Test Bank for Health Psychology a Biopsychosocial Approach 2nd Edition by Hymie Anisman.

Testbank questions Chapter 1: Health psychology described 1. Justin has been experiencing headaches and gastro-intestinal complaints, but his physician has not found any physical cause for these problems. This is an example of ______. a. psychological illness b. psychosomatic illness c. somatization disorder d. hypochondriasis e. conversion disorder Ans: C 2. Jasmine has frequently been going to the physician and complaining of headaches. The physician has told her repeatedly that they are most likely due to dehydration; however, she is convinced that she is at risk of a brain tumour. This is an example of ______. a. psychological illness b. psychosomatic illness c. somatization disorder d. hypochondriasis e. conversion disorder Ans: D 3. Damian has recently crashed his bike and is no longer able to move his leg. However, upon examination, his leg is not physically injured in any way (i.e. no sprain, broken bones).

This is an example of ______. a. psychological illness b. psychosomatic illness

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. somatization disorder d. hypochondriasis e. conversion disorder Ans: E 4. Which of these personality dimensions do NOT contribute to an individual’s resilience? a. High levels of self-esteem b. High levels of self-efficacy c. Hardiness d. Optimism e. External locus of control Ans: E 5. Which of these statements is FALSE? a. The distress associated with illness can lead to psychological disorders. b. Sick individuals may adopt the identity of ‘the sick person’. c. Two individuals who are equally ill may differ in respect of their apparent wellness. d. Well-being and illness are two discrete categories that fall on a continuum. e. Comorbidities occur with most illnesses.

Ans: D 6. Which of these is the best predictor of heart disease? a. Depression b. Gender c. Sedentary lifestyle d. Socio-economic status e. Family history Ans: A

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 7. What is another way of referring to the susceptibility of an individual or group to develop certain psychological or physical disturbances in response to external or internal triggers? a. Vulnerability b. Resilience c. Comorbidity d. Risk e. Predictive medicine Ans: A 8. What defines an individual’s propensity to overcome an illness, as well as the ability of an individual to withstand the effects of stressful events that would ordinarily lead to a pathological condition? a. Vulnerability b. Resilience c. Comorbidity d. Strength e. Predictive medicine Ans: B 9. Which of these is the term used when many illnesses appear to be linked with one another so that when one particular illness occurs, it might be predictive of others developing? a. Vulnerability b. Resilience c. Comorbidity d. Increased risk e. Predictive medicine Ans: C 10. Biomarkers for various diseases can be used to inform the patient of their ______.

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. personal risk b. genetic code c. level of fertility d. family history e. mental state Ans: A 11. The goal of knowledge translation is ______. a. to diminish the complexity of health-related information to make it more understandable to the general public b. to narrow the gap between research findings and the creation of novel therapies, as well as between evidence-based research and government policy decisions c. one of allowing as many researchers as possible to access the data across countries d. providing fundamental information to other researchers e. to encourage the use of evidence-based practices Ans: B 12. Hypochondriasis is a ______. a. conversion disorder b. subdural disorder c. somatoform disorder d. anxiety conversion disorder e. agentic disorder Ans: C 13. Mild or tolerable stressors ______. a. invariably increase vulnerability to illness upon later stressor experiences b. invariably increase resilience to illness upon later stressor experiences

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. increase or decrease vulnerability to illness upon later stressor experiences depending on the individual’s sex d. increase or decrease vulnerability to illness upon later stressor experiences depending on the individual’s age e. can increase resilience to illness upon later stressor experiences because they learned to cope during the initial stressor experience Ans: E 14. Predicting the efficacy of specific treatments being considered for illness can be determined by ______. a. biomarkers b. adjuvants c. epigenetic actions d. dimorphisms e. hormone alterations Ans: A 15. Some people confuse their perceived and their actual knowledge, and even underestimate what they do not know. This is referred to as the ______. a. Dimassio doctrine b. inference bias c. selection–outcome bias d. Kruger–Dunning effect e. input–output distance Ans: D 16. How do we define treatment compliance? a. The patient’s propensity to follow medical advice b. The likelihood that a patient calls a lawyer

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. When the patient is not responsive to treatment d. When a treatment is not administered to a patient e. When an individual signs off on treatment for a family member Ans: A 17. Which of these is NOT a route through which communication occurs within the body? a. Blood supply b. Pheromonal system c. Peripheral nervous system d. Endocrine system e. Microbiome Ans: B 18. What is the difference between a toxin and a toxicant? a. A toxin is a naturally occurring substance in living organisms, while a toxicant is an agent released into the environment. b. A toxin is an agent released into the environment while a toxicant is a naturally occurring substance in living organisms. c. A toxin refers specifically to noxious substances found in foods, while toxicant refers collectively to all noxious substances. d. A toxicant refers specifically to noxious substances found in foods, while a toxin refers collectively to all noxious substances. e. There is no difference between toxins and toxicants.

Ans: A 19. Which of these would NOT be a factor that could increase the vulnerability of an individual to develop a particular disease? a. Toxins or toxicants b. The adoption of bad health behaviours

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. Learning about potential rare illnesses d. The use of certain medicinal drugs e. Experiencing multiple or chronic life stressors Ans: C 20. Which of these refers to the optimization of decision-making and treatment practices stemming from rigorous research that meets the criteria for valid and reliable methodological consideration, and interpretation of findings based on equally rigorous criteria? a. Decisions-based practice b. Methodology-based practice c. Rigor-based practice d. Evidence-based practice e. Empirical-based practice Ans: D 21. Which of these is an example of quantitative analysis? a. Analysing the descriptions that someone provides of their daily routine b. Analysing an individual’s journal entries over time c. Analysing data from several questionnaires that use Likert scales d. Analysing the responses given by a subject during an interview e. Analysing a dream the subject is asked to recall Ans: C 22. Which of these is an example of qualitative analysis? a. Analysis of the age of participants b. Analysis of responses along a Likert scale c. Analysis of number of meals an individual consumes per week d. Analysis of narratives obtained from participant interviews e. Analysis of time necessary to complete a task

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: D 23. The course of which of these diseases can be influenced by environmental and psychological triggers? a. Heart disease b. Immune-related disorders c. Auto-immune disorders d. Type 2 diabetes e. All of these Ans: E 24. Mary goes to the physician and is diagnosed with heart disease. Furthermore, she says that she has been feeling particularly depressed in the months leading up to her diagnosis.

This is an example of ______. a. covalent vulnerability b. complementary resilience c. comorbidity d. tachycardia e. predictive medicine Ans: C 25. The unusual spread of illnesses in the Northern hemisphere, particularly those linked to infection by insects, has been attributed to ______. a. resistance to pesticides b. climate change c. changes of food supplies d. the natural occurrence of algicides e. industrial waste damaging insects Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 2: Methodological approaches in health psychology 1. What is the leading cause of death in western countries (such as the UK, Europe and North America)? a. Heart and circulatory disorders b. Cancer c. Respiratory disorders d. Nervous system disorders e. Suicide Ans: A 2. When a third variable (e.g. gender) is found to interact with, and affect, either the direction or strength of the relationship between two other variables (e.g. stress and heart disease), the third variable would be classified as what? a. Mediator b. Moderator c. Predictor d. Dependent variable e. Interacting variable Ans: B 3. A particular variable (e.g. stress) is found to be related to a second variable (e.g. inflammation), which, in turn, is associated with an outcome variable (e.g. heart disease).

Furthermore, if the second variable (inflammation) is controlled for, the relation between stress and heart disease is reduced. In this instance, inflammation is considered to be a ______. a. Mediator b. Moderator

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. Predictor d. Dependent variable e. Interacting variable Ans: A 4. A researcher believes that a sequence of events is related to particular outcomes, and therefore wishes to evaluate the paths through which these instances are related. What kind of analysis would they therefore run? a. Structural equation modelling b. Sequential equation modelling c. Sequential path analysis d. Structural path analysis e. Series equation analysis Ans: A 5. Epidemiological research focuses on ______. a. how often and why diseases occur in different groups of people b. the attributes of diseases that may be life-threatening c. epidermal (skin) diseases d. only the transmission of infectious diseases e. only diseases of ageing Ans: A 6. An index of how many people within a fixed number are afflicted with an illness is called what? a. Odds ratio b. Prevalence c. Incidence d. Risk

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. None of these Ans: B 7. The number of new cases that appear in a population or over a set period of time is called what? a. Odds ratio b. Prevalence c. Incidence d. Risk e. None of these Ans: C 8. The frequency of an illness in a population over a set period of time is referred to as what? a. Odds ratio b. Prevalence c. Incidence d. Risk e. Morbidity Ans: D 9. What is a case control study? a. A study in which individuals with an illness are compared to individuals with a similar illness b. A study in which one individual is assessed to identify the factors responsible for the illness c. A study in which two groups with similar illnesses are compared to a third group with a different illness d. A study in which individuals with an illness are compared to another group who does not have the illness

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. A study in which individuals with an illness are assessed before diagnosis of the illness, and again after receiving treatment for the illness Ans: D 10. The difference observed between participants within a particular group is referred to as ______. a. cohort effects b. individual characteristics c. experimental error d. variability e. inconsistency Ans: D 11. As part of programme evaluations, small collectives of individuals may be interviewed or assessed with qualitative approaches. What are these collections of individuals called? a. Seminar group b. Interview panel c. Panel group d. Study group e. Focus group Ans: E 12. In a meta-analysis, what two aspects are assessed to derive an estimate of how meaningful results are from reported studies? a. Level of significance and population of individuals sampled b. Inclusion and exclusionary criteria c. The strength of associations between variables and the population sampled d. The effect sizes and number of participants e. Who the researchers were that published the studies

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: D 13. Papers that review literature to provide an up-to-date assessment of the published work in a particular field are referred to as ______. a. dissertations b. systematic reviews c. overview reports d. summary papers e. meta-analyses Ans: B 14. Which is NOT required for an animal model of a human disease to be considered valid? a. The symptoms of a human disorder ought to be replicated in the animal model b. Treatments that ameliorate symptoms in humans ought to do so in the animal model c. The symptoms in the animal model must be self-limiting (i.e. disappear on their own with time) d. Treatments that are ineffective in humans should be ineffective in animals e. Manipulations that promote or exacerbate symptoms in humans should also have these actions in the animals Ans: C 15. What does the power of a test refer to? a. How impactful the test is b. The ability of a test to handle a certain number of variables or participants c. How robust the test is to systematic flaws in the data d. The ability to detect a significant difference e. An index of how efficient a test is at crunching numbers Ans: D

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 16. An analysis of multiple studies that considers the number of participants tested and the variability present is referred to as a ______. a. meta-analysis b. variance–covariance analysis c. variance–invariance analysis d. root–cause analysis e. mega-root analysis Ans: A 17. Prior to the age of 55, males are more likely to develop heart disease than are females.

However, after this age (after menopause) women are as likely as men to develop heart disease. This is an example of ______. a. moderation dependency b. interaction c. independent variable subversion d. independent variable suppression e. gate-dependent outcomes Ans: B 18. A study in which a large number of variables in the general population are measured and then an analysis is conducted to determine which factors come together to predict the presence of a physical or psychological illness is an example of ______. a. a deviation analysis b. an interrogatory analysis c. a generic analysis d. an epidemiological analysis e. an endophenotypic analysis Ans: D

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 19. The ability to detect a statistically significant difference between groups, given the number of participants and the variability within each condition, describes a ______. a. power analysis b. mean–variance distribution c. variance divergence programme d. power–issuance diversion e. none of these Ans: A 20. A prospective analysis entails ______. a. retroactively determining the presence of particular factors that could predict the development of a later illness b. finding specific variables that are likely most responsible for specific outcomes c. determining whether earlier experiences (such as those in childhood) are responsible for illnesses that have been uncovered in adulthood d. evaluating patient medical charts in an effort to determine which of many variables are most closely aligned with the development of an illness e. participants being tracked for some time, periodically assessing whether and to what extent particular changes have developed Ans: E 21. A scientist actually measuring what they think they are measuring is referred to as ______. a. reliability b. congruence c. validity d. accuracy e. precision Ans: C

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 22. Which of these is NOT a necessary criterion to model human disorders? a. Treatments that ameliorate symptoms in humans ought to do so in the animal model. b. Treatments that are ineffective in humans should be ineffective in animals. c. Manipulations that promote symptoms in humans should also do so in the animal model. d. The genomes should be congruent in both species. e. The mechanisms responsible for a disorder ought to be the same in both species.

Ans: D 23. Which of these, from a reported study, may lead to a failure in replicating research findings? a. The researchers selectively reported the most positive findings b. The researchers used a large number of animals c. The researchers controlled for important variables d. The researchers used a longitudinal study design e. The researchers were assessing for mediators Ans: A 24. A study in which participants are randomly assigned to groups in which one receives an experimental treatment, and the second is similarly treated, but is given a placebo, is referred to as ______. a. randomized concurrent trial b. randomly conducted treatment c. randomized controlled trial d. randomly conducted trial e. none of these Ans: C 25. What is an open label trial?

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. A study in which the label of a drug treatment has been removed b. A study in which only the participants know what was administered c. A study in which only the clinicians know what was administered d. A study in which both the participants and the clinicians know what was administered e. A malpractice court proceeding that is open to the public Ans: D 26. In a quasi-experimental design, how are participants assigned to groups? a. Participants are randomly assigned b. Participants decide which experimental group to take part in c. A confederate chooses which group the participants will belong to d. Participants are not randomly assigned e. There is no need for assignment in quasi-experimental designs Ans: D 27. A study in which past experiences are recorded based on individual recall or in response to specific questions is often referred to as ______. a. longitudinal b. archival c. historical d. prospective e. retrospective Ans: E 28. What is a possible consequence of running a study with a small sample size? a. The results may not be reliable b. The results will certainly not be significant c. The study will not get published, unless you know the right people d. There will be a higher rate of participant attrition

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. The results will likely not be valid Ans: A 29. If one variable (e.g. food intake) was found to be elevated in a group of individuals, and subsequently a second variable (e.g. frequency of obesity) was also found to be high, what kind of relationship between these two variables would you likely conclude there to be? a. Mediation b. Moderation c. Moderated mediation d. Causal e. Correlational Ans: E 30. What type of analysis is used to determine whether variables as a group might be more predictive of an outcome than simply knowing about a single variable? a. Grouped analysis b. Normative analysis c. Cluster analysis d. Meta-analysis e. Multiple analysis Ans: C

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 3: Biological systems and functioning 1. Norepinephrine, dopamine and serotonin are examples of ______. a. neuropeptides b. hormones c. neurotransmitters d. immune signalling molecules e. all of these Ans: C 2. These types of receptors tell the neuron to slow down the production of the neurotransmitter ______. a. post-synaptic receptors b. transporters c. regulatory receptors d. autoreceptors e. inhibitory receptors Ans: D 3. The process through which a neurotransmitter is transported back into the cell is called ______. a. re-utilization b. re-cycling c. degradation d. diffusion e. re-uptake Ans: E 4. Which of the following is NOT a type of glial cell?

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. Oligodendrocytes b. Astrocytes c. Microglia d. Lymphocytes e. All of these are types of glial cells Ans: D 5. Which of the following cell types is involved in myelination? a. Oligodendrocytes b. Covalent neurons c. Dendrocytes d. Lymphocytes e. Cytokines Ans: A 6. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) enters the bloodstream and upon reaching the adrenal gland, it stimulates the release of ______. a. corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) b. cortisol c. testosterone d. oestrogen e. oxytocin Ans: B 7. ______ promotes satiety, whereas ______ promotes hunger. a. Oxytocin; insulin b. Ghrelin; luteinizing hormone c. Ghrelin; neurotrophin d. Leptin; ghrelin

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. Insulin; leptin Ans: D 8. Diabetes has been PRIMARILY associated with disturbances in which hormone? a. Leptin b. Ghrelin c. Testosterone d. Oestrogen e. Insulin Ans: E 9. Which of the following hormones is important in dominance challenges and aggressive behaviours? a. Testosterone b. Oestrogen c. Insulin d. Ghrelin e. Oxytocin Ans: A 10. The primary function of prolactin is to promote which of the following? a. Aggression b. Withdrawal c. Lactation d. Anhedonia e. Anxiety Ans: C 11. Which of the following hormones has been implicated in pro-social behaviours?

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. Oxytocin b. Cortisol c. Leptin d. Testosterone e. Oestrogen Ans: A 12. Which of the following substances are considered fundamental to cellular growth and proliferation, and are best known for their capacity to enhanced neuroplasticity? a. Orexigenic factors b. Neurogenic proteins c. Optogenetic molecules d. Neurotrophins e. Anxiolytic peptides Ans: D 13. Which type of immunity develops during the course of prenatal development? a. Adaptive b. Innate c. Cellular d. Acquired e. Humoral Ans: B 14. Macrophage remove dead cells as well as attack and engulf microorganisms through a process called ______. a. exocytosis b. lysis c. cannibalism

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. apoptosis e. phagocytosis Ans: E 15. T-helper cells and B cells are examples of ______. a. macrophages b. lymphocytes c. natural killer cells d. neutrophils e. monocytes Ans: B 16. Immune cells communicate through the release of which type of signalling molecules? a. Cytokines b. Neurotransmitters c. Hormones d. Peptides e. Cell phones Ans: A 17. Which of the following is an example of an anti-inflammatory cytokine? a. IL-1β b. IL-6 c. TNF-α d. IL-4 e. IFN Ans: D 18. The nervous system of the gut is referred to as the ______ nervous system.

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. gastro-intestinal b. enteric c. biogenic d. neuro-intestinal e. anxiogenic Ans: B 19. What might children of trauma survivors do when learning about their family’s experiences through subtle, non-verbal communications? a. Forget about it b. Try and sympathize with their parents and move on c. Learn from the past and fill in the blanks where necessary d. Ignore the information as they are not cognitively mature enough to understand e. Develop negative attitudes towards their own culture Ans: C 20. In contrast to individuals that are considered the black sheep, what term is used to refer to individuals with a unified social identity? a. Entitativity b. Social connectedness c. Social homogeneity d. Identivity e. White sheep effect Ans: A 21. If you are ______ for a particular gene, it means that you carry both a dominant and recessive allele of that gene. a. homozygous b. heterozygous

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. dizygotic d. homogenized e. multipotent Ans: B 22. ______ twins share all of their genes, whereas ______ twins share only half their genes. a. Monogamous; polygamous b. Eccentric; conventional c. Monozygotic; dizygotic d. Homogenous; heterogeneous e. Homozygous; heterozygous Ans: C 23. The combination of the variance contributed by our genes (Gv) plus our environment (Ev) plus the variance attributable to the gene x environment interaction Pv = Gv + Ev + (Pv x Ev) refers to ______. a. interactive variance b. additive variance c. polymorphic variance d. epigenetic variance e. phenotypic variance Ans: E 24. Which of the following is NOT a nucleotide? a. Guanine b. Tyrosine c. Adenine d. Thymine e. Cytosine

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: B 25. Which type of RNA is involved in the translation of genetic information? a. Antisense RNA b. Ribosomal RNA c. Transfer RNA d. Messenger RNA e. microRNA Ans: C 26. ______ refers to the extent to which a particular characteristic or trait in the population is attributable to genetic differences. a. Heritability b. Genetic diversity c. Genetic drift d. Genetic variance e. Genetic stability Ans: A 27. Changes in a gene sequence that occurs in a significant portion of the population (more than 1%) are referred to as ______. a. translocations b. deletions c. amplifications d. mutations e. polymorphisms Ans: E 28. Epigenetics refers to changes in ______.

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. gene expression b. DNA sequence c. gene structure d. DNA frequency e. all of these Ans: A 29. If epigenetic changes occur within ______ cells, they can be transmitted from one generation to the next. a. mitochondrial b. stem c. neuronal d. germline e. tumour Ans: D 30. A neuron is NOT comprised of which of the following structures ______. a. axon b. dendrites c. cell body d. receptors e. glia Ans: E 31. The relative rate at which a neurotransmitter is produced and utilized is referred to as ______. a. the P–U ration b. turnover c. galvanization

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. the action potential e. the action–reaction ratio Ans: B 32. Maintaining ion balances within fluid outside brain cells, and contributing to repair of brain and spinal cord neurons, describes the actions of ______. a. interneurons b. caronious neurons c. dendritic arborization d. astrocytes e. megantic organelles Ans: D 33. The primary neurotransmitter of the parasympathetic nervous system is ______. a. epinephrine b. norepinephrine c. serotonin d. GABA e. acetylcholine Ans: E 34. Which of the following is NOT involved in HPA functioning? a. CRH b. ACTH c. GVH d. Cortisol e. Corticosterone Ans: C

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 35. The two primary hormones involved in eating processes are ______. a. norepinephrine and acetylcholine b. leptin and ghrelin c. GABA and ghrelin d. norepinephrine and GABA e. none of these Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 4: The stress process 1. Studies using functional magnetic resonance imaging concluded that ______. a. emotional pain results in activation of the medial-posterior occipital lobe b. emotional pain activates the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus c. emotional pain activates regions similar to those activated by physical pain d. emotional pain causes activation of the ventral posterior cingulate cortex e. emotional pain causes bilateral activation of the vestibular nuclei in the thalamus Ans: C 2. Which psychological theorist was an early advocate for the notion of early-life events having profound influences later in life? a. Wilhelm Wundt b. B.F. Skinner c. Sigmund Freud d. Jean Piaget e. Ernest Fidel Ans: C 3. What is the term used for agents that pose potential harm to a foetus during pregnancy? a. Pathogen b. Mutagen c. Vitogen d. Teratogen e. Toxicogen Ans: D

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 4. Prenatal viral challenges are believed to promote the development of several physical and psychological disorders. In this regard, rubella and influenza epidemics were associated with a marked increase of which disorder? a. Bipolar disorder b. Schizophrenia c. Autism spectrum disorder d. Auto-immune disorders e. Epilepsy Ans: B 5. Which of the following factors does NOT contribute to the development of autism spectrum disorder? a. Very premature birth b. Epigenetic changes c. Chronically elevated immunological factors d. MMR (measles, mumps and rubella) vaccine e. The mother has particular antibodies that bind to foetal brain proteins Ans: D 6. Joan was recently referred to a psychologist to undergo treatment for anxiety. Upon her first consultation, she discussed issues related to her upbringing, particularly her mother’s struggles with depression and alcohol abuse, and her father’s lack of affection. Joan’s experiences with her parents are examples of which kind of abuse? a. Commensal b. Physical c. Emotional d. Dimorphic e. Traumatic Ans: E

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 7. Strong stressors can have negative consequences, such as the development of both physical and biological pathologies. Tolerable stressors that are encountered early in life may ______. a. facilitate learning of ways to cope with the stressor later on b. be more detrimental than traumatic stressors on physical well-being c. delay cognitive development of a child d. promote the development of negative coping strategies e. increase sensitivity to smaller stressors later on Ans: A 8. Which term is used to refer to the stressors historically experienced by a specific group of people, the effects of which can be passed down across generations through oral and written teachings? a. Historical stressors b. Collective stressors c. Collective trauma d. Shared trauma e. Historical trauma Ans: C 9. What might children of trauma survivors do when learning about their family’s experiences through subtle, non-verbal communications? a. Forget about it b. Try and sympathize with their parents and move on c. Learn and understand the past and fill in the blanks where necessary d. Ignore the information as they are not sufficiently cognitively mature to understand the implications e. Develop negative attitudes towards their own culture

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: C 10. Which word is used to refer to stressors that have physical origins, such as burns or painful stimuli of other sorts? a. Physiogenic b. Psychogenic c. Systemogenic d. Neurogenic e. Cytogenic Ans: D 11. Gracie has been busy with her part-time job and forgot that she had a course paper due in a week. Aware that this would be a major problem, she thought, ‘It is what it is. I’ll use the resources available and get through this and be stronger for it’ and gets to work on her paper.

What type of coping strategy did Gracie use? a. Cognitive restructuring b. Passive resignation c. Active distraction d. Reappraisal e. Antherism Ans: A 12. Which term is used to refer to the shortcuts individuals make based on earlier experiences or previously established rules? a. Cognitive associations b. Heuristics c. Referential associations d. Attributions e. Intuitions

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: B 13. Among one of the more important characteristics of stressors that make them more or less aversive is controllability. If one has little to no control over a stressor, what type of cognitive schema might develop that ultimately is a feature of depression? a. Pessimism b. Desperation c. Indifference d. Despair e. Helplessness Ans: E 14. What types of appraisals related to locus of control is the following individual making if they were to say ‘I can achieve a great mark in Health Psychology if I try. In fact, I can pretty well succeed at most things if I put my mind to it’? a. Specific, unstable b. Global; unstable c. External, stable d. Internal, global e. Global, stable Ans: D 15. Julie has three exams scheduled within five days of each other. For many students this may be too much, and they may feel overwhelmed. However, Julie is confident in her ability to put the necessary time into studying and came out of her last exam feeling she had done her very best. What word best defines the characteristic being portrayed? a. Self-esteem b. Self-efficacy c. Self-confidence

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. Self-mastery e. Self-righteousness Ans: B 16. What is the term used to refer to the overly taxed neurobiological systems following the rapid mobilization of biological resources? a. Allostatic imbalance b. Biological strain c. Homeostatic overload d. Allostatic overload e. Hypostatic overload Ans: D 17. What personality feature of the Five Factor Model includes the disposition to experience negative emotions such as anger, anxiety and depression? a. Openness b. Conscientiousness c. Extraversion d. Agreeableness e. Neuroticism Ans: E 18. Taylor has recently gone through illness as well as a bitter divorce from her partner, which has left her both emotionally and financially exhausted. Taylor has decided to use this experience to actually see the benefit of her ordeal. What coping strategy best describes Taylor’s attitude? a. Post-traumatic growth b. Emotional expression c. Distraction

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. Spirituality (external) e. Emotional containment Ans: A 19. To his surprise, Dave’s partner has ended their relationship. Rather than come to terms with it, he has filled his time going to the gym to avoid thinking about his heartbreak. What sort of coping strategy is Dave demonstrating? a. Cognitive distraction b. Active distraction c. Positive rumination d. Passive resignation e. Problem-solving Ans: B 20. Individuals appraise their situation as being one over which they have some control. This is an example of ______. a. primary appraisal b. secondary appraisal c. tertiary appraisal d. reappraisal e. appraisal dissolution Ans: B 21. The availability heuristic is based on ______. a. how readily decisions come to mind b. complex decisions being made to appear simpler and more available c. having anchors available that facilitate decision-making d. taking a shortcut in making a decision e. being primed in particular ways to facilitate decisions

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: A 22. Exposure to a strong stressor enhances the response to later stressors encountered. This is referred to as ______. a. systemization b. auto-reactivity c. neuroticism d. sensitization e. reactance Ans: D 23. Longer telomere length has been associated with ______. a. increased ageing b. diminished ageing c. diminished ageing, but only in relatively young people d. increased ageing, but only in relatively young people e. schizophrenia in late adolescence Ans: B 24. Adverse effects on the foetus resulting from toxins encountered by a pregnant woman are referred to as ______. a. blastophenic effects b. foetal dissociative actions c. mutative actions d. polymorphisms e. teratogenic effects Ans: E

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 5: Neurobiological stress responses 1. Stressors that influence neuronal activity within the anterior cingulate cortex contribute to ______. a. vigilance and appraisals b. vigilance and decision-making c. eating and appraisals d. appraisals and decision-making e. all of these Ans: D 2. A potential biomarker to predict resilience is ______. a. neuropeptide Y b. GABA c. CRH d. glutamate e. serotonin Ans: A 3. In response to stress, the release of cortisol in the presence of insulin results in ______. a. decreased high-calorie food consumption b. increased low-calorie food consumption c. increased high-calorie food consumption d. no change in food consumption e. cravings for celery Ans: C 4. Ghrelin activation in response to an acute stressor may ______. a. increase anxiety

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. reduce appropriate coping c. increase depressive-like states d. decrease eating e. decrease anxiety Ans: E 5. ______ may serve to limit HPA axis activity. a. Serotonin b. Oestrogen c. Norepinephrine d. Progesterone e. BDNF Ans: B 6. In response to stressors, prolactin is ______. a. increased b. decreased c. unchanged d. increased only during the peripartum period e. increased only among mothers Ans: A 7. Upon stressing a lactating rodent mom ______. a. HPA activity is elevated b. HPA activity is attenuated c. HPA activity is attenuated if the mom was recently in contact with her pups d. HPA activity is elevated if the mom was recently in contact with her pups e. HPA activity is attenuated if the mom was not recently in contact with her pups Ans: C

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 8. The tend-and-befriend effect has largely been attributed to ______. a. oestrogen b. cortisol c. oxytocin d. progesterone e. none of these Ans: C 9. The social sensitivity view of oxytocin suggests that ______. a. oxytocin always has positive pro-social effects b. oxytocin decreases sensitivity to social stimuli c. low oxytocin levels are beneficial d. oxytocin increases sensitivity to social stimuli e. high oxytocin levels are beneficial Ans: D 10. Stress-related depression has been attributed to ______. a. decreased BDNF in the hippocampus b. decreased BDNF in the prefrontal cortex and increased BDNF in the hippocampus c. increased BDNF in the prefrontal cortex and the hippocampus d. decreased BDNF in the prefrontal cortex e. no changes in BDNF Ans: A 11. The immune system can detect danger through ______. a. anti-inflammatory cytokines b. pro-inflammatory cytokines c. reactive oxytocin species

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. damage molecular pattern molecules e. divergent molecular pattern molecules Ans: D 12. Psychological stress results in ______. a. very high levels of IL-1β in blood b. reduced levels of anti-inflammatory cytokines c. elevated IL-6 d. reduced IL-6 e. no cytokine changes, as cytokines are not influenced by psychological stress Ans: C 13. Low social status is associated with ______. a. elevated cytokine responses to stress compared to people with cynical distrust b. exaggerated cytokine responses to stress c. limited cytokine responses to stress d. lower cytokine responses to stress compared to people with cynical distrust e. enhanced NK-cell activity Ans: B 14. This cytokine, although used to treat some forms of cancer, can induce severe depression ______. a. interferon-β b. interferon-γ c. IL-6 d. TNF-α e. interferon-α Ans: E

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 15. Inflammatory immune activation can result in ______. a. reduced GABA in limbic regions b. increased utilization of monoamines in the prefrontal cortex and hippocampus c. reduced glutamate in limbic regions d. decreased utilization of monoamines in the prefrontal cortex and hippocampus e. reduced CRH levels Ans: B 16. Neurotransmitters, such as norepinephrine and serotonin, are activated in several brain regions in response to stress in order to ______. a. encourage effective coping b. attenuate the psychological effect of the stressor c. prepare an individual to adapt to the challenge d. facilitate appraisals of the event e. all of these Ans: E 17. Monoamines collectively refer to ______. a. acetylcholine, serotonin, epinephrine b. norepinephrine, dopamine, serotonin c. dopamine, acetylcholine, epinephrine d. serotonin, oxytocin, norepinephrine e. dopamine, corticosterone, norepinephrine Ans: B 18. Utilization of a neurotransmitter refers to its ______. a. synthesis b. release c. allostasis

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. production e. none of these Ans: B 19. If the utilization of a neurotransmitter exceeds synthesis, ______. a. an increase in neurotransmitter availability will occur b. homeostasis will occur c. a decrease in neurotransmitter availability will occur d. the organism will be more equipped to deal with the stressor e. the availability of the neurotransmitter will not change Ans: C 20. An earlier stressor encourages an exaggerated response to cocaine; this is known as ______. a. sensitization b. de-sensitization c. cross-over amplification d. synergism e. cross-sensitization Ans: E 21. An example of a drug that can have powerful antidepressant effects within a very brief time (hours) is ______. a. Fluoxetine b. Prozac c. Citalopram d. Effexor e. Ketamine Ans: E

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 22. The coordinated appearance of this neurotransmitter’s receptor subunits is altered in response to chronic stressors ______. a. GABA b. glutamate c. serotonin d. CRH e. cortisol Ans: A 23. This disorder is marked by blunted cortisol release ______. a. depression b. generalized anxiety c. drug addiction d. obesity e. PTSD Ans: E 24. Upon chronic exposure to the same stressor, a/an ______ effect may occur. a. sensitized b. adaptation c. synergistic d. additive e. none of these Ans: B 25. Depressed women who experienced abuse when they were young displayed ______ in response to the TSST. a. attenuated cortisol responses

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. exaggerated HPA responses c. attenuated ACTH responses d. exaggerated GABA responses e. exaggerated glutamate responses Ans: B 26. Which of the following has been implicated in reducing anxiety? a. Glutamate b. Acetylcholine inhibitors c. Cannabis d. Strychnine e. Vitamin A Ans: C 27. Resilience to stressors was linked to ______. a. increased serotonin b. reduced dopamine c. reduced glutamate d. increased neuropeptide Y e. increased ghrelin Ans: D 28. Increased eating that occurs in response to stressors of moderate severity are thought to occur ______. a. to deactivate stress circuitry b. in an effort at self-medication c. as a result of neurotrophin changes d. owing to cell–cell de-synchronization e. all of these

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: B 29. Aside from its action in relation to glucose entry into cells, insulin may ______. a. excite dopamine neuronal activity in brain regions associated with reward b. inhibit dopamine neuronal activity in brain regions associated with reward c. excite serotonin neuronal activity in brain regions associated with impulsivity d. inhibit serotonin neuronal activity in brain regions associated with impulsivity e. alter the balance between excitatory and inhibitory processes throughout the brain Ans: A 30. Increasing sensitivity to social stimuli has been attributed to ______. a. cortisol b. prolactin c. neuropeptide Y d. oestrogen e. oxytocin Ans: E

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 6: Healthy behaviours, unhealthy behaviours and behavioural change 1. What is the most effective way of bridging the intention–behaviour gap in relation to health behaviours? a. Increasing your self-motivation and fostering a desire to ‘be a better person’ b. Forming specific plans and setting clear goals c. Having someone else monitor your behaviour thoroughly d. Forcing yourself to change your behaviour suddenly, such as going cold turkey on cigarettes or starting an intensive new diet e. There is not much you can do to bridge the gap – some people are unable to motivate themselves enough to engage in regular health behaviours Ans: B 2. When encouraging healthy behaviours via education, phrasing a message empathetically (‘quitting smoking may give you extra years to enjoy with your family’) rather than negatively (‘you will die earlier if you keep smoking’) is referred to as the ______. a. framing effect b. empathy effect c. negativity effect d. self-affirmation effect e. Nesbitt’s effect Ans: A 3. Which model/theory is the following statement most consistent with? ‘Smoking puts me at risk of cancer – however, I can stop smoking and reduce my risk of cancer’. a. The Health Belief Model b. Protection Motivation Theory c. The Theory of Reasoned Action

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. The Theory of Planned Behaviour e. The Transtheoretical Model Ans: A 4. Which two elements are found in the protection motivation theory of health-related behaviours? a. Self-efficacy and self-affirmation b. Self-efficacy and response efficacy c. Self-affirmation and response efficacy d. Modelling and self-efficacy e. Modelling and self-affirmation Ans: B 5. Which model/theory is the following statement most consistent with? ‘In 2010, I was terrified that I would get swine flu. Because of this fear, I got vaccinated as soon as I could’. a. The Health Belief Model b. Protection Motivation Theory c. The Theory of Reasoned Action d. The Theory of Planned Behaviour e. The Transtheoretical Model Ans: B 6. If someone is confident in relation to their ability to engage in a particular behaviour successfully, we call this ______. a. modelling b. self-affirmation c. self-efficacy d. self-response e. pride

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: C 7. Which model/theory is the following statement most consistent with? ‘Most people don’t smoke anymore or find it disgusting; quitting smoking will probably reduce my risk of several illnesses, and it will also mean that I won’t have to spend time freezing outside in the winter – I should quit smoking’. a. The Health Belief Model b. Protection Motivation Model c. The Theory of Reasoned Action d. The Theory of Planned Behaviour e. The Transtheoretical Model Ans: C 8. Which of these is NOT a stage of change within the Transtheoretical Model? a. Pre-contemplation b. Contemplation c. Preparation d. Action e. Consequence Ans: E 9. Which model/theory is the following statement most consistent with? ‘I’m at risk of several weight-related disorders and want to start eating healthier as well as exercising – this will be good for my health and I will probably start feeling better pretty quickly. Within the next couple of weeks, I’m going to limit take-out to only once a week and will go on walks, and within a few months, I’ll progress to cooking my own meals at least three days a week and my walks will start to turn into jogs’. a. The Health Belief Model b. Protection Motivation Model

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. The Theory of Reasoned Action d. The Theory of Planned Behaviour e. The Transtheoretical Model Ans: E 10. Which of these is NOT a criticism of the transtheoretical model? a. The causal connection between different constructs is unclear b. There is confusion regarding how this model can be tested c. The model can only be applied to people over the age of 25 d. The model pays little attention to environmental and social contexts e. The model works on the assumption that individuals go through logical decision-making processes and form coherent systematic plans Ans: C 11. What is the term used when a conditioned response is eliminated or inhibited? a. Erasure b. Anti-conditioning c. Unconditioned response d. Extinction e. Operant conditioning Ans: D 12. What term is used when an individual changes their internal monologue so as to frame thoughts in a positive or constructive manner? a. Cognitive restructuring b. Optimism c. Positive reframing d. Negative reframing e. Self-affirmation

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: A 13. Which of the following is used in the treatment of cancer? a. Time-limited therapy b. Episode of care c. Enhanced therapy d. Continuing care e. Supplemental therapy Ans: D 14. Which of the following statements concerning harm reduction programmes for chronic drug users is FALSE? a. Opioid replacement therapies (replacing heroin with drugs such as methadone or buprenorphine) help reduce drug craving and therefore reduce drug use. b. Harm reduction programmes have had no effect on emergency room visits due to drug use. c. Heroin maintenance programmes that provide medical prescriptions for heroin and ‘safe sites’ for injections show a decrease in risk associated with the use of the drug. d. A disadvantage of harm reduction programmes is that they suggest a tolerance for risky or illegal behaviour and send the message that this behaviour is acceptable. e. A disadvantage of harm reduction programmes is that they suggest that there is a responsible way of using drugs and that drug use is unpreventable.

Ans: B 15. Which one of these would be considered a universal prevention strategy? a. Vaccination programmes for school-aged children b. Mental exercise programmes for people with early dementia c. Insulin injections for children with diabetes d. Safe sites for needle users e. Art therapy for returning soldiers

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: A 16. As of 2014, the National Cancer Institute has been recommending mammograms for women between ______. a. 18 and 93 years old b. 30 and 82 years old c. 40 and 74 years old d. 45 and 70 years old e. 50 and 75 years old Ans: C 17. Meredith has undergone a mammogram and was told that she does not have breast cancer. However, she does. The results of the test represent a ______. a. hit b. correct rejection c. false alarm d. false-positive e. false-negative Ans: E 18. Which of these is NOT a myth/bias concerning screening for illnesses? a. Screening is 100% accurate b. Early detection always leads to a better prognosis c. The length bias d. People who are screened for an illness have a better prognosis than people who are not screened e. Physician recommendations can be influential in predicting screening behaviour Ans: E

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 19. Which of these is NOT a factor that insurance companies take into account when they assess a person’s health risks? a. Lifestyle b. Demographic features c. Marital status d. Presence of particular polymorphisms e. Basic physiological data Ans: D 20. Alex’s mom asks him to wear a helmet when he goes roller blading. Alex assumes that this means that he can go faster and speeds down every hill he encounters. While doing so, he hits a bump in the road and is propelled forward, breaking his arm. This is an example of the ______. a. law of unintended consequences b. Peltzman effect c. law of unexpected drawbacks d. perverse results e. unanticipated harms Ans: B 21. Women tend to live longer than men. Which one of these is NOT a possible reason for this? a. Women are more willing to have an annual health check b. Biological influences c. Women are exposed to fewer risks in the workplace and at home d. Women are more likely to be screened for gender-specific illnesses e. Social support is sought more readily by women Ans: C

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 22. The ‘social cure’ involves changing behaviour through ______. a. cognitive restructuring b. optimism c. positive reframing d. focusing on social identity e. group processes Ans: D 23. In response to ‘low-probability, high-impact events’, even if there is only a 1% chance of them occurring, we should be treating them as if they were certainties. This describes ______. a. the one-percent doctrine b. the law of uncertain certainties c. the law of certain uncertainties d. the rule of certain actions e. the rule of demonstrative actions Ans: A 24. A major critique of early cancer screening is referred to as ‘lead time bias’. This reflects the fact that ______. a. early detection might mean marginally longer survival, but at the expense of greater distress b. early detection might mean marginally longer survival, but this might entail considerably more expense owing to unreasonable use of supplies, equipment and personnel c. early detection might not mean longer survival. It simply means that the clock started earlier, so that the span between detection and death is longer with early detection even though death may occur at the same time irrespective of when the illness was detected d. early detection might mean stopping the search for more serious problems so that these will have markedly more adverse consequences

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. all of these reflect ‘lead time bias’ Ans: C 25. ‘Two-eyed seeing’ essentially means ______. a. if the one-eyed man is king in the land of the blind, then the two-eyed man would be the emperor b. seeing both sides of controversies related to treatment strategies c. deciding on prevention and treatment strategies by examining both the benefits and risk that are associated with any approach that might be adopted d. accepting that harms often exceed benefits in the treatment of illnesses that are not overly dangerous e. adopting both the strengths of indigenous knowledge and ways of knowing with the benefits of Western knowledge Ans: E 26. Slowly nudging people in the ‘right’ direction, can be done through subtle advertising or by getting people to follow what they are led to believe others are doing, essentially capitulating to social norms. This describes ______. a. social capitulation theory b. nudge theory c. cohesive opinion theory d. social identity theory e. supportive movement theory Ans: B 27. The effectiveness of the Centres for Disease Control’s (CDC) warnings may be diminished as a result of the government having ‘exhausted its quota of scary utterances’.

This has been offered as an explanation to account for ______. a. vaccine hesitancy in response to a possible epidemic or pandemic

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. mistrust in relation to climate change warnings c. reactance that occurs whenever governments attempt to make major health changes d. people’s reluctance to adhere to warnings concerning the risks created by natural disasters e. the tendency for groups to coalesce in an effort to diminish a government’s influence in response to ‘fake news’ Ans: A

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 7: Lifestyle factors 1. During dieting ______. a. metabolic rate is increased b. body cells respond as they would during a famine c. genetic polymorphisms are masked d. the body attempts to increase energy release e. physiological set points are immediately altered Ans: B 2. Regarding branded diets, which of these is TRUE? a. They focus almost exclusively on carb consumption b. They are all effective in obese individuals, so long as individuals follow them c. When studied, weight changes are observed over extensive time frames d. They sustain involvement through consideration of cultures e. One-third of participants will regain the weight they lost within a year after the diet Ans: B 3. Obesity is associated with increased levels of ______ that may inhibit ______ fat activity. a. dopamine; peripheral b. serotonin; white c. dopamine; white d. serotonin; brown e. dopamine; brown Ans: D 4. Fenfluramine ______. a. promotes dopamine release b. inhibits serotonin release

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. promotes dopamine receptor expression d. inhibits dopamine release e. promotes serotonin release Ans: E 5. Previous drugs for weight reduction had short lasting outcomes, addictive properties and/or severe negative side effects. More recent drugs have not been found to have any such side effects and include ______. a. Lorcaserin (Belviq), which acts on the serotonergic system b. Fexaramine, which promotes the release of pepsin c. Fenfluramine, which acts on the serotonergic system d. Phentermine, which causes the release of bile acids e. Fenfluramine, which acts on the dopaminergic system Ans: A 6. Artificial sweeteners can cause health risks by ______. a. decreasing glucose intolerance b. modifying pepsin release c. altering gut bacteria d. producing enolinic changes e. reducing stomach acid Ans: C 7. Bariatric surgery ______. a. promotes moderate, transient weight loss b. diminishes heart problems c. reduces depression for an extended period of time d. cannot significantly affect diabetes e. temporarily augments heartburn

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: B 8. Natural products ______. a. ought to receive clinical testing prior to distribution, but typically do not b. must not have placebo effects c. must undergo rigorous testing trials d. must contain safety information in the UK e. must always have some medicinal value Ans: A 9. Homeopathy was established based on which conceptual thought? a. A substance that causes illness can be used to enhance immunity b. Herbal substances should be diluted and administered to maintain health c. A substance that causes illness can be used to reduce symptoms of disease d. Herbal substances should be diluted, since water is able to retain memory of the original substance e. A substance that causes illness can be used to cure people who are sick Ans: E 10. NREM stage 1 sleep involves ______ waves. a. theta b. delta c. beta d. alpha e. gamma Ans: D 11. The deepest stage of sleep is ______. a. NREM stage 4

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. REM stage 1 c. NREM stage 3 d. REM stage 2 e. NREM stage 2 Ans: A 12. During sleep ______. a. energy recuperation occurs b. brain activity heightens c. synapses are increased d. hippocampal atrophy occurs e. openings between cells decrease Ans: A 13. Which of the following has been implicated as a major factor affecting eating? a. Leptin b. Amylase c. Pepsin d. Serotonin e. Lactase Ans: A 14. Which of the following is NOT true regarding exercise? a. Anaerobic exercises constitute strength training with the aim of increasing muscle capacity b. Moderate exercise diminishes obesity and lowers overall cholesterol c. Exercise functions as a primary and secondary method to prevent chronic diseases d. Aerobic exercise particularly helps in strengthening heart and lung function e. Exercise in humans is consistently associated with improved memory Ans: E

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 15. Gut bacteria are ______. a. unable to affect eating behaviours when modified b. linked to heart disease through cytokine release c. especially influenced by hormones, but only in females d. similar in those who are thin and those who are heavy e. linked to insulin resistance, but not adiposity Ans: B 16. Which nucleus within the hypothalamus controls the timing of sleep? a. Paraventricular b. Supraoptic c. Dorsomedial d. Suprachiasmatic e. Ventromedial Ans: D 17. Orthorexia refers to malnourishment resulting from ______. a. excessive preoccupation and use of ‘healthy’ diets b. premature feelings of fullness caused by impaired neuronal signalling c. the strict elimination of gluten from one’s diet in the absence of gluten intolerance d. excessive neuronal messaging to cease eating e. obsessive measuring and overestimation of calorie intake Ans: A 18. Erythropoietin ______. a. increases white blood cells that carry oxygen b. is used by most athletes c. increases oxygen carrying red blood cells

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. increases BDNF expression in the amygdala e. may singularly treat depression Ans: C 19. Which of the following is NOT true regarding eating processes? a. Stressors may increase food cravings b. Food selection is exclusively governed by physiological processes c. Stressors may either reduce or increase the tendency to eat d. Ghrelin activity may influence food cravings in the presence of stressors e. Stressors may affect reward processes related to food Ans: B 20. Mechanical digestion includes ______. a. protein digestion with hydrochloric acid b. water and mineral reabsorption c. protein digestion with pepsin d. peristalsis, which aids in the movement and mixing of food e. bile release to break down fats Ans: D 21. Sugar ______. a. may act as a pain reliever in adults b. is slowly released as a lasting source of energy c. can act to reduce pain in children d. preferences are solely determined by experiences, not genetics e. is fundamental to positive reward processing Ans: C

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 22. Psychophysiologists may use the phrase ‘just noticeable difference’. An example of this is ______. a. The amount of weight that must be lost before it is noticeable (e.g. in fat vs thin people) b. A moderate weight loss in overweight individuals c. A large weight loss in obese individuals, which is required for the person to feel better d. A moderate weight loss in obese individuals e. A small weight loss in overweight individuals Ans: A 23. Jeanette has hunkered down at home during the COVID-19 pandemic. She has been watching lots of TV. At the same time she has likely been chowing down on ______. a. tofu, kale and quinoa b. celery, carrots and broccoli c. chocolate, chips and cupcakes d. French cuisine e. lots of Mediterranean salads Ans: C 24. Short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs) are formed ______.. a. in the small intestine by bile acids b. in the large intestine by microbiota c. in the large intestine by bile acids d. in the lower portion of the stomach by sugars e. by the liver when sugar is released Ans: B 25. For cells in the body to take up glucose from the blood, which of the following is necessary? a. Glycogen

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. Cortisol c. Epinephrine d. Insulin e. Ghrelin Ans: D 26. Vitamin supplements are necessary ______. a. for all people especially children b. for all people especially post-menopausal women c. only if a person is deficient of particular vitamin d. only after a person has experienced a viral infection e. none of these as the only vitamin supplement ever needed is vitamin D Ans: C 27. Which type of fat is bet for health? a. Trans-fat b. Adipose fat b. White fat d. Brown fat e. None of these. All fat is bad fat Ans: D 28. The ability to eat foods with lots of fats without adverse effects occurring may have developed in some groups owing to ______. a. natural selection pressures b. ‘thrifty’ genes c. genes that code for FTO d. social pressures e. all of these

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: A 29. The most important aspect of obesity in promoting diseases concerns ______. a. repeated failures in dieting b. how long a person had been obese c. the nature of the obesity (i.e. was it brought on by sugars or by fats) d. if abdominal fat is present, but this is only the case for women e. the nature of the fat (i.e. cured versus uncured fat) Ans: B 30. Diet programmes, in general, could be especially effective if they ______. a. are generic diets b. involve groups that share an identity c. create a sense of well-being d. foster self-esteem e. have an educational programme included Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 8: Cardiovascular illnesses and related disorders 1. Someone who is described as being competitive, impatient, hostile and ambitious may be characterized as having what personality type? a. Narcissistic b. Sociopathic c. Type A d. Type B e. Type D Ans: C 2. Which aspect of the type A personality might be associated with heart disease? a. Time urgency b. Achievement-oriented c. Status conscious d. Hostility e. Competitive drive Ans: D 3. The receptors in blood vessels that are sensitive to blood pressure changes are referred to as ______. a. baroreceptors b. beta receptors c. arterial receptors d. cardioreceptors e. endothelial receptors Ans: A

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 4. The total number of infectious pathogens that one has been exposed to is referred to as ______. a. infection incidence b. pathogen dose c. infection dose d. pathogen burden e. infection burden Ans: D 5. Which cytokine is released from cardiac muscle cells and may contribute to vascular remodelling? a. IL-1β b. IL-18 c. TNF-α d. IL-6 e. IL-10 Ans: B 6. Which receptors do beta blockers antagonize? a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Norepinephrine d. Baroreceptors e. Endothelial Ans: C 7. With regards to ACE inhibitors, what does the acronym ‘ACE’ stand for? a. Angina-clotting enzyme b. Angioplasty-constricting exercise

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. Arterial-converting endogenous d. Angiotensin-converting enzyme e. Acetylcholine-constructing enzyme Ans: D 8. What is the most prominent cause of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? a. Air pollution b. Free radicals c. Smoking tobacco d. Carbon monoxide exposure e. Choking Ans: C 9. The diminished airflow characteristic of COPD comes about owing to lung tissue breaking down, which is referred to as ______. a. bronchitis b. pulmonary embolism c. cor pulmonale d. emphysema e. trapping Ans: D 10. A stroke resulting from a ruptured blood vessel bleeding directly into the brain may be classified as ______. a. haemorrhagic b. ischaemic c. thrombotic d. embolism e. hypoperfusion

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: A 11. If a patient that has had a stroke presents difficulties in auditory comprehension, aphasia and a lack of insight pertaining to their disability, which brain region is likely implicated? a. Brainstem b. Cerebral cortex c. Cerebellum d. Hypothalamus e. Adrenal cortex Ans: B 12. In relation to gender differences between men and women with regards to strokes, which statement is accurate? a. Strokes are more fatal in men. b. Women are more likely to experience strokes. c. Strokes occur at an earlier age in men. d. Men are less likely to experience strokes. e. Genetic factors contribute to gender differences in stroke.

Ans: C 13. Which class of drug is typically administered in the case of an ischaemic stroke? a. Digoxin b. Anticoagulant drugs c. Nitrates d. Tissue plasminogen activator e. Aspirin Ans: D

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 14. Astrocytes and neural stem/progenitor cells might promote angiogenesis, which refers to ______. a. creating new cells, including neuronal and glial cells b. neuroprotection c. modulating inflammation d. removing debris e. facilitating the development of a new blood supply Ans: E 15. Following a stroke, patients may have difficulty performing activities of daily living, such as dressing, bathing and cooking. What kind of therapist may help provide therapy for this? a. Physiotherapist b. Orthotist c. Occupational therapist d. Physical therapist e. Social worker Ans: C 16. Irregular heartbeat and abnormal heart rhythm refer to ______. a. discardia b. arrhythmia c. atrial asynchrony d. heart burn e. myocarditis Ans: B 17. What is the pathway of arterial blood moving through the body? a. Arteries > veins > arterioles > endothelial cells

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. Arterioles > arteries > veins > capillaries c. Capillaries > arteries > arterioles > endothelial cells d. Arteries > arterioles > capillaries > endothelial cells e. Arteries > arterioles > endothelial cells > capillaries Ans: D 18. The increased pressure exerted by the heart pumping blood is referred to as ______. a. systolic pressure b. diastolic pressure c. arterial pressure d. ventricular pressure e. blood pressure Ans: A 19. Which of these is a sleep problem that is NOT associated with hypertension? a. Oversleeping b. Insomnia c. Early morning awakening d. Sleep walking e. Short sleep duration Ans: D 20. What is the name of the semi-hard substance composed of cholesterol, fat, calcium and fibrin that contributes to atherosclerosis? a. Lipids b. Collagen c. Plaque d. Lipoprotein e. Thrombosis

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: C 21. Which of these is NOT a typical symptom of a heart attack? a. Breaking out in a hot sweat b. Heartburn and/or indigestion c. Arm pain d. Shortness of breath e. Pain, fullness and/or squeezing sensation of the chest Ans: A 22. Which of these is a factor that promotes heart disease? a. Active lifestyle b. High levels of high-density lipoprotein c. Low levels of low-density lipoprotein d. Low levels of inflammatory factors e. None of these Ans: E 23. What is job strain? a. Stress on the job that is unique to a small subset of individuals b. High work efforts from making decisions c. Muscle pain due to job demands d. High job demands with low decision authority e. Lack of work–life balance Ans: D 24. Which of these has been linked to heart disease? a. Depressive illness b. Low levels of stress that occurs intermittently

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. Anxiety, but only among women d. Earlier occurrence of mini strokes e. Elevated levels of parvalbumin Ans: A 25. Why might women in their 30s and 40s generally be less apt to develop heart disease than same-aged men? a. Women have less testosterone than men. b. Women have greater levels of oestrogen. c. Pregnancy acts as a female protection against heart disease. d. Women have two X chromosomes. e. Women are less likely to experience job stress.

Ans: B 26. Pressure or squeezing in the chest, pain in the shoulder, arm, neck, jaw or back, or appearing as indigestion, might reflect ______. a. preluminal stroke b. mini stroke c. angina d. cohesive sensitization e. neurotic behaviours linked to fear of heart attack Ans: C 27. Death as a result of ischaemic heart disease in France is about 25% lower than in Britain even though the usual risk factors are present in both countries. This so-called ‘French Paradox’ has been attributed to ______. a. diminished consumption of fried foods in France b. elevated red wine consumption in France, which contains resveratrol c. the calm personality of people living in France

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. better medical system that exists in France e. greater social support resources available in France Ans: B 28. Which aspect of the type A personality was most closely related to heart disease? a. Anxiety b. Impulsivity c. Rush to complete jobs d. Competitiveness e. Hostility Ans: E 29. ‘Individuals who are particularly attentive to negative stimuli, who tend to express negative emotions such as depressed mood, anxiety, anger, hostile feelings and worrying, and who appear to be asocial, uncomfortable with strangers, insecure with other people and typically inhibited in self-expression during social interactions’ describes the ______. a. type A personality b. type B personality c. type C personality d. type D personality e. type S personality Ans: D 30. Which of the following has been associated with heart disease? a. Elevated circulating inflammatory factors b. Diminished presence of inflammatory factors c. Elevated circulating ghrelin levels d. Elevated leptin levels e. Diminished norepinephrine levels

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: A

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 9: Diabetes 1. In humans, type 2 diabetes was associated with ______. a. low levels of TNF-α b. diminished HO-2 c. fluctuations of LTB4 d. high levels of A1c e. diminished IL-6 Ans: D 2. Periodontal disease has been linked to diabetes. This may occur because inflammatory factors released from diseased gums ______. a. reach the digestive tract and impair glucose absorption b. reduce insulin secretion after being absorbed through the gut c. travel through the blood and disturb pancreatic beta cells d. impair glucose absorption throughout the body once absorbed by tissues e. reduce insulin secretion after being absorbed through mucosal tissue Ans: C 3. A genetically engineered form of the bacteria Lactobacillus secretes greater amounts of ______ which is known to reduce glucose levels among diabetics. a. glucagon-like peptide 1 b. incretins c. heme oxygenase-1 d. glucagon-like peptide 2 e. heme oxygenase-2 Ans: A 4. Which of the following is NOT true regarding gestational diabetes?

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. It is associated with teratogenic effects b. Symptoms may be difficult to identify c. It prevents epigenetic changes d. It is associated with childhood obesity e. It may lead to the development of type 1 diabetes in the mother Ans: C 5. Which of the following drugs is used to treat type 2 diabetes? a. Dexamethasone b. Metformin c. Prednisone d. Diphenhydramine e. Aprotinin Ans: B 6. Glycemic index reflects ______. a. the amount of glucose present in food b. carbohydrate taken up by glucagon into the bloodstream c. the rate at which carbohydrates are formed d. the rate at which carbohydrates are broken down e. how much carbohydrate-containing food or drink raise blood glucose Ans: E 7. The WHO recommends that sugars should not surpass what percentage of our caloric intake? a. 5% b. 10% c. 15% d. 20%

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. 25% Ans: B 8. Diabetes or high levels of glucose (in the absence of diabetes) may be comorbid with other conditions. Which conditions are best known to be associated with type 2 diabetes? a. Dementia and impaired wound healing b. Stroke and kidney disease c. Brain atrophy and heart disease d. Dementia and circulatory problems e. Cardiovascular illness and depression Ans: E 9. Type 1 diabetes is ______. a. solely due to genetic factors b. develops primarily in people over 55 years of age c. is much more common in males than females d. an auto-immune disorder e. due to insulin resistance Ans: D 10. Sulfonylureas to treat type 2 diabetes ______. a. increase insulin release from beta cells b. diminish insulin resistance c. increase glucose excretion in urine d. diminish cytokine release e. increase insulin sensitivity Ans: A 11. Which growth factor has been shown to normalize insulin responses in mice?

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. BDNF b. IGF-1 c. FGF-1 d. EGF e. IGF-2 Ans: C 12. In general, type 2 diabetes reduces life span by ______. a. 2–5 years b. 5–9 years c. 6–10 years d. 7–11 years e. 9–12 years Ans: C 13. Type 1 diabetes is primarily treated with ______. a. diet and exercise b. stress management c. insulin injection d. sleep and exercise e. insulin capsules Ans: C 14. Type 1 diabetes is ______. a. about equally prevalent in males than in females b. caused by bacterial infections c. determined by ratios of gut bacteria d. caused by absence of vitamin D e. primarily evident in offspring of women that experienced gestational diabetes

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: A 15. Which of the following is associated with type 2 diabetes? a. Elevated hunger and eating b. Frequent urination c. Elevated thirst d. Increased blood sugar levels e. All of these Ans: E 16. Type 2 diabetes ______. a. is caused by a reduction of beta cells b. is associated with decreased fasting glucose levels c. involves an overabundance of insulin d. is caused by viral infections e. may involve insulin resistance Ans: E 17. Type 1 diabetes occurs relatively frequently as a result of ______. a. eating junk food b. drinking sugary soft drinks c. loss of sleep d. excessive exercise e. none of these Ans: E 18. A genetic variant, ADRA2A, is linked to type 2 diabetes. It involves the overexpression of which receptor? a. Serotonin

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. Insulin c. Epinephrine d. Dopamine e. Acetylcholine Ans: C 19. A mutation in the gene SLC30A8 is associated with ______. a. decreased risk for type 1 diabetes b. increased risk for type 2 diabetes c. increased risk for type 1 diabetes d. decreased risk for type 2 diabetes e. increased risk for both type 1 and type 2 diabetes Ans: D 20. Consumption of fish oils has been suggested to lower the risk of type 2 diabetes through actions on ______. a. glucose re-uptake b. browning of white fat c. inflammatory processes d. insulin release e. beta cell functioning Ans: C 21. Type 2 diabetes is often preceded by ______. a. metabolic syndrome b. reduced visceral fat c. altered sympathetic functioning d. loss of beta cells e. loss of alpha cells

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: A 22. Gestational diabetes may promote ______. a. inflammatory bowel disorder b. preeclampsia c. metabolic syndrome d. glucolytic changes e. none of these Ans: B 23. Hyperlipidemia refers to ______. a. elevated cholesterol and triglycerides b. elevated cholesterol, but reduced triglycerides c. elevated fats that are water saturable d. reduced presence of inflammatory factors e. reduced A1c Ans: A 24. Pro-inflammatory cytokines released from immune cells together with elevated reactive oxygen species can ______. a. limit the occurrence of side effects of diabetes b. enhance the effects of diabetic treatments c. promote insulin resistance d. increase type 1 diabetes, but reduce type 2 diabetes e. drive episodes of diabetes Ans: C 25. Among people who have obesity, type 2 diabetes may occur because of ______. a. lipid accumulation in fat cells

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. increased brown fat c. release of inflammatory factors from brown fat cells d. increased release of inflammatory factors from abdominal fat cells e. reduced breakdown of lipids in inflammatory cells Ans: D 26. Microbial dysbiosis may affect ______. a. all forms of diabetes through effects of galactic precursors b. type 1 diabetes through actions on GLP-1 c. type 1, but not type 2 diabetes d. diabetes in males, but less so in females e. inflammatory processes, but primarily in older individuals Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 10: Immune-related disorders 1. When the immune system turns against us and begins attacking the self, this is referred to as an ______. a. alloimmune disorder b. immunosenescence c. auto-immune disorder d. immunological tolerance e. immunodeficiency disorder Ans: C 2. How does multiple sclerosis occur? a. The body loses white blood cells necessary to fight off infection b. The body’s white blood cells destroy salivary glands c. The body’s white blood cells destroy cartilage around joints d. The body’s white blood cells destroy sweat glands e. The body’s immune cells attack myelin surrounding axons Ans: E 3. When the immune system mistakenly identifies normal skin cells as a pathogen, leading to an overproduction of skin cells, what immune disease might be involved? a. Psoriasis b. Shingles c. Acne d. Scleroderma e. Measles Ans: A

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 4. Ulcerative colitis and Crohn’s disease, which often lead to abdominal pain, vomiting, diarrhoea and severe internal cramps are both examples of ______. a. gastro-intestinal tract disease b. inflammatory bowel disease c. oesophageal disease d. stomach disease e. gastritis Ans: B 5. In patients with Crohn’s disease that had portions of their intestine surgically removed, there were diminished levels of a particular bacterium (i.e. Faecalibacterium prausnitzii) found in the gut tissue. What was concluded from this finding? a. Crohn’s is due to bad bacteria b. Particular foods were found to impact the bacterium c. The bacterium causes inflammatory bowel disease d. Crohn’s is associated with good bacteria being absent e. The bacterium accounted for the non-bowel characteristics of Crohn’s Ans: D 6. Clostridium. difficile is part of a family of microbes that cause inflammation, diarrhoea and bleeding. What relatively novel treatments have been used to interfere with this hard to treat illness? a. E. coli administration b. Faecal transfers from healthy person c. Campylobacteria transfer d. Chlamydophila administration e. Bacterial cluster inhibitors Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 7. An individual complains of discomfort in the digestive tract, chronic constipation, cramping, bloating and abdominal distention, as well as fatigue, due to an auto-immune disorder of the small intestine. As they have a particularly severe case of the disease, their stool is pale, loose and greasy. What illness do they likely have? a. Celiac disease b. Ulcerative colitis c. Sjogren’s syndrome d. Psoriasis e. Rheumatoid arthritis Ans: A 8. Symptoms of celiac disease result from a reaction to a gluten protein found in wheat and grains, which provokes an inflammatory reaction. What is the name of the gluten protein? a. Collagen b. Glutamate c. Cysteine d. Gliadin e. Glycine Ans: D 9. What disorder is characterized by inflammation of synovial joints, resulting in joint pain, muscle aches and pains and general malaise? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Osteoarthritis d. Systemic lupus erythematosus e. Fibromyalgia Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 10. There are periods of time during which rheumatoid arthritis symptoms are in remission, and then when the symptoms reoccur. What is the name given to periods when symptoms reoccur? a. Relapse b. Flares c. Attack d. Exacerbation e. Trigger Ans: B 11. What is the name of the antibodies used as biomarkers for rheumatoid arthritis that are present before clinical signs of the illness, and which may also be involved in provocation of the illness? a. Immunoglobulin E b. Monoclonal antibodies c. Periodontium d. Antinuclear antibodies e. Rheumatoid factors Ans: E 12. Multiple sclerosis most often occurs among women, and typically appears during early adulthood. Which parts of the body do the immune responses target in multiple sclerosis? a. Synovial joints b. Periodontium c. Myelin sheath d. Muscles e. None of these Ans: C

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 13. What particular variant of multiple sclerosis is characterized by the appearance of the disorder around 40 years of age, does not include periods where symptoms fade, and typically leads to earlier disability? a. Primary progressive b. Secondary progressive c. Relapsing–remitting d. Progressive–relapsing e. Consistent flare Ans: A 14. Systemic lupus erythematosus may come about due to a number of biological mechanisms. Which of these is NOT associated with the aetiology and symptoms of lupus? a. Development of antinuclear antibodies b. Autoantibodies reaching the brain c. Levels of oestrogen and testosterone d. Vitamin D deficiency e. Increased occurrence of white fat Ans: E 15. In treating allergies, one might be exposed to increasing levels of an allergen over an extended period of time. This may lead to ______. a. allergen de-sensitization b. autoantibody reduction c. anti-reactive sensitization d. anaphylaxis sensitization e. anaphylaxis de-sensitization Ans: A

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 16. If an infectious agent is transmitted through water (e.g. cholera), what type of transmission would this be considered? a. Vector transmission b. Droplet transmission c. Indirect contact transmission d. Direct contact transmission e. Vehicle transmission Ans: E 17. Which of these is NOT a route of infection? a. Varimax transmission b. Airborne transmission c. Droplet contact d. Vector transmission e. Aerosol transmission Ans: A 18. Which of these contributes to the development of antibiotic resistance? a. Excessive use of antibiotics b. Bacteria mutation that occurs with the passage of time c. Bacteria go dormant in response to antibiotics d. Bacteria un-coordination e. All of these serve in this capacity Ans: A 19. If the infectious agent can only multiply inside living cells, this agent would likely be ______. a. bacteria b. fungus

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. virus d. protozoa e. parasite Ans: C 20. Which of these is typically NOT associated with the extent to which a virus spreads through a population? a. How readily the virus can be passed from one person to another b. The route by which the virus is transmitted c. How easily the virus can penetrate the host’s tissues d. How readily the virus can counteract antibiotics e. How quickly the virus kills the host Ans: D 21. Hookworm, schistosomiasis and ascariasis, which appear primarily in Africa, Asia and South and Central America, are considered ______. a. sexually transmitted diseases b. neglected tropical diseases c. waterborne transmitted diseases d. zoonotic diseases e. faecal–oral transmitted diseases Ans: B 22. The bacteria in the gut, which contribute to immune functioning, are collectively called ______. a. probiotics b. prebiotics c. stomach bacteria d. bacteroides

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. microbiota Ans: E 23. Why might exercise lengthen health span? a. Adipokines are increased b. Visceral fat is decreased c. Pro-inflammatory cytokines are increased d. It does not always do so. Benefits are only encountered among extreme exercisers e. Interactions between B cells and probiotics are initiated Ans: B 24. Which is the odd item? a. SARS b. MERS c. COVID-19 d. H1N1 e. AIDS Ans: E 25. Allergies have been attributed to ______. a. immune system degradation b. an IgE over-reaction c. an auto-immune response d. lack of IgM production e. all of these Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 26. Early experiences that are too sterile can result in immune tolerance to foreign substances not developing, and hence exaggerated responses (allergies) will develop to some substances that are ordinarily harmless. This describes the ______. a. tolerance hypothesis b. intolerance hypothesis c. hygiene hypothesis d. sterile tolerance hypothesis e. Gram-negative hypothesis Ans: C 27. Diseases that are transmitted from animals to humans are referred to as ______. a. inter-species illnesses b. trans-species diseases c. zoonotic diseases d. moribund trans-species diseases e. mutated viral diseases Ans: C 28. Most vaccines comprise the administration of ______. a. dead or weakened virus b. live bacteria c. viral DNA d. viral DNA e. inactivated DNA Ans: A 29. The ability of a virus to affect whole populations or to turn into a pandemic is influenced by the extent to which the virus can be spread. This is usually referred to as its ______. a. transmission index (TI)

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. reference index (RI) c. herd immunity index (HII) d. societal transference index (STI) e. basic reproduction number (R0) Ans: E

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 11: Cancer 1. Women using oral contraceptives may be at increased risk for some cancers. If she stops using these agents, at what point will she no longer be an increased risk for cancer? a. Immediately after ceasing use b. 3–5 months after ceasing use c. 10 years after ceasing use d. She will always be at increased cancer risk e. None of these since oral contraceptives actually had no effect on cancer frisk Ans: C 2. Which of these can result from chemotherapy? a. Heart problems b. Central neuropathy c. Cognitive impairments d. Tertiary neoplasms e. All of these Ans: A 3. After a patient has achieved remission, chemotherapy with the intent to keep the patient in a state of remission using the same drugs as the original chemotherapy is called ______. a. induction chemotherapy b. consolidation chemotherapy c. intensification chemotherapy d. radical chemotherapy e. combination chemotherapy Ans: B 4. Malignant tumours (as opposed to benign tumours) are defined by ______.

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. their ability to break away from the main tumour mass and travel to distant sites b. their surface markers c. their ability to resist chemotherapy d. their ability to remain dormant for extended periods of time e. their capacity to evade detection Ans: A 5. Which factor influences whether a particular type of radiation therapy is used to treat some forms of cancer? a. Type and size of tumour b. Location of tumour c. Proximity to normal tissues that are sensitive to radiation d. Age of patient receiving the treatment e. All of these Ans: E 6. A cancer treatment involves the removal of immune cells from the patient, after which T cells are engineered to produce an artificial receptor on their surface. These cells are then increased in number and administered to the patient. This describes ______. a. CAR T-cell therapy b. cell-based therapy c. antibody therapy d. vaccine therapy e. antigen therapy Ans: A 7. Radiation therapy works by destroying ______ in order to damage the cancer cells. a. RNA b. DNA

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. mRNA d. the cell wall e. the ribosomes Ans: B 8. Which one of these statements is NOT true? a. Longer telomeres obtained from white blood cells were associated with an increased proclivity of dying from cancer. b. Marital state has no effect on the amount of health problems being experienced. c. ‘Cancer survivors’ need continued social support. d. Virtually all survivors of childhood cancer have at least one type of ongoing disturbance. e. For certain types of cancer, combined aerobic and resistance exercise regimens may diminish fatigue.

Ans: B 9. The available data suggest that ______. a. Stress causes cancer, but once present it does not promote further growth. b. Stress neither causes cancer nor promote further growth once it is present. c. Stress does not cause cancer, but promotes the growth of cancer cells that are present. d. Stress produces cancer and increases its growth once present. e. Nobody has examined the stress-cancer link.

Ans: C 10. A cancer of connective tissues that includes cartilage, bone, tendons, adipose tissue, lymphatic tissue and components of blood cells describes ______. a. carcinoma b. sarcoma c. lymphoma d. leukaemia

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. blastoma Ans: B 11. A mutation of BRCA1 has been associated with ______. a. increased occurrence of lung cancer and no other type of cancer b. metastases of all forms of solid tumours c. elevated side effects of some forms of cancer d. increased likelihood of developing ovarian and breast cancers e. resistance to chemotherapy Ans: D 12. Which of these is an action through which chronic stressful events can influence the growth of existing tumours? a. Production of hormesis b. Inhibition of cortisol c. Activation of sympathetic norepinephrine activity d. Increasing B-cell migration e. None of these Ans: C 13. Obesity is associated with cancer risk ______. a. in all people b. primarily in males c. primarily in females d. primarily in young children e. primarily in people of Euro-Caucasian descent Ans: A 14. Which of these ‘superfoods’ have been associated with a reduction in cancer risk?

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. Kale b. Goji berries c. Garlic d. Broccoli e. There is generally no scientific evidence supporting a link between ‘superfoods’ and reduced cancer risk Ans: E 15. Which types of cancers are more likely to be altered by chemotherapy? a. Fast-growing tumours b. Slow-growing tumours c. Metastasized tumours d. Localized tumours e. Thyroid tumours Ans: A 16. Which of the following has been found to be effective in treating about 30% of patients with cancer that had been considered untreatable? a. Adjuvant therapy b. Checkpoint inhibitors c. Extended chemotherapy d. Combined radiotherapy and chemotherapy e. Surgery combined with enhanced radiation therapy Ans: B 17. In human studies, which of these events were NOT accompanied by stressful experiences? a. Early death following stem cell transplants b. Progression of cancer

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. Cancer-related mortality d. Development of cancer e. Increased treatment response Ans: D 18. It was hypothesized that lymphocytes were continuously on alert for the presence of newly transformed cells, and that cancer occurred when these mutated cells were either not detected or not destroyed. This, in essence, describes the ______. a. immune surveillance hypothesis b. cancer identity hypothesis c. cancer mutation hypothesis d. gene suppression theory e. microenvironment hypothesis Ans: A 19. Which of the following is a form of brain cancer in adults that is essentially untreatable? a. Brain embolic cancer b. Neuronal hyperplasia c. Glial reformation tumour d. Glioblastoma e. Astrocytic embroiled cancer Ans: D 20. Angiogenesis refers to ______. a. the formation of dendritic outgrowth on cancer cells b. mutations that develop on cancer cells in response to treatment c. the phase of cancer growth the precedes metastasis d. epigenetic changes that affect tumour progression e. the growth of a new network of blood vessels that feed the tumour cells

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: E 21. Cancer cells can thrive by taking nutrients from cells that are going through the process of autophagy. This refers to ______. a. a process in which old and damaged cell are broken down and thus release sugars and amino acids b. the process by which cells take up nutrients at a very high rate c. the process where cells release stored fat d. the process in which blood supplies are redirected to enhance energy accumulation e. the process in which other cancer cells compete with healthy cells for energy supplies Ans: A 22. The effectiveness of chemotherapy may decline over the course of treatment because ______. a. each individual cancer cells get stronger b. the cancer cells mutate c. cancer cells use the chemotherapeutic toxicants as a source of fuel d. cancer cells are able to undergo phagocytosis e. cancer cells alter their outer coat Ans: B 23. On average, cancer is thought to result from ______. a. single cancer-promoting gene b. about four or five gene mutations, but some cancers also involve epigenetic changes c. hundreds of genes that are affected by lifestyles d. dozens of epigenetic changes that can occur in cancer suppressor genes e. mutations of tumour-activating genes Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 24. A KRAS-variant may contribute to some individuals ______. a. being resistant to any sort of treatment b. being resistant to any form of cancer c. developing several forms of cancer over their lifetime d. developing severe cancer treatment side effects e. developing cancer cachexia Ans: C 25. An initial mutation may inhibit genes that would ordinarily act against the development of factors that suppress tumour production, followed by a second mutation (or epigenetic change) that limits DNA repair of damaged genes, and thus a proto-oncogene may be converted into an oncogene. This describes the ______. a. go-no-go cancer surveillance model b. dual-system cancer model c. metastatic model d. cancer conversion hypothesis e. multi-hit hypothesis of cancer development Ans: E 26. If a treatment successfully alters some illness outcome, then the process affected by the treatment must be causally linked to the disease in question. This misattribution error has been termed ______. a. heuristic misattribution b. reclaiming correlation c. affirming the consequent d. cause–correlation misattribution e. the dumbbell’s conclusion Ans: C

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 27. The BRCA1 mutation may account for ______. a. age differences that exist in the appearance of breast cancer b. cultural/racial differences that exist in relation to some forms of breast cancer c. the diversity of different forms of breast cancer that exist d. why some women develop breast cancer and others develop ovarian cancer e. differences that exist between women in relation to treatment effectiveness Ans: B 28. Cancer progression can be influenced by chronic psychosocial adversity, depression, negative affect, anxiety and loneliness/social isolation by producing ______. a. immune suppression b. sympathetic nervous system activation c. HPA alteration d. inflammation e. all of these Ans: E 29. In considering the tie between obesity and cancer, it is essential to consider ______. a. whether individuals had been making efforts to lose weight b. whether individuals experienced a sudden weight gain (i.e. over less than 1 year) c. whether the obesity was related to sex differences d. how long individuals had been obese e. none of these are correct; simply being obese is related to cancer occurrence Ans: D 30. The Warburg effect concerns ______. a. the changes of cancer growth over time b. the forms of energy that can be used by cancer cells c. the influence of diet on ageing processes tied to cancer

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. the processes by which cancer cells are destroyed by the immune system e. immune surveillance Ans: B 31. The foods that are assumed to be effective in preventing cancer development comprise ______. a. whole grains, fibre, fruits, vegetables, nuts and seeds b. polyphenols obtained through various berries, apples, red wine, dark chocolate, pomegranate juice c. foods that affect inflammatory processes (e.g. Mediterranean diet) d. all of these e. only a and c Ans: D 32. Which of the following have been implicated in limiting cancer occurrence? a. Probiotic supplements b. Prebiotic supplements c. Foods that affect short-chain fatty acids (SCFAs) d. Foods that influence granular macrobiotics e. Vitamin supplements (particularly vitamin A, C and D) Ans: C 33. Cancer is often associated with malnutrition. Thus, which of the following was highly recommended for patients? a. Diets rich in fibre as well as foods that provide an assortment of vitamins b. Diets rich in proteins (e.g. fish, poultry, lean red meat, eggs, low-fat dairy products, whole grains, nuts, dried beans, peas, lentils and raw fruits and vegetables) and energy-enriched foods and fluids c. Diets rich in proteins, but low in carbohydrates

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. Diets high in carbohydrates, but limited in protein obtained from dish, poultry and any type of red meat e. There is no diet that is useful, as cancer cells simply do not care about the foods consumed Ans: B 34. For exercise to have benefits on immunity and cancer-related mortality ______. a. it is essential that vigorous exercises be undertaken daily b. vigorous exercise is best, but can be interspersed by moderate exercise sessions c. even modest exercise can be useful. This can amount to as little as 3-5 hours of walking a week d. only aerobic exercise is useful, and must entail a fairly vigorous routine e. only exercise geared towards strength building is effective Ans: C 35. Which of the following was suggested as an early warning of cancer occurrence? a. The symptom cluster comprising fatigue, irritability and poor sleep b. The symptom cluster comprising excessive hunger, craving for foods high in carbs and excessive sleep c. The symptom cluster comprising continuous feelings of nausea, fever and stomach upset even after small amounts of food d. The symptom cluster comprising severe muscle weakness, fatigue and excessive sleep e. The symptom cluster comprising sleep disturbance, fatigue and depression Ans: E 36. As body cells, including cancer cells, have their own circadian rhythms, it was suggested that ______. a. timing of chemotherapy should be tied to these rhythms b. timing of chemotherapy should be tied to individual differences in these rhythms c. genes controlling rhythms should be manipulated in conjunction with therapy

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. all therapies should be given in the morning and never in the afternoon e. cancer therapies and diets need to be considered together in the context of circadian rhythms Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 12: Pain 1. Psychological factors can influence perceptions of pain. For instance, it was suggested that civilians and soldiers who both experienced similar injuries differed regarding in that ______. a. civilians reported being in less pain than soldiers b. soldiers reported being in less pain that civilians c. wounded soldiers were more likely to return to combat while in pain, while injured civilians in pain were not willing to help d. wounded civilians infrequently asked for morphine, whereas injured soldiers developed an addiction to painkillers e. wounded soldiers infrequently asked for morphine, whereas injured civilians were more likely to request painkillers Ans: E 2. Which two regions within the central nervous system operate as a ‘salience network’, which predicts and interprets impeding pain? a. Pre-optic area of the hypothalamus and anterior insula b. Anterior insula and anterior cingulate cortex c. Somatosensory cortex and anterior cingulate d. Cerebellum and basal ganglia e. Inferior colliculus and posterior cingulate Ans: B 3. It was found that individuals who are told to alter their perceptions to heat stimuli were able to do so. Under similar circumstances, imaging studies found that the neurological pain signature was unaltered. What instead did the researchers find during imaging studies? a. Alternate connections to the nucleus accumbens and prefrontal cortex were activated, suggesting pain is subject to control by cognitive processes

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. Alternate connections to the basal ganglia and somatosensory cortex were activated, suggesting pain is subject to control by cognitive processes c. Participants in the study were subject to the placebo effect d. Up-regulation of endocannabinoid receptors, suggesting cognitive processes can influence biological pain management e. Down-regulation of endocannabinoid receptors, suggesting cognitive processes can influence biological pain management Ans: A 4. Steve has suffered from chronic back pain ever since he experienced a sports-related injury in high school. Though he could easily be prescribed medication to subdue the pain, Steve’s friend believes that yoga will help reduce the pain. Despite strongly not believing that it will have any benefit, Steve takes a 12-week yoga programme at his university. After the programme ended, Steve was not surprised when his chronic back pain seemed unaltered.

What sort of effect does the scenario exemplify? a. Nocebo effect b. Placebo effect c. Discebo effect d. Antiplacebo effect e. Aplacebo effect Ans: A 5. There are two sub-cortical regions within the midbrain believed to be involved in the analgesic placebo effect. Which are they? a. Periaqueductal grey and hypothalamus b. Prefrontal cortex and somatosensory cortex c. Inferior colliculus and posterior cingulate d. Periaqueductal grey and limbic brain regions e. Hippocampus and limbic brain regions

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: D 6. Rachel has recently gone through a romantic breakup. Despite it being amicable, Rachel still misses the companionship of her ex-boyfriend. Whenever she thinks of him now, she suffers from stomach pains that are only subdued when she calls one of her close friends.

What word best describes the origins of Rachel’s pain? a. Somatogenic b. Neurogenic c. Carcinogenic d. Psychogenic e. Physiogenic Ans: D 7. Angie is at her wits-end. No one believes her, not even her doctor, regarding her being unwell, and many have argued that it is her way of seeking attention. She often complains of being very tired, depressed and experiencing chronic pain at different points on her back. She has sought the help of many doctors, but to no avail. Given the knowledge presented in this chapter, what would you describe Angie as having? a. Histrionic personality disorder b. Influenza c. Chronic fatigue syndrome d. Depression e. Hysteria Ans: C 8. A common response to banging one’s leg is to rub the site of injury. This results in ______ being activated, causing inhibition of interneurons and hence pain changes. a. C-fibres b. Aβ-fibres

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. pyramidal neurons d. A-fibres e. extrapyramidal neurons Ans: B 9. Certain types of pain medication are more effective than others depending on the type of damage that has occurred. When there has been damage to nerves, what type of compounds are most effective? a. Compounds that affect glutamate release, such as lamotrigine b. Compounds that affect GABA release, such as pregabalin c. NSAIDs d. Opioids, such as morphine e. Corticoid injections Ans: B 10. The International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) defines pain as ______. a. the activation of C- and Ad-fibres in the periphery following exposure to a noxious stimulus b. damage to peripheral nerve endings or aspects of the somatosensory system c. the psychological perception of a noxious stimulus, that is perceived as a threat to the self d. activation of the mesolimbic-dopamine circuit in response to a noxious stimulus, be it neurogenic or psychogenic in nature e. an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage Ans: E 11. Although pain characteristics can vary, and its manifestation can be used to help determine a diagnosis as well as the treatment and recovery process, there remains disagreement of what can be classified as pain. Despite the lack of consensus, the

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) considers several attributes of pain.

Which of the following is NOT one of them? a. Body region affected b. The emotional response of the sufferer c. How long it persisted d. Its intensity and pattern of occurrence e. Potential processes involved in producing the pain Ans: B 12. Hudson was cooking his breakfast when he forgot to turn off the stove top element.

While cleaning up, he put his hand on the ceramic surface and the intense heat caused him to retract his hand. Though a minor burn, which of the following is the type of pain he endured? a. Proprioceptive b. Macroceptive c. Thermoceptive d. Nociceptive e. Neuroceptive Ans: D 13. Emma was cleaning the windows of her house when she fell off a ladder and broke her left leg. Though the bone had healed, Emma told the orthopaedist that she experienced increased sensitivity in her left leg, with a burning sensation that has been spreading up to her thigh. The doctor would likely diagnose her as having which of the following pain conditions? a. Complex regional pain syndrome b. Fibromyalgia c. Systemic exertion intolerance disease d. Rheumatoid arthritis e. Post-fracture allodynia

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: A 14. There is a lot of stigma surrounding individuals living with chronic pain despite it being common. In the UK, US and Canada, how common is chronic pain? a. 10% of the population b. 2 in every 100,000 c. 20–30% of the population d. 60% of the population e. 10% of females and 50% of males Ans: C 15. Though there are a number of measures to assess the severity of pain, which of the following assessment tools has been shown to be a reliable measure of pain? a. A Visual Pain Ladder (VPL) b. A Visual Analogue Thermometer (VAT) c. The Subjective Measure of Pain (SMP) d. The Pain Likert Scale (PLS) e. The Choinière Assessment of Pain (CAN) Ans: B 16. The thought of living with chronic pain may elicit depressive symptoms and may impede responses to antidepressant medications. As well, diminished depressive symptoms following treatment among individuals with chronic pain results in enhanced treatment outcomes. What does this suggest regarding mood and managing chronic pain? a. Antidepressants affect regions associated with both physical and emotional pain b. The importance of mood in managing chronic pain c. Antidepressants cause inhibition of interneurons in the dorsal-root ganglia of the spinal tract

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. Chronic pain results from damage to spinal nerves, whereas depression is associated with disturbances in the brain e. Increased activation of emotional brain centres also activates regions associated with pain Ans: B 17. Chronic pain is not limited to adults; infants and children are also susceptible. What is the most common chronic pain complaint of children and adolescents? a. Stomach pain b. Musculoskeletal pain c. Headaches d. Toothaches e. Back pain Ans: C 18. Chronic pain can be envisioned as being built upon the building blocks of baseline differences in the central and peripheral nervous system (PNS), as well as the immune system. This has been used to explain ______. a. phantom limb pain b. systemic versus psychological pain c. allodynia versus inflammatory pain d. sex differences in pain perception e. none of these Ans: D 19. Placebo treatments that instigate analgesic effects are accompanied by ______. a. activation of sub-cortical processes linked to stress responses b. activation of brain regions associated with emotional and anxiety responses c. activation of brain regions associated with reward processes

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. brain regions that support executive functioning, including the anterior cingulate, prefrontal, orbitofrontal and insular cortices e. all of these Ans: E 20. Melzack is best known for ______. a. the discovery of opioid receptors b. research concerning the pain reducing effects of cannabidiol c. the allodyne theory of pain perception d. the slow–fast neuron model of pain e. the gate control theory of pain perception Ans: E 21. The pain ladder is used ______. a. in an effort to gauge and diminish pain, but still use the least amount of medication with the fewest side effects b. to determine the pain characteristics being experienced by patients c. to assess whether drug treatments of cognitive behavioural methods should be used for pain amelioration d. to determine whether pain is ‘real’ or ‘psychosomatic’ e. to identify the source of pain perception Ans: A 22. The analgesic effects of THC come about owing to ______. a. inhibition of Ag neurons b. activation of CB1 receptors c. shutdown of the anterior cingulate cortex d. activation of the prefrontal glutamate neurons e. activation of cerebellar glutamate neurons

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: B 23. Which of the following is the least likely to be effective in treating pain? a. Mindfulness b. CBT c. Acupuncture d. Use of effective coping methods e. THC Ans: C 24. Pain in the form of burning or the sensation of pins and needles, and increased sensitivity to the affected area, which stem from interactions among inflammatory processes, autonomic nervous system activity and neuroplasticity is referred to as ______. a. othentic pain b. allodynia c. nociplastic pain d. psychodermic pain e. sensitized pain Ans: B 25. Phil was in a bad automobile accident that left him with damage to the lower regions of his spine, resulting in constant discomfort and back pain. In an attempt to use nonpharmacological agents to minimize the pain, Phil has come to believe that hypnosis might do the trick. After a few sessions he finds considerable pain relief. Given your knowledge of hypnosis and pain management, what might explain the effectiveness of Phil’s treatment? a. Phil is highly suggestive, and he expects that hypnosis will be effective at reducing his pain b. Phil is subject to the placebo effect c. The treatment has allowed Phil to subconsciously accept the pain

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. The treatment allowed him to become more consciously aware of his body e. The treatment acted as a distraction, allowing him to focus less on the pain and more on his mental state Ans: A 26. It is suggested that hypnosis alters brain connectivity, particularly between brain regions involved in pain and pain perception. How did brain connectivity differ when an individual was asked (i) to relive positive experiences compared to (ii) hypnotic suggestions to reduce pain? a. Both resulted in decreased brain activity b. Both resulted in increased brain activity c. (i) Decreased brain connectivity; (ii) increased brain activity d. (i) increased brain connectivity; (ii) decreased brain activity e. (i) had no influence on brain connectivity; (ii) increased brain activity Ans: D 27. George was severely wounded in combat, resulting in the loss of his arm. Despite not having his arm, he experiences excruciating pain where his arm once was. This syndrome is known as ______. a. mirror pain b. phantom limb pain c. recurrent zeta pain d. allodynia e. granuloma Ans: B 28. Physical and emotional pain may share neuronal connections, such as those travelling through the ______. a. prefrontal cortex

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. hippocampus c. anterior motor cortex d. anterior cingulate cortex e. posterior cingulate cortex Ans: D

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 13: Addiction 1. Many factors are believed to contribute to the development of substance use disorders including prescription medication. Which of the following factors is NOT considered one of them? a. The dose used b. The route of administration c. How quickly the rewarding effect of the compound occurred d. How expensive the drug is e. What other drugs are co-administered as synergies between them could increase addiction potential Ans: D 2. Which neurotransmitter is most strongly associated with reward processes involved in substance use disorders? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. Acetylcholine d. Glutamate e. GABA Ans: A 3. The mesolimbic-dopamine system comprises neurons travelling from cell bodies in the ______ to the ______. a. nucleus accumbens; ventral tegmental area b. ventral tegmental area; nucleus accumbens c. ventral tegmental area; pars compacta of the substantia nigra d. pars compacta of the substantia nigra; ventral tegmental area e. pars compacta of the substantia nigra; nucleus accumbens

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: B 4. What significant role does dopamine play with respect to certain stimuli? a. Dopamine modulates the perception of stimuli b. Dopamine modulates the sensation of stimuli c. Dopamine modulates the saliency of stimuli d. Dopamine modulates the cognitive appraisal of stimuli e. Dopamine modulates the recognition of stimuli Ans: C 5. Compulsive and impulsive behaviours in addiction are most associated with which neurotransmitter? a. Dopamine b. Serotonin c. Acetylcholine d. Glutamate e. GABA Ans: B 6. Which hormone is associated with both a response to stressors as well as addiction processes? a. Testosterone b. Oestrogen c. Cortisol d. Adrenocorticotropic hormone e. Corticotropin-releasing hormone Ans: E 7. Which of the following statements is true?

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. The biological process behind drug reinstatement is dependent on drug-related cues but is not influenced by stressors. b. The biological process behind drug reinstatement is dependent on stressors but is not influenced by drug-related cues. c. The biological process behind drug reinstatement is dependent on both drug-related cues and stressors. d. The biological process behind drug reinstatement is independent of both drug-related cues and stressors. e. There is no biological process behind drug reinstatement.

Ans: C 8. Which of these statements about the link between propensity for eating and drug addiction is FALSE? a. Both eating and addiction processes involve the neurons of the ventral tegmentum. b. Depriving rodents of food has been found to potentiate drug-seeking behaviour and increase addiction relapse. c. Sweet preferences among rats predicted their later propensity for amphetamine addiction. d. The administration of ghrelin had no effect on the alcohol intake of humans or rodents. e. Orexin and neuropeptide Y have both been implicated in addiction processes.

Ans: D 9. What is a common limitation to therapies for several substance use disorders, including rehab, 12-step programmes, CBT and mindfulness? a. They all require a large group setting. b. They all require the use of a cocktail of medication. c. They all require patient compliance and will to recover. d. They all require the use of aversive stimuli. e. They all only treat alcohol addiction, and are ineffective for other drugs.

Ans: C

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 10. Which of these best describes CBT? a. A programme in which all participants can help one another get through rough patches and cravings b. A programme that teaches individuals a new set of skills and coping strategies to deal with future events c. A programme which trains individuals to focus on positive experiences in the moment d. A programme in which an individual is given medication that increases the negative consequences of the drug that they are taking e. A programme in which an individual is given medication that blocks the action of the drug that they are taking Ans: B 11. Which of these best describes the 12-step programme? a. A programme in which all participants can help one another get through rough patches and cravings b. A programme that teaches individuals a new set of skills and coping strategies to deal with future events c. A programme which trains individuals to focus on positive experiences in the moment d. A programme in which an individual is given medication that increases the negative consequences of the drug that they are taking e. A programme in which an individual is given medication that blocks the action of the drug that they are taking Ans: A 12. Which of these best describes mindfulness? a. A programme in which all participants can help one another get through rough patches and cravings

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. A programme that teaches individuals a new set of skills and coping strategies to deal with future events c. A programme which trains individuals to focus on positive experiences in the moment d. A programme in which an individual is given medication that increases the negative consequences of the drug that they are taking e. A programme in which an individual is given medication that blocks the action of the drug that they are taking Ans: C 13. Which of these best describes aversion therapy? a. A programme in which all participants can help one another get through rough patches and cravings b. A programme that teaches individuals a new set of skills and coping strategies to deal with future events c. A programme which trains individuals to focus on positive experiences in the moment d. A programme in which an individual is given a treatment (e.g. a medication) that produces negative consequences in conjunction with a drug being taken e. A programme in which an individual is given medication that blocks the action of the drug that they are taking Ans: D 14. Using an opioid replacement such as methadone or buprenorphine to treat an addiction is an example of ______. a. aversion therapy b. transtheoretical model of behavioural change c. cognitive behaviour therapy d. drug therapy that reduces the euphoric effects of a drug e. drug therapy that diminishes drug craving Ans: D

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 15. The targeting of which receptor via pharmacological measures such as baclofen has shown promise for diminishing cravings of several different drugs? a. Dopamine D1 receptor b. Dopamine D2 receptor c. Acetylcholine receptors d. GABAA receptor e. GABAB receptor Ans: E 16. What is defined to be a regular and excessive use of a substance in spite of dangers? a. Substance use disorder b. Addiction c. Dependence d. Tolerance e. Use exacerbation Ans: A 17. What is defined to be a condition in which a person develops intense cravings for the substance and the inability to control their behaviours in regard to obtaining and using it? a. Use dysmorphia b. Abuse c. Addiction d. Dependence e. Tolerance Ans: C 18. In the DSM-5, substance use and substance dependence are now referred to as ______. a. substance use disorder

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. dependence c. withdrawal d. tolerance e. addiction Ans: A 19. What disease arises due to the effects of chronic alcohol abuse and the damage that this causes to neurons and glia? a. Korsakoff’s syndrome b. Cirrhosis of the liver c. Parkinson’s disease d. Multiple sclerosis e. Spinocerebellar ataxia Ans: A 20. Which of these statements is true regarding the differences in alcohol consumption and alcohol use disorder between men and women? a. Females tend to use more alcohol than males; males tend to be more biologically vulnerable to alcohol use disorder than females b. Females tend to use more alcohol than males; females tend to be more biologically vulnerable to alcohol use disorder than males c. Males tend to use more alcohol than females; females tend to be more biologically vulnerable to alcohol use disorder than males d. Males tend to use more alcohol than females; females tend to be more biologically vulnerable to alcohol use disorder than males e. There are no gender differences in alcohol use Ans: C 21. Which of these treatments has been found to be most effective in treating addiction?

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. Rehab and 12-step programmes b. Cognitive behavioural therapy and transtheoretical model of behavioural change c. Mindfulness and meditation d. Drug therapies that reduce euphoric effects of the drug and diminish craving e. These therapies are generally most effective when used in combination 22. Which hypothesis reflects the idea that experiences of traumatic events and substance abuse may be part of a broad tendency among some individuals to engage in high-risk behaviours? a. High trauma hypothesis b. High-risk hypothesis c. Gateway hypothesis d. Resilience hypothesis e. Susceptibility hypothesis Ans: B 23. Which hypothesis reflects the idea that individuals who abuse alcohol and other drugs might also be more disposed to encounter trauma, and when they do, their poor coping abilities will favour the development of psychopathological conditions? a. High trauma hypothesis b. High-risk hypothesis c. Gateway hypothesis d. Resilience hypothesis e. Susceptibility hypothesis Ans: E 24. Which of these hypotheses reflects the idea that certain behaviours, such as using soft drugs, favours the later graduation to illicit and more addictive agents? a. High trauma hypothesis

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. High-risk hypothesis c. Gateway hypothesis d. Resilience hypothesis e. Susceptibility hypothesis Ans: C 25. What does the common liability to addiction hypothesis postulate? a. Addiction is attributed to underlying biological processes. b. Addiction is attributed to social class and family life. c. Addiction is attributed to previous use of softer drugs. d. Addiction is attributed to a predisposition to risk taking behaviour. e. Addiction is attributed to previous traumas and poor coping.

Ans: A 26. Which psychedelic drug has on occasion been used to treat addiction? a. LSD b. Jimson weed c. Ibogaine d. Yerba del diablo e. Peyote Ans: C 27. Opioid replacement therapies involve the use of ______. a. opioid antagonists that limit cravings b. opioid agonists that eliminate cravings and cue-related drug triggering c. opioid compounds that produce relatively weak euphoric effects and diminish the symptoms of opioid withdrawal d. alternatives to opioids in an effort to reduce cravings that are focussed on any single compound

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. alternatives to opioids in an effort to reduce cravings by blocking the actions of serotonin Ans: C 28. According to Volkow et al. (2010), continued drug use ______. a. undermines brain functioning so that neural circuits related to reward sensitivity are elevated, and those related to danger are blunted b. may ‘hijack’ aspects of brain functioning so that neural circuits related to reward sensitivity and expectations of the drug’s pleasurable effects overwhelm control circuits that ought to limit compulsive drug consumption c. may limit problem-solving abilities so that effective coping mechanisms to deal with withdrawal are impaired d. may ‘hijack’ aspects of brain functioning so that processes related to response initiation and maintenance are disturbed and the responses to highly desirable rewards cannot be altered e. undermines an individual’s abilities to discriminate between what is good for them and what is not. As a result, in the presence of social influences counterproductive behaviours may occur Ans: B 29. Epigenetic changes have been associated with ______. a. substance use disorder b. withdrawal c. psychosis secondary to withdrawal d. both substance addiction and withdrawal e. epigenetic changes can affect addiction, depending on an individual’s age and sex Ans: D

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 30. The behaviours during the three stages of addiction change as a person transitions from drug experimentation to addiction owing to the progressive brain neuroadaptations. The compromised neurocircuitry reflects ______. a. poor judgement stemming from the disruption of CRH (involved in cognitive processes) and GABA systems (response disinhibition), as well as the stress-control systems of the brain, which are affected by dopamine b. the disruption of dopamine (involved in reward processes) and glutamate systems (essential for learning and memory), as well as the stress-control systems of the brain, which are affected by corticotropin-releasing factor and dynorphin c. poor judgement stemming from the disruption of CRH and serotonin (involved in cognitive processes) and GABA systems (response disinhibition), as well as the stresscontrol systems of the brain, which involve multiple neurotransmitter processes d. a domino effect that begins with poor judgement and social influences (likely stemming from altered CRH), hypothalamic over-activity and finally further disturbances of judgement stemming from imbalances between glutamate and GABA e. all of these are correct, but vary on the basis of an individual’s experiences Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 14: Major physical illnesses 1. Uncertainty about illness progression leads to ______. a. watchful waiting b. increased depressive symptoms, pain perception and anxiety c. increased fatigue, stress and worry about the illness d. increased pain perception, anxiety and stress e. increased fatigue, disturbed cognitive control and increased pain perception Ans: A 2. Which illness might show early signs of recovery only to develop much further not long afterward? a. Alzheimer’s disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. HIV/AIDS d. Hepatitis C e. COPD Ans: C 3. Which of these factors has the least influence on perceived illness control an individual feels? a. Belief in God and prayer b. Level of general education c. Cognitive disturbances d. Level of pain e. Level of stress Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 4. ______ of seriously ill patients in the US are readmitted to hospital within 30 days of initial release. a. 2% b. 12% c. 25% d. 45% e. 45% Ans: B 5. What percentage of individuals with a mental disorder seek help? a. 2% b. 10% c. 30% d. 50% e. 75% Ans: C 6. Critical and overprotective family responses to illness management were associated with ______. a. poorer outcomes for patients with chronic cardiovascular disease b. development of more frequent comorbidities c. progression of all forms of cancer d. more rapid escalation of all forms of auto-immune disorder e. none of these, as disease progression is linked to personal factors and not family responses to illness management Ans: A 7. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Coping by seeking instrumental support has been linked to depression

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. A single unsupportive social interaction can undo the positive effects of multiple supportive experiences c. Unsupport, when it occurs, most often comes from family members d. Positive outcomes are most apparent when support comes from individuals who are currently dealing with similar illnesses e. Social support from non-family members can serve multiple functions such as encouragement and emotional support Ans: C 8. Which of these illnesses has NOT generally been associated with stigma? a. Lung cancer b. Epilepsy c. Liver cirrhosis d. Lupus erythematosus e. None of these. They all have stigma attached to them Ans: E 9. The tendency not to seek support from outside the family is frequent in ______. a. families of children with cancer and HIV/AIDS b. individuals who cope by reframing (cognitive restructuring) c. individuals who tend to be resilient d. individuals with a family member with cancer e. families of children with autism Ans: A 10. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Elderly patients are sometimes seen as a nuisance and may experience stigmatization. b. Patients with mental health problems get the same attention as those suffering a physical disorder.

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. Officials dealing with mentally ill patients may choose to misinterpret conditions, or may perceive symptoms as unimportant, rather than deserving intervention. d. Educational programmes do not seem to be of much value in reducing stigma. e. Among women with breast cancer, lumpectomy is typically preferred over mastectomy.

Ans: B 11. Quality of Life can tell us about ______. a. whether the patient’s illness is diminishing b. whether various aspects of well-being are improving c. resilience d. vulnerability e. the need for drug treatment Ans: B 12. Which of these is a predictor of resilience? a. Flexibility in the appraisal and coping strategies used b. High (extreme) level of physical activity c. High norepinephrine levels d. Positive–negativity dominance e. Reactive orientation Ans: A 13. Which of the following statements is FALSE? a. Health professionals never carry stigmatizing attitudes. b. Health professionals experiencing mental health problems sometimes fail to seek help owing to the fear of being stigmatized. c. Increased contact with individuals who are affected may be a way of dealing with stigma. d. Self-stigma may foster a decline of self-esteem and self-efficacy. e. Self-stigma promotes shame, self-blame and the fear of the judgement of others.

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: A 14. Which of these applies to anxiety? a. Can be a comorbid condition with other illnesses b. Predicts later fear developing c. Is independent of recovery from physical illnesses d. Has its roots in mid-life e. Can predict later appearance of chronic illnesses in females, but not males Ans: A 15. The development of depression following stroke predicts ______. a. diminished participation in the rehabilitation process b. poorer treatment compliance c. diminished protection given by the caregiver d. another stroke being experienced e. less frequent hospitalizations Ans: D 16. Which of the following are outcomes of depression secondary to physical illness? a. Diminished participation in the rehabilitation process b. Poorer treatment compliance c. More frequent and longer hospitalizations d. Development of new illness conditions e. All of these Ans: E 17. An approach which involves the concurrent or sequential input of varied specialties is referred to as ______. a. resilience training

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. supportive networks c. cumulative networks d. coordinated care e. collaborative care Ans: E 18. ‘The way an individual’s actual coping strategies map onto their appraisals of controllability of illness’ describes the ______. a. congruency hypothesis b. congruency–incongruency paradox c. goodness-of-fit hypothesis d. fitness recurrence hypothesis e. appraisal-coping conundrum Ans: C 19. ‘A dispositional characteristic that results from a set of negative beliefs about uncertainty and its implications and involves the tendency to react negatively on an emotional, cognitive and behavioural level to uncertain situations and events’ describes ______. a. disturbed goodness-of-fit b. intolerance of uncertainty c. dispositional pessimism d. dispositional reactance e. intolerance of ambiguity Ans: B 20. Which of the following predicts positive outcomes in relation to illnesses? a. Self-counselling b. Eclectic determination

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. Self-determination d. Self-efficacy e. Self-monitoring Ans: D 21. Complications of medical procedures, including those involving either diagnostic errors or those stemming from treatment, irrespective of whether they are actually known risks or occur as a result of errors of omission or commission, are referred to as ______. a. demand characteristics b. unintended consequence c. iatrogenic illness d. illness denigration e. a foreseeable legal case Ans: C 22. Wishing for emotional support but obtaining some other response (e.g. advice that was not requested) may be seen as ______. a. an unsupportive response b. support incongruency c. reconciled support d. iatrogenic support e. having a false friend Ans: A 23. Stigma encountered within the processes and operations of institutions describes ______. a. institutionalized stigma b. structural stigma d. conformational stigma d. demand stigmatization

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. unreconciled stigma Ans: B 24. Which of the following is considered to be a non-modifiable risk factor for illnesses? a. Obesity b. Sleep problems c. Coping methods d. Genetic and epigenetic factors e. Stress generation Ans: D

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 15: Dealing with illness 1. Which of these is related to patient regret regarding treatment decisions? a. Poor physical or psychological health outcomes b. Hindsight bias c. Patients involvement in decision-making when outcomes are poor d. Both poor physical or psychological health outcomes and hindsight bias e. All of these Ans: D 2. Which group tends to use health services the LEAST? a. The wealthy b. Those with a higher education c. Children and the elderly d. The poor e. Women Ans: D 3. Nora develops a severe cough. She knows she probably caught something but she waits a whole month before seeing a doctor. Nora is exhibiting ______. a. appraisal delay b. illness delay c. behavioural delay d. doctor delay e. physical delay Ans: B

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 4. Elliot notices he has developed an oddly shaped mole on his chest. He ignores it, telling himself it is just a freckle he never noticed before. After a month, he decides that this freckle may be a little more than just a freckle. Elliot is exhibiting ______. a. appraisal delay b. illness delay c. behavioural delay d. contact delay e. physical delay Ans: A 5. Maurice hurt his knee while playing soccer and has seen his physician. He likely has a torn ligament, but is told he needs an MRI to assess the extent of the injury. After having been given a referral, Maurice avoids booking the appointment for two months. Maurice is exhibiting ______. a. appraisal delay b. illness delay c. behavioural delay d. doctor delay e. physical delay Ans: C 6. Among patients with gynaecological cancers, what did most patients perceive as the most logical cause? a. Hormones b. Environmental factors c. Stressor experiences d. God’s will e. Genetics Ans: E

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 7. Failure of treatment compliance refers to ______. a. patients seeking multiple diagnoses from different physicians b. patients selectively increasing drug treatments (e.g. doses) recommended c. patients either forgetting or choosing not to take treatments as prescribed d. patients deciding that they should also use natural medications in addition to the recommended treatments e. none of these adequately defines treatment compliance Ans: C 8. In deciding the risk and benefits of treatment, the following considerations are most commonly applied ______. a. side effects, expected quality of life, financial costs, current general health b. previous medical experiences, expected quality of life, financial costs, current general health c. side effects, current general health, previous medical experiences, current general health d. side effects, age of patient, financial costs, previous medical experiences e. these considerations are too general and cannot be appropriately applied Ans: A 9. Which statement is FALSE regarding illness reporting? a. Hypochondriacs over-report their illnesses and spend more time seeking medical attention. b. People exhibiting meaningful symptoms often do not go to the doctor for reasons including laziness or avoidance coping. c. Over-reporting of symptoms is common among neurotic individuals. d. There are ethnic differences in terms of illness reporting – some cultural groups are less likely to report illnesses than others. e. Neurotic individuals are least likely to see their physician owing to their avoidance coping.

Ans: E

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 10. Which of these is NOT a common reason for patients to avoid emergency room visits? a. Avoiding coping with disease b. Not wanting to be a nuisance c. Emergency rooms are loud and uncomfortable d. Fear of finding out that they are actually sick e. Laziness Ans: C 11. In relation to the common sense model of illness, how well symptoms come together and link to an illness condition describes ______. a. cure or control b. cause c. consequence d. identity e. coherence Ans: E 12. In relation to the common sense model of illness, a patient’s perception of the illness and its symptoms is ______. a. cure or control b. cause c. consequence d. identity e. coherence Ans: D 13. A common side effect of self-blame is ______. a. release and relief

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. depression and guilt c. depression and relief d. anger and depression e. anger and avoidance Ans: B 14. Tools like the IPQ are important because ______. a. they allow the appraisal of illnesses to be objectively assessed b. they allow health providers to minimize the time spent with patients and maximize the number of patients seen c. they allow patients to communicate subjective feelings with their health providers d. they allow patients to keep their minds busy while they wait for their health providers e. they allow patients the opportunity to express their feelings regarding an illness Ans: A 15. What is a main factor influencing a patient’s perception of their physician's competence? a. Their medical knowledge is all that matters b. Their niceness c. Their ability to translate medical terminology into layman’s terms d. Their confidence e. Their physical appearance Ans: B 16. What is NOT generally regarded as a side effect of involving the patient in the treatment decision-making? a. Increases the patient’s sense of control b. Greater care satisfaction c. Greater improvements sensed by patients d. Decreases the patient’s feeling of being a victim

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. Increases the likelihood of patients taking responsibility for the treatment outcome Ans: E 17. A silent misdiagnosis occurs as a result of ______. a. physicians not understanding or appreciating what their patients tell them b. physicians being cavalier regarding diagnosis c. patients attempting to communicate with their physicians using poor methods d. physicians not speaking the same language as their patients e. physicians not being up-to-date in their medical knowledge Ans: A 18. About half of elderly patients in hospital will develop delirium. This comprises ______. a. visual hallucinations b. confusion, disordered speech and hallucinations, often developing within hours or days b. confusion, disordered speech and hallucinations stemming from dementia d. a dream-like state in which hallucination are prominent e. none of these Ans: B 19. Which of the following is a considerable problem with universal health care in many countries? a. Long wait lists b. Incorporation of too many nurse practitioners c. Failure to accommodate special needs patients d. Patients feeling entitled e. All are serious problems Ans: A 20. Which of the following groups experience poorest preventive and medical treatments?

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. Individuals who are poor b. Individuals with severe mental illnesses c. People living in disadvantaged circumstances d. People with physical disabilities e. All of these encounter these difficulties Ans: E 21. ______ tend to favour physician-assisted deaths over other healthcare providers. This is likely due to the fact that they are in greater contact with patients and know what they genuinely want. a. Physicians b. Personal support workers c. Recreational therapists d. Nurses e. Grief counsellors Ans: D 22. June has recently been diagnosed with a terminal illness, despite only being in her late 40s. As a result, she has turned to religion as a way to cope. Specifically, she has been praying that if she is cured, she will devote her time to helping others and will contribute a large portion of her earnings to various charities. According to Kubler-Ross, which stage of adjustment to dying is June at? a. Denial b. Anger c. Bargaining d. Depression e. Acceptance Ans: C

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 16: Caregiving, death and grief 1. Sean has been suffering from severe migraines for the past few months. After a referral to a specialist and a number of tests, it is confirmed that he has an aggressive brain tumour that cannot be treated. Although Sean was in disbelief at first, he has begun to ask ‘What did I do so wrong to deserve this?’ and has grown immensely cynical. According to Kubler-Ross, which stage of adjustment to dying is Sean at? a. Denial b. Anger c. Bargaining d. Depression e. Acceptance Ans: B 2. Which of the following sentences best exemplifies anticipatory grief? a. ‘I wish I had spent more time with my family’ b. ‘Please, God, help me get through this!’ c. ‘I am really going to miss spending time in the garden’ d. ‘I hope that as I leave this world and enter the next, I have made a positive impact’ e. ‘I am prepared to say goodbye to my loved ones’ Ans: C 3. The Kubler-Ross stage model of death has been met with a number of criticisms. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT? a. Not every person goes through these stages, or at least not always in that specific order. b. The model is not sensitive to other cultures. c. The model does not consider the age of the person going through the death experience. d. The model lacks any empirical evidence to support it.

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 e. The model has been replicated numerous times and has been shown to be a valid model of the dying process.

Ans: E 4. The Duncan family has been struggling with coming to terms with their grandmother’s terminal illness and with the fact that all treatments have failed. As she approaches death, they place her in a care facility to make her last few weeks as comfortable as possible. What sort of facility would the Duncan family place Grandma in? a. A hospital b. A hospice c. A retirement home d. A rehabilitation centre e. A long-term care facility Ans: B 5. Sarah, a stay-at-home mother, recently lost her husband following a work-related accident.

She now has become the sole provider for her family and has had to enter the workforce after years away. Stepping into her new role is an example of which bereavement-related coping process? a. Identity orientation b. Loss orientation c. Restoration orientation d. Problem-focussed e. Emotion-focussed Ans: C 6. Individuals relying on _______ as a coping style showed extended periods of depressed mood among bereaved individuals and benefited from receiving social support. a. negative rumination

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. active avoidance c. passive resignation d. active distraction e. positive rumination Ans: A 7. When implementing a public health initiative, it is important that the following is understood about the community ______. a. the average age of the community, the wealth of the community and the norms held by the community b. the wealth of the community, the cultures within the community and the average education level of the community members c. the average education levels of the community members, the cultures within the community and the average age of the community d. the goals of the community, cultures within the community and norms held by the community e. the norms held by the community, the general lifestyles of the community and the goals the community wishes to accomplish Ans: D 8. Two small communities, Charlestown and Gladsville are only a short distance from each other and often work together to instigate policies that keep their communities thriving.

However, after the latest effort to increase the amount of organized sports for children in each community, they noticed that Charlestown was benefiting from the change to a greater extent than Gladsville. What could be the issue? a. They were not considering key community-based differences, such as the lifestyle and age of families in the communities b. They were not considering key environmental-based differences, such as the size and elevation of the community

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. They were not considering consider key talent-based differences, such as the athletic abilities of the communities d. They were not considering the lack of sports equipment available to Gladsville e. They did not account for economic differences, such as the prevalence of poverty in the communities Ans: A 9. Approximately what percentage of individuals will act as a caregiver for another person with an illness or disability? a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 60% e. 80% Ans: B 10. Grief was discussed as a process that can take up to five years to adjust to after a death.

Which of the following factors influences the duration of grief? a. Level of education b. One’s occupation c. Personality d. Attachment style e. One’s own physical health Ans: D 11. Grieving is a normal response following the death of a loved one. However, if the process becomes both chronic and debilitating, it is referred to as ______. a. recurrent grief syndrome b. progressive grief

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. conflicted grief d. complicated grief e. atypical grief disorder Ans: D 12. Individuals that possess certain personality features might be more suitable as caregivers.

Which of the following is NOT one of them? a. High levels of mastery b. Optimism c. Agreeableness d. Self-efficacy e. Tendency towards problem-focussed coping methods Ans: C 13. Natalie moved closer to her grandfather after she finished her undergraduate degree for the purpose of finding a job. However, following her grandfather suffering a stroke, she took on the role of caregiver, believing that it would be meaningful to her and that she would gain from this experience. She is ______. a. internally motivated b. intrinsically motivated c. extrinsically motivated d. externally motivated e. obligatorily motivated Ans: B 14. The difficulty and frustrations of caregiving of older adults prompted the American Academy of Neurology to advise neurologists to screen for ______. a. abusive experiences to determine whether problems were a result of abuse b. receptive aphasia

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 c. bed sores d. similar symptoms emerging in the caregiver e. misuse of prescription drugs Ans: A 15. Advocates for physician-assisted death assert that respect for life means dying with dignity. Which of the following quotes best exemplifies their argument? a. ‘Our patients are wasting health resources that otherwise could be put to better use’ b. ‘I do not want to be laying there in a hospital bed, only semi-conscious, as my family watches me waste away’ c. ‘My partner just left me, I have no reason to live’ d. ‘They are going to die regardless of what we do – why not just speed up the process?’ e. ‘I cannot bear to watch my patient suffer and, as a doctor, I believe it is my duty to advise families that assisted death is the right choice’ Ans: B 16. From middle adolescence up until the middle 30s, what are the three leading causes of death (in no particular order) in the United States, according to the Centre of Disease Control (2010)? a. Heart disease, unintentional injury, suicide b. Cancer, unintentional injury, suicide c. Cancer, suicide, homicide d. Unintentional accident/injury, homicide, suicide e. Unintentional injury, suicide, influenza Ans: D 17. There are a number of arguments for and against physician-assisted death. The doctor’s goal is to preserve life and prevent harm. What ethical principle best exemplifies this? a. Socratic principle

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. Hippocratic oath c. Franciscan oath d. Benevolence oath e. Physician principle of intention and action Ans: B 18. Connor, a third-year undergraduate student and varsity athlete, was recently diagnosed with an aggressive form of leukaemia and needs to begin treatment immediately. However, he is convinced that he has nothing to worry about and plans on finishing the football season before starting treatment. His attitude towards the cancer is common among many adolescents and is an example of which coping strategy?

A. Emotion-focussed b. Avoidant-focussed c. Problem-focussed d. Passive resignation e. Other-blame Ans: B 19. Which of the following frequently promotes delirium in older people? a. Respiratory failure, septic shock or cardiogenic shock b. Lack of family support c. Absence of palliative care d. Derangement syndrome e. Use of LSD Ans: A 20. In older individuals, anaesthetics associated with surgical procedures may give rise to ______. a. derangement syndrome

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 b. prominent confusion and memory loss that can last for extended periods c. allergic reactions that can cause anaphylaxis d. hallucinatory response syndrome e. sepsis Ans: B 21. Finding the meaning and purpose of life, being connected to other people, talking about death and the experience of dying, making the best out of their time, being independent and being treated like a normal person, as well as physical, psychological, social and spiritual well-being are all involved in ______. a. longevity b. stages of dying c. facilitating the dying process d. structural coping with death e. feelings of un-encumbrance Ans: C 22. ______ comprises a team-based approach to providing optimal care for patients with severe illnesses to attenuate their symptoms, pain and distress, and to generally improve their quality of life, whereas ______ is adopted once a person has exhausted all medical treatments and accepts the imminence of death. a. Hospice care; palliative care b. Palliative care; hospice care c. Intervention care; hospice care d. Intervention care; palliative care e. Reparative care; hospice care Ans: B 23. In 2015, the Supreme Court of Canada legalized physician-assisted death ______.

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 a. so long as the person affected clearly consents to the termination of life b. provided that the person is experiencing a physical or psychological illness and consent to the termination of life c. provided the person affected clearly consents to the termination of life and is suffering from a grievous and irremediable medical condition d. provided the person perceives their future as being irredeemably bleak without hope for any change e. none of these was stipulated Ans: C

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021

Chapter 17: From molecules, to individuals, to communities, to policy 1. Ethics review panels make sure that community-based research complies with the principles of ______. a. law, order, access and control b. diversity, participation, possession and control c. respect, politics and control d. ownership, control, access and possession e. diversity, order, control and possession Ans: D 2. The government of a country has come to the realization that the health of their citizens needs to be improved. Their best mode of action would be to ______. a. begin by increasing health education to their citizens b. work to simultaneously improve multiple aspects, such as the environment, poverty level and education c. decrease ties with neighbouring countries in order to focus all of their efforts on their own d. place vitamins and supplements in the water supply e. force citizens to change nutritional intake and increase exercise levels Ans: B 3. What is one of the major reasons that developing countries are the ones that are least able to respond to complex health challenges? a. Increase in urbanization and globalization b. Decrease in localization and socialization c. Increase in localization and urbanization d. Increase in ruralization and socialization e. Decrease in urbanization and localization

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 Ans: A 4. One understandable reason for vaccine hesitancy today is ______. a. vaccines have been shown to cause autism b. vaccines are unnatural c. some diseases that are vaccinated for have not been seen in recent generations d. naturopathic medicine has recently advanced exponentially, attracting people to an alternative approach e. science has been wrong before, so we should not trust vaccines Ans: C 5. The following is NOT a benefit of integrating various fields of work, such as neurology and psychiatry ______. a. information can be exchanged between disciplines to understand the situation better b. treatments can be combined to increase response to treatments c. increase the need of each discipline in the workforce d. enhancing patient treatment by understanding alternative perspectives of illness e. increase the acceptance of certain disciplines, or disorders, such as mental health Ans: C 6. According to the WHO, in 2005, infectious diseases combined killed around 4 million people, but non-communicable diseases killed approximately ______. a. 300,000 people b. 1 million people c. 3 million people d. 30 million people e. WHO never makes such statements so that panic will not occur Ans: D

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 7. What is NOT an example of a public health initiative? a. Increasing access to fitness programmes b. Educating the public about vaccinations c. Advertising the harm of smoking in order to promote quitting d. Offering to buy more vegetables and less processed food for a poor family e. Providing vaccinations and education about them to the public Ans: D 8. When implementing a public health initiative, it is important that the following is understood about the community ______. a. the average age of the community, the wealth of the community and the norms held by the community b. the wealth of the community, the cultures within the community and the average education level of the community members c. the average education levels of the community members, the cultures within the community and the average age of the community d. the goals of the community, cultures within the community and norms held by the community e. the norms held by the community, the general lifestyles of the community and the goals the community wishes to accomplish Ans: D 9. The dynamic and iterative process that includes synthesis, dissemination, exchange and ethically sound application of knowledge to improve the health of citizens, provide more effective health services and products and strengthen the health care system describes the goals of ______. a. community-based research b. iterative–reiterative knowledge c. public policy initiative

Anisman, Health Psychology 2e SAGE Publishing, 2021 d. knowledge translation e. none of these Ans: D 10. In order for positive effects to be achieved, it is necessary that there is buy-in from the public, buy-in from vulnerable populations and buy-in from communities that show disproportionate levels of illness. This describes ______. a. the democratization of health care b. progressive health care c. socialism in health care d. demand care e. Obama care Ans: A