TEST BANK for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition by Jeffrey Papp.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank Chapter 1: Introduction to Quality Management Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The measurement of the level of quality at some point in time with no effort to change or

improve the level of care is known as quality a. management. b. assurance. c. assessment. d. control.

ANS: C

Quality assessment only measures the level of quality at a certain point but is not a part of continuous quality improvement.

2. Under the Safe Medical Devices Act of 1990, voluntary reporting of unsafe medical devices

will require the use of form a. 3419. b. 3500. c. 3500A. d. MSDS. ANS: B

Form 3500 is used for voluntary reporting while Form 3500A is used for mandatory reporting.

3. Customers who come from oN utU siR deStI heNhG eaTltB hc.aC reOoM rganization are generally referred to as a. external customers. b. internal customers. c. External and internal customers. d. None of the answer options are correct.

ANS: A

Internal customers come from inside the healthcare organization.

4. When did the Mammography Quality Standards Act become effective? a. April 1992 b. October 1994 c. October 1997 d. April 1999 ANS: B

MQSA became effective on October 1, 1994.

5. W. Edwards Deming’s management approach can be summarized by his a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 14 ANS: D

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points.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank Deming’s management approach contained 14 points.

6. How many levels of quality control testing and monitoring are there? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C

Quality control testing consists of level I, II, and III tests.

7. Which of the following statements is correct about the 80/20 rule? a. Twenty percent of the causes result in 80 of the problems. b. Twenty percent of the problems are the result of 80 of the causes. c. 40% of the time there will be problems. d. None of the answer options are correct.

ANS: A

The 80/20 rule states that 80% of the problems are the result of 20% of the causes.

8. How many different methods of disease transmission are stated to be minimized by Tier 2

precautions? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four ANS: C

Tier 2 precautions are geared toward preventing infection by minimizing disease transmission by air, droplet, and contact.

9. Invasive quality control equipment testing is considered to be a. simple. b. complex. c. Simple and complex. d. None of the answer options are correct.

ANS: B

Level III QC testing is considered to be invasive and complex.

10. Which of the following are normally considered external customers? a. Nurses b. Referring physicians c. Inpatients d. Intensive care wards ANS: B

External customers come from outside of the healthcare organization and would include patients and their families, third-party payers, and the community.

11. What is the average amount of background radiation per year in the United States? a. 100 mrem

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank b. 250 mrem c. 360 mrem d. 480 mrem ANS: C

360 mrem (3.6 mSv) per year is the average background exposure for the United States.

12. Any activity that costs a facility either money or its reputation is known as a. risk management. b. risk assessment. c. risk analysis. d. loss potential.

ANS: D

Loss potential refers to any activity that costs a facility either money or its reputation.

13. Which federal agency is responsible for establishing standards for safety and for monitoring

the workplace environment? a. NRC b. OSHA c. FDA d. NCRP ANS: B

The Occupational Safety and Health Administration is responsible for monitoring the workplace environment.

14. Members of the general public mayGbeB.C exposed N who R I Mto frequent or continuous exposure from

artificial sources other than meU dicaSl exNposT ure havO e a recommended maximum effective dose equivalent of rem/year. a. 0.1 b. 0.5 c. 1.0 d. 5.0 ANS: A

For members of the general population who may be exposed to frequent or continuous exposure from artificial sources other than medical irradiation (this includes radiography students younger than the age of 18), the NCRP recommends a maximum effective dose equivalent limit of 0.1 rem (1 mSv) per year.

15. The maximum dose to the fetus of an occupational worker for the entire gestation period is a. b. c. d.

rem.

0.05 0.1 0.5 5.0

ANS: C

The embryonic/fetal dose of occupational workers should not exceed 0.0025 millirem (0.025 mSv) per day, 0.05 rem (0.5 mSv) in any 1 month of the 9-month gestation period and 0.5 rem (5 mSv) for the entire gestation period.

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

Chapter 2: Quality Improvement Tools and Procedures Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is a pictorial representation of a frequency distribution? a. Pareto chart b. Fishbone chart c. Histogram d. Scatter plot ANS: C

A histogram is a data display tool in the form of a bar graph that often plots the most frequent occurrence of a quantity in the center.

2. The range of variation around the mean is called a. variance. b. standard deviation. c. percentile. d. range.

ANS: B

The standard deviation is the range of variation or dispersion of a set of values surrounding the mean.

3. The number of items actually measured from a population is called a a. sample. b. data set. c. frequency. d. range.

ANS: A

A sample is the number of items actually measured from a population.

4. Which of the following terms best describes the average set of observations? a. Mean b. Median c. Mode d. Varian ANS: A

The mean is the calculated average set of observations.

5. Which of the following terms best describes variables that have only two values or choices? a. Continuous variables b. Dichotomous variables c. Stochastic variables d. Statistical variables ANS: B

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank Dichotomous variables are those variables being studied that have only two opposing choices.

6. A cause-and-effect diagram is also known as which of the following? a. Fishbone chart b. Pareto chart c. Trend chart d. Scatter plot ANS: A

A cause-and-effect diagram is a causal analysis tool (also called a fishbone chart or Ishikawa diagram).

7. Which of the following terms best describes a chart that pictorially demonstrates whether key

indicators are moving up or down over a given period of time? a. Histogram b. Pareto chart c. Trend chart d. Scatter plot ANS: C

A trend chart (also called a run chart or run-sequence plot) pictorially demonstrates whether key indicators are moving up or down over a given period of time, on an ongoing basis.

8. Which of the following is not a tool for data presentation? a. Control charts b. Brainstorming c. Pareto charts d. Cause-and-effect diagrams ANS: B

Brainstorming is a group process used to develop a large collection of ideas without regard to their merit or validity.

9. How many basic steps are involved in the creation of a TPM? a. 3 b. 5 c. 7 d. 10 ANS: B

There are five basic steps to create a TMP. 10. A procedure to identify potential failure within a system is a. SWOT b. FMEA c. Six Sigma d. FOCUS-PDCA ANS: B

A Failure Mode and Effects Analysis (FMEA) is a procedure for analysis of potential failure within a system.

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank Chapter 3: Image Quality Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following terms is the unit most commonly used to measure luminance? a. Lux b. Nit c. Foot-candle d. Lumen ANS: B A single viewbox should not vary in luminance by more than 10% throughout the entire surface.

2. Fifteen ft-cd would be equivalent to approximately a. 100 b. 150 c. 160 d. 210

lux.

ANS: C Fifteen ft-cd is the equivalent of 160 lux.

3. The amount of light either scattered or emitted by a surface is known as a. luminance. b. radiant flux. c. luminous flux. d. illuminance.

ANS: D Illuminance is the amount of luminous flux incident per unit area, or the amount of light that falls on a given surface.

4. Which of the following terms best describes the ability of an imaging system to create separate images of closely spaced high-contrast objects? a. Screen speed b. Spatial resolution c. Contrast resolution d. Quantum mottle ANS: B Spatial resolution (also known as high-contrast resolution) is the ability of an imaging system to create separate images of closely spaced high-contrast (black-and-white) objects.

5. Which of the following terms also is referred to as the TP fraction? a. Accuracy b. Sensitivity c. Specificity d. None of the answer options are correct.

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

ANS: B Sensitivity also is referred to as the TP fraction.

6. A DR flat panel detector element (DEL) size will help to determine which of the following? a. Contrast Resolution b. Detective quantum efficiency (DQE) c. spatial resolution d. Dynamic range ANS: C The smaller the detectors used, the more can be placed per millimeter in an array, which will yield a greater sampling frequency and therefore, greater spatial resolution.

7. If the bit depth of an MRI scanner is 12 bits, how many gray shades can be present in the image? a. 1024 b. 2048 c. 4096 d. 8192 ANS: C 212 = 4096 8. Detective quantum efficiency (DQE) is a measure of which of the following? a. contrast resolution b. image noise c. spatial resolution d. x-ray absorption ANS: D Detective Quantum Efficiency (DQE) is a measure of x-ray absorption efficiency.

9. The window width setting in a digital imaging system is used to manipulate which of the following values? a. pixel brightness b. spatial resolution c. temporal resolution d. image contrast ANS: D Image contrast can be manipulated in digital imaging by using a factor called the window width.

10. The type of contrast that is caused by variations in the tissue density within the anatomical part to be imaged, defines which of the following? a. image contrast b. subject contrast c. inherent contrast d. None of the answer options are correct.

ANS: B

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank Contrast resolution is the ability of an imaging system to distinguish structures with similar X-ray transmission as separate entities.

11. Which modality generally display the greatest spatial resolution? a. nuclear medicine b. magnetic resonance imaging c. DR radiographs d. digital mammography ANS: D Digital mammography has the greatest number of pixel in its matrix and therefore the smallest pixel size.

12. The ability of an imaging system to distinguish structures with similar x-ray transmission as separate entities is known as a. contrast resolution. b. spatial resolution. c. temporal resolution. d. spectral matching.

ANS: A Contrast resolution is the ability of an imaging system to distinguish structures with similar x-ray transmission as separate entities.

13. Which of the following can be thought of as the amount of information recorded in an image divided by the information available in the part? a. Line spread function b. Point spread function c. Edge spread function d. Modulation transfer function ANS: D Modulation transfer function is a numeric value that is used to measure the spatial resolution and is obtained from the LSF graph with a mathematic process known as Fourier transformation.

14. The rare earth phosphor, lanthanum oxybromide, emits what color of light? a. Amber b. Green c. Blue d. White ANS: C Lanthanum oxybromide screens will emit blue-violet light when struck by x-rays.

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

Chapter 4: Film/Screen Image Receptor Systems Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. During automatic processing, the proper order of steps is a. development, washing, fixation, drying. b. development, drying, washing, fixation. c. fixation, development, washing, drying. d. development, fixation, washing, drying.

ANS: D

Automatic processors send film through the developer, then fixer, then wash water, and finally the dryer.

2. The addition of glutaraldehyde into the automatic developer solution helps prevent a. overdevelopment. b. emulsion softening. c. rapid oxidation. d. all of the above.

ANS: B

Glutaraldehyde is the weak hardener added to the automatic developer to keep the emulsion from becoming too soft and sticking to the rollers.

3. The normal range of developer solution temperature for 90-second automatic film processors

is a. b. c. d.

20 to 23 C. 25 to 27 C. 33 to 35 C. 35 to 40 C.

ANS: C

Ninety-second automatic processor cycles normally require a developer temperature of 33 to 35 C. 4. Which of the following is not a component of the transport system? a. Entrance roller b. Master roller c. Crossover rack d. Microswitch ANS: D

The microswitch is part of the replenishment system, since it activates the replenishment pumps in volume replenishment systems.

5. Which of the following is not a function of the circulation system? a. Maintaining solution concentration b. Agitation during development c. Maintaining an even solution temperature

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank d. Replenishment of solutions ANS: D

Automatic processors have a replenishment system to replace developer and fixer solutions.

6. Developing agents give rise to greater activity than the sum of the individual agents through a

process called a. synergism. b. buffering. c. catabolism. d. oxidation/reduction.

ANS: A

Synergism, or superadditivity, is when the two developer agents together can produce greater activity than the sum of what each agent can do by itself.

7. A large group of radiographs are processed and the radiographer notices a progressive

decrease in optical density. One possible cause could be a. excessive developer temperature. b. under replenishment. c. overdevelopment. d. None of the answer options are correct.

ANS: B

Under replenishment of the developer will cause a progressive decrease in optical density as developing agents become exhausted and are not replaced.

8. During developer and fixer reNpleR nishImeG nt, tB he.fC lowMrates a. b. c. d.

are higher for the fixer. are higher for the developer. are the same for both solutions. vary by processor manufacturer.

ANS: A

Fixer replenishment rates can be as much as double the rate for the developer solution.

9. In order for correct replenishment to occur with a volume replenishment system, the larger

films are usually processed a. lengthwise. b. widthwise. c. either way. d. Position is not important, because a timer controls replenishment.

ANS: A

Larger films should be processed lengthwise to ensure adequate replenishment.

10. The section of an automatic film processor in which the highest temperature is maintained is

the a. b. c. d.

developer. fixer. wash. dryer.

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

ANS: D

Dryer air temperature can range from 110 to 150 F. 11. The acceptable variation of luminance uniformity for a single viewbox is a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: B

A single viewbox should not vary in luminance by more than 10% throughout the entire surface.

12. Which would be considered an acceptable humidity range for film storage? a. 0% to 10 b. 10% to 30 c. 30% to 60 d. 60% to 100 ANS: C

Humidity in film storage areas must be controlled (30% to 60% relative humidity), especially with film in which the moisture-proof inner seal has been opened.

13. The acceptable variation of luminance uniformity for viewboxes in a single bank is a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: C

The viewboxes installed in a bank should not vary by more than 15%.

14. Which of the following statements is true? a. Darkroom walls should be painted black. b. Darkrooms walls never need lead lining. c. Darkrooms that process film images must have adequate water supply and

drainage. d. Darkroom air should be changed at least two to three times per hour.

ANS: C

Automatic film processors use a considerable quantity of water, which will also require proper drainage.

15. Which type of safelight would be safe for orthochromatic film? a. Wratten 6B b. GBX c. Morlite d. Dark green ANS: B

Only a pure red safelight can be used with orthochromatic film, which is green sensitive.

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

16. Which type of film is designed to be primarily sensitive to ultraviolet light? a. Blue-violet film b. Orthochromatic film c. New-modality film d. Duplicating film ANS: D

Film duplicators use film that is sensitive to ultraviolet light.

17. What is the recommended color temperature for viewbox illuminators? a. 1500 K b. 3500 K c. 6250 K d. 10,000 K ANS: C

Standard viewboxes should have color temperatures ranging from 5400° K to 10,000° K. Most viewbox manufacturers prefer a rating of 6250° K. 18. The acceptable level of luminance uniformity for viewboxes within the department is a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: D

Department viewboxes shoulN dU noRtS vaIrN yG inT luBm.inCaO ncM e by more than 20%.

19. Which of the following materials can be found in intensifying screen phosphors? a. Tungsten b. Gadolinium c. Lanthanum d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: D

Intensifying screens can utilize tungsten, lanthanum, and gadolinium compounds.

20. Relative screen speed values and screen resolution capability can be said to be a. directly proportional. b. inversely proportional. c. exponentially proportional. d. none of the above.

ANS: B

Faster speed screens emit more light and therefore tend to demonstrate less spatial resolution.

21. Which of the following would be the acceptable temperature variation allowable in automatic

film processor quality control? a. 0.5 F b. 1 F

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank c. 1.5 F d. 2 F ANS: A

Automatic film processors need to maintain developer temperature to within 0.5 F. 22. Which of the following is acceptable for a variation in the B + F (base + fog) value during

sensitometric testing in radiography? a. 0.01 b. 0.03 c. 0.05 d. 0.10 ANS: C

During sensitometric testing, the B + F indicators should not vary by more than 0.05 from the accepted value.

23. Which of the following is acceptable for variation in the mid-density indicator during

sensitometric testing in radiography? a. 0.05 b. 0.10 c. 0.15 d. 0.20 ANS: C

During sensitometric testing, the mid-density or speed indicator should not vary by more than 0.15 from the accepted valuN e.

24. Which of the following devices is used to create a 21-step wedge pattern on a film during

sensitometric testing? a. Densitometer b. Sensitometer c. Film duplicator d. Ultraviolet light ANS: B

Sensitometers can create either 11 or 21 step patterns.

25. Processing time should not vary by more than a. 1% to 2 b. 2% to 3 c. 5% to 7 d. 10% to 15

of the manufacturer’s recommendation.

ANS: B

Processing time should not vary by more than 2% to 3% from the manufacturer’s specifications.

26. Replenishment rates should not vary by more than

recommendation. a. 1

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of the manufacturer’s



Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank b. 2 c. 5 d. 10 ANS: C

Replenishment rates should not vary by more than 5% of the manufacturer’s specifications.

27. Which type of graph is used to document the results from the sensitometric testing of film

processors? a. Control chart b. Histogram c. Pareto chart d. Fishbone chart ANS: A

A control chart indicating upper and lower accepted limits is used to document the results of sensitometric testing.

28.

B + F is measured in the a. clear area of the film. b. lightest step in the pattern. c. medium step in the pattern. d. darkest step in the pattern.

ANS: A

The base + fog optical density value is measured in the clear area of a film during sensitometric testing.

29. Variation during sensitometric testing that occurs because of the test film being run in

different parts of the feed tray is called a. bromide drag. b. locational effect. c. time of day variability. d. bias.

ANS: B

Locational effect occurs when the film is fed in different parts of the feed tray on different days during sensitometric testing.

30. Which of the following is obtained by subtracting the Dmin from the Dmax? a. Speed indicator b. Mid-density indicator c. High-density indicator d. Contrast indicator ANS: D

The contrast indicator, or density difference, is obtained by subtracting the Dmin (also known as LD) from the Dmax (also known as HD).

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

Chapter 5: Quality Control of X-Ray Generators and Ancillary Radiographic Equipment Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Collimation systems equipped with positive beam limitation must be accurate to within

of the SID. a. 5 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2 ANS: C

Collimators with PBL systems must be accurate to within 3% of the SID. 2. What is the NEMA allowance parameter for an x-ray tube that has a stated focal spot size of

1.5 mm? a. 50 b. 40 c. 30 d. 20 ANS: B

Stated focal spot sizes between 0.8 and 1.5 mm increase by more than 40% from this size.

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3. What is the accepted half-value layer (HVL) for an x-ray unit operating at 80 kVp? a. 2.1 mm Al b. 2.3 mm Al c. 2.5 mm Al d. 2.7 mm Al ANS: B

The minimum HVL for units operating at 80 kVp is 2.3 mm Al. 4. The maximum variation coefficient for reproducibility of x-ray generators is a. 0.05. b. 0.07. c. 0.10. d. 0.20.

ANS: A

The calculated variance should be less than 0.05 (5%) for a properly functioning x-ray generator.

5. What is the acceptance criterion for a timer circuit with an exposure time shorter than 10 ms? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20

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

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

 ANS: D

The variability allowed for timer accuracy is 5% for exposure times greater than 10 ms and 20% for exposures less than 10 ms.

6. A synchronous spinning top is used on a three-phase unit with a time of 17 ms.

Approximately how large of an arc should appear if the timer circuit is accurate? a. 3 degrees b. 6 degrees c. 17 degrees d. 36 degrees ANS: B

0.017 s  360 = 6 degrees.

7. X-ray system mAs reciprocity has an acceptance parameter of a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: B

Any variation in reciprocity cannot exceed 10%.

8. An exposure of 600 mA and 16 ms yields an exposure output of 240 mR. What is the

mR/mAs? a. 2.5 b. 25 c. 250 d. 2500 ANS: B

240 mR ÷ 9.6 mAs = 25 mR/mAs. 9. The light field and radiation field of a radiographic unit must be congruent to within

of

the SID. a. 1% b. 2% c. 3% d. 5% ANS: B

The edges of the light field and radiation field must be congruent to within 2% of the SID. 10. The x-ray tube must be mounted inside its housing so that the central ray exits the housing to

within a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

degree(s) of perpendicular.

ANS: A

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank The x-ray tube must be mounted in its housing so that the central ray of the x-ray beam is within 1 degree of perpendicular.

11. During testing for grid uniformity, films should be uniform within an optical density of a. 0.4. b. 0.3. c. 0.2. d. 0.1.

ANS: D

All density readings should be within an optical density value of 0.1 for proper uniformity.

12. During AEC evaluation with varying kVp, the AEC system should maintain a constant film

density to within a. 0.05 b. 0.1 c. 0.2 d. 0.3

optical density units.

ANS: D

The optical density values should measure the same or be within an optical density of 0.3.

13. Conventional tomographic systems should produce images of tissue that lie within

mm

of the indicated tomographic plane. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 ANS: A

The level of the tomographic section (fulcrum level) that is indicated on the equipment and the actual level of the tomographic section that is imaged above the tabletop should be the same or within 5 mm.

14. Which of the following devices can be used as the sensor in AEC units? a. Ion chamber b. Photocell c. Solid-state detector d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: D

Ion chambers, photocells, and solid-state detectors can all be used as AEC sensors.

15. The tomographic exposure angle indicated on the equipment and the actual tomographic angle

must coincide within a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20

degrees for units operating at angles greater than 30 degrees.

ANS: B

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank It is important that the value indicated on the equipment and the actual angle is the same or within 5 degrees for units operating at angles greater than 30 degrees.

16. Path closure in pluridirectional tomographic units should be within a. 2% b. 5% c. 10% d. 15%

of the path length.

ANS: C

Path closure in pluridirectional units should be within 10% of the path length.

17. Which of the following tests can be used to determine focal spot size? a. Safelight test b. Wire mesh test c. Wisconsin test cassette d. Star pattern test ANS: D

Focal spot size can be evaluated using a slit resolution chart, a star pattern resolution chart, or pinhole camera.

18. The kilovolts peak (kVp) must be accurate to a. ±2%. b. ±5%. c. ±10%. d. ±15%.

ANS: B

Variations between the stated kVp and the x-ray beam quality must be within 5%.

19. Two common quality control tests that should be performed on grids are grid a. b. c. d.

and grid

tests. ratio; frequency alignment; uniformity ratio; alignment uniformity; ratio

ANS: B

Grids should be evaluated for uniformity and alignment.

20. The minimum filtration required for general-purpose radiographic systems is a. 2.0 b. 2.1 c. 2.5 d. 3.0

mm Al.

ANS: C

General-purpose radiographic systems capable of operating above 70 kVp should have a minimum of 2.5 mm Al total filtration.

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

Chapter 6: Radiographic Image Artifacts Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Patient motion during exposure results in a. a processing b. an exposure c. a handling d. no

artifact.

ANS: B

Patient motion is considered to be an exposure artifact.

2. A chemical fog artifact a. is an exposure artifact. b. appears as streaks. c. results in lower contrast. d. results in lower optical density.

ANS: C

Chemical fog is a processing artifact that results in lower image contrast.

3. Data for determining repeat rates should include at least

patients to obtain a statistical

sample large enough for valid results. a. 100 b. 150 c. 250 d. 500 ANS: C

Most departments tabulate the data monthly to obtain a large enough statistical sample (at least 250 patients) for reliability.

4. Wet pressure sensitization would be classified as a. an exposure b. a processing c. a handling d. no

artifact.

ANS: B

Wet pressure sensitization is classified as a processing artifact.

5. Pi lines are so named because they a. occur at regular intervals. b. occur on the finished radiograph. c. appear as a section of pie. d. None of the above are correct.

ANS: A

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank Pi lines are artifacts that occur relative to the circumference of a roller and therefore occur at regular intervals.

6. If residual thiosulfate is not properly removed during washing, the radiograph will a. be underdeveloped. b. be overdeveloped. c. turn blue. d. turn brown.

ANS: D

Hyporetention is residual thiosulfate that can cause a brown stain over time.

7. Which of the following will run in the same direction as that of film travel? a. Pi lines b. Hesitation lines c. Guide shoe marks d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: C

Guide shoe marks run parallel to (in the same direction as) the direction of film travel.

8. Which of the following can occur as a result of a double set of grid lines? a. Grid misalignment b. Film fog c. Static artifacts d. Moiré effect ANS: D

Moiré effect, or zebra pattern artifact, is a double set of grid lines caused by the placement of a grid cassette in a Bucky.

9. Which of the following artifacts can occur in both CR and film/screen radiography? a. Static electricity b. Wet-pressure sensitization c. Moiré pattern d. Water spots ANS: C

Moire patterns can occur in both if certain grids are misused.

10.

can appear as dark bands at the interfaces of structures that differ widely in brightness level such as barium examinations or metal prosthesis. a. b. c. d.

Electronic noise Halo artifacts Dirt or debris on the front of the Dropped pixels

ANS: B

Halo artifacts can appear as dark bands at the interfaces of structures that differ widely in brightness level such as barium examinations or metal prosthesis.

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank Chapter 7: Quality Control of Fluoroscopic Equipment Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. A photocathode is a device that emits a. light photons. b. x-ray photons. c. electrons. d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: C The light photons release electrons from the photocathode through the process of photoemission.

2. A reduction in brightness at the periphery of the image captured with an image intensifier tube is referred to as a. pincushion distortion. b. vignetting. c. barrel distortion. d. quantum mottle.

ANS: B Vignetting is a decrease in image brightness at the lateral portions of the image.

3. The input phosphor of an image intensifier tube converts a(n) N R I G B.C M image. a. x-ray; light b. light; electron c. electron; light d. x-ray; electron

image into a(n)

ANS: A On entry into the image intensifier, the x-rays strike the input phosphor, which absorbs them and converts their energy into visible light.

4. In standard broadcast television, one image frame consists of a. one television field. b. two television fields. c. 262.5 scan lines. d. 17 ms.

ANS: C Standard monitors use a method called interlaced horizontal scanning to avoid flicker. This involves scanning the odd-numbered lines in the first half of the frame and the even-numbered lines during the second half, rather than all 525 at once.

5. The television camera most commonly used to capture the fluoroscopic image from a tube type image intensifier is the: a. image orthicon.

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank b. plumbicon. c. vidicon. d. charge-coupled device.

ANS: D Most modern fluoroscopic television monitoring systems utilize a CCD camera.

6. Which type of distortion that can occur with tube-type fluoroscopic image intensifiers is most often caused by the presence of strong magnetic fields? a. Veiling glare b. S distortion c. Pincushion distortion d. Vignetting ANS: B An S distortion artifact is a warping of the image along an S-shaped axis and is the result of strong magnetic fields changing the trajectory of the electrons moving across the image intensifier tube.

7. Performance testing of fluoroscopic systems must include all the following except a. x-ray tube housing. b. automatic film processor. c. total filtration. d. automatic brightness control.

ANS: B Automatic film processors are not relevant to fluoroscopic imaging.

8. Which type of test tool may be used to demonstrate pincushion distortion? a. Dosimeter b. Wire mesh tool c. Ion chamber d. Homogenous phantom ANS: B A wire mesh tool can be imaged with a fluoroscopic system to demonstrate the presence of pincushion distortion.

9. Quality control tests of fluoroscopic systems should be performed a. daily. b. weekly. c. semiannually. d. annually.

ANS: C Because of the potentially high patient dose in fluoroscopic procedures, these tests should be performed at least every 6 months (semiannually) or as indicated by state law.

10. At any combination of tube potential and current, fluoroscopic equipment with an automatic brightness control should not produce an entrance skin exposure exceeding R/min. a. 2.5

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 ANS: C The intensity of the x-ray beam at tabletop should not exceed 10 R/min (2.6 mC kg-1min-1) for units equipped with ABC.

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank Chapter 8: Digital Radiographic and Fluoroscopic Systems and Advanced Imaging Equipment Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Photoconductors convert x-ray energy into a. light energy. b. heat energy. c. radiofrequencies. d. electric current.

ANS: D Photoconductors convert x-ray or light energy into an electric current.

2. Going from a 256  256 to a 512  512 matrix doubles an image’s a. spatial resolution. b. pixels. c. gray levels. d. contrast resolution.

ANS: A The greater the number of pixels there are in an image, the greater the spatial resolution will be.

3. The most important component affecting the spatial resolution in digital subtraction angiography is the a. focal spot size. b. image intensifier. c. television camera. d. computer matrix size.

ANS: D The computer matrix size (i.e., the number of pixels in the matrix) is the most important component affecting spatial resolution.

4. The DICOM standard does not specify an image’s a. matrix depth. b. bit depth. c. display settings. d. examination time.

ANS: D The DICOM standard is the protocol that allows medical imaging devices to communicate with each other electronically and has nothing to do with examination time.

5. Benefits of digital PACS images do not generally include a. convenient storage. b. image transmission. c. computer-aided diagnosis. d. improved spatial resolution.

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Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

ANS: D PACS systems do not increase spatial resolution; they only archive what the original image system captured.

6. Which of the following uses photostimulable phosphors? a. Indirect conversion DR system b. Direct conversion DR system c. CR systems d. Flat panel fluoroscopic systems ANS: C CR systems utilize photostimulable phosphors.

7. The limiting spatial resolution is also known as the a. modulation transfer function. b. Nyquist frequency. c. fill factor. d. detective quantum efficiency.

ANS: B The limiting spatial resolution, also known as the Nyquist frequency, is given by the reciprocal of twice the sampling pitch or 1/(2  sampling pitch).

8. CRT monitors for viewing digital images by the technologist should have a luminance value higher than nit. a. 100 b. 170 c. 1500 d. 3500 ANS: A Primary display monitors (those used by physicians to diagnose images) should have a luminance greater than 170 nit (50 foot-lamberts), while secondary display monitors (those used by technologists) should have a luminance greater than 100 nit (30 foot-lamberts).

9. The contrast ratio of a viewing monitor should be higher than a. 100. b. 170. c. 250. d. 500.

ANS: C The contrast ratio is the ratio of the maximum white level (Lmax) to the minimum black level (Lmin), OR Lmax/Lmin, and should be greater than 250 (most will be at least 600 or greater).

10. Film utilized in dry laser printers uses silver a. bromide b. iodide c. behenate d. sulfide

_ emulsions.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank ANS: C These devices were introduced in 1996 and require specialized film (photothermographic) that uses silver behenate rather than silver halide to produce the image and that is processed thermally rather than with liquid developer and fixer.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

Chapter 9: Mammographic Quality Standards Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The MQSA does not require facilities to have a. annual physics testing. b. minimum image quality standards. c. ACR accreditation. d. FDA certification.

ANS: C

The MQSA requires facilities to be accredited, but does not specify which agency healthcare organizations must utilize.

2. The recommended maximum tolerance of kVp variance for mammographic x-ray generators

is a. 1 b. 2 c. 5 d. 10 ANS: C

The stated kVp and actual beam energy must coincide within ±5%.

3. The average glandular dose delivered during a single craniocaudal view of an FDA-accepted

N R I G B.C M

phantom simulating a standardUbreS ast sNhalT l not exO ceed a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5

mGy per exposure.

ANS: C

The average glandular dose cannot exceed 0.3 rad or 3 mGy per exposure.

4. The B + F value determined from sensitometric testing of mammographic film processors

must not vary by more than a. 0.01 b. 0.03 c. 0.05 d. 0.10

from the initial control value.

ANS: B

The B + F value cannot vary by more than ±0.03% from the control value.

5. The contrast indicator, or density difference, value from sensitometric testing of

mammographic film processors must not vary by more than value. a. 0.01 b. 0.03

from the initial control

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank



c. 0.05 d. 0.15 ANS: D

The result should not vary by more than ±0.15% from the accepted value.

6. The mAs recorded during phantom image testing of mammographic equipment should not

vary by more than a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 15

from the initial control value.

ANS: D

This value should stay within a range of ±15%.

7. The background density obtained during phantom image testing should not vary by more than a. b. c. d.

from the established operating level. ±0.2 ±0.3 ±0.4 ±0.5

ANS: A

For all future phantom image tests, the background density should not change by more than ±0.2 from the established operating level.

8. Mammographers must perforN mUpR hS anI toN mGiT mB ag. eC evOaM luation at least a. daily. b. weekly. c. monthly. d. semi-annually.

ANS: B

Phantom image testing is a weekly requirement for mammographers.

9. Developer temperature in mammographic film processors should not vary by more than a. 0.5 F. b. 1.0 F. c. 2.0 F. d. 5.0 F. ANS: A

Variations in developer temperature cannot exceed ±0.5° F (0.3° C) and must be checked with a digital thermometer only.

10. The maximum allowable dose per exposure for mammographic images is a. 0.1 b. 0.2 c. 0.3 d. 0.5

rad.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank ANS: C

The average glandular dose cannot exceed 0.3 rad or 3 mGy per exposure.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

Chapter 10: Quality Control in Computed Tomography Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Patient dose values for CT scans should remain within

of the manufacturer’s

specifications. a. 2 b. 5 c. 10 d. 20 ANS: C

No acceptable maximum levels of radiation are specified for the permissible dose to a patient during a CT procedure. In addition, the results can vary according to patient location and distance from the x-ray source. However, most experts agree that the values should remain within ±10% of the manufacturer's specifications when a fixed technique is used.

2. The CT number of water should not deviate by more than a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10

CT numbers from 0.

ANS: B

The water values should be 0 ±5 Hounsfield units (HU), but must be 0 ±7 HU.

N R I G B.C M

3. The CTDIvol pass/fail criterion for an adult abdomen is a. 20 b. 40 c. 30 d. 80

mGy.

ANS: C

See Table 12-1 ACR CT Accreditation Dose Pass/Fail Criteria and Reference Levels.

4. Section thickness should not vary by more than a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. 2.0 d. 5.0

mm for sections greater than 5 mm.

ANS: B

If the slice thickness is 5 mm or more, the slice thickness should not vary more than ±1 mm from the intended slice thickness. If it is 5 mm or less, the slice thickness should not vary more than ±0.5 mm.

5. The minimum distance between two objects that allows them to be seen as separate and

distinct would define what CT imaging parameter? a. Low-contrast resolution

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank b. Uniformity c. High-contrast resolution d. Image noise ANS: C

High-contrast spatial resolution is described as the minimum distance between two objects that allows them to be seen as separate and distinct.

6. The laser light field and radiation field should coincide to within a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. 2.0 d. 5.0

mm.

ANS: C

For optimal performance, the light field should coincide with the radiation field to within 2 mm.

7. For ACR CT accreditation, the Water CT Number and Standard Deviation (Noise) should be

evaluated by the CT technologist a. quarterly. b. monthly. c. weekly. d. daily.

ANS: D

The Water CT Number and Standard Deviation (Noise) evaluation is part of the CT technologist’s daily duties foN r AC accrG editB at. ioC n.

RR I

U S N T

8. The uniformity of the CT number of water should not vary by more than

HU from the

center of the phantom to the periphery. a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 10 ANS: C

Edge-to-center mean CT number difference must be less than 5 HU for all four edge positions.

9. For a slice thickness of 5 mm or less, the slice thickness should not vary by more than

mm. a. 0.5 b. 1.0 c. 2.0 d. 3.0 ANS: A

If the slice thickness is 5 mm or more, the slice thickness should not vary more than ±1 mm from the intended slice thickness. If it is 5 mm or less, the slice thickness should not vary more than ±0.5 mm.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank 10. A visual inspection of a CT unit should be evaluated at least

for ACR accreditation

programs. a. daily. b. weekly. c. monthly. d. semi-annually.

ANS: C

The visual inspection is part of the CT technologist’s monthly duties for ACR accreditation.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank Chapter 11: Quality Control for Magnetic Resonance Imaging Equipment Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Luminance uniformity of soft-copy displays used in MRI systems should be within the maximum brightness measured in the center of the screen. a. 10% b. 20% c. 30% d. 50%

of

ANS: C Luminance uniformity should be within 30% of the maximum brightness measured in the center of the screen.

2. What is the resonant frequency in a unit with a 1.0-T magnet and a gyromagnetic ratio of 42.57 MHz/T? a. 12.77 MHz b. 21.29 MHz c. 42.57 MHz d. 63.86 MHz ANS: C 1T  42.57 MHz/T = 42.57 MHz.

N R I G B.C M

3. The ability of an MR scannerUto S resoN lve T small oO bjects is known as a. signal-to-noise ratio. b. high-contrast resolution. c. spatial resolution. d. spatial linearity.

ANS: B High-contrast resolution is the MR system’s ability to resolve small objects.

4. The amount of geometric distortion in the image is the a. signal-to-noise ratio. b. image uniformity. c. spatial resolution. d. spatial linearity.

ANS: D Geometric accuracy, also referred to as spatial linearity, refers to the amount of geometric distortion in the image due to displacement or improper scaling of the distance between points being displayed on the image.

5. The ability of the MR system to differentiate between adjacent tissues having minimal differences in signal intensities is known as a. signal-to-noise ratio. b. high-contrast resolution.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank c. low-contrast resolution. d. spatial linearity.

ANS: C Low-contrast resolution is a measure of the MR system’s ability to differentiate between adjacent tissues having minimal differences in signal intensities.

6. The ACR slice position deviation in MR scanners should not exceed a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5

mm.

ANS: D The ACR criterion states that the absolute bar length difference should be equal to or less than 5 mm.

7. An acquisition with a 200-mm field of view and 256 x and y encodes yields a pixel size of mm2. a. 0.78 b. 1.56 c. 2.08 d. none of the above ANS: A 200 mm FOV ÷ 256 frequency encodings = 0.78 mm.

8. A change in the strength ofNthUeRmSaI inNmGaT gnBe. ticCfO ieM ld can be caused by a. cryogen boiloff. b. external ferromagnetic materials. c. shim coil failure. d. All of answer options are correct.

ANS: D A change in the strength of the main magnetic field could be a result of cryogen boiloff, the presence of external ferromagnetic materials, shim coil failure, and/or changes in the current of the main coil windings.

9. Nonuniformity in the magnetic field can be caused by a. a homogenous main magnetic field. b. uniformity in the RF coil. c. the presence of ferromagnetic material within the bore of the magnet. d. All of the answer options are correct.

ANS: C Changes in homogeneity can be due to ferromagnetic objects located within the bore of the magnet and external ferromagnetic structures that may be neighboring the magnetic field.

10. What is the maximum luminance for soft-copy display devices as suggested by the ACR? a. Less than 1.2 nit b. Greater than 50 nit

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank c. Greater than 90 nit d. Less than 150 nit ANS: C Maximum luminance should exceed 90 Cd m2 (nit), and minimum luminance should be less than 1.2 Cd m2 (nit).

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

Chapter 12: Ultrasound Equipment Quality Assurance Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The maximum depth of visualization can indicate changes in a. vertical distance measurement accuracy. b. axial and lateral resolution. c. slice thickness. d. sensitivity.

ANS: D

A commonly used technique for detecting variations in maximum sensitivity is the measure of the maximum depth of visualization for signals from scattered echoes in the tissue-mimicking phantom.

2. Maximum depth of visualization tests are performed using

receiver gain and

transmit power. a. minimum; maximum b. maximum; minimum c. maximum; maximum d. minimum; minimum ANS: C

The output power control is positioned for maximum output, and the receiver gain is adjusted for the highest values without excessive noise on the display.

3. Maximum depth of visualization is often limited by a. noise at high gain. b. poor axial resolution. c. too low a power setting. d. too low a transducer frequency.

ANS: A

Often the maximum sensitivity is limited by electrical noise that appears on the display when the receiver gain is at maximum levels.

4. Suppose that the maximum depth of visualization using a 3.5-MHz transducer is 14.2 cm. On

the previous two tests, 3 months and 6 months earlier, it was 14.4 and 14.1 cm, respectively.

These variations should be interpreted as a. just barely tolerable performance. b. normal variations inherent in the machine. c. excessive variations, indicating that the machine requires immediate service. d. normal variations inherent in the measurement process.

ANS: D

For the test results to be interpreted, a comparison is made with maximum visualization results from a previous test, perhaps 6 months earlier. Results should agree within 1 cm.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank 5. A scan is done of a uniform section in a phantom, and a vertical shadow emanates from a

position on the image corresponding to the transducer surface. This is likely caused by a. poor TGC control. b. poor lateral gain. c. inadequate gray-scale photography. d. loss of signal from one or more transducer elements.

ANS: D

Bad elements in a linear or curved array or loose connections in beam former board plug-ins can lead to vertically oriented nonuniformities.

6. On the viewing monitor of a scanner, a sonographer counts 16 shades of gray in the gray-bar

pattern. The hard-copy B-mode image displays only the 13 brightest gray bars. This should be interpreted as a. normal performance. b. too low a receiver gain. c. inadequate photography and processing that need correction. d. poor contrast and brightness settings on the viewing monitor.

ANS: C

In photography and processing, all brightness variations in the viewing monitor image should be successfully recorded on the hard-copy image.

7. A measurement comparing the actual separation between two reflectors placed at different

positions along the beam axis with the separation indicated on the calipers is a test of a. axial resolution. b. ultrasound wavelength. c. vertical distance measureN mU enRt S acI cuNrG acT y. d. horizontal distance measurement accuracy.

ANS: C

Measurements along the sound beam axis are known as the vertical distance measurement test, or the axial distance measurement test.

8. For the measurement described in question 7, the digital caliper cursors should be placed at

the a. b. c. d.

top of the higher reflector and at the bottom of the other. top of each reflector. left side of one and at the right side of the other. bottom of the higher reflector and at the top of the other.

ANS: B

Correct caliper placement is from the top of the echo from the first reflector to the top of the echo from the second reflector or from any position on the first reflector to the corresponding position on the second reflector.

9. For which of the following tests would it be acceptable for the results to vary with the

transducer frequency? a. Maximum depth of visualization b. Axial distance measurement accuracy c. Lateral distance measurement accuracy

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank d. Scan uniformity ANS: A

The frequency of the sound waves created by a transducer has a large effect on the maximum depth of visualization. The higher the frequency, the less depth into the tissue that the ultrasound beam will travel.

10. A measure of the minimum spacing along the beam axis that still allows two reflectors to be

identified is called the a. lateral resolution. b. axial resolution. c. axial depth of visualization. d. axial distance measurement accuracy.

ANS: B

Axial resolution is a measure of how close two reflectors can be to one another along the axis of an ultrasound beam and still be resolved as separate reflectors.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank

Chapter 13: Quality Assurance in Nuclear Medicine Evolve Resources for Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences, 6th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The main radiation detector in a scintillation gamma camera is a(n) a. ion chamber. b. lithium fluoride crystal. c. sodium iodide crystal. d. solid-state detector.

ANS: C

The detector head contains a thallium-activated sodium iodide (NaI[T1]) crystal, photomultiplier tubes (PMTs), preamplifiers, a position energy circuit, a pulse height analyzer, and a display mechanism.

2. The discrimination and selection of the gamma photon detected by a scintillation camera are

carried out by the a. detection crystal. b. photomultiplier tube. c. pulse height analyzer. d. collimator.

ANS: C

The discrimination and selection of the gamma photon are performed with a pulse height analyzer (PHA).

3. Photopeak evaluation of the gamma camera should be performed at least a. daily. b. weekly. c. quarterly. d. semi-annually.

ANS: A

Photopeaking is performed daily, either manually or automatically, depending on the manufacturer’s specifications.

4. Spatial resolution of the gamma camera should be evaluated at least a. daily. b. weekly. c. quarterly. d. semi-annually.

ANS: B

The spatial resolution quality control procedure is required to be performed a minimum of once a week on every imaging system.

5. The ability to produce a linear image with straight lines corresponding to the same straight

lines of a bar pattern is known as a. photopeaking.

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank b. field uniformity. c. spatial resolution. d. spatial linearity.

ANS: D

The spatial linearity of a gamma camera system is its ability to produce a linear image with straight lines corresponding to the same straight lines of the bar pattern.

6. The gamma detector’s ability to detect ionizing events is known as a. photopeaking. b. sensitivity. c. spatial resolution. d. spatial linearity.

ANS: B

Sensitivity is another quality control procedure performed to determine the gamma camera detector’s ability to detect the ionizing events that occur in the NaI(T1) crystal.

7. Uniformity correction evaluation for SPECT gamma cameras should be performed at least a. daily. b. weekly. c. monthly. d. quarterly.

ANS: B

The uniformity correction flood procedure should be performed weekly.

8. The nuclear medicine procedN ure R thatIreqG uireB s. phCotoM ns created during annihilation reactions is a. b. c. d.

SPECT. gamma cameras.

PET scanning.

All of the above answer options are correct.

ANS: C

Positron emission tomography utilizes the two photons created during the annihilation reaction.

9. The NRC requires that all survey meters undergo a

calibration and daily reference check

before use. a. daily b. weekly c. monthly d. yearly ANS: D

The NRC requires that all survey meters undergo an annual calibration and a daily reference check before use.

10. The dose equivalent limit per year for the hands of a nuclear medicine technologist is a. 0.5 rem (5 mSv). b. 5 rem (50 mSv). c. 30 rem (300 mSv).

Quality Management in the Imaging Sciences 6th Edition Papp Test Bank d. 50 rem (500 mSv).

ANS: D

The NRC dose equivalent limits per year for hands, forearms, feet, and ankles is 50 rem (500 mSv).