Leading & Managing Occupational Therapy Services 3rd Edition An Evidence-Based Approach TEST BANK

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Chapter 1: Leadership: The Art, Science, and Evidence

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. Research focused on identifying the most common traits of effective leaders (i.e., “born leaders”) continues to be a major emphasis of today’s research on leadership.

ANS: False

2. The additive effect of leadership theories is best demonstrated when considering using Charismatic Leadership Theory and Situational Leadership Theory in combination.

ANS: False

3. Leaders have very often been stereotyped as more masculine than feminine, regardless of the actual gender of the leaders.

ANS: True

4. It has been suggested that an underlying premise of Servant Leadership Theory is that servant leaders’ motivation to lead arises from an underlying attitude of equality among people and valuing the personal growth of the members.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice

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5. A theory of leadership that consists primarily of two sets of strategies—managing by exception and providing contingent rewards—is best called which of the following? a. b. c. d.

Transactional Leadership Theory Transformational Leadership Theory Path-Goal Theory of Leadership Situational Leadership Theory

ANS: a

6. Which of the following is most accurate according to Situational Leadership Theory? a. Leaders make the paths to rewards easier to travel by reducing roadblocks and helping subordinates choose behaviors that are most appropriate for the situation and the problems at hand. b. The leader promises rewards and benefits to subordinates for their fulfillments of agreements and their contributions to goal achievement. c. The most effective leadership style will depend on the readiness of the person being led (i.e., the follower). d. Leaders act as stewards and put the needs and interests of others above their own.

ANS: c

7. The behaviors of inspirational motivation, individualized consideration, intellectual stimulation, and idealized influence are most closely associated with which of the following theories of leadership? a. b. c. d.

Transactional Leadership Theory Transformational Leadership Theory Path-Goal Theory of Leadership Situational Leadership Theory

ANS: b

8. A theory of leadership that focuses on the mechanisms of changing the perceptions of the work itself, offering a positive future vision, and heightening individual and group self-efficacy is best called which of the following? a. Transformational Leadership Theory

b. Path-Goal Theory of Leadership c. Situational Leadership Theory d. Charismatic Leadership Theory ANS: d

9. Which of the following most accurately describes leaders as presented in Chapter 1? a. They maintain stability. b. They identify problems to be solved and the best way to achieve results. c. They create structural change by integrating the values, vision, and ethics of individuals into the culture of the community. d. They guide an organization in planning for future work obligations and organizing employees.

ANS: c

10. Which of the following most accurately describes the field of leadership research today? a. It focuses on leaders rather than followers, peers, supervisors, and work settings. b. It addresses the various models as dynamic, shared, relational, strategic, and global and as a complex social dynamic. c. It is primarily focused on leadership research with corporations and organizations in the United States. d. It is relatively stable, with few new models or theories introduced in the last two decades.

ANS: b

11. Which of the following are two theories described as strategic theories of leadership in Chapter 1? a. b. c. d.

Transformational Leadership Theory and Situational Leadership Theory Transactional Leadership Theory and Transformational Leadership Theory Situational Leadership Theory and Path-Goal Theory of Leadership Transactional Leadership Theory and Charismatic Leadership Theory

ANS: a

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12. A leadership theory that focuses on helping others first and acting as a steward and guide rather than a leader would most accurately be called which of the following? a. b. c. d.

Transformational Leadership Theory Situational Leadership Theory Path-Goal Theory of Leadership Servant Leadership Theory

ANS: d

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. One often-cited difference between leadership and management mentioned in this chapter is: a. Leaders are born, whereas managers are made. b. Leaders focus on strategic change, whereas managers focus on the “status quo.” c. Leadership has been researched in depth, whereas little research exists on management. d. Leadership skills are a distinct set of skills used at particular times, whereas management skills are broad skills used in almost every situation.

ANS: b

2. Which of the following would be most accurate in regard to current thinking about the relationships between human traits and leadership effectiveness? a. Human traits are predetermined at birth and there is little ability to change them as we develop. b. Trait Theory is a new development in leadership research; although there is limited empirical evidence, the research to date appears promising as an explanation for leader effectiveness. c. Traits may help us understand how a particular leader might be perceived, but there is little recent research to validate Trait Theory as effective in linking leaders with leadership outcomes. d. The connection between traits and leader outcomes has only been shown to have a strong correlation in strategies related to Transactional Leadership Theory.

ANS: c

3. Which of the following pairs includes two theories of leadership that could both be categorized as supervisory theories of leadership?

a. Path-Goal Theory of Leadership and Servant Leadership Theory b. Transactional Leadership Theory and Servant Leadership Theory c. Transformational Leadership Theory and Transactional Leadership Theory d. Path-Goal Theory of Leadership and Transactional Leadership Theory ANS: d

4. A theory of leadership that focuses on identifying the relationship between task characteristics and employee readiness and matching a supervisory response is best called: a. Servant Leadership Theory. b. Path-Goal Theory of Leadership. c. Transformational Leadership Theory. d. Situational Leadership Theory.

ANS: d

5. Two leadership theories that were developed separately but are recognized as most effective when they are combined are: a. Transactional Leadership Theory and Transformational Leadership Theory. b. Situational Leadership Theory and Servant Leadership Theory. c. Path-Goal Leadership and Servant Leadership Theory. d. Path-Goal Leadership Theory and Situational Leadership Theory.

ANS: a

6. In regard to the additive effect of transformational leadership and transactional leadership, which of the following is generally accepted as true? a. Transactional leadership and transformational leadership are not contradictory styles but instead are complementary and can be used together. b. The impact of transformational leadership on follower satisfaction is limited and only shown to occur when strategies are added to transactional leadership strategies. c. There is no additive effect, as transformational leadership and transactional leadership have been proven to be contradictory in nature. d. There is no relationship between transformational leadership and transactional leadership because one is a strategic approach and the other is a supervisory approach.

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ANS: a

7. When comparing Servant Leadership Theory and Transformational Leadership Theory, which of the following best describes the motivation of the leaders? a. Transformational leaders are concerned about work groups only and typically do not consider the development of the individual, whereas servant leaders focus only on the individual. b. Servant leaders tend to see all persons as equal and valued, whereas transformational leaders value individuals but more in relation to helping the organization succeed. c. Servant leaders and transformational leaders are both thought to have a strong orientation toward the individual rather than consideration of the organization’s success. d. Servant leaders and transformational leaders are both thought to have a strong orientation toward the success of the organization rather than toward the individual.

ANS: b

8. One accurate summary statement about what we know about the evidence on gender and leadership would be: a. Women are typically perceived as more effective leaders than men as long as they present themselves as stereotypically female. b. Men have consistently been shown to be more effective leaders than women. c. Men and women are perceived as more effective as leaders when the approaches they use match their presentation as more “masculine” or “feminine” as perceived by followers. d. Evidence on gender and leadership has established that there is essentially no difference in how male and female leaders are perceived.

ANS: c

Chapter 2: Engaging in Evidence-Based Management

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. One step in the evidence-based management process is to present the evidence to those who must take action upon it.

ANS: True

2. Typologies used to rate the level or quality of evidence apply only to quantitative research or evidence.

ANS: False

3. When evaluating the evidence to guide a clinical or managerial decision, it is common that the strength of all evidence that you find will be similar.

ANS: False

4. The National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy provides free access to ProQuest, a computerized search tool, to all practitioners who maintain NBCOT certification.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice

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5. In discussing evidence-based practice papers, reports and other documents that are not controlled by commercial publishers but that are a useful and valid form of evidence would best be referred to as: a. b. c. d.

Quasi-evidential literature.

Grey literature.

Public domain documents.

Critically appraised documents.

ANS: b

6. Which of the following is not an example of a responsibility stemming from an evidencebased approach to management? a. Staying up to date with the sources of information that may have an impact on the decisions you will make in practice b. Using good judgment about the information you have gathered by critically evaluating its quality c. Actively generating new evidence and sharing it through public forums d. Recognizing that translating evidence into everyday practice will not be easy and will also require the application of evidence-based strategies ANS: c

7. Which of the following is not a component of evidence assessment? a. b. c. d.

Origin of evidence Quality of evidence Level of evidence Overall strength of evidence

ANS: a

8. A critical appraisal matrix is best described as which of the following? a. A tool that guides a practitioner in appraising the appropriateness of recommendations to be made to clients based on evidence found during a search b. A tool that helps to critically evaluate a practitioner’s or manger’s competency to implement a set of evidence-based recommendations

c. A tool that is used to record the effectiveness of evidence-based actions in order to organize data for future additional decisions d. A tool used to record the key characteristics, findings, strengths, and limitations of the materials in a compact and manageable format ANS: d

9. Which of the following is not one of the six steps of the evidence-based management process? a. Characterize the evidence as quantitative or qualitative, and research or nonresearch design. b. Assess the evidence for accuracy, comprehensiveness, applicability, and actionability. c. Present the evidence to those who must act on it. d. Frame a question related to a decision that has to be made.

ANS: a

10. Which of the following most accurately defines judgment? a. The ability to distinguish between a research design characterized as experimental versus a design characterized as nonexperimental b. The responsibility to recognize that not all data, information, and evidence are created equal c. The qualities associated with making good decisions when carrying out the steps of a formal literature search in PubMed or PsychInfo d. The skills used to determine if a formal evidence-based question must be identified in order to rely on information found in conducting a literature search ANS: b

11. Which of the following most accurately describes the current state of typologies for determining the levels of evidence you are appraising? a. There are many typologies, and most are related to appraisal of qualitative research and information found on websites. b. There are very few typologies, and those that do exist are related almost exclusively to scientifically designed research studies. c. There are many typologies, and most are related to the appraisal of quantitative research.

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d. There are very few typologies, and those that do exist seek to address the broad range of evidence, including quantitative and qualitative research and scientific and nonscientific designs.

ANS: c

12. Which of the following is most accurate in regard to managers accessing search databases and tools? a. There are not any free bibliographic databases, and managers must convince their organizations to pay for access. b. There are several free bibliographic databases, including some that are free with membership in the American Occupational Therapy Association or certification by the National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy. c. There are many free bibliographic databases, but they are accessible only to persons with university IDs, so you should partner with an academic program. d. All bibliographic databases are free due to freedom-of-information laws.

ANS: b

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Which of the following have contributed to the proliferation of evidence-based practice and evidence-based management? a. The development of processes, practices, and specific tools to enable healthcare professionals to find, evaluate, and use evidence to inform their clinical decisions. b. A dramatic increase in the access to evidence over the past several decades because of the Internet and open-access publishing. c. Higher expectations for the training and skills of occupational therapy practitioners. d. All of the above.

ANS: d

2. Which of the following best describes the approach you should take to finding and evaluating evidence related to management questions? a. Only use evidence obtained through searches on well-established and recognized search tools such as PubMed. b. Search using multiple sources and strategies, considering all forms of evidence, but

carefully evaluate the quality and strength of the evidence that you use. c. Limit your search and use of data to the field or discipline (e.g., occupational therapy) to exclude evidence from other fields or disciplines that may not be directly related to your question. d. Limit your search to only consider evidence developed through the strongest experimental methods such as randomized controlled designs.

ANS: b

3. In assessing the evidence you are considering, which of the following would be least likely to affect your decision? a. Country of origin of the evidence. b. Strength of the evidence. c. Quality of the evidence. d. Level of the evidence.

ANS: a

4. Which of the following is the best description of grey literature? a. Papers, reports, and other documents from private industry that often may be biased because of private funding. b. Papers, reports, and other documents referred to as grey because of the weak evaluation of their accuracy and usefulness. c. Papers, reports, and other documents controlled by commercial publishers that have passed the highest levels of review and academic scrutiny. d. Papers, reports, and other documents from government, the academy, business, and industry that are not controlled by commercial publishers but are a valid form of evidence.

ANS: d

5. All of the following were identified as challenges to using an evidence-based approach to management by occupational therapy managers except: a. Access to electronic journals and scientific forms of evidence. b. Time to find and carefully assess the evidence. c. Little evidence exists on management-related questions. d. The amount of evidence available can be overwhelming.

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ANS: c

6. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the typologies you might select to evaluate evidence related to management questions? a. Because using an evidence-based approach to occupational therapy management is so new, no appropriate typologies for evaluating related evidence have been identified. b. Although there are variations in the approaches used by different scholars and sources, most use similar approaches in assigning a level to the evidence that is being examined. c. There is wide variation in the approaches used in various typologies for evaluating evidence and they have little in common. d. There is a single universal typology for evaluating all forms of evidence that has been identified for use with the occupational therapy management literature.

ANS: b

7. Which of the following is most accurate regarding involvement of key stakeholders in the EBP process? a. You may present an evidence brief or summary to key stakeholders to discuss the evidence, pros and cons of different options, what is feasible in your setting, and what barriers might exist to implementation. b. It is best not to discuss evidence with key stakeholders because many have not been exposed to or properly trained in EBP approaches. c. Key stakeholders should only be involved in identifying the questions to be answered through an EBP process. d. Key stakeholders may be a useful source of data, information, and other forms of evidence but you must be extremely careful of the bias this introduces to answering evidence-based management questions.

ANS: a

8. Which of the following is the best strategy for occupational therapy managers who do not have easy access to electronic bibliographic databases to find evidence? a. Return to graduate school for an advanced degree in order to access relevant databases. b. Access free databases such as PubMed or OTSeeker. c. Rely on articles and evidence found on the Internet through Internet search engines. d. Rely only on data and other forms of evidence published in the public domain by

commercial publishers.

ANS: b

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Chapter 3: Understanding Healthcare Systems and Practice Contexts

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. The United States is the only industrialized country that does not have health care funded by or provided by the government to all of its citizens.

ANS: True

2. Working with other local therapy providers to compare and set prices is a recommended strategy for private business owners and private practitioners.

ANS: False

3. Jimmo v. Sebelius is a landmark legal case that established Medicare coverage for services that are medically necessary but may not result in an improvement in the function of the beneficiary.

ANS: True

4. The “triple aim” of health care refers to efforts to improve population health, improve health care, and reduce costs.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice

5. The type of economic system found in the United States, in which there is both individual ownership and individual freedom but also a significant component of the economy is controlled by the government, is best called which of the following? a. b. c. d.

A free market economy A mixed economy A competitive economy A dualistic economy

ANS: b

6. Dualism is best defined as: a. A term that reflects the fact that most insurances require a copayment or coinsurance to cover part of the payment. b. A term that reflects the offering of Medicare and Medicaid in combination to some patients with disabilities. c. A term that reflects the use of Medicare B as a secondary insurance for some forms of inpatient payment. d. A term that reflects the involvement of both government and private industry in the healthcare system.

ANS: d

7. Which of the following is not a principle of a free-market economy? a. b. c. d.

Supply and demand Competition Resource allocation Free choice

ANS: c

8. Which of the following is a set of healthcare service categories that must be covered by certain insurance plans in the individual and group markets as a result of the ACA? a. b. c. d.

Essential health benefits Essential coverage elements Essential health components Essential medical standards

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ANS: a

9. Which of the following is most accurate regarding health care provided by countries that provide universal health care for every citizen? a. Limits are often placed on who qualifies for various types of care and how long they must wait to receive it. b. There is typically no waiting time to see specialists or receive specialist care once approved by the primary care physician. c. Care beyond basic primary care or emergency care is not available to most citizens. d. Primary care and urgent care are provided immediately but at the expense of specialty care, which is almost never available.

ANS: a

10. Which of the following is a federal health program that pays for health care for people over 65 years of age and some individuals with long-term disabilities? a. b. c. d.

Medicaid Primary care Medicare HMOs/PPOs

ANS: c

11. Which of the following most accurately describes SCHIP? a. A federal program that provides scholarships and educational relief for health practitioners who commit to working in underserved rural and urban areas for at least 3 years after graduation b. A state program that provides school-based interventions and programming for children with severe developmental delays who cannot participate in services provided under the IDEA c. A state program that provides educational scholarships for innovations in programs that provide services to children from low-income families d. A federal program that gave each state permission to offer health insurance for children who are not already insured to address the growing problem of children without health insurance

ANS: d

12. Essential health benefits (EHBs) could most accurately be described as: a. Health benefits that have been identified as most critical to achieving the World Health Organization’s Goals for Health 2025. b. Health benefits identified by the American Occupational Therapy Association and the World Federation of Occupational Therapists as most essential to occupational performance. c. A set of health benefits identified as most critical to support the healthy development of children. d. A set of healthcare service categories that, beginning in 2014, must be covered by certain plans under the Affordable Care Act (ACA).

ANS: d

Study Questions Provided to Students 1.

Which of the following statements best describes the free-market system as it applies to our healthcare system? a. All principles of the free-market system apply to health care in the same way as they apply to all other products. b. All principles of the free-market system apply to health care in the same way as they apply to all other products except competition, because competition is limited. c. All principles of the free-market system apply to health care in the same way as they apply to all other products except supply and demand, because supply and demand are totally under government control. d. All principles of the free-market system apply to health care, but in complex ways that limit consumers’ free choice in various ways.

ANS: d

2.

A state-run program that is jointly funded by states and the federal government for people who have limited income or high medical expenses, where eligibility for the limited-income cohort is based on the family income and size in relation to the national poverty level, would best be called which of the following? a. Medicare b. Medicaid

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c. Workers’ compensation d. Sliding-scale self-pay ANS: b

3.

Which of the following is a legislative act that provides for increased access to services and essential health benefits? a. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act b. Individuals with Disabilities Education Act c. Health Insurance Portability, Accountability and Education Act d. Rehabilitation Services Education Act ANS: a

4.

Groups of providers that provide care associated with a defined population of patients across multiple settings while being held responsible for the quality and cost of care delivered to that population would best be called: a. patient-centered medical homes. b. post-acute care bundles. c. home health agencies. d. accountable care organizations.

ANS: a

5.

Which of the following is true about AOTA official documents? a. They are legal documents representing current law and must be used as written to dictate practice. b. They are written by volunteer groups including both members of AOTA and nonmember practitioners. c. They represent a consensus opinion of experts, so they should influence practice and action but are not always the “final word” in decision making. d. They supersede documents written by legislative bodies or federal agencies.

ANS: c

6.

Occupational therapy managers often need to access data, information, and other forms of evidence to guide decision making and the development and implementation of programs. Which of the following is most accurate regarding the process of obtaining and interpreting such evidence in the current environment? a. Data, information, and other forms of evidence are easily accessible, easy to organize, and easy to interpret due to the abundance of resources available to the modern-day occupational therapy manager. b. Despite the Internet and online data sources, access to relevant data, information, and other forms of evidence remains elusive; it is often difficult for occupational therapy managers to find the necessary evidence. c. With the rise of the Internet and the development of many systems for storing and accessing data, information, and other forms of evidence, occupational therapy managers may find an overwhelming amount of evidence and may have to focus on organized and strategic approaches to gathering and interpreting the most appropriate evidence. d. Not much has changed in the last decade; because it is often impossible to validate the sources of data, information, and other forms of online evidence, occupational therapy managers should stick to formal literature searches using electronic search engines.

ANS: c

7.

Which of the following is not true in regard to value-based payment models? a. Value-based payment initiatives have created opportunities for occupational therapy managers to become key leaders in reformulating hospital policies and practices to respond to the bonuses and penalties that are now embedded in the Medicare payment model. b. The role of occupational therapy in value-based payment models is limited and requires practitioners to submit non-functional measures that do not demonstrate effectiveness of occupational therapy services. c. In the acute care setting, evidence exists demonstrating the effectiveness of how hospital-based therapy personnel reduce the risk of hospital-acquired conditions such as falls, decubiti, and blood clots and hospital readmissions. d. Under value-based payment models, purchasers of health care hold providers accountable for delivering high-quality care in a cost-effective manner.

ANS: b

8.

Which is true in regard to occupational therapy licensure laws?

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a. All licensure laws are 100% consistent across all states due to NBCOT exam requirements for licensure. b. Licensure is granted on a national basis, and when licensed you are free to practice in any state or U.S. jurisdiction. c. As of 2020, all 50 states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and Guam have licensure laws for the practice of occupational therapy. d. Certification is another name for licensure, and once you are certified you are also licensed to practice as an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant.

ANS: c

Chapter 4: Understanding and Working Within Organizations

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. More than 90% of nonprofit organizations that currently exist were created after 1950.

ANS: True

2. Values related to the means for achieving ends, such as self-sufficiency or honesty, are commonly referred to as instrumental values.

ANS: True

3. By requirement of its bylaws, the executive director of the American Occupational Therapy Association must be an occupational therapy practitioner.

ANS: False

4. An advantage of being a manager in a nonprofit organization is that you can focus on quality and need not worry about your department’s contribution to an operating margin (e.g., profit).

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

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5. A view of organizations as different from other types of social groups, as benefiting from specific goals, as highly formalized, and as functioning through the implementation of rules would best be called: a. b. c. d.

An open systems perspective.

A natural systems perspective.

A logical systems perspective.

A rational systems perspective.

ANS: d

6. Which of the following is not a commonly recognized result/outcome of shared values in the workplace? a. b. c. d.

Help turn commonplace, routine work into valued activities Provide direction to establish the mission of the organization for middle managers Create a connection between the mission of the organization and society’s values Provide a source of competitive advantage to the organization

ANS: b

7. Which of the following was not identified in Chapter 4 as a level of analysis for understanding organizational culture? a. b. c. d.

Observable culture Shared values Common assumptions Personal values

ANS: d

8. Which of the following is a type of organizational structure in which personnel are organized according to the product that they produce rather than according to the specific function that they complete or according to departments based upon education or training? a. b. c. d.

Service line Dual pyramid Medical model Mirror model

ANS: a

9. In regard to an occupational therapy department manager concerned about his or her department, influencing factors from the legislative arena, the technology arena, and the sociocultural arena are most accurately described as factors from which of the following? a. b. c. d.

The internal environment The organizational environment The external environment The cultural environment

ANS: c

10. Which of the following is true in regard to AOTA and the concepts of associations and bureaucracies? a. AOTA can be used to refer to both the association of voluntary members and the bureaucracy of paid staff members. b. AOTA can only be used to refer to the association of voluntary members, as there is no bureaucracy associated with AOTA. c. AOTA only appropriately refers to a bureaucracy, which includes the volunteer members of AOTA. d. Neither the concept of association nor bureaucracy accurately relates to AOTA, because it is most accurately a type of organization referred to as a professional society.

ANS: a

11. Which of the following is most accurate in regard to the differences between a nonprofit and a for-profit organization? a. A nonprofit organization does not need to generate revenue beyond what it requires to cover expenses, whereas a for-profit organization must generate considerably more revenue than is needed to cover expenses. b. In nonprofit organizations excess revenues are primarily reinvested in the organization, whereas in for-profit organizations excess revenues are distributed to investors as dividends. c. Although both nonprofit and for-profit organizations are concerned with generating excess revenues, there is no difference in how the organizations must pay taxes on goods purchased.

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d. Although both nonprofit and for-profit organizations are concerned with generating excess revenue, only nonprofit organizations bear the extra burden of providing indigent or uncompensated care.

ANS: b 12. A visual representation of the major functions of an organization by department, the relationship of functions or departments, the channels of supervision, the lines of authority and of communication, and positions by job title within departments or units is most accurately called: a. b. c. d.

Service line chart Human resources chart Organizational chart Responsibility chart

ANS: c

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. A shared set of basic assumptions or shared way of doing things that is based upon the underlying values and beliefs of the members of a particular society or of a group might best be called a(n): a. Organizational vision. b. Strategic plan. c. Code of ethics. d. Organizational culture.

ANS: d

2. Rebecca works part-time for AOTA as an associate in the Practice Department. When she functions in this paid work role, it is appropriate to say she is working within a structure most accurately described as a(n): a. Association. b. Bureaucracy. c. Trade bureau. d. Professional hierarchy.

ANS: b

3. A type of system that is capable of self-maintenance within a larger context or environment, and in which the influences of internal and external environments are keenly recognized, is best called a(n): a. Rational systems organization. b. Natural systems organization. c. Open systems organization. d. Market economy systems organization.

ANS: c

4. Two types of values related to the means to achieve the ends, as well as the ends a person wishes to achieve, are commonly referred to as: a. Instrumental values and terminal values. b. Personal values and cultural values. c. Organizational values and societal values. d. Formative values and summative values.

ANS: a

5. An organizational chart is a management tool that: a. Shows the location of an organization in a larger system such as a city or county. b. Visually depicts the lines of authority, organization, and reporting in an organization. c. Defines the sources of revenue and expenses and how these affect the tax status of an organization. d. Helps leaders determine the impact of an organization’s culture to guide leaders in choosing the most effective leadership styles.

ANS: b

6. Which of the following is not a commonly cited purpose of the organizational structures discussed in this chapter? a. Structures produce outputs to achieve organizational goals. b. Structures minimize or regulate the influence of individuals on the organization. c. Structures are the settings in which power is exercised, decisions are made, and activities are carried out. d. Structures dictate administrative policies and procedures that guide organizational

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decision making.

ANS: d

7. A commonly recognized form of organizing in hospital systems where a managerial hierarchy is duplicated for physicians and nonphysicians would best be called: a. Dual pyramid. b. Medical-model. c. Mirror model. d. Traditional administrative model.

ANS: a

8. The primary characteristic of double-loop (generative) learning would best be described as which of the following? a. It emphasizes concrete problem-solving and application of solutions in the here and now. b. It emphasizes continuous experimentation and feedback in an ongoing examination of the very way organizations go about defining and solving problems. c. It is most applicable for slow-paced environments where there is little change. d. It focuses on learning from the past and applying that learning to the present.

ANS: b

Chapter 5: Communicating Effectively in Complex Environments

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. Fear of missing out or FOMO refers to an internal distraction to maintain 24/7 online availability.

ANS: True

2. Narrative paradigm theory posits that the worth of a relationship is judged by its outcome.

ANS: False

3. Business memos are most appropriate for communication with individuals external to or outside the organization.

ANS: False

4. Many of the strategies and approaches for running effective face-to-face meetings can also be used in running virtual meetings.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice 5. The ability of an individual to understand and manage their health is the definition of:

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a. b. c. d.

Health behavior.

Health literacy.

Health competency.

Health habits.

ANS: b

6. Which of the following is not a key element of Shannon’s information theory? a. b. c. d.

Receiver Information source Channel Plot

ANS: d

7. Paralinguistics are most accurately described as: a. b. c. d.

Written communications.

Communication in virtual contexts.

The nonverbal aspects of communication.

Strategies for translating messages in foreign languages.

ANS: c

8. Face-to-face communication, e-mail communication, in-person meetings, virtual meetings, and signs are all examples of: a. b. c. d.

Mediums of communication.

Synchronous communication.

Immediate communication.

Asynchronous communication.

ANS: a

9. The five assumptions of Fisher’s narrative paradigm do not include which of the following?

a. People are essentially storytellers. b. The world is a set of stable stories that we use to determine reality and that are inflexible once established. c. History, biography, culture, and character determine what we consider good reasons. d. Narrative rationality is determined by the coherence and fidelity of our stories.

ANS: b

10. Which of the following is not accurate based on the principles of proxemics and expectancy violations theory presented in Chapter 5? a. Three fundamental areas related to proxemics are space, distance, and territory. b. Three types of space included in proxemics are fixed-feature space, semifixed-feature space, and informal space. c. There are two categories of distance to consider when applying proxemics, tangible distances and virtual distances. d. Two types of violations exist under expectancy violations theory, and they can produce favorable and negative outcomes.

ANS: c

11. Which of the following most accurately describes the “Seven C’s” presented in Chapter 5? a. b. c. d.

They are seven factors to consider when involved in business writing.

They are seven factors to consider when giving verbal presentations.

They are seven factors to consider when using virtual communication.

They are seven factors to consider when planning and running a meeting.

ANS: a

12. Which of the following most accurately describes a matching worksheet as described in Chapter 5? a. A tool to help you match the content of a business plan to the criteria most typically used to evaluate this type of writing b. A tool to help you evaluate the fit between how communication is being received and how it was intended to affect the receiver c. A tool to help you match the content of verbal presentations to the needs of your audience d. A tool to evaluate the fit between what you want to do and what a funding source is willing to pay for

SOURCE: Browsegrades.net

ANS: d

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. The Narrative Paradigm Theory: a. Is a communication theory related to the role of touch in communication. b. Asserts that people come to understand their experiences through sharing their personal stories. c. Explores the use of paralinguistics in communication. d. Concerns a style of communication that is both respectful and direct.

ANS: b

2. The discursive model of communication: a. Is a theory related to the role of touch in communication. b. Is a model which asserts that influence and leadership are earned daily through communication. c. Is a theory related to the role of space in communication. d. Is applicable to situations when what we hear is different from what we expect.

ANS: b

3. It is estimated that about how many U.S. adults have limited health literacy? a. 1/3 b. 1/2 c. 1/4 d. 7/8 ANS: a

4. In-person communication is always the most effective means of communication because: a. There are written notes from one-on-one meetings. b. The nonverbal aspects of communication can be appreciated.

c. Feedback is always delayed. d. It allows the communicator to practice and hone their message.

ANS: b

5. Which of the following is an example of a barrier to communication? a. Poor listening skills b. A distraction-free environment c. Undivided attention to the speaker d. An open and nonjudgmental attitude ANS: a

6. In-person meetings are best for: a. Utilizing a large meeting space. b. Communicating about emotionally charged topics. c. Generating a framework for a grant application. d. Permitting time to reflect on responses (lack of immediacy).

ANS: b

7. An important first step in preparing any type of communication is to: a. Always hand-write your topic outline. b. Consult resources related to health literacy. c. Know your topic deeply and share that level of detail regardless of the audience. d. Know your audience and adapt the message to meet their needs.

ANS: d

8. Juneja (2020) asserted that

% of communication is attributed to the words used.

a. 75% b. 30% c. 45% d. 7%

SOURCE: Browsegrades.net

ANS: d

Chapter 6: Roles and Functions of Managers: Planning, Organizing and Staffing, Directing, and Controlling

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. Mission statements often answer the question, “Who are the primary beneficiaries of the output of the organization?”

ANS: True

2. Activities related to improving an employee’s capacity to perform his or her current job are typically classified as development activities.

ANS: False

3. A key element of successful progressive disciplinary processes is that all steps in the progression must be completed in the predetermined order.

ANS: False

4. The three phases of (1) establishing standards, (2) measuring performance, and (3) correcting deviations are steps in the management function of directing.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

SOURCE: Browsegrades.net

5. The process of providing guidance and leadership so that the work performed is goal oriented would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Planning.

Controlling.

Organizing and staffing.

Directing

ANS: d

6. The level of control and discretion that a manager must have to be fairly held responsible for the outcomes of work groups, including the authority to hire and fire employees and determine rewards, would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Managerial influence.

Requisite managerial authority.

Professional power.

Position authority.

ANS: b

7. Statements of values that are consistent with the mission and frame the reasons for boundaries governing the services provided and set the broader principles and parameters for making the day-to-day decisions about operations would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Mission statements.

Vision statements.

Procedures.

Policies.

ANS: d

8. A process in which a more experienced professional enters into a formal relationship with a typically younger, less experienced professional focused on guiding the professional development of the younger professional is best called: a. Mentoring. b. Training. c. Supervision.

d. Directing.

ANS: a

9. The process of measuring performance against expectations and taking action to eliminate obstacles to achieving organizational goals is best called: a. b. c. d.

Planning.

Controlling.

Organizing and staffing.

Directing.

ANS: b

10. A type of statement that often communicates the answer to four questions that provide an organization’s internal and external publics with an understanding of the organization’s role in society is best called a: a. b. c. d.

Vision statement.

Purpose statement.

Mission statement.

Marketing statement.

ANS: c

11. A measure of the appropriate ratio of OTs, OTAs, and service extenders or aides needed to provide care that is effective but also cost efficient is best called: a. b. c. d.

Skill mix.

Staffing plan.

Case mix ratio.

Staffing index.

ANS: a

12. Which of the following most accurately describes the recommendation given in Chapter 6 regarding what to do when an experienced staff member leaves an organization?

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a. Hire someone more experienced, as this may be your one opportunity to get new salary dollars approved. b. Hire a new graduate, as new graduates bring more energy and current skills. c. Use an established staffing plan, and screen and interview candidates to identify a candidate who is a good match for the vacant position. d. Use the relatively higher salary to replace the staff member with two aides or an aide and an OTA for less salary dollars.

ANS: c

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Deciding which staff are most appropriate to work on a specific patient care unit and assigning them work tasks would best be described as which of the following key functions of a manager? a. Planning b. Controlling c. Organizing and staffing d. Directing ANS: c

2. Determining the costs for staff salaries and benefits, equipment, and other operational expenses, as well as the amount of revenue anticipated, would best be described as which of the following functions of a manager? a. Planning b. Controlling c. Organizing and staffing d. Directing ANS: a

3. A description of the appropriate ratio of OTs, OTAs, and service extenders or aides needed to provide care that is effective but also cost efficient would best be called a: a. Staffing plan. b. Skill mix. c. Case mix ratio.

d. Staffing index.

ANS: b

4. Which of the following is not true of mentoring programs, based on the discussion and evidence presented in this chapter? a. Both naturally occurring and formally structured mentoring experiences can be beneficial to newer employees. b. Mentoring relationships often transition and “end” when goals are met, the mentee has gained skills and experience, and the mentee is ready to establish a new relationship with the mentor as an equal colleague. c. The advantage of mentoring as an approach to staff development is that there is a standard definition of the concept that is widely accepted and utilized. d. Orchestrated mentoring relationships are often less intense and often last for a shorter period of time than naturally occurring mentoring relationships.

ANS: c

5. A management tool that describes why your department or organization exists and its key functions would best be called a: a. Vision statement. b. Strategic plan. c. Policy and procedure. d. Mission statement.

ANS: d

6. An aspirational description of the future state of an organization that identifies the organization’s primary goals would best be called a: a. Vision statement. b. Strategic plan. c. Policy and procedure. d. Mission statement.

ANS: a

SOURCE: Browsegrades.net

7. Which of the following was described as a function of the manager? a. Recruiting and retaining staff b. Developing and implementing policies and procedures c. Establishing performance standards and measuring, evaluating, and correcting performance d. All of the above ANS: d

8. Which of the following is not one of the identified phases of controlling? a. Establishing standards b. Negotiating goals c. Measuring performance d. Correcting deviations ANS: b

Chapter 7: Roles and Functions of Supervisors

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. The concepts of formal authority and personal power are synonymous and are two different names for the same type of influence in an organization.

ANS: False

2. When an occupational therapy assistant can administer an objective assessment and report the same results that the supervising occupational therapist would have reported if she or he had administered the assessment, it is an example of service competency.

ANS: True

3. According to Herzberg’s Hygiene/Motivation Theory, satisfaction and dissatisfaction should be treated as the two ends of a single continuum.

ANS: False

4. The concepts of equality and fairness are two different concepts that should be evaluated separately when considering decisions to promote employee satisfaction.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice

SOURCE: Browsegrades.net

5. Which of the following is not a factor that would contribute toward having a larger span of control? a. b. c. d.

A wider spread of geographic location More years of experience as a supervisor Increased availability of staff specialists Routine and repetitious work

ANS: a

6. A model of supervision in which the same assumptions are made about the nature of what constitutes an effective supervisor-trainee relationship as what constitutes an effective therapistclient relationship would best be called a(n): a. b. c. d.

Integrationist model Developmental model Psychotherapy-based model Motivational model

ANS: c

7. A management approach to supervision in which the manager’s decision and action depend on the particular situation at hand would best be called the: a. b. c. d.

Human relations approach.

Quantitative approach.

Contingency approach.

Systematic approach.

ANS: c

8. Which of the following is not a condition recommended by the AOTA to be present when a client-related task is assigned to an occupational therapy aide? a. b. c. d.

The anticipated outcome of the intervention is predictable.

The situation will be formally documented in the medical record as completed by an aide.

The situation will not require judgment or adaptation by the aide.

The client has demonstrated some competency to complete the task before and the task process is routine.

ANS: b

9. The right to issue orders or direct action by virtue of one’s formal position would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Coercive power.

Directing.

Controlling.

Legitimate power.

ANS: d

10. Determining that the OTA or another OT staff member performs tasks in the same way that you do as an OT and achieves the same outcome would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Service competency.

Competency assessment.

Peer competency.

Formal supervision.

ANS: a

11. Which of the following is not true about most occupational therapy supervisors as represented in Chapter 7? a. b. c. d.

The same factors affect their span of control as those of managers.

They carry out managerial, educational, and support functions.

They supervise client-related and nonclient-related tasks.

They hold the same requisite authority as most occupational therapy managers.

ANS: d

12. A theory of motivation that considers the importance placed upon a specific reward by an employee, recognizing that not all employees equally value the same rewards and experiences, and the belief that the quality of performance within a workplace is related to the rewards that are given in return would best be called:

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a. b. c. d.

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs.

Vroom’s Expectancy Theory.

Herzberg’s Hygiene Theory.

McClelland’s Acquired Needs Theory.

ANS: b

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Power that is obtained because of knowledge, personal attractiveness, or demonstration of effort is best defined as: a. Legitimate authority. b. Organizational influence. c. Personal power. d. Individualized control.

ANS: c

2. The term span of control is best defined as: a. The number of immediate subordinates who report to any one supervisor. b. The range of influence that any supervisor or manager has in an organization. c. The extent to which you have requisite authority over employees in a department. d. How broadly or narrowly your reports are distributed over a geographic area.

ANS: a

3. A model of supervision in which supervisory skills are modified as the person serving as supervisor moves from a beginner toward an advanced practitioner would best be called: a. Integrationist model. b. Developmental model. c. Motivational model. d. Psychotherapy-based model.

ANS: b 4. Which of the following is not one of the management approaches to supervision presented in this chapter?

a. Systematic management approach b. Achievement approach c. Human relations approach d. Contingency (or situational) approach ANS: b

5. Which of the following regarding supervision of others by occupational therapy practitioners is not true? a. State licensure laws supersede organizational policies or official documents of AOTA. b. Establishing service competency is an important step in determining the amount and type of supervision that is appropriate. c. Occupational therapy practitioners may only formally supervise others in client-related tasks and job functions. d. The amount and type of supervision provided may vary according to the complexity of the clinical situation, the type of practice setting, regulatory requirements, and the number and diversity of clients.

ANS: c

6. Service competency is best defined as: a. Assuring that the OTA performs tasks in the same way that the OT would and achieves the same outcome. b. A designation that employee orientation has been successfully completed. c. A category of feedback typically provided during the review step of a performance appraisal cycle. d. None of the above.

ANS: a

7. Commonly recognized formal steps in a performance appraisal system include which of the following? a. Intermittent review b. Assessment c. Performance planning d. All of the above

SOURCE: Browsegrades.net

ANS: d

8. A theory of motivation that identifies factors related to employee satisfaction and employee dissatisfaction along different continua is best named: a. Maslow’s hierarchy of needs. b. Content or process theory. c. Vroom’s expectancy theory. d. Herzberg’s hygiene theory.

ANS: d

Chapter 8: Occupational Therapist/Occupational Therapy Assistant Partnership: Supervision and Collaboration

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. Currently occupational therapy assistants may enter the profession with either an associate’s degree or a baccalaureate degree.

ANS: True

2. Virtual supervision (e.g., phone or virtual meetings) is almost always accepted in place of face-to-face supervision by state licensure boards.

ANS: False

3. Modeling and demonstration are commonly accepted forms of supervision of the occupational therapy assistant by the occupational therapist.

ANS: True

4. Occupational therapy assistants may perform the role of a manager and oversee the functions of an occupational therapist.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice

SOURCE: Browsegrades.net

5. Which of the following is true regarding supervision requirements of the occupational therapy assistant by an occupational therapist? a. Requirements are the same for all states and jurisdictions and are determined by the licensure law in each state/jurisdiction. b. Requirements vary by state and jurisdiction and are determined by AOTA in conjunction with state licensure boards. c. Requirements are the same for all states and jurisdictions and are determined by NBCOT©. d. Requirements vary by state and jurisdiction and are determined by the licensure law in each state/jurisdiction.

ANS: d

6. A style of supervision that prioritizes interpersonal experience and mentorship and values a clinician’s unique perspectives, clinical experience, personal factors, and problem-solving strategies to accomplish the work is best called: a. b. c. d.

Authoritative.

Collaborative.

Direct observation.

Modeling.

ANS: b

7. Which of the following is most accurate regarding temporary licenses? a. If a practitioner practicing under a temporary license fails to pass the NBCOT© exam, they may not be able to continue to practice under the temporary license, but this varies by state or jurisdiction. b. If a practitioner practicing under a temporary license fails to pass the NBCOT© exam, they must stop practicing immediately no matter what state or jurisdiction they are practicing in. c. If a practitioner practicing under a temporary license fails to pass the NBCOT© exam, they may continue to practice until they make a second attempt to pass the certification examination in any state or jurisdiction. d. If a practitioner practicing under a temporary license fails to pass the NBCOT© exam, they may appeal to their state licensure board for permission to continue to practice.

ANS: a

8. Which of the following is true regarding participation of the occupational therapy assistant in the evaluations process? a. OTAs may perform designated assessments and interpret the data the same as occupational therapists. b. OTAs may perform designated assessments and interpret the data as long as the occupational therapist co-signs the documentation. c. OTAs may perform designated assessments to contribute to the evaluation process but they may not interpret data. d. OTAs may perform designated assessments to contribute to the evaluation process but they may not document any assessment results.

ANS: c

9. Which of the following is true in regards to the educational requirements of the occupational therapist and the occupational therapy assistant in the United States? a. Occupational therapists may be educated at the master’s and doctoral level and the occupational therapy assistant may be educated at the associate and bachelor’s level b. Occupational therapists may be educated at the doctoral level and the occupational therapy assistant may be educated at the associate and bachelor’s level. c. Occupational therapists may be educated at the master’s and doctoral level and the occupational therapy assistant may be educated at the associate level. d. Occupational therapists may be educated at the doctoral level and occupational therapy assistants may be educated at the associate level.

ANS: a

10. Which is true in regards to continuing education requirements and renewal of state licensure. a. Continuing education requirements are set nationally by the National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy (NBCOT) b. Most states uphold requirements for continuing education however the requirement varies from state to state. c. There are two levels of continuing education requirement for all states; one for occupational therapists and one for occupational therapy assistants. d. There are no formal requirements for continuing education once initial certification and licensure is obtained.

ANS: b

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11. Which of the following is true in regards to recommendations for durable medical equipment? a. Only the occupational therapist may make recommendations for durable medical equipment. b. Neither the occupational therapist nor the occupational therapy assistant may make recommendations for durable medical equipment. c. Both the occupational therapist and the occupational therapy assistant may make recommendations for durable medical equipment but they require a co-signature from a physician validating the requirements. d. Both the occupational therapist and the occupational therapy assistant may make recommendation for durable medical equipment however certificates of medical necessity must be completed by the occupational therapist.

ANS: d

12. A style of observation that prioritizes interpersonal experience and mentorship and values a clinician’s unique perspectives, clinical experience, personal factors and problem-solving strategies is most accurately called: a. b. c. d.

Authoritative Modeling/Demonstration Collaborative Direct

ANS: c

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. The primary function of an OT includes which of the following? a. b. c. d.

Completion of the formal evaluation Interpretation of the findings from the assessment Development of the plan of care All of the above

ANS: d

2. Which of the following is the responsibility of both the OT and the OTA?

a. b. c. d.

Reassessment Evaluation Goal development Intervention

ANS: d

3. Communication is important for the success and safety of the patient. Which of the following is correct with respect to identifying the need for adjustment to a plan of care? a. Interventions must occur for at least one week before a change in plan of care is to be considered. b. In the event of a status change, it is the responsibility of the provider in most recent contact with the patient to communicate the need immediately. c. Only OTs can identify a need for adjustment to the plan of care. d. If an OTA providing intervention notices a change in function, he or she should wait until the plan of care is close to expiring before contacting the supervising occupational therapist to update the plan of care.

ANS: b

4. A patient presents to an outpatient occupational therapy clinic. The client has limited resources and has requested to limit his visits to four, during which time family training, durable medical equipment provision and training, and fall prevention techniques would have to be covered. Upon meeting these goals, a discharge summary is required. As a manager completing staffing, how would you properly utilize the functions of the OT and OTA? a. The OTA cannot support any of the listed interventions and should not be staffed to cover this patient. The OT can ask for support for completing portions of the evaluation, but from a staffing standpoint this would not make sense. b. The OTA can complete family training, durable medical equipment prescription, and fall prevention training, and complete the discharge summary. The OT only needs to be staffed for the first session to complete the initial evaluation. c. The OT must see the client for the initial evaluation and for the discharge summary; however, the OTA’s scope of practice covers interventions, family training, and durable medical equipment recommendations and training on its use. d. The OT must provide ongoing supervision for all interactions between the OTA and the patient in order to complete the discharge summary; therefore, both providers should be staffed for all four of the sessions.

ANS: c

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5. An OT is completing weekly supervision of the OTA. During the supervision, the OT observes the performance of the OTA without making real-time changes. What type of supervision style is being used in this scenario? a. b. c. d.

Direct observation Co-treatment Teaching supervision style Skill development

ANS: a

6. Which of the following is NOT an example of indirect supervision? a. Phone calls b. E-mail c. Modeling d. Written correspondence ANS: c

7.

Which of the following is a key feature of an authoritative style of supervision? a. The supervisee is expected to comply without question or contribution. b. It allows for open communication and exchange of thoughts and ideas. c. It is indicated in situations where concrete supervision is needed, such as outlining required productivity or expectations of performance. d. Both a and c.

ANS: d

8. Which of the following is NOT within the scope of practice of the OTA? a. Planning and execution of treatment b. Administering parts of standardized assessments c. Developing the occupational therapy plan of care d. Developing interventions to follow the occupational therapy plan of care ANS: c

Chapter 9: Professional Teams, Interprofessional Education, and Collaborative Practice

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. A key element of the definition of a team is operating with a high degree of interdependence while working toward a common goal.

ANS: True

2. Collaborative competencies are those that members of different professions need to work together with others, such as other specialties within a profession, between professions, with patients and families, with nonprofessionals and volunteers, within and between organizations, within communities, and at a broader policy level.

ANS: True

3. A major factor that has limited the growth and focus of interprofessional teams is the development of a more complex and globally connected health system.

ANS: False

4. The World Health Organization (WHO) has been slow to adopt the concept and value of interprofessional education.

ANS: False

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Multiple Choice 5. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a high-performing team? a. b. c. d.

A customer focus Divided leadership and accountability Continuous learning Feedback and data analysis capacity

ANS: b

6. Which of the following is not one of the four domains for core competencies identified by the International Education Collaborative Expert panel? a. b. c. d.

Values/Ethics for Interprofessional Practice Interpersonal Communication Cultural Awareness/Cultural Competence Teams/Teamwork

ANS: c

7. Teams that operate with a high level of autonomy and responsibility but are still held accountable for outcomes and projects and to common conceptions about how work is performed within the particular organization would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Interprofessional teams.

Competency-based teams.

Self-directed teams.

High -performing teams.

ANS: c

8. Which of the following best names a team composed of members from more than one discipline in which members work independently, interact formally, and have responsibility, but the team is still held accountable for outcomes and projects? a. b. c. d.

Functional work team Cross-functional work team Multidisciplinary team Self-directed team

ANS: d

9. Which of the following best names a team composed of members from several disciplines working interdependently in the same setting and who coordinate work and communicate more formally to contribute to an interdisciplinary plan of care? a. b. c. d.

Multidisciplinary team Transdisciplinary team Interprofessional team Interdisciplinary team

ANS: b

10. Which of the following most accurately describes the status of interprofessional education as presented in Chapter 9? a. Most professional education is delivered within existing disciplinary silos and existing programs. b. Most professional education is currently delivered within interprofessional programs to some extent. c. Most professional education programs are exploring the new concept of interprofessional education, as it has only recently been introduced in the United States. d. Most professional education programs express interest in interprofessional education but are prevented from implementing it due to federal accreditation standards.

ANS: a

11. Explicit measures, indicators, or statements that define specific areas of knowledge, skills, and abilities related to essential functions and assigned duties within a job or role are best called: a. b. c. d.

Educational standards.

Job descriptions.

Interprofessional indicators.

Competencies.

ANS: d

SOURCE: Browsegrades.net

12. Which of the following is not identified as an advantage of collaborative practice in Chapter 9? a. b. c. d.

Decreased patient complications Increased length of stay Decreased staff turnover Improved patient safety

ANS: b

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Which of the following best names a team without discipline-centered boundaries on which team members collaborate, prepare, and supervise the sharing of disciplinary functions while retaining ultimate responsibility for services provided in their place by other team members? a. Interdisciplinary team b. Multidisciplinary team c. Transdisciplinary team d. Interprofessional team ANS: c

2. Which of the following best names a team composed of persons with specific expertise and knowledge from different functional areas who work together to achieve an assigned goal or fulfill a specific purpose for the organization, where each member brings his or her expertise and contributes in a unique way to the team’s functioning and outcomes? a. Functional work team b. Cross-functional work team c. Multiprofessional team d. Self-directed team ANS: b

3. Which of the following is a key difference between a group and a team? a. Teams work collaboratively, whereas groups are typically self-focused. b. Although both are task focused, teams can emphasize performance to a much more significant extent.

c. The key distinguishing factor between a group and a team is the frequency and duration of interaction. d. Groups pursue individual rewards via individual performance and teams pursue collective rewards.

ANS: b

4. Which of the following is an impetus for the increased focus on interprofessional teams? a. A complex, globally connected health system b. Shortage of health professionals and limited resources c. Legislation that promotes increasingly coordinated care d. All of the above ANS: d

5. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of interprofessional education? a. Students from two or more professions learn about, from, and with each other to enable effective collaboration and improve health outcomes. b. Students from two or more professions are educated in the same university or college to gain efficiencies in space and faculty. c. Students from two or more professions are placed in the same setting for their clinical fieldwork education following completion of their classroom education. d. Students from two or more professions have educational programs with similar curricular elements such as basic science courses (e.g., biology or anatomy).

ANS: a

6. Which of the following best describes the relationship between interprofessional education and the provision of optimal health services? a. Existing healthcare teams are spurred to provide optimal health services when they are the beneficiaries of interprofessional continuing education. b. Interprofessional education helps to prepare a workforce ready for collaborative practice that then promotes the provision of optimal health services. c. The provision of optimal healthcare services promotes increased collaboration between team members on an interprofessional team. d. There is no proven relationship between interprofessional education and the provision of optimal health services.

SOURCE: Browsegrades.net

ANS: b

7. Which of the following best defines the term collaborative competencies? a. Competencies that each profession identifies as its own in order to promote more effective teamwork and prevent conflict by delineating clear professional roles. b. Competencies that each profession identifies that other professions must develop in order to most effectively work with others, with patients and families, with nonprofessionals and volunteers, within communities, and at a broader policy level. c. Competencies specifically focused on interpersonal communication, such as effective conflict resolution, and that promote teamwork. d. Competencies that each profession needs to work together with others, such as other specialties within a profession, between professions, with patients and families, with nonprofessionals and volunteers, within and between organizations, within communities, and at a broader policy level.

ANS: d

8. Which of the following best describes the skills necessary for effectively leading an interprofessional team? a. The skills for effectively leading an interprofessional team are substantially different from those required to effectively lead other types of teams. b. The skills for effectively leading an interprofessional team are broad, such that they encompass all of the necessary skills for effective leadership of other teams and include several other areas of competency. c. The skills for effectively leading an interprofessional team are very similar to those of leading other types of healthcare teams and there is little difference in general. d. The skills for effectively leading an interprofessional team are narrower than those required for effectively leading other types of teams and are essentially a subset of skills.

ANS: c

Chapter 10: Strategic Planning

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. A SWOT analysis is used to identify the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats that should influence a strategic planning process.

ANS: True

2. A possible advantage of conducting a SOAR analysis rather than a SWOT analysis is that a SOAR analysis is more focused on identifying weaknesses and other negative factors.

ANS: False

3. A trend in strategic planning is to delegate creative decision making and work processes that often have to be revised to the lowest level of the organization possible.

ANS: False

4. A performance audit is conducted by comparing your current performance against measurable quantitative and qualitative outcome indicators of success related to the departmental or organizational mission.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice

SOURCE: Browsegrades.net

5. An approach to organizational change that begins with identifying what is positive about a department or organization and when it was at its best, and then leverages these qualities for the future, would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Appreciative inquiry.

A SWOT analysis.

Strategic planning.

Visioning.

ANS: a

6. A document that identifies the customers and other key stakeholders, lists the processes and procedures that lead to the central products and outcomes of the business, and summarizes the internal and external environments in which the department or organization operates would best be called a(n): a. b. c. d.

Strategic plan.

Case statement.

Organizational profile.

Business plan.

ANS: c

7. A statement that paints an aspirational picture of the future of a department or organization by indicating what it will look like at its best is best called a: a. b. c. d.

Mission statement.

Purpose statement.

Business statement.

Vision statement.

ANS: d

8. The stage of strategic planning presented in Chapter 9 in which current or possible structures for staffing and for lines of authority and accountability are examined would best be called: a. Planning to plan. b. Business modeling. c. Action planning.

d. Goal establishment.

ANS: b

9. Which of the following is part of a SOAR analysis? a. b. c. d.

Accomplishments Attitudes Apprehensions Aspirations

ANS: d

10. Scanning for information and events that will affect short-term operational planning and long-term strategic planning would best be called: a. b. c. d.

SWOT analysis.

Environmental monitoring.

Gap analysis.

Planning to plan.

ANS: b

11. The step of strategic planning presented in Chapter 10 in which you establish where you are at the present by conducting an audit of current performance would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Gap analysis.

Business modeling.

Contingency assessment.

Organizing and staffing.

ANS: a

12. An effective strategic plan would include all of the following except: a. A definition of major goals or accomplishments related to the organization’s primary outputs.

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b. An action plan, including specific objectives detailing how the organization’s goals will be achieved. c. A plan to limit focus to internal factors affecting performance and to avoid undue influence of factors external to the organization. d. A description of the human, material, and financial resources needed to meet the identified goals and objectives.

ANS: c

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. A statement that sets forth an organization’s or department’s purpose, including definitions, products, and services, is best called a: a. Vision statement. b. Mission statement. c. Purpose statement. d. Business statement.

ANS: b

2. In strategic planning, a SWOT analysis includes all of the following domains of analysis except which of the following? a. Strengths b. Weaknesses c. Operations d. Threat ANS: c

3. As an alternative to the traditional SWOT analysis, a SOAR analysis includes all except which of the following elements? a. Strengths b. Opportunities c. Aspirations d. Research ANS: d

4. A document that includes a coordinated set of tasks for carrying out the goals delineated in a strategic plan, goes into greater detail specifying specific time frames and deadlines for activities, and assigns activities to specific organizational members to aid accountability would best be called a(n): a. Business plan. b. Operational plan. c. Case statement. d. SOAR plan.

ANS: b

5. Appreciative inquiries include which of the following? a. Discovery b. Dream c. Design d. All of the above ANS: d

6. The stage of strategic planning in which you identify your key customers and their expectations; identify other key stakeholders and their expectations; identify your key suppliers, partners, and collaborators; and assess the health of your relationships with all of these persons would best be called: a. Planning to plan. b. Environmental assessment and monitoring. c. Business modeling. d. Action planning.

ANS: a

7. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the performance audit and gap analysis stage of strategic planning? a. It compares current performance against measurable quantitative and qualitative outcome

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indicators of success related to the departmental or organizational mission. b. It identifies the gap between the current and desired indicators of performance. c. It substantiates the needed financial resources for budget planning. d. Both A and B. ANS: d

8. The stage of strategic planning that includes deciding exactly what you are going to do to get to where you want to be and to attain the goals and objectives established earlier in the planning process would best be called: a. Planning to plan. b. Environmental assessment and monitoring. c. Business modeling. d. Action planning.

ANS: d

Chapter 11: Managing Change and Solving Problems

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. Problem setting is most accurately defined as the process of determining where solving a problem falls in priority with regard to other problems that must be addressed.

ANS: False

2. Reaching consensus in a decision-making process means that all members of the group are in full agreement and would take the same action if acting independently.

ANS: False

3. Force-field analysis is a decision-making tool that helps to identify both driving and restraining forces in regard to a specific decision.

ANS: True

4. The literature on change agency suggests that there is a universal model of change agency that encompasses most of the existing literature.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

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5. The stage of the Transtheoretical Stages of Change model in which individuals are aware of a problem and the need to change and are considering taking action, but have made no commitment to any specific action would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Precontemplation.

Planning.

Consideration.

Contemplation.

ANS: d

6. When individuals are exposed to strategies that emphasize political, economic, or regulatory sanctions, this best aligns with which of the following sets of strategies for change described by Bennis, Benne, and Chin? a. b. c. d.

Normative/persuasive Educative/empirical Power/coercive Educative/rational

ANS: c

7. Change related to everyday issues, such as how to get things done, is best called: a. b. c. d.

Transformational change.

Transactional change.

Strategic change.

Operational change.

ANS: b

8. Visual representations of work processes that identify the boundaries of a work process, the major stakeholders of the process, and the steps to complete the process are best called: a. b. c. d.

ANS: a

Process flow diagrams.

Venn diagrams.

Systems diagrams.

Process analysis diagrams.

9. Information that could lead to the identification of patients and therefore must not be shared without the express permission of the patient would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Confidential health data.

Protected heath information.

Minimal data sets.

Federally limited data.

ANS: b

10. Which of the following is most accurate in regard to the characterization of the literature on change presented in Chapter 11? a. b. c. d.

The literature focuses almost exclusively on change in individuals.

The literature focuses almost exclusively on change in groups.

The literature focuses almost exclusively on change in organizations.

The literature is broadly based and focuses on individuals, groups, and organizations.

ANS: d

11. Which of the of the following is true in regard to Lewin’s simple model of change that views change as three phases: unfreeze, change, and refreeze? a. The model can help you identify different strategies to facilitate change at each stage. b. The model is highly applicable to individuals but has been proven ineffective in its use with groups and populations. c. This model is actually complex with many subphases and is not recommended for use by the novice manager. d. The model has been shown to have limited utility when applied in healthcare settings.

ANS: a

12. Which of the following was not identified as one of four models of change agency by Caldwell and included in Chapter 11? a. Individualist models b. Consultancy models

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c. Management models d. Leadership models ANS: a

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Principles of change management that are commonly cited in the literature include which of the following? a. Theoretical models and frameworks that guide organization members’ and researchers’ thinking about organizational change b. Approaches and tools for creating and managing change c. Outcomes of the process of change management d. All of the above ANS: d

2. According to the transtheoretical model of change, which of the following is not a specific stage of change? a. Precontemplation b. Contemplation c. Avoidance d. Action ANS: c

3. Which of the following is not one of the three strategies for fostering individual change identified by Bennis, Benne, and Chin (1985) and still commonly cited in the literature? a. Educative or empirical-rational b. Consultative-negotiation c. Normative or persuasive d. Power-coercive ANS: b

4. Which of the following best describes force-field analysis? a. It involves an analysis of both driving and restraining forces to change. b. It is likely to arise when individuals perceive that they have no influence over whether to change or how to change. c. It involves learning to recognize the unwritten rules involved in organizational culture. d. It involves understanding your assumptions and learning to recognize the assumptions of others about change.

ANS: a

5. An individual, internal or external to the organization, who plays a significant role in fostering and promoting change within an organization and who fosters change with an organization’s best interest in mind might best be called a: a. Driving force. b. Change agent. c. Transactional agent. d. Restraining force.

ANS: b

6. The process of clearly defining a problem or naming the problem so that you will pay attention to information that you identify as relating to the problem and ignore information that you feel is extraneous might best be called: a. Change management. b. Process flow. c. Obstacle definition. d. Problem setting.

ANS: d

7. A type of decision in which all parties have agreed to support the plan of action fully even if it is not how they would act if they were acting alone might best be called: a. Negotiation. b. Problem resolution. c. Consensus. d. Problem setting.

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ANS: c

8. Which of the following describes members of Generation Y, also known as the millennial generation? a. They like to set and achieve shared goals, value loyalty to the organization, and balance work with caring for children and aging parents. b. They are team-oriented, technologically savvy, extremely effective with multitasking, and value flexible schedules and work that contributes to a socially responsible goal. c. They value autonomy, independence, and immediate results. d. None of the above.

ANS: b

Chapter 12: Financial Planning, Management, and Budgeting

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. Net revenue is equal to gross revenue minus any allowances, deductions, and anticipated bad debt.

ANS: True

2. The term fiscal year refers to the time period used by the federal government to assess taxes for private businesses.

ANS: False

3. Costs that increase when volume increases and decrease when volume decreases are commonly referred to as variable costs.

ANS: True

4. Salary costs for social workers and case managers are an example of a direct cost that would be applied to most occupational therapy departments in traditional hospitals and inpatient rehabilitation hospitals.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

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5. The number of hours paid to a full-time employee during a designated time period, including payment of vacation or other benefit time, would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Productive time.

Full-time equivalent.

Taxable hours.

Accountable equivalent.

ANS: b

6. To determine the gross revenue for a department, you need to identify the charges for each service provided and which of the following? a. b. c. d.

Number of units of care Insurance deduction rate Bad debt Allowances

ANS: a

7. Two key conditions that often must be satisfied to justify reimbursement are that services are: a. b. c. d.

Medically necessary and evidence-based.

Skilled and evidence-based.

Functional and skilled.

Medically necessary and skilled.

ANS: d

8. A type of code that identifies a specific diagnosis and is used to classify morbidity data from inpatient and outpatient records is a(n): a. b. c. d.

CPT code.

ICD code.

G-code.

HCPC code.

ANS: b

9. A method of allocating the cost of a major asset, such as a piece of capital equipment, over its useful life for tax and accounting purposes is best called: a. b. c. d.

Capital allocation.

Expense accounting.

Depreciation.

Overhead.

ANS: c

10. Costs that vary with the volume of services provided would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Volume-driven costs.

Direct costs.

Variable costs.

Net expense.

ANS: c

11. Medicare diagnostic-related groups, or DRGs, are a type of payment provided in which of the following settings? a. b. c. d.

Hospitals Outpatient clinics Skilled nursing facilities Hospitals, outpatient clinics, and skilled nursing facilities

ANS: a

12. Which of the following is not true regarding productivity? a. b. c. d.

It is a measure of the time spent in billable activity during a predetermined period.

It is affected only by billable or productive time.

Expectations for productivity vary a great deal from setting to setting.

It is commonly expressed as a percentage subset of the total amount of time worked in a day or week.

ANS: b

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Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Basic principles of accounting as identified by Ellexson include which of the following? a. Tracking accounts b. Managing risk c. Monitoring cash flow d. All of the above ANS: d

2. Which of the following best defines the term fiscal year? a. A period of time representing one full budget cycle b. A period of time representing a federal tax period c. A period of time representing a staff recruitment cycle based on graduation dates d. A period of time representing a year of performance used to determine staff merit increases (pay increases) ANS: a

3. Which of the following best defines the term net revenue? a. The total revenue charged after multiplying total units provided by charge per unit during a specific period b. The total revenue charged minus any expenses such as salary, rent, and equipment purchased c. Gross revenue minus any allowances, deductions, and anticipated bad debt that are applied d. The revenue that varies according to the volume of work produced ANS: c

4. Which of the following best defines the term full-time equivalent (FTE)? a. The number of hours paid to a full-time employee during a designated time period, including payment of vacation or other benefit time

b. The productive hours paid to a full-time employee equivalent to one caseload in a particular setting c. The volume of work produced by one full-time employee who is meeting established productivity expectations d. The number of hours used to determine if a full-time employee has reached “exempt” status and must be paid overtime ANS: a

5. The term productivity can best be defined as: a. Care that is provided that proves to be beneficial to the patient in retrospective reviews. b. The number of rehabilitation treatments provided to a patient during a Medicareapproved acute hospital stay. c. Care that is provided that is medically necessary and deemed to be a skilled service. d. The number of units of billed care or the percentage of time spent in billable activity during a predetermined period of time.

ANS: d

6. The two concepts that are used to determine if services provided under Medicare in hospital settings are appropriate as billed services are: a. The correct ICD code and the correct CPT code. b. Medical necessity and the correct CPT code. c. Medical necessity and qualifying as skilled service. d. Qualifying as skilled service and the correct ICD code.

ANS: b

7. A single piece of equipment that exceeds a predetermined amount (e.g., $5,000) and has a life span of longer than a predetermined period (e.g., 1 year) would best be called which of the following? a. Capital improvements b. Capital equipment c. Capital investments d. Capital depreciation ANS: c

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8. A type of code used by an occupational therapy practitioner to describe the type of services provided by an occupational therapy practitioner, a physical therapy practitioner, a physician, or other healthcare provider would best be called a(n): a. ICD code. b. HCPCS code. c. CPT code. d. CO code.

ANS: b

Chapter 13: Surviving and Thriving in High-Demand Settings

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. Productivity requirements have a positive contribution to sustaining businesses and assuring that communities receive quality healthcare.

ANS: True

2. The Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) have some of the most stringent guidelines on what is considered billable service and are often applied to patients with private insurances.

ANS: True

3. The legal case Jimmo v. Sibelius determined that Medicare never covers services focused on the maintenance of an individual’s condition or prevention of decline.

ANS: False

4. A primary and acceptable strategy for improving productivity is to place many patients in 100% concurrent therapy.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

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5. The number of units of care billed or the percentage of time spent in billable activity during a predetermined period, often based on an 8-hour day, best defines: a. b. c. d.

Value.

Productivity.

Metrics.

Output.

ANS: B

6. A state and federal program that can be used to pay for health care for people with low income is best named: a. b. c. d.

Medicare Part A. Medicare Part B. CHIPS. Medicaid.

ANS: d

7. Codes that are published by the American Medical Association and are used to describe specific medical procedures performed by healthcare practitioners on patients are best called: a. b. c. d.

AMA codes.

HCPC codes.

CPT codes.

Billing codes.

ANS: c

8. The Patient-Driven Groupings Model (PDGM) is a model of payment that affects occupational therapy intervention and payment in what setting? a. b. c. d.

Acute care Home health Skilled nursing facilities Inpatient rehabilitation

ANS: b

9. The Patient-Driven Payment Model is a model of payment that affects occupational therapy intervention and payment in which setting? a. b. c. d.

Acute care Home health Skilled nursing facilities Inpatient rehabilitation

ANS: c

10. Criteria for services that are considered medically necessary and reasonable include each of the following except: a. b. c. d.

The practitioner’s skills were needed for the treatment of the illness or dysfunction.

Objective assessments can be used to measure progress and improvement.

A statement of medical necessity is completed by the occupational therapist.

Improvement can be expected in a reasonable and predictable duration.

ANS: c

11. Which of the following include examples of healthcare fraud? a. b. c. d.

Billing for services not rendered Documenting services not rendered Billing for a more complex procedure than was actually performed All of the above

ANS: d

12. All of the following might be considered a compromise of professional autonomy except: a. Asking the practitioner to provide services focused on the maintenance of an individual’s condition or prevention of decline if the individual has Medicare. b. Asking the practitioner to increase the duration of services to a patient even if therapeutic services are not needed anymore. c. Asking the therapist to initiate services for a client even if the services are not medically necessary or the interventions are not skilled.

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d. Asking the therapist to decrease the duration of a client’s services even though the therapist thinks the client needs a longer duration of services.

ANS: a

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. The productivity expectation of a skilled nursing facility is 85%. Based on an 8-hour day (excluding breaks), the duration of billable services (in minutes) would be: a. b. c. d.

400 minutes 415 minutes 420 minutes 408 minutes

ANS: d

2. Services covered through Medicare can be described as: a. b. c. d.

Skilled and medically necessary.

Skilled and billable.

Billable and nonbillable.

Subject to productivity expectations.

ANS: a

3. An example of nonbillable service is a: a. b. c. d.

Therapist performing therapeutic activities (CPT 97530) with a client.

Therapist performing exercises that the caregivers have been trained to do with a client.

Therapist educating a client regarding the use of an adaptive device to improve function.

Therapist establishing short-term and long-term goals for a client.

ANS: b

4. Which of the following have been identified as contributing to moral distress by occupational therapy practitioners?

a. Diminished client care due to poor communication among team members at work b. Decreased quality of patient care secondary to pressure from administration or insurers c. Diminished quality of patient care (that leads to suffering) due to lack of provider continuity d. All of the above ANS: d

5. A group for therapy purposes can consist of: a. b. c. d.

two to three people in a group. two to four people in a group. two to five people in a group. two to six people in a group.

ANS: d

6. Concurrent therapy can consist of: a. b. c. d.

seeing two clients performing different activities or interventions at the same time. seeing two clients performing the same activity or intervention at the same time. seeing a group of three clients performing the same activity. co-treating two clients with the physical therapist.

ANS: a

7. Which of the following is true regarding the requirements for demonstrating improvement in occupational therapy services in order to obtain Medicare coverage for services? a. Clients must always demonstrate sustained improvement. b. Improvement is never a consideration in whether occupational therapy services are covered by Medicare. c. Even though clients cannot attain full medical recovery, they may still need skilled services to maintain current capabilities or prevent further deterioration of condition. d. Sustained improvement must be demonstrated in the first 10 days of occupational therapy services.

ANS: c

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8. Which of the following is most commonly considered a nonbillable service? a. b. c. d.

Re-evaluations Documentation Group therapy Patient and family education

ANS: b

Chapter 14: Assessing and Promoting Clinical and Managerial Competency

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. When managers use contract staff or per diem staff, the manager and not the contract company or employee is typically responsible for assuring that the staff have met all licensure and competency requirements.

ANS: True

2. Self-assessment is a highly effective method for assessing competency in high-risk procedures or skills that could result in harm to patients.

ANS: False

3. The fundamental job duties that the employee must be able to complete independently with or without reasonable accommodation are typically referred to as entry-level competencies.

ANS: False

4. An effective system for assessment of competencies can be useful and is applied at all steps of the recruitment, hiring, and performance-appraisal process.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice

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5. Which of the following organizations has indirect responsibility for supporting the development of entry-level competency and direct responsibility for supporting the continued competency of occupational therapy practitioners? a. b. c. d.

American Occupational Therapy Association American Occupational Therapy Foundation National Board for Certification of Occupational Therapy National Society for Quality

ANS: a

6. Age-related competencies and equipment use competencies are most likely to be included in which of the following? a. b. c. d.

Orientation competency assessment Annual assessment of competency Orientation competency assessment and annual assessment of competency None of the above

ANS: c

7. Formal recognition that an individual has proficiency within, and a comprehension of, a specified body of knowledge, often through administration of an examination, is best called: a. b. c. d.

Licensure.

Competency.

Proficiency.

Certification.

ANS: d

8. Integration of knowledge from multiple sources to formulate a comprehensive description of prior work performance is most closely related to which of the following domains? a. b. c. d.

Cognitive domain Critical reasoning domain Affective domain Psychomotor domain

ANS: b

9. Competencies that require complex critical reasoning based upon prior clinical experience that entry-level practitioners are not expected to be able to demonstrate would best be called which of the following? a. b. c. d.

Board competencies Certification competencies Specialty competencies Advanced practice competencies

ANS: d

10. An organization that conducts a practice analysis every 5 years on entry-level practice would best be called which of the following? a. b. c. d.

State regulatory board National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy American Occupational Therapy Association Accreditation Council on Occupational Therapy Education

ANS: b

11. A process that protects the public by legally monitoring entrée to public practice, establishing minimum standards to protect the public in a particular jurisdiction, and monitoring minimal standards of practice via a practice act and ongoing disciplinary process would best be called which of the following? a. b. c. d.

Accreditation Certification Licensure Competency assessment

ANS: c

12. Which of the following most accurately represents the content of the Dreyfus Model of Skill Acquisition?

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a. b. c. d.

Skill acquisition from novice to expert Competency development to meet entry-level requirements Assessment of interprofessional competencies Broadening skill acquisition as a generalist

ANS: a

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Which of the following organizations has direct responsibility for assessing the entry-level competency of an occupational therapy practitioner via an examination process? a. American Occupational Therapy Association b. American Occupational Therapy Foundation c. National Board for Certification of Occupational Therapy d. National Society for Quality ANS: c

2. Statements of explicit measures or indicators that define specific areas of knowledge, skills, and abilities related to essential functions and assigned duties within a job or role may best be named: a. Competence. b. Certifications. c. Continuing competence. d. Competencies.

ANS: d

3. Which of the following is most accurate in regard to the status of professional regulation as of 2014? a. All 50 states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and Guam had some form of regulation. b. All 50 states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and Guam had licensure, which is the strongest form of regulation. c. All 50 states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and Guam had title protection, which is the strongest form of regulation. d. All 50 states, the District of Columbia, Puerto Rico, and Guam had certification, which is

the strongest form of regulation.

ANS: a

4. Which of the following is the most accurate statement summarizing the evidence on the use of simulation-based education? a. There is no empirical evidence to support or not support simulation-based education. b. There is mixed evidence to support simulation-based education, with some positive results. c. The evidence clearly shows that simulation-based education is ineffective. d. None of the above.

ANS: b

5. Which of the following employment processes is not appropriate for inclusion in an assessment system of entry-level competencies for a new employee? a. Advanced competencies b. Orientation competencies c. Equipment use competencies d. Age-specific competencies ANS: a

6. A description of a professional portfolio that best describes its use would be as follows: A professional portfolio is an assessment and learning tool: a. That is used to document readiness for the certification examination to enter the profession as an entry-level occupational therapy practitioner. b. That documents experience and learning and helps to identify future learning and professional development needs and goals. c. Appropriate for educators to identify the learning needs of students. d. Appropriate for a human resources department to document the learning needs of staff for accreditation.

ANS: b

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7. Which of the following statements is most accurate in regard to assessment and documentation of competencies for per diem or contract staff? a. Organizations are not responsible for assessing or documenting competencies for per diem or contract staff. b. Organizations can rely on the agency providing the per diem or contract staff to handle everything related to assessing and documenting competencies. c. Organizations only must assess and document specialized competencies used only in their practice setting. d. Organizations must ensure that per diem or contract staff have met all competencies required for permanent staff and must ensure that these staff have documentation of appropriate training.

ANS: d

8. Which is most accurate in regard to the assessment of competencies for occupational therapy managers? a. The assessment of competencies is a process used only for front-line clinical staff and not for managers. b. Competencies for managers can be categorized according to the traditional functions of managers and threshold and high-performing competencies. c. Competencies for managers relate only to entry-level competency and are not helpful in identifying more advanced managerial competencies. d. Assessment of competencies for the manager is a new idea with little support, and we should wait to see if there is any empirical support before developing managerial competencies.

ANS: b

Chapter 15: Continuous Quality Improvement

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. PDSA represents a cycle of activities for solving problems and improving work processes.

ANS: True

2. An emphasis of continuous quality improvement is to reduce common-cause variation and to standardize work processes.

ANS: True

3. Continuous quality improvement (CQI) relies upon the same principles and practices as quality assurance (QA) and represents a change primarily in name.

ANS: False

4. A fishbone diagram or Ishikawa diagram is a tool that is most useful as a method to vote or make decisions about which problems are the highest priority.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

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5. A type of bar chart (histogram) reorganized so that frequency distributions are presented in order from more to less to reflect relative frequencies is best called a: a. b. c. d.

Root cause chart.

Pareto chart.

Run chart.

Control chart.

ANS: b

6. Separating data into categories such as by time, date, location, and referral source is best called: a. b. c. d.

Root cause analysis.

Process analysis.

Stratification.

Quantification.

ANS: c

7. The stage of team development in which team members begin to respect one another and their leader’s authority, feel more comfortable in sharing ideas and receiving constructive feedback, and have increased commitment to the project goal is best called: a. b. c. d.

Forming.

Storming Norming.

Performing.

ANS: c

8. A CQI tool that helps you to determine if a process is stable or if there are wide unexplained variations by using upper and lower limits on the tool is best called a: a. b. c. d.

Histogram.

Pareto chart.

Stratification table.

Control chart.

ANS: d

9. Which of the following best describes multivoting or nominal group technique? a. b. c. d.

A method to put steps of a process in order A method to generate multiple options as solutions to a problem A method used to decrease many choices to an important few A method to choose or nominate the final single choice of solutions to be implemented

ANS: c

10. A calculation of what was gained from doing a project minus what was invested in doing the project, typically expressed in terms of dollars, is best called: a. b. c. d.

Return on investment.

Net revenue.

Root contribution analysis.

Operating margin.

ANS: a

11. Which of the following best represents the steps listed in the Shewhart cycle? a. b. c. d.

Plan, do, study, act Specification, production, inspection Plan, pilot, execute, evaluate Planning, production, execution, reassessment

ANS: b

12. The process of setting expectations for group behavior during meetings is best called: a. b. c. d.

Process improvement Teaming Norming Ground rules

ANS: d

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Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Which of the following represents the four stages teams commonly go through in correct order? a. Storming, forming, performing, norming b. Forming, storming, norming, performing c. Performing, storming, forming, norming d. Forming, norming, storming, performing ANS: b

2. Which of the following best describes the PDSA cycle? a. It is a systematic, repeatable, and teamwork-based process for solving problems or realizing opportunities for enhanced performance. b. It is a set of cautions to be avoided during the cycle of CQI efforts. c. It is an acronym for the requirements to determine a valid customer concern. d. It represents the four critical tools that must be used in analyzing variation in work processes.

ANS: a

3. Which of the following is true regarding the principles, tools, and approaches that comprise CQI? a. They must be implemented organization-wide. b. They require the assistance of a consultant to implement effectively. c. They may be integrated on a smaller scale within a department or business unit. d. They must be led by a quality council.

ANS: c

4. Which of the following is true regarding quality goals, according to Juran? a. Quality goals should be based on organizational priorities. b. Quality goals are set based on customer needs. c. Quality goals are designed to reduce variation.

d.

Quality goals are developed using the PDSA cycle.

ANS: a

5.

When selecting a CQI project, a leader should consider: a. The alignment of the initiative to the organization’s mission and vision. b. Whether the project relates to a regulatory requirement or government mandate. c. The priorities of the department. d. All of the above.

ANS: d

6. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a fishbone diagram? a. It is a method used to assist with identification and documentation of causes of the problem (effect) being studied. b. It is a method used to assist with variance analysis. c. It is a method used to order the causes of a problem from most relevant to least relevant. d. It is a method to help identify the most appropriate members for participation in a CQI team.

ANS: a

7. Which of the following best describes the purpose of a process flow diagram? a. It demonstrates the flow of revenue within an efficient and high-performing organization. b. It is a graphic representation of recommended decision-making processes in the PDSA cycle. c. It is a graphic representation of the steps and decision points in any process. d. It demonstrates the flow of expenses within an efficient and high-performing organization.

ANS: c

8. Which of the following best describes the Pareto principle? a. It is the concept stating that most of the cause of any problem is because of special cause

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variation. b. It is the concept stating that 80% of the problem is caused by 20% of the contributing root causes. c. It is the concept stating that most aspects of any problem can be solved by a single solution. d. It is the concept stating that 80% of the gain in process efficiency is created by 20% of those contributing to the solution.

ANS: b

Chapter 16: Marketing Occupational Therapy Services

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. While it is important to understand the process of marketing occupational therapy services, the complexity of the process makes it unrealistic for most occupational therapy managers to be directly involved in marketing.

ANS: False

2. Patients, clients, and third-party payers are all examples of target populations frequently considered in marketing occupational therapy services.

ANS: True

3. It is critically important that the activities associated with the four steps in the marketing process be conducted sequentially and that you not conduct any activities out of order.

ANS: False

4. It is commonly recommended that you keep the definition of your products broad and vague to best allow attraction of a wide customer base and to not unintentionally miss potential customers.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

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5. The step in the marketing process in which you validate perceptions of the wants and needs of the target populations that will receive a new product or service is best called: a. b. c. d.

Organizational assessment.

Environmental assessment.

Market analysis.

Marketing communications.

ANS: c

6. Data sources that generate data that are specific to your product or service and can include existing customers or potential customers from your target markets, referral sources, payers, employees, suppliers, consultants, or other sources involved in your product or service are best called: a. b. c. d.

Evidence-based data sources.

Secondary data sources.

Population data sources.

Primary data sources.

ANS: d

7. The time it takes to use your product, the pain associated with your services, and feelings of stress about scheduling time to attend therapy appointments are all examples of which of the following? a. b. c. d.

Price Threats Packaging Weaknesses

ANS: a

8. Examining factors such as your organization’s reputation in the community, customer service, programs, the staff’s qualifications, type and quality of equipment, available space, geographic location of your organization, and the level of administrative support for new programs is an example of which of the following? a. Organizational assessment

b. Environmental assessment c. Market analysis d. SWOT analysis ANS: a

9. Which of the following most accurately represents the term target populations as defined in Chapter 16? a. Those persons who receive direct therapy and therefore are the target of occupational therapy intervention b. Any group of persons who receive, benefit from, or pay for an occupational therapy product or service c. Certain groups that have been identified to be the beneficiary of occupational therapy provided through comprehensive programming, such as those with autism d. Those groups of persons who are also called customers and who provide payment and reimbursement for occupational therapy services ANS: b

10. Which of the following is not an example of a simple strategy to conduct an environmental analysis as described in Chapter 16? a. Conduct informal or formal focus groups with members of your target population. b. Conduct information interviews with leaders of community-based organizations or public health officials concerned with the health and wellness of your target population. c. Identify competitors in the area who are already serving your target population and review their websites and brochures to learn about their products and services. d. Review the résumés and portfolios of your current staff to identify your strengths and weaknesses in training and clinical skill sets.

ANS: d

11. The step of the marketing process in which you package and promote your occupational therapy services as a product would best be called: a. b. c. d.

Organizational assessment.

Environmental assessment.

Market analysis.

Marketing communications.

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ANS: d

12. Giving consideration to providing services on days and at times when members of your target populations are available, such as weekends and evenings, is an example of which of the following marketing concepts as described in Chapter 16? a. b. c. d.

Price Promotion Place Product

ANS: c

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Your manager has asked you to complete a SWOT analysis. Which of the following components of the marketing process addresses the SWOT analysis? a. Organizational assessment b. Environmental assessment c. Market analysis d. Marketing communications ANS: a

2. Which component of the marketing process best helps you to identify the needs of your external customers? a. Organizational assessment b. Environmental assessment c. Market analysis d. Marketing communications ANS: b

3. Which common form of promotional media may be perceived as an interruption by customers?

a. Direct mailings b. Face-to-face meetings c. Seminars d. Television ads ANS: b

4. Which of the following sources of data is best categorized as a primary data source? a. Government census reports b. Economic statistics c. Surveys d. AOTA tip sheets ANS: c

5. Tangible information readily available to your customers may best be called: a. Physical evidence. b. Price. c. Promotion. d. SWOT data.

ANS: a

6. From a marketing perspective, the time required to take advantage of your product or service, the psychological and emotional toll of taking advantage of your product or service, and the physical pain that may be experienced when taking advantage of your product or service would best be categorized as which of the following? a. Price b. Product weaknesses c. Disadvantages d. Service dissatisfiers ANS: c

7. From a marketing perspective, nurses, payers, patients, doctors, and outside referral sources

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may all best be categorized as which of the following? a. Healthcare consumers b. Internal audiences c. Customers d. External audiences ANS: c

8. Target populations include which of the following? a. Customers b. Clients c. Third-party payers d. All of the above ANS: d

Chapter 17: Developing Evidence-Based Occupational Therapy Programming

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. A mechanism of action explains the motivation for becoming involved in common occupations.

ANS: False

2. A key first step in developing new evidence-based occupational therapy programming is deciding if you are going to use a theory/conceptual practice model or a program development model.

ANS: False

3. In regard to health and health behaviors, the terms belief and knowledge are synonymous and can be used interchangeably.

ANS: False

4. In regard to the organization of occupational therapy knowledge, a theory that is developed primarily by members of another discipline is most appropriately called a frame of reference.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

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5. A term to describe knowledge that specifically addresses the identity and perspective of the occupational therapy profession and articulates a shared vision of members of the field that defines the nature and purpose of the discipline is best called: a. b. c. d.

A frame of reference.

The occupational therapy paradigm.

A conceptual practice model.

An occupational therapy practice theory

ANS: a

6. The condition of apprehending truth or fact and that entails the awareness that particular propositions or assertions are factual or true on the basis of some justification or evidence that sufficiently supports them is best called: a. b. c. d.

A health belief.

Knowledge.

Theory.

Truth.

ANS: b

7. A model that describes the influence of an individual’s thinking about a health behavior, including benefits, barriers, seriousness, and susceptibility, is best called: a. b. c. d.

The Health Belief Model.

Social Cognitive Theory.

Transtheoretical Stages of Change Theory.

The Ecological Model of Health Behavior.

ANS: a

8. The term self-efficacy is best defined as which of the following? a. A global personality trait related to confidence b. Learned behavior that can be improved over time c. An measurement indicator that others use to evaluate your level of confidence and responsiveness d. Beliefs about capabilities of performing specific behaviors in particular situations

ANS: d 9. The occupational therapy paradigm addresses each of the following questions except: a. b. c. d.

What human need does the service address?

What kinds of problems does the service solve?

Who is involved in solving the problem or human need?

How does the occupational therapy service solve these problems?

ANS: c

10. A term that describes knowledge that occupational therapists may rely upon to guide their interventions but for which occupational therapy scholars were not primarily responsible for developing may best be called: a. b. c. d.

Theory.

Related paradigms.

Interprofessional practice models.

Related knowledge.

ANS: d

11. A model described in Chapter 17 that can be used to guide program development by helping you to decide where to intervene, such as within the structure of organizations or through the policies and regulations of government, would best be called which of the following? a. b. c. d.

Ecological Model of Health Promotion Health Belief Model Transenvironmental Model of Intervention Social Cognitive Theory

ANS: a

12. Which of the following is not one of the three types of expectancies included in Social Cognitive Theory? a. Expectancies about one’s hopes and fears in relation to health conditions and their personal impact b. Expectancies about environmental cues, which are called environmental expectancies

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c. Expectancies about the consequences of one’s own behavior, which are called outcome expectancies d. Expectancies about one’s competence to perform a behavior necessary to achieve a particular outcome ANS: a

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. A term used to describe the organization of knowledge that generates theory and the methods that are used by therapists in their everyday work to apply that theory, such as assessments and intervention strategies, is best called which of the following? a. Frame of reference b. Paradigm c. Conceptual practice model d. Occupational therapy practice theory ANS: c

2. Knowledge that specifically addresses the identity and perspective of the occupational therapy profession is best called which of the following? a. Sensory integrative frame of reference b. Occupational therapy paradigm c. MOHO conceptual practice model d. Occupational therapy practice theory ANS: b

3. A model or theory that helps you to understand where different prevention and health behavior interventions may occur is best called which of the following? a. Health Belief Model b. Social Cognitive Theory c. Transtheoretical Stages of Change Theory d. Ecological Model of Health Promotion ANS: d

4. A model or theory that helps you understand how you can affect health behaviors by influencing four sets of beliefs is best called which of the following? a. Health Belief Model b. Social Cognitive Theory c. Transtheoretical Stages of Change Theory d. Ecological Model of Health Promotion ANS: a

5. A model or theory holding that behavior is determined by expectancies and incentives is best called which of the following? a. Health Belief Model b. Social Cognitive Theory c. Transtheoretical Stages of Change Theory d. Ecological Model of Health Promotion ANS: b

6. A health-related concept that helps to indicate how change proceeds, designates the conditions under which an intervention achieves beneficial results, and suggests why change may occur for certain groups of consumers and not for others is best called which of the following? a. Mechanism of action b. Health change indicator c. Predictive factor d. Performance accomplishment measure ANS: a

7. Which of the following best describes the relationship between theory and a program development model? a. To be most effective and evidence-based, you should choose to use either an appropriate theory or a program development model. b. Most theories include a program development model, so a program development model is part of a theory. c. They are used in combination to guide decision making about where, how, and when to

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intervene given a chosen problem or target population. d. Most program development models include a theory, so a theory is part of a program development model.

ANS: c

8. Steps in the process of developing an evidence-based occupational therapy program include which of the following? a. Program planning b. Needs assessment c. Evaluation of outcomes d. All of the above ANS: d

Chapter 18: Introducing Others to Evidence-Based Practice

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. Including your client in the process of answering your practice question is a standard part of the evidence-based practice process.

ANS: True

2. The accreditation standards related to research and the use of evidence-based practice are the same for all types of entry-level occupational therapy programs.

ANS: False

3. An effective strategy for keeping up with current evidence is to sign up for alerts with electronic databases when an article related to a key word is published.

ANS: True

4. The principles that guide teaching adult occupational therapy practitioners to use evidencebased practice strategies are the same principles used to guide educational strategies across the life span.

ANS: False

Multiple Choice

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5. A tool used to record the key characteristics, findings, strengths, and limitations of the materials that have been uncovered and appraised during a search in a compact and manageable format is best called: a. b. c. d.

A bibliographic database.

Levels of evidence.

An extraction matrix.

A comparative analysis.

ANS: c

6. The use of PICO is associated with which step of the evidence-based process? a. b. c. d.

Locating resources Implementing the findings within your practice Conducting a critical appraisal Setting a question related to a practice problem

ANS: d

7. A systematic approach to capture, collect, and share tacit knowledge in order for it to become explicit knowledge is best called: a. b. c. d.

Patient education.

Training and development.

Knowledge transfer.

Evidence translation.

ANS: c

8. Which of the following is not a type of validity used to determine whether or not a research design or a measurement tool was able to capture what it intended to capture? a. b. c. d.

ANS: a

Performance validity Criterion validity Construct validity Content validity

9. Which of the following is a service provided by journals whereby alerts are e-mailed whenever articles that include key words you submit are published? a. b. c. d.

PICO alerts Electronic table of contents alerts Critical appraisal matrix alerts Evidence-based practice alerts

ANS: b

10. Which of the following best describes the limitations of adult learning principles and characteristics identified by Knowles as presented in Chapter 18? a. There is much more evidence of applicability to those in early adulthood than those in later adulthood. b. The principles and characteristics apply to adults in work-related learning only. c. The principles and characteristics apply to adults in leisure- and hobby-related learning but may not transfer to the workplace. d. They may not be universally applicable and may be Eurocentric.

ANS: d

11. Which of the following is not a step in the evidence-based practice process as presented in Chapter 18? a. Acquire evidence that may contain information relevant to the question. b. Evaluate the results. c. Scan the environment to determine what types of evidence-based practice questions will be well received. d. Present the evidence to those who must act on it.

ANS: c

12. Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between the terms translational research and knowledge transfer in regard to occupational therapy as presented in Chapter 18?

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a. Translational research could be more appropriate to medically focused treatment such as new medications, and knowledge transfer might be more appropriate to the sharing and application of knowledge within occupational therapy. b. Knowledge transfer is a more general term related to all sciences, and translational research is more specific to the translation of specific research to direct clinical interventions and might be more appropriate to the sharing and application of knowledge within occupational therapy. c. Both terms relate to more medically focused and basic science research, and neither appropriately describes the sharing and application of knowledge within occupational therapy. d. There is no functional difference between the terms; they should be considered synonyms and reflect the same meaning.

ANS: a

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Which of the following are benefits of shared values in the workplace? a. They help turn commonplace, routine work into valued activities. b. They create a connection between the organization’s mission and society’s values. c. They provide a source of competitive advantage to the organization. d. All of the above.

ANS: d

2. In regard to the scholarship-related standards for accreditation in OTA educational programs, master’s-entry and doctoral-entry educational programs for the OT, which of the following is true? a. The research-related standards are the same in both types of entry-level programs. b. A side-by-side comparison of the accreditation standards related to scholarship shows increasingly complex expectations across educational programs as one moves from occupational therapy assistant education to education of occupational therapists at the master’s and doctoral levels. c. Doctoral-entry standards differ only in the addition of expectations to evaluate qualitative research in addition to evaluating quantitative research. d. Doctoral-entry standards differ only in that they require doctoral students to teach evidence-based practice to others.

ANS: b

3. Which of the following would best describe adult learners? a. Adult learners learn in the same manner and for the same reasons as children. b. Adult learners tend to be more dependent on others for motivation because they do not routinely participate in learning experiences. c. Adult learners almost always are involved in learning only for financial gain such as a promotion. d. Adult learners are self-directed, goal-oriented, and may have multiple internal and external motivations for learning.

ANS: d

4. Which of the following is not an element of a well-defined clinical question? a. A specific client group or population b. The assessment, treatment, or other clinical issues that you are addressing c. The source where you are obtaining data d. The outcome in which you are interested ANS: c

5. Which of the following accurately represents PICO? a. (P) patient or client (population), (I) intervention, (C) comparison, and (O) outcome b. (P) patient or client (population), (I) interviews, (C) comparison, and (O) outcome c. (P) patient or client (population), (I) intervention, (C) critical appraisal, and (O) outcome d. (P) patient or client (population), (I) intervention, (C) comparison, and (O) orientation ANS: a

6. Which of the following is not a positive attribute of effective communication of a message on evidence-based practice for consumers or payers? a. Nontechnical, simple, and concrete language with simple grammatical structure b. Terms that cross cultures and perspectives c. Specific detail providing in-depth explanation of all information that can be shared d. Checks for confusion or lack of comprehension

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ANS: c

7. Which of the following best describes knowledge transfer? a. It is a systematic approach to capture, collect, and share tacit knowledge in order for its transfer to become explicit knowledge or to impart research knowledge from producers to potential users. b. It is an effective translation of the new knowledge, mechanisms, and techniques generated by advances in basic science research into new approaches for prevention, diagnosis, and treatment of disease, which is essential for improving health. c. It is the evaluation of the effectiveness of original science or knowledge and the determination if additional research to help with application to the real world is appropriate. d. It is the transfer of approved research protocols from one setting to another to help with validation of the research questions, study design, and data collection methodologies.

ANS: a

8. Which of the following is not one of the four Es presented to improve the reliability of knowledge transfer? a. Engage b. Educate c. Encourage d. Evaluate ANS: c

Chapter 19: Turning Theory Into Practice: Managerial Strategies

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. A review of a department’s mission statement can help in the process of determining what constitutes best practice.

ANS: True

2. The source of meaning in contrived occupation and in therapeutic occupation is the same, with both originating with the patient.

ANS: False

3. Exercise as typically used in the occupational therapy clinical environment (e.g., repetitions of lifting a rod with weights attached or batting a balloon back and forth) is an example of contrived occupation.

ANS: True

4. Selecting a code to use for billing and completing an occupational analysis to plan an intervention both use a similar logic.

ANS: True

Multiple Choice

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5. A type of document that serves to codify core duties and best practice and shape employee roles within communities of practice by communicating employee activities that will be valued is best called: a. b. c. d.

A competency assessment.

A job description.

A mission statement.

An employee profile.

ANS: b

6. A term used in Chapter 19 to describe a type of practice that includes roles, rules, and tools is best called: a. b. c. d.

Best practice.

Shared practice.

Competent practice.

Evidence-based practice.

ANS: b

7. Which of the following best describes therapeutic occupation? a. It is a preparatory method, is focused on skill development, has a source of meaning chosen by the therapist, and uses authentic objects. b. It is purposeful activity, is focused on skill development, has a source of meaning chosen collaboratively by the therapist and patient, and uses items commonly found in an occupational therapy clinic. c. It is occupation-based, is focused on skill development, has a source of meaning chosen collaboratively by the therapist and patient, and uses authentic objects. d. It is occupation-based, is focused on compensation, has a source of meaning chosen collaboratively by the therapist and patient, and uses authentic objects.

ANS: c

8. Which of the following strategies is most related to the domain of knowledge in regard to an occupational therapy practice?

a. Examining the needs of patients and whether the full range of occupational therapy interventions is being applied to meet patient needs b. Developing competency statements for the administration of a set of assessments c. Taking an inventory to identify objects to support occupation-based practice d. Surveying staff on their values and attitudes regarding the use of occupation-based and theory-driven practice ANS: a

9. Which of the following best represents what could be a nonplace, identificational community? a. b. c. d.

Factories Towns, villages, and cities Prisons and churches Practitioners who share common interests

ANS: d

10. Which of the following best describes the concept of occupational therapy normalcy presented by Eleanor Clark Slagle lecturer Glen Gillen and explored in Chapter 19? a. b. c. d.

Normalcy is the natural state of the body before influenced by disease or impairment.

Normalcy is occupation and is what should drive the occupational therapy process.

Normalcy is the naturalistic environment in which we perform occupations.

Normalcy is the set of expectations that patients and clients have about the result of occupational therapy intervention.

ANS: b

11. Which of the following terms represents an approach to occupational therapy intervention that is more naturalistic and ecologically relevant than rote exercise but not fully occupationbased treatment? a. b. c. d.

Contrived occupation Therapeutic occupation Prescribed occupation Naturalistic occupation

ANS: a

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12. Coding of services is best described as which of the following? a. Assigning codes to charges based on diagnosis of the patient and the intervention performed within a treatment setting b. Segregating interventions into occupation-based and non-occupation-based categories to provide clear choices to guide OTs and OTAs c. Categorizing patient needs into major categories such as neurologic or orthopedic to facilitate the design of occupation-based treatment programs d. Providing retroactive descriptions of occupational therapy documentation and charges to track the focus on intervention in rote movement or occupations ANS: a

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Which of the following is a common aspect of the structure of a community of practice? a. Domain of knowledge b. Community of people c. Shared practice d. All of the above ANS: d

2. As a manager, you should make it your business to keep up to date with which of the following? a. Theories b. Research c. Evidence d. All of the above ANS: d

3. Which of the following is a term that refers to the scope of information about which a group is concerned and defines what the group members need to understand together? a. Domain of practice

b. Shared practice c. Domain of knowledge d. Paradigmatic knowledge ANS: c

4. Which of the following is the best example of a naturalistic occupation? a. Placing Velcro checkers in a pattern on the back of a rolling mirror b. Challenging a patient’s balance by having them reach to pick imaginary apples c. Having a patient put different-sized cups and plates into a cupboard d. Moving colored rings from one side of a “therapy arch” to the other ANS: c

5. Which of the following best describes the focus of the intervention as presented in this chapter? a. The degree to which a selected intervention is intended to fix an identified impairment versus helping the person develop adaptations necessary to promote participation in desired occupations b. The degree to which a selected intervention is supported by current policies on billing c. The degree to which a selected intervention is consistent with the way other practitioners approach practice in the setting d. The degree to which a selected intervention is client-centered ANS: a

6. Which of the following is not a recommendation for assisting staff in staying abreast of changes in practice and regulation without the need for further funding? a. Brown-bag in-service presentations b. CE on CD (Continuing Ed on CD) c. Journal clubs d. Co-treating patients ANS: b

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7. A management tool that helps to codify best practice in a setting by laying out staff responsibilities would best be called which of the following? a. Job description b. Mission statement c. Vision statement d. Statement of operations ANS: a

8. Which of the following best characterizes occupation-based interventions? a. Ecologically relevant b. Naturalistic c. Draw their purpose and meaning from the therapist d. Both a and b ANS: d

Chapter 20: Responsible Participation in a Profession: Fostering Professionalism and Leading for Moral Action

This test bank is comprised of questions for each chapter, including: • • •

Four true/false questions Eight multiple-choice questions Eight multiple-choice study questions provided to students at the end of each chapter

Instructors are encouraged to use a combination of questions for examinations or quizzes from each set of questions. Instructors may want to alter the questions to ensure that they match the focus of the lectures provided to students.

True/False 1. A disagreement between two experienced occupational therapy practitioners about which of two competing approaches to use with a client for which moderate levels of supporting evidence are found is most appropriately described as an ethical dilemma.

ANS: False

2. The most severe penalty that can be applied by the Ethics Commission and the American Occupational Therapy Association is permanent revocation of membership.

ANS: True

3. Donations to the American Occupational Therapy Association Political Action Committee (AOTPAC) are mandatory in that a percentage of every member’s dues is given to the AOTPAC each year.

ANS: False

4. In most institutions, ethics committees serve a role in staff education, consultation with difficult situations, and policy review and development.

ANS: True

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Multiple Choice 5. The policymaking body (e.g., congress) of the AOTA, made up of elected representatives from each state and Puerto Rico, chairpersons of advisory committees and commissions (e.g., the Special Interest Sections Council, the commission on practice, the commission on education), and a public member is best called the: a. b. c. d.

AOTA Board of Directors.

AOTA Leadership Council.

AOTA Representative Assembly.

AOTA PAC.

ANS: c

6. An organization that is most directly responsible for advocating for your interests when a licensure law in your practice jurisdiction must be renewed is best called: a. b. c. d.

The American Occupational Therapy Association.

The American Occupational Therapy Foundation.

The National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy.

A state occupational therapy association.

ANS: d

7. A process by which an institution or organization seeks to demonstrate that it complies with generally accepted standards set forth by appropriate professional organizations is best called: a. b. c. d.

Licensure.

Certification.

Competency assessment.

Accreditation.

ANS: d

8. Which of the following has ethical authority over occupational therapy practitioners who are not members of the AOTA? a. State licensure boards b. The AOTA Ethics Commission

c. The AOTA Board of Directors d. The Commission on Continuing Competence and Professional Development ANS: a

9. Which of the following organizations has the mission to advance research, education, and public awareness for occupational therapy so that all people may participate fully in life, regardless of their physical, social, mental, or developmental circumstances? a. b. c. d.

American Occupational Therapy Association American Occupational Therapy Foundation Fund to Promote Occupational Therapy National Board for Certification of Occupational Therapy

ANS: b

10. Which of the following is true regarding continued certification by the National Board for Certification of Occupational Therapy? a. Initial certification is mandatory, but recertification after the initial 3-year period is voluntary. b. Certification and recertification are mandatory for all occupational therapy practitioners who practice in a state with licensure. c. Certification and recertification are both voluntary as long as candidates can provide their state regulatory board a passing score on the NBCOT© examination. d. Certification is always mandatory for OTs but is voluntary for OTAs after the initial 3year certification period.

ANS: a

11. Which of the following require proof of continuing education for continued certification, licensure, or other formal recognition? a. National Board for Certification of Occupational Therapy, state regulatory boards b. American Occupational Therapy Foundation, American Occupational Therapy Association, state regulatory boards c. National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy, American Occupational Therapy Association, state regulatory boards d. State regulatory boards, American Occupational Therapy Foundation

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ANS: a

12. Which of the following best describes ethics as presented in Chapter 20? a. A set of guidelines established by each professional/disciplinary association to guide legal decision making about what is right and what is wrong b. A branch of philosophy that guides ways of understanding and examining a moral life and is applied to practice through moral reasoning c. An academic discipline that educates professionals in a branch of philosophy that allows them to act as consultants for medical, legal, and social professionals d. Guidelines drawn from legal documents such as state practice acts and licensure laws and integrated with regulations from professional organizations such as the National Board for Certification of Occupational Therapy and produced by the American Occupational Therapy Association ANS: b

Study Questions Provided to Students 1. Which of the following is a professional body incorporated in 1917 to represent the interests and concerns of occupational therapy practitioners and students of occupational therapy and to improve the quality of occupational therapy services? a. National Board for Certification of Occupational Therapy, Inc. b. American Occupational Therapy Association c. Fund to Promote Occupational Therapy d. American Occupational Therapy Political Action Committee ANS: b

2. A concept that has emerged from collaborative practice, education, and research and focuses on the competencies, values, and norms that multiple professions have identified as critical to effective interactions in the provision of care would best be called interprofessional: a. ethics. b. certification. c. accountability. d. professionalism.

ANS: d

3. Which of the following is included in the AOTA code of ethics? a. To guide members toward ethical courses of action in professional and volunteer roles b. To outline the standard of conduct the public can expect c. To delineate enforceable principles and standards of conduct that apply to AOTA members d. All of the above ANS: d

4. Which of the following best describes an ethical dilemma? a. A conflict between ethical beliefs involving choices between alternatives that appear equally morally acceptable b. A conflict in which there is a clear moral choice and a clear immoral choice (the rightversus-wrong scenario) c. A conflict in which there is no true moral option (the lesser-of-two-evils scenario) d. A conflict between approaches to distribution of available resources and rewards ANS: a

5. Which of the following is true regarding state regulatory agencies? a. They are authorized by state law to discipline occupational therapy practitioners who violate regulations. b. Eighty-five percent of the states in the United States require licensure for the practice of occupational therapy. c. They refer all issues related to ethical breaches or other disciplinary matters to AOTA for review and determination, and abide by AOTA disciplinary decisions. d. None of the above ANS: a

6. Which of the following is accurate regarding the governance structure of AOTA? a. AOTA is governed by a single governing body responsible for the association’s policy, finances, and promotional activities.

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b. All members of the governing bodies of AOTA are paid professionals hired to carry out their roles and responsibilities. c. The executive director of AOTA must be an OT with at least 10 years of experience as defined in the bylaws of the association. d. The Representative Assembly is AOTA’s “congress” and is responsible for establishment of professional standards and policies for the profession.

ANS: d

7. Which of the following is concerned with ethics and ethical practice? a. National Board for Certification in Occupational Therapy b. American Occupational Therapy Association c. State regulatory agencies d. All of the above ANS: d

8. Fostering a culture of ethical reflection supports which of the following? a. Moral resilience b. Clinician well-being c. Licensure renewal d. Both a and b ANS: d