Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7th edition David Dozois TEST BANK by ACADEMIAMILL

TEST BANK Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7th edition David J.A. Dozois

TABLE OF CONTENTS 1. Concepts of Mental Disorders Throughout History 2. Theoretical Perspectives on Psychopathology 3. Classification and Diagnosis 4. Psychological Assessment and Research Methods 5. Anxiety, Obsessive-Compulsive, and Trauma-Related Disorders 6. Dissociative and Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders 7. Psychological Factors Affecting Medical Conditions 8. Mood Disorders and Suicide 9. Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders 10. Eating Disorders 11. Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders 12. The Personality Disorders 13. Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders 14. Neurodevelopmental Disorders

15. Behaviour and Emotional Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence 16. Aging and Mental 17. Therapies 18. Prevention and Mental Health Promotion in the Community 19. Mental Disorder and the Law

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 1 Concepts of Mental Disorders Throughout History Chapter 1 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. Your housemate has been overly concerned with keeping the kitchen clean. In fact, they scrub the sinks and counters for half an hour each time someone puts something on them. In order to determine his diagnosis, a practitioner in North America would most likely consult the __________. A) American Medical Association's Treatment Manual (AMA-TM) B) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-5) C) International Statistical Classification of Diseases and Related Health Problems (ICD-11) D) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, sixth edition (DSM-6) E) The North American Guide to Psychiatric Disorders (NAPD-IV) Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-01 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Application Answer: B) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, fifth edition (DSM-5) 2. Psychopathology refers to __________. A) the same disorder as psychopathy B) disorders of the brain C) a physical cause to psychological problems D) only severe psychological disorders E) The study of psychological abnormality Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-02 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Factual Answer: E) The study of psychological abnormality. 3. According to the text, behaviour, speech or thought that impairs a person's ability to function in a way that is generally expected of them in the context where the unusual functioning is occurring corresponds best to which of the following concepts? A) mental illness B) mental problem C) brain pathology D) psychological abnormality E) psychological disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-03 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) psychological abnormality 1-1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. According to Wakefield, a behaviour can be considered disordered when __________. A) there is evidence of failure in a designed function and a judgment that the design failure is harming the person B) there is evidence of failure in a designed function and evidence of significant personal distress C) there is evidence of a failure in a designed function D) the behaviour shows strong statistical deviation from an established norm E) the behaviour is very different from sociocultural expectations Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-04 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) there is evidence of failure in a designed function and a judgment that the design failure is harming the person. 5. Abnormal behaviour has been defined as behaviour that occurs infrequently. Which of the following examples illustrates a problem with this definition? A) People with IQs below 70 are considered to have abnormal intellectual functioning. B) Most people get depressed from time to time. C) Mathematical geniuses are considered rare in the population. D) Children often believe in the existence of monsters. E) Anxiety disorders are relatively rare in a given population. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-05 Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Application Answer: C) Mathematical geniuses are considered rare in the population. 6. Dr. Smith is working with a client who has to arrange and rearrange her food on her plate after each bite. Although her client does not find this behaviour strange, other people find it odd. The definition of abnormality applicable to this client is __________. A) statistically unusual behaviour B) violating the norms of society C) distress to self and others D) personal dysfunction E) expert diagnosis Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-06 Learning Objectives: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Application Answer: B) violating the norms of society.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 7. Perhaps the biggest problem with using inappropriate behaviour as a criterion for abnormal behaviour is __________. A) what is considered appropriate differs across time and location B) people with mental illnesses are usually not dangerous C) social norms tend to be constant over time D) inappropriate behaviour is often the norm in North American culture E) killers and murderers are generally sane Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-07 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) what is considered appropriate differs across time and location. 8. The authors discuss the Violation of Cultural Norms criterion as __________. A) an essential and sufficient component in defining psychological abnormality B) a necessary but not sufficient component of defining psychological abnormality C) a consideration that will often be relevant to defining psychological abnormality D) distinct from considerations of psychological abnormality E) a distraction from considerations of psychological abnormality Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-08 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) a consideration that will often be relevant to defining psychological abnormality 9. Which one of the following combinations of principles has been used to define abnormality? A) diagnosis by an expert, presence of personal distress, evidence of poor emotional control B) presence of personal distress, delinquent activity, poor emotional control C) violation of norms, abnormal intellectual functioning, presence of personal distress D) infrequency, presence of personal distress, impaired functioning E) psychiatric diagnosis, harmful dysfunction, abnormal intellectual functioning Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-09 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Factual Answer: D) infrequency, presence of personal distress, impaired functioning 10. Which is the most sensible way to logically combine the criteria used to define psychological abnormality? A) [infrequency OR personal distress] AND impaired functioning B) [infrequency OR impaired functioning] AND personal distress C) infrequency AND [personal distress OR impaired functioning] D) infrequency AND personal distress AND impaired functioning E) infrequency OR personal distress OR impaired functioning

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 01-1-10 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Application Answer: C) infrequency AND [personal distress OR impaired functioning] 11. Changes in the way that abnormality has been viewed over time has resulted in __________. A) a clear understanding of the etiology of all mental disorders B) effective treatments for all disorders C) fewer diagnostic categories D) high reliability of all diagnoses E) a shift from supernatural to natural causes in explaining disorders Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-11 Learning Objectives: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) a shift from supernatural to natural causes in explaining disorders. 12. If you lived in a society that explained changes in the weather as being influenced by the gods, you would likely view madness as being caused by __________. A) schizophrenia B) demonic possession C) brain dysfunction D) weakness of character E) irrational thoughts Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-12 Learning Objectives: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Application Answer: B) demonic possession. 13. What type of treatment was thought to be used by Stone Age people to treat madness? A) religious chanting B) death C) herbal brews to poison evil spirits D) trephination E) exorcism Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-13 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Application Answer: E) trephination

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 14. Maher and Maher proposed that the real purpose of trephination during the Stone Age was to __________. A) relieve migraines by relieving blood pressure in the skull B) promote blood circulation in the limbs C) to bring people closer to a higher power D) to remove blood clots and bone splinters caused by blows to the head E) promote greater blood flow to the brain Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-14 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: D) to remove blood clots and bone splinters caused by blows to the head 15. To whom can we credit the original idea that dreams play an important role in understanding mental illness? A) Freud B) Aristotle C) Plato D) Hippocrates E) Galen Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-15 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Hippocrates 16. Hippocrates played a major role in the way the causes and treatment of mental disorders were viewed. However, his greatest contribution to psychology was __________. A) being the father of psychoanalysis B) proving the value of leading a healthy life in preventing madness C) emphasizing the natural causes of mental illness D) separating the causes of madness into medical and magical causes E) his idea that psychological functioning resulted from disturbances of bodily fluids Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-16 Learning Objective:1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) emphasizing the natural causes of mental illness. 17. According to Hippocrates, mental disorders should be treated by which one of the following? A) exorcism B) magical spells C) trephination D) healthy diet and exercise E) food and water deprivation

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-17 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) healthy diet and exercise 18. Hippocrates believed that psychological functioning was influenced by imbalances in bodily fluids. Each of the following was considered an essential fluid EXCEPT __________. A) blood B) black bile C) red bile D) yellow bile E) phlegm Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-18 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: C) red bile 19. An ancient Greek was behaving quite aggressively and was quite short-tempered. He would likely have been diagnosed as having __________. A) too little yellow bile B) an excess of blood C) an excess of phlegm D) an excess of yellow bile E) an excess of black bile Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-19 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Application Answer: D) an excess of yellow bile. 20. Plato accepted many of Hippocrates' ideas but rejected others. Which of the following best describes his belief about the cause of mental illness? A) that an imbalance in essential bodily fluids affects functioning B) that brain dysfunction affects behaviour C) that socio-cultural factors play a critical role D) that lack of education could cause mental illness E) that mental illness has natural causes Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 01-1-20 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) that socio-cultural factors play a critical role

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 21. The idea that both mental and physical disorders are caused by problems in the body was held by __________. A) Soranus B) Aristotle C) Plato D) the Greek physician Aretaeus E) Hippocrates Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-21 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) Soranus. 22. Jennifer is a psychotherapist, and she considers talking about problems to be therapeutic. Which of the following groups would most likely agree with her? A) early Egyptians B) Arabians C) classical Greek and Romans D) Europeans during the Middle Ages E) prehistoric people Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-22 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Application Answer: C) classical Greek and Romans 23. Early Arab asylums were established to __________. A) protect society from the mentally ill B) provide the mentally ill with a safe haven C) begin the tradition of group therapy D) reintroduce trephination as a major form of treatment E) fulfill the requirements of the Quran Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-23 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: B) provide the mentally ill with a safe haven. 24. Avicenna's The Canon of Medicine may have included early forms of which of the following modern methods of treatment? A) homeopathic treatment B) dream analysis C) behaviour therapy D) psychotherapy E) bloodletting

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 01-1-24 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) behaviour therapy 25. The notion of "possession" during the Middle Ages was often applied to __________. A) people who disagreed with Church doctrine B) people who sinned frequently C) men who physically abused their wives D) people who had suffered a nervous breakdown E) people suffering from a mental illness Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-25 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) people who had suffered a nervous breakdown. 26. During the 15th and 16th centuries, a woman caught talking to her garden plants would __________. A) be treated by either prayer or exorcism of demons. B) be treated with hypnotism. C) be treated using special herbs and potions. D) be accused of witchcraft and tortured to prevent her evil powers from spreading. E) be considered psychotic. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-26 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) be treated by either prayer or exorcism of demons. 27. The spiritus vitae was __________. A) a disorder where people begin to dance in the streets and drink red wines B) a spirit believed to possess individuals and cause madness C) a bodily fluid believed by Paracelsus to result in mental illness D) a naturalistic cause of madness E) the venom of the tarantula Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-27 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: D) a naturalistic cause of madness.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 28. Your sister suddenly begins to leap about, jumping and dancing in the streets. During the Middle Ages, she would most likely be diagnosed with __________. A) melancholia B) trephination C) the Tarantella D) an excess of phlegm E) spiritus vitae Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-28 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Application Answer: C) the Tarantella. 29. According to Paracelsus, St. Vitus' Dance was caused by __________. A) tarantula bites B) psychic conflicts C) imbalances in bodily fluids D) mania E) possession by evil spirits Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-29 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: B) psychic conflicts. 30. Which of the following persons and treatments DO NOT match? A) Paracelsus and hypnotism B) Hippocrates and rest C) Galen and sympathetic listening D) Weyer and chanting E) Avicenna and behavior therapy Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-30 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) Weyer and chanting 31. What do the views of Paracelsus, Teresa of Avila, and St. Vincent de Paul have in common? A) They all attempted to develop a new system of classification. B) They believed that religious approaches could lead to a cure. C) They established asylums to humanely care for the mad. D) They argued for a more naturalistic approach to viewing mental illness. E) Each of them contributed to Freud's system of psychoanalysis.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-31 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) They argued for a more naturalistic approach to viewing mental illness. 32. The term "bedlam" originated from __________. A) a method of treatment used in early asylums B) the lack of beds that was common in early asylums C) the bizarre behaviour known as St. Vitus' dance D) moments of frenzy among mad people E) behaviour of the patients in deplorable early European asylums Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-32 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: E) behaviour of the patients in deplorable early European asylums. 33. Early treatment of mentally ill individuals in the United States __________. A) was more successful than many of the earlier treatments had been. B) was more humane than most of the approaches outside North America C) was at times similar in cruelty to early supernatural treatments D) differed from European treatment due to different societal values E) was less successful than treatments introduced during the Middle Ages Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-33 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Application Answer: C) was at times similar in cruelty to early supernatural treatments. 34. Treatment in the town of Gheel is similar to __________. A) modern day treatment programs B) a humanistic approach C) a community treatment approach D) that of the early Greek E) treatment advocated by many of the early Europeans Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-34 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) a community treatment approach.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 35. English "workhouses" were __________. A) established during the Enlightenment period to deal with the insane B) run by the patients C) run by physicians D) were special places where the mentally ill could work E) used to hide the poor from society Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-35 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: E) used to hide the poor from society. 36. Which of the following individuals is known for promoting a more humanitarian approach in mental hospitals? A) Benedict Morel B) Philippe Pinel C) St. Vincent de Paul D) Johannes Weyer E) Benjamin Rush Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-36 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Philippe Pinel 37. What occurred at the Allen Memorial Hospital during the late 1950s and early 1960s? A) brain washing experiments. B) Dialectical behaviour therapy. C) administration of cannabis for the treatment of depression. D) humane treatment of patients. E) administration of selective serotonin re-uptake inhibitors. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-37 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: A) brain washing experiments. 38. The mental hygiene movement __________. A) resulted in a reduction in the number of people in institutions B) resulted in an increase in patients in mental institutions C) led to an increase in moral therapy D) was criticized by Philippe Pinel E) led to the advent of antipsychotic drugs

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-38 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) resulted in an increase in patients in mental institutions. 39. All of the following are valid criticisms of the mental hygiene movement EXCEPT __________. A) psychosocial treatments were less effective due to the large number of patients B) physical treatments were often unpleasant C) living conditions in the asylums were unpleasant D) the original goals of the movement were less than noble E) overcrowding in asylums prevented proper care Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-39 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) The original goals of the movement were less than noble. 40. Moral therapy implies that __________. A) psychological therapy should be administered by the Church B) psychological therapy should be used more often C) mentally ill patients can benefit from spiritual enlightenment D) mentally ill patients need to be taught a moralistic approach to life E) mentally ill patients can be treated without chemical or physical restraints Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-40 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) mentally ill patients can be treated without chemical or physical restraints. 41. Which of the following accomplishments are NOT attributed to Pinel? A) looking to natural explanations as the cause of mental illness B) clearly describing the symptoms of disorders C) emphasizing the role of psychological and social factors in the development of mental illness D) developing a systematic approach to classifying disorders E) bringing moral therapy to North America Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-41 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: E) bringing moral therapy to North America

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 42. Cabanis (1757-1808) introduced the idea that personal factors as well as somatic factors accounted for mental disorders. His theories encouraged the _________ approach to treatment. A) physical B) social C) institutional D) psychological E) biological Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-42 Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: D) psychological 43. _________ introduced "degeneration" theory, which proposed that abnormal functioning was transmitted by hereditary processes. A) Pinel B) Cabanis C) Charles Darwin D) Cesare Lombroso E) Benedict Morel Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-43 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Benedict Morel 44. Clinical Psychiatry, published by Kraepelin in 1883, was an important textbook because it __________. A) introduced pioneering treatments for severe mental disorders B) explained the causes of many common mental disorders C) attempted to classify mental illnesses D) joined together the professions of clinical psychology and psychiatry E) described methods of treatment for psychiatric disorders Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-44 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: C) attempted to classify mental illnesses. 45. Which of the following is a classification system of mental illness? A) CP-10 B) GPI C) ECT D) WRS-R E) DSM-5

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-45 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: E) DSM-5 46. "All mental disorders are the result of biological problems." Who would be most likely to agree with this statement? A) Breuer B) Kraepelin C) Jung D) Freud E) Watson Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-46 Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Application Answer: B) Kraepelin 47. Kraepelin's system of classification of mental illness __________. A) did not influence later classification systems B) suggested that psychological factors caused disorders C) failed to recognize that certain groups of symptoms tended to occur together D) recognized that different disorders had distinct features E) offered suggestions for treatment Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-47 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: D) recognized that different disorders had distinct features. 48. Groups of symptoms that tend to occur together are called __________. A) biological B) disabilities C) categories D) diatheses E) syndromes Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-48 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: E) syndromes.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 49. Symptoms during the later stages of general paresis of the insane may show similarity to __________. A) bipolar disorder B) dementia C) antisocial personality disorder D) autism E) schizophrenia Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 01-1-49 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) dementia. 50. What were some of the harmful side effects of ECT when it was first used? A) patients experienced uncontrollable panic attacks during the procedure. B) the procedure recovered memories of childhood abuse. C) patients started to develop flashbacks that persisted after ECT was over. D) patients developed lesions that were not there prior to ECT. E) patients suffered broken limbs or cracked vertebrae. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-50 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: E) patients suffered broken limbs or cracked vertebrae. 51. Somatogenesis refers to __________. A) a disorder where people feel their body is not theirs B) the idea that mental disorders are caused by biological factors C) somatization disorder D) a method of treating general paresis E) the idea that mental disorders are caused by environmental factors Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-51 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: E) the idea that mental disorders are caused by biological factors. 52. Insulin was used by Sakel during the mid-20th century in order to treat: __________. A) schizophrenia B) anxiety disorders C) depression D) diabetes E) alcoholism

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-52 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: A) schizophrenia 53. Sakel administered insulin to patients in order to induce _________ which he believed would cure or reduce the symptoms of schizophrenia A) relaxation B) seizures C) shock D) coma E) low blood sugar Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-53 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: D) coma 54. ECT (electroconvulsive therapy) proved to be most successful in treating __________. A) epilepsy B) anxiety C) drug addiction D) major depression E) schizophrenia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-54 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: D) major depression 55. Dr. Ramos treats patients suffering from mood disorders, and she believes that their illnesses are a result of imbalances of chemicals in the brain. She would most likely adhere to which field of mental health? A) psychopharmacology B) cognitive psychology C) psychoanalysis D) clinical psychology E) health psychology Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-55 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Application Answer: A) psychopharmacology

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 56. Jason has been given Ritalin to control his hyperactive moods. He is receiving __________. A) pharmacotherapy B) palliative therapy C) psychotherapy D) psychosurgery E) psychoanalysis Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-56 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Application Answer: A) pharmacotherapy. 57. The textbook informs us that the process of deinstitutionalization was set in motion by three "revolutions" or movements: __________. A) pharmacological revolution; patients' rights movement; and community mental health movement B) The French Revolution and the appointment of Philippe Pinel; patients' rights movement; and upheavals in various local Canadian asylums C) the community mental health movement; American Revolution; and the patients' rights movement D) The French Revolution; American Revolution; and Pinel's "revolution" E) pharmacological revolution; the North American revolution; and the grassroots movement. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 01-1-57 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: conceptual, factual Answer: A) pharmacological revolution; patients' rights movement; and community mental health movement 58. Mesmer believed that hysteria was the result of __________. A) a wandering uterus B) disturbances in the distribution of magnetic fluids C) imbalances in brain chemicals D) too little of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine E) animal magnetism Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-58 Learning Objectives: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: B) disturbances in the distribution of magnetic fluids. 59. You are one of Mesmer's assistants during the 1700s. Your treatment of choice for dealing with hysteria would be considered a predecessor of __________. A) psychopharmacotherapy B) hypnotism C) spiritual healing D) the cathartic method E) psychotherapy

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-59 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Application Answer: B) hypnotism. 60. Which series depicts the best order of the transmission of ideas? A) Charcot > Mesmer > Breuer > Janet > Freud B) Mesmer > Charcot > Breuer > Janet > Freud C) Charcot > Freud > Breuer > Mesmer > Janet D) Charcot > Freud > Mesmer > Janet > Breuer E) Mesmer > Charcot > Janet > Breuer > Freud Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 01-1-60 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Application Answer: E) Mesmer > Charcot > Janet > Breuer > Freud 61. Which theorists have a psychogenic approach to understanding psychopathology? A) Freud; Watson; Meichenbaum B) Morel; Freud; Watson C) Kraeplin; Morel; Freud D) Krafft-Ebing; Morel; Cerletti E) Cerletti; Janet; Pavlov Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-61 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Application Answer: A) Freud; Watson; Meichenbaum 62. __________ believed that hypnotism was not valuable in treating hysteria. A) Braid B) Breuer C) Charcot D) Janet E) Watson Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-62 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Watson

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 63. In the mid to late 1800s, several therapists became quite well known. Which of the following represents a correctly matched therapist and his treatment? A) Breuer & the cathartic method B) Charcot & anesthesia therapy C) Mesmer & animal hypnosis D) Freud & sex therapy E) Watson & hypnotherapy Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-63 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) Breuer & the cathartic method 64. In writing an essay on behaviourism, you would be likely to include all of the following statements EXCEPT __________. A) abnormal behaviour is learned B) psychology must be restricted to observable behaviour C) behavioural approaches produced a revolution in psychological thought D) Watson acknowledged that abnormal behaviour was likely present at birth E) behavioural approaches have become established in treatment of disorders Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-64 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) Watson acknowledged that abnormal behaviour was likely present at birth. 65. According to behaviourism, if psychology is to be a true science, it must be restricted to the study of __________. A) covert behaviour B) observable features C) cellular activity D) the brain E) animals Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-65 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) observable features 66. The first asylum for the mentally ill established in Canada was __________. A) Vancouver Psychiatric Hospital B) Montreal's Allen Memorial Hospital C) the Rockwood asylum in Kingston D) the Hôtel Dieu in Quebec E) the Hôtel Dieu in Calgary

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-66 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Factual Answer: D) the Hôtel Dieu in Quebec. 67. During the 17th century, in which Canadian province was it that the development of proper places of care for the mentally ill was most accepted? A) Alberta B) Manitoba C) Quebec D) British Columbia E) Ontario Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-67 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Quebec 68. The first textbook printed in Canada dealing with care and housing of the mentally ill __________. A) encouraged patience and tolerance B) suggested that the mentally ill be treated at home C) reflected the moral therapy approach D) recommended treating them with floggings E) recommended drug therapy Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-68 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Factual Answer: D) recommended treating them with floggings. 69. Archival evidence shows that many early lobotomies were performed in Canada primarily to __________. A) restore calm and reason to the patient so that they could participate in psychotherapy B) reduce suffering in patients with acute occipital dysfunction C) alleviate hospital management problems and advance research D) determine the role of the cerebellum in cases of severe emotional problems E) cure schizophrenia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-69 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Factual Answer: C) alleviate hospital management problems and advance research

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 70. Lobotomies were widely used treatments in Canada during the mid-1940s. This treatment involved __________ A) lesioning of the brain by electrodes. B) pharmacotherapy. C) removal or disconnection of the frontal lobes of the brain. D) removal of the cerebellum. E) removal of the ovaries in women. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-70 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Factual Answer: C) removal or disconnection of the frontal lobes of the brain. 71. Montreal's Allen Memorial Hospital was __________. A) the first place in Canada to use psychoanalysis B) founded by Ewen Cameron C) a place where the criminally insane were housed D) the site of a research project funded by the CIA E) a leading Canadian hospital in the treatment and care of psychiatric patients Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-71 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Factual Answer: D) the site of a research project funded by the CIA. 72. Dr. Ruth Kajander was one of the first psychiatrists in North America to recognize the value of using __________. A) Herbal medicines in the treatment of psychosis B) Exercise to treat severe major depression C) Antidepressant medication to treatment substance use disorders D) A major tranquilizer in the treatment of schizophrenia E) Vitamin B12 in the treatment of mental illness Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-72 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Factual Answer: D) A major tranquilizer in the treatment of schizophrenia. 73. Dr. Ruth Kajander can be noted for __________. A) unique blend of drug and talk therapy with severely disordered patients B) her role in the CIA-funded research in Montreal C) recognizing the value of tranquillizers in treating depression D) treating and reducing anxiety in patients prior to surgery E) using chlorpromazine to treat schizophrenia

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-73 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Factual Answer: E) using chlorpromazine to treat schizophrenia. 74. Each of the following persons based in Canada contributed to both theory and treatment EXCEPT __________. A) J. F. Lehman B) Donald Meichenbaum C) Albert Bandura D) Zindel Segal E) Richard Walters Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-1-74 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) J. F. Lehman 75. Which of the following persons and accomplishments are INCORRECTLY matched? A) Breuer and hypnosis B) Meichenbaum and cognitive-behaviour therapy C) Bandura and social learning theory D) Kajander and depression E) Bandura and aggressive behaviour Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-75 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) Kajander and depression 76. Canadian psychologist Donald Meichenbaum's early work contributed significantly to the growth of _________ therapy. A) moral B) social-behaviour C) psychopharmalogical D) cognitive-behavioural E) social learning Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-76 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Factual Answer: D) cognitive-behavioural

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 77. Evidence-based practice is defined in the textbook as __________. A) integrating scientific evidence and individual expertise to inform optimum client care B) gathering evidence that certain methods are applicable to certain disorders C) gathering data from clinical practice to inform clinical research D) choosing methods in clinical practice that are based upon experimental evidence E) choosing methods in clinical practice that are based upon case study evidence Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-77 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) integrating scientific evidence and individual expertise to inform optimum client care 78. Which of the following is true regarding access to care in Canada? A) Access to care is among the best in North America. B) Access to care serves as a world model for how to optimize health care. C) Access to care through the public health system is insufficient. D) Access to care through workplace insurance benefits is among the best in the world. E) Access to care is excellent for children but not for adults. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-78 Learning Objective: 1.5 Understand how the COVID-19 pandemic highlighted concerns about access to mental health care and describe the implications of technological advances on the provision of mental health services. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Access to care through the public health system is insufficient. 79. In their first poll on the impact of COVID-19 on Canadian mental health, Mental Health Research Canada (MHRC) found that __________. A) the percentage of Canadians reporting high levels of depression had tripled from pre-pandemic levels B) the percentage of Canadians reporting high levels of depression had stayed the same as prepandemic levels C) the percentage of Canadians who had high levels of anxiety had doubled from pre-pandemic levels D) the percentage of Canadians who had high levels of depression had quadrupled from pre-pandemic levels E) the percentage of Canadians who had high levels of anxiety had quadrupled from pre-pandemic levels Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-79 Learning Objective: 1.5 Understand how the COVID-19 pandemic highlighted concerns about access to mental health care and describe the implications of technological advances on the provision of mental health services. Skill: Factual Answer: E) the percentage of Canadians who had high levels of anxiety had quadrupled from prepandemic levels

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 80. Which of the following is NOT one of the identified traditionally vulnerable groups who reported higher levels of psychological distress in May 2020? A) the LGBTQ+ community B) individuals with disabilities C) high socioeconomic status individuals D) Indigenous Peoples E) individuals with pre-existing mental health concerns Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-80 Learning Objective: 1.5 Understand how the COVID-19 pandemic highlighted concerns about access to mental health care and describe the implications of technological advances on the provision of mental health services. Skill: Factual Answer: C) high socioeconomic status individuals 81. In the results of Mental Health Research Canada’s third poll on mental health in COVID-19, _________ of respondents reported high-extremely high depression and __________ reported high-extremely high anxiety. A) 25% and 17% B) 15% and 35% C) 30% and 50% D) 17% and 25% E) 25% and 20% Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-81 Learning Objective: 1.5 Understand how the COVID-19 pandemic highlighted concerns about access to mental health care and describe the implications of technological advances on the provision of mental health services. Skill: Factual Answer: D) 17% and 25% 82. What form of mental health treatment is Canada attempting to move toward? A) community-based treatment B) psychopharmacological C) psychotherapy D) hypnosis E) institutionalized care Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-82 Learning Objective: 1.5 Understand how the COVID-19 pandemic highlighted concerns about access to mental health care and describe the implications of technological advances on the provision of mental health services. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) community-based treatment

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 83. Jax is struggling with alcohol abuse and is looking for treatment but has very limited finances and no health coverage. What is a cost-effective alternative form of treatment for them? A) Alcoholics Anonymous B) teletherapy C) psychopharmacotherapy D) inpatient hospitalization E) in-person individual therapy Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-83 Learning Objective: 1.5 Understand how the COVID-19 pandemic highlighted concerns about access to mental health care and describe the implications of technological advances on the provision of mental health services. Skill: Application Answer: B) teletherapy 84. Tyler has been diagnosed with PTSD and is seeking treatment for their symptoms. What recent therapeutic alternative has been shown to be effective in treating PTSD? A) teletherapy B) group therapy C) hypnosis D) virtual reality therapy E) videotherapy Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-1-84 Learning Objective: 1.5 Understand how the COVID-19 pandemic highlighted concerns about access to mental health care and describe the implications of technological advances on the provision of mental health services. Skill: Application Answer: D) virtual reality therapy

Chapter 1 - True/False Questions 1. Mental illness conveys the same meaning as psychopathology, but it implies a medical or somatogenic rather than psychogenic cause. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-85 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 2. Psychopathology refers to the problems suffered by people with psychological disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-86 1-25 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 3. Psychological abnormality refers to dysfunctional behaviour with psychogenic cause. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-2-87 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 4. According to the statistical concept, abnormal behaviour is that which occurs relatively infrequently. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-88 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 5. Distress must be present in order for an individual to be diagnosed as suffering from a mental disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-2-89 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 6. Many mentally ill people are unpredictable and dangerous to themselves and others. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-90 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 7. Thomas Szasz claimed that the labels used to describe mental disorders reflected ways of controlling individuals suffering problems in living. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-2-91 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 8. Darwin's conceptualization of the mechanism of evolution was called natural selection. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-2-92 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 9. The bodily fluids believed to influence mental functioning were called humours. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-93 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 10. The ancient physician Galen believed that mental disorders were entirely the result of physical causes. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-94 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 11. The Arab world's approach to dealing with the mentally ill was that of compassion and humanity. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-95 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 12. Galen wrote The Canon of Medicine, one of the most widely read medical books ever written. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-96 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 13. Supernatural explanations of mental illness became popular in Europe during the Middle Ages. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-97 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 14. In the Middle Ages it was generally believed that those who were insane were possessed. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-2-98 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 15. Johannes Weyer rejected the four humours theory of mental illness and claimed that mental illness resulted from disturbances of the spiritus vitae. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-2-99 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 1-28 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 16. Paracelsus believed that psychic conflicts may result in mental illness and treated patients using an early form of hypnotism. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-2-100 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 17. The first mental institution in North America was built by the Moors at San Hippolyto in Mexico. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-101 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 18. Teresa of Avila and St. Vincent de Paul influenced the development of a more scientific approach to treating mental illness. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-102 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 19. During the 17th century in Europe, the trend was toward an increasingly more humane and rational approach to dealing with the mentally ill. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-2-103 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 20. Philippe Pinel was responsible for bringing moral therapy to North America. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-104 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 21. Immersion in cold water, inducing convulsions with insulin and electric shock were treatments based on the belief that sudden shock could produce recovery from mental illness. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-105 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 22. In 1949, a French doctor discovered that soldiers were calmed before surgery by chloropromazine. He shared this finding with psychiatrists who had similar success in calming patients with serious mental illness; the success of this drug triggered the "pharmacological revolution" that followed. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-2-106 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 23. Deinstitutionalization in the 1950s was a great success, thanks to the careful and advance planning of community mental health programs. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-107 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 24. Mesmer's work with hysteria sparked an interest in psychological explanations of disorders. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-2-108 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 25. The early efforts of Canadian provincial governments to care for the insane were characterized by an unsystematic approach. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-109 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 26. Albert Bandura and Richard Walters were responsible for developing cognitive behavioural therapy. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 01-2-110 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 27. Virtual reality is an effective treatment for schizophrenia. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-2-111 Learning Objective: 1.5 Understand how the COVID-19 pandemic highlighted concerns about access to mental health care and describe the implications of technological advances on the provision of mental health services. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 1 - Essay Questions 1. Explanations for abnormal behaviour depend on various factors. Use several examples and describe some reasons why certain behaviours are or are not considered "abnormal." Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-3-112 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Some people hold certain beliefs that others may consider odd or bizarre. However, the difficulty that exists is determining whether or not a particular behaviour is abnormal. For example, extremely religious individuals may believe in spirits and healing powers, but they do not have a mental disorder. Although someone may behave in an odd manner, it does not necessarily mean that they are psychologically disordered. As well, someone who commits criminal acts and/or is behaving in a deviant manner is not necessarily mentally disordered. Therefore, it is important to keep in mind that our interpretations or ideas of how other people behave may not necessarily imply that that individual is mentally ill. 2. Briefly describe and critique the principles used to establish the criteria for abnormality. Which definition best defines the concept of abnormality? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-3-113 Learning Objective: 1.1 Describe the principles that have been used to define abnormality and then apply them to determine whether a particular behaviour may meet the definition of abnormal behaviour. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Several principles are commonly used when determining the definition of abnormality. The statistical concept claims that behaviour should be judged abnormal if it occurs infrequently in the population. However, not all infrequent thoughts or actions should be considered abnormal. For example, those with an extremely high IQ are rare, but would be considered gifted as opposed to "abnormal." As well, some distressing and potentially problematic behaviours are quite common (e.g., depression, problematic alcohol use, cannabis use). Personal distress and dysfunction are often used as criteria. Patients experiencing a manic episode may feel little distress, however, and individuals who feel dissatisfied or in despair would not be labelled abnormal. Violation of social norms is also a criterion by which some people judge the presence of abnormal behaviour. People with schizophrenia, for example, may behave in ways counter to social norms; yet, so do criminals, and not all criminals are diagnosed with a mental disorder. Further, social norms vary over time and depending on the culture in question. It is generally a mental health expert who determines whether an individual suffers from a disorder; yet some believe that mental illness is socially constructed and is judged differently by different persons. None of the above criteria, on its own, is satisfactory in defining abnormal behaviour. No single criterion must be present or sufficient in defining abnormal behaviour, and generally all are used to some degree. 3. Approaches to conceptualizing and treating psychological abnormality have changed over time. Why is it valuable to be aware of the historical approaches to treating mental illness? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-3-114 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: Many changes have occurred throughout time in the ways we have theorized about and treated mental illness. By examining historical accounts, we are better able to understand what we do today. Most of the ideas about abnormal behaviour reflect the general views of the time. When we criticize the ideas and treatments used in the past, we must remember that, in the future, people may scoff at our methods of treatment. Our ideas of what constitutes abnormal behaviour have changed over time. For example, in the past, individuals having visions were seen as gifted, whereas today they would be viewed as psychotic. Supernatural causes, such as possession, were accepted in the past as causing mental illness, while today natural causes such as biology, the environment, or personal experiences are accepted. It is important to keep in mind that many individuals, from Canada and elsewhere, have made discoveries that have influenced where we are today. Many more research and treatment findings will likely influence future treatment and conceptualization of mental disorders. 4. Compare and contrast the causes and treatment methods for madness used in Stone Age cultures and by the ancient Greeks and Romans and the Arabs. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-3-115 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Application Answer: Evidence from prehistory has implied that the Stone Age surgeons cut small holes in the skull (trephination), possibly to release evil spirits that were causing the victim to engage in abnormal behaviour. Hunter-gatherer societies viewed madness as resulting from supernatural causes, and they tended to invoke an emotional release through the use of trances. Greek and Roman thought emphasized more natural causes for madness. Hippocrates believed that madness was caused by an imbalance in bodily fluids, and his treatment methods reflected a more scientific approach. He suggested treatments such as exercise, bleeding and vomiting, and a good diet. Plato emphasized sociocultural causes and looked to the importance of dreams. His treatment approach reflected more of community care, suggesting that relatives should care for the mentally ill at home. Galen stressed both physical and mental sources of disorder, and effective treatments included comfortable surroundings (no stressful procedures), and talking about difficulties. The Arabs held a supportive, compassionate attitude towards the mentally ill. Treatment reflected these attitudes, with asylums being places of refuge and protection. Thus, views of mental illness changed from supernatural to natural, with treatment methods changing as well. 5. Describe the contributions of two historical persons in Europe who influenced the theory and treatment of mental illness. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-3-116 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: Paracelsus (1493-1541) was one of the first to attack the beliefs about the supernatural and offered naturalistic origins to madness. He rejected the four humours theory of Hippocrates and attempted to develop a new system classification where all mental illness was seen to stem from disturbances of the spiritus vitae (breath of life). He was the first to suggest that psychic conflicts causes mental disorders and utilized an early version of hypnotism as treatment. His view represented a more scientific approach to dealing with mental illness. Philippe Pinel (1745-1826) was one of the leaders of the reform movement to improve conditions for the mentally ill. Pinel was a true humanitarian who carried out dramatic changes in institutions at a time when few accepted his ideas. As well, he influenced psychiatry as a whole by developing a systematic and statistical approach to classifying, managing, and treating mental disorders. He was a scientist who emphasized natural causes to mental illness and firmly believed that the mentally ill should be treated with compassion and respect. 1-33 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 6. Despite its aims, the mental hygiene movement of the 19th century did not meet its goals. Describe the reasons for this movement, the instrumental figures responsible for this movement, and the reasons behind its lack of success. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-3-117 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: Conditions for the mentally ill during the 1800s were horrendous. The mentally ill were left wandering from place to place and were rarely taken proper care of. In poorhouses, they were chained up and often taunted by visitors. Thus, reformers insisted on the establishment of mental asylums where proper care would be given to the mentally ill. Dorothea Dix (1802-1877), who became one of the leaders of the mental hygiene movement, visited a local prison, and, horrified by the conditions, became determined to make changes. She was also concerned with the suffering of mental patients and began a nationwide campaign to improve life for these individuals. Thus, the goal of the mental hygiene movement was to protect and provide humane treatment for the mentally ill. However, the movement of people into large asylums did not make life better. There was a problem with overcrowding, and staff did not have the time to properly care for the considerable number of patients. Physicians replaced psychosocial treatments with physical treatments, which were often cruel rather than compassionate. 7. Moral therapy was an important approach in the treatment of the mentally ill. Define the basis of this approach, describe the individuals responsible for promoting this approach, and why it lost popularity. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-3-118 Learning Objective: 1.2 Understand how the conceptualization of psychological disorders changed from antiquity to the 1800s. Skill: Factual Answer: Moral therapy, advocated by humanitarian reformers (such as Lett, Pinel, Tuke, and Rush), gained popularity in Europe and North America during the early 1800s. Moral therapy was based on the idea that the insane should be treated humanely, without physical restraints. Patients were to be treated with compassion and respect, in a relaxing, stress-free environment. Most advocates of moral therapy believed they could cure mental illness through peaceful surroundings, proper diet and exercise, and activities. In fact, moral therapy did appear to have positive benefits. However, during the 1900s, moral therapy in Canada lost popularity and was replaced by physical and chemical restraints and somatic therapy. Public institutions became larger, thus decreasing the use of moral therapy. Biological approaches suggested that mental problems could be solved quickly and easily through surgery or medication. Even today, no one therapy quite exemplifies the humane approach of moral therapy. 8. The growth of mental health services in Canada has been characterized by both positive and negative accomplishments. Describe two of the negative practices used and speculate on the importance of these events for modern practices. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-3-119 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: Various harsh methods have been used in the name of treating the mentally ill in Canada, even as late as the mid-1900s. One widely used treatment method was psychosurgery, such as prefrontal lobotomies. Tens of thousands of Canadians during the 1940s-60s had the frontal lobes of their brains disconnected or surgically removed. Most of these early lobotomies appeared to be performed to advance research or make life easier for the staff, as opposed to the health of the patient. Another abuse of psychiatric power in Canada was the brainwashing experiments performed by Dr. Ewen Cameron, at Montreal's Allen Memorial Hospital during the late 1950s and early 1960s. Cameron "treated" the patients to massive doses of electroconvulsive therapy, prolonged sensory deprivation, and chemically-induced sleep. During their periods of sleep, he played audiotapes to the patients telling them how horrible they were, and they must change. These unfortunate patients were also injected with LSD and were not told that they were being used in a research experiment. These two examples make us aware of the importance of treating patients ethically and with respect and humanity. It is important that people in charge of the mentally ill do not abuse their power and that their treatment be properly monitored. We need to make an attempt to help the mentally ill with as little discomfort as possible. 9. Describe why the discovery that syphilis was the cause of general paresis was important to the modern view of mental illness. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-3-120 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Richard von Krafft-Ebing (1840-1902) was interested in the possibility that patients suffering from General Paresis of the Insane (GPI) may have acquired it through infection. Following Pasteur's germ theory of disease, Krafft-Ebing discovered that GPI was a long-term effect of syphilis. This finding sparked the view that all mental disorders might be caused by infections or some other biological factors. Somatogenesis (the belief that psychopathology is caused by biological factors) became a popular approach for those in the mental health field. There was increased optimism that all disorders would be cured by medical means. The discovery that GPI was caused by syphilis resulted in a more scientific approach to viewing mental illness and encouraged the use of various physical approaches to treatment. 10. Compare and contrast the somatogenic and psychogenic approaches to mental health and describe the positive effect that these approaches have had. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-3-121 Learning Objective: 1.3 Describe at least two treatments that are associated with the biological approach and outline the current status of these treatments. Skill: Factual Answer: The somatogenic approach focuses on biology. Somatogenecists assume that mental illnesses are caused by infections or disrupted biological functioning. The early somatogenecists thought that medication or surgery would "cure" the infection or physical problem, and mental health would be renewed. This approach was quite popular during the late 1800s and resulted in a more scientific approach to psychology, as well as experimentation with different types of physical treatments. During the 1950s, pharmacological agents became available and were associated with the idea that mental disorders are caused by chemical imbalances in the brain. During this time, the effects that neurotransmitters had on behaviour was discovered and many drugs were synthesized which could be used to treat psychiatric patients. This proved to be very valuable.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Psychogenic approaches focus on the psychological factors underlying mental illness. These approaches include Freud's psychoanalytic approach, Watson's behaviourism, and numerous others. Mesmer's work with hysteria spurred interest in this approach, treating hysteria with an early form of hypnosis. Charcot and Janet became particularly interested in psychological explanations of hysteria and the use of hypnosis as a treatment. Thus, psychoanalysis was born, as Breuer and Freud began to employ methods such as hypnosis and encouraging patients to talk about their past and their problems. Behaviourists believed that abnormal behaviour was learned and could be unlearned, and that in order for psychology to function as a science, only observable behaviour should be focused on. Although extremely different, both models have generated much research and increased our knowledge about the causes of mental illnesses and generated effective treatments. 11. After reading about the history of how mental illness has been dealt with, you are determined to advance the profession of psychology. You have been chosen to speak at a conference for the Canadian Psychological Association (CPA) Task Force to promote evidence-based practice (EBP) in clinical psychology. Define EBP, state the "goods" that it promises and how it can deliver them. Operationalize the concept of EBP for clinicians (i.e., what behaviours on the part of the clinician are entailed by a commitment to EBP?); make recommendations for how this could be implemented in one's practice and spread throughout the profession. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 01-3-122 Learning Objective: 1.4 Describe the contributions of at least two influential Canadian individuals in the field of mental health care. Skill: Conceptual, Application Answer: As defined by our colleagues at the American Psychological Association (APA), EvidenceBased Practice (EBP) refers to the integration of scientific evidence with individual expertise in order to inform optimum client care. The textbook tells us that the purpose is to bolster the efficacious treatment of mental disorders, maintain the competitiveness of psychologists in the mental health market, and to increase accountability and reduce liability. In lay terms, this means that clinicians actively maintain awareness of the most current and useful information available about the clients they treat and the methods they use to help those clients. That information will be based not only on research but also upon the experiences of colleagues that could usefully inform their clinical activities, help them avoid errors and pitfalls etc. EBP achieves these goods by increasing communication between and among clinicians and clinical researchers, reducing time, trial and error in finding the most effective assessment and treatment tools, making adjustments as indicated by the client's response. By utilizing the most up-to-date and pertinent information from researchers and fellow clinicians, the informed clinician provides the best treatment in the most efficient manner, with minimized risk of harm resulting from delays, trial-and-error, ineffective or inappropriate interventions. By helping our clients more effectively and efficiently, there is the added bonus of advancing the interests of psychology as a profession in the mental health marketplace. The value of a particular clinician's experience is recognized in the definition of EBP: communication among clinicians is part of what EBP is all about. At the same time, it is obvious that even the most experienced and knowledgeable clinician cannot compete with a database that is constantly evolving in response to the inputs researchers and clinicians from all over the world. Operationalized, EBP requires the clinician to identify and utilize appropriate and efficient sources of information regarding the problems they assess and treat – to routinely consume information relevant to their practice, and to seek more information as required. The available information can be described in terms of "layers", with the most accessible layer being clinical practice guidelines, which have "boiled down" the most current and pertinent information for the clinician who lacks the time to do this for him or herself. Other clinicians will prefer to go deeper, to review articles in journals that provide not only the clinical practice guidelines, but the controversies behind some of the decisions as to how to formulate 1-36 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e these. Clinicians will choose formats that suit their needs. The clinician can consult with their peers as to how to achieve this. EBP involves staying current, which requires a commitment of regular intake as well as focused searches as the need arises. Ideally, the EBP clinician will regularly receive communication with peers through networks (e.g., email listservs) where issues in implementing clinical practice guidelines, special populations and situations are discussed. Clinicians who take EBP seriously will feel obligated to disseminate information to their colleagues – not only information directly relevant to practice, but information about EBP itself and methods of efficiently accessing EBP information. Clinicians might see it as their duty to set up email listservs etc. This is a good thing for obvious reasons – i.e., more clinicians will be doing a better job, which is good for clients, clinicians, and the profession as a whole. It's also beneficial because greater numbers of clinicians sharing information will contribute not only to a faster-evolving database but also a better infrastructure for sharing the information. Clinicians might proactively think about ways they might achieve this, for example by sharing their information sources with colleagues in close proximity, seeking other opportunities in their spheres of influence etc. 12. Technology-delivered psychotherapy is becoming more and more popular. Describe the opportunities and the challenges that psychologists and other mental health professionals face with the proliferation of technology? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 01-3-123 Learning Objective: 1.5 Understand how the COVID-19 pandemic highlighted access to care concerns and describe the implications of recent technological advances on the provision of mental health services. Skill: Conceptualization Answer: The widespread availability of technology provides greater opportunity to provide access to psychological services to those who previously would not have had access. For example, those who live in remote areas would not have been able to gain easy access to psychological services at a clinic or at a hospital. Technology also introduces new ways to collect patient data. For example, tablets and smartphones make it possible to track behaviour in real time and this may be helpful in certain therapies and may improve the accuracy of data collection. But technology is associated with ethical challenges. For example, mental health professionals must be careful with the way they manage their online presence (e.g., on Facebook or Twitter) and must exercise caution in sharing personal information (e.g., photos) on social media platforms. Also, mental health professionals must carefully consider what opinions they decide to make public online.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 2 Theoretical Perspectives on Psychopathology Chapter 2 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. An integrative approach to the case study of Hailey at the start of the chapter __________. A) would focus on how maternal postpartum depression factors combine with peer social stressors in triggering depression B) would focus on how genetic factors interact with atypical synthesis of neurotransmitters to produce depression C) would infer biological, psychological, and social factors from Hailey's developmental history and describe how these factors have interacted over time to produce depression D) would infer multiple biological and social factors from Hailey's history and then describe how these factors have dynamically and reciprocally interacted over time E) would look at Hailey's history of thoughts, feelings and behaviours and integrate these in an account of how and when her depression emerged Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-01 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Conceptual, application Answer: C) would infer biological, psychological, and social factors from Hailey's developmental history and describe how these factors have interacted over time to produce depression. 2. A theory of psychopathological behaviour __________. A) should only consider biological factors B) should be abandoned when shown to be incorrect, regardless of whether there is a better one available C) should not be considered useful if it has been shown to be incorrect, even if it generates further research D) should be judged solely on how well it matches current information E) should be abandoned only when there is a better one available Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-02 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) should be abandoned only when there is a better one available. 3. Single-factor explanations __________. A) tend to identify risk factors rather than specific causes of dysfunctional behaviour B) emphasize one factor as being a major contributor to a particular psychological disorder C) are generally preferred over other explanations because of their simplicity D) often reflect a high level of current comprehensive knowledge of disorder E) view behaviour as the product of the interaction of several factors

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-03 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual Answer: B) emphasize one factor as being a major contributor to a particular psychological disorder. 4. According to the text, scientific theories, such as those of abnormal psychology, are judged to be valuable for all of the following reasons EXCEPT __________. A) they make testable predictions about aspects of the phenomena that had not previously been made B) they make it possible to specify the evidence necessary to deny the theory C) they are parsimonious D) they integrate most of what is presently known about the phenomena E) they describe the enduring truth about an issue Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-04 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) they describe the enduring truth about an issue. 5. Theories __________. A) are never completely replaced in science because a better theory comes along B) are not facts, but rather the best approximation possible at the present time C) represent the known facts of current understanding D) can be proven correct if enough evidence is gathered E) must be shown to be true by scientists Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-05 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) are not facts, but rather the best approximation possible at the present time. 6. In science, experiments are set up not to prove the worth of a theory, but rather to reject what is called the __________. A) rejection hypothesis B) test hypothesis C) experimental hypothesis D) null hypothesis E) false hypothesis Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-06 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual Answer: D) null hypothesis.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 7. According to the text, which of the following is NOT a general aim of theories about mental disorders? A) To identify characteristics that precede and follow episodes of the problem behaviour B) To predict the course of the disorder C) To identify the factors that maintain the behaviour D) To design effective treatments E) To explain the origins of the problem behaviour Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-07 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual Answer: A) To identify characteristics that precede and follow episodes of the problem behaviour 8. The effects of untreated phenylketonuria (PKU) are __________. A) markedly increased blood levels of phenylalanine, resulting in obsessive-compulsive disorder in adulthood B) markedly increased blood levels of phenylalanine, resulting in severe intellectual developmental difficulties C) markedly increased blood levels of phenylalanine, resulting in severe dyslexia D) markedly increased blood levels of glycogen, resulting in severe dyslexia E) markedly increased blood levels of glycogen, resulting in severe mental retardation Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-08 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual Answer: B) markedly increased blood levels of phenylalanine, resulting in severe intellectual developmental difficulties. 9. The etiology of a disorder refers to __________. A) the proportion of the population affected by the disorder at any one time B) the number of new cases of a disorder, per 100,000 people per year C) the factors that maintain a disorder D) the causes or origins of a disorder E) the predicted path that people diagnosed with a disorder usually follow Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-09 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual Answer: D) the causes or origins of a disorder.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 10. Clark and Beck (2010) have modified Aaron Beck's cognitive formulation of depression and anxiety to include neurobiological correlates of cognitive therapy (CT): as CT modifies maladaptive cognitive processes, imaging studies show that these changes are accompanied by __________. A) reduced activation of subcortical regions and increased activation of cortical regions involved in cognitive control of emotion and reflective processes B) reduced activation of cortical regions involved in excessive thinking, with increased activation in subcortical regions involved in the relaxation response C) increased activation in interactive cortical and subcortical regions where emotional processing takes place D) reduced activity in the left parietal lobe which has been associated with hyper- focusing and the anxiodepressogenic response complex E) increased activity in the left parietal lobe, which has been associated with adaptive judgment and appropriate emotional responses Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-10 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experience. Skill: Factual Answer: A) reduced activation of subcortical regions and increased activation of cortical regions involved in cognitive control of emotion and reflective processes. 11. The best response to reductionism from an integrative perspective is __________. A) biological processes have psychological and social correlates and vice versa: these are different and equally important levels of analysis for understanding human behaviour B) biological processes affect people at the psychological and social levels of analysis and so it's important to intervene at the most fundamental level C) the brain and the peripheral nervous system, but not the endocrine system, gives rise to all healthy and unhealthy psycho-social processes D) we must seek to identify the psychological processes that give rise to healthy and unhealthy brain states E) we must seek to identify the psycho-social processes that give rise to healthy vs. unhealthy brain states Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-11 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Application Answer: A) biological processes have psychological and social correlates and vice versa: these are different and equally important levels of analysis for understanding human behaviour. 12. Biological theories of abnormal behavior have primarily implicated dysfunctions in __________. A) the brain (central nervous system), the peripheral nervous system, or the endocrine system B) the peripheral nervous system and the endocrine system, but not the brain C) the brain and the peripheral nervous system, but not the endocrine system D) the brain only E) the brain and the endocrine system, but not the peripheral nervous system

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-12 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: A) the brain (central nervous system), the peripheral nervous system, or the endocrine system. 13. Dementia, a deterioration in cognitive processes seen in disorders such as Parkinson's or Alzheimer's disease, has been linked to __________. A) spinal cord injury B) dysfunction of the reticular activating system of the midbrain C) dysfunction of the hindbrain D) the general loss or ineffective functioning of brain cells E) damage to the cerebellum Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-13 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: D) the general loss or ineffective functioning of brain cells. 14. It can be inferred from the chapter's discussion that current theories about the brain bases of abnormal behaviour __________. A) have not seriously considered the roles of neurotransmitters and neuronal damage B) have given equal weight to the roles of neurotransmitters and neuronal damage C) have given more weight to the roles of neurotransmitters than to actual neuronal damage D) have only considered the role of one neurotransmitter, dopamine E) have given more weight to the role of actual neuronal damage than to neurotransmitters Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-14 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: C) have given more weight to the roles of neurotransmitters than to actual neuronal damage. 15. Which of the following statements concerning neurotransmitters is NOT true? A) The various neurotransmitters are spread fairly evenly throughout the brain and are believed to play approximately equal roles in different functions (such as exploratory behaviours). B) The majority of research concerning neurotransmitters has examined dopamine, serotonin, norepinephrine and (more recently) gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA). C) Neurotransmitters either inhibit or activate an impulse in the post-synaptic neuron. D) Neurotransmitters carry their messages across a gap between neurons called a "synapse" or "synaptic cleft". E) Neurotransmitters are the chemical substances that carry messages from one neuron to the next. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-15 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: A) The various neurotransmitters are spread fairly evenly throughout the brain and are believed to play approximately equal roles in different functions (such as exploratory behaviours). 16. Which of the following is NOT a manner in which disturbances in neurotransmitter systems can result in abnormal behaviour? A) Having certain neurotransmitters working in brain circuits not responsive to those transmitters B) Having an excess or deficit in the amount of the transmitter-deactivating substance in the synapse C) Having too much or too little of the neurotransmitter produced or released into the synapse D) Having too few or too many receptors on the dendrites of the receiving neurons E) Having the process of reuptake (drawing released neurotransmitters back into the releasing axon) be too rapid or too slow Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-16 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Having certain neurotransmitters working in brain circuits not responsive to those transmitters 17. An experiment by Canadian neurophysiologist Bryan Kolb and his colleagues (2003) demonstrated that the offspring of rats raised in a complex environment exhibited __________. A) decreased synaptic space on the neurons in their cerebral cortex B) increased synaptic space on the neurons in their cerebral cortex C) an increase in the speed of neuronal transmission D) increased numbers of the neurotransmitter dopamine E) a decrease in the speed of neuronal transmission Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-17 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: B) increased synaptic space on the neurons in their cerebral cortex. 18. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding brain plasticity? A) Behaviour affects neurotransmitter activity B) Brain plasticity can be influenced by a number of experiences that occur pre- and post-natally through hormones, diet, aging, stress, disease, and maturation C) Any manipulation that produces an enduring change in behaviour leaves an anatomical footprint in the brain D) Environmental events and responses to those events might contribute to the development of schizophrenia E) Brain plasticity is possible only until middle-adolescence, after which the brain remains relatively stable Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-18 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Brain plasticity is possible only until middle-adolescence, after which the brain remains relatively stable

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 19. The autonomic nervous system consists of __________. A) the somatic nervous system and the sympathetic nervous system B) the somatic nervous system and the parasomatic nervous system C) the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system D) the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system E) the somatic nervous system and the endocrine system Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-19 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: C) the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. 20. The Canadian physician Hans Selye established the area of study now known as __________. A) biofeedback B) stress physiology C) comparative psychology D) neuropsychology E) behavioural genetics Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-20 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: B) stress physiology. 21. Which of the following has been shown to be involved in fear and anxiety reactions, and thus perhaps in phobias or other anxiety disorders? A) the parasympathetic nervous system B) the sympathetic nervous system C) the gonads D) the somatic nervous system E) the thalamus Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-21 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: B) the sympathetic nervous system 22. Relative to healthy controls, people who experience panic attacks __________. A) have been demonstrated to display chronic muscle tension B) have been described as sympathetic restrictors because of their consistently low sympathetic nervous system activity C) have extremely high levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine D) have extremely low levels of the neurotransmitter dopamine E) take longer to unlearn a conditioned fear response

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-22 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: E) take longer to unlearn a conditioned fear response. 23. The hypothalamus __________. A) secretes "releasing" hormones that activate the pituitary gland B) is activated by neurotransmitters released by the pituitary gland C) is often called the "master gland" D) directly releases prolactin and adrenocorticotrophic hormone into the body E) releases sex hormones in response to signals from the pituitary gland Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-23 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: A) secretes "releasing" hormones that activate the pituitary gland. 24. Which of the following statements is correct? A) Hypoglycemia, a disorder known to be related to a defective thyroid gland, results in a variety of psychiatric symptoms including anxiety and depression. B) Cretinism, a disorder known to be related to the failure of the pancreas to produce balanced levels of insulin or glycogen, produces experiences that mimic anxiety. C) Cretinism, a disorder known to be related to a defective thyroid gland, results in a variety of psychiatric symptoms including anxiety and depression. D) Hypoglycemia, a disorder known to be related to a defective thyroid gland, results in a dwarflike appearance and intellectual deficits. E) Cretinism, a disorder known to be related to a defective thyroid gland, results in a dwarflike appearance and intellectual deficits. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-24 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Cretinism, a disorder known to be related to a defective thyroid gland, results in a dwarflike appearance and intellectual deficits. 25. Regarding the HPA axis which of the following statements is true? A) Too little cortisol in the long term can have adverse effects. B) Too much cortisol in the long term can have adverse effects. C) Too little cortisol in the short term can have adverse effects. D) Too little glycogen in the long term can have adverse effects. E) Too much glycogen in the short term can have adverse effects. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-25 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Conceptual 2-8 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: B) Too much cortisol in the long term can have adverse effects. 26. Regarding the HPA axis which of the following statements is NOT true? A) The HPA axis refers to the hippocampus, pituitary gland and adrenal cortex B) Action of the HPA includes release of cortisol by the adrenal cortex C) Cortisol facilitates an individual's response to short-term threat D) Cortisol affects the body in ways that confer survival benefits E) The HPA is chronically activated in most cases of depression and some cases of anxiety disorder Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-26 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: A) The HPA axis refers to the hippocampus, pituitary gland, and adrenal cortex 27. Which of the following is true regarding the gene-environment interaction? A) It appears that genes may influence behaviours that contribute to environmental stressors, which in turn, heighten risk for psychopathology. B) Contrary to commonly held ideas, it appears that there is not a reciprocal relationship between genes and environmental risk factors. C) It turns out that genetic risk factors and environmental risk factors operate independently for most disorders except schizophrenia. D) Some mental disorders have been shown to be entirely due to sociocultural and environmental factors. E) Genetic contributions to disorder are always more dominant than environmental factors. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-27 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) It appears that genes may influence behaviours that contribute to environmental stressors, which in turn, heighten risk for psychopathology. 28. Which seventeenth-century English philosopher thought that aggression and self- interest were inborn features of all humans? A) Sigmund Freud B) John Locke C) Thomas Hobbes D) William Shakespeare E) William Bentham Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-28 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Thomas Hobbes

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 29. Which of the following statements is true? A) Cesare Lombroso declared that criminals could be identified by physiological features they inherited from their degenerate parents. B) Arthur Jensen declared that criminals could be identified by physiological features they inherited from their degenerate parents. C) Arthur Jensen declared that criminals could be identified by psychological features they inherited from their degenerate parents. D) Paul Broca declared that criminals could be identified by physiological features they inherited from their degenerate parents. E) Cesare Lombroso declared that criminals could be identified by psychological features they inherited from their degenerate parents. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-29 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Cesare Lombroso declared that criminals could be identified by physiological features they inherited from their degenerate parents. 30. Research into the genetic basis of psychiatric disorders typically takes one of three forms. These three methods are: __________. A) adoption studies, family studies, and sibling studies B) family studies, sibling studies, and adoption studies C) family studies, twin studies, and adoption studies D) twin studies, family studies, and sibling studies E) sibling studies, adoption studies, and twin studies Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-30 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) family studies, twin studies, and adoption studies. 31. Genetic linkage studies rely upon __________. A) the identification of environmental factors that relate to a particular psychiatric disorder that runs in families B) the identification of genetic markers that can be linked to the occurrence of a disorder within the general population C) the identification of genetic markers that can be linked to the occurrence of a disorder within extended families D) the identification of environmental factors that relate to a particular psychiatric disorder within the general population E) the identification of several genes within a single person that combine to produce a particular psychiatric disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-31 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Conceptual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: C) the identification of genetic markers that can be linked to the occurrence of a disorder within extended families. 32. Little Hans had such a fear of being bitten by a horse that he would not leave the house. Freud took the case and __________. A) explained that the boy was associating horses to his earlier frightening experience that involved a horse B) dismissed the experience with the horse as causal, and considered the fear to have hidden, unconscious origins C) explained that the boy's decision to avoid horses and stay indoors was his young ego's attempt at suppressing threatening id material that he didn't like D) explained that avoiding horses was a conscious attempt at repressing the horse incident to the unconscious E) attempted to help the boy identify his own beliefs and expectations about encountering another horse Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-32 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: B) dismissed the experience with the horse as causal, and considered the fear to have hidden, unconscious origins. 33. Sigmund Freud, founder of the psychodynamic school of thought, was a __________. A) behaviourist from Chicago B) psychologist from Paris C) psychiatrist from Berlin D) neurologist from Vienna E) hypnotist from Oslo Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-33 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: D) neurologist from Vienna. 34. Which statement is NOT true about Bertha Pappenheim, also known as Anna O.? A) She revealed traumatic past experiences associated with deep emotional responses during hypnosis. B) She became Germany's first social worker. C) She continued to suffer from intermittent recurrence of her problems for years after being told she was 'cured' by Freud's mentor, Josef Breuer. D) She became a leading feminist. E) Though she became quite hostile towards psychoanalysis, she grudgingly allowed the girls in the home she ran to be psychoanalyzed because of their considerable problems. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-34 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Though she became quite hostile towards psychoanalysis, she grudgingly allowed the girls in the home she ran to be psychoanalyzed because of their considerable problems. 2-11 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 35. What are the three levels of consciousness as distinguished by Freud? A) the preconscious, the conscious, and the unconscious B) the conscious, the subconscious, and the unconscious C) the conscious, the preconscious, and the subconscious D) the subconscious, the nonconscious, and the unconscious E) the conscious, the preconscious, and the unconscious Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-35 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: E) the conscious, the preconscious, and the unconscious 36. The personality structure Freud called the id __________. A) utilizes what is called "secondary process thinking" B) is the internalization of the moral standards of society C) begins to develop in the first year of life in response to experiences in which the infant's instinctual demands are not immediately met D) represents the rational aspect of one's personality E) acts according to the pleasure principle Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-36 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: E) acts according to the pleasure principle. 37. Which of the following statements concerning the ego is true? A) It develops out of a concern for right and wrong. B) It develops in response to the Oedipal complex. C) It operates according to the pleasure principle. D) It operates according to the reality principle. E) It operates by "primary process thinking". Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-37 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: D) It operates according to the reality principle. 38. The superego __________. A) develops to curb the desires of the id so that the individual does not suffer any unpleasant consequences B) acts according to the reality principles C) is the internalization of the moral standards of our society D) operates by "secondary process thinking". E) represents biological or instinctual drives.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-38 Learning Objective 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: C) is the internalization of the moral standards of our society. 39. According to Freud, the energy for the sexual drive called eros is referred to as __________. A) libido B) thanatos C) erogeny D) electra E) phallic Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-39 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: A) libido 40. In the first year of life, an infant is at the __________. A) anal stage B) latency stage C) phallic stage D) genital stage E) oral stage Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-40 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: E) oral stage. 41. Alex is a four-year-old boy who starts telling his mother that he wants to marry her. Freud would characterize his behaviour as reflecting __________. A) the Oedipal complex B) the pleasure principle C) sublimation D) the fear of parental loss E) castration anxiety Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-41 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Application Answer: A) the Oedipal complex.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 42. Joe is often characterized as a "chatter box." A Freudian therapist would likely feel that he is fixated at which stage of development? A) latency stage B) oral stage C) phallic stage D) genital stage E) anal stage Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-42 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Application Answer: B) oral stage 43. At which stage of development did Freud believe that girls experience the Electra complex? A) oral stage B) phallic stage C) genital stage D) latency stage E) anal stage Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-43 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: B) phallic stage 44. Freud's concept of the Oedipal complex is based upon a play by the Greek tragedian, Sophocles. In this play, the character Oedipus __________. A) kills his father and marries his mother B) kills his brother and marries his mother C) kills his mother and marries his sister D) kills his brother and marries his sister E) kills his father and marries his sister Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-44 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: A) kills his father and marries his mother. 45. Freud believed that girls desire their father to gain what they strongly desire - a penis. Freud referred to this desire for the father as the __________. A) Phallic complex B) Displacement complex C) Libido complex D) Electra complex E) Pandora complex

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-45 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Electra complex. 46. The case of Little Hans demonstrates what Freud meant by __________. A) the pleasure principle B) the reality principle C) the moral principle D) reaction formation E) castration anxiety Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-46 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: E) castration anxiety. 47. Which of the following is true of the latency stage of development? A) Because sex is especially relevant during this stage, it has received a great deal of attention from psychoanalysts. B) It is a relatively quiescent stage. C) It spans the age range from approximately 3 to 6 years. D) Children in this stage typically associate with other children of the opposite sex. E) Children in this stage develop their toilet training skills. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-47 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: B) It is a relatively quiescent stage. 48. Freud believed that the ego employed __________ to allow the expression of libidinal desires in a distorted or symbolic form. A) insight B) object relations C) the id D) defence mechanisms E) primary process thinking Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-48 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: D) defence mechanisms

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 49. According to Freud, __________ is the most fundamental of the defence mechanisms. A) repression B) denial C) projection D) reaction formation E) sublimation Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-49 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: A) repression 50. After putting up with numerous criticisms from his boss all day, John came home and yelled at his wife for no apparent reason. This illustrates the defense mechanism of __________. A) regression B) reaction formation C) projection D) denial E) displacement Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-50 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Application Answer: E) displacement. 51. After being informed that she has only 2 months to live, Lisa plans a holiday that will take place in a year's time. This illustrates which defence mechanism? A) Repression B) Regression C) Intellectualization D) Reaction formation E) Denial Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-51 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Application Answer: E) Denial 52. Which of the following statements does NOT represent a valuable aspect of Freud's thinking, according to your text? A) He legitimized discussion and research on sexual matters. B) He recognized that the motives for human behaviour were not always the obvious ones. C) He encouraged a concern with processes beyond our awareness. D) He emphasized the need to support claims with empirical evidence. E) His work on defence mechanisms has witnessed the greatest acceptance among clinicians than any of his other ideas.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-52 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defense mechanisms. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) He emphasized the need to support claims with empirical evidence. 53. Early behaviourists such as Watson were __________. A) environmentalists B) psychoanalysts C) biologists D) geneticists E) physicians Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-53 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) environmentalists. 54. Watson's behaviourism was based on __________. A) Freud's ideas concerning the development of the ego B) the ideas of Freud's followers such as Carl Jung and Alfred Adler C) classical conditioning D) operant conditioning E) social learning theory Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-54 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Factual Answer: C) classical conditioning. 55. Watson's most famous application of the process of "stimulus-stimulus learning" was to the acquisition of __________. A) obsessive-compulsive disorder B) post-traumatic stress disorder C) schizophrenia D) generalized anxiety disorder E) phobias Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-55 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Factual Answer: E) phobias.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 56. The case of __________ has been interpreted both as an example of Freudian analysis and classical conditioning. A) Little Anna B) Little Otto C) Little Ivan D) Little Albert E) Little Hans Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-56 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Little Hans 57. Watson and his student, Rosalie Rayner, demonstrated that __________. A) operant conditioning could instill a fear of a white rat in an eleven-month-old boy B) classical conditioning could instill a fear of a horse in an eleven-month-old boy C) classical conditioning could instill a fear of a white rat in an eleven-month-old boy D) operant conditioning could instill a fear of a spider in an eleven-month-old boy E) classical conditioning could instill a fear of a spider in an eleven-month-old boy Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-57 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Factual Answer: C) classical conditioning could instill a fear of a white rat in an eleven-month-old boy. 58. Recall the way classical conditioning applies to Pavlov's dogs and to Little Albert's conditioned fear of white rats. Which of the following analogies are correct? A) Food is to bell as sudden loud noise is to little white rat B) Food is to bell as sudden loud noise is to fear / distress response C) Food is to salivation as white rat is to fear / distress response D) Food is to salivation as sudden loud noise is to playful response E) Bell is to salivation as white rat is to playful response Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-58 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Food is to bell as sudden loud noise is to little white rat 59. Classical conditioning accounts of phobias __________. A) were strongly supported by B.F. Skinner B) were first described by Freud C) remain popular to this day D) cannot explain many facets of phobias E) help explain why certain fears persist

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-59 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Factual Answer: D) cannot explain many facets of phobias. 60. Part of Mowrer's two-factor theory of conditioning is derived from the work of __________ concerning __________. A) Burrhus F. Skinner; classical conditioning B) John B. Watson; classical conditioning C) Ivan Pavlov; stimulus-stimulus learning D) Burrhus F. Skinner; operant conditioning E) John B. Watson; operant conditioning Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-60 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Burrhus F. Skinner; operant conditioning 61. Which of the following was NOT discussed by Skinner as a part of operant conditioning? A) negative punishment B) positive reinforcement C) stimulus-stimulus learning D) positive punishment E) negative reinforcement Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-61 Learning Objective2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Factual Answer: C) stimulus-stimulus learning 62. The two-factor theory explains the persistence of phobias in a way that simple classical conditioning cannot, by adding a _______ component to the process. A) negative reinforcement B) positive reinforcement C) vicarious reinforcement D) negative punishment E) positive punishment Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-62 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Factual Answer: A) negative reinforcement

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 63. Geris is a clinical psychologist whose therapeutic approach reflects the view that thinking and behaviour are learned and thus can be changed. Further, their approach essentially follows the views expressed by Bandura's social learning theory. Which of the following is most likely Geris's treatment approach? A) cognitive-behavioural B) behavioural C) operant D) neo-psychodynamic E) cognitive Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-63 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Application Answer: A) cognitive-behavioural 64. Max became fearful of spiders as a child after repeatedly watching their mother show distress in the presence of a spider. Max's fear of spiders is most easily accounted for by __________. A) classical conditioning B) social learning theory C) cognitive theory D) operant conditioning E) stimulus-stimulus learning Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-64 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Application Answer: B) social learning theory. 65. According to learning paradigms, which one of the following is not a pathway by which phobias develop? A) classical conditioning. B) direct observation (watching others' fearful reaction). C) information transmission (from books, movies, television). D) operant conditioning. E) passive conditioning Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-65 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) passive conditioning

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 66. Which pair of pre-eminent cognitive theorists have offered accounts of the etiology and treatment of abnormal behaviour? A) Ellis and Beck B) Ellis and Rogers C) Watson and Skinner D) Bandura and Mowrer E) Bandura and Walters Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-66 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Ellis and Beck 67. Albert Ellis __________. A) developed a behaviourist view of abnormal behaviour that focused primarily on the role of reinforcement of dysfunctional behaviours B) believed that people who are low in self-efficacy are more likely to develop low self-worth C) discussed irrational beliefs, which he believed distort responding and increase feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness D) argued that people with disorders have underlying cognitive schemata that inappropriately direct their processing of information E) was the first to develop a form of cognitive-behavioural therapy, entitled "cognitive- rational therapy" Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-67 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Factual Answer: C) discussed irrational beliefs, which he believed distort responding and increase feelings of worthlessness and hopelessness. 68. In Beck's theory, content-specificity refers to the idea that __________. A) people perceive themselves to be competent in very specific areas only, thereby limiting their potential for success in other areas B) people sometimes engage in "all-or-none thinking" C) people tend to define their self-worth in terms of irrational if-then statements D) people are biased to selectively attend to information that is consistent with their prevailing schemas E) people tend to hold beliefs that match the features of their psychopathology Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-68 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) people tend to hold beliefs that match the features of their psychopathology.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 69. According to Beck's theory, individuals who are depressed have negative automatic thoughts that focus on themes __________. A) that other people are dangerous and cannot be trusted B) of personal loss and failure C) that the world is a dangerous and unpredictable place D) of bad things that may happen in the future E) that one will never be attractive enough Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-69 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual Answer: B) of personal loss and failure. 70. Cognitive therapy has enjoyed most success with the treatment of __________. A) phobias B) eating disorders C) anxiety and mood disorders D) schizophrenia E) personality disorders. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-70 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual Answer: C) anxiety and mood disorders. 71. According to third wave approaches to CBT, what is mindfulness? A) the capacity to experience self-compassion. B) careful, deliberate mental simulation of coping strategies that one can employ in the face of adversity. C) paying attention on purpose and in the present moment. D) treating the self and others with respect. E) considering alternative explanations for ambiguous situations. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-71 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: C) paying attention on purpose and in the present moment. 72. Which of the following has been proposed as the likely mechanism underlying mindfulnessbased interventions? A) changes in cognitive and emotional reactivity. B) changes in behavioural and emotional reactivity. C) changes in interoceptive reactivity. D) changes in compassion for other people E) changes in appraisals of one's physiological processes.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-72 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) changes in cognitive and emotional reactivity. 73. The text claims that humanistic and existential theories can be considered to be variants on the __________ approach to understanding human behaviour, first clearly formulated by __________. A) phenomenological; Locke B) deterministic; Locke C) deterministic; Freud D) phenomenological; Husserl E) deterministic; Husserl Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-73 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual Answer: D) phenomenological; Husserl 74. According to the text, two of the most eminent advocates of humanistic psychology were __________. A) Maslow, who discussed self-actualization; and Rogers, who discussed a person-centred approach B) Maslow, who discussed self-efficacy; and Rogers, who discussed existential angst C) Maslow, who discussed self-actualization; and Rosenhan, who discussed labelling theory D) Maslow, who discussed labelling theory; and Rosenhan, who discussed self-actualization E) Maslow, who discussed a person-centred approach; and Rogers, who discussed self-actualization Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-74 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Maslow, who discussed self-actualization; and Rogers, who discussed a person-centred approach. 75. According to Carl Rogers, abnormal behaviour results from __________. A) a person's distorted view of other people B) a person's distorted need for self-fulfillment C) a person's distorted view of the world D) a person's distorted fear of death E) a person's distorted view of themselves Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-75 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) a person's distorted view of themselves. 2-23 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 76. Abraham Maslow believed __________. A) that people are evil and only behave positively as a result of experience that has diverted from the path of self-actualization B) the fulfillment of self-actualization often leads to abnormal behaviour in some people C) that people are neither good nor evil and behave positively or negatively as a result of experience that has diverted them from the path of self-actualization D) that there is a hierarchy of needs, with biological or survival needs at the to E) that people are good and only behave dysfunctionally as a result of experience Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-76 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual Answer: E) that people are good and only behave dysfunctionally as a result of experience. 77. Which of the following statements is NOT true of the existential approach? A) Considerable research has supported this approach to treatment. B) Treatment is directed at confronting clients with their responsibility for their actions and helping them find meaning in their lives. C) A key concept is angst, a German word perhaps best translated as a sense of severe distress. D) Two leading exponents are Rollo May and Victor Frankl. E) Awareness of one's existence is a critical feature of human functioning. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-77 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Considerable research has supported this approach to treatment. 78. Which of the following is true of the Rosenhan study in which normal people were admitted to psychiatric hospitals complaining of hearing voices? A) The on-duty psychiatrists later admitted that they were wrong with their initial diagnoses. B) Once in the hospital, the pseudo-patients' normal behaviour was recognized as normal by the staff. C) Once in the hospital, some of the pseudo-patients did in fact start to show symptoms that confirmed their diagnoses. D) Each was diagnosed as suffering from a different disorder. E) The staff rarely responded to legitimate questions by the pseudo-patients. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-78 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual Answer: E) The staff rarely responded to legitimate questions by the pseudo-patients.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 79. According to sociocultural theories, identifying someone as having a disorder __________. A) can lead to the perception by others that the labelled person is dysfunctional and different B) is an important first step for the person so labelled in seeking the proper type of treatment for their disorder C) typically has little significance in the way of proper treatment D) does not lead to unwarranted expectations by others about the person labelled E) is important because it leads to the proper treatment Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-79 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) can lead to the perception by others that the labelled person is dysfunctional and different. 80. With respect to gender differences in the diagnosis of personality disorders (using a binary view of gender as Pantony and Caplan, though incorrect, viewed gender as binary at the time), Pantony and Caplan (1991) point out that __________. A) cisgender men and cisgender women are equally likely to be diagnosed with dependent personality disorder B) cisgender men and cisgender women are equally likely to be diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder C) cisgender men are more likely to be diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder and cisgender women are more likely to be diagnosed with dependent personality disorder D) gender does not appear to play role in the development or diagnosis of any particular personality disorder E) cisgender men are more likely to be diagnosed with dependent personality and cisgender women more likely to be diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-80 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) cisgender men are more likely to be diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder and cisgender women are more likely to be diagnosed with dependent personality disorder. 81. Which of the following reasons was NOT suggested by the text to potentially account for the finding that people who were aggressive or psychotic were far more likely to be identified among the poor than the middle class? A) People who are low in functioning gravitate to the lower end of the socioeconomic spectrum. B) Being poor produces higher levels of stress, and therefore higher rates of psychological dysfunction are to be expected. C) More acceptable diagnoses are reserved for people from the upper classes. D) Poorer people typically have genetic predispositions toward mental illnesses. E) The resentment at being poor may generate behaviours that are seen by others as antisocial or dysfunctional. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-81 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: D) Poorer people typically have genetic predispositions toward mental illnesses. 82. Which integrative theory posits that the whole is more than the sum of its parts? A) the diathesis-stress perspective B) systems theory C) the combination approach D) the biopsychosocial model E) social-learning theory Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-82 Learning Objective: 2.6: Understand how close others (e.g., partners, friends, family) can influence the development and maintenance of mental health disorders through stigma or social support. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) systems theory 83. According to the diathesis-stress perspective, a diathesis is __________, while a stressor is __________. A) either biological or psychological; either biological or psychological B) always biological; either biological or psychological C) always psychological; either biological or psychological D) always biological; always psychological E) always psychological; always biological Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-83 Learning Objective: 2.6: Understand how close others (e.g., partners, friends, family) can influence the development and maintenance of mental health disorders through stigma or social support. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) either biological or psychological; either biological or psychological 84. Which scenario illustrates a diathesis-stress pathway to disorder? A) parents of a child prone to hyper-impulsive behavior punish them inconsistently and harshly and do not provide socializing experiences B) an impulsive child with very little capacity for restraint robs a corner grocery and finds they enjoy the "rush" C) a teenager with very high levels of extraversion / outgoingness is influenced by their friends to try cocaine at a party D) a cisgender girl with low self-esteem, high anxiety and high need for control is exposed to unrealistic standards for body shape E) all of these are illustrations of a diathesis-stress pathway to disorder. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-84 Learning Objective: 2.6: Understand how close others (e.g., partners, friends, family) can influence the development and maintenance of mental health disorders through stigma or social support. Skill: Factual Answer: E) all of these are illustrations of a diathesis-stress pathway to disorder.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 85. The biopsychosocial model is illustrated by the finding that __________. A) brain functions have been shown to both influence and be influenced by psychological and social processes B) brain functions are mostly influenced by early childhood experiences C) brain functions are influenced most by adult behaviour, such as drug abuse D) brain functions are influenced by genetic factors only E) brain functions have been shown to influence psychological and social processes Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-85 Learning Objective: 2.6: Understand how close others (e.g., partners, friends, family) can influence the development and maintenance of mental health disorders through stigma or social support. Skill: Factual Answer: A) brain functions have been shown to both influence and be influenced by psychological and social processes. 86. Which of the following is NOT an example of a mindfulness-based intervention? A) Mindfulness-based Stress Reduction. B) Dialectical Behavioural Therapy. C) Cognitive Processing Therapy. D) Mindfulness-based Cognitive Therapy. E) Acceptance and Commitment Therapy. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-86 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Cognitive Processing Therapy. 87. Dr. Mallow is treating a client who is describing intense, intrusive thoughts and emotions they find difficult to control. If Dr. Mallow is using a mindfulness-based intervention, how would they encourage the client to view thoughts and emotions? A) Thoughts are an accurate representation of reality and emotions are a person’s reactions to those thoughts. B) Emotions are one’s “gut” reaction to reality and thoughts are passing mental events. C) Thoughts and emotions are never accurate representations of reality as everyone has biases and views reality differently. D) Thoughts and emotions are passing mental events and may/may not be an accurate representation of reality. E) Thoughts are one’s representation of reality, but emotions are just passing mental events. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-1-87 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Application Answer: D) Thoughts and emotions are passing mental events and may/may not be an accurate representation of reality.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 88. Nora is a 40-year-old, nonbinary adult struggling with the idea that they have not accomplished enough in their life and are less accomplished than their peers. According to Maslow, which hierarchy is Nora struggling to satisfy? A) Self-actualization needs. B) Physiological needs. C) Belongingness needs. D) Safety needs. E) Esteem needs. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-88 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Application Answer: E) Esteem needs. 89. Which of the following is an example of conceptualizing a mental disorder using the biopsychosocial model? A) Malik’s fear of flying is likely caused by the memory of their father dying in a plane crash when they were a child. B) Hannah’s schizophrenia is likely caused by her genetic history and the use of marijuana in high school. C) Tara’s borderline personality disorder is likely caused by their genetic history in addition to their invalidating home environment and low self-esteem. D) Yin’s bipolar disorder is likely inherited from his father. E) Mohamed’s depression is likely caused by his recent divorce and use of alcohol to cope. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-89 Learning Objective: 2.6: Understand how close others (e.g., partners, friends, family) can influence the development and maintenance of mental health disorders through stigma or social support. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) Tara’s borderline personality disorder is likely caused by their genetic history in addition to their invalidating home environment and low self-esteem. 90. Yara is a 4-year-old child whose continued misbehaviour has been a significant source of stress and conflict for their mothers. In response to Yara’s behaviour, Yara’s mothers become increasingly aggravated and attempt to control and punish the behaviour by taking away favourite toys, which in turn only increases Yara’s misbehaviour further. This is an example of which integrative theory? A) Diathesis-stress model. B) Systems theory. C) Triangulation. D) The biopsychosocial model. E) Behaviourism. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-90 Learning Objective: 2.6: Understand how close others (e.g., partners, friends, family) can influence the development and maintenance of mental health disorders through stigma or social support. Skill: Application Answer: B) Systems Theory. 91. Which of the following is one rationale for the increased prevalence of eating disorders among 2-28 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e sexual minority adults compared to cisgender heterosexual adults? A) Cisgender heterosexual adults are less health conscious than sexual minority adults. B) Sexual minority adults have a heightened exposure to social stigma and discrimination than cisgender heterosexual adults. C) Cisgender heterosexual adults place more emphasis on their appearancea and experience more socia stigma than sexual minority adults, preventing body dissatisfaction and eating disorders. D) Sexual minority adults are overrepresented in eating disorder research which leads to the appearance of greater prevalence of eating disorders compared to cisgender heterosexual adults. E) The prevalence of eating disorders is actually higher among cisgender heterosexual adults than sexual minority adults. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-1-91 Learning Objective: 2.7: Identify how gender, race, and poverty influence mental health disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) Sexual minority adults have a heightened exposure to social stigma and discrimination than cisgender heterosexual adults. 92. Children from families who are economically disadvanaged are __________ more likely to develop a mental health problem. A) 9-10 times. B) four times. C) 3-4 times. D) 2-3 times. E) 1-2 times. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-1-92 Learning Objective: 2.7: Identify how gender, race, and poverty influence mental health disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) 2-3 times.

Chapter 2 - True/False Questions 1. In addition to shared genes, there are additional ways that maternal post-partum depression might play a causal role in the depression of offspring. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-91 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Conceptual, Application Answer: a. True 2. Humanistic approaches place the responsibility for positive change upon the caregivers surrounding the individual. a True b False Difficulty: 1 2-29 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e QuestionID: 02-2-92 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 3. Biological and psychodynamic formulations view dysfunctional behaviour as the product of forces beyond the individual's control. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-2-93 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 4. Interactionist explanations of human behaviour view is as the product of a variety of dynamically-interacting factors. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-2-94 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 5. Single factor explanations are the ultimate goal of scientific inquiry, but are rarely achieved. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-95 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 6. Theories persist until they can no longer be proven true with the available evidence. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-96 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 7. In abnormal psychology, the term etiology refers to the prevalence or frequency of a disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-97 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 8. The metabolic problem associated with phenylketonuria (PKU) is genetically transmitted as a dominant trait, meaning that only one parent must carry the gene for a child to develop PKU. a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-2-98 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 9. The term dementia refers to a deterioration in all cognitive processes, particularly learning and memory. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-99 Learning Objective: 2.1: View behaviour and thinking (disordered or not) as arising from the interaction between biological and environmental experiences. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 10. Neurotransmitters are the chemical substances that carry the messages from one neuron to the next. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-2-100 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 11. Pleasure-seeking and exploratory behaviours appear to be associated with dopamine activity, whereas constraint or inhibition of behaviour seems mediated by serotonergic activity. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-101 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 12. The autonomic nervous system (ANS) has two parts: the sympathetic nervous system and the somatic nervous system. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-102 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 13. Irregular functioning in the respiratory and cardiovascular systems can be observed up to 47 minutes prior to the onset of a naturally occurring panic attack. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-103 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: a. True 14. In a twin study concerning the genetic bases of schizophrenia, a pair of twins who both have this disorder are said to display concordance. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-104 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 15. Hans Selye was analyzed by Sigmund Freud for a fear of horses. Apparently, Freud analyzed this case without ever seeing the patient. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-2-105 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defence mechanisms. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 16. Freud felt that there are four structures of personality, the id, the ego, the superego, and the collective unconscious. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-106 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defence mechanisms. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 17. Freud proposed that the ego develops to curb the desires of the id. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-107 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defence mechanisms. Skill: Conceptual 2-33 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Answer: a. True 18. In both girls and boys, Freudians refer to desire for the opposite-sex parent as the Oedipal Complex. a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-2-108 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defence mechanisms. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 19. Freud theorized that children in the latency stage (from ages 6 to 12) are in a period of sexual quiescence during which the child focuses on developing intellectual and motor skills. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-2-109 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defence mechanisms. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 20. A teenager who sits in their room all day because their parents will not let them borrow the family car is showing what Freud referred to as regression. a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-2-110 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defence mechanisms. Skill: Application Answer: a. True 21. What is learned in classical conditioning is the development of a new response (CR) to an old stimulus (UCS). a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-2-111 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 22. If a behaviour leads to a reduction of distress, negative reinforcement is said to have occurred. a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-2-112 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 23. According to Bandura, self-efficacy concerns the set of beliefs people have about their capabilities to exercise control over events that affect their lives. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-113 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 24. Aaron Beck developed rational-emotive behaviour therapy. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-114 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 25. The primary mechanism underlying mindfulness-based interventions is reduction of avoidance. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-115 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 26. The leading exponents of the existential view as applied to human problem behaviour have been Rollo May, Viktor Frankl, and Irvine Yalom. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 02-2-116 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 27. In the diathesis-stress perspective the diathesis refers to a predisposition to develop a disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-2-117 Learning Objective: 2.6: Understand how close others (e.g., partners, friends, family) can influence the development and maintenance of mental health disorders through stigma or social support. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True

Chapter 2 - Essay Questions 1. Briefly describe 4 ways in which abnormal behaviour can result from disturbances in neurotransmitter systems. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-3-118 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: 1. There may be too much or too little of the neurotransmitter produced or released into the synapse. 2. There may be too few or too many receptors on the dendrites. 3. There may be an excess or a deficit in the amount of transmitter-deactivating substance in the synapse. 4. The reuptake process may be too rapid or too slow. 2. List the three forms research into the genetic bases of psychiatric disorders typically takes, and explain the basic premise of such studies. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-3-119 Learning Objective: 2.2: Define neurotransmitters and describe the four ways in which they can influence psychopathology, using examples. Skill: Factual Answer: The three forms are family (or pedigree) studies, twin studies, and adoption studies. The premise is to identify a person with a disorder (called the index case or proband) and examine the other people to see if there is a match for the disorder.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 3. Briefly list and define the three levels of awareness (consciousness) discussed by Freud, and state which he believed to be the most important. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-3-120 Learning Objective: 2.3: Describe the roles of the id, ego, and superego as personality structures and explain how they influence an individual’s defence mechanisms. Skill: Conceptual Answer: 1. The conscious, which contains information of which we are currently aware. 2. The preconscious, which holds information not presently within our awareness, but that can be readily brought into awareness. 3. The unconscious, which contains the majority of our memories and drives, and which can only make it to awareness with great effort (i.e., by psychoanalytic procedures). Freud felt the unconscious was the most important level of the mind. 4. Briefly illustrate how Watson and Rayner demonstrated that phobias could result from classical conditioning experiences. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-3-121 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Application Answer: Watson and Rayner showed a white rat to an eleven-month-old boy called Little Albert, to which he displayed no fear. After being sure that he was not fearful of the rat, they paired the rat's appearance with a sudden loud noise, which startled and upset Little Albert. After several presentations of the rat (the CS) with the sudden loud noise (the UCS), Little Albert displayed a conditioned fear to the rat. 5. Describe mindfulness as a form of clinical intervention. Describe the components and processes of mindfulness as well as some types of mindfulness-based interventions. Identify some mental health problems that it has been shown to be effective in treating. Using information from the chapter, state one possible mechanism by which mindfulness could be helpful in treating these problems. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-3-122 Learning Objective: 2.5: Define schemas and describe how they come to influence an individual’s thoughts, beliefs, information processing, and behaviours. Skill: Application Answer: Mindfulness is defined as the awareness that arises through paying attention in a particular way: on purpose, in the present moment, and nonjudgmental. Mindfulness- Based Stress Reduction, Mindfulness-Based Cognitive Therapy, Dialectical Behavior Therapy and Acceptance and Commitment Therapy are four major therapies that have mindfulness components and for which there is ongoing research. Components typically include skills training and exercises that involve intentional awareness and acceptance of one's experience in the "here-and-now". Mindfulness has been shown to be effective in reducing worry, fear, anxiety, anger symptoms as well as other forms of psychological distress. Mindfulness-based therapy typically involves teaching and practicing with clients so they can independently engage in some or all of the following: regular, scheduled dedicated exercises; use of techniques throughout the day as opportunity arises (e.g., in a grocery store lineup); or use of techniques when coping with stressful or emotionally troubling situations.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Mindfulness might be helpful because it diverts one's attention to the here and now and away from (forwards looking) worry and (backwards-focused) rumination which are central to anxiety and depressive disorders. An attitude of acceptance is similarly incompatible with the negative emotions that accompany the cognitive aspects of rumination and worry. Many anxious-depressed clients are well entrenched in their routine ways of reacting to their environment and so might experience various forms of reinforcement (i.e., reward, escape from punishment) and/or exposure-extinction processes as they sit non- judgmentally with the "here and now" through the help of a clinician. These behavioural processes may lead to lasting changes in the way a client responds to their environment. Also, stepping back from and noticing one's experience is qualitatively different from just "having" or being "in" experience, and might automatically engage cortical brain processes and divert processing from the subcortical amygdalo-hippocampal areas which the chapter tells us are overlyactivated in cases of anxiety and depression. Thinking about one's thoughts and feelings – treating them as objects to be examined non- judgmentally – is perhaps common to cognitive therapy and mindfulnessbased methods. Therefore, engaging in mindfulness and cognitive therapy might be expected to trigger similar lasting changes in brain activation. 6. Describe the biopsychosocial model - briefly contrasting it with the diathesis-stress model. More importantly, what are the factors in the biopsychosocial model that interact to determine human behaviour? What does it mean to say that they are dynamically and reciprocally interacting? Illustrate this with an example of a process that begins in infancy but where disorder is not apparent until adolescence or later. Use the example of Hailey at the beginning of the chapter if you wish. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 02-3-123 Learning Objective: 2.6: Understand how close others (e.g., partners, friends, family) can influence the development and maintenance of mental health disorders through stigma or social support. Skill: Application Answer: The diathesis-stress model is compatible with the biopsychosocial model, but in my opinion does not explicitly capture the dynamic and reciprocal interaction of factors. With a diathesis, the person is (by some biological or other process) "predisposed" to develop a disorder and then depicted as passively waiting for the "stressor" that triggers emergence. The biopsychosocial model more accurately captures how the person, as a result of dynamic interaction between biological, psychological and social / environmental factors, unfolding since conception, can often actively solicit the very stressors from the environment that become the triggers for the emergence of disorder. Hailey's case at the beginning of the chapter can illustrate this. It is probable that Hailey displayed "difficult" behaviours as an infant that had an impact on her mother's behaviour and the unfolding parent-child interaction patterns and relationship. It is likely that Hailey needed reassurance often, was difficult to soothe, was an irregular sleeper with distress upon waking etc. Dealing with a "difficult" baby is hard for any parent – even those who are not suffering from depression. It is quite common to experience various negative feelings including frustration since one might interpret the baby's inconsolability as evidence that one is "doing it wrong" despite one's best efforts etc. These feelings might be expected to impact behaviour in the moment, and to influence the unfolding parent-child relationship. Thus, some of Hailey's mother's unavailability can be attributed already to the dynamic interaction of biological, psychological, and social factors, including her own depression and Hailey's difficult temperament. Hailey in turn, reacts to the unavailability of her mother with perhaps increased "difficult" behaviour, which might trigger less availability in her mother and perhaps some episodes of unpredictable anger. At some point in development, Hailey's attachment can be assessed and found to be "insecure," validating the importance of internalized representations of self, other and primary relationship. From a cognitive perspective, Hailey predictably develops problematic beliefs and information processing biases (e.g., 2-38 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e biased attention towards cues of threat in others' behaviour). From a behavioural perspective, she might learn some patterns that "work" at one time, but that become dysfunctional in later childhood and adolescence. Hailey enters a relationship with her boyfriend with a personality that is the product of prior dynamic interaction up to this point. Her behaviour in the relationship is understandable in light of her history, and yet now elicits the very rejection from this boyfriend that she fears. This event becomes a stressor – a social factor – that she actively elicited, and which now interacts with her current personality to trigger her eventual depression. 7. Behavioural theories focusing on classical conditioning and operant conditioning led to important advancements in our understanding of human behaviour. However, researchers eventually suggested that these learning principles provided an incomplete account of how people learn. Explain how Bandura's social learning theory extended these earlier learning paradigms. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 02-3-124 Learning Objective: 2.4: Explain how classical and operant conditioning can influence an individual’s behaviour and provide examples. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Social learning theory was developed by Bandura and Walters in 1959. They acknowledged the important roles of classical and operant conditioning in behaviour; they pointed out however that these earlier theories did not quite capture the social context of behaviour; specifically, the idea that people for the most part learn how to behave by watching other people, and not by directly experiencing events. This is called vicarious acquisition. For example, Bandura and colleagues conducted a number of key experiments showing that people can learn aggressive behaviour by watching others being rewarded for their own aggressive behaviour. Also, people can develop phobias by watching others behave in a fearful way in response to objects or situations. An extension of this theory indicates that people also learn from movies, television, books, and stories – in the literature, this is called the "information transmission" pathway to learning. Taken together, Bandura's theory stimulated the idea that people do not always learn from direct experience – in fact, much of our learning occurs indirectly through vicarious acquisition and information transmission. Another important contribution of social learning theory is the idea that certain cognitive processes play an important role in learning. Although behavioural theories do acknowledge the role of cognitions, Bandura elaborated on these more explicitly. For example, he proposed that one's expectancies and appraisals/interpretations of a situation influence how one will react to it.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 3 Classification and Diagnosis Chapter 3 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. A(n) __________ refers to the determination of the nature of an illness, while a(n) __________ refers to the procedure used to gather information necessary to identify the illness. A) examination; investigation B) assessment; diagnosis C) medical examination; clinical interview D) diagnosis; assessment E) diagnostic system; classification system Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-01 Learning Objective: 3.1: Describe why we need a classification system for mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) diagnosis; assessment 2. A clinical assessment could involve all of the following procedures EXCEPT __________. A) being asked questions about what is bothering you at this time B) having a CAT scan C) filling out the MMPI D) being told what illness you have E) interviews with family Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-02 Learning Objective: 3.1: Describe why we need a classification system for mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) being told what illness you have. 3. Jennifer complains about a sore throat, aching muscles, lack of energy, and occasional dizziness. These __________ may help her doctor determine what is wrong with her. A) symptoms B) hallucinations C) signs D) problems E) behaviours Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-03 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Application Answer: A) symptoms

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. A good diagnostic system tries to do all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) identify the specific pattern of behaviours for each disorder B) predict how the afflicted individual will behave in the future C) provide guidelines for financial support D) predict treatment response E) identify whether social, biological, or psychological factors are important in understanding and treating the disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-04 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) identify whether social, biological, or psychological factors are important in understanding and treating the disorder 5. Why has it been so difficult to develop the ideal system for classifying mental disorders? A) treatments tend to be different for different disorders. B) clinical psychologists tend not to use diagnostic systems for classification purposes. C) it was easier to conduct scientific research in the past than it is now. D) it is difficult to determine which aspects of behaviour are most important. E) psychologists find it difficult to conduct structured interviews with clients. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-05 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) it is difficult to determine which aspects of behaviour are most important. 6. A __________ diagnostic system is one that measures what it is supposed to measure, while a ___________ diagnostic system results in the same result each time. A) reliable; valid B) predictive; sensitive C) categorical; dimensional D) sensitive; valid E) valid; reliable Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-06 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Factual Answer: E) valid; reliable 7. Mr. and Mr. Davidson took their son to a psychologist who diagnosed him as having conduct disorder. They decided to get a second opinion from another psychologist and were told their son was just going through a normal phase. This example reflects a problem of __________. A) lack of reliability B) categorical classification C) misinterpreting symptoms D) dimensional classification E) lack of validity

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-07 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Application Answer: A) lack of reliability. 8. Two clinicians independently come up with the same diagnosis when examining a patient. This would demonstrate __________. A) concurrent validity but not necessarily reliability B) both interrater reliability and validity C) validity but not interrater reliability D) neither reliability nor validity E) interrater reliability but not necessarily validity Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-08 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Application Answer: E) interrater reliability but not necessarily validity 9. The study in which Beck et al. (1962) examined the reliability of psychiatrists' diagnoses using the DSM-I indicated that __________. A) the validity of the study itself was quite low B) most of the time, the psychiatrists agreed on diagnoses C) inter-rater agreement was quite high for some disorders and lower for others D) inter-rater agreement was lower than expected E) it is pointless to have more than one psychiatrist examine the same patient Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-09 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Factual Answer: D) inter-rater agreement was lower than expected 10. What was the most significant reason why the psychiatrists in the Beck et al. (1962) study found it difficult to agree? A) Some psychiatrists were better at their job than were others. B) The patient did not give the same report to each psychiatrist. C) Each psychiatrist diagnosed patients according to their own particular theories. D) Different techniques were used to determine the diagnosis. E) The diagnostic system did not adequately specify the signs and symptoms for the disorder(s). Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-10 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Factual Answer: E) The diagnostic system did not adequately specify the signs and symptoms for the disorder(s).

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. Which of the following scenarios is most similar to the concept of reliability in making a diagnosis? A) You meet a guy at a party who appears to be a very shy person, but it turns out that once you get to know him, he's really talkative. B) You and your brother talk to several people and decide to take a trip to Florida. C) Based on your brother's expensive and elaborate wardrobe, your friend concludes that he must be a little egocentric. D) Your brother is feeling quite ill, so you take his temperature and decide he has the flu. E) You and your brother go see the same movie with different people and both you and your brother think it had fantastic fight scenes. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-11 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) You and your brother go see the same movie with different people and both you and your brother think it had fantastic fight scenes. 12. The textbook indicates that validity is the second criterion used to determine the usefulness of a diagnostic system. This is because __________. A) as long as a diagnostic system is reliable, it does not matter if it is valid B) if you don't have reliability, you cannot have validity C) reliability and validity are independent of one another D) a diagnostic tool that is reliable is also likely to have at least moderate validity E) validity is usually more important than reliability Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-12 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Factual Answer: B) if you don't have reliability, you cannot have validity. 13. Validity in diagnosis is best conceptualized as ____________. A) agreement between different clinicians on the diagnosis B) a diagnosis that makes sense based on the symptoms C) the ability to predict disorders accurately D) a discontinuous approach to classification of disorders E) a categorical classification of disorders Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-13 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) the ability to predict disorders accurately. 14. A diagnostic system that estimated lower levels of education and socio-economic status for persons actually diagnosed with schizophrenia disorder would be demonstrating __________. A) sensitivity B) predictive validity C) concurrent validity D) stigmatization E) reliability

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-14 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Application Answer: C) concurrent validity 15. Concurrent validity is concerned with the ability of a diagnostic category to __________. A) remove the traditional gender bias in diagnosis B) identify symptoms that may exist concurrently C) predict the symptoms that will co-occur over time D) be diagnosed / applied concurrently by two different clinicians E) estimate an individual's standing on non-symptom attributes of the disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-15 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Factual Answer: E) estimate an individual's standing on non-symptom attributes of the disorder. 16. If the diagnostic category Autism Spectrum Disorder included information about the IQ or mental ability profiles commonly observed in persons with the diagnosis, then the diagnostic category would be said to have __________. A) predictive validity B) concurrent validity C) culture bias D) test-retest reliability E) inter-rater reliability Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-16 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Factual Answer: B) concurrent validity 17. If there was a perfect relationship between a diagnosis of conduct disorder in early adolescence and a diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder in adulthood, this would be evidence for the __________ of the first diagnosis. A) sensitivity B) predictive validity C) concurrent validity D) interrater reliability E) reliability Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-17 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Application Answer: B) predictive validity

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 18. If the diagnostic category conduct disorder were to have subtypes that predict meeting vs. not meeting criteria for Antisocial Personality Disorder in adulthood, then this would be evidence for __________ of the subtypes. A) sensitivity B) predictive validity C) concurrent validity D) interrater reliability E) test-retest reliability Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 03-1-18 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Application Answer: B) predictive validity 19. The beginning of a modern system of classifying disorders can be attributed to __________. A) the American Psychological Association B) the Canadian Psychological Association C) DSM-I D) the World Health Organization E) the American Psychiatric Association Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-19 Learning Objective: 3.3: Describe the history of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) the World Health Organization. 20. The International Statistical Classification of Diseases, Injuries, and Causes of Death (ICD) __________. A) was and still is highly influenced by psychoanalytic theory B) is widely used in North America to diagnosis mental disorders C) was developed by the APA to classify abnormal behaviour D) is used mainly by physicians, while the DSM is used by psychologists E) is a listing of all diseases and mental disorders Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-20 Learning Objective: 3.3: Describe the history of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) is a listing of all diseases and mental disorders. 21. The first two editions of the DSM were considered unsatisfactory classification systems due to all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) categories contained few objective criteria B) psychoanalytic theory was influential in developing the categories C) categories were not empirically based D) descriptions were brief and vague E) the psychiatrists on the committee could not agree on the causes of disorders

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-21 Learning Objective: 3.3: Describe the history of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) the psychiatrists on the committee could not agree on the causes of disorders. 22. DSM-III was a better attempt at classification than were earlier systems because it __________. A) took on a dimensional as opposed to a categorical approach B) it focused more strongly on the theoretical causes of various mental disorders C) was less rigid than previous approaches D) was informed by field trials E) it promoted a behavioural rather than a psychodynamic theoretical orientation Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-22 Learning Objective: 3.3: Describe the history of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) was informed by field trials. 23. The DSM-III-R presented significant differences compared to its predecessors. Perhaps the MOST important change was __________. A) the fact that it included the number of symptoms required to meet the criterion B) the fact that is became more empirically based C) that it required clinicians to consider five different areas of patient functioning D) that field trials were carried out to improve reliability E) the fact that it did not advocate any particular theory Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 03-1-23 Learning Objective: 3.3: Describe the history of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) that it required clinicians to consider five different areas of patient functioning. 24. The DSM-IV-TR required that patients be evaluated along five separate dimensions. This is referred to as a __________. A) diagnostic classification B) psychological classification C) multiaxial classification D) dimensional classification E) theoretical classification Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-24 Learning Objective: 3.3: Describe the history of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) multiaxial classification.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 25. When a classification system is atheoretical, what does this mean? A) that it contains a comprehensive list of causes for disorders that suits any clinician regardless of their theoretical orientation. B) that it is developed only by committee consensus. C) that it is based solely on clinician intuition and experience. D) that it does not endorse any one theory of abnormal behaviour. E) that it focuses only on the very best theories of abnormal behaviour. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-25 Learning Objective: 3.3: Describe the history of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) that it does not endorse any one theory of abnormal behaviour. 26. When a classification system is polythetic, what does this mean? A) that it is constructed in a manner that is consistent with ethical codes. B) that an individual can receive a diagnosis even if their behaviour meets criteria for only a subset of possible symptoms. C) that it makes it possible to diagnose comorbid conditions. D) that it is questionably ethical. E) that it was influenced strongly by political and ethical considerations. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-26 Learning Objective: 3.3: Describe the history of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) that an individual can receive a diagnosis even if their behaviour meets criteria for only a subset of possible symptoms. 27. Learning disorders usually become apparent __________. A) during adolescence B) during childhood C) after psychological testing shows children to be learning disabled D) after age 18, because children learn at such different rates E) during the first few weeks of life Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-27 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) during childhood. 28. This disorder is caused by alcohol withdrawal or poor diet, as well as several medical conditions. Sufferers may display inattention and disconnected thoughts. They would most likely be diagnosed with __________. A) ADHD B) schizophrenia disorder C) delirium D) dementia E) Amnestic syndrome

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-28 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) delirium. 29. The main feature of schizophrenia is __________. A) poor diet and substance use disorder B) below average level of intelligence C) excessive fear, worry, and apprehension D) a marked loss of pleasure from usual activities E) a loss of contact with reality Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-29 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) a loss of contact with reality. 30. Cindy's daughter died a few months ago, and Cindy has been suffering from many problems lately. She feels profoundly sad, has no appetite, is feeling worthless, and has no energy or initiative to engage in any activities. If Cindy were to see a clinician, she would be given a diagnosis of __________. A) an anxiety disorder B) major depressive disorder C) schizophrenia disorder D) a normal reaction to the situation E) bereavement disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-30 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: B) major depressive disorder 31. All of the following symptoms may indicate the presence of an anxiety disorder EXCEPT __________. A) delusions B) avoidance C) fear D) apprehension E) worry Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-31 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) delusions.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 32. Jerome suffers from social anxiety disorder, which causes him to feel depressed, lethargic, and hopeless. Recently, he has also been diagnosed with depression. This occurrence is referred to as __________. A) multiple disorders B) co-occurrence C) double diagnosis D) comorbidity E) dissociative disorders Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-32 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) comorbidity 33. Comorbidity between two disorders indicates that __________. A) there is some relationship between the disorders in that person B) the two disorders are independent of each other C) the two disorders require the same form of treatment D) the two disorders have the same cause E) the diagnostic system is poor, failing to include all the relevant criteria in each disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-33 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) there is some relationship between the disorders in that person. 34. The dissociative disorder involving two or more distinct personality states is known as __________. A) Dissociative amnesia with fugue B) Depersonalization/derealization disorder C) Dissociative amnesia D) Dissociative identity disorder E) Identity amnesia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-34 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Dissociative identity disorder. 35. Which three categories are included in the "Gender Dysphoria, Paraphilic Disorders and Sexual Dysfunctions" section of the DSM-5? A) transvestism, transsexuality, and gender dysphoria B) paraphilic disorders, sex addiction, sexual dysfunction C) sexual dysfunction, gender dysphoria, paraphilic disorders D) frigidity, sexual dysfunction, paraphilic disorders E) gynephilia, eroticism, transvestic disorder

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-35 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) sexual dysfunction, gender dysphoria, paraphilic disorders 36. The term __________ refers to abnormal events that occur during sleep, while the term __________ refers to not getting enough sleep. A) sleepwalking disorder; sleep terror disorder B) insomnias; hypersomnias C) nightmares; insomnias D) dyssomnias; parasomnias E) parasomnias; insomnia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-36 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) parasomnias; insomnia 37. If you were diagnosed by your psychologist as having an impulse control disorder, you would most likely engage in behaviours such as __________. A) compulsive drinking or eating B) destroying property and beating up others C) excessive Internet use D) excessive cleaning of your house E) engaging in huge spending sprees and excessive sexual behaviour Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-37 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) destroying property and beating up others. 38. If a person's medical illness appears to be in part psychological the diagnosis is __________. A) somatic symptom disorder B) fictitious disorder C) psychophysiological disorder D) psychological factors affecting physical condition E) psychosomatic disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-38 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) psychological factors affecting physical condition.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 39. The most important reason cited in the text for revising the DSM-IV to DSM-5 is __________. A) to ensure that the most up-to-date terminology is used to describe disorders B) to ensure that classification is based upon the most current and valid research C) to promote selection of effective treatments D) to eliminate confusing symptom descriptors E) to reduce the overlap between disorder categories Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-39 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: B) to ensure that classification is based upon the most current and valid research. 40. Which of the following is a problem with the categorical approach to the classification of mental disorders? A) It relies too heavily on a dimensional rating of severity. B) If a client falls short of the required criteria for a disorder, they may be denied treatment. C) A lot of people are not impaired in their functioning even if they meet the categorical cut off for a diagnosis. D) There are not enough categories to accurately capture all the possible disorders. E) There are no problems with the categorical approach of mental disorders. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-40 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) If a client falls short of the required criteria for a disorder, they may be denied treatment. 41. What is the dimensional approach to diagnosis? A) a diagnostic approach that takes into account that mental disorders fall on a continuum of severity. B) a diagnostic approach that encourages clinicians to assess psychopathology according to multiple dimensions, not just symptoms. C) a diagnostic approach that encourages assessment by more than one clinician. D) a diagnostic approach that encourages assessment of quality of life. E) a diagnostic approach that focuses on functional impairment. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-41 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) a diagnostic approach that takes into account that mental disorders fall on a continuum of severity. 42. In the text, evidence-based practice refers to __________. A) a particular method of treating delusions and hallucinations B) a general method of treatment that involves comparing thoughts to reality C) basing assessment and treatment upon the most current and valid research findings D) reducing theoretical propositions in the classification system E) a method for reducing diagnostic error

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-42 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) basing assessment and treatment upon the most current and valid research findings. 43. Which of the following is true regarding hoarding disorder in DSM-5? A) Hoarding disorder is now recognized as an anxiety disorder. B) Hoarding disorder is listed as a condition requiring further study. C) Hoarding disorder is listed as a subtype of obsessive-compulsive disorder. D) Hoarding disorder was included based on strong scientific evidence that it is an independent disorder. E) Hoarding disorder is listed as an impulse control disorder. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-43 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: D) Hoarding disorder was included based on strong scientific evidence that it is an independent disorder. 44. The text suggests that our current approach to classification in the DSM-5 is categorical because __________. A) it is based on the medical model and a categorical approach to physical diseases B) categorical systems have better predictive validity than do dimensional systems C) dimensional systems are not amenable to empirical study D) decisions to intervene in mental disorders are usually categorical E) symptom counts are related to outcome variables in a linear manner Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-44 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Factual Answer: A) it is based on the medical model and a categorical approach to physical diseases. 45. In the DSM-5, disorders were reorganized from previous versions of the DSM into new categories based on superficial similarities and ________. A) severity of the disorder B) relatedness of the disorders C) prognosis D) prevalence of the disorder E) historical date the disorder was recognized Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-45 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) relatedness of the disorders.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 46. Mrs. Landin divided her class into two teams based on last names: everyone from A- L was on one team and everyone from M-Z was on the other team. This is an example of __________. A) reliable classification B) dimensional classification C) alphabetical classification D) categorical classification E) normative classification Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-46 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Application Answer: D) categorical classification. 47. What was proposed as an alternative to the categorical approach of classification in the DSM? A) Dimensional classification. B) Scientific classification. C) Normative classification. D) Alphabetical classification. E) Geographical classification. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-47 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Dimensional classification. 48. Jax decides to measure three different coping strategies in a group of subjects. To do this, they have each subject fill out a questionnaire that contains statements about behaviours engaged in when faced with a stressful situation. Subjects must decide on a scale of 1 to 5 how often they engage in these behaviours. This is an example of __________. A) categorical classification B) dimensional classification C) measurement classification D) inter-rater classification E) behaviour classification Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-48 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Application Answer: B) dimensional classification. 49. Why has it been proposed that a dimensional approach to classification should be adopted in the DSM? A) People who need help may not be receiving it because they fall short of diagnostic criteria. B) There are too few categories to cover every possible disorder. C) Either people have a mental disorder, or they do not. D) Stigmatization occurs far too often when people are categorized. E) Clinicians would find it much easier to agree on who should receive a diagnosis and who should not. 3-14 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-49 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) People who need help may not be receiving it because they fall short of diagnostic criteria. 50. A __________ approach to classification recognizes that a disorder may be mild or severe, while with a __________ approach, the disorder is either present or not. A) categorical; dimensional B) dimensional; categorical C) discrete; continuous D) reliable; valid E) valid; reliable Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-50 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Factual Answer: B) dimensional; categorical 51. According to the text, each of the following is an advantage of a dimensional approach to diagnosing mental disorder EXCEPT __________. A) it more adequately describes an individual's problems B) it recognizes the continuum from normal to abnormal C) it captures severity level D) it de-stigmatizes diagnosis E) it facilitates delivery of services to people who need it Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-51 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) it de-stigmatizes diagnosis. 52. It is hoped that DSM-5 will have improved clinical utility. Each of the following is an example of improved clinical utility EXCEPT __________. A) improved communication of important clinical information to patients/families B) improved prediction of the course of a disorder C) improved communication of information to other health care providers D) improved reliability of the diagnostic questionnaires E) improved ability to select effective interventions Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-52 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) improved reliability of the diagnostic questionnaires.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 53. Why do some professionals argue that current classification systems are flawed because of their adherence to the medical model? A) Medical illnesses cannot yet be classified. B) Little evidence supports the notion that there are unconscious causes of disorder. C) No mental disorder is caused by an anatomical deviation. D) Many professionals do not subscribe to the medical model. E) It is next to impossible to classify someone with a disorder due to comorbidity. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-53 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) No mental disorder is caused by an anatomical deviation. 54. A defense of retaining some aspects of the medical model is provided by Wakefield (1992), who states __________. A) some physical illnesses are diagnosed on the basis of associated dysfunction alone; in the future we will acquire more knowledge about physical correlates of mental disorders B) psychological symptoms invariably have physical processes which are causal C) decisions to intervene or not must be made on a categorical basis; serious mental illness requires professionals to think like doctors D) reliability will be improved by focusing on the underlying physical processes responsible for mental disorders E) at this point the most effective interventions are pharmacological Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-54 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) some physical illnesses are diagnosed on the basis of associated dysfunction alone; in the future we will acquire more knowledge about physical correlates of mental disorders. 55. Jody is a talented poet who suffers from auditory and visual hallucinations. Those who argue that Jody would be stigmatized if they were diagnosed as having schizophrenia would argue that __________. A) the fact that they are a talented poet would be ignored B) they might unfairly be diagnosed as ill despite the fact that they are talented C) they might not be allowed to write their poetry in the hospital D) they might not be asked to participate in poetry readings because of their illness E) people would view their poems as the result of their illness Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-55 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) they might not be asked to participate in poetry readings because of their illness.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 56. "Loss of information" as it pertains to diagnosis and as described in the text refers to ________. A) loss of information about unique individuals when diagnostic labels are applied B) loss of information resulting from selection of one assessment tool over another C) decline in relevance of a diagnosis over time D) failure to include all the important symptoms in the criteria for a disorder E) failure to diagnose comorbid conditions Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-56 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) loss of information about unique individuals when diagnostic labels are applied. 57. Rosenhan's (1973) study of pseudo-patients in psychiatric hospitals illustrates _________. A) that diagnosis can be influenced, if not determined by choice of assessment measures B) that behaviour is misinterpreted when seen through the lens of a psychiatric diagnosis C) that hallucinations can be shaped by the questions of the interviewing clinician D) why structured interviews are preferred over unstructured ones E) that failure to make a diagnosis can have serious consequences Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-57 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) that behaviour is misinterpreted when seen through the lens of a psychiatric diagnosis. 58. What might women's groups see as the main problem with the diagnostic categories of the DSM? A) Many behaviours associated with being female are viewed as indicative of poor mental health. B) Important traits are ignored once a person is diagnosed with an illness. C) The diagnostic categories are based on the medical model. D) Diagnoses of mental disorders are based on a discrete approach to classification of mental disorders. E) Women are often stigmatized to a greater degree. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-58 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) Many behaviours associated with being female are viewed as indicative of poor mental health. 59. Rachel is a secretary at a large law firm, where she is treated with a lack of respect, then she goes home to her husband and children where she has to cook and clean while her husband watches T.V. Recently, Rachel was given antidepressants to treat her feelings of sadness and lack of self-worth. The most likely criticism of Rachel's diagnosis of depression would be __________. A) most women become depressed, so Rachel should not necessarily receive this diagnosis B) normal female behaviour is being medicalized C) Rachel is more likely suffering from generalized anxiety disorder D) anti-depressants are not the best method to treat depression 3-17 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e E) Rachel is facing many difficulties--perhaps changes in her life would remedy the situation Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-59 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: E) Rachel is facing many difficulties--perhaps changes in her life would remedy the situation. 60. Personality disorders in the DSM are particularly problematic for cisgender women because __________. A) it is more difficult to be a cisgender woman in society than it is to be a cisgender man B) cisgender women are seen as having more flawed personalities than cisgender men C) if cisgender women have a psychological problem, it is seen as part of their personality D) gender stereotypes are associated with many of the personality disorders E) more and more cisgender women are being diagnosed with traditionally "masculine" personality disorders Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-60 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) gender stereotypes are associated with many of the personality disorders. 61. It is important that clinicians be more aware of cultural issues for all of the following reasons except __________. A) different cultural issues may influence the diagnosis B) North America is relatively multi-cultural C) certain syndromes appear only within a particular culture D) different cultural practices may be unusual to white North Americans, but are normal in the society in which they are found E) many clinicians now visit and diagnose patients in many different countries Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-61 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: E) many clinicians now visit and diagnose patients in many different countries. 62. Although the DSM-5 stresses that cultural and social differences must be taken into account during assessment and diagnosis, __________. A) most diagnoses would remain the same, regardless of culture B) the psychiatric manuals written in different cultures should be made available here C) the specifics of the manual are determined mainly by individuals trained in the United States D) very few cultures present their own unique syndromes E) most clinicians ignore these differences and treat everyone the same Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-62 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. 3-18 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) the specifics of the manual are determined mainly by individuals trained in the United States. 63. The correlation between IQ test scores and academic and career outcomes is weaker for Indigenous children than for children of other ethnic groups: this illustrates both __________ and limited __________ of IQ test scores for indigenous children. A) sampling bias; concurrent validity B) sampling bias; predictive validity C) culture bias; concurrent validity D) culture bias; predictive validity E) culture bias; face validity Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-63 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) culture bias; predictive validity 64. Elma is from the Philippines, and she claims that she sees the spirits of the dead on different occasions, as do other individuals in her culture. It would be important to consider culture in this diagnosis because she could be suffering from __________. A) nothing - these beliefs could be normal in this culture B) schizophrenia disorder C) hauntings D) some type of psychosis E) the use of hallucinogens Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-64 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: A) nothing - these beliefs could be normal in this culture. 65. Taijin kyofusho is a syndrome found only in Japan. This condition __________. A) features concerns about being embarrassed B) is often mistaken for social anxiety disorder C) features a fear of embarrassing others D) affects mainly Japanese women E) is usually caused by poor diet Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-65 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) features a fear of embarrassing others.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 66. Research has found that members of African-American and Hispanic populations showing emotional disturbances are more likely than Caucasians to be diagnosed with schizophrenia. This illustrates __________. A) cultural bias. B) interrater reliability. C) misinterpretation of symptoms. D) stigmatization. E) racism. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-66 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) cultural bias. 67. The most important reason for there being concern regarding ties between special interest groups and the development of the DSM is __________. A) the need for a diagnostic system that is purely descriptive B) the need to move away from the medical model. C) the need for the DSM to remain value free D) the need for a DSM that serves agreed-upon functions and values. E) the need to maximize predictive validity in the DSM. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 03-1-67 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) the need for a DSM that serves agreed-upon functions and values. 68. The 2012 Canadian Community Health Survey – Mental Health reported that __________. A) approximately one in five Canadians will experience a mental illness in their lifetime B) approximately one in three Canadians will experience a mental illness in their lifetime C) approximately 5 percent of the population will experience a mental illness in their lifetime D) approximately 5 percent of the population will experience a mental disorder in a one-year period E) mental illness is the leading cause of disability and premature death in Canada Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-68 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) approximately one in three Canadians will experience a mental illness in their lifetime. 69. The National Institute of Mental Health (NIMH) recently published the Research Domain Criteria, which encourages the study of abnormal behaviour from what perspective? A) biological B) sociocultural C) political D) biopsychosocial E) evolutionary

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-69 Learning Objective: 3.7: Describe the benefits of going beyond the DSM by using a new classification framework for research that examines psychopathology. Skill: Factual Answer: A) biological 70. The goal of the National Institute of Mental Health Research Domain Criteria is to __________. A) stimulate research that may lead to a new taxonomy of mental disorders B) stimulate research that will lead to a better sociocultural understanding of mental disorders C) stimulate research that will lead to a more comprehensive listing of categories of mental disorders than currently exists in DSM-5 D) stimulate research that will lead to valid symptom counts and thresholds in the DSM E) stimulate research that will lead to improvements in symptom interviews for mental disorders Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 03-1-70 Learning Objective: 3.7: Describe the benefits of going beyond the DSM by using a new classification framework for research that examines psychopathology. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) stimulate research that may lead to a new taxonomy of mental disorders. 71. Maren is reporting paralysis in their legs and is unable to walk. Their doctors are unable to find any physiological cause. Which diagnosis best fits Maren’s symptoms? A) Somatic symptom disorder B) Factitious disorder C) Acute stress disorder D) Dependent personality disorder E) Conversion disorder. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-71 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: E) Conversion disorder. 72. Which of the following is not an anxiety disorder identified in the text? A) Panic disorder. B) Acute stress disorder. C) Specific phobia. D) Generalized anxiety disorder. E) Agoraphobia. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-72 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Acute stress disorder.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 73. Which of the following is a cultural bias in the diagnosis of emotional difficulties among Black populations mentioned in the text? A) Patients who are Black are overdiagnosed with intermittent explosive disorder and underdiagnosed with mood disorders. B) Patients who are Black are less likely to receive a diagnosis because of their reluctance to speak to clinicians. C) Patients who are Black are overdiagnosed with schizophrenia and underdiagnosed with mood disorders. D) Patients who are Black are overdiagnosed with substance-related disorders and underdiagnosed with mood disorders. E) Patients who are Black are often overdiagnosed with any mental disorder as clinicians are more likely to view them as having some form of psychopathology. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-73 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) Patients who are Black are overdiagnosed with schizophrenia and underdiagnosed with mood disorders. 74. Which is a reason that evidence suggests psychopathology is underestimated in people who are Hispanic? A) They may be experiencing a culture-bound syndrome not listed in the DSM-5. B) They do not present for assessment or treatment. C) Psychopathology is actually overestimated in people who are Hispanic. D) They may be reluctant to disclose information to people who are not Hispanic. E) Psychopathology is not underestimated in people who are Hispanic. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-1-74 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) They may be reluctant to disclose information to people who are not Hispanic. 75. Globally, _________ of the world’s population has some form of mental disorder and _________ of those individuals do not receive treatment. A) 33%; 66%. B) 66%; 33%. C) 25%; 50%. D) 25%; 75%. E) 50%; 25%. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-1-75 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) 33%; 66%.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 3 - True/False Questions 1. The DSM-5 is an example of a very strong diagnostic system. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-2-76 Learning Objective: 3.1: Describe why we need a classification system for mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 2. Regardless of the diagnostic system used, it is relatively common that an individual will meet the criteria for more than one disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-2-77 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 3. An increase in reliability results in an increase in validity. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-2-78 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 4. The DSM system has been criticized as being low in concurrent validity. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-79 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 5. Kraepelin's classification system is very different from modern classification systems. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-80 Learning Objective: 3.3: Describe the history of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: a. True 6. DSM-I was the first classification system to offer precise, reliable diagnostic categories. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-2-81 Learning Objective: 3.3: Describe the history of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 7. Intellectual disability, autistic spectrum disorder, and motor skills disorder are usually diagnosed in childhood. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-82 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: a. True 8. Mood, anxiety, and somatic symptom disorders are diagnosed at age 18. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-2-83 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 9. Mania is characterized by extreme elation and activity, grandiosity, and flight of ideas, followed by sadness, lack of energy, and lack of pleasure. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-84 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 10. Dissociative Identity Disorder involves individuals suddenly and unexpectedly leaving their home, traveling to a new locale, and taking up a new identity. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-85 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 11. Parasomnias are defined by events such as sleepwalking or waking up in cold sweats. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-86 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 12. Those suffering from personality disorders find it difficult to change their behaviours and find that these behaviours are present in most aspects of their lives. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-2-87 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 13. The category 'Other Conditions that May be a Focus of Clinical Attention' is used for mental disorders that do not fit under any other category. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-2-88 Learning Objective: 3.4: Describe the system of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 14. Categorical classification is also called medical classification. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-2-89 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 15. One example of dimensional classification would be using questionnaires to give people a certain score on a certain criterion. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-2-90 Learning Objective: 3.5: Identify the key reasons why the system of classification was revised to create the DSM-5. Skill: Application Answer: a. True 16. All physical illnesses have known lesions or anatomical abnormalities. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-91 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 17. According to Szasz (1961), diagnosis of mental illness has no physical basis and therefore no objective basis and is merely a means of social control. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-92 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 18. Being diagnosed with a mental illness can have social consequences which can themselves play a role in creating new or maintaining existing mental illness. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-2-93 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 19. Diagnosis can lead clinicians to make assumptions about an individual that are not valid. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-94 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 20. In order to deal with gender biases in diagnostic systems, a reconceptualization of the way that cisgender women's behaviours are viewed will have to occur. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-95 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 21. Cultural biases are generally not problematic in the DSM because regardless of where you come from, the symptoms for any one disorder will be similar. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-2-96 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 22. Schizophrenia is more common among African American and Hispanic populations than among Caucasian populations. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-97 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 23. Homosexuality was removed from DSM-III in 1980 due to the accumulated empirical findings which were incompatible with homosexuality being a disorder. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-98 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 24. It is estimated that about one third of the global population has a mental disorder and that two thirds of those people receive no treatment. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-2-99 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Chapter 3 - Essay Questions 1. Why is it impossible to develop the perfect classification system? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-3-100 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: In the perfect system, disorders would be classified based on the individual's symptoms, etiology, prognosis, and treatment response. To develop such a system, it would be necessary to assess a large number of people psychologically and physically, a thorough history would have to be taken, longitudinal observations would have to be undertaken, and controlled outcome treatment studies would have to be conducted. However, it is difficult to observe large numbers of people over long periods of time, and even more difficult to determine which events are critical in the development of disorders. As well, different individuals react differently to treatments, and even two people suffering from the same disorder may benefit from different treatments. 2. Discuss the history and development of the DSM system. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 03-3-101 Learning Objective: 3.3: Describe the history of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: The first Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-I) was published by the American Psychiatric Association in 1952, followed by the DSM-II in 1968. These volumes were unsatisfactory, containing only brief, vague descriptions of the diagnostic categories. These categories were not empirically based and contained few objective criteria, resulting in a rather unreliable system. Major changes were noted in the DSM-III (1980) and the DSM-III-R (1987). Field trials were conducted to improve reliability, psychoanalytic theory was given far less influence, and a required number of symptoms and a necessary time period were included. Most importantly was the introduction of a 3-28 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e multiaxial approach, requiring clinicians to provide substantial patient information across five domains.DSM-IV (1994) was developed to further improve the system, with 12 field trials conducted to collect new information and various professionals consulted to offer input. The DSM-5 published in 2013 is now the primary text used in North America by professionals diagnosing mental disorders. One of the main structural changes is the removal of the 5-level multiaxial system. 3. Describe the reasons why there is controversy surrounding the classification of mental disorders. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-3-102 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Three main criticisms of classification systems are generally cited: 1) Adherence to the medical model. Professionals argue that there rarely is a distinguishable physical abnormality that characterizes the mental disorders. Critics also argue that the idea that symptoms indicate underlying mental problems of which the patient is unaware is outdated with little supporting evidence. 2) Stigmatization. A person diagnosed with a mental disorder may be unfairly stigmatized by society and may be labelled (e.g., "schizophrenic," "hyperactive," etc.) rather than being considered a unique individual with skills and strengths. Once labelled, the individual may have difficulties in society and may even accept the label him or herself, resulting in a worsening of the disorder. 3) Loss of Information. Information about the individual may be ignored, with only the information relating to the disorder being acknowledged. 4. Compare and contrast the dimensional versus the categorical approach to classification. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-3-103 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: The categorical approach to classification taken by the DSM system: the individual either has the disorder or does not. This approach has been criticized for not recognizing the continuum between abnormal and normal behaviour, and it has been suggested that the categorical approach does not provide a meaningful description of the person's psychological problems. Some clinicians support a dimensional approach to diagnosis, based on a continuum from non-existent to mild to severe. However, in contrast to the categorical approach, the dimensional approach would result in far more people receiving a psychiatric diagnosis and perhaps facing unnecessary stigmatization. 5. Define reliability and validity and describe the concepts of interrater reliability and concurrent and predictive validity in measuring psychopathology. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-3-104 Learning Objective: 3.2: Outline what criteria can be used to evaluate a system of classification. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: If a measurement tool is reliable, it will give the same measurement for an individual or thing every time. A valid measurement tool is one that measures what it is supposed to measure. One form of reliability, interrater reliability, refers to the extent to which two clinicians will independently come up with the same diagnosis of a particular patient. If the diagnostic system does not allow clinicians to agree on signs and symptoms, interrater reliability will remain low. Validity depends on reliability, so that without 3-29 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e reliability you cannot have validity. However, a measure can be reliable without being valid. Concurrent validity refers to the ability of the diagnostic category to estimate a person's rating on characteristics that are related to the disorder, but that are not themselves part of the diagnostic criteria. Predictive validity is the ability of a test to predict the future course of an individual's development. 6. Highlight the gender biases evident in the DSM system and suggest possible ways to deal with this. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-3-105 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: During the late 1960s, the mental health system was criticized for both gender bias and sexism. The DSM-I and DSM-II were influenced by psychoanalytic theory, which has been accused of sexism. In 1974, a task force was developed by the APA to investigate gender bias and sex-role stereotyping in assessment and therapy. The DSM-III was still far from free of gender bias, however. Critiques of the DSM system have claimed that psychiatric disorders are described in a way that makes diagnosis more probable for women. Assumptions regarding psychopathology are rooted in social norms which value stereotypical male attributes such as assertiveness and devalue stereotypical female attributes such as nurturance. The DSM system has also been accused of not taking life circumstances into account and not recognizing that the oppression of women may affect behaviour. Women's normal reproductive behaviour has been pathologized, as is evident by the developing of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD). In order to deal effectively with these biases, society must come to value behaviours commonly associated with women. Clinicians must recognize their personal biases and make an effort to come to terms with these biases when assessing and treating patients. 7. Why is it important that cultural differences be taken into account when assessing and diagnosing mental disorders? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-3-106 Learning Objective: 3.6: Outline the major criticisms of the current and past systems of classification of mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: It is extremely important that clinicians be aware of cultural issues that may influence assessment and diagnosis. Some behaviours that we view as abnormal may be normal in other cultures. For example, during North American aboriginal religious ceremonies, members may have hallucinations. As well, in Hispanic populations, possession by evil spirits remains a popular belief. Individuals from these cultures who carry these beliefs should not necessarily be seen as having psychosis. As well, aboriginal children may fare worse on IQ tests because their culture values cooperation as opposed to the values of individualism and competitiveness, which are stressed on IQ tests. Certain syndromes may only appear in certain cultures, such as taijin-kyofusho, found in Japan and characterized by an excessive fear that one will embarrass or offend others. Other research has found that emotional difficulties may be diagnosed differently in African American and Hispanic populations than in white populations. It is important to recognize that what seems normal and abnormal to us may not be normal or abnormal to individuals of other cultures, and neither view is right or wrong.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 8. What are the Research Domain Criteria and why did the National Institute of Mental Health develop them? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 03-3-107 Learning Objective: 3.7: Describe the benefits of going beyond the DSM by using a new classification framework for research that examines psychopathology. Skill: Factual Answer: The Research Domain Criteria is a new framework for the study of abnormal behaviour that is designed to stimulate more research into the biological bases of abnormal behaviour and eventually, a new taxonomy or classification system for mental disorders that will include laboratory and behavioural data. It consists of a matrix of constructs and levels of analysis that researchers are encouraged to look to in designing their studies. The constructs of principal interest in this framework are ones that have been argued to be fundamental to the understanding mental disorders: (1) negative valence systems; (2) positive valence systems; (3) cognitive systems; (4) social processes; (5) arousal and regulatory systems. Levels of analysis for studying the constructs are genes, molecules, cell, brain circuits, physiology, behaviour, self-report, and paradigms.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 4 Psychological Assessment and Research Methods Chapter 4 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. Psychological assessment involves __________. A) comparing an individual's symptom profile to each of the DSM-5 disorders B) administering the appropriate diagnostic tests to an individual with suspected abnormal behaviour C) conducting a structured interview to determine the correct diagnosis for an individual who is displaying abnormal behaviour D) systematic gathering and evaluation of information pertaining to an individual with suspected abnormal behaviour E) identifying psychological, social, and biological factors that are causing an individual's mental illness Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-01 Learning Objective: 4.1: Differentiate between psychological testing and psychological assessment and describe the importance of this distinction. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: D) systematic gathering and evaluation of information pertaining to an individual with suspected abnormal behaviour. 2. Psychological assessment __________. A) is a process that reveals the correct diagnosis to a researcher or clinician B) determines the biological, psychological, and social causes of disorder that is causing distress and/or impairment C) provides data that are placed within the context of history, referral information, behavioural observations, and life of an individual D) is gradually replacing the unstructured interview as researchers and clinicians become increasingly concerned with accuracy and precision in diagnosis E) plays the role in research that the clinical interview plays in clinical assessment Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-02 Learning Objective: 4.1: Differentiate between psychological testing and psychological assessment and describe the importance of this distinction. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: C) provides data that are placed within the context of history, referral information, behavioural observations, and life of an individual. 3. Claire completes a psychological test of personality type twice, the second time 4 weeks after the first. The correlation between Claire’s two test scores was very low. Based on this information, the test can be said to exhibit __________. A) low alternate form reliability B) low split-half reliability C) high test-retest reliability D) low test-retest reliability E) high alternate form reliability

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-03 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Application Answer: D) low test-retest reliability. 4. According to the text, which of the following is NOT true of alternate form reliability estimates? A) They are used to circumvent the problem of improvement due to practice which can occur in estimates of test-retest reliability. B) They require the creation of two forms of the same test, in which the questions are phrased slightly differently but are intended to assess the same construct as the first. C) They are used to circumvent the problem of familiarity with questions which can occur in estimates of test-retest reliability. D) A low correlation between the two forms demonstrates good alternate-form reliability. E) A high correlation between the two forms demonstrates good alternate-form reliability. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-04 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Factual Answer: D) A low correlation between the two forms demonstrates good alternate-form reliability. 5. Which of the following is a measure of internal consistency? A) Coefficient gamma B) Coefficient beta C) Alternate form D) Coefficient alpha E) Beta correlation Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-05 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) Coefficient alpha 6. A particular questionnaire is intended to measure musical enjoyment. One of the questions is "Do you enjoy listening to music?" This item can be said to have __________. A) internal consistency B) face validity C) criterion validity D) construct validity E) predictive validity Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-06 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) face validity.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 7. A researcher wants to know to what extent are all the questions within her test measuring the same thing. She can assess this by evaluating __________ the of her test or by using __________. A) split-half reliability; face validity B) face validity; test-retest reliability C) construct validity; coefficient alpha D) split-half reliability; coefficient alpha E) predictive validity; internal consistency Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-07 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) split-half reliability; coefficient alpha 8. Without __________, you cannot have __________. A) reliability; validity B) face validity; criterion validity C) construct validity; face validity D) split half reliability; face validity E) predictive validity; face validity Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-08 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) reliability; validity 9. According to the text, construct validity __________. A) is especially useful when the construct to be measured is clearly defined rather than abstract B) is important because some qualities are easier to recognize than to define C) refers to the importance of a test within a specific theoretical framework D) means that the items on a test resemble characteristics associated with the concept being tested E) requires that a test's content include a representative sample of behaviours thought to be related to the construct Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-09 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Factual Answer: C) refers to the importance of a test within a specific theoretical framework. 10. Which of the following is NOT true of the actuarial approach? A) Those who endorse it would not rely on intuition in making a decision. B) Those who endorse it argue that there is no substitute for the clinician's experience and personal judgment in coming to decisions. C) Those who endorse it argue that a more objective standard is needed. D) It tends to be more efficient in terms of making predictions in a variety of situations. E) Those who endorse it rely on statistical procedures and formal rules in evaluating data. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-10 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Conceptual 4-3 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: B) Those who endorse it argue that there is no substitute for the clinician's experience and personal judgment in coming to decisions. 11. Which of the following are problems with the actuarial approach? A) Many of the equations and algorithms found in the literature do not generalize to practice settings. B) Those who endorse it argue that there is no substitute for the clinician's experience and personal judgment in coming to decisions. C) There is often more than one approach to choose from, yielding different results. D) Actuarial decisions are often affected by subjective influences upon decision-making. E) The clinical approach is more efficient in making predictions in a variety of situations. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-11 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) Many of the equations and algorithms found in the literature do not generalize to practice settings. 12. A(n) __________ assesses brain function by measuring electrical impulses by way of electrodes placed on parts of the scalp. A) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) B) EEG (electroencephalogram) C) PAT (positron axial tomography) D) PET (positron emission tomography) E) CAT (computerized axial tomography) Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-12 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: B) EEG (electroencephalogram) 13. In the procedure known as __________, a narrow band of X-rays is projected through the head and produces a number of images of the brain which are later combined. A) EEG (electroencephalogram) B) CAT (computerized axial tomography) C) PET (positron emission tomography) D) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) E) PAT (positron axial tomography) Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-13 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: B) CAT (computerized axial tomography) 14. Although it is relatively old technology, __________ provides an effective method of detecting seizure disorders. A) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) B) CAT (computerized axial tomography) C) PAT (positron axial tomography) D) PET (positron emission tomography) E) EEG (electroencephalogram) 4-4 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-14 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual, application Answer: E) EEG (electroencephalogram) 15. The resolution of the image produced by (an) __________ can be improved by injecting a substance to enhance contrasts between different sorts of tissue. A) PAT (positron axial tomography) B) PET (positron emission tomography) C) MRI (magnetic resonance imaging) D) EEG (electroencephalogram) E) CAT (computerized axial tomography) Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-15 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: E) CAT (computerized axial tomography) 16. Which of the following is a way in which CT scans have been used to better understand how the brain works in abnormal behaviour? A) by examining changes in structural abnormalities before and after treatment of a disorder. B) by examining changes in structural abnormalities before and after an episode of psychopathology. C) by examining stability of structural abnormalities following cessation of medication. D) by examining stability of structural abnormalities over the course of day. E) by examining gender differences in structural abnormalities. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-16 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: A) by examining changes in structural abnormalities before and after treatment of a disorder. 17. According to the text, which of the following is NOT true of magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)? A) It is a noninvasive technique. B) fMRI is a recent modification of the MRI. C) It reveals both the structure and functioning of the brain. D) It is slightly dangerous, as it involves the use of high-energy radiation (X-rays). E) It involves producing a strong magnetic field around the patient's head. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-17 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: D) It is slightly dangerous, as it involves the use of high-energy radiation (X-rays).

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 18. Which of the following is NOT true of positron emission tomography? A) It involves the use of isotopes with half-lives of minutes to hours. B) It allows a researcher to measure a variety of biological activities in the brain. C) It is capable of showing the distribution of various neurotransmitters within the brain. D) It produces a static image of the brain's anatomy, as do CAT scans and MRIs. E) It involves the injection or inhalation of radioisotopes. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-18 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: D) It produces a static image of the brain's anatomy, as do CAT scans and MRIs. 19. The explicit purpose of neuropsychological tests is to __________. A) assess abilities in the verbal and non-verbal intelligence domains B) determine the relationships between behaviour and brain function C) generate special scores that the tests of ordinary psychologists cannot D) identify ability profiles that correspond to known mental illnesses E) accurately distinguish "organic" from developmental brain dysfunction Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-19 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: B) determine the relationships between behaviour and brain function. 20. Which of the following is true of the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt test? A) The main problem with the test is that it produces many false positives. B) It consists of a series of cards containing lines and shapes, which individuals are asked to copy and then draw from memory. C) It is rarely used at present, though it was commonly employed in the past. D) There are currently no standardized scoring systems for this test. E) It is very difficult to administer. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-20 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: B) It consists of a series of cards containing lines and shapes, which individuals are asked to copy and then draw from memory. 21. The most popular neuropsychological test battery is the __________. A) Halstead-Reitan B) Thematic Apperception C) Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt D) Rorschach E) Luria-Nebraska Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-21 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: A) Halstead-Reitan. 22. It is important to administer a neuropsychological test battery when the patient __________. A) is feeling most fatigued so one can determine performance under the most challenging circumstances B) is at the peak of their mental disorder so one can determine performance under the most challenging circumstances C) is relatively stable medically and emotionally so one can determine performance under optimal circumstances D) is relatively stable in their personality so one can determine performance under optimal circumstances E) is hospitalized so one can determine performance under the most challenging circumstances Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-22 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: C) is relatively stable medically and emotionally so one can determine performance under optimal circumstances. 23. Which one of the following is NOT a dimension assessed by the mental status examination? A) appearance B) sensorium C) risk of harm to self D) insight E) ability to detect sarcasm Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-23 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: E) ability to detect sarcasm 24. Which of the following is NOT suggested by the text as a problem with the unstructured interview? A) It has poor validity. B) It has poor reliability. C) Clinicians using this type of interview may only look for information that confirms their hypotheses. D) Clients often dislike participating in them. E) The theoretical paradigm of the clinician greatly influences the type of information gathered. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-24 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Clients often dislike participating in them.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 25. According to the text, the most frequently used semistructured interview in psychiatric settings is the __________. A) Semi-structured Mental Interview B) Mental Status Examination C) Psychological Functioning Examination D) The Diagnostic Interview Schedule E) Psychiatric Status Interview Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-25 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Mental Status Examination. 26. According to the text, which of the following is NOT true of structured interviews? A) They reduce the concern over the subjective judgments of the interviewer. B) They have clear rules governing the evaluation of responses. C) They tend to jeopardize rapport. D) They are very specific in the order and wording of questions. E) They are less reliable than unstructured interviews. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-26 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: E) They are less reliable than unstructured interviews. 27. According to the text, the most widely used structured clinical interview is the __________. A) Structured Clinical Interview for DSM-IIIR (SCID) B) Structured Clinical Interview for Psychiatric Illness (SCIPI) C) The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS-IV) D) The DSM-5 E) Mental Status Examination Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-27 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: C) The Diagnostic Interview Schedule (DIS-IV). 28. The first scientific study of intellectual functioning was conducted by __________, to test the hypothesis that intelligence has a hereditary aspect. A) Binet B) Lafayette C) Wechsler D) Simon E) Galton

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-28 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Galton 29. Sir Francis Galton believed that intelligence could best be measured by studying __________, such as an attribute known later as __________. A) spatial abilities; spatial intelligence B) arithmetic skills; mathematical intelligence C) verbal abilities; verbal intelligence D) physiological abilities; sensory intelligence E) physical abilities; athletic intelligence Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-29 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: D) physiological abilities; sensory intelligence 30. The first widely accepted and successful test of intelligence was designed by __________ to predict __________. A) Stanford; academic performance B) Binet; academic performance C) Simon; job performance D) Galton; future criminal behaviour E) Wechsler; verbal intelligence Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-30 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Binet; academic performance 31. Which of the following is not true of Binet's work, according to the text? A) He was commissioned by the Parisian school board to develop a test that would identify children who might need special education. B) Binet tested the hypothesis that intelligence has a hereditary aspect. C) His work developed into the Stanford-Binet scales, now in their fifth edition. D) He used the intelligence quotient (IQ), determined by dividing a child's performance by the child's chronological age and multiplying by 100. E) He was the first to use a large sample of subjects to establish norms to describe intelligence. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-31 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Binet tested the hypothesis that intelligence has a hereditary aspect. 4-9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 32. The first widely used intelligence test for adults, the __________, was developed by __________. A) Simon Adult Intelligence Scale; Simon B) Adult Intelligence Index; Wechsler C) Stanford-Binet Scale; Stanford D) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale; Wechsler E) Adult Intelligence Index; Stanford University Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-32 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale; Wechsler 33. Aside from his adult intelligence test, Wechsler also developed __________. A) both the Wechsler Intelligence Test for Children (WISC) and the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI) B) the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI) C) both the Stanford-Binet Scale of Intelligence (SBI) and the Wechsler Intelligence Test for Children (WISC) D) the Stanford-Binet Scale of Intelligence (SBI) E) the Wechsler Intelligence Test for Children (WISC) Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-33 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: A) both the Wechsler Intelligence Test for Children (WISC) and the Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (WPPSI). 34. The typical correlation between IQ scores and academic performance is in the range of __________. A) .30-.50 B) .50-.70 C) .70-.80 D) .90-1.00 E) 0-.30 Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-34 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: B).50-.70. 35. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding IQ? A) It is the most stable of the psychological traits. B) It can predict important life outcomes, such as income and choice of life partner. C) It is moderately to strongly related to academic achievement. D) It has been criticized as simply measuring academic achievement. E) It can reliably identify those with learning disabilities. 4-10 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-35 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: B) It can predict important life outcomes, such as income and choice of life partner. 36. Projective tests generally have their roots in __________. A) psychoanalytic principles B) behaviorist principles C) cognitive principles D) existential principles E) humanistic principles Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-36 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: A) psychoanalytic principles. 37. Knox is seeing a clinical psychologist, who has given them a psychological test in which they examine cards with ambiguous inkblots on them. Knox is likely completing the __________. A) Thematic Apperception Test B) Rorschach Inkblot Test C) Freudian Inkblot Test D) Halstead-Reitan Battery E) Psychoanalytic Inkblot Test Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-37 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Application Answer: B) Rorschach Inkblot Test. 38. A clinician has given a client the Rorschach Inkblot Test and is employing a standardized scoring system created to increase the reliability and validity of the test. They are likely what system? A) the Murray-Exner system B) the Exner system C) the Exner-Murray system D) the Hunsley system E) the Murray system Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-38 Learning Objective:4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Application Answer: B) the Exner system

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 39. Hashi is seeing a clinical psychologist, who has asked him to construct stories about cards depicting ambiguous social interactions. Hashi is likely completing the __________. A) Ambiguous Circumstances Exam (ACE) B) Murray-Morgan Apperception Test (MMAT) C) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) D) Rorschach Inkblot Test E) Sentence Completion Test Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-39 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Application Answer: C) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). 40. Which of the following is NOT true of the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)? A) It is multiphasic because it assesses many aspects of personality. B) Items were only chosen for inclusion if people known to have the characteristic the scale is measuring responded differently to those items than did those who did not have the characteristic. C) The results of the MMPI-3, the newest version, give a DSM-5 diagnosis. D) Many of its items appear to have little face validity, meaning that it is difficult to tell what the question is attempting to measure. E) It was originally published in 1943 by Hathaway and McKinley. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-40 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: C) The results of the MMPI-3, the newest version, give a DSM-5 diagnosis. 41. Which of the following is one of the MMPI validity scales? A) the Z scale B) the J scale C) the F scale D) the R scale E) the T scale Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-41 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: C) the F scale 42. Which of the following changes was made in the MMPI-II, as compared to the original MMPI? A) The test was standardized using a representative group of patients at a Minnesota state hospital. B) Test items aimed at identifying religious beliefs were added. C) The test was standardized on a much larger number of people, as a relatively small number was used in the original. D) Many of the validity scales, such as the F-scale, were removed. E) The test was standardized on a much more representative sample based on census information.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-42 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: E) The test was standardized on a much more representative sample based on census information. 43. According to the text, the Millon Clinical Multiaxial Inventory (MCMI) has been criticized in the past because it __________. A) consistently underestimates the severity of personality disorders and overdiagnoses somatoform disorders B) consistently underestimates the severity of depressive symptoms and overdiagnoses anxiety disorders C) consistently underestimates the severity of personality disorders and overdiagnoses depressive syndromes D) consistently underestimates the severity of depressive syndromes and overdiagnoses personality disorders E) consistently underestimates the severity of depressive syndromes and overdiagnoses somatoform disorders Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-43 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: D) consistently underestimates the severity of depressive syndromes and overdiagnoses personality disorders. 44. Walter Mischel argued that personality tests are flawed because __________. A) people fail to give accurate self-reports because of the response set of social desirability B) people respond to demand characteristics - they respond as they feel the tester would like them to C) the concept of personality is an illusion D) the majority have been shown to have extremely low reliability E) of their erroneous assumption that personality characteristics are stable Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-44 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: E) of their erroneous assumption that personality characteristics are stable. 45. Mara is a clinical psychologist who is gathering information on a client, Steve, by taping Steve while they work. This sort of observation is called __________. A) analogue observation B) self-monitoring C) electronic observation D) in vivo observation E) actual observation

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-45 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Application Answer: D) in vivo observation. 46. Which of the following is NOT a problem associated with observational methods? A) Reactivity may compromise validity. B) People may change their behaviour if they know they are being observed or recorded. C) Observers may begin to develop their own theories of behaviours mid-way through the observation. D) Observer drift may occur. E) Observation is expensive in terms of time and scoring procedures. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-46 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Observers may begin to develop their own theories of behaviours mid-way through the observation. 47. When the psychological problems of a patient are fairly well known, __________ tests are appropriate. A) narrow band B) broad band C) objective D) self-report E) projective Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-47 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: A) narrow band 48. One of the primary goals of clinical research is the __________ of clinical phenomena. A) observation B) prediction C) description D) explanation E) control Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-48 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: C) description

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 49. According to the text, which of the following allows for the greatest confidence in interpreting and generalization of results? A) The quasi-experiment B) The experiment C) The correlational study D) The psychological test E) The semi-experiment Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-49 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: B) The experiment 50. In an experiment, the __________ group is exposed to a variable which is manipulated, called the __________ variable. A) control; dependent B) experimental; dependent C) experimental; control D) control; independent E) experimental; independent Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-50 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) experimental; independent 51. When differences in some dependent variable are found to occur as a function of manipulation of the independent variable, a(n) __________ is obtained. A) experimental effect B) random effect C) pseudo effect D) controlled effect E) correlation Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-51 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) experimental effect

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 52. Several clinical psychologists are conducting a study about the treatment of Generalized Anxiety Disorder. Before receiving the various treatments, the participants were assessed on a number of psychological measures. According to the terminology in the text, these measures would be referred to as __________. A) early tests B) advance tests C) experimental tests D) pretests E) posttests Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-52 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: D) pretests. 53. In a study of the effects of a certain antipsychotic drug, the control group receives a pill that does not actually contain the drug. This group has received a __________. A) dependent variable B) double-blind C) placebo D) pretest E) pseudo-treatment Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-53 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: C) placebo 54. When an experiment is conducted in which neither the experimenters or the participants know who is in the experimental group and control group, this is known as a _________. A) fully blind procedure B) double-control procedure C) double-blind procedure D) placebo-control procedure E) bias-control procedure Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-54 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: C) double-blind procedure.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 55. When evaluating an experiment, one needs to consider its external validity, or __________. A) the degree to which the results of the study can be generalized to other individuals in different settings B) the size of the experimental effect reported in the study C) the degree to which the changes in the independent variables are a result of the manipulation of the dependent variable D) the degree to which alternative explanations for the results of the study can be ruled out E) the degree to which the changes in the dependent variables are a result of the manipulation of the independent variable Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-55 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) the degree to which the results of the study can be generalized to other individuals in different settings. 56. A confound occurs when __________. A) two or more independent variables exert their influence on a dependent variable at different times B) an experimental investigation lacks external validity C) two or more independent variables exert their influence on a dependent variable at the same time. D) the results of an experiment are not significant E) one independent variable exerts an influence on a dependent variable Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-56 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: C) two or more independent variables exert their influence on a dependent variable at the same time. 57. According to the text, the development of classification systems such as the DSM was largely based upon __________. A) questionnaires B) experiments C) correlational studies D) case studies E) quasi-experiments Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-57 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: E) quasi-experiments. 58. Which of the following is NOT true of correlational studies? A) A correlation can be either positive or negative. B) Behaviour is not manipulated, but rather quantitatively measured and analyzed statistically. C) They are frequently carried out where experimental manipulation is impossible or unethical. D) They measure the degree of relationship between two variables. E) They generally do not require a large number of participants. 4-17 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-58 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) They generally do not require a large number of participants. 59. If two variables are found not to be related to one another, then the correlation coefficient of the relationship between these two variables should be close to __________. A) 0.00 B) +0.63 C) -0.50 D) -1.00 E) +1.00 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-59 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: A) 0.00 60. Psychologists are usually most interested in correlation coefficients that are greater than or equal to __________. A) 0.00 B) +1.00 C) +0.30 D) +0.30 or -0.30 E) -0.30 Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-60 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: D) +0.30 or -0.30 61. If two variables, A and B, are related then we can say all of the following except __________. A) there is a relationship between A and B B) some other variable, C, may be causing both A and B C) A might be causing B D) A causes B E) B might be causing A Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-61 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) A causes B.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 62. According to the text, the case study is a(n) __________ approach used in the investigation of abnormal behaviour. A) singular B) nomothetic C) individual D) ideographic E) unitary Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-62 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: D) ideographic 63. Which of the following was NOT presented by the text as a criticism of the case study method of investigating abnormal behaviour? A) The clinician's theoretical background has been shown to influence the information gathered. B) It does not lead to generation of new hypotheses. C) It does not employ the scientific method. D) It cannot demonstrate cause and effect. E) One cannot be certain of the generalizability of the findings. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-63 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: B) It does not lead to generation of new hypotheses. 64. Though based on the investigation of an individual subject, the __________ design avoids many of the criticisms of the case study by using experimentally accepted procedures. A) nomothetic B) ideographic C) reversal D) quasi-experimental E) single-subject Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-64 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: C) reversal 65. Linda is clinical psychologist studying the incidence and prevalence of schizophrenia in a certain population. She is carrying out a(n) _________ study. A) longitudinal B) experimental C) etiological D) epidemiological E) ideographic

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-65 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: D) epidemiological 66. Because of the potential confound of shared environment in _________ studies, behavioural geneticists have often turned to other methods such as adoption studies. A) family B) behavioural genetics C) cross-fostering D) psychological E) adoption Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-66 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: A) family 67. Leanne is conducting a study in which she is examining the difference in rates of bipolar disorder between monozygotic and dizygotic twin pairs. The term most frequently used to describe this sort of study is __________. A) sibling study B) adoption study C) twin study D) matched study E) zygotic study Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-67 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: C) twin study. 68. There has been a great deal of research, using a wide variety of methods, examining the concordance rates for disorders such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. These studies have generally revealed higher concordance rates in ______ than in __________. A) monozygotic twins; adopted relatives B) adopted relatives; biological relatives C) biological relatives; adopted relatives D) dizygotic twins; monozygotic twins E) monozygotic twins; dizygotic twins Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-68 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: E) monozygotic twins; dizygotic twins 69. A musical child grows older and begins to hang out with other musically gifted peers, and eventually decides to enter the Faculty of Music when he goes to university. This is known as __________. A) passive gene-environment correlation B) evocative gene-environment correlation C) concordance D) cross-fostering E) active gene-environment correlation Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-69 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Applied Answer: E) active gene-environment correlation. 70. Experimental results concerning the efficacy of a particular treatment are labelled "statistically significant" when __________. A) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance and the treatment has been demonstrated to be likely to work in "real life" B) the treatment results have been compared to non-disturbed samples C) the treatment has been demonstrated to work in "real life" D) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance E) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance and the treatment has been demonstrated to work in "real life" Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-1-70 Learning Objective: 4.6: Explain why it is important to consider clinical significance in addition to statistical significance. Skill: Factual Answer: D) it is extremely unlikely that the obtained results could have occurred purely by chance. 71. A treatment's practical utility, which does not follow automatically from statistical significance, is referred to as _________ significance. A) treatment B) therapeutic C) clinical D) normative E) practical Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-71 Learning Objective: 4.6: Explain why it is important to consider clinical significance in addition to statistical significance. Skill: Factual Answer: C) clinical

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 72. According to the text, __________ compares treatment results to non-disturbed samples, in order to evaluate the social validity of a particular treatment. A) social comparison B) experimental significance evaluation C) normative comparison D) clinical significance evaluation E) practical comparison Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-72 Learning Objective: 4.6: Explain why it is important to consider clinical significance in addition to statistical significance. Skill: Factual Answer: C) normative comparison 73. Evocative gene-environment correlation occurs __________. A) When a person with certain inherited characteristics reacts to their environment in a certain way B) When a person with certain inherited characteristics actively selects certain environments C) When a person's heritable behaviours elicit a certain environmental response D) When the environment changes one's underlying genes E) When a person with certain heritable characteristics passes on those characteristics to their offspring Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-73 Learning Objective: 4.6: Explain why it is important to consider clinical significance in addition to statistical significance. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) When a person's heritable behaviours elicit a certain environmental response. 74. A passive gene-environment correlation occurs __________. A) When a person's biological parents transmit certain genotypes and early environmental experiences that are consistent with those genotypes B) When a person with certain inherited characteristics reacts to their environment in a certain way C) When the environment changes a person's underlying genes without their awareness D) When grandparents pass on their genotype to their grandchildren E) When a person's genotype alters their environment without their awareness Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-74 Learning Objective: 4.6: Explain why it is important to consider clinical significance in addition to statistical significance. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) When a person's biological parents transmit certain genotypes and early environmental experiences that are consistent with those genotypes. 75. What is an effect size? A) The calculation that a researcher performs to determine the sample size for a study. B) A statistic that reflects the strength of an intervention's effects. C) A statistic that reflects the extent to which a confounding variable affected the outcome of an intervention study. D) The extent to which a study has had an effect on government/social policy. E) The extent to which a study has had an impact on its research participants.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-75 Learning Objective: 4.6: Explain why it is important to consider clinical significance in addition to statistical significance. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) A statistic that reflects the strength of an intervention's effects. 76. Which of the following correlations demonstrates the strongest relationship? A) +0.80 B) +0.55 C) -0.87 D) +0.30 E) -0.55 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-76 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: C) -.87 77. Dr. Hendricks is conducting a study on the impact of hallucinogens on symptoms of psychosis. Participants were assigned alphabetically into either the experimental or control groups. Which research design is being used? A) Experimental study. B) Correlational study. C) Case study. D) Epidemiological study. E) Quasi-experimental study. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-1-77 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: E) Quasi-experimental study. 78. Which of the following correlations demonstrates the weakest relationship? A) +0.80 B) +0.55 C) -0.87 D) +0.30 E) -0.55 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-78 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: D) +0.30

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 79. ________ refers to the frequency of a disorder in a population at a given time and _________ refers to the number of new cases of a disorder in a population over a specified time period. A) Incidence; prevalence B) Frequency; prevalence C) Prevalence; frequency D) Regularity; incidence E) Prevalence; incidence Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-79 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) Prevalence; incidence 80. What is the conventional statistical cut-off in psychological research to determine statistical significance? A) p = .50 B) p = .10 C) p = .01 D) p = .05 E) p = .001 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-1-80 Learning Objective: 4.6: Explain why it is important to consider clinical significance in addition to statistical significance. Skill: Factual Answer: D) p = .05

Chapter 4 - True/False Questions 1. Psychological assessment is a central component of psychological testing. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-81 Learning Objective: 4.1: Differentiate between psychological testing and psychological assessment and describe the importance of this distinction. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 2. Alternate-form reliability refers to the degree of reliability within a test. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-82 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 4-24 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 3. Coefficient alpha and split-half reliability are both methods for evaluating the internal consistency of a test. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-83 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 4. Face validity goes one step beyond content validity in its requirement that a test's content include a representative sample of behaviours thought to be related to the construct the test is designed to measure. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-84 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 5. Bill is a clinician who feels that when it comes to evaluating and interpreting data about a patient, there is no substitute for the clinician's personal experience and judgment. Bill is most likely endorsing the actuarial approach to prediction. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-85 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Application Answer: b. False 6. A test cannot be deemed reliable without having established validity. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-86 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Application Answer: b. False 7. It's important for psychologists to focus upon mental and/or psychological variables, and to exclude medical and physical health variables from their assessment. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-87 Learning Objective: 4.1: Differentiate between psychological testing and psychological assessment and describe the importance of this distinction. Skill: Conceptual, application Answer: b. False 8. One of the oldest and most well-established brain imaging techniques is the electroencephalogram (EEG), which reads the brain's electrical activity via electrodes placed on the scalp. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-88 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 9. CT and MRI provide a static image of the brain whereas PET and fMRI produce a dynamic image of the functioning brain. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-89 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 10. The Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt Test is the oldest and most commonly used neuropsychological test. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-90 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 11. The main problem with the Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt test is that it produces many false negatives. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-91 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 4-26 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 12. The RBANS consists of six subtests: immediate memory, delayed memory, visuo-spatial ability, language, attention, and interpretation bias. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-92 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 13. The semi-structured interview can include the flexibility and rapport advantages of an unstructured interview while reducing the problems of subjectivity and bias. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-93 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 14. The Mental Status Examination is the most frequently used structured clinical interview. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-94 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 15. The first scientific study of intellectual functioning was conducted by French psychologist Alfred Binet. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-95 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 16. The Exner system was developed in an attempt to increase the reliability and validity of the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-96 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 17. The Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) is based on the contrasted- groups method of ascertaining validity. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-97 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 18. The results of an MMPI-III assessment give a clinician a DSM-5 diagnosis. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-98 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 19. One criticism of the MMPI-II is that it has no scales devoted to an assessment of faking or lying on the part of the respondents. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-99 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 20. The change in behaviour often seen when people are aware of being observed is often called reactivity. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-100 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual 4-28 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: a. True 21. Random assignment is a procedure that ensures that each participant in an experiment has an equal probability of being in either the experimental or control groups. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-101 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 22. In an experiment, the control group experiences all aspects of the experiment in a manner identical to the experimental group, except for the manipulation of the dependent variable. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-102 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 23. When two variables exert their influence at the same time, making it impossible to accurately establish the causal role of either variable, a confound is said to occur. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-103 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 24. Generally, psychologists are interested in correlation coefficients only if they are greater than +/-.65. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-104 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 25. A researcher aiming to demonstrate that stable, internal, and global (self-blame) attributions for negative events cause depression must achieve a correlation of +0.50 or greater between measures of attribution and depression symptoms. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-105 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: b. False 26. The case study is both the oldest and most currently used approach to the study of abnormal behaviour. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-106 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 27. Linda is conducting a study in which neither the subjects nor the experimenters know who is getting medication and who is getting the placebo. This study design is most frequently called a double-unaware design. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-2-107 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Application Answer: b. False 28. Incidence refers to the frequency of a disorder in a population at a given point or period of time. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-2-108 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 4 - Essay Questions 1. Define psychological assessment. In your answer, discuss and show full knowledge of the following concepts: assessment tools, clinical interview, psychological testing, reliability, and validity. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-3-109 Learning Objective: 4.1: Differentiate between psychological testing and psychological assessment and describe the importance of this distinction. Skill: Factual Answer: Psychological assessment refers to the systematic gathering and evaluation of information pertaining to an individual for whom a specific question about psychological functioning needs answering. Assessment requires the clinician to place and interpret scores and other data within the context of the person's history, referral information, behavioural observations, and life story of that person in order to provide a comprehensive understanding of that individual. Assessment can be carried out with a wide variety of techniques, typically including a clinical interview and a number of psychological tests. If relevant to the referral question, biological assessments (e.g., EEG, brain imaging techniques) may be required. Issues of reliability and validity pertain to each of the assessment tools selected. Specific issues of reliability and validity pertain to specific tools – for example unstructured clinical interviews are often needed in order to establish trust and rapport, but this tool has problems of reliability and validity stemming from the subjectivity and bias that may be present, such as when the clinician's initial assumptions about the problem guide her questions and other questions – that would shed light on important aspects of the situation – are left out. 2. Compare and contrast actuarial prediction vs. clinical prediction. Include advantages and disadvantages for each. Based on discussion in class, analogy from other concepts in the chapter or your own creative problem-solving abilities, try to identify a compromise between these approaches or a solution for the practitioner that reaps the best of both approaches. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-3-110 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Factual, conceptual, application Answer: The actuarial and clinical judgment methods are used in making predictions about the patient – typically some future behaviour (e.g., offending vs. not offending; relapsing vs. not) that is of importance to society. The actuarial approach to prediction relies exclusively on statistical procedures, empirical methods, and formal rules for evaluating data. The clinical approach relies upon the clinician's experience and personal judgment in making the prediction. Those who endorse the actuarial approach argue that it is more objective, unbiased, and based on scientific validation (especially when the database is large) as well as being more efficient, which is important when there are many decisions to be made. The research evidence has unequivocally favored the actuarial approach over clinical judgment. Those who favor clinical judgment point to the fact that many of the equations and algorithms found in the literature do not generalize to clinical practice settings or that there are too many particular cases that arise in practice that cannot be anticipated by the creators of the "one-size-fits-all" algorithm. A potential solution would involve clinicians being trained in the actuarial methods, and then coming to some consensus as to situations that call for "clinical override" based on experience or judgment. Another potential solution would involve a technique that might be called "structured clinical judgment" – which is really a hybrid of the two methods. Research findings are used to identify the important dimensions of decision- making and judgment is used to make decisions within each dimension.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 3. Briefly define any THREE of the following: test-retest reliability; alternate-form reliability; internal consistency; split-half reliability; coefficient alpha. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-3-111 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Factual Answer: Test-retest reliability = the degree to which a test yields the same results when it is given more than once to the same person Alternate-form reliability = the degree to which two alternate forms of a test agree (provide similar results) Internal consistency = the degree of reliability within a test Split-half reliability = a measure of internal consistency; often evaluated by comparing responses on oddand even-numbered test items Coefficient alpha = a measure of internal consistency; calculated by averaging the intercorrelations of all the items on a given test 4. Briefly define any TWO of the following: face validity, content validity, criterion validity, construct validity. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-3-112 Learning Objective: 4.2: Explain the importance of reliability and validity in clinical assessment. Skill: Factual Answer: Face validity means that the items on a test resemble the characteristics associated with the concept being tested. Content validity is one step beyond face validity in requiring that the test's content include a representative sample of behaviours thought to be related to the construct the test is designed to measure. Criterion validity is said to have been achieved when the test results match what is known in the population (i.e., a depression test has criterion validity if it discriminates between depressed and nondepressed people. Construct validity is concerned with the importance of a test within a specific theoretical framework, especially useful for abstract constructs. 5. List any TWO brain imaging techniques discussed in the text. Briefly describe what kind of information each technique gathers, and how it does so. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-3-113 Learning Objective: 4.3: Describe the strengths and weaknesses of clinical versus actuarial prediction. Skill: Application Answer: Electroencephalogram (EEG): uses electrodes placed on the scalp; measures brain's electrical activity Computerized Axial Tomography (CAT): a narrow band of X-rays is projected through the head onto (scintillation) crystals, and a computer combines a number of the resulting images; measures brain structures (static image of the brain) Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI): a magnetic field is produced around the patient's head, then radio waves are introduced and turned off, causing electrons to return to their original configuration and in doing so emit radio waves at a frequency which can be detected; the introduction of a small magnetic gradient to the field allows the location of the source to be determined; measures both the structure and functioning of the brain (static image of the brain)

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Positron Emission Tomography (PET): radiation is detected outside the head; radiation is inhaled or injected, and the radiation is given off and detected by the PET equipment; measures brain functioning (dynamic image of the brain) 6. Briefly describe any ONE projective test. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-3-114 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Rorschach Inkblot Test: created by Rorschach; asked to describe what they see in the blot; Exner system developed to increase reliability and validity by standardizing scoring Thematic Apperception Test: created by Murray and Morgan; drawings on cards of ambiguous social interactions which individuals create stories about; questions about the reliability and validity of scoring techniques 7. What is an analogue observational setting? Why is it used? What is subject reactivity and should one be concerned with it in an analogue observational setting? Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 04-3-115 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Conceptual Answer: An analogue observational setting is created by clinicians (often behaviourists) in order to directly observe a client's behaviour. It is an artificial setting in an office or laboratory set up to elicit specific classes of behaviour in individuals. It is used because in vivo observation is difficult; it is impractical often because of time constraints and money. Subject reactivity refers to the change in behaviour often seen when people know they are being observed. It is a concern for analogue observational settings as well as in vivo. 8. What is random assignment? In what sort of research design is it found? Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-3-116 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Random assignment is a procedure that ensures each subject has an equal probability of being in either the experimental or control group, guaranteeing the equivalence of these two groups. It is found in experiments. 9. Briefly state the difference between a quasi-experimental study and an experiment upon which of these have the DSMs been primarily based? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-3-117 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Conceptual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: A quasi-experimental study is one in which the subjects in the experimental group are NOT randomly assigned but are selected on the basis of certain characteristics, and in which there is no manipulation of independent variables. Conversely: an experimental study is one in which the subjects are randomly assigned to experimental and control groups, and there is a manipulation of independent variable(s). The DSMs have been primarily based upon quasi-experimental studies. 10. What sort of research design is the ABAB design? What is it also known as? Briefly describe the ABAB design. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-3-118 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: The ABAB design is a single-subject design. It is also known as the reversal design. In this sort of study, the first A phase requires the quantification of behavior in its natural environment, prior to any intervention. In the B phase, the treatment is introduced. The next A phase constitutes the reversal, during which the treatment is stopped. The treatment is provided again in the final B phase. 11. What is epidemiology? What do the terms incidence and prevalence refer to? Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 04-3-119 Learning Objective: 4.5: Define what an “experiment” is and explain what differentiates it from nonexperimental research methods. Skill: Factual Answer: Epidemiology is the study of the incidence and prevalence of disorders in a population. Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disorder in a particular population over a specified time period. Prevalence is the frequency of a disorder in a population at a given point in time. 12. Describe the components of a cognitive-behavioural assessment. What are factors that can affect the accuracy of the data? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 04-3-120 Learning Objective: 4.4: Compare and contrast structured versus unstructured interviews and describe circumstances in which you might favour one format over the other. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Cognitive-behavioural assessment consists of an assessment of the thinking processes and behaviours that may be contributing to problematic behaviour. Given that thought processes are covert (i.e., cannot be overtly observed), the assessor has to use self-report measures to detect these processes. For example, the Dysfunctional Attitudes Scale and the Automatic Thoughts Questionnaire are common and easy to administer in assessment and also during treatment (e.g., before and after therapy). The textbook points out that questionnaires wherein respondents are asked to report on their typical way of thinking have important limitations. Specifically, these measures may not be entirely accurate because they rely on retrospective recall, which can be biased, particularly when individuals have conditions that can lead to information processing biases (depression, for example). One way to get around this is to have clients keep track of their thoughts in a thought record – a type of diary. However, these have issues too as they can be somewhat cumbersome to carry around. Thought records are also vulnerable to recall biases if an individual backfills them—i.e., completes them hours or days after an event has occurred. In recent years, a number of smartphone apps have been developed that address the issues associated with conventional cognitive-behavioural assessment. These apps require clients to respond to brief questions about their thoughts and behaviour in real time, in their day-to-day life. 4-34 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e

CHAPTER 5 Anxiety, Obsessive-Compulsive, and Trauma -Related Disorders Chapter 5 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. Anxiety is distinguished from fear and panic because of the emphasis on __________. A) fighting B) the present C) the past D) the future E) fleeing Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-01 Learning Objective: 5.1: Describe the characteristics of anxiety. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) the future 2. Panic is defined as an extreme __________ reaction that is triggered by a(n) __________. A) anxiety; future-oriented threat B) emotional; perceived threat C) fear; false alarm D) anxiety; false alarm E) emotional; imagined threat Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-02 Learning Objective: 5.1: Describe the characteristics of anxiety. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) fear; false alarm 3. References to anxiety have been made since __________, with the first references being made by __________ about __________. A) Victorian era; Freud; a woman who feared men with cigars B) the Middle Ages; Paracelsus; people who feared possession C) the 18th century; Pinel; a patient with apparent agoraphobia D) late 1800s; Kraepelin; a patient with apparent OCD-related disorder E) beginning of history; Hippocrates; a man who feared flute music Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-03 Learning Objective: 5.1: Describe the characteristics of anxiety. Skill: Factual Answer: E) beginning of history; Hippocrates; a man who feared flute music

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e 4. According to the text, biological theories of anxiety emphasize all of the following except __________. A) neuroanatomy B) structural brain damage C) family history D) neurotransmitters E) genetics Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-04 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) structural brain damage. 5. The neural circuit in fear / anxiety is believed to involve (from input to output): __________. A) sensory systems; frontal cortex; adrenal cortex; brain stem / spinal cord B) sensory systems; thalamus; amygdala; hypothalamus; midbrain; brain stem / spinal C) thalamus; hippocampus; basal ganglia; hypothalamus; brain stem / spinal D) thalamus; occipital cortex; association cortex; motor cortex; brain stem/spinal E) thalamus; temporal cortex; association cortex; motor cortex; brain stem / spinal Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 05-1-05 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) sensory systems; thalamus; amygdala; hypothalamus; midbrain; brain stem / spinal 6. With regard to neurotransmitters involved in fear/anxiety, __________. A) serotonergic circuits are primarily involved B) dopamine agonists increase the fear / anxiety response in animals C) the roles of GABA, norepinephrine and serotonin are the most studied D) Only GABA has been well studied but others are thought to be involved E) GABA's function in the brain is processing threat-related stimuli Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 05-1-06 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) the roles of GABA, norepinephrine and serotonin are the most studied. 7. The role of GABA in anxiety was discovered after it was found that a class of drugs known as __________ reduce anxiety through their action on GABA. A) tricyclics B) benzodiazepines C) SSRIs D) bicyclics E) monoamine oxidase inhibitors Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-07 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Answer: B) benzodiazepines 8. According to the two-factor theory of phobias, avoidance or escape serves as a __________ which prevents classically conditioned fears from being unlearned. A) positive punisher B) negative reinforcer C) negative punisher D) neutral stimulus E) positive reinforcer Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 05-1-08 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) negative reinforcer 9. Support for the two-factor theory of fear was found in the case of __________, who developed a fear of ________. A) Little Albert, spiders B) Little Hans; horses C) Little Albert; horses D) Little Albert; rats E) Little Hans; spiders Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-09 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Little Albert; rats 10. Cognitive factors involved in anxiety and anxiety-related disorders include: __________. A) dysfunctional attitudes, beliefs and thinking abilities B) maladaptive attitudes, beliefs, and interpretive biases C) maladaptive beliefs, schemas, attention and processing biases, and automatic thoughts D) over-exaggerations in terms of number and degree of threats to the self E) over-exaggerations only in terms of degree of threats to the self Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-10 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) maladaptive beliefs, schemas, attention and processing biases, and automatic thoughts. 11. The textbook cites research support for the following interpersonal factors as being involved in the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders: __________. A) parenting style / attachment style; parental criticism, overprotection, and control; peer victimization experiences in childhood B) harsh and inconsistent punishment; peer victimization experiences in early childhood C) coercive parental discipline techniques; over-crowded early social environment D) at least one parent with an anxiety disorder; over-crowded early social environment E) at least one parent with an anxiety disorder; early peer victimization

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-11 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) parenting style / attachment style; parental criticism, overprotection, and control; peer victimization experiences in childhood 12. Approximately __________ % of the population may be expected to develop an anxiety or anxiety-related disorder at some point in their lives. A) 10 B) 40 C) 31 D) 55 E) 90 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-12 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) 31 13. According to DSM-5, a(n) __________ is defined as a discrete period of intense fear or discomfort accompanied by at least 4 of the 13 somatic, behavioural, and cognitive symptoms listed (such as palpitations and fear of dying). A) panic attack B) anxiety attack C) panic episode D) acute attack E) anxiety episode Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-13 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: A) panic attack 14. According to DSM-5, which of the following is not included as a core symptom of a panic attack? A) the urge to scream B) chest pain C) derealization D) sweating E) nausea Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-14 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: A) the urge to scream

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e 15. The behavioural avoidance test (BAT) is used to measure and assess __________. A) agoraphobic avoidance B) derealization C) depersonalization D) paresthesia E) fear of dying Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-15 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) agoraphobic avoidance. 16. Though panic attacks can occur in a variety of other disorders, in panic disorder they occur __________. A) more intensely B) predictably C) for longer periods of time D) more frequently E) spontaneously Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-16 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: E) spontaneously. 17. Heather avoids situations such as travelling far from home, being alone in or outside the home and going into crowded places. Judging from this description, which of the following terms best encapsulates Heather’s behaviour? A) Agoraphobia B) Social anxiety disorder C) Specific phobia D) Panic attacks E) Generalized anxiety Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-17 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Application Answer: A) Agoraphobia 18. The onset of panic disorder is typically __________. A) around childhood B) around late adolescence or young adulthood C) near late adulthood D) early to middle adulthood E) variable

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-18 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: B) around late adolescence or young adulthood. 19. Which of the following is NOT true of panic disorder? A) It afflicts more males than females. B) People having panic attacks often feel they are having a heart attack. C) The average age of onset is 25 years. D) It is often underdiagnosed by heath care professionals. E) It is often comorbid with other mental disorders. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-19 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: A) It afflicts more males than females. 20. Clark's model of panic postulates that panic attacks arise from __________. A) catastrophic misinterpretation of arousal-related bodily sensations B) the correct interpretation of bodily sensations C) raised levels of norepinephrine D) previous conditioning experiences E) lowered levels of norepinephrine Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-20 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: A) catastrophic misinterpretation of arousal-related bodily sensations. 21. The term __________ refers to the fact that people prone to panic attacks tend to catastrophically misinterpret arousal-related bodily sensations. A) panic sensitivity B) alarm sensitivity C) anxiety sensitivity D) panic catastrophizing E) anxiety catastrophizing Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-21 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: C) anxiety sensitivity

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e 22. The idea that individuals with panic disorder catastrophically misinterpret their bodily sensations is most consistent with __________ theories of panic disorder. A) physiological-attribution B) cognitive C) physiological D) biopsychological E) bio-behavioral Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-22 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: B) cognitive 23. With regard to panic and panic disorder, it is generally accepted that __________. A) panic attacks are relatively common in the population B) unexpected panic attacks are quite rare in the population; the majority of those who experience them are eventually diagnosed with panic disorder, provided they meet additional criteria C) the frequency of panic attacks is normally distributed in the population; those with frequency in the upper 5% are diagnosed with panic disorder D) the intensity of panic attacks is normally distributed in the population; those with intensity in the upper 5th percentile are diagnosed with panic disorder E) panic attacks only occur in persons with panic disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-23 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: A) panic attacks are relatively common in the population. 24. Which of the following is NOT one of the five specifiers of specific phobia listed in the DSM-5? A) animal B) specific situation C) death D) blood injection E) environmental Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-24 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) death 25. If the equipotentiality premise concerning specific phobias is true, then it must also be true that __________. A) a person cannot be afraid of both dogs and doors B) only neutral stimuli that involve animals can become phobias C) classical conditioning cannot explain the development of phobias D) only a select number of stimuli are consistently related to phobias E) all neutral stimuli have the potential for becoming phobias

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 05-1-25 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) all neutral stimuli have the potential for becoming phobias. 26. The non-associative model of phobias claims that __________. A) evolution endowed humans not to respond fearfully to any kind of stimulus and that learning was necessary for very specific phobias to develop B) evolution endowed humans to respond fearfully to a select group of stimuli, but that learning is necessary to develop the phobia C) evolution endowed humans to respond fearfully to a select group of stimuli and thus learning is not necessary to develop the phobia D) evolution endowed humans to respond fearfully to any kind of stimuli but that personal experience was necessary for a phobia to develop E) evolution endowed humans not to respond fearfully to any kind of stimuli and that personal experience is necessary for a phobia to develop Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-26 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) evolution endowed humans to respond fearfully to a select group of stimuli but that learning is not necessary to develop the phobia. 27. The concept of biological preparedness helps to explain why __________. A) learning to fear snakes is just as easy as learning to fear lamps B) it is impossible to develop two fears at the same time C) all stimuli have an equal potential for becoming specific phobias D) learning to fear snakes is easier than learning to fear lamps E) learning is not a necessary component in the development of phobias Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-27 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) learning to fear snakes is easier than learning to fear lamps. 28. Research on disgust sensitivity supports the notion that __________. A) the fear of death is also an important component B) the cause of phobias may not always involve only fear of danger C) other emotions, such as anger, are necessary, for some phobias D) the cause of phobias must also always include a fear of contamination E) beliefs about being harmed are critical to the onset of some phobias Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-28 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual 5-8 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Answer: B) the cause of phobias may not always involve only fear of danger. 29. Research has shown __________. A) that anxiety disorders appear to be unique to large urban environments B) that psychological explanations for anxiety disorders are common around the world C) that the DSM-5 anxiety disorders are expressed the same way around the world D) that in some cultures, heat in the chest is reported as part of the experience of anxiety E) that the DSM-5 does not acknowledge culturally unique expressions of anxiety Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-29 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual, Factual Answer: D) that in some cultures, heat in the chest is reported as part of the experience of anxiety. 30. Kai has a strong fear of eating in restaurants, but otherwise does not experience anxiety. Their correct diagnosis would probably be __________. A) agoraphobia B) social anxiety disorder C) generalized anxiety disorder D) specific phobia E) panic disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-30 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Application Answer: B) social anxiety disorder. 31. __________ has a prevalence rate comparable to unipolar depression. A) Social anxiety disorder B) PTSD C) Generalized anxiety disorder D) OCD E) Panic disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-31 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Social anxiety disorder 32. Cognitive factors associated with social anxiety disorder appear to involve __________. A) normal social information processing but negative beliefs about self and others B) abnormal social information processing despite generally positive beliefs about self and others C) abnormal social information processing D) abnormal social information processing and negative beliefs about self and others E) negative beliefs about self and others

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-32 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: D) abnormal social information processing and negative beliefs about self and others. 33. Research found that 92% of an adult sample of individuals with __________ were bullied or severely teased during childhood; this was at least twice as frequent as for __________ or __________. A) social anxiety disorder; OCD; panic disorder B) panic disorder; OCD; social anxiety disorder C) social anxiety disorder; specific phobia; PTSD D) specific phobia; social anxiety disorder; OCD E) anxiety disorders; depression; bipolar mood disorders Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 05-1-33 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: A) social anxiety disorder; OCD; panic disorder 34. Which of the following is true regarding social anxiety disorder in the DSM-5? A) It has been re-classified as a trauma-and-stressor related-disorder, which has proven to be quite controversial. B) It is characterized in part by a fear of being in tunnels or on bridges. C) It has been re-classified as a subtype of specific phobia. D) The duration criterion is now 3 months, rather than 6 months. E) A person who endures but does not avoid social situations may receive this diagnosis. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-34 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) A person who endures but does not avoid social situations may receive this diagnosis. 35. For a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) the DSM-5 requires that the anxiety must be present more days than not for a period of at least __________. A) 1 year B) 6 weeks C) 6 months D) 6 days E) 3 years Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-35 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) 6 months.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e 36. Worrying appears to help individuals with GAD avoid __________. A) panic attacks B) depression C) suicidal ideation D) physiological arousal E) stress Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-36 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: D) physiological arousal. 37. Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with generalized anxiety disorder in the DSM-5? A) muscle tension B) sleep disturbance C) irritability D) fear of losing control or going crazy E) restlessness or feeling keyed up or on edge Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-37 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) fear of losing control or going crazy 38. Many of the etiological models of GAD are primarily __________ in nature. A) neuropsychological B) genetic C) biological D) behavioural E) cognitive Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-38 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: E) cognitive 39. According to the Dugas, Gagnon, Ladouceur, and Freeston (1998) model of generalized anxiety disorder, which of the following is one of the key elements underlying the disorder? A) excessive amounts of catecholamines. B) intolerance of uncertainty. C) thought-action fusion. D) poor interpersonal relations. E) catastrophic misinterpretation of bodily arousal. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-39 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual 5-11 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Answer: B) intolerance of uncertainty. 40. According to research, which of the following is an associated feature of generalized anxiety disorder? A) excessive amounts of catecholamines. B) elevated levels of anger. C) elevated levels of paranoia. D) elevated levels of disgust. E) elevated levels of guilt. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-40 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: B) elevated levels of anger. 41. __________ are repetitive behaviours or cognitive acts performed in response to obsessions. A) repeats B) checks C) compulsions D) reiterations E) motor disturbances Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-41 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: C) compulsions 42. Behavioural or mental acts of neutralization appear to be __________. A) specific to OCD patients B) specific to male OCD patients C) specific to female OCD patients D) not common among OCD patients E) a normal and common activity Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-42 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) a normal and common activity. 43. In an experiment, students were asked to complete the sentence, "I hope ______ is in a car accident" by inserting a friend's name in the blank space and imagining that the situation had occurred. The finding was that the participants engaged in action to cancel the effects of writing the sentence. This was a demonstration of __________. A) thought-action fusion B) intolerance of uncertainty C) obsessions D) fear of negative evaluation E) positive beliefs about worry

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-43 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) thought-action fusion. 44. Examples of obsessional themes include all of the following except __________. A) contamination B) sexual C) order/symmetry D) worry E) harm Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-44 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) worry 45. Most neuropsychological models of OCD implicate the following brain area: __________. A) frontal cortex B) cerebellum C) occipital lobe D) spinal cord E) hippocampus Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-45 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) frontal cortex 46. Which of the following is true regarding the memory of individuals with OCD who experience persistent doubting? A) Research has confirmed that individuals with OCD have memory deficits. B) Research has confirmed that individuals with OCD have superior memory relative to people without OCD. C) Research has confirmed that individuals with OCD are affected by poor memory confidence. D) Research has confirmed that individuals with OCD suffer from brief episodes of amnesia. E) Research has confirmed that individuals with OCD typically have trouble remembering childhood events. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 05-1-46 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Research has confirmed that individuals with OCD are affected by poor memory confidence.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e 47. What is the central feature of DSM-5 body dysmorphic disorder? A) Excessive preoccupation with actual body disfigurement. B) Excessive preoccupation with imagined body disfigurement. C) Excessive preoccupation with caloric intake. D) Excessive preoccupation with the physical appearance of loved ones. E) Excessive preoccupation with unattainable beauty ideals. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-47 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Excessive preoccupation with imagined body disfigurement. 48. Research comparing OCD and BDD has found that __________. A) there is low co-occurrence between the two in families B) BDD is actually a subtype of OCD C) OCD is associated with greater suicidal ideation D) OCD confers higher risk for substance use E) BDD is associated with more delusions Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-48 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: E) BDD is associated with more delusions. 49. With regard to PTSD, two important changes in DSM-5 include: __________. A) tightening of the criteria such that fewer people can be diagnosed with PTSD; behavioural specification of a number of terms that are currently vague B) addition of symptoms and behaviours to better incorporate the variety of reactions to trauma; distinction between avoidance symptoms and negative alterations in cognition and mood C) removal of the criterion that the person be directly exposed to the traumatic event; creation of subtypes based on type of avoidance D) increase in the duration requirement to 2 months; broadening of the way that impairment may manifest E) increase in the duration requirement to 6 months; broadening of the way that impairment may manifest Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 05-1-49 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: B) addition of symptoms and behaviours to better incorporate the variety of reactions to trauma; distinction between avoidance symptoms and negative alterations in cognition and mood. 50. Which of the following is NOT one of the four clusters of symptoms associated with posttraumatic stress disorder? A) Recurrent re-experiencing of the traumatic event B) Exposure to a traumatic event C) Persistent symptoms of increased arousal D) Avoidance of trauma-related stimuli E) Repeated and unwanted daydreams Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-50 5-14 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Repeated and unwanted daydreams 51. To qualify for a diagnosis of PTSD the individual must display symptoms for longer than _______ following a traumatic event. A) one year B) 1 month C) 3 months D) 6 months E) five years Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-51 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 1 month 52. Concerning the risk factors for the development of PTSD, __________ appear to be the most powerful predictors. A) childhood factors B) interpersonal traumas C) post-event factors D) psychiatric histories E) pre-event factors Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-52 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) post-event factors 53. A physiological marker of PTSD is __________. A) decreased cortisol secretion B) smaller frontal lobes C) a smaller hypothalamus D) increased cortisol secretion E) an enlarged hippocampus Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-53 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) decreased cortisol secretion.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e 54. The most commonly used and effective medications for the treatment of anxiety and anxietyrelated disorders today are __________. A) antidepressants B) benzodiazepines C) stimulants D) antianxiety drugs E) minor tranquilizers Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 05-1-54 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) antidepressants 55. __________ was the first psychological treatment to be thoroughly validated for anxiety and anxiety-related disorders. A) Psychoanalysis B) Relaxation training C) Exposure therapy D) Hypnosis E) Cognitive restructuring Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-55 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Exposure therapy 56. One commonly used technique in cognitive restructuring involves the use of __________. A) response prevention B) a fear hierarchy C) dual representation D) a thought record E) exposure Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-56 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) a thought record. 57. The rationale underlying systematic desensitization is that __________. A) anxiety is due to uncontrollable thoughts or worries B) anxiety is an outcome of an abnormally functioning HPA-axis C) anxiety is a learned or conditioned response D) anxiety is due to a history of child abuse E) anxiety is due to poor interpersonal skills Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-57 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Answer: C) anxiety is a learned or conditioned response. 58. The main treatment for OCD involves exposure and __________. A) worry exposure B) ritual prevention C) interoceptive exposure D) worry behaviour prevention E) intense exposure Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-58 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) ritual prevention. 59. Worry imagery exposure was primarily developed for the treatment of __________. A) social anxiety disorder B) generalized anxiety disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder D) specific phobia E) panic disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-59 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) generalized anxiety disorder 60. Both cognitive restructuring and exposure appear to be useful in the treatment of __________ disorder. A) panic B) obsessive-compulsive C) generalized anxiety D) social anxiety E) phobic Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-60 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) social anxiety 61. __________ treatments for anxiety and anxiety-related disorders tend to have lower relapse rates. A) Pharmacological B) Cognitive-behavioural C) Humanistic D) Existential E) Psychoanalytic

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-61 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Cognitive-behavioural 62. Preliminary evidence regarding the efficacy of iCBT suggests that __________. A) iCBT is not an effective therapeutic intervention for any mental disorders B) iCBT is more effective for depression than for anxiety disorders C) iCBT is more effective for anxiety disorders than for depression D) iCBT is an effective therapeutic intervention for both anxiety disorders and depression E) There is not sufficient evidence to draw conclusions on the efficacy of iCBT, more research is needed Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-62 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) iCBT is more effective for depression than for anxiety disorders. 63. __________ is the current primary treatment for Body Dysmorphic Disorder. A) CBT B) ERP C) SSRIs D) NET E) TCAs Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-63 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) SSRIs 64. Axel has a strong fear of spiders. If Axel sees a spider, they feel nauseated and uncomfortable. Unfortunately, Axel works in the reptile exhibit at the local zoo which is beside the spider exhibits so they must endure this discomfort daily. Which anxiety disorder is Axel demonstrating? A) Social anxiety disorder. B) Panic disorder. C) Specific phobia. D) None- Axel’s fear would not diagnostic criteria for an anxiety disorder. E) Generalized anxiety disorder. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-64 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Application Answer: D) None- Axel’s fear would not meet diagnostic criteria for an anxiety disorder.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e 65. Which is an emotional response to an identifiable, perceived threat? A) Panic. B) Hysteria. C) Fear. D) Anxiety. E) Neurosis. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-1-65 Learning Objective: 5.1: Describe the characteristics of anxiety. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Fear. 66. What would be the approximate prevalence of GAD in the state of Washington? A) 4%. B) 2%. C) 31%. D) 9%. E) 10%. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-1-66 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) 9%.

Chapter 5 - True/False Questions 1. Panic could be described as a "false alarm." a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-67 Learning Objective: 5.1: Describe the characteristics of anxiety. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 2. Mythical and historical accounts of anxiety reactions date as far back as the existence of writing. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-2-68 Learning Objective: 5.1: Describe the characteristics of anxiety. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e 3. Family studies indicate that up to 50% of those suffering from anxiety and anxiety- related disorders have an immediate family member who also suffers from one as well. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-69 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 4. If a first degree relative has an anxiety and/or anxiety-related disorder, then the offspring have 4-6 times the risk of inheriting that specific anxiety disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-70 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 5. We now know that GABA is the only neurotransmitter system dedicated to the fear and anxiety response. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-71 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 6. The amygdala can effectively process external (i.e., fear-provoking) stimuli and determine its survival relevance without the influence of higher brain functioning. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-72 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 7. Mowrer's two-factor model of fear and phobias proposes that fears are acquired through classical conditioning but are maintained through operant conditioning. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-73 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 8. Mowrer's two-factor theory satisfactorily explains why some stimuli (such as spiders) are more likely to become feared rather than others. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-74 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 9. Individuals who are susceptible to anxiety and anxiety-related disorders do not appear to have atypical beliefs about the self, but have been found to have a number of distorted beliefs about specific threats in the environment. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-75 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 10. Specific parenting behaviours and styles have been associated with increased risk of anxiety and anxiety-related disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-76 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 11. Researchers hope to provide critical experimental tests of attachment vs. cognitive explanations of anxiety and anxiety-related disorders, since these approaches are incompatible. a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 05-2-77 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Application Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e 12. Anxiety and anxiety-related related disorders are the third most common mental disorder, second only to mood disorders and eating disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-2-78 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 13. It is possible to have a diagnosis of agoraphobia without history of panic disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-2-79 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 14. From a cognitive perspective, panic disorder involves catastrophic misinterpretations of bodily sensations. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-2-80 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 15. The equipotentiality premise, as it applies to phobias, is widely accepted as true. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-2-81 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 16. Although females are more likely to develop a specific phobia, a surprising finding is that males tend to be higher in disgust sensitivity. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-82 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 17. Research has shown that there are no cross-cultural differences in the expression of social anxiety disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-83 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 18. Individuals with generalized anxiety disorder often avoid activities such as drinking coffee and having sex because they frequently misinterpret the resulting bodily sensations of arousal. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-84 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Application Answer: b. False 19. Obsessions are repetitive behaviours performed in response to repetitive, intrusive thoughts. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-2-85 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 20. Research has shown that neutralizing occurs relatively often in people who do not have OCD. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-86 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e 21. Salkovskis proposed that cognitive intrusions develop into obsessions only when intrusions are appraised as posing a threat for which the person is personally responsible. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-87 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 22. Researchers contend that body dysmorphic disorder is actually a subtype of eating disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-2-88 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 23. Personality disorders are frequently present in more complex and severe cases of PTSD. a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 05-2-89 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 24. There is research support for mindfulness-based approaches to treating anxiety and anxietyrelated disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-2-90 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 25. Research shows that Eye-Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing, which includes exposure, is significantly more effective than exposure alone. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-2-91 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual 5-24 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Answer: b. False 26. The theory behind Eye-Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing, a new method of treating anxiety and anxiety-related disorders is widely accepted. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 05-2-92 Learning Objective: 5.5: Summarize and discuss common treatments for anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Chapter 5 - Essay Questions 1. Several researchers have examined the role of neurotransmitters and neuroanatomy in anxiety. Briefly discuss the role of one brain region and one neurotransmitter that have been studied. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-3-93 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Amygdala: principal brain region involved in the processing of fear; subcortical region involving neural fear circuit that acts independently of higher brain regions. GABA: neurotransmitter; its role discovered after benzodiazepines were found to reduce anxiety through their action on GABA; one hypothesis is that they increase the release of GABA into the synaptic cleft, thereby depleting the presynaptic neurons of GABA. 2. What is the two-factor theory? Give an example of how a fear could be acquired and maintained in the context of this theory. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-3-94 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Mowrer's theory proposes that fears are acquired by classical conditioning as proposed by Watson but are maintained by operant conditioning (avoidance is reinforced; prevents extinction). For example: A person who previously liked dogs gets jumped very suddenly by a large, snarling dog one day. The person develops a conditioned fear response via classical conditioning. Subsequently, the person starts to become very tense and anxious whenever they pass the dog park, which is down the street from where the jumping occurred. However, when the person avoids this route and instead takes a different route, anxiety and tension are kept at bay. Avoidance of the street with the dog park is maintained by operant conditioning; specifically, negative reinforcement. 3. Several findings are inconsistent with classical conditionings accounts of fear acquisition. Briefly discuss two such findings. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-3-95 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual 5-25 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Answer: 1. cannot explain the development of all phobias; fears are sometimes acquired in the absence of conditioning 2. researchers have often failed to create conditioned fears in the lab; some real-life situations which would appear to be fear provoking actually fail to do so 3. cannot explain why some stimuli are more likely to become feared than others 4. What does Seligman's biological preparedness theory state? Has the evidence generally supported this theory? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-3-96 Learning Objective: 5.2: Discuss various etiological factors involved in anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Theory states that people and other organisms are biologically prepared to acquire fears of certain stimuli; that evolution predisposed organisms to easily learn those associations which facilitate survival. E.g., easier to fear spiders than wooden blocks. Evidence: substantial in non-human species, such as monkeys; less compelling in humans 5. Briefly define "specific phobia", and list the specifiers discussed in the DSM-5. How can a phobia be differentiated from regular fear experienced by many people? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-3-97 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: A marked and persistent fear and avoidance of specific stimuli or situations; 1) animal phobia, 2) environmental phobia, 3) blood-injection-injury phobia, 4) specific situations phobia. Other phobias is a subtype which include those phobias not otherwise listed such as extreme fears of choking, vomiting, and clowns. Phobias are distinguishable from ordinary fear in that the fear is excessive or unreasonable, and the fear, avoidance and worries related to the phobic stimulus must interfere significantly with the person's life. 6. According to DSM-5, what is social anxiety disorder? Describe one biological factor, one environmental factor, and one cognitive factor involved in this disorder. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-3-98 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual Answer: Social anxiety disorder is characterized by a marked and persistent fear of social or performance-type situations wherein exposure to possible scrutiny is possible. Examples of situations include but are not limited to: meeting new people, making small talk, eating in front of people, and giving a speech. People with social anxiety disorder fear being negatively evaluated for (1) showing signs of anxiety (e.g., blushing) and (2) behaving in a way that is socially inept/awkward that will cause others to reject them. Although everyone experiences social anxiety at some point, the disorder is distinguished by frequent avoidance. The fear or anxiety is out of the proportion to the threat posed by the social situation and to the sociocultural context. A diagnosis is made when the fear and anxiety have been present for at least 6 months. The anxiety must cause clinically significant distress or impairment. Biological factors: behavioural inhibition, an inherited temperament, is observable in infancy and predicts later development of social anxiety disorder; amygdala is implicated in fear.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e Environmental: People with social anxiety disorder are more likely than those with OCD or panic disorder to report that they were bullied or severely teased in childhood. Adults with social anxiety disorder also report criticism from parents and overprotection in childhood. Cognitive: negative beliefs about the self (e.g., negative self view as inferior causing individuals with social anxiety disorder to engage in dishonest self-disclosure) and abnormal information processing in social interactions (e.g., paying excessive attention to signs of anger and displeasure in others; turning attention inwards during social interactions which causes individuals with social anxiety disorder to misinterpret social cues). 7. According to the DSM-5, what is generalized anxiety disorder? Describe two psychological theories of GAD. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-3-99 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Generalized anxiety disorder is characterized by excessive and uncontrollable worrying about bad things that may happen in the future. People with this disorder typically describe themselves as always having been a worrier and the diagnosis is considered when an individual reports worrying about many different things. The worry in generalized anxiety disorder is not transient; the diagnosis is assigned only if the worry has been present more days than not for at least 6 months. The worry is accompanied by at least 3 of the 6 associated symptoms: restlessness or feeling keyed up or on edge; irritability; concentration difficulties; muscle tension; sleep disturbances; being easily fatigued. The worry causes clinically significant distress or clinically significant impairment. According to Borkovec, worry is a behaviour/mental act that reduces physiological signs of anxiety. Therefore, worry is maintained by process of negative reinforcement. Researchers believe that it is the verbal quality of worry (like talking to oneself in the mind) that dampens physiological responding. Because people with GAD are very uncomfortable with and even fear emotional arousal, thinking in verbal ways while worrying limits emotional experience. According to Dugas and colleagues, people with GAD are intolerant of uncertainty and have a lower threshold of discomfort when exposed to uncertain or ambiguous situations. People with GAD pay a lot of attention to uncertain information and show a tendency to interpret ambiguity in a negative way. Because uncertainty is an inherent part of life, this gives people with GAD many triggers for worry. 8. Briefly define obsessions and compulsions as they relate to obsessive-compulsive disorder. Provide two examples of each. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-3-100 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Obsessions: thoughts, images or urges that are persistent, markedly distressing and egodystonic (experienced as unwanted and unacceptable). Many possible examples, such as: contamination fears, persistent doubting (e.g., about having locked the door, turned off the stove); intrusive unwanted thoughts of violence, sex; urges to arrange things in order. Compulsions: repetitive behaviours (overt actions or cognitive acts) performed in response to an obsession, or according to certain rules or in a stereotyped manner. Many possible examples, such as: repeated washing, repeated checking, repeated seeking of reassurance (e.g., did you see me lock the door), ordering or arranging objects.

Test Bank to accompany Abnormal Psychology: Perspectives, 7e 9. What two reasons does the cognitive-behavioural model advance to explain why compulsions tend to persist and to be excessive? Provide an example consistent with these two reasons. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 05-3-101 Learning Objective: 5.3: Identify and describe the methods involved in the assessment of anxiety and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: 1) They are negatively reinforced by immediate distress reduction. 2) They prevent the person from learning that the dire appraisals are unrealistic. Example: An individual who as OCD is experiencing obsessions regarding contamination and is scared that she will spread germs and make their child terminally ill. To eliminate this obsession, they wash their hands and use sanitizer for 10-minutes at a time, several times a day. Following washing and sanitizing, they experience a decrease in the distress associated with the obsessions (#1- negative reinforcement) and they feel more relaxed, which increases the likelihood they will engage in the washing and sanitizing behaviours when the obsessions arise again. Second, because they engage in the compulsion behaviours, they never have the experience that they will give their child a terminal illness (#2). 10. DSM-5 divides Anxiety and Anxiety-Related Disorders into: anxiety disorders, obsessive- and compulsive-related disorders, and trauma- and stressor-related disorders. Defend this change by explaining how these groupings appear to have different general etiologies. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 05-3-102 Learning Objective: 5.4: Differentiate the anxiety and anxiety-related disorders from one another. Skill: Conceptual, application Answer: The anxiety disorders under this system include panic disorder, specific phobias, agoraphobia, generalized anxiety disorder, and social anxiety disorder. These have a non-specific genetic vulnerability (i.e., a relative with one such disorder increases one's risk for any of the others in the category). Also, there is high comorbidity and shifting from one diagnosis to another over time. Also, there is overlap in that behavioral and cognitive factors play an important role in formulation and treatment of each of these. The obsessive-compulsive-related disorders stand alone on the basis of unique symptoms, and evidence for unique genetic and brain correlates which suggest a standalone category of mental disorder. Unusual symptoms which are specific to OCD include magical thinking, such as thought-action fusion, where having the thought of harming someone is viewed as increasing the likelihood of that thought coming true and that having a thought of harming someone is the moral equivalent of actually doing the action. Brain correlates specific to OCD include structural / functioning differences in the basal ganglia and frontal cortex. The trauma- and stressor-related disorders stand alone in the DSM due to the accumulating evidence that PTSD has unique associated features with apparently unique etiological pathway. PTSD involves onset that follows exposure to a significant stressor(s). It also has unique physiological correlates, including decreased cortisol with enhanced negative feedback of adrenal function; and decreased hippocampal volume.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 6 Dissociative and Somatic Symptom and Related Disorders Chapter 6 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. Dissociative disorders and some of the somatic symptom disorders were once viewed as expressions of ________, which denoted a symptom pattern of emotional excitability and physical symptoms without medical cause, and which was felt to be caused by a _________. A) neurosis; suppression of psychic stress B) neurosis; repression of traumatic memories C) brain degeneration; an over-excitable brain and nervous system D) hysteria; repression of traumatic memories E) hysteria; wandering uterus Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-01 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) hysteria; wandering uterus 2. In earlier editions of the DSM, dissociative and somatic symptom and related disorders were categorized as __________. A) psychoses B) depressive disorders C) somatic symptom disorder D) neuroses E) physical disorders Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-02 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) neuroses. 3. At present, dissociative disorders are characterized by __________. A) flat affect B) severe brain damage C) delusions and hallucinations D) maladaptive alterations of identity, memory, and consciousness E) poor concentration Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-03 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) maladaptive alterations of identity, memory, and consciousness.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. Ali has suddenly left home and has lost all memory of themselves and their past life. Ali is most likely suffering from __________. A) repression B) depersonalization/derealization disorder C) dissociative amnesia D) dissociative amnesia with fugue E) dissociative identity disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-04 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) dissociative amnesia with fugue. 5. A condition in which people are induced by therapists to remember events that have never occurred is referred to as __________. A) iatrogenic memory syndrome B) trauma-repression syndrome C) creative recall syndrome D) false memory syndrome E) distorted memory syndrome Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-05 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) false memory syndrome. 6. The dissociative disorders have a high degree of comorbidity __________. A) with physical complaints that clearly don't have a medical cause B) with types of delirium, dementias, and amnestic disorders C) with anxiety, mood and personality disorders D) in terms of severe maladaptive disruptions or alternations of identity, memory and consciousness that are experienced as being beyond one's control E) in terms of physical symptoms suggestive of medical illness, but no organic basis can be found to account for them Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-06 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual, Application Answer: C) with anxiety, mood and personality disorders. 7. Approximately _________ of the general population have some type of dissociative disorder whereas _________ of psychiatric patients do. A) 0.5%; 1.5 to 3% B) 1.5%; 3 to 6% C) 3%; 5 to 11% D) 6%; 10 to 16% E) 9.1%; 15 to 21 %

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-07 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) 9.1%; 15 to 21 % 8. Leanne experiences the sudden feeling of being detached from herself. The term best suited to describe her experience is __________. A) depersonalization/derealization disorder B) dissociative identity disorder C) dissociative amnesia with fugue D) dissociative amnesia E) repression Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-08 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Application Answer: A) depersonalization/derealization disorder. 9. Two forms of amnesia are ___________ amnesia, in which an individual forgets his or her entire life history, and ___________ amnesia, in which a person can remember nothing following a certain point in time. A) localized; continuous B) localized; generalized C) systematized; selective D) generalized; localized E) generalized; continuous Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-1-09 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) generalized; continuous 10. Which of the following is NOT among the five patterns of memory loss described in the DSM5? A) localized B) regressive C) generalized D) selective E) continuous Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-10 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) regressive

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. Which of the following matches is NOT correct? A) dissociative amnesia: inability to recall important personal information B) depersonalization/derealization disorder: presence of two or more personalities C) dissociative identity disorder: presence of two or more personalities D) dissociative amnesia with fugue: sudden, unexpected flight from home E) depersonalization/derealization disorder: feeling of being detached from oneself Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-11 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) depersonalization/derealization disorder: presence of two or more personalities 12. Which of the following matches is NOT correct? A) continuous amnesia: failure to recall information from a specific date until the present B) selective amnesia: failure to recall only certain categories of information C) localized amnesia: failure to recall information from a specific time period D) generalized amnesia: failure to recall anything in one's lifetime E) systematized amnesia: failure to recall certain categories of information Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-12 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) selective amnesia: failure to recall only certain categories of information 13. Dissociative amnesia with fugue is a loss of memory with the added dimension of __________. A) mania B) substance abuse C) psychosis D) physical flight E) depression Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-13 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) physical flight. 14. Feelings of depersonalization/derealization are quite common in young adults, and they are only considered pathological when __________. A) they occur at least 5 times a week B) they occur in conjunction with substance use C) they occur in conjunction with depersonalization/derealization disorder D) they occur in conjunction with feelings of anxiety or depression E) they are persistent and personally distressing Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-14 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) they are persistent and personally distressing. 6-4 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 15. Wendy feels as though she is outside of her body, observing her own behaviour. This experience is a symptom of __________. A) dissociative amnesia with fugue B) dissociative identity disorder C) dissociative amnesia D) repressed memory E) derealization/depersonalization Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-15 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) derealization/depersonalization. 16. Which of the following is NOT true of depersonalization disorder? A) People with this disorder often describe themselves as feeling like a robot that is able to respond to those nearby but without feeling connected to their actions. B) It is characterized by a feeling of detachment from oneself or one's surroundings. C) It typically is not associated with depression or anxiety; indeed, patients often display an indifference to their symptoms (la belle indifference). D) It is highly related to a history of trauma, particularly emotional abuse. E) A diagnosis of this disorder is usually made in adolescence and tends to be chronic in course. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-16 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) It typically is not associated with depression or anxiety; indeed, patients often display an indifference to their symptoms (la belle indifference). 17. Depersonalization/derealization disorder differs from the other dissociative disorders, in that __________. A) there are no symptoms of memory impairment or identity confusion B) there does not appear to be any sort of dissociative process going on C) only with this disorder is there a loss of awareness of one's central and knowing self D) there are reduced symptoms or no symptoms of a feeling of depersonalization/ derealization E) it alone is associated with history of trauma, particularly emotional abuse Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-17 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) there are no symptoms of memory impairment or identity confusion. 18. With regard to brain correlates of depersonalization/derealization, the textbook cites research that suggests _________ play(s) a role. A) perceptual pathways B) temporal lobe epilepsy C) circuits involved in awareness and working memory D) processing functions E) circuits responsible for adaptive integration of emotional learning with decision-making

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-18 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) perceptual pathways 19. __________ is the DSM-5 label for the disorder in which certain aspects of a person's identity become detached or dissociated; it was formerly known as _________. A) Multiple personality disorder; dissociative identity disorder B) Dissociative identity disorder; split personality disorder C) Dissociative identity disorder; multiple personality disorder D) Split personality disorder; multiple personality disorder E) Multiple personality disorder; split personality disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-19 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Dissociative identity disorder; multiple personality disorder 20. The different unique personalities in an individual diagnosed with dissociative identity disorder are often referred to as __________. A) alternates B) others C) egos D) splits E) alters Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-20 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) alters. 21. Which of the following is TRUE of dissociative identity disorder? A) Alters may have different eyeglass prescriptions and allergies. B) For a diagnosis there must be at least 4 alters that control the person's behaviour. C) Alters typically share the same memories and have similar histories and mannerisms. D) The various alters always claim to be of the same gender. E) The host is never aware of the various alters. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-1-21 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Alters may have different eyeglass prescriptions and allergies.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 22. Which of the following is true of the transition from one alter to another? A) It is often called the "transfer". B) It cannot be artificially precipitated, such as through hypnotic suggestion. C) It is often precipitated by stress or other identifiable cues in the environment. D) It happens gradually, with the dominant alter fading and the new one growing stronger. E) It is always obvious when a transition between alters has occurred. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-22 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) It is often precipitated by stress or other identifiable cues in the environment. 23. Relative to previous editions of the DSM, the diagnostic criteria for DSM-5 dissociative identity disorder are __________. A) are far more restrictive B) are far more wordy C) more strongly grounded in psychodynamic theory D) more strongly grounded in attachment theory E) more flexible and emphasize less dramatic presentations of the disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-23 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) more flexible and emphasize less dramatic presentations of the disorder. 24. Which of the following is true regarding patterns of DID diagnosis over time? A) Prior to 1980, DID was second only to depression in terms of prevalence. B) Prior to 1980, only about 200 cases were documented in the entire world. C) Prior to 1980, DID was the 5th most diagnosed disorder. D) Since DSM-5, there has been a dramatic, unexplained increase in DID diagnoses. E) The prevalence of DID diagnoses has not changed over the last 50 years. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-24 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Prior to 1980, only about 200 cases were documented in the entire world. 25. Which of the following is true regarding the trauma model of dissociative disorders? A) This model was very popular but is no longer accepted. B) According to the model, dissociative disorders develop secondary to severe trauma in adulthood. C) The model posits that people are most likely to develop dissociative disorders after a motor vehicle accident. D) The model proposes that people who are high in agreeableness are susceptible to dissociation. E) According to the model, high hypnotizability is a risk factor for dissociative disorders. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-25 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two compelling theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Conceptual 6-7 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: E) According to the model, high hypnotizability is a risk factor for dissociative disorders. 26. Nick Spanos was a leading proponent of the ___________ model of DID. A) iatrogenic B) trauma C) medical D) socio-cognitive E) repressed memory Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-26 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two compelling theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) socio-cognitive 27. Merskey asserted that dissociative identity disorder is an iatrogenic condition. What does this mean? A) That the condition emerges very early in infancy. B) That the condition emerges from psychodynamic defenses against early childhood trauma. C) That the condition is self-generated. D) That the condition is caused by treatment. E) That the condition spreads in families. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-27 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two compelling theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) That the condition is caused by treatment. 28. According to Merskey, cases of dissociative identity disorder __________. A) represent a legitimate psychiatric disorder B) are most frequently found in individuals with criminal inclinations C) may be iatrogenic conditions unintentionally caused by practitioners D) are frequently cases of individuals faking or malingering their illnesses E) are more common outside of North America Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-28 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two compelling theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: C) may be iatrogenic conditions unintentionally caused by practitioners. 29. Which of the following is true of the treatment and prognosis of DID? A) There have been few attempts to evaluate the success of the treatments. B) There is considerable evidence that individuals get better without professional help. C) There is general consensus among experts regarding a specific series of stages that are followed. D) In general, the prognosis is optimistic. E) Medication has been found to be useful in treating the disorder.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-29 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two compelling theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: C) There is general consensus among experts regarding a specific series of stages that are followed. 30. Which of the following is NOT one of the steps that is usually followed in the treatment of dissociative identity disorder? A) discussing emotionally charges memories of past trauma B) helping patients develop new coping skills C) integrating the various personalities D) using hypnosis to assist the patient in role playing the various alters E) the establishment of trust through a careful discussion of the risks and benefits of therapy Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-30 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two compelling theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: D) using hypnosis to assist the patient in role playing the various alters 31. Which of the following medications is sometimes used in the treatment of dissociative identity disorder and associated comorbid disorders? A) a variety of SSRIs B) antipsychotics, such as Haldol C) sodium amytal D) antianxiety drugs, such as Valium E) antidepressants, such as Prozac Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-31 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two compelling theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: C) sodium amytal 32. Jax is deliberately faking symptoms of illness in order to gain the attention of doctors. This behaviour is best described as __________. A) conversion disorder B) factitious disorder C) malingering D) somatizing E) faking Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-32 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Application Answer: B) factitious disorder. 6-9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 33. Sana is experiencing a loss of vision for which her doctor can find no physical cause. The term best suited to describing her condition is __________. A) factitious disorder B) illness anxiety disorder C) somatic symptom disorder D) conversion disorder E) major depressive disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-33 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) conversion disorder. 34. In conversion disorder, __________. A) there is excessive preoccupation with an imagined or exaggerated body disfigurement B) people have long-standing fears, suspicions, or convictions about having a serious disease C) a pattern of multiple, recurring, somatic complaints that have no diagnosable basis are observed, leading the individual to seek medical treatment D) psychological factors are important in the onset, exacerbation, severity, or maintenance of the patient's pain complaints E) symptoms are observed in voluntary motor or sensory functions that suggest neurological causes, but these cannot be confirmed Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-34 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) symptoms are observed in voluntary motor or sensory functions that suggest neurological causes, but these cannot be confirmed. 35. "Glove anesthesia" refers to __________. A) loss of sensation in the hands when wearing gloves B) loss of sensation in the extremities C) loss of sensation in the part of the hands which would be covered by gloves D) an inability to remember where one has left one's gloves and keys E) an extreme fear of wearing gloves Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-35 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) loss of sensation in the part of the hands which would be covered by gloves.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 36. The term la belle indifference refers to __________. A) the lack of worry patients with conversion disorder display about their symptoms B) the lack of awareness of each other displayed by each of the alters in patients suffering from dissociative identity disorder C) the attitude displayed by people accused of malingering D) the lack of awareness of their condition displayed by patients suffering from dissociative amnesia with fugue E) the lack of concern doctors show patients suffering from conversion disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-36 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) the lack of worry patients with conversion disorder display about their symptoms. 37. In somatic symptom disorder, patients usually attribute their symptoms to __________. A) feelings of depersonalization/derealization B) psychological problems C) an insecure attachment with their parents as children D) depression E) medical problems Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-37 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) medical problems. 38. Recently, experts have suggested that conversion disorder might best be viewed as a form of __________. A) somatic symptom disorder B) dissociative amnesia C) factitious disorder D) dissociative disorder E) anxiety disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-38 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) dissociative disorder. 39. Deliberately adopting the sick role and complaining of symptoms to achieve some specific gain like receiving insurance money or avoiding duties is characteristic of __________. A) la belle indifference B) factitious disorders C) somatic symptom disorder D) malingering E) illness anxiety disorder

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-39 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) malingering. 40. There is some similarity between illness anxiety disorder and ___________. A) panic disorder B) conversion disorder C) depression D) psychogenic pain E) dissociative amnesia Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-1-40 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) panic disorder 41. Which of the following represents an overconcern about serious disease? A) malingering B) illness anxiety disorder C) conversion disorder D) factitious disorder E) dissociative identity disorder Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-1-41 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) illness anxiety disorder 42. Recent research suggests that conversion symptoms in people with conversion disorder result from __________. A) spontaneous self-hypnosis B) psychogenic pain C) malingering D) therapeutic suggestion E) valid medical problems Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-1-42 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) spontaneous self-hypnosis.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 43. Somatic symptom and related disorders were at one time viewed as masked __________. A) aggression B) anxiety C) depression D) psychological conflict E) obsessions Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-1-43 Learning Objective: 6.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and social-environmental factors can work together to cause somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) psychological conflict. 44. Current treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders focus on __________. A) integrating the various personalities into a single personality B) finding the most appropriate pharmacological intervention for the particular individual C) helping individuals acquire insight into the origins of their difficulties D) the use of hypnosis to help individuals uncover forgotten memories of traumatic events that may be at the root of many of these disorders E) affective, cognitive, or social processes that maintain these disorders Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-44 Learning Objective: 6.5: Discuss the goals and methods of contemporary psychological treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) affective, cognitive, or social processes that maintain these disorders. 45. According to theories of health anxiety, the development of dysfunctional beliefs about illness leads an individual to __________. A) doubt themselves B) lose confidence in the healthcare system C) develop attentional and interpretive biases D) develop traumatic memories E) develop healthy eating and fitness habits Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-45 Learning Objective: 6.5: Discuss the goals and methods of contemporary psychological treatments for somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) develop attentional and interpretive biases. 46. Dysfunction in which physiological system is proposed to be implicated in the development of somatic symptom and related disorders? A) the parasympathetic nervous system. B) the prefrontal cortex-basal ganglia system. C) the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. D) the reproductive system. E) the sensory-perceptual system.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-1-46 Learning Objective: 6.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and social-environmental factors can work together to cause somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: C) the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. 47. Social learning theory proposes that individuals who report unexplained symptoms __________. A) learn how to adopt the sick role from their family physician B) learn to adopt the sick role to please their parents C) develop a fear of illness via classical conditioning D) develop a fear of illness via operant conditioning E) observe and internalize the health-related opinions and behaviours of close others Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-1-47 Learning Objective: 6.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and social-environmental factors can work together to cause somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: E) observe and internalize the health-related opinions and behaviours of close others. 48. _________ refers to the inability to recall personal information without impairment whereas _________ refers to amnesia so severe the individual leaves their home. A) Dissociative fugue; dissociative amnesia B) Dissociative fugue; dissociative identity disorder C) Dissociative amnesia; dissociative identity disorder D) Dissociative amnesia; dissociative fugue E) Depersonalization/Derealization; dissociative fugue Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-1-47 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Dissociative amnesia; dissociative fugue. 49. What is the difference between depersonalization and derealization? A) Depersonalization involves a sense of detachment to the self, derealization involves a detachment to one’s surroundings B) There is no difference between the two terms. C) Depersonalization involves a detachment to one’s surroundings, derealization involves a sense of detachment to the self. D) Depersonalization involves a detachment to one’s body, derealization involves a detachment to one’s thoughts and feelings. E) Derealization involves a detachment to one’s body, depersonalization involves a detachment to one’s feelings. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-47 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Application

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: A) Depersonalization involves a sense of detachment to the self, derealization involves a detachment to one’s surroundings. 50. Repetitive transcranial magnetic stimulation __________. A) has no evidence to support its use in the treatment of dissociative disorders B) has shown evidence in improving symptoms of dissociative identity disorder C) has shown evidence in improving symptoms of depersonalization/derealization disorder D) is an effective treatment for dissociative disorders E) Has shown promise in treating dissociative amnesia Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-1-47 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two competing theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Has shown evidence in improving symptoms of depersonalization/derealization disorder. 51. The term “hypochondriasis” has been replaced with __________. A) Somatoform disorder B) Illness anxiety disorder C) Conversion disorder D) Factitious disorder E) Health anxiety Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-1-47 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Illness anxiety disorder. 52. Jan continually presents to the emergency department with their child reporting uncontrollable vomiting and diarrhea. Each time the child is effectively treated and sent home, only to return within 1-2 weeks. The child appears indifferent, but their parent is reporting significant distress and is adamant that their child needs further treatment and has a lifethreatening illness. Which disorder best fits this scenario? A) Illness anxiety disorder. B) Malingering. C) Factitious disorder. D) Factitious disorder imposed on another. E) Conversion disorder. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-1-47 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) Factitious disorder imposed on another.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 6 - True/False Questions 1. Hippocrates believed that the dissociative and somatic symptom disorders were caused by a wandering uterus. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-2-53 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 2. In the Middle Ages, supernatural beliefs of Plato were soon replaced by more scientific accounts of mental disorders, including the syndromes we recognize as dissociative and somatic symptom and related disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-2-54 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 3. Current thought about dissociative disorders and somatic symptom and related disorders suggests that both are characterized by physical symptoms or behaviours that are caused or exacerbated by elevated serotonin levels. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-2-55 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 4. With the rise of Christianity, biomedical theories of hysteria were replaced by supernatural explanations. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-2-56 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 5. Dissociation was emphasized in early Christianity as a function of God's will. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-2-57 Learning Objective: 129 Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 6. The defining symptom of the dissociative disorders is the disruption of mental processes involved in memory or consciousness that are normally integrated. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-2-58 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 7. Dissociative symptoms are common among psychiatry patients and often co-occur with depression, anxiety and personality disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-2-59 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 8. The transition from one alter to another is called a "jump." a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-2-60 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 9. The separate personalities in a person suffering from dissociative identity disorder are often referred to as "alters." a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-2-61 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 10. Proponents of false memory syndrome argue that therapists may inadvertently lead patients to uncover repressed memories that have been distorted. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-2-62 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 11. Canadian psychologist Nick Spanos was an articulate supporter of the diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-2-63 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two competing theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 12. Merskey has argued that dissociative identity disorder is created by the power of suggestion. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-2-64 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two competing theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 13. There is no evidence that people with dissociative disorders score higher on measures of hypnotizability. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-2-65 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two competing theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 14. Dissociative identity disorder is characterized by the presence of two or more personalities. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-2-66 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two competing theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 15. The average number of personalities in dissociative identity disorder is five. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-2-67 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two competing theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 16. Medication is generally not useful in the direct treatment of DID. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-2-68 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two competing theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 17. In malingering, individuals deliberately fake or generate the symptoms of illness in order to gain their doctor's attention. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 06-2-69 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 18. Conversion disorder is characterized by voluntary motor or sensory symptoms that reflect underlying neurological, although not anatomical, dysfunction. a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-2-70 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: b. False 19. DSM-5 criteria for conversion disorder requires determination of whether a genuine medical condition is present. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-2-71 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 20. Patients with conversion disorder tend to be quite anxious about their symptoms. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-2-72 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 21. Somatic symptom disorder shares similarities with panic disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-2-73 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Chapter 6 - Essay Questions 1. What is the defining symptom of dissociative disorders? What were dissociative disorders categorized as in early editions of the DSM? What specific dissociative disorder has changed names recently? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-3-74 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: The defining symptom of dissociative disorders is "dissociation," the disruption of mental processes involved in memory or consciousness that are normally integrated. These disorders used to be called "neuroses." "Dissociative Identity Disorder" was once called "Multiple Personality Disorder."

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 2. Identify and describe the major characteristics of three types of dissociative disorders. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-3-75 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Application Answer: Dissociative amnesia: Inability to recall important personal information. Dissociative Identity Disorder: Presence of two or more personalities. Depersonalization/Derealization Disorder: Feeling of being detached from oneself. 3. What is false memory syndrome and how is this distinguished from the trauma-repression hypothesis? Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-3-76 Learning Objective: 6.2: Compare and contrast two competing theories of the etiology of dissociative identity disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: The concept of "repressed memory" comes from Freudian theory. The underlying faulty assumption is that the mind records memories of childhood events accurately. According to the concept, traumatic events can be forgotten and this serves as a defense against extreme anxiety. Although there appears to be a link between trauma and memory functioning, the idea that trauma memories can be entirely repressed only to be recovered later through therapy has not been supported. One main tenet that has been challenged is the idea that memories are accurate – it is understood now that memories are actually distorted by various life events. Loftus advanced the notion of false memory syndrome, a condition in which people are induced by well-meaning therapists to recall events that never actually occurred. Loftus proposed that such "memories" are formed/implanted via leading questions and repeated suggestion. Loftus demonstrated this effect in several experiments notably the "lost in the mall" experiment. 4. What are the various personalities in a person with dissociative identity disorder called? How many of these personalities must there be for a diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-3-77 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: The various personalities are called "alters." There must be at least two alters for the diagnosis of dissociative identity disorder. 5. Describe five patterns of memory loss characteristic of dissociative amnesia. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-3-78 Learning Objective: 6.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major dissociative disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Localized amnesia: The person fails to recall information during a very specific time period (e.g., the events immediately surrounding a trauma). Selective amnesia: Only parts of the trauma are recalled while other parts are forgotten. Generalized amnesia: People forget their entire lives. Continuous amnesia: The individual forgets information from a specific date until the present. Systematized amnesia: The individual only forgets certain categories of information. 6-21 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 6. List and BRIEFLY discuss the defining features of 3 somatic symptom and related disorders from the DSM-5. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-3-79 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Somatic Symptom Disorder: Multiple symptoms including, gastrointestinal problems, sexual problems; all without known cause. Conversion Disorder (Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder): Involuntary sensory or motor disruption, e.g., hysterical blindness. Illness Anxiety Disorder: Excessive concern about serious illness when there is no underlying illness. 7. List the somatic symptom and related disorders and summarize your impression of the current status of this diagnostic category. What are the scientific reasons for keeping this category and the disorders within? Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 06-3-80 Learning Objective: 6.3: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Application / Integration Answer: The somatic symptom and related disorders include conversion disorder (numbing or paralysis), somatic symptom disorder (somatic complaints that change over time), and illness anxiety disorder (longstanding fears about having a disease). They have in common the feature of physical symptoms and complaints that do not have any apparent medical cause and it is for this perhaps superficial reason that they have been grouped together. There is likely a belief that this superficial feature will be joined someday by some common etiological mechanism that remains to be discovered. There is also the pragmatic reason that these disorders all tend to be seen primarily in general medical settings. The current research offers little guidance as to what to do with the category – as reflected in the textbook's biopsychosocial formulation, which states that a number of factors may interact in a series of vicious cycles, with different somatic symptom and related disorders resulting from different patterns of interaction. It is believed that a series of behavioral and cognitive processes may culminate in these disorders – perhaps only for persons rendered vulnerable to these processes by biological, psychological and/or social factors. This formulation conveys the current status of the category and does not rule out the possibility of a common etiological pathway being discovered in the future. 8. Explain the cognitive-behavioural conceptualization of health anxiety. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 06-3-81 Learning Objective: 6.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and social-environmental factors can work together to cause somatic symptom and related disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: According to this perspective, everyone develops beliefs and attitudes about physical well-being and illness through personal experience, observation of others, and information from other people about their experiences. For people with somatic symptom and related disorders, these beliefs are dysfunctional and lead them to pay attention in a biased way to their bodily sensations. Attention bias causes individuals to impose catastrophic misinterpretations when they experience bodily symptoms (i.e., they assume the worst). These attentional and interpretation biases raise anxiety and uncertainty which then motivates repeated safety-seeking behaviour (e.g., reassurance seeking, repeated checking of symptoms, repeated visits to the doctor). These safety behaviours do not bring relief or assurance to the individual and often there is a vicious cycle. 6-22 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 7 Psychological Factors Affecting Medical Conditions Chapter 7 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. The idea that psychological processes can affect bodily states __________. A) has not yet taken hold in western culture but has in other cultures B) is relatively new to western culture but is starting to take hold C) is unique to western culture but accepted elsewhere D) has a long history in western culture but is unique to eastern culture E) has a long history in western culture, and may be even more deeply embedded in other cultures Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-01 Learning Objective: 7.1: Describe the history of the study of medical conditions linked to psychological/behavioural factors and differentiate the fields contributing to it. Skill: Factual Answer: E) has a long history in western culture, and may be even more deeply embedded in other cultures. 2. "Voodoo Death" is a phenomenon in which __________. A) sublimated drives result in heart failure B) death is directly caused by voodoo C) ritualistic suicide occurs in Caribbean culture D) people die as a result of a nervous breakdown E) the individual dies after learning that they have been cursed Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-02 Learning Objective: 7.1: Describe the history of the study of medical conditions linked to psychological/behavioural factors and differentiate the fields contributing to it. Skill: Factual Answer: E) the individual dies after learning that they have been cursed. 3. Somatic symptom and related disorders involve psychological processes that give rise to apparent physical symptoms without a medical basis; psychological factors affecting medical conditions, in contrast __________. A) involve psychological processes that give rise to identifiable disturbances in bodily structures and functions B) involve purely emotional processes that give rise to apparent physical symptoms C) are the result of physical processes that have psychological consequences D) involve physical symptoms with physiological causes E) involve purely cognitive processes that result in physical symptoms, without intermediary physiological processes Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-03 Learning Objective: 7.1: Describe the history of the study of medical conditions linked to psychological/behavioural factors and differentiate the fields contributing to it. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: A) involve psychological processes that give rise to identifiable disturbances in bodily structures and functions. 4. The early years of research concerning the role of psychological processes in physical health were known as __________. A) psychosomatic medicine B) cognitive physiology C) dualistic behaviourism D) neuropsychophysiology E) behavioural medicine Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-04 Learning Objective: 7.1: Describe the history of the study of medical conditions linked to psychological/behavioural factors and differentiate the fields contributing to it. Skill: Factual Answer: A) psychosomatic medicine. 5. The theorist ___________ argued that the biomedical model of disease should be expanded to a biopsychosocial model. A) Franz Alexander B) Helen Flanders Dunbar C) George Engel D) Walter Cannon E) Hans Selye Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-05 Learning Objective: 7.1: Describe the history of the study of medical conditions linked to psychological/behavioural factors and differentiate the fields contributing to it. Skill: Factual Answer: C) George Engel 6. Which of the following would most likely be considered a treatable problem in behavioural medicine? A) gallstones B) a stroke C) essential hypertension D) cancer E) cardiac arrhythmias due to genetic illness Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-06 Learning Objective: 7.1: Describe the history of the study of medical conditions linked to psychological/behavioural factors and differentiate the fields contributing to it. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) essential hypertension

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 7. ___________ is defined as the application of psychological methods and theories to understand origins of disease, individual responses to disease and the dimensions and determinants of good health. A) Health psychology B) Behavioural medicine C) Health physiology D) Biomedicine E) Psychosomatic medicine Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-07 Learning Objective: 7.1: Describe the history of the study of medical conditions linked to psychological/behavioural factors and differentiate the fields contributing to it. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Health Psychology 8. A mechanism is __________. A) Something that regulates a physical system B) the means by which unconscious conflict produces psychological disturbances C) a process, activity of a living system that mediates the influence of an antecedent factor on disease. D) the effect neurotic behaviour has on the family or social environment E) an axis of internal regulation that involves pulmonary and immunological functioning Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-08 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: C) a process, activity of a living system that mediates the influence of an antecedent factor on disease. 9. Which of the following is true regarding psychological influences on body tissues? A) There is no clear evidence that psychological processes can affect body tissues. B) The endocrine system, the autonomic nervous system, and the parietal nervous system are sensitive to psychological processes. C) Psychological influences on body tissues can be the effects of repeated behaviours. D) There are very few examples of behaviours that promote disease by exposing tissue to pathogenic substances. E) Psychologists have not yet examined psychological influences on body tissues. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-09 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) Psychological influences on body tissues can be the effects of repeated behaviours. 10. The three body systems that are responsive to psychosocial variables are: __________. A) endocrine system; immune system; cardiovascular system B) autonomic nervous system; endocrine system; cardiovascular system C) autonomic nervous system; central nervous system; immune system D) autonomic nervous system; endocrine system; immune system E) somatic nervous system; endocrine system; cardiovascular system 7-3 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-10 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: D) autonomic nervous system; endocrine system; immune system 11. The endocrine system secretes ___________ into the _____________. A) hormones; bloodstream B) neuropeptides; blood stream. C) neurotransmitters; brain. D) hormones; pituitary gland. E) chemicals; blood-brain barrier. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-11 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: A) hormones; bloodstream 12. The body system responsive to psychosocial variables involved in the production of hormones is the __________. A) immune system B) endocrine system C) autonomic nervous system D) central nervous system E) somatic nervous system Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-12 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) endocrine system. 13. Perhaps the best-known endocrine hormone system known to be highly responsive to psychosocial variables involves the __________. A) ovaries B) pancreas C) pineal gland D) HPA axis E) testes Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-13 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: D) HPA axis.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 14. The brain structure that makes up part of the HPA axis is the __________. A) thalamus B) hypothalamus C) medulla D) hippocampus E) amygdala Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-14 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) hypothalamus. 15. Adrenocorticotropic hormone __________. A) informs cells in the liver to convert glycogen to usable sugars B) prompts cells in the adrenal glands to secrete cortisol C) is released by the pineal gland D) is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor E) is a glucocorticoid Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-15 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) prompts cells in the adrenal glands to secrete cortisol. 16. Glucocorticoids __________. A) cause inflammation B) have not been indicated in the development of neuronal damage in the brain C) prevent the development of atherosclerosis D) are only beneficial when released for long periods of time E) have been indicated in the suppression of immune system function Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-16 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: E) have been indicated in the suppression of immune system function. 17. It is increasingly recognized that ___________ released during stress plays an important role in the development of abdominal obesity. A) ACTH B) androgens C) adrenal emissions D) cortisol E) catecholamines

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-17 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: D) cortisol 18. Most organs that are innervated by the sympathetic system __________. A) are primarily involved in digestion B) are typically accompanied by an awareness of their function C) are also innervated by the parasympathetic branch D) are not innervated by the parasympathetic branch of the nervous system E) are under the control of the parasympathetic branch of the nervous system Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-18 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: C) are also innervated by the parasympathetic branch. 19. Sympathetic system is to parasympathetic system as __________. A) accelerator is to brakes B) brakes are to car C) deceleration is to acceleration D) flour and sugar are to baking a cake E) horse is to buggy Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-19 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) accelerator is to brakes. 20. Immune cells are produced and stored in all of the following except the __________. A) thymus gland B) large intestines C) lymph nodes D) bone marrow E) small intestines Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-20 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) large intestines.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 21. The process of engulfing and digesting invading organisms is called __________. A) suppression B) cellular inhibition C) phagocytosis D) nonspecific immune response E) lymphocytosis Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-21 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: C) phagocytosis. 22. Cells that remain permanently altered after an immune episode are called __________. A) B-cells B) Suppressor T-cells C) Memory T-cells D) Helper T-cells E) Natural Killer Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-22 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Memory T-cells. 23. In the alarm phase of Hans Selye's (1956) General Adaptation Syndrome, the body __________. A) waits for the brain to make a "decision" about the threat B) mobilizes its defences C) suffers tissue damage D) is exhausted due to depletion of energy stores E) actively fights or copes with the challenge to the system Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-23 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) mobilizes its defences. 24. The final phase of Hans Selye's General Adaptation Syndrome is the ___________ phase. A) adaptation B) resistance C) exhaustion D) alarm E) resolution

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-24 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: C) exhaustion 25. Kanner, Coyne, Schaefer and Lazarus (1981) suggest that the most common sources of stress in people's lives are __________. A) inner conflicts B) medical problems C) hassles D) drastic life changes E) financial Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-25 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Factual Answer: C) hassles. 26. Research on conflict in married individuals has shown that high rates of hostile behaviour during stressful interactions coincide with __________. A) increased release of the stress-related neurotransmitter GABA B) suppression of the cardiovascular system C) elevated epinephrine, norepinephrine, and ACTH levels D) suppressed blood pressure response E) reductions in testosterone Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-26 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Factual Answer: C) elevated epinephrine, norepinephrine, and ACTH levels. 27. Primary appraisal involves __________. A) deciding whether or not an event is threatening B) addressing our memory to determine how to deal with a threatening event C) choosing an appropriate course of action for dealing with the threat D) inducing a different feeling state as a way to deal with a problem E) seeking advice from a clinical psychologist about a problem Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-27 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Factual Answer: A) deciding whether or not an event is threatening.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 28. Secondary appraisal is analogous to asking the question __________. A) "is there anything I can do about this?" B) "how can I make myself feel better?" C) "can anyone observe how I handle this event?" D) "why is this happening?" E) "is this event threatening?" Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-28 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Factual Answer: A) "is there anything I can do about this?" 29. Which of the following behaviours may NOT be considered emotion-focused coping? A) watching television B) taking drugs C) thinking about something unrelated to the problem D) drinking E) identifying and rectifying the source of the threat Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-29 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Factual Answer: E) identifying and rectifying the source of the threat 30. Therapists might find it difficult to steer clients towards methods ___________ of dealing with threats because ___________ methods are negatively reinforced (i.e., they provide a rapid escape from unpleasant thoughts / feelings associated with the problem). A) problem-focused coping; emotion-focused coping B) reality-based action; self-medicating action C) reality-based mood adjustment; self-medicating mood adjustment D) practical; intellectualizing-based E) practical; denial Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-30 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Conceptual, application Answer: A) problem-focused coping; emotion-focused coping 31. Clients with limited capacity to delay gratification will find it difficult, particularly in the beginning, to adopt ___________ because ___________ methods provide a faster and easier escape from the unpleasant feelings associated with threats. A) courageous; self-soothing B) reality-based action; self-medicating C) reality-based mood adjustment; self-medicating D) fact-based; intellectualizing-based E) problem-focused coping; emotion-focused coping

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-31 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Conceptual, application Answer: E) problem-focused coping; emotion-focused coping 32. In a study conducted by Lazarus and colleagues (1984), the researchers found that by ___________ the scenes in films depicting rites of passage, arousal was decreased. A) re-watching B) identifying with C) mentally modifying D) intellectualizing or denying E) ignoring Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-32 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Factual Answer: D) intellectualizing or denying 33. Which of the following was NOT a characteristic of dominant male baboons in Sapolsky's (1995) studies of how social status may affect stress? A) higher levels of circulating lymphocytes B) reduced concentrations of cortisol C) lower levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol D) a greater ability to recover from provocation E) lower blood pressure Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-33 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) lower levels of high-density lipoprotein cholesterol 34. Which of the following is not a feature of alexithymia? A) Problems identifying and describing subjective feelings. B) Difficulty telling apart feelings and bodily sensations of emotional arousal. C) High capacity to become easily absorbed in sensory-perceptual experiences. D) Constricted imaginal capacities. E) Externally-oriented cognitive style. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-34 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: C) High capacity to become easily absorbed in sensory-perceptual experiences.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 35. In a study conducted employing cold viruses, Cohen, Tyrrell, and Smith (1993) discovered that participants with higher perceived stress and negative affect were __________. A) more likely to have died after a five-year follow-up study B) more likely to show "hard" immune system changes C) less likely to recover within a 5-day period D) more likely to develop another more debilitating illness E) less likely to show clinical evidence of a cold Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-35 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) more likely to show "hard" immune system changes. 36. According to Alexander (1950) the role psychological factors might play in the development of ulcers is __________. A) unconscious conflict creates neuronal death in the hypothalamus B) certain personality types are prone to overeating causing medical problems C) lowered immune function as a result of stress allows for bacterial infection D) an unsatisfied desire for love results in an overactivity in the digestive system E) stress decreases the effectiveness of the mucosal stomach lining Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-36 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual Answer: D) an unsatisfied desire for love results in an overactivity in the digestive system. 37. Which of the following is true regarding the stomach and gut? A) The brain regulates the gut through autonomic and neuroendocrine systems. B) During stress-induced parasympathetic arousal, blood flow is directed away from the stomach lining to the skeletal muscles. C) Studies have shown that psychological distress is associated with blunted secretion of gastric acids. D) Patients with duodenal ulcers respond in a less dysfunctional way to stress than do patients with other cardiac ulcers. E) Studies have shown that relaxation can be associated with hypersecretion of gastric acids. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-37 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: A) The brain regulates the gut through autonomic and neuroendocrine systems.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 38. A study on predictability conducted by Weiss (1970) discovered that __________. A) rats shocked after being provided with a warning tone showed the same ulceration as rats that did not receive a warning stimulus B) rats shocked after being provided with a warning tone showed ulceration much higher than shocked rats without a warning with un-shocked rats C) rats shocked after being provided with a warning tone showed ulceration only slightly higher than shocked rats D) shocked rats did not show a great deal of ulceration E) rats shocked and provided with a warning tone showed greater ulceration than did un-shocked rats Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-38 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual Answer: C) rats shocked after being provided with a warning tone showed ulceration only slightly higher than shocked rats. 39. A study on controllability by Weiss (1971) discovered that __________. A) rats that could control the stressor suffered the same level of ulceration as rats who could not control the stressor B) rats that could not exercise control over the stressor did not show any levels of ulceration C) shocked rats did not show a great deal of ulceration D) rats that could exercise control over the stressor suffered milder ulceration than did rats who could not control the stressor E) rats that could control the stressor had higher levels of ulceration than did those who could not control the stressor Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-39 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual Answer: D) rats that could exercise control over the stressor suffered milder ulceration than did rats who could not control the stressor. 40. Which of the following is NOT evidence collected indicating that Helicobacter pylori plays a primary role in the genesis of ulcers? A) Antibodies to the bacterium have been found in the serum of healthy controls. B) This bacterium is present in the stomachs of a large proportion of individuals with ulcer disease. C) Twenty percent of people who test positive for the bacterium show evidence of ulcer. D) Animals injected with H. pylori suffered from ulcer disease. E) The condition of patients treated with drugs to kill H. pylori improves. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-40 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Animals injected with H. pylori suffered from ulcer disease.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 41. Since the 1950s deaths due to heart attack and stroke have declined by almost __________. A) 25% B) 10% C) 70% D) 50% E) 90% Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-41 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: D) 50%. 42. Consistent with the water pump analogy of the cardiovascular system, the peak of the wave of blood flow corresponds with __________. A) the point in the cardiac cycle called the systole B) the peripheral resistance found in the right ventricle C) cardiac output D) the point in the cardiac cycle called the diastole E) the contraction of the right ventricle Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-42 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: A) the point in the cardiac cycle called the systole. 43. Which of the following are most closely tied into the regulation of the cardiovascular system? A) serotonergic agonists B) glucocorticoids C) monoamine oxidase inhibitors D) dopaminergic antagonists E) catecholamines Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-43 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: E) catecholamines 44. Consistent with the plumbing analogy of the cardiovascular system, which of the following best describes atherosclerosis? A) The tubing expands reducing pressure. B) The tubing develops calcium deposits from the water. C) The pump begins to operate sporadically. D) The tubing branch points dry out and become brittle. E) The pump begins to leak water.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-44 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) The tubing develops calcium deposits from the water. 45. In terms of cardiovascular functioning, which of the following is a modifiable risk factor? A) jogging B) high blood cholesterol C) exercise D) marriage E) high demand occupations Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-45 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) high blood cholesterol 46. Under precisely defined conditions in a doctor's office, hypertension is defined by __________. A) blood pressure reading of more than 140/80 B) blood pressure reading of more than 120/70 C) decreased tension in blood vessel walls D) blood pressure reading of more than 160/100 E) cardiac distress under high demand exercise Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-46 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: A) blood pressure reading of more than 140/80. 47. The stress reactivity paradigm is used __________. A) to determine the risk of cardiovascular disease as a function of cardiovascular reactivity B) to show how cardiovascular disease causes stress C) to measure the effects of risk factors such as smoking on cardiovascular disease D) to determine the cause of "essential" hypertension E) to show how the cardiovascular system can be altered by stressful psychosocial stimuli or events Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-47 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual Answer: E) to show how the cardiovascular system can be altered by stressful psychosocial stimuli or events.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 48. Cardiovascular reactivity refers to __________. A) the relationship between cardiovascular function and atherosclerosis B) that relationship between psychosocial stressors and cardiovascular disease C) the relationship between hypertension and psychosocial stressors D) how much a person's cardiovascular function changes in response to a psychologically significant stimulus E) how much hypertension is caused by a psychosocial stressor Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-48 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) how much a person's cardiovascular function changes in response to a psychologically significant stimulus. 49. Type A people in general show more of the following EXCEPT __________. A) neurotic behaviour B) hyper alertness C) competitiveness D) sense of time urgency E) hostility Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-49 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual Answer: A) neurotic behaviour. 50. A number of studies using the ___________ have found an association between hostility and increased risk of heart disease. A) The Anger Interview B) Cook-Medley Hostility Scale C) Turner Interruption Test D) Stroop Colour-Word Conflict Test E) Structured Interview Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-50 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Cook-Medley Hostility Scale 51. The psychosocial vulnerability model suggests that hostile people __________. A) are innately predisposed to illness B) experience a more demanding interpersonal life than do others C) are more likely to engage in unhealthy behaviours and less likely to have healthy practices, such as exercise D) are more at risk for diseases because they experience exaggerated autonomic and neuroendocrine responses during stress E) create a social world that is antagonistic and unsupportive 7-15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-51 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual Answer: B) experience a more demanding interpersonal life than do others. 52. Frasure-Smith, Lespérance, and Talajic (1993) found that depression soon after the heart attack __________. A) had no effect on the risk of dying B) was associated with a greater than five-fold increase in the risk of dying within six months C) was associated with a greater than five-fold increase in the risk of another heart attack within six months D) was associated with a greater than five-fold increase in the risk of dying within six months only in men, but not in women E) was associated with a greater than ten-fold increase in the risk of another heart attack within six months Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-52 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual Answer: B) was associated with a greater than five-fold increase in the risk of dying within six months. 53. The INTERHEART study found that of the nine risk factors, the following three had the greatest impact on the risk of heart attack: __________. A) abdominal obesity, psychosocial factors, and low physical activity B) raised lipids, smoking, and psychosocial factors C) psychosocial factors, high blood pressure, and raised lipids D) low consumption of fruits and vegetables, high blood pressure, and diabetes E) smoking, low physical activity, and lack of consumption of moderate amounts of alcohol Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-1-53 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual Answer: B) raised lipids, smoking, and psychosocial factors 54. Cognitive-behavioural techniques aimed at stress management do so by __________. A) teaching control of specific muscle groups B) helping the individual to re-assess stress causing thought patterns C) using biofeedback to lower physiological arousal responses D) encouraging people to invoke images of warmth and heaviness E) autogenic training Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-54 Learning Objective: 7.6: Characterize psychological/behavioural treatment techniques used with people suffering from psychophysiological disorders and explain how they relate to the psychosocial etiological mechanisms identified in this chapter. Skill: Factual 7-16 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: B) helping the individual to re-assess stress causing thought patterns. 55. In a series of interventions for stress performed by Dean Ornish and colleagues (1996), found that _________ predicted the extent of coronary lesions. A) hours spent meditating in a week B) aerobic exercise C) the amount of practice patients devoted to stress management D) the switch to a vegetarian diet E) the number of people involved in group support meetings Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-55 Learning Objective: 7.6: Characterize psychological/behavioural treatment techniques used with people suffering from psychophysiological disorders and explain how they relate to the psychosocial etiological mechanisms identified in this chapter. Skill: Factual Answer: C) the amount of practice patients devoted to stress management 56. Linden and Chambers (1994) in their study on hypertension, discovered that stress management could __________. A) never be as effective as drug treatment B) worsen a patient's condition when standard prescription drugs are not given C) be effective if coupled with drug treatment D) be as effective as drug treatment if targeted and individualized to each patient E) be as effective as drug treatment if implemented in a standardized fashion Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-56 Learning Objective: 7.6: Characterize psychological/behavioural treatment techniques used with people suffering from psychophysiological disorders and explain how they relate to the psychosocial etiological mechanisms identified in this chapter. Skill: Factual Answer: D) be as effective as drug treatment if targeted and individualized to each patient. 57. Friedman et al. (1986) found that after three years of cardiac counselling implemented through the Recurrent Coronary Prevention Project, patients showed __________. A) an increase in the amount of type A behaviour B) no change in the amount of type A behaviour C) half as many occurrences of cardiac events as controls D) no difference from controls in the occurrences of cardiac events E) half as many occurrences of cardiac events as controls, but also no reduction in measured Type A behaviour Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-57 Learning Objective: 7.6: Characterize psychological/behavioural treatment techniques used with people suffering from psychophysiological disorders and explain how they relate to the psychosocial etiological mechanisms identified in this chapter. Skill: Factual Answer: C) half as many occurrences of cardiac events as controls.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 58. Large trials targeting psychosocial variables to reduce morbidity and mortality following cardiovascular disease have __________. A) been universally supportive B) not been conducted C) not been universally supportive D) been impossible to undertake due to the large number of factors that would need to be accounted for E) been in the progress with results unknown at this time Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-58 Learning Objective: 7.6: Characterize psychological/behavioural treatment techniques used with people suffering from psychophysiological disorders and explain how they relate to the psychosocial etiological mechanisms identified in this chapter. Skill: Factual Answer: C) not been universally supportive. 59. Ying just received a poor grade on a test. Looking at the grade, Ying feels their heart rate increase and starts to sweat. This is indicative of changes in __________. A) the immune system B) the cardiovascular system C) the sympathetic nervous system D) the parasympathetic nervous system E) the endocrine system Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-59 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Application Answer: C) the sympathetic nervous system. 60. Maya’s sister died suddenly, resulting in a stressful period for her and her family. Maya has been focussing on caring for herself and her family for the past two days, and knows that things will improve slightly in a few more days once the funeral services are over. Which phase of the general adaptation syndrome is she in? A) resistance. B) recovery. C) alarm. D) exhaustion. E) preparation. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-60 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Application Answer: A) resistance.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 61. Which of the following is NOT an example of a psychosocial factor that influences disease? A) social status. B) personality. C) social support. D) controllability. E) family size. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-61 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Factual Answer: E) family size. 62. Which form of disease is responsible for the most potential years of life lost? A) ulcers. B) infectious disease. C) autoimmune disease. D) respiratory disease. E) cardiovascular disease. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-1-62 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) cardiovascular disease. 63. How is relaxation training used to treat psychophysiological disorders? A) teaches distraction techniques to divert attention away from stress. B) identifies the variables that promote stress such as negative thinking patterns. C) inhibits stress-induced responses. D) teaches methods to engage neuroendocrine responses. E) promotes emotion-focussed coping to manage stress. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-1-63 Learning Objective: 7.6: Characterize psychological/behavioural treatment techniques used with people suffering from psychophysiological disorders and explain how they relate to the psychosocial etiological mechanisms identified in this chapter. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) inhibits stress-induced responses.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 7 - True/False Questions 1. Pain is in large part a psychological phenomenon. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-64 Learning Objective: 7.1: Describe the history of the study of medical conditions linked to psychological/behavioural factors and differentiate the fields contributing to it. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 2. Health psychology refers to the application of psychological methods to mental illnesses that have physical consequences. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-65 Learning Objective: 7.1: Describe the history of the study of medical conditions linked to psychological/behavioural factors and differentiate the fields contributing to it. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 3. A mechanism is a process, an activity of a living system that mediates the influence of an antecedent factor on disease. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-2-66 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 4. ACTH is secreted by the pineal gland. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-67 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 5. The three body systems affected by psychosocial variables are the autonomic nervous system, the somatic nervous system, and the immune system. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-2-68 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 6. One of the effects produced by cortisol is the reduction of inflammation. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-2-69 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 7. One of the effects produced by prolonged release of cortisol is neuronal damage that may contribute to dementia. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-70 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 8. The endocrine system is characterized by manufacturing hormones that produce an effect in "targeted" areas of the body. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-2-71 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 9. Evidence has been found to indicate glucocorticoids suppress immune function and promote the development of atherosclerosis. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-2-72 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 10. Most, but not all organs that are innervated by the sympathetic system are also innervated by the parasympathetic branch. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-73 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 11. In comparison to sympathetic system innervation, which relies on hormonal transmission, the parasympathetic system operates much more quickly. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-2-74 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 12. Cellular immunity is based on the action of granulocytes and monocytes. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-75 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 13. In humoral immunity, invading antigens are presented by macrophages to B- lymphocytes, some of which remain as memory B-cells. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-76 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual 7-22 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: a. True 14. In the resistance phase of the GAS, the body mobilizes its defenses, in order to deal with a stressor. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-77 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 15. Primary appraisal may be thought of as if a person were asking the question "is this a threat to me?" a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-2-78 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 16. In terms of psychosocial factors that may affect disease, a dominance hierarchy in monkeys may be seen as analogous to socio-economic-status. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-79 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 17. Ischemic heart disease is a condition in which the blood supply to the heart becomes compromised. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-2-80 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 18. Cardiac output, one of the aspects of blood pressure, specifically refers to the diameter of the blood vessels. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-81 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 19. Epinephrine and norepinephrine interact directly with blood cells and the cells lining blood vessel walls. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-82 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 20. In 90% of cases of hypertension a specific cause can be identified and isolated. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-2-83 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 21. Cardiovascular reactivity refers to how much an individual's cardiovascular function changes in response to a psychologically significant stimulus. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-2-84 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 22. Some key Type A characteristics are hyperarousal, competitiveness, and hostility. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-2-85 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 23. Techniques employed for stress management range from teaching control of specific muscle groups to autogenic training. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-2-86 Learning Objective: 7.6: Characterize psychological/behavioural treatment techniques used with people suffering from psychophysiological disorders and explain how they relate to the psychosocial etiological mechanisms identified in this chapter. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Chapter 7 - Essay Questions 1. Describe Engel's (1977) argument for a biopsychosocial model of disease. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-3-87 Learning Objective: 7.1: Describe the history of the study of medical conditions linked to psychological/behavioural factors and differentiate the fields contributing to it. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Engel's argument is that any model explaining disease should incorporate a range of factors. Among these factors are psychological characteristics and societal forces. This spawned from the realization that many, and perhaps all, disease states are influenced directly or indirectly by social or psychological factors. 2. Describe the functioning of the endocrine system. Include the relevant organs, method of transmission, and both the nature and role of cortisol. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-3-88 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: The endocrine system functions mainly through the release of hormones into the bloodstream in order to reach target areas. These target areas include the heart, liver, or bones. The main organs involved are the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and adrenal gland. Cortisol is a highly active hormone that produces a variety of effects in the body including suppressing inflammation, mobilizing glucose from the liver, increasing cardiovascular tone, producing immune-system changes, and inhibiting the activity of other endocrine structures.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 3. Explain the functioning of the autonomic nervous system. Include in your explanation the functioning of both the sympathetic and parasympathetic branches. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-3-89 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: The autonomic nervous system seems to operate almost entirely out of range of conscious control; we have little awareness or direct control of it. The ANS consists of two anatomically distinct parts. The sympathetic branch consists of nerve fibres that emanate from the thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord and make contact with a large number of body organs. These include the: heart, stomach, and blood vessels. The parasympathetic branch consists of fibres emanating from the cranial and sacral regions of the spinal cord. The sympathetic system arouses the body for vigorous action. The parasympathetic system returns the body to a more quiescent state. 4. Explain the process of cellular immunity. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-3-90 Learning Objective: 7.2: Articulate the concept of a “mechanism” and describe four biologically plausible pathways in which psychological factors or behaviours contribute to “physical” disease. Skill: Factual Answer: Cellular immunity is based on the action of a class of blood cells called T- lymphocytes. The "T" designation refers to the locus of their production, the thymus gland. Cellular immunity results from a cascade of actions of various types of T- lymphocytes. An antigen is presented to T-lymphocytes by macrophages. The T-cells proliferate and then circulate in the body. Other T-cells participate including Helper T- cells, Natural Killer T-cells and Suppressor T-cells. 5. State and explain the three stages of Hans Selye's (1956) General Adaptation Syndrome. Does this model treat stress as stimulus or as response? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-3-91 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Conceptual Answer: This is a stress-as-response model. In the alarm phase, the body attempts to adapt by mobilizing its defences. If the challenge persists, the body then enters the resistance phase. In this phase the body actively fights or copes with the challenge through immune and neuroendocrine changes. If the challenge persists still further, then the body enters the exhaustion phase. At this point the body has depleted its energy store and cannot maintain resistance. It is at this stage that the body may succumb to a disease of adaptation. 6. Briefly explain Lazarus and colleagues' (Lazarus & Folkman, 1984) transactional model of stress. Does this model treat stress as stimulus or as response? Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 07-3-92 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Conceptual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: This is neither a stress-as-stimulus nor a stress-as-response model. In this model, stress is an ongoing series of transactions between an individual and their environment. Central to this theory is the idea that people constantly evaluate what is happening to them and implications for themselves. 7. Define emotion-focused and problem-focused coping. Provide an example of each. In simple terms and in one sentence, describe how use of each type of coping is reinforced. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-3-93 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Conceptual, Application Answer: Emotion-focused coping refers to strategies aimed at reducing negative feelings associated with exposure to the threat. Examples include anything that removes the threat from awareness, resulting in escape (e.g., intellectualization; use of substances; highly stimulating and distracting behaviours, such as eating-to-soothe, video-gaming, gambling, use of pornography). These methods are reinforced immediately by escape from the negative (punishing) feelings associated with awareness of the threat. Problem- focused coping refers to strategies aimed at realistically dealing with the threat itself, such as identifying the source of the problem and taking steps to rectify it. Problem-focused coping is rewarded eventually, through negative reinforcement (i.e., actual removal or reduction of the threat). The rewards are often delayed and require effort, and there is the experience of additional stress while coping with the problem. 8. Use the transactional model to identify the psychological processes that give rise to the disease-related physiological processes described in the chapter. What exactly are the psychological events or processes that interact with the body and how? Briefly list the bodily impact (the physiological systems affected by) of these events and processes? Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-3-94 Learning Objective: 7.3: Explain what is meant by “psychological stress,” distinguish three different approaches to conceptualizing it, and describe how it is measured and studied. Skill: Conceptual, Application Answer: Cognitive appraisals of threat and their emotional significance are what trigger the diseaserelated physiological processes describe in the chapter. The cognitive- affective components are understood as subjective stress or stressors and the behavioral responses are called coping. The transactional model examines stress from a psychological level of analysis. We can then use the biological level of analysis to study the physical impact of these psychological states and coping behaviours. The transactional model views stress as resulting from ongoing transactions between an individual and their environment. Transactions include attention to, and identification and appraisal of threat, followed by a coping behaviour, followed by an environmental response, followed by re- appraisal and so on. Primary appraisal determines if the stimulus constitutes a threat whereas secondary appraisals determine what, if anything, can be done about it. A behavioural coping response is selected, executed, and evaluated in terms of effectiveness – the impact on the stimulus in the environment. These cognitive appraisals occur together with changes in the emotional state of the person, which shift dynamically over time (across multiple transactions) in concert with the unfolding appraisal process. Although we cannot neatly "cleave" the cognitive and affective components, it can be said that it is the affective component (i.e., fear / anxiety) that directly interacts with HPA axis and sympathetic nervous system, triggering the processes related to disease that are describe in the chapter (i.e., autonomic, endocrine, immune, and cardiovascular systems and processes).

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 9. Explain the evidence for and against the role Helicobacter pylori plays in the formation of gastric ulcers. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-3-95 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Factual Answer: The bacterium is present in large proportions of individuals with ulcer disease. Antibodies are present in their serum. Treatment with drugs to eliminate this bacterium produces improvement in affected patients. But, the antibodies are found in healthy controls. The bacterium is associated with other diseases, so there is not strong evidence of specificity. Patients have also been shown to improve without the bacterium being treated. 10. Describe the plumbing analogy for the human cardiovascular system (be sure to include in your description both systolic and diastolic blood pressure). Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-3-96 Learning Objective: 7.4: Describe the disease processes resulting in gastric ulcer and coronary heart disease. Skill: Conceptual Answer: The heart is a pump; the vasculature is a hose. As the heart pumps, the blood constituents will be transmitted through the tube in cycles that correspond to the pumping action. The peak of the wave of blood flow corresponds to contraction of the left ventricle of the heart at a point during the cardiac cycle, called the systole. When the pump is at rest (the point called the diastole) blood will still be flowing but at a much-reduced pressure. So, the blood is always flowing but depending on when the pump was last primed (the heart last contracted; the pressure level is higher or lower. The pressure can be affected by either the amount of blood or the diameter of the tubing. 11. Name and define the three general psychosocial factors that have been shown to influence disease. For each, and in one sentence, summarize the link that research has supported between the psychosocial factor and physical disease. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-3-97 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Each of the three general psychosocial factors can be understood within the transactional framework: they exert their effects by way of the threat appraisal-and- coping transactions that the individual makes with their environment. The first factor, social status refers to an individual's position in a social hierarchy. Research shows that people and animals in higher positions live longer, an effect mediated by differences in neuroendocrine, autonomic, and immune system profiles: higher status persons / animals are reactive to stressors, but show a faster return to resting conditions, and normalized immune system response. The presence of social supports refers to the extent to which an individual feels connected to other people in meaningful ways. The presence of high social support is associated with reduced mortality, especially in men; the absence of social support appears to make existing disease worse. Finally, personality has also been linked to disease processes. Alexithymia confers increased risk for several medical conditions.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 12. Compare and contrast the 5 models of the relationship between hostility and health risk. What is the status of each in the research literature? What model should be chosen on the basis of current knowledge? Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 07-3-98 Learning Objective: 7.5: Explain the psychosocial processes thought to contribute to infectious, ulcer, and coronary disease, using evidence from empirical studies. Skill: Factual, Application Answer: The psychophysiological reactivity model suggests that hostile people are at higher risk because they experience exaggerated autonomic and neuroendocrine response during stress. The psychosocial vulnerability model suggests that hostile people experience a more demanding interpersonal life than do others. The transactional model suggests that hostile people actively construct a world that has high interpersonal stress and a lack of social support, which increases vulnerability. Presumably this hybrid model includes higher physiological reactivity to the same psychosocial stressors, which adds to the impact of elevated stress for persons high in hostility. The health behaviour model suggests that hostile people, perhaps as a result of their higher stress levels, are at increased risk of choosing unhealthy behaviours (e.g., smoking). The constitutional vulnerability model posits that a third variable causes both hostility and increased risk of disease. Each of these models has received research support. Therefore, the best model would be one that incorporates all five: a truly transactional model that includes increased probability of engaging in unhealthy behaviours, and where a portion (but not all) of the shared variance (between hostility and health risk) is accounted for by a third variable – constitutional vulnerability. 13. What are the two classes of psychosocial intervention that have been applied to the management of disease processes? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-3-99 Learning Objective: 7.6: Characterize psychological/behavioural treatment techniques used with people suffering from psychophysiological disorders and explain how they relate to the psychosocial etiological mechanisms identified in this chapter. Skill: Factual Answer: The two classes of intervention are (1) generic approaches to the management of stress and associated problems and (2) interventions that directly target psychosocial variables that are hypothesized to play a role in disease. The generic stress management approach addresses the physiological arousal response, either directly, or indirectly, by modifying the thought processes and behaviours that activate or sustain the arousal response. Relaxation training is an example of such an intervention as it acts directly on muscle tension. Cognitive-behaviour therapy modifies unhelpful thoughts and behaviours involved in arousal. An example of an intervention that directly targets psychosocial variables is the treatment tested in the Recurrent Coronary Prevention Project, which examined the effects of targeting Type A personality on recurrence of cardiac events. 14. What is the Recurrent Coronary Prevention Project? What did the interventions consist of? What were the main study findings, and what is a plausible competing explanation for the promising results? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 07-3-100 Learning Objective: 7.6: Characterize psychological/behavioural treatment techniques used with people suffering from psychophysiological disorders and explain how they relate to the psychosocial etiological mechanisms identified in this chapter. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: The Recurrent Coronary Prevention Project tested whether targeting Type A behaviours decreases recurrence of cardiac events in those who have suffered a heart attack. Participants were randomly assigned to one of two conditions: standard cardiac counselling or intensive intervention to change Type A behaviour. The Type A personality intervention took place in group sessions and consisted of psychoeducation about Type A behaviour, identification of triggers, how to reduce hostility and time urgency and how to foster patience. After three years, those who received the Type A intervention reduced those behaviours and had about half as many cardiac events than did those assigned to the control condition. It may be that targeting the Type A behaviours was the active ingredient and the direct cause of benefits, but it may also be that the regular social contact and social support involved in the group sessions played a role. Communication of/discussing emotions may also have had a therapeutic effect.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 8 Mood Disorders and Suicide Chapter 8 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. In Hippocrates' time, depression was thought to result from an excess of _________ from the spleen. A) yellow bile B) phlegm C) blood D) black bile E) orange bile Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-01 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) black bile 2. ___________ coined the term manic-depression and his descriptions formed the basis for the definition of mood disorders today. A) Hippocrates B) Kraeplin C) Burton D) Cicero E) Freud Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-02 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Kraeplin 3. Freud and his student Abraham put forward a type of ___________ model of depression, where vulnerability for depression is created by unmet oral needs, and depression is triggered by __________. A) biopsychosocial; uncontrollable stress B) dual factor; loss of a loved one C) diathesis-stress; low self-esteem D) dual factor; low self-esteem E) diathesis-stress; loss of a loved one Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-03 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) diathesis-stress; loss of a loved one

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. Freud's concept of ___________ is analogous to Beck's notion of __________. A) unmet oral needs; jumping to conclusions B) oedipal fixation; all or nothing thinking C) imagined loss; magnification / catastrophizing D) unmet oral needs; overgeneralization E) imagined loss; jumping to conclusions Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-04 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) imagined loss; magnification / catastrophizing 5. Of the nine symptoms of major depressive disorder, ________ must be present for a diagnosis. A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 E) 6 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-05 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) 5 6. Which of the following was mentioned by the text as one of the two important criteria for a diagnosis of a clinical mood disorder? A) substance abuse B) chemical imbalance in the brain C) implications D) presence of dependent personality disorder E) duration Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-06 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) duration 7. Though the diagnostic criteria for a major depressive episode require that the episode last at least ___, most usually last much longer. A) 2 days B) 2 weeks C) 2 months D) 4 years E) 2 years

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-07 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 2 weeks 8. It is estimated that about ___________ % of Canadians suffer from depression. A) 1.5 B) 5 C) 15 D) 10 E) .5 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-08 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 5 9. The incidence of MDD among ___________ is growing faster than in any other age group. A) toddlers B) young children C) adolescents D) young adults E) the elderly Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-09 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) adolescents 10. Which of the following is true? A) Major depressive disorder affects 20% of the Canadian population. B) Approximately 15% of people who have had one major depressive episode will have a second one. C) Most major depressive episodes last 2 weeks. D) MDD is increasingly being recognized as a disorder that affects children and adolescents. E) Rates of depression grow steadily and equally across sexes throughout childhood and adolescence, but then begin to diverge at about age 20. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-10 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) MDD is increasingly being recognized as a disorder that affects children and adolescents.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. _______ refers to a loss of pleasure or interest in almost all activities or a lack of reactivity to usually pleasurable events. A) Melancholia B) Libido C) Dystonia D) Catatonia E) Anhedonia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-11 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) Anhedonia 12. The most frequent comorbid condition with depression is __________. A) an anxiety disorder B) histrionic personality disorder C) schizophrenia D) substance abuse E) borderline personality disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-12 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) an anxiety disorder. 13. Individuals with ___________ are less likely to respond to standard treatment relative to other forms of depression. A) chronic depression B) catatonia C) hypomania D) minor depression E) episodic major depression Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-13 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) chronic depression 14. A person diagnosed with ___________ manifests many of the same symptoms as major depressive disorder, except that they must persist for at least two years. A) persistent depressive disorder B) melancholia C) bipolar disorder D) schizoaffective disorder E) anhedonia

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-14 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) persistent depressive disorder 15. Less severe or brief episodes of mania are referred to as __________. A) automanic B) hypermanic C) schizomanic D) petit-manic E) hypomanic Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-15 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) hypomanic. 16. Which of the following words is most descriptive of people's behaviour in a manic episode? A) calm B) content C) restrained D) pensive E) flamboyant Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-16 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) flamboyant 17. Bipolar disorder has been classified into ___________ type(s). A) 3 B) 1 C) 2 D) 4 E) 5 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-17 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) 2

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 18. In Bipolar ___________ disorder, there are one or more manic episodes and usually one or more depressive episodes. A) IV B) V C) I D) II E) III Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-18 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) I 19. In Bipolar ___________ disorder, there are at least one hypomanic episode and one or more depressive episode. A) IV B) III C) I D) II E) V Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-19 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) II 20. The criteria for the diagnosis of ___________ include a duration of at least two years with recurrent periods of mild depression alternating with hypomania. A) rapid cycling depression/mania B) hypomania C) unipolar depression D) bipolar depression E) cyclothymia Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-20 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) cyclothymia 21. The hormone ___________, secreted by the pineal gland, has been implicated in seasonal affective disorder. A) lanin B) progesterone C) melatonin D) serotonin E) gaba

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-21 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) melatonin 22. Relative to those with other forms of bipolar disorder, people with the rapid cycling presentation of bipolar disorder __________. A) have lower rates of disability but a worse response to treatment B) have lower rates of disability and a better response to treatment C) have higher rates of disability and lower response to treatment D) are very high functioning, but respond about the same to treatment E) have unknown rates since little is known about the course and treatment response of people with this form of bipolar disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-22 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Have higher rates of disability and lower response to treatment. 23. As a form of treatment, Jo receives phototherapy, in which they sit in front of a light box for a few hours a day every morning. Judging from this treatment, Jo most likely suffers from __________. A) seasonal affective disorder B) schizoaffective disorder C) bipolar depression D) unipolar depression E) cyclothymia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-23 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Application Answer: A) seasonal affective disorder. 24. Clara moves very quickly in and out of depressive and manic episodes, commonly having 5 or more episodes of mania and depression in one year. Of the following disorders, which is Clara most likely suffering from? A) bipolar I disorder B) rapid cycling bipolar disorder C) major depression D) bipolar II disorder E) cyclothymia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-24 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Application 8-7 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: B) rapid cycling bipolar disorder 25. The prevalence of seasonal affective disorder is greater where there __________. A) are long summers B) is less seasonal variation in hours of sunlight C) is more seasonal variation in hours of sunlight D) is very little snow E) are colder temperatures Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-25 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) is more seasonal variation in hours of sunlight. 26. Approximately ___________ percent of the 70 percent of new mothers who experience depression and mood swings after childbirth is diagnosed with mood disorder with postpartum onset. A) 5-10 B) 10-15 C) 15-20 D) 20-25 E) 0.5 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-26 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 10-15 27. Along with a 4 percent infanticide rate, postpartum psychosis has a __________ percent suicide rate. A) 5 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2 E) 3 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-27 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) 5 28. Regarding the etiology of mood disorders, research has demonstrated that __________. A) Stressful life events cause mood disorders B) Certain personality traits cause mood disorders C) Being in bad romantic relationship causes mood disorders D) Multiple genes cause mood disorders E) There is no single cause for the mood disorders 8-8 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-28 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) There is no single cause for the mood disorders. 29. Psychodynamic theorists no longer relate depression to unmet needs during the oral stage of development but do still emphasize the ___________ relationship and evidence that it confers increased risk for depression. A) primary B) parent-child C) mother-child D) mother-daughter E) parent-son Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-29 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) parent-child 30. Canadian personality theorists Sidney Blatt and David Zuroff discussed two personality patterns: _________ and _________ which have been shown to be predictors of depression in the face of stress. A) dependency and self-criticism B) aggression-hostility; obsessionality C) pessimism; listlessness D) brooding; critical / blaming E) gloominess; listlessness Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-30 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) dependency and self-criticism 31. Beck's greatest insight with regard to depression is that __________. A) one's emotional response to a situation is determined by cognitive abilities and type B) the effectiveness of coping depends on confidence and levels of self-esteem C) the effectiveness of coping depends on accuracy of cognitive schemata D) one's emotional response to a situation is determined by one's appraisal and evaluation E) one's emotional response to a situation is determined by one's learning history with that stressor Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-31 Learning Objective:8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual, conceptual Answer: D) one's emotional response to a situation is determined by one's appraisal and evaluation. 8-9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 32. Which of the following is not one of Beck's cognitive distortions? A) All-or-none thinking B) Negative feedback seeking C) Overgeneralizations D) Magnification E) Jumping to conclusions Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-32 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Negative feedback seeking 33. In Beck's model of depression, the diathesis is __________. A) a stressful life event B) a negative cognitive schema C) a genetic predisposition D) a localized brain dysfunction E) a neurotransmitter imbalance Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-33 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) a negative cognitive schema. 34. Beck referred to the negative thoughts depressed people often have about the future, the world and themselves as a __________. A) negative cognitive triangle B) distorted cognitive triad C) depressive cognitive triangle D) negative cognitive triad E) triple negative triad Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-34 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) negative cognitive triad. 35. Dividing events into a dichotomy of either all bad or all good is an example of which cognitive distortion found in depressed people? A) arbitrary inference B) all-or-none thinking C) selective abstraction D) negative bias E) overgeneralization

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-35 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) all-or-none thinking 36. After an argument, Jane continues to ask her partner if they still love her. This is an example of __________. A) negative feedback seeking B) stress generation C) excessive reassurance seeking D) all-or-none thinking E) magnification Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-36 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Applied Answer: C) excessive reassurance seeking. 37. Research findings that depressed individuals actually contribute to the occurrence of interpersonal conflict through maladaptive interpersonal behaviors supports the __________. A) negative feedback hypothesis B) conflict generation hypothesis C) persistent depressive disorder D) life stress perspective E) stress generation hypothesis Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-37 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) stress generation hypothesis. 38. Nearly ___________ percent of people with major depression have suffered at least one severe loss event prior to onset of their depression. A) 10 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75 E) 90 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-38 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) 75

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 39. A strong family link is especially evident in the development of __________. A) major depressive disorder B) melancholic depression C) persistent depressive disorder D) bipolar disorder E) cyclothymia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-39 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) bipolar disorder. 40. Research suggests that the effect of a gene (HTT) __________. A) directly causes depression B) heightens reactivity to stress C) lowers levels of serotonin neurotransmitter D) causes damage to a brain region associated with mood E) causes damage to a brain region involved with perception Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-40 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) heightens reactivity to stress. 41. Brain imaging techniques have shown that depressed individuals have fewer __________. A) 5-HT receptors B) DA receptors C) NE receptors D) HTT receptors E) CRH receptors Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-41 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) 5-HT receptors. 42. Smaller hippocampal volume in depressed individuals has been linked to __________. A) cortisol hypersecretion B) reduced cortisol secretion C) positive feedback excitation of the HPA axis D) acute stress E) reduced ACTH secretion from the pituitary gland

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-42 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) cortisol hypersecretion. 43. It has been found that when depressed patients respond to antidepressant medication, they also __________. A) experience less slow-wave sleep B) spend more time in REM sleep C) show an increase in rapid eye movements D) return to normal levels of REM sleep E) spend almost no time in REM sleep Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-43 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) return to normal levels of REM sleep. 44. Depressed individuals have been shown to have increased activity in the __________ leading to continuous processing of negative emotional information. A) hippocampus B) hypothalamus C) cingulated cortex D) amygdala E) pituitary gland Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-44 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) amygdala 45. One explanation as to why women are more often diagnosed with depression than are men is that __________. A) they are more willing to seek help for their symptoms B) they also show more symptoms associated with bipolar disorder than do men C) in many cultures women experience role strain D) the HPA axis is less active in women than it is in men E) women report higher levels of stressful life events than do men Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-45 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) in many cultures women experience role strain.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 46. Chris is a therapist who takes as their starting point concerning depression that a person's emotional reactions are determined in part by what they think. Based on this, Chris is most likely to use ___________ therapy to treat their clients. A) humanistic B) neo-psychoanalytic C) Freudian D) cognitive-behavioural E) interpersonal Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-46 Learning Objective: 8.3: Define cognitive-behavioural therapy and describe its basic techniques in treating major depressive disorder. Skill: Application Answer: D) cognitive-behavioural 47. Which of the following is NOT discussed in the text as a cognitive-behavioural treatment technique for depression? A) thought records B) activity scheduling C) testing beliefs through behavioural experiments D) exposure and response prevention E) challenging of negative thoughts Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-47 Learning Objective: 8.3: Define cognitive-behavioural therapy and describe its basic techniques in treating major depressive disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: E) challenging of negative thoughts 48. ___________ therapy emphasizes that depression often arises as a result of disruptions in an individual's social adjustment. A) Behavioural B) Cognitive-behavioural C) Cognitive D) Interpersonal E) Psychodynamic Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-48 Learning Objective: 8.3: Define cognitive-behavioural therapy and describe its basic techniques in treating major depressive disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Interpersonal 49. Which of the following approaches to treatment emphasizes role transitions (e.g., leaving home for university, becoming a parent)? A) behavioural B) cognitive C) cognitive-behavioural D) interpersonal E) psychodynamic 8-14 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 08-1-49 Learning Objective: 8.3: Define cognitive-behavioural therapy and describe its basic techniques in treating major depressive disorder. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) interpersonal 50. The discovery of drugs with antidepressant properties occurred through accidental observation that certain forms of medication used to treat _____ induced depression-like symptoms in patients. A) cancer B) hypertension C) diabetes D) tuberculosis E) AIDS Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-50 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) tuberculosis 51. Currently, the most popular class of antidepressants are the __________. A) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) B) monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) C) benzodiazepines D) bicyclics E) tricyclics Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-51 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). 52. Pharmacotherapy is generally considered effective for about ___________ percent of people. A) 10 B) 50 C) 20 D) 30 E) 40 Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 08-1-52 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 50

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 53. One controversial meta-analysis found that anti-depressant medication was __________. A) only effective for about 20% of persons with mild to moderate depression B) not effective for severe depression C) no more effective than placebo for mild to moderate depression D) only effective for about 40% of persons with severe depression E) only effective for about 40% of persons with mild to moderate depression Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-53 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) no more effective than placebo for mild to moderate depression. 54. An effective treatment that helps clients change their attitude towards unhelpful thought patterns (rather than changing the thoughts themselves) is termed __________. A) interpersonal therapy B) cognitive-behavioral therapy C) behavioural therapy D) rational-emotive psychotherapy E) mindfulness-based cognitive therapy Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-54 Learning Objective: 8.3: Define cognitive-behavioural therapy and describe its basic techniques in treating major depressive disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: E) mindfulness-based cognitive therapy. 55. Traditionally, ___________ is the treatment for bipolar disorder. A) lithium B) Celexa C) Prozac D) Elavil E) clomipramine Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-55 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) lithium 56. Which of the following neurotransmitters has a general inhibitory role in the brain? A) GABA B) gamma C) serotonin D) dopamine E) norepinephrine

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-56 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) GABA 57. Which of the following is not a side effect of antipsychotic medications? A) dry mouth B) muscle spasms C) rapid weight gain D) hypersexuality E) high cholesterol Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-57 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) hypersexuality 58. The Canadian Psychiatric Association currently recommends __________ as the first- line treatment for SAD. A) lithium B) ECT C) TMS D) light therapy E) SSRIs Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-58 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) light therapy 59. The main adverse effect of electroconvulsive shock therapy is __________. A) temporary speech difficulties B) psychotic phases C) depression D) memory impairment E) mania Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-59 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) memory impairment.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 60. An experimental procedure that uses magnetic fields to alter brain activity is called __________. A) ECT B) VNS C) CBT D) FFT E) TMS Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-60 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) TMS. 61. It is estimated that for every completed suicide, there are _________ suicide attempts. A) 5-7 B) 18-20 C) 12-15 D) 2-3 E) 8-10 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-1-61 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: E) 8-10 62. The strongest risk factor for completed suicide is __________. A) being male B) being female C) being male between the ages of 50 and 70 D) being female between the ages of 50 and 70 E) being an adolescent female Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-62 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: A) being male. 63. After mood disorders, the most frequently diagnosed mental disorder in victims of suicide is ___________. A) borderline personality disorder B) schizophrenia C) social anxiety disorder D) antisocial personality disorder E) substance use disorders

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-63 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: E) substance use disorders 64. After mood disorders, ___________ is the second most common factor in suicide. A) geographic location B) gender C) alcohol and substance abuse D) age E) contagion Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-64 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: C) alcohol and substance abuse 65. Post-mortem studies of people who have completed suicide have found consistent evidence for a hypoactive __________ system. A) serotonin B) dopamine C) norepinephrine D) melatonin E) epinephrine Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-65 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: A) serotonin 66. According to the interpersonal model of suicide, high levels of ___________ and thwarted belongingness, along with hopelessness about the future, lead to suicide ideation and intent. A) depressive symptoms B) self-focus C) rumination D) social isolation E) perceived burdensomeness Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 08-1-66 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: E) perceived burdensomeness

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 67. Which of the following is true regarding high school primary prevention suicide programs? A) Research has shown they are not successful. B) Research has shown they are successful with female students, but not male students C) Research has shown that such programs have reduced suicide risk by 50% D) Research has shown that they are successful with younger students but not older students. E) Unfortunately, there is no research on the outcomes of these primary prevention programs. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-67 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Research has shown they are not successful. 68. According to Miklowitz, family-focused therapy involves ___________. A) focusing on healing family conflict to improve the patient’s functioning B) educating both the patient and their family and involving the family in problem-solving and communication training C) allocating authority over the patient’s care to the family until the patient stabilizes D) planning family-bonding exercises to promote family cohesion E) identifying the family conflicts which caused the patient’s illness Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-68 Learning Objective: 8.4: Compare and contrast the three forms of adjunctive psychotherapies for bipolar disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: B) educating both the patient and their family and involving the family in problem-solving and communication training. 69. Which form of treatment involves the regulation of routines to reduce conflict and stress? A) CBT. B) FFT. C) IPSRT. D) IPT. E) MBCT. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-69 Learning Objective: 8.4: Compare and contrast the three forms of adjunctive psychotherapies for bipolar disorder. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) IPSRT. 70. Which of the following is an example of a mindful thought? A) “I am having judgemental thoughts about myself again, I’m too hard on myself.” B) “I feel angry, I have anger issues.” C) “This is just a judgemental thought, I need to do something about it.” D) “This is just a judgemental thought, I will let it pass.” E) “I am having a difficult emotional experience, I hate myself.”

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-70 Learning Objective: 8.3: Define cognitive-behavioural therapy and describe its basic techniques in treating major depressive disorder. Skill: Application Answer: D) “This is just a judgemental thought, I will let it pass.” 71. Which of the following is NOT an example of a behavioural experiment? A) Talking to a new person at work B) Asking for help C) Recording your thoughts D) Attending a gathering E) Saying no to a request Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-71 Learning Objective: 8.3: Define cognitive-behavioural therapy and describe its basic techniques in treating major depressive disorder. Skill: Application Answer: C) Recording your thoughts 72. What is a significant downside of medication mentioned in the textbook? A) High risk of symptom relapse B) High risk of addiction C) Lack of improvement or benefit from the medication D) Detrimental side effects E) Only psychiatrists can prescribe these medications Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-1-72 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) High risk of symptom relapse

Chapter 8 - True/False Questions 1. The Roman physician Hippocrates was the among first to extend the ideas on the relationship between emotional temperament (such as depression) and bodily fluids called humours first proposed by Galen. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-73 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 2. Robert Burton's Anatomy of Melancholy (1621) described psychological and social causes for depression. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-74 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 3. Freud's concept of imagined loss posits that predisposed individuals unconsciously interpret other types of events as severe loss events. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-75 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 4. Research showing that there is nothing special about five (DSM) symptoms rather than four, or two weeks duration rather than three, supports a dimensional model of depression. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-76 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 5. A manic episode must be at least one week long and does not typically last much longer than this. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-2-77 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 6. It is common for an individual to experience an episode of mania without an accompanying depression at some point in their life. a True b False 8-22 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-78 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 7. Bipolar disorder is more common than major depression. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-2-79 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 8. Research findings are consistent in showing that seasonal affective disorder is caused by melatonin dysregulation. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-80 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 9. Post-partum depression appears to be a predominantly North American phenomenon. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-81 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 10. Premenstrual dysphoric disorder was a welcome addition to the DSM-5. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-82 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 8-23 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. Brown and Harris (1989) found that early childhood loss, such as the loss of a parent before age twelve, is a powerful predictor of depression in adulthood. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-2-83 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 12. Recent biochemical theories of depression have examined the role of the postsynaptic receptor in the etiology of depression. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-84 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 13. Research has shown that depressed individuals show elevated levels of cortisol relative to control groups. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-85 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 14. Research suggests that those with the highest genetic risk for depression are more than twice as likely to develop depression in the face of stress than those at a lower genetic risk. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-86 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 15. In a number of comparative studies, interpersonal therapy has been shown to be more effective than antidepressant medication. a True b False 8-24 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-87 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 16. Tricyclic antidepressants work by delaying the process of reuptake of serotonin. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-2-88 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 17. The exact mechanism by which transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) produces its beneficial results is largely unknown. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-2-89 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 18. Past approaches to therapy with suicide attempts have been quite successful. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-2-90 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 19. The majority of people who complete suicide suffer from a diagnosable mental disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-2-91 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 8-25 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 20. Suicide rates have been changing over the years, but these changes have been consistent among all age groups. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-2-92 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 21. A number of studies have reported a significant association between hopelessness and suicide. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-2-93 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 22. Anomic suicide, as discussed by Durkheim, was identified as being motivated by the desire of the individual to fulfill some higher purpose. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-2-94 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False

Chapter 8 - Essay Questions 1. List, define and distinguish between the two broad categories of mood disorders. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-3-95 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Unipolar disorders and bipolar disorders. Unipolar disorders: a change in mood only in the direction of depression or lowered mood, followed by a return to normal mood with recovery. Bipolar disorders: change in mood occurs in both directions; experience both depression and mania (mood elevation). The distinction is that in the former the change in mood is only in one direction from normal (down) while in the latter it is in both. 8-26 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 2. Define persistent depressive disorder and cyclothymia. Provide one similarity (other than the fact that they are both mood disorders) and one difference between the two. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-3-96 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Persistent depressive disorder: many of the same features of major depression (depressed mood); must persist for at least 2 years with only brief returns to normal mood. Cyclothymia: duration of at least two years; recurrent periods of mild depression alternating with hypomania. Similarity: both require a duration of at least 2 years. Difference: persistent depressive disorder is a unipolar mood disorder, cyclothymia is a bipolar disorder. 3. What is seasonal affective disorder? What hormone is implicated in it, and how is it best treated? Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 08-3-97 Learning Objective: 8.1: Describe the symptoms and clinical features of the major unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Seasonal affective disorder: when a mood disorder follows seasonal changes in the amount of sunlight; can be unipolar or bipolar. Melatonin is implicated in the disorder. The best treatment is phototherapy: sitting in front of a light box that mimics sunlight, from 30 minutes to 2 hours per day, preferably in early morning. 4. List, define and provide an example of two of the common types of cognitive distortions that occur in the context of depression. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-3-98 Learning Objective: 8.2: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to cause mood disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Overgeneralization: drawing a broad conclusion on the basis of a single incident. All or nothing thinking: seeing a situation only in extreme terms. Jumping to conclusions: drawing a conclusion on the basis of skimpy evidence. Magnification: exaggerating importance of errors or problems. 5. List and briefly define activity scheduling and behavioural experiments. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-3-99 Learning Objective: 8.3: Define cognitive-behavioural therapy and describe its basic techniques in treating major depressive disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: Common to all: aspects of cognitive-behavioural treatment of depression. Activity scheduling: patients record a baseline measure of their activities, decide which ones they want to add, monitor their behaviour to note how they do and the degree of pleasure/mastery they derive from them. Testing beliefs through behavioural experiments: identify a negative belief, design experiments (with the therapist's help) to test them and (ideally) prove them wrong. 8-27 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 6. Describe the techniques of TMS and VNS and their effectiveness in treating depression. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-3-100 Learning Objective: 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: TMS: electric current creates magnetic pulse that stimulate nerve cells, increasing blood flow and glucose metabolism in targeted brain regions. VNS: pulse generator delivers electrical signals to the vagus nerve, which is then delivered to the brain. Active TMS relative to sham TMS has led to higher remission rates. Active VNS plus pharmacotherapy led to improvement versus pharmacotherapy alone. 7. Describe two causal risk factors for suicide. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-3-101 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: Untreated mental disorder is the number one cause (mood disorders, followed by substance use disorders). Lacking a sense of belonging – dating back to Emile Durkeim's concept of anomie. The serotonin transporter gene has been implicated; low serotonin has been observed in post-mortem analyses. A combination of thwarted belongingness, perceived burdensomeness, and hopelessness as per the interpersonal model. 8. Discuss preventative strategies that have been designed and implemented to reduce suicide rates. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-3-102 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual Answer: Primary prevention programmes have been designed for high schools; however, they have not been shown to be successful. Other primary prevention programmes have focused on reducing access to means e.g., in Britain in the 1950s, carbon monoxide poisoning was a common suicide method until natural gas replaced coal gas. Secondary and tertiary prevention strategies like hotlines address the needs of those experiencing suicide ideation. They appear to be particularly useful for young females, but do not reach young males. 9. Describe the algorithm for evaluation of patients with suicidal ideation that may lead to hospitalization. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-3-103 Learning Objective: 8.6: Explain how biological, psychological, and social factors can all contribute to suicide. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: Patient expresses suicidal ideation. Patient has a suicide plan. Patient has access to lethal means, has poor social support, has poor judgment, and cannot make a contract for safety. 10. Review the current research evidence regarding the effectiveness of the following treatment strategies for unipolar depression: cognitive-behavioural therapy, behavioural activation, interpersonal psychotherapy, and pharmacotherapy. What is the best practice in terms of treatment for unipolar depression? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 08-3-104 Learning Objective: 8.3: Define cognitive-behavioural therapy and describe its basic techniques in treating major depressive disorder; 8.4: Compare and contrast the three forms of adjunctive psychotherapies for bipolar disorder; 8.5: Identify the major classes of medications used to treat unipolar and bipolar mood disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A meta-analysis found that 50 to 70 percent of patients who successfully finish a trial of any antidepressant can be expected to respond, compared with a 30 percent response rate for placebo. The benefits of medication may only be present for those with severe depression as one review found no difference between medication and placebo for mild to moderate depression. One large study found no difference in efficacy between CBT, IPT and imipramine, with all three being superior to placebo. There is a high risk of relapse with medication, however –approximately 89 percent even with continued medication treatment. CBT has been found to be significantly more effective than medication in the long run, with significantly lower relapse rates. Although CBT and perhaps IPT appear to be the most effective treatment options for depression in the long term, several studies have found that the behavioral activation component of CBT is just as effective as the full treatment (which includes the cognitive therapy component).

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 9 Schizophrenia Spectrum and Other Psychotic Disorders Chapter 9 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. An important and basic fact about schizophrenia is its __________. A) homogeneity B) heterogeneity C) relationship to dissociative identity disorder D) simplicity E) universality Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-01 Learning Objective: 9.1: Explain why schizophrenia is one of the most serious, disabling, and complex mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) heterogeneity 2. The likelihood of developing schizophrenia in North America is about ___________ percent. A) 2.5 B) 10 C) 5 D) less than 1 E) 0.5 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-02 Learning Objective: 9.1: Explain why schizophrenia is one of the most serious, disabling, and complex mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) less than 1 3. One remaining puzzle concerning schizophrenia is __________. A) how long it has been around B) why there has been a lack of research on the disorder C) why it only tends to be found in European and Asian countries D) the cost of the disorder to society E) how it relates to dissociative identity disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-03 Learning Objective: 9.1: Explain why schizophrenia is one of the most serious, disabling, and complex mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) how long it has been around.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. Positive symptoms of schizophrenia are those that involve __________. A) lack of emotion B) loss of motivation C) less serious symptoms D) speech and language E) extravagant versions of normal behaviour Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-04 Learning Objective: 9.1: Explain why schizophrenia is one of the most serious, disabling, and complex mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) extravagant versions of normal behaviour. 5. Which of the following are classified as positive symptoms? A) Social withdrawal and lack of interest in activities B) Spare speech and language C) Lack of coping abilities D) Hallucinations E) Inability to feel pleasure Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-05 Learning Objective: 9.1: Explain why schizophrenia is one of the most serious, disabling, and complex mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) Hallucinations 6. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include __________. A) flowery speech B) hallucinations and delusions C) catatonic behaviour D) auditory hallucinations only E) lack of ability to communicate Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-06 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: E) lack of ability to communicate. 7. The most common type of hallucinations are __________. A) tactile B) visual C) multi-sensory D) auditory E) olfactory

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-07 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Application Answer: D) auditory 8. A false belief that is strongly held, held even when there is evidence to prove otherwise, is called a __________. A) waxy flexibility B) delusion C) hallucinatory concept D) tangential focus E) firm conviction Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-08 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: B) delusion. 9. Shandra believes that the weatherman on Cable 10 is delivering messages from outer space to Earth. This is an example of __________. A) a negative symptom B) alogia C) a tangential thought D) a hallucination E) a delusion Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-09 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Application Answer: E) a delusion. 10. All of the following are types of delusions EXCEPT __________. A) delusions of persecution B) somatic delusions C) delusions of emancipation D) delusions of reference E) delusions of grandeur Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-10 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: C) delusions of emancipation.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. The belief that one's neighbours are plotting against you is an example of a ___________ delusion. A) persecutory B) somatic C) religious D) grandiose E) referential Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-11 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: A) persecutory 12. The feeling that bugs are crawling around under your skin is __________. A) an example of a delusion of grandeur B) generally experienced by certain religious tribes C) an example of a tactile hallucination D) only experienced by those on a bad acid trip E) an example of a somatic delusion Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-12 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Application Answer: C) an example of a tactile hallucination. 13. The erroneous belief that one can control the weather would be an example of a ___________. A) somatic delusion B) paranoid delusion C) delusion of persecution D) delusion of grandeur E) referential delusion Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-13 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Application Answer: D) delusion of grandeur 14. Bleuler, in his early descriptions of schizophrenia, gave great emphasis on __________. A) disorganized speech and thought disorder B) visual hallucinations C) delusions D) hallucinations E) delusions of grandeur

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-14 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Application Answer: A) disorganized speech and thought disorder. 15. When asked how she was feeling, Mona answered "I am fine, just like a bottle of wine . . . that wine was so smooth . . . and I used to drink it with . . . pickles, which I grew in my garden . . . and I had to weed so often." This response is an example of __________. A) neologisms B) lack of abstractness C) tangentiality D) derailment E) loosening of associations Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-15 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Application Answer: E) loosening of associations. 16. All of the following are examples of negative and emotional symptoms of schizophrenia EXCEPT __________. A) alogia B) anhedonia C) associative loosening D) affective flattening E) avolition Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-16 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: C) associative loosening. 17. Devon often sits with one foot behind his head for extended periods of time until a nurse moves it, and then does not move again. This is an example of __________. A) alogia B) echopraxia C) catatonic posturing D) affective flattening E) waxy flexibility Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-17 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Application Answer: E) waxy flexibility. 9-5 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 18. Dimitri has been diagnosed with schizophrenia. Unless his mother carefully monitors his personal hygiene habits, he tends to ignore them. This is an example of __________. A) anhedonia B) alogia C) avolition D) antilistlessness E) amotivation Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-18 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Application Answer: C) avolition. 19. The best description of anhedonia is __________. A) poor concentration for an extended period of time B) the inability to experience pleasure C) impoverished emotional expression D) lack of drive or initiative E) excess pleasure Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-19 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: B) the inability to experience pleasure. 20. A person with schizophrenia displaying flattened affect __________. A) withdraws socially B) does not express emotion C) does not experience physiological arousal D) laughs at inappropriate moments E) experiences only sadness but not other emotions Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-20 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: B) does not express emotion. 21. For a diagnosis, a bizarre delusion must be judged __________. A) possible B) impossible C) plausible D) conceivable E) harmless

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-21 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: B) impossible 22. One criticism of the DSM-5 with respect to diagnosing schizophrenia is __________. A) it does not rely on the person's presenting symptoms and history as the main indications of illness B) none of the subtypes have received any research support as valid distinctions C) clinicians tend not to agree with the diagnoses of other clinicians D) clinicians rarely use structured interviews in making a diagnosis E) the lack of objective criteria for the disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-22 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: E) the lack of objective criteria for the disorder. 23. The performance of individuals with schizophrenia on a test called the Continuous Performance Test suggests, on average, __________. A) that they are superior in cognitive functioning to healthy controls and depressed people B) that they have difficulty with long-term memory C) that they have difficulty delaying reinforcement D) that there is a large hereditary component to the disorder E) that they experience impairment in attention and working memory Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-23 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: E) that they experience impairment in attention and working memory. 24. Which of the following is true regarding smooth pursuit eye movements in people with schizophrenia? A) They are largely normal relative to those of healthy controls. B) They are superior to those of healthy controls which is consistent with the presence of hypervigilance in people with this disorder. C) They are the only reliable cognitive marker we have for schizophrenia. D) Poor eye tracking records are strongly correlated with attenuated psychosis syndrome. E) Only about half of patients with schizophrenia show impairments in these eye movements. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 09-1-24 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) Only about half of patients with schizophrenia show impairments in these eye movements.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 25. __________ percent of individuals with persistent schizophrenia display prominent negative symptoms. A) 20-25% B) 25-30% C) 30-35% D) 50% E) 75% Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-25 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 25-30% 26. Which of the following is not an example of a schizophrenia spectrum or other psychotic disorder? A) Schizotypal personality disorder B) Schizophreniform disorder C) Delusional disorder D) Brief psychotic disorder E) Schizophrenia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-26 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Schizotypal personality disorder 27. Substance/medication-induced psychotic disorder may look identical to other psychotic disorders EXCEPT __________. A) there are no negative symptoms present B) there are no positive symptoms present C) the symptoms occur due to the initiation or withdrawal from a substance/medication/toxin D) other psychotic disorders’ symptoms last longer E) substance/medication-induced psychotic disorder is less impairing than other psychotic disorders Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-27 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: C) The symptoms occur due to the initiation or withdrawal from a substance/medication/toxin 28. Which of the following is NOT an example of a hallucination? A) feeling bugs crawling on the skin B) feeling like fingers are running through your hair C) tasting a sour taste in your mouth without any food/drink present D) believing that your limbs are getting longer E) seeing shadowy figures behind you

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-25 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) believing your limbs are getting longer 29. The most commonly accepted theory of schizophrenia today is the __________. A) rejecting mother model B) schizogenetic theory C) diathesis-stress theory D) social drift theory E) collective unconscious theory Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-29 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: C) diathesis-stress theory. 30. The vulnerability-stress perspective purports that __________. A) individuals who undergo a lot of stress and difficulty become more vulnerable to developing schizophrenia B) individuals with poor coping skills tend to react negatively to stress C) certain people are vulnerable to schizophrenia, and symptoms generally develop after exposure to stress D) individuals who are genetically susceptible to schizophrenia are better able to handle severe stress E) people with schizophrenia are more vulnerable to life stressor than are others Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-30 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: C) certain people are vulnerable to schizophrenia, and symptoms generally develop after exposure to stress. 31. In the diathesis-stress model, an example of a stressor includes all EXCEPT __________. A) genetic vulnerability B) getting fired from a job C) poverty D) the end of a relationship E) marginalization Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-31 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: A) genetic vulnerability.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 32. Which of the following is a concern regarding the diathesis-stress model of schizophrenia? A) there is no genetic link for the development of schizophrenia B) schizophrenia is purely genetic and will develop without a stressor C) some individuals develop schizophrenia without a stressor D) there is not consistent evidence to support the model E) schizophrenia only develops when substance used is involved Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-32 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) some individuals develop schizophrenia without a stressor 33. If schizophrenia were purely genetic, the concordance rate for monozygotic twins would be about __________. A) 50% B) 45% C) 25% D) 80% E) 100% Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-33 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: E) 100%. 34. Penetrance refers to __________. A) the degree to which a gene associated with a condition will be expressed in offspring B) the degree to which a gene will penetrate the chromosome during meiosis C) the frequency with which a gene associated with a condition will become dominant D) the degree to which the presence of a dominant gene will show its effects E) the frequency by which a gene associated with a condition will be passed on Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-34 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: D) the degree to which the presence of a dominant gene will show its effects. 35. The concordance rate for schizophrenia for monozygotic twins is __________. A) 100% B) 25% C) 67% D) 10% E) 48% Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-35 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: E) 48%. 9-10 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 36. __________ has been linked to increased risk of schizophrenia. A) Hostility B) In utero exposure to famine C) In utero exposure to alcohol D) High intellectual functioning E) Traumatic brain injury Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-36 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: B) In utero exposure to famine 37. Recent evidence shows that exposure to the flu virus during the __________ month of pregnancy is associated with an increased risk of schizophrenia later in life. A) first B) second C) third D) fourth E) fifth Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-37 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: E) fifth 38. A proportion of children at risk for schizophrenia show all of the following early behavioural abnormalities EXCEPT __________. A) unusual preoccupation with imaginative companions B) early signs of impaired movement C) more withdrawn and socially reclusive, or more antisocial and aggressive than other children D) cognitive limitations not shared by other children E) early signs of impaired fine motor skills Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-38 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) unusual preoccupation with imaginative companions. 39. Which of the following is NOT a birth complication that confers heightened risk for schizophrenia? A) prolonged labour B) late delivery C) low birth weight D) fetal distress E) breathing difficulties Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-39 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual 9-11 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: B) late delivery. 40. Recent research shows that by age 16, nearly a third of individuals who go on to develop psychotic disorder have ___________ and __________. A) motor difficulties; at least one positive symptom reported by a teacher B) speech and language delays; at least one positive symptom self-reported C) motor difficulties; deficient IQ D) family interaction problems; deficient IQ E) speech and language difficulties; at least one positive symptom parent-reported Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-40 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: C) motor difficulties; deficient IQ 41. Which of the following is not a stage in the natural course of schizophrenia? A) premorbid phase B) prodromal phase C) preliminary phase D) psychotic phase E) stable phase Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-41 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: C) preliminary phase 42. Research on expressed emotion indicates that people with schizophrenia are most likely to suffer a relapse if __________. A) family members are critical and overinvolved B) family members ignore them and fail to provide support C) society labels them and rejects them D) family and peers are unable to see past their illness E) family members are critical and uninvolved Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-42 Learning Objective: 9.4: Identity and explain effective pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: A) family members are critical and overinvolved. 43. According to the dopamine hypothesis, schizophrenia results from __________. A) an abnormally high level of dopamine B) an abnormally low level of dopamine C) an absence of dopamine D) an excess of serotonin E) an imbalance in the ratio of serotonin to dopamine

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-43 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: A) an abnormally high level of dopamine. 44. One of the first brain regions that interested researchers in linking the brain to schizophrenia was/were the __________. A) occipital lobes B) temporal lobes C) frontal lobes D) parietal lobes E) posterior cortex Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-44 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: C) frontal lobes 45. In summarizing the research on frontal lobe deficiency, one could interpret the research of Lara Davidson (2003) as suggesting that __________. A) frontal brain impairment probably affects some patients with schizophrenia, but the impairment is not a necessary part of the syndrome B) frontal brain impairment probably affects very few patients with schizophrenia, and is not a necessary part of the syndrome C) frontal brain impairment probably affects all patients with schizophrenia, and is a necessary part of the syndrome D) an abnormally working frontal brain does not appear to be related at all to the symptoms presented by patients with schizophrenia E) only the positive symptoms of the illness reflect an abnormally working frontal brain Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 09-1-45 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) frontal brain impairment probably affects some patients with schizophrenia, but the impairment is not a necessary part of the syndrome. 46. According to findings of combined meta-analyses, the number one ranked brain and behavioural abnormality in schizophrenia is __________. A) impaired general intellectual ability B) increased neurotransmitter receptors in post-modern brain tissue C) irregular eye movements when following a point of light D) slowness in writing symbols paired with numbers (processing speed) E) impaired learning and recall of words and stories Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 09-1-46 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: D) slowness in writing symbols paired with numbers (processing speed). 9-13 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 47. Apart from the frontal lobes, one of the most researched regions of the brain and its relationship to schizophrenia is the __________. A) left parietal lobe B) left temporal lobe C) right temporal lobe D) left occipital lobe E) right parietal lobe Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-47 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: B) left temporal lobe. 48. Researchers in the early 1960s identified a neurotransmitter involved in the therapeutic effects of antipsychotic medication. What was this neurotransmitter? A) dopamine B) serotonin C) GABA D) cortisol E) norepinephrine Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-48 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: A) dopamine 49. An early treatment for schizophrenia might have involved which of the following? A) insulin coma B) hypnosis C) psychoanalysis D) psychotherapy E) chlorpromazine Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-49 Learning Objective: 9.4: Identify and explain effective pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: A) insulin coma 50. The main drawback of anti-psychotic medication in treating schizophrenia is __________. A) its relative ineffectiveness in dealing with the cognitive impairment suffered by schizophrenia patients B) that the use of medication often requires longer hospital stays C) its relative lack of effectiveness D) the occurrence of more frequent relapses of illness E) its inability to alleviate the frequency and severity of hallucinations and delusions

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-50 Learning Objective: 9.4: Identify and explain effective pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: A) its relative ineffectiveness in dealing with the cognitive impairment suffered by schizophrenia patients. 51. Initial observations of promethazine and chlorpromazine in psychiatric patients suggested that the drugs might be most helpful in patients with __________. A) mood disorders, agitation, and mania B) attenuated forms of psychosis C) paranoid personality disorder D) schizoid personality disorder E) anorexia nervosa Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-51 Learning Objective: 9.4: Identify and explain effective pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: A) mood disorders, agitation, and mania. 52. The one form of psychotherapy found to be helpful in treating schizophrenia is __________. A) humanistic therapy B) interpersonal psychotherapy C) behaviour therapy D) cognitive-behaviour therapy E) psychoanalysis Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-52 Learning Objective: 9.4: Identify and explain effective pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: D) cognitive-behaviour therapy. 53. Recent research on the effectiveness of cognitive-behaviour therapy for schizophrenia finds ___________. The next step for research will be __________. A) moderate benefits for positive and negative symptoms that are sustained over time; examining the impact upon functioning B) moderate benefits for positive and negative symptoms, sustained over time, and with positive impact on functioning; examining predictors of response to treatment C) moderate benefits for positive symptoms; examining impact on negative symptoms D) moderate benefits for negative symptoms; examining impact on positive symptoms E) moderate benefits for positive and negative symptoms; whether benefits are sustained over time Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 09-1-53 Learning Objective: 9.4: Identify and explain effective pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: B) moderate benefits for positive and negative symptoms, sustained over time, and with positive impact on functioning; examining predictors of response to treatment 54. Which is NOT an example of psychosocial treatment for schizophrenia? A) CBTp. B) DBT. C) cognitive remediation. D) family therapy. E) skills training. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-54 Learning Objective: 9.4: Identify and explain effective pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: B) DBT. 55. Which of the following is not a component of CBT for schizophrenia? A) psychoeducation regarding the false basis of a patient's delusions. B) establishment of a trusting and collaborative relationship. C) recording and monitoring of thoughts in a thought record. D) development of "experiments" to create rewarding experiences. E) strategies for relapse prevention. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 09-1-55 Learning Objective: 9.4: Identify and explain effective pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: A) psychoeducation regarding the false basis of a patient's delusions. 56. The primary difference between schizophrenia and schizoaffective disorder is that __________. A) the person has no negative symptoms and all positive symptoms B) the person experiences comorbid persistent depressive disorder C) the person meets criteria for a mood disorder with the presence of one positive symptom D) the person has a diagnosable mood episode at the same time as symptoms of schizophrenia E) schizoaffective is a personality disorder and schizophrenia is a psychotic disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-56 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) the person has a diagnosable mood episode at the same time as symptoms of schizophrenia. 57. Addington's work on early identification and intervention in schizophrenia finds __________. A) the prodromal phase often includes becoming withdrawn and suspicious B) there are no reliable methods to identify individuals at high risk C) early intervention normalizes symptoms, functioning, and quality of life D) most high-risk individuals who do not convert to psychosis have normal functioning E) early intervention has no impact on symptoms, but normalizes functioning 9-16 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-57 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: A) the prodromal phase often includes becoming withdrawn and suspicious. 58. In which phase may an individual experience mild impairments such as delays in reaching developmental milestones? A) Prodromal phase. B) Premorbid phase. C) Psychotic phase. D) Primary phase. E) Residual phase. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-1-58 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Premorbid phase. 59. Which of the following is not a type of negative symptom? A) Alexithymia. B) Avolition. C) Anhedonia. D) Alogia. E) Asociality. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-59 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Alexithymia. 60. Culture may influence the content of symptoms such as Christians being more likely to hallucinate __________, and communities from rural Africa are more likely to hallucinate __________. A) Jesus Christ; ancestor worship B) Jesus Christ; magical spirits C) ancestor worship; Jesus Christ D) extrasensory perceptions; ancestor worship E) magical spirits; ancestor worship Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-60 Learning Objective: 9.5: Describe how culture influences the expression and course of schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Jesus Christ; ancestor worship.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 61. What is a primary difference between non-Western culture’s views of hallucinations compared to Western cultures? A) hallucinations indicate demonic possession. B) hallucinations are not real and are faked by an individual. C) hallucinations may have a deep meaning and relationship with a deity or spiritual force. D) hallucinations always indicate intoxication. E) hallucinations indicate a biochemical imbalance. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-61 Learning Objective: 9.5: Describe how culture influences the expression and course of schizophrenia. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) hallucinations may have a deep meaning and relationship with a deity or spiritual force. 62. Which of the following is not a contributing factor to poor treatment outcomes for schizophrenia across racial minorities? A) poor access to health care. B) low confidence in the health care system. C) poorer quality treatment. D) less likely to be offered treatment. E) less interest in receiving treatment. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-1-62 Learning Objective: 9.5: Describe how culture influences the expression and course of schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: E) less interest in receiving treatment.

Chapter 9 - True/False Questions 1. Schizophrenia is characterized by heterogeneity. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-2-63 Learning Objective: 9.1: Explain why schizophrenia is one of the most serious, disabling, and complex mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 2. Heterogeneity in schizophrenia makes it easier to predict the course for affected individuals. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-2-64 Learning Objective: 9.1: Explain why schizophrenia is one of the most serious, disabling, and complex mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 9-18 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 3. Lifetime prevalence for schizophrenia in North America and Europe has been found to be less than 1%. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-2-65 Learning Objective: 9.1: Explain why schizophrenia is one of the most serious, disabling, and complex mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 4. Auditory hallucinations were extremely common prior to 1700. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-66 Learning Objective: 9.1: Explain why schizophrenia is one of the most serious, disabling, and complex mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 5. The positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia refer to the "good" and "bad" symptoms. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-2-67 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 6. Negative symptoms of schizophrenia refer to exaggerated, distorted adaptations of normal behaviour. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-68 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 7. Visual hallucinations tend to be the most common form in schizophrenia. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-2-69 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 8. Positive symptoms are objectively observed and apparent to the clinician. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-2-70 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 9. Dancing down the street is an example of grossly disorganized behaviour. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-71 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Application Answer: b. False 10. Sluggish schizophrenia is one subtype of schizophrenia found in the DSM-5 system for the classification of mental disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-2-72 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 11. Research has established that there is a large, significant increase in violent behaviour in people with a diagnosis of schizophrenia. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-73 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: b. False 12. Research shows that the symptom-based subtypes (e.g., paranoid, catatonic) have low reliability and uncertain validity. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-74 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 13. Impairment on the Continuous Performance Test has been studied as a potential cognitive marker of schizophrenia. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-75 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 14. Modern research shows that inadequate parenting by fathers plays an equally important causal role as does that of mothers in the development of schizophrenia. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-76 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 15. The idea that one major gene and several minor genes collectively cause schizophrenia, is well-established at this time. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-77 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 16. There is evidence that exposure to the flu virus during the first 2 weeks of pregnancy is associated with increased risk of schizophrenia in the mother's child later in life. a True b False 9-21 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-78 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 17. Due to its impressive research evidence, neuropsychological tests provide solid, conclusive support for the frontal brain deficiency hypothesis of schizophrenia. a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 09-2-79 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 18. Abnormal functioning of the temporal lobes has been associated with the hallucinations and delusions experienced by people with schizophrenia. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-80 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 19. It is difficult to determine whether neurological abnormalities are a cause or consequence of schizophrenia symptoms. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-81 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 20. Dopamine receptors in the brains of people with schizophrenia are either too low or not overly sensitive. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-2-82 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 21. Family intervention studies have shown similar outcomes when comparing the effectiveness of family therapy, social skills training, and medication treatments. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-2-83 Learning Objective: 9.4: Identify and explain effective pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Chapter 9 - Essay Questions 1. Differentiate between the positive and negative symptoms of schizophrenia by providing a brief description of the types of symptoms under each category. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 09-3-84 Learning Objective: 9.2: Identify the steps involved in a DSM-5 diagnosis of schizophrenia and the strengths and weaknesses of this approach. Skill: Factual Answer: Positive symptoms express extravagant versions of normal behaviours, including delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, and grossly disorganized or catatonic behaviour. Delusions are false beliefs that are strongly held, despite evidence to the contrary, and do not include religious or cultural beliefs. Delusions tend to take the form of persecutory, religious, or grandiose delusions, as well as delusions of reference. Hallucinations are false perceptions occurring in the absence of any relevant stimulus. The most common type is auditory, where the person hears voices and conversations, with visual, tactile, and olfactory hallucinations occurring more rarely. The speech of people with schizophrenia is often disorganized in various ways, such as derailment, where the person goes off topic during the sentence, or the person may use words that make no sense (neologisms), or words become jumbled (word salad). Grossly disorganized behaviour includes inappropriate emotional reactions, as well as strange behaviours. Catatonia describes a wide range of behaviours and is exemplified by rigid or bizarre body positions and even excessive activity. Negative symptoms reflect a decline in functioning from normal levels. These symptoms include impoverished emotional expression and reactivity. Slowed thinking or thought blocking are also common, as is avolition, which consists of a loss of energy, decreased motivation, and lowered interest in activities (such as grooming and education). Also included are anhedonia (inability to experience pleasure) and asociality (social withdrawal). Finally, attentional deficits, including distractibility, poor concentration, and a tendency to drift from activities have been commonly described in the literature. 2. The diathesis-stress model has been proposed as a model of development of schizophrenia. Choose three factors that play a role in vulnerability to schizophrenia and describe the research findings. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-3-85 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: (Factors include: developmental influences, genetic factors, biochemical influences, neuroanatomical factors, prenatal and perinatal influences, neurodevelopmental factors, and personality factors). The vulnerability-stress perspective suggests that certain individuals are vulnerable to schizophrenia, and these people develop symptoms after being exposed to certain stressors. Many different factors are believed to increase vulnerability, for example, developmental influences, genetic factors, and biochemical influences. High-risk studies, in which the subjects are children of mothers with schizophrenia, are used to examine developmental influences in the etiology of schizophrenia. Reviews of high-risk studies have found few differences between high- and low-risk children that specifically predict schizophrenia, although high-risk children tend to have more difficulty with attention tasks and those who later developed schizophrenia tend to have poor neuromotor test scores. Genetic factors appear to play an important role in the development of schizophrenia, however, research is difficult because the gene(s) responsible for schizophrenia has (have) reduced penetrance (certain environmental factors are required in order for the person to develop symptoms). One method of determining the role of genetics is through concordance rates within families. Studies have shown that only around 10% of people who have a parent with schizophrenia end up developing the disorder, and 90% of people who do develop schizophrenia have a first-degree relative with schizophrenia. The concordance rate for identical twins is less than 50%, indicating that genetic factors are not the only ones involved. One marker for schizophrenia that has received much attention is eye-tracking dysfunction. The eye movements of people with schizophrenia are less efficient and more erratic than those without the disorder. However, not everyone who develops schizophrenia displays these impairments. Neurotransmitters, particularly dopamine, have received attention in the schizophrenia research. People with schizophrenia are believed to have either too many or too sensitive dopamine receptors, for several reasons. Firstly, the neuroleptic medications used to reduce the hallucinations and delusions in schizophrenia work by blocking the transmission of dopamine. Secondly, the density of dopamine receptors is greater in certain areas of the brain among those with schizophrenia. Recent evidence suggests that glutamate may play a role in the development of the disorder, as may other neurotransmitters. The role of various neurotransmitters in the etiology of schizophrenia appears to be complex. One issue is that changes or abnormalities in receptors for example may be the cause of schizophrenia, or may result from prolonged use of anti-psychotic medications. 3. Stress plays a major role, both in the development of schizophrenia and in the severity of symptoms. Briefly describe the role of family interactions in risk for schizophrenia. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-3-86 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Stressors in various areas affect the development of schizophrenia. One area of research has been family functioning. In the past, psychoanalysts theorized that psychotic states resulted from the behaviour of the mother, for example, the cold, rigid, rejecting "schizophrenogenic mother." Another situation described was the "double-bind" situation, where the child receives contradictory messages from another person (the parent). These hypotheses are not supported by current evidence. However, research has shown that people with schizophrenia belonging to families high in expressed emotion (hostility, criticism, over involvement) are more likely to suffer relapse.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. Describe the role that pregnancy and birth complications may play in risk for schizophrenia. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-3-87 Learning Objective: 9.3: Explain etiological theories of why people develop schizophrenia. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: According to the diathesis-stress model of schizophrenia, vulnerability factors (e.g., genetic factors) must combine with stressors to confer heightened risk for schizophrenia. Exposure to risk can occur as early as when the at-risk individual is in utero. Some studies suggest that mothers' exposure to the flu virus during the 5th month of pregnancy (or, the second trimester, when the child's brain is developing) confers risk in those with predisposing factors. But it is important to note that risk is still extremely low even under these circumstances. Researchers have also proposed that birth complications like premature delivery, breathing difficulties at delivery, and low birth weight may all heighten the risk of schizophrenia. However, here as well, it needs to be considered that incidence is still extremely low even when these factors are present, suggesting that many factors likely come together to confer heightened risk for schizophrenia. 5. Describe cognitive-behaviour therapy (CBT) for schizophrenia (CBTp). According to the cognitive-behavioural perspective, what is involved in the maintenance of psychotic symptoms? What are the therapy strategies? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 09-3-88 Learning Objective: 9.4: Identify and explain effective pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Recent research suggests that this is the form of therapy that appears to be effective for people with schizophrenia and in fact, it is recommended in standards of care. According to the cognitivebehavioural model, the way that individuals interpret their experiences plays an important role in the maintenance of symptoms. Like in CBT for other psychological disorders, psychoeducation is a component, as is belief modification and fostering of adaptive coping strategies. Therapy involves a number of stages. First, there is emphasis on establishing a strong therapeutic alliance – trust and collaboration are important. The therapist works with the client to normalize symptoms, explaining that individuals without schizophrenia can also have the kinds of experiences that those with schizophrenia have. Clients then complete written or voice diaries to keep track of their symptoms as well as their emotional and behavioural reactions to them (e.g., voices). The therapist works with the client to arrive at alternative interpretations of these experiences and must exercise caution in doing this so as not to be confrontational. To target the negative symptoms, therapists work with the client to increase rewarding experiences. 6. Identify the best practice in terms of treatment of schizophrenia. In your answer, choose three of the following treatment components: pharmacotherapy; CBTp, cognitive remediation; social skills training; family therapy; early intervention. Back up your recommendations using research findings on the effectiveness and what aspects of the disorder are improved. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 09-3-89 Learning Objective: 9.4: Identify and explain effective pharmacological and psychosocial treatments for schizophrenia. Skill: Factual, Conceptual, Application Answer: Best practice in treating schizophrenia would ideally begin with early intervention – ideally with persons who are at high risk or in a prodromal phase, but who have not yet manifested the full disorder. Treatment for persons who manifest schizophrenia would ideally include each of medication, CBT, 9-25 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e cognitive remediation, and social skills training. Family therapy is also indicated, depending on the person's situation. Moderators of treatment appropriateness and response have not yet been clearly identified, but research is underway and so the empirically informed clinician would be watching for developments in this area, so as to choose treatment packages that are tailored to the profile of the client. Early intervention research finds negative symptoms and functioning deficits are often present in high risk and prodromal individuals. These difficulties provide treatment targets for clients who are fortunate enough to be identified and to receive services. Early intervention appears to improve symptoms however deficits in cognition, functioning and quality of life appear to persist (in comparison to healthy peers). For persons where schizophrenia has been diagnosed, it is well-established that antipsychotic medications, including chlorpromazine, its relatives, and a new class of medications developed in the 1990s alleviate the frequency and severity of hallucinations, delusions, thought disorder and, to a lesser degree, the negative symptoms of the illness. Patients who receive these medications require less time in hospital, have fewer relapses and enjoy better functioning compared with untreated patients. Some patients do not respond, and some have serious side effects. More recent medications, including Risperidone often have reduced side effects and so will probably be the first line treatment. New medications targeting impaired cognition in schizophrenia are being studied currently and perhaps will be on the horizon for clinical use. Cognitive remediation therapy targets thinking skills such as memory and attention. These therapies have medium effect sizes upon cognition (which theoretically underlies functioning problems and therefore stress and symptom emergence) that last over at least an 8-month period. Also helped are symptoms directly, occupational and social functioning, which supports that cognition improvements transfer into real-life functioning as would be expected. Cognitive-behavioral therapy has been shown to have moderate benefits for positive and negative symptoms, with beneficial effects being sustained over time. Components often include psychoeducation about the disorder and its effects; appropriate social information processing and responding strategies; ways of interpreting and coping with delusions and hallucinations (sometimes including provision of reminder cards); and helping patients to understand and take action with their inactivity and withdrawal symptoms. Social skills training has been shown to have moderate effects on social and independent living skills, psychosocial functioning, and negative symptoms. Family therapy includes psychoeducation for family members about the disorder and facilitates accurate interpretation of the client's behaviour and normalized communication between the client and family members. Specific issues causing conflict and stress can be addressed by the therapist. This will be important for clients who are living with their families, or semi-independently with family support. There is no research cited in the textbook, but reduced misunderstanding and conflict and increased positive family interactions are almost certainly going to have beneficial impact upon symptoms, functioning, relapse rates and quality of life for the whole family.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 10 Eating Disorders Chapter 10 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. With the publication of DSM-5, binge eating disorder has been __________. A) included as a subtype of bulimia nervosa B) included as a residual eating disorders diagnosis C) added to the "Not Otherwise Specified" diagnoses D) included as a standalone eating disorder E) has been moved to the appendix of the manual Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-01 Learning Objective: 10.1: Describe the symptoms of eating disorders and distinguish between anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder, and other specified feeding or eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) included as a standalone eating disorder. 2. An objective food binge is defined by the DSM-5 as eating a __________. A) small amount of food and feeling not in control B) small amount of food in a specific time period C) large amount of food in a specific time period D) normal amount of food in a specific time period E) large amount of food but feeling in control Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-02 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) large amount of food in a specific time period. 3. Which of the following is not an example of a purging behaviour? A) self-induced vomiting. B) laxative abuse. C) abuse of diuretics. D) abuse of enemas. E) abuse of diet soft drinks. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-03 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) abuse of diet soft drinks.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. The "escape from self-awareness model" of bulimia nervosa posits that ___________ offers an escape from __________. A) self-induced vomiting; thoughts and feelings of guilt regarding binge-eating B) binge-eating; thoughts and feelings about perceived failures C) caloric restriction; self-awareness D) use of laxatives; feelings of guilt about over-eating E) binge-eating; guilt regarding purging behaviours Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-04 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) binge-eating; thoughts and feelings about perceived failures 5. Unlike people with anorexia nervosa, individuals with bulimia nervosa __________. A) suffer from social isolation and depression B) engage in compensatory behaviours designed to prevent weight gain C) use weight and shape information as their primary method of self-evaluation D) have low self-esteem E) are typically within the normal weight range Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-05 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) are typically within the normal weight range. 6. Unlike bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder is characterized by __________. A) regular binge eating episodes B) excessive exercise to compensate for eating binges C) excessive use of enemas to compensate for eating binges D) higher functioning and higher self-esteem E) an absence of inappropriate compensatory behaviours after eating binges Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-06 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Conceptual, Factual Answer: E) an absence of inappropriate compensatory behaviours after eating binges. 7. Recent research suggests that since the 1970s, the prevalence of eating disorders __________. A) has increased for all types of eating disorders B) has increased, but only for the 20-30-year-olds C) has decreased among women but increased among men D) has decreased among men but increased among women E) has increased and stabilized, most clearly for anorexia nervosa

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-07 Learning Objective10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: E) has increased and stabilized, most clearly for anorexia nervosa. 8. The incidence of a disorder, such as anorexia nervosa, refers to whereas the prevalence refers to ___________ the __________. A) number of new cases in a given year; number of people who have the condition B) number of people who have the condition; number of new cases in a given year C) number of people who are treated for a condition; number of people believed to have the disorder D) number of people believed to have the disorder; number of people who are treated for a condition E) number of people treated and cured; number of people afflicted by a disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-08 Learning Objective 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Application Answer: A) number of new cases in a given year; number of people who have the condition 9. With regard to the prognosis of eating disorders, __________. A) about 95% of adults with bulimia nervosa are able to stop binge eating and purging with evidencebased treatment B) about half of adults with bulimia nervosa are able to stop binge eating and purging with evidencebased treatment C) all people with bulimia nervosa exhibit some improvement with evidence-based treatment; it is just a question of how much improvement D) when individuals with eating disorders receive treatment, this eliminates their risk of death E) about 10% of people who receive an evidence-based treatment for an eating disorder, relapse Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-09 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: B) About half of adults with bulimia nervosa are able to stop binge eating and purging with evidence-based treatment. 10. ___________ disorders have the highest mortality rates of all of the psychiatric disorders. A) Anxiety B) Substance-related C) Eating D) Psychophysiological E) Mood Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-10 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: C) Eating 11. A study that followed women treated for eating disorders for 9 years found relapse rates of about __________. A) one third B) 25% C) 11% for anorexia and 25% for bulimia D) one half E) 65% Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-11 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: A) one third 12. In the DSM-5, one feature of anorexia nervosa is __________. A) refusal to maintain at least 15% of expected body weight B) refusal to maintain at least 35% of expected body weight C) refusal to maintain at least 90% of expected body weight D) refusal to maintain at least 25% of expected body weight E) Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements leading to a significantly low body weight Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-12 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements leading to a significantly low body weight. 13. May is 16 years old and is afraid of gaining weight and getting fat. May is very dissatisfied with their body and May often tries to lose weight through fad diets and exercise. It would be difficult to determine May’s diagnosis because __________. A) it is hard to determine whether she meets the DSM-5 criterion for restriction of energy intake leading to low body weight B) Susan could have any one of a number of eating disorders C) Susan is still too young to have an eating disorder D) Susan's symptoms are not extreme E) it is difficult to determine whether she is successful at losing weight Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-13 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Application Answer: A) it is hard to determine whether she meets the DSM-5 criterion for restriction of energy intake leading to low body weight.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 14. A person with anorexia nervosa who counts calories and carefully controls what they eat would be considered as having what subtype of anorexia nervosa? A) rigid type B) caloric type C) binge/purge type D) controlling type E) restricting type Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-14 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: E) restricting type 15. What difference is found in the binge/purge type and the restricting type of anorexia nervosa? A) binge eating or purging behaviour B) rigidly controlled diet C) use of laxatives to get rid of unwanted calories D) excessive exercise to burn off calories E) there is no difference between the two subtypes Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-15 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: A) binge eating or purging behaviour 16. Why is the distinction between the two subtypes of anorexia nervosa so important? A) different causes of the two types are known to researchers B) different psychological consequences are associated with the binge/purge type C) the binge/purge subtype is associated with more impulsive behaviour D) poorer long-term prognosis for the binge/purge subtype E) one type tends to affect younger women, and one affects older women Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-16 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: C) the binge/purge subtype is associated with more impulsive behaviour 17. The self-evaluation of individuals with bulimia nervosa is overly influenced by __________. A) body shape B) peers C) social media D) parents E) romantic partners

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-17 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) body shape 18. What does it mean to say that individuals with bulimia nervosa engage in recurrent compensatory behaviour? A) They diet a lot. B) They engage in self-induced vomiting. C) They misuse laxatives, diuretics, or enemas. D) All of the above are recurrent compensatory behaviours. E) Only B and C are recurrent compensatory behaviours. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-18 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Only B and C are recurrent compensatory behaviours. 19. The main difference between binge eating disorder and bulimia nervosa is __________. A) men are generally diagnosed with binge eating disorder and women are diagnosed with bulimia nervosa B) those suffering from binge eating disorder binge more often C) binge eating disorder does not involve a sense of lack of control D) the number of calories consumed per binge is higher in bulimia nervosa E) sufferers of binge eating disorder do not engage in compensatory behaviours Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-19 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: E) sufferers of binge eating disorder do not engage in compensatory behaviours. 20. In the publication of DSM-5, changes were made to reduce Other Specified and Unspecified disorders. Which of the following is not one of those changes? A) Addition of binge eating disorder as a standalone diagnosis. B) A decrease in the threshold needed to meet criteria for bulimia nervosa. C) Removal of the amenorrhea criterion for the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. D) Inclusion of some borderline personality disorder symptoms in the diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa. E) All of these changes were made to the eating and feeding disorders. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 10-1-20 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: D) Inclusion of some borderline personality disorder symptoms in the diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa. 21. One example of a structured interview used to evaluate features and issues related to eating disorders is __________. A) Symptom Checklist 90 B) Beck Depression Inventory C) Eating Disorder Examination D) Eating Disorder Inventory E) Anorexia and Bulimia Checklist Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-21 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Eating Disorder Examination. 22. Lanugo refers to __________. A) the lack of sexual desire among patients with anorexia nervosa B) the fine body hair on people with anorexia nervosa C) the confusion experienced by people with anorexia nervosa as a result of starvation D) electrolyte imbalance E) the yellowish skin tone of patients with anorexia nervosa Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-22 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: B) the fine body hair on people with anorexia nervosa. 23. Self-induced vomiting may also produce __________. A) heightened sensitivity to cold B) dry hair and hair loss C) Russell's sign D) lanugo E) dry skin Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-23 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Russell's sign. 24. There is a relatively high rate of comorbidity in eating disorders, particularly with __________. A) dissociative amnesia B) mild psychotic disorders C) substance, mood, anxiety, and personality disorders D) dissociative and somatoform disorders E) post-traumatic stress disorder

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-24 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: C) substance, mood, anxiety, and personality disorders 25. One complication of studying the symptoms of eating disorders is that they can sometimes overlap with ___________ disorders. A) personality B) dissociative C) arousal and physiological D) somatoform E) psychotic Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-25 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: A) personality 26. Individuals with anorexia and bulimia demonstrate signs of ___________ dysregulation, supporting the role of dysfunctional neurotransmitter activity in eating disorders. A) serotonin B) GABA C) dopamine D) ACH E) melatonin Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-26 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: A) serotonin 27. Evidence suggests that dieting can __________. A) alter brain serotonin function B) increase GABA levels C) diminish norepinephrine D) alter brain dopamine function E) alter overall brain activity Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-27 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: A) alter brain serotonin function.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 28. Although the “ideal” cisgender woman, as depicted by the media, is getting ___________, cisgender women are becoming __________ on average. A) thinner; heavier B) thinner; even more thin C) thinner; thinner D) heavier; thinner E) heavier; heavier Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-28 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: A) thinner; heavier 29. Which of the following is true regarding gender and body dissatisfaction? A) There appears to be an increasing discrepancy between the average cisgender man and the "ideal cisgender man" as depicted in the media. B) Pressure to obtain the ideal body is now about the same across genders. C) Cisgender males are generally not susceptible or sensitive to the effects of media images. D) Cisgender males feel worse about themselves after viewing images of thin cisgender men. E) The average cisgender male is becoming leaner over time, consistent with media images. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-29 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) There appears to be an increasing discrepancy between the average cisgender man and the "ideal cisgender man" as depicted in the media. 30. It has been found that mothers with eating disorders __________. A) are more likely to use food for nutritive purposes than non-disordered mothers B) are more likely to try to prevent the disorder from occurring in their children C) discourage dieting among their children D) do not seem as interested in their children’s weight as non-disordered mothers E) do not feed their children as regularly as non-disordered mothers do Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-30 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: E) do not feed their children as regularly as non-disordered mothers do. 31. That certain personality traits seem to contribute to the development of an eating disorder is supported by the fact that __________. A) these traits tend to disappear following recovery of the eating disorder B) these traits tend to persist before and after an eating disorder has been diagnosed C) these traits are very common in women who suffer from eating disorders D) these traits are very present before the onset of an eating disorder but are not shown after an eating disorder is diagnosed E) these traits are found exclusively in people suffering from an eating disorder 10-9 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-31 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: B) these traits tend to persist before and after an eating disorder has been diagnosed. 32. A study of eating-disordered patients found that ___________ percent of the patients reported being sexually abused. A) 1 B) 10 C) 15 D) 20 E) 59 Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 10-1-32 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: E) 59 33. Research evidence suggests that history of exposure to trauma is more frequently associated with development of an eating disorder that involves __________. A) binge eating B) purging C) caloric restriction only D) control methods only, including caloric restriction and exercise E) binge eating and purging Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-33 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: E) binge eating and purging 34. According to Stice's review of the literature on risk factors for eating disorders, which of the following is NOT a vulnerability factor for eating pathology? A) precocious sexual development B) increased body mass C) internalization of the thin ideal D) sociocultural pressure to be thin E) body dissatisfaction Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-34 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) precocious sexual development

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 35. Estimates are that for every cisgender male who is diagnosed with an eating disorder, there are ___________ cisgender females with these disorders A) 4-5 B) 20-25 C) 10-15 D) 8-10 E) 2-3 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-35 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: C) 10-15 36. Which of the following is NOT true concerning gender and eating disorders? A) The main features of anorexia and bulimia are similar across genders. B) Cisgender male patients are treated more effectively if separated from cisgender female patients. C) It does not appear as though the symptomatology of eating disorders differs across genders. D) Cisgender males with eating disorders exhibit much more psychiatric comorbidity than do cisgender females. E) The treatment response of patients across genders is similar. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-36 Learning Objective 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Cisgender male patients are treated more effectively if separated from cisgender female patients. 37. Within non-clinical populations, there is evidence that __________. A) cisgender males are more likely to perceive themselves as overweight B) cisgender males are more likely to be on diets C) cisgender females are more satisfied with their weight than are cisgender males D) cisgender males are disproportionately affected by weight and shape concerns E) cisgender males would like to increase their weight, whereas cisgender females would like to lose weight Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-37 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) cisgender males would like to increase their weight, whereas cisgender females would like to lose weight. 38. Which of the following was removed as a diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa? A) amenorrhea. B) intense fear of gaining weight. C) disturbance in the experience of one’s shape/weight. D) significantly low body weight for age/sex/development/health. E) restriction of intake. 10-11 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-38 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) amenorrhea. 39. Bulimia nervosa has been treated with ___________ medication with some success. A) antipsychotic B) antidepressant C) bicyclic D) antianxiety E) St. John's Wort Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-39 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) antidepressant 40. Which of the following is true with respect to biological treatments for anorexia nervosa? A) No medication for treating anorexia nervosa has been successful B) Anti-anxiety medication is successful in treating many of the symptoms C) Antipsychotic medication is successful in treating many of the symptoms D) Herbal remedies are mildly effective at treating the symptoms E) Antidepressant medication is successful in treating many of the symptoms Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 10-1-40 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) No medication for treating anorexia nervosa has been successful 41. The goal of the first stage of cognitive-behaviour therapy for bulimia involves which of the following? A) convincing the patient to accept medication as the primary treatment so that therapy can follow B) focusing on strategies for maintaining change and preventing relapse C) a focus on establishing a regular pattern of eating D) identifying and modifying dysfunctional thoughts and beliefs E) establishing healthier ways of limiting calories intake Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 10-1-41 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) a focus on establishing a regular pattern of eating

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 42. Interpersonal therapy for eating disorders differs from cognitive-behaviour therapy in which of the following ways? A) It does not directly target eating disorder attitudes and behaviours. B) It focuses on identifying and modifying dysfunctional thoughts and beliefs. C) It encourages the patient to use self-monitoring to help normalize their eating. D) It uses psychoeducation about normalized eating. E) It teaches problem-solving skills. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-42 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) It does not directly target eating disorder attitudes and behaviours. 43. In studies that compared interpersonal therapy with CBT, it was found that __________. A) interpersonal therapy produced effects equal to CBT at follow up, but CBT was better at the conclusion of treatment B) interpersonal therapy produced long term effects equal to CBT and was equally as good at the conclusion of treatment C) interpersonal therapy worked much more quickly than did CBT D) interpersonal therapy produced effects inferior to CBT but was better at the conclusion of treatment E) interpersonal therapy produced effects that were inferior to CBT Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-43 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) interpersonal therapy produced effects equal to CBT at follow up, but CBT was better at the conclusion of treatment. 44. Research has shown that the most effective type of treatment for bulimia nervosa is __________. A) SSRIs B) interpersonal therapy C) group therapy D) cognitive-behavioural therapy E) supportive psychotherapy Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-44 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) cognitive-behavioural therapy. 45. Probably the most important first step in the treatment of anorexia nervosa is __________. A) family therapy B) nutritional management C) interpersonal therapy D) individual psychotherapy E) forced feeding 10-13 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-45 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: B) nutritional management. 46. One therapy that has received some empirical support in the treatment of anorexia nervosa is ___________ therapy. A) cognitive-behavioural B) interpersonal C) pharmacological D) family E) nutritional Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-46 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) family 47. Family therapy for eating disorders appears to have greater effectiveness for __________. A) adults B) adolescents C) males D) females E) all patients Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-47 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) adolescents 48. The Maudsley approach initially attempts to focus on __________. A) distorted body image B) overcontrolling mothers C) excessive exercise D) weight gain and eating E) binge eating and purging Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-48 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) weight gain and eating

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 49. Self-help manuals are used in all of the following ways, EXCEPT __________. A) to provide access to treatment to those who might not otherwise have access to treatment for eating disorders B) in conjunction with guidance by a non-specialist professional such as a nurse or family doctor C) as the first step in a stepped care approach D) to assist individuals who have not responded to a full course of CBT E) for administration to patients on waiting lists for intensive treatment Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-49 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) to assist individuals who have not responded to a full course of CBT. 50. Prevention programs aim to reduce the incidence of eating disorders primarily by __________. A) behaviorally reinforcing healthy eating practices B) reducing the incidence of depressogenic cognitions in high-risk populations C) providing counseling support for incidents that could trigger ED-related behaviors D) educating children about the dangers of purging E) decreasing internalization of the cultural ideal Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-50 Learning Objective: 10.6: Describe the findings of research on eating disorder prevention programs. Skill: Factual Answer: E) decreasing internalization of the cultural ideal 51. ARFID resembles anorexia nervosa in some ways, with a primary difference being that __________. A) individuals with ARFID do not have a distorted perception of their body weight or shape B) individuals with ARFID are often overweight C) individuals with ARFID are underweight but do not restrict their dietary intake D) individuals with ARFID are children (i.e., under age 18) E) ARFID is a subtype of anorexia nervosa Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-51 Learning Objective: 10.1: Describe the symptoms of eating disorders and distinguish between anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder, and other specified feeding or eating disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) individuals with ARFID do not have a distorted perception of their body weight or shape. 52. What is the difference between an objective binge and a subjective binge? A) the frequency of binge episodes B) the type of food eating in the binge C) the amount of food eaten D) the speed at which the food is eaten E) the nutritional value of the food eaten

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-52 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) the amount of food eaten. 53. Tyler has just eaten two pieces of buttered toast and an apple and felt unable to stop themselves from eating. What would best characterize Tyler’s experience? A) an objective binge episode B) a purging episode C) dietary restraint D) depersonalization E) a subjective binge episode Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-53 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Application Answer: E) a subjective binge episode. 54. Which of the following is not a method of purging? A) laxative use B) excessive exercise C) fasting D) self-induced vomiting E) excessive water intake Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-1-54 Learning Objective: 10.1: Describe the symptoms of eating disorders and distinguish between anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder, and other specified feeding or eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) excessive water intake. 55. What is the mortality rate of anorexia nervosa? A) 3.6%-7.6%. B) 2%-5%. C) 1.1%-2.4%. D) 1.5%-5.8%. E) 5%-10%. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-1-55 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: A) 3.6%-7.6%.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 10 - True/False Questions 1. In the Middle Ages, refusal to eat and fear of gaining weight were looked down upon and were associated with witchcraft. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-56 Learning Objective: 10.1: Describe the symptoms of eating disorders and distinguish between anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder, and other specified feeding or eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 2. Bulimia nervosa was first identified and named in the 1970s. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-57 Learning Objective: 10.1: Describe the symptoms of eating disorders and distinguish between anorexia nervosa, bulimia nervosa, binge-eating disorder, and other specified feeding or eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 3. People with anorexia nervosa usually develop a list of "forbidden" foods. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-58 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 4. People with anorexia nervosa do not engage in purging behaviour to maintain weight-loss. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-59 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 5. The disturbance in body image observed in anorexia nervosa is often linked to low self-esteem. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-60 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 6. People with bulimia nervosa are typically within the normal weight range. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-61 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 7. Social withdrawal, irritability, preoccupation with food, and depression appear to be effects rather than causes of anorexia. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-62 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 8. Anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa are similar in that both involve weight and shape as a primary source of self-evaluation, have low self-esteem, and involve some type of behaviour aimed at controlling weight. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-63 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 9. Binge eating disorder has been introduced in DSM-5 as an eating disorder requiring further study. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-64 Learning Objective: 10.2: Distinguish between the physical/biological factors that are thought to contribute to the development of eating disorders and those that are thought to be a consequence of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 10. Regardless of the type of treatment used, relapse is common in the case of anorexia nervosa. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-65 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 11. Body dissatisfaction is more central to the diagnosis of bulimia than to anorexia. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-66 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 12. Some researchers believe that binge eating disorder is really a subtype of bulimia. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-67 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 13. Purging behaviour in anorexia or bulimia is believed to constitute more severe pathology than other forms of these eating disorders. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-68 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 14. Major depressive disorder can involve severe weight loss or over-eating but will NOT include over-concern regarding weight or inappropriate compensatory behaviours. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-69 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 15. Many individuals with eating disorders move from one diagnostic category to another, and even back again, across time. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-70 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 16. The Eating Disorder Examination has been found to have poor reliability and validity. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-71 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 17. Individuals who binge eat are less likely to exhibit comorbid substance abuse. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-72 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: b. False 18. Reduced serotonin transporter density has been associated with BOTH anorexia and bulimia. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-73 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 19. The neurotransmitter dopamine has been shown to be related to eating disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-74 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 20. Cisgender men are more likely than cisgender women to be affected by media images of the ideal body type. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-75 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 21. Perfectionism is a personality trait found in patients with eating disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-76 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 22. Impulsivity is associated with anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-77 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 23. Chronic dieters are at significant risk of developing an eating disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-78 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 24. Few sufferers of eating disorders have reported early sexual abuse. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-79 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 25. Eating disorders may develop among individuals from diverse ethnicities, gender identities, and sexualities. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-80 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 26. Both older tricyclics and newer serotonin reuptake inhibitors have been shown to be highly successful in the long-term treatment of bulimia. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-2-81 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: b. False 27. Interpersonal therapy has shown similar long-term outcome results as cognitive- behavioral therapy in the treatment of bulimia nervosa. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-2-82 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Chapter 10 - Essay Questions 1. List and briefly describe the DSM-5 criteria for the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-3-83 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for anorexia nervosa includes: 1) Restriction of energy intake relative to requirements, leading to a significantly low body weight in the context of age, developmental trajectory, sex, etc. The DSM-5 defines significantly low weight as weight that is less than minimally normal/minimally expected. 2) Intense fear of gaining weight or becoming fat, or persistent behaviour that interferes with gaining weight, even when at a significantly low weight. 3) Disturbance in the experience of body weight and shape, sense of self-worth highly influenced by body weight and shape, and denial/lack of recognition of the serious consequences of low body weight. 2. Compare and contrast the two subtypes of anorexia nervosa. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-3-84 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: DSM-5 subtypes anorexia nervosa into the restricting type and the binge eating/purging type. Approximately half of individuals with a diagnosis of anorexia belong to either subtype. In the restricting type, low weight is maintained by a rigidly controlled diet and a very low intake of food. In the binge eating/purging type, restraint breaks down regularly and binge eating occurs. Self-induced vomiting, abuse of laxatives, diuretics, and enemas are used to maintain low body weight and to rid the body of calories. In both subtypes, excessive exercise is used to burn off unwanted calories. Although both subtypes are in the same diagnostic category, the distinction between them is important for treatment purposes. There is evidence that the binge-purge subtype is associated with more impulsive behaviours, such as substance abuse, self-mutilation, and suicidal ideation. Treatment outcome studies have shown that the binge-purge subtype has a poorer long-term prognosis.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 3. Describe the DSM-5 criteria for bulimia nervosa and specify the two subtypes. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-3-85 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for bulimia nervosa are: 1) Recurrent episodes of binge eating. Binge eating is characterized by a) The amount of food consumed in a set period of time must definitely be larger than what most people would eat in a similar period under similar circumstances. b) a feeling of being out of control over eating (the person feels that they cannot stop eating or cannot control what they are eating). 2) Recurrent compensatory behaviour to prevent weight gain (i.e., self-induced vomiting, use of laxatives, diuretics, or enemas, fasting, or excessive exercise). Those who use mainly vomiting or laxatives, etc. to prevent weight gain are classified as the purging sub-type, while those who fast or exercise to excess are classified as the non-purging sub-type. 3) The binge eating and compensatory behaviours must occur, on average, at least once a week for three months. 4) The person's self-evaluations must be unduly influenced by concerns about body- weight and shape. Body image disturbance consists of a perceptual as well as an attitudinal component (body image distortion and body image dissatisfaction). 5) The disturbance must not occur exclusively during episodes of anorexia nervosa. 4. What is DSM-5 binge eating disorder? Should binge eating disorder be a standalone disorder? Why or why not? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-3-86 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: Binge eating disorder (BED) was once a condition for further study, and in DSM-5 is an official standalone diagnosis. As in bulimia nervosa, BED involves recurrent episodes of binge eating; however, a critical difference is that it does not involve inappropriate compensatory behaviour to "make up" for the binge eating. The DSM-5 provides considerable detail regarding the features of a binge in BED: eating rapidly; eating until it causes physical discomfort; eating large amounts of food even when not hungry; eating alone due to shame/embarrassment; feelings of disgust, depression or guilt following binge eating. The episodes of binge eating have to have occurred on average once per week for at least 3 months. Some researchers think that BED should be classed as a subtype of bulimia nervosa; however, there are enough data to suggest that BED should be a separate disorder based on distinct features (e.g., notable psychopathology). 5. Discuss the medical consequences of eating disorders. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 10-3-87 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Factual Answer: Eating disorders have various serious medical consequences. Due to starvation, the skin of anorexic patients becomes yellowish in colour, and they grow fine body hair called lanugo. Eatingdisorder patients who purge by vomiting develop serious dental problems due to the acidic content from 10-24 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e the stomach. Dehydration occurs, particularly in those who purge, causing dry skin and hair. As well, the purging depletes the body of potassium and chloride, leading to electrolyte imbalance. Electrolyte imbalance affects renal, bowel, and brain functioning, as well as cardio-vascular functioning. Gastrointestinal problems are common; vomiting can cause a swelling of the salivary glands, perforations of the esophageal area and delayed gastric emptying can occur, constipation is common, especially in those who abuse laxatives. Gastric dilation may occur in those who binge eat and purge, which can result in rupture of the stomach and spillage into the body cavity. This occurrence is often fatal. Amenorrhea (failure to menstruate) or irregular menstruation is common, particularly in those with anorexia. Males with anorexia nervosa often suffer a loss of sexual interest and potency. Finally, eating disorders (anorexia nervosa in particular) are associated with osteoporosis (bone loss) due to lack of calcium and low calcium absorption. 6. Using the Keys study as an example, discuss how several of the symptoms of food restriction/semi-starvation are the same as those found in individuals with eating disorders. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 10-3-88 Learning Objective: 10.3: Identify the prevalence of eating disorders and illustrate how their prevalence has changed over time. Skill: Application Answer: The majority of cases of eating disorders are preceded by restrictive dieting. Keys et al.'s (1950) study showed that there are many similarities between people placed on a semi-starvation diet and those with eating disorders. Keys placed 36 young men on a diet of half the calories they normally consumed (around 1200) and they lost around 25 percent of their body weight. After 3 months, they were re-fed and permitted to regain weight. During the weight loss period, the men became obsessed with food, and experienced intense hunger and cravings. During the re-feeding period, the men often engaged in binge eating and had abnormal eating patterns. These men also experienced depression, anger, irritability, and suffered social problems. Individuals with eating disorders often experience similar symptoms of low selfesteem, depressed mood, feelings of failure, and stress. 7. The textbook highlights that without prospective longitudinal studies, it can be challenging to distinguish between causes and consequences of eating disorders. Discuss this problem using two examples to illustrate. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 10-3-89 Learning Objective: 10.4: Outline the primary etiological factors that are involved in eating disorder symptomatology. Skill: Conceptual Answer: When studying factors that may be involved in the etiology of an eating disorder, researchers typically study people who already have an eating disorder. This is an issue as malnutrition and dysregulated eating can produce biological and psychological changes that make it difficult to determine whether abnormalities were there to begin with, or emerged secondary to changes in eating. For example, in an experiment designed to examine the effects of temporary semi-starvation and re-feeding, Keys found that participants (who did not have an eating disorder) displayed many of the same physical and psychological "symptoms" that individuals with eating disorders report and show e.g., body hair, changes in body mass, preoccupation with food, personality changes. So, many of the features of eating disorder populations e.g., comorbid personality pathology may be epiphenomenal to eating disorder behaviours, rather than causal. As another example, there is considerable interest in serotonin dysregulation/abnormalities and their role in eating disorders. In most studies, people with eating disorders are compared with healthy controls on serotonin functioning to determine whether a biological causal factor may be at play. However, here again, causal direction cannot be ascertained, as low weight and malnutrition can give rise to serotonin abnormalities. For these reasons, prospective longitudinal studies are needed. 10-25 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 8. Briefly describe pharmacotherapy and CBT for bulimia nervosa. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 10-3-90 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Many well-controlled treatment outcome studies for bulimia nervosa have been conducted. The two treatments that have received the most attention are anti-depressant medication and cognitivebehavioural therapy. Both older tricyclics (such as imipramine) and serotonin reuptake inhibitors (such as fluoxetine) have been found to relieve symptoms significantly more than placebo. However, these outcome studies tend to be short-term, and evidence suggests that there is a high relapse rate, particularly after medication is discontinued. Cognitive-behavioural therapy has received much empirical support. The first phase of treatment emphasizes educating patients about the disorder and interrupting the binge- purge cycle. Patients learn to normalize eating in order to reduce hunger. During the second phase of treatment, patients are taught to challenge their negative thoughts regarding body image. The third phase of treatment focuses on coping, problem-solving, and relapse prevention. Cognitive-behavioural therapy has been shown to be more effective than antidepressant medication, behavioural treatment, supportive psychotherapy, and stress-management therapy. 9. Research presented in the chapter suggests a shift in the “ideal” cisgender female body presented by the media, such that the cisgender women presented are now extremely thin AND extremely toned (Grogan, 2008). Homan (2010) found that internalizing the athletic ideal predicted change in compulsive exercise whereas internalizing the thin ideal predicted changes in exercise, body dissatisfaction and dieting. State the main points of an integrative, or biopsychosocial etiological model and discuss the results of Homan (2010) in terms of an integrative model: how might such a shift in the media change eating disorders? Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 10-3-91 Learning Objective: 10.5: Compare and contrast biological treatment (i.e., medication), cognitivebehavioural therapy, family-based therapy, and interpersonal therapy in the treatment of eating disorders. Skill: Integration, Application Answer: The biopsychosocial model posits that eating disorders are multifactorial and that no single factor would produce an eating disorder in an individual. Biological predispositions (genetic, hormonal, pubertal), psychological factors (self-esteem, personality variables), socio-cultural factors (e.g., relationship and abuse history, standard and social media, peer social processes, family factors, social pressures to be thin) interact to produce the conditions where an eating disorder is likely to develop – for example an adolescent dieter with low self-esteem and affective instability. This shift in media presentation of the “ideal cisgender female" introduces a change in socio-cultural factors. The extent to which this shift will be received, incorporated, and transmitted remains to be seen and if we assume it will be perpetuated, the nature and extent of the impact upon vulnerable persons is hard to predict. The new "ideal cisgender woman" may impact a slightly different group of vulnerable persons (e.g., persons who are thin but not toned); it may affect already-vulnerable persons with an additional standard, giving rise to additional dysfunctional behaviours; or it may steer vulnerable persons toward certain weight- controlling behaviours (e.g., excessive exercise) over others (e.g., purging; caloric restriction). This socio-cultural factor will interact with other factors in unpredictable ways, resulting in several possible changes in the phenomenology of eating disorders.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 11 Substance-Related and Addictive Disorders Chapter 11 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. The first alcohol consumed by humans was __________. A) wine B) beer C) vodka D) mead E) spirits Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-01 Learning Objective: 11.1: Explain how addictive disorders are defined and diagnosed. Skill: Factual Answer: D) mead. 2. Alcohol was widely consumed by the Europeans in part because __________. A) alcoholism was widespread across Europe B) it made colonizing North and South America an easier task C) it was believed to have beneficial health effects D) they wanted North American aboriginals to engage in self-destructive activities E) the quality of the drinking water was quite poor Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-02 Learning Objective: 11.1: Explain how addictive disorders are defined and diagnosed. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) the quality of the drinking water was quite poor. 3. Problems in relationships, missing work, failing exams, putting yourself or others in danger: These could all be consequences of __________. A) habituation B) substance intoxication C) tolerance D) substance use disorder E) substance dependence Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-03 Learning Objective: 11.1: Explain how addictive disorders are defined and diagnosed. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) substance use disorder. 4. Tolerance is best defined as __________. A) a need for increased amounts of a substance in order to achieve previous effects B) a lack of control over the use of a substance C) physiological changes in the body due to use of a substance D) being accustomed to a substance due to regular usage E) a reversible and temporary condition that results from substance use 11-1 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-04 Learning Objective: 11.1: Explain how addictive disorders are defined and diagnosed. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) a need for increased amounts of a substance in order to achieve previous effects. 5. Nausea, headache, and tremors are all withdrawal symptoms and may be caused by the __________. A) removal of the substance from the body B) ingestion of several different substances at one time C) when a substance loses its addictive qualities D) ingestion of too much alcohol E) body's attempt to fight a foreign substance in the bloodstream Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-05 Learning Objective: 11.1: Explain how addictive disorders are defined and diagnosed. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) removal of the substance from the body. 6. Sylvia finds that having a few drinks doesn't really affect her very much, but she got extremely dizzy and nauseous after drinking wine when taking an aspirin. These effects resulted because __________. A) the combination of the two substances had a greater effect than one alone B) Sylvia hadn't yet developed a tolerance for the drugs C) Sylvia was displaying withdrawal symptoms D) Sylvia had forgotten to eat before drinking E) Sylvia was exhibiting an impairment of control Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-06 Learning Objective: 11.1: Explain how addictive disorders are defined and diagnosed. Skill: Application Answer: A) the combination of the two substances had a greater effect than one alone. 7. Synergistic effects occur when __________. A) combined drug effects are different or greater than the sum of their individual effects B) drug effects are greater when combined with alcohol C) combined drug effects last longer than the sum of their individual effects D) the risk of addiction is greater when a drug is taken with alcohol E) a drug's effect is neutralized when taken together with another drug Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-07 Learning Objective: 11.1: Explain how addictive disorders are defined and diagnosed. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) combined drug effects are different or greater than the sum of their individual effects.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 8. According to a recent survey, approximately ___________ of every 5 Canadians reported drinking alcohol in the previous year. A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-08 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: D) 4 9. The majority of people who have reported drinking can be categorized as ___________ drinkers. A) light frequent B) light infrequent C) heavy infrequent D) moderate frequent E) heavy frequent Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-09 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada Skill: Factual Answer: B) light infrequent 10. In a recent survey of Ontario high school students, high-risk drinking was reported by _____% of respondents. A) 75 B) 20 C) 5 D) 50 E) Less than 1 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-10 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada Skill: Factual Answer: B) 20 11. Al’s friend bought them a drink, and told them that it contained alcohol, even though it didn't. However, after drinking several of these "fake cocktails," Al began to feel more relaxed, sociable, and sexually attractive. These effects were probably most influenced by __________. A) Al's evening out with her friend B) the fact that Susan's friend lied to her C) Al's beliefs about the effects of alcohol D) Al not feeling very well E) the atmosphere of the bar

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-11 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Application Answer: C) Al's beliefs about the effects of alcohol. 12. Research into the perceived effects of alcohol consumption has shown that __________. A) perceived and actual effects appear unrelated B) physiological arousal and aggressive behaviour are inversely related to the perceived amount of alcohol consumed C) most people can tell the difference between the perceived and actual effects of alcohol D) subjects behave more aggressively and report more sexual arousal when they believed they have consumed alcohol E) subjects who drank an alcoholic beverage without knowing it reported less sexual arousal, even though physiological measures showed arousal Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-12 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: D) subjects behave more aggressively and report more sexual arousal when they believed they have consumed alcohol. 13. Which of the following statements is true regarding the absorption of alcohol? A) Most alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream from the large intestine. B) Alcohol is generally absorbed by fatty tissues in the body. C) Most alcohol passes directly into the blood from the stomach. D) Alcohol requires digestion to enter the bloodstream. E) Most alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream from the small intestine. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-13 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Most alcohol is absorbed into the bloodstream from the small intestine. 14. The removal of alcohol from the body is NOT dependent upon __________. A) the proportion of body fat B) the amount of alcohol dehydrogenase in the body C) rate of alcoholic intake D) the amount of food one consumes prior to drinking E) whether a person is male or female Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-14 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: D) the amount of food one consumes prior to drinking. 11-4 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 15. Alcohol is a(n) ___________ but the initial effect of alcohol is __________. A) hallucinogen; depressing B) stimulant; relaxing C) depressant; stimulating D) stimulant; depressing E) depressant; relaxing Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-15 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: C) depressant; stimulating 16. Mohammed is of average size and weight. In order for him to maintain a constant BAL, he should consume no more than __________. A) 1 drink every five hours B) 1 drink every hour C) 5 drinks in one night D) 1 drink every two hours E) 2 drinks per hour Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-16 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Application Answer: D) 1 drink every two hours. 17. Alcohol begins to affect driving ability at a BAL of __________. A) .05 B) .03 C) .01 D) .10 E) .08 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-17 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: A).05. 18. Hangover symptoms such as upset stomach, fatigue, headache, and thirst can be remedied by __________. A) vegetable juice B) rest and time C) coffee and cigarettes D) more alcohol E) a bowl of cereal

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-18 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: B) rest and time. 19. Moderate consumption of alcohol has been related to __________. A) lower incidence of coronary heart disease B) liver damage C) cancer D) malnutrition E) damage to the heart muscle Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-19 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: A) lower incidence of coronary heart disease. 20. The two brain regions most damaged by heavy alcohol use are __________. A) limbic system and medulla B) cerebral cortex and hippocampus C) basal ganglia and cerebellum D) thalamus and hypothalamus E) septum and amygdala Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-20 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: D) thalamus and hypothalamus. 21. Moderate alcohol consumption is associated with ___________ whereas heavy alcohol use has been associated with __________. A) temporary enhancement of the heart muscle and vascular system functionality; damage to the cardiovascular system B) moderately elevated risk of heart disease; damage to heart muscle and vascular system C) reduced risk of heart disease; damage to the heart muscle and vascular system D) mildly elevated blood pressure; dangerous suppression of the cardiovascular system E) mildly elevated risk of heart disease; damage to the heart muscle and vascular system Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-21 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: C) reduced risk of heart disease; damage to the heart muscle and vascular system

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 22. Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is a disease characterized by memory loss and a loss of contact with reality and results from __________. A) cardiomyopathy B) cell loss in the brain C) liver damage D) alcohol dependence E) severe malnutrition Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-22 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: B) cell loss in the brain. 23. In a general survey conducted by Statistics Canada regarding whether drinking had adversely affected people's lives in several areas, it was found that __________. A) the majority of problems involved work or school B) the number one problem concerned personal happiness C) men and women were equally as likely to report drinking-related problems D) youths were most likely to report legal violations related to drinking E) most problems were related to health, finance, and friendships Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-23 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: E) most problems were related to health, finance, and friendships. 24. Which groups represent the greatest number of alcohol-related causes of death? A) motor vehicle accidents, cancer of the liver, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome B) motor vehicle accidents, cancer of the stomach, heart attack C) cirrhosis of the liver, Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, cancer D) motor vehicle accidents, cirrhosis of the liver, suicide E) accidental shootings, cancer of the mouth, suicide Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-24 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: D) motor vehicle accidents, cirrhosis of the liver, suicide 25. According to statistics reported in Canada in 2002, which substance was associated with the greatest direct health care costs? A) cannabis B) alcohol C) cocaine D) tobacco E) ecstasy

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-25 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: D) tobacco 26. In terms of the genetic influences in the development of alcohol use disorders, it has been shown that __________. A) most offspring of people with alcohol use disorders develop these disorders as well B) the enzyme necessary for breaking down alcohol is not present in those with alcohol use disorders C) the brains of people with alcohol use disorders contain a gene that influences the sensitivity of dopamine receptors to alcohol D) Individuals who are prone to alcohol use disorders have a specific abnormality on chromosome 10 E) the concordance rate for monozygotic twins is generally higher than it is for dizygotic twins Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 11-1-26 Learning Objective: 11.3: Understand and describe the etiology of addiction. Skill: Factual Answer: E) the concordance rate for monozygotic twins is generally higher than it is for dizygotic twins. 27. According to the Canadian Substance Use Costs and Harms Scientific Working Group (2020), alcohol use costs Canadians ________ a year in increased health care. A) $3.2 billion B) $16.6 million C) $3.2 million D) $10 billion E) $16.6 billion Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-27 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: E) $16.6 billion 28. If you were a physician examining the brain wave activity of people with alcohol use disorder, non-problem drinkers, and their children, you would likely find that __________. A) children of alcoholic-dependent parents show smaller P300 amplitudes than do children of nonalcoholic parents B) children of alcohol-dependent fathers show higher than normal rates of theta waves C) children of alcohol-dependent fathers show higher than normal rates of alpha waves D) children of alcohol-dependent parents show larger P300 amplitudes than do children of non-alcoholic fathers E) children of alcohol-dependent fathers have lower than normal rates of beta waves Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 11-1-28 Learning Objective: 11.3: Understand and describe the etiology of addiction. Skill: Factual, Conceptual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: A) children of alcoholic-dependent parents show smaller P300 amplitudes than do children of non-alcoholic parents. 29. Which of the following statements is true regarding markers of vulnerability to alcohol? A) Men with alcohol-dependent relatives tend to show an increased heart rate after consuming alcohol. B) MAO activity is higher in alcohol-dependent persons. C) Children of alcohol-dependent fathers have lower than normal rates of the fast beta wave. D) High levels of serotonin have been associated with impulsivity, aggressiveness, and antisocial behaviour. E) Men who show the greatest increases in heart rate are less inclined to drink regularly. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-29 Learning Objective: 11.3: Understand and describe the etiology of addiction. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Men with alcohol-dependent relatives tend to show an increased heart rate after consuming alcohol. 30. The personality characteristic most strongly associated with alcohol use disorders is __________. A) psychoticism B) negative emotionality C) perfectionism D) introversion E) behavioural disinhibition Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-30 Learning Objective: 11.3: Understand and describe the etiology of addiction. Skill: Factual Answer: E) behavioural disinhibition. 31. Using animal models, Siegel and others demonstrated that through the principles of ___________, cues in the environment can become conditioned stimuli to the effects of drug use. A) psychoticism. B) negative emotionality. C) classical conditioning. D) operant conditioning. E) positive reinforcement. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-31 Learning Objective: 11.3: Understand and describe the etiology of addiction. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) classical conditioning.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 32. Which of the following statements support the alcohol expectancy theory? A) A person drinks a lot because they believe it will put them in a better mood, even though they actually become more aggressive. B) Adolescents are unaffected by positive expectancies of alcohol effects. C) Both alcohol-dependent and nonalcohol dependent individuals drink less when they believe their drinks contain alcohol. D) Non-problem drinkers are more likely to believe that alcohol will have a positive effect. E) Alcohol-dependent and heavy social drinkers are more likely to believe that alcohol will have a negative effect. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-32 Learning Objective: 11.3: Understand and describe the etiology of addiction. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) A person drinks a lot because they believe it will put them in a better mood, even though they actually become more aggressive. 33. Given the behavioural tolerance effect of drug use, a person with an addiction might be most severely impaired when drinking __________. A) with their friends at the bar that they frequent once a week B) at a house that they have never been to before C) home alone where they always drink D) at night when they watch television E) at an office party Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 11-1-33 Learning Objective: 11.3: Understand and describe the etiology of addiction. Skill: Application, Conceptual Answer: B) at a house that they have never been to before. 34. Certain patient characteristics have been found to predict success with non-abstinence treatment programs for alcohol. Which of the following is NOT one of those characteristics? A) younger age. B) older age. C) employment. D) being female. E) having a stronger belief in one's ability to moderate drinking. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-34 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Application, Conceptual Answer: B) older age. 35. What is the main goal of the Minnesota model for the treatment of alcohol dependence? A) abstinence B) changing the expectations drinkers have about alcohol's effects C) controlled drinking D) treating the withdrawal symptoms E) educating people about the consequences of alcohol abuse

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-35 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: A) abstinence 36. Medications are sometimes used in the treatment of alcohol use disorders, mainly to __________. A) reduce the impact of the stressors that are causing people to drink in the first place B) decrease feelings of nausea when alcohol is consumed C) counter the effects of malnutrition caused by drinking excessively D) ease the negative effects of hangovers E) reduce the pleasurable feelings that result from drinking Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-36 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: E) reduce the pleasurable feelings that result from drinking. 37. Rico has alcohol use disorder, and even though he sometimes tries to quit, he craves alcohol and feels better after drinking it. His doctor has prescribed Naltrexone to help him abstain from alcohol. How does this medication work? A) It blocks the neurotransmitters that mediate alcohol's effects on the brain. B) It reduces the positive expectations of alcohol. C) It blocks the action of the enzyme that metabolizes alcohol, making the individual sick. D) It acts to mimic the effects of alcohol, thus making withdrawal more bearable. E) It reduces some of the tendencies associated with certain personality characteristics that lead to drinking. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-37 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Application Answer: A) It blocks the neurotransmitters that mediate alcohol's effects on the brain. 38. Antabuse is successful at reducing alcohol use because __________. A) it increases the amount of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase in the body B) it makes people feel better without having to drink C) compliance is generally not a problem D) it changes positive cognitions about alcohol's effects to negative ones E) it causes many unpleasant physiological effects when a person drinks Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-38 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) it causes many unpleasant physiological effects when a person drinks. 11-11 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 39. Alcoholics Anonymous is __________. A) a religious group that condemns the use of alcohol B) one of the best-known approaches to the treatment of alcoholism C) an intensive, short-term support group for alcohol-dependent persons D) a treatment program based on psychodynamic principles E) a treatment group, consisting of alcohol-dependent persons at different stages, run by a therapist who was a former alcoholic Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-39 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: B) one of the best-known approaches to the treatment of alcoholism. 40. The treatment philosophy of Alcoholics Anonymous is based on a ___________ model and the treatment goal is __________. A) personal; support B) disease; abstinence C) physical; somatic D) mental; education E) psychosocial; abstinence Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-40 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: B) disease; abstinence 41. The twelve steps that define AA indicate that __________. A) that alcohol-dependent individuals are powerless to control drinking and must rely on a Higher Power B) alcohol-dependent individuals can follow these steps on their own and eventually quit drinking C) success depends on social support D) alcohol use disorders can be cured if meetings are attended regularly E) alcohol-dependent individuals must attend mass regularly in conjunction with AA meetings Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-41 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) that alcohol-dependent individuals are powerless to control drinking and must rely on a Higher Power. 42. The ___________ hypothesis, that drinking is reinforced by its ability to reduce unpleasant emotions has received ___________ support in the research literature. A) tension reduction; inconsistent B) tension reduction; strong C) positive reinforcement; inconsistent D) positive reinforcement; moderate E) contingency-expectancy; modest

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-42 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: A) tension reduction; inconsistent 43. Consistent with the notion of ___________, Farah finds that they use ________ heroin at home compared with when they are visiting the home of a new friend. A) tension reduction; less B) behavioural tolerance; more C) negative reinforcement; more D) behavioural tolerance; less E) tension reduction; more Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-43 Learning Objective: 11.3: Understand and describe the etiology of addiction. Skill: Factual Answer: B) behavioural tolerance; more 44. Classical conditioning approaches to the treatment of alcoholism generally __________. A) focus on the thought and attitudes of alcohol-dependent persons B) attempt to associate alcohol with unpleasant stimuli C) assume that alcohol use disorder is a disease D) follow the philosophy of Alcoholics Anonymous E) use contingency management Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-44 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: B) attempt to associate alcohol with unpleasant stimuli. 45. Operant conditioning approaches to treatment of alcohol use disorders are based on ___________ and can be used with the goal(s) of __________. A) aversion therapy; complete abstinence B) contingency management; complete abstinence C) contingency management; complete abstinence or moderated drinking D) differential reinforcement; responsible drinking behavior E) aversion therapy and differential reinforcement; responsible drinking behavior Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-45 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: C) contingency management; complete abstinence or moderated drinking

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 46. Behavioural treatments such as the Community Reinforcement approach use which of the following strategies for treating alcoholism? A) Enforcing controlled drinking B) Teaching a family member or a friend to reinforce sobriety C) Punishing the person with alcoholism with community work when they fail to abstain D) Pairing alcohol with an unpleasant stimulus E) Increasing communication between families and partners Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-46 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) Teaching a family member or a friend to reinforce sobriety 47. In relapse prevention treatment, people are taught that a relapse is __________. A) an indication of a severe drinking problem that requires more intense therapy B) an indication of a brain abnormality underlying the problem C) a temporary occurrence brought on by a specific situation, from which a person can recover D) a sign that the addiction to alcohol is probably not treatable E) a failure to cope with the problems of alcoholism Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-47 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: C) a temporary occurrence brought on by a specific situation, from which a person can recover. 48. Relapse prevention treatment focuses on __________. A) integrating medication, support groups, and contingency contracts to prevent relapse B) emphasizing the importance of controlled drinking as a means of preventing over- consumption of alcohol C) involving family members in the treatment to help prevent relapse D) offering time-limited and specific advice regarding the need to reduce or eliminate alcohol consumption E) assisting the individual in changing their beliefs about drinking Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-48 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) assisting the individual in changing their beliefs about drinking. 49. When family members establish roles that are defined by the disordered substance use and their behaviour actually prevents changes in the abuse pattern, they are referred to as __________. A) scapegoats B) facilitators C) codependents D) enmeshed E) resistant

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-49 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: C) codependents. 50. Interventions that involve the family of alcohol-dependent persons generally target __________. A) the self-defeating thoughts and distorted beliefs espoused by the family B) communication and relationship roles C) how families may be causing relapses D) the effect of the substance-dependent person on other family members E) the amount of alcohol that everyone in the family drinks Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-50 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) communication and relationship roles. 51. Of all the treatment approaches that have been empirically evaluated, ___________ has/have the strongest support. A) behavioural treatment B) mutual support groups C) relapse prevention D) pharmacotherapy E) brief interventions Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-51 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: E) brief interventions 52. Motivational interviewing is an approach that involves __________. A) the therapist interviewing the client to determine whether they are ready for Antabuse B) the therapist exploring, in a somewhat confrontational manner, why the client uses alcohol C) the client interviewing their family members regarding their thoughts and feelings about the client's alcohol use D) identifying strategies for relapse prevention E) the therapist helping the client to identify and discuss, in a non-confrontational manner, the pros and the cons of their alcohol use Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-52 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: E) The therapist helping the client to identify and discuss, in a non-confrontational manner, the pros and the cons of their alcohol use. 53. One of the first drugs developed as a treatment for tension and anxiety was/were __________. A) benzodiazepines B) tranquilizers C) Valium D) barbituric acid E) vitamin B12 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-53 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: D) barbituric acid. 54. At low doses, barbiturates cause ___________ but with large doses they can cause __________. A) mild euphoria; lowered respiration, blood pressure, and heart rate to dangerous levels B) sleep; coma C) relaxation of the diaphragm muscles; personality changes D) slurred speech; mild euphoria E) blurred vision; muscle paralysis Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-54 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: A) mild euphoria; lowered respiration, blood pressure, and heart rate to dangerous levels 55. Deri has been undergoing treatment for barbiturate abuse. The drug has been reduced very slowly for a while now, and at this time Deri’s doctor is reducing it by 10% every day. Deri has begun to feel achy, depressed, anxious, and is unable to fall asleep. Deri’s symptoms have been characterized as the __________. A) tolerance effect B) abstinence syndrome C) recurrent withdrawal syndrome D) treatment relapse E) dependency problem Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-55 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Application Answer: B) abstinence syndrome.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 56. Stimulant drugs, such as nicotine, amphetamines, cocaine, and caffeine, achieve their effects by __________. A) increasing heart rate and blood pressure B) decreasing the rate of dopamine and serotonin entering the brain C) increasing the availability of GABA and ACH to the nucleus accumbens D) increasing the availability of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine to the nucleus accumbens E) influencing the rate of blood flow into the brain Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-56 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: D) increasing the availability of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine to the nucleus accumbens. 57. The decline in smoking over time has not been due to __________. A) increasing tobacco prices B) Antismoking media campaigns C) Smoking bans in restaurants D) Smoking bans in buses. E) Increases in fitness-related images in the media Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-57 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Increases in fitness-related images in the media. 58. Addiction produced by ___________ is thought to be even greater than that produced by other addictive substances. A) cocaine B) heroin C) caffeine D) alcohol E) tobacco Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-58 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: E) tobacco 59. Overall, results of psychological smoking cessation programs have been ___________. A) mixed B) promising C) lacking D) not at all encouraging E) very encouraging

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-59 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) mixed. 60. During the 1930s, amphetamines were developed as ___________. A) a decongestant and asthma treatment B) treatment for hyperactive children C) a treatment for alcohol abuse D) a way to calm psychiatric patients E) a treatment for obesity Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-60 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: A) a decongestant and asthma treatment. 61. At low doses, amphetamines cause ___________ and at very high doses, they result in __________. A) increased confidence; increased alertness B) increased alertness; restlessness and anxiety C) fatigue and sadness; brain damage D) confusion; hyperactivity E) feelings of exhilaration; toxic psychosis Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-61 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: B) increased alertness; restlessness and anxiety 62. Jan was taken to the hospital by their friends late Saturday night. Jan complained that they felt weak and nauseous, and when Jan was examined by the physician, their heartbeat was found to be irregular, their blood pressure was high, and their pupils were dilated. Apparently, Jan had "taken something" at a party, but their friends didn't know what it was. It appears that Jan had taken ___________. A) LSD B) sedatives C) benzodiazepines D) amphetamines E) barbiturates Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-62 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Application Answer: D) amphetamines. 11-18 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 63. In small amounts, cocaine produces ___________, while high doses lead to __________. A) anger and aggression; toxic psychosis B) feelings of confidence; brain damage C) feelings of euphoria and well-being; overstimulation of the CNS D) understimulation of the CNS; anger and aggression E) no effects; mood swings and insomnia Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-63 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: C) feelings of euphoria and well-being; overstimulation of the CNS 64. Why is treatment for stimulant addiction difficult? A) Doctors are generally reluctant to treat substance use disorder. B) Stimulant users tend to use other drugs to counteract some of the effects of the stimulants and become dependent on these drugs as well. C) Stimulants are very addicting, and it often takes many years to quit using them. D) Psychological and biological treatments must be used in conjunction, never separately. E) It is easier to treat those who are addicted to socially acceptable drugs. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-64 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) Stimulant users tend to use other drugs to counteract some of the effects of the stimulants and become dependent on these drugs as well. 65. Which of the following groups of drugs belong to the opiate family? A) morphine, heroin, methadone B) morphine, nicotine, opium C) caffeine, nicotine, and cocaine D) codeine, benzoic acid, Demerol E) heroin, cocaine, codeine Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-65 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: A) morphine, heroin, methadone 66. Opioids, known as exogenous opiates, tend to mimic the effects of ___________. A) serotonin B) depressants C) dopamine D) stimulants E) the body's natural painkillers

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-66 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: E) the body's natural painkillers. 67. The immediate effect of heroin is ___________; at higher doses it results in __________. A) calming; pupil constriction B) hyperactivity; paranoia C) intensely pleasurable; respiratory failure D) nausea; coma E) anxiety; euphoria Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-67 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: C) intensely pleasurable; respiratory failure 68. What is the main objection to the harm reduction approach to managing problematic substance use? A) It goes against the principles of some religions B) It is an ineffective approach C) It creates more work for the police D) It is not scientifically supported E) It is sometimes seen as supporting illicit drug use Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-68 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: E) It is sometimes seen as supporting illicit drug use 69. In 2015, the most commonly used and most widely available illicit drug in Canada was ___________. A) speed B) marijuana C) cocaine D) heroin E) alcohol Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-69 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: B) marijuana.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 70. With relatively small doses of cannabis, most users report ___________. A) sexual arousal B) feelings of tension and anxiety C) paranoia D) hallucinations E) a feeling of euphoria and sociability Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-70 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) a feeling of euphoria and sociability. 71. A syndrome found in long-term cannabis users characterized by apathy, lack of pursuit of vocational goals, self-absorption, and detachment from family and friends is known as ___________. A) cannabis sativa B) amotivational syndrome C) toxic psychosis D) abnormal cannabis reaction E) unusual dependency Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-71 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) amotivational syndrome. 72. Whereas it was once believed that marijuana ___________ addictive, recent evidence supports that marijuana use __________. A) is mildly; does not result in dependence or withdrawal B) is strongly; results in withdrawal only for susceptible persons C) is not; results in mild dependence and withdrawal symptoms D) is not; results in severe dependence and withdrawal symptoms E) is mildly; can result in severe dependence and/or withdrawal symptoms Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-72 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: C) is not; results in mild dependence and withdrawal symptoms 73. Which of the following groups of drugs are found under the category "hallucinogens"? A) cocaine, heroin, psychedelics B) alcohol, LSD, magic mushrooms C) mescaline, acid, marijuana D) amphetamines, marijuana, alcohol E) mescaline, LSD, psilocybin

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-73 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: E) mescaline, LSD, psilocybin 74. When Albert Hoffman was investigating ergot (a fungus that affects rye and wheat) in 1938, he accidentally discovered ___________. A) hashish B) cocaine C) LSD D) mescaline E) psilocybin Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-74 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Application Answer: C) LSD. 75. Hallucinogens have an ___________ effect on the CNS and mimic the effects of __________. A) excitatory; dopamine B) inhibitory; serotonin C) excitatory; epinephrine D) excitatory; serotonin E) inhibitory; dopamine Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-75 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: D) excitatory; serotonin 76. Which of the following negative side effects occur due to hallucinogen use? A) flashbacks B) amotivational syndrome C) recurrent headaches D) respiratory problems E) high blood pressure Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-76 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) flashbacks

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 77. Risk factors for problem gambling include all of the following EXCEPT ___________. A) Being male B) Being Indigenous C) Having a low level of education D) Playing VLTs daily E) Regular purchase of lottery tickets Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 11-1-77 Learning Objective: 11.2: Describe similarities between substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Regular purchase of lottery tickets 78. All of the following are similarities between substance use disorders and gambling disorder EXCEPT ___________. A) Both generate short-lived pleasurable feelings B) Both create cravings to repeat the behaviour C) Both can alter mood D) Both provide relief from negative feelings E) Both improve focus and perception Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-78 Learning Objective: 11.2: Describe similarities between substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Both improve focus and perception 79. Which of the following is not a class of substances of abuse in the DSM-5? A) alcohol B) caffeine C) psychedelics D) hallucinogens E) tobacco Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-79 Learning Objective: 11.1: Explain how addictive disorders are defined and diagnosed. Skill: Factual Answer: C) psychedelics 80. Which of the following is not an example of social impairment? A) a parent not grocery shopping or preparing meals for a 3-year-old child B) a teacher not preparing lessons for their classes C) a romantic partner forgetting dates with their significant other D) a friend being quieter than usual at a social gathering E) a secretary not showing up for work Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-80 Learning Objective: 11.1: Explain how addictive disorders are defined and diagnosed. Skill: Application Answer: D) a friend being quieter than usual at a social gathering 11-23 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 81. Which of the following has the highest addictive potential? A) cannabis B) vodka C) Adderall D) tobacco E) gambling Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-1-81 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) tobacco 82. Which of the following is not a symptom of cannabis withdrawal? A) irritability B) anxiety C) anger/aggression D) increased appetite E) sleep disturbances Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-1-82 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) increased appetite

Chapter 11 - True/False Questions 1. Research has shown that impairment of control (over substance use) is better understood as a categorical loss of control. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-2-83 Learning Objective: 11.1: Explain how addictive disorders are defined and diagnosed. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 2. Among First Nation adults, rates of heavy drinking were reported by two-thirds of people between the ages of 30 and 49. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-2-84 Learning Objective: 11.1: Explain how addictive disorders are defined and diagnosed. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 11-24 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 3. Canada's Low Risk Drinking Guidelines recommend no more than 6 drinks (at any one time) for women, and 8 drinks for men. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-2-85 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 4. If your blood alcohol level (BAL) is .08 percent, it means that there are 8 mg of alcohol in 100 mg of blood. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-2-86 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Application Answer: b. False 5. The nausea and headache associated with a hangover result from the accumulation of acetaldehyde. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-2-87 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 6. Women tend to have less of the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase than do men, resulting in higher BAL, all other things being equal. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-2-88 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 7. One of the only beneficial effects of alcohol is that it facilitates healthy sleep and can normalize REM sleep. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-2-89 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 8. Biological markers, such as levels of serotonin and MAO, and heart rate, have shown clinical utility for the development of alcohol use disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-2-90 Learning Objective: 11.3: Understand and describe the etiology of addiction. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 9. Antagonist drugs block the effects of psychoactive drugs. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-2-91 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 10. Contingency contracts are contracts signed by the alcohol-dependent individual in which they promise to attend a treatment group. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-2-92 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 11. Barbiturate withdrawal is similar to but milder than withdrawal from alcohol. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-2-93 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 11-26 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 12. It appears that since the 1960s, there has been a decrease in the number of people who smoke. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-2-94 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 13. Nicotine addiction is thought to be more severe than that produced by alcohol, cocaine, heroin, and caffeine. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-2-95 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 14. During the 1800s, cocaine was viewed as harmless and was the principal ingredient in CocaCola. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-2-96 Learning Objective: 11.4: Comprehend trends in the prevalence of substance use in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 15. "Mainlining" means that the heroin is mixed with cocaine and snorted. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-2-97 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 16. Methadone treatment works by reducing the craving for heroin. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-2-98 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 17. Marijuana has been used in the past to treat rheumatism, gout, depression, and cholera. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-2-99 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 18. Ninety-nine percent of regular cannabis users are diagnosed with a depressive disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-2-100 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 19. Hallucinogens do not appear to be addictive. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-2-101 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 20. Gambling disorder is now in DSM-5 as a condition requiring further study. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-2-102 Learning Objective: 11.2: Describe similarities between substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 11 - Essay Questions 1. Discuss the long-term physical effects of alcohol. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-3-103 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: Chronic alcohol consumption can result in many diseases and difficulties. Since alcohol travels through the bloodstream, it comes into contact with every organ in the body. Damage to the body is influenced by genetics, frequency and duration of drinking, and the severity of binges. Alcohol is very high in calories, and heavy drinkers will often reduce their food intake. However, the calories in alcohol are "empty" calories, and alcohol interferes with the absorption of nutrients in food. Therefore, severe malnutrition and tissue damage can occur. Damage to the liver, the endocrine glands, and the pancreas can result. Alcohol has also been associated with a variety of cancers throughout the body. Heavy alcohol use has been associated with damage to the heart, high blood pressure, and strokes. Research has demonstrated that the consumption of alcohol can kill brain cells, particularly in the hypothalamus and thalamus regions. Cell loss in these areas is associated with Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome, a disease characterized by impaired memory and a loss of contact with reality. 2. Define alcohol expectancy theory and discuss the research findings regarding this theory. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-3-104 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: The alcohol expectancy theory states that drinking behaviour is largely determined by the reinforcement that an individual expects to receive from it. For example, expectancies identified by a group of social drinkers were that alcohol positively transforms experiences, enhances social, physical, and sexual experiences, increases power and aggression, alters personal characteristics, improves social skills, and reduces tension. However, these effects are related to the individual's expectations where alcohol is concerned, and the actual pharmacological effects of alcohol can have the opposite effect of expectation. Alcohol-dependent persons and heavy drinkers are more likely to believe that alcohol use will result in positive outcomes. 3. Discuss the sociocultural factors that influence drinking patterns. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-3-105 Learning Objective: 11.3: Understand and describe the etiology of addiction. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Alcohol use is influenced by various social and cultural factors, including family values, attitudes, and expectations. Individuals who are introduced to drinking in environments where excessive drinking is socially acceptable or encouraged face greater risk of developing drinking problems. Cultural and family traditions interact to determine attitudes and behaviour toward drinking. If rates of alcohol use disorder in different countries are compared, patterns of drinking differ widely. For example, In France, daily drinking is common and alcohol-dependent individuals tend to be steady drinkers who rarely lose control but are prone to physical problems. In England, Ireland, and North America, alcohol use disorder is often manifested in heavy drinking binges, loss of control, and adverse negative consequences. In Italy, 11-29 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e where drinking tends to be limited to mealtimes and consumption is limited, rates of alcohol use disorder are much lower. Muslim countries often prohibit drinking on religious grounds, and alcohol use disorder rates are very low. Thus, an individual's culture, family, and social values will interact to determine attitudes towards alcohol and drinking. 4. Describe the Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) approach to treating alcohol use disorder. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 11-3-106 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) is likely the most well-known treatment approach for alcohol problems and reaches more alcohol-dependent individuals than any other treatment organization. AA is a self-help group whose philosophy is based on the disease model. There are no professional trained staff (e.g., psychologists) running the groups. The goal of treatment is complete abstinence. AA members believe that there is no cure for alcohol use disorder, and that they are powerless to control their drinking and must depend on a Higher Power to help them. The twelve steps define the philosophy and are read at each meeting. Members are encouraged to attend meetings often, and the social support and encouragement provided at the meeting place is viewed as an important component of the success of this form of treatment. 5. Describe the operant conditioning approach to treating alcohol/other substance use disorders. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-3-107 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: In contrast to Alcoholics Anonymous (AA), or the Minnesota model, operant conditioning approaches assume that drinking behaviour is learned via processes of reinforcement and punishment, and so abstinence or controlled drinking can be learned. These approaches have research support, particularly for persons with less severe alcohol problems. Operant conditioning approaches essentially rely upon contingency management, or the manipulation of the contingencies for alcohol use. Programs often make use of contracts between patients and treatment programs that specify rewards for small steps toward sobriety. They often teach behavioural coping skills and skills to develop one's own contingency contracts. They often teach clients to identify antecedents to drinking, about the circumstances in which drinking is most likely, and about the social reinforcers for drinking. Some of these programs involve significant others, such as a spouse or friend, whereas others teach behavioural self-management. 6. Describe the short-term and long-term consequences of tobacco use. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-3-108 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: Nicotine is an extremely potent CNS stimulant--a few drops of pure nicotine can cause respiratory failure. Low dosages interfere with thinking, although the amount present in a cigarette can increase alertness and improve mood. However, although the short-term consequences of smoking may be minimal, the long-term consequences are serious. Smoking has been implicated in the development of 11-30 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e lung, esophagus, and larynx cancers, emphysema, respiratory illnesses, heart disease, and other chronic illnesses. Most of these illnesses are not caused by nicotine but by the carbon monoxide and other chemicals found in cigarettes. Second-hand smoke can be even more dangerous, and is associated with significant health risks, including heart disease, lung cancer, and asthma. 7. Explain the harm reduction approach to managing problematic substance use. What are the pros of this approach, and what are some concerns that have been voiced about this approach? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-3-109 Learning Objective: 11.6: Describe the most common treatment approaches for various substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: the harm reduction approach focuses on limiting the negative/harmful consequences of drug use, rather than eliminating use altogether. This approach is used in particular to address injection use, because of the high health risks associated with this behaviour i.e., sharing needles, increased risk of HIV and hepatitis C transmission. In Canada, there are several needle exchange programs. These programs include education and outreach to the target population and are often mobile. Data show that needle exchange programs are beneficial – attendance is associated with a decrease in risk behaviours and relatedly, infection rates. Those who use needle exchange programs are also more likely to enter treatment. Some opponents have been concerned about needle exchange programs—that there will be more needles out in the public and that dealers may go to needle exchange programs to find clients. However, there is evidence for neither. More generally, the philosophy underpinning needle exchange programs has been criticized as promoting illicit drug use; however, the benefits of such programs appear to outweigh the risks. 8. What are opioids? Explain what contributes to their strong addiction potential. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-3-110 Learning Objective: 11.5: Identify the psychological and physiological effects of various substances of misuse. Skill: Factual Answer: Opioids are a type of central nervous system depressant. Examples include morphine, codeine, heroin, and oxycodone. Medications like Percocet and methadone are manufactured to have the effects of opioids. Opioids can be taken in pill form but also can be injected as in the case of heroin. Narcotics are exogenous opiates that mimic the effects of endogenous opiates aka as the body's natural painkillers. Addiction potential is high in part due to the sensations that opioids produce: an intense pleasurable rush that comes on rapidly, followed by a dream-like euphoria. The withdrawal symptoms are very severe and begin very rapidly once a person is not taking drugs – only 8 hours after the last dose. Although it takes 510 days for these symptoms to diminish, many people cannot tolerate their intensity, which contributes to continued use. 9. Define problematic gambling and describe the similarities between gambling disorder and substance use disorder. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 11-3-111 Learning Objective: 11.2: Describe similarities between substance use disorders and gambling disorder. Skill: Factual, Conceptual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: Individuals with gambling disorder are those who will risk their reputation, family, life savings, work, freedom, and safety for gambling. They are preoccupied with gambling and are unable to resist gambling despite extremely negative consequences. Disordered gambling shares similarities to substance related disorders and addictive disorders. Some individuals who engage in problematic gambling suffer withdrawal-like symptoms after attempting to stop gambling; both gambling and use of substances (e.g., alcohol, drugs) generate relief and feelings of pleasure, involve cravings to repeat the behaviour, and have the ability to alter mood and arousal level. When engaged in excess, problematic gambling and problematic use of substances lead to negative consequences.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 12 The Personality Disorders Chapter 12 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. Personality theorists describe qualities which are persistently displayed over time and in various situations as __________. A) personality disorders B) states C) lasting qualities D) types E) traits Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-01 Learning Objective: 12.1: Observe continuities and discrepancies between typical personality functioning and personality pathology. Skill: Factual Answer: E) traits. 2. Which of the following statements is true? A) People with personality disorders show a far more restricted range of traits than do most people. B) People with personality disorders show a far less restricted range of traits than do most people. C) People with personality disorders are characterized by their flexibility to adapt to different situations. D) People with personality disorders are far more dependent on situational contexts than are most people. E) People with personality disorders are typically characterized by a number of major personality traits. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-02 Learning Objective: 12.1: Observe continuities and discrepancies between typical personality functioning and personality pathology. Skill: Factual Answer: A) People with personality disorders show a far more restricted range of traits than do most people. 3. The DSM-5 lists ___________ specific personality disorders which are organized into ___________ broad clusters. A) 10; 3 B) 8; 2 C) 8; 3 D) 10; 2 E) 15; 5 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-03 Learning Objective: 12.1: Observe continuities and discrepancies between typical personality functioning and personality pathology. Skill: Factual Answer: A) 10; 3

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. Which of the following matches is incorrect? A) anxious and fearful cluster: dependent personality disorder B) anxious and fearful cluster: avoidant personality disorder C) odd and eccentric cluster: paranoid personality disorder D) dramatic, emotional, or erratic cluster: antisocial personality disorder E) odd and eccentric cluster: depressive personality disorder Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 12-1-04 Learning Objective: 12.3: Understand benefits and limitations associated with categorical and dimensional approaches to conceptualizing personality disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) odd and eccentric cluster: depressive personality disorder 5. Which of the following is NOT one of the fiver-factor dimensions of personality? A) Neuroticism B) Agreeableness C) Extroversion D) Impulsivity E) Agreeableness Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-05 Learning Objective: 12.2: Differentiate personality disorders from other forms of psychopathology based on current diagnostic approaches and recent empirical evidence. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Impulsivity 6. Which of the following is NOT identified as a difficulty in diagnosing personality disorders (PDs)? A) PD criteria can permit gender biases to influence the assessment process B) PD symptoms are often not acknowledged by the patient C) PD symptoms tend to be dormant for long periods of time D) certain apparently maladaptive attitudes and behaviours may be appropriate for distinct cultures E) there is often similarity of symptoms in two or more different PDs Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-06 Learning Objective: 12.4: Identify how stigma, stereotypes, and a dearth of culturally sensitive research have affected personality disorder assessment, prevention, and treatment. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: C) PD symptoms tend to be dormant for long periods of time 7. Diagnosis and therefore estimation of the prevalence of the personality disorders is quite difficult. Study methodologies have been criticized. With this in mind, the highest estimates of PD prevalence suggest that __________. A) approximately 1% of the population has a personality disorder B) approximately 5% of the population has a personality disorder C) approximately 15% of the population has a personality disorder D) approximately 25% of the population has a personality disorder E) approximately 30% of the population has a personality disorder

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-07 Learning Objective: 12.4: Identify how stigma, stereotypes, and a dearth of culturally sensitive research have affected personality disorder assessment, prevention, and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: C) approximately 15% of the population has a personality disorder. 8. Which of the following best describes the prevalence rates of personality disorders in outpatients as compared to those in inpatients? A) They are generally higher among outpatients. B) They are generally lower among outpatients. C) They are higher for antisocial personality disorder, but the same for the remaining personality disorders. D) Outpatients are generally diagnosed with disorders from Cluster A and inpatients with disorders from Cluster B. E) They are generally the same. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-08 Learning Objective: 12.4: Identify how stigma, stereotypes, and a dearth of culturally sensitive research have affected personality disorder assessment, prevention, and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: B) They are generally lower among outpatients. 9. Research shows that __________ % or more of people with personality disorders never seek treatment for their problems. A) 60 B) 95 C) 20 D) 40 E) 80 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-09 Learning Objective: 12.4: Identify how stigma, stereotypes, and a dearth of culturally sensitive research have affected personality disorder assessment, prevention, and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: E) 80 10. Many personality disorders are ___________, which means that the person does not believe they have a problem. A) egoplatonic B) egosyntonic C) egodystonic D) ego accepted E) egotonic Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-10 Learning Objective: 12.7: Understand factors that facilitate and impede effective intervention. Skill: Factual Answer: B) egosyntonic 12-3 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. Several researchers have suggested that the diagnostic criteria for some personality disorders are __________. A) culture-biased B) neither gender- nor culture-biased C) both gender- and culture-biased D) age-biased E) gender-biased Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-11 Learning Objective: 12.4: Identify how stigma, stereotypes, and a dearth of culturally sensitive research have affected personality disorder assessment, prevention, and treatment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) both gender- and culture-biased. 12. According to the text, clinicians have been shown to be reluctant to diagnose males as having ___________ personality disorder, while they are sometimes hesitant to diagnose females as having ___________ personality disorder. A) antisocial; avoidant B) histrionic; antisocial C) dependent; paranoid D) antisocial; histrionic E) avoidant; antisocial Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-12 Learning Objective: 12.4: Identify how stigma, stereotypes, and a dearth of culturally sensitive research have affected personality disorder assessment, prevention, and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: B) histrionic; antisocial 13. Research has shown that, on average, ___________ % of the people identified as suffering from borderline personality disorder through structured interviews are women. A) 80 B) 20 C) 60 D) 100 E) 40 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-13 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: A) 80

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 14. Because the term has been traditionally applied to women, the name of ___________ personality disorder was changed to histrionic personality disorder. A) avoidant B) neurotic C) borderline D) psychotic E) hysterical Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-14 Learning Objective: 12.5: Identify historical influences on personality disorder diagnosis and conceptualization. Skill: Factual Answer: E) hysterical 15. Despite the research, the Correctional Service of Canada seems reluctant to accept the fact that __________. A) psychopathy can occur in children B) psychopathy can occur in men C) psychopathy is a valid diagnosis D) psychopathy can occur in women E) psychopathy exists at all in the prison population Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-15 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: D) psychopathy can occur in women. 16. ___________ refers to the co-occurrence in the same person of two or more different disorders, while _______refers to the similarity of symptoms in two or more different disorders. A) Egosyntonia; ego dystonia B) Overlap; comorbidity C) Multiple personality disorder; multiple symptomalogy D) Egodystonia; egosyntonia E) Comorbidity; overlap Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-16 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Comorbidity; overlap

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 17. One study found that almost ___________ percent of those diagnosed as having borderline personality disorder met the criteria for antisocial personality disorder. A) About 10 B) About 20 C) About 30 D) About 40 E) About 50 Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 12-1-17 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: E) About 50 18. What is the prevalence of ASPD in the general population? A) 60% B) 2-3% C) 3-5%. D) 10% E) 1-2% Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-18 Learning Objective: 12.5: Identify historical influences on personality disorder diagnosis and conceptualization. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 2-3% 19. Sociologists replaced the term psychopath with sociopath in order to reflect their belief that __________. A) the social consequences (i.e., impact on others) are of principal importance B) the disorder is caused by social forces and factors C) sociological approaches to studying the disorder are necessary D) the disorder is usually caused by parental socialization practices E) sociopaths are simply reacting to childhood trauma Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-19 Learning Objective: 12.5: Identify historical influences on personality disorder diagnosis and conceptualization. Skill: Factual Answer: B) the disorder is caused by social forces and factors 20. The term psychopath was replaced with sociopath by __________. A) psychologists B) sociologists C) Pinel D) psychiatrists E) Freud

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-20 Learning Objective: 12.5: Identify historical influences on personality disorder diagnosis and conceptualization. Skill: Factual Answer: B) sociologists 21. Antisocial personality disorder belongs to which cluster? A) Cluster B: Odd and Eccentric Disorders. B) Cluster A: Odd and Eccentric Disorders. C) Cluster C: Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic Disorders. D) Cluster C: Odd and Eccentric Disorders. E) Cluster B: Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic Disorders. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-21 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Cluster B: Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic Disorders. 22. The specific causes of personality disorders were not considered until the development of __________. A) the psychoanalytic movement B) behaviourism C) cognitive-behavioural theories D) the existentialist movement E) attachment theory Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-22 Learning Objective: 12.5: Identify historical influences on personality disorder diagnosis and conceptualization. Skill: Factual Answer: A) the psychoanalytic movement. 23. Psychoanalysts see personality disorders as resulting from __________. A) the failure to resolve the Oedipal or Electra complex B) disturbances in the parent-child relationship C) failure to use adequate defense mechanisms D) penis envy (in women only) E) unsatisfied oral needs during infancy Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-23 Learning Objective: 12.5: Identify historical influences on personality disorder diagnosis and conceptualization. Skill: Factual Answer: B) disturbances in the parent-child relationship.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 24. ___________ theory states that children learn how to relate to others by the way in which their parents relate to them. A) Schema B) Parental C) Interpersonal D) Attachment E) Individuation Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-24 Learning Objective: 12.5: Identify historical influences on personality disorder diagnosis and conceptualization. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Attachment 25. Attachment researchers have found that if parent-child attachments are poor, the child will typically develop adult relationship styles that __________. A) are characterized by antisocial and psychopathic behaviours B) are characterized by ambivalence, fear, or avoidance C) are characterized by avoidant interpersonal behaviour D) are characterized by overprotectiveness and clinging behaviours E) are characterized by ambivalence regarding the feelings of others Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-25 Learning Objective: 12.5: Identify historical influences on personality disorder diagnosis and conceptualization. Skill: Factual Answer: B) are characterized by ambivalence, fear, or avoidance 26. Joan is a psychologist who argues that her client has a personality disorder due largely to the fact that their schemata (i.e., beliefs and assumptions) have become rigid and inflexible. Joan is taking a(n) ___________ approach to understanding the etiology of personality disorders. A) attachment B) psychoanalytic C) psychiatric D) behavioural E) cognitive-behavioural Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-26 Learning Objective: 12.5: Identify historical influences on personality disorder diagnosis and conceptualization. Skill: Application Answer: E) cognitive-behavioural 27. According to Linehan, individuals who develop borderline personality disorder __________. A) come from families where at least one member has a psychotic spectrum disorder B) come from families that are encouraging and supportive C) have parents who are overprotective D) have at least one parent with histrionic personality disorder E) come from families who consistently invalidate their childhood emotional experiences

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-27 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: E) come from families who consistently invalidate their childhood emotional experiences. 28. Biological accounts of personality disorders have been most thoroughly explored with ___________ personality disorder. A) narcissistic B) antisocial C) paranoid D) histrionic E) avoidant Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-28 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: B) antisocial 29. Studies of brain structure and function in borderline personality disorder have shown dysfunction in the _____________ and _____________. A) Temporal lobe and occipital lobe B) Prefrontal areas and the amygdala C) Hippocampus and thalamus D) Spinal cord and amygdala E) Prefrontal areas and insula Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-29 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Prefrontal areas and the amygdala 30. Lee has a tendency to see everything people do as a personal attack on his safety and privacy. Judging from this characteristic, which personality disorder is Lee most likely to have? A) avoidant B) paranoid C) dependent D) narcissistic E) histrionic

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-30 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Application Answer: B) paranoid 31. As paranoid personality occurs quite commonly in the relatives of people with ___________, a genetic link with this disorder has been proposed. A) depression B) panic disorder C) obsessive-compulsive disorder D) schizophrenia E) bipolar mood disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-31 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: D) schizophrenia 32. Andy does not have many friends and seems determined to avoid involvement with others. Andy displays little emotional responsiveness, and often seems confused by the emotional displays of others. Judging from this description, which personality disorder is Andy most likely to have? A) schizotypal B) narcissistic C) avoidant D) schizoid E) anti-social Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-32 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Application Answer: D) schizoid 33. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a person with schizotypal personality disorder? A) belief in paranormal phenomena B) social isolation C) eccentricity D) excessive focus on himself or herself E) magical thinking

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-33 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) excessive focus on himself or herself 34. Which of the following personality disorders is characterized by eccentricity of thought and behaviour? A) paranoid B) avoidant C) histrionic D) narcissistic E) schizotypal Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-34 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: E) schizotypal 35. Which of the following is NOT true of schizotypal personality disorder? A) The long-term prognosis for those suffering from the disorder is moderate to good. B) Researchers have placed most emphasis on the schizophrenic-like features. C) Low doses of antipsychotic drugs somewhat relieve cognitive problems. D) Many family members of people with schizophrenia exhibit symptoms of schizotypal personality disorder. E) Antidepressants have been somewhat helpful in relieving symptoms. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-35 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: A) The long-term prognosis for those suffering from the disorder is moderate to good. 36. The essential distinguishing feature of ___________ personality disorder is a pervasive pattern of disregard for, and violation of, the rights of others. A) narcissistic B) avoidant C) schizotypal D) antisocial E) histrionic

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-36 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: D) antisocial 37. What is the key difference between DSM-5 antisocial personality disorder, and psychopathy? A) There are no differences; the two terms refer to the same population. B) Psychopathy is a less severe variant of DSM-5 antisocial personality disorder. C) Individuals high in psychopathy are very extroverted, whereas those with DSM-5 antisocial personality disorder tend to be introverted. D) Psychopathy consists of a richer set of emotional, behavioural, and interpersonal features than does DSM-5 antisocial personality disorder, which concentrates chiefly on observable behaviour. E) DSM-5 antisocial personality disorder is a much more enduring personality type than is psychopathy. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 12-1-37 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: D) Psychopathy consists of a richer set of emotional, behavioural, and interpersonal features than does DSM-5 antisocial personality disorder, which concentrates chiefly on observable behaviour. 38. The relationship between psychopathy and antisocial personality disorder appears to be ______________________ and it has been found that __________. A) symmetrical; some persons diagnosed in each category do not meet criteria for the other disorder B) symmetrical: most people diagnosed with one will meet criteria for the other C) symmetrical: most people diagnosed with one will NOT meet criteria for the other D) asymmetrical; most people who meet criteria for psychopathy will also meet criteria for APD, but the converse is not true E) asymmetrical; most people who meet criteria for APD will also meet criteria for psychopathy, but the converse is not true Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-38 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: D) asymmetrical; most people who meet criteria for psychopathy will also meet criteria for APD, but the converse is not true 39. The DSM-5 criteria for the diagnosis of antisocial personality disorder presents ___________ exemplars reflecting the violation of the rights of others, and ___________ or more must be met for the diagnosis to be applied. A) 10; 5 B) 7; 5 C) 7; 3 D) 10; 3 E) 12; 2 12-12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-39 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: C) 7; 3 40. The ___________ hypothesis suggests that people with APD have a higher threshold for feeling fear than do other people. A) threshold B) fearlessness C) avoidance D) fear threshold E) self-regulation Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-40 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: B) fearlessness 41. Schmauk has suggested that psychopaths are not unresponsive to physical punishment, but rather respond opposite to the punisher's intention, presumably as a way of exercising some degree of control in the face of aversive experiences. This behaviour has been referred to as __________ behaviour. A) irrational B) defiant C) contradictory D) operant E) oppositional Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-41 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: E) oppositional 42. Which of the following must be evident in childhood in order to receive a diagnosis of ASPD? A) ADHD B) ODD C) CD D) anxiety E) paranoia

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-42 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) CD 43. Reviews of the literature on treatment efficacy for antisocial personality disorder patients have been __________ about the prognosis for those with this disorder. A) cautiously pessimistic B) unequivocally pessimistic C) strongly optimistic D) cautiously optimistic E) unequivocally optimistic Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-43 Learning Objective: 12.7: Understand factors that facilitate and impede effective intervention. Skill: Factual Answer: B) unequivocally pessimistic 44. Which of the following is NOT an example of a callous-unemotional personality trait? A) untruthfulness. B) superficial charm. C) lack of empathy. D) shallow affect. E) lack of guilt. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-44 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: A) untruthfulness. 45. Some scientists propose that psychopathy __________. A) is a less severe form of ASPD B) is indistinct from ASPD C) is a separate personality disorder D) is a more severe form of ASPD E) is untreatable Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-45 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: D) is a more severe form of ASPD

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 46. Which of the following is false regarding the relationship of psychopathy to crime and aggression? A) Psychopaths incarcerated in Canada commit significantly more crimes than do non-psychopaths. B) Psychopaths are significantly more likely than non-psychopaths to engage in violent re-offending within five years of their release from prison. C) Psychopaths display much lower levels of emotion during their offenses than do non-psychopaths. D) Psychopaths enjoy inflicting violence, whereas this is less the case in non-psychopaths. E) Psychopaths who are incarcerated tend to have committed white collar crimes whereas nonpsychopaths who are incarcerated tend to have committed blue collar crimes. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-46 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Psychopaths who are incarcerated tend to have committed white collar crimes whereas nonpsychopaths who are incarcerated tend to have committed blue collar crimes. 47. Hare gives an estimate that ___________ percent of the Canadian population is psychopathic. A) .05 B) 10 C) 5 D) 1 E) .01 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-47 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: D) 1 48. In Porter's (1996) theory, fundamental psychopathy is seen as the result of ___________ factors, whereas secondary psychopathy is believed to result from ___________ factors. A) biological; psychological B) emotional; social C) psychological; social D) social; psychological E) social; biological Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-48 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) biological; psychological

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 49. Banks shows frequent fluctuations in their mood and great instability in their personal relationships. They’re uncertain about who they "really are" and what they would like to do with their life. Judging from this description, which personality disorder is Banks most likely to have? A) antisocial B) dependent C) narcissistic D) borderline E) histrionic Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-49 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Application Answer: D) borderline 50. Borderline personality disorder has a lifetime prevalence of approximately ___________ % of the population. A) 12 B) 2 C) 20 D) 0.2 E) 5 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-50 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 2 51. Which of the following is true regarding the relationship between nonsuicidal self-injury and borderline personality disorder? A) Nonsuicidal self-injury is required for the diagnosis of borderline personality disorder. B) Nonsuicidal self-injury is a subtype of borderline personality disorder. C) Nonsuicidal self-injury is a behaviour that exists outside of borderline personality disorder. D) Nonsuicidal self-injury is a feature that is specific to borderline personality disorder. E) All individuals with borderline personality disorder report some form of nonsuicidal self-injury, but it is not necessary for the diagnosis. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-51 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Nonsuicidal self-injury is a behaviour that exists outside of borderline personality disorder.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 52. Borderline personality disorder typically begins in ___________ and is thought to be more common in __________. A) adolescence; women B) childhood; men C) adulthood; women D) adolescence; men E) adulthood; men Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-52 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: A) adolescence; women 53. Many people with borderline personality disorder strongly desire intimacy with others, but once they begin to get close to their partner, they become anxious and back away. This interpersonal style has been referred to as __________. A) avoidant B) anxious ambivalent C) repression D) anxious avoidant E) confused Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-53 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: B) anxious ambivalent. 54. David has been described as flamboyant and overly dramatic in his emotional displays. He constantly seeks the spotlight in social situations and strongly dislikes being ignored. Judging from this description, which personality disorder is David most likely to have? A) histrionic B) antisocial C) borderline D) schizotypal E) avoidant Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-54 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Application Answer: A) histrionic

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 55. Egocentricity is the hallmark feature of which of the following personality disorders? A) histrionic B) avoidant C) borderline D) narcissistic E) antisocial Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-55 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: D) narcissistic 56. Daya considers herself extremely talented at all that she does. She is excessively preoccupied with her own interests and demands that others treat her as special. Judging from this description, which personality disorder is Daya most likely to have? A) antisocial B) avoidant C) borderline D) narcissistic E) dependent Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-56 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Application Answer: D) narcissistic 57. Hashi is extremely sensitive to criticism and disapproval, and as a result actively avoids intimacy with others. However, he is lonely and would like to have more friends. Judging from this description, which personality disorder is Hashi most likely to have? A) schizoid B) narcissistic C) borderline D) avoidant E) dependent Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-57 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Application Answer: D) avoidant

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 58. What has been proposed to be the difference between avoidant personality disorder, the anxiety disorder, and social phobia? A) there is no difference between these disorders. B) social phobia is characterized by a fear of social rejection, which is not the case in avoidant personality disorder. C) social phobia co-occurs more frequently with borderline personality disorder. D) social phobia and avoidant personality disorder differ in symptom severity. E) People with social phobia desire affection whereas those with avoidant personality disorder do not want affection. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-58 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) social phobia and avoidant personality disorder differ in symptom severity. 59. Ola finds it very difficult to make decisions, and feels that they desperately need others to assume responsibility for important aspects of their life. Ola accepted a job as a store clerk after asking their partner what job they felt Ola was best suited for. Judging from this description, which personality disorder is Ola most likely to have? A) avoidant B) schizotypal C) borderline D) narcissistic E) dependent Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-59 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Application Answer: E) dependent 60. Research has found that the relatives of cisgender men with dependent personality disorder are more likely to experience ___________, whereas the relatives of cisgender women with dependent personality disorder are more likely to have __________. A) schizophrenia; depression B) panic disorder; depression C) depression; panic disorder D) generalized anxiety disorder; schizophrenia E) panic disorder; generalized anxiety disorder Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 12-1-60 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: C) depression; panic disorder

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 61. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of people with obsessive-compulsive personality disorder? A) intrusive, unwanted thoughts B) a desire for perfection C) rigidity and inflexibility D) preoccupation with rules and order E) being moralistic and judgmental Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-61 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: A) intrusive, unwanted thoughts 62. Inflexibility and a desire for perfection characterize ___________ disorder. A) narcissistic personality B) dependent personality C) avoidant personality D) obsessive-compulsive personality E) borderline personality Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-62 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: D) obsessive-compulsive personality 63. Which of the following is NOT one of Sperry's five basic premises regarding treatment of personality disorders? A) these disorders are best conceptualized as having biological and psychological factors B) before treatment, it is essential to assess amenability to treatment C) effective treatment is flexible and tailored to meet the needs of the client D) the lower the client's amenability to treatment, the greater the need for multiple treatment approaches E) the basic goal of treatment should be to restore normal personality functioning Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-63 Learning Objective: 12.7: Understand factors that facilitate and impede effective intervention. Skill: Factual Answer: E) the basic goal of treatment should be to restore normal personality functioning 64. ___________, developed by Linehan, has specifically targeted borderline personality disorder. A) Neo-psychoanalysis B) Cognitive restructuring therapy C) Object-relations therapy D) Dialectical behaviour therapy E) Operant behaviour therapy

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-64 Learning Objective: 12.7: Understand factors that facilitate and impede effective intervention. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Dialectical behaviour therapy 65. Which of the following is NOT a recognized personality disorder? A) Schizophrenic B) Schizoid C) Dependent D) Obsessive-compulsive E) Schizotypal Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-65 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Schizophrenic 66. According to the text, personality traits __________. A) are symptoms of personality disorders B) are inconsistent aspects of our behaviour C) change significantly over time D) are aspects of our behaviour that are consistent across time and situations E) vary depending on the situation Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-66 Learning Objective: 12.2: Differentiate personality disorders from other forms of psychopathology based on current diagnostic approaches and recent empirical evidence. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) are aspects of our behaviour that are consistent across time and situations. 67. Which of the following is NOT one of the current diagnostic criteria for a PD? A) Behavioural patterns must manifest in three of the following areas: cognition, emotions, interpersonal functioning, or impulse control. B) Patterns must be rigid and consistent across a broad range of personal and social situations. C) Behavioural patterns must manifest in two of the following areas: cognition, emotions, interpersonal functioning, or impulse control. D) Symptoms must be stable and of lengthy duration, with onset in adolescence or earlier. E) Behavioural patterns cannot be accounted for by another mental disorder. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-1-67 Learning Objective: 12.3: Understand benefits and limitations associated with categorical and dimensional approaches to conceptualizing personality disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Behavioural patterns must manifest in two of the following areas: cognition, emotions, interpersonal functioning, or impulse control.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 68. Global prevalence estimates for the prevalence of any PD range from __________. A) 2-3% B) 10-12% C) 5.5-7.5% D) 7.2-8.1% E) 6.1-7.8% Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-68 Learning Objective: 12.4: Identify how stigma, stereotypes, and a dearth of culturally sensitive research have affected personality disorder assessment, prevention, and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: E) 6.1-7.8% 69. Which PD is one of the most debilitating and stigmatized psychiatric conditions with a history of being considered untreatable? A) ASPD B) OCPD C) BPD D) Narcissistic PD E) Avoidant PD Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-1-69 Learning Objective: 12.5: Identify historical influences on personality disorder diagnosis and conceptualization. Skill: Factual Answer: C) BPD

Chapter 12 - True/False Questions 1. The DSM-5 lists 2 clusters of personality disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-2-70 Learning Objective: 12.1: Observe continuities and discrepancies between typical personality functioning and personality pathology. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 2. Many people with personality disorders do not themselves believe that they have a problem. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-2-71 Learning Objective: 12.1: Observe continuities and discrepancies between typical personality functioning and personality pathology. Skill: Conceptual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: a. True 3. Borderline personality disorder is the most common diagnosis among inpatient psychiatric patients. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-2-72 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 4. The attempt to reduce gender biases (such as the higher frequency of diagnosis in women) by changing "hysterical personality disorder" to "histrionic personality disorder" was largely successful. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-2-73 Learning Objective: 12.4: Identify how stigma, stereotypes, and a dearth of culturally sensitive research have affected personality disorder assessment, prevention, and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 5. There is a high rate of comorbidity between borderline personality disorder and mood disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-2-74 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 6. The "Dark Triad" of socially aversive personality traits consists in: subclinical narcissism; depressive and dependency traits. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-2-75 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: b. False 7. Of the personality disorders, antisocial personality disorder has been the most thoroughly explored from a biological perspective. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-2-76 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 8. Studies have shown that many family members of people with schizophrenia exhibit schizotypal personality disorder symptoms. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-2-77 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 9. Psychopathy and antisocial personality disorder refer to the same population. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-2-78 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 10. Research suggests that psychopaths have heightened ability to discern vulnerable individuals from non-vulnerable individuals. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-2-79 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 12-24 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. The term "borderline" was used in the past to describe a person on the border between neurosis and psychosis. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-2-80 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 12. Borderline personality disorder is thought to be equally common in men and women. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-2-81 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 13. There is a problem distinguishing between avoidant personality disorder and social phobia. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-2-82 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 14. Cluster C includes avoidant, dependent and obsessive-compulsive personality disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-2-83 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 15. Very little research on obsessive-compulsive personality disorder has been conducted since DSM-III-R was published, with the exception of studies concerning the distinction between this personality disorder and obsessive-compulsive disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-2-84 Learning Objective: 12.5: Identify historical influences on personality disorder diagnosis and conceptualization. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 16. An individual displaying condescending behaviour, egocentricity and expressions of superiority is probably suffering from avoidant personality disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-2-85 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 17. Leading proponents of a cognitive-behavioural treatment approach to personality disorders are Otto Kernberg and Heinz Kohut. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-2-86 Learning Objective: 12.7: Understand factors that facilitate and impede effective intervention. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 18. In 2004, the only empirically supported treatment for borderline personality disorder was dialectical behaviour therapy. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-2-87 Learning Objective: 12.7: Understand factors that facilitate and impede effective intervention. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 19. The dialectical behaviour therapy developed by Linehan has specifically targeted antisocial personality disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-2-88 Learning Objective: 12.7: Understand factors that facilitate and impede effective intervention. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Chapter 12 - Essay Questions 1. Several methods have been employed to determine whether the higher prevalence rates of personality disorders in women represents gender-biased criteria, gender-biased application of the criteria, or a true difference in prevalence. Briefly outline two such methods described in the text and state their findings. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-3-89 Learning Objective: 12.4: Identify how stigma, stereotypes, and a dearth of culturally sensitive research have affected personality disorder assessment, prevention, and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: 1) Having professionals make a diagnosis after reading a case history, with the patient described as a woman in half the cases and as a man in the other. Finding: more of the "female" patients were diagnosed with a personality disorder than were "male" patients (hysterical personality disorder, the precursor of histrionic) 2) Analyzing real cases (the symptoms listed for patients). Finding: whereas symptoms that met diagnostic criteria for histrionic personality disorder were found equally among men and women, women were more likely to be diagnosed 3) Comparing diagnosis rates for histrionic personality disorder among patients to rates found in epidemiological studies. Finding: higher diagnosis rates in women for the patients, equal prevalence in the epidemiological studies 2. Briefly define and distinguish between the terms "comorbidity" and "overlap," and give an example of each in the context of personality disorders. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 12-3-90 Learning Objective: 12.4: Identify how stigma, stereotypes, and a dearth of culturally sensitive research have affected personality disorder assessment, prevention, and treatment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Comorbidity = the co-occurrence in the same person of two or more different disorders. One possible example: a person being diagnosed with both borderline personality disorder and a mood disorder. Overlap = the similarity of symptoms in two or more different diagnoses. One possible example: Lack of empathy in narcissistic personality disorder and in antisocial personality disorder.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 3. Create 4 brief personality profiles (no more than 3 or 4 sentences each), each of a prototypical person with a different personality disorder. Be sure to include the central features of each disorder. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-3-91 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: No standard answer; must include central features (such as suspiciousness for paranoid personality disorder, etc.). 4. What are the principal differences between DSM-5 antisocial personality disorder and psychopathy? How have researchers handled this issue? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-3-92 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: Although they appear to have similarities, these are not the same constructs. The two have been confused for decades. In brief, psychopathy consists of a richer set of emotional, behavioural, and interpersonal features (e.g., callousness, shallow affect) than does DSM-5 antisocial personality disorder, which focuses mainly on observable behaviour and largely reflects a socially deviant lifestyle. To measure the trait "psychopathy" researchers do not look to the DSM criteria for ASPD; rather, they use the Psychopathy Checklist Revised, which better captures the features of psychopathy. 5. What is the relationship between borderline personality disorder and nonsuicidal self-injury? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-3-93 Learning Objective: 12.6: Identify well-supported etiological contributors to personality disorder development across biological and environmental levels of analysis, as well as important gaps in our knowledge. Skill: Factual Answer: Nonsuicidal self-injury (NSSI) involves intentionally damaging the body (e.g., cutting, burning) without intent to die. Historically, NSSI was seen a key feature of borderline personality disorder. One of the reported functions of NSSI is to relieve negative emotion, and individuals with borderline personality disorder experience significant difficulty regulating their emotions, so it makes sense to attempt to connect NSSI and BPD. However, considerable data show that NSSI exists outside of a diagnosis of BPD. In fact, a NSSI disorder has been proposed for the DSM that is not tied to any psychopathology in the classification system.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 6. Briefly describe the three most common general approaches to the treatment of personality disorders discussed in the text. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 12-3-94 Learning Objective: 12.7: Understand factors that facilitate and impede effective intervention. Skill: Factual Answer: The three general approaches to the treatment of personality disorders are object-relations therapy, cognitive-behavioural approaches, and psychopharmacological. Object-relations: Kernberg and Kohut; treatment is aimed at correcting the flaws in the self that have resulted from unfortunate formative experiences; slow process; gradual changes Cognitive-behavioural: 1. Cognitive restructuring (Beck): challenging core beliefs that are thought to underlie the problems 2. Dialectical behaviour therapy (Linehan): targets borderline personality disorder traits Psychopharmacological: Borderline personality disorder patients: amitriptyline (an antidepressant), thiothixene (an antipsychotic), and carbamazepine (an anticonvulsant). Antipsychotics may be most effective with those displaying psychotic-like features, while antidepressants may be most effective for those patients who also meet the criteria for major depressive disorder. Schizotypal personality disorder patients: low doses of thiothixene may be beneficial. Also, schizotypals seem to respond to some extent to antidepressants. Antisocial personality disorder: Medication has been used for short-term management of problematic and threatening behaviour. However, long-term side-effects, lack of symptom alleviation, and noncompliance indicate that this approach has, at best, a modest impact. In combination with other intervention strategies, however, it may prove helpful.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 13 Sexual Dysfunctions, Gender Dysphoria, and Paraphilic Disorders Chapter 13 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following sexual activities was permissible, according to St. Augustine? A) precoital activities B) sexual activity with a same-sex partner C) sex for recreation D) masturbation E) sex for procreation Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-01 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: E) sex for procreation 2. Tissot, in his 1776 treatise, ascribed a variety of psychological and physical difficulties to __________. A) masturbation B) premarital sexual intercourse C) oral-genital sex D) sexual activity with a same-sex partner E) anal sex Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-02 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: A) masturbation. 3. During the 19th century, if you were dull, untrustworthy, or lazy, doctors would likely treat you by __________. A) prescribing a high fat and a high sugar diet B) prescribing a diet of bland food C) placing you in an institution D) giving you herbs and spices E) ointments and lotions Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-03 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Application Answer: B) prescribing a diet of bland food.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. Kellogg's cornflakes and graham crackers were developed to treat the ills of __________. A) sexual dysfunctions B) fears of sexual intercourse C) Montezuma's revenge D) excessive sexuality E) gastrointestinal problems Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-04 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) excessive sexuality. 5. The first medical textbook on sexual aberrations, __________ was published by __________ in 1901. A) Psychopathia Sexualia; Krafft-Ebing B) Sexual Abnormalities; St. Augustine C) The Treatise of Onanism; Tissot D) Teachings of Christianity; Reverend Sylvester Graham E) Human Sexuality; Dr. John Harvey Kellogg Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-05 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Psychopathia Sexualia; Krafft-Ebing 6. Research on sexuality during the 20th century was greeted with __________ by most people. A) skepticism B) shock C) animosity D) disinterest E) interest Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-06 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: C) animosity 7. In the 1970s, a person who was attracted to people of the same sex and was conflicted about this sexual preference would have been diagnosed with __________. A) homosexual gender dysphoria B) gender dysphoria C) heterosexual gender dysphoria D) egodystonic homosexuality E) gender identity disorder

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-07 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: D) egodystonic homosexuality. 8. A difficulty NOT identified by researchers of "normal" sexual response is __________. A) variability in normal behaviour B) sexuality being a private topic C) gender-related over- and under-reporting of behaviour D) difficulty formulating the appropriate questions E) people who participate in sexuality research are probably different from those who do not Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-08 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: D) difficulty formulating the appropriate questions 9. The four stages of the sexual response cycle are: __________. A) arousal, intercourse, orgasm, and release B) arousal, foreplay, orgasm, and relaxation C) arousal, bodily response, genital response, and orgasm D) neutrality, arousal, climax, and anti-climax E) excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-09 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: E) excitement, plateau, orgasm, resolution. 10. All of the following events take place during the excitement phase EXCEPT __________. A) swelling of the genital tissues B) rapid, shallow breathing C) elevation of the testes D) muscles tense E) increased heart rate Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-10 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: C) elevation of the testes.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. All of the following statements regarding the four stages of the sexual response cycle are true EXCEPT __________. A) the refractory period is the final stage of the sexual response cycle B) during the plateau phase, arousal becomes more intense C) in men, orgasm comprises two stages D) vasocongestion occurs during the excitement phase E) rhythmic, muscular contractions are experienced during orgasm Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-11 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) the refractory period is the final stage of the sexual response cycle. 12. The main finding of the Alexander and Fisher (2003) study, where participants reported their sexual behaviour under three conditions was __________. A) males were consistent in their reporting across conditions; females reported higher rates of key sexual behaviours in the condition where they would be expected to believe that false reporting would be detected B) males over-reported key sexual behaviours, particularly when they rated the researcher as attractive C) females under-reported key sexual behaviours, particularly when they were interviewed by an older female researcher D) males consistently over-reported key sexual behaviours E) females were consistent in their reporting across conditions; males reported lower rates of key sexual behaviours in the condition where they would be expected to believe that false reporting would be detected Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-12 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: A) males were consistent in their reporting across conditions; females reported higher rates of key sexual behaviours in the condition where they would be expected to believe that false reporting would be detected 13. Although there is considerable cultural variability in sexual attitudes and behaviours, two almost universal norms pertain to __________. A) age of acceptable sex; extra-marital sex B) age at which intercourse is acceptable; incest taboo C) extra-marital sex; kissing as a form of sexual interaction D) kissing as a form of sexual interaction; incest taboo E) kissing as a form of sexual interaction; extra-marital sex as forbidden Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-13 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: D) kissing as a form of sexual interaction; incest taboo

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 14. Which statement is true regarding the refractory period? A) After multiple orgasms, women are briefly unresponsive to further sexual stimulation. B) Men experience a sense of orgasmic inevitability, and ejaculation cannot be prevented. C) Following orgasm, the body returns to its pre-aroused state. D) Men are unresponsive to sexual stimulation for a certain amount of time. E) Men are responsive to further sexual stimulation, if that stimulation quickly after orgasm. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-14 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Men are unresponsive to sexual stimulation for a certain amount of time. 15. The stages--desire, excitement, orgasm--were proposed as an alternative model by __________. A) Kinsey B) Kaplan C) Krafft-Ebing D) Masters and Johnson E) Freud Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-15 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Kaplan. 16. The textbook names which of the following distinctions as being important in classifying and understanding sexual dysfunctions? A) variable vs. constant; developmental vs. acquired B) lifelong vs. acquired; generalized vs. situational C) variable vs. constant; generalized vs. situational D) developmental vs. acquired; aversive vs. systolic E) developmental vs. acquired; functional vs. cognitive Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-16 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: B) lifelong vs. acquired; generalized vs. situational

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 17. Merging Female Sexual Arousal Disorder with Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder for women in DSM-5 is based on__________. A) recognition of aversive processes going on for many women that are not accounted for in the current criteria B) the presence of comorbid disorders existing for many women with Hypoactive Desire C) the finding that female Sexual Arousal Disorder is much easier to diagnose D) the finding that the processes of arousal and desire overlap for many women E) the criticism that the former categories were male-centered and hypersexual Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-17 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: D) the finding that the processes of arousal and desire overlap for many women. 18. Shari has come to see you at the Sexual Dysfunctions Clinic, because she is feeling very distressed over the fact that she never feels like engaging in sexual activity with her partner. Shari and her partner have had many arguments over this lack of interest, and she decided to see a therapist. In consulting the DSM-5, you would likely diagnose her with __________. A) sexual aversion disorder B) female sexual interest/arousal disorder C) female sexual arousal disorder D) female orgasm problems E) dyspareunia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-18 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Application Answer: B) female sexual interest/arousal disorder. 19. Hypoactive desire disorder is mainly a __________ issue. A) medical B) biological C) psychological D) genetic E) physiological Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-19 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) psychological

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 20. Which of the following statements is false regarding female sexual interest/arousal disorder? A) It may be one of the least understood of all sexual dysfunctions. B) There is a low correlation between subjective arousal and genital response. C) Arousal is measured directly by the lubrication and vasocongestion of the genital area. D) Women with this disorder want to become aroused but are unable to. E) Underdiagnosis appears common. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-20 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Arousal is measured directly by the lubrication and vasocongestion of the genital area. 21. DSM-5 classifies the persistent or recurrent inability to reach or sustain an erection until completion of sexual activity as __________. A) failure to ejaculate B) hypoactive sexual disorder C) male orgasmic disorder D) impotence E) male erectile disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-21 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: E) male erectile disorder. 22. Which statement is NOT true regarding erectile problems in cisgender males? A) The incidence of the disorder decreases with increasing age. B) Erectile difficulties are the most common complaint of cisgender men seeking help for sexual dysfunctions. C) Erectile problems can result in embarrassment, depression, and even suicidal inclinations. D) Most cisgender men will delay coming to a professional. E) The previous term for this problem was impotence. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-22 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) The incidence of the disorder decreases with increasing age.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 23. All of the following statements are true regarding orgasmic disorders EXCEPT __________. A) orgasmic disorders are some of the most commonly reported sexual dysfunctions B) female orgasmic disorder is much more common than male orgasmic disorder C) cisgender women are more likely to experience orgasm through masturbation than with a partner D) orgasmic disorder in cisgender men and women is also known as anorgasmia E) DSM-5 requires a delay in or absence of orgasm following normal excitement, causing distress or interpersonal difficulty Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-23 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: D) orgasmic disorder in men and women is also known as anorgasmia. 24. The most common sexual complaint of cisgender males is __________. A) erectile disorder B) dyspareunia C) premature ejaculation D) hypoactive disorder E) orgasmic disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-24 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) premature ejaculation. 25. In an effort towards greater precision in diagnosing female orgasmic disorder, the DSM-5 __________. A) identifies three stages of sexual response and provide guidelines as to how to diagnose dysfunction at each of the three stages B) requires that one of three indicators of reduced orgasmic response be present for at least six months and experienced on most occasions C) requires that orgasm be absent on most sexual occasions for at least six months D) identifies four subtypes of Orgasmic Disorder, based upon recognized etiological mechanisms E) identifies four subtypes, based upon type of impairment experienced Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-25 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: B) requires that one of three indicators of reduced orgasmic response be present for at least six months and experienced on most occasions.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 26. The DSM-5 combined vaginismus and dyspareunia into one disorder. One reason FOR and one reason AGAINST this proposed change is that __________. A) clinicians are not well-able to differentiate between the two; however, most cisgender women with vaginismus demonstrate avoidance behaviours during the procedures of a study whereas the cisgender women with dyspareunia do not B) there is overlap between features of the disorder; however, vaginismus does not have a clear basis in anxiety as does dyspareunia C) both disorders have a basis in anxiety; however only vaginismus is typically present at the moment of orgasm whereas dyspareunia dissipates with sexual response D) both disorders have a clear physical basis; however, their physical bases are different E) there is overlap in the physical correlates of the disorders; however, dyspareunia does not have a clear basis in anxiety Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-26 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Application Answer: A) clinicians are not well-able to differentiate between the two; however, most cisgender women with vaginismus demonstrate avoidance behaviours during the procedures of a study whereas the cisgender women with dyspareunia do not 27. Regarding hypersexuality, which of the following statements, is true? A) The concept of hypersexuality was first described in the 1960s, following the sexual revolution. B) In cisgender men, hypersexuality is also called nymphomania. C) For most people in the population, hypersexuality is a desirable state. D) Scientists agree with the notion that hypersexuality should be reconceptualized as an addiction. E) Those with hypersexuality often engage in sexual activity to regulate negative emotional states. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-27 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Application Answer: E) Those with hypersexuality often engage in sexual activity to regulate negative emotional states. 28. The monitoring of one's own sexual performance and the perceived responses of one's partner is referred to as __________ and is a common factor associated with __________. A) performance anxiety; arousal disorders B) social anxiety; sexual desire disorders C) Demand response; sexual desire disorders D) sexual anxiety; all sexual dysfunctions E) sexual performance; male erectile disorder

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-28 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: A) performance anxiety; arousal disorders 29. Which of the following is not an identified sexual dysfunction in the DSM-5? A) delayed ejaculation orgasmic disorder B) premature ejaculation orgasmic disorder C) prolonged-refractory period orgasmic disorder D) sexual interest/arousal disorder E) erectile disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-29 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: C) prolonged-refractory period orgasmic disorder 30. Variations in the hormones __________, __________, and __________ can strongly affect sex drive and are thought to play a role in cases __________ of sexual desire disorder A) estrogen, testosterone, prolactin; many B) estrogen, testosterone, prolactin; few C) estrogen, testosterone, oxytocin; few D) estrogen, testosterone, oxytocin; many E) estrogen, testosterone, cholecystokinin; many Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-30 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: B) estrogen, testosterone, prolactin; few 31. Sensate focus is a procedure where __________. A) sexual education is a major component B) couples learn to experience sexual enjoyment without ever having intercourse C) couples learn techniques to communicate effectively with each other, about all issues, not just sexual issues D) specific instructions for lovemaking are given, starting with pleasuring and then with intercourse E) couples learn to be comfortable with each other, to pleasure and enjoy each other at first without sexual intercourse

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-31 Learning Objective: 13.3: Describe the rationale for sensate focus, and describe the stages of this treatment tool for a couple in which one partner has been diagnosed with erectile disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: E) couples learn to be comfortable with each other, to pleasure and enjoy each other at first without sexual intercourse. 32. Thalia and their partner are seeking treatment for Thalia's premature ejaculation. The therapist suggests that the couple stimulate Thalia's penis to nearly full erection and then firmly press the penis to reduce arousal. This process is repeated until Thalia can refrain from ejaculating for extended periods. This treatment technique is referred to as __________. A) pain modification B) sensate focus C) diversion therapy D) the "squeeze" technique E) arousal desensitization Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-32 Learning Objective: 13.3: Describe the rationale for sensate focus, and describe the stages of this treatment tool for a couple in which one partner has been diagnosed with erectile disorder. Skill: Application Answer: D) the "squeeze" technique. 33. Overall, psychological sex therapies have been quite successful in treating sexual dysfunctions, including __________, __________, and __________. A) premature ejaculation; genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder; erectile dysfunction B) generalized sexual dysfunctions; lifelong sexual dysfunctions; developmental sexual dysfunctions C) sexual aversion disorder; male sexual arousal disorder; dyspareunia D) generalized sexual dysfunctions; acquired sexual dysfunctions; intermittent dysfunctions E) generalized sexual dysfunctions; lifelong sexual dysfunctions; acquired sexual dysfunctions Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-33 Learning Objectives: 13.3: Describe the rationale for sensate focus, and describe the stages of this treatment tool for a couple in which one partner has been diagnosed with erectile disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: A) premature ejaculation; genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder; erectile dysfunction 34. Common and well-established physical treatments for erectile dysfunction in cisgender males include __________, __________, and __________. A) penile implants; PDE-5 inhibitors; hormonal bypass surgery B) penile implants; PDE-5 inhibitors; pelvic floor physiotherapy C) penile implants; surgical interventions; PDE5 inhibitors D) effusive impedimentation; surgical interventions; hormonal bypass E) penile implants; PDE-5 inhibitors; vascular blockage

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-34 Learning Objective: 13.3: Describe the rationale for sensate focus, and describe the stages of this treatment tool for a couple in which one partner has been diagnosed with erectile disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: C) penile implants; surgical interventions; PDE5 inhibitors 35. Which of the following has not been identified as a complication associated with intracavernous therapy for erectile dysfunction? A) hypersexuality disorder B) penile pain C) development of scar tissue D) prolonged erections E) fibrosis Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-35 Learning Objective: 13.3: Describe the rationale for sensate focus, and describe the stages of this treatment tool for a couple in which one partner has been diagnosed with erectile disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: A) hypersexuality disorder 36. Nadia and Mandy are in a long-term relationship and have had an active sex life, except that Nadia has never been able to achieve orgasm. If she went to seek treatment, it is likely that the therapist would recommend __________. A) yohimbine hydrochloride B) Gingko biloba C) an in-depth examination by a gynecologist prior to any treatments D) hypnotherapy E) masturbation exercises Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-36 Learning Objective: 13.3: Describe the rationale for sensate focus, and describe the stages of this treatment tool for a couple in which one partner has been diagnosed with erectile disorder. Skill: Application Answer: E) masturbation exercises 37. The majority of physical treatments to treat sexual dysfunction have been developed to treat __________. A) male erectile dysfunction B) arousal disorders C) pain disorders D) premature ejaculation E) hypoactive sexual disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-37 Learning Objective: 13.3: Describe the rationale for sensate focus, and describe the stages of this treatment tool for a couple in which one partner has been diagnosed with erectile disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: A) male erectile dysfunction. 13-12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 38. Which of the following treatments appears to be effective for provoked vestibulodynia? A) progressive muscle relaxation B) diaphragmatic breathing C) pelvic floor physiotherapy D) reflexology E) visualization exercises Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 13-1-38 Learning Objective: 13.3: Describe the rationale for sensate focus, and describe the stages of this treatment tool for a couple in which one partner has been diagnosed with erectile disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: C) pelvic floor physiotherapy 39. The most common physical treatment for sexual dysfunctions has been __________. A) muscle relaxants B) surgical interventions for sexual pain disorder C) medications for sexual pain disorder D) physical implants for erectile disorder E) medications for erectile disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-39 Learning Objective: 13.3: Describe the rationale for sensate focus, and describe the stages of this treatment tool for a couple in which one partner has been diagnosed with erectile disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: D) physical implants for erectile disorder. 40. Cross-cultural research has found that, with regard to tolerance of gender-variance, other cultures __________. A) are similar to Western cultures in that there is very little room for persons who vary from "male" and "female" gender identities B) allow for some transgressing of gender roles C) allow for some transgressing of gender roles and provide gender-variant individuals with a distinct name and role in society D) are often less tolerant than Western cultures of persons who deviate from specific gender roles E) regard our tolerance and permissive attitudes as a sign of weakness Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-40 Learning Objective: 13.4: Apply a non-binary, dimensional approach to gender identity and birthassigned sex to showcase the diversities inherent in gender and sex, and consider the advantages and drawbacks of the use of the term gender/sex. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: C) allow for some transgressing of gender roles and provide gender-variant individuals with a distinct name and role in society 41. Gender dysphoria is diagnosed when __________. A) society's conception of the individual is discrepant with that person's biological sex B) the individual's experienced gender identity is not consistent with his or her biological sex C) the individual shows signs of early sexual maturity D) the individual prefers to wear clothes not consistent with his or her biological sex E) the individual shows signs of hermaphroditism 13-13 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-41 Learning Objective: 13.4: Apply a non-binary, dimensional approach to gender identity and birthassigned sex to showcase the diversities inherent in gender and sex, and consider the advantages and drawbacks of the use of the term gender/sex. Skill: Factual Answer: B) the individual's experienced gender identity is not consistent with his or her biological sex. 42. Tony is a 10-year-old boy who prefers to play stereotypical "girl" games such as "house" and "dolls." Tony does not enjoy playing with boys or playing games such as trucks and guns. Tony's parents became concerned that something was wrong with their son, and they brought him in for an evaluation. Tony reported that he does prefer girls as playmates and that he likes "girls' games" better as well. He knows that he is a boy, and he has no urge to wear dresses. Tony would likely be diagnosed with __________. A) nothing, since his behaviour does not meet the criteria for a disorder B) oppositional defiant disorder C) gender role confusion D) gender dysphoria E) gender identity disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-42 Learning Objective: 13.4: Apply a non-binary, dimensional approach to gender identity and birthassigned sex to showcase the diversities inherent in gender and sex, and consider the advantages and drawbacks of the use of the term gender/sex. Skill: Application Answer: A) nothing, since his behaviour does not meet the criteria for a disorder. 43. Ho-Sang believes that he is actually a female trapped in a man's body. Ho-Sang wears dresses and make-up, has gotten electrolysis to remove his facial hair and insists on being called "Holly." He is sexually attracted to males and has been labeled effeminate since he was young. Ho-Sang would most likely receive a diagnosis of __________. A) gender dysphoria B) cross-dressing C) sexual preference disorder D) transvestic disorder E) fetish disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-43 Learning Objective: 13.4: Apply a non-binary, dimensional approach to gender identity and birthassigned sex to showcase the diversities inherent in gender and sex, and consider the advantages and drawbacks of the use of the term gender/sex. Skill: Application Answer: A) gender dysphoria. 44. DSM-5 replaced Gender Identity Disorder with __________. A) Gender Dysphoric Disorder B) Gender Dysphoria in children and in adults C) Gender Dysphoria D) Gender Dysphoria with or without a disorder of sex development E) Gender Dissatisfaction Disorder, with or without a disorder of sex development

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-44 Learning Objective: 13.4: Apply a non-binary, dimensional approach to gender identity and birthassigned sex to showcase the diversities inherent in gender and sex, and consider the advantages and drawbacks of the use of the term gender/sex. Skill: factual Answer: C) Gender Dysphoria 45. Research supports the idea that gender dysphoria is caused by __________. A) lack of a same-sex parent model and overprotection by the opposite-sex parent B) the child's failure to separate from the parent of the opposite sex C) hormonal disturbances or exposure to chemicals during fetal development D) a gender identification gene found in twin studies of the disorder E) there is actually little support for any theory of the origin of gender dysphoria Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-45 Learning Objective: 13.4: Apply a non-binary, dimensional approach to gender identity and birthassigned sex to showcase the diversities inherent in gender and sex, and consider the advantages and drawbacks of the use of the term gender/sex. Skill: Factual Answer: E) there is actually little support for any theory of the origin of gender dysphoria. 46. Treatment of gender dysphoria generally involves __________ and results in __________. A) hormonal therapy; decrease in the desired secondary sex characteristics B) surgery; many problems and dissatisfaction C) cognitive-behaviour therapy; poor outcomes D) psychological therapy; change in gender conceptualization among children E) sex-reassignment surgery; satisfactory outcomes Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-46 Learning Objective: 13.4: Apply a non-binary, dimensional approach to gender identity and birthassigned sex to showcase the diversities inherent in gender and sex, and consider the advantages and drawbacks of the use of the term gender/sex. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: E) sex-reassignment surgery; satisfactory outcomes 47. The paraphilic disorders listed in DSM-5 include all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) sexual sadism B) fetishistic disorder C) voyeuristic disorder D) pedophilic disorder E) gender dysphoria Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-47 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: E) gender dysphoria.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 48. Which of the following statements is true regarding fetishes? A) Only specific objects such as items of clothing or body parts can become fetishes. B) It is known that only men develop fetishes. C) Fetishes are unconscious elements from unconscious fantasies. D) Generally, many people with fetishes are otherwise quite well-adjusted. E) Fetishes are often the result of an abnormal childhood sexual experience. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-48 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) Generally, many people with fetishes are otherwise quite well-adjusted. 49. Paul finds it necessary to wear his wife's underwear in order to become sexually aroused. Paul would be given a diagnosis of __________. A) transsexualism B) frotteuristic disorder C) partialism D) gender dysphoria E) transvestic disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-49 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Application Answer: E) transvestic disorder. 50. Sexual arousal as a result of inflicting pain or humiliation on others is considered __________, while arousal due to one's own pain is __________. A) sadomasochism; fetishistic disorder B) sexual masochism; sexual sadism C) sexual sadism; sexual masochism D) a sexual offense; sadomasochism E) voyeuristic disorder; exhibitionistic disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-50 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: C) sexual sadism; sexual masochism 51. Joe and Baron have been married for over 10 years and have a satisfying marriage. Baron finds it very arousing and pleasurable to tie Joe up, dress in a leather outfit with spikes, and verbally degrade him. Joe is required to behave submissively during these acts. Both partners find this behaviour sexually enjoyable. Baron's sexual behaviour is best described as __________. A) sexual sadism B) voyeuristic disorder C) klismaphilia D) fetishistic disorder E) sexual masochism 13-16 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-51 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Application Answer: A) sexual sadism. 52. Autoerotic asphyxia is seen in sexual __________. A) sadism B) masochism C) addiction D) fetishistic disorder E) transvestic disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-52 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) masochism 53. The sexual offense with the highest rate of re-offending is __________. A) voyeuristic B) exhibitionistic C) child molestation D) frotteuristic E) fetishistic Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-53 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: B) exhibitionistic. 54. Which of the following statements regarding exhibitionists is true? A) There are no reports of exhibitionists ever committing rape. B) It is rare that exhibitionists will commit other sexual offenses. C) A substantial number of exhibitionists go on to more serious offenses. D) Most exhibitionists suffer marital problems, usually involving sexual issues. E) Exhibitionism is a relatively rare phenomenon. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-54 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) A substantial number of exhibitionists go on to more serious offenses.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 55. All of the following statements about voyeurs are true EXCEPT __________ A) voyeurs are frequently referred to as "peeping toms" B) the majority of voyeurs will eventually begin to commit more serious sexual offenses such as sexual assault C) about half of voyeurs recognized their interest in voyeurism before the age of 15 D) many voyeurs also engage in exhibitionism E) voyeurs find it sexually exciting to watch other people undress or engage in sexual activity Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-55 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) the majority of voyeurs will eventually begin to commit more serious sexual offenses such as sexual assault. 56. An individual committing this offense will become sexually aroused by touching or rubbing up against an unsuspecting person. This activity is __________. A) pedophilic B) voyeuristic C) sensationalism D) partialism E) frotteuristic Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-56 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: E) frotteuristic. 57. Pedophilic disorder is diagnosed when the person is at least __________ years old and at least _________ years older than the victim. A) 10; 5 B) 15; 2 C) 25; 5 D) 16; 5 E) 20; 10 Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 13-1-57 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: D) 16; 5 58. The distinction between a child molester and someone with a pedophilic disorder is mostly a matter of __________. A) preference for sexual behaviour with a child B) the age of the victims C) the age of the offender D) the presence of a mental disorder E) there is no difference between a child molester and a person with pedophilic disorder 13-18 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-58 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) preference for sexual behaviour with a child. 59. The diagnosis of __________ has shown poor reliability. A) sexual offender B) child molester C) voyeuristic disorder D) frotteuristic disorder E) pedophilic disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-59 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Application Answer: E) pedophilic disorder 60. The ambiguous nature of the terms "recurrent" and __________ has possibly contributed to the reduced reliability of diagnosing pedophilic disorder. A) "duration" B) "excitement" C) "intense" D) "pleasure" E) "arousal" Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-60 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: C) "intense" 61. Which of the following statements concerning rape is true? A) Most rapists demonstrate deviant sexual arousal. B) Strangers constitute a very small percentage of rapists. C) Spouses constitute the highest percentage of rapists. D) A rapist, regardless of the presence of sadism or personality disorder, can be given a DSM-5 diagnosis. E) Strangers constitute the highest percentage of rapists. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-61 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) Strangers constitute a very small percentage of rapists.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 62. Which of the following statements is true about rapists? A) Almost all rapists show some evidence of sadism. B) Most rapists are suffering from a DSM-5 disorder at the time of the offense. C) Sadistic rapists are the only rapists who show greater arousal to sexual assault on a woman than to consenting sex. D) Serial sexual murderers are more common than was realized. E) Almost all rapists also suffer from a personality disorder. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-62 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) Sadistic rapists are the only rapists who show greater arousal to sexual assault on a woman than to consenting sex. 63. After 5 to 10 years in the community, more than _________ percent of rapists will commit another sexual assault. A) 3 B) 5 C) 25 D) 50 E) 72 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-63 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: C) 25 64. A sexual preference toward non-consenting and resisting but not necessarily physically suffering victims is called __________. A) biastophilia B) erotophilia C) sadism D) subclinical sadism E) hypersexuality Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-64 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: A) biastophilia. 65. Which of the following is NOT a form of paraphilic disorder? A) zoophilia B) erotophilia C) obscene phone calls D) bestiality E) klismaphilia

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-65 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: B) erotophilia 66. Freund's courtship disorder theory of sexual offending suggests that __________. A) sexual offenses are very rare occurrences B) fixation at any one of the stages of human sexual interaction produces sexual offending C) humans become aggressive sexually because they are similar to animals D) child molestation results from disastrous adult relationships E) there are two phases in human sexual interactions Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-66 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) fixation at any one of the stages of human sexual interaction produces sexual offending. 67. An extremely important aspect of the feminist theory of rape is the fact that __________. A) the main function of rape is to humiliate and possess power over the victim B) rapists do not know how to express their needs for intimacy C) rape is a means of sexually controlling women D) rape in an expression of anger toward the self E) rape has increased over time because women are becoming more dominant in society Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-67 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) the main function of rape is to humiliate and possess power over the victim. 68. Sanday's studies of patriarchal societies and rates of rape showed that __________. A) men were more likely to say they would rape a woman but less likely to actually do it B) rates of rape are actually higher in matriarchal societies C) rape was relatively rare in most tribal societies D) surprisingly, rates of rape were not as high in societies where men were already dominant E) rates of rape were much higher in patriarchal societies where women were seen as the property of men Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-68 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: E) rates of rape were much higher in patriarchal societies where women were seen as the property of men.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 69. Which of the following has NOT been demonstrated in pedophiles? A) Non-right handedness. B) Minor physical anomalies. C) Head injuries before the age of 13 years. D) Above average IQ. E) Cortical deficits in regions associated with recognition of sexual stimuli. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-69 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Above average IQ. 70. As a behaviourist, you would likely view sexual offending as originating from __________. A) relationship problems B) conditioning of deviant sexual practices C) early childhood separation difficulties D) genetic dysfunctions E) unconscious conflicts Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-70 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) conditioning of deviant sexual practices. 71. A sexual offender being treated during the early 1960s would likely undergo __________. A) chemical castration B) segregation C) castration D) pairing of deviant sexual thoughts with an aversive stimulus E) psychoanalytic psychotherapy Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-71 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Application Answer: D) pairing of deviant sexual thoughts with an aversive stimulus. 72. More recent comprehensive programs designed to treat sexual offenders involve components such as __________. A) addressing the tendency to deny or minimize their offending B) eliminating the sex drive completely C) techniques for self-hypnotic control of their urges D) recognizing the unconscious roots of their problems E) engaging the offenders' family in treatment

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-72 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) addressing the tendency to deny or minimize their offending. 73. What did Marshall and Barbaree (1988) find in their study of the effects of their communitybased program? A) Treated offenders tend to reoffend far less than untreated offenders. B) Despite the benefits of treatment, there is little savings, in terms of financial costs, to society. C) Phallometric assessment scores tend to be less deviant after treatment. D) Community-based programs are more successful than are prison-based programs. E) Changing sexual offenders' deviant sexual behaviours is very difficult to do. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-73 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Treated offenders tend to reoffend far less than untreated offenders. 74. What is the reoffence rate for sexual offenders treated with cognitive-behavioural programs? A) 17.3% B) 9.9% C) 32.3% D) 51.3% E) 25.2% Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-1-74 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 9.9% 75. __________ refers to how someone expresses their gender whereas __________ is the collection of characteristics society conceptualizes as masculine/feminine/androgynous. A) Gender role; gender expression B) Gender identity; gender role C) Gender expression; gender identity D) Gender expression; gender role E) Gender role; gender identity Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-75 Learning Objective: 13.4: Apply a non-binary, dimensional approach to gender identity and birthassigned sex to showcase the diversities inherent in gender and sex, and consider the advantages and drawbacks of the use of the term gender/sex. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Gender expression; gender role.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 76. Which of the following is NOT one of the specific paraphilic disorders which constitute criminal offences if enacted? A) exhibitionistic disorder B) voyeuristic disorder C) gender dysphoria D) frotteuristic disorder E) pedophilic disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-76 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) gender dysphoria 77. Ilya can only reach orgasm by rubbing up against an unsuspecting person. Which paraphilic disorder is Ilya most likely to be diagnosed with? A) exhibitionistic disorder B) fetishistic disorder C) voyeuristic disorder D) frotteuristic disorder E) pedophilic disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-77 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Application Answer: D) frotteuristic disorder 78. Three main risk factors for sexual offending include: __________. A) sexual deviance, antisocial traits, and intimacy deficits B) sexual deviance, antisocial traits, and dissociative identity disorder C) hypersexuality, antisocial traits, and intimacy deficits D) intermittent explosive disorder, antisocial traits, and intimacy deficits E) hypersexuality, sexual deviance, and antisocial traits Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-1-78 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) sexual deviance, antisocial traits, and intimacy deficits

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 13 - True/False Questions 1. Any sexual activity not performed solely for procreation was once considered abnormal. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-2-79 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 2. Research consistently finds that cisgender females report significantly less use of pornography and masturbation than do cisgender males. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-80 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 3. Vasocongestion refers to the swelling of the genital tissues during sexual excitement. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-2-81 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 4. The sexual response sequence of both cisgender males and females are highly variable and depend on many factors. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-82 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 5. In comparison with Masters and Johnson's model, Kaplan's model of sexual stages allows for a greater variety of sexual responses that can be considered "normal". a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-2-83 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 6. There is general agreement in the scientific community that hypoactive sexual desire in a cisgender male, is abnormal. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-84 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 7. Aside from sexual pain disorders, sexual dysfunctions are classified according to which of the three phases (desire, arousal, or orgasm) is affected. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-85 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 8. Systematic research has shown that genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder is likely caused by a conditioned fear of intercourse. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-86 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 9. Papaverine rapidly increases heart rate and blood pressure, thus increasing blood flow to the penis, resulting in erection amongst people with erectile disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-87 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 10. Feelings of discomfort associated with one's biological sex is referred to as gender dysphoria. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-88 Learning Objective: 13.4: Apply a non-binary, dimensional approach to gender identity and birthassigned sex to showcase the diversities inherent in gender and sex, and consider the advantages and drawbacks of the use of the term gender/sex. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 11. Partialisms are fetishes involving particular items of clothing. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-89 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 12. Self-induced oxygen deprivation used to achieve orgasm is also referred to as hypoxyphilia or asphyxiophilia. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-2-90 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 13. Voyeuristic disorder is the most frequently occurring sexual offense in Western countries. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-2-91 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 14. Frotteuristic disorder can be considered a form of sexual aggression belonging to the same category as rape. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-92 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 15. Not all child molesters are pedophiles, and some pedophiles may not have committed a sexual offence against a child. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-2-93 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 16. Rape, as a criminal offense, was replaced in Canadian law by three crimes of sexual assault, defined by different degrees of forcefulness. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-2-94 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 17. A conservative estimate of the frequency of rape in Canada is that over 75,000 cisgender women are raped in Canada every year (around 1 every 7 minutes). a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-2-95 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 18. The idea that conditioning is the basis of acquired preferences motivating cisgender men to engage in deviant or unusual sexual practices has received strong empirical support. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-96 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 19. According to feminist theories of sexual offending, the sexual aspect of the crime is given more consideration than the power aspect. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-2-97 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 20. Comprehensive treatments of sexual offenders commonly include a component that emphasizes positive psychology, which takes into account the offender's strengths and helps them construct a meaningful and prosocial life. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-98 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 21. Cost benefit evaluations of sexual offender treatment programs show an approximate savings of $4500, compared to no treatment. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-2-99 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Chapter 13 - Essay Questions 1. Discuss the historical view of sexual behaviour. In your answer, discuss the beliefs regarding appropriate/inappropriate sexual activity, as described by both religious and scientific belief. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-3-100 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: Beliefs about appropriate and deviant sexual behaviour, although very different in today's society than in the past, have been very much influenced by the historical beliefs inherent in religion and science. Judeo-Christian beliefs, as espoused by the Bible and the Talmud, have been challenged in our society. Christian values developed from the teachings of St. Augustine, who declared that the only acceptable sexual activity was sexual intercourse between a cisgender male and a cisgender female, for the purposes of procreation. Oral-genital sex, masturbation, anal sex, and sexual activity between samesex partners were considered sinful. Science in the 16th and 17th centuries attributed all forms of illness to "excessive" sexual activity. Treatises were written by Tissot, Reverend Sylvester Graham, and Dr. John Harvey Kellogg in the 19th century surrounding the ills caused by masturbation. These problems, such as dullness, defective development, ill health and untrustworthiness could be cured with healthy activities and a bland diet. Graham crackers and cornflakes were developed for this purpose. Even today, research on sexuality and sexual problems is much slower than in other areas, and many would like to ignore the importance of studying sexuality. 2. Describe the four stages of the sexual response cycle as described by Masters and Johnson. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-3-101 Learning Objective: 13.1: List and provide examples of each phase of the sexual response cycle as developed by Masters and Johnson. Skill: Factual Answer: William Masters and Virginia Johnson were the first to investigate the physiological changes occurring in the normal human sexual response, labeling these events the sexual response cycle. They divided the sexual response cycle into four stages: excitement, plateau, orgasm, and resolution. During the excitement phase, the genital tissues fill with blood and swell (vasocongestion). The penis becomes erect and the vaginal area becomes lubricated, the muscles become tense, and the nipples and testes become engorged. Heart rate also increases and breathing becomes more rapid and shallow. During the 13-30 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e plateau phase arousal reaches its maximum, with additional swelling of the genital tissues. During orgasm, both sexes experience rhythmic, muscular contractions at about eight-second intervals. Ejaculation occurs with the penis, and contractions of the uterus and the pelvic muscles surrounding the vagina occurs. Blood pressure and heart rate reach a peak during orgasm. Resolution refers to the return of the body to its pre-aroused state. Shortly after ejaculation, individuals with a penis experience a refractory period, during which they are unresponsive to sexual stimulation, however, those with a vagina do not, and can experience multiple orgasms. 3. Describe the problems evident in diagnosing sexual dysfunctions. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-3-102 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Many issues exist that create challenges for diagnosticians evaluating sexual disorders. For one, it is often very difficult to determine what is normal as opposed to what is abnormal. Frequency of behaviour may not be the most important variable in determining whether behaviour is abnormal, since individuals may seek help and be diagnosed even if the majority of the population suffered from the disorder. Reliable diagnoses of satisfaction with present functioning are difficult to obtain, since deciding whether behaviour is persistent, delayed, minimal, or deficient are subjective judgments. Also, some people with sexual difficulties are not dissatisfied. In order for a sexual disorder to be diagnosed, DSM-5 requires distress to be experienced. This criterion is problematic because many paraphilic disorders cause distress to the victim but not the person themselves. Many clinicians ignore this criterion and diagnose the individual regardless of whether or not they report being distressed. Most people who rape others or molest children do not meet the diagnostic criteria for a DSM disorder (e.g., sexual sadism or pedophilic disorder). 4. Describe the DSM-5 disorder that captures sexual pain. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-3-103 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: DSM-5 genito-pelvic pain/penetration disorder is a consolidation of the former sexual pain disorders, in particular dyspareunia and vaginismus. This disorder is characterized by persistent or recurrent difficulties with vaginal penetration during intercourse; marked vulvovaginal or pelvic pain during vaginal intercourse or penetration attempts; marked fear or anxiety regarding pain before, during, or after vaginal penetration; tensing or tightening of the pelvic floor muscles during attempted penetration. To receive this DSM-5 diagnosis, there must be marked distress and the difficulties must have been present for at least 6 months (that is, it must not be a transient problem).

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 5. What is hypersexuality? Discuss conceptual issues and evaluate the evidence for hypersexuality as a behavioural addiction. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 13-3-104 Learning Objective: 13.2: Compare and contrast lifelong versus acquired sexual dysfunction. Provide one example of each of the following: a lifelong generalized sexual dysfunction, a lifelong situational sexual dysfunction, an acquired generalized sexual dysfunction, and an acquired situational sexual dysfunction. Skill: Factual Answer: Hypersexuality is sometimes called sex addiction. Although there was considerable attention directed to it during the DSM-5 development, hypersexuality is certainly not new. Core features of hypersexuality include: a subjective loss of control over sexual urges, fantasies and behaviours, and engagement in sexual activity to regulate negative affect. There has been debate regarding the frequency cut off for sex addiction. An index called the total sexual outlet was based on the number of orgasms achieved in a given week; using this criterion a small percentage of males report it at 7 times per week; however, this is not a useful index for those with a vaginal genital system, given the variability in these individuals’ ability to reach orgasm. At the most basic level, there does not seem to be an agreement as to whether high sexuality should even be considered pathological; it is most likely a dimensional construct. There is wide criticism of the view of hypersexuality as a form of addiction. Data on hypersexuality do not map on well to addiction theories. Some researchers have pointed to possible brain alterations in people high in hypersexuality; but such alterations may represent desire dysregulation, rather than addiction. 6. Describe the psychological treatments used to treat sexual dysfunctions and conclude with how effective these treatments are. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 13-3-105 Learning Objective: 13.3: Describe the rationale for sensate focus, and describe the stages of this treatment tool for a couple in which one partner has been diagnosed with erectile disorder. Skill: Factual Answer: The first therapy was that of Masters and Johnson, which was a comprehensive, intensive approach to treatment where both partners stayed at the clinic for two weeks. Most modern treatment programs retain some aspects of Masters and Johnson's program, and typically involve both partners in treatment. The majority of programs begin with an extensive assessment of the sexual history and functioning of each partner, followed by sexual education where information is provided and myths are challenged. Techniques aimed at improving communication are presented, regarding both sexual and non-sexual issues. Generally, clients will be told to privately explore their own bodies and learn what they find pleasurable and arousing. Sensate focus then follows. It is a form of desensitization applied to sexual fears. This procedure consists of sequenced phases, so the couple can learn to focus on aspects of sexual interactions that are not about performance. At first, no attempt is made at intercourse, and couples begin slowly, first just removing clothing, then touching bodies, next, touching genitals and breasts, and finally, attempting sexual intercourse. The idea behind this process is that couples will become comfortable telling each other what is pleasurable and the anxiety about performance will decrease. In addition to sensate focus, there are several behavioural exercises to address specific sexual dysfunctions e.g., stop-start technique for premature ejaculation.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 7. List the various paraphilic disorders and describe two of them. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-3-106 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: Paraphilic Disorders are described in the DSM-5 as unusual sexual interests. They are characterized by recurrent, intense, sexually arousing fantasies, sexual urges, or behaviours involving non-human objects, the suffering or humiliation of oneself or one's partner, or children or other nonconsenting individuals. Unusual sexual interests are not in themselves a disorder; according to the DSM5, diagnoses are assigned only when the paraphilia is causing significant distress or impairment to the individual, or harms/poses risk of harm to another person. Diagnoses also require that the paraphilia is present for at least 6 months. The paraphilic disorders listed in the DSM-5 include exhibitionistic disorder, frotteuristic disorder, pedophilic disorder, sexual masochism, sexual sadism, transvestic disorder, voyeuristic disorder. The "Other Specified Paraphilic Disorder" category includes bestiality, necrophilia, urophilia, klismaphilia, and telephone scatologia. See textbook for detailed descriptions of the paraphilic disorders. 8. What is the neurodevelopmental theory of pedophilia? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-3-107 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual Answer: It has been proposed that neurodevelopmental problems in utero or in early childhood development may be associated with increased risk of pedophilia. Relative to their counterparts, individuals with pedophilia more frequently display non-right handedness, and minor physical anomalies. They also are more likely to have had a head injury before the age of 13, and to have lower IQ. There also are several brain differences that distinguish pedophiles from non-pedophiles e.g., cortical regions associated with recognition of sexual stimuli. There is no definitive conclusion regarding pedophilia as a neurodevelopmental disorder. Much more research is needed as there has been considerable methodological variability across studies. 9. Describe how Freund's (1990) courtship disorder theory might explain sexual offending. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 13-3-108 Learning Objective: 13.5: Compare and contrast paraphilias and paraphilic disorders. Provide an example of each. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: As with animal courtship, there are four phases in human sexual interactions: 1) looking for and appraising a potential partner; 2) posturing and displaying oneself to the partner; 3) tactile interaction with the partner; and 4) sexual intercourse. Fixation at any one of these stages produces sexual offending: at stage 1, voyeuristic disorder; at stage 2, exhibitionistic disorder; at stage 3, frotteuristic disorder, and at stage 4, rape.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 14 Neurodevelopmental Disorders Chapter 14 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. In the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, the view that intellectual disability was inherited was emphasized. At the same time, the__________ movement called for measures such as sterilization and restriction of marriage. A) eugenics B) moral C) sanctity D) purity E) humane Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-01 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) eugenics 2. Stereotypy refers to ___________. A) misunderstandings applied to persons with neurodevelopmental disorders B) repetition of meaningless and non-functional gestures or movements C) the prevalence of neurodevelopmental disorders D) behaviours that are used to diagnose Down Syndrome E) behaviours present in FASD Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-02 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) repetition of meaningless and non-functional gestures or movements. 3. In North America, the term __________ is used to refer to normal intelligence with specific learning problems (such as reading), while in Britain it refers to mental handicap. A) intellectual disability B) neurodevelopmental disability C) neurodevelopmental handicap D) intellectual disability E) learning disability Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-03 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) learning disability

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. According to the American Association on Intellectual and Developmental Disabilities definition, intellectual disability refers to significantly subaverage intellectual functioning accompanied by __________. A) limitations in areas of adaptive behaviour (such as self-care) B) having at least one relative with an IQ below average C) reading difficulties D) having at least one parent with an IQ below average E) math difficulties Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-04 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) limitations in areas of adaptive behaviour (such as self-care). 5. The choice of cut-off IQ scores for the diagnosis of intellectual disability __________. A) has changed from two standard deviations below the mean to an IQ score of 85 B) has remained at two standard deviations below the mean C) has changed from two standard deviations below the mean to an IQ score of 60 D) has remained at three standard deviations below the mean E) has changed from two standard deviations below the mean to an IQ score of 75 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-05 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) has changed from two standard deviations below the mean to an IQ score of 75. 6. The three domains of adaptive skills used today by the AAMR/AAIDD in the definition of intellectual disability are __________. A) conceptual, social, and practical B) social, intellectual, and conceptual C) cognitive, social, and emotional D) behavioural, social, and emotional E) cognitive, social, and practical Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-06 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) conceptual, social, and practical. 7. Adaptive behaviours or daily living skills are generally clustered under four domains. Which of the following is NOT one of those domains? A) Communication B) Personal living skills (e.g., personal hygiene) C) Cooking skills. D) Social interaction skills. E) Motor skills.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-07 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Cooking skills. 8. What is the "cloak of competence"? A) The clothing that people with developmental disorders wear to pass as "normal." B) The tendency of people with developmental disorders to refrain from asking questions when they do not understand something. C) the need that people with developmental disorders have to deny their cognitive difficulties, and their attempt to pass as "normal" in society. D) the need of people with developmental disorders to please others. E) the need of people with developmental disorders to agree with others. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-08 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: C) the need that people with developmental disorders have to deny their cognitive difficulties, and their attempt to pass as "normal" in society. 9. Which of the following neonatal disorders has not been associated with risk of intellectual disability? A) hypoxia B) respiratory disorders. C) meningitis. D) encephalitis. E) weighing in at over 9 lbs at birth. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-09 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: E) weighing in at over 9 lbs at birth. 10. Which of the following is NOT a perinatal factor associated with risk of intellectual disability? A) Placenta insufficiency B) Premature delivery C) Obstetrical trauma D) Eclampsia E) Maternal depression Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-10 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Maternal depression

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. Though dominant inheritance of intellectual disability is very rare, the text mentions two disorders transmitted in this manner. Which of the following is such a disorder? A) phenylketonuria B) Fragile X syndrome C) tuberous sclerosis D) galactosemia E) Tay-Sach's disease Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 14-1-11 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: C) tuberous sclerosis 12. The best-known chromosomal abnormality associated with intellectual disability is __________; the most common type of this abnormality is __________. A) Fragile X syndrome; trisomy 21 B) Tay-Sachs disease; trisomy 21 C) Down syndrome; trisomy 23 D) Tay-Sachs disease; trisomy 23 E) Down syndrome; trisomy 21 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-12 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Down syndrome; trisomy 21 13. Prenatal screening for chromosomal abnormalities is possible through __________; this procedure is conducted between the __________ weeks of pregnancy. A) amniocentesis; 8th and 11th B) amniocentesis; 11th and 18th C) ultrasound; 11th and 18th D) ultrasound; 8th and 11th E) amniocentesis; 10th and 12th Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-13 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: B) amniocentesis; 11th and 18th 14. The three chromosomal abnormalities that cause Down syndrome are: ___________. A) trisomy 21; translocation; and mosaicism B) trisomy 23; translocation; and mosaicism C) trisomy 21; translocation; and Fragile X D) trisomy 23; translocation; and Fragile X E) trisomy 23; mosaicism; and Fragile X Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-14 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual 14-4 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: A) trisomy 21; translocation; mosaicism 15. Which of the following is NOT true concerning phenylketonuria (PKU)? A) It is now detected through a blood test shortly after birth. B) It is caused by an autosomal recessive gene. C) It is a metabolic disorder. D) It occurs in approximately 1 in 100-500 live births in North America. E) It results in an inactive liver enzyme, leading to intellectual disability. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-15 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) It occurs in approximately 1 in 100-500 live births in North America. 16. The damaging effects of PKU can be ___________. A) mostly prevented with a diet that contains no nuts or soy products B) reversed somewhat with a diet that is high in essential amino acids C) mostly prevented with a diet high in essential amino acids D) reversed with a diet that is high in lysine and glutamine E) mostly prevented with a diet that contains no phenylalanine Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-16 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: E) mostly prevented with a diet that contains no phenylalanine. 17. Which of the following is not a metabolic disorder? A) Tay-Sach's disease B) Gaucher's disease C) Hurler's syndrome D) hyperammonemia E) congenital hypothyroidism Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-17 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) Tay-Sach's disease 18. Research concerning maternal drinking during pregnancy indicates that ___________. A) binge drinking and moderate drinking over a longer period of time are equally damaging B) moderate drinking over a longer period may be more damaging than binge drinking C) the effects of binge drinking depend on the type of beverage consumed by the mother D) neither binge drinking nor moderate drinking over a longer period of time have an effect on the fetus E) binge drinking may be more damaging than moderate drinking that takes place over a longer period Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-18 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: E) binge drinking may be more damaging than moderate drinking that takes place over a longer period. 19. Fetal alcohol syndrome is found in __________ per 1,000 live births. A) 1 to 3 B) 5 to 10 C) 10 to 15 D) 20 to 30 E) 40 to 50 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-19 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Application Answer: A) 1 to 3 20. Neurodevelopmental disorders occur in __________ percent of children with HIV who do not receive appropriate treatment. A) 10-15 B) 20-25 C) 50 D) 65-70 E) 75-90 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-20 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: E) 75-90 21. __________, a drug prescribed by European physicians in the 1950s and 1960s for nausea, was found to cause limb deficiencies or malformations in infants. A) Dilantin B) Acetaminophen C) Mellaril D) Thalidomide E) Benadryl Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-21 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Thalidomide 22. The findings of the Romanian adoption study are most consistent with the idea that ___________. A) children appear to inherit low intelligence from their parents B) early environmental factors shape physical health and psychosocial functioning C) intelligence is affected by peer social influences in middle childhood D) intelligence is multi-faceted and very difficult to predict E) adaptive skills, but not intelligence, are strongly affected by the early environment

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-22 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: B) early environmental factors shape physical health and psychosocial functioning. 23. Evaluative reviews of early intervention and prevention programs indicate all of the following EXCEPT ___________. A) significant improvement in intellectual performance and academic achievement B) prevention of behavioural challenges C) greater engagement and social competence D) lack of preparation for inclusive education and community experience E) independence and mastery Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-23 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: D) lack of preparation for inclusive education and community experience. 24. Which of the following is NOT an "essential daily ingredient" for the development of young children as expressed by Ramey and Ramey in their summary of early intervention studies? A) a half hour of appropriate educational television B) encouragement of curiosity C) skill rehearsal D) organizational assistance E) positive reinforcement of developmental achievements Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-24 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: A) a half hour of appropriate educational television 25. Which of the following is NOT associated with Down syndrome? A) congenital heart disease B) poor muscle tone C) kidney abnormalities D) congenital cataracts E) diabetes Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-25 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: C) kidney abnormalities

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 26. Adults with Down syndrome are at high risk for ___________. A) Parkinson-like dementia B) lung cancer C) schizophrenia D) Alzheimer-type dementia E) Huntington's disease Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-26 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Alzheimer-type dementia. 27. __________ is the most common hereditary cause of intellectual disability. A) Fragile X syndrome B) Phenylketonuria C) Tay-Sachs disease D) Lesch-Nyhan disease E) Down syndrome Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 14-1-27 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Fragile X syndrome 28. Cisgender males with __________ show a particular pattern of cognitive functioning: a weakness in sequential processing of information but strengths in simultaneous, holistic processing. A) phenylketonuria B) Tay-Sachs disease C) Fragile X syndrome D) Turner's syndrome E) Down syndrome Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-28 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Fragile X syndrome 29. Nadia believes that the lives of individuals with disabilities should be as normal as possible. Nadia is working by what has been called the __________ principle, introduced in Scandinavia by Bengt Nirje. A) ordinary B) similarity C) normalization D) regular E) contact

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-29 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Application Answer: C) normalization 30. The influence of the __________ principle has contributed to the ________ of thousands of people living with disabilities. A) regularity; deinstitutionalization B) regularity; ostracizing C) contact; normalization D) normalization; ostracizing E) normalization; deinstitutionalization Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-30 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: A) normalization; deinstitutionalization 31. A recent survey of cisgender women with intellectual disability living in community residences indicated that between _______ percent had been sexually assaulted. A) 75-80 B) 65-70 C) 45-50 D) 85-95 E) 25-30 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-31 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: A) 75-80 32. Perceiving deviant behaviours to be a function of a neurodevelopmental disorder is called ___________. A) dual diagnosis B) oversight C) diagnostic overshadowing D) diagnostic oversight E) overshadowing Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-32 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: C) diagnostic overshadowing.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 33. The co-occurrence of serious behavioural or psychiatric disorders in people with developmental disabilities has been labelled __________. A) co-diagnosis B) comorbidity C) dual occurrence D) co-prevalence E) dual diagnosis Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-33 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: E) dual diagnosis 34. Estimates of the prevalence rates of dual diagnosis (co-occurrence of behavioural or psychiatric disorders in people with developmental disabilities) range from ___________. A) 14-39% B) 50-60% C) 70-80% D) 5-12% E) 20-25% Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 14-1-34 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: A) 14-39%. 35. While deinstitutionalization was a major issue in the 1970s and 1980s, according to the text the focus shifted in the 1990s to ___________. A) studying normalization B) examining mainstreaming C) reducing marginalization D) reinstituting institutionalization E) evaluating quality of life Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 14-1-35 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: E) evaluating quality of life. 36. __________ approaches are generally the intervention of choice for maladaptive behaviours such as aggression and self-injury. A) Behavioural B) Cognitive C) Medical D) Psychodynamic E) Existential

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-36 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Behavioural 37. What does the term "dignity of risk" refer to? A) The right of individuals to choose to take some risk in engaging in life experiences and the consequences associated with those risks. B) The shame that individuals with intellectual disabilities experience when they take risks and are punished. C) The first principle in the ethical code of conduct for psychologists. D) The process of weighing the pros and cons of taking risks. E) The mastery that people experience when they take calculated risks. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 14-1-37 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: A) The right of individuals to choose to take some risk in engaging in life experiences and the consequences associated with those risks. 38. Autism spectrum disorder was first identified as a childhood disorder by ___________. A) John Watson B) Steven Garner C) Sigmund Freud D) Aaron Beck E) Leo Kanner Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-38 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Leo Kanner. 39. Autism spectrum disorder occurs ___________. A) twice as often in females as in males B) three to four times as often in females as in males C) twice as often in males as in females D) only in males E) three to four times as often in males as in females Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-39 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: E) three to four times as often in males as in females.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 40. Evidence suggests that an effective predictor of outcome among people with autism spectrum disorder is ___________. A) an IQ of 70 B) an IQ above 95 C) the absence of significant psychiatric problems D) the development of fluent speech by age 5 E) the absence of epilepsy or sensory impairments Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-40 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) the development of fluent speech by age 5. 41. Hala is a baby who stiffens or screams in response to being held by their parents. This behaviour is most likely a sign of which disorder? A) autism spectrum disorder B) pervasive developmental disorder C) Tay-Sachs disease D) childhood schizophrenia E) Fragile X syndrome Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-41 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Application Answer: A) autism spectrum disorder 42. Approximately __________ % of autistic children are mute. A) 10 B) 80 C) 40 D) 50 E) 60 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-42 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) 50 43. Kasperi is a child with autism who frequently repeats his mother's phrases, using the same or similar intonation. This behaviour is referred to as ___________. A) repetitious verbal mimicking B) dystonia C) echolalia D) imitation E) pronoun reversal Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-43 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Application 14-12 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: C) echolalia. 44. Children with autism, rather than referring to themselves as I, often refer to themselves as "he" or "she." This behaviour is referred to as ___________. A) echolalia B) repetitious verbal mimicking C) ego dysfunction D) pronoun reversal E) dystonia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-44 Learning Objective14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) pronoun reversal. 45. A small proportion of people with autism display exceptional behaviour in certain areas, such as mathematics or music. These individuals are referred to as ___________. A) savants B) autists C) geniuses D) excepts E) special Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-45 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) savants. 46. With regard to diagnosis of autism and Asperger's Disorder, the DSM-5 ___________. A) created a new subtype of PDD for Asperger's disorder B) included both in a diagnostic category termed autism spectrum disorder C) created a diagnostic category for high functioning autism D) created a category for high functioning Asperger's disorder E) added the criterion that language skills must be delayed for both disorders Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-46 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) included both in a diagnostic category termed autism spectrum disorder. 47. Karen is taking her son David for an assessment concerning a potential diagnosis of autism spectrum disorder. They are most likely to be assessed by a ___________. A) speech and language specialist B) psychiatrist C) multidisciplinary team D) social worker E) psychologist

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-47 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Application Answer: C) multidisciplinary team. 48. The __________ hypothesis of autism spectrum disorder focused on family characteristics. A) psychodynamic B) biological C) medical D) psychogenic E) social Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-48 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) psychogenic 49. Which of the following drugs was NOT mentioned by the text as having been used in the treatment of autism spectrum disorder? A) risperidone B) valium C) naltrexone D) haloperidol E) methylphenidate Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-49 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) valium 50. __________ therapy appears to be very effective in treating many of the problems associated with developmental disabilities and autism spectrum disorder. A) Cognitive-behavioural B) Behaviour C) Interpersonal D) Cognitive E) Psychodynamic Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-50 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Application Answer: B) Behaviour

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 51. In recent years, many educational programs for people with neurodevelopmental disorders have focused on developing social skills and independent living skills. These programs often use __________ approaches. A) social learning B) operant conditioning C) classical conditioning D) paired-associate conditioning E) modelling Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-51 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) operant conditioning 52. Which of the following is true regarding the use of medications to treat autism? A) SSRIs have shown promising effects in the treatment of the core symptoms of autism. B) Antipsychotics are effective to treat the core symptoms of autism. C) No medications have been developed to treat the core symptoms of autism. D) Stimulants are effective to reduce the core symptoms of autism. E) Cannabis is gaining evidence for the treatment of the core symptoms of autism. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-52 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) No medications have been developed to treat the core symptoms of autism. 53. All of the following are examples of learning disorders EXCEPT __________. A) impairment of written expression B) impairment in mathematics C) athletic disorders D) difficulty with spelling E) impairment in reading Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-53 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) athletic disorders. 54. Reading disorders stem from a core deficit in __________ A) amygdala functioning B) spatial reasoning C) phonological processing D) moral reasoning E) set shifting Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-54 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual 14-15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: C) phonological processing. 55. Deficits in mathematics is also known as __________. A) dyscalculia B) dysalgebra C) dystonia D) dyslexia E) dysgraphia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-55 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) dyscalculia. 56. Difficulties with mathematics may stem from a core deficit in __________. A) amygdala functioning B) spatial reasoning C) working memory D) hippocampal size E) processing speed Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-56 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) working memory. 57. The most controversial and least understood of all of the learning disorder subtypes is __________. A) impairment of reading B) autism spectrum disorder C) impairment of written expression D) impairment of mathematics E) Asperger disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-57 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) impairment of written expression. 58. Research findings about the etiology of learning disorders suggest they are multifactorial, but according to the text it is generally believed that __________. A) psychological causes may be implicated B) biological causes may be implicated C) neither biological nor psychological causes are likely to be implicated D) biological causes may be implicated, but secondary to psychological causes E) both biological and environmental causes may be implicated

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-58 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) both biological and environmental causes may be implicated. 59. Evidence-based reading interventions target all of the following except __________. A) phonemic awareness B) phonics C) vocabulary development D) reading fluency E) regulation of anxiety Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-59 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) regulation of anxiety. 60. Which is the most common form of learning disability? A) impairment in written expression B) impairment in mathematics C) impairment in verbal expression D) impairment in reading E) impairment in social interaction Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-60 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) impairment in reading 61. Which is the approximate prevalence for specific learning disorders in the U.S.A.? A) 5-17% B) 80% C) 6-7% D) 12.5% E) 9.7%. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-1-61 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) 9.7%

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 62. Individuals with LDs are _________ more likely to experience mental health challenges. A) 1-2X B) 4-5X C) 10X D) 2-3X E) 5X Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-62 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) 2-3X 63. Which of the following is NOT a key factor to predict success for youth with LDs? A) providing clear knowledge of LDs and compensatory strategies B) high-functioning parents or caregivers C) supportive school environment D) positive relationships with effective teachers E) emotional support Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-63 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) high-functioning parents or caregivers 64. Camouflaging refers to __________. A) when people with autism try to hide their behaviour and appear neurotypical B) a treatment for autism in which people with autism role play to practice neurotypical behaviours C) a derogatory and highly offensive behaviour in which neurotypical people mock autistic behaviours D) when people with autism dress in dramatic fashion to confidently display their neurodiversity E) when symptoms of autism are mistaken for a specific learning disability leading to misdiagnosis Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-1-64 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Application Answer: A) when people with autism try to hide their behaviour and appear neurotypical

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 14 - True/False Questions 1. Some persons diagnosed with intellectual disability have significantly below-average IQ yet display normal adaptive functioning. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-65 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 2. The Wechler IQ test is the most appropriate IQ test for the assessment of intellectual disability. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-66 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 3. The Stanford Binet Scale is an assessment of adaptive behaviour. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-67 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 4. Inheriting intellectual disability through dominant inheritance is common. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-68 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 5. In sex-linked inheritance, the abnormal gene is carried on the X chromosome. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-69 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 6. Translocation and mosaicism are two causes of Down syndrome. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-2-70 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 7. People who function intellectually within the mild range of intellectual disability are found more frequently within lower socioeconomic groups. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-2-71 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 8. The Dementia Scale for Down Syndrome (DSDS) was developed to detect and rate the severity of dementia among people who are not verbal and who cannot follow test instructions. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-72 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 9. Until the 1980s, it was common for a person with intellectual disability to be diagnosed with a psychiatric disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-2-73 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 10. Clinical research has shown that autism spectrum disorder and childhood schizophrenia are very similar in clinical features. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-74 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 11. Children with autism often do not seek or enjoy physical contact, such as hugs from their parents. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-2-75 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 12. Children with autism spectrum disorder are often very responsive to and become irritated by minor changes in their non-social environment, such as a change in routine or arrangement of furniture. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-2-76 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 13. In the past 30 years, the research focus concerning the etiology of autism spectrum disorder has shifted from biological factors to psychogenic factors. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-2-77 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 14. In general, biological treatments of autism spectrum disorder have not been found to be effective. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-2-78 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 15. The core deficit underlying a reading impairment is a struggle in phonological processing. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-2-79 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 16. IQ / achievement discrepancy is a method of detecting students who are faking a learning disability. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-80 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 17. Impairment of mathematics may reflect deficits in working memory. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-81 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 18. Performance anxiety that is specific to the math situation can give rise to low performance and apparent learning disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-82 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 14-22 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 19. Learning disorders in children virtually always improve with age. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-83 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 20. Dyslexia has not been explained by genetics. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-84 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 21. Evidence from twin studies suggests that 50 to 60 percent of the variance in reading is explained by genetics. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-2-85 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Chapter 14 - Essay Questions 1. The DSM and AAMR/AAIDD definitions of intellectual disability both place heavy emphasis on what measure of intelligence? Give one reason why this measure may not accurately reflect people's cognitive abilities? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-3-86 Learning Objective: 14.1: Explain the challenges of assessing the abilities of individuals with intellectual/developmental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: The DSM and AAMR/AAIDD place heavy emphasis on the use of IQ as a measure of intelligence. This measure may not accurately reflect people's cognitive abilities for two reasons: 1) the tests were not devised to take into account sensory, motor and language deficits which may contribute to poor performance. 2) people may perform poorly because their limited experience means that the test situation is unfamiliar and overwhelming. 14-23 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 2. What are the effects of phenylketonuria (PKU)? How is PKU detected and treated? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-3-87 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: PKU is a metabolic disorder that can cause severe intellectual disability. It is detected through a blood test shortly after birth. Affected infants are given a low- phenylalanine diet, which is quite effective in limiting/preventing intellectual disability. 3. Describe the impairments/problems that children with FASD exhibit. What are the difficulties associated with identifying FASD? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-3-88 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Factual Answer: Children with FASD exhibit a range of problems at varying stages of development, including cognitive and executive functioning problems that are enduring. Cognitive functioning varies from relatively minor learning problems to severe intellectual disability. Behavioural challenges may be present, including problems with impulse control, attention deficit, hyperactivity and social difficulties, enuresis, eating and sleeping difficulties. Problems typically continue into adulthood, such as poor judgment, inappropriate sexual behaviour, drug use, delinquency, unemployment, and a variety of psychiatric problems. It is difficult to determine whether such effects reflect FASD, inherited tendencies, or the effects of environmental deprivation, resulting from ongoing alcoholism in the family. 4. List "essential daily ingredients" outlined by Ramey and Ramey (1992) for the development of young children. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-3-89 Learning Objective: 14.2: Identify different ways that intellectual disabilities might be caused. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Encouragement of curiosity; organizational assistance, positive reinforcement of developmental achievements; skill rehearsal in a supportive and predictable environment that does not have/is free of inappropriate disapproval, teasing, or punishment. 5. What is the normalization principle? What has it led to? Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-3-90 Learning Objective: 14.3: Identify variables that need to be measured when evaluating community integration and inclusion. Skill: Conceptual Answer: The normalization principle was originally introduced in Scandinavia and suggests that the lives of individuals with disabilities should be as normal as possible. This has led to deinstitutionalization (the move from having people with disabilities live in institutions to them living in the community).

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 6. What are echolalia and pronoun reversal, and in what disorder are they seen? Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 14-3-91 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Echolalia is a common characteristic of speech seen in children with autism spectrum disorder. It involves the child repeating someone else's words or phrases, using the same or similar intonation. It can be immediate (repeating right after someone says something) or delayed. Pronoun reversal is also seen in children with autism, and refers to the fact that such children often refer to themselves as "he" or "she" instead of "I." 7. What are etiological factors in autism spectrum disorder? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-3-92 Learning Objective: 14.4: Explain varying prevalence rates for autism spectrum disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Genetic factors are proposed to play a dominant role in the etiology of autism spectrum disorders. This comes from several lines of evidence: there is a relatively high presence of autism among the siblings of an individual with autism; there are autism features in other disorders wherein genetics are strongly implicated e.g., Fragile X syndrome. For some time, there has been a suggestion that the MMR vaccine heightens risk of autism. Despite the fact that the research that led to this suggestion has been discredited, there continues to be concern about the role of vaccines in autism, to the extent that some parents are refusing to have their children vaccinated. There currently is no evidence for vaccines as a cause of autism. 8. It has been observed that about a third of youth in correctional institutions have learning disabilities. What are two explanations that have been put forward? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 14-3-93 Learning Objective: 14.5: Explain the cognitive impairments that are the defining features of specific learning disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A couple of theories have been proposed, that suggest an indirect link between learning disabilities and delinquent behaviour. According to the school failure hypothesis, having a learning disability confers heightened risk for the following sequence of events: academic failure, negative selfimage, increased risk of school dropout, followed by higher rates of delinquency. The susceptibility theory suggests something a bit different: that young people with learning disabilities are at higher risk of delinquent behaviour, when there is also mental illness, impulse control problems, hyperactivity, and behavioural dysregulation.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 15 Behaviour and Emotional Disorders of Childhood and Adolescence Chapter 15 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. Initial accounts of abnormal child behaviour were attributed to __________. A) genetic defects B) societal factors C) inadequate parenting D) lack of education E) malnutrition Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-01 Learning Objective: 15.1: Identify the current issues associated with assessing and treating children and adolescents with mental health problems. Skill: Factual Answer: C) inadequate parenting. 2. It remains to be demonstrated whether the manifestations and symptoms of childhood- vs. adult-onset mood and anxiety disorders are the same; however, __________. A) most research to date supports that they are different B) most research to date supports that they are the same C) research to date is highly conflicted D) anxiety disorders tend to be homotypically continuous whereas mood disorders generally are not E) mood disorders tend to be homotypically continuous whereas anxiety disorders generally are not Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-02 Learning Objective: 15.1: Identify the current issues associated with assessing and treating children and adolescents with mental health problems. Skill: Factual, conceptual Answer: B) most research to date supports that they are the same. 3. __________ provided the first framework for assessing children and adolescents. A) Sigmund Freud B) G. Stanley Hall C) John Watson D) Leo Kanner E) Anna Freud Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-03 Learning Objective: 15.1: Identify the current issues associated with assessing and treating children and adolescents with mental health problems. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Leo Kanner

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. The prevalence of common child behavioural problems was not documented until the _________. A) 1970s B) 1950s C) 1960s D) 1940s E) 1930s Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-04 Learning Objective: 15.1: Identify the current issues associated with assessing and treating children and adolescents with mental health problems. Skill: Factual Answer: C) 1960s. 5. The hypothesis that the manifestations and symptoms of childhood- versus adult-onset mood and anxiety disorders are the same ___________. A) is supported by the research to date B) is not supported by the research to date C) has not yet been answered by research D) is impossible to investigate by research E) has typically not been considered an important issue Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-05 Learning Objective: 15.1: Identify the current issues associated with assessing and treating children and adolescents with mental health problems. Skill: Factual Answer: A) is supported by the research to date. 6. Prior to the 1960s, treatments in child psychiatry encompassed mostly family and __________ therapy. A) behavioural B) cognitive C) biogenic D) drug E) psychoanalytic Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-06 Learning Objective: 15.1: Identify the current issues associated with assessing and treating children and adolescents with mental health problems. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) psychoanalytic 7. A special issue with regard to assessing and treating children compared to adults is __________. A) children are much more eager to receive treatment B) children readily recognize when they may be suffering from psychological problems C) adults are generally easier to treat than are children D) children are better able to understand or explain their problems E) a child's problems are typically reported by parents or teachers, and not the child

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-07 Learning Objective: 15.1: Identify the current issues associated with assessing and treating children and adolescents with mental health problems. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: E) a child's problems are typically reported by parents or teachers, and not the child. 8. Which pair is NOT properly matched? A) mood disorder: internalizing problem B) separation anxiety disorder: externalizing problem C) ADHD: externalizing problem D) conduct disorder: externalizing problem E) reactive attachment disorder: internalizing problem Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-08 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) separation anxiety disorder: externalizing problem 9. Which of the following is a new childhood disorder in DSM-5? A) severe conduct disorder B) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder C) extreme introversion D) abnormal giftedness E) pica Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-09 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) disruptive mood dysregulation disorder 10. The most common disorders among North American children and youth have been found to be __________. A) conduct disorder, oppositional defiant disorder, and attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder B) anxiety disorders, mood disorders, and personality disorders C) anxiety disorders, conduct disorder, and ADHD D) strictly consisting of only internalizing problems E) strictly consisting of only externalizing problems Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-10 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: C) anxiety disorders, conduct disorder, and ADHD.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. Research demonstrates that being bullied affects the brain – specifically leading to __________. A) dysregulation of the cerebellum, leading to motor coordination problems B) dysregulation of the basal ganglia, leading to impulsivity and motoric hyperactivity C) dysregulation of the HPA axis, leading to depressive symptoms D) dysregulation of the serotonergic system, leading to depressive symptoms E) dysregulation of the dopaminergic system, leading to impulsivity and hyperactivity Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-11 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Factual Answer: C) dysregulation of the HPA axis, leading to depressive symptoms. 12. The prevalence of mental disorders among children and youth is __________. A) about 1% B) about 5% C) about 10% D) about 14% E) about 20% Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-12 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Factual Answer: D) about 14%. 13. Children under the age of __________ rarely meet the diagnostic criteria for conduct disorder. A) 8 B) 10 C) 15 D) 12 E) 16 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-13 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Factual Answer: A) 8 14. Which shows the correct data regarding median age of onset for the childhood disorders listed? A) anxiety–age 6; behaviour problems–age 11; mood –age 13; substance abuse–age 15 B) behaviour problems–age 6; mood–age 11; anxiety –age 13; substance abuse–age 15 C) anxiety–age 6; substance abuse–age 11 behaviour problems –age 13; mood–age 15 D) mood –age 6; behaviour problems–age 11; anxiety–age 13; substance abuse–age 15 E) anxiety–age 6; mood –age 11; substance abuse–age 13; behaviour problems–age 15

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-14 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Factual Answer: A) anxiety–age 6; behaviour problems–age 11; mood –age 13; substance abuse–age 15 15. Which shows the correct data regarding gender differences in lifetime prevalence for the childhood and adolescent disorders listed? A) cisgender females–greater prevalence of substance abuse, anxiety, and eating disorders; cisgender males– greater prevalence of behavioural or mood disorder B) cisgender females–greater prevalence of mood, anxiety, and eating disorders; cisgender males– greater prevalence of behavioural or substance abuse disorder C) cisgender females–greater prevalence of mood, anxiety, and substance abuse; cisgender males– greater prevalence of behavioural or eating disorder D) cisgender females–greater prevalence of behavioural and eating disorders; cisgender males–greater prevalence of mood, anxiety, or substance abuse disorders E) cisgender females–greater prevalence of mood, behavioural and eating disorders; cisgender males– greater prevalence of anxiety or substance abuse disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-15 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Factual Answer: B) cisgender females–greater prevalence of mood, anxiety, and eating disorders; cisgender males–greater prevalence of behavioural or substance abuse disorder 16. One of the most common psychiatric disorders in childhood and adolescence is __________. A) depression B) ADHD C) conduct disorder D) anxiety E) ODD Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-16 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) ADHD. 17. What three groups of symptoms are considered important in the diagnostic criteria for ADHD in the DSM-5? A) inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity B) hyperactivity, impulsivity, misbehaviour C) inattention, impulsivity, temper tantrums D) inattention, withdrawal, inappropriate emotion E) inattention, hyperactivity, bullying

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-17 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity 18. Cisgender girls are more commonly diagnosed with __________ than are cisgender boys. A) ADHD B) ADHD-I C) ADHD-H D) ADHD-HI E) ADHD-II Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-18 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) ADHD-I 19. ADHD-I is especially associated with __________. A) reading disorders B) math achievement problems C) social difficulties D) restlessness E) conduct problems Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-19 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: B) math achievement problems 20. Of all the characteristics associated with subtypes ADHD-H and ADHD-HI __________ are most likely to persist into adulthood. A) getting into trouble B) talking to one's self C) interrupting others D) fidgeting and restlessness E) difficulty playing Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-20 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) fidgeting and restlessness

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 21. __________ percent of children with ADHD have at least one other psychiatric disorder. A) 50 B) 10 C) 25 D) 40 E) 75 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-21 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) 50 22. A child diagnosed with ADHD is most likely to have comorbid __________ in later years. A) conduct disorder B) ODD C) substance abuse D) learning disorder E) anxiety disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-22 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: C) substance abuse 23. The prevalence rate of ADHD in the general population is highest among __________. A) preschool-aged children B) infants C) toddlers D) children and adolescents E) adults Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-23 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) children and adolescents. 24. The most important long-term issue for youth with ADHD is __________. A) the persistence of impulsive and risk-taking behaviours B) the persistence of hyperactivity symptoms and their impact on social functioning C) the persistence of learning difficulties D) increased risk for developing another psychiatric disorder, most often mood, anxiety and/or substance abuse disorders E) increased risk for developing another disorder, most often conduct disorder and antisocial personality disorder

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-24 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) increased risk for developing another psychiatric disorder, most often mood, anxiety and/or substance abuse disorders. 25. Which of the following developmental trajectories for children with ADHD is NOT true? A) Earlier substance use in adulthood. B) Becoming parents at a later age. C) Higher rates of divorce and separation. D) Lower occupational attainment. E) Four times as many sexually transmitted diseases in adolescence. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 15-1-25 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) Becoming parents at a later age. 26. ADHD was initially referred to as __________. A) ADD B) ADHD-H C) minimal brain dysfunction D) hyperkinetic syndrome of childhood E) hyperkinetic syndrome of adolescence Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-26 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: C) minimal brain dysfunction. 27. The known risk factors for ADHD include all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) brain structure and function B) parenting styles C) genetics D) neurotransmitters E) environmental factors Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-27 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) parenting styles.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 28. Children with ADHD have been found to have reduced brain size of up to __________. A) 1 percent B) 2-4 percent C) 3-8 percent D) 8-10 percent E) 10-15 percent Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-28 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) 3-8 percent 29. MRI studies have shown that ADHD is associated with abnormalities of the __________. A) prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia B) basal ganglia and hippocampus C) temporal and occipital lobes D) thalamus and prefrontal cortex E) cerebellum and frontal lobes Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-29 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia 30. Relative to children without ADHD, those with ADHD show abnormalities in the metabolism of: __________. A) GABA B) serotonin C) dopamine D) cortisol E) HPA axis enzymes Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-30 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) dopamine 31. A biological predisposition to ADHD is supported by the fact that the heritability of ADHD may be as high as __________ percent. A) 77 B) 55 C) 10 D) 25 E) 42

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-31 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) 77 32. Which of the following is not one of the identified prenatal risk factors for ADHD? A) prenatal exposure to vitamin B6. B) prenatal exposure to a poor diet. C) prenatal exposure to antidepressant medication. D) prenatal exposure to caffeine. E) prenatal exposure to manganese. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-32 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) prenatal exposure to vitamin B6. 33. The risk of developing ADHD is increased when a genetic predisposition is combined with __________. A) low maternal IQ B) maternal depression C) maternal smoking D) high birth weight E) low socioeconomic status Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-33 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) maternal smoking. 34. Stimulant medications such as methylphenidate (Ritalin) are often used in the treatment of children with ADHD. These medications __________. A) have not been found to improve any of the symptoms of ADHD B) are most effective if combined with other forms of treatment. C) require more rigorous research to determine the extent of their benefits D) increase vigilance, reaction time, short-term memory, and learning of new material E) are most effective with the more difficult cases Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-34 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) increase vigilance, reaction time, short-term memory, and learning of new material.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 35. According to the textbook, which of the following is true regarding the effects of stimulant medication for ADHD? A) Although stimulants improve focus and attention, they show no effect on impulsivity. B) Stimulants have been shown to improve noisiness. C) Results are mixed with respects to the effects of stimulants on peer relationships. D) The main side effect of stimulants is weight gain, which explains the risk of diabetes in people with ADHD. E) A risk of stimulants is that they heighten risk of methamphetamine dependence in early adolescence. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-35 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Stimulants have been shown to improve noisiness. . 36. The most suitable nondrug intervention for children with ADHD appears to be __________. A) family therapy B) cognitive-behavioural therapy C) psychoeducation and school focused D) individual psychotherapy E) social skills training Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-36 Learning Objective 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) psychoeducation and school-focused. 37. Jacques, a cisgender boy diagnosed with conduct disorder, is playing a game of baseball with his classmates during physical education. During the game, Jacques misses the ball when it is thrown to him, and he gets hit with it. Jacques would most likely __________. A) get very upset and not play baseball with his classmates anymore B) run to tell the teacher C) get really angry for a while, but get past it later on D) pick up the ball and throw it back at the kid, hoping to hit him E) only get really mad if he were hurt Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-37 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) pick up the ball and throw it back at the kid, hoping to hit him.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 38. Which statement regarding conduct disorder and comorbidity is NOT true? A) Anxiety disorders and mood disorders are more common in children with conduct disorder than in children without conduct disorder. B) Between 35 and 40% of children with conduct disorder will later be diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder. C) Most children first diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder will progress to conduct disorder. D) Children who exhibit ADHD are more likely to develop conduct disorder. E) Individuals diagnosed with conduct disorder are prone to exhibit ADHD and/or substance abuse problems. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-38 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Most children first diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder will progress to conduct disorder. 39. __________ is likely to lead to future offspring with a high genetic load for conduct problems. A) Comorbidity B) Assortative mating C) Heterotypic continuity D) Gene-Environment interaction E) Homotypic consistency Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-39 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: B) Assortative mating 40. Many antisocial parents of children with CD have also been found to have __________. A) ADHD B) depression C) anxiety disorders D) a substance use disorder E) no other known problem Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-40 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) a substance use disorder. 41. Aggression is associated with decreased glucose metabolism in the _______________. A) occipital lobe B) frontal lobe C) parietal lobe D) temporal lobe E) spinal cord

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-41 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) frontal lobe 42. A gene-environment interaction in the development of conduct disorder was shown in a study by Caspi et al. (2002) in which __________ percent of individuals who were severely maltreated in childhood and had low MAOA activity had conduct disorder in adulthood, compared to __________ percent of individuals maltreated in childhood who had high MAOA activity. A) 100; 50 B) 90; 10 C) 80; 40 D) 70; 30 E) 65; 35 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-42 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) 80; 40 43. All of the following treatment methods have been tested in controlled trials with children suffering from conduct disorder and oppositional defiant disorder EXCEPT __________. A) parent management training B) pharmacological interventions C) school- and community-based treatments D) problem-solving skills training E) Gestalt therapy Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-43 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Gestalt therapy. 44. One purpose behind problem-solving skills training is to __________. A) help focus the child's energy on puzzles and games B) make treatment of the child more effective C) teach the child to interact more effectively with other children D) help the child perform better in mathematics E) help the child perform better on school assignments Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-44 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) teach the child to interact more effectively with other children. 15-13 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 45. __________ has been found to be an effective short-term therapy for aggressive inpatient children and adolescents. A) Typical neuroleptics B) Atypical neuroleptics C) Stimulants D) Risperidone E) Lithium Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-45 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Lithium 46. The central goal of parent training programs for ODD/CD is __________. A) to address the coercive process that promotes conduct problems B) to teach parents the skills to model effective peer social interaction C) to increase parental monitoring of their children's whereabouts D) to teach effective reinforcement for self-control behaviours E) to assist parents in establishing consistent discipline Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-46 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) to address the coercive process that promotes conduct problems. 47. All of the following results found after an evaluation of the Incredible Years Parent Program are true EXCEPT __________. A) A general increase in positive parenting B) A decrease in harsh discipline C) Increases in prosocial behaviour D) Reductions in conduct problems E) An ineffectiveness when used with teachers Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 15-1-47 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) An ineffectiveness when used with teachers. 48. Clinic-based treatments are limited by the fact that __________. A) children are labelled as mentally ill B) sometimes the problems are too difficult to treat with only one method C) they are available only to a minority of children D) controlled trials have not been conducted to determine their worth E) children are intimidated by the setting of the clinic

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-48 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) They are available only to a minority of children. 49. According to the Ontario Child Health Study, only __________ children who suffer from a psychiatric disorder receive services. A) 1 in 6 B) 1 in 3 C) 1 in 8 D) 1 in 10 E) 1 in 15 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-49 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: A) 1 in 6 50. Cunningham's Community Parent Education Program (COPE) is a large-group, communitybased version of __________. A) family therapy B) problem-solving skills training C) functional family therapy D) parent training E) contingency management Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-50 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) parent training 51. The most common fears reported by children and adolescents include all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) agoraphobia B) heights C) weather D) animals E) accidents Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-51 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) agoraphobia.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 52. Which of the following is classified in the DSM-5 as an anxiety disorder often associated with children? A) separation anxiety disorder B) social anxiety disorder C) anorexia nervosa D) panic disorder E) obsessive-compulsive disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-52 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) separation anxiety disorder 53. The major feature of those diagnosed with separation anxiety disorder is __________. A) refusal to go to school B) fear of being away from caregivers C) nightmares D) fear of interacting with strangers E) fear of being alone Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-53 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) fear of being away from caregivers. 54. Monah refuses to go to school without her mother staying with her, expresses fears that her mother is going to be in a terrible accident, and cannot sleep unless her mother remains in the room with her. Monah would likely be diagnosed with __________. A) behaviour disorder B) childhood distress disorder C) separation anxiety disorder D) phobic disorder E) stranger anxiety Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-54 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: C) separation anxiety disorder. 55. Adolescents diagnosed with separation anxiety disorder would most likely display __________. A) concern about a parent B) sadness and withdrawal C) nightmares D) school refusal and headaches or stomach aches E) excessive distress upon separation from a parent

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-55 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) school refusal and headaches or stomach aches. 56. Although most children display various fears and anxieties relating to separation from parents, for a clinical diagnosis of SAD to be made, the anxiety must __________. A) begin at a younger age B) be clinically relevant C) be general in nature D) be more extreme E) be accompanied by aggressive behaviour Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-56 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) be more extreme. 57. Anxiety disorders in children are most often comorbid with which disorder? A) Mood disorders B) CD C) ADHD D) childhood schizophrenia E) ODD Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-57 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Mood disorders 58. __________ affects a significant number of children with anxiety disorders. A) Heterotypic continuity B) Homotypic continuity C) Deliberate self-harm D) Ego syntonia E) Ego dystonia Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-58 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) Heterotypic continuity

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 59. Research shows that __________ is an effective therapeutic intervention for suicidal behaviour in youth. A) Dialectical behaviour therapy B) Cognitive-behavioural therapy C) Primal scream therapy D) Aerobic exercise E) Progressive muscle relaxation Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-59 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) Dialectical behaviour therapy 60. Most children with an anxiety disorder have a history of anxious temperament in infancy and early childhood referred to as __________. A) heterotypic continuity B) behavioural inhibition C) emotional inhibition D) insecure attachment E) homotypic continuity Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-60 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) behavioural inhibition. 61. Compared to children who are not behaviourally inhibited, an anxious temperament increases the risk of developing one or more anxiety disorders in later life __________ times. A) 1 to 2 B) 2 to 4 C) 4 to 5 D) 5 to 6 E) 8 to 10 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-61 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 2 to 4 62. At 5 years of age, Tyra's parents brought them to a psychologist because Tyra would hide from people at school and refuse to take part in new or different activities. Tyra would best be described as __________. A) developmentally challenged B) temperamentally bold C) under controlled D) behaviourally inhibited E) insecurely attached 15-18 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-62 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Application, Conceptual Answer: D) behaviourally inhibited. 63. Pine's (2007) model of how anxiety develops in young children proposes that anxiety arises as a result of __________. A) operant conditioning B) fear conditioning C) observational learning D) cognitive distortions E) faulty learning Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-63 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: B) fear conditioning. 64. The Coping Cat program for the treatment of childhood anxiety disorders is based on __________ therapy. A) psychodynamic B) behavioural C) family D) drug E) cognitive-behavioural Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-64 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) cognitive-behavioural 65. An important component of CBT for the treatment of anxiety disorders in children involves __________. A) cognitive restructuring of anxiety-arousing thoughts B) emotion-focused coping C) learning to accept fear and other painful emotions D) systematic and gradual exposure to anxiety-provoking situations E) dealing with the consequences of avoidant behaviour Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-65 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) systematic and gradual exposure to anxiety-provoking situations.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 66. One type of pharmacological treatment that shows some promise in the treatment of SAD and GAD is __________. A) Ritalin B) tricyclic antidepressants C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors D) anti-anxiolytics E) benzodiazepines Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-66 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. 67. With regard to pharmacological treatment of childhood GAD and SAD __________. A) benzodiazepines appear to be effective and well tolerated B) tricyclic medications are the treatment of choice C) SSRIs, benzodiazepines, and tricyclics have all been found effective and well tolerated D) only SSRIs have been found to be effective and well-tolerated E) research is underway, but no medications have been approved as of yet Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-67 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) only SSRIs have been found to be effective and well-tolerated. 68. Which of the following is not a behaviour/emotional disorder of childhood and adolescence? A) ADHD B) Autism spectrum disorder C) Conduct disorder D) Oppositional defiant disorder E) Separation anxiety disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-1-68 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Autism spectrum disorder 69. Conduct disorder behaviour is organized into all of the following groups EXCEPT __________. A) aggression toward people and animals B) destruction of property C) deceitfulness or theft D) verbal aggression and/or outbursts E) serious violations of rules

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-69 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) verbal aggression and/or outbursts. 70. What is the primary difference between GAD and SAD? A) GAD develops before SAD. B) SAD is more severe than GAD. C) with GAD, the anxiety is directed to the world around them but with SAD the anxiety is directed toward separation from the caregiver. D) SAD is more common than GAD. E) with GAD, the anxiety is directed toward fears about losing the caregiver(s) but with SAD, the anxiety is directed toward the caregivers abandoning the child. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-70 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) with GAD, the anxiety is directed to the world around them but with SAD the anxiety is directed toward separation from the caregiver 71. Externalizing disorders are also referred to as _________, whereas internalizing disorders are also referred to as _________. A) disorders of undercontrolled behaviour; disorders of overcontrolled behaviour B) hyperactive disorders; hypoactive disorders C) behaviour disorders; depressive disorders D) disorders of overcontrolled behaviour; disorders of undercontrolled behaviour E) disorders of anger; disorders of anxiety and mood Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-71 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) disorders of undercontrolled behaviour; disorders of overcontrolled behaviour 72. __________ refers to a child’s current diagnosis being predictive of their receiving a different psychiatric diagnosis in the future whereas __________ refers to the current diagnosis predicting the same diagnosis in the future. A) Heterotypic continuity; homotypic continuity B) Comorbidity; heterogeneity C) Homotypic continuity; heterotypic continuity D) Differential diagnoses; convergent validity E) Homotypic continuity; comorbidity

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-1-72 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) Heterotypic continuity; homotypic continuity

Chapter 15 - True/False Questions 1. Recognition of child psychopathology began in the early 19th century however the importance of parenting factors was not recognized until the teachings of Anna Freud and Melanie Klein. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-2-73 Learning Objective: 15.1: Identify the current issues associated with assessing and treating children and adolescents with mental health problems. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 2. Leo Kanner wrote the first text on child psychiatry in 1935. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-2-74 Learning Objective: 15.1: Identify the current issues associated with assessing and treating children and adolescents with mental health problems. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 3. Early psychoanalytic therapy for child psychiatric problems was influenced by the teachings of Sigmund Freud. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-2-75 Learning Objective: 15.1: Identify the current issues associated with assessing and treating children and adolescents with mental health problems. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 4. Usually parents' and teachers' reports are considered more important in assessing a child's condition than the child's own report. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-2-76 Learning Objective: 15.1: Identify the current issues associated with assessing and treating children and adolescents with mental health problems. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: a. True 5. Externalizing problems are also referred to as disorders of over controlled behaviour. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-77 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 6. It is generally agreed that the childhood disorders constitute more severe and therefore earlieremerging forms of their corresponding adult psychological disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 15-2-78 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Conceptual, Application Answer: b. False 7. The prevalence of mental disorders varies by the gender and age of the child. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-79 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 8. Although a mental health concern, cyber bullying has not been associated with the same adverse mental health outcomes as has face-to-face peer victimization. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-80 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: b. False 9. Mood disorders are more common in adolescent cisgender girls than in adolescent cisgender boys. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-81 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 10. ADHD-I is more common in cisgender boys than in girls. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-82 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 11. The causes of ADHD are relatively well known. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-2-83 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 12. Inconsistent parenting and maternal smoking are "stressors" that can trigger emergence of ADHD in predisposed individuals. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-84 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 13. The mainstay of treatment for ADHD is the use of stimulant medication. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-85 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 14. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD) is generally diagnosed by the time children are 5 years old. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-86 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 15. Assortative mating occurs when a cisgender male or female with high genetic load for conduct problems chooses a mate with low genetic load for the same disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-87 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: b. False 16. Heterotypic continuity suggests that ODD, CD, and APD are different disorders in the same person that appear over time. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-2-88 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 17. Parent training programs are based on a social learning causal model of conduct problems. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-2-89 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual 15-25 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: a. True 18. Clinic-based treatment for children and youth is preferred over community-based treatment because more individuals are likely to be helped. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-90 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Application, Conceptual Answer: b. False 19. Separation anxiety disorder is a common externalizing disorder often diagnosed among young children and adolescents. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-2-91 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 20. GAD was previously termed overanxious disorder of childhood in the DSM-III. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-2-92 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 21. A significant number of children with anxiety disorders also develop obsessive- compulsive disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-93 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 22. Suicide is the leading cause of death among Canadian youth aged 10 to 19. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-94 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 23. The developmental chronology of childhood disorders suggests that anxiety begins in early childhood, followed by behavioural problems in middle childhood, followed by depressive disorders in late childhood. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-2-95 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 24. Tricyclic antidepressants and benzodiazepines are recommended as the best form of pharmacological treatment for SAD and GAD in children and adolescents. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-2-96 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 25. Perfectionism is proposed to be linked to depression because people high in perfectionism share a lot of the same cognitive attribution biases that have been observed in depression. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-2-97 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 15 - Essay Questions 1. Describe the three main diagnostic criteria used for Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-3-98 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Diagnostic Criteria for ADHD: Inattention: difficulty sustaining attention in tasks or play activities, failure to finish schoolwork or chores, easily distracted, difficulty organizing tasks and schoolwork. Hyperactivity-impulsivity: fidgets with hands or feet, leaves seat in classroom, restlessness, difficulty playing quietly, talks excessively. Impulsivity: blurts out answers before the question has been completed, difficulty awaiting turn, interrupts others. 2. Briefly describe four risk factors associated with the development of ADHD. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-3-99 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: (1) Brain structure and function: children with ADHD have reduced brain size, abnormalities of the prefrontal cortex and basal ganglia; abnormalities in the metabolism of dopamine and noradrenergic neurotransmitters; and abnormalities in the functioning of genes that regulate those neurotransmitter systems. (2) Genetics: Half of the risk for ADHD in offspring is due purely to genetic factors; heritability may be as high as 77 percent. (3) Prenatal risk factors: Exposure to prenatal toxins including poor diet, mercury and lead exposure, pregnancy and delivery complications, and exposure to alcohol and smoking during pregnancy. (4) Psychosocial risk factors: include low socio-economic status, large family size, paternal criminality, poor maternal mental health, child maltreatment, foster care placement, and family dysfunction. 3. Describe the pharmacological treatment of ADHD. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-3-100 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Stimulant medications have been shown to be effective in about 80 percent of children with ADHD symptoms. These medications work by increasing the release of dopamine and norepinephrine from storage sites in nerve terminals and by blocking their reuptake. These drugs include short-acting and long-acting methylphenidate (Ritalin), dextroamphetamine, and amphetamine, which have been shown to increase vigilance, reaction time, short-term memory, and learning of new material, and improve problems relating to impulsivity such as aggressive behaviour, non-compliance, noisiness, and peer relationships.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. Describe the four major behavioural groupings of conduct disorder in the DSM-5 and list some examples of each. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-3-101 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Aggression to people and animals: bullies, threatens, or intimidates others, initiates physical fights, physically cruel to people and/or animals; Destruction of property: fire-setting; Deceitfulness or theft: breaking into houses, lying to obtain goods or favours; Serious violations of rules: chronically truant from school, running away from home. (Other examples are possible). 5. What is Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder? How are clinicians instructed to use this diagnosis? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-3-102 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: DMDD is a new disorder in DSM-5. It is categorized as a Depressive Disorder and is meant to capture the co-occurrence of internalizing and externalizing disorders. DMDD is characterized by chronic and severe irritability as demonstrated by frequent temper outbursts and severe angry mood. Prevalence is 2% to 5% and onset is before age 10. There is ongoing discussion as to whether DMDD should be classified as a mood disorder, or as a disruptive behaviour disorder. At this time the diagnoses of DMDD and ODD cannot be assigned concurrently. If symptoms of both are present; DMDD takes precedence. 6. Explain what is meant by the term heterotypic continuity and describe the evidence for it. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-3-103 Learning Objective: 15.2: Describe the prevalence of common childhood mental disorders (ADHD, disruptive behaviour disorders, and anxiety disorders) and their comorbidities). Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Most children with conduct disorder have oppositional defiant disorder, and adults with antisocial personality disorder typically show evidence of conduct disorder before age 15. When conduct issues are severe and begin early the trajectory from ODD to CD to APD is robust. This suggests that these three disorders may be part of the same disorder that manifests itself differently as the child gets older. 7. Discuss the psychosocial risk factors associated with the development of conduct problems. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-3-104 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: Studies have consistently demonstrated that poor parenting, including low monitoring, harsh and inconsistent discipline, and child abuse is strongly linked to externalizing difficulties in children and youth. Other correlates include peer rejection, associating with deviant peers, parental psychopathology, lone-parent families, large family size, and teenage parenthood. Children and youth living in poverty are more likely to display conduct problems. 8. Evaluate the four different types of treatment generally used for conduct disorder. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-3-105 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Four diverse treatment methods have been examined in controlled trials: problem-solving skills training, pharmacological treatment, parent management training, and school and community-based treatments. All of these treatments have shown some promise, although it is very difficult to treat antisocial behaviour, which is very stable and persistent. Problem-solving skills training: Research has shown that CD children are deficient in problem-solving skills and social perception and attributions. These children often misinterpret cues, assuming that others are "out to get them." Problem-solving skills training combines procedures such as modelling and practice, role playing, and reinforcement contingencies. Pharmacological treatments include the use of mood stabilizers, neuroleptics, and stimulants. Lithium has been found to be an effective short-term therapy for inpatient aggressive children and adolescents. Parent training programs focus on developing skills in the parents to reinforce prosocial behaviours in the child while disciplining undesirable behaviours. Interactions between parent and child are considered to maintain and promote conduct problems inadvertently, termed the coercive process. Results show a general increase in positive parenting, decrease in harsh punishment, and reductions in conduct problems. School- and community-based treatments are extremely cost-effective and can be made available to all children. For example, Cunningham's Community Parent Education Program (COPE) is easily accessible to all families, resulting in increased attendance by high-risk families. High-risk children are able to interact with peers in a mixed gender setting, and studies have shown behavioural improvements in aggressive children. 9. Describe the diagnostic criteria for separation anxiety disorder (SAD), and the difference between SAD and GAD. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 15-3-106 Learning Objective: 15.3: Identify the symptoms and clinical features of common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: At least three of the following symptoms for a minimum of four weeks: recurrent distress upon separation from a parent; excessive worry about losing a parent; excessive worry that an event will lead to harm to the parent, reluctance to go places without the parent nearby; reluctance to sleep away from the parent; and nightmares about separation or complaints about physical symptoms when separation is anticipated. In GAD, the distress and uncertainty the child feels is directed outward to the world around them. They may be concerned about whether others like them, whether they are doing badly at school, physical safety, storms that may come and damage their home, etc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 10. Describe how fear conditioning may result in anxiety disorders in children. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-3-107 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: According to Pine (2007) natural threats may become associated (paired or conditioned) with a neutral stimulus that later comes to induce the same fear and avoidance behaviour. People with a genetic predisposition to amygdala dysfunction (or who have behavioural inhibition) would be more prone to be threatened by such non- noxious stimuli. 11. Compare and contrast the different types of treatments used for children with anxiety disorders. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-3-108 Learning Objective: 15.5: Identify evidence-based psychological and pharmacological treatments for common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Cognitive-behavioural therapy involves education about anxiety and helping parents and children learn new ways to cope with anxiety (skills building) and systematic and gradual exposure to stressful situations. Children are slowly exposed to the situations they find difficult (such as being away from their parents). Pharmacological treatments include the use of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. These have shown some promise, but more research needs to be conducted to confirm whether these drugs reduce anxiety in children. 12. What is perfectionism? And what is its proposed role in youth mental health? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 15-3-109 Learning Objective: 15.4: Explain how biological, psychological, and environmental factors can work together to increase the risk of developing common childhood mental disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Although perfectionism is often confused with and even equated with high conscientiousness, considerable research has shown that it is linked with psychopathology. There is not just one kind of perfectionism; it actually is a multidimensional construct. According to Flett and Hewitt's theory, there are three dimensions: self-oriented perfectionism is characterized by exaggerated, unattainable standards for the self. Other-oriented perfectionism is characterized by imposition of exaggerated, unattainable standards on others; and socially-prescribed perfectionism consists of the belief that one is being held to standards and expectations that are unattainable. People who are high in perfectionism are sensitive to failure and engage in self-criticism. Perfectionism is strongly linked to depression and suicide ideation. It is proposed that high perfectionism shares the same cognitive profile as depression – e.g., internal attributions when one perceives that one has failed i.e., "it's all my fault." Studies have shown that about one in five teens are high in perfectionism, and this may be a risk factor for later psychopathology.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 16 Aging and Mental Health Chapter 16 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following provides one reasonable explanation as to why the percentage of older individuals has increased and will likely continue to increase over time? A) higher levels of education that prevent people from entering physically dangerous careers. B) effective medications that slow the cellular aging process C) more support from younger generations D) substantial drop in new births E) an increase in natural, anti-aging products Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-01 Learning Objective: 16.1: Explain how Canada’s population is aging, why it is aging, and what effect our aging population might have on mental health care. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) higher levels of education that prevent people from entering physically dangerous careers. 2. Garcia has recently learned that her spouse is suffering from cancer. At this time, Garcia would be more __________ to mental difficulties and may not be able to cope with more problems. A) resigned B) predisposed C) reactive D) resistant E) vulnerable Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-02 Learning Objective: 16.1: Explain how Canada’s population is aging, why it is aging, and what effect our aging population might have on mental health care. Skill: Application Answer: E) vulnerable 3. Often, losses of physical functioning, retirement, or death of loved ones will increase the likelihood that an individual will develop a mental disorder because __________. A) the individual finds it difficult to cope with several losses B) the individual becomes depressed and disheartened C) they do not go for counseling when it is needed D) these are known risk factors of mental disorders in the aging population E) they lack support from family and friends Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-03 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) the individual finds it difficult to cope with several losses.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. A normal aging process involves __________. A) reminiscing and memory loss B) decreased functioning of organ systems C) some type of pathology D) an increase in disorders such as Alzheimer's disease E) development of diseases and poor health Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-04 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: B) decreased functioning of organ systems. 5. Three personality characteristics associated with positive health appear to increase across the lifespan. These are: __________. A) extraversion; openness; and agreeableness B) conscientiousness; emotional stability; and agreeableness C) conscientiousness; openness; and agreeableness D) extraversion; emotional stability; and agreeableness E) extraversion; openness; and conscientiousness Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-05 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) conscientiousness; emotional stability; agreeableness 6. Why is it important that mental disorders in older adults be viewed as a cause for concern? A) Mental disorders are more common among older adults. B) It is far more difficult to diagnose and treat older adults. C) Older people are more likely to sink into despair. D) Treating mental disorders in older adults is far more difficult than when they occur in younger people. E) Mental disorders in older people are not as common as one might expect. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-06 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) Mental disorders in older people are not as common as one might expect. 7. What is the "paradox of aging"? A) The finding that people with Alzheimer's dementia are often in very good physical health. B) The finding that some older adults develop serious physical disease despite stellar psychological health. C) The finding that older adults are treated without value in society, even though they are more experienced and knowledgeable than are younger people. D) The evidence of positive mental health among older adults who normally are considered vulnerable. E) The finding that older adults are understudied in psychology research, even though they are the fastest growing segment of the population.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 16-1-07 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: D) The evidence of positive mental health among older adults who normally are considered vulnerable. 8. Cross sectional research shows that older adults are mentally healthier than are younger adults. What is one way to interpret this finding? A) It may be a baby boomer effect. B) It may depend on whether the older adults have access to good mental health care. C) The older adults in these studies may be a distinct group due to their high levels of education. D) Most of this research comes from North America, so perhaps there is an effect of culture that needs to be considered. E) This between-group difference may represent a cohort effect. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 16-1-08 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: E) This between-group difference may represent a cohort effect. 9. Why is it generally believed that older people with mental illnesses do not benefit from treatment? A) Older people are more distrustful of psychologists than are younger people. B) Older people are viewed by many as "set in their ways" and unable to change. C) The types of disorders usually found in older adults are more resistant to treatment. D) Mental illnesses are seen as a normal part of aging. E) Older people tend not to respond to treatment as well as younger people. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-09 Learning Objective: 16.3: Describe the commonly held myths about treating older adults with mental disorders and list reasons for why these myths exist. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: B) Older people are viewed by many as "set in their ways" and unable to change. 10. Large-scale community surveys suggest that __________. A) mental disorders are the most common among older adults B) men are more likely to have diagnosable health problems across the lifespan C) there is a linear increase with age in lifetime prevalence rates of combined major disorders D) except for dementia and sleep-wake disorders, mental disorders are less common among older adults E) the highest 12-month prevalence of any mental disorder exists among those over 65 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-10 Learning Objective: 16.3: Describe the commonly held myths about treating older adults with mental disorders and list reasons for why these myths exist. Skill: Factual, Conceptual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: D) except for dementia and sleep-wake disorders, mental disorders are less common among older adults. 11. Professionals such as gero-psychologists and geriatricians are known as __________. A) geriatric specialists B) gerontologists C) elderologists D) seniorologists E) gerontricians Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-11 Learning Objective: 16.3: Describe the commonly held myths about treating older adults with mental disorders and list reasons for why these myths exist. Skill: Factual Answer: B) gerontologists. 12. Cross-sectional surveys are limited in that they cannot tell us if the results are due to __________. A) the paradox of aging B) normal aging C) an aging effect D) a cohort effect E) client barriers Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-12 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: D) a cohort effect. 13. The finding that there is a decreasing prevalence of most mental disorders with age should be interpreted cautiously for which of the following reasons? A) Older adults are more likely to remember having symptoms of a disorder. B) Older adults who participate in surveys may reflect a survivor effect. C) Older adults are less likely to express symptoms in somatic ways. D) Older adults are more likely to participate in surveys because they have more time. E) Older adults are more likely to report their symptoms. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-13 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: B) Older adults who participate in surveys may reflect a survivor effect.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 14. Older adults are disproportionately underrepresented as users of mental health services for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT __________. A) Older adults themselves are responsible for not seeking psychological help when they need it B) Mental health professionals may be less willing or able to treat older adults C) Psychologists and psychiatrists prefer to work with younger clients D) Family physicians are less likely to treat older patients and to refer them to mental health professionals E) There is an insufficient number of mental health professionals who specialize in older adult mental health Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-14 Learning Objective: 16.3: Describe the commonly held myths about treating older adults with mental disorders and list reasons for why these myths exist. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) Older adults themselves are responsible for not seeking psychological help when they need it. 15. Why is it particularly difficult to properly diagnose mental disorders in older adults? A) Side effects of medications may mimic the symptoms of certain disorders. B) Clinicians are largely unfamiliar with the disorders specific to this age group. C) Similar symptoms are indicative of more than one disorder. D) Older adults often are afraid to get help for their problems. E) Older individuals are less able to explain their problems than younger patients. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-15 Learning Objective: 16.4: Summarize the various factors that complicate the diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders in older adults. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) Side effects of medications may mimic the symptoms of certain disorders. 16. The reason that theoretical frameworks of mental disorder have not typically been extended to older adults could be due to the early thinking of __________. A) Freud B) Erikson C) Baltes D) Carstensen E) Hayflick Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-16 Learning Objective: 16.4: Summarize the various factors that complicate the diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders in older adults. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Freud

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 17. According to the selective optimization with compensation viewpoint, successful aging involves __________. A) practising old skills more so that they are not lost to aging B) making the most of skills and creatively by using alternative means to achieve one's goals despite limited capacities C) focusing on learning new skills, where applicable D) recognizing that you will begin to slow down as you age E) continuing to keep activity level high Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-17 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual Answer: B) making the most of skills and creatively by using alternative means to achieve one's goals despite limited capacities. 18. You are an accomplished painter in your 70s and find that arthritis prevents you from enjoying the lengthy painting sessions that you love. Selective Optimization with Compensation theory suggests that you __________. A) obtain occupational therapy in order to treat and minimize the impact of your arthritis B) shorten the length of your painting sessions, paint subjects that have less fine detail, and explore opportunities to work or volunteer as an instructor C) seek counseling in order to minimize the impact of diminished function D) seek counseling in order to mourn the loss of your painting activity and identify new and similar activities that you can do, such as attending art shows E) meet regularly with peers who are in a similar position, engage in reminiscing of your painting career, and encourage younger people to paint Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-18 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) shorten the length of your painting sessions, paint subjects that have less fine detail, and explore opportunities to work or volunteer as an instructor. 19. Which of the following findings is consistent with the socio-emotional selectivity theory (SST)? A) Older adults process negative information less deeply than positive information. B) Older adults process positive information less deeply than negative information. C) Older adults tend to focus more on negative information than younger adults. D) Older adults are less likely to respond positively to emotional stimuli. E) Older adults are more future-oriented than are younger adults. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-19 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) Older adults process negative information less deeply than positive information.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 20. Strength and vulnerability integration theory posits that aging is associated with __________ ability to regulate emotions due to several factors, including __________. A) decreased; increasing stressors and increased activation of the HPA axis B) increased; possession of a time-limited perspective with greater emphasis on emotionally meaningful goals; increased present-moment awareness, strength-based appraisal of information C) decreased; increasing stressors, slower processing speed, proneness to rumination D) increased; increased time to make social connections, consider various ways of meeting needs, avoiding stressors, and coping with existing stressors E) decreased; increasing stressors, slower processing speed, proneness to rumination and increased activation of the HPA axis Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-20 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual Answer: B) increased; possession of a time-limited perspective with greater emphasis on emotionally meaningful goals; increased present-moment awareness, strength-based appraisal of information 21. Depressive disorders are __________ among older adults than younger adults. A) less common B) more or less common, depending on the type of disorder C) equally prevalent D) more common E) ten times more common Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-21 Learning Objective: 16.4: Summarize the various factors that complicate the diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders in older adults. Skill: Factual Answer: A) less common 22. Depression in people over age 60 is more likely to be ________ than in younger adults. A) acute B) chronic C) mild D) extremely severe E) contextually triggered Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-22 Learning Objective: 16.4: Summarize the various factors that complicate the diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders in older adults. Skill: Factual Answer: B) chronic

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 23. Which of the following statements about suicide and older Canadians is TRUE? A) Older Canadian women are around 6 times more likely to commit suicide than older Canadian men. B) Suicide attempts are more common among young Canadians but attempts by older Canadians are more successful. C) Older Canadian women are more likely to attempt drug overdose than any other group. D) Older Canadian men are around 5 times more likely to commit suicide than older Canadian women. E) Older Canadians are less likely than younger Canadians to commit suicide. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-23 Learning Objective: 16.4: Summarize the various factors that complicate the diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders in older adults. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Older Canadian men are around 5 times more likely to commit suicide than older Canadian women. 24. Which pair of factors places an older individual at greatest risk for developing depression? A) low income and poor physical health B) lack of support and poor emotional health C) poor physical and emotional health D) low income and lack of support E) poor physical health and lack of support Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-24 Learning Objective: 16.4: Summarize the various factors that complicate the diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders in older adults. Skill: Factual Answer: E) poor physical health and lack of support 25. Which of the following statements regarding depressive disorders and older adults is true? A) Both major depressive disorder and persistent depressive disorder are more prevalent among younger than older adults. B) There is a higher prevalence of depressive disorders among older men. C) There is a higher prevalence of depressive disorders among older women. D) Depressive disorders are easier to treat in older adults. E) Major depressive disorder is one of the most common psychiatric problems among older adults. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-25 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) Both major depressive disorder and persistent depressive disorder are more prevalent among younger than older adults.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 26. What is the main difference between younger and older adults in the symptoms of major depressive disorder? A) Younger adults are more likely to report sleep difficulties. B) Older adults are more likely to report feelings of guilt and sadness. C) Older adults are more likely to report feelings of worthlessness. D) Older adults are more likely to report somatic symptoms. E) Younger adults are more likely to report physical complaints. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 16-1-26 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: D) Older adults are more likely to report somatic symptoms. 27. Depression is __________ common in older people and when it occurs, tends to be __________. A) more; more severe B) less; less severe C) more; less severe D) less; more chronic E) more; less chronic Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-27 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: D) less; more chronic 28. One of the major difficulties in determining whether an older adult is suffering from a depressive disorder is __________. A) many people feel that it is normal for older people to be depressed B) older people don't want to admit that they feel depressed C) many older people experience higher levels of sadness, but not true depression D) other medical problems have similar symptoms to depressive disorders E) depressive disorders are not common among older adults Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-28 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: D) other medical problems have similar symptoms to depressive disorders.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 29. Research has shown which of the following treatments to be most effective for older adults suffering from depressive disorders? A) cognitive therapy B) drug therapy C) a wide array of treatments has been shown to be effective D) behavioural therapy E) brief dynamic psychotherapy Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-29 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: C) a wide array of treatments has been shown to be effective 30. Why is drug therapy not necessarily the best choice for older adults who suffer from depressive disorders? A) Drugs have a shorter half-time in older people and are less effective. B) Drug therapy is more effective with younger adults. C) Side effects are tolerated less well in older adults. D) Older adults are less likely to remember to take their medication. E) Older adults do better with psychotherapy. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-30 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Side effects are tolerated less well in older adults. 31. Which of the following reasons for choosing non-pharmacological treatments is NOT supported by clinical observations or research? A) Increased renal clearance in older persons can increase drug tolerance B) Polypharmacy is an issue for many older persons C) Older people actually prefer psychotherapy for treatment of depression D) Drug interactions can have unknown and dangerous consequences for older persons E) ECT often has undesirable side effects Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-31 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Increased renal clearance in older persons can increase drug tolerance

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 32. The DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for insomnia disorder include all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) The disturbance is not due to the direct physiological effects of a substance or a medical condition B) Difficulty falling asleep, staying asleep, or early morning awakening with inability to return to sleep C) There is significant distress or impairment in some area of functioning D) The sleep disturbance is frequently accompanied by nightmares which cause nighttime awakening E) The sleep disturbance occurs at least 3 nights per week for at least 3 months Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-32 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: D) The sleep disturbance is frequently accompanied by nightmares which cause nighttime awakening. 33. Sleep-wake patterns often change in older adults. All of the following are considered changes EXCEPT __________. A) circadian rhythms change B) changes in the organization of sleep stages C) less synchronous Stage 2 EEG activity D) decreases in total sleep time E) increases in the length of REM periods Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-33 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: E) increases in the length of REM periods. 34. Diagnosing and treating sleep disorders in older adults is complicated by all of the following factors, EXCEPT __________. A) self-reports of sleep quantity or quality may be biased B) it can be hard to determine whether the sleep disturbance is occurring independently of other physical and mental disorders C) there are age related changes in sleep that appear to be universal and may be considered normal. D) older adults often deny that their sleep patterns are problematic, which makes sleep disorders much harder to treat E) life circumstances like retirement may lead to disturbances in sleep routines Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-34 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Older adults often deny that their sleep patterns are problematic, which makes sleep disorders much harder to treat.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 35. Esther has been having problems falling asleep at night, and when she finally manages to fall asleep, she awakens frequently, for apparently no reason. During the day, she feels extremely tired, depressed, and anxious. If you were Esther's psychologist, what would you suspect to be her problem? A) insomnia disorder B) hypersomnolence C) somnambulism D) sleep apnea E) major depressive disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-35 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Application Answer: A) insomnia disorder 36. Each of the following factors has been shown to be involved in the development or maintenance of insomnia disorder EXCEPT __________. A) Being female B) Being sedentary C) Excessive worry about sleep D) daytime napping E) Never having been married Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-36 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Never having been married. 37. Which treatment process involves educating the patient about normal age-related changes in sleeping and involves techniques such as stimulus control and correction of dysfunctional sleeprelated attitudes? A) brief dynamic therapy B) cognitive-behavioural therapy C) hypnotherapy D) sleep therapy E) remote relaxation transmission Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-37 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: B) cognitive-behavioural therapy

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 38. Sleep apnea results in __________ and awakenings from sleep. A) Low blood oxygen saturation B) High blood oxygen saturation C) Suppressed cortisol release D) Hypercortisolemia E) HPA axis suppression Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-38 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) Low blood oxygen saturation 39. All of the following statements are true about sleep apnea EXCEPT __________. A) the disorder results in hypoxemia B) sufferers often have difficulty remembering things C) sleep apnea is more common in men, especially with age D) sufferers often fall asleep during meetings, concerts, movies, etc E) episodes of cessation of breathing occur that last 10 seconds and occur approximately twice per night Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-39 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: E) episodes of cessation of breathing occur that last 10 seconds and occur approximately twice per night. 40. Blockage of the upper airways results in __________ apnea, while __________ apnea is due to impairment of respiratory control. A) upper; medullary B) obstructive; central C) upper; central D) obstructive; medullary E) mixed; peripheral Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-40 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: B) obstructive; central 41. Treatment of sleep apnea often involves all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) learning to avoid sleeping on one's back B) losing weight C) avoiding alcohol and hypnotic medication D) wearing a mask attached to an air compressor while sleeping E) cognitive-behavioural therapy 16-13 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-41 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: E) cognitive-behavioural therapy. 42. Significant symptoms of __________ are among the most common psychiatric symptoms experienced by older adults. A) self-harm B) mania C) anxiety D) substance abuse E) dissociation Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-42 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: C) anxiety 43. Which of the following problems is common when attempting to diagnose anxiety disorders in older adults? A) Anxiety disorders in older people are often comorbid with substance abuse. B) Older adults often over-report anxiety symptoms. C) Anxiety disorders in older people are often comorbid with personality disorders. D) Most of the scales used to measure symptoms of anxiety have been normed and validated only with younger adults. E) The DSM-5 does not recognize anxiety in older populations. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-43 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Most of the scales used to measure symptoms of anxiety have been normed and validated only with younger adults. 44. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the treatment of anxiety disorders in older adults? A) Psychological methods are usually less effective with older adults. B) Doctors prefer to recommend medication despite the side effects. C) Gentle herbal remedies like St. John's Wort and Gingko biloba are recommended for older adults in the treatment of anxiety disorders. D) Cognitive-behavioural therapy is generally not effective compared to no treatment. E) Pharmacological treatments are effective and have few side effects.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-44 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: B) Doctors prefer to recommend medication despite the side effects. 45. The three most common anxiety disorders among older adults are __________. A) panic disorder, GAD, and social anxiety disorder B) social phobia, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and PTSD C) specific phobia, panic disorder, and obsessive-compulsive disorder D) panic disorder, GAD, and PTSD E) social anxiety disorder, specific phobia, and GAD Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-45 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: E) social anxiety disorder, specific phobia, and GAD. 46. Recent research cited in the text found that chronic anxiety in older adults leads to increased risk of __________. A) heart disease and accidental death B) cancer and accidental death C) obsessive-compulsive disorder D) heart disease and vascular disease E) Alzheimer's disease. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-46 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Alzheimer's disease. 47. An excessive fear of eating out in public or speaking in public is indicative of __________, whereas fear of a specific object or situation indicates that the individual is suffering __________. A) social anxiety disorder; GAD B) specific phobia; social anxiety disorder C) specific phobia; GAD D) public anxiety; private anxiety E) social anxiety disorder; specific phobia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-47 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual 16-15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: E) social anxiety disorder; specific phobia 48. In contrast to early-onset schizophrenia, late-onset schizophrenia is ______ and mostly affects __________. A) not common; men and women equally B) common; men C) not common; women D) common; women E) not common; men Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-48 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) not common; women 49. What is the major difference between the symptoms of late and early onset schizophrenia? A) Hallucinations and delusions are more often of a persecutory nature in early-onset cases. B) Hallucinations and delusions are more bizarre in early-onset cases. C) Lack of logical thought is found more often in late-onset schizophrenia. D) Late-onset schizophrenia is more likely to involve disorganized speech and flattened affect. E) Persecution delusions in older adults make differential diagnosis more challenging. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-49 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Persecution delusions in older adults make differential diagnosis more challenging. 50. Georg believes that his children are attempting to have him put in an "old-age" home, and he is quite upset. Every time his son and daughter come to visit, Georg tells them that he refuses to go to a home, and he knows they are trying to trick him into agreeing. Georg's children are concerned, however, because they have not mentioned a residential home in years. Georg appears to be suffering from __________. A) brief psychotic disorder B) schizophrenia C) late-onset schizophrenia D) delusional disorder E) early-onset schizophrenia Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-50 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Application Answer: D) delusional disorder.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 51. The treatment of choice for older adult patients suffering from psychotic disorders is __________. A) neuroleptics B) psychoanalysis C) psychological treatment D) institutionalization E) psychosurgery Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-51 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: A) neuroleptics. 52. Delirium in older patients is often misdiagnosed as __________. A) neurocognitive disorder B) delusional disorder C) generalized anxiety disorder D) late-onset schizophrenia E) dissociative identity disorder Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-52 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: A) neurocognitive disorder. 53. Which of the following is not part of the prevention or treatment of delirium? A) Low dose melatonin to reduce the incidence of delirium in people admitted to acute medical units. B) Low dose haloperidol to reduce the incidence and severity of post-operative delirium. C) Low dose, short-term psychotropic medications to treat delirium when agitation is present. D) Progressive muscle relaxation to help calm patients with delirium who are showing high levels of agitation. E) Investigation and targeting of the original trigger for the delirium. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-53 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Progressive muscle relaxation to help calm patients with delirium who are showing high levels of agitation.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 54. The most common mental disorder among older adults is __________. A) neurocognitive disorder B) delirium C) anxiety disorder D) memory loss E) depression Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-54 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: A) neurocognitive disorder. 55. Whereas delirium refers to __________, neurocognitive disorder refers to __________. A) short-term disturbance of consciousness; permanent losses in memory, judgment and/or reasoning ability B) short-term disturbance of consciousness; short-term loss of memory, judgment and/or reasoning ability C) short-term and temporary loss of memory; permanent disturbance of consciousness D) long-term and permanent disturbance of consciousness; permanent losses in memory, judgment, and reasoning ability E) short term and temporary or permanent loss of reasoning ability; short-term and temporary or permanent losses in memory Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-55 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Conceptual Answer: A) short-term disturbance of consciousness; permanent losses in memory, judgment and/or reasoning ability 56. What is the main difference between pseudo-dementia and bonafide dementia? A) Pseudo-dementia has an earlier onset, while dementia develops later. B) Pseudo-dementia involves loss of cognitive functioning, whereas neurocognitive impairment refers to the loss of one's normal personality. C) Pseudo-dementia involves a decrease in the individual's capacity to care for him or herself, while neurocognitive impairment usually does not. D) The loss of cognitive functioning in a neurocognitive disorder is reversible. E) The loss of cognitive functioning in pseudo-dementia is generally not degenerative. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-56 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) The loss of cognitive functioning in pseudo-dementia is generally not degenerative.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 57. Depression, nutritional deficiency, and other disorders can cause symptoms similar to neurocognitive disorders, such as forgetfulness and difficulty concentrating. These occurrences are also known as __________. A) mild cognitive impairment B) pseudo-dementia C) comorbidity D) major cognitive impairment E) senility Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-57 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) pseudo-dementia. 58. Cortical dementias primarily attack __________, whereas subcortical dementias primarily attack __________. A) the occipital lobes; the frontal lobes B) the cerebellum; the cerebral cortex C) white matter; grey matter D) brainstem areas; the cerebral cortex E) grey matter; white matter Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-58 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) grey matter; white matter 59. __________ interest researchers and clinicians because it is thought to represent a transitional state between normal aging and neurocognitive disorder. A) Impairment of intellect B) Mild cognitive impairment C) Frontotemporal cognitive impairment D) Vascular disease E) Secondary cognitive impairment Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-59 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Mild cognitive impairment 60. It is estimated that at least __________ percent of neurocognitive disorders are due exclusively to __________. A) 20; Alzheimer's disease B) 50; vascular insults C) 25; vascular insults D) 50; Alzheimer's disease E) 75; Alzheimer's disease 16-19 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-60 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: D) 50; Alzheimer's disease 61. Common symptoms that occur during the first stage of Alzheimer's include __________. A) aggression B) sleep difficulties C) speech and language difficulties D) repetitive actions E) problems with concentration Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-61 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: E) problems with concentration. 62. During the middle stage of Alzheimer's disease, sufferers may show __________. A) difficulty recognizing or naming people or things B) problems with concentration C) total incontinence D) stooped posture E) delusions Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-62 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: A) difficulty recognizing or naming people or things. 63. The brains of those suffering from Alzheimer's disease are characterized by __________. A) less electrical stimulation B) plaques and tangles C) decreased dopamine activity levels D) smaller frontal lobes E) lesions Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-63 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) plaques and tangles.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 64. Possible protective factors against Alzheimer's disease include all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) high-fat protein diets B) vegetarian diet C) regular and moderate consumption of red wine D) dietary antioxidants E) lipid-lowering drugs Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-64 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: A) high-fat protein diets. 65. Treatment of Alzheimer's disease with drugs results in __________. A) slowing, but not stopping the disease B) reducing the wandering behaviour but not the forgetfulness C) a reversal of the symptoms D) halting the progression of the disease E) reducing mild cognitive impairment but not the physical complications Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-65 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: A) slowing, but not stopping the disease. 66. The second most common cause of neurocognitive disorder is __________. A) Alzheimer's disease B) cerebrovascular damage C) Parkinson's D) senility E) alcoholism Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-66 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) cerebrovascular damage. 67. Lewy body disease differs from Alzheimer's and vascular NCD in that __________ is/are present. A) a dissociative disorder B) recurrent well-formed hallucinations C) delusions of persecution D) aggressive behaviour E) personality disorders

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-67 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: B) recurrent well-formed hallucinations 68. Frontotemporal NCD is a term used to describe a heterogeneous group of disorders that includes __________. A) Alzheimer's disease B) Lewy body disease C) Pick's disease D) primary cognitive impairment E) vascular disease Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-68 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Pick's disease. 69. As the percentage of the population over 65 continues to increase, it is expected to reach __________ percent by 2050, up from _________ percent in 2012. A) 32; 16 B) 16; 8 C) 8; 4 D) 24; 16 E) 12; 8 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-69 Learning Objective: 16.1: Explain how Canada’s population is aging, why it is aging, and what effect our aging population might have on mental health care. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 16; 8 70. Although increased research is needed into the health and well-being of LGBTQ+2S older adults, gender differences in rates of mental health disorders are known to decrease with age, becoming nearly equivalent across genders at age __________. A) 65 B) 70 C) 60 D) 75 E) 55 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-1-70 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) 75. 16-22 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 71. Which of the following is the correct trend in suicide rates across the lifespan? A) Rates are highest in middle age but drop for cisgender women in their 60s and 70s before increasing again in their 80s and 90s. B) Rates decrease steadily from middle age and are lowest in the 80s and 80s. C) Rates are highest in middle age but drop for cisgender men in their 60s and 70s before increasing again in their 80s and 90s. D) Due to cognitive and physical decline, suicide rates increase steadily throughout the lifespan. E) Aging is not related to rates of suicide. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-71 Learning Objective: 16.4: Summarize the various factors that complicate the diagnosis and treatment of mental disorders in older adults. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) Rates are highest in middle age but drop for cisgender men in their 60s and 70s before increasing again in their 80s and 90s. 72. Which of the following is not one of the noted age-related changes in sleep among older adults? A) Total sleep time decreases. B) Changes in EEG activity. C) Changes in the organization of sleep stages. D) Changes in length of sleep onset. E) Changes in the circadian rhythms, or sleep-wake cycles. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-72 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Changes in length of sleep onset. 73. Heidi’s Oma is 52 and was recently diagnosed with Alzheimer’s. What can Heidi’s Oma expect from this diagnosis? A) This illness was likely inherited and is severe and rapidly deteriorating. B) This illness is sporadic and deteriorates more slowly. C) This illness was likely due to previous trauma and/or substance use and will cause gradual and predictable deterioration. D) This illness is sporadic and rapidly deteriorating. E) This illness was likely inherited and deterioration is slow. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-1-73 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Application Answer: A) This illness was likely inherited and is severe and rapidly deteriorating.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 16 - True/False Questions 1. The increased health and longevity of Canadians solely accounts for the increase in the proportion of older people in our population. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-2-74 Learning Objective: 16.1: Explain how Canada’s population is aging, why it is aging, and what effect our aging population might have on mental health care. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 2. Increased pathology is part of the normal aging process and must be accepted as inevitable. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-2-75 Learning Objective: 16.3: Describe the commonly held myths about treating older adults with mental disorders and list reasons for why these myths exist. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 3. Two myths concerning mental disorders and aging are that mental illness is common among older people and that treatment is not beneficial. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-2-76 Learning Objective: 16.3: Describe the commonly held myths about treating older adults with mental disorders and list reasons for why these myths exist. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 4. The "cohort effect" interpretation of the data showing declining prevalence of mental disorders suggests that people become more resilient over time. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-2-77 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 5. The "survivor effect" interpretation of the declining rates of mental disorder in older adults dictates that individuals with mental disorders have higher mortality rates. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-2-78 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 6. Fortunately, older clients are likely to be better served by the next generation of therapists. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-2-79 Learning Objective: 16.3: Describe the commonly held myths about treating older adults with mental disorders and list reasons for why these myths exist. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 7. "Polypharmacy" means that older people require several medications to treat their mental disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-2-80 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 8. There currently are not theories that can explain why older adults seem to be mentally healthier than younger adults. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-2-81 Learning Objective: 16.3: Describe the commonly held myths about treating older adults with mental disorders and list reasons for why these myths exist. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 9. The notion that we become focused on short-term and emotionally-meaningful matters when we perceive time as limited is most consistent with social-emotional selectivity theory. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-2-82 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 10. Freud stressed the importance of psychotherapy with older adults. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-2-83 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 11. Older adults are more likely to respond to positive over negative information. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-2-84 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 12. Major depressive disorder is four times as common among younger adults than among older adults. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-2-85 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 13. In Canada, older cisgender men are 5 times more likely than are older cisgender women to commit suicide. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-2-86 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 14. Older adults with depressive disorders are more likely to be treated with ECT and with drugs than are younger patients. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-2-87 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 15. The primary sleep problems experienced by older adults include feeling sleepy during the day, awakening often during the night, and waking up too early in the morning. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-2-88 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 16. The side effects of benzodiazepines for older people include increased risk of falls and psychomotor impairment. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-2-89 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 17. Schizophrenia develops only in adolescents and younger adults. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-2-90 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 18. Delirium can occur at any age. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-2-91 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 19. Cisgender women are twice as likely as cisgender men to develop neurocognitive disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-2-92 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 20. Two-thirds of all neurocognitive disorders found in older adults are due to Pick's disease. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-2-93 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 21. The average course from diagnosis to death for individuals with AD is about 10 years. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-2-94 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False

Chapter 16 - Essay Questions 1. Briefly describe and challenge some of the common myths associated with mental disorders in older adults. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-3-95 Learning Objective: 16.3: Describe the commonly held myths about treating older adults with mental disorders and list reasons for why these myths exist. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Many common myths exist regarding mental disorders and aging. One myth is that the development of pathology in older adults is normal and does not require treatment. However, normal aging does not imply the development of pathology, but rather, a slowing down of bodily systems. Even when a large number of older people develop a pathological condition, this does not mean the condition is normal. Stable mental health in older people is typical, and any behavioural changes should be a cause for concern and treated. Another prevalent myth is that older adults do not respond well to treatment. This myth is false - the evidence shows that older adults are as responsive to treatment as younger adults. It is likely that this myth developed because older people are generally stereotyped as rigid and set in their ways, and fewer older adults seek treatment for mental disorders. It is important that mental health professionals recognize and challenge these myths in order to provide older adults with the best possible treatment. 2. Describe the selective optimization with compensation (SOC) model. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-3-96 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual Answer: Old age inevitably brings losses of abilities and skills. Therefore, successful aging entails a) the selection of goals and goal priorities in life, b) optimizing resources that facilitate these goals, and c) compensating for losses by creatively using alternative means to achieve one's goals despite limited capacities. This framework could be used to maximize functioning in people with mental disorders by building on strengths and avoiding weaknesses.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 3. Briefly describe socio-emotional selectivity theory (SST). Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-3-97 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Conceptual Answer: According to this theory, younger people tend to perceive time as unlimited and therefore have goals that are future-oriented. They are more likely to focus their energy on seeking information and expanding their knowledge. Older people see time as limited, so their goals are more focused on shortterm and emotionally meaningful matters. Research supports that as we age, goals shift from being knowledge focused to meaning focused, which is good for mental health. 4. Describe the strength and vulnerability integration (SAVI) theory. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-3-98 Learning Objective: 16.2: Discuss changes in mental health across the adult lifespan, and describe three theoretical models of aging that explain why these changes occur. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: The SAVI includes components of SST, namely that aging is associated with increased emotional-regulation through attentional and appraisal strategies: adoption of a time-limited perspective; focus on emotionally meaningful goals; increased present- moment awareness; a decrease in conflict due to avoidance of difficult situations and the intentional pruning of peripheral social network members; and a greater focus on positive information and experiences. SAVI adds that older people have more opportunity to practice these strategies in dealing with the stress of daily life and are therefore more effective. SAVI also includes increased vulnerability to stress associated with unavoidable stressors. In these ways, SAVI can account for individual differences in emotional regulation and vulnerability to mental disorders. 5. Identify some of the differences between depressive disorders in younger and older adults. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-3-99 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: There is an assumption that older people are more likely to be depressed than are younger people, likely because they are aging and many aspects of their lives begin to change. In actuality, major depressive disorder is nearly four times higher in younger adults, and persistent depressive disorder occurs twice as often in younger adults. However, suicide is more common among older people (especially older cisgender men) and attempts are more likely to be successful. As well, the symptoms of major depressive disorder are somewhat different among older adults, who are more likely to report somatic symptoms such as weight loss and are less likely to report feelings of worthlessness or inappropriate guilt. Diagnosis of depressive disorders is more difficult among older adults. It can be difficult to differentiate between depressive disorders and neurocognitive disorders, and depressive symptoms can be the result of other medical conditions or medications. In terms of treatment issues, older adults are more likely to be given ECT or pharmacotherapy and are less likely to be treated with psychotherapy than are younger adults, even though psychological treatment is as effective for older adults.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 6. Highlight some of the factors that make it difficult to diagnose sleep disorders in older adults. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-3-100 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Although older adults report more dissatisfaction with sleep (approximately 40% report sleep problems), a number of factors make it difficult to diagnose and treat sleep disorders in older adults. Generally, information about sleep comes from self-reports, which may be distorted by unrealistic expectations. Sleep disturbances may be caused by other physical or mental disorders or medications, so sleep may improve after the other disorder is treated. In addition, some changes in sleep habits or patterns are normal, even though the person may not see this. Sleep hygiene (such as eating, drinking, or exercising before bed, sleeping with another person or alone) affects how an individual sleeps, and circumstances such as the loss of a spouse or moving to a different residence may change sleeping situations. 7. Discuss common treatments used for older adults suffering from depressive disorders. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-3-101 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: Major depressive disorder and persistent depressive disorder are generally treated with psychotherapy, drug therapy, or ECT. Although psychotherapy is often believed not to work for older adults, short-term therapy has been shown to be quite effective in treating depression among older patients. Antidepressant medications are effective in older patients, but the side effects of these drugs may be tolerated less well and drug interactions can be a problem for those taking multiple medications. ECT is often used with older patients, and is very effective, but it too causes serious problems such as confusion, falls, and cardiorespiratory problems. Psychological treatments, such as cognitive-behavioural therapy, are preferred over pharmacological treatments for older adults suffering from depressive disorders. It may be beneficial to attempt psychological treatments with older people before prescribing medications or ECT. 8. What are the challenges involved in diagnosis of anxiety disorders in older adults? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-3-102 Learning Objective: 16.5: Briefly summarize what current research tells us about the effectiveness of psychological and pharmacological treatments for the disorders reviewed in this chapter among older versus younger adults. Skill: Factual Answer: Accurate diagnosis of anxiety disorders in older adults is challenging for a few reasons: (1) a diagnosis of depression may overshadow a potential diagnosis of an anxiety disorder (i.e., anxiety disorder may be mistaken for depression); (2) other physical and psychological problems can produce what appear to be symptoms of anxiety disorder, making differential diagnosis difficulty; (3) the assessment tools/measures that are commonly used to identify clinically significant anxiety have been normed and validated in younger adult populations, not in older adult populations so it is not clear that these measures are valid for older adults.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 9. Compare and contrast neurocognitive disorders, pseudo-dementia, cortical and subcortical degeneration. Use examples. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 16-3-103 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual Answer: Neurocognitive disorder is the most common mental disorder in older adults and refers to a large category of disorders where the individual loses his or her former level of cognitive functioning (i.e., the ability to remember, think, and reason). Pseudo-dementia is used to describe disorders that produce cognitive impairment but that can be reversed. Depression, nutritional deficiency, thyroid disorder are examples of conditions that can cause symptoms that mimic the neurocognitive disorders. Cortical degeneration affects the cerebral cortex and can cause problems in learning new information, loss of short-term memory ability, visuospatial problems, language problems, and eventually poor reasoning and judgment. Subcortical degeneration primarily attacks the white matter and more primitive parts of the brain, resulting in cognitive slowing, problems retrieving information from memory, and difficulty with executive function. 10. List the three stages of Alzheimer's disease and the types of symptoms indicative of these three stages. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-3-104 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Conceptual Answer: The Alzheimer's Society of Canada has described three stages that sufferers progress through first, middle, and late. These stages have also been referred to as the forgetfulness phase, the confusion phase, and the cognitive impairment phase. In the first stage, the individual exhibits memory difficulties, unclear thinking, difficulty concentrating on tasks, errors in judgment, and may have a hard time finding words. These symptoms are recognized by the individual experiencing them and they generally cause distress. During the middle stage, symptoms become more severe and additional symptoms such as speech and language difficulties, problems in orientation, sleep difficulties, wandering, agitation and irritability, and difficulties with employment and social situations. In the late stage, individuals lose their ability to communicate and memory impairment becomes profound. Sufferers develop various physical symptoms such as immobility, incontinence, and vulnerability to disease. Delusions or hallucinations occur in a significant proportion of individuals in this final stage. 11. Describe the hypothesized etiology of Alzheimer's disease. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-3-105 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: The etiology of Alzheimer's disease clearly is biological. The brains of Alzheimer's sufferers are characterized by the presence of excessive amounts of plaques (collections of debris suspended in amyloid within nerve cells) and neurofibrillary tangles (abnormal clusters of intertwined filaments in nerve cells). Shrinkage of the cortex is another characteristic. Genetics may play a role, as individuals with Down syndrome who live past 40 years of age begin to show signs of Alzheimer's. As well, Alzheimer's runs in families. APOE is the most reliable genetic association in research on the genetic basis of Alzheimer's Disease. 16-32 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Other hypotheses involve abnormalities in the amyloid or proteins of nerve cells, acetylcholine deficiencies, and excessive aluminum in the body. All of these hypotheses are being investigated and knowledge increases every day, but so far, the exact etiology is unknown. A number of modifiable risk factors have also been proposed since genetic risk factors do not operate in isolation e.g., high blood pressure, cardiovascular problems, depression, head trauma, poor nutrition, lack of regular physical exercise, smoking, among others (see text). 12. What is known about the mental health of caregivers? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 16-3-106 Learning Objective: 16.6: Describe the difference between dementia and Alzheimer’s disease and list the primary risk factors for developing Alzheimer’s disease. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: Relative to non-caregivers, caregivers have poorer perceived mental health and more severe symptoms of depression and anxiety. Caregivers may even be at greater risk of early mortality. Studies have shown that stress affects cognitive functions, and these functions have been shown to be compromised in caregivers. A number of interventions specifically for caregivers are being tested e.g., mindfulness-based interventions, and expressive writing/written disclosure.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 17 Therapies Chapter 17 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. Which of the following is false? A) The first treatments for psychological disorders were biological. B) Practices such as bleeding were designed to correct biological imbalances. C) In the latter part of the nineteenth century, very few physical strategies designed to calm disturbed behaviour existed. D) Electroconvulsive treatment is the most controversial biological intervention used to treat disturbed behaviour. E) Psychopharmacology is the most common biological intervention used to treat disturbed behaviour. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-01 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) In the latter part of the nineteenth century, very few physical strategies designed to calm disturbed behaviour existed. 2. Electroconvulsive therapy __________. A) is ineffective in ameliorating severe depressive symptoms that have not responded to other treatments B) reduces depression by a very simple and clearly understood mechanism C) is quite often a medical practitioner's first choice for treating depression D) has been shown to work very well with older patients E) shows no evidence in reducing the likelihood of relapse Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-02 Learning Objective: 17.2: Describe the efficacy and safety of neurostimulation techniques for the treatment of treatment-resistant depression and psychotic disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) shows no evidence in reducing the likelihood of relapse. 3. Dr. Hallam is developing a drug to treat cancer. Dr. Hallam observes that one of the side effects of this drug is that it elevates a person's mood. A year later, this drug becomes an important tool in the treatment of depression. Discoveries of this type in science are __________. A) very common because serendipitous discoveries never occur in science B) uncommon because in reality the ideal method for developing medications is first to understand the pathological process by which a disorder develops, then to identify an agent that will change in the process C) common because physicians carefully monitoring a patient's reaction to a drug have observed unanticipated benefits in other areas D) very common as most physicians routinely do this sort of research with their patients E) very uncommon because science has clearly established biochemical mechanisms that account for most psychological disorders

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-03 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) common because physicians carefully monitoring a patient's reaction to a drug have observed unanticipated benefits in other areas. 4. Categories of psychoactive drugs described in the text are: __________. A) antipsychotic; euphoric; anxiolytic; anti-maniacal; and dopaminergic B) antipsychotic; antidepressant; anxiolytic; mood-altering; and psycho-stimulant C) antipsychotic; antidepressant; anxiolytic; dopaminergic; and amphetamines D) anti-dopaminergic; antidepressant; benzodiazepine; and mood-altering E) anticholinergic; antidepressant; antipsychotic; mood-altering; and dopaminergic Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-04 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) antipsychotic; antidepressant; anxiolytic; mood-altering; and psycho-stimulant 5. The development of phenothiazines and related major tranquilizers did all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) helped formerly institutionalized patients to return to the community B) offered the possibility of reducing psychotic symptoms such as hallucinations C) were regarded as a major scientific breakthrough D) replaced psychological therapies as the most common type of treatment E) made possible the policy of deinstitutionalization Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-05 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) replaced psychological therapies as the most common type of treatment. 6. Which of the following is not used to treat hallucinations? A) tricyclics B) dibenzodiazepine C) phenothiazines D) butyrophenone E) clozapine Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-06 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) tricyclics

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 7. Which of the following is not an extrapyramidal effect? A) stooped posture B) muscular rigidity C) a distinctive shuffling gait D) occasional drooling E) head banging Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-07 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) occasional drooling 8. __________ consist of strange muscular movements such as eye-twitching and tongue thrusting, whereas __________ include stooped posture, muscular rigidity, a distinctive shuffling gait, and occasional drooling. A) Parkinsonian effects; extrapyramidal effects B) Extrapyramidal effects; tardive dyskinesia C) anti-Parkinsonian effects; anti-pyramidal effects D) Parkinsonian effects; tardive dyskinesia E) Tardive dyskinesia; Parkinsonian effects Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-1-08 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Tardive dyskinesia; Parkinsonian effects 9. You are a psychiatrist who is treating an older patient who has schizophrenia. You are worried about extrapyramidal effects and serious health risks and would like to keep these at an absolute minimum. Which of the following drugs would you most likely prescribe? A) SSRIs B) olanzapine C) thioridazine D) haloperidol E) fluphenazine Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-1-09 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Application Answer: B) olanzapine

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 10. Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding first vs. second-generation antipsychotics? A) first generation anti-psychotic medications have more extrapyramidal side effects B) second generation anti-psychotic medications are more strongly associated with weight gain side effects C) second generation anti-psychotic medications have mood stabilizing properties, making them desirable in the treatment of mania with psychosis D) first generation anti-psychotic medications are more expensive than second generation antipsychotics E) choice of antipsychotic should be based on the impact of side effects on the individual patient Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-10 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) first generation anti-psychotic medications are more expensive than second generation antipsychotics 11. Which of the following is true concerning anxiolytics? A) Patients develop tolerance for barbiturates requiring larger doses to achieve the same effects. B) Benzodiazepines are toxic to the brain at high levels. C) Benzodiazepines show no addictive properties. D) Anxiolytics increase activity in parts of the central nervous system. E) They can be taken safely along with alcohol. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-1-11 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Patients develop tolerance for barbiturates requiring larger doses to achieve the same effects. 12. Which of the following taken in combination with the enzyme tyramine (found in yeast, chocolate, and beer) can cause a life-threatening increase in blood pressure? A) monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) B) Prozac C) tricyclics (TCAs) D) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) E) lithium Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-1-12 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 13. Taylor is a university student with attention deficit disorder who regularly takes Ritalin. Taylor is taking a math exam on Monday at noon. To ensure peak clinical effectiveness of the Ritalin for their exam, what time would be best for Taylor to take his medication? A) between 7:00 and 11:00 the morning of the exam B) 12 hours in advance of the exam C) right at the beginning of the exam D) 24 hours before the time of the exam E) the night before the exam Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-13 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Application Answer: A) between 7:00 and 11:00 the morning of the exam 14. Recent research finds that the risk of adverse outcomes in older adults is greater for SSRIs than with __________ and yet, with all factors considered, Canadian guidelines continue to recommend SSRIs as first line medication for depression in older adults. A) monoamine oxidase inhibitors B) benzodiazepines C) stimulants D) SNRIs E) tricyclics Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-14 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) tricyclics 15. Han has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. As a psychiatrist, what can you prescribe to treat Han? A) anxiolytics B) stimulants C) mood stabilizers D) antipsychotics E) antidepressants Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-15 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Application Answer: C) mood stabilizers 16. Lithium most clearly appears to help the treatment of bipolar disorder by __________. A) increasing overall positive mood B) decreasing the frequency of negative mood states C) reducing the intensity of manic states D) blocking the emergence of manic episodes E) reducing the probability of depressive episodes 17-5 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-16 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) blocking the emergence of manic episodes 17. Which of the following best summarizes the current status of psychoactive medication? A) It is most effective for certain types of people suffering from particular types of disorders. B) It effectively guards against relapse and chronic disorder. C) It has excellent curative properties. D) It is generally highly inefficient. E) It is effective for symptom control. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-17 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) It is effective for symptom control. 18. Fatima argues that it might be more cost effective for psychologists to prescribe medicine for their patients rather than referring to psychiatrists or physicians. Which of the following arguments would best serve as a response to Fatima's argument? A) Absolutely not, because psychologists do not believe in the efficacy of drug therapy and do not want prescription privileges. B) Absolutely. The provision of education required to competently prescribe would not occur at the expense of training in psychological assessments and interventions making adequate prescription training possible. C) Maybe, but undeserved groups such as older adults, the chronically mentally ill and those living in rural areas would benefit very little from such a service. D) Maybe, but many major mental disorders (such as schizophrenia) are best treated with psychotherapy, so why prescribe medication. E) One has to be careful when allocating prescription privileges because the biological and pharmaceutical training required of psychologists may be inadequate. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-18 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) One has to be careful when allocating prescription privileges because the biological and pharmaceutical training required of psychologists may be inadequate. 19. Which of the following best describes the current situation regarding prescription privileges for psychologists in Canada? A) The CPA has not taken a stand on the issue of prescription privileges. B) The CPA is in complete support of such privileges. C) The CPA does not believe the extra costs and time needed for extra training is worth the privilege. D) The CPA completely supports the American approach to reducing health care costs. E) The Canadian Psychological Association (CPA) is vehemently opposed to allowing such privileges.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-19 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) The CPA has not taken a stand on the issue of prescription privileges. 20. We can trace the roots of psychodynamic therapy to which of the following individuals? A) Sigmund Freud B) Erik Erikson C) Carl Jung D) Carl Rogers E) Karen Horney Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-20 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) Sigmund Freud 21. Which of the following is NOT one of the five basic techniques of psychoanalysis? A) free association B) dream interpretation C) analysis of resistance D) guided imagery E) analysis of transference Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-21 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) guided imagery 22. Dr. Tanaka is employing a psychoanalytic approach to treat their client. During their first session, Dr. Tanaka encourages their client to say anything that comes to their mind. After the session is done, Dr. Tanaka analyzes what was said by focusing specifically on slips of the tongue and numerous incidents of forgetfulness. During the second session, Dr. Tanaka focuses on the fact that their client is unwilling to discuss certain topics and has a tendency to remain quiet. Which three psychoanalytic techniques were most likely used by Dr. Tanaka during the two treatment sessions? A) free association; analysis of transference; and interpretation B) free association; interpretation; and analysis of transference C) free association; analysis of resistance; and analysis of transference D) free association; dream interpretation; and analysis of resistance E) free association; interpretation; and analysis of resistance

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-1-22 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Application Answer: E) free association; interpretation; and analysis of resistance 23. A patient who experienced their father as controlling will likely experience the therapist as controlling. According to psychoanalysis, which phenomenon is occurring here? A) resistance B) free association C) denial D) countertransference E) transference Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-23 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) transference 24. "Goals are concrete, conversation replaces free association, therapists are emphatic rather than emotionally detached, and interpretations focus on current life events rather than childhood fears and conflicts." Which type of psychotherapy is being described here? A) Adler's individual psychology B) time-limited dynamic psychotherapy C) interpersonal psychodynamic therapy D) brief psychodynamic psychotherapy E) ego analysis Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-24 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) brief psychodynamic psychotherapy 25. "I feel that sexual and aggressive instincts are less important than the individual's striving to overcome personal weakness." Which of the following therapists would be most likely to say this? A) Harry Stack Sullivan B) Karen Horney C) Erik Erikson D) Alfred Adler E) Sigmund Freud

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-25 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) Alfred Adler 26. Andreas is hostile towards everyone. His therapist provides him with feedback indicating that his interpersonal style is perpetuating and provoking conflicts. The therapist teaches Andreas to interact with others in a more flexible and positive way. Which type of psychotherapy is Andreas’s therapist using? A) ego analysis B) time limited dynamic psychotherapy C) interpersonal psychodynamic therapy D) aversion therapy E) brief psychodynamic psychotherapy Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-26 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) interpersonal psychodynamic therapy 27. Whereas psychodynamic approaches focus on the person's __________, humanistic and experiential approaches focus on the person's ___________. A) unconscious processes; past experiences B) subjective experiences; unconscious processes C) unconscious processes; subjective experiences D) current experiences; past experiences E) conscious processes; unconscious processes Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-27 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) unconscious processes; subjective experiences 28. Carl Rogers developed client-centered therapy in the 1940s as an alternative to ___________. A) drug therapy B) humanistic and experiential approaches C) existential therapy D) psychoanalysis E) cognitive-behavioural therapy

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-28 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) psychoanalysis. 29. Which of the following does not take place during client-centered therapy? A) A client is given "unconditional positive regard". B) A client is valued as a unique individual. C) A client is welcomed into an environment of acceptance. D) A client receives a diagnosis. E) A client is treated by a therapist who is genuine and empathic. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-29 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) A client receives a diagnosis. 30. You are an existential therapist. Which of the following potential clients would be least suited for your type of therapy? A) a young cisgender woman who has borderline personality disorder traits. B) a high school student who feels no sense of belonging and has become disillusioned with their studies. C) a young lawyer who frequently has panic and anxiety attacks before important cases. D) a patient with schizophrenia who never takes their medication. E) a young parent with dependent personality disorder. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-1-30 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) a patient with schizophrenia who never takes his medication. 31. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Gestalt therapy? A) It often interprets clients' dreams. B) It integrates clients' inner feelings and their external environments. C) It encourages clients to talk freely about other people. D) It helps clients become aware of feelings and needs that have been ignored or distorted. E) It often employs the empty chair technique. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-31 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: C) It encourages clients to talk freely about other people. 32. Behaviour therapy originally arose as a treatment approach for ___________. A) patients with alcohol use disorder B) patients with high neuroticism C) patients with psychosis D) patients suffering from anxiety and related disorders E) patients suffering from depression Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-32 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) patients with psychosis. 33. A father has just started teaching his young son to shoot a basketball. Although he is very eager to see him progress, the father comes down hard on his son every time he misses a shot. According to Albert Bandura, how should the father modify his approach? A) He shouldn't change anything. Mastery and self-efficacy will develop even better with criticism. B) He should reward his son with money every time he makes a shot. C) He should maintain a similar standard of criticism even once the behaviour has been mastered. D) He should encourage his son for persistence and effort, even if he is missing shots. E) He shouldn't change anything. By being a harsh critic, the father will help his son develop high standards for the future. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-1-33 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) He should encourage his son for persistence and effort, even if he is missing shots. 34. Albert Ellis's rational-emotive therapy can be described as a ___________. A) cognitive-behavioural approach B) fundamentally humanistic approach C) psychoanalytic approach D) purely cognitive approach E) purely behavioural approach Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-34 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) purely cognitive approach.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 35. Albert Ellis's rational-emotive therapy and Beck's cognitive therapy are based on the assumption that ___________. A) irrational emotions give rise to distress and psychopathology B) positive thinking is what makes people happy C) the way people remember information is what contributes to well-being versus psychopathology D) an individual's perception of situations, rather than the situations themselves, affects adjustment E) people with psychopathology have deficits in their attentional control Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-35 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) an individual's perception of situations, rather than the situations themselves, affects adjustment. 36. A child who is taught how to tie their shoes in a sequence of steps and receives reinforcement for each stepped mastered is learning this skill through ___________. A) problem solving B) exposure C) response shaping D) reinforcement E) behavioural activation Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-36 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) response shaping. 37. A newer cognitive-behavioural therapy has shifted focus away from challenging the content of thoughts, and toward __________. A) challenging the nature of one's emotions B) questioning one's behavioural responses C) attending to and accepting the presence of one's thoughts D) identifying repetitive themes in one's thoughts and responses to the therapist E) engaging in behavioural experiments with the client Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-37 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) attending to and accepting the presence of one's thoughts

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 38. In 3rd wave cognitive-behavioural treatments, the client is taught to ___________. A) Systematically train themselves to adopt neutral interpretations of ambiguous events B) Use mental imagery to recall positive memories C) Disengage from automatically responding to their self-denigrating thoughts D) Challenge self-denigrating thoughts by coming up with evidence against these thoughts E) Ignore self-denigrating thoughts using effective distraction techniques Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-38 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Disengage from automatically responding to their self-denigrating thoughts. 39. A core strategy in the behavioural activation approach to treating depression is ____________. A) engaging in activities that offer repeated experience of natural reinforcers B) learning how to assert oneself more effectively C) learning how to wake up early in the morning rather than sleeping in and wasting time D) learning how to develop a regular habit of engaging in cardiovascular exercise E) learning how to achieve a better work-life balance Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-39 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) engaging in activities that offer repeated experience of natural reinforcers. 40. Zahra has a fear of dogs. Zahra’s therapist decides to gradually let them interact with some dogs in the therapist’s presence until Zahra’s fear disappears. This unfolds in a series of steps. This technique is known as ___________. A) behavioural activation B) reinforcement C) response shaping D) exposure therapy E) systematic desensitization Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-40 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) exposure therapy. 41. Which of the following is not one of the key elements of the problem-solving approach? A) problem definition. B) generating alternative solutions to deal with the problem. C) problem formulation. D) deciding on the perfect, no-fail solution to implement. E) implementing and evaluating the solution. 17-13 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-41 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Application Answer: D) deciding on the perfect, no-fail solution to implement. 42. Mindfulness approaches are based on the premise that ___________. A) self-management and successful coping is facilitated by open awareness of one's experience in the present moment B) gradual mindful exposure can be just as effective as in vivo exposure C) assertiveness can be practiced in session and then generalized to real-world interaction D) attending to distorted interpretations and attributions results in replacement with more reasonable cognitions E) awareness of one's thoughts facilitates self-reinforcement for appropriate cognitions Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-42 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) self-management and successful coping is facilitated by open awareness of one's experience in the present moment. 43. Jerome Frank identified three essential ingredients in psychotherapeutic healing: __________, __________, and __________. A) hope; gaining awareness of one's own thought process; gaining awareness of how one is perceived by others B) hope; an alternative explanation for the problem; a prescription that the client thinks, feel, or act in a different way C) calm; gaining awareness of one's own thought process; gaining awareness of how one is perceived by others D) calm; an alternative explanation for the problem; a prescription that the client thinks, feel, or act in a different way E) trust; an alternative explanation for the problem; a prescription that the client thinks, feel, or act in a different way Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-43 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) hope; an alternative explanation for the problem; a prescription that the client thinks, feel, or act in a different way

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 44. According to Jerome Frank, the first ingredient in healing is ___________. A) awareness B) an alternative explanation for the problem C) coming to terms with the less desirable aspects of one's personality D) the client is supposed to think, feel, or act in a different way E) hope Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-44 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) hope. 45. The process of addressing ambivalence to adopt lifestyle changes is termed ___________. A) induction of insight B) cognitive restructuring C) cognitive therapy D) motivational interviewing E) self-regulation Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-45 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) motivational interviewing. 46. Canadian psychologists Sue Johnson and Les Greenberg developed and evaluated an experiential approach to couples therapy called ___________. A) emotionally focused therapy B) group therapy C) problem focused therapy D) dynamic therapy E) family therapy Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-46 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: A) emotionally focused therapy. 47. Which of the following statements about group therapy is not true? A) A disadvantage is that in the short term and long-term, it is more expensive to deliver group therapy than it is to treat people individually. B) An advantage of the group context is that it offers feedback from other people. C) An advantage of the group context is that it is a place to practice ways of relating to others. D) Universality can reduce feelings of stigma. E) The group context may lead to feelings of belonging. 17-15 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-47 Learning Objective: 17.6: Identify the various modalities through which psychotherapy can be delivered. Skill: Factual Answer: A) A disadvantage is that in the short term and long-term, it is more expensive to deliver group therapy than it is to treat people individually. 48. Clinical psychologists are among the main providers of psychotherapy. The most commonly endorsed orientation is ___________. A) humanistic-experiential B) integrative C) psychodynamic D) neo-Freudian E) cognitive-behavioural Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-48 Learning Objective: 17.4: Explain how evidence of psychotherapy effects have been defined and evaluated according to the empirically supported treatment (EST), evidence-based relationships (EBR), and evidence-based practice (EBP) models. Skill: Factual Answer: E) cognitive-behavioural. 49. Which of the following is false regarding the characteristics of those who receive psychological services? A) Women are twice as likely as men to consult a psychologist. B) People who experience pain that interferes with their daily lives are twice as likely to seek psychological services. C) People who feel so unhappy that they believe life is not worthwhile are five times as likely to seek psychological services. D) People who are already high functioning but would like to optimize/enhance their performance are the fastest growing group seeking psychological services. E) Individuals who report high levels of stress are more likely to seek psychological services. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-49 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) People who are already high functioning but would like to optimize/enhance their performance are the fastest growing group seeking psychological services. 50. One-person models of therapy focus on the client’s _________ whereas two-person models focus on _________. A) interpsychic processes; intrapsychic processes B) interpsychic processes; interpersonal processes C) intrapsychic processes; interpsychic processes D) symptom management; social skills E) psychopathy; interpersonal skills

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-50 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: C) intrapsychic processes; interpsychic processes. 51. Which of the following is not a key feature of psychodynamic therapy? A) focus on affect and expression of emotion. B) exploration of fantasy life. C) focus on interpersonal relations. D) symptom management and reduction. E) discussion of paster experiences. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-1-51 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) symptom management and reduction. 52. Which of the following is true? A) Methodological limitations, such as small sample size, have rarely if ever been an issue in studies comparing treatments. B) The so-called verbal therapies are correctly categorized together as they share much in common. C) The manner by which a researcher chooses to categorize therapies does not appear to affect the conclusions drawn from a study comparing those therapies. D) Using meta-analytic approaches, a number of investigators are now finding significant differences between treatments. E) Kazdin and Bass (1989) found that most studies that found no differences between treatments had a large enough sample size to draw solid conclusions. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-52 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Using meta-analytic approaches, a number of investigators are now finding significant differences between treatments. 53. Which of the following is true? A) Cognitive therapy has shown no effectiveness in treating depression in older adults. B) Antidepressants and some form of psychotherapy may be slightly more efficacious than either treatment alone, in the case of chronic depression. C) Cognitive-behaviour therapy has not been shown to be effective in treating anxiety and related disorders in children. D) Cognitive-behaviour therapy and interpersonal psychotherapy have both proven ineffective in treating bulimia. E) In searching for the active ingredient of cognitive therapy for depression researchers examined three treatments which were each found to significantly differ from the other two. 17-17 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-53 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: B) Antidepressants and some form of psychotherapy may be slightly more efficacious than either treatment alone, in the case of chronic depression. 54. There is demonstrated efficacy of psychological treatments for which personality disorder? A) Dependent personality disorder B) Borderline personality disorder C) Narcissistic personality disorder D) Obsessive-compulsive personality disorder E) Avoidant personality disorder Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-1-54 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Application Answer: B) Borderline personality disorder 55. Although research does exist on the effectiveness of psychotherapy, one has to be careful when generalizing these findings to the real world because ___________. A) most studies are conducted without the consent of the patients B) researchers do not have to meet the standards of experimental criteria when comparing therapies C) researchers do not know or have any control over the participants in their studies D) most studies are conducted in a research context E) most studies are conducted without the participation of the therapists Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-55 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: D) most studies are conducted in a research context. 56. While researchers have improved their studies by increasing _________ validity, there has been a corresponding reduction in _________ validity. A) external; internal B) face; criterion C) internal; external D) construct; criterion E) internal; predictive

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-56 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) internal; external 57. According to the National Institute for Clinical Excellence (NICE), a person suffering from mild depression for the first time and seeking treatment should ___________. A) be prescribed an SSRI B) take a test to determine whether antidepressants or cognitive-behaviour therapy would work best C) wait six months to determine if the depression warrants professional intervention D) be prescribed an SSRI along with CBT E) be offered low intensity CBT Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-57 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) be offered low intensity CBT. 58. What is a primary difference between neurostimulation treatments and psychotropic agents? A) neurostimulation treatments are safer with no side effects. B) neurostimulation treatments are localized to one area and thus less likely to cause widespread side effects. C) psychotropic agents are widespread and thus less likely to cause significant side effects. D) neurostimulation treatments cause short-term neurological damage whereas psychotropic agents cause long-term damage over time. E) psychotropics agents are localized to one area and thus less likely to cause widespread side effects. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-1-57 Learning Objective: 17.2: Describe the efficacy and safety of neurostimulation techniques for the treatment of treatment-resistant depression and psychotic disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) neurostimulation treatments are localized to one area and thus less likely to cause widespread side effects. 59. Which of the following is true regarding the side effects of ECT? A) minimal but permanent side effects are common. B) ECT often results in permanent brain damage. C) on average, the side effects of ECT last up to 2 weeks. D) in some cases, ECT can trigger lifelong seizure disorders. E) ECT can result in nausea which lasts several months. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-57 Learning Objective: 17.2: Describe the efficacy and safety of neurostimulation techniques for the treatment of treatment-resistant depression and psychotic disorders. Skill: Factual 17-19 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: C) on average, the side effects of ECT last up to 2 weeks. 60. What does the research suggest on the efficacy of cannabis to treat mental health concerns? A) cannabis can actually have a calming effect on symptoms of psychosis. B) despite public optimism, the evidence does not support the efficacy of cannabis to treat mental health conditions. C) the evidence is positive demonstrating widespread efficacy in the treatment of various mental health conditions. D) the evidence is mixed showing efficacy in the treatment of depression but no evidence in the treatment of anxiety E) the evidence is mixed showing some improvements but also harms including increased depression, anxiety, and risk of psychosis. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-60 Learning Objective: 17.2: Describe the efficacy and safety of neurostimulation techniques for the treatment of treatment-resistant depression and psychotic disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: E) the evidence is mixed showing some improvements but also harms including increased depression, anxiety, and risk of psychosis. 61. Psychologists conduct therapy based on their ___________ for a wide range of problems in various __________. A) theoretical orientation; treatment modalities B) theoretical orientation; professional settings C) professional training; treatment modalities D) treatment modalities; theoretical orientation E) professional competencies; professional settings Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-61 Learning Objective: 17.3: Understand issues related to the practice of psychotherapy in Canada, including regulation and the differences between publicly funded and private psychological services. Skill: Factual Answer: A) theoretical orientation; treatment modalities. 62. ___________ refers to how well a treatment works when conducted in clinical research studies whereas _______ refers to how well a treatment works when conducted in real life. A) Treatment effectiveness; treatment efficacy. B) Controlled treatment; uncontrolled treatment. C) Evidence-based practice; empirically supported treatment. D) Empirically supported treatment; treatment effectiveness. E) Treatment efficacy; treatment effectiveness. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-1-62 Learning Objective: 17.4: Explain how evidence of psychotherapy effects have been defined and evaluated according to the empirically supported treatment (EST), evidence-based relationships (EBR), and evidence-based practice (EBP) models. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) be offered low intensity CBT.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 17 - True/False Questions 1. Electroconvulsive therapy is used for disorders like schizophrenia, depressive disorders, and anxiety related disorders, especially when medication does not work. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-2-63 Learning Objective: 17.2: Describe the efficacy and safety of neurostimulation techniques for the treatment of treatment-resistant depression and psychotic disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 2. ECT was originally used to treat schizophrenia and then later was used to treat depression. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-2-64 Learning Objective: 17.2: Describe the efficacy and safety of neurostimulation techniques for the treatment of treatment-resistant depression and psychotic disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 3. ECT side effects include memory loss and disorientation. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-2-64 Learning Objective: 17.2: Describe the efficacy and safety of neurostimulation techniques for the treatment of treatment-resistant depression and psychotic disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 4. Extrapyramidal effects include symptoms similar to those found in Parkinson's disease. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-2-66 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 5. Antipsychotic medications are the only class of medications that can cure schizophrenia at this time. a True b False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-2-67 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 6. The main problem with many of the antidepressant drugs is that large doses are highly toxic. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-2-68 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 7. Lithium has been shown to have antidepressant effects. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-2-69 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 8. Stimulants are used to treat children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-2-70 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 9. The main goal of Freudian psychoanalysis is to overcome defense mechanisms that the client has developed. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-2-71 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: b. False 10. In systematic desensitization, fear-inducing stimuli are arranged in a hierarchy and are presented to the client, in hopes of reducing unwanted behaviour. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-2-72 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 11. Systematic desensitization is currently the treatment of choice for phobias, since it has been found to be more effective than in vivo treatment and treatments without the relaxation component. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-2-73 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 12. Cognitive restructuring requires people to first become aware of their emotions when they are having distorted thoughts. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-2-74 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 13. In family therapy, the focus is placed on reframing the problem so that family can work on tasks designed to change their ways of interacting with one another. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-2-75 Learning Objective: 17.6: Identify the various modalities through which psychotherapy can be delivered. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 17-23 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 14. Often, those most in need of psychological help are not the ones to receive it. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-2-76 Learning Objective: 17.3: Understand issues related to the practice of psychotherapy in Canada, including regulation and the differences between publicly funded and private psychological services. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 15. Eysenck determined that clients often improve without psychotherapy; there was no evidence that psychotherapy had any demonstrable effect. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-2-77 Learning Objective: 17.4: Explain how evidence of psychotherapy effects have been defined and evaluated according to the empirically supported treatment (EST), evidence-based relationships (EBR), and evidence-based practice (EBP) models. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 16. In a meta-analytic study, data from previous studies are combined by developing a common metric, called an effect size. a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-2-78 Learning Objective: 17.4: Explain how evidence of psychotherapy effects have been defined and evaluated according to the empirically supported treatment (EST), evidence-based relationships (EBR), and evidence-based practice (EBP) models. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 17. Research reviews are superior to meta-analyses because they provide more in-depth descriptions about the studies in question. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-2-79 Learning Objective: 17.4: Explain how evidence of psychotherapy effects have been defined and evaluated according to the empirically supported treatment (EST), evidence-based relationships (EBR), and evidence-based practice (EBP) models. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 18. Various meta-analyses conducted over the years have shown that psychotherapy is effective. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-2-80 Learning Objective: 17.4: Explain how evidence of psychotherapy effects have been defined and evaluated according to the empirically supported treatment (EST), evidence-based relationships (EBR), and evidence-based practice (EBP) models. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 19. When comparing the effectiveness of various forms of psychotherapy, researchers have found that cognitive-behavioural therapy is the most effective for all types of problems. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 17-2-81 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 20. There are no effective therapies for personality disorders. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-2-82 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Chapter 17 - Essay Questions 1. Discuss the use of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) in treating disorders. Refer to the way it was used in the past and explain how it is used at present. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-3-83 Learning Objective: 17.2: Describe the efficacy and safety of neurostimulation techniques for the treatment of treatment-resistant depression and psychotic disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: During the 1930s, clinicians noticed that patients with schizophrenia who experienced epileptic seizures showed a reduction in schizophrenia symptoms. They figured that if seizures could be induced, psychotic symptoms would be reduced. With the discovery of effective antipsychotic medication, ECT is no longer used to treat schizophrenia. 17-25 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e As now practiced, ECT involves the application of an electrical current to the patient's temples. It is still used to treat severe depression that has not responded to other forms of treatment, although the mechanism by which it works is not known. ECT has previously been associated with severe side effects such as disorientation and memory loss, broken bones, and, in rare cases, death. However, adverse effects are minimized through less intense, briefer currents, shorter courses of treatment, and the use of muscle relaxants to reduce the risk of injury. 2. Describe the side effects of MAOIs, tricyclics, and SSRIs. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-3-84 Learning Objective: 17.1: Define the major classes of psychotropic medications and their use in the treatment of different types of psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Drugs used to treat depression include: monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs), tricyclics (TCAs), and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs). The main drawback of MAOIs is the severe dietary restrictions: common foods such as yeast, chocolate, and beer that contain the enzyme tyramine can cause a life-threatening increase in blood pressure. TCAs are associated with nuisance side effects such as dry mouth, blurry vision, constipation, and light-headedness. SSRIs are as effective as other antidepressants, with fewer side effects. Generally, the side effects include nausea, diarrhea, headache, tremor, and sleepiness. 3. Discuss the prescription privilege debate. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-3-85 Learning Objective: 17.3: Understand issues related to the practice of psychotherapy in Canada, including regulation and the differences between publicly funded and private psychological services. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Some psychologists have argued for prescription privileges. They state that many major mental disorders are treated with medication, it might be more cost-effective for psychologists to prescribe medication rather than psychiatrists, and underserved groups might benefit from expanded opportunities to receive medication. Many physicians are concerned about the effects of psychologists having prescription privileges and argue that a great deal of training in pharmacology is necessary. In Canada, there currently is no plan for psychologists to seek prescriptive authority in the foreseeable future. In fact, surveys of trainees and practicing psychologists seem to suggest that most are not interested in seeking prescription privileges at this time. 4. Briefly describe the focus of behavioural approaches and provide examples of techniques. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-3-86 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual Answer: At the heart of behavioural approaches are efforts to reinforce desirable behaviours and extinguish undesirable behaviours. Response shaping is used to shape behaviour in gradual steps toward a goal, such as teaching a young child to get dressed independently. Behavioural activation is used to help patients develop strategies to increase their overall activity and counteract their tendencies to avoid activities.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e In systematic desensitization, fear-inducing stimuli are arranged in a hierarchy, individuals are trained in techniques to achieve deep muscle relaxation. Clients imagine the items of the hierarchy one at a time while remaining relaxed. In vivo (i.e., live) exposure does not include the relaxation component and produces better outcomes than engaging in exposure in the imagination. Assertiveness training is effective for treating anxiety in interpersonal situations. 5. List the four modalities of therapy delivery and provide a brief description of each. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-3-87 Learning Objective: 17.3: Understand issues related to the practice of psychotherapy in Canada, including regulation and the differences between publicly funded and private psychological services. Skill: Factual Answer: The four modalities of psychotherapy are individual, couples, family, and group. Early therapy was conducted exclusively with one person and one therapist. In couples therapy, the focus is on the marital relationship, and the goal is to enhance satisfaction with the relationship. Couples therapy is also successful for problems such as depression, alcohol use disorders. Family therapists consider the family to be an important part of the solution to the problem and focus on reframing the problems and helping family members change their ways of interacting with one another. The goals are to enhance communication and negotiation within the family. Group therapy is cost effective, is a place to practice relating to others, offers exposure to the experiences of others, and may lead to feelings of cohesion. 6. Discuss the role of technology in the provision of psychological treatments. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-3-88 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: There is growing interest in ways to capitalize on technology to increase access to mental health care to those who might not otherwise receive it (e.g., due to geographic location). Computerized and internet-based treatments that deliver evidence-based services with minimal contact with a clinician have produced promising results in the treatment of some of the most common disorders e.g., anxiety disorders, insomnia disorder. Telephone and videoconferencing are other ways to provide therapy. Smartphone apps are also promising. For example, a dialectical behaviour therapy app was developed and tested, and the results showed that participants accessed the app regularly, found it helpful, and reported that it decreased emotional intensity, and also decreased the urge to engage in maladaptive behaviour. 7. Describe meta-analysis and explain the importance of this technique. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-3-89 Learning Objective: 17.4: Explain how evidence of psychotherapy effects have been defined and evaluated according to the empirically supported treatment (EST), evidence-based relationships (EBR), and evidence-based practice (EBP) models. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Meta-analysis is a method of quantitatively reviewing previous research. The results of prior research studies are combined by developing a common metric called an effect size. Effect sizes can be calculated from raw data, group means, standard deviations, or from inferential statistics and is the difference between the means of the experimental and control groups, divided by the standard deviation of the control group or the pooled sample of both groups. 17-27 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e There are numerous advantages to meta-analyses. Statistical analyses, not the researchers' impressions, are used to determine the findings. As well, by including data from many studies, the number of research participants is substantially larger. This increases the power of the study to find an effect in the literature. As a result, meta-analysis is being used more extensively with treatment effectiveness studies. 8. What does the current evidence say about the effects of psychotherapy, and which orientation is the most effective? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-3-90 Learning Objective: 17.4: Explain how evidence of psychotherapy effects have been defined and evaluated according to the empirically supported treatment (EST), evidence-based relationships (EBR), and evidence-based practice (EBP) models. Skill: Application Answer: A review by Smith et al. (1980) of 475 controlled studies of psychotherapy found that overall, psychotherapy was effective. The overall effect size was 0.85, which is quite high. As well, effect was unrelated to duration, and there was no correlation between therapist experience and size of effect. Various other studies show similar findings. Many researchers suggest that all psychotherapies produce equivalent effects. However, the failure to find a difference does not mean that a significant difference does not exist; methodological limitations may affect results. Using meta-analytic approaches, investigators examining the effectiveness of cognitive-behavioural versus non-behavioural approaches for children and adolescents found a larger effect size for cognitive-behavioural treatments. However, this may be due to the fact that cognitivebehavioural therapy has more empirical research on treatment effects. Other meta-analytic studies have found contradictory results. Various meta-analyses comparing effect sizes of treatments for specific disorders (i.e., the empirically supported treatment approach) have thus far found CBT to be significantly more efficacious for several disorders including depression, GAD, and social anxiety disorder. There have been some criticisms of these studies, however, and these questions are not yet clearly resolved. 9. What types of therapy have been found to be effective in treating anxiety-related disorders? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-3-91 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Factual Answer: Treatment for specific phobias must involve exposing the individual to the object of the phobia. The person is also encouraged to accept the idea that the feeling of anxiety is not life threatening. In their meta-analytic review, Gould et al. (1995) determined that cognitive-behavioural treatments that combined cognitive restructuring and exposure were highly effective. Large effect sizes have been found for treatment of obsessive-compulsive disorder. The first type of treatment involved exposure and response prevention; the other was cognitive therapy including cognitive restructuring. Cognitive-behavioural treatment has also been found to be effective for treating GAD. Childhood anxiety disorders are also effectively treated. Family based treatments involving a combination of cognitive therapy for the child as well as sessions for the parents dealing with learning reinforcement, communication, responses to stress, and problem-solving are very successful.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 10. What advice would you give a friend who is seeking relief from significant anxiety and depression symptoms? Back up your answer with references to the empirical findings presented in the textbook. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 17-3-92 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual, application Answer: The research evidence is clear that psychotherapy, on average, is just as effective as medication and appears to be more effective in the long term. All psychotherapies appear to have similar effect sizes however a definitive and final answer to this question has not yet been provided by the research literature. Cognitive-behavioural therapies for anxiety and depression have the most research support at this time however ongoing research may find that other approaches are just as effective. Research to date does not support that professional training or years of experience are directly related to the outcome of treatment, although professionally trained therapists are more effective than nonprofessionals when therapy is shorter than 12 sessions, which is obviously important in terms of cost. Research has indicated that the therapeutic alliance (which depends upon feelings of trust, having shared goals, awareness of agreed upon methods and other things) is important in determining outcome. I would recommend that my friend bring a list of questions for the potential psychologist, including questions about qualifications, prior experience, number of sessions required, and awareness of alternative treatment options. The therapist's responses to these questions can provide my friend with insight regarding variables important to the therapeutic alliance, and the therapist's familiarity with the empirical literature and their attitudes toward the requirement that a selected treatment be empirically supported. 11. What is the transdiagnostic approach to treating psychological disorders? What have studies demonstrated thus far regarding the efficacy of this approach? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 17-3-93 Learning Objective: 17.5: Describe the major types of psychotherapy, including their theories of how problems develop, the interventions and techniques they use to facilitate change, and evidence of their effects for different psychological disorders. Skill: Conceptual, application Answer: There is considerable comorbidity among psychological disorders and often comorbid disorders have features in common. Transdiagnostic treatments are designed specifically to target features or processes that appear to be common among diagnoses that supposedly are distinct. For example, all anxiety disorders are characterized by avoidant behaviour, so this would be an example of a transdiagnostic feature. These treatments are based in CBT and also contain mindfulness strategies. A 2015 meta-analysis of various transdiagnostic treatments showed that these treatments were superior to treatment-as-usual and were similar in efficacy to disorder-specific treatments for anxiety and depressive disorders.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 18 Prevention and Mental Health Promotion in the Community Chapter 18 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. Community psychology had its roots in __________. A) clinical psychology B) sociological medicine C) organizational psychology D) anthropology E) ecological perspective Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-01 Learning Objective: 18.2: Provide a historical perspective on the field of prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: A) clinical psychology. 2. Community psychology is necessary for prevention for all of the following reasons EXCEPT __________. A) No treatment will be 100% effective B) There are not enough trained professionals to treat all of those who need it C) Treatment services have not reduced rates of disease in the population D) For health in general, treatment services have not been effective in reducing rates of disease in a population E) Group therapy has been shown to be more effective than individual therapy Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-02 Learning Objective: 18.2: Provide a historical perspective on the field of prevention. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) Group therapy has been shown to be more effective than individual therapy. 3. All of the following distinguish community psychology from clinical psychology EXCEPT __________. A) community psychologists stress the interdependence of the individual, family, and community B) community psychology takes an ecological approach C) community psychologists focus on treating groups rather than individuals D) community psychologists encourage the use of social support groups E) community psychology focuses on prevention Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-03 Learning Objective: 18.2: Provide a historical perspective on the field of prevention. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) community psychologists focus on treating groups rather than individuals.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. Well-being tends to be the focus of mental health __________. A) primary prevention B) intervention C) prevention D) tertiary prevention E) promotion Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-04 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Factual Answer: E) promotion. 5. Primary prevention programs seek to __________, secondary prevention programs aim to __________ and tertiary programs aim to __________. A) eliminate disorders; reduce the associated harms; limit the duration of disorders B) reduce incidence of disorder; limit duration of a disorder; reduce disability resulting from an established disorder C) limit exposure to disorder; block the mechanism of a disorder; limit the severity of a disorder that has occurred D) prevent entry of a pathogen into the country; limit population exposure; limit the transmission of a disorder E) reduce incidence; limit severity; limit duration Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 18-1-05 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Application Answer: B) reduce incidence of disorder; limit duration of a disorder; reduce disability resulting from an established disorder 6. Prevention programs that target participants on the basis of known risk factors for certain mental health problems (which can be "internal" or external to the participant) are called __________. A) secondary or indicated prevention programs B) selective prevention programs C) mental health promotion programs D) early intervention programs E) universal programs Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 18-1-06 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Application Answer: B) selective prevention programs.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 7. Ines’ high school is involved in a special program designed to encourage the students to practice safe sex so as to reduce the likelihood of pregnancy and STIs. This program is an example of __________. A) a high-risk prevention program B) a universal prevention program C) a psychological secondary prevention program D) a biological primary prevention program E) an indicated high-risk program Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-07 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Application Answer: B) a universal prevention program. 8. All of the following are considered central mechanisms that can help people cope with adversity EXCEPT __________. A) promoting aerobic exercise as a means of dealing with stress B) creating opportunities for personal growth C) enhancing self-esteem and self-efficacy D) reducing the impact of risks E) helping individuals deal with stressful life events Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-08 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: A) promoting aerobic exercise as a means of dealing with stress. 9. The four key characteristics of mental health promotion, identified by Cowen (1996) are: __________. A) proactive; population-focused; multi-dimensional; and ongoing B) reactive; targeted; multi-dimensional; and ongoing C) proactive; targeted; focused; and ongoing D) reactive; population focused; focused; and ongoing E) proactive; population-focus; bi-dimensional; and appropriately timed Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-09 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) proactive; population-focused; multi-dimensional; and ongoing 10. The Canadian Institute for Health Information recommends an ecological approach to mental health promotion, encouraging government to __________. A) address a broad range of risk factors B) circumvent the most well-established risk factors C) implement strategies at individual, community, and societal levels D) implement strategies at the ecological level of analysis E) treat mental health promotion as a non-reducible ecological system 18-3 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-10 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Factual Answer: C) implement strategies at individual, community, and societal levels. 11. The public health approach is characterized by all of the following steps EXCEPT _________. A) identifying the disease and developing a reliable method of diagnosis B) developing prevention programs C) researchers tend to focus on the person, the environment, and the agent D) encouraging effective coping strategies E) developing a theory of the course of development taken by the disease Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-11 Learning Objective: 18.2: Provide a historical perspective on the field of prevention. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) encouraging effective coping strategies. 12. Reducing stressors while preparing individuals to better cope with stressors is the focus of __________. A) clinical prevention B) health psychology C) public health promotion D) community intervention E) tertiary prevention Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-12 Learning Objective: 18.2: Provide a historical perspective on the field of prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: C) public health promotion. 13. The local high school has a program that attempts to provide teens with strategies to cope with peer pressures to drink and use drugs. This approach would be characteristic of __________. A) campaigning B) public health approach C) drug education D) secondary prevention E) tertiary prevention Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-13 Learning Objective: 18.2: Provide a historical perspective on the field of prevention. Skill: Application Answer: B) public health approach.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 14. In developing a disease prevention program, researchers working from a Public Health approach tend to focus on three components of the disease: characteristics of the __________, characteristics of the __________ and finally, the __________, or manner by which the disease is transmitted. A) host; environment; agent B) germ; environment; agent C) pathogen; environment; agent D) host; mechanism; acquisition process E) germ; environment; pathogenesis Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-14 Learning Objective: 18.2: Provide a historical perspective on the field of prevention. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: A) host; environment; agent 15. What is resilience? A) the process by which parents and the community enhance "grit" in children. B) flexibility in one's approach to solving problems. C) the process of persisting at difficult tasks until they are done. D) the process of protecting oneself from risk factors. E) the process of positive adaptation to significant adversity through the interaction of risk and protective factors. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-15 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: E) the process of positive adaptation to significant adversity through the interaction of risk and protective factors. 16. Which of the following is a personal characteristic that has often been associated with personal resilience? A) a rational way of thinking. B) an internal locus of control. C) agreeableness. D) introversion. E) extraversion. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-16 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: B) an internal locus of control.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 17. Which of the following statements is true? A) At this point, we know what specific risk factors are linked to specific disorders. B) At this point, we know what specific protective factors reduce specific disorders. C) At this point, we still know extremely little about risk and protective factors for psychopathology. D) At this point, it is difficult to connect specific risk factors and protective factors with specific forms of abnormal behaviour. E) At this point, we know much more about resilience factors than we do about protective factors. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-17 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: D) At this point, it is difficult to connect specific risk factors and protective factors with specific forms of abnormal behaviour. 18. The more general risk factors for poor mental health that an individual has, the more ________ an individual is to disorder. A) handicapped B) resilient C) affected D) protected E) vulnerable Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-18 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: E) vulnerable 19. Which of the following is NOT a protective factor for mental health? A) positive role models B) aspirations and planning for the future C) parental monitoring D) attractiveness to peers and adults E) education at a private school Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-19 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: E) education at a private school 20. According to the ecological perspective, mental health problems can be viewed as having __________. A) singular etiologies B) multiple levels of analysis C) a concern with treating the individual D) impetus from the disease model E) an environmental explanation

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-20 Learning Objective: 18.2: Provide a historical perspective on the field of prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: B) multiple levels of analysis. 21. The family and social network is a part of __________. A) the exosystem B) the microsystem C) the individual D) the macrosystem E) the culture Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-21 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: B) the microsystem. 22. Rowan and their parents live in a high-risk neighborhood. Rowan's parents do not allow them to hang out on the streets, they must complete their homework and be in by their curfew. Placing limits on Rowan's behaviour is an example of __________. A) prevention B) altering exposure to risk C) an authoritarian parenting style D) a secure attachment E) parental involvement Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-22 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Application Answer: B) altering exposure to risk. 23. A contextual approach to well-being must account for the roles of ________ and _________ variables. A) temporal; ecological. B) situational; ecological. C) situational; temporal D) home; academic. E) internal; external. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-23 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Application Answer: A) temporal; ecological.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 24. Which of the following is not a characteristic of mental health promotion? A) focuses on populations and not individuals B) it is ongoing and not time-limited C) it is proactive and promotes mental health before problems occur D) it emphasizes early recognition of mental health problems E) it is multi-dimensional Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-24 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) it emphasizes early recognition of mental health problems 25. Tyrone was born with PKU, and was immediately placed on a special diet to prevent intellectual disability. This is an example of __________. A) biological primary prevention B) biological tertiary prevention C) disease prevention D) reactive treatment E) biological secondary prevention Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-25 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Application Answer: E) biological secondary prevention. 26. Which statement best describes the results of the Perry Preschool Project? A) Children at high-risk were better able to complete their academic careers. B) This program is more beneficial to cisgender girls than to cisgender boys. C) Although there were long -term benefits of this program, there were no immediate benefits. D) The short-term effects on academic performance disappeared by the time the children were in grades 3 and 4. E) The long-term benefits of participation in the program are unknown. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-26 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: D) The short-term effects on academic performance disappeared by the time the children were in grades 3 and 4. 27. The main focus of the Prenatal Early Infancy Project was to __________. A) assist the mothers in having regular medical check-ups B) study children from before birth until late adolescence C) ensure that the mothers maintained optimal health D) prevent child abuse and neglect E) ensure that the mothers did not consume drugs or alcohol during pregnancy

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-27 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: D) prevent child abuse and neglect. 28. Olds' Prenatal Early Infancy Project was __________. A) a support group implemented by pregnant women who were at risk for poor outcomes B) a universal prevention program designed to assist single women who were pregnant for the first time C) a prevention program designed for pregnant women with alcohol use disorder D) a home-visitation project designed to improve maternal and child functioning E) a hospital-based health program designed to increase maternal well-being and health Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-28 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: D) a home-visitation project designed to improve maternal and child functioning. 29. In the Prenatal Early Infancy Project, all of the following outcomes were observed, EXCEPT __________. A) improvement in the quality of their diets B) fewer kidney infections C) fewer preterm deliveries D) a slight increase in abusive behaviour toward their children E) participants experienced more informal support and made greater use of community services Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-29 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: D) a slight increase in abusive behaviour toward their children. 30. Which of the following was NOT one of the longer-term benefits of the Prenatal Early Infancy Project? A) Fourteen percent of the poor, unmarried teenage mothers in the control group abused their children, compared to 4% in the nurse-visited group. B) The children in the nurse-visited group showed better conceptual reasoning than did children in the control group. C) Nurse-visited women had lower rates of substance abuse. D) Nurse-visited women had higher rates of employment. E) The children in the nurse-visited group were less likely to visit a physician for injuries or ingestions. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 18-1-30 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: B) The children in the nurse-visited group showed better conceptual reasoning than did children in the control group. 31. Better Beginnings, Better Futures differs from most prevention projects in that __________. A) it was designed to address child, family, and community development B) a home-visiting component is included C) funding was provided by the community members themselves D) community psychologists are responsible for most decisions E) it focused only on families falling below the poverty line Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-31 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: A) it was designed to address child, family, and community development. 32. Researchers have found that the most positive and long-lasting impacts of prevention programs occur when __________. A) the programs are long and intensive B) the programs include free access to psychotherapy C) the programs are brief and simple D) the programs have a follow-up five to ten years later E) the programs last for one to two years Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-32 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: A) the programs are long and intensive. 33. Prevention programs have been used to deal with all of the following problems EXCEPT __________. A) bullying B) adult illiteracy C) criminal behaviour and conduct disorder D) depression E) anxiety problems Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-33 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: B) adult illiteracy. 34. What is true regarding the reaction of Canadian provinces to calls for prevention? A) Funding for prevention programs appears to be greatest in the Western provinces. B) There has been an increase in funding to prevention projects. C) Various programs are proposed, yet funding is not provided for prevention. D) Prevention programs are wholeheartedly supported. E) Funding for prevention programs appears to be lagging in the Atlantic provinces. 18-10 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-34 Learning Objective: 18.6: Understand Canadian policy on prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) Various programs are proposed, yet funding is not provided for prevention. 35. In a recent review of Canadian programs, Waddell et al. (2007) found that only __________ has demonstrated positive mental health outcomes for children. A) the Community Action Program for Children (CAPC) B) the Better Beginnings project C) the Early Head Start project D) The Perry Preschool project E) the Prenatal Early Infancy project Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-35 Learning Objective: 18.6: Understand Canadian policy on prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) the Better Beginnings project 36. In Ontario, Ontario Early Years Centers have been developed as a result of a report entitled __________. A) The Kirby Report B) A New Perspective on the Health of Canadians C) Achieving Health for All D) Reversing the Real Brain Drain: Early Years Study – Final Report E) Mental Health for Canadians: Striking a Balance Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-36 Learning Objective: 18.6: Understand Canadian policy on prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Reversing the Real Brain Drain: Early Years Study – Final Report. 37. Which of the following is true of Canada? A) Canada is ahead of many Western European countries in social policies that support families. B) Canada has dramatically reduced rates of child poverty. C) Canada's national mental health strategy focuses too little on prevention or promotion. D) Beginning in the late 1980s, the federal government increased transfer payments to the provinces. E) There are very few national and provincial early childhood education initiatives. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-37 Learning Objective: 18.6: Understand Canadian policy on prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Canada's national mental health strategy focuses too little on prevention or promotion.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 38. Return on investment studies have computed economic returns for a variety of early intervention programs with families and children at risk. These studies have generated estimates ranging from __________ to _________ return on every dollar invested. A) $0.25; $1.75 B) $0.75; $3.50 C) $1.00; $12.00 D) $1.50; $17.00 E) $2.50; $29.00 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-38 Learning Objective: 18.6: Understand Canadian policy on prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Factual Answer: D) $1.50; $17.00 39. Outcome failures of a prevention program might be due to poor implementation. On the basis of the Durlak & DuPre (2008) research, the chapter concludes that ______________ and are related ______________ to positive outcomes. A) fidelity; dosage or intensity B) dosage; intensity C) positivity; dosage or intensity D) fidelity with appropriate adaptation; positivity E) fidelity with appropriate adaptation; dosage or intensity Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-39 Learning Objective: 18.7: Note some of the key issues in program implementation and dissemination. Skill: Factual Answer: E) fidelity with appropriate adaptation; dosage or intensity 40. The future focus of prevention/promotion programs should be __________. A) documenting outcomes B) successful implementation C) children and youth D) developing more effective programs E) determining which groups most need help Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-40 Learning Objective: 18.7: Note some of the key issues in program implementation and dissemination. Skill: Factual Answer: B) successful implementation. 41. Joffe and Albee (1981) refer to __________ as the "causes of the causes" of social and psychological problems. A) poor parenting B) societal sources of injustice C) dictatorships D) social media E) individualistic societies

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 18-1-41 Learning Objective: 18.3: Describe the implications of social justice perspectives, including equity, antiracism, and decolonization, for mental health promotion and prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: B) societal sources of injustice 42. In a review of 526 prevention studies, Durlak and colleagues (2007) found that _________ of the studies attempted to change community conditions. A) 5 percent B) 25 percent C) 67 percent D) 74 percent E) None Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-42 Learning Objective: 18.3: Describe the implications of social justice perspectives, including equity, antiracism, and decolonization, for mental health promotion and prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: E) None 43. ___________ refers to the degree of compatibility between the cultural and linguistic characteristics of a community and manner in which the combined policies, structures, and processes underlying local services seek to make these services available, accessible, and utilized. A) Cultural awareness B) Cultural humility C) Social equity D) Cultural competence E) Social justice Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-43 Learning Objective: 18.3: Describe the implications of social justice perspectives, including equity, antiracism, and decolonization, for mental health promotion and prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: D) Cultural competence 44. ___________ refers to a state of fairness or impartiality whereas ________ promotes the same treatment for all. A) Equality; equity B) Equivalence; equality C) Equity; equality D) Equity; equivalence E) Equivalence; evenness Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-43 Learning Objective: 18.3: Describe the implications of social justice perspectives, including equity, antiracism, and decolonization, for mental health promotion and prevention. Skill: Conceptual

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Answer: C) Equity; equality 45. Which of the following is not a social determinant of health? A) education B) socio-economic status C) behaviour D) social support E) physical environment Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-1-45 Learning Objective: 18.3: Describe the implications of social justice perspectives, including equity, antiracism, and decolonization, for mental health promotion and prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: C) behaviour 46. Which of the following is an example of a community-level strategy to promote mental health? A) social policies to address social determinants of health B) assertiveness training programs C) workplace empowerment programs D) interpersonal skills training programs E) problem-solving skills training Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-46 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Application Answer: C) workplace empowerment programs 47. All of the following are examples of microsystem risk factors for mental health EXCEPT __________. A) scholastic demoralization B) mental illness in the family C) family dysfunction D) delinquency E) delinquent peers Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-1-47 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: D) delinquency

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

Chapter 18 - True/False Questions 1. A community psychologist would be responsible for diagnosing and treating those of lower socioeconomic status. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-2-48 Learning Objective: 18.2: Provide a historical perspective on the field of prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 2. Community psychology emphasizes the ecological perspective and the interdependence of the individual, the family, the community, and society. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-2-49 Learning Objective: 18.2: Provide a historical perspective on the field of prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 3. Indicated prevention programs are functionally very similar to early intervention programs. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-2-50 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 4. Primary prevention focuses on reducing mental health problems and enhancing functioning. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-2-51 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 5. Specific risk factors are responsible for certain types of mental health problems, and if we intervene early enough, we could prevent specific problems in groups of people. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-2-52 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 6. The ecological perspective focuses on the individual, his or her family and social network, schools and workplaces, and social norms and policies. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-2-53 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 7. From the view of mental health promotion, mental health is the absence of mental disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-2-54 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Conceptual Answer: b. False 8. The only way to reduce the impact of a risk factor is to remove that risk factor from the individual's environment. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-2-55 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 9. High risk programs always attempt to involve communities that are at risk for particular reasons (i.e., low SES, crime-infested, etc.). a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-2-56 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 10. The Perry Preschool Program and the Prenatal Early Infancy project are examples of high-risk programs because they focus on individuals who are already at a disadvantage for having problems (due to low SES, unemployment, etc.). a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-2-57 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 11. The Better Beginnings, Better Futures project could be considered universal, since it was offered to all children and their families in a given age range. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-2-58 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 12. The Canadian government has been extremely supportive of prevention efforts, and funding for prevention programs is becoming increasingly available. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-2-59 Learning Objective: 18.6: Understand Canadian policy on prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 13. Recently, some provinces have begun prevention initiatives. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-2-60 Learning Objective: 18.6: Understand Canadian policy on prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True 14. Generally, early childhood intervention programs have not been found to have a high return on investment (ROI). a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-2-61 Learning Objective: 18.6: Understand Canadian policy on prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 15. Although there has been a call for a social justice approach to prevention, to date, there haven't been any clear, concrete programs that model this approach. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-2-62 Learning Objective: 18.3: Describe the implications of social justice perspectives, including equity, antiracism, and decolonization, for mental health promotion and prevention. Skill: Conceptual Answer: a. True

Chapter 18 - Essay Questions 1. Distinguish community psychology from clinical psychology. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-3-63 Learning Objective: 18.2: Provide a historical perspective on the field of prevention. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Community psychology: - emphasis on prevention - ecological perspective - interventions should address multiple levels - attention to people's strengths and the promotion of wellness - importance of social support - orientation to social justice and social change - community psychologist acts as a consultant or planner, and collaborates with community groups to implement and evaluate interventions

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Clinical psychology: - focus on treatment - focus on the individual - focus on deficits and on reducing maladaptive behaviour - clinical psychologists act as experts in diagnosis and treatment - importance of reliance on professional help 2. Define the three types of prevention Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-3-64 Learning Objective: 18.1: Define and distinguish the major types of prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Primary prevention: involves intervention that reduces the incidence of disorder (is practiced prior to the presence of the disorder). Secondary prevention: reduces the duration of the disorder (before the disorder has caused suffering or disability). Tertiary prevention (treatment): practised after suffering or disability from the disorder has been experienced, with the goal of preventing further disorder (reduces disability). 3. List five general risk factors for poor mental health and identify some general protective factors. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-3-65 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Application Answer: Examples of general risk factors: anxiety, social incompetence, attentional deficits, learning disabilities, perinatal complications, peer rejection, hostile parenting (see textbook for more examples). Examples of protective factors: high self-esteem, aspirations for the future, high IQ, problem-solving abilities, easy temperament, prosocial behaviour, positive peer relations (see textbook for more examples). 4. What exactly is "resilience?" What other psychological construct overlaps with resilience? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-3-66 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: Many people function well, and even thrive even though they have been exposed to adverse life circumstances. This is called resilience, which is defined in the book as "the process of positive adaptation to significant adversity through the interaction of risk and protective factors." Resilience is considered a dynamic construct that extends well beyond fixed characteristics (e.g., temperament of a person). It recognizes interaction and transaction between the person and their environment. The resilience construct also recognizes that people make meaning of their circumstances/experiences, which can either heighten the risk or offer protection. Internal locus of control is a closely-related construct.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 5. What is "cumulative risk?" What are the inadequacies in the current understanding of cumulative risk? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-3-67 Learning Objective: 18.4: Explain and give examples of how the concepts of risk, resilience, and protection are important for prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: It is accepted that the effects of risk are cumulative, meaning that the more of these risk factors are present, the more vulnerable or susceptible a person is to negative outcomes. Three or more risk factors appears to be the threshold at which the likelihood of negative outcomes increases significantly. When exposure to multiple risk factors happens early in life, the effects extend into adulthood. There have been some critiques of the cumulative risk model. For one, there seems to be an underlying assumption that each risk factor has equivalent effects on outcomes when in actuality, some risk factors confer much more heightened risk than do others. 6. Compare and contrast the high-risk approach vs. the universal approach to promotion/prevention programs. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-3-68 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: High-risk approach: is based on the assumption that there are known risk factors for certain mental health problems, and that it is most effective to target individuals most exposed to these risk factors. Universal approach: is designed to include all individuals in a particular geographical area (for example, a neighbourhood or city) or particular setting (a school or workplace). 7. Briefly describe Olds' Prenatal Early Infancy Project; focus on results. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-3-69 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual Answer: - a high-risk prevention project aimed at preventing child abuse and neglect. - 400 women with their first pregnancy were involved, 85% were considered high-risk (low income, unmarried, or teenaged) and were randomly assigned to the home-visit program or to a control group - Designed to improve: the outcomes of pregnancy, the quality of parenting, and the mother's life course development - Results: the nurse-visited women improved the quality of their diets, had fewer kidney infections, experienced more informal social support, and made greater use of community support systems than did the control group. - During the first two to four years after delivery, fewer of the poor, unmarried teen mothers in the nursevisited group abused or neglected their children, and fewer of their children were brought to the hospital for injuries or ingestions.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 8. Highlight the three major goals of the Better Beginnings, Better Futures project. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 18-3-70 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Prevention goal: to prevent serious social, emotional, behavioural, physical, and cognitive problems in young children Promotion goal: to promote the social, emotional, behavioural, physical, and cognitive development of these children Community development goal: to enhance the abilities of socioeconomically disadvantaged families and communities to provide for their children 9. What are the elements of the Better Beginnings Program? Is this a true example of an ecological approach to mental health promotion? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-3-71 Learning Objective: 18.5: Give examples of research on the high-risk and universal approaches to prevention. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: The Better Beginnings Program qualifies as MHP because it has mental health promotion (e.g., classroom enrichment) as well as preventative (e.g., parent training) components. Its aims are to prevent serious social, emotional, behavioural, physical, and cognitive problems in young children; to promote the (overall) development of children, and to enhance the ability of socio-economically disadvantaged families and communities to provide for their children. It is a truly ecological approach, with components at the family, school and community mesosystem levels. The cultural awareness components and the targeting of socio-economically disadvantaged families qualify as "societal" components as defined by the CIHI. This program is Universal in that all families in the neighborhood are invited to participate, but targeted in that economically disadvantaged neighbourhoods were chosen for implementation in the first place. 10. Briefly outline the prevention and promotion policy in Canada. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-3-72 Learning Objective: 18.6: Understand Canadian policy on prevention and mental health promotion. Skill: Factual Answer: Although Canada has been a leader in promoting the concept of prevention, little changed has occurred in Canadian healthcare systems. Although funding for programs is now being provided by the federal government, none of these programs, with the exception of the Better Beginnings project, has explicitly focused on the prevention of mental health problems and the promotion of mental health. Canada lags behind many Western European countries in its social policies aimed at helping families. The focus is still on treatment and rehabilitation rather than prevention or promotion. The same problem exists at the provincial level as well in that health funding has not been reallocated from treatment to prevention. There are some positive signs showing that prevention is beginning to take root in provincial health, education, and social services.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. Briefly outline future directions for prevention and promotion. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 18-3-73 Learning Objective: 18.7: Note some of the key issues in program implementation and dissemination. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: The planning, implementation, and dissemination of prevention programs need to receive more attention. Knowing more about how to implement and disseminate programs will lead to better integration with the plans of schools, communities, and workplaces. Another critical future direction for prevention is to focus more on changing the many social and psychological ills that have its roots in the macrosystem. 12. Prilleltensky (2005) shows that it is helpful to plot the timing of an MHP / prevention program (i.e., universal prevention vs. indicated prevention / early intervention for problems that have already started) against the ecological level of implementation (i.e., micro vs. macro levels), creating four quadrants. Describe these quadrants and identify examples of MHP interventions for each. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 18-3-74 Learning Objective: 18.7: Note some of the key issues in program implementation and dissemination. Skill: Conceptual Answer: The first quadrant corresponds to primary / universal prevention programs at the macro level. Examples include community development, affordable housing, tax breaks for low-income families with children, and high-quality schools. The second quadrant corresponds to primary / universal prevention at the individual, or micro level, with individuals being provided with opportunities for free or affordable vocational skills building, fitness, emotional literacy, resistance to peer pressure training etc. Many of these programs can be provided in community centers. The third quadrant corresponds to indicated interventions for problems that have already started – at the micro / individual level. Examples include crisis intervention programs, drug rehab programs, medications. The fourth quadrant is for indicated intervention at the macro level, and would include provision of food banks and shelters, support for charities, funding for the prison industrial complex. These macro interventions do result in individual benefits, but are not aimed directly at symptoms, but rather at more general health promoting factors that will help to limit the duration or severity of emergent problems.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e

CHAPTER 19 Mental Disorder and the Law Chapter 19 - Multiple Choice Questions 1. Under the law, mental disorders have the following features EXCEPT __________. A) internal B) volitional C) not a reflection of situational or contextual factors D) involuntary E) stable Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-01 Learning Objective: 19.1: Explain the law’s assumptions regarding human nature and how mental disorder challenges these assumptions. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) volitional. 2. Given a legal definition of mental disorder, __________ would not normally be considered a mental disorder. A) schizophrenia B) chronic major depressive disorder C) marijuana intoxication D) intellectual disability E) dementia Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-02 Learning Objective: 19.1: Explain the law’s assumptions regarding human nature and how mental disorder challenges these assumptions. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) marijuana intoxication 3. Canada's Charter of Rights and Freedoms is unique in what respect? A) it protects people with certain mental disorders, but not others B) it guarantees that people with mental disorders cannot be charged with a criminal offence C) it guarantees rights and freedoms to people who suffer from mental disorder D) it gives some freedoms to people with mental disorders but takes away some rights E) it allows for the discrimination of people with mental disorders under the law Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-03 Learning Objective: 19.2: Describe the basic structure of the Canadian legal system, including the primary sources of law in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: C) it guarantees rights and freedoms to people who suffer from mental disorder

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 4. In Canada, the issue of involuntary hospitalization is a matter of __________. A) common law B) constitutional law C) criminal law D) human rights law E) civil mental health law Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-04 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) civil mental health law. 5. Which of the following protections for persons with mental disorder is NOT provided by the Charter of Rights and Freedoms? A) infringement of rights cannot be arbitrary or excessive B) prohibits restriction of mobility rights C) prohibits discrimination that may stem from stereotypical attitudes D) prohibits assuming risk of violence on the basis of mental disorder status E) requires such persons be afforded equal protection under the law Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-05 Learning Objective: 19.2: Describe the basic structure of the Canadian legal system, including the primary sources of law in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: B) prohibits restriction of mobility rights 6. The decision as to whether a person is not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder is one aspect of __________. A) criminal law B) statutory law C) civil mental health law D) constitutional law E) common law Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-06 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: A) criminal law.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 7. Which source of law guarantees that people suffering from mental disorder are treated fairly and retain as many of their rights and freedoms as possible? A) common law B) statutory law C) constitutional law D) federal criminal law E) civil code of Canada (CCC) Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-07 Learning Objective: 19.2: Describe the basic structure of the Canadian legal system, including the primary sources of law in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: C) constitutional law 8. In comparison to the Criminal Code of Canada, the Youth Criminal Justice Act __________. A) has a more punitive philosophy although the punishments are less severe B) has a more rehabilitative philosophy C) is based on research findings that young offenders learn well from negative reinforcement D) is based on research findings that young offenders show behaviour changes in response to brief and intense punishment E) includes specific recommendations for behavioural interventions Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-08 Learning Objective: 19.2: Describe the basic structure of the Canadian legal system, including the primary sources of law in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: B) has a more rehabilitative philosophy. 9. Ken is a welder who lives in Toronto. Recently, he was diagnosed as being mentally ill. Which specific criterion must be examined to determine whether he should be involuntarily committed to a psychiatric hospital? A) whether or not he will benefit from treatment B) whether or not his mental illness is recognized by the DSM-5 C) whether or not his mental disorder will result in serious bodily harm to another person D) whether or not he needs treatment; demonstrated danger need not be present E) whether or not he will deteriorate mentally or physically if he is not held in hospital Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-1-09 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Application Answer: C) whether or not his mental disorder will result in serious bodily harm to another person

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 10. The ancient common law principle parens patriae is recognized in all provinces EXCEPT __________. A) Manitoba B) Ontario C) Quebec D) British Columbia E) Prince Edward Island Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-1-10 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Quebec. 11. According to epidemiological research, about __________ percent of Canadians will experience a serious mental disorder at some point in their lives. A) 30 B) 10 C) 20 D) 50 E) 75 Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-11 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: C) 20 12. Civil commitment can only occur under all of the following circumstances EXCEPT __________. A) a person is at risk of harming others B) a person has a mental disorder C) a person is unwilling or unable to consent to hospitalization D) a person is deemed in need of hospitalization by a family member E) a person is at risk of harming him/herself Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-12 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) a person is deemed in need of hospitalization by a family member. 13. Laws regarding involuntary hospitalization __________. A) explicitly intend to be mildly punitive, for motivation and treatment purposes B) attempt to reduce the punitive aspects as much as possible C) assume some degree of moral culpability for risks that are posed to the community D) cannot be punitive and assume no moral culpability for risks posed E) vary, with only some jurisdictions retaining the old English punitive aspects 19-4 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-1-13 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: D) cannot be punitive and assume no moral culpability for risks posed. 14. Involuntary hospitalization requires __________. A) risk of mental disorder; inability to recognize risk; disorder carries risk of harm B) presence of mental disorder; unwilling/unable to consent; risk of harm to self/other C) presence of mental disorder; resistant to treatment; risk of harm to self/other D) grave risk of mental disorder; unwilling or unable to consent; risk of deterioration E) risk of mental disorder; unable/unwilling to consent; risk of harm to self/other Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-14 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: B) presence of mental disorder; unwilling/unable to consent; risk of harm to self/other 15. People who are civilly committed to a psychiatric hospital __________. A) have specific rights prohibiting recommitment once release B) tend to have similar protection of their rights to those dealt with by criminal law. C) lose their rights just as those convicted of criminal offences do D) serve a specific sentence E) lose some, but not all, of their rights, unlike those convicted of criminal offences Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-1-15 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: C) lose their rights just as those convicted of criminal offences do. 16. The best interests principle holds that __________. A) a patient's best interests regarding treatment should be given partial weight in the decision-making process B) a temporary substitute decision-maker should choose the treatment that maximizes the chances of a good outcome for the patient, taking into account the risks and benefits of all available treatments C) a temporary substitute decision-maker should choose a treatment that is on the official list of empirically supported treatments D) a temporary substitute decision-maker should choose a treatment that is consistent with the religion and culture of the patient E) a temporary substitute decision-maker should choose a treatment in accordance with what the patient's family wants

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-16 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) a temporary substitute decision-maker should choose the treatment that maximizes the chances of a good outcome for the patient, taking into account the risks and benefits of all available treatments. 17. The capable wishes principle holds that __________. A) a patient's personal wishes regarding treatment should be given partial weight in the decision-making process B) a patient's personal wishes regarding treatment should be given the greatest weight in the decisionmaking process C) a patient's personal wishes regarding treatment should be given the greatest weight in the decisionmaking process, regardless of the consequences D) a patient's personal wishes regarding treatment should be given minimal weight in the decision-making process E) a treatment that maximizes the chances of a good outcome for the patient is chosen Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-17 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) a patient's personal wishes regarding treatment should be given the greatest weight in the decision-making process. 18. Temporary substitute decision makers (TSDMs) for persons committed and deemed incapable of making decisions about treatment are __________ A) Public Trustees appointed by the state. B) chosen by the family, by procedures that are specific to jurisdictions. C) appointed by the person when they are healthy. D) selected by methods specific to jurisdictions, but such persons are chosen by the individual, family, or are appointed by the state. E) are selected by methods specific to jurisdictions, but always comprise committees selected by court or tribunal. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-18 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: D) selected by methods specific to jurisdictions, but such persons are chosen by the individual, family, or are appointed by the state.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 19. Which of the following has NOT been identified as a potential limitation of compulsory treatment orders? A) They are still fundamentally coercive, even if they ensure that a patient in need will receive treatment that may be helpful. B) People may lose their residence or financial support if they fail to comply. C) They may interfere with the development of supportive and effective treatment relationships with healthcare providers. D) They may result in "net-widening." E) There is compelling evidence that these types of orders significantly improve clinical outcomes; however, they do not improve social functioning. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-1-19 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: E) There is compelling evidence that these types of orders significantly improve clinical outcomes; however, they do not improve social functioning. 20. Comparisons of voluntary and involuntary admissions have found that the primary diagnosis for most voluntary patients is a __________. A) anxiety disorder B) dissociative disorder C) depressive disorder D) personality disorder E) psychotic disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-20 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: C) depressive disorder. 21. Comparisons of voluntary and involuntary admissions have found that the primary diagnosis for most involuntary patients to be a __________. A) dissociative disorder B) personality disorder C) psychotic disorder D) depressive disorder E) anxiety disorder Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-21 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: C) psychotic disorder.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 22. In a study comparing patients who had applied for a review of their involuntary hospitalization and those who did not found that those who applied were __________. A) more likely to be older B) more likely to have a diagnosis of intellectual disability C) more likely to have fewer education and employment problems D) more likely to have a diagnosis of schizophrenic disorder E) more likely to be female Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-22 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: D) more likely to have a diagnosis of schizophrenic disorder. 23. Grant and colleagues (2000) reported that of 279 psychiatric patients in British Columbia who applied for review of their detention. __________. A) the average age was about 54 years B) 68 percent of the patients had a history of suicidal or other self-injurious behaviour prior to hospitalization C) almost all patients had prior arrests for violent offences (well above 3/4 of the sample) D) close to the entire sample was employed prior to admission E) 20 percent had a primary diagnosis of a psychotic disorder Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-1-23 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: B) 68 percent of the patients had a history of suicidal or other self-injurious behaviour prior to hospitalization. 24. A study by Higgenbottom et al. (1985) compared patients in British Columbia who were released after review to those who were not released. Which of the following was not one of the findings? A) Patients who were released appeared to have less serious mental disorder. B) Patients who were released spent less time in hospital. C) Patients who were released were perceived to be at lower risk of harm to self. D) Patients who were released were more likely to have been represented by legal counsel. E) Patients who were released tended to have more years of education and were therefore judged to have better chances at employment following release. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-1-24 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Patients who were released tended to have more years of education and were therefore judged to have better chances at employment following release.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 25. What is the primary difference between involuntary hospitalization and criminal commitment? A) involuntary hospitalization is shorter in duration than criminal commitment. B) involuntary hospitalization is intended to prevent/minimize future harm whereas criminal commitment is intended to be punitive. C) involuntary hospitalization of someone can be done by anyone whereas only law authorities can pursue criminal commitment. D) involuntary hospitalization is intended to be punitive whereas criminal commitment is intended to prevent/minimize future harm. E) involuntary hospitalization falls under constitutional law practices whereas criminal commitment falls under statutory law practices. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-1-25 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) involuntary hospitalization is intended to prevent/minimize future harm whereas criminal commitment is intended to be punitive. 26. Follow-up research examining the community adjustment of patients released from involuntary hospitalization found that __________ percent were readmitted within a year. A) 45 B) 60 C) 10 D) 25 E) 75 Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-1-26 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: A) 45 27. Identify the untrue statement. A) Most people who commit crimes are likely to have mental disorders. B) Higher prevalence rates of mental illness in inmates have been obtained when samples have consisted only of those inmates referred by jail staff for mental health evaluations. C) Most people with mental disorders are likely to commit crimes. D) The prevalence of mental illness among offenders has generally been found to be higher than for people in the general population. E) Specific rates of mental illness reported for jail inmates vary considerably among studies. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-1-27 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Most people with mental disorders are likely to commit crimes.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 28. The discretionary approach to violence risk assessment is __________, whereas the nondiscretionary approach is __________. A) actuarial; clinical B) flexible and idiographic; objective and consistent C) mechanistic; informal D) objective and consistent; intuitive and flexible E) algorithmic; heuristic Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-28 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) flexible and idiographic; objective and consistent 29. Historical factors in the HCR-20 include all of the following EXCEPT __________, A) previous violence B) early maladjustment C) relationship stability D) daily stress E) prior supervision failure Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-1-29 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: D) daily stress. 30. Clinical factors in the HCR-20 include all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) employment problems B) lack of insight C) violent ideation D) active symptoms of a major mental disorder E) violent intent Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-30 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: A) employment problems.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 31. The HCR-20 __________. A) is nondiscretionary with regard to institutional, but not community violence B) is a discretionary instrument, although it provides structured professional guidelines and codes risk factors that are based on empirical research C) is a nondiscretionary instrument because it provides a predictive score, though it does allow for clinical judgment with regard to some items D) is primarily used to develop treatment or management plans and has not fared well in studies of predictive validity E) has been replaced with discretionary instruments that have greater inter-rater reliability Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-31 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual, Conceptual Answer: B) is a discretionary instrument, although it provides structured professional guidelines and codes risk factors that are based on empirical research. 32. Section 16 of Canada's Criminal Code recognizes that mental disorder may negate the principle of __________. A) actus reus B) self-defence C) mens rea D) insanity E) good intention Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-32 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) mens rea. 33. What is actus reus? A) The demonstration that one has acted in good faith. B) The demonstration that one committed a crime with premeditation. C) The idea that people can be convicted of criminal offences only when they commit a prohibited act. D) The demonstration that one was mental ill at the time they committed a crime. E) The demonstration that one was not able to distinguish between right and wrong at the time they committed a crime. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-33 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) The idea that people can be convicted of criminal offences only when they commit a prohibited act.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 34. The M'Naghten standard resulted from the fact that __________. A) M'Naghten's crime was the result of his delusions B) M'Naghten accidentally committed murder C) M'Naghten tried unsuccessfully to argue that his crime was the result of his delusions D) M'Naghten knowingly committed murder E) M'Naghten's crime was not the results of his delusions Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-34 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: A) M'Naghten's crime was the result of his delusions. 35. Taron is charged with first-degree murder. Taron fully comprehends and remembers what they have done, yet shows no remorse and is unable to accept moral responsibility for their actions. Taron should __________. A) be given a normal trial B) be found not criminally responsible on account of a mental disorder (NCRMD) C) be declared unfit to stand trial D) be denied the capacity to participate in their legal procedure E) be automatically sent for psychiatric treatment in a hospital Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-35 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Application Answer: A) be given a normal trial. 36. The Hadfield case (R. v. Hadfield, 1800) __________. A) preceded the passing of the Criminal Lunatics Act B) led to the Unfit to Stand Trial (UST) Act C) marked the end of the "not guilty by reason of insanity" (NGRI) verdict D) defined a standard of insanity known as the M'Naghten standard E) led to a guilty verdict Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-1-36 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Application Answer: A) preceded the passing of the Criminal Lunatics Act. 37. Legal arguments concerning mental disorder tend to focus on __________. A) the suffering caused by the accused person B) whether the mental disorder causes a specific cognitive impairment C) the severity of the mental illness D) the Criminal Act E) whether the mental disorder is real or valid

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-37 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Conceptual Answer: B) whether the mental disorder causes a specific cognitive impairment. 38. Feng has assaulted a neighbor. Even though Feng understands the act itself, Feng is declared, according to the M'Naghten standard, to be insane. Which of the following would most effectively help us judge the accuracy of this claim? A) Feng is unable to give a detailed account of their actions at the time of the offense. B) Feng had been heavily intoxicated at the time of the offense. C) Feng had a long history of mental illness during their childhood. D) It has been determined that at the time of the offense, Feng was suffering from a defect of the mind. E) Feng is unable to understand that the act is wrong. Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-1-38 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: E) Feng is unable to understand that the act is wrong. 39. People who are unable to participate actively and effectively in their own defence due to mental disorder are __________. A) often referred to a substitute decision-maker who decides what the plea will be B) automatically declared guilty and sentenced C) referred to as unfit to stand trial D) referred to as not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder E) automatically declared not guilty and acquitted Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-39 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: C) referred to as unfit to stand trial. 40. In R. v. Chaulk (1990) the Court decided that __________. A) the word "wrong" should be interpreted to include morally wrong only if the accused does not suffer from a personality disorder B) the word "wrong" should be interpreted to include morally wrong C) the word "wrong" means wrong according to law and not morally wrong D) changes be made to Bill C-30 relating to who can raise the defence of insanity E) Bill C-30 was unconstitutional Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-1-40 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: C) the word "wrong" should be interpreted to include morally wrong. 19-13 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 41. To be considered fit to stand trial, a defendant must __________. A) must have moderate cognitive capacity B) must have limited cognitive capacity C) must have an IQ of at least 90 D) must have an IQ of at least 70 E) must have full cognitive capacity Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-1-41 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: B) must have limited cognitive capacity. 42. The concepts "fit to stand trial" and "not criminally responsible on account of a mental disorder (NCRMD)" __________. A) both require the examiner to determine the accused's present mental state B) are unrelated issues C) are distinct and call for different questions to be answered D) both require an examiner to determine the accused's mental state at the time of the offence E) mean the same thing Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-42 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: C) are distinct and call for different questions to be answered. 43. Which of the following is true? A) In determining whether an individual is fit to stand trial, a person need not understand the possible consequences of the proceedings. B) It has generally been easy to determine the degree of capacity required for fitness for an individual charged with an offence. C) In R v. Taylor (1992), the Court stipulated that, when communicating with counsel, the accused must have the ability to act in their own best interest. D) The party who raises the issue of an accused's fitness, does not have the burden of proving the issue of unfitness. E) In determining whether an individual is fit to stand trial, their ability to communicate with counsel must be evaluated. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-43 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: E) In determining whether an individual is fit to stand trial, their ability to communicate with counsel must be evaluated.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 44. The Fitness Interview Test (FIT-R) __________. A) identifies whether a person committed an act intentionally or not B) helps determine what mental disorder a person is suffering from, according to the law C) was of key use in the Owen Swain case D) is only used with the most violent offenders E) helps psychologists and psychiatrists assess whether an individual is fit to stand trial Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-1-44 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: E) helps psychologists and psychiatrists assess whether an individual is fit to stand trial. 45. Persons deemed unfit to stand trial are specifically, on account of mental disorder, unable to do each of the following EXCEPT __________. A) understand the nature of the proceedings B) clearly relate the important facts about their offence to a judge C) understand the possible consequences of the proceedings D) communicate with counsel E) understand the object of the proceedings Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-45 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: B) clearly relate the important facts about their offence to a judge. 46. Which of the following is true regarding NCRMD? A) Of those claiming to be NCRMD, most are found to be NCRMD. B) Of those claiming to be UST, most are found to be UST. C) Very few people charged with criminal offences claim to be NCRMD. D) A large number of people charged with criminal offences claim to be NCRMD. E) A large number of people charged with criminal offences claim to be UST. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-46 Learning Objective: 19.4: Define and differentiate the concepts of mental state at the time of the offence and mental state at the time of trial in Canadian criminal law. Skill: Factual Answer: C) Very few people charged with criminal offences claim to be NCRMD. 47. Which of the following is not mentioned in the textbook as something forensic psychologists do? A) Conduct custody evaluations. B) Train correctional officers. C) Investigate cases of discrimination. D) Provide expert evidence in court concerning the assessment of violence risk. E) Provide expert opinion on empirically supported treatments for mood and anxiety disorders.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-47 Learning Objective: 19.5: Define forensic psychology as an area of specialized practice and how it can be differentiated from the practice of psychology which leads professionals to become involved in the legal system as “accidental visitors.” Skill: Factual Answer: E) Provide expert opinion on empirically supported treatments for mood and anxiety disorders. 48. The four fundamental ethical principles for psychologists in Canada include all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) integrity in relationships B) respect for treatment providers' chosen therapeutic orientation C) responsible caring D) responsibility to society E) respect for the dignity of persons and people Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-48 Learning Objective: 19.6: Explain some of the general and special ethical problems faced by psychologists who become involved in legal proceedings. Skill: Factual Answer: B) respect for treatment providers' chosen therapeutic orientation. 49. The five general ethical principles stated in the code of ethics for psychologists include all of the following EXCEPT __________. A) principle of beneficence B) principle of autonomy C) principle of fidelity D) principle of science E) principle of nonmaleficence Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-49 Learning Objective: 19.6: Explain some of the general and special ethical problems faced by psychologists who become involved in legal proceedings. Skill: Factual Answer: D) principle of science. 50. Respect for self-determination is the principle of __________. A) beneficence B) justice C) nonmaleficence D) autonomy E) fidelity Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-1-50 Learning Objective: 19.6: Explain some of the general and special ethical problems faced by psychologists who become involved in legal proceedings. Skill: Factual Answer: D) autonomy.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 51. What is true regarding the four fundamental principles in the Code of Ethics? A) All four of the principles are considered equally important. B) Principle III is considered the most important of all four principles. C) The principles are ranked from most important to the next most important. D) It is up to the psychologist to determine which principles is important for him/her. E) The principles are ranked from least important to most important. Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-1-51 Learning Objective: 19.6: Explain some of the general and special ethical problems faced by psychologists who become involved in legal proceedings. Skill: Conceptual Answer: C) The principles are ranked from most important to the next most important. 52. Three important themes in the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychology are: __________. A) advocating effectively for one's client; establishing, maintaining, and practicing within one's area of competence; and obtaining knowledge of the law B) objectivity and neutrality; precision in diagnostic competence; and obtaining knowledge of the law C) objectivity and neutrality; precision in formulating clients' mental state; and obtaining knowledge of the law D) objectivity and neutrality; expanding the practice of forensic psychology; and building one's knowledge of the law E) objectivity and neutrality; establishing, maintaining, and practicing within one's area of competence; and obtaining knowledge of the law Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-52 Learning Objective: 19.6: Explain some of the general and special ethical problems faced by psychologists who become involved in legal proceedings. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) objectivity and neutrality; establishing, maintaining, and practicing within one's area of competence; obtaining knowledge of the law 53. Historically, which of the following professionals has not been qualified to determine whether a person meets the criteria for civil commitment into a psychiatric hospital? A) psychologist B) anaesthesiologist C) psychiatrist D) dermatologist E) general physician Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-1-53 Learning Objective: 19.7: Describe the current status of psychology in the legal system. Skill: Factual Answer: A) psychologist

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 54. Which of the following statements concerning the status of psychology in the legal system is true? A) psychologists can conduct court-ordered assessments of fitness to stand trial but not assessments of criminal responsibility. B) psychologists can conduct court-ordered assessments of criminal responsibility but not of fitness to stand trial. C) in some jurisdictions psychologists have the legal authority to involuntarily hospitalize people. D) medical practitioners play a more dominant role in many areas in which mental health input is needed. E) psychologists are rarely, if ever, asked to give evidence before courts as professionals. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-54 Learning Objective: 19.7: Describe the current status of psychology in the legal system. Skill: Factual Answer: D) medical practitioners play a more dominant role in many areas in which mental health input is needed. 55. The case of R. v. F. D. M. is important because __________. A) it raised doubts about the ability of psychologists to diagnose mental disorders B) it raised doubts about the ability of either psychologists or psychiatrists to diagnose mental disorders C) it raised doubts about the validity of the psychosis diagnosis D) it raised doubts about the ability of psychiatrists to diagnose mental disorders E) it raised doubts about the validity of the schizophrenia diagnoses Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-55 Learning Objective: 19.7: Describe the current status of psychology in the legal system. Skill: Factual Answer: A) it raised doubts about the ability of psychologists to diagnose mental disorders. 56. Exclusion of psychological testimony with the claim that psychologists are unable to diagnose mental disorders is contrary to __________. A) federal guidelines B) several provincial statutes governing the profession of psychologists C) the Canadian Code of Ethics D) Canadian labour law E) regulatory body guidelines for psychologists Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-56 Learning Objective: 19.7: Describe the current status of psychology in the legal system. Skill: Factual Answer: B) several provincial statutes governing the profession of psychologists. 57. ________ refers to impairment in behavioural control whereas _________ refers to impairment in reasoning. A) Psychological impairment; physical impairment B) Cognitive impairment; volitional impairment. C) Impulsivity; mania. D) Volitional impairment; cognitive impairment. E) Physical impairment; psychological impairment.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-57 Learning Objective: 19.1: Explain the law’s assumptions regarding human nature and how mental disorder challenges these assumptions. Skill: Conceptual Answer: D) Volitional impairment; cognitive impairment. 58. All of the following are ways in which jurisdictions may differ regarding involuntary admission EXCEPT __________. A) definition of mental disorder B) requires psychologist’s corroboration of mental status C) permits leave and/or CTO D) requires need for treatment E) definition of harm explicitly includes deterioration Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-58 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: B) requires psychologist’s corroboration of mental status 59. Quinn is not presently capable of making decisions about their own treatment; however, last year prior to their mental health crisis they had reported that they would never want to take medications for mental health reasons due to fears over the side effects. Quinn’s temporary substitute decision maker remembered this and advocated for psychological treatment over psychotropic medication. This is an example of abiding by __________. A) the best interests principle B) civil mental health law C) the capable wishes principle D) a compulsory treatment order E) The Charter of Rights and Freedoms Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-1-59 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Application Answer: C) the capable wishes principle. 60. Which of the following is not an example given in the text of forensic psychology work? A) assess and determine whether an accused criminal may be found NCRMD. B) conduct a custody evaluation to determine the most appropriate arrangements for children of divorcing parents. C) design a program to train correctional officers in identifying suicidal offenders. D) evaluate hiring practices of organizations for evidence of discrimination. E) provide expert testimony in court regarding violence risk in psychiatric patients.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-56 Learning Objective: 19.5: Define forensic psychology as an area of specialized practice and how it can be differentiated from the practice of psychology which leads professionals to become involved in the legal system as “accidental visitors.” Skill: Factual Answer: A) assess and determine whether an accused criminal may be found NCRMD. 61. Ethical codes __________ whereas professional standards __________. A) include expectations regarding how psychologists should practice and conduct themselves day-to-day; reflect the values of psychologists and guide how psychologists should respond to ethical dilemmas B) are subjective, informal and depend on the setting of the psychologist in question; are objective and regulated by the psychologist’s governing body C) are objective and regulated by the psychologist’s governing body; are subjective, informal and depend on the setting of the psychologist in question D) suggest how a psychologist should act; outline how a psychologist should not act E) reflect the values of psychologists and guide how psychologists should respond to ethical dilemmas; include expectations regarding how psychologists should practice and conduct themselves day-to-day Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-1-61 Learning Objective: 19.6: Explain some of the general and special ethical problems faced by psychologists who become involved in legal proceedings. Skill: Conceptual Answer: E) reflect the values of psychologists and guide how psychologists should respond to ethical dilemmas; include expectations regarding how psychologists should practice and conduct themselves day-to-day.

Chapter 19 - True/False Questions 1. The legal system relies upon psychologists to define the legal concept of mental disorder. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-2-62 Learning Objective: 19.2: Describe the basic structure of the Canadian legal system, including the primary sources of law in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 2. Mental health professionals are viewed as consultants to judges, juries and review boards. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-2-63 Learning Objective: 19.1: Explain the law’s assumptions regarding human nature and how mental disorder challenges these assumptions. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 19-20 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 3. The rights and freedoms of persons with mental disorders are protected under the statutory Law. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-2-64 Learning Objective: 19.2: Describe the basic structure of the Canadian legal system, including the primary sources of law in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 4. In common law, the King (or Queen) was not obligated to protect and provide care for those who were incapable of caring for themselves. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-2-65 Learning Objective: 19.2: Describe the basic structure of the Canadian legal system, including the primary sources of law in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 5. The rights and freedoms of individuals with a mental disorder are protected by The Charter of Rights and Freedoms. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-2-66 Learning Objective: 19.2: Describe the basic structure of the Canadian legal system, including the primary sources of law in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 6. With regard to involuntary hospitalization, all jurisdictions require that there be risk of harm to self or others; some jurisdictions allow risk of deterioration in health to satisfy the risk of harm criterion. a True b False Difficulty: 3 QuestionID: 19-2-67 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 7. The capable wishes principle does not grant any weight to a patient's personal wishes even if they were competent at the time that they were expressed. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-2-68 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 8. Although the standard of insanity known as the M'Naghten standard became the accepted rule in England, in the United States and Canada it could not be labelled as a true cognitive test of insanity. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-2-69 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 9. Legal arguments tend to focus on whether a person's mental disorder is valid according to the law. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-2-70 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 10. Conditional discharge and detention in hospital are the two disposition options available to individuals found "not criminally responsible of a mental disorder" (NCRMD). a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-2-71 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False 19-22 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 11. An individual who is assessed as unfit to stand trial due to a mental disorder does not understand the possible consequences of the proceedings. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-2-72 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 12. The Canadian Criminal Code allows for general practitioners to make judgments in a court of law regarding a defendant's sanity. a True b False Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-2-73 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: a. True 13. Psychiatrists, but not psychologists, are able to determine when a person has a mental disorder that satisfies the NCRMD criteria. a True b False Difficulty: 1 QuestionID: 19-2-74 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: b. False

Chapter 19 - Essay Questions 1. What are the important elements of the legal definition of mental disorder? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-3-75 Learning Objective: 19.2: Describe the basic structure of the Canadian legal system, including the primary sources of law in Canada. Skill: Factual Answer: Cognitive or volitional impairment; must be internal, stable, and involuntary.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 2. Although Canadian involuntary civil commitment criteria vary from province to province, similar elements do exist. List these and indicate how involuntary civil commitment in Canada differs from the conviction for a criminal offence. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-3-76 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: Although legislation differs across provinces, involuntary civil commitment criteria have many similar elements across the country. First, an individual must be found to be mentally ill. Second, usually there must be a risk of "harm" or "danger" to the mentally ill person or to others. This assessment of an individual's risk can be determined using a "strict definition of danger" (i.e., Yukon, Alberta, Northwest Territories, Manitoba, and Ontario). Here a person will likely be committed if their mental disorder likely will result in serious bodily harm to another person. Other provinces have a broader definition of danger. Here, for example individuals may be committed even without demonstrated danger if they need treatment, or if they will deteriorate mentally or physically if they are not held in hospital. Unlike criminal law (i.e., federally controlled), mental health acts are legislated by the provinces. People who are civilly committed lose their rights just as those convicted of criminal offences do. Civil commitment differs, however, in that its primary goal is to protect the individual patient. Involuntarily hospitalized patients tend to have less protection of their rights than do those dealt with by criminal law. Also, criminal acts are specifically defined whereas the terms relevant to civil commitment tend to be vague (e.g., "need for treatment"). Finally convicted felons face specific sentences, whereas civilly committed individuals face indeterminate sentences. 3. Discuss available research pertaining to the rate at which a person faces rehospitalization after being released by a review panel. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-3-77 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: Ledwidge et al. (1987) conducted a two-year follow-up study in British Columbia of patients released by review panels or by an attending physician. There was no significant difference between the two groups. Forty-five percent were re-admitted within one year, which is similar to rates reported by other researchers (e.g., Mortensen & Eaton, 1994). 4. Describe the evolution of the insanity defence. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-3-78 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: James Hadfield was charged with high treason in the attempted murder of King George III. He pleaded insanity and was acquitted. This case led to implementation of the "not guilty by reason of insanity" defence and the passing of the Criminal Lunatics Act of 1800 which stated that people acquitted by reason of insanity could be confined to a mental hospital for an indeterminate period. Daniel 19-24 Copyright © 2023 Pearson Canada Inc.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e M'Naghten's attempted murder of the Prime Minister of England, Sir Robert Peel also had an influence on the insanity defence. The M'Naghten standard, comprising three elements, became the rule in England, the United States and Canada. First, the accused must be suffering from a defect of the mind (i.e., a mental disorder); second, the accused must not have known the "nature or quality of the act he was doing," or third, the accused must not have known that "what he was doing was wrong". The current language of section 16 of the Criminal Code permits a finding of what is currently called "not criminally responsible on account of mental disorder (NCRMD), which dates back to the 1800s. The M'Naghten standard has also formed the basis for the insanity provisions of the criminal codes in most common law jurisdictions around the world, including the United States. 5. Why are certain individuals found unfit to stand trial? What means are available to make this assessment in Canada? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-3-79 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Conceptual Answer: An accused is presumed fit to stand trial unless the court is satisfied on a balance of probabilities that the accused is unfit. The law is specifically concerned that mentally ill people may not be "fit" or competent to participate in the criminal justice system. Without this capacity, an individual may lack the necessary competencies that are called into question during a trial (i.e., competence to understand their Charter cautions, competence to confess, fitness to stand trial, and competence to be sentenced). In order to have this assessed, an examiner will assess the accused's present mental condition and determine whether it interferes with his or her ability to perform the aforementioned legal tasks related to the trial process (outlined in section 2 of the Criminal Code). It has always been difficult to determine an accused's capacity for fitness. In 1992, the Criminal Code (Section 2) defined the standard to be applied: "Unfit to stand trial" means unable on account of a mental disorder to conduct a defence at any stage of the proceedings before a verdict is rendered or to instruct counsel to do so, and, in particular, unable on account of a mental disorder to: (a) understand the nature or object of the proceedings; (b) understand the possible consequences of the proceedings, or (c) communicate with counsel. For an accused to be found unfit, he or she must first have a mental disorder. This must hinder his or her ability to communicate with counsel. In R v. Taylor (1992) the Ontario Court of Appeal held that the relevant test is on of "limited cognitive capacity": the accused need only have the ability to recount the facts so that the lawyer can properly present the case. Roesch, Zapf, Webster, and Eaves (1998), have published the Fitness Interview Test (FIT) which aids mental health professionals in assessing whether an accused is fit to stand trial. 6. What are the two requirements for conviction of an offence in Canada? Use and define the legal terms. What are the two ways that mens rea can be affected by psychological concepts? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-3-80 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: Conviction requires both actus reus (commission of a prohibited act) and mens rea (bad intention). Mens rea can be negated in cases of self-defence, where it can be shown that the individual believed their attacker was trying to cause grievous bodily harm or trying to kill them. Mens rea can also be diminished or absent in cases where the individual has a mental disorder, or cognitive/volitional impairment.

Test Bank to accompany Perspectives in Psychopathology, 7e 7. What specific type of mental disorder can result in a person being acquitted, or NCRMD? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-3-81 Learning Objective: 19.3: Explain the common law principles of police powers and parens patriae and how they provide a rationale for Canadian civil mental health law with respect to involuntary hospitalization and treatment. Skill: Factual Answer: Under Section 16, it must be a mental disorder that rendered the person incapable of appreciating the nature and quality of the act or omission or knowing that it was wrong. 8. What are forensic psychologists? What roles do they play in the legal system? Give examples. Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-3-82 Learning Objective: 19.5: Define forensic psychology as an area of specialized practice and how it can be differentiated from the practice of psychology which leads professionals to become involved in the legal system as “accidental visitors.” Skill: Factual Answer: Forensic psychologists are specialists whose work is primarily intended to help proceedings in criminal or civil courts, or before quasi-judicial bodies (like a tribunal). It is a diverse field. Forensic psychologists specialize in a particular area (e.g., civil versus criminal issues). Some forensic psychologists are scientists, some are practitioners, and some are a combination of the two. Examples of their work include: custody evaluations, training of correctional officers, research on factors affecting courtroom testimony, evaluation of the hiring and promotion practices of organizations to determine whether discrimination is occurring; provision of expert opinion with respect to violence risk. 9. What is the status of psychologists in the legal system? Difficulty: 2 QuestionID: 19-3-83 Learning Objective: 19.7: Describe the current status of psychology in the legal system. Skill: Factual Answer: Although psychologists are often asked to provide evidence before the courts as professionals, the role of psychologists is quite limited by law, and physicians play a more dominant role, even in areas in which expertise in mental health/psychopathology is needed. For example, in Canada, psychologists do not have the legal authority to involuntarily hospitalize people; yet any qualified physician does, even a dermatologist. The status of psychologists was the same in criminal law, until recently. Here too, psychologists were excluded from assessments of criminal responsibility and fitness to stand trial. Now, if an attorney general of the province designates a psychologist as qualified, they can conduct these assessments, independently.

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