereograms? (d) What have the results of infant studies with random-dot stereograms revealed?

Correct Answer : In order to demonstrate that disparity creates stereopsis, we need to isolate disparity information from other depth cues, such as occlusion and relative height, because these other cues can also contribute to our perception of depth. In order to show that disparity alone can result in depth perception, Bela Julesz (1971) created a stimulus called the randomdot stereogram, which contains no pictorial cues. By creating stereoscopic images of randomdot patterns, Julesz showed that observers can perceive depth in displays that contain no depth information other than disparity. These patterns were constructed by first generating two identical random-dot patterns on a computer and then shifting a square-shaped section of the dots one or more units to the side. Psychophysical experiments, particularly those using Julesz’s random-dot stereograms, show that retinal disparity creates a perception of depth. But before we can fully understand the mechanisms responsible for depth perception, we must answer one more question: How does the visual system match the parts of the images in the left and right eyes that correspond to one another? This is called the correspondence problem. ?

From the random-dot stereogram example, it is clear that the visual system accomplishes something rather amazing when it solves the correspondence problem. Researchers in fields as diverse as psychology, neuroscience, mathematics, and engineering have put forth a number of specific proposals, all too complex to discuss here, that seek to explain how the visual system fully solves the correspondence problem (Blake & Wilson, 1991; Carrasco, 2012; Kaiser et al., 2013; Marr & Poggio, 1979; Menz & Freeman, 2003; Ohzawa, 1998; Ringbach, 2003; Tanabe et al., 2011). Despite these efforts, however, a totally satisfactory solution to the correspondence problem has yet to be proposed. ? In an experiment with infants (Fox et al., 1980), an infant wearing special viewing glasses was seated in his or her mother’s lap in front of a television screen. The child viewed a random-dot stereogram that appeared, to an observer sensitive to disparity information, as a rectangle-in-depth, moving either to the left or to the right.

Fox’s premise was that an infant sensitive to disparity will move his or her eyes to follow the moving rectangle. He found that infants younger than about 3 months of age would not follow the rectangle, but that infants between 3 and 6 months of age would follow it. He therefore concluded that the ability to use disparity information to perceive depth emerges sometime between 3½ and 6 months of age. This time for the emergence of binocular depth perception has been confirmed by other research using a variety of different methods (Held et al., 1980; Shimojo et al., 1986; Teller, 1997).

51 : (a) State and identify the components of the size-distance scaling equation. (b) Specify how the size-distance scaling equation can explain the phenomenon: Emmerts Law; the Ames Room illusion and the Muller-Lyer illusion.

Correct Answer : The link between size constancy and depth perception has led to the proposal that size constancy is based on a mechanism called size-distance scaling that takes an object’s distance into account (Gregory, 1966). Size-distance scaling operates according to the equation S = K(R x D) where S is the object’s perceived size, K is a constant, R is the size of the retinal image, and D is the perceived distance of the object. According to the size–distance equation, as a person walks away from you, the size of the person’s image on your retina (R) gets smaller, but your perception of the person’s distance (D) gets larger. These two changes balance each other, and the net result is that you perceive the person’s size (S) as staying the same. ? Emmert’s Law: The farther away an afterimage appears, the larger it will seem. This result follows from our size-distance scaling equation, S = R x D. The size of the bleached area of pigment on the retina (R) always stays the same, so that increasing the afterimage’s distance (D) increases the magnitude of R x D. We therefore perceive the size of the afterimage (S) as larger when it is viewed against the far wall. ? Ames room: The construction of the room causes the woman on the left to have a much smaller visual angle than the one on the right. We 10 / 11

think that we are looking into a normal rectangular room at two people who appear to be at the same distance, so we perceive the one with the smaller visual angle as shorter. We can understand why this occurs by returning to our size–distance scaling equation, S = R x D. Because the perceived distance (D) is the same for the two women, but the size of the retinal image (R) is smaller for the woman on the left, her perceived size (S) is smaller. ? Muller-Lyer: Because inside corners appear to “recede” and outside corners “jut out,” our size–distance scaling mechanism treats the inside corner as if it is farther away, so the term D in the equation S = R x D is larger and this line therefore appears longer. (Remember that the retinal sizes, R, of the two lines are the same, so perceived size, S, is determined by the perceived distance, D.) 52 : Describe the differences in how depth is perceived in cats, insects, and bats.

Correct Answer : To make use of binocular disparity, an animal must have eyes that have overlapping visual fields. Thus, animals such as cats, monkeys, and humans that have frontal eyes, which result in overlapping fields of view, can use disparity to perceive depth. Animals with lateral eyes, such as the rabbit, do not have overlapping visual fields and therefore cannot use disparity to perceive depth. Movement parallax is probably insects’ most important method of judging distance, and they use it in a number of different ways (Collett, 1978; Srinivasan & Venkatesh, 1997). For example, the locust uses a “peering” response - moving its body from side to side to create movement of its head - as it observes potential prey. T. S. Collett (1978) measured a locust’s “peering amplitude” - the distance of this side-to-side sway - as it observed prey at different distances, and found that the locust swayed more when targets were farther away. Since more distant objects move less across the retina than nearer objects for a given amount of observer movement, a larger sway would be needed to cause the image of a far object to move the same distance across the retina as the image of a near object. The locust may therefore be judging distance by noting how much sway is needed to cause the image to move a certain distance across its retina (also see Sobel, 1990). Bats emit pulsed sounds that are far above the upper limit of human hearing, and they sense objects’ distances by noting the interval between when they send out the pulse and when they receive the echo, and this is called “echolocation”. Since they use sound echoes to sense objects, they can avoid obstacles even when it is totally dark (Suga, 1990). Although we don’t have any way of knowing what the bat experiences when these echoes return, we do know that the timing of these echoes provides the information the bat needs to locate objects in its environment.

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CHAPTER 11 1 : An important difference between vision and hearing is that .

A : sound waves can travel around corners but light waves cannot B : although limited vision can be disabling, limited hearing cannot C : it is possible to make up for limited hearing using vision but not for limited vision using hearing D : while hearing cannot be used as an indicator of approaching danger, vision obviously can Correct Answer : A 2 : The question If a tree falls in a forest and no one is there to hear it, would there be a sound? is useful because it highlights that sound can be .

A : only a physical stimulus B : only a perceptual response C : both a perceptual response and a physical stimulus D : only a philosophical construct Correct Answer : C 3 : The speed of sound through air is A : 50 meters per second B : 340 meters per second C : 1500 meters per second D : 3000 meters per second

.

Correct Answer : B 4 : The wave form pattern of a pure tone is a(n) A : square wave B : random wave C : asymmetrical wave D : sine wave

.

Correct Answer : D 5 : The unit of measurement for sound wave frequency is A : bels B : decibels C : Hertz D : degrees

.

Correct Answer : C 6 : As you increase the decibel level from 80 dB to 100 dB, the sound pressure ratio goes from to .

A : 80; 100 B : 800; 1000 C : 100; 1000 D : 10,000; 100,000 Correct Answer : D 1 / 10

7 : The sound pressure level increases A : 1.5 times B : 2 times C : 4 times D : 10 times

as the decibel level increases from 40 to 80 dBs.

Correct Answer : D 8 : A complex tone can be created by starting with a pure tone, called the frequencies that are multiples of this first frequency.

A : fundamental frequency B : harmonic frequency C : spatial frequency D : audible frequency

, and adding

Correct Answer : A 9 : A frequency spectrum shows a tone that is composed of a frequency of 440 Hz, 880 Hz, and 1320 Hz. The 880 Hz and 1320 Hz frequencies are called in this example.

A : fundamental frequencies B : harmonics C : tertiary frequencies D : quadratic frequencies Correct Answer : B 10 : Adding an 880 Hz tone and a 1320 Hz tone to a 440 Hz tone will result in A : a pure tone B : a complex tone C : a hissing sound D : white noise

.

Correct Answer : B 11 : The range of human hearing is between A : 10 and 200 B : 10 and 2000 C : 20 and 20,000 D : 20 and 50,000

Hz.

Correct Answer : C 12 : Kat wants to buy a dog whistle that her dog can hear but she cant. She should get a whistle that emits sounds in the range between and Hz. A : 100; 900 B : 1,000; 5,000 C : 15,000; 20,000 D : 30,000; 40,000 Correct Answer : D 13 : Alessandra is at a concert and can feel the music. The music is most likely being played at 2 / 10

dBs. A : 66 B : 88 C : 102 D : 130 Correct Answer : D 14 : The relationship between loudness and frequency can be shown graphically using A : equal loudness curves B : timbre resonance curves C : receiver operating characteristic curves D : Fourier functions

.

Correct Answer : A 15 : When listening to music, which method will help ensure you hear all of the frequencies represented in the piece?

A : Hold volume constant throughout the piece.

B : Turn the volume down (e.g., 20 dB) so the music is quiet.

C : Turn the volume up (e.g., 80 dB) so the music is loud.

D : Play white noise in the background to allow better discrimination.

Correct Answer : C 16 : Pitch is primarily determined by the A : amplitude B : clarity C : decibels D : frequency

of the sound wave.

Correct Answer : D 17 : is the property of increasing pitch that accompanies increases in the tones frequency.

A : Tone height B : Tone chroma C : Tone octave D : Equal tonality Correct Answer : A 18 : The sound quality that is related to the sounds clarity, nasalness or reedy-ness is A : pitch B : amplitude C : timbre D : frequency

.

Correct Answer : C 19 : A piano tone played backwards will sound more likely an organ than a piano because .

A : the tones original decay has become the attack, and vice versa 3 / 10

B : the tone chroma is higher when played backwards C : the tone height is decreased when played backwards D : two middle harmonics are eliminated when played backwards Correct Answer : A 20 : The outer ear consists of .

A : the pinnae, the auditory canal, and the tympanic membrane B : the pinnae, the eardrum, and the oval window C : the tympanic membrane, the oval window, and the eardrum D : the cochlea Correct Answer : A 21 : The function of the auditory canal is to enhance the intensities of some frequency sounds by means of .

A : resonance B : pinnae focusing C : additive synthesis D : auditory masking Correct Answer : A 22 : The correct order of the ossicles in the middle ear (from ear drum to oval window) is A : stirrup; anvil; hammer B : stirrup; hammer; anvil C : malleus; incus; stapes D : stapes; malleus; incus Correct Answer : C 23 : The role of the middle ear is .

A : to localize sounds in the environment B : to initiate the process of transduction via hair cells C : to enable fine-tuned frequency analyses of complex tonal stimuli D : to amplify vibrations from the air for transmission through liquid Correct Answer : D 24 : Which of the following does not need an outer or middle ear to hear effectively?

A : dogs B : cats C : fish D : horses Correct Answer : C 25 : The function of the muscles of the middle ear is to .

A : intensify sounds at high intensities B : intensify sounds at high frequencies C : dampen the ossicles vibrations at high intensities D : divert high frequencies to the oval window and low frequencies to the round window 4 / 10

.

Correct Answer : C 26 : The bending of the cilia of the A : inner hair cells B : outer hair cells C : tectorial membrane D : apex

causes a release of small bursts of neurotransmitter.

Correct Answer : A 27 : The motion of the basilar membrane results in .

A : direct stimulation of hair cell cilia B : only the back-and-forth movement of the organ of Corti C : only the up-and-down motion of the tectorial membrane D : movement of both the organ of Corti and the tectorial membrane Correct Answer : D 28 : When the tip links in the cilia stretch, ion channels open and A : sodium flows into the cell B : potassium flows into the cell C : sodium flows out of the cell D : potassium flows out of the cell

.

Correct Answer : B 29 : Auditory nerve fibers fire in synchrony with the rising and falling pressure of the puretone, a phenomenon called .

A : motile response B : place theory C : phase locking D : Fourier analysis Correct Answer : C 30 : Bksy discovered the traveling wave motion of the basilar membrane by A : stimulating the ear of human cadavers B : using brain imaging techniques in humans C : using single-cell recordings from live monkeys D : computer simulations

.

Correct Answer : A 31 : Bksys place theory of hearing proposes that the frequency of a sound is .

A : based on how much the inner hair cells are bent B : based on how much the outer hair cells are bent C : based on whether the sound is processed through the round window or the oval window D : the place along the basilar membrane that vibrates the most Correct Answer : D 32 : As the frequency increases, the place on the membrane that vibrates the most moves from .

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A : the base at the end of the cochlea toward the apex at the oval window B : the apex at the oval window toward the base at the end of the cochlea C : the apex at the end of the cochlea toward the base at the oval window.

D : the base at the oval window toward the apex at the end of the cochlea Correct Answer : C 33 : A guinea pig tonotopic map shows that a receptor close to the apex will respond to a tone of Hz. A : 60 B : 800 C : 7,000 D : 30,000 Correct Answer : A 34 : The cochlear implant makes use of .

A : phase locking mechanisms in the sound processor B : the tonotopic map of frequencies on the cochlea C : artificial ossicles D : resonance harmonics on the tectorial membrane Correct Answer : B 35 : The outer hair cells respond to sound by slightly tilting and changing length. Because of the consequence of this, the action of the outer hair cells is called the .

A : the tuning response B : the cochlear amplifier C : phase lock mechanism.

D : the traveling wave Correct Answer : B 36 : A complex tone composed of a 440 Hz tone, an 880 Hz tone, and a 1320 HZ tone is presented. Which part of the basilar membrane will respond?

A : the apex B : the base C : one intermediate area D : the three different areas characteristic of each individual component Correct Answer : D 37 : Bendor and Wang (2005), when presenting a complex tone with a 182 Hz fundamental frequency to a marmoset, found a neuron that responded to a 182-Hz tone when presented alone but not when any of the harmonics were presented alone. The neuron that responded just to 182-Hz tone is an example of a(n) neuron.

A : plasticity B : amplitude C : pitch D : spectral Correct Answer : C 6 / 10

38 : Hearing loss that occurs as a function of age is called A : presbyopia B : presbycusis C : aural ataxiac D : anosmia

.

Correct Answer : B 39 : At their highest settings, portable music players can reach recommended maximum.

A : 100; 15 dB higher than B : 155; 8 dB higher than C : 85; equal to D : 76; 20 dB less than

, which is

OSHAs

Correct Answer : A 40 : The audibility curve of a six-month-old infant .

A : is similar to the audibility curve for an adult B : is the same as the audibility curve for a one-month-old C : cannot be determined at such a young age D : shows that localization develops over the first 6 months Correct Answer : A 41 : DeCasper and Fifer used as the dependent variable to test iftwo-day-old infants could identify the sound of the mothers voice.

A : eye movements B : head tilts C : pattern of nipple sucking D : eye blinks Correct Answer : C 42 : Research supports that an infants ability to recognize the mothers voice is due to A : genetics B : the mothers diet during pregnancy C : hearing the mother talk while in the womb D : a well-developed auditory cortex at birth

.

Correct Answer : C 43 : If a pregnant mother reads the original version of The Cat in The Hat aloud while pregnant, which version of The Cat in The Hat would the infant prefer after birth?

A : the original version, as it had been read to them prenatally B : a version in which the words cat and hat were replaced with dog and fog C : a version in a language different than that read by the mother D : all versions of the story equally, whether original or modified Correct Answer : A

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ESSAY 44 : Define loudness, pitch, and timbre and relate each to the physical sound stimulus.

Correct Answer : Loudness is the perceptual quality most closely related to the level or amplitude of an auditory stimulus, which is expressed in decibels. Pitch, the perceptual quality we describe as “high” or “low,” can be defined as the property of auditory sensation in terms of which sounds may be ordered on a musical scale (Bendor & Wang, 2005). The idea that pitch is associated with the musical scale is reflected in another definition of pitch, which states that pitch is that aspect of auditory sensation whose variation is associated with musical melodies (Plack, 2014). While often associated with music, pitch is also a property of speech (low-pitched or high-pitched voice) and other natural sounds. Timbre is closely related to the harmonic structure of a tone. The difference in the harmonics of different instruments is not the only factor that creates the distinctive timbres of musical instruments. Timbre also depends on the time course of a tone’s attack (the buildup of sound at the beginning of the tone) and of the tone’s decay (the decrease in sound at the end of the tone).

45 : Discuss the structures and functions of the middle ear.

Correct Answer : When airborne sound waves reach the tympanic membrane at the end of the auditory canal, they set it into vibration, and this vibration is transmitted to structures in the middle ear, on the other side of the tympanic membrane. The middle ear is a small cavity, about 2 cubic centimeters in volume, that separates the outer and inner ears. This cavity contains the ossicles, the three smallest bones in the body. The first of these bones, the malleus (also known as the hammer), is set into vibration by the tympanic membrane, to which it is attached, and transmits its vibrations to the incus (or anvil), which, in turn, transmits its vibrations to the stapes (or stirrup). The stapes then transmits its vibrations to the inner ear by pushing on the membrane covering the oval window.

46 : Describe how the actions of the cochlea result in transduction.

Correct Answer : The main structure of the inner ear is the liquid-filled cochlea, a snaillike structure. The most obvious feature of the uncoiled cochlea is that the upper half, called the scala vestibuli, and the lower half, called the scala tympani, are separated by a structure called the cochlear partition. This partition extends almost the entire length of the cochlea, from its base near the stapes to its apex at the far end. When we look at the cochlea in cross section, we see the organ of Corti, which contains the hair cells, the receptors for hearing. In addition, there are two membranes, the basilar membrane and the tectorial membrane, which also extend the length of the cochlea, and which play crucial roles in activating the hair cells. Cilia, thin processes that protrude from the tops of the hair cells, bend in response to pressure changes. The human ear contains one row of inner hair cells and about three rows of outer hair cells, with about 3,500 inner hair cells and 12,000 outer hair cells. The cilia of the tallest row of outer hair cells are embedded in the tectorial membrane and the cilia of the rest of the outer hair cells and all of the inner hair cells are not (Moller, 2006). The organ of Corti sitting on the basilar membrane, with the tectorial membrane arching over the hair cells, and is the staging ground for events that occur when vibration of the stapes in the middle ear sets the oval window into motion. The back and forth motion of the oval window transmits vibrations to the liquid inside the cochlea, which sets the basilar membrane into motion. The up-and- down motion of the basilar membrane has two results: (1) it sets the organ of Corti into an up-and-down vibration, and (2) it causes the tectorial membrane to move back and forth, as shown by the red arrow. These two motions mean that the tectorial membrane slides back and forward just above the hair cells. The movement of the tectorial membrane causes the cilia of the outer hair cells 8 / 10

that are embedded in the membrane to bend. The cilia of the other outer hair cells and the inner hair cells also bend, but in response to pressure waves in the liquid surrounding the cilia.

Transduction for hearing involves a sequence of events that creates ion flow. First, the cilia of the hair cells bend in one direction. This bending causes structures called tip links to stretch, and this opens tiny ion channels in the membrane of the cilia, which function like trapdoors.

When the ion channels are open, positively charged potassium ions flow into the cell and an electrical signal results. When the cilia bend in the other direction, the tip links slacken, the ion channels close, and ion flow stops. Thus, the back-and-forth bending of the hair cells causes alternating bursts of electrical signals (when the cilia bend in one direction) and no electrical signals (when the cilia bend in the opposite direction). The electrical signals in the hair cells result in the release of neurotransmitters at the synapse separating the inner hair cells from the auditory nerve fibers and cause these auditory nerve fibers to fire.

47 : Discuss how noise-induced hearing loss can occur, and what can be done to reduce the chances of noise-induced hearing loss.

Correct Answer : Noise-induced hearing loss occurs when loud noises cause degeneration of the hair cells. This degeneration has been observed in examinations of the cochleas of people who have worked in noisy environments and have willed their ear structures to medical research. Damage to the organ of Corti is often observed in these cases. For example, examination of the cochlea of a man who worked in a steel mill indicated that his organ of Corti had collapsed and no receptor cells remained (Miller, 1974). More controlled studies of animals exposed to loud sounds provide further evidence that high-intensity sounds can damage or completely destroy inner hair cells (Liberman & Dodds, 1984). ? Because of the danger to hair cells posed by workplace noise, the United States Occupational Safety and Health Agency (OSHA) has mandated that workers not be exposed to sound levels greater than 85 dB for an 8-hour work shift. In addition to workplace noise, however, other sources of intense sound can cause hair cell damage leading to hearing loss. ?? If you turn up the volume on your portable music player, you are exposing yourself to what hearing professionals call leisure noise. Other sources of leisure noise are activities such as recreational gun use, riding motorcycles, playing musical instruments, and working with power tools. A number of studies have demonstrated hearing loss in people who listen to portable music players (Okamoto et al., 2011; Peng et al., 2007), play in rock/pop bands (Schmuziger et al., 2006), use power tools (Dalton et al., 2001), and attend sports events (Hodgetts & Liu, 2006). The amount of hearing loss depends on the level of sound intensity and the duration of exposure. Given the high levels of sound that occur in these activities, such as the levels above 90 dB SPL that can occur for the 3 hours of a hockey game (Hodgetts & Liu, 2006), about 100 dB SPL for music venues such as clubs or concerts (Howgate & Plack, 2011), and levels as high as 90 dB SPL while using power tools in woodworking, it isn’t surprising that both temporary and permanent hearing losses are associated with these leisure activities. These findings suggest that it might make sense to use ear protection when in particularly noisy environments and to turn down the volume on your portable music player.

48 : Briefly describe the major principle of Bksys place theory of hearing.

Correct Answer : Békésy determined how the basilar membrane vibrates to different frequencies by observing the vibration of the basilar membrane. He accomplished this by boring a hole in cochleas taken from animal and human cadavers. He presented different frequencies of sound and observed the membrane’s vibration by using a technique similar to that used to create stop-action photographs of high-speed events (Békésy, 1960). When he observed the membrane’s position at different points in time, he saw that the basilar membrane’s vibration as a traveling wave, like the motion that occurs when a person holds the end of a rope and “snaps” it, sending a wave traveling down the rope. Békésy’s most important finding was that 9 / 10

the place that vibrates the most depends on the frequency of the tone. As the frequency increases, the place on the membrane that vibrates the most moves from the apex at the end of the cochlea toward the base at the oval window. Thus, the place of maximum vibration, which is near the apex of the basilar membrane for a 25-Hz tone, has moved to nearer the base for a 1,600-Hz tone. Because the place of maximum vibration depends on frequency, this means that basilar membrane vibration effectively functions as a filter that sorts tones by frequency.

49 : What are the major components of a cochlear implant?

Correct Answer : Békésy’s discovery that each place on the basilar membrane is associated with a particular frequency has led to the development of a device called a cochlear implant, which is used to create hearing in people with deafness caused by damage to the hair cells in the cochlea. When the hair cells are damaged, hearing aids are ineffective because the damaged hair cells cannot convert the amplified sound provided by the hearing aid into electrical signals. The cochlear implant consists of (1) a microphone that receives sound signals from the environment; (2) a sound processor that divides the sound received by the microphone into a number of frequency bands; (3) a transmitter that sends these signals to (4) an array of 12–22 electrodes that are implanted along the length of the cochlea. These electrodes stimulate the cochlea at different places along its length, depending on the intensities of the frequencies in the stimuli received by the microphone. This stimulation activates auditory nerve fibers along the cochlea, which send signals toward the brain. The hearing that results enables people to recognize everyday sounds such as horns honking, doors closing, water running, and in some cases, speech.

50 : Describe the methods, results, and implications of research on the infants ability to recognize the mothers voice.

Correct Answer : Anthony DeCasper and William Fifer (1980) demonstrated the capacity of infants to recognize their mothers’ voices in newborns by showing that 2-day-old infants will modify their sucking on a nipple in order to hear the sound of their mother’s voice. They first observed that infants usually suck on a nipple in bursts separated by pauses. They fitted infants with earphones and let the length of the pause in the infant’s sucking determine whether the infant heard a recording of the mother’s voice or a recording of a stranger’s voice. For half of the infants, long pauses activated the tape of the mother’s voice, and short pauses activated the tape of the stranger’s voice. For the other half, these conditions were reversed. DeCasper and Fifer found that the babies regulated the pauses in their sucking so that they heard their mother’s voice more than the stranger’s voice. This is a remarkable accomplishment for a 2-day-old, especially because most had been with their mothers for only a few hours between birth and the time they were tested.

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CHAPTER 12 1 : Which auditory localization dimension extends from left to right?

A : elevation B : depth C : azimuth D : time Correct Answer : C 2 : The horizontal axis in auditory localization is called the A : elevation B : depth C : azimuth D : bradburthy

.

Correct Answer : C 3 : If there is an interaural time difference, we interpret the sound as coming from A : directly in front of us B : directly behind us C : the side D : directly above us

.

Correct Answer : C 4 : Interaural level differences are a cue to auditory localization because the .

A : persons head creates an acoustic shadow that prevents high-frequency sounds from reaching the far ear B : persons head creates an acoustic shadow that prevents low-frequency sounds from reaching the far ear C : medium through which the sound travels can be air, liquid, or solid D : acoustic shadow is more likely to occur in an enclosed space than outdoors Correct Answer : A 5 : The cue of interaural level difference is .

A : not effective for low-frequency sound stimuli B : equally effective for high- and low-frequency sound stimuli C : not effective for high-frequency sound stimuli D : only effective for middle-frequency sound stimuli Correct Answer : A 6 : What is the dominant cue for locating low-frequency sounds along the azimuth?

A : The ITD is dominant.

B : The ILD is dominant.

C : The ITD and ILD are equally effective.

D : Only the HRTF is used.

Correct Answer : A

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7 : The is composed of the locations where the ILD and ITD are the same.

A : common region B : cone of confusion C : inverse acoustic range D : Jeffries tube Correct Answer : B 8 : Spectral cues for auditory localization are provided by A : the frequency of the sound wave B : the interaural level difference C : the head position and the pinnae D : the motion of the stimulus

.

Correct Answer : C 9 : Gardner and Gardner showed that smoothing out the nooks of the pinnae A : results in more accurate localization on all coordinates B : makes it more difficult to locate sounds along the elevation coordinate C : results in more accurate localization along the elevation coordinate D : does not affect spectral cues for localization

.

Correct Answer : B 10 : Hofmann et al. had participants wear artificial pinnae for about three weeks. What did they find?

A : Participants could not adapt to wearing the artificial pinnae.

B : Participants adapted in about 19 days, but then could not accurately localize sounds when they removed the artificial pinnae.

C : Participants adapted in about 19 days, and then could accurately localize sounds when they removed the artificial pinnae.

D : Participants could not localize sounds along the azimuth with the new pinnae, but could localize sounds along the elevation coordinate after 3 days of adaptation.

Correct Answer : C 11 : From the auditory nerve, information is passed through a sequence of subcortical structures. Which of the following reflects the correct sequence?

A : medial geniculate nucleus, cochlear nucleus, superior olivary nucleus, and inferior colliculus B : cochlear nucleus, superior olivary nucleus, inferior colliculus, and medial geniculate nucleus C : superior olivary nucleus, medial geniculate nucleus, cochlear nucleus, and inferior colliculus D : medial geniculate nucleus, inferior colliculus, cochlear nucleus, and superior olivary nucleus Correct Answer : B 12 : The neural basis of binaural localization begins along the pathway to the brain, in the .

A : medial geniculate nucleus B : cochlear nucleus C : inferior colliculus D : superior olivary nucleus Correct Answer : D 2 / 11

13 : Coincidence detectors .

A : fire when the ITD equals 0 B : fire when the ITD is greater than 20 C : have been found in humans, but not in non-mammals D : fire when the ILD is greater than 50 Correct Answer : A 14 : Interaural time difference detectors .

A : have not been found in the monkey auditory cortex B : have been discovered in the monkey occipital cortex C : have been found in the monkey auditory cortex that responds best to specific delays D : have been found in the monkey auditory cortex, but do not differentially respond to different delays Correct Answer : C 15 : McAlpines research on gerbils provides evidence for A : narrowly tuned ITD neurons B : broadly tuned ITD neurons C : specificity-coding in the auditory cortex D : narrowly tuned spectral neurons

.

Correct Answer : B 16 : Recanzone (2000) examined localization in A1 and the auditory belt area in monkeys.

Results indicated that .

A : the posterior belt area is not involved in localization B : A1 provides the most specific localization information C : localization coded the same throughout the auditory cortex D : the posterior belt area provides more specific localization then A1 Correct Answer : D 17 : Patient J.G. has temporal lobe damage. While this has not affected his ability to locate sounds, he has difficulty recognizing sounds. This case provides evidence for .

A : the Jeffress model of auditory localization B : what and where pathways in audition C : the existence of separate subcortical structures D : how and where pathways in audition Correct Answer : B 18 : Sound that reaches the ears after bouncing off a wall or a floor is called A : direct sound B : indirect sound C : virtual sound D : harmonics

.

Correct Answer : B 19 : The precedence effect occurs when

.

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A : the listener perceives the fused sound from two speakers to be originating from the lead speaker B : the listener perceives the fused sound from two speakers to be originating from the lag speaker C : the listener cannot fuse the sound from two speakers because the lead speaker is too loud D : the listener cannot fuse the sound from two speakers because the lag speaker is too loud Correct Answer : A 20 : In the precedence effect, the sound from the far speaker .

A : does not contribute to the perception of the sound B : only helps sound localization if the time difference is less than 5 milliseconds C : only helps sound localization if the time difference is less than 2 milliseconds D : contributes to the quality of the sound Correct Answer : D 21 : The major concern involved in architectural acoustics is how A : indirect sound changes sound quality B : indirect sound affects VAS C : direct sound changes sound quality D : direct sound affects VAS

.

Correct Answer : A 22 : The ideal reverberation time for symphony halls is A : 50 milliseconds B : 500 milliseconds C : 2 seconds D : 7 seconds

.

Correct Answer : C 23 : The time that it takes a sound to decrease to time.

A : 1/1000th B : 1/100th C : 1/10th D : 1/5th

of its original level is the reverberation

Correct Answer : A 24 : The anecdote about the construction of New Yorks Philharmonic Hall demonstrates that .

A : an ideal reverberation time does not always predict good acoustics B : an ideal reverberation time always predicts good acoustics C : musicians should design symphony halls D : the MLD is more important than the ILD in architectural acoustics Correct Answer : A 25 : The time between when sound arrives directly from the stage and when the first reflection arrives is called the .

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A : intimacy time B : spaciousness factor C : bass ratio D : reverberation time Correct Answer : A 26 : What did the designers of The Walt Disney Hall do to maximize acoustics?

A : Seat cushions were designed to absorb the same amount as an average person.

B : Increased the middle frequency to high frequency ratio.

C : Designed the hall to have an ideal reverberation time of 2.0 seconds.

D : Eliminated any indirect sound so that direct sound is maximized.

Correct Answer : A 27 : The ratio of low frequencies to middle frequencies that are reflected from walls and other surfaces is called the .

A : intimacy time B : spaciousness factor C : bass ratio D : reverberation time Correct Answer : C 28 : The fraction of all of the sound received by a listener that is indirect sound is called the .

A : intimacy time B : spaciousness factor C : bass ratio D : reverberation time Correct Answer : B 29 : Leighton Concert Hall, in the DeBartolo Performing Arts Center at the University of Notre Dame, has an innovative design that .

A : includes seat cushions with the same absorption properties as an average person B : allows reverberation time to be adjusted between 1.4 and 2.6 seconds C : lengthens intimacy time to be between 30 and 50 ms D : permits reverberation times of 3.6 seconds for opera performances Correct Answer : B 30 : Vision is to figure-ground segregation as audition is to A : the ecological approach B : intimacy C : auditory scene analysis D : Fourier analysis

.

Correct Answer : C 31 : The separation of different sound sources into perceptually different streams is called by musicians.

A : timbre segregation 5 / 11

B : pitch discrimination C : locational timbre D : implied polyphony Correct Answer : D 32 : The importance of similarity of timbre as auditory grouping principle has been supported by .

A : attack and decay functions B : auditory stream segregation C : location restoration effect D : compound timbre line Correct Answer : B 33 : Melodic channeling, or the scale illusion, is based on the auditory grouping law A : location B : similarity of pitch C : onset D : offset

.

Correct Answer : B 34 : Warren et al. presented listeners with tones that were either (1) interrupted with silent gaps; or (2) interrupted with gaps of noise. The results showed .

A : both conditions resulted in listeners hearing a continuous tone B : both conditions resulted in listeners hearing bursts of separate tones C : the noise condition resulted in listeners hearing a continuous tone D : the silent gap condition resulted in listeners hearing a continuous tone Correct Answer : C 35 : The effects of A : proximity B : pragnanz C : location D : experience

are responsible for melody schema.

Correct Answer : D 36 : Seven-month-old infants listened to a regular repeating ambiguous rhythm while they were bounced up and down at two bounces per beat or at three bounces per beat. Later, they were tested to see how they had perceived the rhythm. The results suggest that .

A : the infants perceived the rhythm as presented ambiguous B : the infants always perceived the rhythm as occurring in twos C : the infants perception was influenced by how they were bounced D : the vestibular system is not involved in auditory perception and movement Correct Answer : C 37 : Infant studies reveal that the dominant stress patterns of their native language can influence perception grouping by .

A : 1 to 2 months of age 6 / 11

B : 5 to 6 months of age C : 7 to 8 months of age D : 10 to 12 months of age Correct Answer : C 38 : The ventriloquism effect is .

A : a veridical representation of the physical stimuli B : an example of how vision influences auditory perception C : a strictly physiological effect D : when dummy variables are used in statistical analyses Correct Answer : B 39 : In the research of de Haas and colleagues (2012) on the connections between hearing, when a single dot is flashed onto a screen, the subject perceives one flash. When a single beep is presented at the same time as the dot, the subject still perceives one flash. When two beeps are presented at the same time as the dot, .

A : the subjects perceive a single flash B : the subjects perceive two flashes C : only individuals like musicians, for whom auditory input is especially relevant, perceive two flashes D : only individuals like visual artists, for whom visual input is especially relevant, perceive two flashes Correct Answer : B 40 : Some people who are blind are able to use echolocation to locate objects and perceive shapes by making clicking noises and listening to the reverberations. When expert echolocators use this technique, .

A : they have 45% more activation in their frontal lobes than sighted individuals B : they rely only on activation from the occipital lobe C : the clicking sounds activate the auditory and visual cortices D : the clicking sounds activate A1 but not subcortical structures Correct Answer : C

ESSAY 41 : What are the two binaural auditory localization cues? Why do they occur? How is sound frequency related to these cues?

Correct Answer : Interaural level difference (ILD) is based on the difference in the sound pressure level (or just “level”) of the sound reaching the two ears. A difference in level between the two ears occurs because the head is a barrier that creates an acoustic shadow, reducing the intensity of sounds that reach the far ear. The other binaural cue, interaural time difference (ITD), is the time difference between when a sound reaches the left ear and when it reaches the right ear.

42 : Describe the method, results, and implications of the Hofmann et al. research on the role of spectral cues for localization.

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Correct Answer : The primary monaural cue for localization is called a spectral cue, because the information for localization is contained in differences in the distribution (or spectrum) of frequencies that reach each ear from different locations. These differences are caused by the fact that before the sound stimulus enters the auditory canal, it is reflected from the head and within the various folds of the pinnae. The effect of this interaction with the head and pinnae has been measured by placing small microphones inside a listener’s ears. The idea that localization can be affected by using a mold to change the inside contours of the pinnae was also demonstrated by Paul Hofman and coworkers (1998). They determined how localization changes when the mold is worn for several weeks, and then what happens when the mold is removed. After measuring initial performance, Hofman fitted his listeners with molds that altered the shape of the pinnae and therefore changed the spectral cue. Localization performance is poor for the elevation coordinate immediately after the mold is inserted, but locations can still be judged at locations along the azimuth coordinate. Hofman continued his experiment by retesting localization as his listeners continued to wear the molds. Localization performance improved, until by 19 days, localization had become reasonably accurate. Apparently, the person had learned, over a period of weeks, to associate new spectral cues to different directions in space. It would be logical to expect that once adapted to the new set of spectral cues created by the molds, localization performance would suffer when the molds were removed. However, localization remained excellent immediately after removal of the ear molds.

Apparently, training with the molds created a new set of correlations between spectral cues and location, but the old correlation was still there as well. One way this could occur is if different sets of neurons were involved in responding to each set of spectral cues, just as separate brain areas are involved in processing different languages in people who speak more than one language.

43 : Describe the Jeffress model of auditory localization.

Correct Answer : The Jeffress model of auditory localization proposes that neurons are wired so they each receive signals from the two ears. If the sound source is directly in front of the listener, the sound reaches the left and right ears simultaneously, and signals from the left and right ears start out together. As each signal travels along its axon, it stimulates each neuron in turn. At the beginning of the journey, neurons receive signals from only one ear, but not both, and they do not fire. But when the signals both reach a neuron together, that neuron fires. This neuron and the others in this circuit are called coincidence detectors, because they only fire when both signals coincide by arriving at the neuron simultaneously (i.e., when the interaural time difference, or ITD = 0). The Jeffress model therefore proposes a circuit that contains a series of ITD detectors, each tuned to respond best to a specific ITD. According to this idea, the ITD will be indicated by which ITD neuron is firing. This has been called a “place code” because ITD is indicated by the place (which neuron) where the activity occurs.

44 : Discuss research that shows that similarity of pitch and timbre affects auditory grouping.

Correct Answer : Composers made use of grouping by similarity of pitch long before psychologists began studying it. Composers in the Baroque period (1600–1750) knew that when a single instrument plays notes that alternate rapidly between high and low tones, the listener perceives two separate melodies, with the high notes perceived as a single melodic line, and the low notes as another. This separation of different sound sources into perceptually different streams, called implied polyphony or compound melodic line by musicians, is called auditory stream segregation by psychologists (Bregman, 1990; Darwin, 2010; Jones & Yee, 1993; Kondo & Kashino, 2009; Shamma & Micheyl, 2010; Yost & Sheft, 1993). Another example of how similarity of pitch causes grouping is an effect called the scale illusion, or melodic channeling. Diana Deutsch (1975, 1996) demonstrated this effect by presenting two sequences 8 / 11

of notes simultaneously through earphones, one to the right ear and one to the left. The notes presented to each ear jump up and down and do not create a scale. However, Deutsch’s listeners perceived smooth sequences of notes in each ear, with the higher notes in the right ear and the lower ones in the left ear. Even though each ear received both high and low notes, grouping by similarity of pitch caused listeners to group the higher notes in the right ear (which started with a high note) and the lower notes in the left ear (which started with a low note). The scale illusion highlights an important property of perceptual grouping. Most of the time, the principles of auditory grouping help us to accurately interpret what is happening in the environment. It is most effective to perceive similar sounds as coming from the same source because this is what usually happens in the environment.

45 : What is melody schema? Discuss the support for this concept.

Correct Answer : A melody schema is a representation of a familiar melody that is stored in a person’s memory. When people don’t know that a melody is present, they have no access to the schema and therefore have nothing with which to compare the unknown melody. But when they know which melody is present, they compare what they hear to their stored schema and perceive the melody (Deutsch, 1999; Dowling & Harwood, 1986).

46 : What factors are important to consider when designing concert halls?

Correct Answer : Architectural acoustics, the study of how sounds are reflected in rooms, is largely concerned with how indirect sound changes the quality of the sounds we hear in rooms.

The major factors affecting indirect sound are the size of the room and the amount of sound absorbed by the walls, ceiling, and floor. If most of the sound is absorbed, then there are few sound reflections and little indirect sound. If most of the sound is reflected, there are many sound reflections and a large amount of indirect sound. Another factor affecting indirect sound is the shape of the room. This determines how sound hits surfaces and the directions in which it is reflected. The amount and duration of indirect sound produced by a room is expressed as reverberation time – the time it takes for the sound to decrease to 1/1000th of its original pressure (or a decrease in level by 60 dB). If the reverberation time of a room is too long, sounds become muddled because the reflected sounds persist for too long. In extreme cases, such as cathedrals with stone walls, these delays are perceived as echoes, and it may be difficult to accurately localize the sound source. If the reverberation time is too short, music sounds “dead,” and it becomes more difficult to produce high-intensity sounds. The experience with concert halls, along with new developments in the field of architectural acoustics, has led architectural engineers to consider factors in addition to reverberation time in designing concert halls. Some of these factors have been identified by Leo Beranek (1996), who showed that the following physical measures are associated with how music is perceived in concert halls: • Intimacy time: The time between when sound arrives directly from the stage and when the first reflection arrives. This is related to reverberation but involves just comparing the time between the direct sound and the first reflection, rather than the time it takes for many reflections to die down. • Bass ratio: The ratio of low frequencies to middle frequencies that are reflected from walls and other surfaces. • Spaciousness factor: The fraction of all of the sound received by a listener that is indirect sound.

47 : Describe how dominant stress patterns of your native language can affect perception of meter. When does this influence develop?

Correct Answer : Perception of meter is influenced not only by movement but by longer-term experience - the stress patterns of a person’s language. Different languages have different stress patterns, because of the way the languages are constructed. For example, in English, function words like “the,” “a,” and “to” typically precede content words, as in “the dog” or “to 9 / 11

eat,” where dog and eat are stressed when spoken. In contrast, Japanese speakers place function words after the content words, so “the book” in English (with book stressed) becomes “hon ga” in Japanese (with hon stressed). Therefore, the dominant stress pattern in English is short–long (unaccented– accented), but in Japanese it is long-short (accented–unaccented).

Comparisons of how native English-speakers and Japanese-speakers perceive metrical grouping supports the idea that the stress patterns in a person’s language can influence the person’s perception of grouping.

48 : Define visual capture and give examples of this concept.

Correct Answer : One area of multisensory research is concerned with one sense “dominating” the other. If we ask whether vision or hearing is dominant, the answer is “it depends.” The ventriloquism effect, or visual capture, is an example of vision dominating audition. It occurs when sounds coming from one place (the ventriloquist’s mouth) appear to come from another place (the dummy’s mouth). Movement of the dummy’s mouth “captures” the sound (SotoFaraco et al., 2002, 2004). Another example of visual capture occurred in movie theaters before the introduction of digital surround sound. An actor’s dialogue was produced by a speaker located on one side of the screen but the image of the actor who was talking was located in the center of the screen, many feet away. Despite this separation, moviegoers heard the sound coming from its seen location (the image at the center of the screen) rather than from where it was actually produced (the speaker to the side of the screen). Sound originating from a location off to the side was captured by vision.

49 : What is meter and what is known about the processing of meter in the brain?

Correct Answer : Meter is the organization of beats into bars or measures, with the first beat in each bar often being accented (Lerdahl & Jackendorff, 1983; Plack, 2014; Tan et al., 2013).

There are two basic kinds of meter in Western music: duple meter in which accents are in multiples of two, such as 12 12 12 or 1234 1234 1234, like a march; and triple meter, in which accents are in groups of three, such as 123 123 123, as in a waltz. Metrical structure is typically achieved when musicians accentuate some notes by using a stronger attack or by playing them louder or longer. In doing this, musicians bring an expressiveness to music beyond what is heard by simply playing a string of notes. Thus, although the musical score may be the starting point for a performance, the musicians’ interpretation of the score is what listeners hear, and the interpretation of which notes are accented can influence the perceived meter of the composition (Ashley, 2002; Palmer, 1997; Sloboda, 2000). But meter can be created in a series of notes even if there are no accents. Meter can, as it turns out, be created by the listener’s mind. How is metrical structure created by the mind? Even though the ticking of a metronome creates a series of identical beats with regular spacing, it is possible to transform this series of beats into perceptual groups. We can, for example, imagine the beats of a metronome in duple meter (TICK-toc) or, with a small amount of effort, in triple meter (TICK-toc-toc) (Nozaradan et al., 2011). John Iversen and coworkers (2009) studied the mental creation of meter using magnetoencephalography (MEG) to measure subjects’ brain responses as they listened to rhythmic sequences. MEG measures brain responses by recording magnetic fields caused by brain activity. A feature of MEG is that it records brain responses very rapidly, so responses to specific notes in a rhythmic pattern can be determined. Subjects listened to two-tone sequences and were told to mentally imagine that the beat occurred either on the first note or on the second note of each sequence. Results indicated that our ability to change meter with our mind is reflected directly by activity in the brain.

50 : What is meant by the beat and how is the beat processed in the brain?

Correct Answer : Every culture has some form of music with a beat (Patel, 2008). The beat can 10 / 11

be up front and obvious, as in rock music, or subtler, as in a quiet lullaby, but it is always there, creating a framework over which the melody creates its rhythmic pattern. The beat can be likened to the pulse of music, both because of its regularity and because it can result in movement. The link between the beat and movement is expressed not only by behaviors such as tapping or swinging in time to the beat, but also by responses of motor areas in the brain.

Jessica Grahn and James Rowe (2009) demonstrated a connection between the beat and a group of subcortical structures at the base of the brain called the basal ganglia, which had been associated with movement in previous research. Their subjects listened to “beat” and “nonbeat” rhythmic patterns while they were in a brain scanner. Grahn and Rowe found that the basal ganglia response was greater to the beat stimuli than to the non-beat stimuli. In addition, they calculated neural connectivity between subcortical structures and cortical motor areas, by determining how well the response of one structure can be predicted from the response of a connected structure (Friston et al., 1997). The result of this calculation indicated greater connectivity for the beat condition compared to the non-beat condition. In another experiment, Joyce Chen and coworkers (2008) measured activity in the premotor cortex in three conditions: (1) Tapping: Subjects tapped along with the sequence. (2) Listening with anticipation: Subjects listened to the sequence, but they knew they would be asked to tap to it later. (3) Passive listening: Subjects listened passively to a rhythmic sequence. It isn’t surprising that tapping caused the greatest response, because the premotor cortex is involved in creating movements.

But a response also occurred in the listening with anticipation condition (70 percent of the response to tapping) and in the passive listening condition (55 percent of the response to tapping), even though subjects were just listening, without moving. Thus, motor areas are activated just by listening to a beat, which, Chen suggests, may partially explain the irresistible urge to tap to the beat when hearing music.

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CHAPTER 13 1 : Computer speech recognition is .

A : better than human speech recognition under any condition B : better than human speech recognition in accuracy C : equal in all respects to human speech recognition D : poorer than human speech recognition Correct Answer : D 2 : Which of the following can be considered an articulator?

A : a sound spectrogram B : a running spectral display C : the soft palate D : an articulation agreement Correct Answer : C 3 : A sound spectrogram is a plot of representing greater intensity.

A : frequency; time B : amplitude; frequency C : time; amplitude D : time; spatial location of sound source

as a function of

, with darker areas

Correct Answer : A 4 : The vowel sound /ae/ (as in had) has A : a single formant B : two formants C : three formants D : no formants

.

Correct Answer : C 5 : As you produce the sound , you place your tongue against the ridge above your upper teeth and then release a slight rush of air as you move your tongue away from the alveolar ridge.

A : /d/ B : /g/ C : /r/ D : /f/ Correct Answer : A 6 : The is the shortest segment of speech that, if changed, changes the meaning of the word.

A : formant B : phoneme C : tadoma D : morpheme

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Correct Answer : B 7 : There are A : two B : five C : six D : thirteen

phonemes for vowel sounds in the English language.

Correct Answer : D 8 : Spectrograms of sentences show .

A : that clear pauses occur between each spoken word B : that formant transitions account for the breaks between words C : no clear pauses or breaks between words D : segmentation of words is easily accomplished by listeners in any context Correct Answer : C 9 : Listening to someone speak a foreign language you are not familiar with can lead to A : the correspondence problem B : the segmentation problem C : the formant transition effect D : acoustic signaling

.

Correct Answer : B 10 : When you say bat and boot, the /b/ sound is articulated differently. This is an example of .

A : phoneme contiguity B : phoneme congruity C : coarticulation D : alveolar context Correct Answer : C 11 : Humans perceive the sound /b/ to be the same, even when the coarticulation of the sound is different. This phenomenon is an example of .

A : perceptual constancy B : acoustic consistency C : phonemic transitions D : the segmentation problem Correct Answer : A 12 : The overlap between the production of neighboring phonemes is called A : contiguity B : Consolidation C : coarticulation D : Context

.

Correct Answer : C 13 : The ubiquitous Whazzup! is a sloppy pronunciation of Whats up? The spectrograms of 2 / 11

each of these two spoken phrases would indicate .

A : no difference in the spectrograms between the two phrases B : only a difference in the frequency axis between the two phrases C : that there is a pause in the middle of Whats up?

D : major differences between the two, especially in the middle of the spectrograms Correct Answer : D 14 : The existence of phonetic boundaries .

A : is currently debated among speech perception researchers B : only occurs at VOTs of greater than 250 ms C : has been demonstrated using discrimination experiments D : shows that categorical perception does not occur in speech perception Correct Answer : C 15 : The voice onset time (VOT) for the sound /da/ is 17 ms, and the VOT for the sound /ta/ is 91 msec. When a computer produces a sound with a VOT of 65 ms, listeners are likely to report hearing .

A : the /da/ sound B : the /ta/ sound C : the /ja/ sound D : a combination of /ta/ and /da/ Correct Answer : B 16 : The McGurk effect illustrates the importance of A : the motor cortex B : articulators C : formants D : vision

on speech perception.

Correct Answer : D 17 : The McGurk effect is most similar to which of the following performers?

A : ventriloquists B : hockey players C : ballet dancers D : gymnasts Correct Answer : A 18 : Jessica looks at Ashlee on a videotape. Ashlees lips are making the movement for the sound /fa-fa/, but the sound that is actually presented is the acoustic signal for /ba-ba/. What sound is Jessica most likely to report hearing?

A : /fa-fa/ B : /ba-ba/ C : /da-da/ D : /ta-ta/ Correct Answer : A 19 : Research using fMRI has found that, although

is activated when paying attention to 3 / 11

the sounds of familiar voices, it is NOT activated when paying attention to the sounds of unfamiliar voices.

A : the FFA B : the STS C : Wernickes area D : Brocas area Correct Answer : A 20 : Rubin et al. (1976) asked participants to respond when they heard a word that started with the /b/ sound. The average response time when real words were used was ; and when non-words were used.

A : 100 msec; 57 msec B : 580 msec; 631 msec C : 995 msec; 900 msec D : 1.87 sec; 1.88 sec Correct Answer : B 21 : Warren showed that when a cough sound replaced the sound of the first /s/ in the word legislatures, listeners reported hearing .

A : just the cough sound where the /s/ was originally B : just the cough sound because it masked the whole word C : just the /s/ sound D : the cough and the /s/ sound, but the cough position was not correctly identified Correct Answer : D 22 : Your ability to read the sentence H*V* A N*C* D*Y is used as an example of the importance of .

A : bottom-up processing B : top-down processing C : audiovisual speech perception D : sideways processing Correct Answer : B 23 : Miller and Isard presented listeners with grammatical sentences (Gadgets simplify work around the house); ungrammatical word strings (Between gadgets highways passengers the steal), and anomalous sentences (Gadgets kill passengers from the eyes). The results showed that the listeners ability to accurately report the phrase was .

A : highest for the grammatical condition, followed by ungrammatical, and then anomalous B : highest for the grammatical condition, followed by anomalous, and then ungrammatical C : the same for grammatical and anomalous, which were both better than ungrammatical D : the same for all three conditions Correct Answer : B 24 : A fan of science fiction television shows would be more likely to make sense of the phrase Start Wreck In Tore Prize. This demonstrates the importance of .

A : the McGurk effect on speech perception B : bottom-up processing on phomenic boundaries C : articulators in speech production 4 / 11

D : meaning on segmentation Correct Answer : D 25 : Samuel (1990) demonstrated top-down processing by showing that the likelihood of the phonemic restoration effect.

A : shorter B : descriptive C : evocative D : longer

words increase

Correct Answer : D 26 : Saffran et al. (1996) found that the ability to use transitional probabilities to segment sounds develops around the age of .

A : 2 months B : 8 months C : 18 months D : 2 years Correct Answer : B 27 : Saffran et al. (1996) found that eight-month-old infants listened to providing evidence that infants are capable of learning.

A : whole word; vicarious B : whole word; transitional probability C : part word; statistical D : part word; formal operational

test stimuli longer,

Correct Answer : C 28 : speech is created by dividing the speech signal up into different frequency bands and then adding noise to each band.

A : Noise-vocoded B : Reconstructed C : Nonsense D : Imprecise Correct Answer : A 29 : Matthew Davis and coworkers (2005) tested subjects to determine their ability to perceive degraded speech and found that .

A : higher level information can help in understanding degraded speech B : in general, nonacoustic factors have no influence on speech perception C : knowing what is being said is less important than how it is said D : multimodal processing occurs only following explicit and intense training Correct Answer : A 30 : Marta works at an information kiosk in an airport and she frequently encounters people who are not native speakers of her first language but to their credit, try to ask questions using it.

Given that she will have limited contact with the individuals, she will most likely be able to understand what is being asked if she focuses on .

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A : indexical characteristics B : segmentation effects C : lip reading effects D : general meaning Correct Answer : D 31 : Damage to Brocas area in the frontal lobe results in A : slow, labored speech with jumbled sentence order.

B : slow, labored speech with appropriate sentence order C : fluent but incoherent speech D : an inability to understand even simple sentences

.

Correct Answer : A 32 : A person with Wernickes aphasia .

A : has damage to an area of the occipital cortex B : can comprehend words, but cant produce speech C : has trouble with word segmentation D : produces fluent but incoherent speech Correct Answer : D 33 : Micelli et al. (1980) found that brain damage to the parietal lobe caused the patient to have difficulty discriminating between syllables. In addition, Micelli et al. found that .

A : all these patients could not understand words B : all these patients had word deafness C : some of these patients could not hear pure tones D : some of these patients could still understand words Correct Answer : D 34 : Using fMRI, Belin et al., (2000) were able to reveal that, in humans, the superior temporal sulcus (STS) is .

A : activated more for human voices than for other sounds B : activated for any sound that falls in the same frequency range as the human voice C : responsible for coordinating conflicting visual and auditory information D : responsible for phoneme segmentation Correct Answer : A 35 : Brain scanning research has shown that the and the is responsible for locating sounds.

A : where (dorsal) stream; what (ventral) stream B : what (ventral) stream; where (dorsal) stream C : corpus callosum; where (dorsal) stream D : Pacinian area; what (ventral) stream

is responsible for identifying sounds,

Correct Answer : B 36 : The discovery of A : Brocas area B : Wernickes area

is used as support for the motor theory of speech perception.

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C : audiovisual mirror neurons D : simple cells in area V1 Correct Answer : C 37 : Alessandro DAusilio and coworkers (2009) demonstrated a link between production and perception by showing that stimulation of motor areas associated with the lip resulted in .

A : better perception of labial sounds B : better perception of nonlabial sounds C : degraded perception of labial sounds D : degraded perception of nonlabial sounds Correct Answer : A 38 : The ability to categorize speech sounds is found in infants as young as A : one B : three C : six D : ten

month(s) old.

Correct Answer : A 39 : Japanese children at the age of can tell the difference between the /r/ sound and the /l/ sound just as well as American children.

A : six months B : one year C : two years D : five years Correct Answer : A 40 : Masakazu is a four-month-old Japanese infant. When presented the phonemes /r/ and /l/, he will .

A : not be able to discriminate between these two phonemes B : be able to discriminate between these two phonemes C : need the VOT changed to 10 msec to discriminate between the two phonemes D : spontaneously mimic the /r/, but not the /l/ Correct Answer : B 41 : Kuhls research involving exposing infants from English-speaking homes to stories read in Mandarin found that .

A : having the reader present with the infant was effective in teaching the infants to discriminate among Mandarin sounds, but a DVD of the same reader reading the same stories was not B : having the reader present with the infant was not effective in teaching the infants to discriminate among Mandarin sounds, but a DVD of the same reader reading the same stories was very effective C : having the reader present with the infant was effective in teaching the infants to discriminate among Mandarin sounds, as was a DVD of the same reader reading the same stories D : having the reader present with the infant was effective in teaching the infants to discriminate among Mandarin sounds, as was a DVD of the same reader reading the same stories, but only when the infants were at least 18 months old 7 / 11

Correct Answer : A

ESSAY 42 : Discuss two sources of the variability problem. Provide examples for each.

Correct Answer : The main problem facing researchers trying to understand speech perception is that there is a variable relationship between the acoustic signal and the sounds we hear. The acoustic signal associated with a phoneme changes depends on its context. This effect of context occurs because of the way speech is produced. Because articulators are constantly moving as we talk, the shape of the vocal tract associated with a particular phoneme is influenced by the sounds that both precede and follow that phoneme. This overlap between the articulation of neighboring phonemes is called coarticulation. People say the same words in a variety of different ways. Some people’s voices are high-pitched and some are low-pitched; people speak with various accents; some talk very rapidly and others speak e-x-t-r-e-m-e-l-y s-lo-w-l-y. These wide variations in speech mean that for different speakers, a particular phoneme or word can have very different acoustic signals.

43 : Describe how voice onset times (VOTs) have been used to study categorical perception.

Correct Answer : Categorical perception occurs when stimuli that exist along a continuum are perceived as divided into discrete categories. Categorical perception in speech is similar to the perception of colors on the electromagnetic spectrum, except the continuum is a property called voice onset time (VOT), the time delay between when a sound begins and when the vocal cords begin vibrating. By using computers, researchers have created sound stimuli in which the VOT is varied in small steps from short to long. When they vary VOT and ask listeners to indicate what sound they hear, the listeners report hearing only one or the other of the two phonemes, /da/ or /ta/, even though a large number of stimuli with different VOTs are presented. At short VOTs, listeners report that they hear /da/, and they continue reporting this even when the VOT is increased. But when the VOT reaches about 35 ms, their perception abruptly changes, so at VOTs above 40 ms, they report hearing /ta/. The VOT when the perception changes from /da/ to /ta/ is called the phonetic boundary. The key result of the categorical perception experiment is that even though the VOT is changed continuously across a wide range, the listener perceives only two categories: /da/ on one side of the phonetic boundary and /ta/ on the other side.

44 : What is the McGurk effect? What evidence exists for the physiological basis for this effect?

Correct Answer : Speech perception is that it is multimodal; that is, our perception of speech can be influenced by information from a number of different senses. One illustration of how speech perception can be influenced by visual information is the McGurk effect. It illustrates that although auditory information is the major source of information for speech perception, visual information can also exert a strong influence on what we hear. This influence of vision on speech perception is called audiovisual speech perception. The McGurk effect is one example of audiovisual speech perception. Another example is the way people routinely use information provided by a speaker’s lip movements to help understand speech in a noisy environment (also see Sumby & Pollack, 1954). The link between vision and speech has been shown to have a physiological basis. Gemma Calvert and coworkers (1997) used fMRI to measure brain activity as observers watched a silent videotape of a person making mouth movements for saying numbers. Observers silently repeated the numbers as they watched, so this task was similar to what people do when they read lips. In a control condition, observers watched a static face while silently repeating numbers. A comparison of the brain activity in these two conditions 8 / 11

showed that watching the lips move activated an area in the auditory cortex that Calvert had shown in another experiment to be activated when people are perceiving speech. The fact that the same areas are activated for lipreading and speech perception, suggests Calvert, may be a neural mechanism behind the McGurk effect.

45 : Discuss the methods and results of two studies of the phonemic restoration effect.

Correct Answer : The effect of meaning on the perception of phonemes was demonstrated in another way by Richard Warren (1970), who had participants listen to a recording of the sentence “The state governors met with their respective legislatures convening in the capital city.” Warren replaced the first /s/ in “legislatures” with the sound of a cough and told his subjects that they should indicate where in the sentence the cough occurred. None of the participants identified the correct position of the cough, and, even more significantly, none noticed that the /s/ in “legislatures” was missing. This effect, which Warren called the phonemic restoration effect, was experienced even by students and staff in the psychology department who knew that the /s/ was missing. Warren not only demonstrated the phonemic restoration effect but also showed that it can be influenced by the meaning of words following the missing phoneme. For example, the last word of the phrase “There was time to *ave . . .” (where the* indicates the presence of a cough or some other sound) could be “shave,” “save,” “wave,” or “rave,” but participants heard the word “wave” when the remainder of the sentence had to do with saying good-bye to a departing friend.

46 : Discuss what information is used by listeners to accomplish speech segmentation.

Correct Answer : Just as we effortlessly see objects when we look at a visual scene, we usually have little trouble perceiving individual words when conversing with another person. But when we look at the speech signal, we see that the acoustic signal is continuous, with either no physical breaks in the signal or breaks that don’t necessarily correspond to the breaks we perceive between words. The perception of individual words in a conversation is called speech segmentation. The fact that we can perceive individual words in conversational speech, even though there are few breaks in the speech signal, means that our perception of words is not based only on the energy stimulating the receptors. One thing that helps us tell when one word ends and another begins is knowledge of the meanings of words. The overall meaning of sentences and context are also used in segmentation, as is knowledge of the probabilities of typical sound transitions.

47 : Discuss the motor theory of speech perception.

Correct Answer : A theory that proposed a link between speech perception and action is the motor theory of speech perception (Liberman et al., 1963, 1967). This theory proposed that (1) hearing a particular speech sound activates motor mechanisms controlling the movement of the articulators, such as the tongue and lips, that are responsible for producing sounds; and (2) activation of these motor mechanisms, in turn, activates additional mechanisms that enable us to perceive the sound. Thus, the motor theory proposes that activity of motor mechanisms is the first step toward perceiving speech.

48 : Discuss the dual-stream model of speech perception. Briefly describe research that supports this model.

Correct Answer : Researchers have proposed a dual-stream model of speech perception similar to the dual-stream model of hearing. The ventral pathway starts in the anterior (front) part of the auditory cortex and the dorsal pathway starts in the posterior (rear) part of the auditory cortex.

The ventral pathway is responsible for recognizing speech, and it has been proposed that the 9 / 11

dorsal pathway may be involved in linking the acoustic signal to the movements used to produce speech (Hickock & Poeppel, 2007; Rauschecker, 2011). Evidence for speech processing in the temporal lobe has been provided by Nima Mesgarani and coworkers (2014), who recorded from electrodes placed directly on the temporal lobe of patients who were undergoing brain surgery for epilepsy. While Mesgarani and coworkers observed electrode responses corresponding to single phonemes, they also found responses corresponding to phonetic features, which are cues associated with how a phoneme is produced by the articulators. Mesgarani and coworkers observed responses from some electrodes that were linked to specific phonetic features. For example, one electrode picked up responses to sounds that involved place of articulation in the back of the mouth, such as /g/, and another responded to sounds associated with places near the front, such as /b/.

49 : Discuss Brocas and Wernickes aphasia.

Correct Answer : Based on their studies of brain-damaged patients, 19th-century researchers Paul Broca (1824–1880) and Carl Wernicke (1848–1905) showed that damage to specific areas of the brain causes language problems, called aphasias. When Broca tested patients who had suffered strokes that damaged their frontal lobe, in an area that came to be called Broca’s area, he found that their speech was slow and labored and often had jumbled sentence structure.

Patients with this problem—slow, labored, ungrammatical speech caused by damage to Broca’s area, are diagnosed as having Broca’s aphasia. Later research showed that patients with Broca’s aphasia not only have difficulty forming complete sentences, they also have difficulty understanding sentences in which word order is critical for understanding the meaning of those sentences, as in “The boy was pushed by the girl,” The patients studied by Wernicke, who had damage to an area in their temporal lobe that came to be called Wernicke’s area, produced speech that was fluent and grammatically correct but tended to be incoherent. Patients such as this not only produce meaningless speech but are unable to understand speech and writing.

While patients with Broca’s aphasia have trouble understanding sentences in which meaning depends on word order, Wernicke’s patients have more widespread difficulties in understanding and would be unable to understand “The apple was eaten by the girl” as well. In the most extreme form of Wernicke’s aphasia, the person has a condition called word deafness, in which he or she cannot recognize words, even though the ability to hear pure tones remains intact (Kolb & Whishaw, 2003).

50 : What is noise vocoded speech and what has been learned using it?

Correct Answer : Noise-vocoded speech is created by dividing the speech signal up into different frequency bands and then adding noise to each band. This process transforms the spectrogram of the original speech stimulus into a noisy spectrogram. The loss of detail in the frequency representation of the noise-vocoded signal transforms clear speech into a harsh noisy whisper. Subjects in Matthew Davis’s (2005) experiment listened to a vocoded sentence and then wrote down as much of the sentence as they could. This was repeated for a total of 30 sentences. Performance was near zero for the first three sentences, and then increases, until by the 30th sentence, subjects are reporting half or more of the words. The increase in performance is important because all the subjects were doing is listening to one sentence after the other. What information do listeners use to achieve this clearer understanding? One hint comes from experiments in which subjects first listened to a degraded sentence and wrote down what they heard, as before, and then heard a clear undistorted version of the sentence, followed by the distorted sentence again (hear degraded sentence ? hear clear sentence ? hear degraded sentence again). Subjects reported that when they listened to the second presentation of the degraded sentence, they heard some words they hadn’t heard the first time.

Davis calls this ability to hear previously unintelligible words the “pop-out” effect. The pop-out effect shows that higher-level information such as listeners’ knowledge can improve speech 10 / 11

perception. But this result becomes even more interesting when we consider that after experiencing the pop-out effect subjects became better at understanding other degraded sentences that they were hearing for the first time. Even more interesting, the pop-out effect and later improvement in performance also occurred in a group of subjects who read the sentence after hearing the degraded version (hear degraded sentence ? read written sentence ? hear degraded sentence again). What this means is that it wasn’t listening to the clear sound that was important, but knowing the content (the speech sounds and words) of what they were hearing that helped with learning.

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CHAPTER 14 1 : The somatosensory system comprises .

A : the cutaneous sensory system only B : cutaneous sensations and proprioception only C : cutaneous sensations and kinesthesis only D : cutaneous sensations, proprioception, and kinesthesis Correct Answer : D 2 : The outer layer of the skin is composed of A : a lipid layer B : Meissner corpuscles C : Pacinian corpuscles D : dead skin cells

.

Correct Answer : D 3 : The are located near the border of the epidermis and surface of the skin, and are associated with sensing fine details.

A : Pacinian corpuscle B : Meissner corpuscles C : Ruffini cylinders D : Merkel receptors Correct Answer : D 4 : Which mechanoreceptor is located deeper in the skin and responds continuously to stimulation and is associated with perceiving stretching of the skin?

A : Pacinian corpuscles B : Ruffini cylinders C : Merkel receptors D : Meissner corpuscles Correct Answer : B 5 : The are responsible for the perception of rapid vibrations, such as you would experience when using a hand-held massager.

A : Pacinian corpuscles B : Meissner corpuscles C : Ruffini cylinders D : Merkel receptors Correct Answer : A 6 : The Meissner corpuscle is associated with A : sensing vibrations B : sensing fine texture C : controlling handgrip D : sensing fine details

.

Correct Answer : C 1 / 11

7 : The nerve fibers in the spinal cord go in .

A : the medial lemniscal pathway only B : the spinothalamic pathway only C : the geniculostriate pathway only D : both the medial lemniscal pathway and the spinothalamic pathway Correct Answer : D 8 : Ian Waterman was able to sense pain and temperature because his intact, but could not feel touch and limb position because of damage to his A : lemniscal; spinothalamic B : spinothalamic; lemniscal C : homuncular; lemniscal D : spinothermal; spinothalamic

pathway was pathway.

Correct Answer : B 9 : The fibers from the medial lemniscal pathway and the spinothalamic pathway go to the .

A : lateral geniculate nucleus B : medial geniculate nucleus C : ventrolateral nucleus D : hypothalamus Correct Answer : C 10 : Penfield mapped locations of body parts on area S1 by .

A : using fMRIs in humans B : lesioning S1 areas in the monkey C : using somatosensory-evoked potentials in monkeys D : stimulating S1 areas in humans, and asking where they felt body sensations Correct Answer : D 11 : The mapping of the body on the somatosensory cortex can be represented as a(n) A : homunculus B : anosmia C : epidermis D : pachyderm

.

Correct Answer : A 12 : The area on S1 associated with the thumb is as large as the area for the forearm. This is an example of .

A : sensory substitution B : Braille projection C : cortical magnification D : the analgesic inversion principle Correct Answer : C 13 : Which of the following is true regarding body mapping in the somatosensory cortex?

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A : Body maps only appear in S1.

B : Body map regions are proportionate to the actual size of the body parts.

C : Body maps appear in both the frontal and parietal lobes.

D : Body maps appear in S1 and S2.

Correct Answer : D 14 : Experience-dependent plasticity has been found to occur for A : the somatosensory system only B : the auditory system only C : only the auditory and somatosensory systems D : the somatosensory, auditory, and visual systems

.

Correct Answer : D 15 : Jan is a right-handed violin player she bows with her right hand and fingers the strings with her left. The cortical representation for the fingers on her left hand is .

A : equal to the area for the fingers on her right hand B : equal to the area for the fingers on the left hand of a non-musician C : larger than the area for the fingers on the left hand of a non-musician D : smaller than the area for the fingers on the left hand of a non-musician Correct Answer : C 16 : Which type of acuity is measured by pressing a grooved stimulus onto the skin and asking the person to indicate the orientation?

A : grating B : letter C : two-point D : Braille simulated Correct Answer : A 17 : Which body part is the most sensitive to detail?

A : fingertips B : palms C : forehead D : upper arm Correct Answer : A 18 : The density of the on the fingertips than on the palms.

A : Merkel receptors is higher B : Krausse end bulbs is higher C : Merkel receptors is lower D : Pacinian corpuscles is lower Correct Answer : A 19 : The receptive fields of cortical S1 neurons are A : larger for the fingers than for the forearm B : larger for the fingers than for the hand C : smaller for the fingers than the forearm

.

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D : the same size for the fingers as for the hand Correct Answer : C 20 : The mechanoreceptors primarily responsible for feeling the vibrations from an electric toothbrush are because these receptors contain an onion-like series of layers.

A : Pacinian corpuscles B : Merkel receptors C : Ruffini cylinders D : Meissner corpuscles Correct Answer : A 21 : Moving your finger across a textured surface can produce vibrations that are interpreted as texture. These vibrations are defined as .

A : parietal cues B : temporal cues C : spatial cues D : olfactory cues Correct Answer : B 22 : The duplex theory of texture perception refers to the importance of A : temporal cues and spatial cues B : parietal cues and occipital cues C : spatial cues and occipital cues D : temporal cues and parietal cues

.

Correct Answer : A 23 : The demonstration in which you perceived the texture of a surface using your pen or another tool showed .

A : it is difficult to determine texture without directly touching the surface B : passive touch is more important than active touch in texture perception C : texture gradients are more important for vision than cutaneous senses D : that you can use vibrations to perceive the texture of the surface Correct Answer : D 24 : In most of our daily experience of touch, we are using A : passive touch B : active touch C : two-point touch D : two-hand touch

.

Correct Answer : B 25 : When you try to identify a three-dimensional object by touch alone and are allowed to have control over your hand and finger movements, you are using .

A : passive touch B : haptic perception C : azimuth perception D : magnification touch 4 / 11

Correct Answer : B 26 : People use mainly to judge texture.

A : enclosure and lateral motion B : pressure and enclosure C : contour following and enclosure D : lateral motion and contour following Correct Answer : D 27 : Bobby is asked to use haptic perception to identify a soccer ball. She will most likely use the exploratory procedure(s) of to identify the soccer balls exact shape.

A : lateral motion and pressure B : pressure only C : enclosure and contour following D : passive motion and lateral motion Correct Answer : C 28 : Passive touch is to experiencing as active touch is to experiencing A : the object; stimulation of the skin B : intermittent stimulation; continuous stimulation C : continuous stimulation; intermittent stimulation D : stimulation of the skin; the object

.

Correct Answer : D 29 : Neurons in the ventral posterior nucleus in the thalamus have A : center-surround receptive fields B : ill-defined receptive fields C : no receptive fields D : grating-like receptive fields

.

Correct Answer : A 30 : As we move from mechanoreceptor fibers in the fingers toward the brain, we see that neurons become .

A : less specialized B : more inhibitory C : less inhibitory D : more specialized Correct Answer : D 31 : Neuropathic pain is to as inflammatory pain is to A : tumor cells; phantom limb syndrome B : tumor cells; carpal tunnel syndrome C : carpal tunnel syndrome; azimuth burn D : carpal tunnel syndrome; tumor cells

.

Correct Answer : D 5 / 11

32 : The phenomenon of phantom limb is difficult to explain using the A : direct pathway model B : gate control model C : nocioceptor model D : neuropathic model

of pain.

Correct Answer : A 33 : According to the gate control theory of pain, the excitation to .

A : mechanoreceptors; transmission cells B : SG+; nocioceptors C : SG-; mechanoreceptors D : nociceptors; transmission cells

opens the pain gate by sending

Correct Answer : D 34 : Pokorny, a burn victim, reduced perceived pain by .

A : viewing photographs of other burn victims B : microstimulation to the nocioreceptors in the forearm C : having a discussion of the placebo effect with his doctor D : playing a virtual-reality game during treatment Correct Answer : D 35 : Lucy, a heterosexual female, would be able to keep her hand immersed in cold water longer if she was .

A : looking at pictures of a refrigerator B : looking at pictures of accidents C : looking a pictures of attractive males D : visualizing images of war Correct Answer : C 36 : Research by Derbyshire et al. (2003) Hofbauer et al. (2001) showed that hypnotic suggestion .

A : causes changes in somatosensory cortex for changes in affective component of pain B : can cause changes in anterior cingulate cortex for changes in sensory component of pain C : causes changes in somatosensory cortex for changes in sensory component of pain D : can cause changes in somatosensory cortex for changes in emotional component of pain Correct Answer : C 37 : In the perception of pain, the ACC. A : PFC B : S2 C : S1 D : thalamus

communicates directly with the amygdala, insula and

Correct Answer : D 38 : The sensory component of pain is to

as the emotional component of pain is to 6 / 11

.

A : throbbing; dull B : annoying; sickening C : frightful; prickly D : throbbing; annoying Correct Answer : D 39 : The phrase multimodal nature of pain refers to A : pain that occurs from different sources B : pain that is tolerable and pain that is intolerable C : the sensory and emotional components of pain D : real and imagined sources of pain

.

Correct Answer : C 40 : The subjective intensity of pain is to A : somatosensory cortex; Area S2 B : real pain; phantom pain C : the ACC; Area S2 D : somatosensory cortex; the ACC

as the unpleasantness of pain is to

.

Correct Answer : D 41 : Based on the finding that , it is believed that endorphins are linked to pain relief.

A : naloxone injections increase the analgesic effect of endorphins B : naloxone injections decrease the analgesic effect of endorphins and placebos C : naloxone injections increase the analgesic effects of placebos D : placebo injections increase the analgesic effects of endorphins Correct Answer : B 42 : Endorphins are .

A : morphine-like substances found in the body B : receptors that are stimulated by extreme temperature on the skin C : the active agent in placebos D : able to overcome only very mild, tolerable pain Correct Answer : A 43 : Stroking a participants leg leads to increased activation in S2 and S2 activity also increased when participants .

A : saw a video of the same leg moving around in isolation B : saw a video depicting someone stroking an office supply binder C : thought about an object moving toward someones leg D : thought about lifting the same leg and moving it around Correct Answer : B

ESSAY 7 / 11

44 : Name and discuss the differences between the four types of mechanoreceptors.

Correct Answer : Many of the tactile perceptions that we feel from stimulation of the skin can be traced to mechanoreceptors that are located in the epidermis and the dermis. Two mechanoreceptors, the Merkel receptor and the Meissner corpuscle, are located close to the surface of the skin, near the epidermis. Because they are located close to the surface, these receptors have small receptive fields; a cutaneous receptive field is the area of skin which, when stimulated, influences the firing of the neuron. ? The two other mechanoreceptors, the Ruffini cylinder (SA2 fiber) and the Pacinian corpuscle (RA2 or PC fiber), are located deeper in the skin, so they have larger receptive fields. The Ruffini cylinder responds continuously to stimulation, and the Pacinian corpuscle responds when the stimulus is applied and removed.

The Ruffini cylinder is associated with perceiving stretching of the skin, the Pacinian corpuscle with sensing rapid vibrations and fine texture.

45 : Discuss how cortical magnification and plasticity are related to the cortical mapping of area S1.

Correct Answer : The homunculus shows that adjacent areas of the skin project to adjacent areas in the brain, and that some areas on the skin are represented by a disproportionately large area of the brain. The area devoted to the thumb, for example, is as large as the area devoted to the entire forearm. This result is analogous to the magnification factor in vision, in which receptors in the fovea, which are responsible for perceiving visual details, are allotted a disproportionate area on the visual cortex. Similarly, parts of the body such as the fingers, which are used to detect details through the sense of touch, are allotted a disproportionate area on the somatosensory cortex (Duncan & Boynton, 2007). A similar body map also occurs in the secondary somatosensory cortex (S2). ? One of the basic principles of cortical organization is that the cortical representation of a particular function can become larger if that function is used often. Most of the early experiments that demonstrated experience-dependent plasticity were carried out in the somatosensory system. In one of these early experiments, William Jenkins and Michael Merzenich (1987) measured the cortical areas devoted to each of a monkey’s fingers and then trained monkeys to complete a task that involved the extensive use of a particular location on one fingertip. When they compared the cortical maps of the fingertip measured just before the training to the map measured after 3 months of training, they found that the area representing the stimulated fingertip was greatly expanded after the training. Thus, the cortical area representing part of the fingertip, which is large to begin with, became even larger when the area received a large amount of stimulation. ? In most animal experiments, like the one we just described, the effect of plasticity is determined by measuring how special training affects the brain. An experiment that measured this effect in humans determined how training affected the brains of musicians. Consider, for example, players of stringed instruments.

A right-handed violin player bows with the right hand and uses the fingers of his or her left hand to finger the strings. One result of this tactile experience is that these musicians have a greater than normal cortical representation for the fingers of their left hand (Elbert et al., 1995). Just as in the monkeys, plasticity created more cortical area for parts of the body that were used more.

What this plasticity means is that while we can specify the general area of the cortex that represents a particular part of the body, the exact size of the area representing each part of the body is not totally fixed (Pascual-Leone et al., 2005).

46 : What is the duplex theory of texture perception? Describe research that supports this theory.

Correct Answer : In 1925, David Katz proposed what is now called the duplex theory of texture perception, which states that our perception of texture depends on both spatial cues and temporal cues (Hollins & Risner, 2000; Katz, 1925/1989). Spatial cues are provided by relatively 8 / 11

large surface elements, such as bumps and grooves, that can be felt both when the skin moves across the surface elements and when it is pressed onto the elements. These cues result in feeling different shapes, sizes, and distributions of these surface elements. An example of the use of spatial cues is perceiving a coarse texture such as Braille dots or the texture you feel when you touch the teeth of a comb. Temporal cues occur when the skin moves across a textured surface like fine sandpaper. This type of cue provides information in the form of vibrations that occur as a result of the movement over the surface. Temporal cues are responsible for our perception of fine texture that cannot be detected unless the fingers are moving across the surface. ? Although Katz proposed that texture perception is determined by both spatial and temporal cues, research on texture perception has, until recently, focused on spatial cues. However, experiments by Mark Hollins and coworkers (2000, 2001, 2002) show that temporal cues are responsible for our perception of fine textures. Hollins and Ryan Risner (2000) presented evidence for the role of temporal cues by showing that when subjects touched surfaces without moving their fingers and judged “roughness” using the procedure of magnitude estimation, they sensed little difference between two fine textures (particle sizes of 10 ?m and 100 ?m). However, when subjects were allowed to move their fingers across the surface, they could detect the difference between the fine textures. Thus, movement, which generates vibration as the skin scans a surface, makes it possible to sense the roughness of fine surfaces.

47 : Explain how haptic exploration is used to identify objects.

Correct Answer : Haptic perception provides a particularly good example of a situation in which a number of different systems are interacting with each other. As you manipulated the objects in the first part of the demonstration above, you were using three distinct systems to arrive at your goal of identifying the objects: (1) the sensory system, which was involved in detecting cutaneous sensations such as touch, temperature, and texture and the movements and positions of your fingers and hands; (2) the motor system, which was involved in moving your fingers and hands; and (3) the cognitive system, which was involved in thinking about the information provided by the sensory and motor systems. Haptic perception is an extremely complex process because the sensory, motor, and cognitive systems must all work together.

For example, the motor system’s control of finger and hand movements is guided by cutaneous feelings in the fingers and the hands, by your sense of the positions of the fingers and hands, and by thought processes that determine what information is needed about the object in order to identify it.?

48 : Describe the basic principles of the gate-control model of pain.

Correct Answer : The gate control model begins with the idea that pain signals enter the spinal cord from the body and are then transmitted from the spinal cord to the brain. In addition, the model proposes that there are additional pathways that influence the signals sent from the spinal cord to the brain. The central idea behind the theory is that signals from these additional pathways can act to open or close a gate, located in the spinal cord, which determines the strength of the signal leaving the spinal cord. ? We can understand how this circuit functions by considering how input to the gate control system occurs along three pathways: Nociceptors.

Fibers from nociceptors activate a circuit consisting entirely of excitatory synapses, and therefore send excitatory signals to the transmission cells. Excitatory signals from the (+) neurons in the dorsal horn “open the gate” and increase the firing of the transmission cells.

Increased activity in the transmission cells results in more pain. Mechanoreceptors. Fibers from mechanoreceptors carry information about nonpainful tactile stimulation. An example of this type of stimulus would be signals sent from rubbing the skin. When activity in the mechanoreceptors reaches the (–) neurons in the dorsal horn, inhibitory signals sent to the transmission cells “close the gate” and decrease the firing of the transmission cells. This 9 / 11

decrease in firing decreases the intensity of pain Central control. These fibers, which contain information related to cognitive functions such as expectation, attention, and distraction, carry signals down from the cortex. As with the mechanoreceptors, activity coming down from the brain also closes the gate, decreases transmission cell activity, and decreases pain. Since the introduction of the gate control model in 1965, researchers have determined that the neural circuits that control pain are much more complex than what was proposed in the original model (Perl & Kruger, 1996; Sufka & Price, 2002). Nonetheless, the idea proposed by the model - that the perception of pain is determined by a balance between input from nociceptors in the skin and nonnociceptive activity from the skin and the brain - stimulated research that provided a great deal of additional evidence for the idea that the perception of pain is influenced by more than just stimulation of the skin (Fields & Basbaum, 1999; Sufka & Price, 2002; Turk & Flor, 1999; Weissberg, 1999).?

49 : Discuss at least three ways in which cognitive factors can influence pain perception.

Correct Answer : Modern research has shown that pain can be influenced by what a person expects, how the person directs his or her attention, the type of distracting stimuli that are presented, and suggestions made under hypnosis (Rainville et al., 1999; Wiech et al., 2008). ?

In a hospital study in which surgical patients were told what to expect and were instructed to relax to alleviate their pain, the patients requested fewer painkillers following surgery and were sent home 2.7 days earlier than patients who were not provided with this information (Egbert et al., 1964). Studies have also shown that a significant proportion of patients with pathological pain get relief from taking a placebo, a pill that they believe contains painkillers but that, in fact, contains no active ingredients (Finniss & Benedetti, 2005; Weisenberg, 1977). This decrease in pain from a substance that has no pharmacological effect is called the placebo effect. The key to the placebo effect is that the patient believes that the substance is an effective therapy. This belief leads the patient to expect a reduction in pain, and this reduction does, in fact, occur.

Many experiments have shown that expectation is one of the more powerful determinants of the placebo effect (Colloca & Benedetti, 2005). ? Examples of the effect of attention on pain were noted in the 1960s by Melzack & Wall (1965) as they were developing their gate control theory of pain. One conclusion that we might draw is that one way to decrease pain would be to distract a person’s attention from the source of the pain. This technique has been used in hospitals using virtual reality techniques as a tool to distract attention from a painful stimulus.

Consider, for example, the case of James Pokorny, who received third-degree burns over 42 percent of his body when the fuel tank of the car he was repairing exploded. While having his bandages changed at the University of Washington Burn Center, he wore a black plastic helmet with a computer monitor inside, on which he saw a virtual world of multicolored threedimensional graphics. This world placed him in a virtual kitchen that contained a virtual spider, and he was able to chase the spider into the sink so he could grind it up with a virtual garbage disposal (Robbins, 2000). The point of this “game” was to reduce Pokorny’s pain by shifting his attention from the bandages to the virtual reality world. Pokorny reports that “you’re concentrating on different things, rather than your pain. The pain level went down significantly.”

Studies of other patients indicate that burn patients using this virtual reality technique experienced much less pain when their bandages were being changed than patients in a control group who were distracted by playing video games (Hoffman et al., 2000) or who were not distracted at all (Hoffman et al., 2008; also see Buhle et al., 2012). ? A great deal of evidence shows that pain perception can be influenced by a person’s emotional state, with many experiments showing that positive emotions are associated with decreased pain (Bushnell et al., 2013). Two ways this has been demonstrated is by having people look at pictures and having them listen to music.

50 : Discuss research by Singer et al. (2004) that demonstrates how social situations can affect pain perception.

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Correct Answer : Tania Singer and coworkers (2004) demonstrated the connection between brain responses to pain and empathy by bringing romantically involved couples into the laboratory and having the woman, whose brain activity was being measured by an fMRI scanner, either receive shocks herself or watch her male partner receive shocks. The results show that a number of brain areas were activated when the woman received the shocks, and that some of the same areas were activated when she watched her partner receive shocks. The main two areas activated in common were the anterior cingulate cortex (ACC) and the anterior insula (AI), both of which are associated with the affective component of pain. To show that the brain activity caused by watching their partner was related to empathy, Singer had the women fill out “empathy scales” designed to measure their tendency to empathize with others. As predicted, women with higher empathy scores showed higher activation of their ACC.

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CHAPTER 15 1 : The senses of are referred to as the gatekeepers.

A : olfaction and taste B : kinethesis and proprioception C : vision and olfaction D : vision and proprioception Correct Answer : A 2 : The life-span of olfactory receptors in humans is A : one day B : five to seven weeks C : seven years D : 60 years

.

Correct Answer : B 3: tastes cause an autonomic acceptance response and prepares the gastrointestinal tract for these substances.

A : Bitter B : Sweet C : Sour D : Umami Correct Answer : B 4 : A fifth basic taste discovered many years after the other four is A : referred to as salty-sweet B : described as bittersweet C : described as putrid D : referred to as umami

.

Correct Answer : D 5 : Sodium nitrate results in a taste of A : sweet only B : sweet and sour, but not bitter C : a combination of sour and bitter only D : a combination of salty, sour, and bitter

.

Correct Answer : D 6 : The tiny bumps on the tongue that contain the taste buds are the A : insulae B : lattices C : papillae D : tadomae

.

Correct Answer : C 7 : The

papillae are mushroom-shaped and found on the tip and sides of the tongue.

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A : filiform B : fungiform C : foliate D : circumvillate Correct Answer : B 8 : Areas on the tongue covered primarily with filiform papillae, which contain no taste buds, are similar to in vision.

A : convergence B : the blind spot C : cortical magnification D : accretion and deletion Correct Answer : B 9 : The central part of the tongue has no taste sensations because that part consists primarily of papillae, which do not contain taste buds.

A : filiform B : fungiform C : foliate D : circumvillate Correct Answer : A 10 : The pathway conducts signals from the front and sides of the tongue to the brain.

A : chorda tympani B : glossopharyngeal nerve C : vagus nerve D : insula nerve Correct Answer : A 11 : Taste signals from the thalamus project to A : the insula and the frontal operculum cortex B : only the nucleus of solitary tract C : the orbitofrontal cortex D : the parietal cortex

.

Correct Answer : A 12 : Across-fiber patterns is another name for A : population coding B : specificity coding C : olfactory decoding D : common coding

.

Correct Answer : A 13 : Evidence for is provided by an Erickson (1963) study in which rats appeared to be unable to discriminate between two different solutions that produce a similar taste.

A : population coding B : specificity coding 2 / 12

C : olfactory decoding D : common coding Correct Answer : A 14 : Mueller et al. created a strain of mice that lacked the receptor that normally responds to a bitter substance called Cyx. The mice that did not have this receptor .

A : avoided all bitter substances B : avoided Cyx, but would eat other bitter foods C : did not avoid Cyx D : avoided high concentrations of PTC Correct Answer : C 15 : The substance amiloride .

A : blocks the flow of sucrose to taste receptors B : blocks the flow of sodium to taste receptors C : increases neural responses to salt detection D : neutralizes bitter tastes by confusing the signal Correct Answer : B 16 : Eliminating the receptor for bitter tastes results in .

A : a shifting of the selectivity other receptors to allow some detection of bitter B : the regeneration of bitter receptors C : less sensitivity to umami and salty tastes D : no effect on responses to the other tastes Correct Answer : D 17 : David Smith and Thomas Scott (2003) argue for coding based on the finding that at more central locations in the taste system, neurons are tuned broadly, with many neurons responding to more than one taste quality.

A : specificity B : common C : population D : integrative Correct Answer : C 18 : In regard to specificity vs. population coding, most researchers conclude that .

A : population coding has the most research support B : specificity coding has the most research support C : basic taste qualities are determined by specificity coding, and population coding is important for discriminating subtle differences D : basic taste qualities are determined by population coding, and specificity coding is important for discriminating subtle differences Correct Answer : C 19 : In taste research, people are classified as tasters or non-tasters based on their sensitivity to PTC, which tastes .

A : sweet 3 / 12

B : sour C : salty D : bitter Correct Answer : D 20 : The difference between tasters and non-tasters in the ability to taste PROP is due to .

A : a higher density of taste buds for tasters than non-tasters B : a lower density of taste buds for tasters than non-tasters C : specialized receptors present in tasters tongues that are absent from non-tasters D : both higher taste bud density and specialized receptors for tasters Correct Answer : D 21 : Macrosmatic animals .

A : have relatively few olfactory receptors B : have limited ability to discriminate among odors C : are unable to exploit pheromones D : use their sense of smell for survival Correct Answer : D 22 : In one study, men rated the scent of t-shirts worn by women three nights in a row. The results indicated that .

A : men disliked the smell of dirty t-shirts on men, but not women B : men preferred the t-shirt scent if the woman was in the ovulatory phase of her cycle C : men preferred the t-shirt scent if the woman was in the non-ovulatory phase of her cycle D : men disliked the t-shirt scent of women who showered regularly Correct Answer : B 23 : is the inability to smell due to injury or infection.

A : Aphasia B : Anosmia C : Alliesthesia D : Prosopagnosia Correct Answer : B 24 : When using the forced-choice procedure in measuring odor detection thresholds, the experimenter should .

A : do two trials simultaneously B : separate trials by at least 500 msec C : separate trials by at least 5 seconds D : separate trials by at least 30 seconds Correct Answer : D 25 : The human sensitivity for the odorant that is added to natural gas is the main substance in nail polish remover.

A : greater than B : less than

the odorant for

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C : the same as D : not consistently different than Correct Answer : A 26 : When researchers presented participants with the names of the substances, they would be smelling at the beginning of the experiment and then reminded them of the correct names when they failed to respond correctly on subsequent trials, they could, after some practice, correctly identify of the substances.

A : 68% B : 78% C : 88% D : 98% Correct Answer : D 27 : When presented with a common odor like banana or motor oil, participants can identify the odor approximately % of the time.

A : 10 B : 50 C : 87 D : 98 Correct Answer : B 28 : Dogs are more sensitive to smells than humans because .

A : humans have more olfactory receptors than dogs B : dogs have many more olfactory receptors than humans C : each individual olfactory receptor is more sensitive in dogs than in humans D : dogs tend to be microsmatic Correct Answer : B 29 : Sources of odor are called A : odor emitters B : olfactory stimulus C : odorants D : odor objects

.

Correct Answer : D 30 : The is the structure that contains the receptors for olfaction.

A : olfactory bulb B : olfactory mucosa C : chorda tympani D : substantia gelatinosa Correct Answer : B 31 : Olfactory transduction occurs at A : the olfactory receptor neurons B : the amygdala C : the papillae

.

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D : the foliate Correct Answer : A 32 : There are A : 150 to 200 B : 250 to 300 C : 350 to 400 D : 450 to 500

different types of olfactory receptors in humans.

Correct Answer : C 33 : What is a correct interpretation when using calcium imaging to measure olfactory receptor response?

A : The more strongly the ORN is activated, the more the fluorescence increases.

B : The more strongly the ORN is activated, the more the fluorescence decreases.

C : The more strongly the ORN is activated, the greater the glow.

D : The more strongly the ORN is activated, the more the concentration of calcium ions decreases.

Correct Answer : B 34 : The relationship between an odorants smell and its recognition profile is similar to vision.

A : stereopsis B : binocular cell response C : trichromatic coding for color D : corollary discharge theory

in

Correct Answer : C 35 : Octanoic acid and octanol differ in molecular structure by one oxygen molecule. When smelling these substances, .

A : participants report that the two substances both smell sweet B : participants report that the two substances both smell musky C : the recognition profiles for the two substances are very different D : octanoic acid, but not octanol, is classified as a pheromone for sexual attraction Correct Answer : C 36 : The axons of the olfactory sensory neurons project to the A : glomeruli in the olfactory bulb B : occipital lobe C : lateral geniculate nucleus D : superior olivary nucleus

in the brain.

Correct Answer : A 37 : Uchidas optical imaging research showed that as the length of the carbon chain increases, the area of activation is .

A : more centrally located B : located more to the right C : located more to the left 6 / 12

D : randomly distributed across the glomeruli Correct Answer : C 38 : Which technique involves injecting an animal with a radioactive molecule to see which part of the olfactory bulb is most activated by different chemicals?

A : genetic tracing B : olfactory Evoked Potentials C : 2-DG D : TVC-15 Correct Answer : C 39 : Olfactory signals from the glomeruli project to A : the olfactory bulb B : olfactory receptor neurons C : the olfactory mucosa D : higher cortical areas

.

Correct Answer : D 40 : The is most likely involved perceiving overlapping odors, such as coffee French toast and bacon.

A : piriform cortex B : nasal pharynx C : PTC D : insula Correct Answer : A 41 : Flavor is the impression a person gets from the combination of A : taste and hearing only B : taste and vision only C : olfaction, taste, vision, and touch D : olfaction and taste, and touch

.

Correct Answer : C 42 : Which compound has the same flavor whether or not the persons nose is clamped to prevent olfaction?

A : sodium oleate B : ferrous sodium C : MSG D : L-cysteine Correct Answer : C 43 : Vision contributes to the experience of flavor at the level of the A : OFC and insula B : insula and amygdala C : hypothalamus and insula D : OFC and amygdala

.

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Correct Answer : D 44 : Sensory-specific satiety occurs in the response of the A : insula B : orbitofrontal cortex C : hypothalamus D : amygdala

.

Correct Answer : B 45 : An eight-hour-old newborn who is given a concentrated shrimp odor to smell will A : respond with a facial expression similar to a smile B : respond with an increase in sucking C : respond with a facial expression that displays disgust D : will not respond at all to smells at this young age

.

Correct Answer : C 46 : An experiment by Julie Mennella and coworkers (2001) involved pregnant women who drank carrot juice during the last trimester of pregnancy but water (not carrot juice) during the first two months of lactation; drank water (not carrot juice) during the last trimester but carrot juice during the first two months of lactation; or drank water (not carrot juice) during the last trimester and first two months of lactation. When subsequently offered carrot-flavored cereal, the infants .

A : who were exposed to the taste of carrot juice in amniotic fluid or breast milk had a marked dislike of carrot-flavored cereal B : who were exposed to the taste of carrot juice in amniotic fluid had a preference for carrotflavored cereal but those exposed to it in breast milk had a marked dislike of carrot-flavored cereal C : who were exposed to the taste of carrot juice in breast milk had a preference for carrotflavored cereal but those exposed to it in amniotic fluid had a marked dislike of carrot-flavored cereal D : who were exposed to the taste of carrot juice in amniotic fluid or breast milk had a preference for carrot-flavored cereal Correct Answer : D

ESSAY 47 : Does population coding or specificity coding occur in taste? Support your answer with research.

Correct Answer : There are two types of coding: specificity coding, the idea that quality is signaled by the activity in individual neurons that are tuned to respond to specific qualities; and population coding, the idea that quality is signaled by the pattern of activity distributed across many neurons. In that discussion, and in others throughout the book, we have generally favored population coding. The situation for taste, however, is not clear-cut, and there are arguments in favor of both types of coding (Frank et al., 2008). ? Let’s consider some evidence for population coding. Robert Erickson (1963) conducted one of the first experiments that demonstrated this type of coding by presenting a number of different taste stimuli to a rat’s tongue and recording the response of the chorda tympani nerve. Erickson reasoned that if the rat’s perception of 8 / 12

taste quality depends on the across-fiber pattern, then two substances with similar patterns should taste similar. Thus, the electrophysiological results would predict that ammonium chloride and potassium chloride should taste similar and that both should taste different from sodium chloride. To test this hypothesis, Erickson shocked rats while they were drinking potassium chloride and then gave them a choice between ammonium chloride and sodium chloride. If potassium chloride and ammonium chloride taste similar, the rats should avoid the ammonium chloride when given a choice. This is exactly what they did. And when the rats were shocked for drinking ammonium chloride, they subsequently avoided the potassium chloride, as predicted by the electrophysiological results. ? But what about the perception of taste in humans? When Susan Schiffman and Robert Erickson (1971) asked humans to make similarity judgments between a number of different solutions, they found that substances that were perceived to be similar were related to patterns of firing for these same substances in the rat.

Solutions judged more similar psycho- physically had similar patterns of firing, as population coding would predict. ? Most of the evidence for specificity coding comes from research that has recorded neural activity early in the taste system. We begin at the receptors by describing experiments that have revealed receptors for sweet, bitter, and umami. The evidence supporting the existence of receptors that respond specifically to a particular taste has been obtained by using genetic cloning, which makes it possible to add or eliminate specific receptors in mice.

Ken Mueller and coworkers (2005) did a series of experiments using a chemical compound called PTC that tastes bitter to humans but is not bitter to mice. The lack of bitter PTC taste in mice is inferred from the fact that mice do not avoid even high concentrations of PTC in behavioral tests. Because a specific receptor in the family of bitter receptors had been identified as being responsible for the bitter taste of PTC in humans, Mueller decided to see what would happen if he used genetic cloning techniques to create a strain of mice that had this human bitter-PTC receptor. When he did this, the mice with this receptor avoided high concentrations of PTC ? Another line of evidence for speci?city coding in taste has come from research on how single neurons respond to taste stimuli. Recordings from neurons at the beginning of the taste systems of animals, ranging from rats to monkeys, have revealed neurons that are specialized to respond to specific stimuli, as well as neurons that respond to a number of different types of stimuli (Lundy & Contreras, 1999; Sato et al., 1994; Spector & Travers, 2005). ? Another ?nding in line with speci?city theory is the effect of presenting a substance called amiloride, which blocks the ?ow of sodium into taste receptors. Applying amiloride to the tongue causes a decrease in the responding of neurons in the rat’s brainstem (nucleus of the solitary tract) that respond best to but has little effect on neurons that respond best to a combination of salty and bitter tastes (Scott & Giza, 1990). Thus, eliminating the ?ow of sodium across the membrane selectively eliminates responding of salt-best neurons but does not affect the response of neurons that respond best to other tastes. As it turns out, the sodium channel that is blocked by amiloride is important for determining saltiness in rats and other animals, but not in humans.

More recent research has identi?ed another channel that serves the salty taste in humans (Lyall et al., 2004, 2005).

48 : What is the difference between tasters and non-tasters? What is(are) the proposed cause(s) for this difference?

Correct Answer : The different reactions to PTC were discovered accidentally in 1932 by Arthur L. Fox, a chemist working at the E. I. DuPont deNemours Company in Wilmington, Delaware.

Fox had prepared some PTC, and when he poured the compound into a bottle, some of the dust escaped into the air. One of his colleagues complained about the bitter taste of the dust, but Fox, much closer to the material, noticed nothing. Albert F. Blakeslee, an eminent geneticist of the era, was quick to pursue this observation. At a meeting of the American Association for the Advancement of Science (AAAS) in 1934, Blakeslee prepared an exhibit that dispensed PTC crystals to 2,500 of the conferees. The results: 28 percent of them described it as tasteless, 66 percent as bitter, and 6 percent as having some other taste. (p. 55) ? People who 9 / 12

can taste PTC are described as tasters, and those who cannot are called nontasters. More recently, additional experiments have been done with a substance called 6-n- propylthiouracil, or PROP, which has properties similar to those of PTC (Lawless, 1980, 2001). Researchers have found that about one-third of Americans report that PROP is taste- less and two-thirds can taste it. What causes these differences in people’s ability to taste PROP? One reason is that people have different numbers of taste buds on the tongue. Linda Bartoshuk used a technique called video microscopy to count the taste buds on people’s tongues that contain the receptors for tasting (Bartoshuk & Beauchamp, 1994). The key result of this study was that people who could taste PROP had higher densities of taste buds than those who couldn’t taste it 49 : In one study, males were asked to rate the scent of a t-shirt worn by a woman three nights during ovulation or three nights when not in ovulation. Discuss the results of this study and relate them to reproductive fertility and the human ability to sense pheromones.

Correct Answer : Whether pheromones exist in humans is a matter of debate (Doty, 2010; Schaal & Porter, 1991; Stern & McClintock, 1998; Wysocki & Preti, 2009), but there is evidence that humans can detect odors related to reproduction. Devendra Singh and Matthew Bronstad (2001) demonstrated a connection between men’s ratings of women’s body odors and the women’s menstrual cycle by showing that men rated the smell of T-shirts that women had worn for three consecutive nights during the ovulatory phase of their menstrual cycle to be more pleasant then the smell of shirts worn during their nonovulatory phase. In another T-shirt experiment, Saul Miller and Jon Maner (2010) showed that when men smelled T-shirts worn by women who were near ovulation, they had higher testosterone levels than when they smelled shirts worn far from ovulation. Olfactory cues can therefore signal a woman’s level of reproductive fertility.

50 : Discuss the research on odor identification. Relate Goldsteins anecdote about smelling Aquavit to odor identification (or better yet, describe a similar situation that happened in your life).

Correct Answer : One of the more intriguing facts about odors is that even though humans can discriminate more than 1 trillion different odors, they often find it difficult to accurately identify specific odors. For example, when people are presented with the odors of familiar substances such as mint, bananas, and motor oil, they can easily tell the difference between them.

However, when they are asked to identify the substance associated with the odor, they are successful only about half the time (Engen & Pfaffmann, 1960). J. A. Desor and Gary Beauchamp (1974) found, however, that when they presented participants with the names of the substances at the beginning of the experiment and then reminded them of the correct names when they failed to respond correctly on subsequent trials, they could, after some practice, correctly identify 98 percent of the substances. ? One of the amazing things about odor identification is that knowing the correct label for the odor actually seems to transform our perception into that odor. I had this experience a number of years ago when sampling the drink aquavit with some friends. Aquavit has a very interesting but difficult to identify smell. Odors such as “anise,” “orange,” and “lemon” were proposed as we tried to identify its smell, but it wasn’t until someone turned the bottle around and read the label on the back that the truth became known: “Aquavit (Water of Life) is the Danish national drink - a delicious, crystal-clear spirit distilled from grain, with a slight taste of caraway.” When we heard the word caraway, the previous hypotheses of anise, orange, and lemon were transformed into caraway. Thus, when we have trouble identifying odors, this trouble results not from a deficiency in our olfactory system, but from an inability to retrieve the odor’s name from our memory (Cain, 1979, 1980).

51 : Compare three different methods for studying the physiology of olfaction.

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Correct Answer : When an olfactory receptor responds, the concentration of calcium ions (Ca++) increases inside the ORN. One way of measuring this increase in calcium ions is called calcium imaging. This involves soaking olfactory neurons in a chemical that causes the ORN to fluoresce with a green glow when exposed to ultraviolet (380 nm) light. This green glow can be used to measure how much Ca++ had entered the neuron because increasing Ca++ inside the neuron decreases the glow. Thus, measuring the decrease in fluorescence indicates how strongly the ORN is activated. ? The technique of optical imaging can be used to measure the activity of large areas of the olfactory bulb by measuring how much red light is reflected from the olfactory bulb. The bulb must first be exposed by removing a patch of the skull. Red light is used because when neurons are activated, they consume oxygen from the blood. Blood that contains less oxygen reflects less red light than blood with oxygen, so areas that have been activated reflect less red light and are therefore darker than areas that have not been activated. The optical imaging procedure involves illuminating the surface of the bulb with red light, measuring how much light is reflected, and then presenting a stimulus and determining which areas of the bulb become slightly darker. These darker areas are the areas that have been activated by the stimulus. ? The 2-deoxyglucose technique involves injecting a radioactive 2-deoxyglucose (2DG) molecule into an animal and exposing the animal to different chemicals. The radioactive 2DG contains the sugar glucose, which is taken up by active neurons, so by measuring the amount of radioactivity in the various parts of a structure, we can determine which neurons are most activated by the different chemicals.

52 : Describe the capacity of human infants to experience taste and smell.

Correct Answer : Modern studies using nonirritating stimuli, however, have provided evidence that newborns can smell and can discriminate between different olfactory stimuli. J. E. Steiner (1974, 1979) used nonirritating stimuli to show that infants respond to banana extract or vanilla extract with sucking and facial expressions that are similar to smiles, and they respond to concentrated shrimp odor and an odor resembling rotten eggs with rejection or disgust. Perhaps the most significant odors for the infant originate from the mother, and infants can recognize their mothers through the sense of smell (Porter et al., 1983; Russell, 1976; Schaal, 1986). ?

Research investigating infants’ reactions to taste has included numerous studies showing that newborns can discriminate sweet, sour, and bitter stimuli (Beauchamp et al., 1991). These studies have found that newborns react with different facial expressions to sweet, sour, and bitter stimuli but show little or no response to salty stimuli (Ganchrow, 1995; Ganchrow et al., 1983; Rosenstein & Oster, 1988; Steiner, 1987).

53 : What is flavor? Describe how taste experience is affected if olfaction does not take place when tasting a substance.

Correct Answer : What most people refer to as “taste” when describing their experience of food (“That tastes good, Mom”) is usually a combination of taste, from stimulation of the receptors in the tongue, and olfaction, from stimulation of the receptors in the olfactory mucosa. This combination, which is called flavor, is defined as the overall impression that we experience from the combination of nasal and oral stimulation (Lawless, 2001; Shepherd, 2012). ? Chemicals in food or drink cause taste when they activate taste receptors on the tongue. But in addition, food and drink release volatile chemicals that reach the olfactory mucosa by following the retronasal route, from the mouth through the nasal pharynx, the passage that connects the oral and nasal cavities (Figure 15.22). Although pinching the nostrils shut does not close the nasal pharynx, it prevents vapors from reaching the olfactory receptors by eliminating the circulation of air through this channel (Murphy & Cain, 1980). ? The fact that olfaction is a crucial component of flavor may be surprising because the flavors of food seem to be centered in the mouth. It is only when we keep molecules from reaching the olfactory mucosa that the importance of olfaction is revealed. One reason this localization of flavor occurs is because food and drink stimulate 11 / 12

tactile receptors in the mouth, which creates oral capture, in which the sensations we experience from both olfactory and taste receptors are referred to the mouth (Small, 2008).

Thus, when you “taste” food, you are usually experiencing flavor, and the fact that it is all happening in your mouth is an illusion created by oral capture (Todrank & Bartoshuk, 1991).

The importance of olfaction in the sensing of flavor has been demonstrated experimentally by using both chemical solutions and typical foods. In general, solutions are more difficult to identify when the nostrils are pinched shut (Mozell et al., 1969) and are often judged to be tasteless. ? Although taste and olfactory stimuli occur in close proximity in the mouth and nose, our perceptual experience of their combination is created when they interact in the cortex. In addition, vision and touch contribute to flavor by sending signals to the amygdala (vision), structures in the taste pathway (touch), and the orbitofrontal cortex (vision and touch). All of these interactions among taste, olfaction, vision, and touch underscore the multimodal nature of our experience of flavor. Flavor includes not only what we typically call “taste,” but also perceptions such as the texture and temperature of food (Verhagen et al., 2004), the color of food (Spence, 2015; Spence et al., 2010), and the sounds of “noisy” foods such as potato chips and carrots that crunch when we eat them (Zampini & Spence, 2010).

54 : Describe the Proust effect and provide a physiological explanation for its occurrence.

Correct Answer : One of the most famous quotes in literature is Marcel Proust’s description of an experience after eating a small lemon cookie called a madeleine. Proust’s description of how taste and olfaction unlocked memories he hadn’t thought of for years, now called the Proust effect, is not an uncommon experience. ? A physiologically based answer for the high emotionality and feeling of “being brought back” associated with odor-elicited memories is that there are connections from structures involved in both taste and olfaction to the amygdala, which is involved in emotional behavior, and to other structures such as the hippocampus, which is involved in storing memories. One question raised by this research is whether the emotion associated with the odor-based memories is a perceptual effect that occurs simply because smelling odors activates the amygdala. Or does the effect occur because smelling odors elicits especially emotional memories? There is some evidence that the second explanation is correct (Willander & Larsson, 2007), but more research needs to be done to be sure. Whatever the correct explanation for these effects, it is clear from people’s experiences involving odor and memory that there is something special about memories that are associated with odors.

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