HDEV, 4th Canadian Edition by Rathus, Rogerson, Berk TEST BANK

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. John Locke said children begin life without natural predispositions. a. True b. False 2. Independent variables are manipulated by the experimenter. a. True b. False 3. Negative reinforcement will decrease a desired behaviour when removed. a. True b. False 4. Subjects rarely drop out of long-term longitudinal research. a. True b. False 5. A control group in an experiment receives the experimental treatment. a. True b. False 6. Surveys may be impacted by the interpretation of the person analyzing the results. a. True b. False 7. Researchers have found no difference between adolescent and adult performance on intellectual tasks. a. True b. False 8. Correlational studies prove causal relationships between variables. a. True b. False 9. Gender is considered an aspect of diversity. a. True b. False 10. John Watson, founder of American behaviourism, believed that children were born with all they needed to know for life. a. True b. False 11. With accommodation, new schemas may be created. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 12. According to Bronfenbrenner’s ecological systems theory, the chronosystem involves changes over time. a. True b. False 13. Dependent variables are measured results in an experiment. a. True b. False 14. Punishments such as slapping are considered less effective than types of discipline that provide alternative, acceptable behaviours. a. True b. False 15. Teachers who follow Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory provide children with opportunities to experiment with their environment. a. True b. False 16. Random assignment in an experiment reduces the likelihood that a selection factor determines the outcome. a. True b. False 17. John Locke’s conception of children (i.e., as a tabula rasa) was as passive recipients of actions from the environment. a. True b. False 18. A child's peer group can be considered an exosystem. a. True b. False 19. Erikson's theory is completely dissimilar to Freud's. a. True b. False 20. Erikson’s psychosocial theory emphasizes the responsibility of the ego. a. True b. False 21. According to Freudian psychosexual theory, children develop significant sexual attachments to the same-sex parent during the genital stage. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 22. Longitudinal research studies the same individuals over time. a. True b. False 23. All people are born with the same capacities and same opportunities in life, making the study of diversity irrelevant. a. True b. False 24. According to Freud, becoming “fixated” in a stage of psychosexual development is a result of receiving too little or too much gratification during that stage. a. True b. False 25. Case studies involve large numbers of subjects each being studied at once. a. True b. False 26. Freud believed that insufficient or excessive gratification in a stage of development would lead to developmental problems. a. True b. False 27. Jean-Jacques Rousseau stated that children were born inherently mischievous. a. True b. False 28. Experiments are used to test hypotheses. a. True b. False 29. Alfred Binet developed the first intelligence test to identify which children may fall behind in school. a. True b. False 30. Naturalistic observation can be used to study athletes from different sports. a. True b. False 31. According to ethologists, fixed action patterns are learned behaviours. a. True b. False 32. Researchers rarely concern themselves about ethical considerations when designing an experiment. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 33. Stage theories consider development as a discontinuous process. a. True b. False 34. The cohort effect is a potential problem in cross-sectional research. a. True b. False 35. “Tabula rasa” means “blank slate.” a. True b. False 36. Classical conditioning involves training an individual to respond to a new stimulus by pairing it with an unconditioned stimulus. a. True b. False 37. Children adapt to their environments through assimilation and accommodation, according to Piaget’s cognitivedevelopmental theory. a. True b. False 38. According to behaviourists, once a behaviour has been learned, it cannot be extinguished. a. True b. False 39. A key Vygotskian concept is the zone of proximal development. a. True b. False 40. The scientific method is an unethical means of researching human development. a. True b. False 41. A conditioned stimulus occurs without prior learning. a. True b. False 42. Information-processing theory uses the computer as a metaphor for human thinking and memory. a. True b. False 43. The nature and nurture controversy debates whether development is continuous or a series of stages. a. True b. False

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 44. The sociocultural perspective focuses on children's aggressive and sexual impulses. a. True b. False 45. Freud believed the superego developed to force the id to follow rules. a. True b. False 46. According to ecological system theory, only genetic factors are worthy of study. a. True b. False 47. Ethology was heavily influenced by the work of Charles Darwin. a. True b. False 48. Bandura’s social cognitive theory argues that children learn by observing models. a. True b. False 49. Teachers and parents use scaffolding to help children reach a more advanced level of performance than would be possible without assistance. a. True b. False 50. Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory suggests that children passively respond to their environments. a. True b. False 51. During the Middle Ages, children were expected to reach the “age of reason” at age 7. a. True b. False 52. Ethical guidelines dictate that research participants’ identities remain confidential. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

53. How do negative reinforcers differ from punishments? a. Negative reinforcers increase the frequency of behaviour when they are removed. b. Punishments increase the frequency of behaviour when they are removed. c. Negative reinforcers decrease the frequency of behaviour when they are removed. d. Punishments decrease the frequency of behaviour when they are removed.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 54. You apply a biological perspective in your work with children. How would you describe your scope of practice? a. I examine how children learn to act by observing models. b. I deal with the ways in which children encode information. c. I view children as going through stages of psychosexual development. d. I refer to heredity, maturation of the nervous system, and the effects of hormones.

55. According to Freud, during what stage can boys develop strong attachments to their mothers while girls form strong attachments to their fathers? a. the oral stage b. the anal stage c. the phallic stage d. the genital stage 56. Which statement would you be most likely to hear from an ethologist? a. Different varieties of living things have different fixed action patterns. b. Instincts have little effect on the behaviour of an individual. c. Prenatal exposure to hormones has little effect on gender behaviours. d. The same level of influence of biology affects humans as it does other animals.

57. Which term best describes what Piaget noted as a biological tendency of organisms to act together with and respond to their surroundings? a. adaptation b. referencing c. assimilation d. accommodation 58. According to the textbook, when does extinction of learning occur? a. when classically conditioned stimuli are discontinued b. never; once something is learned it is not possible to unlearn c. with the passage of time, even if reinforcement continues d. after repetitive performance of operant behaviour without reinforcement 59. Which of the following is considered a drawback of the longitudinal method? a. Subjects may be inclined to lie about results. b. Subjects may die before the study is completed. c. Researchers may lose interest in the study. d. Too many subjects may enlist in the study.

60. What is the general view of Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development? a. It assists in our understanding of childhood behaviour but ignores the aging process. b. It provides a framework for the importance of human consciousness and choice. c. It is in conflict with all contemporary empirical evidence. d. It is less appealing than Freud’s theory because Erikson’s theory portrays people as prisoners of their psyche.

61. According to Freud, what controls much of our behaviour? a. our unconscious desires b. our mental associations c. our environmental stimuli d. our tabula rasa Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 62. Dr. Wong has intensely observed and recorded the activities of a pair of conjoined twins for two years. What type of research method does Dr. Wong’s work represent? a. a case study b. an experiment c. a correlational design d. a cross-lagged method 63. What was the primary focus of John Watson’s behaviourism theory? a. the effects of nature b. the effects of nurture c. the effects of biology d. the effects of environment 64. Which of the following is considered to be a positive influence of Erikson's theory? a. It emphasizes the importance of human consciousness and choice. b. It reinforces the importance of unconscious forces in human development. c. It reminds us that humans are selfish therefore, ultimately able to meet their own needs, and achieve goals. d. It suggests that childhood experiences can easily be overcome as we develop in our lives.

65. Chris's mother offers him a cookie, but only if he doesn't throw a temper tantrum in the grocery store. Which concept of operant conditioning is Chris’s mother applying? a. extinction b. positive reinforcement c. alternative reinforcement d. conditioned stimulus and conditioned response 66. Human developmentalists have debated whether human development is continuous or discontinuous. According to the textbook, what is the current thinking in this debate? a. Human development is continuous. b. Human development is discontinuous. c. Whether human development is continuous or discontinuous has not yet been determined. d. Human development is both continuous and discontinuous, depending on what aspect of development is being studied.

67. What is the focus of Freudian psychoanalytic theory? a. observable behaviours b. learning and education c. emotional and social development d. quantitative change in development 68. The information-processing theory compares human problem solving to the functions of a computer. Using this metaphor, what is our brain? a. software b. hardware c. mainframe d. monitor

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce HYPOTHESIS Dr. Morgan forms the hypothesis that ingesting chocolate prior to an exam will improve exam performance. She gives chocolate to half of her participants and gum to the other half. She then gives the participants an exam.

69. What is the experimental group? a. the group that chews gum b. the group that eats chocolate c. the performance on the exam d. the amount of caffeine in the chocolate 70. What observation caused Piaget to see children as “natural physicists”? a. Children were at the mercy of their ids. b. Children liked to experiment with their physical environments. c. Children learned only through reinforcements and punishments. d. Children had innate knowledge of their worlds, which was unaffected by experience.

71. Sarah’s mother works long hours at the office. As a result, she cannot always attend Sarah’s soccer games.

Which type of system does her mother’s workplace represent for Sarah? a. an exosystem b. a mesosystem c. a microsystem d. a macrosystem HYPOTHESIS Dr. Morgan forms the hypothesis that ingesting chocolate prior to an exam will improve exam performance. She gives chocolate to half of her participants and gum to the other half. She then gives the participants an exam.

72. What is the dependent variable? a. the group that chews gum b. the group that eats chocolate c. the performance on the exam d. whether the participants eat chocolate or chew gum 73. What is the correct order of Bronfenbrenner's five systems, going from narrowest (closest to the child) to widest (furthest away from the child)? a. mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, chronosystem, microsystem b. exosystem, mesosystem, microsystem, chronosystem, macrosystem c. microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, chronosystem d. macrosystem, exosystem, microsystem, chronosystem, mesosystem 74. What is the main concern of the nature–nurture debate? a. why genes are more influential in development than environment b. why the environment is more important in development than evolution c. the relationships between genetics, environment, and human development d. the claim that females are more intelligent because of their genetic makeup

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce CONDITIONING Mark laughs whenever his neck is touched. Now his mommy says "gotcha" before touching his neck.

Eventually, as soon as his mommy says "gotcha," Mark starts to laugh.

75. What is Mark’s unconditioned response? a. saying "gotcha" b. touching his neck c. laughing when he hears "gotcha" d. laughing when his neck is touched 76. What term did Freud use to describe his theory of child development? a. psychometric b. epigenetic c. psychosexual d. emergent 77. What topic is a cognitive theorist most likely to study? a. how children perceive and mentally represent the world b. how patterns of reinforcement and punishment promote learning c. how children confront and resolve developmental crises in their lives d. how the id, ego, and superego work together to form a healthy personality 78. Mary is holding her newborn daughter and comments on her gentle temperament. If Freud were in the room, what might he state is the only part of the child’s personality that is present? a. her id b. her ego c. her superego d. her subliminal ego 79. Which of the following is an example of a microsystem? a. child’s weekly craft club b. a child’s school board c. a child's cultural connections d. a child's interaction between home and school 80. According to ethology, what causes people to respond the way they do? a. innate behaviours b. psychosexual crises c. learned associations d. experimentation with the environment 81. “I remember being a very busy child, always running and jumping. As an adolescent, life became more serious, and I became quiet and reflective. In young adulthood, I regained my excitement and sense of challenge. Now, in middle age, I feel a bit more serene.” This information is typical of information gathered during what type of research? a. an experiment b. a longitudinal study c. a correlational study d. a cross-sectional study 82. Which developmental theorist suggested that a child is born with unlimited possibilities but can develop in unimaginable ways as a result of direction, guidance, and teaching? a. John Watson b. B.F. Skinner c. Jean Piaget d. John Locke

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 83. Tom is a perfectionist who is almost obsessive in his neatness at work and at home. Which stage of psychosocial development would Freud say that Tom had an issue with in childhood? a. oral stage b. anal stage c. phallic stage d. genital stage 84. Which theories are common to both Freud and Erikson? a. stage theories b. continuous theories c. behavioural theories d. exclusively nature theories VARIABLES A study is being conducted on violent television and aggression.

85. What is the independent variable? a. the television b. the study subject c. aggressiveness (the child’s behaviour) d. the type of TV program watched (violent or not) CONDITIONING Mark laughs whenever his neck is touched. Now his mommy says "gotcha" before touching his neck.

Eventually, as soon as his mommy says "gotcha," Mark starts to laugh.

86. What is Mark’s unconditioned stimulus? a. saying "gotcha" b. touching his neck c. laughing when he hears "gotcha" d. laughing when his neck is touched 87. John has a 6-month-old son and is telling his friend Tom about his son’s activities. Tom has just read a book by Sigmund Freud describing child development stages. According to Tom, which stage is John’s son in? a. the oral stage b. the anal stage c. the fixated stage d. the latency stage 88. According to one theory, when external limits, such as parental demands, are internalized, they conflict with inner forces. A child’s observable behaviour, thoughts, and feelings reflect the outcomes of this conflict. What is the name of this theory? a. learning theory b. behavioural theory c. psychoanalytic theory d. cognitive-developmental theory 89. According to the textbook, how have children been viewed throughout history? a. Children have always been viewed in the same manner throughout history. b. In the past, children were typically given more privileges than they have today. c. In terms of their roles and privileges, children have been viewed differently throughout history. d. Children today are considered to be young developing adults, whereas they were considered more childlike during the Middle Ages.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 90. Four-year-old Janet took part in a research study on the effects of fruit juice consumption on obesity in children.

When the study was published in a research journal, Janet’s name appeared in the article. What guideline of ethical research involving children was violated? a. Parental participation must be obtained. b. Identities of children must remain confidential. c. Children and parents must be informed of the purposes of the research. d. The researchers must receive proper approval for conducting the study.

91. Which statement best represents the continuity perspective? a. Development occurs gradually with no significant qualitative changes. b. Development is impacted by rapid qualitative changes. c. Development is dependent on parenting style. d. Development is determined by intelligence alone.

92. After Mathew had worked at his job for only three weeks and was still on probation, his friend suggested he should skip work and go cycling. Although Mathew wanted to go cycling with his friend, he decided work was the better choice. According to Freud’s theory, what was at work? a. superego b. id c. preconscious mind d. ego 93. Which of the following is examined in cross-cultural studies? a. exosystems b. mesosystems c. microsystems d. macrosystems 94. Which of the following best describes the nature of developmental psychology? a. a new discipline with a lack of clear foundation b. a theoretical perspective that focuses on children between the ages of 2 and 12 years c. a scientific discipline similar to chemistry and biology d. a discipline that combines biology, psychology, and sociology 95. What did Piaget conclude from his work at the Binet Institute in Paris? a. Children's incorrect answers resulted from inconsistent cognitive processing. b. Only children’s correct answers demonstrated what they were thinking. c. Children's incorrect answers followed consistent cognitive processes. d. A child’s comprehension precedes verbal production, which explains inaccuracies in testing.

96. Which of the following questions is most likely to be asked by someone interested in ethology? a. Does a baby learn best when interacting with others or when alone? b. What is the role played by instincts in human development? c. Does punishment speed up the learning process in children? d. What role do early life experiences play on later happiness?

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 97. The information-processing perspective describes how memory and problem-solving work. What is used as a metaphor for describing these processes? a. a computer b. a camera c. a camcorder d. a digital clock 98. In an attempt to compare instructional strategies in various elementary schools, educational researchers are sampling the reading skills of third graders every six months for five years. What type of research are they applying? a. naturalistic research b. longitudinal research c. cross-sectional research d. cross-sequential research 99. Which scenario is an example of scaffolding? a. an adult doing up a child's shoes for a child b. a child reading a favourite book on her own c. a child using flash cards to learn math until the child can calculate the answer in her head d. a child running the bath water, but waiting for a parent before getting in the tub 100. Who is considered to be the “father” of psychoanalytic theory? a. Erikson b. Jung c. Freud d. Locke 101. Each of Erikson stages of development was assigned a specific name. What were his labels based on? a. life crises b. chronological age c. psychosexual conflicts d. unhealthy patterns of parenting 102. What was Gesell’s view of child development? a. Children are inherently evil. b. Children are inherently good. c. Environment is the main principle of development. d. Biological maturation is the main principle of development.

103. Who suggested that children could become generous and ethical people if they were left to their natural tendencies or impulses? a. John Locke b. Alfred Binet c. Sigmund Freud d. Jean-Jacques Rousseau 104. What is a defining characteristic of punishment? a. It is physical, such as a spanking. b. It decreases the frequency of a behaviour. c. It works equally as well as reinforcements. d. It is considered the best method of childrearing.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce CONDITIONING Mark laughs whenever his neck is touched. Now his mommy says "gotcha" before touching his neck.

Eventually, as soon as his mommy says "gotcha," Mark starts to laugh.

105. What is Mark’s behaviour an example of? a. habituation learning b. classical conditioning c. sensitization learning d. operant habitualization 106. How has the concept of “family life” changed over time? a. It has remained constant throughout history. b. It decreased in size during the Industrial Revolution, allowing only one child per family. c. It was narrowed to include just the nuclear family during the Industrial Revolution. d. It has grown to include a broader range of family members, such as cousins, aunts, and uncles.

107. If you believe that every person is born innately good, who do you most likely agree with? a. John Locke b. Alfred Binet c. Sigmund Freud d. Jean-Jacques Rousseau 108. According to Freud’s theory, what behaviour can result from becoming fixated during the anal stage of development? a. being overly dependent b. being untidy and careless c. being shy and overcautious d. being very gullible (easily fooled) 109. After 6-year-old Mary is punished, she temporarily stops her well-established bad behaviour. However, Mary soon goes back to her bad behaviours. Why did her undesired behaviour resurface? a. The conditional emotional response to the punishment has generalized to another behaviour. b. The undesired behaviour has been recovered. c. The effects of punishment have become a habit. d. Punishment alone is known to only temporarily suppress or inhibit a behaviour.

110. Which of the following indicates the strongest correlation? a. –0.80 b. –0.45 c. +0.65 d. +0.70 111. What is ethology an example of? a. a biologically oriented theory of development b. a behaviourist method for studying behaviour c. a stage theory for studying cognitive development d. a strict information processing approach to studying development

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 112. What is characteristic of a hypothesis? a. It is tested in a research experiment b. It is used only in correlational research. c. It is always supported by the findings of an experiment. d. It is ineffectual when comparing two equal groups of participants.

113. Jason is a 15-year-old, but in many ways he seems much younger. He is impatient and egocentric. If you are listening music on your phone and Jason wants to hear the song, he might take the phone from you. He does not seem to appreciate the difference between “yours” and “mine.” According to Freudian theory, what level is Jason operating at? a. the preconscious mind b. the superego c. the id d. the ego HYPOTHESIS Dr. Morgan forms the hypothesis that ingesting chocolate prior to an exam will improve exam performance. She gives chocolate to half of her participants and gum to the other half. She then gives the participants an exam.

114. What is the best way to divide the participants into groups? a. Use random assignment. b. Divide the group based on age; older and younger than 30 years. c. Have all males in one group and all females in the other. d. Make sure that each group wants to eat the chocolate or chew the gum.

115. In cognitive-developmental theory, what is involved in accommodation? a. the elimination of an old schema b. a linkage between cognition and language c. a process of restricting knowledge to avoid confusion d. the alteration of an existing schema or the making of a new schema 116. Why do researchers use random assignment in an experiment? a. to provide ethical reasons for being in an experiment b. to prevent subjects from knowing which experimental group they are a member of c. to cause a selection factor to determine how the subjects will behave in the experiment d. to ensure that no pre-existing differences among groups cause the change in the experimental group’s behaviour 117. Which type of problem is the cohort effect? a. a particular problem in cross-sectional research b. a particular problem in cross-sequential research c. a problem when subjects die off selectively from longitudinal research d. a problem when subjects know which experimental group they are a member of

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 118. What was the primary focus of Arnold Gesell’s maturational perspective? a. the effects of behaviour patterns b. the effects of physical aspects of growth and development c. the effects of heredity d. the effects of biology 119. The information-processing perspective describes people's strategies for problem solving. What is used as a metaphor for describing these strategies? a. input b. RAM c. software d. hardware 120. Three-year-old Sara is trying to make sense of the fact that her mother is telling her that the hairy, four-legged creature in front of her is not a dog. What process would Piaget say she is engaging in as she tries to accommodate this new information? a. equilibration b. cognitive development c. evaluation d. information processing 121. According to psychoanalytic perspectives, what is a child’s conflict during early development? a. the child’s id b. the child’s sexual and aggressive tendencies c. parental expectations, social rules, and moral codes d. the child's external limits, which have been internalized 122. A researcher has found that, in general, the more hours students spend partying, the lower their exam scores.

Which term best describes this finding? a. a documented case study b. a correlation with a positive direction c. a negative correlation d. a standardized test 123. Baby Thomas has an understanding of "things he can reach," such as a toy in his crib, and "things he can't reach," such as the mobile hanging above his crib. According to Piaget, what term refers to these cognitive structures? a. theories b. schemas c. assimilation categories d. accommodation categories 124. Which statement is characteristic of social cognitive theorists, such as Albert Bandura? a. Children learn through doing hands-on activities that are age appropriate. b. Children learn much of what they learn through the observation of others. c. Children do not learn by the use of such principles as reinforcement and punishment. d. Children learn through activities that emphasis physical movement.

125. Children enter the latency stage at 5 or 6 years of age. How long do they stay in this stage of development? a. They generally stay there until puberty. b. They stay there until the anal stage at age 8. c. They usually do not progress to any further stage. d. They then enter the phallic stage at adolescence.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 126. What is the correct order of Freud's psychosexual stages? a. anal, latency, phallic, oral, genital b. anal, oral, latency, phallic, genital c. phallic, oral, anal, latency, genital d. oral, anal, phallic, latency, genital 127. According to Freudian psychoanalytic theory, a nail-biting adult is “fixated” during which stage of development? a. the oral stage b. the anal stage c. the phallic genital stage d. the genital stage 128. According to Erikson, what is the effect of our early experiences? a. They are easy to conquer under the right circumstances. b. They wield a continued influence on our future development. c. They exert very little influence on the person we become. d. They forecast future development only after we reach 6 to 8 years of age.

129. How has the study of adult development changed over time? a. After the population shift of the 1990s, developmental theorists focused their studies more on adult development, leading to a diminished interest in child and adolescent development. b. It was extensively studied during the social justice conscience efforts of the 1960s, but interest faded out by the 1980s. c. Today, researchers have expanded their work and are beginning to study emerging adulthood more. d. Developmental theorists overlooked this field of study because adulthood developmental changes are primary physical, and not social and cognitive.

130. Which of the following is emphasized by the sociocultural perspective? a. age b. cognition c. gender d. genetics 131. Philosophers once believed children to be a “tabula rasa.” What is meant by this belief? a. Children are born with fears that must be overcome. b. Children are born inherently selfish in order to survive. c. Children can be influenced by their experiences. d. Children are born with all that they need for survival.

132. The theory of ethology refers to built-in or instinctive behaviours. What is another term for these behaviours? a. nurturing b. assimilation c. released stimuli d. fixed action patterns 133. Who is associated with sociocultural theory? a. Freud b. Erikson c. Vygotsky d. Bronfenbrenner

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 134. Mark can tie his running shoes, but only with his mother's help. How would Vygotsky describe the task of tying Mark’s shoes? a. It is beyond Mark’s scope of ability. b. It is within Mark’s zone of proximal development. c. It is an innate process that simply needs nurturing to unfold. d. It is too difficult for a child his age to attempt.

135. What is the focus of the information-processing view of cognition? a. how people encode, store, and retrieve information b. how people integrated sensory information into meaningful schemas c. how people assimilate and accommodate information into their schemas d. how people develop their native intelligence 136. Piaget's theory of cognitive development has been widely studied. Which statement is most likely to be an evaluation of his theory? a. Piaget completely misunderstood children’s ability to think logically. b. Piaget was correct that cognitive development occurs in distinct stages. c. Piaget overrated the ages at which children are capable of doing certain things. d. Piaget underestimated the ages at which children are capable of doing certain things.

137. How has the idea that childhood is a special time of life developed over time? a. This idea declined throughout the 20th century. b. This idea became evident during the Industrial Revolution. c. This idea occurred at a time of ease and play for children during the Industrial Revolution. d. This idea corresponded to the Middle Ages and the importance of children in the family during this time.

CONDITIONING Mark laughs whenever his neck is touched. Now his mommy says "gotcha" before touching his neck.

Eventually, as soon as his mommy says "gotcha," Mark starts to laugh.

138. What is Mark’s conditioned response? a. saying "gotcha" b. touching his neck c. laughing when he hears "gotcha" d. laughing when his neck is touched 139. According to operant conditioning, what leads to a changed behaviour? a. innate processes b. reinforcements or punishments c. mental evaluation of a situation d. pairing two stimuli to produce a response 140. Beavers reared in isolation have been known to build dams, even if they have never seen either a dam or another beaver build a dam. What term do ethologists use to refer to these built-in, instinctive behaviours? a. reflexes b. fixed action patterns c. survival mechanisms d. learned behavioural tendencies

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 141. Dr. Simmons has found a strong positive correlation between watching violent cartoons on TV and children's levels of aggression toward others. What can be concluded from this research finding? a. Violent TV causes aggressive behaviour in children. b. Violent TV viewing and aggressive behaviour are unrelated. c. Aggressive behaviour causes children to watch more violent TV. d. Watching violent television and children’s aggression are related, but may not be a causal relationship.

142. Which elements are represented by the Medicine Wheel? a. oral, phallic, anal, genital b. gender, age, ethnicity, religion c. life, love, longing, understanding d. mind, body, emotions, spirit 143. According to Freudian psychoanalytic theory, a child may become fixated in the oral stage of development. In Freud’s view, what experience can lead to this type of fixation? a. a stringent potty-training schedule b. concentrating on schoolwork too long c. playing with opposite-gender children too often d. being denied appropriate amount of breast milk or nursed too long 144. According to the textbook, what is Freud’s legacy for future thinkers? a. Freud’s focus on the scientific method has led to stronger ways of studying human development. b. Freud’s focus on children’s sexuality has encouraged many to continue researching his thesis. c. Freud’s theories provided a starting point for research into linkages between behaviours observed in childhood and those evident in adulthood. d. Freud’s focus on the importance of genetics has led to modern researchers understanding of how genetics and environment intersect.

145. Which statement best describes the experience of most children during the 20th century? a. They received less education than during previous centuries. b. They tended to marry at a younger age than during previous centuries. c. They had greater legal protections compared with earlier periods of history. d. They were considered the property of their parents and therefore the law did not protect them from physical and sexual abuse.

146. Which statement best describes infants? a. They do not have schemas. b. They are incapable of cognition. c. They are entirely dependent on reflexes for survival. d. They have schemas that involve simply what they can and cannot do with objects.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce CONDITIONING Mark laughs whenever his neck is touched. Now his mommy says "gotcha" before touching his neck.

Eventually, as soon as his mommy says "gotcha," Mark starts to laugh.

147. What is Mark’s conditioned stimulus? a. saying "gotcha" b. touching his neck c. laughing when he hears "gotcha" d. laughing when his neck is touched 148. Which of the following scenarios is an example of observational learning? a. Jonathan jumps when he hears loud thunder. b. Nicholas isn't given any dessert because he didn't eat his green vegetables. c. Frank stops having temper tantrums in public after his father begins ignoring them. d. Gina watches her mother mow the grass and then she pushes her toy lawnmower around the lawn.

149. What theorist from the 1700s would most likely have said: “Every child I meet is an empty canvas waiting to be beautifully created”? a. John Locke b. Alfred Binet c. Sigmund Freud d. Jean-Jacques Rousseau 150. According to Freud, what word describes the id? a. conscious b. unconscious c. preconscious d. subliminal 151. What is a similarity between John Watson’s behaviourism and John Locke’s concept of “tabula rasa”? a. Both rigorously studied human development; however, Locke emphasized the adult experience. b. Both suggest that genetics determine a person’s ideas, preferences, and skills. c. Both suggest that experience determines one’s ideas, preferences, and skills. d. Both emphasize the importance of maturational processes.

152. Which statement best represents the views of Urie Bronfenbrenner? a. Who you are at birth is who you are throughout life. b. Give-and-take interactions influence child development. c. Interactions with parents determine the kind of adult a child becomes. d. Unconscious conflicts and urges primarily influence child development.

153. Which statement best represents the thinking of Bandura? a. Children can learn only by doing. b. Children are passive recipients of knowledge. c. Children acquire many basic skills by watching models in their everyday lives. d. Children will not imitate the behaviour of others unless they are rewarded for doing so.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 154. Which of the following is a component of ecological theory? a. It looks for unconscious motives of behaviour. b. It emphasizes the impact of genetic determinants. c. It makes researchers aware of the multiple systems that influence children. d. It clearly delineates the overarching importance of reinforcement and punishment.

155. How did Erikson’s stage theory differ from Freud’s? a. Erikson focused only on infancy rather than through to adolescence. b. Erikson’s theory had significantly fewer stages than Freud’s. c. Erikson focused on social development into adulthood. d. Erikson emphasized inner conflict based on sexual urges.

156. Which of the following is an example of an exosystem? a. a child’s school b. a parent’s workplace c. a neighbourhood park d. a community parade 157. Who conceptualized and introduced the concept of reinforcement into behaviourism? a. Freud b. Skinner c. Watson d. Piaget 158. What is the focus of sociocultural theory? a. It addresses the impact of diverse systems on children. b. It explains how one’s genes interact with one’s environment. c. It illuminates the interplay between genetics and diet on development. d. It explores the importance of the unconscious thoughts on child development.

159. What is suggested by Vygotsky’s sociocultural theory? a. A child's exchanges with adults help organize the child's learning experiences. b. Children learn only through a complex interaction of rewards and punishments. c. Factors such as ethnicity and gender do not play an important role in development. d. Children are like miniature adults and need to be nurtured to obtain cognitive skills.

160. According to Piaget, what is a schema? a. something babies suck b. the interaction between the environment and the organism c. an innate knowledge structure that does not change with development d. a pattern of action or cognitive structures used in acquiring or organizing knowledge 161. A teacher wants to apply Piaget's theory to the classroom setting. Which action is the teacher most likely to take? a. provide instructional activities aimed at the children's developmental levels b. foster group discussion first, then assist children in completing problems in their workbooks c. recognize that children of all ages process information similarly d. examine children's abilities to repress their aggressive tendencies Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 162. How is negative reinforcement enacted? a. by decreasing an unwanted behaviour by administering a punishment b. by eliminating an unwanted behaviour by administering something bad c. by increasing a desired behaviour by taking away something unpleasant d. by decreasing an unwanted behaviour by withholding something desired 163. Martha is an 8-year-old girl whose sexual impulses are buried. She spends her time focusing on her schoolwork and developing relationships with same-sex friends. According to Freud, what psychosexual stage is Martha in? a. the oral stage b. the phallic stage c. the latency stage d. the genital stage 164. Which of the following is characteristic of punishment? a. It is usually more effective than reinforcement. b. It is a good way to teach children how to deal with stress. c. It does not suggest an alternative to unacceptable behaviour. d. It is methodically planned and executed 165. According to Piaget, how are schemas changed? a. only through assimilation b. by combining previously acquired physical schemas with new knowledge c. as a result of the more complex genetic structures that children acquire as they get older d. by comparing new information with old schemas that do not fit the new information 166. In operant conditioning, which of the following responses to a child’s behaviour will result in its extinction? a. The observer joins in with the child engaging in the behaviour. b. The child is given a hug and told that the behaviour must stop or punishment will be given. c. The child is told repeatedly to stop the behaviour. d. The observer no longer pays attention to or reinforces the behaviour.

167. What was the rationale for the first intelligence test? a. to identify children at risk of falling behind in school b. to compare children of different racial and ethnic backgrounds c. to measure IQ scores to determine genius-level abilities in children d. to create separate classrooms for high- and low-intelligence children 168. Which statement best represents Piaget’s thinking? a. Children are born with all of the schemas they will ever need. b. Intelligence is genetic and unfolds through maturation with the passage of time. c. Cognitive developments are based on children's interactions with the environment. d. Cognition is a simple process that is innate and becomes stronger with experience and time.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 169. Zack has been wetting the bed. A special pad is placed under him while he is sleeping. If the pad becomes wet, a circuit closes, causing a bell to ring. After several repetitions, Zack learns to wake up before wetting the pad.

Over time, Zack stops wetting the bed altogether. What is this behavioural technique an example of? a. learning perspective b. cognitive perspective c. biological perspective d. psychodynamic perspective 170. Which statement is characteristic of Piaget’s work? a. Cognitive developments are stage-based and universal. b. Development is haphazard, random, and based on experience. c. Perception is too directly linked to sensation to separate the two. d. Children learn in different sequences that are based on their environments.

171. An educator encourages children in her class to discover their environment and work on projects that stimulate their interests. How does this educator view children? a. as active b. as passive c. as continuous d. as discontinuous 172. Which of the following is a characteristic of the superego? a. It is present at birth. b. It is innate and transmitted to the child genetically. c. It represents the moral standards and values of parents. d. It develops to help the child find convenient ways of satisfying urges.

173. What is the function of schemas? a. They are action patterns. b. They restrict our understanding of the world. c. They limit our ability to learn about and to represent our world mentally. d. They guarantee that information processing will be unique and individualized.

174. How were children viewed in ancient times and in the Middle Ages? a. as essentially good b. as innately evil c. a tabula rasa d. as capable of reasoning 175. A study is investigating the effects of divorce on children over time. Which of Bronfenbrenner's systems is the study examining? a. an exosystem b. a mesosystem c. a macrosystem d. a chronosystem 176. Which statement best describes one of the major challenges to cross-sectional research? a. It is hampered by cost unlike any other form of research. b. It takes more time than all other types of research. c. There are societal changes that mean groups are not easily compared. d. It has too many ethical problems to be considered an effective research method.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 177. Who was most interested in how children perceive and mentally represent the world? a. Freud b. Skinner c. Erikson d. Piaget 178. What does Erikson’s psychosocial theory emphasize? a. the role of the id b. psychological traits c. lifespan development d. the importance of early experiences VARIABLES A study is being conducted on violent television and aggression.

179. What is the dependent variable? a. the television b. the study subject c. aggressiveness (the child’s behaviour) d. the type of TV program watched (violent or not) 180. A child attempts to assimilate new information but cannot. How will the child cope with this inability? a. The child will ignore the contradiction. b. The child may accommodate to restore equilibrium. c. The child will accept the incongruity. d. The child will give up and engage in another activity.

181. Cynthia's mother gives her an apple each day and tells her that apples are "fruit." One day, Cynthia's mother gives her an orange. She tells Cynthia the orange is also "fruit." How does Cynthia process this new information and her schema of "fruit”? a. She ignores the new information about oranges. b. She assimilates the new information about oranges into the existing schema. c. She incorporates the information so that her schema now includes apples and oranges. d. She eliminates the concept of apple so that her schema of fruit now contains only oranges.

182. What action might a teacher take when a child needs "time out from positive reinforcement”? a. placing the child in a “time-out seat” at the front of the classroom b. having the child write sentences on the board c. having the child sit and read a book in the corner of the classroom d. placing the child away from peers and classroom activities for a short time period 183. Dr. Barron wants to know which exhibits children prefer at the local children's museum. To find out, she discreetly watches to see which exhibits they visit most, and at which exhibits they spend the most time. What type of research method does Dr. Barron’s work represent? a. a standardized test b. a longitudinal study c. the case study method d. naturalistic observation a. Children actively construct their knowledge. b. maturation Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce c. theory of psychosocial development d. place information into existing schemas e. outside of awareness f. using consequences to alter behaviour g. Children are innately good. h. first year of life i. theory of psychosexual development j. standardized intelligence test k. Children are caught in conflicts. l. begins in the third year of life m. tested in experiments n. decreases behaviour o. modify schema to fit new information p. cultural setting q. increases behaviour r. Pavlov s. what we are currently aware of t. tabula rasa QUESTION TYPE: Matching CUSTOM ID: 01-194 184. Hypothesis 185. Oral stage 186. Operant conditioning 187. John Locke 188. Sigmund Freud 189. Macrosystem 190. Assimilation 191. Accommodation 192. Biological development 193. Punishment 194. Unconscious 195. Phallic stage 196. Jean Piaget 197. Classical conditioning 198. Alfred Binet 199. Conscious 200. Jean-Jacques Rousseau 201. Reinforcement 202. Psychoanalytic theories Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 203. Erik Erikson 204. Describe the three main controversies in human development.

205. How is the scientific method used to examine human development?

206. How do behaviourism and ethology differ in their approaches to explaining human development?

207. From the point of view of the child, give examples of the following: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, macrosystem, and chronosystem

208. How does the information-processing theory use the computer metaphor to describe human cognition?

209. Describe how adaptation is used to further development, according to Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory.

210. What are the costs and benefits of the longitudinal and cross-sectional research methods?

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 211. What ethical concerns must researchers consider when determining a study of human development?

212. How has the way children are viewed changed over history?

213. Compare and contrast Freud’s psychosexual theory and Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. False 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. False 24. True 25. False 26. True

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 27. False 28. True 29. True 30. True 31. False 32. False 33. True 34. True 35. True 36. True 37. True 38. False 39. True 40. False 41. False 42. True 43. False 44. False 45. False 46. False 47. True 48. True 49. True 50. False 51. True 52. True 53. a 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 55. c 56. a 57. a 58. d 59. b 60. b 61. a 62. a 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. d 67. c 68. b 69. b 70. b 71. a 72. c 73. c 74. c 75. d 76. c 77. a 78. a 79. a 80. a 81. b 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 83. b 84. a 85. d 86. b 87. a 88. c 89. c 90. b 91. a 92. d 93. d 94. d 95. c 96. b 97. a 98. b 99. c 100. c 101. a 102. d 103. d 104. b 105. b 106. c 107. d 108. b 109. d 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 111. a 112. a 113. c 114. a 115. d 116. d 117. a 118. b 119. c 120. a 121. c 122. c 123. b 124. b 125. a 126. d 127. a 128. b 129. c 130. c 131. c 132. d 133. c 134. b 135. a 136. d 137. b

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 138. c 139. b 140. b 141. d 142. d 143. d 144. c 145. c 146. d 147. a 148. d 149. a 150. b 151. c 152. b 153. c 154. c 155. c 156. b 157. b 158. a 159. a 160. d 161. a 162. c 163. c 164. c 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 166. d 167. a 168. c 169. a 170. d 171. a 172. c 173. a 174. b 175. d 176. c 177. d 178. c 179. c 180. b 181. c 182. d 183. d 184. m 185. h 186. f 187. t 188. i 189. p 190. d 191. o 192. b 193. n Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 194. e 195. l 196. a 197. r 198. j 199. s 200. g 201. q 202. k 203. c 204. The main controversies are: 1) nature vs. nurture, 2) continuity vs. discontinuity, and 3) active vs. passive.

The nature vs. nurture controversy is not as much a controversy as it is a debate. The issue is to delineate how much and which aspects of development are due to genetic influences and which are due to environmental influences. The issue of continuity or discontinuity concerns the orderliness and linearity of child development. Continuity theories assume that development is steady, gradual, stage-like, and sequential. Discontinuity theories stress individual differences in development and that development involves both gains and losses. The active vs. passive controversy focuses on how big a role the child plays in her own development. Theorists, such as Freud, seemed to think that development was something that happened to children (who were passive), whereas Piaget stressed the active role children take in their own cognitive development.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 205. We study human development in a scientific manner. ?

From observation, researchers may generate theories about why development might occur in certain ways.

Hypotheses may be generated that are specific testable predictions that can then be used to formulate experiments and conduct research. People may be studied using naturalistic observation. You might, for example, watch children at a daycare centre and document gender differences in amount and type of aggressive behaviours. Experiments may be conducted if they are considered to be ethical and not harmful to children. Individuals may be randomly assigned to groups and comparisons made. Suppose you have the hypothesis that giving rewards for good behaviour will increase those behaviours. You randomly assign 10 children to a “reward” group (the experimental group) and 10 to a “non-reward” group (the control group). You complete the first phase of the study by comparing the number of positive behaviours elicited by each child (to establish that your groups are comparable in the number of positive behaviours elicited prior to the second phase of the study). During the second phase of the study, you reward the positive behaviours of the children in the reward group but not those in the control group. During the third phase of the study, you count the number of positive behaviours elicited by the children in each group and then make comparisons. If the children in the reward group are engaging in more positive behaviours than those in the control group, you might conclude that their positive behaviours are due to the presence of the reward in one group and the absence of reward in the other group.

206. Behaviourism suggests that children are like clay, ready to be moulded. Parents are thought to provide this moulding, primarily through patterns of reinforcement and punishment. Theorists operating from this biological perspective look at maturation (the predetermined and orderly unfolding of abilities), and ethology examines instinctive or inborn behaviour patterns. Behaviourism assumes that the individual will start with few abilities, except for basic learning patterns, which are based on classical and operant conditioning in response to their environment, whereas ethological theorists assume that the individual brings a host of skills to bear from genetic inheritance.

207. Microsystem: parents, peers, teachers; Mesosystem: relationships among microsystems, such as parent-teacher conferences, school-community interactions on field trips; Exosystem: parents’ workplaces, poverty and unemployment of parents, school board; Macrosystem: cultural values(e.g., expectations for independence of children, belief in co-sleeping of parents and children, importance of mother staying at home with children); Chronosystem: time since divorce for family, historical events such as the Depression.

208. The computer, with its random-access memory, storage capacity, and software, is used as a metaphor for human cognition. Information is encoded or inputted into the “computer” and then manipulated in working memory (RAM).

Information may be stored in a storage device (short- or long-term memory) and retrieved when needed. Problemsolving strategies are considered to be “mental programs” or “software,” whereas the brain is considered to be the “hardware.” Limitations in thinking may be a result of limited memory capacity, retrieval problems, and ability to run multiple programs.

209. Adaptation is a biological necessity that people have to respond to changes in their environment, using the processes of assimilation and accommodation. Infants are born with basic schemas, which they use to understand their environments, through the process of assimilation. When the schemas are no longer able to work with new information, the schemas are changed through the process of accommodation. Through a series of disequilibrium and equilibrium states, cognitive processes are altered to fit the needs of the environment and the individual. The individual manipulates the environment like a scientist, by testing hypotheses and reaching higher levels of cognitive abilities in a series of stages from sensorimotor to preoperational, concrete operational, and finally formal operational thought.

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Chap 01_HDEV_4ce 210. Longitudinal studies examine longer-range development of a group of individuals over time. They may experience selective dropout or death of subjects and may cost more time and money than other methods. Cross-sectional studies compare different groups of individuals at the same time on one occasion. Many find that groups have different experiences depending on when they were born, which may make cohort effects problematic.

211. To manage ethical concerns, researchers must protect subjects from physical and psychological harm and must inform subjects of purpose of research and methods to be used. Participants must be allowed to provide voluntary consent to participate and to withdraw from the study at any time. Participants must be provided with information about the outcome of the study. The identity of participants must be kept confidential at all times. To proceed with such a study, the researchers must present their plans for their study to a group of peers and receive approval prior to beginning the study.

212. There have been differing views of children throughout history. Early views considered children to be evil and in need of harsh and persistent discipline. Other views looked upon children as miniature adults who simply needed to grow.

Advocates of this view, of course, would support putting children to work as soon as they were “big enough” to do the work. Others looked at childhood as a time of goodness or even “blankness,” making the child ready to experience the world and become whatever the environment destined the child to become. John Locke, for example, believed that children were born a “tabula rasa,” or clean slate. According to Locke, children were not born with inborn predispositions, which meant they were born ready to become anything. If the children’s environment and their caregiving were positive, they would become positive adults and do important things. If the children’s environment and their caregiving were negative, they were destined to wither and be less productive adults. This idea, of course, can be seen in statements of behavioural psychologists such as John Watson.

213. Freud’s theory considers the id to be the primary focus of development. The id, the instinctual needs, requires gratification, which the ego must supervise. During the psychosexual stages, fixation may occur if gratification is either over- or under-filled. Once fixation has occurred, it is difficult or impossible to repair. The psychosexual stages begin at birth and end during adolescence. Erikson’s theory considers the ego to be the primary focus of development. During the psychosocial stages, social conflicts must be resolved to have optimal development, although revisiting these conflicts later is possible. The psychosocial stages cover birth through late adulthood.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Monozygotic twins are conceived from separate egg cells. a. True b. False 2. Teratogens have the same effect on the developing organism throughout pregnancy. a. True b. False 3. Monozygotic twins share more personality traits and physical traits than dizygotic twins. a. True b. False 4. Commonly used drugs such as aspirin rarely cause problems for fetuses. a. True b. False 5. During the fetal period of prenatal development, the fetus responds to light and sounds. a. True b. False 6. Thalidomide causes major limb deformities during pregnancy. a. True b. False 7. PKU is transmitted by a dominant gene. a. True b. False 8. Environmental hazards such as lead and radiation may cause irreparable, long-term harm both physically and cognitively. a. True b. False 9. Vitamins cause no harm in developing fetuses. a. True b. False 10. Diabetes mellitus, epilepsy, and peptic ulcers are caused by genetic factors alone. a. True b. False 11. Diseases such as syphilis and HIV/AIDS are rarely harmful to the fetus or newborn infant. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 12. Polygenic traits are transmitted by a single pair of genes. a. True b. False 13. Most people with Tay-Sachs disease die in their mid- to late-forties. a. True b. False 14. Fetuses “take what they need” nutritionally from the mother and therefore mothers are free to eat what they want. a. True b. False 15. Sperm are responsible for determining the gender of the offspring. a. True b. False 16. Genes are the biochemical materials that regulate the development of traits. a. True b. False 17. A person who has a dominant trait for brown eyes and a recessive trait for blue eyes is most likely to be browneyed. a. True b. False 18. During the germinal period of development, the ovum is fertilized, cells divide, and the blastocyst is implanted in the uterine wall. a. True b. False 19. During the ninth month of pregnancy, the fetus becomes more active, getting ready for the birth process. a. True b. False 20. Low sperm count is the most common infertility problem in men. a. True b. False 21. "Carriers" for traits have two recessive genes for those traits. a. True b. False 22. Teratogens include drugs, heavy metals, and disease-causing organisms. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 23. The placenta protects the developing organism from all harmful substances. a. True b. False 24. Amniocentesis and CVS have no known risks to the unborn embryo. a. True b. False 25. Since fetuses take what they need from the mothers, few babies are born malnourished. a. True b. False 26. Ultrasound uses harmless sound waves to examine the developing organism. a. True b. False 27. Our phenotype is influenced by the environment. a. True b. False 28. Women create viable ova throughout their lives, from their first period through menopause. a. True b. False 29. After mitosis, a cell has 23 pairs of chromosomes. a. True b. False 30. Parents and children have 25% overlap in genes. a. True b. False 31. The ages of both parents have been found to impact the health of a baby. a. True b. False 32. Genetic counselling is used only prior to a woman getting pregnant. a. True b. False 33. DNA takes the form of a double helix, or twisting ladder, is made up of base pairs, and determines how the organism will develop. a. True b. False

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 34. Each cell in our body contains 26 chromosomes. a. True b. False 35. Infertility is always the woman’s problem. a. True b. False 36. Rubella causes deafness, intellectual challenges, and heart problems. a. True b. False 37. Nearly one-third of all pregnancies result in miscarriage. a. True b. False 38. Sexual differentiation of the embryo is determined by the presence of the X chromosome. a. True b. False 39. Monozygotic twins reared apart share just as many similarities in temperament and personality as monozygotic twins reared together. a. True b. False 40. Babies born to fathers who smoke cigarettes have higher rates of birth defects. a. True b. False 41. Down syndrome is associated with an extra chromosome on the 21st pair. a. True b. False 42. Toxemia may cause maternal deaths. a. True b. False 43. Type A blood is a recessive trait. a. True b. False 44. Sex chromosomes utilize meiosis to divide. a. True b. False

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 45. Huntington disease is a fatal, progressive degenerative disorder and a recessive trait. a. True b. False 46. Physicians may treat endometriosis through surgery or with hormones that temporarily prevent menstruation. a. True b. False 47. The major organ systems differentiate during the embryonic period of development. a. True b. False 48. Hemophilia is a type of sex-linked genetic abnormality. a. True b. False 49. Rh incompatibility is primarily a problem after a first pregnancy. a. True b. False 50. Sickle-cell anemia is more common among Caucasian North Americans than minority groups in the North America. a. True b. False 51. The typical sex chromosome pattern for females is XY. a. True b. False 52. Use of illicit drugs such as marijuana, heroin, and cocaine during pregnancy may cause offspring to have cognitive impairments later in life. a. True b. False 53. DES was used to prevent miscarriage in the 1940s and 1950s but caused cervical and testicular cancer in some offspring. a. True b. False 54. The science of heredity is called "eugenics." a. True b. False 55. Artificial insemination involves implanting a viable embryo into the uterus of a woman. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 56. It is currently impossible to select the sex of one’s child. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

57. Next year you will be pursuing an education in the field of heredity. If someone asked you what exactly you will be studying, which word would you most likely use? a. etiology b. genetics c. biology d. eugenics 58. Which of the following results from a dominant trait? a. type O blood b. straight hair c. myopia d. farsightedness 59. What is the cause of cystic fibrosis? a. a recessive gene b. a dominant gene c. incomplete mitosis d. an abnormality in the 21st pair of chromosomes 60. Mona is told during her prenatal medical appointment that the major organ systems have differentiated. What is this developmental stage called? a. the fetal stage b. the germinal stage c. the embryonic stage d. the blastocystic stage 61. What is a defining characteristic of a recessive gene? a. It is expressed when it is paired with another recessive gene. b. It is expressed only when it is paired with a dominant gene. c. It is expressed regardless of whether it is paired with a recessive or a dominant gene. d. It is rarely passed on to offspring.

62. Debbie was born with a disease that has left her without an enzyme required for neurological functioning. Her doctors predict that she will not live beyond the age of 5 years. What disorder does Debbie have? a. sickle-cell anemia b. Down syndrome c. Tay-Sachs disease d. phenylketonuria 63. A first-time expectant mother is confused about what teratogens are and the risks they pose during her pregnancy. Which of the following would you tell her? a. They are only those substances the mother’s body produces. b. They harm the fetus only when taken in extremely large doses. c. They are most damaging during the fetal period of development. d. They are environmental agents that can harm the embryo or fetus.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 64. You are a pregnant woman who has just consulted a genetic counsellor. You are concerned about Huntington disease and ask what progress is being made to address it. You are told that clinical trials into a “genetic miracle” are underway. What have trials revealed? a. a preventive medication that can be taken by pregnant women b. an injection to the spine that appears to stop the progress of the disease c. a cocktail of medications to be taken by infants to prevent the disease d. an injection to the amniotic sac to cure the disease in babies 65. What can we conclude about a boy with two alleles for brown eyes? a. He has blue eyes. b. He is referred to as "atypical.” c. He is homozygous for eye colour. d. He has eye colour as a co-dominant trait.

66. You are out with your friends and you want to dazzle them with your new child development knowledge. You decide to inform your friend Peter of his chromosome pattern. Which pattern do you describe? a. XX b. XY c. XYY d. XXY 67. Which person has a dominant trait? a. Andrea who has myopia b. Richard who has red-green colour blindness c. Lynne who has Type O blood d. Wayne who has Type B blood 68. What is a common characteristic of most individuals who have an abnormal number of sex chromosomes? a. They have flat faces. b. They are infertile. c. They have more body hair than normal. d. They have round faces.

69. Joshua was born with an inherited disease that blocked the development of an enzyme critical for development.

Over time, Joshua has developed profound intellectual challenges. What disorder does Joshua have? a. Tay-Sachs disease b. sickle-cell anemia c. phenylketonuria d. Down syndrome 70. Why are sex-linked diseases more likely to affect sons of female carriers? a. These diseases are carried on dominant genes. b. These diseases are carried on the Y chromosome. c. Females are at a diminished risk because they could inherit a XYY profile. d. Males have only one X chromosome, which they inherit from their mothers.

71. Which of the following is a characteristic of dominant alleles? a. They cause traits in individuals when paired with recessive alleles. b. They come from the father of the developing child. c. They are determined during mitosis. d. They are determined by the parents during the germinal period.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 72. Which of the following may cause infertility in women? a. tattoos b. lack of physical exercise c. stress d. motility 73. What is the cause of sickle-cell anemia? a. a recessive gene b. a slow destruction of the liver leading to jaundice and swollen joints c. white blood cells that take on the shape of a sickle and clump together d. red blood cells that expand the blood vessels and increase the oxygen supply 74. What does research state regarding the effects of caffeine consumption during pregnancy? a. It is difficult to measure the presence of caffeine in the bloodstream. b. It is inconclusive in terms of caffeine’s neurological effects. c. Caffeine has the same effect as cocaine on the developing fetus. d. Such research is limited because many women abstain from caffeine use while pregnant.

75. Your pregnant niece is scheduled for an amniocentesis, but she is confused by all the prenatal tests she has read about. What do you tell her about the process of amniocentesis? a. It has not been used as frequently as CVS because amniocentesis carries a slightly greater risk of spontaneous abortion. b. It is carried out later in a pregnancy than a CVS. c. It involves a procedure that inserts a small syringe through the vagina. d. It involves the examination of villi from the membrane that envelops the amniotic sac and fetus.

76. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of the placenta? a. It develops from only the mother’s tissue. b. It is reused for each of a woman’s pregnancies. c. It acts as an impermeable barrier that protects the developing fetus from toxins. d. It acts as a filter that permits oxygen and nutrients from the mother to reach the embryo.

77. Approximately how many live births in Canada are multiple births? a. 1 in 30 b. 1 in 20 c. 1 in 10 d. 1 in 2 78. What does the Canadian Down Syndrome Society tell parents of children with Down Syndrome? a. High expectations and lots of support are key to ensuring the success of their child. b. Putting a child with Down syndrome into mainstream schools is harmful. c. Finding a special program that will have low expectations for learning and development is critical. d. Outlining the child’s deficits early on prevents unrealistic expectations.

79. A person who inherits a gene for blonde hair and a gene for brown hair will have brown hair. What can we conclude about the gene for brown hair? a. It is more common. b. It is recessive. c. It is dominant. d. It is rare.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 80. What does DNA stand for? a. dionucleic acid b. dionyotic acetate c. deoxyribonucleic acid d. diophosphate nucleic acetone 81. Two-week-old Isaiah, a child of Jewish heritage, is most at risk of having which disease? a. sickle-cell anemia b. hemophilia c. Huntington disease d. Tay-Sachs disease 82. How many ova does a human female have at birth? a. zero; ova develop during puberty b. between 50,000 and 100,000 ova c. approximately 400,000 ova d. millions of ova 83. A Canadian couple want to have a child as soon as possible. What are their chances of having difficulties conceiving? a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 50 c. 1 in 20 d. 1 in 6 84. What term refers to the sperm's ability to move? a. infection b. propulsion c. evolution d. motility 85. According to the Huntington Society of Canada, when is Huntington disease (HD) typically diagnosed? a. between 12 and 18 years of age b. in middle adulthood c. before age 40 in women and 50 in men d. after the age of 60 years of age 86. DNA takes the form of what physical shape? a. a zipper b. a straight ladder c. a twisting ladder d. interlocking circles 87. In Canada what percentage of infertility cases can be traced to the man? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 40 88. A woman gives birth to dizygotic twins. Without having met this woman, what do you know about her? a. She is a young mother. b. She is of Asian descent. c. She has a decreased chance of subsequent pregnancies. d. She has an increased chance of giving birth to twins in future pregnancies.

89. What is the most common fertility problem in women? a. PID b. endometriosis c. irregular ovulation or lack of ovulation d. barriers to the passageways through which the ovum must pass

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 90. What occurs during menstruation? a. An unfertilized egg is discharged. c. The fertilized egg undergoes meiosis.

b. The fertilized egg undergoes mitosis. d. The fertilized egg attaches to the uterus.

91. What is the purpose of the amniotic sac? a. It develops into the umbilical cord. b. It contains fluid to allow the embryo and fetus to move around. c. It protects the developing organism from harmful toxins. d. It permits the exchange of nutrients and waste with the mother.

92. What is formed during mitosis? a. mutation b. 23 chromosomes c. sperm and ova cells d. new cells with identical DNA 93. What can an ultrasound detect? a. PKU b. cystic fibrosis c. Klinefelter syndrome d. the position of the fetus 94. Only 1 in 1,000 sperm will arrive in the vicinity of an ovum. Which of the following factors may prevent sperm cells from travelling the entire distance to the egg? a. the woman’s age b. menstruation c. length of time since last ovulation d. gravity 95. Baby A has two X chromosomes while Baby B has an X chromosome and a Y chromosome. What can you conclude about these two babies? a. The babies will have different hair colour. b. Baby A is a girl and Baby B is a boy. c. Baby A is a boy and Baby B is a girl. d. Baby A suffers a genetic error and Baby B is healthy.

96. When is amniocentesis usually performed? a. at 6-8 weeks b. at 9-12 weeks c. at 14-16 weeks d. at 20-23 weeks 97. Children with PKU will develop normally if they are placed on a special diet. What does their special diet exclude? a. phenyl acids b. aproteins c. ketones d. phenylalanine 98. Jeffrey, who is an adopted child, has some characteristics that are more similar to his natural parents than to his adoptive parents. What is the most appropriate conclusion? a. The adoptive parents have not included him in their family cultural activities. b. Heredity plays a diminished role in the formation of personality. c. Environment influences who we are and who we become. d. Genetics play a role in the development of certain human characteristics.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 99. What is the cause of Down syndrome? a. alcohol abuse by the father b. alcohol abuse by the mother c. sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities d. abnormalities of the 21st pair of chromosomes 100. Which of the following is an essential attribute of Down syndrome? a. It is caused by a virus during pregnancy. b. It is significantly more likely in boys than girls. c. It is caused by a defect on the sex chromosomes. d. It impacts cognitive and motor development but not one’s potential for achievement.

101. According to the Canadian Cystic Fibrosis Foundation, what is a published fact about cystic fibrosis? a. It is the least common fatal hereditary disease among Canadians. b. It results from an abnormality on the 20th pair of chromosomes. c. It is a blood disorder common to those with an Eastern European background. d. It affects approximately 1 in every 3,500 Canadians.

102. Which individual is most likely to have Tay-Sachs disease? a. a 4-year-old child of Jewish descent b. a 5-year-old child of European descent c. a 10-year-old child of African descent d. a 20-year-old male of Spanish descent 103. Maria and Eric are told they are "carriers" of a particular trait? What does that mean? a. They bear co-dominant genes for a trait. b. They bear two dominant genes for a trait. c. They carry two recessive genes for a trait. d. They carry one recessive and one dominant gene for a trait.

104. What is the current thinking regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy? a. It is safe after the end of the second trimester. b. It should be encouraged because it relaxes the mother. c. It may lead to cognitive deficits and physical malformations. d. It is safe as long as fewer than two drinks are consumed per day.

105. Dr. White specializes in prenatal medicine and performs numerous amniocenteses each year. Which woman is Dr White most likely to recommend for an amniocentesis? a. an Asian-Canadian woman b. an African-Canadian woman c. a woman older than age 35 d. a woman younger than age 20 106. Which condition is caused by abnormalities in the 22 pairs of autosomes? a. cystic fibrosis b. Down syndrome c. sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities d. myopia

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 107. What is used to detect neural tube defects such as spina bifida? a. an ultrasound b. an Rh disease test c. genetic counselling d. an alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) assay 108. Richard and Alice have just conceived. They joke, by stating “they are building a baby.” Precisely how many chromosomes will Alice contribute? a. 13 b. 23 c. 46 d. 92 109. How is HIV/AIDS transmitted in pregnant women? a. It is always transmitted from the pregnant woman to the unborn child. b. It is usually transmitted during pregnancy from the mother to unborn child. c. It is caused by casual contact between the pregnant woman and someone with the disease. d. It is transmitted through breast milk or during a vaginal delivery more frequently than during pregnancy.

110. What characteristic is unique about polygenic traits? a. They are uncommon in humans. b. They are transmitted only by the female. c. They are determined by many pairs of genes. d. They are transmitted by a single pair of genes.

111. What is the name of the thousands of segments contained in chromosomes? a. nuclei b. genes c. cytosine d. phosphates 112. At the moment of conception, how many chromosomes does a healthy zygote contain? a. 20 b. 32 c. 46 d. 48 113. What is the correct order of the three prenatal stages? a. embryonic, fetal, meiotic b. meiotic, embryonic, fetal c. germinal, fetal, embryonic d. germinal, embryonic, fetal 114. Queen Victoria was a carrier of which of the following? a. myopia b. red-green colour blindness c. phenylketonuria d. hemophilia 115. What would you tell your girlfriend who is wondering about taking vitamins during her pregnancy? a. They rarely cause damage to a developing fetus. b. They are as dangerous as heroin and methadone. c. They should be taken in the dosage directed by a doctor. d. They are most effective when taken in higher dosages than are used when one is not pregnant.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 116. Cathy and Doug both have brown eyes. If their child has blue eyes, what can we conclude about Cathy’s and Doug’s genes for blue eyes? a. Both Cathy and Doug must be carrying a recessive gene for blue eyes. b. Either Cathy or Doug must be carrying a recessive gene for blue eyes. c. Both Cathy and Doug must be carrying a dominant gene for blue eyes. d. Either Cathy or Doug must be carrying a dominant gene for blue eyes.

117. What technique generates a picture of the fetus? a. a fetoscopy b. an ultrasound c. an amniocentesis d. a chorionic villus sampling 118. What can cause infertility problems in men? a. use of drugs b. lack of exercise c. excessive masturbation d. excess protein in the diet 119. What is the primary purpose of genetic counselling? a. to outline the genetic risks of unprotected sex b. to advise couples to abort their unborn children c. to prove that a child will develop a certain illness d. to assist would-be parents in making decisions about having children 120. Which statement best describes a miscarriage? a. It rarely occurs during the first trimester of pregnancy. b. It occurs in approximately one-third of all pregnancies. c. It occurs as a result of menstrual flow that occurs too late after ovulation. d. It is common when women who are pregnant bleed during implantation of the blastocyst into the uterine wall.

121. What is the effect of cigarette smoking during pregnancy? a. It has no long-term adverse effects. b. It is harmful only if the mother is not taking prenatal vitamins. c. It is associated with low birth weight and increased risk of stillbirth and infant mortality. d. It is only a problem if the woman smokes; second-hand smoke holds no risk for the developing fetus.

122. Approximately how many sperm cells are contained in a single ejaculate? a. 50 million b. 100 million c. 150 million d. 300 million 123. What disorder is caused by a sex-linked genetic abnormality? a. hemophilia b. Tay-Sachs disease c. cystic fibrosis d. Huntington disease

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 124. A pregnant friend is concerned that she may have been exposed to harmful pesticides. Which statement reflects what you would tell her? a. She should relax because pesticide exposure will not harm an embryo or fetus. b. The amount of the substance and the time during the pregnancy when she was exposed will determine the impact. c. There is a very good chance that her baby will be physically and cognitively impacted by the exposure. d. Pesticides are most harmful just before birth.

125. Which statement distinguishes the conception of males from the conception of females? a. More males are conceived and more survive to birth. b. Fewer males are conceived, but more survive to birth. c. Fewer males are conceived and more are spontaneously aborted. d. More males are conceived and more are spontaneously aborted.

126. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of monozygotic twins? a. They share 50% of their genetic material. b. They are as different as non-twin siblings. c. They will look very similar in physical appearance. d. They are formed from two eggs but are fertilized by the same sperm.

127. What would you tell a woman who is worried about exposure to environmental hazards during her pregnancy? a. Environmental hazards include ultrasound and X-rays. b. Environmental hazards include lead, mercury, PCBs, and radiation. c. Environmental hazards lead to severe cognitive disabilities, but rarely physical deformations. d. Environmental hazards are only a problem if the pregnant woman was exposed during the embryonic period of development.

128. Janet has Huntington disease and knows that approximately half of her children will also have Huntington disease. What will cause this disease to occur in her children? a. a blood disorder b. a recessive trait c. a dominant trait d. a personality disorder 129. Which person is most likely to develop sickle-cell anemia? a. a person of Asian descent b. a person of African descent c. a person of Irish descent d. a person of Jewish descent 130. Which of the following is most influenced by environment? a. genes b. genotype c. phenotype d. chromosomes 131. What is another term for "reduction division"? a. mitosis b. meiosis c. cell death d. neural pruning

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 132. Which statement best describes the effects of nutrition during pregnancy? a. Maternal malnutrition has been linked to low birth weight and cardiovascular disease. b. The effects of fetal malnutrition cannot be overcome after birth. c. Pregnant women can eat and drink whatever they want because their fetuses are not affected by what their mothers consume. d. Fetal overnutrition is more of a problem than fetal malnutrition.

133. What is the result of a zygote that divides into two cells that separate? a. mitosis b. dizygotic twins c. cross-fertilization d. monozygotic twins 134. If you were to paint a picture of a chromosome, what shape would you depict? a. a rod b. a cone c. a circle d. an octagon 135. Trevor is an African-Canadian child who was born with a disease that altered the shape of his blood cells. He has impaired cognitive skills, acute pain, and is blind. What disorder does Trevor have? a. phenylketonuria b. sickle-cell anemia c. Down syndrome d. Tay-Sachs disease 136. Ben and Natalie are having difficulty conceiving, although both have children from previous relationships. What does the textbook tells us about the cause of infertility being a male or female problem? a. It is predominately a woman’s problem. b. It is predominately a man’s problem. c. The problem lies with the man about 40% of the time. d. The problem lies with the woman about 80% of the time.

137. You are a science teacher and one of your students asks: “How many genes ultimately govern our heredity?”

What is your reply? a. We have 1,000 to 1,500 genes in our cells. b. We have 10,000 to 20,000 genes in our cells. c. We have 20,000 to 25,000 genes in our cells. d. We have 25,000 to 35,000 genes in our cells.

138. When are Canadians screened for phenylketonuria? a. prior to birth b. at birth c. at the age of 6 months d. upon entering kindergarten 139. When does the onset of sexual differentiation occur? a. during the germinal period b. during the embryonic period c. when the X chromosome is present d. when secondary sex characteristics are present

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 140. What does CVS stand for? a. cervical villus sampling c. chorionic villus sampling

b. cervical variability study d. chorionic variability sampling

141. Which statement best describes the sperm cell before meiosis? a. It contains 46 chromosomes. b. It contains two X chromosomes. c. It is significantly larger than the egg cell. d. It is more likely to conceive a girl than a boy.

142. What is the biggest risk of amniocentesis? a. cognitive delay in 1 of every 100 births b. cesarean delivery in 1 of every 100 births c. sterility in 1 of every 100 births d. fetal loss in one half of one percentage of all pregnancies 143. Which scenario results in conjoined twins? a. Two ova are produced and fertilized by joined sperm cells. b. Two eggs fail to separate on the 13th day after conception. c. Two different sperm fertilize the same egg. d. Cell mutation takes place prior to the end of the first trimester.

144. A girl who has cystic fibrosis has moved into your neighbourhood. Without having met her, what do you know about her? a. She has a younger mother. b. She has more than 23 chromosomal pairs. c. She cannot metabolize phenylalanine. d. She did not have a dominant gene to cancel out the cystic fibrosis.

145. How does an ultrasound work? a. It allows the human ear to hear the fetus. b. It yields a picture called a "cat-scan." c. It bounces sound waves off the fetus. d. It uses X-ray photography to take a picture of the unborn child.

146. What is the function of genes? a. They regulate the development of traits. b. They decide the gender of the child. c. They hardwire people for certain levels of some traits. d. They work together with lutein to influence development.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 148. What is the diagnosis of an infant born with 47 chromosomes instead of 46? a. phenylketonuria b. sickle-cell anemia c. Down syndrome d. Tay-Sachs disease 149. What factor determines the sex of a child? a. the presence of diamniotic acetate in the uterus b. the sex chromosome received from the father c. the time in the ovulation cycle when conception occurs d. the presence or absence of teratogens at the time of conception 150. What develops from the neural tube during the prenatal period of development? a. the digestive system b. the muscular system c. the arm buds and leg buds d. the central nervous system 151. During which stage of prenatal development does the developing organism gain the most weight and length? a. the fetal stage b. the germinal stage c. the embryonic stage d. the diaphragmatic stage 152. Jill carries two genes for brown eyes, and Jack carries two genes for blue eyes. What can we predict about their child’s eye colour? a. Their child will have a 50% chance of having brown eyes. b. Their child will have a 75% chance of having brown eyes. c. Their child will have a 100% chance of having blue eyes. d. Their child will have a 100% chance of having brown eyes.

153. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of hemophilia? a. It affects only females. b. It is carried by the father’s recessive gene. c. It is carried on the X chromosome. d. It is caused by damage to the 14th chromosomal pair.

154. What is the fluid-filled ball of cells that develops during the germinal stage of pregnancy? a. the fetus b. the germin c. the umbilicus d. the blastocyst 155. Which statement best describes colour blindness? a. It is an enzyme disorder. b. It is a disorder found only in children. c. It is a protein-based disorder. d. It is a sex-linked disorder.

156. Ova are sometimes fertilized in vitro, tested for sex chromosomal structure, and then the embryos of the desired sex are implanted into the mother-to-be. What term refers to this process? a. PID b. IVF c. PGD d. OIV

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 157. What term describes each member of a pair of genes? a. an allele b. an autosome c. a homozygous trait d. a heterozygous trait 158. What is the meaning of “heredity”? a. the manifestation of traits in a person’s characteristics b. the biological transmission of traits and characteristics c. the combination of genes that influence our phenotype d. the division of cells that determine the person we become 159. Which group shares the most similar genetic material? a. dizygotic twins b. grandmothers c. cousins d. monozygotic twins 160. What is the purpose of the alpha-fetoprotein assay? a. to detect neural tube defects b. to measure enzyme levels in the fetus c. to assess sex chromosome abnormalities d. to assess the degree of cognitive delay 161. What type of disorder is phenylketonuria? a. an enzyme disorder b. a disorder transmitted by a dominant gene c. a disorder that manifests itself in all children of carriers d. a disorder caused by alcohol consumption during pregnancy 162. In one stage of prenatal development, conception occurs, the zygote divides, and then implantation in the uterine wall occurs. What term describes this stage? a. the fetal stage b. the mitotic stage c. the germinal stage d. the embryonic stage 163. What has research found regarding marijuana use during pregnancy? a. Infants incur learning problems, but no physical problems. b. Infants incur significant long-term physical deficits. c. Addiction to marijuana as an adult is increased in an embryo or fetus exposed to marijuana in utero. d. Because this substance is rarely used, research results are limited.

164. What method of cell reproduction allows for more genetic "variability”? a. cloning b. meiosis c. mitosis d. cross-fertilization 165. You are scheduled to have an amniocentesis. What will occur during this medical process? a. Fluid will be tested from the "sac" containing the fetus. b. A biopsy will be taken from your spine. c. Your sperm will be tested for genetic abnormalities. d. Your eggs will be tested for genetic abnormalities.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 166. What term refers to our actual set of characteristics or traits? a. genotype b. personality c. phenotype d. temperament 167. What term describes a person who has two alleles for the same trait? a. dizygotic b. homozygous c. monozygotic d. heterozygous 168. Some twin pairs look more like each other than other twin pairs. Which twin pairs resemble each other the most? a. monozygotic twin pairs b. dizygotic twin pairs of either sex c. dizygotic twin pairs who are males d. monozygotic twin pairs who are female 169. Which of the following is influenced by genetics? a. resilience b. eye colour c. motivation d. friendship choices 170. Your friends are considering starting a family and one of them has Huntington disease. What can you tell the couple about the likelihood of giving birth to a child who also has Huntington disease? a. They have a 10% chance of giving birth to a child with Huntington disease. b. They have a 50% chance of giving birth to a child with Huntington disease. c. They have a 75% chance of giving birth to a child with Huntington disease. d. They have a 100% chance of giving birth to a child with Huntington disease.

171. Which term refers to the environmental factors that contribute to birth defects? a. stressors b. teratogens c. genetic inhibitors d. toxins 172. Which of the following is a characteristic of toxemia? a. It has clear causal factors. b. It sometimes causes maternal death. c. It is a problem for only the unborn child. d. It usually causes babies to be born extremely overweight.

173. Your sister tells you her friend’s child has been diagnosed with Tay-Sachs disease. Your sister asks you what you know about this disease. What do you tell her? a. It is caused by a dominant gene. b. It is linked to the X chromosome. c. It affects the pancreas and the lungs. d. It is a fatal degenerative disease of the central nervous system.

174. How many chromosomes are contained in a cell created during meiosis? a. 23 b. 25 c. 43 d. 46

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 175. Which woman has the highest likelihood of having a preterm birth? a. Janisha, who is 16 years old b. Jill, who is 20 years old c. Tonya, who is 27 years old d. Brenda, who is 38 years old 176. Which of the following is a defining characteristic of the sperm cell? a. It contains two Y chromosomes. b. It is significantly larger than the egg cell. c. It is one of the smallest types of cells in the body. d. It does not determine the gender of the developing child.

177. The term “infertile” refers to a couple who have been unsuccessful at conceiving. What criterion must be met before this term is used? a. one year of failed attempts b. four years of failed attempts c. four failed attempts to get pregnant d. two miscarriages in the fourth month of pregnancy 178. After ejaculation, how long does it take sperm to reach the fallopian tubes? a. 60 to 90 seconds b. 5 to 15 minutes c. 20 to 30 minutes d. 60 to 90 minutes 179. Researchers have studied and compared the similarities between monozygotic and dizygotic twins. According to your textbook, a similarity in which characteristic shared by monozygotic twins appears to be linked more to genetics than to environment? a. measures of strength b. intelligence c. weight d. number of children they conceive 180. Which statement is helpful in understanding the nature of Rh incompatibility? a. It is worse for a woman who is having her first pregnancy. b. It is a disorder that can be treated through surgery when the fetus is in the uterus. c. It is a problem that inflicts approximately 90% of Canadian couples. d. It causes a mother’s body to produce antibodies that attack the fetus and can lead to brain damage or death.

181. What is the general finding of studies on monozygotic twins reared in separate environments? a. They are identical in genetics, behaviours, and preferences. b. They are less alike, genetically, than dizygotic twins reared together. c. They are no more alike in genetics, behaviours, and preferences than non-twin siblings. d. They share the same degree of genetic similarity as monozygotic twins reared together.

182. Which procedure poses the least risk to the fetus? a. an ultrasound b. an amniocentesis c. an alpha-fetoprotein assay d. chorionic villus sampling

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 183. In which process is sperm injected into the uterus at the time of ovulation? a. IVF b. artificial insemination c. donor IVF d. pergonal 184. Of the 23 pairs of chromosomes, 22 pairs look alike and possess genetic information concerning the same traits.

What term refers to these 22 pairs of chromosomes? a. autosomes b. sperm cells c. sex chromosomes d. identical chromosomes 185. What would you tell a woman who is concerned about the risks of fetal testing? a. No risk is associated with fetal testing. b. Because of the risks, fetal testing should not be done. c. The risk in fetal testing is to the mother, not the fetus. d. Although fetal testing has some risk, it is sometimes considered necessary.

186. What substance was once used to treat insomnia and nausea but caused major birth defects? a. DES b. hormones c. antibiotics d. thalidomide 187. What is the definition of heredity? a. the molecular structure of the rod-shaped structures located in the cells b. physical traits determined by the combining of various genes c. the cell division process by which growth occurs and tissues are replaced d. one's nature, which is based on biological transmission of genetic material.

188. What has research concluded after studying fetuses and their perception of sound during the third trimester? a. Fetuses are unresponsive to outside stimuli. b. Fetuses respond to visual stimuli only. c. Fetuses respond to rate of speech and prefer faster speakers to slower ones. d. Fetuses can learn to recognize the sounds of books being read to them.

189. You are 9 weeks pregnant and are concerned your baby may have a genetic defect. What medical procedure will most likely be recommended? a. fetoscopy b. ultrasound c. amniocentesis d. chorionic villus sampling 190. What branch of science includes the study of genetics? a. chemistry b. physics c. biology d. psychology

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 191. Which statement characterizes the relationship between pregnancy and rubella? a. If a woman is infected within the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, she is at lower risk than if she were infected later. b. If a woman is infected within the first 20 weeks of pregnancy, the newborn may have birth defects. c. Women who had rubella as children are at an increased risk of being infected during pregnancy. d. Rubella during pregnancy is relatively harmless to the mother and child.

192. What is the relationship between parents’ age and successful childbearing? a. Parents’ age is unrelated to childbearing success. b. The optimal time for childbearing is during the teenage years. c. An optimal time for childbearing may exist for both mothers and fathers. d. Women in their 20s are at greater risk for miscarriage and inadequate prenatal care than teenaged and older mothers.

193. Which symptom describes Huntington disease (HD)? a. infertility b. an inability to metabolize an amino acid c. an inability to control movements and emotions d. complications such as blindness 194. Which person has a recessive trait? a. Jack, who has dimples b. Martha, who has red hair c. Janice, who has been diagnosed as being farsighted d. David, who has very curly hair 195. Which genes do parents share with their children and their siblings? a. dominant genes only b. recessive genes only c. approximately 25% of their genetic material d. approximately 50% of their genetic material a. sex-linked genetic abnormality b. both alleles for a trait are the same c. cell division that results in identical cells d. the genetic material received from parents e. caused by a recessive gene f. polygenically determined g. male hormone h. genetically male i. twins produced from a single egg j. cell division that results in non-identical cells k. union of an ovum and a sperm cell Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce l. female hormone m. associated with the 21st pair of chromosomes n. how genetic material manifests itself in characteristics o. twins produced from two eggs p. present at birth q. determined by father r. both alleles for a trait differ s. caused by a dominant gene t. genetically female QUESTION TYPE: Matching CUSTOM ID: 02-206 196. XY sex chromosomes 197. Monozygotic 198. Sickle-cell anemia 199. Meiosis 200. Phenotype 201. Homozygous 202. Hemophilia 203. Down’s syndrome 204. Huntington disease 205. Intelligence 206. Dizygotic 207. Mitosis 208. Genotype 209. Heterozygous 210. Testosterone 211. Gender of child 212. XX sex chromosomes 213. Estrogen 214. Conception 215. Congenital 216. How does studying monozygotic and dizygotic twins help in understanding the genetic basis for a trait or behaviour?

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 217. What are some of the major fertility problems for males and females? What are possible causes of these problems?

218. What is "amniocentesis?" When is it likely to be performed and what can be determined by doing so?

219. Briefly describe the difference(s) between "recessive" and "dominant" genes.

220. A friend of yours is pregnant. She has read about the potential problems that could occur with a pregnancy. On the basis of this chapter, what three pieces of advice would you offer to ease her concerns for her unborn child?

221. Describe two examples of recessive genetic disorders.

222. A friend has asked you to describe the difference between "genotype" and "phenotype." On the basis of the material in Chapter Two of the textbook, how would you describe the difference?

223. Briefly describe the difference(s) between cell division as the result of "meiosis" and cell division as the result of "mitosis."

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 224. What is a teratogen? Describe two teratogens and their effects on the developing organism.

225. Describe two different methods of helping infertile couples.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. False 24. False 25. False 26. True

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 27. True 28. False 29. True 30. False 31. True 32. False 33. True 34. False 35. False 36. True 37. True 38. False 39. True 40. True 41. True 42. True 43. False 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. True 48. True 49. True 50. False 51. False 52. True 53. True 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 55. False 56. False 57. b 58. d 59. a 60. c 61. a 62. c 63. d 64. b 65. c 66. b 67. d 68. b 69. c 70. d 71. a 72. c 73. a 74. b 75. b 76. d 77. a 78. a 79. c 80. c 81. d 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 83. d 84. d 85. b 86. c 87. d 88. d 89. c 90. a 91. b 92. d 93. d 94. d 95. b 96. c 97. d 98. d 99. d 100. d 101. d 102. a 103. d 104. c 105. c 106. b 107. d 108. b 109. d 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 111. b 112. c 113. d 114. d 115. c 116. a 117. b 118. a 119. d 120. b 121. c 122. c 123. a 124. b 125. d 126. c 127. b 128. c 129. b 130. c 131. b 132. a 133. d 134. a 135. b 136. c 137. c

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 138. b 139. b 140. c 141. a 142. d 143. b 144. d 145. c 146. a 147. a 148. c 149. b 150. d 151. a 152. d 153. c 154. d 155. d 156. c 157. a 158. b 159. d 160. a 161. a 162. c 163. c 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 166. c 167. b 168. a 169. b 170. b 171. b 172. b 173. d 174. a 175. a 176. c 177. a 178. d 179. b 180. d 181. d 182. c 183. b 184. a 185. d 186. d 187. d 188. d 189. d 190. c 191. b 192. c 193. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 194. b 195. d 196. e 197. i 198. e 199. j 200. n 201. b 202. a 203. m 204. s 205. f 206. o 207. c 208. d 209. r 210. g 211. q 212. t 213. l 214. k 215. p 216. Monozygotic twins are identical in their genetic endowment, whereas dizygotic twins share as much of their genetics as non-twin siblings do. This difference allows researchers to tease apart the relative contributions of genetics and environment for a variety of different traits and behaviours, such as temperament, intelligence, and personality. When monozygotic twins have very different characteristics, the likelihood is greater that genetics are not involved or at least are less involved in the development process. It is not always possible to determine whether a specific characteristic is genetically determined; however, monozygotic twins often are treated in very similar ways as a result of appearing to be so similar.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 217. For males, the primary fertility problems include low sperm count, deformed and low sperm motility, and chronic diseases such as diabetes. Men’s fertility problems have a variety of causes: genetic factors, environmental poisons, diabetes, sexually transmitted infections (STIs), overheating of the testes (which is sometimes experienced by athletes, such as long-distance runners), pressure (as from using narrow bicycle seats), aging, and certain prescription and illicit drugs. Sometimes the sperm count is adequate, but the sperm may have been deformed or deprived of their motility by other factors, such as prostate or hormonal problems. Motility can also be impaired by the scar tissue from infections such as STIs. For females, the primary fertility problems are irregular ovulation, declining hormones levels, endometriosis, and obstructions or malfunctions of the reproductive tract. Infections may scar the fallopian tubes and other organs, impeding the passage of sperm or ova. Such infections include pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID can result from bacterial or viral infections, including the STIs gonorrhea and chlamydia.

218. Amniocentesis is a procedure that is sometimes used to detect genetic abnormalities in unborn children. The procedure involves withdrawing fluid from the amniotic sac that contains the fetus. Fetal cells that are contained in the fluid can then be examined for genetic abnormalities. This procedure is more likely to be performed in mothers over the age of 35 because of their increased risk for disorders such as Down’s syndrome. Additionally, this procedure may be recommended in cases where the parents have a familial history for Tay-Sachs, muscular dystrophy, or Rh incompatibility.

219. Some genes are "dominant" and others are "recessive." Dominant genes are more likely to be expressed than recessive genes. Eye colour is a good example. With eye colour, brown eyes are dominant and blue eyes are recessive. If one parent carries the gene for brown eyes only and the other for blue eyes only, the offspring will have brown eyes (that colour will dominate). If, however, both parents carry recessive genes for blue eyes, those genes can combine and blue eyes will be expressed. In a sense, two recessive genes can overcome the dominance of a single gene.

220. The chances of problems during pregnancy are enhanced by external factors such as toxins (alcohol, smoking) and maternal characteristics (such as genetics and age at conception). Some of these factors can be minimized and/or avoided. If your friend is really worried, she may want to consider genetic counselling to learn whether she needs to be aware of any serious disorders. Additionally, however, genetic screening procedures bring some element of risk to the pregnancy. The best thing the mother can do is to make the fetal environment as healthy as possible. She can exercise, take prenatal vitamins, eat a balanced diet, and refrain from smoking or ingesting alcohol and other drugs.

Lastly, her overall chances of delivering a healthy child are significantly higher than her chances of having a child with a disease or a disorder.

221. Recessive disorders: Sickle-cell anemia is a recessive disorder because both parents must contribute a recessive allele for the disorder for the offspring to display sickle-cell anemia. In this disorder, the red blood cells become sickleshaped, which allows less oxygen to be carried in the body. This lack of oxygen may impair cognitive abilities. TaySachs disease is another recessive disorder, again, a result of both parents contributing a recessive allele for the disease. Tay-Sachs causes the central nervous system to degenerate with a loss in sensory abilities, mental ability, and then death by approximately age 5.

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Chap_02_HDEV_4ce 222. Genotype refers to the genetic material that is received from one's parents. Characteristics such as blood type and eye colour, for example, are determined by our genotype. Genotype determines a range in which we might develop.

It might, for example, determine how intelligent we could become. But genotype alone does not determine who or what we become. Our phenotype refers to how our characteristics are expressed. Someone might, for example, have the potential to grow quite tall, but the environment and other forces, such as nutrition, may influence how much of that genotype potential for height is realized. Phenotypes, then, are the product of both genetic and environmental influences.

223. Meiosis is also referred to as "reduction division." In other words, the 46 chromosomes within the cell nucleus line up into 23 pairs. These 23 pairs then split and one member from each pair goes to each newly formed cell. Because of this process, the newly formed cells have half the genetic material contained in the original cell. In this sense, the cells are not identical but share 50 percent genetic similarity. With mitosis, the identical genetic code is carried into each newly formed cell in the body. In other words, when these cells divide, the resulting cells will be identical to the cells that divided to form them. Cloning results from mitosis. Because the newly formed cells are "replications" of the preceding cell, the new cells show no genetic variability.

224. Thalidomide was a drug used during the 1960s to control insomnia and nausea in pregnant women. This drug led to the birth of thousands of babies with severe limb malformations. Alcohol use during pregnancy may cause facial and other abnormalities, mental retardation, hyperactivity, and other cognitive deficits.

225. In vitro fertilization involves extracting ripened ova from a woman and introducing them to a man’s sperm in a laboratory dish. Following fertilization, the fertilized ovum is then injected into the woman’s uterus. In some cases, such as when the woman is unable to release her own viable eggs, the ova may be sourced from a donor. Some infertile couples use a surrogate mother. The surrogate mother may use either her own ova or those of another woman and the sperm of either the biological father or another donor; she then carries the resulting baby to term.

Surrogate mothers are often compensated financially for their time and effort.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Anoxia can impair the development of the fetus’s central nervous system. a. True b. False 2. A fetus may respond to a sound by kicking in the womb. a. True b. False 3. REM sleep in newborns appears to stimulate the brain. a. True b. False 4. Newborns’ sense of touch is important for developing attachment. a. True b. False 5. General anesthesia strengthens uterine contractions and increases the responsiveness of the newborn. a. True b. False 6. Newborns are colour blind and farsighted at birth. a. True b. False 7. Newborns can discriminate distinct odours. a. True b. False 8. Women who experience postpartum depression can benefit from social support and medical interventions. a. True b. False 9. Low-birth-weight infants tend to do poorer in school and have more motor development problems than their normal-weight peers. a. True b. False 10. The absence or weakness of a newborn’s reflex may indicate immaturity, slowed responsiveness, brain injury, or neurological impairment. a. True b. False

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 11. Most women today give birth using general anesthetics. a. True b. False 12. Parents should not pick up crying infants because doing so spoils them. a. True b. False 13. Sucking on a pacifier has no soothing effect for infants. a. True b. False 14. Parents can learn the meaning of their infants’ cries. a. True b. False 15. The Babinski reflex occurs when a baby’s position is suddenly changed or a loss of support for the neck and head occurs. a. True b. False 16. Shaken baby syndrome is equally prevalent across cultural groups. a. True b. False 17. Babies placed in absolute darkness open their eyes wide and search around. a. True b. False 18. Reflexes are learned behaviours. a. True b. False 19. Parents of preterm infants generally show them increased care and affection in comparison with parents of fullterm infants. a. True b. False 20. The Apgar scale is used to assess the health of the mother postpartum. a. True b. False 21. The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioural Assessment Scale screens for behavioural and neurological problems of newborns. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 22. In Canada, the infant mortality rate in Indigenous communities is four times higher than the national average. a. True b. False 23. No positive effects have been demonstrated from the use of midwives. a. True b. False 24. Taste buds begin to develop immediately after birth. a. True b. False 25. The strongest predictor of whether a practitioner will choose to use episiotomy is the condition of the mother and baby. a. True b. False 26. Newborns spend about half of their sleep time in REM sleep a. True b. False 27. A Canadian study of Abusive Head Trauma concluded that babies can easily recover from this trauma. a. True b. False 28. Sudden infant death syndrome is usually caused by parents. a. True b. False 29. Maternal depression is rarely experienced by women. a. True b. False 30. Infants are unable to distinguish between pleasant and unpleasant odours until they are three months of age. a. True b. False 31. Oxygen deprivation during delivery is associated with childhood schizophrenia. a. True b. False 32. Baby Sandra occasionally takes brief breaks in her breathing. These breaks are no cause for alarm. a. True b. False

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 33. Newborns prefer sweet tastes. a. True b. False 34. Newborns prefer to watch moving lights as opposed to stationary lights. a. True b. False 35. Baby Ashlyn has just been assessed using the Apgar scale and has received a score of 10. She requires urgent medical attention. a. True b. False 36. Preterm infants who are cuddled, rocked, talked to, and sung to tend to do better than preterm infants who are left alone. a. True b. False 37. In a Canadian study of Abusive Head Trauma, more than 80 percent of the children who survived had neurological impairments and ongoing care issues. a. True b. False 38. Dr. Shea is practising medicine for the first time in a northern Indigenous community. She can expect that, compared with Toronto, a lower percentage of this population will access health care. a. True b. False 39. Baby Lucy is 3 months old and Baby Elise is 10 months old. Baby Elise is more likely to die of SIDS than Baby Lucy. a. True b. False 40. The stepping reflex develops just prior to the ability of a child to walk. a. True b. False 41. The first stage of childbirth is the shortest stage. a. True b. False 42. SIDS is diagnosed in children under the age of 2. a. True b. False

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 43. The Lamaze method involves the use of relaxation techniques to reduce pain during childbirth. a. True b. False 44. Transition occurs at the end of the first stage of labour. a. True b. False 45. Newborns show little or no visual accommodation. a. True b. False 46. The Lamaze method has been shown to reduce fear and pain during childbirth. a. True b. False 47. Almost all newborns sleep through the night right after coming home from the hospital. a. True b. False 48. Newborns are insensitive to different tastes. a. True b. False 49. Little can be done to help low-birth-weight infants improve as they get older. a. True b. False 50. More infants die from AIDS than from SIDS. a. True b. False 51. The use of cesarean sections has declined over the past 20 years. a. True b. False 52. It is critical that parents have contact with their infants in the first few hours after birth if attachment is to occur. a. True b. False 53. Maternal depression is experienced around the world. a. True b. False

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 54. A baby who is low in birth weight but full term is said to be small for dates. a. True b. False 55. Certain high-pitched infant cries signal health problems. a. True b. False 56. William James, a founder of modern psychology, wrote that the newborn must sense the world “as one great blooming, buzzing confusion.” a. True b. False 57. Touch is one of the most important senses in helping infants thrive. a. True b. False 58. The Apgar scale assesses the newborn’s well-being one minute after birth. a. True b. False 59. Newborns have poor hearing at birth. a. True b. False 60. According to the Ottawa Hospital Research Institute, an episiotomy can speed the mother’s recovery after childbirth. a. True b. False 61. The Canadian awareness campaign, Back to Sleep, has helped to decrease the incidence of SIDS by 50%. a. True b. False 62. SIDS is more common among male babies. a. True b. False 63. Newborns are more likely to be soothed by high-pitched sounds. a. True b. False 64. Infant health depends on a combination of economic, social, political, and environmental factors. a. True b. False

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 65. An infant is born in the third stage of childbirth. a. True b. False 66. The grasping reflex is strengthened after the fourth month of age. a. True b. False 67. The infant signals to the mother that it is ready to be born. a. True b. False 68. Newborns have stronger vision for colour than for light and dark. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

69. What is vernix? a. a Latin term for prematurity b. a breathing problem in premature infants c. a fine downy hair that covers the skin of some newborns d. a white oily substance that covers the skin of some newborns 70. What does the Brazelton Scale assess? a. muscle tone b. colour tone of the skin c. physiological measures such as heart rate d. a newborn’s reflexes and other behaviour patterns 71. Some suggest that picking up a crying baby will result in a spoiled baby. What does the text say about whether it is possible to spoil a baby? a. Picking up a crying baby will result in more crying. b. It is very difficult to spoil a baby so parents should always pick up a crying infant. c. Picking up a crying baby is only the first step toward spoiling an infant. d. This is a question that is still being debated.

72. Hailey is researching how she can promote a baby–caregiver relationship during the early months of her relationship with her new child. What increasingly popular Canadian trend might her doctor suggest? a. mother–baby exercise classes b. napping together c. breast feeding d. baby massage

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 73. Which statement best describes a baby who is considered “small for dates”? a. It is born after the due date and has not grown beyond expected size. b. It is born to parents who are slight in stature. c. It is premature and at expected weight given this early stage delivery. d. It is born at full-term but is low in birth weight.

74. What causes contractions strong enough to expel the baby? a. the weight of the child b. the release of oxytocin from the mother's pituitary gland c. the secretion of hormones by the adrenal and pituitary glands of the fetus d. the weight of the mother.

75. Your sister recently had a baby and is struggling with postpartum adjustment. After reading about this disorder in your textbook, which of the following do you tell her? a. It is a Canadian problem. b. It is more common in wealthy countries. c. It is experienced by the majority of new mothers. d. It is more common in later births than in first births.

76. According to developmentalists, how many labour stages does a woman typically experience? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 77. What procedure happens to the baby soon after birth? a. The baby is put on a heart rate monitor. b. The umbilical cord is clamped and severed. c. The baby is given an injection of vitamin C. d. The baby is held upside down and slapped on the buttocks.

78. What has research found regarding the colour vision of infants? a. Full-colour vision ability is present at birth. b. Six-month-olds require large differences in colour stimuli to detect a difference. c. Four-month-olds can see most colours of the spectrum. d. Infants do not have colour vision until 1 year of age.

79. According to the research, which early intervention is most likely to counteract developmental challenges that can arise in later life for preterm newborns? a. Parents should consider involving a physiotherapist in the care of the infant. b. Parents should keep infants at the hospital for intensive care for as long as possible. c. Parents should touch and rock their infants frequently. d. Parents should avoid over-handling delicate newborns.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 80. Which visual capability is missing in newborns? a. the ability to track b. visual accommodation c. the ability to actively search the visual field d. the ability to see 81. What is respiratory distress syndrome? a. a breathing disorder likely to affect high-birth-weight infants b. a cluster of breathing problems likely to affect premature infants c. a breathing disorder mothers sometimes develop during pregnancy d. a breathing disorder that sometimes develops in infants during delivery 82. What is lanugo? a. a Latin term for prematurity b. a breathing problem in premature infants c. a fine downy hair that covers the skin of some newborns d. a white oily substance that covers the skin of some newborns 83. Which type of crying tends to signify that an infant is experiencing more distress? a. loud and persistent crying b. loud, sudden crying c. high-pitched crying d. low-pitched crying 84. The Canadian Foundation for the Study of Infant Deaths has made recommendations to help young parents reduce the risk factors associated with sudden infant death syndrome. What is the name of the educational campaign? a. Back to Sleep b. No More Fluffy Blankets c. Butt Out d. Belly Sleepers 85. You change a baby's position, and the infant's reaction is to arch its back, fling its arms and legs out, and then bring them back toward the chest. What reflex has occurred? a. the Moro reflex b. the palmar reflex c. the rooting reflex d. the grasping reflex 86. What is the visual ability of newborns? a. Newborns are nearsighted. b. Newborns can see clearly up to six metres away. c. Newborns are blind for the first few weeks of life. d. Newborns have 20/20 vision, unless they are born with a vision disorder.

87. What can you suggest to a friend who is finding it challenging to soothe her crying baby? a. allow the infant to suck b. put the infant to bed c. feed the infant more solid food d. sing in a high-pitched voice

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 88. What change occurs in most women a day or so before the beginning of labour? a. a rush of warm liquid from the vagina b. blood appears in vaginal secretions as a sign of danger c. the amniotic sac breaks d. indigestion, diarrhea, backaches, and cramps 89. Caroline counsels women who are experiencing postpartum depression. What has she most likely observed in the women she treats? a. They generally have low self-esteem. b. They can benefit from drugs that lower their estrogen levels. c. They generally have lower IQs. d. They can benefit from social support.

90. Barbara has been told she is ready to deliver. Which of the following has most likely occurred? a. She has received an episiotomy. b. Her amniotic sac has ruptured. c. She has been in labour for about 12 hours. d. The cervix is effaced and dilated to 10 cm.

91. Education campaigns, such as Back to Sleep, educate new parents on the best sleep practices for children younger than 1 year of age. What have been the results of this campaign? a. a 20% decrease in infant deaths b. a 30% decrease in infant deaths c. a 40% decrease in infant deaths d. a 50% decrease in infant deaths 92. Mona had a “natural childbirth.” What occurred? a. She focused on relaxation and breathing techniques throughout. b. Local anesthetics were administered. c. Tranquilizers given during third stage of labour. d. The baby was delivered without the use of stirrups.

93. What are Braxton-Hicks contractions? a. contractions that signal the beginning of the delivery process b. false labour contractions that can begin as early as the sixth month of pregnancy c. contractions that signal birth is imminent d. contractions that are caused when a baby has the hiccups 94. Sara is in her first trimester, but she is looking into birthing options. She wonders how likely it is that she will have a Caesarean section. What percentage of births were performed by C-section between 2016 and 2017? a. 2% b. 10% c. 30% d. 50%

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 95. Candace is a researcher studying visual tracking in newborns. When asked about her work, which of the following is she most likely to state? a. Visual tracking develops several months after birth. b. Many newborns can track objects the first day after birth. c. Many newborns require several weeks of experience to track objects. d. Newborns’ tracking ability depends on the level of stimulation in the womb.

96. Cindy is pregnant for the first time and is concerned that if she has a vaginal delivery, her doctor will perform an episiotomy. What is her doctor most likely to tell her? a. Most women in Canada have an episiotomy. b. Episiotomies are rarely performed in Canada. c. Doctors know well in advance whether an episiotomy will be required. d. Most women in Canada do not need an episiotomy.

97. Nicole recently had her first child. Afterward, she felt depressed for about 10 days, and then she felt like her old self again. What did Nicole experience? a. Nicole had the “baby blues.” b. Nicole had postpartum depression (PPD). c. Nicole experienced a "break with reality" due to PPD. d. What Nicole experienced is unusual because most new mothers only experience positive emotions.

98. What is the maximum parental leave benefit when a child is born in Canada? a. 24 weeks b. 28 weeks c. 35 weeks d. 40 weeks 99. Ashley has never heard of the Lamaze method. Which of the following would you tell her? a. It has no apparent impact on the birthing process. b. It is associated with reduced pain during the delivery process. c. It eliminates pain during the birthing process. d. It is commonly used in Europe, but rarely in Canada.

100. What deficiency do very low birth weight baby’s experience as children? a. greater likelihood of bone breakage when playing b. fewer friends due to smaller size c. poor neurological development through the school years d. delayed onset of puberty 101. What was the conclusion of the UNICEF report Leaving No Child Behind? a. Canada has an excellent record of caring for all of its children. b. Indigenous children are being left behind in Canada. c. Canada does an inadequate job of looking after immigrant children. d. Medical access in rural areas of Canada is below standard.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 102. Sandra is an average mother of a newborn who is concerned because rather than being joyful about the birth of her newborn, she finds herself tearful, sad, and irritable. According to the Canadian Paediatric Society, what lies at the root of this emotional state? a. manic depression b. postpartum depression c. post-delivery anxiety d. baby blues 103. Janet works at the prenatal clinic. Of the four expectant women she has seen today, three are at risk for having a baby small for dates. Which woman is at risk for having a baby small for dates? a. the woman who is already has more than two children b. the woman who works two jobs c. the woman who smokes d. the woman who exercises more than three times per week 104. Which term means "without oxygen”? a. anoxia b. toxemia c. hypoxia d. plastemia 105. The UNICEF report, Leaving No Child Behind, addresses infant mortality rates among different groups in Canada. According to the report, which group has a significantly higher infant mortality rate than the general Canadian population? a. the immigration population b. the Indigenous population c. the rural population d. the refugee population 106. What type of physical response is a reflex? a. a voluntary response b. a response that has survival value c. a response that appears to have no purpose d. a response that disappears within six months after birth 107. The newborn fans her toes in response to stroking of the foot from heel to toes. What is this response an example of? a. the Moro reflex b. the Babinski reflex c. the tonic-foot reflex d. the plantar reflex 108. A mother who has HIV wants to reduce the risk of transmitting HIV to her baby. What strategy is her physician most likely to recommend? a. She should elect to have a cesarean delivery. b. She should elect to have a vaginal delivery. c. She should not use any anesthetics. d. She should deliver using a natural childbirth technique.

109. When is a baby considered to have a low birth weight? a. when it weighs less than about 1.5 kg b. when it weighs less than about 2.5 kg c. when it weighs less than about 3.5 kg d. when it weighs less than about 4.5 kg

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 110. Which baby is most likely to be a preterm baby? a. a baby that tends to be held more by her mother b. a baby that is less likely to be abused later in childhood c. a baby that invokes feelings of failure and guilt in her mother d. a baby that is more aggressive and sociable than other babies 111. Jenn and Dave are expecting their second child. They wonder whether their second child will have a similar sleep pattern to that of their first child. What would their pediatrician most likely tell them about infant sleep patterns? a. Sleep patterns are remarkably consistent across infants. b. Infant sleep patterns are very similar to adult sleeping patterns. c. Infant sleep patterns stabilize quickly and then do not change through life. d. Infant sleep patterns are inconsistent and change as the child ages.

112. What initiates labour? a. Time alone determines the onset of labour. b. It is initiated by the secretion of hormones by the fetus. c. It is initiated by the release of dopamine in the mother's brain. d. It is initiated by the secretion of pitocin from the mother's endocrine system.

113. Research has explored the effects of exposing preterm babies to stimulation such as massage and kangaroo care. What was the conclusion of these research findings? a. There is no known effect. b. The effects appear to depend on the gender of the baby. c. The infants showed weight gains and fewer respiratory problems. d. The intellectual functioning of these infants matched that of full-term babies at a 2-year follow-up.

114. Which test is typically used to assess a newborn’s health? a. the Apgar scale b. the Hadlar scale c. the neonatal inventory d. the Bornstein inventory 115. What is assessed by the Apgar scale? a. pulse b. weight c. gender d. brainwave activity 116. Baby Stephanie has developed excellent rolling skills in the early stages of infant mobility. What reflex was likely highly developed in Baby Stephanie during her infancy? a. the Babinski reflex b. the palmar reflex c. the tonic-neck reflex d. the stepping reflex

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 117. Why do parents tend to treat full-term infants better than preterm infants? a. Full-term infants cry more than preterm infants. b. The behaviour of preterm infants is more irritable. c. Preterm infants demand more interaction time than full-term infants. d. Bonding is delayed with preterm infants.

118. Diana is experiencing regular labour. What is she most likely to notice about her contractions? a. They are painful b. They are irregular. c. They are unexpected. d. They can be confused with indigestion.

119. Each baby born in Canada is immediately screened for more than 50 obscure anomalies and disorders that may be treatable if detected early. What test is used? a. an Apgar test b. a blood test c. an ultrasound test d. an X-ray 120. Approximately what percentage of babies in Canada can expect to be born with the help of a midwife? a. fewer than 5% b. 10% c. 20% d. more than 30% 121. Which statement characterizes the Lamaze method? a. It speeds up the delivery process. b. It has no effect on fear and pain during the delivery process. c. It involves breathing and relaxation exercises during delivery. d. It increases the amount of time for delivery, but reduces trauma to the infant.

122. A newborn is lethargic and less active than is normally expected. Which of the following most likely occurred? a. The mother smoked during the pregnancy. b. The mother experienced a faster than normal labour. c. The mother was given a general anesthesia during delivery. d. The mother experienced a longer than normal labour.

123. What is the key event of the third stage of childbirth? a. The child is finally delivered. b. The newborn is given a vitamin K injection. c. The placenta and fetal membranes are expelled. d. The fetus moves into position to begin the final delivery process.

124. Why is it most important for newborns to sleep up to 16 hours per day? a. to allow the brain to develop b. to give parents an opportunity to rest c. to prevent the infant from becoming overstimulated d. to allow hearing and vision to rest between stimulating encounters with the world

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 125. Baby Paul turns his head to one side, extends his arm and leg on that side, and flexes the limbs on the opposite side. What reflex has Baby Paul demonstrated? a. the Babinski reflex b. the palmar reflex c. the tonic-neck reflex d. the stepping reflex 126. What would you tell a friend about how long she might expect to experience the baby blues after she has given birth? a. The symptoms should ease up by the end of the second week after delivery. b. The symptoms generally last up to one year after delivery. c. Most cases disappear after the first 48 hours. d. She may experience baby blues for a week, but it is rare that they last longer than that.

127. During childbirth, when is prolonged oxygen deprivation most likely to occur? a. during a cesarean delivery b. when the baby is in a breech position c. when fetal monitors are not used d. during the use of general anesthetics 128. Which of the following is an example of the palmar reflex? a. A child moves its head in the direction of sounds. b. A child voluntarily reaches for and grasps objects. c. A child shows a startle response in reaction to sudden changes in position. d. A child uses four fingers to grasp objects pressed against the palm of the hand.

129. Someone might become alarmed when seeing an infant experiencing irregular breathing, with rapidly moving, closed eyes and muscle twitches. What might be happening that is perfectly normal? a. intermittent sleep b. active sleep c. alert activity d. eye development 130. First-time parents may be surprised at how frequently their infant cries. Which statement best represents what we have learned about infant cries? a. They appear to be entirely random. b. They serve a functional purpose. c. Each cry is indistinguishable from all other cries. d. Baby cries differ across cultural groups.

131. Which baby is most likely a preterm infant? a. a baby with a weak sucking reflex b. a baby resulting from his mother’s first pregnancy c. a small baby that generally shows no deficits d. a baby with a higher than normal body temperature

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 132. What is the most common birthing practice in Canada? a. delivery at a hospital b. use of a midwife during delivery in hospital c. delivery at home with a midwife present d. the LeBoyer method 133. How does a newborn’s hearing compare with its vision? a. Its hearing is less highly developed. b. Its hearing develops at a slower pace. c. Its hearing is considerably more developed. d. Hearing varies greatly from infant to infant.

134. According to the research cited in the textbook, what is the function of REM sleep? a. to create regulation in appetite b. to enable infants to sleep longer c. to allow the brain to completely rest d. to provide stimulation required to develop neurons and synapses 135. According to research, what is the most appropriate way to handle preterm babies? a. Current thinking is to handle them as little as possible. b. They should be handled sparingly for the first two weeks of life. c. Research now shows that preterm infants benefit from stimulation such as cuddling and rocking. d. Research now shows that how preterm babies are handled has little impact on their development.

136. What advantages do the senses of hearing and smell provide to a newborn? a. These senses may assist in the attachment process. b. The newborn can devote all its energy to developing other abilities. c. These senses will alert the infant to danger, by triggering a startle reflex. d. These senses will speed up how quickly the infant can leave the hospital.

137. Some women are at risk for delivering preterm babies. What substance is injected into these women to increase their babies' chances for survival and to lower the risk of respiratory distress syndrome and severe lung disease? a. folic acid b. vitamin K c. corticosteroids d. vitamin C 138. Which statement best summarizes the story of Canadian Killinger-Johnson and her baby? a. Even loved ones can miss the signs of postpartum depression. b. Hormonal treatment can positively enhance a mother’s life. c. Postpartum depression with psychotic features can be diagnosed and treated. d. Expectant mothers can be taught self-hypnosis to avoid experiencing pain during delivery.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 139. Jane’s doctor just performed an episiotomy on her. Which of the following is her doctor most likely to tell her? a. It is routinely done in hospitals around the world. b. It may cause itching and discomfort during healing. c. It is necessary to get the baby out of the birth canal. d. It is more commonly performed today than 20 years ago.

140. What sounds are newborns most likely to respond to? a. sounds that are low in pitch b. sounds that are repeated c. sounds that are high in pitch d. sounds that are sudden 141. What experience has been reported by women who used a midwife? a. a shorter labour b. a lower rate of fetal distress c. less pain d. fewer medical interventions than other patients 142. Tragically, Baby Marie was found dead at the age of 6 months. Her mother had shaken the child, which resulted in the child dying. What is the most likely factor contributing to this death? a. the age of the mother b. the socioeconomic status of the mother c. the ethnicity of the mother d. a lack of emotional supports for the mother 143. Brenda is in the second stage of labour with her first child and has heard that she should expect to have an episiotomy. What is the current thinking about the benefits of performing an episiotomy? a. An episiotomy will make future deliveries easier. b. Brenda’s baby will have a quicker recovery from the birth process. c. There are no benefits beyond speeding up the delivery. d. Brenda will be able to avoid the use of pain medication.

144. What distinguishes postpartum blues from postpartum depression? a. They are the same. b. Postpartum blues are more severe. c. Postpartum depression is more severe. d. They involve entirely different symptoms.

145. What is one significant advantage of a water birth? a. The child learns to move freely outside the womb more quickly. b. The mother and child bond more easily. c. Pain and discomfort are alleviated by the water. d. The mother can relax to the sounds of the water moving.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 146. What has research found regarding the effects of medications given to the mother during delivery? a. It is unclear to what degree medications affect the newborn. b. It is clear that medications permanently damage the newborn. c. The effects of medications appear to depend on the age of the mother. d. There is no compelling evidence that medications negatively affect the newborn.

147. Which of the following is an example of the rooting reflex? a. The baby turns his head and mouth toward the stimulus that strokes his cheek. b. The baby sucks at any object that touches his mouth. c. The baby voluntarily seeks out objects to suckle. d. The baby is directed toward the suckling object.

148. Pregnant women identified as being at risk for delivering preterm babies may be injected with corticosteroids to increase their babies’ chances of survival. What concern does this treatment address? a. prenatal malnourishment b. hypoxia c. respiratory stress syndrome d. drug addiction 149. Which of the following best describes the postpartum period? a. the days following delivery during which the mother experiences significant depression b. the weeks following delivery during which both parents may experience mild to significant adjustment issues c. the first 24 hours following delivery d. the time required for fathers to adjust to parenthood 150. What taste preferences do infants show? a. a preference for sour tastes b. a preference for sweet tastes c. a preference for bitter tastes d. a preference for items with little or no taste, such as water 151. Why is vision poor in newborns? a. Newborns sensory receptors have not yet developed. b. Vision is a muscular ability that improves with practice. c. The newborn's eyes are extremely light-sensitive. d. Newborns have not yet developed tracking ability.

152. What is the meaning of the term “midwife”? a. with mother b. health assistant c. birth coach d. for infant

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 153. What is the typical experience of women who use midwives? a. They report having less pain. b. They have fewer breech births. c. They are more satisfied with their prenatal care. d. They have shorter labours.

154. The Smiths are expecting a child but the doctors suspect some complications will occur during delivery. What type of delivery can the couple expect for their child? a. a vaginal delivery b. a vaginal delivery requiring an episiotomy c. a cesarean section d. a delivery using a midwife 155. Which term is most closely related to anoxia? a. hypoxia b. toxemia c. plastemia d. formidia 156. Martha is in her second stage of childbirth. Which of the following can Martha expect? a. It will end with the birth of the baby. b. It will usually last only a few minutes. c. It will end when Martha is ready to "push" during contractions. d. It will end when the cervix is effaced and dilated to 10 cm.

157. What is the highest Apgar score? a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 15 158. Alicia is studying infants and whether they have simple, unlearned, and stereotypical responses to certain types of stimulation. Which of the following is she mostly likely studying? a. reflexes b. eating habits c. heart and breathing rate d. attachment 159. How soon after birth do most healthy babies attain high Apgar scores? a. within 1 minute b. within 1 hour c. within 12 hours d. within 24 hours 160. During the first stage of childbirth, which of the following occurs? a. The umbilical cord is clamped. b. The mother is taken into the delivery room. c. Fetal monitoring begins. d. An episiotomy is performed.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 161. Jack is concerned that his wife may need an episiotomy. Which of the following is the physician most likely to say? a. It is an essential part of the delivery process. b. It is more common with second and later pregnancies. c. It is controversial and its use has declined over time. d. It is necessary and should be used without hesitation.

162. Which of the following is rich in stem cells that can be preserved and potentially used to save the life of the baby or a member of the baby’s family? a. the placenta b. the newborn’s umbilical cord c. the newborn’s lanugo d. the newborn’s vernix 163. What is taught in a class on the Lamaze method? a. The expectant father is taught how to deliver the baby, should it become necessary. b. The expectant mother is taught which pain medications to ask for during delivery. c. The expectant mother is taught self-hypnosis, so she will experience no pain during delivery. d. The expectant mother is taught the use of breathing and relaxation techniques during contractions.

164. How do newborns’ sleeping habits differ from adults’ sleeping habits? a. Newborns sleep about 10% longer. b. Newborns sleep about twice as much per day. c. Newborns spend significantly less time in REM sleep d. Newborns sleep less, but their sleep is broken into small segments across 24-hour periods.

165. Janet lives in the first province in Canada to regulate and legislate midwives. Where does she live? a. Saskatchewan b. British Columbia c. Ontario d. Quebec 166. Dr. Smith is a presenter at a prenatal and birth practices workshop. When does he suggest performing a Csection is necessary? a. when the baby is too large b. when the baby is unusually small c. when the baby is being born headfirst d. when maternal anxiety complicates the delivery process 167. What is thought to be the cause of postpartum depression? a. an increased surge of estrogen following birth b. a combination of psychological and physiological factors c. an increase in hormone production due to breast feeding d.an increase in pre-birth anxiety

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 168. Maggie and Ben's preterm baby has been diagnosed as having respiratory distress syndrome. How will their doctor most likely explain the baby’s respiratory distress syndrome? a. It is due to anoxia during delivery. b. It is due to maternal exposure to teratogens during pregnancy. c. The air sacs in the baby's lungs are over-lubricated, making breathing difficult. d. The baby's muscles may not be mature enough to sustain independent breathing.

169. In Canada C-sections account for what percentage of all births? a. less than 5% b. approximately 10% c. approximately 20% d. approximately 30% 170. Fetal monitors are electronic sensing devices. Which of the following do they measure? a. maternal heart rate b. mother’s contractions and fetal heartrate c. maternal blood pressure d. fetal position in the birth canal 171. A new mother is experiencing a break with reality and is having hallucinations. What is most likely to be the cause? a. postpartum blues b. postpartum depression c. postpartum depression with psychotic features d. postpartum mania 172. Alice’s baby has "crowned"? What has occurred? a. The baby is being born feet first. b. The baby is stuck in the birth canal. c. The baby has turned and is now head-down in the uterus. d. The baby's head has started to emerge from the birth canal.

173. Anya was given an injection into her spinal canal, which temporarily numbed her body below the waist. What type of anesthesia was Anya given? a. a barbiturate b. a tranquilizer c. a local anesthesia d. a general anesthesia 174. Jennifer is having a vaginal delivery of her baby. She learns that she needs an episiotomy. According to the Ottawa Hospital Research Division, what is an advantage of having an episiotomy performed during delivery? a. It reduces the stress of a vaginal delivery. b. It reduces the pain of a vaginal delivery. c. It reduces the length of time required for a vaginal delivery. d. It reduces the risk associated with a vaginal delivery.

175. Baby Darcy has just passed away at the age of 6 months. What is the most likely cause of this infant death if Darcy was born in Canada? a. cystic fibrosis b. heart disease c. sudden infant death syndrome d. Shaken Baby Syndrome Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 176. What term describes the injuries experienced as a result of Shaken Baby Syndrome? a. brittle bone syndrome b. abusive head trauma c. traumatic abuse syndrome d. neurotic trauma 177. After reading the textbook, what do we know about the potential to overcome deficits associated with prematurity? a. It is greater for boys than for girls. b. It can be predicted with great accuracy. c. It appears to depend upon how premature the child was. d. It is greater for second and subsequent births than for first-born children, 178. What physical change does Shaken Baby Syndrome usually result in? a. spinal injuries b. head trauma c. bodily bruising d. broken bones 179. Which of the following children is most likely to show the greatest cognitive deficits and developmental delays? a. a child born at 37 weeks of gestation b. a child whose mother smoked c. a child weighing less than 1.5 kg at birth d. a child whose mother did minimal exercise a. the leading cause of babies’ deaths in Canada b. breathing and relaxation exercises c. bringing objects into focus d. without oxygen e. common post-delivery occurrence f. assists in grasping objects g. 40 weeks of gestation h. a growing trend among Indigenous Canadians i. a tragedy caused by frustration j. a measure of newborn health k. hormones that stimulate uterine contractions. l. low birth weight but full-term gestation m. cervix will become effaced and dilated n. associated with increased risk of neurological problems o. a sense associated with attachment p. stimulates the uterus and placenta to prompt labour q. when delivery of the infant occurs r. speeds up delivery s. assists in feeding t. statistical report on the health of Canadian children QUESTION TYPE: Matching Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce CUSTOM ID: 03-194 180. Full term 181. SIDS 182. Shaken Baby Syndrome 183. Prostaglandins 184. First stage of childbirth 185. Rooting reflex 186. Baby blues 187. Lamaze method 188. Small for dates 189. Palmar reflex 190. Midwife 191. Second stage of childbirth 192. Episiotomy 193. Oxytocin 194. Respiratory distress syndrome 195. Apgar scale 196. Visual accommodation 197. Leaving No Child Behind 198. Smell 199. Anoxia 200. What factors specifically affect the health of Indigenous children?

201. What are some of the risks for low-birth-weight and preterm babies?

202. Briefly describe the quality of a newborn’s vision and hearing.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 203. Briefly describe the three stages of childbirth.

204. Describe at least four (4) infant reflexes and discuss how they might prepare the child to survive in the postbirth world.

205. How should preterm babies be physically handled? What controversies surround the physical handling of preterm babies?

206. Do infant cries mean different things? Do adults respond to these differences? Explain your answers.

207. Provide a brief overview of the UNICEF report entitled Leaving No Child Behind.

208. Describe the significance of the sense of smell for infants in connecting with their mothers.

209. What are the pluses and minuses of using anesthetics during childbirth? What does the research indicate about the impact on mother and child?

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 210. You and your partner are nervous that your labour may result in an episiotomy. You ask your doctor for information on this procedure. What is your doctor likely to tell you?

211. What is a cesarean section? Why it is used and what is its rate of occurrence in Canada.

212. Many women appear to experience some level of the blues or depression after pregnancy. How many women experience these feelings? Is this experience a cultural phenomenon? Why might women experience such feelings?

213. Discuss what the text means when it suggests that "the fetus signals the mother when it is ready to be born."

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. True 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. True 22. True 23. False 24. False 25. False 26. True

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 27. False 28. False 29. False 30. False 31. True 32. True 33. True 34. True 35. False 36. True 37. True 38. True 39. False 40. False 41. False 42. False 43. True 44. True 45. True 46. True 47. False 48. False 49. False 50. False 51. False 52. False 53. True 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 55. True 56. True 57. True 58. True 59. False 60. False 61. True 62. True 63. False 64. True 65. False 66. False 67. True 68. False 69. d 70. d 71. d 72. d 73. d 74. b 75. c 76. b 77. b 78. c 79. c 80. b 81. b 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 83. c 84. a 85. a 86. a 87. a 88. d 89. d 90. d 91. d 92. a 93. b 94. c 95. b 96. d 97. a 98. c 99. b 100. c 101. b 102. d 103. c 104. a 105. b 106. b 107. b 108. a 109. b 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 111. d 112. b 113. c 114. a 115. a 116. c 117. b 118. a 119. b 120. b 121. c 122. c 123. c 124. a 125. c 126. a 127. b 128. d 129. b 130. b 131. a 132. a 133. c 134. d 135. c 136. a 137. c

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 138. a 139. b 140. c 141. d 142. d 143. c 144. c 145. c 146. a 147. a 148. c 149. b 150. b 151. b 152. a 153. c 154. c 155. a 156. a 157. c 158. a 159. a 160. c 161. c 162. b 163. d 164. b 165. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 166. a 167. b 168. d 169. c 170. b 171. c 172. d 173. c 174. c 175. c 176. b 177. c 178. b 179. c 180. g 181. a 182. i 183. k 184. m 185. s 186. e 187. b 188. l 189. f 190. h 191. q 192. r 193. p Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 194. n 195. j 196. c 197. t 198. o 199. d 200. Key factors affecting the health of Indigenous children include poverty; lack of education; substandard housing; poor nutrition; lack of access to health care and social services; and a legacy of family, community, and cultural breakdown as a result of the policies of residential schools.

201. Low-birth-weight babies are those who weigh less than 2.5 kg (5.5 lb.) at birth. They are at a greater risk for infant mortality. They also tend to perform more poorly in school, given that they may have neurological impairment. They may also suffer from motor development problems, including delays and disabilities. They may also have mild to severe learning disabilities. Preterm babies, those born before 37 weeks gestation, may also have problems associated with respiratory distress syndrome, which is related to having immature lungs, and may lead to problems in cognitive, language, and motor skills. The disabilities of low-birth-weight and preterm babies are often related to the degree of prematurity and the weight at birth; those born earliest and those weighing the least usually experience the most problems 202. Newborns’ vision tends to be nearsighted and limited in its refinements. There is unclear evidence whether newborns can detect colours, although their ability to discern colours develops within the first two months. Newborns have limited or no visual accommodation (focusing) ability and can see best at a range of 17–23 cm. Newborns also lack the ability to control their eye muscles, so they are unable to look at very close objects. They are also able to track objects. They prefer to view objects that are moving.

A newborn’s hearing is more advanced than its vision, with the level of hearing about even with that of adults.

Newborns are able to detect differences in pitch and amplitude, although they prefer high-pitched sounds. Newborns recognize the sound of their mother’s voice, are responsive to human voices, and can detect differences in speech sounds.

203. Stage 1: Labour—This stage tends to be the longest stage of birth and includes the effacement (thinning) and dilation (widening) of the cervix, the opening to the uterus. Throughout this stage, the mother’s uterine contractions occur more frequently and more regularly. At the end of this stage, transition, the cervix dilates from 6 cm to 10 cm. Next, crowning occurs, when the fetus reaches the vaginal opening.

Stage 2: Birth—During the second stage of birth, the baby is delivered.

Stage 3: Placental (afterbirth)—The third stage occurs when the placenta is expelled from the uterus.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 204. Perhaps the most important reflexes that enhance the infant's chances for survival are the following: 1) the rooting reflex = the baby turns the head and mouth toward a stimulus that strokes the check, chin, or corner of the mouth 2) the sucking reflex = the infant will suck on almost anything that touches the lips 3) the Moro reflex = a startle reflex that occurs in response to sudden changes of position or loud noises 4) the grasping reflex = the infant will grasp objects (e.g., fingers) that touch the palm of the hand Each of these reflexes aids in survival. The infant must learn to suckle or it will die. The rooting reflex allows the infant to position the head and mouth in such a way that breast-feeding or bottle-feeding is possible. The sucking reflex takes over once the nipple has touched the mouth. The Moro reflex is very important. The infant can be startled by loud noises, sudden movements, and other environmental circumstances that could be dangerous. Lastly, the grasping reflex helps the child to learn to grab objects, which allows for experimentation with the world, eventually feeding oneself, and even using the hands to pull oneself into a standing position. All in all, newborns are competent.

205. As with many medical decisions, over time, our viewpoints have changed about how to physically handle preterm babies. Early thinking was to physically handle preterm babies as little as necessary. The belief was that because infants were not ready for a great deal of stimulation, understimulation was better than to overstimulation. But these views have been altered by concerns about the need for mothers to attach and bond to their infants as soon as possible. Current thinking is that close physical contact and stimulation are beneficial for the preterm infant, just as such contact is beneficial for full-term infants. Unless the infant has physical impairments that require oxygen or extended time in an incubator, the physical handling of the preterm infant does not appear to be harmful.

206. Infant cries can mean many things. For example, they may signal hunger, pain, anger, or something else. Some highpitched cries may signal health problems, such as exposure to drugs, neurological abnormalities, and other problems.

Some cries may signal colic, which involves pain from gas or other digestive tract problems. Adults, especially parents, become attuned to their infants’ cries, which also become more recognizable over time. Through this experience, adults may also learn when they can safely ignore a cry and when they need to respond.

207. Infant mortality rates have been reduced by 30 percent worldwide. However, Canadians wondered why a growing disparity exists between mortality rates of Indigenous children and their Canadian peers. Health depends on a web of economic, social, political, and environmental factors. We know that more than twice as many Indigenous children live in poverty than other children in the larger Canadian population. We also know that infant deaths are three times higher in Indigenous communities. Children in Indigenous communities are also not as likely to access health care as children living in metropolitan areas. Children in Indigenous communities are also more likely to become parents or to commit suicide. Canadians must work together as a community to change the reality that some of our children are being left behind.

208. Newborns are quickly able to detect their mother’s scent, in particular her breast milk. This preference for the mother’s milk scent likely facilitates the connection between mother and infant. In an experiment, cotton pads were placed above the heads of newborns. One pad was clean and the other had the mother’s milk on it. Newborns, less than one week old, spent more time with their heads turned toward the milk soaked pad.

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Chap_03_HDEV_4ce 209. First, the use of anesthetics is a private decision that should made by the person experiencing the labour—the mother.

That in mind, however, we must also remember that anesthetics cross the placenta and can affect the unborn child.

The effect and the duration of these effects depend on various factors, including the following: (1) the specific anesthetic used, and (2) how much anesthetic is used. Some women report greater dissatisfaction with the birthing process after deciding to be sedated. Opinions are mixed on whether these anesthetics have long-term effects on the child. Low doses appear to make the baby less alert. Larger doses may cause a lag in motor development and cognitive functioning at least up to the age of 7. The best advice is to use any anesthetics with caution and only when necessary.

210. First, although many people fear an episiotomy, the rate of episiotomies has fallen dramatically in Canada. In 1992, almost half of all women experiencing a vaginal delivery had an episiotomy, but the rate fell to less than 25 percent in 2004. This procedure takes place only to speed the delivery of the baby and only after crowning has occurred. The episiotomy prevents random tearing of the area between the birth canal and the anus. The incision is feared by many but usually is not felt due to the pressure of the baby’s head, which numbs the region. After delivery, the incision may cause itching and discomfort, but the episiotomy does not lead to significant, long-term consequences.

211. In Canada, nearly 1 of every 5 births is by cesarean section. Today, this trend of opting for a cesarean section is increasingly being considered by young couples worldwide. In 2012, 8.1 percent of Canadian mothers requested a cesarean section before their delivery. Fear of vaginal delivery and concern for the safety of the baby are two reasons for this new trend. Some mothers view a C-section as providing convenience (Gallagher, 2012). C-sections are also performed when the physician wants to prevent the circulatory systems of the mother and baby from mixing, as might occur when (normal) bleeding occurs during vaginal delivery. In such cases, c-sections help prevent transmission of the viruses that cause genital herpes and AIDS. 212. According to the textbook, up to 70 percent of new mothers experience feelings that could be described as “the blues," or, in some cases, depression. These feelings do not seem to be a cultural phenomenon, but a natural side effect to all the changes that accompany birth. The birth process can be an emotionally charged event, whether the child was a wanted child or not. Mothers who deliver premature babies, for example, often report feelings of guilt.

Along with this guilt, mothers experience the psychological impact of considering the responsibility of raising a child.

Most experts suspect that a combination of psychological thoughts and physical changes following pregnancy (such as the drop in estrogen levels) explain why these feelings are so common. Only a smaller number of women (1 in 5 to 10) experience the more severe state of postpartum depression, and even fewer (1 in 500 to 1,000) experience postpartum mood episodes accompanied by psychotic features.

213. Fetal hormones are released from the adrenal pituitary glands. These hormones stimulate the placenta and the uterus to secrete prostaglandins that cause labour contractions by exciting the muscles of the uterus. Later during labour, the mother's pituitary gland releases oxytocin. This hormone stimulates the stronger contractions that are necessary to expel the baby.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Breastfeeding has no health benefits for the mother. a. True b. False 2. Infants have more connections among neurons than adults do. a. True b. False 3. Breast milk may reduce the child's risk of certain cancers. a. True b. False 4. The medulla is responsible for higher level thinking and memory. a. True b. False 5. Young infants are capable of perceiving most of the speech sounds present in the world’s languages a. True b. False 6. Exposure to varied sensory experiences can lead to brain development in infancy. a. True b. False 7. Sensory changes appear to be linked to maturation of the nervous system a. True b. False 8. The legs of a newborn will increase in length fivefold by adulthood. a. True b. False 9. Children whose eye is patched continue to develop connections in their visual cortex. a. True b. False 10. One-month-old infants tend to pay most attention to the “edges” of human faces. a. True b. False 11. Only nature has an effect on brain development. a. True b. False

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 12. Myelin allows electrical messages to be conducted more efficiently. a. True b. False 13. The human brain reaches about half of its adult weight by 1 year of age. a. True b. False 14. Children become more passive in response to their environments as they age. a. True b. False 15. The growth rates of taller-than-average infants, as a group, tend to slow down; however, the growth rates of shorter than average infants, as a group, tend to speed up. a. True b. False 16. The introduction of solid foods is not recommended until about 2 to 3 months of age. a. True b. False 17. Breast milk is not as nutritious as formula for babies over 6 months of age. a. True b. False 18. Unlike physical development, motor development does not follow cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns. a. True b. False 19. Crawling is a critical developmental milestone. a. True b. False 20. The coordination of the senses has been demonstrated in infants as young as 5 months of age. a. True b. False 21. Most infants can walk by 10 months of age. a. True b. False 22. The palmar grasp develops before the pincer grasp in infants. a. True b. False

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 23. Myelination of the neurons involved in hearing begins about the sixth month of pregnancy. a. True b. False 24. Infants need more iron in their diet than adults. a. True b. False 25. It is only by 4 months of age that infants can turn their heads in the direction of a sound. a. True b. False 26. Infants can discriminate the sounds of their parent’s voices by 3½ months of age a. True b. False 27. Only about 50 percent of Canadian mothers breastfeed their infants beyond 6 months. a. True b. False 28. Multiple sclerosis damages the myelin sheath in the brain, affecting motor control. a. True b. False 29. It is as important to restrict infants’ intake of fat and cholesterol as it is for adults. a. True b. False 30. Both nature and nurture have been shown to affect sensory development in children. a. True b. False 31. Dendrites send information on to connecting neurons. a. True b. False 32. Differentiation refers to specific rather than global actions. a. True b. False 33. HIV cannot be passed to the infant through breastfeeding. a. True b. False

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 34. Infants as young as 1 month of age can coordinate information from more than one sense. a. True b. False 35. A child’s growth can be slowed from its genetically predetermined course by many organic factors, including illness and malnutrition. a. True b. False 36. Infants prefer to look at human faces over other visual stimuli. a. True b. False 37. A child reaches adult levels of visual acuity by about 6 months of age. a. True b. False 38. The nervous system is a system of nerves involved in heartbeat, visual–motor coordination, but not thought and language. a. True b. False 39. Today, nearly 90 percent of Canadian mothers initiate breastfeeding. a. True b. False 40. Infants are able to control their hips before their feet. a. True b. False 41. Failure to thrive syndrome has been found to be caused by psychological factors only. a. True b. False 42. Breast milk has been shown to reduce the risk of allergic responses and diarrhea. a. True b. False 43. It is not until 1 year of age that infants are able to distinguish language sounds that are similar to each other. a. True b. False 44. Both sensory change and motor changes are linked to the nervous system. a. True b. False

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 45. Only nature influences motor development. a. True b. False 46. Infants gain control over their trunks and their shoulders before they can control their arms, hands, and fingers. a. True b. False 47. Crawling infants tend to crawl over the “visual cliff” when given the opportunity. a. True b. False 48. The cerebellum is the part of the brain that allows for balance and motor control. a. True b. False 49. Newborns have poor peripheral vision and low visual acuity. a. True b. False 50. Myelination of certain parts of the brain continues into the second decade of life. a. True b. False 51. The human’s inborn sensory capacities have not been proven to play a crucial role in perceptual development. a. True b. False 52. The most dramatic gains in height and weight occur during the first year of life. a. True b. False 53. During the prenatal period, the head is much larger than other parts of the body. a. True b. False 54. The first major growth spurt of the brain occurs during the fourth and fifth months after birth. a. True b. False 55. Training has been shown to have moderate to no influence on speeding up motor development. a. True b. False

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 56. Children who had been diagnosed with failure to thrive syndrome in infancy were smaller, less cognitively advanced, and more emotionally disturbed than other children. a. True b. False 57. Cephalocaudal development goes from feet to head. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

58. In what order does an infant display movement abilities? a. sitting up, rolling over, crawling b. running, walking, crawling, creeping c. crawling, sitting up, creeping, running d. rolling over, sitting up, crawling, creeping 59. Which term refers to the tendency to return to one's predetermined growth after a problem has been resolved? a. canalization b. phenalization c. proximodistal development d. cephalocaudal development 60. Which of the following is a physical part of the neuron? a. medulla b. cerebrum c. dendrites d. neurotransmitters 61. Which part of the neuron receives messages? a. the axon b. the soma c. the synapse d. the dendrites 62. After an infant’s second birthday, the legs begin to grow rapidly and are soon longer than the arms. What type of development is this growth an example of? a. minimalistic development b. proximodistal development c. cephalocaudal development d. differentiation in development 63. Which of the following statements best exemplifies the "habituation" method? a. Infants show that they can distinguish parental voices by 4 weeks of age. b. Infants show visual preferences by attending longer to objects they prefer. c. Infants show new interest in something they have not previously seen or heard. d. Infants show recognition by no longer responding to something they have previously seen or heard.

64. When does a child have the most dramatic gains in height and weight? a. during prenatal development b. during the first year following birth c. during adolescence, when primary growth takes place d. growth is always steady, levelling out after adolescence

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 65. Camille is crawling but she stops before crawling off an edge. Why does Camille stop crawling? a. Like all infants, Camille is prewired to avoid danger. b. Like all crawling infants, Camille can perceive depth. c. Like all infants, Camille is afraid of changes in her environment. d. Like all infants, differences in thresholds are surprising to Camille.

66. By what age can infants identify the sounds of their parent’s voices? a. 3.5 months b. 6.5 months c. 12.5 months d. 18.5 months 67. Marie-Lynn’s finger is hurt. She cries and withdraws her finger, but makes no other move. What is her reaction an example of? a. general distress syndrome b. proximodistal development c. cephalocaudal development d. differentiation in development 68. How does motor development progress? a. It is much more predictable than cognitive development. b. It is completely dependent on the inherited qualities one receives from parents. c. It follows cephalocaudal, proximodistal, and differentiation patterns. d. It occurs independently from other factors such as environment or nutrition.

69. Which term refers to the use of the thumb to assist in picking up small objects? a. the ulnar grasp b. the pincer grasp c. the palmar reflex d. the grasping reflex 70. What finding provides evidence that nature, as opposed to nurture, plays an important role in infants’ perceptual development? a. Infants are born with a tendency to track moving objects and to scan the horizon. b. Failure to receive adequate sensory stimulation can result in sensory deficits. c. Infants who have one eye patched for an extensive period of time may develop impaired visual acuity. d. Infants are born with an ability to recognize faces within three days.

71. What type of development is demonstrated by coordinated hand skills? a. linear development b. proximodistal development c. cephalocaudal development d. differentiation in development 72. Which statement best describes the vaccination requirements in Canada? a. Breastfeeding is a safe alternative to vaccinations. b. Most are less helpful in preventing disease than they were in the past. c. They are optional for children over the age of 10 years. d. They are required for school-age children unless an exemption is granted.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 73. Martha said, “I can’t believe it is possible. I swear my child grew overnight.” How is her doctor most likely to respond? a. No, growing overnight is not possible. b. Yes, growing overnight is possible but only during the teen years. c. Yes, research seems to confirm it is possible to grow overnight. d. Yes, but in childhood growing overnight usually affects only girls.

74. What is the effect of outside influences on motor development? a. Limiting motor movement impairs motor development. b. Nurture is the determining factor in the range of a person's motor abilities. c. Findings are inconsistent on how to enhance or inhibit motor development. d. Extreme social and physical deprivation can impair motor development 75. How do infant brains compare with adult brains? a. Infant brains have more neural connections. b. Infant brains have only about half the structures of adult brains. c. Infant brains have connections that are more rooted in reflex. d. Infant brains are smaller but heavier.

76. Which statement best describes how neurons develop? a. The number of axons diminishes but the number of dendrites increases. b. As the child grows axons lengthen while more dendrites and axon terminals are produced. c. All neurons are developed, and axons are at full size in the first six weeks after birth. d. At birth, the brain contains no neurons because they develop as a result of experience.

77. What term refers to the tendency of behaviour to become more precise and less random? a. integration b. globalization c. differentiation d. conceptualization 78. Which part of the brain allows for learning, thought, and memory? a. the medulla b. the cerebrum c. the amygdala d. the cerebellum 79. What is meant by the phrase “brain adaptability is a double-edged sword”? a. Once we learn something, we have great difficulty unlearning it. b. Our brains are not good at adapting to changing environments. c. Excessive stimulation can be as damaging as too little stimulation to future brain development. d. Our brain has many specialized functions, but damage can impair these specific specialized abilities.

80. What is the relationship between a newborn’s arms and its legs? a. The arms are longer than the legs. b. The arms are shorter than the legs. c. The arms are about equal in length to the legs. d. The arms develop more slowly than the legs after the first birthday due to the cephalocaudal trend.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 81. Why are walking infants known as “toddlers”? a. They are typically aged 18 to 24 months. b. It is an affectionate term with no real significance. c. Their top-heaviness and inexperience leads to frequent falls. d. It is a Latin term used to describe awkward movement.

82. What is the effect of the rapid formation of the brain’s neural development? a. It is automatic and unrelated to learning. b. It may cause the brain’s first growth spurt. c. It increases the density of the brain, but not the size or weight. d. It does not occur until the child enters school and begins learning rapidly.

83. What is the recommended method for introducing new foods to an infant? a. Meat should be introduced before vegetables. b. Iron-enriched cereal should be introduced first. c. Strained meat should be introduced after age 2. d. It does not matter because infants will not show taste preferences.

84. How can we assess an infant’s visual preferences? a. Infants do not have enough experience to have developed preferences. b. We can measure how long infants look at particular objects. c. We can assess the degree of peripheral vision, which approximates visual preference. d. An infant’s neural responses are calculated.

85. How do formulas compare with breast milk? a. Formulas are more easily digested than breast milk. b. Formulas are higher in nutritive value than breast milk. c. Formulas lack the immune system benefits of breast milk. d. Formulas are associated with fewer cases of childhood lymphoma than breast milk.

86. In a 2015 report, what percentage of Canadian mothers indicated they had initiated breastfeeding? a. 27 b. 47 c. 67 d. 89 87. When does the second growth spurt of the brain occur? a. during the fourth and fifth months of prenatal development b. between the 25th week of prenatal development and the end of the second year after birth c. during the second and third weeks of life d. starting in the third year of life and ending by age 5

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 88. In the 1990s, the world became aware of the deteriorating conditions in Romania, where severely malnourished children were being held in orphanages. After some Romania children were adopted by Canadian families, researchers examined the development of 36 such children during three periods: at 11 months, 4.5 years, and 10.5 years. Which statement describes the researchers’ findings? a. By the first period of study, dramatic growth catch-up had taken place. b. By the second period of study, dramatic growth catch-up had taken place. c. By the third period of study, dramatic growth catch-up had taken place. d. Regardless of the period examined, developmental “rebounding” never fully occurred.

89. At the beginning of the fetal stage, what is the relationship between the size of the head and the length of the body? a. The head is about 20% the length of the body. b. The head is about 40% the length of the body. c. The head is about 50% the length of the body. d. The head is about 70% the length of the body.

90. Bethany is a newborn who has brain damage that has impacted her heartbeat and respiration. Which part of Bethany’s brain is mostly likely damaged? a. the medulla b. the pituitary c. the cerebellum d. the hypothalamus 91. Brandon is a newborn. What head movements can Brandon do? a. He can lift his head for short periods of time. b. He can lift his head after about the first week after birth. c. He can move his head from side to side but nothing else. d. When lying on his stomach, he can lift his head and torso for short periods of time.

92. Why do infants move in a bowlegged fashion when they first start to walk? a. They need to support the heavy weight of the head and torso. b. Their legs are not fully developed enough to allow regular walking. c. Being bowlegged is normal and we all learn not to walk this way. d. Their myelination is in progress; therefore neural connections are incomplete.

93. An infant perceives a door as being the same shape whether it is closed or ajar. What term describes what the infant is experiencing? a. retinal parity b. size constancy c. perceptual constancy d. intellectual asymmetry 94. According to the Canadian Paediatric Society, for how long should children be breastfed? a. at least the first 2 weeks b. at least the first 6 months c. at least 1 year d. formulas are just as nutritious

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 95. How quickly does the infant brain grow? a. It develops slowly over the first 10 years of childhood. b. It grows more slowly than the rest of the body. c. It triples in weight by the child's first birthday. d. It reaches 70% of its adult weight in adolescence.

96. Jamie just finished her first bowl of iron-enriched cereal. Her parents have read all the governmentrecommended feeding schedules and now watch with excitement as she experiences this new taste sensation.

How old is Jamie? a. She is 2 to 4 months old. b. She is 4 to 6 months old. c. She is 7 to 8 months old. d. It is her first birthday.

97. How do medical professionals define breast milk? a. “healthy alternative to formula” b. “medical gold standard” c. “a portable snack” d. “an option for low-income families” 98. Which of the following is an example of shape constancy? a. seeing someone in your peripheral vision b. scanning a human face from the edges inward c. recognizing that a door is a rectangle whether it is closed or ajar d. perceiving a ruler to be 30 cm long even when viewed from two metres away 99. According to the textbook, what has research found regarding myelination? a. It may continue into adolescence. b. It is enhanced by vitamin B intake. c. It is complete by the time the child is 3 years old. d. It enhances cognitive functioning, but not motor functioning.

100. What will toddlers usually do when confronted with a steep slope while walking? a. They will adamantly refuse to go down it. b. They will usually stop and crawl down the slope. c. They will move more quickly down the slope. d. They are unable to perceive changes in grade and will usually fall down.

101. Miriam is excited to watch the development of her newborn baby, Max. Which body parts will Max gain control over first? a. his legs b. his arms c. his head d. his fingers

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 102. Jason’s son, Yves, has developed intellectual challenges due to a disorder called PKU. What role does myelin play in Yves’s disorder? a. He has excessive myelination. b. His body did not form myelin in his brain. c. His myelin travelled into his soma and destroyed the neuron. d. His myelin covered the dendrites and stopped the communication process.

103. What is failure to thrive syndrome? a. It is an organic illness. b. It is a nonorganic condition. c. It is likely the result of prenatal problems. d. It is likely the result of a combination of organic and nonorganic causes.

104. Sarah weighed 3.5 kg at birth. After today’s doctor’s visit, her mother informs her father that she now weighs almost 11 kg. How old is Sarah? a. about 6 months b. about 9 months c. about 12 months d. about 18 months 105. Jessica is excited to watch the development of her newborn nephew, Ian. Which physical activity is Ian most likely to do first? a. hold objects b. control his fingers c. lift his head off his crib’s mattress d. make coordinated movements with his feet 106. Which statement explains what is required to achieve voluntary reaching and grasping? a. These actions require visual–motor coordination. b. The infant’s depth perception must be developed. c. The newborn must be able to see objects more than three inches away. d. Newborns must be motivated to perform these actions.

107. At what age can infants usually sit up by themselves without assistance? a. by about 3 months b. usually around 5 months c. usually around 7 months d. usually around 9 to 10 months 108. Sidney is 20 months old and has been diagnosed as having nonorganic failure to thrive (NOFTT) syndrome.

What is the most likely cause of his NOFTT? a. difficulty accessing food; he won’t breastfeed b. an underlying physical health problem c. a psychological or social cause d. failure to make use of adequate nutrition

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 109. Samantha has been treated for failure to thrive syndrome. She is now returning to her normal growth rate. What does her renewed activity represent? a. canalization b. phenalization c. differentiation d. proximodistal development 110. Which sequence of development means "from head to tail”? a. integration b. differentiation c. proximodistal development d. cephalocaudal development 111. How does the brain regulate development of the infant's body? a. by secreting hormones b. by regulating the somatic nervous system c. by a predetermined sequence that is initiated at birth d. by sending of electrical signals to the muscles and bones 112. According to the textbook, what is the current thinking about the development of Olympic-class athletes? a. Olympic athletes are born, not made. b. Environment makes all the difference in who will and will not become an Olympian. c. Even Olympic athletes represent a combination of "good genes" and the right environment. d. Genetics are more likely to determine male accomplishments than female accomplishments.

113. What is a central feature of failure to thrive syndrome? a. irritability b. poor REM sleep c. feeding problems d. excessive eye contact with adults 114. What finding suggests that nature is crucial in perceptual development? a. Newborns are unable to visually accommodate. b. Newborns are born with a variety of sensory preferences. c. Children whose eyes are patched experience impaired visual acuity. d. Four-month-olds are able to distinguish between the voices of their mother and father.

115. Lynn believes that she and her son will enjoy better health later in life because she breastfed him as an infant.

Which of the following is NOT related to having been breastfed as an infant? a. a decreased likelihood of asthma later in life b. a decreased likelihood of breast cancer for the mother later in life c. a decreased likelihood of obesity for the child later in life d. a decreased likelihood of diabetes 116. According to research cited in the textbook, what is the current thinking on children’s language development? a. Infants are born prewired to learn their native language. b. Children are born able to speak any language, and this ability remains. c. Children are born ready to learn any language, but quickly adapt to their native language. d. Children cannot discriminate the sounds of any language until approximately 2 years of age.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 117. What was the finding of the study that involved 23 sets of parents who kept daily sleep records of their newborns? a. Growth spurts tended to follow decreased sleeping and nap time. b. Growth spurts tended to follow increased sleeping and nap time. c. The growth of taller-than-average infants tended to continue to speed up. d. The growth of shorter-than-average infants tended to slow down.

118. What is a defining characteristic of newborns’ vision? a. They are extremely farsighted. b. They are generally nearsighted until age three. c. They have better peripheral vision than adults. d. They are unable to see in black and white because the rods of the retina are not developed at birth.

119. What is the effect on a child when motor development has been deprived? a. The damage can be improved with intervention. b. The damage is irreversible, although minimal progress can be made. c. Social and intellectual functioning will also decline. d. The findings are inconsistent.

120. A child holds a toy awkwardly, using only his fingers and palm. What term describes this action? a. the ulnar grasp b. the pincer grasp c. the palmar reflex d. reflexive grasping 121. How does the specific training of an infant’s motor skills affect motor development? a. It can slow down motor development in the long run. b. It may accelerate some motor skills, but only slightly. c. It leads to superior motor performance throughout life. d. It has been proven to have no effect on motor development.

122. What is the definition of the “reaction range”? a. a child’s reactions to different visual and motor stimuli b. the genetically determined span of outcomes for development c. the outcome of development that is based on a child’s environment d. the upper limit of development when a child has received a great deal of environmental stimulation 123. An infant’s arms grow longer than its legs. What development pattern is this type of growth part of? a. minimalistic development b. proximodistal development c. cephalocaudal development d. differentiation in development 124. Kiley, a 5-month-old infant, refuses to eat and has not gained any weight in two months. What is the most likely conclusion about Kiley? a. He may have colic. b. He is a typical infant. c. He may have a vitamin deficiency. d. He may have failure to thrive syndrome.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 125. Which sequence of development means "from the centre outward”? a. integration b. differentiation c. proximodistal development d. cephalocaudal development 126. Which statement best describes motor development? a. It is a process of unfolding genetic tendencies (maturation). b. It depends on experience and the environment. c. It is dependent on a combination of maturation and experience. d. It is dependent on a combination of heredity and environmental stimulation.

127. Which of the following is a sequence in physical development? a. hydrospatial development b. digestive development c. placental development d. cephalocaudal development 128. What is the fatty substance that neurons are wrapped in? a. alduin b. myelin c. globulin d. profferin 129. You have noticed changes in your ability to walk. The doctor informs you that your myelin is being replaced with a hard fibrous tissue. What disorder does the doctor suspect you may have? a. PKU b. SIDS c. multiple sclerosis d. failure to thrive syndrome 130. How does the nutrition of Canadian children compare with the nutrition of children in other countries? a. Canadian children’s nutrition is worse than that of children in many other countries. b. Canadian children’s nutrition is on an equal basis with that of children in most other countries. c. Canadian children’s nutrition is better than that of children in many countries, with few Canadian children experiencing poor nutrition. d. Canadian children’s nutrition is better than that of children in many other countries, although Canadian children living in poverty tend to have poor nutrition.

131. Shapes A and B are the same object. When the objects are seen from different angles, the infant's heart rate and pattern of gazing do not change. Which of the following best describes what is occurring? a. The infant does not recognize shape A because it is a novel object. b. The infant does not recognize shape B because it is a novel object. c. The infant recognizes shapes A and B to be the same. d. The infant will become confused and frustrated and will search out a support person.

132. When do children start using their thumbs to aid them in grasping objects? a. virtually at birth b. at 2 to 3 months c. at 4 to 6 months d. at 9 to 12 months

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 133. Max weighed 3 kg at birth. After a recent doctor’s appointment, his parents were told that Max is developing normally; he now weighs 6 kg. How old is Max? a. about 3 months old b. about 5 months old c. about 8 months old d. about 12 months old 134. Voluntary motor movements require the myelination of which neurons? a. the neurons in the medulla b. the neurons in the cerebrum c. the neurons in the cerebral cortex d. the neurons of the motor pathways 135. How big is the newborn's brain? a. about half a kilogram b. about one-third of its adult size c. about half of its adult size d. about 95% of its adult size 136. Approximately what percentage of Canadian mothers breastfeed their infants up to 6 months of age? a. between 10 and 20 b. between 20 and 40 c. between 40 and 60 d. between 60 and 80 137. Where is the medulla located? a. in the midbrain b. in the forebrain c. in the hindbrain d. in the brain stem 138. Why is the head disproportionately large during infancy and childhood? a. Bones grow very slowly. b. No scientific reason has been found; it just is. c. The brain is essential for all other growth. d. Muscle grows more slowly than brain tissue.

139. A baseball game has a pitcher and a catcher. One part of a neuron pitches something and another part catches something. What is the “something” that is exchanged? a. the enzymes b. the hormones c. the prolactins d. the neurotransmitters 140. What is one of the most common reasons given for not breastfeeding? a. too much work b. fussy infant c. not enough breast milk d. infant not interested 141. At what age does a child acquire the greatest gains in visual acuity? a. from birth to 6 months of age b. from 6 to 9 months of age c. from 9 to 12 months of age d. after the age of 5 years 142. Mary is 4 months old. What is the priority for her nutritional needs and feeding routine? a. a gradual introduction of solid foods starting with iron-enriched cereal is ideal b. more simple sugars than adults because infants are rapidly growing c. restriction of fat intake to avoid childhood obesity d. same nutritional needs as adults and older children: high in fibre, low in fats Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 143. A baseball game has a pitcher and a catcher. Which part of the neuron sends something and might be compared to being a pitcher? a. the axon b. the cell body c. the synapse d. the dendrites 144. A baby has begun to crawl. What conclusion can you draw regarding the baby’s myelin? a. Myelination of neurons has already begun. b. Myelination is completed once physical movement has begun. c. Myelin will soon form to coat the infant’s motor neurons. d. A maturation process will soon be activated and will result in myelination of neurons by the end of the infant’s first year.

145. According to the textbook, which of the following do infants prefer to look at? a. pastel colours b. the human face c. simple diagrams of animals d. small dot patterns 146. You are a nursing student on a clinical placement in a hospital. An expectant mother is concerned about breastfeeding and asks you to name one benefit. Which of the following are you most likely to say? a. Breastfeeding will cause a premature infant to grow quicker. b. Breastfeeding reduces the risk of certain childhood illnesses, such as asthma, ear infections, and cancer. c. Because of the new drugs available today, HIV cannot be transmitted to the infant via breastfeeding. d. Regardless of the mother’s weight and nutritional factor, as long as the mother eats a variety of foods, her body will produce quality and limitless breast milk for her infant.

147. What causes the second growth spurt of the brain? a. neuron development b. a proliferation of dendrites and axons c. an enlargement of the brain ventricles d. an increase in hormone production 148. What is the finding of the research on infants’ coordination of senses? a. Infants have demonstrated at birth that they can coordinate a variety of sensory information. b. One-month-old infants have demonstrated they can recognize that objects experienced by one sense are the same as those experienced by another sense. c. Infants have no ability to coordinate senses until they are 1 year of age. d. Infants can coordinate visual and auditory information early on, but not visual and tactile information.

149. Which of the following best characterizes locomotor development? a. a great deal of consistency in the order of skill development b. a great deal of consistency in the age at which these skills are acquired c. significant gender differences in the age at which these skills are demonstrated d. consistency when children receive similar stimulation, otherwise locomotor discrepancies occur 150. Ben is 6 months old. Which activity is he most likely able to do? a. crawl b. roll over c. sit up assisted d. sit up unassisted Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 151. What finding noted in the text supports the role of nurture in perceptual development? a. Newborns prefer the taste of sweet over bitter. b. Newborns recognize the differences among many language sounds. c. Children whose eyes are patched experience impaired visual acuity. d. Newborns prefer their mother’s underarm odours to other women’s odours.

152. Which statement best describes myelination of the visual cortex? a. Myelination is not needed for the visual cortex to develop. b. Myelination of the visual cortex is completed before birth. c. Myelination of the visual cortex is not completed until adolescence. d. Myelination of the visual cortex begins after birth and ends within 5 to 6 months after birth.

153. Previously malnourished children have now received nourishment and are experiencing good health. What term refers to the tendency of their growth rates to return to their normal patterns? a. differentiation b. habituation c. canalization d. myelination 154. What happens when infants look at something? a. They are prewired to pay attention to subtle features. b. They begin by focusing on edges and moving inward. c. They do not like anything out of the ordinary or different. d. They focus in on one feature and ignore all other features.

155. Hannah is 5 months old. What do you expect about Hannah’s ability to take hold of an object? a. She has not yet become successful at grasping objects. b. She may be able to grasp the object, but does not know how to let go of it. c. She has not yet learned to use her ulnar grasp. d. She has mastered the skill of grabbing and releasing an object.

156. What is the function of the myelin? a. It creates neurotransmitters. b. Its exact function is unknown. c. It prevents electrical messages from travelling down the axon. d. It allows for electrical messages in the neuron to be conducted more efficiently.

157. Breastfeeding has many benefits but also some downsides for the mother. Which of the following is considered a downside of breastfeeding for the mother? a. It decreases bone strength. b. It delays the shrinking of the uterus after delivery. c. It increases the risk of osteoporosis d. It may take a toll on her emotional and physical health.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 158. Jane’s friend thinks it’s silly that Jane takes her infant daughter to the zoo, the library, and the museum. Why does Jane argue that exposing her daughter to varied experiences at a young age is important? a. Brain activity is activated only through experiential learning prior to the age of 12 months. b. Neural pathways must be created early to ensure a child’s happiness across the lifespan. c. Babies who are busy are more intelligent than those who are not. d. Early exposure to experiences leads to neural connections that survive over time.

159. According to research, by what age do most infants show a distinct preference for curved lines over straight lines? a. by 2 to 3 months b. by 5 to 6 months c. by 7 to 9 months d. by approximately 12 months 160. Which observation supports the notion that perception becomes more active through childhood? a. Infants respond only when an object captures their attention. b. Infants avoid systematic searching of their environments. c. Infants are better able to ignore irrelevant information as they get older. d. Attention becomes more general, and children pay attention to more stimuli as they get older.

161. Joanna’s 18-month-old son is looking at human faces. What parts of the face does her son prefer to look at? a. the eyes b. the mouth c. the entire face d. the edges, such as the chin 162. When does the brain’s first growth spurt occur? a. during the fourth and fifth months of prenatal development b. during the second and third weeks of life c. at approximately the first month after birth d. toward the end of the first year 163. What was the finding of Gibson and Walk (1960) in their classic study of depth perception? a. Boys crossed the visual cliff earlier than girls. b. One-month-olds would not cross the visual cliff. c. Eight out of 10 crawling infants would not cross onto the visual cliff. d. Infants would cross the visual cliff when their mothers encouraged them to do so.

164. When is the myelination of hearing usually completed? a. within 3 weeks after birth b. by 6 months of age c. by age 4 d. by adolescence 165. At what point does an infant’s visual acuity become similar to that of adults? a. at birth b. within 2 weeks after birth c. by one to three months after birth d. by three to five years of age

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 166. How does the myelination of motor pathways affect an infant’s development? a. It has very little influence over infant motor skill development. b. It results in finely coordinated motor movements. c. It enhances the child's ability to engage in stereotyped reflexes. d. It increases the speed at which the infant can process cognitive information. a. refuses to eat b. grabs without using the thumb c. breastfeed for at least one year d. the part of the neuron that receives information e. systematically scan within boundaries of objects f. development from centre to outer g. fatty substance that coats neurons h. controls heartbeat and breathing i. responsible for learning, thinking, memory and language. j. sends messages from the neuron's cell body k. grabs using the thumb l. development from top to bottom m. pay attention to edges of objects n. perceive objects as same even from an angle o. returning to one's genetically determined pattern of growth p. myelination of nerves to muscles q. facilitates motor control r. perceive object as same even from a distance s. associated with lower risk of child lymphoma t. chemical messengers released from neurons QUESTION TYPE: Matching CUSTOM ID: 04-176 167. Cephalocaudal 168. Axon 169. Cerebellum 170. Breastfeeding 171. Size constancy 172. Two years of age 173. One-month-olds 174. Proximodistal 175. Palmar grasp 176. Dendrites 177. Failure to thrive Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 178. Myelin 179. Neurotransmitters 180. Two-month-olds 181. Medulla 182. Cerebrum 183. Shape constancy 184. Pincer grasp 185. Gold standard 186. Canalization 187. What are the roles of myelination?

188. Briefly describe the differences between cephalocaudal and proximodistal patterns of development.

189. What evidence supports the notions that both nature and nurture have roles in motor development?

190. How does an infant’s perception of the human language change during the first year of life?

191. In the context of human development, what does the term "differentiation" mean?

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 192. How has the visual cliff been used to study depth perception in infants? What has been shown by the research on the visual cliff?

193. Discuss what is meant by “canalization,” in terms of human development.

194. What are the benefits and problems associated with breastfeeding?

195. Briefly describe how the parts of a neuron function.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. True 24. True 25. False 26. True

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 27. False 28. True 29. False 30. True 31. False 32. True 33. False 34. True 35. True 36. True 37. False 38. False 39. True 40. True 41. False 42. True 43. False 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. False 48. True 49. True 50. True 51. False 52. False 53. True 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 55. True 56. True 57. False 58. d 59. a 60. c 61. d 62. c 63. d 64. a 65. b 66. a 67. d 68. c 69. b 70. a 71. b 72. d 73. c 74. d 75. a 76. b 77. c 78. b 79. d 80. c 81. c 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 83. b 84. b 85. c 86. d 87. b 88. c 89. c 90. a 91. c 92. a 93. c 94. b 95. c 96. b 97. b 98. c 99. a 100. b 101. c 102. b 103. d 104. c 105. c 106. a 107. c 108. c 109. a 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 111. a 112. c 113. c 114. b 115. d 116. c 117. b 118. b 119. a 120. c 121. b 122. b 123. c 124. d 125. c 126. c 127. d 128. b 129. c 130. d 131. c 132. d 133. b 134. c 135. a 136. b 137. d

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 138. c 139. d 140. c 141. a 142. a 143. a 144. a 145. b 146. b 147. b 148. b 149. a 150. b 151. c 152. d 153. c 154. b 155. b 156. d 157. d 158. d 159. a 160. c 161. d 162. a 163. c 164. c 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 166. c 167. l 168. j 169. q 170. s 171. r 172. p 173. m 174. f 175. b 176. d 177. a 178. g 179. t 180. e 181. h 182. i 183. n 184. k 185. c 186. o 187. The development of the myelin sheath, which acts as an insulation for neurons, improves the conduction of nerve impulses, making neural transmission more efficient. It is associated with increased voluntary control of motor behaviours and improvement of higher-level mental processes.

188. Cephalocaudal development essentially means "from head to tail." In other words, human beings tend to develop from the top down. For example, the most highly developed part of the body at birth is the head and brain. Because the brain is involved in all aspects of development that occur after birth, it needs to be highly developed. As the infant gains strength, this pattern continues. An infant can lift her head and torso off the ground, for example, before she can exert much control over her arms and legs. Proximodistal development is a pattern that means "from the centre out." Infants can control their trunks or torsos before they can control their fingers and toes.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 189. Nature has been shown to be involved even when a child lacks experience in motor activity. One example was revealed when, in the 1990s, the world became aware of deteriorating conditions in Romania, where severely malnourished children were being held in orphanages. Nurture was shown to be an important gift for the children who were adopted by Canadian families. Despite their severe early deprivation, the children seemed to be able to make remarkable gains in the areas of physical growth and health.

190. At birth, newborns are able to recognize the difference in sounds used in all human languages. They can be trained to respond differently to different types of sounds, as apparent in habituation studies where infants sucked harder when exposed to new language stimuli. As infants develop, they lose the ability to detect the sounds of languages they have not been exposed to. Infants also learn to ignore differences in small, meaningless sounds in their native language.

191. In a technical sense, this term describes a tendency for behaviour to become more specific and distinct as the child matures. For example, if a young infant gets a finger pinched in a toy, she may withdraw her hand but also may flail around and cry in a general pattern of distress. As the child gets older, she may withdraw the hand and cry, but not show a similar overall pattern of distress. The infant appears to become increasingly able to isolate responses that are specific to what has occurred.

192. The visual cliff is an apparatus that includes an edge that appears to drop off. Young infants placed on the apparent drop-off point indicated interest in what they were viewing by a decrease in their heart rates. Older infants, who had with experience in crawling, refused to crawl over to the apparent drop-off and showed an increased heart rate, indicating a fear response to the drop-off.

193. Canalization refers to the tendency to return to one's genetically determined pattern of growth. In other words, if illness or poor nutrition has interfered with the child's growth, the child will tend to "catch up" once that challenge has passed or has been taken care of. As a result, a child who has shown a deficiency will often demonstrate acceleration in development and will return to approximately the normal course of development for children the same age.

194.

Breastfeeding has many benefits both to the infant and the mother. First of all, breast milk is less likely to upset an infant's stomach than formula, and it provides adequate nutrition for at least the first six months of life. As the infant matures, the composition of breast milk changes to help meet the infant’s changing needs. The antibodies in breast milk help the infant to ward off a variety of health problems, ranging from respiratory problems such as asthma and pneumonia to tetanus, chicken pox, bacterial meningitis, and typhoid fever. Breast milk has also been shown to reduce the risk of childhood lymphoma and serious cases of diarrhea. Infants who are nourished by breast milk are less likely to develop allergic responses and constipation and less likely to develop obesity later in life. The mother who breastfeeds has a reduced risk of early onset breast cancer and ovarian cancer. Breastfeeding women also tend to have stronger bones than women who did not breastfeed. The uterus shrinks after childbirth with the help of breastfeeding.

Some of the problems associated with breastfeeding may include less involvement of the other parent in feeding of the infant, more difficulties in returning to work, a need for better nourishment of the breastfeeding mother, and transmission through breast milk of certain hazards such as PCBs and the HIV/AIDS virus.

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Chap_04_HDEV_4ce 195. In a simple sense, a neuron has three main parts. The dendrites are branch-like fibres that are considered to be the "receivers" for the neuron. They will gather messages from other neurons and send that information to the cell body for processing. If a threshold is reached in the cell body, it will send that message down the axon for potential transfer to another neuron. The cell body is like the processing unit and the axon guides where the output goes. The axon contains neurotransmitters (chemical messengers) that may be deposited into the gap between neurons. The messengers may be received by dendrites of connecting neurons and the process continues. Another important structure is myelin. This is a fatty substance that wraps around neurons, insulating them and increasing the efficiency of the communication of messages.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Memory improves dramatically between 1 and 2 months of age and then again by 36 months. a. True b. False 2. There is no evidence of a sensitive period for language development. a. True b. False 3. A child’s Mean Length of Utterance (MLU) decreases as the child develops. a. True b. False 4. Children usually utter their first word at around 12 months of age. a. True b. False 5. Language learning is most efficient during the sensitive period that lasts until puberty. a. True b. False 6. Visual recognition memory during infancy is related to later IQ scores. a. True b. False 7. Skinner’s perspective is that decreasing reinforcement leads to a faster growth in vocabulary. a. True b. False 8. During the first year of life, infants’ reflexes are stereotypical and inflexible. a. True b. False 9. Children only speak words and phrases they have heard before. a. True b. False 10. Babbling is the first communicative sound an infant makes. a. True b. False 11. A 2007 study of children aged 8 to 16 months concluded that infants exposed to baby DVDs scored lower on language development than children with no screen time. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 12. During the sensorimotor period, infants progress from responding to events with reflexes, or ready-made schemas, to goal-oriented behaviour. a. True b. False 13. Object permanence is recognition that an object exists when out of sight. a. True b. False 14. Calling all four-legged animals doggies is an example of an overextension. a. True b. False 15. Learning theory explains language development primarily as a result of nature. a. True b. False 16. According to Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory, the first stage of cognitive development is the formal operational stage. a. True b. False 17. Parents can influence babbling through simple acts of reinforcement such as smiling. a. True b. False 18. By approximately 6 months of age, infants tend to look for objects that are dropped. a. True b. False 19. According to the nativist perspective, children have an inborn tendency to language learning in the form of neurological “prewiring.” a. True b. False 20. Genie, the girl who was locked away for much of her first 13 years of life, was unable to learn language as well as those who had normal language development. a. True b. False 21. The situation with Genie, who was locked away for much of her first 13 years of life, supports the nurture view of language development. a. True b. False

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 22. Research on infant memory has shown that newborns adjust their rate of sucking to hear a recording of their mother reading a story she had read aloud during the last weeks of pregnancy, a. True b. False 23. Tertiary circular reactions occur when infants engage in purposeful adaptations of established schemas to specific situations. a. True b. False 24. Imitation is the basis for much of human learning. a. True b. False 25. The case study of Genie supports the idea that the tendency to acquire language is easily learned at any time in life. a. True b. False 26. Most children can use 500 words by 18 months of age. a. True b. False 27. Research on deferred imitation supports Piaget’s view of cognitive development. a. True b. False 28. Infants are unable to imitate others’ behaviours until 6 months of age. a. True b. False 29. Language development can be explained entirely as a result of imitation and shaping. a. True b. False 30. Receptive language tends to outpace expressive language. a. True b. False 31. Approximately 30% of Canadians report that they speak two languages at home. a. True b. False 32. Reading to a child can help foster his or her language development. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 33. The sensitive period for language development takes place between 18 and 24 months. a. True b. False 34. Piaget hypothesized that cognitive processes develop in an orderly sequence of stages. a. True b. False 35. Cooing is the same thing as crying. a. True b. False 36. Research findings discussed in the text demonstrate that infants are unable to remember events that occurred to them from day to day. a. True b. False 37. Learning theorists believe that language is acquired as a result of inborn or prewired factors. a. True b. False 38. According to Piaget, during the fourth substage of sensory motor development, infants coordinate schemas to attain specific goals. a. True b. False 39. Critics of Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory suggest that development tends to be more gradual and continuous than he suggested. a. True b. False 40. The Bayley Scales may identify sensory or neurological problems. a. True b. False 41. Selective reinforcement of children’s pronunciation may lead to slower language development. a. True b. False 42. Children who use language to label objects are said to have a referential style of language. a. True b. False

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 43. The nativist view of language development holds that inborn factors cause children to attend to and acquire language in certain ways. a. True b. False 44. Piaget theorized that children follow an orderly sequence of stages through cognitive development. a. True b. False 45. “Motherese” has been shown to slow language development. a. True b. False 46. Newborns’ ability to imitate others may have a survival function. a. True b. False 47. Imitation after a time delay occurs as early as 6 months of age. a. True b. False 48. A primary circular reaction involves repeating a behaviour that affects the environment. a. True b. False 49. Children who are bilingual experience cognitive benefits including enhanced attention control. a. True b. False 50. When children accommodate, they create new schemas for the world. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

51. Which skill does the Bayley Scales measure when assessing an infant’s intelligence? a. IQ b. mother-child attachment c. verbal communication and perceptual skills d. information processing 52. What is intonation? a. repeating what has been heard b. rising and falling speech patterns c. the replication of consonants and vowels d. babbling sounds from all achievable languages Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 53. Josh has learned that his ball is called a toy. When he sees a round light bulb, he calls it a "toy." What term describes Josh’s response? a. accommodation b. differentiation c. assimilation d. conceptualization 54. What is the definition of the referential language style? a. using personal pronouns to refer to the self b. using language to label objects in the environment c. using language as a means for engaging in social interaction d. using words that make no particular reference, but allow practice with the vocal cords 55. What is the definition of a specific nominal? a. a proper noun b. a personal pronoun c. a class of objects d. a word longer than two syllables 56. Dylan picks up an object he has never seen before. He immediately puts it in his mouth. What stage of cognitive development is Dylan demonstrating? a. the sensorimotor stage b. the preoperational stage c. the concrete operational stage d. the formal operational stage 57. What term refers to vocalizations that the infant makes prior to using language? a. prelinguistic b. nonsensical c. random d. expressive 58. What is required to move from reflexive imitation to purposeful imitation? a. the passing of time b. improvements in cognitive abilities c. the emergence of genetic programming d. significant effort on the part of the child over an extended period of time 59. As Michael plays in his crib, his parents overhear him making repetitive sounds such as "babababa" and "dadadada." What term describes this repeating of syllables? a. cooing b. echolalia c. babbling d. intonation 60. Ashley is an average 12-month-old child. How many words can Ashley speak? a. 5 b. 8 c. 13 d. 22 61. Why do we assess infant intelligence? a. to ensure that bright children start school early b. to screen for problems so that compensations can be made c. because the assessments lead to accurate developmental predictions d. to ensure follow-up parent capacity assessments are completed

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 62. What would Piaget consider to be a stage of cognitive development? a. the logical operations stage b. the sensorimotor stage c. the concordance operations stage d. the neuromotor stage 63. Jocelyn watches as her mother puts her toys in a basket. Three weeks later, after never having engaged in this behaviour, Jocelyn attempts to put her toys in the basket. What is Jocelyn demonstrating? a. social stereotypes b. rule-following c. deferred imitation d. simple reflexes 64. Which statement is a criticism as a result of research into Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory? a. It overestimates the abilities of infants. b. It does not explain cognitive development of infants. c. It focuses almost exclusively on learning processes. d. It focuses almost exclusively on maturational processes.

65. Dana asks her son’s pediatrician whether overall scores on tests, such as the Bayley Scales, can accurately predict future grades in school. What is likely to be the pediatrician’s response? a. Yes, especially for verbal skills. b. No, because the tests are invalid. c. Yes, especially for mathematic abilities. d. No, perhaps because cognitive functioning changes so rapidly in infancy.

66. Olivia has learned to call a toy truck "tru." Now whenever she sees any toy with wheels, she calls it "tru." What is Olivia’s response an example of? a. overextension b. underextension c. expressive language style d. referential language style 67. What forms the basis for much of human learning? a. imitation of others b. genetic programming c. learning by trial and error d. self-exploration 68. Lacey is 7 months old. She shakes a rattle so it will make a noise she likes. What is Lacey’s action an example of? a. a simple reflex b. a primary circular reaction c. a secondary circular reaction d. a tertiary circular reaction 69. Sarah knows that kittens are animals. Her mother tells her that puppies are also animals. Sarah then changes her schema of animals to include puppies. What is Sarah using when she changes her schema to incorporate this new information? a. assimilation b. reaction range c. augmentation d. accommodation

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 70. What is the meaning of the phrase "A-not-B error"? a. Children will search for hidden objects only when they have an incentive. b. Children will randomly search for hidden objects, but will quickly become frustrated and give up. c. A child will search for a hidden toy but will quickly become distracted by other, more interesting objects. d. A child may continually reach for a hidden object where it has always been, even when the child sees the toy hidden somewhere else.

71. Which of the following is a characteristic of tertiary circular reactions? a. Trial and error is still used until an action accomplishes the goal. b. Trial and error is not needed. c. The child will give up if something does not work the first time. d. The child will not follow an object that is out of sight.

72. A child looks repeatedly and intensely at an object. Which of the following is indicated by this activity? a. The child is demonstrating memory. b. The child does not understand the object. c. The child is purposefully looking in order to see. d. The child is demonstrating depth perception.

73. Which of the following children is coordinating secondary schemas? a. Martha is engaging in purposeful movements. b. Geoff is engaging in most repetitions of behaviours by accident. c. Alyssa can differentiate between how to achieve a goal and the goal itself. d. Johnny engages in deliberate trial-and-error actions to learn how things work.

74. You are visiting your friends, and you meet their daughter, Roberta. You are delighted to see such a happy child.

You also notice that Roberta has begun using two-word sentences. How old is Roberta? a. 12 months b. 16 months c. 24 months d. 36 months 75. Which of the following is an example of a primary circular reaction? a. Jean-Paul turns toward the sound of the phone ringing. b. Lucien kicks his mobile over and over, which makes it move. c. Kayla accidentally touches her nose with her thumb and then repeats the action. d. Megan pulls her blanket so it brings her teddy bear close enough that she can grab it.

76. Newborns at only 0.7 to 71 hours old have been found to imitate adults when the adults have done which of the following? a. open their mouths or stick out their tongues b. repeatedly open and close their eyes c. repeatedly open and “fist up” their hands in front of the newborns d. purse their lips

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 77. Tabatha is playing with a ball when it rolls down a flight of stairs and out of sight. She makes no attempt to find the ball. What cognitive-development stage is Tabatha in? a. the sensorimotor stage b. the preoperational stage c. the concrete operational stage d. the formal operational stage 78. Which vocalization is the first that resembles human speech? a. crying b. cooing c. babbling d. making no sound, which shows awareness that all is well 79. Baby Sammy likes to repeat the sound “dada.” What is this vocalization called? a. cooing b. babbling c. echolalia d. her first word 80. Which term refers to an infant’s "ooh" and "ah" sounds, which are linked to joy or enthusiasm? a. positive cries b. cooing c. babbling d. echolalia 81. Infants progress from responding to events with reflexes, or ready-made schemas, to goal-oriented behaviour.

What stage of Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory is being described? a. the sensorimotor stage b. the preoperational stage c. the concrete operational stage d. the formal operational stage 82. What assumption forms the basis of a stage theory of cognitive development? a. Development occurs regardless of experience. b. Development is a continuous process that never ends. c. Development occurs at different ages for different children. d. Development progresses according to discrete, age-based steps.

83. Which of the following is indicated when an infant sticks out her tongue? a. memory b. imitation c. a random act d. too little information to tell 84. In the 2011 Canadian Census, how many different languages were reported as a home language, or mother tongue? a. fewer than 50 b. 50 to 100 c. 101 to 200 d. more than 200 85. After children begin to speak their first words, what is the pace of their verbal acquisition? a. fast, with children speaking 40 to 50 words within a month b. slow, with children speaking 10 to 30 words within 3 to 4 months c. fast, as expressive vocabulary outpaces receptive vocabulary d. slow, 5 to 10 words within 6 months, and sometimes regression takes place

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 86. Alex reaches for a toy truck, which is hidden under the toy box. What would an informed observer be most likely to assume about this action? a. Alex’s action is random. b. The action’s significance depends on Alex’s age. c. The action’s significance depends on the Alex’s gender. d. Alex has a mental representation of the object in mind.

87. Piaget closely observed the activities of children and noted that they tend to experiment with the environment.

Because of this behaviour, what did Piaget consider children to be? a. scientists b. copiers c. comedians d. students 88. What have other researchers found regarding Piaget's stages of cognitive development? a. Piaget’s stages have been documented in children cross-culturally. b. Piaget’s stages have been documented only in Piaget's own children. c. Piaget’s stages apply more directly to the cognitive development of boys than girls. d. Piaget’s stages apply more directly to the cognitive development of girls than boys.

89. During which substage of the sensorimotor period of development are reflexes inflexible and stereotypical? a. the first substage b. the second substage c. the third substage d. the fourth substage 90. While observing infants, you witness a tertiary circular reaction. What stage of cognitive development have you observed? a. the sensorimotor stage b. the preoperational stage c. the concrete operational stage d. the formal operational stage 91. What abilities must be in place in order for an infant to develop object permanence? a. flexibility of thought and schemas b. working memory and reasoning c. curiosity and ambition d. imitation and differentiation 92. Which of the following is an example of a specific nominal? a. boy b. fire truck c. brown dog d. Mr. Rogers 93. Dishabituation is exemplified when an infant does which of the following? a. pays attention to a new toy b. repeats a phrase c. learns to speak d. loses interest in a game of peekaboo 94. Janet tells her husband that their infant son, Josh, is exhibiting echolalia. What behaviour is she referring to? a. Josh understands more words than he can say. b. Josh is speaking words that he does not understand. c. Josh is repeating syllables. d. Josh is using his tongue’s circular rotation to speak.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 95. How would Piaget (1963) most likely describe the development of children's cognitive processes? a. as an orderly sequence or series of stages b. as slow and continuous from childhood to adulthood c. as a developmental sequence that varies greatly for each child d. as primarily completed by age 7, after which no new cognitive development occurs 96. What is the relationship between achievements on sensorimotor tests and other test achievements? a. Achievements on sensorimotor tests are strongly related to subsequent IQ scores. b. Achievements on sensorimotor tests are strongly related to childhood success in school. c. Achievements on sensorimotor tests do not reliably predict later school performance. d. Achievements on sensorimotor tests are strongly related to verbal and symbolic scores obtained in later childhood.

97. What is a receptive vocabulary? a. all words the child comprehends b. all words the child can articulate c. the replication of syllables the child has heard d. the words the child has heard, but does not yet comprehend 98. Mary, a new parent, is embracing her daughter, Samantha. Mary can be heard speaking slowly to Samantha, at a higher pitch, and with pauses inserted between her words. What would developmentalists call Mary’s speech pattern? a. morphology b. grammatical construction c. shaping d. Motherese 99. A child learns to call a dog "bow-wow" and now calls all animals he sees "bow-wow." What is this child’s behaviour an example of? a. morpheme b. overextension c. egocentric speech d. telegraphic speech 100. What distinguishes primary circular reactions from secondary circular reactions? a. They are the same; one engages in a more complex behaviour. b. Primary reactions involve more important behaviours than secondary reactions. c. Primary reactions involve only reflexes, whereas secondary reactions involve thoughts. d. Primary reactions focus on the body, whereas secondary reactions focus on the environment.

101. Which statement best describes Piaget's cognitive-developmental theory? a. It has not been observed cross-culturally. b. It is a very comprehensive theory of cognitive development. c. It is an excellent theory for understanding infant social development. d. It has been validated; infant cognitive development occurs in discrete stages.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 102. What substage of sensorimotor development serves as a transition to the symbolic thought of the next stage? a. the tertiary circular reaction substage b. the secondary circular reaction substage c. the coordination of secondary schemas substage d. the invention of new means through mental combinations substage 103. What is the earliest communicative sound a child makes? a. crying b. cooing c. saying "ma" or "pa" d. echolalia 104. What is the relationship between MLU and chronological age? a. Chronological age and MLU are unrelated. b. As chronological age increases, MLU tends to increase. c. MLU tends to decrease initially because other developmental challenges also occur when chronological age increases. d. Chronological age increases across time, whereas MLU remains the same across time.

105. What does the expression “comprehension precedes production” refer to? a. echolalia b. babbling c. a receptive vocabulary d. an expressive vocabulary 106. At 18 months of age, Ben could speak approximately 50 words. However, by 22 months of age, his vocabulary had increased to almost 300 words, most of which were nouns. What term describes Ben’s most recent language development? a. the referential style b. the naming explosion c. the expressive explosion d. the specific nominal explosion 107. Which scale is included in the Bayley Scales of Infant Development? a. a reflex rating scale b. a language rating scale c. a behaviour rating scale d. a maternal behaviour with the child scale 108. Research studies have shown that infants can imitate an adult who opens her mouth and sticks out her tongue.

What is the earliest age this imitative behaviour been observed in infants? a. less than 1 hour old b. at age 2 days c. at age 3 days d. at age 1 week 109. Brian and Tamara are concerned because their 12-month-old son has yet to speak his first word. What would an expert in child development most likely tell Brian and Tamara? a. They should be concerned because most children speak their first word before their first birthday. b. They shouldn't be concerned because boys develop speech much later than girls. c. They shouldn't be concerned because children’s normal range for speaking their first word is between 8 and 18 months of age. d. They shouldn’t be concerned because most children speak their first word after 24 months

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 110. What is the definition of a holophrase? a. the first inclusive sentence that a child utters b. a single word utterance that expresses a complex meaning c. a first word from the infant accompanied by physical gestures d. a double-word utterance that a child speaks at approximately 14 months of age 111. Max is 10 months old. He is able to push one toy aside to reach another toy that he wants to play with. He is also able to imitate the gestures and sounds his parents make when they play with him. What is Max’s behaviour an example of? a. object permanence b. secondary circular reactions c. coordination of secondary schemas d. invention of new means through mental combinations 112. Nicole adjusts her rate of sucking so she can listen to a recording of her mother reading "Good Night Moon," a story her mother read aloud while she was pregnant with Nicole. What does this activity illustrate? a. imitation b. memory c. object permanence d. deferred imitation 113. Habituation is exemplified when an infant does which of the following? a. pays attention to a new toy b. repeats a phrase c. learns to speak d. loses interest in a game of peekaboo 114. How is infant intelligence assessed? a. by monitoring brain wave activity while the infant is presented with auditory stimuli b. by comparing infant abilities to genetic norms c. by comparing the abilities of one infant to others of the same age d. by monitoring brain wave activity while the infant is presented with visual stimuli 115. What has research taught us about infant memory? a. Infants can remember only after 6 months of age. b. Infants can memorize things after only one exposure. c. Infants demonstrate memory for experiences they had in utero. d. Infants do not demonstrate reliable memory until approximately 3 months of age.

116. At what age is an infant's first word typically spoken? a. usually by 10 months of age b. usually between 11 and 13 months of age c. usually after 18 months d. usually around 24 months of age 117. What is the definition of the expressive language style? a. using personal pronouns to refer to the self b. using language to label objects in the environment c. using language as a means for engaging in social interaction d. using words that make no particular reference, but allow practice with the vocal cords Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 118. At what age do most infants begin cooing? a. at birth b. at age 1 week c. at age 2 months d. at age 4 months 119. Harry is an average 12-month-old male child. How many words can Harry understand? a. 13 b. 25 c. 57 d. 84 120. Rob hid behind his son’s blanket and said “peek-a-boo!” His son looked bored and turned away. Rob stated, “He just doesn’t seem to understand that I still exist when he can’t see me.” What aspect of sensorimotor development is Rob looking forward to? a. concrete operations b. conservation c. object permanence d. abstraction 121. Annette is a child development specialist. Her niece, Cassie, has just had her first child and asks Annette whether her infant’s crying is considered a primitive form of language. What is most likely to be Annette’s response? a. It depends on the gender of the child. b. It depends on the type of cry emitted. c. Yes, her infant’s crying represents language. d. No, because crying does not represent objects or events.

122. Jennifer is eager to know when her son will start babbling. What is her pediatrician most likely to tell her? a. It occurs before cooing. b. It occurs after the ability to use intonation. c. It appears between 6 and 9 months of age. d. It is strongly related to words the child is trying to say.

123. Theo is 10 months old. His parents overhear him talking to himself in his crib. His language resembles adult speech in sound, with words rising and falling. What term best describes Theo’s vocalizations? a. echolalia b. intonation c. turn-taking d. vocabulary development 124. At what age does the first dramatic improvement in infant memory occur? a. between 1 and 2 months of age b. between 2 and 6 months of age c. between 6 and 8 months of age d. between 9 and 12 months 125. What is the definition of the mean length of utterance? a. the average number of morphemes a child uses in a sentence b. the total number of sounds a child makes when trying to express herself c. the average number of letters in the child's usual utterances d. the complex arrangement of single words used to express complex thoughts

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 126. By what age will most children have demonstrated tertiary circular reactions? a. by age 2 to 3 months b. by age 4 to 5 months c. by age 8 to 9 months d. by age 12 to 18 months 127. What is the most advanced substage in Piaget's sensorimotor period? a. the primary circular reaction substage b. the secondary circular reaction substage c. the invention of new means through mental combinations substage d. the coordination of secondary schemas substage 128. Which of the following is an example of a general nominal? a. car b. Daddy c. red d. pretty 129. In its simplest sense, what do the Bayley Scales measure? a. mental and motor abilities b. genetic influences on intelligence c. social and emotional development d. environmental influences on intelligence 130. By what age will most children have demonstrated coordination of secondary schemas? a. by age 2 to 3 months b. by age 4 to 5 months c. by age 8 or 12 months d. by age 12 to 18 months 131. Children in the sensorimotor stage do not realize that people continue to exist even though they can't be seen.

What concept have these children not yet mastered? a. conservation b. hypothetical reasoning c. empathetic thought d. object permanence 132. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary circular reaction? a. Jean-Paul turns toward the sound of the phone ringing. b. Lucien kicks his mobile over and over, which makes it move. c. Kayla accidentally touches her nose with her thumb, which makes her laugh. Kayla then repeats the action, which makes her laugh again. d. After many tries, Megan turns her toy sideways and is able to pull it into the crib. In the future she simply turns it sideways to pull it through.

133. Which of the following is an example of a simple reflex? a. reaching for an object b. purposefully searching for an object c. looking to see if one's mother is near d. turning toward the source of a noise 134. What conclusions have been reached about the benefits of infant learning DVDs such as Baby Einstein? a. The older the child when first exposed to such videos, the more positive the impact. b. Infants develop habituation to such videos and they quickly lose their effectiveness. c. They have been demonstrated to increase intelligence scores in later life by at least 18 points. d. They may actually inhibit verbal ability and bonding with caregivers.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 135. Natalie is 18 months old and mispronounces some words. Her parents are quick to correct her pronunciation.

According to the research cited in the textbook, what is the most likely result of correcting Natalie’s pronunciation? a. an increase in her language development b. a possible slowing of her language development c. no effect on her language development because language acquisition is caused by innate or inborn prewiring d. a normal expression of grammatical construction 136. A child says “Off the ride I want,” “can’t you had remembered,” and “keepers losers!” What type of errors do these statements illustrate? a. morphology b. shaping c. syntax d. grammatical construction 137. Which perspective suggests that parents serve as models for the language development of their children? a. the maturational perspective b. the social cognitive perspective c. the Skinnerian learning theory perspective d. the Piagetian cognitive-developmental perspective 138. Martha, a 9-month-old infant, watches as her mother pushes a cow image on her favourite book and the book makes a “moo” sound. Several hours later, Martha pushes the cow and the book makes the “moo” sound. What is Martha’s action an example of? a. imitation b. deferred imitation c. instrumental learning d. classical conditioning 139. A child refers to the “meese” that he saw in the zoo. His mother knows her child saw a moose at the zoo, based on the fact that he knows “geese” refers to more than one goose. What is this child’s error an example of? a. a syntax error b. an overextension c. an Morpheme style d. a referential language style 140. Which of the following is related to recognition memory? a. performance on gross motor tasks b. job preference later in life c. an infant's ability to scan stimuli and retain images d. brain wave activity when visually stimulated 141. According to B.F. Skinner, some parents require that children's utterances of words be progressively closer to actual words before those words are reinforced. What term describes this language development? a. shaping b. expressive vocabulary c. negative reinforcement d. grammatical construction

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 142. Carla is an expectant mother and is reading about newborns’ imitation reflex. Which explanation of an imitation reflex is she most likely to encounter? a. It negatively impacts infant-caregiver bonding. b. It helps the newborn to enforce neural pathways. c. It may be due to "mirror neurons" in the human brain. d. It enables the newborn to suckle.

143. Children in the sensorimotor stage do not realize that people continue to exist even though they cannot be seen.

Why is this the case? a. Their memory is not fully developed. b. They are unable to use the concept of conservation. c. They continue to engage in hypothetical reasoning. d. They have not yet mastered object permanence.

144. What is meant by deferred imitation? a. Children can imitate from the moment they are born. b. Children can mimic what they have seen but only within 5 seconds. c. Imitation is a more automatic process than was assumed in the past. d. Children may observe a behaviour and have a mental representation of it before they imitate it.

145. What is the definition of syntax? a. a single word meant to symbolize an entire phrase b. a particular word meant to represent multiple objects c. the total length of an infant's utterance d. the language rules for word placement in sentences 146. What is measured by the Bayley behaviour rating scale? a. verbal skills b. gross motor skills c. environmental impact on intelligence d. attention span 147. Which of the following describes a 1-month-old’s crying? a. non-distinct b. highly specific c. serves no useful purpose d. activated by the vocal tract 148. What did Susan Rose and her colleagues (2001) conclude regarding visual recognition memory? a. It is stable from age to age. b. It relates significantly to brain myelination. c. It is positively correlated with brain weight. d. It can screen infants for handicaps, such as sensory or neurological problems.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 149. Pamela is trying to place her rectangular block in the rectangular opening of her “know your shape” toy, but it is too wide to fit. She studies the block for some time and then grabs it, rotates it sideways, and the block successful falls in the opening. What substage of sensorimotor development was Pamela demonstrating? a. the primary circular reaction substage b. the secondary circular reactions substage c. the coordination of secondary schemas substage d. the invention of new means through mental combinations substage 150. To the delight of her parents, 20-month-old Maya just exclaimed "Daddy go." What does this utterance represent? a. an MLU b. referential speech c. a holophrase d. telegraphic speech 151. Mary, a one-hour-old infant, sticks out her tongue in response to her mother doing the same. What has most likely occurred? a. learning b. an imitation reflex c. a deferred imitation d. a decision to mimic an adult 152. Jenna can tell the difference between a toy she has seen before and a new toy. What term refers to this ability? a. habituation b. sensory memory c. recognition memory d. classical conditioning 153. Which statement best defines the process of cognitive development in children? a. Intelligence is developed. b. Children learn to imitate others. c. Children perceive and mentally represent the world. d. Children learn strategies for developing short- and long-term memory.

154. What has research shown regarding individual differences in intelligence among infants? a. Genetic differences expressed through intelligence are not identifiable among infants. b. A great deal of variability in intelligence exists among infants. c. Infant intelligence develops in a discontinuous, stage-like process throughout childhood. d. A genetic process of development minimizes individual differences in infant intelligence.

155. Jennifer is curious about her son’s cries and coos. What is her pediatrician most likely to tell her? a. They are based entirely on know-how. b. They are innate, but modified by experience. c. They are based entirely on genetic encoding. d. They are accidental noises that are soon replaced by meaningful sounds.

156. In which substage of sensorimotor development is goal-directed behaviour first witnessed? a. the simple reflexes substage b. the primary circular reactions substage c. the secondary circular reactions substage d. the tertiary circular reactions substage

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 157. What is the relationship between receptive vocabulary and expressive vocabulary? a. Receptive vocabulary generally exceeds expressive vocabulary. b. Expressive vocabulary generally surpasses receptive vocabulary. c. Receptive vocabulary and expressive vocabulary are always equal. d. Receptive vocabulary is determined by genetics, whereas expressive vocabulary is determined by the environment.

158. A child says "doggy." What is this word an example of? a. a morpheme b. a holophrase c. telegraphic speech d. mean length of utterance 159. What test measures infant intelligence? a. Apgar scale b. Bayley scales c. Riley scale d. Piaget scale 160. What is demonstrated by the textbook’s case history of Genie? a. evidence for the sequencing of cooing and babbling b. the effects of teaching ASL to young children c. support for the hypothesis that there are sensitive periods for learning language d. proof that language acquisition is genetically determined 161. What is typically predicted by higher visual recognition scores in infancy? a. creativity in later childhood b. better memory in later childhood c. higher IQ scores later in childhood d. an increased likelihood of artistic ability 162. What does Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory suggest about children and object permanence? a. Children develop an understanding of object permanence all at once. b. Children develop the skills that lead to object permanence by 3 months of age. c. Children come to understand object permanence even without prior experience. d. The development of object permanence is negatively impacted by early nutritional and relational deprivation. a. a chance event is repeated b. words the child can use c. mental and motor items d. calling all animals "moo" e. discriminate known objects from novel objects f. one-word utterance that conveys a sentence of meaning g. words the child knows h. stage theory of cognitive development i. repeat behaviours that affect the environment j. babbling k. concept of the world Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce l. thinking all animals are "puppy" m. "Doggy go." n. use of words o. items exist even when out of sight p. smallest unit of language that has meaning q. order of words r. which words belong together s. schemas are applied to specific situations t. learning that different animals have different names QUESTION TYPE: Matching CUSTOM ID: 05-173 163. Piaget 164. Primary circular reaction 165. Assimilation 166. Holophrase 167. Expressive language 168. Secondary circular reaction 169. Schema 170. Overextension 171. Visual recognition memory 172. Telegraphic speech 173. Object permanence 174. Morpheme 175. Prelinguistic 176. Syntax 177. Tertiary circular reaction 178. Accommodation 179. Receptive language 180. Linguistic 181. Grammar 182. Bayley test 183. How do a newborn’s reflexes develop?

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 184. Who developed the Bayley Scales of Infant Development? When was this assessment tool created and what does it measure?

185. Identify the major characteristics of Motherese.

186. What is object permanence and what abilities does it represent?

187. What does it mean to say that "many of the cognitive capabilities of infants depend upon memory”?

188. What is object permanence and how is it tested?

189. How do secondary and tertiary circular reactions differ?

190. Describe the difference between assimilation and accommodation.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 191. How can infants’ and children’s language development be enhanced?

192. How has Piaget’s theory of cognitive development been viewed by later researchers?

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. False 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. True 24. True 25. False 26. False

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 27. False 28. False 29. False 30. True 31. False 32. True 33. True 34. True 35. False 36. False 37. False 38. True 39. True 40. False 41. True 42. True 43. True 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. True 48. False 49. True 50. True 51. c 52. b 53. c 54. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 55. a 56. a 57. a 58. b 59. b 60. c 61. b 62. b 63. c 64. d 65. d 66. a 67. a 68. c 69. d 70. d 71. a 72. c 73. c 74. c 75. c 76. a 77. a 78. c 79. b 80. b 81. a 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 83. d 84. d 85. b 86. d 87. a 88. a 89. a 90. a 91. b 92. d 93. a 94. c 95. a 96. c 97. a 98. d 99. b 100. d 101. b 102. d 103. a 104. b 105. c 106. b 107. c 108. a 109. c 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 111. c 112. b 113. d 114. c 115. c 116. b 117. c 118. c 119. d 120. c 121. d 122. c 123. b 124. b 125. a 126. d 127. c 128. a 129. a 130. c 131. d 132. d 133. d 134. d 135. b 136. c 137. b

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 138. b 139. b 140. c 141. a 142. c 143. d 144. d 145. d 146. d 147. a 148. d 149. d 150. d 151. b 152. c 153. c 154. b 155. b 156. c 157. a 158. b 159. b 160. c 161. c 162. d 163. h 164. a 165. l Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 166. f 167. b 168. i 169. k 170. d 171. e 172. m 173. o 174. p 175. j 176. q 177. s 178. t 179. g 180. n 181. r 182. c 183. The newborn’s reflexes are stereotypical and inflexible. As the infant develops, these reflexes are modified based on experience. Some reflexes will disappear as the central nervous system develops while others become voluntary actions.

184. The Bayley Scales were first constructed in 1933 by psychologist Nancy Bayley, then later revised. Today the Bayley Scales consist of 178 mental-scale items and 111 motor-scale items. The mental scale assesses verbal communication, perceptual skills, learning and memory, and problem-solving skills. The motor scale assesses gross motor skills, such as standing, walking, and climbing, and fine motor skills, as shown by the ability to manipulate the hands and fingers. Also used is a behaviour rating scale that is based on an examiner’s observation of the child during the test. The behaviour rating scale assesses attention span, goal directedness, persistence, and aspects of social and emotional development.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 185. 1) Motherese is spoken slowly, at a higher pitch, and with pauses inserted between ideas.

2) Sentences are brief.

3) Sentences use simple grammar.

4) Keywords come at the ends of sentences and are spoken in a higher and louder voice.

5) The diminutive morpheme y is frequently added to nouns: i.e., Dad becomes Daddy, and horse becomes horsey.

6) Adults repeat sentences several times using minor variations, as in “Show me your nose.” “Where is your nose?”

7) Motherese includes reduplication. Yummy becomes yummy-yummy. Daddy may alternate with Da-da.

8) Vocabulary is concrete, referring, when possible, to objects in the immediate environment. Stuffed lions may be referred to as “kitties.”

9) Objects may be overdescribed by being given compound labels. Rabbits may become “bunny rabbits,” and cats may become “kitty cats.”

186. Object permanence is the term for an individual's understanding that objects continue to exist even when they can no longer be sensed. This understanding is a major milestone in cognitive development and marks the end of Piaget's sensorimotor stage. Object permanence suggests that the child has developed a schema of the world that things can exist that cannot be seen. It also represents a level of memory. To understand that the object still exists and will return, the child needs to have a memory of the object. This ability also suggests that infants have developed the ability to form mental representations of the world.

187. Memory is essential for cognitive development. Children cannot form schemas, demonstrate progression in circular reactions, or begin to use language without memory. The ability to "experiment" by applying what has been learned to new and specific situations (the ability to perform tertiary circular reactions) requires that the infant remember the action and remember what happened when that action was performed previously. The ability to form schemas in an effort to conceptualize the world is also very memory-dependent. A child cannot learn to differentiate a kitten from a puppy, for example, unless she can remember how they are similar and how they are different.

188. Object permanence is the ability of a child to know that an object exists even when it is hidden. To test this ability, show an object to the child and then hide it under a blanket or behind a screen. Determine whether the infant seeks the object by looking with its eyes or searching for it with its hands. Younger infants will have a limited ability to search with its hands, so another technique is available for measuring this ability. One can show an object, hide it with a screen, remove the object from behind the screen and determine whether the infant shows surprise at the object’s absence when the screen is removed.

189. Secondary circular reactions are goal-directed behaviours. Over time, the child has learned that certain behaviours cause environmental events. For example, a child may have learned that pushing a button on a toy in her crib will cause it to make a beeping noise. With tertiary circular reactions, the child is able to take knowledge of the relationship between her actions and the environment and apply it to specific situations. For example, if Sarah has learned that pushing a button on a toy causes interesting noises, she may attempt to push buttons on other toys.

190. Assimilation is the first step in trying to categorize the world into organized concepts that Piaget called "schemas."

With assimilation, the child attempts to "fit" new information into existing schemas. For example, a child who has learned that a furry creature is called a "kitten," may call all furry creatures "kitten." Accommodation refers to the process of creating new schemas when existing schemas cannot accurately categorize the new information. The same child, for example, will eventually learn that puppies and kittens are different and that schemas must be created for both.

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Chap_05_HDEV_4ce 191.

Numerous methods can be used to help infants and children learn to use language: -- Respond positively to the use of sounds, such as cooing and babbling.

-- Use a simplified form of speech known as “Motherese.”

-- Use questions that engage the child in conversation. Respond to the child’s expressive language efforts in a way that is “attuned,” providing feedback to the use of ideas and words.

-- Join the child in paying attention to a particular activity or toy.

-- Gesture to help the child understand what he is saying.

--Describe aspects of the environment occupying the infant’s current focus of attention.

--Read to the child.

--Talk to the child a great deal.

192. Piaget’s theory has been shown to be supported in its general view of developmental progressions, although some research suggests that development is more gradual than discrete. His theory has also been supported by research looking at children from a variety of cultures, suggesting that this development is universal. Piaget’s theory did not examine how others may influence the child’s development. He also appeared to have underestimated the ability of infants. Object permanence and deferred imitation have been shown to appear much sooner than predicted by his theory.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Babies who show avoidant attachment are least distressed by their mother's departure in the Strange Situation. a. True b. False 2. In studies of children’s temperament, most children are labelled as being “difficult.” a. True b. False 3. Separation anxiety occurs when children react negatively to being away from their caregivers. a. True b. False 4. Temperament remains moderately stable from infancy to adulthood. a. True b. False 5. Compared with children who have other types of attachment, secure children are the most likely to cry after being separated from their mothers. a. True b. False 6. Autistic children show little interest in social interactions. a. True b. False 7. Once an attachment pattern is set, it remains the same throughout childhood. a. True b. False 8. Children with daycare experience are less likely to share their toys. a. True b. False 9. More Canadian children are sexually abused than physically abused. a. True b. False 10. After Mary Ainsworth earned her Ph.D. at the University of Toronto, she was offered a teaching position at Queen’s University in 1939; however, two weeks later, her offer of employment was withdrawn, as the Senate refused to appoint a woman. a. True b. False

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 11. Research has shown that, as avoidant children grew older, they grew more fearful, and resistant children became less joyful. a. True b. False 12. Toddlers’ refusal to comply with their caregivers’ requests is a sign of pathology. a. True b. False 13. Approximately 50% of substantiated cases of child abuse have involved children witnessing violence. a. True b. False 14. Ainsworth and Bowlby found two phases during which attachment classifications develop. a. True b. False 15. Attachment pattern is unrelated to the level of cooperation or sociability of children. a. True b. False 16. Object permanence in infants develops after specific attachments. a. True b. False 17. Waterfowl, such as geese, follow the first moving object they see. a. True b. False 18. Children who touch their noses in response to seeing rouge on their noses in a mirror are more likely to experience embarrassment than those who do not notice the rouge. a. True b. False 19. Children placed in day care are more aggressive than children who are cared for in the home. a. True b. False 20. Infants do not use caregivers' facial expressions to interpret situations. a. True b. False 21. It is clear how many emotions infants have. a. True b. False

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 22. Self-awareness is measured using the Strange Situation. a. True b. False 23. The quality of childcare is unimportant in determining its effects on children. a. True b. False 24. Adults treat boys and girls the same in all ways. a. True b. False 25. According to ethologists, attachment occurs during a critical period for humans. a. True b. False 26. Nothing can be done to prevent child abuse. a. True b. False 27. Emotions are related to psychological, not physical, events. a. True b. False 28. Mothers, but not fathers, become attached to their children on the basis of the quality of their interactions. a. True b. False 29. Children who show a fear of strangers were abused as infants. a. True b. False 30. To develop normally, human infants require only adequate material needs. a. True b. False 31. Infant monkeys become attached to their mothers because of her milk. a. True b. False 32. Asperger’s syndrome is a form of autism spectrum disorder. a. True b. False

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 33. Most North American infants are securely attached. a. True b. False 34. Autism is caused by poor parenting. a. True b. False 35. Emotional regulation has been demonstrated by infants younger than 1 year of age. a. True b. False 36. Abused children are more likely to be sexually active and delinquent adolescents than their non-abused peers. a. True b. False 37. Autistic children rarely abuse themselves. a. True b. False 38. Children who are disobedient, behave inappropriately, or are unresponsive are at greater risk for being abused than other children. a. True b. False 39. Institutionalized children tend to thrive with little social stimulation. a. True b. False 40. Emotional development is linked to attachment relationship a. True b. False 41. Of the substantiated cases of child abuse in Canada, approximately 35% involved neglect. a. True b. False 42. Features of autism include communication problems, intolerance of change, and ritualistic or stereotypical behaviour. a. True b. False 43. Social referencing is rare before 1 year of age. a. True b. False

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 44. Daycare has been shown to be extremely harmful to attachment relationships. a. True b. False 45. Girls tend to advance more rapidly than boys in their motor development in infancy. a. True b. False 46. Parents’ responsiveness to their infants is related to their infants’ attachment patterns. a. True b. False 47. The age at which social deprivation occurs affects the outcome of that deprivation. a. True b. False 48. Children are born with the ability to regulate their emotions. a. True b. False 49. Children with disorganized or disoriented attachment may seem dazed, confused, or disoriented. a. True b. False 50. One’s goodness of fit with the environment is unrelated to the outcome of one’s development. a. True b. False 51. The clear-cut-attachment phase occurs at 6 or 7 months and is characterized by intensified dependence on the primary caregiver, usually the mother. a. True b. False 52. Erik Erikson believed that the first year is critical for developing a sense of trust in the mother. a. True b. False 53. The child’s attachment pattern is related to the child’s temperament. a. True b. False 54. Individuation refers to the child’s increasing sense of independence and autonomy. a. True b. False

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 55. A fear of strangers during the first year of life is a sign of pathology. a. True b. False 56. The effects of social deprivation of monkeys and humans cannot be reversed after the deprivation has occurred. a. True b. False 57. Attachment only occurs in humans. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

58. What is the relationship between humans and our ability to experience imprinting? a. It can occur in humans, as illustrated by Konrad Lorenz. b. It occurs in humans only during a specific critical period. c. It does not occur in humans. d. It occurs in humans only when the infant is very vulnerable at birth.

59. What is considered the best treatment for autism? a. antipsychotic medications b. diet modification c. behaviour modification to enhance children's interactions with others d. electric shock treatments, which are effective in enhancing language development 60. Justin is a securely attached infant. His father wonders whether Justin will be well-adjusted as an adolescent.

Which of the following is a child developmental specialist likely to tell Justin’s father? a. Justin will be a healthy, well-adjusted adolescent. b. Justin may or may not be well adjusted as an adolescent depending on other childhood events. c. Justice will not likely be well adjusted as an adolescent because attachment leads to adolescent rebellion. d. Justin will not likely be well adjusted as an adolescent because attachment does not predict later outcomes.

61. Which of the following defines positive parenting as breast feeding into toddlerhood if desired and responding immediately to the cries of a child? a. Dr. Spock b. The Attachment Parenting Book c. Battle Hymn of the Tiger Mother d. Battle Hymn of the Tiger Child 62. Which statement best explains the nature of attachment in humans? a. It is genetic. b. Attachment must occur within 2 months or it might not occur. c. A child will attach to anyone regardless of the amount of contact. d. Early attachment attempts may fail, but attachment bonds can be established later.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 63. What is the primary focus of autism treatment programs? a. parenting influences b. psychological factors c. biological factors d. principles of learning 64. Of all substantiated child abuse cases in Canada, approximately what percentage involved children who had been emotionally mistreated? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 65. While Neisha is sleeping, her mother puts a pink bow in her hair. When Neisha wakes up, her mother places her in front of a mirror. Neisha reaches out and physically touches the bow. Which of the following explains Neisha’s reaction? a. Neisha’s self-concept has begun to develop. b. Neisha is still not quite awake. c. Neisha does not trust her own visual accuracy. d. Neisha is curious and wants to feel the bow’s fabric.

66. How many cycles of The Canadian Incidence Study (CIS) of Reported Child Abuse and Neglect have been published? a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6 67. Which factor most affects an infant’s attachment to his/her father? a. gender of the infant b. infant’s temperament c. level of affection apparent in the interactions between infant and father d. nature of the attachment between the infant and his/her mother 68. According to Bowlby, at what age is a child most likely to develop clear-cut attachments? a. from birth to age 1 month b. at age 2 to 3 months c. at age 4 to 5 months d. at age 6 to 7 months 69. Who among the following are most at risk of abuse from their parents? a. girls b. full-term infants c. first-born children d. sick or unhealthy children 70. Rachel observes Lauren acting unafraid in the presence of a stranger. Rachel then stops acting afraid of the stranger. What term best defines Rachel’s behaviour? a. social referencing b. secure attachment c. insecure attachment d. activation of reflexes

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 71. Which statement best describes the stability of temperament? a. It is stable for boys, but not for girls. b. There is no stability from infancy to adulthood. c. There is moderate stability from infancy onward. d. Stability is easier for girls, but more challenging for boys.

72. Nathan has irregular sleep and feeding schedules, responds to frustrations with tantrums and loud crying, and takes a long time to adjust to new routines. What temperament classification most accurately describes Nathan? a. a quick-to-anger temperament b. a difficult temperament c. a disengaged temperament d. a slow-to-warm-up temperament 73. Chantal is concerned that her daughter may have an autism spectrum disorder (ASD). What would you tell her about ASDs? a. They are more common among boys than girls. b. They are found in 100 out of 1,000 children. c. They are found in 200 out of 1,000 children. d. They are generally not apparent until the child enters kindergarten.

74. An infant fusses mildly when his mother leaves and seeks reassurance from her when she returns. What type of attachment is this infant demonstrating? a. secure attachment b. insecure attachment c. avoidant attachment d. anxious-ambivalent attachment 75. According to Margaret Mahler, a psychoanalyst, what forms the basis for a child’s self-concept? a. learning emotional regulation b. refusing to share toys with others c. a process of separation–individuation d. reinforcements and punishments by parents 76. Which strategy is most likely to be recommended to prevent child abuse? a. strengthening parenting skills in the general population b. fining those who fail to report suspected cases of child abuse c. making child abuse a crime d. taking abused children out of their environment and placing them in foster care 77. What biological factors are suspected of contributing to autism spectrum disorders? a. abnormal brain wave patterns or seizures b. in utero contact with lead or other teratogens c. increased activity in the frontal and temporal lobes d. vaccines, particularly those that include a mercury preservative

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 78. Which statement best characterizes toddlers who refuse to comply with their caregivers’ requests? a. They have not yet formed a sense of self-consciousness. b. They are experiencing the process of differentiation. c. They are demonstrating their developing sense of autonomy. d. They are more likely to find excuses for not complying when they are younger than when they are older.

79. According to Erikson’s psychoanalytic theory, what is most vital for a child to develop in the first year of life? a. a sense of trust b. a sense of identity c. a sense of autonomy d. a sense of self-efficacy 80. Which of the following is a characteristic of parents of securely attached infants? a. They are more likely to work in professional environments. b. They respond more strongly to their babies’ social behaviours. c. They are more highly educated. d. They provide predictable and sensitive care.

81. Which statement reflects findings that researchers agree upon regarding infant emotion? a. Infants learn to express all emotions during the first few months. b. Emotions are merely reflexes prior to the age of 2 years. c. Infant laughter has a survival function. d. Cognitive and emotional development are linked.

82. Which of the following best defines emotional regulation? a. the overcoming of stranger anxiety b. the ways in which young children control their emotions c. a parent's attempt to reduce negative emotionality in a child d. an infant's attempt to be aware of the range of emotions she feels 83. According to Freud’s psychoanalytic theory, what is the primary origin of an infant’s attachment to the mother? a. the fulfillment of oral needs b. the sexual desire of the infant for the mother c. the reinforcement and shaping of the infant’s behaviour by the mother d. the fulfillment through phallic needs 84. Whose view is contradicted by Harry and Margaret Harlow’s (1966) attachment research with monkeys? a. Ainsworth b. Erikson c. Freud d. Bowlby 85. In Canada, who has a duty to report child abuse? a. legally only child welfare workers and police b. teachers and spiritual leaders c. physicians d. everyone; all citizens

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 86. Attachment that occurs during a critical period is based on a stimulus. What is the term for this stimulus? a. imprinting b. maturation c. the fixed response d. the maternal instinct 87. According to your textbook, what can help socially withdrawn 4- and 5-year-old children make gains in their social and emotional development? a. younger playmates b. older playmates c. large families with many siblings d. large range of colourful and age appropriate toys 88. Which child is most likely to experience stranger anxiety? a. an 8-month-old child b. a female child c. a child with disorganized attachment d. a child with insecure attachment 89. Which behavioural aspect is included in temperament? a. television viewing preferences b. visual and hearing selectivity c. cognitive ability and mastering tasks d. stranger anxiety 90. During which attachment phase does an infant show intense dependence on the primary caregiver? a. the absolute-attachment phase b. the initial-pre-attachment phase c. the clear-cut-attachment phase d. the attachment-in-the-making phase 91. According to the textbook, the consequences of child abuse and neglect vary widely and depend on two factors.

One factor is the circumstances of the abuse. What is the other factor? a. the parents’ socioeconomic circumstances b. the parents’ cognitive abilities c. the resiliency of the child d. the gender of the child 92. What is indicated by the research on children in daycare? a. They are less independent, more self-conscious, and shy. b. They have weaker school performance during the elementary school years. c. They become more aggressive through to high school. d. They tend to be more cooperative and more likely to share toys.

93. Which method did Ainsworth use to study attachment? a. the stranger test b. the strange-situation c. the mother-absent procedure d. the mother-present procedure

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 94. Which statement best describes the impact of colonization on the attachment patterns of many Indigenous children? a. They are more likely to form unhealthy attachments. b. They skip the pre-attachment phase. c. They are slower to attach to caregivers but generally do so by the age of 3 years. d. Baby girls are more negatively impacted than baby boys.

95. Which of the following is a finding of the research on emotional regulation? a. Emotional regulation is inborn and cannot be learned. b. No relationship exists between attachment and emotional regulation. c. Emotional regulation is unrelated to interactions with one’s parent. d. Adolescents with good emotional regulation generally had secure early life attachments.

96. Kai was diagnosed with autism and his parents are looking for treatment options. What can you tell them about treatment effectiveness? a. Group treatment programs are the best option for most children. b. Treatment is only helpful for children who are over the age of 12 years. c. Individual treatment instruction appears to have the most significant impact. d. Treatment programs that focus on drug therapies are the most effective options.

97. What infant response or reaction does the strange-situation method assess? a. the infant’s response when the mother leaves the room b. the infant’s reaction to new toys c. the infant’s response when toys are taken away d. the infant’s reaction to his or her own self-mastery 98. An infant who is intensely dependent on her mother is most likely in which of the following stages of attachment? a. clear-cut attachment phase b. pre-attachment phase c. attachment-in-the-making phase d. formation of reciprocal relationships 99. Which of the following is most likely to lead to securely attached infants? a. genetics b. good parenting c. a combination of genetics and good parenting d. good parenting and positive peer relationships 100. Of all substantiated child abuse cases in Canada, approximately what percentage involved physical abuse? a. 5 b. 10 c. 20 d. 25

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 101. Which of the following is a learning theory explanation of attachment? a. It is a biological need that ensures survival. b. It is the result of oral gratification. c. It is a consequence of care being provided and reinforced. d. It takes place when a child develops object permanence.

102. An infant appears stunned and puzzled by her mother's departure. Which type of attachment is this infant demonstrating? a. secure attachment b. avoidant attachment c. anxious–ambivalent attachment d. disorganized–disoriented attachment 103. Cynthia’s daughter has Asperger's disorder. Cynthia explains that people must use person-first language when referring to children with autism. What does she mean by this? a. Use the phrase “child with autism” rather than using the term autism to define the child (e.g., “the autistic child”). b. Do not refer to a child’s social deficiencies or stereotyped behaviours in any way because it makes people uncomfortable. c. Ignore the symptoms when speaking of the child’s autism so that the child maintains a positive selfimage. d. Treat the child according to their behavioural age rather than the their chronological age in years.

104. What research finding lends support for a biological cause of autism? a. Poor nourishment is related to autism spectrum disorders. b. Parents of autistic children are lacking in parenting skills. c. Peer rejection is correlated with autistic behaviours in children. d. Concordance rates for autism spectrum disorders are about 60% among identical twins.

105. Which of the following most likely influences the effects of social deprivation? a. a lag in cognitive development b. a lack of love and affection c. a deficiency in social stimulation d. a deficiency in sensory stimulation 106. Which term is defined as "a state of feeling that has physiological, situational, and cognitive components"? a. a trait b. a mood c. an emotion d. a temperament 107. What is the change in the number of reported incidents of child abuse between the first Canadian Incidence Study (CIS) of Reported Child Abuse and Neglect and the most recent CIS? a. The number has increased, possibly as a result of public awareness campaigns. b. The number has dropped, correlating with the introduction of public awareness campaigns. c. The number has more or less stayed the same. d. Reporting has dropped off considerably, leading to inconclusive data.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 108. Which statement best describes how parents typically interact with their children? a. Mothers are more likely to encourage rough-and-tumble play in sons. b. Fathers are more likely to encourage rough-and-tumble play in sons. c. Only mothers talk more to their infant daughters than to their infant sons. d. Only fathers talk more to infant daughters than to their infant sons.

109. What has research found regarding adults’ behaviour toward boys and girls? a. Typically, adults speak to boys and girls in the same way. b. Adults play more “rough and tumble” games with girls than boys. c. Parents typically choose similar toys and room decorations for both boys and girls. d. Gender-specific games and toys are more frequently reinforced by adults.

110. Brenda is 2 months old. At a recent family reunion, she was passed around for multiple relatives to hold. Brenda showed no particular preference for her mother, father, or any other relative. According to the text, which phase of attachment is Brenda in? a. the absolute-attachment phase b. the initial pre-attachment phase c. the clear-cut attachment phase d. the attachment-in-the-making phase 111. Christopher is 4 months old. He prefers to be held by his mother or father rather than by relatives or a person he's never met. Which phase of attachment is Christopher in? a. the absolute-attachment phase b. the initial-pre-attachment phase c. the clear-cut-attachment phase d. the attachment-in-the-making phase 112. Which of the following is considered an autism spectrum disorder? a. Ainsworth’s disorder b. Rett's disorder c. Regressive expressive disorder d. Treye's disorder 113. Jennifer is a researcher who studies autism in children. What is she most likely to say about the prevalence of autism? a. It has very strong ethnic differences. b. It is 3 to 4 times more likely in girls than boys. c. It is 4 to 5 times more likely in boys than in girls. d. It is more likely to strike a child from a low socioeconomic background.

114. What is the most common form of temperament, as found in studies by Chess and Thomas (1989, 1991)? a. an easy temperament b. a difficult temperament c. a slow-to-warm-up temperament d. a quick-to-anger 115. Which phase of attachment is characterized by indiscriminate attachment? a. the absolute-attachment phase b. the initial-pre-attachment phase c. the clear-cut-attachment phase d. the attachment-in-the-making phase 116. What is a defining characteristic of echolalia? a. referring to the self as "you" or "she" b. refusing to speak c. automatically repeating sounds d. repetitive sound making Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 117. A mother leaves the room and her infant starts to cry. Which concept is represented by this scenario? a. disengagement b. separation anxiety c. difficult temperament d. stranger anxiety 118. Which drug treatment option has been explored to treat autism? a. Mood-stabilizing drugs have been used in older patients to enable them to attend school. b. Aspirin has been used to address the biological linkage between adrenalin and anger outbursts. c. Anti-depressants have been used to address anxiety and hyperactivity. d. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors have been used to help prevent self-injury and aggression.

119. Shannon is turning 1 year old and her grandparents have travelled a great distance to be at her birthday party.

When they arrive Shannon cries and will not let them pick her up. What is Shannon experiencing? a. anger and rage b. stranger anxiety c. elder fear d. emotional overload 120. Of all substantiated child abuse cases in Canada, approximately what percentage involved sexual abuse? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 121. What has research found regarding the ability of insecurely attached children to become securely attached? a. They are incapable of becoming more securely attached. b. They are capable of becoming more securely attached. c. Female children are incapable of becoming more securely attached. d. Male children are capable of becoming more securely attached.

122. Which of the following is the most appropriate action to take to befriend a boy who is showing stranger anxiety? a. Rush over to the child and pick him up. b. Approach the child when he is far away from his attachment figure. c. Approach the child in the presence of an attachment figure in familiar surroundings. d. Approach the child in unfamiliar surroundings, rather than in his own home.

123. According to the textbook, what is the critical age before which infants should be adopted in order to ensure secure attachments? a. 6 weeks b. 6 months c. 1 year d. 5 years 124. Which type of attachment is demonstrated by infants who show the largest degree of emotional anguish when their mothers depart? a. secure attachment b. avoidant attachment c. confused attachment d. anxious–ambivalent attachment

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 125. David always refers to himself as "you." What is this tendency a sign of? a. an atypical response when language is first acquired b. childhood schizophrenia c. insecure attachment relationships d. an unusual speech pattern called pronoun reversal 126. Which statement best reflects a cognitive view of attachment? a. Attachment and cognitive skills are unrelated. b. Attachment will assist in developing the child's cognitive skills. c. Infant-specific attachments will occur as soon as the child can recognize faces. d. Some understanding of object permanence is necessary for specific attachment.

127. At what age does the clear-cut-attachment stage of attachment occur? a. from birth to about age 2 months b. from 2–3 months c. age 3–4 months d. age 6–7 months 128. Brent is an infant with a “difficult” temperament. What can we guess about Brent’s background? a. He is securely attached. b. He has a mother who is sensitive and responsive. c. He has a mother who has other children to tend to. d. He has a mother who reports feeling distant from him.

129. Mallory and Steve are parents of Monique, an infant with a difficult temperament. In response to Monique’s temperament, Mallory and Steve become more available and very responsive. As a result, Monique becomes calmer and easier to handle. What is this situation an example of? a. insecure attachment b. slow-to-warm-up temperament c. goodness of fit d. disengaged parenting 130. What is the definition of social deprivation? a. a lack of social smiling on the part of the infant b. a lack of responsive smiling on the part of the parent c. a lack of material items, such as books and television d. an overall lack of social stimulation provided to the infant 131. Imprinting must occur during a specific time period for it to develop at all, as demonstrated by Konrad Lorenz with the geese. What is the term for this time period? a. the critical period b. the learning period c. the sensitive period d. the maturational period

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 132. William's mother moved the lamp that was beside his crib. When William woke up and noticed the lamp was gone, he screamed and would not stop until the lamp was moved back. What is William’s behaviour characteristic of? a. autism b. schizophrenia c. being frightened by change d. the need for "sameness" shown by all children 133. What is the relationship between securely attached infants and other infants? a. Securely attached infants are less aggressive. b. Securely attached infants are more egocentric. c. Securely attached infants have lower self-esteem. d. Securely attached infants are less tolerant of others who are different from them.

134. Which of the following is most likely to cause autism? a. poor parenting b. biological issues c. a viral infection during infancy d. in utero contact with lead or other heavy metals 135. What is meant by the term “reactive attachment disorder”? a. a healthy attachment relationship to siblings and grandparents b. a rejection of parental affection if adopted before the age of 6 months c. a strong attachment to adoptive parents after the age of 3 years d. an inappropriate social interaction in various social situations prior to age 5 years 136. Which statement best represents infants and their notion of self-concept? a. Infants have no self-concept. b. Infants’ self-concept is developed during the first year of life. c. Securely attached infants develop a sense of self-concept later than other infants. d. Abused infants have no self-concept, whereas those who have not been abused do have a self-concept.

137. Which statement best describes an Indigenous perspective of attachment? a. It is primarily focused on the mother. b. It is inclusive of community and culture. c. It is primarily considered in older generations. d. It is a western concept not used to describe Indigenous relationships.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 138. Carver and Vaccaro (2007) suggest that social referencing requires three components. Which of the following is one of those components? a. lacking a fear of strangers and separation anxiety b. looking at another, usually older individual in a novel and vague situation c. looking at another individual to determine if they are friendly d. displaying a fearful response to a stranger and receiving a similar response 139. There are several identified phases of attachment. Which of the following is one of the phases? a. the ongoing attachment phase b. the attachment-in-the-making phase c. the periodic attachment phase d. the solidification-attachment phase 140. What were the subjects in the Harlows’ studies that used wire-mesh surrogate mothers? a. goslings born in captivity b. rhesus monkeys c. white lab rates d. 3- to 6-month-old children from Russian orphanages 141. Dr. Martin is conducting a study of infant attachment. According to her hypothesis, infants who have not yet developed some concept of object permanence will not show specific attachments to their caregivers. What is Dr. Martin’s theoretical view of attachment? a. the cognitive view b. the biological view c. the behavioural view d. the psychoanalytic view 142. According to Bowlby, during which phase of attachment does an infant show a preference for familiar faces? a. the absolute-attachment phase b. the initial-pre-attachment phase c. the clear-cut-attachment phase d. the attachment-in-the-making phase 143. Which type of attachment is demonstrated by infants who are least upset by their mothers' departure? a. secure attachment b. insecure attachment c. avoidant attachment d. anxious–ambivalent attachment 144. In a classic research study of infant attachment by Harry and Margaret Harlow (1966), what was the major observation regarding the rhesus monkeys’ relationship with the two surrogate mothers? a. They would not come close to either surrogate mother. b. They spent most of their time clutching the cloth mother. c. They divided their time between the two surrogate mothers. d. They spent most of their time clutching the surrogate mother with the baby bottle.

145. Of all substantiated child abuse cases in Canada, approximately what percentage involved children being exposed to domestic violence? a. 25 b. 35 c. 45 d. 55

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 146. What is suggested by the infant attachment research of Harry and Margaret Harlow (1966)? a. Attachment is driven by the need for trust. b. The basis of attachment is the food supplied by the mother. c. Infants become attached because it helps them to form their identity. d. Contact reassurance may be as important a basic need as the need for food.

147. Kevin has been maltreated by his parents. Which behaviour is Kevin most likely to exhibit? a. increased likelihood of illness b. fear of strangers c. antisocial personality disorder d. substance abuse 148. Your friend has a 4-month-old child. What stage of attachment is the child likely engaged in? a. clear-cut attachment b. pre-attachment c. attachment-in-the-making d. formation of reciprocal relationships 149. Jerome was securely attached to his parents, but his parents divorced, and Jerome is now being neglected.

What is most likely to happen to Jerome’s level of attachment? a. His level of attachment may change because of the change in care he is receiving. b. His attachment bonds are in place, and they will not change. c. It depends on the relationship between his mother and his father. d. It depends on Jerome’s age; his attachment will not change after age 3.

150. How did Bowlby explain smiling in the infant? a. It is unrelated to attachment. b. It is random until about 6 months of age. c. It is usually due to gastrointestinal distress. d. It may serve as a stimulus for affection from others.

151. Jessica and Tim are first-time expectant parents. They are eager to ensure their child forms a secure attachment relationship with them. What would you tell them? a. Daughters and sons respond similarly to maternal behaviour. b. The father plays no role in attachment relationships. c. The quality of the attachment relationship is entirely dependent on the mother. d. It grows from loving affection and can be an enduring bond.

152. Which of the following is a characteristic of self-awareness? a. It does not reliably occur until about 24 months of age. b. It is not necessary for sharing and cooperation. c. It makes possible the development of self-conscious emotions, such as embarrassment. d. It is the process of differentiation.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 153. What has research concluded regarding gender differences? a. There are no differences between boys and girls. b. Differences in socialization appear to be important in developing gender differences. c. Boys’ and girls’ social behaviour differs. d. Boys and girls show consistent differences in activity and irritability levels.

154. Which statement best describes Mary Ainsworth’s contribution to the study of attachment? a. She developed various forms of attachment, including imprinting. b. She performed a classic experiment with rhesus monkeys and surrogate mothers. c. She was a student of Bowlby’s. d. She developed the strange-situation method of measuring the development of attachment.

155. How do securely attached infants compared with other infants? a. They are happier. b. They are more distressed than others when their mothers leave them alone. c. They are more difficult to put to bed at night than others. d. They are more indifferent to the comings and goings of their mother.

156. Of all substantiated child abuse cases in Canada, approximately what percentage involved neglect? a. 25 b. 35 c. 45 d. 55 157. Which statement best describes attachment? a. It is unrelated to survival needs. b. It is experienced only by humans. c. It is unaffected by one’s environment. d. It is a reciprocal relationship between child and parent.

158. How would Mary Ainsworth, a preeminent researcher, most likely describe attachment? a. an enduring emotional bond between one animal or person and another b. childhood behaviour, such as crying, that stimulates caregiving from adults c. a psychosexual developmental event that occurs as a result of pathological needs d. a learned behaviour resulting from reinforcements and punishments by the parents 159. Which statement best reflects current research about spoiling children? a. Parents must stop responding to infant cries by age 3 months in order to avoid spoiling. b. Children who have insecure attachment are more likely to be spoiled. c. Infants who cry constantly are most vulnerable to poor behaviour as adolescents. d. Parents should respond immediately to the cries of infants younger than 10 months because they are incapable of being spoiled.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 160. What is the state of research on father-infant interactions? a. In general, research in the last 25 years has studied primarily interactions between fathers and their infant sons. b. Relatively few studies have focused on father–infant interactions despite the importance of this relationship. c. The past 10 years has seen an explosion of studies focused on father–infant interactions, surpassing the studies on mother–infant interactions. d. The past 10 years has seen a steady increase in studies on both father–infant and mother–infant interactions.

161. Alicia is a child who is willing to investigate her environment, and she shows upbeat emotions toward things that she does NOT know. What type of attachment is Alicia most likely to have? a. secure attachment b. avoidant attachment c. ambivalent attachment d. disorganized attachment a. most likely to show severe distress when the caregiver leaves b. adapts with time c. irregular routine d. repeating what is heard e. preference for the primary caregiver f. at higher risk for engaging in abusive behaviour g. begins to develop at 6 to 9 months of age h. concordance rates for autism in identical twins i. few studies exist j. way to help prevent child abuse k. use mother's facial expressions to interpret ambiguous situations l. easily soothed upon the return of caregiver m. adaptable n. preference for familiar figures o. appears around 18 months of age p. refers to self as "you" or "she" q. indifference to comings and goings of caregivers r. used to detect self-awareness in children s. number of substantiated physically abused children t. infant looks away from an unpleasant stimulus QUESTION TYPE: Matching CUSTOM ID: 06-171 162. Easy baby 163. Fear of strangers 164. Father–infant research 165. Social referencing Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 166. Secure attachment 167. Lipstick on nose 168. Clear-cut attachment 169. Self-awareness 170. Anxious–ambivalent attachment 171. Approximately 20% 172. Difficult baby 173. Echolalia 174. Provide support for parents 175. Avoidant attachment 176. Emotional regulation 177. Single teenage mothers 178. 60% 179. Attachment-in-the-making 180. Pronoun reversal 181. Slow-to-warm-up baby 182. Explain how social referencing functions in infancy.

183. Describe the difference between a securely attached infant and an insecurely attached infant.

184. Briefly describe the three stages of attachment identified by Ainsworth and her colleagues (1978).

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 185. What is The Canadian Incidence Study (CIS) of Reported Child Abuse and Neglect? What does is measure, how long has this study been available, and what type of information does it provide?

186. Describe how autistic children can be distinguished from non-autistic children.

187. How is goodness of fit important in determining the outcome of a child’s temperament?

188. Explain how self-concept develops in infants.

189. Briefly describe the three types of temperament identified by Thomas and Chess (1989).

190. How is the strange-situation method used to assess attachment patterns?

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. False 22. False 23. False 24. False 25. False 26. False

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 27. False 28. False 29. False 30. False 31. False 32. True 33. True 34. False 35. True 36. True 37. False 38. True 39. False 40. True 41. True 42. True 43. False 44. False 45. True 46. True 47. True 48. False 49. True 50. False 51. True 52. True 53. True 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 55. False 56. False 57. False 58. c 59. c 60. b 61. b 62. d 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. a 67. c 68. d 69. d 70. a 71. c 72. b 73. a 74. a 75. c 76. a 77. a 78. c 79. a 80. d 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 83. a 84. c 85. d 86. a 87. a 88. a 89. d 90. c 91. c 92. d 93. b 94. a 95. d 96. c 97. a 98. a 99. c 100. c 101. c 102. d 103. a 104. d 105. c 106. c 107. a 108. b 109. d 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 111. d 112. b 113. c 114. a 115. b 116. c 117. b 118. d 119. b 120. a 121. b 122. c 123. b 124. d 125. d 126. d 127. d 128. d 129. c 130. d 131. a 132. a 133. a 134. b 135. d 136. b 137. b

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 138. b 139. b 140. b 141. a 142. d 143. c 144. b 145. b 146. d 147. d 148. c 149. a 150. d 151. d 152. c 153. b 154. d 155. a 156. b 157. d 158. a 159. d 160. b 161. a 162. m 163. g 164. i 165. k Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 166. l 167. r 168. e 169. o 170. a 171. s 172. c 173. d 174. j 175. q 176. t 177. f 178. h 179. n 180. p 181. b 182. We tend to use social referencing when a social situation is ambiguous. We observe those around us to see how they are reacting to the situation to help us make a decision on how to act, often modelling their responses. Infants have the ability to social reference just as adults do, but on a simpler level. For example, infants will judge the friendliness of the expression on their mother’s face when interacting with a stranger, and then show the stranger a similar expression.

183. A securely attached infant will be upset when the mother leaves and will be happy to see her return. An insecurely attached infant may exhibit either an avoidant or an anxious–ambivalent attachment pattern. In avoidant attachment, the infant shows little or no distress when the mother leaves the room. Anxious–ambivalent infants are very emotional, becoming extremely upset if mother leaves the room and acting of two minds upon her return. The majority of infants are securely attached.

184. According to Ainsworth and colleagues (1978), the first stage, known as the initial pre-attachment phase, lasts from birth to about 3 months and is characterized by indiscriminate attachment, which means that infants will want to maintain contact with a caregiver, but no specific caregiver is required. The second stage, known as the attachmentin-the-making phase, occurs at about 3 or 4 months and is characterized by preference for familiar figures. Now the infant prefers to be with one or more regular caregivers. The third, or clear-cut-attachment phase, occurs at about 6 or 7 months and is characterized by intensified dependence on the primary caregiver, usually the mother. During this stage, the infant will generally show a significant amount of distress when separated from the primary caregiver.

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Chap_06_HDEV_4ce 185. The Canadian Incidence Study (CIS) of Reported Child Abuse and Neglect is a national attempt to profile levels of child abuse in Canada. Child abuse and neglect provide an unfortunate view into the effects of child maltreatment.

The 2008 report is the third attempt at such Canadian data collection. However, because of the secrecy that often surrounds cases of child abuse, gathering reliable data is very difficult, if not impossible. The CIS reports the number and type of child maltreatment investigations and projects the risk of future maltreatment. This report has existed since 1998. A total of three cycles have been published, in 1998, 2003, and 2008.

186. Infants with autism are usually physically normal and learn to crawl and walk at normal ages. However, they seem to lack almost any attachments or social skills. As infants, they tend not to smile and do not explore things with their mouths. They do not seek cuddling or hugging and prefer to play by themselves, even when other children are present. Some children with autism engage in various types of self-harming behaviour. As these children get older, the differences become more obvious. Children with autism tend to practice echolalia and mutism. They also tend to have a strong desire for exact sameness. Any change in their environment can cause an outburst.

187. Goodness of fit occurs when a child’s environment accommodates his or her temperament. When there is good fit, the child’s temperament remains constant. When the environment does not fit with the child’s temperament, the child may have a bad situation or the child’s temperament may be modified with the guidance of a parent.

188. Infants eventually begin to realize that the hand passing in front of their eyes is their own hand. At about 18 months of age, infants begin to be able to detect a spot of lipstick on their face in a mirror. Once the infant becomes self-aware, social graces such as sharing can form. Being self-aware makes way for the development of feelings such as envy, pride, and shame. Infants over 18 months of age thus tend to seek parental approval, whereas younger infants do not.

189. The three types of temperament are: easy, difficult, and slow to warm up. The easy child is generally cheerful, has regular sleep and feeding schedules, approaches new situations (such as a new food or a new school) with enthusiasm, and adapts to new situations easily. The difficult child, on the other hand, has irregular sleep and feeding schedules, is slow to accept new people and situations, takes a long time to adjust to new routines, and responds to frustrations with tantrums and crying. The slow-to-warm-up child falls between the other two.

190. In the strange-situation method, first used by Mary Ainsworth to assess attachment patterns, an infant or child is kept in a room with its mother. After a while, a stranger (a member of the experiment team) enters the room. The mother then leaves the room, while the infant or child remains with the stranger. The mother returns to the room. During each of these phases of the experiment, the infant or child’s behaviour is recorded. The behaviour is examined to see whether the infant or child explores its environment, shows distress or wariness when the stranger arrives, and shows distress or upset when the mother leaves. The infant or child is also assessed when the mother returns to see how the infant or child reacts to the mother’s return, such as whether it goes to the mother or ignores her. The combination of these reactions are examined and determined to be in one of several categories of attachment patterns.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Children are unable to form scripts of commonly occurring events until age 5. a. True b. False 2. It is rare for children to have imaginary friends. a. True b. False 3. Children’s first questions are telegraphic and characterized by a rising pitch a. True b. False 4. The speed of processing visual information reaches adult levels at age 5. a. True b. False 5. Vygotsky believed that inner speech is involved in the development of planning and self-regulation, and facilitates learning. a. True b. False 6. Today, most developmentalists support an interactionist view of the relationship between language and cognition. a. True b. False 7. Scaffolding is a useful concept for understanding how to teach children. a. True b. False 8. Four-year-olds think dreams are real because of artificialism. a. True b. False 9. Some children are clearly “left-brained” while others are clearly “right-brained.” a. True b. False 10. Children use increased pitch at the end of a group of words to ask a question during early stages of language development. a. True b. False

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 11. Automobile accidents are the leading cause of death in early childhood in Canada. a. True b. False 12. In "transductive reasoning," children reason by going from one specific isolated event to another. a. True b. False 13. Most preschoolers do not engage in rehearsal until about 5 years of age. a. True b. False 14. Sleep terrors usually occur during REM sleep. a. True b. False 15. Young children are able to use retrieval cues provided to them by adults to remember things. a. True b. False 16. Egocentrism is characterized by one-dimensional thinking. a. True b. False 17. Preschoolers can accurately predict and explain human action and emotion in terms of mental states. a. True b. False 18. Pragmatics is more difficult when children are egocentric. a. True b. False 19. Skipping is a fine motor skill and develops later than all fine motor skills. a. True b. False 20. How parents eat has an effect on how their children eat. a. True b. False 21. Preschoolers show better memory for toys they are interested in. a. True b. False

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 22. Children vary choice of words in pretend play depending on the status of the role being played. a. True b. False 23. Fast-mapping allows children to find their way easily in new environments. a. True b. False 24. Brain efficiency is due, in large part, to myelination. a. True b. False 25. Diarrhea is a significant cause of death in developing countries. a. True b. False 26. Children become more active as they get older. a. True b. False 27. The left hemisphere of the brain processes logical information. a. True b. False 28. Immunizations have been shown to cause more harm than good for children in Canada. a. True b. False 29. The cerebellum is involved in muscle coordination. a. True b. False 30. Encopresis happens more during the day than at night. a. True b. False 31. Nightmares and night terrors are essentially the same. a. True b. False 32. Infants and preschoolers need less sleep than older children. a. True b. False

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 33. The average 2-year-old in Canada will experience a major illness. a. True b. False 34. Autobiographical memory develops at age 4. a. True b. False 35. Children who use “motherese” to talk with younger children are showing signs of pragmatics. a. True b. False 36. Preschoolers do not have an understanding of conservation of liquid or mass. a. True b. False 37. The majority of research results show that language comes before cognition. a. True b. False 38. The grammar explosion is evident when children move from telegraphic speech to speech that includes filler words such as a, an, she, and him. a. True b. False 39. Without environmental pressures, we would all have a 50-50 chance of becoming left-handed. a. True b. False 40. Growth rate increases significantly during the preschool years. a. True b. False 41. Children have early cognitive biases or constraints that lead them to prefer certain meanings over others a. True b. False 42. Preschoolers spend less time in rough-and-tumble play than older children. a. True b. False 43. Children should be corrected when they overregularize as it is an indication of falling behind in language development. a. True b. False

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 44. An example of overregularization is a young child who tells a friend that she sitted in that chair yesterday. a. True b. False 45. Infants and young toddlers are less able to recover from brain damage than adults because their plasticity has not yet developed. a. True b. False 46. Saying "the moon goes away during the day because it is afraid of the sun" is an example of animism. a. True b. False 47. Sprouting refers to the development of new memories. a. True b. False 48. At 2 years of age, the brain already has attained 75% of its adult weight. a. True b. False 49. Children find it easier to remember events that happen in a fixed, logical order. a. True b. False 50. Children's drawings are always purposeful and have meaning. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

51. At what age does a child create drawings of objects that are recognizable? a. by age 1 to 2 b. by age 2 to 3 c. by age 3 to 4 d. by age 4 to 5 52. Which of the following is a characteristic of the corpus callosum? a. It processes visual information only. b. It is largely myelinated by the age of 8. c. It does not develop until the preschool years. d. It connects the brainstem to the frontal regions of the brain.

53. How common is the characteristic of right-handedness? a. It is more common among boys than girls. b. It is the most common handedness worldwide. c. It is more common in unindustrialized countries. d. It is more common in Canada than in any other country.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 54. How does boys’ growth compare with girls’ growth during the preschool years? a. Boys can be slightly taller and heavier than girls at this time. b. Girls outgrow boys in height and weight. c. Girls gain more weight while boys get taller. d. Boys and girls show about the same growth patterns.

55. Which of the following is increased in children who are regularly exposed to second-hand smoke? a. visual problems b. heart disease c. SIDS d. negative school performance 56. What is the sleep pattern of most preschoolers? a. They sleep 12–14 hours in a 24-hour period. b. They sleep more than when they were infants. c. They sleep 8 hours at night and have two naps per day. d. They sleep 6 to 8 hours at night and have one nap per day.

57. Which statement best describes toilet training? a. African-Canadian parents initiate toilet training later than Caucasian parents do. b. Higher-income groups initiate toilet training attempts sooner than lower-income groups. c. Family genetics play a crucial role. d. A child may continue to have nighttime accidents after daytime training occurs 58. Which statement best describes the impact of poverty on children’s risk of death? a. Children living in poverty are 5 times more likely to die in a fire. b. Poverty increases the likelihood that a child will not be immunized. c. Parents who are living in poverty are less attentive to their children. d. Children living in poverty are 10 times more likely to die of a disease.

59. What is the technical term for sleepwalking? a. insomnia b. sleep apnea c. hyposomnia d. somnambulism 60. What determines a taste preference for salty foods? a. It is a genetic preference. b. It is a learned preference. c. It is predominantly a male characteristic. d. It is related to sun exposure and perspiration.

61. Which of the following is a characteristic of children who have frequent nightmares or sleep terrors? a. They may need stern discipline to help them get over it. b. They may not get any better if they sleep with a light on. c. They may have a stressful home environment that is contributing to the problem. d. They are not receiving proper sleep and nutrition.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 62. A child is asked "Why do dogs bark?" and she responds, "Because it wants to." What can we conclude about this child? a. She is age 2 or younger. b. She is approximately age 3 or older. c. She is unable to understand conservation. d. She is demonstrating lack of egocentrism.

63. What is the relationship between preschool programs and cognitive development in economically disadvantaged children? a. These programs have had little effectiveness. b. These programs improve the children’s social skills. c. These programs provide cognitive enrichment. d. These programs help cognitive development but may place undue pressure on young children.

64. Which of the following is an effect of childhood immunizations? a. They have completely eliminated diphtheria, but minimal change exists for other serious childhood illnesses. b. They have not statistically reduced the number of serious childhood illnesses since the 1990s. c. They have completely eliminated most serious childhood illnesses. d. They have greatly reduced the incidence of fatal childhood illnesses.

65. Which statement best describes the effects of handedness? a. Being left-handed has proven to be an advantage in mastering language skills. b. Left-handed individuals have been shown to be less intelligent. c. Left-handedness is associated with artistic creativity and success in athletics. d. Right-handed individuals are significantly more likely to develop schizophrenia.

66. Which of the following contributes to memory retention among young children? a. their activity level b. their amount of play interaction with parents c. the availability of reminders or retrieval cues d. the time of day 67. What is the function of the corpus callosum? a. It connects the two hemispheres of the brain. b. It connects the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum. c. It allows the cerebrum to interact with the limbic system. d. It allows the frontal lobe and the medulla to communicate.

68. Terry’s daughter has sleep terrors. What would a sleep expert tell Terry about sleep terrors? a. They are the same as nightmares. b. They occur more frequently as the child gets older. c. They occur deeper in the sleep cycle than nightmares. d. They are more common in infancy than at any other age.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 69. Which statement best describes what we know about handedness? a. The origins of handedness have a genetic component, but handedness can be altered by environment. b. A slightly higher percentage of math whizzes are right-handed. c. Historically, being left-handed was a personal trait that was held in high regard. d. Handedness is generally confirmed during the toddler years.

70. What has research found regarding the influence of the television program Sesame Street on young children? a. It has minimal positive effects on children. b. It simply helps children of upper-income families. c. It increases children’s learning of numbers, letters, and cognitive skills. d. It enhances emotional empathy.

71. Brian and Joseph are chasing each other around the park and wrestling in the grass. What term describes this form of play? a. aggressive play b. cooperative play c. large-muscle skill play d. rough-and-tumble play 72. According to Vygotsky, what is “inner speech” evidence of? a. cognitive development preceding language development b. language development preceding cognitive development c. the ultimate binding of language and thought d. comprehension following verbal production 73. A grandmother is looking at the scribblings made by her young grandchildren. She asks you whether they hold any meaning. What is most likely to be your response? a. They are random and insignificant. b. They demonstrate significant patterns. c. They show a deficiency in gross motor skills. d. They show a lack of cognitive development.

74. How does vocabulary develop? a. slowly until school starts b. very quickly during preschool years c. varies according to where the child lives d. quick for proper nouns but slower for all other words 75. Which term refers to an inability to control the bowels? a. urinesis b. enuresis c. ontothesis d. encopresis

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 76. Which statement characterizes left-handedness? a. Left-handed people are more likely to be male. b. Left-handedness is associated with increased levels of creativity. c. Left-handedness is associated with reduced levels of creativity. d. Left-handed people are more likely to be female.

77. You are assigned to set up a recreational camp for preschoolers. Because you have studied the activity level of preschoolers, how many hours per week of large-muscle activities do you organize for the campers? a. 5 hours b. 10 hours c. 15 hours d. 25 hours 78. According to the textbook, at what point are we able to process visual information at or near adult levels? a. around the first birthday b. by 5 years of age c. by the age of 7 years d. at the onset of adolescence 79. Caitlin thinks that all people love dolls because she loves dolls. What is her thinking an example of? a. egocentrism b. symbolic thinking c. concrete operations d. cognitive flexibility 80. Which of the following is an example of rough and tumble play? a. angry looks b. grabbing or hitting c. pushing d. running or chasing 81. Which of the following is an example of the appearance-reality distinction? a. knowing that a teddy bear exists even if it is out of sight b. thinking that a cartoon cat and an actual cat are the same c. understanding the difference between a toy train and an actual train d. understanding that breaking a cookie into two pieces does not increase its mass 82. Which statement best describes physically active young children? a. They are likely to have physically active parents. b. They are likely to commit crimes when they get older. c. They are more likely to slow down and become overweight as older children. d. They are less likely to get into trouble because they burn off their energy.

83. Which of the following is an example of an overregularization error commonly made by a young child? a. The doggy barking. b. The cat and the mouse chased. c. Two mouses lived in the house. d. Mommy gimme the mouse toy.

84. Which word is a child most likely to understand first? a. how b. who c. why d. when

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 85. Which statement best describes handedness? a. It is a human quality. b. It is influenced by genetics. c. It is identical in identical twins. d. It is environmentally driven.

86. According to Piaget, what follows after children develop concepts? a. They develop classes and categories of objects. b. They learn words to describe the concepts. c. They separate vocalizations from thought. d. They develop inner speech.

87. What is the definition of centration? a. loss of egocentrism b. reversibility in thinking c. the same as conservation d. focusing only on one aspect of a problem 88. How common are children’s imaginary friends? a. They are extremely rare. b. They are more common in children who have few or no friends. c. They are more common in later-born children. d. They accompany as many as 65% of preschoolers.

89. Your grandmother often advises you to “stop thinking with your right brain!” What is she likely trying to suggest that you do? a. Stop allowing emotion to take over. b. Think more like an adult. c. Stop being so logical. d. Slow down and allow your brain to rest.

90. Worldwide, what is responsible for 1 death in 5 among children under the age of 5 years? a. tetanus b. air pollution c. mumps d. whooping cough 91. Which illness kills nearly 2 million children under the age of 5 each year worldwide? a. tetanus b. mumps c. diarrhea d. whooping cough 92. You are a new parent. You ask your family doctor about the number one cause of death for children in Canada.

What does your doctor reply? a. SIDS b. drowning c. poisoning d. automobile accidents 93. What is the best way to present information to the left hemisphere of the brain? a. organized visually b. with emotion and passion c. in a logical fashion d. as imaginatively as possible 94. At what age is a child usually able to ride a bicycle with training wheels? a. 2 years b. 3 years c. 5 years d. 8 years Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 95. Which of the following requires fine motor skills? a. kicking a ball b. jumping c. swinging a baseball bat d. getting dressed 96. Jeff wonders how his daughters learned to skip rope so well. What can you tell him about how children acquire motor skills? a. The largest impact on motor skill development comes from parental instruction. b. Children appear to learn motor skills by teaching themselves and observing other children. c. Teachers who take time to conduct physical education lessons have the largest impact on motor skill development in children. d. Exposure to television and online media has resulted in significantly greater motor skill development in young children.

97. How do children who have imaginary companions differ from children without such companions? a. They are less obliging. b. They are more forceful. c. They have fewer "real" friends. d. They show a greater ability to focus and have a highly developed language.

98. What is the definition of "transductive" reasoning? a. assuming that separate events have cause–effect relationships b. assuming that others see the world in the same way you do c. assuming that there is no consistency in the world d. assuming all things have emotional components 99. What do the experts theorize regarding being a "right-brained" or "left-brained” person? a. There is no such thing as hemisphere specialization. b. This specialization does not occur until adolescence. c. Girls tend to be left-brained and boys tend to be right-brained. d. Some specialization occurs, but not to the degree suggested in the media.

100. Which of the following is associated with imaginary friend play? a. a higher mental status b. lower levels of empathy c. fewer real friends d. more real friends 101. During the last month in kindergarten, Tom was making a transition from colouring with a fat crayon to colouring with a skinny crayon. The process began when his teacher presented the box of “crayons used by first graders” to the class. She then described and demonstrated the adjustments that would be necessary when using smaller crayons. Tom needs her to position his hand at first, but he gradually needs less and less assistance. What concept was Tom’s teacher demonstrating? a. applying the developmental guidelines from information-processing theory to the learning process b. using metacognition to encourage students to reflect on their thinking c. applying Vygotsky’s zone of proximal development to the instructional situation d. stimulating an understanding of conservation among her students Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 102. What is a "theory of mind”? a. It is one-dimensional thinking. b. It is three-dimensional thinking. c. It is a summary phrase for Piaget's theory. d. It is a commonsense understanding of how the mind works.

103. In a study by O'Neill and Gopnik (1991), 4- and 5-year-olds were able to correctly describe what was in a tunnel and how they knew what was there. Three-year-olds, however, were not as successful. How did the researchers know that the 3-year-olds did not understand the source of their knowledge? a. The 3-year-olds could not identify what was in the tunnel. b. Some children reported seeing things in the tunnel that were not there. c. Some children identified a ball as blue after feeling it but not seeing it. d. Many children identified a ball in the tunnel when there was no ball there.

104. What is the current advice regarding what to do with a sleepwalker? a. They should not be wakened because waking them could cause them harm. b. They should be wakened because they are not really asleep. c. They should be put back to bed for their own safety. d. They should be avoided because they could become extremely violent.

105. Maggie is a typical 5-year-old whose brain in still growing. What percentage of its adult weight is her brain currently? a. 25% of its adult weight b. 60% of its adult weight c. 75% of its adult weight d. 90% of its adult weight 106. How does motor activity develop in early childhood? a. Motor activity declines after 2 or 3 years of age. b. Motor activity continues to increase after 2 or 3 years of age. c. Girls show a decline in motor activity, whereas boys show an increase in motor activity. d. Motor activity steadily increases from birth until 10 years of age.

107. What is a cause of preoperational children failing to show conservation? a. egocentrism b. irreversibility c. precausal thinking d. transductive reasoning 108. When during the sleep cycle do nightmares most frequently occur? a. restorative sleep b. transitional sleep c. deep sleep d. REM sleep

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 109. According to a longitudinal study conducted with 152 children, what is the relationship between motor development and school performance? a. Motor development has no significant relationship to academic proficiency. b. Motor skills are directly correlated with academic achievement. c. Children who learn to play sports early will enjoy school more. d. Children who are proficient at sports are less adept at academic skills.

110. Which statement describes a characteristic of left-handedness? a. It leads to clumsier behaviour than that of right-handed people. b. It has both positive and negative academic implications. c. It can lead to deficits that can be overcome by using the right hand. d. It is a characteristic of superior debating skills noted after adolescence.

111. Which statement best describes children and television watching? a. Canadian children spend less time in front of a screen than was true 5 years ago. b. Between ages 3 and 5, the average Canadian child spends 2 hours in front of screens each day. c. Television has a high potential for teaching cognitive skills and attitudes to children. d. Canadian children’s television viewing is more closely monitored by parents than in the past.

112. How do younger preschoolers differ in their play habits compared with older preschoolers? a. They are more sociable than older preschoolers. b. They are more likely to engage in physical play than older preschoolers. c. They are less likely to engage in any form of play than older preschoolers. d. They are more likely to engage in cooperative play than older preschoolers.

113. Which term refers to changing one’s speech to fit a particular social situation? a. syntax b. grammar c. pragmatics d. egocentrism 114. More than 13 million children around the world die each year from six diseases, including pneumonia, diarrhea, measles, tetanus, and whooping cough. What is the sixth disease? a. influenza b. tuberculosis c. heart disease d. unintentional injuries 115. Which statement best describes the nature of pretend play? a. It reflects lack of maturity. b. It is helpful for children who need distraction. c. It is a waste of time. d. It requires cognitive sophistication.

116. What term refers to a child who CANNOT take someone else's perspective? a. unusual b. egocentric c. formal operational d. concrete operational

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 117. Janet sees children at the playground involved in rough-and-tumble play and asks her neighbour, a child development specialist, whether such play is a cause for concern. Which of the following would the neighbour most likely tell Janet about rough-and-tumble play? a. It is an expression of aggression. b. It increases as children get older. c. It is specific to male North American culture. d. It is important to the physical and social development of children.

118. Why are most children ready to focus on schoolwork between the ages of 4 and 7? a. Myelination growth in the cerebellum pathways has completed. b. The parts of the brain that enable sustained attention become myelinated c. The energy levels for running and jumping decrease during early childhood. d. The pathways that link the cerebellum to the cerebral cortex become myelinated.

119. What child development is the result of the myelination of neural pathways linking the cerebellum and the cerebral cortex? a. increased memory abilities b. enhanced verbal skills c. increased balance and coordination d. dramatic increases in the ability to imagine and be creative 120. Which statement best explains the memory strategies of preschoolers? a. They often group objects into categories. b. They typically do not use rehearsal strategies until age 5. c. They rarely use rehearsal to recall a list of objects. d. They believe that novel terms refer to unfamiliar objects.

121. Your best friend is a first-time mother and wonders whether she should let her son take a favourite toy to bed.

Which of the following is an expert most likely to tell her? a. It may harm the child’s development. b. It may serve as a soothing object and should be encouraged. c. It is more common among girls than boys. d. It can become problematic because the child does not learn independence.

122. Which of the following is a characteristic of diarrhea? a. It is not a life-threatening illness. b. It is more common as children get older. c. It is the most common childhood illness in North America. d. It is one of the leading killers of children in developing countries.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 123. In a research study, 20% of the highest scoring performers on the SAT were left-handed. What conclusion is suggested by this result? a. The SAT measures fine motor skills. b. The SAT measures visual-spatial ability. c. Left-handers perform worse than would be expected on the basis of percentages. d. Left-handers perform better than would be expected on the basis of the percentages.

124. Jennifer takes her daughter, Tabatha, for a routine medial appointment. The doctor tells Jennifer that Tabatha’s brain size is increasing, which is expected because she is under the age of five. What is the cause of Tabatha’s brain growth? a. increased number of glial cells b. increased myelination c. increases in the size of the cerebellum d. increases in the size of neural networks 125. What understanding does conservation require? a. that dreams are real b. that one person’s perspective is the same as everyone else’s c. that properties of objects remain the same, even when their shape or arrangement changes d. that environmental features, such as mountains and thunder, have been designed and created by people 126. This is the first season that Samantha has been outside skipping with her friends. How old is Samantha most likely to be? a. age 18 months to 2 years b. age 3 c. age 4 to 5 d. age 6 or 7 127. Which statement best describes automobile accidents involving children? a. They are the leading cause of death for Canadian children. b. They have declined significantly in Canada over the past decade. c. They are the third leading cause of death for Canadian children. d. They occur more often among children from higher economic status families.

128. By what age have most children "outgrown" bedwetting? a. 4 b. 5 c. 7 d. 8 129. Which of the following might limit the ability of young children to access their memory? a. slow development of neurons b. lack of available cues or reminders c. poor development of the amygdala d. the underdevelopment of their brains 130. How do boys’ height and weight gains compare with girls’ height and weight gains during early childhood? a. Girls become heavier and taller than boys. b. Both boys and girls increase their amount of "baby fat." c. The growth rate speeds up compared with the growth in infancy. d. Both boys and girls become more slender and lose some baby fat.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 131. In 2005, the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development released a report that ranked developed countries in terms of their access to child-care spaces and their public investment in childcare. What was Canada’s ranking? a. first place b. in the top ten c. at the mid-point d. last place 132. What is the effect of using harsh punishment in response to encopresis? a. It generally makes the problem worse. b. It appears to work for boys, but not for girls. c. It teaches self-control, which is what the child needs. d. It will usually stop the encopresis within a few weeks.

133. Martin is upset that his older sister has two cookies while he has only one. His sister cut Martin’s cookie in half, and he is satisfied that they now have the same number of cookies. According to Piaget, Martin is most likely in which stage of cognitive development? a. sensorimotor b. preoperational c. concrete d. formal 134. What is the relationship between handedness and genetics? a. Handedness is entirely environmentally driven. b. Fifty percent of people are born to become left-handed. c. One hundred percent of people are born to be right-handed. d. Handedness of the child is influenced by the handedness of the parents.

135. Which of the following is an example of overregularization? a. "daddy goed" b. "mommy walked" c. assuming that all brown, furry creatures are dogs d. understanding that sheep remains "sheep" in the plural 136. Zack enjoys drawing basic shapes and is good at it. How old is Zack likely to be? a. 1 year b. 18 months c. 2 years d. 3 years 137. What is the impact of air pollution on children’s health? a. It kills more children annually than diarrhea. b. It is a main cause of death in developing countries. c. It affects young girls more strongly than young boys. d. It contributes to respiratory infections, which are responsible for childhood deaths.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 138. Jeremy stutters. What would be an educated guess about his handedness? a. He is likely to be left-handed. b. He is likely right-handed, which is associated with stuttering. c. No relationship exists between handedness and challenges such as stuttering. d. He has inherited damage to his medulla, which is associated with handedness.

139. Which of the following is a characteristic of encopresis? a. It is more common among girls who struggle with toilet training. b. It is a sign of a serious medical condition demanding immediate treatment. c. It occurs when children soil themselves after the normal age expected of this behaviour. d. It should be treated with harsh punishment.

140. A child believes that mountains "grow." What is this belief an example of? a. animism b. artificialism c. egocentrism d. preoperations 141. Which of the following is required in order to engage in class inclusion? a. conservation b. centration c. scaffolding d. approximation 142. Which of the following is characteristic of bedwetting? a. Bedwetting is a sign of poor parenting. b. Bedwetting increases in occurrence with age. c. Bedwetting occurs more often during deep sleep. d. Bedwetting is more common among girls than boys.

143. Brendan is 1 year old and has recently suffered a brain injury. What is a brain specialist most likely to tell Brendan’s parents? a. Brendan's brain will have greater plasticity once he reaches adolescence. b. Other parts of Brendan's brain will not be able assume the functions lost due to injury. c. Due to redundancy of neural connections, Brendan will not likely recover from the injury. d. Because of Brendan's age, his brain may be able to compensate for injuries due to its plasticity.

144. What is the meaning of “brain plasticity”? a. Brain parts are flexible and can complete a variety of tasks. b. Certain brain areas have very specific functions. c. The brain can sometimes compensate for injuries. d. Dendrites can form new connections.

145. Suppose both of your parents are left-handed. What are your chances of being left-handed? a. 50% b. 80% c. 92% d. 100%

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 146. Which term refers to the failure to control the bladder once the "normal" age for bladder control has been achieved? a. urinesis b. enuresis c. ontothesis d. encopresis 147. Lea and Mia are both 2 years old, and both are developing at an average rate. What is their expected weight gain during early childhood? a. 1 to 2 kg per month b. less than 1 kg per year c. 2 to 3 kg per year d. 4 to 5 kg per year 148. What does Health Canada recommend as the focus of a child’s diet? a. calorie intake; specifically, a diet of 1,500 calories per day b. a diet low in fat and high and protein c. a diet low in sugar, salt, and saturated fats d. calorie intake; specifically, a diet of 2,500 calories per day 149. Approximately what percentage of the general population is left-handed? a. 2% b. 5% c. 12 d. 20% 150. During what sleep stage does bedwetting usually occur? a. during stage 1 sleep b. during REM sleep c. during stage 3 sleep d. during the deepest stage of sleep 151. Which statement best describes the drawings of a 5-year-old? a. They have no real meaning. b. They are symbolic rather than specific. c. They are random but are given meaning by the child. d. They begin to resemble recognizable objects.

152. What is fast mapping? a. It is the belief that novel terms refer to unfamiliar objects. b. It is a process by which children learn active words faster than passive words. c. It is a process in which the child quickly attaches a new word to its appropriate concept. d. It is the tendency for young children to associate words with particular characteristics of objects.

153. When is brain plasticity at its peak? a. between the ages of 1 and 2 c. varies greatly between females and males

b. not until adolescence d. varies greatly from individual to individual

154. Which of the following is an example of class inclusion? a. being able to recite the multiplication tables b. being able to engage in addition and subtraction c. being able to place objects in order according to some characteristic d. understanding that "animal" includes subclasses such as "dogs" and "cats" Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 155. Which of the following characterizes how preschoolers communicate using symbols? a. rough housing b. writing c. pretend play d. counting 156. Which of the following is most likely the cause of children’s sleepwalking? a. general misbehaviour b. trouble controlling impulses c. immaturity of the nervous system d. gender; girls sleepwalk significantly more than boys 157. What has had a significant impact in reducing the incidence of serious childhood illnesses? a. better doctor to patient ratios b. advances in over-the-counter medications c. immunizations and antibiotics d. better focus on diet and nutrition 158. Elizabeth is 2 years old. What motor skill can she accomplish? a. lacing her shoes b. printing her first name c. using a pencil with the correct hand grip d. gripping her blanket 159. According to Statistics Canada, approximately what percentage of children between the ages of 5 and 17 are either overweight or obese? a. 20% b. 30% c. 40% d. 50% 160. What did Piaget use to test for egocentrism? a. conservation b. object permanence c. the 3-mountains test d. the hiding of a toy behind a blanket 161. Which of the following is part of the Canada’s Food Guide recommendations for young children’s nutrition? a. They need considerably more fat and salt in their diets than adults. b. Their nutritional needs should not be overly supervised or they will become self-conscious eaters. c. They need to increase their sugar intake to support their high-energy activities. d. They need to reduce sugary and salty foods to avoid building preferences for these.

162. How does growth during the preschool years differ from physical development in infancy? a. Growth during the preschool years is faster. b. Growth during the preschool years is significantly slower. c. Growth during the preschool years is more dependent on physical activity. d. Growth during the preschool years is more dependent on nutrition.

163. Which statement would Piaget use to describe the preoperational stage of cognitive development? a. It is characterized by clear and appropriate use of mental frameworks. b. It involves the use of mimicking for learning. c. It lasts from approximately age 4 to age 9. d. It involves logic which is not fully developed.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 164. Jean-Paul demonstrates to his son, Marc, how to tie shoes. Gradually, Jean-Paul turns the responsibility for tying shoes over to Marc. What kind of guidance is Jean-Paul exhibiting? a. attachment b. scaffolding c. conservation d. the zone of proximal development 165. Sarah is concerned about her son’s sleepwalking. What would a sleep expert most likely tell Sarah about her son’s sleepwalking? a. It will increase as he gets older. b. It will decrease as he gets older. c. It is more common among boys than girls. d. It is more common among girls than boys.

166. What may increase the occurrence of sleep terrors? a. situational stress b. a medical condition c. irregular brainwave patterns d. gender; boys experience more night terrors than girls 167. What distinguishes nightmares from sleep terrors? a. Nightmares are more frightening. b. Sleep terrors tend to occur during deeper sleep. c. Nightmares are usually outgrown; sleep terrors are not. d. Sleep terrors occur during REM sleep, nightmares do not.

168. Which of the following does conservation require? a. the ability to narrow focus to one aspect of a problem b. the ability to focus on two or more aspects of a situation at once c. patience d. an adequate attention span 169. Jack’s parents are told that Jack’s toilet-training milestone indicates a normal development. By what age was Jack toilet trained? a. by age 8 months b. by age 18 months c. by age 3 d. by age 5 170. What are gross motor skills? a. skills gained by imitating others b. skills involving large muscle groups c. skills for very specific and precise movements d. skills that cannot be acquired until late childhood or early adolescence 171. In a group of 100 successful athletes, what would you expect to find in terms of their handedness? a. The majority are left-handed. b. The percentage who are left-handed is higher than in the general population. c. The majority are right-handed. d. The percentage who are left-handed is lower than in the general population Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 172. What is a child's "zone of proximal development”? a. what a young child can do compared with what his peers can do b. what younger children can do compared with what older children can do c. the degree of difference between the child's current ability and future potential d. the gap between what the child can do now and what the child can do with help 173. Why are class inclusion tasks difficult for the preoperational child? a. These tasks require the ability of seriation. b. The preoperational child's thinking is too linear. c. These tasks require counting skills. d. These tasks require the child to focus on multiple dimensions simultaneously.

174. Which of the following contributes to children being more vulnerable than adults to the effects of second-hand smoke? a. slower breathing rate b. less control over their environments c. larger lung capacity d. smoke tends to fall to their height more quickly 175. What values are encouraged through the Inuit practices where children’s learning and supervision are concerned? a. self-reliance and resourcefulness b. tolerance and acceptance c. accomplishment and status d. sharing and modesty 176. What can you tell a new parent about the role childhood immunizations play in protecting the health of Canadian children? a. Immunizations have only been administered reliably in some Canadian provinces to date. b. Immunizations appear to have reduced the incidence of some, but not all, significant childhood diseases in Canada. c. Immunizations are painful and not worth the tears experienced by some children. d. Immunizations have resulted in a significant decrease in major childhood diseases.

177. What can be expected in terms of language development during a child’s third year? a. a grammar explosion leading to phrase combinations b. tentative use of new words c. an understanding of grammar rules used by adults d. a plateau in language use 178. What does research on right-handed individuals suggest? a. Their left hemisphere is more involved in logical analysis and problem solving. b. Their right hemisphere is more involved in logical analysis and problem solving. c. Both hemispheres are equally involved in logical analysis and problem solving. d. Myelination of the corpus callosum is not complete until adolescence.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 179. During a recent parent–teacher conference, Mr. Charles explained to the parents of 3-year-old Cameron that their son is going through a specific phase in his drawings. What does Cameron draw? a. circles, squares, Xs, and triangles b. scribbles in various locations on the page c. recognizable objects such as houses and airplanes d. a combination of people he knows and common shapes, such as circles and squares 180. What is required for a child to stand on one foot? a. gross motor skills b. maturity of the cerebrum c. myelination of the amygdala d. maturation of the corpus callosum 181. At what age does pretend play usually appear? a. by approximately 6 months of age b. by approximately 9 months of age c. early in the 2nd year d. by 36 months of age 182. A 4-year-old preoperational child is confused about the difference between the mental and the physical. What is this child most likely to believe about dreams? a. They are authentic happenings in his life. b. They are television shows he experiences in his sleep. c. They are events that are happening to other people. d. They are caused by his parents.

183. Gina is 3 years old. She tells you that before going to bed, she puts her pajamas on, brushes her teeth, and hears a story. What term refers to Gina's account of this repeated event? a. a script b. scaffolding c. recognition memory d. appearance-reality distinction 184. Which of the following is a characteristic of childhood illnesses? a. Children in developing countries are more vulnerable. b. They can be life-threatening. c. They vary in frequency by racial and ethnic background. d. They vary according to sleep and exercise routines.

185. How do Inuit cultures approach child development in a way that differs from the practices generally held in Western cultures? a. Inuit children are discouraged from engaging in play-based learning. b. Inuit parents rely on their elders to set the pace of learning. c. Inuit parents are much more involved in decision making regarding childhood activities. d. Inuit children enjoy greater freedom to make choices and become independent.

186. Worldwide, millions of children die each year. What is one of the six leading causes of death for nearly twothirds of these children? a. influenza b. heart disease c. tetanus d. unintentional injury Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 187. Raina is a 2-year-old girl who is developing at an average rate. What is her expected gain in height throughout early childhood? a. 1 cm per year b. 3 cm per year c. 5 to 8 cm per year d. 10 to 12 cm per year a. "mountains grow if you plant stones" b. temporary learning support c. associated with development of physical and social skills d. percentage of people who will become left-handed e. symbolic of something specific f. skipping g. bedwetting or loss of bladder control h. linked to myelination of the pathways linking cerebellum and the cerebral cortex i. percentage of people who will become right-handed j. understanding of how one's mind works k. linked to emotions l. quickly determining a word's meaning m. must focus on two aspects of a situation at once n. growth of new dendrites in the brain o. associated with activity level in children p. soiling or loss of bowel control q. sleepwalking r. involvement in meal preparation s. stacking blocks t. linked to logic QUESTION TYPE: Matching CUSTOM ID: 07-198 188. Motor skill development 189. Gross motor skill 190. Encopresis 191. 92 192. Theory of mind 193. Left brain hemisphere 194. Rough-and-tumble play 195. Sprouting 196. Activity level of parents 197. Later childhood drawings 198. 12 199. Enuresis Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 200. Fine motor skill 201. Contributes to healthy eating choices 202. Animism 203. Scaffolding 204. Right brain hemisphere 205. Somnambulism 206. Fast mapping 207. Class inclusion 208. Compare the major causes of death in Canada with the major causes of death in developing countries.

209. How do nightmares differ from sleep terrors?

210. What is theory of mind? How does it work?

211. Discuss what memory is like in early childhood.

212. Discuss what is known about the relationship between childhood obesity and parental responses to eating and playing behaviours.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 213. What are some of the common errors in language that children make during early childhood?

214. Briefly describe The Aboriginal Head Start on Reserve program.

215. What is the impact of television viewing on children?

216. Describe the cognitive abilities and limitations of preoperational-aged children.

217. Describe what is known about the development of right- and left-handedness around the world.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. False 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. False 20. True 21. True 22. True 23. False 24. True 25. True 26. False

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 27. True 28. False 29. True 30. True 31. False 32. False 33. False 34. False 35. True 36. True 37. False 38. True 39. False 40. False 41. True 42. False 43. False 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. False 48. True 49. True 50. False 51. d 52. b 53. b 54. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 55. c 56. a 57. d 58. a 59. d 60. b 61. c 62. b 63. c 64. d 65. c 66. c 67. a 68. c 69. a 70. c 71. d 72. c 73. b 74. b 75. d 76. b 77. d 78. d 79. a 80. d 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 83. c 84. b 85. b 86. b 87. d 88. d 89. a 90. b 91. c 92. d 93. c 94. c 95. d 96. b 97. d 98. a 99. d 100. d 101. c 102. d 103. c 104. c 105. d 106. a 107. b 108. d 109. b 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 111. b 112. b 113. c 114. b 115. d 116. b 117. d 118. b 119. c 120. b 121. b 122. d 123. d 124. b 125. c 126. c 127. a 128. d 129. b 130. d 131. d 132. a 133. b 134. d 135. a 136. d 137. d

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 138. a 139. c 140. a 141. a 142. c 143. d 144. c 145. a 146. b 147. c 148. c 149. c 150. d 151. d 152. c 153. a 154. d 155. c 156. c 157. c 158. d 159. b 160. c 161. d 162. b 163. d 164. b 165. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 166. a 167. b 168. b 169. c 170. b 171. b 172. d 173. d 174. b 175. a 176. d 177. a 178. a 179. a 180. a 181. c 182. a 183. a 184. a 185. d 186. c 187. c 188. h 189. f 190. p 191. i 192. j 193. k Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 194. c 195. n 196. o 197. e 198. d 199. g 200. s 201. r 202. a 203. b 204. t 205. q 206. l 207. m 208. Children in Canada are more likely to die from accident-related injuries than from the next six most frequent causes of childhood death combined. In other words, more children die from accidents (such as fires, falls, and car accidents) than from illnesses such as leukemia, heart disease, and other ailments. Accidental deaths affect children from lower socioeconomic levels disproportionately. This difference may be due, in part, to hazardous living conditions and living in dangerous neighbourhoods. The picture is quite different, however, in developing countries. Around the world, 8 million to 9 million children die from six diseases: 1) pneumonia, 2) diarrhea, 3) measles, tetanus, 4) whooping cough, and 5) tuberculosis.

Air pollution also creates a great number of respiratory infections that account for 20% of all deaths in children under the age of 5.

209. Sleep terrors are usually more severe than nightmares. Nightmares tend to occur during REM sleep, whereas sleep terrors occur during deep sleep. Sleep terrors decline with age for a child and are associated with stressful change, such as moving to a new house or parental divorce.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 210. Theory of mind is an awareness of how one's mind and memory work. Understanding theory of mind allows us to make predictions about behaviour because we can infer the mental processes that precede behaviour. Theory of mind is necessary for a child to become less egocentric and to understand that others can think about the world and objects in ways that differ from their own thoughts. Theory of mind develops as children begin to think about objects and how they are represented in their own mind. Theory of mind allows children to begin to predict what other people will do.

211. Young children are developing significant memory abilities. They are better at recognition memory tasks, such as "have I seen this before?" than they are at recall tasks, such as "tell me what toys you played with yesterday." Young children are also likely to have a better memory for activities they have engaged in than for objects they may have used. The development of autobiographical memory (the memory of specific events in one's life) seems to come as much from what parents tell children about their lives as children’s own memory of the actual events. Children also remember events that follow a logical order more so than events that do not follow a particular order. Children are able to remember more information when they are provided with retrieval cues.

212. Whether parents want to or not, they serve as role models for food preferences and eating behaviours. Intervention by the preschool period is important given that being overweight as a preschooler means that the individual is 5 times more likely to be overweight at the age of 12 years. Parents should be educated about risk factors such as not eating breakfast, drinking sugary drinks, amount of screen time, and lack of play outside.

213. Due to a language acquisition process called fast mapping, children quickly attach new words to the appropriate concepts. The "whole-object assumption" leads children to surmise that the names of objects (such as kitty) refer to the entire object (the body, the head, the legs, the tail, and so on) rather than just one feature (such as the colour of the fur). Despite their incredible advances in language development, children are prone to certain errors. One error is "overregularization," which is shown when children assume that grammatical rules should be applied universally. The exceptions to our language are typically the hardest rules to learn. Children learn, for example, that adding an "ed" to words (such as adding “ed” to walk to form walked) places them in the past tense. Children sometimes overuse these rules, by forming the past tense of go as goed.

214. The Aboriginal Head Start on Reserve program encourages the development of locally controlled projects in First Nation communities that strive to instill in children a sense of pride and a desire to learn, enhance parenting skills that contribute to the healthy development of children, improve family relationships, foster emotional and social development, and increase confidence. Studies of Head Start and other intervention programs show that environmental enrichment can enhance the cognitive development of economically disadvantaged children.

215. The Active Healthy Kids Canada resource page reports that Canadian children have high rates of screen time across ages. It is recommended that screen time be limited, and active lifestyles be encouraged. For very young children, screen time is does not provide any advantages for learning. For 2–3-year-old children the type of activity is important. Specifically, it was found that the level of interaction and the content the children are consuming is more critical to consider than just the amount of screen time they are exposed to. While some programs such as Sesame Street have some benefits to basic learning of numbers, letters, and sorting, the majority of viewing is simply a mindless distraction for children. The Canadian Paediatric Society recommends that viewing be limited to 2 hours per day and this includes all screen types (computers, phones, laptops, etc.). The more time spent in front of a screen, the less likely a child is to be physically active and the more likely he or she is to experience unhealthy weight gain, anxiety, and depression.

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Chap_07_HDEV_4ce 216. Although children of this age still show confusion between symbols and the objects they represent, they are beginning to understand how their minds work. In addition, children are beginning to use symbols to represent objects, which, of course, is necessary for the development of language. Children of this age are beginning to engage in symbolic or "pretend" play, which demonstrates advancements in the ability to imagine. Preschool-aged children are highly egocentric, assuming that others think the same things they do. They are still unable to understand conservation tasks because they still show one-dimensional thinking. They are likely to display animism (in which thoughts and feelings are attributed to inanimate objects) and artificialism (such as believing that people created thunder).

217. Handedness emerges during infancy, usually by two to three months of age. You can test handedness by placing a rattle or another toy in the infant's hand. The rattle will be held longer if placed in the dominant hand. The origins of handedness have a genetic component. Right-handedness is much more common than left-handedness. Lefthandedness is associated with language problems (such as dyslexia), stuttering, and even health problems such as allergies. On the positive side, left-handedness is also associated with creativity and mathematical ability.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Parents who are strict and demand mature behaviour will have rebellious children. a. True b. False 2. Children with better developed perspective-taking ability also show more prosocial behaviour and less aggressive behaviour among their peers. a. True b. False 3. Erikson referred to the stage of early childhood as initiative versus guilt. a. True b. False 4. Media violence and aggressive video games increase viewers’ level of arousal. a. True b. False 5. Research has shown the sons of authoritarian parents to be relatively hostile and defiant and the daughters to be low in independence and dominance. a. True b. False 6. Girls show more empathy than boys. a. True b. False 7. Warm parents are less likely than cold parents to use physical discipline. a. True b. False 8. In symbolic play children create settings, characters, and scripts. a. True b. False 9. Primary school children usually live in the same neighbourhood as their friends. a. True b. False 10. The best way to get children to act prosocially is to reward them for doing so. a. True b. False

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 11. Rejecting–neglecting parents are low in their demands for mature behaviour and in their attempts to control their children and low in support and responsiveness. a. True b. False 12. Conflict between siblings can enhance social competence. a. True b. False 13. By age 2, children show preferences for a few particular playmates. a. True b. False 14. Children who watch more violence on television tend to accept it less in real life. a. True b. False 15. First-born children tend to be more rebellious than later-born children. a. True b. False 16. Kohlberg’s theory of gender-role development has been supported by research. a. True b. False 17. Parenting that is “restrictive,” involving physical punishment, interference, or intrusiveness, can give rise to disobedience, rebelliousness, and lower levels of cognitive development. a. True b. False 18. According to Piaget, drawing a picture is an example of constructive play. a. True b. False 19. Children have a decline in the number of fears they experience after age 4. a. True b. False 20. Preschool children tend to view friends in terms of the toys and activities they share. a. True b. False 21. When a new sibling is born, older siblings may experience regression and also higher levels of independence. a. True b. False

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 22. Inductive parenting methods aim to teach knowledge that will enable children to generate desirable behaviour on their own. a. True b. False 23. Children learn to label the sexes as either "boy" or "girl" by age 2 to 21/2. a. True b. False 24. Younger children are more likely to have realistic fears than older children. a. True b. False 25. Permissive parents value obedience for its own sake. a. True b. False 26. Reasoning with a child is a power-assertive parenting technique. a. True b. False 27. Peers, parents, television, and other media influence the gender behaviour of males and females. a. True b. False 28. Hormones affect males and females differently beginning in late childhood. a. True b. False 29. According to gender schema theory, as soon as children understand the labels “girl” and “boy,” they seek information concerning gender-typed traits and try to live up to them. a. True b. False 30. Parenting that uses withdrawal of love to enforce restrictions may foster compliance but also instill guilt and anxiety. a. True b. False 31. A Canadian organization called The Canadian Toy Association publishes a “hot toy list” each year. a. True b. False 32. Spanking a child is an example of a power-assertive technique. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 33. Permissive parenting leads to children with little moral sense. a. True b. False 34. Aggression during childhood is rarely associated with aggression during adulthood. a. True b. False 35. Development of prosocial behaviour is linked to the development of empathy and perspective taking. a. True b. False 36. Preschoolers more readily comply when asked to do something than when asked to stop doing something. a. True b. False 37. Infants only cry in response to the crying of others because they feel bad about the others’ distress. a. True b. False 38. The best child outcomes are associated with authoritative parenting. a. True b. False 39. The two broad dimensions of child rearing are easy and difficult. a. True b. False 40. Sex hormones and other chemical substances stoke the prenatal differentiation of sex organs. a. True b. False 41. Saying you are honest is an example of the categorical self. a. True b. False 42. Gender constancy is the knowledge that one is male or female. a. True b. False 43. The children of neglectful parents are the least competent, least responsible, and least mature children. a. True b. False

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 44. Preschool children begin to make evaluative judgments about their cognitive and physical competence and their social acceptance of themselves by the age of 4. a. True b. False 45. Criminal and antisocial behaviour may be caused by genetic factors. a. True b. False 46. Evolutionary theory states that gender differences are a result of learning processes. a. True b. False 47. Gender stereotypes are usually true. a. True b. False 48. Parental beliefs and genetic factors affect parental warmth. a. True b. False 49. In most cultures, older brothers are expected to care for their younger siblings. a. True b. False 50. Social cognitive explanations of aggression focus on environmental factors such as reinforcement and observational learning. a. True b. False 51. Children with high self-esteem are more likely to have parents who are attentive to their needs. a. True b. False 52. Authoritarian parents are highly restrictive. a. True b. False 53. Children rarely learn to be aggressive from watching others. a. True b. False 54. Birth order is unrelated to school performance and personality characteristics. a. True b. False

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 55. Sex differences during infancy are consistently large. a. True b. False 56. Authoritarian parents are highly restrictive, but also respect their children and are warm toward them. a. True b. False 57. Parents of prosocial children are least likely to use power-assertive techniques. a. True b. False 58. Riding a tricycle is an example of functional play. a. True b. False 59. First-born children tend to be more aggressive than later-born children. a. True b. False 60. The children of parents who are cold and domineering are more likely to develop internal standards of conduct, a moral sense, or conscience. a. True b. False 61. Watching aggressive media causes aggressive behaviour in children. a. True b. False 62. Gender expression refers to acting in accordance with one’s biological gender. a. True b. False 63. Anger and aggression in preschoolers usually causes other preschoolers to reject them. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

64. Matt, who is 2 years old, reaches over and pulls his mother's hair. She responds by saying “Don't do that. It hurts.” What approach did Matt’s mother use? a. an inductive technique b. a power-assertive method c. restrictive parenting d. a withdrawal of love method

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 65. A boy engages in behaviour he believes is most appropriate for males. Which concept best explains this behaviour? a. gender typing b. gender-neutrality c. gender constancy d. gender-schema 66. What is a defining characteristic of permissive parents? a. They are less loving than other parents. b. They leave children to regulate themselves. c. They use more physical punishment than other parents. d. They are indifferent and uninvolved with their children.

67. Bridgette and Ben have created a game in which they race their bicycles through an obstacle course. What would Piaget call this type of play? a. symbolic play b. formal games c. functional play d. constructive play 68. What type of parenting uses consistent control and firm enforcement of rules, combined with strong support and affection? a. inductive parenting b. restrictive parenting c. authoritative parenting d. authoritarian parenting 69. Which behaviour distinguishes warm parents? a. They are less likely to use physical punishment. b. They are less likely to hug or kiss their children. c. They are less affectionate overall than other parents. d. They are more likely to blame the child for his or her actions.

70. Which statement best describes a positive outcome of permissive-indulgent parenting? a. The children tend to be high in self-confidence. b. The children are less likely than other children to engage in substance abuse. c. The children are better behaved and more likely to follow rules than other children. d. The children are more likely than other children to commit to goals and follow through.

71. What is the definition of gender stability? a. It is one's knowledge of being male or female. b. It recognizes that people retain their sex for a lifetime. c. It is the internalization of the roles and expectations of one's gender. d. It recognizes that gender does not change, even if one's appearance changes.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 72. Which statement best characterizes the relationship between parenting practices from one generation to the next? a. Some degree of imitation may exist. b. No degree of imitation has been determined. c. Despite research studies, no conclusive results exist. d. No research has been conducted on this topic.

73. Which parenting method provides children with knowledge that enables them to generate desirable behaviour patterns? a. the power method b. the inductive method c. the deductive method d. the love withdrawal method 74. What theory perceives aggression as a result of reinforcement and observational learning? a. evolutionary theory b. social cognitive theory c. Freudian psychoanalytic theory d. Piagetian cognitive-developmental theory 75. What do experts say about the impact of giving children electronic equipment during car rides? a. it limits discussion which is important for support within families b. it strengthens neural pathways important for learning c. it strengthens relationships with siblings who are also engaged in the activity d. it leads to increased vocabulary and communication skills 76. Which statement best explains why children often prefer playmates of their own sex? a. They probably share similar interests. b. This is a fallacy; children play with friends of all ages. c. The television shows they watch determine their preference. d. Biology determines their preferences.

77. How would a parenting expert respond to the statement that "parents who are strict and demand mature behaviour wind up with rebellious children"? a. This statement is true. b. This statement is not true. c. This statement is true for girls, but not for boys. d. This statement is true, especially regarding children younger than five.

78. Which statement best defines cisgender? a. One’s occupation matches stereotyped gender roles. b. Emotional reactions are linked to hormonal fluctuations. c. One’s gender identity matches the gender assigned at birth. d. Brain structures exist which are particular to one sex.

79. Which of the following is one of the two dimensions of child-rearing patterns? a. sensitivity–aloofness b. friendship–guardianship c. hands-on unrestrictedness d. restrictiveness–permissiveness Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 80. What type of parents most likely raised a child who is restrained, irritable, and anxious in social interactions? a. authoritative parents b. a permissive mother and an authoritative father c. authoritarian parents d. permissive father and authoritative mother 81. Which word best describes power-assertive parents? a. indulgent b. permissive c. authoritative d. authoritarian 82. What does Kohlberg’s gender constancy concept refer to? a. the notion that most individuals develop a clear sense of identity before adolescence b. the order of development put forward by Kohlberg c. the timing of development put forward by Kohlberg d. the recognition that gender does not change even if one changes clothing or behaviour 83. What is the relationship between genetics and aggression? a. Aggression is linked to chromosome 21. b. Aggression is linked to blood type and environment. c. Aggression may be passed on through testosterone. d. There is no evidence that genetics is linked to aggression.

84. Which situation will most likely lead to greater conflict between siblings? a. The parents show favouritism. b. Greater harmony exists between the parents. c. The siblings have "easy" temperaments. d. Cognitive differences are significant.

85. Which statement best describes the experience of childhood fears? a. Fears of young children often involve stories and images they are told or see in the media. b. Fears become more unrealistic with age. c. Fears increase in number throughout childhood. d. Children report fewer fears about school performance and social anxiety as they get older.

86. What is the relationship between evolutionary theory and gender differences? a. Evolutionary theory shows that gender differences are insignificant. b. Evolutionary theory has no support from research on gender differences. c. Evolutionary theory suggests that gender differences are a result of natural selection. d. Evolutionary theory supports the notion that males and females learn by observing others.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 87. What is the significance of wearing an orange shirt on September 30th? a. It is to bring attention to gender role socialization. b. It is to raise awareness for childhood poverty. c. It is to commemorate children who attended residential schools. d. It is to remember children killed during World Wars.

88. Which phrase is a power-assertive parent most likely to say? a. "Kids will be kids." b. "A little goes a long way." c. "Defiance is normal." d. "Spare the rod, spoil the child."

89. What is the ideal type of “restrictiveness” to be used in healthy parent–child relationships? a. limitations around friend choices and activities b. physical punishment where needed c. constant monitoring d. consistency and firmness where rules are concerned 90. Which statement best represents the current thinking on whether parents should restrict their children's behaviour? a. Parents should restrict their children’s behaviour as much as possible. b. The extent of restrictions depends on the child's temperament. c. The extent of the restrictions depends on how "restrictiveness" is defined. d. Parent should avoid restrictions, which can hamper their child’s development.

91. By what age will most children show preferences for a small group of playmates? a. by age 6 months b. by age 1 year c. by age 18 months d. by age 2 years 92. Which qualities are enhanced through prosocial behaviour? a. cognition and comprehension b. empathy and perspective taking c. sociability and ambition d. independence and confidence 93. Mary has begun her first step in gender typing. What has she attained? a. her gender expression b. her gender identity c. her gender stability d. her gender constancy 94. What type of child is most likely to demonstrate prosocial behaviour? a. a child whose parents explain how her behaviour affects others b. a child who is insecurely attached to her parents c. a child whose parents use power-assertive techniques of discipline d. a child who did not have the opportunity to experience non-interactive play

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 95. Which statement best describes first-born children? a. They are less cooperative. b. They tend to have lower academic achievement. c. They are more aggressive. d. They are highly motivated to achieve 96. What is the relationship between media violence and aggression? a. Media violence decreases levels of arousal. b. Media violence may disinhibit aggressive behaviour. c. A relationship has been found for boys, but not for girls. d. Children who see more media violence are less likely to use violence themselves.

97. Ben says, “I am a boy.” What term refers to Ben’s concept of himself? a. the social self b. the prosocial self c. the categorical self d. the cognitive competent self 98. Which of the following is associated with the parental technique of power assertion? a. lower acceptance by peers b. higher numbers of close friends c. effective interpersonal skills d. increased ability to self-regulate 99. Which statement best describes the role that sibling conflict plays in child development? a. It impacts academic achievement. b. It reinforces aggressive responses. c. It diminishes confidence. d. It can enhance self-identity and social competence.

100. The preschool period is marked by a change in fears from infancy. What fear continues into young childhood? a. the fear of loud noises b. the fear of falling c. the fear of darkness d. the fear of strangers 101. Which statement best describes the focus of gender-neutral parenting? a. It encourages gender activities aimed at exposing children to masculinity and femininity. b. It encourages androgyny in children through toy selection and pronoun use. c. It allows children freedom to explore their own comfort on the gender spectrum. d. It uses toy-based play that is gender-based.

102. When Elizabeth, a preschooler, is asked what she likes about their friends, what is she most likely to say? a. Her friends are girls, too. b. Her parents are friends, too. c. Her friends like to do the same things and play with the same toys. d. Her brothers and sisters are friends, too.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 103. What is the relationship between gender and the capacity for empathy? a. Boys are less empathetic than girls early on, but more empathetic in later childhood. b. Boys are more empathetic than girls early on, but less empathetic in later childhood. c. Girls are more empathetic than boys. d. Boys are more empathetic than girls.

104. Which statement best represents Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental view of gender typing? a. Gender is "stamped" into the wiring of the brain and how it processes information. b. Children play an active role in their own gender typing by forming concepts of gender and then fitting their behaviour to those concepts. c. Parents and other caregivers are the sole determining force in the gender typing of children. d. Daughters of employed mothers are more likely to become traditionally gender-typed than daughters with stay-at-home mothers.

105. What is the effect of age on the development of aggression in children? a. Aggression tends to diminish with age. b. Aggression and age have no correlation. c. Aggression tends to increase with age, regardless of gender. d. Aggressive younger children tend to become aggressive older children.

106. Which statement best describes children who are of preschool age? a. They have no self-concept. b. They tend to have poor self-esteem. c. They focus on their social competence. d. They can identify their categorical characteristics.

107. Which statement best describes the stability of children’s early friendships? a. Friendships are not stable before 3 years of age. b. Even 2-year-olds have shown stable friendships. c. The stability generally does not last longer than 6 months. d. Children are too young to form attachment bonds that last.

108. Which of the following statements best represents gender typing in children? a. Siblings seem to play little or no role in gender typing. b. Girls are more likely to become gender-typed than boys. c. Primary schoolchildren show less gender-typing when their mothers perform more traditionally masculine tasks. d. Daughters of employed mothers are more likely to become traditionally gender-typed than daughters with stay-at-home mothers.

109. Which term is synonymous with prosocial behaviour? a. altruism b. empathy c. sympathy d. non-centrism

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 110. Bobby watches a lot of televised violence. How does his television viewing affect the likelihood of his helping a victim of violence? a. He is less likely to take action. b. He is more likely to intervene. c. He is likely to have an increased awareness of the violence. d. The arousal he feels will decrease, causing him to be more likely to be calm and to know what to do.

111. Which statement best describes the relationship that many aggressive children have with their peers? a. Children with aggressive friends tend to be more altruistic. b. Good friends are most likely to challenge the aggressive behaviour of peers. c. Aggressors who are rewarded by peers for acting aggressively will continue the behaviours. d. Children with aggressive peers are better able to predict the intentions of others.

112. Which of the following are you most likely to hear from an authoritarian parent? a. “Because I said so.” b. "Children have opinions too." c. "Children can be reasoned with." d. "Children should be involved in their own rearing."

113. Which of the following is an example of an inductive technique? a. punishing a child for doing something wrong b. telling a child that what she is doing is wrong c. withdrawing love if the child does not do what is right d. explaining to a child why she should not do something 114. What is an example of regression when another sibling is born? a. The older sibling wants to help mommy take care of the new baby. b. The older sibling has toilet accidents, even after having been potty trained. c. The younger sibling attempts to imitate the older sibling. d. The older sibling refuses to cooperate with the parents.

115. Which statement characterizes aggression in preschoolers? a. It is virtually non-existent. b. It is usually person-oriented. c. It is usually possession-oriented. d. It is usually used just to get attention.

116. What is the best explanation for why boys and girls might show gender-stereotyped preferences for toys and activities? a. The source is biological; a child’s DNA directs toy and activity preferences. b. Their parents may encourage preferences through their toy purchases and their actions. c. They watch television shows that portray gender-neutral models. d. Their parents use an authoritarian approach to play.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 117. Which statement best describes older siblings’ behaviour toward younger siblings? a. They are fearful of their younger siblings. b. They allow younger siblings to dominate. c. They show little interest in their younger siblings. d. They are often role models for younger siblings.

118. Which of the following is an example of one's categorical self? a. girl b. pretty c. honesty d. friendly 119. According to The Canadian Toy Association’s 2016 holiday season “hot toy list,” arts and crafts remain on top.

What type of play do these toys support? a. constructive play b. formal games c. symbolic play d. functional play 120. Which statement best describes permissive-indulgent parents? a. They are high in nurturance. b. They place high demands on their children. c. They establish clear rules for behaviour. d. They establish clear rules but do not enforce them.

121. Which statement best describes the impact of the birth of a sibling on the existing children in the family? a. It usually has little impact on the other children. b. It has mostly positive impacts on the other children. c. It has both positive and negative impacts on the other children. d. There is little impact, unless the family already has more than one sibling.

122. What is the typical experience for the older sibling when a new sibling is born? a. The older sibling is rarely resentful. b. The older sibling will have a negative experience. c. The older sibling tends to receive more attention from the parents. d. The older sibling may experience both positive and negative emotions.

123. Martha likes to push her ball, watch it roll, and then make it roll again. What type of play is Martha demonstrating? a. formal games b. symbolic play c. functional play d. constructive play 124. According to Piaget, in which stage of play do children create settings, characters, and scripts? a. formal games b. symbolic play c. functional play d. constructive play

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 125. Which statement best describes gender differences? a. Other than anatomical differences, gender differences are small. b. Men and women are solely differentiated by their brain structures. c. Gender is shaped by biology and socialization. d. Gender differences are merely fabrications supported by mainstream media.

126. Which statement best explains why some researchers suggest that divorce has a particularly negative impact on 4–10-year-old children? a. Their relationships with parents are not fully developed. b. Their interactions with parents are usually based on having needs met. c. Their language skills have not fully developed. d. Young children have difficulty regulating emotions which can contribute to distress.

127. When are parents most likely to use power-assertive techniques? a. when children are being aggressive b. when children are unsure how to act appropriately c. when children don't understand what rule they have violated d. when children are not sharing with peers 128. What conclusions have been reached about the long-term impact of parental separation on young children? a. Any impacts are not evident until the child reaches adolescence. b. There is no indication that young children have any lasting issues. c. Most children become aggressive into adulthood. d. The research results are mixed in terms of long-term impact.

129. Mary and John practice an authoritative parenting style. Which statement would you most likely hear them say? a. "Children need physical punishment." b. "Children should not have opinions." c. "Children can be reasoned with." d. "Children can be irrational to deal with."

130. Alyssa’s son, Daniel, is unable to take someone else's perspective. Which statement best describes Daniel? a. He is egocentric. b. He is probably well connected with his peers. c. He sees the world from a variety of perspectives. d. He is aware of when others need help.

131. Which statement best describes parenting styles? a. They are easy. b. They are difficult. c. They are a one-way street. d. They are a two-way street.

132. Which statement best describes playmate preferences in early childhood? a. Same sex playmates are preferred. b. Older playmates are preferred. c. Younger playmates provide more enriching experiences. d. Preference is given to whomever is immediately available.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 133. Alice sets clear limits for her son, and she has tried to explain her reasons for those limits. Alice also sets goals for her son and encourages him to achieve these goals. According to Baumrind, what term describes Alice’s parenting style? a. authoritarian b. permissive c. authoritative d. uninvolved 134. Which parents are most likely to raise a child who develops in a socially and emotionally healthy manner? a. permissive parents b. restrictive parents c. warm parents d. controlling parents 135. Which of the following provides the best opportunity for interaction and development of the imagination? a. a game on a tablet b. a car with flashing lights and sirens c. play dough d. a talking doll 136. Which of the following represents the best way to get preschoolers to stop doing something? a. Punish them. b. Reward them. c. Involve them in doing something else. d. Warn them that you will punish them if they continue.

137. What term describes unresponsive parents who place low demands on their children for mature behaviour? a. authoritarian b. authoritative c. rejecting–neglecting d. permissive–indulgent 138. How is a 3-year-old most likely to evaluate her self-esteem? a. “I have a lot of friends, but I am not a good runner.” b. “I have a lot of friends who like to play with me.” c. “I have a fun personality so I do everything good.” d. “I do a lot of fun things.”

139. You and your niece watch children playing in the park. Your niece asks you whether play serves a function.

How are you most likely to respond? a. Play serves many functions. b. Play has no function; it is just a simple pleasure of childhood. c. Play has no function because not all children in all cultures demonstrate play. d. Play has no function until the age of 3, when the child can learn from it cognitively.

140. At what age do children have the greatest number of fears? a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 7 141. The Smith children play board games every Friday night. What type of play are they demonstrating? a. constructive play b. functional play c. formal games d. symbolic play

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 142. What term refers to pretend play, imaginative play, or dramatic play? a. constructive play b. functional play c. formal games d. symbolic play 143. What is the main principle of the gender-schema theory? a. Gender identity, stability, and constancy occur in a predictable order. b. It proposes a concept called "conservation of gender." c. Gender-based preferences and behaviours impact how children organize their world. d. It recognizes that children retain their gender for a lifetime.

144. Which statement best describes children’s gender-role stereotyping? a. Children become more traditional in their gender-role stereotyping of activities. b. Gender-role stereotyping does not typically begin until approximately age 6. c. Gender-role stereotyping is more common among girls than boys. d. Gender-role stereotyping happens less frequently than the media portrays.

145. According to genetics-based theories of aggression, genes may contribute to aggression through which sex hormones? a. the male sex hormone testosterone b. the male sex hormone progesterone c. the female sex hormone estrogen d. both the male sex hormones of testosterone and progesterone 146. What distinguishes children’s fears during preschool years from their fears during early infancy? a. They are mostly related to people. b. They are more realistic. c. They are more imaginary. d. They are less linked to anxiety.

147. Five-year-old Raymond grabbed the cake from grandmother’s plate and accidentally kicked his grandfather in the shin. His mother commented, “Isn’t he cute? He is a good problem solver and rather assertive.” What type of parent is Raymond’s mother? a. an authoritarian parent b. a permissive parent c. an authoritative parent d. an uninvolved parent 148. Which of the following is impacted by excessive screen time? a. ability to act creatively b. time spent learning vocabulary c. ability to recognize emotions d. ability to communicate 149. Caroline is considered to be a self-reliant child. What type of parents is she most likely to have? a. indulgent parents b. permissive parents c. authoritarian parents d. authoritative parents 150. What is the most appropriate method of regulating a preschooler's behaviour? a. using physical punishment b. giving the child a direct request c. threatening to withdraw your love d. withdrawing the child's privileges

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 151. Josh’s daughter, Candace, is sensitive to the feelings of others. What type of child is Candace? a. a prosocial child b. an altruistic child c. an empathetic child d. a sympathetic child 152. What is the conclusion of studies on aggressiveness in children? a. Aggressiveness tends to decrease across time. b. Aggressive tendencies tend to be stable over time. c. Girls tend to be more physically aggressive than boys across time. d. Non-aggressive children tend to become aggressive as they get older.

153. A day-care worker asks an expert about the appropriateness of teaching prosocial behaviours to children aged 3 and older. How would the expert most likely respond? a. These children can be taught prosocial behaviours. b. Girls can usually be taught prosocial behaviours, but boys usually cannot. c. These children are not yet cognitively prepared for the thinking required by prosocial behaviours. d. Prosocial behaviours are triggered by maturational processes so they cannot be taught to young children.

154. Which of the following best describes what preschoolers like about their friends? a. how the friends make them feel b. emotional connections c. toys and shared activities d. shared stories 155. What is the role of dramatic play? a. It contributes to social development. b. It is an outlet for uncontrolled impulses. c. It contributes to cognitive development, but no other type of development. d. It is a sign that a child needs more social interactions with peers.

156. How much time per day does the average child under the age of 6 years spend in front of a screen? a. none b. 30 minutes c. 2 hours d. 6 hours 157. A child who begins to cling to parents and cry after the birth of a new sibling is likely experiencing which of the following? a. inner conflict b. normal developmental milestones c. anger d. regression 158. Which statement best reflects the concept of habituation? a. Viewing violence increases arousal. b. Punishment inhibits aggressive behaviour. c. Viewing violence primes aggressive behaviour. d. The more exposed we are to a stimulus, the less sensitive we become to it.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 159. Why might later-born children be more popular with their peers? a. They learn social skills by dealing with their older siblings. b. Their peers feel sorry for them. c. Their parents force them to interact with other children. d. They are ignored by their own siblings and require outside relationships.

160. Which of the following does research evidence suggest about aggression? a. Aggression has no biological influences. b. Children may learn to be aggressive by watching others. c. Aggression directed at another person does not exist until a child is approximately 10 years old. d. No relationship exists between aggressive behaviour and violent television.

161. Which statement best describes children raised by warm parents? a. They develop a sense of conscience. b. They are perceived as being naughty. c. They act aggressively with other children. d. They have been given no guidelines and so they lack self-control.

162. What condition is known as cisgender? a. when one’s gender is consistent with one’s biological sex b. when one acts in a manner opposite to one’s identified gender c. being confused over one's gender identity d. being high on masculine personality dimensions 163. Which of the following is thought to explain sex differences? a. behavioural interactions with parents at birth b. preconception hormonal makeup of parents c. prenatal androgen exposure d. prenatal exposure to external sources of hormones a. displays stereotypical gender roles b. a brother or a sister c. associated with authoritarian parenting d. children create settings, characters, and scripts e. more sociable than their siblings f. gender identity g. perform better academically than siblings h. games with rules include board games i. associated with permissive-indulgent parenting j. often serves as a source of support k. consistent rules and concern for a child's feelings l. use objects or materials to draw something or make something Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce m. male and female behaviours result from natural selection n. a child raised by a couple who wanted to fight conformity to gender stereotypes o. dimension of parenting p. decreased sensitivity after repeated exposure q. altruism r. one's awareness of being male or female s. associated with authoritative parenting t. "because I told you to do it, that's why" 164. Authoritative style 165. Constructive play 166. Gender-typed 167. First-born children 168. Habituation 169. Gender identity 170. Restrictiveness-permissiveness 171. Prosocial behaviour 172. Immaturity 173. Formal games 174. High self-esteem 175. Symbolic play 176. Later-born children 177. Authoritarian 178. Peer 179. High hostility 180. Sibling 181. Baby Storm 182. Knowing one is male or female 183. Evolutionary theory 184. Describe the kinds of play identified by Jean Piaget.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 185. How do young children first view themselves? How are self-views related to childhood fears?

186. What are the two dimensions of child rearing? How are they combined in the four parenting styles?

187. How are later-born children different from first-born children?

188. How do the social cognitive and evolutionary theories differ in how they explain gender-role development?

189. Does viewing aggressive media cause aggression? Why is it difficult to answer this question definitively?

190. Describe the differences between authoritative and authoritarian parenting. Be sure to include some of what is known about the outcomes of each form of parenting.

191. How do power-assertive techniques differ from other types of parenting behaviours aimed at restricting children’s behaviour?

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 192. Discuss what is known about the development of gender typing.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. False 26. False

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 27. True 28. False 29. True 30. True 31. True 32. True 33. False 34. False 35. True 36. True 37. False 38. True 39. False 40. True 41. False 42. False 43. True 44. True 45. True 46. False 47. False 48. True 49. False 50. True 51. True 52. True 53. False 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 55. False 56. False 57. True 58. True 59. False 60. False 61. False 62. False 63. True 64. a 65. d 66. b 67. b 68. c 69. a 70. a 71. b 72. a 73. b 74. b 75. a 76. a 77. b 78. c 79. d 80. c 81. d 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 83. c 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. c 88. d 89. d 90. c 91. d 92. b 93. b 94. a 95. d 96. b 97. c 98. a 99. d 100. c 101. c 102. c 103. c 104. b 105. d 106. d 107. b 108. c 109. a 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 111. c 112. a 113. d 114. b 115. c 116. b 117. d 118. a 119. a 120. a 121. c 122. d 123. c 124. b 125. c 126. d 127. a 128. d 129. c 130. a 131. d 132. a 133. c 134. c 135. c 136. c 137. c

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 138. b 139. a 140. b 141. c 142. d 143. c 144. a 145. a 146. b 147. b 148. c 149. d 150. b 151. c 152. b 153. a 154. c 155. a 156. b 157. d 158. d 159. a 160. b 161. a 162. a 163. c 164. k 165. l Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 166. a 167. g 168. p 169. r 170. o 171. q 172. i 173. h 174. s 175. d 176. e 177. t 178. j 179. c 180. b 181. n 182. f 183. m 184. a) Functional play. Beginning in the sensorimotor stage, the first kind of play involves repetitive motor activity, such as rolling a ball or running and laughing. b) Symbolic play. Also called pretend play, imaginative play, or dramatic play, symbolic play emerges toward the end of the sensorimotor stage and increases during early childhood. In symbolic play, children create settings, characters, and scripts c) Constructive play. Children use objects or materials to draw something or make something, such as a tower of blocks. d) Formal games. Games with rules include board games, which are sometimes enhanced or invented by children, and games involving motor skills, such as marbles and hopscotch, ball games involving sides or teams, and video games. Such games may involve social interaction as well as physical activity and rules. People play such games for a lifetime.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 185. Young children develop an awareness of self almost as soon as they can speak. Initially, children describe themselves in categorical terms. In other words, they describe categories that they belong to, such as "boy" or "child." During the early years of self-development, children also begin to develop a sense of self-worth. Typically, these feelings centre on cognitive and physical competence and on social acceptance by peers and family. As children get older, aspects of their personality (traits) become more important to them. For example, they may describe themselves as "honest" or "caring." An awareness of self precipitates some fears. The more aware children are of themselves in relation to a larger world, the more they have to fear about the world. Erikson described the period of early childhood social development as one of "initiative versus guilt." As children further define their notion of self, they move increasingly into the world and take initiative in learning how to do new things.

186. The two broad dimensions of child rearing are warmth–coldness and restrictiveness–permissiveness. Parents who are high in warmth and restrictiveness are considered authoritative. Parents who are high in warmth, but low in restrictiveness are known as permissive–indulgent. Parents low in warmth, but high in restrictiveness are authoritarian. Parents who are low in warmth and restrictiveness are considered rejecting–neglecting.

187. Later-born children may sometimes act more aggressively to compete for the attention of their parents. Later-born children also need to reconcile the fact that they did not come first. As a result, the self-concepts of later-born children tend to be lower than those of first-born children. However, the social skills they acquire from dealing with their family position translate into personality characteristics such as being more rebellious, more liberal, and more agreeable, all of which can make them popular with their peers.

188. Social cognitive theory explains gender-role development as a result of reinforcement, punishment, and observational learning. Children may receive positive reactions to traditional gender behaviours, such as girls playing with dolls receiving praise. Children who cross gender traditions, on the other hand, may experience ridicule and hostility from parents and peers. Children also learn to behave in gender-traditional or non-traditional from watching their parents, as evidenced by the fact that children of working mothers tend to have more flexible senses of gender-appropriate behaviour. Television and other media also provide models for children’s learning of gender roles.

Evolutionary theory explains gender-role development as a result of biological factors, stemming from natural selection. Thus, males may place more value on physical appearance of a potential mate, which has been associated with increased fertility and parental fitness. Females, on the other hand, may place more value on the ability of the male to provide sufficient material goods for support of a family.

189. Causal relationships are difficult to assess between variables such as violent television viewing and aggressive behaviour because most research is correlational, not causal. It is difficult to know whether children who watch violent television or play violent video games are just more aggressive to begin with and are thus attracted to such media. On the other hand, experiments that have shown violent television or a model acting aggressively toward an object have shown increased aggressive behaviour in randomly assigned children.

190. Authoritarian parents place strict rules on children and tend to believe in the "spare the rod, spoil the child" approach to parenting. To these parents, obedience is a virtue in its own right. Authoritative parents transmit their expectations clearly, but also take the child's viewpoint into account. Authoritarian parents expect their children to obey them without question. Children of authoritarian parents tend to be hostile and have lower self-esteem than children of authoritative parents. Children of authoritative parents are more self-reliant, have higher self-esteem, and are more independent than children of authoritarian parents.

191. Power-assertive techniques involve the assertion of control over a child rather than an inductive process that supports the internalizing of moral behaviour and fosters prosocial behaviour. Power-assertive techniques tend not to show respect for the child’s needs. Power-assertive techniques tend to work less well than inductive techniques in fostering positive behaviours from a child.

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Chap_08_HDEV_4ce 192. Gender-typing starts with gender identity, which is the basic awareness that one is either female or male. At first, this awareness has little meaning to children other than to function as a label. Quickly, however, the child receives messages about what is expected from girls and boys (gender stereotypes). Parents, media, and other children all communicate gender roles to children such as saying that "girls play with dolls" and "boys play with trucks." Some evidence supports that males and females use their brains differently, which may account for some gender differences. Kohlberg suggested that gender typing (the internalization of gender stereotypes) involves three emerging concepts. In addition to gender identity, he noted gender stability (the recognition that one has the same gender for a lifetime), and gender constancy (the understanding that changes in appearance, such as a woman cutting her hair short, do not change one's gender).

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Metacognition is another name for metamemory. a. True b. False 2. Most children outgrow their baby fat during middle childhood. a. True b. False 3. Some people are born with better motor skills than others. a. True b. False 4. Selective attention develops during adolescence. a. True b. False 5. IQ scores are based on one’s chronological age and one’s mental age. a. True b. False 6. Sternberg’s theory includes analytical, kinesthetic, and practical intelligence. a. True b. False 7. Intelligence has finally been clearly defined and accurate testing has been developed. a. True b. False 8. Boys are more likely than girls to be diagnosed with ADHD. a. True b. False 9. The Learning Disabilities Association of Canada argues that 3 out of 10 children have some form of learning disability. a. True b. False 10. Concrete operational thinking is characterized by decentration, flexibility, and reversibility. a. True b. False

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 11. According to Kohlberg, in the conventional level of moral reasoning, children base moral judgments on the consequences of behaviour. a. True b. False 12. Knowing that if A exceeds B in some property (say, age or height) and if B exceeds C, then A must also exceed C is an example of transitivity. a. True b. False 13. IQ scores are impacted by genetics. a. True b. False 14. Preschoolers are most likely to use postconventional reasoning for moral behaviour. a. True b. False 15. Decentration is required for proper conservation in the concrete operational period of development. a. True b. False 16. Intelligence becomes stable when one reaches adolescence. a. True b. False 17. Right and wrong are judged by conforming to social conventions in the conventional level of moral development. a. True b. False 18. Catching a ball requires the use of fine motor skills. a. True b. False 19. No racial or ethnic differences in IQ scores are evident in Canada today. a. True b. False 20. The relationship between creativity and IQ scores is moderate. a. True b. False 21. Culture-free tests of intelligence have solved the problem associated with intelligence tests. a. True b. False

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 22. Mental age and chronological age are interchangeable terms. a. True b. False 23. The angular gyrus translates visual information into patterns the brain can use. a. True b. False 24. Children in the middle years have less trouble understanding passive sentences than preschoolers. a. True b. False 25. Children with ADHD have enhanced social skills. a. True b. False 26. The nature of the environment a child grows up in can impact intelligence. a. True b. False 27. Growth during middle childhood is quite abrupt and unpredictable. a. True b. False 28. Preschoolers need more calories to sustain their activity level than school-aged children. a. True b. False 29. The phonetic method is superior to the word-recognition method for learning to read. a. True b. False 30. Being able to focus on irrelevant and relevant information in a task is an example of selective attention. a. True b. False 31. Intelligence is considered one’s underlying ability, whereas achievement is one’s performance. a. True b. False 32. Sensory memory last 30 seconds on average. a. True b. False

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 33. The development of selective attention is a key element in children’s information processing. a. True b. False 34. The average IQ score for Canadian children is 110.34. a. True b. False 35. Many psychologists believe that heredity and environment interact to influence intelligence. a. True b. False 36. Medical stimulants, such as Dexedrin, can help reduce symptoms of hyperactivity. a. True b. False 37. Auditory sensory memory lasts longer than visual sensory memory. a. True b. False 38. Hopping, skipping, and jumping are examples of fine motor skills. a. True b. False 39. One strategy for promoting memory is to encode visual stimuli as sounds. a. True b. False 40. Reading is a simple process for children to accomplish. a. True b. False 41. The Wechsler scales of intelligence measure primarily mathematical reasoning. a. True b. False 42. Most learning disabilities are outgrown after adolescence. a. True b. False 43. IQ scores are only useful for determining which children belong in gifted classes. a. True b. False

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 44. Approximately 15% of children in Canada are obese. a. True b. False 45. The postconventional level of moral reasoning is based on the person’s own moral standards. a. True b. False 46. Every child with ADHD has the same level of hyperactivity. a. True b. False 47. College students with dyslexia may be excellent at word recognition, yet have trouble decoding new words. a. True b. False 48. Food colourings and preservatives are responsible for the epidemic of ADHD. a. True b. False 49. Reaction time tends to increase through middle childhood and adolescence. a. True b. False 50. Reaction time decreases during middle childhood. a. True b. False 51. Categorizing information in long-term memory assists in recall of that information. a. True b. False 52. The three types of intelligence identified in Sternberg’s triarchic theory are analytical, creative, and practical. a. True b. False 53. The Heinz dilemma is used to measure preoperational thinking. a. True b. False 54. Research has shown that long-term memory has no known time limit or capacity. a. True b. False

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 55. In the preconventional level of Kohlberg’s theory of moral development, children are concerned about avoiding punishment. a. True b. False 56. Children reared in bilingual homes are generally retarded in their cognitive development. a. True b. False 57. Being able to get around one’s environment and use a map are examples of spatial intelligence. a. True b. False 58. Indigenous languages help Indigenous youth to connect with and understand their culture. a. True b. False 59. Heredity plays a role in obesity in children. a. True b. False 60. According to Gardner, one could show high intelligence in one area and NOT in any others. a. True b. False 61. According to Piaget, it is the role of teachers to find materials that will interest children and to provide active learning opportunities for their students. a. True b. False 62. Some causes of intellectual challenge are biological, stemming from chromosomal abnormalities, such as Down syndrome. a. True b. False 63. If a child thinks that there are more flowers than tulips in a picture of 5 tulips and 3 pansies, this child is demonstrating conservation of number. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

64. Which of the following is demonstrated when a student with dyslexia is allowed extra time to take an exam because of the amount of reading involved? a. scaffolding b. remediation c. accommodation d. unfairness to the other students

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 65. Why are certain disabilities, such as ADHD, often identified when children are in their middle childhood years? a. When children enter school, they are required to sit still and pay attention. b. Childhood disabilities, such as ADHD, cannot be diagnosed until middle childhood. c. ADHD does not occur in children until middle childhood. d. ADHD may have a genetic component.

66. According to research, who is likely to react the fastest when catching a ball? a. Johan, who is 5 years old b. Marie, who is 10 years old c. Timothy, who is 18 years old d. Sophie, who is 35 years old 67. Which teaching technique would Piaget most likely support? a. lecturing b. one-on-one instruction c. active learning activities d. independent reading 68. What is the definition of class inclusion? a. the ability to reverse one's thinking b. the ability to think about objects that are not currently present c. the ability to focus on subclasses and a larger class at the same time d. the ability to place items in a sequence on the basis of one characteristic 69. Carl has survived on the street because he has been able to adapt to the demands of street life. What type of intelligence is Carl most likely high in? a. He is high in creative intelligence. b. He is high in practical intelligence. c. He is high in analytical intelligence. d. He is high in associative intelligence.

70. After completing numerous tests, Janice is diagnosed as having dyslexia. What treatment option will most likely be suggested? a. medication b. remediation c. accommodation d. cognitive-behavioural therapy 71. What action is recommended as a means of addressing the negative impact of a sedentary lifestyle in childhood? a. Move into a rural setting. b. Increase the number of household chores children perform. c. Place tracking devices on children’s cell phones. d. Remove screens from children’s bedrooms.

72. Jimmy looks at his homework and decides he should do his math homework first because it takes him the longest. From this information, what can we tell about Jimmy? a. He is poor at math. b. He is using metacognition. c. He is using a recognition strategy. d. He probably does better on verbal tests.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 73. Which of the following children is in the concrete operational stage? a. a child whose thought processes are rigid b. a child who is self-centred and narcissistic c. a child who can focus on more than one dimension of a problem d. a child who cannot understand different points of view 74. Emma’s father has dyslexia. What is the likelihood that Emma will also be diagnosed as having dyslexia? a. less than 10% b. 11 to 24% c. 25 to 65% d. more than 65% 75. Which children are most likely to participate in team sports? a. children who have been exposed to sports on television b. girls c. those who live in the country d. those in higher-income households 76. What percentage of Canadians have a first language that is not English or French? a. 12 b. 23 c. 36 d. 50 77. You would like to buy your nephew a bicycle. At what age will he be capable enough at balancing to ride it? a. 3 or 4 years b. 4 or 5 years c. 6 or 7 years d. 8 or 9 years 78. How do IQ scores at age 11 correlate with IQ scores at age 77? a. The research is inconclusive. b. The scores depend on ongoing environmental factors. c. They are highly positively correlated. d. They are moderately positively related.

79. Which of the following was an outcome of the Roots of Empathy program? a. a decrease in prosocial behavior including sharing, helping, and including b. an increase in social and emotional knowledge c. an increase in aggressive behaviour d. more children transitioning from level 3 to 4 of Kohlberg’s levels of moral development 80. Taylor has been diagnosed with dyslexia. What is the likelihood that Taylor’s siblings will also have dyslexia? a. 25% b. 30% c. 35% d. 40%

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 81. According to the textbook, which statement best describes the incidence of ADHD? a. It is underdiagnosed. b. It is overdiagnosed and overmedicated. c. It is found more often in girls than in boys. d. It is evident by age 7, but symptoms of ADHD disappear over time.

82. Janet wonders whether her overweight twins, Michael and Michelle, will ever outgrow their baby fat. What is her doctor most likely to tell her? a. They are likely to outgrow their baby fat. b. They are unlikely to outgrow their baby fat. c. Only male children will outgrow their baby fat. d. Only children of European descent will outgrow their baby fat.

83. Taylor has dyslexia. Which of the following does Taylor have the most difficulty with? a. speaking "t" and "e" sounds b. speaking "t" and "z" sounds c. reading the letters "b" and "d" d. reading the letters "m" and "n" 84. According to Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory, which of the following is involved in children’s learning? a. active discovery b. receiving information passively c. learning information that is imposed by teachers d. learning information that is beyond their developmental level 85. Which of the following is a characteristic of the information in long-term memory? a. It is semantic in nature. b. It is encoded acoustically. c. It may be retained for a lifetime. d. It is encoded in visual forms only.

86. Which statement best characterizes concrete-operational children? a. They are more egocentric than preoperational children. b. They have gained the ability to think in a linear fashion. c. They can focus on only one cognitive dimension at a time. d. They can work with multiple cognitive dimensions at the same time.

87. According to the textbook, how can Piaget's ideas on concrete operations be applied in the classroom? a. by providing teachers with ideas to stimulate cognitive development b. by helping teachers to understand that cognitive development coincides with age c. by showing teachers that only time is needed for children to develop cognitive skills d. by demonstrating that group discussions are a difficult teaching strategy to use in the classroom

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 88. According to Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory, children progress through the stages of moral development at different rates. Which of the following statements describes children’s progress through the stages? a. Most children tend to remain in stage 2. b. All children eventually reach the highest stage. c. Not all children (or adults) reach the highest stage. d. Children vary in the sequence in which they progress through each stage.

89. Josh is struggling at school. He is tested and results indicate he has an average IQ, yet he struggles with reading. What is the likely conclusion? a. He has poor self-esteem. b. He has high anxiety. c. He has a learning disability. d. He has ADHD. 90. What is most likely the cause of dyslexia? a. a genetic component b. damage to chromosome 7 c. exposure to an environmental toxin d. a lack of oxygen during the birthing process 91. What is the growth trend of boys and girls during middle childhood? a. Girls outgrow boys. b. Boys outgrow girls. c. Girls and boys have virtually no growth. d. Girls and boys grow approximately 5 cm in height per year.

92. Which of the following best characterizes giftedness? a. It is the same as creativity. b. It is identified using an IQ test. c. It may include motor or cognitive abilities. d. It describes a child who is superior in two or more areas of achievement.

93. Eighteen-year-old Mary heard that a classmate, Kelly, took money from the teacher’s desk so she could participate in the special school lunch. Mary also heard that Kelly’s parents have been out of work for almost a year and were recently evicted from their home. Mary has strong beliefs about stealing, but finds she is conflicted about Kelly’s stealing. According to Kohlberg, what is Mary’s stage of moral development? a. Stage 1 or 2 b. Stage 2 or 3 c. Stage 3 or 4 d. Stage 5or 6 94. What role do parents and others play in determining the intelligence of children? a. an enriched environment can help maximize potential b. supervision is important to solidify intelligence c. intelligence is purely genetic d. finding the right friends is critical for intelligence to be maximized

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 95. What is a common error made by children with dyslexia? a. inserting spaces between letters in a word b. mistaking numbers for letters c. inserting one word where there should be two d. mistaking b for d 96. Beginning around age 11, boys develop relatively more muscle than girls. At about the same age, what do girls develop relatively more of compared with boys? a. height b. weight c. muscle d. fatty tissue 97. During middle childhood, children develop motor skills, such as increases in speed and strength. What else increases at the same time? a. agility b. flexibility c. confidence d. interest in sports 98. What is a common outcome of being obese during adolescence? a. aggressive behaviour b. high social competence c. high academic achievement d. being considered less attractive 99. According to Piaget, at what age will most children enter the concrete operations stage of cognitive development? a. usually by age 2 b. between the ages of 4 and 6 c. by age 7 d. by age 12 100. How might you test to determine that your 7-year-old nephew is able to understand the principle of transitivity? a. Ask him to point out his town on a map. b. Ask him how many ways he can combine numbers to make 5. c. Ask him to assess the amount of dough when the same portion is formed into a ball or a pancake. d. Ask him to name his family members from oldest to youngest.

101. Jack is an average 7-year-old. How have his nutritional needs changed compared with two years ago? a. Jack needs to eat less. b. Jack needs to eat more. c. Jack needs to eat more fat. d. Jack needs to eat the same amount.

102. Which statement supports dyslexia having a genetic component? a. Children who are dyslexic tend to have ADHD. b. Children who are dyslexic tend to have a dyslexic parent. c. Dyslexia can be overcome with cognitive behavioural therapy. d. Children with dyslexia have problems benefiting from traditional instruction in a classroom.

103. Which statement best describes children’s awareness of and purposeful control of their cognitive abilities? a. It is called metacognition. b. It can occur as early as age 3. c. It does not occur until adolescence. d. It occurs earlier in girls than in boys.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 104. Which statement best describes "culture-free" intelligence tests? a. They have been largely successful. b. These tests have never been developed. c. They have not lived up to their promise. d. They have been in use for less than 20 years.

105. Alain recites the alphabet until he has memorized it. What is Alain’s activity an example of? a. a retrieval strategy b. a technique that places information into short-term memory c. rote learning d. trace memory 106. What is the goal of the Roots of Empathy Project? a. to teach empathy to cultivate better citizens of the world b. to teach and model self-care to promote school and community involvement c. to teach empathy as a weapon against bullying d. to teach and model self-care to promote drug prevention behaviours 107. What does "IQ" stand for? a. individual qualities b. intellectual quantity c. intelligence quotient d. intellectual quarantine 108. Piaget and Inhelder conducted research on seriation tasks. What did they ask children to classify? a. 49 pictures of faces according to colour b. 49 leaves according to size and brightness c. 49 pictures of buildings according to height. d. 49 crayons according to length and brightness 109. At approximately what age does a child usually develop the coordination required for gymnastics? a. at approximately age 4 b. at approximately age 5 c. at approximately age 6 d. at approximately age 8 110. Who is more likely to participate in sports? a. a child living in the country b. a 5-year-old c. a 13-year-old d. a child of a recent immigrant 111. Intelligence is to "competence," as achievement is to which of the following? a. genetics b. performance c. environment d. learning ability 112. Which of the following is linked to dyslexia? a. authoritarian parenting b. poor diet during early childhood c. phonological processing problems d. exposure to stressful environments

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 113. What kind of muscular control is needed for gymnastics? a. aerobic capacity b. fine motor skills c. gross motor skills d. systemic motor skills 114. IQ scores tend to vary by ethnic group. Which ethnic group typically obtains the highest scores? a. people of European descent b. people of African descent c. people of Hispanic descent d. people of Asian descent 115. According to research, what distinguishes the recall memory of older children from that of younger children? a. Younger children can remember more items than older children. b. Older children can remember just as many items as younger children. c. Older children are more likely than younger children to use categories to remember items. d. Younger children are more likely than older children to use categories to remember items.

116. Which statement provides evidence for the role of environment in obesity? a. Some children inherit a tendency to turn extra calories into fat. b. Identical twins have similar body weights regardless of whether they were reared together or separately. c. Watching TV affects children's weight. d. Cultural dietary choices affect weight.

117. By what age can most children hold a pencil in the same manner as adults do? a. by age 3 b. by age 4 c. by age 6 d. by age 8 118. What percentage of Canadian children are obese? a. 4 to 6% b. 11 to 13% c. 20 to 25% d. 30 to 25% 119. What part of the brain is associated with dyslexia? a. the medulla b. the hippocampus c. the angular gyrus d. the hypothalamus 120. What is a key component of the information-processing view of cognitive development? a. expansive attention b. random retrieval processes c. selective attention processes d. a limit on how much information can be stored in long-term memory 121. According to genetic research on ADHD, what chemical shows a relationship to ADHD? a. benzoate b. erotonin c. dopamine d. testosterone

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 122. Which statement best represents Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences? a. Intelligence is gained entirely through experience. b. People who are intelligent in one area will be intelligent in other areas. c. People who are intelligent in one area may be less intelligent in other areas. d. Intelligence can be measured only by traditional IQ tests, such as the Binet-Simon.

123. What ability is referred to by the cognitive development term decentration? a. the ability to subtract numbers b. the ability to enhance the child's egocentrism c. the ability to focus simultaneously on multiple aspects of a problem d. the ability to understand that changes in how something looks do not change its meaning 124. What did Kohlberg use to research moral development? a. an IQ test b. a conservation task c. Heinz’s dilemma d. the Moral Competency Scale 125. For approximately how long will a child to experience Jean Piaget’s concrete operational stage? a. 1 year b. 3 years c. 6 years d. 10 years 126. What is the relationship between most obese children and their normal-weight peers? a. They are likely to be rejected by their peers and to do more poorly in sports. b. They are likely to be popular with their peers and to do well in sports. c. They like their bodies to the same degree as their peers. d. They are treated the same as their peers during childhood, but changes occur in adolescence.

127. How do stimulant medications, such as Concerta, affect ADHD? a. They activate the amygdale. b. They neutralize the overactive region of the cerebral cortex. c. They minimize the effects of other stimulants, such as caffeine and chocolate. d. They stimulate the executive centre of the brain to control more primitive areas of the brain.

128. Which statement reflects the nature of reaction time during middle-childhood? a. It begins to increase until early adulthood. b. It decreases until about age 12. c. It decreases until about age 18. d. It is impacted by the child’s strength and agility.

129. How has the prevalence of sedentary behaviour changed for males and females in recent years? a. It has increased for both genders across ethnic groups. b. It has decreased dramatically from the 1970s to the 2000s. c. It has increased for males but decreased for females. d. It has decreased for males but increased for females.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 130. What is the average correlation in IQ scores for monozygotic twins reared together? a. –0.43 b. +0.67 c. +0.85 d. +1.32 131. Which term best describes ADHD? a. a neurological condition b. an emotional condition c. a hormonal condition d. a learning condition 132. How many calories does the average 8- to 10-year-old require? a. 1,000 calories per day b. 1,300 calories per day c. 1,600 calories per day d. 2,400 calories per day 133. Which statement best describes the size of food portions in restaurants over the past few decades? a. The portions have become larger. b. The portions have become smaller. c. The portions have stayed the same size. d. The portions of vegetables have become larger.

134. Zack’s parents have been told that their son has ADHD. What treatment option is Zack’s doctor most likely to recommend? a. cognitive methods b. family therapy c. stimulants such as Concerta d. antidepressant medications 135. Which of the following best exemplifies "bodily–kinesthetic" intelligence? a. dancing b. memorizing cue cards c. the ability to relate to others d. awareness of one's internal self 136. By what age does the onset of ADHD typically occur? a. by age 3 b. by age 5 c. by age 7 d. by age 9 137. What part of the brain translates visual information into auditory information? a. the frontal lobe b. Wernicke's area c. the visual cortex d. the angular gyrus 138. Natalie believes that Heinz should steal the drug because "that is what a good husband would do." According to Kohlberg, what level of moral development is indicated by Natalie’s response? a. the preconventional level b. the conventional level c. the postconventional level d. the transitional level 139. According to the Binet-Simon scale, what is meant by mental age? a. the child’s physical age b. the age at which IQ can begin to be tested c. the intellectual level at which the child is functioning d. the child’s age when he or she attains average intelligence Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 140. What activity was the focus of debate in the story about Heinz that Kohlberg used in his research? a. stealing money to buy a drug b. stealing a drug that was not available to Heinz c. stealing a drug because Heinz did not have enough money to buy it d. stealing a drug because the chemist would not order it in 141. What makes children between the ages of 8 and 10 most suited to engage in activities such as gymnastics and team sports? a. their experience with sports b. their greater forearm strength c. their balance and coordination d. their faster reaction times 142. What type of memory is referred to as trace memory? a. sensory memory b. automatic memory c. long-term memory d. short-term memory 143. Kohlberg believed that, around the world, children's moral reasoning undergoes the same cognitive developmental pattern. Which of the following statements best characterizes this pattern? a. It is typically complete by age 12. b. It develops continuously, rather than in a stage-like manner. c. It is unrelated to children’s ability to take the perspective of another. d. It reflects the values of the social and cultural setting in which the child is reared.

144. Which factors are most important in determining a child’s ability to play sports well? a. time and place b. age and size c. role models and gender d. experience and genetics 145. How much weight does the average child gain each year during middle childhood? a. 1.5 to 2 kg b. 2.25 to 3 kg c. 4 to 5 kg d. 6 to 6.50 kg 146. Which of Kohlberg’s stages of moral development represents a law-and-order orientation? a. Stage 4 b. Stage 5 c. Stage 6 d. Stage 7 147. According to Kohlberg, what is a child’s moral reasoning related to? a. a strict upbringing b. the use of physical punishment c. an understanding of object permanence d. cognitive development 148. What is the pace of height and weight changes during middle childhood? a. They slow down. b. They are fairly steady. c. They undergo a dramatic growth spurt. d. They are rapid for girls, but slow and steady for boys.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 149. According to your textbook, which of the following stimuli can be maintained longer in short-term memory? a. salty stimuli, such as taste b. visual stimuli c. auditory stimuli d. touching stimuli, such as hot and cold 150. Which ability is required by transitivity? a. focusing on multiple parts of a problem b. feeling empathy c. thinking with abstract concepts d. comparing all items in a set to all other items 151. Which of the following best characterizes Down syndrome? a. It is caused by teratogens. b. It can be cured by changes in one’s diet. c. It is caused by chromosomal abnormalities. d. It is associated in most cases with severe intellectual challenges.

152. What IQ score identifies a child with an intellectual deficiency? a. an IQ score below 50 b. an IQ score below 60 c. an IQ score below 70 d. an IQ score below 80 153. What percentage of school-aged children are diagnosed with ADHD? a. fewer than 1% b. 5 to 12% c. around 20% d. more than 15% 154. Tim is starting high school tomorrow and is planning his strategy for making new friends on his first day. What is Tim most likely to rely on? a. analytical intelligence b. practical intelligence c. spatial intelligence d. standard intelligence 155. What distinguishes ADHD from typical childhood inattention? a. ADHD involves a high degree of aggressive behaviour. b. ADHD involves children who are deficient in their activity level. c. ADHD must only be evident in one setting, such as home or school. d. ADHD involves excessive inattention, impulsivity, and hyperactivity.

156. What memory process lasts for up to 30 seconds without rehearsal? a. trace memory b. sensory memory c. long-term memory d. short-term memory 157. Which ability best illustrates seriation? a. placing sticks in order according to size b. understanding that hidden objects still exist c. understanding that flattening a ball of clay does not change its mass d. understanding that various shapes exist Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 158. Tina’s moral behaviour is best defined as choosing “what is considered to be normal” and “what the majority does.” According to Kohlberg, what stages of moral development is Tina in? a. Stage 3 b. Stage 4 c. Stage 5 d. Stage 6 159. Which statement best describes the food offered to most children in school cafeterias? a. It is low in sodium. b. It is heavy in sugar and animal fats. c. It comprises primarily fish, poultry, and whole grains. d. It reflects the dietary recommendations made by the food pyramid.

160. How many stages comprise Kohlberg’s levels of moral development? a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 161. Jocelyn understands that if A is heavier than B, and B is heavier than C, then A is also heavier than C. Which of the following is demonstrated by Jocelyn’s understanding? a. conservation b. transitivity c. class inclusion d. reversible thinking 162. Sarah is being taught to read by associating written letters and letter combinations with the sounds they indicate.

Which reading method is Sarah learning? a. the phonetic method b. the word recognition method c. the sounding method d. semantic recognition method 163. Which of the following is a characteristic of intelligence? a. You either have it or do not have it. b. It is the same as achievement. c. Experts agree it can be measured using traditional intelligence tests. d. It is subject to many interpretations.

164. Which word best describes the thinking of a concrete operational child, compared with the thinking of a child in an earlier cognitive stage? a. rigid b. flexible c. abstract d. egocentric 165. What is an average IQ score? a. 50 b. 80 c. 100 d. 150 166. Which of the following is a characteristic of bilingual children? a. They have more cognitive flexibility. b. They are smarter than monolingual children. c. They are retarded in their growth compared with other children. d. They experience more problems learning language than monolingual children.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 167. What is the relationship between ADHD and gender? a. ADHD is more common in males than in females. b. ADHD results from a chromosome that males inherit from their mother. c. ADHD is more common in females than in males. d. ADHD results from a chromosome that females inherit from their father.

168. Morgan is an obese child. What can we predict about Morgan’s future weight? a. Morgan will become an obese adult. b. Morgan will outgrow the baby fat in early childhood. c. Morgan will achieve a normal weight during adolescence. d. Morgan’s future weight depends on Morgan’s gender.

169. Justin is 8 years old. He believes that he needs to follow the rules of the game or his library privileges will be removed. According to, Kohlberg’s levels of moral development, which stage is Justin in? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 170. When two people are talking, John can type their conversation faster than Rebecca because he responds faster to the verbal stimulus. What term refers to John’s ability? a. reaction time b. response rate c. sensorimotor intelligence d. gross motor activation time 171. Which statement exemplifies a characteristic of learning disabilities? a. They tend to disappear as children reach adulthood. b. They affect less than 1% of the childhood population. c. They are more common in girls than in boys. d. They can exist in spite of a child having an average IQ. 172. At approximately what age do girls become taller than boys? a. at approximately age 5 b. at approximately age 8 c. at approximately age 10 d. at approximately age 14 or 15 173. Nathan had an assessment based on Sternberg’s Theory of Intelligence framework. How many areas of Nathan’s intelligence were tested? a. 3 b. 5 c. 8 d. 10 174. Compared with rote rehearsal, a more effective method for remembering is to make the new material meaningful by purposefully relating it to well-known information. What term refers to this method of remembering? a. cuing b. tracing c. mneumonizing d. elaborative strategy

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 175. By age 8, most children are finally capable of which gross motor skills? a. hopping b. jumping c. climbing d. gymnastics 176. Who considered a wholistic perspective of intelligence? a. Lewis Terman b. Howard Gardner c. Alfred Binet and Theodore Simon d. Robert Sternberg 177. What is a common symptom of dyslexia? a. stuttering b. difficulty learning to read c. poor language development d. difficulty in processing complex mathematical equations 178. Which of the following is an aspect of intelligence, according to Sternberg's theory? a. spatial intelligence b. emotional intelligence c. analytical intelligence d. subjective intelligence 179. How many words comprise a typical child’s vocabulary by age 6? a. 100 words b. 1,000 words c. 10,000 words d. 100,000 words 180. According to a 2005 Statistics Canada survey, which children are most likely to participate in sports? a. children living in one of Canada’s three largest cities b. children whose parents are involved in sports even as spectators c. children whose parents are recent immigrants d. younger children are more likely than those in their early teens 181. What is the definition of selective attention? a. the ability to ignore all information b. the ability to focus on relevant features of a task c. the ability to keep all information out of memory d. the ability to focus on minute, unimportant details 182. According to Kohlberg's theory of moral development, what forms the basis of postconventional reasoning? a. social order b. personal moral standards c. a good-boy/good-girl orientation d. an obedience and punishment orientation 183. Morgan and Jesse are the same age. Morgan is slightly heavier and taller than Jesse. Which of the following most likely describes Morgan? a. Morgan is a 3- to 5-year-old girl. b. Morgan is a 9- to 10-year-old boy. c. Morgan is a 13- to 14-year-old boy. d. Morgan is a 17- to 18-year-old boy.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 184. Carol understands that "dogs" can also belong to the category called "animals." What is Carol’s understanding an example of? a. abstract logic b. a preoperation c. linear thinking d. class inclusion 185. What is the relationship between television viewing and obesity? a. TV viewing curbs the appetite. b. Children who are heavy TV viewers are less physically active overall. c. TV viewing resets the hunger trigger, which is located in the thalamus. d. TV viewing does not contribute to obesity; obesity is genetically determined. a. divergent thinking b. bodily/kinesthetic intelligence c. sedentary activity d. steady e. word-recognition method f. knowledge and control of cognitive abilities g. reaction time h. Down syndrome i. a “good-boy/good-girl orientation” j. ADHD k. fine motor skills l. Wechsler scale m. originated in the early 1900s as a testing tool n. mental age o. Decentration and conservation p. predominantly learned q. views intelligence as three-pronged r. girls s. dyslexia t. stimulant 186. Growth through middle childhood 187. Caused by chromosomal abnormalities 188. Measures different intellectual abilities 189. Intellectual level 190. Coming up with many uses for a familiar object 191. used by gymnasts and dancers 192. Using a knife and fork 193. Gender differences in motor skills 194. The Stanford–Binet Intelligence Scale Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 195. Concrete operational reasoning 196. Sternberg 197. Concerta 198. Difficulty reading 199. May face sexism or discouragement when playing sports 200. Conventional level reasoning 201. Associates visual stimuli and sound combinations 202. Diagnosed by age 7 203. Watching television 204. Metacognition 205. Speed from stimulus to response 206. Describe the word-recognition and the phonetic method used to teach reading.

207. What are the patterns of obesity during middle childhood?

208. How does concrete operational thinking differ from preoperational thinking?

209. How do sensory, short-term, and long-term memories differ?

210. How is the Heinz dilemma used to assess moral development?

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 211. What has recent research found in terms of today’s Indigenous populations and the literacy development of their cultural languages? What can be done?

212. What is an Individual Education Plan (IEP) and how does it impact learning?

213. Describe the typical growth patterns in middle childhood. Do gender differences affect growth patterns during this time?

214. How does selective attention change during middle childhood?

215. Discuss motor development during the middle childhood years. What factors influence the involvement of children in sports?

216. Describe the disorder known as attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

217. What has research found in terms of the theories that explain dyslexia and whether a genetic link exists?

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. False 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. False 23. True 24. True 25. False 26. True

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 27. False 28. False 29. False 30. False 31. True 32. False 33. True 34. False 35. True 36. True 37. True 38. False 39. True 40. False 41. False 42. False 43. False 44. False 45. True 46. False 47. True 48. False 49. False 50. True 51. True 52. True 53. False 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 55. True 56. False 57. True 58. True 59. True 60. True 61. True 62. True 63. False 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. c 68. c 69. b 70. b 71. d 72. b 73. c 74. c 75. d 76. b 77. c 78. d 79. b 80. d 81. b 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 83. c 84. a 85. c 86. d 87. a 88. c 89. c 90. a 91. d 92. c 93. d 94. a 95. d 96. d 97. a 98. d 99. c 100. d 101. b 102. b 103. a 104. c 105. c 106. c 107. c 108. b 109. d 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 111. b 112. c 113. c 114. d 115. c 116. c 117. c 118. d 119. c 120. c 121. c 122. c 123. c 124. c 125. c 126. a 127. d 128. c 129. a 130. c 131. a 132. c 133. a 134. c 135. a 136. c 137. d

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 138. b 139. c 140. c 141. c 142. a 143. d 144. d 145. b 146. a 147. d 148. b 149. c 150. d 151. c 152. c 153. b 154. b 155. d 156. d 157. a 158. a 159. b 160. b 161. b 162. a 163. d 164. b 165. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 166. a 167. a 168. a 169. a 170. a 171. d 172. c 173. a 174. d 175. d 176. b 177. b 178. c 179. c 180. b 181. b 182. b 183. b 184. d 185. b 186. d 187. h 188. l 189. n 190. a 191. b 192. k 193. p Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 194. m 195. o 196. q 197. t 198. s 199. r 200. i 201. e 202. j 203. c 204. f 205. g 206.

The word-recognition method links visual stimuli such as seeing the words cat and Robert with the sound combinations that produce the spoken words. This ability is typically acquired by rote learning, or extensive repetition. In the phonetic method, children learn to associate written letters and letter combinations (such as ph or sh) with the sounds they indicate. Then they sound out words. The phonetic method provides skills children can use to decode new words, but some children learn more rapidly at early ages through the word-recognition method.

207. Childhood obesity has tripled in the last 30 years and, as of 2017, Statistics Canada indicates that 30% of those between 5 and 17 years of age are overweight. While it has commonly been assumed that children will outgrow “baby fat” this is not the case. Children who are overweight are likely to be overweight as adults. Contributing factors include an increase in television viewing (and the number of commercials advertising high-fat and high-sugar foods) and a decline in the number of families engaging in physical activity as a part of their family interactions.

208. Concrete operational thinking is based on systematic, logical thought processes. Children in the concrete operational period are able to use reversible and flexible processes. They understand that an object that changes in one dimension will compensate in another dimension. They are also able to think about more than one dimension of a problem at a time. As a result, they can understand class inclusion problems, as demonstrated by their understanding that an object can belong to more than one class at a time. Children in the concrete operational period are also less egocentric in their thinking.

209. Sensory memory includes auditory and visual memories and is also known as “trace” memory. This type of memory is extremely short in duration and small in capacity. Short-term memory is slightly longer than sensory memory and may be kept active through memory strategies such as rehearsal. Short-term memory has a rather small capacity.

Long-term memory has no known duration or capacity.

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Chap_09_HDEV_4ce 210. The Heinz dilemma involves telling individuals about Heinz, whose wife is ill, and explaining that Heinz cannot afford the medication she needs. Individuals are then asked whether Heinz should steal the drug and to explain their reasoning. Their responses are analyzed and identified as being within a certain level of reasoning. These levels are: preconventional, conventional, and postconventional.

211. Significant issues exist today in terms of Canada’s Indigenous populations and the low literacy development of their Indigenous languages. These low literacy rates are mainly the consequence of the policies and practices carried out in residential schools, which instilled among many Indigenous adults that their language was inferior and that their cultural ways were primitive. Supporting Indigenous children to learn their Indigenous language is an exceptional way to successfully communicate vital thoughts of cultural identity, cultural knowledge, and connectedness with their cultural community.

212. An IEP must, according to the Canadian Human Rights Code, be created for all students who have exceptionalities.

Some examples of exceptionality include giftedness, learning disabilities, and physical disabilities. Students do not require a formal diagnosis with a condition but some common diagnoses resulting in IEPs include being on the autism spectrum, visual or hearing impairments, brain injuries, ADHD, learning disabilities, and mental health issues. Some accommodations that may be given to students with an IEP are access to computer software, access to a calculator for tests, or a quiet room for test writing along with extra time to complete assessments. The IEP is monitored by educators, parents, and psychologists to ensure that it is meeting the individual learning needs of the student.

213. Growth during the middle childhood years can best be described as "steady." Although there can be large differences, most children gain a little over 5 cm in height per year. This steady pattern of growth continues until the adolescent growth spurt. Until this growth spurt occurs in girls, boys continue to be taller and heavier. Girls, however, begin the adolescent growth spurt around age 11 and quickly become both taller and heavier than boys. Boys do not tend to experience the adolescent growth spurt until the ages of 13 or 14.

214. Children during middle childhood develop the ability to attend to the relevant information of a task in a much better way than when they were younger. At the same time, they are also able to, when needed, attend to multiple aspects of a problem at one time.

215.

During the middle childhood years, children experience significant growth in the strength of their muscles and in their ability to engage in tasks that require balance and coordination. The pathways that connect the cerebellum to the cerebral cortex become increasingly myelinated, which increases the speed and efficiency at which neural impulses are conducted. Although some gender differences have been noted, these differences are difficult to explain on the basis of biology alone. These differences are more likely the result of differential socialization (i.e., family, peer, and media pressures) than genetics. The activity level of parents and their own involvement in sports has an impact on the involvement of children in sports. Geography also plays a role since children who live in smaller towns tend to participate in more sporting activities than their counterparts who live in larger centres.

216. When diagnosing ADHD, the child’s degree of overactivity should be noted. Most children engage in high levels of activity from time to time. With ADHD, however, the child appears to always be "on." The child with ADHD is also unable to control acting-out behaviours and may become physically agitated due to difficulty in maintaining control.

Children with ADHD are also very impulsive and may show high levels of anxiety. Research suggests some possible biological components to ADHD, from improper functioning of the thyroid to potential brain dysfunction, which may affect the inhibitory control portions of the frontal cortex.

217. Theories of dyslexia focus on how sensory and neurological problems may contribute to the reading problems we find in individuals with dyslexia. Genetic factors appear to be involved; 25 to 65 percent of children who have one dyslexic parent are dyslexic themselves. About 40 percent of the siblings of children with dyslexia are dyslexic.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Schools affect only children’s academic performance. a. True b. False 2. Children tend to pick friends who are like themselves in personality and behaviour. a. True b. False 3. Children with rejecting and neglecting parents are more likely to have low self-esteem than those with restrictive and involved parents. a. True b. False 4. The best way to treat school phobia is to let the child stay home. a. True b. False 5. Depression is rare in children younger than 12 years of age. a. True b. False 6. Separation anxiety disorder frequently occurs alongside social anxiety. a. True b. False 7. Children of gay and lesbian parents have more adjustment problems than children of heterosexual parents. a. True b. False 8. Research on successful schools indicates that the style of instructing used by the teacher has little influence on the school’s outcome. a. True b. False 9. Household income is a significant determinant of health for children. a. True b. False 10. During middle childhood, children depend less on external rewards and increasingly regulate their own behaviour. a. True b. False

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 11. Girls are most dominant in classroom conversations. a. True b. False 12. Selman argued that children develop perspective taking through three stages. a. True b. False 13. Conduct disorder typically does not emerge until adolescence. a. True b. False 14. Divorce often affects children’s self-esteem and behaviour. a. True b. False 15. Self-esteem declines in middle childhood as children compare themselves to other children. a. True b. False 16. Industry vs. inferiority is the stage of Erikson’s theory that occurs during middle childhood. a. True b. False 17. Teachers may have lowered expectations of children from low-income families and children who are members of minority groups. a. True b. False 18. Research on the children of lesbian or transsexual parents has shown their gender preferences for toys, clothing, and friends to be comparable to the gender preferences of children of heterosexual parents. a. True b. False 19. Bystanders may not intervene to stop bullies because they are afraid of making the situation worse. a. True b. False 20. Social cognition refers to perception of the social world. a. True b. False 21. Boys are more likely than girls to treat friends as confidants. a. True b. False

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 22. Maternal employment is causally linked to childhood delinquency. a. True b. False 23. Aggressive children tend to be more popular than nonaggressive children. a. True b. False 24. After a parental divorce, most children have a 50/50 living relationship between their mothers and fathers. a. True b. False 25. Children who are having conflict with their parents rarely benefit from having friends. a. True b. False 26. During middle childhood, boys tend to develop closer friendships than girls. a. True b. False 27. Depression in children sometimes has a genetic component. a. True b. False 28. Children whose mothers work have much higher levels of social conduct problems and academic problems. a. True b. False 29. Children are often financially affected by their parents’ divorce. a. True b. False 30. Popular children tend to be attractive, mature for their age, and successful in sports or academics. a. True b. False 31. Parents and teachers have an equal and strong impact on self-esteem. a. True b. False 32. Ten- to 12-year-olds evaluate their parents more harshly than they did in early childhood. a. True b. False

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 33. Regardless of how parents get along, it is better to stay together for the sake of the children than to get divorced. a. True b. False 34. In middle childhood, peers are rated as a child's best source of emotional support. a. True b. False 35. Separation anxiety in children older than age 10 is a sign of mental illness. a. True b. False 36. Contributors to conduct disorders may include genetics, antisocial family members, deviant peers, inconsistent discipline, parental insensitivity to the child’s behaviour, physical punishment, and family stress. a. True b. False 37. Increasing levels of egocentrism characterize middle childhood thinking, according to Piaget’s cognitivedevelopmental theory. a. True b. False 38. Parents monitor the behaviour of children during middle childhood more than the behaviour of younger children. a. True b. False 39. Children in middle childhood respond best to teaching that is direct, such as lecturing. a. True b. False 40. In middle childhood, children begin to describe themselves using abstract, internal traits. a. True b. False 41. A majority of children experience bullying during their school years. a. True b. False 42. Sexism has been eradicated from today’s schools. a. True b. False

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 43. Self-esteem tends to increase during middle childhood as children become more realistic in their appraisal of their abilities. a. True b. False 44. Physical punishment is the most effective treatment for children with conduct disorders. a. True b. False 45. Nine-year-old children tend to describe themselves in terms of their physical characteristics. a. True b. False 46. Children of working mothers usually show serious adjustment problems. a. True b. False 47. Perspective-taking skills are important for children’s peer relationships during middle adulthood. a. True b. False 48. Children during middle childhood usually have the same number of same-sex and opposite-sex friends. a. True b. False 49. Having an internal attribution style is associated with depression in children. a. True b. False 50. Teachers’ expectations are rarely related to children’s actual school performance. a. True b. False 51. Social acceptance by peers is unrelated to self-esteem in middle childhood. a. True b. False 52. Depression in middle childhood occurs equally among boys and girls. a. True b. False 53. Depression and low self-esteem are unrelated problems in childhood. a. True b. False

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 54. The most effective teachers ask questions, give personalized feedback, and provide opportunities for drill and practice. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

55. What is one of the most effective strategies to end bullying? a. signing an online pledge card to never bully b. adopting a charge first and talk later policy c. using a jigsaw teaching method d. joining a police-controlled web-group devoted to reporting cases of bullying in schools 56. Which term refers to the gradual transfer of control from parent to child? a. co-regulation b. transference c. counter dependence d. familial interdependence 57. Which of the following children would be considered withdrawn-rejected? a. Terri, who is aggressive b. John, who is impulsive c. Sally, who is shy d. Tim, who is uncooperative 58. How does the more developed cognitive ability of 12-year-olds impact their evaluation of their parents? a. They have a better understanding of the motivations of their parents than in the past. b. They rate their parents more favourably than they did in younger years. c. They evaluate their parents more critically than before. d. They are more interested in the perspectives of their parents than in the past..

59. Which of the following factors impacts self-esteem in middle childhood?? a. age of parents b. comparing self to parents c. comparing self to peers d. presences of siblings 60. According to research, which mother is most likely to have a child who is considered to be better adjusted? a. a single mother b. a working mother c. a stay-at-home mother d. there is too little information to tell 61. What is the effect of schools on children in middle childhood? a. Schools’ socialization influence is generally negative. b. Schools foster competition, which is always negative. c. Schools tend to overrule the authority of parents. d. Schools exert a lot of authority over a child’s life.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 62. Sara is 7 years old. She is told the story of Holly in one of Selman's perspective-taking exercises. Sara states that Holly's father would be upset because Holly climbed the tree, but if Holly told her father she climbed the tree to rescue a kitten, then he would not be upset. Which of Selman's stages does Sara’s thinking represent? a. Level 0 b. Level 1 c. Level 2 d. Level 3 63. Which statement reflects the nature of cyberbullying? a. Girls are more likely to be cyber victims than boys. b. Victims of online bullying are rarely bullied offline. c. Boys are more likely to be victims of cyberbullying than girls. d. Adults are more likely to be perpetrators than children.

64. Which area of the brain is responsible for making sense of social interactions? a. frontal lobe b. amygdala c. hippocampus d. cerebellum 65. Which of the following criteria were noted as being qualities of an effective teacher? a. an active, energetic teacher who encourages community decision making b. teachers who develop strong relationships with students and their parents c. teachers who provide a structure and have high expectations d. teaching methods that give students creative ideas about problem solving 66. According to the textbook, which activity is likely to improve the behaviour of children who have conduct disorders? a. closely monitoring their behaviour b. punishing them severely for infractions c. allowing them freedom to set their own limits d. removing children from the home 67. Which statement best reflects the “Pygmalion effect”? a. A careful student is a good student. b. Ability, not method, makes the student. c. Lazy is as lazy does. d. You get what you look for.

68. Which of the following best describes an internal attribution? a. blaming failure on bad luck or bad timing b. blaming failure on one’s lack of competence c. an example of a coping mechanism used by aggressive children d. a style of coping used by bullies to justify their behaviour 69. According to the textbook, which of the following represents a good teacher? a. a teacher who communicates values b. a teacher who uses punishment only to alter students’ behaviour c. a teacher who accepts students’ performance at whatever level they are at d. a teacher who leaves role modelling to parents.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 70. Which statement best describes the influence of peers during middle childhood? a. It is generally negative. b. It is an important part of the socialization process. c. It usually plays a less important role than that of parents. d. It is more important in the socialization of girls than in boys.

71. Which statement best characterizes the role of peers? a. They help children to learn how to suppress their impulses. b. They give children practice in setting clear boundaries with parents. c. They help children to realize that others share the same troubles they do. d. They help children sort out their gender roles.

72. Which statement is a feature of parental involvement during middle childhood? a. Children and parents spend less time together. b. The focus on chores becomes central to their relationship. c. Children reject parental involvement completely. d. Parents provide more feedback to their children.

73. What is thought to be the impact of increased screen time on the social interactions of children? a. decreased interest in school b. increased ability to “zone in” on the feelings of others c. increased empathy d. decreased ability to be empathetic or “read” others 74. What is the current perspective on the impact of bullying at school? a. It is only an issue in elementary school. b. It can have long-term negative consequences for the bully and the bullied. c. It is on the decline as awareness increases. d. It can teach young people how to deal with conflict more effectively.

75. Your school wants to join a Canadian initiative to recognize a student who was bullied in Nova Scotia. On what day will your activities occur? a. April 14 b. May 14 c. June 14 d. September 14 76. Which statement best describes the role of gender in children’s friendships during middle childhood? a. Girls tend to play in larger groups than boys. b. Same-sex peer relationships decline dramatically. c. Children’s friends tend to be almost exclusively the same gender. d. Children tend to have the same number of same- and opposite-sex friends.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 77. According to the textbook, regardless of the emotions associated with a divorce, what is a consistent consequence to most children afterward? a. a downward movement in socioeconomic status b. a serious psychological disturbance c. an enhanced psychological functioning because the marital conflict is now resolved d. an increase in aggressive behaviour at home and school 78. "I failed this project, so I will probably fail at school." What is this statement an example of? a. realistic thinking b. attributional style c. a cognitive shortcut d. external attribution 79. Which statement best reflects the self-fulfilling prophecy in schools? a. Teachers who expect little may find what they are looking for. b. Students who believe in themselves will be liked by peers. c. Teachers who like their jobs will be happier in the classroom. d. Teachers and students who share interests will have better classroom effectiveness.

80. Which of the following is a focus of parent–child interactions during middle childhood? a. extended-family related matters b. vacations c. increased parental feedback d. peer activities 81. What two issues are at the forefront of Erikson’s stage of industry vs. inferiority? a. ability and self-esteem b. self-esteem and parental acceptance c. ability and sibling relationships d. parental acceptance and ability 82. How do the self-definitions of middle childhood children compare with those of early childhood children? a. They are more internal. b. They are more abstract. c. They are less focused on personality characteristics. d. They are more egocentric.

83. According to research, how does the psychological adjustment of children who have lesbian or gay parents compare with the psychological adjustment of children who have heterosexual parents? a. It is a longer adjustment for children who have gay or lesbian parents. b. It is equal to the adjustment of children who have heterosexual parents. c. It is less than the adjustment of children who have heterosexual parents. d. It is more positive than the adjustment of children who have heterosexual parents.

84. What has research found about the treatment for conduct disorders? a. The treatment programs used to date have been ineffective. b. Treatment programs are most effective for boys. c. The treatment has shown success only when combined with medications. d. The treatment has tended to be more successful when focused on parent training.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 85. Which two groups have the strongest influence over a child’s self-esteem in middle childhood? a. teachers and friends b. parents and classmates c. classmates and friends d. parents and teachers 86. How many "best" friends does the typical 9-year-old have? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 87. Which term is used to describe situations where grandparents become the primary caregivers to their grandchildren? a. skip-generation b. sandwich-generation c. boomer-generation d. extended-generation 88. Which teaching strategy helps students to learn more? a. Make sure that the classroom is always clean. b. Ensure that students can sit near their friends. c. Ensure the classroom is a fun place to be. d. Provide active instruction and supervision.

89. How many stages of friendship did Selman describe? a. 3 b. 5 c. 10 d. 12 90. Which of the following children is likely to adjust best following the divorce of their parents? a. the child who is given gifts b. the child who is part of the divorce decision-making process c. the child whose mother is accepting and consistent d. the child who is permitted to float freely between parental homes 91. According to the textbook, what is the current thinking about the use of drugs to treat school phobia or school refusal? a. Drugs should be used as a treatment. b. Drugs should be used as a first line of treatment. c. Drugs are generally ineffective as a form of treatment. d. Drugs should be used only in conjunction with cognitive-behavioural methods.

92. What is the approximate concordance rate for depression in female identical twins? a. 29% b. 39% c. 49% d. 59%

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 93. According to the research cited in the textbook, what is the relationship between maternal employment and delinquent behaviour? a. The effects appear to be related to parental supervision. b. The effects appear to be offset by authoritarian parenting in the home. c. Working mothers seem to have more delinquent sons than delinquent daughters. d. The more a mother works, the greater the degree of delinquent behaviour exhibited by her children.

94. How many children live in lone-parent families in Canada? a. 2% b. 8% c. 15% d. 20% 95. According to the textbook, who takes on increasing importance for children in middle childhood? a. grandparents b. peers c. meal preparation d. career planning 96. What is the origin of conduct disorders? a. They are entirely learned. b. They are entirely genetic. c. They are associated with parental rejection. d. They are found predominantly in ethnic minorities.

97. Research on gay and lesbian parents has typically fallen into two categories. One category is children’s general adjustment. What is the other category? a. children’s peer relationships b. children’s school adjustment c. children’s attachment to the parents d. children’s likelihood of being gay or lesbian 98. Which statement best exemplifies the nature of involvement of children in middle childhood with their parents? a. They spend increased amounts of time together. b. They are more task focused than emotion focused. c. They tend to include more conflicts than in teenage years. d. They spend less time together than in preschool years.

99. What is one of the most important functions performed by peers in middle-childhood? a. They provide healthy competition. b. They provide a different perspective than parents. c. They have similar skills and competencies as parents. d. They enable children to practice communication skills.

100. What area of psychology best represents the study of a child's understanding of the relationship between self and others? a. empathy b. ethnology c. mnemonics d. social cognition Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 101. Which statement best represents sexism in the classroom? a. It is a thing of the past. b. It only impacts girls’ performance in school. c. It is evidenced when teachers call on boys more and remind the girls to be more ladylike. d. It is perpetuated by teachers who suggest that females are the movers and shakers in the world.

102. Which statement best represents our knowledge about conduct disorder? a. It is more common in girls than in boys. b. It is not related to family or marital conflict. c. It appears to have genetic and environmental origins. d. It typically does not emerge until adolescence.

103. Which of the following may be included as part of a treatment program for childhood depression? a. a diet rich in red meats for iron b. stimulant medications c. encouraging children to do enjoyable things and to develop social skills d. encouraging children to learn to enjoy alone time 104. According to Erikson, which stage of psychosocial development corresponds with children in middle childhood? a. the trust versus mistrust stage b. the initiative versus guilt stage c. the industry versus inferiority stage d. the dependence versus independence stage 105. You ask your 11-year-old niece, “What is a friend?” What is your niece most likely to say? a. "Someone I can trust and share secrets with." b. "Someone you can have fun with." c. "Someone you can do something with." d. "Someone who has better toys than you do."

106. What type of parenting do children with positive self-images generally report having? a. rejecting, reinforcing, and strict b. restrictive, loving, and involved c. patient, lenient, and loving d. caring, kind, and open 107. At what point in a marriage is divorce most common? a. 5 years after marriage b. 9 years after marriage c. 14.5 years after marriage d. 23.5 years after marriage 108. What is a defining quality of conduct disorder? a. diagnosis before the age of 5 b. physical harm caused to a living being c. being male; girls who demonstrate such behaviours are labelled "defiant" d. a pattern of disruptive behaviour demonstrated over a long period of time

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 109. According to social cognitive theory, what distinguishes children and their need for reinforcements and punishments during middle childhood? a. They learn better through reinforcements than punishments. b. They require as much punishment and reinforcement as younger children. c. They self-regulate more and require fewer punishments or reinforcements. d. They require more punishments and fewer rewards to change their behaviour.

110. What have Canadian statistics revealed regarding Canadians and divorce? a. Divorce rates have skyrocketed, with more than 60% of divorces occurring before the 30th anniversary. b. Divorce rates have drop significantly since the 1970s, with fewer than 20% of divorces occurring before the 30th anniversary. c. Divorce rates have remained fairly stable, with approximate 40% of divorces occurring before the 30th anniversary. d. Divorce rates have fluctuated significantly during the past 30 years, witnessing an ebb and flow pattern difficult to analyze.

111. What childhood quality is most likely to decrease during the middle childhood years? a. egocentrism b. ethnocentrism c. perspective taking d. the need for identity 112. Your friend’s daughter is having difficulty maintaining friendships in middle childhood. What would you say to your friend about the impact this may have on her daughter over the long term? a. She will be fine if she changes schools. b. It could impact her for a very long time. c. She will be fine if she tells the peers to leave her alone. d. It might impact her for a few years but then it will be forgotten.

113. According to the research evidence, which neurotransmitters do depressed children and adults underuse? a. estrogen b. serotonin c. testosterone d. dopamine 114. Kate, a Grade 4 teacher, asks students a lot of questions and provides plenty of practice with learning tasks.

Which of the following most likely reflects the performance of her students? a. The practice bores most of them. b. The students would perform better if she allowed them to do more group work. c. The under-prepared students will likely do well, but the better-prepared ones likely will not. d. The students will likely learn more than students whose teachers do not provide practice.

115. What role does social acceptance by peers play in the self-concept of those in middle childhood? a. It reinforces messages that children receive from teachers. b. Research is inconclusive about the impact of peers on self-concept. c. It gives children a false sense of self. d. It creates perceptions of competence in academic, social, and athletic areas.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 116. According to Selman, at what age is a child able to anticipate how others might react to situations? a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 15 117. According to the textbook, which child is likely to fare the best in the competitive school environment? a. children who have family members who are teachers b. children who lag behind their peers c. children who are excelling in comparison to their peers d. children who are performing similarly to their peers 118. Which of the following is a characteristic of children’s friendships? a. They become more fragile with age. b. Early friendships are often with older children. c. Girls tend to play in larger groups than boys. d. Friendships remain stable and become deeper.

119. Which of the following is one of Selman's five levels of perspective-taking skills? a. industry b. understanding intention c. believing in universal rules d. inferiority 120. Which of the following factors can increase the negative impact of divorce on children? a. the child’s involvement in sports b. the temperament of the child c. the reason for the divorce d. the time it takes for parents to find new partners 121. Which of the following children is most likely to have been rejected by his peers? a. a child who is more mature than his peers b. a child who is learning to conform c. a child who displays aggressive behaviour d. a child who is academically superior to his peers 122. Mark shows a physiological "alarm reaction" to his parents’ marital conflict. What is most likely occurring to Mark? a. His heart rate and blood pressure are increasing. b. His self-esteem is decreasing rapidly. c. His endocrine system is slowing down. d. He anticipates a violence action to unfold.

123. Which statement best describes children’s relationships with their peers in middle childhood? a. They are superficial and short-lived. b. They may strive hard to gain acceptance from peers. c. They are based on trust and mutual understanding. d. They are focused on activities and shared interests.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 124. Erin is 8 years old. According to Erikson, Erin is in the industry versus inferiority stage. What will Erin need to do to successfully navigate this stage? a. She will need to master potty training. b. She will need to model the behaviour of her parents, as she strives for more independence. c. She will need to develop a sense of trust with a caregiver. d. She will need to develop her self-esteem as she draws more comparisons with others.

125. Which statement best represents the findings of research studies on teachers and sexism in the classroom? a. Teachers praise and criticize girls more than boys. b. Teachers call on girls more and ask them more questions. c. Teachers accept calling out in class more from boys than from girls. d. Teachers remind boys more than girls that they should raise their hands before speaking.

126. In what province did the Pink Shirt Day originate? a. Ontario b. British Columbia c. Alberta d. Nova Scotia 127. Ted has a school phobia. According to your textbook, which action should be taken? a. Ted should be provided with anti-anxiety medication until he readjusts. b. Ted should be provided with anti-anxiety medication for the remaining school period. c. Ted should return to school as quickly as possible. d. Ted’s concerns should be respected, and he should be allowed to set the timeline for his return to school.

128. Carol’s daughter is diagnosed with separation anxiety disorder. How would an expert explain this disorder to Carol? a. It is the same as school phobia. b. It is a milder form of separation anxiety. c. It affects approximately 25% of children and young adolescents. d. It can interfere with activities when it is persistent and excessive.

129. Jared is 6 years old. He is experiencing nausea and vomiting each morning before school. What is Jared most likely to have? a. separation anxiety disorder b. typical nervousness for a 6-year-old starting Grade 1 c. an ulcer due to marital conflict within the family d. a reaction to traumatic events taking place at school 130. Julia is in middle childhood. She is well-accepted by her peers and is considered to be popular. Which statement would most likely characterize Julia? a. She is a first-born. b. She is considered smart. c. She is small for her age d. She is boring

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 131. Who do middle childhood children indicate provides the best source of emotional support? a. peers b. parents c. teachers d. fathers 132. Which statement best characterizes the nature of peer rejection? a. It is more problematic for boys than for girls. b. It is stable and not easily changed. c. It is associated with increased independence later in life. d. It creates opportunities for children to become resilient.

133. How are depressed children most likely to interpret their failures? a. as internal b. as specific c. as unstable d. as undeserved 134. What parenting style is most likely to lead to children having low self-esteem? a. authoritarian parenting b. authoritative parenting c. permissive–neglecting parenting d. rejecting–indulgent parenting 135. What is the most common living arrangement for children following a parental divorce? a. Children live with their mother. b. Children live with their father. c. Parents participate in joint living arrangement, where children split their time equally between their parents. d. Children live with their mothers; however, fathers continue to participate in child rearing and visits, providing stability up to the adolescent years.

136. What did Sadker and Sadker observe with regards to the behaviour of boys and girls in the classroom? a. Boys were more likely to dominate discussions and girls were more likely to be reminded to raise their hands for a turn. b. Girls were found to be more dominant in discussions and boys were left silenced in most subject areas. c. Boys and girls displayed remarkably similar classroom behaviours with regards to calling out answers versus raising their hands. d. Boys were more likely to achieve higher grades even though girls were more likely to study longer.

137. What is the nature of most conflicts among middle childhood friends? a. minor and generally resolved positively b. unpredictable and long lasting c. significant and long lasting d. minor but rarely resolved 138. Which statement best describes the self-concept of 12-year-olds? a. It is less anchored in reality than the self-concept of teenagers. b. It tends to be more honest and critical. c. It is unrealistic. d. It is not yet solidified.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 139. When treating school phobia, what is the most important first step? a. treating the reasons for the fear b. getting the child back into school c. determining why the child is refusing to go to school d. involving the child and the parents in counselling 140. What is most likely to determine "friendship" for the typical 5-year-old? a. loyalty b. similarity c. proximity d. sharing of personal information 141. According to the textbook, what has been found to increase academic achievement? a. teachers who provide less structure and more cooperative unstructured learning b. teachers who allocate most of their time to extracurricular activities c. teachers who manage their classroom and create structure d. an increase in the ratio of male teachers to female teachers 142. Which statement best characterizes a child’s social world from age 6 to 12? a. It is stagnating. b. It is expanding. c. It is limited by prejudice. d. It is becoming more distorted.

143. Which of the following is a characteristic of depression in childhood? a. It is rare. b. It is typically caused by genetic problems. c. It is linked to larger family sizes. d. It is associated with sleep and appetite problems.

144. Which statement best describes depressed children? a. They are rare. b. They are often perfectionists and may become depressed when their own standards are unmet. c. They may mask their depression by excelling in academics. d. They will typically "outgrow" their depression by adolescence.

145. Which of the following would a child psychologist most likely state about depression in childhood? a. It is easy to recognize. b. It is more common among girls than among boys. c. It is more common among children from lower socioeconomic classes. d. It may be masked by behaviours such as conduct disorder and physical complaints.

146. What is the effect of physical attractiveness in children during middle childhood? a. It is more important for the popularity of boys than girls. b. It decreases the popularity of girls. c. It is related to increased social anxiety in children. d. It is associated with acceptance in a larger peer group.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 147. What would a psychotherapist be most likely to tell parents about the use of psychotherapy for treating depression in children? a. It is the most successful method available. b. It is mainly cognitive-behavioural in nature. c. It works quite well for girls, but not for boys. d. It relies predominantly on the use of medication.

148. Which statement is characteristic of the relationship between teacher expectations and student performance? a. High expectations tend to create high achievement. b. Low expectations tend to create surprise levels of achievement. c. Teachers who have more experience tend to have higher expectations. d. Only popular teachers can influence student performances.

149. Mary just celebrated her 12th birthday. What will most likely happen to her self-esteem? a. It will decline. b. It will become more solidified. c. It will become less differentiated. d. It will increase.

150. According to Piaget, what stage of cognitive development is associated with middle childhood? a. the preoperational stage b. the formal operations stage c. the concrete operations stage d. the summative operations stage 151. Which factor is related to high self-esteem during middle childhood? a. parents’ career b. urban or rural living c. involvement with extended family d. parenting style 152. Which child is most likely to have perspective-taking skills? a. a child who is more skilled at peer relations b. a child who has a less solidified sense of self c. an only-born child d. a child who has a more consolidated personality a. child's knowledge of the social world b. symbolizes intolerance of bullying c. heritability rate of depression in twin females d. wannabes e. sometimes expressed as school phobia f. tendency to blame oneself for failure g. sharp increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and sweating rise h. facilitates child's transition from home to school i. facilitates flexibility in children's gender-role stereotypes j. declines during middle childhood k. most likely to be headed by women l. % of children seriously depressed in a given year Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce m. number of children estimated to live in stepfamilies n. % of children estimated to have been bullied o. tendency to blame others for failure p. neurotransmitter possibly involved in depression q. gradual transfer of control from parent to child r. five stages of friendship s. occurs equally in girls and boys t. Erikson's view of children in middle childhood 153. Those on the outside of the popular group 154. “Alarm reaction” children experience when exposed to marital conflict 155. Maternal employment 156. 49% 157. 1 in 3 children 158. Self-esteem 159. Serotonin 160. Co-regulation 161. Selman 162. Industry vs. inferiority 163. Internal attribution 164. Lone-parent family 165. Depression 166. Diverse life experiences 167. Social cognition 168. 70 to 75% 169. Separation anxiety disorder 170. 5 to 9% 171. External attribution 172. Pink Shirt Day 173. How does self-esteem change during middle childhood?

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 174. Define and discuss the similarities and differences between cyberbullying and face-to-face bullying.

175. How can teachers help to motivate students to do their best in school?

176. How are children affected by their parents’ divorce?

177. How is the Holly dilemma used to assess perspective-taking abilities in children?

178. Describe peer relationships during the middle childhood years.

179. Describe the most common social and emotional problems of middle childhood.

180. Describe the effects of schools on child development.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 181. What happens to parent–child relationships during middle childhood?

182. Identify and describe Erikson’s Stage 4 of human development?

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. False 22. False 23. False 24. False 25. False 26. False

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 27. True 28. False 29. True 30. True 31. False 32. True 33. False 34. False 35. False 36. True 37. False 38. False 39. False 40. True 41. True 42. False 43. False 44. False 45. True 46. False 47. True 48. False 49. True 50. False 51. False 52. True 53. False 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 55. c 56. a 57. c 58. c 59. c 60. d 61. d 62. b 63. a 64. a 65. c 66. a 67. d 68. b 69. a 70. b 71. c 72. a 73. d 74. b 75. a 76. c 77. a 78. b 79. a 80. d 81. a 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 83. b 84. d 85. b 86. d 87. a 88. d 89. b 90. c 91. d 92. c 93. a 94. d 95. b 96. c 97. d 98. d 99. b 100. d 101. c 102. c 103. c 104. c 105. a 106. b 107. c 108. d 109. c 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 111. a 112. b 113. b 114. d 115. d 116. b 117. d 118. d 119. b 120. b 121. c 122. a 123. c 124. d 125. c 126. d 127. c 128. d 129. a 130. b 131. b 132. b 133. a 134. a 135. a 136. a 137. a

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 138. b 139. b 140. c 141. c 142. b 143. d 144. b 145. d 146. d 147. b 148. a 149. a 150. c 151. d 152. a 153. d 154. g 155. i 156. c 157. m 158. j 159. p 160. q 161. r 162. t 163. f 164. k 165. s Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 166. h 167. a 168. n 169. e 170. l 171. o 172. b 173. During middle childhood, children become more realistic in their self-appraisals of their abilities. During early childhood, children tend to be unrealistic, praising themselves regardless of their actual performance. Children during middle childhood also tend to differentiate the different areas of their abilities, evidenced by their ability to understand that while they may excel in one area, they may not excel in a second area.

174. By definition, bullying involves an imbalance of power and harm toward another that is repeated over time. In the past these behaviours have been labelled a “normal part of growing up” but more current research has identified several serious, long-term consequences of bullying that include anxiety, depression and school issues.

Cyberbullying involves the use of technology to engage in the harassing behaviour including spreading rumours, making threats, and posting unflattering images. Statistics gathered in 2018 indicate that one in three Canadian youth are cyberbullied and one in four engages in cyberbullying.

The differences between cyberbullying and face-to-face bullying include the fact that those who use technology can do so without having to face the victim and they are able to reach a larger audience than would be the case with face-to-face bullying.

The hurtful comments and images used in cyberbullying attacks remain in existence long after the incident and may surface much later resulting in continued victimization or revictimization. The longevity of these online cyberbullying activities is also harmful for the bully to the extent that they may resurface long after the individual has grown up and learned more prosocial relationship skills.

175. Some research has shown that teachers who expect children to do well in school tend to have students who perform well, compared with those children whose teachers expect little of them. Teachers can also use several strategies to help their students perform well: provide lessons that are interesting and inviting; provide opportunities to students to profit from social interaction, both with peers and with teachers who will be role models; provide a safe and pleasant classroom; understand the unique backgrounds of students and that the students may have unique needs; help students to take appropriate responsibility for their successes and failures, linking their efforts with their achievements; help students to set attainable short-term goals; and understand how teachers can affect how students reach these goals.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 176. The effects of divorce on children can range from affecting day-to-day functioning to having long-term effects. Dayto-day activities can be disrupted by changes in which parent is present and whether the family does activities as a whole. The child may experience increased stress if the parents do not get along and they have visible conflict. The amount of time the children see their parents may decrease, both because one parent (often the father) may have non-custodial rights, and because one or both parents may need to work more to maintain their standard of living. It is not uncommon for the family to be plunged into financial disarray or even poverty. Long-term effects on children may include reduced self-esteem and severe behavioural problems, such as conduct disorders, drug abuse, and poor grades in school. Physical health may also decline. The first year following the divorce is typically the worst.

177. A child is told that Holly’s father asked her not to climb a tree after he saw her falling from a tree. In the story, Holly’s friend’s kitten gets stuck in a tree and Holly has to decide what to tell her father. The children’s responses to the story are assessed in terms of the level of egocentrism and the ability to take the perspectives of other individuals in the story. Less mature responses tend to focus on egocentric responses to the story, whereas more mature responses show the child’s ability to focus on multiple relationships.

178. Peers take on increasing importance in middle childhood. Peers assist in the socialization of children, leading to the enhanced development of important social skills such as sharing, cooperation, and coping strategies. Peer rejection is related to behavioural and learning problems.

179.

Conduct disorder, depression, and separation anxiety are serious childhood conditions that can impair social and emotional functioning. Children with conduct disorders break rules and violate the rights of others. These children may also engage in truancy and cruelty to animals. Conduct disorder shows a great deal of stability across time.

Children with this disorder are more likely to develop substance abuse problems and to display antisocial behaviour as adults. Treatment of conduct disorder has largely been unsuccessful, but new cognitive-behavioural techniques are showing some promise. Childhood depression affects an estimated 5 to 9% of children in any given year.

Situational stressors, such as family problems, appear to contribute dramatically to depression in middle childhood.

The most common anxiety disorder of middle childhood is separation anxiety disorder. The typical manifestation of this disorder is school phobia. Although some incidents of school phobia are related to problems at school or difficulty with classmates, often these incidents relate to stressful life changes.

180. Generally, schools are a positive influence in a child's life, particularly schools that set high expectations for students and value mature behaviour. Competitiveness in school, however, can have detrimental effects on children. Many children who do not attend formal pre-kindergarten programs may have difficulty making the transition from home to school. Students’ educational success is influenced by the diversity and inequity of children's early life experiences, individual differences in children's learning, and the degree to which schools establish reasonable expectations for children.

181. In middle childhood, control begins to be transferred from parent to child. This transition period is known as coregulation. Many children born to married parents will experience being raised in a single-parent family at some point in their lives. Generally, schools and peers take on increased importance in the child's life, yet most children report that parents continue to be an importance source of emotional support. Children who experience divorce may experience negative consequences including conduct disorders, a decline in school performance, and lowered selfesteem. However, most children rebound after a few years. Any lasting impacts are more likely a result of factors such as parental conflict that were present prior to the divorce. Maternal employment, long feared to have severe negative consequences for children, appears to not have such dramatic negative effects. Some research shows that children whose mothers work outside the home are better adjusted than those whose mothers work in the home.

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Chap_10_HDEV_4ce 182. Erikson’s Stage 4 of development is Industry vs. Inferiority, which includes ages 6–11 years. In this stage, children become more capable, and they can master additional layers of personality and face new developmental challenges.

Children’s lives become more focused on learning, creating, and accomplishing a variety of new skills and knowledge, which results in a sense of industry. Children begin to look outward to compare themselves with their peers. This constant social comparison can result in unresolved feelings of inadequacy and even inferiority. Ability and self-esteem are at the forefront of this psychosocial challenge to be a productive and important member of the group. Parents are no longer the only authority in the life of their child, whose world grows in size with the introduction of the classroom, peers, and more unsupervised play experiences.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The personal fable of adolescents may be linked with risky behaviour. a. True b. False 2. The ovaries, vagina, uterus, and fallopian tubes are primary sex characteristics of females. a. True b. False 3. The personal fable is another example of adolescent egocentrism. a. True b. False 4. Most males stop gaining in height at approximately age 20. a. True b. False 5. Boys reach puberty, on average, earlier than girls. a. True b. False 6. Genetic differences alone have been shown to account for gender differences in mathematical and language abilities. a. True b. False 7. "Everyone is watching what I do" is an example of a personal fable. a. True b. False 8. Adolescents may be awkward and gawky due to asynchronous growth a. True b. False 9. In Canada, the rate of high-school dropouts has increased significantly since the 1990s. a. True b. False 10. Delinquency and substance abuse are linked to dropping out of school. a. True b. False

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 11. Most middle-schoolers show an increase in self-esteem and academic achievement when switching from elementary school. a. True b. False 12. While girls add more height during puberty on average than boys, boys add more fat on average than girls. a. True b. False 13. Eating disorders are related to feelings of depression. a. True b. False 14. The secondary sex characteristics of boys develop simultaneously. a. True b. False 15. Most teenagers in Canada get enough vitamins and minerals in their diets. a. True b. False 16. Anorexia nervosa is associated with severe weight loss and extreme fear of gaining weight. a. True b. False 17. Formal operational thinking involves abstract and hypothetical concepts. a. True b. False 18. The secular trend is increasing in Canada. a. True b. False 19. Bulimia nervosa is characterized by recurrent cycles of binge eating and purging a. True b. False 20. Deepening of the voice is a secondary sex characteristic. a. True b. False 21. In preconventional morality, children base moral judgments on the consequences of their behaviour. a. True b. False

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 22. Girls are usually fertile immediately after their first menstrual period. a. True b. False 23. Postconventional morality requires formal operational thinking. a. True b. False 24. Gonads include the ovaries and testes. a. True b. False 25. By age 14, most adolescents demonstrate postconventional moral reasoning. a. True b. False 26. Estrogen stimulates breast and fatty tissue growth in females. a. True b. False 27. In Kohlberg's stages of moral reasoning, morality is judged based on whether or not one follows the rules. a. True b. False 28. Very few teens report having had conversations with their parents about the dangers of misusing prescription drugs. a. True b. False 29. Whereas estrogen levels remain stable throughout puberty, levels of testosterone vary dramatically each month during puberty. a. True b. False 30. Early maturing girls are less anxious and more confident than their peers. a. True b. False 31. Moral reasoning and moral behaviour are unrelated. a. True b. False 32. Puberty is defined as development between the ages of 13 and 18. a. True b. False

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 33. Mature sperm are found in the ejaculate of most boys by around age 10. a. True b. False 34. Holland’s career typology showed the link between success in a career and one’s motivation levels. a. True b. False 35. Forty percent of adolescent deaths are due to accidents. a. True b. False 36. The secular trend is historical trend toward increasing adult height and an earlier onset of puberty. a. True b. False 37. Eating disorders are more common among males than females. a. True b. False 38. Of the teens reporting having used or abused prescription drugs, 20% did so before age 14. a. True b. False 39. The concept of the imaginary audience is actively demonstrated by youth during adolescents. a. True b. False 40. Levels of body fat may trigger the onset of puberty in girls. a. True b. False 41. Body image and self-esteem are unrelated in adolescence. a. True b. False 42. Estrogen is responsible for acne problems during adolescence. a. True b. False 43. Early maturing boys tend to be more popular than later-maturing boys. a. True b. False

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 44. Early maturing girls tend to have higher academic achievement. a. True b. False 45. The most consistent gender difference in adolescence is that boys outperform girls in math. a. True b. False 46. No evidence exists to support Kohlberg’s view that the moral judgments of children develop in an upward sequence. a. True b. False 47. On average, boys develop language skills earlier than girls. a. True b. False 48. Research on Kohlberg’s theory has shown no cultural variations in moral reasoning. a. True b. False 49. Research has shown that adolescent employment has only detrimental effects on those who work. a. True b. False 50. During puberty, the hypothalamus signals the pituitary gland to release hormones that control physical growth and the gonads a. True b. False 51. Understanding metaphors is possible with concrete operational thought. a. True b. False 52. Many teen deaths are a result of high-risk behaviours. a. True b. False 53. There are no disadvantages to being an early-maturing boy. a. True b. False 54. Adolescence is a time of storm and stress for most adolescents. a. True b. False

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

55. Which activity can formal-operational thinkers perform that they may not have been as skilled at during their younger years? a. solve mathematical equations with consistent accuracy b. describe their feelings c. engage in conversation with more than one person d. consider various ideas and systematically analyze them 56. Jason has noticed that his penis has just gone through a growth spurt. According to the textbook what other bodily changes has Jason likely already experienced? a. accelerated growth of the testes b. accelerated growth of the testes and underarm hair c. facial hair and underarm hair d. voice deepening 57. According to the text, which substance is most commonly used by teens? a. LSD b. marijuana c. alcohol d. ecstasy 58. Which statement best describes girls’ development at puberty? a. The pituitary gland signals the ovaries to significantly increase estrogen production. b. Androgens stimulate growth of the breasts. c. Estrogen levels determine the darkness and amount of facial hair. d. Estrogen causes the clitoris to develop.

59. Which question type is involved in concrete operational thinking? a. What is? b. What might be? c. Why? d. When?

60. Who referred to adolescence as a time of "storm and stress”? a. Hall b. Freud c. Piaget d. Erikson 61. Which of the following best characterizes boys who mature early? a. They experience only positive implications of early maturation. b. They are more likely to be aggressive and delinquent. c. They tend not to be as bright as later-maturing boys. d. They tend to be less popular with their peers but more valued by adults.

62. What is one of the two main predictors of a school dropout? a. being from a rural area b. being from a small family c. reading below grade level d. poor problem-solving ability

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 63. What is considered to be the first noticeable sign of puberty in males? a. deepening of the voice b. accelerated growth of the testes c. accelerated growth of the penis d. appearance of underarm hair 64. Chris has matured early. Other youth gather around and admire Chris. Which of the following can we guess about Chris? a. Chris is most likely male. b. Chris is most likely female. c. Chris must live in a country other than Canada. d. Chris must have experienced a great deal of childhood stress.

65. Which term refers to an adolescent boy experiencing temporary enlargement of the breasts? a. endomastisis b. gynecomastia c. epiphyseal closure d. mammary engorgement 66. What eating disorder is characterized by cycles of bingeing and purging? a. anorexia b. bulimia c. nervosa d. enuresis 67. Which statement best describes a characteristic of eating disorders? a. Eating disorders are unique to northern climates. b. Rates of eating disorders have declined with the advent of social media. c. Teenagers believe others are paying more attention to their appearance than is true. d. Eating disorders are associated with those tested in the gifted IQ range.

68. Which of the following control puberty through a complex feedback loop? a. the thalamus, hypothalamus, and reticular formation b. the hypothalamus, pituitary gland, gonads, and hormones c. the frontal lobe, the hypothalamus, the amygdala, and the brainstem d. the cerebral cortex, the gonads, the cerebellum, and the angular gyrus 69. Why do men aged 20 to 21 stop growing taller? a. Testosterone causes epiphyseal closure. b. The hypothalamus triggers a reduction in cortisol production. c. The thalamus signals a reduction in the development of calcium. d. The production of estrogen keeps the bones from growing any longer.

70. Olivia is worried about what to wear today, and she is convinced that her girlfriends are also thinking about her clothes. What term describes Olivia’s worries? a. a personal fable b. concrete thinking c. deductive reasoning d. the imaginary audience

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 71. Precocious puberty (PP) is happening more often in Canada. What is PP? a. the onset of puberty before age 5 or 6 in girls, and before age 7 in boys b. the onset of puberty before age 7 or 8 in girls, and before age 9 in boys c. the onset of puberty before age 9 or 10 in girls, and before age 11 in boys d. the onset of puberty before after 12 or 13 in girls, and before age 14 in boys 72. Which of the following best represents the secular trend? a. The onset of puberty occurs later than in past generations. b. There has been a historical trend toward increasing adult height. c. Individuals having a longer life span than those in previous generations. d. Growth rates are culturally driven, depending on religious and cultural lifestyle and diet.

73. According to the textbook, which strategy is suggested to assist adolescents to develop healthy eating habits? a. Eat more than 3 meals per day. b. Attend nutritional workshops offered in the community. c. Count calories and stay within the required zone. d. Pack a healthy lunch the night before school.

74. Adolescents can think ahead and systematically try out various possibilities in their minds. Which of the following is this ability related to? a. hypothesis testing b. a higher level of egocentrism c. a greater number of cognitive mistakes d. less monitoring of individual behaviour 75. Which question involves hypothetical thinking? a. Who is? b. What might be? c. Where? d. Why? 76. What causes the clitoris to develop during puberty? a. the pituitary gland b. androgens c. the amygdala d. the adrenal glands 77. Jane has been struggling with anorexia. According to your textbook, what percentage of her weight could Jane have lost over the course of the past year? a. 10 b. 15 c. 25 d. 35 78. What is the approximate mortality rate for girls with anorexia? a. 1 to 2% b. 2 to 3% c. 4 to 5% d. 6 to 7% 79. What can result from being able to imagine many possible outcomes? a. more narrow-minded thinking b. anxiety c. catastrophic thinking d. clarity

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 80. Gina and David are both 12 years old. Given what we know about adolescent height and weight growth spurts, what do you expect to find regarding Gina and David? a. David is taller than Gina. b. Gina is taller than David. c. David weighs more than Gina. d. Both have the same height and weight; neither has entered into height or weight growth spurts.

81. What causes the vagina to develop during puberty? a. the pituitary gland b. the adrenal glands c. estrogen d. genetics 82. Girls and boys reach their periods of peak growth in height after the growth spurt begins. How long after the growth spurt is peak growth reached? a. 6 months b. 1 year c. 2 years d. 4 years 83. Which of the following is an example of a primary sex characteristic? a. developing breast b. pubic hair c. underarm hair d. seminal vesicles 84. Julia is an adolescent who screams at her mother, "You just don't understand me." Which of the following is most likely represented by Julia’s outburst? a. the personal fable b. low self-esteem c. self-uncertainty d. the imaginary audience 85. Which of the following is a sex hormone? a. androgen b. indogen c. endogen d. oxytocin 86. Which of the following appears to trigger the production of higher levels of estrogen associated with the initiation of puberty in girls? a. a low body weight b. fat cells secreting a protein that signals the brain c. regular, healthy eating habits d. testosterone secreted by the pituitary gland 87. Which statment best captures the nature of self-harm among Canadian adolescents? a. Almost all Canadian children engage in self-harm. b. Boys tend to exhibit more self-harming behaviours than girls.. c. The majority of hospitalizations tend to be 14-17-year-old girls. d. It has been declining in prevalence since 2011.

88. In formal-operational thought, which of the following concepts do adolescents discover? a. "who is" b. "what was" c. "what might be" d. “how was” Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 89. Which statement best represents the concept of personal fable? a. It is an enhanced feeling of vulnerability that often accompanies adolescence. b. It is the belief that one's feelings and ideas are special and unique. c. It involves the belief that they are misunderstood. d. It is an increased belief in magic, creatures, and other fantasy concepts during adolescence.

90. What is a major achievement of formal operational thinking? a. conservation b. putting objects in order c. idea production d. hypothetical thought 91. What is the relationship between the timing of the growth spurt and height at maturity? a. Children who spurt early tend to be long-legged. b. Children who spurt late tend to be short-legged. c. For many adolescents, the spurt in weight follows the spurt in height. d. Those who spurt early tend to end up taller at maturity.

92. Which of the following is a trigger in the development of acne? a. excess stress b. production of testosterone c. poor hygiene during adolescence d. eating sweet foods such as chocolate 93. Which of the following statements characterizes the adolescent and hypothetical thinking? a. It is random. b. It is systematic. c. It is seldom used. d. It is without consequence.

94. Which statement best represents the occurrence of the secular trend in height and weight? a. It is found worldwide. b. It is beginning to disappear in all countries. c. It has been documented in Canada only. d. It has been documented in Canada and in nearly all European countries.

95. Which disorder is characterized by an intense fear of being overweight and is accompanied by an aversion to eating enough to maintain a healthy weight? a. anorexia b. bulimia c. nervosa d. enuresis 96. What tends to be the relationship between moral cognitive development and moral behaviour? a. It tends to be a positive relationship. b. It tends to be an inverse relationship. c. It tends to be positive for females, but inverse for males. d. It tends to be a reciprocal relationship.

97. As children mature, how do their career aspirations compare with their earlier years? a. They are more rigid. b. They are more diverse. c. They are more realistic. d. They are more conservative.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 98. According to the text, what is the current trend for high school dropout rates? a. increasing for males who live in rural areas b. remaining steady for the past decade c. increasing along with substance abuse d. declining along with teenage pregnancy rates 99. According to studies cited in the textbook, which of the following resulted when delinquents held group discussions of moral dilemmas? a. Moral reasoning reduced. b. Moral reasoning increased. c. Moral behaviour reduced. d. Moral behaviour increased.

100. Jean has a relatively larger proportion of fatty tissue than muscle. What can we reasonably infer from this information? a. Jean is male. b. Jean is obese c. Jean is female. d. Jean is consuming an unbalanced diet.

101. According to contemporary research, adolescence is now viewed as a time of which of the following? a. storm and stress b. relative stability c. immense unhappiness d. biological, cognitive, social, and emotional changes 102. In which of the following tasks are gender differences most noticeable? a. recitation tasks b. memorization tasks c. mental rotation tasks d. addition and subtraction 103. During adolescence, what do girls gain almost twice as much of, compared with boys? a. fatty tissue b. muscle tissue c. height d. weight 104. According to the textbook, which statement best explains why adolescents might demonstrate an intense desire for privacy? a. They are impatient with their parents’ nagging. b. They are experimenting with alcohol and drugs. c. They are concerned about the imaginary audience. d. They have constructed their personal fable.

105. Which statement best describes the nutritional requirements of active, adolescent boys? a. They should increase their caloric intake to more than 5000 calories per day to thrive. b. They are able to consume more than 3000 calories per day without gaining weight. c. They should monitor their fat intake in order to avoid obesity. d. They are able to sustain activity on a diet of less than 2000 calories per day.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 106. What is the pace of adolescent physical growth? a. It occurs more rapidly than at any point after birth, except for the first year of life. b. It is slower than growth during early childhood. c. It slows down overall despite the visible physical changes that occur. d. It is steady and even for both genders until the late teen years.

107. According to the textbook, how do most 18-year-old Canadian males and females feel about their bodies? a. They are satisfied with their bodies. b. They generally feel as though they are heavier than they need to be. c. Males are more satisfied than females. d. Females are more satisfied than males.

108. Alexis realizes that she does NOT need to believe in the truth or justice of something in order to argue for it.

What can we assume about Alexis? a. She is in the stage of formal operations. b. She is likely to be 10 years old. c. She is in the stage of concrete operations. d. She is in the stage of abstract operations.

109. What percentage of 16-year-olds can be expected to reach Stage 6 moral reasoning? a. 5 b. 20 c. 50 d. 95 110. Which of the following is the primary significance of puberty? a. developing conflict with parents b. learning social cues c. being able to drive d. having the ability to reproduce 111. What accounts for the greatest percentage of unintentional deaths among adolescents? a. car accidents b. suicides c. unintentional drug overdoses d. undetected heart defects 112. What distinguishes late-maturing boys from early maturing boys? a. They may feel dominated by early maturing boys. b. They are intellectually superior to early maturing boys. c. They experience more benefits than early maturing boys. d. They tend to have poorer senses of humour than early maturing boys.

113. Pierre is participating in demonstrations and other forms of civil disobedience against fur dealers because he truly believes it is wrong to kill animals for their fur. At which stage of morality is Pierre most likely to be? a. stage 3 b. stage 4 c. stage 5 d. stage 6 114. What stops the female growth spurt during adolescence? a. estrogen b. testosterone c. the onset of menstruation d. completion of breast development

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 115. According to Kohlberg, what has the strongest influence on moral development? a. age b. social development c. cognitive development d. emotional development 116. Which of the following is a variable that would make the transition to high school especially difficult? a. family size b. birth order c. being male d. being female 117. How does the self-image of 18-year-old girls compare with the self-image of 18-year-old boys? a. The girls are less likely to diet than the boys. b. The girls report lower levels of depression than the boys. c. The girls report more negative body images than the boys. d. The girls report higher levels of body satisfaction than the boys.

118. Which statement best characterizes formal operations? a. The concept was proposed by Erikson. b. Most people reach this stage by age 7 or 8. c. It is a stage in Jean Piaget’s theory. d. It is generally achieved by age 25, following the development of the cerebrum.

119. How are parents most likely to respond to an early maturing girl? a. They may become more restrictive and vigilant. b. The response depends upon the ethnicity of the parents. c. They treat them as if they are younger than they actually are. d. They treat them as if they were adults because they look grown up.

120. Jim and John are both 17, and both are 180 cm tall. What can we conclude about Jim and John and their growth spurts? a. They both experienced the growth spurt late. b. They both experienced the growth spurt early. c. They are very likely to be biologically related. d. We know nothing about the growth spurts of these young men.

121. Which of the following is an example of asynchronous growth? a. the early onset of puberty b. the head reaching peak size before the torso c. the shoulders and chest reaching peak growth before the legs d. the hands and feet reaching peak growth before the arms and legs 122. Which of the following words is associated with Kohlberg's stage 6 morality? a. contract b. authority c. obedience d. reciprocity

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 123. Which statement best characterizes bulimia? a. It is another name for anorexia. b. It is related to irregular menstrual cycles. c. It is an eating disorder found more often in men than in women. d. It affects older women more often than adolescents or young women.

124. Which statement best characterizes early maturing girls, compared with later-maturing girls? a. They have higher self-esteem than later-maturing girls. b. They achieve higher grades than their later-maturing counterparts. c. They have fewer conduct problems than later-maturing girls. d. They more likely to engage in sexual activity than later-maturing girls.

125. Jan is having trouble getting a date because Jan is taller than adolescents of the opposite sex. Which of the following are we most likely to assume about Jan? a. Jan is most likely a male. b. Jan is most likely a female. c. Jan is most likely from a country other than Canada. d. Jan is considered a late bloomer 126. Which statement best describes the timing of the adolescent growth spurt begins? a. Girls start earlier. b. Boys start earlier. c. The timing depends on parental height. d. The timing depends on the degree of physical activity.

127. According to Piaget’s cognitive-developmental theory, why should students wait until high school before studying geometry? a. Children in earlier grades are unable handle the concrete nature of the problems. b. Geometry requires abstract thinking which may be difficult for younger children. c. Geometry requires conservation of mass, which is a difficult concept for younger children. d. Geometry requires the concept of the imaginary audience, which is not achieved until adolescence.

128. Which statement best characterizes females who have anorexia? a. They are uncommon. b. They tend to be of lower socioeconomic status. c. They can lose 25% or more of their body weight in one year. d. They show no other health indicators other than their weight loss.

129. What is the basis of moral reasoning in Kohlberg’s postconventional level? a. messages taught in the education system b. the power of authority figures c. one’s own moral standards d. standards set within the religious realm

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 130. Which of the following factors contributes to adolescents developing eating disorders? a. females and males becoming competitive over the attention of others b. a cultural emphasis on slimness c. a hormone burst that creates a body distortion in adolescents d. the desire to please parents who expect perfection in their children 131. Which statement best describes the impact of asynchronous growth? a. Terry and Tom are both larger than their parents. b. Sarah is taller than her brother. c. Jeremy’s pants fit him, but he continues to outgrow his shirts. d. Tonya’s clothing is too large on her.

132. According to Piaget, what stage represents the most advanced level of thinking? a. the sensorimotor stage b. the preoperational stage c. the concrete operations stage d. the formal operations stage 133. Jeremy is 16 years old and drives recklessly. He tells his friends, "Other people have accidents, not me." What does this type of thinking represent? a. utopian thinking b. the personal fable c. abstract reasoning d. the imaginary audience 134. According to recent research cited in your textbook, how do boys’ and girls’ mathematical abilities differ? a. Girls outperform boys from an early age. b. There are no gender differences in understanding math concepts at any age c. Boys outperform girls from an early age. d. Boys have less aptitude in mathematical word problems in high school and college.

135. John and his classmates are considering their career decisions. Why might hypothetical thinking lead to anxiety for John and some of his classmates? a. They fear success. b. They can imagine failure. c. Hypothetical thinking tends to be negative. d. They envision having to choose only one of many options.

136. Which statement best describes teenage employment? a. It can be detrimental to school performance. b. Working adolescents are significantly less likely to get into trouble. c. It correlates with good grades; as work hours increase, so do school grades. d. Working longer hours is related to a decreased likelihood of ingesting drugs and alcohol.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 137. Which statement best describes adolescents’ nutritional needs? a. Adolescents need twice as much calcium as adults need, but only half as much vitamin A. b. Adolescents often do not receive as much nutrition as they need. c. Adolescents need fewer vitamins and minerals compared with young children. d. Adolescents require less calcium as adults, but more iron.

138. What activity is a defining characteristic of a person who has bulimia? a. excessive dieting b. excessive exercising c. binge eating and purging d. preoccupation with food 139. Jennifer has bulimia. When is she most likely to experience binge eating? a. following food restriction, such as dieting b. following physical exercise c. prior to a date d. following an emotionally painful experience 140. What term refers to a progressive loss of bone? a. menopause b. osteoporosis c. progressive bone disease d. calcium deficiency syndrome 141. Which of the following behaviours best illustrates the personal fable? a. preening and working out physically b. commitment to continual academic pursuits c. showing off and taking risks d. challenging parental norms and morals 142. What factor does Holland's Career Typology match with careers? a. IQ b. personality traits c. educational attainment d. a tendency to be materialistic 143. Jennifer, who is 8 years old, is thinking at the concrete operational level. Which of the following best explains why Jennifer might have difficulty with X + Y = 7? a. She cannot think logically. b. She cannot think abstractly. c. She cannot use conservation. d. She cannot think of two dimensions at the same time.

144. Which of the following is a common feature of bulimia? a. increased testosterone levels b. taking extra vitamins c. overuse of laxatives d. constipation

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 145. Which statement best describes the findings related to youth dropping out of school? a. It is unrelated to delinquent behaviour. b. It is related to below-average reading skills. c. European-Americans are more likely to drop out. d. Females are more likely to drop out than males.

146. Unintentional injury is the number one cause of death for adolescents. Approximately what percentage of adolescent deaths each year result from unintentional injury? a. 15 b. 35 c. 55 d. 75 147. What term refers to the first menstruation? a. menarche b. initial period c. nocturnal emission d. menstrual activation 148. Which of the following distinguishes girls’ and boys’ verbal abilities? a. Girls tend to score lower on verbal ability tests than boys. b. Girls tend to score higher on verbal ability tests than boys. c. Girls are biologically inferior verbally compared with boys. d. Girls are biologically superior verbally compared with boys.

149. What is the function of the gonads? a. They secrete oxytocin. c. They deactivate the hypothalamus.

b. They produce sex hormones. d. They signal the pituitary gland.

150. What is the relationship between gender and cognitive abilities during adolescence? a. Females are superior in mathematics. b. Males score higher on tests of visual–spatial ability. c. Males score higher on overall intelligence measures. d. Females score higher on overall intelligence measures.

151. Kelly has been diagnosed as having anorexia nervosa. Which of the following is a major factor of her eating disorder? a. denial and distortion b. denial and depression c. distortion and anxiety d. anxiety and depression 152. In 2004–05, approximately how many Canadian children ages 15 to 17 held a job? a. 25% b. 30% c. 45% d. 55%

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 153. Monica is debating whether to let her 16-year-old son get a part-time job. Based on the information noted in the textbook, what is the best advice for Monica? a. Adding a job to an adolescent’s list of responsibilities could be overwhelming and detrimental to school success. b. A job can be beneficial when the hours are limited to fewer than 10 per week. c. Beginning to earn money early is critical for future stability. d. Youths can benefit from the experience the feeling of job security.

154. At what age does the average girl begin the adolescent growth spurt? a. 9½ b. 10½ c. 11½ d. 12½ 155. What is the impact of cultural ideals of body size and shape on most adolescent males? a. They are satisfied with their bodies. b. They perceive themselves as needing to lose weight. c. They perceive themselves as not being muscular enough. d. They would generally like to be taller.

156. Which phrase best captures Western thoughts about female body shape? a. What you see is what you get. b. Muscles matter. c. Slim is in. d. Height is revered.

157. How does Piaget’s theory conceive of adolescents in the formal operations stage? a. They are scattered thinkers driven by hormones. b. They are becoming more egotistical. c. They are works in progress. d. They have reached cognitive maturity.

158. Which statement characterizes an “imaginary audience”? a. It is a common thought process used during middle childhood, but it disappears by adolescence. b. It is part of adolescents’ belief system that one’s thoughts and emotions are special and unique. c. It causes adolescents to think they are surrounded by critics more than by admirers. d. It leads to distortion of body image and eating disorders in adolescent boys.

159. Which of the following is impacted by high school completion? a. the likelihood that one will marry b. the involvement in sports as adults c. the age at which women have their first child d. the number of friendships one has later in life

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 160. Which of the following most frequently accompanies the transition from elementary school to junior high? a. an increase in grades b. an increase in self-esteem c. greater participation in school activities d. a decrease in grades, school activities, and self-esteem 161. At what age does the average boy begin the adolescent growth spurt? a. 10 b. 13 c. 14 d. 15 162. According to Piaget, at what stage can children understand metaphors? a. during formal operations b. during concrete operations c. during preoperational thought d. at the end of the sensorimotor period 163. Which of the following is an example of a secondary sex characteristic? a. breast development b. testes development c. maturation of the fallopian tubes d. seminal vesicles 164. Which of the following theorists suggested that adolescents imagine that other people are more concerned with their appearance and behaviour than is the reality? a. Bell and Bromnick b. Elkind c. Skinner d. Erickson 165. Approximately what percentage of teens misuse or abuse prescription drugs? a. 25 b. 8 c. 15 d. 30 166. According to Holland, socially oriented people, who tend to be outgoing and are concerned for social welfare, gravitate toward occupations in which fields? a. teaching and counselling b. the visual and performing arts c. government and social organizations d. university teaching and research positions 167. According to research findings, which students are most likely to drop out of school? a. those who live in rural areas b. those who adopt adult roles at a young age c. those who are young for their grade d. those who adopt adult roles later in life 168. What would Kohlberg say is the basis of moral judgments at the postconventional level? a. one’s ego b. the moral values of one’s parents c. laws and rules d. personal moral standards 169. Which of the following is associated with early maturation in boys? a. intellectual deficits b. enhanced self-worth c. increased immaturity d. childhood stress levels Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 170. According to Canadian statistics, what percentage of Canadians believe that eating disorders are a choice? a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 171. Nathan is given Erector sets and Lego to play with. On measurements of visual–spatial ability, he outperforms all of his sisters (even those who are older). Which of the following might be suggested by his visual–spatial ability? a. Nathan’s success is the result of his keen interest and has little to do with ability. b. Playing with stereotypical "boy" toys enhances natural abilities. c. Nathan, like other boys, is simply better at these tasks than his sisters. d. Stereotypical "boy" toys may provide more experience with visual–spatial tasks.

172. What regulates the menstrual cycle? a. phases of the month that coincide with lunar phases b. changes in estrogen levels c. the presence or absence of androgens d. fat cells secreting a protein that signals the brain 173. At what age, on average, do adolescent girls’ breasts begin to enlarge then typically reach their full size? a. age 9 to 12½ b. age 9 to 15½ c. age 10 to 12½ d. age 10 to 14½ 174. What is dysmenorrhea? a. the onset of breast growth (budding) b. the discharge of clear white fluid from the vagina c. menstrual pain d. a specific odour produced by the sweat glands at the onset of puberty 175. Which statement best describes transitioning from elementary school to high school? a. Grades increase as the young person transitions to high school. b. Dropout rates for youth entering high school are higher than ever before. c. The transition to high school is the most positive time in most adolescents’ lives. d. Girls have a more difficult time than boys.

176. According to Kohlberg, what level of moral development is exhibited by adolescents? a. the pre-conventional level b. the postconventional level c. the pre-conscience level d. the post-conscience level 177. Sara’s daughter is starting to experience the beginning stages of puberty and is alarmed that one of her breasts is slightly bigger than the other. What should Sara tell her daughter about this? a. A trip to the doctor is in order to make sure that it is not cancer. b. It is perfectly normal for breasts to grow unevenly. c. While breasts may grow slower or faster for different people, they should always grow at the same rate. d. Uneven breast growth is usually a sign of early onset diabetes.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 178. Which of the following is most likely to enhance visual–spatial abilities? a. playing sports b. reading c. baking d. story telling 179. According to the textbook, when was adolescence first recognized as a distinct stage of human development? a. when Freud developed the first human development theory b. in the 19th century by European North Americans c. in 1904 by Stanley Hall d. in the 1960s by Eric Erickson a. testes b. conflict with parents c. physical changes indicating reproductive capacity d. intense fear of being overweight e. imaginary audience f. breast development g. can engage in hypothetical thinking h. painful menstruation i. storm and stress j. early maturing girl k. binge–purge cycle l. career matched to personality m.early onset of puberty in Western countries m. CHOICE BLANK n. early maturing boy o. boys tend to outperform girls p. transition from childhood to adulthood q. often accompanied by a decrease in grades and self-esteem r. average female adolescent height gain per year s. hands and feet grow faster than arms and legs t. feeling the need to be “punished” 180. Holland’s career typology 181. Self-confident 182. Primary sex characteristic 183. adolescents 184. Bulimia 185. self-harm 186. Secular trend 187. "Everyone cares what I am thinking" 188. G. Stanley Hall Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 189. Puberty 190. Anorexia 191. Transition to a new school 192. Three inches 193. Self-conscious 194. Dysmenorrhea 195. Secondary sex characteristic 196. Formal operations 197. Asynchronous growth 198. Mental rotation 199. Adolescence 200. Describe G. Stanley Hall’s views of adolescent development?

201. What are the characteristics of moral development in adolescence?

202. What are the pros and cons of high school students having part-time jobs?

203. How healthy are the nutrition habits of today's adolescents? What are eating disorders?

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 204. What do the recent statistics suggest regarding death and injuries among Canadian adolescents? What are the leading causes of death among adolescents in Canada?

205. What is school like for the adolescent?

206. What are the sex differences in cognitive abilities in adolescence?

207. What is puberty? What are the results of puberty and how do they differ from adolescence?

208. What are the drug and alcohol habits of Canadian adolescents?

209. Describe adolescent cognitive development.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. True 14. False 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. True 22. False 23. True 24. True 25. False 26. True

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 27. False 28. True 29. False 30. False 31. False 32. False 33. False 34. False 35. False 36. True 37. False 38. True 39. True 40. True 41. False 42. False 43. True 44. False 45. False 46. False 47. False 48. False 49. False 50. True 51. False 52. True 53. False 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 55. d 56. a 57. c 58. a 59. a 60. a 61. b 62. c 63. b 64. a 65. b 66. b 67. c 68. b 69. a 70. d 71. b 72. b 73. d 74. a 75. b 76. b 77. c 78. c 79. b 80. b 81. c 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 83. d 84. a 85. a 86. b 87. c 88. c 89. b 90. d 91. c 92. b 93. b 94. a 95. a 96. a 97. c 98. d 99. b 100. c 101. d 102. c 103. a 104. c 105. b 106. a 107. a 108. a 109. a 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 111. a 112. a 113. d 114. a 115. c 116. d 117. c 118. c 119. a 120. d 121. d 122. d 123. b 124. d 125. b 126. a 127. b 128. c 129. c 130. b 131. c 132. d 133. b 134. b 135. d 136. a 137. b

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 138. c 139. a 140. b 141. c 142. b 143. b 144. c 145. b 146. d 147. a 148. b 149. b 150. b 151. a 152. b 153. b 154. b 155. c 156. c 157. d 158. c 159. c 160. d 161. b 162. a 163. a 164. b 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 166. a 167. b 168. d 169. b 170. c 171. d 172. b 173. d 174. c 175. d 176. b 177. b 178. a 179. c 180. l 181. n 182. a 183. b 184. k 185. t 186. m 187. e 188. i 189. c 190. d 191. q 192. r 193. j Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 194. h 195. f 196. g 197. s 198. o 199. p 200. Views of adolescent development have changed across time. Adolescence has not always been viewed as a distinct stage of human development. G. Stanley Hall was the first to suggest the stage and define it as a time of "storm and stress." According to this view, adolescence is a time of intense turmoil, characterized by mood swings and conflicts with parents, which are a necessary aspect of growing up. Turmoil, according to Hall is a necessary aspect of adolescence and is necessary for normal development. Contemporary views see turmoil and stress as potential, but not necessary, aspects of adolescence. One key predictor of the degree of turmoil experienced by an adolescent is the degree, number, and/or magnitude of life changes that coincide with adolescence and puberty. A child who experiences a move to a new school, a parental divorce, issues of sexual orientation, and the like, is more prone to experience adolescence as a time of turmoil.

201. The highest level of moral reasoning in Kohlberg's theory is postconventional morality. At this level, moral reasoning is based on one's own moral standards. Postconventional morality contains two stages: stage 5 (which has a contractual and legalistic orientation), and stage 6 (which relies on universal ethical principles). Research indicates that among 7- to 10-year-olds, stage 5 and 6 are virtually absent. However, by age 16, stage 5 reasoning is shown by about 20 percent of adolescents and stage 6 reasoning is shown by approximately 5 percent of adolescents.

202. According to Statistics Canada (2008b), in 2004–05, 31 percent of high-school students between the ages of 15 and 17 held a job. Although there are advantages to working (e.g., increased sense of responsibility, discipline), working also has some detrimental effects. Those adolescents working more than 11 hours per week report having lower grades, lower self-esteem, and more delinquent behaviour. In addition, working just 11 hours per week is associated with increased alcohol and drug use.

203. Physical growth occurs more rapidly in the adolescent years than at any other time after birth, with the exception of the first year of infancy. Health Canada recommends that Canadian teens need to build a healthy diet based on Canada Food Guide selections rather than following the dated method of counting calories.

An unhealthy diet in adolescence can set habits that persist into adulthood and lead to long-term health issues. Some long-term consequences of poor adolescent diets include diabetes and heart disease.

The nutritional needs of adolescents vary according to their activity level and stage of pubertal development. One reason for adolescents’ nutritional deficits is their irregular eating patterns. Breakfast is often skipped, especially by dieters. Teenagers may rely on fast food and junk food, which are convenient but high in fat and calories. A diet heavy in junk food can lead to being overweight and being overweight in adolescence can lead to chronic illness and premature death in adulthood.

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Chap_11_HDEV_4ce 204. Death rates are, in general, low in adolescence, but they are nearly twice as great for male adolescents as female adolescents. Unintentional injury is the number one cause of death (73 percent), with 1 youth dying every 5 hours in Canada. Motor vehicle accidents cause 60 percent of these deaths. The overwhelming rate of teen deaths can be traced to teenagers’ increased likelihood of taking chances, their tendency to act impulsively, their overestimation of their skills, and their feeling of invincibility.

205. The most common pattern of transitioning between schools is completing Grades K through 4 or 5 in one school, attending middle school until Grade 8, and then moving on to high school. The transition to a new school setting is often accompanied by a decline in grades and lower participation in school activities. Girls tend to have a more difficult time with the transition into junior high school. The primary reason for this difficulty appears to be the timing of the onset of puberty. For many girls, the transition to junior high school and the onset of puberty coincide. About 15 percent of young men and 12 percent of young women (aged 18–24) drop out of school.

206. Females are typically superior to males in verbal ability. Males, on the other hand, seem to be superior to females in visual–spatial ability. In terms of mathematical ability, females excel in some areas and males in others. However, sex differences in cognitive skills represent group differences, not individual differences. Also, cognitive sex differences appear to reflect cultural expectations. For example, visual–spatial and math skills are stereotyped as masculine skills, whereas reading skills are stereotyped as feminine skills. These stereotypes may account for some observed sex differences in cognitive functioning.

207. Adolescence is defined as the transition from childhood to adulthood. Clearly, the biological changes that denote puberty are a part of that transition. They are not, however, the complete picture. Adolescence involves physical, emotional, social, and cognitive changes. Puberty is more clearly designated by physical changes than the remainder of adolescence. These changes lead to sexual maturity and reproductive capacity and include the development of primary sex characteristics (e.g., those structures directly involved in reproductive capacity, such as maturation of the ovaries and testes) and secondary sex characteristics, which visibly note impending adulthood, but are not directly related to reproductive capacity (such as the appearance of pubic and other bodily hair and the development of breasts). Many of these biological changes are directed by the production and cycling of hormones, such as estrogen and testosterone.

208. Although teens cannot legally use alcohol or illicit drugs, we know that these substances are a significant part of adolescent social life in Canada. The Canadian Medical Association released a 10-year study on alcohol and drug use in Canada. Of the teens surveyed, two thirds had used alcohol, one third had used marijuana, and 1 in 20 had tried LSD, ecstasy, or cocaine.

Teenagers in Canada may not be able to legally use illicit drugs and alcohol but clearly, it is an issue that must be discussed openly to protect our youth and to avoid exposure to potential lifelong addictions.

209. The key to understanding adolescent cognitive development is to understand Piaget's concept of formal operations.

The adolescent entering this stage enjoys new intellectual abilities, including being able to engage in abstract and hypothetical thinking. This type of thinking sometimes leads to a pattern of thinking called "what if." In this pattern of thinking, adolescents begin to imagine a world better than the one in which they are living. In addition, the adolescent can understand metaphors in which words or phrases that typically signify one thing can be applied to another.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Countries with more restrictions around abortions create safer outcomes for women. a. True b. False 2. Few research studies have been conducted in Canada to examine the correlations between ethnicity and youth crime. a. True b. False 3. While quantity of time spent with parents decreases, the quality of time spent together continues to be important. a. True b. False 4. Programs for youth that focus on enhancing their levels of self-worth have been proven to be effective in addressing the issue of youth crime. a. True b. False 5. Having interpersonal problems is the only cause of suicide among adolescent girls. a. True b. False 6. The younger a person is when initiating sexual intercourse; the less likely contraception will be used. a. True b. False 7. There are no warning signs of suicide in adolescents. a. True b. False 8. Adolescents who have authoritarian parents tend to do better academically and have fewer problems with drug use when compared to those raised by parents using other parenting styles. a. True b. False 9. A semicolon tattoo on the wrist represents a life not finished yet. a. True b. False 10. Teenagers who have close relationships with their parents are less likely to initiate sexual activity at an early age. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 11. Teen sexual activity has experienced a sharp increase. a. True b. False 12. Adolescents tend to pick friends who have different values and behaviours from themselves in order to explore other aspects of their personalities. a. True b. False 13. Chlamydia is the most commonly reported STI among Canadian youth. a. True b. False 14. Adolescents and parents tend to fight the most over important issues such as social and religious beliefs. a. True b. False 15. Most adolescents report being close to their parents and getting along with them. a. True b. False 16. Older adolescents are unable to manage contradictions in their self-concepts. a. True b. False 17. An example of foreclosure is an adolescent taking on a role because her mother had the same role. a. True b. False 18. Teen mothers are more likely to need to rely on public assistance given that many do not graduate from high school. a. True b. False 19. Drug abuse and experiencing stressful life events can create a vulnerability in youth that places them at greater risk for suicide. a. True b. False 20. Most teen girls who get pregnant choose to do so. a. True b. False

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 21. Unlike previous generations, rather than passively waiting for a romantic partner to suggest having sex, female adolescents are much more likely to have sex on their own terms. a. True b. False 22. A lack of strong role models can be problematic for marginalized youth. a. True b. False 23. Identity diffusion involves no exploration and no commitment. a. True b. False 24. During adolescence, self-esteem is often related to one’s physical appearance. a. True b. False 25. Adolescent friendships are solid and stable throughout their teen years. a. True b. False 26. Ethnic minority adolescents whose cultural values conflict with those of the dominant culture must choose one culture over the other in order to develop properly. a. True b. False 27. Most adolescents belong to more than one peer group. a. True b. False 28. The greatest gains in identity formation occur in college or university. a. True b. False 29. In Canada socioeconomic status is related to youth crime rates. a. True b. False 30. By Grade 6, peers play a more important role in the lives of adolescents than parents. a. True b. False 31. The Youth Criminal Justice Act relies heavily on the effectiveness of restorative justice. a. True b. False

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 32. Conflicts between the adolescent and parents increase in frequency from early adolescence until the time when the adolescent goes to college or university. a. True b. False 33. Development of identity is less complicated for adolescents who belong to minority groups. a. True b. False 34. Adolescents tend to have more friends than younger children do. a. True b. False 35. Adolescents are initiating sexual intercourse at younger ages in greater numbers today than in the past. a. True b. False 36. According to Marcia, exploration involves stable investment in goals. a. True b. False 37. Status offences include murder, rape, and robbery. a. True b. False 38. According to Erikson, identity crisis is a good thing. a. True b. False 39. Dating should be discouraged among younger adolescents because it primarily functions as an opportunity for sexual activity. a. True b. False 40. Adolescent girls are more likely than boys to engage in structured activities. a. True b. False 41. Self-esteem decreases during early adolescence. a. True b. False 42. Parents and peers are always competing influences on adolescents. a. True b. False

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 43. Teens with a secure attachment style are more guarded with their online media usage. a. True b. False 44. Canadian adolescent males are less concerned about occupational choices than their female Canadian counterparts. a. True b. False 45. Erikson’s psychosocial conflict during adolescent is intimacy vs. isolation. a. True b. False 46. Fourteen- and 15-year-olds can consent to sexual activity with persons who are within 5 years of their age. a. True b. False 47. Most middle schoolers are at the identity achievement stage. a. True b. False 48. The moratorium stage of identity development involves commitment and exploration. a. True b. False 49. Unexamined ethnic identity is comparable to Marcia's moratorium. a. True b. False 50. “Clique” is another term for “crowd.” a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

51. Which of the following is most likely to characterize an adolescent girl who belongs to a minority group but identifies strongly with the dominant culture? a. She usually has low self-worth. b. She may be required to “code switch”. c. She will find the identity process much less troublesome. d. She will be accepted by both the dominant and the minority cultures.

52. According to your textbook, which of the following is identified as a warning sign of suicide? a. spending more time with friends b. a failing grade in school c. changes in eating or sleeping patterns d. being a victim of a recent sexual assault

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 53. What is the effect of gender differences on adolescent peer activities? a. The gender differences are consistent regardless of ethnicity. b. Gender differences only exist if peers are of the same ethnicity. c. The gender differences show that boys report more intimacy and peer support than girls across all types of activities. d. Females are more likely to talk in small groups and boys are more likely to engage in structured activities.

54. What does A Resource Guide to Coming Out suggest teens should keep in mind when deciding if they should come out? a. It will likely be far easier than expected. b. They should consider their parents’ feelings. c. There are benefits and risks. d. That telling friends first is a good idea.

55. Jana communicates well with her parents, but Sarah doesn’t. How is Jana’s sexual behaviour most likely to differ from that of Sarah? a. Jana is likely to have more sexual partners. b. Jana is more likely to use contraceptives. c. Jana is more likely to think about having sexual activity. d. Jana is more likely to commit to longer-term relationships.

56. According to the textbook, what is a crowd? a. a group of either girls or boys b. a group of people of the same age c. 5 to 10 individuals who hang around together and share activities d. large groups of individuals who are identified by the activities of the group 57. Sebastian is in Grade 9. He is bored with school, his friends, and his family. His overall attitude is "I don't care."

According to James Marcia, what identity status does Sebastian exhibit? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement 58. Which of the following is the first step in developing sexual identity for gay teens? a. sexual contact with someone of the same sex b. self-labelling as LGBTQ c. attraction to members of the same sex d. telling others about their attraction to same-sex others 59. On career day, Melissa went to every university booth and picked up their pamphlets. She brought them home, looked at their websites, and then determined the number of years required to complete each program, the costs, and the likelihood of getting accepted on the basis of her marks. She narrowed her choices down to five graduate programs and sent out her applications. What identity status describes Melissa’s behaviour? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 60. Zach has been considering colleges and programs and has decided to take Police Foundations because his friend is doing and it will be fun. Zach has not considered whether the college would be a good fit for him and does not really know whether he would be a good police officer, but he thinks it would be fun to be with his friend. What identity status does Zach’s behaviour represent? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement 61. What does current information suggest about the generation gap between parents and their children? a. It is becoming more pronounced. b. It is more of a myth than a fact. c. It was prevalent in the early 2000s but has decreased in impact of late. d. It exists in most North American homes.

62. Which statement best describes Canada’s youth crime rate in between 2000 and 2014? a. It decreased by more than 40%. b. It increased 3% over the 14 years. c. It decreased 10% over the 14 years d. It increased 10% during the first 5 years and then declined by 20% during the final 9 years.

63. During what development stage are conflicts between parents and their children typically at their highest? a. during early adolescence b. during middle adolescence c. during late adolescence d. during young adulthood 64. According A Resource Guide to Coming Out there are benefits and risks of coming out. What is the book’s advice to the friends of LGBTQ youths who have decided to come out? a. Treat them as you always have even if that includes teasing them about their choices. b. Be an advocate for them and encourage them to seek supports. c. Have them write their feelings out and keep them for later reference. d. Stand up to bullies and be as aggressive as necessary to protect them.

65. Which statement best represents most teenagers’ relationships with their parents? a. Teenagers spend significantly more time with their parents than they do with their peers, so they usually strive to get along. b. Teenagers have significantly more conflicts with peers than with parents during this challenging time. c. Teenagers describe their parents as difficult and as getting in the way of them living their best lives. d. Teenagers spend less time with their parents but parents still play an important role in their children’s lives.

66. Which of the following has been identified as a variable that can complicate the process of forming an identity? a. friendship choices b. ethnicity c. birth order d. being raised in a divorced family

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 67. According to your textbook, which two adolescent groups have been identified at most at risk of suicide? a. Aboriginal teens and LGBTQ teens b. Aboriginal teens and teens who have been recently sexually victimized c. LGBTQ and teens who have been recently sexually victimized d. teens who have been recently sexually victimized and teens who have been cyber bullied 68. Which statement best reflects current advice to parents about how to navigate the challenging relationships they may have with their teenaged children? a. Parents must become more authoritarian during these years in order to maintain control. b. Conflicts between adolescents and parents are important for the development of self-esteem. c. Sensitivity, compassion, and being tuned-in with teenagers helps to build relationships. d. Allowing adolescents to develop complete independence is the easiest way through the teen years.

69. What identity status involves high self-worth and personal acceptance? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement 70. Thomas's friends find him to be anxious and intense. He seems to be one person one day and someone else the next day. Sometimes he wants to be a musician, other days he wants to be a movie star or a stuntman. When asked, he says he's "searching for himself." According to James Marcia, what identity status does Thomas’s behaviour describe? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement 71. According to studies of youth crime, which of the following has a correlation to youth crime in Canada? a. poverty b. ethnicity c. living in a blended family d. parents who are first-generation Canadians 72. Jack committed a status offence. Which of the following was his crime? a. sexual assault b. break and entry c. drunk driving d. underage drinking 73. Frank’s father and grandfather are doctors. Frank doesn’t enjoy his science classes, but he loves to debate and has excelled debating skills. Some of his teachers have told Frank that he would make a great lawyer. Frank indicated in his career class he wants to be doctor, like his father and grandfather. According to James Marcia, what identity status does Frank represent? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 74. Hannah is deciding which school club to join to pursue her interest in improving the environment. She decides to attend each club’s orientation meeting to learn about the environmental projects that each club offers. Hannah’s process illustrates James Marcia’s concept of identity status. Which two dimensions characterize Marcia’s process? a. wishes and beliefs b. uncertainty and values c. formation and diffusion d. exploration and commitment 75. Which of the following is an example of the exploration of identity? a. a passive search b. considering a minimal number of alternative selves c. automatically accepting the values held by others d. researching and sorting out information to determine a solid position 76. In the Canadian legal system, whenever possible, the first time a youth is caught breaking the law, a response is implemented called extrajudicial measures. What is this process? a. a harsh initial punishment to frighten and make a bold statement b. placement in a youth detention centre, then a release to appear in court at a later date c. counselling combined with community services order d. an alternative consequence to the formal court and custody systems 77. Jill is in late adolescence. Who is most likely to give her the support she needs to feel positive about herself? a. her peers b. her parents c. her teachers d. her parents and peers are equally important 78. According to Canadian criminologists, what is the most effective response to youth crime? a. intensive supervision by a probation officer b. short incarceration stays to warn youth of the long-term consequences of their actions c. integration of the youth into community programs including sports d. early police intervention and a formal warning by a judge 79. What is the most common sexual outlet in adolescence? a. oral sex b. self-stimulation c. heavy petting d. sexual intercourse 80. Which term refers to children or adolescents who engage in illegal activities and come into contact with the criminal justice system? a. youth in conflict with the law b. youth status offenders c. juvenile delinquents d. differential offenders; youth branch

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 81. Isaac is an adolescent who often feels a need to separate, or distant himself, from his parents. Which statement best explains Isaac’s need? a. He may be engaging in adaptive behaviour. b. He may be emotionally detaching from his parents. c. He may be feeling more self-confident. d. He may lack respect for his parents.

82. Which of the following is Phinney's ethnic identity search most comparable to? a. Marcia's identity diffusion b. Erikson’s identity foreclosure c. Marcia's identity moratorium d. Erikson’s ego identity 83. Alice tells her friend, a child psychologist, about her concern for her daughter’s diminished level of self-esteem.

Her friend tells Alice that her daughter is at the age when adolescents’ self-esteem typically is at its lowest.

How old is Alice’s daughter? a. 12 to 13 years old b. 14 to 15 years old c. 16 to 17 years old d. 18 to 19 years old 84. According to data from Project Teen 2008, what percentage of all Indigenous teens living on reserves expects to get the job they want? a. 24 b. 44 c. 64 d. 84 85. In a 2010 study, approximately what percentage of Canadian youth in grade 10 reported having had sexual intercourse? a. 20 b. 30 c. 40 d. 50 86. According to the textbook, what is the most important purpose of dating? a. to have fun b. to allow for sexual intimacy c. to vent repressed sexual energy d. to enhance one's prestige with peers 87. What does Project Teen Canada report about the attitudes of female teens toward sex? a. They are more likely to question their sexual attractiveness. b. Female teens are now more likely to have sex on their own terms than in the past. c. They are likely to wait until later in a relationship to have sex than was true in the past. d. Female teens are still lagging behind their male counterparts in terms of comfort with sexual freedom.

88. Which statement best represents the parental need to be in charge of an adolescent child? a. Parents want to have more control over the adolescent boy than the adolescent girl. b. Adolescent girls require more control than adolescent boys. c. Parents want to relinquish control once a child becomes an adolescent. d. Parents want to retain more control, despite the adolescent's efforts to take it.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 89. Your teacher says that your self-concept has become more "differentiated." What does your teacher mean? a. You have placed your self-descriptors into a small number of categories. b. Your “self” and your self-esteem have become separated. c. You have added more categories to your self-description. d. You have doubled your list of personal interests.

90. Brandon is a 17-year-old Indigenous male. He hasn’t given much thought to identity issues, but he does identify with the values and practices of his family. According to the three stages of ethnic identity, which term best describes Brandon’s stage of identity development? a. moratorium b. ethnic identity search c. achieved ethnic identity d. unexamined ethnic identity 91. Martha is academically gifted, especially in biology and chemistry. She goes to the school library twice a week to search for the professions for those who excel in the sciences. What identity status does Martha’s behaviour describe? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement 92. Which symbol was the subject of a viral trend by teens who wanted to indicate that they could have ended their lives but chose NOT to? a. semicolon b. star c. exclamation point d. colon 93. How do adolescent friendships differ from friendships in earlier childhood? a. They are less likely to be formed on the basis of age. b. They are less likely to be formed on the basis of gender. c. They are more likely to include people of different ethnicities. d. They are more likely to stress the importance of self-disclosure and acceptance.

94. Tida and Ahn are adolescents and members of ethnic minority groups. Tida is a 20-year-old college student.

Ahn is a 17-year-old in Grade 11 who has attended many career information seminars. Who is more likely to have an achieved ethnic identity? a. Tida b. Ahn c. too little information to tell d. neither; ethnic identity achievement doesn’t occur until the early 30s 95. Which statement provides the most common explanation for teenagers becoming pregnant in Canada? a. They did not have birth control available. b. They miscalculated the odds of getting pregnant. c. They wanted to get pregnant. d. They used faulty birth control.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 96. What is most likely to be the consequence of an adolescent boy who rejects the dominant culture's values and embraces the values of the minority group with which he identifies? a. He may need to conduct himself differently in the world in order to be safe. b. He may eliminate the problems that minority adolescents otherwise face. c. He may find the situation to be more problematic than it would be for a female adolescent. d. He may create more anxiety than if he tried to find a balance between the minority and dominant cultural values.

97. Which term best describes dating relationships in early adolescence? a. sexual b. intense c. committed d. short-lived 98. When do the greatest gains occur in identity formation? a. during the transition from grade school to high school b. during high school c. while attending college and university d. after one’s postsecondary education is completed 99. What does the Canadian Mental Health Association indicate about suicidal youth? a. Youth should be left to deal with their feelings as this is part of the process of growing up. b. Suicide among males is rising above that of females. c. Suicide is often a process rather than a single event. d. Parents are usually unable to tell if their teen is suicidal.

100. Casey is a 16-year-old male. He was invited by his friends to attend a party where alcohol and drugs will be available. Casey has recently been accepted onto a varsity team and must live an anti-drug lifestyle. According to Erikson, what turning point in development is Casey at? a. identity crisis b. self-exploration c. identity diffusion d. psychological moratorium 101. Which of the following is a good predictor of sexual activity for adolescents? a. their parents’ education b. the sexual activity of their close friends c. the number of extracurricular activities they are involved in d. whether they have expressed a desire to pursue a particular career goal 102. Egale Canada Human Rights Trust conducted Canada’s first national survey on homophobia in Canadian schools. What percentage of straight participants reported making homophobic remarks sometimes or frequently? a. almost 20 b. almost 40 c. almost 60 d. almost 80

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 103. According to the textbook, what is a clique? a. a group of people of the same age b. a group called the "jocks" by others in the school c. 5 to 10 individuals who hang around together and share activities d. large groups of individuals who are identified by the activities of the group 104. Approximately how much time passes between the initial attraction to a member of the same sex and disclosure of sexual orientation to others? a. 3 years b. 5 years c. 10 years d. 12 years 105. Why are older adolescents able to integrate apparently contradictory elements of self? a. It is a natural aspect of the maturation process. b. Formal operations allow this kind of flexible thinking. c. The individual has had more experience with contradiction. d. Foreclosure replaces moratorium as the primary identity status.

106. Roberta is a 15-year-old girl. She spends much of her time thinking about which boys she wants to date, whether to go to college or university, and what occupation she might choose. According to Erikson, what stage of psychosocial development is Roberta in? a. trust versus mistrust b. industry versus inferiority c. generativity versus stagnation d. identity versus role confusion 107. John is a Canadian adolescent who has become sexually active. Which sexually transmitted infection is John most likely to contract? a. chlamydia b. gonorrhea c. genital herpes d. HIV 108. Which of the following is most important in ensuring that a young person develops in a healthy way? a. opportunities to try new things with varied groups of people b. help in developing an accurate self-concept in a supportive environment c. time alone to deal with the angst that comes with growing up d. less parental supervision that can be difficult for young people to manage 109. What is the age at which many youth leave home, according to Covenant House? a. 10 b. 12 c. 15 d. 18 110. After taking many different types of classes in college, Sarah has decided to become a mechanical engineer.

She is actively planning for graduate school and a job in her chosen field. According to James Marcia, what identity status does Sarah exhibit? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 111. What characteristic contributes most to a diminished level of self-esteem in adolescence? a. school achievement b. physical appearance c. competence in sports d. popularity with peers 112. According to Teen Talk, how can discrimination be addressed in everyday interactions? a. Do not engage in offensive conversations and speak up when inappropriate language is used. b. Ignore people who are uninformed about cultural differences. c. Associate only with “safe” friends. d. Report offensive comments to your employer or school official immediately.

113. Karen enjoys looking at websites that describe various professions and the personal qualities associated with those occupations. She spends time considering which profession might be the best fit for her. According to Erikson, what term refers to this form of adolescent experimentation? a. social development b. self-experimentation c. psychological moratorium d. adolescent self-assessment 114. Which statement best describes the relationship between legal restrictions on abortions and the safety of abortions? a. Fewer legal restrictions leads to unsafe abortions. b. Fewer legal restrictions leads to safer abortions. c. High restrictions leads to safer abortions. d. Moderate restrictions leads to the greatest safety.

115. Which statement best describes the experience of adolescents from ethnic minority groups? a. They will identify too strongly with the minority culture and risk rejection from their peers in the dominant culture. b. Adolescents from ethnic minority groups seldom experience prejudice and discrimination. c. They may be subjected to various forms of oppression and lack cultural role models. d. Their cultural heroes are celebrated during multicultural celebrations.

116. What percentage of all reported cases of HIV, in 2009, were among 20–29 year olds? a. an estimated 22% b. an estimated 30% c. an estimated 50% d. an estimated 75% 117. According to the textbook, where does current research stand with regards to what determines sexual orientation? a. It is primarily determined by one’s peer influences and opportunities for experimentation. b. It is the result of the presence of a “gay gene”. c. It is thought to be impacted by genetics and environment. d. It is not something that researchers have examined closely.

118. According to James Marcia, which identity status demonstrates the least amount of development? a. diffusion b. foreclosure c. moratorium d. achievement Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 119. Which of the following accounts for the reduction in adolescent self-esteem between middle childhood and ages 12 to 13? a. the increased awareness of others due to their expanding peer group b. the presence of concrete operational thought c. the cognitive maturity that allows awareness of discrepancies between one's real self and one’s ideal self d. a decrease in their cognitive ability as they begin to develop more intimate relationships and move away from previous peer groups 120. What percentage of Canadians will likely have at least one human papillomavirus (HPV) in their lifetime? a. an estimated 35% b. an estimated 55% c. an estimated 75% d. an estimated 85% 121. After pictures were distributed showing this individual allegedly being sexually assaulted, further harassment occurred, which led to this person’s suicide in 2013. Who was this person? a. Amanda Todd b. Rehtaeh Parsons c. James Hubley d. Reena Virk 122. Which scenario best describes the nature of cultural appropriation? a. taking an in-depth look at one’s family tree to determine genetic and cultural heritage b. learning about various cultural identities in order to provide effective education to the dominant culture c. adopting of a style or trend by the majority group from a less dominant cultural group without regard for custom, history, and values d. taking time to examine ethnic identity in order to understand how it impacts all aspects of one’s life 123. When asked to describe herself, 13-year-old Angela says that she is short tempered and sometimes rude around her parents but that she is funny and likeable around her friends. What is it about Angela’s stage of development that allows her to make sense of these two aspects of her self? a. Her difficult and challenging parents. b. Her language development maturity. c. Her advanced operational skills. d. Her excellent relationship with her friends.

124. Which statement best describes the concept of a generation gap between adolescents and their parents? a. This stereotype no longer persists. b. It persists as a stereotype, but little evidence suggests such a gap exists. c. It persists as a stereotype, because evidence supports the existence of such a gap. d. It persists as a stereotype, yet, it exists only for ethnic minority groups 125. Which of the following best characterizes ego identity? a. It is the same as self-esteem. b. It is established by age 3 to 5. c. It is the identity adopted from one's parents. d. It is one's answer to the question, "Who am I?"

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 126. Which term characterizes the dimension of commitment in identity status? a. stability b. uncertainty c. lack of investment d. passive acceptance 127. Which statement best characterizes youth suicide in Canada? a. Drug overdose is the most common method of suicide completion. b. Firearms are the most common method of suicide completion. c. Male teen suicide is on the rise. d. Indigenous and LGBTQ teens are at the highest risk.

128. According to the textbook, which of the following allows adolescents to consider an assortment of life choices available to them? a. the imaginary audience b. formal operational thinking c. concrete operational thinking d. a decline in the personal fable 129. Canada’s Youth Criminal Justice Act focuses on restorative justice. From which model or framework did this orientation emerge? a. the social conscious-raising mindset of the 1960s and its emphasis on the collective good b. The Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedom c. Canadian Indigenous culture d. The United Nations Youth Justice declaration 130. Which statement best describes the behaviour of adolescents from authoritative homes? a. They are more likely to rebel. b. They are more likely to be self-reliant. c. They are more likely to be critical of their parents. d. They are more likely to have higher rates of psychological problems.

131. How many close friends do most adolescent girls have? a. 0 b. 1 or 2 c. 3 or 4 d. 5 or 6 132. What was the recent change to the age of sexual consent in Canada? a. from age 14 to age 16, with some exceptions b. from age 14 to age 18, with some exceptions c. from age 16 to age 18, with some exceptions d. from age 16 to age 19, with some exceptions 133. According to the textbook, which factor has a significant impact the level of self-disclosure teenagers are likely to engage in online? a. attachment style b. education level c. parental divorce d. academic ability

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 134. Jennifer is in Grade 8. She has little interest in her high-school goals or in any potential career goals. What identity statuses might be attributed to Jennifer? a. diffusion and foreclosure b. achievement and diffusion c. commitment and foreclosure d. moratorium and achievement 135. Which of the following is similar to Marcia’s ego identity statuses of diffusion or foreclosure? a. unexamined ethnic identity b. ethnic identity search c. achieved ethnic identity d. ethnic differentiation 136. Which statement best characterizes an adolescent’s experience of masturbation? a. It is harmful if done too frequently. b. It is more commonly reported by females than males. c. It may lead to feelings of guilt despite being a normal activity. d. If peers discover the masturbation, the adolescent will be labelled as being sexually deviant.

137. According to your textbook, what is the best approach parents can take with teens on the topic of suicide? a. Be very cautious and try to change the subject as quickly as possible. b. Be open and honest and avoid making judgments. c. They should not bring it up unless they feel qualified to engage in counselling. d. They should shut down these conversations in order to avoid any appearance of encouragement.

138. According to Erikson, what is the primary psychosocial job of adolescence? a. to go to high school b. to develop ego identity c. to begin developing intimate relationships d. to feel industrious and want to accomplish things 139. Intimacy and closeness appear to be more central to the friendships of which of the following? a. girls b. boys c. both boys and girls d. neither boys or girls 140. According to data from Project Teen 2008, what percentage of all Indigenous teens living on reserves believes that anyone who works hard can rise to the top? a. 29 b. 49 c. 69 d. 89 141. According to your textbook, what role does social media play in the development of identity among adolescents? a. Social media is inherently negative and there are no positive qualities that researchers have been able to find to date. b. Teenagers do not spend enough meaningful time online in any one place for it to have a lasting impact. c. It has provided a critical platform for teens to express themselves and to engage in meaningful dialogue about world issues. d. It can inflate, or damage, identify and self-esteem depending on how realistic and relevant teens perceive the online profiles of others to be.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 142. According to the philosophy of restorative justice, how is crime viewed? a. as a serious offence against the government b. as a violation committed against one person by another person c. as a complete breakdown of the moral fabric of a country d. as an act requiring punishment to be fierce and swift 143. In Canada, death resulting from suicide is among the top five leading causes of death for adolescents. What ranking is youth death from suicide? a. the main leading cause b. the second leading cause c. the third leading cause d. the fifth leading cause 144. Which pastime are boys and their friends more likely to engage in than girls? a. unstructured activities, such as a game of pickup hockey b. structured activities, such as an organized soccer league c. discussions of personal feelings, such as their parents’ divorce d. talking about other peers’ relationships 145. Which of the following is most likely to characterize 16-year-old John’s friendships? a. John is likely to have very few friends. b. John’s friends will be mainly those he engages in organized activities with. c. John’s friends are likely to disagree with his belief system. d. John is unlikely to form significant adolescent friendships.

146. Which statement best characterizes LGBTQ youths’ experience of coming out to their friends and family? a. It is more common for females than males in North American society. b. It is usually easily accepted by parents and siblings. c. It is recommended to first approach those who have an accepting attitude toward LGBTQ culture. d. It is no harder than identifying oneself as heterosexual.

147. Which of the following is most important in ensuring the development of healthy self-esteem in adolescents? a. being valued by both parents and friends b. parents who are warm and friendly c. teachers who are patient and understanding d. peers who are similar in cultural values 148. How common is sexual touching among Canadian adolescents? a. About 10% of teens admit to engaging in sexual touching. b. About 30% of teens admit to engaging in sexual touching. c. About 50% of teens admit to engaging in sexual touching. d. Practically all teens admit to engaging in sexual touching. a. exploration but no commitment b. crime because of age c. comparable to Marcia's foreclosure Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce d. twenty people watching a football game e. no exploration but commitment f. knowing one is heterosexual or homosexual g. four friends hanging out at the mall together h. 25 i. exploration and commitment j. major cause of pelvic inflammatory disease k. linked to delinquent behaviour l. 11 m. the answer is one's ego identity n. at lowest levels around age 12 and 13 o. restorative justice p. Young Canadians between 19 and 30 q. kissing, oral sex, intercourse r. no exploration, no commitment s. Erikson’s stage during adolescence t. warmth and limits 149. "Who am I?" 150. The average age of exposure to pornography 151. Permissive parenting 152. Self-esteem 153. Number of years abortion has been legal in Canada 154. At high risk to contract HIV/AIDS 155. Moratorium 156. Status offence 157. Unexamined ethnic identity 158. Sexual orientation 159. Identity diffusion 160. Crowd 161. Authoritative parenting 162. Clique 163. Chlamydia 164. Foreclosure 165. Sexual activity 166. Identity vs. identify diffusion 167. Healing is its cornerstone 168. Identity achievement

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 169. Explain what factors might be involved when an adolescent considers or attempts suicide.

170. Describe the four identity statuses identified by Marcia.

171. How does self-esteem change during adolescence?

172. How do friendships change during adolescence?

173. What are warning signs of suicide by teens?

174. Describe typical adolescent relationships with parents and peers.

175. What does the data from Project Teen (2008), report regarding Indigenous youth and the opinions regarding their lives and future?

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 176. Describe the three stages of ethnic identity development.

177. Discuss the change in the legal age of consent in Canada. Specifically, note what the exceptions are and how they might occur in the lives of Canadian youth.

178. Discuss the adolescent quest for identity. Include a description of Erikson's and Marcia's theories in your answer.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. True 11. False 12. False 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. True 25. False 26. False

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 27. True 28. True 29. True 30. False 31. True 32. False 33. False 34. True 35. False 36. False 37. False 38. True 39. False 40. False 41. True 42. False 43. True 44. False 45. False 46. True 47. False 48. False 49. False 50. False 51. b 52. c 53. d 54. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 55. b 56. d 57. a 58. c 59. d 60. b 61. b 62. a 63. a 64. b 65. d 66. b 67. a 68. c 69. d 70. c 71. a 72. d 73. b 74. d 75. d 76. d 77. a 78. c 79. b 80. a 81. a 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 83. a 84. d 85. b 86. a 87. b 88. d 89. c 90. d 91. c 92. a 93. d 94. a 95. b 96. a 97. d 98. c 99. c 100. a 101. b 102. b 103. c 104. c 105. b 106. d 107. a 108. b 109. c 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 111. b 112. a 113. c 114. b 115. c 116. a 117. c 118. a 119. c 120. c 121. b 122. c 123. c 124. b 125. d 126. a 127. d 128. b 129. c 130. b 131. b 132. a 133. a 134. a 135. a 136. c 137. b

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 138. b 139. a 140. d 141. d 142. b 143. b 144. b 145. b 146. c 147. a 148. d 149. m 150. l 151. k 152. n 153. h 154. p 155. a 156. b 157. c 158. f 159. r 160. d 161. t 162. g 163. j 164. e 165. q Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 166. s 167. o 168. i 169. As in adulthood, most suicides in adolescence are linked to feelings of depression and hopelessness. In some ways, the cognitive expansiveness that accompanies adolescence (i.e., formal operational thinking, flexible thinking, and the ability to foresee the implications of one's actions) may exacerbate, if not lead, to an adolescent having these negative feelings. Concerns over sexuality, school grades, problems and home and substance abuse can all contribute to suicidal thoughts. If a youth is afraid of being “found out” for something, such as failing a class or being arrested, it can contribute to risk for suicide. Traditional patterns of suicidal behaviour seem to be changing with respect to gender as rates among females are increasing while rates among males are decreasing.

170. Foreclosure involves no searching, but a commitment to an identity. Teens often choose identities of relatives or have identities chosen for them by their families. Moratorium involves searching and no commitment. It is active searching for an identity prior to one being selected. Diffusion, the least mature identity status, is common among younger children. Diffusion involves no searching and no commitment. Little interest in an identity is evident. Identity achievement follows searching and commitment to an identity. It is most common during later adolescence.

171. Self-esteem is at its lowest during early adolescence. It then becomes more realistic. As teens develop different skills, their self-esteem increases. Adolescents’ self-esteem increases with emotional support from family and friends. The role of peers in developing self-esteem increases during later adolescence.

172. During adolescence, friendships are based more on personal characteristics than earlier friendships. Adolescents typically have more friends than they did during childhood. They are also more likely to share intimate details with their friends and to provide acceptance for one another. They tend to have similar characteristics, both physically and in terms of values. Females tend to have one or two close friends and are more likely to engage in unstructured activities like talking or listening to music. Males are more likely to connect with friends through structured activities such as sports.

173. The warnings signs of suicide by teens include the following: ꞏ Sudden changes in behaviour (both positive and negative) ꞏ Isolation and withdrawal ꞏ Not caring ꞏ Changes in eating or sleeping patterns ꞏ Depression, moodiness, or hopelessness ꞏ Previous suicide attempt or the recent death by suicide of a friend or family member 174. Although adolescent relationships may not appear to be typical, we often exaggerate the idea that all parents and adolescents have significant conflict, and that parents and peers have opposing views on what teens should become.

Parents continue to be important in teenagers' lives. Although peers take on increasing importance, the areas in which their influence is increasing do not always conflict with parental areas. For example, peers may pressure adolescents to dress a certain way, whereas teens may be more likely to defer to parental guidance on issues of beliefs or ideals. Contrary to media portrayals, the typical adolescent–parent relationship is not characterized by continuous rebellion.

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Chap_12_HDEV_4ce 175.

Despite discouraging crime statistics, the majority of Indigenous youth see a bright future for themselves. Of all Indigenous teens living on a reserve, 89% believe that anyone who works hard can rise to the top, 84% expect to get the job they want, and 79% feel they will be more financially comfortable than their parents.

The resilience of Indigenous youth is hopeful. Many Indigenous youth understand that their upbringing differs from their parents’ experience being raised in residential schools. The effects of institutional abuse may linger, but the optimism of this new group of teens may have resulted from not directly experiencing the residential schools.

Another clarification for their encouraging viewpoint is the impact of the Internet in connecting Indigenous youth across Canada 176. Unexamined ethnic identity is similar to Marcia’s ego identity statuses of diffusion or foreclosure. It involves either a lack of searching for one’s identity or selection of an identity on the basis of family identification. In the ethnic identity search stage, the second stage, the adolescent actively seeks out information and an identity. This second stage, similar to Marcia’s moratorium, may be based on some incident that makes the adolescent aware of his or her ethnicity. During this stage, adolescents may explore their ethnic culture by participating in cultural events, reading, and discussion. In the third stage, individuals have an achieved ethnic identity that involves self-acceptance as a member of one’s ethnic group 177. Canada raised the age of consent from 14 to 16 years of age. Specific exceptions were made to account for the various relationships that adolescents have. First, no one in a position of authority, such as a teacher, coach, or a boss, can have sex with a youth under the age of 18, even if consent is given. Twelve- and 13-year-olds can consent to sexual activity with peers who are less than two years older than they are. Fourteen- and 15-year-olds can consent to sexual activity with persons who are within 5 years of their age. The age of consent is 18 years if the sexual activity “exploits the young person” (e.g., prostitution, pornography, or a relationship of trust or authority, such as with a teacher or coach).

178. According to Erikson and others, the primary goal of adolescence is to answer the question "Who am I?" Erikson described the identity search as one that involves exploration and commitment. Adolescents who are exploring their identity are actively engaged in the "Who am I?" question. Commitment means that a decision has been made about how to answer that question. Marcia expanded on this idea by looking at exploration and commitment as end points of two dimensions. Where an individual is classified on these two dimensions (the particular combination) determines one's identity status. The goal is identity achievement, which involves an active exploration (pursuing an answer to the "Who am I?" question) and a commitment (a decision) regarding the answer to that question. According to Erikson, an individual who has answered the "Who am I?" question (e.g., "I am meant to be a teacher") has developed ego identity.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Fertility is rare in women over the age of 35. a. True b. False 2. Endometriosis affects 10% of women. a. True b. False 3. The definition of adulthood has changed over the last few decades. a. True b. False 4. Amenorrhea is painful menstruation. a. True b. False 5. Few women experience menstrual problems. a. True b. False 6. Changes in hair and skin are common during early adulthood. a. True b. False 7. Learning to use relativistic thinking is a hallmark of mature thought. a. True b. False 8. Substance abuse is defined by drug use that interferes with one or more aspects of one’s daily life. a. True b. False 9. Sexual assault is defined as non-consensual sex between strangers. a. True b. False 10. Adults 18 and older need 30 minutes of physical activity five or more days a week to be healthy. a. True b. False 11. Being able to understand both sides of the debate on abortion while maintaining a particular view is an example of relativistic thinking. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 12. Cancer is the number one cause of death for Canadian men between the ages of 25 and 34. a. True b. False 13. Sexual activity typically peaks during early adulthood. a. True b. False 14. Psychological factors, such as observational learning, stress, and emotional states, contribute to obesity, in addition to genetic factors. a. True b. False 15. The leading cause of death during early adulthood is cancer. a. True b. False 16. Canadians are generally comfortable with their sexuality. a. True b. False 17. Visual acuity is at its peak during early adulthood. a. True b. False 18. Smoking is the leading cause of premature death in Canada. a. True b. False 19. During early adulthood, most men’s body composition has a higher percentage of muscle than fat. a. True b. False 20. During early adulthood, the cardiovascular system remains at its peak performance. a. True b. False 21. A person who is dependent on a substance loses control over using it. a. True b. False 22. Marijuana has been shown to be safe and nonaddictive. a. True b. False

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 23. Substance abuse can only occur with non-prescription drugs. a. True b. False 24. Developing cognitive–affective complexity enables a person to have both positive and negative feelings about career choices. a. True b. False 25. In Canada, LGBTQ people experience three times the discrimination that heterosexuals experience. a. True b. False 26. Physical development is at its peak in early adulthood. a. True b. False 27. Premenstrual syndrome is exclusively a result of psychological problems. a. True b. False 28. Obesity is impacted by genetic factors. a. True b. False 29. Physical strength declines rapidly during early adulthood. a. True b. False 30. An intrinsic reward for working is one’s salary. a. True b. False 31. Stress affects the lives of Canadians; specifically, almost one-quarter stated their work was negatively affected by stress. a. True b. False 32. Social myths contribute to the incidence of sexual assault. a. True b. False 33. Hearing of high-pitched tones declines slowly during early adulthood. a. True b. False

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 34. Pride flags are symbols of tolerance and “diversity.” a. True b. False 35. Cocaine is an example of a hallucinogen. a. True b. False 36. Emerging adulthood is a phase of life that covers ages 13 to 19. a. True b. False a. True b. False 37. Crystallized intelligence declines with age, whereas fluid intelligence increases. a. True b. False 38. People become adults at the same time and same pace. a. True b. False 39. Cognitive development ends at the end of adolescence. a. True b. False 40. Adaptive thermogenesis causes the body to produce less energy (burn fewer calories) when less food is consumed. a. True b. False 41. Methamphetamine is a dangerous stimulant that may cause brain damage. a. True b. False 42. Sexual harassment is defined primarily by inappropriate physical contact. a. True b. False 43. Homicide accounts for 25% of deaths in men during early adulthood. a. True b. False 44. Evidence suggests that the majority of sexual assaults are unreported. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 45. Alcohol use is safe for those who are legally allowed to use it. a. True b. False 46. College may influence one’s cognitive development. a. True b. False 47. When experiencing menstrual problems, most women experience minor discomfort or symptoms. a. True b. False 48. Sexual harassment creates a hostile workplace for some women. a. True b. False 49. The prevalence of overweight and obesity in young adults is equal to that of the general population. a. True b. False 50. When addicted individuals lower their intake of alcohol, they may experience symptoms such as tremors (shakes), high blood pressure, rapid heart and pulse rate, anxiety, restlessness, and weakness. a. True b. False 51. Alcohol and heroin are examples of depressants. a. True b. False 52. A work ethic and self-fulfillment are two examples of intrinsic rewards for working. a. True b. False 53. Prostaglandins cause uterine muscles to contract. a. True b. False 54. Early adulthood been largely seen as the period of life when people focus on establishing careers or pathways in life. a. True b. False 55. Both men and women show signs of declining fertility during early adulthood. a. True b. False

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 56. For stalking to be defined in Canada, it must include being followed, receiving threatening or unwanted communications, and being spied on, in addition to some form of physical threat. a. True b. False 57. Memory begins to become more reliable in early adulthood. a. True b. False 58. Maisy likes to garden, walk to her friend’s house, and park in spaces far from the mall entrance. These activities are good ways to add exercise to her daily routine. a. True b. False 59. Identifying one’s stressors is a good step toward managing one’s stress. a. True b. False 60. Pride festivals are on the decline in recent years. a. True b. False 61. Hallucinogens include marijuana, ecstasy, and PCP. a. True b. False 62. The last stage of Super’s theory of career development is the realistic choice stage. a. True b. False 63. Accidents are the number one cause of death for Canadian men between the ages of 25 and 34. a. True b. False 64. Adulthood is more accurately defined by one’s age than what one does. a. True b. False 65. Exercise helps maintain the cardiovascular system during early adulthood. a. True b. False 66. Canadians have fewer sex partners during their lifetimes. a. True b. False

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 67. Being exposed to diverse groups and different viewpoints enhances cognitive growth. a. True b. False 68. Most people between their late teens and early 20s recognize that they aren’t fully adults yet. a. True b. False 69. People in college are often at the realistic choice stage of occupational development. a. True b. False 70. Adaptive thermogenesis reduces one’s ability to gain weight. a. True b. False 71. The first stage of the “Super’s theory” of career development is the fantasy stage. a. True b. False 72. Eating disorders are about more than just food. a. True b. False 73. For exercise to be effective, it must be performed in blocks of 60 minutes or longer. a. True b. False 74. Emerging adulthood is a period of development that refers to those who are no longer considered adolescents but are not completely in the early adulthood phase. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

75. Which of the following characterizes physical changes during early adulthood? a. Physical declines occur slowly. b. There is an acceleration of physical decline. c. Physical changes cannot be affected by exercise. d. The immune system rapidly diminishes its ability to fight off infections.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 76. Which statement best describes one’s career choice during the fantasy stage of Donald Super’s career development theory? a. One’s final career is most often chosen. b. One’s abilities and chosen career often do not match. c. The glamour of the career has little to do with its being chosen. d. Interest and values are considered the most critical reasons for a match with career choice.

77. How do cognitive skills change during early adulthood? a. Most cognitive skills decline as young adults enter college or university. b. Memory begins to decline rapidly. c. Memory improves while verbal skills typically decline. d. Verbal skills and general knowledge typically improve, while memory may decline gradually.

78. What changes occur in the skin during early adulthood? a. The skin becomes more elastic. b. The skin changes more for women than for men. c. The skin changes more for men than for women. d. The skin becomes less elastic if subjected to excessive sun exposure.

79. What is dualistic thinking? a. It is the most mature type of thought available. b. It occurs during Piaget’s fifth stage of cognitive development. c. It reflects the type of thought processes of postsecondary adults. d. It involves simple dichotomies of life, such as right or wrong, black or white.

80. Which statement best characterizes menstrual problems? a. They are rare for women. b. They typically involve severe symptoms. c. They are primarily caused by psychological problems. d. They are experienced by many women.

81. Jolene has developed a tolerance for a drug. What is the effect for Jolene? a. She must take less of the drug each day to avoid overdosing. b. She is unlikely to become addicted to the drug. c. She may need increasingly larger quantities of the drug to experience the same effects. d. She was prescribed one form of drug to reduce her dependency on another.

82. When surveyed, which group of Canadians reported the highest perceived stress levels? a. those between 12 and 17 years of age b. those between 18 and 34 years of age c. those between 35 and 49 years of age d. those between 50 and 64 years of age 83. Which of the following is a stimulant? a. nicotine b. alcohol c. ecstasy d. marijuana Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 84. How is binge drinking defined? a. having five drinks in a row on a single occasion b. drinking more than five days in a row c. drinking to the point of black out on any one occasion d. drinking that spans more than a five-hour timeframe 85. Which statement best describes the reality of sexual assault in Canada? a. It is the most frequently reported type of crime. b. It has only recently become a reportable offence. c. Fewer than 10% of incidents are reported to the police. d. It is reported to the police 50% of the time.

86. Which statement best defines substance abuse? a. It is rare during early adulthood; most give it up before that time of life. b. It refers to the ingestion of all form of curative drugs. c. It negatively affects a person socially, occupationally, physically, and psychologically. d. It results from years of steroid use and preoccupation with the ideal body.

87. Which statement best defines the work ethic? a. We work to earn money. b. We work to avoid idleness. c. We work to meet people like ourselves. d. We work to express our personal needs and interests.

88. What is the relationship between physical activity and better health outcomes? a. Physical activity has positive improvements only for cardiovascular health. b. No amounts of physical activity are known to increase health. c. To improve health, adults must have 30-minute segments of physical activity. d. To be healthy, adults must have at least 30 minutes of physical activity five days a week.

89. Jeremy is able to understand another person’s point of view without necessarily accepting it. Jeremy’s ability is a hallmark of what type of thinking? a. dualistic thinking b. pedantic thinking c. empirical thinking d. relativistic thinking 90. Which of the following describes alcohol? a. It is a barbiturate. b. It is an intoxicant. c. It is a stimulant. d. It is a hallucinogen.

91. What is the relationship between gender and the decline of fertility during early adulthood? a. It declines for women, but not for men. b. It declines gradually for both men and women. c. It declines dramatically for both men and women. d. It declines gradually for women, but rapidly for men.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 92. Which statement best characterizes the impact of diversity in college and university? a. It may require the assistance of formal teachings in order to have an impact. b. It may challenge how people think about themselves and others. c. It may be too confrontational to students and weaken their sense of identify and security. d. It may limit students’ understanding of the world.

93. Which statement best characterizes post-formal operational thought? a. It is the same as dualistic thinking. b. It can only be learned in college or university. c. It is the decline in one’s ability to think independently and to reach informed decisions. d. It involves using skills and knowledge acquired throughout life to solve problems.

94. What is the first stage of career development, according to Donald Super’s theory? a. fantasy stage b. achievement stage c. realistic choice stage d. tentative choice stage 95. Which statement best characterizes alcohol abuse? a. It is evident when hallucinations accompany drinking. b. It occurs only if one experiences “blackouts.” c. It occurs more frequently among older adults than younger adults. d. It occurs when activities or work are missed because of alcohol’s effects.

96. How does cognitive development change during early adulthood? a. It peaks during later adulthood. b. It is complete by adulthood. c. It involves changes in fluid intelligence, but not crystallized intelligence. d. It involves a decline on tasks of reasoning or problem solving.

97. Which of the following is cited as potential treatment for premenstrual symptoms? a. surgery b. caffeine consumption c. hormone treatments d. weight loss 98. Which statement best characterizes LSD? a. It is considered a stimulant. b. It has the same effects on the body as alcohol. c. It may cause paranoid delusions. d. It has been shown to be safe to ingest in moderate quantities.

99. What have million-dollar lottery winners illustrated about happiness? a. They require only extrinsic rewards to be happy. b. They demonstrate that money can buy happiness. c. They show that to be happy, both intrinsic and extrinsic rewards are needed. d. They have been shown to be happier than other people for the rest of their lives.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 100. Which category contributes to uncomfortable stress levels for the most young Canadians? a. government b. relationships c. health d. finances 101. Megan is 38 years old and her older sister, Wanda, is 42 years old. Both are interested in starting a family but wonder whether their age presents any risks. What is their physician most likely to say? a. Women should avoid pregnancy after age 35 because of the high risk of problems. b. Women in their late 30s and early 40s rarely have fertility problems. c. Women in their late 30s and early 40s may have a decline in the quality and quantity of their ova. d. Women who participate in good health practices can remain as fertile as those in their 20s.

102. What does the rainbow flag symbolize? a. colourfulness b. inclusion c. difference d. tolerance 103. Which age range is considered early adulthood? a. ages 16 to 18 b. ages 18 to 35 c. ages 35 to 40 d. ages 40 to 45 104. Which of the following is linked to the leading cause of premature death in Canada? a. marijuana b. ecstasy c. alcohol d. nicotine 105. What is reported to be one of the main stresses for young adults? a. marriage b. working c. making friends d. tuition fees 106. Which statement best characterizes pragmatic thought? a. It is immature. b. It is realistic and practical. c. It is hypothetical and abstract. d. It is characteristic of adolescents.

107. What is the leading cause of death for young adults? a. heart disease b. substance abuse c. cancer d. accidents 108. Which statement best characterizes premenstrual syndrome? a. It cannot be treated or prevented. b. It may be linked to hormonal fluctuations. c. It occurs when a woman does not get her period. d. It does not really exist; it is a figment of women’s imagination.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 109. Which statement best describe emerging adulthood? a. It occurs worldwide and leads to more independent young people. b. It is a luxury only afforded to some young people in developed countries. c. It occurs less frequently today than it did 50 years ago. d. It requires that individuals be economically independent.

110. At what age does sexual activity with a partner peak? a. late teens b. twenties c. thirties d. middle adulthood 111. According to a Statistics Canada (2009a) survey, how did the number of LGBTQ people who experienced discrimination compare with the number of heterosexuals who experienced discrimination? a. Two times more LGBTQ experienced discrimination. b. Three times more LGBTQ experienced discrimination. c. Ten times more LGBTQ experienced discrimination. d. Twelve times more LGBTQ experienced discrimination.

112. Which of the following distinguishes hearing ability during early adulthood? a. It is best for high-pitched tones. b. It is much weaker than during adolescence. c. It tends to decline in the late 20s and early 30s. d. It improves dramatically over hearing during adolescence.

113. When does premenstrual syndrome occur? a. 12–14 days after menses ends b. 7 days after menses ends c. 10–12 days before the start of menses d. 4–6 days before the start of menses 114. Which statement best reflects cognitive development in college and university? a. It is a result of being exposed to the right materials. b. It is a matter of changing from relativistic to dualist thinking. c. It is fostered by being exposed to others with different views from oneself. d. It is less involved than the development that occurs for people who do not attend college or university.

115. John has been drinking with his friends for the past two hours and has consumed seven bottles of beer. He is intoxicated. What is one effect that the alcohol will have had on John? a. It will have depressed John’s para-sympathetic nervous system. b. It will have increased John’s inhibitions. c. It will have impaired John’s concentration. d. It will have enhanced John’s perception.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 116. Which statement best characterizes Labouvie-Vief’s (2006) theory of pragmatic thought? a. It has some merit for describing adolescent thought but is not applicable to adults. b. It explains why people settle for second best in life. c. It suggests mature thought involves compromises and practicalities. d. It promotes higher education as a means to achieve mature reasoned thought.

117. What is endometriosis? a. a mild form of premenstrual syndrome c. a neurotransmitter imbalance

b. endometrial cells that are misplaced d. a treatment for premenstrual syndrome

118. Which statement best describes premenstrual symptoms? a. They are rarely severe. b. They can be severe. c. They may impair social, academic, or occupational functioning. d. They are unrelated to fluctuations in hormones or neurotransmitters.

119. Which of the following best characterizes cognitive–affective complexity? a. It is a sign of adolescent thinking. b. It is a result of having a mental illness. c. It is a result of attending college or university. d. It enables both positive and negative feelings about life-matters.

120. Which of the following is a hallucinogen? a. barbiturates b. cocaine c. alcohol d. ecstasy 121. Douglas can recite the capitals of all provinces in alphabetical order. What is Douglas’s ability an example of? a. fluid intelligence b. mental flexibility c. cognitive development d. crystallized intelligence 122. Which statement best characterizes how young people describe their health status? a. About half of young people consider themselves to be healthy. b. Young people rarely think about health and dying. c. Most consider themselves to be healthy. d. Most live in fear of becoming ill before middle-adulthood..

123. According to research findings, what was found to be an effect of college on cognitive development? a. No difference was found in thought processes of those who attended college and those who did not attend college. b. Mature thought was found to evolve from independent and lecture-style instructional teaching. c. Broadened experiences and interactions with diverse faculty were found to encourage cognitive development. d. Attending college was found to be essential to nurture Piaget’s fifth stage of cognitive development.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 124. Which statement best characterizes healthy behaviours in early adulthood? a. They are at their peak during early adulthood. b. They are lacking for many during early adulthood. c. They are not important during early adulthood, which is the time of peak abilities. d. They are lacking for women, but not for men.

125. How is the capacity of the cardiovascular system affected during early adulthood? a. Decreased lung and heart size impacts speed and strength. b. Increased lung capacity allows for greater exercise ability. c. Increased heart rigidity impacts blood and oxygen flow. d. The heart and lungs both increase in flexibility.

126. Jacquie can multiply two four-digit numbers in her head. Which of the following is Jacquie’s skill an example of? a. a spatial skill b. fluid intelligence c. cognitive development d. crystallized intelligence 127. What is one of the most stressful aspects of sexual harassment? a. It usually involves physical contact. b. It often occurs in front of others. c. The victim is often blamed. d. It is usually a one-time occurrence.

128. What is the effect of parental age on chromosomal problems in their offspring? a. Only women’s age contributes to chromosomal problems of offspring. b. Only men’s age contributes to chromosomal problems of offspring. c. Both men’s and women’s age contribute to chromosomal problems of offspring. d. Older women but not older men contribute to chromosomal abnormalities.

129. What is the effect of adaptive thermogenesis? a. It explains why obese people frequently feel hot. b. It explains why all obese people are so overweight. c. It causes skinny people to become obese during adulthood. d. It may hinder weight-loss attempts in some overweight people.

130. Which of the following is a characteristic of cognitive decline during adulthood? a. It rarely affects either crystallized or fluid intelligence, just memory. b. It affects crystallized intelligence more than fluid intelligence. c. It affects fluid intelligence more than crystallized intelligence. d. It affects crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence equally.

131. Which statement best describes most people’s level of physical development in early adulthood? a. It is at its peak. b. It is on a steady decline. c. It is at its lowest point since childhood. d. It is the same as during early adolescence.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 132. Joe learns his son has a substance abuse problem. Joe wants to learn more about substance abuse but is confused by all the terms. Which of the following would an expert in substance abuse be most likely to tell Joe? a. Substance dependence and substance tolerance are the same. b. Tolerance of a substance is rare for those in early adulthood. c. Substance dependence means that having it in the body has become the norm. d. Abstinence syndrome occurs only when someone quits using a substance altogether.

133. Which of the following best characterizes the effects of exercise? a. Cardiovascular exercise has been documented to increase the risk of cardiovascular disease if there is family history. b. If done improperly, it can increase the risk of certain cancers, such as colon cancer. c. It can only be effective if done vigorously every day. d. It may reduce the risk of specific illnesses, such as cardiovascular disease and type 2 diabetes.

134. Alcohol and codeine are examples of which of the following substances? a. narcotics b. stimulants c. depressants d. hallucinogens 135. Which of the following best characterizes sexual assault? a. It can only be committed by strangers. b. It is more commonly committed by strangers than by acquaintances. c. It is less likely to be reported when committed by a stranger than by an acquaintance. d. It is less likely to be reported when committed by an acquaintance than by a stranger.

136. Which statement best characterizes obesity? a. It cannot be avoided. b. It decreases during early adulthood. c. It is influenced by perceptions, behaviours, and knowledge. d. It is caused by biological factors alone.

137. Which of the following is an extrinsic motive for working? a. stimulating activities b. developing talents c. engaging in a challenge d. earning money 138. Josh’s vision and hearing are at their peak; he has reached his final height, has his highest level of muscle mass, and is as strong as he will ever be. What stage is Josh most likely at? a. late childhood b. teen years c. early adulthood d. middle adulthood 139. Which trend has been evident regarding college and university attendance in Canada? a. Fewer students attend now than in the past. b. Enrolment and graduation rates have increased. c. More students enrol but fewer graduate than in the past. d. Graduation rates have increased but grades have declined.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 140. Which statement best describes the function of adaptive thermogenesis? a. It may improve cardiovascular health. b. It may enhance one’s sense of well-being. c. It decreases the likelihood that someone will experience anxiety and depression. d. It causes the body to preserve energy when someone consumes fewer calories.

141. According to the 2015 Health Measures Survey, approximately what percentage of adults are considered obese? a. 25 b. 30 c. 45 d. 50 142. What are the leading causes of death during early adulthood? a. HIV/AIDS is the leading cause of death. b. Accidents and suicide are the leading causes of death. c. Heart disease and cancer are the leading causes of death. d. Homicides and heart disease are the predominant causes of death for men.

143. Which statement best captures the nature of eating disorders? a. They are best addressed by strongly insisting that the person eat or fall ill. b. They are experienced most often by children failing in school. c. They involve factors beyond eating habits. d. They are one of the most easily cured mental health disorders.

144. In addition to having more sexual partners in a lifetime, how do Canadians fare in terms of their sexual experiences? a. Canadians are more sexually adventurous and sexual encounters tend to be longer. b. Canadians are most likely to have frequent, shorter sexual encounters. c. Canadians are more likely to have oral sex than intercourse. d. Canadians are generally predictable and routine where sex is concerned.

145. What is the role of prostaglandins in menstruation? a. They regulate the timing of one’s cycle. b. They cause the uterine muscles to contract. c. They determine the age at which menstruation begins. d. They interfere with menstruation when conception has occurred.

146. What is thought to be one positive outcome of high-profile sexual assault cases? a. They test the justice system. b. They provide opportunities for celebrities to be held accountable. c. They allow people to see that everyone commits sexual assaults. d. They bring the issue of sexual assault into the forefront for discussion.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 147. Which statement best characterizes sensory abilities during early adulthood? a. Most people are farsighted during early adulthood. b. Vision declines sharply by the late 20s or early 30s. c. Vision and hearing do not decline at all during early adulthood. d. Hearing of high pitches tends to decline in the late 20s or early 30s.

148. Which statement best describes early adulthood? a. It is the same as emerging adulthood. b. It occurs later for women than for men. c. It occurs at the same time for all people. d. It has the main task of establishing careers or pathways in life.

149. Jan enjoys her job because she feels as though she is making a difference in her community and she enjoys spending time with the people she works with. Which statement best describes the likely reason Jan enjoys her job? a. She is experiencing extrinsic rewards. b. She is in the fantasy stage of her career. c. She is building her resume for future jobs. d. She is experiencing intrinsic rewards.

150. Which statement best reflects the impact that the #MeToo movement has had on sexual assault cases? a. New categories of sexual assault offences were created in the Criminal Code. b. It is has sparked a decline in official reports but an increase in social media reports. c. It has coincided with an increase in official reports of sexual assaults. d. It has resulted in new reporting methods to better capture the nature of sexual assaults.

151. According to your textbook, which statement best characterizes sexual harassment today? a. It did not occur in the past in both college and university environments. b. It is more tolerated than in the past. c. It rarely happens in today’s society. d. It may cause college and university students to change their programs.

152. According to the Durex Sexual Wellbeing Global Survey, what status do Canadians hold with regard to sexual partners? a. Canadians have fewer sexual partners in a lifetime than all other countries. b. Canadians are the most reserved with regard to experimentation with sexual partners. c. Canadians have more sex with fewer partners in a lifetime. d. Canadians have more partners in a lifetime than those in most other countries.

153. Which of the following is a common challenge young people experience in starting their careers? a. working full time b. saying no to employers c. accepting subordinate status within the organization d. coping with low pay and unsatisfying work conditions

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 154. According to Donald Super, Katharine is in the maintenance stage of her career development. Which statement is mostly likely to describe Katharine? a. She is feeling trapped in her job. b. She is getting ready for retirement. c. She is settling into her selected career. d. She is selecting the jobs her parents wanted her to take.

155. Kelly has amenorrhea, how would she describe it? a. It is caused by gonorrhea. b. It is the absence of menstruation. c. It is caused by severe menstrual cramps. d. It is a problem only during late adulthood.

156. Which of the following is an intrinsic motive for working? a. to attain cash bonuses b. to earn money c. to ensure future security d. to fill days with meaningful activity 157. How do the thoughts of young adults often differ from the thoughts of adolescents? a. They are more abstract. b. They are less egocentric. c. They are more egocentric. d. They are more hypothetical.

158. Jane is experiencing panic attacks, mood swings, binge eating, difficulty sleeping, and lack of interest in her relationship. Which of the following might she be experiencing? a. premenstrual syndrome b. premenstrual dysphoric disorder c. dysmenorrhea d. amenorrhea 159. Which statement best characterizes sexuality during early adulthood? a. Sexual opportunities are less common than during later adulthood. b. Sexual activity is less common than during adolescence. c. Those in early adulthood are in the peak of sexual activity. d. Sexual orientation and age determine the frequency of sexual activity.

160. Which of the following is an extrinsic motive for working? a. to ensure future security b. to be socially engaged c. to avoid a sense of aimlessness d. to engage in stimulating activities 161. When deciding to exercise, what is the most effective method to get started? a. building activity into your daily routine b. setting aside two hours a day for your exercise routine c. exercising vigorously an hour and a half per day, 7 days a week d. consuming 1,000 calories per day to make the most effective use of the exercise regiment 162. Josh has just walked into a medical facility with the following symptoms: spiking blood pressure, increased heart rate, and his blood is thickening. What substance is most likely Josh’s drug of choice? a. opium b. heroin c. alcohol d. cocaine

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 163. Which statement best characterizes the notion of adulthood? a. It emerges rapidly in comparison with all other stages. b. It is dreaded by most. c. It is unchanged in the last four decades. d. It is determined by what one does rather than how old one is.

164. Which statement best describes the transition to adulthood? a. It is defined by age. b. It occurs earlier today than in previous decades. c. It is determined only after an individual has had children. d. It involves determining one’s values and becoming financially independent.

165. Sara is addicted to alcohol and is trying to decrease her consumption. However, when she drinks less, she experiences high blood pressure, increased heart rate, and anxiety. Which term best describes her experience? a. addictive reaction b. adaptive thermogenesis c. tolerance d. abstinence syndrome 166. Sam’s friends are planning to get together to take ecstasy. To prepare himself, Sam reads about substances such as ecstasy. What does he learn about these substances? a. They are rarely addictive. b. They may decrease stress levels. c. They are less harmful to the body than most other substances. d. They may increase anxiety and impair memory.

167. A mother learns that her son has been taking stimulants. What would a substance abuse expert most likely tell her about stimulants? a. They include alcohol and opiates. b. They slow the body’s metabolism. c. They increase appetite and lead to weight gain. d. They accelerate the heart and constrict the arteries.

168. Which statement best characterizes overdoses from cocaine? a. They are rare. b. They may cause severe leg and arm pain. c. They may cause insomnia, tremors, and death. d. They cannot occur because most people ingest very few active ingredients.

169. Your friend experiences bloating just before she has her period. What can you tell her about this? a. It is a symptom of dysmenorrhea which is a common occurrence. b. It is a sign that she is consuming too many calories at that time of the month due to cravings. c. It is something she should consult with her doctor about as it could be a sign of infertility. d. It could signal that she has premenstrual dysphoric disorder.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 170. In Donald Super’s theory, in which stage of career development do young adults settle into their career role? a. fantasy stage b. realistic stage c. retirement stage d. maintenance stage 171. During which stage of career development do we typically consider the match between our abilities and our career options? a. fantasy stage b. final choice stage c. realistic choice stage d. tentative choice stage 172. Which factor acts to protect the well-being of young people during emerging adulthood? a. a diet rich in iron b. owning a pet c. living in a small town or city d. involvement in extracurricular activities a. heroin b. contribute to obesity c. relativistic thinking d. dysmenorrheal e. emerging adulthood f. 3 times higher g. tolerance h. intrinsic reward i. adaptive thermogenesis j. focus on glamorous careers k. weigh rewards against interests l. 30 percent m. nicotine n. reward yourself, but not with food o. dualistic thinking p. accidents q. amenorrhea r. maintenance stage s. abstinence syndrome t. extrinsic reward 173. Depressant 174. Realistic choice stage 175. Most common menstrual problem, associated with cramps 176. Self-fulfillment 177. Observational learning, stress, and emotional states 178. Rate of overweight or obesity in adults 179. Body’s reaction to withdrawal or reduction from substance 180. Addictive part of cigarettes Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 181. Absence of menstruation 182. When you meet your calorie goals 183. Fantasy stage 184. Reported rate of discrimination for LGBTQ 185. Reason for difficulty in losing weight 186. Mature cognition in adults 187. Leading cause of death in early adulthood 188. Late teens to early 20s 189. Money 190. Need to take more of a drug to achieve same level of high 191. “Settling” in stage of career development 192. Black-and-white thinking of adolescents 193. How is emerging adulthood considered to be a different stage of life from adolescence and early adulthood?

194. How do intrinsic and extrinsic motives cause people to work?

195. How does cognition develop during early adulthood?

196. Briefly describe the stages in Super’s theory of career development?

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 197. What is sexual assault and what are the risks for women and reporting statistics?

198. How do depressants, stimulants, and hallucinogens affect the body differently? Give examples of each.

199. How does college or university affect cognitive development?

200. Why are sexually transmitted infections particular problems during early adulthood?

201. What are the leading causes of death during early adulthood?

202. What are the characteristics of physical development during early adulthood?

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. False 16. True 17. True 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. True 22. False 23. False 24. True 25. True 26. True

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 27. False 28. True 29. False 30. False 31. True 32. True 33. True 34. False 35. False 36. False 37. False 38. False 39. False 40. True 41. True 42. False 43. False 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. True 48. True 49. False 50. True 51. True 52. True 53. True 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 55. True 56. False 57. False 58. True 59. True 60. False 61. True 62. False 63. True 64. False 65. True 66. False 67. True 68. True 69. True 70. False 71. True 72. True 73. False 74. True 75. a 76. b 77. d 78. b 79. d 80. d 81. c 82. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 83. a 84. a 85. c 86. c 87. b 88. d 89. d 90. b 91. b 92. b 93. d 94. a 95. d 96. d 97. c 98. c 99. c 100. d 101. c 102. b 103. b 104. d 105. d 106. b 107. d 108. b 109. b 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 111. b 112. c 113. d 114. c 115. c 116. c 117. b 118. c 119. d 120. d 121. d 122. c 123. c 124. b 125. c 126. b 127. c 128. c 129. d 130. c 131. a 132. c 133. d 134. c 135. d 136. c 137. d

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 138. c 139. b 140. d 141. b 142. b 143. c 144. a 145. b 146. d 147. d 148. d 149. d 150. c 151. d 152. d 153. c 154. c 155. b 156. d 157. b 158. b 159. c 160. a 161. a 162. d 163. d 164. d 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 166. d 167. d 168. c 169. a 170. d 171. c 172. d 173. a 174. k 175. d 176. h 177. b 178. l 179. s 180. m 181. q 182. n 183. j 184. f 185. i 186. c 187. p 188. e 189. t 190. g 191. r 192. o

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 193. Emerging adulthood is considered a distinct stage from the earlier and later stages since individuals in emerging adulthood have more responsibilities than they had during adolescence, but NOT yet as many as they will have during adulthood. Because attending college and university in Canada is now more accessible to more people, more students are postponing both their complete economic independence from their parents and their entrance into careers and marriage. Emerging adulthood is considered an extended period during which individuals may explore career opportunities and other roles in life.

194. Intrinsic motives are those that come from within a person, such as the desire to be productive, self-fulfilled, and to develop a sense of self. These motives are self-governing and can be maintained without having to have an external source. Extrinsic motives are those that require input from an external source, such as money, benefits, and future security. Extrinsic motives tend to lose their power when absent and may be weaker than intrinsic motives.

195. Although some developmentalists debate whether a fifth stage of cognitive development follows Piaget’s formal operational stage, there is strong support for the notion that cognition does change during early adulthood. Although earlier cognitive ability is characterized as abstract and hypothetical, later cognitive ability appears to be more pragmatic, or practical, and more realistic. Rather than focusing on black-and-white characterizations of situations, individuals are able to consider conflicting ideas simultaneously. Additionally, crystallized intelligence, one’s knowledge, continues to increase during this period and can be expertly applied in some situations. Fluid intelligence, the ability to process information rapidly, gradually declines as reaction time slows during later adulthood.

196. The first stage is the fantasy stage. During this stage, individuals, usually children, are drawn to careers that are exciting and glamorous, regardless of their fit with the individual’s interests or abilities. The tentative choice stage adds the component of one’s interests and abilities, yet the component of glamour continues to be involved. The realistic choice stage typically occurs in later adolescence and involves the narrowing down of choices based on one’s abilities and interests. One may still choose a career based on family pressures or by chance but matches between interests and careers are more likely for some. The maintenance stage involves the establishment and development of the career throughout adulthood, often with a sense of improvement in one’s abilities. While individuals may change jobs over their lifetimes, they tend to have stable vocational interests and choose jobs to reflect these stable interests.

197. Sexual assault is defined as any form of sexual activity without a person’s consent, including kissing, touching, and intercourse. According to the Canadian Centre for Justice Statistics, victimization data suggests that fewer than 1 in 10 incidents of sexual assault are reported to police. Further, 94 percent of incidents of sexual touching go unreported, compared with 78 percent of sexual attacks. Although victims may not report these crimes to the police, many do seek support from informal sources, such as friends, co-workers, and health care professionals. The #MeToo movement that became prominent in 2017 sparked an increase in sexual assault reports. On college and university campuses high rates of sexual violence were precipitated by a predominance of males (84%) who did not consider their actions to be illegal. Social attitudes, myths, and cultural factors work to encourage sexual assaults by men.

198. Depressants slow the activity of the central nervous system, whereas stimulants speed up its activity. Hallucinogens cause perceptual distortions. Alcohol, heroin, opium-derived narcotics, and sedatives are examples of depressants.

Nicotine, cocaine, and amphetamines are examples of stimulants. PCP, marijuana, ecstasy, and LSD are examples of hallucinogens.

199. College and university provide exposure to a plethora of information about a variety of subjects, with the opportunity for students to be exposed to experts in many fields who have spent long periods of time studying these subjects.

Additionally, college and university students are exposed to people of other backgrounds and cultures, which provides an opportunity to learn about other perspectives and new ideas. Also, an increase in casual interactions with professors and adults at college or university helps students to develop broader views and abilities.

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Chap_13_HDEV_4ce 200. During early adulthood, when many individuals have not committed to monogamous relationships, sexual opportunities are at their peak. As a result, many individuals in early adulthood are likely to have multiple sexual partners. Drug and alcohol abuse are most likely during this period, which are strongly linked with an increased risk of contracting STIs. Many young adults may be aware of factors that can increase their health, but they tend to avoid healthy behaviours, such as avoiding the use of condoms. Thus, the risk of exposure is highest at a time when adequate precautions are typically ignored.

201. Accidents are the leading causes of death for males during the early phase of early adulthood, as was the case during adolescence. Often these accidental deaths are related to risk-taking behaviours and involve all-terrain vehicles, motorcycles, and water vehicles. For females, accidents and cancer are the leading causes of death during this period.

202. Physical development is at its peak during early adulthood, with strength and fitness being at their highest potential during the lifespan. Body fat is low in proportion to muscle mass, particularly in males. Height is also at its highest level at this stage. Sensory abilities, reaction time, and cardiovascular fitness are also at their best during this time.

Fertility is high and slowly declines toward the end of early adulthood.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. According to Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, passionate love is rarely compatible with friendship. a. True b. False 2. Romantic love is a 20th century invention. a. True b. False 3. If you hold traditional views of marriage and gender roles, you will be less likely to cohabit. a. True b. False 4. Jealousy is always considered to be destructive. a. True b. False 5. People are more likely to be attracted to people who reciprocate positive feelings. a. True b. False 6. The establishment and maintenance of social relationships are key goals of personality development for men. a. True b. False 7. Social attitudes impact explicit attraction toward those with physical disabilities. a. True b. False 8. Levinson, in his theory of the seasons of life, considers the ages of 17 to 33 to be the entry phase of adulthood for young men. a. True b. False 9. Most people who get married expect to stay together for the rest of their lives. a. True b. False 10. Increased cohabitation and the pursuit of educational goals are two reasons why more young adults are single than in the past. a. True b. False

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 11. When the mother and father agree on parenting workload distribution, they are more likely to experience less stress. a. True b. False 12. Satisfaction with one’s career is unrelated to marital satisfaction. a. True b. False 13. Sternberg’s triangular theory of love includes intimacy, passion, and commitment as important components. a. True b. False 14. Features such as good hair and teeth are universally appealing to men and women in potential partners. a. True b. False 15. Divorce may cause physical and mental health problems. a. True b. False 16. Canada lags behind most developed countries where LGTBQ rights are concerned. a. True b. False 17. According to Erikson, a strong sense of identity develops out of one’s intimate relationships with others. a. True b. False 18. Levinson, in his theory of seasons of life, suggested that men and women experience different levels of social constraints affecting their entry into adulthood. a. True b. False 19. Fatuous love is considered the most stable sort of love, according to Sternberg’s triangular theory of love. a. True b. False 20. A study has shown that marital satisfaction tends to decline during the first year after a baby is born. a. True b. False 21. In 2011, approximately 15% of households represented single Canadians. a. True b. False

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 22. Women are more likely to divorce if they have cohabited before marriage. a. True b. False 23. Susan is married to a man who has multiple wives. His marital situation is best described by the term cohabitor. a. True b. False 24. Research on attraction and mate selection supports the idea that “opposites attract” more than “birds of a feather flock together.” a. True b. False 25. Same-sex marriages are legal throughout Canada today. a. True b. False 26. The psychosocial conflict identified by Erikson for early adulthood is intimacy vs. isolation. a. True b. False 27. Problems in the workplace contributed to tension in marriage, health problems, and dissatisfaction with the relationship. a. True b. False 28. Loneliness is rare in early adulthood. a. True b. False 29. Being single today stigmatizes young adults more so than in the past. a. True b. False 30. Parents are often depressed after the birth of a child because of work overload. a. True b. False 31. Cleanliness and good teeth are more important qualities in a potential mate for men than for women. a. True b. False 32. Having a baby will strengthen a weak marriage. a. True b. False

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 33. Research supports the hypothesis that people tend to develop romantic relationships with people who are similar to themselves in attractiveness and other traits, such as personality. a. True b. False 34. According to Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, in companionate love, intimacy and commitment are strong, but passion is lacking. a. True b. False 35. Canadians are most likely to report that marrying is important for those who wish to spend their lives together and have children. a. True b. False 36. Approximately 25% of lone parent families are headed by men. a. True b. False 37. The nature of romantic relationships and the satisfaction of the partners strongly affect the well-being of each member of the couple at various stages throughout adulthood. a. True b. False 38. The concept of “like marrying like” is termed homogamy. a. True b. False 39. In Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, couples are well matched if they possess corresponding levels of passion, intimacy, and commitment. a. True b. False 40. In Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, it is more important to have passion than intimacy. a. True b. False 41. Romantic love has been identified as a cognitive appraisal of physiological arousal. a. True b. False 42. Those who cohabit do it primarily for economic reasons. a. True b. False

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 43. If one marital partner drinks heavily, marital satisfaction declines. a. True b. False 44. Studies have found that the mothers in dual-earner families encounter more stress than the fathers do. a. True b. False 45. Those who choose to cohabit prior to marriage tend to be very religious and traditional in attitudes about marriage. a. True b. False 46. Recent years have seen a sharp increase in the numbers of single young adults in our society. a. True b. False 47. In the past few years, the use of the term “shacking up” has increased in an effort to remove the stigma of cohabitating. a. True b. False 48. Attractiveness is primarily impacted by genetic factors for both men and women. a. True b. False 49. Infatuation, or passionate love, includes sexual desire without intimacy and commitment. a. True b. False 50. Loneliness is related to both physical health problems and depression. a. True b. False 51. In Levinson’s theory of the seasons of life, the early twenties are commonly characterized by reassessment: “Where is my life going?” “Why am I doing this?” a. True b. False 52. Standards of beauty are culture specific. a. True b. False 53. Of all marriages in Canada, 20 to 25% will end in divorce. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 54. Separation from one’s parents and individuation are considered important tasks for early adulthood. a. True b. False 55. Monogamous marriage involves two people. a. True b. False 56. Havighurst’s (1972) list of developmental tasks for early adulthood has been criticized for being heteronormative. a. True b. False 57. In more traditional societies, parents report having children to strengthen marital bonds, provide social security, assist with labour, and improve the odds of reincarnation. a. True b. False 58. Polyamory is common in Canada today. a. True b. False 59. People are more attracted to those who smile. a. True b. False 60. Many young adults play jealousy games. a. True b. False 61. Lonely people are less likely to have effective social skills than other people who are less lonely. a. True b. False 62. Supporters of arranged marriages believe they are less likely to end in divorce. a. True b. False 63. A young adult’s employment and financial independence can reduce feelings of connectedness with parents, whereas attending college or university can maintain these feelings. a. True b. False 64. Cohabitation prior to marriage causes divorce. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 65. Consummate love is considered the ideal type of love in Western society. a. True b. False 66. According to evolutionary theory, men are valued as providers for offspring, while women are valued for their reproductive capacity. a. True b. False 67. Few single people report being lonely. a. True b. False 68. Many people remain lonely because of dread of rejection. a. True b. False 69. Havighurst’s (1972) developmental tasks are still relevant for all young adults today. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

70. Which statement best describes separation and individuation? a. They are important for women, but not for men. b. They are the same as developing social relationships during early adulthood. c. They are considered key goals of early adulthood, especially for men. d. They are an essential step toward self-actualization.

71. Havighurst (1972) created a list of developmental tasks of early adulthood. What population group does this list most apply to? a. gays and lesbians b. adults who choose not to have children c. married 20-year-old heterosexual couples d. adults who remain single 72. Jane’s friends ask how she feels about her new relationship. She describes a deep level of intimacy but expresses no passion or a desire to commit. How would Sternberg define her typology? a. empty love b. liking c. infatuation d. companionate love 73. What is the prevalence of divorce in Canada today? a. It is rare. b. It occurs in approximately 40% of families. c. It has declined since the 1960s because of the increase in cohabitation. d. It is lower in the Quebec, occurring in approximately 20% of married couples.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 74. Which of the following characterizes reciprocity in relationships? a. It is unimportant for determining longevity of relationships. b. Both members of a couple reinforce each other’s attraction through mutual compliments. c. It shows weakness in a couple’s relationship. d. It refers to lack of “newness” that can lead to discontent over time.

75. What is the relationship between physical attractiveness of a person and our view of that person? a. Physical attractiveness is considered the most important determinant in mate selection. b. Physical attractiveness is unimportant in determining one’s mate selection. c. Physical attractiveness appears to be key to opening the door to learning more about a person. d. Physical attractiveness is our positive feeling regarding someone’s good looks.

76. Which statement best characterizes Havighurst’s (1972) developmental tasks of early adulthood? a. They are universally applicable. b. They are more applicable to gay and lesbian young adults. c. They ignore the realities of human diversity and contemporary life. d. They are the same tasks as those identified for today’s young adults.

77. Which of the following best characterizes those who cohabit? a. They have less traditional views of marriage than those who do not cohabit. b. They are more likely to be highly religious than those who do not cohabit. c. They do not believe in marriage. d. They do so because their lives are more transient than those who marry.

78. According to the textbook, which statement best describes people who are single? a. They are sometimes afraid for their safety. b. They share the same sexual interests and lifestyles. c. They usually have commitment issues, which is why they are single. d. They are rarely lonely because they have many opportunities to meet others.

79. Farrah and Michael have been together for five years. Their love for each other was initially extremely passionate and has developed into a strong relationship with equal parts passion, commitment, and intimacy.

What word describes their relationship? a. foolish b. consumed c. consummate d. companionate 80. What did Kishnick’s research on attractiveness reveal about the cultural impact on attractiveness? a. Features of physical attractiveness have been hard-wired into brains for thousands of years. b. Qualities thought to be attractive are adapted based on local environment. c. Attractiveness is determined at birth and held as static throughout one’s life. d. Level of physical attractiveness is determined by males in most societies.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 81. According to research, to what degree are we usually similar to those with whom we have committed relationships? a. We are usually similar in geographic background. b. We are rarely similar to those to whom we are most committed. c. We are often genetically and culturally similar. d. We are frequently similar in gender and socioeconomic status.

82. Diana has finished her postsecondary education and is beginning a new job in a city far from her parents’ home.

What process Diana is continuing? a. intimacy and isolation b. enclosure and separation c. enclosure and individuation d. individuation and separation 83. In general, what types of individuals do we tend to marry? a. those who differ from ourselves in most ways b. those in similar socioeconomic situations c. those who are higher in economic status d. those in lower socioeconomic situations 84. Which statement best represents Sternberg’s triangular theory of love? a. Opposites attract. b. Birds of a feather flock together. c. Successful couples have similar amounts of the three components of love. d. The three components of love stay at the same level for the life of a relationship.

85. According to research cited in the textbook, what is the effect of workplace problems on dual-earner couples? a. What happens in the workplace stays in the workplace. b. Workplace problems are worse for men than for women. c. Workplace problems affect health and marital satisfaction. d. The father takes on more responsibilities while the mother re-adapts to the work world.

86. Michael recently graduated from college, found an apartment, and has a job that will enable him to begin paying back his college loans. According to Levinson and his colleagues, what phase of adulthood is Michael in? a. the entry phase b. the arduous phase c. the bargaining phase d. the maintenance phase 87. Which of the following best characterizes couples who cohabit? a. They rarely divorce. b. They tend to be less religious. c. They do so primarily to save money. d. They tend not to marry those they cohabited with.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 88. Which of the following best characterizes divorce? a. It affects men and women equally. b. It is most often caused by a lack of financial support. c. It increased after the mid-1960s, when the grounds for divorce were broadened. d. It occurs more today than in the past because people now expect less from marriages than their grandparents did.

89. What hormone shapes the male face? a. progesterone b. pheromones c. estrogen d. testosterone 90. What type of love did Sternberg identify as being high in passion and intimacy, but low in commitment? a. foolish love b. romantic love c. consummate love d. companionate love 91. Which statement best characterizes dual-earner families? a. Mothers are more likely than fathers to drop out of their jobs when problems occur in the family. b. Although fathers are expected to change their working arrangements to stay home with their children, the reality is that mothers are most likely to do so. c. Fathers tend to be responsible for the child-care arrangements. d. In time, both fathers and mothers experience enhanced work and marital satisfaction.

92. According to 2011 statistics, what is the prevalence of single-person households in Canada? a. 1 in 6 of all Canadian households b. 1 in 5 of all Canadian households c. 1 in 4 of all Canadian households d. 1 in 3 of all Canadian households 93. What types of people do we tend to marry? a. those similar to ourselves in education levels and attractiveness b. those who are much better looking and better educated than ourselves c. those who are much older or younger than ourselves d. those who share similar cultural heritage 94. Which of the following was found by evolutionary studies of what men and women find attractive? a. Women find dark-haired men less attractive than blond or fair-haired men. b. Women find shy men more attractive than outgoing men. c. Men find outgoing women more attractive than shy women. d. Factors that enhance reproductive potential underline attraction.

95. Which statement best characterizes our perception of attractiveness? a. It is determined purely by physicality. b. It is unaffected by the sound of one’s voice. c. It is determined in part by psychological characteristics. d. It is determined based on the age of those being studied.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 96. How will having a child affect a marriage? a. It will strengthen a weak marriage. b. It will save a weak marriage. c. It will put stress on any marriage. d. It will promote the desired to have additional children.

97. Which of the following is a cause of loneliness? a. completing post-secondary education b. upward career mobility c. lack of empathy d. lack of individual differentiation 98. Which of the following is a significant reason why couples experience a decline in marital satisfaction after the birth of a child? a. infant sleep patterns and crying b. challenges with parents and in-laws c. lack of financial support d. increased use of alcohol 99. Why do most couples have children today? a. because their contraception failed b. because they failed to use contraception c. in developed nations, to increase their happiness d. in developing nations, to increase their happiness 100. After graduating from university, Richard has decided to embark on a new phase of his life, by following his desire to open his own consulting firm. According to Levinson and his colleagues, which of the following is Richard following? a. his heart b. the dream c. the seasons of life theory d. the arduous life theory 101. Which statement represents the experience of women according to Levinson and colleagues’ theory called “seasons of life”? a. Women have more social constraints affecting them than men do. b. Women tend to transition earlier than men. c. Women are more likely than men to live on their own after leaving their parents’ home. d. Women do not experience the same call to live “the dream” as men.

102. Which statement best represents the evolutionary theory of attractiveness? a. Men select women on the basis of their economic appeal. b. Women choose men on the basis of their ability to raise children. c. Women and men prefer mates on the basis of their biological clocks. d. Men and women choose partners on the basis of their reproductive potential.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 103. Which of the following best represents the effects of divorce? a. Men are more affected because they miss the companionship once experienced in the marriage. b. Divorced people have higher rates of illness than married people. c. Most people quickly recover from divorce, both economically and emotionally. d. Men are more affected by divorce than women because they are more likely to have to pay alimony.

104. Mark and Mary met three months ago and just returned from a “romantic” wedding in Vegas. What term would Steinberg use to describe their love? a. empty love b. fatuous love c. infatuation d. romantic love 105. What physical feature is universally appealing to both females and males? a. age b. a steady gait c. reliability d. economic status 106. Which statement best describes the state of single people today? a. Single people are rarer today than 50 years ago. b. Those who are single are typically considered to be social outcasts. c. Being single is the most common lifestyle among those in their early 20s. d. Singles older than age 30 are viewed as being maladapted.

107. According to the textbook, which of the following leads to Martha being considered more attractive than her classmates? a. She is smiling. b. She is puckering her lips. c. She is wearing tight clothing. d. She has thick hair.

108. Are people who have physical disabilities viewed as equally attractive as people who do not? a. Those with physical disabilities are almost always rated as being less attractive than those without. b. It depends a great deal on the nature of the disability. c. Those with physical disabilities are often viewed as more attractive than those without. d. They are viewed as equally attractive but social attitudes create bias against those with physical disabilities.

109. Which of the following best characterizes the time in the life cycle when early adulthood begins? a. 18 b. 20 c. 25 d. varies depending on which view one takes 110. Which of the following best characterizes romantic love? a. It has existed only for the last century. b. It is the same as sexual attraction. c. It is a simple concept. d. It can begin when we hear our first fairy tale.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 111. Wayne is considered to be lonely. Which statement characterizes him? a. He is often afraid of being rejected. b. He believes the best about other people. c. He is rarely found in the general population. d. He has good social skills but lacks the opportunity to use them.

112. Beth and Chris have been in a relationship for two years. Beth desires more intimacy and commitment than Chris feels is possible in the relationship. What would Sternberg’s triangular theory of love most likely suggest about the components of love and Beth and Chris’s relationship? a. Their relationship should endure because it is important for one member of the relationship to have high levels of these two components. b. Having similar levels of these components is important for a successful relationship to continue. c. As long as passion is present in high levels, the other two components are less important for the relationship to be maintained. d. Successful couples do not have similar amounts of the three components of love, but they complement each other.

113. What hormone shapes the female face? a. progesterone b. pheromones c. estrogen d. testosterone 114. What is the relationship between physical attractiveness and the persons we choose to marry? a. Physical attractiveness is related to whom we marry. b. Physical attractiveness is critical for whom we choose to marry. c. Physical attractiveness is unrelated to whom we marry. d. Physical attractiveness is relevant only to marriages that take place in one’s 20s, not later.

115. What does research tell us about the relationship between ratings of attractiveness and facial expression? a. A smiling face was rated as less attractive if it was not perceived to be genuine. b. A negative facial expression was found to intimidate men. c. Women are more likely to be impacted by facial expression than men are. d. People rate others as more attractive when they are smiling.

116. Which statement best characterizes people who enter into arranged marriages? a. Most are also deeply in love with those they marry. b. They are, on average, older than those who marry for love. c. They are, on average, more traditional than those who marry for love. d. They often come from diverse backgrounds and communities.

117. Which statement best describes marital satisfaction? a. It is unrelated to intimacy. b. It is negatively correlated with satisfaction with one’s career. c. It is negatively correlated with physical health and well-being. d. It is related to one’s confidence in being able to influence a marriage for the better.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 118. Paul is getting married for the first time. Which of the following women is he most likely to marry? a. a woman who is much older than he is b. a woman who is much less attractive than he is c. a woman who has much more education than he has d. a woman who is close in age with similar educational achievements 119. According to the textbook, which of the following best describes people who are single in their 20s? a. They are single because they choose to be so. b. They are happier than their married counterparts. c. They see themselves as being single for the rest of their lives. d. They are more likely to be postponing marriage today than a generation or two ago.

120. Which statement best describes the effect of using social support? a. It is unimportant in maintaining one’s health. b. It has little effect on the effects of depression. c. It reduces the effects of stress. d. It reduces isolation, but not loneliness.

121. In developed nations, most parents report having children for what reason? a. to increase their happiness b. to strengthen their marital bonds c. to provide for them in their retirements d. to share their gifts 122. Which of the following is a common experience of mothers who must return to work soon after the birth of their child? a. They are often depressed. b. They rarely experience stable marriages. c. They have worked out equitable household and parenting duties with their spouses. d. They usually expect the father to take the lead role in parenting the child.

123. According to the text, how do most young people feel about marriage today? a. They see it as important for those who plan to spend their lives together and have children. b. They see it as a tradition that is no longer relevant. c. They believe it should come later in life after children are born and careers are established. d. They define living together as married so see no need for a legal ceremony.

124. Amy and Andy are twins in early adulthood. Which of the following best represents their feelings of connectedness to their parents? a. They are more essential for Andy than for Amy. b. They need to be completely detached before Amy and Andy truly become adults. c. They drop off fully after Amy and Andy begin attending college or university. d. They are related to the financial and emotional support Amy and Andy receive from their parents.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 125. What addition might one make to the list of developmental tasks of early adulthood created by Havighurst (1972), which would reflect the reality of today’s young adults? a. separation from one’s family of origin b. choosing and courting a mate c. assuming civic responsibilities d. starting a family and becoming a parent 126. Which of the following is part of Sternberg’s theory of love? a. passion b. arousal c. attachment d. idealizing 127. Which statement best represents the current thinking about the individuation of young adults from their parents? a. It is considered healthy. b. It is considered unhealthy. c. It is considered to be the same as separation. d. It is stronger for college- or university-bound offspring than for those who start their careers early.

128. What is a characteristic of lonely people? a. They may be overly confident in their social skills. b. They are often found to be outspoken and overly loud in social settings where they feel under scrutiny. c. They may fail to disclose personal information to others, or they disclose too much too soon. d. They are critical of others but are confident of their own skills.

129. Which of the following statements best characterizes same-sex marriages? a. They are not the same as heterosexual legal unions. b. They are legal throughout Canada today. c. They are not legal in any state in the United States. d. Canada lags behind other countries in providing legal rights to those in same-sex marriages.

130. According to Erikson, what stage of development occurs during early adulthood? a. the intimacy vs. despair stage b. the identity vs. intimacy stage c. the intimacy vs. isolation stage d. the identity vs. identify confusion stage 131. Which of the following is likely to motivate a couple to get married? a. fear of being alone b. to save money c. the desire for more sex d. long term happiness 132. Which of the following is a reason why people cohabit? a. to satisfy religious values b. to make parents happy c. to avoid procreation d. to save money 133. According to the textbook, what is the most likely outcome when one marital partner is a heavy drinker? a. Marital satisfaction will decline. b. The relationship is affected only if the drinker is a man. c. The relationship is affected only if the drinker is a woman. d. The relationship will be affected only if the other partner feels compelled to drink.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 134. Which statement best represents the current perception of unmarried couples who live together? a. It is considered less a sin by most people today, but it is still discouraged. b. It is encouraged because when marriage follows, it is more likely to be successful. c. It has become less stigmatized compared with past generations. d. It is unacceptable for young adults after the age of 30.

135. Mandy is in her late 20s and is beginning to wonder whether she is heading in the direction that she really wants, both with her career and with her boyfriend. According to Levinson and his colleagues, what phase is Mandy in? a. the dream phase b. the emotional phase c. the planting roots phase d. the age-30 transition phase 136. Which statement best characterizes marital satisfaction during the first year after the birth of a child? a. It is negatively impacted. b. It reaches its peak. c. It remains the same as it was prior to the birth. d. It is unrelated to the amount of sleep the parents have.

137. Which statement best represents the findings of research on loneliness? a. Few young adults experience it. b. People who are lonely are always depressed because loneliness causes depression. c. It is related to low self-confidence, introversion, unhappiness, and emotional instability. d. People in relationships rarely feel lonely or depressed because they have somebody even if that person is not an ideal partner.

138. What is fatuous love? a. a deeply felt, long-term committed relationship b. high in commitment and passion, but low in intimacy c. high in commitment and intimacy, but low in passion d. the love most likely to develop in relationships between older adults 139. Alan and Susan Smith are parents of two children in their twenties. Both children continue to live at home.

What can you tell the Smiths about the situation? a. They are highly traditional parents and their children have likely failed to detach in a healthy way. b. Many children are living at home longer and delaying financial responsibility. c. Their children are likely to stay in the home now until well into their thirties, earning them the name “launchfail kids.” d. They should consider themselves fortunate to have children at home to support them financially as they move toward retirement.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 140. According to the textbook, which of the following statements describes marriage? a. It occurs earlier today than in previous generations. b. For traditionalists, marriage legitimizes sexual relations. c. It is the most common lifestyle among young adult traditionalists. d. It is increasing in Canadian households compared with a generation ago.

141. Which statement best describes loneliness? a. It is unrelated to physiological problems. b. It is caused by immature behaviour in most cases. c. It is rarely linked with depression because loneliness is not a problem for most people. d. It is associated with increased risk of cancer, cardiovascular disease, and higher mortality rates.

142. How do young people today feel about marriage? a. They are skeptical of marriage given high divorce rates. b. They believe it is important for those who want to stay together for life. c. They see it as a complication to otherwise free and happy lives. d. They feel it is important for those who are likely to be lonely living alone.

143. According to current thinking on mate selection, what meaning is reflected by the phrase “Birds of a feather flock together”? a. the likelihood that similar people are more likely to remain as partners b. a situation not upheld by research on mate selection c. the same as “opposites attract” d. an example of folklore passed on over the generations 144. According to the “seasons of life” theory of Levinson and his colleagues, which of the following statements best defines early adulthood? a. Early adulthood occurs when fertility is optimal therefore the primary task is to plan and raise a family. b. Early adulthood provides little time for reflection about one’s goals in life. c. Early adulthood is a satisfactory time for women and a stressful time for men based on the number of divergent needs and options. d. Early adulthood is the entry phase into adulthood, when individuals leave home and become more responsible.

145. Which of the following statements best describes marriage today? a. It mostly enables sexual relations among young adults. b. It provides a sense of security and opportunities to share feelings with another person. c. It is typically not seen as a lifelong commitment among younger adults. d. It legitimizes sexual relations.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 146. What is companionate love? a. the same as consummate love b. a whirlwind relationship that burns out quickly c. the longest lasting relationships with the most passion d. a long-term relationship in which passion has ebbed, but strong friendship is evident 147. Which statement best defines consummate love? a. It develops when passion is high, but commitment is low. b. It is a brightly burning passionate relationship that burns out quickly. c. It refers to two people who are best of friends but have little passion for each other. d. It is considered “complete” love, comprising passion, commitment, and intimacy.

148. Which term refers to having a relationship that allows for sexual relationships with other partners? a. polyandry b. polygamy c. polygyny d. polyamory 149. Which statement best characterizes parenthood in Canada today? a. It rarely affects the well-being of the parents. b. It is considered a necessary part of marriage. c. It is occurring early today than it did a generation ago. d. It is considered desirable in early adulthood.

150. According to evolutionary theorists, what has led to gender differences in our standards of attractiveness? a. learned behaviours b. cultural standards c. reproductive advantages d. individual differences 151. According to the textbook, when does loneliness peak? a. adolescence b. young adulthood c. middle-adulthood d. old age 152. Which statement best characterizes intimacy in a marriage? a. It is negatively correlated with marital satisfaction. b. It is overrated in its importance for marital satisfaction. c. It is related to trust, honesty, and sharing one’s feelings. d. It is less important for a marriage than passion, in the long run.

153. Which statement best characterizes the separation of young adults from the family home? a. It should occur around the age 18. b. It is more worrying when a male child leaves. c. It can be damaging to the parent–child relationship. d. It occurs at diverse times and under different conditions for many.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 154. How many more people cohabited in 2011 than 30 years ago? a. about the same number b. double the number c. three times as many d. four times as many 155. Which statement best characterizes jealousy? a. It is always damaging to relationships. b. It is a sign of a mature relationship. c. It can lead to a loss of feelings of affection and to feelings of insecurity and rejection. d. It can lead to an increase in affection and desire.

156. Which of the following statements best describes our perception of attractiveness? a. It has universal qualities. b. What is considered attractive in one culture may be considered less attractive in another culture. c. It varies too much from individual to individual to be able to generalize to a culture. d. It is unimportant in determining one’s mate selection.

157. According to Sternberg’s model, what is the relationship between friendship and passionate love? a. They cannot both stay alive because they are on opposite sides of the love continuum. b. They are necessary for a romantic relationship to occur. c. They do not necessarily overlap but may co-exist when lovers become best friends. d. They can only stay alive when consummate love has existed.

158. Which of the following best characterizes most people who cohabit? a. They rarely get married. b. They tend not to marry those they cohabited with. c. They are more likely to be strongly religious. d. They tend to have less traditional views of marriage than married couples.

159. Which of the following statements best reflects the experience of stress in dual-earner families? a. On average, men experience more stress than women. b. Balancing childcare with work plays a big role in the stress of the mother. c. Having a flexible schedule causes more stress for the mother by making her life unpredictable. d. Stress increases when elderly dependent parents are involved.

160. Which component of Sternberg’s triangular theory of love involves intense romantic or sexual desire? a. passion b. intimacy c. reciprocity d. commitment 161. Which of the following best represents arranged marriages today? a. They rarely last long. b. They continue to be used in some traditional societies. c. They are the same as polygamous marriages. d. They were once common and revered but seldom take place worldwide.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 162. According to research conducted by John Gottman, what is the critical time at which half of all marriages that are going to end do end? a. within the first 18 months of the marriage b. within the first 7 years of the marriage c. between 10 and 15 years d. between 20 and 25 years 163. Which of the following best describes love, according to Berscheid and Hatfield? a. It is an illusion of people’s imaginations. b. It is disconnected from physical arousal. c. It is physiological arousal interpreted as love. d. It is harmful to maintaining a long-term relationship because it is merely physical.

164. Which of the following best represents a criticism of Erikson’s view of early adulthood? a. He suggests that those who choose to remain single do not develop normally. b. He states that one must develop a relationship prior to developing a career. c. He is not supported by research on the importance of relationships in early adulthood. d. He explains that for men to develop normally they need relationships more than women do.

165. Which statement best represents Sternberg’s triangular theory of love? a. Romantic love is doomed to failure in the long run. b. Only companionate love will succeed over the long term. c. All relationships share the same level of each of the three components. d. As relationships develop, they may change the proportion of each component.

166. Which of the following best characterizes the practice of celibacy? a. It is practised by most young adults today. b. It is practised today only by religious adherents. c. It may be a result of choice or lack of opportunity. d. It is never practised nowadays because of the advancements in contraception.

167. When Janet described her new relationship with Jim, she focused on her overwhelming sexual desire. Which part of Sternberg’s triangular theory of love is most evident in her relationship? a. passion b. desire c. intimacy d. commitment 168. Which statement best represents the “seasons of life” for adults, as identified by Levinson and his colleagues? a. People shape their lives according to the goals they consider to be most important. b. The seasons of life are determined by the person’s age and birth order within the family of origin. c. The seasons of life show that real significant change has occurred at the same age throughout past generations. d. One must develop intimate relationships that focus on perpetuating future generations.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 169. According to Erikson, what is the key crisis of young adulthood? a. separating from one’s parents b. developing a sense of one’s self c. establishing intimate relationships d. understanding the sexual nature of one’s relationships with one’s mother 170. Which statement best represents Erikson’s warning about the order of developmental tasks in early adulthood? a. Developing an intimate relationship may need to precede establishing one’s identity. b. Identifying a career should precede getting married. c. Developing one’s ego identity may need to precede establishing an intimate relationship. d. Developing a clear professional path precedes the fusing of ego identity.

171. What did McHale and Rotman (2007) find in their study of new parents and their parenting roles? a. Mothers always took on the bigger share of parenting. b. When mothers took on the bigger role of parenting, the marital relationship had the most harmony. c. When fathers took on the bigger role of parenting, the marital relationship had the most harmony. d. When the parents agreed on their levels of parenting, the marital relationship had the most harmony.

172. Which of the following is a reason why people cohabit? a. to send a message to friends that they are in a relationship b. because their parents encourage them to do so c. to avoid legal entanglements d. they have a fear of divorce 173. Jenna teases her boyfriend, Jon, by saying she has decided to practice serial monogamy. Jon doesn’t know what that means and asks his older sister, Samantha. What is Samantha most likely to say about serial monogamy? a. It is illegal in Canada. b. It is the same as polygamy. c. It is practised by few adults in Canada. d. It is the practice of having one relationship at a time.

174. According to the textbook, why are people who cohabit before marriage more likely to divorce after marriage? a. Cohabitation weakens the marital bonds. b. They may be less committed to marriage because of their non-traditional views. c. They are less educated than those who get married without cohabiting and thus they are less committed to marriage. d. They are emotionally unprepared for the commitment required to sustain a marriage.

175. According to the textbook which of the following is identified as contributing to the decline in marital satisfaction? a. lack of common activities b. differences in physical appearance c. heavy drinking by one partner d. home ownership

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 176. Which of the following is a factor that influences cohabitation? a. sexual orientation b. how many peers are cohabiting c. increased likelihood of a successful marriage d. sharing of household expenses a. Havighurst’s developmental tasks for early adulthood b. linked to marital dissatisfaction c. reciprocity d. intimacy-passion-commitment e. Canadian maternity leave f. divorced and separated people g. polyamory h. attraction-similarity hypothesis i. psychological task of early adulthood j. loneliness k. cleanliness, good complexion, clear eyes, good teeth, good hair, firm muscle tone, and a steady gait l. for happiness or well-being m. singlehood during early adulthood n. serial monogamy o. consummate love p. intimacy vs. isolation q. arranged marriage r. age homogamy s. assessment at age-30 transition identified in Levinson’s “seasons of life” theory t. companionate love 177. High levels of intimacy and commitment, low level of passion 178. The Broadway musical, Fiddler on the Roof 179. May cause health problems, depression, and suicide 180. Multiple partners, one after another 181. Physical features marking reproductive fitness 182. Components of Sternberg’s triangular theory of love 183. Marrying someone close in age 184. Selecting and courting a mate; assuming civic responsibilities 185. Highest rates of physical and mental illness 186. “Where is my life going?” “Why am I doing this?”

187. Consenting partners in an open sexual relationship 188. Heavy drinking 189. Reason many choose to have children Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 190. “Birds of a feather flock together” 191. Separation from one’s family of origin 192. One year 193. High levels of passion, commitment, and intimacy 194. No longer seen as socially stigmatizing 195. Mutual reinforcement that people find appealing 196. Erikson’s psychosocial stage during early adulthood 197. Is cohabitation a good trial marriage? Why or why not?

198. How did Levinson consider the “seasons of life” or phase of early adulthood to be different for men and for women? How is his view considered today?

199. Why do people get married?

200. Why is psychological separation considered important for young adults?

201. What conflict did Erikson identify for the phase of early adulthood? How is this conflict resolved?

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 202. Briefly describe Sternberg’s triangular theory of love.

203. What are the consequences of loneliness?

204. What attracts people to others?

205. What are some of the developmental tasks in Havighurst’s view for early adulthood? Why is this view considered outdated or not applicable to all young adults?

206. What factors explain the trend of more singles during early adulthood?

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. True 11. True 12. False 13. True 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. True 19. False 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. False 24. False 25. True 26. True

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 27. True 28. False 29. False 30. True 31. False 32. False 33. True 34. True 35. True 36. True 37. True 38. True 39. True 40. False 41. True 42. False 43. True 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. False 48. False 49. True 50. True 51. False 52. True 53. False 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 55. True 56. True 57. True 58. False 59. True 60. True 61. True 62. True 63. True 64. False 65. True 66. True 67. False 68. True 69. False 70. c 71. c 72. b 73. b 74. b 75. c 76. c 77. a 78. a 79. c 80. b 81. c 82. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 83. b 84. c 85. c 86. a 87. b 88. c 89. d 90. b 91. a 92. c 93. a 94. d 95. c 96. c 97. c 98. a 99. c 100. b 101. a 102. d 103. b 104. b 105. b 106. c 107. a 108. d 109. d 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 111. a 112. b 113. c 114. a 115. d 116. c 117. d 118. d 119. d 120. c 121. a 122. a 123. a 124. d 125. a 126. a 127. a 128. c 129. b 130. c 131. d 132. d 133. a 134. c 135. d 136. a 137. c

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 138. b 139. b 140. b 141. d 142. b 143. a 144. d 145. b 146. d 147. d 148. d 149. d 150. c 151. a 152. c 153. d 154. d 155. c 156. b 157. c 158. d 159. b 160. a 161. b 162. b 163. c 164. a 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 166. c 167. a 168. a 169. c 170. c 171. d 172. c 173. d 174. b 175. c 176. d 177. t 178. q 179. j 180. n 181. k 182. d 183. r 184. a 185. f 186. s 187. g 188. b 189. l 190. h 191. i 192. e 193. o Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 194. m 195. c 196. p 197. More young adults are cohabiting to save money, to avoid long-term legal commitments, and to postpone some adult responsibilities. Cohabitation does not carry the stigma it once did when it would have been considered “living in sin.”

Cohabitors may have less respect for the institution of marriage and thus be less likely to commit to a long-term relationship, even after marriage has begun. Research indicates that women who cohabited before marriage were more likely to separate or divorce. Cohabitation does not cause divorce but those who are likely to cohabit are also more likely to be less traditional and less religious than non-cohabitors.

198. According to Levinson’s “seasons of life” theory, during early adulthood both men and women were expected to develop themselves as independent from their parents, emotionally and financially. At the same time, Levinson suggested that women had a more difficult time with this development because they were also expected to fall within societal and familial expectations, which were more constraining for women than for men. Women were pressured more to leave the parental home to go to a home with a husband.

199. People get married for a myriad of reasons, such as to improve their economic status, to legitimize their children, for acceptance of sexual relations, to provide a sense of emotional support and stability, and to increase their happiness.

200. During early adulthood, one of the key tasks is to separate psychologically from one’s parents. This task is considered important since one must become financially and emotionally independent to be considered a true adult. At the same time, a young adult is expected to individuate and become a clearly separate person with his or her own values and beliefs.

201. The psychosocial conflict identified by Erikson for early adulthood is intimacy vs. isolation. During this conflict, the individual, having already clarified his or her identity, is expected to develop and maintain long-term, healthy intimate relationships, such as a marital relationship and strong friendships.

202. Sternberg’s triangular theory of love suggests that love relationships have three components: intimacy, passion, and commitment. Intimacy is the experience of warmth toward another person that arises from feelings of closeness and connectedness and from the desire to share one’s inmost thoughts. Passion is intense romantic or sexual desire, accompanied by physiological arousal. Commitment is devotion to maintaining the relationship through good times and bad. Different types of relationships can be identified by indicating different levels of the three components. For example, fatuous (foolish) love can be classified as love that is high in passion and commitment, but low in intimacy.

Another type of love is high in all three components and is known as consummate love. In some cases, one or more components may decline over time in a relationship. For example, in companionate love, there may have been high levels of passion at one time, but later there is low passion, but high intimacy and high commitment.

203. Loneliness, which is distinguished from being alone, is often associated with negative factors and negative outcomes.

Loneliness is associated with increased health problems, such as cancer, heart disease, and cardiovascular disease. It is also associated with depression and suicide. Some factors that may lead to loneliness are also negative, such as poor or absent social skills, a persistent belief that people are unreliable, and expectations of rejection by others.

204. Researchers suggest that people find others attractive who have traits, both physical and psychological, similar to themselves. Although specific beauty standards are culture-specific, beauty has been shown to often be parallel to markers of reproductive fitness, such as clear complexions, ample busts for women, and deeper voices for men.

These markers indicate that a female may be reproductively capable and that a male is dominant and capable of maintaining an environment for the offspring.

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Chap_14_HDEV_4ce 205. Some of the developmental tasks for early adulthood include getting started in an occupation, selecting and courting a mate, learning to live contentedly with one’s partner, starting a family and becoming a parent, assuming the responsibilities of managing a home, assuming civic responsibilities, and finding a congenial social group. Nowadays, with emerging adulthood postponing some of these tasks until later in early adulthood, this view is less relevant than it was a generation ago. Also, this view does not apply to non-traditional families, such as same-sex couples and those who choose not to have children.

206. People today are remaining single much longer into adulthood than in previous generations. People are often choosing to remain single in order to achieve goals prior to marriage, such as completing university or college, becoming financially stable, and becoming stable in a career. More young adults are cohabiting, which means they are able to have sex without having to be married. Singlehood has lost its stigma for young adults; it is now considered normal for young adults to postpone marriage until their late twenties and beyond.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Some minority members avoid health care screenings because they believe the health care system to be racist. a. True b. False 2. As people age, they tend to have less patience with others and a lowered ability to motivate those who work for them. a. True b. False 3. All factors that lead to heart disease are within the control of the individual. a. True b. False 4. Heart disease is one of the top causes of death in middle adulthood. a. True b. False 5. Hormone replacement therapy has been controversial, with some women benefitting from it and others being harmed by it. a. True b. False 6. Homicide and suicide are the leading causes of death in middle adulthood. a. True b. False 7. All middle-aged adults experience the same level of cognitive changes. a. True b. False 8. Bones in the spine, hip, thigh (femur), and forearm lose the most density as people age. a. True b. False 9. Both hair loss and skin elasticity increase during middle adulthood. a. True b. False 10. The most common sexual problems among middle-aged women are lack of sexual desire and difficulty becoming sexually aroused. a. True b. False

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 11. Exercise and good diet may stave off erectile dysfunction for some middle-aged men. a. True b. False 12. Two out of three cancer deaths in Canada are the result of two factors people can control: smoking and diet. a. True b. False 13. African Canadians have twice the average death rate from prostate cancer compared with people of other ethnic/racial groups. a. True b. False 14. Most middle-aged adults are unenthusiastic about having sex. a. True b. False 15. Cancer is caused by hereditary and environmental factors. a. True b. False 16. In 2013, Cancer Care Ontario recommended women have mammograms to screen for breast cancer beginning at age 40, a. True b. False 17. It is most common for the body mass index (BMI) to decrease during middle adulthood. a. True b. False 18. Creativity peaks during early adulthood. a. True b. False 19. Reaction time—the amount of time it takes to respond to a stimulus—increases with age, mainly because of sensory changes. a. True b. False 20. Reaction time is one aspect of perceptual speed. a. True b. False 21. Heart disease and cancer are often preventable in middle adulthood. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 22. Anxiety disorders are increasing in frequency among middle-aged adults. a. True b. False 23. Leukocytes are foreign bodies that cause inflammation. a. True b. False 24. Much of the difference in mortality rates from cancer during middle adulthood can be attributed to lack of early detection and treatment. a. True b. False 25. Plasticity refers to people’s intellectual abilities being able to be modified under certain conditions at almost any time in life. a. True b. False 26. Few men over age 50 can father children. a. True b. False 27. During middle adulthood, lack of sexual desire is more common among women than men. a. True b. False 28. Perimenopause takes 15 years to be completed. a. True b. False 29. Middle-aged people typically need to eat less to maintain their weight than when they were younger. a. True b. False 30. Menopause signals an end to women’s sexual desires. a. True b. False 31. Hormonal therapy and radiation treatment have few or no negative side effects when used to treat cancer patients. a. True b. False 32. Schaie’s research, which began in 1956, has shown that younger adults are smarter than older adults. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 33. Cancer is a chronic, noncommunicable disease characterized by uncontrolled growth of cells. a. True b. False 34. The climacteric involves the steady decline in the reproductive capability of women. a. True b. False 35. Lung tissue stiffens with age, diminishing capacity to expand, such that breathing capacity may decline by half between early and late adulthood. a. True b. False 36. During middle adulthood, rote rehearsal and elaboration rehearsal become easier for people to use. a. True b. False 37. A plummet in estrogen may lead to unpleasant perimenopausal sensations, such as night sweats, hot flashes, and hot flushes. a. True b. False 38. During middle adulthood, changes in metabolism, muscle mass, strength, bone density, aerobic capacity, bloodsugar tolerance, and ability to regulate body temperature can be moderated and sometimes reversed through exercise and diet. a. True b. False 39. Crystallized intelligence tends to boost during adulthood, while fluid intelligence tends to decrease. a. True b. False 40. Working memory and long-term memory both improve during middle adulthood. a. True b. False 41. Few middle-aged adults experience sexual dysfunctions. a. True b. False 42. All cancerous cells form metastases, which are breakaway cells that travel through the bloodstream. a. True b. False

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 43. Mental health care costs are higher than costs for cancers and infectious diseases. a. True b. False 44. The lenses in the eyes of middle-aged adults become stiffer and harder to focus on near objects. a. True b. False 45. Beginning at age 20, we lose nearly 1.5 kg of lean-body mass with each decade. a. True b. False 46. No two people age in the same way or at the same rate, which is known as interindividual variability. a. True b. False 47. Age-related changes to vision begin to happen in the mid-30s. a. True b. False 48. More than 90% of indigenous women age 40 years and older have had a mammogram. a. True b. False 49. The health of people aged 40 to 65 in Canada is better than ever. a. True b. False 50. Heart disease most commonly results from arteriosclerosis or hardening of the arteries. a. True b. False 51. The stress of chronic hostility and anger is related to higher cholesterol levels and a greater risk of heart disease. a. True b. False 52. People in middle adulthood are more vulnerable to a variety of illnesses, but they also become less prone to irresponsible behaviour that may result in injury or death. a. True b. False 53. Long-term estrogen deficiency has been linked to osteoporosis. a. True b. False

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 54. In men, the decline in the production of male sex hormones and fertility is more gradual than the decline women experience in the production of female sex hormones and fertility. a. True b. False 55. About one man in two and one woman in three in Canada will eventually develop cancer if they live long enough. a. True b. False 56. The cardiovascular system becomes more efficient during middle adulthood. a. True b. False 57. Both men and women experience menopause. a. True b. False 58. The biggest sexual dysfunction for middle-aged men is premature ejaculation. a. True b. False 59. The incidence of cancer increases significantly with age. a. True b. False 60. The resting metabolic rate—also called the basal metabolic rate (BMR)—declines during middle adulthood. a. True b. False 61. Stress suppresses the immune system. a. True b. False 62. Canada saw a population increase of 21%, as the result of postwar babies. a. True b. False 63. Mature learners are no different from younger learners. a. True b. False 64. Body tissues lose their sensitivity to glucose as we age. a. True b. False

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

65. Which statement best describes the effects of estrogen? a. Its deficits are associated with symptoms such as night sweats and hot flashes. b. It sparks the flashes that cause dizziness in menopausal women. c. It increases during the climacteric. d. It is the female equivalent to the male epinephrine and norepinephrine.

66. Which of the following is an effect of the change in bone density during middle adulthood? a. an inability to sustain exercise routines b. the decreased need for calcium c. increases in bone strength d. an increased risk of osteoporosis 67. What changes occur to reaction time during middle adulthood? a. Reaction time decreases throughout middle adulthood. b. Reaction time increases because of a loss in IQ throughout middle adulthood. c. Reaction time increases because of a loss of neurons involved in sensing signals. d. Reaction time decreases because people are wiser.

68. Which of the following is accurate about arteriosclerosis? a. It is more common in men than women. b. It is a build-up of fatty deposits. c. It is a treatment used to address heart disease. d. It is also known as hardening of the arteries.

69. Which statement best describes inflammation? a. It is bad for the immune system. b. It increases the supply of white blood cells used to combat foreign invasion. c. It is a sign that the immune system is failing. d. It is engaged when red blood cells defend the body from a viral invasion.

70. What are the top two causes of death in middle adulthood? a. cancer and accidents b. suicide and accidents c. cancer and heart disease d. heart disease and suicide 71. Which statement best describes creativity during middle adulthood? a. It is at its lowest level for most people. b. It is better for physicists than for musicians. c. It is the same as the creativity of younger adults. d. It is sometimes different from the creativity of younger adults.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 72. Which statement best describes muscle strength during middle adulthood? a. It is at the same level as it has been since early adulthood. b. It changes gradually. c. It declines and cannot be compensated for by exercise. d. Most people become stronger than they were in early adulthood.

73. What psychological or behavioural characteristic is a risk factor for heart disease? a. type B personality b. type A personality c. family history d. eating animal fats 74. Katharine is 55 years old and is concerned about changes in her metabolism, muscle mass, strength, bone density, aerobic capacity, blood-sugar tolerance, and her ability to regulate body temperature. What is her physician most likely to tell her about these changes? a. They are irreversible in middle adulthood. b. They can be compensated for by expertise. c. They can be managed by diet and exercise. d. They are rarely affected by one’s behaviour.

75. Which statement best describes the immune system? a. It engages red blood cells to defend the body from invasion. b. It is largely determined by heredity and diet. c. It uses leukocytes to combat bacteria, fungi, and viruses. d. It functions best with a high level of serum cholesterol.

76. What is the relationship between diet and cancer? a. Diets that are high in fibre, fruits, and vegetables help reduce cancer risk. b. Diet is rarely related to cancer. c. Diet has no effect on risk of cancer. d. Diet overwhelmingly accounts for 90% of all cancers in Western cultures.

77. What cognitive decline is typically experienced in middle adulthood? a. a decline in working memory b. a decline in long-term memory c. a decline in inductive reasoning d. a decline in special processing 78. Which statement best characterizes the age-related changes in spatial orientation and numeric ability? a. They both increase during middle adulthood. b. They are both related to crystallized intelligence. c. They both decline dramatically in late adulthood. d. Spatial orientation declines during late adulthood, while numerical ability increases.

79. Which of the following occurs during middle adulthood? a. Aerobic capacity increases. b. Interindividual variability is the rule. c. Sensory functioning declines rapidly. d. Metabolism levels increase significantly.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 80. Which statement best characterizes women’s sexual dysfunctions during middle adulthood? a. They are rare. b. They are more common than men’s experiences. c. Women are more likely than men to experience performance anxiety. d. Lack of desire and pain during intercourse are common.

81. Which statement best reflects sexual dysfunctions in middle-aged men? a. They are caused by increases in testosterone levels. b. They occur because men want sex all the time. c. They include lack of desire, which occurs more for men than women. d. They may make men more anxious, which can lead to a vicious cycle.

82. How does the cardiovascular system during middle age compare with its functioning earlier in life? a. It becomes less efficient. b. It becomes more efficient. c. It is no different from its functioning in early life stages. d. It becomes easier to maintain breathing rate during exercise.

83. Your aunt is afraid that she might develop cancer because she is entering middle adulthood and she has heard that the risk is high for her age group. What is the best advice you could give to her? a. Eat more red meat and vegetables. b. Eat well and don’t smoke. c. Join a gym and stay busy. d. Avoid the spread of viruses and germs.

84. Martha finds that her hair is starting to go grey, her skin is less elastic, and she is slower at racquetball as she used to be. What stage is Martha most likely in? a. adolescence b. early adulthood c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood 85. Which of the following typically improves as we age? a. long-term memory b. short-term memory c. intelligence d. reaction time 86. Why do people in developed nations, aged 40 to 65, have better health than ever before? a. Everyone has access to high-quality health care. b. People get annual checkups beginning at this time. c. Vaccinations are available for preventable diseases. d. People are exposed to unlimited medical advice.

87. Of all Canadians diagnosed with cancer in a given year, how many will not survive for five years? a. 2% b. 10% c. 25% d. 50%

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 88. Which statement best characterizes physical development during middle adulthood? a. Heart health is at its peak. b. Balance and strength are rates are at their peak. c. Physical decline occurs rapidly regardless of exercise and diet. d. It declines gradually for most people who exercise and eat well.

89. How is bone density affected by aging? a. Bone density increases with age. b. Bone density is consistent throughout one’s life. c. Bone density decreases with age, beginning around age 40. d. Bone density decreases with age, beginning around age 60.

90. What changes occur to lean-body mass and body fat during middle adulthood? a. Lean-body mass increases with age, and fat also increases. b. Lean-body mass increases with age, whereas fat decreases. c. Lean-body mass decreases with age, and fat also decreases. d. Lean-body mass decreases with age and is replaced with fat.

91. Which statement best characterizes the leading causes of death in middle adulthood? a. They “scream out their preventability.” b. They are cancer, heart disease, and accidents. c. They are suicide, accidents, and homicide. d. They remain the same as in early adulthood.

92. Which of the following statements reflects the research findings on mature learners? a. They are less motivated than younger adult learners. b. They are less likely than younger adults to find material interesting. c. They are more likely to be female than male. d. They are less likely than younger adults to find meaning in their work.

93. What has research found regarding increases and decreases of crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence during adulthood? a. Both crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence increase. b. Both crystallized intelligence and fluid intelligence decrease. c. Crystallized intelligence decreases, whereas fluid intelligence tends to increase. d. Although crystallized intelligence increases, fluid intelligence tends to decrease.

94. Which statement best describes stress hormones? a. They decrease in effectiveness during middle adulthood. b. They include steroids, epinephrine, and norepinephrine. c. They can reduce the likelihood of heart attack. d. They are the body’s natural supply of antigens.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 95. What is the impact of aging on body mass index (BMI)? a. BMI decreases with age. b. BMI remains stable over time. c. BMI changes due to loss of fat cells. d. BMI changes due to loss of muscle mass.

96. Which of the following best characterizes the change in abilities in middle adulthood? a. a sharp decline in memory abilities b. an improved ability to use elaborative rehearsal c. an improved ability to ignore distractions d. a decline in the ability to learn through rote repetition 97. Which statement best describes the effect of stress? a. It has no impact on the immune system. b. It affects everyone the same way. c. It leaves people more vulnerable to illness. d. It activates the body’s natural supply of antigens.

98. Which statement is a reasonable expectation that a middle-aged adult can have about their cognitive development? a. They will experience a decline in all areas of cognitive functioning. b. They will find that they are less able to problem solve than in the past. c. They will continue to develop and change in a variety of ways. d. They will experience a decline but will be able to hide this from others.

99. Which type of intelligence is defined as a cluster of knowledge and skills that depend on accumulated information and experience, awareness of social conventions, and the capacity to make good decisions and judgments? a. fluid intelligence b. verbal intelligence c. crystallized intelligence d. street smart intelligence 100. What is the function of glucose? a. It calms the body after physical exertion. b. It increases its presence in the bloodstream to compensate for insulin loss. c. It is the fuel that feeds the cells. d. It increases body tissue sensitivity and causes diabetes.

101. What weight change are middle-aged and older adults likely to experience? a. They are more likely to gain weight easily as they age because of changes in their basal metabolic rate (BMR). b. They are less likely to gain weight easily as they age because of changes in their basal metabolic rate (BMR). c. They are as likely to gain or lose weight as they were when they were younger. d. They will gain weight because an increase of calories that is required in middle-adulthood.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 102. Which of the following is an effect of estrogen deficiency? a. It is linked to stroke. b. It is linked to a loss of breast tissue. c. It is linked to increased sexual desire. d. It is linked to uterine cancer.

103. Which of the following best characterizes the risk factors for heart disease? a. They are unknown. b. They include smoking and age. c. They cannot be reduced by one’s behaviour. d. They are more common among women than men.

104. Which statement best characterizes suicide among middle-aged adults? a. Men commit suicide at higher rates than women. b. Suicide is extremely rare among middle-aged adults. c. Women commit suicide at higher rates than men. d. Middle-aged adults commit suicide at higher rates than those of any other age.

105. Paul is 45. He recently purchased reading glasses because he was unable to read the fine print on his medication bottle. What is most likely the cause of his visual difficulty? a. myopia b. cataracts c. glaucoma d. presbyopia 106. Which term refers to intellectual abilities NOT being absolutely fixed but being able to be modified under certain conditions at almost any time in life? a. plasticity b. multidirectionality c. interindividual identity d. interindividual variability 107. Which statement best characterizes andropause? a. It is successfully treated by testosterone replacement therapy. b. It is a rapid drop in male sex drive and hormone production during middle adulthood. c. It is the same as menopause, but for men during middle adulthood. d. It is the gradual decline in the production of male sex hormones.

108. Martha finds that as she gets ages, she can still recall most of her medical training, but she cannot recall the Italian she learned when she was a student. Which of the following is illustrated by Martha’s cognitive development? a. plasticity b. reaction speed c. interindividuality d. multidirectionality 109. Which statement best describes people in minority groups and their health care? a. They are less likely to be screened for cancer. b. They have better health insurance than the dominant group. c. They believe the health care system is fairly distributed and sensitive to issues of race and ethnicity. d. They are more likely to be diagnosed with cancer, but less likely to be treated for it than members of the dominant group.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 110. According to the Canadian Cancer Society, approximately what percentage of lung cancer deaths in Canada are caused by cigarette smoking? a. 15 b. 35 c. 55 d. 85 111. Which statement best characterizes physical development in middle adulthood? a. Physical decline is rapid for most people. b. Exercise and diet can stave off aging completely. c. People are at their peak physical levels. d. Changes may be impacted through exercise and diet.

112. Maria is fluent in two languages and is learning her third. She is in her mid-40s. Which of the following concepts is Maria illustrating? a. plasticity b. multidirectionality c. interindividual reliability d. interindividual variability 113. Which statement best characterizes the treatment for cancer? a. It includes radiation and chemotherapy. b. It typically has no negative side effects. c. It targets unhealthy tissue and has no impact on healthy tissue. d. It is more dangerous than the cancers themselves.

114. What is the most important factor that employers should remember when considering the hire of a middle-aged worker? a. Avoid hiring middle-aged workers. b. They know more than younger adults and their social skills allow them to understand and motivate others. c. They are more limited in their ultimate potential in a career. d. They are easily overwhelmed when asked to learn new skills and company policies.

115. What is Viagra? a. a medication for treating sexual dysfunctions in men b. a medication for treating colon cancer in women c. a medication for treating cardiovascular disease that contributes to premature ejaculations d. an immunological disorder experienced mostly by middle-aged men 116. What did Schaie (1994) find regarding perceptual speed? a. It decreases between early and late adulthood. b. It decreases only during late adulthood. c. It increases during middle adulthood and then declines rapidly during late adulthood. d. It is controlled by neurological factors.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 117. Which statement best characterizes cancer during middle adulthood? a. African Americans have higher than average colorectal cancer incidence and death rates. b. European Americans have twice the average death rate from prostate cancer. c. The rate of cervical cancer among Latina American women is lower than that of all other demographic groups. d. More than 80% Aboriginal women age 40 years and over have had a recent mammogram.

118. Which of the following best describes most men during middle adulthood? a. They are not capable of fathering children. b. They experience the same swift drop in hormones as women do. c. They benefit significantly from testosterone replacement therapy. d. They experience a steady decline in sexual functioning and hormone production.

119. Which statement best characterizes the health of people aged 40 to 65? a. It is the same around the world. b. It has decreased in the last century. c. It is best for all people who live in Canada today. d. It varies significantly, depending on one’s genetics and access to health care.

120. Which phrase best describes the nature of crystalized intelligence in middle adulthood? a. An old dog can learn new tricks. b. The early bird catches the worm. c. Better safe than sorry. d. Time is on your side.

121. What is perimenopause? a. It is same as menopause. b. It is the beginning of menopause. c. It is the final stages of menopause. d. It refers to men’s decrease in testosterone.

122. What is the meaning of interindividual variability? a. All people change at the same rate during middle adulthood. b. Change is predictable during middle adulthood. c. No two people change in the same way or at the same rate. d. Cognitive abilities change more than physical and sensory functioning.

123. While Canadians are proud of their healthcare system, what is one factor that impacts treatment of diseases in Canada a. age b. lack of trained physicians c. poverty d. gender

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 124. Your doctor has just informed you that you have heart disease. You ask, “What does that mean? How did I get it?” Which of the following would she most likely reply? a. Heart disease rarely strikes without giving noticeable symptoms. b. Heart disease is not preventable. c. Heart disease includes arteriosclerosis. d. Heart disease involves a buildup of leukocytes, which decreases your circulation.

125. Which of the following best characterizes the climacteric? a. It typically lasts 15 years. b. It is the end of menopause. c. It is a result of a decline in testosterone in men during middle adulthood. d. It is the steep decline in hormones that occurs for women during middle adulthood.

126. Which statement best characterizes presbyopia? a. It is caused by glaucoma. b. It is the equivalent of nearsightedness. c. It results from less flexible lenses in the eye. d. It is the failure to see objects that are at a distance.

127. What is the effect of long-term estrogen deficiency? a. It is linked to osteoporosis. b. It reduces the risk of most types of cancer. c. It is linked to a decreased risk of heart disease. d. It causes the ovaries to atrophy.

128. You are studying the effects of developmental psychology during middle adulthood, which includes the age range of both your parents. Which of the following changes can your parents expect? a. a rapid cognitive decline b. more accidents than experienced by younger adults c. rapidly declining sensory and sexual abilities d. greater risk for certain illnesses than during early adulthood 129. Which of the following represents a woman’s experience of sexual activity as she ages? a. Sexual activity may become painful because of thinner vaginal walls and reduced lubrication. b. Women’s sexual desire declines while that of men increases. c. NO treatments are available for them to help with sexual dysfunctions. d. A women’s decrease in sexual desire occurs only if her partner has erectile dysfunction.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 130. According to Schaie (2004), which of the following is a factor that helps to prevent declines in cognitive abilities in late adulthood? a. working within 5 minutes of home b. rural living c. living with a partner who is intellectually active d. having children 131. Which statement best characterizes the mortality rates from cancer during middle adulthood? a. They are often attributable to the lack of early detection and treatment. b. They are lower than during later adulthood. c. They are more prevalent among women than men. d. Types of cancer are evenly distributed across gender and racial groups.

132. Which of the following is a change occurring to the skin during middle adulthood? a. Skin loses its shine. b. Skin increases its melanin. c. Skin loses its elasticity. d. Skin becomes oilier.

133. Which of the following is most directly linked to cancer risk? a. sedentary lifestyle b. working too many hours c. being overweight d. eating red meat 134. What type of memory typically declines during middle adulthood? a. procedural memory b. all types of memory c. working memory d. long-term memory 135. Which statement best describes the sexual activity of nearly three-quarters of adults aged 57 to 64? a. They never have sex. b. They rarely have sex. c. They continue to be sexually active. d. They become impotent or experience severe sexual dysfunctions.

136. Which of the following best represents the findings of research on the effects of hormone-replacement therapy (HRT)? a. It caused cancer in everyone who used it. b. It increased the risk of osteoporosis and heart disease for those who used it. c. It decreased the risk of breast cancer for those who used it. d. It has provided advantages and disadvantages for many women.

137. How are expertise and practical skills affected during middle adulthood? a. Expertise and practical skills increase. b. Expertise and practical skills decrease. c. Expertise increases while practical skills decrease. d. Expertise decreases while practical skills increase.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 138. You have been diagnosed with cancer and your doctor informs you of a treatment plan that will involve chemotherapy. Which of the following would your doctor likely state? a. The use of hormones will also be used to stop tumour growth. b. The use of high-dose X-rays will kill the tumours prior to the chemotherapy. c. Chemotherapy is less effective than other treatments for cancer. d. Chemotherapy often leads to negative side effects, such as hair loss and nausea.

139. Which statement best describes what is known about cancer in middle adulthood? a. It is rarely preventable. b. It can often be controlled or cured. c. Melanoma is the most common form of cancer in Canada. d. Most cases are not detected through regular screening.

140. What is a shared characteristic of verbal ability and inductive reasoning? a. Both are related to fluid intelligence. b. Both decline rapidly during middle adulthood. c. Both are components of crystallized intelligence. d. Both decrease gradually during middle adulthood.

141. How is the basal metabolic rate (BMR) affected by aging? a. The BMR remains unaltered with age. b. The BMR increases throughout middle adulthood. c. The BMR decreases throughout middle adulthood. d. The BMR rapidly increases during the beginning of middle adulthood and rapidly decreases at the end of middle adulthood.

142. Which statement best describes the cardiovascular system during middle adulthood? a. The heart pumps less blood. b. Less oxygen is required to maintain lung capacity. c. The maximum heart rate increases. d. The heart and lung muscles enlarge.

143. Dan is a manager of an information technology company. He has two finalists for a job opening: one is aged 45 and the other is aged 23. Which of the following statements provides accurate information to help guide Dan’s final hiring decision? a. Middle-aged adults are unable to learn new skills. b. Middle-aged adults have more experience and practical knowledge than younger adults. c. Younger adults are smarter than older adults. d. Middle-aged adults’ acquired knowledge has begun to decrease but not their practical skills.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 144. Which statement best represents the experience of Indigenous populations with cancer? a. They among the most resilient to cancer. b. They are more likely to receive mammograms than other populations.. c. They have immunities that other cultural groups do not appear to have. d. They have the poorest survival rates.

145. It’s your 40th birthday, and you are celebrating with your girlfriends who are all older than you. Your friends say, “Just wait and see what happens to your hair now!” Which of the following is going to happen? a. Your hair will lose its myelin sheath. b. Your hair will decrease in production overall, especially for women. c. Your hair will usually begin to go grey. d. Your hair texture will change, becoming thicker and coarser.

146. Which statement distinguishes sexual dysfunctions during middle adulthood? a. They are uncommon for both men and women. b. Regardless of gender, loss of desire is common in middle adulthood. c. Women were more likely to report reaching orgasm too soon, compared with men. d. The loss of sexual desire is greater for men than for women.

147. What causes adult-onset diabetes? a. the reduced sensitivity of the pancreas to insulin levels b. the decrease in muscle mass in middle adulthood c. eating too much sugar d. body tissues’ decreased ability to take up glucose from the bloodstream 148. Schaie’s longitudinal study began in 1956. What was his study’s findings regarding cognitive abilities? a. Cognitive abilities decline as people age. b. Cognitive abilities differ because of genetic reasons. c. People born earlier had better cognitive abilities than those born later. d. Cognitive decline can be slowed in specific circumstances.

149. Which statement best describes mental health issues in middle adulthood? a. The rates of mental illness are higher in middle adulthood than they were in adolescence. b. Depression is the most common mental health issue. c. Schizophrenia is the most common mental health issue. d. It is sometimes difficult to diagnose the mental health disorders of middle-aged adults.

150. Which statement best describes cognitive development during middle adulthood? a. It results in some reduction in processing speed and lapses in memory. b. It results in a sharp decline in working memory capacity. c. It remains the same as it was in early adulthood. d. It is complicated by the diminishing crystallized intelligence factor.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 151. Which statement best characterizes returning adult students? a. They usually understand their ideas are out of date. b. They tend to be more tolerant of the teacher–student role. c. They are more likely to find the material interesting for its own sake. d. They usually perform as good as on tests and quizzes than their younger classmates.

152. How is breathing affected during middle adulthood? a. Breathing is unchanged by exercise. b. Breathing declines in capability because of changes in lung tissue due to aging. c. Breathing becomes easier with age because of increased capacity of the lungs. d. For most, breathing declines by approximately 90% by the end of middle adulthood.

153. Which statement best characterizes women who return to school during middle adulthood? a. They are less likely than men to return to school. b. They are usually not as smart as their younger classmates. c. They are less likely to have high demands on them from work and family than women who do not return to school. d. Those who receive the most support from their families and employers experience the least stress when returning to school.

154. What two controllable factors are responsible for two out of three cancer deaths in Canada? a. alcohol abuse and smoking b. smoking and diet c. alcohol abuse and diet d. smoking and exercise 155. Which statement best describes menopause? a. It happens to both men and women. b. It usually occurs at age 35. c. It is defined by the cessation of menstruation. d. It generally occurs around the age of 60.

156. A group of long-time friends, all middle-aged men, meet for lunch. One man confides that he has been diagnosed with erectile dysfunction. What information are his friends likely to share with him? a. It becomes more common with age. b. It is unrelated to diet and exercise. c. It is rare for men in middle adulthood. d. It is almost always psychological in origin.

157. Canada’s baby boomers are now middle-aged. When is one considered to be middle-aged? a. after one is married b. between ages 30 and 50 c. between ages 40 and 65 d. after one retires 158. Which statement best characterizes cancer? a. It is usually benign if caught early. b. Cancer types are evenly distributed across gender and racial groups. c. It may be caused by internal or external agents. d. Benign tumours spread through the lymphatic system.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 159. Steadman loves to travel, learn new languages, and read three newspapers every day. Bob, on the other hand, has little energy after work so he plops in front of the television and watches whatever is on. Which term best explains their different situations? a. plasticity b. condescension c. multidirectionality d. interindividual variability 160. How is caloric need affected by aging? a. Caloric need decreases with age, as does one’s basal metabolic rate. b. Caloric need increases with age because more calories are burned with less effort. c. Caloric need remains constant during middle adulthood. d. Caloric need decreases with age, but one’s basal metabolic rate increases.

161. Which statement best characterizes hormone-replacement therapy? a. It has both benefits and risks for many women. b. It is used by most perimenopausal women today. c. It has been banned in Canada because it causes cancer. d. It is recommended for all women for treatment of menopausal symptoms.

162. Which of the following accompanies menopause and the decline in estrogen? a. hot flushes b. oily skin c. reduced sexual desire d. an increase in breast tissue 163. Which statement best represents the frequency of sexual activity during middle adulthood? a. It is rare among single adults. b. It drops progressively because of health problems alone. c. It drops off noticeably compared with early adulthood. d. It may drop because of a lack of opportunity and sexual dysfunction.

164. Which statement best characterizes crystallized intelligence? a. It decreases with age. b. It is unrelated to behaviour. c. It is controlled by neurological factors. d. It usually increases during middle adulthood. a. menopause b. multidirectionality c. reaction time d. metastases e. production of melanin declines f. carcinogens g. increase in STIs h. arteriosclerosis i. interindividual variability Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce j. andropause k. basal metabolic rate (BMR) l. cancer m. osteoporosis n. hormone-replacement therapy o. 3–11 months leading up to cessation of menstruation p. leukocytes q. presbyopia r. adult-onset diabetes s. climacteric t. plasticity 165. The ability to develop new skills throughout life 166. Declines with age 167. Cessation of menstruation 168. Increased brittleness of bones caused by lower density 169. Cause of greying hair 170. Leading cause of death in middle adulthood 171. Perimenopause 172. Increases with age 173. Cancer cells that migrate from tumours and get into blood stream 174. Components of immune system 175. Increases in some abilities and decreases in others 176. Controversial treatment of menopause 177. Men’s decline in reproductive ability 178. Decline in body tissues’ sensitivity to blood sugar 179. Thought to be a result of more people being single and sexually active 180. Lenses of eyes become less flexible and harder to focus on close objects 181. Chemicals in tobacco, UV radiation 182. Gradual decline in women’s reproductive capacity 183. Hardening of the arteries 184. No two people age in the same way or at the same rate.

185. How does the concept of “interindividual variability” explain how physical development occurs during middle adulthood?

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 186. What causes adult-onset diabetes?

187. Describe the cohort referred to as the “baby boomers.” How have the baby boomers affected population trends in Canada?

188. How does stress affect the body?

189. How do menopause, perimenopause, and the climacteric differ?

190. Why might middle-aged adults gain weight when they continue to consume the same number of calories as they did when they were younger?

191. Are Canadian adults healthier today than in the past?

192. What are the leading causes of death during middle adulthood? How do they differ from the leading causes of death during early adulthood?

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 193. What types of sexual dysfunctions are most common during middle adulthood?

194. Differentiate between crystallized and fluid intelligence.

195. What is cancer?

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. False 8. True 9. False 10. True 11. True 12. True 13. True 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. True 22. True 23. False 24. True 25. True 26. False

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 27. True 28. False 29. True 30. False 31. False 32. False 33. True 34. True 35. True 36. False 37. True 38. True 39. True 40. False 41. False 42. False 43. True 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. True 48. False 49. True 50. True 51. True 52. True 53. True 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 55. True 56. False 57. False 58. False 59. True 60. True 61. True 62. False 63. False 64. False 65. a 66. d 67. c 68. d 69. b 70. c 71. d 72. b 73. b 74. c 75. c 76. a 77. a 78. c 79. b 80. d 81. d 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 83. b 84. c 85. a 86. c 87. c 88. d 89. c 90. d 91. b 92. c 93. d 94. b 95. d 96. d 97. c 98. c 99. c 100. c 101. a 102. b 103. b 104. a 105. d 106. a 107. d 108. d 109. a 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 111. d 112. a 113. a 114. b 115. a 116. a 117. a 118. d 119. d 120. a 121. b 122. c 123. c 124. c 125. a 126. c 127. a 128. d 129. a 130. c 131. a 132. c 133. c 134. c 135. c 136. d 137. a

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 138. d 139. b 140. c 141. c 142. a 143. b 144. d 145. c 146. b 147. d 148. d 149. b 150. a 151. c 152. b 153. d 154. b 155. c 156. a 157. c 158. c 159. d 160. a 161. a 162. a 163. d 164. d 165. t Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 166. k 167. a 168. m 169. e 170. l 171. o 172. c 173. d 174. p 175. b 176. n 177. j 178. r 179. g 180. q 181. f 182. s 183. h 184. i 185. Although middle adulthood is characterized by some general trends, such as gradual declines in a variety of systems and abilities, individuals experience middle adulthood physically in many different ways. Some factors that influence the experience of middle adulthood include diet, exercise, genetic inheritance, and environmental influences. Some people will experience significant declines in physical abilities and appearance, whereas others will experience some improvements in some areas and declines in other areas.

186. With age, body tissues are less able to take up glucose from the bloodstream and are less sensitive to insulin. Thus, the pancreas must produce more insulin to produce the same effects on the body, which leads to higher blood glucose levels, thereby increasing the risk of adult-onset diabetes.

187. The baby boomers are those people who were born between 1946 and 1965. Canada saw a population increase of 11 percent, as the result of postwar babies. On average, 3.7 babies were born to each woman, compared with the average of 1.7 more recently (Statistics Canada, 2013c). The baby boomers are now middle-aged adults.

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Chap_15_HDEV_4ce 188. Stress suppresses the immune system, as measured by the presence of substances in the blood that make up the immune system. Stress hormones connected with anger—steroids, epinephrine, and norepinephrine—can constrict the blood vessels to the heart, leading to a heart attack in people who are vulnerable. The stress of chronic hostility and anger is connected with higher cholesterol levels and a greater risk of heart disease.

189. Perimenopause is the beginning of menopause characterized by 3-11 months of lack of menstruation (amenorrhea).

Menopause is the cessation of menstruation following gradual declines in female hormone production. The gradual decline may take up to 15 or more years to lead to menopause. The time during which this occurs is called the climacteric. This decline in female hormone production reduces the ability of the woman to be fertile. Within the last year prior to menopause, a woman’s menstrual cycle begins to stop, with occasional starts. Menopause is the end of menstruation.

190. The basal metabolic rate (BMR) declines as people age, which slows the rate at which calories are burned. As a result, a person may consume the same number of calories as earlier in life but will not burn the calories as quickly.

In addition, adults lose their lean-muscle mass, which tends to burn calories more quickly, leading to a similar result.

191. Yes and no. Compared with the past, more immunizations are available, and we have access to better medicines and have a better understanding of health care. Those who have access to treatment can receive excellent care. Health screenings and mass-media information regarding health are also much more available than in the past. However, not everyone has access to the information or the health care. In addition, some minority members may doubt the intentions of health care providers as a whole and thus avoid being screened for problems or treated for them.

192. The leading causes of death during middle adulthood are cancer and heart disease. Both are often preventable illnesses. While there are many causes of cancer, smoking and diet are two significant causes that can be controlled.

According to the Canadian Cancer Society, cigarette smoking causes 84 percent of lung cancer deaths in Canada.

On average, 300 Canadians die each week from lung cancer caused by smoking. Diet may account for about 30 percent of all cancers in Western cultures. However, many cases of cancer also involve family history, or heredity.

During middle adulthood, cancers are linked to smoking, which is a personal choice and therefore preventable. Heart disease is often linked to sedentary lives and poor diets. Again, these conditions are usually preventable.

193. Many women experience a gradual decline in sexual interest prior to menopause, while the female hormones decline.

In addition, this decline is accompanied by reduce vaginal lubrication and thinning of the vaginal walls, both of which may lead to more painful intercourse. Men may experience premature ejaculation, although it is more common earlier in adulthood. They may also experience erectile dysfunctions, due at times to restricted blood flow and reduced oxygen to the penis. Sexual dysfunction in both sexes may cause anxiety, which can further complicate matters, making sexual activity even less likely later.

194. Crystallized intelligence encompasses the knowledge and skills that are arrived at through experience, social skills, judgment, and decision making. Fluid intelligence is also referred to as working memory and includes the mind’s capacity to access and manipulate information. Crystallized intelligence is thought to be inherited and fluid intelligence is more strongly linked to neurological factors. Crystallized intelligence increases throughout the lifespan while fluid intelligence steadily declines.

195. Cancer is a disease in which cells develop abnormally, reproducing beyond their normal rate, creating tumours and metastases, which are cells that break away from tumours and travel into the bloodstream and affect other parts of the body. Cancer may be caused by external agents, known as carcinogens, or by internal factors, related to genetics or hormonal factors.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. An “empty nest” is no longer viewed by many women as negative life event; it can just as often be viewed as a positive life stage. a. True b. False 2. Middle-aged adults tend to have more friends than young adults. a. True b. False 3. The growing job satisfaction throughout middle age can be linked to factors such as increased expertise and income. a. True b. False 4. The term grandboomers has been coined to describe grandparenting in the 21st century. a. True b. False 5. Unlike adolescents who have large numbers of friends, those in middle adulthood find the number of their friends dwindles, and many middle-aged adults don’t want to spend their time with “just anybody.” a. True b. False 6. Most career changes in midlife involve shifts into related fields. a. True b. False 7. In a study of 2,000 college employees, women reported having no gender barriers and fewer problems with work–life balance compared with men. a. True b. False 8. According to Richard A. Friedman, the term midlife crisis refers to being bored with one’s routine. a. True b. False 9. Helping children establish themselves in the outside world and developing a range of enjoyable leisure activities are two developmental tasks identified by Havighurst for middle adulthood. a. True b. False 10. Women are rarely expected to care for their aging parents more than men are. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 11. Cross-cultural research has shown that the big five factors model of personality is relevant only to North Americans. a. True b. False 12. Job satisfaction decreases throughout middle adulthood, but general life contentment increases. a. True b. False 13. People who score high on the neuroticism scale of the big five test of personality tend to be talkative and personable. a. True b. False 14. Sibling relationships that were good when people were young are rarely as good when the siblings are older. a. True b. False 15. For college- or university-educated women, personal distress decreased with age according a cross-sectional study of women in their 20s, 40s, and 60s. a. True b. False 16. Most theories of adulthood consider middle adulthood as an unimportant part of life. a. True b. False 17. Neuroticism declines between early and middle adulthood, meaning that people become more emotionally stable. a. True b. False 18. Erikson argued that people who engage in generative behaviour risk stagnating and falling into routines that can strip their lives of meaning and purpose. a. True b. False 19. Grandparenting is a source of stress for most middle-aged adults in the North America today. a. True b. False 20. Divorce rates in Canada have declined in past years, especially during middle adulthood. a. True b. False

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 21. Extroversion, conscientiousness, agreeableness, neuroticism, and openness to experience are the five personality characteristics identified by Costa and McCrae in their big five model of personality. a. True b. False 22. Studies conducted in Poland, Greece, and China found that grandparenting was a very positive experience socially and psychologically. a. True b. False 23. People in middle adulthood are more likely to be settled geographically and occupationally than those in early adulthood. a. True b. False 24. “Midlife crisis” is the equivalent to the midlife transition, according to Levinson. a. True b. False 25. During middle adulthood, most men have more friends than women do. a. True b. False 26. The majority of people in middle adulthood have at least one living brother or sister. a. True b. False 27. Having children is necessary for successful generativity, according to Erikson. a. True b. False 28. Many studies show that grandparents have less influence on their grandchildren when they share a household with their married children and grandchildren. a. True b. False 29. Death of a parent and divorce are two life events that often face middle-aged adults. a. True b. False 30. After adult children are “launched” from the family home, their middle-aged parents typically provide them with little or no financial support. a. True b. False

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 31. In a study of lesbian and bisexual grandmothers, they believed that they were important sources of emotional support and help for their children and important sources of emotional support for their grandchildren. a. True b. False 32. Research suggests that among siblings in middle adulthood, sisters tend to establish more intimate relationships than brothers. a. True b. False 33. In a study examining unemployment, older women were found to be more likely to be distressed about their job losses than younger women. a. True b. False 34. Most women suffer from the “empty nest syndrome” when their last child leaves home. a. True b. False 35. During middle adulthood, one’s work can provide social benefits, a sense of identity, and self-esteem. a. True b. False 36. Extroverts tend to be shy, passive, and reserved. a. True b. False 37. The term “sandwich generation” refers to older adults who are squeezed into homes with their children and grandchildren. a. True b. False 38. An accumulation of stressful life events may accelerate age-related declines in memory functioning. a. True b. False 39. During middle adulthood, people change careers for many reasons, such as more money, more job security, greater prestige, and more stimulation a. True b. False 40. The midlife crisis is defined as a time of dramatic self-doubt and anxiety during which people sense the passing of their youth and become preoccupied their own mortality. a. True b. False

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 41. According to a study involving extensive interviews with lesbian and bisexual grandmothers, these grandmothers never told their grandchildren about their sexual orientation. a. True b. False 42. Grandparents in Eastern Europe have a strong influence in the lives of their grandchildren when they live with them and their single parents. a. True b. False 43. The conflict during middle adulthood, according to Erikson’s psychosocial theory, is generativity vs. isolation. a. True b. False 44. Approximately 60% of workers in Canada have a postsecondary education. a. True b. False 45. Grandparents who live with their married children and grandchildren fill a hole in family life. a. True b. False 46. Corporate downsizing causes midlife crises for those in middle adulthood who are laid off. a. True b. False 47. Life events are generally negative. a. True b. False 48. According to the textbook, a survey found that most Canadian workers are somewhat or completely satisfied with their jobs. a. True b. False 49. In Erikson’s psychosocial theory, generativity is the ability to generate or produce. a. True b. False 50. Research on adults has shown the trait of being open to new experience decreases into late adulthood. a. True b. False

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 51. Friendships during middle adulthood tend to be of high quality and are felt more deeply than during early adulthood. a. True b. False 52. In a study of 2,000 college employees, blue-collar employees reported greater levels of job satisfaction compared to others in the study. a. True b. False 53. Havighurst’s developmental tasks are relevant for gay and lesbian adults. a. True b. False 54. Most people experience a midlife crisis during middle adulthood. a. True b. False 55. Women who have a college or university education typically experience increased personal distress as they advance from middle adulthood to late adulthood. a. True b. False 56. Most middle-aged adults in developed nations have at least one living parent. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

57. What is the next experience for most parents after a child is “launched” from the home of origin? a. Parents need to find a substitute to avoid stagnation. b. Parents need to find a balance between staying in touch and interfering. c. Parents rarely see or talk with their child. d. Parents try to retain control as long as possible.

58. What has been shown by cross-cultural research on grandparenting? a. Grandchildren spend more time with grandfathers than grandmothers. b. Children state they value their grandfathers less than their grandmothers. c. The sex of the grandchild typically influences which grandparent children gravitate to. d. Grandchildren tend to be more involved with their mother’s parents than their father’s parents.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 59. Which of the following is considered a life event? a. going on vacation b. the death of a casual acquaintance c. separation and divorce d. beginning a new exercise regime following a serious illness 60. Why do people change careers during middle adulthood? a. for strictly economic reasons b. for better insurance, but not for more money c. for more prestige, more money, more security d. for reduction of both responsibility and stimulation 61. According to longitudinal research on group personality change, what personality trait will usually increase from young adulthood to middle adulthood? a. neuroticism b. openness to experiences c. conscientiousness d. extroversion 62. Karen has many life stressors: her job loss, her mother’s illness, and her daughter’s difficulties in school. Which of the following will determine how Karen will be affected by these stressors? a. whether or not she takes yearly vacations b. the number of children she has c. whether she feels she has control over her life d. her marital status 63. According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development, which of the following best characterizes people who do not want to have children? a. stagnant b. unable to become generative c. in need of substitutes to fill their drive for generativity d. better off psychologically than those who have more than two children 64. Which statement best reflects the realities of the midlife crisis? a. It does not exist. b. It is less common than people think it is. c. It is a time of transition that should be experienced and embraced by all. d. It is now experienced much later in life than it was 50 years ago.

65. Which statement best describes a woman’s perspective on the last child leaving home? a. Apart from the death of a loved one, it is the most stressful life event for mothers. b. It is viewed positively only for working mothers. c. Modern mothers often view this life stage as a positive event. d. It is seldom viewed positively but is easier for stay-at-home mothers.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 66. Kathy is walking down the street. According Daniel Levinson’s sociological process, as she encounters various individuals, she will categorize everyone by three dimensions. Which dimensions will she categorize people by? a. age, height, and weight b. race, religion, and perceived friendliness c. age, race, and gender d. gender, socio-economic status, and attractiveness 67. According to the medicine wheel, what is the significance of midlife? a. a time to find stability b. a time to repent c. a time of reflection d. a time to leave the nest 68. Jane thinks it is inappropriate that her 75-year-old mother looks ridiculous driving around in her convertible car because this is a “young person’s car”. What is guiding Jane’s assessment of her mother’s behaviour? a. mid-life crisis b. patriarchy c. the norm of “coolness” d. the social clock 69. Which of the following has been shown by research on job satisfaction during middle adulthood? a. Few people are satisfied with their jobs. b. Most workers are satisfied with their jobs. c. Earnings levels have little to do with job satisfaction. d. Most people are happy with how much they are paid.

70. Which statement best characterizes most people’s experience of the midlife transition? a. They will have a midlife crisis. b. They are likely to get divorced or buy a sports car. c. They may experience positive and negative emotions. d. They may experience negative emotions and numerous regrets 71. Which statement best characterizes the positive elements of being grandparents who are the sole caregivers of a grandchild? a. It is easy to do. b. It is more work than it’s worth. c. It is avoided at all costs by most people. d. It is often a more relaxed relationship than parenting.

72. What is the focus of the life-events approach to middle adulthood? a. intellectual crises b. stages of development c. physical declines that lead to depression d. challenges and changes that people face during this time 73. Richard is friendly, gregarious, and talkative. In the big five personality model, what does Richard score high in? a. neuroticism b. extroversion c. agreeableness d. conscientiousness Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 74. Which statement best characterizes grandparenting? a. It produces anxiety for older adults. b. It involves a careful balance between being helpful and interfering. c. It requires more child-care responsibilities than for parents. d. It is more meaningful than parenting.

75. According to Havighurst, keeping our work performance at a satisfactory level is considered a developmental task during which stage? a. adolescence b. early adulthood c. middle adulthood d. late adulthood 76. Which statement best characterizes sibling relationships during middle adulthood? a. Few siblings are close. b. Brothers tend to be more intimate than sisters. c. The relationships are less satisfying than they were during childhood. d. The relationship patterns tend to be similar to what they were during childhood.

77. Which statement best characterizes Levinson’s view of the midlife crisis? a. It is a problem everyone experiences during middle adulthood. b. It can be triggered by menopause or the death of a friend or parent. c. It is a problem only for men. d. It is a developmental milestone essential for further growth.

78. According to Levinson, what is most likely to be exhibited by people experiencing a midlife crisis? a. a sense of satisfaction and peace when thinking about life b. more age appropriate behaviours c. the desire to become closer to a spouse d. self-doubt and anxiety when thinking about their own mortality 79. According to the textbook, which question represents one of the major financial decisions facing middle‐aged adults? a. Should they help their aging parents, who may require expensive long-term care, or should they focus on their own financial stability and security, knowing they will in time receive an inheritance? b. Should they help their adult children, or should they focus on their own financial stability and security? c. Should they sell what has been considered the family home and downsize to provide the extra cash that would support their aging parents? d. Should they sell what has been considered the family home and downsize to provide the extra cash needed to support their children’s postsecondary education?

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 80. When Elliott Jaques coined the term “midlife crisis” he based this term on which of the following? a. His studies of clinical patients who were dealing with depression and angst about getting older. b. His role as an addiction researcher, when supporting his patients through their alcoholism treatment based on their fears of aging and regret. c. His patients in his physiotherapy practice who were seeking out advice on how to increase their physical endurance in order to delay aging. d. His patients in his cosmetic surgery practice who were seeking out treatment to increase their physical beauty to ward off aging.

81. John has graduated from university but is NOT making enough money to support himself on his own. His parents are helping him out by having him live with them rent free. How common is this situation among baby boomers and their boomerang kids? a. One in 5 baby boomers is prepared to risk financial security to support their adult children. b. Half of all baby boomers support their adult children. c. It is extremely rare for adult children to live with their parents. d. One in 10 baby boomers support their adult children.

82. According to the textbook, which statement best characterizes most people’s experience during midlife? a. Most experience little physical decline. b. Most have significant psychological upset. c. Most find their intellectual development stalls. d. Most find setting future goals difficult and overwhelming.

83. Which statement best reflects the experiences of middle-aged women in the workplace? a. Their job satisfaction is at its lowest point. b. They find work to be more manageable, along with life demands, than at earlier ages. c. They may still find it difficult to advance to senior positions because of the “glass ceiling”. d. They are more satisfied with their jobs than white collar men.

84. Which statement best characterizes the effect of stressful life events? a. They may alter cognitive abilities. b. They have little effect on physical health. c. They have little effect on psychological health. d. They are important to keep people mentally alert.

85. Which of the following is a characteristic of most adults during midlife? a. They experience a decline in earnings b. They are settled geographically and vocationally. c. They have weakening social connections. d. They fear the empty nest.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 86. According to Erikson’s concept of generativity, which of the following best characterizes Mary, who is unable to have children? a. Her life will remain unfulfilled. b. She will need to adopt a child to remain satisfied with life. c. She needs to find a substitute activity. d. She will find life fulfillment through work and her marriage.

87. Which of the following best represents the view of middle adulthood by observers of human development? a. Physical prowess is at its peak for most people. b. Middle adulthood is seen as a time of steep decline. c. Middle adulthood is not considered an important stage of life. d. The views vary in terms of whether middle adulthood is a time of crisis or renewal.

88. What was the research finding of an Israeli study of immigrants from Ethiopia and Eastern European countries regarding grandparents and their grandchildren? a. Few children lived with their grandparents. b. Grandparents had little control over their grandchildren. c. Grandparents had a strong influence over grandchildren who were living in single-parent homes. d. Whether children lived a single-parent or two-parent family household had no effect on the role of the grandparents.

89. John scores low on the extroversion portion of the big five test of personality. Which word most likely describes John? a. shy b. selfish c. meticulous d. outgoing 90. Which statement best characterizes the “sandwich generation”? a. It usually affects the sons more than the daughters. b. It is so named because the trend began in Sandwich, Massachusetts. c. It refers to middle-aged children who care for both their children and their aging parents. d. It refers to those struggling to identify their new roles as parents and grandparents.

91. Which of the following is the ideal final stage of a transition cycle that results from a stress event? a. shock and adjustment b. contradiction and crisis c. quitting and letting go d. reconstruction and recovery 92. Which of the following is expected of grandparents from northern Asia, differing from expectations in many other countries? a. paying for their grandchildren’s postsecondary education b. knowing more about their grandchildren than the children’s own parents do c. living with their children and grandchildren d. having their grandchildren sleep over often

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 93. Which of the following is a finding of research on personality development? a. Childhood has specific stages of development. b. Getting married leads to dramatic changes in personality. c. Personality is learned within the first three years of life. d. Personality characteristics show a fair amount of stability over a lifetime.

94. Which statement best describes the relationship that parents in middle-adulthood often have with their children? a. Many parents at this stage are encouraging their children to “launch”. b. Parents are often happier to have their children at home than they were in earlier years. c. Most parents at this stage are happily “empty-nesting”. d. Parents at this stage often consider having more children to increase their family size.

95. According to Levinson’s “seasons of life” theory, which of the following best distinguishes middle adulthood from other stages of life? a. the midlife crisis b. great happiness and feelings of accomplishment c. disappointment because children are moving out d. unfulfilled dreams and goals 96. Which of the following represents middle adulthood on the First Nations medicine wheel? a. the northern direction b. the western direction c. the southern direction d. the southern direction 97. Which of the following has been shown by longitudinal and cross-sectional research on personality development? a. Extroverted adults tend to become introverted as they get older. b. Agreeableness and conscientiousness tend to increase during adulthood. c. People become more neurotic as they get older. d. People with extroverted personalities become more solidified if they marry other extroverts.

98. Because of her life situation, Janet states that she can point to a perfect example of “the boomerang” generation. Which of the following is Janet referring to? a. her 23-year-old daughter, who just graduated from university and has moved home b. her past six years of employment, which led her to move from job to job because of the changing economy c. her 79-year-old mother, who has just moved from home to hospital to a long-term care facility d. her history of having been married in her 20s, divorced in her 30s, remarried in her late 40s, and now juggling the needs of her blended family

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 99. Which of the following best characterizes the effects of unemployment? a. It affects all individuals in the same way. b. It is harder on younger adults than middle-aged adults. c. It harms the well-being of many individuals. d. It affects those with more social support to a greater degree because they are more embarrassed to have lost their jobs.

100. Approximately what percentage of Canadians aged 45–64 are still working to pay off their mortgage? a. 25 b. 35 c. 45 d. 55 101. Which statement best characterizes Levinson and his colleagues’ (1978) view of the transition to midlife? a. It is a time to take stock of one’s life. b. It is a time to focus on one’s grandchildren. c. It is a time when many find they fall short of others’ expectations of them. d. It is a time when one’s outstanding goals are pursued.

102. What is one of the five basic personality factors identified by Costa and McCrae (2006)? a. happiness b. neuroticism c. aggression d. curiosity 103. Which trend was shown by longitudinal research on group personality change? a. Agreeableness declines from young adulthood to middle adulthood. b. Those who are most extroverted in young adulthood will become more introverted in middle adulthood. c. Conscientiousness declines from young adulthood to middle adulthood. d. Neuroticism declines from young adulthood to middle adulthood.

104. How does stress affect people during middle adulthood? a. People experience stress in a series of predictable stages. b. Those who believe they have control are less likely to be depressed. c. Those who believe a stressor is global are less likely to be depressed. d. Those who believe that stressful life events are long-lasting are less likely to be depressed.

105. Which statement best characterizes the relationships between middle-aged children and their parents? a. They often have relationships filled with tension and disagreement. b. They are often closer than they were in earlier years. c. They usually live together. d. They rarely have contact with each other outside of holidays.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 106. Martha and Jack appear to represent typical personality development from young adulthood to middle adulthood.

Which of the following best describes Martha and Jack? a. For both, their traits of neuroticism will increase. b. Martha’s trait of neuroticism will decline, but Jack’s will increase. c. For both, their traits of conscientiousness will increase d. Martha’s trait of conscientiousness will increase, but Jack’s will decline.

107. Which statement best characterizes the research on friends during middle adulthood? a. Men typically have more friends than women. b. Social isolation is related to poorer health. c. Men with few or no friends rarely experience depression. d. Men who have been socially engaged in civic life experience less depression.

108. Mary, who is unable to have children, began volunteering at a homeless shelter when she was in her 40s.

According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory, which of the following best characterizes Mary? a. She is becoming stagnant. b. She is unable to reach her potential. c. She is successfully becoming generative. d. She is unable to complete her developmental tasks for middle adulthood.

109. Which statement best characterizes having grandchildren? a. It is a substitute activity that avoids generativity. b. It is more stressful than having children. c. It has social and psychological benefits. d. It creates additional burden and worries.

110. Stanley and his wife never had children. Now that Stanley is 50, he feels something is missing from his life.

According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development, what has happened to Stanley? a. He is stagnant. b. He is regressing to an earlier stage. c. He is unable to overcome his loss. d. He is becoming generative.

111. Donna believes that life is difficult, often gloomy, and negative. She would score high on which factor of the big five model of personality? a. neuroticism b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. openness to experience 112. Laurie is silent, passive, and reserved. In the big five personality model, what factor would Laurie score low on? a. extroversion b. conscientious c. agreeableness d. openness to experience

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 113. Which of the following best characterizes many adults’ view of their middle years? a. painful and depressing b. overwhelmed by the changing world and global problems c. no different from early adulthood d. filled with opportunities for new direction and fulfillment 114. According to Erikson (1980), what is psychosocial generativity based on? a. the need for appreciation from peers b. an instinctual drive toward procreativity, bearing and rearing children c. a learned behaviour, causing people to behave in socially acceptable ways d. cognitive processes whereby people can think hypothetically about their futures 115. When does the onset of midlife occur? a. It occurs at age 35. b. It occurs at age 40 c. It occurs at age 45. d. It depends on when you were born.

116. Which of the following is common to the theories of development during middle adulthood? a. They distinguish middle adulthood as a distinct event. b. They agree that a midlife crisis exists. c. They agree that middle adulthood begins at age 35. d. They question whether middle adulthood is a distinct stage or simply a phase of life.

117. Which of the following was cited as a challenge that may develop after one’s children have partners? a. new relationships with in-laws b. finding time to spend together as a family c. deciding who will host holidays d. adapting to new cultural expectations 118. Which of the following best characterizes Becker’s (2006) view of psychotherapy? a. Psychotherapy is a sign of weakness. b. Psychotherapy is ineffective for people over age 25. c. Psychotherapy can be an overzealous decision for people during midlife. d. Psychotherapy may be useful for those going through a midlife transition.

119. Which of the following is a potential impact of the belief that a stressor is a global problem rather than a specific concern? a. serious mental illness b. depression c. an improved ability to deal with one’s problems d. a clearer understanding of the issue 120. Which of the following acts as a moderator of stressful life events? a. one’s perception of the situation b. the number of family members one has c. the number of stressors one experiences d. one’s stability in the workforce

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 121. Which of the following is the most likely effect of an accumulation of stressful life events? a. acceleration of age-related declines in memory functioning b. little effect on most people physically, but not psychologically c. little effect on most people psychologically, but not physically d. the same impact if the individual events had occurred at different times 122. Which statement best characterizes friendships during middle adulthood? a. They are closer for men than for women. b. They are important for one’s well-being in many cases. c. They are more casual than they were during early adulthood. d. They are usually more common than during early adulthood.

123. Which statement best characterizes lesbians and bisexual women as grandparents? a. They rarely have grandchildren. b. They are not allowed by law to become grandparents. c. They are the same type of grandparents in every way as heterosexual grandparents. d. Their younger grandchildren will be more accepting of their relationship than older children.

124. Which of the following has been shown by longitudinal studies of personality? a. Most people change their personalities radically during middle adulthood. b. People with introverted personalities become more solidified when they marry extroverts. c. Personalities show consistency in general, but some general developmental trends are evident across adulthood. d. Personality traits show little consistency from early to late adulthood.

125. Paul is nervous and often moody. He would score high in which of Costa and McCrae’s (2006) personality factors? a. neuroticism b. extroversion c. agreeableness d. openness to experience 126. What is the definition of a child marriage? a. A marriage under the age of 15 years. b. A naïve young person who believes he or she is married. c. A marriage under the age of 18 years. d. A marriage between individuals with a child.

127. According to Daniel Levinson and his colleagues, which statement best characterizes the midlife transition? a. It occurs around age 30 to 35. b. It is the same as the midlife crisis. c. It does not exist; no time of midlife is distinct from other parts of adulthood. d. It is a shift when people start to think of how much time they have left to live.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 128. Which of the following is most likely to occur when adolescents are “launched” from their home? a. Parents are usually depressed for a while afterwards. b. Most parents interfere with their children’s social lives. c. The children are usually completely financial independent of their parents. d. Parents may still influence their children’s choices or at least contribute their views.

129. Maude turned 40 this past year and now she has quit her job and taken up with a much younger man after leaving her husband of 15 years. According to Levinson, what is Maude experiencing? a. stagnation b. generativity c. a midlife crisis d. a transition in life that all adults experience 130. Kelly is pleasant, kind, and trustworthy. In the big five personality model, what does Kelly score high in? a. neuroticism b. extroversion c. agreeableness d. conscientiousness 131. According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development, what is a quality demonstrated by someone who is experiencing stagnation? a. resilience b. high self-esteem c. ambivalence d. responsibility 132. According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development, what is generativity? a. the ability to create power b. the ability to produce something c. what is needed during early adulthood d. a negative outcome of middle adulthood 133. Joan’s daughter recently graduated from college. With Joan’s help, she is now moving into her own apartment.

What term refers to Joan’s activity? a. launching b. empty nest syndrome c. depressing d. generativist 134. According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory, which of the following results in stagnation? a. failure to produce a legacy such as through having children or grandchildren b. people's salary upgrades no longer increasing as they get older c. adult children moving out of their parents’ house d. the decline of cognitive processes that leads to declines in productivity 135. According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory, what stage of development occurs during middle adulthood? a. intimacy vs. isolation b. launching vs. empty nest c. generativity vs. stagnation d. identity vs. identity confusion

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 136. Which statement best describes the typical scenario when grandparents become the sole caregivers of their grandchildren? a. The grandparents become more fulfilled with the new responsibility. b. The parents are usually available but are refusing to care for the children. c. The grandchildren refuse to live with the grandparents and end up in foster care. d. The grandmother is usually the one who takes on the primary responsibility.

137. Which statement best describes the experience of most middle-aged women? a. They see the “empty nest syndrome” as a time of great depression. b. They are active in the workforce and find life satisfaction outside of the home. c. They see their last child moving out of the home as the end of their lives. d. They often look back and realize all they missed out on while raising their children.

138. Carlo is imaginative and creative in his use of paints in art class. In the big five personality model, what does Carlo score high in? a. neuroticism b. extroversion c. conscientiousness d. openness to experience 139. According to research, how do older unemployed women differ in their experience compared with younger unemployed women? a. They are more likely to experience financial strains. b. They are more likely to experience discrimination. c. They are more likely to experience a decline in their well-being. d. They are more likely to take a job they do not like as long as the pay is sensible.

140. According to Levinson and colleagues (1978), which statement best characterizes the midlife crisis? a. It is a time when psychotherapy is necessary. b. It is a time when most people experience significant depression. c. It is a time of stock-taking of one’s life. d. It depends on which generation you were born in.

141. Which statement best characterizes the “empty nest syndrome”? a. It no longer exists. b. It is a positive life event. c. It affects most middle-aged adults. d. It affects some parents more than others.

142. According to Friedman (2008), why might someone experience a midlife crisis? a. turning 50 b. marital unhappiness c. income frustration d. the fear of mortality

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 143. More than 2,000 university employees were studied regarding their job satisfaction. Which statement best reflects the study’s findings? a. Job satisfaction declined during middle adulthood. b. Women were happier with their work than men. c. Job satisfaction increased steadily during middle adulthood. d. Working women reported the least amount of job satisfaction.

144. Approximately how many middle-aged Canadians have at least one parent living? a. one-quarter b. one-half c. two-thirds d. three-quarters 145. What was the finding of cross-cultural research on the big five personality factors? a. Personality traits may have an inborn component. b. Personality is learned within the first five years of life. c. Most personality characteristics are related to one’s ethnicity. d. Once someone has developed a behaviour, that person will rarely change.

146. Stella is careless with how she prepares her reports for work and is often late for meetings. She would score low on which factor of the big five model of personality? a. neuroticism b. agreeableness c. conscientiousness d. openness to experience 147. Ann is neat, organized, and thorough with her homework. She would score high on which aspect of the big five personality model? a. neuroticism b. extroversion c. agreeableness d. conscientiousness 148. What is the goal of the Second Careers program? a. to provide retraining to older workers b. to help older adults acquire an additional job c. to fund the education for the children of older workers d. to link older workers to younger workers in a mentorship program 149. Which of the following best characterizes middle-aged workers? a. They are less fulfilled than they were as young adults. b. They are less realistic about their careers than they were when they were younger. c. They are less content because they realize they have not attained their lifelong dreams. d. They have more expertise and higher salaries, which may lead to higher job satisfaction.

150. Which statement best characterizes grandchildren whose sole caregivers are their grandparents? a. They live far from their grandparents’ homes. b. Their relationship is usually formally determined by a court. c. They are usually cared for by their grandfathers. d. Their situation may have resulted after the death of one or both parents.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 151. Rachel, who is 25, was laid off from her job. What is more likely to be the effect of this layoff, compared with if she were older? a. She is more likely to have her sense of well-being disrupted. b. She is more likely to have financial strain. c. She is more likely to accept a job that interferes with her home life. d. She is more likely to become clinically depressed.

152. Mario was fired from his job of 20 years, experienced the death of his mother, and rarely sees his children since his divorce. He believes that he has bad luck and that everything he does seems to end badly. Which of the following will most likely happen to Mario? a. He will become depressed. b. He will bounce back soon. c. He will learn new skills more easily than in the past. d. He will moderate his experience of stressful life events.

153. Kelly and Steve appear to represent typical personality development from young adulthood to late adulthood.

Which of the following best describes Kelly and Steve? a. For both, the traits of being open to new experience will increase more in late adulthood. b. Steve’s trait of being open to new experience increases more in late adulthood, but Kelly’s will decline. c. For both, their traits of agreeableness will increase. d. Kelly’s traits of agreeableness will increase, but Steve’s will decline.

154. Sandra got divorced, lost her job, and moved to an apartment in a run-down area. She believes these setbacks are temporary. Which of the following will most likely happen to Sandra? a. She will remarry, start a new job, and move to a better area. b. She will become severely ill. c. She will become severely depressed and feel unable to cope. d. She will manage her stress better than someone who believes this situation will not change.

155. Which statement best characterizes Havighurst’s (1972) model of developmental tasks during middle adulthood? a. It is based on the media’s interpretation. b. It encompasses the lives of diverse individuals. c. It remains relevant to modern life even though it is 50 years old. d. It is outdated given all the changes to how we live today.

156. Which statement best characterizes grandparents? a. They rarely live far from their grandchildren. b. They often have a more relaxed relationship with their grandchildren than parents can. c. They see their grandchildren frequently and are more involved in their daily lives than parents. d. They rarely have primary care responsibilities for their grandchildren.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 158. Cynthia scores low on the neuroticism scale of the big five model of personality. Which of the following phrases best describes Cynthia? a. distrustful and hostile b. sociable and outgoing c. inquisitive and imaginative d. able to cope with negative events 159. According to the textbook, which of the following statements best describes changing one’s job? a. It is more likely in middle adulthood than early adulthood. b. In middle adulthood, it typically involves changing into related areas. c. It is rarely voluntary during middle adulthood. d. It is normally done to seek out emotional fulfillment.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce a. becoming involved in meaningful social and civic responsibilities b. talkative, assertive, and active c. related fields d. midlife transition e. glass ceiling f. moody, nervous, and sensitive g. imaginative, curious, and creative h. generativity vs. stagnation i. bearing children j. social clock k. “empty nest syndrome” l. a time of dramatic self-doubt and anxiety m. falling into routines that can strip their lives of meaning and purpose n. kind, trusting, and warm o. death of a parent or child 160. Stagnating 161. Generativity 162. Guide to age appropriateness 163. Expected reaction to launching of last child 164. Neuroticism 165. Developmental task of middle adulthood 166. Openness to experience 167. Career shifts 168. Extroversion 169. Midlife crisis 170. Erikson’s psychosocial stage during middle adulthood 171. Problem women may experience in occupational situations 172. Agreeableness 173. Life event 174. Time between ages 40 and 45, according to Levinson 175. How does the life-events approach explain middle adulthood?

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 176. What is the effect of grand parenting?

177. How do the midlife transition and midlife crisis differ, according to Levinson’s seasons of life theory?

178. What are the five factors in the big five personality model? How do they change with development?

179. What is the conflict of middle adulthood, according to Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development? How is it resolved by adults?

180. What factors are associated with job satisfaction?

181. Does the “empty nest syndrome” occur to everyone following the launching of a last child out of the family home?

182. How does unemployment affect middle-aged adults?

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 183. What are some developmental tasks of middle adulthood, according to Havighurst?

184. What is the “sandwich generation,” and why does it represent a stressful situation?

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. False 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. True 16. False 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. False 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. False 26. True

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 27. False 28. True 29. True 30. False 31. True 32. True 33. False 34. False 35. True 36. False 37. False 38. True 39. True 40. True 41. False 42. True 43. False 44. True 45. False 46. False 47. False 48. True 49. True 50. True 51. True 52. False 53. False 54. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 55. False 56. True 57. b 58. d 59. c 60. c 61. c 62. c 63. a 64. b 65. c 66. c 67. c 68. d 69. b 70. c 71. d 72. d 73. b 74. b 75. c 76. d 77. b 78. d 79. b 80. a 81. a 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 83. c 84. a 85. b 86. c 87. d 88. c 89. a 90. c 91. d 92. c 93. d 94. a 95. a 96. b 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. c 101. a 102. b 103. d 104. b 105. b 106. c 107. b 108. c 109. c 110. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 111. a 112. a 113. d 114. b 115. b 116. d 117. a 118. d 119. b 120. a 121. a 122. b 123. d 124. c 125. a 126. c 127. d 128. d 129. c 130. c 131. c 132. b 133. a 134. a 135. c 136. d 137. b

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 138. d 139. c 140. c 141. d 142. d 143. c 144. b 145. a 146. c 147. d 148. a 149. d 150. d 151. b 152. a 153. c 154. d 155. d 156. b 157. c 158. d 159. b 160. m 161. i 162. j 163. k 164. f 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 166. g 167. c 168. b 169. l 170. h 171. e 172. n 173. o 174. d 175. The life-events approach to middle age focuses on the particular challenges and changes that are likely to face people at this time of life rather than phases or stages of life. Numerous researchers have found that the most stressful life events of middle adulthood tend to include the death of a spouse or a child, the death of a parent or a sibling, and marital divorce or separation.

176. Great variability characterizes the types of relationships that grandparents have both with their grandchildren and with their own children. Many experience a great sense of joy. Grandparents may act as playmates, may have a less care giving role, and may act as a font of family wisdom. For grandparents whose children are unavailable or unable to care for their children, the grandparents may step in as custodians. This relationship may be stressful, with the need to take on many roles again while one is at the peak of one’s career. Grandparents may have more conflict with their own children regarding the care of the children, but grandparenthood is, overall, considered overwhelmingly positive in the cultures studied.

177. According to Daniel Levinson and his colleagues, the years from 40 to 45 comprise a midlife transition—a psychological shift into middle adulthood that is often accompanied by a crisis, during which people fear they have more to look back on than forward to. This crisis is termed a midlife crisis and is defined as a time of dramatic selfdoubt and anxiety, during which people sense the passing of their youth and become preoccupied with concern about the imminence of their own mortality. Thus, the difference in the two terms is that the first indicates the time period when midlife occurs, and the latter identifies the negative response one may have in relation to that transition.

178. These factors include extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, neuroticism (emotional instability), and openness to experience. People who are mostly extroverted in young adulthood will remain mostly extroverted in middle adulthood. The traits of agreeableness and conscientiousness increase to some degree from young adulthood to middle adulthood. Neuroticism declines throughout the same period, meaning that people become more emotionally stable. Extroversion and openness to new experience either remain the same or tend to decline slightly in middle adulthood, again suggesting greater stability in personality, or “maturity.” The trait of being open to new experience decreases once more in late adulthood.

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Chap_16_HDEV_4ce 179. The conflict of middle adulthood, according to Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development is generativity versus stagnation. Generativity is the ability to generate or produce. Erikson (1980) saw psychosocial generativity as being based in an instinctual drive toward procreativity—that is, bearing and rearing children. Under such circumstances, substitutes were possible that might not be as naturally or as fully satisfying but that could work for the individual.

Stagnation occurs when this instinct is not satisfied, primarily when one does not have children. If substitutes, such as working with youth groups or some other community organization, are not forthcoming, then the individual’s life would have less meaning and little purpose.

180. A variety of factors are associated with job satisfaction: earnings, security, supervisors who treat one with respect, work–life balance, equal opportunities, expertise, and realistic perception of career goals. In addition, personal characteristics may be causally related, such as better physical and psychological health. That is, either healthier people are more satisfied with their jobs, or job satisfaction leads to healthier lives. Age is also related to job satisfaction, with older adults generally more satisfied with their jobs than younger adults.

181. It does not impact everyone. Women who have ways to satisfy themselves in roles other than homemaker and mother and women who work outside of the home may experience less distress than others. Parents tend to stay in touch with their children regularly and continue to support them financially for years after they leave home, so they are less likely to experience the sense of loss that might be expected.

182. According to research, unemployed subjects had lower physical and psychological well-being than employed subjects, and unemployed middle-aged subjects had lower well-being than unemployed young adults. Within the samples of unemployed middle-aged adults, the subjects who fared worse were those for whom work was more important, those who had fewer financial resources and less social support, and those who tended to blame themselves for losing their jobs. Those who fared best had emotional and financial resources and social support, were able to structure their time, and had realistic strategies for job hunting or finding substitutes for jobs. Older women in the study were more likely to experience declines in their well-being following the loss of employment. On the other hand, older women were least likely to suffer financial strain.

183. Havighurst identified a range of developmental tasks that people during middle adulthood should complete. These include tasks that relate to being parents, to having occupations, to having social commitments outside of the family, and to the relationship with one’s partner. Some of the developmental tasks include helping their children establish themselves in the outside world, developing a range of enjoyable leisure activities, establishing a deeper relationship with their life partner, becoming involved in meaningful social and civic responsibilities, keeping their performance at work at a satisfactory level, and adjusting to the physical changes that accompany ageing through the mid-life.

184. This term refers to a middle-aged parent who has both young children and aging parents to care for simultaneously.

The parent caught in the middle often is at the peak of her career and must juggle multiple roles. In North America, this role often falls to the daughter of the aging parent, who is also primarily responsible for the majority of her own children’s care, in addition to household chores.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Osteoporosis is the third leading cause of death in late adulthood. a. True b. False 2. Many of the physical changes in older women relating to sexuality stem from a decline in estrogen production. a. True b. False 3. Telomeres are segments of DNA on the tips of chromosomes that signal that cell division is no longer possible once the cell divides a certain number of times. a. True b. False 4. According to the wear-and-tear theory, the body will wear out after being used long enough. a. True b. False 5. Currently, 1 in 8 people in Canada is over the age of 65. a. True b. False 6. Life expectancy in Canada has dropped in the last decade or so. a. True b. False 7. Men are more likely than women to die from accidents, cirrhosis of the liver, strokes, suicide, homicide, HIV/AIDS, and some forms of cancer. a. True b. False 8. The major cause of death of Canadians age 65 and older is cancer. a. True b. False 9. Older people today are more likely to die from chronic diseases such as cancer than from infectious disease such as influenza. a. True b. False 10. Bones in the spine, hip, thigh, and forearm are the least vulnerable to bone loss as people age. a. True b. False

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 11. Older adults tend to be more distractible than young adults. a. True b. False 12. Lower levels of testosterone in late adulthood may affect men’s ability to achieve and maintain an erection. a. True b. False 13. Older adults are unable to use cues to help them with prospective memory. a. True b. False 14. Both men and women maintain the ability to have orgasm although it may take longer and more effort in late adulthood. a. True b. False 15. Wise people approach life’s problems in a way that addresses the meaning of life. a. True b. False 16. Most adults over age 65 live either in retirement communities or in nursing homes. a. True b. False 17. Older people typically refrain from having sex. a. True b. False 18. Presbycusis is age-related hearing loss that affects about one person in three over the age of 65. a. True b. False 19. Aging has more of a detrimental effect on associative memory than on memory for single items. a. True b. False 20. Erectile dysfunction is inevitable with aging. a. True b. False 21. Many older adults find it more difficult to understand the spoken language. a. True b. False

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 22. Cataracts are often treated with outpatient surgery today. a. True b. False 23. As women age, the vagina shrinks and its walls thin. a. True b. False 24. The risk of cancer increases as people age. a. True b. False 25. Despite decline in physical functions, older people can lead a fulfilling sex life. a. True b. False 26. Over the last century, life expectancy in Canada has increased. One factor that has led to longer life expectancies is the lower infant mortality rates from infectious diseases. a. True b. False 27. Accidents are the ninth leading cause of death among older Canadians. a. True b. False 28. Alzheimer’s disease can be cured. a. True b. False 29. Age-related changes in sexuality tend to occur more gradually in women than in men. a. True b. False 30. Humans’ sense of smell decreases significantly from youth to advanced late adulthood a. True b. False 31. Life expectancy is the maximum expected length of life for a member of a species. a. True b. False 32. Injury from falls by older adults can be prevented by taking simple precautions in the home. a. True b. False

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 33. In later adulthood, people have the most difficulty remembering key life events from their teens and early adulthood. a. True b. False 34. In older adulthood, nipple erection is less common when a woman is sexually aroused. a. True b. False 35. Glaucoma is a buildup of fluid pressure inside the eyeball. a. True b. False 36. The three major causes of death of Canadians age 65 and older are cancer, heart disease, and accidents. a. True b. False 37. Antioxidants are available in some foods and may combat the damage inflicted by free radicals on the body’s cells. a. True b. False 38. The stress hormone theory of aging is an example of a cellular damage theory. a. True b. False 39. There is only one kind of arthritis. a. True b. False 40. Programmed theories indicate that aging is a result of random genetic errors. a. True b. False 41. Substance abuse is rare in late adulthood. a. True b. False 42. Older adults may become addicted to prescription drugs. a. True b. False 43. Sleep disorders in late adulthood may have psychological underpinnings. a. True b. False

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 44. Older adults may be less frequently screened and treated for cancer than younger adults in part because of elder bias. a. True b. False 45. Life expectancy is the same between provinces, but it varies between the territories. a. True b. False 46. Older adults have an easier time recalling implicit memories than explicit memories. a. True b. False 47. Men are less likely than women to consult a physician when they are sick. a. True b. False 48. Hasher (2008) ironically suggests that distractibility in late adulthood may have benefits in terms of wisdom. a. True b. False 49. Men are expected, on average, to live longer lives than women. a. True b. False 50. Estrogen provides women with some protection from heart disease. a. True b. False 51. Ardelt believes that wise people tend to possess an unselfish love for others and tend to be less afraid of death. a. True b. False 52. Ageism is prejudice against old people. a. True b. False 53. Osteoarthritis is the dominant form of heart disease among those aged 65 and older. a. True b. False 54. The effects of Alzheimer’s disease range from forgetting recent events to significant confusion to death. a. True b. False

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 55. Most older adults are poor problem solvers. a. True b. False 56. When confronted with interpersonal conflict, older adults tend to get angry easily. a. True b. False 57. All aspects of cognitive skills decline in late adulthood. a. True b. False 58. Alzheimer’s disease is a normal developmental process. a. True b. False 59. Chronic diseases or degenerative processes, such as heart disease, diabetes, and cancer, lead to disability or premature death, and are thus considered to be a part of normal aging. a. True b. False 60. Research has shown that 50 years after high school, older adults were able to look at photographs and recognize many of their schoolmates. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

61. Which statement best describes men’s testosterone levels? a. They decline rapidly after age 30. b. They are related to a man’s general level of health. c. They are unrelated to the length of time it takes to reach orgasm. d. They drop off during late adulthood, making viable sperm production impossible for most men.

62. Which statement best describes the health of people who are aging? a. Their immune system is less able to ward off cancer. b. Older adults are more likely to die from accidents than when they were younger. c. Elder bias does not affect their treatment by physicians. d. Older adults are more fearful of the medical establishment and its therapies.

63. Restricting calories may trigger an anti-aging response in humans. According to the textbook, what percentage of calorie reduction will trigger that response? a. 10–20% b. 20–40% c. 40–60% d. 60–80%

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 64. Which of the following was found by experiments with younger and older adults who were asked to solve math problems? a. Younger adults used fewer strategies but displayed faster processing speed in solving complex math problems. b. Younger adults used more strategies but were slower in solving complex math problems. c. Older adults used fewer strategies and displayed slower processing speed in solving complex math problems. d. Older adults used more strategies but were slower in solving complex math problems.

65. What is the relationship between women and osteoporosis? a. Women experience it more than men do. b. Women experience it prior to menopause. c. Women experience it when they engage in vigorous walking. d. Women who had children experience it more often.

66. Which of the following is a treatment for osteoarthritis? a. beta-blockers b. chemotherapy c. anti-inflammatory drugs d. herbal teas and rubs 67. Jennifer’s father wants to know more about his diagnosis of glaucoma. Which of the following is he mostly likely to learn? a. It causes cloudy vision. b. It occurs more in diabetics than nondiabetics. c. It tends to be caused by environmental toxins. d. It is more common among European Canadian than African Canadians.

68. Which statement best characterizes hypertension? a. It affects fewer than 5% of adults. b. It is a major risk factor for heart attack and stroke. c. It is rarely a problem for people over age 65. d. It is unaffected by changes in one’s diet or exercise program.

69. Which statement best represents the cross-linking theory? a. Body proteins stiffen with age. b. Calorie restrictions cause aging. c. Aging is a result of overabundant free radicals. d. Aging is a result of programmed breakdowns in the cells of the body.

70. Which statement best characterizes diabetes? a. It is an infectious disease. b. It is a disease of young people. c. It has seen a drop in the prevalence for adults 65 years and over. d. It is the fifth leading cause of death in adults 65 years and over.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 71. How many hours of sleep do older adults need each night? a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 12 72. Which statement best describes osteoporosis? a. Men are more at risk for it than women. b. Estrogen helps protect women’s bones prior to menopause c. It is uncommon in Canada because calcium deficiency is rare in North America. d. It is associated with increased height because the bones are loosened, resulting in lengthened spines.

73. How do most older adults describe their sexuality? a. They rarely have sex. b. They lost their sexuality as they aged. c. Their sexual satisfaction declined as they aged. d. Their sexual daydreaming and sex drive declined as they aged.

74. What are episodic memories? a. implicit memories c. the same as semantic memory

b. memories of general knowledge d. the same as autobiographical memories

75. Which statement best describes telomeres? a. They support the cellular damage theory. b. They are present only in the cells of nonmammals. c. They are environmental toxins that build up in cells over time. d. They are tips of chromosomes that divide as one ages and will stop at a predetermined time.

76. Which of the following is suggested by programmed theories of aging? a. The human life span can be altered. b. The biological clock does not exist. c. Aging is randomly determined. d. Aging is determined by genetic characteristics.

77. Richard is 79 and needs to wear a hearing aid. Which of the following does Richard most likely have? a. cataracts b. glaucoma c. presbyopia d. presbycusis 78. What are the two leading causes of death for older adults? a. cancer and heart disease b. cancer and diabetes c. heart disease and diabetes d. diabetes and pneumonia

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 79. Mr. Jones, a 58-year-old, has been diagnosed with sleep apnea. How will his doctor most likely describe this disorder? a. It has no successful treatments. b. It causes a person to stop breathing intermittently. c. It causes people to sleep too long during the day. d. It is caused by vigorous exercise during late adulthood.

80. Which statement best represents the treatments for Alzheimer’s disease? a. Treatments include caloric restriction and use of antioxidants. b. Alzheimer’s disease has been cured in many patients. c. The dementia that results from Alzheimer’s disease is irreversible. d. Treatments are still in the early stages and are unpredictable with a guarded prognosis.

81. Which statement best defines the immunological theory? a. Boosts to the immune system can be accomplished at any age leading to longer life. b. Aging results when hormone levels spike randomly creating wear on internal organs. c. The decline in the immune system that accompanies aging is a result of random errors. d. The decline of antibody production leaves the body less able to fight off infections.

82. Which statement best characterizes alcoholism in late adulthood? a. It is rare. b. It has increased health risks as one ages. c. It does not typically cause a problem with medications prescribed by a doctor. d. It is reduced in the elderly because intoxication is less likely with high doses of alcohol.

83. David’s grandfather is 67 years old and lives in his own home. According to statistics cited in the textbook, what percentage of people over the age of 65 live in their own home? a. less than 45% b. 45 to 55% c. 56 to 65% d. more than 65% 84. How does the health of older people today compare with the health of older people in previous generations? a. Today they are more likely to die from infectious diseases. b. Today they are more likely to have poorer health care. c. Today they are less likely to take advantage of immunization programs specific to influenza. d. Today they are at greater risk of dying from chronic diseases such as cancer.

85. Which statement best defines the wear-and-tear theory? a. It is a programmed theory of aging. b. It is the same thing as the immunological theory. c. The body is less able to repair damage to itself after years of use. d. Aging is a result of accumulated damage to DNA caused by environmental toxins.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 86. In which of the following circumstances is the age-related decline in prospective memory the greatest? a. when distractors are present, and attention is negatively impacted b. when memory cues are plentiful c. when the task is critical for one’s well-being d. when interfering information overwhelms the ability to focus 87. Which of the following is a result of women’s estrogen levels dropping during later adulthood? a. Penile entry is much easier. b. Vaginal lubrication is absent. c. Sexual intercourse may become more painful. d. Nothing can be done to help with sexual problems.

88. Which statement best represents the cellular damage theories of aging? a. They include the stress hormone and immunological theories of aging. b. Aging is the result of preprogrammed changes. c. Internal changes and external agents cause aging. d. The body’s reduction of hormones increases the likelihood of certain illnesses.

89. Which type of memory tasks do older adults do nearly as well as younger adults? a. tasks that require working memory b. tasks that require keeping more than one piece of information in their heads at the same time c. tasks that require implicit memory d. tasks that involve using alternating memory systems 90. Which statement is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis? a. It is characterized by wear and tear on the joints.. b. It results from the body’s own immune system attacking its tissues. c. Onset of the disease usually begins around age 30. d. Tranquilizers are used to treat it.

91. Which statement best characterizes accidents among older adults? a. They are more injurious to those who have osteoporosis. b. They cannot be prevented in most cases in late adulthood. c. They can occur because of faster reaction times among older adults. d. They are rarely problematic for older men; they are a problem primarily for older women.

92. How do our bones change during late adulthood? a. The changes result primarily from poor nutrition. b. They become denser. c. They become more brittle. d. They toughen, making them more difficult to fracture.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 93. Which statement best characterizes sexual satisfaction in late adulthood? a. It is rare. b. It is impossible. c. It is unrelated to physical changes. d. It is possible when expectations are modified.

94. What is suggested by the free-radical theory of aging? a. Diets rich in antioxidants combat free radicals that damage cells. b. Genetic structures determine the timing of aging. c. Cancer is caused by genetic programming. d. Stress reduction therapies help the body fight off free-radical carcinogen enzymes.

95. Which statement best describes human longevity 100 years ago? a. The human lifespan was shorter than it is today. b. The average life expectancy for European Americans was 35.5. c. The average life expectancy for European Americans was shorter than for African Americans. d. The average life expectancy for African Americans was shorter than for European Americans.

96. Which statement best characterizes nocturnal erections during older adulthood? a. They are a sign of abnormal prostate growth. b. They are more common than in adolescence. c. They increase in frequency and are a normal part of aging. d. They diminish in intensity and frequency.

97. Jennifer’s father has been diagnosed as having glaucoma. Which of the following would the diagnosing doctor most likely tell Jennifer? a. It is primarily experienced by young adults. b. It is a buildup in fluid pressure in the eyeball. c. It is a problem that decreases in seriousness with age. d. It is a problem leading to presbycusis.

98. What is the relationship between cancer and the older adult? a. The risk of cancer increases with age. b. Cancer is rare for adults over age 75. c. Cancer is rarely terminal when diagnosed after age 65. d. Physicians treat cancer more aggressively in older adults than in younger adults.

99. Approximately what percentage of adults over the age of 65 live in their own homes? a. 15 b. 25 c. 65 d. 75

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 100. Which statement best represents the experience of having a hip fracture? a. It rarely leads to hospitalization. b. It is often followed by death. c. It is a situation most often faced by middle-aged adults. d. It results from a loss of bone density.

101. Which of the following best characterizes presbycusis? a. hearing loss b. a vision problem c. rare in older adults d. a problem that occurs more for women than men 102. What is the average life expectancy for a Canadian man? a. 45 years b. 60 years c. 80 years d. 90 years 103. Meredith is 80 years old. Which statement is most likely to characterize her sexuality? a. Her sexuality will disappear. b. It is unimportant in her life. c. It may be fulfilling for many more years. d. It is unaffected by physical or psychological changes.

104. Which of the following contributes to the gender gap in life expectancy? a. cortisol b. progesterone c. testosterone d. estrogen 105. Which statement best describes chronic conditions, such as cataracts, chronic sinusitis, visual impairment, and varicose veins? a. They are untreatable. b. They can lead to disability. c. They are typically fatal in older adults. d. They seldom occur in adults over age 65.

106. Which statement best describes the nature of sleep for older people? a. They rarely suffer from sleep apnea. b. They need more sleep than adolescents. c. They experience sleep disorders more frequently than younger adults. d. They can get as much sleep as they need because most older adults are retired.

107. Which factor is likely responsible for the longer life expectancy Canadians have when compared to those from the United States? a. our healthcare system b. our better diet c. our birth rate d. our education system 108. What is the average life expectancy for a Canadian woman? a. 64 years b. 74 years c. 84 years d. 94 years Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 109. Which of the following may be linked to sleep problems in late adulthood? a. a history of sexual dysfunction b. dementia c. misuse of prescription drugs d. a history of cardiovascular problems 110. Age-related deficits in associative memory are the result of which of the following? a. nutritional deficiencies b. decoding errors c. recall overuse d. atrophies in the frontal lobes 111. Roberta is 112 years old. Which of the following is Roberta’s age close to? a. the human lifespan b. the human life expectancy c. the average age for human males d. the average age for human females 112. Which of the following may have contributed to an increase in the spread of sexually transmitted infections among older adults? a. dormant infections b. social anxiety c. lack of education d. online dating 113. Which of the following best characterizes life expectancy in Canada over the past few decades? a. It has not changed. b. It has dropped overall. c. It continues to increase. d. It has increased dramatically.

114. Which statement best characterizes the free-radical theory of aging? a. Antioxidants are bad for the body. b. It has no support from scientific research, but it is often used to explain sports injuries. c. Aging is a result of accumulated damage to DNA caused by environmental toxins. d. Unstable molecules in the atmosphere and body cause damage to cells in the body.

115. Which statement best outlines changes to reproductive abilities in later life? a. Women remain able to reproduce but men do not. b. Men and women are both incapable of reproducing past age 60. c. Women continue to release viable eggs into their 70s. d. Men may continue to have viable sperm into their 90s.

116. Which statement best represents programmed theories of aging? a. Aging and longevity are determined by a biological clock b. Aging is required to provide wiser members in a species. c. Aging results from an accumulation of toxins in the body. d. Aging involves a predictable unfolding of cellular decay.

117. Which of the following is one of the impacts of declining estrogen? a. increased vaginal lubrication b. increased bladder size c. more intense orgasms d. thinning vaginal walls

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 118. Which of the following indicates hearing loss? a. difficulty falling asleep b. trouble hearing in noisy areas c. difficulty maintaining balance d. the onset of presbyopia 119. What have researchers found about stress hormones? a. They fade away with age. b. They have no effects on aging. c. They include estrogen and testosterone. d. They make the body more susceptible to certain illnesses.

120. Life expectancy in Canada has increased over the last 100 years. Which of the following has contributed to his increase? a. a revised Canada Food Guide b. improved public health measures c. lower birth rate d. extended family support 121. Which of the following is a characteristic of normal aging? a. Physiological processes decline rapidly with age. b. People are able to enjoy many years of health and vitality into late adulthood. c. The body produces an overabundance of antioxidants, leading to circulatory problems. d. Most Canadians over the age of 65 live in long-term-care facilities.

122. What is the definition of ageism? a. the process of aging c. the decline in our reproductive capacity

b. prejudice against older adults d. the respect people show for older adults

123. Jennifer’s mother has been diagnosed as having cataracts. What would the diagnosing doctor most likely tell her? a. They are untreatable. b. They cause hearing problems. c. They cloud the lenses in the eyes. d. They are caused by increased fluid pressure in the eyeball.

124. Which statement best represents the hormonal stress theory? a. It is not supported by research. b. It is a type of cellular hormonal damage theory. c. One’s cells can divide only so many times until they can no longer function properly. d. Hormonal changes occur because they are programmed into one’s genetic structures.

125. During later adulthood, which of the following best characterizes men’s sexuality? a. Foreplay has no effect on men’s erections. b. Men have no change in their sexual abilities. c. Men experience increased nocturnal emissions as a normal part of aging. d. Men need more time to achieve an erection and orgasm than when they were younger.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 126. Which statement best characterizes osteoarthritis? a. It rarely strikes older adults. b. It is a painful, degenerative disease involving wear and tear on joints. c. It is excessive growth of the cartilage within a joint. d. It is more common in men than women.

127. Which factor is most critical in determining the continuation of sexual activity into older adults? a. physical strength b. a good imagination c. a supportive partner d. time 128. In 1900, how many people were over the age of 65? a. 1 in 500 b. 1 in 100 c. 1 in 25 d. 1 in 8 129. Which statement best characterizes the cellular clock theory of aging? a. Everyone has the exact same rate of aging b. It is contradicted by the presence of telomeres. c. Cells can divide only a certain number of times. d. Cells from longer-lived species divide fewer times than cells from shorter-lived species.

130. What is the definition of “lifespan”? a. the average length of time a person will live b. the longest a person can expect to live under the best circumstances c. the length of time a person will live under normal conditions d. the average expectancy of life determined by government every five years 131. Which statement best describes substance abuse? a. It is rare in older adults. b. It occurs only with non-prescription, illicit drugs. c. It leads to hospitalization for many adults each year. d. It rarely occurs when a doctor prescribes a medication to an older adult.

132. Bahrick and his colleagues (1975) studied people’s ability to recognize their high-school classmates. What did this research conclude? a. Few people could recognize their classmates even five years out of high school. b. Adults over age 65 could recognize few if any of their classmates after 50 years. c. Adults over age 65 could recognize the same number of classmates as younger adults. d. Visual memories can last for 50 years.

133. Which statement best represents women’s change in sexuality as they age? a. Sexuality disappears. b. Their vaginal walls become thicker. c. The vagina shrinks. d. Penile penetration becomes more pleasurable.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 134. You overhear your grandfather talking about the “romantic weekend” he just enjoyed with his wife. Although you feel a bit uncomfortable about this knowledge, because of your course in human development, what do you know about your grandfather’s interest in sex? a. It is rare. b. It is normal. c. It is typical dirty old man storytelling. d. It is following a double standard.

135. Which statement best characterizes language development during late adulthood? a. Reading comprehension tends to increase with age. b. Few language deficits are typical during late adulthood. c. Older adults show few language production deficiencies. d. Language comprehension improves when the speaker slows down and articulates words carefully.

136. What are the leading chronic health conditions in late adulthood? a. accidents, stroke, and cancer b. homicide, suicide, and accidents c. hypertension, arthritic symptoms, and heart disease. d. accidents, cancer, and heart disease 137. In late adulthood, which of the following is linked with deficits in associative memory? a. atrophy in the frontal lobe b. atrophy in the occipital lobe c. atrophy in the cerebellum d. atrophy in the medulla 138. Which statement best characterizes aging? a. It is always negative. b. It is a process of rapid decline from early adulthood through late adulthood. c. It is a physical process alone. d. It can bring about personal growth.

139. You are moving to Canada from India. You ask your Canadian cousin about Canada’s age distribution because most advertisements show youthful individuals. Which age group do you learn is the fastest growing segment of the Canadian population? a. 0 to 3 years b. 15 to 20 years c. 25 to 30 years d. over 65 years 140. Which statement describes sleep medications? a. They do not have addictive properties. b. Their use is usually avoided by older adults. c. They are an effective treatment for insomnia. d. They are ineffective in helping with sleep disorders in older adults.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 141. Which statement best characterizes “life expectancy”? a. It is the same as lifespan. b. It is determined by genetics alone. c. It refers to the duration of time a member of a species can live. d. It is the number of years a person will likely live.

142. Which statement best characterizes Alzheimer’s disease? a. It is curable if diagnosed early enough. b. It rarely leads to death in later adulthood. c. It is a progressive disease that causes dementia. d. It affects approximately 40% of Canadians.

143. Which statement best represents the findings of research on cognitive development during late adulthood? a. Fluid intelligence increases with age. b. All cognitive functions experience a general decline. c. Cognitive skills drop off rapidly after age 65. d. All cognition is affected by telomeres.

144. Which statement best characterizes sleep disorders in late adulthood? a. They cannot be treated with medicine. b. They are less common than in early adulthood. c. They may signal physical or psychological problems. d. They protect older adults from heart disease and strokes.

145. What is the relationship between aging and memory? a. Aging is unrelated to memory loss. b. Aging improves most types of memory. c. Aging affects implicit memory more than explicit memory. d. Aging affects associative memory more than memory for single items.

146. Connie is 75 years old. Which of the following best represents sexuality at her age? a. She shouldn’t be having sex. b. More involved foreplay is dangerous. c. Decreased vaginal lubrication may make sex painful. d. Orgasms typically increase in intensity, but not in quantity.

147. Which statement best represents the onset of dementia? a. It is a naturally occurring result of aging. b. It is caused only by genetic factors. c. It is most often caused by Alzheimer’s disease. d. It can be prevented or halted if diagnosed early.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 148. Which statement best describes women’s sexuality during later adulthood? a. Orgasms tend to increase in intensity. b. Nipples become less sensitive. c. Lining of the vaginal wall thickens creating more pleasure. d. The ability to reach orgasm remains unchanged.

149. Wilma is pleased that at 70 she is still able to recite the multiplication tables. What can Wilma attribute this skill to? a. prospective memory b. temporal memory c. explicit memory d. implicit memory 150. Which statement best characterizes wisdom? a. It rarely comes with age. b. It is the same as crystallized intelligence. c. It may be a result of taking a broader view of situations. d. It is a result of ignoring past events and focusing only on the future.

151. Which statement best represent the research findings on memory during late adulthood? a. Older adults tend to do significantly poorer than younger adults in tasks that assess implicit memory. b. The temporal memories of older adults remain unchanged with age. c. The temporal memory of older adults may become confused. d. Older adults tend to do as well as if not better than younger adults in tasks that assess explicit memory.

152. Today, how many North Americans are over the age of 65? a. 1 in 100 b. 1 in 25 c. 1 in 8 d. 1 in 5 153. Compared with younger adults, which of the following is most likely to be the response of older adults when faced with interpersonal conflicts? a. They are more likely to express feelings of frustration. b. They are more likely to remain calm. c. They are more likely to show anger. d. They are more likely to exaggerate the situation.

154. Which statement best describes the stages in the progression of Alzheimer’s disease? a. They begin subtly and end in death. b. They are unpredictable. c. They are different for everyone who gets it. d. They are treatable if diagnosed early enough.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 155. Which of the following best represents what most older adults remember about their past life events? a. few items from their past b. most items from their 50s and 60s c. most items from their teens and 20s d. inaccuracies about what happened in their lives 156. What is pathological aging? a. an unstable psychological response to the process of aging b. the aging process during late adulthood c. the extremely early onset of aging processes, sometimes beginning in early adulthood d. degenerative processes that are not necessarily part of regular aging 157. Research has shown that siblings of centenarians are also more likely to reach the age of 100. Which of the following is supported by the findings of this research? a. the hormonal stress theory b. programmed theories of aging c. cellular damage theories of aging d. the role of environment as the most important factor in determining longevity 158. During late adulthood, which of the following affects vision? a. presbycusis b. brittle eye lenses c. overuse d. decreased fluid pressure in the eyeball 159. Older Canadians, over the age of 65 make up 12% of the population. What percentage of hospital beds do they occupy? a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 30 160. Which of the following affects 50% of Canadians 65 years of age and older? a. stroke b. hypertension c. congestive heart failure d. coronary artery disease 161. What are the living arrangements of most older adults? a. Most live in their own homes. b. Most are physically incapacitated. c. Most require institutionalized care. d. Most live in nursing homes by the time they reach age 75.

162. Which statement best describes sexual relations during late adulthood? a. They may be impacted by myths about sexuality in older adults. b. They are undesired by older women. c. They are physically impossible for most adults. d. They are actively pursued by 80% of those in late adulthood.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 163. Canadian men and women have different life expectancies. Approximately how many years lower is the life expectancy of Canadian men? a. lower by 2years b. lower by 4 years c. lower by 8 years d. lower by 10 years 164. Howard and Bella have been married for 50 years and have had a satisfying sexual relationship. They are now in their late 70s. Which statement is most likely to characterize their experience of sexuality? a. They are likely to engage in more frequent intercourse than during middle-adulthood. b. They are unlikely to be interested in sex. c. They are unable to reach orgasms so must be satisfied with foreplay. d. Their sexual relationship is likely to continue to be fulfilling as it was in middle adulthood.

165. Which of the following is characteristic of changes in sensory functioning in late adulthood? a. Hearing low-pitched voices becomes more difficult. b. Taste sensitivity becomes heightened and less seasoning is required. c. The sense of smell is heightened d. Taste buds are lost.

166. Which statement best characterizes rheumatoid arthritis? a. It is controllable by surgery. b. It is rarely diagnosed in people under age 60. c. It is the term formerly used to describe osteoarthritis. d. It is caused by the immune system attacking its own tissues.

167. What are the living arrangements of most adults over age 65 in Canada? a. They live primarily in nursing homes. b. They live mostly in retirement communities. c. They tend to be more impoverished than younger people. d. They typically live in their own communities after retirement.

168. Which statement best characterizes the prevalence of chronic illnesses in older adults? a. Chronic diseases are rare. b. One out of five people over age 65 has a chronic illness. c. Most adults over age 65 have severe chronic diseases. d. Hypertension is the chronic illness that impacts more than half of older Canadians.

169. Which statement best characterizes older men’s orgasms? a. They are rare. b. They may be as enjoyable as they were earlier in life. c. They are rarely as pleasing as when men were younger. d. They increase in intensity compared with when men were younger.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 170. Which of the following is an example of elder bias? a. Physicians treat their elderly patients more aggressively for cancer than their younger patients. b. Older adults are less likely to be diagnosed and treated for illnesses than younger adults. c. People do not give respect to their elders. d. Older adults are distrusting of medical doctors and unknown treatments.

171. Which statement best characterizes osteoporosis? a. It is unrelated to mortality rates. b. It is a disorder that affects only women. c. It is a result of severe calcium loss from the bones. d. It affects few older adults; it is primarily a problem during early adulthood.

172. Physical changes affect sexuality as we grow older. What is the response of most older adults to these changes? a. They typically give up having sex. b. They usually decide to cuddle rather than have sex. c. They tend to leave their long-term partners for new partners. d. They may learn to use alternative forms of sexual stimulation.

173. Which statement best describes adults who are working with their prospective memory? a. They increase their processing speed. b. They are unable to use conspicuous cues. c. They are unable to use memory strategies. d. They remember well with prompts and cues.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce a. maximum lifetime for a member of a species b. cataracts c. erectile dysfunction d. sleep apnea e. ageism f. free radical theory g. cellular clock theory h. average life expected based on factors such as gender and race i. presbycusis j. rheumatoid arthritis k. wear-and-tear theory l. glaucoma m. immunological theory n. osteoporosis o. Alzheimer’s disease 174. Sleep disorder in which breathing stops intermittently 175. Vision disorder leading to clouded vision 176. Neurological disorder that causes dementia and physical problems 177. Sexual dysfunction in men 178. View that aging is a result of reduced ability to fight off infections 179. Lifespan 180. Theory that aging is a result of the body being unable to repair itself 181. Chronic inflammation of membranes in joints 182. Telomeres indicate number of cell divisions possible 183. Hearing loss 184. Buildup of fluid pressure in eyeball 185. Theory that unstable molecules damage cells 186. Life expectancy 187. Loss in bone density 188. Bias against old people 189. How do lifespan and life expectancy differ? Have they changed for people in the last century? Explain your answer.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 190. What is Alzheimer’s disease? How does it appear in a person’s life? Explain your answer.

191. What is arthritis and what are the different types of arthritis?

192. How do vision and hearing change during late adulthood?

193. How do programmed and cellular damage theories differ in their explanations of aging?

194. What is prospective memory? How do older adults perform when required to create prospective memory?

195. Is sex still possible during late adulthood?

196. How do implicit and explicit memories differ? How are they different in older adults?

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 197. How is osteoporosis a problem for older adults?

198. What are the three leading causes of death in late adulthood?

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. False 2. True 3. True 4. True 5. True 6. False 7. True 8. True 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. True 16. False 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. False 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. True 25. True 26. True

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 27. False 28. False 29. False 30. True 31. False 32. True 33. False 34. False 35. True 36. False 37. True 38. False 39. False 40. False 41. False 42. True 43. True 44. True 45. False 46. True 47. True 48. True 49. False 50. True 51. True 52. True 53. False 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 55. False 56. False 57. True 58. False 59. False 60. True 61. b 62. a 63. b 64. c 65. a 66. c 67. b 68. b 69. a 70. d 71. b 72. b 73. d 74. d 75. d 76. d 77. d 78. a 79. b 80. c 81. d 82. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 83. d 84. d 85. c 86. a 87. c 88. c 89. c 90. b 91. a 92. c 93. d 94. a 95. d 96. d 97. b 98. a 99. c 100. b 101. a 102. c 103. c 104. d 105. b 106. c 107. a 108. c 109. b 110. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 111. a 112. d 113. c 114. d 115. d 116. a 117. d 118. b 119. d 120. b 121. b 122. b 123. c 124. d 125. d 126. b 127. c 128. c 129. c 130. b 131. c 132. d 133. c 134. b 135. d 136. c 137. a

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 138. d 139. d 140. c 141. d 142. c 143. b 144. c 145. d 146. c 147. c 148. d 149. d 150. c 151. c 152. c 153. b 154. a 155. c 156. d 157. b 158. b 159. c 160. b 161. a 162. a 163. b 164. d 165. d Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 166. d 167. d 168. d 169. b 170. b 171. c 172. d 173. d 174. d 175. b 176. o 177. c 178. m 179. a 180. k 181. j 182. g 183. i 184. l 185. f 186. h 187. n 188. e 189. The term “lifespan” refers to the maximum life for a member of a species given optimal conditions. “Life expectancy” is the average amount of time an individual is expected to live. Lifespan has remained at approximately age 115 or so, whereas life expectancy has increased for much of the century as a result of declines in both infant mortality rates and deaths from infectious diseases. Great strides have been made in increasing life expectancy, which continues to rise for Canadians. Though specific studies did not examine why people are living longer, such factors as access to health care, advances in medicine, better diets, and access to clean water all play a role.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 190. Although the cause or causes of Alzheimer’s disease (AD) remain a mystery, scientists believe that both environmental and genetic factors are involved. The accumulation of plaque may cause the memory loss and other symptoms of AD; however, experiments with non-humans suggest that memory deficits may precede the formation of significant deposits of plaque.

AD progresses in several stages. At first, subtle cognitive and personality changes occur, in which people with AD have trouble managing finances and recalling recent events. As AD progresses, people with AD find it harder to manage daily tasks, select clothes, recall names and addresses, and drive.

Later, they have trouble using the bathroom and maintaining hygiene. They no longer recognize family and friends or speak in full sentences. They may become restless, agitated, confused, and aggressive. They may get lost in stores, parking lots, even their own homes.

They may experience hallucinations or paranoid delusions, believing that others are attempting to harm them. People with AD may eventually become unable to walk or communicate, rendering them completely dependent on others.

191. Arthritis is joint inflammation that results from conditions affecting the structures inside and surrounding the joints.

One type is osteoarthritis, a degenerative disease that primarily affects the joints. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by chronic inflammation of the membranes that line the joints because the body’s immune system attacks its own tissues.

192. Changes in sensory ability during late adulthood continue to decline from earlier in adulthood. Older adults continue to have presbyopia, which worsens with age. Many also have cataracts that affect the lenses of the eyes and cause clouded vision. Glaucoma is another vision problem in which fluid pressure buildup in the eyeball narrows vision and causes blindness. Older adults have more difficulty hearing high-pitched tones in particular and other sounds in general. Men’s hearing declines more quickly than women’s.

193. Programmed theories suggest that aging is a result of genetic programming that determines how long the organism will last. Examples of this type of theory include the cellular clock, which suggests that the telomeres on the tips of chromosomes determine the number of times a cell can divide; hormonal stress theory, which explains that developmental changes are result of accumulating stress hormones; and age-related changes, such as puberty.

Cellular damage theories state that aging is a result of damage to cells, typically not predetermined by genetics.

Examples include the wear-and-tear theory, which suggests that the body wears out over time with usage, and the free radical theory, which says that unstable molecules accumulate in the body and harm the normal functions of the cell.

194. Prospective memory involves remembering information of things that have yet to occur, such as upcoming doctor’s appointments and so forth. Older adults can perform well in creating this type of memory if they have obvious cues available. They may, however, be more inattentive.

195. Yes, but older adults may have a more difficult time becoming aroused. Men may have difficulty achieving erection, while women may have difficulties with lubrication. Older adults may have to battle stereotypes about their sexuality.

Lack of a partner may be problematic, particularly for women. Older adults may need more imaginative ways of becoming aroused and longer time to reach orgasm, but sexual relations can be just as satisfying, if not more satisfying, than earlier in life.

196. Implicit memory is a type of automatically remembered memory, related to motor skills, such as riding a bike or driving a car. This type of memory may be also a result of years of practice, such as using the alphabet. Explicit memory is of two types: episodic, or specific, memories of specific events and semantic memory, or memories of general information. Older adults typically have better implicit memory, which does not require any conscious effort to recall.

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Chap_17_HDEV_4ce 197. Osteoporosis is a condition linked to a loss of calcium that may come with age. Bones become brittle and porous. It is common for older adults to have fractures, particularly hip fractures. Hip fractures often result in hospitalization and loss of mobility. For people in advanced late adulthood, it can also lead to death from complications.

198. Cancer is the leading cause of death in men and women over the age of 65, followed by heart disease and respiratory disease. As we age, the risk of most cancers rises because the immune system becomes less able to rid the body of precancerous and cancerous cells. Many older people are not adequately screened or treated for cancer or heart disease. One reason for the gap in diagnosis and treatment is elder bias or discrimination against the elderly on the part of some health professionals.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. The “quieting of the ego” is characterized by a concern for the well-being of humankind in general, not just the well-being of oneself and those one loves. a. True b. False 2. Body preoccupation is more likely to develop in late adulthood than before. a. True b. False 3. Detection and treatment of depression in older adults is as frequent as in younger adults. a. True b. False 4. Research consistently shows that physical activity is associated with a lower mortality rate in late adulthood and that leisure and informal social activities contribute to life satisfaction among retired people. a. True b. False 5. The majority of research on older adults supports the disengagement theory of aging. a. True b. False 6. Being able to care for oneself appears to be a core condition of successful aging. a. True b. False 7. Agoraphobia, generalized anxiety disorder, and panic disorders are types of anxiety disorders. a. True b. False 8. Well-being among older adults is generally predicted by pursuing goals, rather than by withdrawal. a. True b. False 9. Older adults are more likely to have a lot more friends than during middle adulthood. a. True b. False 10. The majority of adults over age 65 live in nursing homes or retirement communities. a. True b. False

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 11. Body transcendence occurs when people get beyond the physical limitations they experience and place more value on social relationships and cognitive abilities. a. True b. False 12. Most grandparents in late adulthood and their grandchildren conceptualize their relationships as mutually rewarding. a. True b. False 13. Older adults who are afraid to go into public places are suffering from agoraphobia rather than having realistic fears. a. True b. False 14. Older adults’ self-esteem may be lower than that of younger adults because older adults are wiser, know themselves better, and tend to be more accepting of their own flaws. a. True b. False 15. People who have a friend or loved one die are inevitably depressed. a. True b. False 16. Retirement is most successful when it is planned. a. True b. False 17. Self-esteem has been shown to be higher during late adulthood and to provide a less accurate appraisal of oneself compared with earlier in life. a. True b. False 18. Depression has been linked to cognitive and physical problems. a. True b. False 19. Heterosexual couples in satisfactory relationships are more likely to plan for retirement interdependently than those who are not in satisfying marital relationships. a. True b. False

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 20. It has been generally found that gay men and lesbians in long-term partnerships tend to enjoy higher selfesteem, less depression, fewer suicidal urges, and less alcohol and drug abuse than their peers who are not in long-term relationships. a. True b. False 21. Research has shown that older adults tend to focus less on the emotional content of information as they get older. a. True b. False 22. Depression has been linked to genetic factors, key life events, and personality factors. a. True b. False 23. Older people who are independent tend to think of themselves as leading a “normal life,” whereas those who are dependent on others, even if they are only slightly dependent, tend to worry more about aging and encountering physical disabilities and stress. a. True b. False 24. Depression is the same thing as sadness or bereavement. a. True b. False 25. Whereas younger cohabiters often see their lifestyle as a prelude to marriage, older cohabiters are more likely to see their relationship as an alternative lifestyle. a. True b. False 26. Reminiscence and life review may assist older adults in creating meaning for their lives. a. True b. False 27. Troubling emotions, such as depression and anxiety, tend to decline as we age, whereas positive emotions remain fairly steady. a. True b. False 28. During late adulthood, similarities in the personalities of marital partners are considered to be related to increased levels of conflict in the marriage. a. True b. False

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 29. Ego transcendence is believed to grow out of self-reflection and willingness to learn from experience. a. True b. False 30. Toileting independently is an important issue for older adults. a. True b. False 31. Ego integrity is the sense that people feel better about themselves because they are better than other people. a. True b. False 32. Of all retired people, 90% still consider their identity to be determined by their former occupation. a. True b. False 33. After being widowed, siblings tend to increase their social contacts and emotional support of each other. a. True b. False 34. According to disengagement theory, when older adults disengage from society and society disengages from them, they will be dissatisfied with life. a. True b. False 35. Few life reviews are unguided and complex. a. True b. False 36. Theories of late adulthood focus on how older adults try to regain their former abilities. a. True b. False 37. People who are moderately involved in religion have been shown to have low levels of depressive symptoms. a. True b. False 38. Physical activity, social contacts, self-rated good health, the absence of cognitive impairment and depression, nonsmoking, and the absence of disabilities and chronic diseases are components of successful aging. a. True b. False 39. Reminiscence is a sign of mental illness in older adults. a. True b. False

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 40. Men in their 70s seem to have the most difficulty coping with the death of a spouse. a. True b. False 41. During late adulthood, friends act as confidants and provide opportunities for social networking, emotional closeness, and emotional support. a. True b. False 42. In late adulthood, people express progressively less “body esteem.” a. True b. False 43. Selective optimization with compensation means that older people manage to maximize their gains while minimizing their losses. a. True b. False 44. Once widowed, most widows and widowers cope best when they withdraw from society. a. True b. False 45. The conflict during late adulthood, according to Erikson’s psychosocial theory, is generativity vs. stagnation. a. True b. False 46. Ego integrity derives from wisdom and from the acceptance of one’s life span as being limited and occurring at a certain point in the sweep of history. a. True b. False 47. Nothing can be done to help older adults remain in their homes when they become ill or physically limited. a. True b. False 48. Very few seniors continue to be homeowners. a. True b. False 49. Very few older adults demonstrate resilience through the loss of a spouse. a. True b. False 50. Leisure activities are important determinants of successful retirement. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 51. Ego transcendence refers to older adults’ focus on future generations and their own legacy after they are gone. a. True b. False 52. Ego transcendence is otherwise known as the quieting of the ego. a. True b. False 53. Single people who never had children are as likely to be socially active in late adulthood as older adults who had children. a. True b. False 54. Socioemotional selectivity theory, a lifespan theory of motivation, hypothesizes that increasing emphasis is placed on emotional experiences as we age. a. True b. False 55. Approximately 25% of older adults suffer from anxiety disorders. a. True b. False 56. Research has shown that sharing power in the marital relationship and a division of household tasks contributed to satisfaction in the relationships. a. True b. False 57. According to activity theory, older adults are better adjusted when they are more active and involved in physical and social activities. a. True b. False 58. There is no sufficient legislation to protect seniors living in residential care in Canada. a. True b. False 59. Older people are increasingly likely to cohabit today. a. True b. False 60. Older North Americans report being much less happy than younger adults. a. True b. False

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 61. In a Dutch study of retirement, most retirees reported that their well-being increased a year after they retired and that much of the stress they felt before retiring had diminished. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

62. Which statement best represents the theories of development during late adulthood? a. They are unable to explain why people age. b. They describe how people cope with getting older. c. They focus on gains and growth during this period of life. d. They explain why most people are depressed when they are old.

63. Which of the following best characterizes the nature of marriage during late adulthood? a. Intimacy is no longer an important issue. b. The partners typically spend more time together. c. There are more frequent squabbles over finances and parenting. d. The relationship requires constant negotiation about the division of labour.

64. What does socioemotional selectivity theory address? a. the development of older adults’ social networks b. whether people should withdraw from society as they age c. how people seek out and nurture a greater number of intimate relationships d. how people reflect backward not forward on their personal experiences 65. Annabelle, who is 80, spends much of her time at quilting classes, meeting her best friend for lunch, and reading books about ancient Roman history. Which of the following best describes Annabelle? a. She is depressed. b. She is aging unsuccessfully. c. She is maximizing her gains, while minimizing her losses. d. She is missing out on necessary physical activity.

66. According to a 2012 survey of 1,500 seniors, what is the experience of most seniors in Canada?? a. They reported more social connections than ever before in their lives. b. They reported that they enjoyed life in Canada as contributing members of society. c. They reported that they finally felt valued by younger Canadians. d. They reported that most treat them as though they are invisible.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 67. Which of the following illustrates a positive example of Erickson’s eighth and final stage of psychosocial development? a. Frank, who is 68 years old, can no longer read the sports statistics in the newspaper. b. Janet, who is 75 years old, is not able to actively play on the swing and teeter-totter but enjoys taking her youngest grandchild to the park and watching her play. c. Gladys, who is 73 years old, no longer meets her friends for lunch because her hands tremble so much that she cannot hold a teacup. d. Jack, who turned 80 last week, refused to go fishing with his 55-year-old son because his arthritis is so advanced that he can no longer bait a fishing hook.

68. Which statement best characterizes pre-retirement identities? a. They are unrelated to happiness during retirement. b. They often determine post-retirement identities. c. They are the same as post-retirement identities. d. They are dependent on health issues at the time of retirement 69. Which of the following is the effect of losing one’s spouse in late adulthood? a. It is associated with decreased physical and mental health. b. It has little effect on older adults because they expected their partners to die. c. It typically increases the social interaction of the surviving spouse. d. It will vary according to the quality of the marriage.

70. Which statement best characterizes nursing homes? a. They are considered a dangerous place. b. They are the same as retirement centres. c. They are perceived as places to go before one needs help. d. They can help disoriented adults if they are well-staffed and carefully chosen.

71. According to Erikson, what is the meaning of ego integrity? a. individuals feel they are on death’s doorstep b. individuals are depressed c. individuals feel life is meaningful despite the challenges of physical decline d. individuals report more health problems than they can handle 72. In late adulthood, self-esteem may be lower than in middle adulthood. Which of the following best accounts for this drop in self-esteem? a. Older adults have suffered from ego despair. b. Older adults may have lost people close to them and experienced other life challenges. c. Older adults are typically depressed during late adulthood. d. Older people may be comparing themselves to others they follow on social media.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 73. You notice that everyone in the family is discussing your grandmother’s well-being. You think she is great.

Which of the following do you share, demonstrating that your grandmother possesses the best characteristics of those who age successfully? a. She is optimistic. b. She has never retired. c. She may be genetically determined to be happy. d. She gave up most types of activities so she can rest and relax.

74. Which statement best characterizes grandparents during late adulthood? a. They have few pleasures in their grandparenthood. b. They often provide unconditional love and support. c. They typically have little to do with their grandchildren. d. They are more critical of their grandchildren than during middle adulthood.

75. Which statement best represents the value of religion to older adults? a. Religion allows for the social involvement of older adults. b. Religion encompasses moral views of death. c. Churches provide places for seniors to learn to sing. d. Religion provides an opportunity to climb the social ladder in the community.

76. Which of the following is a common reason why seniors are reluctant to remarry? a. They are often unable to live in the same long-term care facility as a spouse. b. Financial concerns and potential disapproval of their children. c. Low self-esteem. d. Romantic interest declines significantly into the senior years.

77. Which of the following older adults is at the highest risk for suicide? a. an 80-year-old woman who has decided not to winter in Florida so that she can be near her children b. a 75-year-old man who has been on two dates with a woman from his bridge club c. a 75-year-old woman who has only two close friends and a dog to spend time with d. an 80-year-old recently widowed man who has been diagnosed with lung cancer 78. Which statement best describes the experience of depression in older adults? a. It has few symptoms. b. It is considered normal. c. It is indistinguishable from sadness. d. It is often undiagnosed and untreated.

79. Which of the following is a characteristic of depression in older adults? a. It is often linked to Alzheimer’s disease and cancer. b. It is a problem that is best left to family to manage. c. It is often misdiagnosed as low blood sugar. d. It affects a majority of older adults over the age of 65.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 80. Which of the following is a characteristic of disengagement theory? a. Normal, healthy aging requires a reengagement with society. b. Society withdraws from older adults as they age. c. It is atypical behaviour that might occur between older adults and their extended family. d. It is a welcome part of aging.

81. Which of the following best characterizes the treatment of depression in older adults? a. The typical depression treatments rarely work for older adults. b. Treatment is not recommended because older adults need to work through their sadness. c. Untreated depression may lead to suicide, particularly in older men. d. It is more complex than the treatment for younger people.

82. Which statement best characterizes happiness during retirement? a. It is determined by factors such as control over the transition and financial resources. b. It is rarely felt. c. It is unrelated to pre-retirement factors. d. It is based on the level of self-worth that developed through one’s work.

83. A study of former university employees conducted by Jo-Ida Hansen and her colleagues showed that leisure activities were divided into different clusters, or factors. Which activity was included in those clusters? a. attending academic seminars b. camping c. dog-sitting d. childcare 84. According to Peck (1968), which of the following best defines ego transcendence? a. people’s realization they will decline physically b. helping future generations and leaving a legacy of oneself c. the same as self-love d. regretting lack of life’s accomplishments and refocusing to provide acts of retribution 85. Which statement best describes agoraphobia? a. It is a cognitive distortion. b. It is sometimes a result of loss of a support system during late adulthood. c. It is sometimes misdiagnosed as depression. d. It is the result of the same fears experiences by those of the general population.

86. Which statement best characterizes most relationships of older couples? a. They rarely report spending too much time together. b. They disagree with each other more than previously. c. They conflict less when they have similar personality characteristics. d. They show more aggressive behaviour toward each other when they conflict than when they were younger.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 87. What was a result of a recent study of Korean seniors and their leisure activities? a. Family time was significantly more important than leisure activities for well-being. b. Leisure activities serve to improve physical, social, and emotional well-being. c. Men’s mental well-being was more connected to leisure activities than women’s mental well-being. d. Men’s mental well-being was less connected to leisure activities than women’s mental well-being.

88. What is the definition of selective optimization with compensation? a. People suffer as they get older. b. People need to learn to live with their failures. c. Few people will be truly happy with who they are. d. People manage to maximize gains while minimizing losses.

89. Which statement best represents the findings of research on activity theory? a. Activity theory is unsupported by data. b. Independent activities in the home have no value. c. Only formal work situations contribute to well-being in older adults. d. Physical activity is associated with lower mortality rates in late adulthood.

90. According to socioemotional selectivity theory, why do older adults limit their social contacts? a. They are preparing for death. b. They become less emotional as they age. c. They are increasingly antisocial. d. They focus on those who share common history and values.

91. Which of the following has been linked to church attendance by elderly African Americans? a. greater longevity b. opportunities to meet future spouses c. greater financial stability d. enhanced intimacy with their extended families 92. Which statement best describes reminiscence? a. Reminiscence is used to help some people to overcome depression. b. Reminiscence is a form of grief counselling used when someone is facing a painful death. c. Reminiscence gets in the way of a person accepting mortality. d. Reminiscence is a stressful part of aging.

93. Joe is in early adulthood and has decided that marriage is an important life choice for him. What is a core issue of marriage for Joe at this point in his human development? a. the development of a shared life b. parenting and household chores c. the division of labour d. the selection of community to establish roots

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 94. Which statement best characterizes older adults’ and their relationships as they age? a. Older adults become more antisocial. b. The size of older adults’ social networks increases. c. Older adults spend more time on relationships that have less meaning. d. Older adults become more selective in order to focus on meaningful social relationships.

95. Which of the following women is most likely to remain in her own home? a. Betty, who is 85 and rents her home b. Lisa, who is 72 and has recently lost her husband and sister c. Fatima, who is 70 and knows few people in her neighbourhood d. Maria, who is 75 and has had her mortgage paid off for 20 years 96. Which statement best describes the occurrence of anxiety disorders in older adults? a. They are common. b. They are rarely paired with depression. c. They are more common in older women than older men. d. They are more common in older adults than younger adults.

97. Margret is 75 years old and retired at age 72, after having been a teacher for more than 40 years. According to Peck (1968), which perspective will enable Margret to reach ego differentiation? a. understanding that she will most likely die in the next 20 years b. understanding that she has grandchildren who will be around after she dies c. understanding that her body will never look like it did when she was younger d. thinking about herself in ways outside of her role as a teacher 98. Which statement characterizes retirement planning in Canada? a. Retirement planning can be a significant source of stress in heterosexual and same-sex couples. b. For couples whose relationship has high levels of satisfaction, retirement planning is more often done together. c. In heterosexual couples, retirement planning is more often organized by women than by men. d. Men in same-sex couples are more likely to do retirement planning than women in same-sex couples.

99. Which statement best characterizes generalized anxiety disorder? a. It is a phobic disorder. b. It is rare in older adults. c. It is considered the same as depression. d. It may make individuals more susceptible to illness.

100. Which statement best represents the findings of research on adjustment in retirement? a. People are least happy when they retire at age 65. b. Those who were married and retired “on time” were happiest. c. Those who were single and retired later than others were happiest. d. The adjustment is easiest when people reduce the number of activities in which they are involved.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 101. Which statement best characterizes joint leisure activities during later adulthood? a. They typically increase stress. b. They are unrelated to boredom. c. They contribute to marital satisfaction and family well-being. d. They should be avoided by couples because such activities increase conflict.

102. According to Ardelt (2008), which of the following best represents ego transcendence? a. self-love b. quieting of the ego c. a negative response to aging d. acceptance of imminent death 103. Which statement best describes successful aging? a. It is rare. b. It is determined primarily by gender. c. It involves a variety of factors such as physical ability, social contacts, and health. d. It is compromised by extended family conflict.

104. According to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, what conflict is your 70-year-old grandparent most likely facing? a. intimacy vs. isolation b. ego integrity vs. despair c. generativity vs. stagnation d. identity vs. identity confusion 105. In what percentage of elder abuse cases is the offender a family member? a. 10 b. 30 c. 50 d. 75 106. Which of the following best represents a core issue of marriage for couples in middle adulthood? a. physical intimacy b. division of labour c. choosing a partner d. development of a shared life 107. Which statement best characterizes dependence on others during late adulthood? a. It is rare. b. It is a normal part of aging. c. It rarely causes stress in those who need help. d. It is particularly sensitive in terms of toileting.

108. Which of the following is linked to depression in older adults? a. loss of appetite b. memory lapses c. difficulty going to work d. increase in incontinence 109. Which statement best characterizes older adults who cohabit? a. They have less stable relationships than younger adults who cohabit. b. They are more likely to want to remarry than younger adults who cohabit. c. They typically see their relationships as trial marriages, rather than alternative lifestyles. d. They often do not marry because of financial reasons or to avoid disapproval from their children.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 110. Which statement best represents Peck’s (1968) amplification of Erikson’s theory? a. People need to quit their jobs in order to be happy. b. People accept the changes one’s body experiences with aging and define their self-worth differently. c. People cling to identities related to former occupations. d. People take pride in past accomplishments and find ways to reinforce and replicate those achievements.

111. What percentage of seniors would say that their health is excellent? a. 10 b. 44 c. 64 d. 88 112. Which statement best reflects research findings on the effects of religion in later adulthood? a. Religion is associated with greater life satisfaction. b. Life satisfaction and mental health are unrelated to religion. c. Most people are not interested in religion when they are older. d. Those who are most fervently religious are less likely to be depressed than those who are not fervently religious.

113. Which statement best reflects marital satisfaction in late adulthood? a. It is unrelated to the personality characteristics of the marriage partners. b. It is rare because most partners are bored with each other by this time. c. It is higher when the couple has an equal division of labour and power. d. It is higher if couples have established separate identities so they can spend both time apart and time together.

114. According to the research on people aged 70 and older, which statement best describes successful agers? a. They are rare. b. They are happy to relinquish control over their lives. c. They form emotional goals that bring them satisfaction. d. They choose to continue to compete with younger people.

115. Which statement best represents the data reported in a survey of older gay, lesbian, and bisexual adults? a. Overall, they struggled with society acceptance and their level of happiness decreased. b. Their mental health is negatively affected, leading to an increase in suicidal thoughts. c. In terms of social supports LGBTQ seniors have fewer than their heterosexual counterparts. d. Older gay individuals tend to become more isolated from mainstream society as they age.

116. Which statement best represents the findings of research on depression in older adults? a. Depression affects a majority of older adults. b. Depression may be related to structural changes in the brain. c. Depression is rarely associated with other physical or mental disorders in later adulthood. d. Depression is related to older adults’ unfinished and regrettable moments from their youth.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 117. Which of the following best characterizes the work-role preoccupation? a. an important part of experiencing a satisfying retirement b. a requirement for body transcendence c. defining oneself in relation to the job held prior to retirement d. an inability to accept impending retirement which contributes to despair 118. According to Butler (2002), which statement best describes reminiscence? a. It is a sign of dementia. b. It is a negative reaction to aging. c. It is a way to make life meaningful. d. It is uniform in its quality among different individuals.

119. According to Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development, what is the challenge of the crisis of ego integrity? a. to fight death and cling to life b. to deny that death is imminent c. to maintain the belief that life has meaning d. to understand that one’s own life is unique within the sweep of history 120. Which statement best characterizes successful retirement? a. It requires mandatory retirement ages. b. It involves financial security. c. In today’s society it rarely occurs. d. In heterosexual marriages, women take the lead in planning.

121. Which statement best describes the majority of older adults whose loved ones have died? a. They are usually depressed. b. They rarely find pleasure in life afterwards. c. They may be saddened but are often not depressed. d. They cannot bounce back to a normal state.

122. Which of the following best represents ego transcendence in the older adult? a. a lower reported self-esteem because older adults are more realistic about themselves b. a lower reported self-esteem because older adults feel bad about themselves generally c. a higher reported self-esteem because older adults want to make sure their remaining years are happy d. a higher reported self-esteem because older adults are happier with themselves than at any other time in life 123. Which statement best characterizes the marital status of older adults? a. They often undertake divorce lightly. b. They are more likely to divorce than younger adults. c. They are less likely to cohabit today than in previous times. d. They are less likely than younger adults to want to remarry.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 124. Which statement best describes the social relationships of those in late adulthood? a. They typically keep to themselves. b. They often form networks to keep active. c. They have more conflict with friends than earlier. d. They have wider social networks than when they were younger.

125. Which statement best characterizes older adult gay men and lesbians? a. They rarely have long-term relationships. b. They have higher rates of depression than their heterosexual counterparts. c. They have higher rates of alcohol and drug abuse than their heterosexual counterparts. d. They have higher self-esteem if they are in long-term relationships compared with those who are not in long-term relationships.

126. Which of the following factors influences “body esteem”? a. gender b. marital status c. employment status d. living arrangements 127. How do older adults who never had children compare with their peers who had children? a. They are far less happy. b. They are less involved in community work. c. They are less likely to enter nursing homes. d. They are often more dependent on their spouses.

128. Which statement best represents leisure activities during retirement? a. They should be discouraged in older adults. b. They are unrelated to depression and happiness. c. They are not needed for retired adults, who mostly need to rest. d. They are related to physical and mental health during retirement.

129. Which of the following best characterizes twins in late adulthood? a. They usually would have lost touch with each other if they had established families and children of their own. b. They are less close than non-twin siblings at this time. c. They have more frequent contacts and greater emotional closeness than when they were in middle adulthood. d. They experience little difference in their emotional bonds compared to other nurtured loving sibling relationships.

130. Which statement best characterizes those who are successful agers? a. They limit activities and overstimulation. b. They focus on just getting out of bed each day. c. They form realistic emotional goals. d. They resist attempts to reshape their life.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 131. Robins and colleagues (2002) conducted a massive study of self-esteem. Which of the following statements best represents their findings? a. Females have higher self-esteem than males. b. Self-esteem is highest in late adulthood. c. Older adults are very unsatisfied with themselves. d. Self-esteem declined most significantly between the age of 70 and 85.

132. Which statement best characterizes a move to a residence for the elderly? a. It has no benefits for older adults. b. It is always considered negatively. c. It is typically required after age 85. d. It can be disruptive to one’s social networks.

133. When do most retirees indicate feeling a reduction in stress? a. immediately upon retiring b. six months after retiring c. one year after retiring d. five years after retiring 134. According to the last stage of Erikson’s psychosocial theory, what is needed to achieve ego integrity? a. ignoring the approach of death b. developing a new life plan c. learning to let go of things one has accumulated d. accepting the physically declining changes of one’s aging body 135. Which of the following best defines body transcendence? a. a negative reaction to getting older b. the decline in physical abilities that comes with age c. going beyond one’s lifespan into the next generation d. a positive reaction to the body’s changes as a result of age or illness 136. Since her spouse died, Ann becomes extremely anxious when she must leave her home for any reason. What might Ann be dealing with? a. chronic anxiety b. depression c. panic disorder d. agoraphobia 137. Why would an older adult be most likely move into a long-term care facility? a. They are tired of cutting the grass. b. The market is good for selling their home. c. It is located in a busy neighbourhood. d. They have poor health.

138. Which statement best characterizes life reviews? a. They are generally simple. b. They generally require complex tasks. c. They are a sign of mental illness. d. They vary significantly from person to person.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 139. Self-sufficiency, or being able to care for oneself, is vital to successful aging. Which inability was found to be a particularly sensitive issue? a. the inability to bathe oneself b. the inability to feed oneself c. the inability to toilet oneself d. the inability to take care of one’s financial decisions 140. Which statement best describes friendships during late adulthood? a. They are unrelated to physical health. b. They are easily made when people move. c. They help provide emotional support. d. They are more superficial than when people were younger.

141. Which statement best characterizes men who are widowed compared with women who are widowed? a. Widowed men are more likely to remarry. b. Widowed men are less likely to be depressed. c. Widowed men are more likely to make use of social networks. d. Widowed men are more adept at aspects of self and household care.

142. Which activities are included in Hansen and colleagues’ “social” factor? a. Bridge or card-game clubs b. team sports c. partying d. time with family 143. Which of the following statements best characterizes “body esteem” in late adulthood? a. In the context of a person’s entire life, it becomes less important during late adulthood. b. In the context of a person’s entire life, it becomes more important during late adulthood. c. Older men seldom experience body issues, and their interests in sexual activity rarely changes. d. Older women with body issues tend to withdraw from sexual activity more so than men.

144. Which statement best characterizes activity theory? a. It is unsupported by research data. b. It is less accurate in its portrayal of older adults than disengagement theory. c. People are better adjusted when they are engaged in life’s activities. d. It pertains only to older female adults who did not previously work outside the home.

145. Which statement best characterizes depression in older adults? a. It affects 10% of older adults b. It affects 50% of older adults. c. It is unrelated to personality factors. d. It is biologically determined in older adults.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 146. Which statement best characterizes older adults who wish to stay in their own homes longer? a. They enjoy the labour involved in home ownership. b. They perceive their health to be poor. c. They want to build equity in their homes. d. They fear losing independence and social connections.

147. In Indigenous culture, which of the following best describes the concept of “Elders”? a. the gatekeepers of wisdom, knowledge, and history b. the gatekeepers of Indigenous spirit and vitality c. the gatekeepers of the “after life” d. the “soul” of life’s lessons 148. Which of the following is one of the most common anxiety disorders for older adults? a. depression b. generalized anxiety disorder c. seasonal affective disorder d. agoraphobia 149. Which statement best represents the conclusion of research on disengagement theory? a. One should stick by one’s life’s goals throughout late adulthood. b. Older adults who withdraw from society experience improved well-being. c. As a standard part of aging, people lose their connections with friends and family. d. The roles of older adults may change, but do not require withdrawal from society.

150. Which of the following best characterizes the treatment of depression in older adults? a. It is not possible. b. It may prevent suicide. c. It is less effective in men than women. d. It requires different methods from the treatment for younger people.

151. In which of the following situations is elder abuse occurring? a. A senior is wishing to move but his children are slow to make this happen. b. A senior’s son is using his father’s money to pay his own mortgage without his father’s consent. c. A senior has been prescribed sleeping pills. d. A senior cannot access snacks between meals without asking for help to do so.

152. Your 90-year-old grandmother is aging with the attitude that every day is a gift and there is still so much life to experience. How would Erikson characterize her view? a. She is experiencing generativity. b. She has body transcendence. c. She has ego integrity. d. She is experiencing identity confirmation.

153. Which statement best represents the findings of a British study of leisure activities in older adults? a. Passive leisure was rarely welcome. b. Vigorous activities were the most pleasurable. c. Social activities were the most common activity. d. Most adults surveyed were involved in leisure activity.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 154. Which statement best represents the findings of research on personality characteristics and marriage in later adulthood? a. In later adulthood, marriages have more conflict than earlier. b. It is preferable for both partners to have different personality characteristics. c. Similarities between conscientiousness and extraversion predict marital satisfaction. d. Differences between conscientiousness and extraversion predict marital satisfaction.

155. Which developmental task identified by Peck (1968) refers to redefining one’s identity after retirement? a. ego differentiation b. ego preoccupation c. ego transcendence d. body transcendence 156. Why is the retirement age likely to continue to increase over time? a. insufficient retirement planning opportunities b. increased job satisfaction c. insufficient income d. medical advances 157. Which of the following best characterizes the role of siblings during late adulthood? a. They play little role of importance in the lives of each other. b. They expand their relationships following the death of a spouse. c. They are less involved with each other after the death of a spouse. d. They rarely take the place of a spouse in the widowed person’s life.

158. Which statement best describes single, never-married, non-cohabiting older adults? a. They are usually lonely and depressed. b. They comprise 30% of the population of older adults. c. They are less socially involved than their peers who had children. d. They tend to maintain close relationships with friends and siblings.

159. Which statement best characterizes widows and widowers? a. Social isolation is less problematic than it is for their divorced peers. b. They often experience improved mental health as single people. c. Men are more likely to remarry than women. d. Women are more emotionally affected than men.

160. Which statement best reflects the volunteering spirit of Canadians in 2010? a. Canadians volunteered about 1 million hours in total, mostly by older adults aged 65 and older. b. Those in the youngest age group (aged 15–24) volunteered, on average, 43 hours per year. c. Approximately 50 percent of Canadians volunteered about an average of 156 hours per year. d. Canadians volunteered about 2 million hours in total, mostly by the youngest age group, aged 15–24.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 161. Which statement best characterizes retirement? a. It is usually welcomed by today’s older adults. b. It is required at age 65. c. It may be changing as people live longer. d. It is more positive if a part-time job is part of the planning.

162. Which statement best represents the housing needs of older adults? a. They prefer to stay in their own home for as long as they are able. b. In most cases, they require nursing home care after they turn 65. c. They typically want to move into retirement communities as soon as they are able. d. After retirement, they should rethink remaining in their own homes because of the potential of declining physical abilities.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce a. ego integrity vs. despair b. independence c. depression d. reminiscence e. activity theory f. ego differentiation g. agoraphobia h. self-esteem i. dependence on others j. ageism k. body transcendence l. disengagement theory m. Indigenous elders are considered n. socioemotional selectivity theory o. ego transcendence 163. Focus on generations beyond oneself and one’s legacy 164. Thinking about one’s past in order to make sense of one’s life 165. Discrimination based on how old one is 166. The heart of the community 167. Ability to identify one’s self beyond one’s work role 168. Older adults are more likely than younger adults to focus on emotions 169. Older adults need to withdraw from society and be withdrawn from 170. When this is the state of older adults, they may get depressed or ill.

171. Drops in later adulthood, possibly because of acceptance of one’s flaws 172. Fear of leaving one’s house 173. Stage of Erikson’s theory during late adulthood 174. Beyond sadness or bereavement 175. Older adults find this state to be normal part of aging 176. Older adults are better adjusted when they are more involved in society 177. Focus beyond physical limitations 178. Why is depression a particular problem during late adulthood?

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 179. How is reminiscence or life review important during late adulthood?

180. What are anxiety disorders and how do they affect older adults?

181. How do disengagement theory and activity theory differ in their explanations of successful aging? Does research support either view? Explain your answer.

182. How does self-esteem change during adulthood? Why might it be lower during late adulthood compared with earlier in life?

183. What role does religion play in the lives of many older adults?

184. Are retirement communities a good alternative to living in one’s own home?

185. How do older adults prepare for a successful retirement?

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 186. How are older adults affected by being widowed?

187. How do older adults ensure successful aging through the process of selective optimization with compensation?

188. How is the concept of body transcendence important for late adulthood, according to Peck (1968)?

189. How does one successfully navigate the conflict in late adulthood, according to Erikson’s psychosocial theory of development?

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. False 4. True 5. False 6. True 7. True 8. True 9. False 10. False 11. True 12. True 13. False 14. True 15. False 16. True 17. False 18. True 19. True 20. True 21. False 22. True 23. True 24. False 25. True 26. True

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 27. True 28. False 29. True 30. True 31. False 32. False 33. True 34. False 35. False 36. False 37. True 38. True 39. False 40. True 41. True 42. True 43. True 44. False 45. False 46. True 47. False 48. False 49. False 50. True 51. True 52. True 53. True 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 55. False 56. True 57. True 58. False 59. True 60. False 61. True 62. b 63. b 64. a 65. c 66. d 67. b 68. b 69. a 70. d 71. c 72. b 73. a 74. b 75. a 76. b 77. d 78. d 79. a 80. b 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 83. b 84. b 85. b 86. c 87. b 88. d 89. d 90. d 91. a 92. a 93. a 94. d 95. d 96. c 97. d 98. b 99. d 100. b 101. c 102. b 103. c 104. b 105. b 106. b 107. d 108. a 109. d 110. b Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 111. b 112. a 113. c 114. c 115. c 116. b 117. c 118. c 119. c 120. b 121. c 122. a 123. d 124. b 125. d 126. a 127. d 128. d 129. c 130. c 131. d 132. d 133. c 134. d 135. d 136. d 137. d

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 138. d 139. c 140. c 141. a 142. c 143. a 144. c 145. a 146. d 147. a 148. b 149. d 150. b 151. b 152. c 153. d 154. c 155. a 156. d 157. b 158. d 159. c 160. c 161. c 162. a 163. o 164. d 165. j Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 166. m 167. f 168. n 169. l 170. i 171. h 172. g 173. a 174. c 175. b 176. e 177. k 178. Depression is a severe negative emotional state that is linked to mental and physical problems. It has been associated with chronic illnesses, such as Alzheimer’s disease and cancer. Depression has also been associated with negative life events, such as the death of a spouse and retirement for those who did not retire voluntarily or were not prepared psychologically or financially for retirement.

Depression is a particular problem during late adulthood, not because it is more severe or associated with greater risk for suicide or illness, but because it is less likely to be diagnosed and treated during older adulthood compared with other times in life.

179. Rather than reminiscence (recall) being a sign of mental illness or just an annoying habit of older adults, reminiscence and life review (evaluation) play important roles for older adults in identifying the meaning of their lives and generating a sense of value regarding what they have done throughout their lives. Life review also helps older adults to accept the end of life and to create new relationships as old relationships pass.

180. Approximately 3% of older adults report experiencing anxiety disorders, including generalized anxiety disorders, phobic disorders, and panic disorders. Panic disorders are not frequently found in older adults. Most cases of agoraphobia affecting older adults tend to be of recent origin and may involve the loss of social support systems due to the death of a spouse or close friends. Generalized anxiety disorder may arise from the perception that one lacks control over one’s life, which may be the case for older people contending with infirmity, loss of friends and loved ones, and reduced economic opportunities. In addition to the distress of the individuals experiencing these disorders, additional problems are experienced because chronic stress is associated with suppressed immune responses and, hence, increased risk of illness. Depression is also not uncommon among those who suffer from anxiety disorders.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 181. Disengagement theory posits that successful aging occurs as a result of older adults’ withdrawal from society and the mutual withdrawal of society from the lives of older adults. Thus, older adults shed roles in society that they once held, such as in their careers, while society expects less from older adults. Activity theory, on the other hand, suggests that successful aging entails changing roles for older adults and maintaining a level of activity and alertness.

Research supports activity theory because those who are less involved in meaningful activity are more likely to be depressed, become ill, and die. Those who maintain high levels of activity report higher levels of satisfaction and well-being.

182. Self-esteem has been shown to be highest during childhood, when it is most likely to be least accurate. Self-esteem drops in adolescence and then rises again in early and middle adulthood. During late adulthood, it drops again. This result may be due to wisdom, which helps older adults to realize who they are and how they are flawed. Older adults may be more comfortable with who they are and do not need to inflate their sense of self. It is also possible that selfesteem drops in late adulthood because of negative life events, such as illness and the death of loved ones. It is important to note, however, that the level of self-esteem in older adulthood is still above-average compared with other times in one’s life.

183. Much of the world’s population identifies itself with a particular religion. Those who are moderately active in a religion report lower levels of depression, higher levels of active engagement in community affairs, and spiritual guidance and assistance in examining life and death issues. A study of older African American adults’ church attendance showed that those who attended church regularly were less likely to abuse alcohol or other substances, less likely to be victims of crimes, more likely to be hopeful, and more likely to receive more social support.

184. Although most older adults report that they would prefer to live in their own home, some may decide to move to a retirement community for numerous reasons. First, the community that the older adults lived in may not have the amenities to allow them to continue to live their lives with ease, such as convenient public transportation, closeness to shopping, social networks, and the like. Second, some adults may have a need for additional assistance and be afraid to live at home. Many retirement communities provide different levels of assistance to the residents so they can continue living with as much independence as possible.

185. One of the keys of a successful retirement is retirement planning. Retirement planning may include regularly putting money aside in plans such as a Registered Retirement Savings Plan (RRSP) and various pension plans in the workplace or investing in stocks, bonds, or a second home. It also includes a different form of planning; investigating recreational activities available in other geographic areas of interest.

People who are thinking about moving or extended travelling will also be interested in learning about the weather (including effects on allergies) and crime statistics.

Different strategies can also help, depending on whether the senior lives alone or is in a couple’s relationships— including married heterosexuals, cohabiting heterosexuals, married same-sex couples, and cohabiting same-sex couples. Those who are in a couple’s relationship they usually make their retirement plans collaboratively. The greater the satisfaction in the relationship, the more likely the partners are to make their retirement plans together.

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Chap_18_HDEV_4ce 186. Losing a long-term partner creates a stressful and distressing situation for most people. Men in their 70s seem to have the most difficulty coping, especially when they have retired and were expecting to spend more time with their wives during the coming years. Following the partner’s death, the surviving spouse needs to remain both active in daily living activities and connected to the community. Men are less likely to be the sources of social contact, for which they may suffer. Additionally, men may be less able than women to manage their own appearance and household chores. Widowhood leads to a decline in physical and mental health, including increased mortality and deterioration in memory functioning. Loss of a spouse also heightens the risks of depression and suicide among older adults, more so among men than women.

187. Successful aging over the lifespan involves setting goals (selection), increasing gains (optimization), and avoiding losses (compensation). The older adult who can concentrate on what is meaningful rather than focus on physical decline or cognitive impairment is more likely to report successful aging. Those who age successfully remove themselves from competitive pursuits and move toward activities which will ensure a sense of control. They also maintain an optimistic viewpoint, and this may be enhanced through finding the right social contacts and activities to become involved with.

188. After spending much of one’s life trying to conform to society’s demands for a certain body type and possibly learning to live with illness or infirmity, body transcendence refers to older adults learning to accept their bodies for what they are. Older adults may also place more value on cognitive and social skills.

189. The conflict during late adulthood, according to Erikson, is ego integrity vs. despair. The way to navigate this conflict successfully is to develop a sense of the meaningfulness of life. Those who successfully navigated the conflicts during early and middle adulthood are also more likely to manage well in this stage. Individuals who do well in late adulthood accept the inevitability of death with grace and adjust to the idea of letting go of life and objects accumulated.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce Indicate whether the statement is true or false.

1. Bereavement and grief are emotional experiences following the death of a loved one. a. True b. False 2. Funeral arrangements can only be made in advance of one’s death. a. True b. False 3. Lawyers are useful to consult after the death of a loved one. a. True b. False 4. The Canadian Supreme Court ruled that physician-assisted suicide is constitutional. a. True b. False 5. More people die in nursing homes than in hospitals today in Canada. a. True b. False 6. Many dying people experience the meaning of life in a deeper and more personal way than they had before. a. True b. False 7. The Canadian Medical Association has identified four types of euthanasia. a. True b. False 8. The majority of Canadians do not support medically assisted dying. a. True b. False 9. Hospice workers typically work in teams of physicians, nurses, social workers, mental health or pastoral counsellors, and home care aides. a. True b. False 10. Hospice workers work only with dying patients; the care of the bereaved families is left to other professionals. a. True b. False 11. Children may experience guilt and mistakenly believe they are responsible for the death of a loved one. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 12. Absence of a heartbeat means a person is dead. a. True b. False 13. Shneidman (1977) explained that people typically change their personalities radically after they are diagnosed with a terminal illness. a. True b. False 14. Whole-brain death is the way that death is defined most often in hospitals today. a. True b. False 15. Adolescents have an adult-level understanding of death. a. True b. False 16. Hospice care ends with the death of the dying person. a. True b. False 17. Adolescents who experience death of a loved one may still feel invulnerable to death. a. True b. False 18. Hospice care can be provided only at home. a. True b. False 19. Funerals are the same regardless of one’s culture. a. True b. False 20. The BC court ruled that it was unconstitutional to deny Gloria Taylor the right to a doctor-assisted dying if she could find a physician prepared to perform it. a. True b. False 21. Blogging has become a common method of communication for the very ill. a. True b. False

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 22. The key factors that appear to affect the adjustment of the dying individual include the type and extent of organic cerebral impairment, pain and weakness, the time or phase of the person’s life, the person’s philosophy of life (and death), and prior experiences with crises. a. True b. False 23. The “death education” movement states that hospital staff and family members can help support dying people by understanding the stages they are going through. a. True b. False 24. It is normal for children to fear death. a. True b. False 25. Family members may fight about the arrangements of a loved one’s funeral. a. True b. False 26. Voluntary euthanasia remains illegal throughout most of North America. a. True b. False 27. Kübler-Ross’s (1969) stages of dying apply equally to all who are dying. a. True b. False 28. Young adults typically spend a lot of time dwelling on their own impending deaths. a. True b. False 29. People who want to help others cope with the death of a loved one should be concerned that they may say the wrong thing. a. True b. False 30. Living wills are legal documents that designate where one’s earthly possessions will be placed after death. a. True b. False 31. Withholding a life-saving medical procedure is illegal in Canada. a. True b. False

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 32. Children are likely to understand that death is permanent. a. True b. False 33. Hospice care involves teams of health care professionals. a. True b. False 34. Terminal sedation is the practice of relieving distress in a terminally ill patient in the last hours or days of his or her life, usually by means of a continuous intravenous infusion of a sedative drug, such as a tranquilizer. a. True b. False 35. Grief usually involves a combination of emotions. a. True b. False 36. Removing life support from a comatose patient is an example of involuntary euthanasia. a. True b. False 37. Older adults are typically afraid of death. a. True b. False 38. Death is both a biological and a legal matter. a. True b. False 39. Most people in Canada today die at home. a. True b. False 40. Hospice care is more expensive than most people can afford and is rarely covered by insurance. a. True b. False 41. People around the world mourn the death of a loved one in a similar manner. a. True b. False 42. Fewer than 25% of Canadians said they were in favour of legalizing medically assisted suicide. a. True b. False

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 43. Assisted suicide occurs when physicians provide the means for a patient’s death. a. True b. False 44. Middle-aged adults are oblivious to the presence of death. a. True b. False 45. When someone is dying, it is better to avoid having them talk about death and other negative topics. a. True b. False 46. Euthanasia means “good death.” a. True b. False 47. Bowby (1961) identified four stages of grief: shock-numbness, yearning-searching, disorganization-despair, and reorganization. a. True b. False 48. Living wills must be drafted in accordance with federal laws. a. True b. False 49. Palliative care involves treating and curing diseases. a. True b. False 50. Most health professionals support physician-assisted dying. a. True b. False 51. When the brain stem and cerebral cortex show flat EEG lines, the person is considered to have had “wholebrain death.” a. True b. False 52. When a terminally ill person believes that a wrong diagnosis was made, this person is exhibiting the denial stage of Kübler-Ross (1969). a. True b. False 53. Terminal sedation is a method typically used to hasten death. a. True b. False Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 54. Euthanasia involves intent. a. True b. False 55. Death is commonly defined as the cessation of life. a. True b. False 56. The stages of death according to Kübler-Ross (1969) are denial, absence, bargaining, depression, and acceptance. a. True b. False 57. North American culture tends to accept death as a part of life. a. True b. False 58. Living wills typically name someone who can make medical decisions for a person who is incapable of doing so for herself or himself. a. True b. False Indicate the answer choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

59. Which statement best characterizes organ donation? a. Organ donation is rare these days. b. Organ donation can compromise the donor’s immune system. c. Living donors can sometimes donate a kidney or a portion of their liver for transplant. d. Organ donation poses minimal risks for the recipient who may receive one or more organs from donors.

60. Which of the following best characterizes funeral arrangements? a. They are similar across many cultures. b. They are the same for people of many religions. c. They help provide closure to the grieving family. d. They provide intensely personal moments.

61. According to the text, which statement best characterizes the understanding of death held by many preschoolers? a. They see it as something that happens to others but not to themselves. b. They believe it is normal process. c. They usually do whatever is required to avoid it. d. They may think it is reversible like on television cartoons.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 62. Which statement best describes voluntary euthanasia? a. It is legal in all provinces except Ontario. b. The courts have ruled the patient may end his or her life by any means. c. A patient must be competent and ask to have their life ended. d. A patient refuses to accept assistance with dying.

63. Your friend is thinking of signing a donor card so that their tissues and organs can help save the lives of others but they are not sure it’s really worth it. What is your response? a. Your friend is correct to some extent in that one donor can only donate one organ. b. Organ donation can save up to 8 lives and tissue donation can help an additional 75. c. Most organ donors are able to donate 5 organs with the benefits shared among 50 people. d. Organ donation can save up to 100 lives.

64. According to the textbook, what percentage of Canadians who die will have access to or will receive hospice services? a. 5 to 15 b. 16 to 30 c. 31 to 45 d. 46 to 60 65. What should be avoided when supporting a dying person? a. touching the person too much b. talking about your own problems c. talking about the impending death d. minimizing the person’s pain or need to grieve 66. Mary was diagnosed with a terminal illness three months ago. She has prayed, asking God to be spared in exchange for her attending church and helping those in need. According to Kübler-Ross (1969), which stage of dying was Mary demonstrating? a. anger b. denial c. bargaining d. acceptance 67. Why might a proxy not honour the wishes outlined in a living will? a. The proxy does not understand the terms outlined in the document. b. The proxy is over-ruled by doctors who prefer to perform life-saving measures at all costs. c. The proxy waits too long to make decisions and then it is usually too late. d. The proxy finds the emotional burden of removing life support too difficult.

68. Which of the following best represents the occurrence of whole-brain death? a. It occurs when the cerebral cortex has no EEG reading. b. It may involve lower brain activity, but no cortical activity. c. It causes breathing and the heartbeat to stop without additional artificial support. d. It occurs when there is no electrical activity in the brain.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 69. Elizabeth was diagnosed with terminal cancer and told she has three months to live. She has moved back to her home from the hospital. She has a doctor, nurses, a social worker, and a minister visiting her on a regular basis.

From whom is Elizabeth most likely receiving care? a. hospital workers who are taking pity on her b. family members c. hospice workers d. in-home nursing staff 70. Which of the following describes Sue Rodriquez? a. She was the first female doctor to agree to be involved in assisted suicide. b. She was a Canadian woman with an acquired brain injury. c. She argued that doctors should reserve the right to encourage all patients to live. d. She battled ALS and argued for the “right to die” through physician assisted death in Canada.

71. Which statement best represents the definition of death? a. It is uncontroversial. b. It is unrelated to how we view life. c. It is irreversible. d. It relates to the beliefs one holds about life.

72. Which of the following is typical of bereavement specialists working for a hospice? a. They work in teams. b. They try to counsel the dying person to allow active euthanasia. c. They take control over the situation because the dying person is incapacitated and can NO longer communicate. d. They help family members contact lawyers and accountants.

73. Which statement best characterizes the use of healthcare directives? a. They are the same as living wills. b. They are always followed by physicians and other healthcare workers. c. They are rarely legal in Canada. d. They rarely outline the type of death a person wishes to experience.

74. Which statement best characterizes the costs of funerals? a. They are often very expensive. b. Their costs are reasonable because cemeteries are nonprofit organizations. c. Their costs generally include maintenance fees for the burial plot. d. Their costs are considered a tax-deductible expense in Canada.

75. What percentage of Canadians report that they would prefer to die at home? a. 35 b. 50 c. 75 d. 90

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 76. Where do most people die in Canada today? a. in a hospital b. at home in bed c. in a nursing home d. at home, but not in bed 77. What is involuntary euthanasia? a. an assisted death where the person has not expressed his or her preference b. an assisted death where the subject is competent, informed, and, without being pressured, asks to have his or her life ended c. an assisted death where the person made an informed choice and expressed his or her refusal to accept assistance in dying d. an assisted death where a comatose patient has life support removed without prior consent 78. Which statement best characterizes children and their understanding of death? a. Children should not be told they are dying. b. Children understand death in the same way as adults do. c. Children understand death more as their understanding of biology increases. d. Children typically understand that when they are terminally ill they will be gone for good.

79. How do many First Nations, Métis, and Inuit peoples approach death? a. They approach it privately and without fanfare. b. They may organize community ceremonies and feasts. c. They do not acknowledge death. d. They struggle to carry forward with losses that impact families and communities.

80. What is the focus of hospices? a. extending life b. controlling pain c. curing the patient d. the course and treatment of the disease 81. Which of the following can be a characteristic of grief? a. a feeling of revenge b. a disregard for one’s own mortality c. a compromised well-being d. a desire to follow one’s regular routine 82. What is the origin of the term “hospice”? a. It derives from the term “hospitality”. b. It means the same as hospital. c. It relates to the Latin for death. d. It derives from the Greek medical term for “healing”.

83. Liz was in a car accident. She was taken to the hospital, where her cerebral cortex showed a flat EEG line.

What did the doctor declare? a. Liz had whole-brain death. b. Liz was in a coma. c. Liz had brain death. d. Liz can be resuscitated.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 84. A few weeks after Wayne received a diagnosis of terminal cancer, he began breaking things in his office and raging at fate. According to Kübler-Ross (1969), which stage of dying was Wayne demonstrating? a. anger b. denial c. bargaining d. depression 85. Which statement best describes “Dying with Dignity?” a. Dying follows the patient’s guidelines and wishes. b. It is the same as euthanasia. c. It means that family members will not see the patient suffer. d. It means “an end to a good life.”

86. Anastasia’s father died when he was 90 years old. Which of the following will best help Anastasia? a. having her talk about him even if she doesn’t want to b. telling her that he was old and had lived a long, happy life c. offering to help her with errands or to just sit and listen to her reminisce d. telling her not to worry about it, she needs to get on with life 87. Peter was hospitalized for a week with a severe case of pneumonia. As he was surrounded by his loved ones, he lovingly said his goodbyes. According to Kübler-Ross (1969), which stage of dying is Peter demonstrating? a. denial b. bargaining c. depression d. acceptance 88. Mark was riding his bike to work when he was hit by a truck. After an EEG was conducted at the hospital, the doctor declared that Mark had experienced death of his brain stem. What does this mean? a. Mark had whole-brain death. b. Mark was in a coma. c. Mark had brain death. d. Mark could be resuscitated.

89. What is the focus of palliative care? a. cures b. older adults c. life extension d. pain management 90. A very loved and valued member of your family has suddenly died without notice. Which statement is characteristic of bereavement? a. It differs from grief. b. It is more traumatic than mourning. c. It is an emotional state of longing and deprivation following the death of a loved one. d. It is less traumatic for older individuals.

91. Which statement best describes grief? a. It rarely ever ends. c. It is a public display of bereavement.

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b. It is a sense of loss and sadness. d. It lasts for six months.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 92. After hearing about her friend’s death in a car accident, Lily continued to phone and email her friend. According to Kübler-Ross, Lily’s behaviour is an example of which stage? a. anger b. denial c. bargaining d. depression 93. Which statement best describes terminal sedation? a. It is the same as active euthanasia. b. It is used to reduce pain or anxiety in a dying patient. c. It is a way to hasten death. d. It is illegal in Canada.

94. Which statement best represents the current “death education”? a. Kübler-Ross was wrong about the stages of dying. b. Kübler-Ross encouraged people to fight death to the end. c. People should be helped through the stages of death identified by Kübler-Ross. d. Kübler-Ross’s stages are limited to cases where people die suddenly.

95. Which British Columbian with ALS won a legal fight to obtain doctor-assisted suicide in Canada? a. Sue Rodriquez b. Gloria Taylor c. Robert Latimer d. Nancy B. 96. Which of the following persons is likely to work with a dying patient through hospice care? a. a massage therapist b. a psychotherapist c. a bereavement specialist d. a physiotherapist 97. Which statement best represents children’s understanding of death? a. It increases as they get older. b. It is unrelated to their knowledge of biology. c. It becomes progressively less realistic as they get older. d. It depends on their ability to empathize.

98. Which statement best represents the conceptualizations of adolescents about death? a. They are much more grounded in science that children and older adults. b. They understand it is permanent but may still entertain ideas about how one’s spirit may survive. c. They do not appreciate the permanence of death until they are almost in adulthood. d. Adolescents become less afraid of death when faced with it in their personal lives.

99. What is voluntary euthanasia? a. an assisted death where the person has not expressed his or her preference b. an assisted death where the subject is competent, informed, and, without being pressured, asks to have his or her life ended c. an assisted death where the person made an informed choice and expressed his or her refusal to accept assistance in dying d. an assisted death where a comatose patient has life support removed without prior consent Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 100. Which of the following is most important to consider when making funeral arrangements? a. whether the funeral services will fit the budget b. whether the deceased will like the casket c. how people will react to the family’s decisions about the funeral d. what time of day to hold the service 101. Which scenario best represents assisted dying in Canada? a. Mary’s doctor prescribed drugs for Mary to kill herself after she was diagnosed with a terminal illness. b. Stan’s sister took him to hospice to set up services to help him find comfort for his last days alive. c. Tim was terminally ill and his wife secretly poisoned him so that he would no longer suffer. d. Janet’s doctor sedated her for her last few hours of life so that she would no longer worry.

102. Which of the following was shown by a survey of Canadians about their views on medically assisted dying? a. More than 80% supported it. b. Most did not support it. c. Most supported the idea but objected to withdrawing life support. d. Women were more supportive of the concept than men..

103. Which type of definition refers to death as the moment that breathing, circulation, or brain activity stops? a. a biological definition b. a legal definition c. a sociological definition d. an emotional definition 104. Which statement best describes adolescents’ experience with the death of loved ones? a. They experience the death of a loved one the same as adults do. b. They experience the death of a loved one the same as children do. c. They typically experience the deaths of loved ones more often than younger children do. d. They should be shielded from the death of a loved one because they cannot handle the truth.

105. Kübler-Ross’s (1969) stages of dying apply best to which of the following people? a. older adults b. those with no diagnosis c. people with a terminal illness diagnosis d. those undergoing experimental surgery 106. What is the purpose of an autopsy? a. to determine the cause of death b. to determine whether death has occurred c. to fulfill a legal requirement when someone dies at home d. to prepare the body so a death certificate can be issued 107. Marilyn’s husband died suddenly after a short illness. Her friends have lots of advice for her. Which piece of advice should Marilyn listen to? a. This too will pass. b. Avoid medications. c. Join a bereavement group. d. Move on to the next stage.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 108. Which statement best describes the cost of hospice care? a. It is too expensive for most patients to afford. b. It is more costly than in-home care. c. It is rarely covered by insurance. d. It is less expensive than hospital care.

109. Shneidman (1977) conducted research on dying people. Which of the following statements best represents his findings? a. Everyone responded the same way to dying. b. Kübler-Ross’s stages applied perfectly to their situations. c. People often react to dying as they reacted to other events in their lives. d. People react to dying in clear stages, but differently from the reactions identified by Kübler-Ross.

110. Which statement best represents the risk of death for adults in midlife? a. They are typically told not to worry about health screenings because chronic illnesses rarely affect them. b. Accidents and suicide are the leading causes of death for their age group. c. Heart disease and cancer are the leading causes of death for their age group. d. Early adult death usually results from homicide.

111. Which statement best represents the critiques of Kübler-Ross’s (1969) stages of dying? a. The stages of dying apply only to older adults. b. People should be moved quickly through the stages of dying. c. Most people die from terminal illnesses, which are not applicable to the stages. d. The stages may apply only to people who are diagnosed with terminal illness.

112. What percentage of health professionals are in favour of assisted dying? a. 35 b. 50 c. 70 d. 85 113. What does the word “euthanasia” mean? a. good care b. the good life c. good death d. pain management 114. Which term has been used to describe the experience of LGBTQ people whose partners have died? a. marginalized loss b. partner loss c. disenfranchised grief d. empty grief 115. Who did Elisabeth Kübler-Ross study in order to create her analysis of the stages of death? a. terminally ill patients b. accident victims c. heart attack patients d. liver disease patients 116. After a child has experienced the death of someone close to them, which behaviour is a sign they may need help? a. crying b. excessive fears c. asking where the loved one has gone d. asking questions about an afterlife Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 117. Which of the following is one of the three types of euthanasia identified by the Canadian Medical Association? a. non-voluntary euthanasia b. voluntary-status euthanasia c. slow voluntary euthanasia d. voluntary-active euthanasia 118. According to the textbook, what are many children across world cultures taught about death? a. Death is punishment for bad deeds. b. Death is something to fear. c. Death is the same as sleeping. d. Death is sometimes not permanent.

119. Which of the following best describes death? a. It is the end of life. b. It is a part of life. c. It is a stage. d. It is the most meaningful part of life.

120. What has been shown by the research on grief? a. Few people experience yearning. b. Disbelief and anger tend to subside over time and acceptance increases. c. There are no trends in how people experience it. d. Following a loved one’s death, disbelief tends to last the longest of all of the emotions.

121. Which statement best characterizes euthanasia? a. It is illegal throughout the world. b. It is also known as mercy killing. c. It always involves removing life support. d. It occurs when someone kills another person against his or her will.

122. Which statement best describes brain death? a. It is the same as when the heart stops. b. It cannot be measured using existing methods. c. It is often used as the criterion for defining death. d. It occurs when minimal electrical activity occurs in the cerebral cortex.

123. Which of the following generally occurs only when someone dies unexpectedly? a. An autopsy is performed. b. A doctor signs the death certificate. c. A funeral director moves the body to the funeral home. d. A cremation is conducted.

124. Which statement best characterizes the experience of death during late adulthood? a. Accidents remain the number one leading cause of death. b. Older adults fear death more than illness. c. Older adults may be at great risk for accidents as a result of sensory problems. d. Heart disease and cancer are the major killers of people at this age.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 125. Which statement best characterizes the outstanding obligations following the death of a loved one? a. Family members might have to deal with outstanding debt. b. Financial arrangements are completely determined by provincial law. c. A lawyer is rarely needed. d. Few legal matters arise because they are typically taken care of before one’s death.

126. What is the role of hospice care? a. to work only with the dying patient b. to focus on the patient’s recovery c. to take control over the patient’s situation so he or she can avoid making any decisions d. to provide medication to relieve pain and to offer other services to help the patient and the patient’s family 127. Your grandparent is dying and you seek therapy from a local therapist who will help you to proceed through the stages of death developed by the work of Kübler-Ross (1969). Which of the following is included in KüblerRoss’s stages of death? a. dismissal b. absence c. bargaining d. relief 128. According to the text, what percentage of the disability community supports medically assisted dying in Canada? a. 20 b. 40 c. 60 d. 85 129. What is the role of CaringBridge? a. It is a nursing service that does home visits. b. It is a support organization that focuses on caregivers. c. It is a hospice organization. d. It is a social media support to allow those who are ill to blog for family and friends.

130. Which statement best represents adolescents’ experience of the death of a loved one? a. They deny that death has occurred. b. They eliminate their risky behaviour. c. They typically fall apart emotionally. d. They may reduce their risky behaviour if they see how death applies to them.

131. Alicia, who has two young children, was recently diagnosed with terminal breast cancer. She continually cries and worries about her children’s future when she is gone. According to Kübler-Ross (1969), which stage of dying is Alicia demonstrating? a. denial b. bargaining c. depression d. acceptance

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 132. Which statement best exemplifies the “denial” stage identified by Kübler-Ross (1969)? a. Why is God punishing me? b. The diagnosis must be wrong. c. I promise to be good if this illness goes away. d. I understand that I am going to die and I am going to prepare for it.

133. What question did Randy Pausch pose to his students in his last lecture before he died? a. Can we all leave loved ones behind more fulfilled than when we met them? b. What will be your legacy through your life lived? c. Do we search for the fun in every situation, or do we choose to wallow in self-misery? d. Are we all placed on earth for a reason or is there really nothing larger than life?

134. Which statement best characterizes dying in a hospital? a. It rarely occurs in Canada today. b. It is considered inhumane by most people. c. It is now more common than dying at home. d. It is usually a result of uncaring family members.

135. Which of the following is a stage of grief identified by Bowlby (1961)? a. shock-numbness b. acceptance-agreeableness c. disagreement-frustration d. anger-bargaining 136. What advice would you give to your grandmother, who would like to have a living will created so that she is sure that her medical wishes will be carried out if she is no longer able to speak for herself? a. She should hurry up and get her living will in place because it is the best way to guarantee her wishes will be followed. b. She would be better served by creating specific healthcare directives, such as when a DNR order should be followed. c. She should just tell her friends what she wants to have done because they will be better able to support her in dying than a doctor. d. Living wills only address financial issues and do nothing to help with healthcare concerns.

137. Which statement best characterizes the use of a living will? a. It is typically ignored at most hospitals. b. It was considered unconstitutional in 1990. c. It takes effect as soon as a patient is admitted to a hospital. d. It is a legal document outlining a person’s end-of-life wishes.

138. Which statement best describes the effect on a child when a loved one dies? a. The child will likely act more mature than typical for his or her age. b. The death may affect a child’s sense of security and safety. c. The child will be affected in the same way that adults are affected. d. The child will be unaffected because he or she lacks the cognitive development to fully understand death.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 139. When trying to help a loved one who is grieving, which of the following should you do? a. Talk about the dead person if your loved one wants to. b. Have many of the answers to the questions the person asks. c. Leave your loved one alone because privacy is what most grieving people want and need. d. Watch what you say because the wrong thing could plunge the person into deeper despair.

140. Which factor most influences our understanding of mortality? a. our age b. our education c. our gender d. our beliefs 141. Which statement best represents Bowlby’s (1961) theory of grieving? a. It relates only to death. b. It does not include stages of grief. c. It is a continuous theory that can be applied specifically to accidental deaths. d. It is a stage theory that has been adapted and applied to various types of losses 142. Which of the following is defined as the irreversible cessation of breathing and circulation or the irreversible cessation of brain activity? a. whole-brain death b. the legal definition of death in Canada c. an old definition of death, not what is currently used d. the first of three criteria in the definition of death used in Canada today 143. Which statement describes the key difference between dying in a hospital and dying under hospice care? a. Hospitals deal with all ages and hospices only deal with elderly patients. b. Hospitals are equipped to deal with the dying and hospices are equipped to deal with families of the dying. c. Hospitals have paid staff and hospices are run by volunteers. d. Hospitals function to treat illnesses and hospices provide a supportive environment for the patient and family.

144. Which statement best represents the views suggested by theorists of social and emotional development during late adulthood? a. Many people should no longer be driving because of their slower reaction time. b. Life satisfaction is highest for those who ignore death. c. People should become more proactive in their screenings for cardiovascular problems. d. Ego transcendence may make facing death easier than in previous times of life.

145. According to the textbook, which of the following has been identified a factor that can affect people’s adjustment to their impending deaths? a. the type and extent of organic cerebral impairment b. the experience of their primary care physician c. the nature of their illness d. the quality of their relationships Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 146. Martha is in what Kübler-Ross (1969) would call the “acceptance” stage. Which of the following did Martha just say? a. Why me? b. It’s not fair. c. I am ready to meet my maker. d. Someone must have made a mistake.

147. After death occurs, who completes the death certificate? a. a doctor b. a lawyer c. a coroner d. a police officer or other emergency response professional 148. Which statement best represents the role of hospice care? a. It treats the disease. b. It focuses on palliative care. c. It emphasizes quantity of life. d. It recommends shortening one’s life in many cases.

149. Which statement best characterizes those who experience “disenfranchised grief”? a. They feel grief less than those who experience true grief. b. They may feel marginalized by others in their grief. c. Their grief is delayed by six months to one year. d. They are generally fully supported by society and the family of the deceased.

150. Which of the following is an example of terminal sedation? a. providing a lethal injection to a prisoner who is receiving the death penalty b. removing a breathing tube from a comatose patient c. providing enough barbiturates to a patient who is dying so he or she becomes unconscious d. withholding the necessary medication required to sustain life 151. Which statement best describes the impact of Kay Carter? a. She was a young woman who was living with an incurable disease (Guillain-Barré syndrome) and bedridden for life. b. She asked the doctors to disconnect the respirator that was keeping her alive, arguing that no one can be made to undergo treatment without consent. c. Her case was important in making change to Canada’s laws on medically assisted dying. d. As a result of her case the courts ruled that the doctors would not be permitted to aid to commit suicide.

152. What is the legal status of medically assisted dying in Canada? a. It is only permitted when an individual is diagnosed with cancer. b. It is permitted only for those over the age of 50. c. It is legal only when aided by a physician for terminally ill patient undergoing intolerable suffering. d. A patient’s spouse may administer a lethal drug to the dying patient with consent.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 153. Joseph is in what Kübler-Ross (1969) would call the “bargaining” stage. Which of the following did Joseph just say? a. Life has no meaning. b. I plan to die with dignity. c. This is the doctor’s fault for misdiagnosing me. d. I will help the poor at my church if I can live longer.

154. Which of the following has been shown by research on grief? a. Stage theories of grief are not supported. b. Stage theories of grief have some support. c. The order and timing of grief is generally the same for those who grieve. d. Although the stages are shown to exist, they occur in a different order than predicted by the theories.

155. Which statement best characterizes the reason for having a living will? a. to indicate one’s wishes in terms of medical intervention in the case of incapacitation and inability to communicate b. to determine the allocation of one’s earthly possessions after death c. to provide one’s preferences in terms of funeral arrangements d. to provide a legal document that outlines the type and form of death preferred 156. Which statement best characterizes the use of health care directives? a. They are more specific than living wills. b. They are always followed by physicians and other health care workers. c. They are rarely legal in Canada. d. They outline the type of death a person wishes to experience.

157. Which statement best characterizes hospice care? a. It is only available in hospitals. b. Its total focus is on health care for the dying patient. c. It focuses on dying with dignity and as pain-free as possible. d. It is reserved for those who are expected to recover rather than those who are dying.

158. Stephen’s wife has died and he is trying cope with her death. What is the best advice for Stephen? a. Go about your regular life; time heals. b. Take care of yourself. c. You will feel better in about 6 months. d. Grieving is unhealthy because it requires withdrawing from life.

159. Why is blood donation such a valuable gift? a. One donation can make a difference in the lives of up to 10 people in a car accident. b. It provides a means of checking in with medical professionals without needing a doctor. c. It creates a sense of accomplishment for the donor. d. It can take up to 5 donors to help a cancer patient who requires blood transfusions.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 160. Which statement best represents the critiques of stage theories of grieving? a. Everyone grieves the same way, therefore theories are not needed. b. The timing of events is the same for everyone, but the order may be different from predicted. c. More emotions may be experienced than outlined. d. Many people do not grieve, given the circumstances surrounding every death. a. death b. bargaining c. cremations d. organ and blood donation e. palliative care f. whole-brain death g. acceptance h. active euthanasia i. hospital j. denial k. 60% l. hospice m. terminal sedation n. brain death o. anger 161. “I’ll be a better person if I can just live a while longer” 162. Are about 25% of the cost of a burial 163. Last stage of dying according to Kübler-Ross 164. Medicating someone in the last hours until death 165. Cessation of life 166. Focuses on pain management 167. “It is the wrong diagnosis” 168. Where most people die 169. The gift of life 170. People cremated in Canada 171. Stoppage of all brain activity 172. Focuses on the quality of life 173. Shortens life with a treatment 174. “It’s the doctor’s fault I am dying” 175. Cessation of cortical activity

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 176. What is the purpose of a living will?

177. What are the stages of dying, according to Kübler-Ross (1969)?

178. How do children experience death of a loved one differently from older people?

179. How does the Canadian Medical Association (CMA) define the several different definitions to be used when discussing end-of-life medical decisions?

180. During Randy Pausch’s lectures, he spoke about embracing negative feedback. Why did he suggest that this was important?

181. What is hospice?

182. What is death and how is it defined?

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 183. What are the best ways to help a dying person?

184. How do bereavement, grief, and mourning differ?

185. How have Kübler-Ross’s (1969) stages of dying been criticized by others?

186. How do most Canadians think about their own mortality, and what factors influence this?

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce Answer Key 1. True 2. False 3. True 4. False 5. False 6. True 7. False 8. False 9. True 10. False 11. True 12. False 13. False 14. False 15. False 16. False 17. True 18. False 19. False 20. True 21. True 22. True 23. True 24. True 25. True 26. True

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 27. False 28. False 29. False 30. False 31. False 32. False 33. True 34. True 35. True 36. False 37. False 38. True 39. False 40. False 41. False 42. False 43. True 44. False 45. False 46. True 47. True 48. False 49. False 50. True 51. True 52. True 53. False 54. True Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 55. True 56. False 57. False 58. True 59. c 60. c 61. d 62. c 63. b 64. b 65. d 66. c 67. d 68. c 69. c 70. d 71. c 72. a 73. a 74. a 75. c 76. a 77. c 78. c 79. b 80. b 81. c 82. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 83. c 84. a 85. a 86. c 87. d 88. a 89. d 90. c 91. b 92. b 93. b 94. c 95. b 96. c 97. a 98. b 99. b 100. a 101. a 102. a 103. b 104. c 105. c 106. a 107. c 108. d 109. c 110. c Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 111. d 112. d 113. c 114. c 115. a 116. b 117. a 118. d 119. a 120. b 121. b 122. c 123. a 124. d 125. a 126. d 127. c 128. d 129. d 130. d 131. c 132. b 133. c 134. c 135. a 136. b 137. d

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 138. b 139. a 140. d 141. d 142. b 143. d 144. d 145. a 146. c 147. a 148. b 149. b 150. c 151. c 152. c 153. d 154. b 155. a 156. a 157. c 158. b 159. d 160. c 161. b 162. c 163. g 164. m 165. a Copyright Cengage Learning. Powered by Cognero.

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 166. e 167. j 168. i 169. d 170. k 171. f 172. l 173. h 174. o 175. n 176. A living will is a legal document created to specify the wishes of a person in the event that she or he is incapacitated at a time when life decisions need to be made. A good living will provides very explicit descriptions of the conditions under which decisions should be made and in what manner. A living will often designates another person to be responsible for decisions should the person in question be incapable of making decisions.

177. The first stage of dying is denial, in which a person believes that he or she is not actually dying. The second stage is anger, in which the person experiences anger and resentment, possibly toward a higher power, the medical establishment, or the turn of events that have led to this situation. Bargaining, the third stage, occurs when a person tries to make a deal, often with a higher authority, to be able to live longer or to no longer be terminally ill. Depression is a negative mood that occurs when someone experiences grief and sadness regarding his or her impending death.

Acceptance, the last stage of dying, occurs when the dying person is able to accept and understand the impending death.

178. Children often do not understand that death is a permanent state. Children may expect that someone is just sleeping and will awaken or will return from a long journey. Children experience grief and may regress, or they may become aggressive after a loved one dies. It is not uncommon for children to deny the situation, although prolonged denial is a sign of a problem. Children may continue to maintain a relationship with a deceased loved one or may have closure in the situation. The more information a child has about the biological aspects of death, the more likely she or he is to understand the death in ways similar to older people.

179. The Canadian Medical Association (CMA) has developed several definitions to be used when discussing end-of-life medical decisions. Euthanasia means knowingly and intentionally performing an act intended to end another person’s life. In euthanasia, the subject (patient) has an incurable illness, and the agent (assister) is aware of the lifethreatening condition. The primary intent of the agent’s act is to end life, and the act is undertaken with empathy and compassion and without personal gain. The CMA identifies three types of euthanasia: voluntary euthanasia, nonvoluntary euthanasia, and involuntary euthanasia.

180.

Pausch asked, “Do we search for the fun in every situation, or do we choose to wallow in self misery?” He spoke about moments that change our lives forever and that disappointments provide us with insight into how much we want to achieve something. He said that embracing negative feedback is important because “when people stop saying anything to you anymore, they have given up on you.”

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Chap_19_HDEV_4ce 181. Hospice is a program that works with people with a terminal illness diagnosis and their families. Hospice care relies on a team of professionals, such as physicians, nurses, social workers, and religious figures who provide physical and psychological care to the patient and family. The type of care includes palliative care, therapy for improving quality of life, and bereavement counselling. This care typically continues from the time of diagnosis through a year past the death of the patient.

182. Death is the cessation of life. It is biologically and legally the same as brain death, in which the cerebral cortex no longer has electrical activity. It is considered to be death of consciousness. In Canada, a person is considered legally dead if there is an irreversible cessation of breathing and circulation or if there is an irreversible cessation of brain activity, including activity in the brain stem, which controls breathing 183. Show the person you care by talking with him or her and by helping with household tasks. Be sensitive to the emotional state of the person, which may change from moment to moment. Do not make assumptions about what to say, what not to say, or how to say it. Give of yourself and talk about yourself, sharing your concerns and joys. Allow the person to speak freely, even if they want to talk about their illness.

184. Bereavement is the sense of loss following the death of a loved one. It is the state of deprivation and longing one may feel. Grief, which goes along with bereavement, is the sense of profound sadness that one experiences. Mourning is the public display of grief and is often culturally determined. For example, depending on the culture, a mourner may wear black, rent her clothes, wail, and mark the time since the death in ritual ways.

185. Some theorists believe that Kübler-Ross overemphasized the invariant nature of the stages, instead believing that people experience a lot of overlap and repetition of the stages. Also, some believed that dying is not stage-like and that different people will experience death in different ways. It is not necessary for someone to reach acceptance.

Additionally, these stages were considered to be less relevant to someone who was not old and to those without a diagnosis of a terminal illness.

186. Across the lifespan we may have different viewpoints. As young people we consider it something that is a long way off. We may rarely think about our mortality despite the reality that death can happen at any age or stage of our lives. Our religion, culture, and individual beliefs impact our understanding of mortality. Indigenous cultures approach death and dying collectively and plan celebrational ceremonies to mark death.

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