Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World, 4th Edition Susan Karr, Anne Houtman

TEST BANK Scientific American Environmental Science for a Changing World 4th Edition by Susan Karr, Anne Houtman and Jeneen Interlandi.

TABLE OF CONTENTS Chapter 1 Introduction to Environmental, Science, and Information Literacy Chapter 2 Ecology Chapter 3 Evolution and Biodiversity Chapter 4 Human Populations and Environmental Health Chapter 5 Managing Resources: Environmental Economics and Policy Chapter 6 Water Resources Chapter 7 Geological and Land Resources Chapter 8 Food Resources Chapter 9 Conventional Energy: Fossil Fuels Chapter 10 Air Quality and Climate Change Chapter 11 Alternatives to Fossil Fuels

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Module 01.2 1. The first step of the scientific process is a(n): a. prediction. b. hypothesis. c. experiment. d. peer review. e. observation.

ANSWER: e 2. A(n) _____ is a possible explanation for what is observed that is based on some previous knowledge. a. peer review b. prediction c. hypothesis d. theory e. anecdote ANSWER: c 3. Which sequence lists the steps of the scientific process in the CORRECT order? a. observe, create a testable prediction, form a hypothesis, experiment, support or refute the hypothesis b. observe, form a hypothesis, create a testable prediction, experiment, support or refute the hypothesis c. form a hypothesis, create a testable prediction, observe, experiment, support or refute the hypothesis d. create a testable prediction, form a hypothesis, observe, experiment, support or refute the hypothesis ANSWER: b 4. Which question can be solved with empirical evidence? a. Do ghosts exist? b. What is the meaning of life? c. What is my cat thinking? d. What causes the changing of the seasons? e. Is the death penalty wrong?

ANSWER: d 5. What is TRUE regarding the following statements?

(1) "Higher levels of greenhouse gases cause increased warming of the troposphere."

(2) "People who are good go to heaven when they die." a. Both statements are faulty. b. Both statements have been proven true by long-standing scientific theories. c. Only statement (1) is a scientific hypothesis testable by scientific methods. d. Only statement (2) can generate falsifiable predictions. e. Neither statement is suitable for science.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.2 6. Which statement is NOT falsifiable? a. Car exhaust contributes to ozone depletion. b. Iced wings of a plane contribute to some plane crashes. c. Dogs become tired when they are hungry. d. People should not litter because it is wrong to do so. e. All of these statements are falsifiable statements.

ANSWER: d 7. Which hypothesis is NOT testable? a. The white fungus is causing death of bats. b. Bacterial water pollution increases risk of infectious disease. c. Increased salt intake leads to high blood pressure. d. Reincarnation exists. e. Increased UV exposure increases the risk of skin cancer.

ANSWER: d 8. Peer review is: a. the process a scientist undergoes to analyze the results of the experiment. b. a measure of how well the report is received by the general public. c. a method for measuring the results of an experiment. d. a panel of editors who proofread the report after it is accepted for publication. e. a process by which a group of scientists in the field evaluate the report and determine if it is of high enough quality to publish in a journal.

ANSWER: e 9. Which factor ensures that only quality scientific studies that have been well controlled and avoid bias appear in scientific journals? a. peer review b. funding agencies c. an independent variable d. anecdotal evidence e. the scientist responsible for the experiment ANSWER: a 10. How does a peer-reviewed article differ from an Internet blog? a. Both are equally analyzed and evaluated by scientists in the field prior to publication. b. Any person can easily create and publish a peer-reviewed article. c. A peer-reviewed article is likely to contain opinions that are not supported by data. d. A blog must be written by a researcher and not a reporter. e. The results of a study are evaluated by fellow scientists in a peer-reviewed article.

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Module 01.2 ANSWER: e 11. What criteria must be met for a hypothesis to be valid?

ANSWER: A valid hypothesis must be testable. It must be possible to create predictions from the hypothesis that we can objectively observe if we run a test. Predictions based on a hypothesis also must be falsifiable. It must be possible to refute them by evidence.

12. Is the following a valid hypothesis? Cancer patients who are prayed for will have better outcomes compared with patients with similar prognoses (likely outcomes) who are not prayed for.

ANSWER: Yes. Predictions from the hypothesis are testable and falsifiable.

13. Natural disasters around the world are a result of a supernatural deity punishing humanity for our actions. Is this hypothesis valid? Explain.

ANSWER: No. Predictions from the hypothesis are not testable, nor are they falsifiable.

14. Scientists use the scientific method to investigate the natural world. The scientific method is based on gathering empirical evidence. What is empirical evidence, and why are empirical data a hallmark of good science?

ANSWER: Empirical evidence is information gathered by means of observation of physical phenomena. The same data can be objectively observed by anyone in the same place (using the same equipment).

Phenomena that are not objectively observable cannot be empirically studied and are therefore not under the purview of science.

15. Describe the importance of peer review to the scientific process.

ANSWER: Prior to publication in a scientific journal, a study is rigorously analyzed by peers in that scientific area, whose expertise can determine if the study is of acceptable quality. This type of review ensures only quality scientific reports (unbiased, well-controlled studies, etc.) appear in the scientific literature.

16. A(n) _____ is a widely accepted explanation of a natural phenomenon that has been extensively and rigorously tested scientifically. a. theory b. fact c. explanation d. definition e. proof ANSWER: a 17. Which statement is FALSE regarding a scientific theory? a. It can be modified over time as new information is discovered. b. It is the result of a hypothesis being repeatedly supported by many lines of inquiry. c. It has strong predictive powers that can explain observed phenomena. d. It is an idea based only on observations.

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Module 01.2 e. It is a very well-supported hypothesis.

ANSWER: d 18. Cell theory states that all living organisms are made up of one or more cells, and these cells are the basic structure and function of living organisms and arise from preexisting cells. Which statement is FALSE regarding this theory? a. All living organisms discovered so far have been made of one or more cells. b. A newly discovered organism is very likely to be made out of one or more cells. c. Cells are the basic units of structure for all known living organisms. d. No living organism will ever be discovered that is not made out of cells. e. One-celled organisms come from a previous cell.

ANSWER: d 19. Why can scientific opinions change over time? a. All conclusions in science are considered tentative and open to revision. b. Our understanding of a concept or process can change as scientists learn more. c. New evidence may be used to overturn a prevailing conclusion. d. All of these statements are true. e. None of these statements is true.

ANSWER: d 20. The HIGHEST level of certainty a scientific explanation can attain is a(n): a. observation. b. inference. c. hypothesis. d. theory. e. study.

ANSWER: d 21. What did the researchers suspect about the fungus that was affecting bats and its effect on the bats? a. Hibernating bats were more susceptible to the fungus, since their body temperature was lower than normal and their immune system was suppressed. b. Active bats were more susceptible to the fungus, since their body temperature was lower than normal and their immune system was suppressed. c. Hibernating bats were more susceptible to the fungus, since their body temperature was higher than normal and their immune system was suppressed. d. Active bats were more susceptible to the fungus, since their body temperature was higher than normal and their immune system was suppressed. e. None of these reflects what researchers thought about the fungus and the bats.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.2 22. Bats found with white-nose syndrome appeared to die because: a. the fungal infection affected their wings and they could not fly, making them easy prey for other animals. b. the fungal infection attacked the areas needed to maintain body temperature, so the bats froze to death. c. the fungal infection caused them to wake more often and use up their fat reserves, so they died of starvation. d. their immune system was suppressed, so they contracted other deadly infections. e. their torpor became so deep they could wake from their hibernation.

ANSWER: c 23. How would you respond to someone who says, "Evolution is just a theory"?

ANSWER: The word "theory" in casual usage means "an idea." In contrast, a "scientific theory" is a very wellsupported hypothesis with strong predictive powers. It is very likely not going to be refuted by additional studies.

24. In this chapter it has been made clear that the process used to obtain a body of knowledge (facts and explanations) is more important than the body of knowledge itself. Why is this?

ANSWER: Facts may change as additional information is collected through the scientific process.

Consequently, it is important that the entire process be open-ended and that the investigators be open-minded to change.

25. Refer to Infographic 2. Explain why in science absolute proof is not required.

ANSWER: Since all scientific information is open to further investigation, it is not expected or required that there will be absolute proof in science.

26. Describe the difference between a hypothesis and a scientific theory.

ANSWER: A hypothesis is a possible explanation for what we have observed that is based on some previous knowledge. A scientific theory is a widely accepted explanation of a natural phenomenon that has Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.2 been extensively and rigorously tested scientifically.

27. Why did scientists initially think bats with white-nose syndrome were dying?

ANSWER: During hibernation, the bats are in a state of reduced metabolism called torpor. To wake up, the bats must use lots of energy. Scientists thought the fungal infection was causing the bats to wake up more often than usual, causing them to use more energy. This caused them to use their fat reserves up too soon, and since there were no insects to eat in the winter, the bats starved to death.

28. Which type of study manipulates a variable in a test group and compares the responses to a control group? a. anecdotal b. observational c. experimental d. inferential e. natural ANSWER: c 29. Which type of experiment collects data in the real world, without manipulating the subject of study? a. experimental b. anecdotal c. theoretical d. observational e. randomized ANSWER: d 30. In an experimental study, what is TRUE about the independent variable? a. It shows a response. b. It is charted on the y-axis (vertical axis). c. It is what you manipulate. d. It is what you measure. e. It is the same for both the control and experimental groups.

ANSWER: c 31. In an experimental study, what is TRUE about the dependent variable? a. It is charted on the x-axis (horizontal axis). b. It pertains only to the experimental group. c. It is what you manipulate. d. It is a measured response. e. It is what can be changed to see if it produces an effect.

ANSWER: d 32. When data are shown in a graph, the independent variable should be plotted on the: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.2 a. vertical axis. b. x-axis. c. response. d. ordinate. e. y-axis.

ANSWER: b 33. In the following example, what is the independent variable?

Hypothesis: Mice on a restricted low-caloric diet will live longer than mice that can eat as much as they want.

Experiment: A large population of genetically identical mice is divided into two groups. Half receive as much food as they care to eat each day. The other half receive 20% less food than a typical mouse eats each day. The day of death (life span) is recorded for all mice. All mice live in the same room, in the same type of cage, with access to water. a. amount of food available b. volume of water available c. genetically identical mice d. happiness of each mouse e. life span of each mouse ANSWER: a 34. A researcher wants to know how effective a new suntan lotion is at preventing skin cancer caused by UV radiation. She uses mice as test subjects to model the effects on humans. Which statement describes the BEST control for this experiment? a. Only mice in the control group are shaded during the experiment. b. Mice in the test group receive twice as much UV radiation as those in the control group. c. No suntan lotion is applied to mice in the control group; lotion is applied only to the test group. d. Mice in the test group are from a genetic line that increases their susceptibility to UV radiation. e. Mice in the control group are provided lotion in their drinking water to maximize effectiveness.

ANSWER: c 35. When conducting an experimental study, scientists manipulate the _____ variable and measure the _____ variable to see if it is affected. a. dependent; independent b. independent; dependent c. observational; dependent d. experimental; independent e. observational; experimental ANSWER: b 36. In an experiment examining the effect of the Pd fungus on the torpor of bats, the presence of Pd fungus would be the _____ variable.

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Module 01.2 a. independent b. dependent c. non-independent d. control e. extraneous ANSWER: a 37. The group in an experimental study that is manipulated such that it differs from the control group in only one way is the _____ group. a. confirmation b. test c. validation d. placebo e. independent ANSWER: b 38. Refer to Infographic 3. Which study depicted in the infographic provides stronger support for the stated hypothesis? Briefly explain why.

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Module 01.2

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Module 01.2 39. The health and lifestyle of 10,000 nurses are tracked for a period of 30 years. It is discovered that of the nurses who smoked cigarettes for at least 10 years, 35% had lung cancer. Is this an observational or an experimental study? Does this study demonstrate that cigarettes cause lung cancer?

ANSWER: This is an observational study which shows a correlation between smoking and lung cancer. It is not an experimental study, where variables can be directly manipulated. It would be unethical to directly test this cause-and-effect relationship using human subjects.

40. Explain the function of a control group in an experimental study.

ANSWER: A control group validates the experiment. The control group should be identical to the test group except for the independent variable. This allows conclusions to be drawn about the outcome by comparing the experimental group with the control group. Any differences are due to the independent variable.

41. Explain how scientists use probability to apply a level of certainty to their conclusions.

ANSWER: Scientists generally require a high level of certainty that their conclusions are correct. Once scientists collect data from their study (observational or experimental), they perform statistical analysis to calculate the probability that the variable being tested had any influence on the results.

They determine if the results are statistically significant based on the differences between two groups being either a natural variation or genuine differences.

42. Refer to Infographic 3. In Warnecke et al., what is the independent variable? What is the dependent variable? List as many qualities as possible that should be the same between bats in the two groups (control and test groups). Ideally, what should be the only difference between the two groups of bats?

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Module 01.2

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Module 01.2 43. Refer to Infographic 3. In the observational study (Reeder et al.), explain why the bat condition is the independent variable and the mean torpor length is the dependent variable.

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Module 01.2

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Module 01.2 44. What type of studies can provide correlations? a. experimental b. variable c. correlational d. observational e. demonstrative ANSWER: d 45. What is a correlation? a. when changing one variable affects a change in another variable b. when two things occur together, but one does not necessarily cause the other to happen c. a study where a variable is manipulated in one group to compare the response to another group d. research that gathers data in a real-world setting without manipulating any variables e. the mathematical evaluation of experimental data to determine likely differences due to an observed variable ANSWER: b 46. What type of evidence shows that smoking causes lung cancer in humans? a. cause-and-effect b. experimental c. correlational d. statistical e. hypothetical ANSWER: c 47. In Warnecke's experimental study, fewer individual bats exposed to WNS fungus survived than did bats not exposed. This is an example of a(n): a. correlation. b. cause-and-effect relationship. c. observation. d. relationship. e. variable.

ANSWER: b 48. A formalized plan that addresses a desired outcome of goal is a(n): a. policy. b. treaty. c. law. d. correlation. e. outcome.

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Module 01.2 ANSWER: a 49. What is TRUE about establishing environmental policy? a. It is easy and straightforward to establish good environmental policy. b. Stakeholders all agree on the same way to deal with an environmental issue. c. Policies need to wait until we have all the data on an issue. d. Policies must be flexible and adapt to new scientific findings. e. Policies need to address only the environmental problem.

ANSWER: d 50. What is a correlation, and how does it differ from a cause-and-effect relationship? Give an example of each and note what type of study can provide that information.

ANSWER: In an observational study, data can provide a correlation between, for example, a bat colony being exposed to WNS and most bats in the colony dying shortly after. Both occur together, which suggests a cause-and-effect relationship. An experimental study, where variables can be directly manipulated and controlled, can be used to test a cause-and-effect relationship, for example, showing that exposure to WNS fungus decreased bat survival.

51. In terms of manipulating variables, what is the difference between an observational study and an experimental study? Which type of study can test cause-and-effect relationships?

ANSWER: In an observational study, data are gathered in a real-world setting, without intentionally manipulating any variable. This can lead to correlative conclusions. In an experimental study, the independent variable is manipulated by the researcher to evaluate a cause-and-effect relationship.

52. When it rains, you often notice people outside holding open umbrellas. You hypothesize that opening an umbrella causes rain to fall. What type of experiment can be used to test this? Explain what is meant by the phrase "correlation is not causation."

ANSWER: Although the appearance of rain and open umbrellas is correlated, it is not clear yet if one variable is causing the other to happen. We need an experimental study to test if rain is causing people to open umbrellas or if opening umbrellas causes rain to fall. "Correlation is not causation" means that just because two things happen at the same time does not mean that one is caused by the other.

53. Why is it difficult to establish policies to deal with environmental problems?

ANSWER: There are often conflicts between protecting the environment and serving the short-term interests of one societal group or another. Stakeholders often have differing needs, and policy makers must balance all these considerations while still protecting human populations and the environment.

54. The ability to distinguish between reliable and unreliable sources of information is called information: a. decoding. b. literacy. c. reasoning. d. deduction. e. analysis.

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Module 01.2 ANSWER: b 55. Papers that are published in scientific journals are examples of _____ sources. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. review e. report ANSWER: a 56. Textbooks are examples of _____ sources. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. review e. report ANSWER: c 57. Blogs, websites, and news shows that provide additional commentary on reports from the popular press are considered _____ sources. a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. review e. report ANSWER: c 58. Which type of source is the MOST likely to perpetuate errors that have previously appeared? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. review e. report ANSWER: c 59. Which information source is peer reviewed? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. review Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.2 e. report ANSWER: a 60. Explain the differences between primary, secondary, and tertiary sources of information. Provide an example of each type.

ANSWER: Primary sources present new and original data or information, including novel scientific experiments and firsthand accounts of any given observation. An example would be a peer-reviewed journal article. Secondary sources come from reputable sources and present and interpret information from primary sources. An example would be a report from a scientific journalist on a recent research discovery. Tertiary sources are those that present and interpret information from secondary sources. Tertiary sources may be accurate; however, they may introduce errors because they do not rely on primary sources for facts. Many blogs, websites, and even news shows are examples.

61. What is information literacy, and why is it important in issues and topics related to public health and science?

ANSWER: Information literacy is the ability to distinguish between reliable and unreliable sources. It is the ability to find and evaluate the quality of information in order to be able to then draw reasonable, evidence-based conclusions about an issue or topic. It is especially important in issues related to public health and science, where misinformation or biased reports can create panic (or false security) in the public.

62. A student is assigned a research paper looking at the effects of CFCs on the ozone layer. The student gathers information by looking at blogs, websites, and news shows that summarize recent magazine and newspaper articles written on this topic. What type of information source is the student using, and what if any problems are associated with this type of source?

ANSWER: The student is using tertiary sources to investigate the effects of CFCs on the ozone layer. Tertiary sources may contain errors because they do not rely on original sources for facts. Tertiary sources may also perpetuate any errors that have appeared in secondary sources.

63. Jenny McCarthy has a son with autism, which she believes was directly caused by childhood vaccinations he received. She has drawn attention to this anecdotal evidence in numerous magazine and newspaper articles.

Her appearance on the Oprah Winfrey Show caused parents across the nation to question whether they should immunize their children. In fact, several diseases that had been controlled in the United States have recently reappeared as more children now go unvaccinated. Meanwhile, no peer-reviewed scientific study to date has shown a correlation between the immunizations and autism. Your spouse recently asked you for your opinion as to whether or not your child should be vaccinated. Explain to him or her the difference between primary, secondary, and tertiary sources in this example and which should carry more weight in making an informed decision. What other information would you want to know in order to form an opinion?

ANSWER: Peer-reviewed scientific reports are primary sources of information. These reports are objective, avoid bias, and should be used to make informed decisions. The public is often unaware of these studies because they are not readily available and often contain jargon that can be hard to understand. The public is more likely to form opinions based on secondary or tertiary sources (for example, magazine articles or television shows) that can be susceptible to bias and agendas that can obscure the actual information. These studies are therefore not ideal for making informed decisions.

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Module 01.2 In forming an opinion on this matter, you might be interested in learning more about how studies were carried out (for example, how many people were included in the study and which vaccinations were tested).

64. Your uncle Barney goes with you to the gas station to fuel up your car. He strongly indicates his disapproval of ethanol-blended gasoline. His good friend used ethanol fuel once and it "killed his engine." He went on to add that his friend's fuel efficiency (miles per gallon) was at least 30% worse when using gasoline with the additive. Use critical thinking skills to assess Uncle Barney's input. What additional information do you need in order to decide which fuel to use in your vehicle?

ANSWER: The input from Barney is anecdotal. It is likely that something else may have been wrong with his friend's car, or it may have not been approved to use flex fuels. You should consult reliable sources to investigate if ethanol can be used in your fuel tank and what the expected mpg with or without ethanol blending is. You might also be interested in researching the level of emissions generated by your car with each fuel type. In addition, you might wish to consider how much energy was required to make the ethanol and if that is enough to offset potential benefits of burning a cleaner fuel.

65. Which factor is a component of a critical thinker's skill set? a. being skeptical b. evaluating the evidence c. being open minded d. watching out for biases e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 66. Which example is NOT a part of critical thinking? a. logically assessing and reflecting on information b. reaching one's own conclusion based on evidence c. uncovering and rejecting logical fallacies in arguments or claims d. refusing to believe anything e. avoiding bias ANSWER: d 67. Consumer groups called for a ban on BPA, a chemical known to be an endocrine disrupter, suggesting that financial interests from companies that profit from BPA-made products cause them to suppress data and discredit scientists whose studies show BPA to be harmful. Which common logical fallacy is at work here? a. appeal to authority b. false dichotomy c. appeal to ignorance d. ad hominem attack e. hasty generalization ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.2 68. Which common logical fallacy draws a broad conclusion based on too little evidence? a. appeal to authority b. false dichotomy c. appeal to ignorance d. ad hominem attack e. hasty generalization ANSWER: e 69. Which common logical fallacy presents extraneous information that does NOT directly support the claim but that might confuse the reader/listener? a. red herring b. false dichotomy c. appeal to ignorance d. ad hominem attack e. hasty generalization ANSWER: a 70. Which common logical fallacy is used when claiming there is no way to know the effect of lead, since humans are exposed to so many toxins; thus, we should do nothing about the use of lead? a. red herring b. false dichotomy c. appeal to ignorance d. ad hominem attack e. hasty generalization ANSWER: c 71. Which common logical fallacy is an argument that sets up an either/or choice that is NOT valid? a. red herring b. false dichotomy c. appeal to ignorance d. ad hominem attack e. hasty generalization ANSWER: b 72. The claims that a chemical either must be completely avoided or it is totally safe for everyone are which type of common logical fallacy? a. hasty generalization b. red herring c. ad hominem attack d. false dichotomy Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.2 e. appeal to ignorance ANSWER: d 73. What did scientists find that could help treat WNS in bats? a. a different fungus b. an antibiotic c. a bacterium d. a vaccine e. a virus ANSWER: c 74. When we are presented with evidence that supports our current beliefs, we strengthen our beliefs. If evidence contradicts our beliefs, we dismiss it. This is called a: a. belief bias. b. confirmation bias. c. validation belief. d. contradiction belief. e. scientific evidence.

ANSWER: b 75. Describe what it means to be a critical thinker. List four measures that should be included in a critical thinker's skill set.

ANSWER: Critical thinkers have skills that enable them to logically assess the information they find, reflect on that information, and reach their own conclusions. The relevant skills include being skeptical, evaluating the evidence, being open minded, and watching out for biases.

76. Refer to Infographic 6. Which logical fallacies listed in the figure are used to sway the reader in the following example? The proposed Keystone pipeline from Canada to refineries in the Gulf is not safe and should be opposed. The British Petroleum (BP) Deepwater Horizon oil spill wreaked havoc even while top oil executives made record-breaking profits.

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ANSWER: Red herring. Information regarding the offshore drilling oil spill does not tell us anything about the safety of the proposed pipeline, but it may confuse readers into thinking all oil projects must result in catastrophes. Ad hominem attack. The fact that oil executives made record profits may upset the reader, but it does not have anything to do with the safety of the project.

77. Refer to Infographic 6. Which logical fallacies listed in the figure are used to sway the reader in the following example? Marijuana should be the preferred treatment for glaucoma. It is effective and safe, as it is a naturally occurring plant. The only reason it is not used more is government opposition.

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ANSWER: False dichotomy. It omits data that other treatments (eye drops) work just as well or better without the side effects. Hasty generalization. Some naturally occurring plants can be harmful. Ad hominem attack. Government opposition to legalization does not inform the reader as to whether the product is safe or effective.

78. Refer to Infographic 6. Which logical fallacies listed in the figure are used to sway the reader in the following example? Genetically modified (GM) foods do not pose a safety concern and should not be labeled.

We would need to label the majority of food products available today, since most already contain GM products.

By including GM crops in agriculture, we have been able to greatly increase yields and feed more people. If GM foods were dangerous, we would have seen the effects already in the population.

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ANSWER: Red herring. The fact that it would be overwhelming to label all GM products does not have anything to do with safety. Ad hominem attack against regulators. False dichotomy. It is not an either/or choice to have GM foods or not have food security. Hasty generalization. Not enough time has passed to know if GM foods have longer-term effects. Appeal to ignorance. GM foods are already in so many food items and there are so many chemicals in our environment that we are not capable of understanding such a big situation.

79. A lobbyist for the oil and gas industry points out that as the global temperature rises, the level of carbon dioxide increases in the atmosphere; he shows you ice-core evidence of this occurring after an ice age. He goes on to say that since rising temperatures lead to increased levels of carbon dioxide, and not vice versa, we shouldn't worry about current rising levels of carbon dioxide because it shouldn't affect temperature in the future. As a critical thinker, what do you notice here?

ANSWER: Watch out for biases. A lobbyist for the oil and gas industry wants to promote the sale and combustion of fossil fuels such as oil and coal. Caps on carbon dioxide emissions would harm the industry; there could be an agenda here. Let's also evaluate the evidence. It is true that an increase in Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.2 temperature causes an increase in carbon dioxide, but there is an important omission of data. An increase in carbon dioxide also leads to an increase in temperature (the greenhouse effect). This is a false dichotomy (argument sets up an either/or choice that is not valid). The relationship between temperature and carbon dioxide is complicated, and it works both ways.

80. What are some approaches used to protect bats from WNS? ANSWER: The Pd fungus is very sensitive to UV radiation, so researchers are testing its effectiveness as a possible treatment. Scientists have conducted experimental tests of a vaccine to WNS, and the results are encouraging, with 88% of vaccinated bats surviving versus only 30% of unvaccinated bats. There is also a bacterium being tested to see if it can reduce the amount of fungus growing on bats. Cave visitors should decontaminate clothing after leaving caves. Education about the ecological role of bats can help dispel myths.

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Module 01.1 1. Environmental science relies or draws on: a. natural sciences such as ecology. b. applied sciences such as engineering. c. social sciences such as anthropology. d. humanities such as literature. e. All of these choices are related to environmental science.

ANSWER: e 2. Which example describes an environment? a. fish living in a stream b. bacteria living in a human's intestinal tract c. mold growing on a wood stump in a forest d. a cat living in a house e. All of these choices describe an environment.

ANSWER: e 3. Which phrase BEST describes the term environment? a. the climate where an organism lives b. the living surroundings in which an organism exists c. the living and nonliving surroundings in which an organism exists d. the nonliving surroundings where an organism lives e. the domination of nonliving systems by living systems ANSWER: c 4. Which statement is TRUE of environmental science? a. It relies only on natural sciences such as ecology and geology. b. It examines only the workings of the natural world. c. It examines the natural world and our relationship to it. d. It is focused on areas without human impact. e. It focuses on the future of Earth.

ANSWER: c 5. Which question would be asked by a social scientist? a. What is the daily mean temperature in October? b. How can flooding be prevented? c. What type of mammals live here? d. What environmental policies best fit this culture and place? e. How does energy source use in the area impact the environment?

ANSWER: d 6. Which type of scientist would NOT be a natural scientist?

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Module 01.1 a. a chemist b. an economist c. an ecologist d. a geologist e. an engineer ANSWER: b 7. What does an environment include?

ANSWER: An environment includes the biological (living) and physical (nonliving) surroundings in which any given living organism exists.

8. What is environmental science, and what fields of study does it rely on?

ANSWER: Environmental science is an interdisciplinary field of research that draws on the natural (for example, ecology) and social sciences (for example, anthropology) as well as the humanities (for example, literature) in order to understand the natural world and our relationship to it.

9. Why are nonliving things included in the definition of an environment?

ANSWER: Nonliving things—such as rocks, water, and oxygen—are included in the definition of an environment because although they are not living, they still have a tremendous impact on the organic beings that do live in that environment. Imagine an environment that contains several species of fish, some of which suddenly start to die off. Now let's say this die-off is caused by the temperature of the water rising in this environment. If we didn't consider water to be part of an environment, we would not know to test the water for the possible cause of the fish dying.

10. What is the purpose of applied science? a. to study interactions of humans and the environment b. to understand the natural world c. to help solve practical problems d. to perform experiments in a laboratory setting e. to observe natural phenomena ANSWER: c 11. An example of applied science is: a. studying the properties of materials that can be used for more efficient solar panels. b. observing chimpanzee behavior in a rainforest. c. collecting ice core samples to determine carbon dioxide levels 100,000 years ago. d. determining the diet of Greenland Vikings based on analysis of their garbage. e. counting the number of geese on a pond.

ANSWER: a 12. Which example illustrates an empirical study? a. developing more efficient photovoltaic cells for electricity production Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.1 b. investigating the relationship between various greenhouse gas concentrations and global temperature c. developing ultrafast passenger trains d. improving the efficiency of electricity transmission e. developing pest control methods that do not include pesticides ANSWER: b 13. What is empirical science? a. a scientific approach using observation and experimentation b. research findings that help solve practical problems c. a scientific approach to predict climate problems in the future d. a method limited to examining the nonliving components of the world e. a field of research including humanities and social sciences ANSWER: a 14. What did mud cores from lake beds around Viking settlements tell scientists? a. The temperature was unusually higher than average over the past 1,000 years. b. The Vikings vanished during the Little Ice Age. c. There were not enough people in the Viking settlements. d. Soil erosion was a significant problem for the Vikings. e. Vikings ate sheep, seal, and walrus.

ANSWER: d 15. Which statement is NOT an example of self-inflicted environmental damage done by the Greenland Vikings? a. They overgrazed livestock. b. They used grassland to insulate their houses. c. They chopped down forests for fuel and home construction. d. They grew to a few thousand individuals. e. They caused the climate to cool.

ANSWER: e 16. What evidence did scientists use in Greenland to study atmospheric conditions at the time of the Viking settlements? a. air bubbles trapped in ice cores b. mud core samples c. animal bones collected from middens d. insect fossils e. the law of superposition ANSWER: a 17. Which would likely come first when studying an environmental issue: an applied science study or an Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.1 empirical science study? Why? ANSWER: It is likely that an empirical science study would occur first. These studies investigate the environmental issue through rigorous scientific testing to determine the impact and extent of the issue. An applied science study may take the findings of the empirical study to design and test a potential solution to the problems uncovered.

18. Due to their complexity, any given response to an environmental problem involves significant _____, and no one response is likely to present the ultimate solution. a. sliding reinforcers b. trade-offs c. wicked problems d. anthropogenics e. tragedies ANSWER: b 19. What is the name of the groups of people who are affected by an issue? a. stakeholders b. sects c. tribes d. financiers e. scientists ANSWER: a 20. Which factors make up the triple bottom line? a. human, natural, and solar b. international, national, and local c. social, economic, and environmental d. agricultural, financial, and environmental e. solar energy, water, and air ANSWER: c 21. What does it mean when an environmental issue is a "wicked problem"? a. It is created by people who care only about themselves. b. It is global in nature. c. It involves trade-offs that not everyone will be happy with. d. It is a problem that cannot be solved. e. It involves the destruction of a specific habitat.

ANSWER: c 22. Potential trade-offs to reforestation efforts include: a. high cost.

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Module 01.1 b. water shortages. c. fragmentation of habitats. d. less land for agriculture. e. All of these answers are potential trade-offs to reforestation efforts.

ANSWER: e 23. Which example illustrates a consequence of climate change? a. deforestation b. sea level rise c. overconsumption d. irrigation e. burning fossil fuels ANSWER: b 24. What is environmental literacy? Why is it important for individuals to have a strong understanding of environmental literacy when discussing environmental problems caused by humans?

ANSWER: Environmental literacy is a basic understanding of how ecosystems function and of the impact of our choices on the environment. Most environmental problems can be traced to three causes: human population growth, overuse of resources, and pollution. It is important that people understand the impact that a growing human population has on Earth and how our increasing numbers are consuming resources at unsustainable rates. Additionally, it is important that individuals understand how our activities generate pollution and how this pollution affects our health and the environment.

25. Refer to Infographic 3. The Green Revolution brought modern industrialized agricultural techniques to developing countries so that they could better feed their growing populations. The idea is to achieve higher yields by taking advantage of better seed types, irrigation, chemical fertilizers, and pesticides. By doing this, less land, such as rainforest, would need to be converted to agriculture. Using the infographic as a reference, describe the pros and cons of the Green Revolution on the environment and who the different stakeholders are.

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Module 01.1 26. Refer to Infographic 3. What is the triple bottom line of climate change?

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Module 01.1

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Module 01.1 27. What food source was absent from the animal bones found in the Greenland middens? a. seal b. caribou c. walrus d. cattle e. fish ANSWER: e 28. Some of the most revealing clues to the demise of the Greenland Vikings come from: a. ice cores. b. mud samples. c. animal bones. d. the Inuit. e. the climate.

ANSWER: d 29. Which statement is NOT a goal of the UN 2030 Sustainable Development Agenda? a. Develop more uses for fossil fuels. b. End hunger and all forms of malnutrition. c. Increase efficient use of water to reduce waste. d. Prevent or significantly reduce ocean pollution. e. Eliminate poverty.

ANSWER: a 30. Unlike the Icelandic Vikings or Inuit, the Greenland Viking society was not sustainable. Describe what we know about their collapse.

ANSWER: From ice cores, we know the climate cooled due to natural causes, and this made life difficult for the population in terms of growing food and raising livestock. In terms of self-inflicted environmental damage, evidence from mud cores indicates that soil erosion was a significant problem. This was due to overgrazing livestock (cows); using grassland to insulate Viking homes; and cutting down forests for fuel, homes, and other wooden products. These impacts on the environment were particularly severe because the environment was sensitive to begin with. As the population swelled to several thousand, the environment could no longer support the population and it crashed.

31. Why do scientists suggest that we have entered a new geologic time interval? a. The Holocene is so long, it is time for a new interval on the Geological Time Scale. b. The human population will be 11 billion in 2100. c. Geologic evidence from humans is accumulating and will be found after we are gone. d. Climate change from greenhouse gas–emitting fossil fuels is melting too much polar ice. e. The previous natural climate cycle is ending.

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Module 01.1 32. What is the name of the new proposed geologic epoch that will come after the Holocene Epoch? a. Miocene b. Sapiencene c. Human d. Anthropocene e. Cretaceous ANSWER: d 33. How is anthropogenic climate change different from the climate change experienced by the Greenland Vikings? a. It involves new chemical compounds. b. It is caused by human actions. c. It is a natural cycle Earth goes through. d. It causes average atmospheric temperature to decrease. e. It is caused by increased tectonic activity.

ANSWER: b 34. Which one of the following is NOT a result of the Great Acceleration? a. a radioactive layer left from nuclear bomb fallout b. greater biodiversity seen in plants and animals c. the presence of conglomerate rocks that include natural sediments and plastics d. industrial chemicals and sediments found in the Earth's crust e. an increased presence of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere ANSWER: b 35. What was the conclusion of the UN Millennium Ecosystem Assessment? a. Human actions have no impact on the planet's ecosystems. b. Human actions will impact the planet's ecosystems only in the far future. c. Human actions are straining the ability of the planet's ecosystems to sustain the current generation. d. The damage of human actions on the planet's ecosystems cannot be reversed. e. Human actions are straining the ability of the planet's ecosystems to sustain future generations.

ANSWER: e 36. Which example illustrates a disconnect between our actions and their environmental consequences? a. buying sustainably raised fish b. leaving lights on and the air conditioning running when no one is home c. driving an electric car d. using sustainable farming practices e. learning seasonal cycles of the area to respond accordingly Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.1 ANSWER: b 37. A new approach to evaluate how human actions were affecting the ability of the planet to sustainably support humanity is called: a. the Planetary Boundaries framework. b. the Earth Systems theory. c. the Unsustainability vs. Sustainability framework. d. the Anthropocene Epoch. e. the Doppler Effect.

ANSWER: a 38. Considering Infographic 5B, which one of the following sectors of Earth systems is LEAST likely to be at its tipping point? a. species extinctions b. biogeochemical flows c. land-system change d. climate change e. freshwater use ANSWER: e 39. Considering Infographic 5B, which planetary boundaries are least likely to recover and why?

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Module 01.1 40. Which statement is NOT characteristic of a sustainable ecosystem? a. It makes the most of renewable energy. b. It recycles or reuses so nothing is wasted. c. It keeps populations in check. d. It depends on local biodiversity. e. It is able to support an ever-increasing number of species.

ANSWER: e 41. Which statement is NOT characteristic of a sustainable ecosystem? a. It uses renewable energy. b. It eliminates waste by reusing matter. c. It contains species that all depend on the same limited resource. d. It recycles matter. e. Local biodiversity is present to perform essential ecosystem processes.

ANSWER: c 42. What does it mean for sustainable ecosystems to rely on renewable energy? a. Population size is kept in check. b. Energy that comes from an easily replenished source. c. Energy can be recycled. d. No new energy arrives on Earth. e. Waste from one organism can be used by another.

ANSWER: b 43. Which factor does NOT provide population control in sustainable ecosystems? a. disease b. predators c. competition d. abundant food and water ANSWER: d 44. The key to sustainability is: a. using one source of energy at a time. b. not using energy faster than it can be replenished. c. generating energy on demand. d. acquiring new energy resources. e. not generating energy around the clock.

ANSWER: b 45. What does it mean to be sustainable, and what are four characteristics of a sustainable ecosystem?

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Module 01.1 ANSWER: Sustainable methods use resources in such a way that we can continue to use them indefinitely. A sustainable ecosystem (1) makes the most of renewable energy, (2) wastes nothing by recycling and reusing resources, (3) keeps populations in check so that resources are not overused, and (4) depends on local biodiversity to perform many of these tasks.

46. Is our modern society acting sustainably? What are some areas of concern? Refer Infographic 6 and compare and contrast a sustainable ecosystem to our current human ecosystem.

ANSWER: Experts claim that humans are already living beyond the means our planet has to support us, and if we continue along this path, a population crash could occur, similar to the collapse of the Greenland Vikings.

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Module 01.1 In our society, we do not use matter sustainably. We use farming practices that erode topsoil faster than it can form. We have overharvested forests at the expense of habitat and biodiversity loss, soil erosion, and water pollution. In a sustainable ecosystem, systems would be in place to prevent topsoil erosion and curb the overharvesting of forests. We would find ways to make our waste usable by other organisms in the environment, thus keeping with the idea that to use matter sustainably, it must be recycled.

We also do not depend on local biodiversity and have actually driven ecosystem biodiversity in some places to an alarmingly low level. We have overfished and overhunted and allowed invasive species to further degrade natural ecosystems, thus reducing biodiversity. In a sustainable ecosystem, the value of having a high biodiversity is seen, as it better prepares the ecosystem for weather disturbances. Biodiversity should be protected through regulations of hunting, fishing, and the introduction of invasive species.

Our human ecosystem certainly does not have population control, at least for humans. The population continues to grow exponentially, and our consumption of resources and generation of waste continue unabated. Although fraught with ethical issues, the population of humans currently living on Earth is not sustainable and is damaging almost every ecosystem. In a sustainable ecosystem, every population is kept in check so that resources are evenly distributed and shared.

We also do not rely on renewable energy. We depend largely on nonrenewable resources for energy, which has all sorts of implications for ecosystem health. If we continue to use only nonrenewable energy sources, we will eventually run out. In this process, we also damage ecosystems through pollution, habitat destruction, and many other negative actions. In a sustainable ecosystem, organisms must rely on inputs of energy that are renewable and sensitive to environmental effects.

47. Coal, natural gas, and oil are examples of: a. renewable resources. b. nonrenewable resources. c. alternative forms of energy. d. infinite resources. e. unlimited resources.

ANSWER: b 48. Solar, wind, geothermal, and biomass energy sources are examples of: a. nonrenewable energy. b. finite energy. c. renewable energy. d. fossil fuels. e. nonsustainable energy.

ANSWER: c 49. Which one of the following is an example of sustainability? a. limiting commercial fishing to amounts that allow the fish population to repopulate b. using solar panels to generate electricity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.1 c. riding a bicycle to work d. purchasing products in packaging that can be recycled e. All of the choices are good examples of sustainability.

ANSWER: e 50. Which personal attitude will lead to the GREATEST long-term sustainability? a. The forest is there for humans to use for things like lumber and recreation. b. The lake will be able to handle the raw sewage because it always has. c. It does not matter what we do because we do not have the power to change anything. d. I wonder how using this product will affect the environment; maybe there's a better choice available. e. Scientists will figure out a way to reduce the effects of pollution.

ANSWER: d 51. Refer to Infographic 7 and describe ways that you could live more sustainably.

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ANSWER: One of the first things a person can do is become environmentally literate. This includes becoming Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.1 informed about the issues but also learning to appreciate the natural areas near where you live.

Small behavioral changes are important. Can you walk, bicycle, or take public transportation at least one day per week to go to school, work, or shopping? Shopping behavior can be changed—bring your own shopping bags and question what you buy. Do an inventory of your trash. How many items were not necessary or could have been reused, recycled, or composted? Buy locally produced goods and foods. Do an inventory of your possessions. Donate or recycle unwanted items. Join a group by asking others: Are you interested in increasing the sustainability of your town? Do you like to go hiking? Are you interested in wildlife? Many small steps add up. Begin today and continue to add sustainable behaviors to your lifestyle.

52. How would you go about convincing a company to switch to renewable sources of energy?

ANSWER: There are a growing number of companies that are obtaining more of their energy from renewable sources of energy. You would need to explain how switching to renewable sources of energy will save money over the long term and also how the switch will result in less pollution and improved health for workers and the environment.

53. Which situation BEST describes the tragedy of the commons? a. A fisherman uses his net to catch a large quantity of fish. b. Increasing amounts of pesticides need to be used over time to maintain the same effect on pests. c. An oil pipeline running through a wildlife refuge has several leaks. d. Sustainable forestry practices are applied to a plot of land in the rainforest. e. Herders put too many sheep in a public field because they think, "If I don't use this available resource, someone else will."

ANSWER: e 54. Which one of the following would be the BEST approach to managing a common resource like the oceans or atmosphere? a. delegation b. privatization c. regulation d. deregulation e. fractionalization ANSWER: c 55. How can the tragedy of the commons be applied to anthropogenic climate change?

ANSWER: No one entity owns the atmosphere. It is common to all countries. We combust fossil fuels and then greenhouse gases enter the atmosphere, where they trap heat and enhance the greenhouse effect.

Unless regulations are enacted, each industry/nation will benefit from burning fossil fuels because it is in their own best interest. However, if everyone does this, the entire planet will suffer. This type of problem is difficult to solve because it is global and thus requires all nations to agree to reforms, without causing undue suffering to any particular participant.

56. You have been given the task of making the fishing industry more sustainable. How will you accomplish this task?

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Module 01.1 ANSWER: You will have to educate fishermen that the oceans can support only a certain catch size and that overfishing will make the industry unsustainable. By restricting catch size and the fishing season, you can make the industry sustainable and ensure abundant catches in future seasons. You will also need to address the international fishing industry and try to get governments to realize that the fishing industry is a global concern. All countries will need to protect the oceans to ensure the future of the fishing industry.

57. Which statement about environmental ethics is TRUE? a. All people with environmental ethics recycle. b. Environmental ethics have no control over how people resolve problems in the environment. c. People with environmental ethics tend to have an anthropocentric worldview rather than a biocentric worldview. d. Each person has a philosophy surrounding environmental ethics that influences his or her interactions with the natural environment. e. Worldviews do not tend to influence people's environmental ethics.

ANSWER: d 58. Which statement is FALSE? a. In a biocentric worldview, all life is valued. b. An ecocentric worldview values the ecosystem as an intact whole. c. An ecocentric worldview includes all of the organisms and nonliving processes that occur in an ecosystem. d. In an anthropocentric worldview, human beings have an instrumental value. e. An anthropocentric worldview places human lives and interests as the most important.

ANSWER: d 59. Which of the following choices is NOT an example of an anthropocentric worldview? a. clear-cutting a forest to sell timber b. testing a nuclear bomb c. large commercial fishing ships processing tons of fish per day d. purchasing a rice product stored in a recycled cardboard container instead of one stored in a plastic container e. clearing land to build shopping malls ANSWER: d 60. Which of the following is an example of a biocentric worldview? a. catching a spider in your house and releasing it outside b. exterminating all insects c. viewing nature as existing only for us to use its resources d. thinking the nitrogen and water cycles are as important as humans e. believing animals exist to provide food for humans ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 01.1 61. What type of worldview did the Vikings have? a. anthropocentric b. biocentric c. ecocentric d. intrinsic e. geologic ANSWER: a 62. The window through which we view our world and existence is called our: a. ethic. b. value. c. worldview. d. ecoview.

ANSWER: c 63. If the Vikings had a _____ worldview, they would have protected the forests and grasslands not just for the resources provided but also for the natural processes in those areas. a. anthropocentric b. biocentric c. ecocentric d. intrinsic ANSWER: c 64. The worldview that considers interactions between organisms and between living and nonliving components of a system is called: a. ecocentric. b. anthropocentric. c. biocentric. d. geocentric.

ANSWER: a 65. What is the difference between an anthropocentric worldview, a biocentric worldview, and an ecocentric worldview?

ANSWER: An anthropocentric worldview considers human life and interests as the most important.

Environmental resources such as forests and other species are valued only for what they provide for humans. A biocentric worldview considers all organisms as having the right to exist, regardless of the benefit or harm to humans. A biocentric worldview values a mosquito as much as a dolphin. An ecocentric worldview values the living and nonliving components of an ecosystem as being equally important.

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Module 02.2 1. What are the primary reasons ecologists study populations? a. to understand how they interact with other species b. to manage birth and death rates c. to understand predator and prey interaction d. to manage valuable species ANSWER: d 2. The range of a given population is BEST defined as the geographic area where: a. the population can be found. b. the population used to exist. c. one individual of the population is able to travel. d. food can be found for the population. e. only one species is found.

ANSWER: a 3. What can heavily influence the size of the wolf population of Yellowstone? a. the elk population b. the aspen, willow, and cottonwood population c. the range of the elk population d. elk numbers and aspen growth ANSWER: d 4. Individuals of a population that are spread out irregularly over their environment with no discernible pattern are referred to as living in a(n) _____ distribution. a. random b. clumped c. uniform d. irregular ANSWER: a 5. Which term BEST describes the population distribution of humans in relation to the biosphere? a. clumped b. random c. uniform d. irregular ANSWER: a 6. Which is the rarest form of population distribution naturally found in nature? a. clumped b. uniform c. random Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.2 d. irregular ANSWER: b 7. A wind-pollinated species like a dandelion would BEST fit which form of population distribution? a. clumped b. uniform c. random d. irregular ANSWER: c 8. Why would a clumped distribution be an advantage for a bee-pollinated plant?

ANSWER: The location of patches of appropriate plants would be easier for bees if they were clumped together, and it increases the chance that the correct species' pollen would be transferred to each plant, leading to successful pollination and the greatest production of seeds.

9. Population density is BEST defined as: a. the location and spacing of individuals within their range. b. the number of individuals per unit area. c. individuals found in groups or patches within a habitat. d. individuals spread out irregularly over an environment and with no discernible pattern.

ANSWER: b 10. The minimum viable population is the: a. smallest number of individuals that allows the population to survive long term. b. smallest number of populations required to make up an ecosystem. c. same number of individuals for each population. d. smallest area required for a mating ritual. e. smallest flock size that would protect against predators.

ANSWER: a 11. What is one negative effect of a low-density population? a. competition for resources b. quick spreading of disease c. inbreeding d. increased fighting ANSWER: c 12. Which factor is unlikely to determine the minimum viable population for a specific population? a. fire frequency b. mating rituals c. flocking Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.2 d. schooling behavior e. foraging ANSWER: a 13. A population at low density is more likely to: a. undergo high intraspecific competition. b. lose genetic variability. c. be randomly distributed. d. show rapid rates of disease spread. e. adapt to environmental changes.

ANSWER: b 14. All populations eventually reach a maximum number as they experience resistance factors. What is the name of the term describing this maximum size? a. biotic potential b. carrying capacity c. growth rate d. population density e. population distribution ANSWER: b 15. Human populations have exceeded the natural carrying capacity of Earth. Pick the factor that allows us to increase the carrying capacity for humanity. a. fossil fuel–based agriculture b. advancements in health care c. habitat destruction d. biotechnology e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 16. Bacteria that can cause tooth decay undergo boom-and-bust cycles based on the availability of sugars in the mouth for growth. Which is a resistance factor affecting the sugar's carrying capacity? a. low-sugar food choices b. brushing teeth c. flossing teeth d. dental care e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 17. Why might a minimum viable population not be an ecologically effective population?

ANSWER: A population that is in a minimum viable population state basically has the smallest number of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.2 individuals that would allow a population to survive, persist, and grow. It may not, however, have enough individuals to perform the ecosystem services that the population would normally provide.

For example, let's say you had a barn full of mice that were eating your supply of grain. If you had two cats (of opposite sex), they would likely be a minimum viable population, as they would be able to reproduce and grow their numbers, but they might not be effective at getting rid of all the mice in the barn. If you had a larger population of cats, it would be more likely that they would be able to keep the population of mice under control.

18. Subtracting the death rate from the birth rate gives the: a. biotic potential. b. carrying capacity. c. logistic growth. d. population growth rate. e. exponential growth.

ANSWER: d 19. Germany currently has a negative growth rate for people. Which statement is TRUE about this population? a. birth rate > death rate b. death rate > birth rate c. birth rate = death rate d. birth rate ≥ death rate ANSWER: b 20. Predators, competitors, and diseases are all examples of: a. limiting factors. b. density-independent factors. c. resistance factors. d. logistic factors. e. population growth factors.

ANSWER: c 21. _____ population(s) is/are more susceptible to the effects of predation. a. A small b. A large c. Neither a small nor large d. Both small and large e. A minimum viable ANSWER: b 22. Bighorn sheep were introduced to an island in the Gulf of California in 2010. Originally, 75 bighorns were introduced. When a census was taken in 2011, there were 100 bighorns found. What is the growth rate of the bighorns on the island?

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Module 02.2 a. 33% b. 3% c. 25% d. 4% e. 10% ANSWER: a 23. The biotic potential (r) of a population occurs when: a. the birth rate equals 100. b. the death rate equals 0. c. there are no environmental limits to survival or reproduction. d. both the birth rate equals 100 and the death rate equals 0.

ANSWER: c 24. The term that describes a population growing at its biotic potential is: a. exponential growth. b. logistic growth. c. carrying capacity. d. birth rate < death rate. e. birth rate = death rate.

ANSWER: a 25. Which factor influences population size? a. access to food b. presence of predators c. sufficient habitat d. presence of pathogens e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 26. Deer mice have a high biotic potential. Therefore, they have a: a. high birth rate and high death rate. b. high birth rate and low death rate. c. low birth rate and high death rate. d. low birth rate and low death rate. e. None of the answer choices is correct.

ANSWER: b 27. Why is it ultimately better for a population to have some resistance factors (that is, factors that reduce a population's size)?

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Module 02.2 ANSWER: There are many drawbacks for a population that becomes too large. There may not be enough food, shelter, or water for all the members; there may be increased competition and fighting for mates; and in dense populations, disease can quickly spread. So, contrary to what you may think, it is actually better for most populations to have predators, or limited resources or other resistance factors, since the population will ultimately be healthier and more likely to persist.

28. Several decades ago, around 24 rabbits were introduced into the wild of Australia, a country with no native rabbit population, mild winters, and large rabbit-friendly food supplies. Where do you think the rabbit population is today, and was it a big deal that only 24 rabbits were released?

ANSWER: Due to a combination of factors such as the high fecundity of rabbits, large suitable habitats, long reproductive seasons (due to mild winters), and large and stable food supplies, the exponential growth of the rabbit population in Australia has been one of the most rapid expansions of a mammal ever documented in modern times. Even though the population began with only 24 individuals, through exponential growth, the population of rabbits today is over 200 million, which causes a plethora of damaging issues for almost all of Australia's ecosystems.

29. Early in the colonization of a new habitat, a population will show _____, shifting to _____ as the density of the population increases. a. resistance; biotic potential b. exponential growth; logistic growth c. logistic growth; exponential growth d. biotic potential; overshoot e. resistance; overshoot ANSWER: b 30. _____ population growth produces an S curve when plotted over time. a. Exponential b. Biotic c. Potential d. Logistic e. Resistance ANSWER: d 31. Carrying capacity is determined by: a. the presence of growth factors. b. the presence of limiting factors. c. the presence of resistance factors. d. both growth factors and limiting factors ANSWER: d 32. Using the logistic population growth model (see Infographic 5), and given a low initial weed population with abundant resources and a maximum carrying capacity limited by the size of the field, describe how an abandoned farm field experiences weed growth over time.

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Module 02.2

ANSWER: Based on Infographic 5, milkweed will experience exponential growth until resistance factors arise.

These factors decrease population growth rate, causing the exponential growth to transition to logistic growth. At this point the J curve of exponential growth transitions to the S curve of logistic growth as the population of the weed will be limited by the carrying capacity of the field.

33. Which factor affecting the human population is NOT density dependent? a. starvation b. aggressive behavior c. disease d. forest fires ANSWER: d 34. Lions in a savanna will increase in population as the total population of their prey species in the ecosystem increases. The number of lions present in the ecosystem is: a. a density-independent factor. b. a reproductive strategy. c. a density-dependent factor. d. the biotic potential.

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Module 02.2 e. at carrying capacity.

ANSWER: c 35. Which factor is density independent? a. fire b. avalanche c. tornado d. Fire, avalanche, and tornado are all density-independent factors. e. Fire, avalanche, and tornado are all density-dependent factors.

ANSWER: d 36. A predator is an example of: a. a density-dependent factor. b. a density-independent factor. c. commensalism. d. mutualism. e. an herbivore.

ANSWER: a 37. What might an increasing elk population indicate to a scientist? a. a density-independent factor b. a density-dependent factor c. a need to investigate the cause d. a change in herd range e. a change in human impact ANSWER: c 38. Why is weather considered to be a density-independent factor?

ANSWER: Weather is a density-independent factor because a tornado, for example, will affect a population regardless of how many individuals are in that population. Having a high or low population size does not affect whether the tornado does any damage.

39. What would happen to a large moose population if wolves were removed from the ecosystem? Explain your answer in terms of density-dependent or density-independent factors.

ANSWER: Wolves are the natural predator of moose and are therefore a density-dependent limiting factor.

Since the moose population was large, it is likely that the wolves were exerting a significant effect.

The wolf population prevents the moose population from increasing to a level that would have negative impacts on the ecosystem. Their removal could result in a moose population that would increase to a level that would degrade the ecosystem, resulting in an ecosystem that would support fewer moose.

40. What are some biological characteristics of a species that determines its life-history strategy?

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Module 02.2 a. maturity rate b. life span c. level of fecundity d. maturity rate, life span, and level of fecundity e. maturity rate and life span ANSWER: d 41. Which factor is NOT a characteristic of r-selected species? a. long life b. early maturity c. rapid growth of an individual d. many, small offspring e. niche generalists ANSWER: a 42. A good example of a K-selected species would be: a. E. coli (a bacterium). b. ants. c. wolves. d. blackberry plants. e. mushrooms.

ANSWER: c 43. Which statement is TRUE of r-selected species? a. They usually give high parental care to their offspring. b. They can live in unpredictable or seasonally changing environments. c. They are slow to respond to environmental changes. d. Their population size tends to be stable. e. They have long life spans.

ANSWER: b 44. Which species would be better suited to survive an unexpected environmental change? a. r-selected species b. K-selected species c. Both r-selected species and K-selected species would be able to survive. d. Neither r-selected species nor K-selected species would survive.

ANSWER: a 45. Which species' offspring are more likely to survive? a. r-selected Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.2 b. K-selected c. Both r-selected species and K-selected species are likely to survive. d. Neither r-selected species nor K-selected species is likely to survive.

ANSWER: b 46. Which species' population size is closer to its carrying capacity at any given time? a. r-selected b. K-selected c. Both r-selected species and K-selected species would be able to survive. d. Neither r-selected species and K-selected species would survive.

ANSWER: b 47. The current interglacial period (global warming) has allowed humanity to expand in large numbers due to the increased capacity to grow food. Which characteristics of K-selected species will work against humanity if we have a sudden onset of the next ice age? a. adaptation to stable environments b. niche specialists c. slower growth of individuals d. late maturity e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 48. Fluctuations in populations that produce a very large population followed by a crash that lowers the population size drastically and is then repeated are called: a. exponential growth. b. log growth. c. boom-and-bust cycles. d. extirpation cycles. e. carrying capacity.

ANSWER: c 49. During a typical predator–prey population cycle, the increase in the predator population is normally seen _____ an increase in the prey population. a. after b. before c. at the same time as d. as not correlated with e. as randomly changing with ANSWER: a 50. When a wolf population goes from high to low as a result of a decrease in moose population, both the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.2 moose and wolves experience: a. boom-and-bust cycles. b. overshoot-and-crash cycles. c. natural population cycles. d. up-and-down cycles.

ANSWER: a 51. How might the fact that a threatened prairie plant you are in charge of managing is an r-selected species influence the way you manage the population?

ANSWER: Adapted to frequent disturbance regimes, a management plan that includes periodic disturbances, such as planned burns, would enhance the success of the r-selected species and mimic the natural pattern of disturbances.

52. With global warming having increasing effects on the environment, which type of species (r or K) would you think would be better suited to survive such a global disturbance? Why? ANSWER: Since r-selected species are better adapted to using many different habitats and resources and are especially adapted to unstable environments, they are likely to fare better as the effects of global warming become more prominent and change ecosystems.

53. Draw a graph of population size over time for wolves and elk in Yellowstone National Park. (Hint: think about the predator–prey relationship between the two species.)

ANSWER: Your graph should reflect a boom-and-bust cycle of population growth as depicted in the image below.

54. What is an example of top-down regulation? a. availability of sunlight b. control of a prey population by a predator c. large amounts of food Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.2 d. drought killing young willow trees e. None of these answer choices is correct.

ANSWER: b 55. The number-one reason for the endangered status of many species is: a. disease. b. habitat destruction. c. storms and floods. d. volcanic activity.

ANSWER: b 56. Availability of water, food, and sunlight are all _____ regulators. a. biotic b. exponential c. logarithmic d. bottom-up e. top-down ANSWER: d 57. If a population size is determined by food availability and not predation pressures, it is likely under which regulation type? a. top-down regulation b. bottom-up regulation c. global warming d. boom-and-bust regulation e. keystone species pressure ANSWER: b 58. Which regulation is more likely to promote species diversity in the ecosystem? a. top-down regulation b. bottom-up regulation c. global warming d. boom-and-bust regulation e. keystone species pressure ANSWER: a 59. Habitat destruction, the number-one reason that species become endangered today, likely acts as which kind of regulator? a. top-down regulation b. bottom-up regulation c. global warming Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.2 d. boom-and-bust regulation e. keystone species pressure ANSWER: b 60. Numerous towns and cities in the United States have a deer population problem due to the removal of predators. How would you explain that top-down regulation would help with the overpopulation problem? In addition, are there any bottom-up regulation strategies you would suggest to the townspeople?

ANSWER: Top-down regulation would help the overpopulation of the deer because the introduction of predators, like wolves, would help control the population and bring it back down to a level that could be supported by the ecosystem. A bottom-up regulation strategy that could also work to thin the deer population would be educating the townspeople about the kinds of shrubs, bushes, and plants that deer eat. If the townspeople reduced the number of tree-friendly vegetation in their yards, it would reduce the food supply for the deer and thus be a bottom-up regulator.

61. How does maintaining the top-down regulation by wolves help in providing for diverse fish and amphibian communities in Yellowstone?

ANSWER: Wolf populations keep elk numbers in check, which in turn allows willow trees to rebound. Beavers depend on willows and in their presence create dams, thereby increasing the prevalence of lakes in Yellowstone. An increase in the lake habitat area and total number of lakes results in increases in fish and amphibian populations and diversity.

62. Why is it difficult to determine whether a population's size is more affected by top-down or bottom-up regulation?

ANSWER: It is likely that any population you study will be affected by both top-down and bottom-up regulators and that there will be many factors that determine which is having a greater effect at a certain time point. For example, in the summer when plants and other food sources are plentiful for rabbits, the regulator that is likely to have a greater effect on the population is predation, a top-down regulation (since the population of rabbits will likely be high). In the winter, however, when food is scarcer, that lack of food may become more influential on the rabbit population; thus bottom-up regulation has a stronger effect. To echo the answer to many ecological questions asked in the chapter, "It depends."

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Module 02.3 1. The field that addresses how a given ecosystem is structured and how the species living in it interact is known as: a. population ecology. b. community ecology. c. nutrient cycles. d. ecosystem services. e. resilience ecology.

ANSWER: b 2. What is a characteristic of a niche specialist? a. will eat almost anything b. requires a specific habitat c. can live almost anywhere d. cannot out compete other organisms e. can switch food resources if one declines ANSWER: b 3. Humans drained the Everglades in the early 20th century because: a. they were seen as having no utility to humans. b. people wanted to develop cities and towns in the region. c. people thought it would prevent flooding. d. All of the answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: d 4. What did the 1948 passage of the Central and Southern Florida Project authorize? a. farming zoning in the Everglades b. sport hunting of alligators c. systematic drainage of the Everglades d. new wildlife protections ANSWER: c 5. What is a niche generalist, and what advantage do they have over a niche specialist?

ANSWER: A niche generalist is a species that occupies a broad niche. Their advantage is flexibility; since they can use a wide variety of resources, they have the option to switch to another food source if one food source is depleted. A niche specialist is restricted in where they can live or the food they can eat. If a food resource is diminishing, they have fewer options.

6. Which group can undergo photosynthesis to generate energy? a. secondary consumers b. primary consumers c. producers Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.3 d. both secondary consumers and primary consumers e. both primary consumers and producers ANSWER: c 7. The sensitivity of a species to changes in the environment is often what makes it a useful _____ for the management of an ecosystem. a. keystone species b. consumer species c. indicator species d. apex predator e. edge species ANSWER: c 8. The difference between a food chain and a food web is that: a. a food web includes only a single line of species consuming other organisms among trophic levels. b. A food chain always shows how much energy is passed from one organism to the next. c. Producers are the first species in a food web, while secondary consumers begin a food chain. d. A food web shows interactions between all the species of a community, instead of just a single line of energy transfer among trophic levels. e. There is no difference between a food chain and a food web.

ANSWER: d 9. In the Everglades, what organism is an example of a consumer? a. periphyton b. sawgrass c. applesnail d. bladderwort e. All of these organisms are consumers.

ANSWER: c 10. What is an indicator species, and why is it easier for scientists to study them as a measure of the health of an ecosystem, rather than an entire ecosystem as a whole?

ANSWER: Indicator species are members of an ecosystem that are particularly vulnerable to changes in that ecosystem. Perturbations may show an effect on indicator species well before other members of the ecosystem, meaning if you were to wait to see an effect in those members, it may be too late to prevent major damage. Thus it is useful to study and monitor the indicator species as a measure of the ecosystem as a whole.

11. Phytoplankton live on the ocean surface, capturing sunlight and converting it to energy. Tiny shrimp eat the phytoplankton as a food source. Small fish eat the shrimp as food. The interaction between the phytoplankton, shrimp, and fish is a good example of: a. a food web.

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Module 02.3 b. a food chain. c. trophic levels. d. both a food web and a food chain. e. both a food chain and trophic levels.

ANSWER: d 12. Which group feeds on all of the other groups? a. decomposers b. producers c. primary consumers d. secondary consumers e. tertiary consumers ANSWER: a 13. The concept of the trophic pyramid reflects: a. the fact that each transfer of energy as you move up the food web results in a loss of about 90%. b. the fact that each transfer of energy as you move up the food web results in a loss of about 10%. c. the fact that biomass increases as you move up the food web. d. the number of decomposers found in a system.

ANSWER: a 14. Organisms that eat dead organic matter are known as: a. producers. b. decomposers. c. detritivores. d. consumers. e. both detritivores and consumers.

ANSWER: e 15. Organisms living in an ecosystem that are particularly sensitive to changes in that ecosystem are known as: a. keystone species. b. indicator species. c. consumers. d. producers. e. None of these answer choices is correct.

ANSWER: b 16. Why is the concept of community resilience important? a. It means greater ecological diversity. b. It determines ecological health.

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Module 02.3 c. It indicates a community’s ability to adjust to environmental changes. d. It allows adjustment to habitat loss.

ANSWER: c 17. In a study comparing the trophic interactions in two streams, you discover that a Florida stream has 12 different fish species at the secondary consumer level, while an Ohio stream has only six. Compared with the Ohio stream, you hypothesize that the Florida stream shows: a. greater resilience. b. greater ecological complexity. c. greater connectivity in the food web. d. a higher number of trophic levels. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 18. In the Everglades food chain below, which organism is a secondary consumer? sawgrass → insect → frog → raccoon → alligator a. sawgrass b. insect c. frog d. raccoon e. alligator ANSWER: c 19. In terms of energy transfer, why can't trophic levels be in the shape of an inverted pyramid, that is, more quaternary consumers and fewer producers?

ANSWER: Trophic levels cannot be in the shape of an inverted pyramid because there would not be enough energy transferred to support the ecosystem as a whole. Since most energy is not transferred between the levels and is instead lost as heat within and out of the organism, it would be impossible for quaternary consumers to be supported by enough energy from the lower trophic levels. The only energy transfer between levels that is substantial is that from producers to primary consumers. The energy made by producers is what supports and fuels the entire ecosystem, so if they were the least abundant, they would also not produce enough energy for the other trophic levels and the ecosystem would collapse.

20. Why are decomposers and detritivores essential members of any ecosystem?

ANSWER: Decomposers and detritivores are essential members of any ecosystem because they return vital nutrients to the soil, where producers can use them to grow and provide more energy to the other trophic levels. Without them, the producers would not be able to survive, and thus the ecosystem would collapse.

21. A study examined the bird community composition of four different mangrove forests. Which forest community would you conclude shows a high species diversity in birds? a. high richness, high evenness Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.3 b. high richness, low evenness c. low richness, high evenness d. low richness, low evenness ANSWER: a 22. Species diversity is measured in which two ways? a. species richness and niche availability b. number of producers and consumers c. species richness and species evenness d. species evenness and resilience e. species richness and number of trophic levels ANSWER: c 23. Which community do you think would be more resilient to a perturbation: a community with high species richness and low species evenness or one with low species richness and high species evenness? Why? ANSWER: Although communities with BOTH high species richness and evenness are the most resilient to perturbation, it is likely that a community with high species richness and low species evenness would be somewhat more resilient than one with low species richness and high species evenness.

With high species richness and low species evenness, there is a better chance, due to the higher number of species present, that some of those species would be able to survive the perturbation and maintain the ecosystem.

24. Why are invasive species so damaging to ecosystems?

ANSWER: Invasive species are damaging to ecosystems for a variety of reasons. They likely do not have natural predators in the new environment and can thus grow their population unchecked, decreasing the species evenness. Invasive species are also more likely to live in a niche that is already occupied by a member of the original ecosystem and thus will likely outcompete that member for food and shelter and possibly drive it to extinction, decreasing the species richness.

25. Small woodland wetlands can be very diverse, productive communities. In a study comparing the food webs of a wetland in Alabama with one in Michigan, you collect the following data: Wetland

Species richness

Alabama Michigan

20 10

Number of connections in food web 35 18

Which wetland would you predict to show the greatest resilience, and why?

ANSWER: In general, resilience increases with increasing ecological complexity. Complexity is determined in part by the overall species richness in the food web, the number of trophic levels, and the number of connections between species in the food web. Given the data collected, the Alabama wetland shows both higher richness and greater connectivity, so it should show greater ecological resilience than the Michigan wetland.

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Module 02.3 26. How does the introduction of an exotic predator species circumvent the natural predator–prey relationship?

ANSWER: Introduced (exotic) species normally have a significant impact on an ecosystem. The organisms that the exotic species prey on have not evolved defense mechanisms to allow them to elude predation.

Natural selection is a very gradual process, and there may not be enough time for the prey species to develop a defense mechanism to elude the newly introduced predator before the prey population is decimated.

27. Which option includes two of the other options? a. species evenness b. edge effects c. core species d. species diversity e. species richness ANSWER: d 28. Regions of distinctly different physical areas that serve as boundaries between different communities are called: a. ecotones. b. ecological zones. c. buffers. d. core habitat.

ANSWER: a 29. How do human actions fragment core habitats, and what are the likely outcomes?

ANSWER: Human actions such as urban/suburban, agricultural, and industrial development all play a role in fragmenting ecosystems across the globe. This particularly impacts terrestrial ecosystems such as forests and grasslands where development creates patchworks of formerly large habitat areas. Core species diminish and may not cross the edges in search of new habitat while the edge species may thrive. Conversely, sometimes edge habitats are totally destroyed and/or replaced with other habitats as in some coastal development situations.

30. 30. Human alterations of the Everglades system resulted in: a. a reduction in the sheet flow of water. b. changes in food webs. c. reductions in wading bird populations. d. All of these answer choices are correct. e. None of these answer choices is correct.

ANSWER: d 31. A chemical leaks into a pond that selectively kills off the phytoplankton (a producer). Many of the other organisms in the pond die over a short period of weeks, and the overall species diversity declines. The phytoplankton in this pond could be considered a good example of a(n) _____ species.

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Module 02.3 a. keystone b. edge c. indicator d. core ANSWER: a 32. The American honeybee population has been decimated by colony collapse disorder. What impact will the removal of the American honeybee have?

ANSWER: The honeybee is a very efficient pollinator, and many species of plants rely on the honeybee for pollination. Removal of the honeybee will also have an impact on any agriculture crops that need pollinators. Potentially, another pollinator could fill the gap, but that pollinator may not be as efficient or may not be attracted to the plants that need to be pollinated.

33. A comparison of the diets of two snake species, a native species and a newly introduced species, yields the following data: Prey species House mouse Rice rat Cotton rat Juvenile fox squirrel

Percentage of Diet for Each Species Native species Introduced species 12 14 20 19 62 61 6 6

The introduced species is aggressive and the superior competitor. What is your prediction for the long-term future of this interaction? a. local extirpation of the native species b. a shift in the diet composition of the native species c. dispersal from the community by the native species d. All of these choices are possible outcomes of the interaction over time. e. None of these choices is a possible outcome of the interaction over time.

ANSWER: d 34. The cowbird is a nest parasite that lays its eggs in the nests of other species in the trees along the boundaries of forests and meadows. Nest parasitism (the number of nests with cowbird eggs) declines dramatically as you move deeper into the forest. Cowbirds would be considered a(n) _____ species. a. core b. keystone c. edge d. indicator e. ecological zone ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.3 35. Owls hunt for field mice in a field at night. Foxes hunt for field mice in the same field during the day. The term that BEST describes the interaction between the owls and the foxes is: a. mutualism. b. commensalism. c. parasitism. d. resource partitioning. e. predation.

ANSWER: d 36. One example of commensal interaction could be: a. snail kites and applesnails. b. gray squirrels and humans. c. bees and daffodils. d. leeches and alligators. e. gray squirrels and fox squirrels.

ANSWER: b 37. A tick attaches itself to a human to feed but harms the human in the process. The tick and human have a _____ relationship. a. parasitic b. mutualistic c. commensal d. competitive e. symbiotic ANSWER: a 38. In mutualism, one organism is _____, and the other organism is _____. a. harmed; harmed b. harmed; benefited c. benefited; benefited d. benefited; harmed e. neither benefited nor harmed; neither benefited nor harmed ANSWER: c 39. Gray squirrels and fox squirrels competing for the same resources are an example of: a. predation. b. intraspecific competition. c. interspecific competition. d. commensalism. e. symbiosis.

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Module 02.3 ANSWER: c 40. The American alligator is considered a keystone species in the Everglades system because its presence leads to an increase in the: a. availability of aquatic habitat. b. abundance and diversity of fish. c. abundance and diversity of wading birds. d. All of these answer choices are correct. e. None of these answer choices is correct.

ANSWER: d 41. What is it called when two species use different parts of a resource instead of competing directly for that resource? a. predation partitioning b. habitat partitioning c. resource sharing d. resource symbiosis e. resource partitioning ANSWER: e 42. A survey of morphological diversity among three weasel species in Minnesota showed some interesting patterns in skull size, with the length of skulls ranging from 25 to 55 mm and little to no overlap between species. The assumption in the study was that skull size is related to the size of prey a weasel can handle (primarily small rodents). This appears to be a good example of: a. resilience. b. trophic pyramids. c. niche differentiation and resource partitioning. d. edge effects.

ANSWER: c 43. How do the features of intraspecific and interspecific competition differ?

ANSWER: Intraspecific competition occurs between members of the same species occupying the same niche within the ecosystem and competing for the same resources. Interspecific competition is the vying for resources between different species in the same ecosystem. The competition between species can be less fierce than that of the same species since they typically do not occupy the same niche and may be competing for only a single resource, such as water.

44. Which indicator species gave ecologists an early warning the Everglades ecosystem was suffering from drastic changes caused by human impact? a. alligator b. wood stork c. raccoon Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.3 d. applesnail e. sawgrass ANSWER: b 45. Professionals involved in a restoration ecology project would probably NOT include a(n): a. psychologist. b. engineer. c. politician. d. biologist. e. ecologist.

ANSWER: a 46. What was the purpose of the Comprehensive Everglades Restoration Plan? a. to introduce new species to the area for increased biodiversity b. to give scientists a place to test the impacts of disturbances in ecosystems c. to restore the flow of water back to the wetlands and raise water levels d. to silence environmentalists by vowing to no longer interfere with the Everglades e. to take over the U.S. sugar industry ANSWER: c 47. To effectively plan restoration projects, scientists and engineers must be: a. innovative. b. flexible. c. adaptive. d. innovative, flexible, and adaptive. e. innovative and flexible.

ANSWER: d 48. The number of wood stork nests in the Everglades suggests that the population is: a. declining. b. increasing. c. stable. d. crashing.

ANSWER: c 49. A key goal of the Everglades restoration is to increase the amount of water flowing through the Everglades.

This should lead to the restoration of the wood stork population, in part through the increase in the availability of nesting trees due to restoring the _____ relationship between alligators and storks. a. predator–prey b. mutualistic c. parasitic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.3 d. commensal e. competitive ANSWER: d 50. _____ ecology is the science that deals with the repair of damage or disturbed ecosystems. a. Restoration b. Remediation c. Adaptive d. Landscape e. Corrective ANSWER: a 51. In 2000, Congress enacted the _____, the most comprehensive ecological repair project to restore some of the natural flow of water through the Everglades. a. Complete Everglades Restoration Plan b. Complete Everglades Restoration Project c. Comprehensive Everglades Restoration Plan d. Healthy Everglades Remediation Project e. Developing Everglades Resources Project ANSWER: c 52. Human impact has reduced the original Everglades by approximately _____%. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 e. 90 ANSWER: c 53. Human activities in the Everglades have: a. reduced species richness. b. reduced species evenness. c. fragmented habitats. d. polluted natural water sources. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 54. After decades of human-caused disturbance in the Everglades, the species diversity is _____ it was before human involvement. a. higher than b. lower than Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.3 c. the same as ANSWER: b 55. The historic flow of water in South Florida was from Lake Okeechobee, with the main flow moving: a. south through the Everglades and into Florida Bay. b. east–west across Florida. c. southeast through the Everglades to Miami and the Atlantic Ocean. d. north to Orlando. e. east through West Palm Beach and into the Atlantic Ocean.

ANSWER: a 56. Why is the lowered species diversity and availability of healthy habitat a problem for the continued survival of the Everglades ecosystem?

ANSWER: Largely due to human involvement, the species diversity and healthy habitat availability have both decreased in the Everglades ecosystem. This is a problem for the continued survival of this ecosystem because, as we know, decreased species diversity, due to whatever reason, makes the ecosystem more vulnerable to disturbances. If the ecosystem is no longer able to recover totally or quickly enough from any number of disturbances, it will likely cease to exist.

57. The United States has some of the strictest laws on the harvesting of timber. Timber companies, however, have realized that even though they are required to replant after harvesting, they can just plant pine trees. What problems does this cause, and how would you change the regulation?

ANSWER: Pine trees are easy for the timber company to plant but doing so does not re-create the forest that was there before it was harvested. The number of niches and diversity of life that can be supported by the pine trees could be and probably is much less than what was there previously. It is unrealistic and economically impractical to force a timber company to exactly replant the forest as it was, but timber companies should be required to at least replant a ratio of the most common trees that were there to more closely approximate the natural community.

58. Which types of plants would you often find in areas of primary succession? a. grasses b. shrubs c. moss d. trees e. herbs ANSWER: c 59. Species that move into areas at later stages of ecological succession are called _____ species. a. edge b. climax c. pioneer d. colonizing Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.3 e. indicator ANSWER: b 60. The process by which one community replaces another is known as: a. species regression. b. ecological succession. c. successive diversification. d. pioneer colonization. e. ecological replacement.

ANSWER: b 61. The difference between primary succession and secondary succession is: a. primary succession occurs when a species moves into an area that starts as bare rock. b. secondary succession begins with the entrance of a pioneer species. c. primary succession involves repopulating a previously damaged ecosystem. d. secondary succession occurs when a species moves into an area that starts as bare rock.

ANSWER: a 62. An example of secondary succession is: a. an old agricultural field that has been abandoned. b. the extirpation of mangrove forests. c. a tropical rainforest being cleared and replanted with non-native grasses for cattle grazing. d. coastal erosion due to lost wetlands. e. succession on a recent volcanic lava flow.

ANSWER: a 63. Some species, like trees that thrive in the shade, can survive as long as their environment remains unchanged. A climax species: a. will survive until a disturbance causes a new ecosystem to move in. b. will survive any ecosystem disturbances. c. will decline after reaching the climax stage. d. will be the first things to grow in that area after a disturbance. e. is an r-adapted species.

ANSWER: a 64. The Hawaiian Islands are a chain formed by volcanic activity about 1–3 million years ago. Which pattern of ecological succession would have occurred soon after the formation of the Big Island, Hawaii? a. late stage b. secondary c. primary ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.3 65. Trees whose seeds can grow under low-light conditions would MOST likely be found _____ succession. a. early in primary b. late in primary c. early in secondary d. late in secondary ANSWER: d 66. During ecological succession in the Everglades, _____ will move in as the sediment layer becomes thicker through time, outcompeting the _____. a. floating and submerged plants; cypress and willow trees b. floating and submerged plants; sawgrass c. cypress and willow trees; floating and submerged plants d. cypress and willow trees; sawgrass ANSWER: d 67. Early in primary succession, lichens and mosses colonize bare rock and become the first ecological community. Why are they critical to later stages of succession? a. They deplete nutrients. b. Decomposing lichen and moss biomass create soil. c. They outcompete pioneer species, allowing succession to progress. d. They limit the ability of climax species to colonize the area.

ANSWER: b 68. The red-cockaded woodpecker is an endangered species with highly specific niche requirements. They prefer longleaf pine forests in the southeast with open understories and few to no deciduous trees. Longleaf pines are a fire-adapted species, and periodic natural wildfires would kill other trees and select for open, longleaf pine forests. How would knowledge of ecological succession help you conserve red-cockaded woodpeckers?

ANSWER: The natural pattern of periodic wildfires has historically maintained these communities at the young forest stage of secondary succession, preventing colonization by late successional, shade-tolerant climax species. Since red-cockaded woodpeckers require the longleaf pine forests, periodic managed burns would mimic natural wildfires and maintain these areas at an earlier successional stage, enhancing the habitat for woodpeckers and allowing for their persistence.

69. Along the southeast coast of the United States, an important part of the Gullah culture (African American descendants of slaves brought through South Carolina and Georgia) has been the weaving of sawgrass and other marsh grass baskets (called sweetgrass baskets). How could you use your knowledge of ecological succession in wetland habitats to maintain sawgrass communities as a natural and cultural resource?

ANSWER: Sawgrass marshes occur early in wetland succession as sediments collect and deepen and sawgrass is able to outcompete the early successional floating and submerged vegetation. Without disturbance, the natural pattern would be for the sediment to continue to deepen and allow for the colonization of cypress and willow trees. Sawgrass is a fire-adapted species, and in some areas Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.3 periodic natural wildfires would prevent the colonization of trees, allowing the sawgrass marsh to persist. Periodic controlled burns of marsh areas would therefore maintain marsh grasses as a resource for both the Gullah community and the natural communities dependent upon the marsh grass ecosystem.

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Module 02.1 1. Which choice represents the CORRECT hierarchy of organization from largest to smallest? a. biome → biosphere → community → ecosystem → population → individual b. biosphere → biome → ecosystem → community → population → individual c. ecosystem → population → individual → community → biosphere → biome d. individual → community → population → ecosystem → biome → biosphere ANSWER: b 2. A coral reef community does NOT include: a. water. b. fish. c. aquatic plants. d. phytoplankton.

ANSWER: a 3. The specific role a species plays in its community is its: a. habitat. b. community. c. niche. d. physical environment. e. address.

ANSWER: c 4. Which choice includes all of the others? a. community b. biome c. biosphere d. ecosystem e. population ANSWER: c 5. All of the populations living and interacting in an area is known as a(n): a. species. b. population. c. ecosystem. d. community. e. biome.

ANSWER: d 6. How is an ecosystem defined? a. a group of plants or animals in the same environment Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.1 b. an environment identified by predominant vegetation and organisms c. all organisms in a given area plus their physical environment d. all populations in a given area e. all populations living and interacting in a given area ANSWER: c 7. Which factors are considered to be parts of an ecosystem? a. limiting factors, such as organic matter b. animals and plants c. abiotic factors, such as streams and soil d. All of these factors are considered parts of an ecosystem.

ANSWER: d 8. A group of individuals of the same species living and interacting in the same region is a(n): a. community. b. population. c. cohort. d. biome. e. ecosystem.

ANSWER: b 9. An organism's habitat can be considered its _____, while its niche can be viewed as _____. a. address; its profession b. profession; its address c. place where it reproduces; the place where it lives d. life requirements; its physical environment e. role in a community; its energy source ANSWER: a 10. Which type of scientist BEST matches the area he or she would study? a. botanist—various ecosystems within a tundra biome b. ecologist—individual animals or plants in a given area c. zoologist—plant community in a given tropical or temperate area d. ecologist—the interaction of biotic and abiotic components in a given area ANSWER: d 11. Learning how ecosystems function can help: a. us protect current ecosystems. b. us restore already damaged ecosystems. c. scientists learn about the complexities of biomes.

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Module 02.1 d. humans and other species continue to live and thrive on Earth. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 12. The biosphere does NOT include: a. the ozone layer. b. soil. c. fish. d. rocks.

ANSWER: a 13. Which would NOT be considered a part of a lake ecosystem? a. fish b. minerals c. still water d. rocks e. running water ANSWER: e 14. Refer to Infographic 1. Use the infographic to describe examples of considerations scientists had to take into account when planning Biosphere 2.

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ANSWER: For each biome, scientists needed to consider how diverse plant and animal species would interact within and across biomes. In addition, they needed to examine the nutrient requirements of each organism included. Termites, for example, would need enough dead wood at the start of the experiment to sustain them until some of the larger plants died. If termites died, organisms in the soil would not get enough oxygen because termites stir up the soil and allow air to penetrate soil particles. Hummingbirds need nectar-filled flowers. Scientists needed to calculate how many such flowers would be required to support a hummingbird population.

15. Why is it difficult or impossible for ecologists to study the biosphere as a whole? Why is it useful to break down the biosphere into sections such as ecosystems, communities, and populations?

ANSWER: The biosphere, or Earth, is made up of many complex ecosystems. Within each ecosystem lie further Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.1 complexities in the types of abiotic and biotic components interacting within that ecosystem. The complexities exist beyond the ecosystem level and into the community, population, and even the individual level. In short, the biosphere is typically just too complex to know what effect a certain factor has on the system as a whole. However, ecologists are still able to make inferences about what is happening in the biosphere by studying its components. By breaking down the biosphere into more manageable research studies, focusing on a particular community within an ecosystem or a population within that community, for example, ecologists can collect data and make predictions of what their results mean for the biosphere as a whole. That is not to say that these "smaller" studies are any less complex and don't come with the same challenges as studying the biosphere as a whole, yet these studies offer a better chance at understanding what is going on in the world around us.

16. On Earth, all ecosystems function through two fundamental processes, nutrient cycling and energy flow.

Which statement is CORRECT? a. Nutrient cycling is considered an open process. b. Energy flow is considered an open process. c. Both nutrient cycling and energy flow are open processes. d. Neither nutrient cycling nor energy flow are open processes. e. Neither nutrient nor energy processes are important for ecosystem functioning.

ANSWER: b 17. What is biomass? a. the total weight of the Earth b. all nonliving components of an ecosystem c. the resulting mass of nutrients after a portion has left the system d. all organic material that makes up an ecosystem e. all organic material in an ecosystem minus the energy lost in production ANSWER: d 18. Energy can leave a system in which form? a. heat b. matter c. nutrients d. biomass e. chemicals ANSWER: a 19. A plant harnessing solar energy from the Sun is an example of: a. nutrient cycling. b. community interactions. c. energy flow. d. biomass.

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Module 02.1 e. terrestrial radiation.

ANSWER: c 20. A bear eating a fish is an example of: a. nutrient cycling. b. energy flow. c. solar radiation. d. both nutrient cycling and energy flow. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: d 21. Why do ecologists say that Earth is a closed system for matter? a. because there is minimal new input of matter b. because there is minimal net loss of matter c. because matter cycles through ecosystems d. because matter remains in the biosphere ANSWER: d 22. Where are nutrients stored in the environment? a. sinks b. reservoirs c. containers d. vessels ANSWER: a 23. What is the average residence time of carbon in terrestrial soils? a. 5 years b. 30 years c. 50 years d. 75 years ANSWER: c 24. Consider the following scenario: A plant grows in the soil and is eventually eaten by a rabbit. The rabbit is eaten by a hawk. The hawk becomes ill, dies, and falls to the ground. Fungi and bacteria decompose the hawk.

How is this scenario an example of both matter cycling and energy flow?

ANSWER: The scenario is an example of matter cycling because the plant is gaining nutrients from the soil, water, and air. The rabbit harvests these nutrients when it eats the plant. In turn, the hawk harvests these nutrients when it eats the rabbit. When the hawk dies, these nutrients are harvested by the fungi and bacteria and returned to the soil, where another plant can now use them. It is a cycle because no new nutrients are entering the system; they are getting transferred up and down the food chain from organism to organism. The scenario is also an example of energy flow, since energy from the Sun, in the form of photons, is harvested by the plant and used to produce nutrients. In this Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.1 production, some of the energy is lost as heat. When the rabbit eats the plant, the energy gained through the consumption of nutrients powers the rabbit's functions. Again, in the process of eating the plant and converting the nutrients into usable energy, some energy is lost, mainly as heat. This process of conversion and loss repeats itself in the remaining steps of the scenario, until eventually there is no energy remaining. Energy is considered to flow through an ecosystem, and in this scenario, the energy does not get cycled back into the ecosystem. Rather it is lost and must be continually replaced. Think of matter cycling as a round-trip ticket, while energy flow is only a oneway ticket.

25. If no new matter enters the system, how can Earth continue to exist?

ANSWER: Since Earth is a closed system for matter—that is, no new matter comes in—the matter that is present must be cycled through the ecosystems and used again and again. This manifests when you look at food webs of one organism eating another, passing nutrients and matter between them. This is why waste is not present in natural, nonhuman ecosystems; every molecule of an animal or plant is used by members of the ecosystem, and there is nothing left to be considered waste. This is why Earth continues to exist as a closed system for matter; it does not need new inputs of matter, since the ecosystems continually use and reuse what is already there.

26. Which example does NOT illustrate a terrestrial biome? a. a temperate forest b. an open ocean c. a Mediterranean scrub d. a savanna e. a desert ANSWER: b 27. The biome that contains the LEAST amount of moisture is a: a. savanna. b. tropical rainforest. c. mountain. d. temperate forest. e. tropical scrub.

ANSWER: e 28. Which biome would have the lowest mean annual temperature and the lowest mean annual precipitation? a. a boreal forest b. a desert c. a temperate grassland d. a tundra e. a savanna ANSWER: d 29. Which example does NOT characterize a particular biome?

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Module 02.1 a. distinct climate b. dominant vegetation c. temperature d. precipitation e. size ANSWER: e 30. Which biome has abundant biodiversity, with warm temperatures and a great deal of rain? a. tundra b. temperate forest c. savanna d. tropical rainforest e. boreal forest ANSWER: d 31. What two characteristics particularly impact terrestrial biomes? a. precipitation and temperature b. organic and inorganic matter distribution c. animal and plant diversity d. size and location ANSWER: a 32. What is a biome? What are the major factors that distinguish one biome from another?

ANSWER: A biome is one of many distinctive types of ecosystems determined by climate and identified by the predominant vegetation and organisms that have adapted to live there. Biomes are specific types of terrestrial ecosystems with characteristic temperature and precipitation conditions that exert great influence on the communities that exist there.

33. Refer to Infographic 3. From the infographic, which type of biome is mostly found 30° north or south of the equator? What conditions exist there?

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ANSWER: Dry areas exist at those latitudes due to global air circulation patterns. The desert biome is mostly found there.

34. Describe two abiotic factors that influence the distribution and makeup of biomes and how they do this.

ANSWER: Two abiotic factors that influence the distribution and makeup of biomes are annual precipitation and temperature (refer to Infographic 3). Both precipitation and temperature can affect biomes because they can dictate what kind of organisms live and thrive in the environment (for example, a cactus that has adapted to live in a dry environment would not survive in a rainforest). They can also affect the abiotic aspects of biomes by weathering rock from rainfall, for example, or evaporating water due to intense heat. These two factors help set the stage, so to speak, for how a particular biome looks and functions.

35. Populations that have a _____ range of tolerance and are _____ genetically diverse have a greater chance of surviving a change to their environment. a. narrow; more b. narrow; less c. broad; more d. broad; less e. small; less ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.1 36. The principle of limiting factors states that the survival, growth, and _____ of a species in an ecosystem are determined by the critical resource in least supply. a. maturation b. migration c. diversity d. reproduction e. development ANSWER: d 37. The more individual variability within a population the _____the range of tolerance. a. deeper b. stronger c. wider d. narrower ANSWER: c 38. The range, within upper and lower limits, of a limiting factor that allows a species to survive and reproduce is called the range of: a. tolerance. b. survivability. c. adaptation. d. living. e. life.

ANSWER: a 39. The _____ is the portion of an environmental gradient within which the species survives, grows, and reproduces the best. a. intolerance b. tolerance c. optimum range d. physiological stress e. limiting factors ANSWER: c 40. A(n) _____ factor is the one abiotic or biotic factor that determines the population size of a given species in a given biome. a. tolerance b. stress c. intolerance d. finite e. limiting Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.1 ANSWER: e 41. Which choice could be considered a limiting factor for a species? a. pH of the soil b. temperature c. level of humidity d. dissolved oxygen levels in water e. All of these choices could be limiting factors for a species.

ANSWER: e 42. A bait shop wants to sell leeches and performs an experiment to determine the water temperature range of tolerance for them. Which choice BEST represents this range based on the data shown in this graph?

a. 5°C to 35°C b. 15°C to 30°C c. 15°C to 20°C d. 5°C to 20°C e. 5°C to 25°C ANSWER: d 43. In the design of Biosphere 2, which environmental variable could be carefully controlled and precisely measured? a. temperature b. aquatic microbial activity c. availability of food Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.1 d. rate of vegetation decomposition ANSWER: a 44. Refer to Infographic 4. For several years, you have been investigating the effects of a warmer climate on a butterfly population. Recently, you have noticed that the butterflies found in what would traditionally be the zone of physiological stress are growing and breeding more successfully than the butterflies in the zone of optimum range. How do you explain this shift?

ANSWER: The butterflies that are found in the zone of physiological stress may have some genetic differences from the main population that allow them to be more tolerant of the warming conditions. As climate conditions change, these butterflies in the zone of physiological stress are better able to survive and reproduce compared to the rest of the population. Over time, this will cause a directional shift of the zone of optimum range toward the original zone of physiological stress. Those individuals that used to make up a smaller percentage of the population will become the new average.

45. As you hike up a mountain, you observe that the vegetation changes. What are some of the limiting factors that are determining what vegetation you observe on the mountain?

ANSWER: Plants need soil and water to survive. As you move up the mountain, the availability of water, soil composition and fertility, temperature, and amount of wind will all play a role in determining the type and amount of vegetation you will encounter.

46. Several years ago, you planted a pine tree at the base of a mountain and another on the summit of the mountain. On a recent hike, you photographed each tree. Do you expect to see any differences in their appearance? Explain.

ANSWER: Yes. The two pine trees would have experienced different environmental conditions during their growth. The pine tree at the base of the mountain may be growing in its zone of optimum range, while the pine tree at the summit may be in its zone of physiological stress. Additionally, a resource required by the tree may be abundant in one location but scarce in the other.

47. Refer to the figure below. Describe ways that scientists attempted to design Biosphere 2 to minimize the effects of limiting factors and help keep organisms within their zone of optimum range.

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ANSWER: Scientists selected a combination of soil, plants, and animals that seemed most capable of working together in balance. A summer-dormant desert was chosen because it would reduce the desert's carbon dioxide demands when the savanna's productivity was at its highest. The ocean was situated between the desert and rainforest so that it could serve as a temperature buffer between the two.

Each biome was created from a carefully selected array of species to optimize the chances of success.

48. Which choice is NOT an abiotic factor? a. rock b. mineral composition of soil c. rainfall d. bacterium ANSWER: d 49. The length of time nutrients spend in a sink (or reservoir) is called the _____ time. a. sink b. residence c. nutrient travel d. matter cycle e. reservoir ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.1 50. Nutrient cycles, or biogeochemical cycles, refer to: a. energy passed from one organism to another. b. plants and organic matter entering and leaving the biosphere. c. the movement of life's essential chemicals or nutrients through an ecosystem. d. the sharing of nutrients between a parasite and a host.

ANSWER: c 51. Which factor is NOT a way that humans disrupt the carbon cycle? a. deforestation b. using excessive fertilizers c. burning fossil fuels d. burning forests to clear land ANSWER: b 52. In the carbon cycle, plants release carbon back to the environment through the process of: a. photosynthesis. b. cellular respiration. c. oxidation. d. transpiration. e. evaporation.

ANSWER: b 53. In the carbon cycle, photosynthetic organisms use carbon dioxide to produce: a. sugar molecules. b. lipid molecules. c. protein molecules. d. nucleic acids. e. protons.

ANSWER: a 54. In the carbon cycle, plants remove carbon from the atmosphere through the process of: a. photosynthesis. b. cellular respiration. c. oxidation. d. transpiration. e. evaporation.

ANSWER: a 55. When an oak tree undergoes photosynthesis, it is essentially: a. adding carbon dioxide to the atmosphere.

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Module 02.1 b. removing carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. c. adding nitrogen to the atmosphere. d. removing nitrogen from the atmosphere.

ANSWER: b 56. Biosphere 2 helped scientists realize: a. the complexities of the carbon cycle. b. they wasted their money. c. humans cannot function without technology. d. ecosystems are simpler than originally thought.

ANSWER: a 57. Carbon cycles in and out of living things during which process(es)? a. cellular respiration b. photosynthesis c. both cellular respiration and photosynthesis d. neither respiration nor photosynthesis ANSWER: c 58. How is Biosphere 2 useful today? a. People still live in the human-made biosphere. b. Farmers use it to graze cattle. c. It allows scientists to study the consequences of high CO2 levels. d. Biosphere 2 no longer exists. e. It is used as training for astronauts.

ANSWER: c 59. How have humans impacted the carbon cycle, and how can humans use nature to address this issue?

ANSWER: Humans combust fossil fuels that had been stored underground for millions of years, which releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. Also, human activity has led to massive deforestation around the world. Producers act as a reservoir or sink for carbon dioxide, taking it out of the atmosphere.

These two human activities have led to the highest level of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere in hundreds of thousands of years. To address this, humans need to shift away from fossil fuel energy sources to renewable sources. In addition, by slowing deforestation and increasing the planting of trees, less carbon dioxide will be released into the atmosphere and more will be taken in by plant life.

60. In terms of the carbon cycle, how is combustion of fossil fuels different from burning biomass (wood) for fuel?

ANSWER: Fossil fuels, such as coal, are the result of ancient photosynthesis. Plants millions of years ago took in carbon dioxide from the atmosphere. They died, were buried, and were turned into fossil fuels by temperature, pressure, and time. When we burn coal for energy, the carbon that was stored Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.1 underground for millions of years is rapidly emitted into the atmosphere. In contrast, biomass sources of fuel, such as wood, are the result of recent photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide that was recently taken in by those living plants is being returned to the atmosphere, so there is little net change.

61. Refer to Infographic 5. Describe what limiting factor caused the human population in Biosphere 2 to become so tired they couldn't work.

ANSWER: Sufficient oxygen is required to perform cellular respiration. This is the process organisms use to break down sugar to release its energy. In Biosphere 2, the oxygen levels fell from 21% down to 14%, a level low enough that the human population was unable to convert the food they consumed into usable energy.

62. Denitrifying bacteria convert nitrate into _____, thus returning nitrogen to _____. a. ammonia; its most stable form b. nitrogen gas; the atmosphere c. proteins; a usable form d. ammonia; its least stable form e. nitrogen gas; the soil ANSWER: b 63. Nitrogen-rich compounds found in animal waste or the remains of dead plants and animals are converted to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 02.1 _____ by decomposer bacteria. a. ammonia b. protein c. nitrogen gas d. nitrate e. nitrite ANSWER: a 64. Which form of nitrogen can be taken up by plant roots? a. N2 b. NH2 c. NO4 d. NH3 e. N3 ANSWER: d 65. Which statement is TRUE regarding the nitrogen cycle? a. Microbes convert atmospheric N2 to NH3. b. Microbes use NO3- and convert it to N2. c. Microbes break down organic matter and release NH3. d. All of these regarding the nitrogen cycle are true.

ANSWER: d 66. Certain plants called legumes can fix atmospheric nitrogen thanks to a symbiotic relationship with nitrogenfixing bacteria associated with their root systems. How does this relationship benefit the plants? How can humans take advantage of this in agriculture?

ANSWER: Plants need nitrogen to survive and grow, but they lack the ability to capture nitrogen directly from the atmosphere. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria can change nitrogen gas into a form usable by plants. By having this close relationship with bacteria, the plant has an available source of nitrogen. For humans, this relationship reduces fertilizer costs for growing legumes. Also, in crop rotation, a legume that restores appropriate nitrogen levels to the soil, such as soybeans, can alternate with a crop such as corn that uses up considerable nitrogen from the soil.

67. Which nutrient is found only in solid or liquid form on Earth? a. carbon b. nitrogen c. phosphorus d. hydrogen e. oxygen ANSWER: c 68. Which choice is NOT a main nutrient cycle?

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Module 02.1 a. carbon b. nitrogen c. phosphorus d. magnesium ANSWER: d 69. What is required by all organisms for the manufacture of DNA? a. nitrogen b. carbon c. phosphorus d. both nitrogen and phosphorus e. both phosphorus and carbon ANSWER: c 70. Which nutrient cycle does NOT have a phase in the atmosphere? a. carbon b. nitrogen c. phosphorus d. both carbon and nitrogen e. both nitrogen and phosphorus ANSWER: c 71. Describe the two main goals of the Biosphere 2 experiment. Was the experiment a success or a failure?

ANSWER: The Biosphere 2 experiment had two main goals. First, scientists wanted to demonstrate that an entirely self-contained, human-made system could sustain life for potential application in Moon or Mars colonization. Second, they hoped to gain a better understanding of Earth's delicate balance and learn how best to protect it. At the experiment's end, more than one-third of the flora and fauna had become extinct. Certain species, such as morning glory vines, became invasive. The Biospherians suffered from too little oxygen and limited food supplies. The integrity of the closed-system experiment was compromised when outside air was pumped into the biosphere as well as when food supplies were sneaked in. This result showed that Biosphere 2 was inadequate as a model for life on the Moon. The experiment did succeed in demonstrating that our current lack of knowledge of how ecosystems work prohibits the re-creation of a functional biosphere. However, it did allow for a controlled study of how increased levels of carbon dioxide affect ecosystems (for example, coral reefs), with application to global climate change.

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Module 03.2 1. Palm oil can be found in which product? a. chocolate b. shampoos c. toilet cleaner d. peanut butter e. Palm oil can be found in all of these products.

ANSWER: e 2. How much of the world’s palm oil comes from plantations in Southeast Asia? a. 10% b. 20% c. 40% d. 60% e. nearly all ANSWER: e 3. The 2017 study by Brendan Larsen predicts the total number of species on Earth rises to _____ if you include invertebrates and bacteria species. a. 5 million b. 2 billion c. 5 billion d. 8 trillion ANSWER: b 4. What is biodiversity? a. the measurement of individuals in a particular population b. diversity that refers only to coloration of fur, feathers, and skin c. the variety of all living and nonliving things on Earth d. the variety of all living things on Earth e. a field of study that focuses on humans and their interactions with the environment ANSWER: d 5. Which statement about biodiversity on Earth is TRUE? a. There are more categorized than uncategorized species on Earth. b. There are more uncategorized than categorized species on Earth. c. There are no uncategorized species on Earth. d. There are more known species of plants than any other group of organisms. e. There are more species of mammals than species of insects.

ANSWER: b 6. There are currently around 1.5 million species that have been identified. What is the total number of species Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.2 predicted to live on Earth? a. between 1 million and 2 million b. between 2 million and 3 million c. between 3 million and 11 million d. between 11 million and 19 million e. over 1 billion ANSWER: c 7. Which grouping of organisms is ordered from most diverse to least diverse? a. plants > fungi > roundworms > insects > vertebrates b. insects > plants > fungi > vertebrates > roundworms c. fungi > insects > bacteria > vertebrates > plants d. insects > vertebrates > plants > fungi > roundworms e. roundworms> insects > plants > fungi > vertebrates ANSWER: b 8. Since 2000, consumption of which crop has increased eightfold, with the majority being supplied by Southeast Asia? a. corn b. rubber trees c. sugar cane d. oil palms e. pineapples ANSWER: d 9. Which ecosystem likely has the MOST biodiversity? a. desert b. lake c. temperate forest d. frozen tundra e. tropical rainforest ANSWER: e 10. Which factor is NOT an environmental cost of clearing tropical forests? a. accelerating global warming b. increased soil erosion c. increased flooding d. increased biodiversity e. increased air pollution ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.2 11. What percentage of mammal species originally found in the natural forest can be found on palm oil plantations? a. 10% b. 95% c. 5% d. 50% e. 75% ANSWER: a 12. Why do you think scientists know much more about the diversity of mammals than they do insects?

ANSWER: It is likely this discrepancy is due to the fact that insects are very small, have a high rate of reproduction, live in almost all environments on Earth, and can adapt to very specific niches (for example, a particular species of fly that lives in the deserts of Nevada is not likely to resemble a fly that lives in a similar environment like the Sahara Desert). All of these characteristics lead to a large diversity of insect species. When looking at mammals, on the other hand, we tend to know more about this group because mammals are larger, are not able to live in as many habitats as insects, and can take a long time to reproduce (think of humans, for example, who biologically cannot reproduce until the age of 12 or 13 years). In short, we know more about mammals because they are less diverse than insects and we are better at finding and identifying them.

13. Why do tropical areas typically have more biodiversity than colder or drier climates?

ANSWER: Tropical areas typically have more niches or habitats in their ecosystem. Each niche typically has organisms that are specifically suited to that niche and differ from other organisms that live in the same ecosystem but in different niches. The more niches an ecosystem has, the greater the potential diversity of its resident organisms.

14. Consider what you know about biodiversity and climate change. Which ecosystem do you think would be more resistant to the effects of climate change (to a point): one with a high level of biodiversity or one with a low level of biodiversity? Explain your answer.

ANSWER: The ecosystem with a high level of biodiversity would likely be more resistant to the effects of climate change than an ecosystem with a lower level of diversity. When an ecosystem has a high level of biodiversity, it is unlikely that any one particular assault, like rising temperatures or increased rainfall, will wipe out all the organisms in that ecosystem, as there are many organisms suited to living in different niches or conditions. If an environmental assault due to climate change were to hit an ecosystem with a lower level of diversity, it would be more likely to do damage because the loss of even one species could be devastating to the ecosystem as a whole.

15. Biodiversity has many benefits, including: a. the regulation of ecosystems. b. the selection of particular species to survive. c. the ability to predict which species will go extinct in an ecosystem. d. the propagation of disease-carrying organisms.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.2 16. Which example would be an economic benefit of biodiverse ecosystems? a. enjoyment of a natural area for hiking b. appreciation of a beautiful waterfall c. insects pollinating flowers d. the harvesting of plants to manufacture medicines e. water cycling through a forest ANSWER: d 17. Biodiversity is important in a population because: a. individuals in that population need a variety of mates. b. it allows the population to be more resistant to disruptions. c. it increases the population's vulnerability to extinction. d. it increases the chances that each member of the population will be identical to each other member. e. it measures the species' richness but not the genetic diversity in the population and is therefore a great predictor of ecosystem stability.

ANSWER: b 18. Researchers have determined the incidence of Lyme disease is lower when these animal species are present in the local habitat. a. chipmunks and squirrels b. mosquitoes c. squirrels and opossums d. opossums and white-tailed deer ANSWER: c 19. What is the estimated monetary value of annual ecosystem services Earth provides? a. $1 billion b. $16 billion c. $120 billion d. $122 billion e. $125 trillion ANSWER: e 20. What are ecosystem services? a. a system of trade for nature products b. nonessential processes of nature c. life-supporting ecological processes d. services that are valuable only to humans e. all life-supporting processes that do not garner a monetary benefit for humans ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.2 21. What is NOT an example of an ecosystem service? a. fuel made from forest materials b. water purification c. decomposition of organic material d. camping e. All of these choices are examples of ecosystem services.

ANSWER: e 22. Not killing a spider even though it scares you is an example of what kind of value? a. instrumental b. intrinsic c. genetic d. ecosystem ANSWER: b 23. You see a bee pollinating a flower. This is an example of which ecosystem service? a. cultural benefits b. economic provisions c. recreational benefits d. ecosystem regulation and support services ANSWER: d 24. If you enjoy hiking in nature, what type of ecosystem services are you enjoying? a. cultural benefits b. economic provisions c. recreational benefits d. ecosystem support services ANSWER: a 25. Choose either intrinsic value or instrumental value and discuss how this term applies to an endangered species.

ANSWER: The instrumental value is a species' worth, based on usefulness to humans. The intrinsic value is the species' worth based on its existence, its right to exist. It's difficult to put a value on an endangered species that has no value to humans. If communities can establish an intrinsic value for these species, they have a better chance of preserving them.

26. Which population would be the most likely to survive a disturbance in their ecosystem? a. one with high genetic diversity b. one with low genetic diversity c. one with no genetic diversity d. one with medium genetic diversity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.2 ANSWER: a 27. An ecosystem with high species richness but low evenness would have: a. many different species, with each population having similar amounts of individuals in the ecosystem. b. few species, with one population being overrepresented in the ecosystem. c. many different species, with one population being overrepresented in the ecosystem. d. few species, with each population having similar amounts of individuals in the ecosystem.

ANSWER: c 28. Biodiversity at the population level is known as _____ diversity. a. individual b. genetic c. species d. ecological e. biosphere ANSWER: b 29. What was the cause of the potato famine in Ireland? a. The climate was unsuitable for growing potatoes. b. A fungus attacked and killed the potato population. c. Sheep ate all the potatoes. d. The potatoes had too much genetic diversity to survive.

ANSWER: b 30. The varieties of apples in the produce section of the grocery store would be an example of _____ diversity. a. ecosystem b. genetic c. species d. artificial e. community ANSWER: b 31. Which type of diversity provides the raw material that allows populations to adapt to their environment? a. ecosystem b. species c. genetic d. community e. population ANSWER: c 32. Potato species originated in South America, high in the Andes Mountains. Why were they not wiped out by Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.2 the same fungus that started the Irish potato famine? a. There are hundreds of varieties of potatoes grown to fill every niche. b. The South Americans applied fungicides to protect the potatoes. c. The fungus only attacks Irish potatoes. d. There are limited genetic potato varieties.

ANSWER: a 33. It is common for fast food restaurants to use a particular species of potato to make their French fries. This species has a characteristic shape and size that fits nicely in the potato cutting machines. They also have the desired taste and color the fast food restaurants, and their patrons, prefer. You can imagine that potato farming for fast food restaurants is a lucrative business. Given what you know about the Irish potato famine, how are fast food restaurants endangering potato crops and farming?

ANSWER: The Irish potato famine was so devastating because the lack of genetic diversity of the potato plants left them susceptible to mass infection and death due to the pathogen Phytophthora. Since each potato plant was identical to the next, the pathogen was able to rapidly infect and kill entire fields of plants. When fast food restaurants hire farmers to grow only a very specific species of potato, they are decreasing the genetic diversity of the population. If a pathogen were to infect the fast food potato field, and the plants were susceptible to the pathogen, the disease would spread quickly and decimate the crops, leaving no plant behind. This would reduce the potato production of the nation and likely send many farms into a financial crisis.

34. The population of “fast food potatoes” would lack what kind of diversity: genetic, species, or ecological?

Please explain your answer.

ANSWER: They would, in essence, lack all three. Since each plant is genetically identical to the next, they would lack genetic diversity. In these agricultural fields, there would also be a lack in species diversity, since only one species of potato would be present and the variety of organisms that fed or lived on that plant would be reduced when compared to a diverse agricultural system. Since the plants are identical, they would all need the same environmental conditions to grow (that is, nutrient types, amount of water, amount of sun, and so on). This leads to a lack in ecological diversity, since there would be fewer habitats and niches than would normally exist in a species-diverse field.

35. How could the effects of global warming diminish ecosystem services? Use genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity in your answer.

ANSWER: Ecosystem services are defined as the ecological processes that are essential to make life on Earth possible. Many of these processes are financially lucrative for businesses around the world (like whale watching or campgrounds, for example). As the effects of global warming—including warming ocean waters, melting polar ice caps, and increasing extreme weather—become more pronounced, we will see changes in the genetic, species, and ecosystem diversity of Earth. Each one of these diversity categories affects overall ecosystem services. There may be a decrease in the genetic diversity found in populations as warmer temperatures select for a few individuals that are genetically similar. It may also be the case that entire populations of organisms are wiped out by the effects of global warming, which thus decreases the species diversity of their ecosystem. What is even more troubling is the effect that global warming is beginning to have on entire ecosystems. As the weather and temperature change globally, there is a loss of ecosystems that have been established for very long times. For example, the warming temperatures are diminishing the polar Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.2 ice caps, home to many organisms, and may eventually wipe out that entire ecosystem. If the ecosystem diversity decreases, so too shall the species and genetic diversity of Earth. If there is less diversity overall, the ecological processes that make up ecosystem services will also change and become hindered as the species that are relied on to perform the service, like carbon fixation, disappear.

36. Which statement is NOT true of endemic species? a. They exist in only one area on Earth. b. They are specially adapted to their environment. c. An endemic population cannot easily disperse to share genes with other populations. d. They are less susceptible to extinction than other species. e. They are commonly found in small isolated ecosystems.

ANSWER: d 37. What is the MOST likely location of a biodiversity hotspot? a. prairie b. island c. ocean d. expansive forest e. Sahara Desert ANSWER: b 38. Biodiversity hotspots cover a small percentage of land and water but hold more than _____ of all plant and vertebrate endemic animal species. a. 90% to 95% b. 10% to 15% c. 40% to 50% d. 25% to 50% e. 70% to 80% ANSWER: c 39. Endangered species are: a. experiencing natural selection at a higher rate. b. at risk of becoming extinct. c. have experienced a pandemic, increasing their populations. d. found in diverse environments with wide varieties of species mutations.

ANSWER: b 40. How many land and aquatic regions have been designated as biodiversity hotspots? a. 11 b. 20 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.2 c. 36 d. 50 e. 72 ANSWER: c 41. Mammals at risk on the island of Sumatra include: a. savannah elephants and giraffes b. rhinoceros and hippos c. pygmy elephants and orangutans d. chimpanzees and gorillas ANSWER: c 42. Why might a species become endangered? a. habitat loss b. low genetic diversity c. human involvement (for example, hunting, destruction of habitat) d. habitat loss and human involvement e. habitat loss, low genetic diversity, and human involvement ANSWER: e 43. What is the connection between endemic species and endangered species?

ANSWER: Endemic species are species that exist in only one habitat and would likely not survive anywhere else. Endangered species are species that are at a high risk of becoming extinct. Endemic species can easily become endangered species due to habitat alteration or destruction. Since they are not suited to survive elsewhere, any change in their habitat could lead to mass death and eventual extinction.

44. Why are biodiversity hotspots important?

ANSWER: Biodiversity hotspots are important because it is within these unique ecosystems that many rare and endangered species exist. Therefore, it is important to study and protect these areas. As we have learned, the more diverse (in every sense) the ecosystem, the hardier it is.

45. American zoos are involved in protecting species at risk of becoming extinct. What are the benefits and disadvantages of their selective breeding programs?

ANSWER: The benefit of selective breeding is to ensure the population survives and has the chance of being reintroduced back into a habitat. The disadvantages include expense and limited breeding options in certain species. It's possible the animals will never return to their habitat and will have lost the instincts needed to survive in the wild.

46. Which statement is TRUE of isolation and extinction risk? a. The number of unique species increases with isolation. b. The larger the population size, the more likely a random event might exterminate the entire group. c. Isolation increases the chance of recolonization to replace lost members.

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Module 03.2 d. Isolation increases the genetic diversity of a population.

ANSWER: a 47. Which human impact contributes to isolation? a. habitat restoration b. habitat fragmentation c. pollution d. climate change e. overharvesting ANSWER: b 48. Deforestation is a form of habitat fragmentation because it: a. increases resources available for wildlife. b. is another step in the evolution of a species. c. produces "islands" where before there were large expanses of land. d. allows humans to harvest the resources, creating a renewable cycle.

ANSWER: c 49. On the Hawaiian Islands, _____ of the native species are endemic. a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 90% ANSWER: d 50. In the situation of a severe forest fire or flood, which scenario is most likely to lead to extinction? a. A small, endemic population was living in the area. b. A team of forest fighters used controlled burns in the region. c. A large population is found in the region. d. Humans rescue the at-risk wildlife population.

ANSWER: a 51. Which event would NOT lead to possible endemic species loss on a remote island? a. hurricane b. fire c. deforestation d. introduction of invasive species e. All of these events could lead to possible endemic species loss.

ANSWER: e 52. If islands make up a tiny percentage of the landmass of Earth, why have they accounted for around half of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.2 all species extinctions in the past 400 years?

ANSWER: Islands tend to be isolated ecosystems, especially if they are a long distance away from any mainland. Since their ecosystems are isolated, they likely have a high number of endemic species that exist only in that particular ecosystem. Endemic species are typically lower in genetic diversity as a population because they do not have other populations to mate with (that is, there is no new genetic material entering their gene pool). If there is a disturbance in the ecosystem, from whatever cause, it may wipe out an entire endemic species because of this low genetic diversity.

53. Refer to Infographic 5 below. Which island would have the lowest number of endemic species and why?

ANSWER: Island A would have the lowest number of endemic species. It is the closest to the mainland, so species would be able to move between the island and the mainland to share genes. There is the possibility for the introduction of new genes into the population. The populations on the island would not become genetically different and diverge into new species.

54. Habitat fragmentation can be detrimental to species because: a. populations of the same species may be separated and would no longer be able to mate. b. there are no livable habitats left after fragmentation.

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Module 03.2 c. it increases the chance that species will breed with other species out of necessity. d. it decreases the isolation of particular populations. e. it encourages genetic diversity, which leads to species diversity.

ANSWER: a 55. What is the BIGGEST human-caused threat to biodiversity? a. pollution b. introduction of invasive species c. illegal trade of animal body parts d. habitat destruction e. fair trade practices ANSWER: d 56. What is NOT a cause of habitat destruction? a. consumer need/want b. water dams c. coal mining d. expansion of cities e. reforestation ANSWER: e 57. What is one situation seen in natural forests that is not found in palm oil plantations? a. Only half as many birds are found in natural forests as are found on palm oil plantations. b. Palm oil plantations have lower rates of flooding than natural forests. c. Palm oil plantations have more insect biodiversity than natural forests. d. More than 15% of all bird, reptile, and amphibian species on Earth can be found in natural forests.

ANSWER: d 58. The leading cause of habitat destruction has historically been and continues to be: a. suburban development. b. clearing land for agriculture. c. mineral mining. d. timber harvesting. e. construction of dams in waterways.

ANSWER: b 59. If a species is extirpated, this means that: a. it does not exist in any ecosystem—it is extinct. b. its close relatives, but not the same species, will continue to exist. c. it is extinct in one ecosystem but still exists in others.

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Module 03.2 d. it has grown in numbers and disrupts the evenness of the species diversity for that ecosystem.

ANSWER: c 60. If new ecosystems can replace collapsed ecosystems, why are people still concerned with ecosystem destruction? a. They are not concerned. b. New ecosystems typically do not form fast enough to prevent ecosystem services loss. c. The new ecosystem will be just like the old and will collapse again. d. The same species will not repopulate the new ecosystem. e. It costs a lot of money to replace ecosystems.

ANSWER: b 61. Why is increased genetic diversity tied to an increased chance of survival for populations?

ANSWER: It is more likely that a genetically diverse population will have a few individuals survive any given assault—be it environmental, human, disease, and so on—and continue on to repopulate the population.

62. Compare and contrast habitat destruction and habitat fragmentation.

ANSWER: Habitat destruction and habitat fragmentation are similar in that they both reduce the "usable" habitat for populations of species. This reduces the genetic, species, and ecological diversity of the ecosystem. Habitat destruction actually destroys habitats, making them unlivable for their former inhabitants. Habitat fragmentation physically breaks up habitats, maybe through road construction, dam formation, deforestation, and so on, which doesn't necessarily make them uninhabitable for their residents but greatly impacts the future of the species that live there. Over time, due to this isolation, species will become genetically less diverse and more susceptible to ecological disturbances. Less genetic diversity means less species diversity, which means the total ecosystem services for that area will be damaged and reduced.

63. If an extirpated species is extinct in only one particular location, is this important or does the fact that it still exists in other places make the extinction not a big deal?

ANSWER: The extinction of a species, whether it is in only one particular ecosystem or globally, always has consequences. Just because the species still exists in other places does not mean its absence in the one habitat is not devastating. Ecosystems are based on the intricate relationships between their components (living and nonliving). If one species is missing, this could impact a plethora of relationships in the ecosystem, potentially causing a lot of harm; it might even cause the extinction of other species. Thus extirpation is a big deal with potentially far-reaching consequences.

64. What personal choice would NOT protect Earth's biodiversity? a. buying captive-bred birds b. planting a rain garden in a ditch by the road c. limiting the use of weed killer on your lawn d. always buying the cheapest product, no matter how it was farmed e. joining a local wildlife monitoring group Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.2 ANSWER: d 65. Products with this label are using palm trees planted to reduce their impact on the local habitat. a. Endangered Species Act b. Certified Sustainable Palm Oil c. National Wildlife Federation d. Lacey Act ANSWER: b 66. In an effort to repair damage to the ecosystem, some lumber companies plant trees after they have cleared the forest for timber. Describe a scenario where this would be a BAD thing for the ecosystem?

ANSWER: If not done properly, the replanting of the forest could be more detrimental than just leaving the cleared area to recover on its own. If lumber companies do not consider the species of trees, their abundance, and other foliage that composed the forest before clearing it, they may not plant the correct variety of species for that ecosystem. For example, if the lumber company planted only one or two species of trees, that would effectively narrow the genetic, species, and ecological diversity of the ecosystem, and we know that this does not make for a long-lived, robust ecosystem.

67. What are some ways that you can protect biodiversity?

ANSWER: There are many different ways that you can help protect biodiversity. By buying products that have been sustainably farmed or contain sustainably farmed ingredients, you are protecting the ecosystem services of that ecosystem and any ecosystem that interacts with it. Become educated on issues surrounding ecological concerns and problems; share this information with others. You could join a local group dedicated to protecting various ecosystems, like lakes and rivers, in your area. These are just a few ways you can become involved to ensure that the genetic, species, and ecological diversity of Earth remain robust and healthy.

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Module 03.3 1. How many African elephants were estimated to be killed in 2011 alone? a. 35,000 b. 40,000 c. 325,000 d. 1 million e. 50 ANSWER: b 2. Elephants have many complex communication networks. One involves: a. a type of sign language, visible to all in the herd. b. low-frequency sounds, broadcast over long distances. c. markings on the trees. d. evidence of cuneiform language symbols.

ANSWER: b 3. Why are elephants killed by poachers? a. for their intelligence b. because they are damaging local livestock c. for their tusks, to make jewelry and carvings d. to rid the community of elephants ANSWER: c 4. Conservation biology is a science whose aim is to preserve: a. ecosystems. b. habitats. c. biodiversity. d. specific species. e. only endangered species.

ANSWER: c 5. Which are global threats to biodiversity? a. climate change b. introduction of invasive species c. habitat destruction and fragmentation d. overexploitation e. All of the choices are global threats.

ANSWER: e 6. Which biodiversity threat is matched CORRECTLY with its effect? a. overfishing — decreased population numbers of the Mekong River dolphin Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 b. pollution — decreased oyster reefs by 85% c. climate change — threatens polar bear habitat in the Arctic Circle d. habitat fragmentation — caused the Bramble Cay melomys to go extinct e. invasive species — increases vulnerability of elephants and tigers to poaching drives ANSWER: c 7. Refer to the graph. Which human activities likely contribute to climate change?

a. logging, agriculture, pollution b. energy production, residential development, aquaculture c. mining, commercial development, fisheries d. All of these activities contribute to climate change. e. None of these activities contributes to climate change.

ANSWER: d 8. The number-one threat to biodiversity is: a. habitat fragmentation. b. overexploitation. c. pollution. d. climate change. e. habitat destruction.

ANSWER: e Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 9. What is the effect on a population as more individuals die off? a. Genetic diversity increases, and the population becomes safer. b. Genetic diversity decreases, and the population becomes vulnerable to extinction. c. Genetic diversity decreases, and the population becomes safer. d. Genetic diversity increases, and the population becomes vulnerable to extinction.

ANSWER: b 10. What is a keystone species? a. only threatened species b. a species that impacts the community more than its numbers would predict c. species that have gone extinct d. a species that is poached in its local habitat or community e. only forest species ANSWER: b 11. What impact do African elephants have as keystone species? a. dispersing fruit tree seeds throughout the forest b. trampling young trees in the savanna c. dispersing fertilizer in the form of dung d. opening the forest canopy by felling trees e. These are all impacts African elephants have.

ANSWER: e 12. Refer to the graph. Agriculture/aquaculture represents the second greatest threat to species. Why do you think this is? Frame your answer in terms of the major threats to global biodiversity.

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Module 03.3

ANSWER: The major threats to global biodiversity are overexploitation, pollution, climate change, the introduction of invasive species, and habitat destruction and fragmentation. If you consider the common practices of agriculture and aquaculture, you will see that these practices contribute to each major threat to biodiversity: overexploitation in the overfished fishing grounds; pollution from a variety of farm practices like fertilizer and chemical pesticide use; climate change from the multitude of machines needed to run the farms releasing greenhouse gas; introduction of invasive species by purposefully planting species of crops or harvestable organisms like oysters, in an area where they have no natural predators; and habitat destruction and fragmentation in the acres of forests cleared for farmland and coral reefs decimated by overharvesting and pollution. Agriculture and aquaculture impact all of these areas and unfortunately are major players in the endangerment of many organisms.

13. According to the Red List, created by the International Union for Conservation of Nature, which classification would be given to a species under the most serious threat? a. near threatened b. vulnerable c. critically endangered d. endangered e. least concern ANSWER: c 14. According to the Intergovernmental Science Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services, how many of all plants and animals on Earth are at risk of going extinct? a. 1/2 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 b. 1/3 c. 1/4 d. 1/8 e. 1/100 ANSWER: c 15. What are threatened species? a. species we do not have enough data for to determine their population numbers b. only large mammals like elephants, pandas, and whales c. only species poached for their organs or other parts d. species at risk for extinction e. species that have already gone extinct ANSWER: d 16. What is the CORRECT order for IUCN-threatened species designations from most threatened to least threatened? a. critically endangered > endangered > vulnerable b. vulnerable > endangered > critically endangered c. endangered > critically endangered > vulnerable d. critically endangered > near threatened > vulnerable e. endangered > near threatened > vulnerable ANSWER: a 17. Refer to the Infographic. Why might the number of species counted in the Red List of Threatened Species be underestimated in every category?

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Module 03.3

ANSWER: Many scientists agree that there is a large percentage of species that are unknown to humans at this time. It is likely that, especially in biodiversity hotspots, damage to ecosystems is affecting more than the known species that are there. There could be several thousand species of insects on the brink of extinction that, as of yet, we don't know exist.

18. The singling out of well-known species for conservation efforts falls under which approach? a. ecosystem conservation b. single-species conservation c. landscape conservation d. conservation genetics e. ecosystem restoration ANSWER: b 19. What are some tactics utilized in single-species conservation efforts? a. captive breeding programs b. release of animals back into the wild c. use of charismatic species—that is, those that garner attention and funds from the public d. fieldwork to monitor species and habitat health Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 20. Many zoos participate in species survival plans in which members of a particular endangered species are transferred from zoo to zoo to mate with other members of that species. Why is this mating technique important for the continuation of the species? a. Oftentimes, zoos will have only one sex of the endangered animal, so to mate those individuals, they must be moved to another zoo with members of the opposite sex. b. This reduces the genetic diversity of the population as a whole and increases the likelihood that the species will survive and thrive in the wild. c. This technique allows captive animals to experience different environments, since they are unlikely to ever be released back into the wild. d. This technique increases the genetic diversity of the next generation of the species, which makes them more suited to weather any disturbances in their natural habitats upon release. e. There are only a few zoos that are certified to house and rear young, so mating and birth must take place at these facilities.

ANSWER: d 21. What are some limits to the single-species conservation approach? a. Typically, only cute animals are recipients of this approach. b. It does not take the entire ecosystem into account. c. The genetic altering of keystone species does not always produce a more fit species for that ecosystem. d. Mostly cute animals are recipients of this approach, and it does not take the entire ecosystem into account. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: d 22. Which example illustrates a flagship species? a. white warty-back pearly mussel b. zebra mussel c. brown tree snake d. giant panda e. red robin ANSWER: d 23. Success stories with flagship species include: a. increasing populations of the passenger pigeon. b. increasing populations of the American bald eagle. c. increasing populations of the brown bear. d. increasing populations of the black-eyed skink.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 24. An alternative conservation approach finds that when a flagship species benefits, often the entire habitat benefits. This is known as the: a. greenhouse effect. b. single species initiative. c. umbrella effect. d. population effect.

ANSWER: c 25. Why do you think single-species conservation efforts have focused on cute and cuddly endangered species?

What are the pros and cons to such an approach?

ANSWER: Many conservation efforts rely on donations from the public. It is more likely that you are going to give money to a cause that "saves the whales/polar bears/white rhinos" than the humble blobfish.

For the species that are targeted, this kind of conservation effort can be very successful. It may bring some from the brink of extinction to having healthy and growing populations in the wild.

Unfortunately, sometimes the species that are targeted have other pressures, like habitat destruction or poaching, which may not be fully addressed by the conservation efforts, and thus they will likely not reach healthy population conditions in the wild. Another con of this approach is that the majority of endangered species are neither cute nor cuddly. Our friend the blobfish, recently voted the world's ugliest animal, does not benefit from traditional single-species efforts. However, societies like the Ugly Animal Preservation Society, whose motto is "We can't all be pandas," are taking these less attractive animals and funding conservation efforts on their behalf. They recognize that any endangered organism, cute or not, is part of a greater ecosystem and has an important role to play.

26. In contrast to single-species conservation, ecosystem conservation: a. focuses only on species of financial interest to humans. b. uses measures such as species richness and evenness to guide conservation efforts. c. uses genetically modified organisms (GMOs) to increase the health of an ecosystem. d. affects only the health of indicator species of an ecosystem. e. focuses only on species with a low population number.

ANSWER: b 27. Which ecosystem would yield the GREATEST benefit from ecosystem conservation efforts? a. an ecosystem with high biodiversity b. an ecosystem with low biodiversity c. Ecosystem conservation efforts would benefit both ecosystems equally. d. Ecosystem conservation efforts would not benefit either ecosystem.

ANSWER: a 28. What ecosystem conservation approach includes reforestation projects, removal of non-native species, and pollution cleanup? a. restoration b. remediation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 c. landscape conservation d. monitoring of indicator species ANSWER: a 29. What is the goal of ecosystem restoration? a. to completely restore the ecosystem to the state before humans existed b. to restore the species that have gone extinct from the area c. to return the ecosystem to its original state or as close as possible d. to change the ecosystem into a different one based on the area e. to bring new species into the ecosystem ANSWER: c 30. In landscape conservation, several indicator species are chosen as a group that uses all vital areas within an ecosystem. What is this group of species called? a. landscape indicator species b. landscape species suite c. ecosystem conservation suite d. flagship indicator species e. ecosystem indicator suite ANSWER: b 31. Which groups make up the landscape species suite for the northeastern forests of Congo? a. giraffes, chimpanzees, and mountain gorillas b. savanna elephants, giraffes, and chimpanzees c. forest elephants, giraffes, and mountain gorillas d. savanna elephants, hyenas, and cheetahs e. forest elephants, chimpanzees, and mountain gorillas ANSWER: e 32. In native monarch butterfly gardens, people are encouraged to plant milkweed as a food source for adult butterflies and caterpillars. This type of garden falls into which category? a. surrogate conservation b. population effect c. natural selection d. landscape conservation ANSWER: d 33. Consider the following scenario: A captive breeding program employed by several zoos has had tremendous success in increasing the number of Amazon River dolphins in captivity. The eventual goal of this effort is to release these animals back into their natural habitat, which is increasingly becoming more and more polluted.

Do you think this conservation effort will save the Amazon River dolphin? Why or why not? If not, what would Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 you do in conjunction with the breeding program?

ANSWER: Alone, this successful breeding program is unlikely to prevent the extinction of the Amazon River dolphin in the wild. Think of it this way: No matter how many members of a species you successfully breed and release back in the wild, if they are going back to an ecosystem that is on the verge of collapse, it will not matter in the end how many individuals there are. If pollution wipes out their food supply or if industrial activities destroy their habitats, they will be unable to survive in that ecosystem. One way to prevent this from happening would be to also employ ecosystem conservation techniques along with the breeding program. If you could prevent the pollution and habitat destruction from poisoning their natural ecosystem, they would have a healthy habitat to be released into and would have a higher chance of survival as a whole.

34. What is conservation genetics? a. conserving a species genome so that it is best adapted to the current environment b. harvesting and saving samples of species genomes from distinct time periods c. a way to inform conservation efforts based on genetic information from species d. techniques that preserve a low genetic diversity of an ecosystem e. the use of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) to strengthen a particular ecosystem ANSWER: c 35. From where can conservation geneticists collect DNA samples to monitor endangered species? a. hair b. feces c. ivory d. skin cells e. hair, skin cells, feces, and ivory ANSWER: e 36. Which region of DNA molecules do conservation geneticists study? a. promoters b. the entire gene sequence c. a portion of the gene sequence that encodes a protein d. small sequences of repeating nucleotides e. Conservation geneticists actually study RNA molecules.

ANSWER: d 37. Through conservation genetics, poaching hotspots for elephants have been identified. Where is one of these hotspots located? a. Cameroon b. Tanzania c. Botswana d. Zambia e. Zimbabwe Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 ANSWER: b 38. This elephant species is shorter than the savanna elephant, tends to eat more fruit, and has a smoother skin.

Name this species. a. African forest elephant b. Asian elephant c. Sumatran elephant d. African savanna elephant ANSWER: a 39. When two distinct populations of a species stop mingling and interbreeding, it can be very difficult to tell them apart in the wild. These types of animals that look alike but are very distinct are known as a. extinct species. b. genetic species. c. intelligent species. d. cryptic species.

ANSWER: d 40. Refer to Infographic 5. Using the DNA fingerprints, determine from where the unknown tusk was likely to have originated.

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a. from the purple elephant population b. from the brown elephant population c. from the blue elephant population d. from the dark green elephant population e. There is not enough data to determine this.

ANSWER: b 41. Why would DNA fingerprinting be a useful tool to monitor some populations of endangered species?

ANSWER: Sometimes it is very difficult to get an idea of the health of a population in the wild. It could be due to the population's habitat being difficult to get to, or the population itself may be elusive to observation and sampling. Since conservation geneticists can collect DNA samples from dung and other tissues, they do not need to see the actual animal in order to gain some information on the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 animal's health and behavior. This technique is also useful to trace contraband animal products back to their origin in order to combat poachers in that area.

42. What information can be obtained through DNA fingerprinting, and why is it important that DNA fingerprinting be done using microsatellite DNA regions? What is special about these regions?

ANSWER: DNA fingerprinting looks at unique patterns of DNA from one population or species to another.

Based on the pattern of the fingerprint, a conservation geneticist can glean information as to what the organism is, where it is from, to what species/population it is related, and even certain health characteristics about the individual. The reason that microsatellite regions are used is because these regions accumulate changes (mutations) readily and thus can be traced from generation to generation. The reason that these areas can handle all of these mutations is because microsatellite DNA does not code for any protein, so the organism is not likely to be damaged from mutations in this area.

43. Which conservation treaties or acts are international? a. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora b. Convention on Biological Diversity c. Endangered Species Act d. both the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora and Convention on Biological Diversity e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: d 44. Which strategies are included in the Endangered Species Act to protect endangered species? a. relocation of populations b. genetic modification c. habitat destruction d. privately funded habitat conservation ANSWER: a 45. Which legal protection regulates the international sale and trade of endangered and threatened species or products? a. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) b. Convention on Biological Diversity c. Marine Mammals Protection Act d. Lacey Act e. Endangered Species Act ANSWER: a 46. What legal protection did the Lacey Act of 1900 give? a. protection of all marine mammals b. regulation of the trade of endangered species Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 c. prohibition on the sale or possession of illegally obtained wildlife d. pursuit of goals related to biodiversity conservation e. encouragement of wetlands conservation ANSWER: c 47. Which piece of legislation is considered one of the main laws in the United States that protect threatened species? a. Lacey Act b. Ramsar Convention c. Convention on Biological Diversity d. Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) e. Endangered Species Act ANSWER: e 48. Ivory auctions, approved by CITES, soon ran into troubles. Discuss the situation and explain how Wasser’s DNA analysis changed the dialogue for several countries.

ANSWER: The ivory auctions were originally approved, especially for Zambia and Tanzania, because countries had amassed stockpiled ivory from elephants who had died. The ivory sale was to provide funding for additional conservation efforts. However, Wasser's DNA analysis showed much of the ivory seized and smuggled to China, Thailand, and the United States had originated in Zambia and Tanzania.

49. The Kanton Island reef in the South Pacific was designated a marine protected area. In less than _____, the area has recovered from coral bleaching. a. two years b. a decade c. thirty years d. a century ANSWER: b 50. In which protected area(s) can you hunt and fish? a. wilderness area b. national park c. nature preserve d. zoo ANSWER: a 51. The world's largest marine reserve was established in 2016 in what area? a. the Great Barrier Reef b. the Ross Sea c. the Hawaiian Islands Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 d. the Maldives e. Madagascar ANSWER: b 52. Why do experts think that protected areas, even though they have been successful in the past, are not a longterm solution for endangered species? a. There are not enough nature preserves, which have the highest level of protection. b. Populations within these areas will become inbred after a while, which decreases the genetic diversity and makes the population more vulnerable to disturbances. c. The areas themselves are being degraded due to factors like global warming and human construction, so the populations within the areas have to go outside of them, in unprotected areas, to find suitable habitats. d. There is not enough species diversity within these areas. e. Experts actually think that these kinds of protected areas are the solution for long-term management of endangered species.

ANSWER: c 53. Which protected areas are set aside primarily for human recreation? a. national parks b. wildlife refuges c. wilderness areas d. nature preserves ANSWER: a 54. Why would the sale of legitimately acquired ivory (from elephants deceased from natural causes, for example) increase poaching and the sale of illegally acquired ivory?

ANSWER: There are likely several factors at play in this situation. The key factor, however, is supply and demand. If there is a small supply of ivory that is legally available for consumers, the demand for that ivory will go up. Poachers will see this demand as a financial opportunity and collect more ivory through slaughter of protected elephants and thus meet the demand of the market.

55. In which protected area would an endangered species best thrive and why?

ANSWER: Although the situation is different for every endangered species, it is likely that they would do best in a nature preserve. Nature preserves are areas that are closed to hunting and fishing and are generally free of human involvement. Since many of these species are endangered due to human activities, they would likely have the best shot at survival in an area free of humans.

56. In Infographic 7, South America is shown as having a large amount of protected areas. Why do you think these protected areas are especially important to the biodiversity of Earth?

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ANSWER: Since the protected areas fall around the northern half of the continent, it is likely that these areas are rainforests. We know from our previous readings that rainforests are typically biodiversity hotspots, meaning that they have a high level of biodiversity. Protecting and preserving these areas helps preserve the overall level of biodiversity for the Earth, which in turn makes ecosystems, and the species within them, more resistant to perturbation.

57. What is ecotourism? a. low-impact travel to natural areas that contributes to the protection of the environment b. where travelers go to different ecosystems around the globe c. the ability of a tourist to purchase a small plot of land in a protected reserve d. the financial gain that a community makes through the sale of their contraband animal products to tourists e. virtual travel where the tourist does not impact the environment ANSWER: a 58. What is the MOST important aspect of the protection of endangered species and ecosystems? a. laws allowing the sale of some protected animal products b. international treaties protecting endangered ecosystems Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 c. ecotourism d. cooperation from the surrounding countries ANSWER: b 59. What is a potential cause of a community hunting and selling products from endangered species? a. new farming initiatives b. oil and natural gas leases on protected land c. global warming d. droughts, war, poor nutrient soil, and disease ANSWER: d 60. What is TRUE about debt-for-nature swaps? a. The wealthy nation's debt is forgiven when it donates money to conservation efforts. b. In exchange for land rights in protected areas, wealthy nations forgive part of a developing nation's debt. c. Wealthy nations forgive a part of a developing nation's debt if that nation promises to pay a percentage of any ecotourism profit to the wealthy nations. d. Part of a developing nation's debt is forgiven by wealthy nations if they promise to protect natural areas in their country. e. Part of a developing nation's debt is forgiven by wealthy nations if they promise to give the wealthy nations exclusive rights to vacation in protected areas.

ANSWER: d 61. _____ may be the most crucial element in protecting endangered and vulnerable species. a. Fund-raising b. New laws c. Education d. Zoning ordinances ANSWER: c 62. Low-impact travel to natural areas brings in more than $3 billion annually for Costa Rica. What conservation effort is this? a. land trusts b. citizen scientists c. ecosystem services d. ecotourism ANSWER: d 63. What is one way a consumer might impact the conservation of species and their habitats? a. buying leopard print jackets b. buying sustainably produced products Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.3 c. driving very large vehicles d. purchasing and disposing of large amounts of food ANSWER: b 64. You own a ranch, and the surrounding areas are being developed for residential and commercial use. You want to limit development on your property and preserve the conservation value of your ranch. Which conservation effort would be the BEST option? a. a debt-for-nature swap b. ecotourism c. joining a nonprofit organization d. a conservation easement ANSWER: d 65. The overall goal of conservation efforts is to: a. increase and maintain Earth's biodiversity. b. protect species on the Red List. c. increase the ecotourism industry. d. make developing countries more financially stable. e. protect only land ecosystems and not ocean ecosystems.

ANSWER: a 66. Why would efforts to reduce armed conflict in many communities aid the preservation of endangered species?

ANSWER: For conservation efforts to truly succeed in the long term, support from local communities is key.

These communities have to see the value in preserving their ecosystems and have to be given the choice to do so. Armed conflict disrupts many aspects of these communities' lives, including causing food shortages, destruction, disease, and death, to name a few. If a community is starving and has no way to produce or purchase food, they may have to turn to illegal activities, like the sale of ivory, in order to feed their families. Armed conflict oftentimes inhibits help from outside sources as well. Conservationists or even aid workers are sometimes not allowed in the conflicted areas, if the area is too unsafe for them to travel in. This slows down and often stops conservation efforts in these areas, so efforts to reduce armed conflict would help these communities and their endangered members in a myriad of ways.

67. Refer to the Infographic. Which conservation method do you think would benefit an endangered species whose habitat is being destroyed?

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ANSWER: Actually, any of the listed conservation methods would benefit an endangered species habitat.

Ecotourism, debt-for-nature, land trusts, and conservation easements provide communities with financial resources to protect these ecosystems. Valuing ecosystem services and consumer choices affects ecosystems by sending a message to companies and industries whose products are not sustainably made and saying that we will no longer buy your product. The companies lose money and are forced to adopt new approaches, like sustainable farming. Citizen scientists can also have a great effect on the survival of endangered species by going out to these ecosystems and participating in activities that help better them, be it picking up garbage or destroying a dam that had rerouted a river. The preservation of all species, humans included, will depend on all of these methods and more.

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Module 03.1 1. _____ is the complete loss of a species from Earth. a. Endangering b. Threatening c. Extirpation d. Endemic e. Extinction ANSWER: e 2. The second leading threat to biodiversity worldwide is: a. habitat loss. b. overexploitation. c. habitat fragmentation. d. pollution. e. climate change.

ANSWER: b 3. When the next ice age comes, species that are adapted to warmer climates will have to change their survival strategies. Nonrandom influences affecting which individuals survive and reproduce within the population are known as: a. macroevolution. b. endemic pressures. c. selective pressures. d. natural indicators.

ANSWER: c 4. _____ are stretches of DNA that influence traits of an individual. a. Proteins b. Imprints c. Genes d. Founders e. Constraints ANSWER: c 5. Different versions of genes in a population are called: a. alleles. b. memes. c. individuals. d. directors. e. assortments.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 6. Changes in the gene frequencies within a population from one generation to the next are: a. natural selection. b. selective pressure. c. evolution. d. stabilizing genetic selection.

ANSWER: c 7. The process by which organisms best adapted to the environment survive to pass on their traits is: a. evolution. b. selective pressure. c. extinction. d. natural selection.

ANSWER: d 8. In areas with trees darkened by pollution, darker beetles with an extreme expression of the trait are favored through: a. directional selection. b. stabilizing selection. c. differential reproduction. d. disruptive selection.

ANSWER: a 9. Discuss the similarities and differences between stabilizing selection, directional selection, and disruptive selection.

ANSWER: All three are forms of natural selection and rely on multiple generations of a species to analyze.

Stabilizing selection favors the norm and the extremes are not represented. Directional selection favors the extreme representation of a trait and disruptive selection favors the extremes, but selects against the intermediate.

10. The two main sources of genetic variation are: a. genetic mutations and genetic similarity. b. genetic recombination and coevolution. c. genetic mutations and genetic recombination. d. coevolution and extirpation.

ANSWER: c 11. A scientist notices that a lot more polar bears living in the warmer parts of the Arctic Circle have darker fur than they did 30 years ago. She wonders if this is an adjustment to global warming. Which term might help explain the increase in the number of darker polar bears? a. genetic diversity b. extinction c. predation Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 d. endangered species ANSWER: a 12. What is the heritable variation among individuals of a single population or within the species as a whole? a. species diversity b. genetic diversity c. natural selection d. coevolution e. extirpation ANSWER: b 13. Natural selection acts on _____, while _____ evolve. a. populations; individuals b. communities; individuals c. species; individuals d. individuals; populations e. communities; populations ANSWER: d 14. In a coral reef, small fish can hide from predators in the corals. Large fish are fast and can evade predators with speed. Medium fish cannot fit in the coral and are not as fast as the large fish. In evolutionary terms, what would you expect to see in the population over time? a. The large fish would be selected against. b. Only the medium fish would survive. c. The small fish would be less likely to survive. d. The medium fish would be less likely to survive. e. The small fish would be selected against.

ANSWER: d 15. Which type of natural selection would favor the norm of a population and select against extremes? a. stabilizing b. directional c. disruptive d. individual e. unnatural ANSWER: a 16. On the Galápagos Islands, the finches that Darwin studied tended to have either small beaks or large beaks.

The smaller beaks are best at eating soft seeds but are ineffective at cracking large seeds. The larger beaks are best at cracking hard seeds. Beaks of intermediate size are inefficient for either seed type. Which result of natural selection is at work in this example?

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Module 03.1 a. stabilizing selection b. directional selection c. disruptive selection d. individual selection e. unnatural selection ANSWER: c 17. Which statement is FALSE? a. Populations with more genetic diversity are less likely to suffer from inbreeding. b. Selection pressures can change over time. c. Giraffes that stretch their necks more than other giraffes will have babies with longer necks. d. Natural selection acts on individual organisms. e. Adaptive traits allow individual organisms to better survive and reproduce.

ANSWER: c 18. The more genetically diverse a population is, the more likely that: a. favorable traits will be selected for evolution. b. the population will survive. c. the population will be lost to global climate change. d. favorable traits will be selected for evolution AND the population will survive. e. favorable traits will be selected for evolution AND the population will be lost to global climate change.

ANSWER: d 19. Which factor can make a difference in how quickly natural selection can produce a change in a population? a. level of genetic diversity b. size of the population c. reproductive rate and generation time d. strength of the selective pressure e. All of these answer choices can make a difference.

ANSWER: e 20. What are four observations that natural selection is based on?

ANSWER: Species tend to produce more offspring than can survive. Resources necessary for survival are generally limited for a population. Individuals within a population have distinctive genetic makeups.

Individuals that are best adapted to their environment will survive and reproduce more than less adaptive individuals within the population.

21. Describe how a population evolves by natural selection.

ANSWER: Individuals within a population are genetically diverse. This allows individuals with genes/traits that enable them to survive and reproduce to pass along their genes to the next generation, unlike lessCopyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 adapted individuals. Over time, a greater frequency of individuals within the population will have those adaptive genes/traits. This shift of gene frequency is evolution.

22. An owl population moves into an area where field mice live. The owls prey upon the mice. Over time, what might happen to the population of field mice in terms of evolved traits?

ANSWER: The owls will first consume the individual mice that are easiest to catch. This selection pressure means that mice with genes that cause them to be spotted by owls and captured (fur color, behavior, slower speed) will be less likely to survive and reproduce. In contrast, the individual mice that do have adaptive traits will be able to pass on their genes to the next generation more frequently than will less-adapted mice. Over time, the population of field mice will contain a large proportion of individuals with the genes/traits that afford them protection from the predator. Thus the population of field mice has evolved in response to the arrival of owl predators.

23. Based on the information in Infographic 1, come up with an example of natural selection for a population (either real or fictional), and describe which kind of natural selection is at work. Be sure to describe the population in its original state and its evolved state.

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ANSWER: There are many different scenarios that one could come up with. For example, peppered moths found in the forests of England come in gray and black variations. Before the Industrial Revolution, the gray moths outnumbered black moths in the population. As a result of the Industrial Revolution, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 soot from factories blackened trees used as habitats for the moths. The frequency of black moths began to dominate the population as they were now better camouflaged from predators. This is an example of directional selection.

24. What must exist within a population in order for evolution by natural selection to occur, and what are its sources?

ANSWER: The ability of a population to adapt depends upon genetic diversity. Individuals within a population have different versions of genes called alleles. Increased genetic diversity means it is more likely that some individuals will exist that can withstand changes and that the population as a whole will survive. The two main sources of genetic variation are genetic mutations and genetic recombination.

25. Refer to Infographic 1. Prior to advances in health care, premature low-birth-weight babies were unlikely to survive. At the other end of the spectrum, very large babies were unable to be born, often killing the mother during labor. As a result, birth weight for humans averages between 7 and 8 pounds. Use the Infographic to identify and name which natural selection process is at work in this example.

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ANSWER: Human birth weight is an example of stabilizing selection. It favors the norm and selects against the extremes (low or high birth weight).

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Module 03.1 26. Coevolution is a type of: a. natural selection. b. speciation. c. genetic recombination. d. genetic mutation. e. extirpation.

ANSWER: a 27. When a non-native mammal like a mongoose established itself in Guam, it became an: a. endemic species. b. adaptation. c. invasive species. d. evolution.

ANSWER: c 28. Which statement is likely NOT an example of coevolution? a. A moth that has a long tongue reaches the nectar of a flower that is housed in a long tube. b. A tree trunk growing thicker and stronger prevents breakage from hurricane-force winds. c. A caterpillar develops resistance to a toxin produced by its main plant food source. d. A mollusk develops a thick shell to avoid predation by a crab with strong pinchers.

ANSWER: b 29. A genetic mutation that allows lions to better hunt their prey (gazelles) becomes prevalent in a population.

In order to survive, a gazelle population must: a. increase their numbers through immigration to the area. b. find a new food source. c. individually adapt to the threat. d. coevolve to avoid the lions more effectively. e. move to an area where lions are not the keystone species.

ANSWER: d 30. Which statement is MOST likely the reason the bird species of Guam did not coevolve with the brown tree snake? a. The brown tree snake eats not only bird eggs, but also small mammals found in the trees and on the ground in the surrounding area. b. There was not enough random mutation in the bird species to produce protective traits. c. The brown tree snake preyed on the bird species too rapidly, not allowing enough time for protective traits in the bird species to be selected for and passed on to the next generation. d. Many bird species migrated off of the island. e. The birds did not need to coevolve; the brown tree snake did not pose a significant threat.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 31. A species is considered _____ to an area if it is not found anywhere else on Earth. a. extinct b. extirpated c. exiled d. endemic e. elected ANSWER: d 32. When populations diverge, like that of the Arctic fox and the red fox: a. speciation may occur. b. individuals will mate with members of another species. c. genetic drift must occur. d. the change must have been caused by human activities. e. species diversity decreases.

ANSWER: a 33. Which event may lead two populations to undergo speciation? a. habitat fragmentation b. food availability c. new predators d. isolation e. All of these events may lead to speciation.

ANSWER: e 34. The island of Guam used to be home to 18 native avian species. By the 1980s, four species of birds had gone extinct and 10 others were in danger of extinction. What caused this to happen? What evidence was found to support this?

ANSWER: The accidental introduction of non-native brown tree snakes was responsible for the birds' demise.

First, biologist Julie Savidge ruled out the possibility that diseases like blood parasites or pesticides were to blame. When she sampled for bacteria, viruses, and parasites, she found that the birds were basically healthy. Savidge found that the distribution of the snakes on Guam matched up with the areas where birds had disappeared. In addition, the smaller birds disappeared first, suggesting the small size put them at a disadvantage when the snakes arrived. Savidge set bird-bait traps around the island to demonstrate that the snakes indeed liked eating birds. When she repeated this experiment on a nearby island that lacked the snakes, all the birds survived. Finally, she documented that small mammals on Guam were also preyed upon by the snakes. The invasive brown tree snake was already well adapted to prey upon birds. The speed of eradication of the birds prevented the bird population from coevolving a survival strategy.

35. Refer to Infographic 3. A population of grasshopper mice preys upon a population of beetles. The population of beetles contains individuals with an adaptive trait of squirting a noxious fluid that repels the mice.

Over time, the majority of beetles in the population will have the genes that provide for that trait. Use the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 infographic to describe what changes will need to occur in the grasshopper mouse population to counter what has happened in the beetle population. What is this situation an example of?

ANSWER: The grasshopper mouse population is made up of individuals with varying genetic traits. Individual mice that have traits that allow them to better catch the beetles will survive and reproduce better than the other mice. More offspring will then also have those genes/traits. For example, an adaptive trait would be for a mouse to have a tendency to turn objects upside down and place them in the dirt.

Beetles captured by these individual mice would then squirt their defensive fluid into the soil instead of on the mice. Over time, the majority of the mice will have this same trait as the population evolves. This is an example of coevolution in a predator–prey interaction.

36. Random events that play a role in evolution typically _____ genetic diversity. a. increase b. decrease c. do not affect d. increase then decrease ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 37. Human impact increases instances of which random events? a. genetic drift and the bottleneck effect b. only the founder effect c. genetic drift and the founder effect d. only the bottleneck effect e. the bottleneck effect and the founder effect ANSWER: e 38. _____ happens when there is a decrease in the frequency of a particular trait due to random mating. a. The founder effect b. The bottleneck effect c. Genetic drift d. Natural selection e. Extirpation ANSWER: c 39. Green and blue coral snakes are found in even numbers on a small isolated Pacific island. A hurricane hits the island and randomly kills the majority of the blue coral snakes. The remaining coral snakes repopulate the island, with green now being the predominant color. With regard to evolution, this change is considered an excellent example of: a. the founder effect. b. speciation. c. directional selection. d. natural selection. e. the bottleneck effect.

ANSWER: e 40. Which type of population is more likely to experience genetic drift? a. a large population b. a medium population c. a small population d. only animal populations ANSWER: c 41. If some members of a bird population had been able to escape Guam and colonize another island, which genetic concept would likely have happened? a. genetic drift b. the founder effect c. speciation d. the bottleneck effect e. genetic recombination Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 ANSWER: b 42. Refer to Infographic 4. The infographic shows a small random group of beetles being blown by storm winds from island 1 to island 2, which is a new area. This group is now physically isolated from the original population. How would you describe the population on island 2 compared with the original population on island 1? What is this concept called?

ANSWER: The storm winds blew a small subset of the population over to the neighboring island. This group was a random sample of the original population, and it is likely less genetically diverse than the original population (only tan and black beetles founded the new island, while the original population also has gray and green beetles). This is called the founder effect.

43. You have noticed in your greenhouse that your plants are covered by a pest, so you decide to apply a chemical pesticide. The first time you spray the pesticide, 90% of the pests are eliminated, but you have noticed that subsequent spraying of the pesticide has resulted in a smaller reduction of the pest population. What is happening in the pest population?

ANSWER: The initial spray of the pesticide killed the majority of the pests that were susceptible to the pesticide. The surviving pests had some trait (innate genetic ability) that gave them some resistance to the pesticide. When they reproduced, that trait was passed on to the next generation of pests, resulting in a population with fewer individuals susceptible to the pesticide.

44. The difference between natural selection and artificial selection is that: a. artificial selection takes longer than natural selection. b. artificial selection works only in animals. c. the selective pressure for artificial selection is humans.

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Module 03.1 d. there is no selective pressure for artificial selection. e. only natural selection leads to pesticide- or antibiotic-resistant populations.

ANSWER: c 45. The intentional breeding for certain traits, or combination of traits, is: a. natural selection. b. the founder effect. c. the bottleneck effect. d. genetic drift. e. artificial selection.

ANSWER: e 46. A genetic trait causes double muscling in cattle. Breeders mate individuals with this trait to increase muscle mass in their herd. This is an example of: a. artificial selection. b. natural selection. c. stabilizing selection. d. core speciation. e. disruptive selection.

ANSWER: a 47. Why is artificial selection likely bad for the ultimate survival of a species? a. It reduces the genetic diversity of the population and thus makes the population more susceptible to disruptions. b. Only nature can decide what is best for a population. c. There are not as many individuals in each population, that is, small population sizes. d. It decreases the rate at which individuals reproduce. e. There are no adverse effects of artificial selection.

ANSWER: a 48. Over time, humans have selectively bred over _____ different breeds of dogs. a. 25 b. 170 c. 336 d. 520 ANSWER: b 49. Which human activity(ies) has/have the potential to influence selection and affect evolution? a. use of pesticides b. use of antibiotics c. use of herbicides Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 d. use of pesticides, antibiotics, and herbicides e. use of pesticides and herbicides ANSWER: d 50. Which factor is NOT one that can influence the speed of evolution? a. genetic diversity b. size of an individual c. size of the population d. reproductive rate e. generation time ANSWER: b 51. A factor that does NOT contribute to the endangerment of species is: a. habitat destruction. b. anthropogenic climate change. c. diversification of genes. d. overharvesting. e. pollution.

ANSWER: c 52. What is a characteristic seen in many endangered species? a. high reproductive rates b. long generation times c. fast generation times d. produce many offspring per breeding cycle ANSWER: b 53. In the situation where a new trait arises quickly and causes an evolution shift, the _____ is often replaced in the niche. a. allele b. selective pressure c. ancestral species d. biotic potential ANSWER: c 54. Many endangered species are at risk for extinction because: a. their size requires large food reserves. b. they have high r-selection and reproduce quickly. c. they are a smaller species with a high metabolism. d. they are K-selected and have long generation times.

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Module 03.1 ANSWER: d 55. The traps Savidge first set for brown tree snakes in areas where the birds were already extinct were hit _____ within four nights. a. 25% b. 50% c. 75% d. 100% ANSWER: c 56. Which human activity(ies) could cause an increase in extinction rates? a. habitat destruction b. pollution c. anthropogenic climate change d. habitat destruction, pollution, and anthropogenic climate change e. habitat destruction and pollution ANSWER: d 57. A major river changes course and divides a population of rabbits into two subpopulations. The two groups are reproductively isolated from each other and become subjected to different selective pressures in the two locations. A predator exists on one side of the river but not the other. Over time, the two groups evolve enough that during a drought that temporarily allows the groups to once again intermingle, they can no longer reproduce with each other. What has happened in this example?

ANSWER: The genetically isolated groups have evolved distinctly different characteristics. Different genes/traits are selected for on each side of the river due to differing selection pressures (one side evolves to adapt to the predator, while the group on the other side lacks that pressure). Speciation has occurred when the differences are significant enough that they can no longer interbreed.

58. It is estimated that _____% of all species that have ever lived on this planet have gone extinct. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 e. more than 99 ANSWER: e 59. In Earth's history, there has/have been _____ major extinction event(s) leading to the loss of 50% or more of the species present. a. one b. three c. five d. seven Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 e. nine ANSWER: c 60. Information obtained from the fossil record sets the background rate of extinction per year at _____ species out of every million species. a. 0.1 b. 1 c. 10 d. 100 e. 1,000 ANSWER: b 61. The MOST famous major extinction event that occurred on Earth was the _____ extinction, which resulted in the extinction of the dinosaurs. a. Ordovician b. Cretaceous c. Devonian d. Permian e. Triassic ANSWER: b 62. The background rate of extinction describes the: a. average amount of time a species has before extinction. b. amount of time it takes for a similar species to become extinct. c. average rate of extinction in the time periods between mass extinctions. d. length of a given mass extinction. e. average rate of extinction after human impact on the environment.

ANSWER: c 63. Compared with the background rate of extinction, currently: a. species are going extinct much faster than in the past. b. the rate of extinction is more than 100 times higher. c. humans are greatly enhancing the rate of extinction. d. species are going extinct much faster than in the past AND the rate of extinction if more than 100 times higher. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 64. Which example does NOT represent a human-caused threat to biodiversity? a. the draining of wetlands for housing developments b. clear-cutting a forest to plant a soybean field Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 c. the population of Earth reaching 7 billion people d. accidental introduction of brown tree snakes to Guam e. All of these answer choices are human-caused threats.

ANSWER: e 65. One major problem with human stress on ecosystems is that: a. ecosystems are too biodiverse to respond to human-caused threats. b. natural selection cannot keep up with the constant human-caused threats. c. evolution tends to occur more rapidly while under stress. d. newly introduced species almost never thrive in unfamiliar ecosystems. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: b 66. The slow extinction of species is always occurring on Earth. Five periods of mass extinction have also happened. Many scientists feel that humans are responsible for causing another era of mass extinction. Which human factor might contribute to this mass extinction? a. overpopulation b. pollution c. human-made contributions to global climate change d. encroachment on animal habitat e. All of these factors may contribute to the current mass extinction.

ANSWER: e 67. What are the main activities that humans are doing to greatly accelerate the rate of extinction above background levels?

ANSWER: Habitat destruction is the primary threat to biodiversity. Other factors are pollution of the environment, overharvesting of organisms, introduction of invasive species, and anthropogenic climate change.

68. Some people insist that human activity is not affecting extinction rates. Many people point out that in the history of Earth, there were several periods of mass extinction before humans were around. As a scientist, what could you do to change their views?

ANSWER: What you will need to do is note that those mass extinction events were due to catastrophic events, such as asteroid impacts. Next, you need to demonstrate that the current extinction rate is well above the natural background rate. Note several ways humans are impacting this rate (habitat alteration, pollution, overharvesting, invasive species, and anthropogenic climate change). You can look to examples like the loss of bird species on Guam due to invasive snakes.

69. Why is the sixth mass extinction event different from previous mass extinction events, and why is it so important?

ANSWER: The sixth mass extinction event is rapidly eliminating the biodiversity that humans and the other species on Earth depend on for survival. Previous mass extinction events were caused by massive volcanic eruptions or asteroids. Unlike the previous mass extinction events where humans did not Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 03.1 exist on Earth, this event will directly affect us. In addition, this event is being caused by humans, and steps can be taken to slow or stop this event if humans take immediate action.

70. There are many personal choices you can make to slow your impact on the local environment. Take time to write about three options you are willing to demonstrate in your daily life.

ANSWER: There are many personal choices a student can make. These include purchasing an old home close to a city to reduce urban sprawl and a long commute, donating to a protection agency, educating others about wildlife needs, adopting an endangered animal at a local zoo, or collecting money for a conservation organization.

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Module 04.2 1. In the New York case study, the South Bronx handled _____% of the entire city's waste. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 40 e. 80 ANSWER: d 2. Densely populated regions that include cities and the suburbs that surround them are known as: a. urban areas. b. sprawl zones. c. core areas. d. exurbs.

ANSWER: a 3. _____ is the migration of people to large cities. a. Rural migration b. Sprawl zones c. Urbanization d. Exurbs ANSWER: c 4. Which statement is TRUE about the world's population? a. Population growth has reached peak levels. b. People are moving out of cities and into rural areas. c. People are moving out of rural areas and into cities. d. Equal numbers of people live in rural areas and cities.

ANSWER: c 5. Which statement about the movement of the world's population is NOT true? a. More people live in urban areas than in rural areas. b. The rate of population growth has increased since the end of the 20th century. c. Urbanization is occurring in developed, developing, and undeveloped countries. d. None of these statements is true.

ANSWER: b 6. How many megacities are there predicted to be by 2035? a. 5 b. 34 c. 20 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.2 d. 43 e. 100 ANSWER: d 7. Where are the majority of megacities predicted to be in 2030? a. Asia b. North America c. South America d. Europe e. Africa ANSWER: a 8. What population size is generally considered for classifying a city as a megacity? a. 1 million b. 5 million c. 10 million d. 50 million e. 100 million ANSWER: c 9. Explain the patterns in the development of megacities from the mid-20th century to 2030.

ANSWER: In the 1950s, there were only two cities that would classify as megacities (those with populations greater than 10 million): New York City, which was the largest in the world with 12.3 million people, and Tokyo, a close second with 11.3 million people. By 2019, the number of megacities expanded to 33, and that number is expected to increase to 43 cities by 2035. There are also patterns in the rate of growth that differ across the globe. Cities such as Tokyo, New York, and Mexico City (megacities in 1980) will continue to grow, but their rate of growth will be greatly exceeded by many Asian cities, such as Mumbai, Shanghai, and Delhi, each of which is expected to approximately triple in size between 1980 and 2030.

10. What has happened to the distribution of people (rural and urban) from the 1950s to 2018?

ANSWER: In the 1950s, the majority of people worldwide lived in rural areas, which had almost twice the population of urban centers globally. While rural populations flattened out in the 1990s, urban populations continued to grow at accelerating rates. The "tipping point" occurred in 2008, when more people inhabited urban areas than rural areas for the first time in world history. This pattern is exaggerated in the United States, where 80% of people are urban dwellers.

11. Refer to the infographic. Which factor is NOT one of the advantages of residing in an urban area?

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Module 04.2

a. more job opportunities b. better quality of life c. more educational opportunities d. better health care options ANSWER: b 12. Refer to the infographic. Which country has the LOWEST per capita carbon footprint?

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Module 04.2

a. United States b. Spain c. China d. Japan e. Brazil ANSWER: e 13. Which statement about urban areas when compared with rural areas is NOT true? a. They have higher population densities. b. There is less personal vehicle travel. c. The homes are smaller. d. They have a lower per capita carbon footprint.

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Module 04.2 e. All of these statements are true.

ANSWER: e 14. Urban areas are sometimes warmer than the surrounding countryside. This phenomenon is known as: a. environmental justice. b. the urban heat island effect. c. global warming. d. the greenhouse effect.

ANSWER: b 15. Advantages of urbanization for a society include: a. concentrated wastes that have to be transported away. b. lower energy impact per person due to smaller homes and less traveling. c. the urban heat island effect. d. dependence on food and resource inputs from outside the city. e. higher levels of air pollution.

ANSWER: b 16. The disadvantages of urbanization for a society include: a. higher energy efficiency in stacked houses. b. more job opportunities. c. a higher rate of disease. d. more transportation options. e. more services for citizens.

ANSWER: c 17. Which factor requires urban areas to use more fossil fuels than rural areas? a. dependence on food and resource inputs from outside the city b. concentrated wastes that have to be transported away c. traffic congestion and the lack of available parking d. All of these answer choices are correct. e. None of these answer choices is correct.

ANSWER: d 18. Which factor is a reason that urban areas are environmentally unfriendly? a. importation of food and exportation of waste b. traffic congestion c. sewage overflow d. both traffic congestion and sewage overflow e. importation of food and exportation of waste, traffic congestion, and sewage overflow Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.2 ANSWER: e 19. Refer to the infographic. Discuss at least two environmental benefits of urbanization.

ANSWER: The concentration of people in smaller areas and building up rather than out can help protect existing farms, green space, and ecosystems. Having higher population densities will also help to make environmentally friendly practices more cost effective. Urbanization also decreases the use of energy and thus the carbon footprint because the population lives in smaller homes and is closer to the amenities they need.

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Module 04.2 20. Refer to the infographic, which lists the advantages and disadvantages of urban life. Explain the cause of the urban heat island effect and the issues it leads to.

ANSWER: It is caused by a trifecta, which is a combination of too little plant life, too much pavement, and high energy use. Heat is absorbed and put off by buildings, making the city warmer than the surrounding countryside. Issues that can arise from this include an increase in energy needs for cooling. There are health consequences related to the heat issues, as well. The presence of green space can ameliorate heat island effects and lead to cooling in urban areas.

21. Environmental justice is becoming more relevant as more people move to and live in cities. This migration has created imbalances among communities concerning environmental burdens and benefits. Globally, more than _____ people live in slums near large cities. a. 500,000 b. 3 million c. 85 million d. 1 billion e. 13 billion ANSWER: d 22. The concept that access to a clean, healthy environment is a basic human right is known as: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.2 a. sustainability. b. urban flight. c. environmental justice. d. suburban sprawl.

ANSWER: c 23. EPA is the abbreviation for what government organization? a. Environmental Protection Awareness b. Environmental Protection Agency c. Earth Protection Agency d. Environmental Population Agency ANSWER: b 24. In Mumbai more than 8.5 million people live in appalling, overcrowded conditions, with as many as _____ people per acre. a. 8000 b. 1,800,000 c. 18,000 d. 800 ANSWER: c 25. Which feature is NOT normally found in the poorer districts of a city? a. sewage plants b. landfills c. power plants d. recycling facilities e. top-notch health care facilities ANSWER: e 26. An example of an environmental justice violation is when minority and low-income communities: a. are in close proximity to polluting industries. b. lack access to parks and green spaces. c. have limited transportation options. d. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: d 27. Majora Carter's South Bronx Greenway would provide many benefits, including: a. new waste sites as income generators. b. increased air quality. c. alternative transportation opportunities.

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Module 04.2 d. both new waste sites as income generators and increased air quality. e. both increased air quality and alternative transportation opportunities.

ANSWER: e 28. Why are minority communities traditionally burdened with more than their share of environmental risks in this country?

ANSWER: The concept of environmental justice argues that minority populations often undertake environmentally hazardous activities because they have few economic alternatives and/or are not fully aware of the risks involved. A combination of lack of awareness of the potential risks coupled with their relative lack of political and economic power makes poor minority communities a target for environmentally hazardous activities.

29. Why would some consider the Cross Bronx Expressway a contributor to environmental justice problems?

ANSWER: The Cross Bronx Expressway basically allowed commuters coming into the city from the suburbs to pass over the Bronx altogether. The expressway does not necessarily benefit the Bronx and in fact contributes to noise and air pollution. Its construction also displaced 600,000 Bronx residents. This is an environmental justice problem because the expressway benefits, in a variety of ways, communities that do not directly have to deal with the costs of such a thing.

30. Urban flight was made possible by mass transit and: a. the automobile. b. the Internet. c. the telephone. d. cable. e. mail.

ANSWER: a 31. A consequence of urban flight was suburban sprawl. Suburban sprawl is the conversion of rural areas into suburbs and: a. towns. b. communities. c. villages. d. exurbs. e. townships.

ANSWER: d 32. The more sparsely populated towns beyond the immediate suburbs whose residents commute into the city for work are called: a. exurbs. b. super suburbs. c. rural areas. d. urban areas.

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Module 04.2 e. urban sprawl areas.

ANSWER: a 33. Urban flight today can be triggered by: a. clean air in cities. b. the low cost of city living. c. friendly neighbors. d. overcrowding. e. the need for more farmers.

ANSWER: d 34. Residents of which areas have the GREATEST environmental impact? a. urban b. suburban c. exurban d. rural e. The impact for all the areas is the same.

ANSWER: c 35. Which factor is normally a consequence of urban/suburban sprawl? a. loss of farmland b. wildlife loss c. ecosystem disruption d. large ecological footprint e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 36. Homes that are built farther away from the urban centers of cities are normally _____ and _____ energy efficient than those found in urban centers. a. smaller; less b. smaller; more c. larger; less d. larger; more e. They're about the same as homes built in cities.

ANSWER: c 37. _____ is defined as a slow conversion of rural areas into suburban and exurban ones. a. Suburban sprawl b. Suburban flight c. Urban sprawl Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.2 d. Exurban sprawl ANSWER: a 38. The Cross Bronx Expressway was built to accommodate urban flight, but it also brought a lot of issues.

Which factor is NOT one of those issues? a. displacement of thousands of residents b. unemployment due to factories c. worsened commuting d. asthma ANSWER: c 39. What can we do to help prevent suburban sprawl? a. Maintain open and agricultural land. b. Establish urban growth boundaries. c. Implement infill. d. Build up rather than out. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 40. The process of people leaving the inner-city area to live in surrounding areas is called: a. suburban sprawl. b. exurb sprawl. c. urban flight. d. urban migration. e. urban flee.

ANSWER: c 41. The phenomenon of the spread of low population-density development across the landscape is referred to as: a. urban flight. b. suburban sprawl. c. zoning. d. infill development. e. new urbanism.

ANSWER: b 42. Which statement describes an impact of sprawl? a. Sprawl limits transportation options, forcing people to drive cars. b. Sprawl reduces pollution, as pollutants get dispersed over a large area. c. Sprawl promotes physical activity, as people have to walk long distances to get to their cars parked in huge parking lots.

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Module 04.2 d. The low-density development of sprawl enables more open space to be saved. e. Sprawl has lower infrastructure costs and a smaller ecological footprint compared with downtown urban centers.

ANSWER: a 43. What is suburban sprawl, and what environmental problems does it generate? Describe three potential problems and briefly discuss the implications of these problems for human society.

ANSWER: Suburban sprawl refers to low population-density developments that are built outside of a city. Such developments, which tend to spread out over large areas in an unplanned and often inefficient manner, create significant environmental problems that have consequences for human society. First, by covering ever-greater swaths of terrain with concrete and pavement, sprawl reduces the amount of land available for farming, wildlife, and ecosystem services, which means loss of local food production, loss of a connection with nature, and increased problems with such things as flooding.

Second, because of the haphazard way in which sprawl develops, the resulting communities cannot accommodate mass transit systems and instead force residents to drive almost everywhere they need to go, increasing fossil fuel use and exacerbating air pollution. And finally, because suburban homes are typically larger than urban ones, they tend to have a greater ecological footprint in both resources and energy necessary to build and maintain the homes, which also means higher infrastructure costs for individuals and the community.

44. Refer to Infographic 4. What are some of the unwanted consequences of suburban sprawl?

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Module 04.2 ANSWER: Suburban sprawl causes loss of arable land as developers purchase and subdivide farmlands. Homes get larger and less energy efficient, resulting in the residents having a larger ecological footprint.

Wildlife is displaced, and there is normally a loss of species' habitats.

45. A natural area such as a park or undeveloped landscape containing grass, trees, or other vegetation in an urban area, usually set aside for recreational use, is known as: a. green space. b. urbanization. c. smart growth. d. green city.

ANSWER: a 46. Which example demonstrates how green spaces help citizens reclaim their streets? a. increased traffic b. higher crime rates c. reduced amount of littering d. fewer bike riders ANSWER: c 47. Property values tend to _____ in urban areas close to parks or other green spaces. a. go down b. go up c. remain the same d. not be impacted at all ANSWER: b 48. Which example demonstrates how green spaces and community gardens in a city improve the physical and psychological health of people who live near them? a. decreasing space for people to exercise b. releasing pollutants from the air c. increasing rainwater that could carry trash into the river d. decreasing opportunities for relaxation e. providing a healthy food option ANSWER: e 49. Which of the following is NOT an example of how open space makes a difference? a. Trees and plants can trap pollutants from the air, reducing what infiltrates people's lungs. b. Parks improve both the physical and psychological health of people who live near them. c. More green space can mean less crime. d. Open space provides people a connection to nature, and the built environment in which they live essentially increases community pride.

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Module 04.2 e. More green space means the value of homes in the area decreases ANSWER: e 50. Why are multi-level parking garages considered part of the new urbanism? a. They encourage single-occupancy car use. b. They are more compact than parking lots. c. They are an important part of suburban and exurban development—the growth pattern of the future. d. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: b 51. Explain three types of benefits that urban green spaces may provide to the residents and the community.

ANSWER: Green spaces provide environmental, societal, and health benefits. Environmental benefits include: providing habitat for wildlife, mitigating the urban heat island effect, reducing stormwater runoff after a rainfall, absorbing air pollution, and helping offset greenhouse gas emissions. Societal benefits include: property values tend to go up in urban areas close to parks or other green spaces, and community members are more likely to take pride in their surroundings and participate in community events in these areas. Health benefits include: more opportunities for social interaction, increased areas for physical activities, and increased ability to relax and rejuvenate.

52. In the late 1990s in Bogotá, Colombia, the mayor decided to make several changes to the community in hopes that it would bring about a positive change. Was he successful? Explain the changes that the mayor made and how it impacted the community.

ANSWER: The mayor of Bogotá decided to narrow municipal thoroughfares, expand bike lanes and pedestrian walkways, and establish a string of parks and public plazas throughout the city. These changes were noticed and embraced by the community. People stopped littering and crimes rates dropped. These acts demonstrated the success of the changes and that the citizens were starting to reclaim their city streets.

53. What makes a city "green"? a. having policies to improve air quality b. using more renewable energy than nonrenewable energy c. using programs that reduce vehicle traffic in the city d. increasing green space around the city e. All of these answers make a city "green."

ANSWER: e 54. Which of the following is an example of infill development? a. building a parking lot b. building a suburban neighborhood c. building a parking garage d. building a multi-lot shopping mall ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.2 55. Which method would NOT be a way to assess whether a city is "green," according to the Green City Index? a. measuring emissions of specific air pollutants b. tracking energy consumption of each person c. measuring the percentage of waste that is recycled d. calculating the amount of green space e. All of the methods can measure how "green" the city is.

ANSWER: e 56. As more people migrate to the suburbs and exurbs, many cities have passed _____ to create buffer zones between commercial and residential areas. a. zoning laws b. suburbs laws c. exurbs laws d. migration laws e. development rules ANSWER: a 57. _____ is a strategy that creates walkable communities with lower ecological footprints. a. Smart growth b. Infill development c. New urbanism d. Sustainable growth e. Carbon offset ANSWER: a 58. What is the key way to persuade people to support smart growth? a. Show the government how much would be saved in health care costs. b. Show the benefits of the triple bottom line. c. Show the benefits to hiring a new green workforce. d. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: b 59. _____, which promotes the creation of compact, mixed-use communities, with all of the amenities for dayto-day living close by and accessible, can _____ urban residents. a. Infill development; improve environmental justice for b. Green building; increase energy efficiency and thus reduce CO2 emissions of c. Environmental justice; ensure affordability, even in the face of increasing property values, for d. New urbanism; reduce the ecological footprint of e. Smart growth; reduce traffic congestion and thus improve air quality for ANSWER: e Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.2 60. Characteristics of a sustainable city include: a. maximized sprawl. b. minimized walkability. c. increased local self-sufficiency. d. decreased urban growth boundaries. e. zoning laws' prohibition of mixed-use development.

ANSWER: c 61. What is zoning? a. the classification of areas for different types of development and land use b. the practice of promoting urbanization in rural areas c. the professional pursuit of designing efficient cities d. the establishment of public parks and gardens in urban centers e. areas that allow animals to travel between islands of protected habitat ANSWER: a 62. The movement to rejuvenate communities, improve the quality of life, and reduce ecological footprints using such strategies as establishing urban boundaries to preserve open space and directing development toward existing communities is referred to as: a. smart growth. b. urbanization. c. infill development. d. urban flight. e. suburban sprawl.

ANSWER: a 63. What is a sustainable city? Explain how strategies such as infill development, urban growth boundaries, and mixed land use enable a city to become sustainable.

ANSWER: A sustainable city is one where the environmental pros outweigh the cons. It employs strategies that make efficient use of land to create pleasant, livable communities with a lower ecological footprint by reducing sprawl, maximizing walkability, and increasing local self-sufficiency. Urban planners have come up with a wide range of strategies for accomplishing these goals, three of which are infill development, urban growth boundaries, and mixed land use. To achieve self-sufficiency and limit sprawl, for example, a sustainable city might establish urban growth boundaries—outer city limits beyond which major development would be prohibited—and instead maintain a mixture of open and agricultural land along its outskirts. Such land could provide a large part of the local food, fiber, and fuel crops, along with recreational opportunities and ecological services. Similarly, promoting infill development—the development of empty lots within a city—can significantly reduce suburban sprawl and instead encourage growth that increases walkability and supports mass transit. To further encourage more walking and less driving, zoning laws might allow for mixed land uses, where residential areas are located reasonably close to commercial and light industrial ones so that people can meet their daily needs without having to travel far.

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Module 04.2 64. Refer to Infographic 7. Explain at least three ways to create a sustainable city.

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Module 04.2 ANSWER: Cities can take advantage of compact building design. They can incorporate environmentally friendly technologies. They can choose from a variety of "clean" transportation choices, such as buses, or implement car-sharing programs. Cities can create more walking- and biking-friendly environments to reduce the amount of greenhouse gas emissions. They can build parks, which create urban green space. They can place residential and commercial areas together to mix land use and make the use of land more efficient.

65. LEED certifies green buildings based on: a. cost efficiency. b. sustainable building material use. c. innovative design. d. both sustainable building material use and innovative design. e. cost efficiency, sustainable building material use, and innovative design.

ANSWER: d 66. Which factor is NOT considered a component of green building? a. low-VOC design features b. the use of sustainable FSC lumber c. strategically placed windows d. the use of wind turbines and water-saving devices e. installing high energy use appliances ANSWER: e 67. Which urban planning term is CORRECTLY matched to what it represents? a. green buildings — a strategy that helps create walkable communities with lower ecological footprints b. infill development — construction and operation designs that promote resource and energy efficiency c. urban growth boundaries — the development of empty lots within a city d. Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design — a certification program awarding a rating to buildings that include environmentally friendly, sound design features e. green roofs — rooftop-installed energy production using such technologies as solar panels or wind turbines to reduce fossil fuel use ANSWER: d 68. In urban design, fossil fuel use can be reduced at many levels. So while implementing bike lanes and mass transit would be part of a _____ strategy, installing energy-efficient skylights and rooftop solar panels would be part of a _____ movement. a. new urbanism; green roof Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.2 b. environmental justice; infill development c. smart growth; green building d. greenway; zoning e. LEED; sustainable city ANSWER: c 69. What choice is NOT a LEED rating for sustainable buildings? a. silver b. gold c. platinum d. bronze e. standard ANSWER: d 70. What is a green building? Describe three design features that help make a building green and explain the benefits of such choices.

ANSWER: A green building is one in which construction and operational design choices reduce environmental impact and provide a healthier environment for occupants. Three specific design features of green buildings include green roofs, selecting sustainable building materials, and improving resource and energy efficiency. A green roof can be a rooftop rain garden that helps to absorb rainfall and reduce stormwater runoff, while also reducing heating and cooling costs and thus conserving energy.

Selecting sustainable building materials such as FSC-certified wood, low-VOC paint and carpeting, and energy-efficient windows results in not only a lower ecological impact but also improved indoor air quality and lower energy bills. Resource and energy efficiency can further be improved by strategically placing windows and skylights to bring in natural light and reduce the need for electric lighting and by installing water-saving devices such as waterless urinals and motion-sensitive lowflow faucets.

71. Just as many buildings are taking steps to be more "green" by becoming LEED certified, many cities of the world are also taking steps to become "green cities." These cities are working to develop more sustainably.

Explain various strategies the cities are utilizing in an effort to improve their local environments and their standards of living.

ANSWER: Green cities have many things in common, such as recognizing the importance of civic involvement, having a government commitment to sustainable development, and pursuing a holistic approach that looks at all the ways the city can reduce its ecological footprint while still developing and growing. These steps help a city move toward more sustainability.

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Module 04.3 1. Which statement is NOT true of Guinea worm disease? a. The infection starts when a person ingests contaminated water containing copepods infected with Guinea worm larvae. b. The larvae mature into adult male and female worms in the heart tissue. c. The males die, but the females continue to grow in the victim's tissue. d. The disease is not fatal but can be debilitating. e. There are no medications or vaccines for the disease.

ANSWER: b 2. Which factor is a physical environmental hazard? a. air pollution b. water pollution c. a dangerous road d. infectious bacteria e. viruses ANSWER: c 3. The leading environmental threat overall is: a. air pollution. b. water pollution. c. climate change. d. radiation. e. infectious agents.

ANSWER: a 4. How does climate change affect environmental hazards? a. increases clean water supplies b. decreases extreme weather conditions c. decreases the range of pathogens d. increases the range of vectors e. decreases air pollution ANSWER: d 5. Which statement is TRUE of environmental hazards? a. Someone negatively affected by a chemical hazard may be less susceptible to a biological hazard. b. Indoor air pollution is especially problematic in high-income areas throughout the world. c. Humans are exposed to only one type of hazard at a time. d. Even the human-built environment is seen as an environmental hazard. e. Environmental factors contribute to about half of deaths worldwide.

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Module 04.3 6. People in less developed nations are more likely to die of: a. noncommunicable diseases. b. infectious diseases. c. lifestyle choices. d. cancer. e. a heart attack.

ANSWER: b 7. Human actions create or contribute to many environmental hazards. Why is it difficult to map cause-andeffect relationships between human hazards and diseases?

ANSWER: It is difficult to assess the direct relationship between a human hazard and disease because humans are typically not exposed to just one hazard in isolation. Rather, it is typically a combination of hazards acting together that cause the disease. For example, the soil runoff from local farms might change the pH of the freshwater reservoir enough that it then becomes a suitable habitat for a particular water flea that is a vector for a human pathogen.

8. Infectious diseases are a type of _____ hazard. a. physical b. chemical c. biological d. human-caused e. Infectious diseases are not hazardous.

ANSWER: c 9. A zoonotic disease is one that: a. occurs in zoos and other artificial environments. b. can spread between one infected animal and another, but cannot be spread to humans. c. can spread between infected animals and humans. d. cannot be an emerging infectious disease. e. is caused by environmental changes that are usually caused by humans.

ANSWER: c 10. According to the World Health Organization, how many people fall victim to waterborne diseases each year? a. 100,000 b. 1,000,000 c. 100,000,000 d. 1,000,000,000 e. 10,000 ANSWER: d

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Module 04.3 11. Waterborne and _____ diseases are the main infectious disease threats to human health. a. airborne b. chemical hazard c. vector-borne d. physical hazard e. biological hazard ANSWER: c 12. In a vector-borne disease, the _____ directly causes the disease. a. vector b. pathogen c. human d. host e. water ANSWER: b 13. Which human activity has NOT influenced the prevalence and seriousness of health hazards? a. deforestation b. urbanization c. dam building d. habitat fragmentation e. All of these options have influenced the prevalence and seriousness of human health hazards.

ANSWER: e 14. Which organism causes disease in humans? a. fungi b. bacteria c. viruses d. worms e. Fungi, bacteria, viruses, and worms all cause disease in humans.

ANSWER: e 15. In the northeastern United States, habitat fragmentation has caused an increase in: a. schistosomiasis-carrying snails. b. incidences of Lyme disease. c. Guinea worm disease. d. the Zika virus. e. cholera.

ANSWER: b

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Module 04.3 16. In Guinea worm disease (GWD), which organism is a vector? a. humans b. copepods c. Guinea worms d. contaminated water ANSWER: b 17. Which example is an environmental link to vector-borne diseases? a. standing water in tires, vessels, and so on b. contaminated water used on crops c. a flood delivering fecal waste to bodies of water d. rain events that overwhelm sewage treatment plants e. fecal contamination of water from animal waste ANSWER: a 18. Emerging infectious diseases are: a. diseases new to humans. b. illnesses that are not transmissible between people. c. diseases that have established themselves in the natural world. d. all zoonotic. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: a 19. Why is the health of the natural environment one of the biggest influences on human health hazards?

ANSWER: The health of the natural environment has a large influence on the severity and number of human health hazards because we humans have disrupted the Earth's ecosystems to better suit our own needs and wants. This causes the ecosystems to be unbalanced, and as we know from previous chapters, this can cause a lot of problems. In terms of human health, unbalanced ecosystems can select for the overpopulation of a particular pathogen or vector. For example, deforestation increases the breeding grounds for mosquitoes harboring the protozoan that causes malaria or dengue fever virus.

20. Why does urbanization sometimes lead to an increased incidence of waterborne pathogen infections?

ANSWER: Urbanization can lead to increased waterborne pathogen infections by creating suitable habitats for the vectors, or pathogens, to live in. With urbanization, more people are living closer together and creating a higher concentration of waste (which can collect water and become habitat for a multitude of organisms, including disease-causing pathogens). The increased density of hosts (humans) may also help spread disease more efficiently and quickly through the population.

21. What might be some reasons diarrheal disease is not one of the top 10 causes of death in high-income countries?

ANSWER: Individuals living in high-income countries typically have access to clean water, health care, and medication, which are not so readily available in low-income countries. Clean water helps prevent Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.3 the initial infection leading to the disease, and for those who do contract the disease, health care and medication can prevent death and shorten the time the individual is sick and unable to work.

22. Public health epidemiologists study the overall health status of: a. a human population. b. a human individual. c. all organisms. d. an ecosystem. e. any organism pathogenic to humans.

ANSWER: a 23. What are the variables that a public health epidemiologist should take into account when devising a plan to mitigate a health threat? a. economic b. environmental c. cultural d. both economic and environmental e. economic, environmental, and cultural ANSWER: e 24. What is an example of a cultural variable that may influence the plan of action for a particular health threat? a. water cleanliness b. habitat fragmentation c. average income of the population affected d. religious beliefs ANSWER: d 25. Environmental health is a branch of public health that focuses on health hazards in: a. only natural environments. b. only human-built environments. c. both natural and human-built environments. d. contaminated water, air, and soil. e. drinking water.

ANSWER: c 26. Which example is a way that public health programs work to improve the health of human populations? a. providing information and healthcare advice to communities b. providing needed preventative medical care and treatment c. making recommendation to improve health in specific groups and the population as a whole d. analyzing statistics related to a person's health to determine risk for various population groups e. All of these answers are correct.

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Module 04.3 ANSWER: e 27. What was the main problem related to preventing Guinea worm disease in the Nigerian village where RuizTiben was working? a. too much urbanization b. habitat fragmentation c. deforestation d. human resistance to change e. climate change ANSWER: d 28. Guinea worm disease is close to total eradication. What is the only other infectious disease to have been eradicated? a. HIV/AIDS b. tuberculosis c. smallpox d. lung cancer e. No other infectious disease has ever been eradicated.

ANSWER: c 29. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), a sexually transmitted infection, is especially prevalent in subSaharan Africa. Given what you know about the variables affecting health threats, why do you think passing out free condoms, which would prevent the spread of the virus, may not be an effective strategy?

ANSWER: Coming up with a plan of action to combat a human health threat includes assessing and addressing a lot of variables. Not only do public health epidemiologists have to consider the environmental factors of the threat itself, they have to consider social and economic factors as well. In the case of HIV infection in sub-Saharan Africa, just handing out free condoms has proven to be an ineffective strategy to mitigate the threat. Cultural, social, and religious beliefs must be taken into account when discussing any form of birth control, even if that control would prevent disease. Also, for many communities, the people may not be able to go to the store and purchase more condoms once the free ones are gone, as the nearest "store" could be several towns away. These communities may also be financially unable to purchase nonessential goods. In short, there are a lot of factors that go into developing a strategy to fight human health threats, and these factors will change from community to community.

30. How might washing your hands lead to a human health threat?

ANSWER: Although it may seem counterintuitive, hand washing in some instances and with some substances has had a detrimental effect on human health. Some argue that too much hand washing has led to the development of diseases like asthma and allergies, and others have found that the overuse of antimicrobial soaps has led to the development of antimicrobial-resistant bacteria.

31. How might challenges to prevent Guinea worm disease (GWD) in a low-income country be similar to challenges to prevent cardiovascular disease in a high-income country?

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Module 04.3 ANSWER: Challenges to the prevention of GWD and cardiovascular disease share some similarities. For instance, health workers trying to rid areas of GWD have run into resistance from local inhabitants because they are opposed to changes in their lifestyle, for a variety of different reasons. The same resistance can be seen when looking at cardiovascular disease in high-income countries. In most cases, diet and exercise would go a long way to full prevention of the disease, yet many people are resistant to this change, for one reason or another. While the reasons behind the resistance may differ, the prevention of GWD and cardiovascular disease both run into these challenges, ironically, from the people that the prevention efforts would help the most.

32. Guinea worm disease (GWD) in humans is caused by: a. direct burrowing of the worm into a person's foot. b. drinking contaminated water containing adult Guinea worms. c. drinking contaminated water containing copepods infected with Guinea worm larvae. d. human-to-human contact (that is, an infected human can transmit the worms directly to another uninfected human). e. drinking contaminated water containing copepods.

ANSWER: c 33. What is one way to prevent Guinea worm disease (GWD)? a. educating the human population about GWD and ways to prevent it b. killing copepods with pesticides c. drinking filtered water d. avoiding immersing GWD blisters in water e. All these examples are ways to prevent GWD. ANSWER: e 34. Which prevention method(s) would be most effective in the eradication of Guinea worm disease? a. reducing air pollution b. providing access to clean water c. ceasing all war d. using solar stoves for cooking e. planting runoff gardens near bodies of water ANSWER: b 35. A substance that causes damage when it contacts, or enters, the body is called: a. toxic. b. venom. c. synthetic. d. a chemical. e. a hazard.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.3 36. What is true of lead? a. It is a synthetic chemical. b. It is a metal that when ingested can cause cognitive deficits. c. It is safe for humans at low levels. d. The lead in the water in Flint, Michigan, came from pollutants in the water.

ANSWER: b 37. Which book created an uproar and eventually led to stricter regulations for chemical pesticides? a. Quiet Skies b. Chemicals in the Environment c. Environmental Science for a Changing World d. Silent Spring e. Poisoned by Toxic Chemicals ANSWER: d 38. Which substance is NOT a type of toxic chemical? a. carcinogens b. poisons c. irritants d. sensitizers e. neutralizers ANSWER: e 39. Which type of chemical interferes with a person's hormone system in the body? a. carcinogens b. sensitizers c. irritants d. endocrine disruptors e. teratogens ANSWER: d 40. You are out camping with friends. When you return home, you notice you have developed a rash on parts of your arms and legs. You have MOST likely come into contact with a: a. mutagen. b. sensitizer. c. carcinogen. d. poison. e. teratogen.

ANSWER: b 41. As you are painting your room, you develop a headache from the paint fumes. You are experiencing a(n) Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.3 _____ effect. a. chronic b. acute c. delayed d. poison e. toxic ANSWER: b 42. Teratogens work by: a. disrupting the body's hormone system. b. damaging or killing cells in the body. c. disrupting embryonic development. d. directly damaging DNA. e. causing localized tissue damage.

ANSWER: c 43. The lead found in the water in Flint, Michigan, is what type of toxic chemical? a. carcinogen b. sensitizer c. endocrine disruptor d. teratogen e. irritant ANSWER: d 44. Define toxic substance and give an example; include where your example is found and potential effects of contact.

ANSWER: A toxic substance is something that causes damage after exposure. For example, arsenic can leach into groundwater and cause cancer and damage the nervous system. Asbestos, another good example, is found in old building materials and affects the lungs after long exposure.

45. What is the difference between an acute effect and a chronic effect? Give an example of each.

ANSWER: An acute effect is an adverse reaction that occurs very soon after one is exposed to a toxic substance, whereas a chronic effect is an adverse effect that happens after repeated long-term exposure to low doses of a toxic substance. An example of an acute effect would be a headache after inhaling fumes from a cleaning solution, while a chronic effect would be lung cancer from smoking cigarettes for years.

46. Why are water-soluble chemicals sometimes safer for humans but not for the environment? a. They have a low persistence in the environment. b. Humans can excrete water-soluble chemicals in their urine, but environments are "stuck" with them. c. Water-soluble chemicals are stored in human fat, so they cannot harm organs. d. Water-soluble chemicals have a greater tendency to be biomagnified.

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Module 04.3 e. Water-soluble chemicals have a greater tendency to be bioaccumulated.

ANSWER: b 47. Why is knowledge about the persistence of a chemical important when considering its toxicity? a. Persistence is a direct measure of the toxicity of a chemical, so would determine whether it is toxic or nontoxic. b. Persistence is an indirect measure of the toxicity of a chemical; that is, high persistence means low toxicity. c. Persistence measures how long a chemical remains in its present state in an area and, therefore, how long it might be a health concern. d. Persistence is a measure of the number of carbons in an organic molecule, which is a direct measure of toxicity. e. Persistence is a measure of the amount of a chemical present in a particular food chain.

ANSWER: c 48. What is the difference between bioaccumulation and biomagnification? a. Bioaccumulation involves mainly fat-soluble chemicals, while biomagnification involves mostly water-soluble chemicals. b. Bioaccumulation involves mainly water-soluble chemicals, while biomagnification involves mostly fat-soluble chemicals. c. Bioaccumulation is predominantly an aquatic problem, while biomagnification is usually a terrestrial problem. d. Only animals lower on the food chain bioaccumulate, while all organisms can biomagnify. e. Bioaccumulation is the buildup of substances within one organism, while biomagnification involves those substances moving up the food chain as one organism eats another.

ANSWER: e 49. The time it takes for a substance to decay in the environment is called: a. accumulation. b. solubility. c. magnification. d. persistence. e. bioaccumulation.

ANSWER: d 50. Ocean tuna eat smaller fish that consume material containing mercury. Mercury is a persistent toxin that builds up in higher amounts in the bodies of fish. The mercury in the smaller fish accumulates in the ocean tuna in higher amounts. When we consume tuna, the mercury in the tuna can accumulate in our bodies in higher amounts. This phenomenon is called: a. bioaccumulation. b. biomagnification. c. solubility.

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Module 04.3 d. secondary accumulation.

ANSWER: b 51. The dose size required for a chemical to do harm is called the: a. lethal dose. b. potency. c. persistence. d. soluble dose. e. toxic dose.

ANSWER: b 52. Individuals react differently to toxin exposures. Which factor could affect an individual's reaction to toxin exposure? a. route of exposure (inhalation or skin contact) b. dose of toxin c. age of the individual d. genetics of the individual e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 53. Scientists are studying the effects of two chemicals on high blood pressure. When chemical A is used, blood pressure decreases by 20%. When chemical B is used, blood pressure decreases by 40%. When both chemical A and chemical B are used, blood pressure decreases by 35%. The effect of the chemical interaction is: a. additive. b. antagonistic. c. synergistic. d. symbiotic. e. decreasing.

ANSWER: b 54. The effect where chemicals interact and produce an effect equivalent to the sum of their individual effects is: a. antagonistic. b. synergistic. c. additive. d. combining. e. quantitative.

ANSWER: c 55. Which term is used for chemicals that work together in the body to produce toxic effects greater than the sum of their individual effects would predict?

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Module 04.3 a. additive b. synergistic c. antagonistic d. disruptive e. agonistic ANSWER: b 56. What is the relationship between persistence and biomagnification?

ANSWER: The longer a chemical remains in its present toxic state, the more chances an organism has to pick it up. Additionally, it is more likely to still be toxic when that organism is eaten by another organism.

If a chemical has a low persistence, it is more likely to be broken down before it passes too far through the food chain.

57. You have been assigned the task of investigating a case of mercury poisoning in a small fishing village in Japan. How would you go about looking for the cause of the mercury poisoning?

ANSWER: Knowing that mercury will accumulate in tissue over time and that this is a fishing village, you would need to examine the mercury content of the fish being caught and eaten. Since predators higher up on the food chain have a greater chance of containing more mercury, you would want to look at the larger fish, especially tuna, which can weigh hundreds of pounds. Tissue samples would need to be taken from the tuna and tested for mercury.

58. Research has shown that children of migratory farm workers are more likely to be exposed to toxins than are children of nonmigratory farm workers. How could you explain this?

ANSWER: Migratory workers are exposed to toxins while they are working in the fields, and their clothes can become saturated with the toxins. When the migratory workers go home, they bring the toxins home to their children on their clothes, and as they interact with their children, the children are exposed to the toxins. Children of nonmigratory workers do not have this risk of exposure, since their parents are not exposed to toxins in this way, and their parents' clothes do not become covered with toxins.

59. A graph that shows the strength of an effect of a substance at different doses is a(n) _____ curve. a. lethal-dose b. dose-response c. low-effect d. adverse-dose e. effective-dose ANSWER: b 60. The HIGHEST dose at which no adverse effect is seen is called the: a. lethal dose 50. b. dose-response effect. c. lowest observed adverse effect level. d. no observed adverse effect level. e. highest observed adverse effect level.

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Module 04.3 ANSWER: d 61. In risk assessment, why is it NOT possible to carefully weigh all of the risks and benefits associated with a new chemical? a. insufficient funding b. not enough people power available c. unknown synergistic interactions with other chemicals d. the need for the chemical to be available immediately e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 62. What is the rule of thumb that calls for leaving a safety margin when the data about a particular substance's potential for harm are uncertain, and when the substance may cause unexpected or unpredictable effects? a. innocent until proven guilty b. guilty until proven innocent c. the precautionary principle d. do no harm e. risk assessment ANSWER: c 63. Carefully weighing the risks and benefits associated with any chemical is known as: a. innocent until proven guilty. b. guilty until proven innocent. c. the precautionary principle. d. do no harm. e. risk assessment.

ANSWER: e 64. Based on the precautionary principle, what is TRUE? a. Regulators make educated guesses about safety based on how other similar compounds have fared. b. Toxic products are often discovered only after they reach the marketplace. c. Typically, many consumers are harmed by chemicals that reach consumers. d. Products are recalled after they are shown to be harming consumers. e. Harmful products are prevented from reaching store shelves.

ANSWER: e 65. A new drug has been developed to inhibit the replication of HIV, the retrovirus that causes AIDS. In studies using mice as a model organism, the drug showed amazing results: 60% of infected mice that received the drug did not go on to develop AIDS. This drug has the potential to help eradicate AIDS in humans, but it is unknown what possible side effects exist. As an FDA regulator, what would you see as the pros and cons of applying the precautionary principle to this new drug?

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Module 04.3 ANSWER: The precautionary principle calls for leaving a safety margin when the data about a particular substance's potential harm are uncertain and when the substance may cause unexpected or unpredictable effects. In this case, the danger of unexpected side effects in patients must be balanced with the dire need to lessen the AIDS epidemic, which is estimated to kill 2 million globally each year.

66. A new drug has been successful in alleviating nausea in cancer patients undergoing chemotherapy. Many women also experience intense nausea at certain stages of pregnancy. First, as an FDA regulator, apply the precautionary principle to this new drug and describe what criteria must be met before it is made available to expectant mothers. Second, as a representative of the drug company that manufactures the drug, apply the innocent until proven guilty approach to argue why this drug is likely safe and should be made available to all who need it.

ANSWER: The potential for unexpected effects of a new drug is increased with pregnancy, as it may pass through the placenta and harm fetal growth. Thus, information regarding the drug's ability to reach the fetus must be taken into account. Industry will tend to argue that most of their products are safe and must enter the market in order to benefit people and generate revenue for the company that invested in the research and development of the product.

67. Who must support the prevention of environmentally mediated health problems for the efforts to be successful? a. the at-risk communities themselves b. international communities c. more developed countries d. the at-risk communities themselves, international communities, and more developed countries e. The efforts need no support.

ANSWER: d 68. In 1986, there were over 3.5 million cases of Guinea worm disease. How many confirmed cases of Guinea worm disease were reported in Africa in 2018? a. 28 b. 500 c. 3,500 d. 50,000 e. over 100,000 ANSWER: a 69. What is an obstacle to the eradication of Guinea worm disease? a. indifference b. political issues c. human stubbornness d. poverty e. All of these answers are correct.

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Module 04.3 ANSWER: e 70. What federal law regulates chemical safety in the United States? a. Safe Drinking Water Act b. Toxic Chemical Act c. Hazardous Waste Act d. Toxic Substances Control Act e. Dangerous Chemical Act ANSWER: d 71. Under the Lautenberg Act, who has to show a chemical is safe before it receives approval to go on the market? a. the manufacturers of the chemical b. the public c. medical doctors d. the EPA e. the media ANSWER: a 72. Why is it important to get affected community buy-in when trying to reduce environmental health hazards (or any kind of hazard, for that matter)?

ANSWER: It is important to get buy-in from the affected community because they are the ones that typically have to make the lifestyle changes in order for the prevention methods to work. For example, you could buy and place several outhouses around a community, but if the local people do not want to use them or do not understand how to use them, they would be ineffective. Instead, educating the community about the prevention methods themselves goes a long way. When you get buy-in, the community members help each other understand and implement the practices that will eventually reduce the environmental health hazard.

73. What do you think has had the greatest impact on eradicating Guinea worm disease?

ANSWER: The answer to this question will be different depending on the community you are talking about. For some communities, education about how to purify water while hunting in the forests may have had the most impact, while in other communities the greatest impact may come from the use of pesticides. No matter which community you are talking about, though, it is safe to assume that several prevention methods must be used simultaneously to reach the goal of eradication.

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Module 04.1 1. Which factor is NOT a reason the global growth rate surged as a result of the Industrial Revolution in the 1700s? a. improved sanitation b. access to cleaner water c. improved nutrition d. improvements to the educational system ANSWER: d 2. Life expectancy at birth has more than doubled since: a. 1600. b. 2011. c. 1800. d. 1920. e. 1960.

ANSWER: c 3. What is the ultimate goal of many individual countries around the world concerning population growth? a. demographic transition b. zero population growth c. the total fertility rate d. population momentum ANSWER: b 4. When does zero population growth occur? a. when population growth rates decline b. when birth rates equal death rates c. when the replacement fertility rate is higher than the death rate d. when death rates fall e. when birth rates fall and death rates continue to rise ANSWER: b 5. Which factor is NOT a good predictor of population growth in a country? a. the land mass of a country b. crude death rate c. crude birth rate d. population momentum e. All of these factors are good predictors.

ANSWER: a 6. The change in population size over time is known as: a. population momentum.

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Module 04.1 b. crude birth rate. c. life expectancy. d. population growth rate. e. total fertility rate.

ANSWER: d 7. Which event 10,000 years ago resulted in a dramatic growth spurt in global human population? a. an agricultural revolution b. the Bronze Age c. the Computer Age d. the Industrial Revolution e. the Black Death in Europe ANSWER: a 8. Annual global growth rates peaked around: a. 2015. b. 1955. c. 1963. d. 1800. e. 2011.

ANSWER: c 9. The global population has roughly doubled since _____ to reach the current size. a. 1750 b. 1800 c. 1935 d. 1972 e. 2000 ANSWER: d 10. What was the worldwide life expectancy age at birth according to the United Nations in 2019? a. 65 years old b. 77 years old c. 72 years old d. 83 years old ANSWER: c 11. Refer to Infographic 1. As an emergency food supply in World War II, 20 reindeer were taken to an island in the Pacific, along with troops stationed there. Shortly thereafter, the war ended and the troops returned home, leaving the reindeer behind. After 10 years, the population of reindeer had increased to 6,000. However, with no predators and limited food and space available on the island, the population crashed, with no reindeer remaining Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.1 after 10 more years. Describe what lessons can be learned from this as it applies to human populations on Earth.

ANSWER: The island can be viewed as an analogy for our Earth. With limited space and resources available, unchecked population growth will reach a point where not enough resources are available. This could lead to starvation, conflict, and collapse of the human population, just as it did for the reindeer on the island.

12. The discovery of penicillin, the first antibiotic, changed the face of disease management and treatment. For the first time, people were surviving infections that before would have killed them. How would you think antibiotics such as penicillin affect a population's growth rate?

ANSWER: With antibiotic treatment, more people survive diseases that would normally kill them. Since more people are surviving to reproduce, and their quality of life is improved (that is, they are not sick for long periods of time), antibiotics increase a population's growth rate.

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Module 04.1 13. The global population in 2019 was approximately: a. 700,000. b. 7 million. c. 7.7 billion. d. 700 million. e. 70 billion.

ANSWER: c 14. More than half of the world's population lives in: a. North America. b. South America. c. Europe. d. Asia. e. Africa.

ANSWER: d 15. Worldwide, most human populations are located close to: a. oceans or rivers. b. mountains. c. grasslands. d. deserts. e. forests.

ANSWER: a 16. To control population growth, leaders in China and India have tried: a. prohibiting families from having more than one child. b. forced sterilization for men. c. forced sterilization for women. d. fines and penalties. e. All of these options have been tried.

ANSWER: e 17. Emigration is the movement of individuals: a. out of an area. b. closer to urban areas. c. into an area. d. closer to coastal areas. e. into more populated areas.

ANSWER: a

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Module 04.1 18. What is the third most populated country in the world? a. China b. India c. the United States d. Japan ANSWER: c 19. Which of the examples below is a reason for the continued increase in population in the United States? a. a family moving into the country for a career opportunity b. a couple moving out of the country to explore Europe c. a family starting a farm in Oklahoma d. a young woman living in Canada and working in the United States ANSWER: a 20. Why were population-control measures taken by leaders of China and India in past years unsuccessful?

ANSWER: Most of the programs to control population in China and India were considered human rights violations. The Chinese government denied state-funded education and health care to all but firstborn children, and families who didn't comply often lost jobs or faced fines. In India, the government established vasectomy camps for sterilization and coerced men and women into surgery through offering payment or withholding food rations.

21. Population characteristics such as birth rate that influence changes in population size and composition are known as: a. population factors. b. demographic factors. c. growth rate. d. zero population growth.

ANSWER: b 22. The growth rate of a population is affected by which factor? a. crude birth rate b. crude death rate c. emigration d. immigration e. All of these factors affect the growth rate.

ANSWER: e 23. The crude death rate is defined as the number of deaths per _____ individuals per year. a. 10 b. 100 c. 1,000 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.1 d. 10,000 e. 100,000 ANSWER: c 24. Which statement is FALSE? a. More and less developed countries have similar values for demographic factors. b. Desired family size is one of the best predictors of actual fertility. c. The need for labor is a common pronatalist pressure in agrarian societies. d. Total fertility rate is the average number of children a woman has in the course of her lifetime. e. A high infant mortality rate contributes to higher fertility.

ANSWER: a 25. Cultural and economic forces that encourage women to have more children are called: a. pronatalist pressures. b. population momentum. c. total fertility rates. d. demographic transitions.

ANSWER: a 26. A good example of a demographic factor that influences population changes is: a. education. b. economic conditions. c. cultural values. d. health care. e. All of these factors influence population changes.

ANSWER: e 27. Which statement regarding values for demographic factors between more and less developed countries is TRUE? a. Developed countries have higher total fertility rates. b. Life expectancy in developing countries is higher. c. Infant mortality rates are lower in developing countries. d. Crude birth rates are higher in developing countries. e. Life expectancy is higher in developing countries.

ANSWER: d 28. The average number of children that a woman has over her lifetime is called the: a. replacement fertility rate. b. total fertility rate. c. crude birth rate.

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Module 04.1 d. population momentum. e. desired fertility.

ANSWER: b 29. The rate at which children must be born to replace those dying in the population is called: a. positive growth. b. fertility rate. c. demographic transition. d. carrying capacity. e. replacement fertility rate.

ANSWER: e 30. Globally, the replacement fertility rate is: a. 1.7. b. 2. c. 2.1. d. 3.3. e. 0.

ANSWER: c 31. What is total fertility rate (TFR)? How do programs such as Social Security, pension plans, and Medicare affect TFR? ANSWER: Total fertility rate is the number of children the average woman has in her lifetime. Without those programs, parents would likely produce more children in the hopes that they would be taken care of in old age. The provision of those programs lessens the need to produce additional children.

32. A less developed country with high infant mortality and extensive poverty has a total fertility rate (TFR) of 5.7. Very few women receive a secondary education, and most do not work outside the home. What pronatalist pressures can you identify? What strategies can you propose to successfully lower TFR in this country?

ANSWER: Pronatalist pressures are cultural and economic forces that encourage women to have more children.

In this example, these pressures include the need for labor (to help save a family from poverty), the lack of other options for women (limited education and opportunities outside the home), and a high infant mortality (trying to have more children to increase the chances that some will survive to adulthood). Lower TFRs are associated with increased female education and status as well as increased access to health care, including contraceptives.

33. Why would airlifting crates of condoms and dropping them over African countries with high total fertility rates not be a successful strategy at slowing global population growth rates? What factors need to be considered, beyond making contraceptives available?

ANSWER: Desired family size (how many children a couple wants) is one of the best predictors of actual fertility. In addition to making contraceptives available, one would need to consider the customs of the people (for example, there may be religious objections to contraceptives), as well as the status and education of women living there. If contraceptives are incorporated into a larger family Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.1 planning scheme, people might be more likely to see benefits of smaller family sizes.

34. A diagram that illustrates how a given population breaks down by age and gender, showing how many males and females are found in specific age groups is called: a. birth rate indicators. b. death factor rates. c. population momentum. d. age structure.

ANSWER: d 35. A country with a growing population will have a(n) _____ age structure diagram, while a country with a shrinking population will have a _____ age structure diagram. a. pyramid-shaped; bottom-heavy b. evenly distributed; pyramid-shaped c. bottom-heavy; top-heavy d. evenly distributed; top-heavy e. top-heavy; bottom-heavy ANSWER: c 36. Which of the following is NOT an issue a country with a top-heavy age structure diagram would face? a. younger members of the population being forced to care for a large number of older relatives b. a shrinking workforce c. stricter caps on the number of children allowed per couple d. raising the retirement age ANSWER: c 37. An age structure diagram that shows a significant loss in the male population for a specific age group is likely representative of: a. epidemic. b. war. c. pandemic. d. emigration. e. natural selection.

ANSWER: b 38. Japan's population is fairly stable and is represented by an age structure diagram that looks like a(n): a. pyramid. b. inverted pyramid. c. column. d. circle. e. square.

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Module 04.1 ANSWER: c 39. Kerala has population momentum for two reasons: lots of _____ and lots of _____. a. younger people; females b. younger people; males c. older people; females d. older people; males e. females; males ANSWER: a 40. Today, the United States and France each exhibit an aging population. Why is this such a concern for demographers? a. Too many babies are being born. b. People are dying earlier. c. More people are retiring with fewer younger people to support them. d. There isn't enough housing for the people. e. The aging population is producing more waste than younger people.

ANSWER: c 41. Refer to the Infographic. Looking at the three age structure diagrams, explain which country will experience rapid population growth during the next two decades.

ANSWER: Nigeria will undergo rapid population growth in the next few decades. The majority of Nigeria's population is under 30 and is in either the pre-reproductive or reproductive stages of life. As these individuals have children, those children will add to the population. With Nigeria's population being so young, it has a very high capacity for growth (high population momentum).

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Module 04.1 42. You have been assigned the task of determining if a population will be growing, slowing, or declining. What aspects of an age structure diagram will help you determine what will happen to the population in the future?

ANSWER: To determine what will likely happen to the population, you would need to look at the prereproductive and reproductive cohorts. If these cohorts are large, the potential to add more individuals to the population through birth is great, resulting in a high population momentum. On the other hand, if these cohorts are small, the potential to add more individuals through birth is limited, resulting in a slowing or even decreasing population. Additionally, you would need to look at the ratio of males to females. High numbers of women in the reproductive and pre-reproductive cohorts increase the likelihood that the population will grow.

43. A theoretical model that describes the expected drop in once-high population growth rates as economic conditions improve the quality of life in a population is known as: a. preindustrial stage. b. mature stage. c. demographic transition. d. population density.

ANSWER: c 44. As a country progresses from the preindustrial stage to the postindustrial stage, what will happen to the birth rate and death rate? a. Both will increase. b. Both will decrease. c. Both will remain unchanged. d. Birth rate will increase, and death rate will decrease. e. Birth rate will decrease, and death rate will increase.

ANSWER: b 45. The industrializing stage of the demographic transition is characterized by _____ population growth. a. moderate b. slow c. very slow d. rapid e. declining ANSWER: d 46. As a country's economy changes from preindustrial to postindustrial, low birth and death rates replace high birth and death rates. This phenomenon is known as: a. replacement fertility rate. b. demographic transition. c. zero population growth. d. total fertility rate.

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Module 04.1 e. population densities.

ANSWER: b 47. _____ have already undergone the demographic transition. a. Developing countries b. Developed countries c. Countries with high replacement fertility rates d. Agrarian societies ANSWER: b 48. In the mature industrial stage, what happens to birth and death rates? a. Birth rates remain high while death rates drop. b. Birth rates begin to fall after death rates drop. c. Birth and death rates are equal and low. d. Birth and death rates are equal and high. e. Birth rates drop as death rates rise.

ANSWER: b 49. In which stage of the demographic transition does MOST population growth occur? a. preindustrial b. industrializing c. mature industrial d. transitional industrial e. postindustrial ANSWER: c 50. Using the following information—a decline in the death rate, advances in food safety and health care, a decline in the birth rate, and a slowing population growth—at what stage in the demographic transition would this country be classified?

ANSWER: This country would be in stage 3 (mature industrial). Stage 3 of the demographic transition is characterized by slowing population growth, a falling death rate as conditions improve, a decline in birth rate, and a mature industrial base.

51. Refer to Infographic 5. The AIDS epidemic continues to affect certain African countries especially hard, as it targets individuals of reproductive and pre-reproductive age. Describe how this epidemic might prevent a country from proceeding through the demographic transition. In which stage might it be stuck?

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ANSWER: In the demographic transition, the need for couples to have many children declines as health care improves and infant mortality declines. The culture changes as couples are more assured that some of their children will make it to adulthood. In areas hit with the AIDS epidemic, the size of the reproductive age group is constrained. In addition, the epidemic takes an economic toll, which also encourages having more children to help support families. These countries become stuck in stage 2 (industrializing) because the death rates do not fall, and this also encourages the birth rates to remain high.

52. Addressing which factor will help countries lower their total fertility rates? a. poverty b. low infant mortality c. lack of education for men d. lack of job opportunities for men ANSWER: a 53. Which factor would NOT be a useful approach to helping a country reach zero population growth? a. identifying reasons why birth rates are high b. increasing educational opportunities for women c. increasing access to family planning programs and contraceptives d. educating men and providing them with job opportunities e. providing better maternal and infant health care Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.1 ANSWER: d 54. Which factor correlates with lower population growth in many regions? a. access to the Internet b. education of boys c. reduced access to health care d. economic opportunities for men e. education of girls ANSWER: e 55. Which social justice issue influences desired fertility and total fertility rates? a. education for women b. access to health care c. land reform for women to own property d. access to birth control e. All of these issues influence fertility.

ANSWER: e 56. The correlation between social justice and curbing population growth depends heavily on: a. economics. b. health care. c. education. d. culture. e. government.

ANSWER: d 57. The typical Keralan woman marries at what age compared to her Indian counterpart? a. 20 b. 19 c. 27 d. 24 ANSWER: d 58. What is the infant mortality rate in the United States? a. 6 deaths per 1,000 births b. 6 deaths per 100 births c. 4 deaths per 1,000 births d. 4 deaths per 10,000 births ANSWER: a 59. The global replacement fertility rate is approximately 2.33 children per woman. Why is this value higher Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.1 than the 2.1 replacement fertility rate in the United States? If the current global total fertility rate (TFR) of 2.5 were brought down to 2.33, would that be enough to allow for sustainable existence of humans on Earth? What other factors must we also consider?

ANSWER: The global replacement fertility rate of 2.33 is due to higher mortality rates in developing countries.

Even if global TFR were brought to 2.33 and we approached zero population growth, the environmental impacts of overconsumption of resources and waste generation must also be considered.

60. You have been assigned the task of helping a developing country transition from demographic stage 2 (industrializing) to demographic stage 3 (mature industrial). How would you accomplish this task?

ANSWER: You would want to focus on programs that work within the cultural and religious traditions of the population. Specifically, look at programs that address poverty, infant mortality, lack of educational opportunities for women, and lack of career opportunities for women.

61. The land area needed to provide the resources for, and assimilate the waste of, a person or population is called: a. ecological footprint. b. carrying capacity. c. overpopulation. d. population growth control.

ANSWER: a 62. In terms of reaching Earth's carrying capacity, developing countries exacerbate the problem due to their _____, while developed countries also aggravate the situation due to their _____. a. unsustainable resource use; high fertility rates b. high fertility rates; overconsumption c. high immigration rates; low emigration rates d. gendercide; overconsumption e. use of nonrenewable energy; high death rates ANSWER: b 63. To feed an increasing world population, humanity has needed to increase the carrying capacity of the planet.

This has involved: a. dependence on the use of fossil fuels to grow food. b. dependence on the use of herbicides to grow food. c. removing more fish from the oceans than can be repopulated. d. destruction of animal habitat for human use. e. It has involved all of these issues.

ANSWER: e 64. The carrying capacity of an area depends on: a. resource availability and use.

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Module 04.1 b. the growth rate of a population. c. the transition to renewable energy sources. d. the level of education of the people. e. economic level of the government.

ANSWER: a 65. Which statement CORRECTLY describes the relationship between carrying capacity and ecological footprints in a region? a. Less developed regions tend to have a greater number of people, but a smaller per capita ecological footprint. b. More developed regions tend to have a greater number of people, but a smaller per capita ecological footprint. c. Less developed regions tend to have a smaller number of people, but a smaller per capita ecological footprint. d. Less developed regions tend to have a smaller number of people, but a larger per capita ecological footprint. e. More developed regions tend to have a greater number of people, but a greater per capita ecological footprint.

ANSWER: a 66. What is the ultimate population question? a. Is the carrying capacity 7 billion people? b. Is the carrying capacity 9 billion people? c. Should China continue its one-child policy? d. What is the acceptable quality of life? e. Is population growth linked to climate change?

ANSWER: d 67. An increase in population causes all but: a. an increased standard of living due to technology. b. land degradation. c. water supply depletion. d. water pollution. e. an impoverished environment.

ANSWER: a 68. How does overconsumption in developed countries, such as the United States, affect countries in other regions, such as Asia?

ANSWER: Developed countries use more resources, especially fossil fuels. This disrupts the distribution of resources to developing countries, causing less to go around. Also, the overuse of fuels increases greenhouse gases in the atmosphere. Climate change is a global, not local, issue. As a result, typhoons, flooding, drought, and so on can affect countries far removed from the countries burning Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 04.1 the fuels. Bangladesh is a classic example. Rising sea level from climate change is disrupting flood cycles there. Also, destruction of trees along the rivers in India is having similar results in Bangladesh. Therefore, a very poor country is made poorer by events happening elsewhere and over which they have no control.

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Module 05.2 1. The ozone layer is located in the: a. stratosphere. b. troposphere. c. mesosphere. d. thermosphere. e. exosphere.

ANSWER: a 2. What is the chemical formula for ozone? a. O2 b. C2F2Cl2 c. SF6 d. O3 e. CrO2Cl2 ANSWER: d 3. Which form of ultraviolet (UV) radiation can cause serious health problems, such as DNA mutations? a. UV-A b. UV-B c. UV-C d. UV-A and UV-B e. UV-A, UV-B, and UV-C ANSWER: b 4. Refer to Infographic 1. What happens to the chlorine atom liberated from chlorine monoxide in the second portion of this figure?

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a. It escapes into the thermosphere above. b. It becomes inert. c. It sinks back down to the troposphere, where it becomes a part of smog pollution. d. It breaks down many other ozone molecules. e. It bonds with one additional ozone molecule to make chlorine trioxide.

ANSWER: d 5. Refer to Infographic 1. Why is it that the UV-B form of ultraviolet light causes sunburns and skin damage but the most energetic form, UV-C, is of no concern whatsoever?

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a. Water vapor in the air filters all but UV-B. b. CFCs in the air filter all but UV-B. c. Radiation from the sun is mostly UV-B. d. UV-C radiation is absorbed by O2 molecules in the stratosphere. e. NOx reacts with UV-B and UV-C. ANSWER: d 6. Ozone-depleting chemicals are most efficient at the poles, both for Arctic and Antarctic regions. The major reason for this is: a. lots of CFCs are used in polar regions. b. tourists there pollute the atmosphere. c. the presence of ice crystals and solar UV radiation. d. all the ozone is formed over the equator and none reaches the poles. e. a lack of stringent air pollution laws at the poles.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.2 7. Where in the atmosphere is the majority of ozone found? a. the mesosphere and paleosphere b. the troposphere c. the stratosphere d. both the troposphere and stratosphere e. It is not found in the atmosphere at any level.

ANSWER: c 8. Why should we care about ozone? a. It's a dangerous stratospheric pollutant. b. It protects Earth's surface from UV radiation. c. It is used in the production of CFCs. d. It's a major pollutant in our rainwater. e. It protects Earth from climate change.

ANSWER: b 9. Scientists have concluded that increasing levels of _____ were causing the depletion of the ozone layer. a. methane b. smog c. particulates d. CFCs e. O3 ANSWER: d 10. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between ozone in the stratosphere and the presence of CFCs? a. Ozone in the stratosphere is broken down by chemicals like CFCs, but as CFCs themselves are broken apart by UV radiation, ozone depletion slows. b. When CFCs come in contact with ozone in the troposphere, their reaction sometimes causes increased UV radiation to reach Earth's surface. c. Ozone naturally breaks down in the stratosphere, but substances like CFCs regulate its reformation so that less harmful UV radiation reaches Earth's surface. d. Ozone from the stratosphere migrates down to the troposphere, where it reacts with chemicals like CFCs to produce more oxygen. e. Ozone is formed naturally and is broken down in the stratosphere. However, CFCs cause additional ozone breakdown.

ANSWER: e 11. Which statement is TRUE of CFCs? a. A CFC is an industrial chemical that was once used as a refrigerant. b. A CFC is a type of ultraviolet radiation between UV-A and UV-B. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.2 c. CFCs are used to cook food at the McMurdo research station. d. CFCs react with water to generate ozone. e. CFCs break apart bromine compounds in the stratosphere.

ANSWER: a 12. Which form of ultraviolet (UV) radiation is mostly absorbed by the ozone layer? What are the effects of this form of UV radiation on living things?

ANSWER: UV-B can cause damage to the DNA of living things. The ozone layer absorbs most of this so that only about 10% normally reaches Earth's surface.

13. Why is the term ozone hole misleading?

ANSWER: Ozone is still present over Antarctica and the Arctic, but it is present in reduced quantities or concentrations. A thinning of the ozone layer would be a more accurate description.

14. Explain how the depletion of the ozone layer in the stratosphere is allowing more UV-B radiation to reach the Earth's surface.

ANSWER: Ozone molecules in the stratosphere normally absorb UV-B rays. Depletion of ozone molecules in the stratosphere allows more UV-B rays to reach the surface of Earth.

15. Refer to Infographic 1. Explain chemically how CFCs in the stratosphere are damaging the ozone layer.

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ANSWER: CFCs in the stratosphere are broken apart by UV-B to release a chlorine atom, which then breaks down ozone molecules into O2 and ClO. This becomes a positive feedback mechanism (chain reaction) when the Cl is then reformed and able to catalyze additional breakdown reactions of even more ozone molecules.

16. What type of policy is needed when an environmental problem extends across national boundaries? a. national b. local c. international d. state e. intranational ANSWER: c 17. A(n) _____ problem is one that extends across state and national boundaries. a. transboundary b. environmental c. adaptive Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.2 d. national e. political ANSWER: a 18. Which example illustrates a transboundary problem? a. pollution in Mexico's Tijuana River closing beaches in San Diego where the river empties into the sea b. acid rain falling in Canada because of industrial emissions from the United States c. currents concentrating garbage in areas of the Atlantic Ocean d. All of these answer choices are examples of a transboundary problem. e. None of these answer choices is an example of a transboundary problem.

ANSWER: d 19. Environmental policy: a. provides guidelines meant to restore or protect the natural environment. b. is limited to the nation that creates it. c. can help mitigate human impact on the environment. d. All of these answer choices are correct. e. provides guidelines meant to restore or protect the natural environment and can help mitigate human impact on the environment ANSWER: e 20. Which environmental issue occurs across state and national boundaries? a. ozone depletion b. species endangerment c. global warming d. ozone depletion, species endangerment, and global warming e. ozone depletion and species endangerment ANSWER: d 21. What is an environmental policy? Why are many environmental problems considered "wicked problems"?

ANSWER: An environmental policy is a course of action adopted by a government or organization, designed to improve the natural environment and public health or reduce human impact on the environment.

Sometimes environmental policies provide guidelines for repairing damaged ecosystems or for how to reduce or mitigate negative human impacts on the planet. Many environmental problems are considered "wicked problems" because they are complex, with multiple causes and consequences, along with multiple stakeholders. For example, species endangerment, pollution, and climate change are seen as "wicked problems."

22. In a famous essay, Garrett Hardin described "the tragedy of the commons," where individual self-interests lead to depletion of shared, limited resources. For example, in a public pasture, where no rules are in place to restrict the number of grazing animals, individuals will maximize their usage of the resource and the end result Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.2 may be loss or destruction of the resource. What examples on Earth would qualify as "common" areas that no one person, state, or government owns or controls? How could these areas be managed to avoid environmental degradation?

ANSWER: Areas could include the atmosphere, oceans, freshwater resources, forests, or wildlife. National or international policies can be enacted to avoid environmental degradation. For example, eliminating the use of CFCs in aerosol cans and replacing them with chemicals that do not harm the ozone layer will help reverse ozone depletion. Testing freshwater resources can ensure hazardous substances are not polluting the water humans and animals consume. Fisheries can be monitored and closed down when necessary to avoid population crashes that affect multiple nations.

23. Many coastal areas and low-lying island nations are currently at risk from rising sea levels attributed to global climate change. How does this illustrate the need for policy at the international level?

ANSWER: Residents of coastal areas and low-lying island nations are at high risk of damage from rising sea levels. Sea levels are rising due to water expansion from higher temperatures and from the melting of land-based ice into the oceans. The increased temperatures are being driven by human activity, particularly fossil fuel combustion and deforestation. These activities occur globally, but the effects of rising sea levels are localized to those people nearest the oceans. International policy is thus needed to ensure fairness across all nations.

24. Which was the first environmental law that required the U.S. government to consider environmental issues before approving policies? a. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA) b. Toxic Substances Control Act (TOSCA) c. Clean Water Act (CWA) d. National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) e. Clean Air Act (CAA) ANSWER: d 25. The _____ allows U.S. citizens to litigate, in federal court, perceived violators of certain environmental laws in order to force compliance. a. citizen suit provision b. protection standard c. litigation loophole d. National Act e. Environmental Policy Act ANSWER: a 26. The environmental law that regulates the amount of hazardous pollutants in the air and that contains provisions for protecting the ozone layer is the: a. National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA). b. Clean Air Act (CAA). c. Toxic Substances Act (TOSCA). d. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, and Liability Act (CERCLA).

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Module 05.2 e. The EPA lacks the authority to regulate air pollutants.

ANSWER: b 27. Which statement is CORRECT regarding U.S. environmental policy prior to the 1960s? a. Environmental issues were focused on addressing pollution. b. A key objective was mitigating environmental damage. c. Environmental issues were handled primarily at the federal level. d. Environmental policies mostly dealt with how best to use resources.

ANSWER: d 28. Industries must act to meet _____ standards, that is, targets set to specify acceptable levels of pollution that can be released or exist in outdoor air. a. performance b. normative c. attainment d. completion e. discharge ANSWER: a 29. In the 1960s and 1970s, a national outcry occurred because: a. it became more difficult to demonstrate that a toxin from a particular source was responsible for harming life. b. federal legislators saw regulation as an impediment to economic growth. c. most environmental problems were addressed after the fact through litigation. d. oil release into coastal waters was first banned. e. environmental problems in one state started affecting other states more often.

ANSWER: e 30. The era of modern environmental policy had begun by: a. 1849. b. 1880. c. 1923. d. 1970. e. 1996.

ANSWER: d 31. Which statement is FALSE regarding the landmark environmental laws passed in the 1960s and 1970s? a. Tremendous bipartisan support existed for environmental protection. b. Many environmental problems crossed state lines. c. These landmark laws have remained as is, without amendments. d. Included in these laws was the Endangered Species Act in 1973.

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Module 05.2 e. All of these answer choices are true regarding these laws.

ANSWER: c 32. Excess nitrogen fertilizer runs off Midwestern farmland into waterways that lead to the Gulf of Mexico, where the result is a "dead zone" of low oxygen levels. This impacts the ecosystem there and presents a significant economic hardship to the shrimping industry. What level of policy might be needed to address this problem? What existing federal law could be applied?

ANSWER: The pollution in this example is not produced in the state that is bearing the negative consequences.

To address an environmental problem that crosses state lines, policy at the national level may be most appropriate. Residents of Louisiana can look to the Clean Water Act (CWA) for help in reducing the nutrient pollution entering the Gulf. This act regulates water quality by setting standards for the release or presence of specified toxic or hazardous water pollutants.

33. Environmental pollution standards in the U.S. have proven effective over time. What are pollution standards, and what prompted their effectiveness?

ANSWER: Pollution standards, also known as performance standards, regulate (at the federal level) the amount of pollutants permitted in the environment or released over a certain time frame. By determining how much pollution industries can release at the outset, environmental regulations moved from after-the-fact to prevention. Because of implementing preventative measures, the levels of industrial water and air pollution began to decrease.

34. What does the citizen suit provision encompass? Discuss some advantages and disadvantages of this provision.

ANSWER: The citizen suit provision allows individual citizens or groups (including state governments) to demand enforcement of environmental laws. Citizens or groups report the violations, and if the violator has not dealt with the issue in a timely or satisfactory manner, then the citizens or groups can file a federal lawsuit against the violator. Violators can be an individual, a private company, or the government, including the regulatory agency in charge of enforcing the environmental regulation. Citizen lawsuits have triumphed over violators, but unfortunately, many decisions have favored the defendants, and some lawsuits do not make it to court. Most successful lawsuits are those that are filed by organizations that retain a staff of attorneys with experience in environmental law.

35. What does an environmental impact statement (EIS) accomplish? a. It sets monetary damages awarded to the plaintiff in an environmental lawsuit. b. It outlines the positive and negative impacts of a proposed action. c. It allows a private citizen to sue, in federal court, a violator of environmental law. d. It details damage done to an environment, including air, water, and soil. e. It regulates production and distribution of designated toxic chemicals.

ANSWER: b 36. Which agency was established by Congress to implement and enforce federal environmental laws? a. FDA b. USDA Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.2 c. EPA d. CWA e. ESA ANSWER: c 37. The EPA and other agencies such as the USDA are administered by the _____ branch(es). a. legislative b. executive c. judicial d. legislative and executive e. legislative, executive, and judicial ANSWER: b 38. What is the CORRECT order of the policy decision-making process? a. identify a problem — consider options — formulation — adoption — implementation — evaluation b. identify a problem — consider options — adoption — formulation — implementation — evaluation c. consider options — adoption — formulation — implementation — evaluation — identify a problem d. consider options — formulation — adoption — implementation — evaluation e. identify a problem — consider options — formulation — adoption — evaluation — implementation ANSWER: a 39. After an EIS, the proposed action of building a road is not taken. Where in the policy decision-making process does this step fit in? a. identifying a problem b. formulation c. adoption d. implementation e. consideration of options ANSWER: e 40. A federal highway project is proposed to connect two existing stretches of interstate. What signature feature of the National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) must be met prior to construction of the highway?

ANSWER: The environmental impact statement (EIS) is the signature feature of the NEPA. This statement is required for federal projects. It details the likely effect of the proposed action on the environment.

For example, it checks for potential harm to endangered species, increased soil erosion, reduction of water or air quality, or habitat loss affecting wildlife. In this case, it must be determined that the construction of the highway in that location is appropriate. If not, the road could be relocated elsewhere or not be built at all.

41. Explain the role of the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA).

ANSWER: Congress established the EPA in 1970 as a regulatory agency to create rules and regulations to support environmental laws. The EPA sets standards that ensure the goals of any given law are met.

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Module 05.2 If an entity fails to meet these standards, the EPA holds it accountable by mandating change. This could include closing down an industry for repeat violations, fines for failing to meet standards, revocation of operating permits, and fines for clean-up costs.

42. Describe the NEPA process. Why is the NEPA process cyclical?

ANSWER: The NEPA process, which generates an environmental policy, follows a particular order: identify an environmental problem, consider the options to address the environmental issue, formulate a course of action to write a law or regulation, adopt the law or regulation, implement the adopted law, and then evaluate the law to determine if changes are needed. It is the evaluation part of the process that determines whether a law or regulation requires revision, which then starts the NEPA process all over again.

43. Which factor(s) influence(s) U.S. environmental policy decision making? a. industry lobbyists b. science c. congressional committees d. industry lobbyists, science, and congressional committees e. only science and congressional committees ANSWER: d 44. What is a disadvantage of the current political lobbying system? a. Well-financed professional lobbyists may disproportionately interfere with policy makers' judgments. b. An individual citizen can share opinions with policy makers. c. It is part of a democratic government. d. All of these answer choices are disadvantages.

ANSWER: a 45. In an ideal world, all policies would be based on: a. sound science. b. professional lobbyists for corporations. c. professional lobbyists for nonprofit organizations. d. a strong public voice. e. congressional committees.

ANSWER: a 46. How do political lobbyists influence the policy making process? a. Lobbyists review sound science and use the results to propose policy. b. Lobbyists contact elected officials in support of a particular position. c. Lobbyists only work for industry corporations to support bills that will benefit the corporations. d. Lobbyists only support regulation of toxic substances to help the environment. e. Lobbyists for the chemical industry govern the decisions of the EPA. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.2 ANSWER: b 47. High-quality science is imperative to sound environmental policy. What does "high-quality science" refer to in this respect? a. strong scientific consensus b. scientific bias c. established scientific need d. peer-reviewed studies e. Peer-reviewed studies and strong scientific consensus, together, refer to high-quality science.

ANSWER: e 48. What is political lobbying? In the United States, how does lobbying affect policy decisions?

ANSWER: As part of the democratic process, political lobbyists contact elected officials in support of a particular position. In the United States, professional lobbying has become highly organized, with substantial financial backing. These finances are often used to contribute to a candidate's election fund in hopes that, if elected, that candidate will support the lobbyist's cause. In addition, money can be used for running ad campaigns that promote the lobbyist's positions to the general public. Some argue that the tremendous growth of lobbying in the United States overwhelms the voice of the individual citizen and potentially interferes with policy makers' judgments.

49. In the United States, government officials selected to regulate an industry are often chosen from a pool of industry executives because they possess detailed knowledge of that industry that other candidates lack and therefore can best regulate it. This arrangement might result in what unintended consequences?

ANSWER: This phenomenon is called the revolving door. Executives from industry are selected to government posts and charged with regulating the very industry from which they once profited. Since election cycles are short-term arrangements, those individuals will likely return to industry once their term concludes. It could be viewed as a conflict of interest to regulate an industry in which an individual has had, or will have in the future, a financial interest.

50. A strong public voice can influence environmental policy changes. Consider the bisphenol-A (BPA) chemical found to be an endocrine disruptor, acting as a hormone in the body. Industries used BPA in manufacturing plastic beverage bottles. How did the public voice win over the industry?

ANSWER: Parents, doctors, scientists, and environmental groups wanted a ban on BPA in plastic bottles and other plastic products because of concerns that exposure to the chemical could interfere with fetal and child development. Industries using BPA proclaimed its long history of safe use and the lack of evidence of direct harm to fetuses and babies. People refused to purchase products containing BPA, and two major retailers (Whole Foods and Walmart) took it off their shelves. This, in turn, forced the industry to respond by reformulating plastic bottles that did not contain BPA. 51. Which of the following is NOT a form of command and control regulation? a. subsidies b. permits to authorize operation c. performance and technology standards d. penalties Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.2 e. None of these answers are a form of command and control regulation.

ANSWER: a 52. _____ taxes refer to taxes levied on an environmentally harmful action. a. Polluter b. Green c. Industrial d. Emission-based e. Eco-based ANSWER: b 53. Which statement is NOT characteristic of command and control regulation? a. It directly changes the behavior of the regulated industry. b. A one-size-fits-all approach may limit some industries' ability to use the most cost-effective methods to address their impact. c. It is a market-based approach. d. Regulatory agencies must have sufficient funding to enforce compliance. e. It provides no incentive for companies to reduce pollution below mandated limits.

ANSWER: c 54. A disadvantage of command and control policy used to protect the environment is: a. the potential for cap-and-trade programs to create pollution hotspots in areas where most users choose to buy credits rather than reduce emissions. b. the potential for perverse subsidies that support undesirable activities. c. passing the cost of green taxes on to the consumer. d. the lack of incentive for companies to reduce pollution below mandated limits. e. the complexity of the concept and the long time required to achieve desired goals.

ANSWER: d 55. An advantage of an economic policy tool approach to protecting the environment is the: a. simplicity of the concept and ability to achieve desired goals quickly. b. ability to change the behavior of the regulated industry directly. c. potential to ban extremely toxic substances through authorization permits. d. widespread citizen support for spending tax dollars to impose emission limits. e. encouragement of innovation for reducing environmental impacts.

ANSWER: e 56. Which approach to protecting the environment is one that is market-based? a. assessing green taxes on pollution produced by a factory—more pollution leads to higher taxes b. tax breaks awarded to industries for carrying out environmentally favorable actions c. permit trading for an environmental pollutant, such as emitted sulfur dioxide Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.2 d. All of these answer choices are market-based approaches.

ANSWER: d 57. Describe how the emissions trading policy, known as cap and trade, is designed to reduce greenhouse gas emissions.

ANSWER: A cap, or upper limit, is placed on the amount of any given greenhouse gas that a company is permitted to emit each year. Credits are earned if the company reduces its emissions below the cap.

The company can then sell or trade those "carbon credits" in the global marketplace. Thus a financial incentive encourages companies to reduce emissions. For companies that are unable to reduce their own emissions, they can still contribute to reductions elsewhere by purchasing carbon credits.

58. Compare command and control regulation with market-based approaches that create economic incentives.

What are some advantages and disadvantages of these policy tools?

ANSWER: Governmental command and control can take several forms, including issuing permits to authorize operations, setting performance and technology standards that regulate emissions, and/or specifying the technology and methods required to reduce pollution. Advantages of this approach are that it directly changes the behavior of the regulated industry. This is simple in concept and may achieve desired outcomes quickly. It is especially effective when the potential for severe environmental or health impact is high and when the level of control is known and uniform across all regulated industries. Disadvantages of command and control are that a one-size-fits-all approach may limit flexibility in how some industries can address their impact. It can be seen as being heavy-handed and providing no incentive for companies to reduce pollution below mandated limits. Regulatory agencies must have sufficient funding to enforce compliance. In contrast, market-based approaches create economic incentives for the private sector to reduce environmentally harmful actions, without dictating exactly how to do it. These incentives include green taxes, subsidies, grants or low-interest loans, and tradable permits (cap and trade). Advantages are that it may be more cost-effective than command and control regulation and may stimulate the economy. It encourages innovation for reducing environmental impact and provides incentives to reduce pollution below requirements.

Disadvantages include the potential for harmful subsidies, the unintentional creation of pollution hotspots through cap-and-trade programs, and the passing on of green tax burdens to consumers.

59. Describe how command and control regulation could be used to decrease gasoline usage in automobiles.

How could incentive-based regulation be used to accomplish the same task?

ANSWER: An example of command and control regulation could be mandating fuel efficiency standards for all newly produced automobiles—for example, setting the standard to 50 miles per gallon. An incentive-based regulation could be to assess a green tax on gasoline that leads to an increase in carpooling.

60. Which group provides input toward how BEST to curb emissions and slow global warming? a. scientists b. environmental activists c. policy makers d. political leaders e. All of these groups provide input on how best to curb emissions and slow global warming.

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Module 05.2 ANSWER: e 61. An effective international policy often requires: a. time and lots of work. b. the identification of specific targets. c. compromise. d. addressing the causes as well as the consequences. e. All of these answer choices are often required for an effective international policy.

ANSWER: e 62. Which statement is TRUE of international environmental policy? a. The process is slow and incremental. b. Many meetings, negotiations, and votes are required. c. Specific targets are identified. d. Science helps to inform policy. e. All of these statements are true of international environmental policy.

ANSWER: e 63. Two countries sign an agreement to protect a species of freshwater fish that are over-harvested in their lakes and rivers. The countries have identified goals that they agree to pursue in a concerted effort to reduce the number of fish harvested to help increase the species' population. What type of international agreement does this represent? a. an environmental impact statement b. a performance standard c. a command and control approach d. a convention e. the Kyoto Protocol ANSWER: d 64. Which international treaty oversees greenhouse gas reduction targets with a goal of keeping global temperature increases below 2℃ relative to preindustrial levels? a. Kyoto Protocol b. UN Framework Convention on Climate Change c. Ramsar Convention d. Montreal Protocol e. Paris Agreement ANSWER: e 65. Describe several characteristics of an effective policy at the international level.

ANSWER: Generally speaking, effective policies at the international level provide benefits across sectors, rather than just for one group or region. In addition, they address causes as well as consequences, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.2 identify specific benchmark targets, and are flexible to accommodate ongoing science-based adaptive management. Finally, successful international policies must have effective enforcement and have buy-in at multiple levels, including government, citizens, industry, and among nations.

66. The president of a country that relies significantly on income from whaling is concerned about declining whale populations. Several other countries are also involved in the whaling industry. What can be done to help ensure sustainable whaling into the future?

ANSWER: A commission could be established that includes members from each of the whaling countries.

Informed by scientific studies that document population declines and future predictions, the commission could agree cooperatively to take steps toward avoiding an industry collapse. For example, they could ban whaling in certain "hotspot" areas and/or set harvest quotas. As an international policy, enforcement will likely be limited to trade sanctions levied against countries that violate the agreements.

67. Discuss some of the difficulties involved in achieving signatory party compliance with international environmental agreements.

ANSWER: Countries that sign an international environmental agreement must keep their word and adhere to the terms laid out in the agreement. There are mechanisms for tracking a country's compliance, but agreements may also include conciliation (reducing targets or goals) and negotiation or arbitration, which redefines responsibilities. Sometimes economic and/or technological assistance is included to help a nation comply. However, few international agreements have the power to enforce the agreement or to punish countries that fail to keep their word. Incentives, as well as disincentives (i.e., monetary penalties, trade sanctions, etc.), can help participating countries adhere to the terms.

If a country is not fully invested in the terms laid out in the agreement, then all of these mechanisms may be ineffective.

68. The 1987 Montréal Protocol involved the regulation of: a. ozone-depleting substances. b. global warming. c. whaling. d. endangered species. e. overfishing.

ANSWER: a 69. Reentering the policy cycle for revision as new or changing information comes to light is known as: a. adaptive management. b. lobbying. c. circulation. d. evolving management. e. revolving management.

ANSWER: a 70. Prior to the 1987 Montréal Protocol, there existed some uncertainty in the scientific community as to the magnitude of ozone depletion caused by CFCs in the atmosphere. Nevertheless, the protocol did recommend Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.2 phasing out CFCs from refrigerants and other uses because the potential consequences of not doing so were so severe. This is an example of applying the _____ principle. a. uncertainty b. guilty-until-proven-innocent c. precautionary d. utopian e. adaptive management ANSWER: c 71. Which international agreement phased out CFCs and other stratospheric ODSs? a. London Amendment b. Beijing Amendment c. Kigali Amendment d. Montréal Protocol e. Montréal Protocol, London Amendment, Beijing Amendment, and Kigali Amendment all refer to phasing out stratospheric ODSs ANSWER: e 72. What is the precautionary principle? How can it be used to shape policy regarding the recent changes in global climate attributed to human activity?

ANSWER: The precautionary principle leads to acting in a way that leaves a safety margin when the data are uncertain or when severe consequences are possible. In the case of climate change, the scientific consensus is that increased atmospheric greenhouse gases, because of combustion of fossil fuels and deforestation, are driving the recent changes in global climate. Scientists project that these changes will have severe consequences and immediate action to reduce emissions is necessary, despite opposition from those who disagree with the science and/or the politics surrounding the issue.

73. More than ten years after the international agreement to remove CFCs in the stratosphere, scientists have seen the scientific evidence that the agreement is working with respect to the ozone hole above Antarctica.

What is the scientific evidence, and what does the data suggest has happened?

ANSWER: In Antarctica, the rate of ozone thinning has slowed down, stabilized, and has begun to reverse.

There is an observable increase of ozone in the area where the ozone hole was located (over most of the Antarctic continent). According to the scientists monitoring the ozone hole, data suggests that it is "healing," and they are projecting the ozone hole will fully recover by 2050.

74. What is the connection between ozone depletion and climate change?

ANSWER: CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) are also greenhouse gases, which are atmospheric molecules that trap heat and are part of the global warming issue. The dilemma is that while CFCs are being phased out due to causing ozone depletion in the stratosphere, their replacements—HFCs (hydrofluorocarbons) and HCFCs (hydrochlorofluorocarbons)—are stronger greenhouse gases than the CFCs. Basically, the steps taken to remove ozone-depleting substances has, unfortunately, increased climate change.

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Module 05.3 1. Tiny bits of plastic gather in specific areas of the world's oceans where strong currents circle around areas with very weak, or even no, currents. These regions are called: a. eddies. b. gyres. c. pods. d. waterfills. e. neuston layers.

ANSWER: b 2. Waste is: a. anything that humans do not deem valuable to survival. b. a human term used to describe things we throw away. c. any discarded item that can be naturally degraded in the environment. d. common in natural ecosystems. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: b 3. Why is there no such thing as waste in natural, nonhuman ecosystems? a. There is not enough consumption to produce waste. b. The discarded matter of one organism becomes the resources for another. c. All organisms reuse their own discarded matter. d. One niche in every ecosystem consumes all waste from other ecosystems. e. Waste does exist in natural ecosystems; we just can't see it.

ANSWER: b 4. Matter can be neither created nor destroyed; it only changes form. This is the law of: a. conservation of energy. b. waste management. c. conservation of matter. d. no returns. e. sustainability.

ANSWER: c 5. Why can't we permanently get rid of the waste we generate? a. It is illegal to dump waste in the oceans. b. Most states prohibit the burning of waste. c. It would violate the law of conservation of matter. d. Disposal costs are prohibitive. e. None of these choices answer the question.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.3 6. What are the characteristics of something that is nondegradable? a. It does not degrade in normal atmospheric conditions. b. It is mostly synthetic molecules. c. It is chemically stable. d. It cannot be broken down by naturally occurring enzymes. e. All of these choices are nondegradable characteristics.

ANSWER: e 7. A manufacturer of potato chips claims that its packaging can be broken down by living organisms. This packaging is considered: a. industrial waste. b. nondegradable. c. biodegradable. d. All of these choices fit the description. e. None of these choices fits the description.

ANSWER: c 8. Why are take-back laws important for waste management? a. They encourage companies to design products that can be reused. b. They encourage companies to produce fewer products. c. They discourage consumers from buying products. d. They require companies to create products using all biodegradable materials. e. They outlaw using nondegradable materials in products.

ANSWER: a 9. Which statement about solid waste is TRUE? a. It is found in natural ecosystems. b. Synthetic molecules such as DDT and CFCs are easily biodegradable. c. Most plastic waste degrades quickly in any environment. d. Humans use matter in a linear manner. e. The best way to keep garbage out of the ocean is to throw it away somewhere else.

ANSWER: d 10. This picture shows people scavenging Cambodia's municipal garbage dump. What does their presence there imply about what has been thrown away?

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ANSWER: The presence of people at the landfill implies that items of worth (which could be reused or recycled) have been thrown away. People work around the clock collecting plastic, metals, wood, cloth, and paper, which they can sell to recyclers. Developed countries, in particular, throw away items that could be reused or recycled, but growing consumption in developing countries is also increasing the volume of solid waste generated there.

11. What is the difference between degradable and biodegradable waste?

ANSWER: Both degradable and biodegradable waste can be broken down. The difference between the two depends on what is doing the degrading. Biodegradable waste can be broken down by organisms, such as bacteria and fungi. Waste that can be broken down by chemicals or physical wearing is considered degradable, but not biodegradable, since organisms cannot process this type of waste.

12. Even though a banana peel is biodegradable and is typically broken down at rapid rates, if you bury the peel deep within a landfill, it takes much longer to degrade. Why is this?

ANSWER: By burying the banana peel deep in a landfill, you are effectively preventing the rapid degradation of it by removing the necessary ingredients of decomposition: oxygen, water, and microorganisms.

The absence, or reduced presence, of these components draws out the degradation period far longer than if the banana peel were exposed to an abundance of all three.

13. Many states in the United States have take-back laws that require manufacturers to take back some of their products (such as computers) after consumers have finished with them. How does this encourage companies to rethink their product design?

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Module 05.3 ANSWER: Since companies have to take back their products, they will have a cost associated with this.

Manufacturers are taking into consideration reuse potential when they design products from which components can easily be salvaged and reused, incurring a smaller cost.

14. In the United States, 91% to 97% of all garbage is categorized as _____ waste. a. recycled paper b. mining c. municipal paper d. agricultural, mining, and industrial e. municipal metal ANSWER: d 15. Everyday garbage or trash (solid waste) produced by individuals or small businesses is known as: a. municipal solid waste. b. industrial solid waste. c. hazardous waste. d. biodegradable. e. nondegradable.

ANSWER: a 16. In 2015 alone, each American produced about _____ pounds of solid waste per day. a. 0.5 b. 2.5 c. 3.2 d. 4.5 e. 10 ANSWER: d 17. Per capita, Americans produce _____ amount of solid waste produced by most less-developed countries. a. half the b. the same c. twice the d. 10 times the e. 100 times the ANSWER: d 18. Refer to the infographic. In 2015, what made up the HIGHEST percentage of total U.S. MSW before recycling?

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a. yard trimmings b. food c. plastic d. paper e. metal ANSWER: d 19. The amount of solid waste produced each year by urban dwellers is expected to _____ by 2025. a. stay the same b. decrease c. double d. triple e. quadruple ANSWER: c 20. Refer to the infographic. The pie chart shows components of U.S. municipal solid waste. For each component, describe what can be done to avoid disposal at a sanitary landfill.

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ANSWER: Paper products, plastics, metals, and glass can all be recycled. Food and yard trimmings can be composted. At waste-to-energy facilities, the paper products and other burnable items can be combusted for energy.

21. The per capita (per person) rate of trash is positively correlated with the income level of a country. Describe what this correlation means, including the relationship between the variables.

ANSWER: A positive correlation refers to the variables in a study moving in the same direction. When one variable increases, the other variable also increases. In this case, the variables are the per capita rate of trash generation and the income level of a country. With this in mind, the positive correlation tells us that as the income level of a country increases, the per capita (per person) rate of trash generation also increases.

22. According to the textbook, plastic production doubles every 11 years. There are many problems with plastic after it has been discarded; however, there are good reasons to use plastic. Discuss some plastic products that are of beneficial use.

ANSWER: Helmets made with plastic are strong, yet light, which would reduce the weight on an individual’s head. Car parts made from plastic are extremely durable and help vehicles become more energyefficient because they decrease the overall weight of the vehicle. Medical plastics (i.e., syringes, catheters, IV tubes, etc.) reduce the risk of infection since they are only used once, and artificial limbs are much lighter and flexible compared to wood or steel.

23. What is the North Atlantic Garbage Patch? a. an area where garbage gets dumped into the Atlantic Ocean b. an area with high densities of plastic in the Atlantic Ocean c. a giant plastic island in the Atlantic Ocean d. an island of waste that will be taken to the Atlantic Ocean e. an area where waste can be biodegraded by the Atlantic Ocean ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.3 24. Which example illustrates an ecological concern regarding plastics in the oceans? a. Sea mammals can get tangled in discarded plastic items, such as fishing nets and six-pack rings. b. Seabirds eat plastic, mistaking it for food, and may end up choking on the plastic. c. Plastic absorbs fat-soluble pollutants such as PCBs and DDT; these are toxins known to bioaccumulate in the tissues of marine organisms and biomagnify up food chains. d. Floating bits of plastic can serve as attachment points for fish eggs, barnacles, and many types of larval and juvenile organisms, and thus they could potentially transport harmful, invasive species to new locales. e. All of these examples are concerns regarding plastics in the oceans.

ANSWER: e 25. What happens to waste when a country does not have a formal waste disposal system? a. It ends up sitting on the street. b. It is placed in an open dump site. c. It gets thrown into a nearby body of water. d. People will burn their trash. e. All of these are unsafe waste disposal practices.

ANSWER: e 26. Regions of the ocean where weak currents are surrounded by stronger currents are known as _____. a. patches b. eddies c. floating islands d. gyres e. ocean cycles ANSWER: d 27. Aquatic ecosystems are considered particularly vulnerable to plastic waste. Describe four ways that plastic waste can affect aquatic species and ecosystems.

ANSWER: Four ways that plastic waste can affect aquatic species and ecosystems are: (1) sea mammals can die due to entanglement in discarded plastic items, such as fishing nets and six-pack rings; (2) sea birds and mammals often eat plastic, mistaking it for food, and may end up choking on the plastic or dying due to starvation because their digestive system gets clogged with the plastic waste; (3) plastic absorbs fat-soluble pollutants such as PCBs and DDT, toxins that are known to bioaccumulate in the tissues of marine organisms and biomagnify up food chains; and (4) floating bits of plastic can serve as attachment points for fish eggs, barnacles, and many types of larval and juvenile organisms, and thus can potentially transport harmful, invasive species to new locales.

28. Explain what can happen when trash is left on the street or ignored, in less developed countries.

ANSWER: When less developed countries do not have a formal waste disposal system in place, trash is often left on the streets or ignored. This trash will eventually block storm drains, and when it rains, the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.3 water has no outlet, and flooding can occur. With puddles of water forming everywhere, it attracts mosquitoes, flies, and rodents. All of these pests carry diseases that pose a health risk to humans.

29. Plastic contains toxic chemicals that can harm organisms, including hormone-like compounds. What type of problems can happen to organisms that ingest plastics containing estrogen-like compounds?

ANSWER: Estrogen is a hormone involved in the regulation and maintenance of the reproductive system.

Therefore, plastics that contain estrogen-like substances may interfere with the reproduction or development of organisms that ingest these substances or that are exposed to them. In one study, scientists discovered that polystyrene microbeads caused copepods to not feed, grow, or reproduce.

If these tiny crustaceans did reproduce, their eggs were much smaller, meaning they were unlikely to hatch.

30. The majority of municipal solid waste produced in the United States ends up being: a. recycled b. composted c. incinerated d. landfilled e. reused ANSWER: d 31. Currently, 53% of our waste is put into landfills. According to the EPA, which of the following shows available waste management techniques in order of most preferred to least preferred? a. recycling/compost, incineration with energy capture, source reduction/reuse, landfilling b. source reduction/reuse, recycling/composting, incineration with energy capture, landfilling c. landfilling, recycling/composting, incineration with energy capture, source reduction/reuse d. source reduction/reuse, incineration with energy capture, recycling/composting, incineration without energy capture e. recycling/composting, source reduction/reuse, landfilling ANSWER: b 32. One of the cheapest and most common methods of handling solid wastes in developing countries is: a. sanitary landfills. b. incinerators. c. recycling. d. open dumps. e. composting.

ANSWER: d 33. Sanitary landfills are commonly used in the United States to manage solid waste. Since decomposition in sanitary landfills relies upon anaerobic bacteria (those that live in oxygen-poor environments), a large amount of the greenhouse gas _____ is produced. a. methane Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.3 b. carbon dioxide c. oxygen d. nitrogen e. sulfur ANSWER: a 34. Hazardous and nonhazardous wastes in developing countries often end up in open dumps. Which statement is FALSE regarding open dumps? a. Open dumps attract pests such as flies and rats. b. Leachate from open dumps can contaminate groundwater. c. Sanitary landfills and open dumps are essentially the same thing. d. Open dumps are one of the cheapest ways to get rid of human trash. e. All of these statements regarding open dumps are correct.

ANSWER: c 35. Match the waste management method to its potential harm to ecosystems. a. landfills — disposal of hazardous waste, such as e-waste, batteries, and light bulbs b. incineration — production of methane, a greenhouse gas c. ocean dumping — toxic ash as waste breaks down under sunlight d. composting — thermal (heat) pollution in local waterways e. recycling — release of hazardous waste due to combustion of recyclable material ANSWER: a 36. Waste that is not disposed of correctly may end up in the oceans. How can we reduce the amount of waste that ends up in the oceans?

ANSWER: Through the practices of recycling, composting, and source reduction and reusing, the amount of waste being generated can be reduced. Additionally, biodegradable material can be used to replace plastics, which are a key source of pollution in the ocean.

37. It has been shown that a bottle deposit significantly reduces the amount of plastic or glass bottles and aluminum cans that end up in a landfill. Not all states have a bottle deposit. What would be the benefits of having a bottle deposit in all states?

ANSWER: Landfills are expensive to construct and maintain, and the more recycling that can be done to reduce the amount of material being sent to the landfill, the more the life of the landfill will be extended.

Additionally, recycling helps to prevent degradation of the environment (for example, not needing to mine for as much raw material to produce aluminum and cleaner roadsides from less litter) and can create jobs in the recycling industry. Financial incentives are a powerful driver of recycling.

38. Refer to the infographic. From the diagram of a sanitary landfill, describe potential environmental issues associated with landfills and what steps are taken to protect the environment.

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ANSWER: Leachate (contaminated liquid) must be prevented from leaking into the surrounding soil and groundwater. This is accomplished with layers of plastic and impermeable clay. In addition, the leachate is collected and treated. If too little liquid is available, conditions for decomposition by bacteria suffer, so this must be monitored carefully. Layers of dirt prevent pests and odors from accumulating in the landfill. Anaerobic bacteria (those that survive with little oxygen) produce methane as a by-product of breaking down organic waste. This methane is a potent greenhouse gas.

It is collected and combusted for energy.

39. Incinerators reduce the volume of solid waste by about: a. 10% to 20%. b. 30% to 40%. c. 50% to 60%. d. 70% to 80%.

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Module 05.3 e. 80% to 90%.

ANSWER: e 40. Incineration of waste reduces its volume dramatically, which is good. What are problems associated with this practice? a. the creation of air pollution b. the creation of water pollution c. the production of toxic solid waste d. the cost of incinerators e. All of these are problems associated with waste incinerators.

ANSWER: e 41. When waste incinerators are utilized in a community, they are often met with ____ protests. a. NEPA b. take-make-discard c. NIMBY d. EPA e. environmental justice ANSWER: c 42. Describe the pros and cons of a waste-to-energy incinerator.

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ANSWER: Incinerators reduce the volume of solid waste by 80% to 90%. This means much less waste is sent to sanitary landfills, which require money to create and maintain, as well as using valuable land. In addition, under high temperatures, the burnable portion of the solid waste is combusted for energy.

This means less coal is required to produce electricity (and less environmental damage from mining coal and combusting coal, which sends off more heat, trapping carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, as well as other pollutants). Conversely, combustion of some materials in trash produces toxic chemicals that can escape into the air. To lessen that, filters are used to remove chemicals and particulate matter before they reach the smokestacks. Also, the ash produced could be toxic and would need to be treated as hazardous materials. Finally, incinerators have high start-up costs.

43. What are the potential environmental consequences of disposing of waste via landfilling and incineration?

What systems exist in each disposal method to try and prevent these potential problems?

ANSWER: Landfilling involves burying waste in the ground. The two main environmental consequences of landfills are groundwater pollution from leachate and air pollution from methane. In an effort to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.3 prevent leachate from depositing toxins into groundwater under the landfill, several protective layers of gravel, soil, and thick plastic seal the waste from below. Newer landfills also have leachatecollection systems whereby the leachate is extracted from the landfill and treated before being released into the environment. Landfills also produce methane as a result of anaerobic decomposition (since the compacted and sealed trash is deprived of oxygen), and that makes them a significant contributor of this potent greenhouse gas. In some landfills, the methane is captured and burned to generate electricity. Incinerators burn waste, and that pollutes the air and produces toxic ash. Air-cleaning systems installed in incinerators remove some of the air pollutants, such as particulates, sulfur, nitrogen, and toxic pollutants like mercury and dioxins. The ash, since it is considered toxic, must be buried in specially designed hazardous waste landfills.

44. Refer to Infographic 5. Describe how an incinerator works, beginning with dumping the waste into a trash bunker, and ending with the smokestack.

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Module 05.3

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Module 05.3 45. Match the waste management method to its potential harm to ecosystems. a. landfills — disposal of hazardous waste, such as e-waste, batteries, and some light bulbs b. incineration — production of methane, a greenhouse gas c. ocean dumping — toxic ash as waste breaks down under sunlight d. composting — thermal (heat) pollution in local waterways e. recycling — release of hazardous waste due to combustion of recyclable material ANSWER: a 46. Hazardous waste is: a. any material that humans deem to be unwanted. b. everyday garbage or trash produced by individuals or small businesses. c. waste that is capable of being broken down by living organisms. d. waste that is incapable of being broken down under normal conditions. e. waste that is toxic, flammable, corrosive, explosive, or radioactive.

ANSWER: e 47. Which example is NOT considered hazardous waste? a. pesticides b. automotive oil c. plastic bottles d. e-waste e. compact fluorescent light bulbs ANSWER: c 48. What is the MOST appropriate way to handle hazardous waste? a. incinerate it, as burning eliminates all toxic waste b. landfill it, as leachate contains the hazardous waste and prevents it from contaminating ground water c. dump it in the ocean, as the volume of water dilutes the waste, essentially making it nonhazardous d. send it to developing countries in Africa, as they have developed methods of extracting the valuable components of such waste without causing harm to the workers e. None of these answer choices is an appropriate way to handle hazardous waste.

ANSWER: e 49. When e-waste is improperly recycled, toxic metals can be released; this can include: a. lead. b. mercury. c. chromium. d. lead, mercury, and chromium. e. lead and mercury.

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Module 05.3 50. _____ waste is harmful to humans; it is toxic, flammable, corrosive, explosive, and/or radioactive. a. Biodegradable b. Sanitary landfill c. Municipal d. Hazardous e. Industrial ANSWER: d 51. What is hazardous waste, and why is it considered to be problematic? Discuss two ways the average person can reduce their contribution to the potential problems caused by hazardous waste.

ANSWER: Hazardous waste is waste that is toxic, flammable, corrosive, explosive, or radioactive. Due to its nature (that is, being poisonous, flammable, and so on), such waste is considered problematic, as it can be harmful to ecological well-being (by polluting air, water, and soil) and thus to human health as well. The best way to reduce one's contribution to the potential problems caused by hazardous waste is to avoid the use of hazardous materials. So, for example, use nontoxic cleaning agents or avoid using pesticides by managing pests using more natural methods. In some instances, we cannot avoid using things that are hazardous or contain hazardous components, such as motor oil, batteries, or electronics. In these cases, safe and responsible recycling and disposal of these items is the best way to reduce potential problems.

52. What is e-waste? Explain why recycling e-waste is a better idea than simply burying it in a hazardous waste landfill. What are the concerns with such recycling efforts?

ANSWER: Unwanted electronic devices, such as computers, televisions, and cell phones that are discarded are referred to as e-waste. These items have many components in them that are valuable, such as precious metals gold, copper, and zinc, and it only makes sense to recover these resources.

However, e-waste also contains a suite of toxic metals, such as lead, mercury, and chromium, which, if released due to unsafe and poor extraction methods, can contaminate the soil, air, and water surrounding e-waste disposal sites. These toxic metals can also cause a wide range of health problems, including birth defects, organ damage, and cancer.

53. Often, humans use hazardous materials without even knowing that the products they are using are harmful.

What are some products that qualify as household hazardous waste? What efforts do you think should be made to make people more aware of the products they are using and how they should properly dispose of these products?

ANSWER: Some examples of household hazardous waste are bug killers, paint thinners and strippers, automobile oil, oven cleaner, and certain batteries. Proper disposal of these items is extremely important. Governments should require labels on all hazardous materials specifying them as such and should facilitate proper recycling and disposal for the public. Companies should clearly state in instructions and advertisements if their product could be harmful to humans and how to dispose of such products in a safe manner.

54. Hazardous waste affects not only humans but also other living organisms in a variety of ecosystems when disposed of improperly. Explain how hazardous waste can affect different organisms and why it is important to reduce human use of these products.

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Module 05.3 ANSWER: Disposing of hazardous waste improperly can cause animals to ingest this waste, causing bioaccumulation of fat-soluble chemicals in organisms and biomagnification along food chains, which may eventually reach dangerous levels in top predators and humans. Some animals die due to ingestion of certain chemicals. Hazardous wastes can also reduce air quality for all organisms if they are incinerated. We can lessen these concerns by limiting our use of products that become hazardous waste by using alternative eco-friendly products whenever possible. It is essential to dispose of hazardous waste correctly because all levels of organisms are directly and indirectly affected by their pollution.

55. Which waste and waste management techniques are best matched up so as to cause the LEAST harm to ecosystems? a. aluminum cans — incinerating b. pesticides — dumping in waterways c. paper waste — open dumps d. yard waste — composting e. e-waste — landfilling ANSWER: d 56. Which material can be composted? a. paper b. old cell phones c. plastic d. batteries e. fluorescent light bulbs ANSWER: a 57. Which statement is TRUE of composting? a. It works on biodegradable and nondegradable trash. b. It can be done only on a small scale at present. c. It can turn some trash into soil-like mulch. d. It is an unnatural way to deal with trash. e. It uses industrial chemicals that can be hazardous.

ANSWER: c 58. Which material should NOT be added to a compost pile? a. pet waste b. livestock manure c. paper d. dead leaves e. All of these materials could be added to a compost pile.

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Module 05.3 59. What is the process of allowing waste to biologically decompose in the presence of oxygen and water? a. bioaccumulation b. composting c. recycling d. eutrophication e. hypoxia ANSWER: b 60. Municipal composters can turn household trash into compost in just a few days, and it is fully cured in a few weeks to use as mulch in gardens or landscaping. Describe the process in detail.

ANSWER: Household trash, such as food waste, packaging, and other biodegradable materials, are placed in a rotating ingester. The ingester is a huge, cylindrical container that continuously rotates to prevent the material from compacting and to keep the waste moving. The waste material is exposed to the ideal temperature, air, and moisture conditions, which accelerates the composting process. Sewage sludge can be added for its bacterial content, and it also speeds up composting. After a few days, the compost is removed from the ingester and piled up in a sheltered location to fully cure. The curing process takes just a few weeks before the mulch is ready to be used in gardens and landscapes.

61. When home composting, what materials should be avoided and why should they be avoided?

ANSWER: Some materials, such as meat scraps, bones, cooking oil, and pet waste, should be avoided when making a home compost pile. These waste products do not break down at the same rate as other biodegradable materials, and they will also attract unwanted wildlife and pests (i.e., flies).

62. A soup company wants to reduce the waste associated with its soup packaging. Which option would help it to accomplish this goal? a. Make the soup out of organically grown vegetables. b. Encourage consumers to burn the soup cans as a source of heat. c. Package the soup in reusable glass containers. d. Encourage the location of landfills in communities near the factory so that the surplus soup ingredients and packaging materials can be landfilled locally. e. Package the soup in smaller cans.

ANSWER: c 63. Choosing to buy goods with minimal packaging is an example of: a. refusing. b. reducing. c. reusing. d. recycling. e. demanufacturing.

ANSWER: b 64. Declining to take a plastic bag for a few items purchased at a store is an example of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.3 a. refusing. b. reducing. c. reusing. d. recycling. e. demanufacturing.

ANSWER: a 65. Composting kitchen and yard waste is an example of: a. refusing. b. reducing. c. reusing. d. recycling. e. demanufacturing.

ANSWER: b 66. The four Rs to help an individual limit waste production are: a. reclaim, rename, retake, and recycle. b. recycle, recycle, recycle, and recycle. c. ratify, rectify, remedy, and reframe. d. refuse, reduce, reuse, and recycle. e. revamp, retrofit, reduce, and regulation.

ANSWER: d 67. Which example is NOT a way to personally reduce your solid waste production? a. filling a canteen instead of using plastic water bottles b. buying goods with minimal packaging c. composting kitchen and yard wastes d. buying organic foods from developing countries e. reusing plastic shopping bags for household chores ANSWER: d 68. Consumers can decrease the amount of landfilled solid waste by: a. refusing to purchase products that contribute to solid waste generation. b. purchasing goods with minimal packaging. c. finding ways to reuse materials instead of purchasing new ones. d. actively recycling materials. e. All of these choices will decrease the amount of landfilled solid waste.

ANSWER: e 69. What everyday changes can you make to reduce the amount of waste you produce?

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Module 05.3 ANSWER: To reduce the amount of waste you produce, you need to follow the four Rs: reduce, reuse, reuse, and recycle. By following these four simple guidelines, you can significantly reduce the amount of waste you produce.

70. Refer to the infographic. What options do consumers have for disposing of their waste, and which options are the most environmentally friendly?

ANSWER: Typically, there are three options available to deal with solid waste produced by individuals. The waste can be disposed of in landfills, it can be recycled, or it can be reused. To minimize their Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.3 ecological footprint, consumers should first attempt to reuse their waste, like reusing plastic bags from the grocery store before disposing of them. Next, the consumer should attempt to recycle their products, like newspapers that could be recycled to make new newspapers. Finally, once all other options are exhausted, the consumer can get rid of their waste in sanitary landfills.

71. At the grocery store, you are faced with a dilemma. Which container of milk is the most eco-friendly (plastic, paperboard, or glass)? Discuss impacts and trade-offs for each type.

ANSWER: Plastic containers require petroleum for manufacturing. Plastic can be recycled. If you have to purchase milk in a plastic container, choose the larger gallon size instead of smaller containers, which require more plastic. Paperboard cartons tend to be smaller sizes (half gallon), so you would need to purchase more of them compared to a gallon plastic jug. Not all municipal recycling programs accept paperboard, so you'll need to check if it can be recycled in your area. Alternatively, some municipal waste programs accept paperboard for composting. The glass bottle is refillable. It takes less energy to clean and refill a glass bottle than recycle plastic or paperboard. In most cases, a refundable deposit is required on glass bottles, so this cost could be prohibitive in some cases. As long as the glass bottle is reused/recycled and the cost and availability work for consumers, it seems to be the best choice. The second best choice is the paperboard container, since it can be composted or recycled and is made from a renewable source (not fossil fuels).

72. What are the three required steps of recycling? Which step drives the entire process and is therefore most important?

ANSWER: The three required steps of recycling are (1) collection of recyclable materials, (2) production of goods using those recycled materials, and (3) consumer purchase of goods made with recycled materials. The third step is the most critical and drives the entire process. If consumers do not purchase goods made with recycled materials, industries will not manufacture them. If the industry does not produce goods made with recycled materials, there is no drive to collect them in the first place.

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Module 05.1 1. What is meant by the term sustainable? a. capable of being continued indefinitely b. consuming more than the environment is able to renew c. not caring about resources future generations need d. following the law in terms of the environment e. making less expensive products for consumers ANSWER: a 2. Which example would NOT be considered an ecosystem service? a. oxygen provided by green plants b. timber from trees c. pollination of crops d. nitrogen cycling in soil e. water purification ANSWER: b 3. Refer to Infographic 1. What is the approximate value of services that affect human provisions?

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Module 05.1 a. $136 billion b. $502 billion c. $673 billion d. $809 billion e. $1,498 billion ANSWER: d 4. Why is the production of some ecosystem services considered priceless? a. No one can afford to do it. b. No one knows what it costs. c. There currently are no substitutes for these services. d. The technology to do these things is very expensive. e. They require large amounts of fossil fuels.

ANSWER: c 5. Which statement is NOT an important reason to maintain an intact ecosystem? a. An intact ecosystem provides numerous ecosystem services. b. An intact ecosystem can renew and recycle resources. c. If we use more resources and goods than the ecosystem can replenish, we will not be able to receive these goods and services. d. Our future health and well-being will be threatened. e. All of these choices are important reasons to maintain intact ecosystems.

ANSWER: e 6. Refer to Infographic 1. Which example might be considered a "cultural use" of an ecosystem?

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a. bees pollinating cherry trees b. an open field and nearby forest used for a Civil War reenactment c. carbon moving from a tree to a caterpillar to a bird to the soil d. water percolating through soil in a wetland e. rocks being weathered by the wind ANSWER: b 7. Which example is NOT an ecosystem service? a. water purification b. crop pollination c. soil formation d. landfilling waste e. pest control ANSWER: d 8. Refer to Infographic 1. Which ecosystem service is considered to be the MOST valuable to us?

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a. water supply b. habitat c. recreation d. food production e. genetic resources ANSWER: d 9. An essential ecological process that makes life on Earth possible is called: a. sustainable development. b. an ecosystem service. c. biomagnification. d. an economic system. e. the triple bottom line.

ANSWER: b 10. Refer to Infographic 1. What does the figure show?

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a. the cost to restore a degraded ecosystem for particular ecosystem services b. ecosystem maintenance costs that provide continued ecosystem services c. the monetary value ascribed to particular ecosystem services d. the ecological footprint value of specific ecosystem services e. the cost differential between natural capital and natural interest ANSWER: c 11. The government must decide if a section of forest in north Wisconsin can be sold for lumber or if it should be added to the Nicolet National Forest. The social science that deals with how this resource should be allocated is called: a. political science. b. economics. c. ecology. d. sociology.

ANSWER: b 12. Which action would NOT threaten Earth's ability to provide ecosystem goods and services? a. recycling Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.1 b. deforestation c. overfishing d. soil erosion e. littering ANSWER: a 13. A forest provides _____ in climate regulation and _____ in plant-based pharmaceutical drugs. a. an ecological footprint; per capita resource b. green space; an ecological footprint c. landscape conservation; a key component d. triple bottom line; economic system e. an ecosystem service; ecosystem goods ANSWER: e 14. Why would nutrient cycling be considered such a valuable ecosystem service to humans?

ANSWER: Earth has only a limited supply of nutrients, such as carbon, phosphorus, nitrogen, and oxygen. If these nutrients are locked up in rocks, can't be obtained from the atmosphere, or are deep in the oceans, they are not available to us. All living organisms need these nutrients. Therefore, the cycling of these nutrients from atmosphere to lithosphere to hydrosphere, and, of course, to biosphere is essential to life on Earth.

15. Refer to Infographic 1. Why is it useful to put a monetary value on ecosystem services?

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ANSWER: Humans, especially those in industry, government, and other positions of power, need to realize how valuable preserving ecosystems and organisms is. Many people think only in dollars and cents.

Putting a monetary value on these services may help people realize that preserving ecosystems isn't just a nice thing to do. They need to see that even though they think destroying the ecosystem might make them more money, in actuality, destroying it will cost society money in the long run.

16. What is the monetary value attributed to essential ecosystem services? Who calculated this value, and why is it useful?

ANSWER: According to the work of Robert Constanza, an ecological economist at the University of Vermont, the value of ecosystem services was quantified to be more than $33 trillion (in 1994 dollars), or $44 trillion (in 2009 dollars). Placing a monetary value on ecosystem services allows us to understand that ecosystems provide us with valuable, sometimes irreplaceable, services.

17. While placing a monetary value on ecosystem services can help us to understand that ecosystems provide us with valuable services, critics say that it is dangerous to put a price on ecosystem services. What are the limitations of such valuation of ecosystems?

ANSWER: The valuation of ecosystems has two major limitations. For one, the figures are considered to be gross underestimates, especially for services that are hard to quantify, like habitat and genetic resources, or for services that are priceless because there are no substitutes, such as the oxygen produced by green plants, which we need in order to survive. Second, the value of ecosystem Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.1 services assumes intact and functioning ecosystems. When we degrade ecosystems, we reduce their ability to provide these services, and thus the value of those ecosystems is diminished as well.

18. Discuss how the ecosystem service of pollination benefits humans.

ANSWER: Many plants, such as fruit trees, berries, flowers, and some crops, need insects, bats, or other organisms to pollinate them. Without this service, the plants wouldn't bear fruit or seeds, and we wouldn't have them available to eat or enjoy.

19. _____ for a country is the amount of land needed to provide its resources and assimilate its waste. a. Sustainability b. A physical footprint c. An ecological footprint d. Ecosystem degradation e. An ecosystem service ANSWER: c 20. If everyone lived like the average person in the United States, we would need the landmass of _____ Earths to sustain everyone. a. 2 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 e. 15 ANSWER: b 21. What purpose does an ecological footprint serve? a. It quantifies the impact humans have on the environment. b. It measures ecosystem services. c. It calculates ecosystem degradation. d. It identifies actions to increase human impact in the environment. e. The ecological footprint serves all of these purposes.

ANSWER: a 22. An ecological footprint is usually expressed in terms of _____. a. ecosystem degradation quantities. b. per capita value. c. replenished resources. d. the land mass of the ecosystem. e. the human population within the footprint.

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Module 05.1 23. Of the next billion people added to Earth, over 99% will be born in less developed, poorer parts of the world. Is it fair to say that the overall impact of humans on the environment is mostly the fault of developing countries? Explain.

ANSWER: Although rapidly growing populations in developing countries do increase the impact on the environment, slower growing populations in more affluent countries use many more resources and generate much more waste. This effect is evident in the much larger per capita ecological footprints in wealthier nations.

24. A naturally sustainable ecosystem is one that is intact. What do ecosystems rely on to maintain sustainability?

ANSWER: A naturally sustainable ecosystem relies on renewable resources as it supplies ecosystem services to the surrounding environment. Providing ecosystem services helps to replenish and recycle renewable resources.

25. If a car company manufactures an electric car made of recycled and bio-based components and powers the car battery by leasing solar panels to its customers, then what happens? a. The car would not be considered a sustainable business. b. The manufacturing system discounts the future value of the car. c. I = (P × A)/T instead of I = P × A × T. d. The process exclusively reflects a product-oriented economy. e. The car cannot be given an ecolabel.

ANSWER: c 26. What three factors are multiplied in the IPAT model to gauge a population's ecological footprint? a. predisposition, annual income, and taxation b. population growth, agriculture, and textiles c. perception, action, and time d. population, affluence, and technology e. people, animals, and technology ANSWER: d 27. The IPAT equation is used to estimate the size of a population's ecological footprint. Which factor is NOT found in that equation? a. productivity b. affluence c. technology d. population e. Technology and population are not found in the IPAT equation.

ANSWER: a 28. Based on the IPAT model, all of the following affect our ecological footprint, EXCEPT: a. using windmills as an energy source.

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Module 05.1 b. developing products using recycled material. c. population increase. d. diverting material from landfills. e. poverty increase.

ANSWER: e 29. Compare and contrast technology as a variable that increases and decreases a population's overall impact.

ANSWER: Technology could increase a population's overall impact by introducing new technology, like gasoline engines or the ability to extract oil from sand in fossil fuel production. These actions increase the impact humans have on the environment by increasing the amount of pollution released into the environment, destruction of ecosystems, and so on. Conversely, technology may also reduce the impact that humans have on the environment if the technology prevents harmful actions, like the technology to harvest oil from algae or improve the harnessing of energy from wind.

30. Explain why the founder of Interface Carpet, Ray Anderson, refers to his company as a "restorative enterprise."

ANSWER: To create a sustainable, environmentally sound business, Anderson realized his company needed to make changes to the way they produced their carpet tiles. His company's goal was to eliminate any negative impact their carpet tile manufacturing process created on the environment and to turn it around to have a positive environmental impact. They began using recycled material to make single carpet tiles and plant-based oils to make an adhesive tape backing for the tiles. The company wanted to decrease the number of ecosystem resources they were using without damaging the ecological processes and the species that provided them.

31. If a forest produces 200 trees each year, which action is sustainable? a. taking all 200 trees produced in the year b. taking only 100 of the trees produced in that year c. taking all 200 trees produced in that year, plus 50 mature trees d. taking all the trees in the forest e. Taking all 200 trees produced in the year and taking only 100 of the trees produced in that year are sustainable.

ANSWER: e 32. An example of natural capital is _____, and an example of a natural interest is _____. a. oxygen; new growth in a forest b. trees; oceans c. an increased fish population; new growth in a forest d. wood; forests e. forests; wetlands ANSWER: a 33. Which choice is considered natural capital? a. oxygen Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.1 b. water c. trees d. fish e. All of these choices are considered natural capital.

ANSWER: e 34. Sustainable use of forests allows us to use the trees to produce goods without depleting them. The amount of net resources produced from the forest or any other form of natural capital is known as: a. an ecological footprint. b. internal cost. c. raw material. d. natural interest. e. true cost.

ANSWER: d 35. When considering natural resources as capital and interest, explain what is meant by intergenerational tyranny?

ANSWER: When businesses and consumers take 50% or more of natural resources than is sustainable, then they are taking away resources from the future. In terms of natural capital, consuming a resource more quickly than it can be replaced, such as water from rivers and wells, requires waiting until it rains again or the snow melts to replenish the resource.

36. A tuna population (including breeding adults) serves as natural capital. The yearly addition of new tuna (from breeding adults) represents natural interest. Depending on the number of tuna harvested yearly, one of three outcomes can occur: the population is sustainable, natural capital grows, or natural capital crashes.

Explain what is meant by these three outcomes.

ANSWER: Harvesting only a portion of the tuna represented as natural interest will sustain the population.

Harvesting even less than the sustainable amount may give the tuna an opportunity to increase their population and natural capital growth occurs. However, a natural capital crash will eventually occur if the fishing industry harvests more than the yearly addition of tuna (the natural interest).

37. One of the limitations of mainstream economics is that it does not take into account _____ costs when a price is assigned to a product or service. a. safety b. internal c. external d. marginal e. fringe ANSWER: c 38. An assessment of the cost of a good or service that includes the environmental, social, and economic costs is called the: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.1 a. internal analysis. b. external analysis. c. complete valuation. d. triple bottom line. e. validation cost.

ANSWER: d 39. _____ costs include manufacturing costs, labor, taxes, utilities, insurance, and rent. a. Internal b. External c. Safety d. Potential e. True ANSWER: a 40. Including both internal and external costs when setting a price for a good or service is an example of _____ cost. a. overall b. valuation c. total d. marginal e. true ANSWER: e 41. Which example illustrates an external cost? a. a federal tax that is placed on a product sold by a business b. a fee a company pays to have its product shipped internationally c. health costs stemming from the hazardous wastes produced during the making of a product d. the extra money a business pays to make its products or services sustainable e. labor ANSWER: c 42. By ignoring the _____, economies create a false idea of the _____ of particular choices. a. internal costs; external cost b. true costs; external cost c. external costs; true cost d. true costs; circular system e. internal costs; true cost ANSWER: c

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Module 05.1 43. Today, if we were to purchase a good or service at its true cost, how would the price compare with what we are accustomed to paying for the good or service? a. The price would be lower. b. The price would be higher. c. The price would stay the same. d. The price would decrease exponentially. e. We cannot predict how the price would change.

ANSWER: b 44. The true cost of an item produced in a factory includes which factor? a. social costs b. environmental costs c. internal costs d. external costs e. It includes all of these factors.

ANSWER: e 45. Refer to Infographic 5. Why is it important to consider the cost to an ecosystem when purchasing a product, as well as considering the price of the object or service?

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ANSWER: We are very familiar with checking price tags, looking for sales or deals, and so on. What needs to happen is for both the manufacturer and the consumer to consider the cost to the environment as well. How much water was used? How many fossil fuels were burned? What wastes were produced?

Where did they end up? Were people displaced by this process? What is the possibility of injury to the workers or people in the area? Are there other health issues? Once these are considered, a consumer may discover that the good or service is actually not the best choice, in spite of the cheaper price tag.

46. What are the internal and external costs associated with producing paper?

ANSWER: The internal costs of manufacturing paper include harvesting trees, labor costs, equipment costs, building maintenance, electricity, and fuel consumption. The external costs include health problems associated with the manufacturing of paper, deforestation, soil erosion, and air and water pollution.

47. Your company is in the process of developing an alternative to carpet tile. To make your product more desirable and profitable, what true costs of manufacturing carpet tiles should your designers focus on and why?

ANSWER: The true costs of manufacturing carpet tile include the cost of greenhouse gas emissions, the cost of health problems, and other environmental issues. Your company should try to limit the amount of greenhouse gas emissions by using alternative energy sources to heat and provide electricity to the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.1 plant. Additionally, a significant part of the tiles should be made from postconsumer recycled content, and the packaging of the tile should use recyclable material.

48. Refer to Infographic 5. You can find a double cheeseburger on the "dollar menu" at many fast food chains.

Refer to the infographic and describe how the true cost of that food product is not reflected by the sale price.

ANSWER: The true cost of a good or service includes both internal (labor, equipment, buildings) and external costs. Some of the hidden external costs related to fast food chains most likely include subsidies to grow cheap corn that is fed to cattle (making prices artificially cheaper), cleanup costs for pollution (manure, agricultural chemicals), and loss of wildlife habitat near large animal confinements. There is a decreased quality of life in terms of tasteless food and the loss of pleasure preparing and eating the food together. Health issues include obesity, diabetes, poor nutrition, and possible food contamination. Also, fossil fuels are required to transport food long distances instead of relying on local food sources.

49. Ecosystem services would be discounted in the _____ economic system. a. environmental Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.1 b. ecological c. triple bottom line d. mainstream e. true cost accounting ANSWER: d 50. Which choice would be part of an environmental economist's agenda? a. to consider the long-term impact of our consumption choices on human society and the environment b. to discount the future value of ecosystem goods and services c. to price the product or a service such that costs associated with manufacturing, labor, and utilities are accounted for, but costs associated with pollution and resource depletion are not d. to emphasize a linear, product-oriented economic system e. to maximize the size of the ecological footprint associated with a product or service ANSWER: a 51. Refer to the infographic. What does each figure represent?

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a. top = true cost accounting; bottom = green business b. top = mainstream economics; bottom = environmental economics c. top = environmental economics; bottom = discounting future value d. top = service-oriented economics; bottom = product-oriented economics e. top = external cost accounting; bottom = internal cost accounting ANSWER: b 52. The two schools of economic thought that consider the environment when making economic decisions are _____ and _____. a. deep ecology; Western b. environmental; ecological Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.1 c. Western; environmental d. deep ecology; environmental e. Western; ecological ANSWER: b 53. One major difference between mainstream and environmental economics is that mainstream economics assumes that waste can be disposed of in a(n) _____ system. a. circular b. open-loop c. two-way d. linear e. bilinear ANSWER: d 54. A product system in which the product is folded back into the resource stream when the consumer is finished with it is a(n) _____ system. a. open-loop b. circular c. linear d. one-way e. cradle-to-grave ANSWER: b 55. One area where traditional economics differs from environmental economics is that traditional economics tends to give more weight to _____ benefits and costs than it does to _____ benefits and costs. a. long-term; short-term b. short-term; long-term c. long-term; middle-term d. short-term; middle-term e. middle-term; long-term ANSWER: b 56. Mainstream economics makes the inaccurate assumption that natural resources are _____ or that substitutes can be found if needed. a. finite b. unimportant c. limited d. infinite e. fixed ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.1 57. Which statement is CORRECT? a. Traditional economics discounts short-term benefits and costs more than it does long-term ones. b. Natural and human resources are infinite. c. In a circular system, models of production follow a linear sequence. d. Linear systems are sustainable in business and economic models. e. Mainstream economics assumes that economic growth will increase forever.

ANSWER: e 58. An item most likely to be a part of a circular system would be: a. a computer. b. coal. c. natural gas. d. an aluminum can.

ANSWER: d 59. A linear economic model would include which item? a. recyclable products b. crude oil as an energy source c. cow manure d. reclaimable waste e. both recyclable products and cow manure ANSWER: b 60. A computer company leases rather than sells its computers to consumers for a monthly fee. The company maintains the computers and replaces them as needed. The old computers are either refurbished or recycled.

What does this business model represent? a. cradle-to-cradle management b. a circular system c. green business d. a service-oriented economy e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 61. What is cradle-to-cradle management? a. accounting for part of the life of a product b. considering how to produce a product and dispose of the product at the end of its life c. a program to return a product to the producer when consumers are finished with it d. considering the entire life cycle of a product from raw materials to final disposal or recycling e. leasing a product to a consumer rather than selling it ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.1 62. A cell phone company has a program that encourages consumers to turn in their old cell phones rather than throw them away when they are finished with them. This is an example of: a. cradle-to-cradle management. b. a service economy. c. a take-back program. d. ecolabeling. e. linear outputs.

ANSWER: c 63. The company you are currently working for follows a linear (one-way) system. Explain why this system will eventually fail.

ANSWER: Companies that follow a linear (one-way) system make the assumption that economic growth will continue forever and that resources are unlimited. The problem is that some resources are finite and that waste in the form of pollution will eventually damage natural capital, resulting in eventual failure.

64. What is a circular system? How could an automatic car wash become more cyclical in a circular system?

ANSWER: A circular system is a production system in which the product is folded back into the resource stream when consumers are finished with it, or it is disposed of in such a way that nature can decompose it. In an automatic car wash, the water from the final rinse cycle can be collected and reused as the initial pre-soak wash before applying the soap. This will reduce the amount of water needed and decrease the amount of wastewater that must be treated. To further improve the process, a biological wash water recycling system can be used to remove organic contaminants from wash water that can be used again and again. Other factors, such as increasing water pressure, can also mean less water volume is needed per car.

65. It is predicted that there will soon be more cell phones in the world than people. Inside each phone is a metal called tantalum. This metal is mined from Earth and is a nonrenewable resource. How could cell phone manufacturing become more cyclical? What can consumers do to help?

ANSWER: Manufacturers of cell phones, as well as other electronic devices such as computers, are aware of the finite supplies of precious metals required in the manufacturing of their products. In a sense, it would be easier for them to "mine" landfills in search of discarded electronic products, since it takes significant energy to mine and manufacture those precious metals. Companies now design their products in such a way that they can be efficiently demanufactured to recover the metals and materials needed to construct a new product. This has the added benefit of keeping from landfills the toxic metals that can pollute the environment and harm human health. Consumers can help the process by recycling their old electronic devices to cell phone manufacturers, retailers, network carriers, charities, or solid waste programs. In some cases, businesses offer money for the return of those old products.

66. What are assumptions of mainstream economics that fall short?

ANSWER: Mainstream economics does not take into account all potential costs. It only considers the internal costs, such as manufacturing costs, labor, taxes, utilities, insurance, and rent, that are accounted for when a product or service is evaluated for pricing. External costs, such as the health costs associated with the waste produced or environmental damage caused by pollution, are ignored. Another Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.1 inaccurate assumption is that natural and human resources are either infinite or that substitutes can be found if needed. This is not true for all resources. In addition, mainstream economics assumes that economic growth will go on forever and ignores inherent limits to resource-dependent growth.

Finally, traditional economics discounts future value by giving more weight to short-term benefits and costs than it does long-term ones.

67. You want to buy a T-shirt labeled as "eco-friendly" from a business, but you cannot find any evidence of sustainable actions from the business. This may be: a. greenwashing. b. ecolabeling. c. fair trade. d. cap-and-trade. e. a share program.

ANSWER: a 68. How can consumers influence businesses to be more environmentally sustainable? a. buying any product from any business b. buying more fair trade items to ensure methods support sustainable practices and social justice c. buying any item with an ecolabel, regardless of any verification for the label d. buying a product instead of renting or borrowing e. purchasing more goods and services from businesses to increase the economy ANSWER: b 69. _____ is a way businesses can communicate information about how a good or service is made to consumers. a. Greenwashing b. Ecolabeling c. Fair trade d. Cap-and-trade ANSWER: b 70. What are some of the key requirements for a product to be certified as fair trade?

ANSWER: For an item to be certified as fair trade, the business must pay their workers a fair wage, and they must work in reasonable working conditions while producing the goods or services. As well, the production process must have a low ecological impact in which the product or service is being produced in an environmentally sustainable and socially beneficial manner.

71. When businesses work toward sustainable practices as they produce their products or services, consumers also have a role to play to lower environmental and societal impacts on Earth. Discuss the role of consumers with respect to sustainable practices.

ANSWER: Consumers can start consuming less and purchase products from green businesses that use sustainable methods and resources. As well, consumers should purchase high-quality products that are more durable and will last longer. Consumers must be willing to pay more for these goods and services since the price reflects the true cost. Consumers can also participate in share programs Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 05.1 where consumers rent or borrow items they rarely use.

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Module 06.2 1. What alerted researchers to a problem in the waters of the Gulf of Mexico? a. high raw sewage levels b. excess oil pollution c. low pH levels d. low measured oxygen levels e. high measured water temperature ANSWER: d 2. Which characteristic is TRUE of all water pollution? a. Chemical contaminants cause all water pollution. b. There are no organic substances that cause water pollution. c. All water pollution degrades the quality of water. d. Water pollution is always caused by humans. e. Water pollution is always caused by a local source.

ANSWER: c 3. Which statement about water pollution is TRUE? a. Air pollution can cause water pollution. b. There is a short list of substances that cause water pollution. c. Water pollution comes only from chemicals introduced into a body of water. d. Only surface water is at risk of becoming polluted. e. The origin of water pollution is always easy to identify and treat.

ANSWER: a 4. Which causes of water pollution are due to human activity? a. thermal pollution b. stormwater runoff c. raw sewage d. underground chemical storage e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 5. The primary difference between point source and nonpoint source pollution is: a. point source pollution sources can be readily identified while nonpoint source pollution sources are often unclear. b. point source pollution sources cannot be identified. c. nonpoint source pollution is due to improper chemical storage while point source pollution is related to agricultural runoff. d. nonpoint source pollution is located next to the body of contaminated water while point source pollution can be harder to locate. e. None of these answer choices are correct.

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Module 06.2 ANSWER: a 6. Which is an example of nonpoint source pollution? a. a sewage treatment pipe leaking b. a discharge pipe from an industrial site c. runoff water from lawns d. animal waste from a feedlot pumped into a river ANSWER: c 7. Which is an example of a point source pollution source? a. farm water runoff b. a ruptured sewer pipe c. acid rain d. sediment pollution ANSWER: b 8. Refer to Infographic 1. What is the leading cause of impaired surface water in the United States?

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Module 06.2

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Module 06.2 9. Most pollutants from nonpoint source pollution enter the water from: a. the air. b. stormwater runoff. c. other streams. d. the ocean. e. broken or leaky pipes.

ANSWER: b 10. Why should we care about water pollution?

ANSWER: Water pollution is the addition of any substance, caused by humans or not, to a body of water that might degrade its quality. Water pollution affects many aspects of the ecosystem. Organisms that live in the affected water area may not be able to survive the pollution, especially if it is a toxic chemical. If some organisms are directly affected, it can indirectly affect many more (for example, a food source may go away, or the waters may be inhospitable for mating). If the pollution is really bad, it may cause that ecosystem to collapse entirely, which, as we know from previous modules, is not good for the overall biodiversity of the planet. Water pollution can also directly affect the humans that depend on that body of water for drinking, cooking, bathing, and other day-to-day activities. Many pathogens can be found in polluted waters, making the water unsafe for drinking or bathing. Water pollution also affects the ecosystem services of the polluted, and sometimes related non-polluted areas.

11. Why are sources of point source pollution considered easier to "fix" than nonpoint source pollution sources?

ANSWER: Point source pollution sources are considered easier to remedy because the source of the pollution is directly identifiable. For example, if the source of the pollution is found to be a leaky sewer pipe, that pipe can be repaired or replaced. With nonpoint source pollution, the actual source of the pollution cannot be pinpointed, and if the source is not identified, it cannot be directly addressed.

12. What is hypoxia? a. when your body temperature drops below 98.6°F b. where there is too much dissolved oxygen in water c. where there is not enough dissolved oxygen in the water to support local organisms d. when your veins and arteries constrict to prevent heat loss e. a disease affecting fish, often caused by pollution ANSWER: c 13. What plant nutrients are found in animal waste and fertilizer that can cause eutrophication? a. nitrogen b. phosphorus c. oxygen d. carbon dioxide e. both nitrogen and phosphorus ANSWER: e Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.2 14. Which statement is FALSE? a. Water can hold an unlimited amount of oxygen. b. Water can hold less oxygen than air can. c. Underwater organisms need oxygen. d. A small decrease in dissolved oxygen can have an effect on aquatic life. e. Underwater organisms use oxygen in cellular respiration.

ANSWER: a 15. An effect of hypoxic waters can be: a. loss of millions of dollars in revenue to the seafood industry. b. a decrease in some species like oysters. c. fish moving further away from coastal dead zones. d. commercial fishing crews must travel further to catch fish. e. All of these answer choices are effects of hypoxic waters.

ANSWER: e 16. The end result of eutrophication is: a. increased nitrogen content of the water. b. decreased nitrogen content of the water. c. increased oxygen content of the water. d. decreased oxygen content of the water.

ANSWER: d 17. What is a dead zone? a. waters so depleted of oxygen that aquatic life suffers b. waters too hot for aquatic life to survive c. water too salty for humans to drink d. an area of water with high densities of plastic e. water with any nutrients in it ANSWER: a 18. What can trigger the process of eutrophication? a. hot water discharged into a body of water b. an excess of nutrients discharged into the water c. oil rigs operating in the ocean d. too many fish in a body of water e. too much dissolved oxygen in the water ANSWER: b 19. Where have dead zones been found?

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Module 06.2 a. Gulf of Mexico b. Pacific coast region c. Great Lakes d. Atlantic coast e. Dead zones have been found in all of these locations.

ANSWER: e 20. What is the immediate effect of excess nutrients entering a body of water as runoff pollution? a. a decrease of sunlight due to algal blooms b. an increase in the number of decomposers c. an increase in algal blooms d. a decrease in underwater photosynthesis e. a decrease in dissolved oxygen levels ANSWER: c 21. If eutrophication leads to the abundance of nutrients plants need to grow and survive, why is it considered a bad thing?

ANSWER: In moderation, the addition of nutrients supporting aquatic plant growth is a good thing. When eutrophication occurs, however, there is an overabundance of these nutrients that leads to a mass overgrowth (or bloom) of algae. The algae effectively block the sunlight from the plants underneath them, causing these plants to die. If there are no plants, there is no photosynthesis, which means there is no oxygen. In addition, there is a plethora of new carbon sources (that is, the dead plants) for organisms that obtain nutrients through the decomposition of other organisms. This decomposition filters even more oxygen out of the water, making a bad problem even worse. The end result is water that does not have the amount of oxygen needed to support a healthy and diverse ecosystem.

22. A watershed is: a. a storage facility for groundwater similar to an aquifer. b. an area of land over which rain and other sources of water flow to drain into a body of water. c. an area in which people dig drinking water wells and wells for agricultural use. d. where a river meets the ocean. e. the evaporation of river water related to climate change.

ANSWER: b 23. Where can pollutants from a watershed end up? a. surface water b. groundwater c. the air d. both surface water and groundwater e. both groundwater and the air ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.2 24. If you find pollution at a certain point in a river, would you look at the watershed upstream or downstream to determine its origin? a. upstream b. downstream c. neither d. origin would not be able to be determined e. outside the watershed ANSWER: a 25. Which factor would reduce the quantity of groundwater in a watershed? a. unpaved parking lot b. stream that has been channelized c. wetlands near a farm d. tract of suburban forest e. unpaved parking lots and channelized streams can both reduce groundwater quantity ANSWER: e 26. The Mississippi River watershed includes land area from: a. Texas. b. Louisiana. c. Mississippi. d. Minnesota. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 27. What high nitrogen leaking agricultural enterprises are prevalent at the top of the Mississippi River watershed? a. alfalfa fields and hog farms b. wheat fields and chicken farms c. corn fields and dairy farms d. soybean fields and beef farms ANSWER: c 28. If water flows more slowly through watershed areas, will this increase or decrease the number of pathogens found in the water that eventually flows into the ending river or lake?

ANSWER: By flowing more slowly through the watershed, the water will be filtered to a higher extent by the soil and sediment, thus reducing the number of pathogens ending up in the river or lake.

29. Discuss some ways that human alteration of watersheds has affected the quality of surface water and the quantity of groundwater.

ANSWER: Human alteration of watersheds can affect the quality of surface waters when industrial or Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.2 agricultural properties are built on the watershed land. The water running through these areas now picks up pollutants, such as pesticides, fertilizer, and chemicals, and deposits them into the body of water that the watershed flows into. Human alteration of watersheds can also affect the quantity of groundwater in watersheds. If you consider industrial parks with their miles of concrete or your neighbor's perfectly manicured, monoculture lawn, you will find that rain in these areas does not soak into the ground; rather, it stays on the concrete to evaporate or runs off into drainage ditches.

The end result is that this rain does not end up in the groundwater; thus the quantity of the groundwater is reduced, causing a problem for anyone who relies on aquifers for drinking water.

30. What is one method to determine how healthy an ecosystem is? a. determining the point source pollutant b. carrying out watershed management c. conducting biological assessment d. using controlled drainage pipes e. counting the number of organisms present ANSWER: c 31. During a biological assessment, what is collected? a. microscopic organisms b. microscopic invertebrates c. macroinvertebrates d. macrovertebrates ANSWER: c 32. How can water quality be assessed? a. measuring dissolved oxygen levels b. measuring pH c. measuring nitrates d. counting benthic macroinvertebrates e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 33. You are conducting a biological assessment on a stream. Which organisms would you see the MOST of if the stream has good water quality? a. caddisfly larvae b. crayfish c. leeches d. dragonfly larvae e. aquatic worms ANSWER: a 34. Finding only leeches and aquatic worms in a biological assessment would indicate: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.2 a. some low levels of pollution. b. slightly diminished oxygen levels. c. clear water. d. well-oxygenated water. e. higher levels of pollution.

ANSWER: e 35. Let's say you become interested in studying the amount of water pollution in a stream that runs through your backyard. Without special equipment, how could you perform a biological assessment on the stream?

ANSWER: By counting the number and species of macroinvertebrates, you can assess the health of the water.

Since these invertebrates are macroscopic—meaning that you do not need a microscope to see them—it is relatively easy to count and monitor them, as you do not need any fancy equipment to do so. There are species of macroinvertebrates that are sensitive to water pollution and species that are not. By counting the ratio of these two groups over time, you could track the amount of water pollution and the overall health of the ecosystem.

36. What was the dramatic event that helped spur passage of the 1972 Clean Water Act? a. an oil spill in the ocean b. the dead zone in the Gulf of Mexico c. the Cuyahoga River catching fire d. toxic chemicals being released into the Mississippi River e. people becoming sick from drinking water ANSWER: c 37. What are performance standards? a. excess levels of pollution present in environmental waters b. acceptable levels of pollutants that can be present in environmental waters c. the number of pathogens allowed in drinking water d. regulation of nonpoint source pollution e. permits issued to companies to allow industrial discharge into waterways ANSWER: b 38. What was the goal of the Gulf of Mexico Watershed Nutrient Task Force? a. to eliminate the hypoxic zone b. to take the farmers along the Mississippi watershed to court for water pollution c. to map the Gulf of Mexico watershed d. to reduce the hypoxic zone e. to make the water in the Mississippi River crystal clear ANSWER: d 39. What percentage of U.S. streams and rivers meet the fishable/swimmable goal for pathogens in recreational waters today?

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Module 06.2 a. 25 b. 56 c. 47 d. 80 e. 100 ANSWER: c 40. Globally, what is one of the leading causes of infection? a. exposure to pathogen-polluted waters b. drinking water with heavy metals in it c. swimming in water with toxic chemicals d. oil spills into watersheds e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: a 41. Upon its inception, what areas were NOT covered by the CWA? a. navigable waters b. waters in mountain streams c. waters of recreational value d. waters of municipal value ANSWER: b 42. Which is NOT an aspect of the Clean Water Act? a. regulating municipal point source pollution b. setting pollution standards c. allowing a small percentage of pathogens in recreational water d. regulating industrial point source pollution e. allowing a small percentage of pathogens in drinking water ANSWER: e 43. Describe how performance standards are used in the Clean Water Act (CWA) enforcement.

ANSWER: Performance standards are used by the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) to ensure the CWA guidelines comply with the scope and intent of the law. To accomplish the fishable and swimmable goal in U.S. recreational and coastal waters performance standards indicate levels of pollutant pathogens the EPA considers allowable in environmental waters.

44. What are riparian areas? a. land areas close enough to water to be affected by it b. mountain areas with streams c. lake and river bottoms d. areas where streams begin Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.2 e. agricultural fields with runoff areas ANSWER: a 45. In many scientists' opinions, what is the key to saving the ecosystems of the Gulf of Mexico? a. organic farming b. watershed management c. tighter control of point source pollution d. harsher punishments and fines for noncompliance with the Clean Water Act e. purification of the water entering the Gulf ANSWER: b 46. What do healthy riparian areas provide? a. a quick path for water to enter the river or lake b. filtration of runoff water before it enters the river or lake c. excellent surfing conditions d. optimal areas for industrial construction e. increased hypoxic conditions ANSWER: b 47. Refer to the infographic. How much land, in feet, does the U.S. Department of Agriculture recommend setting aside in managed and undisturbed forest to protect land in riparian areas?

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Module 06.2 b. 60 c. 15 d. 75 e. 95 ANSWER: d 48. What role do plant roots play in healthy riparian areas? a. They stabilize stream banks. b. They provide nutrients. c. They provide shelter to macroinvertebrates. d. They allow runoff.

ANSWER: a 49. Describe the watershed best management practice advocated by the CWA and discussed in the text.

ANSWER: Total maximum daily loads (TMDLs) are currently thought to be one of the best ways the CWA can regulate and manage the impact of a specific pollutant or pollutant group. TMDLs allow for flexibility depending on the size of the watershed, the nature of the pollution, and whether it is a point or nonpoint source.

50. Refer to the infographic. What would be appropriate land use for Zone 3?

a. industrial projects b. managed forests c. undisturbed forests Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.2 d. residential homes e. light agricultural use ANSWER: e 51. Runoff potential of nitrogen fertilizer from a farm can vary due to: a. brand of fertilizer amount applied. b. humidity. c. the number of buildings on the farm. d. the type of crop planted.

ANSWER: d 52. Which crop releases the MOST nitrogen into the soil? a. oats b. corn c. alfalfa d. rye e. Plants do not release nitrogen into the soil.

ANSWER: b 53. The switch to growing foods that leak nitrogen into the soil has resulted in: a. a higher level of nitrogen in the watershed runoff. b. better nutrient content of the food. c. easier growing seasons for the farmers. d. poorer sales of produce. e. increased use of synthetic nitrogen.

ANSWER: a 54. What do drainage pipes drain off farms? a. water b. compost c. nitrogen d. both water and nitrogen e. water, compost, and nitrogen ANSWER: d 55. Which is likely the easiest problem to address concerning increased nitrogen pollution? a. the growth of nitrogen leaky crops b. the use of synthetic fertilizers c. the use of drainage pipes d. All of these answer choices are correct.

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Module 06.2 ANSWER: c 56. Which method is NOT an agricultural best management practice to reduce the amount of nitrogen and phosphorus in runoff waters? a. testing the soil frequently b. planting winter crops in the off season c. using GPS technology to guide farm equipment d. planting trees as windbreaks e. using drainage systems that remove water from the soil ANSWER: e 57. How did Strock and Hicks compare agricultural runoff on Hicks’s land? a. adding cattle to the pastureland b. installing two drainage treatments c. converting the untouched prairie to corn pastures d. adding more fertilizer to the pastures e. letting both pastures freely drain water ANSWER: b 58. During a normal, non-drought year, by how much was nutrient loss reduced in the Strock and Hicks's experiment? a. 25% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75% e. 90% ANSWER: c 59. What is a major nonpoint source of nitrogen pollution in suburban areas? a. pet waste b. lawn fertilizer c. rain gardens d. native plants e. green roofs ANSWER: b 60. Which factor can increase infiltration or reduce runoff of stormwater in suburban areas? a. trees b. green roofs c. curb cutouts d. rain gardens Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.2 e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 61. Discuss the pros and cons of using drainage pipes for agricultural fields.

ANSWER: The use of drainage pipes prevents water from running off the fields, carrying with it pesticides and other pollutants, into nearby lakes and rivers. Drainage pipes also allow farmers to plant crops earlier and guard against crop losses during flooding, resulting in more food for us to eat. The negative aspect of drainage pipes, however, is that they allow copious amounts of nitrogen to leak out of the fields, into the drainage pipes, and into the lakes and rivers that the watersheds feed into.

This leads to the nutrient pollution and eutrophication of many aquatic ecosystems, ultimately causing their collapse.

62. Why is the prevention of soil erosion one of the best management practices to reduce the amount of pollution being delivered to the Mississippi River?

ANSWER: Soil erosion can cause a variety of problems in the context of water pollution. First, the soil itself can cause sediment pollution if enough is washed away and deposited in the river. It can clog the gills of fish, destroy habitats and niches in ecosystems, and make the water itself cloudy so that underwater plants cannot complete photosynthesis. Phosphorus, one of the key nutrients in eutrophication, is also bound to the soil and will enter the runoff if the soil erodes. Finally, if the soil is eroding, the stormwater runoff, for instance, will not have anything to filter through. It will simply flow off the watershed and into the river, carrying with it all of the pollutants it picked up along the way.

63. How can you explain to your neighbor that her perfectly manicured, monocultural, heavily fertilized lawn may be contributing to the destruction of ecosystems in the Gulf of Mexico?

ANSWER: Even though your neighbor's lawn may look nice, her lawn maintenance techniques may be contributing to the hypoxic zone in the Gulf of Mexico. By keeping her lawn free of undesired species of plants, your neighbor is lowering the species diversity of her lawn. By this point, we know that lower species diversity means lower biodiversity, leading to the reduced ability of that ecosystem to perform its ecosystem services (like filtering rainwater through the ground). Though over-fertilizing may make the lawn a pleasing and healthy-looking green color, most of the nitrogen in the fertilizer will be washed away in rain or even wind storms because of the lack of species diversity. This nitrogen ends up in storm drains, or is deposited directly into lakes and rivers, and may ultimately end up contributing to the hypoxic zone in the Gulf of Mexico.

64. In 2019 how many square miles was the hypoxic zone in the Gulf of Mexico? a. 3,000 square miles b. 7,000 square miles c. 6,952 square miles d. 5,400 square miles ANSWER: c 65. In their efforts to address hypoxia in the Gulf of Mexico, the Gulf Task Force's recommendations consider: a. social impacts.

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Module 06.2 b. economic realities. c. environmental needs. d. All of these answer choices are correct. e. None of these answer choices is correct.

ANSWER: d 66. When is the target date for the Gulf of Mexico Hypoxia Task Force goal to reduce nonpoint source pollution and restore damaged areas? a. 2015 b. 2018 c. 2020 d. 2035 e. 2050 ANSWER: d 67. How is climate change expected to impact the formation of dead zones? a. The formation of dead zones could accelerate. b. The formation of dead zones could decelerate. c. The formation of dead zones will remain the same. d. All of these answers are correct. e. None of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: a 68. Refer to the infographic. Choose three strategies from the Gulf of Mexico Regional Ecosystem Restoration plan. Explain what the goals of those strategies are and, if implemented, how the strategies will help reach those goals.

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Module 06.2

ANSWER: Answers will vary based on strategies chosen. A possible answer could be that under the "enhance community resilience" goal, there is the promotion of low-impact community growth plans. If new communities consider the watershed area before they build, they will be able to reduce the amount of pollutants entering into the water from their community. For example, if all streets had green boulevards (the area between streets, sidewalks and streets, or even lanes), this would reduce the amount of stormwater runoff that directly enters the storm drains. Rather, the rain would first filter through the plants of the green boulevards, leaving behind many water pollutants before entering into the storm drains and area lakes and rivers.

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Module 06.3 1. The lowering of the pH of the oceans is known as: a. salting. b. reduction. c. alkalinity. d. acidification. e. chloride shifting.

ANSWER: d 2. What is the major cause of ocean acidification? a. the increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels caused by human activity b. varying levels of pollution caused by human activity c. intensive overfishing caused by human activity d. naturally occurring pH changes in the ocean e. invasive species introduced by human activity ANSWER: a 3. Scientists estimate _____% of all CO2 released by humans is being absorbed by the world's oceans. a. 25 b. 30 c. 35 d. 40 e. 55 ANSWER: b 4. If present trends continue, the ocean's surface waters will be _____% more acidic by 2100 than they were in 1800. a. 75 b. 100 c. 125 d. 150 e. 200 ANSWER: d 5. A pH drop of 0.1 corresponds to a _____% increase in ocean water acidity. a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 e. 50 ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.3 6. Refer to the graph depicting ocean acidification over time. Which statement is TRUE of the graph?

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Module 06.3

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a. As the atmospheric concentration of CO2 increases, the amount of CO2 absorbed by the oceans (pCO2) also increases.

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Module 06.3 7. What allows CO2 to mix quickly into the top 100 feet of water from the atmosphere? a. wind b. waves c. currents d. both waves and currents e. wind, waves, and currents ANSWER: e 8. What is the pH trend in the seawater represented in the chart shown in Infographic 1?

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Module 06.3

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a. The pH trend is not significant. b. The pH is becoming more acidic.

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Module 06.3 9. Examine the pH scale in Infographic 1 shown below. Which statement is CORRECT?

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Module 06.3

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a. Rainwater is more basic than pure water. b. Soapy water is more acidic than rainwater.

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Module 06.3 10. What is ocean acidification? How are humans contributing to ocean acidification?

ANSWER: Ocean acidification is the name scientists use to describe the current catastrophe that is occurring in ocean waters—the decrease in pH of ocean water because of increased amounts of atmospheric carbon dioxide. Since the Industrial Revolution, humans have been burning fossil fuels and releasing carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. Because the ocean and atmosphere are in direct contact on over 75% of Earth's surface, the carbon dioxide emitted into the atmosphere eventually winds up in the ocean. Increased levels of carbon dioxide in the ocean cause chemical reactions to occur, which lowers the pH of ocean waters.

11. Refer to Infographic 1. Carbon dioxide emissions have reduced the ocean's pH by about 0.1. Why is this acidification of the ocean a problem?

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Module 06.3

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Module 06.3 12. What effect do acidic ocean waters have on shells made of calcium carbonate? a. They cause increased dissolution (dissolving) of calcium carbonate shells. b. They cause decreased dissolution (dissolving) of calcium carbonate shells. c. There is no effect on shells made of calcium carbonate. d. They cause shells to grow at faster rates. e. They cause shells to overly calcify.

ANSWER: a 13. The MOST well-documented effect of ocean acidification is on: a. marine mammals. b. saltwater fish. c. marine calcifiers. d. seaweeds. e. sharks.

ANSWER: c 14. What do organisms use to make shells? a. Ca+2 b. H2O c. H+ d. CO2 e. CaCO3 ANSWER: a 15. Organisms use calcium and carbonate to make shells. What is the CORRECT chemical formula for calcium carbonate? a. Ca+2 b. CO32c. CO2 d. CaCO3 e. Ca2CO3 ANSWER: d 16. Explain what occurs to nutrient balances when ocean pH shifts.

ANSWER: As pH in the ocean shifts, the availability and balance of key nutrients are affected. Some of these nutrients, such as nitrogen and iron, can show dramatic change. They will plummet in some areas and soar in others, thus threatening the stability of virtually all marine ecosystems.

17. Which factor in the ocean is key in determining environmental conditions? a. space Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.3 b. depth c. predators d. pressure e. biota ANSWER: b 18. Nutrient-rich areas where shallow rivers meet the ocean are known as: a. intertidal zones. b. estuaries. c. coral reefs. d. abyssal zones. e. open ocean.

ANSWER: b 19. The deepest zone in the ocean is the: a. abyssal. b. hadal. c. bathypelagic. d. epipelagic. e. meso.

ANSWER: b 20. Refer to Infographic 3. Which ocean zone has the HIGHEST rate of photosynthesis?

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Module 06.3 21. You would expect to find barnacles, starfish, and mussels in which ocean zone? a. abyssal b. hadal c. bathypelagic d. intertidal ANSWER: d 22. Why is depth such an important factor in determining the abundance of life in a given region of the ocean?

Provide an example to support your reasoning.

ANSWER: Depth is important because most of the sunlight that enters the ocean is absorbed in the first 10 meters of the water column. Since sunlight is essential to photosynthesis, surface and shallow regions of the ocean are more productive than deeper regions. For example, the majority of ocean life, including coral reefs, is found in coastal waters on shallow continental shelves. As you move away from the coast into deeper waters, the deeper you go, the less life there is.

23. Why is proximity to land an important factor in determining the abundance of an ocean region? Provide an example to support your reasoning.

ANSWER: The more nutrient-rich areas, and thus productive areas, in the ocean community are closer to land and where rivers empty into the ocean. Estuaries are known as "the nurseries of the sea" because they are where rivers empty into the ocean, and many species come to these areas to spawn.

24. The majority of coral reefs on Earth are found between _____ and _____ of the equator. a. 10° N; 10° S b. 30° N; 30° S c. 50° N; 50° S d. 10° W; 10° E e. 30° W; 30° S ANSWER: b 25. Which statement about coral reefs is FALSE? a. Overfishing is a major cause of coral reef destruction. b. Coral reefs serve as a source of current and potential medicines. c. Coral reefs help protect shorelines from storms. d. Coastal development does not affect coral reefs because they develop far away from the shore. e. Most coral reefs are found between 30 degrees north latitude and 30 degrees south latitude.

ANSWER: d 26. Which statement is TRUE of the environments that coral reefs are found in? a. Colder water is trapped on top of warmer water, creating stratification. b. There is intensive mixing of deep water and surface water. c. The waters are saturated with nitrogen and iron.

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Module 06.3 d. They are nutrient poor. e. They are typically deep waters.

ANSWER: d 27. It is estimated that _____% of all ocean species spend some portion of their life in a coral reef. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 e. 90 ANSWER: b 28. Coral reefs are complex ecosystems with numerous interspecies interactions. Which interaction is an example of commensalism? a. clown fish and sea anemone b. remora fish and manta ray c. corals and zooxanthellae d. sharks and tuna e. octopus and crab ANSWER: b 29. Where would you find the HIGHEST concentration of coral reefs? a. freshwater lakes b. freshwater streams c. temperate marine areas d. tropical marine areas e. terrestrial areas ANSWER: d 30. NOAA estimates that _____% of coral reefs worldwide are threatened by either human activity or environmental changes. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 e. 90 ANSWER: d 31. Which factor is NOT a major threat to reefs? a. overfishing b. coastal development Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.3 c. inland pollution d. marine-based pollution e. aquarium collection ANSWER: e 32. Overfishing is a significant threat to coral reefs. Explain why and how overfishing impacts the coral reef community.

ANSWER: While many factors impact the health of the coral reef ecosystem and its communities, overfishing affects approximately 60% of reefs. Because overfishing alters the community makeup, it can disrupt important interdependent relationships that keep the reef alive and healthy. In addition, certain fishing equipment, such as heavy nets, can damage the coral reefs themselves.

33. Coral is a type of marine: a. plant. b. fungi. c. bacterium. d. animal. e. protozoan.

ANSWER: d 34. The skeleton of coral is mostly composed of: a. nitrogen. b. aluminum. c. calcium carbonate. d. silicon. e. iron.

ANSWER: c 35. Lower pH affects which coral developmental stage/process? a. fertilization b. larval development c. settlement d. fertilization, larval development, and settlement e. both fertilization and settlement ANSWER: d 36. Why do corals need a mutualistic relationship with other species, like zooxanthellae? a. Corals typically live in nutrient-poor regions. b. Corals grow on top of one another c. Corals live in cold water. d. Corals live so deep that the sunlight cannot reach them.

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Module 06.3 e. Corals live in oxygen-poor water.

ANSWER: a 37. What benefit do zooxanthellae get from their mutualistic relationship with corals? a. oxygen b. sugars from photosynthesis c. color d. carbon dioxide e. lower pH ANSWER: d 38. What benefit do corals get from their mutualistic relationship with zooxanthellae? a. give coral their color b. provide coral with food via sugars they make during photosynthesis c. provide coral with a place to attach to the ocean floor d. All of these answer choices are correct. e. Both give coral their color and provide coral with food via sugars they make during photosynthesis.

ANSWER: e 39. Coral bleaching is: a. when the sun bleaches the pigment of the coral and turns it white. b. when a chemical spill causes the coral to die and the skeleton, which is white, to show through. c. when coral expels the zooxanthellae from their cells in response to stress. d. when coral turns white due to lowering water temperatures. e. when another organism colonizes the coral and turns it white.

ANSWER: c 40. What event can lead to coral bleaching? a. pollution b. acidification c. high temperatures d. salinity changes e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 41. Marc Slattery conducted several experiments using both natural and simulated coral reefs. When reef species (sponges) were subjected to higher temperatures and lower pH, most likely the conditions that will exist in the future ocean environment, Slattery found that the reef species had slower growth rates and reduced reproduction. What was the cause of these results? a. The higher temperature directly affected the growth rate of the sponge. b. The higher temperature and lower pH reduced the sponges' symbiotic partners' ability to conduct Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.3 photosynthesis. c. The lower pH prevented the sponge progeny from attaching to a solid surface. d. The higher temperature and lower pH interfered with the sponges' reproductive cycle. e. The higher temperature and lower pH increased the sponges' symbiotic partners' ability to photosynthesize, and they were therefore able to survive on their own.

ANSWER: b 42. Describe the complex relationship that coral have with zooxanthellae ("zooks").

ANSWER: Coral lives in a mutualistic relationship with zooxanthellae. The two species share nutrients. The zooxanthellae raise the pH of the coral cells, which helps the coral lay down its coral skeleton.

Corals provide the zooxanthellae with nutrients and carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

Zooxanthellae provide the coral with food made during photosynthesis.

43. Why do ecologists consider corals a keystone species?

ANSWER: Keystone species are particular organisms in an ecosystem that are depended upon by many other organisms in that ecosystem for things like food, shelter, and water. If a keystone species were to disappear from the ecosystem, many species in that ecosystem would feel the effects, typically in a detrimental way. Corals are considered a keystone species because many ocean ecosystems are dependent on coral reefs for several necessary resources like food and habitat.

44. Refer to Infographic 5. What does the white area on this coral indicate? Discuss the possible causes and the ecological impact of this phenomenon.

ANSWER: The white area indicates bleached coral. A healthy coral lives in a symbiotic relationship with its algal partners (the zooxanthellae, or "zooks"). Corals provide their resident zooks with nutrients and CO2 for photosynthesis as well as protection of the calcium carbonate skeletons of coral reefs.

Zooks, in turn, provide the coral polyps with food (sugars made during photosynthesis). When corals get stressed, they expel their zooxanthellae. This event is known as coral bleaching because Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.3 when it happens, the coral turns bone white (as the zooxanthellae also give the corals their colors).

Environmental stressors such as warmer seawater temperatures, pollution, and coral diseases are all potential causes of coral bleaching. Bleaching could be an adaptation that allows the coral to take up a different species of zooks, one that can tolerate the particular environmental stress, and coral may survive for a few months without the zooks. But since these algae are necessary for the survival of the coral, when the zooxanthellae die, the coral slowly dies if not recolonized. Loss of coral reefs means loss of marine habitat for many organisms and loss of ecosystem services, including protection of coastal areas from storms, purification of the water (many reef occupants are filter feeders), provision of recreational opportunities, support of important commercial fisheries, and a source of current and potential medicines such as antibiotics and anticancer drugs.

45. Which factor is NOT a source of human impact on marine ecosystems? a. fishing practices such as bottom trawling b. resort development in coastal areas c. agricultural use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides d. offshore oil drilling e. All of these factors are examples of human impact on marine ecosystems.

ANSWER: e 46. The graph shows the level of each of the five major threats that coral reefs currently face. Which are the CORRECT labels for the graph from top to bottom?

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a. overfishing and destructive fishing; marine-based pollution; thermal stress; coastal development; inland pollution b. inland pollution; marine-based pollution; overfishing and destructive fishing; coastal development; Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.3 thermal stress c. thermal stress; coastal development; inland pollution; marine-based pollution; overfishing d. overfishing and destructive fishing; inland pollution; coastal development; marine-based pollution; thermal stress e. marine-based pollution; thermal stress; coastal development; inland pollution; overfishing and destructive fishing ANSWER: d 47. Match the human activity to its CORRECT consequence for marine ecosystems. a. drilling for oil — coral bleaching b. using fertilizer — ocean acidification c. fishing with dynamite — algal blooms d. releasing ballast water from ships — introduction of invasive species ANSWER: d 48. Which change will have the GREATEST global effect on coral reefs regardless of their particular geographic location in the oceans? a. increased water temperatures from anthropogenic CO2 emissions b. increased salinity from desalination of ocean water for human use c. increased oxygen concentrations from algal blooms due to nutrient pollution d. increased predation of native coral reef fish by non-native lionfish e. increased sediment pollution from clear-cut inland forests that smother reefs ANSWER: a 49. Coral reefs are limited to shallow water, and there is a concern that rising sea levels will affect the reefs.

This is because: a. they require the lower salinity found in shallow waters. b. there are more nutrients found in shallow water. c. their symbiotic zooxanthellae require light to survive. d. they require coastal upwellings of CO2 in order to survive. e. it is too difficult for them to build reefs in deeper water.

ANSWER: c 50. More than _____% of today's ocean harbors contain at least one invasive species. a. 20 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60 e. 80 ANSWER: e Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.3 51. Threats from fishing pressure include: a. sediment pollution. b. plastic bag debris. c. oil spills. d. damage from dynamite. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: d 52. Fishing pressures (overexploitation) have eliminated _____% of top trophic-level predators in the oceans. a. 15 b. 30 c. 55 d. 75 e. 90 ANSWER: e 53. The greatest threat to coral reefs worldwide is: a. marine-based pollution. b. inland pollution. c. coastal development. d. overfishing.

ANSWER: d 54. In some areas of Florida, divers who remove non-native lionfish from coral reefs are eligible for a $10,000 prize. This is because lionfish: a. produce a chemical in great demand in the pharmaceutical industry. b. exclusively eat grouper, a fish considered a delicacy in fine dining. c. aggressively kill native fish outright or outcompete them when foraging. d. populations are dwindling in some parts of their range, and this is a way to repopulate them in those regions. e. are in high demand by aquarium enthusiasts.

ANSWER: c 55. The ocean is so vast it is difficult to imagine that human activities could harm it. However, the evidence of human impact is unmistakable. Discuss the nature of marine ecosystem destruction from pollution and overfishing.

ANSWER: Human activities harm marine ecosystems in a variety of different ways, with major threats coming from pollution and overfishing. Oceans receive pollution from land (via runoff) and from the atmosphere (via precipitation). Millions of tons of trash, including plastic and fishing nets, entangle and kill marine organisms. Less visible contaminants, like fertilizers, pesticides, and human sewage, also cause problems. Nutrient runoff from agricultural areas causes algal blooms which smother corals and block sunlight, reducing photosynthesis. Pathogens in untreated sewage contaminate Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.3 shellfish and other seafood, posing a threat to public health. Offshore oil drilling not only pollutes as a result of oil spills but the combustion of fossil fuels releases CO2 into Earth's atmosphere, which is then absorbed by the world's oceans, leading to ocean acidification. But it is overfishing that is currently the biggest threat to oceans; about 90% of top trophic-level predators have already been eliminated by overexploitation. Fishing pressure also inflicts other wounds, such as the destruction of seabeds by bottom trawling and the destruction of reefs from the use of dynamite and cyanide sprays.

56. What are invasive species? Discuss the possible causes and the ecological impact of this threat to ocean ecosystems using the lionfish as an example.

ANSWER: Invasive species are non-native species that are introduced into ocean ecosystems in which they do not belong and where they can wreak major havoc. More than 80% of ocean harbors around the world now host at least one invasive species, which may have arrived in the ballast water of ships, been accidentally released from aquaculture pens, or escaped while being moved as part of the aquarium trade. Take the lionfish as an example. It was an escapee from aquaria and now poses a significant threat to coral reefs in places like the Bahamas and Florida. Lionfish are aggressive and poisonous predators and either outright kill native fish or outcompete them when foraging. When they are introduced to a coral reef, the survival of native fish can drop by as much as 80%.

57. You have been given the task of monitoring the health of a coral reef. Over the years, you have documented a decrease in the biodiversity of life in the reef. What could be some of the reasons why the reef is suffering?

ANSWER: The introduction of invasive species can have a major impact on the health of a reef. Lionfish have the ability to reduce native fish populations by 80%. Changes in the temperature and pH of the water can cause coral bleaching, which would reduce the productivity of the reef, diminishing the number of organisms the reef could support. Illegal use of dynamite, cyanide, or bottom trawling could also damage the reef. Other threats include overfishing, pollution, debris, and fish collection.

58. What are the causes of algal blooms, and how do algal blooms affect coral reefs?

ANSWER: Runoff from agricultural areas contains high levels of nutrients and can increase algae production and create algal blooms. Algal blooms can smother corals and block sunlight, reducing photosynthesis and thus leading to a decline in the health of the reef.

59. Which action would NOT threaten the ocean's ability to provide ecosystem goods and services? a. dumping motor oil down storm drains b. fishing using bottom trawlers c. spilling gasoline while fueling your lawn mower d. soil erosion from construction sites e. installing solar panels ANSWER: e 60. Choose the strategy that is CORRECTLY matched with how it reduces the threat to marine ecosystems. a. reducing beachfront development — reduces overfishing b. designating marine protected areas — enables recovery from coral-bleaching events c. transitioning to non–fossil fuel energy sources — reduces algal blooms Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.3 d. prohibiting bottom trawling — prevents introduction of invasive species e. banning release of ballast water from ships — reduces ocean acidification ANSWER: b 61. In 2006, commercial fishing was prohibited in the marine protected area of the South Pacific coral reefs of the Republic of Kiribati's Kanton Island. What was the effect of this? a. Fishermen lost their jobs and went bankrupt. b. The fish in the reef died off anyway. c. The reef began to recover from a bleaching event. d. The corals were stressed further and more of them died. e. Algae began growing on the corals and took over the area.

ANSWER: c 62. Which statement is TRUE regarding reducing threats to marine ecosystems? a. Evidence shows that MPAs do not improve marine ecosystems, as it is impossible to keep community connections intact and because ocean ecosystems are generally not resilient. b. A transition to energy sources not based on fossil fuels will reduce the amount of anthropogenic CO2 released and slow ocean acidification and warming. c. Given that sea levels are likely rising, it is less critical to reduce nutrient (fertilizer or sewage) or toxic pollution, as the larger volume of water will dilute the pollutants. d. Overfishing is not the problem; rather, the problem lies in the fishing techniques. So we can continue to fish at current levels and still improve ocean ecosystems if we just change how we fish. e. All of these statements are true regarding reducing threats to marine ecosystems.

ANSWER: b 63. Which factor is NOT a major threat to ocean ecosystems? a. overfishing b. plate tectonics c. pollution d. rising sea levels e. invasive species ANSWER: b 64. What are MPAs? a. fishing areas for commercial fishermen b. places where fishing and other human activities are restricted or completely prohibited c. delicate intertidal communities d. areas that are overrun with invasive species e. places near shorelines that have been extremely polluted by sediment ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.3 65. Which strategy is INCORRECTLY matched with its effect on ocean ecosystems? a. prohibiting bottom trawling in vulnerable areas — reduces exposure to land-based pollution b. reducing the use of fossil fuel — reduces the amount of anthropogenic carbon dioxide released and slows ocean acidification c. reducing pollution — reduces infections and keeps coral healthy d. designating MPAs — protects ocean communities to help them recover from environmental damage e. prohibiting bottom trawling in vulnerable areas — protects reefs from destructive practices ANSWER: a 66. How can we reduce threats to ocean ecosystems? Discuss three strategies to improve oceans and coasts and explain the potential positive effects.

ANSWER: Students can select any three of the following strategies to reduce threats to ocean ecosystems: (1) establish marine protected areas (MPAs) or places where fishing and other human activities are restricted or completely prohibited: evidence shows that in the right conditions, MPAs can be very effective in allowing an area to recover from environmental damage and benefit not only fish stocks but other ecosystem services as well; (2) reduce use of fossil fuels and transition to energy sources not based on fossil fuels: this will reduce the amount of anthropogenic CO2 released, which will reduce the CO2 available to be absorbed by oceans and thus slow ocean acidification and warming; (3) limit coastal development, especially in vulnerable areas: this keeps the areas intact and also reduces exposure to land-based pollution that can harm sea life; (4) reduce pollution on all fronts: keeping waters clear, clean, and free of nutrients, toxins, litter, and pathogens benefits both ocean organisms and humans by reducing wildlife entanglement, limiting algal blooms, and minimizing pathogen and toxin contamination of seafood; (5) change fishing techniques and reduce overfishing: using safer techniques will be less disruptive to nontarget species and will also protect ocean ecosystems from being destroyed; similarly, keeping populations viable by not overfishing improves an ocean community's ability to withstand perturbations; and (6) monitor and manage invasive species: this will reduce the likelihood that ocean ecosystems are wrecked by aggressive non-native species.

67. The majority of coral reefs that have been destroyed are found near less developed countries. What are some of the reasons why these coral reefs have been more damaged compared with reefs found near countries that are more developed?

ANSWER: The major threats facing coral reefs today include overfishing, coastal development, and pollution.

Countries that are more developed have enacted laws protecting coral reefs and have the resources to enforce protection of their coral reefs. Additionally, countries that are more developed have rules regulating coastal development and strict regulations on the treatment of pollution and its disposal.

Less developed countries may not have these rules or resources to protect their coral reefs from human impact and exploitation.

68. Describe ways that you can reduce threats to ocean ecosystems through your personal actions.

ANSWER: To help reduce carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere, you can ride your bike to work, carpool, or use mass transit options. In addition, plant trees that will act as CO2 sinks. Support efforts for alternative energy sources like wind and solar energy. Use only organic fertilizer and limit water usage. Fertilizer and wastewater runoff into oceans harms sea life. Participate in local "clean up the river" activities. Watersheds affect oceans and reefs. Reduce your trash by purchasing long-lasting Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.3 goods and reusing and recycling products so less trash ends up in oceans where it harms reefs and fish. Donate time/resources or do business with groups that clean up reefs, practice responsible reef dives/snorkeling (don't touch the coral), or provide education through zoos or aquariums. Purchase marine aquarium fish or other reef objects only if they were harvested in an ecologically sustainable way. Avoid fish products known to be harvested in a manner that damages marine ecosystems (bottom trawling and overfishing). Continue to educate yourself and others about how marine ecosystems are affected by human activity. Use your knowledge to make informed decisions regarding policies and elected officials (for the creation of marine protected areas and reserves).

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Module 06.1 1. Refer to the infographic. Even though the planet is 75% water, only _____% of this water is freshwater.

a. 1.2 b. 30.1 c. less than 1 d. 2.5 e. 23.5 ANSWER: d 2. Of all the freshwater on Earth, approximately _____% is trapped as ice. a. 10 b. 70 c. 50 d. 8 e. 90 ANSWER: b 3. Refer to the infographic. Which of the following contains the MOST surface freshwater?

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Module 06.1

a. groundwater b. glaciers and ice caps c. soil moisture d. rivers e. lakes/wetlands ANSWER: e 4. Which statement is FALSE? a. Ocean water is toxic to humans in large doses. b. Each region around the world faces unique water challenges. c. Snowmelt from the Sierra Nevada Mountains could increase as a result of climate change. d. Up to 75% of the human body consists of water. e. Nearly 70% of freshwater on the planet is trapped in ice caps at the poles and on glaciers.

ANSWER: c 5. Out of all of the water on Earth, how much is usable by humans? a. 50% b. 10% c. 5% d. 1% e. less than 1% ANSWER: e Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.1 6. The LARGEST potential source of freshwater is found in: a. groundwater. b. lakes. c. oceans. d. polar ice caps and glaciers. e. rivers.

ANSWER: d 7. Water that has a low level of dissolved ions in it can be found in: a. glaciers. b. streams. c. lakes. d. groundwater. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 8. 75% of the surface of Earth is covered in water. Only about 2.5% of that total is freshwater. Explain where the majority of that freshwater is found, and where human beings access this precious resource.

ANSWER: Because approximately 70% of all freshwater on Earth is trapped in glaciers and ice caps at the poles, humans depend on freshwater trapped underground and surface water in lakes, streams, and rivers to meet our varied needs.

9. The action by which plant roots pull water from the soil and then release some of it into the atmosphere is known as: a. evaporation. b. transpiration. c. evapotranspiration. d. infiltration. e. condensation.

ANSWER: b 10. Gravity does NOT "power" which process of the hydrologic cycle? a. runoff b. infiltration c. precipitation d. transpiration e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: d 11. Which factor contributes to the formation of precipitation?

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Module 06.1 a. cold air in the upper atmosphere b. solar energy c. the movement of groundwater d. evaporation e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 12. Refer to the infographic. Explain how salty ocean water can be recycled to become usable freshwater.

ANSWER: Solar energy heats the ocean water, causing it to evaporate into gaseous water vapor. The salt remains behind. After rising, cooler air causes the water vapor to condense as clouds. Eventually, the water in these clouds will fall back to Earth as precipitation. Some of this may infiltrate into the groundwater, where it can be used as freshwater. Some of it will remain as fresh, usable surface water. Of course, much of it may also fall back into the oceans.

13. Refer to the infographic. Explain the steps and processes in the water cycle as water moves from the ocean to the atmosphere to land and back to the ocean.

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ANSWER: Water in the ocean is heated by solar energy, causing it to evaporate. As this water rises and cools, it condenses over land to form clouds. This cloud water eventually falls back to Earth as precipitation.

On the Earth's surface, precipitated water can travel down a couple of paths. If it soaks into the ground, or infiltrates, it can enter the groundwater supply, which will eventually bring it back to the ocean. Also, infiltrated water can be absorbed by plants, transpired through them, and released back to the atmosphere. If water lands on the surface and flows over the surface rather than infiltrating, it becomes runoff and can flow into a lake, river, or other body of water, eventually making its way back to the ocean. From the surface or from any body of water, water can evaporate, condensate, and then re-precipitate.

14. Why is deforestation a problem in regard to the Earth's freshwater supply?

ANSWER: Deforestation cuts down acres and acres of trees and other plants. As we know from the water cycle, plants, especially large trees, take up water from underground reserves (transpiration) and release it back into the atmosphere (evaporation). If these plants were no longer present and able to do this process, the water cycle would be broken and less freshwater would fall from the clouds to the Earth's surface, resulting in lower groundwater supplies in more areas.

15. The top of a rain-saturated region that may rise or fall seasonally is called the: a. unconfined aquifer.

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Module 06.1 b. confined aquifer. c. water table. d. infiltrator. e. porous rock.

ANSWER: c 16. What is an aquifer? a. an area in which saltwater intrudes on freshwater supplies b. a species of conifer that can live underwater c. an underground region of permeable soil or rock saturated with water d. the very top region of an underground water reservoir e. a human-made underground water reservoir system ANSWER: c 17. What is one important quality of an aquifer? a. Bacteria and other contaminants are filtered out of the water by rocks and soil. b. The water supply is replenished through infiltration of rain and snowmelt. c. It is a source of potable water. d. Individual homes can access the water supply by digging wells into the aquifer. e. All of these answer choices are important qualities of aquifers.

ANSWER: e 18. An aquifer that is separated by impermeable rock is called a(n) _____ aquifer. a. confined b. unconfirmed c. confirmed d. unconfined e. nonporous ANSWER: a 19. Groundwater in aquifers is naturally replenished by: a. runoff. b. transpiration. c. infiltration. d. seepage from sewers. e. evaporation.

ANSWER: c 20. Predict whether the water table would be higher or lower in New Mexico at the height of summer. a. higher Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.1 b. lower ANSWER: b 21. Which factor would reduce the amount of infiltration of water into an aquifer? a. gravel roads b. monoculture lawns c. gravel driveways d. buildings e. All of these are correct.

ANSWER: e 22. What happens when the water table drops below sea level in aquifers near the ocean? a. saltwater intrusion b. seawater conversion to freshwater c. freshwater intrusion d. contamination of the entire aquifer with saltwater e. There is no consequence to this.

ANSWER: a 23. What is the MOST likely reason that more communities do not use the potable water stored in confined aquifers? a. It is usually contaminated with saltwater. b. It is impossible to access. c. Bacteria are not filtered out of this water. d. It is too expensive to reach and pump out. e. Most aquifers are unconfined.

ANSWER: d 24. What is a consequence of too much water being removed from an aquifer? a. saltwater intrusion b. dry wells c. cones of depression d. lowered water table levels e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 25. Which sequence lists the path of water CORRECTLY? a. surface → soil → water table → aquifer b. surface → saturated zone → soil → aquifer → water table c. surface → water table → soil Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.1 d. lake → soil → aquifer → water table e. infiltration → soil → aquifer → water table ANSWER: a 26. How did the Orange County Water District solve the problem of saltwater intrusion into unconfined coastal aquifers? a. It built a dam to block the seepage of saltwater into the aquifers. b. It stopped using those aquifers as public water supplies. c. It installed desalination plants to purify the water coming out of the aquifers. d. It began to pump highly treated sewage wastewater into infiltrated wells. e. It built sea walls along coastal areas to keep out advancing waves.

ANSWER: d 27. What is one way you can help protect, or advise others in order to protect, your local aquifer?

ANSWER: Depending on where you live and what is present in your community, there are different ways that you can protect your local aquifer. If you live in an urban area, you could build your driveway out of porous materials to let rainwater seep through to the groundwater below. You could also plant different species of grasses and plants in your yard that could increase the amount of rainwater and snowmelt that are taken into the ground instead of running off into the sewer. If you lived in a more agricultural area, you could make sure that water runoff from your farm is reduced and free of pollutants like fertilizer and pesticides. You could also invest in technology and methods that reduce the amount of water needed for your crops or use different sources of water (perhaps purified wastewater). All of these methods, including watching your personal water usage and educating others on theirs, will help keep our aquifers healthy and full.

28. What are some potential impacts of global warming on aquifers?

ANSWER: Global warming is having and will have large effects on Earth's ecosystems. In terms of aquifers, some potential effects will include aquifers drying up completely (especially in drought-stricken areas); lowered water tables to the point where saltwater intrusion will occur; less snowfall on mountains, which means less snowmelt to replenish the aquifer in the spring thaw; and rising temperatures, meaning less rainfall, which would cause water table levels to drop, people to dig wells deeper, and more dry wells to occur. All of these effects would be compounded by the likelihood that water demand would rise, for both personal and commercial/agricultural use, in warming temperatures.

29. Refer to the infographic. Explain how the deeper well at the larger house affects the water supply to each of the smaller houses.

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ANSWER: The excess withdrawal of water by the larger house is causing what is referred to as a cone of depression. This lowers the water table (top level of the aquifer) so that the well from one of the smaller houses will dry up. This homeowner will be forced to drill deeper or get water elsewhere.

The other smaller house is closer to the ocean. The depleted aquifer is now contaminated with saltwater that has pushed into the open space.

30. Refer to the infographic. Explain the relationships between the saturated and unsaturated zones, precipitation and infiltration, and the water table.

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ANSWER: The saturated zone is where the groundwater is located; the unsaturated zone is where infiltration takes place, but the water doesn't stay there. The water table is the boundary between the two.

Precipitation is the process that provides the water, and infiltration is the process by which the water percolates through the unsaturated zone into the saturated zone.

31. Which practice requires the GREATEST amount of water input? a. flushing the toilet b. taking a shower c. making a cotton T-shirt d. washing dishes e. producing 1 pound of beef ANSWER: e 32. Which country has the GREATEST domestic water use per capita? a. the United States b. Australia c. Canada d. China Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.1 e. France ANSWER: a 33. Globally, what is the BIGGEST user of freshwater? a. agriculture b. industry c. domestic d. mining e. thermoelectric power plants ANSWER: a 34. Not having access to enough clean water supplies is known as: a. drought. b. freshwater debt. c. groundwater depletion. d. water scarcity. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: d 35. In the southwestern United States, the use of water is approaching or exceeding sustainable limits. This is a good example of: a. economic water scarcity. b. physical water scarcity. c. inadequate sanitation. d. All of these answer choices are correct. e. None of these answer choices is correct.

ANSWER: b 36. Which continent has the GREATEST water scarcity? a. North America b. South America c. Africa d. Antarctica e. Europe ANSWER: c 37. Water scarcity can lead to: a. a short life span. b. malnutrition. c. conflict over water rights.

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Module 06.1 d. cultural turmoil. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 38. Which statement about water use is INCORRECT? a. The United Nations estimates that 2.8 billion people lack sufficient access to clean water. b. As the population increases, water scarcity and sanitation issues will also increase. c. Because of their unsustainable practices, per capita water use in developing countries is far greater than in developed nations. d. In some areas of the world, there is enough water, but people do not have enough money to purchase or dig wells to access it. e. Middle Eastern nations are among the most water-stressed countries in the world.

ANSWER: c 39. Compare and contrast physical and economic water scarcity. How might solutions to water scarcity differ for these two causes?

ANSWER: Physical water scarcity occurs when there is not enough water in any kind of reservoir to meet the demand of the communities living around them. There is "physically" not enough water to go around. Economic water scarcity occurs where there is actually water available but the communities, due to economic reasons, cannot utilize it. A solution to any problem must take into account the cause of the problem in the first place. For example, changing agricultural water use policies and technology would likely not help some communities with economic water scarcity because the water that is available for use would still be contaminated by raw sewage. And vice versa, better home water use policies may not greatly help a community where a physical scarcity is caused by extensive agricultural use.

40. How might global warming and climate change affect water scarcity in the future?

ANSWER: Climate change will affect many areas concerning water scarcity, but in general, you can imagine that as the average temperature of Earth rises, the need for water, for all uses, will grow. If you add to that the exponential population growth that Earth is experiencing, you now have more people to feed, more sanitation issues to deal with, and less water to provide solutions. Billions of humans are already experiencing water scarcity, and unless area-specific policies and solutions are put into place, that number is going to continue to grow.

41. What legislative act makes the United States drinking water so dependable? a. the Clean Water Act b. the Potable Water Act c. the Safe Water Act d. the Safe Drinking Water Act ANSWER: d 42. In the United States, the EPA classifies_____ as a category of drinking water contaminant. a. cleaning products Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.1 b. bacteria c. inorganic chemicals d. household chemicals ANSWER: c 43. What is the most common water contaminant in the U.S. municipal water supplies? a. fecal material b. nitrogen fertilizers c. pesticides d. microorganisms ANSWER: a 44. During the Flint, Michigan, water crisis in 2015, measured lead levels were up to: a. 3 times higher than EPA safety limits. b. 9 times higher than EPA safety limits. c. 5 times higher than EPA safety limits. d. 7 times higher than EPA safety limits.

ANSWER: d 45. Between 1982 and 2015 what was the most common SDWA health violation? a. possible fecal contamination b. possible microorganism contamination c. possible organic chemical contamination d. possible radionuclide contamination ANSWER: a 46. Describe three measurable impacts of the 2015 Flint, Michigan, water crisis.

ANSWER: Because Flint switched its water source from Lake Huron to the industrially polluted Flint River, 40% of the homes in Flint had tap water lead levels up to 7 times higher than EPA allowable limits.

Approximately 100,000 residents were potentially exposed to high levels of lead in their drinking water. (As there are more than 3 measurable impacts, answers may vary depending on the student.)

47. What is the outcome goal of most wastewater treatment? a. making wastewater potable b. removing solids from wastewater c. making wastewater safe for release into the environment d. making wastewater safe for consumption ANSWER: c 48. The Arcata, California, wastewater treatment facility is modeled after what ecosystem? a. swamp Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.1 b. wetland c. estuary d. freshwater lake ANSWER: b 49. Wetland filtration systems differ from traditional high-tech filtration systems in that: a. they create water that improves environmental water quality. b. they depend on nature to help purify sewage. c. they require a higher energy input than high-tech methods. d. None of these answers is correct. e. Both A and B are correct.

ANSWER: e 50. _____ treatment is a physical process that removes large particles with a screen. a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. Potable e. Clarifier ANSWER: a 51. Using the infographic, discuss how the wetland method might impact the health of recreational water users when returning treated wastewater to the environment.

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ANSWER: Because it ends up very clean, wastewater filtered through the wetland method has been shown to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.1 increase environmental water quality, as evidenced by Humboldt Bay. This directly impacts those utilizing recreational waters. The effectively treated wastewater protects swimmers, surfers, and others from the potential danger of pathogenic viruses carried by poorly "traditionally" treated wastewater discharged into recreational waters.

52. How do traditional wastewater treatment plants differ from wastewater treatment plants that mimic nature?

ANSWER: The goal of both types of plants is to treat wastewater and make it safe before discharging it back into nature. Traditional wastewater plants use energy-intensive high-tech methods that rely upon chemicals to treat the wastewater. Plants that mimic nature use ponds and wetlands to naturally treat wastewater; the microorganisms and plants in the ponds and wetlands purify the wastewater as it flows through them.

53. To ensure an ongoing water source, communities construct _____, which in turn create _____. a. wetland sewage filtration systems; reservoirs b. reservoirs; aquifers c. dams; reservoirs d. water tables; aquifers e. reverse osmosis plants; dams ANSWER: c 54. Which of the water projects discussed in this chapter was designed to produce potable water for Arizona and California? a. the Parker Dam b. the Groundwater Replenishment System c. Orange County d. Arcata ANSWER: a 55. While dams are important, they lose large amounts of water every day due to: a. infiltration. b. evaporation. c. runoff. d. transpiration. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: b 56. Desalination, the process that removes _____ from water, is _____. a. bacteria; cheap b. salt and other minerals; expensive c. pollution; a biomimicry process d. sewage; mandated by the federal government e. organic matter; facilitated by reverse osmosis Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 06.1 ANSWER: b 57. The Groundwater Replenishment System in Fountain Valley, California, reclaims water that normally would have been lost as: a. evaporation. b. runoff. c. sewage. d. landfill.

ANSWER: c 58. Many countries have constructed dams and reservoirs as a method to solve water shortages. What are some of the problems associated with dams and reservoirs?

ANSWER: Some of the problems seen with dams and reservoirs are "water wars" between upstream and downstream areas, water losses that can range in thousands of gallons per day to evaporation, and ecological impacts through loss of habitats and biodiversity.

59. Our per capita use of water is known as our: a. water footprint. b. ecological footprint. c. water scarcity. d. aquifer. e. ecosystem service.

ANSWER: a 60. Refer to the infographic. Which of the following represents the LARGEST single use of water in a typical U.S. household?

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a. leaks b. baths c. showering d. washing clothes e. toilets ANSWER: e 61. How many gallons of water per load do newer Energy Star washing machines use compared with older models? a. 22 gallons vs. 40 gallons b. 20 gallons vs. 40 gallons c. 18 gallons vs. 35 gallons d. 26 gallons vs. 44 gallons e. 15 gallons vs. 30 gallons ANSWER: a 62. Switching to water-saving irrigation methods not only saves water, but also: a. limits water loss to evaporation. b. reduces runoff. c. protects surface water. d. prevents soil salinization. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 63. Which method is a cheap way to maintain water supplies?

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Module 06.1 a. not waste so much water b. use water-saving irrigation methods c. create groundwater replenishment systems d. install high-tech water filtration systems e. both not waste so much water and use water-saving irrigation methods ANSWER: e 64. Explain why it is more cost effective to conserve water than it is to purify it or build a dam.

ANSWER: Purification projects, such as the GWRS project in California, can cost almost $500 million just to build. And then they need money for operation and maintenance. Most rivers that can be dammed have been. Reservoirs are prone to evaporation. Also, there are many political issues involved in damming rivers. The environmental issues in damming a river need to be considered, such as disrupting fish life cycles and changing the temperature of the water. Finally, there are the issues of the people and culture being displaced by a reservoir. In contrast, it is easier and cheaper not to waste as much water in daily living. Many new technologies for the home are being developed, such as low-flow toilets, faucets, washers, and dishwashers. Just fixing a leak can conserve 14% of a household's water use. New irrigation methods in agriculture that reduce evaporation and runoff loss are also being developed.

65. Explain how cotton growing practices can directly work against and with water conservation efforts.

ANSWER: Cotton is a water-thirsty crop typically grown in arid climates. It requires a great deal of irrigation water and if this water is not properly applied, much of it can be lost to evaporation. Conventionally grown cotton is also typically treated with high levels of pesticides, which can then pollute local water supplies and increase the water footprint of the cotton growing operation. In addition, much of the post-harvest processing of cotton requires water as well. Seeking to reduce their water footprint, the U.S. company Levi Strauss & Co. is working to source cotton that is sustainable. This means it is grown in a manner that improves the livelihoods and working conditions of the farmers and reduces the environmental impact of growing cotton through more efficient irrigation and fewer pesticides.

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Module 07.2 1. Forest biomes currently cover how much of the planet's landmass? a. 10% b. 25% c. 70% d. 50% ANSWER: b 2. The type of forest is determined by which main factor(s)? a. temperature b. precipitation c. type of soil d. temperature and precipitation e. precipitation and type of soil ANSWER: d 3. The forest biome that you would expect to find in a cold location with mild precipitation and a short growing season would be: a. deciduous. b. boreal. c. coniferous. d. tropical.

ANSWER: b 4. The term for trees that lose their leaves on an annual basis is: a. emergent. b. temperate. c. deciduous. d. boreal. e. coniferous.

ANSWER: c 5. Which statement about forests is NOT true? a. Temperature and the amount of sunlight an area receives determine which type of forest is present in that area. b. Forests cover about one-third of the planet's landmass. c. In terms of biodiversity, forests are home to over one-half of Earth's terrestrial life. d. Forests are dominated by trees. e. The types of forests vary across the globe.

ANSWER: a 6. Forests around the world are home to more than _____% of Earth's terrestrial life.

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Module 07.2 a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 e. 60 ANSWER: d 7. A temperate forest: a. is only found in far northern latitudes. b. covers vast tracts of land in the higher latitudes and altitudes. c. is found in tropical latitudes. d. contains deciduous trees that lose their leaves in the winter. e. is characterized by low temperatures and precipitation levels.

ANSWER: d 8. Which forest type is NOT paired with its correct description? a. boreal forest — short growing season b. temperate forest — distinct seasons c. boreal forest — thick soils from plant decomposition d. tropical forest — wet and dry seasons e. tropical forest — thin, acidic, low-nutrient soils ANSWER: c 9. What percentage of Haiti's original forests remain compared with those that existed prior to European settlement? a. less than 1% b. 6% c. 10% d. 25% e. 50% ANSWER: a 10. Which forest type has the MOST fertile soil? a. deciduous b. boreal c. coniferous d. tropical e. temperate ANSWER: e

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Module 07.2 11. What would you expect to happen to the distribution of boreal forests as average global temperatures increase with climate change?

ANSWER: As temperatures increase, these cold-dependent boreal forests may shift their distributions farther north in Alaska, Canada, and Siberia. They may also move to higher elevations in alpine areas in the temperate zone.

12. The soils of tropical forests are typically thin and low in plant nutrients. Yet tropical forests are some of the most productive and diverse ecosystems on the planet. How can you explain this paradox?

ANSWER: Warm and wet conditions can drive extremely high rates of decomposition by bacteria, fungi, and other decomposers. This decomposition can "unlock" nutrients from biomass that can then be rapidly absorbed by the tropical vegetation, allowing for high rates of productivity and diversity.

13. The CORRECT order of forest layers from the bottom to top of a forest is: a. forest floor, canopy, understory, emergent layer. b. emergent layer, forest floor, understory, canopy. c. forest floor, understory, emergent layer, canopy. d. forest floor, understory, canopy, emergent layer. e. understory, forest floor, emergent layer, canopy.

ANSWER: d 14. Trees and shrubs that are adapted to shade would be found in which layer of a forest? a. forest floor b. understory c. canopy d. emergent layer ANSWER: b 15. The layer of a forest cross section that generally would contain seedlings is the: a. forest floor. b. understory. c. canopy. d. emergent layer.

ANSWER: a 16. The emergent layer of the forest is the: a. lowest level of the forest, where herbaceous plants and fungi emerge out of the soil. b. region where trees are rising above the canopy layer. c. upper layer of the forest where the crowns of most of the tallest trees meet. d. area where the smaller trees live under the canopy and try to emerge into the sunlight. e. layer most often used for timber harvest.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 17. The three-dimensional structure of the forest refers to the fact that forests: a. can cover thousands of acres. b. can contain a variety of tree species. c. can have multiple layers. d. can be restored in a relatively short time span. e. exist in several types, such as tropical, deciduous, and boreal.

ANSWER: c 18. Refer to Infographic 2. Which effect would NOT be one of a tree falling down in the local forest?

a. Increased sunlight could cause saplings to grow quickly, trying to take its place. b. More niches would be opened up. c. Decomposers and scavengers would make a home in the fallen tree. d. Wildflowers would not bloom. e. Shade-adapted species might be detrimentally affected.

ANSWER: d 19. If a particular species of vine required sunlight and a moderate level of temperature and humidity to survive, in which forest layer would it MOST likely be found? a. emergent layer b. canopy c. understory d. forest floor Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 ANSWER: b 20. Many species of trees found in the canopy and emergent layer of forests have seeds and saplings that are shade adapted. Why do you think this is? a. The seeds need a low temperature to germinate and grow. b. The seeds and saplings will be in the shade for much of their early life because the parent trees in the upper layers of the forest will block a portion of sunlight. c. There is a higher level of humidity in the shade, which the saplings need to survive. d. In order for animals to find and eat the seeds, a necessary step in the trees' germination cycle, they must be on the forest floor. e. Canopy and emergent-layer trees do not produce shade-adapted saplings.

ANSWER: b 21. Refer to Infographic 2. What microclimate exists in the emergent tree layer, and how would this affect the species dwelling there?

ANSWER: It will be hotter and dryer in the emergent trees than in the canopy or on the ground. Therefore, species will have to be more heat and water tolerant. One example is the sloth that moves slowly and has algae growing in its fur to keep it cooler.

22. How does the layering or stratification of forests contribute to overall animal biodiversity?

ANSWER: The unique microclimates and plant species of each layer allow for a greater variety and number of niches in the forest. As the number of available niches increases, so will the overall animal diversity across the entire forest.

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Module 07.2 23. The net loss of trees in a region is known as: a. deforestation. b. industrialization. c. clear-cutting. d. fire suppression. e. charcoal.

ANSWER: a 24. Why are forests called carbon sinks? a. Carbon drains out of forest biomes through groundwater running below the surface. b. Forest biomes store more carbon than they release. c. Carbon in forest biomes becomes trapped and is never released, even after logging occurs. d. High amounts of water in forest biomes capture carbon and hold it there. e. Forests pull carbon out of organic plant materials and transform it into atmospheric carbon.

ANSWER: b 25. Which factor is NOT an ecosystem service of a forest? a. goods b. soil maintenance and protection c. contribution to the increase of atmospheric carbon dioxide d. recreation e. ecotourism ANSWER: c 26. Which statement is a sociocultural benefit of forests? a. Forest stands are considered sacred by indigenous people, connecting them to their past. b. Soil and roots of forest trees slow rainwater flow to allow more water to soak into the ground. c. Forest layers provide habitat and food for animals, fungi, and microbes. d. Wood products, including lumber, firewood, charcoal, and some medicines, come from forests. e. Forests provide genetic diversity, which could improve our crops or provide new medicines.

ANSWER: a 27. Which service is provided by forests? a. watershed purification b. sink for carbon dioxide c. recycling of nutrients d. reduction of soil erosion e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 28. Robert Constanza and his colleagues estimated the total value of the ecosystem services provided by forests to be _____ in 2007 U.S. dollars. a. $100 million b. $4.8 million c. $16 billion d. $1 trillion e. $16 trillion ANSWER: e 29. Water that flows downhill over the land surface, usually after a rainfall event, is called: a. surface water. b. ground water. c. runoff. d. riparian. e. aquifer.

ANSWER: c 30. Forests remove _____ from the atmosphere and release _____ back into the atmosphere. a. oxygen; carbon dioxide b. carbon dioxide; oxygen c. nitrogen gas; oxygen d. nitrogen gas; carbon dioxide e. carbon dioxide; nitrogen gas ANSWER: b 31. Wood products account for approximately _____ billion in global trade every year. a. $500,000 b. $1 c. $10 d. $50 e. $100 ANSWER: e 32. You have been given the task of convincing a country to maintain its forests instead of converting them into large farms. What information would you present in your argument for keeping the forests?

ANSWER: You would need to list all of the services provided by the forest, including watershed, atmosphere and climate regulation, soil maintenance and protection, and biodiversity and genetic resources. You would also want to discuss any economic goods provided by the forest, such as food and building materials, and the number of jobs the forest provides. Finally, you would want to talk about the sociocultural benefits derived from the forest, such as artistic inspiration and a connection to the past.

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Module 07.2 33. One important function of a forest is nutrient cycling. What nutrients does a forest normally recycle?

ANSWER: Forests play an important role in the carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle, and phosphorus cycle. Many of these nutrients are trapped in the biomass of trees and are released back into the soil upon the death and decomposition of trees or the clearing and burning of trees for agriculture.

34. How does "slash and burn" agriculture (clear-cutting a forested area and burning the trees on site) affect the carbon cycle and influence climate change?

ANSWER: The clear-cutting and subsequent burning of trees affects the carbon cycle in two ways. First, the removal of the trees reduces the ability of the area to pull carbon out of the atmosphere and therefore allows for less carbon storage in biomass. Second, the burning of the trees releases the carbon that had been stored in biomass over the tree's life cycle, adding carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. Both of these result in a net increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and contribute to the increase in greenhouse gases that drive climate change.

35. Production of charcoal results in: a. the release of carbon dioxide and soot into the atmosphere, causing air pollution. b. severe deforestation as trees are chopped down to produce charcoal. c. a sustainable source of energy for countries like Haiti, which sits in the middle of a tropical rainforest with ample access to small and large trees. d. All of these answer choices are correct. e. the release of carbon dioxide and soot into the atmosphere, causing air pollution and severe deforestation as trees are chopped down to produce charcoal.

ANSWER: e 36. Which statement is CORRECT? a. Fire suppression prevents destruction of forests in the long run. b. Deforestation causes little change in the water supply of an area because residents rely on deep wells in the ground. c. Subsistence farming can help prevent mass scale deforestation. d. Roads going through forested areas have little effect on deforestation because people use them solely for transportation.

ANSWER: c 37. Why does forest conservation in countries that are more developed not make a significant difference in worldwide conservation efforts? a. Nations that are more developed still demand wood, driving deforestation elsewhere. b. Multinational corporations simply move their businesses to less developed nations where deforestation regulations do not exist. c. Deforestation in countries that are more developed offsets gains in less developed countries. d. Both because nations that are more developed still demand wood and because multinational corporations move their businesses to less developed nations with fewer deforestation regulations. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 38. What is one way climate change is impacting forests? a. increasing the build-up of deadwood, thus increasing the chance of deadly fires b. decreasing the instance of fire, especially in drought-stricken areas c. increasing the need for timber products, which would increase logging d. increasing pest population attacks on trees from seasonally to all year round e. decreasing the conversion of forestland to cropland for agriculture to export ANSWER: d 39. What could be one reason why people in developing countries may NOT agree with conserving forested land? a. They are unaware of the services intact forests provide. b. They can easily replace the ecosystem services provided by forests through development of public utilities infrastructure. c. It is not as profitable in the short term. d. They do not understand the benefits that can be gained by preserving forests. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: c 40. Refer to the map in Infographic 4. The data on the net change in forested area between 1990 and 2015 suggest that, in general, _____ exists between a country's rate of deforestation and its overall economic status.

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a. a positive relationship b. a negative relationship c. no relationship d. a random relationship ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 41. Haiti's _____ trade grew to account for 20% of the rural economy and 80% of the country's energy supply. a. charcoal b. fossil fuels c. lumber d. fuel wood e. solar energy ANSWER: a 42. Deforestation in less developed countries can best be described as: a. a vicious cycle that results in environmental degradation and poverty b. a problem caused by lack of education among poor people. c. the result of developed nations' dependence on charcoal. d. the only cost-effective way developing nations can meet their energy needs. e. an unsolvable problem.

ANSWER: a 43. Which factor is a major cause of global deforestation? a. logging b. cattle ranching c. pest infestation d. charcoal production e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 44. The majority of deforestation is currently taking place: a. in countries that are more developed. b. in countries that are less developed. c. at the same rate in both developed and developing countries. d. at rates that vary worldwide, with no pattern. e. The data to determine this are insufficient.

ANSWER: b 45. Total global deforestation is approximately _____ million acres per year. a. 2.3 b. 7.6 c. 10.2 d. 19 e. 50.1 ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 46. The three main causes of forest destruction are harvesting of wood, conversion of forests into agricultural land, and: a. pest infestation. b. fires. c. roads. d. urbanization. e. air pollution.

ANSWER: d 47. The United States was one of a few countries that had a net increase in forested areas between the years 2005 and 2010. What are some of the reasons why the United States saw an increase, and how could this increase have had a negative impact on other countries?

ANSWER: Over the years, the United States has passed several laws that regulate the use of and the replanting of forested areas. These laws have resulted in an increase in the forested area in the United States.

Since there are strict regulations on how forests can be used in the United States, more wood is imported from developing countries. Developing countries may not regulate the use of their forests, and even with regulations, they may not have the resources to properly enforce the regulations, which could result in overharvesting and degradation of their forests.

48. The amount of global deforestation has slowed significantly since the 1990s. One of the major reasons why there is still a net loss of forested land each year is harvesting of forests for wood and wood products. What are some of the ways that a country could reduce its dependence on wood and wood products?

ANSWER: One of the easiest ways to reduce the demand for a product is through recycling. Recycling of material made from wood not only preserves forests but also lessens the amount of waste being put into landfills. Also, using wood classified as ecological construction material or ecologically green (bamboo) would put less of a stress on the harvesting of hardwoods that grow at a significantly slower rate.

49. Timber harvests are managed by several different techniques. Choose the technique that has the smallest overall effect on biodiversity. a. clear-cutting b. strip harvesting c. selective harvesting d. shelterwood harvesting e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: d 50. Which statement is INCORRECT? a. Clear-cutting can be appropriate when it removes genetically inferior trees. b. Shelterwood harvesting works by cutting the high-value trees and leaving the others to reseed the plot. c. Strip harvesting maintains a small level of biodiversity after a cut is made. d. Shelterwood harvesting may have the highest levels of biodiversity postharvest compared with the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 other methods of harvest.

ANSWER: b 51. Which order of timber harvesting methods goes from least conservation of biodiversity to most conservation of biodiversity? a. clear-cutting, selective harvesting, strip harvesting b. strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting, clear-cutting c. selective harvesting, strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting d. clear-cutting, strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting e. All harvesting methods increase biodiversity equally.

ANSWER: d 52. When choosing a forest harvesting strategy, foresters first evaluate: a. the health of the forest. b. the age of the forest. c. the health, age, and species composition of the forest. d. none of these are considered.

ANSWER: c 53. The disadvantage to _____ harvesting is it leaves behind smaller, inferior tree species which may weaken the forest over time. a. clear-cut b. selective c. shelterwood d. all three of these ANSWER: b 54. You are put in charge of a timber harvest for a section of forest that runs along a river. Which technique will minimize the effects on the environment? a. leaving a width of trees that run along the side of the river untouched b. cutting a limited number of selected trees c. leaving the best trees behind to reseed the forest d. allowing ample time for the forest to recover before harvesting again e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 55. Discuss the benefits and disadvantages to shelterwood and selective harvesting.

ANSWER: Shelterwood harvesting leaves the best trees behind to repopulate the forest. This ensures a strong forest in the future. The economic gains are similar to selective harvesting. Biodiversity falls initially but is higher than with selective harvesting techniques. Selective harvesting takes the very best trees, leaving others to repopulate the forest. The economic gains are similar to shelterwood but Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 less than clear-cutting. Biodiversity will decline initially but recovers over time.

56. For decades foresters clear-cut large tracts of land. Analyze this strategy and compare with selective and shelterwood harvesting techniques.

ANSWER: Clear-cutting is a fast way to remove trees and maximize profits. However, it devastates the habitat, leaving behind decades of messy growth and no future profits from the land. Selective and shelterwood harvesting techniques give foresters the opportunity to leave large grown trees that will reseed the area, creating opportunity for future harvest. These latter two strategies have less shortterm profits but larger profits over decades and centuries.

57. The Forest Stewardship Council certifies lumber and other timber processes through a method that: a. punishes companies that do not follow sustainable harvesting techniques. b. evaluates timber-harvesting techniques in terms of wildlife, water, and soil quality. c. funds sustainable forestry operations in developing nations, fostering sustainable harvesting strategies. d. prices ecosystem services and incorporates them into taxes. e. focuses on the jobs and economics behind the forestry industry.

ANSWER: b 58. Many people in poor countries, like Haiti, will do whatever is necessary to help support their families.

Forests in poor countries are often cut down to harvest for charcoal, use for farming, or harvest for lumber.

What could we do to limit the destruction of forests in these countries? a. encourage our government to provide them with financial support b. purchase items made in those countries c. help to sponsor their schools d. educate the citizens about forests e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 59. _____ is low-impact travel to natural areas that contributes to environmental protection and respects the local people. a. Ecosystem service b. Ecotourism c. A green job d. Recreation e. Ecosystem tourism ANSWER: b 60. Which act of Congress mandates that national forests be managed in a way that balances a variety of uses? a. Clean Air Act b. Clean Water Act c. Multiple-Use Sustained-Yield Act Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 d. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability (Superfund) Act ANSWER: c 61. Which species can replenish the nutrients in soil? a. mango trees b. oak trees c. mahogany trees d. moringa trees ANSWER: d 62. Harvesting as much as is sustainably possible but not more for the greatest economic benefit is called the _____ yield. a. minimum sustainable b. maximum sustainable c. normal sustainable d. unsustainable e. multiple-use sustained ANSWER: b 63. The first director of the U.S. Forest Service was: a. Teddy Roosevelt. b. Aldo Leopold. c. Rachel Carson. d. Wallace Stegner. e. Gifford Pinchot.

ANSWER: e 64. Globally, what proportion of harvested forests is certified as "sustainable" by the Forest Stewardship Council? a. 5% b. 16% c. 22% d. 38% e. 56% ANSWER: a 65. What is the Multiple-Use Sustained-Yield Act? a. an act created in 1960 that mandated the management of national forests in a way that balances a variety of uses b. the key act that drove the establishment of the National Forest Service in 1905 c. the act that went against Gifford Pinchot's concept of inexhaustible forest resources Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 d. the act that was created to support sustainable business development so that economic benefits from forests could be ranked with more value than recreational benefits from forests e. the act that supported maximizing the yields of specific forestry products ANSWER: a 66. The key to the regeneration of Haiti's forests is: a. finding alternative sources of energy. b. finding alternative sources of food, building materials, and income. c. changing the species used for charcoal production. d. both finding alternative sources of energy and finding alternative sources of food, building materials, and income. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 67. Which example is a current approach to forest restoration? a. recycling lumber from salvage b. using fast-growing plant species, such as flax for paper, instead of tree species c. Green Belt movements d. emphasizing alternative forest products, such as nuts and shade-grown coffee e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 68. Many developing countries are removing their forests at an alarming rate. What can be done to slow the rate at which developing countries are harvesting their forests?

ANSWER: One of the causes of rapid deforestation in developing countries is the amount of poverty and lack of alternatives to timber for people to use. Providing alternatives to charcoal as a source of fuel and more jobs to lessen the demand on forest products to sell in the marketplace will reduce the rate of deforestation. Developing countries should also be encouraged to grow native food crops instead of cash crops; this will reduce the amount of space needed for agriculture and allow for more forests to be preserved.

69. The dependence on charcoal as an energy source in Haiti is referred to as a vicious cycle with regard to environmental degradation. Why? ANSWER: The people of Haiti depend on charcoal as one of their main energy sources. The unsustainable harvest of trees leads to soil erosion, which in turn leads to reduced crop production, reduced incomes, and higher flood frequencies. All of this reduces the productivity of forests and lowers charcoal production.

70. What is the difference between the mandate of maximum sustainable yield (MSY) and the Forest Service's new approach, Forest Ecosystem Management (FEM)?

ANSWER: MSY focuses on managing tree species and harvesting them at a rate no greater than the trees can be regenerated. FEM takes a broader approach and includes not only the management of timber harvests but also other techniques for managing forests, such as controlled burns and restoration.

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Module 07.2 This approach focuses on the management of not just the harvested species of trees but the entire forest ecosystem.

71. Why might forest management be considered a "wicked problem"?

ANSWER: Forest management is considered a wicked problem because there is no clear solution that provides benefits for all parties involved. For example, in order to preserve high levels of biodiversity, you could argue that deforestation must end on all continents. While that strategy may be good for the environment, the people living in poverty who depend on those forests for fuel and income would suffer greatly. There are many considerations that must be made when thinking about possible solutions to forest management issues.

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Module 07.2 1. Forest biomes currently cover how much of the planet's landmass? a. 10% b. 25% c. 70% d. 50% ANSWER: b 2. The type of forest is determined by which main factor(s)? a. temperature b. precipitation c. type of soil d. temperature and precipitation e. precipitation and type of soil ANSWER: d 3. The forest biome that you would expect to find in a cold location with mild precipitation and a short growing season would be: a. deciduous. b. boreal. c. coniferous. d. tropical.

ANSWER: b 4. The term for trees that lose their leaves on an annual basis is: a. emergent. b. temperate. c. deciduous. d. boreal. e. coniferous.

ANSWER: c 5. Which statement about forests is NOT true? a. Temperature and the amount of sunlight an area receives determine which type of forest is present in that area. b. Forests cover about one-third of the planet's landmass. c. In terms of biodiversity, forests are home to over one-half of Earth's terrestrial life. d. Forests are dominated by trees. e. The types of forests vary across the globe.

ANSWER: a 6. Forests around the world are home to more than _____% of Earth's terrestrial life.

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Module 07.2 a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 e. 60 ANSWER: d 7. A temperate forest: a. is only found in far northern latitudes. b. covers vast tracts of land in the higher latitudes and altitudes. c. is found in tropical latitudes. d. contains deciduous trees that lose their leaves in the winter. e. is characterized by low temperatures and precipitation levels.

ANSWER: d 8. Which forest type is NOT paired with its correct description? a. boreal forest — short growing season b. temperate forest — distinct seasons c. boreal forest — thick soils from plant decomposition d. tropical forest — wet and dry seasons e. tropical forest — thin, acidic, low-nutrient soils ANSWER: c 9. What percentage of Haiti's original forests remain compared with those that existed prior to European settlement? a. less than 1% b. 6% c. 10% d. 25% e. 50% ANSWER: a 10. Which forest type has the MOST fertile soil? a. deciduous b. boreal c. coniferous d. tropical e. temperate ANSWER: e

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Module 07.2 11. What would you expect to happen to the distribution of boreal forests as average global temperatures increase with climate change?

ANSWER: As temperatures increase, these cold-dependent boreal forests may shift their distributions farther north in Alaska, Canada, and Siberia. They may also move to higher elevations in alpine areas in the temperate zone.

12. The soils of tropical forests are typically thin and low in plant nutrients. Yet tropical forests are some of the most productive and diverse ecosystems on the planet. How can you explain this paradox?

ANSWER: Warm and wet conditions can drive extremely high rates of decomposition by bacteria, fungi, and other decomposers. This decomposition can "unlock" nutrients from biomass that can then be rapidly absorbed by the tropical vegetation, allowing for high rates of productivity and diversity.

13. The CORRECT order of forest layers from the bottom to top of a forest is: a. forest floor, canopy, understory, emergent layer. b. emergent layer, forest floor, understory, canopy. c. forest floor, understory, emergent layer, canopy. d. forest floor, understory, canopy, emergent layer. e. understory, forest floor, emergent layer, canopy.

ANSWER: d 14. Trees and shrubs that are adapted to shade would be found in which layer of a forest? a. forest floor b. understory c. canopy d. emergent layer ANSWER: b 15. The layer of a forest cross section that generally would contain seedlings is the: a. forest floor. b. understory. c. canopy. d. emergent layer.

ANSWER: a 16. The emergent layer of the forest is the: a. lowest level of the forest, where herbaceous plants and fungi emerge out of the soil. b. region where trees are rising above the canopy layer. c. upper layer of the forest where the crowns of most of the tallest trees meet. d. area where the smaller trees live under the canopy and try to emerge into the sunlight. e. layer most often used for timber harvest.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 17. The three-dimensional structure of the forest refers to the fact that forests: a. can cover thousands of acres. b. can contain a variety of tree species. c. can have multiple layers. d. can be restored in a relatively short time span. e. exist in several types, such as tropical, deciduous, and boreal.

ANSWER: c 18. Refer to Infographic 2. Which effect would NOT be one of a tree falling down in the local forest?

a. Increased sunlight could cause saplings to grow quickly, trying to take its place. b. More niches would be opened up. c. Decomposers and scavengers would make a home in the fallen tree. d. Wildflowers would not bloom. e. Shade-adapted species might be detrimentally affected.

ANSWER: d 19. If a particular species of vine required sunlight and a moderate level of temperature and humidity to survive, in which forest layer would it MOST likely be found? a. emergent layer b. canopy c. understory d. forest floor Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 ANSWER: b 20. Many species of trees found in the canopy and emergent layer of forests have seeds and saplings that are shade adapted. Why do you think this is? a. The seeds need a low temperature to germinate and grow. b. The seeds and saplings will be in the shade for much of their early life because the parent trees in the upper layers of the forest will block a portion of sunlight. c. There is a higher level of humidity in the shade, which the saplings need to survive. d. In order for animals to find and eat the seeds, a necessary step in the trees' germination cycle, they must be on the forest floor. e. Canopy and emergent-layer trees do not produce shade-adapted saplings.

ANSWER: b 21. Refer to Infographic 2. What microclimate exists in the emergent tree layer, and how would this affect the species dwelling there?

ANSWER: It will be hotter and dryer in the emergent trees than in the canopy or on the ground. Therefore, species will have to be more heat and water tolerant. One example is the sloth that moves slowly and has algae growing in its fur to keep it cooler.

22. How does the layering or stratification of forests contribute to overall animal biodiversity?

ANSWER: The unique microclimates and plant species of each layer allow for a greater variety and number of niches in the forest. As the number of available niches increases, so will the overall animal diversity across the entire forest.

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Module 07.2 23. The net loss of trees in a region is known as: a. deforestation. b. industrialization. c. clear-cutting. d. fire suppression. e. charcoal.

ANSWER: a 24. Why are forests called carbon sinks? a. Carbon drains out of forest biomes through groundwater running below the surface. b. Forest biomes store more carbon than they release. c. Carbon in forest biomes becomes trapped and is never released, even after logging occurs. d. High amounts of water in forest biomes capture carbon and hold it there. e. Forests pull carbon out of organic plant materials and transform it into atmospheric carbon.

ANSWER: b 25. Which factor is NOT an ecosystem service of a forest? a. goods b. soil maintenance and protection c. contribution to the increase of atmospheric carbon dioxide d. recreation e. ecotourism ANSWER: c 26. Which statement is a sociocultural benefit of forests? a. Forest stands are considered sacred by indigenous people, connecting them to their past. b. Soil and roots of forest trees slow rainwater flow to allow more water to soak into the ground. c. Forest layers provide habitat and food for animals, fungi, and microbes. d. Wood products, including lumber, firewood, charcoal, and some medicines, come from forests. e. Forests provide genetic diversity, which could improve our crops or provide new medicines.

ANSWER: a 27. Which service is provided by forests? a. watershed purification b. sink for carbon dioxide c. recycling of nutrients d. reduction of soil erosion e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 28. Robert Constanza and his colleagues estimated the total value of the ecosystem services provided by forests to be _____ in 2007 U.S. dollars. a. $100 million b. $4.8 million c. $16 billion d. $1 trillion e. $16 trillion ANSWER: e 29. Water that flows downhill over the land surface, usually after a rainfall event, is called: a. surface water. b. ground water. c. runoff. d. riparian. e. aquifer.

ANSWER: c 30. Forests remove _____ from the atmosphere and release _____ back into the atmosphere. a. oxygen; carbon dioxide b. carbon dioxide; oxygen c. nitrogen gas; oxygen d. nitrogen gas; carbon dioxide e. carbon dioxide; nitrogen gas ANSWER: b 31. Wood products account for approximately _____ billion in global trade every year. a. $500,000 b. $1 c. $10 d. $50 e. $100 ANSWER: e 32. You have been given the task of convincing a country to maintain its forests instead of converting them into large farms. What information would you present in your argument for keeping the forests?

ANSWER: You would need to list all of the services provided by the forest, including watershed, atmosphere and climate regulation, soil maintenance and protection, and biodiversity and genetic resources. You would also want to discuss any economic goods provided by the forest, such as food and building materials, and the number of jobs the forest provides. Finally, you would want to talk about the sociocultural benefits derived from the forest, such as artistic inspiration and a connection to the past.

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Module 07.2 33. One important function of a forest is nutrient cycling. What nutrients does a forest normally recycle?

ANSWER: Forests play an important role in the carbon cycle, nitrogen cycle, and phosphorus cycle. Many of these nutrients are trapped in the biomass of trees and are released back into the soil upon the death and decomposition of trees or the clearing and burning of trees for agriculture.

34. How does "slash and burn" agriculture (clear-cutting a forested area and burning the trees on site) affect the carbon cycle and influence climate change?

ANSWER: The clear-cutting and subsequent burning of trees affects the carbon cycle in two ways. First, the removal of the trees reduces the ability of the area to pull carbon out of the atmosphere and therefore allows for less carbon storage in biomass. Second, the burning of the trees releases the carbon that had been stored in biomass over the tree's life cycle, adding carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. Both of these result in a net increase in carbon dioxide in the atmosphere and contribute to the increase in greenhouse gases that drive climate change.

35. Production of charcoal results in: a. the release of carbon dioxide and soot into the atmosphere, causing air pollution. b. severe deforestation as trees are chopped down to produce charcoal. c. a sustainable source of energy for countries like Haiti, which sits in the middle of a tropical rainforest with ample access to small and large trees. d. All of these answer choices are correct. e. the release of carbon dioxide and soot into the atmosphere, causing air pollution and severe deforestation as trees are chopped down to produce charcoal.

ANSWER: e 36. Which statement is CORRECT? a. Fire suppression prevents destruction of forests in the long run. b. Deforestation causes little change in the water supply of an area because residents rely on deep wells in the ground. c. Subsistence farming can help prevent mass scale deforestation. d. Roads going through forested areas have little effect on deforestation because people use them solely for transportation.

ANSWER: c 37. Why does forest conservation in countries that are more developed not make a significant difference in worldwide conservation efforts? a. Nations that are more developed still demand wood, driving deforestation elsewhere. b. Multinational corporations simply move their businesses to less developed nations where deforestation regulations do not exist. c. Deforestation in countries that are more developed offsets gains in less developed countries. d. Both because nations that are more developed still demand wood and because multinational corporations move their businesses to less developed nations with fewer deforestation regulations. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 38. What is one way climate change is impacting forests? a. increasing the build-up of deadwood, thus increasing the chance of deadly fires b. decreasing the instance of fire, especially in drought-stricken areas c. increasing the need for timber products, which would increase logging d. increasing pest population attacks on trees from seasonally to all year round e. decreasing the conversion of forestland to cropland for agriculture to export ANSWER: d 39. What could be one reason why people in developing countries may NOT agree with conserving forested land? a. They are unaware of the services intact forests provide. b. They can easily replace the ecosystem services provided by forests through development of public utilities infrastructure. c. It is not as profitable in the short term. d. They do not understand the benefits that can be gained by preserving forests. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: c 40. Refer to the map in Infographic 4. The data on the net change in forested area between 1990 and 2015 suggest that, in general, _____ exists between a country's rate of deforestation and its overall economic status.

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a. a positive relationship b. a negative relationship c. no relationship d. a random relationship ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 41. Haiti's _____ trade grew to account for 20% of the rural economy and 80% of the country's energy supply. a. charcoal b. fossil fuels c. lumber d. fuel wood e. solar energy ANSWER: a 42. Deforestation in less developed countries can best be described as: a. a vicious cycle that results in environmental degradation and poverty b. a problem caused by lack of education among poor people. c. the result of developed nations' dependence on charcoal. d. the only cost-effective way developing nations can meet their energy needs. e. an unsolvable problem.

ANSWER: a 43. Which factor is a major cause of global deforestation? a. logging b. cattle ranching c. pest infestation d. charcoal production e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 44. The majority of deforestation is currently taking place: a. in countries that are more developed. b. in countries that are less developed. c. at the same rate in both developed and developing countries. d. at rates that vary worldwide, with no pattern. e. The data to determine this are insufficient.

ANSWER: b 45. Total global deforestation is approximately _____ million acres per year. a. 2.3 b. 7.6 c. 10.2 d. 19 e. 50.1 ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 46. The three main causes of forest destruction are harvesting of wood, conversion of forests into agricultural land, and: a. pest infestation. b. fires. c. roads. d. urbanization. e. air pollution.

ANSWER: d 47. The United States was one of a few countries that had a net increase in forested areas between the years 2005 and 2010. What are some of the reasons why the United States saw an increase, and how could this increase have had a negative impact on other countries?

ANSWER: Over the years, the United States has passed several laws that regulate the use of and the replanting of forested areas. These laws have resulted in an increase in the forested area in the United States.

Since there are strict regulations on how forests can be used in the United States, more wood is imported from developing countries. Developing countries may not regulate the use of their forests, and even with regulations, they may not have the resources to properly enforce the regulations, which could result in overharvesting and degradation of their forests.

48. The amount of global deforestation has slowed significantly since the 1990s. One of the major reasons why there is still a net loss of forested land each year is harvesting of forests for wood and wood products. What are some of the ways that a country could reduce its dependence on wood and wood products?

ANSWER: One of the easiest ways to reduce the demand for a product is through recycling. Recycling of material made from wood not only preserves forests but also lessens the amount of waste being put into landfills. Also, using wood classified as ecological construction material or ecologically green (bamboo) would put less of a stress on the harvesting of hardwoods that grow at a significantly slower rate.

49. Timber harvests are managed by several different techniques. Choose the technique that has the smallest overall effect on biodiversity. a. clear-cutting b. strip harvesting c. selective harvesting d. shelterwood harvesting e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: d 50. Which statement is INCORRECT? a. Clear-cutting can be appropriate when it removes genetically inferior trees. b. Shelterwood harvesting works by cutting the high-value trees and leaving the others to reseed the plot. c. Strip harvesting maintains a small level of biodiversity after a cut is made. d. Shelterwood harvesting may have the highest levels of biodiversity postharvest compared with the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 other methods of harvest.

ANSWER: b 51. Which order of timber harvesting methods goes from least conservation of biodiversity to most conservation of biodiversity? a. clear-cutting, selective harvesting, strip harvesting b. strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting, clear-cutting c. selective harvesting, strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting d. clear-cutting, strip harvesting, shelterwood harvesting e. All harvesting methods increase biodiversity equally.

ANSWER: d 52. When choosing a forest harvesting strategy, foresters first evaluate: a. the health of the forest. b. the age of the forest. c. the health, age, and species composition of the forest. d. none of these are considered.

ANSWER: c 53. The disadvantage to _____ harvesting is it leaves behind smaller, inferior tree species which may weaken the forest over time. a. clear-cut b. selective c. shelterwood d. all three of these ANSWER: b 54. You are put in charge of a timber harvest for a section of forest that runs along a river. Which technique will minimize the effects on the environment? a. leaving a width of trees that run along the side of the river untouched b. cutting a limited number of selected trees c. leaving the best trees behind to reseed the forest d. allowing ample time for the forest to recover before harvesting again e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 55. Discuss the benefits and disadvantages to shelterwood and selective harvesting.

ANSWER: Shelterwood harvesting leaves the best trees behind to repopulate the forest. This ensures a strong forest in the future. The economic gains are similar to selective harvesting. Biodiversity falls initially but is higher than with selective harvesting techniques. Selective harvesting takes the very best trees, leaving others to repopulate the forest. The economic gains are similar to shelterwood but Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 less than clear-cutting. Biodiversity will decline initially but recovers over time.

56. For decades foresters clear-cut large tracts of land. Analyze this strategy and compare with selective and shelterwood harvesting techniques.

ANSWER: Clear-cutting is a fast way to remove trees and maximize profits. However, it devastates the habitat, leaving behind decades of messy growth and no future profits from the land. Selective and shelterwood harvesting techniques give foresters the opportunity to leave large grown trees that will reseed the area, creating opportunity for future harvest. These latter two strategies have less shortterm profits but larger profits over decades and centuries.

57. The Forest Stewardship Council certifies lumber and other timber processes through a method that: a. punishes companies that do not follow sustainable harvesting techniques. b. evaluates timber-harvesting techniques in terms of wildlife, water, and soil quality. c. funds sustainable forestry operations in developing nations, fostering sustainable harvesting strategies. d. prices ecosystem services and incorporates them into taxes. e. focuses on the jobs and economics behind the forestry industry.

ANSWER: b 58. Many people in poor countries, like Haiti, will do whatever is necessary to help support their families.

Forests in poor countries are often cut down to harvest for charcoal, use for farming, or harvest for lumber.

What could we do to limit the destruction of forests in these countries? a. encourage our government to provide them with financial support b. purchase items made in those countries c. help to sponsor their schools d. educate the citizens about forests e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 59. _____ is low-impact travel to natural areas that contributes to environmental protection and respects the local people. a. Ecosystem service b. Ecotourism c. A green job d. Recreation e. Ecosystem tourism ANSWER: b 60. Which act of Congress mandates that national forests be managed in a way that balances a variety of uses? a. Clean Air Act b. Clean Water Act c. Multiple-Use Sustained-Yield Act Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 d. Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liability (Superfund) Act ANSWER: c 61. Which species can replenish the nutrients in soil? a. mango trees b. oak trees c. mahogany trees d. moringa trees ANSWER: d 62. Harvesting as much as is sustainably possible but not more for the greatest economic benefit is called the _____ yield. a. minimum sustainable b. maximum sustainable c. normal sustainable d. unsustainable e. multiple-use sustained ANSWER: b 63. The first director of the U.S. Forest Service was: a. Teddy Roosevelt. b. Aldo Leopold. c. Rachel Carson. d. Wallace Stegner. e. Gifford Pinchot.

ANSWER: e 64. Globally, what proportion of harvested forests is certified as "sustainable" by the Forest Stewardship Council? a. 5% b. 16% c. 22% d. 38% e. 56% ANSWER: a 65. What is the Multiple-Use Sustained-Yield Act? a. an act created in 1960 that mandated the management of national forests in a way that balances a variety of uses b. the key act that drove the establishment of the National Forest Service in 1905 c. the act that went against Gifford Pinchot's concept of inexhaustible forest resources Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.2 d. the act that was created to support sustainable business development so that economic benefits from forests could be ranked with more value than recreational benefits from forests e. the act that supported maximizing the yields of specific forestry products ANSWER: a 66. The key to the regeneration of Haiti's forests is: a. finding alternative sources of energy. b. finding alternative sources of food, building materials, and income. c. changing the species used for charcoal production. d. both finding alternative sources of energy and finding alternative sources of food, building materials, and income. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 67. Which example is a current approach to forest restoration? a. recycling lumber from salvage b. using fast-growing plant species, such as flax for paper, instead of tree species c. Green Belt movements d. emphasizing alternative forest products, such as nuts and shade-grown coffee e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 68. Many developing countries are removing their forests at an alarming rate. What can be done to slow the rate at which developing countries are harvesting their forests?

ANSWER: One of the causes of rapid deforestation in developing countries is the amount of poverty and lack of alternatives to timber for people to use. Providing alternatives to charcoal as a source of fuel and more jobs to lessen the demand on forest products to sell in the marketplace will reduce the rate of deforestation. Developing countries should also be encouraged to grow native food crops instead of cash crops; this will reduce the amount of space needed for agriculture and allow for more forests to be preserved.

69. The dependence on charcoal as an energy source in Haiti is referred to as a vicious cycle with regard to environmental degradation. Why? ANSWER: The people of Haiti depend on charcoal as one of their main energy sources. The unsustainable harvest of trees leads to soil erosion, which in turn leads to reduced crop production, reduced incomes, and higher flood frequencies. All of this reduces the productivity of forests and lowers charcoal production.

70. What is the difference between the mandate of maximum sustainable yield (MSY) and the Forest Service's new approach, Forest Ecosystem Management (FEM)?

ANSWER: MSY focuses on managing tree species and harvesting them at a rate no greater than the trees can be regenerated. FEM takes a broader approach and includes not only the management of timber harvests but also other techniques for managing forests, such as controlled burns and restoration.

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Module 07.2 This approach focuses on the management of not just the harvested species of trees but the entire forest ecosystem.

71. Why might forest management be considered a "wicked problem"?

ANSWER: Forest management is considered a wicked problem because there is no clear solution that provides benefits for all parties involved. For example, in order to preserve high levels of biodiversity, you could argue that deforestation must end on all continents. While that strategy may be good for the environment, the people living in poverty who depend on those forests for fuel and income would suffer greatly. There are many considerations that must be made when thinking about possible solutions to forest management issues.

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Module 07.3 1. The grassland protection mechanism that helps to reduce soil erosion, reduce water pollution, and increase wildlife habitat is known as: a. a conservation easement system. b. a conservation reserve program. c. park status. d. a shelterbelt.

ANSWER: b 2. In 2008, a rancher in South Dakota's Horse Creek region began working on a project to boost the economy and repair the prairie. His philosophy is to: a. graze less cattle. b. install irrigation. c. graze more cattle. d. plant trees.

ANSWER: c 3. Which example is NOT a type of grassland? a. tundra b. steppes c. prairies d. savannas e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: a 4. The grassland that is found in cold climates is known as a: a. pampas grass mix. b. steppe. c. tall-grass prairie. d. savanna. e. northern mixed grass prairie.

ANSWER: b 5. What factors lead to the maintenance of grassland ecosystems in a given area? a. the amount of precipitation, and presence of a dedicated forest fire team in the area b. the presence of grazing animals c. periodic wildfires d. the amount of precipitation, the presence of grazing animals, and periodic wildfires e. both the amount of precipitation and periodic wildfires ANSWER: d 6. Prairies are found in which biome classification?

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Module 07.3 a. tropical b. boreal c. temperate d. polar e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: c 7. Which type of grassland is also known as savanna? a. rangeland b. tropical c. cold d. temperate e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: b 8. Which statement is CORRECT? a. Grasslands are biomes. b. Grasslands receive enough rainfall to support grass and herbaceous plants. c. Grasslands do not get enough rainfall to support forests. d. Grasslands both are biomes and do not get enough rainfall to support forests. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 9. Which statement is INCORRECT? a. The Great Plains are a type of temperate grassland. b. The Great Plains lie between the Mississippi River and the Rocky Mountains. c. The Great Plains are also known as a rangeland. d. The Great Plains stretch from Texas to Canada. e. None of these answers is incorrect.

ANSWER: c 10. Which types of grasslands are characterized by ultra-thin layers of soil and very short growing seasons? a. steppe b. temperate c. savanna d. prairie e. rangeland ANSWER: a 11. Which statement is CORRECT? Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.3 a. Grasslands are not found in Antarctica. b. Grasslands are found on every continent. c. Grasslands vary based on climate. d. Grasslands are not found in Antarctica and they vary based on climate. e. Grasslands are found on every continent and they vary based on climate.

ANSWER: d 12. The Flint Hills region of the Great Plains is dominated by tallgrass prairie. Large tracts of the prairie remain because the soil was too thin and rocky to be especially good for crop production. In the past two decades, areas of tallgrass prairie have been protected in reserves because of the loss of this grassland system over time—in large part a result of domestic animal production and some crop agriculture. At the eastern border of the region, deciduous forests have been gradually moving west, replacing tallgrass prairie. What do you think is leading to this pattern of change?

ANSWER: In areas of sufficient rainfall to support forests, it is often the disturbance regime that prevents the replacement of grasslands by forests. In many areas of the Midwest, the human suppression of periodic, natural wildfires has allowed secondary succession to progress and has resulted in the replacement of tallgrass prairie with deciduous forests.

13. Grasslands provide which ecosystem service? a. nutrient cycling b. soil formation c. carbon sequestration d. wildlife habitats e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 14. Which crop was NOT originally derived from grasslands? a. wheat b. rye c. barley d. rice e. millet ANSWER: d 15. What is the main use of grasslands today by humans? a. for recreational use b. as a food source for large grazing animals c. for energy production d. for housing construction ANSWER: b 16. One of the advantages of using land for grazing is that: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.3 a. it takes less land per animal than feeding grain to livestock. b. we are turning material we cannot eat into food that we can eat. c. plants are eaten faster than they can grow. d. the soil becomes compacted, making it harder for seeds to germinate. e. All of these answers are advantages of using land for grazing.

ANSWER: b 17. When a prairie grass is eaten, the roots also die back. The dead root material is consumed by: a. soil organisms. b. cattle. c. prairie dogs. d. local bears.

ANSWER: a 18. Carbon sequestration, another ecoservice provided by a grassland, will: a. provide a vital resource for the cattle to survive during the winters. b. capture carbon from the atmosphere and store it in the soil. c. capture carbon from the soil and release it to the atmosphere. d. convert methane to carbon dioxide for release to the nearby soils.

ANSWER: b 19. What are some of the important ecosystem services provided by grasslands?

ANSWER: Grasslands provide numerous important services, including pasture and farmland for grazing livestock, nutrient cycling, soil formation and protection, carbon sequestration, protection of surface waters, and habitat for wildlife. In addition, there is a lot of research being conducted on the use of grasslands as a source of energy through the development of grassland-based biofuels.

20. You have been employed by a seed company to genetically modify a high-yielding wheat variety so it is resistant to the most common types of wheat diseases. Why and how could grasslands be important in your research?

ANSWER: Most cereal crops, including wheat, were originally derived thousands of years ago from grassland seedbeds. Grasslands would provide an important source of genetic material that you could use as you develop your disease-resistant wheat. You would need to collect wheat specimens from grasslands where wheat diseases are prevalent and then determine what specific genes are making the wheat resistant to that disease.

21. "Grassland systems are a rich source of one of the ecosystem's goods and services: genetic resources."

Explain why this statement is TRUE. ANSWER: While grasslands are a rich source of food for human livestock, they are also a storehouse of genetic resources. Most of the grains we depend upon for food, such as wheat and barley, are grassland species that we selected for various traits to use as a food source. Plant breeders rely on wild stock as a source of new genes for introduction into domesticated species. One example is genes that confer resistance to novel plant pathogens. A newly developing use for grassland species is the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.3 possibility that we can use them as a source for biofuels, and there may be genes among wild stock that provide an advantage in fuel production.

22. Humans rely upon grasslands to graze domestic livestock. How would degradation of grasslands impact grazing, and what effect would this have on humans?

ANSWER: Globally, 3 billion domestic livestock, including cattle, goats, and sheep, are grazed on grasslands.

These animals provide not only meat but numerous other products like milk and wool. Degradation of grasslands would result in the grasslands supporting less domestic livestock, which would reduce the amount of goods and services available for human use. Additionally, grasslands provide grain to feed and support chickens and pigs. Less grain would reduce the number of chickens and pigs available for human use and consumption.

23. The MOST common cause of desertification of grasslands is: a. climate change. b. plowing too often. c. depletion of aquifers. d. overgrazing. e. leaving them fallow.

ANSWER: d 24. Which statement does NOT explain how grazing can be beneficial to a grassland? a. Clipping off the top part allows the sunlight to get to the new shoots. b. Hooves can break up soil, allowing water to penetrate. c. Breaking up soil with hooves allows new seeds to germinate. d. Defecation and urination from grazers add phosphorus and nitrogen to the soil. e. Chewing a grass down to its roots helps it rejuvenate.

ANSWER: e 25. Which process contributes to desertification? a. overgrazing by livestock b. global warming c. soil erosion d. overgrazing by livestock, global warming, and soil erosion e. both overgrazing by livestock and global warming ANSWER: d 26. As desertification of grasslands continues, smaller amounts of food will be available to feed humanity. What might be some of the consequences of the desertification of grasslands? a. increased starvation b. movement of people from one area to another c. social unrest d. physical conflict between people of different cultures Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.3 e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 27. What is the GREATEST threat facing grasslands today? a. global climate change b. human land use decisions c. overgrazing d. urbanization e. pollution ANSWER: c 28. Grasslands that are MOST susceptible to desertification are found in _____ areas. a. humid b. arid c. cold d. boreal e. tropical ANSWER: b 29. Which factor is a consequence of overgrazing in grasslands? a. compaction of soil b. reduction in water penetration c. reduction in seed germination d. reduced seedling growth e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 30. Which area seems to be at threat for major desertification? a. western Texas b. New Mexico c. Mexico and southern Texas d. Arizona e. the Great Plains ANSWER: a 31. What are some of the natural and human threats that grasslands currently face?

ANSWER: Grasslands are being threatened by global climate change, overgrazing, conversion of grasslands into farmlands and cities, plant loss, soil compaction, and soil erosion.

32. Refer to Infographic 3. Discuss three characteristics many of those areas at highest risk of desertification have in common.

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Module 07.3

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Module 07.3 33. Refer to Infographic 3. Discuss some scenarios that could lead the healthy grass in the first picture to begin to look like the overgrazed grass in the second picture.

ANSWER: As the market for meat increased, the rancher may have purchased too many cattle for the acres of grass owned. Perhaps there was a lengthy drought and grass failed to grow as much that season, but the rancher chose to pasture the usual number of animals. Another possibility is the rancher chose to pasture a less efficient animal such as horses instead of more efficient grazers/browsers like sheep.

Another scenario may be that the rancher neglected to move the animals to a different pasture soon enough for the grass to regenerate. It may also be a possibility that as grasslands became marginally productive, more ranchers moved their cattle onto federal lands, thus overgrazing more area, or as the economy worsened, ranchers chose to pasture their animals on marginal land rather than slaughter them before they were ready for market.

34. What did Allan Savory notice about the lands grazed by wild animals at the Africa Centre for Holistic Management? a. The plants were more abundant.

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Module 07.3 b. The rivers were cleaner. c. There was more plant diversity. d. The rivers were better stocked. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 35. Using Savory's strategy at the ACHM, livestock numbers have increased by a. 25% b. 50% c. 100% d. 400% ANSWER: d 36. What provides a livelihood for many people living in Zimbabwe? a. ranching b. fishing c. farming d. raising wildlife e. hunting ANSWER: a 37. Why did the British government cull thousands of wild herds in Zimbabwe in the 1950s? a. They were annoying the villagers. b. More land needed to be converted to farming. c. They were needed as a source of meat in the markets. d. They were eating too much grass. e. They were damaging the land.

ANSWER: b 38. How do the grazing patterns of wild herbivores make the lands healthier than those grazed by cattle?

ANSWER: Wild herbivores graze in tightly bunched packs to protect themselves from predators and move quickly from one area to another. This means they stay in one area long enough to fertilize it with their waste and agitate the soil, then move on so the land has a chance to recover before it is grazed again.

39. A hundred years ago, cattle were grazed by _____. Cows were kept in tight herds and moved across large tracts of grasslands. a. farmers b. cowboys c. pastoralists d. miners Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.3 ANSWER: c 40. If left ungrazed, over time the grassland plant species will shift to: a. palatable species. b. less forb species. c. more sweet grass. d. unpalatable species.

ANSWER: d 41. What happens when lands are undergrazed? a. Grasses grow wild and take over the area. b. There is plenty of grass for all the cattle to eat, and they grow healthier over time. c. Weeds grow wild, and there is less cattle feed over time. d. There is no effect on the land if it is undergrazed. e. Desertification occurs in the area.

ANSWER: c 42. What is undergrazing? a. grazing animals in a way that mimics wild grazers b. when animals grazing on lands do not have enough grass to eat c. the process that transforms fertile grasslands into deserts d. grazing too many animals on a grassland and eating the plants faster than they can grow e. grazing too few animals on a grassland to maintain it ecologically ANSWER: e 43. How does undergrazing reduce the biodiversity of grasslands?

ANSWER: Since overgrazing pastures leads to desertification and other problems for grasslands, you may think that undergrazing would be the ideal solution for these biomes. This is not the case, however.

Undergrazing leads to overgrowth of weeds, since grazing animals, now without pressure or competition from other animals, can eat the "tastiest" grasses and leave the unpalatable species be.

This gives a competitive edge to the unpalatable weeds, and they quickly overtake the other species of grasses in these ecosystems, and thus biodiversity decreases.

44. The animal farming technique known as _____ allows animals to graze on one small section of a pasture for a few days before being moved to another section for grazing. a. rotational grazing b. terracing c. planned grazing d. numerical limits grazing ANSWER: a 45. Designing a process, such as grazing, so that it occurs in a way that is similar to how it happens in nature is Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.3 known as: a. conservation. b. biomimicry. c. environmentalism. d. ecology.

ANSWER: b 46. What were some of the problems with the concept of rotational grazing? a. It did not help to stop desertification. b. Savory felt it focused too heavily on limiting the number of animals allowed to graze. c. Savory felt it focused too heavily on the amount of time the animals were allowed to graze. d. It did not help to stop desertification, and it focused too heavily on limiting the number of animals allowed to graze. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: d 47. What is rotational grazing an example of? a. sustainable grazing b. shelterbelts c. a conservation reserve program d. a conservation easement ANSWER: a 48. Which precise style of grazing requires often twice-daily shifts of grazing fences, depending on the size of the herd and their food needs? a. rangeland grazing b. sustainable grazing on farmland c. adaptive multi-paddock grazing d. regenerative grazing ANSWER: c 49. Richard Teague, working with a South Dakota bison ranch, found holistic planning: a. doubled the amount of edible biomass on the farmland. b. increased forage plant species. c. increased water infiltration. d. did all of these.

ANSWER: d 50. What is NOT an outcome of holistic planned grazing? a. Keeping animals bunched for a set period of time ensures that all plants are grazed evenly, even weeds.

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Module 07.3 b. It maximizes productivity. c. It helps keep plant biomass levels in an ideal range, which minimizes productivity. d. It makes ranching profitable again.

ANSWER: c 51. Explain why planned grazing is considered to be an approach based on biomimicry.

ANSWER: Large native herbivores tend to occur in large herds and migrate across the grassland systems as they feed. The large numbers in the herd reduce the selectivity of grazing animals in terms of grassland species consumed, and the movement out of an area that has been grazed down allows the grassland to recover. Savory's planned grazing approach focused these aspects in larger numbers than traditional rotational grazing (to spur competition) and in movement to new pastures before the degradation of the currently utilized pasture could occur, thus mimicking the natural pattern of grazing.

52. What are the challenges of a planned grazing approach to grassland management?

ANSWER: A key challenge is determining how to divide up your grazing land (more small pastures means more frequent movements) and therefore the timing of herd movement to the next pasture. If the time interval is too long, the herd will suffer from insufficient food intake, and if too short, the grasses will not be stimulated to maximum productivity.

53. Livestock ranchers often reach legal agreements with governments that permit them to use an area of land in a defined manner. These agreements are known as: a. reserves. b. shelterbelts. c. rotational grazing permits. d. conservation easements.

ANSWER: d 54. The grassland protection mechanism that helps to reduce soil erosion, reduce water pollution, and increase wildlife habitat is known as: a. conservation easement. b. a conservation reserve program. c. park status. d. a shelterbelt.

ANSWER: b 55. Which example is NOT a way to protect our grasslands? a. conservation reserve programs b. park status for each reserve in the U.S. c. year-round grazing of each reserve in the U.S. d. both conservation reserve programs and sustainable grazing e. conservation reserve programs, park status, and sustainable grazing Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.3 ANSWER: c 56. What are the advantages of shelterbelts? a. They increase wildlife habitat. b. They protect the crops and grasses from wind damage. c. They reduce soil erosion and water pollution. d. They allow recreational use while protecting habitats. e. They reduce taxes to the landowner if their land stays protected.

ANSWER: b 57. Livestock contributes as much as _____ of anthropogenic greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. a. 10% b. 18% c. 25% d. 36% ANSWER: b 58. _____ is a plan that encourages alternating strategies for range management, based on new information as it becomes available. a. Holistic grazing b. Shelterbelt management c. Carbon sequestration d. Adaptive management ANSWER: d 59. What is the purpose of the Conservation Reserve Program, and what are some of the controversies surrounding it?

ANSWER: The purpose is to set aside overgrazed rangeland by paying ranchers not to use it. This is intended to allow the grass to recover. However, critics say that leaves farmers dependent on government checks, without stimulating the local economy. Also, in the short term, it decreases the production of food for the world.

60. Human activity has caused the degradation of grasslands. How has grassland degradation in turn affected humans?

ANSWER: Grassland degradation has resulted in a global reduction in grain production by 12%, threatening the food supply of more than 1 billion people. The loss in grain production has also led to a loss of $23 billion annually in the global GDP. The Food and Agricultural Organization predicts that grassland degradation will result in the displacement of 50 million people over the coming decades because of the loss of jobs and income.

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Module 07.1 1. The brine deposits beneath the Salar de Atacama are mined for: a. lithium. b. iron. c. mercury. d. cobalt.

ANSWER: a 2. A challenge to mining the Salar de Atacama is: a. lack of saltwater. b. poor roads in the desert region. c. climate change. d. mining the metal without destroying the habitat.

ANSWER: d 3. Which mineral is nonmetallic? a. quartz b. gold c. zinc d. lead e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: a 4. Which example is BEST described as a naturally occurring chemical compound that exists as a solid with a predictable, three-dimensional, repeating structure? a. metal b. rock c. element d. mineral e. ore ANSWER: d 5. Metals are a critical part of nearly all electronic devices, largely because they are easy to shape and form and because of their ability to: a. emit radioactivity. b. reflect light. c. act as insulators. d. conduct electricity. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: d 6. Gold and silver are commonly found in which product?

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Module 07.1 a. electronics b. paints c. jewelry d. electronics, paints, and jewelry e. both electronics and jewelry ANSWER: e 7. A(n) _____ is a rock deposit that contains economically valuable amounts of a particular mineral, often a metal. a. ore b. formation c. element d. smelt e. stone ANSWER: a 8. Which product contains mineral resources? a. electronics b. construction materials c. vehicles d. paints e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 9. Rare earth elements (REEs) are: a. found bonded to gold. b. not usually found in concentrated deposits. c. always found in liquid form. d. used to mine for coal.

ANSWER: b 10. Annual per capita use of minerals in the United States is: a. less than 100 pounds. b. more than 10,000 pounds. c. more than 40,000 pounds. d. equal to 100,000 pounds.

ANSWER: c 11. A _____ is a malleable substance that will conduct electricity. a. nonmetal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.1 b. metal c. rare earth element d. sedimentary rock ANSWER: b 12. The MOST abundant minerals on Earth include: a. feldspar b. europium c. neodymium d. copper e. zinc ANSWER: a 13. What characterizes a metal? List some examples of everyday products that contain metals.

ANSWER: Metals are malleable substances that can conduct electricity. Because of these characteristics, metals are an essential component of virtually all electronic devices. In addition, metals are found in many other everyday items, including cookware, coins, appliances, tools, jewelry, wires, plumbing, and vehicles.

14. Tectonic plates are part of which layer of Earth? a. asthenosphere b. lithosphere c. inner core d. lower mantle e. outer core ANSWER: b 15. _____ is the study of Earth's structure and the processes that shape it. a. Biology b. Chemistry c. Physics d. Engineering e. Geology ANSWER: e 16. When an oceanic plate meets a continental plate head-on, what occurs? a. The plates move apart from one another. b. The plate edges buckle under the pressure. c. Mountains form as the two plates collide. d. A spreading ridge appears. e. The denser oceanic plate slides beneath the continental plate.

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Module 07.1 ANSWER: e 17. Which sequence CORRECTLY lists the layers of Earth, starting with the core? a. lithosphere, mantle, asthenosphere b. asthenosphere, mantle, lithosphere c. mantle, lithosphere, asthenosphere d. mantle, asthenosphere, lithosphere e. lithosphere, asthenosphere, mantle ANSWER: d 18. What happens at a divergent plate boundary? a. The tectonic plates move toward each other. b. The tectonic plates slide side to side relative to each other. c. One tectonic plate moves below another. d. The tectonic plates move away from each other. e. A trench is formed.

ANSWER: d 19. Where would you find a fault (a fracture in a tectonic plate)? a. the asthenosphere b. a convergent plate boundary c. a transform plate boundary d. the mantle e. a divergent plate boundary ANSWER: c 20. Refer to the infographics. Describe how minerals are created.

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Module 07.1

ANSWER: Heat from the innermost parts of Earth power the movement of tectonic plates along Earth's crust.

At plate boundaries, magma pushes up and cools. The extraordinary heat and pressure allow for the formation of new minerals from combining atoms. Rocks of the crust contain mineral deposits.

21. Explain why minerals are not distributed evenly throughout the planet's lithosphere.

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Module 07.1 ANSWER: Compounds form when atoms of naturally occurring elements combine under conditions of extraordinary heat and pressure. The relative abundance and assortment of different elements varies by location; thus the types of different compounds resulting from the interaction of those different types of elements also varies. Therefore, different minerals are plentiful or rare in different parts of Earth.

22. The energy from an earthquake originates at the: a. well site. b. focus. c. epicenter. d. tsunami.

ANSWER: b 23. The _____ is a seismically active region in the Pacific Ocean where 90% of earthquakes occur and 75% of volcanoes are located. a. Ring of Fire b. Atlantic Ocean c. United States d. Indian Ocean ANSWER: a 24. The _____ is where an earthquake does the most damage on the Earth's surface. a. focus b. epicenter c. focal point d. seismic point ANSWER: b 25. Farmers continue to live on the slopes of Mount Vesuvius knowing superheated ash or gas can erupt any time. These farmers live on a: a. seafloor spreading ridge. b. seamount. c. continental shelf. d. volcano.

ANSWER: d 26. When a slope of soil becomes saturated with water after a heavy rainfall, it can slip to become a(n): a. lahar. b. landslide. c. tsunami. d. avalanche.

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Module 07.1 ANSWER: b 27. Discuss how the 2011 underwater earthquake in Japan caused so much damage.

ANSWER: The large earthquake produced a tsunami which came on land, causing horrible destruction. It killed nearly 20,000 people, wiped out roads, buildings, and bridges, and flooded the nuclear power reactor. Japan had an early warning system in place but it was not equipped for such a large wave.

28. Which type of rock forms where magma emerges and cools at a plate boundary? a. igneous b. metamorphic c. sedimentary d. igneous, metamorphic, and sedimentary e. both igneous and metamorphic ANSWER: a 29. Which process leads to the formation of sedimentary rock? a. high heat and pressure b. crystallization c. melting d. weathering e. cooling ANSWER: d 30. Rock is constantly made and destroyed in the process known as the _____ cycle. a. tectonic b. mineral c. rock d. geological e. ore ANSWER: c 31. Which statement is CORRECT regarding the rock cycle? a. Weathering leads to metamorphic rocks. b. Cooling and crystallization lead to metamorphic rocks. c. High heat and pressure lead to metamorphic rocks. d. Sedimentary rocks result from high heat and pressure. e. Igneous rocks result from melting and weathering.

ANSWER: c 32. The breakdown of rock by physical or chemical forces is called: a. weathering.

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Module 07.1 b. erosion. c. metamorphosis. d. convergence. e. divergence.

ANSWER: a 33. Weathering and erosion in combination form: a. igneous rock. b. metamorphic rock. c. soil. d. fault zones. e. mineral ores.

ANSWER: c 34. Infographic 3 illustrates how rocks constantly form and are transformed in the rock cycle. Since minerals are the building blocks of rocks, why are minerals considered nonrenewable resources?

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Module 07.1

ANSWER: Geological forces constantly but slowly rearrange rocks in Earth's crust. The existing deposits are being used up faster than new ones are being created. Use of mineral resources has accelerated with exponential growth of the human population, as well as increased consumption of everyday products containing minerals.

35. Which mining technique is commonly used in developing countries when sediments contain heavy metals like gold? a. placer mining b. subsurface mining c. strip mining d. open-pit mining e. mountaintop removal ANSWER: a 36. Subsurface mining is used for: a. the top of a fairly deep ore deposit found close to the surface.

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Module 07.1 b. a deposit deep underground or in a mountainous area. c. sediment containing heavy metals. d. a deposit seam close to the surface and fairly horizontal. e. both the top of a fairly deep ore deposit found close to the surface and a deposit seam close to the surface and fairly horizontal.

ANSWER: b 37. Which mining technique is BEST used when the top of a fairly deep ore deposit is found close to the surface? a. placer mining b. subsurface mining c. strip mining d. open-pit mining e. mountaintop removal ANSWER: d 38. Which statement is FALSE regarding rare earth elements (REEs)? a. They are tightly bound to one another. b. They are scattered diffusely through the ores that contain them. c. They are always rare. d. They tend to be attached to lots of radioactive substrate. e. They do not occur in concentrated deposits.

ANSWER: c 39. More than half of all of the minerals used in the twentieth century were used between: a. 1995 and 2000. b. 1900 and 1945. c. 1945 and 1975. d. 1985 and 1995. e. 1975 and 2000.

ANSWER: e 40. Which example BEST describes the process known as smelting? a. chemical testing to evaluate rock samples b. the extraction of natural resources from the ground c. the separation of metal from ore d. the grinding of rock into a fine powder e. smaller-scale mining ANSWER: c 41. What are mine tailings?

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Module 07.1 a. finely ground rock left over from processing mineral ores b. water that flows past exposed rock in mines, leaching out sulfates which react with water and oxygen to form acids c. a method to process ore using less water than usual d. a pond to store lightweight waste e. pipes to take waste from one area to another ANSWER: a 42. Describe how geologists help determine the location of mineral deposits.

ANSWER: Geologists help determine the location of deposits by exploring various rock formations. This requires remote sensing, exploratory digging or drilling, and chemical testing to evaluate samples.

43. Name four mining techniques discussed in the module. Describe the nature of a mineral deposit appropriate for each technique.

ANSWER: Four mining techniques are (1) strip mining, used when mineral deposits are close to Earth's surface in fairly horizontal seams; (2) open-pit mining, used when the top of a fairly deep ore deposit is found close to the surface; (3) placer mining, used to remove heavy metals like gold from sediment; and (4) subsurface mining, used when deposits are deep underground or in mountainous areas.

44. List the main steps generally involved in the extraction of rare earth minerals from ore.

ANSWER: After ore is dug out, the rock is crushed and ground to a fine powder. Flotation is used to separate heavier materials. Minerals are released via smelting, a process that uses high temperatures and chemicals. The product is then purified through multiple steps that include chemical and physical separation techniques.

45. In addition to the waste produced by the steps for processing minerals, what other environmental problems are often caused by large industrial mines?

ANSWER: Large industrial mines often require significant areas of land to be stripped clear of vegetation. In addition, many roads must be built for access and transport. The habitat damage from road building and deforestation leads to water pollution and loss of soil. Loss of vegetation also leads to a larger carbon footprint, as less carbon dioxide is taken in by plants. Also, ecosystems can be damaged as water collects contaminants as it travels through mines or waste rock. Further, air pollution can arise from blasting, digging, crushing, and grinding.

46. Which statement describes an "artisanal" mine? a. It is highly mechanized. b. It uses crude tools and simpler strategies. c. It is larger in scale. d. It avoids harmful chemicals. e. It is extraction-free.

ANSWER: b 47. Use of mercury to extract metals like gold and silver is a problem because mercury: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.1 a. can pollute areas around and downstream of mines. b. acidifies water in drainage areas. c. produces long-lasting radioactive waste. d. itself is radioactive. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: a 48. Which step(s) in rare earth mining generate(s) waste? a. digging out ore b. purification using chemical and physical separation techniques c. smelting d. crushing and grinding rock to a fine powder e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 49. Which statement describes a characteristic of surface mining? a. It causes considerable habitat damage over the surface area mined. b. There is a risk of chronic respiratory disease such as black lung. c. Acid mine drainage as water is pumped out of underground mines. d. Topsoil is left mostly intact. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: a 50. "Blood diamonds" refer to which of the following? a. children forced to work in mines b. sulfur-containing rocks that acidify water c. diamonds extracted with the use of mercury d. diamonds taken from warlord-controlled areas e. microscopic dust particles emitted by smelters ANSWER: d 51. Which factor is viewed as a human rights violation associated with mining? a. displacement of farmers and entire communities b. violence to discourage protest among local residents c. child labor in mines d. displacement of farmers and entire communities, violence to discourage protest among local residents, and child labor in mines e. violence to discourage protest among local residents and child labor in mines ANSWER: d 52. The true cost of minerals takes into account: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 07.1 a. human health and human rights. b. fuel, machinery, and labor. c. environmental impacts. d. human health and human rights, fuel, machinery, and labor, and environmental impacts. e. fuel, machinery, and labor and environmental impacts.

ANSWER: d 53. Describe the environmental impact of the tailings dam failure that occurred in Brazil in 2015.

ANSWER: This is the largest tailings dam failure ever recorded, releasing more than 60 million tons of sediment and water. It contaminated water, destroyed villages, and killed many people.

54. A mining operation extracts copper ore from the ground. Without access to modern smelters, they dig pits and use them as open-air smelters. They harvest nearby trees for fuel in order to produce the high temperatures required for separating the copper metal from other components of the ore, such as sulfur. Describe some environmental consequences of such an operation.

ANSWER: The release of sulfur into the air leads to formation of sulfur dioxide, which forms sulfuric acid in the presence of water vapor. The resulting acid precipitation changes the pH (acidity) of the surrounding soil and water, negatively affecting the vegetation. In addition, deforestation further removes vegetation that serves to protect soil from erosion and to provide habitat for animal species in the area. As acidic soil and water run off into streams and creeks, the organisms in the water habitat are harmed as well.

55. Which mining technique would be considered most dangerous to a miner and why?

ANSWER: Subsurface mining poses the most danger to a miner. Dangers include mine collapse, explosions, and exposure to dusts and toxic gases as a result of poor ventilation.

56. Despite the development of safer techniques to process ores containing gold and silver, many areas of Africa, South America, and Asia still use toxic chemicals in their smelting process. Describe why this situation exists in those countries.

ANSWER: In developing countries, the resources required to process gold and silver safely are not typically available. Instead, toxic chemicals such as mercury and cyanide are relatively inexpensive, and the exploitation of poorer workers allows for harvesting of valuable gold and silver ores, despite the direct health risks to the workers as well as damage to the soil and water.

57. _____ refers to unwanted electronic devices such as televisions, computers, and cell phones, which contain recoverable metals but also toxic chemicals. a. Electric pollution b. Manufactured waste c. E-waste d. Nanotube waste ANSWER: c 58. What is the MOST recycled metal on Earth?

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Module 07.1 a. gold b. aluminum c. copper d. silver e. neodymium ANSWER: b 59. Which statement BEST describes what is depicted in Infographic 7?

a. More aluminum cans are produced today from a pound of aluminum than in the past because today's cans are thinner. b. The cost of manufacturing products using recycled aluminum is nearly twice what it costs using aluminum from dug-out bauxite ore.

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Module 07.1 c. Although aluminum can be recycled, it is not as pure as aluminum obtained directly from ore. d. Recycling aluminum for reuse reduces the need to obtain it from mined ores and thus decreases impacts associated with mining and processing the ore. e. Recycling of aluminum requires more energy and transportation than production from raw material.

ANSWER: d 60. Replacement of copper wiring with fiber-optic cables is an example of: a. redesign. b. recycling. c. reusing. d. refusing. e. reducing.

ANSWER: a 61. _____ refer(s) to methods in mining and processing understood to be the most efficient and safest available at the current time. a. Standard operating procedures b. Best practices c. Environmental redesigns d. Conservation plans e. Eco-mining ANSWER: b 62. Which approach will help make mineral resource usage become more sustainable? a. recycling valuable metals b. finding substitutes for scarce mineral resources c. increasing government subsidies and tax breaks for mining companies d. recycling valuable metals, finding substitutes for scarce mineral resources, and increasing government subsidies and tax breaks for mining companies e. both recycling valuable metals and finding substitutes for scarce mineral resources ANSWER: e 63. On a recent trip to the mall, a friend announces her need for the latest cell phone being released that day.

This comes as a surprise to you, since her phone is less than a year old and is in working order. As a student of environmental science, describe how you could counsel this friend regarding the impact of acquiring and processing mineral resources.

ANSWER: Cell phones contain valuable metals such as gold, silver, copper, palladium, platinum, and neodymium. Obtaining these components from mined ores involves substantial environmental and health impacts. As a consumer, our use of mineral resources is reduced by, for example, waiting for the cell phone to naturally expire before obtaining a replacement. Further, the old phone should be traded in or recycled for use in other devices while keeping precious mineral resources out of landfills.

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Module 07.1 64. Why is global demand for all types of minerals rising, and why is it critical to develop alternatives to minerals that are currently used in so many everyday products?

ANSWER: Demand is increasing globally as the human population continues to grow exponentially, standards of living increase, and revolutionary advances in technology continue to create products that use minerals. By substituting more abundant and less impactful resource alternatives, such as fiber-optic cable instead of copper wiring, the negative environmental and societal impacts due to mineral mining and processing will lessen.

65. What are some problems with the current system in place for recycling e-waste? How could the system be improved?

ANSWER: Many cell phones, computers, and flat-screen televisions are either stored at home or sent to landfills instead of entering a recycling stream. An additional problem is that much e-waste is exported to developing countries for deconstruction, where lack of proper equipment and training can lead to exposure of toxins to workers and to the environment. To improve the e-waste recycling system, parallels to plastic, aluminum, or glass recycling can be made where incentives given for recycling and neighborhood pickup service make it convenient to recycle e-waste. Facilities need to exist that specialize in e-waste and that can safely recycle the mineral resources.

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Module 08.2 1. Modern industrial agriculture methods: a. rely on renewable energy sources to power modern farming equipment. b. maintain and enrich ecosystem services. c. focus all resources on a single crop. d. avoid the use of chemical fertilizers. e. are referred to as organic.

ANSWER: c 2. Sustainable agriculture is defined as a: a. plant-breeding program focused on developing high-yield varieties (HYVs) of grain crops. b. plant-breeding program focused on the production of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) to increase crop productivity or create new varieties of crops. c. farming method in which one crop variety is planted over a large area of land with significant inputs of fertilizer, pesticides, and water. d. farming method that does not use any synthetic fertilizer, pesticides, or other chemical additives. e. farming method that does not deplete resources, such as soil and water, faster than they are replaced.

ANSWER: e 3. Organic agriculture is a type of which farming method? a. sustainable b. industrial c. commercial d. global e. nonprofit ANSWER: a 4. _____ is farming without the use of synthetic fertilizers, pesticides, and other chemical additives. a. Synthetic farming b. Organic agriculture c. The Green Revolution d. Industrialized agriculture e. Symbiotic agriculture ANSWER: b 5. Which statement about organic farming is TRUE? a. Organically grown food has similar levels of pesticides as food grown conventionally. b. Organic farms can grow genetically modified organisms (GMOs). c. Organically produced food can be more nutritious than food grown conventionally. d. Organic farming can use chemical fertilizers if needed. e. Organically grown food has a shorter shelf life than food grown conventionally.

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Module 08.2 ANSWER: c 6. A farm that plants genetically identical crops likely uses _____ agriculture methods. a. sustainable b. industrial c. organic d. commercial e. home/personal ANSWER: b 7. What is organic agriculture? Explain how it is similar to and different from sustainable agriculture, using livestock production as an example.

ANSWER: Organic agriculture is a farming method that does not use synthetic fertilizer, pesticides, or other chemical additives. It is one example of sustainable agriculture, which refers to farming in a way that can be depended upon indefinitely using farming methods that do not deplete resources, such as soil and water, faster than they are replaced. It is possible for an agricultural system to be organic but not entirely sustainable. For example, livestock could be raised organically (that is, without the use of antibiotics and hormones and fed grain that was grown without the use of chemical pesticides and synthetic fertilizers), but this may not be an entirely sustainable way to get our meat, milk, and eggs if no attention is paid to protecting the water from being polluted by manure or if pastureland is overgrazed, leading to soil degradation. Generally speaking, however, most organic farmers are also concerned about and focused on sustainability.

8. The process in which soil is moved from one location to another most often by wind or water is known as: a. soil profile. b. soil erosion. c. soil aggregate. d. soil diversity.

ANSWER: b 9. What industrial farming method results in soil compaction and increased rates of soil erosion? a. soil tilling b. soil inoculation c. soil stripping d. soil diversity ANSWER: a 10. _____ is a complex ecosystem of mineral and organic material, including living organisms such as bacteria, invertebrates, and fungi. a. Monoculture b. Fertilizer c. Soil Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.2 d. Pesticide ANSWER: c 11. The productivity of farmland is governed by the _____ of its soil. a. color b. amount c. smell d. health ANSWER: d 12. Why is the use of industrial fertilizers only a temporary fix on damaged farmland? a. Fertilizers can reduce the amount of soil available for crops. b. Fertilizers can reduce the soil fertility with continued use, making it hard to grow crops. c. Fertilizers can increase soil texture, allowing more crops to grow. d. Fertilizers can increase the soil quality, allowing farmers to use less over time.

ANSWER: b 13. What is the most fertile region of soil? a. subsoil b. surface litter c. topsoil d. horizon ANSWER: c 14. What two processes produce new soil? a. erosion and decaying organic material b. weathering of rocks and farming c. erosion and farming d. weathering of rocks and decaying organic material ANSWER: d 15. It is estimated that it takes anywhere from _____ years to generate 1 inch of soil. a. 500 to 1,000 b. 750 to 800 c. 50 to 100 d. 1,000 to 1,500 ANSWER: a 16. Explain why the structure of the soil is an important part of the mutualistic relationship that exists between plant roots and soil bacteria and fungi?

ANSWER: Some species of bacteria and fungi in soil form mutualistic relationships with plant roots. Bacteria Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.2 and fungi need energy, and they get it from sugars and other carbon molecules discharged from plant roots. In return, the soil organisms provide fixed nitrogen and soluble phosphorus to the plants.

Some plants form symbiotic relationships with nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in nodules on the plant roots, while other plants depend on free-living bacteria that live in the tiny pores that form between the clumps and lumps of soil for the nitrogen they need. The environment needs to be just right: the pore sizes cannot be too big or too small, oxygen levels must not be too low, and the right amount of moisture is needed. These conditions develop as organic matter decays. The clumps that form, called soil aggregates, are "glued" together by the bacteria.

17. A rice farmer can use integrated farming techniques in which ducklings, azolla, and fish are used to produce their crops without any extra chemical additives. This integrated technique: a. represents a method of organic farming. b. is sustainable. c. produces more than just rice as a product to sell. d. eliminates the need for synthetic and toxic chemicals. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 18. By planting corn one year and beans the next on a given plot of land, or by planting alfalfa as a cover crop during the off-season, a farmer reduces the need for _____ because beans and alfalfa fix nitrogen in the soil. a. herbicides b. pesticides c. inorganic fertilizers d. expensive irrigation techniques e. harvesting machinery ANSWER: c 19. When using agroecology, Takao Furuno added ducklings to the rice paddies. What was one purpose of the ducklings? a. eat all the azolla b. flatten the young rice seedlings c. eat all the rice seeds d. provide fertilizer e. encourage more ducks to come to the rice paddies ANSWER: d 20. By using agroecology, Takao Furuno received financial gains. What was he able to sell from his land? a. rice b. duck eggs c. fish d. figs e. All of these answers are correct.

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Module 08.2 ANSWER: e 21. What scientific field considers the area's ecology and indigenous knowledge and favors agricultural methods that protect the environment and meet the needs of local people? a. agrobiology b. agrophysics c. agrochemical d. agroecology ANSWER: d 22. Which farming method incorporates a mix of different species grown together in one area? a. monoculture b. polyculture c. soil tilling d. cash crops ANSWER: b 23. This type of integrated farm raises crops and fish together in a system that cycles water between fish tanks and crops. a. monoculture b. polyculture c. biomimicry d. aquaponics ANSWER: d 24. Refer to Infographic 3. Use the infographic to describe integrated farming at Takao Furuno's duck/rice farm.

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Module 08.2

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Module 08.2

ANSWER: The integrated farm is a self-regulating, multiple-species system that naturally meets the needs of the farm ecosystem. The species present all play a role in the system and help each other and overall production. The method includes planting rice seedlings in flooded rice paddies. Ducklings and fish are introduced to eat weeds (eliminating the need for chemical herbicides), and they provide natural fertilizer (eliminating the need for chemical fertilizers). Azolla is introduced to add nitrogen, and its growth is kept in check by ducks and fish. The final product of this integrated system is a harvest that includes not only rice (with yields increased 20% to 50% compared with industrial model approaches) but also duck eggs, duck, and fish.

25. Which kind of pest management system falls more in line with the methods of sustainable farming? a. cultural b. mechanical c. biological d. chemical e. Cultural, mechanical, and biological are all pest control methods used in sustainable farming.

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Module 08.2 ANSWER: e 26. What is the goal of integrated pest management? a. controlling pest species while minimizing chemical toxins b. eliminating all pest species through any means necessary c. controlling pest species using only biological control methods d. eliminating all insect species in agricultural areas e. controlling pest species with traditional agricultural techniques ANSWER: a 27. What is the first step in integrated pest management? a. developing an action plan b. setting an action threshold c. monitoring pest species d. identifying true pests e. using cultural control methods ANSWER: d 28. Ladybugs are beetles that eat aphids, a small insect pest species that suck liquid out of plants. If you have a problem with aphids in your garden and release ladybugs to control the aphids, which type of control method are you using? a. cultural b. mechanical c. biological d. chemical e. traditional ANSWER: c 29. The use of a variety of methods to control a pest population, with the goal of minimizing or eliminating the use of chemical toxins, is called: a. integrated pest management. b. detailed pest control. c. biological pesticide d. polyculture pest management.

ANSWER: a 30. In 2015, Andrus compared the use of ducks (biological control) to hand weeding (mechanical control) to determine which method was more effective at minimizing the growth of weeds in his rice paddies. What did he discover regarding the efficiency of these two methods? a. The ducks were less effective than hand weeding. b. The ducks were more effective than hand weeding.

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Module 08.2 c. Neither method was effective at minimizing weeds. d. Both methods were equally effective at minimizing weeds.

ANSWER: b 31. What are some potential hazards to using biological methods of pest control?

ANSWER: When selecting which predator to use to help control whatever pest is present on the farm, a farmer must be very careful to choose a predator that will kill ONLY the pest and not the other species present on the farm. They must also be careful to avoid introducing a non-native species into the ecosystem, since an invasive species situation may arise if the predator has no local predators of its own.

32. Sustainable farming techniques do NOT include: a. reduced tillage. b. crop rotation. c. strip cropping. d. heavy pesticide use. e. terrace farming.

ANSWER: d 33. In sustainable agriculture, _____ is to soil erosion as _____ is to soil fertility. a. strip cropping; contour farming b. terrace farming; crop rotation c. cover cropping; reduced tillage d. contour farming; terrace farming e. crop rotation; windbreaks ANSWER: b 34. Which agricultural method would NOT be a sustainable one for reducing soil erosion? a. reduced tillage b. contour farming c. terrace farming d. cover cropping e. strip cropping ANSWER: e 35. Which sustainable farming technique disrupts the life cycle of pests, making it difficult for pest populations to build up and cause outbreaks? a. contour farming b. cover crops c. crop rotation d. terrace farming Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.2 e. reduced tillage ANSWER: c 36. The 1930s Dust Bowl was caused by severe drought in prairie lands, coupled with farming techniques that left the bare soil vulnerable to wind erosion. Which sustainable farming technique would help prevent such a phenomenon from happening again? a. contour farming b. depression farming c. reduced tillage d. terrace farming e. strip cropping ANSWER: c 37. What is an advantage of growing perennial crops? a. increased soil erosion b. increased soil fertility c. decreased irrigation need d. the ability to grow in any environment e. There are no advantages over growing annual crops.

ANSWER: c 38. What type of crop only grows for one season and must be replanted every year? a. perennial crops b. annual crops c. fall harvests d. spring harvests ANSWER: b 39. Refer to Infographic 5. Which methods increase soil fertility, and why?

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Module 08.2

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Module 08.2 40. The distance a food travels from its site of production to the consumer is: a. decreased in countries where industrialized agriculture is practiced. b. typically less than 100 miles in the United States. c. not a sustainability issue, since fossil fuels are plentiful in most countries. d. not a factor when calculating the ecological footprint of a food. e. referred to as food miles.

ANSWER: e 41. Which produce item is MOST important to buy organic, if possible? a. kiwi b. cabbage c. mushrooms d. grapes e. onions ANSWER: d 42. Which food likely has the SMALLEST carbon footprint? a. a pineapple shipped from Hawaii b. a soybean from a local commercial farm c. an organic banana shipped from Costa Rica d. an organic strawberry from a local farm e. An organic banana shipped from Costa Rica and an organic strawberry from a local farm have equally small footprints.

ANSWER: d 43. _____ is a term that describes misleading claims about the healthiness of organic foods. a. Greenwashing b. Organic washing c. Organic inaccuracy d. Transgenic e. Greencarding ANSWER: a 44. Which example of greenwashing would you find on a food label? a. produced locally (from commercial farm) b. contains only natural ingredients c. cage-free eggs d. healthy organic brownies e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.2 45. As a consumer, you need to be wary of purported health claims made for organically grown foods. How could such claims be validated?

ANSWER: The FDA and the USDA could examine the "greenwashing" claims made regarding organic foods and provide labels that consumers could use to compare organically grown food with non– organically grown food.

46. What are ways you can personally support sustainable/organic farming techniques and help them become more widely employed?

ANSWER: Support local farmers, buy organic products, and eat naturally fed and antibiotic-free meats.

Financing the industry by paying a little extra for the products is the most important way to keep the practice alive.

47. Sustainable farming would have less _____ but would be more _____. a. expense and inputs; labor intensive b. potential for causing water pollution; at risk for causing soil degradation c. genetic and species diversity; likely to have many beneficial insects d. hormone residues in the milk; than likely to have antibiotic residue in the meat e. utilization of crop rotation and cover cropping; apt to use integrated pest management and fertilizers ANSWER: a 48. Consumers enjoy many benefits from sustainable farming. Which example is a benefit of sustainable farming to consumers? a. no pesticide residue on produce b. better taste c. animal products contain no hormones d. fresher produce e. All of these answers are benefits.

ANSWER: e 49. Which statement is a disadvantage of sustainable farming for the consumer? a. Fruits and vegetables are less uniform and may contain more blemishes. b. The items have a shorter shelf life. c. Usually the items are more expensive. d. All of these answers are disadvantages. e. None of these answers is a disadvantage.

ANSWER: d 50. Which statement is an advantage of organic farming? a. Fruits and vegetables grown without pesticides are typically blemish-free and have a long shelf life, since they are picked when ripe and waxed as protection. b. Organic food is less expensive, since there are many subsidies available to organic farmers that get Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.2 passed on to customers. c. Food is healthier, as there is no pesticide residue on the produce and organic food may contain more antioxidants. d. There is more genetic and species diversity, as crops can be grown without concern for what is climatically suitable to a given area. e. Labels on organic food are clear and never misleading, as the certification process is stringent but straightforward.

ANSWER: c 51. Which statement is an advantage of sustainable farming for the farmer/environment? a. The soil is not degraded. b. There is less potential for water pollution. c. Beneficial insects are not killed. d. All of these answers are advantages. e. None of these answers is an advantage.

ANSWER: d 52. Many advantages and disadvantages are associated with sustainable farming techniques, for the environment, the consumer, and the farmer. Which statement is FALSE? a. Sustainable farming is more labor intensive than traditional farming. b. More subsidies are available for farmers who use sustainable techniques. c. Soil is not degraded as much when sustainable agricultural techniques are used. d. Usually, organic products are more expensive for the consumer. e. All of these answers are true statements about sustainable farming.

ANSWER: b 53. An increase in crop genetic diversity is an advantage of which kind of farming? a. sustainable b. commercial c. global d. industrial e. All farming decreases genetic diversity.

ANSWER: a 54. As the human population continues to grow, we increase our demand for food. Describe how we can meet increased food demand in a way that is sustainable for the long term.

ANSWER: Of the next billion humans to be added to our population, 99% will be born in developing countries, where meat is much less common in the diet compared with populations in developed countries.

However, as developing countries modernize, they are adopting habits (such as increased meat consumption) of developed countries. The growing of meat products, especially beef, requires large amounts of energy (grains) and resources (water, land). In order to feed an estimated 10 billion humans in 2050, we need to minimize our meat consumption in favor of a plant-based diet, which is Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.2 far more energy efficient in terms of production. In addition, sustainable farming techniques, including crop rotation, terrace and contour farming, reduced tillage, strip cropping, and cover crops, need to be employed to minimize soil erosion, nutrient loss, and the need for irrigation.

55. Why is sustainable farming a better way to grow food? Provide three reasons. What are the trade-offs?

Discuss three.

ANSWER: Sustainable farming is a better way to grow food for the following three reasons: (1) Both crops and animals raised organically have fewer residues of unwanted chemicals, such as antibiotics, pesticides, and growth hormones, than their counterparts from industrial models; (2) the environment is better protected with organic systems because there are fewer unintended environmental consequences from the runoff of pesticides and fertilizers and more biodiversity is protected (for example, beneficial insects are not killed by broad-spectrum pesticides); and (3) in some ways, it is a less expensive way to farm, since fewer and less costly inputs are required. There are some trade-offs, however, and most have to do with cost. For instance, though inputs in organic agriculture cost less, it is a very labor-intensive method because what is accomplished using chemicals in the industrial system (for example, pest control) must now be done manually, increasing labor costs. There are also other ways that sustainable farming is more expensive.

Currently, sustainable farming has far fewer subsidies compared with industrially grown crops. This generally translates into sustainably grown food being more costly, as these additional costs get passed along to consumers.

56. Discuss several trade-offs associated with organic farming for the consumer, the farmer, and the environment.

ANSWER: Advantages of organic farming for consumers include better taste, freshness, foods with more antioxidants, and no pesticide residues on the products. However, disadvantages include occasional blemishes on fruits and vegetables, a shorter shelf life, and products that are more expensive.

Regarding the farmer and the environment, organics are advantageous because they have fewer and less costly inputs because of the lack of pesticides, herbicides, and inorganic fertilizers; the soil is not degraded because of the lack of synthetic fertilizers and the use of crop rotation; and there is less potential for water pollution. Disadvantages for farmers and the environment include the fact that the certification process is costly and time consuming, there are fewer subsidies available to organic farmers, and not all crops can grow in all areas because native plants thrive more with organic techniques.

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Module 08.3 1. Affluence is BEST described as: a. diet. b. wealth. c. poverty. d. consumption. e. demand.

ANSWER: b 2. Overconsumption of meat has been associated with: a. diabetes. b. some cancers. c. cardiovascular disease. d. diabetes, some cancers, and cardiovascular disease. e. both diabetes and cardiovascular disease.

ANSWER: d 3. According to researchers at the Harvard School of Public Health, increased consumption of _____ increases one's risk of dying. a. chicken b. tuna c. red meat d. turkey e. nonmeat sources of protein ANSWER: c 4. _____ affects diet by increasing the demand for animal food products. a. Affluence b. A food recall c. Eating lower on the food chain d. Use of antibiotics e. Poverty ANSWER: a 5. According to Infographic 1A, in 2005 China's annual per capita meat consumption was _____ kilograms/year.

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a. 5,000 b. 125 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.3 c. 60 d. 20 e. The information cannot be determined from this infographic.

ANSWER: c 6. According to Infographic 1A, a country with a per capita gross domestic product of 20,000 U.S.$ PPP would most likely have a per capita meat consumption near _____ kilograms/year.

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a. 2,000 b. 80 Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.3 c. 100 d. 70 e. The information cannot be determined from this infographic.

ANSWER: b 7. Infographic 1B tells us that eating one red meat serving per day _____ compared with those who ate no red meat.

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a. increases the risk of dying by 50% b. has no effect on the risk of dying Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.3 c. decreases the risk of dying by about 25% d. increases the risk of dying by about 25% e. decreases the risk of dying by about 1.25% ANSWER: d 8. According to Infographic 1A, what is the relationship between income and consumption of meat for most nations? How is Japan different? Why do you think Japan is an outlier?

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ANSWER: Globally, as income rises, so does the per capita consumption of meat. Japan has a per capita gross domestic product of just over 30,000 U.S.$ PPP. The best-fit line of the graph would predict a per Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.3 capita meat consumption between 80 and 100 kilograms/year. However, Japan's per capita meat consumption falls quite short of that value, at just over 40 kilograms/year. The Japanese diet consists largely of seafood, and thus their consumption of red meat is less than expected.

9. Refer to Infographic 1B. Explain the relationship between red meat consumption and mortality. In designing a study to test this relationship, what other variables that affect mortality would need to be controlled for (taken into account) to avoid confounding the results?

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ANSWER: As daily red meat consumption goes up, so does the risk of death. In this particular study, controlled variables included age, smoking, physical activity, body size, family history of disease, and other Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.3 dietary choices.

10. The U.S. Department of Agriculture recommends that all ground meat be cooked to an internal temperature of: a. 98.6°F. b. 100°F. c. 140°F. d. 160°F. e. 200°F. ANSWER: d 11. For which reason do cattle farmers and the beef industry argue for the current system of rearing animals? a. Overconsumption of meat contributes to obesity and heart disease. b. Air and water pollution increase in areas of CAFOs. c. Industrial-scale production allows meat suppliers to raise more beef than ever before. d. The overuse of antibiotics in CAFO-reared livestock can lead to resistant strains of bacteria. e. Meat can become contaminated at any stage of processing.

ANSWER: c 12. Concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs): a. allow more beef to be produced with fewer animals. b. require less grazing land per animal. c. reduce the need for antibiotic application. d. allow more beef to be produced with fewer animals, require less grazing land per animal, and reduce the need for antibiotic application. e. both allow more beef to be produced with fewer animals and require less grazing land per animal.

ANSWER: e 13. Concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs) _____ the risk of meat contamination with E. coli because _____. a. decrease; animals lack antibiotics in their feed b. increase; animals tend to be covered in fecal matter when kept at high densities c. decrease; a comprehensive database allows for immediate tracing back to the producer where the infection originated d. increase; animals are exposed to higher levels of methane gas e. increase; they require more grazing land per animal ANSWER: b 14. Which statement is FALSE regarding cattle? a. Cattle are adapted to digest corn. b. Cattle gain weight faster when movement is restricted.

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Module 08.3 c. Antibiotics fed to cattle are not passed to consumers in the meat. d. Beef cattle usually begin on small farms.

ANSWER: a 15. In the United States, which animals are predominantly raised in CAFOs? a. cattle b. pigs c. chickens d. cattle, pigs, and chickens e. both cattle and pigs ANSWER: d 16. In America, CAFOs have NOT enabled: a. the ability to grow many thousands more food animals. b. increased availability of inexpensive meat to people of rising affluence. c. cheaper fruits and vegetables. d. increased availability of inexpensive meat to low-income individuals. e. increased accessibility of meat to all people.

ANSWER: c 17. Which benefit is derived from intense mechanized feedlot farming relative to traditional open-pasture farms? a. Animals receive a highly diverse food supply. b. Manure is easily harvested to be sold as fertilizer. c. The amount of land required is minimized. d. Animals receive a highly diverse food supply, manure is easily harvested to be sold as fertilizer, and the amount of land required is minimized. e. Manure is easily harvested to be sold as fertilizer, and the amount of land required is minimized.

ANSWER: e 18. What is a result of raising animals in CAFOs? a. loss of biodiversity b. antibiotic resistance c. habitat destruction d. air and water pollution e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 19. The _____ footprint refers to the amount of carbon dioxide or other greenhouse gases released by an action. a. water b. feed Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.3 c. carbon d. environmental e. ecological ANSWER: c 20. Which action increases the carbon footprint? a. eutrophication of waterways due to nitrogen and phosphorus from manure spills b. removal of natural vegetation from land in order to grow feed crops c. methane gas emitted by livestock d. eutrophication of waterways due to nitrogen and phosphorus from manure spills, removal of natural vegetation from land in order to grow feed crops, and methane gas emitted by livestock e. both removal of natural vegetation from land in order to grow feed crops and methane gas emitted by livestock ANSWER: e 21. Which statement is INCORRECT regarding antibiotic use in large-scale livestock operations prior to 2017? a. Animals were given the same antibiotics that humans used to treat disease. b. Antibiotics helped reduce the risk of disease spreading through high-density animal confinements. c. Antibiotics escaped into the environment through contaminated water and soil. d. Only sick animals received antibiotics. e. None—all of these statements are correct.

ANSWER: d 22. If you pick up a package at the grocery store and it says "grass-fed beef," what does that mean? a. The cows in the CAFOs were fed grass instead of grain. b. The cows have adapted, through several generations at the same farm, to digest grass instead of grain. c. The cows are allowed to roam freely and graze on pasturelands. d. The cows eat grass and quickly gain weight, making the meat very tender. e. Since they are grass-fed, the cows have also been given high amounts of antibiotics.

ANSWER: c 23. Which benefit is NOT one of grass-fed beef? a. Animal sickness is less of a problem. b. The meat has more omega-3 fatty acids. c. There is a reduced need for antibiotics. d. The animals gain weight nearly as rapidly as feedlot animals do.

ANSWER: d 24. Which statement about concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs) is TRUE? a. Such operations raise only beef cattle.

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Module 08.3 b. They use a lot of land relative to the number of animals raised. c. The manure is difficult to collect, as there are so many animals in a small space. d. Animals are generally not permitted to roam free. e. They have no net negative environmental impact.

ANSWER: d 25. How would bacterial contamination of steak differ from that of ground beef? How does the U.S. Department of Agriculture recommend ground meat be cooked?

ANSWER: Fecal matter containing bacteria such as E. coli can contaminate the surface of a steak. Cooking the steak will likely kill that surface bacteria. When the steak is ground up into ground beef, the bacteria becomes evenly mixed within. Thus, in order to kill all of the bacteria, the USDA recommends that all ground meat be cooked to an internal temperature of 160°F. 26. Describe why antibiotic resistance is likely to emerge as a result of raising livestock in concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs) where antibiotics are included in feed.

ANSWER: In CAFOs, antibiotics are typically applied to all animals as a way to prevent the spread of disease among animals living in higher densities. Antibiotics function by killing bacteria. However, in a population of bacteria, not all are killed. Some bacteria survive the antibiotic because of genetic differences that provide innate resistance. Thus, they survive and reproduce, making up the majority of the bacterial population. If the antibiotic is applied again, it will not successfully kill this population that has evolved resistance.

27. List several reasons beef-industry representatives would argue for industrial-scale production of beef in concentrated animal feeding operations (CAFOs), and then list several objections raised by critics of this industrial model.

ANSWER: Proponents of CAFOs would argue that our food supply is safer than it has ever been; meat is part of a healthy diet; and CAFOs allow meat suppliers to produce more beef with fewer animals, saving land from being dedicated to grazing. Opponents of CAFOs would argue that food safety is compromised, citing the 2007 E. coli outbreak; overconsumption of meat is associated with obesity and heart disease; and the negative effects on the environment, including air and water pollution, are not sustainable.

28. List and describe several ethical issues involved with raising animals in CAFOs. ANSWER: Animals are raised in spaces much smaller than areas animals would naturally graze in. The ability to move and exercise is highly restricted. In tight quarters, animals are exposed to high concentrations of their own urine and feces, which present a health hazard. In bird CAFOs, chickens are debeaked in order to lessen the chance of birds attacking each other in these confined spaces. For cattle, grain diets can lead to liver abscesses or intestinal tract damage.

29. What are some advantages and disadvantages to feeding cattle grains instead of grass?

ANSWER: Cattle are transitioned from a diet of hay or grass to a diet supplemented with soybeans and grains (including corn, sorghum, and oats). When this diet is coupled with a lack of exercise, rapid weight gain is made possible. This greatly reduces the time required to bring an animal to market. Thus, many more animals can be raised in a shorter time. In addition, the area of land required to rear livestock is much smaller than what would be required to allow cattle to graze on grass. Further, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.3 concentrated manure can be sold as fertilizer. However, these animals may suffer health problems such as liver abscesses or intestinal tract damage. Also, industrialized agriculture requires large monocultures of grains, fossil-fueled equipment, and chemical fertilizers and pesticides that degrade the environment. In addition, water, soil, and air near CAFOs are subject to contamination.

30. The _____ refers to the amount of edible food that is produced per unit of feed input. a. output per input ratio b. feed conversion ratio c. product per feed ratio d. feed footprint e. weight per time ratio ANSWER: b 31. Which animals are LEAST efficient and slowest at converting the food they eat into body mass? a. CAFO-reared cattle b. grass-fed cattle c. chickens d. pigs e. salmon ANSWER: b 32. According to most health experts, meat and dairy products are valuable sources of: a. carbohydrates. b. nucleic acids. c. triglycerides. d. proteins. e. starches.

ANSWER: d 33. Which statement is FALSE? a. Seventy percent of cropland in the United States is used to grow food for livestock. b. Globally, some 14.5% of greenhouse gas emissions due to human activity are from livestock. c. Nearly 75% of U.S.-produced corn is used as animal feed. d. Some 85% of beef cattle spend the last few months of their lives in CAFO pens.

ANSWER: a 34. The water consumed by a given group or appropriated and/or polluted by industry to produce products or energy is known as the: a. carbon footprint. b. feed conversion ratio. c. water footprint.

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Module 08.3 d. water conversion ratio.

ANSWER: c 35. What percentage of all U.S. cropland is used to grow food for livestock? a. 85% b. 75% c. 30% d. 40% ANSWER: d 36. How could we avoid the feed conversion problem altogether? a. by getting our carbohydrates from grains b. by getting our protein from plants c. by getting our protein from cattle d. by getting our carbohydrates from chickens ANSWER: b 37. The value for an animal's feed conversion ratio depends on the animal's: a. size. b. health. c. diet. d. breed.

ANSWER: c 38. Explain why a pound of food that a cow eats doesn’t turn into a pound of beef that humans can consume?

ANSWER: Much of the energy that went into making the animals we eat is lost along the way. The animals use some of the energy themselves for everyday activities and they don't digest all of the food they eat (some gets excreted as fecal matter). Also, some of the energy consumed goes to making and fueling parts of the animal we don't typically eat, such as the hide and the feet.

39. On a(n) _____ farm, chickens follow cows onto a pasture to consume fly larvae on manure, so the flies do not hatch and bother the cows. a. monoculture b. polyculture c. feed-lot d. industrial e. CAFO ANSWER: b 40. What do proponents claim as a benefit(s) to meat from free-range, grass-fed animals? a. increased level of omega-3 fatty acids Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.3 b. less saturated fat c. less weight gain d. both increased level of omega-3 fatty acids and less saturated fat e. increased level of omega-3 fatty acids, less saturated fat, and less weight gain ANSWER: d 41. Why are grass-fed animals considered to represent a net gain for the human food supply? a. They are raised following ethical guidelines. b. They eat only what they have naturally evolved to eat—that is, grass. c. They eat grass that humans cannot eat on land that is otherwise unsuitable for human crops. d. They are raised on pastureland that does not require pesticides and fertilizer. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: c 42. What is a polyculture farm? a. a farm that rears different species of animals together b. a farm that grows different species of crops together c. a farm that has a set rotation schedule for animal feedings in particular areas and growth schedules for crops d. a farm that relies less on fertilizers and pesticides e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 43. Which animals are released into pastures to feed on insects and provide a free form of pest control? a. beef b. pork c. poultry d. salmon e. None of these answers feed on insects and provide free pest control.

ANSWER: c 44. According to the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations, CAFOs produce more than _____% of all our animal food and account for _____% of all animal farms. a. 80; 5 b. 75; 10 c. 50; 50 d. 90; 90 e. 25; 50 ANSWER: a 45. How would raising grass-fed animals ultimately affect ecological problems such as erosion and pollution Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.3 from fertilizers and pesticides?

ANSWER: Since grass-fed animals eat just that, grass, they require little or no supplemental grain in their diets.

Because of this, the amount of fertilizer and pesticides that are typically required to grow corn and other grain crops for cattle would not be used and would not pollute the water and air. Grass-fed animals prevent erosion because they are feeding on pasturelands, which are covered by plants. If managed properly, the animals typically do not eat the plants all the way to the roots, which allows the plants to stay rooted in the ground and hold the soil in place.

46. Do sustainable animal rearing methods address the disadvantages of CAFOs? ANSWER: The disadvantages of CAFOs—namely, environmental problems, ethical issues, and human health concerns—can all be mitigated, to some extent, with sustainable rearing methods. For example, a polyculture farm does not have the ethical concerns that a CAFO elicits because the animals are allowed to roam free, interact with nature, and eat what millennia of adaptation has bred them to eat.

Polyculture farms also mitigate human health concerns, such as meat contaminated with harmful bacteria, because the animals are not kept in close quarters and are not exposed to their feces at the same level that CAFO animals are exposed. Environmental issues, like pollution, habitat destruction, and greenhouse gas production, can also be largely decreased or eliminated through sustainable rearing methods because the animals themselves are eating grass instead of large quantities of grain, which reduces the fossil fuels and environmental pollutants (fertilizer, pesticides) needed to farm such mass quantities of corn. Polyculture farms, for example, also decrease the amount of habitat destruction because they do not require the acres and acres of farmland dedicated to growing grain.

47. Do you think sustainable animal rearing methods can supply enough meat and other animal products to meet the current levels of demand for such items in the United States? Based on your answer, do you think this is a bad thing?

ANSWER: The United States has the highest per capita consumption of meat in the world. Since over half of all meat products currently consumed come from CAFOs, it is unlikely that sustainable animal rearing methods would be able to keep up with this demand. However, by many measures, Americans are eating too much meat in their diets, so the fact that sustainable farming would provide less meat and at higher prices could help to mitigate concerning health trends like obesity and heart disease.

48. Which historical federal policy(ies) has/have supported the CAFO model? a. subsidies that allow feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow b. FDA approval for routine use of antibiotics in animal feed c. lax regulation of wastewater treatment d. subsidies that allow feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow, FDA approval for routine use of antibiotics in animal feed, and lax regulation of wastewater treatment e. both FDA approval for routine use of antibiotics in animal feed and lax regulation of wastewater treatment ANSWER: d 49. According to Infographic 5, food safety and the environment are most important to which economic development status group?

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Module 08.3 50. When developing policy objectives, which economic development status group shown in Infographic 5 needs to focus most equally on all four factors?

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Module 08.3 51. Which recommendation is one made by the UN FAO regarding livestock production? a. Plant-based diets must be adopted globally. b. Environmental concerns outweigh food-security concerns in most countries. c. The biggest issue for developing countries is food safety. d. The focus of an agricultural policy should depend on the level of industrialization. e. Postindustrial countries should help bolster food security in developing countries.

ANSWER: d 52. U.S. food policies largely support _____ agriculture. a. sustainable b. industrial c. traditional d. organic e. subsidy-free ANSWER: b 53. The original U.S. Farm Bill was created during which period? a. the Great Depression b. the 1980s farming crisis c. the 1970s corn blight d. the end of World War II e. 2008–2010 ANSWER: a 54. Which U.S. Farm Bill legislation policies have been adapted or removed in recent years? a. lax regulation of wastewater treatment b. routine use of antibiotics c. subsidies that enable feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow d. both routine use of antibiotics and subsidies that enable feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow e. lax regulation of wastewater treatment, routine use of antibiotics, and subsidies that enable feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow ANSWER: d 55. In terms of energy inputs required for raising beef, compare the industrial model, where cattle are fed grains, with a grass-fed model, where animals graze on pastureland. When considering agricultural policy, which method is more sustainable?

ANSWER: In the industrial model, fossil fuels are required to power machinery and to produce the chemical fertilizers and pesticides needed to maximize grain yield. Fossil fuels, such as oil, are nonrenewable resources that are being consumed rapidly. In contrast, the energy of the Sun is used to power photosynthesis in pasture grasses. Solar power is renewable. In addition, these "free-range" cattle eat Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.3 a more natural diet and require fewer, if any, synthetic inputs of fertilizer or pesticides. Although producing less overall meat than the industrial model, the "grass-fed" model produces beef more sustainably.

56. What was the rationale for the original U.S. Farm Bill? What was it designed to do?

ANSWER: The original U.S. Farm Bill was created to provide a safety net for farmers and therefore help retain them in a business with much risk, including threats from weather, disease, and global economics. It ensured that farmers would be paid at least as much as it cost to produce the food. Specifically, farmers were encouraged to allow some farmland to recover and rejuvenate and keep prices high by preventing a flooded market. In addition, storage programs for corn and soybeans helped stabilize prices between good and bad growing seasons.

57. Infographic 5 depicts UN FAO recommendations for taking into account the importance of each of four factors in developing a country's policies regarding raising livestock. Describe the shift in importance of factors as a country's income increases and the percentage of the country's income that comes from raising livestock decreases.

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Module 08.3 58. According to journalist and sustainable-food advocate Michael Pollan, "Cheap food is dishonestly priced. It is, in fact, unconscionably expensive." What does this mean for beef production and consumption in the United States, and what can be done about it?

ANSWER: Pollan is stating that the price consumers currently pay for meat does not include the true cost of producing that meat. For example, the true costs would need to factor in fully the cost to produce and harvest the grains fed to cattle. This would include costs such as fossil fuels for machinery, synthetic fertilizers and pesticides, freshwater demands, loss of topsoil, and contamination of air, water, and soil. Federal subsidies enable feedlot operators to buy grain for less than it costs to grow.

In addition, environmental costs from large-scale livestock operations, including greenhouse gas emissions and soil and water contamination from manure lagoons, are not factored in. If large-scale industrial livestock operations were required to treat their waste as other industries are, that higher price would be passed on to consumers. Further, health costs attributed to meat, including cardiovascular diseases, diabetes, and E. coli outbreaks, need to be included in order to reflect the true costs.

59. By 2050, an estimated 10 billion people will live on Earth. Which method would BEST help to ensure sustainable food security for all humans? a. a decrease in the price of fast-food restaurant burgers in developing countries b. an increase from 50% to 90% in the number of animal farms that are CAFOs c. the minimization or elimination of dairy products in the diets of most adults d. a cultural shift involving a decrease in meat consumption in favor of a more plant-based diet ANSWER: d 60. If U.S. agricultural policy changes and CAFOs give way to more pasture-raised cattle, we will have _____ meat that will be _____ expensive. a. less; less b. more; less c. less; more d. more; more e. no; more ANSWER: c 61. "Eating lower on the food chain" means: a. becoming a vegan—not consuming any animal products, even eggs or cheese. b. becoming a vegetarian—cutting out all meat from your diet. c. eating chicken instead of beef. d. spending more money on grass-fed beef. e. reducing meat and dairy consumption for more plant-based food.

ANSWER: e 62. In terms of how much energy input is required to produce food, it is more energetically efficient to consume: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.3 a. steak. b. milk. c. tuna. d. eggs. e. broccoli.

ANSWER: e 63. Diets that are high in animal fats and red meat can lead to what types of health problems? a. weight loss and lower cholesterol b. heart disease, obesity, and diabetes c. asthma and other respiratory ailments d. stunted growth and malnutrition ANSWER: b 64. Eating less meat is a good way to: a. increase your water footprint. b. reduce your ecological footprint. c. reduce your nutrition rate. d. increase your carrying capacity.

ANSWER: b 65. How many grams of protein are consumed daily in the typical American diet? a. 42 g/day b. 120 g/day c. 92 g/day d. 76 g/day ANSWER: c 66. In developing countries where low-income families face poverty and food insecurity, a modest amount of _____ might be the difference between undernutrition and a nutritious diet. a. carbohydrates b. plant protein c. fat d. animal protein ANSWER: d 67. What does it mean to "eat lower on the food chain"? How can it help make livestock production more sustainable?

ANSWER: Eating lower on the food chain means replacing meats in the diet with more fruits and vegetables.

This will help make livestock production more sustainable, since less meat will be available without grain-fed cattle in a large-scale industrialized CAFO model.

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Module 08.3 68. Your friend refers to herself as a "meat and potatoes kind of girl." That was the way she was raised. How could you describe to her the benefits to both the environment and to her personal health of a more plant-based diet with reduced meat consumption?

ANSWER: The production of meat using a large-scale industrialized CAFO model is not sustainable in terms of the energy inputs required (fossil fuels) or the environmental degradation to the air, water, and soil it causes. More sustainable methods produce smaller volumes of meat. This means that, as the human population continues to grow, less meat will be available per person and it will be more expensive.

From a personal health standpoint, diets rich in meats are associated with various diseases, including cancer, heart disease, and diabetes.

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Module 08.4 1. Nontarget species that become trapped in fishing nets and are usually discarded are known as: a. target catch. b. endangered species. c. bycatch. d. depleted fisheries. e. fishing down the food chain.

ANSWER: c 2. What is likely to be the MOST important global impact of bycatch? a. loss of ocean biodiversity b. acidification and coral bleaching c. sediment pollution d. habitat destruction e. increase in invasive species ANSWER: a 3. Many marine species are accidentally caught and killed in nets. Which marine species' populations have been reduced as a result of bycatch from fishing? a. dolphins b. sea turtles c. sea birds d. dolphins, sea turtles, and sea birds e. both sea turtles and sea birds ANSWER: d 4. Bycatch is a problem with this method of fishing, which uses a free-floating net that entangles fish and has been banned in many areas, including the United States. a. long-line fishing b. pole fishing c. bottom trawling d. drift netting e. dynamite ANSWER: d 5. Major issues associated with the fishing technique of bottom trawling include: a. nitrogen increase. b. damaged seabed. c. sediment plume. d. B and C are correct. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

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Module 08.4 ANSWER: d 6. A fishery is considered collapsed when the annual catches fall below _____ of their historic high. The stocks can no longer support the fishery. a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 90% ANSWER: a 7. A fishery with annual catches below 10% of their historic levels that has reduced reproductive capacity is called: a. overexploited. b. collapsed. c. exhausted. d. finite. e. shrunken.

ANSWER: b 8. The Grand Banks area: a. will be closed to fishing starting in 2030. b. has recovered since the moratorium on fishing was enacted in the early 1990s. c. has never qualified as being a collapsed fishery. d. boasts the largest number of commercial RAS facilities in the world. e. was once a prolific cod fishery in the Atlantic.

ANSWER: e 9. In Frenchman Bay, Maine, the objective of David Alves' program is to "turn fishers into fish farmers." What does this mean, and why does he call this the "future of fishing"?

ANSWER: The program shows how to raise cod from hatchlings to full-sized adults, including how to feed them, monitor their health, and ultimately prepare them for sale. Program participants are shown coastal net pens, where fish are raised in a system of stationary, floating nets, usually positioned in coastal waters as well as an indoor fish farm where the same types of fish are raised in indoor tanks.

This is important to the fishermen who rely on cod for their livelihood. The traditional method of harvesting wild fish from the depths of the ocean using factory ships and huge fishing nets decimated the wild population because it was unsustainable. If we are to continue using fish such as cod as a source of protein and if fishermen are to continue making their living in this industry, the future of fishing is aquaculture.

10. One of the most serious threats to many marine species is the accidental capture of bycatch. Describe some ways to lessen the impact of bycatch on marine populations.

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Module 08.4 ANSWER: Improvement in technology along with changes in the design of nets can significantly reduce the amount of bycatch. Incentives and fines could be used to ensure that the fishing fleet is using the latest technology to reduce bycatch. Additionally, markets could be created to use the bycatch instead of returning the dead bycatch to the ocean, and tariffs or bans on fish imported from countries not using the latest methods to reduce bycatch could be passed.

11. Overfishing decimated the cod fisheries in North America. How can this information be used to educate other North American fisheries to prevent the same thing from happening?

ANSWER: It can be difficult to explain to people that the methods they have been using for decades are having a negative impact on fish populations and if they do not change their methods, the fish population may collapse. The cod story could be used to explain that even with a robust fish such as the cod, poor management and overfishing can decimate and destroy the fish population over time.

Additionally, it can be shown that even after fishing was halted, the cod population did not recover and all of the individuals whose livelihoods were based on the cod industry lost their jobs.

12. Which statement about fish is FALSE? a. In poorer nations, the cost of fish is cheaper compared with meat and poultry. b. More than 15% of the world's population relies on fish as their main source of protein. c. Even though fish is a popular protein choice, humans consume more beef, pork, and chicken than fish. d. Many trendy diets are based on fish consumption. e. The FDA recommends that Americans consume two servings of fish per week.

ANSWER: c 13. Which statement about the Atlantic cod is FALSE? a. The cod fishery was the economic backbone of colonial New England and Canada. b. Twenty years after the moratorium on cod fishing, 40,000 people are still out of work and reliant on government support. c. Cod became the source of New England's early wealth. d. By 1992, the annual catch had dropped to just 2% of its historic high. e. None—all of these statements are true.

ANSWER: e 14. Which statement is FALSE? a. Developing countries are dependent on fish as a source of protein as well as revenue. b. More than half of all fish sold in the global market comes from developing countries. c. Fish make up the single biggest developing-country export. d. More than 200 million people around the world earn their living in the fishing industry. e. None—all of these statements are true.

ANSWER: e 15. Many people consider the open ocean to be an example of a commons because: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 a. many different fish populations congregate in the open ocean. b. the open ocean is host to an international fishery. c. the open ocean supports high biodiversity. d. the open ocean is the ideal environment for aquaculture. e. fishing is prohibited in the open ocean.

ANSWER: b 16. About 28.8% of the global fish stock is considered overfished. The reason fisheries have experienced such pressure is because: a. the growing human population requires protein, leading to a greater demand on fisheries. b. technological advances allow us to fish so efficiently that often every single fish is removed from an area. c. given that no nation can lay legal claim to resources in the open ocean, these resources are more susceptible to overuse and degradation. d. All of these answers are correct. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: d 17. The collapse of fish populations is caused by many different factors. Which technological advance aided in this collapse? a. steam engines b. flash freezing c. trawler ships d. steam engines and trawler ships only e. trawler ships, steam engines, and flash freezing ANSWER: e 18. The tragedy of the commons states that any resource to which a group of people have free access is likely to become _____ and degraded as each seeks to _____ personal benefit without consideration for the needs of others. a. overexploited; minimize b. overexploited; maximize c. underexploited; minimize d. underexploited; maximize e. bountiful; maximize ANSWER: b 19. Factors that contribute to the collapse of global fisheries include: a. increased human demand for fish. b. powerful ships with extended ranges. c. flash freezing techniques.

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Module 08.4 d. fishing practices like bottom-trawling. e. All of these factors contribute to the global collapse of fisheries.

ANSWER: e 20. What role do fish play in human diets? What drives consumption of fish in poorer and wealthier countries?

ANSWER: Humans consume more seafood each year than beef, pork, and chicken combined. More than 15% of the world's population relies on fish as their main source of protein. In poorer nations, the cheaper cost of seafood compared with meat and poultry drives that preference. In wealthier countries, seafood demand is increasing with new understanding of the health benefits associated with omega3 fatty acids found in fish oils. In 2011, the Food and Drug Administration doubled the recommended amount of fish in its nutritional guidelines from one serving to two servings per week.

21. What is the tragedy of the commons? How do fishing technology and the tragedy of the commons intersect to jeopardize global fisheries?

ANSWER: The tragedy of the commons is the quandary that arises from a situation in which individuals, acting in self-interest, will ultimately deplete and degrade (the tragedy) a shared resource to which they have free access (the commons), even when it is clear that doing so is not in anyone's long-term interest. Ocean ecosystems and fisheries are considered a global commons, as beyond the exclusive economic zone, the ocean is not easily regulated and has thus been subject to overexploitation by a global fleet of fishing ships. For an individual fisher, the choice is clear: "If I don't take it, someone else will." So it doesn't make sense to leave any fish behind when the immediate benefit of taking the fish is greater than the immediate cost, even if it means that there will be fewer fish to harvest in the future. For a long time, it seemed improbable that we could ever use up the resources in something as vast as the ocean, which makes up 70% of the planet. But industrial fishing techniques such as long-line fishing (a main line holds many individual lines with baited hooks) and bottom trawling (huge nets are dragged across the ocean floor), along with industrial ships that are essentially floating factories with sophisticated freezing and processing technology, enabled fishers to travel farther into the ocean, catch more fish, and transport them greater distances than ever before. The net result was that fish populations plummeted, and in addition, the increased traffic of fuel-guzzling ships polluted the water; other marine species that lived in the same waters were lost as bycatch; and bottom trawler ships did irreparable damage to the seabed, thus jeopardizing global fisheries.

22. Refer to the graph in Infographic 2. Adult cod are quite large and live close to the sea floor. They eat a wide variety of fish, as well as mussels, squid, and crab. Their diet and early life-cycle stages depend on a seabed with a complex structure. Spawning schools of more than a hundred million fish have been observed, and the average female can spawn millions of eggs. How is it possible that in 1992 the Canadian government had to close the cod fishery?

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ANSWER: Fishing practices devastated the population. Trawling methods that drag a heavy net across the sea floor seriously degraded the cods' habitat and spawning beds. Coupled with the increased technology that made fishing more efficient and damaging, the industry increased fishing pressures to meet growing demand for fish. More fish were harvested than could be replaced.

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Module 08.4 23. Overfishing of upper-trophic-level fish has led to humans seeking new species to harvest at lower trophic levels. This is called fishing: a. down the food chain. b. up the food chain. c. through the food chain. d. sustainably. e. artificially.

ANSWER: a 24. Refer to the Marine Food Pyramid in Infographic 3. The overfishing of which trophic level would most greatly affect that ecosystem?

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Module 08.4 25. The Marine Trophic Index has decreased dramatically since 1990. What does this statement mean? a. Invasive species are taking over the oceans. b. Higher-level predators are declining in numbers. c. Whale numbers have made a dramatic increase. d. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: b 26. Refer to the graph in Infographic 3. What does the figure show?

a. fish catch in the 1960s containing mostly lower-trophic-level fish, suggesting that higher-trophiclevel fish populations had been depleted b. the size of fish catch that could be harvested in any given year without decreasing the yield in future years Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 c. the decrease in the size of the bycatch of different trophic levels over time as fishing technology improved d. a plot of the Marine Trophic Index from 1950 to 2012, which is a measure of the average trophic level of fish taken in a given year and which is an indicator of the status of a marine ecosystem e. the annual size of the cod harvest from 1950 to 2012 ANSWER: d 27. The loss of apex predators often disrupts food webs by: a. allowing lower-trophic-level species to increase in number. b. causing an increase in aquatic plants through increased lower-trophic-level species. c. diminishing reproductive capacities in predator species. d. expanding habitat for lower-trophic-level species.

ANSWER: a 28. Refer to Infographic 3. What can cause a marine food pyramid to look like the one shown in the figure?

What effects can it have on the fishing industry and on the ability of top-trophic-level fish to recover?

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Module 08.4 29. Approximately how many species of fish are harvested commercially? a. 1,700 b. 1,500 c. 1,100 d. 1,900 ANSWER: b 30. Compared with 1950, only _____% of the large fish like tuna, cod, and halibut remain in the oceans. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 e. 90 ANSWER: a 31. More than half of the world's fisheries are at _____ yield, the amount of fish that can be harvested without decreasing the yield in future years. a. overexploitation b. maximum sustainable c. depletion d. bycatch e. fishery maximum ANSWER: b 32. What percent of global marine fisheries are overexploited? a. 10.2% b. 24.6% c. 33.1% d. 42.5% e. 50.9% ANSWER: c 33. Refer to Infographic 4. The figure shows fish catches in the Newfoundland–Labrador Shelf area of the North Atlantic. Describe the shift in the species and amounts taken in 1968, 1990, and 2005.

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ANSWER: In 1968, the combined catch of all groups (expressed in thousands of tons) peaked at 1,330,000 tons of fish. Cod-like fishes made up most of the catch. In 1990, the combined catch had decreased to less than 600,000 tons of fish. Notably, cod made up less than 50% of the total catch. By 2005, the

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Module 08.4 34. Discuss what the falling populations of cod represent and what that falling population affects.

ANSWER: The falling population of cod not only represents overfishing but also acts as a warning flag that entire ocean communities are being affected. The loss of cod affects the entire ecosystem. When a predatory fish like cod disappears, there are impacts up and down the food chain within the ocean ecosystem. In addition, it affects the human population as a loss of both food and income.

35. Many nations have tried to protect their fisheries by the creation of _____, which extend 200 nautical miles from the coastline and give exclusive rights over marine resources. a. inclusive economic zones b. exclusive economic zones c. exclusive fishing zones d. marine protection areas e. marine reserves ANSWER: b 36. _____ are discrete regions of the ocean that are legally protected from various forms of human exploitation. a. Marine economic zones b. Marine sanctuaries c. Marine buffer zones d. Marine protected areas e. Ocean habitat areas ANSWER: d 37. The Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act is the primary law in the United States that governs marine fisheries. The act and subsequent amendments focus on: a. rebuilding overfished fisheries. b. protecting ecosystems. c. reducing bycatch. d. catch share programs. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 38. One of the major problems of managing marine fisheries is the amount of illegal, unreported, and unregulated fishing. It is estimated that the revenue from these practices is _____ annually. a. $1 to $5 million b. $50 to $100 million c. $1 to $5 billion d. $4 to $9 billion e. $20 to $30 billion ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 39. The Marine Stewardship Council defines a sustainable fishery as one that ensures that: a. fish stocks are maintained at healthy levels. b. the ecosystem is fully functional. c. fishing activity does not threaten biological diversity. d. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: d 40. As a marine biologist, you notice that the coral reefs around the Florida Keys are depleting rapidly. Which choice would be MOST effective in protecting the coral reefs? a. marine reserves b. exclusive economic zones c. marine protected areas d. conservation easements e. shelterbelts ANSWER: a 41. The difference between a marine protected area and a marine reserve is: a. marine reserves are found only outside of the exclusive economic zone. b. cultural artifacts are protected only by marine reserves. c. no fishing is allowed in a marine reserve. d. a marine protected area maintains a higher level of ecosystem biodiversity.

ANSWER: c 42. Explain the difference between a marine protected area and a marine reserve.

ANSWER: A marine protected area is a discrete region of the ocean that is legally protected from various forms of human exploitation. Many MPAs protect only certain elements within the area (certain species of fish; a discrete portion of the habitat, such as a spawning ground; or a cultural artifact, like a sunken ship). A marine reserve is a restricted area where all fishing is prohibited and no human disturbance is allowed.

43. Many countries have exclusive economic zones (EEZs). How are these EEZs supposed to protect fish populations, and what are the problems with EEZs? ANSWER: Countries have enacted EEZs as a method to protect dwindling fish populations. EEZs extend 200 nautical miles from the coastline of a given nation, and within that zone the nation has exclusive rights over marine resources. The problem is that some fish populations are migratory and will pass through several EEZs, where their numbers can be overharvested and poorly managed.

44. What is aquaculture? a. fishing without the use of trawl nets and thus without bycatch b. the marine resources, including fish, that are found within 200 nautical miles of the coastline of any given nation, where that nation has exclusive rights c. finding a use for nontarget species that become trapped in fishing nets and are usually discarded Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 d. farming fish by rearing fish in tanks, ponds, or ocean net pens e. a fishery that ensures that fish stocks are maintained at healthy levels, the ecosystem is fully functional, and fishing activity does not threaten biological diversity ANSWER: d 45. The difference(s) between fishing and aquaculture is/are: a. fish populations in aquaculture operations are typically more genetically uniform than wild fish captured by fishing fleets. b. unlike fish harvested from the ocean, aquaculture operations have historically been much smaller, producing just enough fish to feed a family or a small village. c. the size of the catch in fishing is limited by the size of the wild population, whereas in aquaculture, fish production is primarily limited by the size of the area in which organisms can be grown. d. unlike fishing operations, aquaculture produces higher concentrations of waste that can pollute aquatic ecosystems in which they are housed. e. All of these answers are differences between fishing and aquaculture.

ANSWER: e 46. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding aquaculture? a. Aquaculture provides a reliable protein source and thus needed nutrition for a growing human population. b. As aquaculture grows in scale, the reduced pressure on natural fisheries is better for ocean biodiversity as it reduces bycatch. c. The dense concentration of farmed fish makes it easier to prevent disease outbreaks from occurring, and thus food security is always assured. d. Aquaculture is more energy efficient, as it uses less fossil fuel and produces more fish per unit area than open-water fishing operations. e. All of these answers are true statements about aquaculture.

ANSWER: c 47. Which statement about aquaculture is TRUE? a. Despite technological advances, fish farms still lag behind traditional fisheries in production. b. Most fish species are able to reproduce in captivity, which made adoption of these species to aquaculture that much easier. c. Aquaculture was only recently developed and practiced. d. In 2009, aquaculture provided more than half of all seafood consumed worldwide. e. The United States has the highest levels of seafood produced by aquaculture in the world.

ANSWER: d 48. Aquaculture and fisheries both: a. are sources of food and livelihood for people. b. exploit renewable natural resources. c. have significant potential for environmental degradation.

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Module 08.4 d. require significant energy resources. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 49. Which problem is NOT associated with net pen and pond aquaculture? a. use of antibiotics and pesticides b. disruption of human life in coastal communities c. escape of non-native or GMO species d. large amounts of waste released into the environment e. increased rates of disease and parasites relative to wild fish ANSWER: b 50. Aquaculture can deplete lower-trophic-level fish because: a. the fish are not raised in their typical environment. b. the fish are caught and used to feed the farmed fish. c. the pollution from the underwater pens kills the fish. d. harvesting the farmed fish with nets also catches lower-trophic-level fish.

ANSWER: b 51. Compare and contrast fishing and open-water aquaculture. Discuss the benefits and challenges of both approaches in obtaining fish protein for our diets.

ANSWER: Fishing is like hunting, while aquaculture is like farming. Health-conscious eating patterns have made fish more popular than any other source of protein, but fish are more than a source of food, as several million people around the world earn their living in the fishing and aquaculture industries.

Today, aquaculture and fishing each provide about half of our seafood, but while the former is more typical for developing countries, the latter is more commonly the way people in the developed world obtain fish protein. However, these health and economic benefits come with an environmental cost.

Fish and other seafood can be captured in shallow coastal waters, as well as the open ocean, with harvest limits determined by the size of the natural population. However, currently about 31% of the world's fish stocks have catch rates that exceed the replacement rate because of growing human demand for fish protein and technological advances in fishing equipment. Fishers tend to concentrate on a few fish species of commercial value, such as salmon and tuna, while other species, collectively called bycatch, are unintentionally caught and then discarded. Most of these unwanted animals die because they are crushed by the fishing gear or are out of the water too long. The increased traffic of fishing fleets also pollutes the water, and bottom trawler ships irreparably damage the seabed.

Fish, shellfish, and seaweed can be grown for human consumption in a variety of enclosures either placed in coastal waters or in indoor tanks. In aquaculture production, the size of the harvest is largely dependent on the size of the enclosure. To further optimize the quality and productivity, aquaculture farmers control the diet, breeding cycle, and environmental conditions of the ponds or enclosures. However, open water coastal aquaculture damages or destroys coastal ecosystems, especially mangrove swamps. Aquaculture also produces wastes that can pollute water and harm other organisms. Aquaculture farms must also be monitored for disease and overbreeding, both of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 which can cause a net loss of wild fish because of the potential spread of diseases. Farmed fish tend to be genetically more homogenous than wild ones; if the two groups interbreed, genetic diversity of wild populations could be diminished. The introduced organisms may also outcompete wild species, if the farmed fish are non-native species.

52. Refer to Infographic 6. Even though aquaculture may help balance fishery collapse, there are several problems associated with net pen and pond aquaculture. Select three problems and describe a possible solution for each.

ANSWER: These types of aquaculture cause fish to have more diseases and parasites than wild fish, require the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 use of antibiotics and pesticides, and they release large amounts of waste into the environment.

These issues can be solved by decreasing the density of net pens to minimize impact, which would then decrease the concentration of waste and the need to use antibiotics or pesticides. By moving outdoor fish farms farther from the coast, fish farms could stop displacing mangrove swamps and other coastal wetlands. Farmed fish still exert pressure on wild stocks because they are fed fishmeal made from wild-caught fish. To eliminate this problem, alternative foods that do not rely on wildcaught fish need to be developed. Since most farmed fish are from high trophic levels, they require large amounts of food. However, if fish lower on the food chain were produced by aquaculture, the efficiency of those systems would be higher. Another major problem with aquaculture is that nonnative and GMO species can escape into the wild. This problem can be eliminated if aquaculture systems were to use only native species if farming in natural waters.

53. How is aquaculture similar to a tree plantation?

ANSWER: In aquaculture, organisms are cultivated in water where most variables can be carefully controlled (for example, temperature, salt concentration, pH). This is similar to a tree plantation where only certain tree species are planted in large stands and are harvested in rotation. This monoculture consists of mostly even-aged trees with minimal biodiversity. It is therefore different from a natural forest ecosystem. In aquaculture, the production process is also carefully controlled. This is different from open-water fishing, which is more like hunting for a species within a functional ecosystem or logging a mature forest where loggers seek out certain trees within a natural forest ecosystem. As demand for both fish and wood products increases globally, producers turn to more efficient processes with strong growth potential to meet those demands. However, in fish farms and tree plantations, limited biodiversity increases vulnerability to disease and creates the potential for environmental degradation (for example, erosion from clear-cutting, concentrated waste production for aquaculture). Finally, aquaculture has the potential to alleviate pressures on natural ocean ecosystems, just as tree plantations allow for efficient wood production on less area, thus protecting areas of natural forest from needing to be logged.

54. Net pen and open pond aquaculture are technologically simple and inexpensive to set up and operate.

However, they pose some significant environmental challenges. For three challenges—displacement of native habitat, generation of large volumes of waste, and potential escape of non-native species—explain why they are a problem and how the challenge can be addressed to make net pen and open pond aquaculture systems more sustainable.

ANSWER: Open water aquaculture has significantly destroyed coastal ecosystems, especially mangrove swamps, which have been cleared in many places to make way for the ponds. Mangrove trees are an important keystone species that provides habitat and protection for a wide variety of species, including humans, as they protect the coastline from storm surges during hurricanes. To reduce this displacement of native habitat, and in some instances to restore degraded habitat, outdoor fish farms could be moved farther from the coast. Also, robotic fish cages that can be navigated through the sea with boat-operated remote controls are being developed. Fish in net pens and open ponds also generate a lot of waste, including uneaten food waste that sinks to the bottom of the pond. This waste can pollute adjacent water and harm wild species, especially if it harbors pathogens and parasites. To reduce the impacts of waste, the best approach would be to generate less of it, and this can be accomplished by decreasing the density of net pens. Not only would this decrease waste, it would also decrease the risk of disease. Finally, fish raised in open pond aquaculture operations sometimes are non-native species that can escape into the wild. If that happens, it could reduce the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 genetic diversity of wild populations, as the introduced organisms may predate on, or outcompete, wild species. To reduce effects on wild stock from non-native fish escaping, it would help to use only native species of fish in net pen operations.

55. The ability to spawn, hatch, and raise fish to adulthood in a laboratory setting is known as: a. an ocean-based aquaculture system. b. genetic engineering. c. hormone-free aquaculture. d. aquapod aquaculture. e. a recirculating aquaculture system.

ANSWER: e 56. Which statement is a benefit of recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) in comparison with net or pen aquaculture? a. Food in RAS systems is controlled by natural processes of the fish life cycle. b. Fish require less food per pound. c. Fish convert their food into flesh at a much higher rate. d. All of these answers are correct. e. Fish both require less food per pound and convert their food into flesh at a much higher rate.

ANSWER: e 57. Which statement is TRUE regarding recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS)? a. In blind tests, tasters were easily able to distinguish between wild-caught fish and those grown in the laboratory fish farm. b. The types of microbes used in the RAS to manage liquid and solid waste are not found in oceans. c. Scaled-up RAS operations have already proven to be commercially viable. d. Fish harvested from RAS operations will need to be shipped thousands of miles across the globe, increasing the environmental footprint of fish consumption. e. In RAS, the type of fish grown can be chosen based on economic opportunity rather than location.

ANSWER: e 58. Recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) are BEST suited in: a. urban centers of wealthy countries, as locations close to larger markets could help make RAS operations more likely to be economically viable. b. water-poor regions, as RAS operations have a small water footprint because they use only a limited amount of freshwater. c. tropical regions, as the breeding cycle of fish is best suited to the seasons in these regions. d. poor countries, as the start-up costs for RAS are low and because they create a lot of jobs. e. rural areas with access to a lot of open space, as RAS operations have a large land footprint that is not compatible with built-up urban areas.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 59. The difference between recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) and net pen aquaculture operations is that: a. unlike net pen aquaculture, RAS operations are very limited in the type of fish they can culture, as most fish, especially the commercially profitable species, do not do well in enclosed facilities. b. RAS facilities are more habitat friendly compared with net pen farms, which displace mangrove swamps and other wetland ecosystems in coastal areas. c. in contrast to net pen aquaculture, RAS operations are low tech and easy to set up. d. since RAS operations are very labor intensive, they are better suited than net pen systems for developing countries, where labor is cheap and the market for farm-raised fish is large. e. net pen aquaculture, being biosecure, poses a much lower risk regarding the escape of non-native species than does an RAS operation.

ANSWER: b 60. Which factor is an obstacle that recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) will need to overcome if they are to become more widespread? a. efficiency b. expensive start-up costs c. productivity d. sustainability ANSWER: b 61. If recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) facilities become available on a larger scale, they could potentially lead to: a. restoration of coastal mangrove swamps. b. sustainable, local production of seafood. c. a loss of income for those relying on net pen farms. d. All of these answers are correct. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: d 62. The fish raised in recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) will be: a. harvested and sold to area restaurants. b. released to sea to improve wild stocks. c. kept in an aquarium. d. exported to developing countries for food. e. used to feed larger fish in the ocean to reestablish trophic levels.

ANSWER: a 63. How can recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) address the environmental challenges posed by net pen and open pond aquaculture? What constrains RAS, given all these advantages?

ANSWER: RAS systems, since they are conducted in biosecure indoor tanks, have some advantages that address the environmental challenges posed by net pen and open pond aquaculture: 1. Net pen operations can release a lot of waste that pollutes the water and potentially transfers Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 pathogens and parasites to wild stock. RAS systems do not release pollution, as they employ carefully calibrated microbial communities to manage waste and convert some into fuel-grade methane that can be used to offset some energy costs.

2. Net pen operations displace and destroy coastal habitats, especially mangrove swamps. RAS operations do not displace habitat, and in fact, if such facilities prove commercially viable, coastal aquaculture ponds and net pen farms in developing countries could be scaled back, and the mangrove swamps and coastal ecosystems they displaced could be restored.

3. Farmed fish in net pen operations still exert pressure on wild stocks, as they are generally hightrophic-level fish that require large amounts of food and are fed fishmeal made from wild-caught fish. Fish grown in RAS tanks may also be fed fishmeal from wild stock, but these fish require less food per pound and convert their food into flesh at a much higher ratio than the same fish grown in a net pen. This is because aquaculturists can control food intake much better, and since salinity is always optimal, fish in RAS tanks do not have to invest as much energy in osmoregulation.

4. Sometimes fish from net pen operations can escape into the wild, thereby impacting the genetic diversity of wild populations. This is of particular concern if the farmed fish are non-native. RAS operations can raise marine species to suit market demands, independent of the location of the aquaculture operation and without the risk of affecting wild stock from non-native fish escaping.

Despite these advantages, RAS systems are constrained by cost, as the technology is complex and start-up and operational costs are high, making the adoption of this system unlikely in poorer countries. Nor will large-scale RAS facilities be a viable option in water-starved regions, where several thousand gallons of freshwater can be difficult to come by.

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Module 08.4 1. Nontarget species that become trapped in fishing nets and are usually discarded are known as: a. target catch. b. endangered species. c. bycatch. d. depleted fisheries. e. fishing down the food chain.

ANSWER: c 2. What is likely to be the MOST important global impact of bycatch? a. loss of ocean biodiversity b. acidification and coral bleaching c. sediment pollution d. habitat destruction e. increase in invasive species ANSWER: a 3. Many marine species are accidentally caught and killed in nets. Which marine species' populations have been reduced as a result of bycatch from fishing? a. dolphins b. sea turtles c. sea birds d. dolphins, sea turtles, and sea birds e. both sea turtles and sea birds ANSWER: d 4. Bycatch is a problem with this method of fishing, which uses a free-floating net that entangles fish and has been banned in many areas, including the United States. a. long-line fishing b. pole fishing c. bottom trawling d. drift netting e. dynamite ANSWER: d 5. Major issues associated with the fishing technique of bottom trawling include: a. nitrogen increase. b. damaged seabed. c. sediment plume. d. B and C are correct. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

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Module 08.4 ANSWER: d 6. A fishery is considered collapsed when the annual catches fall below _____ of their historic high. The stocks can no longer support the fishery. a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% e. 90% ANSWER: a 7. A fishery with annual catches below 10% of their historic levels that has reduced reproductive capacity is called: a. overexploited. b. collapsed. c. exhausted. d. finite. e. shrunken.

ANSWER: b 8. The Grand Banks area: a. will be closed to fishing starting in 2030. b. has recovered since the moratorium on fishing was enacted in the early 1990s. c. has never qualified as being a collapsed fishery. d. boasts the largest number of commercial RAS facilities in the world. e. was once a prolific cod fishery in the Atlantic.

ANSWER: e 9. In Frenchman Bay, Maine, the objective of David Alves' program is to "turn fishers into fish farmers." What does this mean, and why does he call this the "future of fishing"?

ANSWER: The program shows how to raise cod from hatchlings to full-sized adults, including how to feed them, monitor their health, and ultimately prepare them for sale. Program participants are shown coastal net pens, where fish are raised in a system of stationary, floating nets, usually positioned in coastal waters as well as an indoor fish farm where the same types of fish are raised in indoor tanks.

This is important to the fishermen who rely on cod for their livelihood. The traditional method of harvesting wild fish from the depths of the ocean using factory ships and huge fishing nets decimated the wild population because it was unsustainable. If we are to continue using fish such as cod as a source of protein and if fishermen are to continue making their living in this industry, the future of fishing is aquaculture.

10. One of the most serious threats to many marine species is the accidental capture of bycatch. Describe some ways to lessen the impact of bycatch on marine populations.

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Module 08.4 ANSWER: Improvement in technology along with changes in the design of nets can significantly reduce the amount of bycatch. Incentives and fines could be used to ensure that the fishing fleet is using the latest technology to reduce bycatch. Additionally, markets could be created to use the bycatch instead of returning the dead bycatch to the ocean, and tariffs or bans on fish imported from countries not using the latest methods to reduce bycatch could be passed.

11. Overfishing decimated the cod fisheries in North America. How can this information be used to educate other North American fisheries to prevent the same thing from happening?

ANSWER: It can be difficult to explain to people that the methods they have been using for decades are having a negative impact on fish populations and if they do not change their methods, the fish population may collapse. The cod story could be used to explain that even with a robust fish such as the cod, poor management and overfishing can decimate and destroy the fish population over time.

Additionally, it can be shown that even after fishing was halted, the cod population did not recover and all of the individuals whose livelihoods were based on the cod industry lost their jobs.

12. Which statement about fish is FALSE? a. In poorer nations, the cost of fish is cheaper compared with meat and poultry. b. More than 15% of the world's population relies on fish as their main source of protein. c. Even though fish is a popular protein choice, humans consume more beef, pork, and chicken than fish. d. Many trendy diets are based on fish consumption. e. The FDA recommends that Americans consume two servings of fish per week.

ANSWER: c 13. Which statement about the Atlantic cod is FALSE? a. The cod fishery was the economic backbone of colonial New England and Canada. b. Twenty years after the moratorium on cod fishing, 40,000 people are still out of work and reliant on government support. c. Cod became the source of New England's early wealth. d. By 1992, the annual catch had dropped to just 2% of its historic high. e. None—all of these statements are true.

ANSWER: e 14. Which statement is FALSE? a. Developing countries are dependent on fish as a source of protein as well as revenue. b. More than half of all fish sold in the global market comes from developing countries. c. Fish make up the single biggest developing-country export. d. More than 200 million people around the world earn their living in the fishing industry. e. None—all of these statements are true.

ANSWER: e 15. Many people consider the open ocean to be an example of a commons because: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 a. many different fish populations congregate in the open ocean. b. the open ocean is host to an international fishery. c. the open ocean supports high biodiversity. d. the open ocean is the ideal environment for aquaculture. e. fishing is prohibited in the open ocean.

ANSWER: b 16. About 28.8% of the global fish stock is considered overfished. The reason fisheries have experienced such pressure is because: a. the growing human population requires protein, leading to a greater demand on fisheries. b. technological advances allow us to fish so efficiently that often every single fish is removed from an area. c. given that no nation can lay legal claim to resources in the open ocean, these resources are more susceptible to overuse and degradation. d. All of these answers are correct. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: d 17. The collapse of fish populations is caused by many different factors. Which technological advance aided in this collapse? a. steam engines b. flash freezing c. trawler ships d. steam engines and trawler ships only e. trawler ships, steam engines, and flash freezing ANSWER: e 18. The tragedy of the commons states that any resource to which a group of people have free access is likely to become _____ and degraded as each seeks to _____ personal benefit without consideration for the needs of others. a. overexploited; minimize b. overexploited; maximize c. underexploited; minimize d. underexploited; maximize e. bountiful; maximize ANSWER: b 19. Factors that contribute to the collapse of global fisheries include: a. increased human demand for fish. b. powerful ships with extended ranges. c. flash freezing techniques.

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Module 08.4 d. fishing practices like bottom-trawling. e. All of these factors contribute to the global collapse of fisheries.

ANSWER: e 20. What role do fish play in human diets? What drives consumption of fish in poorer and wealthier countries?

ANSWER: Humans consume more seafood each year than beef, pork, and chicken combined. More than 15% of the world's population relies on fish as their main source of protein. In poorer nations, the cheaper cost of seafood compared with meat and poultry drives that preference. In wealthier countries, seafood demand is increasing with new understanding of the health benefits associated with omega3 fatty acids found in fish oils. In 2011, the Food and Drug Administration doubled the recommended amount of fish in its nutritional guidelines from one serving to two servings per week.

21. What is the tragedy of the commons? How do fishing technology and the tragedy of the commons intersect to jeopardize global fisheries?

ANSWER: The tragedy of the commons is the quandary that arises from a situation in which individuals, acting in self-interest, will ultimately deplete and degrade (the tragedy) a shared resource to which they have free access (the commons), even when it is clear that doing so is not in anyone's long-term interest. Ocean ecosystems and fisheries are considered a global commons, as beyond the exclusive economic zone, the ocean is not easily regulated and has thus been subject to overexploitation by a global fleet of fishing ships. For an individual fisher, the choice is clear: "If I don't take it, someone else will." So it doesn't make sense to leave any fish behind when the immediate benefit of taking the fish is greater than the immediate cost, even if it means that there will be fewer fish to harvest in the future. For a long time, it seemed improbable that we could ever use up the resources in something as vast as the ocean, which makes up 70% of the planet. But industrial fishing techniques such as long-line fishing (a main line holds many individual lines with baited hooks) and bottom trawling (huge nets are dragged across the ocean floor), along with industrial ships that are essentially floating factories with sophisticated freezing and processing technology, enabled fishers to travel farther into the ocean, catch more fish, and transport them greater distances than ever before. The net result was that fish populations plummeted, and in addition, the increased traffic of fuel-guzzling ships polluted the water; other marine species that lived in the same waters were lost as bycatch; and bottom trawler ships did irreparable damage to the seabed, thus jeopardizing global fisheries.

22. Refer to the graph in Infographic 2. Adult cod are quite large and live close to the sea floor. They eat a wide variety of fish, as well as mussels, squid, and crab. Their diet and early life-cycle stages depend on a seabed with a complex structure. Spawning schools of more than a hundred million fish have been observed, and the average female can spawn millions of eggs. How is it possible that in 1992 the Canadian government had to close the cod fishery?

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ANSWER: Fishing practices devastated the population. Trawling methods that drag a heavy net across the sea floor seriously degraded the cods' habitat and spawning beds. Coupled with the increased technology that made fishing more efficient and damaging, the industry increased fishing pressures to meet growing demand for fish. More fish were harvested than could be replaced.

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Module 08.4 23. Overfishing of upper-trophic-level fish has led to humans seeking new species to harvest at lower trophic levels. This is called fishing: a. down the food chain. b. up the food chain. c. through the food chain. d. sustainably. e. artificially.

ANSWER: a 24. Refer to the Marine Food Pyramid in Infographic 3. The overfishing of which trophic level would most greatly affect that ecosystem?

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Module 08.4 25. The Marine Trophic Index has decreased dramatically since 1990. What does this statement mean? a. Invasive species are taking over the oceans. b. Higher-level predators are declining in numbers. c. Whale numbers have made a dramatic increase. d. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: b 26. Refer to the graph in Infographic 3. What does the figure show?

a. fish catch in the 1960s containing mostly lower-trophic-level fish, suggesting that higher-trophiclevel fish populations had been depleted b. the size of fish catch that could be harvested in any given year without decreasing the yield in future years Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 c. the decrease in the size of the bycatch of different trophic levels over time as fishing technology improved d. a plot of the Marine Trophic Index from 1950 to 2012, which is a measure of the average trophic level of fish taken in a given year and which is an indicator of the status of a marine ecosystem e. the annual size of the cod harvest from 1950 to 2012 ANSWER: d 27. The loss of apex predators often disrupts food webs by: a. allowing lower-trophic-level species to increase in number. b. causing an increase in aquatic plants through increased lower-trophic-level species. c. diminishing reproductive capacities in predator species. d. expanding habitat for lower-trophic-level species.

ANSWER: a 28. Refer to Infographic 3. What can cause a marine food pyramid to look like the one shown in the figure?

What effects can it have on the fishing industry and on the ability of top-trophic-level fish to recover?

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Module 08.4 29. Approximately how many species of fish are harvested commercially? a. 1,700 b. 1,500 c. 1,100 d. 1,900 ANSWER: b 30. Compared with 1950, only _____% of the large fish like tuna, cod, and halibut remain in the oceans. a. 10 b. 25 c. 50 d. 75 e. 90 ANSWER: a 31. More than half of the world's fisheries are at _____ yield, the amount of fish that can be harvested without decreasing the yield in future years. a. overexploitation b. maximum sustainable c. depletion d. bycatch e. fishery maximum ANSWER: b 32. What percent of global marine fisheries are overexploited? a. 10.2% b. 24.6% c. 33.1% d. 42.5% e. 50.9% ANSWER: c 33. Refer to Infographic 4. The figure shows fish catches in the Newfoundland–Labrador Shelf area of the North Atlantic. Describe the shift in the species and amounts taken in 1968, 1990, and 2005.

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ANSWER: In 1968, the combined catch of all groups (expressed in thousands of tons) peaked at 1,330,000 tons of fish. Cod-like fishes made up most of the catch. In 1990, the combined catch had decreased to less than 600,000 tons of fish. Notably, cod made up less than 50% of the total catch. By 2005, the

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Module 08.4 34. Discuss what the falling populations of cod represent and what that falling population affects.

ANSWER: The falling population of cod not only represents overfishing but also acts as a warning flag that entire ocean communities are being affected. The loss of cod affects the entire ecosystem. When a predatory fish like cod disappears, there are impacts up and down the food chain within the ocean ecosystem. In addition, it affects the human population as a loss of both food and income.

35. Many nations have tried to protect their fisheries by the creation of _____, which extend 200 nautical miles from the coastline and give exclusive rights over marine resources. a. inclusive economic zones b. exclusive economic zones c. exclusive fishing zones d. marine protection areas e. marine reserves ANSWER: b 36. _____ are discrete regions of the ocean that are legally protected from various forms of human exploitation. a. Marine economic zones b. Marine sanctuaries c. Marine buffer zones d. Marine protected areas e. Ocean habitat areas ANSWER: d 37. The Magnuson-Stevens Fishery Conservation and Management Act is the primary law in the United States that governs marine fisheries. The act and subsequent amendments focus on: a. rebuilding overfished fisheries. b. protecting ecosystems. c. reducing bycatch. d. catch share programs. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 38. One of the major problems of managing marine fisheries is the amount of illegal, unreported, and unregulated fishing. It is estimated that the revenue from these practices is _____ annually. a. $1 to $5 million b. $50 to $100 million c. $1 to $5 billion d. $4 to $9 billion e. $20 to $30 billion ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 39. The Marine Stewardship Council defines a sustainable fishery as one that ensures that: a. fish stocks are maintained at healthy levels. b. the ecosystem is fully functional. c. fishing activity does not threaten biological diversity. d. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: d 40. As a marine biologist, you notice that the coral reefs around the Florida Keys are depleting rapidly. Which choice would be MOST effective in protecting the coral reefs? a. marine reserves b. exclusive economic zones c. marine protected areas d. conservation easements e. shelterbelts ANSWER: a 41. The difference between a marine protected area and a marine reserve is: a. marine reserves are found only outside of the exclusive economic zone. b. cultural artifacts are protected only by marine reserves. c. no fishing is allowed in a marine reserve. d. a marine protected area maintains a higher level of ecosystem biodiversity.

ANSWER: c 42. Explain the difference between a marine protected area and a marine reserve.

ANSWER: A marine protected area is a discrete region of the ocean that is legally protected from various forms of human exploitation. Many MPAs protect only certain elements within the area (certain species of fish; a discrete portion of the habitat, such as a spawning ground; or a cultural artifact, like a sunken ship). A marine reserve is a restricted area where all fishing is prohibited and no human disturbance is allowed.

43. Many countries have exclusive economic zones (EEZs). How are these EEZs supposed to protect fish populations, and what are the problems with EEZs? ANSWER: Countries have enacted EEZs as a method to protect dwindling fish populations. EEZs extend 200 nautical miles from the coastline of a given nation, and within that zone the nation has exclusive rights over marine resources. The problem is that some fish populations are migratory and will pass through several EEZs, where their numbers can be overharvested and poorly managed.

44. What is aquaculture? a. fishing without the use of trawl nets and thus without bycatch b. the marine resources, including fish, that are found within 200 nautical miles of the coastline of any given nation, where that nation has exclusive rights c. finding a use for nontarget species that become trapped in fishing nets and are usually discarded Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 d. farming fish by rearing fish in tanks, ponds, or ocean net pens e. a fishery that ensures that fish stocks are maintained at healthy levels, the ecosystem is fully functional, and fishing activity does not threaten biological diversity ANSWER: d 45. The difference(s) between fishing and aquaculture is/are: a. fish populations in aquaculture operations are typically more genetically uniform than wild fish captured by fishing fleets. b. unlike fish harvested from the ocean, aquaculture operations have historically been much smaller, producing just enough fish to feed a family or a small village. c. the size of the catch in fishing is limited by the size of the wild population, whereas in aquaculture, fish production is primarily limited by the size of the area in which organisms can be grown. d. unlike fishing operations, aquaculture produces higher concentrations of waste that can pollute aquatic ecosystems in which they are housed. e. All of these answers are differences between fishing and aquaculture.

ANSWER: e 46. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding aquaculture? a. Aquaculture provides a reliable protein source and thus needed nutrition for a growing human population. b. As aquaculture grows in scale, the reduced pressure on natural fisheries is better for ocean biodiversity as it reduces bycatch. c. The dense concentration of farmed fish makes it easier to prevent disease outbreaks from occurring, and thus food security is always assured. d. Aquaculture is more energy efficient, as it uses less fossil fuel and produces more fish per unit area than open-water fishing operations. e. All of these answers are true statements about aquaculture.

ANSWER: c 47. Which statement about aquaculture is TRUE? a. Despite technological advances, fish farms still lag behind traditional fisheries in production. b. Most fish species are able to reproduce in captivity, which made adoption of these species to aquaculture that much easier. c. Aquaculture was only recently developed and practiced. d. In 2009, aquaculture provided more than half of all seafood consumed worldwide. e. The United States has the highest levels of seafood produced by aquaculture in the world.

ANSWER: d 48. Aquaculture and fisheries both: a. are sources of food and livelihood for people. b. exploit renewable natural resources. c. have significant potential for environmental degradation.

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Module 08.4 d. require significant energy resources. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 49. Which problem is NOT associated with net pen and pond aquaculture? a. use of antibiotics and pesticides b. disruption of human life in coastal communities c. escape of non-native or GMO species d. large amounts of waste released into the environment e. increased rates of disease and parasites relative to wild fish ANSWER: b 50. Aquaculture can deplete lower-trophic-level fish because: a. the fish are not raised in their typical environment. b. the fish are caught and used to feed the farmed fish. c. the pollution from the underwater pens kills the fish. d. harvesting the farmed fish with nets also catches lower-trophic-level fish.

ANSWER: b 51. Compare and contrast fishing and open-water aquaculture. Discuss the benefits and challenges of both approaches in obtaining fish protein for our diets.

ANSWER: Fishing is like hunting, while aquaculture is like farming. Health-conscious eating patterns have made fish more popular than any other source of protein, but fish are more than a source of food, as several million people around the world earn their living in the fishing and aquaculture industries.

Today, aquaculture and fishing each provide about half of our seafood, but while the former is more typical for developing countries, the latter is more commonly the way people in the developed world obtain fish protein. However, these health and economic benefits come with an environmental cost.

Fish and other seafood can be captured in shallow coastal waters, as well as the open ocean, with harvest limits determined by the size of the natural population. However, currently about 31% of the world's fish stocks have catch rates that exceed the replacement rate because of growing human demand for fish protein and technological advances in fishing equipment. Fishers tend to concentrate on a few fish species of commercial value, such as salmon and tuna, while other species, collectively called bycatch, are unintentionally caught and then discarded. Most of these unwanted animals die because they are crushed by the fishing gear or are out of the water too long. The increased traffic of fishing fleets also pollutes the water, and bottom trawler ships irreparably damage the seabed.

Fish, shellfish, and seaweed can be grown for human consumption in a variety of enclosures either placed in coastal waters or in indoor tanks. In aquaculture production, the size of the harvest is largely dependent on the size of the enclosure. To further optimize the quality and productivity, aquaculture farmers control the diet, breeding cycle, and environmental conditions of the ponds or enclosures. However, open water coastal aquaculture damages or destroys coastal ecosystems, especially mangrove swamps. Aquaculture also produces wastes that can pollute water and harm other organisms. Aquaculture farms must also be monitored for disease and overbreeding, both of Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 which can cause a net loss of wild fish because of the potential spread of diseases. Farmed fish tend to be genetically more homogenous than wild ones; if the two groups interbreed, genetic diversity of wild populations could be diminished. The introduced organisms may also outcompete wild species, if the farmed fish are non-native species.

52. Refer to Infographic 6. Even though aquaculture may help balance fishery collapse, there are several problems associated with net pen and pond aquaculture. Select three problems and describe a possible solution for each.

ANSWER: These types of aquaculture cause fish to have more diseases and parasites than wild fish, require the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 use of antibiotics and pesticides, and they release large amounts of waste into the environment.

These issues can be solved by decreasing the density of net pens to minimize impact, which would then decrease the concentration of waste and the need to use antibiotics or pesticides. By moving outdoor fish farms farther from the coast, fish farms could stop displacing mangrove swamps and other coastal wetlands. Farmed fish still exert pressure on wild stocks because they are fed fishmeal made from wild-caught fish. To eliminate this problem, alternative foods that do not rely on wildcaught fish need to be developed. Since most farmed fish are from high trophic levels, they require large amounts of food. However, if fish lower on the food chain were produced by aquaculture, the efficiency of those systems would be higher. Another major problem with aquaculture is that nonnative and GMO species can escape into the wild. This problem can be eliminated if aquaculture systems were to use only native species if farming in natural waters.

53. How is aquaculture similar to a tree plantation?

ANSWER: In aquaculture, organisms are cultivated in water where most variables can be carefully controlled (for example, temperature, salt concentration, pH). This is similar to a tree plantation where only certain tree species are planted in large stands and are harvested in rotation. This monoculture consists of mostly even-aged trees with minimal biodiversity. It is therefore different from a natural forest ecosystem. In aquaculture, the production process is also carefully controlled. This is different from open-water fishing, which is more like hunting for a species within a functional ecosystem or logging a mature forest where loggers seek out certain trees within a natural forest ecosystem. As demand for both fish and wood products increases globally, producers turn to more efficient processes with strong growth potential to meet those demands. However, in fish farms and tree plantations, limited biodiversity increases vulnerability to disease and creates the potential for environmental degradation (for example, erosion from clear-cutting, concentrated waste production for aquaculture). Finally, aquaculture has the potential to alleviate pressures on natural ocean ecosystems, just as tree plantations allow for efficient wood production on less area, thus protecting areas of natural forest from needing to be logged.

54. Net pen and open pond aquaculture are technologically simple and inexpensive to set up and operate.

However, they pose some significant environmental challenges. For three challenges—displacement of native habitat, generation of large volumes of waste, and potential escape of non-native species—explain why they are a problem and how the challenge can be addressed to make net pen and open pond aquaculture systems more sustainable.

ANSWER: Open water aquaculture has significantly destroyed coastal ecosystems, especially mangrove swamps, which have been cleared in many places to make way for the ponds. Mangrove trees are an important keystone species that provides habitat and protection for a wide variety of species, including humans, as they protect the coastline from storm surges during hurricanes. To reduce this displacement of native habitat, and in some instances to restore degraded habitat, outdoor fish farms could be moved farther from the coast. Also, robotic fish cages that can be navigated through the sea with boat-operated remote controls are being developed. Fish in net pens and open ponds also generate a lot of waste, including uneaten food waste that sinks to the bottom of the pond. This waste can pollute adjacent water and harm wild species, especially if it harbors pathogens and parasites. To reduce the impacts of waste, the best approach would be to generate less of it, and this can be accomplished by decreasing the density of net pens. Not only would this decrease waste, it would also decrease the risk of disease. Finally, fish raised in open pond aquaculture operations sometimes are non-native species that can escape into the wild. If that happens, it could reduce the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 genetic diversity of wild populations, as the introduced organisms may predate on, or outcompete, wild species. To reduce effects on wild stock from non-native fish escaping, it would help to use only native species of fish in net pen operations.

55. The ability to spawn, hatch, and raise fish to adulthood in a laboratory setting is known as: a. an ocean-based aquaculture system. b. genetic engineering. c. hormone-free aquaculture. d. aquapod aquaculture. e. a recirculating aquaculture system.

ANSWER: e 56. Which statement is a benefit of recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) in comparison with net or pen aquaculture? a. Food in RAS systems is controlled by natural processes of the fish life cycle. b. Fish require less food per pound. c. Fish convert their food into flesh at a much higher rate. d. All of these answers are correct. e. Fish both require less food per pound and convert their food into flesh at a much higher rate.

ANSWER: e 57. Which statement is TRUE regarding recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS)? a. In blind tests, tasters were easily able to distinguish between wild-caught fish and those grown in the laboratory fish farm. b. The types of microbes used in the RAS to manage liquid and solid waste are not found in oceans. c. Scaled-up RAS operations have already proven to be commercially viable. d. Fish harvested from RAS operations will need to be shipped thousands of miles across the globe, increasing the environmental footprint of fish consumption. e. In RAS, the type of fish grown can be chosen based on economic opportunity rather than location.

ANSWER: e 58. Recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) are BEST suited in: a. urban centers of wealthy countries, as locations close to larger markets could help make RAS operations more likely to be economically viable. b. water-poor regions, as RAS operations have a small water footprint because they use only a limited amount of freshwater. c. tropical regions, as the breeding cycle of fish is best suited to the seasons in these regions. d. poor countries, as the start-up costs for RAS are low and because they create a lot of jobs. e. rural areas with access to a lot of open space, as RAS operations have a large land footprint that is not compatible with built-up urban areas.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 59. The difference between recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) and net pen aquaculture operations is that: a. unlike net pen aquaculture, RAS operations are very limited in the type of fish they can culture, as most fish, especially the commercially profitable species, do not do well in enclosed facilities. b. RAS facilities are more habitat friendly compared with net pen farms, which displace mangrove swamps and other wetland ecosystems in coastal areas. c. in contrast to net pen aquaculture, RAS operations are low tech and easy to set up. d. since RAS operations are very labor intensive, they are better suited than net pen systems for developing countries, where labor is cheap and the market for farm-raised fish is large. e. net pen aquaculture, being biosecure, poses a much lower risk regarding the escape of non-native species than does an RAS operation.

ANSWER: b 60. Which factor is an obstacle that recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) will need to overcome if they are to become more widespread? a. efficiency b. expensive start-up costs c. productivity d. sustainability ANSWER: b 61. If recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) facilities become available on a larger scale, they could potentially lead to: a. restoration of coastal mangrove swamps. b. sustainable, local production of seafood. c. a loss of income for those relying on net pen farms. d. All of these answers are correct. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: d 62. The fish raised in recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) will be: a. harvested and sold to area restaurants. b. released to sea to improve wild stocks. c. kept in an aquarium. d. exported to developing countries for food. e. used to feed larger fish in the ocean to reestablish trophic levels.

ANSWER: a 63. How can recirculating aquaculture systems (RAS) address the environmental challenges posed by net pen and open pond aquaculture? What constrains RAS, given all these advantages?

ANSWER: RAS systems, since they are conducted in biosecure indoor tanks, have some advantages that address the environmental challenges posed by net pen and open pond aquaculture: 1. Net pen operations can release a lot of waste that pollutes the water and potentially transfers Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.4 pathogens and parasites to wild stock. RAS systems do not release pollution, as they employ carefully calibrated microbial communities to manage waste and convert some into fuel-grade methane that can be used to offset some energy costs.

2. Net pen operations displace and destroy coastal habitats, especially mangrove swamps. RAS operations do not displace habitat, and in fact, if such facilities prove commercially viable, coastal aquaculture ponds and net pen farms in developing countries could be scaled back, and the mangrove swamps and coastal ecosystems they displaced could be restored.

3. Farmed fish in net pen operations still exert pressure on wild stocks, as they are generally hightrophic-level fish that require large amounts of food and are fed fishmeal made from wild-caught fish. Fish grown in RAS tanks may also be fed fishmeal from wild stock, but these fish require less food per pound and convert their food into flesh at a much higher ratio than the same fish grown in a net pen. This is because aquaculturists can control food intake much better, and since salinity is always optimal, fish in RAS tanks do not have to invest as much energy in osmoregulation.

4. Sometimes fish from net pen operations can escape into the wild, thereby impacting the genetic diversity of wild populations. This is of particular concern if the farmed fish are non-native. RAS operations can raise marine species to suit market demands, independent of the location of the aquaculture operation and without the risk of affecting wild stock from non-native fish escaping.

Despite these advantages, RAS systems are constrained by cost, as the technology is complex and start-up and operational costs are high, making the adoption of this system unlikely in poorer countries. Nor will large-scale RAS facilities be a viable option in water-starved regions, where several thousand gallons of freshwater can be difficult to come by.

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Module 08.1 1. How many people worldwide are considered undernourished due to poverty, war, and other factors? a. 3.2 billion b. 7 million c. 1 billion d. 2 billion e. 4.5 million ANSWER: c 2. Which scenario would be found in a population that is food secure? a. The only local food source is many miles away. b. Regardless of income, members of the community have access to high-quality food. c. The highest quality and quantity of food is given to those in positions of power. d. The cost of high-quality food is prohibitive to many in the community. e. The lowest grade of meat is sold only in stores in lower-income neighborhoods.

ANSWER: b 3. Many factors can contribute to the inability of a country to be food self-sufficient. Which choice is NOT one of those factors? a. use of high-yield crop varieties b. armed conflict c. degraded land d. natural disasters e. poor food distribution ANSWER: a 4. Having physical, social, and economic access to sufficient safe and nutritious food is called: a. food insecurity. b. nutrition security. c. food security. d. hunger security. e. food justice.

ANSWER: c 5. The United Nations is calling for an increase of _____ times the amount of agricultural productivity of smallholder family farms in developing countries by 2030 to end hunger and achieve food security. a. two b. three c. four d. eight e. ten Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.1 ANSWER: a 6. Slightly less than _____ of the U.S. military budget for a single year would eliminate hunger and extreme poverty. a. 1/4 b. 1/3 c. 1/2 d. 2/3 e. 3/4 ANSWER: c 7. A locale where access to affordable, fresh, and nutritious food is limited or nonexistent is known as: a. food security. b. food sufficiency. c. food regulation. d. a food desert.

ANSWER: d 8. What must we learn to preserve in order to be able to feed the world's population and future generations? a. money b. water c. seeds d. fossil fuels ANSWER: c 9. How might the recent Ebola outbreaks in Africa affect the food security of affected countries?

ANSWER: The recent Ebola outbreaks could affect the region's food security in a number of ways. People may be physically unable to access food due to quarantine or illness. Some may be prevented from traveling to get food due to social stigma about the disease, and in some regions, armed conflict has occurred due to inaccurate social beliefs, which diminish the reliable food supply for the area. As people fell sick, they were unable to do their jobs and, thus, unable to financially provide for themselves or possibly their families. Without their income, their family may not have been able to purchase sufficient quantities of food.

10. Someone who is malnourished may not be getting an adequate amount of _____ in their daily diet. a. fats b. carbohydrates c. vitamins d. proteins e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.1 11. Choose the CORRECT pairing of nutrient deficiency with its resulting disease. a. vitamin B deficiency — anemia b. vitamin A deficiency — kwashiorkor c. iron deficiency — blindness d. protein deficiency — kwashiorkor e. vitamin D deficiency — marasmus ANSWER: d 12. What are obesity and type 2 diabetes typically the result of? a. food insecurity b. kwashiorkor c. vitamin deficiencies d. wasting e. malnutrition ANSWER: e 13. What is a state of poor health that results from inappropriate caloric intake (too many or too few calories) or deficiency in one or more nutrients? a. malnutrition b. overnutrition c. food security d. food insecurity ANSWER: a 14. What form of malnutrition involves a person consuming too many calories or too much of a specific nutrient like fat or sugar? a. overdosing b. overnutrition c. overconsumption d. overpopulated ANSWER: b 15. The UN estimates that the cost of treating malnourishment in children under age 2 is _____ what it would cost to prevent it in the first place. a. triple b. quadruple c. double d. There is no difference in the cost.

ANSWER: c 16. Which statement is TRUE of malnutrition?

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Module 08.1 a. A person who eats 5,000 calories a day can be malnourished. b. Malnutrition begins only after birth. c. Food quality does not matter in nutrition; only food quantity. d. Only the wealthy suffer from overnutrition. e. Undernourishment is greater in developed countries than developing countries.

ANSWER: a 17. Even though it is counterintuitive, how can overnutrition, the consumption of too many calories, be a problem for people of lower economic means?

ANSWER: Unfortunately, foods that are of good quality and high nutritional value are typically higher in price.

Sometimes, this is cost prohibitive for people who are on a very restricted budget. In contrast, many foods that are lower in price are also lower in nutritional value. In many cases, it comes down to a quantity over quality issue. If you need to feed a family of four on a lower income, you are likely to purchase food supplies that will last you through the week, regardless of nutritional value, instead of purchasing foods that are of a high quality and a nutrient level that would last through one meal. The end result is that lower-quality foods with more calories and less nutritional value are eaten instead of foods that supply you with all the essential nutrients you need to remain healthy.

18. The coordinated global effort to eliminate hunger by improving crop performance using modern agricultural technologies in developing countries is called: a. organic farming. b. the Green Revolution. c. eutrophication. d. the Food Act. e. None of these answers fits the description.

ANSWER: b 19. Which example was NOT introduced with the Green Revolution? a. chemical pesticides b. sophisticated irrigation systems c. synthetic nitrogen fertilizer d. high-yield variety crops e. organic farming techniques ANSWER: e 20. What is a pro of high-yield varieties of crops introduced globally during the Green Revolution? a. more grain produced b. less nitrogen required c. less mechanical dependence to harvest crops d. environmentally friendly e. None of these answers is a beneficial attribute of high-yield crops.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.1 21. What is a con of high-yield varieties of crops introduced globally during the Green Revolution? a. faster growth cycle b. produce more grain than traditional varieties c. inability to use seeds for more than one growing season d. more resistant to crop disease ANSWER: c 22. Efforts from the Green Revolution resulted in: a. enough food to feed every human on Earth. b. every human on Earth being fed a life-sustaining diet. c. less food produced than usual. d. the end of food insecurity. e. the end of malnutrition.

ANSWER: a 23. _____ are selectively bred to grow faster, larger, and produce more grain than their natural counterparts. a. High-yield varieties b. Selective breeding c. Crop productivity d. Low-yield varieties ANSWER: a 24. What is the Green Revolution, and was it successful? Discuss pros and cons of this approach on the environment.

ANSWER: The Green Revolution was a plant-breeding program in the mid-1900s that dramatically increased crop yields in the developing world and led the way for mechanized, large-scale agriculture. It was a huge success in terms of providing more food by incorporating high-yield crop varieties and industrialized agriculture, as practiced in developed countries. Environmentally, it succeeded in being more efficient with land already dedicated to agriculture, and lessened the need to alter additional habitats (much of it sensitive) for growing crops. Negative impacts to the environment include the use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides, which pollute the soil, water, and air; increased erosion from mechanized farming equipment, which also requires unsustainable fossil fuels; use of freshwater supplies for irrigation; and minimized food diversity and increased threat of catastrophe due to disease from adopting monoculture agriculture.

25. What is the relationship between the Green Revolution and industrial agriculture? a. The Green Revolution focuses on sustainable, organic farming methods, while industrial agriculture focuses on chemicals and technology. b. The Green Revolution increased food production in less developed nations, while industrial agriculture increased food production in more developed nations. c. The Green Revolution focuses only on naturally available crops, while industrial agriculture focuses on high-yield varieties of crops.

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Module 08.1 d. The Green Revolution took practices from industrial agriculture—like pesticide use, irrigation technologies, and high-yield crops—and brought them to developing nations like China and India. e. The Green Revolution focuses on small-scale, family-owned farms while industrial agriculture focuses on multifarm corporate companies.

ANSWER: d 26. What is a known problem associated with industrial agriculture? a. greenhouse gas emission b. water pollution c. pesticide-resistant pests d. the disappearance of local, small, family-owned farms e. All of these answers are known problems.

ANSWER: e 27. Industrial agriculture is dependent on: a. organic pest control for crops. b. hand-planted and -managed crops. c. all-natural fertilizers. d. machinery. e. Industrial agriculture depends on all of these.

ANSWER: d 28. Monocultures can result in: a. reduction in agricultural biodiversity. b. a resistance to pests. c. a boost for old varieties of seeds. d. an increase in valuable genetic traits. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: a 29. Coffee productivity is declining by _____% in some areas due to _____. a. 25; climate change b. 50; overharvesting c. 50; climate change d. 25; overharvesting e. 50; monocultures ANSWER: c 30. An advantage of industrial agriculture is: a. mechanization, to reduce pressure on the number of family farms. b. monoculture used to improve yields and harvests.

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Module 08.1 c. use of fossil fuels for machines instead of manual labor. d. fewer people working the fields. e. All of these answers are advantages.

ANSWER: b 31. Rearing meat or dairy animals in confined spaces, maximizing the number of animals that can be raised in a small area, is referred to as a: a. sustainable agriculture system (AS. b. concentrated animal feeding operation (CAF. c. monoculture. d. traditional agriculture system (TA. e. transgenic operation.

ANSWER: b 32. The farming technique that is seen in most industrial farms is called _____ agriculture. a. organic b. integrated c. monoculture d. polyculture e. None of these answers fits the description.

ANSWER: c 33. Why is the decreased biodiversity of high-yield varieties of crops a concern?

ANSWER: As we have seen in previous modules, and will see again in future modules, decreased biodiversity in an ecosystem makes that ecosystem more vulnerable to disruptions. There is not enough diversity in the ecosystem populations to withstand a change. For example, the Irish potato famine was partially due to the decimation of Ireland's potato crops by a single pathogen. The reason that this pathogen was able to infect and kill the plants so readily was that the plants were all genetically identical and thus equally susceptible to the pathogen-caused disease. The resulting famine affected millions of people, and many lost their lives due to starvation.

34. What are some potential drawbacks of using pest-resistant crops? a. water pollution b. the creation of pest-resistant weeds c. the creation of pesticide-resistant pests d. the repelling of beneficial insects e. All of these answers are potential drawbacks of using pest-resistant crops.

ANSWER: e 35. How could planting Bt corn lead to even more pesticide use? a. Bt-resistant pests thrive when Bt-susceptible pests are no longer competition, so it takes more pesticide to get rid of them.

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Module 08.1 b. Bt corn doesn't actually produce Bt—it just means that the plants are Bt resistant—so farmers still have to use the pesticide to rid the corn of pests. c. Bt corn repels beneficial insects, which usually kill all of the pests, so now farmers must use pesticide. d. Bt corn actually depends on pesticide use to grow and survive. e. Bt corn does not lead to more pesticide use, as the Bt toxin produced by the plant is sufficient to kill all natural pests.

ANSWER: a 36. Which factor(s) contribute(s) to the emergence of pesticide-resistant crop pest populations? a. lack of genetic diversity in the pest population b. the ability of individual pests to survive exposure to the pesticide and reproduce c. organic farming techniques including limiting the use of pesticides d. the ability of pesticide reapplication to kill all pests in a population e. All of these answers are factors that contribute to the emergence.

ANSWER: b 37. A natural or synthetic mixture of nutrients that is added to soil to boost plant growth is called: a. pesticide b. fertilizer c. monoculture d. genetic diversity ANSWER: b 38. A _____ is a natural or synthetic chemical that kills or repels plant or animal pests. a. fertilizer b. high-yield variety c. pesticide d. monoculture ANSWER: c 39. The ability of a pest to withstand exposure to a given pesticide as the result of natural selection favoring the survivors of an original population that were originally exposed to the pesticide is known as: a. synthetic fertilizer. b. concentrated animal feeding operation. c. industrial agriculture. d. pesticide resistance.

ANSWER: d 40. One study estimated that fertilizers account for _____ of the energy that goes into growing a corn crop. a. 45% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.1 b. 30% c. 18% d. 70% ANSWER: b 41. Explain how the application of fertilizer can create a dependence on future fertilizer use.

ANSWER: Many industrial farmers only view the soil as a place for plant growth, a structure to support roots, and a space for nutrients and water to collect for their crops. However, soil contains a complex biological community of soil organisms that cooperate with each other and the plants growing in the soil to enhance soil fertility. This relationship helps make nutrients available to the plants and improves the soil's ability to trap water. Excessive fertilizer use disrupts these mutualistic relationships. The end result is a soil that is less fertile and in need of even more fertilizers, which only exacerbates the problem and reduces the fertility-enhancing processes even further.

42. _____ is the driving force behind the Green Revolution 2.0, or gene revolution. a. Cross-pollination b. Cross-breeding c. Genetic engineering d. Organic farming e. Sustainable farming ANSWER: c 43. The Green Revolution 2.0 is: a. a movement that focuses on the production of genetically modified organisms to increase crop productivity. b. associated with feed conversion rates. c. a movement focused on recycling. d. a plant-breeding program that dramatically increased crop yields and led the way for mechanized, large-scale agriculture. e. a program used by modern farmers to spread the use of organic agriculture.

ANSWER: a 44. A(n) _____ organism is one that contains genes from another species. a. hybrid b. transgenic c. diploid d. asexual e. native ANSWER: b 45. _____ are organisms that have had their genetic information modified in a way that does not occur naturally. a. HMOs Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.1 b. PMOs c. GMOs d. AMOs e. Hybrids ANSWER: c 46. Genetic engineering involves the transfer of genes for desirable characteristics, including: a. drought resistance. b. pest resistance. c. increased nutrient production. d. herbicide tolerance. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 47. Which example contains genes from another species? a. transgenic organisms b. Bt corn plants c. Roundup-tolerant cotton plants d. golden rice e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 48. In making a transgenic organism, what is typically the role of the bacterium? a. to donate the desired gene b. to mutate and create the desired gene c. to transport the desired gene d. to express the desired gene e. Bacteria are not involved in the creation of transgenic organisms.

ANSWER: c 49. When making a transgenic organism, where do the desired genes come from? a. insects b. bacteria c. fish d. corn e. All of these answers are possible donors.

ANSWER: e 50. Giant ragweed and pigweed are examples of superweeds. These weeds have acquired the gene for _____, which makes them tolerant to all herbicides.

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Module 08.1 a. Wt b. Bt c. Ct d. HT e. Pt ANSWER: d 51. Which statement is INCORRECT regarding GMOs? a. GMOs are patented by a few corporations and are generally expensive. b. Certain countries have banned GMOs. c. Some people are concerned about health impacts and environmental consequences that could be associated with GMOs. d. GMOs have been exhaustively shown to not pose a threat to living organisms, including humans. e. All of these answers are true statements about GMOs. ANSWER: d 52. It is estimated that by 2050, the human population will reach 10 billion. While the ability to produce food has risen with population growth so far, increasing production for another 3 billion humans poses a tremendous challenge. Discuss how the gene revolution will likely be part of the solution to meeting future food demands.

ANSWER: The gene revolution focuses on the production of genetically modified organisms (GMOs) to increase crop productivity or create new varieties of crops. By creating strains of crops resistant to drought, flooding, saline or low-nutrient soils, and pests, yields will increase, producing more available food per area of given land. This may become even more important as the climate changes, increasing the severity of droughts and flooding in certain regions. Also, novel strains can be created to produce nutritionally enhanced food. In addition, food products created to have longer shelf lives will better tolerate distribution to areas where human food demand is greatest. Although not a panacea, it seems likely that GMOs will play a part in meeting future food demands.

53. Describe how traditional selective breeding, where farmers attempt to produce offspring with valuable traits by breeding parents with those traits, is different from creating organisms with valuable traits using genetic engineering.

ANSWER: Traditional selective breeding has been used for thousands of years and has produced high-yielding varieties of many crops. In this approach, the farmer is limited by the genes available in the population of that species. Genetic engineering takes advantage of genes from multiple sources, including across different species, by manipulating genes in a laboratory and then incorporating those genes to create organisms with the desired trait.

54. What are some of the major concerns associated with genetically modified organisms (GMOs)?

ANSWER: One of the major concerns with GMOs is that the inserted gene could be transferred to a nontarget species, making the nontargeted species grow more aggressively and outcompete other plants.

Another problem is that GMOs are patented and are more expensive than traditional seeds, making them a poor option for developing countries. People are also concerned about potential health issues resulting from consumption of GMOs or eating animals that have been fed GMOs. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.1 55. Why are many European countries opposed to the use of GMOs? ANSWER: It has been shown in the United States that genes introduced into domestic crops can escape into nontarget species. Sixteen weed species have acquired the HT gene, making them resistant to herbicides. They take over entire fields, stop combines, and are tough to clear by hand. In addition to the environmental impacts, consumers also worry about potential long-term health impacts of consuming GMO products. The banning of GMOs by other countries provides protection to their local farmers and protects the local agricultural economy from outside competition.

56. Consider the advantages and disadvantages of using GMO crops as food sources. Do you think the pros outweigh the cons? Now imagine if you were a member of a community in West Africa. Would your opinion about the value of GMO crops change?

ANSWER: This is a personal opinion question, but the take-home point here is that in developed nations, the majority of the population is not undernourished (although there are still percentages of the population that are, even in developed nations like the United States), so the cons of using GMOs in agriculture may outweigh the pros. However, if you now picture yourself as a member of a community in which the vast majority of people are undernourished and starving, you may see the pros of GMO crops as outweighing the cons.

57. How could governments support efforts to increase a community's food security? a. repair roads leading to markets b. support women farmers c. subsidize crops for local food supplies d. create a local seed bank e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 58. How did subsidies for American farmers contribute to the level of food security in some African countries? a. American farmers were able to produce vast quantities of food and sell it cheaply. This outcompeted local African farms selling the same products. To compensate, the African farms switched to cash crops and ultimately made their country dependent on foreign food supplies, decreasing their food security. b. Since American farmers were able to produce vast quantities of food and sell it cheaply, this allowed African farmers to grow cash crops and thus bring more economic stability to the community as a whole, increasing their food security. c. American farmers were able to take advantage of the subsidies and produce more food, which made America less dependent on food supplies imported from African farmers. Since the African farmers were unable to sell their crops, the farms failed and decreased their community's level of food security. d. Subsidies on American farms decreased the amount of crops that could economically be harvested.

This decreased the overall world supply of food and resulted in African countries being unable to import enough food to feed their communities, thus decreasing their food security. e. American farm subsidies did not have any effect, positive or negative, on food security in African countries.

ANSWER: a Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 08.1 59. What are cash crops? a. only illegal crops like coca for cocaine b. crops like high-quality cotton sold for higher profits than normal c. only food crops like coffee d. crops only grown for local consumption e. any food and fiber crops grown for profit ANSWER: b 60. Food self-sufficiency refers to the ability of an individual nation to: a. grow enough food to feed the majority of people in the world. b. export food crops for a profit. c. grow enough food to feed its people. d. control its own food system. e. import enough food to feed its people.

ANSWER: c 61. Global population is expected to reach _____ billion by 2050, and we will need to produce more food than we are now. a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 10 e. 14 ANSWER: d 62. What caused the lack of food and resulting riots in 2008 in Burkina Faso? a. extreme weather events b. rising cost of food c. growing demand for meat d. increased production of biofuels ANSWER: b 63. The ability of an individual nation to control its own food system is called: a. food security. b. food insecurity. c. food sovereignty. d. food sufficiency.

ANSWER: c 64. Why is there no clear answer to the problem of malnutrition in Africa?

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Module 08.1 ANSWER: Much like the wicked problem of global hunger, the lack of food security in Africa also has many factors influencing potential solutions, and no option would come without a cost. Such factors are economy (can they afford the GM seeds?), social structure (are women encouraged to try new farming techniques?), political state (is the country in the middle of armed conflict?), financial support (would this support come with a cost?), and damage to ecosystems (are they willing to risk polluting the only potable water source with fertilizer or chemicals?). To make the issue even more complex, it is very likely that a solution that works for one community will fail in the next. Different communities have different factors affecting their food security.

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Module 09.2 1. A nonrenewable natural resource formed millions of years ago from plant or animal remains that is used as an energy source is called a(n): a. hydrocarbon. b. peat. c. unconventional source. d. fossil fuel.

ANSWER: d 2. Which resource is NOT a fossil fuel? a. oil b. peat c. natural gas d. coal ANSWER: b 3. Which resource is considered nonrenewable as an energy source? a. natural gas b. wood c. peat d. plant oil e. dung ANSWER: a 4. The three principal fossil fuels are: a. coal, oil, and natural gas. b. oil, natural gas, and tar sands. c. oil, natural gas, and oil shale. d. coal, peat, and lignite.

ANSWER: a 5. Unlike coal, the starting material for oil and natural gas was: a. mossy plant material. b. petrified wood. c. marine organisms. d. fossilized birds. e. dinosaur bones.

ANSWER: c 6. Since 2014 the Bakken Formation has produced around 1 million barrels of crude oil each day. Why didn't the U.S. tap into the Bakken formation before the 2000s? a. The state of North Dakota resisted.

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Module 09.2 b. Natural gas made the extraction dangerous. c. The cap rock was too thick. d. It was not economically feasible. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: d 7. Why are fossil fuels considered nonrenewable, given they are produced by natural processes?

ANSWER: The process of fossil fuel formation takes millions of years, as the buried marine organisms or plant life need to be subjected to intense heat and pressures over millennia to become oil or coal and other fossil fuels. We utilize the fuels at a rate that simply cannot be matched by the formation process; therefore, they are considered nonrenewable.

8. Explain why the Bakken extraction process is important to the oil industry.

ANSWER: In the beginning of the 21st century, extraction of Bakken-type shale deposits was not an economically feasible option. New technology, however, has put those oil deposits within reach.

Many shale formations similar to Bakken occur both across the U.S. and across the world. The newly developed extraction technology being refined in Bakken extraction may act as a blueprint for extracting other fossil fuel deposits.

9. Which type of fuel is composed of hydrocarbons? a. oil b. coal c. natural gas d. wood e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 10. When talking about the formation of fossil fuels, cap rock is a: a. reservoir layer holding water. b. reservoir layer holding petroleum. c. reservoir layer holding natural gas. d. dense layer holding in natural gas and petroleum.

ANSWER: d 11. Refer to Infographic 2. Which area has the MOST natural gas and the most oil reserves?

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Module 09.2

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Module 09.2 12. What is a proven reserve? a. the moment in time when oil will reach its highest production levels and then steadily and terminally decline b. a measure of the amount of fuel that is economically feasible to extract from a deposit, using current technology c. a liquid deposit that contains free-flowing oil or oil that can be pumped out d. the value of a barrel of oil at any given time ANSWER: b 13. What is TRUE of oil and natural gas? a. They are often found together in formation. b. They are usually found in different formations. c. Oil is found on top of natural gas reserves. d. Natural gas is not found in shale deposits. e. Tight oil and shale gas are easier to access than conventional deposits.

ANSWER: a 14. If current rates of use and extraction do not change, known natural gas reserves are expected to last _____ years. a. 10 to 20 b. 60 to 100 c. 100 to 200 d. 500 to 1,000 e. 1,500 to 2,500 ANSWER: b 15. At the current rate of usage, which energy source is expected to run out first? a. wood b. crude oil c. coal d. natural gas e. wind ANSWER: d 16. Unconventional reserves of oil or natural gas: a. can usually be recovered with traditional methods. b. may be recoverable with alternative techniques. c. will not be recoverable at all. d. cannot be used if they are recovered. e. are too expensive to recover.

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Module 09.2 ANSWER: b 17. What is tight oil? a. low-density oil in shale rock deposits b. low-density oil in lime deposits c. high-density oil in shale rock deposits d. high-density oil in lime deposits ANSWER: a 18. What is a conventional oil reserve? How does the distribution of conventional oil reserves impact relationships between countries?

ANSWER: Conventional petroleum reserves are liquid deposits that contain freely flowing oil or oil that can be pumped out. Conventional petroleum reserves are not evenly distributed across Earth. Therefore, political problems arise between countries that have the oil reserves and those that do not, yet have high rates of oil consumption.

19. Explain why it is difficult to determine how long oil reserves will last.

ANSWER: Such estimates rely on known reserves and both current use and rates of extraction. Many factors could change these numbers, including changes in the economy, the discovery of new reserves, increased prices, and advances in alternative fuel options.

20. Why might it be difficult to accurately predict the point at which we reach peak oil?

ANSWER: Peak oil is the moment in time when oil reaches its highest production levels and then steadily continues to decline. For various reasons, we have had several declines in the past, such as in the 1980s, 2002, and 2006, but then we increased production. It is not known whether we'll find new oil reserves or what the economy will do to the supply and demand for oil. For example, a large economic recovery with higher demand for consumer goods and gasoline could push oil production higher. For these reasons, it is difficult to predict peak oil levels or timing.

21. What would be the consequence of using up all available oil for gasoline and transport uses?

ANSWER: Modern society depends on petrochemicals, such as gasoline, in a variety of segments of the economy. They are used to create plastics, synthetic fibers, and soaps and supplies for the healthcare industry, ranging from medicines to the bags that store blood for transfusions. Currently, there are few substitutes for petrochemicals in these uses.

22. What process allows for primary production of oil from a well? a. significant pressure on the oil from millions of tons of rocks pressing down and Earth's heat b. drilling of injection wells c. water pumping through injection wells into the ground d. injection of carbon dioxide or steam into the reservoir e. use of hydraulic technologies in the well ANSWER: a 23. Secondary production of oil consists of: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.2 a. pumping steam into the well to force the oil out. b. drilling a vertical well into Earth. c. using natural pressure to allow the oil to move upward. d. pumping water into the well to force the oil out. e. drilling a horizontal well into the rock layers.

ANSWER: d 24. Which statement is TRUE of conventional natural gas deposits? a. They can be found in deposits that contain no oil. b. The extraction of natural gas is much more complex than extracting oil. c. Secondary and tertiary methods will not work for any natural gas wells. d. Natural gas will not flow out of the wells freely and must be pumped out. e. Natural gas deposits are found under oil deposits.

ANSWER: a 25. When an oil well is first drilled, what is the primary recovery method? a. natural pressure b. pumpjack c. water injection d. steam injection e. CO2 injection ANSWER: a 26. How much additional oil can be recovered during secondary production? a. 20% to 40% b. 15% to 25% c. 55% to 75% d. 75% to 90% e. 85% to 100% ANSWER: a 27. Which production phase injects steam, natural gas, or CO2 into the well to extract more oil? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. pumpjack e. fracking ANSWER: c 28. Natural gas is similar to oil in that it: Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.2 a. has a similar extraction method. b. contains impurities before it is refined. c. has a similar processing method. d. is found deep under the ground. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 29. The EROEI must be _____ for any fuel to be worth harvesting. a. positive b. negative c. positive or negative, it does not matter d. fluctuating e. EROEI is not associated with profitability.

ANSWER: a 30. What is the sequence used for extracting oil from petroleum reservoirs?

ANSWER: First, the reservoir is drilled into and the built-up pressure allows the flow of oil to move to the surface. Once the pressure lets up, pumpjacks are used to recover the oil under lower pressure by mechanically increasing the pressure. Finally, water or steam injection can be used to recover the last recoverable oil from the reservoir.

31. What are the stages in the production of oil after a new well is drilled?

ANSWER: The intense pressure on the oil reservoir from overlying rock allows for primary production, during which the oil flows freely to the surface under natural pressure. This can account for the first 5% to 15% of the oil produced. As the pressure gradually declines, the secondary production phase begins.

During this phase, water is pumped into the oil reservoir to artificially increase the pressure on the oil, allowing for more to flow to the surface. This can account for 20% to 40% of the total oil produced. Finally, to recover the remaining oil, tertiary production methods are used that include injecting steam or CO2 into the reservoir. This can recover up to 60% of the remaining oil, though these methods are expensive.

32. How does the preliminary search for oil reserves cause environmental degradation? a. Drilling to try to find oil may release oil from reserves that then affects ecosystems. b. Searching for oil can often cause spills that negatively affect ecosystems. c. When searching for oil, companies often have to clear-cut areas of forest. d. Seismic waves sent into the ground by companies searching for reserves can disorient marine and other wildlife.

ANSWER: d 33. Drilling could detrimentally affect which species in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge? a. Arctic fox b. polar bears Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.2 c. caribou d. migratory birds e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 34. Petrochemicals create the raw materials used to produce: a. pesticides. b. plastics. c. soaps. d. computers. e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 35. Which statement is NOT true of the Deepwater Horizon oil spill? a. The oil spill threatened the lives of many Gulf species. b. The oil spill cost millions of dollars in lost fishing revenue. c. The oil spill released close to 5 million barrels of oil into the Gulf. d. The oil spill threatened the livelihoods of communities living along the Gulf of Mexico. e. The oil spill was easily and quickly cleaned up.

ANSWER: e 36. Which environmental cost is directly related to oil mining? a. oil pollution b. habitat loss c. destruction due to explosions d. global warming e. All of these answers are costs of mining oil.

ANSWER: e 37. What is a hazard of burning fossil fuels? a. the release of a variety of air pollutants b. emission of a major anthropogenic contributor to climate change c. higher rates of cancer and heart disease in workers in the petroleum industry d. dangers related to shipping and other transport e. These are all hazards to burning fossil fuels.

ANSWER: e 38. What health conditions do oil workers experience at much higher rates compared to the general public? a. cancer b. bone disease Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.2 c. heart disease d. cancer and heart disease e. bone disease and heart disease ANSWER: d 39. Natural gas is predominantly which greenhouse gas? a. carbon dioxide b. water vapor c. ozone d. methane e. nitrous oxide ANSWER: d 40. Why is flaring off of natural gas preferable to its release into the atmosphere? a. Since it is actually methane, natural gas is a potent greenhouse gas. b. It can spontaneously combust. c. It doesn't cost as much. d. There is less loss of harvestable gas. e. Flaring off rids the gas of its impurities.

ANSWER: a 41. Natural gas is seen as a bridge fuel to transition from oil to more sustainable options, since it: a. has more impurities than oil. b. is less efficient to burn. c. has a lower carbon footprint. d. releases more CO2 than coal. e. releases more toxic pollutants.

ANSWER: c 42. Why are environmentalists opposed to drilling for oil in the Arctic National Wildlife Refuge?

ANSWER: There are several reasons that environmentalists might be opposed to mining in this area: Drilling and harvesting the fuel reserves are disruptive to local ecosystems on many levels (for example, habitat fragmentation and destruction; pollution in water, soil, and air; actual threats to species in the event that anything were to go wrong); the processing of the crude oil uses valuable water resources for the area and has by-products that pollute the environment; and then there is the shipping and other transport of the products, which could include a pipeline that will disrupt ecosystems in a multitude of ways, including releasing pollutants and greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.

43. What do you think would be the most effective measure humans could take to reduce the amount of environmental damage from oil and natural gas mining?

ANSWER: While there are many things that humans could do to reduce environmental damage from fuel harvesting, perhaps the most effective measure would be to use less of it. If people as a whole Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.2 reduced their energy consumption from nonrenewable resources, there would be less demand for the products of mining said resources, and corporations might shift to meet the needs of the market.

Perhaps one day, with enough technological advances, energy generated from underwater turbines will heat our homes and power our lights. But for this technology to develop at a rapid pace, the demand from the paying public will have to increase.

44. What is the definition of "unconventional oil reserves"? a. unrecoverable oil that is found in rock, sand, or clay, whose extraction is cheap and environmentally sound b. recoverable oil that is found in rock, sand, or clay, whose extraction is cheap and environmentally sound c. recoverable oil that is found in rock, sand, or clay, whose extraction is expensive and environmentally costly d. unrecoverable oil that is found in rock below natural gas deposits e. unrecoverable oil that is found deep below the ocean floor ANSWER: c 45. Fracking is a method to extract _____ from deep unconventional reserves. a. coal b. oil c. natural gas d. oil shale e. both oil and natural gas ANSWER: e 46. Refer to Infographic 5. What is the CORRECT order of the steps involved in fracking?

I. Gas escapes through fractures and is collected.

II. Holes are blasted into rock, using explosive charges.

III. A well is drilled down into rock and then extended horizontally.

IV. A slurry of sand, water, and chemicals is pumped into fractures in the rock.

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Module 09.2

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Module 09.2 47. How is fracking different from conventional oil wells? a. It uses a quaternary production method. b. It causes no environmental damage. c. It uses fractures in the rock to release oil or natural gas. d. It uses strip mining. e. No chemicals are used in fracking.

ANSWER: c 48. Which area leads the world in fracking recovery of oil and natural gas? a. the United States b. Canada c. the Middle East d. South America e. Europe ANSWER: a 49. What is a disadvantage of mining for tar sands oil? a. cannot be transported in pipelines b. causes extreme habitat destruction c. low carbon footprint d. cheaper than conventional sources e. low energy input ANSWER: b 50. How is oil extracted from Canadian tar sands? a. fracking b. conventional oil wells c. subsurface mining d. strip mining e. mountaintop removal ANSWER: d 51. The LARGEST concentrations of tar sands are found in: a. Canada. b. Russia. c. Saudi Arabia. d. the United States. e. Venezuela.

ANSWER: e Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.2 52. Which statement about tar sands is NOT true? a. They trap heavy, black oil called bitumen. b. Tar sands mining is more efficient than harvesting conventional sources of oil. c. Tar sands can be mined and processed to produce a substitute for petroleum. d. Venezuela has the largest tar sands deposits in the world.

ANSWER: b 53. Which reason is probably the MOST compelling one for using unconventional sources of oil and natural gas in the United States? a. There are a lot of them in North America. b. They are easier to extract than conventional sources. c. They are cleaner to burn than conventional sources. d. Their extraction process is more environmentally friendly than conventional extraction. e. They have a higher EROEI than conventional sources.

ANSWER: a 54. Which of these statements about fracking is TRUE? a. The Middle East leads the world in fracking for both oil and natural gas. b. The U.S. leads the world in fracking for both oil and natural gas. c. In the U.S., natural gas from fracking reduced use of coal to generate electricity. d. The Middle East and the U.S. lead the world in fracking for both oil and natural gas. e. The U.S. leads the world in fracking for both oil and natural gas, and natural gas from fracking reduced U.S. use of coal to generate electricity.

ANSWER: e 55. Explain how oil is extracted from Canadian tar sands.

ANSWER: The boreal forest above the tar sands deposit is removed, then the soil is dug out of the ground. The soil has to be washed with water to separate the oil from the soil. Additional processing has to be done, then the oil, or bitumen, can be shipped. If the deposit is deep, steam is injected into the deposit to melt the bitumen and force it to the surface, which requires a lot of energy.

56. What is the by-product of "coking," and what are the risks associated with this by-product?

ANSWER: A hazardous by-product of the "coking" process is petcoke. This by-product is stored outside in large piles. Dust from these piles can blow to nearby areas and is particularly dangerous if the refinery is near communities. Residents can be exposed to this dust, which, although similar to coal dust, is potentially more dangerous because of its fine particles. These finer particles increase risk from petcoke dust as they can more easily penetrate the lungs than coal dust.

57. What is an unintended result of the Bakken boom? a. decrease in air pollution b. increased the crime rate c. road destruction Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.2 d. increased water pollution e. All of the answers are unintended results.

ANSWER: d 58. What chemical contaminant has been found in local water supplies near fracking sites? a. oxygen b. methane c. carbon dioxide d. lead e. oil ANSWER: b 59. Which method of fracking wastewater disposal has a negative impact on the environment? a. storage in open pits b. injection into deep wells c. use as a roadway desalter d. All of these answers have negative impacts on the environment.

ANSWER: d 60. Which natural occurrence has been linked with fracking sites in the United States? a. monsoons b. tornados c. forest fires d. earthquakes e. hurricanes ANSWER: d 61. Between 2007 and 2016, roughly how many fracking-related wastewater spills were reported in North Dakota alone? a. 3,500 b. 2,200 c. 4,000 d. 5,000 ANSWER: c 62. What are the key environmental problems associated with the fracking methods for natural gas recovery?

ANSWER: During the process of fracking, fluids containing a mixture of toxic chemicals are injected into the well to pump the gas out. Anywhere from 30% to 70% of these fluids surface with the natural gas, and in the process they have the potential to contaminate air, soil, surface waters, and groundwater.

The methane from the natural gas deposit may also contaminate local groundwater.

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Module 09.2 63. What effect will intensive extraction of oil sands and tar sands have on the surrounding area?

ANSWER: Concentrations of toxic substances are higher in waters downstream from extraction operations.

Also, the oil companies must store huge quantities of acidic and toxic wastewater from the extraction process. These are huge pools of water that could leach and contaminate groundwater, nearby surface waters, or wildlife.

64. Which is NOT a reason why our energy supplies may become unreliable or unaffordable? a. dwindling supplies b. competition from other countries c. dependence on energy exports d. increasing demand e. a cartel or monopoly that increases prices ANSWER: c 65. What does it mean if a country is "energy independent"? a. A country can pay to have all of its energy imported from other countries without having to borrow money. b. A country uses a hybrid plan of energy production and energy imports to provide a stable supply of electricity for its citizens. c. A country has access to enough reliable and affordable energy resources to meet its needs. d. A country can meet all of its energy needs without importing any fuel.

ANSWER: d 66. The United States has 700 billion barrels of tight oil in the Bakken, so why do people predict that we have only a 2-year supply of oil? a. Oil demand is decreasing. b. The oil in the Bakken is unusable. c. Only a small fraction of the oil is recoverable. d. We export the majority of the oil. e. The type of oil in the Bakken can be used only for tar and roofing.

ANSWER: c 67. How can a society increase its energy security? a. develop alternative energy sources b. increase energy efficiency c. exploit local energy sources d. reduce overall energy imports e. All of these answer choices are correct.

ANSWER: e 68. What is energy security, and why is it an important issue for many countries?

ANSWER: A country's economy and lifestyle are dependent on reliable access to affordable energy. Dwindling Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.2 supplies, increasing demand, dependence on energy imports, competition with other countries, and oil monopolies are causing an increase in global oil prices and a decrease in energy security.

69. Explain why oil consumption in the United States is on the decline, but oil consumption is on the rise globally.

ANSWER: Changing demographics and improved oil efficiency in the United States have resulted in declining consumption rates since 2005. However, in countries like China and India, oil consumption is rapidly increasing as incomes, standards of living, and the demand for automobiles rise.

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Module 09.1 1. Energy is defined as the: a. capacity to do work. b. ability to generate heat. c. capacity to generate electricity. d. power available in fossil fuels. e. source of electricity.

ANSWER: a 2. What is a way electricity can be produced? a. burning coal b. harnessing nuclear energy c. using the energy of moving water d. capturing solar energy e. These are all ways electricity can be produced.

ANSWER: e 3. Mobile energy sources primarily come from: a. solar energy. b. geothermal energy. c. wind. d. coal. e. oil.

ANSWER: e 4. Fossil fuels still account for _____% of U.S. energy production. a. 40 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70 e. 80 ANSWER: e 5. Discuss why and how the line between stationary and mobile fuel sources is beginning to blur.

ANSWER: In modern society the line between stationary and mobile fuel sources is beginning to blur as electric vehicles, powered by rechargeable lithium-ion batteries, are considered the wave of the future of light transportation. These batteries depend on stationary fuel sources to charge while the batteries themselves might be considered a mobile fuel source. This interconnection creates the blurred line between fuel sources. Because all fuels have advantages and disadvantages, it is vital that we make informed decisions about how much and what type of energy sources power our daily lives.

6. Which statement is NOT a problem associated with mountaintop removal mining? a. This type of surface mining causes permanent, irreversible changes to the landscape.

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Module 09.1 b. Runoff from the mined area can deliver sulfur and other toxic compounds to streams downstream. c. The reduction in forested areas can lead to increased frequency and severity of flooding. d. While having environmental impacts, it leads to greater employment for residents.

ANSWER: d 7. In the U.S., coal burning produces less electricity than: a. nuclear. b. renewables. c. hydroelectric. d. renewable and hydroelectric combined. e. natural gas.

ANSWER: e 8. The key to generating electricity from coal is the generation of: a. heat. b. smoke. c. sulfur. d. cold water.

ANSWER: a 9. In 2015, burning coal generated approximately _____% of electricity worldwide. a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60 e. 70 ANSWER: b 10. Which choice is NOT typical for converting coal to electricity? a. creating steam b. burning the coal c. converting the coal to a liquid form d. spinning a turbine ANSWER: c 11. Which choice has the HIGHEST energy return on energy investment ratio? a. coal b. wind c. nuclear energy d. natural gas e. hydroelectric Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.1 ANSWER: e 12. Which resource is used the LEAST in the United States for generating electricity? a. coal b. renewables c. nuclear energy d. natural gas e. oil ANSWER: e 13. Burning coal to generate electricity does NOT create: a. water pollution. b. particulates. c. thermal pollution. d. mercury. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: e 14. The use of coal does NOT create: a. reduced water temperatures in water bodies. b. emissions of mercury. c. emissions of sulfur. d. respiratory disease.

ANSWER: a 15. What is the purpose of the transformer in the electrical grid? a. to cool the water used in steam production b. to reduce the voltage of the generated electricity c. to increase the voltage of the generated electricity d. to transmit electricity ANSWER: c 16. What is the EROEI (energy return on energy investment)?

ANSWER: The EROEI is a measurement that allows you to compare the net energy obtained from a given energy source. It compares the energy we get out of a source with the energy required to acquire, process, and transport the energy source from where it is obtained to where it is used.

17. What are the different types of pollution created in burning coal to generate electricity?

ANSWER: The use of coal in generating electricity creates pollution in basically every step of the process, from the mining of coal to the disposal of wastes generated in the combustion process. Mining coal can cause a variety of water pollution problems, from acid mine drainage to the dumping of overburden into stream valleys. At the power plant, the process of generating electricity from combustion Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.1 produces air pollution (sulfates, particulates, mercury, and carbon dioxide), thermal pollution (from the cooling water that is much hotter when returned to the environment), and the disposal of ash left over after combustion causes solid waste pollution unless handled properly.

18. Peat, the precursor to coal formation, is typically formed in areas: a. of rapid decomposition. b. with little vegetation. c. with low rates of decomposition. d. with highly oxygenated sediments.

ANSWER: c 19. The LARGEST proven coal reserve in the world is located in: a. South America. b. North America. c. Asia. d. Europe. e. Australia.

ANSWER: b 20. If we do NOT change our current rates of coal usage, how long will the proven coal reserves last? a. 1 year b. 10 years c. 130 years d. 1,000 years e. 5,000 years ANSWER: c 21. Coal is a solid fossil fuel formed when plant material is buried in _____ conditions and subjected to _____ over a long time. a. oxygen-rich; high heat and pressure b. oxygen-poor; high heat and pressure c. oxygen-poor; low heat and pressure d. oxygen-rich; low heat and pressure ANSWER: b 22. The HARDEST form of coal is: a. lignite. b. overburden. c. peat. d. anthracite.

ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.1 23. The continent with the greatest amount of the world's proven coal reserves is: a. Asia. b. Europe. c. North America. d. South America. e. Africa.

ANSWER: a 24. The first form of coal that is created from submerged vegetation, pressure, and heat is: a. peat. b. anthracite. c. lignite. d. bituminous.

ANSWER: c 25. In Ireland, peat is often burned as a source of fuel. Peat is known to turn into which fossil fuel? a. oil b. coal c. wood d. shale e. uranium ANSWER: b 26. Which country held about 24% of the world's proven reserves in 2018? a. France b. Germany c. the United States d. Australia e. Japan ANSWER: c 27. Which region once held the United States' LARGEST coal reserves? a. Appalachian Mountains b. Wyoming c. Alaska d. Great Plains e. Rocky Mountains ANSWER: a 28. What are the steps in the long process of coal formation over time?

ANSWER: Around 300 million years ago, decaying plant material in swamp-like forests became buried in the Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.1 sediments. The low oxygen concentration of these sediments reduced the rate of decomposition of the material, leading to the formation of peat deposits. Over time, with the accumulation of more sediment, high pressure in the peat layer in concert with high heat led to the formation of what is known as soft coal, or lignite. As time progressed, in areas where the lignite layer was exposed to continuing heat and pressure, the lignite was converted to harder varieties of coal, such as anthracite and bituminous coal.

29. Even though coal is produced by natural processes of Earth, why is it classified as a nonrenewable resource?

ANSWER: Coal, like other energy sources such as oil and natural gas, is considered a nonrenewable resource because it literally takes millennia for organic matter to form into coal. Humans are using coal at such a rapid rate that we are likely to run out before Earth has a chance to make more; thus coal is classified as a nonrenewable resource.

30. _____ is removing dirt and rock that overlies a mineral deposit close to the surface in order to access that deposit. a. Subsurface mining b. Surface mining c. Fracking d. Deep mining e. Hydraulic mining ANSWER: b 31. Which statement is FALSE about surface mining compared to subsurface mining? a. Surface mining has safer conditions than subsurface mining. b. Surface mining creates greater damage to the ecosystem than subsurface mining. c. Surface mining has more alteration to landscape than subsurface mining. d. Surface mining has greater expense than subsurface mining. e. Surface mining is easier and simpler than subsurface mining.

ANSWER: d 32. Overburden is associated with what type of coal mining? a. subsurface mining b. surface mining c. fracking d. deep mining e. hydraulic mining ANSWER: b 33. After mountaintop removal mining, is the vegetation replanted at the mining site? a. yes b. no c. sometimes Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.1 d. it depends ANSWER: b 34. After strip mining, is the vegetation replanted at the mining site? a. sometimes b. it depends c. yes d. no ANSWER: c 35. In both active and closed mines, the reaction of rainwater with iron sulfide components in the rubble converts to sulfuric acid which creates _____. a. acid mine drainage b. acid rain c. acid mine waste d. acid mine overburden ANSWER: a 36. Discuss how mountaintop removal can affect stream quality.

ANSWER: When the tops of mountains are removed to extract the coal below, the overburden (removed material) is dumped into the stream valleys. This permanently buries many miles of small streams.

Toxic chemicals such as selenium, iron, and aluminum can enter the streams and rivers lower in the watershed after leaching out of the overburden. These may bioaccumulate and biomagnify in the aquatic organisms and eventually end up in human tissues. An extreme example is when an impoundment breaks in a coal slurry pond, allowing tons of toxic sludge to enter the watershed.

37. Which type of mining, surface or subsurface, has a greater impact on the environment, and why?

ANSWER: Surface mining has a greater impact on the environment because in surface mining the ground, rock, and vegetation above the coal are removed and discarded. This type of mining destroys habitats, buries miles of streams as the overburden is dumped into the valleys, and permanently and irreversibly alters the contours of both the land and watersheds. Currently, mining companies are not required by law to restore the ecosystem to its original, native form.

38. Coal mining production is up in the United States, but coal mining jobs are on the decline. Why are there fewer coal mining jobs today than 50 years ago?

ANSWER: The majority of new coal mines are opting to extract coal through surface mining instead of subsurface mining. Surface mining employs fewer miners compared with subsurface mining, which is labor intensive. Also, many coal mining jobs have been lost to large machinery and automation.

The few jobs remaining in the coal mining industry are, however, normally higher paying and safer.

39. _____ consists of digging tunnels or shafts into Earth to reach buried ore deposits. a. Subsurface mining b. Surface mining c. Fracking Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.1 d. Deep mining e. Hydraulic mining ANSWER: a 40. Which statement describes a characteristic of subsurface mining? a. It permanently alters the landscape and its contours. b. It delivers silt and acidic compounds to downstream rivers. c. It damages the ecosystem by dumping overfill into valleys. d. It has dangerous conditions including tunnel collapses, released gases, particulates in the air, low oxygen, and heat.

ANSWER: d 41. Acid mine drainage is formed when water flows past exposed rocks that leach out _____ that react with water and oxygen to form _____. a. carbonates; bases b. sulfates; acids c. arsenic; bases d. nitrates; acids e. methane; acid ANSWER: b 42. How many people are estimated to die every year due to the health impacts of mountaintop removal mining? a. 1,400 b. 2,000 c. 1,200 d. 3,000 ANSWER: c 43. Does the EPA classify coal fly ash as a toxic substance? a. yes b. yes, but only within certain parameters c. no d. no, but with certain containment rules ANSWER: c 44. How is acid mine drainage formed, and what are its effects on the environment?

ANSWER: Acid mine drainage is formed as water flows past exposed rocks in mines or overburden. Sulfates are leached out from the rocks and react with the water and oxygen to form acids. The acidic water can be directly toxic to many aquatic plants and animals, and it can also alter the nutrient cycle of aquatic ecosystems and affect organisms and food webs.

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Module 09.1 45. Benefits of using coal as an energy source include: a. low-cost electricity. b. an established distribution system. c. ease of isolation. d. simple processing. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 46. Which statement is NOT true about coal? a. It has a high energy content. b. It is a renewable resource. c. Mining coal causes environmental damage. d. Burning coal creates pollution. e. It is formed over time by the compression and heating of peat.

ANSWER: b 47. How does the use of coal cause acid precipitation? a. The acid drainage from mining evaporates, which puts the acids into the air. b. The burning of coal puts out gases like sulfur dioxide, which can combine with water to form acids. c. Acids, which leach into the soil from the mining process, are transpired by plants that have taken them up. d. The equipment used for mining releases sulfur and carbon dioxide into the atmosphere. e. The by-products of coal mining release sulfur and carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

ANSWER: b 48. Environmentalists are especially concerned about the amount of carbon dioxide released from burning coal because it: a. is a significant contributor to acid rain. b. depletes the ozone layer. c. is a significant greenhouse gas. d. clogs lungs and aggravates asthma. e. blocks the uptake of oxygen by the hemoglobin.

ANSWER: c 49. Which statement describes the BIGGEST advantage to the United States' use of coal? a. It burns cleaner than most fossil fuels. b. The United States has a lot of coal. c. The mining of coal is relatively safe and environmentally friendly. d. It is the most efficient way to produce electricity. e. There are no advantages to using coal.

ANSWER: b Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.1 50. Emissions from coal-fired power plants include: a. arsenic. b. mercury. c. sulfur. d. carbon dioxide. e. All of these can be found in coal emissions.

ANSWER: e 51. Pollution from U.S. coal power plants does NOT include: a. ash. b. particulates. c. nitrogen oxides. d. ozone. e. mercury.

ANSWER: d 52. The Petra Nova demonstrates that ____ of carbon dioxide emissions can be captured through carbon capture and sequestration. a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 90% e. 100% ANSWER: d 53. Environmental drawbacks to the mining of coal do NOT include: a. damage to forests caused by mountaintop removal. b. burial and damage to streams caused by the dumping of overburden. c. soil compaction causing increased stormwater runoff and flooding. d. increased risk of cancer for some miners. e. water and soil contamination by acid drainage.

ANSWER: d 54. Fly ash can be taken to a landfill that is expensive and not environmentally friendly, or it can be used to make _____, which benefits both the power plant and the environment. a. tar paper b. shingles c. sandpaper d. concrete e. glass Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 09.1 ANSWER: d 55. What is meant by the phrase "external costs of coal," and what are the estimates of such costs on an annual basis?

ANSWER: External costs are those generated by activities such as the process of mining coal (surface or subsurface), transporting, burning, and dealing with wastes, such as fly ash and toxic emissions.

These costs are not reflected in the actual costs paid by users of coal, such as electric utilities or industry. A Harvard University study estimated the external costs for using coal in the United States to be $300 to $500 billion a year.

56. What are some of the hazards associated with coal mining?

ANSWER: Many coal miners develop black lung disease from the coal dust they are exposed to in the mines.

Methane gas fumes and coal dust are the most common causes of mine explosions and collapses.

Underground coal seams can catch on fire and be very difficult to extinguish. Some underground fires have been burning for over a hundred years. Coal miners can also be exposed to potentially deadly carbon monoxide.

57. Discuss some of the effects mining and using coal to generate electricity have on the health of both the environment and the human population.

ANSWER: Water wells near mines receive significant amounts of arsenic, lead, iron, and sulfate. Burning coal puts out these same chemicals plus carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide, fly ash, NOx, and mercury into the atmosphere. Sulfates leaching into water supplies cause acid mine drainage that is hazardous to humans and ecosystems. Because of all of these toxins, there is a greater incidence of kidney, lung, and heart disease in mining areas. In addition, people living near large coal-burning plants may suffer from an increase in lung disorders.

58. What are the benefits of using coal as an energy source?

ANSWER: While there are multiple environmental costs to using coal, there are also benefits to using coal as an energy source. First, coal is cheap and relatively abundant, with known reserves that are estimated at 120 years at current usage rates. There is also an established distribution system from coal power plants to our homes, and unlike nuclear power, coal is also relatively simple to process, so it can be easily utilized as a fuel source.

59. The negatives involved in removing contaminants from coal before using it are: a. the hazardous waste created and the fact that the product is a liquid or gaseous fuel. b. the fact that the product is a liquid or gaseous fuel and the energy needed to complete the process lowers the EROEI. c. the hazardous waste created and the energy needed to complete the process lower the EROEI. d. the fact that the product is a liquid or gaseous fuel and the inefficiency of the process. e. the amount of water needed and the energy needed to complete the process lower the EROEI. ANSWER: c 60. Currently, the biggest drawbacks to using the new clean coal technologies are: a. the energy required and costs involved in using them. b. the negativity of the public and their reluctance to pay more for electricity.

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Module 09.1 c. the technologies do not exist and too much energy is needed to develop them. d. the fact that it has not been proven that coal is toxic and that there are no alternatives. e. government incentives and the public apathy.

ANSWER: a 61. We currently have technologies to capture: a. mercury. b. particulates. c. sulfur. d. carbon dioxide. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 62. Clean coal technologies are being developed to: a. reduce CO2 emissions. b. store emitted CO2. c. remove toxins from coal prior to combustion. d. reduce CO2 emissions, store emitted CO2, and remove toxins from coal prior to combustion. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: d 63. What is a major drawback of clean coal technologies? a. They produce their own toxic by-products. b. They increase coal's EROEI. c. They decrease coal's EROEI. d. They both produce their own toxic by-products and increase coal's EROEI. e. They both produce their own toxic by-products and decrease coal's EROEI. ANSWER: e 64. What is one way to reduce the climate change impacts of burning coal for electricity generation?

ANSWER: One key to reducing the climate change impacts of coal is to capture the CO2 that is released by combustion prior to its release into the atmosphere. This is referred to as carbon capture and sequestration (CCS). One method for capture is to use solvents in the smokestacks that can trap the CO2 emissions. These emissions can then be separated from the solvents, and the CO2 can then be used for other purposes. Sequestration generally involves the storage of CO2 in deep mines or wells so that it will not be released into the atmosphere.

65. Refer to Infographic 7. Explain how carbon dioxide can be captured.

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Module 09.1

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Module 09.1 66. Refer to Infographic 7. Explain what can be done with captured carbon dioxide.

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Module 09.1

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Module 09.1 67. What is a common criticism of mountaintop removal mine reclamation? a. The evidence suggests that the original native species will never recolonize the reclaimed site. b. The artificial channels do not host the same amount of biodiversity as the natural streams. c. The Appalachian Mountains are a region of extremely high biodiversity, and the reclaimed sites will not recover similar levels of diversity. d. All of these answers are correct. e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: d 68. How is grass planted in mine reclamation? a. Woven mats that include embedded grass seed are laid over the landscape. b. Aerial drops of grass seed mixtures are laid over previously mined sites. c. An aqueous mixture of seed and chemicals is sprayed on the thin soil. d. It is not planted; rather, the land will go through natural senescence. e. It is not planted; grass will not grow on reclaimed mines.

ANSWER: c 69. How are mountaintop removal mines typically "reclaimed"?

ANSWER: The Surface Mining Control and Reclamation Act requires coal companies to reclaim land to a state that is "close to its pre-mining" condition. In practice, however, with the reduction in elevation of the mountains, and the burial of thousands of miles of streams, reclamation often results in grass plantings over the mined site and artificial water channels where the buried streams once flowed.

Neither condition will ever support the natural communities that existed before the mine.

70. If mining company representatives came to you with a plan to plant the same species of pine trees, and only pine trees, on their reclaimed mine in order to comply with the law, what would you tell them? Would you advise them to go ahead with the plan, or would you suggest a different one?

ANSWER: The key to success in pretty much every ecosystem on Earth is diversity. If the mining company planted only one kind of pine tree over the reclaimed mine, that would not introduce the diversity of plants needed to re-establish, or at least get close to re-establishing, the ecosystem that was there prior to the mine. You could advise the mining company to take a survey of the plants and animals in undisturbed ecosystems around the mine and try as much as possible to replicate at least some of the species diversity seen in those ecosystems.

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Module 10.2 1. Long-term patterns or trends of meteorological conditions in a given area refer to its: a. weather. b. variability. c. forecast. d. climate. e. albedo.

ANSWER: d 2. The meteorological conditions in a given place on a given day refer to its: a. climate. b. weather. c. habitat. d. ecosystem.

ANSWER: b 3. A shift of only a few degrees Fahrenheit in the average global temperature will likely result in more frequent and extreme heat waves. Which example BEST describes this phenomenon? a. habitat destruction b. weather change c. climate change d. ozone formation ANSWER: c 4. Which factor is NOT evidence for the recent changes in global climate? a. a single weather event like a hurricane b. prairies giving way to deserts in Africa and the American West c. coral reefs dying off d. earlier springs and later winters e. more and longer heat waves ANSWER: a 5. The actual temperature on any given day is the _____, while the range of expected values, based on location and time of year, is the _____. a. climate; weather b. albedo; radiative forcer c. weather; climate d. prediction; weather e. forecast; reality ANSWER: c 6. Which factor is NOT an aspect of climate?

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Module 10.2 a. long-term patterns or trends b. useful for predicting weather c. timing of seasonal shifts d. winter lows and summer highs hover close to expected norms e. a few warmer days here and there ANSWER: e 7. Global warming is an aspect of: a. climate. b. weather. c. extreme weather. d. a particular location's air temperature. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: a 8. Describe the difference between weather and climate. Provide an example for each.

ANSWER: Weather refers to the meteorological conditions in a given place on a given day. For example, the weather in New York City today is forecast to be 60° Fahrenheit and cloudy. Climate refers to longterm patterns or trends of meteorological conditions. For example, the climate of the American Southwest includes high summer temperatures around 100°F to 125°F and below 0°F in the northernmost parts in the winter.

9. Refer to Infographic 1. What change is depicted in the infographic? What changes to weather are expected when the curve shifts to the right?

ANSWER: An increase of a few degrees in the average temperature shifts the entire curve to the right from the previous climate to the new climate. With the new climate, it is likely there will be more years that have the former "extreme" hot weather; it also means the affected area will likely set new records Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.2 for extreme heat. Fewer cold weather extremes will be observed.

10. Global climate change has had numerous effects on Earth. Which effect has been a result of global climate change? a. increase in insect pest populations b. rise in infectious tropical diseases c. uncoupling of species connections d. increase in coastal flooding e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 11. Which phenomenon is NOT the result of climate change? a. prairies turning into deserts b. coral reefs dying c. monarch butterfly migrations d. an increase in the size of glaciers ANSWER: c 12. Much of which city will be under water at some point if we don't address climate change? a. Washington, D.C. b. Dallas c. Paris d. Miami e. Tokyo ANSWER: d 13. Which organisms are NOT expanding their range and distribution due to climate change? a. mosquitoes b. bears c. trees d. octopi e. All of these organisms are expanding their range and distribution.

ANSWER: b 14. Which factor does NOT directly contribute to sea level rise? a. melting of land-based ice b. melting of icebergs c. thermal expansion of water d. melting of glaciers e. None of these factors directly contributes to sea level rise.

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Module 10.2 ANSWER: b 15. Which statement is FALSE about climate change evidence? a. The rate of ice and permafrost melting is accelerating. b. There is less precipitation in coastal areas. c. Marine species are moving deeper into the ocean. d. Some areas of Antarctica are cooling and gaining snow. e. All of these statements are true.

ANSWER: b 16. Since climatologists started keeping records in 1850, the WARMEST decade globally was: a. 1850 to 1860. b. 1950 to 1960. c. 1980 to 1990. d. 1990 to 2000. e. 2010 to 2019.

ANSWER: e 17. Species have responded to global climate change in various ways. Which example does NOT illustrate this? a. shifting ranges b. earlier blooming c. migrating to higher altitudes d. hatching earlier e. decreased breeding ANSWER: e 18. In terms of temperature, what recent global trends have been observed?

ANSWER: Overall, 2010 to 2019 is the warmest decade since records started to be kept in 1850. The final six years of that decade were the warmest. The global land average temperature increased by 0.95°C in 2019, compared to the twentieth-century average.

19. Which compound is NOT a greenhouse gas? a. carbon dioxide b. methane c. nitrous oxide d. halocarbons e. sulfur oxides ANSWER: e 20. Which compound is the MOST potent greenhouse gas? a. halocarbons like CFCs Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.2 b. nitrous oxide c. methane d. carbon dioxide e. They are all equally potent.

ANSWER: a 21. _____ is/are anything that alters the balance of incoming solar radiation relative to the amount of heat that escapes out into space. a. A climate forcer b. Albedo c. Radiation forcers d. Milankovitch cycles e. Climate enforcers ANSWER: a 22. The BIGGEST contributor to global warming is: a. methane released from rice paddies. b. carbon dioxide released from burning fossil fuels. c. CFCs released from landfill waste disposal. d. nitrous oxide released from volcanic eruptions.

ANSWER: b 23. Without greenhouse gases, the average temperature on Earth would be: a. much warmer than current temperatures. b. only a little warmer than current temperatures. c. the same as current temperatures. d. much cooler than current temperatures. e. We cannot tell what the temperature would be like without greenhouse gases.

ANSWER: d 24. Which statement is TRUE regarding the greenhouse effect? a. Increased levels of human-produced carbon dioxide have enhanced the greenhouse effect. b. The greenhouse effect did not exist before humans. c. Greenhouse gases work by magnifying incoming solar radiation onto Earth's surface, just like in a greenhouse. d. Volcanoes are the largest source of greenhouse gases. e. All of these answers are true.

ANSWER: a 25. What causes the level of atmospheric CO2 to rise and fall throughout the year? a. plant growth and dormancy due to seasons Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.2 b. temperature fluctuation c. movement of ocean air streams d. industry booms e. relative distance of Earth to the Sun ANSWER: a 26. Which factor is an anthropogenic climate forcer? a. volcanic eruptions b. fossil fuel combustion c. sunspot cycles d. orbital eccentricity e. None of these answers is correct.

ANSWER: b 27. Refer to Infographic 3. Describe how the greenhouse effect works. What is different with the enhanced greenhouse effect, and what are the main causes of it?

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Module 10.2

ANSWER: Life on Earth depends on the ability of greenhouse gases (carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, and others) in the atmosphere to trap heat and warm the planet. More greenhouse gases, however, mean more trapped heat and a warmer planet (an enhanced greenhouse effect). Carbon dioxide is the main driver of the enhanced greenhouse effect. The main anthropogenic sources are fossil fuel combustion and deforestation.

28. Data show temperature and CO2 levels are related to one another. What does this look like?

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Module 10.2 a. As temperatures rise, CO2 levels also rise. b. As temperatures rise, CO2 levels drop. c. As temperatures drop, CO2 levels rise. d. As temperatures rise, there is no effect on CO2 levels. e. We do not have enough data to say what kind of relationship there is between temperature and CO2 levels.

ANSWER: a 29. Analyzing current and historic data about CO2 tells us current CO2 levels are: a. lower than they have been in the past 2.7 million years. b. only slightly higher than they have been in the past 2.7 million years. c. the same as they have been for the past 100 years. d. higher than they have been in the past 2.7 million years. e. We need more data to make any conclusions about the current CO2 levels.

ANSWER: d 30. Which statement is FALSE related to using tree rings to reveal clues about the climate? a. Each annual tree ring provides clues about how wet and warm a year was. b. Only living trees can be used to examine tree rings. c. Scientists can use tree rings to examine climate more than 12,000 years ago. d. Tree growth is tied to temperature and water availability. e. All of these are true statements.

ANSWER: b 31. Which isotope can we analyze from ice cores to give us data about the past climate? a. 16O b. 14N c. 18O d. CO2 e. 14C ANSWER: c 32. Which source is NOT used to reconstruct past climate? a. ice cores b. sediment cores c. tree rings d. coral reef growth layers e. All of these sources are used.

ANSWER: e 33. What method of measuring atmospheric CO2 levels gives a more accurate result?

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Module 10.2 a. local air measurement b. water sampling c. measurements taken from gas bubbles trapped in the ice d. temperature correlation ANSWER: a 34. What method of measuring atmospheric CO2 levels gives data related to what past atmosphere CO2 levels were? a. local air measurement b. water sampling c. measurements taken from gas bubbles trapped in the ice d. temperature correlation e. all of these answers ANSWER: c 35. List several techniques used by climate scientists to gather indirect data on climate (temperature, carbon dioxide levels, and so on) from the distant past.

ANSWER: They do this by studying a wide variety of clues that have been left behind, including ice and sediment cores, tree rings, coral reef growth layers, and fossilized mud at the bottom of lakes and rivers.

36. Refer to Infographic 4. The relationship between temperature and carbon dioxide is complex. Explain the relationship between these two variables (1) as Earth comes out of a glacial period (ice age) and increases in carbon dioxide lag temperature increases by hundreds of years, and (2) in reference to the recent warming over the past hundred years when increased carbon dioxide release is preceding the warming.

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Module 10.2

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Module 10.2 37. A variety of factors can warm or cool the planet. Which of the following is a positive forcer (warming effect)? a. cloud albedo effect b. aerosols c. stratospheric ozone d. black soot on snow e. deforestation ANSWER: d 38. Which factor has low albedo and contributes to warming? a. glaciers b. meadows c. fresh snow d. asphalt e. aerosols ANSWER: d 39. Which statement is FALSE regarding positive feedback loops? a. They are changes caused by an initial event that then accentuates that original event. b. An example is melting sea ice in the Arctic. c. They can cause rapid changes. d. They always indicate a "positive" or beneficial event. e. None of these statements is false.

ANSWER: d 40. _____ is the ability of a surface to reflect away solar radiation. a. Albedo b. Positive feedback c. Radiative force d. Greenhouse effect ANSWER: a 41. How is a positive feedback loop different from a negative feedback loop? Provide an example of each.

ANSWER: A positive feedback loop is any change caused by an initial event that then accentuates the original event. For example, as temperatures warm, permafrost melts and releases stored carbon, which adds greenhouse gases to the atmosphere, causing more warming and additional melting of permafrost. A negative feedback loop is any change caused by an initial event that triggers an event, which then reverses the response. For example, warmer temperatures create more clouds, and those clouds have a net cooling effect.

42. Refer to Infographic 5A. Explain why the Arctic is particularly vulnerable to climate change.

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Module 10.2

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ANSWER: The Arctic is more vulnerable to climate change because warming that occurs there causes ice to melt, which triggers additional warming in a positive feedback loop. As ice melts, more water is exposed and absorbs more heat (darker surfaces have lower albedo), and that causes more ice to melt.

43. Explain how clouds can participate in both positive and negative feedback loops.

ANSWER: Some clouds have high albedo (are more reflective) and work to cool the planet by reflecting Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.2 sunlight, and thus heat, away from the planet's surface. If warming temperatures cause the formation of more of the high-albedo clouds, this could trigger cooling in a negative feedback loop. Other clouds trap reradiated heat from the planet's surface and thus have a warming effect in a positive feedback loop.

44. Describe how Milankovitch cycles help explain past climate change. Explain why the current warming cannot be attributed to these cycles.

ANSWER: Warm periods and ice ages of the past can be attributed in part to Earth's position in space relative to the Sun. The Milankovitch theory describes the collective effects of changes in Earth's movements upon its climate. The variations in orbital eccentricity (shape of Earth's orbit around the Sun), axial tilt (angle of Earth's tilt as it spins on its axis), and axial precession (wobble of Earth's axis) help determine climatic patterns on Earth. The current warming we are experiencing cannot be explained by the three Milankovitch cycles because Earth is not currently in a part of any cycle in which it would have greater warming.

45. The cause of the vast majority of current climate change can be attributed to: a. volcanoes. b. the burning of fossil fuels. c. cattle farming. d. crop production. e. forest fires.

ANSWER: b 46. Which statement is FALSE regarding climate models? a. Climate models are not testable. b. Climate models project future climate conditions. c. Climate models take into account many variables, including global air circulation patterns and carbon dioxide levels. d. Climate models that exclude anthropogenic factors are most accurate.

ANSWER: d 47. The upper limit on the number of people that will be forced to leave their homes because of climate change is 1 in every _____ people on Earth by 2050. a. 20 b. 50 c. 100 d. 1,000 e. 5,000 ANSWER: b 48. Climate models can use programs to make future climate projections by plugging in values for: a. temperature.

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Module 10.2 b. CO2 levels. c. global air circulation patterns. d. precipitation. e. All of these variables are correct.

ANSWER: e 49. Refer to Infographic 6. What is the scientific consensus regarding the cause of the recently observed changes in global climate?

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ANSWER: Based on all the data gathered and analyzed, the scientific consensus is that all of the known natural forcers combined are not enough to account for the rapid climate change that is currently underway.

Only when both natural and anthropogenic (related to human actions) forcers are considered together do current trends in climate make sense.

50. Potential effects of climate change likely do NOT include: a. an increase in the proportion of land area in severe drought. b. heat extremes in some areas.

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Module 10.2 c. colder winters in some regions. d. reduced fire risk in boreal North America. e. All of these answers are possible.

ANSWER: d 51. Further changes in global climate will have a significant effect on world forests. Global climate changes will impact both mean annual _____ and _____, which will cause shifts in tree populations. a. temperature; precipitation b. logging; precipitation c. oxygen availability; temperature d. nitrogen levels; carbon dioxide levels e. temperature; available sunlight ANSWER: a 52. Changes in global climate are predicted to have a negative impact on forests. Forests provide which ecosystem service? a. soil stabilization b. water purification c. sink for carbon d. oxygen production e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 53. Climate change affects: a. the environment. b. human health. c. economics. d. societies. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 54. What animals are most affected by climate change? a. sea turtles b. chimpanzees c. raccoons d. sea urchins e. All of these animals are affected.

ANSWER: a 55. How will human health be affected by climate change? a. More precipitation will reduce water stress in regions.

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Module 10.2 b. Insect-borne diseases will increase in both range and incidence. c. More crops will be available to feed people. d. Fewer allergies will be seen since plants will grow poorly. e. Fisheries will adapt and there will be more seafood to eat.

ANSWER: b 56. How will climate change affect agriculture? a. With more CO2 in the air, crops will become more productive. b. Heat stress can improve crop growth. c. Many weed species will die out in a warmer climate. d. Pest outbreaks will decrease. e. Storms could flood crops, washing away soil and nutrients.

ANSWER: e 57. Climate change affects ocean ecosystems by: a. absorbing CO2 and lowering the pH of the water, causing it to become more acidic. b. releasing excess CO2 into the atmosphere, increasing the air temperature over the oceans. c. cooling the ocean waters, allowing ocean organisms to adapt easily. d. lowering the pH, which causes organisms to create thicker, stronger shells. e. cooling ocean waters, which reduces coral bleaching.

ANSWER: a 58. Which organism is the first species whose extinction was directly related to climate change? a. American alligator b. Bramble Cay melomys c. cuttlefish d. pika e. honeycreepers ANSWER: b 59. Describe how the recent changes in global climate are expected to impact biodiversity.

ANSWER: Biodiversity is being threatened on a scale not seen since the last mass extinction event 65 million years ago. Habitat destruction from human activities, such as deforestation and development, as well as changes to habitat from climate change, alter the conditions that populations have evolved to exist in. As the climate changes, those populations need to evolve in order to survive. Unlike some past changes in climate that took thousands of years to occur, the recent climate change is occurring with unprecedented speed, so these organisms might have just a few decades to adapt or migrate.

60. Efforts intended to minimize the extent or impact of climate change are referred to as: a. adaptation. b. facilitation.

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Module 10.2 c. mitigation. d. stabilization.

ANSWER: c 61. Accepting climate change as inevitable and adjusting as best as possible is referred to as: a. adaptation. b. prescription. c. mitigation. d. stabilization.

ANSWER: a 62. Which example does NOT illustrate adaptation to climate change? a. shoring up coastlines against rising sea levels b. preparing for heat waves, cold spells, and outbreaks of infectious diseases c. taking steps to ensure a sufficient water supply in areas where freshwater supplies may dry up d. consuming more fossil fuels e. All of these examples illustrate adaptation to climate change.

ANSWER: d 63. Which factor facilitates mitigation efforts on a national or global scale? a. command and control regulations b. tax breaks c. carbon taxes d. cap-and-trade policies e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 64. How would applying the precautionary principle now to carbon dioxide emissions help to avoid, or at least lessen, some of the more serious outcomes of a changing global climate?

ANSWER: Many climate scientists set the upper limit of carbon dioxide that we should not cross at 560 ppm.

Other scientists place it much lower, at 350 ppm. At our current pace we will probably surpass the 560-ppm threshold before the end of this century. The precautionary principle can be used when data are uncertain or severe consequences are possible. In this case, consequences such as the melting of the Greenland ice sheet and other irreversible events are predicted. Although some argue that placing any kind of limit on carbon dioxide emissions would hurt the economy, others feel we need to set significant reduction targets now to make any dent in the problem. Since there is still much debate over global climate change, acting now by using the precautionary principle should lessen risk and provide more time to further investigate the effects and consequences of global climate change.

65. Describe the difference between mitigation and adaptation as it applies to climate change. Provide an example of each.

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Module 10.2 ANSWER: Mitigation refers to efforts intended to minimize the extent or impact of climate change. It includes any attempt to seriously curb the amount of carbon dioxide we are releasing into the atmosphere— for example, by using carbon capture techniques to remove greenhouse gases from our air and sequester them underground or by consuming fewer fossil fuels to begin with. Adaptation refers to acceptance of climate change as being inevitable and adjusting as best we can—for example, by taking steps to ensure a sufficient water supply in areas where freshwater supplies may dry up, planting different crops more appropriate to the new climate, shoring up coastlines against rising sea levels, or preparing for heat waves and cold spells as well as outbreaks of infectious diseases.

66. Describe adaptation strategies for any three of the following potential impacts of climate change: health, crop productivity, coastal erosion and flooding, biodiversity losses, drought, and fire risk.

ANSWER: Adaptation strategies for the potential impacts of climate change are as follows: (1) health: improve disease surveillance, implement sanitation improvements in flood-prone areas, and establish emergency action plans; (2) crop productivity: use erosion-control techniques to improve agricultural productivity and choose crops to fit new conditions; (3) coastal erosion and flooding: relocate some coastal communities if necessary, construct protective barriers like seawalls, and restore wetlands in coastal areas to protect inland areas; (4) biodiversity losses: manage wildlife and habitats to provide migration corridors or relocation assistance and protect vulnerable habitats from further human impact; (5) drought: focus on methods to capture and conserve water, including desalination in coastal areas, and practice pollution prevention to increase and protect water supplies; (6) fire risk: pursue better fire-prevention management, including prescribed burns and the thinning of forests to reduce combustible material, and improve fire-response plans.

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Module 10.1 1. The World Health Organization estimates that _____ people die prematurely each year as a result of exposure to air pollution. a. 500,000 b. 1 million c. 4 million d. 5.5 million e. 7 million ANSWER: e 2. _____ is any material added to the atmosphere that harms organisms, affects the climate, or impacts structures. a. Asthma b. An environmental insult c. Air pollution d. Acid deposition e. Airborne respiration ANSWER: c 3. What is the BIGGEST health problem associated with air pollution? a. respiratory ailments b. burns c. flu-like symptoms d. birth defects e. cancers ANSWER: a 4. _____ is one of the most common chronic childhood diseases in the United States and other developed nations and a major cause of childhood disability. a. Arthritis b. Heart disease c. Lung cancer d. Asthma e. Skin cancer ANSWER: d 5. Which statement is FALSE regarding asthma? a. Developing nations are seeing a rise in asthma, especially in urban centers. b. Asthma is a respiratory ailment marked by inflammation and constriction of the narrow airways of the lungs. c. In the United States, asthma is the leading cause of school absences. d. In the United States, the incidence of asthma more than doubled from 1980 to the mid-1990s.

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Module 10.1 e. None of these statements is false; all of these statements regarding asthma are true.

ANSWER: e 6. What percentage of the world's population breathes polluted air? a. 60% b. 90% c. 40% d. 80% ANSWER: b 7. Refer to Infographic 1. The World Health Organization recognizes air pollution as a major threat to human health. Approximately how many people around the world die each year from air pollution? Why do you think India and China have a higher percentage of deaths due to air pollution?

ANSWER: Air pollution is responsible for at least 7 million deaths annually. In India and China, industrialization is happening rapidly, and air pollution regulations are not as strict as in the United States.

8. How did air pollution events such as the "Great Smog" in London, England, provide evidence that air pollution can be an immediate health threat to humans?

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Module 10.1 ANSWER: The Great Smog of London occurred in 1952 and was the result of temperature inversion from a stalled weather system. This is a situation that occurs when the temperature is higher in upper regions of the atmosphere than in the lower, causing pollutants to become trapped near Earth's surface. The resulting lethal "smog" led to a sudden spike in lower atmospheric sulfur levels and is believed to have been responsible for 12,000 premature deaths.

9. Air pollutants released directly from any source are considered to be: a. ozone. b. ground-level ozone. c. primary air pollutants. d. secondary air pollutants.

ANSWER: c 10. You are driving a car. The emissions coming out of the automobile tailpipe are considered to be: a. a point source. b. ozone. c. ground-level ozone. d. primary air pollutants. e. secondary air pollutants.

ANSWER: d 11. Air pollutants that are formed when primary air pollutants react with one another or other chemicals in the air are called: a. nonpoint sources. b. point sources. c. primary air pollutants. d. secondary air pollutants.

ANSWER: d 12. Which example is NOT a primary pollutant that can contribute to the formation of secondary air pollution? a. forest fires b. dust storms c. agriculture d. ground-level ozone e. All of these answers contribute to the formation of secondary air pollution.

ANSWER: d 13. Which compound is a secondary air pollutant? a. sulfuric acid (H2SO4) b. carbon dioxide (CO2) c. particulate matter Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.1 d. sulfur dioxide (SO2) e. carbon monoxide (C ANSWER: a 14. Particulate pollution does NOT include: a. dust. b. soot. c. carbon dioxide. d. small, suspended droplets (aerosols). e. pollen.

ANSWER: c 15. Which source of outdoor air pollution is anthropogenic? a. sandstorms b. volcanic eruptions c. controlled burns d. wildfires ANSWER: c 16. Sources of sulfur dioxide (SO2) air pollution include: a. point sources. b. nonpoint sources. c. volcanoes. d. coal-burning power plants. e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 17. Why is ground-level ozone considered to be an air pollutant, while stratospheric ozone is not? How is ground-level ozone formed?

ANSWER: Ground-level ozone, also called tropospheric ozone, is considered a pollutant because it is a respiratory irritant that can reduce overall lung function; it can also reduce photosynthesis in plants.

Ground-level ozone is produced from the interaction between nitrogen oxides and VOC with oxygen in the presence of sunlight. Stratospheric ozone in the "ozone layer" acts as Earth's sunscreen by blocking out some of the harmful ultraviolet radiation before it reaches the surface of Earth.

18. What are two anthropogenic sources of outdoor air pollution? What are two natural sources of outdoor air pollution? Also list at least two of the major primary pollutants associated with these sources.

ANSWER: Anthropogenic (human-caused) sources include industry, agriculture, mining, and vehicles. Natural sources include dust storms, volcanoes, and forest fires. Five major primary pollutants are sulfur dioxide, nitrogen monoxide or dioxide, carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, and particulate matter.

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Module 10.1 19. Particulate matter is a common cause of respiratory disease because it: a. alters lung cell DNA and causes cancer. b. irritates the lining of the respiratory system and causes inflammation. c. physically blocks the lungs from properly processing oxygen. d. causes red blood cells to not take up oxygen as efficiently. e. can enter the circulatory system and physically block blood flow.

ANSWER: b 20. Air pollution can cause which condition? a. ground-level ozone b. water pollution c. asthma d. tissue damage in plants e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 21. Why are children in low-income families at a higher risk for asthma than those in wealthier families? a. Their parents are less likely to be able to afford proper medical care. b. Their homes and schools are often located near major roads or factories. c. They have poor diets. d. They purchase more products that contribute to indoor air pollution. e. Their schools are poorly ventilated.

ANSWER: b 22. Power plants are often built in neighborhoods where residents have less ability to fight for their rights. This is a violation of: a. environmental regulations. b. EPA protocol. c. environmental justice. d. transboundary jurisdiction. e. deposition principles.

ANSWER: c 23. The finding that minority communities face more exposure to pollution than their socioeconomically identical Caucasian counterparts is an example of: a. environmental justice. b. EPA protocol. c. environmental racism. d. EPA-criteria pollutants. e. poor city planning.

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Module 10.1 ANSWER: c 24. Which statement related to the health consequences of air pollution is FALSE? a. Anything that impairs the lungs also harms the cardiovascular system. b. People living in areas with higher air pollution have lower rates of heart attacks and strokes. c. Exposure to radon is one of the leading environmental causes of lung cancer. d. Exposure to smog and vehicle emissions is linked to increased risk of breast cancer. e. All of these statements are true.

ANSWER: b 25. What did the results of Thurston's study of fifth graders and air pollution show? a. Children living or going to school closer to highways were exposed to more air pollution and had more severe respiratory symptoms. b. Children living or going to school closer to highways were not exposed to more air pollution but had more severe respiratory symptoms. c. Children living or going to school closer to highways were not exposed to more air pollution and did not have more severe respiratory symptoms. d. Children living or going to school closer to highways were exposed to more air pollution but did not have more severe respiratory symptoms.

ANSWER: a 26. Summer visibility across the Blue Ridge Mountains of North Carolina should be around _____ miles, but due to high levels of ground-level ozone pollution, that visibility is greatly diminished to around _____ miles on particularly hazy days. a. 70; 20 b. 75; 15 c. 65; 25 d. 60; 15 ANSWER: b 27. Air pollution damage to crops could result in dollar losses in the _____ by 2030. a. billions b. millions c. thousands d. There is no expected dollar loss.

ANSWER: a 28. Why do lower-income and minority areas often have some of the worst outdoor air quality?

ANSWER: Polluting industries such as power plants and incinerators are often placed in areas where residents have less ability to fight for their rights. People in lower-income areas generally have less money, less education, and little influence in local governments, and as a result, they see a greater proportion of power plants and incinerators compared with higher-income areas that are able to Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.1 exert greater influence on decision making. In addition, even in areas where socioeconomic status is accounted for, minority communities still face more exposure to pollution than average.

29. What is it about the nature of the human lung that makes it so vulnerable to air pollution? Further, how does damage to respiratory tissue serve as a gateway to other kinds of human health problems?

ANSWER: Lungs are vulnerable to air pollution in general and particulates like soot in particular not only because they get so much exposure (because we breathe all the time) but also because lung tissue is delicate. Irritants like particles, dust, and pollen can cause the lungs to produce excess mucus in an attempt to trap and expel the irritant. As a result, the lining of the airways can become inflamed and swell; and in people with asthma, the irritation may trigger muscle contractions, which close off the airway completely. This damage to respiratory tissue also increases susceptibility to infections, and because the cardiovascular system depends on the respiratory system to provide oxygen for the body, anything that impairs the lungs also harms the cardiovascular system, which might explain the fact that people living in polluted areas also have higher rates of heart attacks and strokes. In addition, particles smaller than 2.5 μm can actually penetrate cells of the lungs or enter the bloodstream, where they are delivered to other cells of the body. If these particles come from the combustion of fossil fuels or other industrial sources, they may contain toxins, leading to problems associated with toxic exposure.

30. Even the most isolated regions on Earth are vulnerable to the effects of air pollution because atmospheric and hydrologic circulation moves chemical and particulate pollutants around the globe. This is an example of: a. environmental injustice. b. transboundary pollution. c. environmental racism. d. internal costs.

ANSWER: b 31. Acid deposition results from burning fossil fuels that release _____ that react in the atmosphere to form acids that fall back to Earth as acid rain, snow, and fog. a. sulfur and nitrogen oxides b. lead and mercury c. carbon monoxide and nitrogen oxides d. VOC and sulfur oxides e. lead and VOC ANSWER: a 32. Which consequence is a result of acid deposition? a. reduced nutrient uptake by plants b. acidified lakes c. dying forests d. released aluminum from soils e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.1 33. Which form of air pollution is acid rain? a. secondary air pollutant b. primary air pollutant c. point source d. nonpoint source e. ground-level pollution ANSWER: a 34. Which nutrient is leached from soil due to acid rain? a. aluminum b. potassium c. ozone d. nitrogen e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: b 35. Which statement about acid deposition is TRUE? a. Acid deposition is a local problem in that only areas that produce air pollution feel the effects of acid deposition. b. Acid deposition occurs only through rain, snow, or fog. c. Acid deposition causes plants to take up the now-available aluminum, which is detrimental to the plant. d. Acid deposition causes the pH level to rise in affected lakes.

ANSWER: c 36. Acid deposition can come in which form? a. rain b. sleet c. snow d. fog e. Acid deposition can come in any of these forms.

ANSWER: e 37. Which animals are especially vulnerable to acidification of their habitat? a. deer b. owls c. frogs d. bears e. songbirds ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.1 38. Why is looking at the local air pollution level not a good indicator of the health of various ecosystems in the surrounding area?

ANSWER: Air pollution, including acid deposition, is a transboundary problem in that it is not always the areas that are producing the air pollution that are the most harmed by it. Air pollution can sometimes cause problems for ecosystems that are on the other side of the continent from the source of the pollution. Acid deposition from pollution in a major city can cause remote ecosystems, like a lake, to acidify and become uninhabitable. Therefore, if you looked only at the local air pollution levels for that remote ecosystem, you could miss the effects in other areas.

39. Go to the EPA's Air Quality Index (http://www.airnow.gov/). Look at the air quality for the area in which you live (both current and archived). Does any of this information surprise you? Now, research an area that you think would have a high level of air pollution and one that you think would have a low level. Do the results surprise you?

ANSWER: The answer to this question will vary by student, time of year, and region. The goal of this question is to give the student access to a wealth of data collected on air pollution in the United States and let them explore and ask their own questions of it.

40. Refer to Infographic 4 and the nitrate deposition values in the U.S. Why are nitrate deposition values higher in the eastern part of the United States? What contributed to the improvement in conditions between 1988 and 2018?

ANSWER: Burning fossil fuels releases sulfur and nitrogen oxides, which react in the atmosphere to form acids.

As a secondary pollutant, acid precipitation can fall at considerable distances from the origin of the primary pollutants (fossil fuel combustion). In the United States, much of the population and fossil fuel combustion occurs in the eastern states. In addition, the prevailing winds carry emissions from the western and central states to the eastern states. Restrictions imposed by the Clean Air Act have helped decrease acid precipitation in the United States. Smokestack scrubbers remove sulfur from coal-burning facilities, reducing the sulfur dioxide released. In addition, emission-control technologies on vehicles, such as the catalytic converter, convert dangerous combustion by-products Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.1 to safer emissions.

41. Which air pollutant is NOT regulated by the EPA? a. lead b. ground-level ozone c. volatile organic compounds (VOC) d. sulfur dioxide e. All of these answers are regulated by the EPA. ANSWER: e 42. Which statement about VOCs is FALSE? a. "VOC" stands for volatile organic compound. b. VOCs readily evaporate and dissolve in water. c. VOCs are released by wetlands. d. The main outdoor source of VOCs is fossil fuel combustion.

ANSWER: b 43. Which statement is FALSE regarding pollutants defined as hazardous by the EPA? a. Even in small doses, they can have adverse effects on human health. b. They include volatile organic compounds (VOCs). c. They may cause cancer or developmental defects. d. All of these statements are true. e. None of these statements are true.

ANSWER: d 44. In 1963, the United States passed the _____, which sets a maximum amount for emissions of pollutants or the presence of pollutants in ambient air. a. Safe Air Act b. Safe Air Law c. Clean Air Act d. Clear Air Law e. Safe and Clean Air Act ANSWER: c 45. Which statement about the Clean Air Act is TRUE? a. The Clean Air Act is evidence that regulations can be effective as a pollution-reduction tool because the United States has seen major reductions in common air pollutants. b. Under the Clean Air Act, the EPA sets air quality standards for ambient air, with the states being responsible for monitoring and enforcing compliance. c. The Clean Air Act is subject to political wrangling, as evidenced by the introduction of several congressional bills designed to limit the EPA's ability to regulate air quality, specifically carbon Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.1 dioxide (CO2). d. Under the auspices of the Clean Air Act, the EPA approved greenhouse gas emission standards for light-duty vehicles (cars and trucks) that will require new vehicles to produce less greenhouse gas emissions. e. All of these statements are true.

ANSWER: e 46. U.S. law authorizes _____ to set standards for dangerous air pollutants. a. the Environmental Protection Agency b. states c. the Department of Environmental Protection d. the Food and Drug Administration e. the World Health Organization ANSWER: a 47. The EPA recognizes _____ hazardous air pollutants that can have adverse effects on human health. a. 205 b. 195 c. 187 d. 223 ANSWER: c 48. Which of the following is NOT a common source of sulfur dioxide air pollution? a. factories b. animal manure c. dust d. volcanoes ANSWER: b 49. Douglas Dockery from Harvard University conducted a study to establish the link between air pollution and impaired health. Describe his study and what he found.

ANSWER: Dockery compared death rates in six cities before air pollution controls from the Clean Air Act were put in place with death rates after the CAA was implemented. The data showed that as the levels of small particulate matter decreased, so did the death rates. A follow-up study in 2006 showed a clear dose–response effect; the higher the air pollution, the higher the risk for death.

50. What six pollutants are classified as criteria air pollutants? Give an example of how each pollutant contributes to increased amounts of air pollution.

ANSWER: The six types of criteria air pollutants are: carbon monoxide, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, ground-level ozone, particulates, and lead. Each pollutant can come from a variety of sources.

Carbon monoxide is emitted into the air by vehicles, forest fires, and volcanoes. Sulfur dioxide is emitted into the air by industry, volcanoes, and dust. Nitrogen oxides are emitted into the air by Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.1 vehicles, industry, and nitrification by soil and aquatic bacteria. Ground-level ozone is caused by vehicles and VOCs from manufactured products and industry. Particulate matter comes from combustion of any fuel or activity that produces dust, including forest fires and dust storms. Finally, lead comes from lead-based paint in older homes and from other countries, leaded gasoline, soil erosion, and volcanoes.

51. Which factor is a source of indoor air pollution? a. mold b. dust mites c. radon d. cigarette smoke e. All of these answers are correct.

ANSWER: e 52. _____ is a naturally occurring radioactive gas that is produced from the decay of uranium in rock. After seeping through foundations, it can accumulate in basements and lead to lung cancer. a. Mercury b. Lead c. VOC d. Radon e. Carbon dioxide ANSWER: d 53. In developing countries, the main source of indoor air pollution is: a. particulates like soot as a result of cooking with wood or charcoal. b. mold. c. toxic chemicals. d. radon from the decay of uranium in rock that seeps through the foundations. e. lead.

ANSWER: a 54. What does NOT explain why indoor air pollution may pose a bigger threat than outdoor air pollution in some locations? a. We breathe more air indoors because we spend so much time in homes, schools, and/or the workplace. b. Items in our home such as paint, cleaners, and furniture release VOCs, which can cause health problems. c. Outdoor pollutants such as radon can also find their way into our buildings and concentrate in enclosed areas. d. Secondary pollutants form and accumulate more easily in indoor environments. e. All of these answers explain why indoor air pollution may pose a bigger threat than outdoor air pollution.

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Module 10.1 ANSWER: d 55. Paints can release _____ while drying, and one way to prevent these pollutants from accumulating indoors is by _____. a. VOCs; providing good ventilation b. chlorine; using a HEPA filter c. particulates; using low-VOC paints d. toxic chemicals; removing your shoes while painting e. radon; limiting the use of carpets ANSWER: a 56. Which indoor air pollutant is CORRECTLY matched with its source? a. radon — tobacco smoke b. cooking — particulates c. VOCs — poorly ventilated furnaces d. chlorine — damp basements e. carbon monoxide — soaps and cleaners ANSWER: b 57. Which factor is NOT a source of indoor air pollution? a. cigarettes b. cleaners c. furniture d. paint e. foundation cement ANSWER: e 58. According to Kirk Smith, a professor of environmental health at the University of California, Berkeley, indoor fires increase risks of pneumonia, tuberculosis, lung cancer, and low birth weight in babies born to women exposed during pregnancy. What simple solution is being widely promoted to reduce this risk of death? a. preparing meals using solar cookers b. switching from wood to burning crop waste as a fuel source c. adding more windows to houses as a source of ventilation d. passing a green tax to make homeowners pay for their pollution e. providing asthma inhalers to children under the age of 12 years ANSWER: a 59. Reducing indoor air pollution does NOT involve: a. providing adequate ventilation for a home. b. properly storing household chemicals. c. removing carpeting in the home.

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Module 10.1 d. sealing the home to prevent air leaks. e. All of these answers reduce indoor air pollution.

ANSWER: d 60. For most people in developed countries, the greatest exposure to air pollution comes from being indoors, where structures tend to trap pollutants, keeping concentrations high. How can exposure to these indoor pollutants be reduced?

ANSWER: Exposure can be minimized by avoiding or limiting the use of carpets, upholstered items, and furniture made with toxic glue and formaldehyde. Also, safer cleaners and low-VOC paints can be used where applicable. The use of a HEPA filter can also reduce indoor pollutants such as pet dander and dust mite feces. Homes should be checked for radon, and if found, the radon needs to be vented to the outside of the home. For attached garages, running vehicles inside should be minimized to prevent carbon monoxide fumes from entering the home. Properly working heating and air conditioning units with good ventilation will also help.

61. Compare and contrast the health risks associated with indoor air pollution in developed versus developing countries.

ANSWER: In both developed and developing countries, indoor air quality and the associated health risks are a growing concern among public health scientists. In part this is because of the amount of time people spend indoors, but it is also because certain air pollutants can get trapped inside enclosed indoor spaces at concentrations far higher than outdoor locations. Exposure to indoor air pollutants is linked to a host of potential health problems, ranging from chronic bronchitis and asthma, to eye irritation and cataracts, to lung cancer. But while the consequences of indoor air pollution are similar, the sources of the dominant indoor pollutants differ between the developing and developed world. In the developed world, significant sources of indoor air pollution include such things as tobacco smoke; VOCs from paints, carpets, and furniture; and radon from natural uranium decay in certain bedrock formations that seeps through house foundations. In much of the developing world, the major source of indoor pollution is smoke and soot from burning wood, charcoal, dung, or crop waste as cooking fuel.

62. Improving air quality using command and control methods means: a. paying a tax to the government on environmentally undesirable activities or enjoying a reduction in the tax in exchange for some desirable action. b. building tall smokestacks to send emissions high into the atmosphere so that they disperse and do not pool at the site of production. c. following regulations that set an upper allowable limit for pollution release, which is enforced with fines and/or incarceration. d. using free government money or resources intended to promote desired activities. e. following regulations that set upper limits for pollution release, based on which producers are issued permits that allow them to release a portion of that amount; if they release less, they can sell their remaining allotment to others who did not reduce their emissions enough.

ANSWER: c 63. Which example would be part of a technological solution to reducing air pollution?

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Module 10.1 a. providing tax credits for commuters who ride buses that run on compressed natural gas b. installing a carbon monoxide detector in your home c. pricing a pollution-generating product or service such that costs associated with pollution and resource depletion are accounted for d. allowing polluters to sell their excess pollution credits for a profit e. installing smokestack scrubbers to keep air pollutants from being released ANSWER: e 64. Reducing air pollution improves our environmental well-being and is a cost saver in the long term, as we rely on many ecosystem services. Which statement CORRECTLY reflects the environmental benefit based on reducing air pollution? a. Since lead can damage a leaf's ability to photosynthesize, preventing lead pollution will allow for healthy plant growth and improved crop yields. b. Since smog eats away at limestone and marble structures and damages steel and concrete, reducing smog provides protection for buildings and monuments, especially those made of marble and limestone. c. Reducing acid rain will improve salmon fisheries, as acidified water causes aluminum to build up in water to levels that are toxic to juvenile salmon. d. Mercury emissions create haze; thus, reducing such emissions improves visibility, a significant matter in tourist destinations. e. Sulfur dioxide bioaccumulates in individuals and biomagnifies up food chains; thus, reducing such emissions protects our meat supply, which otherwise could become too toxic to eat.

ANSWER: c 65. What did the Clean Power Plan, approved in 2016, establish rules for? a. regulating carbon monoxide b. providing green taxes for polluters c. removing sulfur dioxide from point source emissions d. regulating carbon dioxide e. using clean coal technology ANSWER: d 66. In 2013, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention estimated the cost of asthma to the United States was $____. a. 72.5 billion b. 99.3 million c. 81.9 billion d. 84.1 million ANSWER: c 67. Since the Clean Air Act was passed in 1970, U.S. air pollution has been cut by _____, even though the nation's economy has more than doubled.

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Module 10.1 a. 65% b. 30% c. 85% d. 70% ANSWER: d 68. What fee is paid to the government on environmentally undesirable activities? a. tax credit b. green tax c. subsidies d. cap-and-trade ANSWER: b 69. Because of the economic costs, there is often resistance to implementing solutions to reduce air pollution.

What are these economic costs? Make a case for why, despite these financial costs, air pollution solutions should be implemented. In other words, what are the costs of NOT implementing these solutions? Provide two examples: one from the developing world and one from the developed world.

ANSWER: Mitigating or preventing air pollution costs money. Developing and installing new technology, such as scrubbers or electrostatic precipitators, to meet the mandates of the Clean Air Act can be expensive. However, the costs of the pollution-reduction tools are not always that high, and it is money well spent because it prevents far greater losses down the line, in terms of both human health and environmental quality. For example, in the developing world it is estimated that about 2 million women and children each year die a premature death due to pollution from open indoor cooking fires. But this can be easily addressed with a simple $50 solar cooker that allows people to cook food without building a fire. Not only does this technology prevent human deaths, it has the added advantage of not depleting local biomass resources for fuel. Similarly, in the United States, mercury and air toxic standards approved in late 2011 will limit the release of mercury, acid gases, and other pollutants from power plants, and this is expected to prevent 130,000 cases of serious asthma and as many as 11,000 premature deaths. This will save lives and money because currently in the United States, the average annual cost of care for a patient with asthma is $4,912, with 65% of that going to medications, hospital admissions, and nonemergency doctor visits, and the remaining 35% going to indirect costs like lost time at work.

70. If a car company wanted to reduce the air pollution created by its cars, how could it apply tools such as subsidies, tax credits, and cap-and-trade regulations in its efforts? Be sure to define each term as part of your response.

ANSWER: Subsidies are free government money or resources intended to promote desired activities. The car company could avail itself of subsidies to support its own investment in the research and development of new engine design or alternate fuel development that reduces air pollution. Tax credits are reductions in the amount of tax one pays in exchange for environmentally beneficial actions. The car company could use the availability of tax credits to encourage consumers to buy cars that have reduced emissions but that might be more expensive than conventional options. Capand-trade regulations set upper limits for pollution release, with permits being issued to polluters that allow them to release a portion of that amount or sell their surplus allotment to others that did Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 10.1 not reduce their emissions enough. The car company could reduce the air emissions of its car fleet below the level of its permitted allowance and then sell the rest as a source of revenue.

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Module 11.2 1. _____ energy is replenished over short time scales or is perpetually available. a. Sustainable b. Reusable c. Renewable d. Fossil fuel ANSWER: c 2. _____ energy is renewable and has a low environmental impact. a. Sustainable b. Reusable c. Stationary d. Fossil fuel ANSWER: a 3. A sustainable energy source has which characteristic? a. It is renewable. b. It has a low environmental footprint. c. It is affordable to the consumer. d. All of these answers are characteristics of a sustainable energy source. e. None of these answers are characteristics of a sustainable energy source.

ANSWER: d 4. The earliest renewable energy source used by humans was: a. biomass. b. solar. c. wind. d. geothermal. e. hydropower.

ANSWER: a 5. In 2007, the city of Chicago committed to pursue a 100% clean energy future. What are some of the renewable energy sources Chicago is planning on using to power their city? How might this impact other large cities?

ANSWER: Chicago plans on powering all of its public buildings with "clean power," which includes renewable energy sources in the form of solar, wind, hydroelectric, and nuclear power. The proposal aims to meet this "clean power" goal by the year 2035. The city also plans to have all of their Chicago Transit Authority buses powered by electricity by the year 2040. Chicago is a densely populated urban city, and if they can prove successful, then other large cities can follow their lead.

6. What are the conditions required to qualify as a sustainable energy source?

ANSWER: Sustainable energy must come from renewable sources that either can be replenished over a short period of time or are infinitely available. These energy sources are in the form of solar, wind, Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.2 hydroelectric, geothermal, and biomass power. The energy must also be used at a rate equal to, or less than, its replenishing rate and must have a low environmental impact when acquiring and using the energy source.

7. Which energy source is MOST renewable? a. coal b. biomass c. oil d. natural gas e. nuclear energy ANSWER: b 8. The LARGEST segment of renewable energy is: a. solar energy. b. biomass. c. hydroelectric energy. d. geothermal energy. e. wind.

ANSWER: e 9. In 2019, how much energy used in the United States came from renewable resources? a. 3% b. 9% c. 17.5% d. 25% e. 40% ANSWER: c 10. In the United States, we rely on fossil fuels for _____% of our electricity production. a. 50 b. 63 c. 70 d. 83 e. 90 ANSWER: b 11. Which energy sources will see the BIGGEST increases as costs decline for the technologies? a. wind and hydropower b. wind and solar c. solar and geothermal d. solar and hydropower Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.2 e. hydropower and geothermal ANSWER: b 12. What are some of the factors that make transitioning to a more renewable energy economy difficult?

ANSWER: No single renewable energy source can fully replace fossil fuels. While renewable energy sources have many advantages, transitioning to them also has some disadvantages, such as start-up costs and construction, and there are some environmental impacts to consider. However, some of the impacts of renewable energy sources, such as displacing wildlife or creating an ecological footprint during the construction process, are much lower than the impacts that fossil fuels currently have on the environment. Furthermore, it requires a community (whether a small town, a large city, a state, or even a country) to compare the true costs of using fossil fuels with the true costs of using renewable energy sources and then making a commitment to implement renewable energy sources.

13. Of all the renewable energy sources, wind and solar power will have the biggest increase in usage in the near future. What factors are influencing the increase?

ANSWER: Technological improvements and cheaper materials that lead to more efficient wind and solar energy systems are driving the cost down. Since the benefits of using fossil fuel–free energy sources are increasing, more groups are developing renewable projects. Therefore, there is also an increase in competition among producers to become the industry leaders in wind and solar power.

14. What factors make wind energy imperfect as an energy source? a. Wind is intermittent. b. Wind turbines are expensive to build. c. Wind turbines can create noise. d. Some people think turbines are an eyesore. e. All of these answers are factors that make wind energy imperfect as an energy source.

ANSWER: e 15. Refer to Infographic 3. What is the CORRECT order of the steps used to generate electricity in a wind turbine?

I. Rotating blades turn a shaft inside the turbine.

II. A spinning generator produces electrical current.

III. Wind turns turbine blades.

IV. The shaft is attached to a higher-speed gear that turns the generator.

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Module 11.2

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Module 11.2 16. Which statement about wind turbines' threat to birds is TRUE? a. Every year, domestic cats kill more birds than wind turbines do. b. Wind turbines threaten birds but not bats. c. Wind turbines kill more birds than communication towers do. d. Because of their low risk to birds, engineers do not give much thought to how wind turbines are placed. e. All of these statements are true about wind turbines' threat to birds.

ANSWER: a 17. Wind turbines in Texas are able to provide power for roughly how many homes? a. 1,000 b. 500,000 c. 3 million d. 5 million e. 1 billion ANSWER: d 18. Wind turbines create electric energy by: a. converting wind to steam in order to turn a generator. b. converting wind, through a series of gears, to turn a generator. c. allowing wind to blow directly into a generator to turn it. d. All of these answers are involved in creating electricity through wind turbines. e. None of these answers are involved in creating electricity through wind turbines.

ANSWER: b 19. Which factor is involved in wind turbine technology? a. placing long blades at a height that catches the wind b. designing wind blades to allow for maximum lift for rotation c. internal gearing to convert the blade rotation into the turning of a generator d. a spinning generator that produces an electric current e. All of these answers are factors involved in wind turbine technology.

ANSWER: e 20. A criticism of wind turbine technology is that: a. its electricity is not useful to the consumer. b. its use is not sustainable. c. they are unsightly to look at. d. they are unable to produce electricity at night. e. All of these answers are criticisms of wind turbine technology.

ANSWER: c Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.2 21. Explain why wind energy sources are considered an indirect form of solar energy.

ANSWER: Wind is considered an indirect form of solar energy because wind results from the difference in temperature between different regions of Earth. These temperature variances, generated by heating of the atmosphere by solar energy, cause air to move from cooler regions to warmer regions, causing wind to occur.

22. What are some of the solutions engineers are working on to lessen the negative impact wind turbines have on birds and bats?

ANSWER: Engineers avoid placing wind turbines in places where known migratory flight paths are located or where predatory birds, such as eagles, are known to frequent. There are some auditory and visual deterrents being tested, such as an ultrasonic "boom box" to keep bats from flying nearby, since they depend on echolocation to navigate. There are predator models, such as owls, placed near the turbines to intimidate and keep birds from flying near the turbines. Engineers are also developing new turbine designs to reduce the impact they have on wildlife.

23. _____ cells convert solar energy directly into electricity. a. Passive b. Photovoltaic c. Active d. Thermoelectric ANSWER: b 24. Which example converts the energy of the Sun directly into heating water to produce steam to generate electricity? a. photovoltaic cells b. wind turbines c. biomass d. solar thermal systems ANSWER: d 25. Which example does NOT illustrate passive solar technology? a. greenhouses b. photovoltaic cells c. strategically oriented windows on a home to maximize sunlight d. dark-colored walls and floors installed in a home to absorb more heat e. a roof overhang used to let winter sun enter and block summer sun ANSWER: b 26. What makes solar energy an unreliable energy source? a. Photovoltaic cells have a lot of moving parts that produce noise. b. Sunlight is intermittent, especially in high-latitude locations.

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Module 11.2 c. It has expensive start-up costs. d. All of these answers make solar energy an unreliable energy source. e. Sunlight is intermittent and solar energy has expensive start-up costs.

ANSWER: e 27. Which statement about solar energy is CORRECT? a. Wind power is an indirect form of solar energy. b. If just 4% of the world's deserts were covered in photovoltaic cells, the world's electricity needs would be met. c. Photovoltaic cells are becoming cheaper. d. Solar energy can be harnessed through active or passive technologies. e. All of these are correct statements about solar energy.

ANSWER: e 28. What are the differences between active solar approaches and passive solar approaches?

ANSWER: Active solar technologies, such as photovoltaic (PV) cells and solar thermal systems, involve technological systems created to capture and use solar energy. Solar panels are made up of PV cells and convert sunlight directly into electricity. Solar thermal systems generally involve solar collectors that are focused on a supply of water, providing hot water directly to homes. Passive solar approaches generally involve the capture of heat without any special technology involved, such as south-facing windows on buildings or dark walls to absorb heat.

29. Explain why diversification is a hallmark of a sustainable energy future. Use solar and wind power as an example.

ANSWER: Diversification refers to using the strengths and weaknesses of different renewable energy sources to provide electricity for a community. Two renewable sources can complement each other in many places. For example, if solar and wind power are used together, the solar energy is productive during daylight hours, and since more wind occurs at night, wind power takes over when the sun goes down. People living in desert areas may benefit from using solar and wind renewable energy; however, other areas may require using different combinations of renewable energy sources.

30. _____ energy is the heat stored underground, contained in either rocks or fluids. a. Wind b. Hydroelectric c. Biomass d. Geothermal e. Solar ANSWER: d 31. Geothermal energy is considered to be one of the most efficient methods to heat and cool a house, since the ground temperature being harnessed to either heat or cool a house is always around _____ Fahrenheit. a. 10° b. 25° Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.2 c. 55° d. 90° e. 125° ANSWER: c 32. Geothermal power plants harness _____ released from hydrothermal reservoirs to spin turbines to produce electricity. a. steam b. natural gas c. carbon dioxide d. oil e. radiation ANSWER: a 33. How do geothermal power plants work? a. They actively move heat from underground into an overlying structure in order to remove or add heat to the structure. b. They utilize steam released from hydrothermal reservoirs to spin turbines and produce electricity. c. They use the heat from hot rocks located in earthquake zones to heat coal. d. They use heat from volcanic eruptions to boil water and create steam that can power a turbine. e. They funnel hot steam into people's homes so that it can be used as a heat source.

ANSWER: b 34. Which statement is NOT true of geothermal energy? a. Geothermal projects can cause earthquakes. b. Home-based geothermal projects can be expensive to install but have a relatively short payback time. c. Geothermal projects are dangerous because they can release toxic fumes from deep inside Earth. d. Geothermal projects are entirely dependent on the locations of hot zones in Earth's crust.

ANSWER: c 35. How is electricity produced in a dry steam geothermal power plant?

ANSWER: In a dry steam geothermal power plant, water is injected into deep wells. When the water hits hot rocks, underground steam is produced. The steam rises up through separate pipes and is used to turn turbines, generating electricity.

36. What areas are BEST suited for geothermal energy production, and why?

ANSWER: Geothermal energy production is entirely dependent on location. Because drilling is expensive and potentially dangerous, only locations with enough heat to generate significant amounts of electricity are developed. The best sites for geothermal energy production are where tectonic plates in Earth's crust pull away and rub against each other, allowing the hot magma to flow upward through cracks in the rock to reach areas close to the surface.

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Module 11.2 37. Which renewable resource supplies more electricity to the human population than any other single renewable resource? a. solar energy b. wind c. geothermal energy d. biomass e. hydropower ANSWER: e 38. Which renewable energy source has the GREATEST impact on the local environment? a. solar energy b. wind c. geothermal energy d. biomass e. hydropower ANSWER: e 39. How do run-of-the-river hydroelectric systems differ from giant dams? a. They don't block all of the water flowing down a channel and direct only some of it through a turbine. b. They literally "run" the river and take over the ecosystem in that area. c. They flood an area to create a reservoir. d. They do not differ; they work the same way. e. They are built close to shorelines, whereas giant dams can be built only farther inland.

ANSWER: a 40. Which of the following represents the downside of using large dams for hydropower? a. They can reduce water supplies to downstream areas. b. The amount of electricity generated varies based on rainfall. c. Dam construction carries a high carbon footprint from using concrete. d. Large amounts of water evaporate from the reservoir in hot climates. e. All of these represent the downside of using large dams for hydropower.

ANSWER: e 41. Why does a run-of-the-river hydroelectric system have less impact on aquatic systems than a giant dam?

ANSWER: Unlike a giant dam, a run-of-the-river hydroelectric system consists of either a low stone or concrete wall that doesn't block the water. A run-of-the-river hydroelectric system simply redirects some of the flowing water past a turbine that is used to generate electricity. A run-of-the-river system uses the natural flow and elevation of the river to produce electricity that is less disruptive to the river's aquatic ecosystem.

42. Explain why water energy sources are considered an indirect form of solar energy.

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Module 11.2 ANSWER: Hydropower is an indirect form of solar energy because evaporation and condensation, the two processes that drive the water cycle, are controlled by solar energy. The downward flow of water from mountaintop to ocean would not occur if the processes of evaporation, condensation, and precipitation did not allow clouds to form over mountains.

43. LED lightbulbs are the most energy-efficient way to light your home, as they use _____ of the energy of a comparable compact fluorescent bulb. a. 1/2 b. 1/3 c. 1/4 d. 2/3 e. 3/4 ANSWER: b 44. Refer to Infographic 7. What does "payback time" mean in terms of conservation of energy?

a. how long it takes to pay for an appliance or new technology at today's interest rates b. how long it takes for the savings to equal the original cost of the technology c. how long it takes to find investors for the new technology d. the amount of money required for the development of the technology e. the amount of time before the manufacturer starts to make a profit ANSWER: b 45. Which example is NOT a no-cost way to conserve energy?

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Module 11.2 a. washing clothes in cold water b. taking shorter showers c. closing the fireplace damper when it is not in use d. insulating hot water pipes e. lowering the thermostat ANSWER: d 46. Turning off lights when you leave a room or switching to LED lighting is an effective conservation method because lighting usually accounts for _____% of average home electrical costs. a. 45 b. 50 c. 25 d. 10 e. 35 ANSWER: c 47. According to energy advisors, what produces the "greenest" kilowatt of electricity? a. photovoltaic cells b. run-of-the-river hydroelectric systems c. geothermal heat pumps d. wind turbines e. an "unused" kilowatt ANSWER: e 48. Which step costs money but has a quick payback time? a. turning off the computer when not in use b. replacing old light bulbs with energy-efficient LED bulbs c. replacing older windows with high-efficiency windows d. lowering the thermostat on the water heater e. taking short showers instead of baths ANSWER: b 49. Refer to Infographic 7. Why are renewable forms of energy so expensive when compared with fossil fuels?

What are two cheaper ways to sustainably meet energy needs without such a huge financial input?

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Module 11.2

ANSWER: Even though the energies being harnessed by renewable technologies are free to access, the infrastructure necessary to access them is very expensive to construct. On the other hand, fossil fuels are comparably cheaper because the external costs to use them (i.e., environmental degradation and damage to human health) are not included in their cost. While harnessing renewable energy is important, energy efficiency and conservation are cheap, if not free, ways to sustainably reduce energy consumption. Conservation and efficiency tactics include turning off electronics when they are not in use, reducing hot water use, installing insulation in homes, purchasing Energy Star– certified appliances and light bulbs, and having energy assessments performed on homes.

50. What do energy advisers mean by the phrase "the greenest kilowatt is the one you never use"?

ANSWER: They are referring to the fact that conservation and energy efficiency will reduce the amount of electricity and thus fuels we use. So, if the electricity doesn't need to be produced, we will release less carbon dioxide and other emissions. We will harm the environment less by reductions in the drilling, mining, spilling, refining, and so on of fossil fuels. We will produce less nuclear waste. In essence, a greener planet will result from simply conserving energy.

51. How does insulating pipes, using an on-demand water heater, and taking shorter showers save energy?

ANSWER: It takes energy to heat water and keep it warm, and an on-demand water heater heats water only when it is needed. Insulating pipes decreases heat loss to the surrounding air. Taking shorter showers uses less hot water, therefore using less energy to heat the water.

52. What costs should be considered when comparing renewable energy technologies? a. social b. environmental c. economic Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.2 d. both social and economic e. social, environmental, and economic ANSWER: e 53. Which electricity energy source is LEAST expensive for the consumer? a. fossil fuels b. solar energy c. wind d. geothermal energy e. nuclear energy ANSWER: a 54. In terms of true cost, which electricity energy source is LEAST expensive for the consumer? a. fossil fuels b. solar energy c. wind d. geothermal energy e. nuclear energy ANSWER: c 55. _____ pay(s) individuals and groups a fixed price for the energy they produce when using a renewable energy source that they send out over the grid. a. Diversification b. Smart grid c. Production decentralization d. Feed-in tariff e. Smart meters ANSWER: d 56. Currently, fossil fuels meet most of the energy needs of the United States. Why do experts say that in the future, no one renewable source will dominate as fossil fuels do today?

ANSWER: This is because each of the renewables has both strengths and weaknesses, and many are geographically limited. For example, both solar and wind power suffer from issues of intermittency (e.g., overcast skies or low winds). Hydroelectric power is an example of a source with geographic limitations, generally occurring in areas with rivers large enough to drive the turbines. The solution in the future will likely be to have a mixture of renewable technologies, with the mixture varying by location.

57. Chicago has partnered with Commonwealth Edison to install more than 4 million smart meters in area homes and businesses. They have charged about a $3 monthly fee on each electric bill that has a smart meter.

Why is this beneficial as part of the sustainability initiative for Chicago and its residents?

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Module 11.2 sends back to the electric company. Smart meters allow the home or business owners to schedule some energy use during low-demand times, such as doing laundry or running the dishwasher at night when energy prices are at their lowest. The savings from managing energy for each home or business will more than compensate for the $3 fee attached to the electric bill. Furthermore, the meters also automatically detect problems and can quickly restore power once the power company receives the information.

58. Compare the differences between present-day electric grids and using a smart grid.

ANSWER: Present-day electric grids consist of power plants and power lines that provide electricity to communities throughout the world at the flip of a switch. It is a one-way communication in which the communities at large ask for electricity, and the power company provides it for them. However, sometimes the grid cannot handle all the demands placed on it to provide power, and brownouts, blackouts, and power surges occur. In smart grid technology, two-way communication occurs between consumers and the power company. This two-way communication allows the power company to anticipate the electricity needs of the community. Furthermore, the addition of smart meters to a home or business provides additional information to both the power company and the consumer, assisting in the management of energy demands.

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Module 11.3 1. _____ are defined as solids, liquids, or gases that produce energy from biological material. a. Biosources b. Biomaterials c. Biofuels d. Biopowers ANSWER: c 2. Material from living or recently living organisms or their by-products is defined as: a. biofuel. b. biomass. c. feedstock. d. extract.

ANSWER: b 3. Based on the 2005 Renewable Fuel Standard (RFS) regulation, which requires renewable fuels to represent a portion of transportation fuels nationwide, in 2018, the United States only used _____ billion gallons of biofuel. a. 19.3 b. 28.0 c. 20.0 d. 18.4 e. 30.0 ANSWER: d 4. Which example would NOT make a good biofuel source? a. poplar trees b. eucalyptus trees c. oak trees d. grasses e. All of these answers would be good biofuel sources.

ANSWER: c 5. Fuels derived from current biomass are considered renewable since: a. their production takes days or weeks. b. they have a higher carbon footprint than fossil fuels. c. they are a short-term option to our energy problem. d. they are not harvested from living material. e. they do not release any carbon back into the atmosphere when burned.

ANSWER: a 6. Not all biofuels are considered equal in terms of their low-carbon status. Why are some biofuel sources more ideal than others to use?

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Module 11.3 ANSWER: When burning wood for fuel, carbon is released into the atmosphere from a tree that may have taken decades to grow. The carbon stays in the atmosphere about the same amount of time it takes for another tree to replace it. Using biofuel sources, such as trees and grasses, is an advantageous way to help reduce the carbon footprint and use renewable sources for providing fuel. Biofuel crops that regrow quickly, such as perennial grasses, pick up the carbon released from burning biofuels pretty fast, and the cycle continues as it balances out the amount of carbon in the atmosphere with the amount of carbon intake the grasses need for growth. Fast-growing trees, such as poplar and eucalyptus, are also good biofuel sources; however, trees like maples and oaks, which grow very slowly, would not be an ideal biofuel source due to the amount of time to replace them.

7. Explain why there is a critical need for the development of biofuels.

ANSWER: Globally, we rely primarily on fossil fuels as our main source of energy. Combusting fossil fuels leads to considerable environmental damage, including the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, which is driving global climate change. As global demand for energy continues to increase, dependence on nonrenewable fossil fuels is not a viable long-term option. Biofuels are a potentially important alternative to fossil fuels. They are considered renewable because the raw materials can be naturally replenished at least as quickly as they are used. In contrast with fossil fuels, which are the result of ancient photosynthesis, the biomass used to make biofuels is the result of recent photosynthesis; so combustion of biofuels can result in no net increase in carbon dioxide production. In addition, they have the advantage of being locally produced, and thus they reduce a nation's dependence on other countries for energy.

8. It takes millions of years to convert organic matter into fossil fuels. Explain the process now termed as "ancient solar energy."

ANSWER: Ancient solar energy refers to carbon captured through photosynthesis that occurred millions of years ago in plants and other photosynthetic organisms. The carbon was kept out of the carbon cycle, and as organisms died, they added to the stockpile of carbon stored in the earth. Eventually, carbon and dead organisms become fossil fuels in the form of oil, coal, and natural gas, where it has been accessed through oil rigs, mining, and natural gas pipelines.

9. Which of the following choices would NOT be considered a biofuel feedstock? a. beef from cows b. animal waste c. crops d. wood products ANSWER: a 10. Which form of biomass is burned directly for energy? a. dried manure b. algae c. firewood d. both dried manure and firewood e. both algae and firewood ANSWER: d Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.3 11. Choose the form of biomass that is easiest to ferment into bioethanol. a. switchgrass b. crop waste c. corn d. forestry waste e. manure ANSWER: c 12. Which example is an annual plant? a. corn b. switchgrass c. goldenrod d. wheatgrass ANSWER: a 13. Which statement is CORRECT regarding indirect biomass energy? a. It is converted from biomass and then burned. b. This energy-rich fuel is less bulky than the original biomass. c. These fuels burn more cleanly than the original biomass. d. These fuels can power engines that currently run on gasoline or diesel fuel. e. All of these statements are correct regarding indirect biomass energy.

ANSWER: e 14. Which example is a waste that can be used to produce biofuel? a. used fryer oil from restaurants b. manure c. crop residues d. animal fats e. All of these waste materials can be used to produce biofuel.

ANSWER: e 15. Explain the outcome of David Tilman's research and what it meant for biofuel crops.

ANSWER: Tilman's research showed that plants grown in areas where multiple species are present are much more productive than those grown in areas with only one species present (monoculture). Tilman reasoned that biodiverse ecosystems that are naturally adapted to their environment are the most productive. Thus, growing switchgrass as a source of biofuel in high-diversity mixtures of many plant species (instead of as a monoculture of switchgrass as a crop by itself) could produce a lot more biomass with the same or smaller amounts of irrigation, fertilizer, and management.

16. What are biofuels, and what are potential biofuel sources?

ANSWER: Biofuels are defined as solids, liquids, or gases that produce energy from biological material. They Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.3 are derived from material from living or recently living organisms (biomass) or their by-products.

Raw materials include crops, animal waste, and wood products. Biomass such as wood, dried manure, and crop waste can be burned directly for energy. Bioethanol can be derived from highsugar/starch crops, such as corn and sugarcane, or from high-cellulose/low-sugar plants, like grasses, trees, and the nonedible parts of crops. Any kind of organic material has the potential to be converted to liquid biofuels, such as ethanol, or to a gaseous product known as biogas. Methane gas can be captured from municipal solid waste landfills. Biodiesel is most often made from high-oil crops like soybeans or rapeseed (canola). It can be made from animal fats or waste oil. Algae can be grown as a feedstock for biofuels. Biodiesel is the most common product, but the sugars in algae can also be extracted to produce ethanol.

17. Concerned about rising gas prices, the need for energy security, and greenhouse gas emissions from fossil fuel combustion, you set out to find a plant species that could serve as a biofuel. What characteristics are you looking for in such a plant?

ANSWER: The plant should be a perennial that can absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and store carbon in its deep root system as the plant grows again immediately after harvesting. The plant should be able to grow in a variety of ecosystems and on marginal land so that many locales can utilize it, and it does not compete with farmland dedicated to food production. Adapted to growing in those locations, it should require little, if any, fertilizer or water inputs. Also, the plant should be naturally resistant to disease, pests, and drought. Energy yield needs to be high, meaning that minimal energy is spent harvesting and processing biofuel from the plant.

18. What is biowaste? Describe the benefits of converting waste into energy.

ANSWER: Biowastes are another source of biofuels. Often they are in the form of organic leftovers, such as crop residues, garbage, or manure. For example, the stalks, husks, and leaves of plants left over after harvest can be used to produce ethanol. Converting waste into energy has the dual benefit of producing energy and dealing with waste at the same time. For example, methane is a potent greenhouse gas produced by bacteria in sanitary landfills. Some communities are now working to capture that gas for energy use, and at the same time preventing additional heat-trapping gases from entering the atmosphere. As another example, used fryer oil from restaurants can be turned into biodiesel, which reduces the need for petrodiesel in diesel-powered engines.

19. Which choice is typically used to produce biodiesel? a. corn b. sugarcane c. soybeans d. switchgrass e. beets ANSWER: c 20. Which statement is a concern regarding early corn ethanol projects? a. Corn production requires energy inputs like fertilizers and pesticides. b. Considerable water is required to produce ethanol from corn. c. The projects used as much (or almost as much) energy as they produced.

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Module 11.3 d. All of these statements are concerns. e. None of these statements is a concern.

ANSWER: d 21. Which factor is NOT a concern when it comes to the conversion of natural lands into farmland for biofuel production? a. displacement of food crops that would normally be grown there b. endangerment of native species around the area c. increase in price for food crops d. job losses for native workers ANSWER: d 22. Which statement is NOT an advantage of using biofuels as an alternative energy source? a. Biofuels can be replaced over short time scales. b. Biofuels enable us to turn waste into energy. c. Crops for biofuels can be grown on marginal land. d. Biofuels are versatile; they can be used in a variety of ways. e. All of these statements are advantages.

ANSWER: e 23. _____ is a term used to explain a biofuel disadvantage that reduces the contributions made from forests and grasslands to ecosystem services. a. "Overhauling" b. "Overharvesting" c. "Hyperproducing" d. "Overgrowing" ANSWER: b 24. The EROEI of corn is 5:1 compared with conventional oil, which has an EROEI of 20:1. This means that: a. corn produces 5 units of energy for every unit of energy invested. b. oil gives less energy return on energy invested per unit. c. corn has a net energy production of 5. d. oil has a net energy production of 21. e. corn and oil have the same energy return for each unit of energy invested.

ANSWER: a 25. Which statement is an advantage of using biofuel? a. All types have a higher energy content than fossil fuels, so less needs to be burned to produce the same amount of energy. b. Burning biomass directly produces minimal particulate matter pollution. c. If grown with minimal or no fossil fuel inputs, it is carbon-neutral or carbon-negative.

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Module 11.3 d. The most commonly grown biofuel crops consume far less water per kilowatt-hour than what is used for traditional fossil fuels.

ANSWER: c 26. Which statement is TRUE regarding the increasing production of biofuels in the United States? a. Ethanol and biodiesel are becoming competitors for gasoline and diesel fuel. b. If grown with minimal or no fossil fuel inputs, biofuels decrease greenhouse gas emissions. c. Increased use of biofuels improves national security by lessening dependence on foreign oil. d. All of these statements are true. e. None of these statements is true.

ANSWER: d 27. Globally, food crops are being displaced by biofuel crops. Crops that normally were grown for either human or animal consumption are instead being grown for fuel. This switch has resulted in price increases and food shortages. Which crop has caused the MOST issues when switched from a food crop to a biofuel crop? a. corn b. wheat c. potato d. rice e. soybean ANSWER: a 28. List and describe at least three advantages and three disadvantages of biofuels.

ANSWER: Refer to Infographic 3 for a list and descriptions of advantages and disadvantages of biofuels.

29. Most biofuels today are made from crops grown specifically for energy use. What are the main crops used to produce ethanol and biodiesel? What are the environmental downsides to using these crops in biofuel production?

ANSWER: Biodiesel is typically produced from crops with a high oil content, such as soybeans or rapeseed (canola). Sugarcane is the primary source of ethanol in Brazil, and corn is used in the United States.

The problem with using traditional monoculture crops like corn or soybeans is that they require high fossil fuel inputs, thus lowering the overall energy return of the biofuel and releasing additional pollution into the environment. Corn is one of the most energy-intensive crops to grow and harvest.

It requires energy inputs like fertilizers and pesticides (made from fossil fuel), as well as fuel needed for the operation of farm machinery. Biofuel crops also require considerable water. Additionally, clearing land for biofuel crops releases carbon stored in soil and plants, adding greenhouse gases to the atmosphere as well as disrupting benefits those ecosystems provide, such as habitat for a variety of organisms. Native species are endangered when more natural lands are converted to farmland for biofuels.

30. Describe the advantages and disadvantages of biofuels in terms of air pollution, relative to fossil fuels.

ANSWER: An advantage is that biofuels burn more cleanly and are less toxic than petroleum fuels. In addition, biofuel combustion releases no net carbon dioxide because it is the result of recent photosynthesis.

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Module 11.3 Fossil fuels are the result of ancient photosynthesis, so burning those fuels adds to the amount of heat-trapping greenhouse gases in our atmosphere. A disadvantage, especially in developing countries, is the production of dangerous indoor air pollution through direct burning of biomass (wood, manure, and so on). This combustion results in high levels of particulate matter, which damages the respiratory system.

31. What are some of the concerns regarding the use of crops in biofuel production?

ANSWER: Some of the crops, specifically corn, are not that much more environmentally friendly than fossil fuels. Corn is a very energy-intensive crop to grow and harvest; it requires large energy inputs for fertilizers, pesticides, planting, and harvesting. Also, the use of crops to produce biofuels has resulted in natural lands being converted to farmlands for biofuels, the displacement of native species, the conversion of croplands to biocrops, food shortages, and increases in food prices.

32. Which statement describes a benefit of growing diverse grasses for biofuel production? a. It can be grown in marginal soil. b. It can be grown on neglected agricultural land. c. It does not displace food production. d. It is not destructive to habitats. e. All of these statements describe benefits.

ANSWER: e 33. One way to improve energy return and reduce the amount of greenhouse gases typically released by traditional monoculture fuel crops is to use LIHD grassland plants. What does LIHD stand for? a. low-input, high-density b. low-input, high-diversity c. low-inflow, high-density d. low-inflow, high-diversity e. late-in grass, high-dependence ANSWER: b 34. Compared with gasoline, biofuels produce fewer greenhouse emissions. Which biofuel produces the FEWEST greenhouse gas emissions when compared with gasoline? a. corn grain ethanol b. high-input biofuels c. soybean biodiesel d. LIHD grasses grown on farmland e. LIHD grasses grown on marginal land ANSWER: e 35. Which factor is NOT a benefit of switching from corn ethanol to cellulosic ethanol? a. potential to circumvent the food controversy by not occupying land that could support food crops b. resistance to many pests and plant diseases Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.3 c. requirement of less fertilizer d. consumption of less energy for production e. ease of scaling up production ANSWER: e 36. Refer to Infographic 4. Use the data from the energy return on energy investment comparison graph to determine which crop offers the HIGHEST net energy return (output − input).

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Module 11.3

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Module 11.3 37. Which effect is NOT observed when switchgrass is grown in a high-diversity mix of plant species instead of as a monoculture? a. less irrigation b. less management c. more fertilizer because plants are competing with each other d. a lot more biomass being produced e. more biofuel for fewer inputs ANSWER: c 38. Bioethanol that is produced by breaking down cellulose in plants is called: a. cellulosic ethanol. b. starch ethanol. c. plant ethanol. d. cellulose sequestering. e. cellulosic sequestering.

ANSWER: a 39. While starch from corn is soft, cellulose in grasses is: a. complex. b. durable. c. not easily degraded. d. All of these answers describe cellulose in grasses. e. None of these answers describe cellulose in grasses.

ANSWER: d 40. Which method is NOT currently in use to tear apart the strong chemical bonds of cellulose in grasses? a. low temperatures b. high temperatures c. acid d. enzymes e. feedstock ANSWER: a 41. Which statement is a benefit to using crops, such as switchgrass, to produce cellulosic ethanol? a. It makes use of exhausted farmland. b. It does not displace food production. c. Production consumes less energy. d. These crops are perennials. e. All of these statements are benefits of cellulosic crops.

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Module 11.3 ANSWER: e 42. Carbon _____ refers to the process where a plant absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and then stores carbon in its roots. a. absorption b. storing c. loading d. sequestration ANSWER: d 43. Describe some benefits of making cellulosic ethanol from switchgrass.

ANSWER: Cellulosic ethanol has the potential to circumvent the food controversy since cellulosic crops do not need to occupy land that supports food crops. Switchgrass is resistant to many pests and plant diseases and requires little fertilization, so it consumes less energy to produce. This is especially true if switchgrass is grown in high-diversity mixtures of many plant species. Also, it absorbs carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and stores carbon in its roots. This is important because switchgrass is a perennial plant; much of the plant (and its carbon) would remain behind in the deep root system, ready to grow again after harvesting.

44. How would the production of cellulosic ethanol circumvent the "food versus fuel" controversy?

ANSWER: Cellulosic ethanol can be produced from crops, such as switchgrass. Switchgrass can be grown on land that cannot support food crops, thus allowing the most fertile land to remain dedicated to food production. Switchgrass is also resistant to many pests and plant diseases, requires very little fertilizer, and consumes very little energy in the production process.

45. Which step is needed in cellulosic ethanol production that is not needed in production from grain ethanol? a. preparation b. pretreatment c. enzymatic cellulose breakdown d. fermentation e. distillation ANSWER: c 46. What is a barrier to producing ethanol from cellulosic feedstocks on a large scale? a. It is a slow process. b. It is expensive. c. It requires high temperatures. d. It can be energy-intensive. e. All of these answers are barriers to producing ethanol from cellulosic feedstocks.

ANSWER: e 47. Refer to Infographic 5. In which step in the conversion of cellulose to ethanol is the raw material chopped or ground into small, uniform-sized pieces?

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Module 11.3

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Module 11.3 48. Ethanol CANNOT be produced from the biological fermentation of: a. corn. b. algae. c. sugarcane. d. switchgrass. e. None of these answers is correct—ethanol can be produced from the biological fermentation of any plant material.

ANSWER: e 49. When producing grain ethanol, _____ is the step involved in heating the mixture to kill bacteria. a. pretreatment b. fermentation c. mashing d. enzymatic cellulose breakdown e. distillation ANSWER: c 50. Refer to Infographic 5. Describe the production of grain ethanol and cellulosic ethanol. Why is it more challenging to produce ethanol from plants with high cellulose content compared with producing it from grain?

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Module 11.3 51. What has recently become an attractive alternative to using grains (corn) or sugarcane to make bioethanol?

Briefly describe what sources are used and why its production efficiency is currently an issue.

ANSWER: Recently, cellulosic ethanol that can be produced from plant material, such as switchgrass (or other grasses, trees, or the non-edible parts of crops), has become a popular alternative to corn ethanol. It is made by breaking down cellulose in plants. However, this is a difficult process because strong chemical reactions are required to break down cellulose, compared with the ease of starch breakdown. Because of this technical hurdle, the process has yet to be scaled up to meet large production goals.

52. There are a couple of by-products in bioethanol production. Discuss what they are and what happens to them when they are removed from ethanol production.

ANSWER: The by-product for producing grain ethanol is residual grain, which is further processed and sold as animal feed. Toward the end of cellulosic ethanol production, the enzymes used to break down the cellulose cannot break down lignin. Lignin is another organic molecule that is similar to cellulose and found in plant material. Lignin is separated and burned to create electricity to power the facility making the cellulosic ethanol.

53. Which plant is predicted to generate the MOST oil per acre in biodiesel production? a. algae b. switchgrass c. soybeans d. rapeseed e. oil palms ANSWER: a 54. Which statement is FALSE regarding biodiesel production? a. Biodiesel is mixed with water to capture impurities. b. There is no production process required. c. Feedstocks include vegetable oils, animal fats, or recycled greases. d. It can be produced on small or large scales. e. It is a multistep process.

ANSWER: b 55. Which factor faces a challenge when making biofuel from algae? a. meeting fresh water requirements b. competing with food crops c. paying the high expenses of oil production facilities d. convincing companies to invest in turning algae oil into fuel ANSWER: c 56. Which statement is FALSE regarding biodiesel? a. It is the only biofuel to be certified by the EPA. Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.3 b. It comprises only a small portion of the biofuels produced today. c. It can be produced from soybeans as well as from animal fats. d. It can be used in both diesel and gasoline engines.

ANSWER: d 57. Which trade-off of traditional biofuels, like ethanol produced from corn, can be addressed by using algae as a biofuel source? a. using large amounts of fresh water to grow and process the source b. overharvesting of a biofuel source that negatively affects the local ecosystem c. using farmland for biofuel source production d. All of these answers can address using algae as a biofuel source. e. None of these answers can address using algae as a biofuel source.

ANSWER: d 58. What are some advantages and disadvantages of using algae for biofuel?

ANSWER: Algae can be grown as a feedstock for biofuels. Biodiesel is the most common product, as it has the highest oil production potential per acre compared with other crops such as soy, sunflower, coconut, or oil palms. It is an extremely fast-growing organism, and the fuel produced contains no sulfur and is nontoxic and biodegradable. In addition, the sugars in algae can be extracted to produce ethanol, while the solids can be harvested to produce a high-protein animal feed. Self-contained operations can grow lots of algae in a small space (in tubes or vats) or in outdoor algae ponds, which take up more land area. Other advantages include non-competition with food and the ability to grow on salty water, so they don't use up fresh water. Disadvantages are that it is difficult to maintain ideal conditions for algae to maximize oil production, and the facilities are expensive. In addition, as a new biofuel, infrastructure is not yet in place as it is for other more established biofuels such as corn.

59. There are five main steps involved in biodiesel production. Briefly recount the process beginning with the type of feedstock used.

ANSWER: Biodiesel production uses vegetable oils, animal fats, or recycled greases as the feedstock.

Pretreatment filters the feedstock to remove water and contaminants. During the production phase, lye (a strong base) and methanol are mixed in with the oil. This creates the biodiesel and some other products, which go through the separation process to isolate the biodiesel. The final step is to wash the biodiesel with water to catch any impurities. The purified biodiesel is pumped into tanks and transported to stations.

60. During the biodiesel production phase, there are a couple of chemicals that must be separated once the biodiesel is formed. What are these chemicals and what happens to them?

ANSWER: When lye and methanol are added to the oil, it produces biodiesel and glycerin. The methanol, used in the production phase, remains, is cleaned and recycled back to the production phase and used again. The glycerin gets separated, purified, and sold to other industries for various uses.

61. Which example is NOT a driving habit that maximizes fuel economy? a. using cruise control Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.3 b. keeping tires properly inflated c. avoiding carrying excess weight in the vehicle d. keeping the car idling when parked briefly and avoiding turning the car on and off e. combining trips and planning your route to avoid backtracking ANSWER: d 62. Driving habits that maximize fuel economy do NOT include: a. keeping your vehicle in tune by scheduling regular maintenance appointments. b. avoiding idling and turning off your car if you will be parked, even briefly. c. maintaining 70 miles per hour on the highway to decrease the time the engine is running. d. avoiding carrying excess weight in the vehicle. e. None of these answers are driving habits that maximize mileage.

ANSWER: c 63. Which example is a way to improve a vehicle's energy efficiency? a. construction with lighter materials b. more aerodynamic shapes c. incorporation of hybrid technologies d. more energy-efficient engines e. All of these examples improve a vehicle's energy efficiency.

ANSWER: e 64. Although it is clear that alternative energy sources, such as bioethanol and biodiesel, are reducing fossil fuel usage, _____ is also a key strategy to reducing our dependence on fossil fuels. a. desalination b. development of vertical farming c. conservation d. sequestration ANSWER: c 65. What is a limiting factor for fuel crop production? a. carbon footprint b. available land c. feedstocks d. nitrogen fertilizer use e. climate change ANSWER: b 66. List and describe at least five habits drivers can employ to maximize mileage and conserve energy.

ANSWER: Drivers can do the following to maximize mileage and conserve energy: drive more efficiently by not being an aggressive driver, not speeding, using cruise control, and avoiding idling. Drivers Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.3 should take care of their car by getting a tune-up at regular intervals, keeping tires properly inflated, and unloading the trunk. Furthermore, they should plan outings by combining trips and planning a route or commuting with others.

67. David Tilman's research revealed that some biofuels are better choices than others, based on the source, such as the low-input, high-diversity (LIHD) cultivated crops. How do LIHD crops reduce carbon emissions?

ANSWER: Tilman's research revealed that the LIHD crops were more productive per acre, and their cultivation resulted in no net release of CO2 when converting natural land for planting LIHD crops. As well, when planting LIHD crops to restore degraded croplands, the net carbon release turned into net carbon storage.

68. If biofuels become a major part of the world's fuel supply, how might it lead to higher greenhouse gas emissions, and what are the key factors to reduce the carbon footprint with respect to transportation?

ANSWER: If biofuels become a large part of the world's fuel supply, it might lead to people driving more with the thought that the fuel they are using is carbon-neutral or carbon-negative. Whether the biofuel is carbon-neutral or -negative, more travel will increase the carbon footprint, leading to an increase in greenhouse gas emissions. The key factors to help reduce the carbon footprint, then, would require people to choose the right type of biofuel for their vehicles and to continue using less overall.

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Module 11.1 1. Nuclear power plants use _____ to boil water and produce steam, which is then used to generate electricity. a. heat b. coal c. oil d. fossil fuels e. petroleum ANSWER: a 2. Isotopes are atoms that have the same number of _____ but a different number of _____. a. neutrons; protons b. protons; neutrons c. protons; electrons d. electrons; protons e. neutrons; electrons ANSWER: b 3. An atom that spontaneously emits subatomic particles and/or energy is called: a. radioactive. b. isotopic. c. fissionary. d. fusionary.

ANSWER: a 4. The simplest form of matter that cannot be broken down by chemical means is a(n): a. element. b. isotope. c. atom. d. uranium isotope. e. helium element.

ANSWER: c 5. While the number of _____ in the atom of an element is unique, the number of _____ can vary. a. neutrons; protons b. neutrons; electrons c. protons; neutrons d. protons; electrons e. electrons; protons ANSWER: c 6. _____ occurs when an atom is split or combines with another to form a new atom.

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Module 11.1 a. Nuclear decay b. A half-life c. Nuclear fusion d. Nuclear energy ANSWER: d 7. Atoms that have different numbers of neutrons in their nucleus but the same number of protons are known as: a. decay products. b. half-lives. c. isotopes. d. neutral.

ANSWER: c 8. The mass number for an element is composed of: a. electrons and protons. b. protons and neutrons. c. neutrons and electrons. d. protons. e. neutrons.

ANSWER: b 9. Which isotope could be composed of 92 protons and 146 neutrons? a. uranium-235 b. uranium-238 c. plutonium-241 d. plutonium-236 ANSWER: b 10. Radioactive isotopes are important for producing electricity because: a. they can be converted directly into electricity. b. electrons from the isotopes are separated and used for electricity. c. the heat from their fission is used to create steam, which is converted to electricity. d. All of these answer choices reflect the importance of radioactive isotopes for producing electricity. e. None of these answer choices reflect the importance of radioactive isotopes for producing electricity.

ANSWER: c 11. What are the similarities and differences between uranium-238 and uranium-235?

ANSWER: Both are radioactive isotopes of uranium, and each of their nuclei contains 92 protons. U-238 has a greater number of neutrons, 146, than U-235, which has 143. The larger number of neutrons results in U-238 being a heavier atom and a more stable form than the lighter U-235.

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Module 11.1 12. Thermoelectric power is one way to generate electricity. Compare and contrast nuclear energy with other forms of thermoelectric power, including a basic definition.

ANSWER: Thermoelectric power refers to using heat to generate electricity. Nuclear energy, as well as power plants that use fossil fuels (i.e., coal, natural gas), utilize heat to boil water to produce steam. The steam turns the turbine, which generates electricity. Therefore, the main difference in thermoelectric power using nuclear energy is that it occurs in a controlled nuclear reaction, whereas other power plants use fossil fuels to generate heat.

13. The fundamental unit of matter is the atom. Describe the three subatomic particles that make up an atom, including their location and characteristics of each particle that distinguish them from each other.

ANSWER: The three subatomic particles that make up an atom are protons, neutrons, and electrons. Both protons and neutrons are located in the nucleus of the atom, while electrons orbit around the outside of the nucleus. Protons are positively charged particles, neutrons are neutral and do not carry a charge, and electrons are negatively charged particles.

14. Why is U-235 used more in nuclear reactors than U-238 is? a. U-235 is more abundant. b. U-235 is cheaper to mine. c. U-235 is more reactive. d. U-235 has fewer externalities. e. U-235 produces less harmful radiation.

ANSWER: c 15. _____ rods are used in a nuclear plant to absorb neutrons and regulate the speed of the fission chain reaction. a. Fuel b. Nuclear c. Regulatory d. Control e. Mechanical ANSWER: d 16. Radioactive tailings are created in which step of the nuclear fuel production? a. mining the ore b. milling c. enrichment d. fuel production e. decommissioning of the nuclear plant ANSWER: b 17. High cancer rates are observed in workers who mine U-235 because U-235 naturally decays into: a. radon.

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Module 11.1 b. mercury. c. lead. d. carbon dioxide. e. carbon monoxide.

ANSWER: a 18. Yellowcake is produced by which step of the nuclear fuel process? a. mining b. milling c. enrichment d. fuel rod assembly e. disposal ANSWER: b 19. Refer to Infographic 2. Explain why the mining of uranium ore is hazardous for the miners.

ANSWER: Any mining process can be hazardous for miners. But U-235 naturally decays into radon gas. Radon gas is a very heavy, radioactive gas that settles in low places. Miners are exposed to this gas, and as a result, have higher rates of cancer than the rest of the population.

20. Refer to Infographic 2. The process of generating nuclear energy produces hazardous waste at every step.

Speculate on the hazards of milling and enriching the uranium.

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ANSWER: Milling requires either an alkaline or acidic solution that must be dealt with after use. One ton of ore

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Module 11.1 21. Once enriched uranium has been formed into approximately 1 cm × 1 cm pellets, they are placed into a fuel rod assembly. Describe the fuel rod assembly in detail, beginning with the fuel rods, the number of fuel rods in an assembly, the number of assemblies in a reactor core, and the longevity and replacement times.

ANSWER: Small enriched uranium pellets are stacked inside thin, hollow fuel rods, which are between 3 and 6 meters in length. Anywhere from 50 to 300 fuel rods are in each assembly. More than 100 fuel rod assemblies are placed inside the reactor core, which is a thick-walled steel vessel. The assemblies last anywhere from 1 to 2 years (depending on the number of fuel rods and assemblies in the reactor), and it takes a few weeks to refuel the assemblies, which requires shutting down the reactor during this time.

22. How is a pressure water reactor different from a boiling water reactor? a. In a pressure water reactor, the steam that turns the turbine is not exposed to radiation. b. In a pressure water reactor, steam is produced in the reactor core itself. c. In a pressure water reactor, only the turbine is exposed to radiation during electricity production. d. In a boiling water reactor, the water heated by fuel rods is never exposed to the turbine. e. In a boiling water reactor, steam is produced outside the reactor core.

ANSWER: a 23. Why is water valuable in the production of nuclear energy? a. Water cools control rods. b. Water produces steam. c. Water prevents the reactor from overheating. d. Water both produces steam and prevents the reactor from overheating. e. Water cools control rods, produces steam, and prevents the reactor from overheating.

ANSWER: e 24. _____ is a nuclear reaction that occurs when a neutron strikes the nucleus of an atom and breaks it into two or more parts. a. Nuclear fusion b. Nuclear fission c. Radioactive decay d. Cold fusion e. Cold fission ANSWER: b 25. A chain reaction is created in a nuclear plant when U-235 in the fuel rods is bombarded with _____, causing the nucleus to become unstable and split. a. neutrons b. electrons c. protons d. electricity Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.1 e. water ANSWER: a 26. Which statement about nuclear fission is NOT true? a. Nuclear fission splits the nucleus of an atom. b. Nuclear fission releases energy. c. Nuclear fission reactions depend on radioactive isotopes. d. Nuclear fission does not produce any heat.

ANSWER: d 27. What is the process of nuclear fission?

ANSWER: Nuclear fission is a nuclear reaction that occurs when a free neutron strikes the nucleus of an atom and breaks it into two or more component parts. Stated another way, it is a reaction that involves splitting an atom, and the splitting process gives off heat that can be used in generating electricity.

28. How do control rods regulate the rate of the nuclear reaction?

ANSWER: Control rods are made of materials such as boron or graphite that can absorb neutrons. Control rods are placed in the fuel rod assembly and control the rate of the nuclear reaction. Control rods can be added to slow or stop the reaction or removed to make the reaction go faster.

29. Refer to Infographic 3. Use the infographic to explain how a nuclear reaction happens.

ANSWER: A nuclear reaction begins with the splitting of an atom. The atom is bombarded with a neutron that breaks the atom into smaller atoms and releases free neutrons and heat. The free neutrons hit other atoms, causing them to split and release more neutrons. The rate of the reaction is controlled by the insertion of control rods that absorb the free neutrons.

30. Explain why nuclear power plants require a vast amount of water.

ANSWER: All types of thermoelectric power take a lot of water. Nuclear power plants require the most. Water Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.1 is needed not only to produce steam but also to keep spent fuel rods cool and to prevent the reaction from overheating. Without water to cool the fuel rods, the rods can melt down and release large amounts of radioactivity.

31. Explain the process involved in producing energy in a fission reactor, starting with U-235 and ending with the production of electricity. Be sure to mention the words "fuel rods" and "control rods."

ANSWER: The nuclear fission process that produces electricity is a chain reaction that begins in the fuel rods.

First, a U-235 atom in the fuel rods is bombarded with a neutron, making the nucleus unstable and causing it to split into two or more smaller atoms. When the atom splits into smaller atoms, it releases neutrons. These additional neutrons bombard even more U-235 atoms, causing them to split and release further quantities of neutrons. Each time a U-235 atom splits, a small amount of heat is also released from the reaction. This heat from the reaction is used to boil water, which then produces steam. The steam is used to turn turbines and create electricity. Control rods are placed among the fuel rods to control the speed of the reaction because the chain reaction is almost instantaneous and needs to be highly controlled.

32. What are some safety precautions used in the production of nuclear energy?

ANSWER: Unlike nuclear bomb reactions, the reactions used to boil water and generate energy are highly controlled. One control is the use of control rods, which are made of materials that absorb neutrons.

They slow down the fission reaction by reducing the number of neutrons available to react with the radioactive isotopes. Tremendous amounts of water are also used to help keep the production of nuclear energy safe. Water cools the fuel rods and prevents the reactor from overheating.

33. During radioactive decay, radioactive isotopes can give off which of the following? a. gamma radiation b. heat c. particles d. gamma radiation, heat, and particles e. both gamma radiation and heat ANSWER: d 34. Which example is a high-energy photon? a. alpha radiation b. beta radiation c. gamma radiation d. both alpha and beta radiation ANSWER: c 35. Which statement BEST describes alpha particles? a. They have the greatest potential to cause serious health problems. b. It takes thick concrete to stop them. c. They can penetrate upper layers of skin. d. They can be stopped by a sheet of paper.

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Module 11.1 e. They can be stopped by heavy clothing.

ANSWER: d 36. What is beta radiation? a. ionizing particle radiation that consists of two protons and two neutrons b. ionizing particle radiation that consists of electrons c. ionizing high-energy photons d. ionizing particle radiation that consists of two protons, two neutrons, and two electrons e. an electromagnetic wave ANSWER: b 37. Refer to Infographic 4. Three types of radiation are given off by radioactive isotopes. Name each one, describe their penetration ability, and explain if and how they are hazardous to humans.

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ANSWER: The three types of radiation given off by radioactive isotopes are alpha, beta, and gamma radiation.

Alpha particles are the largest of the three and cannot penetrate paper or skin. However, they can be

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Module 11.1 38. Even though the reactors had gone through a successful emergency shutdown after the March 2011 earthquake that hit 80 miles north of the Fukushima Nuclear Power Station, a hydrogen explosion still occurred.

What were the problems the Japanese officials faced that prevented them from stopping the explosion of the Number 1 reactor?

ANSWER: Heat was still being generated by the radioactive decay of the fission products in the fuel rods. There was a power outage from the earthquake, and the backup generators were in the basement of the plant, which was underwater from the tsunami. Because the backup generators were inoperable, the water pumps were disabled, so there was no addition of cool water being pumped to the reactor cores to cool down the fuel assemblies. The heat that continued to be generated in the fuel assemblies boiled off the water, and their attempts to cool down the reactor by dumping seawater via helicopters, as well as fire trucks using hoses designed for jet-fuel fires, was not enough to stop the explosion.

39. After the building that housed the Number 1 reactor exploded in the Fukushima nuclear event of 2011, a few days later, Number 2 and Number 3 reactors exploded as well. What happened during the time between the Number 1 reactor explosion and the other two reactors that kept the workers from venting the steam of Number 2 and Number 3?

ANSWER: After the building that housed the Number 1 reactor exploded, the radiation levels around the plant were so exponentially high that no one could go near any of the reactors. Because the workers could not vent the steam of either of the reactors, the increasing heat, steam build-up, and radiation caused the complete meltdown of the reactors, releasing large amounts of radiation.

40. The time it takes for 50% of the parent radioactive isotopes in a sample to decay to a new form is known as its: a. isotope. b. radioactivity. c. radioactive half-life. d. nuclear energy.

ANSWER: c 41. What is emitted during radioactive decay? a. gamma radiation b. heat c. subatomic particles d. energy e. All of these answer choices are emitted during radioactive decay.

ANSWER: e 42. A radioactive particle that has gone through 2 half-lives retains what percent of its parent material? a. 200% b. 100% c. 50% Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.1 d. 25% e. 2% ANSWER: d 43. Which choice for an isotope represents the GREATEST production of daughter atoms? a. 1 half-life b. 2 half-lives c. 3 half-lives d. 4 half-lives e. 5 half-lives ANSWER: e 44. Refer to Infographic 5. If the half-life of a certain radioactive isotope is 5 years and 100 atoms of parent material exist in the original sample, how many parent atoms will be present in the sample after 10 years?

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a. 100 b. 75

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Module 11.1 45. What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope, and how long is it?

ANSWER: The half-life of a radioactive isotope is the time it takes to decay. It is expressed as the time required for half of the isotope to decay and form new daughter material. Radioactive isotopes continue to decay from one form to the next until they form a stable isotope that no longer gives off particles.

The length of a half-life is different for each radioactive isotope.

46. Disposal of radioactive waste from the generation of nuclear power is a controversial topic. Given what you know about radioactive decay, why would environmentalists be concerned about the generation of all this waste?

ANSWER: Environmentalists are concerned about radioactive waste for a variety of reasons. One important reason is that the half-life of the decay of uranium-235 to a stable form (lead) takes around 700 million years. That is a long time for something to be around that can potentially damage Earth's ecosystems. The fact that no one has figured out yet how to safely dispose of the waste is another concerning issue.

47. What is the general rule of thumb regarding radioactive material and half-lives? What would be the significance if a highly radioactive material had a half-life of 100 years?

ANSWER: The general rule of thumb for a radioactive material to have decayed enough to consider it safe occurs after ten half-lives. If a radioactive material had a half-life of 100 years, that means it would be 1,000 years later that the material would have decayed enough to be rendered safe.

48. Which statement is NOT true concerning the storage of high-level radioactive waste (HLRW) in the United States? a. We do not have a reliable long-term storage site for these wastes. b. We are running out of space in the short-term steel-lined pools the wastes are stored in. c. The longest half-life of materials in the HLRW is about 2,000 years. d. Some sites are storing the waste in large steel casks. e. Approximately 65,000 metric tons of HLRW are currently in storage in the United States.

ANSWER: c 49. Congress authorized a controversial, long-term storage facility, but construction was stopped after 15 years.

What stopped the construction? a. A better site was found. b. An act of Congress stopped construction. c. The local people protested and wouldn't allow construction to continue. d. President Obama halted construction, though the problem and controversy remain. e. A tsunami made the site unsuitable.

ANSWER: d 50. One of the hazardous issues in producing electricity with nuclear fuel is the large quantity of water it requires. Which statement does NOT describe one of the uses of water when producing electricity with nuclear fuel?

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Module 11.1 a. Without water, fuel rods will melt and release radon gas. b. Water is needed to produce the steam to turn the turbines. c. Without water, fuel rods will release radioactivity. d. Fuel rods will get hot and react with the steam to produce explosive hydrogen gas. e. Water is needed to keep the reactor from overheating.

ANSWER: a 51. Low-level radioactive waste: a. can usually be safely buried. b. has low amounts of radiation relative to its volume. c. includes clothing and tools exposed to radioactive material. d. is stored at four sites in the United States. e. All of these answers are true about LLRW. ANSWER: e 52. Where are spent fuel rods currently stored? a. at long-term storage sites b. in steel-lined pools c. in Yucca Mountain, Nevada d. underground in emptied magma chambers e. in developing countries ANSWER: b 53. Spent fuel rods are one of the wastes associated with the production of nuclear energy. Spent fuel rods are classified as: a. LLRW (low-level radioactive waste). b. MLRW (medium-level radioactive waste). c. HLRW (high-level radioactive waste). d. recoverable waste. e. tritiated waste.

ANSWER: c 54. How can nuclear waste best be disposed of?

ANSWER: The three main options for disposal of nuclear waste are a geologic repository, storage, and recycling. Most scientists agree that the best solution for long-term disposal of nuclear waste is burying it deep in Earth in a geological repository. Most nuclear plants store nuclear fuel in large steel-lined concrete pools filled with water. However, this method of storage is only a short-term solution. Used nuclear fuel rods can be disposed of by recycling the unused fuel inside.

55. After about five years, spent fuel rods have had time to decay to safer levels in steel-lined pools, and are then taken out and moved to dry storage. Generalize how a dry cask storage system works.

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Module 11.1 ANSWER: The spent fuel rods are stored in large concrete-encased steel casks. Inside the cask, the rods are placed in a lead-lined steel cylinder and held securely in a protective framework that prevents the rods from getting too close to each other, which could cause stray neutrons to initiate a fission reaction. They are also surrounded by material similar to control rods (that absorb neutrons) and an inert gas (i.e., helium), both of which are involved in preventing fission reactions from stray neutrons. The lead-lined cylinders are encased in concrete, and both materials help prevent the release of radiation, while dissipating heat. To date, cask storage of spent rods has worked well, but they are still considered a temporary storage solution.

56. What does the Nuclear Waste Policy Act (1982) mandate and has the law made any progress?

ANSWER: The Nuclear Waste Policy Act of 1982 is a federal law that mandates that the federal Department of Energy build and operate a long-term repository for the disposal of high-level radioactive waste (HLRW). The law identified deep underground storage as the best way to dispose of HLRW, establishing guidelines for research and development into permanent repositories. The Yucca Mountain site in Nevada was selected for this permanent repository, but it has met with so much debate that in 2010, President Obama halted its construction. As of early 2020, no formal decision has been made to continue the construction of the underground storage facility, and currently, HLRW remains in temporary storage, aboveground, in dry cask storage facilities throughout the U.S. 57. The first major nuclear accident was at: a. Chernobyl. b. Three Mile Island. c. Fukushima. d. Palo. e. There have been no major nuclear power plant accidents.

ANSWER: b 58. Which president was the first to talk about the benefits of nuclear energy instead of its horrors? a. Truman b. Roosevelt c. Eisenhower d. Carter e. Nixon ANSWER: c 59. What were the steam explosions at Fukushima rated on the International Nuclear and Radiological Event Scale? a. Level 1 incident b. Level 3 incident c. Level 4 accident d. Level 5 accident e. Level 7 accident Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.1 ANSWER: e 60. The Chernobyl nuclear accident was caused by: a. an earthquake. b. a tsunami. c. human error. d. an electrical failure. e. a cooling malfunction.

ANSWER: c 61. Refer to the graphic below. The International Nuclear and Radiological Event Scale was created after the Three Mile Island and Chernobyl nuclear accidents. What is its purpose, and discuss what the scale means by an "accident" and an "incident."

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Module 11.1 62. The former Soviet Union's Chernobyl nuclear accident of 1986 and Japan's Fukushima nuclear accident of 2011 were both assigned the highest level (7) based on the International Nuclear and Radiological Event scale.

There were more immediate consequences for the area and people that occurred in Chernobyl than in Fukushima. What did Japanese officials do differently to protect the people living near the Fukushima Power Plant that the former Soviet Union did not do during the Chernobyl nuclear accident?

ANSWER: The former Soviet government did not immediately notify the public or neighboring countries of the accident, which delayed protective actions that would have reduced radiation exposure to the populations affected. The Japanese government evacuated the residents and provided iodine tablets to the people, to protect against radioactive iodine exposure. In Fukushima, no local residents have died from illnesses associated with radiation exposure. By contrast, no one will know the full ramifications of the radiation exposure in Chernobyl, although a rough estimate of over 94,000 premature deaths will be associated with radiation exposure.

63. Which statement is NOT one of the causes of the high expense involved in nuclear power production? a. It costs about twice as much to build a nuclear power plant as it does to build one that utilizes fossil fuels. b. Nuclear power plants last about 40 years. c. Nuclear plants are expensive to decommission. d. Nuclear fuel is three times as expensive as fossil fuels. e. Nuclear plants are more expensive to maintain than conventional plants, partly because the disposal of the fuel is costly.

ANSWER: d 64. Compared with coal-fired plants, nuclear power plants are more: a. likely to release particulates and gases. b. susceptible to natural disasters. c. likely to explode. d. likely to pollute the water. e. likely to cause an enhanced greenhouse effect.

ANSWER: b 65. A cost-benefit analysis of all our energy resources must include: a. environmental costs. b. monetary costs of kilowatt-hours. c. social costs. d. risk assessments. e. All of these answer choices are included in a cost and benefit analysis.

ANSWER: e 66. _____ provides the CLEANEST source of energy. a. Coal Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.1 b. Oil c. Oil shale d. Natural gas e. Nuclear power ANSWER: e 67. What is one criticism of nuclear energy–development projects? a. They would upset the fossil fuel–based global economy. b. Some methods of power generation create radioisotopes that can be used in weapons. c. Power production cannot be increased or decreased to reflect demand. d. Fuels used in nuclear power are not as energy-rich as coal.

ANSWER: b 68. Explain how using uranium as a fuel to produce energy is an advantage as far as availability goes versus the availability of fossil fuels.

ANSWER: Uranium ore is currently more plentiful than the remaining reserves of fossil fuels. Also, 1 pound of uranium contains the same amount of energy as 100,000 pounds of coal, resulting in comparable costs per kilowatt-hour.

69. Refer to Infographic 3. The Fukushima plant was a boiling water reactor. Why did this make preventing an explosion in the plant after the earthquake and tsunami more difficult? Would it have been easier if it had been a pressurized water reactor?

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ANSWER: A boiling water plant produces the steam in the reactor core and then sends it to the turbine. This means that the steam would need to be vented after the earthquake to prevent an explosion.

However, venting the steam to the outside would release radioactivity into the air. For this reason, plant operators were reluctant to vent the steam. In a pressure water boiler, the radioactive water from the core is used to heat a second batch of water to steam. Therefore, venting the steam would not have released radioactivity.

70. Discuss the safety of living near a nuclear power plant relative to living near a coal-fired power plant.

ANSWER: Data show no increased risk of birth defects for those living near a nuclear plant compared with those living farther away. But another study shows that the number of cancer-related deaths does increase the closer one lives to a coal-fired plant. Research shows that living near a nuclear plant is actually safer than living near a coal plant.

71. Do you think nuclear energy should replace energy generated from fossil fuels? Make your argument by Copyright Macmillan Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Module 11.1 highlighting costs, electricity production, pollution and safety, and supplies.

ANSWER: Answers will vary. Refer to Infographic 8 for a list of advantages and disadvantages concerning nuclear energy.

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