TEST BANK for Organizational Behavior and Management 12th Ed by Konopaske, Ivancevich & Matteson.

CHAPTER 1 1)

What principles did Fredrick Taylor advocate?

2) Did Fredrick Taylor support an adversarial relationship between management and labor?

Justify your response.

3) Describe the disciplines that have contributed to the field of organizational behavior.

Which do you feel had the largest impact?

4)

Describe the findings of the Hawthorne studies.

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5)

What is the relationship between quality and organizational effectiveness?

6)

What's more important: quality, productivity, or efficiency? Justify your answer.

7)

What is adaptiveness and its importance to an organization?

8) A major goal of Zappos is to treat its __________ with integrity, honesty, and commitment.

A) customers B) employees C) employees and customers D) employees, customers, and community

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9) To be successful, managers will need to harness the power of __________ and human capital.

A) techno-administrative technology B) information technology C) political D) economic

10)

When it comes to knowledge, organizations must do all of the following except: A) Transfer it to employees.

B) Identify it.

C) Guard it jealousy.

D) Update it continuously.

11) To develop and sustain an advantage in an increasingly competitive, globalized world, managers must harness the powers of information technology and _______________ to be successful.

A) decisiveness B) language fluency C) democracy D) human capital

12)

The formal and modern study of management started around ______ B.C..

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A) 1750 B) 1300 C) 1900 D) 1940

13)

The first modern management articles were published in _______________ journals.

A) human resource B) engineering C) scientific D) psychology

14) In 1886, an engineer named Frederick W. Taylor presented a paper on scientific management at a national meeting of engineers that was titled "The Engineer as _______________."

A) a Specialist B) a Manager C) an Economist D) a Scientist

15)

Frederick W. Taylor believed in _______________ approach to job design.

A) the rule-of-thumb B) a scientific C) a just-in-time D) a laissez-faire

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16) ______________ suggests that an organization is a managed system that changes inputs into outputs.

A) Systems theory B) Operations theory C) Hawthorne theory D) OB

17) Taylor's major thesis was that maximum good for _________ could come only through the cooperation of management and labor in the application of scientific methods.

A) the organization B) society C) the shareholder D) All of the choices are correct.

18) Behavior is viewed as operating at the individual, _______________, and organizational levels.

A) emotional B) spiritual C) structural D) group

19) Fayol's approach to management was significant in that it contributed to all of the following developments and positions except:

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A) Management is a separate body of knowledge that can be applied in any type of organization.

B) A theory of management can be learned and taught.

C) There is a need for teaching management in colleges.

D) On-the-job training is the best way to impart management skills.

20)

Fayol's theory of management emphasized the importance of all of the following except: A) Conserving.

B) Planning.

C) Organizing.

D) Coordinating.

21)

Which of the following has contributed to the study of organizational behavior?

A) Psychology and forensic anthropology B) Anthropology, psychology, social physiology, and sociology C) Psychology, sociology, political science, and cultural anthropology D) Anthropology, physics, psychology, social psychology, sociology, and political

science

22) When examining the contributions to the study of Organizational Behavior, the "unit of analysis" associated with psychology is ______________.

A) group B) organization C) individual D) team

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23)

Which of the following researchers is most associated with the Hawthorne studies?

A) Elton Mayo B) Mary Parker Follett C) Henri Fayol D) Fredrick Taylor

24) The Hawthorne studies originally concluded that supportive managers paying attention to workers made them more productive. However, a reanalysis of the data suggested that the productivity increase was due to managerial discipline and _______________.

A) fear of job loss B) peer pressure C) productivity bonuses D) job training

25)

According to the Hawthorne studies, workers respond to _____________.

A) group norms B) union pressures C) covert observation D) All of the choices are correct.

26) The ____________ studies are still considered the major impetus behind the emphasis on understanding and dealing with human resources.

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A) advent of scientific management B) Hawthorne C) organization movement D) start of World War II

27)

According to systems theory, __________.

A) effectiveness criteria need not reflect the entire input-process-output cycle B) effectiveness criteria must focus on organizational outputs C) effectiveness criteria must reflect the interrelationships between the organization and its outside environment D) the relationship between organization and environment is one way

28) According to systems theory, an organization acquires resources (inputs) from a larger system, _______________.

A) the environment B) the home country C) the world economic system D) the shareholders

29)

Managers must deal _____________ aspects of organizational behavior.

A) with internal B) with external C) simultaneously with the internal and external D) separately with the internal and external

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30) The overarching criterion that cuts across each effectiveness dimension is _______________.

A) productivity B) quality C) adaptiveness D) efficiency

31) J. M. Juran and W. Edwards Deming, in the 1950's, introduced the importance of _______________ to the public.

A) quality B) efficiency C) profitability D) consistent management

32)

Competition has caused many organizations to make quality _______ priority.

A) a fiduciary B) their top C) a lagging D) their second tier

33) As presented in the text, _______________ reflects the relationship between inputs and output.

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A) productivity B) quality C) adaptiveness D) innovation

34)

_______________ is the ratio of outputs to inputs.

A) Productivity B) Efficiency C) Adaptability D) Production

35) The _______________ criterion measures the ability of an organization to increase its capacity to deal with environmental demands.

A) productivity B) efficiency C) adaptiveness D) development

36) According to the text, six forces are reshaping the nature of managing within organizations. They include _______________.

A) the economic climate B) political unrest C) mentoring D) technology

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37)

Motivation and __________ interact to determine performance.

A) ability to work B) technology C) information resources D) organizational rank

38) To survive the fast-paced changes in the global world, firms must make not only capital investments but also investments in ____________.

A) people B) transportation facilities C) high-speed communications technology D) All of the choices are correct.

39) How well a firm _______________ and motivates a skilled workforce will have a major impact on its ability to compete in the global marketplace.

A) recruits B) retains C) selects D) All of the choices are correct.

40)

Which of the following statements about power is true?

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A) Most people are comfortable with the concept of having power over others.

B) The concept of having power over others is offensive to everybody.

C) To be a good manager, a person must have a high desire for power.

D) Managers derive power from both organizational and individual sources.

41)

Japan and China are basically _________ societies in terms of race.

A) homogeneous B) heterogeneous C) diverse D) transitioning

42) __________ the interdependency of transportation, distribution, communication, and economic networks across international borders.

A) Symbiosis is defined as B) Globalism is defined as C) Systems theory examines D) Fayol’s pillars of organizations were based upon

43) The United States is racially diverse and has been rapidly increasing its workforce diversity since the _______.

A) 1950s B) 1960s C) 1970s D) 1980s

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44) A(n) ___________ is an unwritten agreement between an employee and the organization that specifies what each expects to give to and receive from the other.

A) understanding B) employment contract C) psychological contract D) commitment

45) The semiconductor pioneer Gordon Moore predicted in 1965 that computer power would double every _______________.

A) 5 years B) 3 years C) 2 years D) 12 months

46) According to current research, the average tenure for millennial employees in a job is __________ years.

A) 7 B) 5 C) 2 D) 1

47)

The introduction of _______________ fostered an era of "information technology."

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A) electricity B) globalization C) computer technology D) the Internet

48)

Which of the following is included in the six forces reshaping management practice?

A) The power of human resources B) A new worker-employer psychological contract C) Cultural diversity D) All of the choices are correct

49)

Every organization must respond to the needs of _______________.

A) its customers or clients B) legal and political constraints C) economic and technological changes D) All of the choices are correct.

50)

The foundation of organization performance is _______________ performance.

A) product B) managerial C) financial D) individual

51)

Which of the following statements about motivation is true?

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A) Motivation is the primary determinant of performance.

B) Most managers do not need to understand motivation.

C) Motivation and the ability to work interact to determine performance.

D) Most behavioral scientists agree that there is one best theory of motivation.

52) Which of the following is not included in the three important influences on individual behavior and motivation in organizations?

A) Individual characteristics B) Individual motivation C) Rewards D) Stress

53)

One of the most powerful influences on individual performance is ____________.

A) an organization's reward system B) stress C) national culture D) gender

54) A surgical team performing open-heart surgery on a patient is an example of a(n) _______________ group.

A) informal B) formal C) super D) dedicated

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55) The neighborhood book club, which has fifty members, is an example of a(n) _______________ group.

A) informal B) formal C) perseverance D) developmental

56) _______________ is the ability to get someone to do something you want to be done, or to make things happen the way you want them to happen.

A) Prestige B) Perseverance C) Power D) Persuasion

57)

The essence of _________ is control over others.

A) power B) management C) leadership D) impression management

58) According to the text, organizational survival is related to the ability of management to do all of the following with information except:

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A) Retire it.

B) Transmit it.

C) Act on it.

D) Receive it.

59) The power of managers is clearly evidenced when they make decisions about all of the following except __________.

A) the employees' well-being B) distributing organizational resources C) designing and implementing rules and policies D) the way they dress

60)

How is Zappos CEO Tony Hsieh's perspective different from many other businesses?

61) What abilities will managers need to be successful in the 21 abilities do you have now? How do you plan to acquire the others?

62)

st

century? Which of these

List the six forces reshaping management practice featured in the chapter.

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63)

What is meant by the term "diversity"?

64) The psychological contract between workers and employers specifies what each expects to give and receive from the other. What can you offer an employer, and what do you expect in return?

65)

What is a psychological contract?

66) The power of human resources, globalism, cultural diversity, the rapidity of change, a new worker-employer psychological contract, and technology are reshaping management practices. What are the likely outcomes of ignoring or resisting these forces?

67) What are some of the conclusions about human behavior in the workplace that were uncovered by the Hawthorne studies?

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68)

How have the findings of the Hawthorne studies been criticized?

69)

What is the "Hawthorne effect"?

70)

What are the four basic elements of a system?

71) What are the two main conclusions suggested by systems theory as it relates to effectiveness?

72) What are three things that you, as a manager, can do to lead your team to higher levels of effectiveness?

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73) Identify five short-run indicators that managers can measure to assess the probability of an organization's long-run survival.

74)

Name three measures of satisfaction as presented in the text.

75) Within the context of systems theory, describe the relationship between the organization and society.

76)

List three ways productivity may be measured.

77)

List three measures of efficiency.

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78)

What is the relationship of motivation and ability to performance?

79)

Identify three common physical symptoms that are related to stress.

80)

World trade is growing at a slower rate than is world gross domestic product. ⊚ ⊚

81)

In recent years, Japan and China have become racially diverse societies. ⊚ ⊚

82)

true false

true false

Older workers are entering the workforce at decreasing rates. ⊚ ⊚

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83) In a general sense, technology is the process that converts raw materials or intellectual capital into products or services. ⊚ ⊚

84)

Negative productivity is calculated as the ratio of inputs to outputs. ⊚ ⊚

85)

true false

Efficiency is defined as the ratio of outputs to inputs. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

true false

Technology can yield a competitive advantage only when it is utilized effectively. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) A common body of management knowledge had been developed before the rise of the Roman Empire. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

A new industrial era began in the United States around the time of the Civil War.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Restrictions on where they can be accessed and the additional cost associated with their use have caused cloud-based solutions to typically be associated with lower productivity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) Information is a commodity that, when applied effectively, can result in higher growth and productivity. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

The formal and modern study of management started in Babylonia, around 5000 B.C. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) According to Frederick W. Taylor, father of scientific management, management and labor must operate independently to achieve the maximum good for society. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Frederick Taylor's concept of economic rationality of the employee was later characterized as the "Hawthorne effect." ⊚ ⊚

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94)

Organizational Behavior (OB) is considered a way of thinking. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) The field of organizational behavior focuses on just two levels of analysis: individual and group. ⊚ ⊚

96)

true false

The field of Organizational Behavior (OB) is personality-oriented. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) In the field of Organizational Behavior (OB), the scientific method is deemed important in studying variables and relationships. ⊚ ⊚

98)

true false

A culturally diverse workforce is becoming a reality in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Mary Parker Follett, following in the footsteps of Taylor's scientific management, embraced his view of human needs and workplace relationships.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Mary Parker Follett was one of the first management theorists to promote participatory decision making and decentralization. ⊚ ⊚

101)

true false

Group performance is the foundation of organizational performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) The economic data churned out by the government every month fails to identify whether workers are working harder or smarter. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) One of the least powerful influences on individual performance is an organization's reward system. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) Jim, Mike, Kathy, and Keisha are all friends at work because of their common interest in raising chickens. Thus, they constitute an informal group. ⊚ ⊚

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105) Organizational survival is related to the ability of management to receive, transmit, and file information. ⊚ ⊚

106)

Leaders are found in both formal and informal groups. ⊚ ⊚

107)

true false

true false

As it is inherently bad, management must discourage all forms of intergroup conflict ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 01_12_ Konopaskee 8) C 9) B 10) C 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) A 17) B 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) C 22) C 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) A 29) C 30) B 31) A 32) B 33) A Version 1

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34) B 35) D 36) D 37) A 38) A 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) C 45) C 46) C 47) C 48) D 49) D 50) D 51) C 52) D 53) A 54) B 55) A 56) C 57) A 58) A 59) D 80) FALSE 81) FALSE 82) FALSE 83) TRUE Version 1

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84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE

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CHAPTER 2 1)

Describe the levels of culture proposed by Schein. Provide examples for each level.

2) The text presents a graphic depicting the Schein’s levels of culture as a triangle/pyramid.

What is the significance of the chosen shape?

3)

What is PO fit, and why is it important to employers?

4)

What issues are associated with less structured and informal approaches to socialization?

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5)

What major activities comprise the accommodation stage of socialization?

6) The Mitroff and Denton research results led them to identify a number of distinct models that describe how workplace spirituality can be practiced. Describe these models.

7) Describe the concept of artifacts as it relates to the discussion of culture. Include in your answers examples of what may be considered artifacts in the specific setting of this school.

8) The values, norms, customs, and rituals of cultures are influenced by all of the following except __________.

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A) politics B) religion C) language D) phonology

9) ____________ is the sum total of the beliefs, rituals, rules, customs, artifacts, and institutions that characterize the population of the nation.

A) Culture B) A national culture C) A national perspective D) A guiding perspective

10)

Hofstede's value dimensions include __________.

A) accommodation B) femininity C) integrity D) long-term orientation

11) Which of the following is not provided as a channel that is likely to help pass values from one generation to the next?

A) Religion B) Communities C) The education system D) Linguistics

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12)

__________ are the conscious, affective desires or wants of people that guide behavior.

A) Cultures B) Values C) Needs D) Wants

13) The concept of _______________ refers to the extent to which people in a society feel threatened by ambiguous situations.

A) low power distance B) aggressiveness C) uncertainty avoidance D) individualism

14)

Countries with higher levels of uncertainty avoidance tend to have __________.

A) organizational activities that are less formal B) more risk taking occurring C) higher job mobility to mitigate risk D) specific rules, laws, and procedures

15) Considerable conflict between job and family roles reflects a high level of the societal value of _______________.

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A) power distance B) masculinity C) uncertainty avoidance D) individualism

16) _______________ is the degree to which members of a society or organization use rules, regulations, and social norms to avoid uncertainty or unpredictable future events.

A) Power distance B) Societal collectivism C) Future orientation D) Uncertainty avoidance

17) The fifth cultural dimension of Hofstede’s framework, long-term orientation, was developed based upon research using the __________.

A) Hofstede Cultural Survey (HCS) B) Hawthorne Survey of Cultural Affect (HSCA) C) Chinese Value Survey (CVS) D) GLOBE Survey (GS)

18)

Power distance __________.

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A) is a reflection of the acceptance of aggressive and confrontational in social relationships B) is the level of acceptance by a society of the unequal distribution of power in organizations C) examines organizational use of rules, regulations, and social norms D) encourages decentralized organizational forms when it is high as decisions are distanced from the leader

19) Within the Hofstede framework, __________ refers to the presence of traditionally “masculine” values—assertiveness and materialism.

A) masculinity/femininity B) patriarchy C) gender orientation D) masculinity/paternalism

20) Within the Hofstede framework, __________ refers to the extent to which a culture controls the desire to pursue enjoyment and fun.

A) control/leniency B) long-term/short-term orientation C) indulgence/restraint D) individualism/collectivism

21) A company's annual report, approved dress code, and office layout are examples of _______________ within an organization.

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A) symbols B) sages C) compliance producing items D) artifacts

22) Which of the following is most accurate considering our current knowledge on the topic of culture change.

A) Culture change requires only a minimal intervention and thus is a practical means to enhance organizational performance.

B) Cultures are so elusive and hidden that they cannot be adequately diagnosed, managed, or changed.

C) People naturally embrace culture change as a means to reduce anxiety.

D) While culture change may require an influential and powerful leader, major resource commitments are typically not needed.

23)

The culture at Walt Disney is manifested through all of the following except: A) Shared sayings.

B) Similar demographic characteristics.

C) Shared things.

D) Shared behavior.

24) Herb Kelleher, one of the founders of Southwest Airlines, helped create a culture of commitment by

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A) pitching in to help employees as he traveled around doing business.

B) rewarding the most productive and upbeat employees.

C) conducting regular and intense team-building sessions.

D) emphasizing PJ fit in the hiring process.

25)

The core values of Southwest Airlines consist of all of the following elements except: A) A warrior spirit.

B) A servant's heart.

C) A fun-loving attitude.

D) An unwavering commitment.

26) Theoretically based and empirically valid research on corporate culture and its impact ___________.

A) are readily available and conclusive B) were the focus of Fredrick Taylor’s work C) suggested indulgence is the most critical dimension for work outcomes D) are relatively scarce

27) Research suggests that when ethics codes are developed and enforced within an organization, they have a positive impact. Which of the following was not provided as one of these impacts?

A) Job satisfaction B) Esprit de corps C) Organizational commitment D) Organizational mobility

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28) _____ can be defined as the amount of perceived support employees receive from their co-workers, supervisor, and other departments that helps them successfully perform their job duties.

A) BOC B) HFC C) HGC D) SOC

29)

Attempting to change a culture generally requires all of the following except: A) Difficult techniques.

B) A new company leader.

C) Rare skills.

D) Considerable time.

30) A supportive organizational climate can be defined as the amount of perceived support employees receive from their ___________ that helps them successfully perform their job duties.

A) co-workers and supervisors B) supervisors and other departments C) co-workers, supervisors, and other departments D) co-workers, supervisors, other departments, and their families

31) Socialization processes are the activities by which an individual comes to appreciate the _______________ essential for assuming an organizational role, and for participating as an organization member.

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A) values B) skills and abilities C) values and expected behaviors D) values, abilities, and expected behaviors

32) _______________ is the process by which organizations bring new employees into the culture.

A) Alteration B) Maturation C) Socialization D) Normalization

33) Employees are more likely to adjust to a new job and be accepted socially if they use a _______________ approach to learning about how things work, who makes the decisions, and what the organization values.

A) proactive B) laid-back C) scientific D) sequential

34)

The sink or swim approach to socialization ___________.

A) is preferred to others B) should never be used C) may work D) may present significant legal issues for organizations

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35)

Organizational socialization is most important when an individual __________.

A) first takes a job B) accepts their first management position C) has a technical background D) first takes a job or takes a different job in the same organization

36) People are vitally interested in two kinds of information before entering a new job or organization. They attempt to assess the firm's ______________________.

A) culture and if they are suited to the jobs available in the organization B) pay and benefits C) history and values D) culture and climate

37) The socialization that occurs before someone enters an organization, or takes a different job within an organization, is the _______________ stage of socialization.

A) accommodation B) anticipatory C) role management D) assessment

38)

Organizational socialization processes _______ from organization to organization.

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A) by law must not vary B) may vary in form but not content C) vary in form and content D) must by law vary by employee

39)

All of the following activities comprise the accommodation stage except: A) Establishing new interpersonal relationships.

B) Learning the task required to perform the job.

C) Clarifying one's role in the organization and in formal and informal groups.

D) Forming an initial impression of the job and the organization.

40) During the __________ stage of socialization, a broader set of issues and problems arises, which results in conflict, including conflict between work groups.

A) anticipatory socialization B) accommodation C) role management D) storming

41) Conflict between an individual's work group and other work groups within the organization usually surface during the __________ socialization stage.

A) negotiation B) accommodation C) role management D) resource management

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42) In work organizations, a mentor can provide ___________ to a younger, less-experienced protégé.

A) only coaching B) friendship but should not provide coaching C) coaching, friendship, and role modeling D) coaching, and role modeling but should avoid providing friendship

43) Caterpillar’s program in which younger employees mentor senior employees about things like new technology and generational changes is called __________.

A) upward coaching B) millennial mentors C) reverse mentoring D) enhanced mentoring

44) All of the following practices are found during the accommodation socialization stage except: A) Professional counseling.

B) Social skills training.

C) Demanding but fair supervisors.

D) Supportive and accurate feedback.

45) All of the following recommendations are presented as means to become a great mentor except:

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A) Give up your personal mentor.

B) Don't be afraid, to be honest.

C) Work at building trust and feeling it yourself.

D) Don't keep your feelings bottled up.

46) Which of the following is the least likely to be a turning point during a mentoring relationship?

A) The senior manager becomes less available.

B) A job rotation or promotion limits continued interaction.

C) Peer status is achieved.

D) A sudden increase in wages.

47)

All of the following are phases of the mentoring process except: A) Separation.

B) Cultivation.

C) Realism.

D) Redefinition.

48) Which of the following is an example of what Mitroff and Denton characterized as an evolutionary model of spirituality?

A) YMCA B) Alcoholics Anonymous C) Ben & Jerry's D) Cirque Du Soleil

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49) Which of the following is an example of what Mitroff and Denton characterized as the socially responsible model of spirituality?

A) YMCA B) Alcoholics Anonymous C) Ben & Jerry's D) Both the YMCA and Ben & Jerry’s

50) Which of the following is an example of what Mitroff and Denton characterized as the recovery model of spirituality?

A) YMCA B) Alcoholics Anonymous C) Ben & Jerry's D) Kingston Technology

51)

Which of the following statements about spirituality is false?

A) Spirituality is a personal and private path.

B) Spirituality contains elements of many religions.

C) Spirituality grows from self-inquiry.

D) There are no potentially negative outcomes associated with employee spirituality at

work.

52)

One study of the spirituality of medical units within a hospital system found __________.

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A) patient infection rates decreased with increased staff spirituality B) unit leaders did not impact the degree to which unit members expressed workplace spirituality C) that work units' spirituality was associated with the unit's performance D) patient infection rates increased with the introduction of staff spirituality initiatives due to staff inattention

53) Research by Mitroff and Denton led them to identify __________ distinct models that describe how workplace spirituality is practiced.

A) three B) four C) five D) six

54) Research by Mitroff and Denton found that there was ___________ agreement about the meaning of spirituality.

A) weak B) diverse C) near-unanimous D) unanimous

55) ____________ has been defined as "the desire to find ultimate meaning and purpose in one's life and to live an integrated life."

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A) Religiousality B) Spirituality C) Transformationality D) Devotion

56) to:

A study of spirituality reported that organizational spirituality was positively correlated

A) Employee job involvement but not organizational identification.

B) Organizational identification but not employee job involvement.

C) Employee job involvement and organizational identification but not work rewards satisfaction.

D) Employee job involvement, organizational identification, and work rewards satisfaction.

57)

A survey by Mitroff and Denton found all of the following to be true except:

A) Employees who are more spiritually involved achieve better results.

B) Most employees feel free to act on their spirituality in the workplace.

C) People differentiate strongly between religion and spirituality.

D) Most people define spirituality as "the desire to find ultimate meaning and purpose in one's life and to live an integrated life."

58) According to the text, which of the following organizations is an example of using a values-based model of spirituality?

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A) Alcoholics Anonymous B) Kingston Technology C) Ben & Jerry's D) YMCA

59)

Spirituality in the workplace _________.

A) is always positive B) is always a negative C) may have a negative side D) is appropriate only in religious organization

60)

The "separation" phase of the mentor relationship occurs after the _____________ phase.

A) cultivation B) redefinition C) friendship D) conflict

61)

What is the difference between a "long-term" orientation and a "short-term" orientation?

62) Hofstede's research indicates that national cultures exist. Do you believe that in a heterogeneous nation, such as the United States, a national culture that is shared by society exists?

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63) How can a leader or founder help create a strong culture in an organization? Can a leader eliminate culture? Explain.

64) Nordstrom is presented in the text as an example of a particular type of culture. What is that culture, and briefly, how does Nordstrom's reinforce it?

65) What is the impact of values-based codes of behavior on the employees of an organization?

66)

Present and briefly discuss one of the diversity initiatives currently underway at PepsiCo.

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67) You have been hired as a consultant and your supervisor glibly states that organizational culture is easy to measure. Being an expert on organizational culture, how do you respond?

68)

List three forms of cultural communication commonly found within organizations.

69)

What is socialization?

70) List three ways in which organizations can structure the socialization process for new employees.

71)

At what point during a career are individuals most aware of the socialization process?

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72) What two kinds of information are people vitally interested in obtaining before entering a new job or organization?

73) Identify the three stages of socialization. Which of these stages is most important for developing high-performing employees, and why?

74)

Is socialization only for organizational newcomers?

75)

What is the best way to learn how to be a mentor?

76) What practices might you employ if you were placed in charge of a program to mentor new students at your school?

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77) Mentoring is a unique, reciprocal, learning partnership between two people that involves psychosocial and career support. Name three of those support functions, as identified by Kram.

78)

What were three of Mitroff and Denton's findings?

79)

What is meant by the term "spirituality"?

80)

Can spirituality be measured validly and reliably? How?

81) Organizations can operate efficiently only when shared values exist among the employees. ⊚ ⊚

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82) Values are a society's ideas about what is right or wrong, such as the belief that hurting someone is immoral. ⊚ ⊚

83)

Values do not simply appear; they evolve. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

The effect of values on workplace productivity and effectiveness is easily determined. ⊚ ⊚

85)

true false

true false

The extent to which subordinates accept unequal power is the same across countries. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) In countries in which people display low power distance, employees acknowledge the boss's authority and typically follow the chain of command. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

Hofstede included indulgence/restraint in his original four–value dimension framework.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

88) In countries with high masculinity, one finds less conflict and stress when it comes to balancing home and work life. ⊚ ⊚

89)

An organization's culture cannot be seen, sensed, or felt. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

Organizational culture creates a pattern of beliefs, values, and expectations in employees. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

true false

A person's feelings and perceptions are usually kept at the conscious level. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) One impact of culture on employees indicates that it provides and encourages a form of stability. ⊚ ⊚

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93) A strong culture is characterized by employees sharing core values but not necessarily agreeing with the way things should be done within the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Southwest Airlines has established a strong culture in part due to its hiring practices.

Their approach is to hire candidate if they possess the company's core values. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Rituals, history, humor, and employee rewards have established and reinforced a strong culture that resulted in Nordstrom's being recognized as a leader in how to treat customers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Terry adheres to the required dress code without complaint. This compliance may be taken as a general indicator of Terry's cultural commitment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Behavior change does not necessarily produce culture change unless supported by justification. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Employees that are cultural misfits may present specific and significant harm to an organization, and as such, they should be separated with due haste.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

99) As the needs of an organization change, its employees must adapt to those new needs.

That is, they must continue to be socialized. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) In the accommodation stage of socialization, individuals see the job and organization for what they actually are. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Individuals who experience realism and congruence during the anticipatory stage of socialization have a less stressful accommodation stage. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Role management is the third stage of socialization practices. As seasoned members of the organization, individuals in this stage typically experience little conflict. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Generally, individuals having unmanaged stress works to the advantage of the organization. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

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104)

Research indicates that most managers have never had a mentor. ⊚ ⊚

105)

Mentoring relationships generally last from 6 to 9 months. ⊚ ⊚

106)

true false

Over the past decade, research into spirituality has grown out of favor. ⊚ ⊚

108)

true false

People are attracted to mentors who look, act and communicate like them. ⊚ ⊚

107)

true false

true false

Workplace spirituality is the same as workplace religion. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) Someone who is promoting and prodding others to show or be more spiritual may also be disrupting the work performance of colleagues.

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⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 02_12_ Konopaskee 8) D 9) B 10) D 11) D 12) B 13) C 14) D 15) B 16) D 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) B 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) D 28) D 29) B 30) C 31) D 32) C 33) A Version 1

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34) C 35) D 36) A 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) C 41) C 42) C 43) C 44) A 45) A 46) D 47) C 48) C 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) C 54) C 55) B 56) D 57) B 58) B 59) C 60) A 81) TRUE 82) TRUE 83) TRUE Version 1

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84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) FALSE 106) TRUE 107) FALSE 108) FALSE 109) TRUE

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CHAPTER 3 1)

What is diversity and its core dimensions?

2)

What benefits might an organization accrue from embracing diversity?

3)

How can having an overall understanding of individual differences help a manager?

4) The Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990 prohibit discrimination against qualified individuals with disabilities. What is the definition of a "disabled person"?

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5) The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 and ADA Amendments Act of 2008 require that organizations make reasonable accommodations for disabled individuals. List and provide examples of several types of accommodations that management may provide.

6)

How might attitude affect employee behavior?

7)

Identify the three components of that attitude.

8) What cautions would you give to an employer wanting to use a single or group of personality traits exclusively to make a selection decision?

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9)

Describe the seven factors that have been associatedwith satisfaction.

10)

When we speak about an individual's personality, to what are we referring?

11)

Describe the characteristics of an organization that a typical would Gen Y want to work?

12)

To understand individual differences, a manager must do all of the following except:

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A) Observe the differences.

B) Recognize the differences.

C) Isolate individuals who respond differently to stimuli.

D) Study the relationships between variables that influence individual behavior.

13) A manager is in a better position to make optimal decisions if he or she knows the __________ of an employee.

A) abilities and skills B) abilities and perceptions C) attitudes and perceptions D) attitudes, perceptions, and abilities

14)

__________ is anything a person does in the work environment.

A) Work B) Work behavior C) Work initiation D) Work composition

15)

All of the following are secondary dimensions of diversity except: A) Physical health.

B) Sexual/affectional orientation.

C) Marital status.

D) Religious beliefs.

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16)

Secondary dimensions of diversity _______.

A) are changeable B) are relatively stable C) are stable D) have limited impact

17)

All of the following are primary dimensions of diversity except: A) Physical attributes B) Age C) Marital status D) Sexual/affectional orientation

18)

Which one of the following sequences is oldest to youngest?

A) Millennials, Gen Z, baby boomers B) Baby boomer, Gen X, Millennials C) Baby boomer, Millennials, Gen Z D) Millennials, Gen Z, Gen X

19)

Which of the following statements about Millennials is false?

A) Millennials require less praise than do Gen Xers and Boomers.

B) Millennials put their careers first; they want positions that build their resumes.

C) The online social networking skills of Millennials can be leveraged for collaborations and virtual team projects.

D) Millennials should be assigned a mentor to help them understand the company culture, dress policies, office politics, and so on.

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20)

The ADA requires that organizations make ____________ for disabled individuals.

A) reasonable accommodations B) performance allowances C) accommodations of up to $50,000 D) accommodations of greater than $50,000

21) When selecting candidates for a particular position, one of the better predictors of job success is _______________.

A) mental ability B) gender C) emotional ability D) reading comprehension

22)

Which of the following cultural characteristics most aptly applies to Mexico?

A) Time is a flexible concept.

B) Being passive is considered a virtue.

C) Individual rights and needs are subordinate to collective rights and needs.

D) Literacy is almost 100%.

23) Which of the following are important factors in helping to differentiate between higherand lower-performing employees?

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A) Mental ability B) Communication skills C) Emotional knowledge D) Mechanical ability

24)

Which of the following is not a subcategory of mental ability?

A) Mechanical prowess B) Verbal fluency C) Associative memory D) Spatial orientation

25)

A person's __________ is generally stable over time.

A) ability B) skills C) ZQ D) knowledge base

26) Robert J. Sternberg believes that practically intelligent leaders and managers tend to do all of the following except: A) Capitalize on the weaknesses of others.

B) Realize they are not good at everything.

C) Learn from their positive and negative experiences.

D) Overcome negative expectations set by others.

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27) __________ refers to work-related practical know-how that employees acquire through observation and direct experience.

A) Tacit ability B) Job ability C) Tacit knowledge D) Job knowledge

28) Tacit Knowledge is work-related, practical know-how that employees acquire through all of the following except __________.

A) formal training programs B) observation and direct experience on the job C) Demonstrative Training Interaction (DTI) D) innate ability

29) You can develop your __________ at work by observing how more experienced employees handle challenging situations or tasks.

A) tacit knowledge B) motivation C) organizational resources D) ergonomic intelligence

30) The cognitive component of an attitude consists of a person's perceptions, opinions, and _______________.

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A) education B) predispositions C) beliefs D) personality

31) The _______________ component of an attitude refers to the tendency of a person to act in a certain way toward someone or something.

A) behavioral B) cognitive C) emotional D) esteem

32) _________ is the emotional component of an attitude and is often learned from parents, teachers, and peer group members.

A) Perception B) Affect C) Effect D) EQ

33) ____________ is a mental state of anxiety that occurs when there is a conflict among an individual's various cognitions.

A) Imperceptible conflict B) Conceptual apprehension C) Cognitive apprehension D) Cognitive dissonance

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34)

"I've requested a transfer to another department." This statement reflects: A) Beliefs and values.

B) Feelings and emotions.

C) Intended behavior.

D) Emotional behavior.

35)

The statement "My supervisor is unfair" is an example of ___________.

A) an affect B) a cognition C) dissonance D) cognitive dissonance

36)

The cognitive component of an attitude consists of the person's __________.

A) perceptions, opinions, and beliefs B) perceptions, opinions, beliefs, and feelings C) perceptions, opinions, beliefs, intentions, and feelings D) opinions, beliefs, intentions, and feelings

37)

Gen ______ is truly the first demographic group that can be called "digital natives."

A) D B) X C) Z D) Facebook

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38) Personality appears to be organized into patterns that are ______ observable and measurable.

A) not B) to some degree C) to a large extent D) typically

39)

Managing emotions in order to perform one's job is called _______________.

A) emotional labor B) emotional moderation C) emotional suppression D) emotional dissidence

40) Most studies dealing with the performance-satisfaction relationship have found ______ association between performance and satisfaction.

A) a low B) a moderate C) a high D) no

41)

_______________ is the automatic transfer of mood between persons.

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A) Mood or emotional contagion B) Mood but not emotional contagion C) Emotional osmosis D) Mood transference

42) Applying the Big Five personality dimensions, the employee described as "someone who gets along with others" may be considered high on ____________.

A) introversion B) agreeableness C) self-esteem D) conscientiousness

43)

The most discussed and publicized __________ model is called the Big Five.

A) personality B) psychology C) diversity D) leadership

44)

Which of the following is not a factor within the Big-Five model?

A) Masculinity B) Extroversion C) Emotional Stability D) Conscientiousness

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45) _______________ refers to the tendency to be sociable, gregarious, assertive, talkative, and active.

A) Emotional stability B) Extroversion C) Conscientiousness D) Openness to experience

46)

Research indicates that extroverted people tend to do all of the following except: A) Have lower levels of overall job satisfaction.

B) Perform well in sales jobs.

C) Do better in training programs.

D) Perform well in managerial jobs.

47)

People high in _______________ tend to enjoy talking and interacting with co-workers.

A) emotional stability B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience

48) Those who work hard at the "fit" between themselves and their job are likely to experience:

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A) Higher levels of job satisfaction.

B) More positive attitudes and higher levels of job satisfaction.

C) More positive attitudes, better relationships among peers, and higher levels of job satisfaction.

D) More positive attitudes, better relationships among peers but not higher levels of job satisfaction.

49) Individuals low on _______________ are often described as rude, cold, uncaring, unsympathetic, and antagonistic.

A) emotional stability B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness

50) _______________ is exhibited by those who are described as dependable, organized, thorough, and responsible.

A) Emotional stability B) Extroversion C) Conscientiousness D) Openness to experience

51) Specific traits of _______________ include curiosity, broad-mindedness, creativity, imagination, and intelligence.

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A) emotional stability B) extraversion C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience

52) In relation to locus of control, people who believe they are pawns of fate are referred to as ______________.

A) fatalist B) externals C) determinist D) pawnist

53)

Which of the following outcomes is associated with openness to experience?

A) Overall job satisfaction B) Fewer counter-productive behaviors C) Training proficiency D) Interpersonal skill

54)

Which of the following outcomes is associated with high extroversion?

A) Job performance across most occupations B) Fewer counter-productive behaviors C) Overall job satisfaction and motivation D) Training proficiency

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55) In organizational settings, ___________ usually do not require as much supervision as do ________ because they are more likely to believe their own work behavior will influence outcomes such as performance, promotions, and pay.

A) internals; externals B) externals; internals C) internals; fatalist D) high I's; low I's

56)

The concept of self-efficacy includes all of the following dimensions except: A) Magnitude.

B) Persistence.

C) Strength.

D) Generality.

57)

Which of the following statements reflects the greatest magnitude?

A) Jim says he can put a basketball through the hoop six times out of ten throws.

B) Sara thinks she is just as good at basketball as she is at baseball.

C) Sara is positive she can put ten basketballs through the hoop in a row.

D) Jim thinks he can put three more basketballs through the hoop than Sara can.

58)

Which of the following statements best reflects the greatest strength of magnitude?

A) Jim is moderately certain he can put a basketball through the hoop six times in a row.

B) Sara is betting she can put three more basketballs through the hoop than Jim can.

C) Jim knows he can put six basketballs through the hoop in a row.

D) Sara is positive she can put ten basketballs through the hoop in a row.

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59)

The most important factor in the development of positive self-efficacy is: A) Past experience.

B) Managerial feedback.

C) Job task repetition.

D) Training.

60)

Self-efficacy tends to be __________ specific.

A) personality B) time C) gender D) task

61) According to an analysis by Gist and Mitchell, self-efficacy is associated with __________.

A) work-related performance, career choice, and learning achievement B) work-related performance, career choice, emotional stability, and learning achievement C) work-related performance, career choice, emotional stability, job satisfaction, and learning achievement D) work-related performance, career choice, emotional stability, learning achievement, and tacit knowledge

62) _____________ refers to a person's ability to be self-aware of feelings, to manage emotions, to motivate oneself, to express empathy, and to handle relationships with others.

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A) EI B) EQ C) IE D) EOQ

63) _______________ is a personality trait that can be encouraged and developed by giving people the opportunity and freedom to think in unconventional ways.

A) Creativity B) Persistence C) Self-efficacy D) Locus of control

64)

One of the dimensions of emotional intelligence is _________.

A) self-awareness B) self-control C) self-efficacy D) self-esteem

65)

One of the dimensions of emotional intelligence is _________.

A) relationship management B) realism management C) relational reasoning D) relational-efficacy

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66)

__________ consists of __________ dimensions A) EI, four.

B) EQ, six.

C) Core personality, four.

D) General inductive ability, six.

67)

What are the six core dimensions of diversity?

68)

What is work behavior?

69)

Diversity has six primary dimensions. Age is one dimension. Name the other five.

70)

What are secondary dimensions of diversity?

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71)

What should managers know about generational diversity?

72)

How do Millennials differ from Gen Xers in their expectations for feedback?

73)

Which is more stable over time, a skill or ability? Justify your answer.

74)

How do employees acquire tacit knowledge?

75) According to Robert J. Sternberg, people who develop and use tacit knowledge will increase their chances of success within organizations. The text provides he believes that leaders and managers with practical intelligence tend to do or exhibit five things. What are four of these five?

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76)

List the three components of an attitude.

77)

What is the cognitive component of an attitude?

78) Pay is one of the factors that has been associated with job satisfaction. Name four more of these factors.

79)

What is job satisfaction and how is it impacted by perceptions of fit?

80)

What has research shown regarding worker satisfaction and productivity?

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81)

How is the MBTI typically used?

82)

Name the Big Five personality dimensions that are used to describe human personality.

83) In organizational settings, internals do not require as much supervision as do externals.

Why?

84)

What is EI?

85)

Is there a relationship between EI and career progression? Explain.

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86) Work behavior refers only to activities directly involved in the creation of the work product. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

Daydreaming about being on vacation while on the job is considered a work behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Minorities, which now comprise about 40% of the U.S. population, will become the majority by 2020. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) By midcentury, close to one-quarter of the United States population will be aged 65 or older. ⊚ ⊚

90)

Diversity is a synonym for equal employment opportunity (EEO). ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

true false

Sexual/affectional orientation is not considered a primary dimension of diversity.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Research has found that a commitment to diversity may lead to financial benefits for business. ⊚ ⊚

93)

A "skill" is a learned talent that a person has acquired in order to perform a task. ⊚ ⊚

94)

true false

Attitudes define one's predispositions toward given aspects of the world. ⊚ ⊚

96)

true false

A person's ability is generally stable over time. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

true false

Individuals are born with certain innate attitudes. ⊚ ⊚

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97) Affect, the emotional component of an attitude, is often learned from parents, teachers, and peer group members. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) People high in openness to experience tend to thrive in occupations where change is continuous and where innovation is critical. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) While affecting overall satisfaction, the extent to which co-workers are friendly, competent, and supportive is generally not thought to be an element of job satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Most studies dealing with the performance-satisfaction relationship have found a high association between performance and satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Managerial attempts to make everyone satisfied will always yield high levels of productivity. ⊚ ⊚

102)

true false

Generation Z is comprised of those born in the mid-1990s.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Attitudes are a relatively stable set of feelings and behaviors that have been significantly formed by genetic and environmental factors. ⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

Personality is, to some degree, observable and measurable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Research indicates that extroverted people tend to have higher levels of overall job satisfaction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Using only the scores on a personality test to make selection choices will often lead to misalignment and poor person-job but is generally effective in determining person-organization fit. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) Agreeableness is the tendency to experience positive emotional states, such as feeling psychologically secure, calm, and relaxed. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

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108) Employees who are low in emotional stability tend to be sloppy, inefficient, careless, and even lazy. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) Research findings concerning the relationships among the Big Five dimensions and job performance have been limited to studies conducted in the United States. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) In relation to locus of control, people who believe they are performing well because of their effort or skill are called internals. ⊚ ⊚

111)

true false

Self-esteem relates to personal beliefs regarding competencies and abilities. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Imagination is a personality trait that involves the ability to break away from habit-bound thinking and produce novel and useful ideas. ⊚ ⊚

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113)

Managing emotions in order to perform one’s job is called emotional intelligence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Emotional labor is the ability to manage one’s own and others’ emotions in order to guide one’s behavior and achieve goals. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 03_12_ Konopaskee 12) C 13) D 14) B 15) B 16) A 17) C 18) B 19) A 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) A 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) C 28) D 29) A 30) C 31) A 32) B 33) D 34) C 35) B 36) A 37) C Version 1

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38) B 39) A 40) A 41) A 42) B 43) A 44) A 45) B 46) A 47) B 48) D 49) D 50) C 51) D 52) B 53) C 54) D 55) A 56) B 57) D 58) D 59) A 60) D 61) A 62) A 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) A 86) FALSE Version 1

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87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) FALSE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE 111) FALSE 112) FALSE 113) FALSE 114) FALSE

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CHAPTER 4 1)

Identify and briefly describe the laws of perceptional grouping.

2)

How do management expectations impact worker performance?

3)

What are schemas? Identify four common schemas used by managers.

4)

How are the terms stereotyping, prejudice, and scapegoating related?

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5)

Describe the impression management tactics were identified by Jones and Pittman?

6) Explain how impression management techniques might be used by a job candidate during an interview. Discuss at least three tactics. Is using impression management techniques ethical?

7) How one person views __________ is often quite different than someone else's perceptions.

A) the environment B) the environment and trends C) trends and people D) the environment, trends, and people

8)

According to Drucker, the U.S. imports _________ as many jobs as are exported.

A) less than 2% B) less than 50% C) just D) twice or three times

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9) Perception is defined as the process by which an individual _______________ to environmental stimuli.

A) selects B) selects and organizes C) gives meaning D) selects, organizes, and gives meaning

10)

Which of the following represent the correct sequence of the Perception Process?

A) Stimuli, observation, selection, translation, response B) Stimuli, selection, translation, observation, response C) Stimuli, observation, translation, selection, response D) Stimuli, translation, response

11)

Stereotyping occurs in the ______ phase of the perception process.

A) observation B) selection C) translation D) response

12)

The _____ phase of the perceptual process immediately precedes the translation step.

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A) observation B) selection C) translation D) response

13)

Individuals make sense of environmental stimuli through _________.

A) stimulus, observation, selection, translation, and response B) selection, translation, observation, and response C) observation, selection, and translation D) stimulus, translation, and response

14) A self-fulfilling prophecy that causes a person to behave in a negative manner to meet expectations is called the ________ effect.

A) pattern B) ghoul C) Golem D) Pygmalion

15) A parent who expects her child to behave properly can subtly influence the child's behavior so that the mother's expectations are met. This is known as the _______________ effect.

A) Pygmalion B) Drucker C) Golem D) halo

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16) The law of _______________ states that all other things being equal, stimuli that are near each other tend to be grouped together.

A) closure B) nearness C) similarity D) figure and ground

17) A self-fulfilling prophecy that causes a person to behave in a positive manner to meet expectations is called the ________ effect.

A) Hawthorne B) Positive Projection C) Golem D) Pygmalion

18) All other things being equal, stimuli that are near each other tend to be grouped together.

This is referred to as the law of __________.

A) nearness B) similarity C) grouping D) assemblage

19) According to the law of __________, stimuli that are similar in size, color, shape, or form tend to be grouped together.

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A) nearness B) similarity C) closure D) figure and ground

20) A student is presented with a picture that contains a collection of black spots on a white background. The student perceives that the picture is of a Dalmatian (a spotted dog). This may be an example of the law of ____________.

A) nearness B) similarity C) closure D) figure and ground

21) The law of __________ reflects the tendency to group sensations into figures and backgrounds.

A) nearness B) similarity C) closure D) figure and ground

22) Coach Smith is told one of his new players is a slacker and a trouble maker. The coach immediately treats that player in a dismissive manner and the player indeed turns out to be a marginal performer. This example shows the __________ effect.

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A) Pygmalion B) Golem C) closure D) projection

23) Coach Smith is told one of his new players is a gifted athlete. The coach immediately focuses on that player and spends additional time helping him develop his skills. As the coach expected, the player turned out to be an excellent addition to the team. This example shows the __________ effect.

A) Pygmalion B) Golem C) closure D) projection

24)

The _______ effect is a form of self-fulfilling prophecy.

A) Pygmalion B) halo C) Drucker D) Stillman

25)

Which schema would a manager most likely use when interviewing job applicants?

A) Events-based B) Self-based C) Role-based D) Person-based

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26) A department manager has a job opening that involves lots of travel. He doesn't mention it to the women in the department because he assumes that women don't want to be away from their families. Which schema is the manager applying?

A) Events-based B) Self-based C) Role-based D) Person-based

27) Bob has to conduct a performance review two days from now. He has written a script of sorts for the session and has been rehearsing its delivery. Which schema is Bob using?

A) Events-based B) Self-based C) Role-based D) Person-based

28) Joe will not assign employees over 50 to his international project team because as he says, "Old people don't have enough energy to travel around the world overseeing various projects." Joe may be applying a(n) _____________ schema.

A) person-based B) role-based C) self-based D) events-based

29) When managers allow generalizations about their own prowess, competencies, and preferences based on a current or previous experience influence perceptions, they are using a(n) ___________ schema.

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A) person-based B) experience-based C) self-based D) events-based

30) When managers employ a profile schema of the characteristics of good, poor, and outstanding employees, they are using a(n) _________ schema to compare present employees and job candidates.

A) person-based B) role-based C) self-based D) events-based

31)

Perceptual groupings ____ create inaccuracies.

A) always B) can C) rarely D) never

32) When managers are overly focused on one issue or are busy multitasking, they will tend to perceive less information and rely more on stereotypes. This may be an example of __________ decreasing the manager's effectiveness.

A) directed attention B) attention distribution C) divided attention D) attention maximization

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33) Psychologists refer to selective attentiveness as a __________ in the information channel linking the senses to perception.

A) conscious metering process B) flow of information error C) decision enhancement strategy D) bottleneck or narrowing

34) ________________ occurs when a person must divide his or her mental efforts among tasks, each of which requires some amount of attention (multitasking).

A) Selective attention B) Divided attention C) Attention prioritization D) Unbalanced attention

35) Jack is completing Mike's annual performance evaluation. Mike always is in the office first and has the coffee ready for Jack when he comes in. Jack smiles thinking what a great employee Mike is for going to the extra effort and getting in early. With little thought, Jack ranks Mike high on all performance categories. Jack's rankings may have been impacted by the _______ effect.

A) Golem B) kinesics C) coffee D) halo

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36) Jack is completing Mike's initial performance evaluation. Although Jack graduated 20 years prior, he and Mike have had frequent conversations about their mutual alma mater and their love of water polo. Even with a 20-year gap, Jack and Mike still had some of the same professors, and they have discussed how Dr. Ortiz, in particular, guided them in their academic careers. Jack smiles, thinking how his school experience helped equip him for a successful career. While Mike’s performance has been generally less than stellar, with little thought, Jack ranks Mike high on all performance categories. Jack's rankings may have been impacted by ___________ error.

A) halo B) Pygmalion C) Alma Mater D) similar-to-me perception

37) The press of time, the attitudes of the people you work with, and other situational factors all influence perceptual _______________.

A) accuracy B) attitudes C) reality D) dissonance

38)

Attribution theory attempts to explain the __________ of behavior.

A) who B) what C) where D) why

39)

According to attribution theory, it is the __________, that influence people’s behavior.

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A) actual events B) perceived causes of events, and the actual events themselves C) perceived causes of events, not the actual events themselves D) perceived difficulty of the follow-up that an actual event requires

40)

Research on "similar to me" perception suggests all of the following except: A) Knowing oneself makes it easier to see others accurately.

B) One's own characteristics affect the characteristics identified in others.

C) Knowing others makes it easier to identify faults in oneself.

D) Persons who accept themselves are more likely to see favorable aspects of others.

41) Mike discovers in the interview process that he and Rob, although years apart, went to the same school, were the same major, and even played the same position on the school's polo team. Mike "knows" that these activities have made him the successful manager he is today and hires Rob on the spot. The hiring of Rob is an example of ___________.

A) Golem error B) similar-to-me error C) self-serving bias D) the halo effect

42) Carlos is being pressed to complete an assignment on time, and in order to accomplish that goal is overlooking certain details and ignoring requests from other managers. This is an example of __________ factors impacting perceptual accuracy.

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A) situational B) kinesics C) halo D) Golem

43) The behavior of others can be examined on the basis of its distinctiveness, consistency, and _______________.

A) consensus B) intensity C) frequency D) validity

44) Referring to the attribution process, __________ is the degree to which a person behaves similarly in different situations.

A) distinctiveness B) consistency C) frequency D) consensus

45) Referring to the attribution process, __________ is the degree to which a person engages in the same behaviors at different times.

A) distinctiveness B) consistency C) frequency D) consensus

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46) Referring to the attribution process, __________ is the degree to which other people are engaging in the same behavior.

A) conformability B) consistency C) frequency D) consensus

47) A shop floor supervisor attributes a high injury rate to employee carelessness and does not even consider the possibility that the injuries may be the result of the equipment being in poor repair. This is an example of the ______ error.

A) Theory X B) situational attribution C) fundamental bias D) fundamental attribution

48) Joe has a tendency to assume that events occur due to items outside of the individual's control. This is ______ attribution.

A) an internal B) a high loci C) an external D) a fundamental

49) Mike has a tendency to underestimate the importance of external factors and overestimate the importance of internal factors when making attributions regarding the behavior of others.

This is an example of the _________ attribution error.

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A) internal B) self-serving C) fundamental D) mixed loci

50) Mike received two test grades back. When he shares the results, he states that he studied harder than everyone else in the class to earn the "A." When talking about the test he scored a "C" on, Mike explains it away by saying the test was too long for the time allotted. Mike's statements are an example of ______ bias.

A) fundamental B) self-serving C) mixed loci D) internal

51) Managers manage __________ by how they talk, their overall style, their office location and furniture, and even by the individuals they select as employees.

A) personal halos B) perceptual accuracy C) their personal attributions D) impressions of themselves

52) The self-serving bias leads us to conclude when we succeed that our success was _______________.

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A) due to factors beyond our control B) a result of our outstanding efforts C) a one-time event D) due to the assistance of others

53) It has been proposed that impression management is a kind of theatrical process. As such, the term __________ is used to describe impression management situations.

A) staging B) acting C) theatrics D) dramatizing

54) With _______________, individuals seek to be viewed as dedicated by going above and beyond the call of duty.

A) exemplification B) supplication C) ingratiation D) self-promotion

55)

_______ proposed that impression management is a theatrical process.

A) Jones and Pittman B) Golem C) Drucker D) Goffman

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56) Jane pretends she does not know how to prepare a presentation in order to get her teammate to do the work. This is an example of the __________ impression management tactic.

A) exemplification B) supplication C) ingratiation D) self-promotion

57) Which of the following impression management techniques do job applicants use most often?

A) Self-promotion B) Excuses C) Opinion conformity D) Justifications

58) "We lost over 30 percent of the market, but the economy went sour for everyone" would be an example of a job applicant using the _____________ tactic of impression management.

A) externalizing B) excuses C) overcoming obstacles D) justifications

59) A manager claiming responsibility for successful past events, such as "My work led to a large sale," is an example of:

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A) Self-proclamation.

B) Personal stories.

C) Entitlements.

D) Justifications.

60) A job applicant making comments that compliment the interviewer, such as "I've been so impressed with your work," is an example of: A) Self-promotion.

B) Opinion conformity.

C) Enhancement of another.

D) Justifications.

61) Joe wishes to be thought of as dedicated and goes above and beyond the call of duty. This is an example of the __________ impression management tactic.

A) exemplification B) supplication C) ingratiation D) self-promotion

62) Applying the Jones and Pittman research, a person acting in ways in order to appear powerful is using the ________ impression management tactic.

A) intimidation B) supplication C) ingratiation D) self-promotion

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63)

According to _______, individuals engage in five impression management techniques.

A) Golem B) Goffman C) Jones and Pittman D) Shaffer

64) Dean Jones sees that every student in a Management class received an "A." She assumes that the class must have been too easy because students don't work hard. This is an example of __________________.

A) an internal error B) a high loci bias C) self-serving bias D) a fundamental attribution error

65) Terry is conducting her first interview. She has never been formally trained in the process. Why may she rate a candidate that engages in the same hobby as she does above another similarly qualified applicant?

66) What is the Golem effect? What should managers do to decrease the chance a Golem perspective may impact the performance of their team?

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67) Once relevant stimuli are selected, individuals categorize and group them so that they make sense. There are four general laws that apply. List these laws.

68)

Describe the Pygmalion effect.

69)

What is the difference between the Pygmalion and Golem effects?

70)

How can managers use "schemas" to reduce perceptual inaccuracies?

71)

What perceptual inaccuracies might "schemas" introduce?

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72) Like everyone, managers use schemas to make better sense of information. List three of the schemas discussed in the text.

73)

What "laws" help determine how information is perceived?

74)

Define the term "prejudice."

75)

What is scapegoating?

76)

Can stereotypes and prejudice be helpful?

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77)

What is the difference between selective attention and divided attention?

78)

What is the halo effect?

79) An interviewer uses himself as the standard against which job candidates are compared.

Describe the perceptional error that the situation exemplifies.

80) Explain what the fundamental attribution error is and then describe a situation in which it occurs.

81) Explain how self-serving-bias differs from the fundamental attribution error. Provide an example of each.

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82) Jones and Pitman suggested that individuals engage in five impression management tactics. List these tactics.

83) Some employees go out of their way to create a bad impression of themselves. Why would they do such a thing, and what do they hope to gain?

84) Different individuals will perceive the same thing in different ways because each gives his or her own meaning to stimuli. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) The stimuli that a person focuses on are based on what he or she chooses to pay attention to at a particular moment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Peter Drucker's perception is that the United States is exporting low-skill, low-paying jobs and importing high-skill, high-paying jobs.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

87) If interviewers rate candidates who are similar in appearance, background, and interests higher than candidates who are dissimilar, they are making a "self-promotion" perception error. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

Self-promotion is an IM tactic explained as describing the past in a puffed-up way. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Subordinates recognize the frequency they receive rewards for good performance at the same level as their supervisors feel they offer them. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

The Golem effect starts with an expectation of negative performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) The Hawthorne effect is a form of self-fulfilling prophecy that starts with an expectation of positive performance. ⊚ ⊚

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92)

The Halo effect starts with an expectation of positive performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) A manager has a responsibility to manage within a framework that permits perceptual differences to be voiced without fear or impatience. ⊚ ⊚

94)

Schemas typically inhibit management sense making of information. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

true false

Stereotyping is never productive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) At times, prejudice can be traced to direct experiences with members of the rejected group. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

Stereotyping and prejudice are equivalent terms.

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⊚ ⊚

98)

true false

Stereotypes are frequently based on little or inaccurate information. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Research has found that attractive women in management receive higher performance reviews and pay raises than do attractive women in non-managerial positions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) According to attribution theory, it is the event itself, not the perceived cause of the event, that influences a person's behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Managers perceiving the behavior and individual differences of employees are often influenced by their own traits. ⊚ ⊚

102)

true false

A manager who is a perfectionist tends to look for perfection in subordinates. ⊚ ⊚

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true false

26

103) Consistency is the degree to which a person engages in the same behaviors at different times. ⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

Distinctiveness is the degree to which a person behaves similarly in different situations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Attributions made regarding why events took place have important implications for dealing with the problem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Attribution theory views the process by which individuals interpret events around them as being caused by (attributed to) a relatively dynamic portion of their environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) When one is using the IM tactic of ingratiation, they seek to be viewed positively by flattering others or offering to do favors for them. ⊚ ⊚

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108) Organizations that interact heavily with the public always engage in impression management. ⊚ ⊚

109)

true false

Employees may attempt to create a bad impression as an expression of power. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) Hiring managers can help limit issues such as the "halo effect" by using unstructured interviews. ⊚ ⊚

111)

true false

Attributions made by management frequently different than those made by employees. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) The law of figure and ground states that all other things being equal, stimuli that are near each other tend to be grouped together. ⊚ ⊚

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28

Answer Key Test name: Chap 04_12_ Konopaskee 7) D 8) D 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) C 15) A 16) B 17) D 18) A 19) B 20) C 21) D 22) B 23) A 24) A 25) D 26) C 27) A 28) B 29) C 30) A 31) B 32) C Version 1

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33) D 34) B 35) D 36) D 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) B 42) A 43) A 44) A 45) B 46) D 47) D 48) C 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) B 53) D 54) A 55) D 56) B 57) A 58) D 59) C 60) C 61) A 62) A Version 1

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63) C 64) D 84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE Version 1

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112) FALSE

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CHAPTER 5 1) Motivation is just one of several factors that influence productivity. What other factors were discussed in the text? What is the relationship between these factors and motivation?

2)

What are the components of motivation and which is most important?

3) If you were an organizational consultant, which content theories would you use to explain motivation?

4)

How do Alderfer's ERG theory and Maslow's need hierarchy differ?

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5)

Would you advise organizations to focus on extrinsic or intrinsic motivation? Explain.

6) Why do Salancik and Pfeffer believe that need models, such as Maslow's and Alderfer's, have become so popular?

7) Relate Herzberg's theory to organizational design. In your explanation connect the theory to the components of motivation.

8) What role does perception play in determining whether an employee is receiving equitable treatment?

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9) Is there a psychological contract between the students enrolled in this course and the instructor? What are some of the specifics of this contract? How was the contract determined?

10)

Should organizations manage the psychological contract?

11) The text suggests that managers must take an active role in motivating their employees and offers four specific conclusions. What are three of these conclusions?

12) The _______________ component of motivation refers to the strength of the response once the choice is made.

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A) direction B) intensity C) opportunity D) persistence

13) The __________ component of motivation refers to what an individual chooses to do when presented with a number of possible alternative courses of action.

A) direction B) intensity C) opportunity D) persistence

14) Taking a lunch break and getting a drink of water are examples of a _______________ need.

A) physiological B) psychological C) sociological D) Maslowian

15) _______________ is the founder of the theory that states that conscious goals and intentions are the determinants of behavior.

A) Maslow B) Alderfer C) Locke D) McClelland

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16)

Joining the bowling team to make friends is a _______________ need.

A) physiological B) psychological C) sociological D) Maslowian

17) A study of 4,000 employees found three main areas affect employee motivation. These areas include all of the following except: A) Organizational issues.

B) Interpersonal issues.

C) Leader issues.

D) Job issues.

18) The content theories of motivation focus on the factors within the person that __________ behavior.

A) directs and reinforces B) directs, intensifies, and reinforces C) energize, direct, and sustain D) energize, direct, sustain, and stop

19)

Which of the following is highest on Maslow's hierarchy of needs?

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A) Safety and security B) Esteem C) Physiological needs D) Self-actualization

20) The "growth" need within Alderfer's ERG theory is similar to Maslow's __________ category.

A) esteem B) self-esteem C) self-fulfillment D) physiological

21) What basic assumption about people did Maslow make that caused him to believe that they would constantly move up the needs hierarchy?

A) People are natural leaders.

B) People will always have obligations to meet.

C) People believe in things that are more important than themselves.

D) People have a need to grow and develop.

22)

Which of the following is an example of Maslow's self-actualization?

A) Developing and mentoring others B) Receiving a high-level promotion C) Having a supportive supervisor D) Receiving regular salary increases

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23)

Which of the following is an example of Maslow's esteem?

A) Developing and mentoring others B) Starting a charity that helps children C) Receiving regular salary increases D) Receiving a high-level promotion

24) Porter, when testing Maslow's hierarchy, assumed that physiological needs were being adequately satisfied for managers, so he substituted a higher-order need called __________.

A) autonomy B) achievement C) intellectual satisfaction D) spirituality

25)

The sets of needs proposed by Alderfer's ERG theory include all of the following except: A) Ego B) Existence C) Relatedness D) Growth

26) Alderfer's ERG theory suggests that, in addition to the satisfaction-progression process that Maslow proposed, a _______________ process is also at work.

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A) frustration-regression B) frustration-anger C) progression-regression D) progression-growth

27)

According to Herzberg, which of the following is a motivator?

A) Working conditions B) Achievement C) Salary D) Quality of technical supervision

28)

According to Herzberg, which of the following is a hygiene factor?

A) Status B) Achievement C) Recognition D) Advancement

29) Job _______________ is defined as the process of building personal achievement, recognition, challenge, responsibility, and growth opportunities into a person's job.

A) enrichment B) enlargement C) creation D) opportunity

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30) Although Herzberg's motivation theory is popular, it has been criticized for all of the following reasons except: A) It over-simplifies the nature of job satisfaction.

B) No self-reports of performance were used.

C) It requires people to look at themselves retrospectively.

D) The motivational and performance consequences of the theory are untested.

31)

Herzberg’s model assumes that job satisfaction is _________ concept.

A) not a unidimensional B) a unidimensional C) a hierarchical D) a multi-directional

32) Procedural justice has been shown to have a positive impact on all of the following except __________.

A) organizational commitment B) work effort C) organizational citizenship D) egalitarianism orientation

33)

Herzberg's model basically assumes that job satisfaction is _______________ concept.

A) a three-dimensional B) a five-level C) not a unidimensional D) an omnidirectional

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34) McClelland's learned needs theory is based on three needs: the need for achievement, the need for affiliation, and the need for _______________.

A) identification B) resolution C) power D) wealth

35) A high need for _______________ can be traced to a history of receiving rewards for sociable, dominant, or inspirational behavior.

A) affiliation B) power C) both affiliation and power D) both achievement and power

36)

Which of the following statements best reflects Maslow's theory?

A) People attempt to satisfy basic needs before trying to satisfying higher-level needs.

B) The need hierarchy is comprised of existence, relatedness, and growth.

C) A person who is continually frustrated in satisfying one level of need will regress to the next lowest level need.

D) The theory is largely supported by research.

37) The content theories presented in the text focus mainly on the needs and incentives that energizes or triggers _______________.

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A) behavior B) motivation C) leadership D) satisfaction

38)

Which of the following statements best reflects Herzberg's theory?

A) The need hierarchy is comprised of existence, relatedness, and growth B) A person who is continually frustrated in satisfying one level of need will regress to the next lowest level need C) Some individuals have a high need for achievement D) Two sets of factors affect motivation: motivators and hygiene factors

39)

Which of the following statements best reflects McClelland's theory?

A) A person who is continually frustrated in satisfying one level of need will regress to the next lowest level need.

B) Two sets of factors affect motivation: motivators and hygiene factors.

C) Some individuals have a high need for achievement.

D) People attempt to satisfy basic needs before trying to satisfying higher-level needs.

40) The process theories of motivation are concerned with answering the question of how individual behavior is _______________.

A) energized, directed, and stopped B) energized, directed, and maintained C) directed, maintained, and stopped D) energized, directed, maintained, and stopped

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41) Vroom defines _______________ as a process governing choices among alternative forms of voluntary activity.

A) motivation B) recognition C) achievement D) relatedness

42) In Vroom's view, most behaviors are considered to be _______ the employee and consequently __________.

A) under the voluntary control of; need no motivation B) forced on; are motivated C) under the voluntary control of; are motivated D) forced on; need no motivation

43)

__________ refers to the preferences for outcomes as seen by the individual.

A) Instrumentality B) Valence C) Expectancy D) Intensity

44) _______________ refers to an individual's belief regarding the likelihood that a particular behavior will be followed by a particular outcome.

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A) Instrumentality B) Valence C) Expectancy D) Equity

45) The essence of ________ theory is that employees compare their job inputs and outputs with those of others in similar work situations.

A) ratio B) equity C) input D) comparison

46)

Most research on equity theory has focused on _______________ as the basic outcome.

A) job titles B) pay C) satisfaction D) motivation

47) _______________ refers to the perceived equity or fairness of the organizational processes and procedures used to make resource and allocation decisions.

A) Distributive justice B) Organizational justice C) Inequity D) Procedural justice

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48)

Procedural justice has a positive effect on all of the following except: A) Organizational commitment.

B) Getting along with others.

C) Trust in superiors.

D) Work effort.

49) Two explanations have emerged regarding why procedural justice works. They are __________ A) bureaucratic theory and equity theory B) bureaucratic theory and group value theory C) self-interest theory and equity theory D) self-interest theory and group value theory

50) _________ justice refers to the perceived fairness of how resources and rewards are distributed throughout an organization.

A) Perceived B) Organizational C) Procedural D) Distributive

51)

_________ justice is the degree to which individuals feel fairly treated in the workplace.

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A) Perceived B) Organizational C) Distributive D) Reward

52)

There are ____ components of organizational justice.

A) two B) three C) four D) five

53) Employees who experienced bullying and incivility at work were more likely to experience all of the following except: A) Lower life satisfaction.

B) Increased desire for informational justice.

C) Lower organizational commitment.

D) Conflict between work and family.

54) _________ justice refers to judgments made by employees about whether they feel fairly treated by their supervisors and other authorities in the organization.

A) Interpersonal B) Organizational C) Distributive D) Reward

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55) ______________ justice focuses on whether employees perceive that decisions and other communication from authorities are explained in a fair manner.

A) Cognitive B) Distributive C) Informational D) Communications

56)

Locke's goal theory highlights all of the following except: A) Goal specificity.

B) Goal intensity.

C) Goal equity.

D) Goal difficulty.

57)

Goal _________ is defined as the degree of quantitative precision of the goal.

A) specificity B) clarity C) objectiveness D) direction

58)

Goal _________ is defined as process of setting a goal or of determining how to reach it.

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A) intensity B) situating C) orienting D) direction

59) All of the following are suggested ways to promote high levels of informational justice during turbulent times except: A) Informal "chats" by top managers, whether in person or via e-mail or videoconference B) Talk about bad news in a way that makes it seem more acceptable than it is C) Don’t sugarcoat bad news D) Set specific timeframes for delivering progress reports to employees

60) Mike is putting forth an extreme effort to accomplish a goal. Based upon this statement, we can say Mike has _______.

A) high goal commitment B) high goal intensity C) high goal drive D) high goal-esteem

61) In a very general sense, ____________ theory suggests that members of an organization engage in reasonably predictable give-and-take relationships (exchanges) with each other the organization.

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A) equity B) exchange C) distribution D) relationship

62) The ________________ is an unwritten agreement between the individual and the organization that specifies what each expects to give to and receive from the other.

A) exchange contract B) psychological contract C) psychological equation D) relationship covenant

63) A psychological contract __________ occurs when an employee perceives that the organization has failed to fulfill an unwritten exchange agreement.

A) breach B) breakdown C) disagreement D) disaccord

64) Looking at motivation from a content theory approach, the psychological contract suggests that, in return for time, effort, and other considerations, individuals want to receive: A) Need gratification B) Information equity C) Motivation D) Job satisfaction

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65) _______________ is/are individual-oriented, in that they place primary emphasis on the characteristics of people.

A) Content theories B) Expectancy theory C) Equity theory D) Process theories

66) ____________ theory emphasizes the cognitive processes and the role of intentional behavior in motivation.

A) Cognitive B) Equity C) Goal-setting D) Intentional

67)

Which of the following is considered a content theory?

A) Maslow: five-level need hierarchy B) Vroom: an expectancy theory of choices C) Locke: goal-setting theory that conscious goals and intentions are the determinants of behavior D) Herzberg: two-level theory

68)

Which of the following is considered a process theory?

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A) Maslow: need hierarchy B) Vroom: an expectancy theory C) Alderfer: ERG theory D) Herzberg: two-level theory

69)

Motivation is made up of all the following "components" except: A) Direction.

B) Intensity.

C) Opportunity.

D) Persistence.

70) Needs refer to deficiencies an individual experiences at a particular time. List the three broad categories are typically used to characterize these deficiencies.

71) How are psychological and sociological deficiencies different? Provide an example of each.

72)

The text presents four content theories of motivation. What are they?

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73) Applying Maslow's theory, why might an employee's unsatisfied need present a problem to management?

74)

Maslow identified five needs and arranged them into a hierarchy. Identify the needs.

75)

What are the basic assumptions regarding needs in Maslow's theory?

76)

What needs are associated with Alderfer's ERG Theory?

77) Provide three examples of what would be considered hygiene factors within the twofactor approach to motivation.

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78)

What is the basic assumption of Herzberg's model?

79) Assume that you feel you are being treated unfairly, compared to your coworkers.

Identify four ways that you can restore a feeling or sense of equity.

80)

What are the four components of research into organizational justice?

81)

What are the four most important components of expectancy theory?

82) In a random telephone survey of 1,000 working adults in the United States, almost half of respondents reported working for an abusive supervisor at one time or another. List five workplace behaviors that would have been considered abusive, intimidating, or threatening.

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83)

What is the essence of equity theory?

84)

What is the general concept behind exchange theory?

85)

What is a psychological contract?

86) While some aspects of an employment relationship, such as pay and standard work hours, may be explicitly stated, while others are not. Name three aspects of an employment relationship that are not generally spelled out, but implied.

87)

Persistence is an important component of motivation.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Intensity refers to the staying power of behavior, or how long a person will continue to devote effort. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) Motivation refers to the staying power of behavior, or how long a person will continue to devote effort. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) The process theories of motivation focus on the factors within the person that energize, direct, sustain, and stop behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) A critical point in understanding Maslow's thinking is that from a managerial perspective, unsatisfied needs are dangerous because they may lead to undesirable performance outcomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) Unlike the ERG model, Maslow's theory allows for a regression cycle where a satisfied need can continue to motivate. ⊚ ⊚ Version 1

true false 24

93) Autonomy means having your manager make decisions on your behalf and closely monitoring your work. ⊚ ⊚

94)

Referring to Alderfer’s theory, ERG stands for energize, regression, and growth. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

true false

As managers advance in an organization, their need for security increases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) Herzberg's two-factor theory states that dissatisfiers or hygiene factors are needed to maintain at least a level of "no dissatisfaction." ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Content approaches to motivation include: Maslow's need hierarchy, McClelland's ERG theory, Herzberg's two-factor theory, and Alderfer's learned needs theory. ⊚ ⊚

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98) McClelland contends that when a need is strong, it motivates a person to use behavior that leads to its repetition. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

McClelland's theory of motivation places emphasis on socially acceptable behavior. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) MClelland’s need theory originally emphasized three needs but was later expanded to include five. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Schein suggests that the degree to which employees are willing to exert effort, commit to organizational goals, and derive satisfaction from their work depends on two conditions, both of which are mutual expectations regarding exchanges. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Managing the psychological contract successfully is one of the more important and challenging aspects of a manager's job. ⊚ ⊚

true false

103) The notion of inputs and outcomes within equity theory is the exact opposite of the notion of giving and receiving in the psychological contract.

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⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

The valence associated with an outcome is by definition always positive. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) According to Locke, individuals are likely to adjust their idea of what constitutes an equitable payment in order to justify their pay. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Organizational justice is the perceived fairness of how resources and rewards are distributed throughout an organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) Group value theory suggests that fair group procedures are considered to be a sign of respect and thus produce an increased sense of self-esteem. ⊚ ⊚

true false

108) Companies that engage in layoffs may find that many "survivors" of the layoffs end up voluntarily leaving the company as well. ⊚ ⊚

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109) Goal-setting theory emphasizes the importance of unconscious goals in explaining motivated behavior. ⊚ ⊚

110)

It is important for any goal to be clear, meaningful, and unique. ⊚ ⊚

111)

true false

true false

Vague goals, such as "do your best," lead to higher output than do specific goals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Personality and personal health are individual differences should be considered when implementing goal-setting programs. ⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

Needs may be viewed as energizers or triggers of behavioral responses. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) When need deficiencies are present, individuals are less susceptible to a manager's motivational efforts.

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⊚ ⊚

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29

Answer Key Test name: Chap 05_12_ Konopaskee 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) C 16) C 17) B 18) D 19) D 20) A 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) A 25) A 26) A 27) B 28) A 29) A 30) B 31) A 32) D 33) C 34) C 35) C 36) A 37) A Version 1

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38) D 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) C 43) B 44) A 45) B 46) B 47) D 48) B 49) D 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) A 55) C 56) C 57) A 58) A 59) B 60) A 61) B 62) B 63) A 64) A 65) A 66) C 67) A Version 1

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68) A 69) C 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) FALSE 112) TRUE 113) TRUE 114) FALSE Version 1

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CHAPTER 6 1)

Describe the background and the significance of QWL.

2)

Describe the General Model of Job Design.

3)

Job performance includes a number of outcomes; describe these outcomes.

4)

Describe the RTAI and its uses.

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5) Describe the primary differences between relative advantages of job enlargement and job enrichment.

6) What actions would you suggest to management in order to facilitate greater opportunities for employee discretion?

7)

Describe how job enrichment may necessitate changes in management behavior.

8)

How do Six Sigma and TQM relate to each other?

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9) Discuss how sociotechnical design and total quality management have been reported in the literature.

10) The impetus for designing job depth was provided by _____________ theory of motivation.

A) Vroom's B) Locke's C) Maslow's hierarchy D) Herzberg's two-factor

11) The concept of quality of work life (QWL) is widely used to refer to a philosophy of management that does all of the following except: A) Streamlines and standardizes the job.

B) Enhances the dignity of all workers.

C) Introduces changes in an organization's culture.

D) Improves the physical and emotional well-being of employees.

12)

Job design attempts to ______________.

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A) identify the most important needs of employers and organization B) remove employees in the workplace that frustrate the needs of the organization and employees C) match applicants to positions D) implement bureaucratic control

13)

Perceived job content is influenced by: A) Job design and social setting differences B) Job design and individual differences C) Individual differences and social setting differences D) Job design, individual differences, and social setting differences

14)

According to the "General Model of Job Design," job performance is influenced by A) perceived job content.

B) personalized job content.

C) extra-organizational job content.

D) bureaucratic control.

15)

All of the following are typically thought of as "objective" measures except: A) Output.

B) Tardiness.

C) Turnover.

D) Job satisfaction.

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16) Contemporary job design theory defines intrinsic motivation in terms of the employee's _______________ to achieve outcomes from the application of individual ability and talent.

A) potential B) empowerment C) incentives D) directives

17)

All of the following are considered extrinsic outcomes of a job except: A) Pay. B) Co-workers.

C) Feeling challenged.

D) Working conditions.

18)

Job performance is a __________ variable.

A) objective B) subjective C) lineal D) complex

19) Job __________ has been defined as the feelings beliefs and attitudes that employees have regarding their jobs.

A) satisfaction B) depth C) joy D) EQ

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20) An individual who executes eight tasks to perform a job has a wider job _______ than a person executing four.

A) specification B) range C) diversity D) richness

21) Miguel's position requires the use of more discretion than Jack's. Miguel's position could be characterized as having greater job _______.

A) depth B) range C) diversity D) "Q"

22) An employee with the same job title who's at the same organizational level as another employee may possess __________ job depth because of personal influence.

A) more B) less C) more but not less D) more, less, or about the same

23)

Job designs specify all of the following job characteristics except:

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A) Range.

B) Depth.

C) Relationships.

D) Elemental motions.

24)

Which of the following jobs would have the highest job depth?

A) Assembly-line worker B) Bookkeeper C) Chief of surgery D) Anaesthesiologist

25) A management initiative is increasing the number of tasks jobholders perform.

Management is increasing _________.

A) job range B) job depth C) task diversity D) task range

26) A management initiative is increasing the amount of discretion individuals have to decide job activities and outcomes. Management is increasing _________.

A) job range B) job depth C) task diversity D) task range

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27) There are ____________ precise equations that managers can use to decide job range and depth.

A) multiple B) specific C) no D) three

28)

A position with a wider ______________ means it has more direct reports.

A) job depth B) job span C) span of control D) control depth

29) It is easier for people with _______________ backgrounds, skills, and training to establish social relationships that are satisfying with less stress.

A) university B) heterogeneous C) homogeneous D) dissimilar

30) Individuals who work in __________ departments experience feelings of dissatisfaction and stress more intensely than those in ________, functional departments.

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A) heterogeneous, homogeneous B) homogeneous, heterogeneous C) heterogeneous, heterogenic D) heterogenic, hologynic

31)

Highly specialized jobs are those having all of the following except: A) Few tasks to accomplish B) Job-specific rules C) Job-specific procedures D) Discretion over means and ends

32)

In _______________ departments, people will be doing much the same specialty.

A) customer B) functional C) product D) territory

33)

Job design describes the _________ characteristics of jobs.

A) perceived B) objective C) indispensable D) perceived and objective

34)

Taylor proposed that the way to improve work is to determine _________.

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A) a variety of comparable methods to do a task B) the standard time for the completion of tasks C) incorporate social factors into work design D) All of the responses are correct.

35) The pioneering effort to measure perceived job content through employee responses to a questionnaire resulted in the identification of __________ characteristics.

A) two B) three C) five D) six

36)

Which of the following is not identified as a characteristic within the RTAI framework?

A) knowledge and skill requirements B) required interaction C) autonomy D) training requirements

37)

RTAI is an acronym for _____________.

A) Requisite Task Attribute Index B) Revised Task Attribute Index C) Revised Task and Authority Index D) Relationship Task and Authority Index

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38) Organization behavior researchers have attempted to measure perceived job content in a variety of work settings, primarily through _______________.

A) face-to-face interviews B) observation C) questionnaires D) time and motion studies

39)

Variety, task identity, and feedback are perceptions of job _______________.

A) range B) depth C) relationships D) autonomy

40)

Employees sharing similar _______________ should report similar job characteristics.

A) perceptions B) job designs and perceptions C) social settings, job designs, and perceptions D) social backgrounds and perceptions

41) Managers of Allstate, Boston Consulting Group, Cigna, Deloitte, Goldman Sachs, and MasterCard all utilized different forms of the __________ strategy.

A) job enlargement B) job rotation C) job redesign D) job enhancement

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42) Research studies have pointed out, how one perceives a job is _______ affected by what other people say about it.

A) generally not B) weakly C) inversely D) greatly

43)

A disadvantage of job enlargement is that it __________.

A) may increase employee training periods B) typically leads to neutral to negative change in productivity C) diminishes the work satisfaction of managers D) may increase boredom

44) The pioneering Walker and Guest study was concerned with the __________ problems associated with mass production jobs in automobile assembly plants.

A) perceptions of B) physiological C) social and psychological D) social and physiological

45)

Increasing task variety should, according to recent studies, do all of the following except:

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A) Increase employee satisfaction B) Increase mental overload C) Decrease the number of errors due to fatigue D) Reduce the number of on-the-job injuries

46) If employees are amenable to job enlargement and have the requisite ability, then job enlargement should expect all of the following except __________.

A) increase product quality B) decrease absenteeism C) decrease turnover D) decrease in salary increase requests

47)

Job specialization is generally associated with _______________.

A) a low range and significant depth B) a moderate amount of range and depth C) a low depth and generally low range D) a bimodal relationship between depth and range

48) If employees are able to carry out enriched jobs and managers are willing to delegate authority, performance gains can be expected. This positive outcome is the result of all of the following except: A) Employees' increased expectations that efforts lead to performance.

B) Employees' increased expectations that jobs will be further enriched.

C) Employees' increased expectations that performance lead to rewards.

D) Employees' expectations that the achieved rewards will lead to satisfied needs.

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49) Employees with a strong need for __________ will respond more positively to job redesign efforts than those with relatively weak growth needs.

A) affiliation and challenge B) accomplishment and learning C) affiliation, learning, and challenge D) accomplishment, learning, and challenge

50) Job __________ involves increasing the range of jobs and the perception of variety in the job content.

A) interchange B) enhancement C) sharing D) rotation

51) Job __________ strategies focus upon the opposite of dividing work—they are a form of despecialization.

A) interchange B) enlargement C) sharing D) enticement

52)

In the context of job design, SMT is an acronym for _________.

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A) social media teams B) situationally mediated teams C) self-managed teams D) self-managed tasks

53) When switching from a traditional hierarchy structure to work teams, two notable barriers are resistance and _______________.

A) misunderstanding B) distrust C) increased personnel needs D) insufficient communication

54) The term “common core” is associated with the __________ form of alternative work arrangements.

A) flex-time B) telecommuting C) the compressed workweek D) job sharing

55)

One of the earliest forms of alternative work arrangements was _______________.

A) flex-time B) telecommuting C) the compressed workweek D) job sharing

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56) In a __________ arrangement, employees can determine, within some limits, when they work.

A) flex-time B) telecommuting C) compressed workweek D) job sharing

57) A _______________ team relies on interactive technology to work together when separated by physical distance.

A) self-directed B) virtual C) job sharing D) functional

58) Best practice for virtual teams suggests that face-to-face time and team-building exercises should be used _________ to facilitate the development of trust.

A) during the initial periods of team formation B) every meeting C) after teams have solidified D) as conflicts arise

59)

The text presented all of the following as tips for creating a flex-time schedule except:

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A) Survey employees to determine their scheduling needs.

B) Assign manageable workloads.

C) Evaluate flexible arrangements on a regular basis.

D) Assess job performance based on hours worked.

60) Six sigma is a quality standard that specifies a goal of no more than _____ defects per million opportunities.

A) 1 B) 3.4 C) 7.3 D) 10

61)

________________ is a process in which best practices are monitored and adopted.

A) Six sigma B) Benchmarking C) TQA D) Cloning

62) Total quality management (TQM) refers to a(n) _______________ that is dedicated to continuous improvement and the production of high-quality products and services, ultimately resulting in higher levels of customer satisfaction.

A) organizational culture B) job design C) job philosophy D) organized ethos

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63)

Sociotechnical theory and total quality management are __________ approach(es).

A) discordant B) competing C) quite compatible D) essentially the same

64) _____________ theory emphasizes that too great an emphasis on the technical system in the manner of scientific management or too great an emphasis on the social system in the manner of human relations will lead to poor job design.

A) Human relations B) Social impact C) Sociotechnical D) Technical minimization

65)

Name three positive things that a job can provide for an individual.

66)

Contrast job redesign and job design.

67)

Name three workplace indicators of quality of work life.

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68)

Management attempts to do two things when designing a job. What are they?

69)

Describe the concept of QWL.

70)

What are intrinsic job outcomes?

71) Job satisfaction depends on how the job holder perceives two outcomes. What are these outcomes?

72)

What is meant by the terms job range and depth?

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73) Is the level of a person's job depth simply the result of the authority delegated to that person's position?

74) Managers can't understand the causes of job performance without considering workers' individual differences. Name two of those differences.

75) Identify five steps that management can take to increase the core dimensions of a job, which will, in turn, increase task variety, identity, and significance.

76) What are the core dimensions in the job characteristics model? Which dimension do you value most highly now, and why?

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77) Employees who lack either the needed strength or the ability to perform designed jobs may experience a number of negative physiological symptoms or behaviors. Name four of them.

78)

List three or more objective outcomes associated with job performance.

79)

What behavioral outcomes are associated with job performance?

80)

Why is job design sometimes resisted by labor unions?

81)

What is telecommuting?

82)

Flexible work schedules are becoming more popular. Why?

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83) As you understand the idea and practice of total quality management, do you believe that it's relevant to today's American organizations? Explain.

84)

What is the basis sociotechnical theory?

85) The term "job redesign" specifically refers to any instance in which management specifies the duties and responsibilities of a job. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

As used in the text, the term job design refers to a one-time, static process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) Job design attempts to identify the most important needs of the organization but not the employee.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

88) The trade-offs between the gains in human terms from improved quality of work life and the gains in economic terms from revitalization aren't fully known. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) According to the "General Model of Job Design," perceived job content leads to job performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) According to the "General Model of Job Design," job design and individual differences lead to perceived job content that leads to job performance. ⊚ ⊚

91)

Performing a job can sometimes result in health problems for the worker. ⊚ ⊚

92)

true false

true false

Jobs can provide intrinsic or extrinsic outcomes, but not both. ⊚ ⊚

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93) Job satisfaction depends on the levels of intrinsic and extrinsic outcomes and how the jobholder views those outcomes. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) It's generally held that extrinsic rewards reinforce intrinsic rewards in a positive direction when the individual can attribute the source of the extrinsic reward to her own efforts. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Job depth reflects the amount of control that an individual has to alter or influence the job and the surrounding environment. ⊚ ⊚

96) task.

true false

Job depth reflects the number of operations that a job occupant performs to complete a ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Mechanics perform the limited tasks that pertain to repairing and maintaining packaging machines. But they can decide how breakdowns on the packaging machine are to be repaired.

The discretion means the mechanics have relatively high job range. ⊚ ⊚

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98) An employee with the same job title, who is at the same organizational level as another employee, may possess more, less, or the same job depth. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Without the opportunity to communicate, people will be unable to establish cohesive work groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Product, territory, and customer departments are comprised of jobs that are quite similar (homogeneous). ⊚ ⊚

101)

true false

Job designs describe the objective characteristics of jobs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) Managers cannot understand the causes of job performance without considering the social setting in which the job is performed. ⊚ ⊚

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103) Employees with relatively weak higher-order needs are more concerned with performing a variety of tasks than are employees with relatively strong growth needs. ⊚ ⊚

104)

true false

There is a bimodal relationship between performance and task variety. ⊚ ⊚

true false

105) Managers expecting higher performance to result from increased task variety will be disappointed if the jobholders do not have strong growth needs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) Performance will turn down as individuals reach the limits imposed by their abilities and time. ⊚ ⊚

107)

If an individual perceives a job as boring, job performance will suffer. ⊚ ⊚

108)

true false

true false

The relationship between performance and task variety is likely to be linear. ⊚ ⊚

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109)

Job enlargement strategies focus on dividing work into more specialized tasks. ⊚ ⊚

110)

Job enlargement is a necessary precondition for job enrichment. ⊚ ⊚

111)

true false

true false

Job enrichment and job enlargement are competing strategies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

112) Higher-level needs regain importance when the economy moves through periods of recession and high inflation. ⊚ ⊚

113)

true false

Self-managed teams (SMT) represent a job enrichment approach at the group level. ⊚ ⊚

true false

114) Management can expect job design efforts to produce tangible performance improvements virtually upon implementation.

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⊚ ⊚

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28

Answer Key Test name: Chap 06_12_ Konopaskee 10) D 11) A 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) D 16) B 17) C 18) D 19) A 20) B 21) A 22) D 23) D 24) C 25) A 26) B 27) C 28) C 29) C 30) A 31) D 32) B 33) B 34) B 35) D Version 1

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36) D 37) A 38) C 39) A 40) C 41) B 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) D 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) D 51) B 52) C 53) A 54) A 55) C 56) A 57) B 58) A 59) D 60) B 61) B 62) A 63) A 64) C 85) FALSE Version 1

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86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) TRUE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE 111) FALSE 112) FALSE 113) TRUE 114) FALSE

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CHAPTER 7 1) What are the challenges and benefits associated with providing feedback on poor performance?

2)

What are the advantages of multiple-source evaluations, and who should be included?

3)

Summarize Lawler’s conclusions concerning individual satisfaction.

4)

Name five uses of an employee evaluation.

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5) During an economic downturn, a company may institute an across-the-board pay cut rather than lay people off. What are the advantages of such an action?

6)

What intrinsic motivations may be associated with student effort?

7)

What if any actions should be undertaken to address gender-based pay inequity?

8) The text presents that the 5 Rs lack one important element. List the 5 Rs and the suggested addition. Explain the importance of these items when discussing rewards.

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9) What three suggestions can you provide none regarding the administration of a merit pay plan?

10) Rewards that accrue to all individuals simply by virtue of their employment with the organization are called universal or _______________ rewards.

A) territorial B) generic C) impartial D) across-the-board

11) Developing effective evaluation systems is __________ to organizational success as developing effective reward systems.

A) not as critical B) just as critical C) up to two times more critical D) up to three times more critical

12) Which of the following is not considered an employee performance evaluation with a developmental orientation?

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A) Stimulate performance improvement B) Establish supervisor-employee agreement on performance expectations C) Stimulate performance improvement D) Identify high-potential employees

13) Which of the following is not considered an employee performance evaluation with a judgmental orientation?

A) Identify high-potential employees B) Validate the effectiveness of employee selection procedures C) Evaluate previous training programs D) Stimulate performance improvement

14) Employee performance evaluations can be grouped into two broad categories: those with a judgmental orientation and those with a _______________ orientation.

A) training B) remedial C) reinforcement D) developmental

15) In which of the following countries would an employee be the least likely to rebut a performance review?

A) United States B) Saudi Arabia C) Japan D) All of the choices are correct.

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16)

The basic purpose of __________ is to provide information about work performance.

A) evaluation B) reward systems C) human resources D) a Scanlon plan

17) Evaluations with a developmental orientation are more concerned with improving _______________ performance.

A) past B) current C) future D) past and current

18) A good employee evaluation will help the employee understand all of the following except: A) Their position responsibilities.

B) The degree to which work goals have been accomplished.

C) The goals that are associated with the position.

D) The best possible career path.

19)

_______________ occurs when an evaluation does not focus on all aspects of the job.

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A) Contamination B) Deficiency C) Distortion D) Deflection

20) _______________ is the reverse of evaluation deficiency. It occurs when activities that are not part of the job are included in the evaluation.

A) Contamination B) Deficiency C) Distortion D) Expansion

21) _______________ takes place in the evaluation process when an improper emphasis is given to various job elements.

A) Contamination B) Deficiency C) Distortion D) Focus

22) Which of the following comments would be the most likely to bring about performance improvement?

A) You’re doing great.

B) Keep up the good work.

C) You’re too emotional.

D) Please limit your lunch to 1 hour.

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23) Performance evaluation feedback can be _________________ to the receiver (the evaluated person).

A) instructional and ascendant B) motivational and inconspicuous C) instructional and motivational D) potentate and sovereign

24) Performance evaluation feedback is __________ when it points out areas for improvement and teaches new behavior.

A) meaningful B) directional C) instructional D) motivational

25) Performance evaluation feedback is __________ when it provides a reward or promises a reward.

A) meaningful B) informative C) instructional D) motivational

26) Applying the cognitive model of feedback, behavioral results from performance feedback consist of __________.

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A) persistence and effort B) persistence and self-motivation to adjust C) persistence, self-motivation to adjust, and disregard or nonacceptance D) effort, persistence, self-motivation to adjust, and disregard or nonacceptance

27) The golden rule of gaining and maintaining the respect of subordinates while providing feedback is not to attack or discuss all of the following except their __________.

A) personality B) attitudes C) values D) performance

28) A recent survey suggests that _______________ of Fortune 1000 firms use some form of a multisource feedback review program.

A) 10% B) 25% C) 75% D) 90%

29) In a ___________ program, evaluators could include creditors, peers or team members, supervisors, subordinates, and the person.

A) 360-degree B) global C) 180-degree D) elliptical

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30) If contributors to a 360-degree evaluation are concerned about the use of the performance evaluation ratings they are providing, they tend to _______________.

A) inflate the ratings they provide B) deflate the ratings they provide C) refuse to provide ratings D) double-check their ratings

31) According to reinforcement theory, ________ are behaviors that can be controlled by altering the _______________ that follow them.

A) fungibles; demands B) fungibles; evaluation C) operants; reward D) operants; consequences

32) Learning experts believe that _______________ is the most important principle of learning.

A) punishment B) reward C) reinforcement D) repetition

33) The foreman constantly nags the bricklayers to work faster. When the wall is finished, he stops nagging. This is an example of _______________ reinforcement.

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A) positive B) negative C) selective D) singular

34) _____________ is defined as presenting an uncomfortable or unwanted consequence for a particular behavioral response.

A) Extinction B) Negative reinforcement C) Confrontation D) Punishment

35)

The decline and eventual cessation of the response rate is known as __________.

A) extinction B) elimination C) erudition D) exclusion

36) Being paid a piece rate, or earning a commission on units sold, are examples of a _______________ reinforcement schedule.

A) continuous B) fixed ratio C) variable ratio D) fixed interval

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37) According to Lawler, satisfaction is influenced by how satisfied employees are with ________ rewards.

A) extrinsic B) both intrinsic and extrinsic C) wages and benefits D) comparisons of intrinsic

38) According to Lawler, satisfaction with a reward is a function of both how much is received and _______________.

A) how often it is received B) how much the individual feels should be received C) how much others receive D) how much the person wanted the reward

39)

Which of the following is not one of the main objectives of a reward program?

A) To attract qualified people to join the organization B) To keep employees coming to work C) To encourage employees to leave the organization voluntarily D) To motivate employees to achieve high levels of performance

40)

Which of the following is not true concerning a person’s preferred rewards?

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A) They may vary at different points in a person’s career.

B) They may vary at different ages and different points in a person’s career.

C) They vary in different situations.

D) They are typically consistent across a person’s career.

41)

Satisfaction is influenced by how happy employees are with _____________.

A) intrinsic but not extrinsic rewards B) intrinsic and extrinsic rewards C) extrinsic and global rewards D) global and developmental rewards

42)

Who among the following would be the least suited to an open pay system?

A) Librarian B) Salesperson C) Recruiter D) Fruit picker

43)

Receiving praise from a supervisor is a(n) ____________ reward.

A) intrinsic B) extrinsic C) environmental D) “formal”

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44) Which of the following is not explicitly stated in the text as something that all reward packages should be?

A) Sufficient to satisfy basic needs B) Considered equitable C) Individually oriented D) Seniority based

45)

For the open pay system to be motivational for employees, ___________________.

A) an employee’s effort must be linked to short-term performance B) an employee’s effort must be linked to long-term performance C) an employee’s effort must be linked to short- and long-term performance D) measures need to be available for most important aspects of a job

46) According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, organizations spend an average of _______________ per hour worked on benefits for each employee.

A) $2.94 B) $4.29 C) $9.42 D) $10.72

47)

All of the following are intrinsic rewards except: A) Completion.

B) Achievement.

C) Autonomy.

D) Profit-sharing.

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48) According to the U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics, organizations spend on average nearly __________ % of a firm’s compensation costs per employee.

A) 10 B) 22 C) 30 D) 37

49) All of the following are major theoretical approaches to reward administration except __________.

A) negative reinforcement B) positive reinforcement C) modeling and social imitation D) expectancy

50) _________ is a method of administering rewards in which employees learn the behaviors that are desirable by observing how others are rewarded.

A) Modeling B) Mentoring C) Mediation D) Molding

51) In administering a _______________ program; the emphasis is on the desired behavior that leads to job performance rather than performance alone.

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A) positive reinforcement B) social imitation C) patterning D) modeling

52)

Rewarding employees differently based on gender is all of the following except: A) On the increase.

B) Unethical.

C) Illegal.

D) Poor business practice.

53)

Which of the following statements about equitable pay treatment is false?

A) The younger a woman is, the less she makes relative to a man.

B) Women with a college degree have seen their earnings grow at a faster rate than have

men.

C) Rewarding employees differently based solely on gender is illegal.

D) Pay gaps between men and women exist in virtually every job category.

54)

Research on the effectiveness of employee stock ownership plans is __________.

A) mixed B) favorable C) increasingly negative D) indicative of a curvilinear relationship

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55)

_______________ is a newer, yet largely untested, reward program.

A) Broadbanding B) Gain-sharing C) Employee stock ownership D) Task management

56)

Commitment to an organization involves all of the following attitudes except: A) A belief in one’s ability to do the job assigned.

B) A sense of identification with the organization’s goals.

C) A feeling of involvement in organizational duties.

D) A feeling of loyalty to the organization.

57)

In conventional pay systems, _______________ determine(s) the pay rate and range.

A) the job B) acquired skills C) seniority D) the pay grade

58) A recent Society for Human Resource Management benefits survey found that __________ employers report that they offer concierge services.

A) only 7% of B) nearly 31% of C) the majority of D) typically only Fortune 100

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59) In situations where teams are interdependent, a _______________ reward plan would be the least appropriate.

A) plant-based B) division-based C) seniority-based D) area-based

60) The U.S. Bureau of Labor Statistics defines "part-time" as working fewer than _______________ per week.

A) 40 hours B) 35 hours C) 30 hours D) 20 hours

61) A typical Scanlon plan measures the _______________ costs required to produce goods or services during a base period.

A) labor B) raw product C) management D) manufacturing

62) Virtually any program that shares _______________ with employees is considered gain sharing.

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A) profits B) cost overruns C) excess production gains D) cost reductions

63) _______________ means that the employee perceives that there is a real linkage between his or her performance and the rewards received.

A) True sight B) True linkage C) Line of sight D) Co-dependence

64)

The five Rs of workforce motivation include all of the following except: A) Responsibility.

B) Respect.

C) Relationships.

D) Rotation.

65) Effective performance evaluation, simply stated, involves asking two questions about employee performance. What are these questions?

66)

What are three guidelines that apply to rewarding teams?

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67)

What is the difference between a reward and a positive reinforcer?

68)

How might a manager apply “punishment” in the work setting?

69) Ferster and Skinner presented four types of intermittent reinforcement schedules. What are they?

70)

What are the three main objectives of reward programs?

71) While the relationship between rewards and satisfaction is not perfectly understood, it is generally recognized that reward packages satisfy three criteria. What are these criteria?

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72)

What is the difference between intrinsic and extrinsic rewards?

73)

What are the three major theoretical approaches to reward administration?

74)

Is high turnover good? Explain your response.

75)

Commitment to an organization involves three attitudes, what are they?

76)

Skill-based pay systems have at least four potential advantages. Identify two of them.

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77)

What is the difference between conventional and skill-based pay systems?

78)

How many bands are appropriate when using a broadbanding approach to compensation?

79)

Why are team-based reward systems becoming more widely used?

80)

What are gain-sharing plans, and what is the best-known example of these plans?

81)

What are ESOPs?

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82)

Why is line of sight important?

83)

Effective performance evaluation is a continuous, ongoing process. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Contamination takes place in the evaluation process when an improper emphasis is given to various job elements. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) In the context of performance evaluation, contamination can be said to be the reverse of deficiency. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

Evaluating employees is a skill best developed using the sink or swim approach. ⊚ ⊚

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87) Systematic evaluation of performance does good even if the results are not communicated to the employee. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

Feedback should be given only once a year during a performance appraisal. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) When employees are allowed to participate in a two-way exchange during the evaluation process, they are more satisfied with the feedback communication. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) To improve the impact of a 360-degree feedback program, an organization should use the feedback primarily for individual development. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

360-degree feedback programs have not yet been developed for teams. ⊚ ⊚

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92) A reinforcer is applied only after a number of desired responses, with the number of desired responses changing from situation to situation, around an average. This is an example of a fixed ratio reinforcement schedule is being followed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Research on reinforcement schedules has shown that higher rates of response are usually achieved with ratio schedules than with interval schedules. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Unless employees can see a connection between performance and merit increases, money will not be a powerful motivator. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) For an open pay system to be motivational, an employee’s effort must be linked to subjective performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) If co-workers do not believe that you deserve a promotion, your status is not likely to be enhanced. ⊚ ⊚

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97) It is difficult to create tasks that lead to a feeling of autonomy in jobs that are highly structured and controlled by management. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) In the context of observational learning, whether the response actually is imitated depends on whether the model person was rewarded or punished for particular behaviors. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

In some situations, it is not possible to provide rewards that employees value and prefer. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Bureau of Labor statistics show that typically the younger a woman is, the less she makes relative to a man. ⊚ ⊚

true false

101) There may be legitimate reasons for pay differentials between men and women in comparable jobs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

102) The positive reinforcement, modeling, and expectancy methods of administering rewards all indicate that employee job performance results from the application of common sense.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

103) Organizational resources and government regulations are two of the many factors that must be considered when developing and maintaining reward programs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

104) If managers could develop reward systems that retained the best producers and caused poor performers to leave, the overall effectiveness of an organization would improve. ⊚ ⊚

105)

true false

There is no perfect means for retaining high performers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

106) By law, there has to be no differential in the reward system that discriminates between high and low performers. ⊚ ⊚

true false

107) An individual pay-for-performance reward system does not properly fit an organization that is designed around teams because it fosters competition. ⊚ ⊚

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108)

ESOPs is an acronym for Employee Stock Option Plans. ⊚ ⊚

true false

109) Line of self-control means that the employee perceives that there is a “real” linkage between his or her performance and the rewards received. ⊚ ⊚

true false

110) In some companies, bonuses paid to workers under a Scanlon plan can equal or exceed the employee’s salary. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 07_12_ Konopaskee 10) D 11) B 12) D 13) D 14) D 15) C 16) A 17) C 18) D 19) B 20) A 21) C 22) D 23) C 24) C 25) D 26) D 27) D 28) D 29) A 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) B 34) D 35) A Version 1

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36) B 37) B 38) B 39) C 40) D 41) B 42) A 43) B 44) D 45) A 46) D 47) D 48) C 49) A 50) A 51) A 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) D 56) A 57) A 58) A 59) C 60) B 61) A 62) D 63) C 64) D 83) TRUE Version 1

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84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) FALSE 110) TRUE

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CHAPTER 8 1) Describe Vardi and Weitz Model of Organizational Misbehavior and the categories of misbehavior in their framework.

2) Explain what is meant by management interventions and the points at which these interventions may be made.

3)

Is employee misbehavior costly? Explain.

4)

Describe the different types of sexual harassment.

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5)

How does culture promote or inhibit employee misbehavior?

6)

Should employees be barred from dating?

7)

How can a manager recognize behavior as sexual harassment?

8)

Is sexual harassment a form of violence?

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9)

Do employees give up their civil liberties in exchange for work?

10) Crime committed by a person of respectability and high social status in the workplace is called _______________ crime.

A) high-society B) social-strata C) white-collar D) royal

11)

_______________ crime is conducted with the support of an organization.

A) White-collar B) Occupational C) Organizational D) Gray

12) When an individual perceives that he or she is being mistreated by a manager, the preference for misbehaving _______________.

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A) may increase B) decreases C) is unaffected D) spreads to other employees

13) The impact of occupational structure on criminal workplace behaviors, such as embezzlement, vandalism, and sabotage, has been investigated by _______________.

A) anthropologists B) occupational psychologists C) criminologists D) All of the choices are correct.

14) ________________ is defined as the behavior exhibited by an individual or group that is purposeful (intentional) and can be harmful to the person and others, as well as financially and socially costly.

A) Incidental misbehavior B) The intention to misbehave C) Negative behavior D) Bad citizenship

15)

The most efficient misbehavior intervention point is _______________.

A) when the misbehavior is first noticed B) after a warning has been issued C) during the preemployment phase D) during performance evaluation cycles

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16) The intention to misbehave is posited to ________ the relationship between antecedents and the outcomes that are expressions of the misbehavior.

A) validate B) moderate C) mediate D) surprisingly have no impact on

17) The financial cost of the Enron scandal to employees, executives, the surrounding community, and society is estimated to exceed _______________.

A) $100 million B) $10 billion C) $100 billion D) $900 billion

18) _______________ of female employees report that they have been the object of sexually harassing behavior at work.

A) Up to 25% B) Between 25 and 50% C) Over 70% D) Over 90%

19)

Sexual harassment occurs ________.

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A) because of power differences B) because of lust C) across gender lines and across sexual orientations D) All of the choices are correct.

20) This type of sexual harassment occurs when sex-related behavior interferes with an employee's work performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.

A) Quid pro quo B) Physiological C) Hostile work environment D) Psychological

21)

Workplace relationships can have a host of negative ramifications, including: A) Gossip.

B) Decreased productivity.

C) Accusations of favoritism.

D) All of the choices are correct.

22) A "consensual relationship agreement," also known as a "love contract," typically includes all of the following provisions except:

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A) The relationship is consensual.

B) What the dating employees will do if the relationship stops being consensual.

C) A verification that both employees are aware of the company's policies on sexual harassment.

D) Acknowledgment that the dating employees know they will be fired if they continue dating.

23) Pryor and Stoller found that men who scored high on a characteristic designated "likelihood to sexually harass" were more likely to display all of the following behavior except: A) They hold adversarial sexual beliefs.

B) They are aggressive in their business dealings.

C) They have difficulty understanding others' perspectives.

D) They endorse traditional male sex stereotypes.

24) From a legal perspective, which of the following is not one of the types of sexual harassment?

A) Quid pro quo B) Physiological C) Hostile work environment D) Psychological

25) This type of sexual harassment occurs when an employee "feels harassed" regardless of whether or not the sex-related behavior is illegal.

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A) Quid pro quo B) Physiological C) Hostile work environment D) Psychological

26) If an employer offered a promotion in exchange for a sexual favor, it would be considered ________ harassment.

A) quid pro quo B) physiological C) hostile work environment D) psychological

27) Workplace violence accounts for about _______________ of all workplace fatalities in 2014.

A) 90% B) 75% C) 16% D) 2%

28) In which of the following work settings or activities is one the least likely to be a victim of workplace violence?

A) Fire fighting B) Exchanging money C) Making deliveries D) Working late nights

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29) _______________ at work is the effort of an individual to inflict harm on others with whom the person works, or has worked, or on the organization itself.

A) Sabotage B) Aggression C) Harassment D) Assault

30)

An example of behavior that may be considered as "aggressive" is _______________.

A) pushing B) gossip C) withholding of something desired D) All of the choices are correct.

31) Researchers have attempted to find a link between individual differences, such as _______________ and aggression.

A) anger B) Type A behavior C) gender D) All of the choices are correct.

32) According to the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission; there were more than __________ charges of sexual harassment filed in 2015.

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A) 1,200 B) 2,500 C) 6,800 D) 15,700

33) The increase in nonfatal violence and acts of aggression may be the result of _______________.

A) downsizing B) increased management observation C) more unstructured time at work D) All of the choices are correct.

34)

The majority of workplace homicides are the result of __________.

A) management pressure B) frustration and anxiety C) robberies and related crime D) intentional sabotage of safety equipment

35) Many victims perceive _______________ as the reason that bullies directed their behavior toward them.

A) anger B) envy C) low intelligence D) revenge

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36)

Bullying differs from "normal" conflict with peers in that bullying is characterized by: A) An imbalance of power.

B) Strong emotional reactions from the victim.

C) No effort to resolve the conflict.

D) All of the choices are correct.

37) _______________ is defined as repeated actions that are directed to another worker that are unwanted and that clearly cause humiliation and distress and create an unpleasant work setting.

A) Incivility B) Bullying C) Crime D) Discipline

38) All of the following have been identified as providing a social context in which bullying can occur except: A) Allowing jobs to be done in isolation.

B) A department with low employee morale.

C) An over-abundance of supervision.

D) Social inequities in the workplace.

39) Victims who can't tolerate bullying often leave the organization through _______________.

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A) retirement B) illness C) choice D) All of the choices are correct.

40)

All of the following are forms of incivility except: A) Being disruptive in meetings.

B) Promising disciplinary action if goals are not met.

C) Giving negative eye contact.

D) Making condescending remarks.

41) According to recent research, employees who are the recipients of uncivil behavior experience all of the following except: A) Increased job stress and dissatisfaction.

B) Lower levels of creativity.

C) Higher commitment to the organization.

D) Higher turnover.

42) An intentional act of deceiving or misrepresenting in order to induce another individual or group to give up something of value is called _______________.

A) intimidation B) goldbricking C) harassment D) fraud

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43)

All of the following are recommended ways to stop incivility except: A) Implementing a zero-tolerance policy B) Proactively managing the climate of the organization C) Punishing those who engage in uncivil behaviors D) Not rewarding the behavior by acknowledging it in anyway

44) Researchers found, based on interviews with 200 incarcerated embezzlers, that most of them committed fraud to _______________.

A) cover other crimes B) increase the stock price of the organization C) meet their financial obligations D) buy things their salaries didn't cover

45) A study of over 12,000 employees found that _______________ had engaged in such workplace misbehaviors as goldbricking, sick time abuses, and/or fraud at least once.

A) 10% B) 25% C) 57% D) 90%

46) Full-time workers who are illicit drug users are more likely than non-drug users to have done all of the following except:

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A) Worked for three or more employers in the past year B) Had past military service C) Taken unexcused absences from work D) Voluntarily left an employer or been terminated within the last year

47)

_______________ encourages some CEOs to engage in fraudulent behaviors.

A) Perceived inequity B) A preponderance of "inside" board members C) Perceived ambiguity of the law D) All of the choices are correct.

48)

_______________ is a combination of motive and opportunity.

A) Envy B) Bullying C) Incivility D) Fraud

49)

________ is a significant risk factor that drives employees to drink.

A) Work overload B) Abusive supervisors C) Working with alcoholic coworkers D) A permissive workplace culture

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50) Sabotage involves damaging or destroying an organization's or colleague's _______________.

A) equipment B) workspace C) data D) Any or All of the choices are correct.

51)

Sabotage is usually the method of choice of person who _______________.

A) is bored B) believes that something in their work history was unfair to them C) wants to gain an advantage over a colleague D) All of the choices are correct.

52) Three types of organizational sabotage targets exist. They include all of the following except: A) People.

B) Equipment.

C) Data.

D) The work setting.

53) _______________ is defined as the unauthorized taking, consuming, or transferring of money or goods owned by the organization.

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A) Goldbricking B) Theft C) Sabotage D) Violence

54)

Most employees who commit fraudulent activities are _______________.

A) women B) first-time offenders C) repeat offenders D) new employees

55)

Which of the following is a form of direct aggression?

A) Spreading rumors that may harm another's chance for promotion B) Withholding praise C) Pushing or shoving D) Misdirecting important information

56) The _______________ under the Bill of Rights guarantees due process and equal protection.

A) First Amendment B) Fourth Amendment C) Fifth Amendment D) Fourteenth Amendment

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57) The _______________ under the Bill of Rights protects an employee's freedom of speech and association.

A) First Amendment B) Fourth Amendment C) Fifth Amendment D) Fourteenth Amendment

58) The _______________ under the Bill of Rights protects against communications from unreasonable searches and seizures.

A) First Amendment B) Fourth Amendment C) Fifth Amendment D) Fourteenth Amendment

59) Organizations can utilize medical, drug, or psychological testing when the situation meets all of the following conditions except: A) If results are openly shared and subject to public review.

B) The test is designed to predict a person's ability to perform.

C) The test is relatively non-invasive.

D) The test results are private.

60)

What is the difference between occupational crime and organizational crime?

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61)

What is white-collar crime?

62)

The text discusses five specific categories of misbehavior. What are they?

63)

Define sexual harassment.

64)

Identify three types of sexual harassment.

65)

What is a "love contract"?

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66) There are three tests that can help you categorize and focus on particular behaviors; one is the Family IQ test. What are the other two?

67)

What is the difference between bullying and incivility?

68)

Employees that experience incivility are impacted in numerous ways. Identify three.

69)

Identify three costs associated with cyberslacking.

70) The U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission tracks sexual harassment cases.

What do their statistics indicate regarding the cost of sexual harassment for employers?

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71)

The term STEAL refers to four motives behind theft behavior. What are they?

72) Your friend states that an employer must notify its employees if it intends to read their emails. Are they correct?

73)

Are privacy rights the same for public and private employees?

74) A medical practitioner has performed a medical test on an employee. What information may be shared with the employer?

75)

What arguments can be made in opposition to employer e-mail monitoring?

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76) Within the Vardi and Weitz model, instrumental force represents an individual's personal interests and beliefs. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Within the Vardi and Weitz model, management interactions are the actions taken by managers to prevent, control, or respond to harmful misbehavior. ⊚ ⊚

78)

Misbehavior is not gender, industry, country, or date specific. ⊚ ⊚

79)

true false

true false

Sexual harassment is a form of unethical behavior but is not considered aggression. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) Sexual harassment is a form of discrimination, and harassed employees can file claims for battery and defamation. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

Passive aggression is accomplished through the withholding of something desired.

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⊚ ⊚

82)

Women tend to classify a smaller range of behavior as sexually harassing than do men. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

true false

Today's organizations commonly share information about worker aggression. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) O'Leary-Kelly, Griffin, and Glew suggest contend that demographic data may be the best predictors of violence, but it is prohibited by law from being collected. ⊚ ⊚

85)

true false

American employees now put in less time at work than they did 20 years ago. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Researchers have found that overachievers are bullied less often than are average performers. ⊚ ⊚

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87) Psychological sexual harassment occurs when sex-related behavior interferes with an employee's work performance or creates an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

88) Experiencing repeated incidents of rudeness can cause some workers to become physically ill or suffer depression. ⊚ ⊚

true false

89) A recent study reported that males with high levels of the characteristic designated "likelihood to harass" tend to give attractive females higher scores on performance appraisals. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) One reason that management should be concerned about incivility between colleagues is that can escalate to a more intense form of interaction, such as aggression or violence. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) The concept of "wages in kind" suggests that the more dissatisfied the employee, the more motivated he or she will be to engage in incivility. ⊚ ⊚

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92) Researchers have concluded that workers' substance use and abuse has more to do with personal characteristics than with working conditions. ⊚ ⊚

93)

Multiple tests are now available that can accurately predict future substance abuse. ⊚ ⊚

94)

true false

Sabotage is a tangible expression of aggression or violence. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

true false

Theft is limited to tangible items, such as money and equipment. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) A work group with deviant norms about theft, through its behaviors, can display what, when, and where to steal. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

Eliminating all opportunities for theft across the board increases perceptions of fairness. ⊚ ⊚

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98) Studies found that theft rates were significantly lower in organizations in which employee compensation was reduced. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Courts have generally reaffirmed that employers can read e-mails sent over their computer systems only if employees are informed of the policies. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), employers can require a medical test only after a contingent job offer is made. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 08_12_ Konopaskee 10) C 11) C 12) A 13) D 14) B 15) C 16) C 17) C 18) C 19) D 20) C 21) D 22) D 23) B 24) B 25) D 26) A 27) C 28) A 29) B 30) A 31) D 32) C 33) A 34) C 35) B Version 1

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36) D 37) B 38) C 39) D 40) B 41) C 42) D 43) D 44) C 45) D 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) D 51) D 52) D 53) B 54) B 55) C 56) D 57) A 58) B 59) A 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE Version 1

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82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE

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CHAPTER 9 1)

Describe the components of the organizational stress model.

2)

Name the changes in behavior that are common warning signs of stress.

3) Explain the differences in a problem-focused versus an emotion-focused strategy for coping with stress.

4) The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders lists 10 symptoms that, when present for 2 weeks or more, indicate that a person is depressed. What are these symptoms?

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5)

How are body systems affected by stress?

6)

How do organizations contribute to employee job burnout?

7)

Identify several moderators of the stress process.

8) What is the relationship between stress and personality? What aspects of personality might tend to increase stress? Decrease it?

9)

Describe the significance and characteristics of hardiness.

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10) fit?

What kinds of things could an organization do to better maximize person-environment

11)

How can P-E fit impact stress?

12) For an action, situation, or event to result in stress, it must be perceived by the individual to be a source _________.

A) threat or challenge B) challenge or psychological threat C) threat, challenge, or dissidence D) threat, challenge, or harm

13) All of the following factors determine whether an experience is likely to result in stress except:

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A) Importance B) Uncertainty C) Duration D) Distance

14)

Age and personality area potential stress ________________.

A) mediators B) precursors C) predictors D) moderators

15) The experience of work-related and non-work (extraorganizational) stress produces all of the following outcomes except _______________.

A) behavioral B) cognitive C) physiological D) attributional

16)

Long duration stress is sometimes referred to as _______________.

A) contextual stress B) superior stress C) continuous stress D) chronic stress

17)

Which of the following is a stressor at the individual level?

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A) Technology B) Management styles C) Intragroup conflict D) Role overload

18)

The management of stress attempts to ____________ consequences of stress.

A) minimize and cope with B) cope with C) eliminate or minimize all D) eliminate or minimize negative

19)

Which of the following is a stressor at the group level?

A) Lack of cohesiveness B) Management styles C) Role overload D) Politics

20)

Which of the following is a stressor at the non-work level?

A) Pace of change B) Harassment C) Lack of mobility D) Organizational politics

21)

Overload: ________________.

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A) is said to be caused by "qualitative" factors B) is said to be caused by "quantitative" factors C) may be of two types: qualitative or quantitative D) in the context of scientific management was seen as desirable

22) _______________ is present whenever compliance by an individual to one set of expectations about a job conflicts with compliance to another set of expectations.

A) Peripheral interference B) Role conflict C) Job overlap D) Role enrichment

23)

The optimal stress level _______________.

A) is near zero B) is characterized in research as Type "O" stress C) provides the best balance of challenge, responsibility, and reward D) can be determined using the Stress Assessment Scale (SAS)

24)

Which of the following is a symptom of stress caused by work overload?

A) Insomnia B) Apathy C) Absenteeism D) High energy

25)

All of the following are the result of an optimal level of stress except:

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A) High motivation.

B) Calmness.

C) Sharp perception.

D) Wakefulness.

26)

Which of the following is a symptom of stress caused by work underload?

A) Apathy B) Irritability C) Increased errors D) Sharp perception

27)

All of the following are characteristics of a hardy person except: A) The hardy person assumes that he or she is in control.

B) The hardy person is impervious to fatigue.

C) The hardy person treats change in their lives as a challenge.

D) The hardy person is extremely committed to the activities in their lives.

28) _______________ refers to the extent that a person's knowledge, opinions, and ideas are included in the decision-making process.

A) Control B) Integration C) Participation D) Pervasiveness

29)

Disability claims _______________ in companies that have recently downsized.

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A) decrease dramatically B) increase dramatically C) stabilize D) are no longer an issue

30) A study of 2,100 employees, chosen from 23 different occupations, found that _______________ reported the most boredom and apathy with their job conditions.

A) blue-collar B) unskilled workers C) gray-collar, nonprofessional workers D) white-collar, professional workers

31) When assessing a situation, an individual may first evaluate a stressor as positive, negative, or meaningless. The secondary appraisal then follows and involves a(n) ____________.

A) reexamination of the situation intentionally changing perspective B) determination of the negative and potential outcomes from the anticipated stress C) assessment of "fight or flight" responses D) determination whether something can be done to reduce the stress

32)

Which one of the following statements about depression is incorrect?

A) Depression costs billions of dollars a year in medical bills, lost productivity, and absenteeism.

B) The World Health Organization predicts that by 2030, more people in the world will be affected by depression than any other health problem.

C) Depression is easy to detect, especially within the current health care system.

D) Depression leads to higher absenteeism and decreased worker productivity.

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33)

Stress outcomes have been classified as _______________.

A) cognitive and emotional B) cognitive and behavioral C) cognitive, behavioral, and physiological D) cognitive, behavioral, psychological, and financial

34) Polls indicate that over 40% of Japanese workers aged 30 to 60 believe that they will die from _______________.

A) the stress of overwork B) cancer C) heart attacks D) their poor diet

35) _______________ outcomes of stress include sweating, hot and cold flashes, and increased heart rate.

A) Cognitive B) Behavioral C) Physiological D) Behavioral and physiological

36) During a crisis, a neurotransmitter called catecholamine suppresses parts of the brain dealing with all of the following except: A) Memory.

B) Concentration.

C) Motor skills.

D) Rational thought.

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37)

Burnout is a psychological process that typically results in all of the following except: A) Enhanced immunity functions.

B) Emotional exhaustion.

C) Depersonalization.

D) Feelings of decreased accomplishment.

38) Which of the following is an indicator of the burnout outcome low personal accomplishment?

A) Cannot deal with problems effectively B) Feels fatigued in the morning C) Does not want to work with other people D) Drinks excessive amounts of coffee

39) While the organizational consequences of stress are many and varied, they share one common feature: stress costs organizations _______________.

A) tempo B) their reputations C) customer loyalty D) money

40) A _______________ is a condition, behavior, or characteristic that qualifies the relationship between two variables.

A) moderator B) modulation C) mediator D) regulator

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41)

Which of the following is not a moderator of stress?

A) Personality B) Type A behavior C) Social support D) Organizational culture

42) Which of the following statements about the organizational costs associated with stress is false?

A) The American Medical Association claims that stress was the cause of 80 to 85% of all human illness and disease.

B) Stressed workers smoke more, eat less well, and have more family problems.

C) Forty percent of employee turnover is due to excessive stress.

D) More than 50 million workdays are lost annually due to stress-related absenteeism.

43)

Which of the following Big Five personality dimensions is most clearly related to stress?

A) Emotional stability B) Extroversion C) Agreeableness D) Conscientiousness

44) Those that score high on _______________ are better prepared to deal with stressors associated with change because they view change as a challenge.

A) extroversion B) conscientiousness C) openness to experience D) emotional stability

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45) The term _______________ refers to a relatively stable set of characteristics, temperaments, and tendencies that shape the similarities and differences in people's behavior.

A) character B) personality C) persona D) talent

46) If you are low on _______________, you tend to be antagonistic, unsympathetic, and even rude toward others.

A) emotional stability B) extroversion C) agreeableness D) conscientiousness

47)

Two major components of a Type A Behavior Pattern are: A) Impatience and hostility.

B) Impatience and wakefulness.

C) Ambition and arrogance.

D) Wakefulness and hostility.

48) Analysis showed that _______________ was related to the presence of arteriosclerosis more than any other Type A Behavior Pattern dimension.

A) ambition B) impatience C) work orientation D) hostility

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49) _______________ was defined in the text as the comfort, assistance, or information one receives through formal or informal contacts with individuals or groups.

A) Social support B) Emotional support C) Companionship D) Group cohesiveness

50)

What is the first step in any attempt to deal with stress?

A) Calming down B) Identifying the source of the stress C) Recognizing that stress exists D) Removing the source of the stress

51)

Ideally, the process for maximizing person-environment fit begins _______________.

A) at the first sign of job-related stress B) before the individual joins the organization C) during job orientation D) at the request of the employee

52) Employee assistance programs are designed to deal with a wide range of stress-related problems. General elements of such a program include all of the following except: A) Diagnosis.

B) Screening.

C) Full sharing with the sponsoring employer.

D) Treatment.

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53) Two types of organizational programs have become particularly popular during the last two decades: employee assistance programs and _______________ programs.

A) health care B) wellness C) physical fitness D) biofeedback

54) For any employee assistance program to be a success, employees must trust in all of the following except: A) The program can and will provide real help.

B) The program will be available on a long-term basis.

C) Confidentiality will be maintained.

D) Use of the program carries no negative job implications.

55) Wellness programs, sometimes called ________programs, focus on the employee’s overall physical and mental health.

A) health enhancement B) employee assistance C) biofeedback D) health promotion

56)

_______________ has been cited as the greatest cause of poor health habits.

A) Alcoholism B) Drug abuse C) Poor health education D) Stress

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57)

All of the following are cognitive distortions except: A) Magnifying.

B) Overgeneralizing.

C) Personalization.

D) Distancing.

58) Individuals can be taught to control a variety of internal body processes by using _____________.

A) a technique called mindfulness B) employee assistance programs C) enhanced awareness D) a technique called biofeedback

59) _______ techniques of stress management focus on changing labels or cognitions so that people appraise situations differently.

A) Cognitive B) Mindfulness C) EQ D) Biofeedback

60) The purpose of ________ approach to stress management is to reduce a person’s arousal level and bring about a calmer state of affairs, both psychologically and physiologically.

A) the cognitive techniques B) the mindfulness C) relaxation training D) the biofeedback.

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61)

Relaxation training generally results in all of the following except: A) Increased heart rate.

B) A clear sense of being in control.

C) A reduction in anxiety and tension.

D) Slowed breathing.

62) Stress is the result of dealing with something placing special demands on us. In this context, what does special mean?

63) In the Model of Stressors, Stress, and Outcomes, stressors were presented in four main categories, what are they?

64)

What is role conflict? Provide an example.

65)

There are two types of work overload; what are they?

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66)

How does hardiness impact stress?

67)

Explain the meaning of emotion-focused coping.

68)

Provide an example of problem-focused coping.

69)

Provide an example of emotion-focused coping.

70) Research has identified several factors that are important contributors to burnout. Identify four of them.

71)

Name four negative psychological consequences of stress.

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72)

How is job commitment related to burnout?

73)

Is conscientiousness related to stress?

74) The text identified eight characteristics of people with Type A behavior patterns. List four of them.

75)

Contrast the Type B and Type A behavior patterns.

76)

Why is social support effective as a stress moderator?

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77) Name three actions that you, as a manager, can take to develop social support and build a supportive work environment.

78)

What is the underlying assumption of all cognitive stress management techniques?

79) A fellow student states the stress is more than simply a response to a stressor. Do you agree? Justify your answer.

80) “Mission focus” is an adaptive response, moderated by individual differences, that is a consequence of any action, situation, or event that places special demands on a person. ⊚ true ⊚ false

81) Eustress occurs when the individual perceives or interprets an event or situation in a positive way. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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82)

Rumors of an impending layoff are typically never as stressful as actually being laid off. ⊚ true ⊚ false

83) For an action, situation, or event to result in stress, it must be perceived by the individual to be a source of threat, challenge, or opportunity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84)

Generally, the longer special demands are placed on us, the less stressful they become. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85)

Research has found a relatively small number of events actually create "stress." ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) When examining the determinants of stress, magnitude relates to how significant the event is to the individual. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) The greater the power or authority of the person sending conflicting messages, the greater the job dissatisfaction produced by role conflict. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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88) Qualitative overload results from having too many things to do or insufficient time to complete a job. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89)

Executives in the low end of the stress range report less serious medical problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90) The negative effects of overload can be increased when overload is coupled with a low ability to control the demands of work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) Research suggests that when individuals experience high work demands with little or no control over these demands, any physiological changes that occur in that physical setting fade promptly after the individual has left the situation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92)

Most people would prefer not to know how management views the quality of their work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) A primary appraisal of stressors involves a determination of whether something can be done to reduce a stressor. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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94) Polls indicate that over 40% of Japanese workers aged 30 to 60 believe they will die from the stress of overwork. The victims of this overwork are called "corporate samurai." ⊚ true ⊚ false

95) Suzanne Kobasa has proposed that individuals who experience high rates of change without consequently suffering health problems possess a personality characteristic that she termed as resilience. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96)

It is unwise for managers to attempt to counsel workers suspected of being depressed. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) Burnout tends to be less of a problem for people whose jobs require extensive contact with other people. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) A high degree of involvement in, identification with, or commitment to one's job or profession is a necessary prerequisite for burnout. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) Workers' compensation laws are increasingly eliminating benefits for injuries stemming from workplace stress.

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⊚ ⊚

100)

true false

Some people are predisposed to stress. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) Stress is the consequence of the interaction between an environmental stimulus and the individual's response. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) Stress is not likely to result from a mismatch between an employee's talents and the job requirements. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) The person-environment fit approach is related to the concept of the psychological contract. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104) Job skills and knowledge are not the only factors to consider in employee selection in order to ensure person-environment fit. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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105) Prior to joining an organization, a critical variable in maximizing fit and preventing stress is effective socialization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

106)

Employee assistance programs were originally conceived as stress reduction programs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

107) Research supports the conclusion that humor boosts the human immune system but has little effect on stress. ⊚ true ⊚ false

108) According to a recent survey, 25% of U.S. employers offer workplace health or wellness programs, and nearly 50 percent say they offer these programs to improve and maintain employee morale and to attract and retain talent. ⊚ true ⊚ false

109) The greatest payoff from stress prevention and management comes from ongoing and sustained effort rather than one-time activities. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 09_12_ Konopaskee 12) D 13) D 14) D 15) D 16) D 17) D 18) D 19) A 20) C 21) C 22) B 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) A 27) B 28) C 29) B 30) B 31) D 32) C 33) C 34) A 35) C 36) C 37) A Version 1

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38) A 39) D 40) A 41) D 42) D 43) A 44) C 45) B 46) C 47) A 48) D 49) A 50) C 51) B 52) C 53) B 54) B 55) D 56) D 57) D 58) D 59) A 60) C 61) A 80) FALSE 81) TRUE 82) FALSE 83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE Version 1

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86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) TRUE 102) FALSE 103) TRUE 104) TRUE 105) FALSE 106) FALSE 107) FALSE 108) FALSE 109) TRUE

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CHAPTER 10 1)

What is the difference between a work group and a team? Give an example of each.

2)

Explain the difference between an interest group and a friendship group.

3)

Describe the stages of group formation.

4)

What is the impact of self-managed teams on the relative importance of leadership?

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5)

Describe the relation between group norms, group cohesiveness, and performance?

6) Your team is approaching a very important decision. What is groupthink and what steps should be considered to prevent groupthink?

7)

What criteria are appropriate for assessing group effectiveness?

8)

What are the key differences between R&D and problem-solving teams?

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9) Why is it very likely that virtual work arrangements (teams, offices, telework) are here to stay?

10)

What factors are important to team success?

11)

Identify the attributes desirable in team members.

12)

_______________ distinguishes groups and teams.

A) Depth of commitment B) Size (groups are typically limited in size) C) Scope of activities D) The presence of a formally appointed leader

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13)

Which of the following characteristics applies to formal work groups but not teams?

A) Accountability B) Common goals C) Varied mix skill levels D) Consists of two or more individuals

14)

Which of the following is not one of the minimal requirements for a group to exist?

A) There must be two or more individuals B) There must be some form of exchange or communication between these individuals C) There must be a formal leader D) They must be attempting to accomplish a common goal

15) A(n) _______________ is specified by the organization chart and is made up of the subordinates who report directly to a given supervisor.

A) task group B) interest group C) command group D) team

16) Employees grouping together to present a unified front to management for more benefits and waitresses "pooling" their tips are examples of ____________.

A) task groups B) interest groups C) command groups D) teams

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17) Mike organizes a group of students upset over the food selection in the cafeteria. He assigns times for students to stand in the student union to protest the limited selection of food items. He publically states that the group will not disband until the task of having pizza at every meal period is accomplished. This is an example of a(n) _____________.

A) task group B) interest group C) command group D) team

18) _______________ needs may be met by joining a high-status or prestige group in which membership is hard to obtain.

A) Social B) Security C) Esteem D) Economic

19) _______________ needs can be satisfied through groups that provide for interaction among team members.

A) Esteem B) Social C) Power D) Problem-solving

20) The group development stage of _______________ is characterized by uncertainty about the purpose, structure, and leadership of the group.

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A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing

21) The more diverse a group is, the more difficult and time consuming it is to maneuver through the _______________ stage.

A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing

22) Generally, the _______________ stage of group development is complete when individuals begin to view themselves as part of a group.

A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing

23) A particularly important part of the _______________ stage of group development involves a redefinition of the group's specific tasks and overall goals.

A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing

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24)

By design, many groups never experience the _______________ stage of development.

A) forming B) storming C) norming D) adjourning

25) During the _______________ stage, the group structure is set, the roles of each member are understood and accepted, and the group focuses its energies and efforts on accomplishing the tasks it has accepted.

A) forming B) storming C) norming D) performing

26) The _______________ stage of group development can be marked by very positive emotions centering on successful task accomplishment, but it can also be a source of feelings of loss.

A) forming B) norming C) performing D) adjourning

27) _______________ may be a common characteristic of the members of a homogeneous group.

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A) Demographics (age, race, gender, education, etc.)

B) Personality C) Skills and abilities D) All of the choices are correct.

28)

Status and _______________ are so similar that the terms are often used interchangeably.

A) position B) pay C) power D) persona

29) The _________ role is the set of behaviors that a person in a position believes he or she should enact.

A) expected B) perceived C) envisioned D) organizational

30) There are multiple roles associated with a position. The ____________ role is the behavior that a person actually carries out.

A) actual B) affected C) effective D) enacted

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31)

In work groups, the most common norm relates to _______________.

A) personality B) relationships C) productivity D) quality

32) The person who becomes an informal group leader generally is viewed as _______________.

A) a respected and high-status member B) someone who embodies the values of the group C) someone who helps the group accomplish its goals D) All of the choices are correct.

33) If a group is highly cohesive but has goals that are not congruent with those of the formal organization, then group behavior will probably be considered _______________ by the sponsoring organization.

A) positive B) neutral C) negative D) dangerous

34)

_______________ is a known source of attraction to a particular group.

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A) Clearly specified goals that are compatible with group members B) A charismatic leader C) A positive group reputation D) All of the choices are correct.

35)

All of the following are strategies for increasing group cohesion except: A) Physically locating the group closer to other groups.

B) Inducing agreement on group goals.

C) Making the group more homogeneous.

D) Allocating rewards to the group, not individuals.

36)

The degree of cohesiveness in a group _______________.

A) has positive effects on performance B) has negative effects on performance C) can have either positive or negative effects on performance D) typically is not related to performance

37)

Groups suffering from groupthink display all of the following characteristics except: A) An illusion of vulnerability.

B) A tendency to moralize.

C) Pressure to conform.

D) Opposing ideas dismissed.

38)

_______________ developed the concept of "groupthink."

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A) Drucker B) Janis C) Taylor D) Hawthorn

39) Which of the following group characteristics is not typically associated with the occurrence of groupthink?

A) Feeling of unanimity B) Pressure to individually contribute C) Illusion of invulnerability D) Opposing ideas dismissed

40) The ___________ is specified by the organization chart and is made up of the subordinates who report directly to a given supervisor, while a ___________ comprises the employees who work together to complete a particular task or project.

A) formal team; functional group B) task group; command group C) command group; task group D) R&D Group; skunkworks

41)

All of the following are ways to guard against groupthink except:

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A) Encourage members to state objections and doubts.

B) Break into subgroups to work on the same problem, then share proposed solutions with the group.

C) Assign a team member to play devil's advocate.

D) Encourage objections by having the group leader endorse a particular course of action.

42) The phenomenal success of Microsoft Corporation is attributed in part to its extensive use of software research and development _____________.

A) groups B) teams C) collectives D) skunkworks

43)

In the context of teams, the acronym SMT refers to ____ teams.

A) single member B) selective membership C) self-managed D) serial-methods

44)

Quality circles usually have _______________ members.

A) 1 to 5 B) 5 to 10 C) 6 to 12 D) 15 or more

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45)

_______________ teams are formed specifically to deal with problems.

A) Mission B) Problem-solving C) Quest D) Consignment

46)

The members of a _______________ team seldom meet face to face.

A) virtual B) cross-functional C) problem-solving D) self-managed

47)

The "standard classification system" lists ______ different types of teams.

A) three B) four C) five D) There is no standard classification system for describing different types of teams.

48) The efficient and successful use of technology is critically important to the success of _______________ teams.

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A) self-managed B) problem-solving C) cross-functional D) virtual

49) Those charged with leading _______________ teams must be willing to permit a great deal of autonomy and decision-making independence.

A) virtual B) cross-functional C) problem-solving D) quest

50)

Virtual teams with the highest levels of trust displayed all of the following traits except: A) Members began their interactions with nonwork, social interactions.

B) Each member had a set of clear task roles.

C) All team members demonstrated positive attitudes.

D) Team members interacted in off-the-job social activities.

51) Be permitting employees to telecommute companies have saved costs through ___________.

A) lower turnover B) higher productivity C) reduced real estate costs D) All of the choices are correct

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52) Before implementing self-managed teams, organizations should be certain that such teams are consistent with the organization's: A) Business requirements.

B) Values and goals.

C) Competencies.

D) All of the choices are correct.

53) Once implemented, the success of self-managed teams depends on all of the following except: A) Management commitment.

B) Receptivity to change.

C) Employee trust in management.

D) Team member diversity.

54) In some organizations, R&D teams have been set up to expedite innovation and creative new product design. Originally coined by a Lockheed engineer during World War II, such groups are referred to as: A) Stinkworks.

B) Skunkworks.

C) Stenchworks.

D) Scentworks.

55) The text examines four things that are particularly important when it comes to developing effective teams: training, communications, empowerment, and _______________.

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A) skill sets B) education C) management D) rewards

56) _____________ refers to a secretive research and development project that operates outside of normal company operations to create innovative products.

A) Tiger team B) Skunkworks C) Salamander factories D) Zebra divisions

57)

The failure of many teams can be traced directly to management's unwillingness to share: A) Training materials.

B) Team members.

C) Information.

D) Responsibility.

58) According to the text, perhaps the most important characteristic of a good team member is _______________.

A) being open-minded B) having emotional stability C) having trust D) having good conflict resolution skills

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59) Research indicates that all of the following skills are highly desirable if team members are to be effective except: A) An inquisitive nature.

B) Open-mindedness.

C) Communication skills.

D) Conflict resolution skills.

60) Sometimes teams are given too much authority. This is particularly dangerous in the _______________ stages of team involvement.

A) early B) mature C) late D) All of the choices are correct

61)

The reward system in most organizations is _______________ based.

A) seniority B) sales C) individually D) team

62)

Name the three minimum requirements that must be met for a group to exist.

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63)

What is an "informal" group? Provide a school example of such a group.

64)

What does "proximity" mean, as it relates to groups and teams?

65)

How can groups satisfy esteem needs?

66)

Proximity and attraction are two reasons people form groups. How are the two related?

67)

List the stages of group development.

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68)

Why is it important to understand the group development process?

69)

What is the relationship between group composition and performance?

70)

How is status assigned to a position?

71)

What are norms?

72)

Why do groups have norms?

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73) What is the relationship between cohesiveness of a work group and conformity to group norms?

74)

How are teams classified?

75)

What is a cross-functional team?

76) While teams share a culture, a set of rituals and processes, typically they do not share a philosophy in working together. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

The interaction between group members must include face-to-face verbal exchanges. ⊚ ⊚

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78)

If there is no common goal or purpose, there is no group. ⊚ ⊚

true false

79) The authority relationship between a senior nurse and her subordinates is an example of a task group. ⊚ ⊚

80)

The objectives of interest groups are closely related to those of the organization. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

true false

Proximity makes it easier to determine areas of common attraction. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) In many cases, groups form because individuals believe they can derive greater economic benefits from their jobs if they organize. ⊚ ⊚

83)

true false

It is essential that conflict is suppressed during the storming stage.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Factors that may influence the pattern of group development include the environment in which the group operates and group members' awareness of time and deadlines. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) All else being equal, homogenous groups are less likely to be cohesive than heterogeneous ones. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) The enacted role is the set of behaviors that a person in a position believes he or she should enact. ⊚ ⊚

87)

Group norms are formed only with respect to things that have significance for the group. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

true false

Group norms must be formally stated in order to be known by all group members. ⊚ ⊚

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22

89) Research indicates that persons of high intelligence are more likely to conform to group norms than less intelligent individuals. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

Authoritarian personality types conform less to group norms than do non-authoritarians. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) As it expected in a society in general, cultures with a more collective tradition may place less emphasis on the group and on conformity with norms than might cultures with a more individualistic orientation. ⊚ ⊚

92)

true false

The degree of conformity with group norms can be influenced by cultural factors. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) By definition, a "formal" groups are created to facilitate the accomplishment of an organization's goals, and as such, they always have an organizationally sanctioned formal leader. ⊚ ⊚

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94) The term "groupthink" was coined to communicate a highly effective group that thinks as one mind. ⊚ ⊚

true false

95) In general, as the cohesiveness of a work group increases, the level of conformity to group norms decreases. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) It is possible to have low group cohesiveness even when the member's goals agree with those of the formal organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Some researchers believe that the "go/no go" decision to launch the doomed space shuttle Challenger was influenced by groupthink. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) While there are issues regarding conforming to national culture, SMTs are currently taken to be the universally most effective form of organization. They have been successful in virtually every organization that has implemented them. ⊚ ⊚

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99) Highly cohesive formal groups may, by definition, also be cross classified as "friendship" groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

100) Giving teams the leeway to develop their own work procedures can help promote their success. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 10_12_ Konopaskee 12) A 13) C 14) C 15) C 16) B 17) B 18) C 19) B 20) A 21) A 22) A 23) B 24) C 25) D 26) D 27) D 28) A 29) B 30) D 31) C 32) D 33) C 34) D 35) A 36) C 37) A Version 1

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38) B 39) B 40) C 41) D 42) B 43) C 44) C 45) B 46) A 47) D 48) D 49) A 50) D 51) D 52) D 53) D 54) B 55) D 56) B 57) C 58) C 59) A 60) A 61) C 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) FALSE 81) TRUE Version 1

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82) TRUE 83) FALSE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) TRUE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE

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CHAPTER 11 1)

The text presented seven recommendations for improving negotiations. List five of them.

2) Contrast functional and dysfunctional conflict. In your answer include the mechanisms, if any, which allow conflict type change.

3)

Can conflict be managed to promote organizational performance, if so how?

4)

Explain the impact that intergroup conflict has on groups.

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5) There are a number of possible consequences of dysfunctional conflict. What are these?

Are some of these consequences more or less likely to occur in organizational conflict situations?

6) What general points would you give a fellow manager regarding the use of the different conflict resolution approaches?

7) A _______________ conflict is any confrontation or interaction between groups that harms the organization or hinders the achievement of organizational goals.

A) zero-sum B) joint-problem C) devil's advocate D) dysfunctional

8)

____________ is also known as distributive negotiating.

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A) Hyperfunctional B) Type A C) Combative D) Zero-sum

9) An organization that has a high level of intergroup conflict is most likely to be characterized by all of the following except: A) Disruption.

B) Interference with activities.

C) Chaos.

D) Apathy.

10) Slow adaptation to environmental changes is associated with ___________ levels of intergroup conflict.

A) low or no B) optimal C) high D) torrid

11) In most cases, the point at which functional conflict becomes dysfunctional is ____________.

A) common across organizations B) known as the transition point C) impossible to identify precisely D) All of the choices are correct

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12) The tendency for every group to be at least partially in conflict with every other group with which it interacts is known as "the law of _______________ conflict."

A) systematic B) interorganizational C) interpersonal D) random

13)

________ interdependence requires no interaction among groups.

A) Nominal B) Virtual C) Pooled D) None of the choices are correct

14)

All of the following are types of group interdependence except: A) Pooled.

B) Circular.

C) Sequential.

D) Reciprocal.

15)

The conflict potential in _______________ is relatively low.

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A) pooled interdependence B) sequential interdependence C) reciprocal interdependence D) dysfunctional interdependence

16) _______________ interdependence requires one group to complete its task before another group can complete its task.

A) Pooled B) Sequential C) Reciprocal D) Dysfunctional

17) The relationships that exist between the anesthesiology staff, nursing staff, technician staff, and surgeons in a hospital operating room is an example of _____________.

A) pooled interdependence B) sequential interdependence C) reciprocal interdependence D) functional conflict

18) In the Big City track meet, runners from five schools compete in separate events.

Individual runners are awarded points based on the place (1 st, 2 nd, and 3 rd) they finish in their race, and these points are totaled to determine which school wins the meet. What type of interdependence would best describe this situation?

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A) Pooled B) Reciprocal C) Sequential D) Team

19) A traditional assembly line would most likely create a high degree of ___________ interdependence.

A) pooled B) reciprocal C) sequential D) all of the choices are correct.

20) Inaccurate _______________ often cause one group to develop stereotypes about other groups.

A) perceptions B) negotiations C) directions D) priorities

21)

Status incongruence conflicts are often created by _______________.

A) personalities B) work patterns C) time goals D) quotas

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22)

When a group is in conflict, it becomes _______ task-oriented.

A) less B) nominally C) more D) adversely

23)

When a group is engaged in intergroup conflict, its cohesion tends to _______________.

A) decrease B) remain the same C) increase D) Conflict has no effect on cohesion.

24)

When a group is engaged in intergroup conflict, _______________.

A) cohesion tends to increase B) democratic methods of leadership are likely to become less popular C) it is not unusual for groups to overconform to group norms D) All of the choices are correct

25)

Communications between groups in conflict usually _______________.

A) increase B) are strictly task-focused C) remain the same D) break down

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26)

Conflict tends to ____________ negative stereotypes.

A) increase B) decrease C) balance D) reinforce

27)

One group may hold the most power because it _______________.

A) is higher up in the organizational hierarchy B) controls critical resources C) has allied with other groups D) Any or all of the choices are correct.

28) A(n) _______________ party places maximum emphasis on meeting the needs of the other group, while minimizing its own concerns.

A) accommodating B) compromising C) avoiding D) dominating

29) _______________ seeks to resolve conflict by placing maximum focus on both groups' concerns.

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A) Accommodating B) Compromising C) Avoiding D) Problem solving or collaboration

30) You should use a _______________ approach on important negotiation issues when you are certain you are right.

A) dominating B) problem-solving C) avoiding D) compromising

31) You should consider using a _______________ approach when both groups are willing to invest time and effort to reach a resolution that maximizes everyone's outcome.

A) dominating B) problem-solving C) avoiding D) compromising

32) _______________ is a good backup strategy if attempts at problem solving are unsuccessful.

A) Accommodating B) Compromising C) Avoiding D) Dominating

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33) It is typically best to use a(n) __________ conflict resolution approach in disputes that are of far greater importance to the other group than they are to your group.

A) accommodating B) compromising C) dominating D) avoiding

34) Members of the United Auto Workers union at the Ford Motor Company, in response to a major downturn in automobile sales and profitability, agreed to caps on overtime and unemployment pay and reductions in wage increases because the survival of the company was threatened. This is an example of _________.

A) a bad faith approach by management B) an avoiding approach by the union C) focusing on a superordinate goal D) deceptive management behavior

35) Changing the _______________ of the organization not only can help resolve intergroup conflict, it can be an excellent way to create conflict.

A) structure B) ethnic makeup C) geographic location D) product line

36) _______________ conflict is conflict that is deliberately and systematically created, even when no real differences appear to exist.

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A) Imaginary B) Systemic C) Contrived D) Programmed

37) Prior to an important decision, your team assigns you the role of critic with the job of uncovering all possible problems with a particular proposal. Your function may be termed as a(n) ______.

A) angel B) change advocate C) devil's advocate D) disturbance creator

38)

A lack of conflict ______________.

A) is never beneficial B) may prove beneficial in the short term C) is the central goal of the "new" approaches to management D) is considered a "hygiene" factor

39)

Distributive negotiating is also known as _______________ negotiating.

A) win-win B) win-lose C) divisible D) low-ball

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40)

Issues involving _______________ are seen as conflicts over limited resources.

A) wages B) benefits C) working conditions D) All of the choices are correct.

41)

If negotiation fails, a conflict often _______________.

A) escalates B) dissolves C) resolves on its own D) spreads to other groups

42) Mike goes to the market and haggles for a price that is less than the vendor's cost. This is an example of _______________ negotiating.

A) win-lose B) Western C) maximal D) All of the choices can be correct.

43)

What is a positive-sum situation?

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A) One party gains more than the other.

B) Each party gains something, without a corresponding loss for the other party.

C) The losses of both parties result in a net gain for a third party.

D) A positive result is possible, but negotiations have stalled.

44) A tactic that involves getting an additional concession or perks after an agreement has been reached is the _______________ approach.

A) good-guy/bad-guy B) nibble C) joint problem-solving D) power of competition

45) Striving to end up with a bigger piece of the pie than the other party is to focus on a _______________ outcome.

A) related B) constructive C) primary D) substantive

46) To negotiate in a manner designed primarily to maintain good relations between the parties, irrespective of the outcome of the negotiation, is to focus on a _______________ outcome.

A) relationship B) constructive C) primary D) substantive

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47) When a party to a negotiation suggests a split, the difference early in the process _____________.

A) they may be seeking a nibble to exploit later B) it may mean they have already received more than they think they deserve C) communicating they are committed to a win-win approach D) a demonstrating joint problem solving

48)

Tough negotiators use _______________ to make opponents think they don't need them.

A) the power of competition B) joint problem-solving C) splitting the difference D) a good-guy/bad-guy approach

49) During _______________, the chief role of the consultant is to improve the negotiating climate so that substantive negotiations can take place at some point in the future.

A) mediation B) arbitration C) conciliation D) consultation

50)

During _______________, a third party has the power to impose an agreement.

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A) mediation B) arbitration C) conciliation D) consultation

51) In ____________________ arbitration, the arbitrator has no real control over designing the agreement.

A) game theory based B) binding C) final-offer D) constative

52) ____________ is a type of planned intervention that is meant to build self-awareness and camaraderie among members of a team.

A) Interaction management B) Team building C) Self-examination D) Game playing

53)

You can improve your cross-cultural negotiation by __________________________.

A) assuming authority B) identifying if there is one decision maker or if group consensus is required C) opening conversations using a dominating approach D) All of the choices are correct.

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54) When conducting cross-cultural negotiations, if your counterpart is risk-adverse you should ___________.

A) structure the negotiation to be a detailed step-by-step process B) provide limited information to foster trust in your level of knowledge C) proceed quickly to limit their cognitive stress D) assume authority and force consensus

55) A negotiator from which of the following countries would typically have the most informal negotiating style?

A) Spain B) China C) Mexico D) United States

56) A negotiator from which of the following countries would typically have the most indirect communication style?

A) Germany B) United States C) India D) Japan

57)

How has the organizational perspective to conflict changed over time?

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58)

How does functional conflict benefit the organization?

59)

What is the impact of conflict that is too low?

60) When managers and employees repress conflict, it can lead often to higher (and uglier) levels of discord. Provide an example of an "ugly" conflict strategy that should be avoided.

61)

When does work interdependence occur and how has it been classified?

62)

How are reciprocal and sequential interdependence different?

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63) If your group were "under attack" from another, what would you expect in regard to group cohesiveness?

64) You classmate says those in times of conflict; people turn to more participative forms of leadership. How do you respond?

65)

How do member perceptions typically change during times of conflict?

66)

In a conflict situation, what would an external focus cause the group to concentrate on?

67) One way of viewing conflict-resolution efforts between groups is to examine the extent to which a conflicting group has an internal and external focus with respect to resolution strategies.

Describe the perspectives.

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68)

Do "internal focus" and "external focus" represent opposite sides of the same continuum?

69) Avoiding can be an effective and appropriate strategy in some conflict situations. When used as a temporary alternative in a heated negotiation, what benefits can one expect to gain from avoidance?

70)

Provide an example of how a superordinate goal may impact a group outcome.

71)

What is a negotiation?

72)

What is the role or purpose of the devil's advocate?

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73)

What are the four elements that are typically part of all negotiations?

74) Think about the last time you had to negotiate something (e.g., a higher grade, the purchase of a new or used car, etc.). Which negotiation tactic did you use and or the other party?

Identify which tactic was introduced and explain how it was introduced.

75)

What is meant by win-win negotiating?

76)

Conflict is neither inherently good nor bad, although it is inevitable. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Too little conflict leads to apathy and lethargy and provides little or no impetus for change and innovation.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

78) Evidence suggests that conflict can improve the quality of decision making and employee relations. ⊚ ⊚

79)

true false

Even dysfunctional conflict can enhance and benefit an organization's performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

80) The same level of stress and conflict that creates a healthy and positive movement toward goals in one group may prove disruptive and dysfunctional in another. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) Every organization has an optimal level of conflict that helps generate positive performance. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) The "law and order" approach to conflict management, i.e., managers order people to stop arguing and to get back to work, typically causes the conflict to subside. ⊚ ⊚

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83) When managers keep potentially confrontational information (important to the group) to themselves, it serves to repress conflict. ⊚ ⊚

true false

84) The law of interorganizational conflict proposes that every group comes into at least partial conflict with every other group with which it interacts. ⊚ ⊚

85)

Work independence is a typical source of intergroup conflict. ⊚ ⊚

86)

true false

true false

Even groups with mutually exclusive goals can find themselves in conflict. ⊚ ⊚

true false

87) When limited resources must be allocated between groups, mutual dependencies decrease. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

Conformity to group norms becomes less important in conflict situations.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

89) In extreme conflict situations where threats are perceived, democratic methods of leadership are likely to become more popular. ⊚ ⊚

90)

When a group is in conflict, it becomes less task-oriented. ⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

Accommodation as a response to conflict should never be used as it projects weakness. ⊚ ⊚

92)

true false

true false

Compromising may sometimes involve third-party interventions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) A lack of disagreement can lead to suboptimum performance and inferior decision making. ⊚ ⊚

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94)

Increasing conflict can increase the tendency for groupthink. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

A lack of conflict is never beneficial to the organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) A "devil's advocate" is a person that introduces dysfunctional conflict into the organization. ⊚ ⊚

97)

true false

The use of incentives has no impact or effect on conflict among groups. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) The final outcome of negotiations is almost always directly related to the power and dependency relationships between the negotiators. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

Although there is no one best way to manage, there is one best way to negotiate. ⊚ ⊚

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100) When an opposing group offers to split the difference too early, it may mean that the group has already received more than it expected to get or thinks it deserves. ⊚ ⊚

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25

Answer Key Test name: Chap 11_12_ Konopaskee 7) D 8) D 9) D 10) A 11) C 12) B 13) C 14) B 15) A 16) B 17) C 18) A 19) C 20) A 21) B 22) C 23) C 24) D 25) D 26) D 27) D 28) A 29) D 30) A 31) B 32) B Version 1

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33) A 34) C 35) A 36) D 37) C 38) B 39) B 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) B 45) D 46) A 47) B 48) A 49) D 50) B 51) C 52) B 53) B 54) A 55) D 56) D 76) TRUE 77) TRUE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE Version 1

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82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) TRUE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) TRUE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE

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CHAPTER 12 1) Which power would you prefer to develop for yourself: expert power or legitimate power? What are the advantages and disadvantages of each of these sources of power?

2) Assume that the printing process is a strategic contingency for a publishing company and that only one group of employees knows how to operate the printing press. How could the environment be changed to more evenly balance power within the printing department?

3) A number of frequently used influence tactics were discussed in the text. How many have you witnessed being played in organizations of which you are a member? What other tactics have you seen used?

4) Researchers recommend that a managers' behavior satisfy certain criteria to be considered ethical. What are those criteria?

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5) Power is an aspect of a relationship between two or more persons. What implication does this fact have for organizational members who wish to increase their power? Decrease the power of others?

6)

How does a person's zone of inference influence acceptance of authority and compliance?

7)

Describe the Milgram studies and their findings.

8) Researchers recommend that a managers' behavior satisfy certain criteria to be considered ethical. Define these criteria.

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9)

Describe the nine specific tactics used by individuals to influence others.

10)

You cannot influence anyone (induce certain behavior in another person) without: A) ethics B) influence C) power D) rewards

11) John French and Bertram Raven suggested that all of the following are interpersonal sources of power except: A) Legitimate.

B) Expert.

C) Coercive.

D) Relevant.

12) The five sources of interpersonal power can be divided into two major categories: _______________.

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A) organizational and personal B) structural and informational C) operational and influence D) structural and personal

13) _______________ power refers to a person's ability to influence others because of their position within the organization.

A) Status B) Authentic C) Legal D) Legitimate

14)

Organizational authority has all of the following characteristics except: A) It is used horizontally.

B) It is invested in a person's position.

C) It is accepted by subordinates.

D) It is used vertically.

15) If a request by a manager to a subordinate were perceived as an acceptable order, it would lie within __________.

A) the manager's "zone of authority" B) the subordinate's "zone of acceptance" C) the subordinate's "zone of indifference" D) the manager's "zone of indifference"

16)

A person's _______________ is the basis of his or her referent power.

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A) intelligence B) charisma C) expertise D) knowledge

17) Performing a requested task because of fear of rejection by co-workers for noncompliance is an example of the impact of _______________ power.

A) referent B) reward C) group D) coercive

18)

A person's _______________ power can be changed by rewriting their job description.

A) referent B) doyen C) expert D) legitimate

19) _______________ sources of power result from the nature of the organizational social system, rather than from the attributes of an individual.

A) Reward B) Structural C) Referent D) Coercive

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20) Research indicates that when subordinates believe a manager's _____ power is increasing, they also perceive a drop in reward, referent, and legitimate power.

A) political B) earning C) expert D) coercive

21) Resources in organizations are typically allocated _______________, along the lines of authority.

A) politically B) obliquely C) upward D) downward

22)

One of things Kanter argues that power stems from is _____________.

A) access to resources, information, and support B) the ability to identify meaningful work C) one's position in the organization D) the people

23)

One of things Kanter argues that power stems from is _____________.

A) expertise on resources, information, and support B) the ability to identify meaningful work C) one's position in the organization D) the ability to get cooperation in doing necessary work

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24)

A manager is powerful because he or she does or has all of the following except: A) Allocates required resources B) Makes crucial decisions C) Access to important information D) Extensive training

25) Which of the following is not provided as a reason for Microsoft, Google, and Walmart becoming prominent, profitable companies?

A) Knowledge of their employees B) Experience of their employees C) Creativity of their employees D) Material wealth of the corporation

26)

____________ is defined as a conclusion or analysis derived from data and information.

A) Data leveraging B) Information application C) K2 D) Knowledge

27) All of the following are reasons why employee empowerment is not universally embraced except: A) Managers fear the loss of power, control, and authority.

B) Employees are not able to make responsible decisions.

C) Empowered employees displace too many managers.

D) Empowering employees was attempted before, and it failed.

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28) _______________ is defined as sharing power and authority with subordinates to increase their confidence and effectiveness.

A) Mentoring B) Empowerment C) Substitutability D) Delegating

29) Hickson stated, “The more a subunit copes with uncertainty, the greater its _____ within the organization.”

A) authority B) impact C) centrality D) power

30) Crozier and Hickson suggest that the power differential between subunits is influenced by all of the following except ________.

A) the degree or ability to cope with uncertainty B) the centrality of the subunit C) the substitutability of the subunit D) the tenure of the subunit

31)

All of the following are types of subunit coping activities except: A) Prevention.

B) Information.

C) Absorption.

D) Deflection.

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32)

Within the context of strategic contingency theory, a strategic contingency is A) a plan that will be used only in the event that the primary plan is unattainable.

B) a reserve of funds to be used in case of emergency.

C) an alternative plan of strategic importance.

D) an event or activity that is extremely important for accomplishing organizational

goals.

33)

Forecasting is an example of coping by _______________.

A) prevention B) information C) involvement D) deflection

34) All else being equal, a subunit possesses power if its activities have more _______________ impact than those of other subunits.

A) immediate or urgent B) financial C) emotional or disgruntlement D) visible

35)

Which of the following is an example of substitutability?

A) Preventing market share decline by product development B) Absorbing problems from other units C) Being in an urgent or immediacy position D) Possessing needed skills or expertise to perform the tasks of other units

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36) Consider the following. One subunit takes a problem employee from another in an attempt to retrain and redirect that employee. This is done as a favor so that the other subunit will not have to go through the pain of terminating or continuing to put up with the employee. In doing so, the subunit that takes in the problem employee gains the respect of other subunits, which results in an increase in power. This scenario provides an example of coping by ________________.

A) absorption B) cooperation C) training D) transfer

37) According to Hickson, "The ____ a subunit copes with uncertainty, the _____ its power within the organization."

A) more, greater B) less, greater C) more, less D) Hickson did not directly address this point.

38)

_________ zero centrality.

A) Staff subunits have B) The least information providing subunits have C) The most geographically separated subunits have D) No subunit has

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39) If an organization can obtain alternative sources of the _______________ to perform the job done by a subunit, that subunit's power will be diminished.

If a subunit has unique skills and competencies that would be hard to duplicate or replace, this tends to increase the subunit’s power over other subunits. This is an example of __________ A) absorption B) co-opting C) substitutability D) centering

40) Ben Taub General Hospital is a major public hospital in Houston. The emergency and trauma treatment subunit is extremely important and crucial, and it contains significant power within the hospital. Failures in this subunit could result in the death of emergency victims. On the other hand, the psychiatric subunit does important work but not of the crucial and immediate type. Therefore, it has significantly less subunit power than the emergency and trauma treatment subunit. This scenario provides an example of gaining power through ________________.

A) immediacy B) centrality C) relevance D) impact

41) Which of the following is not one of the three types of activities used by subunits to cope with uncertainty?

A) Absorption B) Information C) Substitutability D) Prevention

42)

The Milgram studies focused on _______________.

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A) the effects of punishment on learning B) obedience to authority C) the impact of environment on perceptions of role D) the impact of subordinate-leader relations

43) _______ demonstrated how powerful perceived power can be in his Stanford Prison Experiment.

A) Clark B) Milgram C) Zimbardo D) Raven

44) A study of 700 employees suggested that political skill could accurately be broken down into all of the following factors except: A) Social astuteness B) Interpersonal influence C) Networking ability D) Survival instincts

45) In a study of political behavior, managers were asked to describe the personal characteristics of organizational members who were effective “politicians.” A total of 13 characteristics were identified as being important, headed by ________________.

A) sensitivity, ambition, and intelligence B) intelligence, cunning, and sensitivity C) articulateness, sensitivity, and social adeptness D) cunning, articulateness, and social adeptness

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46) A study that assessed the political skill of about 700 employees suggested that political skill could be accurately broken down into _____ distinct factors.

A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 13

47) All of the following were presented in the text as reasons or purposes for which political games are played except: A) To increase productivity.

B) To resist authority.

C) To counter the resistance to authority.

D) To build power bases.

48) _______________ is used to convince you that a particular course of action is logically the best course because it is in your best interest.

A) An inspirational appeal B) A personal appeal C) Consultation D) Rational persuasion

49)

Mintzberg’s games are practiced ___________.

A) only in large organizations B) only in small organizations C) in both medium- and large-sized organizations D) in all organizations

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50) _______________ are used to gain your support by seeking the help of others to persuade you, or by using the support of others as an argument for you to also give your support.

A) Consultative tactics B) Inspirational appeals C) Ingratiating tactics D) Coalition tactics

51) _______________ are used to create a sense of obligation, because someone is doing something nice for you.

A) Consultation tactics B) Inspirational appeals C) Ingratiating tactics D) Coalition tactics

52) _______________ are used to gain your support for a course of action by letting you participate in the planning for the action.

A) Consultation tactics B) Inspirational appeals C) Ingratiating tactics D) Coalition tactics

53)

________ has identified the types of political games played in organizations.

A) Henry Mintzberg B) John Milgram C) Peter Drucker D) Robert Konopaske

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54) Karen wants to bring about organizational change. What political game is most closely associated with this desired outcome?

A) The whistle-blowing game B) The insurgency game C) The counter-insurgency game D) The sponsorship game

55) Marta wants to defeat rivals. What political game is most closely associated with this desired outcome?

A) The whistle-blowing game B) The insurgency game C) The counter-insurgency game D) The line-versus-staff game

56)

The influence tactic of consultation is most likely to result in _______________.

A) resistance B) compliance C) commitment D) peer pressure

57) The influence tactic of _______________ was found to be the most likely to result in commitment.

A) consultation B) inspiration C) coalition D) visioning

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58) Researchers report that those who use _______________ behaviors and logic to convince others have a greater chance of succeeding at their careers than do those who do not use these tactics.

A) consultative B) inspirational C) ingratiating D) pressuring

59) In the context of impression management, _______________ may be used to create the impression that you are participative and that you want, value, and respect input from the person you are trying to influence.

A) consultation B) inspiration C) pressure D) ingratiation

60) An employee who uses _______________ to convince her teammates to pursue a certain approach to a project is likely to hurt her image as a team player.

A) impression management B) self-promotion C) intimidation D) self-handicapping

61) In the context of impression management, _______________ is designed to project an impression of you as a nice, thoughtful, or friendly person.

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A) consultation B) inspiration C) self-promotion D) ingratiation

62) Researchers have developed a framework that allows a manager to integrate ethics into political behavior and recommend that a manager’s behavior must satisfy certain criteria to be considered ethical. Which of the following is not one of the criteria?

A) Utilitarian outcomes B) Organizational outcomes C) Individual rights D) Distributive justice

63) There is nothing wrong with the acquisition and use of power if it is done in a professional and _______________ manner.

A) legal B) ethical C) distributive D) consistent

64)

Which of the following is not a factor associated with political skills?

A) sociability B) interpersonal influence C) networking ability D) apparent sincerity

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65) If a potential behavior cannot pass the three ethical criteria, it may still be considered ethical in the particular situation if it passes the criterion of __________________.

A) do no harm B) extreme need C) strategic contingencies D) overwhelming factors

66)

What is the difference between power and influence?

67)

Organizational authority has three characteristics; what are they?

68) Sources of interpersonal power can be divided into two major categories. What are these categories, and what sources of power are they associated with?

69)

Kanter argues that power stems from multiple sources. What are they?

70)

What is the difference between data, information, and knowledge?

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71)

How has empowerment been defined by Conger and Kanungo?

72) Despite the commonsense appeal of empowering employees, empowerment is not universally embraced for a number of reasons. List three.

73) Identify three strategies or techniques a manager can employ to empower his or her employees.

74) In the case of self-managed teams, empowerment can be fostered by delegating additional formal decision-making control to the team. What benefit does this produce for the team?

75)

What is a strategic contingency?

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76)

Subunit power is influenced by three factors; what are they?

77)

How does substitutability influence subunit power?

78)

Briefly explain the major finding of the Milgram studies.

79)

Briefly explain how the Milgram and Zimbardo experiment findings relate.

80)

What is self-handicapping?

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81)

What is impression management, and how might an interviewee use it?

82) Political games are played at all organizational levels by both managers and nonmanagers. Identify three purposes for which these games are played.

83)

Influence is the capability to get someone to do something. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84)

Power is considered an attribute of a particular person. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85)

No individual or group can have power in isolation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86)

Legitimate power is also called authority or position power. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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87) The zone of indifference is when individuals do not care to recognize (are indifferent to) the superior’s authority and do not comply with orders. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88)

Possessing legitimate power ensures that your subordinates will follow all of your orders. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89)

A person's zone of indifference can widen or narrow, depending on the situation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90)

Even if a reward has no value to an individual, it is likely to influence behavior. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91)

One must be in a position of authority to possess coercive power. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92) low.

Experts have power even when their formal position in the organizational hierarchy is ⊚ ⊚

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93)

Expert, legitimate, reward, and coercive power are largely prescribed by the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94) Structure impacts informal power through its effect on information and communication flows within the system. ⊚ true ⊚ false

95)

The use of coercive power seldom results in resistance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96)

The use of expert or referent power results in compliance but not commitment. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) Organizations with very few levels of management between the customer and top leadership are likely to have a less balanced distribution of power than traditional organizations with multiple layers of management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) According to Kanter, if one has the ability to get cooperation, they do not need access to resources, information, and support to have power over others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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99) Individuals who influence decision-making processes and their outcomes must have formal authority. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100)

Having access to relevant and important information is power. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) Coercive influence is considered by some experts to be more powerful than any part or structure of an organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) Effective empowerment requires that employees only must be given enough information to carry out their immediate tasks. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103)

Performance feedback is typically not necessary for newly empowered employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104) The higher the substitutability of a subunit, the greater is its power within the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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105) In the language of organizational theory, political behavior results in the displacement of power. ⊚ true ⊚ false

106) Compliance occurs when you agree internally with a decision, action, or request and are likely to exert unusual effort to carry it out. ⊚ true ⊚ false

107) Any influence tactic can result in resistance if it is used unskillfully or if the request being made is clearly objectionable. ⊚ true ⊚ false

108) Virtually everyone makes a deliberate effort in some situations to create a desirable impression. ⊚ true ⊚ false

109) Organizational politics refers to the actions individuals take to control the impressions that others form of them. ⊚ true ⊚ false

110) Organizational behavior that is intentional and is designed to acquire and maintain power is captured within the construct of “control-oriented” behavior.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

111) The insurgency game is played to enhance one’s own status by removing authority from other groups. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 12_12_ Konopaskee 10) C 11) D 12) A 13) D 14) A 15) C 16) B 17) D 18) D 19) B 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) D 24) D 25) D 26) D 27) C 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) D 32) D 33) B 34) A 35) D Version 1

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36) A 37) A 38) D 39) C 40) C 41) C 42) B 43) C 44) D 45) C 46) B 47) A 48) D 49) D 50) D 51) C 52) A 53) A 54) A 55) D 56) C 57) B 58) C 59) A 60) C 61) D 62) B 63) B 64) A 65) D Version 1

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83) FALSE 84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) TRUE 101) FALSE 102) FALSE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) FALSE

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CHAPTER 13 1)

Explain the elements in the communication process.

2)

How may nonverbal messaged differ from other forms of communication?

3) You are making a presentation to a CEO on communication, and she states "we don't need upward communications here and even if we did, I have no idea on how to promote it."

Based on what you have learned in this course, how would you reply?

4)

Describe the role played by interpersonal communication in organizations.

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5)

What is meant by multicultural communication and why is it increasingly important?

6) Identify seven significant barriers to effective communication. Provide examples of how these barriers may impact a student at this institution.

7) List some of the positive and negative consequences of groups developing and using words and phrases that have meaning only to members.

8) Name three things that you, as a manager, can do to improve communication in a diverse organization.

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9) The regulation of communication can ensure an optimum flow of information to managers, thereby eliminating the barrier of _______________.

A) nonverbals B) communication filtering C) communication overload D) interpersonal communication

10) Encoding translates the communicator's ideas into a systematic set of _______________ that the receiver can understand.

A) symbols B) words C) ideas D) media

11) When describing the elements of the communications process, the __________ is the carrier of the message.

A) medium B) portal C) linkage D) transmission

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12) In an organizational framework, the communicator is an employee, manager, or customer with ______________.

A) ideas, intentions, and information B) ideas, intentions, information, and a purpose for communicating C) a higher status than the receiver D) ideas, intention, and status

13) One-way communication processes are those that do not allow _______________ feedback.

A) receiver-to-receiver B) receiver-to-communicator C) communicator-to-communicator D) All of the choices are correct.

14) For the communication process to be completed, the message must be _______________ in terms of relevance to the receiver.

A) received B) transmitted C) decoded D) confirmed

15)

Winking one eye most often signals _______________.

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A) disbelief B) intimacy C) impatience D) confusion

16)

All of the following are forms of indirect feedback except: A) Declines in productivity.

B) Increased absenteeism.

C) Frowning during a face-to-face meeting.

D) Conflict between units.

17) Physical cues such as distance, posture, and gestures indicate the _______________ of the emotion being expressed.

A) type B) intensity C) origin D) All of the choices are correct.

18) Common forms of _______________ communication include job instructions, official memos, policy statements, manuals, and company publications.

A) upward B) downward C) horizontal D) diagonal

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19)

In addition to happiness, a smile can also indicate: A) Contempt.

B) Fear.

C) Resignation.

D) All of the choices are correct.

20)

In many organizations, downward communication is often _____.

A) incomplete B) inadequate C) inaccurate D) All of the choices are correct

21) Examples of common _______________ information flows include suggestion boxes, group meetings, and appeal or grievance procedures.

A) upward B) downward C) horizontal D) diagonal

22) _______________ communication provides managers with feedback about current problems and information about day-to-day operations that they need for making decisions.

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A) Upward B) Downward C) Horizontal D) Diagonal

23) Employees often go through four stages when high-level decisions are developed and implemented: these stages are _______________.

A) speculate, digest, make a conclusion, respond B) digest, deliberate, make a conclusion, respond C) speculate, digest, deliberate, make a conclusion D) speculate, digest, deliberate, respond

24) When an organization communicates a high-level communication after reaching a conclusion, an employee will _____________ the decision.

A) embrace, endure, or resist B) accept C) reject, or passively resist D) All of the choices are correct

25) When the chairperson of the accounting department communicates with the chairperson of the marketing department about the course offerings in a college, the flow of communication is: A) Top to bottom B) Bottom to top C) Diagonal D) Horizontal

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26) A medium that enables high richness is more likely to result in _______________ between individuals or groups.

A) miscommunication B) conflict C) cooperation D) common understanding

27) _______________ present/presents products or services in a positive manner, in an effort to attract customers, clients, or patients.

A) Public relations B) Advertising C) Promoting D) Customer/Client/Patient surveys

28) _______________ is/are designed to attract employee talent to sustain and grow the organization.

A) Public relations B) Advertising C) Promoting the culture and opportunities available D) Customer/Client/Patient surveys

29)

_______________ communication cuts across functions and levels in an organization.

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A) Upward B) Downward C) Horizontal D) Diagonal

30) The Internet was developed in the 1960s by _______________ as a way to ensure that communications could survive a military attack.

A) the Japanese B) Harvard University C) the U.S. Department of Defense D) NASA

31) A _______________ is a network node (hardware and/or software) set up to prevent traffic from crossing into a private intranet.

A) firewall B) virus scanner C) server D) encryption device

32) Corporate use of instant messaging (IM) is expected to grow rapidly for all of the following reasons except: A) IM offers real-time communication among geographically dispersed employees.

B) IM is an inexpensive alternative to travel.

C) Responses are more accurate than verbal communication.

D) IM demands the immediate attention of its users.

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33)

Which of the following statements about texting is false?

A) Texting is less expensive than many other forms of advertising.

B) Fifty percent of all texts are read within 3 minutes of being received.

C) Texting is the favorite form of communication among young consumers.

D) People read the vast majority of their text messages.

34)

Electronic meeting software (EMS) allows meeting facilitators to: A) Poll meeting participants.

B) Analyze voting results.

C) Create detailed reports.

D) All of the choices are correct.

35)

A downward glance during a brief encounter in an office can mean _______________.

A) modesty B) embarrassment C) a lack of respect D) Any of the choices is correct

36) Cultural anthropologists Edward T. and Mildred R. Hall theorize that communication can be divided into several culturally determined parts: words, space, time, and _______________.

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A) behavior B) orientation C) gender D) gestures

37)

The American A-OK hand gesture means _______________ in France.

A) things are fine B) money C) zero D) something obscene

38)

Managers from monochromic cultures tend to do all of the following except: A) Take time commitments seriously.

B) Adhere to plans.

C) Handle multiple tasks simultaneously.

D) Emphasize promptness.

39)

Managers from monochronic cultures _______________.

A) do one thing at a time and take time commitments seriously B) adhere to plans and follow rules of privacy C) show respect for private property and emphasize promptness D) All of the choices are correct

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40) _______________ the values, customs, and perspectives of other cultures is required to facilitate communication.

A) Critiquing B) Studying C) Acceptance of D) Awareness of

41)

About 75% of all communication is: A) Listening.

B) Speaking.

C) Body language.

D) One-way.

42)

The phases of listening include all of the following except: A) Inception.

B) Action.

C) Perception.

D) Interpretation.

43)

Videoconferencing with virtual team members is an example of: A) Very high richness.

B) High richness.

C) Low richness.

D) Very low richness.

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44)

Which of the following is an example of very low richness?

A) Emailing the yearly holiday schedule to all employees B) Leaving voicemail C) Asking your supervisor for a raise D) Interviewing for a sale position

45) _______________ refers to the manipulation of information so that the receiver perceives it as positive.

A) Layering B) Posturing C) Shading D) Filtering

46) The level of _______________ that the receiver assigns to the communicator directly affects how the receiver views and reacts to the words, ideas, and actions of the communicator.

A) credibility B) intensity C) respect D) moderation

47) Filtering of information is likely to occur when employees are communicating information to an _______________ superior.

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A) impatient B) aggressive C) intimidating D) All of the choices are correct.

48) The result of a communication _______________ is that someone is left out of the formal channel of communication who would normally be included.

A) short-circuit B) mismatch C) glitch D) loop-back

49) Although estimates vary, approximately 2.3 billion spam messages are sent in the United States a(n) ________.

A) hour B) day C) month D) year

50)

Managers striving to become better communicators must first improve their: A) Messages.

B) Methods.

C) Media.

D) Position in the organization.

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51)

The exception principle of management states that _______________.

A) face-to-face communication should be avoided whenever possible B) all issues should be presented to managers except in cases of dire emergency C) managers should only be communicated with on matters of exception D) All of the choices are correct.

52)

Value judgments are made by the receiver _______________.

A) in communication situations prior to the establishment of trust B) in communication situations between parties of different backgrounds C) in most communication situation D) in every communication situation

53)

Complex language has been identified as _____________ to effective communication.

A) a major barrier B) a minor hindrance C) having no relation D) beneficial

54)

________ means refraining from doing harm.

A) Following the hypocrite oath B) Malfeasance C) Non-malfeasance D) Walther's Law

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55)

The grapevine transmits information ______.

A) slowly B) at the same rate as formal means C) rapidly D) deliberately

56)

At least _____% of the gossip that travels through the grapevine is said to be true.

A) 15 B) 25 C) 50 D) 75

57) Kreps postulates ______ broad principles applicable to internal organizational communications.

A) two B) three C) four D) five

58) _______________ is the ability to put oneself in the other person's role and to assume that individual's viewpoints and emotions.

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A) Sympathy B) Transference C) Empathy D) All of the choices are correct.

59)

What are the basic elements of the communications model?

60)

Define communication.

61)

Name five mediums that organizations use to provide information to members.

62)

Why is two-way communication typically preferred over one-way communication?

63)

What is "noise" and when in the communication process does it occur?

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64) An employee verbally states he is doing great, but his posture and facial expressions seem to say something else. Do you think he is actually doing great?

65) The design of an organization should provide for communication in four distinct directions. What are these directions?

66) Employees go through four stages when high-level decisions are developed and implemented. What are these stages?

67) What is the typically the least-used channel of communication and is it of significance to management?

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68)

What is meant if a party states this is rich communication?

69)

Why is face-to-face communication high in richness?

70)

How do the internet and intranet differ?

71)

What is an intranet?

72)

What is the difference between videoconferencing and teleconferencing?

73)

What is selective listening? Provide an example.

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74) Name three things (symbols) that organizations commonly use to express hierarchical rank.

75)

What is non-malfeasance?

76)

Interpersonal behavior cannot exist without interpersonal communication. ⊚ ⊚

77)

true false

Effective communication is unavoidable in an organization. ⊚ ⊚

true false

78) The common symbols between a communicator and a receiver may be verbal, nonverbal, or both. ⊚ ⊚

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79)

All organizational communication is meant to inform or clarify. ⊚ ⊚

80)

Noise can be thought of as those factors that distort the intended message. ⊚ ⊚

81)

true false

true false

Nonverbal behavior can enhance or contradict the message the communicator is sending. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) When verbal and nonverbal messages conflict, receivers tend to place more faith in the verbal message. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) An effective organization needs upward communication as much as it needs downward communication. ⊚ ⊚

84)

true false

E-mail is an effective way of communicating complex messages.

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⊚ ⊚

85)

true false

Texting is typically more expensive than other forms of advertising. ⊚ ⊚

true false

86) Voicemail accounts for approximately 90% of telephone communication within organizations today. ⊚ ⊚

87)

Sending e-mail messages has become more popular than leaving voicemail. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

Technologies will soon solve all communication problems. ⊚ ⊚

90)

true false

Webinars, by definition, are a form of one-way communication. ⊚ ⊚

89)

true false

true false

Interpersonal communication can vary from direct orders to casual expressions.

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⊚ ⊚

91)

true false

A majority of the world's population now speaks and understands English. ⊚ ⊚

true false

92) The amount of personal space that an individual likes to maintain can shift temporarily, depending on the physical surroundings. ⊚ ⊚

93)

true false

If noise exists during a communication, complete understanding will not occur. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) Previous experiences can cause different individuals to interpret the same communication in different ways. ⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

Communicators encode, and receivers decode without regard to their prior experiences. ⊚ ⊚

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96)

In every communication situation, value judgments are made by the receiver. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) In some cases, from a practical standpoint, it is impossible to communicate through formal communication channels. ⊚ ⊚

98)

true false

Following up means assuming that you have been misunderstood. ⊚ ⊚

true false

99) Messages are more likely to be misunderstood when they are competing with other messages. ⊚ ⊚

100)

true false

Communication distortion often occurs because of differing frames of reference. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 13_12_ Konopaskee 9) C 10) A 11) A 12) B 13) B 14) C 15) B 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) D 20) D 21) A 22) A 23) C 24) A 25) D 26) D 27) B 28) C 29) D 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) D Version 1

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35) D 36) A 37) C 38) C 39) D 40) D 41) A 42) A 43) B 44) A 45) D 46) A 47) D 48) A 49) B 50) A 51) C 52) D 53) A 54) C 55) C 56) D 57) B 58) C 76) TRUE 77) FALSE 78) TRUE 79) FALSE 80) TRUE 81) TRUE Version 1

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82) FALSE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) TRUE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) TRUE

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CHAPTER 14 1) What is the difference between programmed decisions and nonprogrammed decisions?

Give an example of each.

2)

Identify the steps in the decision-making process.

3) Discuss the elements of a problem that should be considered in determining its significance.

4)

Describe the conditions governing alternative-outcome relationships.

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5)

Explain the role of behavioral influences on decision making.

6)

Describe the influence of values on the decision-making process.

7) What are four of the most cited reasons why decision makers still make unethical choices? Which of these do you believe presents the strongest motivator to act unethically?

8) Many individuals are reluctant to admit that they have made a wrong decision. List some of the methods that these individuals might use to reduce their dissonance.

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9) Compare individual and group decision making. What are some of the positives and negatives of each approach?

10) Identify three specific techniques for stimulating creativity. Which one of these techniques is best?

11) What are the basic differences between Delphi technique and NGT? Provide examples of when each method may be effective in promoting improved decision making.

12)

All of the following apply to non-programmed decisions except:

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A) Necessity for creativity or intuition B) Repetitive C) Tolerance for ambiguity D) Purchase of experimental equipment

13) Periodic reordering of inventory to maintain preset levels would be classified as which of the following decision types?

A) Nominal B) Nuanced C) Programmed D) Process

14)

Which of the following is the best example of a programmed decision?

A) Procedure for admitting patients B) Diversification into new products and markets C) Deciding how to clean up after a flood D) Construction of new classroom facilities

15) Problems typically result from a determination that a discrepancy exists between current reality and _______________.

A) prior reality B) future reality C) a desired state D) an optimum state

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16)

A necessary condition for a decision is _______________.

A) a resource scarcity B) an organizational need C) self-confidence D) a problem

17)

The first step in the rational decision-making process is _____________.

A) problem identification B) establishing specific goals and objectives C) development of alternatives D) problem cognition

18)

The last step in the rational decision-making process is _____________.

A) alternative selection B) implementation C) follow-up and evaluation D) communication of decision

19)

Problems usually are of three types. Which of the following is not one of those types?

A) Opportunity B) Crisis C) Routine D) Recurring

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20)

___________ problems present themselves and must be attended to by the managers.

A) Crisis but not routine B) Crisis and routine C) Crisis and opportunity D) Crisis, opportunity, and routine

21)

Determining problem significance involves consideration of all of the following except: A) Urgency.

B) Similarity to previous problems.

C) Impact.

D) Growth tendency.

22)

_______________ describes the seriousness of a problem's effects.

A) Impact B) Urgency C) Immediacy D) Growth tendency

23)

When determining problem significance, urgency _____________.

A) relates to impact B) relates to time C) refers to potential for negative outcomes D) All of the choices are correct

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24) As it pertains to choosing a solution, the alternative-outcome relationship is based on all of the following conditions except: A) Certainty.

B) Uncertainty.

C) Risk.

D) Cost.

25)

Certainty is possible in most decision-making _______________.

A) at home B) at work C) in the stock market D) None of the choices are correct.

26) Under conditions of uncertainty, the decision maker has ____________ of the probability of the outcome of _____ alternative(s).

A) absolutely no knowledge; each B) absolutely no knowledge; most C) partial knowledge; each D) partial knowledge; a portion of the

27) A _____________ is an appointed critic of proposed group actions whose role is to uncover underlying issues with the prevailing direction of the group.

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A) "detail devil" B) "decision devil" C) "devil's advocate" D) "decision advocate"

28)

In the bounded rationality approach, all of the following assumptions are made except: A) The consequences of alternative decisions can be predicted.

B) Decision makers rarely have all the information they need or want.

C) The organization's goals constrain decision making.

D) Conflicting goals can force a compromise solution.

29) __________ offered a descriptive approach that has described as the administrative decision-making model.

A) Drucker B) Smith and Howell C) March and Simon D) I.H. Caffie

30) An intuitive decision maker uses _______________ to process information, data, and the environment or to address a problem or solution.

A) experience B) self-confidence C) self-motivation D) All of the choices are correct.

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31) Intuitive decision making is likely to take place under all of the following conditions except: A) The environment is chaotic.

B) The situation is changing rapidly.

C) There is a history or past experience to draw upon.

D) There is intense pressure to come up with a solution.

32)

Intuitive decision making occurs due to all of the following except: A) High levels of uncertainty.

B) Having no history or past experience to draw upon.

C) A lack of time pressure.

D) An excessive number of alternatives.

33)

The administrative decision-making model incorporates which of the following concepts?

A) Optimizing B) Satisfying C) Unbounded alternative generation D) Both "satisfying" and "unbounded alternative generation" are correct

34) Heidrick & Struggles identified all of the following traits that can sabotage an executive's approach to decision making except:

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A) angst B) intellectualizing C) overconfidence D) paralysis

35) In _______________, it is necessary to make value judgments regarding the selection of opportunities and the assignment of priorities.

A) establishing objectives B) developing alternatives C) choosing an alternative D) the evaluation and control phase

36) In the context of decision making, ______ can be thought of as the guidelines a person uses when confronted with a situation in which a choice must be made. They are acquired early in life and are a basic (often taken-for-granted) part of an individual's thoughts.

A) heuristics B) values C) likings D) conventions

37)

Many decisions have an ethical dimension that requires all of the following except: A) Thought.

B) Reflection.

C) Caution.

D) Confession.

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38) Asking "If this decision was published in the newspaper, would the reader consider the decision ethical?" is subjecting a decision to a(n) _______________ test.

A) ethics B) morality C) sunshine D) publicity

39)

Dissonance is often _______________ by admitting that a mistake has been made.

A) increased B) reduced C) unaffected D) completely resolved

40)

According to the text, all of the following contribute to decision-making anxiety except: A) The decision is psychologically or financially important.

B) There are a number of alternatives.

C) The alternatives have many favorable features.

D) One of the alternatives has been successful in the past.

41) The consequences of decisions that deal with _______________ leave leaders particularly susceptible to cognitive dissonance.

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A) life and death B) money C) layoffs D) hiring

42)

Which of the following is a method to reduce dissonance?

A) Seek information that supports the wisdom of their decision.

B) Selectively perceive (distort) information in a way that supports their decision.

C) Minimize the importance of the negative aspects of the decision and exaggerate the importance of the positive aspects.

D) All of the choices are correct.

43)

The potential for dissonance is influenced by _______________.

A) the ability to be persuaded B) personality C) self-confidence D) All of the choices are correct.

44) Gamblers who place larger and larger wagers in an effort to recoup earlier losses are displaying a decision-making behavior called _______________.

A) reverse pyramiding B) load balancing C) escalation of commitment D) stacking the deck

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45) Decision makers who _______________ are likely to be candidates for escalation of decision making.

A) are unclear of their goals B) have a fear of failure C) work in a culture of low trust D) Any or All of the choices are correct.

46) In high power distance cultures such as India, decisions are made at the _______ level of the organization.

A) highest B) middle C) lowest D) None of the choices are correct. Power distance is not related to organizational decision-making

47)

Groups usually require _______________ to make decisions, compared to individuals.

A) more time B) less time C) the same amount of time D) None of the answer choices are correct, there is no relation between decision time and groups

48) The success of the Green Berets is determined by their ability to collectively and creatively implement solutions to _______________ situations.

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A) training B) novel C) repetitive D) every day

49) Research has shown that consensus decisions with five or more participants are superior to _______________.

A) individual decision making B) majority vote C) leader decisions D) All of the choices are correct.

50) When it comes to evaluating alternative solutions, _______________ make superior judgments.

A) individuals B) groups C) neither individuals nor groups D) both individuals and groups

51) In solution selection, group interaction and the achievement of consensus usually result in the acceptance of more _______________ than would be accepted by an individual decision maker.

A) risk B) novelty C) accountability D) innovation

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52) As we move from "individual" to "consensus" decisions, the _______________ of the decision typically improves.

A) quality B) implementation C) cost savings D) simplicity

53) _______________ thinking is a process of generating novel ways to solve problems faced by an individual or group.

A) Bilateral B) Lateral C) Diagonal D) Horizontal

54) Creative decision makers have been found to have all of the following characteristics in common except: A) Type C personalities.

B) Perseverance.

C) Risk-taking propensity.

D) Tolerance of ambiguity.

55)

_______________ creative potential.

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A) Groups have the most B) Individuals have the most C) Groups and individuals are equal in D) The youngest members of a group have

56) _______________ occurs when a team member has to wait for his/her turn to provide an idea that contributes to a brainstorming session.

A) Social loafing B) Conformity C) Idea production blocking D) Downward norm setting

57)

_______________ includes a strict series of rules by which participants must abide.

A) The Philadelphia process B) The normal group technique C) Brainstorming D) The IM process

58) The tendency of people in a team to not work as hard mentally or physically as they would alone is called _______________.

A) downward norm setting B) conformity C) idea production blocking D) social loafing

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59) The Delphi technique has the advantage of having several _______________ while removing the biasing effects that might occur during face-to-face interaction.

A) "Delphs" B) possible solutions C) communication methods D) judges

60)

The nominal group technique employs all of the following except: A) A structured group meeting.

B) Verbal brainstorming.

C) One person who acts as the recorder.

D) Group voting on or ranking of ideas.

61)

All of the following are techniques for stimulating creativity except: A) Brainstorming.

B) Delphi technique.

C) Nominal group technique.

D) Downward norm setting.

62)

Provide an example of a nonprogrammed secession that may face a university.

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63)

What should you measure to determine how critical a problem is for the organization?

64) How can an organization focus management attention away from crises and routine problems and toward longer-range issues?

65)

Problems usually are of three types; what are they?

66)

When does an uncertain situation exist?

67)

What does risk mean in the context of the alternative-outcome relationship?

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68)

Why would an organization consider appointing a "devil's advocate"?

69)

What are the basic assumptions of the bounded rationality approach to decision-making?

70)

What does the intuitive decision maker use to address problems or opportunities?

71)

How do values impact the establishment of objectives?

72) What characteristics or situations may make individuals likely to be candidates for escalation of decision making?

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73) Why may nonprogrammed decisions be more suited for group rather than individual decision making?

74)

What are the three basic rules of brainstorming?

75)

What is the advantage of the Delphi technique?

76) The management of most organizations faces primarily nonprogrammed decisions during daily operations. ⊚ ⊚

true false

77) Problems can be expected to arise in organizations where top management expends too much time and effort on nonprogrammed decisions. ⊚ ⊚

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78)

Every decision is the outcome of a static process. ⊚ ⊚

79)

Defining problems in terms of solutions is really a form of jumping to conclusions. ⊚ ⊚

80)

true false

true false

A problem with low urgency and little impact will not grow if left unattended. ⊚ ⊚

true false

81) When a "good" decision is identified immediately, alternatives do not need to be developed. ⊚ ⊚

true false

82) Decision makers should allow previously established goals and objectives to guide their decisions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

83) Gathering information and/or studying a situation can help a decision maker reduce the degree of uncertainty in decision-making.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

84) Group decision-making outcomes are typically improved by merging the identifying solutions and problem identification processes into one activity. ⊚ ⊚

true false

85) Typically, once a group determines they have found a "perfect" solution, a "devil's advocate" need not be appointed. ⊚ ⊚

86)

In managerial decision making, optimal solutions are always possible. ⊚ ⊚

87)

true false

A poor implementation will have no effect on a good decision. ⊚ ⊚

88)

true false

true false

The decision itself is always more important than the implementation. ⊚ ⊚

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89)

Two objectives can typically be optimized simultaneously. ⊚ ⊚

true false

90) As decision implementation typically involves people, the test of the soundness of a decision is the behavior of the people involved relative to the decision. ⊚ ⊚

true false

91) It is not necessary to reactivate the entire decision-making process if the original objective is revised. ⊚ ⊚

92)

true false

There is some degree of "satisfying" in almost all decisions that people make. ⊚ ⊚

true false

93) Decisions are typically made without the benefit of perfect information and unlimited time to search for and evaluate alternative solutions. ⊚ ⊚

true false

94) To a large extent, a decision maker's willingness to make ethical or unethical decisions will be influenced by his or her values.

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⊚ ⊚

95)

true false

Most decision makers are very similar in their willingness to take risk. ⊚ ⊚

true false

96) What kind of risk taker you are and your potential for anxiety following a decision are very closely related. ⊚ ⊚

true false

97) Escalation of commitment is typically caused by a need to turn a poor decision into a winning decision. ⊚ ⊚

true false

98) In some countries, it is inappropriate for senior executives to consult subordinates before making a decision. ⊚ ⊚

99)

true false

Team- or group-based decision-making is especially good for nonprogrammed problems. ⊚ ⊚

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100) The nominal group technique compares anonymous judgments on a topic through a series of sequential questionnaires. ⊚ ⊚

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 14_12_ Konopaskee 12) B 13) C 14) A 15) C 16) D 17) B 18) C 19) D 20) B 21) B 22) A 23) B 24) D 25) D 26) A 27) C 28) A 29) C 30) D 31) C 32) C 33) B 34) B 35) A 36) B 37) D Version 1

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38) C 39) B 40) D 41) A 42) D 43) D 44) C 45) D 46) A 47) A 48) B 49) D 50) B 51) A 52) A 53) B 54) A 55) A 56) C 57) C 58) D 59) D 60) B 61) D 76) FALSE 77) FALSE 78) FALSE 79) TRUE 80) FALSE 81) FALSE Version 1

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82) TRUE 83) TRUE 84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) FALSE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) TRUE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) TRUE 97) TRUE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE

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CHAPTER 15 1)

Discuss the trait approach to leadership.

2)

How is intelligence related to leadership?

3) Sal, a peer manager, approaches you and commends you on your ability to use an employee-centered approach to leadership. Sal then asks, "What can I do to be more employeecentered in my leadership?" Identify four actions that Sal, or for that matter any manager, can take to increase their employee-centered behavior.

4) Describe two major behavior approaches to leadership discussed in the University of Michigan model.

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5) Explain what situational approaches to leadership are and describe the most significant approaches within this perspective.

6) Identify five or more of the questions that Vroom indicates should be asked when performing a situational diagnosis.

7)

What is the origin and essence of SLT?

8) Doug Blevins was born with cerebral palsy and has never walked, and yet he managed to become the kicking coach for the Miami Dolphins by using his exceptional observational and coaching skills. List four of the hints that he gives on how to be a good coach.

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9) Based upon your performance in this class, you have been recruited to be VP of organizational development at MajorGlobal Industries! Your CEO is a firm believer in participative leadership and pronounces it should be rolled out to all global subsidiaries "with due haste." Turning to you, the CEO asks, "Do you see any issues?" How do you respond regarding the potential of participative management working equally well around the world?

10) Congratulations! You have just been named director of your organization's new effort to produce athletic shoes. You will be working with your corporate office in New York for designs, a German subsidiary for wearable technology development, a Chinese firm for textile development, and an Indonesian company for manufacturing. What may make managing this, or for that matter, any global joint ventures difficult?

11)

Describe the approach to leadership advocated by Greenleaf.

12)

No one has _______________ control over resources, even leaders at the highest levels.

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A) unilateral B) vertical C) horizontal D) lateral

13) Over the years, researchers have continued to find ___________ effect of leadership on performance.

A) only a modest B) a moderate C) a substantial D) a curvilinear

14) Warren Bennis, who has devoted decades to researching leadership issues, concludes that virtually all leaders of effective groups share all of the following characteristics except: A) They provide direction and meaning to the people they lead B) They generate trust C) They avoid risk taking D) They are purveyors of hope

15)

According to Sims and Manz, every successful team has _______________.

A) a problem-oriented culture B) an innovative mindset C) an external incentive D) a leader

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16) The thinking and discussion of leadership has evolved over the years from a trait-based approach to the concept of _______________.

A) leaders without borders B) workers without leaders C) teams without bosses D) character

17) The belief that a person must be physically large to secure compliance from followers relies heavily on the notion of _______________.

A) charisma B) coercive power C) adaptability D) self-confidence

18) Edwin Ghiselli found that people who exhibited _______________ were the most effective leaders.

A) adaptability B) individuality C) decisiveness D) creativity

19) The _________________ leader focuses on the people doing the work and believes in delegating decision making and aiding employees in satisfying their needs by creating a supportive work environment.

A) centered B) employee-centered C) employee-oriented D) engaged

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20) Initiating structure designates behavior in which the leader does all of the following except _______________.

A) organizes and defines the relationships in the group B) establishes well-defined patterns and channels of communication C) spells out ways of getting the job done D) promotes behavior indicating friendship, mutual trust, respect, warmth, and rapport between the leader and the followers

21) All of the following are typically thought of as important variables with which every leader must deal except: A) People.

B) Tasks.

C) The environment.

D) Rebellion.

22) Trait and behavioral approaches fail to take into account the interaction between and among people, tasks, and _______________.

A) environments B) costs C) objectives D) abilities

23)

Fielder believes that a leader’s style, whether relationship- or task-oriented, is:

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A) Fixed or enduring.

B) Undefinable.

C) Flexible and ever-changing.

D) Chosen to match the context.

24) The _______________ model of leadership postulates that the performance of groups is dependent on the interaction between leadership style and situational favorableness.

A) job-centered B) contingency C) initiating D) situational

25)

A situation with _______________ calls for a task-oriented leadership style.

A) good leader-member relations, high task structure, and strong position power B) good leader-member relations, low task structure, and weak position power C) poor leader-member relations, high task structure, and strong position power D) poor leader-member relations, low task structure, and strong position power

26)

Leader-member relations can typically be modified through all of the following except: A) Volunteering to direct difficult or troublesome subordinates.

B) Bringing new or unusual tasks or problems to the unit.

C) Transferring particular subordinates out of the unit.

D) Requesting specific individuals for work in the group.

27) One of the recommended approaches a leader may use to modify task structure is to _________________.

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A) let subordinates participate in planning and decision making B) break jobs down into smaller subtasks that can be more highly structured (more structured).

C) make sure that information to the group gets channeled through you D) requesting specific individuals for work in the group

28) Selection of the appropriate decision-making process involves considering two criteria of decision effectiveness: decision quality and subordinate _______________.

A) commitment B) personality C) education D) preference

29) Subordinate _________ refers to how important it is that the subordinates be committed to or accept the decision in order that it may be successfully implemented.

A) commitment B) alignment C) affiliation D) preference

30) The _______________ leadership model makes a distinction between two types of decision situations facing leaders: individual and group.

A) Vroom-Jago B) Fiedler contingency C) path-goal D) Hersey-Blanchard situational

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31)

The Vroom-Jago model proposes ____ leadership styles are available.

A) five B) four C) three D) two

32)

Individual decision situations are those where the solution affects only one of the leader's: A) Followers.

B) Groups.

C) Goals.

D) All of the choices are correct.

33) Making decisions without input from your subordinates, or securing input from subordinates and then making the decision yourself, represents the _______________ style of decision-making.

A) consultative B) group C) delegated D) autocratic

34) Early path-goal work led to the development of a theory involving all of the following types of leader behavior except: A) Directive.

B) Attainment.

C) Supportive.

D) Participative.

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35) Two types of situational or contingency variables are considered in the path-goal theory: the personal characteristics of subordinates and _______________.

A) financial pressures and demands B) availability of resources C) environmental pressures and demands D) time constraints

36) If an employee has a high degree of perceived ability relative to the task demands, he or she would be the least likely to accept a(n) _______________ leadership style.

A) consultative B) directive C) participative D) selling

37) It has been argued that an important part of the leader’s job is to clarify for subordinates the kind of behavior most likely to result in goal accomplishment. This activity is referred to as ____________.

A) path clarification B) pathing C) clarification D) illumination

38) The _______________ theory of leadership advocates that leaders understand their own behavior.

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A) job-centered B) employee-centered C) initiating D) situational

39)

The emphasis of _______________ is on followers and their level of maturity.

A) the goal-path model B) the Jago leadership model C) situational leadership theory D) contingency leadership theory

40) Within SLT, there are two types of follower readiness: psychological and _______________.

A) individual B) physiological C) group D) job

41) Which of the following is not one of the leadership styles developed by Hersey and Blanchard?

A) Supporting B) Telling C) Delegating D) Participating

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42) Mike has demonstrated a high level of capability and motivation concerning a particular task. According to SLT, which of the following leadership styles would best fit Mike’s "readiness" to complete the task?

A) Telling B) Delegating C) Empowering D) Selling

43) Michelle has demonstrated she is able but unwilling to perform a task. According to SLT, she is at which of the following readiness levels?

A) R1 B) R2 C) R3 D) R4

44) Amelia has demonstrated she is unable but willing to perform a task. According to SLT, she is at which of the following readiness levels?

A) R1 B) R2 C) R3 D) R4

45) According to the Hersey-Blanchard situational leadership model, explaining followers with structured instructions in a supportive manner is: A) Participating.

B) Delegating.

C) Selling.

D) Telling.

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46)

Situational leadership models have all the following in common except:

A) They all have the support of industry leaders.

B) They focus on the dynamics of leadership.

C) They have stimulated research on leadership.

D) They remain controversial because of measurement problems, limited testing, or contradictory research results.

47) "Followers have different needs that must be fulfilled with the help of a leader" is an assumption about followers made by: A) Fiedler's contingency model.

B) Vroom, Yetton, and Jago model.

C) House's Path-Goal theory.

D) the Hersey-Blanchard Situational Leadership theory.

48) ________________ suggested that some leaders have a gift of exceptional qualities—a charisma—that enables them to motivate followers to achieve outstanding performance.

A) Arthur Fiedler B) Hersey and Blanchard C) Victor Vroom D) Max Weber

49)

People typically view a charismatic leader as a _______.

A) villain B) threat C) hero D) good steward

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50)

All of the following leaders were considered charismatic except: A) President John F. Kennedy.

B) President George W. Bush.

C) Adolf Hitler.

D) Winston Churchill.

51) Which of the following have been presented in the text as ways to characterize charismatic leaders?

A) Crisis-based but not visionary B) Visionary and crisis-based C) Supportive but not visionary D) Visionary but not crisis-based

52) A leader relies on contingent reward and _______________ when using the transactional style.

A) charismatic leadership B) role modeling C) renewal D) management by exception

53)

Charisma is one of the most important characteristics of the _______________ leader.

A) transformational B) transactional C) "exceptional" D) All of the choices are correct.

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54) One national sample of U.S. workers showed that only _______________ of the participants perceived a direct relationship between how hard they worked and how much pay they received.

A) 5% B) 15% C) 22% D) 37%

55)

In _______________ leadership, the employee's reward is internal.

A) transactional B) supportive C) participative D) transformational

56) _______________ leaders will typically make major changes in the firm's or unit's mission, way of doing business, and human resources management to achieve their vision.

A) Directive B) Supportive C) Transformational D) Transactional

57) Of the following, a _______________ leader is most likely to consider an overhaul of the entire philosophy, system, and culture of an organization.

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A) directive B) supportive C) transformational D) transactional

58) Bass identified five factors that describe transformational leaders. Which of the following is not one of these factors?

A) Charisma B) Contingent reward C) Intellectual stimulation D) Management by fact

59)

Exceptional coaches have all of the following skills and abilities in common except: A) A talent for observing.

B) Decisive decision making.

C) Exceptional communication ability.

D) A judgmental approach.

60)

The objective of coaching is: A) Building teamwork.

B) Improving performance.

C) Developing consistency.

D) Removing obstacles.

61)

Greenleaf proposed that the servant leader has or does all of the following except:

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A) Humility.

B) Provides paths for success.

C) High morals.

D) Treats others as equals.

62) ____________ proposed in his writings that a leader should be driven by a desire to serve, helping those who have a legitimate need regardless of their status and without an expectation of a reciprocal obligation.

A) Robert Green B) Robert Greenleaf C) Robert House D) Robert Konopaske

63)

The most important critique of SLT may be _____________.

A) the validity of the LPC instrument is unclear B) concerning its actual effectiveness (i.e., does it work?)

C) its lack of intuitive appeal D) unresolved questions regarding the adaptability of people in leadership positions

64) Bass, after conducting cross-cultural studies of managers, proposed that all of the following are linked to leadership effectiveness, except: A) Cooperative peer relations.

B) Submissiveness to rules and authority.

C) Reliance on self.

D) Concern for human relations.

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65) A study by Bass et al. found that leadership attributes associated with effective leadership results ____________.

A) can be classified as Western and Eastern B) are relatively consistent across cultures C) are consistent across cultures D) vary across cultures

66) Hofstede concluded that participative management approaches that are highly recommended by many American researchers ____________ other cultures.

A) can be easily transferred to B) are equally effective in C) can be counterproductive in D) should not typically be utilized in

67) Hofstede suggested that American researchers did not focus enough on __________________.

A) different views of education B) subordinate views of the leader C) aspects of the leader D) sociotechnical system differences

68)

What did Greenleaf propose in regard to leadership?

69)

What did trait theory research attempt to accomplish?

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70) The Likert-inspired team at the University of Michigan identified two distinct styles of leadership. What are these two behavior approaches to leadership?

71)

Briefly describe what is meant by an "initiating structure."

72)

What are the LOQ and LBDQ?

73) Leadership style can be measured using the Least-Preferred Coworker Scale (LPC), an instrument developed by Fiedler. What do high and low scores on the LPC suggest?

74) To understand the Vroom-Jago leadership model, it is important to consider three critical components. List these components.

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75)

What leadership theory uses the expectancy motivation theory as its foundation?

76)

Within SLT, what is denoted by the terms maturity and readiness?

77) The text presents that there are two types of charismatic leaders. Briefly describe these types.

78) What is typically thought of as the first requirement for exercising charismatic leadership?

79)

Bass identified several factors associated with transformational leadership. List three.

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80) Employees who rank high on power distance are more likely to prefer an autocratic style of leadership. Why?

81) In his cross-cultural studies of managers, what did Bass suggest in regard to reliance on others?

82)

What is a leadership neutralizer?

83)

Define the term leadership.

84) The role of an informal leader can be every bit as important to a group’s success as is that of the formal leader. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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85) External factors may be overwhelming and uncontrollable, no matter how good a leader may be. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86) Manz and Sims have described “team leaders” as individuals who lead others to lead themselves to higher levels of performance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) An extreme intelligence difference between a leader and his or her followers is always beneficial to the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88) Edwin Ghiselli found that persons who exhibited individuality were the least effective leaders. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89)

Leadership traits don’t operate singly to influence followers but act in combination. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90)

Patterns of effective behavior depend largely on the situation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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91)

Truly influential leaders never admit mistakes. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92)

The leader with a high initiating structure tendency focuses on goals and results. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) An initiating structure tendency involves behavior indicating friendship, mutual trust, respect, warmth, and rapport between the leader and the followers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94)

Behavior that is helpful or even essential in some situations can be detrimental in others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

95)

As a rule, being given greater authority lessens one’s position power. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96) If a decision has high quality and follower commitment, it is an effective decision, regardless of how long it takes to make it. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) Individuals with an internal locus of control are generally more satisfied with a directive leadership style.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

98) Those elements identified as “leadership variables” include the job tasks, the formal authority system of the organization, and the work group. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) A person who is considered high in job readiness has the self-motivation and desire to do high-quality work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100) Those that high in psychological readiness typically require a greater level of direct supervision. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101)

Asking an insecure follower to participate will typically lessen their insecurity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102)

Keen analytical abilities can contribute to effectiveness in non-charismatic leaders. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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103) Through communication ability, the visionary charismatic leader links followers’ needs and goals to job or organizational goals. This linking followers with an organization’s new direction, mission, and goals are easier if followers are satisfied or unchallenged by the current situation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104)

Charismatic leaders always have positive effects on their followers. ⊚ true ⊚ false

105) In using the transactional style, the leader relies on contingent rewards and on management by objectives. ⊚ true ⊚ false

106) When using management by exception, the leader is not involved unless objectives aren’t being accomplished. ⊚ true ⊚ false

107) In addition to charisma, transformational leaders need communication abilities and sensitivity to others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

108)

In an organizational sense, coaches and mentors are interchangeable terms. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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109) The participative management approaches that are highly recommended by many American researchers can be counterproductive in many cultures. ⊚ true ⊚ false

110)

There is no right or “universal” way to lead. ⊚ true ⊚ false

111)

Autocratic leadership is not advised in any culture. ⊚ true ⊚ false

112) The skills and other competencies of the leader comprise only one variable in the leadership context. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 15_12_ Konopaskee 12) A 13) A 14) C 15) D 16) C 17) B 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) D 22) A 23) A 24) B 25) A 26) B 27) B 28) A 29) A 30) A 31) A 32) A 33) D 34) B 35) C 36) B 37) A Version 1

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38) D 39) C 40) D 41) A 42) B 43) C 44) B 45) C 46) A 47) C 48) D 49) C 50) B 51) B 52) D 53) A 54) C 55) D 56) C 57) C 58) D 59) D 60) B 61) B 62) B 63) B 64) C 65) D 66) C 67) B Version 1

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84) TRUE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) FALSE 89) TRUE 90) TRUE 91) FALSE 92) TRUE 93) FALSE 94) TRUE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) FALSE 100) FALSE 101) FALSE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) FALSE 105) TRUE 106) TRUE 107) TRUE 108) FALSE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) FALSE 112) TRUE

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CHAPTER 16 1)

Define what is meant by the term division of labor.

2)

Discuss the role of delegation of authority in design decisions.

3)

Describe three forms of departmentalization.

4)

How would you describe the "departmentalization" of your university?

5)

Identify the major advantages of matrix organizational design.

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6)

Why should management be concerned with the concept of span of control?

7) List and define the three dimensions that are often used in research and practice to describe structure.

8) Division of labor in organizations can occur in three different ways. Describe each of these three.

9) The president of a movie studio calls you in to consult on its reorganization. In discussing the various organizational forms that may be suitable, you present the virtual organizational design. Why might this form be suited for the movie industry?

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10)

What is a virtual organization, and what are the form's primary advantages?

11) Scientific management largely focused on methods to implement the principle of ________.

A) specialization B) cooperation C) coordination D) totality

12) The ______ organization is flexible to changing environmental demands because its design encourages greater utilization of human potential.

A) organoleptic B) organic C) optimized D) eco

13) According to ________, the bureaucratic structure is “superior to any other form in precision, stability, discipline, and reliability".

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A) Weber B) Skinner C) Taylor D) Gantt

14) __________ described a type of organization that functions in a machine-like manner to accomplish the organization's goals in a highly efficient manner.

A) Fayol B) Skinner C) Fielder D) Herzberg

15)

The organic model seeks to maximize ____________________.

A) satisfaction, flexibility, and development B) efficiency and production C) expressive and significant communication D) organizational growth

16)

All of the following are structural characteristics of the mechanistic model except: A) It's highly complex.

B) It's highly centralized.

C) It's highly responsive.

D) It's highly formalized.

17) Weber provided a number of characteristics of bureaucratic organizations. Which of the following is not one of these characteristics?

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A) Each task is performed according to a system of abstract rules to ensure uniformity and coordination of different tasks.

B) Each employee of the organization relates to other employees and clients in an impersonal, formal manner, maintaining a social distance with subordinates and clients.

C) Such organizations have product managers reporting to top management, with subproduct managers for each product line.

D) Employment in the bureaucratic organization is based on technical qualifications and is protected against arbitrary dismissal.

18)

The _______ chain is the route for all vertical communications in an organization.

A) secular B) scalar C) sanctioned D) "S"

19) The _______ is defined as the graduated chain of authority created through the delegation process.

A) “S” chain B) scalar chain C) Weber relationship D) spanning relationship

20) Likert used the terms "System-1" and "System-4" to refer to ________ organizations, respectively.

A) functional and organic B) functional and matrix C) centralized and decentralized D) mechanistic and organic

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21) With the _______________ model of organizational design, decision making, control, and goal setting are decentralized and shared at all levels of the organization.

A) mechanistic B) geographic C) organic D) bureaucratic

22) The _______________ model of organizational design is relatively simple, decentralized, and informal.

A) mechanistic B) geographic C) organic D) bureaucratic

23) Thrivent Financial transformed its organization from a mechanistic to an organic structure to take advantage of the _______________ concept.

A) specialization B) increased job range C) delegation of authority D) self-managed team

24) Groups of employees that complete an entire piece of work while having considerable autonomy over the way in which they accomplish their work are called ________.

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A) project trams B) skunkworks C) autonomous teams D) self-managed teams

25)

Division of labor in organizations can occur in ______ different ways.

A) two B) three C) four D) five

26) _______________ is the right to make decisions without approval by a higher manager and to extract obedience from other people.

A) Separation B) Authority C) Action initiative D) System- 4

27) Subaru's Indiana manufacturing plant was the first auto assembly plant in the world to ________.

A) use biodegradable bumpers.

B) use eco-friendly paint.

C) use a matrix organization.

D) send nothing to the landfill.

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28) Manufacturing plants often divide work into fabricating and assembly, with individuals assigned to one of these two activities. This division of work is called _______________ differentiation.

A) specialty B) horizontal C) sequence D) vertical

29) Organizations that decentralize (delegate) authority enable managers to do all of the following except: A) Make significant decisions.

B) Gain skills.

C) Advance in the company.

D) Reduce administrative costs.

30)

Reasons to centralize authority include all of the following except:

A) Under decentralizing, managers may perform at lower levels of effectiveness because they believe that delegation of authority involves losing control.

B) Decentralizing requires that managers be trained to make the decisions that go with delegated authority.

C) Decentralization means duplication of functions.

D) Decentralization does not easily allow managers to develop expertise that enables them to cope with problems encountered by upper management.

31)

The principal advantage of the functional basis is its _______________.

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A) efficiency B) responsiveness C) manageability D) flexibility

32) In practical terms, the matrix design combines functional and ________________ departmental bases.

A) geographical B) customer C) product D) retail

33) Within a loan department in a commercial bank, loan officers are often associated with industrial, commercial, or agricultural loans. This is an example of a(n) _______ form of departmentalization.

A) process B) customer C) impact D) segmented

34) In practical terms, the __________ design combines functional and product departmental bases.

A) Scanlon B) mixed C) matrix D) System 4

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35) Although the exact meaning of matrix organization varies in practice, it’s typically seen as a balanced compromise between departmentalization by ____________.

A) division and product B) division and function C) function and team D) function and product

36) A dual authority system is a distinguishing characteristic of a(n) _______________ organization.

A) organic B) matrix C) mechanistic D) geopolitical

37) The potential conflict between allegiance to one's functional manager and one's project manager must be recognized and dealt within _______________ organizations.

A) organic B) matrix C) mechanistic D) lateral

38) Which of the following is not a condition that may lead to organizational benefit through the application of a matrix structure?

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A) Organizations that must deal with financial and human resources constraints B) Organizations that require responses to rapid change in two or more environments, such as technology and markets C) Organizations that face uncertainties that generate high information-processing requirement D) A strong bureaucratic structure

39) All of the following were presented as suggestions for enhancing individual success within a matrix organization except: A) Communicate clearly, but as seldom as possible to limit confusion B) Get to know others in the organization before you need their assistance C) Be aware of deadlines and manage your time between projects appropriately D) Keep management abreast of your activities

40) In a matrix organization, top management is _______________ with day-to-day operations.

A) less involved B) never involved C) always involved D) more involved

41) A(n) _______________ structure encourages constant interaction among project unit and functional department members.

A) organic B) matrix C) mechanistic D) bureaucratic

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42)

Ordinarily, the process of moving to matrix organization is ________.

A) evolutionary B) revolutionary C) immediate D) motivational

43) Generally, the issue of span of control comes down to how many _______________ a manager can oversee.

A) products B) customers C) facilities D) people

44)

Once a task force achieves its objective, the task force _______________.

A) dissolves B) transitions into a standing project team C) becomes permanent work group D) splits into smaller groups

45) Management can typically combine ________ specialized and similar jobs into relatively _______ departments because the employees may not need close supervision.

A) highly; large B) minimally; cross-functional C) highly; small D) minimally; task-focused

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46) Which of the following is typically not one of the design decisions that management must consider in determining the structure of the organization?

A) Span of control B) Delegation of authority C) Departmentalization D) Locus of control

47) Managers need to consider how the four design decisions influence the structure of their organizations. In a similar vein, there are three dimensions of organizational structure that interact with these design decisions, namely ______________.

A) formalization, centralization, and complexity B) division of labor, delegation of authority, departmentalization, and span of control C) centralization, complexity, and span of control D) formalization, centralization, and delegation of authority

48)

High delegation of authority creates the need for _______________.

A) corresponding higher salaries B) updated management titles C) checks on its use D) disassociation of control

49) At present, all of the following dimensions are used in research and practice to describe organizational structure except:

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A) Formalization.

B) Centralization.

C) Complexity.

D) Attractiveness.

50) The dimension of _______________ refers to the extent to which expectations regarding the means and ends of work are specified, written, and enforced.

A) formalization B) centralization C) complexity D) mechanism

51)

Wide spans of control ___________ one-on-one supervision.

A) necessitate B) discourage C) promote D) are a substitute for

52)

The greater the use of the _______________, the greater the organizational complexity.

A) participative systems B) system 2 C) wide spans of control D) specialization of labor

53)

The concept of organizational complexity refers to all of the following except:

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A) The number of distinctly different job titles.

B) Occupational groupings.

C) The number of distinctly different units or departments.

D) The number of steps needed to create the organization’s product(s).

54) It has become standard practice to use the term _________ differentiation to refer to the number of different units at the same level and _______ differentiation to refer to the number of levels in the organization.

A) horizontal; vertical B) vertical; horizontal C) horizontal; status D) job; rank

55)

_______ the specialization of labor, _________ the complexity.

A) The greater; the greater B) Increasing; lessens C) A lessening of; increases D) Increasing, geometrically impacts

56)

The greater the use of ________ departments, the _________ the centralization.

A) customer; greater B) functional; greater C) functional; lesser D) geographic; greater

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57) With _____________, the same organizational structure and operating policies and procedures that exist in the existing domestic organization are used when setting up a foreign subsidiary.

A) replication B) outposting C) the greenfield approach D) host nation adaptation

58) Thrivent Financial implemented a form of employee compensation termed ______________ to encourage employees to adopt a new work system. It provides individuals with pay increases for obtaining additional knowledge that enables them to improve their job performance.

A) pay for knowledge B) P squared, or pay for performance C) Just Do It D) TSP (Thrivent Scanlon Plan)

59) The Federal Express structure, with regional presidents and their "armies," is modeled after a system made popular by the: A) Romans.

B) Greeks.

C) Roman Catholic Church.

D) Fredrick Taylor.

60)

Departments in Japanese firms are most often based on _______________.

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A) products B) customers C) function D) location

61) The typical Japanese manufacturing job has _______________ the typical Western manufacturing job.

A) more range than B) less range than C) the same range as D) geometrically more range

62) Work in e-commerce, consulting, marketing, and job searching seems best suited for _______________ organizations.

A) virtual B) mechanistic C) geographic D) ecosystem

63)

The concept of virtual organizations originated ________.

A) at NASA B) in ancient Rome C) at Microsoft D) in Japan

64)

Which of the following statements about boundaryless organizations is false?

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A) The minimization of layers results in a flatter structure.

B) Spans of control are unlimited.

C) Rigid departments are replaced with empowered teams.

D) Participative decision making is eliminated.

65) The _____________ is an example of a vertical alliance between large corporations and their suppliers.

A) Russian soyuz league B) Roman proconsuls structure C) Araiansu association D) Japanese keiretsu relationship

66) What are the most distinct differences between the organic and the mechanistic organizational models?

67) Are the right to "extract obedience" and the "right to make decisions" associated with a particular type or class of job?

68)

What is the principal historical reason for the creation of organizations?

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69) Why may a manager believe that delegating authority will lead to lower levels of effectiveness?

70)

Why may decentralization lead to duplication of effort?

71)

Why may the cost of a divisional structure sometimesbe exorbitant?

72)

What is the most essential feature of a matrix organization?

73) It is generally accepted that a manager at a lower organizational level can oversee more subordinates than a manager at a higher level. Why is this the case?

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74)

What are the dimensions of organizational structure?

75)

In the context of organizational design, what does replication refer to?

76)

Identify three consequences of a virtual organization structure.

77) Virtual-style organizations have both proponents and critics. Identify some of the advantages and disadvantages cited by each.

78) The viability of a virtual organization as the proper design approach is centered on two major issues. The first is the conclusion that the virtual arrangement results in economic gains of acquiring goals and services from specialized firms. What is the second issue?

79)

Compare mechanistic and organic organizational design.

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80) To achieve the maximum benefits of the bureaucratic design, Max Weber believed that an organization had to have five characteristics. What are three?

81)

Identify the choices that must be made in designing an organizational structure.

82) Your best friend has a virtual job interview and asks you for help preparing for the session. What are three tips you can give them?

83) In layman's terms, bureaucracy refers to the negative consequences of large organizations, such as excessive red tape and procedural delays. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84)

All jobs contain some degree of the right to exact obedience from others. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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85) Some organizations have eliminated the hierarchy through which authority flows from the highest level manager to the lowest level manager. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86)

Delegation of authority refers specifically to doing work. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87)

A relatively high delegation of authority discourages the development of management. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88)

A high delegation of authority can lead to a competitive climate within the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

89)

Span of labor concerns the extent to which jobs are specialized. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90)

The cost of formal management training programs is always offset by the benefits. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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91)

Decentralization is a way to reduce administrative costs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92) As the number of employees with specialized jobs increases within an organization, it becomes easier for a single manager to coordinate their efforts. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93) A major disadvantage of the departmental basis is that organizational goals may be sacrificed in favor of departmental goals. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94)

A divisional structure has a notable advantage over other structures in its efficiency. ⊚ true ⊚ false

95)

Clients or customers should never be a basis for grouping jobs. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96) Educational institutions have regular (day and night) courses, and extension divisions are an example of product departmentalization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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97) The following reporting relationship may best indicate a functional form of organization.

The manager of the Lexington, Kentucky, retail store of a national chain reports to the president, Midwest Division. The Midwest Division reports to the headquarters unit. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) A fully developed matrix organization has product management departments along with the usual functional departments. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99)

The number of jobs to be included in a specific group is an issue of span of control. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100) The critical issue in determining a manager's span of control is the number of potential relationships in the unit. ⊚ true ⊚ false

101) In general, the greater the inherent ambiguity in an individual's job, the greater the need for supervision to avoid conflict and stress. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) The individual who can clearly and concisely communicate with subordinates is able to manage more people than one who can't. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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103)

"Flattening" an organization decreases the average span of control of each manager. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104)

High delegation of authority creates the need for checks on its use. ⊚ true ⊚ false

105)

Functional departments are made up of jobs with great differences. ⊚ true ⊚ false

106)

Wide spans of control encourage one-on-one supervision. ⊚ true ⊚ false

107)

Rules and procedures that are not enforced will not affect behavior. ⊚ true ⊚ false

108)

Specialization of labor contributes primarily to horizontal differentiation. ⊚ true ⊚ false

109)

Delegation of authority contributes to vertical differentiation.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

110) Departments in Japanese firms are more often based on function and process than on product, customer, or location. ⊚ true ⊚ false

111) Organizations using geographic departmentalization are a collection of geographically distributed, functionally and/or culturally diverse aggregations of individuals that are linked by electronic forms of communication. ⊚ true ⊚ false

112)

The virtual organization is one variation or type of boundaryless organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 16_12_ Konopaskee 11) A 12) B 13) A 14) A 15) A 16) C 17) C 18) B 19) B 20) D 21) C 22) C 23) D 24) D 25) B 26) B 27) D 28) B 29) D 30) D 31) A 32) C 33) B 34) C 35) D 36) B Version 1

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37) B 38) D 39) A 40) A 41) B 42) A 43) D 44) A 45) A 46) D 47) A 48) C 49) D 50) A 51) B 52) D 53) D 54) A 55) A 56) B 57) A 58) A 59) A 60) C 61) B 62) A 63) D 64) D 65) D 83) TRUE Version 1

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84) FALSE 85) FALSE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) FALSE 92) FALSE 93) TRUE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) TRUE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) FALSE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) TRUE 110) TRUE 111) FALSE 112) TRUE

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CHAPTER 17 1)

Are there ethical implications of change management? If so, explain.

2) In what ways do employees resist change, and what can managers do about overt and covert resistance?

3) Briefly describe the concept of organizational development. Provide an example of an OD activity.

4)

Describe the major steps in the Model of Organizational Change and Development.

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5)

What is TQM? Provide four or more key TQM components in your response.

6) If an organization is considering task and technological approaches to organizational change, what types of changes are they likely to make?

7) Within the context of the objectives of change and development activities, describe what is meant by depth of intervention.

8)

Describe the 4-D framework and provide an example of its application steps.

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9) In your new position as an organizational development consultant, you are tasked to lead an organizational change effort. What potential impediments and conditions should your team be aware of?

10) Today's managers are faced with ________ change. We must also recognize that the rate of change has been ______.

A) continual; accelerating B) sporadic; inconsistent C) continual; decelerating D) sporadic; accelerating

11) The ultimate goal of the final step of the general model of organizational change is to have the learned behavior become ________.

A) repeated B) accepted C) the standard D) a habit

12) Using the terms of the general model for organizational change, during the _______ stage, employees are encouraged to acquire new behaviors and attitudes that support the organization's new direction.

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A) learning B) practice C) changing D) selling

13)

Which of the following is not one of the steps in Kurt Lewin's approach to learning?

A) Unfreeze B) Moving C) Changing D) Refreeze

14)

A _________ is a person who acts as the initiator of change activities.

A) change leader B) change agent C) cheerleader D) mediator

15) The success of any change program rests heavily on the quality and workability of the relationship between the change agent and the _______ within the organization.

A) key decision makers B) union employees C) financial specialist D) board of trustees

16) In a recent article, Jack Welch, former CEO of General Electric, estimated that no more than ___% of employees fit the category of internal change agent.

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A) 2 B) 5 C) 10 D) 20

17)

Refreezing a learned behavior takes reinforcement and _______________.

A) feedback B) punishment C) repetition D) reward

18)

The task of the change agent is to challenge the goals of _______________.

A) upper management B) shareholders C) workers D) the status quo

19) External change agents are temporary employees of the organization; they are typically engaged for _______________.

A) the duration of the change process B) a maximum of one year C) six months or less D) planning meetings only

20)

The ultimate goal of _______________ is to have the learned behavior become a habit.

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A) unfreezing B) learning C) moving D) refreezing

21) An external change agent is usually a _______________ who has training and experience in the behavioral sciences.

A) university professor or private consultant B) private consultant or junior manager C) senior manager or university professor D) junior/senior manager or senior union official

22) People who are involved in a change effort need to have _______________ that enables them to know what is to happen and why they are to do what they are to do.

A) exclusive information B) one-on-one coaching C) advance information D) a direct reporting relationship to the change agent

23)

Reasons for organizational resistance to change include all of the following except: A) The professional and functional orientation of a department, unit, or team.

B) Structural inertia.

C) Perceived threats to the power balance in an organization.

D) The natural human fear of the unknown brought about by change.

24)

Reasons for individual resistance to change include all of the following except:

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A) Cognitive dissonance created because one is confronted with new people, processes, systems, technology, or expectations.

B) The threat of loss of position, power, status, quality of life, and authority.

C) Perceived threats to the power balance in an organization.

D) The natural human fear of the unknown brought about by change.

25)

Which of the following would be considered the most vigorous resistance to change?

A) Sabotage B) Teaching others how to resist C) Not paying attention D) Complaining

26) Organizations are structured to promote stability. This potential barrier to change has been termed structural _______________.

A) velocity B) force fields C) foundations D) inertia

27) Changes that are imposed on employees with little warning are likely to be ____________.

A) promote rapid refreezing B) meet with passive acceptance C) questioned D) resisted

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28)

Communication is a(n) _________ factor in successful change programs.

A) onetime B) ongoing C) balancing D) latent

29)

Learning organizations typically have all of the following characteristics except: A) Open discussions and accessibility to information and data.

B) Strong emphasis on independence.

C) Clear vision expressed at all levels.

D) Clear goals and concepts of performance expectations.

30) Organizations seldom undertake significant change without a strong shock from their _______________.

A) workers B) stakeholders C) environment D) customers

31) Internal forces for change can usually be traced to process and _______________ problems.

A) behavioral B) financial C) management D) training

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32)

A high level of absenteeism is a symptom of a(n) ________ that must be diagnosed.

A) environmental factor B) compensation problem C) behavioral problem D) external force

33) There _____________ for accurate diagnosis of the problem within the organizational change and development process.

A) must be unfreezing B) is one best methodology C) is no formula D) are five recommended methodologies

34)

Examples of external forces for change include all of the following except: A) Social and political change.

B) Technology.

C) Process problems.

D) Economic.

35) The survey approach is a useful diagnostic approach if the potential focus of change is _______________.

A) a small work group B) a typical work group C) the total organization D) a large work group

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36)

MBO programs are considered a___________ approach to change.

A) task B) technological C) human capital D) directive

37) Management by objectives is a philosophy of management that reflects a _______________ approach to managing.

A) reactive B) proactive C) neutral D) hands-off

38) Depth of intended change refers to the scope and _______________ of the change efforts.

A) cost B) frequency C) consequences D) intensity

39) Research reviews of the record-of-change efforts conclude that __________ approaches have better success than __________ ones.

A) multimethod; single-method B) limited; system-wide C) single-method; multimethod D) ethnocentric; geocentric

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40) ______________ approaches to organizational change refer to managerial actions that attempt to improve effectiveness by introducing change through formal policies and procedures.

A) Process B) Structural C) Mechanistic D) Organic

41) ______________ approaches to organizational change focus directly on the work itself that is performed in the organization.

A) Process B) Structural C) Mechanistic D) Task and technological

42)

Reengineering approaches typically fall into all of the following categories except: A) Streamlining.

B) Employee training.

C) Integrating.

D) Transforming.

43) _______________ breaks a core process into segments to eliminate waste, delays, and slow response time.

A) Streamlining B) Automating C) Integrating D) Transforming

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44) _______________ is the unification of systems, processes, or work-related activities across functional lines.

A) Reengineering B) Integrating C) Streamlining D) Transforming

45) __________ is described as creating radical changes in processes, systems, and/or structures that meet customer needs efficiently and are economically sound.

A) Contriving B) Machinating C) Reengineering D) TQM

46) James Champy and Michael Hammer advocate an approach to structure and process that begins with _________________.

A) behavioral considerations B) a clear, blank sheet of paper C) an employee involvement perspective D) All of the choices are correct.

47) Job enlargement and job enrichment are primary examples of _____ approaches to organizational change.

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A) technological B) structure C) systems D) task

48) The most widely used method for developing employee productivity is/are _______________.

A) new technology B) new procedures C) training programs D) mentoring

49) A necessary prerequisite to effective, lasting organizational change is _______________ change.

A) technological B) communications C) individual D) structural

50)

_______________ approaches help prepare people for ongoing change and learning.

A) Training B) Human capital C) Technological D) Structural

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51) Tom Watson, Jr., president of IBM from 1952 to 1971, identified all of the following as cornerstones of his firm's approach to business except: A) Respect each individual.

B) Provide the best service possible to each customer.

C) Make excellence a way of life.

D) Merge work with fun whenever possible.

52) Formalized mentor-mentee relationships should always be _______________, for both parties.

A) mandatory B) supervised C) voluntary D) challenging

53)

Which of the following is not a tip to get the most out of a mentor?

A) Commit to learning B) Speak up C) Be receptive to feedback D) Develop a personal vision

54)

What is the ultimate goal of introspection?

A) Learning B) Improving self-confidence C) Egolessness D) Achieving a balance in life

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55) Under the six sigma approach, one expects no more than _____ defects per 1 million parts produced.

A) 1 B) 3.4 C) 10.4 D) 24

56) Appreciative inquiry is a method of focusing on positive or _______________ opportunities.

A) negative B) potential C) profitable D) missed

57)

The correct sequence of phases in appreciative inquiry is: A) Dreaming, designing, discovering, delivering.

B) Discovering, designing, dreaming, delivering.

C) Dreaming, discovering, designing, delivering.

D) Discovering, dreaming, designing, delivering.

58) All of the following are included in what scholars have identified as sources of influence on the outcome of management change programs except: A) Community equity.

B) Leadership climate.

C) Formal organization.

D) Organizational culture.

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59) The nature of the work environment that results from the leadership style and administrative practices of managers is termed the _______________ climate.

A) leadership B) formal C) administrative D) bureaucratic

60)

The implementation of change has two dimensions: timing and _______________.

A) cost B) scope C) duration D) management

61) With any change program, there must be some provision for evaluating the program in terms of expenditures and _______________.

A) results B) longevity C) profits D) transferability

62)

In a practical sense, a program’s effectiveness cannot _____________________.

A) be evaluated if objectives have not been established before it is implemented B) be evaluated if benchmarks have not been established before it’s implemented C) truly be evaluated if new technology is being introduced D) truly be evaluated if objectives don’t incorporate actual performance

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63) The critical test of alternative change interventions is whether they _____________________.

A) help to improve organizational effectiveness B) are accepted by the organization C) facilitate long term growth D) meet objectives

64) The evaluation phase of change has two problems to overcome: _____________________.

A) obtaining data that measure the desired results and determining project cost B) obtaining benchmark information and data that measure the desired results C) obtaining data that measure the desired results and determining the expected trend of improvement over time D) obtaining information and communicating it to stakeholders

65) What is the ultimate goal of "refreezing" in the general model of organizational change and development?

66) Why may a theoretically sound change approach not achieve any of the anticipated results?

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67)

What happens in Lewin's change stage?

68)

What are the steps in Kurt Lewin's change process?

69) Why are outside change agents often used to facilitate change, and what is their general purpose?

70) What are some of the drawbacks to using a top-down, coercive, or threatening approach to implement changes?

71)

How might organizational change lead to cognitive dissonance?

72)

List five of the characteristics of learning organizations.

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73) Those who study and practice organizational change agree that environmental triggers are insufficient to initiate change. What more is required?

74) Besides getting what they want, what is the underlying general goal of a wildcat strike or a walkout?

75) Identify at least two general environmental forces that can trigger change. Are these forces sufficient to initiate change?

76)

Name four different approaches for collecting data on employee problems.

77)

What is the difference between the formal and informal components of an organization?

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78)

What is the ultimate purpose of team building?

79)

What does "six sigma" measure?

80) Many companies are now incorporating some form of introspection training into their management change programs. Identify five goals typical of an introspection program.

81)

What does being "egoless" mean as it relates to business concerns?

82)

In the context of change management, what is the meaning of AI?

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83)

Kurt Lewin developed a change cycle commonly known as Six Sigma. ⊚ true ⊚ false

84) In the general model of organizational change, unfreezing refers specifically to an alternative generation process that encourages employees to open their "frozen" minds and be creative. ⊚ true ⊚ false

85)

Refreezing new behaviors occurs through the application of reinforcement and feedback. ⊚ true ⊚ false

86)

According to Jack Welch, former CEO of General Electric, all leaders are change agents. ⊚ true ⊚ false

87) As a general rule, external change agents should distance themselves from top management and not diminish their status by seeking top management support. ⊚ true ⊚ false

88) The external change agent has a comparative advantage over the internal change agent when significant strategic changes must be evaluated. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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89) In work situations where change is obviously the best choice, the change agent seldom encounters fear, anxiety, or resistance. ⊚ true ⊚ false

90) When a change occurs, people will freely admit that they lack the skills to be a good performer. ⊚ true ⊚ false

91) Perceived threats to the power balance in an organization are considered an organizational barrier to change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

92) As they avoid anticipatory stress, changes imposed with little warning are not likely to be resisted by employees. ⊚ true ⊚ false

93)

Some organizations and industries are not suited to be learning organizations. ⊚ true ⊚ false

94) As a force for change, external forces are the most important things for a manager to control.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

95) Technology refers exclusively to the physical actions that an individual performs upon some object, person, or problem to change it somehow. ⊚ true ⊚ false

96)

Well-run organizations are free of employee discontent. ⊚ true ⊚ false

97) Identifying organizational problems is far more difficult than identifying individuals' problems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

98) Attitude surveys are an effective diagnostic tool in organizations with relatively low levels of trust in management’s sincerity. ⊚ true ⊚ false

99) The choice of a particular development method depends on the nature of the problem that management has diagnosed and the depth of the intended change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

100)

The General Change Model provides a formula for accurate problem diagnosis,

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⊚ ⊚

true false

101) Structural approaches to organizational change attempt to improve effectiveness by introducing change through formal policies and procedures. ⊚ true ⊚ false

102) Management by objectives (MBO) is considered a structural approach to organizational change. ⊚ true ⊚ false

103) Typically, the exact procedures employed in implementing a management by objectives approach should not vary from organization to organization and from unit to unit. ⊚ true ⊚ false

104)

Downsizing can mean replacing employees with computerized systems. ⊚ true ⊚ false

105) Using "reengineering" as a code word for "downsizing" will help to limit the morale impact on the organization. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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106) Business process reinvention is defined as creating radical changes in processes, systems, and/or structures to meet customer needs and improve organizational effectiveness and efficiency. ⊚ true ⊚ false

107) Human capital approaches are a category of change methods designed to help individuals learn and grow professionally and perhaps personally. ⊚ true ⊚ false

108) Members of new teams often pay more attention to the team's tasks than to the relationships among the team members. ⊚ true ⊚ false

109) A coach is a knowledgeable individual who is committed to providing support to other, usually junior, organizational members. ⊚ true ⊚ false

110) Management attention and commitment to a change effort are typically only needed in its early stages. Employees will generally be responsible for the implementation and success of the later steps in the process. ⊚ true ⊚ false

111) Implementing a change that doesn't consider the constraints imposed by the prevailing conditions within the organization may amplify the problem that triggered the process.

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⊚ ⊚

true false

112) While there are many different versions of TQM, the major components of most TQM programs are similar. ⊚ true ⊚ false

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Answer Key Test name: Chap 17_12_ Konopaskee 10) A 11) D 12) C 13) B 14) B 15) A 16) C 17) A 18) D 19) A 20) D 21) A 22) C 23) D 24) C 25) A 26) D 27) D 28) B 29) B 30) C 31) A 32) C 33) C 34) C 35) C Version 1

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36) C 37) B 38) D 39) A 40) B 41) D 42) B 43) A 44) B 45) C 46) B 47) D 48) C 49) C 50) B 51) D 52) C 53) B 54) C 55) B 56) B 57) D 58) A 59) A 60) B 61) A 62) A 63) A 64) C 83) FALSE Version 1

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84) FALSE 85) TRUE 86) FALSE 87) FALSE 88) TRUE 89) FALSE 90) FALSE 91) TRUE 92) FALSE 93) FALSE 94) FALSE 95) FALSE 96) FALSE 97) FALSE 98) FALSE 99) TRUE 100) FALSE 101) TRUE 102) TRUE 103) FALSE 104) TRUE 105) FALSE 106) FALSE 107) TRUE 108) TRUE 109) FALSE 110) FALSE 111) TRUE 112) TRUE

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