Radiographic Pathology for Technologists 8th Edition by Kowalczyk |TEST BANK

Complete Test Bank Radiographic Pathology for Technologists 8th Edition Kowalczyk Questions & Answers with rationales (Chapter 1-12) Chapter 1: Introduction to Pathology Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The sequence of events producing cellular changes following injury best defines: a. manifestations. b. pathogenesis. c. sign. d. symptom.

ANS: B

REF: p. 2

2. An abnormal disturbance of the function and structure of the human body following injury

refers to: a. disease. b. etiology. c. manifestations. d. pathogenesis.

ANS: A

REF: p. 2

3. The study of the cause of disease is termed: a. disease. b. etiology. c. pathogenesis. d. prognosis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 2

4. Common agents that cause disease include:

1. bacteria.

2. chemicals.

3. heat. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 2

5. A syndrome is best defined as: a. a genetic abnormality of a single protein. b. an adverse response to medical treatment.

c. the patient’s perception of the disease. d. signs and symptoms that characterize a specific abnormal disturbance.

ANS: D

REF: p. 2

6. An adverse response to medical treatment itself is termed: a. autoimmune.

b. iatrogenic. c. idiopathic. d. nosocomial.

ANS: B

REF: p. 3

7. Prognosis refers to: a. diseases usually having a quick onset. b. the name of the particular disease. c. the predicted course and outcome of the disease. d. the structure of cells or tissue.

ANS: C

REF: p. 3

8. Diseases that generally require a decrease in the exposure technique are considered: a. destructive. b. lytic. c. subtractive. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

REF: p. 3

9. The investigation of disease occurring in large groups best defines: a. epidemiology. b. incidence. c. prevalence. d. all of the above.

ANS: A

REF: p. 3

10. Data regarding the number of deaths caused by a particular disease averaged over a population

are collected and reported by the: a. American College of Radiology. b. Centers for Disease Control. c. Food and Drug Administration. d. National Center for Health Statistics.

ANS: D

REF: p. 2

11. Which of the following are leading causes of death in the United States for adults aged 45

years and greater?

1. Heart disease 2. Malignant neoplasm 3. Polycystic kidney disease a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 4

12. In 2010, health spending accounted for approximately

product.

% of the U.S. gross domestic

a. b. c. d.

12 17 21 33

ANS: B

REF: p. 7

13. Each cell in the human body, except the reproductive cells, contains

chromosomes and a. 11; 1 b. 11; 2 c. 22; 1 d. 22; 2 ANS: D

pairs of autosomal

sex chromosomes.

REF: p. 8

14. The types of gene maps that grew out of the identification of DNA sequences include

maps.

1. genetic 2. SNP 3. physical a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B

REF: p. 8

15. The identification of common DNA pattern sequences and common patterns of genetic

variations of single DNA bases resulted in: a. the Genome Project. b. genetic linkage maps. c. haplotype mapping. d. physical mapping.

ANS: C

REF: p. 8

16. Diseases that are present at birth from genetic or environmental factors are classified as: a. congenital. b. degenerative. c. genetic. d. metabolic.

ANS: A

REF: p. 10

17. A genetic disorder caused by an abnormality on one of the 22 nonsex chromosomes is

considered: a. autosomal. b. dominant. c. recessive. d. sex linked.

ANS: A

REF: p. 11

18. A protein coat surrounding a genome of either RNA or DNA without an organized cellular

structure best describes which type of microorganism? a. Bacteria b. Fungi c. Virus d. All of the above ANS: C

REF: p. 11

19. The ease with which a pathogenic organism can overcome the body’s defenses best describes: a. etiology. b. infection. c. pathogenesis. d. virulence.

ANS: D

REF: p. 12

20. Diseases caused by the disturbance of normal physiologic function are classified as: a. degenerative. b. metabolic. c. neoplastic. d. traumatic.

ANS: B

REF: p. 13

21. The lymph node into which the primary neoplasm drains during metastasis is termed the a. b. c. d.

node. primary sentinel metastatic neoplastic

ANS: B

REF: p. 14

22. The spread of cancerous cells into surrounding tissue by virtue of the close proximity best

describes: a. lymphatic spread. b. hematogenous spread. c. invasion. d. oncogenesis.

ANS: C

REF: p. 16

23. Cancer originating in epithelial tissue is termed: a. carcinoma. b. leukemia. c. lymphoma. d. sarcoma.

ANS: A

REF: p. 16

24. In classification of a tumor using the TNM system, the T refers to the: a. size of the primary tumor. b. lymph node involvement. c. distant metastasis. d. histologic grading of the primary tumor.

ANS: A

REF: p. 16

25. Which of the following imaging modalities are used in the staging of neoplastic tumors?

1. CT 2. PET 3. MRI a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 16

26. In the treatment of neoplastic disease, interferons and interleukins are associated with: a. chemotherapy. b. radiation therapy. c. hormone therapy. d. immunotherapy.

ANS: D

REF: p. 16

MATCHING

Altered Cell Biology Directions: Match the type of altered cell biology with the correct description. a. A generalized decrease in cell size b. A generalized increase in cell size c. An increase in the number of cells in tissue as a result of excessive proliferation d. Conversion of one cell type into another cell type e. Abnormal changes of mature cells 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

Hypertrophy Atrophy Metaplasia Hyperplasia Dysplasia

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: E

TRUE/FALSE

REF: p. 9 REF: p. 9 REF: p. 10 REF: p. 9 REF: p. 10

1. A tumor consisting of differentiated cells has a higher probability for malignancy.

ANS: F

REF: p. 14

2. A histologic evaluation of a primary cancer that is graded as an “I” is considered well

differentiated.

ANS: T

REF: p. 16

Chapter 2: Skeletal System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which primary bone tumor should be investigated with the utilization of CT? a. Osteosarcoma b. Osteoid osteoma c. Chondrosarcoma d. Ewing sarcoma ANS: B

REF: p. 48

2. A patient presents to his physician with anterior shoulder pain for several months. He has had

no recent injury and there is no relief with NSAIDs, ice, heat, and gentle range-of-motion exercises. Radiographs of the shoulder demonstrate small microcalcifications of the subacromial space. What is the differential diagnosis? a. Rotator cuff tear b. Labral tear c. Calcific tendinitis d. Anterior shoulder dislocation ANS: C

REF: p. 39

3. Which of the following characteristics does NOT assist in the differentiation between a

primary metastatic bone lesion as compared to a secondary metastatic bone lesion? a. Soft tissue mass b. Periosteal reaction c. Length of lesion d. Calcification of blood vessels ANS: D

REF: p. 54

4. What skeletal pathology presents radiographically with a “soap bubble” appearance? a. Giant cell tumor b. Ewing sarcoma c. Osteoid osteoma d. Osteoblastoma ANS: A

REF: p. 50

5. Osteopetrosis requires what type of technical factor change? a. Increase b. Decrease c. No change ANS: A

REF: p. 27

6. Tenosynovitis requires what type of technical factor change? a. Increase b. Decrease

c. No change ANS: C

REF: p. 39

7. Which neoplasm involves a nidus? a. Osteoid osteoma b. Osteoblastoma c. Osteosarcoma d. Paget disease ANS: A

REF: p. 48

8. Which disease is congenital? a. Pott disease b. Osteoporosis c. Paget disease d. Osteogenesis imperfecta ANS: D

REF: p. 24

9. Spondylolysis is a result of a cleft or defect in the vertebral: a. pedicle. b. lamina. c. spinous process. d. pars interarticularis.

ANS: D

REF: p. 42

10. Diploë is specific to cancellous bone located in what anatomic structure? a. Femur b. Humerus c. Sternum d. Skull ANS: D

REF: p. 20

11. A 15-year-old male patient presents for a right knee series after sustaining a varus injury while

playing football. AP, lateral, and both oblique radiographs of the knee demonstrate an avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial plateau (Segond fracture). What additional imaging modality would be best utilized in the diagnosis for this patient? a. CT b. Knee arthrography c. MRI d. Nuclear medicine ANS: C

REF: p. 23

12. Heberden nodes and Bouchard nodes are associated with what skeletal pathology? a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteoarthritis c. Paget disease d. Pott disease

ANS: B

REF: p. 38

13. What skeletal pathology could be a contributing factor for a cervical rib? a. Scoliosis b. Spina bifida c. Spondylolisthesis d. Transitional vertebrae ANS: D

REF: p. 30

14. Which anatomic structure is NOT a common area for metastasis? a. Pelvis b. Carpals c. Skull d. Bony thorax ANS: B

REF: p. 53

15. “Brittle bone” disease is also known as: a. achondroplasia. b. DDH. c. osteogenesis imperfecta. d. osteopetrosis.

ANS: C

REF: p. 24

16. Congenital clubfoot is also known as: a. DDH. b. syndactyly. c. fibrous dysplasia. d. talipes.

ANS: D

REF: p. 28

17. The most common form of arthritis is: a. osteoarthritis. b. gouty arthritis. c. psoriatic arthritis. d. rheumatoid arthritis.

ANS: A

REF: p. 37

18. Marie-Strümpell disease or “bamboo spine” is a symptom of the pathology known as: a. ankylosing spondylitis. b. spondylolisthesis. c. spina bifida. d. scoliosis.

ANS: A

REF: p. 37

19. The forward slippage of one vertebra on another describes the pathology: a. spondylitis. b. spondylolisthesis.

c. spondylolysis. d. spina bifida.

ANS: B

REF: p. 40

20. What type of arthritis has tophi associated with it? a. Osteoarthritis b. Gouty arthritis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Rheumatoid arthritis ANS: B

REF: p. 39

21. What imaging modality demonstrates both simultaneous evaluation of bone and soft tissues

with quantitative metabolic data of osteosarcomas? a. CT b. Nuclear medicine bone scan c. Sonography d. PET scan ANS: D

REF: p. 51

22. Tuberculosis of the spine is commonly referred to as: a. Kienbock disease. b. Reiter syndrome. c. Apert syndrome. d. Pott disease.

ANS: D

REF: p. 33

23. The imaging modality that would best demonstrate osteomyelitis is: a. nuclear medicine. b. radiography. c. CT. d. sonography.

ANS: A

REF: p. 32

24. One of the most common areas for metastasis for osteosarcomas is to the: a. brain. b. breast. c. lung. d. colon.

ANS: C

REF: p. 51

25. A 30-year-old male presents with swelling and redness on his left knee. He states that he lays

carpet and rarely wears knee pads. The orthopedic surgeon decides to aspirate the swollen area and inject it with a corticosteroid. What would be the differential diagnosis? a. Calcific tendinitis b. Tenosynovitis c. Ganglion cyst d. Prepatellar bursitis

ANS: D

REF: p. 34

26. A malignant tumor composed of atypical cartilage is known as: a. chondrosarcoma. b. osteosarcoma. c. enchondroma. d. osteoid osteoma.

ANS: A

REF: p. 53

27. What skeletal pathology involves cysts in the metaphysis of long bones in individuals younger

than 20 years of age and consists of numerous blood-filled arteriovenous communications? a. Unicameral bone cyst b. Aneurysmal bone cyst c. Ganglion cyst d. Osteoid osteoma ANS: B

REF: p. 48

28. What type of aggressive bone-forming neoplasm that is most often located in the bone

marrow gives the radiographic appearance of a sunray or sunburst? a. Osteomyelitis b. Osteosarcoma c. Chondrosarcoma d. Multiple myeloma ANS: B

REF: p. 24

29. Which syndrome may involve craniosynostosis and syndactyly? a. Pott syndrome b. Reiter syndrome c. Kienbock syndrome d. Alpert syndrome ANS: D

REF: p. 50

30. Which of the following congenital skeletal pathologies involves failure of formation of the

cranial vault and is not conducive for life? a. Anencephaly b. Craniosynostosis c. Encephalopathy d. Osteomyelitis ANS: A

REF: p. 28

31. What imaging modality/ies would demonstrate developmental dysplasia of the hip?

1.

2.

3.

4.

CT MRI Radiography Sonography a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3

c. 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 ANS: B

REF: p. 31

32. A nuclear medicine bone scan is performed for a diagnosis of osteomyelitis of the right foot. If

this procedure is positive, what would the images demonstrate? a. Symmetry of both feet b. Increased uptake on the right foot (hot spot) c. Decreased uptake on the right foot (cold spot) ANS: C

REF: p. 28

33. A common radiographic finding with patients suffering from whiplash is: a. narrowed disk spaces. b. loss of lordosis. c. subluxation. d. erosion of vertebral body.

ANS: B

REF: p. 32

34. The most commonly inherited disorder affecting the skeletal system is: a. enchondroma. b. osteogenesis imperfecta. c. achondroplasia. d. syndactyly.

ANS: C

REF: p. 41

35. A 65-year-old female presents with bilateral knee pain and no history of injury. What

radiographic procedure should be obtained initially? a. Bilateral weight-bearing knee radiographs b. CT of both knees c. Arthrography of both knees d. MRI of both knees ANS: A

REF: p. 25

36. A 75-year-old patient with weight-bearing AP and lateral knee radiographs of the left knee

demonstrates a decreased medial joint compartment and osteophyte formation on the medial femoral condyle. What would be the initial diagnosis? a. Ewing sarcoma b. Osteoarthritis c. Reiter syndrome d. Osteomyelitis ANS: B

REF: p. 46

37. The primary site of ossification is the: a. epiphysis. b. metaphysis. c. diaphysis. d. epiphyseal plate.

ANS: C

REF: p. 37

TRUE/FALSE 1. The staging systems used for both benign and malignant skeletal lesions are identical.

ANS: T

REF: p. 21

Chapter 3: Respiratory System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following terms refers to the gas exchange between the respiratory and

circulatory systems? a. Aspiration b. Diffusion c. Inhalation d. Ventilation ANS: B

REF: p. 59

2. Which of the following body structures enclose the thoracic cavity?

1. Ribs 2. Sternum 3. Thoracic vertebrae a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 63

3. The American College of Radiology suggests that routine mobile chest radiographs are only

indicated for patients: 1. with acute cardiopulmonary conditions.

2. in the intensive care unit.

3. who are on a mechanical ventilator. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B

REF: p. 66

4. The current standard of care when a pulmonary embolus is suspected is a: a. PA and lateral chest radiograph. b. thoracic computed tomographic angiogram. c. nuclear medicine ventilation and perfusion scan. d. thoracic MRI. ANS: B

REF: p. 67

5. Low oxygen levels within the arterial blood and resulting from a failure of the gas exchange

function best describes: a. hypercapnia. b. hypoxemia. c. CPAP.

d. PPV. ANS: B

REF: p. 74

6. Cystic fibrosis is classified as a(n) a. genetic. b. inflammatory. c. degenerative. d. neoplastic.

ANS: A

disease.

REF: p. 75

7. The incomplete maturation of the type II alveolar cells within the surfactant-producing system

causes unstable alveoli resulting in: a. hyaline membrane disease. b. pneumonia. c. respiratory distress syndrome. d. more than one of the above.

ANS: D

REF: p. 76

8. Bacteria commonly responsible for typical pneumonia include:

1. Staphylococcus aureus.

2. parainfluenza.

3. H. influenza. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B

REF: p. 77

9. The most common lethal nosocomial infection in the United States is: a. bronchiectasis. b. COPD. c. pleurisy. d. pneumonia.

ANS: D

REF: p. 77

10. A permanent, abnormal dilatation of one or more large bronchi as a result of destruction of the

elastic and muscular components of the bronchial wall best describes: a. bronchiectasis. b. COPD. c. emphysema. d. pleurisy.

ANS: A

REF: p. 79

11. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may be caused by: a. chronic obstructive bronchitis. b. emphysema. c. both a and b.

ANS: C

REF: p. 82

12. Pneumoconioses result from inhalation of foreign substances and may include: a. anthracosis. b. asbestosis. c. silicosis. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

REF: p. 84

13. Patients presenting with a lung abscess often demonstrate which of the following clinical

manifestations?

1. Fever 2. Cough 3. Expectoration of pus a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 87

14. Pleural effusion is best described as: a. excess fluid collects in the pleural cavity. b. inflammation of the pleura. c. a cavity that is radiographically visible on a chest image. d. more than one of the above.

ANS: A

REF: p. 87

15. Which of the pathologies listed below is the most common fatal primary malignancy in the

United States, accounting for over 90% of all lung tumors? a. Bronchial carcinoid tumors b. Bronchogenic carcinoma c. Hematogenous metastatic lung disease d. Lymphogenous metastasis lung disease ANS: B

REF: p. 91

16. Which of the following pathologies of the respiratory system are classified as additive

pathologies?

1. Cystic fibrosis 2. Emphysema 3. Pleural effusion a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B

REF: p. 94

17. Chest radiography is the imaging modality of choice for the evaluation of:

1. bronchial adenoma.

2. hyaline membrane disease.

3. pneumoconiosis. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C

REF: p. 94

18. Fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG) positron emission tomography is the imaging modality of choice

for: 1. COPD. 2. bronchogenic carcinoma.

3. metastatic lung disease. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C

REF: p. 95

19. High-resolution computed tomography is the imaging modality of choice in cases of

suspected: a. bronchiectasis. b. cystic fibrosis. c. fungal pneumonia. d. respiratory distress syndrome.

ANS: A

REF: p. 80

20. Sinusitis is considered a(n) a. additive b. subtractive c. none of the above ANS: A

REF: p. 95

21. Pleurisy is considered a(n) a. additive b. subtractive c. none of the above ANS: C

pathologic condition.

pathologic condition.

REF: p. 95

22. A disruption in the esophagus or airway may result in: a. hemothorax. b. mediastinal emphysema. c. pectus excavatum. d. Legionnaires’ disease.

ANS: B

REF: p. 65

23. Inflammatory diseases of the respiratory system include: a. hyaline membrane disease. b. mycoplasma pneumonia. c. subcutaneous emphysema. d. bronchial adenoma.

ANS: B

REF: p. 78

24. The upper respiratory system includes the:

1. larynx.

2. pharynx.

3. trachea. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 59

TRUE/FALSE 1. On a normal PA chest radiograph, the right hemidiaphragm appears higher than the left

hemidiaphragm.

ANS: T

REF: p. 61

2. M. tuberculosis is captured by macrophages within the alveoli and creates a cell-mediated

immune response that infiltrates the lymph nodes.

ANS: T

REF: p. 80

3. Early pulmonary tuberculosis is always symptomatic.

ANS: F

REF: p. 80

4. Coccidioidomycosis is a systemic, fungal infection of the lungs particularly endemic to the

Ohio, Missouri, and Mississippi River valleys.

ANS: F

REF: p. 86

5. Small cell carcinoma has a much higher mortality rate than other bronchogenic cancers.

ANS: T

REF: p. 91

6. Lateral decubitus chest radiographs can better detect smaller amounts of fluid in the pleural

space than an erect lateral chest radiograph.

ANS: T

REF: p. 62

7. The posterior mediastinum contains the heart and great vessels, esophagus, and trachea.

ANS: F

REF: p. 59

8. The maxillary and ethmoid sinuses are the only paranasal sinuses present at birth.

ANS: T

REF: p. 59

MATCHING

Medical Devices Directions: Match the following medical devices with the correct descriptions. a. Chest tube b. Endotracheal tube c. CVP lines d. Pulmonary artery catheter e. Access catheter 1. A large plastic tube inserted through the patient’s nose or mouth into the trachea to manage the

5.

patient’s airway A large plastic tube inserted through the chest wall between the ribs to allow drainage of fluid or air A multilumen catheter that serves to evaluate cardiac function A catheter inserted for an alternative injection site or to allow for infusion of massive volumes of fluids Catheters placed to allow multiple tapping for injection of chemotherapeutic agents

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

ANS: B ANS: A ANS: D ANS: C ANS: E

2.

3.

4.

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 70 p. 71 p. 72 p. 71 p. 72

Chapter 4: Cardiovascular System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The innermost tissue layer of the heart is the: a. epicardium. b. myocardium. c. pericardium. d. endocardium.

ANS: D

REF: p. 99

2. Oxygenated blood is returned to the heart via the: a. pulmonary arteries. b. superior vena cavae. c. pulmonary veins. d. aorta.

ANS: C

REF: p. 99

3. The mitral valve is also known as the a. bicuspid b. semilunar c. aortic d. tricuspid ANS: A

valve.

REF: p. 119

4. What is the name of the internal tubular structure of a blood vessel? a. Intima b. Lumen c. Adventitia d. Endocardium ANS: B

REF: p. 100

5. How many posterior ribs should be visible on a chest radiograph? a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 ANS: C

REF: p. 101

6. An enlarged heart is known as: a. ischemia. b. cor pulmonale. c. cardiomegaly. d. tetralogy of Fallot.

ANS: C

REF: p. 102

7. Doppler sonography is used to image which of the following conditions?

1. Deep vein thrombosis 2. Carotid stenosis 3. Lower extremity arterial stenosis a. 1 and 3 b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 104

8. The contraction of the heart is known as: a. diastole. b. systole. c. peristole. d. myostol.

ANS: B

REF: p. 100

9. The single most frequent cause of death in the United States is: a. congestive heart failure. b. coronary artery disease. c. valvular heart disease. d. ventricular septal defects.

ANS: B

REF: p. 124

10. A CT calcium score best demonstrates: a. chambers of the heart. b. soft plaque. c. pulmonary arteries. d. hard plaque.

ANS: D

REF: p. 106

11. A decrease in tissue blood supply is termed: a. atheroma. b. ischemia. c. infarction. d. necrosis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 123

12. What type of aneurysm results when the intima tears and allows blood to flow within the

vessel wall? a. Dissecting b. Fusiform c. Saccular ANS: A

REF: p. 126

13. A blood clot is known as a(n):

a. b. c. d.

infarct. aneurysm. thrombus. adventitia.

ANS: C

REF: p. 129

14. A procedure used to break up blood clots is known as a(n): a. embolization. b. thrombolysis. c. angioplasty. d. TIPSS. ANS: B

REF: p. 110

15. What is the opening between the atria and septum present at birth? a. Ductus arteriosus b. Cor pulmonale c. Tetralogy of Fallot d. Foramen ovale ANS: D

REF: p. 112

16. The most common cause of chronic valve disease of the heart is: a. coronary artery disease. b. rheumatic fever. c. congestive heart failure. d. ventricular septal defect.

ANS: B

REF: p. 119

17. Which of the following imaging modalities provides the most information in terms of mitral

valve function? a. CT b. MRI c. US d. TEE ANS: D

REF: p. 120

18. Congestive heart failure is most commonly caused by: a. high cholesterol. b. aneurysm. c. congenital heart disease. d. hypertension.

ANS: D

REF: p. 120

19. A pulmonary embolus (PE) is best visualized with: a. a VQ scan. b. a nuclear perfusion scan. c. CT. d. angiography.

ANS: C

REF: p. 130

20. Venous thrombosis most often affects the a. deep; upper b. deep; lower c. superficial; upper d. superficial; lower ANS: B

veins of the

extremities.

REF: p. 127

21. Imaging procedures that may be used to demonstrate an abdominal aneurysm include:

1. angiography.

2. CT. 3. sonography. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 126

22. Common risk factors for CAD include:

1. cigarette smoking.

2. hypertension.

3. low-fat diet. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 125

23. Clinical signs of a myocardial infarction include:

1. shortness of breath.

2. crushing chest pain.

3. neck pain. a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 125

TRUE/FALSE 1. Pulmonary circulation transports blood between the heart and lungs.

ANS: T

REF: p. 98

2. In chest radiography, a PA view is sufficient to demonstrate all the chambers of the heart.

ANS: F

REF: p. 98

3. Arteries carry blood away from the heart.

ANS: T

REF: p. 100

4. MRI is used for imaging of the anatomy, function, and disease of the heart.

ANS: T

REF: p. 107

5. A Greenfield filter may be placed in the inferior vena cava to prevent blood clots from

traveling to the lungs.

ANS: T

REF: p. 128

Chapter 5: Abdomen and Gastrointestinal System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following are signs/symptoms of esophageal atresia? a. Salivation b. Choking c. Cyanosis d. All of the above ANS: D

REF: p. 151

2. Which of the following is the most common type of bowel atresia? a. Duodenal atresia b. Jejunal atresia c. Ileal atresia d. Colonic atresia ANS: C

REF: p. 151

3. Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is classified as a(n) a. congenital b. degenerative c. inflammatory d. neurologic ANS: A

condition of the GI system.

REF: p. 152

4. When imaging an infant with suspected malrotation, a(n)

examination should be

performed and is considered the gold standard. a. transabdominal ultrasound b. small bowel follow-through c. upper GI d. contrast-enhanced CT ANS: C

REF: p. 155

5. If left untreated, Hirschsprung disease can progress to: a. bacterial overgrowth. b. colonic distention. c. electrolyte imbalances. d. all of the above.

ANS: D

REF: p. 156

6. In the condition of carbohydrate intolerance, the small bowel lacks enough of the enzyme: a. lactase. b. lipase. c. amylase. d. lactose.

ANS: A

REF: p. 157

7. Currently,

is the most accurate imaging examination for evaluating patients who do not have a clear clinical diagnosis of acute appendicitis. a. abdominal radiography b. computed tomography (CT) c. magnetic resonance enterography (MRE) d. colonoscopy ANS: B

REF: p. 166

8. A less common type of hiatal hernia is the a. rolling b. sliding c. paraesophageal d. both a and c ANS: D

type.

REF: p. 171

9. Abdominal radiography is of limited value in cases of diverticulitis unless diagnosing for

suspected complications of: a. pneumoperitoneum. b. obstruction. c. both a and c. d. none of the above.

ANS: C

REF: p. 182

10. Colorectal cancers are the a. first b. second c. third d. none of the above ANS: A

most common gastrointestinal cancer in the United States.

REF: p. 187

11. Which of the following is currently the standard imaging procedure for staging superficial

rectal carcinomas? a. Virtual colonoscopy acquired by computed tomography (CT) b. Magnetic resonance colonography (MRC) c. Digital rectal examination d. Transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) ANS: D

REF: p. 189

12. Which of the following statements is true regarding the use of ultrasound over other imaging

modalities in evaluation of the gastrointestinal tract? a. Ultrasound provides the opportunity to biopsy during the sonographic procedure. b. The examination sensitivity is not highly dependent on the skill of the sonographer. c. Abdominal sonographic investigation is very effective in the obese population. d. All of the above statements are true.

ANS: A

REF: p. 145

13. Which of the following nuclear medicine procedures is performed to detect the presence of

Helicobacter pylori in patients with a suspected gastric ulcer? a. GI bleed scans b. Gastric emptying scans c. Urea breath test d. SPECT gastric imaging ANS: C

REF: p. 145

14. Which types of esophageal diverticula are located at the pharyngoesophageal junction at the

upper-lateral aspect of the esophagus?

1. Epiphrenic 2. Killian-Jameson 3. Zenker a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C

REF: p. 179

15. The “olive sign” is associated with what pathologic process? a. Appendicitis b. Esophageal varices c. Hypertrophied pyloric stenosis d. Leiomyoma ANS: C

REF: p. 153

16. Which of the statements are true in reference to a mechanical bowel obstruction?

1. It occurs from a blockage of the bowel lumen.

2. It may be caused by a herniation of the bowel.

3. It may be caused by a lumen-obliterating gastrointestinal tumor. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 174

17. Radiographically, Crohn disease can be differentiated from ulcerative colitis because: a. the transmural inflammation penetrates all layer of the bowel wall in Crohn

disease. b. Crohn disease is limited to the mucosal and submucosal layers of the bowel wall. c. the retrograde involvement in Crohn disease rarely reaches past the terminal ileum. d. both b and c are correct.

ANS: A

REF: p. 163

18. Which of the following magnetic resonance imaging techniques are used to visualize

abdominal organs to differentiate pathologic processes from normal tissue?

1. T1-weighted images 2. T2-weighted images 3. Dark lumen imaging using water as a negative contrast agent a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 144

TRUE/FALSE 1. Sonography has become a standard and highly accurate method for diagnosing hypertrophic

pyloric stenosis (HPS) without the need for radiation exposure.

ANS: T

REF: p. 153

2. Hirschsprung disease is an absence of neurons in the bowel wall, typically in the descending

colon.

ANS: F

REF: p. 156

3. A Meckel diverticulum is a remnant of a duct connecting the small bowel to the umbilicus in

the fetus.

ANS: T

REF: p. 156

4. Diagnosis of gluten-sensitive enteropathy is rarely confirmed by biopsy of the small bowel.

ANS: F

REF: p. 157

5. A peptic ulcer is an erosion of the mucous membrane of the lower end of the esophagus,

stomach, or duodenum.

ANS: T

REF: p. 160

6. Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in an upright position because the lack of gravity in

a recumbent position causes poor visualization.

ANS: F

REF: p. 168

7. A gallstone ileus is an obstruction that occurs when a gallstone reaches the ileocecal valve.

ANS: T

REF: p. 176

8. Benign tumors of the esophagus are almost always leiomyomas.

ANS: T

REF: p. 183

9. Small bowel barium studies are the most common means of identifying small-bowel

neoplasms.

ANS: F

REF: p. 185

10. A strangulated hernia occurs when a loop of bowel passes through a constricted area that is

tight enough to cut off blood supply to the bowel.

ANS: T

REF: p. 170

11. Treatment for regional enteritis includes bowel resection in approximately 70% of cases,

particularly if perforation or hemorrhage is present.

ANS: T

REF: p. 165

12. A category 2 risk of colon cancer is defined as a high risk; it includes hereditary syndromes

such as hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) and familial polyposis, or patients with a personal history of ulcerative colitis or Crohn disease.

ANS: F

REF: p. 187

Chapter 6: Hepatobiliary System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following diagnostic imaging studies provides physiologic function of the liver? a. CT without contrast b. Sonogram c. Radiograph d. Nuclear medicine with contrast ANS: D

REF: p. 197

2. Which diagnostic examination does the ACR recommend for a patient who presents with right

upper quadrant pain that may be attributed to the biliary system? a. CT without contrast b. Sonogram c. Radiograph d. Nuclear medicine with contrast ANS: B

REF: p. 198

3. A MRCP is used to visual which anatomic structures?

1. Gallbladder 2. Biliary system 3. Kidney a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 197

4. A radiograph of the abdomen on a patient with known cirrhosis may be compromised due to

what additional pathologic condition? a. Shrunken liver tissue b. Gallstones c. Ascites d. Pancreatitis ANS: C

REF: p. 201

5. Which form of hepatitis is transmitted from the GI tract in fecal material? a. HAV b. HBV c. HCV d. HDV ANS: A

REF: p. 203

6. Which liver lesion is primarily composed of blood vessels?

a. b. c. d.

Hepatocellular adenoma Hemangioma Hepatocellular carcinoma Hepatoma

ANS: B

REF: p. 209

7. The TIPSS procedure is designed to reduce portal hypertension by uniting which vessels?

1. Hepatic artery 2. Hepatic vein 3. Portal vein a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C

REF: p. 202

8. What is the incidence of gallstones in the United States for persons over 65 years of age? a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20% ANS: D

REF: p. 205

9. The inflammation of the gallbladder is referred to as: a. colitis. b. cholecystitis. c. cholelithiasis. d. cholecystectomy.

ANS: B

REF: p. 206

10. A fluid collection that develops from the pancreas is termed: a. ascites. b. pancreatitis. c. polycystic disease. d. a pseudocyst.

ANS: D

REF: p. 207

11. Which of the following imaging studies are highly recommended for the diagnosis of acute

pancreatitis?

1. CT 2. SPECT 3. Sonography a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3

ANS: B

REF: p. 207

12. The impaction of a gallstone in the small bowel is referred to as: a. cholelithiasis. b. gallstone ileus. c. obstructive jaundice. d. medical jaundice.

ANS: B

REF: p. 206

13. Chronic liver disease has the highest incidence in which age group? a. 25-34 years b. 35-44 years c. 45-65 years d. Greater than 65 years ANS: C

REF: p. 201

14. Which imaging procedure is preferred in the evaluation of proximal obstructions involving the

hepatic duct bifurcation? a. ERCP b. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiogram c. T-tube cholangiogram d. Operative cholangiogram ANS: B

REF: p. 195

15. Which imaging procedure can differentiate between vessels and biliary ducts based on flow

characteristics? a. CT of the abdomen with contrast b. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography c. Nuclear medicine cholescintigraphy d. Doppler sonography ANS: D

REF: p. 197

16. Fatty infiltration of the liver is termed: a. hyperlipidemia. b. cirrhosis. c. metabolic syndrome. d. steatosis.

ANS: D

REF: p. 200

17. Cirrhosis of the liver is considered an end-stage condition resulting from liver damage caused

by chronic: 1. alcohol abuse.

2. hepatitis.

3. biliary tract obstruction. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 200

18. How many types of viral hepatitis have been identified? a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8 ANS: C

REF: p. 203

19. Which of the following additional imaging procedures are highly recommended in patients

who have gallstones demonstrated with sonography but do not have fever or an elevated white blood cell count?

1. Nuclear medicine cholescintigraphy 2. CT of the abdomen (with or without contrast) 3. MRI of the abdomen (with or without contrast) a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 205

20. Which type of jaundice occurs because of hemolytic disease in which too many red blood

cells are destroyed or because of liver damage from cirrhosis or hepatitis? a. Medical jaundice b. Obstructive jaundice ANS: A

REF: p. 195

21. The majority of adenocarcinomas of the pancreas occur in the a. head b. body c. tail ANS: A

of the pancreas.

REF: p. 212

22. Ascites is best demonstrated by which of the following imaging procedures?

1. CT of the abdomen 2. Sonogram of the abdomen 3. ERCP a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A TRUE/FALSE

REF: p. 201

1. The right and left hepatic ducts unite to form the common bile duct.

ANS: F

REF: p. 194

2. The liver has a double supply of blood, coming from the hepatic artery and the portal vein.

ANS: T

REF: p. 193

3. Hepatitis B (HBV) is transmitted parenterally in infected serum or blood products.

ANS: T

REF: p. 203

4. Although most commonly found in the gallbladder, gallstones can be located anywhere in the

biliary tree.

ANS: T

REF: p. 205

5. Chronic pancreatitis resolves without impairing the histologic makeup of the pancreas.

ANS: F

REF: p. 206

6. The liver is a common site for metastasis from other primary sites such as the colon, pancreas,

stomach, lung, and breast.

ANS: T

REF: p. 210

7. Hepatitis B accounts for 80% of the cases of hepatitis that develop after blood transfusions.

ANS: F

REF: p. 204

8. Approximately 80% of all gallstones are composed of a mixture of cholesterol, bilirubin, and

calcium salts.

ANS: T

REF: p. 205

Chapter 7: Urinary System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The kidneys are located:

1. in the retroperitoneal cavity.

2. between T-12 and L-3.

3. anterior to the spleen. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 216

2. Which anatomic structures are located in the hilum of the kidney?

1. Renal artery 2. Renal vein 3. Nerve plexus a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 216

3. In an adult, the ureters are normally approximately a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: B

inches long.

REF: p. 217

4. Which of the following is a waste product derived from a breakdown of a compound normally

found in muscle tissue? a. BUN b. Serum creatinine c. GFR d. Urine ANS: B

REF: p. 218

5. Which laboratory test is used to determine the urinary system’s ability to break down

nitrogenous compounds from proteins to produce urea nitrogen? a. BUN b. Serum creatinine c. GFR d. All of the above

ANS: A

REF: p. 218

6. Normally, the glomerular filtration rate of the kidneys should be

mL/min/1.73m2 or

greater. a. 30 b. 50 c. 75 d. 90 ANS: D

REF: p. 218

7. Serious adverse effects typically accompany the injection of urographic contrast agents are

most common in elderly: a. black females. b. white females. c. black males. d. white males.

ANS: B

REF: p. 219

8. Which of the following predisposing conditions may increase the risk of an adverse reaction

to an iodinated contrast agent?

1. Dehydration 2. Heart disease 3. Asthma a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 219

9. What is the modality of choice for evaluating individuals after kidney transplantation? a. CT b. MRI c. Sonography d. FDG-PET ANS: C

REF: p. 222

10. The American College of Radiology’s imaging modality of choice for a patient presenting

with an acute onset of flank pain or other symptoms that suggest the presence of renal calculi is: a. CT stone study. b. abdominal CT with and without contrast. c. abdominal MR with and without contrast. d. renal sonogram.

ANS: A

REF: p. 223

11. Which of the following is highly recommended by the American College of Radiology in the

diagnosis of renovascular hypertension?

a. b. c. d.

CTA of the kidneys Abdominal CT with and without contrast Abdominal MR with and without contrast MRA of the kidneys

ANS: D

REF: p. 223

12. What type of catheter connects the renal pelvis to the outside of the body? a. Nephrostomy tube b. Ureteral stent c. Foley catheter d. Suprapubic catheter ANS: A

REF: p. 226

13. The congenital absence of a kidney is termed: a. renal agenesis. b. renal aplasia. c. compensatory hypertrophy. d. more than one of the above.

ANS: D

REF: p. 227

14. A kidney located out of its normal position is termed: a. malrotation. b. ectopic. c. prolapsed. d. cross fused.

ANS: B

REF: p. 229

15. A congenital, familial kidney disorder that may be classified as either autosomal recessive or

autosomal dominant is: a. renal agenesis. b. polycystic kidney disease. c. crossed ectopy. d. medullary sponge kidney.

ANS: B

REF: p. 231

16. A congenital dilatation of the renal tubules leading to urinary stasis and increased levels of

calcium phosphate is: a. renal agenesis. b. polycystic kidney disease. c. crossed ectopy. d. medullary sponge kidney.

ANS: D

REF: p. 232

17. Which of the following microorganisms are generally involved in pyelonephritis?

a. E. coli b. Proteus c. Staphylococcus

a. b. c. d.

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3

ANS: A

REF: p. 233

18. Inflammation of the bladder is termed: a. cystitis. b. nephritis. c. glomerulitis. d. diverticulitis.

ANS: A

REF: p. 235

19. Intermittent pain associated with the movement of renal calculi is termed: a. neurogenic bladder. b. trabeculae. c. renal colic. d. pneumatic lithotripsy.

ANS: C

REF: p. 238

20. An obstructive disorder of the urinary system that causes dilatation of the renal pelvis and

calyces with urine is: a. glomerulonephritis. b. hydronephrosis. c. hematuria. d. nephrosclerosis.

ANS: B

REF: p. 240

21. Renal cell carcinoma is a type of: a. adenocarcinoma. b. sarcoma. c. epithelioma. d. glioma.

ANS: A

REF: p. 241

22. Which of the following examinations are recommended for staging and follow-up of renal cell

carcinoma by the American College of Radiology?

1. Abdominal CT with and without contrast 2. Abdominal MRI with and without contrast 3. Renal ultrasound a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 242

23. Bladder cancer may be treated with which of the following procedures?

1. Cryoablation 2. Radiofrequency ablation 3. Total cystectomy a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 245

24. Congenital anomalies of the urinary system are often evaluated in the fetus using which of the

following modalities? a. CT b. MRI c. Radiography d. Sonography ANS: D

REF: p. 222

TRUE/FALSE 1. Kidney function is generally unimpaired with a horseshoe kidney.

ANS: T

REF: p. 228

2. Vesicoureteral reflux is the backward flow of urine out of the bladder and into the urethra.

ANS: F

REF: p. 220

3. The retention of urea in the blood is termed pyurea.

ANS: F

REF: p. 239

4. It is estimated that more than half of people at age 50 have renal cysts.

ANS: T

REF: p. 241

5. The cure rate for Stage I-III Wilms’ tumor (nephroblastoma) is 95%.

ANS: T

REF: p. 243

6. Renal cell carcinoma often metastasizes to the chest, so often a chest radiograph is

recommended.

ANS: T

REF: p. 243

Chapter 8: Central Nervous System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following structures is NOT considered part of the brainstem? a. Pons b. Medulla oblongata c. Diencephalon d. Midbrain ANS: C

REF: p. 250

2. Which of the following is the modality of choice for detecting cerebrovascular hemorrhage

following acute head trauma? a. Computed tomography b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Nuclear medicine d. Sonography ANS: A

REF: p. 258

3. A ventricular shunt is placed between the ventricles and the

to drain excess CSF in

patients diagnosed with hydrocephalus. a. internal jugular vein b. heart c. peritoneum d. all of the above ANS: D

REF: p. 281

4. Since the introduction of CT, the overall mortality rate due to brain abscesses has decreased

from more than 40% to less than: a. 30%. b. 15%. c. 5%. d. 0.5%.

ANS: C

REF: p. 266

5. Which of the following advanced MR imaging techniques is not useful in supporting a

diagnosis of MS? a. Diffusion imaging b. Functional imaging (fMRI) c. Perfusion imaging d. Magnetization transfer ANS: B

REF: p. 272

6. Noncontrast brain CT scans are most commonly used to diagnose patients with strokelike

symptoms because of their:

a. b. c. d.

high sensitivity to ischemic strokes. high sensitivity to hemorrhagic strokes. wide availability. both b and c.

ANS: D

REF: p. 275

7. In children, brain tumors often tend to occur in the: a. brainstem. b. frontal lobe. c. temporal lobes. d. posterior fossa.

ANS: D

REF: p. 276

8. Distinguishing clinical features of astrocytomas include: a. fast growing. b. infiltrative tumors. c. high grade of malignancy. d. all of the above.

ANS: B

REF: p. 278

9. Meningiomas are fed by the meningeal arteries, often enabling demonstration of an enlarged

foramen spinosum and increased meningeal vascular markings on: a. skull radiography. b. contrast-enhanced CT. c. contrast-enhanced MRI. d. all of the above.

ANS: A

REF: p. 281

10. Which of the following is NOT one of three tumors of the peripheral nerve sheath? a. Acoustic neuroma b. Acoustic neurilemma c. Schwannoma d. Pituitary adenoma ANS: D

REF: p. 284

11. What are the three meningeal layers of the spinal cord, in order, from outermost to innermost? a. Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater b. Arachnoid mater, dura mater, pia mater c. Pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater d. Dura mater, pia mater, arachnoid mater ANS: A

REF: p. 250

12. The primary role of conventional radiography in imaging of the central nervous system

includes the demonstration of: 1. fractures related to cranial trauma.

2. calcifications related to chronic disease.

3. cerebral aneurysms.

a. b. c. d.

1 and 2 only 1 and 3 only 2 and 3 only 1, 2, and 3

ANS: A

REF: p. 253

13. Which of the following pathologic conditions would demonstrate as a decrease in tissue

density on CT images of the CNS? 1. Cerebral infarctions 2. Cerebral calcifications 3. CNS cysts a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: B

REF: p. 258

14. What imaging modality is most commonly used to image the brain of neonates? a. CT b. Conventional radiography c. MRI d. Ultrasound ANS: D

REF: p. 259

15. Which of the following neurologic deficits are associated with a meningomyelocele?

1. Diminished control of the urinary bladder 2. Diminished control of the bowel 3. Diminished control of the lower extremities a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C

REF: p. 261

16. What is the most common cause of chronic meningitis? a. Bacterial infections b. Fungal infections c. Viral infections d. None of the above ANS: A

REF: p. 264

17. What are the determining factors of a patient’s prognosis when diagnosed with metastatic

brain disease?

1. Age of the individual 2. Number of metastatic lesions present 3. Primary type of malignant disease a. 1 and 2 only

b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C

REF: p. 285

TRUE/FALSE 1. Vertebral disks are covered by a tough outer covering called the nucleus pulposus.

ANS: F

REF: p. 269

2. Spheres, coils, or beads are used to embolize or occlude cerebral vasculature, as in the case of

an aneurysm or arteriovenous malformation (AVM).

ANS: T

REF: p. 260

3. Antibiotics are often successful against many forms of meningitis, though antibiotic therapy is

never given before a definite diagnosis has been established.

ANS: F

REF: p. 264

4. The most common locations for disk herniation are in the lower cervical and lower lumbar

regions.

ANS: T

REF: p. 268

5. About 80% of all strokes are caused by small vessel disease.

ANS: F

REF: p. 273

6. Optimal detail of posterior fossa structures can be obscured by beam-hardening artifact

associated with CT, making MRI the initial modality of choice for evaluating patients of all ages.

ANS: T

REF: p. 276

7. In patients previously treated for brain neoplasms, who subsequently present with new

neurologic complaints, distinguishing between radiation necrosis and tumor recurrence is relatively simple.

ANS: F

REF: p. 277

8. Recurrence is common with medulloblastomas, and chemotherapy regimens have not been

found to be consistently effective in controlling the recurrence.

ANS: T

REF: p. 281

9. The appearance of craniopharyngioma tumors on both CT and MR depends on the solid and

cystic components of the mass.

ANS: T

REF: p. 284

10. In spinal tumor diagnosis and evaluation, conventional spine radiographs are primarily

reserved for demonstrating bony destruction and widening of the vertebral pedicles related to tumor growth.

ANS: T

REF: p. 287

11. The blood–brain barrier consists of a network of capillaries that connects the arteries and

veins of the brain that prevent the passage of unwanted macromolecules and fluids from leaking into the brain parenchyma.

ANS: T

REF: p. 252

12. A contrast-enhanced CT of the spine is the best imaging choice for postoperative patients in

the evaluation of scarring when the tissue extends beyond the vertebral interspace.

ANS: F

REF: p. 269

13. A hemorrhagic stroke results from a rupture of a blood vessel of the brain due to a weakening

in the diseased vessel wall.

ANS: T

REF: p. 272

Chapter 9: Hemopoietic System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The hemopoietic system consists of:

1. lymphatic tissue.

2. blood cells.

3. the liver. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 291

2. What substance helps to regulate the passage of water and solutes through the capillaries? a. Albumins b. Immune globulins c. Glucose d. Lipids ANS: A

REF: p. 291

3. The three basic types of blood cells include:

1. erythrocytes.

2. leukocytes.

3. lymphocytes. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 291

4. Anemia is defined as a hemoglobin level less than a. 5 b. 7 c. 12 d. 20 ANS: C

grams per 100 mL of blood.

REF: p. 291

5. Which type of blood cells contains various antigens that determine blood type? a. Erythrocytes b. Leukocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Thrombocytes ANS: A

REF: p. 291

6. Which blood type is considered to be a universal donor? a. A b. B c. AB d. O ANS: D

REF: p. 292

7. Which blood type is considered to be a universal recipient? a. A b. B c. AB d. O ANS: C

REF: p. 292

8. Which of the following are classified as granular leukocytes?

1. Basophils 2. Eosinophils 3. Neutrophils a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 292

9. Platelet activity is a. decreased b. increased c. not affected ANS: B

by an inflammatory response.

REF: p. 292

10. Major areas of lymph node chains include the:

1. neck.

2. pelvis.

3. retroperitoneum. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 293

11. Which of the following cells are the most important in the development of immunity? a. Erythrocytes b. Leukocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Thrombocytes ANS: C

REF: p. 293

12. Which of the following is the most radiosensitive blood cell type? a. Erythrocytes b. Leukocytes c. Lymphocytes d. Thrombocytes ANS: C

REF: p. 294

13. What is the largest lymphoid organ in the body? a. Spleen b. Liver c. Thoracic duct d. Thymus ANS: A

REF: p. 294

14. Radiographic skeletal survey images are appropriate in the diagnosis of: a. HIV. b. leukemia. c. multiple myeloma. d. non-Hodgkin lymphoma.

ANS: C

REF: p. 294

15. Which imaging modality has the highest specificity in demonstrating lymphatic disease? a. CT b. MRI c. PET d. Radiography ANS: C

REF: p. 294

16. Which of the following is the principal agent of AIDS in the United States? a. HIV-1 b. HIV-2 c. HIV-3 d. Both a and b ANS: B

REF: p. 295

17. What enzyme can covert viral RNA into a DNA copy? a. Retrovirus b. Reverse transcriptase c. Monoclonal paraprotein d. CD4 ANS: B

REF: p. 296

18. Which of the following results from neoplastic changes in the B cells of the blood plasma? a. AIDS b. ALL c. Hodgkin lymphoma d. Multiple myeloma

ANS: D

REF: p. 300

19. Which of the following is a common complication associated with multiple myeloma? a. Opportunist infections b. Renal failure c. Splenomegaly d. Hepatomegaly ANS: B

REF: p. 301

20. Leukemias frequently infiltrate the:

1. liver.

2. spleen.

3. lymphatic tissue. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 301

21. Which type(s) of leukemia develop(s) from primitive or stem cells? a. Monocytic b. Myelocytic c. Lymphocytic d. All of the above ANS: B

REF: p. 302

22. Which type of leukemia often infiltrates the skin and soft tissues of the body? a. ALL b. AML c. CLL d. CML ANS: B

REF: p. 302

23. Bruising frequently occurs with a variety of hemopoietic disorders due to a decreased

count. a. erythrocyte b. leukocyte c. lymphocyte d. platelet ANS: D

REF: p. 302

24. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma is associated with which type of lymphatic cells?

1. Reed-Sternberg cells 2. B cells 3. T cells a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only

c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C

REF: p. 303

25. The presence of which of the following cell types differentiate Hodgkin lymphoma from other

types of lymphomas? a. CD4 receptors b. B cells c. T cells d. Reed-Sternberg cells ANS: D

REF: p. 304

Chapter 10: Reproductive System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The ACR recommends which of the following as the best imaging examination for uterine

fibroids? a. MRI b. Sonography c. CT d. Abdominal radiograph ANS: B

REF: p. 320

2. Carcinoma of the breast has an increased incidence in females between the ages of

years. a. 18-25 b. 20-30 c. 30-50 d. None of the above, the incidence remains the same throughout life.

ANS: C

REF: p. 309

3. The ACR recommends which of the following as the best imaging examination for staging

men with prostate cancer? a. MRI b. Sonography c. CT d. Abdominal radiograph ANS: A

REF: p. 329

4. Acute scrotal pain that may be caused by a lack of blood flow to the testicle requires an

emergent imaging examination. What is modality most highly recommended? a. CT b. Pelvic radiograph c. MRI d. Sonography ANS: D

REF: p. 331

5. A patient with diagnosed carcinoma of the cervix needs to have a highly reliable diagnostic

workup. Which imaging examinations are highly recommended by the ACR for detecting recurrent disease?

1. Hysterosalpingogram 2. MRI of the pelvis 3. FDG-PET/CT a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only

d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C

REF: p. 334

6. Which of the following is the rarest testicular cancer; it makes up only 1% of the tumor

detected with imaging? a. Testicular carcinoma b. Testicular choriocarcinoma c. Testicular seminoma d. Testicular teratoma ANS: B

REF: p. 333

7. What pathology can cause older male patients to be unable to completely empty their urinary

bladder? a. Prostatic hyperplasia b. Testicular torsion c. Spermatoceles d. Hydroceles ANS: A

REF: p. 330

8. Which of the following is a malignant pathology that can develop within the placenta? a. Hydatidiform mole b. Leiomyoma c. Cystadenocarcinoma d. None of the above ANS: A

REF: p. 327

9. What is the pathologic term for infection of the breast? a. Mastalgia b. Mastitis c. Mastectomy ANS: B

REF: p. 316

10. What is the best imaging examination to determine whether blood flow exists in the testicle? a. FDG-PET b. CT of pelvis c. MRI of pelvis d. Doppler ultrasound ANS: D

REF: p. 331

11. What is the medical term used to describe the undescended testicle? a. Cryptorchidism b. Epididymo-orchitis c. Hydrocele d. Spermatocele ANS: A

REF: p. 329

12. The lab test for CA-125 is associated with which type of malignant disease? a. Endometrial carcinoma b. Cystadenocarcinoma of the ovary c. Carcinoma of the cervix d. Fibroadenoma ANS: B

REF: p. 319

13. Sonohysterography is conducted by instilling a. barium sulfate b. an oily iodinated contrast agent c. an aqueous iodinated contrast agent d. saline ANS: D

into the uterus.

REF: p. 310

14. The term denoting a complete duplication of the uterus, cervix, and vagina is: a. unicornuate uterus. b. bicornuate uterus. c. retroverted uterus. d. uterus didelphys.

ANS: D

REF: p. 314

15. Signs and symptoms associated with PID include:

1. pelvic tenderness.

2. elevated white blood count.

3. nausea. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 315

16. Stein-Leventhal syndrome is associated with: a. endometriosis. b. cystadenocarcinoma of the ovaries. c. cystic teratomas. d. polycystic ovaries.

ANS: D

REF: p. 317

17. The human papillomavirus is associated with what type of malignancy? a. Cervical cancer b. Endometrial carcinoma c. Hereditary ovarian cancers d. Interductal breast cancers ANS: A

REF: p. 319

18. Approximately 60% of all palpable breast lesions occur in the a. upper, inner

quadrant of the breast.

b. upper, outer c. lower, inner d. lower, outer ANS: B

REF: p. 322

19. What is the primary problem with using MRI as the primary imaging modality for detecting

breast cancer? a. MRI utilizes ionizing radiation. b. MRI cannot visualize cystic structures. c. MRI cannot visualize soft tissue. d. MRI may cause an increase in the request for additional images.

ANS: D

REF: p. 314

20. What gene mutations are associated with hereditary breast ovarian cancer syndrome?

1. BRCA1 2. BRCA2 3. BRCA3 a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 322

21. What medical term denotes the development of an embryo outside the uterine cavity? a. Bicornuate uterus b. Ectopic pregnancy c. Hydatidiform mole d. Placenta previa ANS: B

REF: p. 326

TRUE/FALSE 1. A fibroadenoma is a benign palpable lump that could develop in the breast.

ANS: T

REF: p. 320

2. An MRI pelvis (with and without contrast) is recommended for staging a patient who has

adenocarcinoma of the endometrium.

ANS: T

REF: p. 334

3. The term “nongravid” is used in designating a pregnant female.

ANS: F

REF: p. 310

4. The Ecklund maneuver is used in imaging patients with breast implants to isolate the native

breast tissue for imaging.

ANS: T

REF: p. 311

5. Corpus luteum ovarian cysts are always malignant neoplasms.

ANS: F

REF: p. 316

6. Uterine fibroids tend to increase in size during menopause.

ANS: F

REF: p. 319

7. Sonography is extremely useful as a follow-up to mammography in differentiating solid

masses from cystic masses in women with fibrocystic breasts.

ANS: T

REF: p. 321

8. Hyperplasia of the prostate gland is often treated with a transurethral resection of the prostate.

ANS: T

REF: p. 330

9. Follicular ovarian cysts are small cyst formations that result from resorption of blood leaked

into the cavity after ovulation.

ANS: F

REF: p. 316

Chapter 11: Endocrine System Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The endocrine system includes which of the following glands/organs?

1. Thyroid 2. Thymus 3. Pancreas a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 338

2. The pituitary gland is located inferior to the: a. hypothalamus. b. thyroid. c. sella turcica. d. pons.

ANS: A

REF: p. 338

3. The anterior lobe of the pituitary secretes which of the following hormones?

1. ADH 2. FSH 3. GH a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C

REF: p. 339

4. The hypothalamus controls the

1. pineal 2. pituitary 3. thyroid a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 339

5. Epinephrine is produced in the: a. pituitary gland. b. pancreas. c. adrenal cortex.

gland.

d. adrenal medulla.

ANS: D

REF: p. 339

6. The thyroid gland is responsible for secreting:

1. TSH. 2. TH. 3. calcitonin. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: C

REF: p. 340

7. Overactivity of the thyroid gland results in: a. hypothyroidism. b. hyperthyroidism. c. hypoparathyroidism. d. hyperparathyroidism.

ANS: B

REF: p. 341

8. The alpha cells of the a. adrenal cortex b. adrenal medulla c. liver d. pancreas ANS: D

are responsible for glucagon synthesis.

REF: p. 341

9. The primary imaging modality used in the evaluation of osteoporosis is: a. DXA. b. MRI. c. sestamibi nuclear medicine scans. d. CT. ANS: A

REF: p. 342

10. Which imaging modality is the most reliable in imaging the hypothalamus? a. DXA b. MRI c. Sestamibi nuclear medicine scans d. CT ANS: B

REF: p. 342

11. Osteopenia is identified as a bone mass of a. <648 b. 648-833 c. >833 ANS: B

REF: p. 343

mg/cm2.

12. Osteitis deformans is also referred to as: a. Addison disease. b. Cushing syndrome. c. Graves disease. d. Paget disease.

ANS: D

REF: p. 345

13. Acromegaly is a disorder caused by a disturbance in the pituitary gland resulting in an

excessive secretion of: a. FSH. b. TH. c. GH. d. PTH. ANS: C

REF: p. 347

14. Diabetes insipidus is a disorder that results when the

secretes an insufficient level of

ADH. a. adrenal cortex b. adrenal medulla c. anterior pituitary gland d. posterior pituitary gland ANS: D

REF: p. 348

15. Sheehan syndrome is associated with: a. hypothyroidism. b. hyperthyroidism. c. hypopituitarism. d. hyperpituitarism.

ANS: C

REF: p. 348

16. Which pathology results from a dysfunction within the adrenal cortex leading to

hypersecretion of glucocorticoids from the anterior pituitary? a. Addison disease b. Cushing syndrome c. Graves disease d. Paget disease ANS: B

REF: p. 348

17. What syndrome is associated with chronic hyperglycemia in combination with glucose

intolerance and alterations in the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins? a. Cushing b. Diabetes mellitus c. Diabetes insipidus d. Metabolic ANS: B

REF: p. 349

18. Grave disease is associated with: a. hypothyroidism. b. hyperthyroidism. c. hypopituitarism. d. hyperpituitarism.

ANS: B

REF REF: p. 352 TRUE/FALSE 1. Females are two to three times more likely to develop malignant neoplasm of the thyroid

gland than males.

ANS: T

REF: p. 352

2. Hyperthyroidism is a fairly common disease of the endocrine system that affects the skeletal

system.

ANS: F

REF: p. 352

3. The outer portion of the adrenal glands, the adrenal cortex, is responsible for corticosteroid

production.

ANS: T

REF: p. 340

4. The thymus gland is vital to maintaining normal blood pressure and in regulating tissue

growth and development.

ANS: F

REF: p. 340

5. Calcitonin is an antagonist of PTH and serves to lower blood calcium.

ANS: T

REF: p. 341

6. Glucagon promotes the breakdown within the liver of glycogen to glucose.

ANS: T

REF: p. 341

7. Based on criteria established by the World Health Organization, a DXA T-score greater than 1

is normal.

ANS: T

REF: p. 342

Chapter 12: Traumatic Disease Test Bank MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following types of trauma centers require prompt access to orthopedic and

neurologic services?

1. Level I 2. Level II 3. Level III 4. Level IV a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 4 only d. All of the above ANS: B

REF: p. 361

2. Which of the following is not a secondary assessment or vital sign of the patient who has

sustained a traumatic injury? a. Pulse b. Blood pressure c. Respiration d. Range of motion of the head and neck ANS: D

REF: p. 360

3. What type of distribution pattern do most deaths from trauma assume? a. Monocloidal b. Bimodal c. Trimodal d. Bell curve ANS: C

REF: p. 359

4. Trauma is the leading cause of death for which of the following age groups? a. 1-44 years b. 45-50 years c. 40-65 years d. 60-75 years ANS: A

REF: p. 359

5. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale number recommended by the New Orleans helical

computed tomography rule (HCT) to order a CT head examination for a traumatic head injury in conjunction with a headache or intoxication? a. 1-5 b. 6-10 c. 10-13 d. 15

ANS: D

REF: p. 361

6. Which imaging modality has superseded the use of cervical spine radiography for trauma

patients? a. Computed tomography b. Nuclear medicine c. Sonography d. Angiography ANS: A

REF: p. 361

7. Which medical organization(s) has/have determined that CT of the cervical spine has greater

than 99% sensitivity for the detection of a fracture?

1. American College of Radiology 2. American College of Surgeons 3. National Emergency X-Radiography Utilization Study (NEXUS) 4. Canadian C-Spine Review (CCR) a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 3 c. 3 and 4 d. All of the above ANS: C

REF: p. 361

8. What is the preferred modality for imaging trauma to the abdomen and pelvis? a. Radiography b. Magnetic resonance c. Computed tomography d. Sonography ANS: C

REF: p. 362

9. What is the most common type of fracture associated with the vertebrae? a. Burst fracture b. Compression fracture c. Spondylolisthesis d. Pars defect ANS: B

REF: p. 363

10. When analyzing cervical spine radiographs of the trauma patient, what is not a significant

consideration? a. Prevertebral fat stripe b. Size and shape of vertebral structures c. Nucleus pulposus d. Alignment of spinolaminal lines ANS: C

REF: p. 365

11. With a basilar skull fracture, what anatomic structure is important radiographically? a. Sphenoid sinus b. Ethmoid sinuses

c. Maxillary sinuses d. Frontal sinuses ANS: A

REF: p. 367

12. What pathologic condition following trauma to the head is characterized by headache, vertigo,

and vomiting? a. Contusion b. Coup lesion c. Contrecoup lesion d. Concussion ANS: D

REF: p. 368

13. Which type of cerebral hematoma has the highest mortality rate? a. Intracerebral hematoma b. Subdural hematoma c. Epidural hematoma d. Subarachnoid hematoma ANS: C

REF: p. 370

14. Which type of cerebral hematoma often demonstrates a midline shift on CT or MR images? a. Intracerebral hematoma b. Subdural hematoma c. Epidural hematoma d. Subarachnoid hematoma ANS: B

REF: p. 370

15. What imaging modality is best utilized for skeletal trauma? a. Radiography b. CT c. MR d. Nuclear medicine ANS: A

REF: p. 372

16. What classification is given to a fracture that fails to heal? a. Delayed union b. Poor union c. Malunion d. Nonunion ANS: D

REF: p. 376

17. Which fracture classification generally requires surgical intervention such as an irrigation and

debridement? a. Closed b. Buckle c. Open d. Impacted

ANS: C

REF: p. 378

18. What type of fracture classification often occurs as a twisting or rotary movement to a long

bone? a. Transverse fracture b. Spiral fracture c. Impacted fracture d. Comminuted fracture ANS: B

REF: p. 378

19. What is the term commonly used to describe fractures involving the epiphysis of children? a. Glasgow scale b. Trauma scale c. Salter-Harris d. Fracture scale ANS: C

REF: p. 388

20. Which of the following is an example of a growth plate injury? a. Avascular necrosis b. Buckle fracture c. Colles fracture d. SCFE ANS: D

REF: p. 388

21. What anatomic structures are common areas for fatigue fractures? a. Metatarsals b. Metacarpals c. Distal radius d. Distal tibia ANS: A

REF: p. 390

22. Which bone is involved with a tripod fracture? a. Maxilla b. Mandible c. Malar d. Nasal ANS: C

REF: p. 393

23. Which bone has the slowest healing time following traumatic injury? a. Maxilla b. Mandible c. Malar d. Nasal ANS: B

REF: p. 398

24. Which of the following structures form the bony nasal septum?

1. Vomer

2. Perpendicular plate of the ethmoid 3. Cribriform plate a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: A

REF: p. 399

25. A high school football player sustained a stress injury to his right knee and was diagnosed

with a medial meniscal tear. What additional pathology may be demonstrated on the MRI exam? a. Impacted fracture of the hip b. Bone bruise of the medial femoral condyle c. Salter-Harris fracture of the distal fibula d. Avascular necrosis of the proximal femur ANS: B

REF: p. 375

26. Which of the following is not a radiographic sign of battered child syndrome? a. Impacted radial fracture b. Multiple rib fractures c. Spiral fracture of a long bone d. Skull fracture ANS: A

REF: p. 403

27. Which imaging modality best demonstrates avascular necrosis? a. CT b. MRI c. Nuclear medicine d. Radiography ANS: B

REF: p. 404

28. Which radiographic chest projections are generally obtained for the diagnosis of a

pneumothorax?

1. PA with inspiration 2. PA with expiration 3. Lateral with inspiration a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3 ANS: D

REF: p. 406

29. What pathology can cause a mediastinal shift on a chest radiograph? a. Lobar bibasilar atelectasis b. Pleurisy c. Pneumonia d. Rib fracture

ANS: A

REF: p. 406

30. According to the ACR, which of the following imaging modalities is most appropriate in

assessing abdominal trauma? a. CT b. MRI c. Radiography d. Sonography ANS: A

REF: p. 408

31. The radiographic “football sign” is usually indicative of what pathologic condition? a. Ileus b. Perforated ulcer c. Pneumoperitoneum d. Pneumothorax ANS: C

REF: p. 410

MATCHING

Fracture Pseudonyms Directions: Match the fracture pseudonym to the appropriate description. a. Fracture of the distal radius with posterior displacement of the distal fragment b. Fracture of the distal radius with anterior displacement of the distal fragment c. Fracture of the medial and lateral malleoli with ankle dislocation d. Fracture of the proximal shaft of the fibula with disruption of the syndesmosis e. Fracture of the fourth or fifth metacarpal f. Fracture of the proximal third of the ulnar shaft with radial head dislocation g. Fracture dislocation of the first CMC joint 1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

Smith fracture Boxer fracture Monteggia fracture Colles fracture Pott fracture Maisonneuve fracture Bennett fracture

1.

2.

3.

4.

5.

6.

7.

ANS: B ANS: E ANS: F ANS: A ANS: C ANS: D ANS: G

TRUE/FALSE

REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF: REF:

p. 391 p. 391 p. 391 p. 391 p. 392 p. 392 p. 391

1. Bilateral shoulder radiographs are generally obtained to diagnose shoulder dislocations.

ANS: F

REF: p. 400